Consider the following premises. For all x_9, x_9 is not a soldier or x_9 is happy. For all x_9, x_9 will play tennis. For all x_9, x_9 will not drive a car. For all x_9, x_9 will not play tennis or x_9 is bored. For all x_9, x_9 will drive a car if and only if x_9 is bored. Can we infer the following from them? There is at least one x_9 for which x_9 is not happy.
 From the fact that for all x_9, x_9 will play tennis we can infer that for all x_9, x_9 will play tennis or x_9 is a soldier. From the fact that for all x_9, x_9 will drive a car if and only if x_9 is bored, and that for all x_9, x_9 will not drive a car we can infer that for all x_9, x_9 is not bored. From the fact that for all x_9, x_9 will play tennis or x_9 is a soldier, and that for all x_9, x_9 will not play tennis or x_9 is bored we can infer that for all x_9, x_9 is a soldier or x_9 is bored. From the fact that for all x_9, x_9 is a soldier or x_9 is bored, and that for all x_9, x_9 is not a soldier or x_9 is happy we can infer that for all x_9, x_9 is bored or x_9 is happy. Finally, from the fact that for all x_9, x_9 is bored or x_9 is happy, and that for all x_9, x_9 is not bored we can infer that for all x_9, x_9 is happy, which contradicts that There is at least one x_9 for which x_9 is not happy. Therefore, the answer is no.