Consider the following premises. forall x_4: P_3(x_4) -> R(x_4). forall x_4: S(x_4) -> U_3(x_4). forall x_4: U_3(x_4) -> S(x_4). exists x_4: W(x_4) -> P_3(x_4). forall x_4: S(x_4) -> W(x_4). Can we infer forall x_4: ~(U_3(x_4) -> R(x_4)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.