Consider the following premises. exists x_18: U_4(x_18) -> Q_18(x_18). forall x_18: ~R_18(x_18). forall x_18: U_4(x_18) or U(x_18). forall x_18: Q_18(x_18) -> R_18(x_18). Can we infer forall x_18: ~(U(x_18) or Q_4(x_18)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.