Consider the following premises. exists x_2: W(x_2) -> Q_2(x_2). forall x_2: T_4(x_2) -> W(x_2). forall x_2: ~Q_2(x_2). forall x_2: W(x_2) -> T_4(x_2). Can we infer forall x_2: T_4(x_2) from them?
 From exists x_2: W(x_2) -> Q_2(x_2), forall x_2: ~Q_2(x_2) we can infer exists x_2: ~W(x_2). From forall x_2: W(x_2) -> T_4(x_2), forall x_2: T_4(x_2) -> W(x_2) we can infer forall x_2: W(x_2) <-> T_4(x_2). Finally, from forall x_2: W(x_2) <-> T_4(x_2), exists x_2: ~W(x_2) we can infer exists x_2: ~T_4(x_2), which contradicts forall x_2: T_4(x_2). Therefore, the answer is no.