Consider the following premises. q. forall x_17: P_17(x_17) or Q_11(x_17). forall x_17: ~Q_17(x_17). forall x_17: P_17(x_17) <-> Q_17(x_17). Can we infer ~Q_11(f_3) from them?
 From forall x_17: P_17(x_17) <-> Q_17(x_17), forall x_17: ~Q_17(x_17) we can infer forall x_17: ~P_17(x_17). Finally, from forall x_17: P_17(x_17) or Q_11(x_17), forall x_17: ~P_17(x_17) we can infer forall x_17: Q_11(x_17), which contradicts ~Q_11(f_3). Therefore, the answer is no.