Consider the following premises. exists x_17: ~Q_17(x_17). forall x_17: P_17(x_17) or Q_5(x_17). forall x_17: P_17(x_17) <-> Q_17(x_17). Can we infer forall x_17: ~(Q_5(x_17) or Q(x_17)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.