Consider the following premises. s <-> u. s or ~w_3. u <-> w_3. Can we infer ~(u <-> s) from them?
 From u <-> w_3 we can infer u -> w_3. From s <-> u we can infer s -> u. From s or ~w_3 we can infer w_3 -> s. From u -> w_3, w_3 -> s we can infer u -> s. Finally, from u -> s, s -> u we can infer u <-> s, which contradicts ~(u <-> s). Therefore, the answer is no.