Consider the following premises. p_10 <-> t_4. p_10 or ~S_16(a_16). ~R_16(a_16) or t_4. forall x_16: R_16(x_16) or S_16(x_16). Can we infer ~p_10 from them?
 From forall x_16: R_16(x_16) or S_16(x_16) we can infer R_16(a_16) or S_16(a_16). From p_10 or ~S_16(a_16) we can infer S_16(a_16) -> p_10. From R_16(a_16) or S_16(a_16), ~R_16(a_16) or t_4 we can infer S_16(a_16) or t_4. From p_10 <-> t_4 we can infer t_4 -> p_10. Finally, from S_16(a_16) -> p_10, t_4 -> p_10, S_16(a_16) or t_4 we can infer p_10, which contradicts ~p_10. Therefore, the answer is no.