Consider the following premises. There is at least one x_8 for which if x_8 plays a game, then x_8 is a janitor. For all x_8, if x_8 were a janitor, then x_8 is playing a game. For all x_8, if x_8 were a janitor, then x_8 is playing a game. For all x_8, x_8 is not a janitor. Can we infer the following from them? For all x_8, x_8 will play a game.
 From the fact that there is at least one x_8 for which if x_8 plays a game, then x_8 is a janitor, and that for all x_8, if x_8 were a janitor, then x_8 is playing a game we can infer that there is at least one x_8 for which x_8 will play a game if and only if x_8 is a janitor. From the fact that there is at least one x_8 for which x_8 will play a game if and only if x_8 is a janitor we can infer that there is at least one x_8 for which if x_8 plays a game, then x_8 is a janitor. From the fact that there is at least one x_8 for which if x_8 plays a game, then x_8 is a janitor, and that for all x_8, if x_8 were a janitor, then x_8 is playing a game we can infer that there is at least one x_8 for which x_8 will play a game if and only if x_8 is a janitor. Finally, from the fact that there is at least one x_8 for which x_8 will play a game if and only if x_8 is a janitor, and that for all x_8, x_8 is not a janitor we can infer that there is at least one x_8 for which x_8 will not play a game, which contradicts that For all x_8, x_8 will play a game. Therefore, the answer is no.