Consider the following premises. forall x_14: P(x_14) <-> U_1(x_14). forall x_14: P(x_14) <-> Q_8(x_14). exists x_14: U_1(x_14) -> P(x_14). Can we infer forall x_14: ~(U_1(x_14) -> Q_8(x_14)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.