Consider the following premises. For all x_6, x_6 will not play a game. For all x_6, if x_6 were a bartender, then x_6 is making tea. For all x_6, x_6 will play a game if and only if x_6 is a bartender. For all x_6, if x_6 makes tea, then x_6 is playing a game. Can we infer the following from them? There is at least one x_6 for which x_6 is a bartender.
 From the fact that for all x_6, if x_6 were a bartender, then x_6 is making tea, and that for all x_6, if x_6 makes tea, then x_6 is playing a game we can infer that for all x_6, if x_6 were a bartender, then x_6 is playing a game. From the fact that for all x_6, x_6 will play a game if and only if x_6 is a bartender we can infer that for all x_6, if x_6 plays a game, then x_6 is a bartender. From the fact that for all x_6, if x_6 plays a game, then x_6 is a bartender, and that for all x_6, if x_6 were a bartender, then x_6 is playing a game we can infer that for all x_6, x_6 will play a game if and only if x_6 is a bartender. Finally, from the fact that for all x_6, x_6 will play a game if and only if x_6 is a bartender, and that for all x_6, x_6 will not play a game we can infer that for all x_6, x_6 is not a bartender, which contradicts that There is at least one x_6 for which x_6 is a bartender. Therefore, the answer is no.