Consider the following premises. forall x_13: P_13(x_13) <-> Q_13(x_13). q. q -> P_13(a_10). Can we infer ~Q_13(a_10) from them?
 From forall x_13: P_13(x_13) <-> Q_13(x_13) we can infer forall x_13: P_13(x_13) -> Q_13(x_13). From forall x_13: P_13(x_13) -> Q_13(x_13) we can infer P_13(a_10) -> Q_13(a_10). From q -> P_13(a_10), P_13(a_10) -> Q_13(a_10) we can infer q -> Q_13(a_10). Finally, from q -> Q_13(a_10), q we can infer Q_13(a_10), which contradicts ~Q_13(a_10). Therefore, the answer is no.