Consider the following premises. forall x_10: P_10(x_10) <-> Q_10(x_10). forall x_10: R(x_10) -> P_10(x_10). forall x_10: Q_10(x_10) -> R(x_10). Can we infer ~(R(a_2) -> Q_10(a_2)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.