Consider the following premises. w_3 <-> q. p_3. q -> ~p_3. Can we infer w_3 from them?
 From w_3 <-> q we can infer w_3 -> q. From q -> ~p_3, p_3 we can infer ~q. Finally, from w_3 -> q, ~q we can infer ~w_3, which contradicts w_3. Therefore, the answer is no.