Consider the following premises. forall x_14: P(x_14) -> T(x_14). exists x_14: T(x_14) <-> Q_14(x_14). forall x_14: T(x_14) -> P(x_14). forall x_14: Q_14(x_14) -> R_6(x_14). Can we infer forall x_14: ~(P(x_14) -> R_6(x_14)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.