Consider the following premises. forall x_8: P_8(x_8) -> Q_8(x_8). forall x_8: R_2(x_8). forall x_8: P_8(x_8) or T(x_8). forall x_8: ~Q_8(x_8). Can we infer ~T(a_1) from them?
 From forall x_8: P_8(x_8) -> Q_8(x_8), forall x_8: ~Q_8(x_8) we can infer forall x_8: ~P_8(x_8). Finally, from forall x_8: P_8(x_8) or T(x_8), forall x_8: ~P_8(x_8) we can infer forall x_8: T(x_8), which contradicts ~T(a_1). Therefore, the answer is no.