Consider the following premises. forall x_12: P_12(x_12). forall x_12: P_12(x_12) -> W(x_12). exists x_12: P(x_12) and Q_8(x_12). Can we infer forall x_12: ~P(x_12) from them?
 From forall x_12: P_12(x_12) -> W(x_12), forall x_12: P_12(x_12) we can infer forall x_12: W(x_12). From exists x_12: P(x_12) and Q_8(x_12) we can infer exists x_12: P(x_12). From forall x_12: W(x_12), exists x_12: P(x_12) we can infer exists x_12: W(x_12) and P(x_12). Finally, from exists x_12: W(x_12) and P(x_12) we can infer exists x_12: W(x_12), which contradicts forall x_12: ~P(x_12). Therefore, the answer is no.