Right, that&#x27;s not surprising, <i>if you do that poll once</i>. There&#x27;s a 50% chance of that.<p>If you do that poll <i>repeatedly</i>, over many groups and many industries and many times and many subsets, and in <i>every case</i> the men are paid more (whether 5% or 23%), there is either an actual statistical difference, or Maxwell&#x27;s social justice demon is out to get you.<p>And if there is an actual statistical difference, the question is why. Are men more valuable to the market?