Consider the following premises. forall x_16: P_11(x_16) -> Q_11(x_16). exists x_16: Q_11(x_16) -> W_2(x_16). forall x_16: P_11(x_16) or Q_16(x_16). forall x_16: W_2(x_16) or ~Q_16(x_16). Can we infer forall x_16: ~(W_2(x_16) or Q(x_16)) from them?
That contradicts the premises. Therefore the answer is no.