Consider the following premises. For all x_7, if x_7 were rich, then x_7 is drinking water. For all x_7, if x_7 were rich, then x_7 is a soldier. There is at least one x_7 for which if x_7 drinks water, then x_7 is rich. For all x_7, x_7 is not a soldier. For all x_7, if x_7 were a soldier, then x_7 is rich. Can we infer the following from them? For all x_7, x_7 will drink water.
 From the fact that for all x_7, if x_7 were rich, then x_7 is a soldier, and that for all x_7, if x_7 were a soldier, then x_7 is rich we can infer that for all x_7, x_7 is rich if and only if x_7 is a soldier. From the fact that for all x_7, if x_7 were rich, then x_7 is drinking water, and that there is at least one x_7 for which if x_7 drinks water, then x_7 is rich we can infer that there is at least one x_7 for which x_7 is rich if and only if x_7 will drink water. From the fact that for all x_7, x_7 is rich if and only if x_7 is a soldier, and that for all x_7, x_7 is not a soldier we can infer that for all x_7, x_7 is not rich. Finally, from the fact that there is at least one x_7 for which x_7 is rich if and only if x_7 will drink water, and that for all x_7, x_7 is not rich we can infer that there is at least one x_7 for which x_7 will not drink water, which contradicts that For all x_7, x_7 will drink water. Therefore, the answer is no.