Consider the following premises. For all y_1, if y_1 were rich, then y_1 is a mechanic. For all y_1, y_1 will play tennis or y_1 is rich. There is at least one y_1 for which y_1 will not play tennis or y_1 is a sailor. For all y_1, y_1 is not a mechanic. Can we infer the following from them? For all y_1, y_1 is not a sailor.
 From the fact that for all y_1, if y_1 were rich, then y_1 is a mechanic, and that for all y_1, y_1 is not a mechanic we can infer that for all y_1, y_1 is not rich. From the fact that for all y_1, y_1 will play tennis or y_1 is rich, and that there is at least one y_1 for which y_1 will not play tennis or y_1 is a sailor we can infer that there is at least one y_1 for which y_1 is rich or y_1 is a sailor. Finally, from the fact that there is at least one y_1 for which y_1 is rich or y_1 is a sailor, and that for all y_1, y_1 is not rich we can infer that there is at least one y_1 for which y_1 is a sailor, which contradicts that For all y_1, y_1 is not a sailor. Therefore, the answer is no.