Consider the following premises. p_9 <-> p_14. p_14 <-> q_14. p_1 -> q_14. Can we infer ~(p_1 -> p_9) from them?
 From p_14 <-> q_14 we can infer q_14 -> p_14. From p_9 <-> p_14 we can infer p_14 -> p_9. From p_1 -> q_14, q_14 -> p_14 we can infer p_1 -> p_14. Finally, from p_1 -> p_14, p_14 -> p_9 we can infer p_1 -> p_9, which contradicts ~(p_1 -> p_9). Therefore, the answer is no.