Consider the following premises. r -> w. r or ~u. p_9 <-> w. Can we infer ~(u -> p_9) from them?
 From r or ~u we can infer u -> r. From p_9 <-> w we can infer w -> p_9. From u -> r, r -> w we can infer u -> w. Finally, from u -> w, w -> p_9 we can infer u -> p_9, which contradicts ~(u -> p_9). Therefore, the answer is no.