Consider the following premises. forall x_11: W(x_11). forall x_11: Q_1(x_11) or ~Q_11(x_11). exists x_11: Q_11(x_11). Can we infer forall x_11: ~(W(x_11) and Q_1(x_11)) from them?
 From forall x_11: Q_1(x_11) or ~Q_11(x_11) we can infer forall x_11: Q_11(x_11) -> Q_1(x_11). From forall x_11: Q_11(x_11) -> Q_1(x_11), exists x_11: Q_11(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: Q_1(x_11). Finally, from forall x_11: W(x_11), exists x_11: Q_1(x_11) we can infer exists x_11: W(x_11) and Q_1(x_11), which contradicts forall x_11: ~(W(x_11) and Q_1(x_11)). Therefore, the answer is no.