Consider the following premises. For all z_2, if z_2 reads a book, then z_2 is not drinking water. For all z_2, if z_2 reads a book, then z_2 is playing a game. For all z_2, z_2 will play a game if and only if z_2 will read a book. For all z_2, z_2 will drink water. Can we infer the following from them? There is at least one z_2 for which z_2 will play a game.
 From the fact that for all z_2, z_2 will play a game if and only if z_2 will read a book we can infer that for all z_2, if z_2 plays a game, then z_2 is reading a book. From the fact that for all z_2, if z_2 reads a book, then z_2 is not drinking water, and that for all z_2, z_2 will drink water we can infer that for all z_2, z_2 will not read a book. From the fact that for all z_2, if z_2 reads a book, then z_2 is playing a game, and that for all z_2, if z_2 plays a game, then z_2 is reading a book we can infer that for all z_2, z_2 will read a book if and only if z_2 will play a game. Finally, from the fact that for all z_2, z_2 will read a book if and only if z_2 will play a game, and that for all z_2, z_2 will not read a book we can infer that for all z_2, z_2 will not play a game, which contradicts that There is at least one z_2 for which z_2 will play a game. Therefore, the answer is no.