Consider the following premises. forall x_22: P_22(x_22). forall y_2: T_3(y_2) -> W_2(y_2). forall y_2: T_3(y_2). Can we infer ~W_2(a_9) from them?
 From forall x_22: P_22(x_22) we can infer P_22(a_22). Finally, from forall y_2: T_3(y_2) -> W_2(y_2), forall y_2: T_3(y_2) we can infer forall y_2: W_2(y_2), which contradicts ~W_2(a_9). Therefore, the answer is no.