Consider the following premises. forall z: Q_2(z) -> W_1(z). exists z: W_1(z) -> ~U_3(z). forall z: U_3(z). Can we infer forall z: Q_2(z) from them?
 From exists z: W_1(z) -> ~U_3(z), forall z: U_3(z) we can infer exists z: ~W_1(z). Finally, from forall z: Q_2(z) -> W_1(z), exists z: ~W_1(z) we can infer exists z: ~Q_2(z), which contradicts forall z: Q_2(z). Therefore, the answer is no.