Consider the following premises. forall x_9: R_1(x_9) -> R(x_9). forall x_9: Q_9(x_9) -> R_1(x_9). exists x_9: T_2(x_9) <-> Q_9(x_9). Can we infer forall x_9: ~(T_2(x_9) -> R(x_9)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.