Consider the following premises. exists x_16: U_3(x_16) -> P_8(x_16). forall x_16: P_8(x_16) <-> T(x_16). forall x_16: Q_16(x_16) -> U_3(x_16). forall x_16: P(x_16) <-> Q_16(x_16). Can we infer forall x_16: ~(P(x_16) -> T(x_16)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.