Consider the following premises. exists x_1: R_2(x_1) or T(x_1). forall x_1: T(x_1) -> R_1(x_1). forall x_1: Q_1(x_1) -> R_1(x_1). forall x_1: R_2(x_1) -> Q_1(x_1). Can we infer forall x_1: ~R_1(x_1) from them?
 From forall x_1: R_2(x_1) -> Q_1(x_1), forall x_1: Q_1(x_1) -> R_1(x_1) we can infer forall x_1: R_2(x_1) -> R_1(x_1). Finally, from forall x_1: R_2(x_1) -> R_1(x_1), forall x_1: T(x_1) -> R_1(x_1), exists x_1: R_2(x_1) or T(x_1) we can infer exists x_1: R_1(x_1), which contradicts forall x_1: ~R_1(x_1). Therefore, the answer is no.