Consider the following premises. r -> t. q <-> r. q <-> t. Can we infer ~(t <-> q) from them?
 From q <-> r we can infer q -> r. From q -> r, r -> t we can infer q -> t. From q <-> t we can infer t -> q. Finally, from t -> q, q -> t we can infer t <-> q, which contradicts ~(t <-> q). Therefore, the answer is no.