Consider the following premises. forall x: ~S(x). q_1. q_4 -> S(h). Can we infer q_4 from them?
 From forall x: ~S(x) we can infer ~S(h). Finally, from q_4 -> S(h), ~S(h) we can infer ~q_4, which contradicts q_4. Therefore, the answer is no.