Consider the following premises. p_1 -> S_32(e_4). forall x_32: R_32(x_32) -> S_32(x_32). s <-> w. q_1 -> ~S_32(e_4). R_32(e_4) or p_1. ~s. Can we infer w from them?
 From forall x_32: R_32(x_32) -> S_32(x_32) we can infer R_32(e_4) -> S_32(e_4). From R_32(e_4) -> S_32(e_4), p_1 -> S_32(e_4), R_32(e_4) or p_1 we can infer S_32(e_4). Finally, from s <-> w, ~s we can infer ~w, which contradicts w. Therefore, the answer is no.