Consider the following premises. forall y_2: W(y_2) or ~Q(y_2). forall y_2: Q(y_2) or ~W(y_2). Can we infer W(h) -> Q(h) from them?
 From forall y_2: Q(y_2) or ~W(y_2) we can infer forall y_2: W(y_2) -> Q(y_2). From forall y_2: W(y_2) or ~Q(y_2) we can infer forall y_2: Q(y_2) -> W(y_2). From forall y_2: W(y_2) -> Q(y_2), forall y_2: Q(y_2) -> W(y_2) we can infer forall y_2: W(y_2) <-> Q(y_2). From forall y_2: W(y_2) <-> Q(y_2) we can infer W(h) <-> Q(h). Finally, from W(h) <-> Q(h) we can infer W(h) -> Q(h). Therefore, the answer is yes.