Consider the following premises. forall y_1: ~P_3(y_1). forall y_1: W(y_1). forall y_1: Q_1(y_1) or P_3(y_1). exists y_1: ~Q_1(y_1) or Q(y_1). Can we infer forall y_1: ~(W(y_1) and Q(y_1)) from them?
 From forall y_1: Q_1(y_1) or P_3(y_1), exists y_1: ~Q_1(y_1) or Q(y_1) we can infer exists y_1: P_3(y_1) or Q(y_1). From exists y_1: P_3(y_1) or Q(y_1), forall y_1: ~P_3(y_1) we can infer exists y_1: Q(y_1). Finally, from forall y_1: W(y_1), exists y_1: Q(y_1) we can infer exists y_1: W(y_1) and Q(y_1), which contradicts forall y_1: ~(W(y_1) and Q(y_1)). Therefore, the answer is no.