Consider the following premises. t_2 -> p_3. w -> q_8. p_3 -> w. q_8 -> t_2. Can we infer ~(t_2 -> w) from them?
 From w -> q_8, q_8 -> t_2 we can infer w -> t_2. Finally, from t_2 -> p_3, p_3 -> w we can infer t_2 -> w, which contradicts ~(t_2 -> w). Therefore, the answer is no.