Consider the following premises. q. forall x_14: P_14(x_14) or W(x_14). forall x_14: P_14(x_14) -> Q_14(x_14). forall x_14: ~Q_14(x_14). Can we infer ~W(a_9) from them?
 From forall x_14: P_14(x_14) -> Q_14(x_14), forall x_14: ~Q_14(x_14) we can infer forall x_14: ~P_14(x_14). Finally, from forall x_14: P_14(x_14) or W(x_14), forall x_14: ~P_14(x_14) we can infer forall x_14: W(x_14), which contradicts ~W(a_9). Therefore, the answer is no.