Consider the following premises. forall x_11: Q(x_11) or ~W(x_11). W(c_3). Can we infer forall x_11: ~Q(x_11) from them?
 From forall x_11: Q(x_11) or ~W(x_11) we can infer forall x_11: W(x_11) -> Q(x_11). From W(c_3) we can infer exists x_11: W(x_11). Finally, from forall x_11: W(x_11) -> Q(x_11), exists x_11: W(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: Q(x_11), which contradicts forall x_11: ~Q(x_11). Therefore, the answer is no.