Consider the following premises. forall x_8: P_8(x_8) or ~U(x_8). forall x_8: P_8(x_8) <-> U(x_8). Can we infer forall x_8: U(x_8) -> P_8(x_8) from them?
 From forall x_8: P_8(x_8) <-> U(x_8) we can infer forall x_8: P_8(x_8) -> U(x_8). Finally, from forall x_8: P_8(x_8) or ~U(x_8) we can infer forall x_8: U(x_8) -> P_8(x_8). Therefore, the answer is yes.