Consider the following premises. forall y_3: R_3(y_3) -> P(y_3). forall y_3: P(y_3) -> R_3(y_3). q -> P(h_2). ~R_3(h_2). Can we infer q from them?
 From forall y_3: P(y_3) -> R_3(y_3), forall y_3: R_3(y_3) -> P(y_3) we can infer forall y_3: P(y_3) <-> R_3(y_3). From forall y_3: P(y_3) <-> R_3(y_3) we can infer P(h_2) <-> R_3(h_2). From P(h_2) <-> R_3(h_2), ~R_3(h_2) we can infer ~P(h_2). Finally, from q -> P(h_2), ~P(h_2) we can infer ~q, which contradicts q. Therefore, the answer is no.