Consider the following premises. forall x: P_8(x) <-> W_3(x). forall x_8: P_8(x_8). Can we infer ~W_3(e) from them?
 From forall x_8: P_8(x_8) we can infer P_8(e). From forall x: P_8(x) <-> W_3(x) we can infer P_8(e) <-> W_3(e). From P_8(e) <-> W_3(e) we can infer P_8(e) -> W_3(e). Finally, from P_8(e) -> W_3(e), P_8(e) we can infer W_3(e), which contradicts ~W_3(e). Therefore, the answer is no.