Consider the following premises. forall x_10: U(x_10) <-> S(x_10). forall x_10: U(x_10) -> Q_10(x_10). forall x_10: Q_10(x_10) -> S(x_10). exists x_10: S(x_10) -> U(x_10). Can we infer forall x_10: ~(U(x_10) <-> S(x_10)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.