Consider the following premises. forall x_12: Q_12(x_12) -> U(x_12). exists x_12: Q_11(x_12) -> Q_12(x_12). forall x_12: Q_12(x_12) -> Q_11(x_12). forall x_12: U(x_12) -> Q_12(x_12). Can we infer forall x_12: ~(U(x_12) -> Q_11(x_12)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.