Consider the following premises. forall x: ~R_1(x). w -> q_11. q_11 -> w. R_1(j_1) <-> q_11. Can we infer w from them?
 From w -> q_11, q_11 -> w we can infer w <-> q_11. From forall x: ~R_1(x) we can infer ~R_1(j_1). From R_1(j_1) <-> q_11, ~R_1(j_1) we can infer ~q_11. Finally, from w <-> q_11, ~q_11 we can infer ~w, which contradicts w. Therefore, the answer is no.