U.S. Supreme Court Puts Limits on Police Power to Seize Private Property
Hmm I wonder how this will affect the other civil forfeiture practice of charging the item itself with the crime (eg: &quot;United States v. $124,700 in U.S. Currency&quot; [0]) where the owner of the property is never actually charged with a crime. Maybe this will stop that because without a conviction any fine could be considered excessive?<p>The logic behind these cases has always baffled me. How do courts get around due process requirements of seizing claimed property like that?<p>[0] <a href="https:&#x2F;&#x2F;en.wikipedia.org&#x2F;wiki&#x2F;United_States_v._$124,700_in_U.S._Currency" rel="nofollow">https:&#x2F;&#x2F;en.wikipedia.org&#x2F;wiki&#x2F;United_States_v._$124,700_in_U...</a>