Consider the following premises. For all x_8, if x_8 were a politician, then x_8 is rich. There is at least one x_8 for which x_8 is a politician or x_8 will not drive a car. For all x_8, if x_8 were rich, then x_8 is driving a car. Can we infer the following from them? There is at least one x_8 for which x_8 is a politician if and only if x_8 is rich.
 From the fact that there is at least one x_8 for which x_8 is a politician or x_8 will not drive a car we can infer that there is at least one x_8 for which if x_8 drives a car, then x_8 is a politician. From the fact that for all x_8, if x_8 were rich, then x_8 is driving a car, and that there is at least one x_8 for which if x_8 drives a car, then x_8 is a politician we can infer that there is at least one x_8 for which if x_8 were rich, then x_8 is a politician. Finally, from the fact that for all x_8, if x_8 were a politician, then x_8 is rich, and that there is at least one x_8 for which if x_8 were rich, then x_8 is a politician we can infer that there is at least one x_8 for which x_8 is a politician if and only if x_8 is rich. Therefore, the answer is yes.