Consider the following premises. forall x_11: S_1(x_11) -> Q(x_11). exists x_11: T(x_11). forall x_11: Q(x_11) -> W(x_11). forall x_11: P_11(x_11) <-> Q(x_11). forall x_11: S_1(x_11) or P_11(x_11). Can we infer forall x_11: ~(T(x_11) and W(x_11)) from them?
 From forall x_11: P_11(x_11) <-> Q(x_11) we can infer forall x_11: P_11(x_11) -> Q(x_11). From forall x_11: S_1(x_11) -> Q(x_11), forall x_11: P_11(x_11) -> Q(x_11), forall x_11: S_1(x_11) or P_11(x_11) we can infer forall x_11: Q(x_11). From forall x_11: Q(x_11) -> W(x_11), forall x_11: Q(x_11) we can infer forall x_11: W(x_11). Finally, from exists x_11: T(x_11), forall x_11: W(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: T(x_11) and W(x_11), which contradicts forall x_11: ~(T(x_11) and W(x_11)). Therefore, the answer is no.