Consider the following premises. forall x_8: P_8(x_8) -> Q_8(x_8). forall x_8: Q_8(x_8) -> R_8(x_8). forall x_8: Q_1(x_8) -> P_8(x_8). forall x_8: R_8(x_8) -> Q_1(x_8). Can we infer ~(R_8(a_2) -> Q_1(a_2)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.