Consider the following premises. P_17(a_16) or r_3. forall x_17: P_17(x_17) -> Q_17(x_17). forall x_17: Q_17(x_17) -> P_17(x_17). r_3 -> Q_17(a_16). p. Can we infer ~p from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.