Consider the following premises. forall x_1: U_1(x_1) or ~U(x_1). forall x_1: U_1(x_1) -> U(x_1). ~U(h). Can we infer U_1(h) from them?
 From forall x_1: U_1(x_1) or ~U(x_1) we can infer forall x_1: U(x_1) -> U_1(x_1). From forall x_1: U_1(x_1) -> U(x_1), forall x_1: U(x_1) -> U_1(x_1) we can infer forall x_1: U_1(x_1) <-> U(x_1). From forall x_1: U_1(x_1) <-> U(x_1) we can infer U_1(h) <-> U(h). Finally, from U_1(h) <-> U(h), ~U(h) we can infer ~U_1(h), which contradicts U_1(h). Therefore, the answer is no.