Consider the following premises. forall x_14: P_14(x_14) <-> Q_14(x_14). w or ~P_14(b). Can we infer Q_14(b) -> w from them?
 From forall x_14: P_14(x_14) <-> Q_14(x_14) we can infer forall x_14: Q_14(x_14) -> P_14(x_14). From forall x_14: Q_14(x_14) -> P_14(x_14) we can infer Q_14(b) -> P_14(b). From w or ~P_14(b) we can infer P_14(b) -> w. Finally, from Q_14(b) -> P_14(b), P_14(b) -> w we can infer Q_14(b) -> w. Therefore, the answer is yes.