Consider the following premises. exists x_8: Q(x_8) <-> Q_8(x_8). forall x_8: P_3(x_8) <-> Q_8(x_8). forall x_8: ~P_3(x_8). Can we infer forall x_8: Q(x_8) from them?
 From exists x_8: Q(x_8) <-> Q_8(x_8) we can infer exists x_8: Q(x_8) -> Q_8(x_8). From forall x_8: P_3(x_8) <-> Q_8(x_8), forall x_8: ~P_3(x_8) we can infer forall x_8: ~Q_8(x_8). Finally, from exists x_8: Q(x_8) -> Q_8(x_8), forall x_8: ~Q_8(x_8) we can infer exists x_8: ~Q(x_8), which contradicts forall x_8: Q(x_8). Therefore, the answer is no.