Consider the following premises. forall z: R(z) or ~T(z). forall z: T(z) or W(z). forall z: W(z) -> R(z). Can we infer exists z: ~R(z) from them?
 From forall z: R(z) or ~T(z) we can infer forall z: T(z) -> R(z). Finally, from forall z: T(z) -> R(z), forall z: W(z) -> R(z), forall z: T(z) or W(z) we can infer forall z: R(z), which contradicts exists z: ~R(z). Therefore, the answer is no.