Consider the following premises. forall x_14: S(x_14) -> Q_14(x_14). forall x_14: Q(x_14) -> Q_14(x_14). forall x_14: Q_14(x_14) -> S(x_14). exists x_14: T(x_14) or ~S(x_14). Can we infer forall x_14: ~(Q(x_14) -> T(x_14)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.