Consider the following premises. p_2 -> P_2(i_3). forall x_3: ~P_2(x_3). p -> p_2. Can we infer ~p from them?
 From forall x_3: ~P_2(x_3) we can infer ~P_2(i_3). From p_2 -> P_2(i_3), ~P_2(i_3) we can infer ~p_2. Finally, from p -> p_2, ~p_2 we can infer ~p. Therefore, the answer is yes.