Consider the following premises. forall x_11: Q_7(x_11) -> R_7(x_11). forall x_11: P_11(x_11) or P(x_11). exists x_11: P_7(x_11) -> R_7(x_11). forall x_11: ~P_11(x_11). forall x_11: P_7(x_11) or Q_7(x_11). Can we infer forall x_11: ~(P(x_11) and R_7(x_11)) from them?
 From forall x_11: P_11(x_11) or P(x_11), forall x_11: ~P_11(x_11) we can infer forall x_11: P(x_11). From exists x_11: P_7(x_11) -> R_7(x_11), forall x_11: Q_7(x_11) -> R_7(x_11), forall x_11: P_7(x_11) or Q_7(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: R_7(x_11). Finally, from forall x_11: P(x_11), exists x_11: R_7(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: P(x_11) and R_7(x_11), which contradicts forall x_11: ~(P(x_11) and R_7(x_11)). Therefore, the answer is no.