Consider the following premises. There is at least one x_3 for which x_3 will play squash or x_3 is rich. For all x_3, x_3 will play squash if and only if x_3 will make tea. For all x_3, if x_3 were rich, then x_3 is making tea. Can we infer the following from them? For all x_3, x_3 will not make tea.
 From the fact that for all x_3, x_3 will play squash if and only if x_3 will make tea we can infer that for all x_3, if x_3 plays squash, then x_3 is making tea. Finally, from the fact that for all x_3, if x_3 plays squash, then x_3 is making tea, that for all x_3, if x_3 were rich, then x_3 is making tea, and that there is at least one x_3 for which x_3 will play squash or x_3 is rich we can infer that there is at least one x_3 for which x_3 will make tea, which contradicts that For all x_3, x_3 will not make tea. Therefore, the answer is no.