Consider the following premises. forall x: R(x) <-> W(x). exists x: S_3(x) -> W(x). forall x: R(x) -> T_3(x). forall x: S_3(x) or ~T_3(x). Can we infer forall x: ~(W(x) <-> T_3(x)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.