Consider the following premises. forall x_13: P_13(x_13) <-> Q_13(x_13). exists x_13: P_8(x_13) or ~Q_13(x_13). forall x_13: P_3(x_13) -> P_13(x_13). Can we infer forall x_13: ~(P_3(x_13) -> P_8(x_13)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.