Consider the following premises. q_1 <-> q_14. q_1 -> t_1. q_14 or ~p. Can we infer ~(p -> t_1) from them?
 From q_1 <-> q_14 we can infer q_14 -> q_1. From q_14 or ~p we can infer p -> q_14. From q_14 -> q_1, q_1 -> t_1 we can infer q_14 -> t_1. Finally, from p -> q_14, q_14 -> t_1 we can infer p -> t_1, which contradicts ~(p -> t_1). Therefore, the answer is no.