Consider the following premises. forall y: W(y) -> R(y). exists y: R(y) -> W(y). forall y: Q(y). forall y: W(y) -> ~Q(y). Can we infer forall y: R(y) from them?
 From forall y: W(y) -> R(y), exists y: R(y) -> W(y) we can infer exists y: W(y) <-> R(y). From forall y: W(y) -> ~Q(y), forall y: Q(y) we can infer forall y: ~W(y). Finally, from exists y: W(y) <-> R(y), forall y: ~W(y) we can infer exists y: ~R(y), which contradicts forall y: R(y). Therefore, the answer is no.