Consider the following premises. forall x: ~T(x). T(e) or ~q. Can we infer q from them?
 From forall x: ~T(x) we can infer ~T(e). From T(e) or ~q we can infer q -> T(e). Finally, from q -> T(e), ~T(e) we can infer ~q, which contradicts q. Therefore, the answer is no.