Consider the following premises. forall x_3: ~Q(x_3). forall x_3: W(x_3) <-> Q(x_3). Can we infer exists x_3: W(x_3) from them?
 From forall x_3: W(x_3) <-> Q(x_3) we can infer forall x_3: W(x_3) -> Q(x_3). Finally, from forall x_3: W(x_3) -> Q(x_3), forall x_3: ~Q(x_3) we can infer forall x_3: ~W(x_3), which contradicts exists x_3: W(x_3). Therefore, the answer is no.