Consider the following premises. exists y: Q(y) -> U_3(y). forall y: ~P_4(y). forall y: U_3(y) -> T_1(y). forall y: T_1(y) -> P_4(y). Can we infer forall y: Q(y) from them?
 From forall y: U_3(y) -> T_1(y), forall y: T_1(y) -> P_4(y) we can infer forall y: U_3(y) -> P_4(y). From exists y: Q(y) -> U_3(y), forall y: U_3(y) -> P_4(y) we can infer exists y: Q(y) -> P_4(y). Finally, from exists y: Q(y) -> P_4(y), forall y: ~P_4(y) we can infer exists y: ~Q(y), which contradicts forall y: Q(y). Therefore, the answer is no.