Consider the following premises. forall x_16: P_16(x_16). forall x_16: P_16(x_16) -> Q(x_16). exists x_16: W(x_16) -> P(x_16). forall x_16: W(x_16) and Q_14(x_16). Can we infer forall x_16: ~Q(x_16) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.