Consider the following premises. ~S_7(f). S_7(f) -> R_7(f). forall x_7: R_7(x_7) -> S_7(x_7). Can we infer R_7(f) from them?
 From forall x_7: R_7(x_7) -> S_7(x_7) we can infer R_7(f) -> S_7(f). From S_7(f) -> R_7(f), R_7(f) -> S_7(f) we can infer S_7(f) <-> R_7(f). Finally, from S_7(f) <-> R_7(f), ~S_7(f) we can infer ~R_7(f), which contradicts R_7(f). Therefore, the answer is no.