Consider the following premises. forall x: W_2(x) or ~W_3(x). W_2(i_4) -> W_3(i_4). Can we infer W_2(i_4) <-> W_3(i_4) from them?
 From forall x: W_2(x) or ~W_3(x) we can infer forall x: W_3(x) -> W_2(x). From forall x: W_3(x) -> W_2(x) we can infer W_3(i_4) -> W_2(i_4). Finally, from W_2(i_4) -> W_3(i_4), W_3(i_4) -> W_2(i_4) we can infer W_2(i_4) <-> W_3(i_4). Therefore, the answer is yes.