Consider the following premises. forall y: ~S_2(y). forall y: S_2(y) <-> U_2(y). exists y: U_2(y) -> R_2(y). forall y: U_2(y) or ~R_2(y). Can we infer forall y: R_2(y) from them?
 From forall y: U_2(y) or ~R_2(y) we can infer forall y: R_2(y) -> U_2(y). From forall y: S_2(y) <-> U_2(y), forall y: ~S_2(y) we can infer forall y: ~U_2(y). From exists y: U_2(y) -> R_2(y), forall y: R_2(y) -> U_2(y) we can infer exists y: U_2(y) <-> R_2(y). Finally, from exists y: U_2(y) <-> R_2(y), forall y: ~U_2(y) we can infer exists y: ~R_2(y), which contradicts forall y: R_2(y). Therefore, the answer is no.