Consider the following premises. exists y: W(y) <-> R(y). forall y: R(y) or ~Q(y). forall y: W(y) or Q(y). Can we infer forall y: ~R(y) from them?
 From exists y: W(y) <-> R(y) we can infer exists y: W(y) -> R(y). From forall y: R(y) or ~Q(y) we can infer forall y: Q(y) -> R(y). Finally, from exists y: W(y) -> R(y), forall y: Q(y) -> R(y), forall y: W(y) or Q(y) we can infer exists y: R(y), which contradicts forall y: ~R(y). Therefore, the answer is no.