Consider the following premises. forall x_3: P_3(x_3) -> T(x_3). exists x_3: P_3(x_3). forall x_3: T(x_3) -> Q(x_3). Can we infer forall x_3: ~Q(x_3) from them?
 From forall x_3: P_3(x_3) -> T(x_3), exists x_3: P_3(x_3) we can infer exists x_3: T(x_3). Finally, from forall x_3: T(x_3) -> Q(x_3), exists x_3: T(x_3) we can infer exists x_3: Q(x_3), which contradicts forall x_3: ~Q(x_3). Therefore, the answer is no.