Consider the following premises. exists y_4: S(y_4) <-> W(y_4). forall y_4: ~W(y_4). forall y_4: S(y_4) or W_2(y_4). Can we infer forall y_4: ~W_2(y_4) from them?
 From exists y_4: S(y_4) <-> W(y_4), forall y_4: ~W(y_4) we can infer exists y_4: ~S(y_4). Finally, from forall y_4: S(y_4) or W_2(y_4), exists y_4: ~S(y_4) we can infer exists y_4: W_2(y_4), which contradicts forall y_4: ~W_2(y_4). Therefore, the answer is no.