Consider the following premises. forall z: S(z) -> W(z). forall z: W(z) -> P(z). forall z: S(z) or ~T(z). Can we infer exists z: ~(T(z) -> P(z)) from them?
 From forall z: S(z) -> W(z), forall z: W(z) -> P(z) we can infer forall z: S(z) -> P(z). From forall z: S(z) or ~T(z) we can infer forall z: T(z) -> S(z). Finally, from forall z: T(z) -> S(z), forall z: S(z) -> P(z) we can infer forall z: T(z) -> P(z), which contradicts exists z: ~(T(z) -> P(z)). Therefore, the answer is no.