A 40 yr old female patient presents with a history of depressed mood, loss of appetite insomnia and no interest in surroundings for the past 1 yr. These symptoms followed soon after a business loss 1 yr back.Which of the following statements is true regarding the management of this patient -
The patient in question is presenting with persistent classical symptoms of depression and should be managed by antidepressant medications.
There is no ideal antidepressant. The first choice is determined by the side effect profile that is least objectionable to the patient's physical status (patient preference)