Consider the following premises. For all x_10, x_10 will drive a car or x_10 will not make tea. There is at least one x_10 for which if x_10 drives a car, then x_10 is rich. For all x_10, if x_10 were rich, then x_10 is a janitor. For all x_10, if x_10 were a janitor, then x_10 is making tea. Can we infer the following from them? For all x_10, if is not true that x_10 will drive a car if and only if x_10 will make tea.
 From the fact that there is at least one x_10 for which if x_10 drives a car, then x_10 is rich, and that for all x_10, if x_10 were rich, then x_10 is a janitor we can infer that there is at least one x_10 for which if x_10 drives a car, then x_10 is a janitor. From the fact that for all x_10, x_10 will drive a car or x_10 will not make tea we can infer that for all x_10, if x_10 makes tea, then x_10 is driving a car. From the fact that there is at least one x_10 for which if x_10 drives a car, then x_10 is a janitor, and that for all x_10, if x_10 were a janitor, then x_10 is making tea we can infer that there is at least one x_10 for which if x_10 drives a car, then x_10 is making tea. Finally, from the fact that there is at least one x_10 for which if x_10 drives a car, then x_10 is making tea, and that for all x_10, if x_10 makes tea, then x_10 is driving a car we can infer that there is at least one x_10 for which x_10 will drive a car if and only if x_10 will make tea, which contradicts that For all x_10, if is not true that x_10 will drive a car if and only if x_10 will make tea. Therefore, the answer is no.