Consider the following premises. exists x_7: S(x_7) -> Q_7(x_7). forall x_7: T_2(x_7) or ~Q_7(x_7). forall x_7: T(x_7) -> S(x_7). Can we infer forall x_7: ~(T(x_7) -> T_2(x_7)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.