Consider the following premises. forall x_8: Q_8(x_8) or Q_6(x_8). exists x_8: ~T_1(x_8) or Q(x_8). forall x_8: T_1(x_8) or ~Q_8(x_8). forall x_8: Q_6(x_8) -> T_1(x_8). Can we infer forall x_8: ~(P(x_8) or Q(x_8)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.