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201 | When I wash my ears during wudu, do I have to insert my finger into the whole ear? | Question
When I wash my ears during wudu, do I have to insert my finger into the whole ear? What is the ruling on the waxy substance in the ears? Must it be removed so that the water can each all parts of the ear from the inside, knowing that this waxy substance may come out from the ear?. | Praise be to Allah.What is proven from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) is that he used to wipe his ears, not wash them. He would wipe the outer part with his thumbs and the inner part with his forefingers, with whatever water was left on his hands after wiping his head.
Al-Tirmidhi (36) narrated from Ibn ‘Abbaas (may Allah be pleased with him) that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) wiped his head and ears, inside and outside. Abu ‘Eesa al-Tirmidhi said: The hadeeth of Ibn ‘Abbaas is a hasan saheeh hadeeth, and this is what should be done according to most of the scholars, who think that the ears should be wiped, inside and outside.
Al-Nasaa’i (74) narrated that Ibn ‘Abbaas (may Allah be pleased with him) said, describing the wudu of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him): Then he wiped his head and his ears, the inside with his forefingers and the outside with his thumbs. Classed as saheeh by al-Albani in Saheeh al-Nasaa’i.
In Tuhfat al-Ahwadhi it says:
The outside of the ear is the part that is closest to the head and the inside is that which is closest to the face. End quote.
Abu Dawood narrated that al-Miqdaad ibn Ma’di Yakrib (may Allah be pleased with him) said: I saw the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) doing wudu and when he reached the wiping of the head, he placed his hands on the front of his head and moved them until he reached the back of his head, then he brought them back to the place where he started, and he wiped his ears, inside and outside, and put his fingers in his ears. Classed as saheeh by al-Albani in Saheeh Abi Dawood.
al-Nawawi said in al-Majmoo’ (1/443):
With regard to the way in which the ears are wiped, Imam al-Haramayn, al-Ghazaali and others said: He should take water in his hand and put his forefingers inside his ears and rotate them, and pass his thumbs over the outside of his ears. End quote.
If there is any waxy substance over the opening of his ears, it should be removed, unlike that which is inside, as it is not prescribed for water to enter the ear, rather what is required is to wipe them, not wash them, as stated above.
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=6 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/34172/when-i-wash-my-ears-during-wudu-do-i-have-to-insert-my-finger-into-the-whole-ear | 62 | 34,172 |
202 | There is some kind of crusty scab on his eye – what effect does that have on his wudoo’? | Question
For a while I have been having some secretions in the inner corner of my eye, in the area between the eye and the nose. When they dry up they leave a crusty scab. This happens several times a day and it usually happens when I check my eyes before each wudoo’. I wash them and I pay special attention to my eyes when doing wudoo’. But sometimes I do not do that then I find these secretions and I do not know if they were there before I did wudoo’ and I did not see them, or if they happened after that, or if they were like grains of sand and the like. Please advise me, may Allaah reward you, because this matter is bothering me. Do I have to repeat my wudoo’ if I find something like this?. | Praise be to Allah.The inner corner of the eye is that which is next to the nose. Ahmad (22277), Abu Dawood (134) and Ibn Maajah (444) narrated that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to wipe the inner corners of his eyes, but this hadeeth was classed as da’eef by al-Albaani in Da’eef Sunan Abi Dawood.
Al-Teebi said: Wiping it is mustahabb as a means of ensuring that wudoo’ is done properly … because the eye is rarely free of kohl etc or white secretions which gather at the corner of the eye. End quote from ‘Awn al-Ma’bood.
The Shaafa’is stated that it is obligatory to wash the inner corners of the eyes when doing wudoo’, and to remove whatever secretions may be there that prevent water reaching the skin. Al-Ramli al-Shaafa’i said in Nihaayat al-Muhtaaj (1/168): The inner corners of the eyes must definitely be washed; if there is anything like white secretions on them which prevent water reaching the place which must be washed, then it must be removed and the area beneath it washed. End quote.
In Asna al-Mataalib by Shaykh Zakariya al-Ansaari, discussing the acts that are recommended in wudoo’, it says (1/43): Similarly the inner corners of the eyes that are next to the nose should be rubbed with the forefingers, the right forefinger for the right eye and the left forefinger for the left eye. The same applies for the outer corners of the eyes, and it is Sunnah to wash them if there is no white secretion that prevents water reaching the skin, otherwise washing them is obligatory as is mentioned in al-Majmoo’. End quote.
Some of the scholars think that if the secretion is slight, it may be overlooked and that does not affect wudoo’. This is the view favoured by Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allaah have mercy on him).
Al-Mardaawi said in al-Insaaf: If there is a little dirt beneath his fingernails which prevents the water from reaching what is beneath it, then his wudoo’ is not valid. This is the view of Ibn ‘Aqeel.
And it was said that his wudoo’ is valid. This is the correct view, which was described as such in al-Ri’aayah al-Kubra, and by the author of Hawaashi al-Muqni’. This was stated in al-Ifaadaat and was the view towards which al-Musaanif (i.e., Ibn Qudaamah) was inclined. It was also the view favoured by Shaykh Taqiy al-Deen… Shaykh Taqiy ad-Deen said: If there is something of such material anywhere on the body, such as blood, dough and the like, if it is a small amount, then it does not matter. End quote.
Ibn Qudaamah said in al-Mughni (1/174), after quoting the view of Ibn ‘Aqeel that it is obligatory to remove any dirt that is beneath the fingernails, and that wudoo’ is not valid if it prevents the water reaching what is beneath them:
It may be that this is not obligatory, because this is usually hidden, and if washing it was obligatory the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) would have said so, because it is not permissible for him to delay explaining something at the time when it is needed. End quote.
And Allaah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=6 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/45812/there-is-some-kind-of-crusty-scab-on-his-eye-what-effect-does-that-have-on-his-wudoo | 62 | 45,812 |
203 | Can You Do Wudu with Makeup on? | Question
Is it permissible to do Wudu with makeup on one's face? | Praise be to Allah.In order for Wudu to be valid it is essential to remove anything that may prevent the water from reaching the skin, such as wax, dough, sticky substances and the like, so that the purpose of washing those parts of the body in Wudu may be achieved.
Allah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“O you who believe! When you intend to offer the prayer, wash your faces and your hands (forearms) up to the elbows, rub (by passing wet hands over) your heads, and (wash) your feet up to the ankles.” [Al-Ma’idah 5:6]
It says in Al-Insaf (1/144): “Among the conditions of Wudu being valid is removing anything that may prevent water reaching that part of the body.”
Al-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said in Al-Mawdu` (1/492):
“If there is any wax, dough or henna’ etc on his body and that prevents the water from reaching any part of that limb, then his Wudu is not valid, whether there is a lot of that or a little. If there is any trace or colour of henna left on the hand etc, but not the henna itself, or there is a trace of fat or oil such that when the water touches the skin it will run over it, but not stay, then his Wudu is valid.”
From this it may be understood that if makeup has been removed before doing Wudu and only the colour is left, then Wudu is valid. Based on this, if the makeup prevents the water from reaching the skin, then Wudu is not valid, but if it is just colour or there is a little of it left that does not prevent the water reaching the skin, then Wudu is valid.
For more details, please see the following category: Nullifiers of Wudu.
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=6 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/88179/can-you-do-wudu-with-makeup-on | 62 | 88,179 |
204 | Does she have to do wudoo’ because of vaginal discharge in order to read Qur’aan? | Question
I do wudoo’ before I read Qur’aan. If any vaginal discharge comes out of me whilst I am reading Qur’aan, do I have to repeat my wudoo’ in order to carry on reading?. | Praise be to Allah.Firstly:
It is permissible for a
person who is in a state of minor impurity to read Qur’aan without touching
the Mus-haf, and it is permissible for him to touch books of Tafseer or to
read Qur’aan from them. But he is not allowed to touch the Mus-haf unless he
has wudoo’. See the answer to question no.
10672.
Secondly:
Vaginal discharge is taahir
(pure), but there is a difference of opinion as to whether it invalidates
wudoo’. The majority of scholars are of the view that it does invalidate
wudoo’, but if it is continuous, then it comes under the same ruling as
urinary incontinence, so the woman should do wudoo’ for every prayer and
then offer whatever obligatory and naafil prayers she wants, and touch the
Mus-haf, and it will not matter if this discharge comes out.
But if the discharge is not
continuous, then you can read from the Mus-haf by putting a barrier over
your hand between you and the Mus-haf, such as gloves and the like.
See the answer to question
no. 2564.
And Allaah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=6 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/94539/does-she-have-to-do-wudoo-because-of-vaginal-discharge-in-order-to-read-quraan | 62 | 94,539 |
205 | Speaking after wudu | Question
Is there any compulsion for Thaital Wadu Salat that one should not talk after making wadu & praying. | Praise be to Allah.Whoever does wudu for prayer, there is nothing wrong with him speaking permissible words with his family or brothers etc. It is not haram for him to speak certain words because of his wudu, rather what is haram before wudu is also haram afterwards, such as lying, backbiting, slandering, swearing, insulting etc.
But because wudu is an expiation for bad deeds, and sins are erased by it, you should try to avoid haram things after doing it, so that you may stand before Allah pure and clean. Muslim (244) narrated from Abu Hurayrah that the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “When the Muslim or believing slave does wudu and washes his face, every wrong thing that he looked at with his eyes comes out from his face with the water or with the last drop of water. When he washes his hands, every wrong thing that he did with his hands comes out from his hands with the water or with the last drop of water. When he washes his feet every wrong thing that he walked to with his feet comes out from his feet with the water or with the last drop of water, until he emerges cleansed of sin.”
And he also narrated (245) from ‘Uthmaan ibn ‘Affaan that the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “Whoever does wudu and does wudu well, his sins will emerge from his body until they even come out from beneath his fingernails.”
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=6 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/20850/speaking-after-wudu | 62 | 20,850 |
206 | Drying the limbs after doing wudoo’ | Question
Is it permissible to dry oneself with a towel or handkerchief after doing wudoo’?. | Praise be to Allah.It is permissible, after
doing wudoo’, to dry the parts of the body washed in wudoo’, because the
basic principle is that this action is permissible.
Ibn Qudaamah (may Allaah
have mercy on him) said in al-Mughni (1/195): There is nothing wrong
with drying the limbs with a towel after getting them wet during ghusl and
wudoo’. This is what was narrated from Imam Ahmad. It was also narrated that
‘Uthmaan, al-Hasan ibn ‘Ali, Anas and many other scholars used a towel after
doing wudoo’, and this is the more correct opinion, because the basic
principle is that it is permissible. End quote.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may
Allaah have mercy on him) was asked about the ruling on drying the parts of
the body that are washed in wudoo’
He replied: There is
nothing wrong with drying them, because the basic principle is that it is
not disallowed. The basic principle concerning anything other than acts of
worship, such as contracts and actions, is that it is permissible and
allowed, unless there is evidence that it is not allowed.
If someone were to say: How
would you respond to the hadeeth of Maymoonah (may Allaah be pleased with
her), where she says: The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be
upon him) did ghusl, and I brought the towel to him but he refused it and
started to wipe the water with his hand?
The answer is that this
action on the part of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be
upon him) was a specific case which may be interpreted in several ways:
either it was for a reason to do with the towel, or because it was not
clean, or he did not want to wet it with the water because doing so was not
appropriate. There are several possibilities, but the fact that she brought
the towel to him indicates that it was his habit to dry himself, otherwise
she would not have brought it to him. End quote.
Majmoo’ Fataawa Ibn
‘Uthaymeen (11/93).
And Allaah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=6 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/103968/drying-the-limbs-after-doing-wudoo | 62 | 103,968 |
207 | Does the presence of oil, ink or secretions of the eye affect tahaarah (purification)? | Question
Is wudu impeded by the presence of ghee, oil or ink on any part of the body that is washed in wudu? Do earwax and secretions of the eye impede wudu? Are there any saheeh ahaadeeth about this matter? Are the scholars unanimously agreed on that?. | Praise be to Allah.Firstly:
The guideline concerning that is that whatever prevents water from reaching the skin means that wudu is not valid, and whatever does not prevent water from reaching the skin means that wudu is valid.
Based on this, wudu is valid if there is ink on any part of the body that is washed in wudu, because it does not prevent water reaching the skin.
With regard to ghee, if it is solid and prevents water from reaching the skin, then it means that wudu is not valid, but if what is left on the skin is just a trace, or it was liquid like oil, then wudu is valid, but in this case you should make sure by rubbing the limb, because grease repels water. This has been explained in the answer to question no. 39493 .
Al-Nawawi said in al-Majmoo’ (1/456):
If there is wax, dough, henna and the like on one of his limbs, which prevents water from reaching any part of it, then his tahaarah is not valid, whether the amount is large or small. If there are traces of henna and its colour left on the hand, without there being any solid material left, or elsewhere, or traces of liquid grease whereby water flows over the limb but does not stay there, his tahaarah is valid. End quote.
Secondly:
Solid secretions of the eye which may be in the inner corner of the eye must be removed according to some scholars. There is a da’eef hadeeth about wiping the inner corners of the eyes. This has already been discussed in the answer to question no. 45812.
Thirdly:
With regard to earwax, whatever is on the outside of the ear must be removed, unlike that which is inside the ear. This has already been discussed in the answer to question no. 34172.
And Allaah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=6 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/69817/does-the-presence-of-oil-ink-or-secretions-of-the-eye-affect-tahaarah-purification | 62 | 69,817 |
208 | Should he pray behind one who did not wash his hands again when he washed his arms in udu? | Question
Some people wash their arms from wrists to elbows only without washing the hands with them. Sometimes a person leads salaah while I am nearly sure he did not wash his arms in the correct way, sometimes I doubt it. Shall I pray behind him?. | Praise be to Allah.Firstly:
In the answer to question no. 103694 we stated that what is required is to wash the arms from the tips of the fingers to the elbows, and that if they ware washed from the wrists then wudu is not valid. This is the view of the majority of scholars, except the Hanafis who say that the wudu of one who does that is still valid.
Secondly:
It is valid to pray behind a Hanafi who only washed the hands at first and did not wash them again with the forearms, because it is an issue concerning which the scholars differed, and the ordinary Muslim is excused for following whichever scholar he follows.
It is valid to pray behind one whose situation you do not know, and you do not know whether he washed his hands in the correct manner or not. It is not appropriate to doubt the worship of a Muslim, rather you should assume that he is doing it correctly..
You should explain this issue to your brothers with wisdom and beautiful preaching, but if they insist on the view and cling to the Hanafi madhhab or the view of the one who issued a fatwa to them, then do not argue with them, and do not feel any reservations about praying behind them. The imams continued to pray behind one another even though they differed concerning minor issues. Hence they regarded it as valid to pray behind one who thought that wudu was invalidated by eating camel meat or touching the penis and other matters concerning which the scholars differed.
Ibn Qudaamah said in al-Mughni (2/11): As for those who differ concerning minor issues such as the companions of Abu Haneefah, Maalik and al-Shaafa’i, praying behind them is valid and is not makrooh. This was stated by Ahmad. That is because the Sahaabah and Taabi’een and those who came after them continued to lead one another in prayer, even though they differed concerning minor issues, so their action is equivalent to scholarly consensus. And because the one who held a different view is either correct in his ijtihaad, so he will have two rewards, one for his ijtihaad and one for getting it right, or he is mistaken, so he will be rewarded for his ijtihaad and there is no sin on him for his mistake, because it is forgiven (as stated in the hadeeth). If he knows that he has omitted an obligatory part or condition that the person praying behind him believes in but the imam does not, then according to the apparent meaning of Ahmad’s words it is valid for him to lead him in prayer. Al-Athram said: I heard Abu ‘Abd-Allaah when he was asked about a man who led some people in prayer, and he was wearing a fox-skin. He said: If he is wearing it on the basis of his understanding of the hadeeth, “Any skin that had been tanned is purified,” then he may pray behind him. It was said to him: Do you think that it is permissible? He said: No, we do not think that it is permissible, but if he thinks that then there is nothing wrong with praying behind him. End quote.
And Allaah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=6 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/106431/should-he-pray-behind-one-who-did-not-wash-his-hands-again-when-he-washed-his-arms-in-udu | 62 | 106,431 |
209 | Du’aa’ during wudu by the status of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) | Question
I have a habit which I do not know if it is good or bad:
I ask Allah while washing my feet during wudu’ by the Prophet’s virtue to keep my feet firm on the Siraat.
Also during the prayer I ask Allah by his Prophet’s virtue to forgive my sins and to have mercy on me. Is this du’a permissible or not?
I used to make du’a in this way believing that Allah will answer the prayer of who asks him by His beloved Prophet’s virtue, may peace and blessings of Allah be upon him. | Praise be to Allah.Asking Allah to make His slave’s feet steadfast on the Straight Path is a good du`a and there is nothing wrong with it. We ask Allah to make the feet of all of us steadfast.
But there are two mistakes in this du`a:
1 – Always reciting it when washing your feet during wudu:
You know that wudu is an act of worship and that the Muslim does not have the right to change the way an act of worship is done or add to it or take away from it; rather following the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) properly means doing what he did, without adding or taking anything away.
Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him) said in Majmoo’ al-Fatawa (22/510):
No one has the right to introduce to the people any kind of dhikr or du`a apart from those that are narrated in the Sunnah, and make them a regular act of worship that the people do all the time, as they do the five daily prayers; rather this is innovation in the religion for which Allah has not given permission. End quote.
It was not the practice of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) to say du`a when washing the parts of the body that are washed in wudu. There is a hadith concerning that, but it is not a saheeh narration from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him).
Al-Haafiz ibn al-Salaah said:
There is no saheeh hadith concerning that. End quote. It was mentioned thus by al-Haafiz Ibn Hajar in al-Talkhees al-Habeer (1/297).
Ibn al-Qayyim said in al-Manaar al-Muneef (45):
As for the mawdoo’ (fabricated) hadith about dhikr when washing each part of the body (in wudu), it is baatil (invalid). End quote.
Al-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said of the du`as recited when washing each part of the body (in wudu): The du`a for washing each part of the body (in wudu) has no basis.
Al-Futoohaat al-Rabbaaniyyah (2/27-29).
In Fatawa al-Shaykh Muhammad ibn Ibraaheem (2/49):
Some people think that there is a dhikr for every part of the body (when doing wudu), and some ahaadeeth have been narrated concerning that, but they are not saheeh at all, rather they are false. End quote.
In Duroos li’l-Shaykh ‘Abd al-‘Azeez ibn Baaz (no. 13, tape 2) it says:
There is no basis for any of this, and nothing has been narrated in a sound report from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him), so these du`as are not recommended when washing these parts of the body. Rather what is recommended (mustahabb) is two things: Firstly, when starting to do wudu, one should mention the name of Allah; secondly, after finishing wudu one should recite the Shahaadah. This is what is prescribed with regard to wudu. End quote.
It cannot be said that weak ahaadeeth should be acted upon with regard to good deeds, because there is no consensus on this principle and there are some who disagree with it. Moreover, with regard to acting upon weak ahaadeeth, it is stipulated that they should not be severely weak, and this condition is not met in this case, as was understood by Ibn ‘Allaan in al-Futoohaat al-Rabbaaniyyah (2/29).
Al-Suyooti (may Allah have mercy on him) wrote an essay on this matter entitled al-Ighda’ ‘an Du`a al-A’daa’, in which he explained how very weak the reports concerning that are, and that they are not fit to be acted upon, even with regard to good deeds.
See also the answer to question no. 45730.
2 – As for the second mistake, it is your saying in your du`a, “by the status of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him)”.
Undoubtedly the status of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) is great, but Allah has not made seeking to draw near to Him (tawassul) by means of that one of the causes of du`a being answered.
And the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) – who is the one who did not omit to guide us to anything that is good – did not teach us to seek to draw near to Allah by means of that.
Hence it is known that this du`a is not prescribed.
This has already been explained in the answer to question no. 23265.
So strive to follow the Sunnah of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) and do not add anything to it or take anything away; keep away from things that have been introduced into the religion, as the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) advised us when he said: “I urge you to adhere to my Sunnah and the sunnah of the rightly guided Khulafa’ (al-Khulafa’ al-Raashideen), and to seize it firmly. Beware of newly-innovated things, for every innovation is a going-astray.” Narrated by Abu Dawood (4607); classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh Abi Dawood.
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=6 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/102269/duaa-during-wudu-by-the-status-of-the-prophet-peace-and-blessings-of-allah-be-upon-him | 62 | 102,269 |
210 | Innovated way of doing wudoo’ | Question
when i do my wudhu for prayers i start with bismilah and continue by saying nawaitu toharatil wudhuee, while i recite this to all the parts that need to be washed, i know you have given the recitation for wudhuee but i just wanted to know can i only say recite what i have been reciting all time instead of the recitation that is given by you, of course if you tell me otherwise i'll follow your advice. | Praise be to Allah.When worshipping Allaah, the Muslim must worship Him in the manner that He has prescribed. The basic principle regarding acts of worship is tawqeef (i.e., acts of worship are to be based solely on Qur’aan and saheeh Sunnah with no room for personal opinion). No kind of act of worship is prescribed except with daleel (evidence from sharee’ah). Whoever comes up with something that was not prescribed by Allaah or His Messenger has introduced an innovation into the religion of Allaah, and this action of his is to be rejected, because in order for a deed to be acceptable (to Allaah), it must meet two conditions:
1-It must be sincerely for the sake of Allaah alone. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And they were commanded not, but that they should worship Allaah, and worship none but Him Alone (abstaining from ascribing partners to Him)”[al-Bayyinah 98:5]
2-It should be according to the way of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and the message he brought. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And whatsoever the Messenger (Muhammad) gives you, take it; and whatsoever he forbids you, abstain (from it)”[al-Hashr 59:7]
So it is not permissible to innovate any kind of act of worship that was not prescribed by the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever does an action that is not in accordance with this matter of ours (Islam) will have it rejected.” (Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 2697; Muslim, 1718).
Al-Tirmidhi narrated from Imaam Ahmad ibn Hanbal from the hadeeth of al-‘Irbaad ibn Saariyah that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “I urge you to adhere to my Sunnah and the way of the Rightly-Guided Khaleefahs. Adhere to it and bite onto it with your back teeth (i.e., cling firmly to it). And beware of newly-invented matters, for every newly-invented matter is an innovation and every innovation is a going-astray.” (Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, al-Sunnah, 3991. Al-Albaani said in Saheeh Sunan Abi Dawood, no. 3851, it is saheeh). So the Muslim should not go beyond that which the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) brought and prescribed.
The Sahaabah transmitted the description of the wudoo’ of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), and none of them transmitted this (the action mentioned in the question) from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), so we should follow that which he brought.
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allaah have mercy on him) said concerning the matter of speaking the intention (niyyah) out loud:
“It is not mustahabb to utter it out loud, because that is an innovation (bid’ah) that was not narrated from the Messenger of Allaah or from his companions, and the Prophet did not command anyone among his ummah to utter the intention out loud; he never taught that to anyone among the Muslims. If that had been prescribed, the Prophet and his companions would not have neglected to convey it, because the intention is something that the Muslims must deal with every day and every night. Rather speaking the intention out loud is indicative of a defect in reason and religious commitment.”(Majmoo’ al-Fataawa, vol. 22, p. 231)
Elsewhere he said:
“All the things that people have innovated such as speaking the intention (niyyah) out loud before saying ‘Allaahu akbar’, before reciting the Talbiyah, when purifying themselves and in all acts of worship, are all kinds of innovations which were not prescribed by the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). Everything that is innovated in prescribed acts of worship, such as doing extra things that were not prescribed by the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) is a form of bid’ah (innovation) because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to do those acts of worship without doing these extra things. So doing them and persisting in doing so is a form of innovation and misguidance.”
(Majmoo’ al-Fataawa, vol. 22, p. 223)
With regard to the dhikr which is said before or after wudoo’, please see the answer to question no. 2165
So the Muslim should give up anything that was not brought by the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), and keep away from innovations introduced into the religion, because following innovations implies imitating the People of the Book. And the Muslim should strive to learn about his religion so that he will not fall into bid’ah. And Allaah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=6 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/14234/innovated-way-of-doing-wudoo | 62 | 14,234 |
211 | Saying Bismillah for wudu when one is in the bathroom | Question
Is it permissible for a Muslim, after relieving himself in the bathroom to say “Bismillah” inside the bathroom and then do wudu, or should he go out, say “Bismillah” then go back in and do wudu (because there is no wudu for the one who does not mention the name of Allah)? Is it permissible to mention the name of Allah when I am taking a bath in the bathroom? | Praise be to Allah.Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen was asked about that and he said:
When a person is in the bathroom, he should say the name of Allah in his heart and not utter it aloud. So if you are in this situation, do this. The more correct opinion is that saying the name of Allah is not obligatory, rather it is mustahabb, but you should not pay attention to waswaas (insinuating whispers from the Shaytaan) or be negligent. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=6 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/21895/saying-bismillah-for-wudu-when-one-is-in-the-bathroom | 62 | 21,895 |
212 | Description of washing the beard during wudoo’ and ghusl | Question
I have a medium length beard with empty patches on the sides. Do I have to rub it with water during wudu’ and ghusl, or it is enough to just wash it once by a fist of water while washing my face, just as the rest of the facial hair (eyebrows, moustache, and soul patch)?. | Praise be to Allah.Rubbing is mustahabb in
wudoo’ and ghusl according to most of the scholars, except for the
Maalikis.
Al-Nawawi (may Allaah have
mercy on him) said in al-Majmoo’ (2/214):
Our view is that rubbing
the parts of the body when doing ghusl and wudoo’ is Sunnah and is not
obligatory. If (a person) pours water over himself and makes it reach (the
skin) without his hands touching it, or he immerses himself in a large
amount of water, or stands beneath a downspout or in the rain with the
intention of doing ghusl, and it reaches his hair and skin, that is
sufficient for wudoo’ and ghusl. This is the view of all the scholars except
Maalik and al-Muzani, who stipulated that (rubbing is essential) in order
for ghusl and wudoo’ to be valid. End quote.
Facial hair – including the
beard, moustache, tuft of hair beneath the lower lip (“soul patch”) and
eyebrows – is subject to further discussion.
If it is thin and the skin
can clearly be seen beneath it, then it is obligatory to make the water
reach the bottom of it. If it is thick and the skin cannot be seen through
it, the outer surface only has to be washed, but it is mustahabb to run the
fingers through it. This applies in the case of wudoo’; when it comes to
ghusl, both the outer surface and lower layer must be washed.
It says in Zaad
al-Mustaqni’: And he should wash his face from the hairline to the lower
edge of the beard and chin lengthwise, and from one ear to the other
crosswise, along with whatever thin hair may be present, and the outer
surface of thick hair and however far it extends. End quote.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may
Allaah have mercy on him) said in his Sharh:
The words “along with
whatever thin hair may be present, and the outer surface of thick hair”
mean: that through which the skin is visible. Thick hair is that through
which nothing is visible.
In the case of thin hair,
both it and what is beneath it must be washed. With regard to thick hair,
the outer surface, but not the inner layer, must be washed.
Similarly it is essential
to wash whatever hair there is on the face, such as the moustache, “soul
patch”, eyelashes, eyebrows and sideburns.
It is mustahabb to run the
fingers through thick hair, because the Messenger of Allaah (peace and
blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to run his fingers through his beard
when doing wudoo’.
End quote from al-Sharh
al-Mumti’ (1/212).
It says in Fataawa
al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (5/206): It is essential to wash the outer surface
of a thick beard, but it is not obligatory to wash the inner layers or the
skin beneath it, but it is prescribed to run the fingers through it.
Al-Nawawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: There is no difference of
opinion that it is obligatory to wash the thick beard, but it is not
obligatory to wash the inner layer of the beard or the skin beneath it,
according to scholarly consensus. This is the view of all the scholars among
the Sahaabah, Taabi’een and those who came after them. Ibn Rushd said: This
is something that is too well known for there to be any dispute. End quote.
As for a thin beard through
which the skin may be seen, both the inner layer and outer surface must be
washed. End quote.
And Allaah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=6 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/110261/description-of-washing-the-beard-during-wudoo-and-ghusl | 62 | 110,261 |
213 | How Should a Woman Wipe Her Head in Wudu? | Question
What is the way in which a woman should wipe her head when doing Wudu? | Praise be to Allah.The way in which a woman – and a man whose hair is long – should wipe the head when doing Wudu is what is narrated in the Hadith of Ar-Rubayyi` bint Mu`awwidh (may Allah be pleased with her).
Ahmad (26484) and Abu Dawud (128) narrated from her that the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) did Wudu in her house, and he wiped his entire head from the crown of the head, all the way to the back of the head, and he did not disturb or ruffle the hair. (Classed as sound by Al-Albani in Sahih Abu Dawud)
What is meant by the “crown of the head” is the top of the head, i.e., start wiping from top to bottom.
Al-`Iraqi (may Allah have mercy on him) said: “What is meant is that he would start wiping from the top of the head to the bottom , and he did that on each side.” End quote from `Awn Al-Ma`bud.
Another well-known way of wiping has also been narrated, which is to wipe the hair with both hands from front to back, then to bring the hands back to the place where one started.
But this method leads to ruffling the hair, and the preferred method for women is to wipe the head in the first manner , or to wipe from the front to the back of the head and not to bring the hands back again. This is another interpretation of the Hadith of Ar-Rubayyi`.
Ibn Qudamah (may Allah have mercy on him) said in Al-Mughni (1/87):
“If the one who has hair fears that it may be ruffled if he brings his hands back over his head, then he may not do that. This was stated by Ahmad. It was said to him: How should the one who has hair down to his shoulders wipe (his head) during Wudu? He wiped his head once and said: Like this, so as to avoid ruffling his hair, i.e., he should pass his hands to the back of his head and not bring them forward again.
If he wishes he may wipe his head, as it was narrated from Ar-Rubayyi` that the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) did Wudu in her house, and he wiped his entire head from the parting on each side to the back, and he did not disturb or ruffle the hair. (Narrated by Abu Dawud)
Ahmad (may Allah have mercy on him) was asked: How should a woman wipe her hair ? He said: Like this; and he put his hand in the middle of his head, then drew it forwards, then he lifted it and put it where he had started, then he drew it backwards. Whatever he wipes after wiping what is obligatory is good enough.”
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=6 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/112171/how-should-a-woman-wipe-her-head-in-wudu | 62 | 112,171 |
214 | Does Drying The Right Foot Before Washing The Left Invalidate Wudu? | Question
If while making Wudu I wash my right foot and dry it then wash my left one then dry it, does this invalidate the continuity of Wudu? | Praise be to Allah.Continuity in Wudu means not to delay washing one part until the one before it has dried within a moderate amount of time. Therefore, if the part dries because of intense heat, wind, or by drying it with a towel, this has no effect (on Wudu), if washing the part is not delayed longer than the time it normally takes for the part before it to dry; what matters is that it should not take longer than that.
Some of the scholars defined continuity as, not waiting too long between the washing of various parts of the body, as defined by custom, and they did not connect it to the time it takes for them to dry.
Ibn Qudamah (may Allah have mercy on him) said in Al-Mughni (1/181):
“The continuity that is required is that one should not leave washing another part of the body until enough time has elapsed for the previous part to dry within a moderate amount of time, because a part may dry at times faster than others.”
It says in Kashf Al-Qina` (1/105):
“Continuity means that one does not delay washing one part until after the part before it has dried at a time when it is neither too hot nor too cold. So one does not delay washing the hands until the face has dried, or delay wiping the head until the hands have dried, or washing the feet until the head has dried if it is washed. From this it may be known that if a person delays wiping the head until his face has dried but not his hands, that does not matter.”
Based on this, if a person washes his right foot then dries it, then he washes his left foot without taking as much time as it would ordinarily take for it to dry by itself, then his Wudu is valid.
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=6 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/105702/does-drying-the-right-foot-before-washing-the-left-invalidate-wudu | 62 | 105,702 |
215 | Can You Do Wudu with Hijab On? | Question
I work in a company and it is difficult to do Wudu for prayer (i.e., to take off the Hijab in order to wipe my hair and ears).
My question is:
Is it better to wipe over the Hijab and wipe the ears as much as possible only? Or should I combine Zuhr and `Asr prayers at home? | Praise be to Allah.The Challenges of Wudu in a Mixed Workplace
It seems that it is difficult for you to take off your Hijab because of the presence of non-Mahram men in your workplace. If that is the case, then you should note that mixing of women with non-Mahram men leads to many negative consequences, such as being alone with or looking at a member of the opposite sex, speaking softly, temptation, and other things that are no secret to people of insight.
Maintaining Modesty While Praying at Work
If a woman is faced with this problem and the time for prayer comes whilst she is at work, and she cannot delay it until she goes back home, then she should pray in the most concealed place in her workplace, covering her hands, face and all of her body in front of non-Mahram men.
The Difficulty of Wudu with Hijab On
Your saying that it is difficult to take off your Hijab in order to wipe your hair and ears when doing Wudu makes us wonder: how do you wash your arms and feet in the presence of men?
You must be aware that the arms and feet are part of the `Awrah which must be concealed from non-Mahram men. As for the face and hands, there is some difference of scholarly opinion, but the most correct view is that they must also be covered.
Wiping Over the Khimar during Wudu
It is permissible for a woman to wipe over her Khimar (head cover) in the case of necessity, such as when it is very cold, or it is difficult to take off her Hijab and put it back on.
Shaykh Ibn `Uthaymin (may Allah have mercy on him) was asked: Is it permissible for a woman to wipe over her Khimar?
He replied:
The well-known view in the Madhhab of Imam Ahmad is that she may wipe over her Khimar if it goes under her chin, because it was narrated that some of the womenfolk of the Companions (may Allah be pleased with them) did that.
Whatever the case, if there is some difficulty, either because the weather is cold or because it is difficult to take it off and put it on again, then there is nothing wrong with wiping in such cases, otherwise it is better not to do that.” (End quote from Fatawa At-Taharah, p. 171)
It says in Sharh Muntaha Al-Iradat (1/60): It is also valid for a woman to wipe over a Khimar that goes under the chin, because Umm Salamah used to wipe over her Khimar, as was mentioned by Ibn Al-Mundhir. (End quote)
So long as the Khimar covers the ears, it is sufficient to wipe over the Khimar and there is no need to put the hands under the Khimar to wipe them. Similarly, if a man is wearing a turban, he does not have to wipe his ears too, even if they are not covered; rather that is recommended only.
Shaykh Ibn `Uthaymin (may Allah have mercy on him) said: “It is also Sunnah to wipe whatever part of the head is uncovered, such as the forelock, the sides of the head and the ears.” (End quote from Fatawa At-Taharah, p. 170)
Striving for Piety and Obedience in the Workplace
A Muslim woman must strive to fear Allah and obey His commands, and avoid that which He has forbidden, and keep away from working in mixed environments, which may earn her the wrath of Allah. She should beware of giving this world precedence over the Hereafter, for it is transient pleasures, but what is with Allah will never fade away. It is narrated in an authentic report that our Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “Whoever gives up a thing for the sake of Allah, Allah will compensate him with something better than it.” (Classed as authentic by Al-Albani in Hijab Al-Mar’ah Al-Muslimah, p. 49)
We ask Allah to help you to do what is best for you in this world and in the Hereafter.
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=7 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/72391/can-you-do-wudu-with-hijab-on | 62 | 72,391 |
216 | Does a Shower Count as Wudu? | Question
Is it correct to pray without wudu immediately after coming from a normal bath? | Praise be to Allah.Wudu before ghusl
It is recommended for a Muslim to do wudu before ghusl following the example of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him).
If ghusl is done in cases of major impurity such as janabah (impurity following sexual activity) and menstruation, and the person washes his entire body with water, as well as rinsing out the mouth and nose, then it is sufficient and there is no need to do wudu . The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) did not do wudu after doing ghusl.
Does a shower count as wudu?
But if the “ghusl” is done to cool down or to clean oneself, then it does not take the place of wudu.
Shaykh Muhammad ibn Salih al-‘Uthaymin (may Allah have mercy on him) said: Does ghusl following janabah take the place of wudu?
He replied:
“If a person is in a state of janabah and he does ghusl, then that is sufficient and he does not need to do wudu, because Allah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“If you are in a state of Janabah (i.e. after a sexual discharge), purify yourselves (bathe your whole body)” [al-Maidah 5:6]
There is no need to repeat wudu after doing ghusl . But if one of the things that break wudu takes place, and he breaks his wudu after doing ghusl, then he must do wudu. But if he does not break his wudu, then his doing ghusl from janabah takes the place of wudu, whether he did wudu before doing ghusl or not. But it is essential to pay attention to rinsing the mouth and nose, because doing so is essential in both wudu and ghusl.” (Majmu’ Fatawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymin, 11/question no. 180)
Shaykh Muhammad ibn Salih al-‘Uthaymin (may Allah have mercy on him) was also asked: Does ghusl that is not prescribed or required according to Shari`ah take the place of wudu?
He replied:
“Ghusl that is not prescribed or required according to Shari`ah does not take the place of wudu, because it is not an act of worship.” (Majmu’ Fatawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymin, 11/question no. 181)
He (may Allah have mercy on him) was also asked: Does taking a bath take the place of wudu?
He replied:
“If a person takes a bath because of janabah, then it takes the place of wudu, because Allah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“If you are in a state of Janaba (i.e. after a sexual discharge), purify yourselves (bathe your whole body)” [al-Maidah 5:6]
If a person is junub and he immerses himself in a bathtub or river or the like, intending thereby to cleanse himself of janabah, and he rinses his mouth and nose, then he purifies himself from both minor and major impurity, because Allah, may He be exalted, only enjoined us to purify ourselves from janabah, i.e., we should ensure that water reaches all parts of the body when doing ghusl. But it is better for the person who is doing ghusl to do wudu first, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) used to wash his private parts after washing his hands, then he would do wudu as for prayer, then he would pour water over his head, and when he thought that it had reached the skin, he poured water over his head three times, then he would wash the rest of his body.
But if a person takes a bath to clean himself or to cool himself down, then this does not take the place of wudu, because that is not an act of worship, rather it is just an ordinary action, although Islam prescribes cleanliness.
Whatever the case, if the bath is taken to cool down or get clean, then it does not take the place of wudu.” (Majmu’ Fatawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymin, 11/question no. 182)
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=7 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/68854/does-a-shower-count-as-wudu | 62 | 68,854 |
217 | Do We Have to Wash Our Feet in Wudu? | Question
Why does Allah mention wiping (or rubbing) the feet during Wudu in the verse, “rub (by passing wet hands over) your heads, and your feet up to the ankles” [Al-Ma’idah 5:6]? What we know is that we should wash our feet during Wudu, so why does it say imsahu (rub or wipe)? My friend asked me this question and told me, “I wipe my feet when making Wudu and I do not wash them,” and I did not know how to answer. Is there some kind of linguistic miracle in the way the words are put together? What is the reason why it mentions wiping instead of washing? | Praise be to Allah.What must be done in Wudu is washing the feet ; it is not sufficient to wipe them. Your friend’s understanding of the verse as meaning that the feet may be wiped is not correct.
The evidence that it is obligatory to wash the feet is the report narrated by Al-Bukhari (163) and Muslim (241) from `Abdullah ibn `Amr (may Allah be pleased with him) who said: The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) stayed behind us on a journey and then caught up with us, and we were late in praying `Asr. We started doing Wudu and wiping out feet, and he called out at the top of his voice: “Woe to the heels from the fire” two or three times.
Muslim (242) narrated from Abu Hurayrah (may Allah be pleased with him) that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) saw a man who had not washed his heels and he said, “Woe to the heels from the Fire.”
Ibn Khuzaymah (may Allah have mercy on him) said: “If wiping were sufficient to discharge the obligation, there would have been no warning of the Fire in this case.”
Ibn Hajar (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
There are Mutawatir reports from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) which describe his Wudu and state that he washed his feet . He is the one who explained the commands of Allah. There is no report from anyone among the Companions which differs from that, except from `Ali, Ibn `Abbas and Anas, but it was narrated that they retracted that. `Abd Ar-Rahman ibn Abi Layla said: The companions of the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) unanimously agreed that the feet should be washed . (Narrated by Sa`id ibn Mansur.” (Fat-h Al-Bari, 1/320)
With regard to the verse, it says (interpretation of the meaning):
“O you who believe! When you intend to offer the prayer, wash your faces and your hands (forearms) up to the elbows, rub (by passing wet hands over) your heads, and (wash) your feet up to the ankles.” [Al-Ma’idah 5:6]
This does not indicate that it is permissible to wipe the feet. The reason for this is that there are two readings of this verse.
Wa arjulakum (and your feet), with a Fathah on the letter Lam. In this case the word “feet” is mentioned in conjunction with the word Wajh (face), and the face is to be washed, so the feet are to be washed too. So it is as if the verse is basically saying: “Wash your faces, your arms up to the elbows and your feet up to the ankles, and wipe your heads,” but mention of washing the feet is put after mention of wiping the head so as to indicate that this is the order in which the parts of the body are washed in Wudu: washing the face, then the arms, then wiping the head, then washing the feet. (See Al-Majmu`, 1/471)
Wa arjulikum, with a Kasrah on the letter Lam. In this case it is mentioned in conjunction with the word Ra’s (head), and the head is to be wiped, so the feet are to be wiped too.
But the Sunnah shows that one may wipe over the feet only when wearing leather slippers or socks , subject to the conditions that are well known in the Sunnah. (See Al-Majmu`, 1/450; Al-Ikhtiyarat, p. 13)
Thus it is clear that in neither reading does the verse indicate that the feet may be wiped. Rather it indicates that it is obligatory to wash the feet, or to wipe over the socks if one is wearing socks.
Some of the scholars, based on the second reading, are of the view that the reason why wiping is mentioned with regard to the feet although they are to be washed is to indicate that one should be economical in using water when washing the feet, because people are usually lavish with water when washing them. So the verse enjoins wiping in the sense of washing them without being extravagant in the use of water.
Ibn Qudamah (may Allah have mercy on him) said in Al-Mughni, 1/186:
“It may be that what is meant by wiping is washing lightly. Abu `Ali Al-Farisi said: The Arabs call a light washing mash (wiping ) and say tamassahtu li’l-salah (literally “I wiped myself for prayer”) meaning I did Wudu.”
Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
“Mentioning wiping with regard to the feet is an indication that one should not use too much water on the feet, because people are usually extravagant in using water for that.” (Minhaj As-Sunnah, 4/174)
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=7 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/69761/do-we-have-to-wash-our-feet-in-wudu | 62 | 69,761 |
218 | Does Drinking Camel Milk Invalidate Your Wudu? | Question
I have read question 7103 , where it says that eating camel meat is one of the things that invalidate Wudu. Is it obligatory to do Wudu after drinking camel's milk too? | Praise be to Allah.Most of the scholars are of the view that it is not obligatory to do Wudu after drinking camel's milk. This is the well-known view of Imam Ahmad (may Allah have mercy on him). This is indicated by a number of things:
The basic principle is that things do not break Wudu, and there is no authentic evidence to suggest that Wudu is invalidated by drinking camel's milk.
The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) told some people who came to Madinah and got sick to drink camel's urine and milk. (Narrated by Al-Bukhari, 233 and Muslim, 1671) If drinking their milk invalidates Wudu , the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) would have told them about that. (See Al-Mughni, 1/245; Al-Insaf, 2/58; Ash-Sharh Al-Mumti`, 1/209)
With regard to the Hadith narrated by Ahmad (18617) and Ibn Majah (496) from Usayd ibn Hudayr (may Allah be pleased with him) who said: The Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “Do not do Wudu after (drinking) sheep's milk but do Wudu after (drinking) camel's milk,” and the Hadith narrated by Ibn Majah (497) from `Abdullah ibn `Umar (may Allah be pleased with him) who said: I heard the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) say: “Do Wudu after (eating) camel meat and so not do Wudu after eating mutton; do Wudu after (drinking) camel's milk but do not do Wudu after (drinking) sheep's milk,” both of these Hadiths are inauthentic and cannot be quoted as evidence. They were classed as inauthentic by Al-Albani in Da`if Ibn Majah.
Even if these Hadiths were authentic, the command mentioned therein could be understood as meaning that it is recommended to do Wudu after drinking camel's milk, so as to reconcile it with the Hadith quoted above.
For more details, please see the following answers: 130871 , 146155 , and 111786 .
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=7 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/36736/does-drinking-camel-milk-invalidate-your-wudu | 62 | 36,736 |
219 | Is Wiping Neck in Wudu Obligatory? | Question
Is it recommended to wipe the neck during Wudu? | Praise be to Allah.It is not recommended to wipe the neck during Wudu because there is no proof of that from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him).
Shaykh Al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
“There is no authentic report from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) which says that he wiped his neck during Wudu , rather no such thing has been narrated from him in any authentic Hadith. Rather the authentic Hadiths which describe the Wudu of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) do not mention that he wiped his neck. Hence the majority of scholars, such as Malik, Ash-Shafi`i and Ahmad did not regard that as recommended. Those who say that it is recommended rely on a report narrated from Abu Hurayrah (may Allah be pleased with him) or an inauthentic Hadith which says that he wiped his head until he reached the back of his head. Such reports cannot be relied on, and it does not contradict what is indicated by the sound Hadiths. Whoever does not wipe his neck, his Wudu is valid according to scholarly consensus.” (Majmu` Al-Fatawa, 21/127)
This Hadith, “He (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) wiped his head until he reached the back of his head (which is the beginning of the back of the head),” was narrated by Abu Dawud (132) and was classed as inauthentic by Al-Albani in Da`if Abu Dawud.
In Al-Majmu` (1/489) An-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) mentioned a difference of opinion among the companions of Ash-Shafi`i (may Allah have mercy on him) concerning wiping the neck in Wudu. Then he said: This is a summary of what they said, and they had four views on this matter, one of which is that it is Sunnah to wipe it with new water. The second is that it is recommended and cannot be said to be Sunnah. The third is that it is recommended to use the water left from wiping the head and ears . The fourth is that it is neither Sunnah nor recommended. The fourth view is the one that is correct. Hence Ash-Shafi`i (may Allah have mercy on him) did not mention it, and neither did our earlier companions. It was not mentioned by most of the scholars. There is no proof of that from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him).
It is proven in Sahih Muslim and elsewhere that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “The worst of matters are those which are newly-invented, and every innovation is a going astray.”
It is narrated by Al-Bukhari and Muslim that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “Whoever introduces anything into our religion that is not part of it, will have it rejected.” According to a version narrated by Muslim: “Whoever does any action that is not in accordance with this matter of ours will have it rejected.”
With regard to the Hadith that is narrated from Talhah ibn Musarraf, from his father, from his grandfather, which says that he saw the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) wiping his head until he reached the back of his head and the first part of the neck, it is a Hadith which is inauthentic according to scholarly consensus.
With regard to the words of Al-Ghazali (may Allah have mercy on him): Wiping the neck is Sunnah because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said, “Wiping the neck is a protection from the yoke (or chains – Al-Ghull)”, this is a mistake, because these are not the words of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him).”
Al-Ghull (pl. Al-Aghlal) refers to chains that are placed on the neck. Allah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“They are those who disbelieved in their Lord! They are those who will have iron chains (Al-Aghlal) tying their hands to their necks.” [Al-Ra`d 13:5]
“And We shall put iron collars (Al-Aghlal) round the necks of those who disbelieved. Are they requited aught except what they used to do?” [Saba’ 34:33]
Ibn Al-Qayyim (may Allah have mercy on him) said in Zad Al-Ma`ad (1/195):
“There is no authentic Hadith from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) about wiping the neck at all.”
Shaykh Ibn Baz (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
“It is not recommended or prescribed in shari`ah to wipe the neck, rather the head and the ears only are to be wiped, as is indicated by the Quran and Sunnah.” (Majmu` Fatawa Ibn Baz, 10/103)
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=7 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/70120/is-wiping-neck-in-wudu-obligatory | 62 | 70,120 |
220 | How to Wipe the Head in Wudu | Question
How is the head wiped in Wudu? | Praise be to Allah.Is there a specific way to wash or wipe the parts of Wudu?
The way in which parts of the body are washed or wiped over in Wudu is not obligatory. What is obligatory is to wash the parts that are to be washed, and to wipe the parts that are to be wiped, in any manner that it is achieved. But undoubtedly following the way which is narrated from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) is better and more perfect. (See Al-Mughni, 1/171)
How to wipe the head in Wudu
Two ways of wiping over the head in Wudu have been narrated:
After wetting the hands in water, you place them at the front of the head and wipe the head until you reach the back of the head, then you bring them back to the front of the head.
An-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said in Sharh Muslim that the scholars unanimously agreed that this is recommended.
This is proven in a number of Hadiths from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him).
Al-Bukhaari (185) and Muslim (235) narrated from ‘Abdullah ibn Zayd (may Allah be pleased with him) that he described the Wudu of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him): … Then he wiped his head with his hands , front to back. He started at the front of the head and (wiped) until his hands reached the back of the head, then he brought them back to where he started.
Abu Dawud (124) narrated that Mu`awiyah (may Allah be pleased with him) did Wudu for the people as he had seen the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) doing Wudu. When he reached his head, he scooped up some water into his left hand and put his hands onto the middle of his head until the water dripped down or almost dripped down. Then he wiped it from front to back, and from back to front. (Classed as authentic by Al-Albani in Sahih Abu Dawud)
Abu Dawud (122) narrated that Al-Miqdam ibn Ma’di Yakrib (may Allah be pleased with him) said: I saw the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) doing Wudu. When he reached the wiping of his head, he put his hands at the front of his head (and wiped) until he reached the back, then he brought them back to the place where he had started. (Classed as authentic by Al-Albani in Sahih Abu Dawud)
This way of wiping the head suits one whose hair is short and will not be messed up by bringing the hands back to the front of the head.
Wiping the whole head , but in the direction of the hair only, so that the hair is not changed or messed up.
This way of wiping suits one whose hair is long – man or woman – lest the hair be messed up by bringing back the hands.
Ahmad (26484) and Abu Dawud (128) narrated from Ar-Rubayyi` bint Mu`awwidh ibn `Afra’ (may Allah be pleased with her) that the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) did Wudu in her house, and he wiped his entire head from the top of the head to the end of the hair, but he did not move the hair out of place. (Classed as sound by Al-Albani in Sahih Abu Dawud)
Al-`Iraqi (may Allah have mercy on him) said: “What is meant is that he used to start wiping at the top of his head and end at the bottom, doing that on all sides of his head.”
Ibn Raslan (may Allah have mercy on him) said: This method is only for one who has long hair, because if he moves his hands back again to make the water reach the roots of his hair, he will mess up his hair.
It was narrated from Imam Ahmad (may Allah have mercy on him) that he was asked how a woman or one who has long hair like a woman should wipe their heads ? He said: If he wishes he may wipe it in the manner narrated from Ar-Rubayyi`, then he said, Like this: And he placed his hand at the top of his head and brought it down to the front, then he lifted it up and placed it where he had started (at the top of his head) and brought it down to the back.
It may be understood that what is meant by Qarn (translated above as “the top of the head”) is the front of the head, i.e., the wiping starts at the front of the head covering all sides of it to the back of the head, i.e., he wipes his head once from front to back, and he does not bring his hands back again, to avoid messing up the hair. Ar-Rubayyi` (may Allah be pleased with her) said: Do not mess up the hair. (See ‘Awn Al-Ma`bud Sharh Sunan Abi Dawud, Nayl Al-Awtar (1/189) and Al-Mughni (1/178)
The point is that this way is to be used by one who fears that his hair will get messed up, so he wipes his hair in the direction that the hair is growing, so that his hair will not get messed up.
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=7 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/45867/how-to-wipe-the-head-in-wudu | 62 | 45,867 |
221 | Can You Do Wudu with Oil in Your Hair? | Question
Does having a little olive oil in one's hair prevent the water from reaching the hair and thus make Wudu invalid? | Praise be to Allah.It seems that the small amount of olive oil mentioned would not prevent the water from reaching the hair .
The basic principle, as mentioned by Shaykh Ibn `Uthaymin (may Allah have mercy on him) is that if a person uses cream or oil on the parts of the body washed during Wudu, the oil either remains solid, in which case it must be removed before doing Wudu, because if the oil remains solid, then it prevents the water from reaching the skin, and in that case Wudu is not valid.
But if the oil is not solid, rather its trace is left on the part of the body washed during Wudu, then it does not matter . But in this case, the person should make sure that he passes his hand over the part of the body in question, because usually the oil repels water, so the water may not reach all areas of the part of the body being washed. (Fatawa At-Taharah, p. 147)
It may be added that the matter is less crucial with regard to the head because the obligation with regard to the head is to wipe it , not wash it, and wiping means that it is not essential for the water to reach every single hair.
Shaykh Ibn `Uthaymin (may Allah have mercy on him) was also asked:
If a woman applies henna to her hair and it dries, and the like, can she wipe over it?
He replied:
“If a woman has applied henna to her hair and it has dried, then she may wipe over it and there is no need for her to undo her hair and wash off this henna, because it was proven that the Prophet had applied something to his hair to keep it together and prevent it from getting dusty whilst in Ihram, and what is applied to the hair is regarded as part of it. This indicates that there is some leeway with regard to purification of the head.” (Fatawa Al-Mar’ah Al-Muslimah, 1/28)
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=7 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/39493/can-you-do-wudu-with-oil-in-your-hair | 62 | 39,493 |
222 | When to Make Intention for Wudu | Question
When are we to intend for making Wudu? Is it at the beginning or while washing the face or can it be done at any time while making Wudu? | Praise be to Allah.Is intention essential for acts of worship?
The intention (Niyyah) is essential for all acts of worship ; no act of worship – including Wudu – is valid without the intention.
An-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
“The intention is an essential condition of Wudu , Ghusl and Tayammum being valid, and there is no difference of opinion among us concerning that. This is the view of Malik, Al-Layth ibn Sa`d, Ahmad ibn Hanbal and Dawud. They quoted as evidence the words of Allah (interpretation of the meaning):
“And they were commanded not, but that they should worship Allah, and worship none but Him Alone (abstaining from ascribing partners to Him).” [Al-Bayyinah 98:5]
Worshipping none but Allah with sincere devotion is an action of the heart; this is intention, and the command here shows that it is obligatory.
From the Sunnah, we have the words of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him): “Actions are but by intentions.”
What is meant is that the ruling on an action is based on the intention behind it.
Another piece of evidence is the Hadith in which the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “Every person will have but that which he intended.” If he did not intend to do Wudu then he has not done Wudu, and so on.” (Al-Majmu`, 1/356. See also Al-Mughni, 1/156)
What is the seat of the intention in Islam?
It should be noted that the seat of the intention is the heart, and it is not prescribed to utter it out loud.
When to Make Intention for Wudu
It is better to form the intention when starting to do Wudu or shortly before, so that the intention will cover all parts of Wudu. What is obligatory is to have the intention when starting to do the obligatory parts of Wudu.
Ibn Qudamah (may Allah have mercy on him) said in Al-Mughni, (1/159):
“The intention must precede the entire act of purification, because it is an essential condition thereof, so it is regarded as being essential throughout. If any of the obligatory parts of the act of purification take place before the intention, they do not count. It is recommended to form the intention before washing one's hands, so that the intention will cover both the Sunnah parts of the purification and the obligatory parts. If a person washes his hands before forming the intention, he will be like one who has not washed his hand. It is permissible to form the intention shortly before purifying oneself… but if there is a long time in between, that is not sufficient.”
Shaykh Ibn `Uthaymin (may Allah have mercy on him) said in Ash-Sharh Al-Mumti’ (1/140):
“The intention is either of two things:
Either it is Sunnah, which is if it is done before a Sunnah act of purification that comes before an obligatory act’
Or it is required when doing the first obligatory action. End quote.
Based on this, it is better to form the intention before starting to do Wudu, and it is obligatory to have the intention when doing the first of the obligatory actions of Wudu. The scholars differed as to which is the first obligatory action of Wudu. It was said that it is saying Bismillah , or rinsing out the mouth – which is the correct view – or washing the face.
But if a person forms the intention with the first obligatory action of Wudu, he will not be rewarded for whatever Sunnahs of Wudu he did before that, such as saying Bismillah and washing the hands three times, as stated above in the words of Ibn Qudamah (may Allah have mercy on him).”
Shaykh `Abd Al-`Aziz ibn Baz (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
“It is proven from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) that the first part of Wudu is to wash the hands three times, with the intention of doing Wudu, and to say Bismillah.” (Majmu` Fatawa Ash-Shaykh Ibn Baz, 10/98)
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=7 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/39687/when-to-make-intention-for-wudu | 62 | 39,687 |
223 | Wiping over dressings that have been placed on wounds | Question
There is something like abscesses on my leg, and the treatment is to wrap the site of the abscesses with a dressing so that water does not reach it when I do wudu. What is the ruling on wudoo’ in this case?. | Praise be to Allah.Your wudu is valid if you wipe over the dressing or pass water over it. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=7 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/22178/wiping-over-dressings-that-have-been-placed-on-wounds | 62 | 22,178 |
224 | Does touching a woman invalidate wudu? | Question
Is it true that you have to renew your wudu each time you touch a non mahram woman?. | Praise be to Allah.It is not permissible for a man who believes in Allah and the Last Day to touch a woman who is not his mahram. For details of evidence and views of the scholars, please see the answer to question no. 21183
With regard to whether wudu is broken by touching a woman, there is a difference of opinion among the scholars. The correct view is that it does not invalidate wudu – see question no. 2178 – and it makes no difference whether the woman is his mahram, his wife or a non-mahram.
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=7 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/22757/does-touching-a-woman-invalidate-wudu | 62 | 22,757 |
225 | Saying Bismillah before Wudu: Essential? | Question
What is the ruling on saying Bismillah in wudu? | Praise be to Allah.Imam Ahmad ibn Hanbal’s view on saying Bismillah before wudu
The scholars differed concerning the ruling on saying Bismillah in wudu .
Imam Ahmad was of the view that it is obligatory, and he quoted as evidence the hadith narrated from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him), according to which he said: “There is no wudu for the one who does not mention the name of Allah.” (Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, 25; classed as hasan by al-Albani in Sahih al-Tirmidhi. See al-Mughni, 1/145)
Views of the majority of scholars on saying Bismillah before wudu
The majority of scholars – including Imam Abu Haneefah, Imam Malik and Imam al-Shafi'i – and according to one view narrated from Imam Ahmad, are of the view that saying Bismillah is one of the Sunnahs of wudu , and that it is not obligatory.
They quoted evidence for its not being obligatory, such as:
1 – The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) taught a man how to do wudu, and said to him: “Do wudu as Allah has commanded you.” (Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, 302; classed as sahih by al-Albani in Sahih al-Tirmidhi, 247). This is referring to the words of Allah (interpretation of the meaning):
“O you who believe! When you intend to offer ss-salah (the prayer), wash your faces and your hands (forearms) up to the elbows, rub (by passing wet hands over) your heads, and (wash) your feet up to the ankles” [al-Maidah 5:6]
And there is no mention of saying Bismillah in what Allah commands here. See al-Majmu’ by al-Nawawi, 1/346
Abu Dawud (856) narrated a more complete version of this hadith, which more clearly demonstrates that it is not obligatory to say Bismillah when doing wudu .
It was narrated from Abu Hurayrah that the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: The prayer of any one of you is not complete unless he does wudu properly as enjoined by Allah. So he should wash his face and his hands up to the elbows, and wipe his head, and wash his feet up to the ankles…”
The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) did not mention saying Bismillah, which indicates that it is not obligatory. See al-Sunan al-Kubra by al-Bayhaqi, 1/44
2 – Many of those who described the wudu of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) did not mention that he said Bismillah; if it was obligatory it would have been mentioned. (See al-Sharh al-Mumti’, 1/130)
This is the view favoured by many of the Hanbalis such as al-Khiraqi and Ibn Qudamah. (See al-Mughni, 1/145; al-Insaf, 1/128)
Contemporary scholars’ views on saying Bismillah before wudu
Among contemporary scholars, this view was favoured by Shaykh Muhammad ibn Ibrahim and Muhammad ibn ‘Uthaymin (may Allaah have mercy on them both). (See: Fatawa al-Shaykh Muhammad ibn Ibrahim, 2/39; al-Sharh al-Mumti’, 1/130, 300)
They responded in two ways to the hadith which is quoted by those who say that saying Bismillah is obligatory:
1 – That the hadith is da’if (weak).
It was classed as da’if by a number of scholars including Imam Ahmad, al-Bayhaqi, al-Nawawi and all-Bazzar.
Imam Ahmad was asked about saying Bismillah when doing wudu , and he said: There is no sound hadith concerning that, and I do not know of any hadith that has a jayyid (good) isnad to support that. Al-Mughni, 1/145
See al-Sunan al-Kubra by al-Bayhaqi, 1/43; al-Majmu’, 1/343; Talkhis al-Habir, 1/72
2 – If the hadith is sahih, then what it means is “no perfect wudu” and not “no valid wudu”. See al-Majmu’, 1/347; al-Mughni, 1/146
Based on this, then the hadith – if it is sahih – indicates that it is mustahabb to say Bismillah, but it is not obligatory. And Allah knows best.
Based on this, if a Muslim does wudu and does not say Bismillah, then his wudu is valid, but he is missing out on the reward for doing this Sunnah. To be on the safe side, the Muslim should not omit saying Bismillah when doing wudu. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=7 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/21241/saying-bismillah-before-wudu-essential | 62 | 21,241 |
226 | Does Kissing Break Wudu? | Question
My husband always kisses me when he is going out of the house, even when he is going to pray in the mosque. I sometimes feel that he is kissing me with desire. What is the Shar`i ruling on his wudu? | Praise be to Allah.`Aishah (may Allah be pleased with her) said that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) “kissed one of his wives then went out to pray, and he did not do wudu.’” (Abu Dawud, al-Taharah, 180, 179, 178; al-Tirmidhi, al-Taharah, 86; al-Nasai, al-Taharah, 1.104; Ibn Majah, al-Taharah, 502)
This hadith indicates the ruling on whether or not kissing and touching a woman invalidates wudu . The scholars (may Allah have mercy on them) differed concerning that. Some of them said that if you touch a woman , this invalidates wudu in all cases; some said that if you touch a woman with desire, it invalidates wudu, otherwise it does not. Some said that it does not invalidate wudu at all, and this is the correct view.
This means that if a man kisses his wife, or touches her hand or hugs her , but he does not emit anything, then his wudu is not invalidated and it remains as it is. That is because the basic principle is that wudu remains as it was, unless there is proof that it has been broken.
There is nothing in the Book of Allah or the Sunnah of the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) to indicate that touching a woman invalidates wudu. On this basis, touching a woman, even with no barrier and even with desire, and kissing her or hugging her, does not invalidate wudu. (Fatawa al-Marah, Ibn ‘Uthaymin, p. 20)
But if madhiy (prostatic fluid) or maniy (semen) come out of him as a result of kissing her, then his wudu is invalidated in that case.
For more, please see this category: Nullifiers of Wudu
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=7 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/21242/does-kissing-break-wudu | 62 | 21,242 |
227 | Water gets in his nose when he washes his face during wudu | Question
When I do wudu I sniff water up into my nose and blow it out three times, but when I wash my face, water gets into my nose and I blow it out. Is this permissible or not?. | Praise be to Allah.Firstly:
There is nothing wrong with you expelling the water that gets into your nose when you wash your face, after you have finished rinsing your mouth and nose. This is not regarded as something extra in addition to the three times that are mentioned in the Sunnah, because you did not deliberately make the water get into your nose. The scholars (may Allah have mercy on them) have stated that it is better when washing the face to start at the top, so perhaps if you do that, no water will get into your nose.
Al-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
Al-Maawardi said: The mustahabb manner of washing the face is to take the water in both hands, because that is more effective in making the water reach the whole face etc, and to start with the top of the face and move downwards, because the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) used to do that, and because the top of the face is more noble, as it is the place of prostration, and it is more effective as the water naturally runs downwards. Then he should pass his wet hands over his entire face so that he can make sure that the water reaches all the parts it is supposed to. But if he makes the water reach all parts of his face by any other method, that is sufficient. End quote.
It also says in Mawaahib al-Jaleel (1/187), describing the manner of washing the face: He should start at the top.
Secondly:
The Sunnah indicates that one should snuff water up into the nose and expel it three times, as al-Bukhari (186) and Muslim (235) narrated from ‘Abd-Allah ibn Zayd that he demonstrated for them the wudu of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him): He rinsed his mouth and nose using one handful (of water), and he did that three times.
This hadith indicates that the Sunnah is not to separate the rinsing of the mouth and nose, and to rinse both the mouth and nose from a single handful of water, then rinse the mouth and nose from a single handful, then rinse the mouth and nose from a single handful. This is unlike what many people do by separating them; they rinse the mouth three times then they rinse the nose three times.
Al-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said in Sharh Muslim:
Our companions said: However the water reaches the mouth and nose, this fulfils the aim of rinsing them. As to which way is better, there are five opinions, the first of which is that the mouth and nose should be rinsed with three handfuls of water, rinsing the mouth and then the nose each time… this method is the correct one, and is described in saheeh ahaadeeth in al-Bukhaari, Muslim and elsewhere. As for the hadith which indicates separating the two (actions), it is da’eef (weak). This leaves us with one correct way, of washing both the mouth and nose together with three handfuls, as we have indicated, because of the hadith of ‘Abd-Allah ibn Zayd which is quoted in the book. End quote.
Rinsing them more than three times is makrooh. The evidence for that is the report narrated by al-Nasaa’i (140), Abu Dawood (135) and Ibn Maajah (422) from ‘Amr ibn Shu’ayb from his father from his grandfather, who said: a Bedouin came to the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him)and asked him about wudu. He showed him how to do it washing each part of the body three times. Then he said: “This is wudu, and whoever does more than this has transgressed the limits and wronged himself.”
This hadith was classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Nasaa’i.
Al-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
The scholars are unanimously agreed that it is makrooh to do that more than three times. What is meant is washing that part of the body thoroughly three times, but if on one of the times the part is not washed thoroughly and the washing has to be repeated, then those two times will count as one.
If a person is uncertain as to whether he was washed two or three times, he should regard it as two and do it a third time. This is the correct view, as stated by the majority of our companions. Shaykh Abu Muhammad al-Juwayni, one of our companions, said: He should do that three times and no more than that, lest he commit an act of bid’ah by doing it four times. The fourth is bid’ah and is makrooh if he does it deliberately, and Allah knows best.
The point is that there is no sin on you if you expel water that gets into your nose by mistake, and this is not regarded as doing something extra in wudu, because you are not doing it deliberately.
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=7 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/71169/water-gets-in-his-nose-when-he-washes-his-face-during-wudu | 62 | 71,169 |
228 | He passes wind continually; does he have to do wudu for something else that breaks wudu in order to perform naafil prayers? | Question
I suffer from continual wind. My question is : if I break my wudu in a manner other than my ongoing problem with wind after offering the obligatory prayer, do I have to do wudu again in order to offer naafil prayers such as qiyaam al-layl, etc? What intention should I have when doing wudu in this case?. | Praise be to Allah.The scholars differed concerning the wudu of one who suffers from urinary incontinence or passes wind continually. Does he have to do wudu for each obligatory prayer after the time for it begins, and then pray as much as he wants to of naafil prayers, or is it permissible for him to do wudu once and pray all the prayers with it, unless he breaks his wudu in a manner other than his ongoing incontinence?
Abu Haneefah, al-Shaafa’i and Ahmad were of the view that he should do wudu for each prayer after the time for it begins.
Maalik was of the view that it is permissible for the one who is suffering from incontinence to do wudu once and offer all his prayers with it, so long as his wudu is not broken by something other than that ongoing incontinence.
The first view is more on the safe side and is the view of the majority.
See the answer to question no. 22843 for more information.
But if the person who suffers from incontinence breaks his wudu in a manner other than his ongoing problem, then he must repeat wudu, and it is not permissible for him to offer any prayer, obligatory or naafil, without doing wudu. Al-Bukhaari (6954) and Muslim (225) narrated from Abu Hurayrah (may Allah be pleased with him) that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “Allah does not accept the prayer of any one of you if he breaks his wudu until he does wudu.”
The scholars are unanimously agreed that purification from minor impurity is a condition of prayer being valid, and it is not valid without it. See al-Majmoo’ by al-Nawawi (3/139); Majmoo’ al-Fatawa by Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (22/99).
As for what your intention should be in this situation:
You should intend to purify yourself in order to perform the prayer.
It should be noted that it is not prescribed to utter the intention out loud, rather the intention should be formed in the heart.
See question no. 13337 and 14234.
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=7 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/65648/he-passes-wind-continually-does-he-have-to-do-wudu-for-something-else-that-breaks-wudu-in-order-to-perform-naafil-prayers | 62 | 65,648 |
229 | How Many Times Do You Wash Your Feet in Wudu? | Question
When I wash my feet during Wudu, I cannot count how many times I wash them, but I just wash them once, rubbing them and running my fingers between the toes. Is this method sufficient? | Praise be to Allah.Yes, this method is sufficient. The scholars unanimously agreed that what is obligatory in Wudu is to wash each part once, although washing each part two or three times is Sunnah.
Al-Bukhari (157) from Ibn `Abbas (may Allah be pleased with him) who said: The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) did Wudu washing each part once.
An-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said: “The Muslims unanimously agreed that what is obligatory is to wash each part once, and that washing each part three times is Sunnah. There are authentic Hadiths which mention washing each part once, and each part three times, and washing some parts three times, some two times and some once.
The scholars said: the difference indicates that all of these are permissible, and that washing each part three times is most perfect and washing each part once is sufficient. This is how the variations in the Hadiths are to be interpreted.”
Ash-Shawkani (may Allah have mercy on him) said: “The authentic Hadiths speak of washing each part once, twice or three times, or washing some parts three times and some twice. The differences indicate that all of these are permissible, and that washing three times is most perfect and washing once is sufficient.” (Nayl Al-Awtar, 1/188)
But we should not persist in washing each part only once and not do that which is more perfect, because by doing so we are depriving ourselves of more reward.
For more details, please refer to the following answers: 69761 , 45535 , 200648 , and 85065 .
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=7 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/72450/how-many-times-do-you-wash-your-feet-in-wudu | 62 | 72,450 |
230 | Do You Have to Do Wudu Before Every Prayer? | Question
Some Muslims say that you don't have to make wudu (ablution) for every prayer, if you don't break it, like wind passing, etc. What is the truth of that ?Do you have to make ablution for every prayer ? | Praise be to Allah.Prayer in relation to the religion is like the pillar or pole of a tent, as the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “Prayer is the pillar of the religion …”
Prayer has certain conditions, without which it is invalid. These conditions include purity (taharah), which means removing major and minor impurities. Minor impurities are removed by means of wudu. A person must be pure and have wudu for each prayer, as Allah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“O you who believe! When you intend to offer As-Salah (the prayer), wash your faces and your hands (forearms) up to the elbows, rub (by passing wet hands over) your heads, and (wash) your feet up to the ankles.” [Al-Maidah 5:6]
If a person still has wudu , and nothing has broken his wudu (the things that break wudu are anything that is passed from the front or back passage such as urine, stools, wind; sleeping; eating camel meat; etc.), then he does not have to repeat his wudu . It was reported that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) prayed all five prayers with one wudu on the day when he conquered Makkah.
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=8 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/9945/do-you-have-to-do-wudu-before-every-prayer | 62 | 9,945 |
231 | How to Make Wudu | Question
Could you please tell me the proper way of making wudu? Is there a difference between men and women in wudu? Can we say “may Allah have mercy on our beloved Prophet”? | Praise be to Allah.Congratulations on your conversion to Islam
We praise Allah for having guided you and opened your heart. We ask Allah to make us and you steadfast in obeying Him. We appreciate your efforts to learn about your religion and we advise you to strive to acquire knowledge so that your worship will be correct. Try to learn Arabic so that you will be able to read Quran and understand it properly. We ask Allah to bless you with beneficial knowledge.
How to Make Wudu
With regard to how wudu is to be done, there are two ways; the complete and the acceptable way. Find the details below.
1 – Obligatory parts of wudu, which are as follows:
1. Washing the face completely once, which includes rinsing the mouth and nose.
2. Washing the arms up to the elbows , once.
3. Wiping the entire head , including the ears.
4. Washing the feet up to the ankles, once .
What is meant by once in all the above is that the entire part of the body mentioned must be washed thoroughly.
1. This must be done in order, so one washes the face first, then the arms, then wipes the head, then washes the feet, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) did wudu in this order.
2. This must be done continuously, i.e., the parts of the body must be washed one after the other with no lengthy interruption between washing one part and the next.
These are the obligatory parts of wudu which must be done in order for wudu to be sound.
The evidence for these obligatory parts of wudu is the verse in which Allah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“O you who believe! When you intend to offer As-Salah (the prayer), wash your faces and your hands (forearms) up to the elbows, rub (by passing wet hands over) your heads, and (wash) your feet up to the ankles. If you are in a state of Janabah (i.e. after a sexual discharge), purify yourselves (bathe your whole body). But if you are ill or on a journey, or any of you comes after answering the call of nature, or you have been in contact with women (i.e. sexual intercourse), and you find no water, then perform Tayammum with clean earth and rub therewith your faces and hands. Allah does not want to place you in difficulty, but He wants to purify you, and to complete His Favour to you that you may be thankful” [al-Maidah 5:6]
2 – Mustahabb parts of wudu. These were narrated in the Sunnah of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him), the details of which are as follows:
1. You must have the intention of purifying yourself and removing impurity. The intention should not be spoken out loud for its place is in the heart. This applies to all acts of worship.
2. You should say Bismillah .
3. Then you should wash your hands three times
4. Then you should rinse your mouth three times, swirling the water around inside your mouth, and rinse your nose three times, blowing the water out and using the left hand to remove the water from your nose.
5. You should wash your face three times, from the hairline to the jawbone and chin, and from ear to ear. A man should wash the hair of his beard because it is part of the face. If his beard is thin he has to wash it inside and out, and if it is thick and covers the skin, he should wash the surface of it only and run his wet fingers through it.
6. Then he should wash his arms up to the elbows three times. The arm extends from the fingertips, including the nails, to the lower part of the upper arm. It is essential to remove anything stuck to the hands before washing them, such as dough, mud, paint, etc, that could prevent the water from reaching the skin.
7. Then after that he should wipe his head and ears once with fresh water, not the water left over from washing his arms. The way in which the head is to be wiped is that you put your wet hands at the front of your head and bring them to the back of your head, then bring them back to the place where you started. Then put your index fingers in your ears and wipe the back of the ears with your thumbs. With regard to a woman’s hair, she should wipe it whether it is loose or braided from the front of her head to the roots of the hair at the nape of her neck, but she does not have to wipe the entire length of her hair.
8. Then you should wash your feet three times up to the ankles, namely the bones at the bottom of the leg.
The evidence for that is the hadith narrated by Humran the freed slave of ‘Uthman, who said that ‘Uthman ibn ‘Affan (may Allah be pleased with him) called for water to do wudu. He washed his hands three times, then he rinsed his mouth and nose, then he washed his face three times, then he washed his right arm up to the elbow three times, then he washed his left arm likewise. Then he wiped his head, then he washed his right foot up to the ankle three times, then he washed his left foot likewise. Then he said, “I saw the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) doing wudu as I have done it, then the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said, ‘Whoever does wudu as I have done it, then prays two rak’ahs in which he focuses completely on his prayer, his previous sins will be forgiven.’” (Narrated by Muslim, al-Taharah, 331)
Conditions of wudu
The conditions of wudu are: being Muslim, being of sound mind, having reached the age of discernment and having the intention of doing wudu. Wudu is not valid on the part of a non-Muslim, an insane person, a small child who has not yet reached the age of discernment or one who does not have the intention of doing wudu because his intention is to cool himself down, for example.
The water must also be pure (tahir), for impure (najis) water cannot be used for wudu. One must also remove anything that could prevent water from reaching the skin and nails, such as nail polish.
It is prescribed to say Bismillah according to the majority of scholars, but they differ as to whether it is obligatory or Sunnah. If one remembers to say it, it may be said either at the beginning of wudu or during it.
Difference between men and women in wudu
There is no difference between men and women in the way wudu should be done.
What to say after wudu?
It is mustahabb to say, when one has completed wudu : “Ashhadu an la ilaha ill-Allah wahdahu la sharika lah, wa ashhadu anna Muhammadan ‘abduhu wa rasuluhu (I bear witness that there is no god except Allah alone with no partner or associate, and I bear witness that Muhammad is the Messenger of Allah),” because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “There is no one among you who does wudu and does it properly and does it well, then he says, ‘Ashhadu an la ilaha ill-Allah wahdahu la sharika lah, wa ashhadu anna Muhammadan ‘abduhu wa rasuluhu,’ but the gates of Paradise will be opened to him and he may enter through whichever of them he wishes.” (Narrated by Muslim, al-Taharah, 345). A report narrated by al-Tirmidhi adds: “Allahumma ij’alni min al-tawwabina wa’j’alni min al-mutatahhirin (O Allah, make me one of those who repent and make me one of those who purify themselves).” (al-Taharah, 50; classed as sahih by al-Albani in Sahih Sunan Abi Dawud, no. 48) (See al-Mulakhkhas al-Fiqhi by al-Fawzan, 1/36)
Can we say “may Allah have mercy on the Prophet”?
With regard to your saying “may Allah have mercy on the Prophet”, what is prescribed in Islam is to send blessings and peace upon him, as Allah commanded us to do when He said (interpretation of the meaning):
“Allah sends His Salah (Graces, Honours, Blessings, Mercy) on the Prophet (Muhammad), and also His angels (ask Allah to bless and forgive him). O you who believe! Send your Salah on (ask Allah to bless) him (Muhammad), and (you should) greet (salute) him with the Islamic way of greeting (salutation, i.e. As-Salamu ‘Alaykum)” [al-Ahzab 33:56]
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=8 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/11497/how-to-make-wudu | 62 | 11,497 |
232 | Washing with soap when doing Wudu, and changing a baby’s diaper | Question
I am a new Muslim and have a question about performing Wudu. Do you need to use soap when performing Wudu, specifically washing the face, hands (to the elbows) and feet. All of the sources I have read never say to use soap, but use the word "wash".
Also, does changing a baby's diaper invalidate wudu? | Praise be to Allah.We would like to congratulate you and offer praise to Allah for the blessings He has bestowed upon you by guiding you to the Straight Path. We ask Him to help us and you to be steadfast in adhering to this religion.
You do not have to use soap at all when doing wudu. The word wash which you have read in the books you refer to does not mean using soap or any other kind of cleanser.
Shaykh Ibn Uthaymeen (may Allah preserve him) said:
Washing the hands and face with soap when doing wudu is not prescribed in shareeah. On the contrary, it is a kind of obstinate and excessive zeal. It was reported that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: Those who are obstinate and excessively zealous are doomed. He said it three times.
If there is some kind of dirt on the hands that can only be removed by using soap or some other cleanser, there is nothing wrong with using it in this case, but under ordinary circumstances, using soap when doing wudu is a kind of excessive zeal and bidah (innovation), so it should not be used. (Fataawaa Islamiyyah, 1/223)
With regard to changing a babys diaper, if you mean the act of changing itself, this does not affect the validity of one's wudu.
If you mean that it involves touching something that is naajis (impure, i.e. the babys urine and stools), this does not affect your wudu either, because there is no connection between touching something naajis and the validity of ones wudu. It has been reported that there is scholarly consensus on this point, as stated in the book Al-Awsat by Ibn al-Mundhir (1/203). All one has to do is wash one's hands to get rid of any naajis material.
If you mean that it involves touching the childs private parts, whether the child is a boy or a girl, in the case of a child under the age of two years, the rulings on awrah (that which is to be covered) do not apply, as the scholars have stated, so if you touch them, this does not affect your wudu.
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=8 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/6987/washing-with-soap-when-doing-wudu-and-changing-a-babys-diaper | 62 | 6,987 |
233 | Ruling on doing wudoo’ with hot water | Question
What is the ruling on doing wudoo’ with hot water? | Praise be to Allah.There is nothing wrong with that, but if the water is extremely hot, is OK but it is makrooh, because it may harm the skin by burning it and causing pain. There was a dispute long ago about whether heated water would remove impurity or not. The correct view is that it does remove impurity, and heated water is a necessity in cold countries, but it is makrooh if it is heated by using fuel that is impure (naajis).
And Allaah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=8 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/1991/ruling-on-doing-wudoo-with-hot-water | 62 | 1,991 |
234 | You have to wash the hands when washing the arms in udu | Question
What is the ruling on a person who washes his arm from the wrist to the elbow, without washing his hand, thinking that washing it at the beginning of wudu is sufficient? Does he have to repeat his wudu? | Praise be to Allah.It is not sufficient in wudu to limit oneself to washing the forearm only, without washing the palm. When you have finished washing the face, you start by washing the two hands, then wash each arm from the fingertips to the elbows. If you washed them before you washed your face, the first washing is Sunnah, but washing them after washing the face is fard (obligatory). Whoever only washes the arms between the wrists and elbows has not completed the obligatory action that is required of him, so he has to repeat his wudu after he finishes it, or he has to wash the parts he has omitted, if he did wudu recently, so he has to wash his two hands and what comes after that. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=8 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/2069/you-have-to-wash-the-hands-when-washing-the-arms-in-udu | 62 | 2,069 |
235 | Forgot to Do Wudu and Prayed: Should I Repeat the Prayer? | Question
I forgot that I did not have wudu and I prayed. After I finished my prayer, I remembered that. Do I have to repeat my prayer? | Praise be to Allah.Whoever prays forgetting that he does not have wudu has to repeat the prayer, because the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “Allah does not accept any prayer if a person breaks his wudu , until he does wudu.” (Narrated by al-Bukhari from the hadith of Abu Hurayrah (may Allah be pleased with him) in Kitab al-Wudu)
This is in contrast to the person who has some impurity (najasah) on his clothes and he forgets it. He does not have to repeat his prayer because Jibril came to the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) whilst he was praying, and told him that there was something dirty on his shoes . He took them off and continued praying. This was narrated by Ahmad from the hadith of Abu Sa’id al-Khudri (may Allah be pleased with him) in his Musnad. This hadith proves that the one who is unaware of the najasah does not have to repeat his prayer , and this applies also to the one who forgets that there is some najasah present.
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=8 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/10780/forgot-to-do-wudu-and-prayed-should-i-repeat-the-prayer | 62 | 10,780 |
236 | Uncertainty whilst making wudoo’ | Question
Sometimes it so happens that I forget whether I have wiped over my head or not, and I am not sure one way or the other. Should I do wudoo’ all over again? | Praise be to Allah.If this uncertainty come after you have finished
doing wudoo’, then do not pay any attention to it. If it happens before
you finish, for example, being unsure whether you have wiped over your
head and you are washing your feet, then you can wipe over your head
and wash your feet. There is no hardship involved in doing that. This
is if you are not suffering from a lot of insinuating doubts.
If you are faced with a lot of insinuating doubts, then you should not
pay any attention to that, and you should proceed from the point at
which you are now. So if you are washing your feet then you may assume
that you have wiped over your head. The same applies to all other stages
of wudoo’. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=8 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/10778/uncertainty-whilst-making-wudoo | 62 | 10,778 |
237 | How should a passenger on an airplane do wudoo’ if there is no water? | Question
If there is no water on board a plane, or it is frozen, or one is not allowed to use it in case it leaks and causes damage to the plane, or there is no enough water, how can a passenger do wudoo’, knowing that there is no soil or earth there? | Praise be to Allah.In the cases that you describe, wudoo’ is not possible or is difficult. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“and has not laid upon you in religion any hardship” [al-Hajj 22:78]
So the passenger should do tayammum using the chairs of the airplane, if there is dust there. If there is no dust, then he should pray even if he is not taahir, because he is unable to purify himself. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“So keep your duty to Allaah and fear Him as much as you can” [al-Taghaabun 64:16]
But if it is possible that you will land in the airport before the end of the time of the second of two prayers that may be joined together, then he should delay it, i.e., he should have the intention of joining the prayers and praying at the later time. Then he should pray both prayers when he lands at the airport. But if that is not possible, e.g. it is already the time for the latter of two prayers that may be joined, or it is a prayer which cannot be joined to the following prayer – such as ‘Asr and Maghrib, or ‘Ishaa’ and Fajr, or Fajr and Zuhr – then he should pray that according to his circumstances. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=8 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/10798/how-should-a-passenger-on-an-airplane-do-wudoo-if-there-is-no-water | 62 | 10,798 |
238 | Effects of Jinn on Urinary Incontinence | Question
I read one question about someone having trouble while doing wudhu (ablution). I have a similar problem, or even worse. Whenever I want to pray I feel gas coming out of me, if I go to the toilet for urine I spend more than 30 minutes but urine and other liquid keep on coming from my private part, during salah (formal prayer) I have excessive an desire to go to the toilet, I have to repeat my ablution again and again; this situation is really embarrassing me, it makes salah very difficult for me and this really has an effect on my faith. I am sure this is not a kind of illness because I have seen many doctors but no improvement, and also this problem comes only when I want to pray.
Some people said it could be a jinn which has entered my body.
Please tell me how I can do my salah easily; can I pray more than one salah with the same wudhu even when these things are coming out of me. If this is caused by jinn, how can I get rid of it? | Praise be to Allah.Urinary incontinence and similar conditions where liquid etc, is passed involuntarily and one cannot control it, should not be given any attention, rather the person should pray according to his situation, even if that liquid etc. is emitted during prayer, because it is too difficult to avoid it. Allah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“… and has not laid upon you in religion any hardship.” [22:78]
But if he fears that his body or clothes may become contaminated, he should wrap it (i.e. the private part) with a cloth or something similar, and pray after doing wudhu, and he should not pay attention to anything that comes out that he cannot control. This is an ordinary kind of sickness, which is very common, and it is not caused by the jinn. Taharah (purity) is essential so you have to renew it (i.e., renew wudhu) for each obligatory prayer. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=8 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/8285/effects-of-jinn-on-urinary-incontinence | 62 | 8,285 |
239 | Ruling on using nail polish, and does it have to be removed when doing wudoo’ | Question
Is there any sin involved in a woman wearing nail polish? What should she do when doing wudoo? | Praise be to Allah.We do not know of any ruling on that, but
it is better not to use it, because there is no need for it, and because
it may prevent the water reaching the skin when doing wudoo’. In brief,
it is better not to use it, and to be content with henna, because that
which the earliest Muslim women used is better. If a woman does use
it, then she has to remove it when doing wudoo’, because – as we said
– it prevents the water from reaching the skin. And Allaah is the Source
of strength. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=8 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/9066/ruling-on-using-nail-polish-and-does-it-have-to-be-removed-when-doing-wudoo | 62 | 9,066 |
240 | The times when prayer is forbidden do not include wudoo’ | Question
Your preparation for prayer is like your prayer according to many hadeeths. Does this mean that it is forbidden to make ablution at sunrise/sunset/12am/12pm or is it permissible? And if one is reading a lengthy obligatory prayer· and the time for sunset/sunrise· etc. occurs· should one break the prayer and start again· or carry on? Also· if one is for example reading lengthy tarawih prayers· and they don't finish until after 12pm· do they need to make another ablution after 12pm or does it not matter as they are essentially reading the same salaat? | Praise be to Allah.Firstly:
It was reported in Saheeh al-Imam Muslim that ‘Uqbah ibn ‘Aamir said: “There are three times when the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) used to forbid us to pray or to bury our dead: when the sun begins to rise until it is fully up; when the sun is at its height at midday until it passes over the meridian; and when the sun draws near to setting until it sets.” (Salaat al-Musaafireen wa Qasruhaa, 1373).
What is forbidden in this hadeeth is prayer and burying the dead. Wudoo’ does not come under the same rulings as prayer at all, because prayer means worshipping Allah with certain words and actions, starting with the takbeer and ending with the tasleem.
This is what is meant by what is forbidden in this hadeeth, not wudoo’. Comparing wudoo’ with prayer in this prohibition is comparing two things which are not alike, and this is incorrect. If a person speaks whilst making wudoo’, this does not make his wudoo’ invalid, whereas speaking invalidates one’s prayer. And there are other differences between prayer and wudoo’. The point is that it is incorrect to compare wudoo’ to prayer and say that it is forbidden at these times; rather it is recommended (mustahabb) for a person to have wudoo’ (be taahir or pure) at all times.
Secondly:
One should not stop praying an obligatory prayer if you are praying and the time of sunrise or sunset is close. That is because you have caught up with the prayer at the right time if you catch up with one rak’ah of it in its right time. If a person is praying Fajr, for example, and he makes the first rak’ah long, then he starts the second rak’ah and makes it long, and the sun rises (during the second rak’ah), in this case his action is OK, and he has performed the prayer at the right time. But if the sun rises when he has not completed the first rak’ah, then he has not prayed at the right time and he has sinned by making the rak’ah too long. The same may said with regard to ‘Asr and all the other prayers.
Thirdly:
If a person has wudoo’ and it has not been “broken” by any of the things that nullify wudoo’, then he does not have to repeat his wudoo’. It was proven that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) prayed all five prayers on the day of Conquest of Makkah with one wudoo’.
It was narrated from Sulaymaan ibn Buraydah from his father that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) prayed all the prayers on the day of the Conquest of Makkah with one wudoo’, and he wiped over his leather slippers (when making wudoo’). ‘Umar said to him, “You have done something today that you never did before.” He said, “I did it deliberately, O ‘Umar.”
(Narrated by Muslim, 277)
Al-Nawawi said:
This hadeeth includes various kinds of knowledge, such as: it is permissible to wipe over the socks; it is permissible to pray the obligatory and naafil (supererogatory) prayers with one wudoo’, so long as it is not broken, and this is permissible according to the consensus of those (scholars) whose opinions carry weight.
Abu Ja’far al-Tahhaawi and Abu’l-Hasan ibn Battaal narrated in Sharh Saheeh al-Bukhaari that a group of the scholars said that it is obligatory to do wudoo’ for each prayer, even if one already has wudoo’, basing that on the aayah (interpretation of the meaning):
“When you intend to offer As-Salaah (the prayer), wash your faces and your hands (forearms) up to the elbows, rub (by passing wet hands over) your heads, and (wash) your feet up to the ankles”
[al-Maa’idah 5:6]!
I do not think that this view has been narrated with a saheeh isnaad from anyone. Perhaps they meant that it is mustahabb to renew one’s wudoo for every prayer.
The evidence of the majority is the saheeh ahaadeeth, including this hadeeth (the hadeeth of ‘Umar).
And the hadeeth of Anas in Saheeh al-Bukhaari: “The Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) used to do wudoo’ for every prayer, but one of us would regard his (previous) wudoo’ as sufficient so long as he had not broken it.”
And the hadeeth of Suwayd ibn al-Nu’maan, also in Saheeh al-Bukhaari: “The Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) prayed ‘Asr, then he ate saweeq, then he prayed Maghrib without doing wudoo’.”
There are many similar ahaadeeth, such as the hadeeth about combining prayers in ‘Arafah and al-Muzdalifah, and on all journeys, and joining the prayers which were missed on the day of al-Khandaq, and so on.
What is meant by the aayah quoted above – and Allah knows best – is that if you intend to pray and you have broken your wudoo’, then you should do wudoo’. And it was said that this was abrogated by the actions of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him), but this view is da’eef (weak). And Allah knows best.
With regard to the words of ‘Umar (may Allah be pleased with him), “You have done something today that you never did before” – this clearly indicates that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) regularly used to do wudoo’ for each prayer, doing that which is best. But on this day he prayed all the prayers with one wudoo’, to show that it is permissible to do so, as he (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said, “I did it deliberately, O ‘Umar.”
Sharh Muslim, 3/177, 178)
And Allah knows best | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=8 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/13628/the-times-when-prayer-is-forbidden-do-not-include-wudoo | 62 | 13,628 |
241 | Can one who has done tayammum lead in prayer people who have done wudoo’? | Question
Can one who has done tayammum lead in prayer people who have done wudoo’? | Praise be to Allah.Ibn Hazam said:
It is permissible for one who has done tayammum to lead in prayer people who have done wudoo’, for one who has done wudoo’ to lead people who have done tayammum, for one who has wiped over his socks to lead those who have washed their feet and for one who has washed his feet to lead people who have wiped over their socks, because each of those whom we have mentioned has done what he is obliged to do. None of them is more taahir (pure) than another, and none of them is more complete in prayer than another. The Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) enjoined that when the time for prayer comes, the one who has most knowledge of the Quran should lead them in prayer; he (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) did not specify anything other than that. If there had been any obligation other than that which he mentioned, he would have explained it and would not have neglected it – Allah forbid. This is the view of Abu Haneefah, Abu Yoosuf, Zafar, Sufyaan, al-Shaafa’i, Dawood, Ahmad, Ishaaq and Abu Thawr. That was narrated from Ibn ‘Abbaas, ‘Ammaar ibn Yaasir and a group of the Sahaabah (may Allah be pleased with them). It is also the view of Sa’eed ibn al-Musayyib, al-Hasan, ‘Ataa’, al-Zuhri and Hammaad ibn Abi Sulaymaan.
It was narrated that ‘Ali ibn Abi Taalib disallowed that, and said that one who has done tayammum should not lead in prayer people who have done wudoo’, and one whose wudoo’ is valid for a limited period should not lead those whose wudoo’ is valid indefinitely. Al-Rabee’ah said: one who has done tayammum because of janaabah (impurity because of sexual activity) should not lead anyone in prayer except others who are in the same state. This was also the view of Yahyaa ibn Sa’eed al-Ansaari.
Muhammad ibn al-Hasan and al-Hasan ibn Hayy said: he should not lead them in prayer.
Maalik and ‘Ubayd-Allah ibn al-Hasan said that he should not lead them in prayer, but if he does then the prayer is valid.
Al-Oozaa’i said: he should not lead them in prayer unless he is an ameer (leader).
‘Ali – i.e., Ibn Hazm – said: there is no evidence for disallowing that or regarding it as makrooh, either from the Quran or the Sunnah or from scholarly consensus (ijmaa’) or from analogy (qiyaas); the same applies to categorizing people in that manner. And Allah is the Source of strength. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=8 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/21564/can-one-who-has-done-tayammum-lead-in-prayer-people-who-have-done-wudoo | 62 | 21,564 |
242 | What should one do about tahaarah (purification) if one can find neither water nor dust? | Question
What should a person do if he finds no water and no dust to purify himself with? Does he have to repeat his prayer after he finds either of them? | Praise be to Allah.
Ibn Hazm said:
Whoever is detained, whether he is traveling or not,
in such a state that he cannot find dust or water, or he is being crucified,
and the time for prayer comes, then he should pray as he is, and his
prayer will be complete and does not have to be repeated, whether he
finds water within the time of the prayer or after the time is over.
The proof of that is the aayahs (interpretation of the
meaning):
“So
keep your duty to Allaah and fear Him as much as you can”
[al-Taghaabun 64:16]
“Allaah burdens not a person beyond his scope”[al-Baqarah
2:286]
And the Messenger of Allaah
(peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “If I command you
to do a thing, then do as much of it as you can.”
And Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“… while He has explained to you in detail what is
forbidden to you, except under compulsion of necessity?”[al-An’aam 6:119]
From these texts we see that we are not obliged
to do more than we are able to, and that if we are unable to do something,
we are relieved of the obligation. We learn that Allaah has forbidden
us to neglect wudoo’ or tayammum for prayer, unless we are forced “under
compulsion of necessity”. The one who is deprived of water and dust
is forced by necessity to do something which is forbidden, i.e., to
forgo purifying himself with water or dust; so the prohibition does
not apply in his case. But he is able to pray, fulfilling all the rulings
on prayer and believing it to be obligatory, so it remains for him to
do that which he is able to do. If he prays as we have mentioned, then
he has prayed as Allaah has commanded him to do, and whoever prays as
Allaah has commanded him to do is not to blame. And hastening to pray
at the beginning of the time for prayer is preferable, because of what
we have stated above.
Abu Haneefah, Sufyaan al-Thawri and al-Oozaa’i said,
concerning one who is in this situation, that he should not pray until
he finds water, when he finds it. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=8 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/21573/what-should-one-do-about-tahaarah-purification-if-one-can-find-neither-water-nor-dust | 62 | 21,573 |
243 | Ruling on a woman’s continual discharge | Question
I have a continual discharge – how can I pray? | Praise be to Allah.
If this discharge comes and goes, and usually stops during
the times of prayer, then you can delay the prayer until the time when this
discharge ceases, so long as there is no fear that the time for the prayer
may come to an end. If you fear that the time for prayer will end, then do
wudoo’, apply a pad of cotton, and pray. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=8 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/22949/ruling-on-a-womans-continual-discharge | 62 | 22,949 |
244 | Is it obligatory to have wudu at times other than the times of prayer? | Question
Is there any report to say that it is obligatory to do wudu every time one has urinated or defecated, at times other than the times of prayer? I am experiencing a lot of waswaas (insinuating whispers of the Shaytaan) concerning this point, and this is causing me a lot of trouble and problems with my husband, who says that this is going to extremes and is innovation (bid’ah). | Praise be to Allah.There is no daleel (evidence) to say that it is obligatory to do wudu every time one passes wind, urine or stools, so long as one is not going to pray. If you want to pray, then you have to purify yourself, whether that is from major or minor impurity, because the aayah enjoins doing wudu for prayer. Allah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“O you who believe! When you intend to offer As-Salat (the prayer)…” [al-Maa’idah 5:6]
It was narrated from Ibn ‘Abbaas that the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) came out of the toilet and food was brought to him. They said “Shall we bring you water to make wudu?”, and he said, “I have only been commanded to do wudu when I intend to pray.” (Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, al-At’imah, 1770; classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh Sunan al-Tirmidhi, hadeeth no. 1506). This hadeeth indicates that it is not obligatory to do wudu except when one intends to pray. But there are actions for which it is mustahabb to do wudu, such as reading Quran, when going to sleep, etc.
It should be noted that it is permissible for a person to offer several prayers with one wudu, so long as he does not break it. It was narrated that on the day of the Conquest of Makkah, the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) prayed all the prayers with one wudu, in which he had wiped over his socks. ‘Umar said, “I saw you do something which you had never done.” He said, “I did that deliberately, O ‘Umar.” (Narrated by Muslim, al-Tahaarah, 415).
Imaam al-Nawawi said in his commentary on Saheeh Muslim, this hadeeth indicates that it is permissible to offer the obligatory (fard) and supererogatory (naafil) prayers with one wudu, so long as it is not broken. This is permissible according to the consensus of those scholars whose words carry weight.
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=8 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/8924/is-it-obligatory-to-have-wudu-at-times-other-than-the-times-of-prayer | 62 | 8,924 |
245 | Rinsing the nose in wudu is obligatory | Question
I did wudu for prayer, and during the prayer I remembered that I had not rinsed my nose. What is the ruling concerning my wudu and my prayer in this case? | Praise be to Allah.Rinsing the nose in wudu is obligatory, because it is proven that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) did this and said: “Whoever does wudu, let him rinse his nose.” Whoever does not rinse his nose, his wudu is not valid. So you must repeat both your wudu and your prayer. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=9 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/1197/rinsing-the-nose-in-wudu-is-obligatory | 62 | 1,197 |
246 | Removing nail polish before making wudoo' | Question
We have heard some people saying that it is permissible for a
woman to make wudoo' without removing her nail polish.
What is your opinion? | Praise be to Allah.
If the nail polish forms an impermeable layer that prevents water from
reaching the surface of the nail, her wudoo' is not valid unless she first
removes it. If she wears something like henna that does not create an
impermeable layer, then her wudoo' is valid. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=9 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/640/removing-nail-polish-before-making-wudoo | 62 | 640 |
247 | Does Cutting Nails Break Wudu? | Question
After praying, a person discovers some impermeable substance, such as wax, on his hands or feet – what should he do in this case? Also, does one have to repeat Wudu if one cuts one’s nails? | Praise be to Allah.It is obligatory to wash all the parts of the body that are specified for washing in Wudu, in obedience to the words of Allah (interpretation of the meaning): “O you who believe! When you intend to offer the prayer, wash your faces and your hands (forearms) up to the elbows…” [Al-Ma’idah 5:6], and following the example and teaching of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) recorded in the authentic Hadiths, which describe the parts of the body to be washed in Wudu.
If, after praying, a person finds something on these parts of his body that prevents water from reaching them , then he must remove it and repeat his Wudu and prayer.
As far as cutting the nails is concerned, this does not mean that one has to repeat Wudu, and in fact doing so is not encouraged.
For more details, please refer to the following answers: 27070 , 114810 , and 26266 .
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=9 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/1164/does-cutting-nails-break-wudu | 62 | 1,164 |
248 | Wiping the ears in wudu | Question
There was a dispute about wiping the ears in wudu. Some people say that there is no proof that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) wiped his ears when performing wudu. | Praise be to Allah.There is proof that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) wiped his head and ears when performing wudu. Ibn Abbas reported that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) wiped his head and his ears, inside and out.
(Reported by al-Tirmidhi, who classed it as saheeh). Al-Nisaa'i reports that he wiped his head and his ears, wiping the inside of them with his index-finger and the outside of them with his thumb. (Classed as saheeh by Ibn Khuzaymah). Abu Dawood and al-Tahhaawi report from Miqdaad ibn Madi Karb that the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) when he performed wudu, wiped his head and his ears, inside and out, inserting his finger into the ear canal. (Reported by Abu Dawood; al-Haafiz ibn Hijr said: Its isnaad is hasan.) There is no dispute that one should wipe the ears during wudu; the dispute is as to whether they are considered to be part of the head or not, and whether it is sunnah or waajib (obligatory) to wipe them. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=9 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/1168/wiping-the-ears-in-wudu | 62 | 1,168 |
249 | The wudoo’ of one who has something impermeable on his hand etc. | Question
If a person performs wudoo’ then finds that
part of his hands etc. is covered with something impermeable, such as paint, that prevents
water from reaching his skin, can he go ahead and pray, or does he have to remove it for
every obligatory prayer, even though that involves hardship for him? | Praise be to Allah.The Muslim should make sure that water reaches his skin every time he
does wudoo’, and he has to remove anything that prevents this. People whose work
involves painting and so on can wear something on their hands to prevent them from getting
covered with paint. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=9 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/1167/the-wudoo-of-one-who-has-something-impermeable-on-his-hand-etc | 62 | 1,167 |
250 | How to rinse the mouth in wudu | Question
Is wudu invalidated if a person rinses his mouth without putting his finger in his mouth, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) used to rinse his mouth with his finger? Is this report about him (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) saheeh? | Praise be to Allah.Wudu is valid even if one does not insert ones finger in one's mouth when rinsing it. The report mentioned was narrated by Imam Ahmad with a daeef (weak) isnaad. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=9 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/1175/how-to-rinse-the-mouth-in-wudu | 62 | 1,175 |
251 | Is There Any Du`a During Wudu? | Question
Is there any du`a (supplication) to be recited during wudu (ablution)? | Praise be to Allah.There is no proof that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said any du`a during wudu whilst washing or wiping his limbs, etc.
Any such du`as that are known are bid’ah (innovation) and have no basis.
What is known from Islamic sources is that one should say “Bismillah ar-Rahman ar-Rahim ” at the beginning, and after finishing one should recite the Shahadatayn (testimony of faith) and say, “Allahumma ij’alni min al-tawwabin waj’alni min al-mutatahhirin (O Allah, make me one of those who repent and make me one of those who purify themselves).”
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=9 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/1180/is-there-any-dua-during-wudu | 62 | 1,180 |
252 | Wiping over adhesive dressings (Band-Aids) when doing wudu | Question
I have something like abscesses on my feet, and the treatment requires that I put an adhesive dressing over them, so that I do not get any water on them when doing wudu. What is the ruling in this case? | Praise be to Allah.Your wudu is valid whether you wipe over the dressing or let water pass over it. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=9 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/2173/wiping-over-adhesive-dressings-band-aids-when-doing-wudu | 62 | 2,173 |
253 | Can You Do Wudu Naked? | Question
The man’s ‘awrah is from the navel to the knees, so what is the ruling on doing wudu naked or wearing shorts that do not cover the knees? | Praise be to Allah.If you do wudu naked , your wudu is valid, because uncovering the `awrah or wearing shorts does not invalidate one’s wudu, but it is haram for you to uncover your `awrah in front of anyone except your wife or concubine (a slave woman who belongs to a man and with whom he is permitted to have intercourse).
For more, please see this category: Nullifiers of Wudu
And Allah knows best. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=9 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/2167/can-you-do-wudu-naked | 62 | 2,167 |
254 | Adhkaar al-Wudu (du`as to be recited when doing Wudu) | Question
What is mustahabb (recommended) to be done during Wudu? What should one say afterwards? | Praise be to Allah.The correct procedure for Wudu is: a person should pour water from the vessel onto his hands three times, then put his right hand into the vessel and rinse his mouth and nose three times, then wash his face three times, then wash his arm up to the elbow three times, then wipe his head and ears once, then wash his feet up to the ankles three times. If he washes everything twice, or once, this is sufficient. Then after doing Wudu he should say: “Ashhadu an laa ilaaha illa-Allah wahdahu laa shareeka lah, wa ash-hadu anna Muhammadan ‘abduhu wa rasooluh. Allahumma-j’alni min al-tawwaabeen waj’alni min al-mutatahhireen (I bear witness that there is no god but Allah Alone, with no partner or associate, and I bear witness that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. O Allah, make me one of those who repent and make me one of those who are purify themselves).”(Fatawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah, 5/231).
Before doing Wudu, one should say Bismillah, because of the hadeeth: “There is no Wudu for the one who does not mention the name of Allah when he starts.” (Sunan al-Tirmidhi, 56) | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=9 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/2165/adhkaar-al-wudu-duas-to-be-recited-when-doing-wudu | 62 | 2,165 |
255 | Wiping the neck is not a prescribed part of wudu | Question
Is it a prescribed part of wudu to wipe the neck or is it not mentioned in the Book of Allah or the Sunnah of Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him)? | Praise be to Allah.There is no proof in either the Book of Allah or the Sunnah of His Messenger (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) that wiping the neck is part of wudu, so it is not a prescribed part of wudu. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=9 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/2168/wiping-the-neck-is-not-a-prescribed-part-of-wudu | 62 | 2,168 |
256 | Ruling on doing wudoo’ with water that is contaminated but not naajis (ritually impure) | Question
I would like to know whether it is allowed for a person to use water that maybe unclean for wudu. What if the water is not suitable for drinking due to it being unclean, can one rinse their mouth out with this water? | Praise be to Allah.This
question was answered for us by Shaykh ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Munayyi’, who
said:
“One
of the basic principles of sharee’ah is the hadeeth of the Messenger
(peace and blessings of Allaah
be upon him), who said: ‘There should be neither harming nor reciprocating
harm.’ Part of this principle is that the Muslim is not permitted to
harm himself, which includes not using contaminated water for doing
wudoo’.
So it
is forbidden to do wudoo’ using contaminated water, but if a person
does do wudoo’ using such water his wudoo’ is still valid, because it
is not naajis (ritually impure), but his action is haraam because he
is harming himself. And Allaah knows best.” | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=9 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/3427/ruling-on-doing-wudoo-with-water-that-is-contaminated-but-not-naajis-ritually-impure | 62 | 3,427 |
257 | Is it permissible to do more than twoRak’ahs after doing Wudu? | Question
Is it permissible for us to pray more than two rak’ahs after doing Wudu, as narrated in the hadeeth of Abu Hurayrah (may Allah be pleased with him), who said that the Messenger of Allah (may Allah be pleased with him) said to Bilaal, “O Bilaal, tell me which is the deed in Islam in which you put most of your hope, for I have heard the sound of your sandals in front of me in Paradise.” Bilal said, “I do not do any deed in which I place more hope than this: I do not purify myself at any time of night or day, but I then pray as much as Allah decrees I should pray.” (Agreed upon)? | Praise be to Allah.The Sunnah is to pray two Rak’ahs after making Wudu, because of the hadeeth of Bilaal mentioned in the question, and other reports. But it is permissible for a person to pray as many naafil prayers as he wishes in addition to the two rak’ahs, except at times when naafil prayers are not allowed.
And Allah is the source of strength. May Allah bless our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=9 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/5253/is-it-permissible-to-do-more-than-tworakahs-after-doing-wudu | 62 | 5,253 |
258 | Ruling on doing wudu when one has food particles between one’s teeth | Question
When we eat we get food particles between our teeth. If we do wudu or ghusl and we cannot remove these food particles, is our wudu or ghusl valid? | Praise be to Allah.Your wudu or ghusl is valid even if there are some food particles left between your teeth, but it is better to remove them. | Ablution before prayer | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/62/ablution-before-prayer?page=9 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/2166/ruling-on-doing-wudu-when-one-has-food-particles-between-ones-teeth | 62 | 2,166 |
259 | Who is the accountable person who must enter Islam, and follow its teachings? | Question
1. Who is the accountable person who must enter Islam and follow its teachings?
2. In order to enter the religion of Islam, is it stipulated that he must utter the words “Ashhadu an la ilaaha ill-Allah wa anna Muhammadan Rasoolullah (I bear witness that there is no god but Allah and I bear witness | Praise be to Allah.Firstly:
The accountable person who is obliged to enter Islam and follow its teachings is the one who is an adult of sound mind, whom the call of Islam reached and proof was established against him.
Abu Dawood (4403) and at-Tirmidhi (1423) narrated from ‘Ali (may Allah be pleased with him) that the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “The Pen has been lifted from three: from the sleeper until he awakens, from the child until he reaches puberty and from the insane person until he comes to his senses.”
It says in al-Mawsoo‘ah al-Fiqhiyyah (4/36):
The majority of fuqaha’ are of the view that the criterion of accountability is reaching puberty, not reaching the age of discernment, and that the child who has reached the age of discernment is not obliged to do any religious duties, and will not be punished in the hereafter for failing to do any duty or for doing any prohibited action, because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “The Pen has been lifted from three: from the sleeper until he awakens, from the child until he reaches puberty and from the insane person until he comes to his senses.” End quote.
In the same book (30/264) it says:
The fuqaha’ are unanimously agreed that sanity is one of the conditions of accountability, so no act of worship – such as prayer, fasting, Hajj, jihad and so on – is obligatory upon anyone who is not of sound mind, such as one who is insane, even if he is an adult Muslim. End quote.
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
The Qur’an and Sunnah indicate that Allah does not punish anyone until after the message reaches him. Those whom the message did not reach at all will not be punished at all. Those whom it reached, but it was lacking in some details, will not be punished except if they deny issues concerning which proof was established against them. For example, Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning):
“so that mankind will have no argument against Allah after the messengers”
[an-Nisa’ 4:165]
“ ‘O company of jinn and mankind, did there not come to you messengers from among you, relating to you My verses and warning you of the meeting of this Day of yours?’ They will say, ‘We bear witness against ourselves’; and the worldly life had deluded them, and they will bear witness against themselves that they were disbelievers”
[al-An‘aam 6:130]
“But did We not grant you life enough for whoever would remember therein to remember, and the warner had come to you?”
[Faatir 35:37]
“And never would We punish until We sent a messenger”
[al-Isra’ 17:15].
End quote from Majmoo‘ al-Fataawa (12/493).
For more information, please see the answer to question no. 239026.
Secondly:
Uttering the Shahaadatayn (the twin declaration of faith) is a condition of entering Islam, for the one who is able to utter these words.
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
As for the Shahaadatayn, if a person does not utter these words when he is able to do so, then he is a disbeliever according to the consensus of the Muslims, and he is a disbeliever both inwardly and outwardly, according to the early generations of the ummah, its imams (leading scholars) and the majority of its scholars.
End quote from Majmoo‘ al-Fataawa (7/609)
See also the answer to question no. 655
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/240095/who-is-the-accountable-person-who-must-enter-islam-and-follow-its-teachings | 209 | 240,095 |
260 | What is the ruling if a child commits suicide before the age of puberty? | Question
If your a teenager or child and you commit suicide where would you go. | Praise be to Allah.Firstly:
Suicide is a major sin. The Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) stated that the one who commits suicide will be punished with something like that with which he killed himself.
See the answer to question no. 70363
Secondly:
There are known signs of puberty for both males and females. The male reaches puberty when one of three things happens: emission of maniy (semen), growth of pubic hair or reaching the age of fifteen years according to the Hijri calendar, which is a few months before reaching the age of fifteen according to the Gregorian calendar.
In females, puberty is reached when these three signs occur; in addition to that there is a fourth sign, namely menstruation.
It is not stipulated that all of these signs should appear; rather when one of them appears that is sufficient to rule that the individual has reached puberty.
See also the answer to question no. 70425 and 78591
Thirdly:
Accountability is waived for the child who has not yet reached puberty, until he reaches that stage, because of the report narrated by Abu Dawood (4403) and at-Tirmidhi (1423) from ‘Ali (may Allah be pleased with him), that the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “The Pen has been lifted from three: from the sleeper until he awakens, from the child until he reaches puberty and from the insane person until he comes to his senses.”
Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Irwa’ al-Ghaleel, 2/4, no. 297
In al-Mawsoo‘ah al-Fiqhiyyah (8/196) it says:
A person becomes accountable for fulfilling obligatory duties and refraining from haraam actions when he or she reaches puberty; one who has not reached puberty is not accountable … and (one who has not reached puberty) is not subject to qisaas (retaliatory punishments) and hadd punishments, such as those for stealing and slander. However, it is permissible for him to be disciplined. End quote.
See also 14/36
A person from whom the Pen has been lifted because he is insane or is a minor is not subject to qisaas (retaliatory punishment) if he injures or kills someone, whether the minor had reached the age of discernment or not, because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “The Pen has been lifted from three: from the child until he reaches puberty, from the insane person until he comes to his senses and from the sleeper until he awakens.”
End quote from al-Haawi al-Kabeer, 12/181
Ibn Qudaamah (may Allah have mercy on him) said: A minor is not to be executed (in the case of apostasy), regardless of whether we say that his apostasy is valid or not, because the child is not subject to punishment, on the basis that the rulings on adultery and theft and other crimes that are subject to hadd punishments are not applicable to him to him and he cannot be executed in a retaliatory punishment (qisaas).
End quote from al-Mughni, 10/62
Based on that, there is no punishment in the Hereafter for a child if he does something before the age of puberty, which is attained when one of the signs mentioned above appears.
For more information please see the answer to question no. 3277. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/177657/what-is-the-ruling-if-a-child-commits-suicide-before-the-age-of-puberty | 209 | 177,657 |
261 | What is meant by amaanah in the verse “Truly, We did offer al-amaanah (the trust) to the heavens and the earth, and the mountains”? | Question
What is the amaanah (trust) that Allah, may He be glorified and exalted, “offered to the heavens and the earth but they declined to bear it and were afraid of it, but man bore it; verily he was unjust (to himself) and ignorant (of its results)”? | Praise be to Allah.
Allah, may He be
exalted, offered obedience to Him and His obligations and limits to the
heavens and the earth and the mountains in such a way that if they did
well they would be rewarded, but if they neglected their duties they would
be punished. They refused to bear it out of fear that they might not do
what was enjoined upon them, but man took it on, and verily he was unjust
(to himself) and ignorant (of its results).
This is the
explanation of the verse in which Allah, may He be glorified and exalted,
says: “Truly, We did offer al-amaanah (the trust or moral responsibility
or honesty and all the duties which Allah has ordained) to the heavens and
the earth, and the mountains, but they declined to bear it and were afraid
of it (i.e. afraid of Allah’s torment). But man bore it. Verily, he was
unjust (to himself) and ignorant (of its results) [al-Ahzaab 33:72]”.
The interpretation
of the amaanah (trust) as referring to shar‘i duties is the view of Ibn
‘Abbaas, al-Hasan al-Basri, Mujaahid, Sa‘eed ibn Jubayr, ad-Dahhaak ibn
Muzaahim, Ibn Zayd and most of the commentators.
See: Tafseer
at-Tabari, 20/336-340; Tafseer Ibn Katheer, 6/488-489;
al-Jaami‘ li Ahkaam al-Qur’an, 14/252-253; Fath al-Qadeer,
4/437.
Qataadah said: The
amaanah (trust) is the religion, obligatory duties and limits set by Allah.
It was also said
that what is meant by the amaanah here is whatever people entrust one with.
Some of them said
that it refers to ghusl in the case of janaabah.
Zayd ibn Aslam
said: The amaanah is three things: prayer, fasting and ghusl in the case of
janaabah.
Ibn Katheer (may
Allah have mercy on him) said:
There is no
contradiction between these opinions; rather they are all in harmony and
refer to responsibility and accepting the commands and prohibitions on the
basis of their condition, which is that if they do well they will be
rewarded and if they neglect them they will be punished. Man accepted this
amaanah despite his weakness, ignorance and injustice (to himself), except
those who Allah guides. End quote.
Tafseer Ibn
Katheer,
6/489
At-Tabari (may
Allah have mercy on him) said:
The most correct
of these opinions is that of those who said that what is meant by the
amaanah (trust) here is everything with which one is entrusted with regard
to religious commitment and things entrusted to one by people. That is
because Allah did not specify any particular type of trust when He said, “Truly,
We did offer al-amaanah (the trust)”. End quote.
Tafseer
at-Tabari,
20/342
Al-Qurtubi (may
Allah have mercy on him) said:
The word amaanah
is general in meaning and encompasses all the duties of Islam, according to
the correct opinion. This is the view of the majority. End quote.
Al-Jaami‘ li
Ahkaam al-Qur’an,
14/252
As-Sa‘di (may
Allah have mercy on him) said:
Everything that
Allah has enjoined upon His slave is an amaanah (trust), and the slave must
carry them out in the fullest sense. That also includes things that are
entrusted to one by people, such as wealth, secrets and the like. The
individual must pay attention to both matters and fulfil both trusts.
“Verily! Allah commands that you should render back the
trusts to those, to whom they are due” [an-Nisa’
4:58].
End quote.
Tafseer
as-Sa‘di,
p. 547
Ash-Shanqeeti (may
Allah have mercy on him) said:
In this verse
Allah, may He be glorified and exalted, tells us that He offered the
amaanah, which is the taking on of duties and the consequences of reward or
punishment, to the heavens and the earth and the mountains, but they refused
to bear it and were afraid of it. In other words, they were scared of the
consequences of taking on this trust, lest that lead to the punishment and
wrath of Allah. This offer, refusal and fear happened in a true sense. Allah
created the heavens and the earth and the mountains with a sense of
understanding, the nature of which only Allah knows and we do not know. Thus
they understood when this trust was offered to them, and they refused and
were afraid. End quote.
Adwa’ al-Bayaan,
36/139
To sum up:
The amaanah
(trust) mentioned in this verse, that Allah offered to the heavens and the
earth and the mountains, but they refused to bear it and were afraid of it,
but man took it on, is the Islamic duties, whether that has to do with
duties towards Allah, may He be exalted, or duties towards His slaves. The
one who fulfils his duty towards Allah and towards His slaves will be
rewarded, but the one who neglects his duty towards Allah and towards His
slaves deserves punishment.
And Allah knows
best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/145741/what-is-meant-by-amaanah-in-the-verse-truly-we-did-offer-al-amaanah-the-trust-to-the-heavens-and-the-earth-and-the-mountains | 209 | 145,741 |
262 | Some of the signs of puberty appeared in her daughters at the age of six; what should she do? | Question
I have been blessed with 2 healthy daughters. When my older daughter was 5 she started getting hair under her arm by the age she was 6 they were full pubic hair and by the age she was 7 she began getting breast buds, she is now 8. My younger daughter had vaginal hair from age 3 now she is 6 also has hair under arms. My question is does this mean that my children have reached puberty and now will be judged for their actions. They are still very small and dont understand understand anything. this has me very upset. | Praise be to Allah.Puberty is recognised by signs that have been defined by the scholars, one of which is the growth of hair in certain places on the body.
The hair which signals puberty is the pubic hair that grows around the penis in males and the vulva in females. With regard to armpit hair, the beard and moustache, the growth of any of these does not signal puberty. Moreover, it is not just any hair growing in the pubic region that signals puberty; rather what counts in this case is that the hair should be coarse and need to be shaved with a razor and the like. In the case of fine hair that does not need to be shaved, this does not signal puberty.
Please see the answers to questions no. 192334 and 175405 for more details on this matter.
If any of the signs of puberty have appeared in your daughters, as mentioned above, then this means that whoever has these signs appear in her body has reached the age of accountability and responsibility.
There is no negative impact for you or your daughters, in sha Allah; rather this is something that Allah has decreed for them, and we have to cope with it by adhering to the limits set by Allah, not transgressing them, and by respecting them. What you have to do is raise your daughters in that manner, and pay attention to them, advise them, teach them and ask Allah to protect them from error and not to burden them with more than they can bear. You will be rewarded for all of that, in sha Allah.
However it is very possible that there is some kind of imbalance in their hormones or glands that has led to this, because the appearance of these signs at an early age gives rise to concern. Hence we advise you to take your daughters to a specialist doctor, because perhaps they need medical attention.
May Allah help you and protect your daughters, and cause them to grow up well and strong, and may He help you to give them a good Islamic upbringing.
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/202157/some-of-the-signs-of-puberty-appeared-in-her-daughters-at-the-age-of-six-what-should-she-do | 209 | 202,157 |
263 | Ruling on wearing gold and silk for children | Question
Is it permissible for a boy to wear gold until he reaches the age of seven, or is that haraam for males from birth? | Praise be to Allah.
The majority of scholars (may Allah have mercy on them) are
of the view that it is forbidden for boys to wear gold, because of the words
of the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) concerning gold
and silk: “These two things are forbidden to the males of my ummah.”
Narrated by Abu Dawood (3535) and an-Nasaa’i (5054); classed as saheeh by
Shaykh al-Albaani (may Allah have mercy on him).
The text speaks of the prohibition of gold and silk for
males, and boys are included in this word. Moreover there is the fear that
dressing a boy in gold and silk when he is small will lead to him getting
used to it, and after that it will be difficult for him to give it up when
he grows up.
It says in al-Mawsoo‘ah al-Fiqhiyyah (21/284): The
Hanafis and Hanbalis, and some of the Shaafa‘is, are of the view that it is
haraam for males to wear gold, whether they are young or old, except in
cases of necessity.
The Maalikis are of the view that it is permissible for a boy
to wear gold, although it is makrooh (disliked).
The Shaafa‘is – according to the more correct opinion – are
of the view that it is permissible in general. According to another view, it
is permissible before the age of two years and it is prohibited after that.
Al-Baghawi was certain of the soundness of this view. End quote.
Shaykh Mansoor al-Bahooti (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
It is haraam for a boy to wear that which is forbidden for men, such as
clothes made of silk, or interwoven with gold or silver, or anything plated
with either of them, because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be
upon him) said: “… and they are haraam for the males (of my ummah).” It was
narrated that Jaabir (may Allah be pleased with him) said: We used to take
it off boys and leave it for girls. Narrated by Abu Dawood.
End quote from Kashshaaf al-Qinaa‘ (1/283).
The view we favour is the view of those who disallow the
wearing of gold and silk, and other things that are forbidden for males,
lest they get used to something that is haraam and continue wearing it when
they grow up; and also because of the general meaning of this prohibition
for males.
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him)
was asked about dressing boys in silk on Eids and other occasions; is it
permissible for the guardian of an orphan to dress him in silk or not? If he
does that, is he sinning or not? Likewise, is adorning their hats with gold
permissible or not?
He replied: Praise be to Allah. The guardian of an orphan is
not allowed to dress him in silk, according to the more correct of the two
scholarly opinions, just as he is not allowed to give him wine to drink or
give him dead meat (meat that was not slaughtered in the prescribed manner)
to eat. With regard to that which is forbidden to adult men, guardians
should also keep it away from boys. ‘Umar ibn al-Khattaab tore off a silk
garment that he saw on the son of az-Zubayr and said: Do not dress them in
silk. The same applies to that which is forbidden to men of gold.
With regard to the guardian being accused of miserliness,
that may be warded off by dressing the child in permissible clothing that
will serve as adornment on Eid and other occasions, such as Alexandrian
suits and other things that can serve the purpose of adornment, and will
ward off accusations of miserliness, and on which there is no prohibition.
End quote from Majmoo‘ al-Fataawa, 30/19
Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allah have mercy on him) was asked: Is
it permissible for little boys to wear gold or not, if they are younger than
two years?
He replied: It is not permissible for males to wear gold at
all, even if they are younger than two years. Gold is permissible for
females and is prohibited for males, whether it is rings, watches or
anything else. It is not permissible to put gold on a little boy, just as it
is not permissible for a grown man to wear it. Rather gold is for women
only.
End quote from Fataawa Noor ‘ala ad-Darb
http://binbaz.org.sa/mat/18438
But if a boy wears gold or silk, the sin thereof is borne by
the one who put it on him, because a little boy is not accountable.
Abu Bakr al-Kaasaani (may Allah have mercy on him) said: If
the one who is wearing it is small, then the sin is on the one who put it on
him, not on him, because he is not the one to whom the prohibition is
addressed. By the same token, if he is given wine and he drinks it, the sin
is on the one who gave it to him and is not on him.
End quote from Badaa’i‘ as-Sanaa’i‘, 5/132
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/210802/ruling-on-wearing-gold-and-silk-for-children | 209 | 210,802 |
264 | What should the Muslims who are prevented from fasting by the Chinese government do? | Question
My brother and his community in Xinjiang, China are prohibited to fast Ramadhan by the authorities. Is their fasting still valid if they eat or drink under compulsion? Please be informed that they are being monitered and compelled to eat and drink and will lose their livelihood or face imprisonment especially students and government officials like teachers and others. | Praise be to Allah.
Firstly:
We ask Allah to grant relief to our Muslim
brothers in that region, and to judge between them and their enemies on the
basis of truth, for He is the All-Knowing Judge.
Our advice to them is to be patient and
cling steadfastly to the faith, for tests and trials are the way of Allah in
dealing with His slaves. Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of
the meaning):
“Do
people think that they will be left alone because they say: ‘We believe,’
and will not be tested?
And We indeed tested those who were
before them. And Allah will certainly make (it) known (the truth of) those
who are true, and will certainly make (it) known (the falsehood of) those
who are liars, (although Allah knows all that before putting them to test)”
[al-‘Ankaboot 29:2-3].
Secondly:
By the grace of Allah towards His Muslim
slaves, He has decreed that the one who is compelled will not be brought to
account for whatever he does when he is compelled, and that whatever he does
under compulsion it is all the same whether he does it or not. This includes
the fasting person who is forced to eat or drink, in the sense of real
compulsion in which he fears that he or his family may be harmed if he does
not spoil his fast.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have
mercy on him) said:
If he is compelled (to break his fast),
his fast is still valid and he does not have to make it up, because Allah,
may He be glorified, has waived accountability in the case of one who
disbelieves under compulsion, when his heart is at ease with faith. Allah,
may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Whoever
disbelieved in Allah after his belief, except him who is forced thereto and
whose heart is at rest with Faith but such as open their hearts to
disbelief, on them is wrath from Allah, and theirs will be a great torment”
[an-Nahl 16:106].
If Allah has waived accountability for
disbelieving in the case of one who is compelled to do that, then it is more
likely that this is also the case with regard to lesser sins. And the
Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “Verily Allah has
pardoned my ummah for mistakes, forgetfulness and what they are compelled to
do.”
End quote from Majaalis Shahr Ramadan
(p. 82)
I put the question having to do with the
situation of this Chinese region to our Shaykh, ‘Abd ar-Rahmaan al-Barraak
(may Allah preserve him) and he said:
They should refrain from eating and
drinking whenever their watchers are not present, and they may eat when they
are being watched, enough to ward off harm from themselves. And their fast
is valid and they do not have to make it up, because Allah, may He be
exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Whoever
disbelieved in Allah after his belief, except him who is forced thereto and
whose heart is at rest with Faith but such as open their hearts to
disbelief, on them is wrath from Allah, and theirs will be a great torment”
[an-Nahl 16:106]
“So keep your duty to Allah and fear
Him as much as you can”
[al-Taghaabun 64:16].
End quote. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/232009/what-should-the-muslims-who-are-prevented-from-fasting-by-the-chinese-government-do | 209 | 232,009 |
265 | Disability does not mean that prayer is not obligatory | Question
Our oldest brother has a disability affecting his arms and legs, and he has a speech impediment. He does not want to get married, because he cannot take care of his own affairs, let alone the affairs of anyone else. Does he have to pray and adhere to other religious obligations? Please note that we are keen to teach him al-Faatihah and how to pray, but he refuses. In fact it is difficult to teach him how to speak. Is he obliged to pray? And is he entitled to a share of inheritance? | Praise be to Allah.The obligation to adhere to religious duties (including prayer), according to Islamic teachings, is based on whether a person is of sound mind. If your brother is of sound mind, and his disabilities do not affect his mental functioning, then he is accountable. If his mental faculties are affected to the extent that he has no power of discernment, or his discernment is weak, like that of a small child, then in that case he is not accountable and is not obliged to pray.
If your brother is accountable, then his disabilities mean that some of the obligatory parts of the prayer are waived in his case, namely the obligatory parts that he is not able to do. If he is not able to pray standing, then he may pray sitting; if he is not able to recite al-Faatihah correctly and in full, then he should recite it however he is able to, and so on.
For more information, please see the answer to question no. 50058 .
It says in al-Mawsoo‘ah al-Fiqhiyyah (10/79):
If the worshipper is able to recite part of al-Faatihah, then the Maalikis, Shaafa‘is and Hanbalis are of the view that he must recite it. The basis for that, according to the Shaafa‘is, is the principle “what is possible cannot be waived because of what is not possible (to do)”, i.e., not being able to do something in full does not mean that the part that one is able to do is waived. According to the Hanbalis, the principle is: Whoever is able to do part of an act of worship must do it even though he is not able to do the entire act, and there is no difference of scholarly opinion concerning that. End quote.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allah have mercy on him) was asked:
My grandmother can only memorise a little of the Holy Qur’an, as she makes mistakes in Soorat al-Faatihah. Some people in our village told her: if you do not recite Soorat al-Faatihah properly in your prayer, then your prayer is not valid. Is this true?
He replied:
Her prayer is valid and she is excused, praise be to Allah. Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning): “So fear Allah as much as you are able” [al-Taghaabun 64:16]. So long as she has tried hard but has not been able (to recite it correctly), her prayer is valid. The Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said to the one who was not able to recite al-Faatihah: “You may say, ‘Subhaan Allah, wa’l-hamdu Lillah, wa laa ilaaha ill-Allah, wa Allahu akbar (Glory be to Allah, praise be to Allah, there is no god but Allah, and Allah is most great).’”
She should try her best if she is not able to recite it, then she should recite “Subhaan Allah, wa’l-hamdu Lillah, wa laa ilaaha ill-Allah, wa Allahu akbar, wa laa hawla wa laa quwwata illah Billah (Glory be to Allah, praise be to Allah, there is no god but Allah, Allah is most great, and there is no power and no strength except with Allah)” instead of reciting Qur’an, and that will be sufficient. As for the one who deliberately omits al-Faatihah, when he is able (to recite it) but he deliberately omits it, his prayer is not valid. But in the case of an old woman, or an old man, who is not able to recite it, then Allah says: (interpretation of the meaning): “So fear Allah as much as you are able” [al-Taghaabun 64:16].
End quote from Fataawa Noor ‘ala ad-Darb (8/236-237).
So strive hard to teach your brother al-Faatihah and how to pray, and be kind in teaching it to him, and let him do whatever he is able to do. If he is unable to pronounce some of the letters, or he mixes them up, there will be no blame on him and his prayer will be valid.
With regard to inheritance, he is entitled to a full share of inheritance. Being sound in mind and body are not conditions of being entitled to inheritance; rather every Muslim is entitled to his share of inheritance, even if he is insane or sick.
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/223085/disability-does-not-mean-that-prayer-is-not-obligatory | 209 | 223,085 |
266 | Can sweets be distributed to non-Muslims during Ramadan? | Question
Some young Muslim people in Britain organize an event every Saturday in the second-largest shopping centre in Britain, and distribute some sweets to visitors, who are non-Muslims. My question is: is it permissible for us to continue distributing sweets during the day in the month of Ramadan, or should we refrain from doing that? | Praise be to Allah.Allah, may He be exalted, has commanded His slaves to cooperate in righteousness and piety, and has forbidden them to cooperate in sin and transgression as He, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And cooperate in righteousness and piety, but do not cooperate in sin and aggression. And fear Allah; indeed, Allah is severe in penalty”
[al-Maa’idah 5:2].
Undoubtedly, breaking the fast during the day in Ramadan with no excuse is a major sin and transgression, and failing to respect the sanctity of this month reflects corruption and sin in the heart.
It makes no difference whether the one who breaks the fast in Ramadan is a Muslim or non-Muslim, because the most correct view among the majority of scholars of usool is that the minor issues of sharee‘ah are also addressed to the disbelievers; they are required to follow them and will be brought to account for not doing so, in addition to their being brought to account for disbelieving in Allah, may He be exalted.
Based on that, it is not permissible to distribute sweets or any other kind of food or drink to visitors during the day in Ramadan, if it is known that they will eat them during the day.
This has been explained previously in the answer to question no. 49694. See also the answer to question no. 78494.
Instead of that, you could distribute some other kind of gift, or perfume, or useful books, and so on, or you could distribute sweets at night, if you think that there is a religious benefit in continuing with this event and distribution of gifts, and that it will soften the hearts of your visitors to Islam.
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/140815/can-sweets-be-distributed-to-non-muslims-during-ramadan | 209 | 140,815 |
267 | Is it stipulated that the one who wants to become Muslim must know the name of the Messenger (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him)? | Question
What is the ruling on one who wants to become Muslim, and knows that there is a Messenger to humanity, and believes in him, but he does not know his name? Has he become Muslim, or must he first know the name of the Messenger? Is it acceptable for him to know [the Prophet’s] kunyah, or a name other than Muhammad, such as Ahmad or al-Maahi? | Praise be to Allah.Firstly:
No one becomes Muslim until he utters the Shahaadatayn (the twin declaration of faith), if he is able to utter it, or affirms its meaning. An-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
Ahl as-Sunnah – the scholars of hadith, the fuqaha’ and the scholars of kalaam – are agreed that the believer who is deemed to be among the “people of the qiblah” [i.e., Muslims] and will not abide forever in Hell can only be the one who believes in his heart in the religion of Islam with certainty and free of any doubts, and utters the Shahaadatayn (the twin declaration of faith). Whoever omits either part of it is not one of the people of the qiblah at all, unless he is unable to utter it because of a speech defect, or because he was not able to utter it before death overtook him suddenly, or for some other reason, in which case he is indeed a believer.
End quote from Sharh an-Nawawi ‘ala Muslim (1/149).
Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
It is essential to utter the Shahaadatayn; if he is able to utter them but does not do so, then he had not entered Islam until he does utter the Shahaadatayn. This is a matter on which there is scholarly consensus. Moreover, along with uttering the words, it is essential to believe and affirm the meaning of the Shahaadatayn.
End quote from Majmoo‘ Fataawa Ibn Baaz (5/340).
If he is not able to utter these words, such as one who is nonverbal, then his becoming Muslim is done by writing, if he is able to write, or by making gestures or signs which indicate that he has truly become Muslim and has accepted Islam willingly.
Secondly:
It is obligatory to mention in the Shahaadah (testimony of faith) the name of the Prophet Muhammad (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him); all his names and his kunyah are equal in that regard, such as Muhammad, Ahmad, al-Maahi, Abu’l-Qaasim, and so on.
Al-Haleemi (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
If a disbeliever says: “Laa ilaaha illa Allah, Ahmad rasool-Allah [There is no god but Allah, Ahmad is the Messenger of Allah]”, that is the same as saying “Muhammad rasool-Allah [Muhammad is the Messenger of Allah].” Allah, may He be glorified and exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning): “…and bringing good tidings of a messenger to come after me, whose name is Ahmad” [as-Saff 61:6]. The meaning of the two names is the same.
So there is no difference between Ahmad and Muhammad.
If he says: “Abu’l-Qaasim rasool-Allah [Abu’l-Qaasim is the Messenger of Allah],” the same applies. And Allah knows best.
End quote from al-Minhaaj fi Shu‘ab al-Eemaan by al-Haleemi (1/140).
Thirdly:
If someone knows that there is a messenger to mankind whom Allah sent to all people, and does not know his name, but he believes in him and testifies to that verbally, then he is a Muslim, such as if he says “I submit to Allah and embrace the religion of Islam,” or “I believe in the Messenger in whom the Muslims believe.” Allah, may He be exalted, tells us that Pharaoh said, as he was drowning, “I believe that there is no deity except that in whom the Children of Israel believe, and I am of the Muslims”, but Allah, may He be exalted, responded to him by saying “Now? And you had disobeyed [Him] before and were of the corrupters?” [Yoonus 10:90 – interpretation of the meaning].
This indicates that if he has said these words before he started to drown, it would have been accepted from him.
If a disbeliever says something to indicate that he has entered the religion of Islam and believes in our Prophet Muhammad (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him), then it is to be accepted from him and he is to be deemed a Muslim, then after that he is to be taught the Shahaadatayn with the correct wording.
In fact even if a disbeliever limits himself to saying “Laa ilaaha ill-Allah (there is no god but Allah),” then he is to be deemed a Muslim, after which he should be taught the testimony that Muhammad (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) is the Messenger of Allah, and be instructed to say it.
Shaykh Muhammad ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) said, after quoting some hadiths in which the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) instructed disbelievers to say the Shahaadatayn:
These texts and others like them indicate that a person’s Islam is not complete without the Shahaadatayn.
But there are other texts which indicate that a person enters Islam upon reciting the first Shahaadah only, which is “Laa ilaaha ill-Allah (there is no god but Allah).” One such example is the hadith of Usaamah (may Allah be pleased with him), in the story of the polytheist with whom Usaamah was fighting, and he said “Laa ilaaha ill-Allah (there is no god but Allah),” but he still killed him. He told the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) about that, and he said: “Did you kill him after he said Laa ilaaha ill-Allah?!” He said: Yes; he only said it to protect himself [from being killed]. The Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “Did you kill him after he said Laa ilaaha ill-Allah?!” and kept repeating it until Usaamah said: I wished that I had not become Muslim yet, because when a person becomes Muslim, Islam erases all that came before it.
This indicates that by saying Laa ilaaha ill-Allah, the man had entered Islam and thus his life was protected.
Also, when the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) was present at the deathbed of his paternal uncle Abu Taalib, he kept saying to him: “O uncle, say Laa ilaaha ill-Allah, a word by which I will plead for you before Allah,” and he did not mention the second Shahaadah, which is the testimony that Muhammad is the Messenger of Allah.
What appears to me to be the case, based on the evidence, is that if a person testifies that there is no god but Allah, he has entered Islam, then he should be instructed to testify that Muhammad is the Messenger of Allah.
End quote from ash-Sharh al-Mumti‘ (14/464-466).
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/239026/is-it-stipulated-that-the-one-who-wants-to-become-muslim-must-know-the-name-of-the-messenger-blessings-and-peace-of-allah-be-upon-him | 209 | 239,026 |
268 | What will be the situation of those who were unaware of the truth, and those who did not hear of Islam, on the Day of Resurrection? | Question
I am asking about the Shi‘ah and Baatinis (esotericists) who think that they are following the truth, and have not found anyone to guide them to the truth, and the polytheists who did not hear of Islam at all: so why will they abide forever in Hell? Will Allah send messengers to them on the Day of Resurrection to guide them to the truth? | Praise be to Allah.Part of the justice and mercy of Allah, may He be exalted, towards His slaves is that He does not punish anyone except after proof has been established against him.
Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And never would We punish until We sent a messenger”
[al-Israa’ 17:15].
It was narrated from Abu Hurayrah, from the Messenger of Allah (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him), that he said: “By the One in Whose hand is the soul of Muhammad, no one of this nation, Jew or Christian, hears of me then dies without having believed in that with which I was sent, but he will be one of the people of the Fire.” Narrated by Muslim (240).
An-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
From this it may be understood that whoever was not reached by the call of Islam will be excused.
End quote from Sharh Saheeh Muslim (2/188).
Just as it is part of the justice and mercy of Allah, may He be exalted, that He does not punish those who were not reached by the call of Islam, so too He has decreed that no one will enter Paradise except a Muslim soul, as it was narrated soundly from the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) that he said: “Verily no one will enter Paradise except a Muslim soul.” Narrated by al-Bukhaari (3062) and Muslim (111).
Based on that, what will be the situation of the disbeliever on the Day of Resurrection, if the call had not reached him?
The answer is that the Sunnah provides an explanation of the situation of these people, and tells us that Allah will test them on the Day of Resurrection; whoever obeys will enter Paradise and whoever disobeys will enter Hell.
It was narrated from al-Aswad ibn Saree‘ that the Prophet of Allah (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “There are four (who will protest) to Allah on the Day of Resurrection: the deaf man who never heard anything, the insane man, the very old man, and the man who died during a fatrah (the interval between two Prophets). The deaf man will say, ‘O Lord, Islam came but I never heard anything.’ The insane man will say, ‘O Lord, Islam came but the children ran after me and threw stones at me.’ The very old man will say, ‘O Lord, Islam came but I did not understand anything.’ The man who died during the fatrah will say, ‘O Lord, no Messenger from You came to me.’ He will accept their promises of obedience, then word will be sent to them to enter the Fire. By the One in Whose hand is the soul of Muhammad, if they enter it, it will be cool and safe for them.”
Narrated by Ahmad in al-Musnad (26/228).
A similar report was also narrated from Abu Hurayrah, except that he said at the end: “… whoever enters it, it will be cool and safe for him, and whoever does not enter it will be dragged to it.” Al-Musnad (26/230).
Ibn al-Qayyim (may Allah have mercy on him) said: There are many hadiths regarding this matter, to the extent that they support one another. The scholars classed some of them as saheeh, such as al-Bayhaqi, ‘Abd al-Haqq and others, who classed the hadith of al-Aswad ibn Saree‘ as saheeh.
The isnad of the hadith of Abu Hurayrah is saheeh and complete. End quote from Ahkaam Ahl adh-Dhimmah (2/1149).
Ibn Katheer (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
With regard to the hadiths which speak of this matter, some of them are saheeh, as more than one of the leading scholars have stated; some of them are hasan, and some are da‘eef (weak) but are strengthened by the saheeh and hasan reports.
When the hadiths on a particular topic support one another to this extent, this is regarded as proof concerning that topic.
End quote from Tafseer Ibn Katheer (5/58).
Ibn Hajar (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
The issue of testing in the case of the insane and those who died during a fatrah (interval between two Prophets) is proven to be sound via saheeh isnaads. End quote.
Fath al-Baari (3/246).
It was also classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Silsilat al-Ahaadeeth as-Saheehah (3/418-419).
This view was regarded as more likely to be correct by many of the well-versed scholars such as Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah in al-Jawaab as-Saheeh (2/298); Ibn al-Qayyim in Ahkaam Ahl adh-Dhimmah (2/1137); Ibn Katheer in Tafseer Ibn Katheer (5/58); and others.
This ruling is to be understood in general terms, without stating definitively concerning any particular individual that he is excused, or that he will be tested on the Day of Resurrection, or not.
Ibn al-Qayyim (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
Allah will judge between His slaves on the Day of Resurrection by His wisdom and justice, and He will not punish anyone except those against whom proof is established through the Messengers. This category of people will definitely be dealt with in that manner.
But as for the question of whether or not proof is established against any particular individual, this is a matter to be decided by Allah and we cannot issue rulings concerning specific individuals in that regard. Rather what is required is to believe that everyone who follows a religion other than Islam is a disbeliever, and that Allah, may He be glorified and exalted, does not punish anyone except after proof has been established against him through the Messenger. This is in general terms; with regard to specific individuals, the matter is left to the knowledge and judgement of Allah, may He be glorified and exalted.
End quote from Tareeq al-Hijratayn (2/900).
With regard to the Muslim who believes in Islam and adheres to it both outwardly and inwardly, but he goes astray in some issues because of ignorance as there is no one to explain the truth to him, and he does not have the ability to realise that the wrong idea he is following is false, he is a Muslim in principle, and cannot be regarded as being beyond the pale of Islam without being certain that proof has been established against him and he has no excuse after coming to know the truth.
So he is excused in this world, as he will be excused in the hereafter, because Allah does not punish anyone except one whom the truth reached, then he turned away from it.
See the answers to questions no. 111362 and 104412 for further details on this point.
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/227756/what-will-be-the-situation-of-those-who-were-unaware-of-the-truth-and-those-who-did-not-hear-of-islam-on-the-day-of-resurrection | 209 | 227,756 |
269 | Rulings in Islamic fiqh concerning one who is insane | Question
What are the rulings concerning one who is insane and how to treat him? | Praise be to Allah.Sanity is the condition of accountability, and insanity is a breakdown of sanity, meaning that the individual’s words and deeds cannot be interpreted in the usual manner except in rare instances.
It was said that insanity is a breakdown of rational thinking that distinguishes between good things and bad things, and can see the consequences of things, so that there is no sign of discernment and no deeds are done that reflect discernment.
See: al-Mawsoo‘ah al-Fiqhiyyah (16/99).
There are many rulings which apply to the one who is insane, and which are discussed in various areas of fiqh. One of those rulings is that the insane person is not required to do physical acts of worship, such as purification, prayer, fasting and Hajj, and they are not valid on his part.
He is required to give zakaah, if he has wealth; his guardian should pay it on his behalf. He is also required to pay penalties and compensation if he damages or destroys something, because this comes under the heading of dealing with the situation, not of accountability.
The insane person is deemed to be Muslim if one of his parents is Muslim, and there is the hope that he will enter Paradise, as stated in the answer to question no. 14392.
The insane person is to be deemed legally incompetent, so transactions of sale and purchase on his part are not valid, and his word is not to be taken seriously in matters of divorce, gift-giving, and so on. Insanity is regarded as a defect with regard to marriage, and requires annulment of the marriage.
No retaliatory punishment (qisaas) is to be carried out on one who is insane, and he is not to be subjected to the hadd punishment for zina and the like.
The insane person may inherit, and his guardian may dispose of his wealth in accordance with what is in his best interests. If he dies and has wealth, it is to be inherited from him.
With regard to much of what we have mentioned above, please see: al-Mawsoo‘ah al-Fiqhiyyah (16/99-116).
See also: al-Junoon wa Anwaa‘uhu fi’l-Manzoor al-Islami – Diraasah ‘Asriyyah, by Safar Ahmad al-Hamdaani:
http://www.alukah.net/publications_competitions/0/41911
See also: Athar al-Junoon fi’t-Tasarrufaat al-Qawliyyah wa’l-Fa‘liyyah fi’sh-Sharee‘ah al-Islamiyyah:
https://www.jamaa.net/books.library/?i=39361#main
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/296651/rulings-in-islamic-fiqh-concerning-one-who-is-insane | 209 | 296,651 |
270 | The abhorrent nature of shirk | Question
What is meant by the words of Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him): The description of being a mushrik [one who associates others with Allah] is valid and is confirmed even if the message has not reached him, because he is associating others with his Lord and regarding false gods as being equal to Allah? | Praise be to Allah.The abhorrent nature of shirk, wrongdoing and shameful deeds is something that is well-established even if one has not heard of the teachings of the Prophets, but the (divine) punishment of one who does such deeds does not become due until after the teachings reach him
What Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him) meant by these words was to highlight that shirk is wrong and blameworthy, and that the one who commits shirk is to be described as a mushrik; his action is abhorrent and blameworthy, regardless of whether or not proof with evidence has been established against the mushrik, because shirk is abhorrent in all cases, before the sending of the message and afterwards.
Then he explained: The (divine) punishment of this mushrik is conditional and cannot be carried out unless matters are explained and proof is established. Therefore he does not deserve to be punished except after the Messenger has come and after the matter has been explained and made clear. If he associates others with Allah after the matter has been explained, then he deserves punishment, but if he did that before becoming aware of the teachings that were brought by the Messenger, he does not deserve punishment until proof is established against him.
So the discussion of Ibn Taymiyah is highlighting two issues:
-1-
He points out that shirk is abhorrent and is entirely evil; that is its inherent nature and cannot be separated from it, whether that is before proof was established with the sending of the Messengers and Books, or after that. The mushrik is the one who fell into shirk and it became his practice; the fact that proof has not been established does not alter the nature or name of shirk as described in the religious texts.
-2-
The mushrik does not deserve to be punished for his shirk except after proof is established against him. Punishment and reward cannot become due on the basis of what may be arrived at on the basis of rational thinking. Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And never would We punish until We sent a messenger”
[al-Isra’ 17:15]
“And Allah would not let a people stray after He has guided them until He makes clear to them what they should avoid. Indeed, Allah is Knowing of all things”
[at-Tawbah 9:115].
By highlighting the above, Shaykh al-Islam (may Allah have mercy on him) intended to refute the arguments of two (theological) groups:
-1-
The Mu‘tazilah and those who followed them in their view that the mushrikeen [those who associate others with Allah] are deserving of (divine) punishment on the basis of what they could have understood through rational thinking, even if proof was not established against them through the sending of the Messenger.
-2-
The Ash‘aris and those who agreed with their view that shirk and wrongdoing are not abhorrent in and of themselves; rather their abhorrent nature is only confirmed on the basis of the religious texts that highlight their abhorrent nature, after proof is established on the basis of the religious text.
Then he explained that the view of Ahl as-Sunnah is a middle path between these two. Shirk, wrongdoing and shameful deeds are all abhorrent and blameworthy matters, both before proof is established and after that. This is something that is understood by means of rational thinking and sound human nature, but Allah, may He be exalted, does not punish people except after establishing proof against them, as He made clear in His Book.
This is clearly stated by Shaykh al-Islam in several places in his books.
He said:
In some cases Allah differentiates between what came before the message was sent and what came afterwards, in terms of descriptions and rulings. In other cases, He gives the same descriptions and rulings both before and after the message was sent. This is proof against the two groups: against those who say that there is no such thing as deeds that are good or bad, and those who say that they deserve punishment regardless of whether the message reaches them or not.
With regard to the first group, Allah calls them wrongdoers, transgressors and spreaders of corruption and mischief, as He says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Go to Pharaoh. Indeed, he has transgressed”
[Taa-Haa 20:24]
“And [mention] when your Lord called Moses, [saying], ‘Go to the wrongdoing people –
The people of Pharaoh. Will they not fear Allah?’”
[ash-Shu‘araa’ 26:10-11]
“Indeed, Pharaoh exalted himself in the land and made its people into factions, oppressing a sector among them, slaughtering their [newborn] sons and keeping their females alive. Indeed, he was of the corrupters”
[al-Qasas 28:4].
Thus Allah tells us that Pharaoh was a wrongdoer, a transgressor and a spreader of corruption and mischief; these descriptions are applied to him and his people, and are a criticism of their deeds, because criticism is only applicable to deeds that are evil and abhorrent. This indicates that deeds may be described as abhorrent and blameworthy before the Messenger came to them, but they did not deserve punishment except after the Messenger came to them, because Allah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And never would We punish until We sent a messenger”
[al-Isra’ 17:15].
Similarly, Allah tells us that Hood said to his people (interpretation of the meaning):
“O my people, worship Allah; you have no deity other than Him. You are not but inventors [of falsehood]”
[Hood 11:50].
Thus He describes them as inventors of falsehood before any ruling stated by the text that they might have gone against, because they associated another god with Allah.
The description of the mushrik is confirmed before the message is sent, because he is associating others with his Lord and is regarding false gods as being equal to Him, and he is ascribing other gods alongside Him and declaring them to be equals and rivals before the Messenger is sent.
Something similar may be said with regard to ascribing ignorance to the ignorant, and describing someone as being ignorant or behaving in an ignorant manner before the messenger comes.
As for (divine) punishment, however, there is no punishment [except after the message has been sent].
With regard to turning away and refusing to obey Allah, as in the verse (interpretation of the meaning) “And the disbeliever had not believed, nor had he prayed. But [instead], he denied and turned away” [al-Qiyaamah 75:31-32]; this can only be after the coming of the Messenger. Similar to that is what Allah says of Pharaoh (interpretation of the meaning): “But Pharaoh denied and disobeyed” [an-Naazi‘aat 79:21] – that was after the Messenger came to him, as Allah, may He be exalted, says: “And he showed him the greatest sign, But Pharaoh denied and disobeyed” [an-Naazi‘aat 79:20-21] and “But Pharaoh disobeyed the messenger” [al-Muzzammil 73:16].
End quote from Majmoo‘ al-Fataawa (20/37-38).
He (may Allah have mercy on him) also said:
The majority of the earlier and later generations are of the view that what they (Pharaoh and his people, etc.) did before the coming of the Messenger constituted shirk and ignorance, and was something abhorrent and evil, but they did not deserve (divine) punishment until after the coming of the Messenger.
Therefore:
With regard to shirk, wrongdoing, lying, shameful deeds and the like, there are three scholarly views:
-1-
It was said that their abhorrent nature is known through rational thinking, and that they deserve punishment for that in the hereafter, even if no Messenger came to them, as is the view of the Mu‘tazilah and many of the companions of Abu Haneefah, who narrated it from Abu Haneefah himself, and it is also the view of Abu’l-Khattaab and others.
-2-
It was said that there is nothing that can be regarded as abhorrent or good or evil before the sending of the message; rather what is abhorrent is that which Revelation came and said not to do it; what is good is that which revelation came and said to do it, or that for which permission was given to do it, as is the view of the Ash‘aris and those who agree with them.
-3-
And it was said that these deeds were were bad or evil or abhorrent before the Messenger came, but the (divine) punishment only becomes due when the Messenger is sent. This is the view of most of the early generations and most of the Muslims, and it is proven by the Qur’an and Sunnah, which clearly state that what the disbelievers believed in was evil, abhorrent and bad before the Messengers came, even though the punishment did not become due except after the Messenger was sent.
In as-Saheeh it is narrated that Hudhayfah said: O Messenger of Allah, we were in a state of ignorance and evil, then Allah brought this goodness to us. After this goodness, will there be any evil? He said: “Yes, there will be callers at the gates of Hell, and whoever responds to them, they will throw him into it.”
End quote from Majmoo‘ al-Fataawa (11/676-677).
Shaykh ‘Abd al-Lateef ibn ‘Abd ar-Rahmaan ibn Hasan Aal ash-Shaykh (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
The fact that proof was not yet established does not affect the shar‘i descriptions of people and actions; rather things are to be called what the Lawgiver called them, such as disbelief, shirk or evildoing, as named in the religious texts. The fact that proof is not yet established does not alter these descriptions, even if the person is not to be punished if no shar‘i proof was established against him and the message did not reach him. There is a difference between regarding a certain sin as constituting disbelief and regarding the one who did it as a disbeliever.
End quote from Minhaaj at-Ta’sees (p. 316).
For more information and further explanation, please see the answer to question no. 111362.
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/194157/the-abhorrent-nature-of-shirk | 209 | 194,157 |
271 | Jinn Possession from an Islamic Perspective | Question
Can jinn possess humans? And if this is possible, then how will the person be able to account for their actions, whilst they were possessed, on the Day of Judgement? | Praise be to Allah.Can jinn possess humans?
Yes, it is possible for jinn to possess humans . Allah says in His Book (Interpretation of the meaning):
“Those who eat riba [usury] will not stand (on the Day of Resurrection) except like the standing of a person beaten by shaytan leading him to insanity.” [Al-Baqarah 2:275]
See also the answers to questions no. 42073 , 39214 .
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
The fact that a jinni may enter the body of a human is proven by the consensus of the imams of Ahl al-Sunnah wa’l-Jama’ah (the larger body of Muslims who are upon the prophetic traditions). Allah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Those who eat riba [usury] will not stand (on the Day of Resurrection) except like the standing of a person beaten by shaytan leading him to insanity.” [Al-Baqarah 2:275]
… and in al-Sahih it is narrated from the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) that “The Shaytan flows through the son of Adam like blood.” (Majmu’ al-Fatawa)
Is jinn possession a disease?
Possession is a kind of sickness . If a person who has this sickness is rational, then he has the choice and he will be brought to account for his words and actions. But if this sickness has overwhelmed him to the point that he has lost his mind and free will, then he is like one who is insane and is not accountable. Hence in Arabic the word mass (possession) is used to refer to junun (insanity). (See Lisan al-‘Arab)
But if he commits an act of aggression against another when he is insane and destroys his property, for example, then he must pay compensation for that. (See Zad al-Ma’ad)
It says in al-Mawsu’ah al-Fiqhiyyah:
“The jurists unanimously agreed that insanity is like unconsciousness and sleep, rather it is more severe in the loss of free will, and it makes whatever he says invalid. For the one who is sleeping, all his verbal statements, such as divorce, becoming Muslim, turning apostate, selling, buying, etc, are invalid. So it is more appropriate that such statements be invalid in the case of insanity, because the insane person has no power of reasoning or discernment. They quoted as evidence for this the words of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him): “The Pen has been raised from three: the sleeper until he awakens, the child until he reaches maturity and the insane person until he comes back to his senses.” Narrated by the authors of Sunan with a sahih isnad (authentic chain of narration). The same applies to all verbal statements because of the potential for harm.”
Are the rights of people waived on those possessed by jinn?
It also says:
“With regard to the rights of people such as compensation and the like: these are not waived, because he is not accountable for them, rather his guardian is responsible for paying financial dues from the wealth of the insane person. If he commits some crimes, he is accountable for them financially but not physically. If he destroys a person’s property when he is in a state of insanity, compensation must be paid, but if he kills someone there is no qisas (retaliation), but the diyah (blood money) must be paid.
For more, please see these answers: 42073 , 125543 and 39214 .
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/73412/jinn-possession-from-an-islamic-perspective | 209 | 73,412 |
272 | Is the guardian of an adult woman with an intellectual disability obliged to force her to wear hijab? | Question
I have a sister who has reached the age of accountability, but she has an intellectual disability. Is she obliged to wear hijab? | Praise be to Allah.Being of sound mind is the basis of accountability, so if a woman is not of sound mind, accountability is waived in her case, because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “The Pen has been lifted from three: from the sleeper until he awakens, from the child until he reaches puberty and from the insane person until he comes to his senses.” Narrated by Abu Dawud (4403), at-Tirmidhi (1423), an-Nasa’i (3432) and Ibn Majah (2041). This hadith was classed as sahih by al-Albani in Sahih Abi Dawud.
But her guardian must protect her, take care of her and keep her away from haram things, so he must prevent her from appearing in front of non-mahram men without hijab, and prevent her from being alone with any non-mahram man and the like, so as to protect her and to prevent mischief and prevent others from being tempted by her.
Ibn Qudamah said in al-Mughni (8/155): … And because the same is required of one who is not accountable as one who is accountable with regard to avoiding haram things such as alcohol and zina; the only difference is whether they incur a burden of sin. End quote.
Ibn ar-Rif‘ah said in Kifayat al-Nabih (15/62): The guardian of a minor girl or a woman who is of unsound mind should protect them from what he should protect one who is accountable from. End quote.
So her guardian must protect one who is not accountable from haram things, which includes a woman showing any part of her body in front of non-mahram men.
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/402602/is-the-guardian-of-an-adult-woman-with-an-intellectual-disability-obliged-to-force-her-to-wear-hijab | 209 | 402,602 |
273 | Facts about schizophrenia; is the sufferer still accountable? | Question
Are those who suffer from mental disorders such as schizophrenia no longer accountable for prayer and other obligatory duties? | Praise be to Allah.Firstly:
The accountable person is one who is fit to be addressed by the commands and prohibitions, so that he will be punished if he goes against that. Hence the scholars defined the accountable person as someone who is qualified to comply with religious instructions. One of the most important characteristics that make him qualified for that is soundness of mind; therefore one who is insane is not accountable. That is indicated by the words of the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him): “The Pen has been lifted from three: from the sleeper until he awakens, from the child until he reaches puberty and from the insane person until he comes to his senses.” Narrated by at-Tirmidhi (1423); classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh at-Tirmidhi.
It says in al-Mawsoo‘ah al-Fiqhiyyah (13/249):
Being qualified to comply with religious instruction means being fit to be subject to the rights and duties prescribed in Islamic teaching, so that some rights will be proven for him and some duties and commitments will be obligatory for him.… Thus it is known that being qualified is the criterion for accountability. End quote.
Secondly:
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder, which is sometimes mistakenly called “split personality”.
Dr. Yaasir Bakkaar said:
There is no basis for what some people say about the schizophrenic patient having two personalities in one body. This is something that was invented by the writers of movie scripts. In reality, the patient is suffering from a mental disorder that causes a disconnect between reason, emotions and behaviour.
He also said:
Schizophrenia is a chronic mental disorder that affects several brain functions, such as cognition, understanding, emotions and behaviour. End quote.
Dr. Husayn ‘Abd al-Qaadir – a mental health consultant – said:
Psychological studies confirm that schizophrenia is a condition that affects 1% of people; the affected person is described as having a mental disorder. Schizophrenia is a chronic illness that the patient will suffer from for the rest of his life. End quote.
As for the symptoms of this disease, it affects a person’s cognition, ability to feel emotion, and understanding; it causes loss of willpower and of control over behaviour.
With regard to willpower, the schizophrenic patient loses a great deal of willpower and is unable to take any decision; it has a negative impact on his behaviour, then he loses self-awareness.
In terms of behaviour, the schizophrenic patient loses interest in himself, his personal hygiene and his health in general. He pays no attention to what happens around him on a daily basis, and he may exhibit strange patterns of behaviour, such as repeated movements; or phases of agitation, mania or aggression; or he may withdraw from people and stop going to the mosque or to see his friends; or he may lose interest in his surroundings and keep away from people. He also neglects his studies and his work completely, to the extent that he is dismissed, and he sits cocooned in his imaginary world.
End quote from a description given by some specialists.
By reflecting upon the reality of this mental illness and its symptoms, it becomes clear that the schizophrenic patient may suffer from it most of the time or all of the time, which makes him live in another world. At these times, he is not accountable until this phase passes.
This is what a specialist has to say about this matter:
Dr. Sayyid al-Barjeesi said – explaining what the schizophrenic patient suffers from in terms of symptoms:
Delusions: this refers to false beliefs that are deeply rooted in his mind and it is very difficult to convince him on the basis of logic that these ideas are not true. The presence of delusions does not indicate that his intelligence is deteriorating, because they have nothing to do with intelligence. The most significant delusions in schizophrenia are:
Paranoia, where the patient believes that people are after him, or that the security forces are tracking his every move, or that some people hate him and want to get rid of him, either by putting poison in his food or by some other means.
Megalomania, where the patient believes that he is the smartest and strongest of all people, or that he is a messenger sent to guide people, or that he is a great scholar, or that he is an inventor, or that he has been given supernatural powers, or that he has knowledge of the unseen.
Misinterpretation of things, where he thinks that what people say hints at him or refers to him, and believes that every move on the part of people around him is referring to or hinting at his behaviour. This causes him to either be in a state of continual contact with society, or to withdraw from people.
Delusions of being subject to influences, where the patient thinks that he is under the influence of either internal or external forces, and he becomes a prisoner to these thoughts, which may involve imaginary laser beams, audible vibrations or wireless vibrations and the like.
End quote.
Conclusion:
Based on the above discussion on the definition of accountability from an Islamic point of view, what makes a person qualified to be accountable, and what is expected of him, and based on what we have discussed about the nature of this illness and its symptoms and impact, we think that the person who is affected by it does not meet the conditions of accountability, especially in the chronic, later stages of the illness. However, when he is in a phase in which he has self-awareness and is able to control his actions and his thinking, he is accountable and must comply with the commands and prohibitions of Allah.
What we have said above has to do with duties towards Allah, may He be exalted, such as prayer, fasting and Hajj. However, with regard to duties towards other people, he is liable for any damage he may cause to their property, and he is required to give zakaah on his wealth, because these are obligatory duties for which it is not stipulated that one should be accountable for them to be obligatory.
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/132519/facts-about-schizophrenia-is-the-sufferer-still-accountable | 209 | 132,519 |
274 | Are women equal with men in reward and punishment? | Question
Some people say that women are lacking in intellect and religious commitment, and in inheritance and bearing witness. Some say that Allaah has made them equal in reward and punishment. What is your opinion: are they lacking according to Islam or not?. | Praise be to Allah.Islam came to honour women and raise their status, and to give them a position that befits them, and to take care of them and protect their dignity. So Islam commands women’s guardians and husbands to spend on them, to treat them well, look after them and be kind to them. Allah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“and live with them honourably” [al-Nisa’ 4:19]
It is reported that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “The best of you are those who are best to their wives, and I am the best of you to my wives.” Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, 5/709, no. 3895.
Islam gives women all their rights and allows them to dispose of their affairs in an appropriate manner. Allah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And they (women) have rights (over their husbands as regards living expenses) similar (to those of their husbands) over them (as regards obedience and respect) to what is reasonable, but men have a degree (of responsibility) over them. And Allah is All-Mighty, All-Wise” [al-Baqarah 2:228]
This includes all kinds of dealings, buying, selling, compromising, appointing others to act on their behalf, lending, depositing trusts, etc.
Islam enjoined upon women the acts of worship and duties that befit them, the same duties as men, namely purification, zakaah, fasting, prayer, Hajj, and other acts of worship.
But Islam gives a woman half the share of a man when it comes to inheritance, because she is not obliged to spend on herself or her house or her children. Rather the one who is obliged to spend on them is the man, just as the man is responsible for spending on guests, contributing to payment of ransom money, and spending on reconciling between conflicting groups.
With regard to the testimony of two women being equivalent to the testimony of one man in some cases, that is because women tend to be more forgetful than men because of their natural cycles of menstruation, pregnancy, giving birth, raising children etc. All these things preoccupy them and make them forgetful. Hence the shar’i evidence indicates that another women should reinforce a woman’s testimony, so that it will be more accurate. But there are matters that pertain only to women in which the testimony of a single woman is sufficient, such as determining how often a child was breastfed, faults that may affect marriage, and so on.
Women are equal with men in terms of reward, remaining steadfast in faith and doing righteous deeds, in enjoying a good life in this world and a great reward in the Hereafter. Allah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Whoever works righteousness — whether male or female — while he (or she) is a true believer (of Islamic Monotheism) verily, to him We will give a good life (in this world with respect, contentment and lawful provision), and We shall pay them certainly a reward in proportion to the best of what they used to do (i.e. Paradise in the Hereafter)” [al-Nahl 16:97]
So we know that women have rights and duties, just as men have rights and duties. There are matters which suit men so Allah has made them the responsibility of men, just as there are manners which suit women so He has made them the responsibility of women.
And Allah is the Source of strength.
Al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah li’l-Buhooth al-‘Ilmiyyah wa’l-Ifta’, 17/7. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=2 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/12840/are-women-equal-with-men-in-reward-and-punishment | 209 | 12,840 |
275 | Can he get rid of haram wealth by giving it to someone who wants to get married? | Question
I had a haram income in the past. I asked you what I shall do with this money, as I wanted to give it as sadaqah to one of my relatives. You answered me by saying that it is fine to use this money as I did not know that it is haram when I earned it, or to give some or all of it as sadaqah.
I am intending to give this money as sadaqah to one of my relatives as he is about to get married, is this permissible or not? He asked me to lend him some money but -unfortunately- he does not have enough to return it to me. | Praise be to Allah.In the answer to your first question (no. 96614) we stated that whatever of this money is still in your possession should be spent on charitable causes, and you should not make use of it. In that question we referred to another question, which says that is it permissible for the penitent to make use of some of the haram money if he is in need. See question no. 78289.
Undoubtedly one of the ways of doing good is helping the one who wants to get married so that he can remain chaste. Based on this, there is nothing wrong with giving this money or some of it to your relative who is going to get married.
This is not regarded as charity or zakah on your part, rather it is ridding yourself of haram wealth. As for charity and zakah, they can only be given from halal wealth, because Allah is Good and does not accept anything but that which is good.
We ask Allah to help you and guide you.
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=2 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/99550/can-he-get-rid-of-haram-wealth-by-giving-it-to-someone-who-wants-to-get-married | 209 | 99,550 |
276 | A spot of blood is not a sign of reaching puberty | Question
My mother’s friend has a daughter who is 13 years old. She found a drop of blood in her underwear two years ago. The mother advised her to fast that previous Ramadaan; as she thought that the drop of blood is a sign of puberty. The mother did not notice any sign of puberty on her daughter since that time. The mother is asking now if her daughter must fast, bear in mind that her daughter has already fasted the previous Ramadaan. | Praise be to Allah.It seems – and Allaah knows
best – that a spot of blood in the case of this girl cannot be regarded as
menses, rather it is temporary bleeding that may be the result of sickness
and the like. That is for several reasons:
1-This bleeding did not happen
again after that. For two years until now she has not seen any real menses.
This clearly indicates that she has not started to menstruate yet.
2-One or two spots of blood is
not regarded as menses.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may
Allaah have mercy on him) was asked – as it says in Fataawa al-Mar’ah
al-Muslimah (1/137) – about a woman who experienced spotting in
Ramadaan, and this spotting lasted throughout the month, but she fasted. Is
her fast valid?
He replied:
Yes, her fast is valid. As
for this spotting, it does not mean anything, because it comes from a vein.
End quote.
This girl is not
menstruating and she has not reached puberty, so she is not obliged to fast,
but she should get used to fasting so long as she is able for it, so that it
will be easier for her in the future. If she fasts, her fast is valid and
she will be rewarded for it in sha Allaah.
And Allaah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=2 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/107149/a-spot-of-blood-is-not-a-sign-of-reaching-puberty | 209 | 107,149 |
277 | What should the Muslim do with regard to scholarly differences of opinion as to whether a hadeeth is sound or weak? | Question
What should we do if the scholars of hadeeth differ as to whether a hadeeth that has to do with worship is saheeh (sound) or da’eef (weak)?. | Praise be to Allah.
Firstly:
There is no difference among the scholars between scholarly
differences of opinion as to whether a hadeeth is saheeh or da’eef, and
their differences concerning matters of fiqh. That is because the
classification of hadeeth as saheeh or da’eef is subject to ijtihaad and the
scholars vary in their knowledge of narrators and isnaads of hadeeth. What
one of them knows about the circumstances of a narrator may be unknown to
others, and what another finds of corroborating reports may not be available
to another. So their rulings on a particular hadeeth may differ for these
reasons. Sometimes all of them found the biography of a narrator and the
isnaads of a hadeeth, but they varied in the rulings as to whether it was
saheeh or da’eef according to their own ijtihaad with regard to evaluating
the narrator and according to their view as to whether the hadeeth is free
of any problems.
Imam al-Tirmidhi said:
The imams differed in classing men (narrators) as da’eef
(weak), as they differed in other aspects of knowledge.
Sunan al-Tirmidhi (5/756),
Kitaab al-‘Ilal at the end of al-Sunan.
Explaining the reasons for differences of opinion among the
scholars, Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah said:
The third reason: Belief that a hadeeth is weak on the basis
of ijtihaad, but others disagreed with him, regardless of other isnaads, and
regardless of whether he or someone else was correct, or both of them were
correct according to those who said that every mujtahid is correct. That is
for several reasons, including: the one who narrated the hadeeth thought
that one of them was da’eef and the other thought that he was trustworthy.
Knowledge of narrators is a vast science, and the one who is correct may be
the one who thought it was da’eef, because he had come across a reason to
make him think so, or the other one may have been correct because he knew
that this reason may not be enough to regard him as da’eef, either because
that reason in and of itself is not a problem or because he had an excuse
which meant that he could not be classified as da’eef.
This is a broad topic for scholars who study narrators and
their circumstances, and there may be consensus and differences just as
there are among other scholars in their own fields.
(Another reason is) that he did not believe that the
muhaddith heard the hadeeth from the one from whom he narrated it, but
someone else believed that he did hear it for reasons which imply that.
(Another reason is) that the muhaddith may have been through
two phases, one when he was sound and credible and another when there was
confusion about his narrations, such as he got mixed up and his books were
burned or lost, so what he narrated when he was sound and credible is saheeh
and what he narrated when he was confused is da’eef. So he (the scholar) may
not have known which of the two scenarios applied to this hadeeth, but
someone else knows that he narrated this particular hadeeth when he was
sound and credible.
(Another reason is) that the muhaddith forgot that hadeeth
and did not remember it afterwards, or he denied having narrated it because
he thought that there was a problem which meant that he should leave this
hadeeth alone, but another scholar may think that it is something that is
valid and may be quoted as evidence. This issue is well known … and there
are other reasons too.
Majmoo’ al-Fataawa
(20/240-242).
Secondly:
With regard to the Muslim’s attitude towards these
differences which occur among scholars with regard to whether a hadeeth is
saheeh of da’eef, it is the same attitude as that towards their differences
of opinion in fiqh. If he is qualified to distinguish between their
opinions, he may decide which of the two rulings concerning one hadeeth he
thinks is correct; if he is not qualified to do so, then he should follow
the opinion of a scholar (taqleed) and he should accept the verdict of the
one who he thinks is more religiously committed and has greater knowledge
concerning this matter. He should not be deceived by the fact that he is a
faqeeh or scholar of usool or mufassir, rather the one whose verdict of
saheeh or da’eef is followed should be prominent in the science of hadeeth,
and there is no sin on him if he follows a prominent scholar. If the hadeeth
is saheeh according to that scholar and he follows him in that, and it
contains a fiqhi ruling, then he must act upon it, but there is no sin on
him for not acting upon it if the hadeeth is da’eef.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
If the scholars differed concerning it in their fatwas or
what is heard in their exhortations and advice, for example, then he should
follow the one who he thinks is closer to the truth in his knowledge and
religious commitment.
Liqa’ al-Baab il-Maftooh (no.
46, question no. 1136)
See also the answer to question no.
22652 for a discussion of the
correct attitude towards scholarly differences .
And Allaah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=2 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/70455/what-should-the-muslim-do-with-regard-to-scholarly-differences-of-opinion-as-to-whether-a-hadeeth-is-sound-or-weak | 209 | 70,455 |
278 | Should he give his wife control over her own wealth as he does not handle money well? | Question
My question is about my father who used to have a lot of wealth, and we lived a good life, but now he does not own anything but two apartments that he registered in my mother’s name. Now he has become irresponsible – unfortunately – and he still thinks that he is wealthy and he never thinks of getting a job. He is 55 years old and unfortunately, despite my objections to my mother, she has given him control of the two apartments even though she knows how my father is. When I asked her why she did that, she said: “It is his property and he is free to dispose of it.” What should I do? Should I confront him when everyone in his family and others confronted him and opposed him and have given up on him because he lost a lot of wealth? What will he say about me?
She is right, he was good and was never stingy towards her and never withheld anything from her, but she says “If I did not do it he would divorce me.” How can I confront him when he is bad-tempered and it is difficult to communicate with him?
What is your opinion – is my mother in the right? Should she get a job and not rely on him, even though she does not want to do that, and she says that he will begin to rely on her? Now he has sold one of the apartments and has spent the money right and left on other people, and he forgets that he has nine children, and even though she reminded him that he lives in one city and we live in another, he remembers for a moment then he forgets his worries and goes back to his dreams. What do you advise us to do before he sells the other apartment and we regret it? She and my father are now having serious arguments because of his careless behaviour, and it may lead to divorce. I want to know whether my father is mentally ill, or what is going on? How should I deal with him? I am confused; please help me for the family is being torn apart. | Praise be to Allah.
The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him)
forbade wasting money and spending it on things that are of no benefit.
It was narrated that al-Mugheerah ibn Shu’bah (may Allaah be
pleased with him) said: I heard the Prophet (peace and blessings of
Allaah be upon him) say: “Allaah dislikes three things for you: gossip,
wasting money and asking too much.” Narrated by al-Bukhaari (1407) and
Muslim (593).
The scholars regarded bad handling of wealth to be a kind of
mischief (fasaad). Imam al-Bukhaari named a chapter on this basis as
he said: Chapter: What is forbidden of wasting money and the words of
Allaah, may He be glorified and exalted: “and Allaah likes not mischief”
[al-Baqarah 2:205].
Fath al-Baari (5/68).
A person may be clever but he does not handle money well,
rather he wastes it and spends it on things that are of no benefit. Such a
person is described by the scholars as safeeh (foolish), and it is
not permissible to give him money, rather he should be prevented from
handling it, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And give not unto the foolish your property which Allaah
has made a means of support for you”
[al-Nisa’ 4:5]
al-Qurtubi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: This verse
indicates that it is permissible to withhold wealth from the one who is
foolish, because Allaah enjoins that in the words “And give not unto the
foolish your property” and He says: “But if the debtor is of poor
understanding [safeeh], or weak” [al-Baqarah 2:282]. So a guardian is to
be appointed for the foolish one just as for the weak one. The word “weak”
applies to a minor whereas the word “foolish” applies to an adult. End
quote.
Tafseer al-Qurtubi (5/30).
Ibn Hajar (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
With regard to the words of Allaah “And give not unto the
foolish your property…”, al-Tabari said, after quoting the views of the
mufassireen on what was meant by al-sufaha’ (the foolish): The
correct view in our opinion is that it is general in meaning and applies to
everyone who is foolish, whether he is a minor or an adult, male or female.
The foolish one is the one who wastes wealth and mishandles it. End quote.
He also said:
Withholding in sharee’ah means preventing him from disposing
of the wealth, which is sometimes in the interests of the person and
sometimes in the interests of the wealth. The majority of scholars are of
the view that it is permissible to prevent an adult from disposing of wealth
(in such cases). End quote.
Fath al-Baari (5/68).
If your father does not handle money well, rather he wastes
it on things that are of no benefit, then he must be prevented from handling
it and it is not permissible to give him control of any wealth. Your mother
should cancel the power of attorney or control that she gave to him, so as
to protect your property from being lost, because you need it.
You have to advise him and bring him back to his senses by
reminding him with kind words and exhortation that will make him regret what
he has lost of his wealth, and make him be careful with what he has left.
Remind him of the ahaadeeth which will rebuke him for wasting
money, and remind him that Allaah has entrusted him with taking care of you,
as it says in the hadeeth of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah
be upon him): “It is sufficient sin for a man to neglect those for whom he
is responsible.” Narrated by Abu Dawood (1692) and classed as hasan by
al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Targheeb (1965).
Shaykh ‘Abd al-‘Azeem Abaadi (may Allaah have mercy on him)
said:
Al-Khattaabi said: This means the ones for whom he is obliged
to provide food, meaning that the one who wants to give in charity should
not give in charity if he does not have anything surplus to the needs of
those whom he is responsible to feed, seeking reward thereby, lest that
incur sin for neglecting those for whom he is responsible instead of earning
reward.
‘Awn al-Ma’bood (5/76).
If this applies in the case of one who is giving charity,
then what about the one who wastes money on things that are of no benefit?
And Allaah knows
best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=2 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/72364/should-he-give-his-wife-control-over-her-own-wealth-as-he-does-not-handle-money-well | 209 | 72,364 |
279 | It is not prescribed to intentionally over-exhaust yourself in worship, seeking reward thereby | Question
Is it prescribed to over exert efforts intentionally in worship seeking reward, to make wudu’ using cold water while ward water is available for example, or seeking a further Masjid while there is a close one? I am asking because I read that imam Ash-Shatiby mentioned that a person who intentionally over-exhausts himself in worship, will not be rewarded for intentional hardship. | Praise be to Allah.The one who deliberately over-exhausts himself will not be rewarded if his aim is hardship, rather he will be rewarded if hardship accompanies an action that he is required to do. That is because hardship is not to be sought in and of itself.
Shaykh Muhammad ibn Saalih al-‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in Sharh Nuzum Qawaa’id: Once this is established, that Islam does not seek hardship in and of itself, then we should not seek hardship. If an action may be done without hardship, then seeking hardship is not prescribed. For example: if a person says I will go for Hajj on foot so that I may be exhausted in Hajj and my reward will be greater, it should be said to him: Seeking hardship is not prescribed, because the Lawgiver does not intend hardship, so by your action you are going against the aim of the Lawgiver.
If someone were to say: It says in the hadeeth that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Your reward will be commensurate with your effort”, our response is: The meaning of the word effort in this hadeeth does not mean exhausting oneself intentionally, rather what it means is the exhaustion that results from a certain act of worship which the worshipper does not intend to seek. End quote.
The scholars of the Standing Committee for Issuing Fatwas were asked:
What kind of water is it mustahabb to use when doing ghusl from janaabah – cold water or warm water?
They replied: Praise be to Allaah alone and blessings and peace be upon His Messenger and his family and companions.
The Muslim may use warm or cold water, according to what is in his best interests. The matter is broad in scope and the religion of Allaah is easy, as He says (interpretation of the meaning): “Allaah intends for you ease, and He does not want to make things difficult for you” [al-Baqarah 2:185].
And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessing and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions. End quote.
Shaykh ‘Abd al-Azeez ibn Baaz, Shaykh ‘Abd al-Razzaaq ‘Afeefi, Shaykh ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Ghadyaan, Shaykh ‘Abd-Allaah ibn Qa’ood
Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah (5/328)
And Allaah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=2 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/113385/it-is-not-prescribed-to-intentionally-over-exhaust-yourself-in-worship-seeking-reward-thereby | 209 | 113,385 |
280 | He became Muslim then he did something that is nullifies Islam, out of ignorance | Question
If a kaafir enters Islam then he does something that nullifies Islam because of ignorance, how should he be dealt with? Should he renew his Islam?. | Praise be to Allah.
He should be dealt with in the way that is better, and he
should be told that this is something that nullifies Islam, but there is no
need for him to renew his Islam, because this contrary action that he did is
something that he was unaware of, and Allaah says (interpretation of the
meaning):
“And We never punish until We have sent a Messenger (to
give warning)”
[al-Isra’ 17:15]
“And never would We destroy the towns unless the people
thereof are Zaalimoon (polytheists, wrongdoers, disbelievers in the Oneness
of Allaah, oppressors and tyrants)”
[al-Qasas 28:59].
The one who is ignorant is not a wrongdoer, because he did
not mean to sin, especially if he is new in Islam. End quote. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=2 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/106506/he-became-muslim-then-he-did-something-that-is-nullifies-islam-out-of-ignorance | 209 | 106,506 |
281 | Can a person be excused for not praying because he is unaware that it is obligatory? | Question
If a Muslim dies who did not pray in a non-Muslim country, or a Muslim did not pray in a Muslim country, who is worse off than the other? Does the one who died in a non-Muslim country have any excuse after death because he was living in a non-Muslim environment and did not hear the adhaan for example?. | Praise be to Allah.
Firstly:
Not praying is major kufr and the person who does not pray is
beyond the pale of Islam because of his not praying. This is indicated by
the Qur'aan and Sunnah and by the consensus of the Companions (may Allah be
pleased with them).
Allah, may He be blessed and exalted, says (interpretation of
the meaning):
“Every person is a pledge for what he has earned,
39. Except those on the Right (i.e. the pious true
believers of Islamic Monotheism).
40. In Gardens (Paradise) they will ask one another,
41. About Al‑Mujrimoon (polytheists, criminals,
disbelievers) (and they will say to them):
42. ‘What has caused you to enter Hell?’
43. They will say: ‘We were not of those who used to offer
the Salaah (prayers)’
[al-Muddaththir 74:38-43]
It was narrated that Jaabir ibn ‘Abd-Allaah (may Allah be
pleased with him) said: I heard the Messenger of Allah (blessings and peace
of Allah be upon him) say: “Between a man and shirk and kufr there stands
his giving up prayer.” Narrated by Muslim (82).
Shaykh ‘Abd al-‘Azeez ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him)
said: Anybody who is accountable and dies when he is not praying, is a
disbeliever; he should not be washed, the funeral prayer should not be
offered for him and he should not be buried in the Muslim graveyard; his
relatives do not inherit from him, rather his wealth belongs to the bayt
al-maal of the Muslims according to the more correct scholarly view, because
the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said in this saheeh
hadeeth: “Between a man and shirk and kufr there stands his giving up
prayer.”. Narrated by Imam Muslim in his Saheeh; and because the
Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “The covenant that
stands between us and them is prayer; whoever does not pray has
disbelieved.” narrated by Imam Ahmad and the authors of al-Sunan with
a saheeh isnaad, from Buraydah (may Allaah be pleased with him).
‘Abd-Allaah ibn Shaqeeq al-‘Aqeeli, the great Taabi’i (may
Allaah have mercy on him) said: The companions of the Prophet (blessings and
peace of Allah be upon him) did not think that failing to do any action was
kufr except prayer. And there are many hadeeth and reports with similar
meanings.
This applies to the one who does not pray because he is lazy,
but he does not deny that it is obligatory. As for the one who denies that
it is obligatory, he is a disbeliever and an apostate from Islam according
to all the scholars. End quote.
Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn Baaz
(10/250).
Secondly:
If a person who is not praying dies, it makes no difference
whether he is in a Muslim country or a non-Muslim country, but his sin is
greater if he was living among Muslims, because he could see the people
praying and hear the call to prayer at all times.
Thirdly:
Some people may become Muslim and be living in a non-Muslim
state and not know anything about the pillars and duties of Islam, such as
prayer and so on. This may be imagined in the case of one who grew up in a
wilderness far away from knowledge and Muslims, or who lived in the jungle
and so on. Such a person is not judged to be a disbeliever or even a sinner,
because he is excused due to his ignorance.
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him)
said:
But among people are some who are ignorant of some of these
rulings and may be excused for that, so no one should be judged to be a
disbeliever unless proof is established in his case that the message reached
him, as Allah says (interpretation of the meaning): “in order that
mankind should have no plea against Allaah after the (coming of) Messengers”
[al-Nisa’ 4:165]. Hence if a man became Muslim and did not know that
prayer was obligatory upon him, or he did not know that alcohol was haraam,
he does not become a disbeliever for not believing that the former is
obligatory or that the latter is haraam; indeed he will not be punished
unless proof from the Prophet reached him.
Majmoo’ al-Fataawa (11/406)
Ibn Hazm (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
There is no difference of opinion among the scholars
concerning the fact that if a man became Muslim and did not know the laws of
Islam, so he believed that alcohol was permissible and that a person did not
have to pray, and the ruling of Allah had not reached him, he is not a
disbeliever. And there is no difference of opinion concerning that, unless
proof was established to him and he persisted. In that case, according to
the consensus of the ummah, then he is a disbeliever.
Al-Muhalla (11/206)
With regard to his ignorance, it is stipulated that the
person should not have been able to dispel it by means of asking and seeking
knowledge.
Al-Qaraafi al-Maaliki (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
The shar’i principle indicates that any kind of ignorance
which the accountable person could have dispelled does not count as evidence
for the ignorant, for Allah sent His Messengers to His creation with His
messages, and He commanded them all to learn it, then act upon it. So
learning and acting upon it are obligatory, and the one who does not learn
and act accordingly, and remains ignorant, has committed two sins because he
has failed to fulfil two obligations.
Al-Furooq (4/264).
Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allaah have mercy on him)
said:
This excuse does not count unless one is unable to remove it,
otherwise if a person is able to learn the truth but falls short in that, he
is not excused.
Majmoo’ al-Fataawa (20/280)
Shaykh Muhammad al-Ameen al-Shanqeeti (may Allaah have mercy
on him) said:
As for the one who is able to learn but he was careless about
it, and gives precedence to individual’s opinions over what he knows of the
revelation, this is the one who is not excused.
Adwa’ al-Bayaan (7/357)
See also the answer to question number
10065.
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=2 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/104412/can-a-person-be-excused-for-not-praying-because-he-is-unaware-that-it-is-obligatory | 209 | 104,412 |
282 | She is not sure whether her prayer and fasting are valid | Question
I feel ashamed to ask this question because of the abhorrence of what I used to do, and I do not even like to mention it.
A few years ago I used to do two horrible things. The first is that a female relative and I used to fondle one another and we continued to do that for a while, then we stopped. The second is that I used to mistreat the young son of our neighbours; I used to hit him time after time and make him kiss me or touch part of my body. I do not even like to mention these things because it makes me feel that I am bad. I really regret having done these things.
I have a number of questions.
1- Do I have to fast the days on which I did those things, although I did not know that they invalidate my fasting and prayers?
2- Do I also have to repeat the prayers?
3- I do not know if any fluid was emitted or not.
4- I am confused and uncertain, and I do not remember if I did those things in Ramadaan or not?
5- If I have to fast, how can I work out the number of days? I tried hard to work it out but I do not remember exactly when I did those things.
6- When does a girl become accountable for her fasting? Is it after she reaches puberty? I mean, is it after she gets her monthly period for the first time?. | Praise be to Allah.Firstly:
We praise
Allaah for having enabled you to repent from these haraam deeds, and we ask
Allaah to accept your repentance.
Secondly:
You do not
have to make up any of the prayers or fasts, for the following reasons:
1-You did not know that this
would invalidate your fasting and prayers. If a person does something haraam
without knowing that it is forbidden, then he may be excused and does not
deserve to be punished for this sin. Allaah says (interpretation of the
meaning): “And there is no sin on you concerning that in which you made a
mistake, except in regard to what your hearts deliberately intend. And
Allaah is Ever Oft‑Forgiving, Most Merciful” [al-Ahzaab 33:5]. Ignorance
is a kind of mistake, because the one who is unaware does not deliberately
commit sin. See the answers to questions no.
50017 and
45648.
2-You are not certain that any
fluid was emitted. If a Muslim does an act of worship, the basic principle
is that it is judged to be valid, so long as he is not certain that it was
not valid. Merely doubting does not invalidate an act of worship once it has
been done.
Thirdly:
With regard
to a girl becoming accountable for fasting and other Islamic rulings, that
happens when she reaches puberty, and a girl reaches puberty when one of
four signs occur:
1-Reaching the age of fifteen
2-Growth of coarse hair around
the private part
3-Emission of maniy (fluid
emitted at climax)
4-Menstruation.
It is not
essential that all of these happen at once, rather one sign is sufficient to
establish that puberty has been reached.
See also the
answer to question no. 21246.
We ask Allaah to enable you to do all that is good. And Allaah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=2 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/82662/she-is-not-sure-whether-her-prayer-and-fasting-are-valid | 209 | 82,662 |
283 | Is it permissible for a woman who fears that she will be raped or one who has been raped to kill herself? | Question
My Muslim friend and I found ourselves in a situation in which we feared for our honour and our lives. I have never been so afraid in my life as I was on that day. I kept reciting Aayat al-Kursiy and praise be to Allah nothing happened. When someone heard what had happened, he said: It is permissible in cases of extreme necessity to commit suicide. If a girl is afraid that she will be raped, the girl should kill herself rather than lose her honour and the honour of her husband and family.
Is suicide in this situation permissible?
I hope that you can tell me what the scholars’ opinion is on that. | Praise be to Allah.Firstly:
We praise Allah, may He be glorified and exalted, for saving you both from that terrible experience and protecting your honour and your lives. You have to give thanks to Allah your Lord and adhere to obedience to Him, for Allah has honoured you with a great blessing.
Secondly:
Suicide -- which means killing oneself -- is a major sin and it is not permissible for anyone to do it, no matter how difficult the circumstances of the one who wants to commit suicide get and no matter how bad his situation is. The hadeeth is general in application, and it is not permissible to make exceptions to it without a text from the infallible Revelation.
It was narrated that Abu Hurayrah said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings be upon him) said: “Whoever throws himself down from a mountain and kills himself will be throwing himself down in the Fire of Hell for ever and ever. Whoever drinks poison and kills himself will be sipping it in the Fire of Hell for ever and ever. Whoever kills himself with a piece of iron will have that iron in his hand, thrusting it into his belly in the Fire of Hell for ever and ever.”
Narrated by al-Bukhaari (5442) and Muslim (109).
Thirdly:
The woman who is threatened with rape must defend herself from that sinful action, even if it leads to killing that evildoer and criminal.
It must also be understood that if Allah, may He be exalted, decreed that she should fall victim to rape, she is not a zaaniyah (fornicator or adulterer) and the hadd punishment for zina should not be carried out on her. There is no difference of opinion concerning this among the scholars as far as we know.
Ibn ‘Abd al-Barr (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
There is no difference of opinion as far as I know among the scholars of the earlier and later generations concerning the fact that the woman who is forced into zina is not to be subjected to the hadd punishment, if it is true that she was forced and raped.
The Messenger of Allah (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “Allah has pardoned for my ummah mistakes, forgetfulness and what they are forced to do.”
Al-Istidhkaar, 7/551
See also the answer to question number 4017.
Fourthly:
With regard to a woman killing herself because of rape, there are two scenarios:
(i)
where she kills herself before she is raped because she thinks it is most likely that this will happen to her;
(ii)
where she kills herself after being raped, for fear of shame that will befall her or her husband or her family, or all of them.
In both cases it is not permissible for the woman to kill herself, and that is not a legitimate excuse for killing oneself. Rather she has to defend herself with whatever strength she has in the first case and then accept with patience whatever Allah decrees and seek reward for her calamity with her Lord. In the second case, she is not a sinner and is not to be blamed for what has happened to her; rather she has been wronged. But if she kills herself, she will be wronging herself and committing a grave sin.
It says in Fataawa Dar al-Ifta’ al-Masriyyah (2/277):
It is not permissible for her to kill herself in order to escape being forced into zina, because killing herself is an abhorrent crime and Allah does not accept the one who does it and is not pleased with him. In that case she would be no less sinful than one who kills a soul that Allah has forbidden anyone to kill unlawfully. Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And do not kill yourselves (nor kill one another). Surely, Allaah is Most Merciful to you”
[al-Nisa’ 4:29].
And the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said, as was narrated from Abu Hurayrah (may Allah be pleased with him): “Whoever kills himself with a piece of iron will have that iron in his hand, thrusting it into his belly in the Fire of Hell for ever and ever. Whoever drinks poison and kills himself will have his poison in his hand, sipping it in the Fire of Hell for ever and ever. Whoever throws himself down from a mountain and kills himself will be throwing himself down in the Fire of Hell for ever and ever.” And it was narrated from Jaabir (may Allah be pleased with him) that a man killed himself with a broad arrow head and the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) did not offer the funeral prayer for him. Narrated by the group except al-Bukhaari.
End quote.
This is what was stated by Shaykh al-Albaani (may Allah have mercy on him) in his fatwa. He was asked:
If a Muslim woman is attacked and the aggressors want to commit immoral actions with her, can she kill herself if she is afraid of that?
He replied:
That is not permissible.
Silsilat al-Huda wa’l-Noor, tape no. 451
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=2 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/144586/is-it-permissible-for-a-woman-who-fears-that-she-will-be-raped-or-one-who-has-been-raped-to-kill-herself | 209 | 144,586 |
284 | Ruling on offering food to non-Muslim workers during the day in Ramadan | Question
There is a man who has land and has non-Muslim workers. They asked him to give them food during the day in Ramadan, otherwise they will leave the job. And in fact he did bring them food in Ramadan throughout the month. What is your opinion on this action?. | Praise be to Allah.
Firstly:
Bringing non-Muslims [into the country] to work is not
appropriate and they should not be brought; rather no non-Muslims should be
brought in, because bringing in non-Muslims may adversely affect a person in
himself or in his beliefs or in his attitude, or it may adversely affect his
children and household members, especially female servants and nannies,
because the harm they cause is great. So no one should be brought to work in
the house or to raise the children except Muslim women only. The same
applies to men; only Muslims should be brought in and not non-Muslims,
because they cause a great deal of harm and because their beliefs and
attitudes are not the same as the beliefs and attitudes of Muslims. So it is
essential to avoid bringing them in so as to avoid the evil that may be
caused by following their example and mixing with them.
Moreover, it is not permissible for any religion but one to
remain in the Arabian Peninsula; there should not be two religions in it.
But these servants and workers may stay there for a long time because of
work or because of wanting to work. It is not permissible to bring
non-Muslims into the Arabian Peninsula, because the Prophet (blessings and
peace of Allah be upon him) said: “Expel the Jews and Christians from the
Arabian Peninsula.” And according to another version he said: “Expel the
mushrikeen (polytheists).” And he left instructions to that effect when he
died (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him). So it is not permissible
for a Muslim to bring in anyone but Muslim men and women into the Arabian
Peninsula, and not anyone else.
No one should be brought into the Arabian peninsula except
Muslims, as we have stated above, because the Messenger (blessings and peace
of Allah be upon him) enjoined that the mushrikeen, Jews and Christians
should be expelled from it and only one religion should be left in it,
because it is the cradle of Islam and because the Muslims pin their hopes on
it after Allah, and take it as an example. Therefore if non-Muslims are
brought in, that opens the door to other people bringing in non-Muslims and
mixing with them, and this will cause a great deal of harm to all.
With regard to offering food to them:
It is not permissible to offer food to them. If they are not
Muslim and they want food to be offered to them in Ramadan, he should not
help them with that. If they are kuffaar, even if they fast their fast will
not be valid. However, the minor issues of sharee‘ah are addressed to them,
and if that is addressed to them it is not permissible to help them in that
which will go against sharee‘ah. Rather they should be advised and taught in
the hope that they might become Muslim. So they should be called to Islam
and told about what is good and right in the hope that they might become
Muslim, then one will attain a reward like theirs. “The one who tells
another about something good will have a reward like that of the one who
does it.” “If one man were to be guided through you that would be better for
you than having red camels (the best kind).” This is what the Prophet
(blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said.
If they insist, then they are the ones who should make their
own food. They are the ones who should take care of their own needs in this
regard, in the hope that they may be influenced by this and become Muslim.
Otherwise their contracts should be cancelled and Allah will bring someone
better than them. He should not take this matter lightly and if they decide
to leave the job, then praise be to Allah, they have given up the job and
Allah will bring people better than them. So he should never help them in
this matter; he should not help them to find food and drink in Ramadan,
whether they are kaafirs or evildoers (faasiq) among the Muslims who do not
fast. They should not help them to eat or drink in Ramadan or help them to
do anything that Allah has forbidden. They can do it for themselves and buy
what they need themselves. End quote.
Shaykh ‘Abd al-‘Azeez ibn Baaz (may Allah have mercy on him) | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=2 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/149174/ruling-on-offering-food-to-non-muslim-workers-during-the-day-in-ramadan | 209 | 149,174 |
285 | Is it permissible for him to trim his beard so that he will not be exposed to harm? | Question
My friend is going to get married in an Islamic country. Alhamdillah he is a practicing Muslim ( May Allah taala guide us all) and observes the sunnah of "leaving the beard". In this country where he is going, those with long beards are detained (especially those of Pakistani origin) at the airport and the secret police often follow them. He does not want to cause hardship to his wife's family, who are likely to be followed and harassed by the government. Therefore, he wishes to trim his beard slightly just for this occasion and grow it back. If not for the possibility of bringing hardship to his in-laws he would not want to trim. Please advise . | Praise be to Allah.
Letting the beard grow is obligatory according to sharee’ah,
and shaving it is haraam. In the answer to question no.
1189 we have stated the ruling on
shaving the beard, and that shaving it is a haraam action.
Ibn Hazm (may Allaah have mercy on him) narrated that the
scholars are unanimously agreed that it is not permissible to shave the
beard.
Al-Muhalla, 2/189
With regard to shaving
it for fear of persecution or exposure to harm, this fear is not all of one
level. In some cases it may be what is likely to happen, and in other cases
it may be imaginary, and in yet others it may be six of one and half a dozen
of the other.
It is not permissible for him to shave his beard or trim it
except in cases where harm is likely to result, and it is not permissible in
any other situation.
This comes under the heading of cases of necessity. Allaah
says (interpretation of the meaning):
“But if one is forced by necessity without willful
disobedience nor transgressing due limits, then there is no sin on him.
Truly, Allaah is Oft-Forgiving, Most Merciful”
[al-Baqarah 2:173]
Or in cases of compulsion. Allaah says (interpretation of the
meaning):
“Whoever disbelieved in Allaah after his belief, except
him who is forced thereto and whose heart is at rest with Faith; but such as
open their breasts to disbelief, on them is wrath from Allaah, and theirs
will be a great torment”
[al-Nahl 16:106]
Force or compulsion means that he will be harmed if he does
not shave it. As for simply experiencing some annoyance or questions or
investigation, these are things from which those who do shave their beards
are not necessarily safe, so that does not mean that a person is permitted
to fall into sin.
In cases of compulsion, there are conditions which must be
met in order for it to be permissible for a Muslim to be granted the
concession of doing or saying something that is haraam. Understanding what
these conditions are is very important, because many people are claiming
that they are forced to do things when that is not the case.
Ibn Qudaamah said:
The conditions of compulsion include three things:
1 – That the one who is trying to force you has power to
cause harm
2 – That he thinks it most likely that the threat will be
carried out if he does not do what is being demanded of him
3 – That the harm be severe, such as being killed, beaten
severely, tied up or imprisoned for a lengthy period. As for being insulted
or cursed, this is not compulsion, and neither is taking a small amount of
wealth.
If the person is of low status, a little harm may not be
compulsion in his case, unlike those of high position for whom a little harm
may be a humiliation and it is like a severe beating for someone else who is
of lower status.
If there is a threat of
torturing his child, this is not compulsion, because the harm is being
directed at someone else. But it is more likely that this is compulsion,
because that is worse for him than taking his wealth; that threat (to take
his wealth) is compulsion, so the same applies here.
Al-Mughni, 7/292
If the harm can be warded off by trimming the beard, then he
should not shave it off, rather it is sufficient to trim it, because shaving
is worse than trimming. It should be noted that a person should have the
need to undertake this journey to that country. But if there is no need for
that then it is not permissible to shave his beard for the sake of
travelling, because he is not being forced to do that.
And Allaah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=2 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/52886/is-it-permissible-for-him-to-trim-his-beard-so-that-he-will-not-be-exposed-to-harm | 209 | 52,886 |
286 | Should she wear hijab even though her family will be harmed because of that? | Question
What is the ruling on a woman who wears hijab in an Arab country which forbids hijab by force and by harming the woman’s religious commitment and social interests? Should she remain steadfast even though some of her family members may be harmed indirectly? Please advise me. | Praise be to Allah.
It is a serious crime and a reprehensible action to prevent a
Muslim woman from wearing hijab as enjoined by Allaah and forcing her by law
to uncover her head and face and go out unveiled among people.
The Muslim has to adhere to the rulings of sharee’ah and
“there is no obedience to any created being if it involves disobedience
towards the Creator.” The Muslim woman’s hijab is one of the duties that she
is obliged to fulfil. The harm that a woman imagines will befall her or her
family may be baseless, or it may not be extreme, and it may be something
that can be put up with. So she has to continue to adhere to correct Islamic
dress.
If the harm is extreme and certain, or it is most likely that
it will happen, then the woman can take off her hijab in order to protect
her honour and religious commitment, but she has to remain as covered and as
modest as she possibly can. In this case it is not permissible for her to go
out of the house except when absolutely necessary, and there is no
concession allowing her to go out to study or to buy things that someone
else can bring to her. What we mean is that she should only go out for
essential needs that cannot easily be dealt with at home, or for some shar’i
action that she cannot forsake, and so on.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) was
asked:
In some countries Muslim women may be forced to take off
their hijab and leave their heads uncovered. Is it permissible for them to
do that, knowing that whoever refuses to do that is faced with consequences
such as losing their jobs or being expelled from school?
The Shaykh replied:
This calamity which is happening in some countries is one of
the things by means of which a person may be tested. Allaah says
(interpretation of the meaning):
“Alif-Laam-Meem.
[These letters are one of the miracles of the Qur’aan, and
none but Allaah (Alone) knows their meanings.]
2. Do people think that they will be left alone because
they say: “We believe,” and will not be tested.
3. And We indeed tested those who were before them. And
Allaah will certainly make (it) known (the truth of) those who are true, and
will certainly make (it) known (the falsehood of) those who are liars,
(although Allaah knows all that before putting them to test)”
[al-‘Ankaboot 29:1-3]
What I think is that
Muslim women in these countries should refuse to obey people in charge (the
rulers) in this evil action, because obeying those in authority in doing
something that is wrong is not allowed. Allaah says (interpretation of the
meaning):
“O you who believe! Obey Allaah and obey the Messenger
(Muhammad), and those of you (Muslims) who are in authority”
[al-Nisa’ 4:59]
If you think about the meaning of this verse, you will note
that Allaah says “Obey Allaah and obey the Messenger (Muhammad), and
those of you (Muslims) who are in authority” – but the verb (obey) is
not repeated in the third case with regard to those who are in authority.
This indicates that obedience to those in authority is secondary to
obedience to Allaah and obedience to His Messenger. If their command is
contrary to obeying Allaah and His Messenger, then they should not be
listened to or obeyed in that which goes against obedience to Allaah and His
Messenger. “There is no obedience to any created being if it involves
disobedience to the Creator.”
The persecution that a
woman may face in this regard is something that has to be borne with
patience, and she should seek the help of Allaah in being patient. We ask
Allaah to guide those in authority to the truth. I do not think that this
forcing her not to wear hijab can take place unless the woman leaves her
home, but if she stays at home no one can force her, so she can stay in her
house so that she will be safe from this thing. With regard to studies that
will lead to her committing sin, this is not permissible, rather she should
study whatever she needs for her religious and worldly interests. This is
sufficient, and this can usually be done at home.
As’ilat al-Usrah al-Muslimah, p.
22, 23
And Allaah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=2 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/45672/should-she-wear-hijab-even-though-her-family-will-be-harmed-because-of-that | 209 | 45,672 |
287 | Will the Person Who is Suffering from Depression be Held Accountable for What He Says? | Question
If a person has depression and psychological problems as a result of the pressures of life, will he be held accountable for what he says to himself, not out loud in front of people; rather he talks to himself under his breath and that may include – Allah forbid – reviling the divine decree and saying bad things about the Most Merciful, even if he regrets what he said later on but he cannot cope with the pressure? | Praise be to Allah.
By the mercy of Allah, may He be
exalted, he does not bring a person to account for whispers in the heart (waswas)
and passing thoughts, as the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon
him) said: “Allah, may He be glorified and exalted, will forgive my ummah
(followers) for whatever crosses their minds so long as they do not act upon
it or speak of it.”
Narrated by al-Bukhari (5269)
and Muslim (127).
If the one who is suffering from
depression and the like thinks to himself of kufr (disbelief) or sin, he
will not be brought to account for that on condition that he does not utter
it or act upon it.
If we assume that this sick
person uttered what was on his mind under the pressure of his illness or of
the whispers in his heart in the sense that he was overcome and could not
help it, and these words came out of him without him intending that, then he
will not be brought to account for that, because he did not intend to say it
out loud.
Al-Bukhari wrote a chapter in
his Saheeh entitled: Divorce given in a state of anger, under
compulsion or under the effect of intoxicants or insanity; the verdict about
them; mistakes and forgetfulness in issuing a divorce or (uttering the words
of) shirk (disbelief) and so on, because of the words of the Prophet
(blessings and peace of Allah be upon him): “Actions are but by intentions,
and each man will have but that which he intended”; Ash-Sha‘bi recited (the
verse meaning) Punish us not if we forget or fall into error [al-Baqarah
2:286]; what is not valid of the confession of one who is affected by
whispers in his heart; the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon
him) said to the one who confessed against himself, “Are you insane?”;
‘Uqbah ibn ‘Amir said: The divorce of one who is affected by whispers in the
heart is not valid. End quote.
Al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may
Allah have mercy on him) said: If one who is affected by whispers in the
heart utters the word of divorce, it is not valid if he did not intend to do
that, because these words may be uttered by one who is affected by whispers
in the heart without him intending to do that or wanting to do it; rather he
is compelled to do that and cannot help it because of the strength of the
force and the weakness of his resistance. The Prophet (blessings and peace
of Allah be upon him) said: “There is no divorce in the case of compulsion.”
So the divorce does not count as such if he did not really have the
intention to do that with peace of mind concerning it. This is something
that he may be compelled to do without intending it or choosing to do it, so
it does not count as a divorce. End quote from Fatawa Islamiyyah,
3/277
This explanation given by the
Shaykh (may Allah have mercy on him) is also applicable in the case of one
who is suffering from depression. If he says something when he is compelled,
without intending or wanting to, then he will not be brought to account for
it.
But the one who is affected in
that way should try to treat the problem and rid himself of distress and
anxiety; he should think about the blessings that Allah, may He be exalted,
has bestowed upon him so that gratitude will take hold in his heart and
cause him to be steadfastly content with what Allah decrees; this will save
him from being angry with his Lord for there is no slave but Allah has
granted him innumerable blessings with regard to his spiritual and physical
health, his family and other matters.
But if he did know what he was
saying and intended it, but he thought that that would bring him relief, or
he was heedless in some of what he said, (then the matter is different) just
as there are texts that speak of a stern warning concerning women who wail
(in mourning), even though that is something that usually happens at times
of extreme grief. And the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him)
warned against uttering words that incur the wrath of Allah at times of
calamity. He (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said, when his son
Ibraheem died: “The eyes weep and the heart grieves, but we do not say
anything but that which pleases our Lord.”Narrated by al-Bukhari
(1303) and Muslim (2315).
According to a report narrated
by Ibn Majah (1589), he said: “…but we do not say anything that angers the
Lord.”
It should be noted that getting
angry will not benefit him or remove his distress; rather what will benefit
him is patience and seeking reward with Allah, as the Prophet (blessings and
peace of Allah be upon him) said: “The greatest reward comes with the
greatest trial. When Allah loves a people He tests them. Whoever accepts
that wins His pleasure but whoever is discontent with that earns His wrath.”
Narrated by at-Tirmidhi (2396)
and Ibn Majah (4031). Classed as saheeh (authentic) by al-Albani in
Saheeh at-Tirmidhi.
See also the answer to question
no.
118325
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=2 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/169574/will-the-person-who-is-suffering-from-depression-be-held-accountable-for-what-he-says | 209 | 169,574 |
288 | A small child follows the religion of whichever of his parents is Muslim | Question
I was wondering whether it was necessary for a child raised by two muslim parents to declare their shahada upon reaching puberty. What about a child raised in a home where the father is muslim but the mother is not and the father has not enforced the prayer from the age of 10 and the children do not pray?. | Praise be to Allah.Firstly: The
child who is born to two Muslim parents is ruled to be a Muslim, according
to scholarly consensus.
If the
parents have different religions, then the child follows the one who is
Muslim, whether it is the father or the mother.
Shaykh
al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him) said: If the child's
parents are both Muslims, then he is Muslim too, following his parents,
according to the consensus of the Muslims. The same applies if his mother is
Muslim, according to the majority of scholars such as Abu Haneefah,
al-Shaafa’i and Ahmad. End quote from Majmoo’ al-Fataawa, 10/437.
It says in
al-Mawsoo’ah al-Fiqhiyyah al-Kuwaitiyyah (4/270): The fuqaha’ are
unanimously agreed that if the father becomes Muslim and he has young
children, then these children are to be regarded as Muslim, following their
father.
The majority
(the Hanafis, Shaafa’is and Hanbalis) are of the view that what counts is
the Islam of one of the parents, whether it is the father or mother, so the
children are to be regarded as Muslims, following the parent, because Islam
should prevail and not be prevailed over, because it is the religion of
Allah that He is pleased with for His slaves.
Secondly:
When the Muslim child reaches the age of puberty, he is not required to
utter the Shahaadatayn again.
Shaykh
al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah said: The Muslims are unanimously agreed that if a
child reaches the age of puberty as a Muslim, he is not required to renew
the Shahaadatayn. End quote from Dar’ al-Ta’aarud, 4/107.
And he said:
The early generation and the imams are unanimously agreed that the first
thing to be enjoined upon people is the Shahaadatayn, and they are agreed
that if a person did that before reaching puberty, he should not be enjoined
to renew that when he reaches puberty. End quote from Dar’ al-Ta’aarud,
4/107
But if after
reaching puberty he says or does something that indicates that he is not
content with Islam, then he is to be regarded as an apostate and is to be
treated as one who has apostatised from the religion of Islam.
Shaykh
al-Islam said: In terms of worldly rulings, the child comes under the same
rulings as his parents, because he is not independent. When he reaches
puberty and speaks words of Islam or disbelief, then he is to be judged on
that basis, according to the consensus of the Muslims. If his parents are
Jews or Christians, but he becomes Muslim, then he is a Muslim according to
Muslim consensus. If they are Muslims and he becomes a kaafir, then he is a
kaafir according to Muslim consensus. End quote from al-Fataawa al-Kubra,
1/64
Thirdly:
When the child reaches the age of seven, his parents should instruct him to
pray and encourage him to do so, because of the report narrated by
‘Abd-Allaah ibn ‘Amr ibn al-‘Aas (may Allah be pleased with him), according
to which the Messenger of Allah (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him)
said: “Instruct your children to pray when they are seven years old and
smack them if they do not do it when they are ten.” Narrated by Abu Dawood
(495); classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh Abi Dawood (466).
Al-Nawawi
said: The imams said: It is obligatory for the fathers and mothers to teach
their children about purification, prayer and other laws after the age of
seven, and to smack them if they do not do them after the age of ten. End
quote from al-Majmoo’, 3/11.
Ibn Qudaamah
said: This discipline is prescribed for the child in order to accustom him
to prayer, so that he will feel comfortable with it and get used to it, and
he will not neglect it when he reaches puberty, but it is not obligatory
upon him. Al-Mughni, 1/682
If a child
does not pray before the age of puberty, that does not put him beyond the
pale of Islam, because he is not accountable for doing it and it is not
obligatory for him.
Shaykh
al-Islam said: Prayer is not obligatory for a child, even if he has reached
the age of ten. This is the view of the majority of scholars.
Al-Ikhtiyaaraat al-Fiqhiyyah, 1/32; see also the
answer to question number 1994.
Based on this, the child who has a Muslim father and a non-Muslim mother is a Muslim. If he reaches the age of ten and does not pray, he is not a kaafir because of his not praying, because he is not accountable for that until he reaches the age of puberty. If he reaches the age of puberty and persists in not praying, then he is an apostate from Islam because of not praying.
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=2 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/130231/a-small-child-follows-the-religion-of-whichever-of-his-parents-is-muslim | 209 | 130,231 |
289 | Are Prepubescent Children Rewarded for Good Deeds? | Question
Are the good deeds of a child who has not yet reached puberty – such as salaat (prayer), Hajj (pilgrimage), reciting Qur’aan – all added to his parents’ record or to his own? | Praise be to Allah.The reward for the deeds of a child who has not reached puberty – meaning his good deeds – go to the child himself, not to his parents or anyone else, but his parents will be rewarded for teaching and guiding and helping him to do good, because of the report in Saheeh Muslim from Ibn ‘Abbaas (may Allaah be pleased with him) who said, “A woman held up a boy and said, ‘O Messenger of Allaah, will his Hajj be counted?’ He said, ‘Yes, and you will have a reward.’” (Reported by Muslim, 2378)
The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) stated that the Hajj would be counted for the boy, and that his mother would be rewarded for taking him on Hajj.
Similarly, people other than the parents may also be rewarded for good deeds, such as teaching those under their care such as orphans, relatives, servants and other people, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever guides others to do good will have a reward similar to that of the one who does it …” (reported by Muslim in his Saheeh, 3509), and because this is a form of co-operating in righteousness and piety, which Allaah urges us to do. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=3 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/3240/are-prepubescent-children-rewarded-for-good-deeds | 209 | 3,240 |
290 | The ignorance for which a person may be excused is ignorance of the ruling not of the punishment | Question
I understand that intentionally leaving prayer out of laziness is major kufr and the one who commits it is a kaafir unless they have the excuse of ignorance. But what is meant by the excuse of ignorance, ignorance of the obligation of salaah? or igno orance of the fact that abandoning prayer intentionally is kufr?
Please explain with some quotations from the salafi ulema. | Praise be to Allah.The ignorance for which a person may be excused is ignorance of the ruling. Whoever does not do an obligatory action because he does not know that it is obligatory, or he does a forbidden action because he does not know that it is forbidden, is an ignorant person who may be excused for his ignorance.
But if a person knows that something is forbidden and he does it, but he is ignorant of the punishment for that, he has no excuse, because he has knowingly committed a sin and transgressed the bounds.
If a person commits zina – for example – and does not know that zina is haram, he will not be punished and is excused for his ignorance. But if a person knows that zina is haram but he does not know that the one who commits zina deserves the hadd punishment, then he has no excuse and the hadd punishment must be carried out on him, if the conditions for that are met.
Similarly, if a person does not pray and he does not know that prayer is obligatory, he is to be excused for his ignorance and is not regarded as a kaafir. But if a person does not pray and he knows that not praying is haram but he does not know that not praying is kufr, then he is not to be excused.
There follows some evidence for the above, as well as some comments of the scholars:
(A)If a person is ignorant of the ruling on the forbidden action and does it, and there is some hadd punishment or expiation required for that, it is not required in his case.
The evidence for that is the words of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) to a person who confessed that he had committed zina: “Do you know what zina is?” Narrated by Abu Dawood, 4428. This hadith was also reported in al-Saheehayn.
Ibn al-Qayyim – who classed the report of Abu Dawood as saheeh – said: The hadd punishment is not due for one who was ignorant of the fact that it is forbidden, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) asked him about the ruling on zina, and he said: I did with her wrongfully haram what a man does with his wife lawfully.
Zaad al-Ma’aad, 5/33.
(B)If he knows that it is haram but is ignorant of the consequences, whether a hadd punishment, required expiation or anything else, then the hadd punishment must be carried out on him because he dared to do something haram, and he must offer the expiation if the sin requires expiation.
The evidence for that is the hadeeh of Maa’iz (may Allah be pleased with him) who confessed that he had committed zina, in which he said: “O people, take me back to the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him), for my people deceived me and killed me.” Narrated by Abu Dawood, 4420; its isnaad was classed as jayyid by al-Albaani (may Allah have mercy on him) in al-Irwa’, 7/354. This Sahaabi (may Allah have mercy on him) knew that it was haram but he was unaware of the punishment.
Ibn al-Qayyim (may Allah have mercy on him) said: This indicates that ignorance of the punishment does not excuse a person from the punishment if he knew that it is haram. Maa’iz did not know that the punishment was execution, but this ignorance did not excuse him from the punishment.
Zaad al-Ma’aad, 5/34.
Similarly, the Sahaabi who had intercourse with his wife during the day in Ramadaan did it deliberately and knew that it was haram. As was pointed out by al-Haafiz ibn Hajar in al-Fath (4/207), this is indicated by the fact that he said “I am doomed” – or according to another report, “I am burned.” The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) ruled that he had to offer expiation, and did not excuse him because he was unaware of it. This was narrated by al-Bukhaari, 1834; Muslim, 1111.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
If someone were to say: Wasn’t the man who came to the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) ignorant?
The answer is: He was ignorant of what was required of him; he was not ignorant of the fact that this was haram. Hence he said, “I am doomed.” If we say that ignorance is an excuse, we are not referring to ignorance of the consequences of this haram action, rather we are referring to ignorance of the ruling on this action and whether it is haram or not. Hence if a person commits zina and is ignorant of the fact that it is haram, and he does not live in a Muslim country, or he is new in Islam, or he lives in a remote area and does not know that zina is haram, then no hadd punishment is to be carried out on him. But if he knows that zina is haram, but he does not know that the hadd punishment for it is stoning, or lashing and banishment, then the hadd punishment should still be carried out on him, because he has transgressed a sacred limit. Ignorance of the consequences of a haram action is no excuse. Ignorance of whether an action is haram or not is an excuse.
Al-Sharh al-Mumti’, 6/417
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=3 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/20237/the-ignorance-for-which-a-person-may-be-excused-is-ignorance-of-the-ruling-not-of-the-punishment | 209 | 20,237 |
291 | He cannot control his urine and he is very old; should he fast and pray? | Question
My father has become old, 105 years of age, and he has lost his memory, sometimes he recognizes us and sometimes he does not. In the last few years he has become unable to control his urine. We change his clothes more than once each day. Does he have to pray even though he cannot remain pure? Should we make him fast?. | Praise be to Allah.
The ruling concerning your father differs depending on his
state of mind. If he loses his reason and his memory then he should not be
told to purify himself or to pray or fast, but when his mind is present and
focused and his memory is with him, then he should be told to do the duties
enjoined by sharee’ah as best as he can, without causing himself undue
hardship.
Shaykh Muhammad ibn Saalih al-‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have
mercy on him) was asked:
Do those who have lost their memory, the feeble-minded, young
children and the insane have to fast?
He replied:
Allaah has enjoined acts of worship on man if he is able to
bear that obligation, by being of sound mind and able to understand things.
But if he is not of sound mind then he does not have to do those acts of
worship. So the insane and young children who have no powers of discernment
do not have to do these acts of worship. This is by the mercy of Allaah, may
He be glorified and exalted. The same applies to the feeble-minded person
whose mind is affected in some way but not to the degree of insanity and the
elderly person who has lost his memory, as this questioner says, do not have
to fast, pray or purify themselves, because the one who has lost his memory
is like a small child who has no power of discernment, so the duties of
Islam are waived for him and he does not have to purify himself or pray, nor
does he have to fast. With regard to the financial obligations, they are
required of his wealth even in this case, so zakaah – for example – must be
paid by his guardian on his wealth if it reaches the amount at which zakaah
becomes due, because the obligation of zakaah is connected to wealth, as
Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Take Sadaqah (alms) from their wealth in order to purify
them and sanctify them with it, and invoke Allaah for them. Verily, your
invocations are a source of security for them; and Allaah is All-Hearer,
All-Knower”
[al-Tawbah 9:103]
He did not say “take it from them.”
And the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon
him) said to Mu’aadh (may Allaah be pleased with him) when he sent him to
Yemen: “Teach them that Allaah has enjoined on them sadaqah (charity) from
their wealth, to be taken from their rich and given to their poor.” He said,
“Charity from their wealth” and explained that it is to be taken from their
wealth, even though it is to be taken from the owner of the wealth.
Whatever the case, the
financial obligations are not waived for a person in this case, but the
religious obligations such as prayer, purification and fasting, are waived
in the case of people like this man, because he does not have any powers of
understanding.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen,
10, question no. 40.
The Shaykh (may Allaah have mercy on him) was also asked:
What is the ruling on fasting for one who is sane sometimes
and insane at other times, or who is incoherent one day and focused another
day?
He replied:
The ruling changes according to the reason. At times when he
is conscious and aware, he has to fast, and at times when he is insane and
incoherent, he does not have to fast. If we assume that he is insane one day
and sane another, or incoherent one day and focused another, then on the
days when he is focused he has to fast, and on the days when he is
incoherent he does not have to fast.
Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen,
10, question no. 43.
And Allaah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=3 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/50058/he-cannot-control-his-urine-and-he-is-very-old-should-he-fast-and-pray | 209 | 50,058 |
292 | Obligatory duties for those who are deaf and mute | Question
Are those who are deaf and mute accountable, and do they have to do the obligatory duties prescribed in sharee’ah? | Praise be to Allah.Shaykh ‘Abd al-‘Azeez ibn ‘Abd-Allah ibn Baz explained that the child who is deaf and mute, when he reaches the age of puberty, is considered to be accountable and expected to fulfil the obligations of prayer, etc. He added that he may be taught what he needs to know by means of writing or signing, because of the general meaning of the shar’i evidence which indicates that these obligations apply to everyone who reaches the age of puberty and is of sound mind. Puberty is reached at the age of fifteen, or when maniy (discharge) is emitted as a result of feeling desire in a dream (“wet dream”) or otherwise, and when coarse hair grows around the private parts. In the case of women, there is a fourth sign of puberty, which is the onset of menstrual periods.
The shaykh called upon the guardian of the one who is deaf or mute to pay zakah and fulfil other financial obligations on his behalf. He also has to teach him what he does not know by all possible means so that he will understand what Allah requires of him and what Allah has forbidden for him.
The shaykh quoted as evidence the words of Allah (interpretation of the meaning):
“So keep your duty to Allah and fear Him as much as you can”
[al-Taghaabun 64:16]
And the hadeeth of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him): “If I command you to do a thing, then do as much of it as you can.”
And the shaykh explained that the accountable person who cannot hear or speak, or who becomes unable to hear or speak, should fear Allah and keep his duty towards Him as much as he can by doing that which is enjoined upon him and abstaining from that which is haraam. He should try to learn as much of the religion as possible, by watching, writing and signing, so that he may understand what is required. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=3 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/13793/obligatory-duties-for-those-who-are-deaf-and-mute | 209 | 13,793 |
293 | Can Non-Muslims Pray? | Question
May a non-Muslim pray in the ranks with Muslims? Please provide evidence for yes or no. | Praise be to Allah.It is not permissible for a non-Muslim to pray either in the ranks or on his own. What he has to do is to enter Islam before he prays , then to purify himself [by doing ghusl], and then fulfil the conditions of prayer.
He is included in the obligation of prayer, and he is to be punished if he does not become Muslim and pray, but it will not be accepted from him unless he enters Islam.
Allah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And nothing prevents their contributions from being accepted from them except that they disbelieved in Allah and in His Messenger (Muhammad).” [At-Tawbah 9:54]
“If you join others in worship with Allah, (then) surely, (all) your deeds will be in vain, and you will certainly be among the losers.” [Az-Zumar 39:65]
Shaykh Ibn `Uthaymin (may Allah have mercy on him) said, when listing the conditions of prayer being valid:
“There are other conditions which include: being Muslim, being of sound mind, and having reached the age of discretion… No act of worship is valid unless one is a Muslim, of sound mind and has reached the age of discretion, apart from Zakah, which is obligatory upon the insane and minors, according to the correct opinion. With regard to the validity of Hajj performed by a minor, there are texts which state that it is valid.” (Ash-Sharh Al-Mumti`, 2/95, Ibn Al-Jawzi edition)
And he (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
“The conditions of prayer are: being Muslim, being of sound mind, and having reached the age of discretion; that the time for prayer has begin; covering the `Awrah; having purified oneself from anything that invalidates Wudu’; avoiding Najasah (impurity); facing the Qiblah; and having the intention of praying.” (Ash-Sharh Al-Mumti`, 2/289, Ibn Al-Jawzi edition)
The same applies to the other acts of worship; they can only be accepted from a Muslim, so Islam or being a Muslim is a condition of acts of worship being valid, and their being accepted depends on that.
Ibn Rushd (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
“The conditions fall into two categories:
The conditions of it being valid , and the conditions of it being obligatory . With regard to the conditions of it being valid, there is no difference of scholarly opinion that they include being Muslim, because Hajj is not valid if done by one who is not a Muslim…” (Bidayat Al-Mujtahid, 1/133)
For more details, please see the following answers: 2192 and 43164 ,
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=3 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/27101/can-non-muslims-pray | 209 | 27,101 |
294 | She did not know the signs of puberty so she did not fast in Ramadaan, out of ignorance | Question
According to custom in some Muslim countries, menstruation is regarded as the sign of puberty for women and no attention is paid to the other signs, such as the growth of pubic hair etc, which are known from the books of fiqh.
As a result of this kind of custom, one of the sisters started to observe the obligatory fast of Ramadaan after she saw menstrual blood, although at that time she was thirteen years old and she already had pubic hair before she got her period, but she does not remember whether that hair was coarse or not, and she does not remember how many years she did not fast after that hair appeared. My question is:
1 – What are the signs of a woman’s puberty, according to sharee’ah or to custom?
2 – What is the ruling on this sister’s not fasting during those Ramadaans when her hair had started to grow but she had not yet started her periods, if the custom on this issue is contrary to sharee’ah?. | Praise be to Allah.A woman is deemed to have reached puberty when one of four things happens:
1 – When she reaches the age of fifteen.
2 – When her pubic hair grows, which is hair around the private parts.
3 – When she emits maniy (fluid released at climax).
4 – When she starts to menstruate.
If one of these four things happens, then she has reached the age of puberty and she is now regarded as accountable, and she is obliged to do acts of worship just like adults. If a woman did not know that puberty begins in this manner, then there is no sin on her for not fasting, because she was unaware, and there is no sin on the person who is unaware so long as he was not negligent about learning or finding out when he was able to do so. But she must hasten to make up the fasts that she missed because when a woman reaches the age of puberty, she becomes accountable and she must make up the fasts that she missed during the time when she was accountable. She must strive to work out how many days she missed after she reached puberty, and hasten to make them up so there will no longer be any sin on her. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=3 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/21246/she-did-not-know-the-signs-of-puberty-so-she-did-not-fast-in-ramadaan-out-of-ignorance | 209 | 21,246 |
295 | Who are the ones who will be excused for ignorance about ‘aqeedah and matters of fiqh? | Question
Who are the ones who will be excused for ignorance? Will a person be excused for ignorance about matters of fiqh, or about matters of ‘aqeedah and Tawheed? What is the duty of the scholars with regard to this matter? | Praise be to Allah.Claiming that one is ignorant or using this as an excuse is a matter which needs further discussion. Not everyone can be excused for his ignorance. With regard to the things which were brought by Islam, which the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) explained and which were made clear in the Book of Allaah and are widely known among the Muslims, no claim of ignorance will be accepted in these cases, especially in matters with have to do with ‘aqeedah and the basics of religion. Allaah sent His Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) to teach the people their religion and explain it to them, and he conveyed the message clearly and explained to the ummah the truths of their religion. He explained everything and left them with a clear path which is always obvious. In the Book of Allaah there is guidance and light. If some people claim to be ignorant about things which are known to be essential parts of the religion and which are well known among the Muslims, such as claiming to be ignorant about shirk and worshipping anything other than Allaah, or claiming that salaah is not obligatory, or that fasting Ramadaan is not obligatory, or that paying zakaah is not obligatory, or that doing Hajj when one is able to is not obligatory – in these and similar matters, claims of ignorance are unacceptable from those who live among the Muslims, because they are matters which are well known among the Muslims. They are known to be essential parts of the Muslim religion and are widely known among the Muslims, so the claim of ignorance of these matters is unacceptable. This is the case if a person were to claim that he does not know that what the mushrikeen do at the graves or idols is wrong, when they call upon the dead, seek their help, offer sacrifices to them and make vows to them, or offer sacrifices to the idols, stars, trees or rocks; or seek healing or help against their enemies from the dead or idols or jinn or angels or Prophets… All of these are things which are known essentially in the religion that they are major shirk (al-shirk al-akbar). Allaah explained this clearly in His Book, and His Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) explained it clearly. He remained in Makkah for thirteen years warning the people against this shirk, and he preached the same message in Madeenah for ten years, explaining to them that it is obligatory for their worship to be purely and sincerely for Allaah Alone, and reciting to them the Book of Allaah, such as the verses (interpretation of the meaning):
“And your Lord has decreed that you worship none but Him”
[al-Israa’ 17:23]
“You (Alone) we worship, and You (Alone) we ask for help (for each and everything). [al-Faatihah 1:5]
“And they were commanded not, but that they should worship Allaah, and worship none but Him Alone (abstaining from ascribing partners to Him) [al-Bayyinah 98:5]
“So worship Allaah (Alone) by doing religious deeds sincerely for Allaah’s sake only.
Surely, the religion (i.e. the worship and the obedience) is for Allaah only [al-Zumar 39:2-3]
“Say (O Muhammad): ‘Verily, my Salaah (prayer), my sacrifice, my living, and my dying are for Allaah, the Lord of the ‘Aalameen (mankind, jinn and all that exists).
He has no partner. And of this I have been commanded, and I am the first of the Muslims.’” [al-An’aam 6:162-163]
And Allaah says, addressing His Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) (interpretation of the meaning):
“Verily, We have granted you (O Muhammad) Al-Kawthar (a river in Paradise).
Therefore turn in prayer to your Lord and sacrifice (to Him only).” [al-Kawthar 108:1-2]
“And the mosques are for Allaah (Alone), so invoke not anyone along with Allaah” [al-Jinn 72:18]
“And whoever invokes (or worships), besides Allaah, any other ilaah (god), of whom he has no proof; then his reckoning is only with his Lord. Surely, Al-Kaafiroon (the disbelievers in Allaah and in the Oneness of Allaah, polytheists, pagans, idolaters) will not be successful” [al-Mu’minoon 23:117]
The same applies in the case of those who make fun of the religion, attack it, mock it and insult it – all of these are forms of major kufr and are things for which none may be excused on the grounds of ignorance, because it is well known in the religion that insulting the religion or insulting the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) are forms of major kufr, as is making fun of the religion or mocking it. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“Say: ‘Was it at Allaah, and His Ayaat (proofs, evidences, verses, lessons, signs, revelations, etc.) and His Messenger that you were mocking?’
Make no excuse; you disbelieved after you had believed” [al-Tawbah 9:65-66]
It is obligatory for the scholars in every place to spread this knowledge among the people and to make it known so that the common folk will have no excuse and so that this important knowledge will become widespread among them; and so that they will give up their attachment to the dead and seeking help from them whether that is in Egypt, Syria, Iraq or in Madeenah at the grave of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), or in Makkah or anywhere else; and so that the pilgrims and the people will be aware, and will know the laws and religion of Allaah. The silence of the scholars is one of the reasons for the loss and ignorance of the common folk. The scholars, wherever they are, must convey to the people the religion of Allaah and teach them about the unity of Allaah (Tawheed) and the kinds of shirk, so that they will give up shirk out of understanding and so that they will worship Allaah Alone with understanding. Similarly, they must speak out against the things that happen at the grave of al-Badawi, the grave of al-Husayn (may Allaah be pleased with him), or at the grave of Shaykh ‘Abd al-Qaadir al-Jeelani or at the grave of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) in Madeenah and at other graves. The people must know that worship is due to Allaah alone, and no one else has any right to it, as Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And they were commanded not, but that they should worship Allaah, and worship none but Him Alone (abstaining from ascribing partners to Him) [al-Bayyinah 98:5]
“So worship Allaah (Alone) by doing religious deeds sincerely for Allaah’s sake only.
Surely, the religion (i.e. the worship and the obedience) is for Allaah only [al-Zumar 39:2-3]
“And your Lord has decreed that you worship none but Him” [al-Israa’ 17:23]
i.e., your Lord has commanded. So the duty of the scholars throughout the Muslim world and in the areas where there are Muslim minorities and in every place is to teach the people about the unity of Allaah (Tawheed) and to educate them about the meaning of worshipping Allaah, and to warn them against associating anything with Allaah (shirk), which is the greatest of sins. Allaah has created the two races (of mankind and the jinn) to worship Him, and He has commanded them to do that, as He says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And I (Allaah) created not the jinn and mankind except that they should worship Me (Alone)” [al-Dhaariyaat 51:56]
Worship means obeying Him and obeying His Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), devoting worship sincerely and purely to Him, and focusing one’s heart on Him. Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“O mankind! Worship your Lord (Allaah), Who created you and those who were before you so that you may become Al-Muttaqûn (the pious)” [al-Baqarah 2:21]
With regard to matters which may be unclear, such as some transactions and some matters of prayer and fasting, the one who is ignorant of them may be excused, as the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) excused the man who entered ihraam dressed in a cloak and wearing perfume. The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said to him, “Take off the cloak and wash off the perfume, and do in your ‘umrah what you do in your Hajj.” He did not tell him to pay a penalty (fidyah) for his ignorance. By the same token, some matters which may be unclear should be taught to the one who is ignorant so that he will come to understand them. But as far as the basics of ‘aqeedah, the pillars of Islam, and things which are clearly haraam are concerned, claims of ignorance cannot be accepted from anyone who lives among the Muslims. If anyone who lives among the Muslims were to say, “I did not know that zinaa is haraam”, this is no excuse. If he were to say, “I did not know that disobeying my parents is haraam,” this is no excuse; rather he should be beaten and disciplined. Or if he were to say, “I did not know that homosexuality is haraam,” this is no excuse. These are matters which are clear and are well known among the Muslims and in Islam.
But if he lived in a land far away from the Muslim world or in a remote part of Africa where there are no Muslims around him, then the claim of ignorance may be accepted from him, and if he dies in that state his case will rest with Allaah; he will come under the same ruling as those who lived during the fatrah (time between two Prophets). The correct view is that they will be tested on the Day of Resurrection: if they respond and obey they will enter Paradise, and if they disobey they will enter Hell. But the one who lived among the Muslims but did actions of kufr and neglected the well known obligations, has no excuse, because the matter is clear and there are Muslims around him, who fast and perform Hajj. All of this is well known and widespread among the Muslims, so the claim of ignorance in this case is a false claim. And Allaah is the One Whose help we seek. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=3 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/10065/who-are-the-ones-who-will-be-excused-for-ignorance-about-aqeedah-and-matters-of-fiqh | 209 | 10,065 |
296 | When Can You Pray After a Miscarriage? | Question
If a woman has a miscarriage and has discharge of blood, does she pray? | Praise be to Allah.This case depends on the type of blood. Is the blood what is known as post-natal bleeding (nifas) or vaginal bleeding (istihadah ) (but not part of her regular period)?
The scholars have declared the regulation in this matter. They said:
"If she sees the blood after the abortion of a formed human being, then it is nifas; if she sees blood after the abortion of a clot, then it is not nifas." (Al-Mughni ma' al-Sharh al-Kabir 1/361)
In the latter case, she is considered to be mustahada, so she performs wudu for every prayer when the time for it is due and she prays.
Whereas if the aborted object is a fetus or has human-formed organs like an arm or a leg or a head, then it is considered nifas.
For the case where the aborted object is disposed of in the hospital before the woman saw it, the scholars have mentioned that the least amount of time human form starts to take place is eighty one days after pregnancy. (Majmu’ Fatawa Ibn ‘Uthaymin 4/292)
This is based on the report of ‘Abdullah Bin Mas’ud's hadith (may Allah be pleased with him), in which he said that the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) spoke to us, and he is the truthful and believed one, and said: "Each one of you, human creation, forms in his mother's womb for forty days, then he is a hanging clot for the same amount of time, then he is a mudghah (the size of a morsel) for the same amount of time, then Allah sends an angel who is commanded with four things: he is told to write his deeds, his livelihood and sustenance, whether he is happy or distressed " (Sahih al-Buhari 6/303)
Ladies in this case should spend the effort to find out from the doctors' estimations until her situation is clear to her.
As for the blood that is discharged just prior to a normal delivery, if it is accompanied with the pains of contraction, then it is nifas, and if not, then it is not. Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taimiyyah (may the mercy of Allah be upon him) said: "What she sees when the contractions commence is nifas. What is referred to here is contractions after which follows delivery; otherwise it is not nifas." (Majmu’ Fatawa Ibn ‘Uthaymin 4/327)
Reference: “What Should You Do in the Following Situations by Sheikh Muhammad Salih Al-Munajjid. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=3 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/5/when-can-you-pray-after-a-miscarriage | 209 | 5 |
297 | Why do children suffer in this world? | Question
I tried to call a cooleague of mine to belief in God, and to Islam. He said that his main barrier to belief in existence of God was the puzzle that totally innocent children go through pain and suffering on Earth, and that he could not understand why, if a God existed, this could be allowed to happen.
I gave it some thought, and came up with an answer, but would like your comments too before communicating to him the answer. I wouldn't like to tell you about my answer since it might affect your original thinking. | Praise be to Allah.All people should know that Allah is All Wise, and that there is great wisdom behind His commands and decrees. He may let His slaves or some of them know the wisdom behind them, or it may be concealed from them as a test and a trial.
What He decrees in general matters happens for a general reason, such as sending the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him). Allah has told us that He sent him as a Mercy to the worlds. And similarly He created the jinn and mankind so that they might believe in Him and worship Him alone.
Ibn Taymiyah said:
Based on this, everything that He does, we know that there is wisdom behind it. This is sufficient for us in general terms, even if we do not know the details. Our lack of knowledge about the details of His wisdom is like our lack of knowledge about the details of His Essence. Just as it is proven that His attributes are perfect but we cannot know how His Essence is, so we do not reject what we know and are sure of (that He is perfect) because of what we do not know (the details of His perfection). Similarly we know that He is All-Wise in all that He does and commands. The fact that we may not know the wisdom behind some minor decrees and issues should not undermine the basic principle of what we know of His wisdom. So we should not deny what we know of His wisdom because we do not know all the details of His wisdom. We know that whoever realizes the brilliance of mathematicians, doctors and grammarians but does not share their attributes by virtue of which they deserve prominence, cannot criticize what they say because he does not comprehend what they are saying. People are less likely to understand the wisdom of Allah in His creation than the common man is to understand mathematics, medicine and grammar. So objecting to Allah’s wisdom is more ignorant and the one who does that is worse off than an ignorant man who criticizes mathematics, medicine and grammar without having any knowledge of these disciplines.
Majmoo’ al-Fataawa, 6/128
Undoubtedly in Allah’s allowing children to suffer there is great wisdom which may be hidden from some people, thus they object to the Divine decree and the Shaytaan takes advantage of this issue to turn him away from the truth and right guidance.
Among the reasons why Allah allows children to suffer are the following:
1-It is a means to show that the child is sick or in pain; if it were not for that suffering it would not be known what sickness he is suffering from.
2-The crying that is caused by the pain brings great benefits to the child’s body.
3-Learning lessons: the family of this child may be committing haraam actions or neglecting obligatory duties, but when they see the suffering of their child, that prompts them to give up those haraam actions such as consuming riba, committing zina, not praying or smoking, especially if the child’s suffering is due to an illness that they caused, as happens in the case of some of the haraam things mentioned above.
4-Thinking about the Hereafter, for there is no true happiness and peace except in Paradise; there is no suffering and pain there, only good health, well-being and happiness. And thinking about Hell, for that is the abode of eternal and never-ending pain and suffering. So one will do that which will bring him nearer to Paradise and take him further away from Hell.
Ibn Qayyim al-Jawziyyah said:
Then think about the wisdom of Allah in causing children to cry a lot, and the benefits that that brings to them. The doctors and naturalists have attested to the benefits of that and the wisdom behind it. They said: There is moisture in children’s brains which, if it were to remain in their brains, would cause a great deal of harm. So crying draws that moisture out and drains it from their brains, which makes them stronger and healthier.
Moreover, crying and yelling widens the breathing passages and veins, and strengthens them, and it strengthens the nerves.
How greatly do children benefit from the crying and yelling that we hear from them. If this is the wisdom with regard to crying that is caused by pain and the wisdom behind this never crossed your mind, the same applies to the suffering of children and its causes and good consequences. There is a great deal of wisdom that may be hidden from most of the people and they are greatly confused about it.
Miftaah Daar al-Sa’aadah, 2/228.
He also said:
These pains are one of the inherent features of man’s development from which no man or animal can be free. If man were free of pain he would not be a man, rather he would be an angel or some other creature.
Children’s pain is not more difficult than the pain experienced by grownups, but grownups have become accustomed to pain so it is no longer a big issue for them. What a great difference there is between what a child suffers and what a rational adult suffers.
All of that is one of the main aspects of the human condition. If man were not created like that he would be a different creature. What do you think if a child gets hungry or thirsty or cold or tired – is it something that he was singled out for and tested with that the grownups are not tested with? Man – and indeed animals – have been created on this basis.
They said: If someone were to ask: Why has man been created thus? Why was he not created without this vulnerability to pain and suffering?
This is a flawed question, because Allah has created him in a world of trials from a weak substance. So he is vulnerable to diseases and suffering, and Allah has created him in such a way that he is vulnerable to all kinds of pain…
The fact that these pains and pleasures coexist is one of the signs of the Hereafter, for divine wisdom has decreed that there should be two abodes: an abode that is devoted fully to pleasure, in which there is no pain at all, and an abode that is devoted fully to pain in which there is no pleasure at all. The former abode is Paradise and the latter abode is Hell.
Miftaah Daar al-Sa’aadah, 2/230, 231.
And Allah knows best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=3 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/20785/why-do-children-suffer-in-this-world | 209 | 20,785 |
298 | Is emission of semen the only sign of puberty? | Question
I am sixteen years of age and all of the signs of puberty have appeared except the emission of semen. Is this a sickness or is it something natural? Please note that my basic diet is vegetarian. | Praise be to Allah.
Puberty has signs which are well known for both males and
females. For a male, puberty is reached when one of three things happens:
the emission of semen, the growth of coarse hair around the private part, or
reaching the age of fifteen.
For a female, puberty is reached when of these three things
happens, and there is a fourth sign, namely menstruation.
It is not essential that all of these signs appear, rather
one sign is sufficient to establish that a person has reached puberty.
See: al-Sharh al-Mumti’, 6/202.
The fact that you have
reached the age of sixteen indicates that you have reached puberty, even if
no semen has been emitted.
You should note that you are now mukallaf (accountable) and
are responsible for your words and actions, as the Prophet (peace and
blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “The Pen has been lifted from three:
from a child until he reaches puberty, from one who is asleep until he wakes
up, and from the insane person until he comes to his senses.” Narrated by
Abu Dawood, 4402; al-Nasaa’i, 3432; al-Tirmidhi, 1423; Ibn Maajah, 2041.
classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh Abi Dawood.
We asked a doctor about
your situation and he said that it may be the matter of sickness, or it may
be something natural, so you should refer to a specialist doctor to find out
what is going on.
We ask Allaah to guide us and you.
And Allaah knows
best. | Accountability | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/209/accountability?page=3 | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/70425/is-emission-of-semen-the-only-sign-of-puberty | 209 | 70,425 |
299 | Effect of Invisible Aligner on the Fast | Question
When fasting, do I have to take my invisalign out while making wudu? It can retain some water. If I have to take it off when making wudu, do I have to dry it from saliva before putting it back in my mouth, since when saliva exits the mouth it breaks the fast if swallowed again. | Praise be to Allah.After speaking with some orthodontic specialists, and direct observation of a person with clear aligners, and observing the removal and replacement of the aligners; it became apparent to us that the clear aligners retain a quantity of water during rinsing. It is also possible that water leaks into the mouth without the person realizing it.
This remaining quantity exceeds the excused amount, which is what remains in the mouth after rinsing, estimated at between 1 to 1.5 ml at most through clinical medical trials.
(See: "Al-Mufattirat At-Tibbiyyah Al-Mu`sirah," Dr. Abdul Razzaq Al-Kindi, p. 172).
Therefore, since the user of the clear aligners can remove and install them alone without harm or difficulty: it is obligatory for them to remove them while fasting. They can wear them from sunset to the Fajr prayer or they can remove them after each time they rinse their mouth and empty the remaining water in them.
And Allah knows best. | Acts of worship | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/57/acts-of-worship | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/432215/effect-of-invisible-aligner-on-the-fast | 57 | 432,215 |
300 | Is it permissible for the pilgrim in ihram to wear an umbrella hat that sits directly on the head? | Question
There is an umbrella that has an elastic band that goes around the head, but the head itself is bare. Is it permissible for the pilgrim in ihram to wear it? | Praise be to Allah.Firstly:
There is a clear prohibition on covering the head with something that sits directly on the head, and on wearing a turban.
It was narrated from ‘Abdullah ibn ‘Umar (may Allah be pleased with him) that a man said: O Messenger of Allah, what clothes may the pilgrim in ihram wear? The Messenger of Allah (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “He should not wear a chemise, a turban, trousers, a burnouse or khuffs.” Narrated by al-Bukhari (1542) and Muslim (1177). The burnouse is a garment worn by the people of Morocco; it has an attached hood with which the head may be covered.
It was narrated from Ibn ‘Abbas (may Allah be pleased with him) that a man was thrown by his camel, broken his neck and died when we were with the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him ihram) and he was in ihram. The Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “Wash him with water and lotus leaves, and shroud him in two pieces of cloth, but do not put any perfume on him or cover his head, for Allah will raise him on the Day of Resurrection reciting the Talbiyah.” Narrated by al-Bukhari (1267).
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymin (may Allah have mercy on him) said: “Do not cover his head” … This is general in meaning and applies to any kind of headcover."(Ash-Sharh al-Mumti‘ 7/122).
With regard to the pilgrim in ihram covering his head, there are several categories:
-1- Covering it with something that sits directly on the head, such as a hat or turban and the like. This is prohibited. The evidence for it being prohibited is the hadith quoted above.
-2- Covering his head with something that does not sit directly on it, such as an umbrella, tent, car roof etc. There is nothing wrong with this, because Umm Husayn (may Allah be pleased with her) said: I did Hajj with the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) during the Farewell Pilgrimage, and I saw him when he stoned Jamrat al-‘Aqabah and left on his mount, accompanied by Bilal and Usamah. One of them was leading his mount and the other was holding his garment over the head of the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him), shading him from the sun. Narrated by Muslim (1298).
An-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said:
This indicates that it is permissible for the pilgrim in ihram to shade his head with a cloth and the like. This is our view and the view of the majority of scholars, whether he is riding or walking."(Sharh an-Nawawi ‘ala Muslim 9/46).
Shaykh Ibn Baz (may Allah have mercy on him) said: There is nothing wrong with the pilgrim in ihram using an umbrella to protect himself from the sun, or seeking shade in a tent or under the roof of a car. "(Majmu‘ Fatawa Ibn Baz 17/115).
Shaykh Ibn `Uthaymin (may Allah have mercy on him) said: This is exactly like an umbrella."(Ash-Sharh al-Mumti‘ 7/125).
He also said:
Shading oneself from the sun using an umbrella is not covering, because the one who is walking beside you can see all of your head. End quote.
-3-
Carrying something on one’s head. There is nothing wrong with this because it is usually not done with the intention of covering the head. If it is done with that intention, then it is prohibited.
Shaykh Ibn Baz said: As for carrying something on one’s head, it does not come under the heading of covering the head that is prohibited, such as carrying food and the like, so long as he is not doing that as a trick (to get around the ruling), because Allah has forbidden His slaves to use trickery in order to do things that He has forbidden."(Majmu‘ Fatawa Ibn Baz 17/115).
Secondly:
What appears to be the case is that the umbrella that has elastic that goes all around the head comes under the ruling on turbans and is subject to the prohibition mentioned in the texts, because the elastic goes all around the head, as a turban does, and covers part of the head.
It says in al-Mawsu‘ah al-Fiqhiyyah al-Kuwaitiyyah (2/154):
It is also haram to cover part of the head with something that is regarded as covering or is intended for the purpose of covering… So it is not permissible for him to tie a bandana or band around his head, or to put on his head anything that sits directly on it and stays there. End quote.
The elastic which holds the umbrella hat in place is like a band and more so, as is well known and is widely seen.
The Permanent Committee for Ifta’ was asked:
This is a sample for you to see of a small umbrella that offers protection from the sun, and is tied to the head. The manufacturers of this small umbrella want to know whether it is allowed to use it during Hajj so that they can distribute it, either as gifts or as an item that is sold. Therefore I hope that you can tell me your opinion regarding that, so that we may proceed.
They replied: This band with which the umbrella that protects against the sun is tied to the head comes under the same ruling as turbans. It is not permissible for the pilgrim in ihram to wear it, because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “The pilgrim in ihraam should not wear a chemise, or a turban, or trousers, or a burnouse.” The authenticity of the hadith is agreed upon."(Fatawa al-Lajnah ad-Da’imah vol. 2, 10/141).
Based on that:
It is not permissible for men in ihram to wear the umbrella hat that is tied to the head. They can do without that by using the type of umbrella that is carried in the hand.
And Allah knows best. | Acts of worship | https://islamqa.info/en/categories/topics/57/acts-of-worship | https://islamqa.info/en/answers/512578/is-it-permissible-for-the-pilgrim-in-ihram-to-wear-an-umbrella-hat-that-sits-directly-on-the-head | 57 | 512,578 |
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