Consider the following premises. forall x_13: R(x_13) <-> Q_13(x_13). Q_13(h) or ~q_2. R(h) or q_2. Can we infer ~Q_13(h) from them?
 From forall x_13: R(x_13) <-> Q_13(x_13) we can infer forall x_13: R(x_13) -> Q_13(x_13). From forall x_13: R(x_13) -> Q_13(x_13) we can infer R(h) -> Q_13(h). From Q_13(h) or ~q_2 we can infer q_2 -> Q_13(h). Finally, from R(h) -> Q_13(h), q_2 -> Q_13(h), R(h) or q_2 we can infer Q_13(h), which contradicts ~Q_13(h). Therefore, the answer is no.