Consider the following premises. exists x_2: S(x_2) or P(x_2). forall x_2: S(x_2) -> R_4(x_2). forall x_2: ~U_2(x_2). forall x_2: R_4(x_2) -> U_2(x_2). Can we infer forall x_2: ~P(x_2) from them?
 From forall x_2: S(x_2) -> R_4(x_2), forall x_2: R_4(x_2) -> U_2(x_2) we can infer forall x_2: S(x_2) -> U_2(x_2). From forall x_2: S(x_2) -> U_2(x_2), forall x_2: ~U_2(x_2) we can infer forall x_2: ~S(x_2). Finally, from exists x_2: S(x_2) or P(x_2), forall x_2: ~S(x_2) we can infer exists x_2: P(x_2), which contradicts forall x_2: ~P(x_2). Therefore, the answer is no.