Consider the following premises. forall x_4: W_2(x_4) <-> U_2(x_4). forall x_4: W_2(x_4) <-> U_2(x_4). Can we infer U_2(b) -> W_2(b) from them?
 From forall x_4: W_2(x_4) <-> U_2(x_4) we can infer forall x_4: U_2(x_4) -> W_2(x_4). From forall x_4: W_2(x_4) <-> U_2(x_4) we can infer forall x_4: W_2(x_4) -> U_2(x_4). From forall x_4: U_2(x_4) -> W_2(x_4), forall x_4: W_2(x_4) -> U_2(x_4) we can infer forall x_4: U_2(x_4) <-> W_2(x_4). From forall x_4: U_2(x_4) <-> W_2(x_4) we can infer U_2(b) <-> W_2(b). Finally, from U_2(b) <-> W_2(b) we can infer U_2(b) -> W_2(b). Therefore, the answer is yes.