Consider the following premises. forall x: U(x) -> R(x). forall x: W(x) -> U(x). exists x: ~W(x). forall x: W(x) or ~R(x). Can we infer forall x: R(x) from them?
 From forall x: W(x) -> U(x), forall x: U(x) -> R(x) we can infer forall x: W(x) -> R(x). From forall x: W(x) or ~R(x) we can infer forall x: R(x) -> W(x). From forall x: W(x) -> R(x), forall x: R(x) -> W(x) we can infer forall x: W(x) <-> R(x). Finally, from forall x: W(x) <-> R(x), exists x: ~W(x) we can infer exists x: ~R(x), which contradicts forall x: R(x). Therefore, the answer is no.