Consider the following premises. exists x_13: Q_13(x_13). forall x_13: U_1(x_13) <-> Q_13(x_13). Can we infer forall x_13: ~(U_1(x_13) or Q(x_13)) from them?
 From forall x_13: U_1(x_13) <-> Q_13(x_13) we can infer forall x_13: Q_13(x_13) -> U_1(x_13). From forall x_13: Q_13(x_13) -> U_1(x_13), exists x_13: Q_13(x_13) we can infer exists x_13: U_1(x_13). Finally, from exists x_13: U_1(x_13) we can infer exists x_13: U_1(x_13) or Q(x_13), which contradicts forall x_13: ~(U_1(x_13) or Q(x_13)). Therefore, the answer is no.