Consider the following premises. q_3 -> P_11(a_7). forall x_11: P_11(x_11) <-> Q_11(x_11). forall x_11: Q_11(x_11) -> P_11(x_11). Can we infer ~(q_3 -> Q_11(a_7)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.