Consider the following premises. For all x_10, if x_10 were happy, then x_10 is drinking water. For all x_10, x_10 will go running if and only if x_10 will drink water. For all x_10, x_10 will not go running. There is at least one x_10 for which if x_10 drinks water, then x_10 is happy. Can we infer the following from them? For all x_10, x_10 is happy.
 From the fact that for all x_10, x_10 will go running if and only if x_10 will drink water, and that for all x_10, x_10 will not go running we can infer that for all x_10, x_10 will not drink water. From the fact that there is at least one x_10 for which if x_10 drinks water, then x_10 is happy, and that for all x_10, if x_10 were happy, then x_10 is drinking water we can infer that there is at least one x_10 for which x_10 will drink water if and only if x_10 is happy. From the fact that there is at least one x_10 for which x_10 will drink water if and only if x_10 is happy we can infer that there is at least one x_10 for which if x_10 were happy, then x_10 is drinking water. Finally, from the fact that there is at least one x_10 for which if x_10 were happy, then x_10 is drinking water, and that for all x_10, x_10 will not drink water we can infer that there is at least one x_10 for which x_10 is not happy, which contradicts that For all x_10, x_10 is happy. Therefore, the answer is no.