Consider the following premises. exists x_11: Q_4(x_11) -> Q_3(x_11). forall x_11: T(x_11) -> Q_4(x_11). forall x_11: T(x_11) <-> Q_3(x_11). Can we infer forall x_11: ~(T(x_11) -> Q_3(x_11)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.