Consider the following premises. exists x_10: W_4(x_10) -> Q_10(x_10). forall x_10: R_10(x_10) -> R_5(x_10). forall x_10: Q_10(x_10) -> R_10(x_10). forall x_10: W_4(x_10) <-> U_4(x_10). Can we infer forall x_10: ~(U_4(x_10) -> R_5(x_10)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.