Consider the following premises. forall z: U_1(z) -> W(z). forall z: U_1(z) or W_1(z). exists z: W(z) -> U(z). forall z: W_1(z) -> U(z). Can we infer forall z: ~(U(z) or P_2(z)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.