The Quantum Origin of Time
It seems that if we speak of information traveling &quot;backwards in time&quot;, we must make an assumption of a global time (against which to travel) -- but isn&#x27;t that (global synchronized time) known to be a myth?<p>What if each particle&#x2F;object has its own relative time frame? Doesn&#x27;t that solve the problem without needing to invoke &quot;retro-temporal causality&quot;?<p>For example, in the double slit experiment, perhaps the wave&#x2F;particle and the slits form a local time frame group, within which no further waveform collapse is necessary. When this group interacts with the &quot;environment&quot;, it may or may not have to collapse a large set of possibilities into a smaller set. If that environment includes a system which requires particle-like behavior, the interaction resolves to particle like behavior (as opposed to wave interference). The interaction of the &quot;slit-particle&#x2F;wave group&quot; with the &quot;environment group&quot; would be a &quot;synchronization event&quot; of sorts which actually determines &quot;causality&quot;. No backward time travel necessary if the &quot;arrowed&quot; forward motion of time <i>is</i> the act of waveform collapse. Causality of this sort would affect trajectories we perceive as spanning into the &quot;past&quot; (because we tend to want to view time as globally synchronized), even if in reality that whole past-present trajectory was just a superposition of all possibilities, until resolved via interaction of other &quot;quantum timeframes&quot;.<p>Does that make sense to anyone else? Apologies if this is obviously true or false -- I&#x27;m not a physicist, but do love thinking&#x2F;learning about this stuff :)