Consider the following premises. forall x_20: ~P_20(x_20). forall x_20: P_16(x_20) -> ~Q_20(x_20). p_2 -> P_16(h). forall x_20: P_20(x_20) or Q_20(x_20). Can we infer p_2 from them?
 From forall x_20: P_20(x_20) or Q_20(x_20), forall x_20: ~P_20(x_20) we can infer forall x_20: Q_20(x_20). From forall x_20: P_16(x_20) -> ~Q_20(x_20), forall x_20: Q_20(x_20) we can infer forall x_20: ~P_16(x_20). From forall x_20: ~P_16(x_20) we can infer ~P_16(h). Finally, from p_2 -> P_16(h), ~P_16(h) we can infer ~p_2, which contradicts p_2. Therefore, the answer is no.