Consider the following premises. ~q <-> p_1. ~u_1. u_1 <-> q. Can we infer ~p_1 from them?
 From u_1 <-> q, ~u_1 we can infer ~q. From ~q <-> p_1 we can infer ~q -> p_1. Finally, from ~q -> p_1, ~q we can infer p_1, which contradicts ~p_1. Therefore, the answer is no.