Consider the following premises. forall x_7: W(x_7) <-> Q_7(x_7). ~Q_7(a_2). forall x_7: W(x_7) -> Q_7(x_7). Can we infer W(a_2) from them?
 From forall x_7: W(x_7) <-> Q_7(x_7) we can infer forall x_7: Q_7(x_7) -> W(x_7). From forall x_7: W(x_7) -> Q_7(x_7), forall x_7: Q_7(x_7) -> W(x_7) we can infer forall x_7: W(x_7) <-> Q_7(x_7). From forall x_7: W(x_7) <-> Q_7(x_7) we can infer W(a_2) <-> Q_7(a_2). Finally, from W(a_2) <-> Q_7(a_2), ~Q_7(a_2) we can infer ~W(a_2), which contradicts W(a_2). Therefore, the answer is no.