Consider the following premises. forall x_8: P_8(x_8) -> W(x_8). forall x_8: W(x_8) -> P_8(x_8). forall x_8: W(x_8) -> P_8(x_8). ~P_8(f_2). Can we infer W(f_2) from them?
 From forall x_8: P_8(x_8) -> W(x_8), forall x_8: W(x_8) -> P_8(x_8) we can infer forall x_8: P_8(x_8) <-> W(x_8). From forall x_8: P_8(x_8) <-> W(x_8) we can infer forall x_8: P_8(x_8) -> W(x_8). From forall x_8: W(x_8) -> P_8(x_8), forall x_8: P_8(x_8) -> W(x_8) we can infer forall x_8: W(x_8) <-> P_8(x_8). From forall x_8: W(x_8) <-> P_8(x_8) we can infer W(f_2) <-> P_8(f_2). Finally, from W(f_2) <-> P_8(f_2), ~P_8(f_2) we can infer ~W(f_2), which contradicts W(f_2). Therefore, the answer is no.