Consider the following premises. forall x_15: W(x_15). exists x_15: ~P_15(x_15). forall x_15: Q_15(x_15) or Q_5(x_15). forall x_15: P_15(x_15) <-> Q_15(x_15). Can we infer forall x_15: ~(W(x_15) and Q_5(x_15)) from them?
 From forall x_15: P_15(x_15) <-> Q_15(x_15), exists x_15: ~P_15(x_15) we can infer exists x_15: ~Q_15(x_15). From forall x_15: Q_15(x_15) or Q_5(x_15), exists x_15: ~Q_15(x_15) we can infer exists x_15: Q_5(x_15). Finally, from forall x_15: W(x_15), exists x_15: Q_5(x_15) we can infer exists x_15: W(x_15) and Q_5(x_15), which contradicts forall x_15: ~(W(x_15) and Q_5(x_15)). Therefore, the answer is no.