Consider the following premises. forall x_5: ~U_2(x_5) or R(x_5). forall x_5: ~P_5(x_5) or U_2(x_5). exists x_5: P_5(x_5) or Q_5(x_5). forall x_5: ~Q_5(x_5) or R_2(x_5). Can we infer forall x_5: ~(R_2(x_5) or R(x_5)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.