Consider the following premises. forall x_10: W(x_10) <-> Q_10(x_10). Q_10(a) -> W(a). ~Q_10(a). Can we infer ~W(a) from them?
 From forall x_10: W(x_10) <-> Q_10(x_10) we can infer forall x_10: W(x_10) -> Q_10(x_10). From forall x_10: W(x_10) -> Q_10(x_10) we can infer W(a) -> Q_10(a). From W(a) -> Q_10(a), Q_10(a) -> W(a) we can infer W(a) <-> Q_10(a). Finally, from W(a) <-> Q_10(a), ~Q_10(a) we can infer ~W(a). Therefore, the answer is yes.