Consider the following premises. forall x_4: P_4(x_4) or Q_4(x_4). forall x_4: P_4(x_4) -> U_1(x_4). forall x_4: Q_4(x_4) -> U_1(x_4). Can we infer ~U_1(a) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.