<i>...only shifted consumption from the rich to the poor...</i><p><i>I didn&#x27;t claim that believe the rich and poor have equal propensity to spend.</i><p>The former implies the latter.<p><i>I didn&#x27;t claim that a BI will increase investment.</i><p><i>... if poor and middle class folks have a higher and more reliable income, they are more likely to save.</i><p>Now you seem to be agreeing with me that the article is wrong, and that a BI would increase real consumption and reduce real investment?<p>Could you state clearly what you think will happen to real (not nominal) consumption&#x2F;investment under a BI and what the mechanism for that is?