Consider the following premises. exists x_7: U_2(x_7) or ~P_2(x_7). forall x_7: Q_1(x_7) -> U_4(x_7). forall x_7: U_2(x_7) -> Q_1(x_7). Can we infer forall x_7: ~(P_2(x_7) -> U_4(x_7)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.