Consider the following premises. exists x_11: Q_4(x_11) -> Q_11(x_11). forall x_11: P_11(x_11) <-> Q_11(x_11). forall x_11: P_11(x_11) -> Q_4(x_11). Can we infer forall x_11: ~(P_11(x_11) -> Q_11(x_11)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.