Consider the following premises. forall x_12: Q_12(x_12) -> P(x_12). forall x_12: P(x_12) -> Q_12(x_12). ~Q_12(h). p_17 and q_17. Can we infer P(h) from them?
 From p_17 and q_17 we can infer p_17. From forall x_12: P(x_12) -> Q_12(x_12), forall x_12: Q_12(x_12) -> P(x_12) we can infer forall x_12: P(x_12) <-> Q_12(x_12). From forall x_12: P(x_12) <-> Q_12(x_12) we can infer P(h) <-> Q_12(h). Finally, from P(h) <-> Q_12(h), ~Q_12(h) we can infer ~P(h), which contradicts P(h). Therefore, the answer is no.