Consider the following premises. exists x: S(x) <-> R(x). forall x: S(x) <-> W(x). forall x: S(x) -> W(x). forall x: ~W(x). Can we infer forall x: R(x) from them?
 From forall x: S(x) <-> W(x) we can infer forall x: W(x) -> S(x). From forall x: W(x) -> S(x), forall x: S(x) -> W(x) we can infer forall x: W(x) <-> S(x). From forall x: W(x) <-> S(x), forall x: ~W(x) we can infer forall x: ~S(x). Finally, from exists x: S(x) <-> R(x), forall x: ~S(x) we can infer exists x: ~R(x), which contradicts forall x: R(x). Therefore, the answer is no.