Consider the following premises. forall y: P(y) <-> R(y). forall y: P(y) <-> R(y). Can we infer R(i) -> P(i) from them?
 From forall y: P(y) <-> R(y) we can infer forall y: P(y) -> R(y). From forall y: P(y) <-> R(y) we can infer forall y: R(y) -> P(y). From forall y: P(y) -> R(y), forall y: R(y) -> P(y) we can infer forall y: P(y) <-> R(y). From forall y: P(y) <-> R(y) we can infer P(i) <-> R(i). Finally, from P(i) <-> R(i) we can infer R(i) -> P(i). Therefore, the answer is yes.