Consider the following premises. forall y: T(y). W_1(g) -> q. forall y: W_1(y) or ~T(y). Can we infer ~q from them? If possible, name the inference rules being used at each step.
 From forall y: W_1(y) or ~T(y) we can infer forall y: T(y) -> W_1(y) via universal rewriting. From forall y: T(y) -> W_1(y), forall y: T(y) we can infer forall y: W_1(y) via universal modus ponens. From forall y: W_1(y) we can infer W_1(g) via universal instantiation. Finally, from W_1(g) -> q, W_1(g) we can infer q via modus ponens, which contradicts ~q. Therefore, the answer is no.