Consider the following premises. forall x_7: U(x_7) -> Q_7(x_7). exists x_7: Q_7(x_7) -> U(x_7). forall x_7: S_4(x_7) -> U(x_7). Can we infer forall x_7: ~(S_4(x_7) -> Q_7(x_7)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.