Consider the following premises. forall x_10: P_9(x_10) -> U(x_10). forall x_10: S(x_10) -> Q_10(x_10). forall x_10: U(x_10) -> P_9(x_10). forall x_10: P_9(x_10) -> S(x_10). forall x_10: Q_10(x_10) -> R_10(x_10). Can we infer exists x_10: ~(U(x_10) -> R_10(x_10)) from them?
 From forall x_10: S(x_10) -> Q_10(x_10), forall x_10: Q_10(x_10) -> R_10(x_10) we can infer forall x_10: S(x_10) -> R_10(x_10). From forall x_10: P_9(x_10) -> U(x_10), forall x_10: U(x_10) -> P_9(x_10) we can infer forall x_10: P_9(x_10) <-> U(x_10). From forall x_10: P_9(x_10) <-> U(x_10) we can infer forall x_10: U(x_10) -> P_9(x_10). From forall x_10: U(x_10) -> P_9(x_10), forall x_10: P_9(x_10) -> S(x_10) we can infer forall x_10: U(x_10) -> S(x_10). Finally, from forall x_10: U(x_10) -> S(x_10), forall x_10: S(x_10) -> R_10(x_10) we can infer forall x_10: U(x_10) -> R_10(x_10), which contradicts exists x_10: ~(U(x_10) -> R_10(x_10)). Therefore, the answer is no.