Consider the following premises. forall x_11: P_11(x_11) or ~Q_11(x_11). forall x_11: P_11(x_11) -> Q_11(x_11). exists x_11: Q_11(x_11) -> P_11(x_11). Can we infer forall x_11: ~(Q_11(x_11) -> P_11(x_11)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.