Consider the following premises. For all x_15, x_15 will read a book or x_15 is happy. There is at least one x_15 for which x_15 will not read a book or x_15 will cook. For all x_15, x_15 will not play a game. For all x_15, x_15 will play a game if and only if x_15 is happy. For all x_15, if x_15 were a writer, then x_15 is not cooking. Can we infer the following from them? For all x_15, x_15 is a writer.
 From the fact that for all x_15, x_15 will play a game if and only if x_15 is happy, and that for all x_15, x_15 will not play a game we can infer that for all x_15, x_15 is not happy. From the fact that for all x_15, x_15 will read a book or x_15 is happy, and that there is at least one x_15 for which x_15 will not read a book or x_15 will cook we can infer that there is at least one x_15 for which x_15 is happy or x_15 will cook. From the fact that there is at least one x_15 for which x_15 is happy or x_15 will cook, and that for all x_15, x_15 is not happy we can infer that there is at least one x_15 for which x_15 will cook. Finally, from the fact that for all x_15, if x_15 were a writer, then x_15 is not cooking, and that there is at least one x_15 for which x_15 will cook we can infer that there is at least one x_15 for which x_15 is not a writer, which contradicts that For all x_15, x_15 is a writer. Therefore, the answer is no.