Consider the following premises. exists x_14: P_8(x_14) or Q_8(x_14). forall x_14: ~P_8(x_14). forall x_14: Q_14(x_14) -> Q_1(x_14). forall x_14: P_14(x_14). forall x_14: P_14(x_14) -> Q_14(x_14). Can we infer forall x_14: ~(Q_8(x_14) and Q_1(x_14)) from them?
 From forall x_14: P_14(x_14) -> Q_14(x_14), forall x_14: P_14(x_14) we can infer forall x_14: Q_14(x_14). From exists x_14: P_8(x_14) or Q_8(x_14), forall x_14: ~P_8(x_14) we can infer exists x_14: Q_8(x_14). From forall x_14: Q_14(x_14) -> Q_1(x_14), forall x_14: Q_14(x_14) we can infer forall x_14: Q_1(x_14). Finally, from exists x_14: Q_8(x_14), forall x_14: Q_1(x_14) we can infer exists x_14: Q_8(x_14) and Q_1(x_14), which contradicts forall x_14: ~(Q_8(x_14) and Q_1(x_14)). Therefore, the answer is no.