Why Forcing Apple to Write and Sign Code Violates the First Amendment
Not worrying about what the law actually is for a moment, what I&#x27;m a bit curious about is how some here likely support the invocation of rights under the First Amendment for Apple in this case, yet will maintain that First Amendment rights for companies shouldn&#x27;t be recognized when other issues are at stake, such as a question of politics is involved (thinking the Citizens United case specifically).  How does one resolve that contradiction in constitutional interpretation?  (Yes I do know that historically constitutional rights have had partial applicability to companies recognized by courts... But even so that seems contradictory to the proper definition of a &quot;right&quot; guaranteed by the Constitution: either they apply or not.)