Consider the following premises. R(h_4) -> Q(h_4). forall x: R(x) <-> Q(x). Can we infer Q(h_4) <-> R(h_4) from them?
 From forall x: R(x) <-> Q(x) we can infer forall x: Q(x) -> R(x). From forall x: Q(x) -> R(x) we can infer Q(h_4) -> R(h_4). Finally, from Q(h_4) -> R(h_4), R(h_4) -> Q(h_4) we can infer Q(h_4) <-> R(h_4). Therefore, the answer is yes.