Consider the following premises. forall x_8: U_1(x_8) -> Q_8(x_8). forall x_8: Q_4(x_8) -> U_1(x_8). forall x_8: Q_8(x_8) -> R_8(x_8). forall x_8: R_8(x_8) -> Q_4(x_8). Can we infer U_1(a_2) -> R_8(a_2) from them?
 From forall x_8: U_1(x_8) -> Q_8(x_8), forall x_8: Q_8(x_8) -> R_8(x_8) we can infer forall x_8: U_1(x_8) -> R_8(x_8). From forall x_8: R_8(x_8) -> Q_4(x_8), forall x_8: Q_4(x_8) -> U_1(x_8) we can infer forall x_8: R_8(x_8) -> U_1(x_8). From forall x_8: U_1(x_8) -> R_8(x_8), forall x_8: R_8(x_8) -> U_1(x_8) we can infer forall x_8: U_1(x_8) <-> R_8(x_8). From forall x_8: U_1(x_8) <-> R_8(x_8) we can infer U_1(a_2) <-> R_8(a_2). Finally, from U_1(a_2) <-> R_8(a_2) we can infer U_1(a_2) -> R_8(a_2). Therefore, the answer is yes.