Regulating Sex Work in Medieval Europe
I have never understood the concept of victimless crime. If two (or more) people are free to choose to have sex together <i>and</i> such parties are free to enter into a commercial &#x2F; labor agreement how can the combination of the two be a problem?<p>It seems to me that it&#x27;s a way to keep women from capitalizing on the area in which they have unique value over men.<p>Obviously I&#x27;m not talking about forced sex - or forced anything. Kidnapping, slavery, and rape are illegal and certainly apply in forced prostitution.<p>But in cases when it&#x27;s a choice freely made by all parties concerned legal status can only help make it safer for all.