Consider the following premises. exists x_7: P_7(x_7) -> R(x_7). forall x_7: P_7(x_7) or ~U(x_7). forall x_7: P_7(x_7) -> U(x_7). Can we infer forall x_7: ~(U(x_7) -> R(x_7)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.