Consider a spinless particle represented by the wave function

$$
\psi=K(x+y+2 z) e^{-\alpha r}
$$

where $r=\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}$, and $K$ and $\alpha$ are real constants.

What is the total angular momentum of the particle?

You may find the following expressions for the first few spherical harmonics useful:

$$
\begin{aligned}
&Y_{0}^{0}=\sqrt{\frac{1}{4 \pi}}, \quad Y_{1}^{\pm 1}=\mp \sqrt{\frac{3}{8 \pi}} \sin \theta e^{\pm i \phi}, \\
&Y_{1}^{0}=\sqrt{\frac{3}{4 \pi}} \cos \theta, \quad Y_{2}^{\pm 1}=\mp \sqrt{\frac{15}{8 \pi}} \sin \theta \cos \theta e^{\pm i \phi} .
\end{aligned}
$$
The wave function may be rewritten in spherical coordinates as

$$
\psi=K r(\cos \phi \sin \theta+\sin \phi \sin \theta+2 \cos \theta) e^{-\alpha r}
$$

its angular part being

$$
\psi(\theta, \phi)=K^{\prime}(\cos \phi \sin \theta+\sin \phi \sin \theta+2 \cos \theta),
$$

where $K^{\prime}$ is the normalization constant such that

$$
K^{\prime 2} \int_{\theta}^{\pi} d \theta \int_{0}^{2 \pi} \sin \theta(\cos \phi \sin \theta+\sin \phi \sin \theta+2 \cos \theta)^{2} d \phi=1 \text {. }
$$

Since

$$
\cos \phi=\frac{1}{2}\left(e^{i \phi}+e^{-i \phi}\right), \quad \sin \phi=\frac{1}{2 i}\left(e^{i \phi}-e^{-i \phi}\right)
$$

we have

$$
\begin{aligned}
\psi(\theta, \phi) &=K^{\prime}\left[\frac{1}{2}\left(e^{i \phi}+e^{-i \phi}\right) \sin \theta+\frac{1}{2 i}\left(e^{i \phi}-e^{-i \phi}\right) \sin \theta+\cos 2 \theta\right], \\
&=K^{\prime}\left[-\frac{1}{2}(1-i) \sqrt{\frac{8 \pi}{3}} Y_{1}^{1}+\frac{1}{2}(1+i) \sqrt{\frac{8 \pi}{3}} Y_{1}^{-1}+2 \sqrt{\frac{4 \pi}{3}} Y_{1}^{0}\right] .
\end{aligned}
$$

The normalization condition and the orthonormality of $Y_{l}^{m}$ then give

$$
K^{\prime 2}\left[\frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{8 \pi}{3}+\frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{8 \pi}{3}+4 \cdot \frac{4 \pi}{3}\right]=1
$$

or

$$
K^{\prime}=\sqrt{\frac{1}{8 \pi}},
$$

and thus

$$
\begin{aligned}
\psi(\theta, \phi)=& \sqrt{\frac{1}{8 \pi}}\left[-\frac{1}{2}(1-i) \sqrt{\frac{8 \pi}{3}} Y_{1}^{1}\right.\\
&\left.+\frac{1}{2}(1+i) \sqrt{\frac{8 \pi}{3}} Y_{1}^{-1}+2 \sqrt{\frac{4 \pi}{3}} Y_{1}^{0}\right] .
\end{aligned}
$$

The total angular momentum of the particle is

$$
\sqrt{\left\langle\mathbf{L}^{2}\right\rangle}=\sqrt{l(l+1)} \hbar=\sqrt{2} \hbar .
$$

as the wave function corresponds to $l=1$.