Consider the following premises. forall x_9: P_8(x_9) -> P(x_9). forall x_9: T_2(x_9). forall x_9: Q_9(x_9) -> S(x_9). forall x_9: P_8(x_9) or Q_8(x_9). forall x_9: Q_8(x_9) -> P(x_9). forall x_9: T_2(x_9) -> Q_9(x_9). Can we infer exists x_9: ~(S(x_9) and P(x_9)) from them?
 From forall x_9: T_2(x_9) -> Q_9(x_9), forall x_9: Q_9(x_9) -> S(x_9) we can infer forall x_9: T_2(x_9) -> S(x_9). From forall x_9: P_8(x_9) -> P(x_9), forall x_9: Q_8(x_9) -> P(x_9), forall x_9: P_8(x_9) or Q_8(x_9) we can infer forall x_9: P(x_9). From forall x_9: T_2(x_9) -> S(x_9), forall x_9: T_2(x_9) we can infer forall x_9: S(x_9). Finally, from forall x_9: S(x_9), forall x_9: P(x_9) we can infer forall x_9: S(x_9) and P(x_9), which contradicts exists x_9: ~(S(x_9) and P(x_9)). Therefore, the answer is no.