Consider the following premises. forall z: Q(z) or ~Q_1(z). p_8 <-> Q_1(e). forall z: ~Q(z). Can we infer p_8 from them?
 From forall z: Q(z) or ~Q_1(z) we can infer forall z: Q_1(z) -> Q(z). From forall z: Q_1(z) -> Q(z), forall z: ~Q(z) we can infer forall z: ~Q_1(z). From forall z: ~Q_1(z) we can infer ~Q_1(e). Finally, from p_8 <-> Q_1(e), ~Q_1(e) we can infer ~p_8, which contradicts p_8. Therefore, the answer is no.