Consider the following premises. p_3 or W(a_10). forall x_1: W(x_1) -> U(x_1). p_3 <-> U(a_10). Can we infer ~U(a_10) from them?
 From forall x_1: W(x_1) -> U(x_1) we can infer W(a_10) -> U(a_10). From p_3 <-> U(a_10) we can infer p_3 -> U(a_10). Finally, from p_3 -> U(a_10), W(a_10) -> U(a_10), p_3 or W(a_10) we can infer U(a_10), which contradicts ~U(a_10). Therefore, the answer is no.