Consider the following premises. p_14 or ~q_14. p_14 <-> r. p_14 -> q_14. Can we infer ~(r -> q_14) from them?
 From p_14 or ~q_14 we can infer q_14 -> p_14. From p_14 <-> r we can infer r -> p_14. From p_14 -> q_14, q_14 -> p_14 we can infer p_14 <-> q_14. From p_14 <-> q_14 we can infer p_14 -> q_14. Finally, from r -> p_14, p_14 -> q_14 we can infer r -> q_14, which contradicts ~(r -> q_14). Therefore, the answer is no.