Consider the following premises. forall y_4: T(y_4) -> W_4(y_4). forall y_4: W_4(y_4) -> U_2(y_4). exists y_4: T(y_4). Can we infer forall y_4: ~U_2(y_4) from them?
 From forall y_4: T(y_4) -> W_4(y_4), exists y_4: T(y_4) we can infer exists y_4: W_4(y_4). Finally, from forall y_4: W_4(y_4) -> U_2(y_4), exists y_4: W_4(y_4) we can infer exists y_4: U_2(y_4), which contradicts forall y_4: ~U_2(y_4). Therefore, the answer is no.