Consider the following premises. For all x_5, x_5 is not a bartender. For all x_5, if x_5 makes tea, then x_5 is an artist. For all x_5, if x_5 were rich, then x_5 is making tea. For all x_5, if x_5 were an artist, then x_5 is a bartender. Can we infer the following from them? There is at least one x_5 for which x_5 is rich.
 From the fact that for all x_5, if x_5 makes tea, then x_5 is an artist, and that for all x_5, if x_5 were an artist, then x_5 is a bartender we can infer that for all x_5, if x_5 makes tea, then x_5 is a bartender. From the fact that for all x_5, if x_5 were rich, then x_5 is making tea, and that for all x_5, if x_5 makes tea, then x_5 is a bartender we can infer that for all x_5, if x_5 were rich, then x_5 is a bartender. Finally, from the fact that for all x_5, if x_5 were rich, then x_5 is a bartender, and that for all x_5, x_5 is not a bartender we can infer that for all x_5, x_5 is not rich, which contradicts that There is at least one x_5 for which x_5 is rich. Therefore, the answer is no.