Consider the following premises. exists x_6: Q(x_6). forall x_6: U_4(x_6) or ~Q_6(x_6). forall x_6: P_4(x_6) or Q_6(x_6). forall x_6: P_4(x_6) -> U_4(x_6). Can we infer forall x_6: ~(U_4(x_6) and Q(x_6)) from them?
 From forall x_6: U_4(x_6) or ~Q_6(x_6) we can infer forall x_6: Q_6(x_6) -> U_4(x_6). From forall x_6: P_4(x_6) -> U_4(x_6), forall x_6: Q_6(x_6) -> U_4(x_6), forall x_6: P_4(x_6) or Q_6(x_6) we can infer forall x_6: U_4(x_6). Finally, from forall x_6: U_4(x_6), exists x_6: Q(x_6) we can infer exists x_6: U_4(x_6) and Q(x_6), which contradicts forall x_6: ~(U_4(x_6) and Q(x_6)). Therefore, the answer is no.