Consider the following premises. forall x_11: R_11(x_11) -> T(x_11). forall x_11: P(x_11) -> T(x_11). exists x_11: R_2(x_11) -> Q_11(x_11). forall x_11: T(x_11) -> P(x_11). forall x_11: Q_11(x_11) -> R_11(x_11). forall x_11: P(x_11) or R_2(x_11). Can we infer forall x_11: ~T(x_11) from them?
 From exists x_11: R_2(x_11) -> Q_11(x_11), forall x_11: Q_11(x_11) -> R_11(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: R_2(x_11) -> R_11(x_11). From exists x_11: R_2(x_11) -> R_11(x_11), forall x_11: R_11(x_11) -> T(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: R_2(x_11) -> T(x_11). From forall x_11: P(x_11) -> T(x_11), forall x_11: T(x_11) -> P(x_11) we can infer forall x_11: P(x_11) <-> T(x_11). From forall x_11: P(x_11) <-> T(x_11) we can infer forall x_11: P(x_11) -> T(x_11). Finally, from forall x_11: P(x_11) -> T(x_11), exists x_11: R_2(x_11) -> T(x_11), forall x_11: P(x_11) or R_2(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: T(x_11), which contradicts forall x_11: ~T(x_11). Therefore, the answer is no.