Consider the following premises. forall x_6: P_2(x_6) or W(x_6). forall x_6: T_1(x_6) or ~W(x_6). forall x_6: P_2(x_6) -> T_1(x_6). exists x_6: P(x_6). Can we infer forall x_6: ~(T_1(x_6) and P(x_6)) from them?
 From forall x_6: T_1(x_6) or ~W(x_6) we can infer forall x_6: W(x_6) -> T_1(x_6). From forall x_6: P_2(x_6) -> T_1(x_6), forall x_6: W(x_6) -> T_1(x_6), forall x_6: P_2(x_6) or W(x_6) we can infer forall x_6: T_1(x_6). Finally, from forall x_6: T_1(x_6), exists x_6: P(x_6) we can infer exists x_6: T_1(x_6) and P(x_6), which contradicts forall x_6: ~(T_1(x_6) and P(x_6)). Therefore, the answer is no.