Consider the following premises. exists x_9: P_9(x_9) or ~Q_9(x_9). forall x_9: Q_9(x_9) or ~P_9(x_9). Can we infer forall x_9: ~(P_9(x_9) -> Q_9(x_9)) from them?
 From exists x_9: P_9(x_9) or ~Q_9(x_9) we can infer exists x_9: Q_9(x_9) -> P_9(x_9). Finally, from forall x_9: Q_9(x_9) or ~P_9(x_9) we can infer forall x_9: P_9(x_9) -> Q_9(x_9), which contradicts forall x_9: ~(P_9(x_9) -> Q_9(x_9)). Therefore, the answer is no.