Consider the following premises. For all x_5, if x_5 takes a plane, then x_5 is playing a game. There is at least one x_5 for which x_5 is rich or x_5 will play a game. For all x_5, if x_5 were rich, then x_5 is taking a plane. For all x_5, if x_5 plays a game, then x_5 is taking a plane. Can we infer the following from them? For all x_5, x_5 will not take a plane.
 From the fact that for all x_5, if x_5 takes a plane, then x_5 is playing a game, and that for all x_5, if x_5 plays a game, then x_5 is taking a plane we can infer that for all x_5, x_5 will take a plane if and only if x_5 will play a game. From the fact that for all x_5, x_5 will take a plane if and only if x_5 will play a game we can infer that for all x_5, if x_5 plays a game, then x_5 is taking a plane. Finally, from the fact that for all x_5, if x_5 were rich, then x_5 is taking a plane, that for all x_5, if x_5 plays a game, then x_5 is taking a plane, and that there is at least one x_5 for which x_5 is rich or x_5 will play a game we can infer that there is at least one x_5 for which x_5 will take a plane, which contradicts that For all x_5, x_5 will not take a plane. Therefore, the answer is no.