Consider the following premises. forall y: W(y) <-> T_2(y). forall y: T_2(y) or ~R(y). Can we infer forall y: R(y) -> W(y) from them?
 From forall y: W(y) <-> T_2(y) we can infer forall y: T_2(y) -> W(y). From forall y: T_2(y) or ~R(y) we can infer forall y: R(y) -> T_2(y). Finally, from forall y: R(y) -> T_2(y), forall y: T_2(y) -> W(y) we can infer forall y: R(y) -> W(y). Therefore, the answer is yes.