Consider the following premises. forall x_9: Q_9(x_9) -> W(x_9). forall x_9: Q_5(x_9) -> W(x_9). forall x_9: P_5(x_9) or P_9(x_9). forall x_9: P_5(x_9) -> Q_5(x_9). forall x_9: P_9(x_9) -> Q_9(x_9). Can we infer exists x_9: ~(W(x_9) or Q(x_9)) from them?
 From forall x_9: P_9(x_9) -> Q_9(x_9), forall x_9: Q_9(x_9) -> W(x_9) we can infer forall x_9: P_9(x_9) -> W(x_9). From forall x_9: P_5(x_9) -> Q_5(x_9), forall x_9: Q_5(x_9) -> W(x_9) we can infer forall x_9: P_5(x_9) -> W(x_9). From forall x_9: P_5(x_9) -> W(x_9), forall x_9: P_9(x_9) -> W(x_9), forall x_9: P_5(x_9) or P_9(x_9) we can infer forall x_9: W(x_9). Finally, from forall x_9: W(x_9) we can infer forall x_9: W(x_9) or Q(x_9), which contradicts exists x_9: ~(W(x_9) or Q(x_9)). Therefore, the answer is no.