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135
44bf1371-21f4-4d6d-9cc3-ef9bf99bfb81
Pen test is done for elliciting which nerve injury -
Median nerve
Ulnar nerve
Radial nerve
Axillary nerve
0a
single
Pen test is used to test abductor pollicis brevis * supply by median nerve * action - abduction of the thumb * pen test - the patient is asked to lay his hand flat on the table with palm facing the ceiling .A pen is held above the thumb & the patient is asked to touch the pen with tip of the thumb .It will not possible in case of median nerve injury . REF:Essential ohopedics ,Maheshwari, 5th edition ,pg.no.66
Orthopaedics
Peripheral nerve injuries
c6784c68-99fb-4db2-8338-96e8bcce17d4
The number of fontanelles present in a newborn child is:
1
2
4
6
3d
single
6 fontanelles are present in fetal skull: Anterior fontanelle (bregma) – 1 Posterior fontanelle (lambda) – 1 Anterolateral fontanelle – 1 Posteriolateral fontanelle – 1
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
f2436fb2-1141-4671-9d30-32a7a2fefae3
Herniation of meninges through cranial defect is known as
Acrania
Anencephaly
Cephalocele
Encephalocele
2c
single
Anencephaly is characterized by the absence of the cranium and telencephalic structures, with the skull base and orbits covered only by angiomatous stroma. Acrania is the absence of the cranium, with protrusion of disorganized brain tissue.Cephalocele is the herniation of meninges through a cranial defect, typically located in the midline occipital region. When brain tissue herniates through the skull defect, the anomaly is termed an encephalocele(Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition)
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
All India exam
d5f0280f-e75d-41c2-ae08-9659bb7381ee
Which of the following is used as a thickening agent in dentifrices?
Calcium Carbonate, Calcium Phosphate and Calcium Sulphate
Sodium Bicarbonate, Aluminium Oxide
Sodium Lauryl Sulphate and Sodium Lauryl Succinate
Carboxymethyl Cellulose, alginate amylase
3d
single
null
Dental
null
d4bb7ba3-e9c0-4ef4-989a-0bf9f8244dfb
ranulomatous mastitis is caused by all except -
TB
Fungus
Staphylococcus
Antibodies to milk antigens
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Staphylococcus Granulomatous mastitis Granulomatous inflammation is present in less than I% of all breast biopsy specimens. The causes include systemic granulomatous disease (e.g., Wegener granulomatosis or sarcoidosis) that occasionally involve the breast, and granulomatous infections caused by mycobacteria or fungi. Infections of this type are most common in immunocompromised patients or adjacent to foreign objects such as breast prostheses or nipple piercings. Granulomatous lobular mastitis is an uncommon breast-limited disease that only occurs in parous women. The granulomatous inflammation is confined to the lobules, suggesting that it is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to antigens expressed by lobular epithelium during lactation.
Pathology
null
f2fd4448-3405-41e6-bc72-3ebaf63db8b1
Diffusion hypoxia is a type of ...............hypoxia
Anemic
Histotoxic
Stagnant
Hypoxic
3d
single
Hypoxic hypoxia also called aerial hypoxiais a result of insufficient oxygen available to the lungs. Diffusion hypoxia occurs during recovery from nitrous oxide anesthesia when nitrous oxide is suddenly cut off. Nitrous oxide diffuses from the blood to the alveoli and replaces the oxygen which reduces alveolar O2 concentration, resulting in relative hypoxemia. This can be avoided by providing supplemental O2 for the first 10 minutes of recovery. Diffusion hypoxia is less common with xenon because its rate of diffusion from the blood to the alveoli is slower.
Anaesthesia
Inhalational Anesthetic Agents
3a253388-26c0-4857-9858-264916653c04
In amyloidosis, the following appearance will be seen in
X-ray crystallography
Electron microscope
Spiral electron microscope
Congo red stain
0a
multi
X-ray crystallography and infrared spectroscopy demonstrate a characteristic cross-b-pleated sheet conformation.This confirmation is seen regardless of the clinical setting or chemical composition and is responsible for the distinctive Congo red staining and birefringence of amyloid.By electron microscopy, all types of amyloid consist of continuous, nonbranching fibrils with a diameter of approximately 7.5 to 10 nm.Ref: Robbins Pathology; 9th edition; Page no: 257
Pathology
General pathology
ae7de193-b765-4f37-a50f-0a045c972d32
CSF otorrhea is caused by: Bihar 10; WB 11; CMC (Vellore) 13
Fracture of cribriform plate
Fracture of parietal bone
Fracture of petrous temporal bone
Fracture of tympanic membrane
2c
single
Ans. Fracture of petrous temporal bone
Forensic Medicine
null
be321bac-8de5-4f38-a7a3-00dff7519a26
Stage X3B refers to the following in the classification of vitamin A deficiency:
Night blindness
Corneal xerosis
Conjunctival xerosis
Keratomalacia
3d
single
d. Keratomalacia(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 3 IB-320, Ghai B/e p 111-112)WHO classification of Vitamin A deficiency:IndicatorCategoryNight blindnessXNConjunctival xerosisX1ABitot's spotsX1BCorneal xerosisX2Corneal ulcerationX3AKeratomalaciaX3BXerophthalmia-related corneal scarsXS
Pediatrics
Nutrition
ad170a16-c58a-4a97-8fe6-90f4d6d65b74
Aspirin-sensitive asthma is associated with -
Obesity
Urticarisis
Nasal polyp
Extrinsic asthma
2c
single
null
Medicine
null
3d080fdf-fede-4138-94d8-01796c073267
Complication of long-term hemophilia a) Joint deformity b) Transfusion transmitted disease c) Renal calculi d) Severe iron deficiency anemia
ab
bc
bd
ad
0a
single
null
Medicine
null
07ac0cb2-1cea-4beb-9f23-e9b1affe5f63
Staph aureus virulence is due to -
Coagulase
Endotoxin
Hemolysis
Pigmented colonies
0a
single
Staph aureus is a Gram positive bacteria. Virulence factors are: Coagulase binds to prothrombin and initiate fibrin polymerization. Coagulase test Tube coagulase test (detects free coagulase) Slide coagulase test (detects bound coagulase). Hemolysins (a, b, g, d) - contribute in the pathogenesis but Coagulase enzyme is more potent virulence factor. Endotoxins -Lipopolysaccharides (Gram-negative bacterial cell wall). Seen in Gram negative bacteria. Golden yellow pigmented colonies (pigments made up of beta carotene) are produced on Nutrient agar. It doesn't contribute in pathogenesis of S. aureus.
Microbiology
Systemic Bacteriology Pa 1 (Gram Positive Cocci, Gram Negative Cocci)
944e6993-2280-45bd-9811-3122c0524392
Adult leydig cells are originated from
Fetal leydig cells
Undifferentiated progenitor cells which appear in testis before bih
Undifferentiated progenitor cells which appear in testis after bih
All of the above
2c
multi
Fetal Leydig cells atrophy after bih and do not contribute to the origin of adult Leydig cells, which originate from undifferentiated progenitor cells that appear in the testis after bih and acquire full steroidogenic function during pubey. Ref Harrison 20th edi page no 2769
Medicine
Endocrinology
abf511e6-780b-42b1-bcde-8b0e545ea6ef
Dye used in IV cholangiography is:
Dianosil
Conray
Billigraffin
Myodil
2c
single
Ans. Billigraffin
Radiology
null
cd10ed54-efe8-42c0-97a0-0c327eb824c3
A 7 year old child from Bihar has a hypo pigmented anesthetic patch on his face. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Intermediate leprosy
Pityriasis alba
Nevus anemicus
Nevus achromicus
0a
single
Hypopigmented anaesthetic patch in a child, who is coming from endemic zone of Leprosy, can be leprosy. Here the option provided is intermediate leprosy. Higher incidence of leprosy is seen in Assam, West Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Madras, Andhra, and Kerala. In intermediate or dimorphous leprosy, the lesions are slow growing, indeterminate, paly anaesthetic macules and sometimes with satellite lesions. Later lesions resemble those of tuberculoid or lepramoatous leprosy or both. Peripheral nerves are involved early and severely. Pityriasis alba is a form of atopic dermatitis. It presents as ill-defined, hypopigmented, round patches on the face, neck, and trunk. Nevus anemicus is a congenital vascular anomaly that appears as a permanently pale, mottled lesion that occurs most often on the trunk. The lesions appear hypopigmented but contain normal amounts of pigment. Nevus achromicus or depigmentosus is a hypopigmented patch occurring as long linear streaks or as well circumscribed isolated patches. Affected areas are usually unilateral and may be small.
Skin
null
fb0556a4-053a-4fda-9967-d4078b8ac31c
A patient developed hemorrhagic blisters at the bite site following dog bite. Which is the most likely causative organism?
Pseudomonas spp.
Staphylococcus aureus
Capnocytophaga canimorsus
Pasteurella spp.
1b
single
Ans. B. Staphylococcus aureusExplanationAmong animal bites, dog bites are most common, followed by cat bites.Approximately 15 to 20% of dog bite wounds and more than 50% of cat bite wounds become infected.For dog bite infections, Staphylococcus aureus and streptococcal species are the most commonly isolated pathogens, with Pasteurella and other organisms next in frequency.For cat bite infections, Pasteurella spp. are the most common pathogens.The zoonotic species Capnocytophaga canimorsus and C. cynodegmi are normal inhabitants of the oral cavity of dogs and cats. Zoonotic-associated infections arise via exogenous introduction of bacteria into wounds from penetrating traumas (dog bite) or by inapparent inoculation of bacilli into abraded surfaces or tissues via intimate contact with pets.
Microbiology
Bacteria
d9f2de8d-67a6-4773-a751-f4035e7192bf
delirium in ICD 10 is calssified under
F00
F10
F20
F30
0a
single
ICD CHAPTERS ICD is a text book for classification of psychiatric disorders. The below table comprises chapter numbers dealing with various psychiatric disorders. Ref.International classiication of disorders, ICD 10 th edition
Anatomy
General anatomy
ce0bcaf1-e57b-4087-9e02-79186ecedd8b
Which muscle steadies the clavicle during movement of shoulder ?
Pectoralis major
Latissimus dorsi
Subclavius
Serratus anterior
2c
single
Ans. is'c'i.e., Subclavius(Ref: Clinical anatomy j'd/e p. 1367)Subclavius steadies the clavicle during movements of shoulder.
Anatomy
null
8b3b36b6-22ca-4fb8-8dbe-d17f8e977675
schultz dale phenomenon the following is true statements :
anaphylaxis in vitro
test to detect atopy
type v hypersenstivity reaction
test for allergic contact dermatitis
0a
multi
Schultz-Dale reaction A method for demonstrating anaphylactic hypersensitivity outside the body by suspending an excised intestinal loop or uterine strip from a sensitized animal in an oxygenated, physiological salt solution; addition of the proper allergen causes contraction of the smooth muscle. TYPE I Hypersensitivity * Type I hypersensitivity -- immediate or anaphylactic hypersensitivity * Immediate hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE * The primary cellular component in this hypersensitivity is the mast cell or basophil * The reaction is amplified by neutrophils and eosinophils ref /; anantharayana 9th ed
Microbiology
All India exam
46a9e800-f3b1-461d-a949-fea43b185a59
Most common site of intracranial hemorrhage is
Basal ganglia
Brainstem
Cerebellum
Hippocampus
0a
single
The most common locations of hypeensive ICH are: 1) Basal ganglia (putamen or caudate), 2) Thalamus, 3) Pons and 4) Cerebellum. Within the basal ganglia region, it is rare for an ICH to specifically affect one area; Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2334
Medicine
C.N.S
5246b7b9-0008-4093-91b1-eeb5f54b74e3
18 years old male hears voices discussing him in 3rd person has
Obsession
Depression
Mania
Schizophrenia
3d
single
Voices discussing the person in 3rd person (third person hallucination) is characteristic of schizophrenia.
Psychiatry
null
63f64078-4720-4d2b-bd66-55143612ad8f
All of the following are side effects of cyclosporine EXCEPT :
Post–transplant lymphoproliferative disorders (PTLDs)
Hypotension
Nephrotoxicity
Tremors
1b
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
f6e61575-9cad-4440-ab4c-f273c31b13ae
All of the following statements about carbohydrateantigen are true except aEUR'
It has lower immunogenicity
Memory response is seen
Cause polyclonal B cell stimulation
Does not require stimulation by T cells
1b
multi
Memory response is seen Antigen Antigen is a substance that stimulates the production of antibody, when introduced into the body. Type of antigen A. Based on chemical nature - Based on chemical nature, antigens can be : - i) Proteins ii) Polysaccharide (Carbohydrates) iii) Lipids iv) Nucleic acids - Proteins are most immunogenic, while lipids & nucleic acids are least immunogenic. - Polysaccharides (carbohydrates) are less immunogenic than protein antigens, but are more antigenic than lipids & nucleic acids. B. Based on immune response - On the basis of immune response, antigens can be divided into : - i) T-cell dependent antigens ii) T-cell in dependent antigens i) T-cell dependent antigens Most of the protein antigens are T-cell dependent. Their immune response is dependent on T-cell activation. After exposure, these antigens are presented to T-cells (helper T-cells) by antigen presenting cells. These primed T-cells then secret cytokines that induce B-cells to produce antibody against that paicular antigen. T-cell dependent reaction has memory response, i.e., subsequent exposure to same antigen result in :? a) A more rapid production of antibodies b) Produced in greater amounts c) Produced for a longer period of time. T-cell independent antigens carbohydrate (Polysaccharide) antigens are T- cell independent. Their immune response does not require activation of T-cells. These antigens directly stimulate B-cells without processing by antigen presenting cells. There is no memory response Protein antigen Carbohydrate antigen * More immunogenic * Less immunogenic * T-cell dependent * T-cell independent * No tolerence * Immunological tolerance occurs * Induce Production of all type of antibodies * Induce production of IgM and IgG only * Memory response is seen * No memory response * Require processing by antigen presenting cells. * Do not require processing * Quickly metabolized * Slowly metabolized
Microbiology
null
172d79d5-5296-4452-9251-d6b6f41d4af1
Mech of action of bevacizumab
Inhibitor of HER-2/Neu
Inhibitor of VEGF
Inhibitor of c-kit
None of the above
1b
multi
Bevacizumab:- Mech of action:- It is a humanized monoclonal antibody that binds VEGF-A and hinders its access to the VEGF receptor, interrupting angiogenic signalling. Uses:- combined with 5-FU, bevacizumab is used in metastatic colorectal cancer. Added to conventional chemotherapy, it improves survival in metastatic non-small cell lung cancer, breast cancer, clear cell renal carcinoma and glioblastoma. Deafness due to neurofibromatosis can be reversed by growth inhibitory effect of bevacizumab. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-871
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
667edb00-6799-4b99-90dd-acaf4d8c584c
A 59-year-old male came with Hb 18.0 gm/dl on three occasions. The resident doctor wants to exclude Polycythemia Vera. Which of the following is the most relevant investigation :
Hematocrit
Total leukocyte count
Red cell mass
Reticulocyte count
2c
single
Answer is C (Red cell mass): When confronted with an elevated Haemoglobin or Haematocrit the first step should be to determine whether this increase is due to absolute erythrocytosis or relative erythrocytosis. Absolute erythrocytosis Relative/ spurious erythrocytosis Apparent increase in red cell mass due to reduction in plasma volume True increase in red cell mass `Red cell mass' is the investigation of choice to determine such distinction. Once 'red cell mass' determination confirms absolute erythrocytosis, a diagnosis of polycythemia vera can be established by demonstrating absence of elevation in serum erythropoetin levels.
Medicine
null
8da34a3c-bec3-4cb4-b89c-2cfdde949ba6
Shock is a circulatory disturbance characterized by
Increased blood pressure
Decreased volume of circulating blood
Elevated body temperature
Decreased volume of interstitial fluid
1b
single
null
Pathology
null
44c1da80-6b59-4685-b217-be099cfbb35e
Granuloma is an example of:
Type I Hypersensitivity reactions
Type II Hypersensitivity reactions
Type Ill Hypersensitivity reactions
Type /V Hypersensitivity reactions
3d
single
Type /V Hypersensitivity reactions
Pathology
null
ceabe9a2-8f9b-4361-8cff-794331d1d636
Which of the following is true regarding De Quervain&;s tenosynovitis ?
Fingers are held in mild extension
It affects AbductorPollicisLongus and ExtensorPollicisBrevis
Most common involvement is index finger
Treatment is surgery
1b
multi
De Quervain&;s disease is a stenosing tenosynovitis of the extensor tendons of the first dorsal compament, namely extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) and abductor pollicis longus (APL). It is prominent among females, especially pregnant women. Most commonly thumb is involved. Finkelstein&;s test: On grasping the patient&;s thumb and quickly abducting the hand ulnar ward, the pain over the radial styloid tip is excruciating. It&;s the most pathognomic objective sign but is also seen in other condit like radial nerve entrapment and arhritis. Treatment Majority of the patients are treated medically Only few require the release of the 1st dorsal commpament which houses the APL and EPB tendons. Ref: Campbell&;s Operative Ohopedics 13th edition Pgno: 3765
Anatomy
All India exam
3a014ec0-5c75-453c-a6a3-ac6cd3fa8e62
A 55-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department with ear pain, ringing in her ear (tinnitus), dizziness, and vertigo. Radiographic examination reveals indications of Meniere's disease. Which of the following structures is most likely affected by the edema that is associated with Meniere's disease?
Middle ear
Endolymphatic sac
Semicircular canals
Cochlea
1b
single
Hydrops (edema) results from accumulation of excessive fluid in the endolymphatic sac. Labyrinthine hydrops or endolymphatic hydrops is known as Meniere disease. This disease can result in hearing loss, roaring noises in the ear, and episodic dizziness (vertigo) associated with nausea and vomiting. About 10% of patients require surgical intervention for persistent, incapacitating vertigo; others are treated with diuretics, low salt intake, and reduction of stimulants like caffeine to lower the volume of body fluids and alleviate the symptoms of Meniere disease.
Anatomy
Head & Neck
6684a624-a428-42b6-9851-51f28757208b
Resting membrane potential is mainly due to
Na+
K+
Cl-
Mg++
1b
single
Resting membrane potential depends on the concentration of potassium ion. (REF: TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY GEETHA N 2 EDITION, 23)
Physiology
General physiology
07b0ad65-9dfb-4d67-ad94-f2e0f84bfa4c
Amino ester local anesthesia metabolised by hepatic carboxylesterase is:
Aicaine
Bupivacaine
Ropivacaine
Lidocaine
0a
single
Aminoesters are hydrolyzed in plasma by cholinesterase enzymes, but the amides undergo enzymatic degradation in the liver. Aicaine is an amide local anesthetic widely used in dentistry that is inactivated by plasma carboxylesterase-induced cleavage of a methyl ester on the aromatic ring. Ref: Miller's anesthesia-7th ed, Chapter 30.
Anaesthesia
null
c49ce1c6-9f70-4d21-95dc-828b896b16c4
Which of the following is seen in eosinophil granules?
Cathepsin
Major basic protein
Transferrin
All of the above
1b
multi
Eosinophils are abundant in immune reactions mediated by IgE and in parasitic infections. A chemokine that is especially impoant for eosinophil recruitment is eotaxin. Eosinophils have granules that contain major basic protein, a highly cationic protein that is toxic to parasites but also causes lysis of mammalian epithelial cells. Ref: Robbins 8th edition, Chapter 2.
Pathology
null
df2c0a0c-f38c-4c60-aff0-beaa06d5953c
An aminoglycoside that is resistant to majority of inactivating enzymes is :
Gentamicin
Amikacin
Tobramycin
Sisomicin
1b
single
null
Pharmacology
null
da965615-9a28-4c26-9f44-599a28adc6f8
The ductus aeriosus is derived from the following aoic arch
3rd
4th
5th
6th
3d
single
The pa of the left sixth arch aery, between the branch to the lung bud and aoa,forms the ductus aeriosus HUMAN EMBRYOLOGY-INDERBIR SINGH TENTH EDITION-PAGE NO:255
Anatomy
General anatomy
5f9f089c-5b13-4c64-af33-a926beb1de16
Glucocorticoids with mineralocorticoids activity is seen in –
Triamcinolone
Betamethasone
Cortisol
Dexamethosone
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
cb6fb480-a4a6-4627-b338-8d763f427505
Reactivation tuberculosis and primary squamous cell carcinoma of the lung are similar in that they both are commonly associated with:
Cavitation
Scar carcinomas
Silicosis
Ectopic secretion of a parathormone-like peptide
0a
multi
Both reactivation tuberculosis (TB) and primary squa­mous-cell carcinoma of the lung are associated with cavitation. Other pulmonary diseases associated with cavitation include systemic fungal infections, Klebsiella pneumonias, and silicosis. In silicosis, the large fibrotic nodules undergo central necrosis from ischemia. Fur­thermore, silicosis predisposes patients to the develop­ment of TB within the fibrotic nodules, thus produc­ing cavitation. Ectopic secretion of a parathormone-like peptide producing hypercalcemia is seen only in squamous cell carcinoma. Scar carcinomas are a possible sequela of old scar tissue in TB. Adenocarcinomas are more frequently associated with scar carcinomas than squa­mous carcinoma. The most common extrapulmonary site for TB is the kidneys, and the adrenal gland is the most common site for metastatic squamous cancer. Silicosis predisposes patients to TB, but not to primary lung cancer.
Unknown
null
37bd58b5-2993-4c1d-ba26-5b96c67657fd
In chronic alcoholism which of the following is seen
Delirium tremens
Wernike's syndrome
Korsakoff psychosis
All of the above
3d
multi
D i.e. All
Forensic Medicine
null
08153513-f1fa-4b8a-b1e3-f191c5565442
Herbe's pits are diagnostic of:
Buphthalmos
Chlamydial infection
HSV infection
Vernal catarrh
1b
single
CHLAMYDIAL CONJUNCTIVITIS: In established trachoma, there may be superior epithelial keratitis, sub epithelial keratitis, pannus, or superior limbal follicles, and ultimately the pathognomonic cicatricial remains of these follicles, known as Herbe's pits--small depressions covered by epithelium at the limbo corneal junction. The associated pannus is a fibrovascular membrane arising from the limbus, with vascular loops extending onto the cornea. All of the signs of trachoma are more severe in the upper than in the lower conjunctiva and cornea. Ref: Nijm L.M., Garcia-Ferrer F.J., Schwab I.R., Augsburger J.J., Correa Z.M. (2011). Chapter 5. Conjunctiva & Tears. In P. Riordan-Eva, E.T. Cunningham, Jr. (Eds), Vaughan & Asbury's General Ophthalmology, 18e.
Ophthalmology
null
83925b73-0060-4a59-b776-3fac3be11820
Sulfur of cysteineare not used/ utilized in the body for the following process/product
Help in the conversion of cyanide to thiocyanate
Thiosulfate formation
Introduction of sulphur in methionine
Disulfide bond formation between two adjacent peptide.
2c
single
Methionine is an essential amino acid, so it cannot besynthesized from Cysteine.- But Sulfur of cysteine is donated by sulfur ofmethionine.- This is called transsulfuration reaction.- PLP is the coenzyme of transrulfuration.- The reaction is catalyzed by Cystathionine betaSynthase and Cystathionase enzyme
Biochemistry
null
187d61eb-2288-4aee-9290-b2d74c3f2143
A 40 year old male patient complains of severe acute abdominal pain. Radiologic examination reveals multiple gall stones. On histologic examination, foci of necrosis containing shadowy outlines of necrotic cells surrounded by basophilic calcium deposits were seen. Which type of necrosis is seen in this patient?
Coagulative
Liquefactive
Fat
Fibrinoid
2c
multi
Fat necrosis refers to focal areas of fat destruction, typically resulting from the release of activated pancreatic lipases into the substance of the pancreas and the peritoneal cavity. This occurs in the calamitous abdominal emergency known as acute pancreatitis. In this disorder, pancreatic enzymes that have leaked out of acinar cells and ducts liquefy the membranes of fat cells in the peritoneum, and lipases split the triglyceride esters contained within fat cells. The released fatty acids combine with calcium to produce grossly visible chalky white areas (fat saponification), which enable the surgeon and the pathologist to identify the lesions. On histologic examination, the foci of necrosis contain shadowy outlines of necrotic fat cells surrounded by basophilic calcium deposits and an inflammatory reaction. Reference: Robbins Basic Pathology, Kumar, Abbas, Aster, Elsevier, 10th Edition, Page No: 37
Pathology
null
8dab7f3b-ce03-4078-b9c5-108b8d2192e2
Prophylaxis for migraine -
Sumitriptan
Amytriptiline
Nifidipine
Diazepam
1b
single
null
Medicine
null
8750d57d-21f0-4f86-b485-dec7bf7fafa9
DOC for Tourette syndrome
Haloperidol
Valproate
B complex
Clonidine
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Clonidine Earlier Haloperidol was considered as DOC for Tourette syndrome. Clonidine is considered as DOC for Tourette syndrome
Medicine
null
4583588d-5eab-458f-b564-adcba330b8a5
An etiological factor for macrolossia is:
Atrophic glossitis
Oral submucous fibrosis
Syphilitic glossitis
Hurler's syndrome
3d
single
null
Pathology
null
e0b5cc5b-cc7b-493c-84c7-0a67a6ce7f3f
Conscious sedation in dentoalveolar surgery is best done by
Sevoflurane
Isoflurane
Midazolam
Morphine
2c
single
null
Surgery
null
c366dd86-72da-4273-bbc7-f3cef1ec8596
Commonest metastasis in Renal Cell Carcinoma is to
Lung
Bone
Adrenal
Liver
0a
single
null
Surgery
null
03c3d115-9168-4087-8726-705f0f6fdbf7
A knife wound has severed the oculomotor nerve in a 45 year old man. Which of the following conditions will occur because of this injury?
Constricted pupil
Abduction of the eyeball
Complete ptosis
Paralysis of the ciliary muscle
3d
multi
Paralysis of III NERVE Ptosis Mydriasis Ophthalmoplegia Diplopia Loss of accomdation reflex CHOICE EXPLANATION & ELIMINATION REASON 1 Constricted pupil - due to dilator pupil lesion sympathetic fibres lesion 2 Abduction - due to medial rectus injury 3 Lesion of III nerve will not cause complete Ptosis . elevation of eyelid also by tarsal muscles - supplied by sympathetic fibres 4 Ciliary muscles supplied by III Nerve
Anatomy
Pharynx, larynx and trachea and cranial nerves 3,4,6
73b98d3a-13ab-4b46-989b-f07a0cf6d2f2
The effect of sucking habit
Is less favourable in vertical growth tendency than horizontal growth tendency.
Is less favourable in horizontal growth tendency than vertical growth tendency.
Any of the above can be true
None of the above
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
e3706dce-174e-4f25-b8ad-33c0838a4911
Treatment of seminoma is:
High orchidectomy with radiotherapy
Radiotherpy
Chemotherapy only
Trans scrotal resection of testis
0a
single
Ans: a (High orchidectomy with radiotherapy) Ref: Bailey & Love, 24thed,p. 1411Treatment of testicular neoplasm involves high orchidectomy for tissue diagnosis and further management depending on the nature of tumour and the extent of lymphatic spread. So the obvious answer is high orchidectomy with radiotherapyStageExtent of diseaseSeminomaNonseminomaIATestis only, no vascular/ lymphatic invasion (Tl)High orchidectomy with radiation therapyHigh orchidectomy RPLND or observationIBTestis only with vascular/ lymphatic invasion (T2) or extension through tunica albuginea(T2) or involvement of spermatic cord (T3) or scrotum (T4)High orchidectomy with radiation therapyHigh orchidectomy with RPLNDIIANodes < 2 cmHigh orchidectomy with radiation therapyHigh orchidectomy with RPLND or chemotherapy often followed by RPLNDIIBNodes 2 -5 cmHigh orchidectomy with radiation therapyHigh orchidectomy RPLND +/- adjuvant chemotherapy or chemotherapy followed by RPLNDIICNodes > 5 cmHigh orchidectomy ChemotherapyHigh orchidectomy, chemotherapy, often followed by RPLNDIIIDistant metastasisHigh orchidectomy ChemotherapyHigh orchidectomy, chemotherapy, often followed by surgery (biopsy or resection)Tumorus of testis* Seminoma (40%): B/w 35 and 45 yrs* Teratoma (32%): Younger age group peak incidence b/w 20 & 35 yrs* Combined seminoma & teratoma (14%)* Interstitial tumours (1.5%)* Lymphoma (7 %): Men over 60 yrs* Others (5.5%)Note:Transscrotal approach in neoplasm of testis is contraindicated because of early spread of malignancy to scrotal skin.
Surgery
Testis & Scrotum
81e10e41-3315-4994-91c4-552b52e9c9c8
A 10 year old child is having a mental age of 4. He is: March 2013 (a, e, f)
Idiot
Normal
Imbecile
Moron
2c
single
Ans. C i.e. Imbecile IQ of such a case would be: 4 X 100/10 = 40 Level of intelligence & IQ range Idiot: 0-24 Imbecile: 25-49 Moron: 50-69 Borderline: 70-79 Low normal: 80-89 Normal: 90-109 Superior: 110-119 Very superior: 120-139 Near genius: 140 and over
Pediatrics
null
9f1a2d89-e0bf-4946-b13d-dc3fa910e200
The presence of white fibrocailage is a feature of all of the following, EXCEPT:
Acetabular labrum
Interveebral disc
Meniscus
Pinna
3d
multi
Pinna is composed of a thin plate of yellow elastic cailage, covered with integumentIt is connected to the surrounding pas by ligaments and muscles; and to the commencement of the external acoustic meatus by fibrous tissue.
Anatomy
null
41597ed3-fb2d-477a-b9c9-a0c46e5e9adc
Antacid combinations of magnesium and aluminium salts are superior to single component preparations because.
They have rapid as well as sustained acid neutralizing action
They are less likely to affect gastric emptying
They are less likely to alter bowel movement
All of the above
3d
multi
(Ref: KDT 6/e p635) Mg (OH)2 has a quick onset whereas Al (OH)3 acts for a long time. Magnesium salts cause osmotic diarrhea whereas aluminium salts cause constipation. Combination of these two agents minimizes the impact on bowel movements.
Pharmacology
Other topics and Adverse effects
0f45c043-a6c9-4369-ac9e-4d2eb6d03342
Respiratory distress is seen in-
Bilateral abductor palsy
Unilateral abductor palsy
RLN Palsy unilateral
None
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bilateral abductor palsy [Ref: Essentials otolaryngology 2nd/e p. 740\o Respiratory distress (dysnea & stridor) is seen in bilateral abductor palsy.Clinical features of RUN ParalysisUnilateral RLN paralysis (unilateral abductor paralysis)o Unilateral RLN paralysis is usually mild and may be asymptomatic,o The cord is fixed in paramedian positiono There may be some change in voice (slight hoarsness) and some dysfunction in swallowing, but no problems of aspiration or airway obstruction."Vocal weakness, hoarseness and dysphonia are signs of unilateral paralysis " -- Essential otolaryngologyo The voice gradually improves due to compensation by the healthy cord which crosses the midline to meet the paralysed one.o Usually no treatment is requiredBilateral RLN paralysis (Bilateral abductor paralysis)o This is the most dangerous paralysis as both the cords are in median or paramedian position, obstructing the airway.o There is dyspnea and stridor o Voice is goodo Treatment includes : -Tracheostomy : - It is required as an emergency procedure when there is severe respiratory1 distress or upper respiratory tract infection.Lateralization of cord: - Aim is to move and fix the cord in a lateral position to improve the airway.
ENT
Larynx
88453a8b-1d32-41d7-a71d-65aea4153ab4
All are derivatives of ureteric bud EXCEPT
Ureter
Renal pelvis
Minor calyx
Connecting tubule
3d
multi
Ureteric bud forms 1. Collecting duct 2. Major calyx 3. Minor calyx 4. Renal pelvis 5. Ureter Connecting ducts are formed from metanephric blastema which is derived from intermediate mesoderm.
Anatomy
Development of GU system and Neuro-vascular supply of pelvis & perineum
6d4e7110-9fdb-4610-a957-ab95b762b140
Dowry death is punishable under
304 A IPC
320 IPC
304 B IPC
354 B IPC
2c
single
Refer the byte "Legal sections".
Forensic Medicine
null
3bc71008-3f60-4ea8-b9a4-337a4a58ef7a
Palladium is added to polyvinyl siloxane to
Act as a scavenger
Helps as surfactant
Acts as plasticizer
Acts as a catalyst
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
89b9e176-35b2-419b-8e19-1c5218a5e4be
Dirt collar or grease collar is seen in -
Punctured wound by sharp weapon
Lacerated wound
Firearm entry wound
Stab wround
2c
single
Ans. is *c' i.e.. Firearm entry wound o Grease collar or dirt collar is seen at firearm entry wound.o It is a black colored ring lining the entrance wound on the skin.o Is produced by removal of substances from the bullet as it passes through the skin, that is, bullet lubrication, gun oil from the interior of the barrel, lead from the surface of the bullet, barrel debris, etc.o It is more marked in a distant shot and is less common if the bullet is jacketed.o It is different from the abrasion collar or contusion collar. The abrasion collar surrounds the dirt collar.o Both dirt collar and abrasion collar are proof of an entrance wround, especially from a bullet (rifled firearm weapon).
Forensic Medicine
Death and Investigations
c869c940-0df3-4787-a44e-a4bd965a85a6
Hyperplasia in cementum is:
Physiological.
Pathological.
Both.
Normal.
1b
multi
null
Dental
null
bee51b0c-2584-4935-8a53-dafa9113a24e
Green STD kit contains
Azithromycin, Cefixime
Secnidazole, Fluconazole
Acyclovir
Azithromycin, Doxycycline
1b
single
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
64f3426b-6655-4845-8339-1791b76566ef
A patient in an ICU is on central venous line for the past one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci arranged in pairs, which are catalase negative. Following this vancomycin was staed but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 10 days of therapy. The most likely organism causing this infection is-:
Staphylococcus aureus
Virdans streptococci
Enterococcus faecalis
Coagulase negative staphylococcus
2c
single
Catalase negative, Gram positive cocci in pair - indicates that they are Enterococcus . Enterococci (earlier known as group d streptococci) are commonly seen in hospital acquired infections and they are resistant to cephalosporins and even to vancomycin.
Microbiology
Systemic Bacteriology Pa 1 (Gram Positive Cocci, Gram Negative Cocci)
1f99b323-2b0e-40dd-a273-41a89b941b9f
A 24 year male came with history of intensive itchy papules over elbows. He was diagnosed with coeliac disease 2 years back. Histopathology shows papillary tip microabscesses. Which of the following drug will you recommend for the treatment?
Acitretin
Cyclosporine
Dapsone
Rituximab
2c
single
Intense pruritic lesions over extensor surface, accumulation of neutrophilis in the dermal papilla and association of coeliac disease is suggestive of Dermatitis herpetiformis and Dapsone is the drug of choice for the same.
Dental
null
ddbc34ad-47db-479d-96b2-fc22d1e5ac51
Crown completion of deciduous Mandibular lateral incisors occur
At birth
1 ½ month after birth
3 months after birth
6 months after birth
2c
single
null
Dental
null
76afe4bf-987f-4265-81a1-7a8b958a958c
A person stas seizing on a railway station While waiting for a train. A wrist band was found showing he Is a patient of epilepsy and has a medicine in his pocket. What will yor do next?
Put a handkerchief in his mouth and restrain him by holding hands and legs
Take him away from the train, give him medicine with small sips of water and wait for seizure to resolve
Take him away from the train, give him medicine with small SIPS of water, raise his legs and wait for seizure to resolve
Take him away from the train, make him lie dow, and refer to the hospital
3d
multi
The first line of response when a person has a seizure is to provide general care and comfo and keep the person safe. The information here relates to all types of seizures. What to do in specific situations or for different seizure types is listed in the following pages. Remember that for the majority of seizures, basic seizure first aid is all that may be needed Try to move him away from the train Trying to stop movements or forcibly holding a person down doesn't stop a seizure. Restraining a person can lead to injuries and make the person more confused, agitated or aggressive. People don't fight on purpose during a seizure. Yet if they are restrained when they are confused, they may respond aggressively. If a person tries to walk around, let them walk in a safe, enclosed area if possible. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2234
Medicine
C.N.S
937ce7a7-b9b1-4dce-970f-e062331b5b4d
Stages of anesthesia were established by
Ether
N20
Halothane
Chloroform
0a
single
A i.e. Ether
Anaesthesia
null
0495d2f2-4f8d-4e01-8094-6e631847fd77
A 22-year-old female student was found to have an anterior mediastinal mass on a chest x-ray for a persistent cough. What finding is true regarding the thymus gland?
It is located in the posterior mediastinum.
It arises from the first branchial arch.
It controls calcium metabolism.
It is usually excised through an incision along the anterior branch of the sternomastoid.
3d
multi
The thymus gland is removed in certain cases of myasthenia gravis. It is located in the anterior mediastinum and can be approached by a cervical or mediastinal approach. It arises from the third and fourth branchial arches. Pneumococcal infections are particularly likely to develop after splenectomy performed in children.
Surgery
Miscellaneous
e2b7768f-d238-4d44-9c77-31ba2dc4620b
Whipples triad is seen in -
Islet cell tumour
Ca head pancreas
Argentaffinoma
Cholangiocarcinoma
0a
single
null
Surgery
null
91901c78-f1bc-4444-b5e4-acc4178e6067
Treatment of choice in acute congestive glaucoma
Pilocarpine
Laser iridotomy
Timolol
Trabeculoplasty
1b
single
B i.e. Laser iridotomy In acute congestive glaucoma stage of primary angle closure glaucoma the fellow eye require prophylactic peripheral iridotomy or surgical iridectomy Q (as PACG is usually a B/L disease and the fellow eye is in latent, subacute or intermittent stage).
Ophthalmology
null
41b3113c-7469-41e5-81ab-0f3872ec8ae7
The MOST abundant source of ghrelin is:
Gastric fundus
Gastric body
Gastric pylorus
First pa of duodenum
0a
single
Ghrelin is a 28 amino acid peptide mainly secreted from stomach and the most abundant source is gastric fundus. It also produced from intestine, pancreas, pituitary, kidney, placenta. ACTION: It increases growth hormone secretion It increases food intake It increases weight gain Ref: Sleisenger and Fordtran's, Edition-9, Page-8.
Physiology
null
16a484c7-95f5-4f75-98e4-5baf27e71e61
Tolerance is seen in?
Alcohol dependent syndrome
Schizophrenia
OCD
All of the above
0a
multi
Ans. A. Alcohol dependent syndrome Alcohol dependent syndromeAlcohol dependent syndrome uses the same criteria for dependence for other substances, i.e., three or more of the following : -ToleranceWithdrawal symptomsAlcohol is taken in larger amount or for longer period.Persistent desire or sense of compulsion to take alcohol.A great deal of time spent to obtain alcohol, to use alcohol or to recover from its effect.Neglect of impoant social, occupational and recreational activities.
Psychiatry
null
5339384d-7d5f-4657-85f0-ed476576d6ba
Naegler's reaction is due to:
Coagulase
Hyaluronidase
Lecithinase
None of the above
2c
multi
Ans. is. 'c' i. e. Lecithinase
Microbiology
null
6860f29c-8505-4441-aed4-9b180d7bf387
Diagnosis is
Atrophic gastritis
Gastric ulcer
Linitis plastica
Meitner's disease
2c
single
This is a specimen of linitis plastica, a diffuse type of gastric carcinoma.These infiltrative tumors often evoke a desmoplastic reaction that stiffens the gastric wall. When there are large areas of infiltration, diffuse rugal flattening and a rigid, thickened wall may impa a leather bottle appearance termed linitis plastica.Meitner&;s disease has hyperophic gastric folds.Ref: Robbins Pathology; 9th edition; Page no: 772
Pathology
G.I.T
d2aa8652-d3bb-48d0-af74-46534e6f4fa1
Which of the following is best to study corneal endothelium?
Foundoscopy
Specular microscopy
Slit lamp exam
Operating microsopy
1b
single
Ans. b (Specular microscopy). (Ref. Parson Diseases of Eye, 19th ed., 113)SPECULAR MICROSCOPY# It is vital to count and study morphology of corneal endothelial cells, especially in the cases of cataract with suspected endothelial dystrophy.# Normal cell count is 2000-2500 cells/mm2.# IOL implantation is contraindicated if the cell count is < 1500/mm2.# Specular reflection by slit lamp biomicroscope (specular microscopy) allows visualization of corneal endothelium by viewing light reflected back from this interface, count of endothelial cells is possible using an Elser grid.
Ophthalmology
Cornea
59e0e169-94c3-4bed-a5e6-77ac9f3eca88
Veroca.) bodies are seen in:
Meningioma
Hemangioma
Glioma
Schwannoma
3d
single
Ans. d. Schwannoma
Pathology
null
2a61bef9-a6c9-4618-bd1d-a25f3bc79808
All are features of Baters syndrome, EXCEPT:
Polyuria
Metabolic alkalosis
Periodic paralysis
Hypeension
3d
multi
Answer is D (Hypeension): Baters syndrome: Review It is characterized by a defect in sodium-potassium co transpo resulting in defective renal conservation of sodium and chloride.
Medicine
null
b7260499-1df3-4824-bd75-334d4a14feee
Which one of the following is Autosomal recessive
Homocystinuria
G6PD deficiency
Myotonic dystrophy
Otospongiosis
0a
single
Answer is A (Homocystinuria) : Homocystinuria is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder. Disorder Inheritance G-6 PD deficiency X-Linked Myotonic dystrophy Autosomal dominant Otospongiosis Autosomal dominant
Medicine
null
8fd8bffa-f1d3-46d0-ab70-b7da3070ae80
Most important primary care in Faciomaxillary trauma is to:
Asses the level of consciousness
Ensure adequate airway
Look for CNS injury
Immediate fracture reduction
1b
single
(b) Ensure adequate airway(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 498)In any patient of craniofacial trauma it is critically important to follow the ABC of trauma, i.e.A - Airway managementB - BreathingC - Circulation
ENT
Operative Surgery
1ac587b7-7663-4048-a3cb-c60db8774218
Menarche usually occurs how much time after thelarche?
1 year
2 years
6 months
4 years
1b
multi
Menarche usually occurs 2-2.5 years after thelarche.
Pediatrics
Pubey and Adolescent Health
309c3c51-a6c6-49c3-b01f-a9abd7fdc48b
Quod Hanc is-
Impotence to all women
Legally impotent
Medically impotent
Psychologic impontence
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Psychologic impotence
Forensic Medicine
null
cbd0efc0-0849-474e-be25-14d7435ade41
Features of vernal keratitis are:
Papillary hyperophy
Follicular hyperophy
Herbe's pits
All
0a
multi
A i.e. Papillary hyperophy
Ophthalmology
null
4a8b7543-9557-44c3-a86b-ff7720af3471
Foreign body aspiration in supine position causes which of the following parts of the lung commonly to be affected -
Apical left lobe
Apical lobe of right lung
Apical part of the lower lobe
Posterobasal segment of left lung
2c
single
null
Surgery
null
73f8754e-46bb-4626-8f7d-bf5f5ee94eeb
The route of administration of amyl nitrite in "cyanide poisoning " is
Intramuscular
Intravenous
Subdermal
Inhalation
3d
single
Antidotal Therapy in cyanide poisoning:The 3-step cyanide antidote kit is used. It contains amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate.i. 0.3 ml ampoule of amyl nitrite is broken in a gauze and the victim is made to inhale for 30 seconds, every minute (1st step), and use a new ampoule every 3 min. Stop amyl nitrite, if systolic BP is < 80 mmHg.ii. 10 ml of 3% solution (300 mg) of sodium nitrite is injected IV slowly over 5 min (2nd step), followed by 50 ml of 25% solution (12.5 g) of sodium thiosulfate over 10-20 min, by the same needle (3rd step). Ref: Krishnan vij textbook of forensic medicine ; 5th ed; Page no: 548
Forensic Medicine
Poisoning
b85c87a9-06f0-4106-b355-27130cdbdbcc
Epimer of glucose is
Fructose
Galactose
Glyceraldehyde
None
1b
multi
When sugars are different from one another, only in configuration with regard to a single carbon atom, other than the reference carbon atom, they are called epimers. For example, glucose and mannose are an epimeric pair which differs only with respect to C2. Similarly, galactose is the 4th epimer of glucose.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 76
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
d888761e-e2be-495e-b082-70746646bb82
In starvation activities of all of the following enzymes is increased Except
Pyruvate carboxylase
Pyruvate kinase
PEP carboxykinase
Glucose 6 phosphatase
1b
multi
In the starvation activity of all enzymes responsible for gluconeogenesis are increased.Pyruvate kinase is the enzyme of glycolysis. The activity of enzymes of glycolysis is suppressed in starvation. So pyruvate kinase activity is suppressed in starvation.All other enzymes given in this question are gluconeogenic enzyme whose activity is enhanced by starvation.
Microbiology
All India exam
b39c11f7-2f3c-4615-84a6-c32a47888002
Puberty happens due to pulasatile release of -
GnRH
Estrogen
LH/ICSH
Testosterone
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., GnRH o Puberty is the process of physical changes through which a child's body matures into an adult body capable of sexual reproduction.o It is initiated by the release of GnRH hormone in pulseso On average, girls begin puberty around ages 10-11; boys around ages 11-12. Girls usually complete puberty around ages 15-17,while boys usually complete puberty around ages 16-17.o The major landmark of puberty for females is menarche, the onset of menstruation, which occurs on average between ages 12-13;for males, it is the first ejaculation, which occurs on average at age 13
Pediatrics
Development and Epidemiology
bf457028-2150-46ae-a174-ce37973acfa1
A 30-year-old pregnant woman and her 2-year-old child are residing in high altitude area. The child is sho in stature, has a potbelly and enlarged protruding tongue, and is developmentally delayed. Iodine is prescribed for mother and child, with the hope of preventing mental retardation in the developing fetus. All are true about oxidation of iodide except
Conversion of iodide to iodine
Promoted by enzyme peroxidase
Iodide transpoed to follicular lumen by Na-I sympoer
Propylthiouracil blocks this step
2c
multi
Conversion of iodide ions to an oxidized form of iodine, either nascent iodine (I0) or I3-, which is then capable of combining directly with the amino acid tyrosine. This oxidation of iodine is promoted by the enzyme peroxidase and its accompanying hydrogen peroxide, which provide a potent system capable of oxidizing iodides. Iodide exit from the thyrocyte across the apical membrane to access the colloid is mediated by a Cl-/I- exchanger known as pendrin. The mechanism of action of propylthiouracil is paly to block the peroxidase enzyme that is required for iodination of tyrosine and paly to block the coupling of two iodinated tyrosines to form thyroxine or triiodothyronine. Reference: Guyton; 13th edition; Page no: 953, 960Reference: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology; 25th edition; Page no: 339
Physiology
Nervous system
5a876d27-bb9f-41e7-84e3-bca5d5f17bed
Tic douloureux is facial pain traveling through the _____ nerve?
Facial
Hypoglossal
Trigeminal
Vestibulocochlear
2c
single
Harrison's principles of internal medicine 17th edition. * Trigeminal neuralgia(Tic douloureux) is characterised by excruciating paroxysms of pain in lips , gums, cheek or chin and very rarely in distribution of ophthalmic division of 5th nerve.
Medicine
C.N.S
f3020927-d8b0-4380-93bc-f9e9aa18f3c5
All of the following statements about pseudopancreatic cysts are true except
Percutaneous aspiration is treatment of choice
Cystojejunostomy is treatment of choice
Serum amylase levels are increased
Present as an epigastric mass
0a
multi
Treatment of Pancreatic pseudocyst Pseudocyst 5 cm in diameter and <6 weeks old should be observed, as they tend to resolve spontaneously Pseudocyst >5cm diameter is an indications for drainage If infection is suspected, the pseudocyst should be aspirated (not drained) by CT - or US - guided FNA, and the contents examined for organisms by Gran stain and culture If infection is present, and the contents resemble pus, external drainage is employed, using either surgical or percutaneous techniques Pseudocysts communicate with the pancreatic ductal system in upto 80% of cases, so external drainage creates a pathway for pancreatic duct leakage to and through the catheter exit site Methods of internal drainage Percutaneous catheter based methods (transgastruc puncture and stent placement to create a cystogastrostomy) Endoscopic methods (transgastric or Transduodenal puncture and multiple stent placements with or without a nasocystic irrigation catheter) Surgical methods (a true cystoenterostomy, biopsy of cyst wall, evacuation of all debris and contents) Surgical options : Cystogastrostomy, Roux-en-Y cystojejunostomy, cystoduodenostomy Preferred modality : Internal drainage of cyst by cystojejunostomy Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1534-1535
Anatomy
G.I.T
cbf0a6e8-4677-4e18-8fd0-fa102e931e1d
Less O2 saturation in blood is seen in: September 2006
R-L shunt
LV obstruction
RV obstruction
L-V shunt
0a
single
Ans. A: R-L shunt Shunting of blood from the right side to the left side of the circulation (right-to-left shunt) is a powerful cause of hypoxemia. The shunt may be intracardiac or may be intrapulmonary. It has been traditionally thought that this cause could be readily distinguished from the others as the only cause that cannot be corrected by the administration of 100% oxygen.
Physiology
null
2a2b37af-1e1f-4659-a82d-a7459cc3a8a5
Left cardiac border bulge can be seen in all, except –
Enlarged azygous vein
Left appendicular overgrowth
Coronary artery aneurysm
Pericardial defect
0a
multi
Left cardiac border is slightly concave. Bulging (convexity) of left heart border is produced by : (1) Left atrial appendage enlargement; (2) Left ventricular enlargement; (3) Right ventricular enlargement; (4) Left anterior descending coronary artery aneurysm; (5) Left sided pericardial defect.
Radiology
null
6c730015-74c9-44f0-bdc0-5ee49ea78c8f
Which of the following grooves separates cusp ridges from marginal ridges?
Supplemental
Developmental
Mesio marginal developmental
Marginal ridge developmental
1b
single
null
Dental
null
312a20fa-fc03-4ba0-b876-a74555150746
In a normal curve, the area of one standard detion around the mean includes which of the following percent of values in a distribution-
48.60%
68.30%
95.40%
99.70%
1b
single
- the area of either side of mean in normal distribution curve gives the confidence limit. - confidence limit is calculated from mean and standard detion. - In a normal curve, the area of one standard detion around the mean includes 68 percent of values in a distribution approximately. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:849
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
a4da82ea-fb41-4064-b3d6-4400d4702165
Bence Jone's Protein is: March 2005
Monoclonal heavy chains
Monoclonal light chains
Both of above
None of the above
1b
multi
Ans. B: Monoclonal light chains A Bence Jones protein is a monoclonal globulin protein found in the blood or urine, with a molecular weight of 22-24 kDa. The proteins are immunoglobulin light chains (paraproteins) and are produced by neoplastic plasma cells. They can be kappa (most of the time) or lambda. The light chains can be immunoglobulin fragments or single homogeneous immunoglobulins. They are found in urine due to the kidneys' decreased filtration capabilities due to renal failure, often induced by hypercalcemia from the calcium released as the bones are destroyed. The light chains can be detected by heating or electrophoresis of concentrated urine. Light chains precipitate when heated to 50 - 60 degrees C and redisolve at 90 -100 degrees C. There are various rarer conditions that can produce Bence Jones proteins, such as Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia.
Pathology
null
5f88e3f2-7619-4cd7-a796-1c0a6f8bc78a
In a pregnant women of 28 weeks gestation IUD is earliest demonstrated on X-ray by :
Increased flexion
Overlapping of cranial bones
Spalding's sign
Gas in vessels
3d
single
Gas in vessels
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
102ce676-ac00-441b-9e3a-77df49a648f2
A 50-year-old obese man (BMI = 32 kg/m2 ) comes to the physician complaining of indigestion after meals, bloating, and heaburn. Vital signs are normal. A CT scan of the abdomen reveals a hiatal hernia of the esophagus. Endoscopic biopsy shows thickening of the basal layer of the squamous epithelium, upward extension of the papillae of the lamina propria, and an increased number of neutrophils and lymphocytes.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Esophageal varices
Mallory-Weiss syndrome
Reflux esophagitis
Schatzki mucosal ring
2c
multi
- Hiatal hernia of esophagus is one of the risk factors of reflux esophagitis - Esophagitis may be caused by infections, reflux of gastric juice or exogenous irritants. - Areas affected by gastric reflux are susceptible to mucosal erosions & ulcers which appear as linear veical streaks. - Neutrophils and lymphocytes accumulate in the mucosa. - Other choices are not typical complications of hiatal hernia.
Pathology
Esophagus Applied Anatomy: GERD
1031c23d-b7a0-4a0a-ad8f-aa0caad3d162
A diabetic female at 40 wks of gestation delivered a baby by elective cesarean section. Soon after bih the baby developed respiratory distress. The diagnosis is
Transient tachypnea of the new born
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Tracheo oesophageal fistula
Hyaline membrane disease
0a
single
Ans. is a i.e. Transient tachypnea of the new born Friends don't get shocked by the answer, even I was perplexed when I went through the texts given in all the standard reference books. Let's see what they have said. Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) or hyaline membrane disease (HMD) RDS almost always occurs in nreterm babies often less than 34 weeks of gestation. It is the commonest cause of respiratory distress in a preterm neonate. According to Ghai -- RDS is seen in preterm babies and not the term babies (as is given in our question). Now let's see what Ghai says about transient tachypnea of newborn : Transient tachypnea of newborn (TTN) Transient tachypnea of the newborn is a benign self-limiting disease occurring usually in term neonates and is due to delayed clearance of lung fluid. These babies have tachypnea with minimal or no respiratory distress. Chest X-ray may show prominent vascular marking and prominent interlobar fissure. Oxygen treatment is often adequate and ventilatory suppo is necessary and prognosis is good. But Ghai didn't mention any correlation between TTN and Diabetes. So, I had to search other books for more information. Neonatal complications : RDS and transient tachypnea are more common in infants of women with poorly controlled diabetics. Respiratory distress : "Conventional obstetrical teaching through the late 1980s generally held that fetal lung maturation was delayed in diabetic pregnancies. Thus, these infants were at increased risk for respiratory distress (Gluck and Kulovich, 1973). Subsequent observations have challenged this concept, and gestational age rather than ove diabetes is likely the most significant factor associated with neonatal respiratory distress (Berkowitz and colleagues, 1996; Kjos and colleagues. 1990b)". So, it is the gestational age and not diabetes which is the main factor causing neonatal respiratory distress. In our question the baby is delivered at 40 weeks gestation (Full term) so, the answer can not be Hyaline membrane disease rather it is transient tachypnea of newborn (i.e. option 'a is correct).
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
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5780bb3e-74d7-4cdf-865f-d3352b900a40
Mutation leading to sickle cell anemia-
Crossover mutation
Frameshift
Deletion
Point mutation
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Point mutationIn sickle cell anemia there is missense type of point mutation.Mutations o A mutation is a permanant change in the DNA.o Mutations that affect germ cells (sperm or ovum) are transmitted to progeny and may give rise to inherited disease. o Mutations that affect somatic cells are not transmitted to progeny but are impoant in the genesis of cancers and congenital malformations.o Mutations may be classified into three categories ?I. Gene mutationso The vast majority of mutations associated with hereditary disease are gene mutations.o These may of different types depending whether it involves complete gene or single base ?(a) Point mutationA single nucleotide base is subustituted by a different base.When a pyrimidine base is subustituted by other pyrimidine base or a purine base is substituted by other purine ---> Transition.When a purine is substituded by a pyrimidine or vice-versa --> Transversion.This may alter the code in a triplet of bases, i.e. in codon and leads to replacement of one aminoacid by another in the gene product.Because these mutations alter the meaning of the genetic code, they are often termed missense mutation. o Example is sickle mutation in which CTC codon in 13-chain of hemoglobin that codes for glutamic acid is changed to CAC codon that codes for valine.Another type of point mutation is nonsense mutation in which a point mutation may change an amino acid codon to a stop codon.o Example is13-thalassemia in which CAG codon in f3-chain of hemoglobin that code for glutamin is changed to stop codon UAG after point mutation.(b) Deletion and inseionsDeletion or inseion of one or two base lead to alterations in the reading frame of the DNA strand frame shift mutation.If the number of base pairs invoved is three or a multiple of three framshift does not occur (because codon is triplet), instead an abnormal protein missing one or more amino acids is synthesized.(c) Trinucleotide repeat mutationo Normally a codon is triplet ie trinucleotide.In this type of mutation a codon, ie trinucleotide sequence undergoes amplification and the same codon is repeated continuously so many times in the chain.o For example in fragile X-syndrome, CGG codon is repeated 250-4000 times, ie. there are 250-4000 tandem repeates of CGG.2.Chromosome mutationo Result from rearrangement of genetic material that give rise to visible structural changes in the chromosome.3.Genome mutationo Involves loss or gain of whole chromosome, e.g. monosomy - Turner syndrome, trisomy - Down syndrome.
Pathology
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837298a0-f2af-4d9e-8218-9b1c3995b2ad
Serratus anterior is supplied by which nerve?
Long thoracic nerve
Spinal accessory nerve
Dorsal scapular nerve
Axillary nerve
0a
single
ANSWER: (A) Long thoracic nerveREF: Gray s anatomy 40th ed chapter 46Serratus anterior is innervated by the long thoracic nerve, C5, 6 and 7, which descends on the external surface of the muscle.
Anatomy
Back, Deltoid, and Scapular Region
820378fb-7dda-4afb-8d7b-691b6f3104ea
35 years male presents with a swelling in scrotum that is non tender and seperate from testes and on transillumination, chinese lantern pattern is seen diagnosis
Vaginal hydrocele
Inguinal harnia
Epididymal cyst
Varicocele
2c
single
Answer- C. Epididymal cystCysts of the epididymis (multiloculated epididymal cyst, spermatocele) are not swrounded by fluid and for this reason are felt as swellings above, behind the testis, which is also easily palpable in this situation.Because of the septation, multiloculated epididlmal cysts have a characteristic 'Chinese lantern' aPPearance on transillumination.
Surgery
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780346ed-5e4a-4964-8f9f-f55598135afb
Uncommon finding in congestive cardiac failure in new born -
Tachycardia
Tachypnoea
Hepatomegaly
Pedal edema
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pedal edema Edema of the feet occurs late.
Pediatrics
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6545d43b-1be5-4747-857e-c38979c8b579
Which of the following is used for the treatment of Myopia?
Nd-YAG Laser
Excimer Laser
Harmonium Laser
Argon Laser
1b
single
Treatment of Myopia A) Methods to flatten central corneaSurgeryRange of MyopiaRadial keratotomy 1--6 DPhotorefractive keratotomy 1 - 6 DAutomated lamellar keratectomy6 - 32 DExcimer Laser Assisted Insitu Keratomileusis 2 - 12 D ( upto 30 D )LASEK 1 - 6 D Intracorneal rings 1 - 6 D B) Methods to reduce overall refractory power of eye Clear lens extraction>15 D(Refer: AH Khurana, Comprehensive Textbook of Ophthalmology,5thedition,pg no: 32-36)
Anatomy
All India exam
6736163b-e92b-4fee-875f-17c41eacc353
Curling's ulcer in burns is seen in: AIIMS 08
Esophagus
Stomach
Colon
Duodenum
3d
single
Ans. Duodenum
Forensic Medicine
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