Consider the following premises. forall z: R_1(z) -> W_1(z). forall z: W_4(z). forall z: P(z) -> S_4(z). forall z: S_4(z) -> W_1(z). exists z: R_1(z) or P(z). Can we infer forall z: ~(W_1(z) and W_4(z)) from them?
 From forall z: P(z) -> S_4(z), forall z: S_4(z) -> W_1(z) we can infer forall z: P(z) -> W_1(z). From forall z: R_1(z) -> W_1(z), forall z: P(z) -> W_1(z), exists z: R_1(z) or P(z) we can infer exists z: W_1(z). Finally, from exists z: W_1(z), forall z: W_4(z) we can infer exists z: W_1(z) and W_4(z), which contradicts forall z: ~(W_1(z) and W_4(z)). Therefore, the answer is no.