As made explicit in the sexual assault policies of various US universities, a female is unable to consent if she&#x27;s had any alcohol (the &quot;1 beer&quot; model of being drunk). It is not a defense, or grounds for a counterclaim, that the male might have been equally or more drunk. (I say made explicit; the &quot;any alcohol&quot; threshold is what&#x27;s made explicit. The wording of formal policies is generally scrupulously gender-neutral, but their application isn&#x27;t.)<p>In an actual US criminal court, I believe drunken consent is no different from any other consent.