For the lazy, murders per death by cop, based on those numbers:<p>Germany: 83<p>California: 17<p>Murders per capita:<p>Germany: 1&#x2F;124,000<p>California: 1&#x2F;23,000<p>So California&#x27;s murder rate is 5.4x Germany&#x27;s, and its death by cop per murder rate is 4.9x Germany&#x27;s.<p>Is it just me, or wouldn&#x27;t you expect the death by cop rate to be more than a linear function of the murder rate... perhaps even a polynomial function?<p>A difference in murder rate of x does not necessarily mean a difference in levels of violence&#x2F;danger of x.