Consider the following premises. For all x_16, x_16 is a sailor or x_16 is happy. For all x_16, if x_16 were happy, then x_16 is writing a letter. There is at least one x_16 for which x_16 is not a sailor or x_16 is bored. For all x_16, x_16 will write a letter or x_16 is not bored. Can we infer the following from them? There is at least one x_16 for which x_16 will write a letter or x_16 will read a book.
 From the fact that for all x_16, x_16 is a sailor or x_16 is happy, and that there is at least one x_16 for which x_16 is not a sailor or x_16 is bored we can infer that there is at least one x_16 for which x_16 is happy or x_16 is bored. From the fact that for all x_16, x_16 will write a letter or x_16 is not bored we can infer that for all x_16, if x_16 were bored, then x_16 is writing a letter. From the fact that for all x_16, if x_16 were happy, then x_16 is writing a letter, that for all x_16, if x_16 were bored, then x_16 is writing a letter, and that there is at least one x_16 for which x_16 is happy or x_16 is bored we can infer that there is at least one x_16 for which x_16 will write a letter. Finally, from the fact that there is at least one x_16 for which x_16 will write a letter we can infer that there is at least one x_16 for which x_16 will write a letter or x_16 will read a book. Therefore, the answer is yes.