Consider the following premises. forall z: U(z) <-> U_1(z). forall z: W(z) or ~U_1(z). Can we infer forall z: U(z) -> W(z) from them?
 From forall z: W(z) or ~U_1(z) we can infer forall z: U_1(z) -> W(z). From forall z: U(z) <-> U_1(z) we can infer forall z: U(z) -> U_1(z). Finally, from forall z: U(z) -> U_1(z), forall z: U_1(z) -> W(z) we can infer forall z: U(z) -> W(z). Therefore, the answer is yes.