Consider the following premises. exists x_8: R_2(x_8) -> U(x_8). forall x_8: U(x_8) -> R_2(x_8). forall x_8: R_2(x_8) -> Q_8(x_8). forall x_8: Q_8(x_8) -> R_8(x_8). Can we infer forall x_8: ~(U(x_8) -> R_8(x_8)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.