Dataset Viewer
Auto-converted to Parquet
id
stringlengths
36
36
question
stringlengths
1
1.57k
opa
stringlengths
1
287
opb
stringlengths
1
287
opc
stringlengths
1
286
opd
stringlengths
1
301
cop
class label
4 classes
choice_type
stringclasses
2 values
exp
stringlengths
1
22.5k
subject_name
stringclasses
21 values
topic_name
stringlengths
3
135
c69ce981-e254-4707-b87a-cb493e8a948e
OPV can be used if vaccine l monitor is showing?
Colour of outer circle is same as inner square
Colour of outer circle is darker than inner square
Colour of outer circle is lighter than inner square
None of the above
1b
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Colour of outer circle is darker than inner square
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
4bf5d147-3860-4dcf-ac71-9f9b0a87e583
Average gain of height in first year ?
25 cms
50 cms
75 cms
100 cms
0a
single
O.P. Ghai 9th Edition - page 13
Anatomy
General anatomy
a524efbb-8a52-4298-9f4f-40790d95c8b9
Investigation of choice to diagnose congenital malformations
USG
HSG
MRI
CT
2c
single
MRI is the investigation of choice to diagnose congenital malformaiton.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
8d5a6669-3645-4275-a1da-89ee456bf3fd
Pain is appreciated when the small bowel is
Burned
crushed
Cut
distended
3d
multi
The gut is insensitive to common painful stimuli Distention of the small bowel produces a feeling of paraumbilical discomfo
Surgery
null
e778cda1-38c5-4583-bf9d-02979ff48c67
The main advantage of RPD over FPD in replacing bilateral lost teeth is
Cross arch stabilization
Aesthetics
Less expensive
Comfort to the patient
0a
single
null
Dental
null
6f6b53ff-bca5-44ad-a4c0-2384a34a3c3d
Which is seen in chediak Higashi syndrome
Neutopenia
Defective microbial killing
Presence of large granules in neutrophils
All of the above
3d
multi
Ref Harrison 16/e p,353:,354, Robbins 9/e p238 Chediak Higashi syndrome: Autosomal recessive inheence Due to defect in lysosomal transpo protein LYST. Clinical feature include: primary immune deficiency, neutropenia , defective microbial killing,impaired chemotaxis,hypopigmentation, photophobia, nystagmus. Microscopic examination shows giant peroxidase positive inclusion in the cytoplasm of leukocytes
Anatomy
General anatomy
223519f2-4f43-42d2-a370-a765820b764d
The stye is other name of
Chalazion
Hordeolum internum
Hordeolum externum
None of the above
2c
multi
(Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no.367)Acute infection of Zeis (Moll) gland - Stye (Hordeolum externum)Acute infection of the tarsal gland (Meibomian gland)- Hordeolum internumChronic infection of the tarsal gland (Meibomian gland)- Chalazion
Ophthalmology
Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus
6daa0511-3c7b-45d5-9e67-12d85f4e707d
Metal fume fever is common in chronic poisoning with -
Mercury
Lead
Zinc
Thallium
2c
multi
Metal Fume Fever is a self limiting influenza like syndrome resulting from acute exposure to fumes or smoke of zinc (most common), copper, manganese, nickel, mercury and other volatile metals.
Forensic Medicine
null
0315a1c7-4bd2-466c-901a-dbf23087eb84
Ionophores have following action except:
Abolish proton gradient
Inhibit ADP to ATP conversion
Hydrophilic in character
Abolish pH gradient
2c
multi
C i.e. Hydrophilic in characterIonophoresaillCeain microbes synthesize small organic molecules called ionophores, that function as shuttle for the movement of ions across membrane.
Physiology
null
724817c1-2899-4d7c-958a-d1c649d323c9
Which of the following part of psychosexual theory operates on the pleasure principle and attempts to obtain pleasure:
Id
Ego.
Superego.
None.
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
6e196ea8-ed3d-4a78-a0ac-a572aa6d68b7
Incidence of primary open-angle glaucoma in population over 40 years of age is about:
1 in 100
1 in 200
1 in 500
1 in 1000
0a
single
Ans. 1 in 100
Ophthalmology
null
2a66ad58-87e0-4ea4-8993-f177281e5584
Lysogenic conversion is seen in:
C. diphtheriae
Salmonella
Staphylococcus
E.coli
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., C. diphtheriaeRef: - Jawetz latest e/p. 274The toxigenicity of the diphtheria bacilli depends on the presence in it of corynephages (tox +). Nontoxigenic strains may be rendered toxigenic by infecting them with beta phage or some other larger phage. This is known as lysogenic conversion or phage conversion.C. diphtheriae does not need to be toxigenic to establish localized infection.
Microbiology
Bacteria
37701e61-16cd-4a82-8f6b-69b345c07850
Hot potato voice is characteristic of
Pre tonsillar abscess
Glottis carcinoma
Subglottic carcinoma
Supraglottic carcinoma
0a
single
Peritonsillar abscess shows muffled and thick speech often called as " hot potato voice ". Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 298
ENT
Larynx
35a60859-f958-40df-a0f0-ead81e4a786a
A child can Sit in Tripod position at which month?
5 months
6 months
8 months
9 months
1b
single
Developmental milestones:- GROSS MOTOR DEVELOPMENT: 2 months: Holds head in plane of rest of the body when held in ventral suspension. In prone position in bed, the chin lifts momentarily. 3 months:lift head above the plane of the body. Head control stas by 3 months and fully developed by 5 months. 4 months:Remain on forearm suppo if put in prone position, lifting the upper pa of the body off the bed. 5 months: Rolls over. 6 months:sit in tripod fashion. 8 months: sits without suppo., crawling 9 months: Takes a few steps with one hand held. Pulls to standing and cruises holding on to furniture by 10 months. 10 months: creeps 12 months:creeps well, walk but falls, stand without suppo. 15 months: walks well, walks backward/ sideways pulling a toy. May crawl upstairs. 18 months: Runs, walks upstair with one hand held. Explores drawers 2 years: walk up and downstairs, jumps. 3 years : rides tricycle, alternate feet going upstairs. 4 years: hops on one foot, alternate feet going downstairs. 5 years:skips FINE MOTOR DEVELOPMENT:- 2 months- eyes follow objects to 180 deg. 3 months-Grasp reflex disappears and hand is open most of the time. 4 months- Bidextrous approach( reaching out for objects with both hands). 6 months- Unidextrous approach( Reach for an object with one hand). 8 months- radial grasp sta to develop. Turns to sound above the level of ear. 9 months- immature pincer grasp, probes with forefinger. 12 months-Unassisted pincer grasp. Releases object on request.Uses objects predominantly for playing, not for mouthing. Holds block on each hand and bang them together. 15 months- imitate scribbling , tower of two blocks 18 months- scribbles, tower of 3 blocks.turn pages of a book, 2-3 at a time. 2 years- tower of 6 blocks, veical and circular stroke. 3 years-Tower of 9 blocks, dressing and undressing with some help, can do buttoning. 4 years- copies cross, bridge with blocks 5 years- copies triangle, gate with blocks. SOCIAL AND ADAPTIVE MILESTONES: 2 months: social smile(smile after being talked to).watches mother when spoken to and may smile. 3 months:Recognizes mother, anticipates feeds. 4 months: Holds rattle when placed in hand and regards it . Laughs aloud. Excited at the sight of food. 6 months:recognizes strangers, stranger anxiety . Enjoy watching own image in mirror, shows displeasure when toy pulled off. 9 months:waves bye bye 12 months:comes when called, plays simple ball game.kisses the parent on request. Makes postural adjustments for dressing. 15 months:jargon, stas imitating mother. 18 months: copies parents in tasking, dry by day, calls mother when he wants potty, points to three pas of body on request. 2 years: ask for food, drink, toilet, pulls people to show toys. 3 years:shares toys, know fullname and gender, dry by night. 4 years:Plays cooperatively in a group, goes to toilet alone, washes face, brushes teeth. Role play . 5 years:helps in household task , dresses and undresses. LANGUAGE MILESTONES: 1 month: Ales to sound. 2 month:respond to sound by stale or quitening to a smooth voice. 3 months: babbles when spoken to. Makes sounds (ahh,coos, ) laughs. 4 months: laughs aloud. 6 months: monosyllables 9 months: understands spoken words, bisyllables. 12 months: 1-2 words with meaning. 18 months: vocabulary of 10 words. Can name one pa of body. 2 years: 3 word simple sentences 3 years:asks questions, knows full name and gender. 4 years: says songs or poem, tells story, knows three colours. 5 years: ask meaning of words. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
Pediatrics
Growth and development
1e94dd36-ff6e-44a3-a271-2ddc25b4a888
Serotonin syndrome may be precipitated by all of the following medications, except:
Chlorpromazine
Pentazocine
Buspirone
Meperidine
0a
multi
Chlorpromazine is used in the treatment of serotonin syndrome. It is a potent 5HT2 receptor antagonist and can reduce the level of serotonin thereby useful in serotonin syndrome. Ref: The Diagnosis of Psychosis By Rudolf Cardinal, Edward Bullmore, Page 125; Blackwell's Five-Minute Veterinary Consult Clinical Companion, Page 234.
Pharmacology
null
a8f933d5-1222-44c9-bedc-da1a033281b0
Post prandial motility is maximum in
Transverse colon
Rectum
Descending colon
Sigmoid colon
3d
single
Post prandial motility is maximum in sigmoid colon followed by transverse colon.
Physiology
null
00ac148e-14f2-49c7-b460-153aeab1d8cc
False statement regarding xenon is_____
Rapid induction and emergence
Free from greenhouse effects
Teratogenic
Does not trigger malignant hypehermia
2c
multi
Xenon is Non- teratogenic.Option A: Xenon has a very low blood-gas solubility coefficient (0.115) and produces rapid induction of and emergence from anaesthesia.Option B: Xenon produces no green house effect or ozone depletion and is environmentally safe, unlike the other inhaled anaesthetics.Option D: Does not trigger malignant hypehermia Other advantages of xenon:IneMinimal cardiovascular effects- It produces minimal cardiovascular depression, and it is not arrhythmogenic.Non explosiveHas Analgesic activity - reduces intraoperative opioid requirements Disadvantages of Xenon High costLow potency (MAC = 70%)Xenon gas has a very high density (5.9 g/L) resulting in increased flow resistance and work of breathing. Thus, it may be a poor choice for patients wicompromised respiratory function
Anaesthesia
Inhalational Anesthetic Agents
706d4758-e1b2-47a5-92b5-2c41109ff0f4
A Carrier of Neisseria Meningiditis can be detected by
CSF - PCR
CSF - Culture
Blood culture
Nasopharynegeal swab culture
3d
single
Specimen for cases - Blood and CSF Specimen for carriers - Nasopharyngeal swab.
Microbiology
null
823d3442-21a4-42bf-b40f-41939ac40041
Fibrosis is due to-
TGF-b
TNF-a
IL - 7
IL -10
0a
single
Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease South Asia edition. Robbins 9/e p46 *activated macrophages secrete 1 growth factors ,TGF Beta:tissue repair and fibrosis. 2 IL 10 ,TGF Beta: anti inflammatory effect.
Pathology
General pathology
a769e123-a78a-4b8a-89d5-06c1dc14d811
Zero order kinetics means:
A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time
A constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time
The fraction of the administered dose that reaches the systemic circulation.
The effect that can be increased by giving a second agent that boosts the effect of the liver's enzyme system
0a
single
Ans. a (A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time). (Ref. Pharmacology by KD Tripathi 6th/33, fig. 3.5)ZERO ORDER ELIMINATION# The metabolic pathways responsible for alcohol metabolism are rapidly saturated and that clearance is determined by how fast these pathways can work. The metabolic pathways work to their limit.# This is known as zero order kinetics: a constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time,# This form of kinetics occurs with several important drugs at high dosage concentrations:- Phenytoin,- Salicylates,- Theophylline, and- Thiopentone (at very large doses).# Because high dose thiopentone is very slow to clear, we no longer use it in infusion for status epilepticus.FIRST ORDER ELIMINATION# A constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time.# The rate of elimination is proportional to the amount of drug in the body.# The majority of drugs are eliminated in this way.Elimination of drugsZero-order elimination Rate of elimination is constant regardless of C (constant amount of drug eliminated per unit time). Cp | linearly with time. Examples of drugs--ethanol, phenytoin, and aspirin (at high or toxic concentrations).First-order elimination Rate of elimination is proportional to the drug concentration (i.e.., constant fraction of drug eliminated per unit time). Cp | exponentially with time
Pharmacology
General Pharmacology
5ac2201f-0bb3-4f6e-9499-79f80d1b41de
A widely used drug that suppresses cellular immunity, inhibits prostaglandin and leukotriene synthesis and increases the catabolism of IgG antibody is:
Cyclophosphamide
Prednisone
Cyclosporine
Infliximab
1b
single
Glucocoicoids are powerful immunosuppressants. These inhibit both cellular and humoral immunity by: * Decreasing the recruitment of immune cells. * Catabolism of immunoglobulins. * Inhibiting the enzyme phospholipase A2 resulting in decreased production of PGs, LTs and TXs.
Pharmacology
Targeted Anticancer Drugs and Immunosuppressants
4563a660-48d0-48e6-8bc9-9e80b9058885
Enzyme deficient in maple syrup urine disease -
a-ketoacid decarboxylase
Transaminase
Isomerase
Mutase
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., alpha-ketoacid decarboxylase Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) or branched chain ketoaciduriao It is an inborn error of metabolism of branched chain amino acids valine, leucine and isoleucineo It is due to deficiency of enzyme that catalyzes the second reaction in these amino acids metabolism i.e. branched chain-a keto acid dehydrogenase which catalyses decarboxylation of branched chain amino acids As a result, the branched chain amino acids, leucine, isoleucine and valine, and their a-keto acids accumulate in blood, urine and CSF.o There is characteristic maple syrup odor to the urine.
Biochemistry
Amino Acid Metabolic Disorder
49ccf915-c118-4e51-ab57-898215677239
A chronic alcoholic patient is brought to the emergency department by his wife. The person has not consumed alcohol for the past two days due to religious reasons. The person complained of nausea, vomiting and dizziness. On the second day. he developed seizures, that progressed to generalized tonic clonic seizures (GTCS). Which of the following would be best medication to manage the seizure of the patient?
Sodium valproate
Phenytoin
Diazepam
Carbamazepine
2c
single
Ans. c. Diazepam (Ref: Niraj Ahuja 6/e p39-40; Kaplan and Sadock's 9/e p1278, 1284-1285)The seizures in this patient, is due to alcohol withdrawal. Diazepam would be best medication to manage the seizure of the patient.Symptoms of Alcohol withdrawal:Hang over (MC)QHallucinationsQ (usually auditory) and illusionsQInsomniaQSeizures (Alcoholic seizures/Rum fits)QDelirium tremens;Occurs within 5 daysQ of complete or significant abstinenceQ from from heavy alcohol drinking Recovery occurs within 7 daysCharacteristic features are clouding of consciousnessQ, disorientationQ, hallucinations (mostly visual and auditory)Q, illusionQ, autonomic disturbancesQ, agitationQ and insomniaQ.Long acting benzodiazepines such as chlordiazepoxide and diazepam or short acting such as Iorazepam can he used to treat mild-moderate uncomplicated alcohol withdrawal.''Chlordiazepoxide is preferred over diazepam for treatment of alcohol withdrawal syndrome.'Management ofAlcohol IntoxicationAlcohol WithdrawalDelirium TremensDrugs used are:* Lorazepam (can worsen the vitals due to CNS depression)* Haloperidol (can lower seizure threshold) Other drugs which may be used:* Ziprasidone* Olanzapine* All patients should be given multiple oral vitamin B1 including 50-100 mg of thiamine daily for a week.* Replace alcohol (CNS depressant) with any other CNS depressant.* Benzodiazepines are commonly used.* Chlordiazepoxide is drug of choice because of its long half- life.* High dose benzodiazepines or antipsychotics arerecommended.* Anticonvulsants are not given to control seizures seen in delirium tremens. Withdrawal SyndromesSubstanceFeaturesOpioid* YawningQ, Insomnia. Dysphoric mood* Water loss from different orificesQ (LacrimationQ, sweatingQ, diarrheaQ, vomiting, rhinorrheaQ)* Increased vitalsQ (BP, Pulse, RR, Temperature)Q* Pupilary dilation, piloerectionQAlcohol(Hls delirium)* Hang over (MC)Q* HallucinationsQ (usually auditory) and illusionsQ* InsomniaQ* Seizures (Alcoholic seizures/Rum fits)Q* Delirium tremens:- Occurs within 5 daysQ of complete or significant abstinenceQ from from heavy alcohol drinking- Recovery occurs within 7 days- Characteristic features are clouding of consciousnessQ, disorientationQ, hallucinations (mostly visual and auditory)Q, illusionQ, autonomic disturbancesQ, agitationQ and insomniaQ.Cocaine* Increased or decreased- Sleep (hypersomniaQ or insomnia)- Psychomotor activity* Vivid unpleasant dreamsQ* Increased apetite and fatigueRemember:Drug of choice in withdrawal syndromeOpium* Methadone (1st choice)* Clonidine (2nd choice)Alcohol* Chlordiazepoxide (1st choice)* Diazepam (2nd) choice)Treatment of Alcohol DependenceAversion therapy: ApomorphineQ, sub-threshold electric shockPsychotherapyGroup therapyDeterrent agents: (Alcohol sensitizing drugs)QDisulfiramQCitrated calcium carbimide (CCC)MetronidazoleQ, NitrafezoleQMethyltetrazolethiolSulfonylureas (specially ChlorpropamideQ)Cephalosporins (cefoperazoneQ, moxalactamQ, cefamandoleQ)Anticraving agents: (FAN)FluoxetineQAcamprosateQNaltrexoneQ
Psychiatry
Alcohol-Related Disorders
df683e42-3c8c-47c9-8742-d7d8593d6e5e
Metronidazole is effective in all of the following conditions except -
Pseudomembranous colitis
Neurocysticercosis
Giardiasis
Amebic liver abscess
1b
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Neurocysticercosis
Pharmacology
null
9be7b99c-aff2-4202-b7c3-20b76c12276b
Which of the following is the causative agent of STD disease donovanosis?
Hemophilus ducrevi
Klebsiella granulomatis
Leishmania donovani
Treponema pallidum
1b
multi
Granuloma inguinale/donovanosis-caused byKlebsiella granulomatis. Small, painless nodules appear after about 10-40 days of the contact with the bacteria. Later, the nodules burst, creating open, fleshy, oozing lesions. The lesions occur at the region of contact typically found on the shaft of the penis, the labia, or the perineum Diagnosis:painless, "beefy-red ulcer" with a characteristic rolled edge of granulation tissue. Wright Giemsa stain:Donovan bodies- rod-shaped, oval organisms that can be seen in the cytoplasm of mononuclear phagocytes or histiocytes in tissue samples.
Social & Preventive Medicine
NEET Jan 2020
41f7e387-2a7e-4184-af1f-338ef8040320
A 55 years old female presents with tinnitus, dizziness and h/o progressive deafness. Differential diagnosis includes all except:
Acoustic neuroma
Endolymphatic hydrops
Meningioma
Histiocytosis-x
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e. Histiocytosis X It is very well known that first 3 options i.e., Acoustic neuroma, endolymphatic hydrops (Miniers disease), and Meningioma can cause tinnitus and u/1 progressive deafness, (although Menier disease is usually b/l but initial presentation is u/l and the other ear is also involved in a few years).About Histiocytosis X, I have not read anywhere straight forward symptoms of tinnitus & u/l deafness. But in disseminated and Multifocal Langerhans cell histiocytosis, recurrent episodes of otitis media and mastoiditis are common (and these can cause tinnitus and progressive hearing loss )Leaving these complexities of symptoms, Histiocytosis X can be easily ruled out on age basis.All three -Acoustic neuroma, Endolymphatic hydrops and meningioma are common in middle age group i.e., 30-35 to 60 yrs.But Histiocytosis X is seen only in children and young adults.There are 3 forms of Histiocytosis X:Letterer Siwe disease - seen in young children upto 2 yrs of ageHand Schuller Christian disease- childrenEosinophilic granuloma - children and young adults
ENT
Ear
827e221f-031e-4225-b760-210296a671ae
In primary tuberculosis, all of the following may be seen except:
Cavitation
Caseation
Calcification
Langhans giant cell
0a
multi
Cavitation is seen when there has been a previous sensitization of the host resulting in caseous necrotic material being present which is discharged through the cavities. So, it is associated with secondary tuberculosis more frequently.
Pathology
Pulmonary Tuberculosis and Lung Abscess
8164abaf-7f79-4921-9bc5-62b187596936
One of the following condition is not associated with clubbing :
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Chronic bronchitis
Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
Central bronchiectasis
1b
single
Answer is B (Chronic bronchitis): Chronic bronchitis does not cause clubbing Some causes of finger clubbing Respiratory Cardiovascular Bronchial carcinoma, especially epidermoid (squamous cell) type (major cause) Cyanotic hea disease Chronic suppurative lung disese Subacute infective endocarditis Bronchiectasis Lung abscess Miscellaneous Empyema Congenital -- no disease Cirrhosis Pulmonary fibrosis (e.g. cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis) Inflammatory bowel disease Pleural and mediastinal tumours (e.g. mesothelioma) Primary billiary cirrhosis Crvptogenic organizing pneumonia
Medicine
null
48e8a6b4-01a3-47fd-b0b0-8886252980a3
Conduction aphasia is classically seen due to lesion in -
Arcuate fascicultis
Cingulate gyms
Bruges area
Werniekes area
0a
multi
Answer- A. Arcuate fascicultis
Medicine
null
28e2630a-3c5e-48bd-9a28-ca4f12cddd46
Uveal Effusion syndrome may be associated with all of the following, Except:
Myopia
Ciliochoroidal detachment
Structural defect in Sclera
Nanophthalmos
0a
multi
A i.e. Myopia Uvea effusion syndrome may be associated with small hypermetropic eyes but it is not associated with MyopiaQ. Ciliochoroidaliffusion (tachment) = CCE It is collection of fluid in the potential space between the sclera externally and the choroids and ciliary body internally. The fluid is usually located with in the expansion zone of choroids & ciliary body and is therefore within the uvea. Features The anatomic arrangement of fibers. anteriorly that attach the ciliary body and anterior chorioid to the sclera, is analogous to that of long and tangential fibers in outer plexiform layer in the macular area (another location where fluid selectively accumulates). - The physiological pressure in suprachoroidal space is - 2 mmHg less than IOP in anterior & vitreous chamber. A precipitous (sudden) decline in LOP d/t surgery or trauma may promote vascular engorgement and suprachoroidal edema. With CCE, the lens -iris diaphragm may shift anteriorly and cause acute angle closure glaucoma. Structurally abnormal Sclera (Thick Sclera) : Sclera contains high levels of abnormal proteoglycans which bind and trap large volumes of water. Thus the sclera thickens and may secondarily obstruct the choroidal venous drainage and escape of aqueous that leave the anterior chamber uveoscleral route. Fibronectin is increased in sclera in nanopthalmos. Forms (Types) Voex vein compression by thickened sclera has been implicated in the production of uveal effusion in uveal effusion syndrome and nanopthalmic eyesQ. Abnormal accumulation of serous fluid lit exudative deep ciliochoroidal detachment of ciliary body, choroids and retina. In chronic CCE, break down of blood ocular barrier at the level of RPE occurs and 1/t non rhegmatogenous RD. - Linear areas of RPE hyperophy and hyperplasia (Verhoeff's streak) are sign of resolving (subsidiary) cilochorodal effusion (detachment). Motling of RPE (Leopard sign) may be seen. Eyes may be nanopthalmic (small) or hvpermetropic Phthysis and hypotonia is usually due to ciliary body shutdown from chronic detachment which compromises the blood supply to the ciliary processes Ureal effusion syndrome is frequently confused clinically with ring melanoma of the ciliary body/choroids and metastatic tumors which form impoant differential diagnosis of this condition. Transillumination and USG are helpful in distinguishing a serous from solid detachment. CCE light up, and transillumination can be observed anteriorly next to limbus. Increased transillumination by CCE is k/a Hagen's sign. However, in some cases of melanoma (non pigmented type) transillumination may not be defective.
Ophthalmology
null
cae8f1ae-3402-415f-9b64-63a2faa82ed6
All of the following are Hepatotoxic except-
Erythromycin
Tetracycline
Choloroquine
Rifampicin
2c
multi
null
Medicine
null
78fc4b9f-7851-408b-8d89-e0ede04765ad
Enophthalmos is seen in -
Blow out fracture of orbit wall
Hyperthyroidism
Radiation Injuries
Diabetes meilitus
0a
multi
Arts. Is 'a' i.e., Blow out fracture of orbit wall o Enophthalmos is seen in blow out fracture of orbit wall.o Post traumatic enophthalmos is caused by blow out fracture through the floor of orbit.ENOPHTHALMOSo It is the inward displacement of the eyeball. About 50 percent cases of mild enophthalmos are misdiagnosed as having ipsilateral ptosis or contralateral proptosis,o Common causes areCongenital. Microphthalmos and maxillary hypoplasia.Traumatic, Blow out fractures of floor of the orbit.Post-inflammatory'. Cicatrization of extraocular muscles as in the pseudotumour syndromes.Paralytic enophthalmos. It is seen in Homer's syndrome (due to paralysis of cervical sympathetics).Atrophy of orbital contents. Senile atrophy of orbital fat, atrophy due to irradiation of malignant tumour, following cicatrizing metastatic carcinoma and due to scleroderma.
Ophthalmology
Proptosis, Enophthalmos, Developmental Anomalies
5d54599c-ed4c-4cbf-bba6-09f9721ddc30
Blue sclera is feature of -
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteopetrosis
Cleidocranial dysostosis
Achendroplasia
0a
single
Osteogenesis imperfecta also known as Fragilitas ossium/ Vrolick&;s disease characterised by, Fragility of bones, deafness, Blue sclera, laxity of joints and tendency to improve with age. It results from defective collagen synthesis and thus affects other collagen containing soft tissues such as the skin, sclera, teeth, ligaments etc. Reference - TB of ohopaedics- Ebnezar-3rd edn-pg no 464
Orthopaedics
Bony dysplasia and soft tissue affection
a570cb73-175d-4d3f-90b6-3e41be69444c
Inducing agent of choice in DIC
Thiopentone
Ketamine
Methohexitone
Propofol
1b
single
The cardiovascular stimulatory effects make ketamine a desirable drug for the induction of anesthesia in unstable cardiovascular patients suffering from hypovolemia, hemorrhagic shock, or cardiovascular depression in sepsis. Ketamine bronchodilation and profound analgesia allowing the use of high oxygen concentrations make ketamine an excellent choice for induction of anesthesia in patients with reactive airway disease. Patients who have sustained trauma with extensive blood loss are typical candidates for rapid-sequence anesthesia induction with ketamine. Patients with septic shock also may benefit from ketamine. The intrinsic myocardial depressant effect of ketamine may manifest in this situation if trauma or sepsis has caused depletion of catecholamine stores before the patient's arrival in the operating room. The use of ketamine in these patients does not obte the need for appropriate preoperative preparation, including restoration of intravascular blood volume. Ref: Miller's anesthesia 8th edition Ref: Morgan & Mikhail's clinical anesthesiology 6e
Anaesthesia
General anaesthesia
f41a12e6-4c80-4d79-8653-7ba799e1f8a1
The classic triad of brucellosis include all, except
Fever with profuse night sweats
Meningoencephalitis
Ahralgia
Hepatosplenomegaly
1b
multi
Though the manifestations of the disease vary, the classic triad of fever with profuse night sweats , ahralgia/ahritis and hepatosplenomegaly are present in most patients
Anatomy
Bacteriology
3c698fe6-8f61-4d97-9002-fd51297e82c0
The following vaccines can be given to immunocompromized child except?
Recombinant
Subunit
Live attenuated
Killed
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Live attenuated o Live attenuated vaccine cannot be given in immunocompromized because even low virulent vaccine strain (of organism) can cause disease in immunocompromized patient.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
c1be576d-84ed-4a29-805a-a5d850bb01ac
Which metabolite is involved in glycolysis, HMP shunt pathway as well as gluconeogenesis?
Glucose-1-phosphate
Glucose-6-phosphate
Fructose-6-phosphate
Pyruvate
1b
single
Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is a method by which glucose is trapped inside the cell. Later it is diverted to many different pathways depending upon energy state of the cell.
Biochemistry
null
ea9c4a64-bb76-49b8-8138-6ae81039c0ca
The condition where glistening spots are found in tubal serosa:
Walthard cell nests
Metastases from ovary
Paraovarian cysts
Tubal fibrosis
2c
single
Ans. is c i.e. Paraovarian cysts Paraovarian cysts are extra peritoneal cysts lying in broad ligament adjacent to the ovary, below the fallopian tube. The tube is stretched and flattened over the top of the cyst which tends to enlarge in a lateral direction so that it may lie to the side of and above the ovary. The cyst is usually unilocular contains clear fluid, its wall is smooth, thin and translucent. So it is seen as glistening spots in tuba! serosa..
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
c64a0f0f-9767-4dc9-800a-ff78a4a154cc
IVF is done for infeility due to?
Azoospermia
Tubal infeility
Infeility due to PID
Uterine agenesis
0a
single
Azoospermia REF: Shaw's 13 th ed p. 206 The requisite for In Vitro Feilization is presence of normal female reproductive tract. In presence of tubal factors leading to infeility the IVF can't be done. It is indicated for oligospermia or azoospermia.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
4d97be90-aaf4-4eec-b626-117d8514e954
Ideal age for repair of vaginal agenesis is :
6 months
3 years
At pubey
Before marriage
3d
single
Before marriage Repair of vaginal agenesis (seen in testicular feminizaton syndrome and Rokitansky-Kuster Hauser syndrome) is done by vaginoplasty. Vaginoplasty should only be performed when the girl is just married or about to be married. Techniques : 1. Frank dilatation (Non surgical method). 2. Construction of aificial vagina by Mc lndoe operation. 3. Williams vaginoplasty - creates a pouch out of labia majora dissection.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
da06f0a5-5292-496f-80b4-78f16955d295
Low grade squamous Intraepithelial leison of cervix in Bethseda system includes :
CIN 1
CIN 2
CIN 3
Squamous metaplasia
0a
single
Dysplasias are graded as: 1. Mild dysplasia (CIN-I). The undifferentiated cells are confined to the lower one-third of the epithelium. The cells are more differentiated towards the surface. Mild dysplasia due to infection is often seen in young women indulging in sexual activity. CIN-I is lately described as low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) according to the Bethesda classification. 'Ascus' is a term described in the Bethesda system as atypical cells of undetermined significance. The intermediate cells mostly display mild dysplasia with enlarged nuclei and irregular outline. One per cent progress to cancer over the years. 2. Moderate dysplasia (CIN-II). Undifferentiated cells occupy the lower 50-75% of the epithelial thickness. The cells are mostly intermediate with moderate nuclear enlargement, hyperchromasia, irregular chromatin and multiple nucleation. Thiy per cent of CIN II regress, 40% persist and the rest progress to invasive cancer. 3. Severe dysplasia and carcinoma in situ (CIN-III). In this grade of dysplasia, the entire thickness of the epithelium is replaced by abnormal cells. There is no cornification and stratification is lost. The basement membrane, however, is intact and there is no stromal infiltration. Often, an abrupt change in histological appearance from normal to abnormal is apparent. The cytology cells are mostly parabasal with increased nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio. The nuclei are irregular, with coarse chromatin material; mitosis and multinucleation are common. Almost all progress to invasive cancer over 10-15 years. 4. Tadpole cells are seen in invasive cancer. CIN-II and CIN-III are described as high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL) according to the latest Bethesda classification. HSIL have a propensity to progress and become invasive, and therefore need investigations and treatment.In cervix , low grade squamous Intraepithelial leison ( LSIL ) in 2001 Bethseda system includes cervical intraepithelial neoplasia I Reference: Textbook of Gynaecology; 16th edition; Pg no:486
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological oncology
a2c8a06b-1320-4d88-9c51-885e5b206ff7
ALL of the following are true about trigeminal neuralgia EXCEPT
it is unilateral
it is of throbbing nature
it is triggered by touching cheeks, mucosa etc
occurs in bouts
1b
multi
null
Pathology
null
1139592f-b353-4861-b39d-86331205ecfb
Keratin of skin and nail differ because of
Disulphide bond
Covalent bond
Vander Waal bond
Hydrogen bond
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e Disulphide bond " the keratins are a family of closely related fibrous proteins, whose structure is nearly entirely alpha- helical. They are a major component of tissues such as hairs and skin; their rigidity is determined by the number of disulphide bonds between the constituent polypeptide chains " -Lippincott's BiochemThus the difference in rigidity between the keratins of hairs and nail in because of the number of disulphide bonds.Keratins are rich in cysteine*( a sulphur containing amino acid ) which provides covalent disulphide cross-link between adjacent polypeptide chains.
Biochemistry
Miscellaneous (Structure & Function of Proteins)
26ed48a2-cd3e-4bd0-ab23-1dc66df27168
Which of the following are included in Malaria Vector Indices in pre-eradication era ? a)Spleen ratio b)Human blood index c) Slide positivity rate d)Parasite density index
1,3
1,4
1, 2, 3
4,3,1
1b
single
Malaria vector indices are divided into 3 groups. 1.Pre-eradication era 2.Eradication ERA 3. Malaria vector indices Spleen ratio AV. Enlarged spleen Parasite rate Parasite density index IPR PCR API ABER AFI SPR SFR Human blood index Sporozoite rate Mosquito Density Biting density Inoculation rate
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable & Non Communicable Disease
847449e5-8f57-4df5-b87a-0bcc11cea7e6
In camera trial of a rape case hearing is done under ?
376 IPC
327 CrPC
53 CrPC
375 IPC
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e. 327 CrPC S. 327 CrPC (2) -The inquiry into and trial of rape or an offence under sec.376 IPC shall be conducted in camera and it is not lawful for any person to print or publish any matter in relation to such proceedings except with the permission of cou.
Forensic Medicine
null
0c4a864b-2ba2-4f67-b66f-a2a2f8ae75c6
Which of the following anti-epileptic agents causes the reversible side-effect of gingival hyperplasia?
Ethosuximide
Phenobarbitone
Sodium valproate
None of the above
3d
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
aa975653-bd02-4486-9910-abb11779cbe4
Amyloid is best identified by -
Staining with methyl violet
Secondary fluorescence in UV light with riboflavin
Congo red
Green birefringence of stained amyloid when viewed by polarizing microscope
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Green birefringence of stained amyloid when viewed by polarizing microscope
Pathology
null
727efe5e-9b4f-4f4a-95c3-51b405e73c6a
The red velvety appearance of stomach mucosa is seen in the poisoning of
Lead
Arsenic
Copper
Mercury
1b
single
(Refer: Rajesh Bardale - Principle of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology, 1 st edition, pg no: 430)
Anatomy
All India exam
11674eb2-8903-4d38-a7a6-b07cc7ba8350
Maximum energy store in
Adipose
Liver
Muscle
Blood glucose
0a
single
It is the storehouse of energy in the body (about 1,35,000 kcal)The free fatty acid (FFA) mobilized from adipose tissue is the preferred fuel for muscle during starvationThe energy is stored in the concentrated form, triacylglycerol. The chylomicrons and VLDL are hydrolyzed by lipoprotein lipase present on capillary walls. It is activated by insulin.Ref: DM Vasudevan Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 87
Biochemistry
Respiratory chain
b6441f04-bc25-48d4-9d2f-73743a0f60cf
60 year old diabetic female presented with burning sensation to spicy food. Intraoral examination revealed multiple periodontal abscess and keratotic area in a lace pattern with occasional erosive areas inside the lace pattern. Provisional diagnosis for this lady will be
Oral hairy Leukoplakia
Oral lichen planus
Oral squamous cell carcinoma
Oral pemphigus
1b
single
Oral lichen planus is a common mucocutaneous disease, characterised by bilateral white striations, papules, plaques on the buccal mucosa, tongue and gingiva. Erosive form may present as erosions or frankly ulcerated lesions, with characteristic radiating striae on the periphery of the individual lesions. Grinspan's syndrome is an interesting association of lichen planus, diabetes mellitus and vascular hypertension.
Pathology
null
ab43d339-8210-4804-a46d-cda710a4e419
Which of the following is selective alpha antagonist?
Propanolol
Prazosin
Phentolamine
Clonidine
1b
single
Ans. B. PrazosinPrazosin is selective alpha 1 blocker which used in patients suffering from BHP. They also used in hypertension. Phentolamine is nonselective alpha blocker. Clonidine is alpha 2 agonists.
Pharmacology
A.N.S.
2a673d59-8851-4d6e-8c15-98e46b9073ea
A 12 year old girl with the mood and emotional liability has a golden brown discoloration in descement membrane. Most likely diagnosis is ?
Fabry's disease
Wilson's disease
Glycogen storage disease
Acute rheumatic fever
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Wilson's disease Emotional liability, tremors (Neurological symptoms) with brown discoloration of descemet's membrane of coenea suggest the diagnosis of Wilson's disease. Wilson's disease ? o It occurs due to reduced mobilization of copper from lysosomes in liver cells for excretion into the bile. o Abnormal gene for Wilson's disease is on long arm of chromosome 13 (AR). Clinical features ? o Younger patient likely to develop hepatic involvement. o Later on Neurologic manifestation like tremor, dystonia, behavioral changes also develops. o K-F rings may be absent in young patients with liver diseases but are always present in patient with neurologic symptoms. o Hemolysis may be an initial manifestation. Sensory changes never occur. Diagnosis ? o Decrease ceruloplasmin level o Liver biopsy
Pediatrics
null
66651c6f-b72b-4e59-aec5-a4770bfdd7fa
A patient with mild skin pigmentation comes to you because of sudden abdominal pain, fever and a rigid abdomen. Her lab repo show blood sugar of 55, Na 119, and K 6.2. Her BP 88/58. She undergoes exploratory laparotomy. Which statement is true?
Treatment with exogenous steroids is usually ineffective
This condition is commonly seen as a consequence of metastasis of distant cancers, such as lung or breast to the adrenal glands
Death from untreated chronic adrenal insufficiency may occur within hours of surgery
The most common underlying cause today is infection with MDR tuberculosis
2c
multi
Failure to recbgnize adrenal coical insufficiency, paicularly in the ppstoperative patient, may be a fatal error that is especially regrettable because therapy (exogenous steroids) is effective and easy to administer. Adrenal insufficiency may occur in a host of settings including tuberculosis (formerly the most common cause), autoimmune state, severe infections (classically, meningococcal septicemia), pituitary insufficiency, after burns, during anticoagulant therapy, and--most commonly today--aftEURr interruption of chronically administered exogenous steroids. Although the adrenal gland is an occasion3l site for distant metastases, such as from lung or breast, it is rare for there to be enough destruction of the glands to produce clinical adrenal insufficiency Chronic adrenal insufficiency (classic Addison's diease) should be recognizable preoperatively by the constellation of skin hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia. Death may occur within hours of surgery if a patient with Addison's disease is operated on without cognizance of adreria! insufficiency and pretreatment with exogenous steroids. Patients who have adrenal insufficiency as a result of interruption of chronically administered exogenous steroids may not develop the classic electrolyte abnormalities until the preterminal period. Adrenal insufficiency may also develop insidiously in the postoperative period, progressing over a course of several days. This insidious course is seen when adrenal injury occurs in the perioperative period, as would be the case with adrenal damage from hemorrhage into the gland in a patient receiving postoperative anticoagulant PTT. therapy Measurement of blood coicosteroid levels, urinary coicosteroid secretion, urinary sodium levels, and response to exogenous steroids is helpful in establishing the diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency pigmentation, weakness, weight loss, hypotension, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, hypoglycemia,
Surgery
null
5c5d34c0-3e69-4d6b-9531-335d1edb503f
Normal safe limit of Fluoride content in drinking water is
0.5 to 0.8 mg/L
0.8 to 1.0 mg/L
0.2 to 0.5 mg/L
0.2 to 0.8 mg/L
0a
single
The recommended level of fluorides in drinking water in India is accepted as 0.5 to 0.8 mg per literRef: Park; 23rd ed; Pg 625
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
e7688428-52f8-4ee6-b0f1-533a73c4df2c
Which of the following is not a point mutation-
Silent mutation
Nonsense mutation
Frame shift mutation
Mis-sense mutation
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Frame shift mutation o Somatic mutations include :-i) Point mutations :- Silent mutation, mis-sense mutation, nonsense mutation.ii) Frame shift mutations :- These are due to deletion or insertion of base pair.iii) Trinucleotide repeat mutation.o Methionine is activated into S-adenosylmethionine, which then transfers its methyl group to an acceptor. Thus methionine acts as methyl donor in transmethylation reactions.o Some of the important transmethylation reactions are-i) Norepinephrine - Epinephrineii) Phosphatidylethanolamine - Phosphatidylcholineiii) Gunaidoacetate - Creatineiv) Ethanolamine - Cholinev) Acetyl serotonin - Serotoninvi) Nucleotides - methylated nucleotides
Biochemistry
Regulation of Gene Expression
a317dcdd-de6a-48f1-95f7-7fc4473cd6e2
Test used for cholesterol is
Salkowski test
Schilling test
Zellwenger’s test
Brodie’s test
0a
single
null
Biochemistry
null
08321f52-cd4c-43c7-abc7-64395b6d510e
The light brown perinuclear pigment seen on H & Estaining of the cardiac muscle fibres in the grosslynormal appearing hea of an 83 year old man atautopsy is due to deposition os:
Hemosiderin
Lipochrome
Cholesterol metabolite
Anthracotic pigment
1b
single
. Lipochrome
Pathology
null
f2187e42-c56d-4bac-9247-3884f5e626a4
Apparant volume of distribution of a drug less than 5 liters implies that the drug is predominantly in which of the following compament?
Extracellular fluid
Total body water
Intracellular fluid
Intravascular fluid
0a
single
Ans is 'a' i.e., Extracellular fluido A drug with high volume of distribution has more concentration in tissue and less in plasma.o A drug with low volume of distribution has concentration only in plasma (intravascular)Relationship between volume of distribution and extent of distributionVd (L)% body weightExtent of distribution< 57only in plasma5-207-28In extracellular fluid20-4028-56In total body water>40>56In deep tissues; bound to peripheral tissues
Pharmacology
null
ee385d01-3ecf-4b35-bf24-f5e6fcfa6e1d
This is a paramyxovirus and causes the syndrome known as croup.
Measles virus
Influenza virus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Parainfluenza virus
3d
single
Orthomyxoviruses and paramyxoviruses are RNA viruses that contain a single-stranded RNA genome. The influenza viruses belong to the orthomyxoviruses. They cause acute respiratory tract infections that usually occur in epidemics. Isolated strains of influenza virus are named after the virus type (influenza A, B, or C) as well as the host and location of initial isolation, the year of isolation, and the antigenic designation of the hemagglutinin and neuraminidase. Both the hemagglutinin and neuraminidase are glycoproteins under separate genetic control, and because of this they can and do vary independently. The changes in these antigens are responsible for the antigenic drift characteristic of these viruses. The paramyxoviruses include several important human pathogens (mumps virus, measles virus, respiratory syncytial virus, and parainfluenza virus). Both paramyxoviruses and orthomyxoviruses possess an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase that is a structural component of the virion and produces the initial RNA. Respiratory syncytial viruses (RSV) are not related to the paramyxoviruses. They are 150-nm single-stranded RNA viruses. There are 2 antigen groups, A and B, which play no role in diagnosis and treatment. While the overall mortality is 0.5%, at-risk groups may be 25 to 35% mortality if untreated. Some parainfluenza virus infections (type 3) may be indistinguishable from RSV, but most parainfluenza infections produce a laryngotracheobronchitis known as croup.
Microbiology
Virology
3a38a471-25d5-4c12-afb1-af1d52e07632
In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged except?
Isthmus of the thyroid
Inferior thyroid aery
Thyroid ima
Inferior thyroid vein
1b
multi
Isthmus, thyroid ima aery and inferior thyroid veins are midline structures and thus can be injured during tracheostomy, more so during emergency tracheostomy. Inferior thyroid aery, a branch of the thyrocervical trunk of the subclan aery lies laterally away from midline, thus can escape injury. In emergency tracheostomy following structures can be damaged: - Isthmus - Inferior thyroid veins - Thyroid ima aery - Left brachio-cephalic vein, jugular venous arch - Pleura (especially infants) - Thymus - Esophagus (the trachea is small, mobile, and soft in infants damage the esophagus)
Anatomy
null
d8ac47c1-82ad-4087-9256-692b2075b8d5
The primary excretory organ for the local anaesthetic and its metabolites is:
Lungs
Kidneys
Rectum
Skin
1b
single
null
Surgery
null
c0ee9858-9837-4d26-9ab8-fbb75e0e5fd4
A case of murder with gunshot is reported. A metal bullet is recovered from the body. Primary and Secondary markings on a metal bullet can be used for
Identification of weapon
To know the range of firing
Severity of tissue damage
To know time of crime
0a
single
Ans is 'a' i.e. Identification of weapon "Primary and secondary marks on the surface of the bullet helps in identification of the gun. Primary marks on the surface of the bullet tells about the 'make' or type of the gun used and the secondary marks which are due to some elevation or depression on the inner surface of the barrel of the gun will tell specifically about the particular gun which has been used when compared with similar markings of a bullet test-fired from the suspected gun. Investigation of Offences on Human Body by Apurba Nandy p48Two types of marks are seen on the surface of the bullet and help in identification of the firearm used.Primary markings (Class characteristics):In all rifled firearms, the bullet is slightly larger than the barrel, and as the bullet passes through the barrel, its sides are marked by the rifling of the barrel. These are k/a primary markings.Primary markings or Class characteristics include- caliber number of lands and grooves {these 2 terms used in describing the rifling found inside the barrel of a firearm. The word lands refers to the raised portion of the rifling, and the grooves refers to the lower portion of the rifling.) direction of the twist of rifling rate of twist of the rifling width of the land and groovesPrimary markings help in identifying the make and model of the firearm used.Secondary markings (individual or accidental characteristics):These markings are caused by irregularities on the inner surface of the barrel which are specific for that particular weapon. These irregularities are produced by the sticking of the particles of the bullet to the bore when shots are fired (this is k/a metallic fouling). Individual characteristics also result accidentally during the manufacturing process.Secondary markings help iii identifying the specific gun from which the bullet was fired.
Forensic Medicine
Misc.
b33aca63-309d-4307-85d4-23c53154b6c6
A neonate is suspected to be suffering from necrotizing entercolitis (NEC). On fuhur examination and investigation, he is diagnosed to be Bell&;s stage INEC. The management of choice would be
Laporotomy and proceed
Inseion of bilateral pelvic drains
Conservative management with IV fluids and antibiotics
Initial conservative management and laparotomy after 24 hours
2c
single
.Abdomen radiographs may show pneumatosis intestinalis,or free intraperitoneal air. management consists of agressive resuscitation and intravenous feeding.The optimal time for surgery is not in the acute phase as the baby can withstand the pressure of necrosis better than an adult,but not in the stress laprotomy. BAILEY AND LOVE&;S SHO PRACTICE OF SURGERY,PG NO:1200, 24th edition
Pediatrics
Gastrointestinal tract
4a5357b8-8df5-45c1-8cb4-6e137142e1d4
False statement regarding this condition:
Associated with HLA DR4, DR5, DQ3
Exclamation mark seen
Spares grey and white hairs
Itching and scaling seen
3d
multi
Ans. d. Itching and scaling seenAlopecia AreataInitial lesion is a circumscribed, totally bald, smooth patchExclamation mark hairs seenHLA DR4, DR5, DQ3 associatedSpares grey white hairs leading to "Going white/Turning grey overnight phenomenon"No itching or scaling
Skin
General
0ee78a3a-d3de-4a46-a51e-7846de72c2f3
An intrauterine pregnancy of approximately 10 weeks gestation is confirmed in a 30-year-old gravida 5, para 4 woman with an IUD in place. The patient expresses a strong desire for the pregnancy to be continued. On examination, the string of the IUD is noted to be protruding from the cervical os. The most appropriate course of action is to
Leave the IUD in place without any other treatment
Leave the IUD in place and continue prophylactic antibiotics throughout pregnancy
Remove the IUD immediately
Terminate the pregnancy because of the high risk of infection
2c
single
Although there is an increased risk of spontaneous abortion, and a small risk of infection, an intrauterine pregnancy can occur and continue successfully to term with an IUD in place. However, if the patient wishes to keep the pregnancy and if the string is visible, the IUD should be removed in an attempt to reduce the risk of infection, abortion, or both. Although the incidence of ectopic pregnancies with an IUD was at one time thought to be increased, it is now recognized that in fact the overall incidence is unchanged. The apparent increase is the result of the dramatic decrease in intrauterine implantation without affecting ectopic implantation. Thus, while the overall probability of pregnancy is dramatically decreased, when a pregnancy does occur with an IUD in place, there is a higher probability that it will be an ectopic one. With this in mind, in the absence of signs and symptoms suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy, especially after ultrasound documentation of an intrauterine pregnancy, laparoscopy is not indicated. The incidence of heterotopic pregnancy, in which intrauterine and extrauterine implantation occur, is no higher than approximately 1 in 2500 pregnancies.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Contraceptives
750844cc-eade-459f-b269-81193564a3fa
CHF in an infant is characterized by all Except
Pedal edema
Tachypnea
Sweating
Poor weight gain
0a
multi
Congestive Cardiac Failure in InfantsSymptomsSignsFeeding difficulty.Takes less volume per feed.Diaphoretic while sucking.Forehead sweating.Suck-rest-suck cycle.Poor weight gain. Periorbital edema Clothes no longer fit.Increasing cloth sizeRapid breathing/nasal flaring/cyanosis/chest retractions.Tachycardia.Hepatomegaly. Occasionally Splenomegaly.Periorbital edemaEdema in flanks. Dependent edema (Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Paediatrics, 19thedition,pg no:1530)
Pathology
All India exam
0a757ece-728a-4805-93f6-789e7c68ae6e
Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reactions can aid in diagnosis of all of the following viral infections except -
Adenovirus
Astrovirus
Rotavirus
Poliovirus
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adenovirus . Normally in transcription there is formation of RNA from DNA. Obviously, as the name suggests, reverse transcriptase will cause transcription in reverse fashion i.e synthesis of DNA from RNA. Then fresh RNA is formed from DNA. . Amongst the given options, only adenovirus is a DNA virus. All other are RNA viruses. . Reverse transcriptase induces formation of DNA from RNA. so it can be used in the diagnosis of RNA viruses only.
Microbiology
null
11f8c9e5-d8f3-4cc6-9e44-462166f67a47
Classical indications of gamma knife amongst the following is:
Glioblastoma
Arterio-venous malformation
Tuberculoma
Hepatocellular carcinoma
1b
single
Ans. B. Arterio- venous malformationThe classic indication of cobalt based stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) and Gamma knife are:* Arterio-venous malformation* Acoustic Schwannoma* Pituitary Adenoma* Meningioma* Trigeminal NeuralgiaGamma knife aims gamma radiation through a target point in the patient's brain. The patient wears a specialized helmet that is surgically fixed to the skull. An ablative dose of radiation is thereby sent through the tumor in one treatment session while surrounding brain tissues are relatively spared.NOTE: SRS has been used in the treatment of almost every intracranial lesion but is commonly used in the treatment of the above-mentioned conditions, (hence the answer is AV malformation and not glioblastoma)
Radiology
Miscellaneous
5337b65f-ab51-403a-a9f3-03999d836c40
Translation occurs in :
Ribosomes
Mitochondria
Nucleus
Cytoplasm
0a
single
A i.e. Ribosome
Biochemistry
null
a0498e4a-6040-483d-a4d8-e01e92fc2b56
Vocal cords are supplied by?
External laryngeal nerve
Internal laryngeal nerve
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Vagus nerve
2c
single
Ans. c (Recurrent laryngeal nerve). (Ref. BD Chaurasia, Anatomy, 3rd vol., 3rd ed., 61)# The internal laryngeal nerve supplies the mucous membrane of larynx above the level of vocal folds.# The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies below the level of vocal cords.# When both recurrent laryngeal nerves are interrupted, vocal folds lie in cadaveric position and phonation is lost completely.# When only recurrent laryngeal is paralysed, opposite vocal cord compensates and phonation is possible.
Anatomy
Larynx
714a0a1b-9533-4d83-88f4-4118e9c29dec
Treatment of stage III carcinoma ovary: March 2013
Total hysterectomy
Total hysterectomy + bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Debulking surgery + removal of tumour
None of the above
2c
multi
Ans. C i.e. Debulking surgery + removal of tumour Advanced and inoperable cases (stage III, IV) will benefit from debulking surgery and removal of tumour. Postoperative chemotherapy and radiotherapy improve the survival and quality of life Ovarian tumours Meigs syndrome: - Ascites, - Hydrothorax (right side) and - Benign tumour of ovary (fibroma); Malignant ovarian tumour in included in: Pseudomeig syndrome Masculinizing ovarian tumours: Hilus cell tumour, - Seoli cell tumour, - Leydig cell tumour Feminizing cell tumour: - Theca cell tumour, - Granulosa cell tumour MC ovarian tumour (in < 20 years): Dysgerminoma Most radiosensitive ovarian tumour: Dysgerminoma Histological features of ovarian tumours Rokintansky bodies: Teratoma Schiller Duval bodies: Endodermal sinus tumour Reinkes crystal: Hilus cell tumour Call Exner bodies: Granulosa cell tumour Ovarian tumours and markers Placental alkaline phosphatase: Dysgerminoma LDH: Dysgerminoma Inhibin: Granulosa cell tumour CA 125: Ovarian tumours
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
162121d8-f1a4-457e-a049-296ed063b454
Frecieuncy of Rest tremor in Parkinson's disease is -
2/sec
14/sec
4-6/sec
8/sec
2c
single
null
Medicine
null
2a60aa57-2594-4fc1-85e3-10302e60b0f3
A 59 yr old man with severe myxomatous mitral regurgitation is asymptomatic,wi wia left ventricular ejection fraction of 45% and an endsystollic diameter index of 2.9cm/m2 . The most appropriate treatment is
Mitral valve repair or replacement
No treatment
ACE inhibitor therapy
Digoxin and diuretic therapy
0a
single
Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1545 Valve repair for ischemic MR is associated with lower periopera- tive moality rates but higher rates of recurrent MR over time. In patients with ischemic MR and significantly impaired LV systolic function (EF <30%), the risk of surgery is higher, recovery of LV per- formance is incomplete, and long-term survival is reduced.
Anatomy
General anatomy
b67745d5-7a39-4122-ab70-3d0f3617c81f
The marked structure on the X-ray is:
Nasopharynx
Ethmoidal air cells
Sphenoid sinus
Pituitary gland
2c
single
(c) Sphenoid sinus(Ref. Scott Brown, 6th ed., 4/3/2)Shown below are X-ray Waters view (occipitomental) with open mouth and X-ray Nose & PNS- lateral view. Note the highest sinus in the lateral view is the frontal sinus.
ENT
Congenital Lesions and Stridor
8fb45ac8-2422-4f07-b779-ae4cbd7f2fde
Ampicillin prophylaxis is given in -
Rectal surgery
Splenectomy
Head and neck surgery
Biliary surgery
0a
single
• Prophylactic antibiotics in biliary surgery are designed to reduce the incidence of postoperative wound infections. • The efficacy of antibiotics in the prevention of wound infections has been demonstrated with first, second and third generation cephalosporins, ampicillin associated with clavulanate, ureido-penicillins, aminoglycosides, sulfonamides and quinolones.
Surgery
null
ff7e0e66-8b05-4023-9457-9f8e87437353
Acetyl coA can be directly converted to all except
Glucose
Fatty acids
Cholesterol
Ketone bodies
0a
multi
Acetyl-CoA may have following fates :- Synthesis of fatty acids, ketone bodies, cholesterol and other steroids Oxidation via TCA cycle
Biochemistry
null
4c127ccc-8109-4557-a78b-94e8496994ef
On mammogram all of the following are the features of a malignant tumor except
Spiculation
Microcalcification
Macrocalcification
Irregular mass
2c
multi
Mammographic features suggestive of breast cancer A solid mass with or without stellate features Asymmetric thickening of breast tissues Clustered microcalcification Presence of fine, stippled calcium in and around a suspicious lesion is suggestive of breast cancer and occurs in as many as 50% of nonpalpable cancers These microcalcifications are especially impoant sign of cancer in younger women, in whom it may be the only mammographic abnormality Ref:Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 828
Anatomy
Endocrinology and breast
e3453437-c20c-4c8b-8abc-bd75ef2c88fe
Drugs used for treating schizophrenia are chiefly: March 2010
Antimaniac
Antidepressant
Antihistaminics
Antipsychotic
3d
single
Ans. D: Antipsychotic Antipsychotics have been a mainstay of therapy for schizophrenia since the introduction of chlorpromazine in the mid-1950s, which revolutionized treatment. Atypical/second generation antipsychotic drugs, such as riseperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine. Aripiprazole, and ziprasidone, are more commonly used than the older typical/first generation antipsychotics such as trifluoperazine and haloperidol, in acute stages. Atypical antipsychotics are also useful when negative symptoms are prominent, e.g. in chronic schizophrenia.
Psychiatry
null
26324561-b7b1-47ed-b3fd-e2177f46b79f
Codex ali Men tarius is related to -
Water purity
Milk purity
Air pollution
Food stardardization
3d
single
Ans. is 'd i.e., Food standardization Food standards are :- i) Coder alimentarius ii) The Agmark standards iii) Bureau of Indian standards iv) ETA standards
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
ea33e1ef-f6e7-469f-ad56-721cb4122042
Most specific symptom of temporal aeritis?
Visual loss
Jaw claudication
Temporal headache
Polymyalgia rheumatica
1b
single
Giant cell aeritis ( temporal aeritis ) is a chronic vasculitis of large and medium vessel aeries, usually affecting the cranial branches of aeries arising from aoic arch. Jaw claudication is an underrepoed, yet, a very specific symptom of GCA, with a high positive predictive value. Ref : Harrison's Principles of Internal medicine, 21st edition , Page 2188; NEJM, May 5, 2016, 1794-1795.
Medicine
All India exam
1c0440a1-21e6-46d9-9222-24e2f10c00f8
Patient with pelvic fracture presents with anuria. After 24 hrs bladder is not palpable. Possible diagnosis includes:a) Bulbar urethral injuryb) Posterior urethral injuryc) Extraperitoneal rupture of bladderd) Intraperitoneal rupture of bladder
ab
bc
bd
cd
3d
single
The provided clues suggest rupture of the bladder, either intraperitoneal or extraperitoneal. The differentiation between the two could not be made on the basis of given clinical findings.
Surgery
null
3b9e386b-cd09-4856-ae80-5cbfcdb52e43
All of the following are true about anopheles type of mosquito Except –
Eggs are boat shaped and provided with lateral floats
Larvae rest parallel to water surface
Larvae have siphon tube
Pupae have broad and short siphon
2c
multi
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
1e0fd601-1244-41f0-ad21-b5db847bfaee
The following hemotoxylin and eosin stained biopsy is from which tissue?
Tonsils
Spleen
Lymph Node
Peyer's patches
0a
single
Ans- A Ref- medcell.med.yale.edu
Anatomy
Digestive System (Histology)
2f8ad044-5466-4599-8000-adfefe91c941
Which is most common site of Ca pancreas?
Head
Body
Tail
Neck
0a
single
Ans: a (Head) Ref: Robbins, 7th ed, p. 950Most commonly Ca pancreas arises from head.- Head-60%- Body - 15%- Tail - 5%- Diffusely involves the gland-20%Carcinoma of pancreas are usually hard, stellate, grey - white poorly defined masses.Two features are characteristic of pancreatic cancer.- Highly invasive.- It elicits an intense nonneoplastic host reaction composed of fibroblasts, lymphocytes & extracellular matrix.tdesmoplastic response)Trousseau sign - Migratory thrombophlebitis due to elaboration of platelet - aggregating factors & procoagulants from the tumor or its necrotic products.Common sites- Insulinoma - All over pancreas- Pseudocyst - Body & tail- VIPomas - Tail- Glucagonoma - Tail (> 1 million islets => max in tail)- Somatostatinoma - HeadMolecular cacrcinogenesisK- ras gene (chromosome 12p)- Most frequently altered oncogene in Ca pancreas,p 16 (chromosome 9p) - Most frequently inactivated tumour suppressor gene in pancreatic cancer.SMAD 4 (chromosome 18q) - Tumour suppressor gene is inactivated in 55% of pancreatic cancers.p53 - (chromosome 17p) - Inactivation of the p53 tumour suppressor gene is seen in 50 - 70% of pancreatic cancers.
Surgery
Pancreas
e39d86a9-0c04-4031-9c13-d483ee46ab30
The following are function of restriction endonuclease, EXCEPT:
Cut both the strands of double stranded DNA
The cut ends produced by restriction endonuclease are sticky
The cut ends produced by restriction endonuclease are blunt
It is non specific to base pairs
3d
multi
Restriction endonuclease are the enzymes that cut the double stranded DNA. It is highly specific, recognises 4 to 7 base pairs. Sticky ends used in chimeric and hybrid molecule preparation. Ref: Harper, 27th Edition, Page 403; Textbook of Biochemistry By DM Vasudevan, 4th Edition, Page 430.
Biochemistry
null
75bad0a2-425b-42ac-8325-1ddde1316ea5
Which ovarian tumor is likely to involve the opposite ovary by metastasis :
Granulosa cell tumor
Dysgerminoma
Gynandroblastoma
Endodermal sinus tumor
0a
single
Ans. is a i.e. Granulosa cell tumour "The metastasis of granulosa cell tumour is interesting because the opposite ovary first become involved, then metastasis develop in the lumber region, secondary deposits become scattered in the mesentery, the liver and mediastinum." Granulosa cell tumour and theca cell tumour are feminizing tumours that originate from sex cord stroma. Remember Both these tumors cause endometrial hyperplasia and so, risk of carcinoma endometrium is increased.deg Both these tumors can become luteinized to form a luteoma, they may then produce progesterone as well as oestrogen and conve the endometrium to a secretory one. Besides granulosa tumor complain other tumor which can show metastasis to opposite ovary is dysgerminoma but it is not very significant. Both these tumors can cause pseudomeig syndrome.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
feb69838-3165-446f-aa36-97887d37ddd2
Totipotency of embryonic stem cell is due to that they?
Can differentiate into all the tissues of embryonic or extraembryonic cell types.
Can differentiate into cells derived from any of the three germ layers.
Can differentiate only into cells of a closely related family
Can differentiate only in to one cell type
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Can differentiate into all the tissues of embryonic or extraembryonic cell types Stem cells base on their potency* Potency refers to ability of stem cells to differentiate into specialized (mature) cell type:-A. Totipotent stem cells - These cells are produced from fertilization of sperm and ovum and cells that are produced by first few division after fertilization are also totipotent. These cell can differentiate into all the tissues of embryonic or extra embryonic cell types.B. Pluripotent stem cells - These are descendants of totipotent stem cells and can differentiate into cells derived from any of the three germ layers.C. Multipotent stem cells - These cells can differentiate only into cells of a closely related family, e.g. hematopoietic stem cells differentiate into RBC, WBC, platelets but not into other types.D. Unipotent stem cells - Can differentiate only in to one cell type (e.g. muscle stem cell), but have property of self-renewal which distinguiches them from non-stem cells.
Pathology
Misc.
5a8b5fad-89e1-4a79-b744-9ab9cb1ada98
A known case of chronic kidney disease stage 4 is on insulin therapy. What adjustment in insulin dosage is required?
Increase dose of insulin
Decrease dose of insulin
Variable
No alteration in dose
1b
single
Some of the insulin is cleared by the kidneys. No dose adjustment is required if GFR is more than 50 mL/min. If GFR is less than 50 mL/min, then insulin dose should be reduced. As in CKD stage 4 GFR is <15mL/min so the dose of insulin should be decreased.
Pharmacology
Pancreas
7d83846f-01b8-4880-9abb-e6babdd96fbf
All of the following drugs can result in amorphous whorl like corneal opacities except:
Amiodarone
Chloroquine
Indomethacin
Chlorpromazine
3d
multi
Ans. (D) Chlorpromazine (12th/e p1793; Khurana 5th/e p69; Parsons21stth/e p214, Clinical ocular Pharmacology/803)Amorphous whorl like corneal deposit suggests a case of cornea verticillata (or vortex keratopathy). It is seen in Fabry's disease and it may be drug induced.The whorl-like pattern shows the direction of migration of corneal epithelial cellsPhenothiazines like chlorpromazine and thioridazine are mainly associated with pigmentation of endothelium and descment's membrane.Drugs associated with whorl like corneal opacities are:AmiodaroneChloroquineHydroxychloroquineIndomethacinAtovaquoneTamoxifen
Pharmacology
Miscellaneous
c14a103f-3964-4d7b-b823-99f3b98ba3d7
In gram-negative septicemia, early findings before shock sets in is -
↑ Cardiac output,↑ Total peripheral resistance
↑ Cardiac output, ↓ Total peripheral resistance
↓Cardiac output, ↑ Total peripheral resistance
↓ Cardiac output, ↓ Total peripheral resistance
1b
single
Cardiac output and total peripheral resistance in septic shock The decrease in peripheral resistance is the hallmark of early (hyperdynamic) stage of septic shock, this feature distinguishes it from other types of shock, e.g., hypovolemic and cardiogenic shock. Decreased peripheral resistance leads to a compensatory increase in cardiac output thus the cardiac output is maintained or some time increased despite shock. Decreased peripheral resistance and increased CO leads to increased blood flow and total oxygen delivery to the tissues. But, still, the tissues lack O2 due to local microcirculatory changes produced as a result of sepsis which causes decrease tissue extraction of oxygen. So, increased blood flow and cardiac output are still inadequate to meet the total metabolic needs of the tissue which are increased in sepsis. As sepsis progresses, hypodynamic stage supervenes in which there is decreased Cardiac output and vasoconstriction (↑ peripheral resistance).
Pathology
null
dc575e8e-f543-4c13-9cdf-ab860fc7e284
The most common malignancy that produces ichthyosis?
Hodgkin's disease
Mycosis fungoides
Kaposi's sarcoma
Carcinoma breast
0a
single
.
Pathology
All India exam
96cfb8e6-45ed-441c-a1cc-4720f658da19
4 months old infant had respiratory distress.It was diagnosed as bronchiolitis. most common cause of this is
Measles
Respiratory syncytial virus
Influenza
Para Influenza virus
1b
single
RSV is the m/c cause of lower respiratory tract infection below 1 year.
Microbiology
null
1664176f-fc09-4483-a4a2-3e715325b73c
Suprabony pockets are also known as
Infrabony
Intra-alveolar
Subcrestal
Supracrestal/Supra-alveolar
3d
single
null
Dental
null
8ca5e6c5-ee3a-4269-8fb0-355890c9db35
Which of the following is not a phospholipid
Sphingomyelin
Cephalin
Cerebroside
Cardiolipin
2c
single
Cerebroside is a Glyolipid. It doesn't contain phosphate group.
Biochemistry
null
c7a1d2aa-a2ba-457b-9170-683239d8a819
Modified radical mastoidectomy is indicated in all except -
Safe CSOM
Unsafe CSOM with attticoantra! disease
Coalescent mastoiditis
Limited mastoid pathology
0a
multi
Ans- A in safe tympanoplasty is done
ENT
Diagnostic & Operative ENT
939f111c-41b6-42a5-9466-46403fd0440e
Most stable amino acid at physiological pH is
Histidine
Lysine
Arginine
Glycine
0a
single
Histidine plays unique roles in enzymatic catalysis. The pKa of its imidazole proton permits histidine to function at neutral pH as either a base or an acid catalyst  without  the  need  for  any  environmentally  induced shift.  Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 30 th edition page no 22
Biochemistry
null
ece094a3-fbc1-4aad-9ee1-91241d7c717b
Cyclosporine is used in the management of -
Disciform Keratitis
Anterior Iridocyclitis
Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
Phacomorphic glaucoma
0a
single
Answer- A. Disciform KeratitisTopical steroids (Drugs of choice)Mydriatic - cycloplegics: Atropine (Drug of 2nd choice)NSAIDs
Ophthalmology
null
ae46b7c0-865e-4873-9b01-9b5fe96367ac
A 3 week old child presented to the pediatrician with meningitis. A presumptive diagnosis of late onset perinatal meningitis was made. The CSF culture was positive for gram positive bacilli. Which of the following characteristic of this bacteria would be helpful in differentiating it from other bacterial agents:-
Ability to grow on blood agar
Ability to produce catalase
Fermentative attack on sugars
Motility at 25 degree Celsius.
3d
single
L. monocytogenes is resposible for late onset perinatal meningitis. gram positive, non -spore forming rod tumbling motility at 22-28 degree Celsius but not at 37 degree Celsius- differentiates listeria from diphtheroids that are members of the normal microbiota of the skin.
Microbiology
Lab Investigations
4755533d-c8b5-4839-a546-f93f2713fcc5
Most vascular structure of eyeball is
Iris
Ciliary body
Choroid
Sclera
2c
multi
null
Ophthalmology
null
4847d9dd-8e53-40c0-8a7f-8dcedfbbb9d2
Vitamin not deficient in celiac disease is?
Vitamin D
Vitamin B 12
Folic acid
Vitamin A
2c
single
Folk acid REF: Sheila Crowe - 2010 page 384, Harrison 17th ed chapter 288 Vitamins deficient in celiac disease are: Vitamin A Vitamin D Vitamin K Vitamin B12
Surgery
null
End of preview. Expand in Data Studio
README.md exists but content is empty.
Downloads last month
3