id
stringlengths
36
36
question
stringlengths
1
1.57k
opa
stringlengths
1
287
opb
stringlengths
1
287
opc
stringlengths
1
286
opd
stringlengths
1
301
cop
class label
4 classes
choice_type
stringclasses
2 values
exp
stringlengths
1
22.5k
subject_name
stringclasses
21 values
topic_name
stringlengths
3
135
bc6cc514-4494-40a5-a310-46f380e4e9b3
In a case of myasthenia gravis, CT Chest shows anterior mediastinal mass. Diagnosis is?
Retrosternal goiter
Thymic Hyperplasia
Hilar Lymphadenopathy
Aoic Aneurysm
1b
single
Thymus gland abnormalities are seen in 75% of anti-Ach Receptor positive antibodies patients. CT chest can identify a Thymic hyperplasia or a thymoma which though benign can produce mass effects.
Medicine
Myasthenia Gravis and Muscular dystrophy
7202e229-6acd-4cf0-815b-520b28087bd9
Infeility is a common feature in Seoli cell only syndrome, because:
Too many Seoli cells inhibit spermatogenesis , inhibin
Proper blood testis barrier is not established
There is no germ cells in this condition
Sufficient numbers of spermatozoa are not produced
2c
single
The absence of germ cell (Seoli Cell-only syndrome) causes infeility. The main characteristic of Seoli Cell, syndrome consists of testicular tubes that show a moderate decrease in diameter and are void of germ cells. Also the testes decrease in size and are azoospermia.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
dc7076ef-0f73-4cb4-bb0c-d810ecf716c7
By international agreement, low birth weight has been defined as a birth weight when measured within the first hour of life is
Less than 2000 grams
Less than 2800 grams
Less than 2500 grams
Less than 3000 grams
2c
single
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
0a631a65-b2a8-417e-9fa8-25cbb3cea67f
Leukemoid reaction is seen in:
Acute infection
Erythroleukemia
Myelomatosis
Hemorrhage
0a
single
Acute infection Persistent neutrophilia of 30,000-50,000 cells/ul, or greater is known as leukemoid reaction. It is a term used to distinguish this degree of neutrophilia from leukemia. In a leukemoid reaction, the circulating neutrophils are mature and not cion ally derived. leukemoid reaction is seen in ACUTE INFECTIONS in children.
Surgery
null
19bb13e5-9ee5-4a3f-ae0b-175a1394f300
8 year old boy has itchy rash all over the body, all family members are affected. What is the drug of choice-
Ivermectin
Topic permethrin
Prednisolone
Antibiotics
1b
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Topic permethrin This boy is having scabies. Topical permethrin is the DOC for scabies Treatment of scabies Scabicide Method of use Topical Permethrin (5%) - Drug of choice Single aplication of 12 hour. Gamma benzen hexachloride BHC 1% Single application for a hour Benzyl-Bezoate (25%) Three applications at 12 hourly intervals Crotamiton (10%) Two application daily 14 days o Malathion (0.5%) Oral Ivermectin Single dose 200 mg/kg body-weight, repeat after 2 weeks Note : BHC is not safe in pregnancy and children (< 2 years) as it can cause neurotoxicity
Skin
null
89271b82-5494-43bc-b829-37532a691e64
18 month old child presents with both eyes adducted. What is the first thing for diagnosis?
Examination under anaesthesia
Refractive error examination
Forced duction testing
Fundus examination
0a
multi
Given the age of the child in question, any test has to be performed under anesthesia(EUA), since the child will not cooperate for any examination. During EUA: Refractive error examination is done to rule out hypermetropia as a cause of B/L adduction. Force duction test is used for diagnosis of Restrictive strabismus (eg Duane's retraction syndrome).
Ophthalmology
Optics and Errors of Refraction
e3526c05-6d71-481a-9cfa-815970095fe4
A screening test applied for colon cancer. Total population taken is 1000. Test is positive in 320 and test is negative in 680. 60 people actually had the disease among 320 and 20 had disease among the 680. Calculate positive predictive value.
12%
81%
75%
28%
1b
multi
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
c5f1975b-62fe-4abe-b10b-c4a7cb61fc73
All of the following are true about para hemophilia except?
Due to fracture V deficiency
X-link recessive
Prolonged PTT and PT
All are true
1b
multi
Ans. B. X-link recessivea. Deficiency of factor V is an autosomal recessive, mild to moderate bleeding disorder that has also been termed parahemophilia. Hemarthroses occur rarely; mucocutaneous bleeding and hematomas are the most common symptoms.b. Severe menorrhagia is a frequent symptom in women. Laboratory evaluation shows prolonged PTT and PT. specific assays for factor V show a reduction in factor V levels.c. FFP is the only currently available therapeutic product that contains factor V. Factor V is lost rapidly from stored FFP.d. Patients with severe factor V deficiency are treated with infusions of FFP at 10mL/kg every 12hr. Rarely, a patient with a negative family history of bleeding has an acquired antibody to factor V. Often, these patients do not bleed because the factor V in platelets prevents excessive bleeding.
Medicine
Blood
d2c700bc-cfcf-409d-aeb5-ae3bea364662
Gardner syndrome is associated with all of the following except: March 2010
Intestinal polyps
Osteomas
Dental abnormalities
Tumors of the CNS
3d
multi
Tumors of the CNS Gardner syndrome is a variant of the disease 'familial adenomatous polyposis' (FAP), an inherited disease that is characterised by gastrointestinal polyps, multiple osteomas (benign bone tumours), thyroid tumors, dental abnormalities and skin and soft tissue tumours. Polyps tend to form at pubey with the average age of diagnosis around 25 years of age. In almost all patients, polyps will progress to malignancy, resulting in colorectal cancer so that timely detection is essential. Clinical features of Gardner syndrome can be divided into two types, cutaneous and non-cutaneous. The most noticeable cutaneous feature of Gardner syndrome is the appearance of epidermoid cysts. These cysts can be differentiated from ordinary epidermoid cysts by the following factors: - Epidermoid cysts of Gardner syndrome occur at an earlier age (around pubey) than ordinary cysts - Epidermoid cysts occur in less common locations such as the face, scalp and extremities compared to ordinary cysts - Cysts tend to be multiple in over half of the patients with Gardner syndrome As with ordinary epidermoid cysts, cysts in Gardner syndrome are usually asymptomatic (without symptoms), however in some cases they may be pruritic (itchy) and/or inflamed, and they may rupture. Other cutaneous features include fibromas, lipomas, leiomyomas, neurofibromas and pigmented skin lesions. Non-cutaneous features include: - Gastrointestinal polyps that nearly always transform into colonic adenocarcinomas (colon cancer). - Osteomas - these benign bone tumours are essential in making the diagnosis of Gardner syndrome. They occur most commonly in the mandible (jawbone) but may also grow in the skull and long bones. - Dental abnormalities - as well as osteomas in the jaw there may be other dental abnormalities such as unerupted extra teeth and caries - Multifocal pigmented lesions of the fundus in the eye - seen in 80% of patients. These lesions may be present sholy after bih and can be the first marker of the disease.
Pathology
null
5059e3cf-3d27-4cce-bf00-f2c58509db71
Karyotyping is done in which phase of cell cycle?
Anaphase
Metaphase
Telophase
S phase
1b
single
Karyotyping The study of chromosomes Procedure to examine chromosomes is to arrest dividing cells in metaphase with mitotic spindle inhibitors (e.g., N-diacetyl-N-methylcolchicine ) and then to stain (Giemsa stain) the chromosomes. In a metaphase spread, the individual chromosomes take the form of two chromatids connected at the centromere.
Pathology
Introduction
0a9f1898-d816-499b-9320-ab8513dd80d7
All of the following are pa of the ASEPSIS wound grading except ?
serous discharge
purulent exudate
Induration
Erythema
2c
multi
REF : BAILEY AND LOVE 27TH ED.
Surgery
All India exam
31969b46-11cd-41e3-ad79-59aaa20e9eae
Muscle stapedius is supplied by which nerve?
VII Cranial nerve
VIII Cranial nerv
IX Cranial nerve
X Cranial nerve
0a
single
(A) VII Cranial nerve # Stapedius lies in a bony canal that is related to the posterior wall of the middle ear.> Stapedius is supplied by the facial nerve (VII CN).> It develops from the mesoderm of the second branchial arch.
Medicine
Miscellaneous
fe4e0427-7824-47b7-baea-c4b3b9a6af21
Teeth with a maximum mesiodistal inclination is:
Maxillary canines.
Mandibular lateral incisor.
Mandibular canine.
Maxillary central incisor.
0a
single
17 degrees is the maximum mesiodistal inclination of maxillary canines.
Dental
null
60dcb59b-b06f-44e5-af06-bbbd894224c6
During incision & drainage of ischiorectal abscess, which nerve is/are affected/injured :
Superior rectal nerve
Inferior rectal nerve
Superior gluteal nerve
Inferior gluteal nerve
1b
single
Ans: B (Inferior rectal nerve) Fig: Coronal section through the ischiorectal fossa"Ilioinguinal nerve, supply the skin of external genitalia & upper part of the medial side of the thigh"- BDC4th/Vol. II 196Ischioanal Fossa (formerly called ischiorectal fossa)It is somewhat prismatic in shape, with its base directed to the surface of the perineum, and its apex at the line of meeting of the obturator and anal fasciae.Contents of the Ischiorectal fossaIschiorectal pad of fatInferior rectal nerve and vessels.Posterior scrotal / posterior labial nerve and vessels.Pudendal canal and its contentsfpudendal nerve & internal pudendal vessel)Perineal branch of fourth sacral nerve.Perforating cutaneous branch ofS2, S3 nerve
Anatomy
Large Intestine, Rectum, and Anal canal
529280fe-4f2d-4d71-8f56-82c8b01cff21
All are true regarding LH surge except
LH surge acts rapidly on both granulosa and theca cells of preovulatory follicle
LH surge initiates re - entry of oocyte into meiosis
Ovulation occurs 24 hours after LH surge
Mean duration of LH surge is 48 hours
2c
multi
Ovulation occurs 36 to 40 hours after the onset of LH surge.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
2d2a801d-9774-4e10-b673-7eb03bc63bae
Relative afferent pupillary defect is characteristically seen In damage to
Optic nerve
Optic tract
Lateral geniculate body
Occulomotor nerve
0a
multi
For testing relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD), a strong, steady light is used. The light is shined into one eye, and then quickly switched to the other. This is repeated back and forth, until one of four conclusions is reached (listed below). Since light in one pupil causes both pupils to constrict, quickly switching from one eye to the other will give a "relative" indication of the functioning of each eye and optic nerve. If both eyes are equally dysfunctional, no "relative" defect would be found.
Ophthalmology
null
83de2c7b-d463-4924-9608-39d00af7bef1
Argyll Robeson Pupil results from the lesion of:
Accessory ganglion
Ciliary ganglion
Tectum region
Lateral geniculate body
2c
single
Ans. Tectum region
Ophthalmology
null
d1234aa5-046c-4c25-b214-e9a6fd761bbd
HCV virus is ?
Enveloped DNA
Enveloped RNA
Nonenveloped DNA
Nonenveloped RNA
1b
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hepatitis C virus is a small, enveloped, positive-sense single-stranded RNA virus of the family Flaviviridae.
Microbiology
null
5879c813-efc2-4d05-9f29-0f37583a35e3
Late onset endothalmitis after lens implantation is caused by -
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Pseudomonas
Streptococcus pyogenes
Propionibacterium acne
0a
single
Coagulase-negative staphylococci are the most common causes of post-cataractendophthalmitis, and these bacteria and viridans streptococci cause most cases of post-intravitreal anti-VEGF injectionendophthalmitis, Bacillus cereus is a majorcause of post-traumatic endophthalmitis, and Staphylococcus aureus and ... Ref khurana 6/e
Ophthalmology
Uveal tract
6faed742-3b8f-420e-92ff-deada3427da8
Emptying of stomach is facilitated by: September 2012
Secretin
CCK-PZ
GIP
Gastrin
3d
single
Ans. D i.e. GastrinGastrinIt is a peptide hormone that stimulates secretion of gastric acid (HC1) by the parietal cells of the stomach and aids in gastric motility.It is released by G cells in the antrum of the stomach (the poion of the stomach adjacent the pyloric valve), duodenum, and the pancreas.Its release is stimulated by peptides in the lumen of the stomach.
Physiology
null
ed7874d7-1cec-4e57-b8db-1e66941078de
Thiamine deficiency is known to occur in all of the following except -
Food Faddist
Homocystenemia
Chronic alcoholic
Chronic heart failure patient of diuretics
1b
multi
null
Medicine
null
5861306d-eb22-41c1-bdf2-6e4df46082b5
Vitamin K is required for:
Hydroxylation
Chelation
Transamination
Carboxylation
3d
single
Vit k Act as coenzyme in Carboxylation of clotting factor 2,7,9,10 Only fat-soluble vitamin with coenzyme function. 3 forms k1-phyloquinone k2-menaquinone k3-manadione (water soluble)-synthetic form Deficiency lead to hemorrhagic disease of new born Prophylactic administration of Vit k for all new born advised
Biochemistry
FMGE 2018
1fdd0993-7879-45a6-832c-9d2c494036d8
True about lower motor neuron palsy of Vllth nerve:
Other motor cranial nerves also involves
Melkersson's syndrome cause recurrent paralysis
Eye protection done
All
3d
multi
Most common cause of lower motor neuron (LMN) type of facial palsy is Bell's palsy. Melkersson's syndrome consists of a triad of: (i) Facial paralysis, (ii) Swelling of lips, (iii) Fissured tongue, Paralysis may be recurrent. As patient is unable to close the eye, eye protection is required to protect cornea and conjunctiva. The prognosis in acute facial palsy can be accurately determined by serial electrical testing.The response to electrical tests have been found to be most useful in the first 5 days after the onset.
ENT
null
b8ea087a-9cbf-4ef1-a2ce-82948c4cdc2a
A female child presents with developmental delay, nasal obstruction, large head and hearing effect. On examination hepatosplenomegaly was present. ECHO was suggestive of cardiac valve fibrosis. What is the likely diagnosis?
Hunter syndrome
Hurler syndrome
Tay-Sachs disease
Gaucher disease
1b
single
The above findings in a female child suggests Hurler syndrome.
Pediatrics
null
e2218c9c-0102-4953-b3f9-21eb19ac88a9
The transitory structures that may be seen during early tooth development are
Enamel Knot
Enamel Navel
Enamel Cord
All of the above
3d
multi
null
Dental
null
64c4a70e-2841-4bbe-b2ad-a8f6a71fe2aa
In Peripaum cardiomyopathy, cardiac failure can develop anytime during
Anytime during antenatal period
Only during third trimester
Only during 6 weeks postpaum
Last month of pregnancy or within 5 months after delivery
3d
single
Diagnostic criteria for peripaum cardiomyopathy: Development of cardiac failure in the last month of pregnancy or within 5 months after deliveryThe absence of an identifiable cause for the cardiac failure, The absence of recognizable hea disease prior to the last month of pregnancy, and Left ventricular systolic dysfunction demonstrated by classic echocardiographic criteria, such as depressed ejection fraction or fractional shoening along with a dilated left ventricle (Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition)
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
All India exam
ad960b34-2996-4c84-8f91-058f709fa786
The blood cell most likely to be involved in phagocytosing bacteria at sites of infection is the leukocyte which in blood smears:
Is the smallest
Is the least frequently observed
Has the greatest number of nuclear lobes
Has a bilobed nucleus and eosinophilic granules
2c
multi
The white blood cell(leukocyte)with the largest number of lobes in its nucleus is the neutrophil (also called the polymorphonuclear leukocyte). Mature neutrophils have a minimum of 3 lobes to their nucleus. These cells are specialized for phagocytosis and killing of bacteria and hence this is the correct answer for this question. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 31. Blood as a Circulatory Fluid & the Dynamics of Blood & Lymph Flow. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e.
Physiology
null
6eb92364-6bae-46a7-a40b-7bb6a6168ae0
One of the risks of the endometrial biopsy that was performed on this patient is perforation of the uterus. The endometrial biopsy device is placed through the cervix and into the endometrial cavity. If complete perforation occurs, what is the sequence of layers that the biopsy device would penetrate prior to entering the peritoneal cavity?
Endometrium, myometrium, serosa
Ovary, fallopian tube, broad ligament
Round ligament, cardinal ligament, uterosacral ligament
Serosa, myometrium, endometrium
0a
multi
The uterus is a hollow, muscular organ that lies between the bladder and the rectum in the true pelvis. The uterus can be divided into three major segments: the uterine fundus, the uterine corpus (or body), and the cervix. The fallopian tubes enter the uterine fundus laterally in the region called the cornua. Moving from the inside (or hollow) poion of the uterus to the peritoneal cavity, the layers that would be penetrated are the endometrium, the myometrium, and the serosa. The endometrium is the poion of the uterus that proliferates during the menstrual cycle and sheds (the menses) if pregnancy does not occur, or suppos the pregnancy if conception and implantation take place. The myometrium is comprised of three layers: an inner layer of longitudinal smooth muscle, a middle layer of circular smooth muscle (the stratum vasculare), and an outer layer of longitudinal and circular smooth muscle (the stratum supervascularae). The final layer is the uterine serosa. The ovary, fallopian tube, and broad ligament are found posterolateral to the uterus. A biopsy device that perforated the uterus could also injure these structures, but the direct path of perforation is through the endometrium, myometrium, and serosa. Note: The round ligament, cardinal ligament, and uterosacral ligament are suppoing structures attached to the uterus. Again, while a perforating biopsy instrument could possibly involve these structures, this would not be the direct path of perforation. The serosa, myometrium, and endometrium are the correct structures that would be perforated, but they are in the wrong order. Staing within the uterus, the first layer is the endometrium, next is the myometrium and finally the serosa. Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology, 13th Ed Page 7-10
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
8d83d5f8-93a4-4692-83e4-deee80a9d068
Increased intercondylar distance is seen in fracture of all, EXCEPT:
Olecranon
Medial epicondyle
Lateral epicondyle
Lateral condyle
0a
multi
Intercondylar distance is increased in Fractures of medial epicondyle/condyle Fracture lateral epicondyle/condyle Fracture intercondylar humerus. Ref: Apley's 8/e, Page 596-609.
Surgery
null
a31a9376-3dad-4b02-9e91-4b5c261a2e8d
A 50-year-old male presented to the ER with acute onset of chest pain which was retrosternal and radiated to the back along with dysphagia, regurgitation and heaburn. Patient gave history of similar episodes of chest pain in the past as well. Barium swallow and esophageal manometric studies were performed. ECG of the patient was normal. Manometry study revealed, 1. Aperistalsis in greater than 30% of the wet swallows with 20% of contractions being simultaneous 2. Amplitudes greater than 30 mm Hg in the distal three fifths of the esophagus Which of the following drugs can be used in the above condition to relieve the symptoms: -
Sildenafil
Botulinum
Octreotide
Terlipressin
0a
multi
This is a case of DES (Diffuse esophageal spasm). Normal ECG rules out MI. Diffuse esophageal spasm has a characteristic appearance of multiple simultaneous contractions causing a corkscrew appearance with segmentation. Multiple uncoordinated contractions in the third tracing from the distal esophagus is seen in manometry. Sildenafil, a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, is a smooth muscle relaxant that can lower the LES pressure and spastic contractions of the esophagus. Definitive treatment is myotomy guided by a manometric evidence.n
Unknown
Integrated QBank
7e3d608a-fd80-4ca9-bc55-873d961d55c6
All are actions of coisol on the skin and connective tissue except
Antiproliferative for fibroblasts
Antiproliferative for keratinocytes
Loss of collagen
Hyperpigmentation
3d
multi
It is antiproliferative for fibroblasts and keratinocytes. Glucocoicoids in excess inhibit fibroblasts, lead to loss of collagen and connective tissue, and thus result in thinning of the skin, easy bruising, stria formation, and poor wound healing. Hyperpigmentation is a direct effect of ACTH on melanocoin 1 receptors.
Physiology
Endocrinology
cad616d6-39c0-4542-bd06-9090c99b728b
An elderly patient presents with itchy tense blisters on normal looking skin as well as on urticarial plaques as shown below. The most probable diagnosis is:
Pemphigus vulgaris
Linear IgA disease
Bullous pemphigoid
Dermatitis herpetiformis
2c
single
Ans. (c) Bullous pemphigoid.
Skin
Pemphigoid Group
5db064ce-0101-4b93-91d4-f21702b43430
New born is fed in the following way at what gestational age
30 weeks
33 weeks
27 weeks
34 weeks
0a
single
The given image shows Nasogastric tube feeding which is done during 28 - 31 weeks Gestational age Preferred feeding method < 28 weeks iv fluids + Total parenteral nutrition 28 -31 weeks Orogastric/ nasogastric tube feeding 32 -34 weeks Paladai / Katori spoon feed  > 34 weeks Direct breast feeding
Pediatrics
null
a75e65ac-c4c3-4cd7-84d3-421270f59c0d
Atalanto axial joint is -
Pivot joint
Bicondylar
Ball & Socket
Ellipsoid joint
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pivot joint o There are two important synovial joints involving atlas -i) Atlantoaxial joint - Pivot jointii) Atlantooccipital joint - BicondylarjointClassification of JointsA. Fibrous jointso Lack intervening cartilage and hence have restricted mobility.1. Gomphosis2. Syndesmosis: Dento-alveolar peg: Inferior tibiofibular joint Posterior part of sacroiliac joint Interosseous membrane of forearm3. Schindylesis: Vomer - sphenoidal rostrum junction4. Sutures of the skullB. Cartilagenous jointso These are of 2 types depending on intervening cartilage.I. Primary cartilaginous joints (Synchondrosis/Hyaline cartilage joints)1. Spheno-occipitaljoint2. Growth plate3. Costochondral joint4. 1st chondrostemal jointII. Secondary cartilaginous joints (Symphyses / fibrocartilagenous joints)Fibrocartilage is interposed between bone ends covered with articular hyaline cartilage.All of them occur in midline.1. Symphysis menti2. Pubic symphysis3. Sacrococcygeal joint4. Intervertebral joint5. Manubriostemal joint6. Xiphisternal jointC Synovial jointsI. Uniaxial1. Plane/Flatjoint2 Hinge joints3. Pivotjoint- Acromioclavicular joint Intermetatarsal joints- Elbow joint- Atlantoaxial joint Superior radioulnar jointII. Biaxial1. Bicondylar (condyloid joint)- Knee joint Temporomandibular joint Atlanto occipital joint2. Ellipsoid joint- Wrist joint Metacarpophalangeal joint3. Saddle joint- 1st carpo-metacarpal j oint Sternoclavicular joint Calcaneocuboid joint Anklejoint Incudomalleolar jointIII. MultiaxialBall and socket joint- Shoulder Hip Incudostapedial joint Talo-calcaneo-navicular joint
Anatomy
Osteology of Head and Neck
a38a457c-ccf3-41f8-8f91-453da431cbf2
Not a feature of CBD stone:
Pain
Fever
Jaundice
Septic shock
3d
single
Ans. (d) Septic shock* Septic Shock happens only when Charcot's triad of Cholangitis is not properly managed* Charcot's triad + Septic Shock + Altered mental Status = Reynauld's Pentad
Surgery
Gall Bladder & Bile Ducts
e5743f05-57fe-4319-aa80-6611df79a52c
The common cause of bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia is:
Multiple sclerosis
Lead toxicity
Diphtheria
Diabetes mellitus
0a
single
Ans. Multiple sclerosis
Ophthalmology
null
90275790-d503-470e-8d6e-636692bab90d
DNA onchogenic viruses are all EXCEPT:
HTLV
Adenovirus
EBV
HPV
0a
multi
ANSWER: (A) HTLVREF: Robbins 7th ed p.324Oncogenic DNA VirusesVirusDiseaseCancerPapova viridae Papilloma virus (some)Warts, including STD genital wartsUterine (cervical) cancerHerpes viridaeLymphocryptovirus (Epstein-Barr virus)Infectious mononucleosisBurkitt's lymphoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Hodgkin's diseaseHepadna virus Hepatitis B virus(HBV)Hepatitis B (infectious hepatitis)Liver cancerAdenoviridaeAcute respiratory disease; Common coldAdenocarcinomas (cancer of glandular epithelial tissues)PoxviridaeSmallpox; cowpoxMiscellaneous Oncogenic RNA Viruses of the Family RetroviridaeVirusCancerHuman T-celt leukemia virus (HTLV-1; HTLV-2)Adult T-cell leukemiaLymphomaSarcoma viruses of cats, chickens, rodentsSarcomas (cancer of connective tissues)Mammary tumor virus of miceMammary gland tumorsFeline leukemia virus (FeLV)Feline leukemia
Pathology
Etiology: Carcinogenic Agents
1201e6c5-5070-45c8-b141-3c3f0c2754d1
A newborn with respiratory distress was noted to have marked nasal flaring, audible grunting, minimal intercostal chest retarction. The respiratory rate was 30/min. The Silverman score of this child would be? NOT RELATED- MEDICINE
1
2
3
6
3d
single
.
Pharmacology
All India exam
05f481ee-eef2-4280-ab44-a8bdd9f37293
Artery palpable at the anterior border of masseter is _________ artery
Maxillary
Facial
Lingual
Superficial temporal
1b
single
null
Anatomy
null
0a0188c7-f186-4c2d-86da-bde3f0872faf
In lesion of the right hypoglossal nucleus, the tip of the tonge on protrusion turns to ?
Left side because of paralysis of left side tongue mscles
Right side because of paralysis of right side tongue mscles
Right side because of the unopposed action of left geniglossus muscle
Left side because of the unopposed action of left geniglossus muscle
2c
single
Lesion of hypoglossal nucleus: Lesion of the hypoglossal nucleus, there is ATROPHY of the muscles of the IPSILATERAL one-half of the tongue. This is a lower motor neuron lesion. Upon closer examination, FASCICULATIONS (tiny, spontaneous contractions) can be seen. Both fasciculations and atrophy result from the loss of the normal innervation of the muscle by the lower motor neurons in the hypoglossal nucleus. Upon protrusion, the tongue will dete TOWARD the side of the lesion (i.e., same side). This is due to the unopposed action of the genioglossus muscle on the normally innervated side of the tongue (the genioglossus pulls the tongue forward). Ref: Snells Clinical anatomy, 6th Edition, Page 736, 737.
Anatomy
null
483d3b98-c1f8-4c6b-bfad-2b24a05a663e
Increased level of which of the following indicates contamination of water
Nitrates
Nitrites
Ammonia
Chloride
2c
single
Ammonia in water is an indicator of bacterial, sewage and animal pollution. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th edition, Page No. 779
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
5ca038f8-ceb4-42e3-9781-56a67e2d9bd7
The (EEG) curves are called:
Delta curves
Berger's Rhythm
Berger's Rhythm
REM Rhythm
1b
multi
B i.e. Berger's rhythm
Physiology
null
c328ee6d-ee55-491e-9e06-681613c1c8ea
True about hemochromatosis
Mutation of C282Y
More common in women than in men
Cannot be treated with phlebotomy
Fully penetrant
0a
multi
Heridetary hemochromatosis The disease is caused by increased absorption of dietary iron and is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. Approximately 90% of patients are homozygous for a single point mutation resulting in a cysteine to tyrosine substitution at position 282 (C282Y) in the HFE protein, which has structural and functional similarity to the HLA proteins. The mechanisms by which HFE regulates iron absorption are unclear. It is believed, however, that HFE normally interacts with the transferrin receptor in the basolateral membrane of intestinal epithelial cells. In HHC, it is thought that the lack of functional HFE causes a defect in uptake of transferrin-associated iron, leading to up-regulation of enterocyte iron-specific divalent metal transpoers and excessive iron absorption. A histidine-to-aspaic acid mutation at position 63 (H63D) in HFE causes a less severe form of haemochromatosis that is most commonly found in patients who are compound heterozygotes also carrying a C282Y mutated allele. Fewer than 50% of C282Y homozygotes will develop clinical features of haemochromatosis; therefore other factors must also be impoant. HHC may promote accelerated liver disease in patients with alcohol excess or hepatitis C infection. Iron loss in menstruation and pregnancy can delay the onset of HHC in females. Ref Davidspns 23e p895
Medicine
Immune system
ddef2031-f2d6-402a-962c-ffd37393a70c
A woman has had history of off and on repeated 1st trimester bleeding episodes. She is now 28 weeks of gestation, while prognosticating her about further pregnancy outcome, she is told to have increased risk of?
Preterm labor
IUGR
Abruption
All of the above
3d
multi
Ans. D. All of the aboveAdverse Outcomes That Are Increased in Women with Threatened AbortionMaternalPerinatalPlacenta previaPlacental abruptionManual removal of placentaCesarean deliveryPreterm ruptured membranesPreterm birthLow-birthweight infantFetal-growth restrictionFetal and neonatal death
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical & Surgical Illness Complication Pregnancy
9963b914-b52e-4679-bbed-fd3efa2c2b1c
Which of the following tumours is associated with defect during gastrulation?
Wilm's tumour
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
Astrocytoma
None of the above
1b
multi
Sometimes, remnants of the primitive streak persist in the sacrococcygeal region. These clusters of pluripotent cells proliferate and form tumors, known as sacrococcygeal teratomas that commonly contain tissues derived from all three germ layers. This is the most common tumor in newborns, occurring with a frequency of one in 37,000. These tumors may also arise from primordial germ cells that fail to migrate to the gonadal ridge Ref: Langman's embryology 11th edition Chapter 5.
Anatomy
null
76f140ed-4cbd-422e-8b51-786391323748
In the mitogen activated protein kinase pathway, the activation of RAS is counteracted by-
Protein kinase C
GTPase activating protein
Phosphatidylinositol
Inositol triphosphate
1b
single
RAS protein is a signal transducing protein. Signal transducing proteins receive growth signals from outside the cell and transmit it to the nucleus. Normally RAS proteins are attached to the cytoplasmic aspect of the plasma membrane where they keep on converting between an active signal transmitting state and an inactive quiescent state. In the inactive state, the RAS proteins bind Guanosine diphosphate (GDP). When the cells are stimulated by growth factors or other receptor - ligand interactions, RAS becomes activated by exchanging GDP for GTP. This activates RAS then recruits raf - 1 and activates MAP-kinase pathway. The MAP kinases so activated target nuclear transcription factors and then they promote mitogenesis. The net result of this pathway is activation of protein phosphorylation cascade which amplifies the signal and stimulates quiescent cells to enter the growth cycle. In the normal cells the activated state of this RAS protein is transient because the normal RAS proteins have intrinsic GTPase activity. This GTPase activity hydrolyzes GTP to GDP and thus returns the RAS protein to its normal quiescent stage. Now, what is the role of GTPase activating proteins, (GAPS) in this pathway. The GTPase activating protien (GAPS) significantly accelarates the intrinsic GTPase activity of the active RAS protein. The (GAPs) bind to the active RAS and augment its GTPase activity by more than 1000 fold leading to rapid hydrolysis of GTP back to GDP. Thus GAPs function as brakes that prevents uncontrolled RAS activity. Mutation of the RAS protein causes cancer. Mutation in the RAS protein causes permanent activation of the RAS protein. The mutant RAS protein can bind to GAP but their GTPase activity fails to be augumented. Therefore the mutant RAS proteins are trapped in their excited GTP bound form. This causes pathological activation of mitogenic signalling pathway leading to continuous stimulation of cells without any external trigger. Cancers associated with RAS protein - Ca lung   Ca pancreas  Ca colon      Leukemias         Point mutation of RAS family genes is the single most common abnormality of oncogenes in human tumor.
Pathology
null
85da3e21-49ec-46bc-9e5d-ed1f2f522dcf
Which of the following is common side effect of cisplatin
Diarrhea
Vomiting
Pulmonary fibrosis
Alopecia
1b
single
Ref-KDT 6/e p827,828 Drug of choice for cisplatin induced vomiting is 5HT3 antagonist like ondansetron
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
b50933d7-f376-4f35-9abb-89fb41a2d650
Which of the following disorders is associated with pterygium of nails?
Psoriasis
Lichen planus
Tinea unguium
Alopecia areata
1b
single
When Lichen planus affects the nails, it causes scarring of the nail bed with early nail ridging and splitting later leading to pterygium formation. Pterygium of nail is scarring from the base of the nail outward in a V formation, which leads to loss of nail. Nail changes in psoriasis includes presence of irregular pits, oil spots, separation of nail plate from its bed, thickening and crumbling of nail plate. People with alopecia areata people have regular nail pits that form a pattern. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 52; The Merck Manual Home Health Handbook By Merck; The Landscape Makeover Book By Sara Jane Von Trapp, Page 122.
Skin
null
942bfce5-0dbb-46a8-8940-5294720b434c
A newborn has dribbling after feeds. He has respiratory distress and froths at the mouth. Diagnosis is –
Tracheoesophageal fistula
Tetralogy of fallot
Respiratory distress syndrome
None of the above
0a
multi
Tracheoesophageal fistula and esophageal atresia Esophageal atresia is the most common congenital anomaly of the esophagus. More than 90% are associated with tracheoesophageal fistula. The most common variety is the one where the upper part of esophagus ends blindly and the lower part is connected to trachea by a fistula. TEF should be suspected in all cases of hydramnios. There may be associated anomalies → VACTERL (vertebral, anorectal, cardiac, tracheal, esophageal, renal, radial, limb) syndrome. Presentations Frothing and bubbling at the mouth and nose. Coughing, cyanosis and respiratory distress. Feeding exacerbates these symptoms, cause regurgitation, and may precipitate aspiration. Aspiration of gastric contents via distal fistula can cause aspiration pneumonitis.
Pediatrics
null
1db2b26e-e339-4ecd-ba92-eb4029f50fe2
False about risk factor for stroke is
Diabetes
Anaemia
Heart failure
Alcohol
1b
multi
null
Medicine
null
f5ed1391-eea3-4acd-9b5d-a8d4d8a5254b
Nlicroaneu 'lestation ofdiabetic retii6;patily. Which uf Ling layer isinvolved in diabetic etinopathv?
Outer plexiform layer
Inner nuclear layer
Layer of rods and cones
Retinal pigment epithelium
1b
single
Ans. b. Inner nuclear layer
Ophthalmology
null
940903c6-6c33-4cd5-b6fa-148c4899d75c
All of the following dietary goals are recommended for patients with high risk of coronary hea disease, Except:
LDL cholesterol < 100 mg/dl
Saturated fat < 7 % of total calories
Salt restriction < 6 gm/day
Avoid Alcohol
1b
multi
Answer is B (<200) According to the ATP III Classification the desirable levels of total cholesterol are < 200mg/dI and optimal levels of LDL Cholesterol are < 100 mg/d1.
Medicine
null
481550d5-14b4-412f-83ac-8bb85c8398bf
Kuppuswamy Scale - include A/E
Education
Occupation
Housing
Monthly income
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Housing Kuppuswamy's socio-economic scale? impoant tool for assessing socio-economic status of family Include 3 parameters? Education of head of family Occupation of head of family Family income per month Family is divided into? Upper class Upper middle Lower middle Upper lower Lower
Pediatrics
null
58b2ceb8-00a6-4656-8407-053afd605efc
Sulphur granules in actinomycosis consist of ?
Monophils + neutrophils
Monophils + lymphocytes
Eosinophils
Bacterial particles
3d
single
null
Microbiology
null
5ecaa0ed-8d29-40b5-b01f-df7e1339e66e
Iodine RDA is -
300 microgram
500 microgram
150 microgram
50microgram
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 150 microgram o The RDA of iodine for adults is 150 microgram.GroupRecommended daily intakePreschool children (0-59 months)School children (6 - 12 years)Adults (>12 years)Pregnancy and lactation90 meg120 meg150 meg250 meg
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and Health
e75fcbf1-8509-4b3c-8023-ed32f4bee40b
Duration of isolation for bacterial meningitis?
Until culture is negative
24 hrs of antibiotic treatment
7 days of subside of fever
3 days of neck rigidity
1b
single
Ans. (b) 24 hrs of antibiotic treatment Ref. Park 22/e 112 Patient of meningitis to be isolated until six hours of effective antibiotic therapy Disease Duration of isolation Chickenpox Until all lesion crusted (usually about 6 days after rash) Measles From the onset of catarrhal stage through third day of rash Hepatitis A 3 weeks Influenza Till 3 days of onset Polio 2 weeks adult; 6 weeks paediatrics Tuberculosis Until 3 weeks of effective chemotherapy Herpes zoster 6 days after onset of rash Mumps Until swelling subsides Peussis 4 weeks or until paroxysms ceases Pharyngitis 6 hours of effective antibiotic therapy
Microbiology
null
71cb997b-1121-487a-9da2-ff024e3e0470
A physician monitoring a newborn infant's hea sounds using a stethoscope hears the characteristic murmur of a patent ductus aeriosus. How soon after bih should this murmur normally disappear?
1-2 months
1-2 weeks
1-2 days
Immediate closure
3d
multi
Ductus aeriosus closure- Functionally-immediately after bih Structurally-1-3 months after bih The ductus aeriosus functionally closes immediatly (1-2 hours) after bih smooth muscle contraction of the tunica media. Before bih, the patency of the ductus aeriosus is controlled by the low oxygen content of the blood flowing through it, which in turn stimulates production of prostaglandins, which cause smooth muscle to relax. After bih, the high oxygen content of the blood due to lung ventilation inhibits production of prostaglandins, causing smooth muscle contraction. Premature infants can be treated with prostaglandin synthesis inhibitors (such as indomethacin) to promote closure of the ductus aeriosus.
Anatomy
CVS Embryology
a91c9961-f3ae-497c-b8e1-8296bd9f99de
Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides -
Levobunolol
Bimatoprost
Brinzolamide
Brimonidine
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Brinzolamide Acetazolamide, Dorzolamide and Brinzolamide are sulfonamide derivatives which act by inhibiting carbonic anhydrase (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor). Being sulphonamide derivatives they are contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides.
Pharmacology
null
1bd770c2-c9da-4ee9-a612-5c55b47f6c3c
Which of the following is a sonographic finding of a fetus with Down's syndrome?
'Sandal gap'
Mild renal pelvis dilation
Nasal bone absence
All of the above
3d
multi
Second-trimester sonographic markers or "soft signs" associated with Down syndrome fetuses: Nuchal fold thickening Nasal bone absence or hypoplasia Shoened frontal lobe or brachycephaly Sho ear length Echogenic intracardiac focus Echogenic bowel Mild renal pelvis dilation Widened iliac angle Widened gap between first and second toes--"sandal gap" Clinodactyly, hypoplastic mid-phalanx of fifth digit Sho femur Sho humerus Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 13. Prenatal Diagnosis and Fetal Therapy. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e
Pediatrics
null
7c1dccf0-09ee-4d7e-8c46-1b0ce0dad837
According to Horning and Cohen staging of oral necrotizing diseases stage one represents
NUG
NUP
Necrotizing stomatitis
Noma
0a
single
null
Dental
null
fda15bbb-9b31-48c3-8d4d-451de98df022
All are the complications of hydatid cyst in the liver except
Jaundice
Suppuration
Cirrhosis
Rupture
2c
multi
Complications-- Rupture of the cyst into biliary tree ( most common) or bronchial tree Free rupture into peritoneal, pleural or pericardial cavities
Anatomy
G.I.T
4eb063a8-a3ec-4d7b-9c8b-a405fb8601a4
The masseter originates from the _______.
Condyle of the mandible
Infratemporal crest of the sphenoid bone
Inferior border of the zygomatic arch
Pyramidal process of the palatine bone
2c
single
The masseter originates from the inferior border of the zygomatic arch; specifically, its superficial head and deep head originate from the anterior two thirds or posterior one third of the inferior border, respectively. Its superficial head inserts into the lateral surface of the angle of the mandible; its deep head inserts into the ramus and body of the mandible.
Anatomy
null
2b8aa334-584c-407a-b442-5526f1a1ccb2
Cranial nerves III, IV, V, VI lesions are associated with
Sphenoparietal sinus
Occipital sinus
Occipital sinus
Cavernous sinus
3d
single
(D) Cavernous sinus# Each Cavernous Sinus (one for each hemisphere of the brain) contains the following:> Vertically, from superior to inferior (within the lateral wall of the sinus).> Oculomotor nerve (CN III)> Trochlear nerve (CN IV)> Ophthalmic nerve, the V1 branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V).> Maxillary nerve, the V2 branch of CN V> Unlike the nerves listed above, the abducens nerve (CN VI) does not run within the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus; rather it runs through the middle of the sinus alongside the internal carotid artery.> Horizontally, from medial to lateral> Internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus.
Anatomy
Neuroanatomy
98f21f49-6c68-4824-b82e-873e2c1df627
Parofollicular cells develops from
Ultimo - bractial body
Pharyngeal pouch 4
Pharyngeal pouch 3
Neural crest cells
3d
single
Parafolliculor cells derived from neural crest and ultino - brachail body. Neural crest is the best option.
Anatomy
null
ac7cd69b-ed58-43af-9505-0598bea3ed09
B/L hilar lymphadenopathy, along with non caseating granulomas is a characteristic feature of-
Sarcoidosis
Scleroderma
SLE
Stein-leventhal syndrome
0a
single
null
Medicine
null
76c132d1-2b23-4bbc-81f8-a8d3ce9176a6
All are liver glycogenosis except?
Von Girke disease
Hers disease
Type IIi glycogenosis
Pompes disease
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pompes disease
Pediatrics
null
2941e1be-6072-4e04-a888-3ef3488e4869
Which of the following organism shows satellitism in cultures?
Haemophilus
Streptococcus
Klebsiella
Proteus
0a
single
When Staphylococcus aureus is streaked across a plate of blood agar on which a specimen containing H. influenzae has been inoculated, after overnight incubation, the colonies of H. influenzae will be large and well developed alongside the streak of staphylococcus, and smaller faher away. This phenomenon is called satellitism and demonstrates the dependence of H. influenzae on the V factor, which is available in high concentrations near the staphylococcal growth and only in smaller quantities away from it. This is a routine test in clinical bacteriology for the identification of H. influenzae. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology By Ananthanarayan And Paniker, 6th edition, Page 306-307.
Microbiology
null
efb2ed45-868f-4263-af39-b5f59e7137cf
True about umbilical aery Doppler is
Changes in the flow velocity waveforms of umbilical aery may be impoant in the management of high-risk pregnancies
Absence of end-diastolic flow is normal at term
Maternal smoking decreases SID ratio
Increased diastolic flow indicates worse prognosis
1b
multi
Ans. Absence of end-diastolic flow is normal at term
Radiology
null
252e2c38-1f19-4425-bfc0-a6e11ab4a0d8
Gastric emptying is mainly regulated by
neural reflexes
Enteric reflexes
Local hormones in stomach
Local hormones in duodenum
1b
single
Gastric emptying is mainly regulated by enteric reflexes. Regulation of gastric emptying is mainly by the inhibitory feedback signals from the duodenum that includes enterogastric reflex and hormonal feedback by cholecystokinin. Enterogastric reflex: When food enters the duodenum , multiple nervous reflexes are inititiated from the duodenal wall. They strongly inhibit the pyloric pump propulsive contractions and increase the tone of the pyloric sphincter. These reflexes are mediated by three routes: Directly from the duodenum to the stomach through the enteric nervous system in the gut wall(major role) Through inhibitory sympathetic nerve fibers to the stomach (minor role) Vagus nerves to the brainstem where they inhibit the normal excitatory signals transmitted to the stomach (minor role) Cholecystokinin is released from the mucosa of the jejunum in response to fatty substances in the chyme. This hormone acts as an inhibitor to block increased stomach motility caused by gastrin. Ref: Guyton and Hall 13th edition Pgno: 812
Physiology
G.I.T
db89ffac-74e0-48f2-974f-b69f40bc5957
Route of choice for analgesics in cancer patients
Oral
IV
Topical
Sublingual
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
cec453d8-7fa6-45d2-a606-1c6c240a99e7
Drug of choice in MDP is:
Lithium
Amphetamine
Diazepam
Alprazolam
0a
single
Lithium
Psychiatry
null
32d2a9f6-d4f3-4d9b-bfe5-f271477839f4
Symptoms of opioid withdrawal are all, EXCEPT:
Polyuria
Yawning
Fever
Insomnia
0a
multi
Opioid withdrawal syndrome may resemble a severe flu-like illness. The syndrome is characterized by rhinorrhea, sneezing, yawning, lacrimation, abdominal cramping, leg cramping, piloerection (gooseflesh), nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dilated pupils, fever, and insomnia. Heroin and methadone withdrawal symptoms peak in 36-72 hours and 72-96 hours, respectively, and may last for 7-10 days and at least 14 days, respectively.
Forensic Medicine
null
bb891bba-58b2-4403-bce0-a8d0eb0876f0
Indications of FESS -a) Inverted papilloma b) Nasal Allergic polyposisc) Mucoceled) Ca maxilla
ab
bc
acd
abc
3d
multi
Indications of FESS Chronic bacterial sinusitis unresponsive to adequate medical treatment. Recurrent acute bacterial sinusitis. Polypoid rhinosinusitis (diffuse nasal polyposis). Fungal sinusitis with fungal ball or nasal polypi. Antrochoanal polyp and Ethmoid polyp Mucocele of frontoethmoid or sphenoid sinus. Control of epistaxis by endoscopic cautery. Removal of foreign body from the nose or sinus. Endoscopic septoplasty. Removal of benign tumours, e.g. inverted papillomas or angiofibromas. Orbital abscess or cellulitis management. Dacryocystorhinostomy. Repair of CSF leak. Pituitary surgery Optic nerve decompression. Orbital decompression for Graves disease. Control of posterior epistaxis (endoscopic clipping of sphenopalatine artery). Choanal atresia.
ENT
null
382994cb-2ec5-4441-8859-0472bc8c538d
True about inverted papilloma is -
It is also known as Schnedrian papilloma
Anatomically It has an inverted appearance
It may cause basal cell carcinoma
It is commonly seen in young girls
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., It is also known as Schnedrian papilloma "Inverted papilloma of nose" -o It is also called Schneiderian papilloma, squamous papilloma or papillomatosiso It is a polypoid mass occuring on the lateral nasal wall typically in middle aged men.o The name is derived from its histologic appearance of on inverted proliferative growth patterno The significance of this lesion lies in its association with concurrent (8%) and subsequent (4%) invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
Surgery
E.N.T.
14f43d13-93fc-4be1-846b-55c373d8e129
What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with generalized weakness and this finding?
Lichen planus pigmentosus
Smoker's melanosis
Cushing's disease
Diffuse melanosis cutis
3d
single
Answer D. Diffuse melanosis cutisDiffuse melanosis cutis is the correct answer. It is a rare presentation of malignant melanoma with progressive discoloration of the skin. Diffuse melanosis cutis is typically associated with poor prognosis.
Medicine
Disorder of Metabolism & Connective Tissue
a8239255-e46f-4087-9b33-73819cf92bff
An army recruit, smoker and 6 months into training staed complaining of pain at postero medial aspect of both legs. There was acute point tenderness and the pain was aggravated on physical activity. The most likely diagnosis is:
Gout
Stress fracture
Insufficiency stress fracture
Lumbar canal stenosis
1b
multi
The army man is most likely suffering from stress fracture. Stress Fracture or fatigue fracture is caused by repeated stress at one point. Bones are constantly trying to repair and remodel themselves in people like athletes and army recruit. Over a period if sufficient stress is applied on a bone which has reached the limit of remodeling, a fracture may occur. Most common fracture sites are tibia (soldiers, runners), metatarsals (dancers) and calcaneus. Ref: Monitoring Metabolic Status: Predicting Decrements in Physiological and Cognitive Performance By Institute of Medicine (U.S.) 2004 ; Textbook of Ohopedics By John Ebneza, 4th Edition, Page 695 ; Radiology Review Manual By Wolfgang Dahner, 7th Edition, Pages 85-6
Surgery
null
82539e2c-ed8d-4e2a-bfe9-be9da8df44e2
The professional antigen presenting cells ?
B cells
Dendritic cells
T cells
NK cells
1b
single
o Dendritic cells are the most potent and effective antigen presenting cells in the body - Harrison 2024
Pathology
null
45d6bfce-c21b-429b-bd6a-d641eafd1152
Auspitz sign is feature of:
Psoriasis
Lichen planus
Pityriasis alba
All of the above
0a
multi
Ans. A Psoriasis. (Ref. IDVL textbook of Dermatology 2nd / 817)When psoriatic scales are completely scraped off, the basement membrane is exposed and is seen as moist red surface (membrane of Bulkeley) through which dilated capillaries can be seen as red spots. On further scraping, these capillaries at the tip of elongated papillae are torn leading to multiple bleeding points. This is known as Auspitz sign, it is attributed to parakeratosis, intracellular edema of epidermal cells, suprapapillary thinning of stratum malphigii, elongation of dermal papillae and dilatation and tortuosity of papillary capillaries.PSORIASIS:# Pink Papules/ Plaques/ Pinpoint bleeding (Auspitz sign)/ Physical injury (Koebner phenomenon)# Silver Scale/ Sharp margins# Onycholysis/ Oil spots# Rete Ridges with Regular elongation# Itching# Arthritis/ Abscess (Munro)# Stratum comeum with nuclei, neutrophils# Immunologic disease# Stratum granulosum absent/ Stratum Spinosum thickening.Plaque Psoriasis# This is the most common and well-recognized form of psoriasis.2# It is characterized by well-defined raised erythematous papules and plaques with silvery coarse scale.# The distribution is typically symmetric, and sites of predilection include: Q- the extensor surfaces of the extremities, particularly the elbows and knees, sacrum, scalp, nape of the neck, and to a lesser extent trunk, genitalia, face, and ears.# Individuals may present with hyperkeratotic scaling disease localized to the scalp only, making it difficult to discriminate from severe seborrheic dermatitis or tinea capitis. This presentation has been called tinea amiantacea, and requires evaluation to distinguish between these 3 entities.# Additional features of psoriatic plaques include:- Auspitz sign,- Woronoff 's ring and- Kobner phenomenon.Auspitz signPresence of pinpoint bleeding at the base of a plaque after scale is forcibly removed.Can also be seen in other disorders.Woronoff's ringPresence of a white ring around erythematous plaques undergoing topical Rx or phototherapy.Isomorphic or Kobner phenomenonDevelopment of lesions at sites of trauma, including those from sunburn.
Skin
Erythmato-Squamous and Lichenoid Eruption
fce59ebf-c07e-4ffc-9c94-c93da3164977
Vasanti, a 25-year-old-girl, presents with complaints of fever and weakness. On examination there is splenomegaly of 3 cm below the costal margin.Hb is 8 gm/dL, TLC is 3,000/mm3 , platelet count is 80,000 mm3. Which of the following is the least likely diagnosis -
Acute lymphocytic leukemia
Anemia of chronic disease
Aplastic anemia
Megaloblastic anemia
2c
single
null
Medicine
null
831a98b1-a723-48f2-b748-60407d4e7b1a
Which of the following is false regarding laminaria tent as a contraceptive?
It is made from seaweed
It is placed in the posterior fornix
It is used for the dilatation of the cervix
It has got a thread to facilitate removal
1b
multi
Laminaria tent is made from seaweed and is intensely hygroscopic. It when placed in the cervix expands due to the hygroscopic action resulting in dilation of the cervix. Ref: Mudaliar and Menon's Clinical Obstetrics, 9th Edition, Page 517.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
ad57fc51-e5e0-4b68-986c-0b2d12b09ff7
In which type of poisonings is gastric lavage contraindicated?
Organophosphorus poisoning
Sedative drug poisoning
Corrosive acid poisoning
Barium carbonate poisoning
2c
single
Ans. C. Corrosive acid poisoningGastric Lavage is contraindicated when patients havea. Corrosive substance poisoningb. Convulsion (strychnine, tetanus)c. Comad. Volatile poisons (kerosene)e. Hypothermiaf. patients at risk of gastrointestinal hemorrhage or perforation.g. aluminum phosphide poisoning
Pharmacology
Miscellaneous (Pharmacology)
21d8da89-be97-4e24-a750-36310c803a96
Tributary of the cavernous sinus includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
Superior petrosal sinus
Inferior petrosal sinus
Superficial middle cerebral vein
Deep middle cerebral vein
3d
multi
Deep Middle cerebral veins drain into the basal veins which drain into the Great cerebral veins that terminate in the straight sinus. Deep Middle cerebral veins neither form direct incoming channels nor direct draining channels for the cavernous sinuses. Ref: Clinical Anatomy By Regions By Richard S. Snell, 6th Edition, Page 808 ; Dural Cavernous Sinus Fistulas: Diagnosis and Endovascular Therapy By Goetz Benndorf, Page 36 ; Atlas of Neuroradiologic Embryology, Anatomy and Variants By J. Randy Jinkins, Page 369
Anatomy
null
45f307a5-38c8-40dc-a8fb-a45d42f4c039
Limulus amoebocyte lysate test is used to detect ?
Endotoxin
Verocytotoxin
Pyroexotoxin-A
Alpha-toxin of Cl. perfringens
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Endotoxin Limulus amoebocyte lysate (LAL), an aqueous extract of amoebocytes from the horseshoe crab, Limulus polyphemus, reacts with endotoxin to form a gel or a clot.Under standardized conditions, this reaction detects picogram quantities of endotoxin.The clotting reaction is triggered when the LAL reagent comes in contact with the lipopolysaccharide (endotoxin) fraction of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria.The endotoxin activates an enzyme in the LAL reagent which then reacts with a low-molecular-weight clottable protein to form a gel.
Microbiology
null
c4fd7d4f-55f0-4a22-ba57-be8c6f90f875
Structure crossing dorsal surface of ischial spine are all except
Internal pudendal vessel
Pudendal nerve
Obturator nerve
Nerve to obturator internus
2c
multi
Pudendal nerve, internal pudendal vessels, and nerve to obturator internus after leaving the pelvis through greater sciatic foramen, cross the dorsal aspect of the ischial spine and then re-enter the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen.
Anatomy
null
98e3c2e4-a523-4c60-8056-00957ec80fe8
Endoscopic sinus surgery prerequisite-
MRI of paraanasal sinus
CT of PNS
Mucocilliary clearing testing
Acoustic tests
1b
single
(Refer: PL Dhingra, Diseases of Ear, Nose & Throat, 7th edition, pg no. 220 – 221) Endoscopic surgery of inflammatory diseases of paransal sinuses (sinusitis or polyp) requires a very detailed preoperative knowledge of the individual anatomical conditions and pathological changes CT scan are used best to visualize sinus areas CT scan provides excellent definition of paranasal sinuses and is a prerequisite for endoscopic surgery “CT scan limited study coronal cuts in bone window is prerequisite for endscopic sinus surgery”-----Mohan Bansal
Unknown
null
39211333-6c4a-4608-a121-b2e8e0fb5ebd
Which of the following is specific for albinism among the following?
Red reflex
Decreased visual activity
Photophobia
Nystagmus
0a
single
(Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 467 - 474) *All the given options are seen in albinism. But, a red reflex is specific *Ocular features in albinism: Red reflex Pink or blue iris Dazzling glare Photophobia Decreased vision Nystagmus Clear retinal and choroidal vessels, separated by glistening white space Strabismus (mild to moderate) Ocular albinism type 1 (OA1) There is usually nystagmus - OA can otherwise be difficult to detect in women, although it tends to be more obvious in men. There is also a red pupillary reflex (pupils appear greenish to bluish-red) with depigmented fundus and prominent choroidal vessels and photophobia.
Ophthalmology
Miscellaneous
a9d1d4a2-9682-42e5-bf85-0deb61353628
What is use of Bristow elevator
To elevate fractured zygomatic bone
To reduce tooth bearing position of upper jaw
To reduce nasal complex fracture
To split nasal bone
0a
single
To reduce tooth bearing position of upper jaw ... Rowes disimpaction forceps is used To reduce nasal fracture bone, asches or William forceps is used To elevate fractured zygomatic bone Bristow elevator is used.
Surgery
null
05308ed7-4040-4f16-a5a2-8a4bfccd989f
A 35-year-old male with bilateral asymmetrical ptosis and diplopia on watching TV or working on a laptop.Which test will be useful for diagnosis?
Nerve conduction velocity
Ice pack test
Muscle biopsy
CPK- MM Levels
1b
single
Ans. (b) Ice pack test.The image shows presence of asymmetrical droopy eyelids with history of development of this finding on repeated working of eye muscles. The possible diagnosis is myasthenia gravis which can be identified by Ice pack test.Image source - style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">
Medicine
Cranial Nerve Disorders
d8a929df-f4c6-4115-9d06-c358130f83a5
Opponens Pollicis is supplied by -
Median nerve
Radial nerve
Ulnar nerve
Anterior Interosseus nerve
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Median nerve SUMMARY OF NERVE SUPPLY OF MUSCLES OF UPPER LIMBDorsal scapular nerve (C5)Rhomboid minor, rhomboid major, levator scapulae musclesLong thoracic nerve (C5,6,7)Serratus anterior muscleSuprascapular nerve (C5,6)Supraspinatus and infraspinatus musclesNerve to subclavius (C5,6)SubclaviusLateral pectoral nerve (C5,6,7)Pectoralis major muscleMusculocutaneous nerve (C5,6,7)Coracobrachialis biceps brachii, brachialis muscles, supplies skin along lateral border of forearm when it becomes the lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm.Upper subscapular nerve (C5,6)Subscapularis muscleThoracodorsal nerve (C6,7,8)Latissimus dorsi muscleLower subscapular nerve (C5,6)Subscapularis and teres major musclesAxillary nerve (C5,6)Deltoid and teres minor muscles; upper lateral cutaneous nerve of arm supplies skin over lower half of deltoid muscle.Radial nerve (C5,6,7,8; T1)Triceps, anconeus, part of brachialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, via deep radial nerve branch supplies extensor muscles of forearm; supinator, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi, extensor indicis, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis; skin, lower lateral cutaneous nerve of arm, posterior cutaneous nerve of arm, and posterior cutaneous nerve of forearm, skin on lateral side of dorsum of hand and dorsal sufrace of lateral three and a half fingers, articular branches to elbow, wrist and hand.Medial pectoral nerve (C8; Tl)Pectoralis major and minor musclesMedial cutaneous nerve of arm joined by intercostal brachial nerve from second intercostal nerve (C8; T1, 2)Skin of medial side of armMedial cutaneous nerve of forearm (C8;T1)Skin of medial side of forearmUlnar nerve (C8; Tl)Flexor carpi ulnaris and medial half of flexor digitorum profundus, flexor dig-iti minimi, opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, adductor pollicis, third and fourth lumbricals, interossei, palmaris brevis, skin of medial half of dorsum of hand and palm, skin of palmar and dorsal surfaces of medial one and a half fingers.Median nerve (C5,6,7,8; Tl)Pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorium superficialis, abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, first two lumbricals (by way of anterior interosseous branch), flexor pollicis longus, flexor digitorum profundus (lateral half), pronator quadratus, palmar cutaneous branch to lateral half of palm and digital branches to palmar surface of lateral three and a half fingers, articular branches to elbow, wrist, and carpal joints.
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
f75ea203-8188-4156-b55e-0fc310407114
Hypersplenism is characterized by all EXCEPT:
Leukamoid reaction
Thrombocytopenia
Splenomegaly
Responds to splenectomy
0a
multi
(Leukamoid reaction): Ref: 704-R, 466-HM (476- Basic pathology 8th)HYPERSPLENISM - characterized by triad of1. Splenomegaly2. Anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia or any combination of these, in association with hyperplasia of marrow precursors of the deficient cell type3. Correction of the blood cytopenia (s) by splenectomy* The term hypersplenism is usedfor conditions which causes excessive removal of erythrocytes, granulocytes or platelets from the circulation* Leukamoid reaction - defined as a reactive leukocytosis in the peripheral blood resembling that of leukaemia (413-HM)
Pathology
Blood
a9125597-be5e-4b0b-8d4a-1e3119bae808
Marker for biliary tract obstruction -
Alkaline phosphatase
Aspaate transaminase
Alanine transaminase
Creatinine kinase
0a
single
Answer-A. Alkaline phosphataseEnzymes that reflect cholestasisAlkaline phosphatase5'- nucleotidaseGamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT)Lipoprotein-X is an abnormal lipoprotein that appears in the sera of patients with obstructive jaundice and thus is a sensitive indicator of cholestasis.
Medicine
null
256c76e7-f0c9-4e20-ae5b-db6dcfacd848
The most common cyst of the oral region is -
Dentigerous cyst
Keratosis cyst
Dermoid cyst
Periapical cyst
3d
single
Ans. (d) Periapical cystRef: Scott-Browns Otorhinolaryngology 7/e p 1924-1925Periapical Cyst (Radicular Cyst)* MC type of Jaw cyst* Inflammatory origin* Found at the apex of teeth.* Result in long standing Pulpitis.* Removal of irritant material and tooth extraction.
Surgery
Oral Cavity
94bfbe82-a572-4037-b228-1f6146037cf6
A 37-year-old man repos that after a sudden financial loss, he had a bout of illness in which he felt sad and nervous and fearful, could not sleep or eat properly. He also began to hear voices telling him that he was useless and should kill himself. His symptoms stopped after approximately one week. He has had no similar episodes. Medical history includes no psychiatric conditions. Physical examination shows no abnormalities, and results of laboratory studies are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Schizophreniform disorder
Brief psychotic disorder
Schizo-affective disorder
Schizophrenia
1b
single
History is suggestive of abrupt onset illness with psychotic symptoms which resolved within 1 week so it would be diagnosed as Brief Psychotic disorder as per DSM or Acute and transient psychotic disorder(ATPD) as per ICD. Disorder Characteristics Brief psychotic disorder Psychotic symptoms lasting >1 d but <1 mo; often precipitating psychosocial factors Schizophreniform disorder Psychotic and residual symptoms lasting 1-6 mo Schizophrenia Psychotic and residual symptoms lasting at least 6 mo Schizo-affective disorder Symptoms of depression or mania as well as schizophrenia; presence ofpsychotic symptoms for at least 2 weeks without mood symptoms
Psychiatry
Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders
e15ddf9f-2cf1-4fc7-8f1d-0d39b40f1e46
Oliguric phase of renal failure, all are TRUE, EXCEPT:
Hypercalcemia
Hyponatremia
Anaemia
Hyperkalemia
0a
multi
Answer is A (Hypercalcemia): The oliguric phase of acute renal failure is associated with hypocalcemia and not hypercalcemia The oliguric phase (maintenance phase) of acute renal failure is associated with uretnic and electrolyte complications. Metastatic deposition of calcium phosphate leads to hypocalcemia. Other factors that lead to hypocalcemia include tissue resistance to the actions of parathyroid hormone and reduced levels of vitamin D.
Medicine
null
d9339321-fa74-47df-ac54-74534194171e
A patient presents to emergency with pinpoint pupil, salivation, lacrimation, tremors and red tears. Plasma cholinesterase level was 30% of normal. Most probable Diagnosis is:
Organophosphate poisoning
Datura poisoning
Opioid poisoning
Pontine hemorrhage
0a
single
Ans. (A) Organophosphate poisoning(Ref: Katzung 12/e p110)These are characteristic features of anti-cholinestearse (organophosphate and carbamate) poisoning.Features of Organophosphate poisoning:* Muscarinic symptoms: Pin point pupil, salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, gastrointestinal distress, vomiting, bronchospasm, bradycardia* Nicotinic symptoms: Fasciculations and fibrillations of muscle, tachycardia, tachypnea* CNS symptoms: Temors, giddiness, ataxia, coma* Red tears: Due to accumulation of porphyrin in the lacrimal glands
Pharmacology
A.N.S.
6f49754d-b459-4860-836b-2c9c646d9f7a
Mizuo-phenomenon is seen in -
Fundus albipathicus
Fundus flavimaculatus
Oguchis disease
Choroideremia
2c
single
Oguchi disease is characterized by a golden-brown fundus with a yellow-gray 'metallic' sheen in the light-adapted state. After complete dark adaptation (3 to 12 hours), the fundus appears normal, and this disappearance of the shiny, yellow, fundus reflex is called the Mizuo-Nakamura phenomenon.
Ophthalmology
Vitreous and retina
3c494767-2e87-4648-a77e-f8386c5c2746
Which statement is not true about Perthes disease?
It is characterized by avascular necrosis
More common in males
The bone age is same as that of the chronological age
All are true
2c
multi
Ans. C. The bone age is same as that of the chronological ageThe bone age is typically lower than the chronological age by 1-3 years.Since the blood supply of the femoral capital epiphysis is affected, it is characterized by avascular necrosis and disordered enchondral ossification of the primary and secondary centers of ossification.Salient clinical features of Perthes disease:* Typically affects boys aged 4-8 years* Proximal thigh atrophy* Muscle spasm* Short Stature (Altered longitudinal growth of proximal femur)* Limitation of abduction and internal rotation* Antalgic gait* When the hip is flexed it may go into obligatory external rotation called Catterall sign.
Orthopaedics
Miscellaneous
137492ba-1a0e-4513-9ca7-11e244a877cb
In TCA cycle, citrate is conveed into cis-aconitate by which mechanism?
Loss of H+
Loss of phosphate
Loss of H2O molecule
Loss of carbon dioxide molecule
2c
single
2nd Step: Formation of Isocitrate, Citrate is isomerized to isocitrate by aconitase (Step 2, Fig.18.2). This reaction is a two-step process. At first, one water molecule is removed from citrate forming cis aconitate; a transient compound with a very sho half-life. Immediately, one water molecule is added to aconitate to form isocitrate. Thus the position of the hydroxyl group is shifted.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
c44e0a5f-1110-4009-a594-aa6378414d87
Limey bile is
Present in the CBD
Thin and clear
Like toothpaste emulsion in the gallbladder
Bacteria rich
2c
multi
Limey Bile Calcium salts in the lumen of the GB in sufficient concentration may produce calcium precipitation and diffuse, hazy opacification of bile or a layering effect on plain abdominal X-Ray Filled with a mixture of calcium carbonate and calcium phosphate usually, the consistency of tooth paste Caused by gradual obstruction of the cystic duct or CBD by chronic pancreatitis or carcinoma pancreas Organisms are rarely grown from emulsion Diagnosis Best revealed on plain radiograph Treatment Limey bile, or milk of calcium bile, is usually clinically innocuous Cholecystectomy is recommended when it occurs in a hydropic gallbladder Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pgno : 2082
Surgery
G.I.T
8ee35e7c-ea2b-474d-b489-e7519a3ea010
Smoking predisposes to all of the following cancers except -
Carcinoma larynx
Carcinoma bladder
Carcinoma stomach
Lymphoma
3d
multi
null
Medicine
null