Consider the following premises. forall x_16: P_16(x_16) -> Q_16(x_16). forall x_16: Q_16(x_16) -> R_16(x_16). forall x_16: ~R_16(x_16). exists x_16: P_16(x_16) or P_3(x_16). forall x_16: Q_1(x_16). Can we infer forall x_16: ~Q_1(x_16) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.