Consider the following premises. forall x_8: P_8(x_8) <-> Q_8(x_8). forall x_8: T_2(x_8) -> Q_8(x_8). exists x_8: P_8(x_8) -> R(x_8). Can we infer forall x_8: ~(T_2(x_8) -> R(x_8)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.