Consider the following premises. forall x_10: P_10(x_10) -> Q_10(x_10). Q_10(a_9) -> p. forall x_10: P_10(x_10). Can we infer ~p from them?
 From forall x_10: P_10(x_10) -> Q_10(x_10), forall x_10: P_10(x_10) we can infer forall x_10: Q_10(x_10). From forall x_10: Q_10(x_10) we can infer Q_10(a_9). Finally, from Q_10(a_9) -> p, Q_10(a_9) we can infer p, which contradicts ~p. Therefore, the answer is no.