Consider the following premises. p_9 <-> q_9. p_2 or ~p_9. Can we infer ~(q_9 -> p_2) from them?
 From p_9 <-> q_9 we can infer q_9 -> p_9. From p_2 or ~p_9 we can infer p_9 -> p_2. Finally, from q_9 -> p_9, p_9 -> p_2 we can infer q_9 -> p_2, which contradicts ~(q_9 -> p_2). Therefore, the answer is no.