Consider the following premises. For all x_6, if x_6 were a carpenter, then x_6 is a soldier. There is at least one x_6 for which x_6 is a carpenter or x_6 is rich. For all x_6, if x_6 were a writer, then x_6 is a soldier. For all x_6, x_6 is a writer or x_6 is not rich. Can we infer the following from them? For all x_6, x_6 is not a soldier.
 From the fact that for all x_6, x_6 is a writer or x_6 is not rich we can infer that for all x_6, if x_6 were rich, then x_6 is a writer. From the fact that for all x_6, if x_6 were rich, then x_6 is a writer, and that for all x_6, if x_6 were a writer, then x_6 is a soldier we can infer that for all x_6, if x_6 were rich, then x_6 is a soldier. Finally, from the fact that for all x_6, if x_6 were a carpenter, then x_6 is a soldier, that for all x_6, if x_6 were rich, then x_6 is a soldier, and that there is at least one x_6 for which x_6 is a carpenter or x_6 is rich we can infer that there is at least one x_6 for which x_6 is a soldier, which contradicts that For all x_6, x_6 is not a soldier. Therefore, the answer is no.