Consider the following premises. For all x_10, x_10 will drive a car if and only if x_10 will make tea. For all x_10, x_10 will not sleep. For all x_10, if x_10 drives a car, then x_10 is sad. For all x_10, x_10 is sad or x_10 is bored. For all x_10, if x_10 were sad, then x_10 is driving a car. For all x_10, if x_10 makes tea, then x_10 is sleeping. Can we infer the following from them? There is at least one x_10 for which x_10 is not bored.
 From the fact that for all x_10, if x_10 makes tea, then x_10 is sleeping, and that for all x_10, x_10 will not sleep we can infer that for all x_10, x_10 will not make tea. From the fact that for all x_10, if x_10 were sad, then x_10 is driving a car, and that for all x_10, if x_10 drives a car, then x_10 is sad we can infer that for all x_10, x_10 is sad if and only if x_10 will drive a car. From the fact that for all x_10, x_10 will drive a car if and only if x_10 will make tea, and that for all x_10, x_10 will not make tea we can infer that for all x_10, x_10 will not drive a car. From the fact that for all x_10, x_10 is sad if and only if x_10 will drive a car, and that for all x_10, x_10 will not drive a car we can infer that for all x_10, x_10 is not sad. Finally, from the fact that for all x_10, x_10 is sad or x_10 is bored, and that for all x_10, x_10 is not sad we can infer that for all x_10, x_10 is bored, which contradicts that There is at least one x_10 for which x_10 is not bored. Therefore, the answer is no.