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135
b8e4227e-d666-4706-8046-ea13f4a9465c
Vector for Kala-azar -
Flea
Tsetse fly
Sand fly
Tick
2c
single
Sandflies of genera Phlebotomus act as intermediate host for Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar). Human and other vertebrates act as definitive host.
Microbiology
null
34085169-08ac-4ce8-a4ed-3c8101be87ad
Which enzyme is not present in muscles?
Phosphorylase b
Hexokinase
Glucose-6-phosphatase
Glycogen synthase
2c
single
Ans. C. Glucose-6-phosphataseMuscle Glycogen function is for muscle contraction. So, when muscle glycogenolysis ends, it ends with glucose-6- phosphate. So that this glucose 6 - Phosphates can directly enter into glycolysis for giving energy for muscle contraction. So therefore, glucose - 6 - phosphatase enzyme is absent in muscles. So that glucose - 6 - Phosphates is the end product of muscle glycogenolysis.
Biochemistry
Carbohydrates
96cb625b-3946-4711-b8e5-f4a2422148dd
Which of the following is teratogenic: March 2011
Folate
Cyanocobalamin
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
2c
single
Ans. C: Vitamin APharmacological doses of vitamin A are teratogenic and in pregnancy the daily dose must not exceed 6000-8000 IU.Synthetic analogues of vitamin A:TretinoinIsotretinoinEtretinateAcetretinTeratogenic drugsDrugs and medications:- Tobacco Caffeine- Drinking alcohol (ethanol) (fetal alcohol spectrum disorder),- Isotretinoin (13-cis-retinoic acid)- Temazepam- Nitrazepam- Aminopterin or methotrexate- Androgenic hormones Busulfan- Captopril, enalapril- Coumarin- Cyclophosphamide- Diethylstilbestrol-Phenytoin (diphenylhydantoin)Lithium- Methimazole- Penicillamine- Tetracyclines- Thalidomide- Trimethadione- Flusilazole- Valproic acidEnvironmental chemicals:- Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbons)- Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)- Polychlorinated dibenzodioxins a.k.a dioxin,- Organic mercuryIonizing radiation:- Atomic weapons fallout (Iodine-131, uranium)- Background radiationDiagnostic x-rays- Radiation therapyInfections:- Cytomegalovirus- Herpes virus- Parvovirus B19- Rubella virus (German measles)- Syphilis- Toxoplasmosis An easy way to remember maternal infections is TORCH: Toxoplasmosis, Other agents, Rubella, CMV and HSV.Metabolic imbalance:- Alcoholism Diabetes- Folic acid deficiency- Iodine deficiency- Hypehermia
Pharmacology
null
6c6f989a-9f8b-4768-a61f-06c04348e472
Spalding 'sign' occurs because of:
Mummification
Maceration
Hanging
Drowning
1b
single
Spalding sign occur due to intrauterine maceration. Spalding sign is a radiological sign which indicates the overlapping of skull bones. Overlapping of skull bones occur due to shrinkage of cerebrum and due to violent contractions of the uterus in an attempt to expel the dead fetus. Characteristic features of intrauterine maceration are: Dead body will be soft, flaccid, edematous, and flattened, when placed on flat surface it will remain straight and flat without showing the normal curvatures. Coppery red or flesh like or brownish red in colour. Emits a sweet but disagreeable smell. Serous cavities will contain turbid reddish fluid. Body surface presents with large blebs resembling pemphigus containing red serous or serosanguinous fluid. Evidence of Spalding's sign. Ref: Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By R.N. Karmakar page 25.
Forensic Medicine
null
cacc0b35-0ce9-45d1-aeb4-8a39a4d0f08d
Which of the following is a method of breaking bad news: March 2009
Burst
Spread
Spike
Dive
2c
single
Ans. C: SpikeSpikes is the procedure for disclosing unorable information -- "breaking bad news" -- to cancer patients about their illness.The protocol (SPIKES) consists of six steps.The goal is to enable the clinician to fulfill the four most impoant objectives of the interview disclosing bad news: gathering information from the patient, transmitting the medical information, providing suppo to the patient, and eliciting the patient's collaboration in developing a strategy or treatment plan for the future.Oncologists, oncology trainees, and medical students who have been taught the protocol have repoed increased confidence in their ability to disclose unorable medical information to patients.
Psychiatry
null
9c10fecb-1293-44bd-b767-074623f26c40
Parkinosn's disease results from a lesion in the
Striatum
Pituitary
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
0a
single
(A) Striatum Chorea is characterized by rapid, involuntary dancing movements.> Athetosis: Continuous, slow, writhing movements is due to globus pallidus lesion> Hemiballismus: A lesion in subthalamus often leads to sudden flailing movements of an entire limb, a condition called hemiballismus.> Parkinson's disease: Lesions of the substantia nigra leads to the Parkinsonism.
Physiology
Nervous System
2dbde0cb-cd4f-40ca-90cd-5e6727503c2e
The best technique useful for initial viral load estimation is
Real time PCR
Widal test
Electrophoresis
Immunofluoresence
0a
single
null
Biochemistry
null
66321d24-88da-468e-8066-3766001b51e4
Best treatment of subdural haemotoma in a deteriorating patient-
By UV Mannitol
Oxygenation
Use of steroids
Surgical evacuation
3d
single
null
Surgery
null
e252593f-5e8c-43f6-a058-e7cae1efd536
The pathogenesis of acute proliferativeglomerulonephritis ?
Cytotoxic T-cell mediated
Immune complex mediated
Antibody mediated
Cell-mediated (Typer IV)
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Immune complex mediated
Pathology
null
106eb9c4-0454-4609-9384-2b4e94a53660
Establishment of fetoplacental circulation seen at-
11 to 13 days
20 to 22 days
7 days
25 to 26 days
1b
single
Impoant Events Following Feilization 0' hour Feilization (day-15 from LMP) 30 hours 2 cell stage (blastomeres) 40-50 hours 4 cell stage 72 hours 12 cell stage 96 hours 16 cell stage. Morula enters the uterine cavity 5th day Blastocyst 4-5th day Zona pellucida disappears 5-6th day Blastocyst attachment to endometrial surface 6-7th day Differentiation of cyto and syncytiotrophoblast layers 10th day Synthesis of hCG by syncytiotrophoblast 9-10th day Lacunar network forms 10-11th day * Trophoblasts invade endometrial sinusoids establishing uteroplacental circulation * Interstitial implantation completed with entire decidual coverage REF : DUTTA BOOK OF OBESTETRICS
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
All India exam
0d557a07-3c99-4817-8d2f-2e1d7917043c
True of consonguineous marriges and genetic abnormalities are all except?
Increased risk of traits controlled by dominant genes
Increased risk of prenature death
Phenylketonuria is an example
Lowering of consanguineous marriges will improve community health
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Increased risk of traits controlled by dominant genesConsanguineous marriages: When blood relatives marry each other there is an increased risk in the offspring of traits controlled by recessive genes, and those determined by polygenes.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
61e1f836-d2d2-405c-926f-6e1d258e5976
Exposure keratopathy is due to involvement of which cranial nerve: March 2012
4th cranial nerve
5th cranial nerve
6th cranial nerve
7th cranial nerve
3d
single
Ans: D i.e. 7th cranial nerve Exposure keratopathy is due to any cause which may produce exposure of the cornea due to incomplete closure of the eyelids (lagophthalmos), such as extreme proptosis as in exophthalmic ophthalmoplegia or orbital tumour, paralysis of the orbicularis (neuroparalytic keratopathy etc.) Keratopathy Neurotrophic keratopathy (desquamation of corneal epithelium) occurs in some cases in which trigeminal nerve is paralyzed Neuroparalytic keratopathy is seen in facial nerve palsy as occurs in Bell's palsy, leprosy or neurological disorders leading to ectropion, lagophthalmos & exposure keratopathy
Ophthalmology
null
61f118c2-ffdf-4c28-8a4a-08bd530eb79d
An 8 year old boy with a history of fall from 10 feet height complains of pain in the right ankle. X-ray taken at that time are normal without any fracture line. But after 2 years, he developed a calcaneovalgus deformity. The diagnosis is:
Undiagnosed malunited fracture
Avascular necrosis talus
Tibial epiphyseal injury
Ligamentous injury of ankle joint
2c
multi
Epiphysial fractures are more common than ligamentous injuries in children since the ligaments of the joints are generally stronger than their associated growth plates. Fractures across the growth plate may produce bony bridges that will cause premature cessation of growth or angular deformities of the extremity. These bridges are due to the trauma to the growth plate and can occur even with adequate reductions. Epiphysial fractures around the shoulder, wrist, and fingers can usually be treated by closed reduction, but fractures of the epiphyses around the elbow often require open reduction. In the lower extremity, accurate reduction of the epiphysial plate is necessary to prevent joint deformity when a joint surface is involved. If angular deformities result, corrective osteotomy may be necessary. Ref: Erickson M.A., Merritt C., Polousky J.D. (2012). Chapter 26. Ohopedics. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e.
Surgery
null
9876c144-d082-4d72-b3ac-dc9a3c29e626
Motor supply to the muscles of the tongue is by:
Hypoglossal nerve
Facial nerve
Lingual nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
0a
single
All the intrinsic and the extrinsic muscles, except the palatoglossus are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve. The palatoglossus is supplied by the cranial root of the accessory nerve through the pharyngeal plexus Lingual nerve is the nerve of general sensation and the chorda tympani is the nerve of taste for the anterior two thirds of the tongue except vallate papillae
Anatomy
null
08f1557d-a1ac-4424-9b0b-0d5928fd5905
A 20-year-old woman presents with bilateral conductive deafness, palpable purpura on the legs and hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a thin-walled cavity in left lower zone. Investigations reveal total leukocyte count 12,000/mm red cell casts in the urine and 12,000/mm serum creatinine 3 ing/dL. What is the most probable diagnosis ?
Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Polyarteritis nodosa
Wegener's granulomatosis
Disseminated tuberculosis
2c
multi
null
Medicine
null
786921b8-a941-4eb0-8c38-ebbf097c2bf9
Which of the following is not a feature of RPGN?
Oliguria
Edema
Hypeension
Rapid recovery
3d
single
Patients with RPGN presents with features of glomerulonephritis such as hematuria, edema and hypeension in association with a rapidly progressive loss of renal function. When untreated these patients rapidly develop end stage renal disease and death can occur within weeks to months. Reference: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 6th Edition, Page 951
Medicine
null
c67fcdc6-6045-4aec-90ae-82743ebceea0
Composition of Hyaluronic acid
N-acetyl glucosamine + b glucosamine acid
N-acetyl glucosamine + b-glucoraunic acid
N-acetyl glucosamine + sulfated glucosamine acid
N-acetyl glucosamine + iduranic acid
1b
single
Composition of hyaluronic acid: repeating units of N-Acetyl-glucosamine and beta-1,4-Glucuronic acid.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 80
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
605350cd-6e2d-4c38-b0ab-17abed8105c9
A man presented with difficulty walking and urinary incontinence. On examination, his pupils were nonreactive to bright light but constricted when focusing on a near object. What is the diagnosis?
Multiple sclerosis
Tabes dorsalis
Parinaud's syndrome
Sarcoidosis
1b
single
Answer B. Tabes dorsalisThe correct answer is tabes dorsalis. Pupils that are nonreactive to bright light but briskly constrict when focusing on a near object are known as Argyll Robertson pupils, which are characteristic of tabes dorsalis. Tabes dorsalis is a form of neurosyphilis that is characterized by degeneration of the nerves in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord, which leads to ataxia and loss of proprioception, as well as this pupil finding. The patient improved with intravenous penicillin.
Medicine
C.N.S.
aaaee0f4-837d-4ef9-889c-2b68f9ca422a
Surfactant is made up of which of the following:
Degradable products
Mucoprotein
Fibrinogen
Phospholipid
3d
single
Ans. D. PhospholipidSurfactant is made up of PHOSPHOLIPID- DI-PALMITOIL-PHOPHATIDYL-CHOUNE (DPPC) + two major proteins having molecular weights of 32,000 and 10,000. It is secreted by TYPE II ALVEOLAR EPITHELIAL CELLS (type II Pneumocyte)
Physiology
Respiratory System
6b538fcc-efdc-4aeb-b500-d06fc9bf3224
Culture medium for campylobactor jejuni -
BYCE medium
Skirrow's medium
Thayer-Martin medium
TCBS medium
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Skirrow's medium Media for Campvlobactoro Preston mediao Campylobactor agar baseo Skirrow*s mediao Butzlers mediao Aka Balton mediao Karmali agaro Columbia blood agaro Campylobactor enrichment broth,o CCDA (Charcol-cefoperazone-deoxycholate agar)o CVA (Cefoperazone, Vancomycin and amphotericin B)
Microbiology
Compylobactor
c9a817db-f420-4f88-a2c7-8f1217f4fb9b
Which one of the following statements about doxycycline is FALSE ?
It is bacteriostatic
It is excreted mainly in the feces
It is more active than tetracycline against H.pylori
It is used in Lyme's disease
2c
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
b1e7b219-461f-493f-9bf2-c067405fb779
The most common source of pulmonary embolism is :
Amniotic fluid embolism
Renal artery embolism
Large veins of leg
Cardio thoracic surgery
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' large veins of leg (Ref Harrison, 17/e, p 1651 & 16/e, p 1561 (15/e, p. 1509)).Remember thatMC site for deep vein thrombosis - Calf vein*.But MC source for pulmonary emboli - Proximal vein of lower extremity (femoral vein*).
Medicine
Pulmonary Embolism
f6f60da6-ce39-4745-aeaf-c1a11d1feb67
End product of glycolysis in RBC is
Pyruvate
Lactic acid
Acetyl CoA
Oxaloacetate
1b
single
Under anaerobic conditions, the NADH cannot be reoxidized through the respiratory chain, and pyruvate is reduced to lactate catalyzed by lactate dehydrogenase. This permits the oxidization of NADH, permitting another molecule of glucose to undergo glycolysis. Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate is transpoed into mitochondria and undergoes oxidative decarboxylation to acetyl-CoA then oxidation to CO2 in the citric acid cycle. Glycolysis in erythrocytes always terminates in lactate, because the subsequent reactions of pyruvate oxidation are mitochondrial, and erythrocytes lack mitochondria. Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 171
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
35257017-211e-4f3e-a3b2-c091823aa560
All of the following statements about Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome (APLAb) are true, Except :
Single titre of Anticardiolipin is diagnostic
Commonly presents with recurrent fetal loss
May cause pulmonary hypeension
Warfarin is given as treatment
0a
multi
Answer is A (Single titre of Anticardiolipin is diagnostic): Single titre of anticardiolipin antibodies does not establish a diagnosis of APLAb syndrome Laboratory criteria require anticardiolipin antibodies to be present on 2 or more occasions at least 12 weeks apa. A Definite diagnosis of Antiphospholipid Syndrome requires at least one clinical criteria and one laboratory criteria to be met. Diagnostic Criteria for Antiphospholipid Syndrome Definitive Antiphospholipid Syndrome is said to be present if atleast one of the clinical criteria and one of the laboratory criteria are met Clinical Criteria Laboratory Criteria * Vascular Thrombosis (Aerial and/or Venous) * Anticardiolipin Antibody of IgG and /or IgM One or more clinical episodes of aerial, venous or small vessel isotype in serum or plasma on 2 or more thrombosis in any tissue or organ. occasions, at least 12 weeks apa * Lupus anticoagulant present in plasma, on 2 or * Pregnancy morbidity more occasions at least 12 weeks apa a. One or more unexplained deaths of a morphologically normal * Anti-13,- 21vcoprotein-1 antibody of IgG and or fetus at or beyond the 10th week ofgestation, with normal IgM isotype in serum or plasma, present on 2 or fetal morpholoogy b. One or more premature bihs of a morphologically normal more occasions, at least 12 weeks apa neonate before the 34th week of gestation because of: (a) eclampsia or severe preeclampsia (b) placental insufficiency (c) Three or more unexplained consecutive spontaneous aboions before the 10th week of gestation, with maternal anatomic or hormonal abnormalities and paternal and maternal chromosomal causes excluded. Recurrent fetal loss is a common manifestation of Antiphospholipid Syndrome Recurrent fetal loss is an established Pregnancy associated morbidity of Antiphospholipid syndrome and is included in the diagnostic criteria (Refer previous question) Antiphospholipid Syndrome may cause Pulmonary Hypeension Pulmonary hypeension may be seen as a consequence of recurrent subclinical pulmonary emboli (Refer previous question) Warfarin is used in the treatment of Antiphospholipid Syndrome 'The mainstay of treatment of Antiphospholipid Syndrome is Warfarin' - Harrison
Medicine
null
a1471fcc-7a45-4efa-a793-dd6e3d0f02d8
Unilateral papilloedema with optic atrophy on the other side is a feature of -
Foster kennedy syndrome
Fisher syndrome
Vogt-koyanagi harada syndrome
WAGR syndrome
0a
single
null
Ophthalmology
null
c4763d38-5b86-4e73-b9e3-5e5f5d6dca15
The differential diagnosis for pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow include the following except -
Megaloblastic anemia
Myelodysplasia
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia
3d
multi
null
Pathology
null
4cdbc81d-c403-48d1-9606-320bd0e8c8bd
A 5-day-old infant male has an abnormally large head. A CT scan examination reveals enlarged lateral and third ventricles but a normal-size fourth ventricle. Stenosis of the cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) is suspected. Which of the following conditions will be characteristic of these symptoms?
Nonobstructive hydrocephalus
Anencephaly
Obstructive hydrocephalus
Meroanencephaly
2c
multi
Obstructive hydrocephalus, in this case resulting from obstruction of the cerebral aqueduct, refers to a condition in which flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is obstructed within the ventricular system. This leads to pressure increasing in the CSF above the obstruction, explaining the enlarged lateral and third ventricles. Nonobstructive hydrocephalus is due to either excessive CSF production or ineffective CSF reabsorption. This would lead to enlargement of all ventricular chambers. Anencephaly, also known as meroanencephaly, is a partial absence of the brain and is due to defective closure of the anterior neuropore. Holoprosencephaly is a failure of cleavage of the forebrain and would result in a single fused ventricle.
Anatomy
Head & Neck
3a5140a2-e261-430d-853a-8a8db02e2e09
Branded chain ketoacid decarboxylation is defective in
Maple syrup urine disease
Hanup disease
Alkaptonuria
GM1 gangliosidosis
0a
single
Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD) i. It is also called branched-chain ketonuria. The incidence is 1 per 1 lakh bihs. The name originates from the characteristic smell of urine (similar to burnt sugar or maple sugar) due to excretion of branched-chain keto acids. ii. The basic biochemical defect is deficient decarboxylation of branched-chain keto acids (BKA). iii. Clinical findings: Disease stas in the first week of life. It is characterized by convulsions, severe mental retardation, vomiting, acidosis, coma and death within the first year of life. iv. Laboratory findings: Urine contains branched chain keto acids, valine, leucine, and isoleucine. Rothera&;s test is positive, but unlike in cases of ketoacidosis, even boiled and cooled urine will give the test. Diagnosis depends on enzyme analysis in cells. Diagnosis should be done prior to 1 week after bih. v. Treatment: Giving a diet low in branched chain amino acids. Mild variant is called intermittent branched-chain ketonuria. This will respond to high doses of thiamine. This is because the decarboxylation of the BKA requires thiamine. Liver transplantation has been successfully tried in some cases of MSUD.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 8th edition, page no: 200
Biochemistry
Metabolism of lipid
827e4de3-e167-4157-8ba3-3e57efac2d92
Gluten sensitive enteropathy is strongly associated with:-
Blood group B
HLA-DQ3
HLA-DR4
HLA-DQ2
3d
single
Gluten sensitive enteropathy /CELIAC SPRUE have a definitive association with HLA DQ2 / DQ8 Also associated with other immune diseases including type 1 diabetes, thyroiditis & Sjogren syndrome Diagnosis of celiac sprue is done by: Multiple intestinal biopsies - Villous atrophy, crypts hyperplasia along with lymphocytic infiltration Detecting antibodies like anti-TTG antibody ; anti-endomysial antibody Skin biopsy showing destruction to dermal papillae by IgA resulting in Dermatitis herpetiformis Normal villus in the small intestine Atrophy of the villi, lengthening of the crypts, and a heavy chronic inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Dermatitis herpetiformis showing vesicles with erythema on the extensor surface of the forearm.
Pathology
FMGE 2018
61121ef3-a1a5-4611-9c48-db9601c6f021
A biopsy of an enlarged salivary gland from an individual with Sjogren's syndrome is most likely to histologically reveal an extensive infiltrate of
Epithelioid cells
Basophils
Lymphocytes
Neutrophils
2c
multi
Sjogren's syndrome is characterized by dryness of the mouth (xerostomia) and eyes (keratoconjunctivitis sicca). Secondary Sjogren's syndrome is associated with rheumatoid ahritis (RA), SLE, or systemic sclerosis. The primary form shows increased frequency of HLA-DR3, while association with RA shows a positive correlation with HLA-DR4. Anti-SSB antibodies are fairly specific, antiSSA less so, and both may occur in SLE; rheumatoid factor is often present. Glomerular lesions are very rare, but a mild tubulointerstitial nephritis is quite common and may result in renal tubular acidosis. In addition to the usual dense, lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate of salivary glands, the lymph nodes may show a "pseudolymphomatous" appearance. True B cell lymphomas have developed with increased frequency in Sjogren's syndrome Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition.
Pathology
miscellaneous
debc6571-2cf1-4f90-b502-e4dcd52e6756
When osmotic fragility is normal, RBC's begin to hemolyse when suspended in saline -
0.33%
0.48%
0.90%
1.20%
1b
single
null
Pathology
null
48cbd2fb-7f71-40a3-bacf-9c05c8002f67
False statement about pheochromocytoma -
10% are bilateral
Arises from chromaffin cells
Extra adrenal tumor -increased nor adrenaline levels
None
3d
multi
Ans. is 'None'
Surgery
null
5491f985-cbbb-4a31-904f-cf88362f55bb
Recurrent toxoplasmic retinochoroiditis, all are true except:
Manifests at an average age of 25 years
The infestation is acquired by eating the undercooked meat of intermediate host containing cyst of the parasite
Typical lesion is a patch of focal necrotizing retinochoroiditis adjacent to a pigmented scar
There may be associated iritis
1b
multi
Ans. The infestation is acquired by eating the undercooked meat of intermediate host containing cyst of the parasite
Ophthalmology
null
3d588478-dd5b-419d-a6ba-501ab1fc26f8
Amino acid deficient in pulses
Tryptophane
Lysine
Methionine
Leucine
2c
single
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
5948a5f0-0293-48f5-9800-66326e4edb7a
Which of the following is anti apoptotic gene
C-myc
P53
Bcl-2
Bax
2c
single
Ref, Harrison 17/e p506
Anatomy
General anatomy
f325d194-6502-42cd-9f69-bb562b897b5d
Developmental depressions on both mesial and distal sides of roots are seen in:
Mandibular central incisor
Maxillary canines
Mesial root of mandibular 1st molar
All of the above
3d
multi
Deep concavities on distal surface are present in – Maxillary 1st premolar Deep concavities on distal surface are present in – Maxillary 1st molar Developmental depressions on both mesial and distal sides of roots are seen in – Mandibular central incisors, upper canines, mesial root of mandibular 1st molar.
Dental
null
2a7b9263-913d-48ce-89f5-fb48d5c845c7
Areas of spontaneous healed pa of tympanic membrane are called as
Dimeric
Pontiac
Both of the above
None of the above
0a
multi
Healed tympanic membrane has only two layers - Epithelial and mucosal layers Middle fibrous layer is absent Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 59.
ENT
Ear
d257a855-e35f-4be2-ad23-2d16a973d554
All are true about syndrome X except
Hyperglycemia
Hypoinsulinemia
Abdominal obesity
Hyperiglyceridemia
1b
multi
Metabolic syndrome, sometimes known by other names, is a clustering of at least three of the five following medical conditions: central obesity, high blood pressure, high blood sugar, high serum triglycerides, and low serum high-density lipoprotein (HDL) Ref Robbins 9/e pg 170
Medicine
Genetics
839db083-0bb3-448f-81fc-56b867c4fb8e
Cause of death in Acute rheumatic fever is –
Pericarditis
Myocarditis
Endocarditis
Streptococcal sepsis
2c
single
null
Pediatrics
null
5a570290-d319-4bd2-9284-fcc2cf3063de
There is a high risk of renal dysplasia in ?
Posterior urethral valve.
Bladder ex stroph y
Anorectal malformation
Neonatal sepsis
0a
single
Ans is 'a' Posterior urethral valve The term renal dysplasia is technically a histological diagnosis. It occur due to abnormality in metanephric differentiation and is characterized histologically by the persistence in the kidney of abnormal structures - cailage, undifferentiated mesenchyme and immature collecting ductules and by abnormal lobar organization. C/F of Renal dysplasia (i) It can be unilateral or bilateral and is almost always cystic (ii) Kidney is enlarged, extremely irregular and multicystic. (presents as a flank mass) (iii) In unilateral dysplastic kidney the prognosis is good, where as in B/L dysplastic kidney renal failure may ultimately result. Dysplastic kidney is associated with? posterior urethral valve (as pa of VURD syndrome) V --> posterior urethral valves U --> unilateral reflux R --> renal dysplasia Uretero pelvic obstruction Ureteral agenesis or atresia Other anomalies of lower urinary tract.
Surgery
null
3512cbc1-46e8-4b05-8a9c-9aa23347a5f5
After two doses of vaccination against plague, the immunity will last for -
Six months
One year
Eighteen months
Twenty-four months
0a
single
- the plaque vaccine is killed vaccine. - two doses of 0.5 &1 ml given subcutaneously at interval of 7-14 days. - immunity sta 5-7 days after inoculation and lasts for 6 months. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:296 <\p>
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
480f6ca3-591e-4b4e-94dc-93a595b90533
The major limitation in the use of clozapine for treatment of schizophrenia is
Its potential to cause agranulocytosis
High incidence of extrapyramidal side effects
Production of hyperprolactinemia
Its inability to benefit negative symptoms of schizophrenia
0a
single
Clozapine:- It is the first atypical anti- psychotic. It has only weak D2 blocking action, produces few/no extrapyramidal symptoms; tardive dyskinesia is rare and prolactin level does not rise. Both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia are improved and clozapine is the most effective drug in refractory schizophrenia, i.e. patients not responding to typical neuroleptics may respond to it. Pharmacokinetics:- Clozapine is metabolized by CYP1A2, CYP2C19 & CYP3A4 into active and inactive metabolites with an average t 1/2 of 12 hours. Adverse effects:- It's major limitation is higher incidence of agranulocytosis (0.8%) and other blood dyscrasias: weekly monitoring of leucocyte count is required. Metabolic complication like weight gain, hyperlipidemia and precipitation of diabetes is another major limilation. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-441
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
b904b24f-a08f-4419-b744-7e9b7164c082
Sporulation occurs in -
Lag phase
Log phase
Stationary phase
Decline phase
2c
single
The various phases of growth curve are associated with morphological and physiological alterations of the cells.
Microbiology
null
72e15c81-705a-4c3b-a0a8-cb8440c67d57
Cereals are rich in which amino acid ?
Lysine
Threonine
Tiyptophan
Methionine
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Methionine "Pulses have high lysine content and are deficient in methionine; on the other hand cereals have an abundance of methionine"
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
6a5ce318-9903-4fee-81d8-07eeeb10ff98
All are causes of Antepaum hemorrhage (APH) except :
Placenta pre
Abruptio placenta
Circumvallate placenta
Battledore placenta
3d
multi
Ans. is d i.e. Battledore placenta Ref. Dutra Ovs. tire, p 243, 248; Text book of Obs. by Sheila Balakrishnan, p 155 Causes of Antepaum Hemorrhage Placenta pre Abruptio placenta Local causes like : Polyp * Carcinoma cervix Varicose veins * Trauma Circumvallate placenta Vasa pre Unclassified or indeterminate Circumvallate placenta It is an uncommon cause of antepaum hemorrhage.deg In this condition, the chorionic plate which is on the fetal side of the placenta is smaller than the basal plate on the maternal side.deg The fetal surface of the placenta presents a central depression surrounded by a thickened grayish white ring. These pregnancies may be complicated by IUGR and an increased chance of fetal malformations. Bleeding is usually painlessdeg. Antenatal diagnosis is unlikely and the diagnosis is usually made after examination of the placenta post deliverydeg. Note: Battledore placenta = It is a condition in which the umblical cord is attached to the margin of placenta.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
2422bca1-e571-463d-a199-e6548ae6b8b1
Pneumatocele is caused by?
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Hemophilus parainfluenzae
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
0a
single
Ans. A. Staphylococcus aureus* S. aureus is a cause of serious respiratory tract infections in newborns and infants; these infections present as shortness of breath, fever, and respiratory failure.* Chest X-ray may reveal pneumatocele (shaggy, thin- walled cavities). Pneumothorax and empyema are recognized complications of this infection.
Medicine
Infection
b702a894-f54c-453f-945f-698a424cd6b7
Renin secretion is increased by all except
Na+ in PCT
Low afferent aeriolar pressure
Na+ in DCT
Sympathetic nerve stimulation
3d
multi
Several different factors regulate renin secretion, and the rate of renin secretion at any given time is determined by the summed activity of these factors. One factor is an intrarenal baroreceptor mechanism that causes renin secretion to decrease when aeriolar pressure at the level of the JG cells increases and to increase when aeriolar pressure at this level falls. Another renin-regulating sensor is in the macula densa. Renin secretion is inversely propoional to the amount of Na+ and Cl- entering the distal renal tubules from the loop of Henle. Presumably, these electrolytes enter the macula densa cells the Na-K-2Cl- transpoers in their apical membranes and the increase in some fashion triggers a signal that decreases renin secretion in the juxtaglomerular cells in the adjacent afferent aerioles. A possible mediator is NO, but the identity of the signal remains unsettled. Renin secretion also varies inversely with the plasma K+ level, but the effect of K+ appears to be mediated by the changes it produces in Na+ and Cl- delivery to the macula densa. Angiotensin II feeds back to inhibit renin secretion by a direct action on the JG cells. Vasopressin also inhibits renin secretion in vitro and in vivo, although there is some debate about whether it&;s in vivo effect is direct or indirect. Finally, increased activity of the sympathetic nervous system increases renin secretion. The increase is mediated both by increased circulating catecholamines and by norepinephrine secreted by postganglionic renal sympathetic nerves. The catecholamines act mainly on b1-adrenergic receptors on the JG cells and renin release is mediated by an increase in intracellular cAMP. The principal conditions that increase renin venous pressure, which triggers an increase in sympathetic activity, and some also decrease renal aeriolar pressure . Renal aery constriction and constriction of the aoa proximal to the renal aeries produces a decrease in renal aeriolar pressure. Psychologic stimuli increase the activity of the renal nerves. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology,23rd edition,page no: 673, 674
Physiology
Renal physiology
4de3a936-dad0-43a3-8381-f1ab90ee3d14
All of the following statements about angiotensin II are TRUE, EXCEPT:
Autoregulation of GFR
Release aldosrerone
Secreted from endothelium
Constriction of afferent aeriole
2c
multi
Angiotensinogen is the circulating protein substrate from which renin cleaves angiotensin I. It is synthesized in the liver within a few seconds to minutes after formation of angiotensin I, two additional amino acid are split from the angiotensin I to from the 8-amino acid peptide angiotensin II. This conversation occurs almost entirely in the lungs while the blood flows through the small vessels of lungs, catalyzed by an enzyme called angiotensin conveing enzyme (ACE) that is present in the endothelium of the lungs vessels. FUNCTION: Angiotensin II is an extremely powerful vasoconstrictor. Vasoconstrictor occurs intensely in the aerioles and much less so in the veins. It decrease excretion of both slowly salt and water by the kidneys. This slowly increases the extracellular fluid volume, which then increase the aerial pressure during subsequent hours and days. It exes impoant actions at vascular smooth muscle, adrenal coex, kidney, hea and brain. Act directly on the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal coex to stimulate aldosterone biosynthesis. At higher concentrations, angiotensin II also stimulates glucocoicoid biosynthesis. Angiotensin II act on the kidney to cause renal vasoconstriction, contraction of mesangial cells with a resultant decrease in GFR increase proximal tubular sodium reabsorption, and inhibit the secretion of renin. In addition to its central effects on blood pressure, angiotensin II acts on the central nervous system to stimulate drinking (dipsogenic effect ) and increase the secretion of vasopressin and adrenocoicotropic hormone (ACTH). Ref: Ganong 23/e, page 670 ; Guyton 11/e, page 201-02,223-24,907
Physiology
null
3d462e52-518d-42cb-87b9-41a089837039
Radiocontrast is contraindicated in all except -
Renal failure
Patient on metformin
Dehydration
Obesity
3d
multi
Impoant risk factors for contrast induced nephropathy (CIN) : Renal failure Diabetes Hypeension Dehydration Patient on metformin Hyperuricemia
Radiology
Fundamentals in Radiology
a7ce8a63-3584-4bc2-9ee0-3ebd4b5b4179
A 5-year-old child is exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A month later the child's tuberculin skin test is positive. The child then develops fever, inspiratory stridor, and nonproductive cough. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present on the chest radiograph of this child?
Hilar lymphadenopathy
Miliary pulmonary nodules
Pneumonic consolidation
Upper lobe cavitation
0a
single
The child has a primary tuberculosis. Most healthy persons have a sub-clinical disease, and a minority develop clinical manifestations; of those, most have limited pulmonary involvement without dissemination. Primary tuberculosis is marked by the Ghon complex, which is a small subpleural granuloma at mid-lung along with prominent enlarged hilar lymph nodes. These nodes may impinge upon central airways. When the cell-mediated immune response is poor, then there can be numerous small granulomas scattered throughout the lungs, or disseminated to other organs, as a miliary pattern (granulomas that are the size of millet seeds). Progressive primary tuberculosis can lead to more extensive lung involvement with pneumonic infiltrates. Upper lobe cavitary disease is characteristic of secondary tuberculosis (reactivation or reinfection) in persons who have previously mounted an immune response. One pattern of disseminated tuberculosis is Pott disease of the spine, sometimes as an isolated finding.
Pathology
Infectious Disease
d25e89b3-3dfb-41b9-8beb-fb442afb65c7
Vidian nerve is also called ?
Superior petrosal nerve
Greater petrosal nerve
Nerve to pterygoid canal
Auricular branch of vagus
2c
multi
Greater petorsal nerve units with deep petrosal nerve to form nerve to pterygoid canal (also called vidian nerve).It carries secretomotor fibers to nasal gland pterygopalatine ganglion.Also knowAuricular branch of vagus is also called as Arnold's nerve or Alderman's nerve.
Anatomy
null
ff811171-e9f5-4425-9e00-25fc9a12cd3a
Treatment of choice for sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis detected in Ist trimester of pregnancy:
Defer till second trimester
Sta cat. I immediately
Sta cat. II immediately
Sta cat. III immediately
1b
single
Sta cat. I immediately Repeat May 10
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
e625b9ea-c718-4505-918c-233f8287aedb
The most common cause of severe hypercalcemia is-
Vitamin D toxicity
Sarcoidosis
Chronic renal failure
Malignancy
3d
single
Causes of hypercalcaemia are listed in Box 20.36. Of these, primary hyperparathyroidism and malignant hypercalcaemia are by far the most common. Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH) is a rare but impoant cause that needs differentiation from primary hyperparathyroidism (HPT). Lithium may cause hyperparathyroidism by reducing the sensitivity of the calcium-sensing receptor. Causes of hypercalcaemia- With normal or elevated PTH levels *Primaryoeiaryhyperparathyroidism *Lithium-inducedhyperparathyroidism *Familialhypocalciuric hypercalcaemia With low PTH levels *Malignancy(lung,breast,myeloma,renal,lymphoma, thyroid) *Elevated1,25(OH)2vitaminD(vitaminDintoxication, sarcoidosis,HIV,othergranulomatousdisease) *Thyrotoxicosis *Paget'sdiseasewithimmobilisation *Milk-alkalisyndrome *Thiazidediuretics *Glucocoicoiddeficiency DAVIDSONS PRINCIPLE AND PRACTICE OF MEDICINE 22ND EDITION PAGENO-767
Medicine
Endocrinology
26e4f5a1-83fc-4ca2-b72d-2c92baa11f58
A 12-year-old boy, who had been camping in the mountains with his family, was brought to the emergency depament because of headache, rash, and the abrupt onset of a high fever. The rash began on his palms and soles but spread up to his ankles and arms. On physical examination he was found to have palpable purpura on his wrists and lower legs. The infection is likely caused by?
Rickettsia rickettsii
Treponema pallidum
Coxsackievirus
Dissiminated histoplasma infection
0a
multi
Infections with Rickettsia rickettsii, Treponema pallidum, and coxsackievirus all can cause a rash on the palms and soles. This patient is most likely infected with R rickettsii. The clinical course is typical for Rocky Mountain spotted fever, which is characterized by fever with abrupt onset and a rash that spreads from the extremities toward the trunk. Palpable purpura is a poor prognostic sign, as it indicates active vasculitis and leakage of blood into the skin. The rash in syphilis and coxsackievirus is typically more gradual.
Dental
Bacterial infections
867f04f4-1cec-461b-9e91-6faa0edb3a2e
Acquired porphyria is due to the which of the following:
Mercury toxicity
Lead poisoning
Copper deficiency
Selenium toxicity
1b
single
Porphyria can be either inherited or acquired. Causes of acquired porphyria: Lead poisoning Alcoholism Hepatitis C infection Lead induced acquired porphyria is known as Plumboporphyria.
Biochemistry
Miscellaneous
5c79dbc2-45e1-464e-a01f-922a6152d2b7
Best way to diagnose lower small intestinal obstruction
Pain abdomen
Abdominal distension
Profuse vimitting
Multiple air gas shadows on X - ray
3d
multi
null
Surgery
null
f83faf75-2936-4836-87fd-eeea69852be0
Effect of Propofol on coagulation is?
Inhibits coagulation cascade
Inhibits platelet function
Activates coagulation cascade
No effect
3d
single
Propofol does not alter tests of coagulation or platelet function. However, propofol inhibits platelet aggregation that is induced by proinflammatory lipid mediators including thromboxane A2 and platelet-activating factor.
Anaesthesia
Intravenous Anesthetic Agents
c197a4d0-87ae-4043-a2dc-d45d53f963e7
Best investigation to diagnose Meckel&;s diveiculum?
X-ray abdomen
Ultrasonography
Barium study
Tc 99m Peectinate scan
3d
single
.* Technetium (Tc99) radioisotope scan is very useful (90-95% accuracy). Ninety per cent of heterotrophic gastric mucosa can be identified in Meckel's diveiculum by radioisotope study. It can detect Meckel's divei-culum with minimal bleeding also (0.1 ml/minute). So it is very useful investigation in children presenting with bleeding. * X-ray abdomen to see complications like obstruction, perforation. * Laparoscopy is very useful. * Enteroclysis/small bowel enema under fluoroscopy may show the Meckel's diveiculum. It is probably the most accurate investigation. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 798
Surgery
G.I.T
9e797df6-40cf-475e-804f-944bbe7cbb64
In Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, the risk of kernicterus increases with the use of
Ceftriaxone
Phenobarbitone
Ampicillin
Sulphonamide
3d
single
Sulfonamides (also called sulfa drugs) are a group of antibiotics that kill bacteria. Sulfonamides may unbind bilirubin from albumin, which increases blood levels of bilirubin. The unbound bilirubin can cross into the brain and cause kernicterus. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
Pediatrics
New born infants
7343c43c-a159-4479-9f38-20e6a14ff9d3
The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur after limited exposure to some antimicrobial drug is called:
Time dependent killing
Post antibiotic effect
Concentration dependent killing
Sequential blockade
1b
multi
(Ref: Katzung 10/e p756) Time dependent killing kinetics is shown by aminoglycosides. Here, the killing activity depends upon thelength of time, plasma concentration is above MIC. Concentration dependent killing is shown by b lactam drugs. here, killing activity depends upon the ratio of plasma concentration to MIC. Post antibiotic effect is the suppression of bacterial growth after limit exposure to antibiotic.
Pharmacology
Other topics and Adverse effects
fb78f3ab-05c7-4962-ac13-a5f408216274
True about HIV in the neonate includes all the following except –
Cannot be diagnosed accurately by current methods
Failure to thrive may be presentation
Transmission rate during pregnancy exceeds 90%
Transmission vertically from mother
2c
multi
null
Pediatrics
null
810d0d06-f9d6-45c1-8d8e-6994e0ee36cf
What is the most serious adverse effect of streptomycin?
Hepatotoxicity
Ototoxicity
Ocular toxicity
Hematological disturbances
1b
single
Streptomycin (S) This is a tuberculocidal aminoglycoside. It is not absorbed orally and must be administered by IM injection. It is active only against extra-cellular bacteria. It is NOT HEPATOTOXIC. Major adverse effects are ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity and neuromuscular blockade. Streptomycin is contraindicated in PREGNANCY.
Pharmacology
Protein Synthesis Inhibitors
0ea961d0-283c-44af-95f9-7fd123e559a9
All the following amoebae live in the large intestine except -
E.coli
E. nana
E.gingivalis
Lbutschii
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., E. gingivalis
Microbiology
null
0f8356c7-1deb-4055-b79a-6ea7eee9f323
Foetal requirement of iron is about:
100 mg
200 mg
300 mg
400 mg
3d
single
Iron is transpoed actively across placenta to the fetus. Iron requirement during pregnancy is considerable and is mostly limited to the second half of the pregnancy specially to the last 12 weeks. Total iron requirement during pregnancy is estimated approximately 1000 mg. This is distributed in fetus and placenta 300mg and expanded red cell mass 400mg. There is obligatory loss of about 200 mg through normal routes. Also Know: Iron is absorbed in ferrous form from duodenum and jejunum and is released into the circulation as transferrin. Iron is transpoed actively across the placenta to the fetus. Iron is not squarely distributed throughout the pregnancy but mostly limited to the third trimester. Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics D.C.Dutta, 6th Ed, Page 54-55.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
99e3a638-a4a8-4553-a4ba-a0ec3c161f84
Pontine transection leads to
Decerebrate rigidity
Decorticate rigidity
Increased muscle tone
Decreased muscle tone
3d
single
Ans. (d) Decreased muscle tone(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.242)Pontine transection leads to the loss of effects of Pontine reticulospinal tractNormal function of pontine reticulospinal tract - mediate excitatory effects. Excites gamma motor neurons to muscle spindles that maintains toneSo, there is decreased muscle tone
Physiology
Nervous System
ef24d3c0-305c-44c1-8019-88a76d7edd39
A term baby was brought with complaints of breathing difficulty. He was born normally to primigravida. Mother's antenatal period and labour record were normal. On examination he was in respiratory distress. Abdomen was flat. There was no organomegaly. The most likely cause is –
Congenital heart disease with dextrocardia
Respiratory distress syndrome
Diaphragmatic hernia
Aspiration pneumonia
2c
multi
null
Pediatrics
null
2605967e-d4d7-465c-964d-68bda01ebfaa
Prerenal and renal azotemia is differentiated on the basis of:
Creatinine clearance
Serum creatinine level
Sodium fraction excretion
Urine bicarbonate level
2c
single
Answer is C (Sodium Fraction Excretion):
Medicine
null
954f3fc8-5396-4b4f-a407-b915b035f989
A 27 year old male patient is referred for resection of pheochromocytoma. Which of the following medications should the patient be taking prior to surgery
Propranolol
Labetalol
Phenoxybenzamine
Hydralazine
2c
single
Phenoxybenzamine is non selective alpha antagonist, which prevents vasoconstriction. If patient receives beta blocker without alpha blockade, he will experience alpha mediated vasoconstriction that would result in very high blood pressure.
Anaesthesia
null
1f1f5b27-5839-49fd-a59f-43cbefd6b710
Increased cardiac oxygen demand is caused by –
Ketamine
Nitrous oxide
Thiopentone
Halothane
0a
single
null
Anaesthesia
null
276a4be4-81e2-4cda-abd7-125b5f2f9b84
A 30-year -old male from West Bengal presents to you with hyperkeratosis, and transverse nail lines. Most likely cause is
Chronic arsenic poisoning
Chronic lead poisoning
Chronic mercury poisoning
Acute arsenic poisoning
0a
single
A i.e. Chronic arsenic poisoning
Forensic Medicine
null
f18db642-a8ea-4163-a48a-bba2bef8214b
Posterior relation of poal vein -
I' pa of duodenum
Hepatic aery
Bile duct
IVC
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., IVC The poal vein is about 8 cm long. It is formed by the union of the superior mesenteric veins and the splenic vein behind the neck of the pancreas at the level of the second lumbar veebra. The inferior mesenteric vein drains into the inferior mesenteric vein. Impoant facts about poal vein 8 cm long The blood flow is slow Stream line flow :- Blood in superior mesentric vein drains, into right lobe of liver. Blood in splenic and inferior mesentric vein drains into left lobe. Relations Infraduodenal pa Anterior :- Neck of pancreas Posterior :- IVC Retroduodenal pa Anterior :- Ppa of duodenum, bile duct, gastroduodenal aery Posterior :- IVC Supraduodenal pa Anterior :- Hepatic aery, bile duct. Posterior :- IVC, separated by epiploic formen Development of Poal vein : Infra-duodenal pa - pa of left vitelline vein distal to the dorsal ansatomosis Retro-duodenal pa - dorsal anastomosis between two vitelline veins Supra-duodenal pa - cranial pa of right vitelline vein The poal vein receives the following veins : Splenic vein Superior mesenteric vein Left gastric Right gastric Superior pancreatico-duodenal Cystic Paraumbilical veins
Anatomy
null
dffe6716-e3e1-45ec-9427-44201172af01
Which of the following is not supplied by the anterior division of mandibular nerve (V3)?
Temporalis
Masseter
Lateral pterygoid
Medial pterygoid
3d
single
MANDIBULAR NERVE DIVISION: TRUNK- 1.Meningeal 2.Nerve to medial pterygoid supplies; tensor veli palatini,tensor tympani,medial pterygoid ANTERIOR DIVISION- 1.Deep temporal 2.Lateral pterygoid 3.Masseteric 4.Buccal; skin of cheek POSTERIOR DIVISION- 1.Auriculotemporal:auricular,superficial temporal,aicular to TMJ,secretomotor to parotid gland 2.Lingual; general sensation from anterior two-thirds of tongue 3.Inferior alveolar; lower teeth, mental for skin of chin and nerve to mylohyoid Ref BDC volume 3,sixth edition pg 369
Anatomy
Head and neck
e8f21c73-dac1-4fd4-a915-a1aaff14cdb2
A 60-year-old woman has a history of being treated for endometrial cancer with surgery and radiation 5 years ago. She now presents with a large necrotic tumor that follows the course of the sciatic nerve. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis
Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
Solitary neurofibroma
Neurofibromatosis type 2
Schwannoma
0a
single
The development of a necrotic tumor involving a peripheral nerve in an area that was irradiated previously is characteristic of a malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor. Ref:- Harsha Mohan textbook of Pathology
Pathology
Nervous system
9a988da9-7547-4507-8181-d94cadd72870
Level of iodisation in salt according to PFA at Consumer level :
10 ppm
15 ppm
30 ppm
45 ppm
1b
single
Production level - 30 ppm. Consumer level - 15 ppm.
Medicine
null
d6bce3ef-c85a-4a22-a706-a41fd94bb63a
One advantage of digital radiography is:
All the teeth can be in a single film
Highly economical
The radiographic images are obtained immediately
Pulpal vitality can be accurately assessed
2c
multi
null
Radiology
null
75ff4ccb-2f3b-4573-89bf-1b26fbad8133
A 70-year-old man with a prior anterior MI comes for his routine evaluation. He feels well and has no symptoms. He is taking metoprolol 100 mg bid, aspirin 81 mg od, enalapril 10 mg bid, and simvastatin 40 mg od for secondary prevention.Select the characteristic ECG finding.
prolonged PR interval
broad-notched P wave in lead II
short QT interval
short PR interval
0a
single
A prolonged PR interval is a common finding in asymptomatic elderly patients that have age-related degeneration of the AV node. Drugs such as beta-blockers (metoprolol) may exacerbate the condition or even cause PR prolongation in excessive doses.
Medicine
C.V.S.
cda7781e-f03b-4f7d-a3e3-5f3592ff29a3
Which of the following opening in the base of the skull transmits the third branch of trigeminal nerve?
Foramen ovale
Foramen lacerum
Foramen magnum
Foramen spinosum
0a
single
Foramen ovale is an opening at the base of the lateral pterygoid plate. It transmits the third branch of the trigeminal nerve, the accessory meningeal aery, and occasionally the superficial petrosal nerve. Foramen lacerum transmits the internal carotid aery.Foramen magnum transmits the medulla and its membranes, the spinal accessory nerves, the veebral aeries, and the anterior and posterior spinal aeries.
Anatomy
null
4cd114b1-fc7e-4c87-b3b9-15cb934942fa
Which of the following is not true regarding "thumb sucking"?
Is a sign of insecurity
Pleasurable sensation
Leads to dental problems
Seen only in child < 4 years of age
3d
multi
Thumb sucking: common in infancy and in as many as 25% of children age 2 yr and 15% of children age 5 yr. self-soothing behavior Leads to dental problems T/t- Behavioural therapy
Pediatrics
Behavioral Disorders in Children
1dd985c1-0cbf-4e13-bb3a-9d32c01ae238
A low mean corpuscular volume with a normal and cell distribution width suggests -
Iron deficiency anemia
B thalassemia trait
Anemia of chronic disease
Sideroblastic anemia
1b
single
In thalassemia MCV is decreased to 45-70fL &RBC count found to be increased or normal. The RBCs are microcytic and normochromic. Ref: Exam preparatory manual for UGs by Ramdas Nayak Page no:270 Ref Robbins 9/e pg 412
Pathology
Haematology
2b9df3f4-5aeb-4ec2-b560-c75fcbc34fb4
Posterior cardinal vein develops into:
Superior vena cava
Internal jugular vein
External jugular vein
Common iliac vein
3d
single
-Right Posterior cardinal veins contribute to inferior vena cava and common iliac veins. Left anterior and Left posterior cardinal veins regress - Superior vena cava and jugular veins develop from anterior cardinal veins.
Anatomy
Bronchopulmonary Segments, Embryonic veins
5855dbc9-15c4-4305-8c7c-8cfd659b4f7b
During first, 3-4 month of gestation erythrocytes are formed by
Yolk sac
Liver
Spleen
Bone marrow
0a
single
Stages of erythropoiesis according to development areIn the first 2 months of gestation - occurs in yolk sac (Mesoblastic phase)from 3rd month of gestation - In liver and spleen (Hepatic phase)From 20th week of gestation - In red bone marrow (myeloid phaseRef: Medical Physiology Indu Khurana 2015 edition, Page No:104
Physiology
Cardiovascular system
61b17338-5471-4cca-89d4-6aca4c32015d
BAL is useful in treating poisoning due to all except?
Lead
Organic mercury
Cadmium
Arsenic
2c
multi
BAL (dimercaprol) is contraindicatcd in iron and cadmium poisoning.  It is used in lead (as adjuvant), mercury and arsenic poisoning.
Forensic Medicine
null
9bf8a1c0-9923-4ec1-a606-3424979e6e78
A patient of post-cholecystectomy biliary stricture has undergone an ERCP three days ago. Following this, she has developed acute cholangitis. The most likely organism is
Escherichia coli
Bacillus fragilis
Streptococcus viridans
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
0a
single
Cholangitis Ascending bacterial infection of the biliary ductal system with obstruction MC cause of acute cholangitis is choledocholithiasis MC organisms present in the bile in patients with cholangitis : E.coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, streptococcus faecalis & Bacteroides fragilis Ref:Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1507
Anatomy
G.I.T
2ba93a83-52e8-4cb6-ba17-c282b6bf8b9a
The pattern of change of disease trends of moality and morbidity where the pandemics infection are replaced by degenerative and man-made disorders, the main cause of morbidity and the most frequent cause of fatality is known as
Cross transition
Paradoxical transition
Epidemiological transition
Demographic transition
2c
single
Ans. c. Epidemiological transition Epidemiological transition is a phase of development witnessed by a sudden and stark increase in population growth rates brought about by medical innovation in disease or sickness therapy and treatment, followed by a re-leveling of population growth from subsequent declines in feility rates. Epidemiological Transition Epidemiological transition is a phase of development witnessed by a sudden and stark increase in population growth rates brought about by medical innovation in disease or sickness therapy and treatment, followed by a re-leveling of population growth from subsequent declines in feility ratesdeg. This theory was originally posited by Abdel Omran in 1971 Demographic transition Demographic transition (DT) refers to the transition from high bih and death rates to low bih and death rates as a country develops from a pre-industrial to an industrialized economic system. This is typically demonstrated through a demographic transition model.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
3a4ae68a-5c9d-4312-9197-4c4e79414127
Most common complication of splenectomy is:
Hematemesis
Left lower lobe atelectasis
Peritoneal effusion
Acute dilatation of stomach
1b
single
COMPLICATIONS OF SPLENECTOMY Pulmonary Complications: Left lower lobe atelectasis : MC complication Pleural effusion Pneumonia Thromboembolic Complications: DVT Poal vein thrombosis Hemorrhage Complications: Subphrenic hematoma Infectious Complications: Subphrenic abscess Wound infection
Surgery
Spleen
00aaa82a-9f7f-4d28-9a56-bb8ec879092b
Intrinsic factor is produced by
Argentaffin cells
Oxyntic cells
Chief cells
Antral cells
1b
single
The gastric mucosa contains many deep glands. In the cardia and the pyloric region, the glands secrete mucus. In the body of the stomach, including the fundus, the glands also contain parietal (oxyntic) cells, which secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor, and chief (zymogen, peptic) cells, which secrete pepsinogens. These secretions mix with mucus secreted by the cells in the necks of the glands. Several of the glands open on a common chamber (gastric pit) that opens in turn on the surface of the mucosa. Mucus is also secreted along with HCO3 by mucus cells on the surface of the epithelium between glands.REF: GANONG&;S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY, KIM BARRETT, HEDDWEN BROOKS, SCOTT BOITANO, SUSAN BARMANTWENTY THIRD EDITIONPAGE NO:431,432
Physiology
G.I.T
2f038814-5ef8-429e-a35e-e76973f38cb5
The following are contraindicated in renal failure except:
Pancuronium
Pethidine
Enflurane
Midazolam
3d
multi
Ans. D. Midazolam. (Ref. PauVs anaesthesia 5th/Pg. 254; Table 11-2; KDT 6th ed. 459)# With the exception of methoxyflurane and possibly enflurane, anesthtic agents do noy directly cause renal function or interfere with the normal compensatory mech activated by stress response.# Pancuronium. Clearance is decreased in renal and hepatic failure, demonstrating that excretion is dependent on bothOrgans........... Paul's anaesthesia 5th/pg. 435.# Pethidine: Nearly completely metabolized in liver. Acidification of urine increases excretion of unchanged pethidine. Renal failure patients given repeated doses of pethidine may experience effects of similar to that of its overdose - tremors, mydriasis, hyperreflexia, delirium, myoclonus, and convulsions............ KDT 6th ed. Pg. 459.# Midazolam: The hepatic clearance of IV anesthetics with a high (e.g., etomidate, propofol, ketamine) or intermediate (e.g., methohexital, midazolam) extraction ratio is largely dependent on hepatic blood flow, with most of the drug being removed from the blood as it flows through the liver (so- called perfusion-limited clearance). Midazolam undergoes extensive oxidation by hepatic enzymes to form water-soluble hydroxylated metabolites, which are excreted in the urine. The hepatic clearance rate of midazolam is five times greater than lorazepam and 10 times greater than diazepam. Although changes in liver blood flow can affect the clearance of midazolam, age has relatively little influence on midazolam's elimination half-life.......... Paul's anaesthesia 5th/pg. 338.Some Drugs with Significant Renal Excretion Encountered in Anesthesiology# Aminoglycosides# Quinolones# Cephalosporins# Digoxin# Procainamide# Atenolol# Edrophonium# Pyridostigmine# Nadolol# Neostigmine# Penicillins# Pancuronium# Doxacurium# Pipecuronium# Rocuronium# Enflurane6
Anaesthesia
Muscle Relaxant
263eae65-cb62-4f27-aff6-9f5f30dcec24
Portal vein formed by the union of-
Splenic and inferior mesenteric veins
Splenic and superior mesenteric veins
Right and left hepatic veins
Hepatic and splenic veins
1b
single
The portal vein is formed by the union of the superior mesentric and splenic veins behind the neck of the pancreas.
Anatomy
null
882dd7e1-e64a-4921-a0ac-ad7402d5cc8e
Drug of choice for idiopathic intracranial hypeension
Acetazolamide
Glycerol
Mannitol
Dexamethasone
0a
single
Idiopathic intracranial hypeension is treated with acetazolamide. It should not be given in first trimester, in rest of the peroids it is safe. This condition worsens during pregnancy due to weight gain. Reference : Harrison20th edition pg 2334
Medicine
C.N.S
1645fa7d-5eb1-480b-a019-639ad8b19c0a
Not a common feature of Duchene muscular dystrophy is?
X- linked recessive
Gower sign positive
Distal muscle involvement
Pseudo hypertrophy
2c
single
ANSWER: (C) Distal muscle involvementREF: Nelson's 18th ed p. 2541Duchene muscular dystrophy is the most common hereditary neuromuscular disease affecting all races and ethnic groups. The abnormal gene is on the X chromosome at the Xp21 locus and is one of the largest genes identified.Becker muscular dystrophy is the same fundamental disease as Duchene dystrophy, with a genetic defect at the same locus, but clinically it follows a milder and more protracted course.Duchene recognized most of the characteristic clinical features in 1861: hypertrophy of the calves, progressive weakness, intellectual impairment, and proliferation of connective tissue in muscleClinical featuresGower's sign positivePseudo hypertrophy of calvesLoss of muscle strength is progressiveProximal muscles and neck flexors are involved moreLeg involvement more severe than armContractures of heels and illiotibial tract by 6 yrs. AgeProgressive scoliosis ComplicationsCardiomyopathy and CHFIntellectual impairmentChest deformity
Pediatrics
Genetic Approach to Pediatric Medicine
9051181f-97dd-4003-84c6-7850115507b1
Actions of cholecystokinin include all of the following except
Contraction of gall bladder
Secretion of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes
Increases the secretion of enterokinase
Stimulate gastric emptying
3d
multi
Functions of CCK (a) Contraction of gall bladder (b) Secretion of the pancreatic juice rich in enzyme (c) Augments the action of secretin producing secretion an alkaline pancreatic juice. (d) Inhibits gastric emptying (e) Exes a trophic effect on the pancreas (f) Causes the secretion of enterokinase (g) Enhance, the motility of the small intestine (h) Augments the contraction of pyloric sphincter
Anatomy
All India exam
78c54d1d-e8f2-476f-b14f-e0079f78c301
Increased CVP and PWP is seen in which shock
Cardiogenic
Neurogenic
Hypovolemic
Septic
0a
single
Cardiogenic shock (CS) is characterized by systemic hypoperfusion due to severe depression of the cardiac index and sustained systolic aerial hypotension (<90 mmHg) despite an elevated filling pressure . It is associated with in-hospital moality rates >50%. .Circulatory failure based on cardiac dysfunction may be caused by primary myocardial failure, most commonly secondary to acute myocardial infarction (MI) , and less frequently by cardiomyopathy or myocarditis , cardiac tamponade , or critical valvular hea disease . ( Harrison&;s principle of internal medicine,18th edition,pg no.2232 )
Pathology
Cardiovascular system
9e74f0ef-fbc3-4c21-bdfe-bcc98d3c0e96
All are true regarding direct standardization except:
Age specific death rate is required for comparison
Age composition of population is required
Vital statistics are required
Without knowledge of the age compositions, the two populations can be compared
3d
multi
Without knowledge of the composition , the two population can be compared Standardization is carried out by one of the method direct or indirect standardization. Both the method being by choosing a standard population. 1st step : Standard population is selected (standard population is defined as one for which the number in each age and sex group are known). It means age composition are known. 2nd step : Age specific rate is applied on standard population whose crude death rate is to be adjusted or standardized. As a result for each group an excepted number of death ( or event) in the standard population is obtained, these are added for all age group to give the total expected death. Finally : Divide the excepted total number of death by the total of the standard population. This yield standardized or age adjusted rate. Without removing confounding factor (age, sex etc.) two population can't be compared for this reason age composition is required. Note: vital statistics ( death rate, bih rate etc.) is required for direct standardization.
Surgery
null
7117d200-3ace-4897-95c2-73bc7d333f87
In primary pulmonary hypeension basic abnormality in gene lies in
>Bone morphogenetic protein receptor II
>Endothelin
>Homeobox gene
>PAX-11
0a
single
Bone morphogenetic protein receptor II Mutation in the bone morphogenetic protein receptor-2 (BMPR-II) cause pulmonary aerial hypeension. The BMPR-II gene plays a role in regulating the number of cells in ceain tissues. Researchers suggest that a mutation in this gene promotes cell division or prevents cell death, resulting in an overgrowth of cells in small aeries throughout the lungs. As a result, these aeries narrow in diameter which increases the resistance to blood flow. The blood pressure in the pulmonary aery and the right ventricle of the hea increases to overcome the increased resistance to blood flow resulting in pulmonary hypeension.
Surgery
null
4e526cdf-e122-484d-a96a-c391d1e4cab5
Which immunoglobulin is elevated in a case of chronic allergy?
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgG
2c
multi
Ans. (c) IgERef: Owen Kuby - Immunology - 8th ed - page 487* Allergy (Type I hypersensitivity) is always IgE mediated, both in acute and chronic.* Eg: Hay fever, Asthma* Different examples for allergies (Ref: Kuby)Immune basis for some food allergiesDisorderSymptomsCommon triggerNotes about mechanismIgE mediated (acute)Hives (urticaria)Wheal and flare swellings triggered by ingestion or skin contactMultiple foods Oral allergyItchiness, swelling of mouthFruits, vegetablesDue to sensitization by inhaled pollens, producing IgE that cross-reacts with food proteinsAsthma, rhinitisRespiratory distressInhalation of aerosolized food proteinsMast-cell mediatedAnaphylaxisRapid, multiorgan inflammation that can result in cardiovascular failurePeanuts, tree nuts, fish, shell-fish, milk, etc. Exercise-induced anaphylaxisAs above, but occurs when one exercises after eating trigger foodsWheat, shellfish, celery (may be due to changes in gut absorption associated with exercise) IgE and cell mediated (chronic)Atopic dermatitisRash (often in children)Egg/ milk, wheat, soy, etc.May be skin T cell mediatedGastrointestina inflammationPain, weight loss, edema, and/or obstructionMultiple foodsEosinophil mediatedCell mediated (chronic)Intestinal inflammation brought about by dietary protein (e.g., enterocolitis, proctitis)Most often seen in infants: diarrhea, poor growth, and/or bloody stoolsCow's milk (directly or via breast milk), soy, grainsTNF- a mediatedCourtesy: S. H. Sicherer and H. A. Sampson, 2009 Food allergy, Annual Review of Medicine 60: 261-277.
Microbiology
Immunology
1c8e59ec-4a4c-4648-a0ca-3426f8044180
Primary feature of small intestinal obstruction ?
Fever
High peristalsis with colic
Abdominal distension
Empty rectum
1b
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., High peristalsis with colic
Surgery
null
9b2eb159-fdfb-4d37-adce-ad66e4849c4a
The base of the heart is mainly formed by the -
Right atrium
Left atrium
Left ventricle
Right ventricle
1b
single
Base of heart is formed by left and right atria. But the major part of it is by left atrium.
Anatomy
null
92d3a7c9-7665-4791-9c40-25bef4c5ef61
A patient with head injury, Glass Gow coma scale 8, having mid-face fracture, Cyanoses and decreased breathing with frequent apnea and low oxygen management, the method of airway maintenance is?
Oropharyngeal airway
Orotracheal airway
Nasotracheal airway
Cricothyrotorny
3d
single
null
Surgery
null
1d525f41-5d6e-4b7d-9bfa-4691854b2640
Histidine is present at the catalytic site of which of the following enzymes
Hexokinase
Carboxypeptidase
Trypsin
All of the above
3d
multi
Active center of enzymes:- Name of enzyme Impoant amino acid at the catalytic site Chymotrypsin His(57), Asp(102), Ser(195) Trypsin Serine, Histidine Thrombin Serine,Histidine Phosphoglucomutase Serine Alkaline phosphatase Serine Carbonic anhydrase Cysteine Hexokinase Histidine Carboxypeptidase Histidine,Arginine,Tyrosine Aldolase Lysine
Biochemistry
Enzyme basics and serine proteases
5d4ccf15-82e4-4676-a8fd-459387b107ae
Side-effect(s) of Zoledronic acid is/are all except:
Flu-like symptoms
Osteonecrosis of the jaw
Dizziness
Constipation
3d
multi
Ans. D. ConstipationZoledronate:Flu-like symptoms due to cytokine release attend the i.v infusionNausea, vomiting, bodyache, dizziness are commonRenal toxicity has been encounteredOsteonecrosis of Jaw is a rare complication of i.v high dose
Pharmacology
null