Consider the following premises. forall x_3: U_3(x_3). exists x_3: W(x_3). forall x_3: W(x_3) -> Q(x_3). Can we infer forall x_3: ~(U_3(x_3) and Q(x_3)) from them?
 From forall x_3: W(x_3) -> Q(x_3), exists x_3: W(x_3) we can infer exists x_3: Q(x_3). Finally, from forall x_3: U_3(x_3), exists x_3: Q(x_3) we can infer exists x_3: U_3(x_3) and Q(x_3), which contradicts forall x_3: ~(U_3(x_3) and Q(x_3)). Therefore, the answer is no.