Consider the following premises. forall y: W(y) -> R(y). forall y: R(y) -> W(y). W(e) -> Q(a_10). forall x: ~Q(x). Can we infer R(e) from them?
 From forall y: R(y) -> W(y), forall y: W(y) -> R(y) we can infer forall y: R(y) <-> W(y). From forall y: R(y) <-> W(y) we can infer R(e) <-> W(e). From forall x: ~Q(x) we can infer ~Q(a_10). From W(e) -> Q(a_10), ~Q(a_10) we can infer ~W(e). Finally, from R(e) <-> W(e), ~W(e) we can infer ~R(e), which contradicts R(e). Therefore, the answer is no.