Consider the following premises. forall z: W(z) <-> P(z). exists z: W(z) <-> T(z). forall z: ~P(z). Can we infer forall z: T(z) from them?
 From forall z: W(z) <-> P(z) we can infer forall z: W(z) -> P(z). From forall z: W(z) -> P(z), forall z: ~P(z) we can infer forall z: ~W(z). Finally, from exists z: W(z) <-> T(z), forall z: ~W(z) we can infer exists z: ~T(z), which contradicts forall z: T(z). Therefore, the answer is no.