Consider the following premises. forall x_9: P_9(x_9) -> Q_9(x_9). forall x_9: Q_9(x_9) -> R_9(x_9). forall x_9: R_9(x_9) or ~Q_2(x_9). exists x_9: P(x_9) or Q_2(x_9). forall x_9: P(x_9) -> P_9(x_9). Can we infer forall x_9: ~R_9(x_9) from them?
 From forall x_9: P_9(x_9) -> Q_9(x_9), forall x_9: Q_9(x_9) -> R_9(x_9) we can infer forall x_9: P_9(x_9) -> R_9(x_9). From forall x_9: P(x_9) -> P_9(x_9), forall x_9: P_9(x_9) -> R_9(x_9) we can infer forall x_9: P(x_9) -> R_9(x_9). From forall x_9: R_9(x_9) or ~Q_2(x_9) we can infer forall x_9: Q_2(x_9) -> R_9(x_9). Finally, from forall x_9: P(x_9) -> R_9(x_9), forall x_9: Q_2(x_9) -> R_9(x_9), exists x_9: P(x_9) or Q_2(x_9) we can infer exists x_9: R_9(x_9), which contradicts forall x_9: ~R_9(x_9). Therefore, the answer is no.