Consider the following premises. exists y: S(y) -> R(y). forall y: R(y) -> S(y). forall y: ~R_1(y). forall y: S(y) <-> R_1(y). Can we infer forall y: R(y) from them?
 From forall y: S(y) <-> R_1(y), forall y: ~R_1(y) we can infer forall y: ~S(y). From exists y: S(y) -> R(y), forall y: R(y) -> S(y) we can infer exists y: S(y) <-> R(y). Finally, from exists y: S(y) <-> R(y), forall y: ~S(y) we can infer exists y: ~R(y), which contradicts forall y: R(y). Therefore, the answer is no.