Consider the following premises. forall y: T(y). forall y: W(y) or ~P(y). forall y: W(y) or ~T(y). Can we infer ~W(j) from them?
 From forall y: T(y) we can infer forall y: T(y) or P(y). From forall y: W(y) or ~P(y) we can infer forall y: P(y) -> W(y). From forall y: W(y) or ~T(y) we can infer forall y: T(y) -> W(y). Finally, from forall y: T(y) -> W(y), forall y: P(y) -> W(y), forall y: T(y) or P(y) we can infer forall y: W(y), which contradicts ~W(j). Therefore, the answer is no.