Consider the following premises. forall x_13: W(x_13) <-> Q_4(x_13). exists x_13: W(x_13) -> R(x_13). forall x_13: Q_4(x_13) <-> W(x_13). Can we infer forall x_13: ~(Q_4(x_13) -> R(x_13)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.