If the Militia is strictly governmental - the reserves essentially - why would it warrant a constitutional amendment allowing the soldiers to keep guns at home?<p>How would a governmental Militia (ie British) have proven useful to the Americans and warranted this specific clarification?<p>I&#x27;m not an American, but it seems pretty clear that the people on the ground at the time meant &quot;because we won our freedom from tyranny by being able to call up an army of the people, and may need to do so again, everyone shall be able to keep arms handy&quot;.