Consider the following premises. For all y_2, y_2 will drink water or y_2 will sleep. There is at least one y_2 for which if y_2 drinks water, then y_2 is running. For all y_2, if y_2 plays a game, then y_2 is drinking water. For all y_2, y_2 will not go running. For all y_2, if y_2 goes running, then y_2 is playing a game. Can we infer the following from them? For all y_2, y_2 will not sleep.
 From the fact that for all y_2, if y_2 goes running, then y_2 is playing a game, and that for all y_2, if y_2 plays a game, then y_2 is drinking water we can infer that for all y_2, if y_2 goes running, then y_2 is drinking water. From the fact that there is at least one y_2 for which if y_2 drinks water, then y_2 is running, and that for all y_2, if y_2 goes running, then y_2 is drinking water we can infer that there is at least one y_2 for which y_2 will drink water if and only if y_2 will go running. From the fact that there is at least one y_2 for which y_2 will drink water if and only if y_2 will go running, and that for all y_2, y_2 will not go running we can infer that there is at least one y_2 for which y_2 will not drink water. Finally, from the fact that for all y_2, y_2 will drink water or y_2 will sleep, and that there is at least one y_2 for which y_2 will not drink water we can infer that there is at least one y_2 for which y_2 will sleep, which contradicts that For all y_2, y_2 will not sleep. Therefore, the answer is no.