Consider the following premises. exists x_17: Q_17(x_17) -> R_11(x_17). forall x_17: P(x_17). forall x_17: P_17(x_17). forall x_17: P_17(x_17) <-> Q_17(x_17). Can we infer forall x_17: ~(P(x_17) and R_11(x_17)) from them?
 From forall x_17: P_17(x_17) <-> Q_17(x_17) we can infer forall x_17: P_17(x_17) -> Q_17(x_17). From forall x_17: P_17(x_17) -> Q_17(x_17), exists x_17: Q_17(x_17) -> R_11(x_17) we can infer exists x_17: P_17(x_17) -> R_11(x_17). From exists x_17: P_17(x_17) -> R_11(x_17), forall x_17: P_17(x_17) we can infer exists x_17: R_11(x_17). Finally, from forall x_17: P(x_17), exists x_17: R_11(x_17) we can infer exists x_17: P(x_17) and R_11(x_17), which contradicts forall x_17: ~(P(x_17) and R_11(x_17)). Therefore, the answer is no.