Consider the following premises. p <-> q. q -> q_14. p or ~q_14. Can we infer ~(p -> q) from them?
 From p or ~q_14 we can infer q_14 -> p. From q -> q_14, q_14 -> p we can infer q -> p. Finally, from p <-> q we can infer p -> q, which contradicts ~(p -> q). Therefore, the answer is no.