Consider the following premises. Q_8(d) <-> w. forall x_8: Q_8(x_8) -> R(x_8). forall x_8: R(x_8) -> Q_8(x_8). ~R(d). Can we infer w from them?
 From forall x_8: R(x_8) -> Q_8(x_8), forall x_8: Q_8(x_8) -> R(x_8) we can infer forall x_8: R(x_8) <-> Q_8(x_8). From forall x_8: R(x_8) <-> Q_8(x_8) we can infer R(d) <-> Q_8(d). From R(d) <-> Q_8(d), ~R(d) we can infer ~Q_8(d). Finally, from Q_8(d) <-> w, ~Q_8(d) we can infer ~w, which contradicts w. Therefore, the answer is no.