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135
36fab420-80dc-4502-b2f0-fe8a96289473
An example of a tumour suppressor gene is-
Myc
Fos
Ras
RB
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., RB Tumor suppressor geneo The replication of cell should be controlled to maintain a steady state.o Failure to inhibit cell replication is one of the fundamental alterations in the process of carcinogenesis.o Tumor suppressor genes are the genes whose products down regulate the cell cycle and thus apply brakes to cellular proliferation.o So, loss of function of tumor suppressor genes results in uncontrolled cell proliferation and carcinogenesis,o Similar to oncogene, tumor suppresor gene may be -# Cell surface receptor # Transduction molecules # Transcription factorIn additiono Cell cycle inhibitorso Regulators of cellular responses to DNA damage (DNA repair regulators)These protein products are involved in -o Cell cycle controlo Regulation of apoptosiso DNA repairTUMOUR SUPPRESSOR GENESubcellular LocationTumor su pressor GeneFunctionTumors Associated with Somatic MutationsThmors Associated with inherited MutationCell surfaceo TGF-b receptoro Growth inhibitiono Carcinomas of colono Unknown o E - cadherino Cell adhesiono Carcinoma of stomacho Familial gastric cancerInner aspect of plasma membraneNF-lInhibition of RAS signal transduction and of p21 cell - cycle inhibitorNeuroblastomasNeurofibromatosis type I and sarcomasCytoskeletonNF-2Cytoskeletal stabilitySchwannomas and meningiomasNeurofibromatosis type - 2 acoustic schwannomas and meningiomasCytosolo APC/b-catenino Inhibition of signal transdu- ctiono Carcinomas of stomach, colon, pancreas; melanomao Familial adenomatous polyposis coli/colon cancer o PTENo PI - 3 kinase signal transductiono Endometrial and prostate cancerso Unknown o SMAD 2 and SMAD4o TFG - b signal transductiona Colon, pancreas tumorso UnknownNucleuso RBo Regulation of cel l cycleo Retinoblastoma: osteosarcoma carcinoma of breast, colon, lungo Retinoblastomas, osteosarcoma o p53o Cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in response to DNAo Most human cancerso Li-Fraumeni syndrome; multiple carcinomas and sarcomas o WT - lo Nuclear transcriptiono Wilms tumoro Wilms tumor o pi6 (INK 4a)o Regulation of cel l cycle by inhibition of cyclin dependent kinaseso Pancreatic, breast, and esophageal cancerso Malignant melanoma o BRCA - l and BRCA2o DNA repairo Unknowno Carcinomas of female breast and ovary ; carcinomas of male breast o KLF 6o Transcription factoro Prostateo UnknownC-myc, fos & RAS are oncogenes (not tumor suppressor genes).
Pathology
Carcinogenesis
d0027fff-0202-4a70-a568-533ac4be79ee
Positive indicator of health -
IMR
Child mortality rate
MMR
Life expectancy
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Life expectancy Mortality indicatorso These arei) Crude death rateii) Expectation of life (life expectancy)iii) Infant mortality' rateiv) Child mortality ratev) Under-5 proportional mortalitv ratevi) Maternal mortality ratevii) Disease specific mortality' rateviii) Age specific death rateix) Adult mortality ratex) Years of potential life losto Among these only life expectancy is a positive mortality indicator, i.e. increase life expectancy means improvement in health.o All other are 'negative' health indicators, i.e. increase value of these indicators implies poor health of community.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Indicators of Health
2739b82c-7a24-4440-b58a-35f970fb801a
Nephrotic syndrome is the hall mark of the following primary kidney diseases except
Membranous Glomerulopathy
IgA nephropathy
Minimal change disease
Focal segmental Glomerulosclerosis
1b
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., IgA nephropathy Most common presentation of IgA nephropathy is grass hematuria. It is the most common form of glomerulonephritis worldwide Causes of Nephrotic syndrome Minimal change disease Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis o Membranous glomerulonephritis o Diabetes nephropathy AL and AA amyloidosis Light chain deposition disease Fibrillary immunotactoid disease
Medicine
null
61936233-ae43-4ddb-a534-83dab4006b2c
Malate shuttle is impoant in:
Liver and Hea
Brain and Hea
Brain and Skeletal muscle
Liver and Skeletal muscle
0a
single
Malate shuttle is more impoant in the liver and cardiac muscles as these organs require a continuous supply of energy. Whereas Glycerol-P-shuttle is a shoer shuttle and provides a quick source of ATPs as compared to the Malate shuttle. So it is present in brain & skeletal muscles, where energy is needed quickly in case of an emergency.
Biochemistry
Link reaction
6e666c65-1e18-4b3c-a424-e1c783d6a66e
Renal involvement is usually absent in _________
Drug-induced systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Adult SLE
Pediatric SLE
SLE during pregnancy
0a
multi
Renal involvement is usually absent in drug-induced SLE Drug involvement SLE has predominant skin involvement. Option 2: In adult, SLE kidney involvement is seen in 30-40% of patients Option 3: In pediatric SLE, Kidneys are almost always involved. Ref: Harrison&;s principles of Internal Medicine 20th edition pgno: 2525
Pediatrics
Musculoskeletal disorders
870bbf70-358c-4581-b23c-725da331db0b
MC comp. of talus is
Avascular necrosis
Non union
Osteoahritis of ankle joint.
Osteoahritis of subtalar joint.
0a
single
A i.e Avascular necrosis
Surgery
null
c1cbfa42-973a-4b23-88e0-3598dcdc9a21
Which of the following carcinoma is familial -
Breast
Prostate
Cervix
Vaginal
0a
single
Familial cancers these cancers may occur at higher frequency in certain families without a clearly defined pattern of transmission. Virtually all the common types of cancers that occur sporadically have also been reported to occur in familial forms. examples include carcinomas of breast brain colon melanoma ovary lymphomas features that characterize familial cancers include early age at onset, tumors arising in two or more close relatives of the index case, and sometimes, multiple or bilateral tumors.
Surgery
null
a2e9a0d5-8983-470a-b01d-0f24fdf723c3
Lallo, aged 54 years, who is a known diabetic patient develops cirrhosis. There is associated skin hyperpigmentation and restrictive cardiomyopathy which of the following is the best initial test to diagnose this case.
Iron binding capacity
Serum ferritin
Serum copper
Serum ceruloplasmin
0a
multi
Answer is A (Iron binding capacity): The presence of hyperpigmentation and diabetes (bronze diabetes) together with restrictive cardiomyopathy and cirrhosis.suggests a diagnosis of hereditary hematochromatosis. The best initial test to diagnose hereditary hematochromatosis are Transferrin saturation and unsaturated Iron binding capacity As transferrin saturation is not provided amongst the options, Iron binding capacity is the single best answer of choice. Note Serum ferritin levels are a good index of body iron stores and are raised early during the cause of disease. Yet serum ferritin levels should not he used as initial screening test to detect hereditary hematochromatosis. This is because serum ferritin also acts as an acute phase reactant and its levels are increased in variable infections and inflammatory conditions without iron overload. Also the serum concentration of ferritin may be increased in patients with hepatocelltdar injury as in viral hepatitis, alcoholic fatty liver disease or alcoholic liver diseases due to increased release from tissue cells.
Medicine
null
63f0ad58-7d5f-4f75-af83-509598475742
Insulin release is inhibited by:
Somatostatin
Glucagon
Acetylcholine
Amino acids
0a
single
Somatostatin, secreted by d cells of pancreas, inhibits the other two secretions of the endocrine pancreas - insulin & glucagon. The primary stimulators of the somatostatin are glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids. Parasympathetic nervous system (vagus/Ach) is a stimulator of insulin secretion. Insulin secretion is inhibited by epinephrine acting alpha-2 adrenergic receptors. Amino acids, FFAs, and glucose are the stimulators of insulin secretion.
Physiology
Endocrine System
b739ce7f-9a27-4390-acd3-47d0478fe42b
Following may be premonitary symptoms of tetanus except -
Sleeplessness
Anxious expression
Urinary incontinence
Headache
2c
multi
null
Surgery
null
cd378cee-3850-4de7-9e0e-ca4818fe091b
Beta blocker that can be used in renal failure is all except-
Propranolol
Pindolol
Sotalol
Oxyprenolol
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Sotalol "Sotalol is not metabolized in liver, excretion is predominantly by the kidney in the unchanged form". - Katzung 101Ve p. 229 Since it is primarly excreted in urine, it should not be used in renal failure. 0-blockers which are primarily excreted by kidney and should not be given in renal failure --> Atenolol, Sotalol, nodolol About other options Approximately 50% of pindolol is metabolized in liver, the remainder of the drug is excreted unchanged in urine - - Goodman Gillman o Propranolol and oxprenolol are mainly metabolized in liver.
Pharmacology
null
daf1abef-d863-403a-90d3-b92ae7d16eea
Which of the following fungus isn't a mould?
Aspergillus fumigatus
Rhizopus
Cryptococcus neoformans
Adsidia
2c
single
Cryptococcus in not a mould A mould or mould is a fungus that grows in the form of multicellular filaments called hyphae. Ref: Baveja 5th ed pg: 564
Microbiology
mycology
eb9304db-c1c4-434f-bec1-b8206e640a25
Which of the drug is not commonly used in PPH?
Mifepristone
Misoprostol
Oxytocin
Ergotamine
0a
single
Ans. is a, i.e. MifepristoneRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 415, 416; Williams Obs. 23/e, p 775; COGDT 10/e, p 481; Munro Kerr's 10/e, p 426, 427Atonicity is the most common cause of PPH. Any drug which increases the tone of uterus or the force of contraction is used to control PPH and is called oxytocic or uterotonic.Commonly used oxytocics in the management of PPH are:Oxytocin/CarbetocinMetherginSyntometrine - oxytocin + methylorgonovine15 methyl PGF2a (carboprost)Misoprostol (PGE1 )
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Complication of 3rd Stage of Labour
73269ec3-44f8-4c67-8974-d7d1b61b4659
Raynaud's phenomenon what change is seen in vessels initial stage -
No change (Fibrinoid, Thrombosis)
Thrombosis
Fibrinoid necrosis
Hyaline sclerosis
0a
single
Structural changes in the arterial walls are absent except late in the course, when intimal thickening can appear.
Pathology
null
3f43afeb-2df2-42d7-adbb-2487f2ce3aa8
Most common congenital anomaly of the upper renal tract is -
Duplication of renal pelvis
Duplication of ureter
Ectopic ureteric orifice
Congenital megaureter
0a
single
null
Surgery
null
924e8bec-d172-460a-8c33-ffef1cf61ba5
Exocytosis:
Is a calcium dependent process
Can be constitutive or non-constitutive
Requires SNARE proteins
All of the above
3d
multi
Exocytosis is a calcium dependent process. In non-constitutive exocytosis, secretory product after synthesis and processing in the RER and GA, is stored in the cytoplasm in secretory granules until an appropriate signal for secretion is received In constitutive exocytosis, prompt transpo of secretory product to the cell membrane in vesicles occurs with little or no processing or storage SNARE proteins that are involved in exocytosis
Physiology
General Physiology
801079d6-2426-4107-9e60-6e111b9cb5ea
Endodermal sinus tumor is characterised by
Cal Exner body
Psammoma bodies
Schiller Duval bodies
Homer wright body
2c
single
Refer Robbins page no 977Also known as endodermal sinus tumor, yolk sac tumor is of interest because it is the most common testicular tumor in infants and children up to 3 years of age. In this age group it has a very good prognosis. In adults the pure form of this tumor is rare; instead, yolk sac elements frequently occur in combination with embryonal carcinoma.
Pathology
Urinary tract
4931890d-f561-4bc2-bb7e-d612884bb12a
The following diseases are associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection, EXCEPT:
Infectious mononucleosis
Epidermodysplasia verruciformis
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Oral hairy leukoplakia
1b
multi
Ans. b. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis Epstein Barr Virus may lead to the following: Infectious mononucleosis EBV associated tumors Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Pages 1046, 47
Microbiology
null
467d8343-5aca-4acb-ae66-8b1f7b93e007
Which among the following differentiates ventricular tachycardia from WPW Patient with atrial fibrillation
Irregular RR interval
Regular RR interval
Broad QRS
Increased heart rate
1b
single
VT has regular RR interval.
Medicine
null
fc105a3e-97c3-43cd-b1a2-147cd83197ef
A patient of acute leukemia is admitted with febrile neutropenia. On day four of being treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics, his fever increases. X-ray chest shows bilateral fluffy infiltrates. Which of the following should be the most appropriate next step in the managment -
Add antiviral therapy
Add antifungal therapy
Add cotrimoxazole
Continue chemotherapy
2c
multi
null
Microbiology
null
87908bc6-c879-4860-89fc-b59222a814b9
Most important risk factor of recurrence of febrile seizure is -
Age of onset < 2 years
Family history
Seizure at time of fever peak
Long prolonged fever prior to seizure
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Family history' Febrile convulsiono Commonest provoked seizureo Between 6 months to 5 yearo Neurologically normal childo Occurs when temp rise abruptlySimple benign febrile convulsiono Fits occur within 24 hour of onset of fever,o Duration less than 10 min.o Usually single per febrile episodeo Generalised type of convulsionAtypical febrile seizureso Presence of family history of epilepsyo Neurodevelopmental retardationo Focal neurological deficit.o Approximately 30-50% of children have recurrent seizureso Factors associated with increased recurrence risk includeAge <12 moLower temperature before seizure onsetA positive family history of febrile seizures, andComplex seizures
Pediatrics
Seizures in Childhood and Conditions that Mimic Seizures
874f9dcb-b3e3-4066-aa4e-b6383b627dc4
Vegetations on undersurface of A.V. valves are found in
Acute rheumatic fever
Libman Sach's endocarditis
Non thrombotic bacterial endocarditis
Chronic rheumatic carditis
1b
single
Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:163 Endocarditis associated with SLE (Libman-Sachs endocarditis): The vegetations are 3-4 mm in size, composed of degenerating valve tissue; functional disability is minimal; ventricular surface of the mitral valve is commonly involved; aoic valve involvement is rare; entire valve apparatus can be involved.
Medicine
C.V.S
7d8876aa-da72-4dda-8dcb-98265a57bb9d
This drug depolarizer cell membranes of aerobic Gram Positive Bacteria. It is effective against vancomycin resistance entercoccal infection. It may cause myopathy especially in patients taking stating .it is
Teicoplann
Daptomycin
Linezolid
Streptogramin
1b
multi
(Ref: KDT 6/e p741, Daptomvcin is a newer antibiotic that acts by causing depolarization.of bacterial cell membranes. It is effective in MRSA, VRSA and even streptogramin resistant SA infections as well as VRE infections. It can cause myopathy in patients taking statins.
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
640f1494-b535-413f-9efc-b9a6e0c2de6f
Both fenfluramine and phentermine
Produce central nervous system stimulation
Act to suppress appetite
Are effective in treating narcolepsy
Have been used in children with attention deficit disorders
1b
multi
. Both fenfluramine and phentermine have been successfully used, alone and in combination, for the treatment of obesity. They apparently reduce appetite by affecting the satiety centers in the hypothalamus. Whereas phentermine is a central nervous system (CNS) stimulant related to the amphetamines and is believed to act by releasing norepinephrine from CNS neurons, fenfluramine causes lethargy and sedation and acts by augmenting serotonin neurotransmission. For this reason, the drugs may be used together without causing excessive CNS stimulation or depression.
Pharmacology
All India exam
c5c36b0a-8c94-43d2-ad8b-e4536ea3919c
True about Hb dissociation curve is:
Acidosis shifts 02 dissociation curve to right
T CO2 shifts the curve to left
Hypoxia shifts curve to left
All
0a
multi
A i.e. Acidosis shifts O2 dissociation curve to right
Physiology
null
329fb8a4-1832-4837-81f0-b057bce2598c
A 24 year old male complained of recurrent attacks of sore throat since 2 years. The total leucocyte count was 3000/ μl. A differential count revealed severe neutropenia. The diagnosis is
Subleukemicleukemia
Agranulocytosis
Infectious mononucleosis
Leukoerythroblasticanemia
1b
single
null
Pathology
null
f0d4c498-e605-48b7-8fe1-a1723dc2ff85
Early morning hyperglycemia with increased blood glucose of 3.00 AM suggests:
Insufficient Insulin
Dawn Phenomenon
Somogyi effect
None of the above
0a
multi
Answer is A (insufficient Insulin): Early morning hyperglycemia with increased blood glucose at 3.00 Am typically suggests inadequate night time insulin dose (insufficient insulin). Dawn phenomenon also presents with early morning hyperglycemia but blood glucose is typically stable (normal) at 3.00AM. If insufficient insulin is not provided amongst the options. Dawn phenomenon may be selected as the Answer by exclusion since several textbooks do not make a distinction between Dawn phenomenon and insufficient insulin and include insufficient night time insulin as a mechanism for Dawn phenomenon. Causes of early morning hyperglycemia in diabetics using insulin: Causes Frequency Mechanism Diagnosis Treatment Insufficient Most common Inadequate night-time basal Blood glucose rises "Ist Night-time insulin insulin dose continuously throughout the night intermediate or long-acting insulin dose Dawn Common Early morning physiologic Blood glucose stable Do not eat a phenomenon surge in growth hormone and all night, then sharp carbohydrate snack coisol rise early in the morning at midnight Somogvi effect Least common Excessive night-time basal Hypoglycemia at 2-3 .1 Night-time insulin dose --> hypoglycemia in the middle of the night --> triggers release of counter- regulatory hormones am* intermediate or long-acting insulin dose *Patients with long-standing DM may not have symptoms of hypoglycemia (discomfo, tremors, sweating, etc) because of autonomic diabetic neuropathy.
Medicine
null
5e6eadec-afaf-47d1-b8c6-259852f3d548
Kaposi sarcoma is caused by: March 2013
HHV 6
HHV 7
HHV 8
All of the above
2c
multi
Ans. C i.e. HHV 8 Kaposi sarcoma (KS) It is a tumor caused by Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV8), also known as Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV). It was originally described by Moritz Kaposi , a Hungarian dermatologist practicing at the University of Vienna in 1872. It became more widely known as one of the AIDS-defining illnesses in the 1980s. Kaposi's sarcoma (KS) is a systemic disease that can present with cutaneous lesions with or without internal involvement. Four subtypes have been described: - Classic KS, affecting middle aged men of Mediterranean descent; - African endemic KS; KS in iatrogenically immunosuppressed patients; and - AIDS-related KS. Classic KS tends to be indolent, presenting with erythematous or violaceous patches on the lower extremities. African endemic KS and AIDS-related KS tend to be more aggressive. The AIDS-related KS lesions often rapidly progress to plaques and nodules affecting the upper trunk, face, and oral mucosa. The diagnosis can be made with a tissue biopsy and, if clinically indicated, internal imaging should be done.
Microbiology
null
15da5cdd-5657-4901-8bd4-c9ef9afd9ba9
A fifty-year-old man, presents to his local physician complaining that he often feels as if the room is spinning when he gets up from a recumbent position or turns his head. He has not lost consciousness and has had no chest pain. He has no cardiac history and a recent treadmill test showed no abnormalities. On examination, the sensation can be produced by rapidly turning the head. It can be reproduced many times, but it eventually ceases. Nystagmus is elicited. Hearing is normal. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for this patient's symptoms?
Aberrant stimulation of hair cells
Hair cell death in the semicircular canals
Insufficient cardiac output
Insufficient cerebral perfusion
0a
multi
In benign paroxysmal positional veigo, calcium carbonate crystals called otoliths, which are usually fixed in a gelatinous otolithic membrane, float freely in the endolymph. Usually, movement is sensed by the movement of this heavy membrane as it stimulates hair-like projections on sensory hair cells fixed to the membrane in the inner ear. In BPPV, the loose crystals aberrantly stimulate the hair cells with ceain head movements. Thus the sensation of veigo is produced. Hair cell death does not cause veigo. Insufficient cardiac output and cerebral blood flow lead to syncope and not veigo.
ENT
null
e850a892-8fc0-4217-b6b1-1e9addf581f7
Asha worker works for___ population:
3000
1000
5000
400
1b
single
Ans. (b) 1000Ref: K. Park 23rd ed. / 449, 21st ed. 1407* ASHA is Accredited Social Health Activist.* One ASHA works for 1000 population.* In tribal, hilly and desert areas, the norm is one ASHA per habitation.Impact Indicators of ASHA* Infant mortality rate* Child malnutrition rate* Number of TB/leprosy case detection as compared to previous year.Must knowASHA* ASHA must be the resident of the village preferably in the age group of 25-45 years.* Minimum education required for ASHA: 8th pass* ASHA is selected by village panchayat/Gram Sabha* ASHA comes under national Rural Health Mission (NRHM): 2005-2012* Act as bridge between village and ANM (Auxiliary Nurse midwife)* Training of ASHA is done by ANM and AWW for a minimum duration of 23 daysAlso know* One multi-purpose worker (MPW) is for: 5000 population* One village health guide (VHG) is for: 1000* One Anganwadi worker (AWW) is for: 400-800
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health Planning and Management
2a25d368-0138-4008-b0d7-ff8648dac925
A 10 year old boy presents with a palpable mass per abdomen. On imaging, para-aoic lymph nodes were found to be enlarged. A biopsy from the lymph node showed a starry sky appearance. What is the likely underlying abnormality -
Tumor suppressor gene Tp53 mutation
Rb tumor suppressor gene mutation
Translocation involving BCR-ABL genes
Translocation involving cMYC gene
3d
single
. Translocation involving cMYC gene
Pathology
null
c869790a-1a9e-4d40-b01d-5801de2455ab
A 45-year-old woman complains of tingling in her hands and feet, 24 hours after removal of follicular thyroid carcinoma. Her symptoms rapidly progress to severe muscle cramps, laryngeal stridor, and convulsions. Which of the following laboratory findings would be expected in this patient prior to treatment?
Decreased serum calcium and decreased PTH
Decreased serum calcium and increased PTH
Increased serum calcium and decreased PTH
Increased serum calcium and increased PTH
0a
single
- Given clinical features point towards hypocalcemia resulted from hypoparathyroidism. HYPOPARATHYROIDISM - Most common cause is surgical resection of parathyroids as a complication of thyroidectomy. -Parathyroid levels falls-Hypocalcemia - Hypocalcemia- | Neuromuscular excitability - From mild tingling in hands & feet to severe muscle cramps, laryngeal stridor & convulsions. - Neuropsychiatric manifestations- Depression, Paranoia & Psychoses. Increased PTH in setting of parathyroid adenoma or paraneoplastic syndrome is associated with hypercalcemia (choice D).
Pathology
Parathyroids
cdee75ae-93c9-41c8-bc6a-30d440b23bd6
Regarding Congenital Toicollis true are all except:
In 2/3 cases sternocleidomastoid mass is palpable
If untreated, may lead to Plagiocephaly
80% undergo Spontaneous resolution
Always associated with breech presentation
3d
multi
AlthoughLarge infants who have had difficult veex deliveries as well as those who are breech or those with hip dysplasia are at special risk for developing toicolis, it is not always associated. Congenital Muscular Toicollis Muscular toicollis is the most common variety and is presumed to result from injury to the sternocleidomastoid muscle during delivery. In toicollis the head is tilted toward and rotated away from the tight sternocleidomastoid muscle. Congenital toicollis is usually secondary to intrauterine moulding but may present with fixed sternocleidomastoid contracture or with a palpable 'tumour' within the muscle. There is a strong correlation with DDH. Most cases resolve with stretching but persistent cases develop facial asymmetry and require surgical release of the sternocleidomastoid at one or both ends. Acquired toicollis is less common and may be caused by gastro-oesophageal reflux, posterior fossa tumour/other regional abnormality, inflammation/infection, ocular problems or atlanto- axial rotatory subluxation. Treatment In patients with a suggestive history and appropriate physical findings, programs of positioning and stimulation and gentle passive stretching exercised staed within the first month of life often result in resolution. The parents should be instructed to rotate the chin gently toward the side of head tilt while simultaneously bringing the head to the upright position. As range of motion improves, the chin can be rotated past neutral and the head titled toward the opposite side. Significant correction usuall;y occurs within the first few months of life in patienys with muscular toicollis. When deformaity persists, the patient should be referred for ohopedic evaluation. Soft collars are not effective in treatment, and rigid devices producesecondary mandibular deformity. Surgical release of the sternocleidomastoid muscle is occasionally required in such patients and should be performed before the development of secondary facial asymmetry (plagiocephaly)
Radiology
Musculoskeletal Radiology
01d39bb8-c090-42d2-921a-66d4843a5ece
All are causes of Pulmonary Infiltrates with Eosinophilia with known etiology, EXCEPT:
Allergic bronchopulmonary mycosis
Eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome
Parasitic infestations
Loeffler's syndrome
3d
multi
This is really a good question. Need to be very thorough about it to answer. The table in harrison will give the clear answer without doubt: Allergic bronchopulmonary mycosis such as those caused by Penicillium, Candida, Curvularia, or Helminthosporium spp. A. fumigatus is the most common cause of ABPA. Loeffler's syndrome was originally repoed as a benign, acute eosinophilic pneumonia of unknown cause characterized by migrating pulmonary infiltrates and minimal clinical manifestations. Eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome is an incurable and sometimes fatal flu-like neurological condition that is believed to have been caused by ingestion of poorly produced L-tryptophan supplement. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 255, Table 255-2, Page 2119
Medicine
null
9d57bea8-7852-4b22-ac25-c69520f15628
Number of air changes in one hour in a drawing room should be not less than
3
2
4
5
1b
single
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
fd599cee-aefb-4757-9d6e-313dc05ad06d
A 69-year-old man is brought to the emergency department for new symptoms of confusion and sleep disturbance. He is not able to provide any history but his partner notes that he has cirrhosis due to chronic alcoholism She states that he has maintained abstinence from alcohol for the past 3 months. His medications include nadolol, furosemide, spironolactone, and lactulose.On examination, he looks jaundiced, the blood pressure is 102/78 mm Hg supine, and 86/64 mm Hg standing with an increase in heart rate from 72 to 100 beats/min. He is afebrile and the oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. The abdomen is soft; there is a palpable spleen tip and no evidence of ascites. He is not oriented to place or time and moves all four limbs on command. A digital rectal exam reveals dark black stool. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP)
spironolactone
nadolol
gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding
3d
multi
GI bleeding is the most common precipitating factor for hepatic encephalopathy. Patients with cirrhosis and portal hypertension are at risk for variceal bleeding. Diuretic therapy by causing hypokalemia, and SBP are other common causes. In this patient the postural hypotension and dark stools suggests that GI bleeding is the likely cause rather than his diuretics or SBP. Narcotics and sedatives are also frequently implicated as precipitants for hepatic encephalopathy.
Medicine
Miscellaneous
52897ed3-12f7-4818-8f89-accf5f40dbdf
Not an Aberration of Normal Development and Involution (ANDI) NOT RELATED-GYN
Fibroadenoma
Duct ectasia
Cyclical mastalgia
Intraductal papilloma
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
All India exam
770f7ddb-aff4-49c3-91af-7792ad2e3664
A 43-year-old man sustains a fracture of the tibia. There are no neurologic or muscular lesions noted on careful examination. An above-knee cast is applied. After 6 weeks, the plaster is removed. It is noted that he has a foot drop and is unable to extend his ankle because of pressure injury to which of the following?
Posterior tibial nerve
Saphenous nerve
Femoral nerve
Deep fibula (peroneal) nerve
3d
multi
The common fibula (peroneal) nerve divides into the superficial fibula (peroneal) nerve, which supplies the fibula (peroneal) compartment, and the deep fibula (peroneal) nerve, which supplies the extensor compartment of the leg. This injury may occur because of a fracture of the proximal fibula or because of compression of the nerve by a tightly applied plaster cast in this region.
Surgery
Orthopedics
cd16eb73-5c04-4ac4-ae36-e6d67f8ced13
Blow-out fracture of orbit is characterized by all except:
Diplopia
Tear drop" sign
Positive forced duction test
Exophthalmos
3d
multi
Ans. Exophthalmos
Ophthalmology
null
18156abc-94cd-406e-92ba-7dbed0bde5b6
Term catatonia was used by -
Karl kahlbaum
Adolf meyer
Leo kanner
Karen homey
0a
single
Karl kahlbaum coined the terms catatonia and cyclothymia.
Psychiatry
null
f2e2e495-3ef5-4e85-849b-2d037113e8ed
A 8 year old child has localized non cicatrial alopecia over scalp with itching and scales. The diagnosis is –
Tinea Barbae
Alopecia areata
Tinea Capitis
Lichen planus
2c
single
Information in this question are - Non-cicatrial alopecia Itching Scales Patient is child (8 years) Amongst the given options Non-cicatricial alopecia is caused by T.Capitis and alopecia areata. But only T.Capitis fullfils the criteria here, i.e. Non-cicatricial alopecia, Itching, Scales in a child. Alpecia areata occurs in young adults, and there is no itching or scales.
Dental
null
aca787c7-0de1-46ec-8aeb-fd422eb8ec84
Profuse expectoration of two months durations and clubbing may be seen -
Sarcoidosis
Polyarteritis nodosa
Pulmonary artery hypertension
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
3d
multi
null
Medicine
null
d06b7523-2c93-4632-a099-507c9229db56
True about thyroid storm -a) Bradycardiab) Hyperthermiac) Hypercalcemiad) Hypotensione) Cardiac arrhythmia
ab
bc
bce
ace
2c
multi
null
Medicine
null
933a41db-85f1-43d1-b927-401479912774
Rani a 24-year-old woman presents to her gynaecologist as she has chronic hypothyroidism and wants to conceive now. Her hypothyroidism is well controlled at 75 microgram of Thyroxine. She doesn&;t smoke or drink and doesn&;t have any other medical ailment. She would like to know if she should keep taking her Thyroxin. Which of the following is the best advice to give to this patient?
Stop taking Thyroxine and switch to methimazole as we would like to control your baby's thyroid levels
Thyroxine is safe during pregnancy but it is not absolutely necessary during pregnancy to continue thyroxine.
Thyroxine is not safe during pregnancy and it is better for your baby to be hypothyroid than hypehyroid
Thyroxine is safe in pregnancy and the dose of thyroxine would be increased during pregnancy to avoid hypothyroidism, which may affect the baby adversely
3d
single
Hypothyroidism The woman is staed on 100microgm Thyroxine if she is not already on this hormone.The dose can then be increased in 2nd TM according to values noted.Once euthyroid thyroid function should be checked in each trimester.Following an adjustment of dosage the free thyroxine is checked after 4-6weeeks.The doses are adjusted until the TSH level is between .5 - 2.5 IU/ml.If the woman is already on thyroxine prior to pregnancy the dose will usually have to be increased by 25%as pregnancy is associated with an increase in thyroxine requirement. TEXTBOOK OF OBSTETRICS, SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN,Pg no:329,2nd edition
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy
0223b8d6-b6ea-4600-83fd-7e3c6b5f52ab
Acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis will have all of the following features, except ?
Microscopic haematuria
Raised blood urea level
Raised serum creatinine level
Hypoalbuminaemia
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hypo albuminaemiao Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is characterized by nephritic syndrome whereas hypoalbuminemia is a feature of Nephrotic syndrome.o Clinical features of Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
Pathology
null
ce99cfd7-1bba-4de0-81a5-6dcd65df8d9c
True about cephalic phase of gastric acid secretion-
Due to Gastrin
Accounts for 20% of output
Occurs when food is in stomach
Enterogastric reflex is invloved in secretion
1b
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Accounts for 20% of output "During the cephalic phase of gastric acid secretion, the sight, smell, or thought of food activates cholinergic (acetylcholine- releasing) vagal fibers, which stimulate the release of HCLfrom antral parietal cells"Phases of gastric acid secretion* There are following phases of gastric acid secretion : -1) The cephalic phase (Appetite phase):# Just as salivary secretion may start before food enters the mouth, gastric secretion is also intitiated before food enters the stomach. Sight, smell or even thought of food stimulate gastric acid secretion.# It is by parsympathetic system through vagus.# This phase accounts for 20% of acid secretion.2) The gastric phase :# This phase of acid secretion comes into play when food makes contact with the gastric mucosa.# Acid secretion in this phase is brought about two factors : -i) Hormonal stimulation due to gastrin releaseii) Stretch of stomach wall due to gastric distension which activates a vago-vagal reflex as well as a local intragastric reflex.# This phase accounts for 72-80% of acid secretion.3) The intestinal phase :# Once the food enters upper portion of small intestine (i.e., duodenum) it causes small amounts of gastric juice secretion because of gastrin released from dudenal mucosa.# While the intestinal phase play only a minor role in stimulation of gastric secretion, presence of food in the intestine plays a major role in its inhibition. With the entry of food into the duodenum, gastric secretion starts slowing down.# The presence of acid, fats, and products ofprotein digestion; and increased osmolarity in the duodenum inhibit gastric secretion by: -i) Hormonal mechanism: These mentioned stimuli cause the release of several intestinal hormones like secretin, cholecystokinin (CCK), vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP), gastric inhibitor polypeptide (GIP) and somatostatin. These local hormones inhibit the gastric secretion as well as gastric motility.ii) Neural mechanism (enterogastric reflex): The above mentioned stimuli inhibit gastric secretion and motility by intrinsic neural reflex.
Physiology
G.I.T.
bb3538b6-376f-40bf-9ad8-42e993db707e
Stain for the diagnosis of tuberculosis -
Auramine-rhadomine
India-ink
Geimsa stain
All
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Auramine-rhodamine
Microbiology
null
0cb0b37b-f13f-4d4f-951c-2df5e4275061
Which of the following method of protein separation is not dependent on molecular size ?
Gel filtration chromatography
Ultracentrifugation
Ion-exchange chromatography
SDS-PAGE
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ion-exchange chromatography
Biochemistry
null
beb6b37b-3275-4d77-95d2-8419cfd4d02e
Which of the following usually require a RNA intermediate for cloning/replication?
Transposons
Plasmids
Phages
Cosmids
0a
multi
A transposable element (TE or transposon) is a DNA sequence that can change its position within a genome, sometimes creating or reversing mutations and altering the cell&;s genome size. Transposition often results in duplication of the TE. Barbara McClintock&;s discovery of these jumping genes earned her a Nobel Prize in 1983. Transposable elements make up a large fraction of the genome and are responsible for much of the mass of DNA in a eukaryotic cell. It has been shown that TEs are impoant in genome function and evolution. In Oxytricha, which has a unique genetic system, these elements play a critical role in development. Transposons are also very useful to researchers as a means to alter DNA inside a living organism. There are at least two classes of TEs: Class I TEs or retrotransposons generally function reverse transcription, while Class II TEs or DNA transposons encode the protein transposase, which they require for inseion and excision, and some of these TEs also encode other proteinsRef: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transposable_element
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
501c7143-2635-45e9-a370-40d908dfd2ba
During cesarean section under general endotracheal anaesthesia, venous air embolism
Is associated with high end-tidal CO2
Should be treated with nitrous oxide
Is associated with expired nitrogen
Induces severe hypertension
2c
single
Expired Nitrogen is the most sensitive venous-air embolism detection method, as the largest component of air is nitrogen.
Anaesthesia
null
cd95b1b2-1e45-4854-8a7d-2e77825351b2
Night blindness is due to
Vitamin A
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B6
0a
single
null
Biochemistry
null
27f98eb9-41e4-4018-a16a-4753d5733811
Best drug for acute gout in a patient with renal impairment is:
Naproxen
Probenecid
Allopurinol
Sulfinpyrazone
0a
multi
Naproxen: The anti-inflammatory activity is stronger and it is particularly potent in inhibiting leucocyte migration - may be more valuable in acute gout: dose 750 mg stat followed by 250 mg 8 hourly till attack subsides. It is also recommended for rheumatoid arthritis and ankylosing spondylitis. Because of longer t ½ , regular use can effectively suppress platelet function. Gastric bleeding is more common than with ibuprofen. Naproxen carries lower thrombotic risk than diclofenac, etoricoxib, etc. Dose should be reduced in the elderly. Naproxen is marketed as active single S(-) enantiomer preparation, which poses less renal burden. However, some R(+) enantiomer is formed in vivo due to inversion. Uricosuric drugs like probenecid and sulfinpyrazone are ineffective in the presence of renal  insufficiency. Allopurinol is a drug of choice for most cases of chronic gout. Renal  impairment  increases  the  incidence  of rashes and other reactions to allopurinol. ​Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD  TRIPATHI  page no 217
Pharmacology
null
c242c478-523f-4f4c-a876-81cda9e35a3b
Flapping Tremors may be associated with all of the following, Except
Hepatic encephalopathy
Uremia
CO2 Narcosis
Thyrotoxicosis
3d
multi
Answer is D (Thyrotoxicosis) `Thyrotoxicosis (Hypehyroidism) is associated with rapid fine tremors and not flapping tremors (irregular coarse tremor) also called Asterixis. Asterexis (Flapping tremor) is most commonly seen in metabolic encephalopathies due to hepatic, renal (uremia) and respiratory failure (CO2 Nercosis). Causes of Asterixis /Flapping Tremor (Coarse irregular tremor) Typical Metabolic Encephalopathies Hepatic Encephalopathy Typically Metabolic Encephalopathies due to Uremic Encephalopathy hepatic, renal and respiratory failure are the Respiratory failure with CO2 Retention (CO2 Narcosis) most common causes. Other Metabolic Encephalopathies Hyperglycemia / Hypoglycemia Electrolyte Disturbances (Hypokalemia, Hypomagnesemia etc) Medication side Effects / Intrications Bromide intoxication Gabapentin / Pregabalin Phenytoin intoxication Valproate /Carbamazapine / Clozapine Chloral Hydrate intoxication Lithium / Levodopa Glutathemide intoxication Metrizamide / Ifbsfamide Intravenous ammonium chloride Gastrointestinal Disease Whipple's Disease Malbsorption syndrome / Idiopathic Steatorrhea Toxic Megacolon of Ulcerative Colitis Structural lesions Vascular Infarction / Haemorrhage (brainstem / intraventruculer) Subdural Empyema / hematoma Encephalitis Post-anoxic action myoclonus Brain tumors Post -surgical scars Miscellaneous Congestive Cardiac Failure Chronic Dialysis Septisemia
Medicine
null
ff78e421-87be-4809-9626-f8ab3005f923
Which of the following is not used in enterococcal infection?
Vancomycin
Linezolid
Teichoplanin
Cephalexin
3d
single
Ans: d (Cephalexin) Ref: Harrison, 16th ed, p. 830; Tripathi, 6th ed, p. 733Enterococci are resistant to all cephalosporins; therefore this class of antibiotics should not be used for treatment of enterococcal infections. Usual treatment for enterococci is combination of penicillin or ampicillin with an aminoglycoside. If patient is penicillin allergic, vancomycin can be used instead.Treatment options for anti biotic-resistant enterococcal infectionsResistance PatternBeta-Lactamase productionRecommended TherapyGentamicin plus ampicillin/sulbactam, amoxicillin/clavulanate, imipenem, or vancomycinBeta-Lactam resistance, but no beta-lactamase productionGentamicin plus vancomycinHigh-level gentamicin resistanceStreptomycin-sensitive isolate: Streptomycin plus ampicillin or vancomycinStreptomycin-resistant isolate; No proven therapy(continuous-infusion ampicillin, prolonged treatment)Vancomycin resistanceAmpicillin plus gentamicinVancomycin and beta-lactam resistanceNo uniformly bactericidal drugs; linezolid (all enterococci) or quinupristin/dalfopristin ( only)Linezolid is a member of the oxazolidinediones, a new class of synthetic antimicrobials.It is active against gram-positive organisms including staphylococci, streptococci, enterococci, gram-positive anaerobic cocci, and gram-positive rods such as corynebacteria and Listeria monocytogenes.It is primarily a bacteriostatic agent except for streptococci, for which it is bactericidal. The principal toxicity of linezolid is hematologic-reversible and generally mild.Thrombocytopenia is the most common manifestationNeutropenia may also occur, most commonly in patients with a predisposition to or underlying bone mairow suppression.Linezolid is 100% bioavailable after oral administrationLinezolid is approved for vancomycin-resistant E.faeciuminfections; nosocomial pneumonia; community- acquired pneumonia; and skin infections, complicated or uncomplicated. It should be reserved for treatment of infections caused by multidrug-resistant gram-positive bacteria.TEICOPLANINTeicoplanin is a glycopeptide antibiotic that is very similar to vancomycin in mechanism of action and antibacterial spectrum. It can be given intramuscularly as well as intravenously.Teicoplanin has a long half-life (45-70 hours), permitting once-daily dosing.It is indicated in enterococcal endocarditis, MRSA and penicillin resistant streptococcal infections, osteomyelitis, as alternative to vancomycin.
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
3e656ca4-0bb0-4f83-acbd-b0100b29854d
A male with azoospermia found to have normal FSH & testosteron levels & normal size testes. Probable cause is
Vas obstruction
Kaltman syndrome
Undescended testis
Klinefeltor's syndrome
0a
single
null
Surgery
null
b349b664-7fcb-44bb-a1ed-53c4d3f7a3a2
A 5 year lod child is assessed to have developmental age of one year. His developmental patient would be
100
80
20
60
2c
single
null
Pediatrics
null
32e20ffa-c3b7-4bb1-a29f-900df86ffa87
In essential hypeention changes seen in the hea are-
Cardiac cell hyperplasia
Cardiac cell hyperophy
increse in the mitochondrial number
Increase in size of mitochondria
1b
single
Essential hypeension tends to be familial and is likely to be the consequence of an interaction between environmental and genetic factors. The prevalence of essential hypeension increases with age, and individuals with relatively high blood pressures at younger ages are at increased risk for the subsequent development of hypeension.It is likely that essential hypeension represents a spectrum of disorders with different underlying pathophysiologies. In the majority of patients with established hypeension, peripheral resistance is increased and cardiac output is normal or decreased; however, in younger patients with mild or labile hypeension, cardiac output may be increased and peripheral resistance may be normal. When plasma renin activity (PRA) is plotted against 24-h sodium excretion, ~10-15% of hypeensive patients have high PRA and25% have low PRA. High-renin patients may have a vasoconstrictor form of hypeension, whereas low-renin patients may have volumedependent hypeension. Inconsistent associations between plasma aldosterone and blood pressure have been described in patients with essential hypeension.. ref:Harrison&;s principles of internal medicine,ed 18,pg no 2048
Medicine
C.V.S
42f67821-567d-464b-9ea9-c0f7153fd39c
Enteropathy type T cell lymphoma is associated with -
M.A.L. Toma
Celiac Sprue
Menetrier disease
Crohn's disease
1b
single
Answer- B. Celiac SprueEnteropathy-type- T cell lymphoma is a rare complication of long-standing celiac disease.
Medicine
null
88e2f2ea-0cdb-4d67-aa2f-7498d3f10bf7
Best way to control house fly
DDT
Pyretheum
Mosquito net
Climination of breading places
3d
single
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
6b706208-b85a-4712-9f78-12e48397b14b
Lemon sign is seen in :
Spina bifida
Anencephaly
Agenesis of corpus callosum
Cystic hygroma
0a
multi
Spina bifida is a defect in the neural arch,which results in exposure of the contents of the neural canal. Most of them are seen in lumbosacral region.They may be open and closed. Banana sign: Compression or flattening of the posterior cerebellar surface. Lemon sign: Concave deformity of the frontal bones. Both above banana sign and lemon sign seen in USG in open spina bifida. Anencephaly: Absence of calvarium. Spina bifida occulta: Veebral schisis covered by normal soft tissue. Spina bifida apea: Full thickness defect of the skin and veebral arches. Cystic hygroma: Fluid filled sac that results from the obstruction of Lymphatic system. Commonly located in the neck or head area but can be present anywhere in the body. Tear drop sign: Absence of Corpus callosum. Reference: DC Duttas Textbook of Obs, 9th edition,page no.602.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Fetus
8c164874-5d36-43ea-b3b9-ad25b23025ff
ELISA test when compraed to western blot technique is -
Less sensitive, less Specific
More sensitive, More specific
Less sensitive, more specific
More sensitive less psecific
3d
single
ELISA IS more specific and sensitivity than sothern blot REF:ANANTHANARAYANAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.579
Microbiology
Virology
22d96a83-7d93-48b1-a5ad-1267b752fdb4
Volume of an adult eyeball ls
5.5mL
6.5mL
7.5ml
8mL
1b
multi
Dimensions of an adult eyeball Anteroposterior diameter 24 mm Horizontal diameter 23.5 mm Veical diameter 23 mm Circumference 75 mm Volume 6.5 ml Weight 7 gm. Image : A schematic drawing to show some critical parameters including ocular rigidity, volume distributions and aqueous and blood flow in the normal eye. Reference :- A K KHURANA; pg num:-03
Ophthalmology
Anatomy, Development and clinical examination
524e941b-0c62-4f39-a17c-b1eddaa68e9c
ANCA positive vasculitis -
Henoch schonlein purpura
Behcet's syndrome
Wegener's granulomatosis
None
2c
multi
Ans. (c) Wegener's granulomatosis(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 507, Harrison 18thed p-2786-87)Option a and b are immune-mediated small-vessel systemic vasculitis. C-ANCA positive vasculitis
Pathology
Blood Vessels
69ccdb79-e727-44f1-965d-634dd62a0498
Physiological effect that is not produced by stimulation of Kappa opioid receptor is:
Sedation
Diuresis
Miosis
Constipation
3d
single
Ans. D. ConstipationBecause of the stimulation of u receptor constipation will occur. They can be found in the intestinal tract.This will be the cause of constipation i.e. a major side effect of u agonists, due to inhibition of peristaltic action.a. Sedationb. Analgesiac. Miosisd. Dysphoriae. DiuresisAmong the five related receptors the k-opioid receptor will bind opium-like compounds in the brain which are responsible for mediating the effects of these compounds.It effects includes altering the: -a. Moodb. Perception of painc. Consciousnessd. Motor control
Physiology
Misc.
f8381d37-bd3a-49b1-889c-3deac720e6ec
Commonest cause of convulsions in a child with Fever is ___________
Febrile convulsions
Meningitis
Epilepsy
Hypothyroidism
0a
single
Most commonly children with fever get convulsions and it is so called febrile convulsions. Febrile means feverish; any seizure or convulsion which is accompanied by fever is known as febrile seizure. The look of child during seizure seems life threatening (Child's whole body is shivering, shaking, twitching, eyes may roll up, there could be frothing from mouth and child may become unconscious) and it can be very frightening for parents. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
Pediatrics
Central Nervous system
673c3a3c-12e7-4759-8e32-04ed9283f73c
Which toxin acts by ADP ribosylation-
Botulinum toxin
Shiga toxin
V.cholerae toxin
All
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., V. cholerae toxin
Microbiology
null
3fe255b5-2297-44e0-8063-fbca1abb02b3
The most striking haematological finding in agranulocytosis is
Decreased absolute neutrophil count
Increased absolute easinophil count
Decreased absolute hasophil count
Increased absolute monocyte count
0a
single
null
Pathology
null
1b5d6555-cf5f-41e1-aa40-588b0a12ad3a
Which of the following is not associated with increase in the risk of seizures in future in a child with febrile seizures –
Developmental delay
Late age of onset
Complex partial seizures
Family history positive
1b
single
Risk factor for seizures in future (Risk factor for recurrence) Positive family history Atypical complex febrile convulsion Neurodevelopment retardation (MR, CP development delay). Early onset of febrile seizure (before 1 year) Focal features More than one seizures in the same day.
Pediatrics
null
dc55d836-9670-4e99-9691-0438c3278c67
All of the following comprise classical triad for congenital rubella syndrome, EXCEPT:
Sensory neural deafness
Cataract
Patent ductus aeriosus
Micrognathia
3d
multi
Congenital Rubella Syndrome - Risk of congenital defects is maximum before 11 weeks of gestation, C/F (Mnemonic: 'C D C') - Cataract - Deafness - Congenital hea disease (Most common is PDA) - IUGR - Microcephaly - Blue berry muffin lesions - Retinopathy - Most common manifestation of CRS: Sensineural deafness Late onset manifestations of CRS - Diabetes mellitus Thyroid dysfunction
Pediatrics
Paediatrics
840e5def-e87d-4703-8bd7-757ae8d16d8d
Vossius ring is seen in -
Diabetes Mellitus
Galactosemia
Blunt trauma
Retinoblastoma
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Blunt trauma DiseaseCataractMyotonic DystophyChristmas tree cataractWilson's disease, chalcosisSunflower cataractDM, Down's SyndromeSnowflake cataractAtopic dermatitisBlue dot cortical cataract, posterior subcapsular cataractCongenital rubellaNuclear cataractGalactosemiaOil drop cataractComplicated cataract (Iridocyclitis, High myopia)Posterior cortical breads's crumb appearance Polychromatic lusture / Rainbow cataractBlunt traumaVossius ring on anterior surface of lens Rosette shaped cataract
Ophthalmology
Ocular Trauma
a042274d-9a98-49ff-8fab-95536eb08b0c
Which of the following is not a secretory pa of kidney?
Collecting tubule
PCT
DCT
Loop of Henle
0a
single
The secretory poion of kidney is contained largely within the coex and consists of a renal corpuscle and the secretory pa of the renal tubule. The excretory poion of this duct lies in the medulla. The renal corpuscle is composed of the vascular glomerulus, which projects into Bowman's capsule, which, in turn, is continuous with the epithelium of the proximal convoluted tubule. The secretory poion of the renal tubule is made up of the proximal convoluted tubule, the loop of Henle, and the distal convoluted tubule. The excretory poion of the nephron is the collecting tubule, which is continuous with the distal end of the ascending limb of the convoluted tubule. It empties its contents through the tip (papilla) of a pyramid into a minor calyx. Ref: Butterwoh IV J.F., Mackey D.C., Wasnick J.D. (2013). Chapter 29. Renal Physiology & Anesthesia. In J.F. Butterwoh IV, D.C. Mackey, J.D. Wasnick (Eds), Morgan & Mikhail's Clinical Anesthesiology, 5e.
Physiology
null
59ce796c-c210-41e6-b9b0-6d2fdfa8b8ba
In emergency tracheostomy the followingstructures are damaged except:
Isthmus of the thyroid
Inferior thyroid aery
Thyroid ima
Inferior thyroid vein
1b
multi
Inferior thyroid aery Ref: Keith L Moore 5/e p1100]Isthmus, thyroid ima aery and inferior thyroid veins are midline structures and thus can be injured during tracheostomy, more so during emergency tracheostomy. Inferior thyroid aery, a branch of the thyrocervical trunk of the subclan aery lies laterally away from midline, thus can escape injury.In emergency tracheostomy following structures can be damaged:- Isthmus- Inferior thyroid veins- Thyroid ima aery- Left brachio-cephalic vein, jugular venous arch- Pleura (especially infants)- Thymus- Esophagus (the trachea is small, mobile, and soft in infants damage the esophagus)
Anatomy
null
9151a988-2c3f-4fe7-a919-8c7036d91db9
A 5-year-old child with watery diarrhea for 7 days, on examination, weight = 10 kg, hanging skin folds with normal skin pinch. The composition of sodium in the ORS should be -
75 meq/Lit
60 meq/Lit
45 meq/Lit
90 meq/Lit
2c
single
Ans- C 45 meq/Lit Ideal Na concentration for dehydration in severe malnutrition is 45 mmol/L Ref 1 - WHO recommendations Children who are under 5 years of age with severe acute malnutrition who present with some dehydration or severe dehydration but who are not shocked should be rehydrated slowly, either orally or by nasogastric tube, with either ReSoMal, or half-strength standard WHO low-osmolarity oral rehydration solution with added potassium and glucose* at a rate of 5-10 mL/kg/h, for up to a maximum of 12 hours, unless the child has cholera or profuse watery diarrhoea. Children suspected of having cholera or have profuse watery diarrhoea should be given standard WHO low-osmolarity oral rehydration solution that is normally made, i.e. not further diluted. * standard WHO low-osmolarity oral rehydration solution (75 mmol/L sodium) should not be used ************* This is a summary of one of several WHO recommendations on the management of SAM in infants and children. The full set of recommendations can be found in 'Full set of recommendations' and in the guidelines and guidance documents under 'WHO documents' below. Full set of recommendations Ref 2- Fluid management in children with severe malnutrition and dehydration without shock 1. Children with severe acute malnutrition who present with some dehydration or severe dehydration but who are not shocked should be rehydrated slowly, either orally or by nasogastric tube, using oral rehydration solution for malnourished children** (5-10 mL/kg/h up to a maximum of 12 h). 2. Full-strength, standard WHO low-osmolarity oral rehydration solution (75 mmol/L sodium) should not be used for oral or nasogastric rehydration in children with severe acute malnutrition who present with some dehydration or severe dehydration. Either ReSoMal*** or half-strength standard WHO low-osmolarity oral rehydration solution should be given, with added potassium and glucose, unless the child has cholera or profuse watery diarrhoea. Dissolve one sachet of standard WHO low-osmolarity oral rehydration solution in 2 L water (instead of 1 L). Add 1 level scoop of commercially available combined minerals and vitamins mix1 or 40 mL of mineral mix solution (5), and add and dissolve 50 g of sugar. In some countries, sachets are available that are designed to make 500 mL of standard WHO low-osmolarity oral rehydration solution. In this situation, dilution can be revised to add 1 L. 3. ReSoMal (or locally prepared ReSoMal using standard WHO low-osmolarity oral rehydration solution) should not be given if children are suspected of having cholera or have profuse watery diarrhoea.**** Such children should be given standard WHO low-osmolarity oral rehydration solution that is normally made, i.e. not further diluted. Additionally (2-6): children with severe acute malnutrition and who have some or severe dehydration but no shock should receive 5 mL/kg ReSoMal every 30 min for the first 2 h. Then, if the child is still dehydrated, 5-10 mL/kg/h ReSoMal should be given in alternate hours with F-75, up to a maximum of 10 h; signs of improved hydration status and overhydration should be checked every half hour for the first 2 h, then hourly; ReSoMal can either be prepared from a ready-to-dilute sachet (as per supplier's instructions) or prepared with one sachet of WHO low-osmolarity oral rehydration solution plus 2 L of water with an added 50 g sugar and 40 mL mineral mix or one level scoop of combined minerals and vitamins; zinc (10-20 mg per day) should be given to all children as soon as the duration and severity of the episodes of diarrhoea start to reduce, thereby reducing the risk of dehydration. By continuing supplemental zinc for 10-14 days, this will also reduce the risk of new episodes of diarrhoea in the following 2-3 months. (Note, WHO-recommended therapeutic foods already contain adequate zinc, and children with severe acute malnutrition receiving F-75, F-100 or ready-to-use therapeutic food should not therefore receive additional zinc). Fluid management of children with severe acute malnutrition and shock 4. Children with severe acute malnutrition and signs of shock or severe dehydration and who cannot be rehydrated orally or by nasogastric tube should be treated with intravenous fluids, either: half-strength Darrow's solution with 5% dextrose, or Ringer's lactate solution with 5% dextrose. If neither is available, 0.45% saline + 5% dextrose should be used. Additionally (2-6): the general principles of resuscitation, in particular providing oxygen and improving breathing, similarly apply to children with severe acute malnutrition; the only indication for intravenous infusion in a child with severe acute malnutrition is circulatory collapse caused by severe dehydration or septic shock when the child is lethargic or unconscious (excluding cardiogenic shock); all children with severe acute malnutrition with signs of shock with lethargy or unconsciousness should be treated for septic shock. This includes especially children with signs of dehydration but no history of watery diarrhoea, children with hypothermia or hypoglycaemia, and children with both oedema and signs of dehydration; in case of shock with lethargy or unconsciousness, intravenous rehydration should begin immediately, using 15 mL/kg/h of one of the recommended fluids; it is important that the child is carefully monitored every 5-10 min for signs of overhydration and signs of congestive heart failure. If signs of overhydration and congestive heart failure develop, intravenous therapy should be stopped immediately; if a child with severe acute malnutrition presenting with shock does not improve after 1 h of intravenous therapy, a blood transfusion (10 mL/kg slowly over at least 3 h) should be given; children with severe acute malnutrition should be given blood if they present with severe anaemia, i.e. Hb <4 g or > 6g with signs of respiratory distress blood transfusions should only be given to children with severe acute malnutrition within the first 24 h of admission. * This is an extract from relevant guidelines and guidance documents as listed in 'References'. Additional guidance information can be found in these documents. ** A specific electrolyte-micronutrient product formulated according to WHO specifications for use in the management of children with severe acute malnutrition. *** ReSoMal is a powder for the preparation of an oral rehydration solution exclusively for oral or nasogastric rehydration of people suffering from severe acute malnutrition. It must be used exclusively under medical supervision in inpatient care, and must not be given for free use to the mother or caregiver. **** Three or more loose or watery stools in a day, for more than 14 days. References 1. WHO. Guideline: Updates on the management of severe acute malnutrition in infants and children. Geneva, World Health Organization; 2013 ( style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> infantandchildren/en/). 2. WHO. Management of severe malnutrition: a manual for physicians and other senior health workers. Geneva, World Health Organization; 1999 ( 3. WHO. Training course on the management of severe malnutrition. Geneva, World Health Organization; 2002 (updated 2009)( 4. WHO. Diarrhoea treatment guidelines including new recommendations for the use of ORS and zinc supplementation for clinic-based healthcare workers. Geneva, World Health Organization; 2005 ( 5. WHO. The treatment of diarrhoea: manual for physicians and other senior health workers. Geneva, World Health Organization; 2005 ( 6. WHO. Pocket book of hospital care for children: second edition. Guidelines for the management of common illnesses with limited resources. Geneva, World Health Organization; 2013 (
Unknown
null
eef246a0-3599-4401-920e-270630bd45e9
Thermally dimorphic fungus is all except:
Coccidioidomycosis
Blastomycosis
Candida
Histoplasmosis
2c
multi
Ans. C. CandidaDimorphic fungi:Have yeast form in host & in vitro at 37degon enriched media and hyphal (mycelial) form in vitro (25degC) e.g.1. Histoplasma capsulatum2. Coccioidesimmitis3. Paracoccidioides Brasiliensis4. Blastomyces dermatitidis5. Sporothrixschenckii6. Penicillium marneffi
Microbiology
Mycology
01096a74-12b5-4977-b0d1-d59fd12911fc
Not a branch of celiac trunk
Left gastric artery
Common hepatic artery
Superior mesenteric artery
Splenic artery
2c
single
(C) Superior mesenteric artery # SUPERIOR MESENTERIC ARTERY (SMA) arises from the anterior surface of the abdominal aorta, just inferior to the origin of the celiac trunk, and supplies the intestine from the lower part of the duodenum through two-thirds of the transverse colon, as well as the pancreas.> The coeliac trunk is the first anterior branch and arises just below the aortic hiatus at the level of T12/L1 vertebral bodies.> It divides into the left gastric, common hepatic and splenic arteries. The coeliac trunk may also give off one or both of the inferior phrenic arteries.
Anatomy
Misc.
dc335767-d7f6-4eff-9f5c-423d97d76392
1st drug to be used in absence seizures:
Phenytoin
BZD
Valproate
Carbamazepine
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Valproate Choice of antiepileptic drugs (adults) Seizure typeInitial choiceSecond lineTonic-clonicPhenytoin,Carbamazepine,ValproateLamotrigine,OxcarbazepineMyoclonicPartialValproateCarbamazepine,PhenytoinLamotrigineValproate,Lamotrigine,OxcarbazepineAbsenceValproateEthosuximide,LamotrigineUnclassifiableValproateLamotriginePAEDIATRICS
Medicine
Seizures and Epilepsy
7eac98b8-3529-44bc-95c3-9d84bea1a878
What is net production rate?
Number of children a newborn girl has in her life time
Number of female children a newborn girl has in her life time
Number of male children a newborn girl has in her life time
Number of female children a newborn girl has in her life time taking into account the moality
3d
single
Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) is defined as the number of daughters a newborn girl will bear during her lifetime assuming fixed age-specific feility and moality rates. NRR is a demographic indicator. NRR of 1 is equivalent to attaining approximately the 2-child norm. If the NRR is less than 1, then the reproductive performance of the population is said to be below replacement level. Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 540
Social & Preventive Medicine
Demography and family planning
3d399096-68bc-4d38-a439-0a3010791378
Most common differential diagnosis for appendicitis in children is
Gastroenteritis
Mesentric lymphadenopathy
Intussusception
Meckel's diveiculitis
1b
single
Differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis in children Gastroenteritis Mesenteric adenitis Meckel's diveiculitis Intussusception Henoch-Schonlein purpura Lobar pneumonia Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1209
Surgery
G.I.T
fa214456-a770-4005-bef8-d72c0a78d884
Drug distribution is inversely propoional to
Plasma protein binding
Lipid Solubility
fat layer in the body
structure of drug
0a
single
The extent of distribution of a drug depends on its lipid solubility, ionization at physiological pH, the extent of binding to plasma and tissue proteins, differences in regional blood flow. If PPB is high VD is low, PPB is inversly propoional to vd drugs with low vd usually have high ppb ref; KD Tripathi pharmacology 6th edition (page no;18)
Pharmacology
General pharmacology
5ee18f01-eb03-4ee3-ba10-4249ed48192d
After head injury, biconvex, lenticular shape hematoma in CT scan is characterstic of which of the following ?
Extradural haemorrhage
Subdural haemorrhage
Intracerebral hematoma
Diffuse-axonal injury
0a
single
Ans is 'a' ie Extradural haemorrhage CT scan (non-contrast) is the best diagnostic method to evaluate a head injury pt. (better than MRI) On CT scan ? Extradural haemorrhage appears as biconvex lentiform opacity. Subdural haemorrhage appears as concavoconvex crescentic opacity. Intracerebral blood appears on small foci, typically at grey/white matter interface, or more centrally in the white matter.
Surgery
null
369246f8-0698-4ab3-8556-01b89dacad02
True statements regarding octreotide are all of the following except:-
It is a somatostatin analogue
It is used for treatment of oesophageal variceal bleeding
It is contraindicated in acromegaly
It is useful in secretory diarrhea
2c
multi
Octreotide is a somatostatin analogue having high potency and long duration of action. It is indicated for the management of: Acromegaly Islet cell tumors Bleeding due to esophageal varices Secretory diarrhea
Pharmacology
Pituitary-Hypothalmic System and Thyroid
0f3bfa5a-9e64-438b-bd93-c4270ed6a49a
A 40 year old male, with history of daily alcohol consumption for the last 7 years, is brought to the hospital emergency room with acute onsent of seeing snakes all around him in the room, not recognizing family members, violent behavior and tremulousness for few hours. There is history of his having missed the alcohol drink since 2 days. Examination reveals increased blood pressure, tremors, increased psychomotor activity, fearful affect, hallucinatory behaviour, disorientation, impaired judgement and insight. He is most likely to be suffering from-
Alcoholic hallucinosis
Delirium tremens
Wernicke encephalopathy
Korsakoff's psychosis
1b
multi
This person is having symptoms of delirium after alcohol withdrawal → delirium tremens.
Psychiatry
null
ce306e2a-e5df-4052-b4c3-62b608db21aa
Effects of hypokalemia-
Acidosis
Arrhythmia
Ileus of intestine
Polyuria
0a
single
* The functional effects of hypokalemia on the kidney can include Na+-Cl- and HCO3- retention, polyuria, phosphaturia, hypocitraturia, and an activation of renal ammoniagenesis. Bicarbonate retention and other acid-base effects of hypokalemia can contribute to the generation of metabolic alkalosis * Hypokalemia is a major risk factor for both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias * Hypokalemia also results in hyperpolarization of skeletal muscle ,thus impairing the capacity to depolarize and contract; weakness and even paralysis may ensue. It also causes a skeletal myopathy and predisposes to rhabdomyolysis. Finally, the paralytic effects of hypokalemia on intestinal smooth muscle may cause intestinal ileus. (REF : harrisons principles of internal medicine, 19E, pg 308)
Medicine
Fluid and electrolytes
f7deac82-a2b3-4739-bc5e-7b6a86107d33
The sequestrated lobe of the lung is commonly supplied by-
Pulmonary artery
Intercostal artery
Descending aorta
Bronchial artery
2c
single
Pulmonary sequestration Pulmonary sequestration refers to the presence of a discrete mass of lung tissue without any normal connection to the airway system. Blood supply to the sequestered area arises not from the pulmonary arteries but from the aorta or its branches. Sequestration may be of two types - Extralobar sequestration → Sequestrations are external to the lung and may be found anywhere in the thorax or mediastinum. Most commonly they are associated with other congenital anomalies. Intralobar sequestration → Found within the lung substance and are usually associated with recurrent localized infection or bronchiectasis.
Pathology
null
1fe99299-d586-46a5-93c1-ba10b7bf5556
What is the recommended daily energy requirement in a 15 kg child
1500 KCal
1000 KCal
1250 KCal
1400 KCal
2c
single
Body weight Recommended daily energy requirement < 10 Kg 100 KCal / kg 10 - 20 kg 1000 KCal + 50 Kcal / Kg for each kg above 10 Kg > 20 Kg 1500 KCal + 20 KCal / Kg for each kg above 20 kg ∴ 15 kg child  = 1000 KCal + 50 X 5 = 1250 KCal.
Pediatrics
null
eda638ee-f543-43cd-b8b4-82e24b1eb7f9
Amongst the following, which carries the least chance of transmitting HIV infection: September 2010
Heterosexual Intercourse
Blood transfusion
Veical transmission
IV drug abusers
0a
single
Ans. A: Heterosexual Intercourse. Heterosexual Intercourse is the most common route but the chance of infection is less (0.30%) ,looking to the other options. Average per act risk of getting HIVby exposure route to an infected source Exposure routeChance of infection Blood transfusion 90% Childbih (to child) 25% Needle-sharing injection drug use 0.67% Percutaneous needle stick 0.30% Receptive anal intercourse* 0.04-3.0% Inseive anal intercourse* 0.03% Receptive penile-vaginal intercourse* 0.05-0.30% Inseive penile-vaginal intercourse* 0.01-0.38% Receptive oral intercourse*SS 0-0.04% Inseive oral intercourse*SS 0-0.005% * assuming no condom useSS source refers to oral intercourseperformed on a man Most commonly, people get or transmit HIV through sexual behaviors and needle or syringe use. MC mode of transmission: Hetero-sexual In hetero-sexual transmission: Male to female is commoner (as compared to female to male) Chances of transmission with accidental needle prick: 0.3%. Less commonly, HIV may be spread From mother to child during pregnancy, bih, or breastfeeding. Although the risk can be high if a mother is living with HIV and not taking medicine, recommendations to test all pregnant women for HIV and sta HIV treatment immediately have lowered the number of babies who are born with HIV. In extremely rare cases, HIV has been transmitted by Oral sex--putting the mouth on the penis (fellatio), vagina (cunnilingus), or anus (rimming). In general, there's little to no risk of getting HIV from oral sex. Receiving blood transfusions, blood products, or organ/tissue transplants that are contaminated with HIV. This was more common in the early years of HIV, but now the risk is extremely small because of rigorous testing of the blood supply and donated organs and tissues. Eating food that has been pre-chewed by an HIV-infected person. The contamination occurs when infected blood from a caregiver's mouth mixes with food while chewing. The only known cases are among infants. Being bitten by a person with HIV. Each of the very small number of documented cases has involved severe trauma with extensive tissue damage and the presence of blood. There is no risk of transmission if the skin is not broken. Contact between broken skin, wounds, or mucous membranes and HIV-infected blood or blood-contaminated body fluids. Deep, open-mouth kissing if both paners have sores or bleeding gums and blood from the HIV-positive paner gets into the bloodstream of the HIV-negative paner. HIV is not spread through saliva.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
08879f4c-5a97-4fd0-a0fb-b185cd3ff25e
A 31-year-old man with AIDS complains of difficulty in swallowing. Examination of his oral cavity demonstrates whitish membranes covering much of his tongue and palate. Endoscopy also reveals several whitish, ulcerated lesions in the esophagus. These pathologic findings are fundamentally caused by loss of which of the following immune cells in this patient?
B lymphocytes
Helper T lymphocytes
Killer T lymphocytes
Monocytes/macrophages
1b
multi
The fundamental lesion in such case is infection of CD4+ (helper) T lymphocytes There is depletion of this cell population and impaired immune function. As a result, patients with AIDS usually die of oppounistic infections. HIV does infect the monocyte/macrophage lineage (choice D), but infected cells exhibit little if any cytotoxicity. Diagnosis: AIDS
Pathology
Immunity disorders
7d7c3b53-7726-4dbd-b8ef-111058a925cd
"Induseum Griseum" is a thin layer of grey matter in proximity to the corpus callosum. How is it related to it?
Lateral to the corpus callosum
Dorsal to the corpus callosum
Ventral to the corpus callosum
Medial to the corpus callosum
1b
multi
The convex superior pa of corpus callosum(dorsal) is covered by a thin layer of grey matter, the indusium griseum, embedded in which are the fibre bundles of bilateral medial and lateral longitudinal striae.Superiorly, it is also related to anterior cerebral vessels and cingulate gyrus.Ventrally, it is attached with the convex superior aspect of fornix by septum pellucidum. It is also related to lateral ventricle.(Ref: Vishram Singh textbook of clinical neuroanatomy, second edition pg 164, fig14.4)
Anatomy
Brain
5d1b4888-54f3-42a6-b49f-75820d818683
Which of the following is not a branch of Cavernous segment of Internal Carotid aery?
Cavernous Branch
Inferior Hypophyseal Branch
Meningeal branch
Ophthalmic branch
3d
single
The ophthalmic aery (OA) is the first branch of the internal carotid aery distal to the cavernous sinus. Branches of the OA supply all the structures in the orbit as well as some structures in the nose, face, and meninges. Occlusion of the OA or its branches can produce sight-threatening conditions.
Anatomy
Head and neck
888fa7cd-b0eb-4861-b83f-05ca09ed9293
Consider the following statementI Experimental hypertension can be produced to stimulating sinoaortic nerveII Sino-aortic nerve normally stimulates vasomotor centre Of these statements
I is true but II is false
Both I and II are true
I is false but II are true
Both I and II are false
0a
multi
(A) I is true but II is false Stimulation of the noradrenergic nerves to the intestine inhibits contractions in vivo.> Norepinephrine exerts both a & ft actions on the muscle> The b action, reduced muscle tension in response to excitation, is mediated via cyclic AMP and is probably due to increase: tracellular binding of Ca2+.> The a action, which is also inhibition of contraction, is associated with increased Ca2+ efflux from the muscle cells.
Physiology
Nervous System
f7d102c2-f044-41a1-aebf-025a4fab6a93
The following graph shows a relation between lung volume and intrapleural pressure changes during inspiration & expiration. What is the most likely cause
Due to difference in active and passive work during respiration
Due to difference in surfactant during inspiration and expiration
Due to difference in airway resistance during inspiration and expiration
Due to difference in intrapleural pressure
1b
single
"The pressure volume curve of the lung is not the same in inspiration and exhalation. This difference is called hysteresis, and it is caused by the action of surfactant" The compliance is higher during expiration than during inspiration The difference between the inflation and the deflation paths-hysteresis- exists because a greater transpulmonary pressure is required to open a previously closed airway The alveolar environment, and specifically the secreted factors that help reduce surface tension and keep alveoli from collapsing, contribute to hysteresis.
Physiology
Respiratory System
5c94af56-0a5e-4cb4-960f-ed2d7fda4f8d
In JVP y descent is absent and X wave is prominent? Thiscsuggests:
Restictive cardiomyopathy
Cardiac tamponade
Constrictive pericarditis
Right Ventricular Failure
1b
single
Ans. (b) Cardiac tamponadeRef.: Harrison 19th ed. /1573JVP FindingsJVP WavesFindingsConstrictive pericarditisFindingsCardiac tamponadeX waveProminentProminentY waveProminentAbsent
Medicine
C.V.S.
1e70ac37-84ed-40cc-bc26-bd491d3611be
The most reliable criteria in Guastafson method of age estimation is -
Attrition
Secondary dentin deposition
Transparency of root
Cementum apposition
2c
single
Transparency of root is the most reliable criterion in Gustafson's method.
Forensic Medicine
null
ad3a4e92-2202-46a8-b660-f6c6fe77b79a
Who described that P. intermedia is responsible for pregnancy gingivitis?
Loesche
Kornman
Both
None
2c
multi
Kornman and Loesche reported that the subgingival flora changes to a more anaerobic flora as pregnancy progresses; the only microorganism that increases significantly during pregnancy is P. intermedia.
Dental
null
4830ed03-acad-4267-8493-d4b9c1505636
Shohl's solution is -
Sodium citrate
Potassium binding resin
Lugol iodine
Radio-iodine
0a
single
Answer- A. Sodium citrateSodium citrate (Shohl's solution) or NaHCO: tablets (650-mg tablets contain 7.8 mEq) are equally effective alkalinizing salts.Citrate enhances the absorption of aluminum from the gastrointestinal tract and should never be ginen together with aluminum containing antacids because of the risk of aluminum intoxication.
Medicine
null
b661b66b-2ad2-40c5-ab90-65e2bcb16e03
A woman comes in obstructed labour and is grossly dehydrated. Investigations reveal fetal demise. What will be the MOST appropriate management in this patient?
Craniotomy
Decapitation
Cesarean section
Forceps extraction
2c
single
In cases of fetal demise, delivery is the best treatment due to the risk of DIC from retained IUFD. Since this patient is in obstructed labor and is grossly dehydrated, Caesarean section is the treatment of choice. Before 20 weeks of gestation the products are evacuated from the uterus by dilation and evacuation or with mifepristone and misoprostol in some cases. After 20 weeks pregnancy is usually terminated by induction of labor with prostaglandins or high dose oxytocin. Intrauterine fetal demise refers to fetal death after 20 weeks of gestation. Signs: absence of fetal hea tones at a prenatal visit beyond 20 weeks of gestation and absence of uterine growth. Lab: Declining levels of HCG may aid in diagnosis early in pregnancy. Investigation: Ultrasound shows absent fetal cardiac activity beyond 6 weeks of gestation, scalp edema, and fetal maceration. Ref: Blueprints Obstetrics and Gynecology By Tamara Callahan page 101. Manual Of Obstretics, 3/e By Daftary page 324
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
ef0931a2-e322-4cb0-b3ca-19ac74f090e0
Fascia around the nerve bundles of brachial plexus is derived from-
Deep cervical fascia
Pretracheal fascia
Prelaryngeal fascia
None
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Deep cervical fascia * The axillary sheath is a fibrous sheath that encloses the first portion of the axillary artery, together with the brachial plexus. The axillary vein lies entirely outside the sheath It is an extension of the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.* A brachial plexus nerve block can be achieved by injecting anaesthetic into this area.
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
55e8cb62-17bd-4d1d-b23e-ed49342e560c
Which of the following is known to be severely pruritic?
Lichen planus
Psoriasis
Icthyosis
Secondary syphilis
0a
single
Purple polygonal papules marked by severe pruritus; lacy white markings, especially associated with mucous membrane lesions is feature of lichen planus. Psoriasis is variably pruritic. Icthyosis: characterised by severe dryness, fish like scales. There are 5 P in Lichen Planus:Plain, Purple, Polygonal, Pruritic, Papule/ Plague
Dental
Lichen planus and Other papulosquamous disorders
111a84e0-a7ac-4b5e-9405-66543c44f9cf
Cyanosis does not occur in severe anemia because:
Hypoxia stimulates erythropoietin production
Oxygen carrying capacity of available Hb is increased
Critica concentration of Hb required to produce cyanosis is reduced
Oxygen Hemoglobin curve shift to the right
2c
single
C i.e. Critica concentration of H required to produce cyanosis is reduced
Physiology
null
5728205d-8664-4de4-89cf-0652cf549245
Information obtained by lateral plate X-ray pelvimetry are all except:
Sacral curve
True conjugate
Bispinous diameter
Inclination of the pelvis
2c
multi
Bispinous diameter can be measured by anteroposterior view and not on lateral view of X-ray pelvimetry. X-ray pelvimetry is of limited value in the diagnosis of pelvic contraction or cephalopelvic disproportion. Apart from pelvic capacity there are several other factors involved in successful vaginal delivery. These are the fetal size, presentation, position and the force of uterine contractions. X-ray pelvimetry cannot assess the other factors. It cannot reliably predict the likelihood of vaginal delivery neither in breech presentation nor in cases with previous cesarean section. X-ray pelvimetry is useful in cases with fractured pelvis and for the important diameters which are inaccessible to clinical examination. Techniques: For complete evaluation of the pelvis, three views are taken — anteroposterior, lateral and outlet. But commonly, X-ray pelvimetry is restricted to only the erect lateral view (the femoral head and acetabular margins must be superimposed) which gives most of the useful information. Anteroposterior view can give the accurate measurement of the transverse diameter of the inlet and bispinous diameter. Hazards of X-ray pelvimetry includes radiation exposure to the mother and the fetus. With conventional X-ray pelvimetry radiation exposure to the gonads is about 885 millirad. So it is restricted to selected cases only.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null