Consider the following premises. forall y_2: W_2(y_2) -> Q_3(y_2). forall y_2: Q_3(y_2) -> W_2(y_2). forall y_2: W_2(y_2) -> Q_3(y_2). Can we infer forall y_2: W_2(y_2) <-> Q_3(y_2) from them?
 From forall y_2: Q_3(y_2) -> W_2(y_2), forall y_2: W_2(y_2) -> Q_3(y_2) we can infer forall y_2: Q_3(y_2) <-> W_2(y_2). From forall y_2: Q_3(y_2) <-> W_2(y_2) we can infer forall y_2: Q_3(y_2) -> W_2(y_2). Finally, from forall y_2: W_2(y_2) -> Q_3(y_2), forall y_2: Q_3(y_2) -> W_2(y_2) we can infer forall y_2: W_2(y_2) <-> Q_3(y_2). Therefore, the answer is yes.