Consider the following premises. exists x_11: Q_11(x_11). forall x_11: Q(x_11). forall x_11: R(x_11). Can we infer forall x_11: ~(R(x_11) and Q(x_11)) from them?
 From forall x_11: R(x_11), exists x_11: Q_11(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: R(x_11) and Q_11(x_11). From exists x_11: R(x_11) and Q_11(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: R(x_11). Finally, from exists x_11: R(x_11), forall x_11: Q(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: R(x_11) and Q(x_11), which contradicts forall x_11: ~(R(x_11) and Q(x_11)). Therefore, the answer is no.