Consider the following premises. exists x_11: S_2(x_11). forall x_11: ~P_11(x_11). forall x_11: S_2(x_11) -> T(x_11). forall x_11: P_11(x_11) or U(x_11). Can we infer forall x_11: ~(U(x_11) and T(x_11)) from them?
 From forall x_11: P_11(x_11) or U(x_11), forall x_11: ~P_11(x_11) we can infer forall x_11: U(x_11). From forall x_11: S_2(x_11) -> T(x_11), exists x_11: S_2(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: T(x_11). Finally, from forall x_11: U(x_11), exists x_11: T(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: U(x_11) and T(x_11), which contradicts forall x_11: ~(U(x_11) and T(x_11)). Therefore, the answer is no.