Consider the following premises. forall y: U_4(y) -> Q(y). forall y: R_3(y) -> U_4(y). Q(e_1) <-> R_3(e_1). Can we infer ~(R_3(e_1) <-> Q(e_1)) from them?
 From forall y: R_3(y) -> U_4(y), forall y: U_4(y) -> Q(y) we can infer forall y: R_3(y) -> Q(y). From forall y: R_3(y) -> Q(y) we can infer R_3(e_1) -> Q(e_1). From Q(e_1) <-> R_3(e_1) we can infer Q(e_1) -> R_3(e_1). Finally, from R_3(e_1) -> Q(e_1), Q(e_1) -> R_3(e_1) we can infer R_3(e_1) <-> Q(e_1), which contradicts ~(R_3(e_1) <-> Q(e_1)). Therefore, the answer is no.