Consider the following premises. There is at least one x_2 for which if x_2 were a soldier, then x_2 is a writer. For all x_2, if x_2 were rich, then x_2 is a writer. For all x_2, x_2 will not read a book or x_2 is rich. For all x_2, x_2 will read a book or x_2 is a soldier. Can we infer the following from them? For all x_2, x_2 is not a writer.
 From the fact that for all x_2, x_2 will read a book or x_2 is a soldier, and that for all x_2, x_2 will not read a book or x_2 is rich we can infer that for all x_2, x_2 is a soldier or x_2 is rich. Finally, from the fact that there is at least one x_2 for which if x_2 were a soldier, then x_2 is a writer, that for all x_2, if x_2 were rich, then x_2 is a writer, and that for all x_2, x_2 is a soldier or x_2 is rich we can infer that there is at least one x_2 for which x_2 is a writer, which contradicts that For all x_2, x_2 is not a writer. Therefore, the answer is no.