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135
cecb808d-11f6-46b8-bf19-a2e295acc9c3
Which of the following is true about right principal bronchus
Short and thin
Short and broad
Long and broad
Long and thin
1b
multi
The right main bronchus (or right primary bronchus, or right principal bronchus), wider, shorter, and more vertical in direction than the left, is about 2.5 cm. long, and enters the right lung nearly opposite the fifth thoracic vertebra. The azygos vein arches over it from behind; and the right pulmonary artery lies at first below and then in front of it
Unknown
null
ff5c5e25-3707-41f7-9c95-d70e6ed70343
What constitutes a spinal motion segment?
A disc and the facet joints at that level.
A disc and the vertebrae above and below, including their interlocking facet joints.
A section of the spine involved in a physiological curve with the similar function (i.e. thoracic kyphosis).
A vertebral body and the disc above.
1b
multi
Ans. B. A disc and the vertebrae above and below, including their interlocking facet joints.A spinal motion segment is made up of a disc with its adjacent vertebrae and their interlocking facet joints devoid of musculature
Orthopaedics
Spinal Injuries
788047e9-3a3d-4b0c-9e4b-004d496c4ce6
Closure of coronal sutures starts at age of -
20 years
25 years
30-35 years
50-60 years
1b
single
This question is tricky one. Most of the guides have given option c is the answer. Which is incorrect. Coronal suture is completely obliterated at 35-40 years. But, read the question carefully, examiner is asking when the closure starts (not completes). Closure of coronal, lambdoid and sagittal sutures starts at inner side at 25 years. And it is complete on outer side :- Sagittal suture → 30-35 years. Coronal suture → 35-40 years. Lambdoid suture →  45-50 years.
Forensic Medicine
null
3fef645f-e543-44e0-9e20-4bca2af5f7aa
Epithelial mesenchymal interaction in tooth development is an example of:
Cell signaling
Calcification
Histodifferentiation
Morphodifferentiation
0a
single
Cells interact through a system of effectors, modulators, and receptors called cell signaling. An example of such a system is epithelial-mesenchymal interaction in tooth development. The precursor cells, odontoblast and ameloblast, establish a positional relationship by means of effectors and receptors that are on the cell surface.
Dental
null
614007a1-93dd-45a4-8bf5-53379bda96e0
A 23-year-old male developed an excruciating chest pain and palpitations after drinking 4 cans of energy drink at night while revising for final year exams. He was brought to ED, and his ECG showed sinus tachycardia but no ST change. Pulse was 90/min and BP was 130 /90 mm Hg. The pain subsided after a sho while. His physical examination was normal. He gave a history that last year his father had a myocardial infarction at the age of 60. All his lab findings were in a normal range. Troponin and D-dimer tests came out to be negative. What shall be the next step in management?
Closely observe and monitor
Put him on exercise treadmill test
Do a Stress echocardiogram
No fuher investigation is required
3d
multi
The symptoms of chest pain and palpitations has developed in the patient due rapid adrenaline gush in his system due to energy drink. As ECG shows, no ST elevation, it rules out STEMI. This patient currently has a very low risk of coronary disease and so no fuher ischaemic stratification is necessary. In view of family history, primary prevention is of utmost impoance.
Medicine
Acute coronary syndrome
708505d4-4b0f-4318-8357-b98f309b06ef
An example of a preventive antioxidant is:
Catalase
Tocopherol
Superoxide dismutase
Urate
0a
single
Antioxidants fall into two classes: Preventive antioxidants, which reduce the rate of chain initiation.  ex: Catalase and other peroxidases such as glutathione peroxidase. Chain-breaking antioxidants, which interfere with chain propagation.  ex: Superoxide Dismutase, Uric Acid, Vitamin E (Most powerful). Key Concept: Catalase falls into preventive anti-oxidants which reduce the rate of chain initiation. Ref : Harper’s illustrated biochemistry, 31st edition.
Biochemistry
null
78b3e2d3-cc6d-43bf-988a-40e8fe87fc91
Grayish white membrane in throat may be seen in all of the following infections except:
Streptococcal tonsilitis
Diphtheria
Adenovirus
Ludwig's angina
3d
multi
Membrane in Throat is Caused by Pyogenic organisms viz. Streptococci, Staphylococci causing membranous tonsillitis Diphtheria Vincent's angina (Caused by fusiform bacilli and spirochetes: Borrelia vincentii) Candidiasis/monoliasis/oral thrush Infectious mononucleosis Agranulocytosis Leukemia Aphthous ulcers Traumatic ulcers
ENT
null
5d2bfa02-b76f-44b6-909b-4d1198adff83
Injection of muscarinic agonist in conjunctival sac will lead to all of the following except-
Conjunctival and uveal hyperaemia
Ciliary spasm
Miosis
Decreased secretion from ciliary epithelium
3d
multi
Effects of muscarinic agents 1) Blood vessel dilation causing conjunctival and uveal hyperaemia 2) Ciliary spasm 3) Miosis 4) Increased aqueous outflow due to opening of trabecular meshwork due to ciliary muscle contraction. Ref: Yanoff & Duker 2nd/e p.1121
Ophthalmology
Miscellaneous
261ca07d-24e0-40ac-b2cc-1eae4c606418
A 7 year old boy with boggy swelling of the scalp with multiple discharging sinuses with cervical lymphadenopathy with easily pluckable hair. What would be done for diagnosis?
Pus for culture
KOH mount
Biopsy
None of the above
1b
multi
KOH mount The patient gives classic presentation of Kerion (Tinea capitis). Tinea capitis It is an infection caused by dermatophyte fungi usually species of the genera (microsporum and Trichophyton)) of scalp hair follicles and the surrounding skin. It is predominantly a disease of preadolescent children. The main pathogens are anthrophilic organisms with Trichophyton Tonsurans accounting for > 90% cases. There are two patterns of the disease : Endothrix --> Spores (anthroconidia) within the hair shaft Ectothrix --> Hyphae and anthrocondia outside the hair shaft Investigation needed in cases of Tinea capitis Microscopy Potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mounts Microscopy provides the most rapid diagnosis. Samples are taken from the site of infection and are demonstrated using 10% (KOH). - KOH dissolves the keratin and the fungus is easily demonstrated using the low power objective. - The slide is examined for fungal hyphae and spores Cultures - Cultures need to be done when KOH mount is negative or when it is necessary to identify the .fungal species. - Fungi are cultured on sabroud's dextrose agar. - Culture is more sensitive than microscopy and the result may be positive even when microscopy is negative. Wood's ultraviolet light - When wood's ultraviolet light is shown on hairs they produce green fluorescence with microspora infection but will .fail to identify Trichophyton tonsurans.
Skin
null
bf0aac42-006d-4011-8c61-dd7cc6168f59
A 50 year old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus is found to have 24-hr urinary albumin of 250 mg. Which of thefollowing drugs may be used to retard progression of renal disease -
Hydrochlohiazide
Enalapril
Amiloride
Aspirin
1b
single
Answer is option 2 - Enalapril ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers are specifically indicated to reduce progression of renal disease. Drug specific benefit in patients in diabetic nephropathy independent of blood pressure control has been shown only for ACE inhibitors and ARB&;s in patients with DM. Ref Harrison 19 /2428
Medicine
Endocrinology
7e2108a8-ee1e-4857-a533-649df5b80f08
Which one of the following is of most serious prognostic significance in a patient of essential hypertension -
Diastolic blood pressure greater than 130 mmHg
Transient ischaemic attacks
Left ventricular hypertrophy
Papilloedema and progressive renal failure
3d
single
null
Medicine
null
b5beb38a-e567-4bdc-89ab-8d2e2558affd
An 8-year-old boy presents with Intellectual deterioration and myoclonus. The diagnosis is
GSS
SSPE
Kuru
C-J disease
1b
single
(B) SSPE # SUBACUTE SCLEROSING PANENCEPHALITIS (SSPE) is a rare progressive demyelinating disease of the CNS associated with a chronic infection of brain tissue with measles virus.> Most patients give a history of primary measles infection at an early age (2 years), which is followed after a latent interval of 6 to 8 years by the development of insidious intellectual decline and mood and personality changes.> Typical signs of a CNS viral infection, including fever and headache, do not occur. Focal and/or generalized seizures, myoclonus, ataxia, and visual disturbances occur as the disease progresses. The EEG shows a characteristic periodic pattern with bursts every 3 to 8 s of high-voltage, sharp slow waves, followed by periods of attenuated ("flat") background.> The CSF is acellular with a normal or mildly elevated protein level and a markedly elevated globulin level (>20% of total CSF protein). CSF antimeasles antibody levels are invariably elevated, and oligoclonal antimeasles antibodies are often present.> CT and MRI show evidence of multifocal white matter lesions and generalized atrophy. Measles virus can be cultured from Drain tissue, and viral genome can be detected by in situ hybridization or PCR amplification.> Treatment with isoprinosine (Inosiplex) (100 mg/kg per day), alone or in combination with intrathecal or intraventricular interferon has been reported to prolong survival and produce clinical improvement in some patients but has never been subjected to a controlled clinical trial.
Medicine
Miscellaneous
d9e8e6cd-8542-4548-9f5a-84f344587e21
Organs first to be injured in the blast-
Ear, lung
Kidney, spleen
Pancreas, duodenum
Liver, muscle
0a
single
Tympanic membrane is most sensitive & most commonly injured. Lung is second most sensitive. The lung is the most common cause of life-threatening injury.
Forensic Medicine
null
65a8461e-5015-4faf-95d0-ded1e3d46065
Surgical excision of parotid gland endangers which of the following structures:
Hypoglossal nerve
Motor nerve of the muscles of mastication
External carotid artery, auriculotemporal nerve, facial nerve
Lesser occipital nerve and spinal accessory nerve
2c
single
null
Anatomy
null
312d84a2-9555-46d5-8cda-231abc57d706
A 30 year old male bhuvan,fish handler by profession came to OPD with multiple skin nodules and discharging sinuses over the right hand as show below.Which of the following organism can likely cause this condition?
Mycobacterium.burudi
Parapox virus
Mycobacterium marinum
Actinomyces israeli
2c
single
The nodules and discharging sinuses along the lymphatics are typically sporotrichoid in appearance.The history reveals he is a fish handler which suggests the diagnosis of "fish tank granuloma or swimming pool granuloma" caused by Mycobacteria.marinum commonly seen in fish tank handlers and swimmers.
Dental
null
b9207386-d389-484b-b29d-5e0403db0593
Which of the following is nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor ?
Indinavir
Nelfinavir
Tenofovir
Lopinavir
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Tenofovir Antiretroviral drugs Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NIs) ? Zidovudin, Didanosine, Zalcitabine, Stavudine, Lamivudine, Abacavir. Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor- Tenofovir (Katzung 10th/e) Nonucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNIS) - Nevirapine, Eirenz, Delavirdine, Etravirine. d)Protease inhibitors - Ritonavir, Indinavir, Nelfinavir, Saquinavir, amprenavir, Lopinavir, Fosamprenavir, Atazanavir, Darunavir, Tipranavir. Fusion inhibitor - Enfuviide, Maraviroc. Integrase inhibitors - Roltegravir, Elvitegravir.
Pharmacology
null
87fd0e9d-3036-4740-a9e7-693ede4e8398
Orally administered anti kala-azar drug is?
Paromomycin
Miltefosine
Amphotericin
Sodium stibogluconate
1b
multi
ANSWER: (B) MiltefosineREF: Harrison's 18th ed ch: 212Drugs for lieshmeniasis and their route of administration:DrugDose and routeRemarksPentavalent Antimonial CompoundsTwo pentavalent antmonial (Sb) preparations are available: sodium stibogluconate (100 mg of SbVmL) and meglumine antimonate (85 mg of Sb/mL).The daily dose is 20 mg/kg by rapid IV infusion or IM injection, and therapy continues for 28-30 daysAdverse reactions to Sb treatment are common and include arthralgia, myalgia, and elevated serum levels of aminotransferases. Electrocardiographic changes are common. Concave ST segment elevation is not significant, but prolongation of QT to >0.5 s may herald ventricular arrhythmia and sudden death. Chemical pancreatitis is common but usually does not require discontinuation of treatment; severe clinical pancreatitis occurs in im- munosuppressed patients.Conventional Amphotericin B deoxycholate0.75-1.0 mg/kg on alternate days for a total of 15 infusions.Fever with chills is an almost universal adverse reaction to AmB infusions. Nausea and vomiting are also common, as is thrombophlebitis in the infused veins. AmB can cause renal dysfunction and hypokalemia and in rare instances elicits hypersensitivity reactions, bone marrow suppression, and myocarditis, all of which can be fatal.The several lipid formulations of AmB3 mg/kg daily on days 1-5,14, and 21 (total dose, 21 mg/kg). However, the total dose requirement for different regions of the world varies widely. In a study in India, a single dose of 10 mg,'leg cured infection in 96% of patients.Adverse effects of liposomal AmB are usually mild and include infusion reactions, backache, and occasional reversible nephrotoxicity.Because very little free drug is available to cause toxicity, a large amount of drug can be delivered over a short period.Paromomycin (aminosi- dine)IM dose of 11 mg of base/kg daily for 21 daysParomomycin is a relatively safe drug, but some patients develop hepatotoxicity, reversible ototoxicity, and (in rare instances) nephrotoxicity' and tetany.MiitefosineFirst oral compound approved for the treatment of leishmaniasis.Daily dose of 50 mg for 28 days for patients weighing <25 kg, a twice-daily dose of 50 mg for 28 days for patients weighing >25 kg, and 2.5 mg/kg for 28 days for children 2-11 years of age.Its adverse effects include mild to moderate vomiting and diarrhea in 40% and 20% of patients, respectively; these reactions usually clear spontaneously after a few days. Rare cases of severe allergic dermatitis, hepatotoxicity, and nephrotoxicity have been reported.best administered as directly observed therapy to ensure completion of treatment and to minimize the risk of resistance induction c/I in pregnancy
Pharmacology
D.O.C
4e6461df-d8f5-4081-8726-5804963cc926
A clinical study is undertaken with subjects from families in which complications of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease and tendinous xanthomas occurred before age 30 years. Some of the children in these families are observed to have early atheroma formation. These affected individuals benefit from treatment with pharmacologic agents that inhibit HMG-CoA reductase. Affected individuals in these families are most likely to have a mutation in a gene encoding a cell surface receptor for which of the following?
Cortisol
Insulin
LDL cholesterol
Leptin
2c
single
Familial hypercholesterolemia results from mutations in the LDL receptor gene, causing plasma LDL cholesterol to increase because it is not catabolized or taken up by the liver. It is an autosomal dominant disorder with a carrier rate of 1 in 500, so the frequency of homozygosity is 1 in 1 million. Heterozygotes have total serum cholesterol levels twice normal; homozygotes have levels even higher, with death from myocardial infarction by the second decade. The statin drugs inhibit the HMG-CoA reductase and reduce cholesterol levels in heterozygotes. Steroid hormone receptors, such as those for cortisol, are located in the cell nucleus. Insulin receptors play a role in glucose metabolism and glycemic control that may be part of diabetes mellitus with risk for atherosclerosis; statin drugs have no effect on diabetes mellitus. Abnormal leptin receptors may play a role in some forms of obesity. TGF-a is a growth factor with a role in inflammation, cell proliferation, and repair.
Pathology
Genetics
65319b70-54dd-40c1-a7de-f6f31c8b9086
Which Substance does not cross the blood-brain barrier?
Insulin
Urea
Testosterone
Glucose
0a
single
Substances cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) by a variety of mechanisms. These include transmembrane diffusion, saturable transpoers, adsorptive endocytosis, and the extracellular pathways. ... Most drugs in clinical use to date are small, lipid soluble molecules that cross the BBB by transmembrane diffusion Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 671,672,673
Physiology
G.I.T
41729105-2e4b-4944-903c-6181a9749aec
A 73-year-old woman presents with increasing weakness, most noticeable in the legs. She has noticed some cramping and weakness in the upper extremities as well. She has more difficulty removing the lids from jars than before. She has noticed some stiffness in the neck but denies back pain or injury. There is no bowel or bladder incontinence. She takes naproxen for osteoarthritis and is on alendronate for osteoporosis. She smokes one pack of cigarettes daily. The general physical examination reveals decreased range of motion in the cervical spine. On neurological examination, the patient has 4/5 strength in the hands with mild atrophy of the interosseous muscles. She also has 4/5 strength in the feet; the weakness is more prominent in the distal musculature. She has difficulty with both heel walking and toe walking. Reflexes are hyperactive in the lower extremities. Sustained clonus is demonstrated at the ankles. What is the best next step in her management?
Obtain MRI scan of the head
Begin riluzole
Obtain MRI scan of the cervical spine
Check muscle enzymes including creatine kinase and aldolase
2c
multi
Cervical spondylosis (arthritis) or midline disc protrusion can cause cervical myelopathy, which can mimic amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. The neck pain and stiffness can be mild. The patient can have both lower motor neuron signs such as atrophy, reflex loss, and even fasciculations in the arms and upper motor neuron signs such as hyperreflexia and clonus (from cord compression) in the legs. Therefore, the diagnosis of ALS is never made without imaging studies of the cervical cord, as compressive cervical myelopathy is a remediable condition. Starting riluzole to slow the progression of ALS would, therefore, be inappropriate at this point. Disease in the cortex would never cause this combination of bilateral upper and lower neuron disease, so an MRI scan of the brain would be superfluous. Myopathies such as polymyositis or metabolic myopathy cause more proximal than distal weakness and would not be associated with hyperreflexia. You should think of disease of the neuromuscular junction (e.g., myasthenia gravis) or muscle when the neurological examination is normal except for weakness. Simply referring the patient for physical or occupational therapy would leave her potentially treatable cervical spine disease undiagnosed. Decompressive surgery can improve symptoms and halt progressive loss of function in cervical myelopathy.
Medicine
C.N.S.
5754b3ee-b5c8-4c06-a4d7-a835b23a3e05
Regarding the use of halothane in obsteric surgery,which is true –
There is increased risk of PPH
It has no effect on uterine musculature
Best used in caesarean section
None is true
0a
multi
As halothane causes uterine relaxation, post-partum hemorrhage can occur.
Anaesthesia
null
cc46b8ca-ae8e-4dd5-9493-956fcd7a8d51
Commonest among diseases with Mendelian inheritance is –
Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X–linked recessive
X–dominant
0a
single
It is estimated that the combined incidence of mendelian inheritance (autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, x-linked) in man is about 1% of all live born individuals. As many as 793 autosornal dominant phenotypes, 629 autosomal recessive traits and 123 sex linked diseases have been catalogued to date.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
1516ccb0-ae26-43aa-92d4-a3f5f4d4a8a9
Regarding isoflurane all are true except
Is a respiratory depressant
Causes tachycardia
Is metabolised to inorganic fluoride ions
Implicated in causing seizures
3d
multi
Isoflurane is not epileptogenic.
Anaesthesia
null
295e3b58-d546-4e87-866f-491d71e9e21a
Bone resorption markers are all except
Taarate resistant acid phosphatase
Osteocalcin
Cross linked-N-telopeptides
Urine total free deoxypyridiflolone
1b
multi
Tarate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRACP) is an enzyme that is expressed in high amounts by bone resorbing osteoclasts, inflammatory macrophages and dendritic cells. Two forms of TRACP circulate in human blood, TRACP 5a derived from macrophages and dendritic cells, and TRACP 5b derived from osteoclasts. Recent data have demonstrated the utility of TRACP 5b as a marker of osteoclast number and bone resorption, and serum TRACP 5a as a marker of inflammatory conditions. Cross-linked N-telopeptide of type-I collagen (NTx) is one of the biochemical markers of bone resorption, and is widely used in clinical situations to evaluate the indication and efficacy of treatments for osteoporosis. Deoxypyridinoline (DPD) in urine, which reflects systemic bone resorption, is considered useful for assessing the effects of osteoporosis treatment. Refer robbins 9/e p774
Pathology
Breast
4f29a09a-927a-4319-b8e1-0be7a6e7c30a
Most serious complication of myelogram is
Allergy
Transient neurological deficit
Headache
Arachnoiditis
3d
multi
Ans. Arachnoiditis
Radiology
null
a0b7720b-0f0d-40f0-94c2-b3c22807bfaf
TROTTER'S TRIAD is seen in-
Juvenile nasal angiofibroma
Acoustic neuroma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Glomus tumour
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Trotter's triado Trotter's triad occurs in nasopharyngeal carcinoma. It includes :-i) Conductive deafness (due to Eustachian tube blockage)ii) Temporo - parietal neuralgia (due to involvement of ipsilateral Vth cranial nerveiii) Palatal paralysis (due to involvement of Xth cranial nerve)
ENT
Tumors
deed20e5-f47a-4ab0-836c-003232c65802
Branches of coeliac axis are all except:
Splenic aery
Left gastric aery
Hepatic aery
Inferior phrenic aery
3d
multi
D. i.e. Inferior Phrenic aery
Anatomy
null
8e327cbe-2bdf-46d6-96bd-2e7532f8bae8
Non-gonococcal vaginal discharge, dysuria and frequency of urine may be due to infection with: March 2003
Trichomonas vaginalis
Trichomonas vaginalis
Candida albicans
Chlamydia trachomatis
3d
single
Ans. D i.e. Chlamydia trachomatis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
71ae477d-513a-433a-a1fc-274ef84cb05b
Organic mental disease is indicated by:
Incoherence
Delusion
Flight of idea
Perseveration of speech
3d
single
Perseveration of speech is suggestive of organic mental disorders. Few books are giving the answer as delusion which is completely wrong. Flight of ideas is seen in case of mania. Incoherence is formal thought disorder characteristic of Schizophrenia.
Psychiatry
Organic Mental Disorders
dd3a4270-e757-4783-9eee-9a5bb5b6d3da
Commonest source of extradural hemorrhage: UP 09
Middle meningeal aery
Basilar aery
Charcot's aery
Middle cerebral aery
0a
single
Ans. Middle meningeal aery
Forensic Medicine
null
f489590c-7a81-44d0-b7fb-aca02bbf4ee6
Which causes antral gastrin release?
Antral distension
Acid
Secretin
Calcitonin
0a
single
Gastrin is produced by cells called G cells in the antral poion of the gastric mucosa.G cells are flask-shaped, with a broad base containing many gastrin granules and a narrow apex that reaches the mucosal surface. Microvilli project from the apical end into the lumen. Receptors mediating gastrin responses to changes in gastric contents are present on the microvilli. Other cells in the gastrointestinal tract that secrete hormones have a similar morphology. Gastrin is typical of a number of polypeptide hormones in that it shows both microheterogeneity and microheterogeneity. Microheterogeneity refers to the occurrence in tissues and body fluids of peptide chains of various lengths; microheterogeneity refers to differences in molecular structure due to derivatization of single amino acid residues. preprogastrin is processed into fragments of various sizes. Three main fragments contain 34, 17, and 14 amino acid residues. All have the same carboxyl terminal configuration. In large doses, gastrin has a variety of actions, but its principal physiologic actions are stimulation of gastric acid and pepsin secretion and stimulation of the growth of the mucosa of the stomach and small and large intestines (trophic action). Gastrin secretion is affected by the contents of the stomach, the rate of discharge of the vagus nerves, and bloodborne factors. Atropine does not inhibit the gastrin response to a test meal in humans, because the transmitter secreted by the postganglionic vagal fibers that innervate the G cells is gastrin-releasing polypeptide rather than acetylcholine. Gastrin secretion is also increased by the presence of the products of protein digestion in the stomach, paicularly amino acids, which act directly on the G cells. Phenylalanine and tryptophan are paicularly effective. The acid in the antrum inhibits gastrin secretion, paly by a direct action on G cells and paly by release of somatostatin, a relatively potent inhibitor of gastric secretion. The effect of acid is the basis of a negative feedback loop regulating gastrin secretion. Increased secretion of the hormone increases acid secretion, but the acid then feeds back to inhibit fuher gastrin secretion. In conditions such as pernicious anemia in which the acid-secreting cells of the stomach are damaged, gastrin secretion is chronically elevated.REF: GANONG&;S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY, KIM BARRETT, HEDDWEN BROOKS, SCOTT BOITANO, SUSAN BARMANTWENTY THIRD EDITIONPAGE NO:443
Physiology
G.I.T
8e39f5e0-cf2c-49c3-bc7d-87cba6dac53f
Which of the following acts as defence against E.coli?
Lactoglobulin
Lactalbumin
Lactoferrin
None of the above
2c
multi
Lactoferrin binds to iron and makes it unavailable for E.coli and acts a defence mechanism against infections. Ref: Nutrition and Child Development, K.E. Elizabeth, 4th edition pg: 17
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
9c527738-289e-490f-a0cb-95fb0790c2ea
Which of following Culture media combination is/are true except:
Thayer-Main media: Gonorrhoea
Chocolate agar-: enriched media
Lowenstein-Jensen Medium: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Muller-Hinton agar: Corynebacterium diphtheriae
3d
multi
Ans: d. Muller-Hinton...Thayer-Main is a useful selective media for Neisseria gonorrhoeae''.Mueller-Hinton is enriched media for Neisseria.C diphtheriae and other corynebacteria grow aerobically on most ordinary laboratory media. On Loeffler's serum medium, corynebacteria grow much more readily than other respiratory organisms, and the morphology of organisms is typical in smears.Lowenstein-Jensen Medium. It is used to culture tubercle bacilli. It contains egg, malachite green and glycerol.Chocolate Agar or Heated Blood agar: Prepared by heating blood agar. It is used for culture of pneumococcus, gonococcus, meningococcus and Haemophilus. Heating the blood inactivates inhibitor of growths.
Microbiology
null
b5737b8a-025c-41b3-a2bb-da816234266c
Most impoant factor which decides the results of a randomized controlled trial is: March 2005
Inclusion of all age groups
50% treated with placebo and 50% with drugs
100% follow up
Effective randomization
3d
multi
Ans. D: Effective randomization It is a procedure by which the paicipants are allocated into groups usually called 'study' and 'control' groups. Randomization is the hea of control trials. It eliminates selection bias
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
44ce4c2b-4da1-4239-97dd-6274dd69289c
All of the following are true about Primary Sjogren's syndrome, except:
May be seen in children
Sensation of sand or gravel in eyes
Associated with rheumatoid ahritis
Salivary gland enlargement
2c
multi
Answer is C (Associated with Rheumatoid Ahritis): Kelly's Rheumatoid ahritis is associated with Secondary Sjogren's Syndrome and not Primary Sjogren's Syndrome. Primary Sjogren's Syndrome No Connective Tissue /Chronic inflammatory disorder Secondary Sjogren's Syndrome Underlying Connective Tissue / Chronic inflammatory disorder Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca (Sensation of sand or gravel in eyes) and salivary gland enlargement are typical symptoms of Sjogren's syndrome (Both Primary and Secondary). Primary Sjogren's syndrome typically affects women in their middle age (Female to male ratio = 9:1) but it may occur at any age including childhood. Primary Sjogren's syndrome has been repoed infrequently in children with onset as early as 5 years of age. The presence of symptoms and signs of Sjogren's 's syndrome (Dry eyes; Dry mouth; Salivary Gland Enlargement) in the setting of another connective tissue disease or chronic inflammatory pathology like Rheumatoid Ahritis, SLE, Systemic Sclerosis by definition is termed as Secondary Sjogren's Syndrome.
Medicine
null
5ddbaad6-17a3-4aac-b91f-8fe5b4eecfcf
Creatinine is formed from all except -
Glycine
Arginine
Methionine
Asparagine
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Asparagine * The three aminoacids used for the synthesis of creatine are Glycine, Arginine and Methionine* In Kidney, Glycine reacts with Arginine in the presence of Arginine Glycine Amido Transferase to for Guanidoacetate and Ornithine* Guanidoacetate through circulation is taken to liver. In liver Guanidoacetate undergoes transmethylation reaction with S- Adenosyl Methionine in the presence of Guanidoacetate Methyl Transferase to form Creatine.* The creatine through circulation reaches tissues.* 90% of creatine is taken up by skeletal muscles and is phosphorylated by creatine Kinase to form creatine Phosphate.* This creatine phosphate acts as the immediate source of energy for skeletal muscle.
Biochemistry
Proteins and Amino Acids
ed6e716c-9ff2-48ef-a242-e8d60dcd46f2
A 67 year male smoker presents with haemoptysis and cough. Bronchoscopic biopsy revealed undifferentiated tumour. The immunohistochemical marker that can be most helpful is:
Calretinin
Vimentin
Cytokeratin
GGT
2c
single
Immunohistochemistry is used in conjunction with light microscopy to distinguish between primary and metastatic adenocarcinoma, determine neuroendocrine features, diagnose mesotheliomas. Pulmonary adenocarcinomas usually stain positive for cytokeratin 7, thyroid transcription factor 1 (TTF-1), and surfactant apoprotein A and are negative for cytokeratin 20. Metastatic adenocarcinomas from other sites except the thyroid stain negative for TTF-1. All carcinoids and most SCLCs stain positive for chromogranin and synaptophysin, whereas NSCLC is usually negative for these two markers. Mesothelioma is distinguished from adenocarcinoma by the presence of calretinin and cytokeratin 5/6 and the absence of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), B72.3, Ber-EP4, and MOC-31. Ref: Gibbons D., Pisters K.M., Johnson F., Eapen G.A. (2011). Chapter 15. Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer. In H.M. Kantarjian, R.A. Wolff, C.A. Koller (Eds), The MD Anderson Manual of Medical Oncology, 2e.
Biochemistry
null
5052bf32-3b33-460d-8368-f9e846c1546b
Differential diagnosis in a case of fever with vesicular rash for two days are all except
Candida-albicans
Infectious monocleosis
Klabsiella pneumonia
Influenza
0a
multi
Cutaneous candidosis is caused by candida albicans. - it may be interiginous or paronychial -the former is an erythematous, scaling or moist lesions with sharply demarcated borders, where papular lesions are most prominent. - paronychia is seen in occupations that lead to frequent immersion of hands in water. * In infectious mononucleosis a maculopapular rash is seen . *Vesicular rash is also seen in varicella ,HSV ,HFMD ,papulonecrotic TB . Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker&;s 9th edition, pg no: 611 op ghai pg 208 9th edition
Pediatrics
Infectious disease
cea7ac5a-dc7b-40e6-b333-01faa0645124
Which is the most common site of feilization in the female reproductive tract?
Cervix
Ampulla
Fimbriae
Uterus
1b
single
The middle segment of fallopian tube called the ampulla is the widest and longest segment. It contains extensive branched mucosal folds and is the commonest site of feilization.
Physiology
null
86e902e9-a0b1-4730-85d1-a2e6832d3cec
Principle of pole dilatation is:
Dilatation of alveolus.
Expansion of bony socket.
Both of the above.
None.
2c
multi
null
Surgery
null
e913a6c7-6d6a-4f3c-8f8c-84cfa68a7edd
True about vitiligo are all except:
Surgical treatment is indicated if medical treatment fails
Leucotrichia is associated with good prognosis
Autoimmune condition
Skin biopsy specimen shows abscence of melanocytes.
1b
multi
VITILIGO -Autoimmune disorder -Skin biopsy specimen shows absence of melanocytes. Poor prognostic factors: Leucotrichia Long standing type Lesions over bony prominences Acrofacial -Surgical treatment is indicated if medical treatment fails and disease is stable for >1 year. - Modalities : Skin grafting Non-cultured autologous melanocytic transfer Cultured autologous melanocytic transfer.
Dental
Hypo Pigmentary Disorders
40d23aa4-7e6b-4ec0-99f1-488c2dc9a3ff
General fertility rate:
Average number of children born to a women in her reproductive life span
Annual number of live births per 1000 married women during reproductive age
Total number of girl child born to a female
Total number of boy child born to a female
1b
single
Ans. (b) Annual number of live births per 1000 married women during reproductive ageRef: Park's 21sted. /451* General fertility rate is the annual number of live births per 1000 married women of child bearing age (15-49 years).* Total fertility rate average number of children born to a women in her reproductive life span.* Gross reproduction rate is total number of girl children born to a female. It is half of the TFR.* Net reproduction rate is total number of girl children born to a female, taking into account their mortality.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
0777d993-2d4e-43ed-8d35-6dfb6ac49b64
A child 14 years of age come to emergency depament with a history of blunt trauma abdomen. On examination Ballance's sign is found to be positive, otherwise the child is stable. Which of the following is not true statement?
A palpable tender mass can be felt in the left upper quadrant with persistent dullness
It is due to extracapsular or subcapsular hematoma ( of spleen )
Managed with Conservative treatment
Splenectomy is required
3d
multi
As the child is stable, conservative management should be done. " 70% to 90% of children with splenic injury are successfully treated without operation, and 40% to 50% of adult patients with splenic injury nonoperatively in large volume trauma centres". "Splenectomy may be safer option, especially in the unstable patients with multiple potential sites of bleeding. In ceain situations, selective angio embolism of the spleen can play a role''. Splenic injuries are treated nonoperatively, by splenic repair (splenorrhaphy), paial splenectomy, or resection, depending on the extent of the injury and the condition of the patient. Enthusiasm for splenic salvage has been driven by the evolving trend toward nonoperative management of solid organ injury and the rare but often fatal complication of overwhelming postsplenectomy infection (OPSI ). It is uncommon in otherwise healthy adults. For this reason attempts to salvage the spleen are more vigorous. Splenectomy is also indicated for lesser splenic injuries in patients who have developed a coagulopathy and have multiple abdominal injuries, and it is usually necessary in patients with failed splenic salvage attempts. Paial splenectomy can be used in patients in whom only a poion of the spleen has been destroyed, usually the superior or inferior half. Splenic trauma: The spleen is the most commonly injured organ in cases of blunt abdominal trauma. Nonoperative management is the treatment of choice Splenic injuries in children have been managed traditionally without surgery. Until recently, most splenic injuries in the adults were managed with splenorrhaphy or splenectomy. Currently., 50-80% of adults with blunt splenic injuries are managed non operatively. Stable patients who have high-grade splenic injuries on CT or have evidence of ongoing bleeding on CT may be candidate for angiographic embolisation. Unstable patients with splenic injuries should undergo splenectomy or attempts at splenic repair if appropriate. "Ballance's sign: A palpable tender mass can be felt in the left upper quardant with persistent dullness. It is due to extracapsular or subcapsular hematoma (of spleen ) " Splenectomy is usually indicated under the following circumstances: Patient is unstable Other injuries require prompt attention Spleen is extensively injured with continuous bleeding Bleeding is associated with hilar injuries Ref: L & B 25/e, page 348 ; CSDT 11/e, page 253
Surgery
null
1ea643b9-4b60-45e7-bfa8-e822c3efb05d
Common oral change seen with nutritional anemia is:
Enlarged tongue
Atrophic glossitis
Generalized osteolysis
Focal marrow expansion
1b
single
null
Pathology
null
7e7ba40d-d0c6-426d-b0b7-a4303a0ee8c8
Following drugs are known to contribute to urinary Incontinence except
Nicardipine
Haloperidol
Metoprolol
Prazosin
2c
multi
Medications that may cause urinary incontinence include: Alcohol α agonist and blockers ACE Inhibitors Calcium channel blockers Diuretics Narcotics Thiaxolidinediones.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
f1ded941-94e3-4106-868d-6cbd46fa9d24
A synthetic “cocktail” vaccine SPf66 has shown potential for the protection against
Dengue/ DHF
Japanese encephalitis
Lymphatic filariasis
Falciparum Malaria
3d
single
SPf 66: A synthetic ‘Lytic Cocktail vaccine’ developed for P. Falciparum has been extensively tested – Formulated as peptide-alum combination. – Safe, effective and reduces risk of developing clinics malaria by 30%.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
baea121c-53c9-4bd2-964d-b7b730b5253f
which of the following is charecterstic of type D disorder
odd and excentric
self pessimism
reward dependent
acheivemnt oriented
1b
single
there are two types of personality disorders TYPE A PERONALITY PEOPLE are called' BORN WARRIORS' who are workaholics end up having hea disease TYPE D PERSONALITY PEOPLE are called 'BORN WORRIERS' who ruminate and have high risk of hea disease Ref. kaplon and Sadock synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no.746
Psychiatry
Personality disorders
e7ad8c11-1e80-4a22-b607-c9d15f078ad0
Scaphoid fracture which area has maximum chances of Avascular Necrosis?
Proximal 1/3
Middle 1/3
Distal 1/3
Scaphoid Tubercle Fracture
0a
single
(a) Proximal 1/3* Most of the blood supply to the scaphoid enters distally, so blood supply of scaphoid diminishes proximally. This accounts for the fact that 1% of distal third, 20% of middle third, 40% of proximal third and 100% of proximal pole fractures result in avascular necrosis or non-union of the proximal fragment.Scaphoid blood supplyAVN scaphoid
Orthopaedics
Fractures of Metacarpals, Phalanges, Metacarpo-Phalangeal Joints
0ae5dc6a-3f8c-4953-91fe-06da78fea732
Potassium-sparing diuretics are all except:
Spironolactone
Triamterene
Amiloride
Ethacrynic acid
3d
multi
classification: High efficacy diuretics - Furosemide, Bumetanide, Torasemide Medium efficacy( inhibit Na-Cl sympo ) - Thiazides ( Hydrochlorothiazide, Benzthiazide, Hydroflumethiazide, Clopamide ), Thiazide-like (Indapamide, Xipamide, Metolazone) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors - Acetazolamide Potassium-sparing - Spironolactone( Aldosterone antagonist), Amiloride, Triamterene ( inhibit renal epithelial Na channel ) Osmotic diuretics - Mannitol, Isosorbide, Glycerol ( Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, K.D Tripathi,6th edition, page 561 )
Pharmacology
Kidney
5c4b8d64-d3e7-4563-b587-4959991417f5
Of the following the most significant risk factor for developing breast cancer is-
The presence of sclerosing adenosis
Nullipartiy
Atypical lobular hyperplasia
Atypical ductal hyperplasia
3d
single
null
Surgery
null
8ef667f8-b58d-48b0-817d-71d18b3f7f6a
All are true for maxillary fracture except:
Geriatric maxillary fracture is difficult to treat
Pediatric maxillary fracture is more comminuted
Midpalatal fracture has 8% incidence
All 4 buttresses are seldom fracture
1b
multi
null
Surgery
null
42108baf-dccf-41ae-968d-ce101d7f1fed
Mandibular nerve passes through ?
Formanen rotundum
Foramen lacerum
Stylomastoid foramen
Foramen ovale
3d
single
Foramen ovale
Anatomy
null
5d940ffb-1176-48d3-a931-92b4a20e9e52
Pneumococcal resistance to penicillin G is mainly acquired by :
Conjugation
Transduction
Transformation
All of the above
2c
multi
Acquisition of antibiotic resistance by Transduction is common in Staphylococcal and that of by Transformation in Pneumococcus and Neisseria. Vancomycin resistance in enterococci and Staphylococcus is mediated by the conjugative plasmid.
Pharmacology
null
2d568d89-d617-49cf-8c04-4af012d661c2
Commonest cause of epistaxis in children is -
Trauma
Foreign body
Nasal diphtheria
Enlarged adenosis
0a
single
null
ENT
null
ee0344be-5ffe-44f4-a4a1-ad7dbac16727
Metabolic complications of subtotal gastrectomy with Billroth I or Billroth II reconstruction include:
Anemia
Reactive hypoglycemia
Dumping syndrome
All of the above
3d
multi
Anemia develops in as many as 30% of patients within 15 years of surgery. The cause is multifactorial and includes malabsorption of iron, folate, and vitamin B 12. A metabolic bone disease occurs in as many as 33% of patients, is similar to osteomalacia, and is probably a result of malabsorption of calcium and vitamin D. Reactive hypoglycemia occurs with rapid gastric emptying, resulting in increased glucose absorption immediately after a meal. Initially there is hyperglycemia, leading to hyperinsulinemia and subsequent rapid glucose clearance and symptomatic hypoglycemia. Dumping syndrome varies from very mild symptoms to significantly disabling ones. The severe syndrome occurs in fewer than 5% of patients. Small, frequent, dry meals of low osmolality reduces symptoms and somatostatin analog has been of some clinical use.
Surgery
Stomach & Duodenum
655fe558-80a0-43c5-8886-2d92fe5de62c
Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in infancy seen in –a) Choledochal cystb) Extra hepatic biliary atresiac) Crigler – Najjar diseased) Gilbert disease
ac
a
ad
ab
3d
single
null
Pediatrics
null
327bc019-7109-4162-b765-f961785143da
Middle 1.5 cm of anal canal is lined by
Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Columnar epithelium
Psudocolumnar epithelium
1b
single
The anal canal is divided into three pas. The zona columnaris is the upper half of the canal and is lined by simple columnar epithelium. The lower half of the anal canal, below the pectinate line, is divided into two zones separated by Hilton's white line. The two pas are the zona hemorrhagic and zona cutanea, lined by atratified squamous non keratinized and stratified squamous keratinized. ref - BDC vol2 pg416
Anatomy
Abdomen and pelvis
2a506297-aea0-4323-afb9-81de3d576b40
In a 35 year old man which is most likely organism causing infection of epididymis-
E.coli
Gonococci
Chlamydia
Ureaplasma ureolyticum
2c
single
Chlamydial urethritis may be followed by acute epididymitis, but this condition is rare, generally occurring in sexually active patients <35 years of age; in older men, epididymitis is usually associated with gram-negative bacterial infection and/or instrumentation procedures. It is estimated that 50-70% of cases of acute epididymitis are caused by C. trachomatis . The condition usually presents as unilateral scrotal pain with tenderness, swelling, and fever in a young man, often occurring in association with chlamydial urethritis. The illness may be mild enough to treat with oral antibiotics. (Harrison's Principles of internal medicine,20 th edition, page 1423)
Medicine
Infection
e95c5896-f989-4e5c-a7bf-bed216fd2b23
The organism most commonly implicated in the causation of subacute bacterial endocarditis is:
S. albus
S. Aureus
S. typhi
S. Viridans
3d
single
null
Medicine
null
1b9973bd-32fa-4033-83c7-d02322e837ec
Adverse effects of insulin include all of the following except:
Edema
weight loss
Lipodystrophy
hypoglycemia
1b
multi
Hypoglycemia is the most frequent and potentially the most serious relationship of insulin therapy. Some patients develop sho lived dependent edema. Lipodystrophy occur at the site of injection after a long time. weight gain can occur due to insulin not weight loss (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 262)
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
6ad43210-4f47-46e0-9336-3f713731bab5
Most specific enzyme for mi is:
Cpk-MM
Cpk-MB
Cpk-BB
LDH
1b
single
Ans: bRef: Harrison, 16thed, p. 1450
Medicine
C.V.S.
0dc3ee67-d6d2-46f9-b265-44a6c716829c
Staphylococcus aureus differs from staphylococcus epidermidis by -
Is coagulase positive
Forms white colonies
A common cause of UTI
Causes endocarditis in drug addicts
0a
single
null
Microbiology
null
d8a3e98a-f538-4c97-a4df-43f950d0de47
Putrefaction is
Perimoem sign of death
Immediate sign of death
Early sign of death
Late sign of death
3d
single
CHANGES AFTER DEATH 1.Immediate changes a) cessation of respiration b) cessation of circulation c) insensibility d) loss of voluntary power e) dilatation of pupil 2. Early changes a) primary flaccidity of muscles b) algor mois c) livor mois d) rigor mois e) retinal changes and changes in vitreous humor. 3. Late changes a) putrefaction b) adipocere formation c) mummification Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY DR PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 19
Forensic Medicine
Death and postmortem changes
0414746a-af4a-4c7b-8115-345ed67fc1fd
All of the following are habbit disorders, except:
Thumb sucking
Tics
Temper tantrums
Nail biting
1b
multi
Tics are rapid and reccurent moments for brief duration and it is not included under habbit disorders.
Psychiatry
null
52fc5a8e-4f07-4e05-89dd-fee56cfeb715
In a highly selective vagotomy, the vagal supply is severed to
Proximal two-thirds of stomach
Antrum
Pylorus
Whole of stomach
1b
single
Done in cases of uncomplicated duodenal ulcer wherein the fibres entering the stomach is divided both anteriorly as well as posteriorly, Nerve of Latarjet is retained to supply the tantrum. Reference: SRB 5th edition page no. 861
Surgery
G.I.T
c924dafd-2309-44d3-8f48-12c9996efa84
Which of the following is the most appropriate method for collecting urine for culture in a case of vesicovaginal fistula?
Sterile speculum
Foley's catheter
Midstream clean catch
Suprapubic needle aspiration
1b
single
Ureteric catheterisation is the best method of collecting urine for culture in a case of vesico-vaginal fistula. Second best method of collection of urine is supra pubic aspiration, which needs a full bladder and is not possible in this case. Collection of urine sterile speculum and midstream clean catch leads to contamination of urine. So by exclusion, the best answer is collection of urine using a foley's catheter. Ref: Textbook of Gynecology By DC Dutta, 4th Edition, Pages 386-8
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
74e6c4f2-ccb8-44bc-a548-e7668d09d489
A 6-month infant presented with multiple papules and exudative lesions on the face, scalp, trunk and few vesicles on the palms and soles for 2 weeks. His mother had H/O itchy lesions. Most likely diagnosis:
Scabies
Infantile eczema
Infantile seborrheic dermatitis
Impetigo contagiosa
0a
single
Ans. A. ScabiesScabies is due to infestation with human scabies mite, which is an obligate parasite and has no separate existence outside the human body. The disorder is notorious for the intensity of itch that it causes, even in the presence of relatively minor physical signs. Physical signs are essentially those of eczema and the effects of scratching vesicle are seen, but excoriations and prurigo-like papules are more common.
Skin
Erythmato-Squamous and Lichenoid Eruption
f318a0ef-01f6-43e7-beff-de29694040ea
Symptoms of narcolepsy are all except
Cataplexy
Catalepsy
Daytime sleepiness
hypnagogic hallucinations
1b
multi
NarcolepsyThe classic tetrad of symptoms is:i. Sleep attacks (most common): ii. Cataplexy: iii. Hypnagogic hallucinations: iv. Sleep paralysis (least common): Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 138
Psychiatry
Sleep disorders and eating disorders
203dc3a8-f9ec-4cc3-9ec0-88a9a8a06fdd
After staing your patient on imipramine, his hea rate rises to 120/min and he has blurred vision. These effects can be explained by the fact imipramine:
Is a muscarinic antagonist
Potentiates epinephrine
Is a ganglionic blocker
Is a potent a-adrenergic blocker
0a
single
(Ref: KDT 6/e p444) These symptoms are of anticholinergic drugs. Tricyclic antidepressants have powerful anticholinergic propeies and can lead to these symptoms.
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
d337d21f-f500-4a61-b045-4ee005e4b5e2
Commonest cause of lung abscess is
Aspiration
Hematogenous spread from distant date
Direct contact
Lymphatic spread
2c
single
Lung abscess Lung abscess refers to a microbial infection of the lung that results in necrosis of the pulmonary parenchyma MC cause of primary lung abscess : Anaerobic bacteria Etiology of anaerobic lung abscess : Aspiration Routes of infection Aspiration of organisms that colonize oropharynx (MC) Inhalation of infection or aerosols Hematogenous dissemination from extrapulmonary site Direct inoculation (as in tracheal intubation or stab wounds) Contiguous spread from an adjacent site of infection Ref: schwaz's principle of surgery 10th edition Pgno : 650
Surgery
Cardio thoracic surgery
8fcc2b40-b388-42ca-b3af-f167e389d289
An adult old man gets burn injury to his hands. Over few weeks, the burned skin heals without the need for skin grafting. The most critical factor responsible for the rapid healing in this case is ?
Remnant skin appendages
Underlying connective tissues
Minimal edema and erythema
Granulation tissue
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Remnant skin appendagesSkin consists of two layers1. Epidermis Most superficial layer of the skin. It is constantly replaced from the basal layer.2. Dermis It is thicker than epidermis and supplies the strength and integrity to the skin It has rich blood supply It contains adnexal structures i.e. --> Hair follicles, Sebaceous glands, Sweat glands.o The impoance of these adnexal structures is that they contain epithelial cells that can proliferate and can heal a paial thickness wound by epithelialisation.o Superficial burns Involve only epidermis and superficial dermis The adnexal structures are left intact so they can heal by epithelialisation.o Deep burnsIn deep burns all the adnexal structures are lost so they can only heal by secondary intention with scarring. o Presence of granulations simply indicate healing, one cannot tell whether it is healing by primary intention or by secondary intention.
Pathology
null
da4942d2-5db5-4f1e-a4df-14705da209f4
Meniere's disease is manifested by all of the symptoms except:
Tinnitus
Deafness
Vertigo
Otorrhoea
3d
multi
(d) Otorrhoea(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 2, 819)Meniere is manifested as vertigo followed by deafness (SN), tinnitus and a sensation of fullness in the ear but no discharge.
ENT
Ear
864ccf14-cbe3-409b-b669-5ffa39674bad
Both oral and Nasal intubation are C/I – a) Laryngeal edemab) CSF–Rhinorrhoeac) Comatose patientd) Acute Tracheo–Laryngo-bronchitis
b
c
ac
ad
3d
multi
Both nasal and oral intubation are contraindicated in Laryngeal edema, epiglotitis, and Laryngotracheobronchitis.
Anaesthesia
null
ce4c6730-9236-4ba4-869f-5d781f774166
All are true about Ewing's sarcoma except
Low grade tumor has good prognosis
Pain is most common symptom
Onion peel appearance
Associated with t(11,22)
0a
multi
All cases of Ewing's sarcoma are considered as high grade. Histological grading has no prognostic significance.
Orthopaedics
null
589106a2-db31-423a-9cb8-657f73e4009b
False about caffey's disease
Usually occurs in infants < 6 months
Jaw Osteomyelitis
Cortical hyperostosis
Caused by salmonella
3d
multi
null
Orthopaedics
null
96ccb70c-2ed3-471d-84b2-111da155ac9a
True about the H+ secretion by the PCT is:
It is for acidification of urine
It occurs against the concentration gradient for H+
It is meant for reabsorption of the filtered bicarbonate
It is an example of diffusion trapping
2c
multi
(C) It is meant for reabsorption of filtered bicarbonate (A) Acidification of urine is done by collecting ducts. H+ secretion in PCT occurs along the concentration gradient. In collecting ducts H+ secretion is against concentration gradient Diffusion trapping occurs in collecting ducts not in PCT. H+ secretion in PCT is meant for reabsorption of bicarbonate. Amount of filtered is calculated by (per unit time) Px x GFRPx = plasma concentration of substance. How much bicarbonate is filtered per unit time is 24meq/lit X 180L/day =4320meq/day Most of this is reabsorbed in PCT HCO3- is ionic. Ionic substances are less diffusible. So, first it is conveed to non-ionic form. For this H+ is secreted by PCT. H+ is secreted in equal amounts of HCO3- (i.e 4320 meq/day) In addition, PCT secretes 80meq/day of H+(: 4320 + 80 =4400meq/day) .This is net acid output.
Physiology
Excretory System (Kidney, Bladder) Acid-Base Balance
64be329d-5aff-43b9-ba93-f8336fdf178b
After how many days of ovulation, embryo implantation occurs?
3-5 days
6-9 days
10-12 days
13-15 days
1b
single
After the feilization process, embryo is formed in the ampulla and it reaches the uterine cavity on 3rd - 4th day and the implantation occur between 6th to 9th day of ovulation
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Maternal Anatomy and Physiology
ee738a89-7e09-4f97-a381-571bf0828d8d
Percentage of gold in high noble alloy is
< 25%
25%
>40%
0%
2c
multi
null
Dental
null
465c4eaa-001a-4443-9721-43f16e193a55
Hypersensitivity vasculitis affects
Post-capillary venules
Aerioles
Veins
Medium-sized aeries
0a
single
. Post-capillary venules
Pathology
null
9ec12699-fe6d-40a1-965b-db246ee5ad11
Mechanism of action of sulfonamide is?
Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
Inhibits translocation of mRNA
Inhibits folate synthesis
Inhibits bacterial respiration
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Inhibits folate synthesis Sulfonamides are bacteriostatic and act by inhibiting folic acid synthesis by inhibiting enzyme folate synthatase.
Pharmacology
null
ab3168ed-54c1-4075-9dcb-7fdf1bc2b2d9
In a patient with gouty ahritis, synol fluid aspiration will show-
Needle shaped crystals
Rhomboid shaped crystals
Mononuclear leucocytosis
Polymorphonuclear leukocytosis
0a
single
During acute gouty attacks, needle-shaped MSU crystals typically are seen both intracellularly and extracellularly . With compensated polarized light, these crystals are brightly birefringent with negative elongation. Ref - Harrisons 20e p2632
Medicine
Immune system
d68095f3-82cf-498b-88cb-b97df293242e
Most important triad of symptoms in portal hypertension is:
Splenomegaly, Hepatomegaly and Ascites
Splenomegaly, Oesophageal varices and Ascites
Piles, splenomegaly and general Anasarca
Oesophageal varices, piles and General Anasarca
1b
single
null
Medicine
null
14347448-3936-4be8-ae15-95d97797f996
A female treatment for depression took a massive dose of amitriptyline for suicide. Which of the following is wrong regarding management for her?
Gastric lavage was done
Sedium bicarbonate was administered to treat acidosis
Atropine sulphate was administered as an antidote
Diazepam was injected to control seizures.
2c
single
Ans. c. Atropine sulphate was administered as an antidote (Ref: Reddy 28/e p524: Goodman Gilman 11/448)Tricyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline) cause anticholinergic effects such as dry skin, ileus, urinary retention etc., administration of atropine would further worsen these symptoms. Atropine is better avoided in poisoning or overdose of cyclic antidepressants.Poisoning/Overdose of Cyclic AntidepressantsMechanism of Action:Inhibition of neurotransmitter uptake leading to cholinergic and alpha-adrenergic blockadeDirect myocardial depressant effectSystemic SymptomsCNS SymptomsCVS SymptomsParasympathetic* Depression of mental state* Coma, Delirium* Altered sensorium* Generalized brief and self-limited convulsions* Myoclonus, NystagmusQ* Dysarthria, AtaxiaQ* Sinus tachycardiaQ* Conduction delays* Ventricular arrhythmias* Negative inotropic action* HypotensionQ* Dry skin and mucosaQ* IleusQ* Urinary retentionQ* MydriasisQ* HypothermiaQPoisoning/Overdose of Cyclic AntidepressantsTreatment:Gastric lavage to remove the unabsorbed drugEmesis should be avoided; Activated charcoal can be usedSymptomatic treatment:Sodium bicarbonate to treat acidosisQAnti-convulsants to treat seizures
Pharmacology
Anti Depressant
cc33ce39-de28-4f18-9abe-95f247ac85f8
Tumour marker for a highly vascular tumour
Desmin
Keratin
Sa 200
Alpha-feto protein
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Keratin o Mesotheloma is highly vascular and keratin is a marker of mesotheloma.
Pathology
null
f11e4916-a8f7-4d3c-865d-cf2d1d8cf673
All are true of police inquest, except:
Senior head constable can investigate
Most common inquest
Panchnama has to be signed by IO
IO cannot summon
3d
multi
Police inquest is held by a police officer (Investigation Officer--IO) not below the rank of senior head constable in all cases of unnatural deaths with the exceptions mentioned under Magistrate inquest. Police inquest (174 CrPC) : Most common type of inquest. Minimum cadre of police for conducting inquest is station officer( senior Head Constable) Panchanama - enquiry repo Can summon
Forensic Medicine
FMT Q Bank
5b266891-196b-4551-8776-012904d0e097
Which of the following features is more suggestive of organic conditions?
Primary delusions
Visual hallucinations
Made phenomena
Third person auditory hallucinations
1b
multi
Visual hallucinations are characteristic of organic conditions. The other choices mentioned in the question - Primary delusions, Made phenomena and third person auditory hallucinations are all examples of First rank symptoms, hence more characteristic of Schizophrenia.
Psychiatry
Basics of Psychiatry
a0438e94-5181-4210-96b3-f72664182bcd
Shoest pa of male urethra is :
Prostatic
Membranous
Bulbar
Penile
1b
single
B i.e. Membranous - Membranous urethra is shoest & Penile urethra is longest pa.Prostatic urethra is widest & most dilatable poion & Urethral orifice f/19 membranous urethra is narrowest & least dilatable pa
Anatomy
null
c1cb9416-3bc8-44b2-8c1c-1433b8891fe2
Which of the following is an analgesic which does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis?
Nefopam
Tenoxicam
Ketorolac
Piroxicam
0a
single
Nefopam is nonopioid analgesic and does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis relieves traumatic, postoperative, sho lasting musculoskeletal pain produce anticholinergic and sympathomimetic side effects Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY;7TH EDITION;KD TRIPATHI;PAGE NO 208
Pharmacology
Autacoids
1f89bc1b-b2e7-497a-aeba-a55037edd851
Which of the following lifestyle modifications you should not advise to a GERD patient
Avoiding fatty, spicy, chocolate
Small frequent meals
Last meal should be within 2 hours of going to bed
Head end elevation of the bed
2c
multi
Last meal should be no less than 2 hours before going to bed
Surgery
null
63e9ea8f-ffe4-4674-bc05-8e9c1f77b006
In transposition of great vessels, all are true except –a) Aorta arises from the right ventricleb) Mitral valve is continuous with the aortic valvec) Causes jaundice immediately after birthd) None of the above
bc
c
ac
ad
0a
multi
Mitral valve is continous with pulmonary valve.
Pediatrics
null
08c1b5d8-c285-4777-9df5-11513d805177
Perifascicular atropy of muscle fibres is seen in?
Steroid myopathy
Dermatomyositis
Inclusion body myositis
Nemaline myopathy
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dermatomyositis Dermatomyositis is a connective-tissue disease related to polymyositis that is characterized by inflammation of the muscles and the skin. It is a systemic disorder that may also affect the joints, the esophagus, the lungs, and, less commonly, the hea. On the muscle biopsy, there are two classic microscopic findings of dermatomyositis. They are : mixed B- & T-cell perivascular inflammatory infiltrate and perifascicular muscle fiber atrophy. It is associated with autoantibodies, especially anti-Jol antibody.
Pathology
null
06ef8522-8d36-4248-8c4b-c75a0929cc21
Disinfection of sputum is done by -a) Boilingb) Autoclavingc) Sunlightd) Burninge) Airing
ae
edb
abd
bd
2c
single
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
8881e1f7-163a-4b20-b8ec-6e15ac879448
Raxiobacumab is used in:-
Anthrax
Pontiac fever
Listeria
Clostridium
0a
single
Raxibacumab is used for Anthrax It is a monoclonal antibody and it contains 'bac' in its name so effective against bacillus and contains 'ax' so effective for anthrax.
Pharmacology
Targeted Anticancer Drugs and Immunosuppressants
940bb138-a015-4c5e-a76e-4ea9363b0376
All of the following therapies may be required in a 1–hour-old infant with severe birth asphyxia except –
Glucose
Dexamethasone
Calcium gluconate
Normal saline
1b
multi
Corticosteroids should not be used' - Paediatrics for doctors - Frankshann & John Vince Management Protocol The management protocol of babies with asphyxia : Oxygen. In the absence of continuous oxygen saturation monitoring, it is reasonable to give nasopharyngeal oxygen (0.5 litre/min) until the baby recovers. If monitoring is available, oxygen is given as appropriate. Thermal control. Baby's body temperature should be kept in the normal range of 36.5-37.2°C (sometimes the babies become hyperpyrexic). Correction of shock, If peripheral perfusion is poor, it is reasonable to give 20 ml/kg of normal saline initially. If perfusion remains poor, the use of dopamine should be considered. Fluid balance. Give IV fluids at 2/3 maintenance. Use 10% dextrose. Monitor blood glucose with dextrostix and do not let it fall below 2.2 mmol  (explains glucose administration) Prevent/control convulsions. In less severely affected babies, phenobarbitone should be given when there is anyuspicion of actual or impending convulsions (phenobarbitone loading dose 20 mg/kg IM or 10mg/kg slowly IV, then 5 mg/kg daily orally). Treat hvpocalcaemia if it occurs (or more practically, if the baby has uncontrollable fitting with anormal dextrostix). (explains calcium gluconate administration) Notes: Corticosteroids should not be used, and although many paediatricians use mannitol, there is no evidence for its effectiveness. Babies with severe asphyxia may appear to settle relatively quickly after the resuscitation - but there is likely to be a deterioration after 6-12 hours or so as cerebral oedema develops.
Pediatrics
null
53a04775-54ca-415c-a1c4-0a44b9a1cfc7
Fast breathing in a 3 year old child is?
> 60
>50
>40
>30
2c
single
ANSWER: (C) > 40REF: OP Ghai 7th ed p. 356According to WHO fast respiratory rate:>60/ min< 2 months> 50/min2-12 months>40/min12-60 months
Pediatrics
Disorders of the Respiratory Tract
825a0237-5f25-4aca-9791-1e8921316b01
Reffered pain to Inferior angle of right scapula in acute cholecystitis is known as
Murphy's sign
Naunyn's sign
Boa's sign
Cullen's sign
2c
single
It is seen in acute cholecystitis Boa's sign - Hyperaesthesia below the right scapula Murphy's sign- Inspiratory arrest with deep palpation in the RUQ in acute cholecystitis (also known as Naunyn's sign) Cullen's Sign- Periumbilical ecchymosis. Seen in retro peritoneal bleeding associated with severe Pancreatitis Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1526, 1494
Anatomy
G.I.T
85617db2-cbb6-4de7-9ed6-ebc2bd541755
Following delivery, uterine fundus lies about:
10 1/2 " above pubic symphysis
8 1/2 " above pubic symphysis
5 1/2 " above pubic symphysis
2 1/2 " above pubic symphysis
2c
multi
Ans. C. 5 1/2 above pubic symphysisFollowing delivery, the fundus lies about 13.5cm(51/2) above the pubic symphysis. During the first 24 hrs the level remains constant, thereafter there is steady decrease in height by 1.25cm in 24 hours so that by the end of 2nd week the uterus becomes a pelvic organ. These measurements are clinically significant to know the process of involution. If the height is more than the period of puerperium, it may be because of subinvolution.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Fetal Skull and Maternal Pelvis
6c52938b-5ee9-437a-81e7-62d0cacd2512
A 35-year-old man presents to his physician with a 18Kg weight loss over the preceeding 4 months. The man has not been dieting, but has been having abdominal pain, nausea, and diarrhea. He also had a chronic cough. Sputum studies demonstrate Pneumocystis carinii, and esophagogastroduodenoscopy with biopsy demonstrates Candida and Herpes in the esophagus.The pathogen which causes this patient's underlying disease is a member of which of the following groups of viruses?
Caliciviridae
Coronaviridae
Flaviviridae
Retroviridae
3d
single
This man with multiple infections probably has AIDS, in which "wasting" due to infection and weight loss is common. All three of this patient's secondary infections (Pneumocystis pneumonia, Candida esophagitis, and Herpes esophagitis) are considered to be "AIDS-defining illnesses," that indicate that the patient's HIV infection has progressed to the point of producing profound immunosuppression. HIV is a member of the Lentivirus subgroup of retroviruses. This viral family is characterized by prolonged infections, often with a latent period. These viruses are usually inadequately opposed by the host immune response, and often can infect the nervous system. The Retroviridae also include the oncovirus group that includes the human T-cell Leukemia/Lymphotropic virus. The family Retroviridae includes seven subfamilies members, of which two of the families infect humans with pathologic consequences: the delta retroviruses, of which human T cell lymphotropic virus (HTLV) type I is the most impoant in humans; and lentiviruses, of which HIV is the most impoant in humans. Also Know: The Caliciviridae includes the Norwalk virus and the virus that causes Hepatitis E. Coronaviruses cause upper respiratory illnesses. Flaviviruses include the Hepatitis C virus, yellow fever virus, dengue virus, and several encephalitis viruses. Ref: Longo D.L., Fauci A.S. (2012). Chapter 188. The Human Retroviruses. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds),Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
Microbiology
null
71633b48-bdac-4ddc-8dec-62eeb330c8af
KLB is another name for
Corynebacterium diphtheria
Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriae
Corynebacterium tetani
Anthrax
0a
single
Diphtheria bacilli were first observed and described by Klebs in 1883 and first cultivated by Loeffler in 1884 - hence called Klebs- Loeffler's bacilli or KLB. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 239
Microbiology
Bacteriology
418c2fb1-85f8-4dcc-b5ab-9c1d07419b7a
A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical twin. What type of graft it is?
Xenograf
Autograft
Allograft
Isograft
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Isograft (Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e)
Microbiology
Immunology