Consider the following premises. w_1 <-> p. p -> q_4. forall x: W(x). W(e) -> p. Can we infer ~q_4 from them?
 From forall x: W(x) we can infer W(e). From W(e) we can infer W(e) or w_1. From w_1 <-> p we can infer w_1 -> p. From W(e) -> p, w_1 -> p, W(e) or w_1 we can infer p. Finally, from p -> q_4, p we can infer q_4, which contradicts ~q_4. Therefore, the answer is no.