Consider the following premises. exists y: ~R_2(y). forall y: W_2(y) or ~R_2(y). forall y: W_2(y) -> R_2(y). forall y: R_2(y) -> W_2(y). Can we infer forall y: W_2(y) from them?
 From forall y: W_2(y) or ~R_2(y) we can infer forall y: R_2(y) -> W_2(y). From forall y: R_2(y) -> W_2(y), forall y: W_2(y) -> R_2(y) we can infer forall y: R_2(y) <-> W_2(y). From forall y: R_2(y) <-> W_2(y) we can infer forall y: W_2(y) -> R_2(y). From forall y: R_2(y) -> W_2(y), forall y: W_2(y) -> R_2(y) we can infer forall y: R_2(y) <-> W_2(y). Finally, from forall y: R_2(y) <-> W_2(y), exists y: ~R_2(y) we can infer exists y: ~W_2(y), which contradicts forall y: W_2(y). Therefore, the answer is no.