Consider the following premises. t <-> q_9. p -> r_1. t -> p. Can we infer ~(q_9 -> r_1) from them?
 From t <-> q_9 we can infer q_9 -> t. From t -> p, p -> r_1 we can infer t -> r_1. Finally, from q_9 -> t, t -> r_1 we can infer q_9 -> r_1, which contradicts ~(q_9 -> r_1). Therefore, the answer is no.