P ≠ NP
I skimmed through the synopsis but this philosophical statement baffles me (although obviously it is unrelated to the validity or invalidity of the proof):<p>"The implications of [P ?= NP] on the general philosophical question of [..] whether human creativity can be automated, would be profound."<p>How so? If P!=NP, that is obeyed by the brain as much as by computers and whatever trick our brains does to be creative despite of this, will be available to computers as well, regardless of P?=NP. What am I missing?