Hi Kelly,<p>Thanks for the follow-up.  I understand you are pulling the data from Glassdoor, but what I wanted to further understand is:<p>a) Are we talking about the city limits or metropolitan area or something else?<p>b) What is the formula used for mortgage affordability?  Are we assuming dependents?  Debt? Age?<p>c) How is housing cost determined?  The doc implies home sales, but is this reweighed?  If a new condo opens up with 400 units, that can significantly distort the &quot;home sales distribution&quot;, but insignificantly affects value of housing across the market.<p>My high-level thought is that is that intuitively the data feels off.  i&#x27;m not sure if two of the largest issues:<p>A. Considering sales of larger homes (3 beds+) that would almost always be purchased by dual-income individuals<p>B. Using salary means to claim occupation X can afford Y% of homes.<p>&quot;Average salary for occupation X can afford Y%&quot; of homes is different than stating &quot;The average worker in occupation X can buy Y% of homes&quot;.  
(Example: 4 eng make $100k; 1 makes $200k.  1 home in the market costs $400k. Say you use 3x income for affordability standard.  Average income is $120k = no one can afford the home (0%).  But actually 1&#x2F;5 engineers can afford the home, meaning that the average worker can buy 20% of all homes)<p>completely explain the discrepancy from my own world-view (almost every programmer I know could in fact purchase a 1 bedroom condo).