Consider the following premises. For all x_1, if x_1 were bored, then x_1 is not a politician. For all x_1, x_1 is rich. For all x_1, if x_1 were rich, then x_1 is a politician. Can we infer the following from them? There is at least one x_1 for which x_1 is bored.
 From the fact that for all x_1, if x_1 were rich, then x_1 is a politician, and that for all x_1, x_1 is rich we can infer that for all x_1, x_1 is a politician. Finally, from the fact that for all x_1, if x_1 were bored, then x_1 is not a politician, and that for all x_1, x_1 is a politician we can infer that for all x_1, x_1 is not bored, which contradicts that There is at least one x_1 for which x_1 is bored. Therefore, the answer is no.