Consider the following premises. forall x_14: W_2(x_14) or U(x_14). forall x_14: ~Q_14(x_14). forall x_14: W_2(x_14) -> Q_14(x_14). Can we infer ~U(h) from them?
 From forall x_14: W_2(x_14) -> Q_14(x_14), forall x_14: ~Q_14(x_14) we can infer forall x_14: ~W_2(x_14). Finally, from forall x_14: W_2(x_14) or U(x_14), forall x_14: ~W_2(x_14) we can infer forall x_14: U(x_14), which contradicts ~U(h). Therefore, the answer is no.