&gt;&gt;Epsilon.<p>Was it not the case that people would have assigned very low probability to Fermat&#x27;s last theorem too, at least before Wile&#x27;s first version of proof? But then with Wile&#x27;s first version, they would have assigned very large probability (1-epsilon, may be).<p>I am confused as to what benefits do we derive from assigning such probabilities? I am certainly missing something big here.