Consider the following premises. forall x_10: R_10(x_10) -> S_10(x_10). s <-> S_10(f_3). ~s. Can we infer R_10(f_3) from them?
 From forall x_10: R_10(x_10) -> S_10(x_10) we can infer R_10(f_3) -> S_10(f_3). From s <-> S_10(f_3), ~s we can infer ~S_10(f_3). Finally, from R_10(f_3) -> S_10(f_3), ~S_10(f_3) we can infer ~R_10(f_3), which contradicts R_10(f_3). Therefore, the answer is no.