Consider the following premises. forall x_3: Q_3(x_3) -> W(x_3). forall x_3: W(x_3) -> Q_3(x_3). Can we infer W(a_2) -> Q_3(a_2) from them?
 From forall x_3: W(x_3) -> Q_3(x_3), forall x_3: Q_3(x_3) -> W(x_3) we can infer forall x_3: W(x_3) <-> Q_3(x_3). From forall x_3: W(x_3) <-> Q_3(x_3) we can infer W(a_2) <-> Q_3(a_2). Finally, from W(a_2) <-> Q_3(a_2) we can infer W(a_2) -> Q_3(a_2). Therefore, the answer is yes.