Consider the following premises. forall x_6: W(x_6) -> P_6(x_6). forall x_6: P_6(x_6) -> R(x_6). exists x_6: P_6(x_6) -> W(x_6). Can we infer forall x_6: ~(W(x_6) -> R(x_6)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.