Consider the following premises. forall x_8: U(x_8) -> Q_8(x_8). forall x_8: U(x_8) or ~Q(x_8). forall x_8: Q_8(x_8) -> Q(x_8). Can we infer Q(a_2) -> U(a_2) from them?
 From forall x_8: U(x_8) -> Q_8(x_8), forall x_8: Q_8(x_8) -> Q(x_8) we can infer forall x_8: U(x_8) -> Q(x_8). From forall x_8: U(x_8) or ~Q(x_8) we can infer forall x_8: Q(x_8) -> U(x_8). From forall x_8: U(x_8) -> Q(x_8), forall x_8: Q(x_8) -> U(x_8) we can infer forall x_8: U(x_8) <-> Q(x_8). From forall x_8: U(x_8) <-> Q(x_8) we can infer U(a_2) <-> Q(a_2). Finally, from U(a_2) <-> Q(a_2) we can infer Q(a_2) -> U(a_2). Therefore, the answer is yes.