Consider the following premises. forall y: ~W(y). s -> Q(f_3). forall y: W(y) -> Q(y). forall y: Q(y) -> W(y). Can we infer s from them?
 From forall y: Q(y) -> W(y), forall y: W(y) -> Q(y) we can infer forall y: Q(y) <-> W(y). From forall y: Q(y) <-> W(y), forall y: ~W(y) we can infer forall y: ~Q(y). From forall y: ~Q(y) we can infer ~Q(f_3). Finally, from s -> Q(f_3), ~Q(f_3) we can infer ~s, which contradicts s. Therefore, the answer is no.