Consider the following premises. u_2 or q_2. p -> T_1(e). forall x: T_1(x) -> W(x). ~u_2 or p. q_2 -> W(e). Can we infer ~W(e) from them?
 From forall x: T_1(x) -> W(x) we can infer T_1(e) -> W(e). From p -> T_1(e), T_1(e) -> W(e) we can infer p -> W(e). From u_2 or q_2, ~u_2 or p we can infer q_2 or p. Finally, from q_2 -> W(e), p -> W(e), q_2 or p we can infer W(e), which contradicts ~W(e). Therefore, the answer is no.