Consider the following premises. forall y: W(y) -> U(y). forall y: W_3(y) -> U(y). exists y: U(y) -> W_3(y). forall y: ~W_3(y). Can we infer forall y: W(y) from them?
 From exists y: U(y) -> W_3(y), forall y: W_3(y) -> U(y) we can infer exists y: U(y) <-> W_3(y). From exists y: U(y) <-> W_3(y), forall y: ~W_3(y) we can infer exists y: ~U(y). Finally, from forall y: W(y) -> U(y), exists y: ~U(y) we can infer exists y: ~W(y), which contradicts forall y: W(y). Therefore, the answer is no.