Consider the following premises. forall z: Q(z) or U(z). q. Q(h) -> ~q. Can we infer ~U(h) from them?
 From forall z: Q(z) or U(z) we can infer Q(h) or U(h). From Q(h) -> ~q, q we can infer ~Q(h). Finally, from Q(h) or U(h), ~Q(h) we can infer U(h), which contradicts ~U(h). Therefore, the answer is no.