Consider the following premises. exists x_14: Q(x_14) or ~S_2(x_14). forall x_14: Q(x_14) <-> Q_14(x_14). forall x_14: Q_14(x_14) -> S_2(x_14). Can we infer forall x_14: ~(S_2(x_14) -> Q(x_14)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.