Consider the following premises. forall x_4: W_3(x_4) <-> S(x_4). forall x_4: Q(x_4) -> W_3(x_4). forall x_4: W_3(x_4) -> Q(x_4). exists x_4: ~S(x_4). Can we infer forall x_4: Q(x_4) from them?
 From forall x_4: W_3(x_4) -> Q(x_4), forall x_4: Q(x_4) -> W_3(x_4) we can infer forall x_4: W_3(x_4) <-> Q(x_4). From forall x_4: W_3(x_4) <-> S(x_4), exists x_4: ~S(x_4) we can infer exists x_4: ~W_3(x_4). Finally, from forall x_4: W_3(x_4) <-> Q(x_4), exists x_4: ~W_3(x_4) we can infer exists x_4: ~Q(x_4), which contradicts forall x_4: Q(x_4). Therefore, the answer is no.