Consider the following premises. forall x_9: W_1(x_9) or W(x_9). forall x_9: ~P_9(x_9). forall x_9: W_1(x_9) -> P_9(x_9). exists x_9: P_9(x_9) -> W_1(x_9). Can we infer forall x_9: ~W(x_9) from them?
 From exists x_9: P_9(x_9) -> W_1(x_9), forall x_9: W_1(x_9) -> P_9(x_9) we can infer exists x_9: P_9(x_9) <-> W_1(x_9). From exists x_9: P_9(x_9) <-> W_1(x_9), forall x_9: ~P_9(x_9) we can infer exists x_9: ~W_1(x_9). Finally, from forall x_9: W_1(x_9) or W(x_9), exists x_9: ~W_1(x_9) we can infer exists x_9: W(x_9), which contradicts forall x_9: ~W(x_9). Therefore, the answer is no.