Consider the following premises. For all y_3, if y_3 were sad, then y_3 is rich. For all y_3, if y_3 were sad, then y_3 is making tea. For all y_3, if y_3 were rich, then y_3 is sad. Can we infer the following from them? There is at least one y_3 for which the fact that y_3 were rich does not imply that y_3 is making tea.
 From the fact that for all y_3, if y_3 were rich, then y_3 is sad, and that for all y_3, if y_3 were sad, then y_3 is rich we can infer that for all y_3, y_3 is rich if and only if y_3 is sad. From the fact that for all y_3, y_3 is rich if and only if y_3 is sad we can infer that for all y_3, if y_3 were rich, then y_3 is sad. Finally, from the fact that for all y_3, if y_3 were rich, then y_3 is sad, and that for all y_3, if y_3 were sad, then y_3 is making tea we can infer that for all y_3, if y_3 were rich, then y_3 is making tea, which contradicts that There is at least one y_3 for which the fact that y_3 were rich does not imply that y_3 is making tea. Therefore, the answer is no.