Consider the following premises. exists x_3: R(x_3) <-> Q_1(x_3). forall x_3: ~R(x_3). forall x_3: Q_1(x_3) <-> R(x_3). Can we infer forall x_3: Q_1(x_3) from them?
 From forall x_3: Q_1(x_3) <-> R(x_3) we can infer forall x_3: R(x_3) -> Q_1(x_3). From exists x_3: R(x_3) <-> Q_1(x_3) we can infer exists x_3: Q_1(x_3) -> R(x_3). From exists x_3: Q_1(x_3) -> R(x_3), forall x_3: R(x_3) -> Q_1(x_3) we can infer exists x_3: Q_1(x_3) <-> R(x_3). Finally, from exists x_3: Q_1(x_3) <-> R(x_3), forall x_3: ~R(x_3) we can infer exists x_3: ~Q_1(x_3), which contradicts forall x_3: Q_1(x_3). Therefore, the answer is no.