Consider the following premises. For all x_6, x_6 will drink water if and only if x_6 will cook. For all x_6, if x_6 cooks, then x_6 is happy. For all x_6, x_6 will not drink water. For all x_6, if x_6 were happy, then x_6 is sleeping. For all x_6, if x_6 sleeps, then x_6 is cooking. Can we infer the following from them? There is at least one x_6 for which x_6 will sleep.
 From the fact that for all x_6, if x_6 cooks, then x_6 is happy, and that for all x_6, if x_6 were happy, then x_6 is sleeping we can infer that for all x_6, if x_6 cooks, then x_6 is sleeping. From the fact that for all x_6, if x_6 cooks, then x_6 is sleeping, and that for all x_6, if x_6 sleeps, then x_6 is cooking we can infer that for all x_6, x_6 will cook if and only if x_6 will sleep. From the fact that for all x_6, x_6 will drink water if and only if x_6 will cook, and that for all x_6, x_6 will not drink water we can infer that for all x_6, x_6 will not cook. Finally, from the fact that for all x_6, x_6 will cook if and only if x_6 will sleep, and that for all x_6, x_6 will not cook we can infer that for all x_6, x_6 will not sleep, which contradicts that There is at least one x_6 for which x_6 will sleep. Therefore, the answer is no.