Consider the following premises. S_2(d_1) <-> q_10. ~p_10. p_10 <-> q_10. forall x: U_1(x) <-> S_2(x). Can we infer U_1(d_1) from them?
 From p_10 <-> q_10, ~p_10 we can infer ~q_10. From forall x: U_1(x) <-> S_2(x) we can infer U_1(d_1) <-> S_2(d_1). From S_2(d_1) <-> q_10, ~q_10 we can infer ~S_2(d_1). Finally, from U_1(d_1) <-> S_2(d_1), ~S_2(d_1) we can infer ~U_1(d_1), which contradicts U_1(d_1). Therefore, the answer is no.