Consider the following premises. exists y_2: S(y_2) -> W(y_2). forall y_2: W(y_2) -> S(y_2). forall y_2: ~S(y_2). forall y_2: S(y_2) -> W(y_2). Can we infer forall y_2: W(y_2) from them?
 From forall y_2: W(y_2) -> S(y_2), forall y_2: S(y_2) -> W(y_2) we can infer forall y_2: W(y_2) <-> S(y_2). From forall y_2: W(y_2) <-> S(y_2) we can infer forall y_2: W(y_2) -> S(y_2). From exists y_2: S(y_2) -> W(y_2), forall y_2: W(y_2) -> S(y_2) we can infer exists y_2: S(y_2) <-> W(y_2). Finally, from exists y_2: S(y_2) <-> W(y_2), forall y_2: ~S(y_2) we can infer exists y_2: ~W(y_2), which contradicts forall y_2: W(y_2). Therefore, the answer is no.