Consider the following premises. forall x_3: U_2(x_3) -> R(x_3). forall x_3: T(x_3) <-> U_2(x_3). Can we infer exists x_3: ~(T(x_3) -> R(x_3)) from them?
 From forall x_3: T(x_3) <-> U_2(x_3) we can infer forall x_3: T(x_3) -> U_2(x_3). Finally, from forall x_3: T(x_3) -> U_2(x_3), forall x_3: U_2(x_3) -> R(x_3) we can infer forall x_3: T(x_3) -> R(x_3), which contradicts exists x_3: ~(T(x_3) -> R(x_3)). Therefore, the answer is no.