Consider the following premises. R_11(a_10) <-> U(a_10). forall x_11: Q_11(x_11) -> R_11(x_11). forall x_11: U(x_11) -> Q_11(x_11). Can we infer ~(U(a_10) <-> R_11(a_10)) from them?
 From forall x_11: U(x_11) -> Q_11(x_11), forall x_11: Q_11(x_11) -> R_11(x_11) we can infer forall x_11: U(x_11) -> R_11(x_11). From forall x_11: U(x_11) -> R_11(x_11) we can infer U(a_10) -> R_11(a_10). From R_11(a_10) <-> U(a_10) we can infer R_11(a_10) -> U(a_10). Finally, from U(a_10) -> R_11(a_10), R_11(a_10) -> U(a_10) we can infer U(a_10) <-> R_11(a_10), which contradicts ~(U(a_10) <-> R_11(a_10)). Therefore, the answer is no.