Consider the following premises. forall x_6: Q_6(x_6). forall x_6: R_4(x_6) or P_1(x_6). forall x_6: R_4(x_6) -> ~Q_6(x_6). Can we infer ~P_1(j) from them?
 From forall x_6: R_4(x_6) -> ~Q_6(x_6), forall x_6: Q_6(x_6) we can infer forall x_6: ~R_4(x_6). Finally, from forall x_6: R_4(x_6) or P_1(x_6), forall x_6: ~R_4(x_6) we can infer forall x_6: P_1(x_6), which contradicts ~P_1(j). Therefore, the answer is no.