Consider the following premises. forall y: W_4(y) <-> Q(y). forall y: ~Q(y). forall y: W_4(y) or W(y). exists y: U_2(y) -> ~W(y). Can we infer forall y: U_2(y) from them?
 From forall y: W_4(y) <-> Q(y), forall y: ~Q(y) we can infer forall y: ~W_4(y). From forall y: W_4(y) or W(y), forall y: ~W_4(y) we can infer forall y: W(y). Finally, from exists y: U_2(y) -> ~W(y), forall y: W(y) we can infer exists y: ~U_2(y), which contradicts forall y: U_2(y). Therefore, the answer is no.