Consider the following premises. forall y_3: S(y_3) -> R_2(y_3). exists y_3: ~W(y_3). forall y_3: W(y_3) or Q_2(y_3). forall y_3: Q_2(y_3) -> S(y_3). Can we infer forall y_3: ~R_2(y_3) from them?
 From forall y_3: Q_2(y_3) -> S(y_3), forall y_3: S(y_3) -> R_2(y_3) we can infer forall y_3: Q_2(y_3) -> R_2(y_3). From forall y_3: W(y_3) or Q_2(y_3), exists y_3: ~W(y_3) we can infer exists y_3: Q_2(y_3). Finally, from forall y_3: Q_2(y_3) -> R_2(y_3), exists y_3: Q_2(y_3) we can infer exists y_3: R_2(y_3), which contradicts forall y_3: ~R_2(y_3). Therefore, the answer is no.