Consider the following premises. forall x_11: Q(x_11) -> U(x_11). forall x_11: U(x_11) -> P_11(x_11). forall x_11: Q_11(x_11). exists x_11: P_11(x_11) -> ~Q_11(x_11). Can we infer forall x_11: Q(x_11) from them?
 From exists x_11: P_11(x_11) -> ~Q_11(x_11), forall x_11: Q_11(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: ~P_11(x_11). From forall x_11: U(x_11) -> P_11(x_11), exists x_11: ~P_11(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: ~U(x_11). Finally, from forall x_11: Q(x_11) -> U(x_11), exists x_11: ~U(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: ~Q(x_11), which contradicts forall x_11: Q(x_11). Therefore, the answer is no.