Consider the following premises. p -> ~w. forall z_4: W(z_4). W(a_3) -> w. Can we infer p from them?
 From forall z_4: W(z_4) we can infer W(a_3). From W(a_3) -> w, W(a_3) we can infer w. Finally, from p -> ~w, w we can infer ~p, which contradicts p. Therefore, the answer is no.