Consider the following premises. John is not playing tennis. For all x_14, x_14 is not curious or x_14 is rich. For all x_14, x_14 is curious or x_14 will play tennis. Can we infer the following from them? If we can, name the inference rule being used: John is not rich.
 From the fact that for all x_14, x_14 is curious or x_14 will play tennis, and that for all x_14, x_14 is not curious or x_14 is rich we can infer that for all x_14, x_14 will play tennis or x_14 is rich via universal resolution. From the fact that for all x_14, x_14 will play tennis or x_14 is rich we can infer that John is playing tennis or John is rich via universal instantiation. Finally, from the fact that John is playing tennis or John is rich, and that John is not playing tennis we can infer that John is rich via disjunctive syllogism, which contradicts that John is not rich. Therefore, the answer is no.