Consider the following premises. forall y: R(y) <-> U_3(y). forall y: U_3(y). Can we infer ~R(d) from them?
 From forall y: R(y) <-> U_3(y) we can infer forall y: U_3(y) -> R(y). Finally, from forall y: U_3(y) -> R(y), forall y: U_3(y) we can infer forall y: R(y), which contradicts ~R(d). Therefore, the answer is no.