Consider the following premises. ~W(c). s -> R(c). forall y: R(y) -> W(y). Can we infer s from them?
 From forall y: R(y) -> W(y) we can infer R(c) -> W(c). From s -> R(c), R(c) -> W(c) we can infer s -> W(c). Finally, from s -> W(c), ~W(c) we can infer ~s, which contradicts s. Therefore, the answer is no.