Consider the following premises. P_16(e) -> w_1. Q_16(e). forall x_16: P_16(x_16) or ~Q_16(x_16). Can we infer ~w_1 from them?
 From forall x_16: P_16(x_16) or ~Q_16(x_16) we can infer forall x_16: Q_16(x_16) -> P_16(x_16). From forall x_16: Q_16(x_16) -> P_16(x_16) we can infer Q_16(e) -> P_16(e). From Q_16(e) -> P_16(e), Q_16(e) we can infer P_16(e). Finally, from P_16(e) -> w_1, P_16(e) we can infer w_1, which contradicts ~w_1. Therefore, the answer is no.