Consider the following premises. Q_10(a_7) -> R(a_7). forall x_10: R(x_10) <-> Q_10(x_10). ~Q_10(a_7). Can we infer R(a_7) from them?
 From forall x_10: R(x_10) <-> Q_10(x_10) we can infer forall x_10: R(x_10) -> Q_10(x_10). From forall x_10: R(x_10) -> Q_10(x_10) we can infer R(a_7) -> Q_10(a_7). From R(a_7) -> Q_10(a_7), Q_10(a_7) -> R(a_7) we can infer R(a_7) <-> Q_10(a_7). Finally, from R(a_7) <-> Q_10(a_7), ~Q_10(a_7) we can infer ~R(a_7), which contradicts R(a_7). Therefore, the answer is no.