Consider the following premises. forall x_9: P_9(x_9) <-> T_1(x_9). forall x_9: P_9(x_9) -> Q_2(x_9). exists x_9: Q_2(x_9) -> R_2(x_9). Can we infer forall x_9: ~(T_1(x_9) -> R_2(x_9)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.