Consider the following premises. There is at least one y for which y is rich or y will not drink water. For all y, y is not rich. For all y, if y were rich, then y is drinking water. Can we infer the following from them? For all y, y will drink water.
 From the fact that there is at least one y for which y is rich or y will not drink water we can infer that there is at least one y for which if y drinks water, then y is rich. From the fact that there is at least one y for which if y drinks water, then y is rich, and that for all y, if y were rich, then y is drinking water we can infer that there is at least one y for which y will drink water if and only if y is rich. Finally, from the fact that there is at least one y for which y will drink water if and only if y is rich, and that for all y, y is not rich we can infer that there is at least one y for which y will not drink water, which contradicts that For all y, y will drink water. Therefore, the answer is no.