Consider the following premises. forall x_12: P_12(x_12) or U_1(x_12). exists x_12: P_12(x_12) -> ~Q_12(x_12). forall x_12: Q_12(x_12). Can we infer forall x_12: ~(U_1(x_12) or Q_1(x_12)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.