Consider the following premises. exists y: Q(y) -> Q_4(y). forall y: U_1(y) -> Q(y). forall y: Q_4(y) -> W_2(y). forall y: U_1(y). Can we infer forall y: ~W_2(y) from them?
 From exists y: Q(y) -> Q_4(y), forall y: Q_4(y) -> W_2(y) we can infer exists y: Q(y) -> W_2(y). From forall y: U_1(y) -> Q(y), exists y: Q(y) -> W_2(y) we can infer exists y: U_1(y) -> W_2(y). Finally, from exists y: U_1(y) -> W_2(y), forall y: U_1(y) we can infer exists y: W_2(y), which contradicts forall y: ~W_2(y). Therefore, the answer is no.