Consider the following premises. forall x_7: ~P_6(x_7) or R_6(x_7). forall x_7: P_7(x_7) -> Q_7(x_7). forall x_7: P_6(x_7) or P_7(x_7). forall x_7: Q_7(x_7) -> P_1(x_7). forall x_7: R_6(x_7) -> P_1(x_7). Can we infer ~P_1(d) from them?
 From forall x_7: P_7(x_7) -> Q_7(x_7), forall x_7: Q_7(x_7) -> P_1(x_7) we can infer forall x_7: P_7(x_7) -> P_1(x_7). From forall x_7: P_6(x_7) or P_7(x_7), forall x_7: ~P_6(x_7) or R_6(x_7) we can infer forall x_7: P_7(x_7) or R_6(x_7). Finally, from forall x_7: P_7(x_7) -> P_1(x_7), forall x_7: R_6(x_7) -> P_1(x_7), forall x_7: P_7(x_7) or R_6(x_7) we can infer forall x_7: P_1(x_7), which contradicts ~P_1(d). Therefore, the answer is no.