Consider the following premises. exists x_9: P_4(x_9) <-> W_3(x_9). forall x_9: P_1(x_9) -> W_3(x_9). forall x_9: P_1(x_9). Can we infer forall x_9: ~P_4(x_9) from them?
 From exists x_9: P_4(x_9) <-> W_3(x_9) we can infer exists x_9: W_3(x_9) -> P_4(x_9). From forall x_9: P_1(x_9) -> W_3(x_9), forall x_9: P_1(x_9) we can infer forall x_9: W_3(x_9). Finally, from exists x_9: W_3(x_9) -> P_4(x_9), forall x_9: W_3(x_9) we can infer exists x_9: P_4(x_9), which contradicts forall x_9: ~P_4(x_9). Therefore, the answer is no.