Consider the following premises. forall y_4: W_1(y_4) <-> U(y_4). forall y_4: Q(y_4) -> W_1(y_4). Can we infer forall y_4: Q(y_4) -> U(y_4) from them?
 From forall y_4: W_1(y_4) <-> U(y_4) we can infer forall y_4: W_1(y_4) -> U(y_4). Finally, from forall y_4: Q(y_4) -> W_1(y_4), forall y_4: W_1(y_4) -> U(y_4) we can infer forall y_4: Q(y_4) -> U(y_4). Therefore, the answer is yes.