Consider the following premises. exists x_3: U(x_3) -> P_3(x_3). forall x_3: Q_3(x_3) -> U(x_3). forall x_3: P_3(x_3) -> Q_3(x_3). Can we infer forall x_3: ~(P_3(x_3) -> U(x_3)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.