Consider the following premises. There is at least one x_10 for which if x_10 goes running, then x_10 is playing a game. For all x_10, x_10 will make tea if and only if x_10 will play a game. For all x_10, if x_10 plays a game, then x_10 is running. Can we infer the following from them? There is at least one x_10 for which if x_10 goes running, then x_10 is making tea.
 From the fact that there is at least one x_10 for which if x_10 goes running, then x_10 is playing a game, and that for all x_10, if x_10 plays a game, then x_10 is running we can infer that there is at least one x_10 for which x_10 will go running if and only if x_10 will play a game. From the fact that there is at least one x_10 for which x_10 will go running if and only if x_10 will play a game we can infer that there is at least one x_10 for which if x_10 goes running, then x_10 is playing a game. From the fact that for all x_10, x_10 will make tea if and only if x_10 will play a game we can infer that for all x_10, if x_10 plays a game, then x_10 is making tea. Finally, from the fact that there is at least one x_10 for which if x_10 goes running, then x_10 is playing a game, and that for all x_10, if x_10 plays a game, then x_10 is making tea we can infer that there is at least one x_10 for which if x_10 goes running, then x_10 is making tea. Therefore, the answer is yes.