Consider the following premises. forall x_11: P_11(x_11) or ~Q_11(x_11). Q_11(a_1). Can we infer forall x_11: ~P_11(x_11) from them?
 From forall x_11: P_11(x_11) or ~Q_11(x_11) we can infer forall x_11: Q_11(x_11) -> P_11(x_11). From Q_11(a_1) we can infer exists x_11: Q_11(x_11). Finally, from forall x_11: Q_11(x_11) -> P_11(x_11), exists x_11: Q_11(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: P_11(x_11), which contradicts forall x_11: ~P_11(x_11). Therefore, the answer is no.