Consider the following premises. P(f_2) -> W(f_2). ~P(f_2). forall x_3: W(x_3) -> P(x_3). Can we infer W(f_2) from them?
 From forall x_3: W(x_3) -> P(x_3) we can infer W(f_2) -> P(f_2). From P(f_2) -> W(f_2), W(f_2) -> P(f_2) we can infer P(f_2) <-> W(f_2). From P(f_2) <-> W(f_2) we can infer W(f_2) -> P(f_2). Finally, from W(f_2) -> P(f_2), ~P(f_2) we can infer ~W(f_2), which contradicts W(f_2). Therefore, the answer is no.