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medmcqa
|
Chronic urethral obstruction due to benign prismatic hyperplasia can lead to the following change in kidney parenchyma
|
[
"Hyperplasia",
"Hyperophy",
"Atrophy",
"Dyplasia"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Chronic urethral obstruction because of urinary calculi, prostatic hyperophy, tumors, normal pregnancy, tumors, uterine prolapse or functional disorders cause hydronephrosis which by definition is used to describe dilatation of renal pelvis and calculus associated with progressive atrophy of the kidney due to obstruction to the outflow of urine Refer Robbins 7yh/9,1012,9/e. P950
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Chronic urethral obstruction due to benign prismatic hyperplasia can lead to the following change in kidney parenchyma
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hyperophy
C. Atrophy
D. Dyplasia
Answer:
|
C. Chronic urethral obstruction because of urinary calculi, prostatic hyperophy, tumors, normal pregnancy, tumors, uterine prolapse or functional disorders cause hydronephrosis which by definition is used to describe dilatation of renal pelvis and calculus associated with progressive atrophy of the kidney due to obstruction to the outflow of urine Refer Robbins 7yh/9,1012,9/e. P950
|
Chronic urethral obstruction due to benign prismatic hyperplasia can lead to the following change in kidney parenchyma
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hyperophy
C. Atrophy
D. Dyplasia
| 0.216176 | 0.463657 | 0.456764 |
medmcqa
|
Which vitamin is supplied from only animal source:
|
[
"Vitamin C",
"Vitamin B7",
"Vitamin B12",
"Vitamin D"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Ans. (c) Vitamin B12 Ref: Harrison's 19th ed. P 640* Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) is synthesized solely by microorganisms.* In humans, the only source for humans is food of animal origin, e.g., meat, fish, and dairy products.* Vegetables, fruits, and other foods of nonanimal origin doesn't contain Vitamin B12 .* Daily requirements of vitamin Bp is about 1-3 pg. Body stores are of the order of 2-3 mg, sufficient for 3-4 years if supplies are completely cut off.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Which vitamin is supplied from only animal source:
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B7
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin D
Answer:
|
C. Ans. (c) Vitamin B12 Ref: Harrison's 19th ed. P 640* Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) is synthesized solely by microorganisms.* In humans, the only source for humans is food of animal origin, e.g., meat, fish, and dairy products.* Vegetables, fruits, and other foods of nonanimal origin doesn't contain Vitamin B12 .* Daily requirements of vitamin Bp is about 1-3 pg. Body stores are of the order of 2-3 mg, sufficient for 3-4 years if supplies are completely cut off.
|
Which vitamin is supplied from only animal source:
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B7
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin D
| 0.386244 | 0.655214 | 0.458199 |
medmcqa
|
All of the following are surgical options for morbid obesity except -
|
[
"Adjustable gastric banding",
"Biliopancreatic diversion",
"Duodenal Switch",
"Roux en Y Duodenal By pass"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Roux en Y Duodenal Bypass Bariatric surgical procedures include:a. Vertical banded gastroplastyb. Adjustable gastric bandingc. Roux-en Y gastric bypass (Not - Roux-en Y Duodenal Bypass)d. Biliopancreatic diversione. Duodenal switcho The surgical treatment of morbid obesity is known as bariatric surgery.o Morbid obesity is defined as body mass index of 35 kg/m2 or more with obesity related comorbidity, or BMI of 40 kg/m2 or greater without comorbidity.o Bariatric operations produce weight loss as a result of 2 factors. One is restriction of oralintake. The other is malabsorbtion of ingested food.o Gastric restrictive procedures include Vertical banded gastroplasty & Adjustable gastric bandingo Malabsorbtive procedures include Biliopancreatic diversion, and Duodenal switcho Roux-en Y gastric bypass has features of both restriction and malabsorptionBariatric Operations: Mechanism of ActionRestrictiveVertical banded gastroplastyLaparoscopic adjustable gastric bandingLargely Restrictive/Mildly MalabsorptiveRoux-en-Y gastric bypassLargely Malabsorptive/Mildly RestrictiveBiliopancreatic diversionDuodenal switch
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
All of the following are surgical options for morbid obesity except -
A. Adjustable gastric banding
B. Biliopancreatic diversion
C. Duodenal Switch
D. Roux en Y Duodenal By pass
Answer:
|
D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Roux en Y Duodenal Bypass Bariatric surgical procedures include:a. Vertical banded gastroplastyb. Adjustable gastric bandingc. Roux-en Y gastric bypass (Not - Roux-en Y Duodenal Bypass)d. Biliopancreatic diversione. Duodenal switcho The surgical treatment of morbid obesity is known as bariatric surgery.o Morbid obesity is defined as body mass index of 35 kg/m2 or more with obesity related comorbidity, or BMI of 40 kg/m2 or greater without comorbidity.o Bariatric operations produce weight loss as a result of 2 factors. One is restriction of oralintake. The other is malabsorbtion of ingested food.o Gastric restrictive procedures include Vertical banded gastroplasty & Adjustable gastric bandingo Malabsorbtive procedures include Biliopancreatic diversion, and Duodenal switcho Roux-en Y gastric bypass has features of both restriction and malabsorptionBariatric Operations: Mechanism of ActionRestrictiveVertical banded gastroplastyLaparoscopic adjustable gastric bandingLargely Restrictive/Mildly MalabsorptiveRoux-en-Y gastric bypassLargely Malabsorptive/Mildly RestrictiveBiliopancreatic diversionDuodenal switch
|
All of the following are surgical options for morbid obesity except -
A. Adjustable gastric banding
B. Biliopancreatic diversion
C. Duodenal Switch
D. Roux en Y Duodenal By pass
| 0.233073 | 0.498866 | 0.270413 |
medmcqa
|
Following endaerectomy on the right common carotid, a patient is found to be blind in the right eye. It is appears that a small thrombus embolized during surgery and lodged in the aery supplying the optic nerve. Which aery would be blocked?
|
[
"Central aery of the retina",
"Infraorbital aery",
"Lacrimal aery",
"Nasociliary aretry"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
The central aery of the retina is a branch of the ophthalmic aery. It is the sole blood supply to the retina; it has no significant collateral circulation and blockage of this vessel leads to blindness. The branches of this aery are what you view during a fundoscopic exam. Note: The infraorbital aery is a branch of the maxillary aery. It comes through the infraorbital foramen, inferior to the eye. It supplies the maxillary sinus, the maxillary incisors, canine and premolar teeth, and the skin of the cheek below the orbit. The supraorbital aery is another branch of the maxillary aery. It comes through the supraorbital foramen and supplies blood to the muscles, skin and fascia of the forehead. The lacrimal aery is a branch of the ophthalmic aery that supplies the lacrimal gland. The nasociliary aery doesn't exist, but there is a nasociliary nerve that travels with the ophthalmic aery. Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 18. Orbit. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Following endaerectomy on the right common carotid, a patient is found to be blind in the right eye. It is appears that a small thrombus embolized during surgery and lodged in the aery supplying the optic nerve. Which aery would be blocked?
A. Central aery of the retina
B. Infraorbital aery
C. Lacrimal aery
D. Nasociliary aretry
Answer:
|
A. The central aery of the retina is a branch of the ophthalmic aery. It is the sole blood supply to the retina; it has no significant collateral circulation and blockage of this vessel leads to blindness. The branches of this aery are what you view during a fundoscopic exam. Note: The infraorbital aery is a branch of the maxillary aery. It comes through the infraorbital foramen, inferior to the eye. It supplies the maxillary sinus, the maxillary incisors, canine and premolar teeth, and the skin of the cheek below the orbit. The supraorbital aery is another branch of the maxillary aery. It comes through the supraorbital foramen and supplies blood to the muscles, skin and fascia of the forehead. The lacrimal aery is a branch of the ophthalmic aery that supplies the lacrimal gland. The nasociliary aery doesn't exist, but there is a nasociliary nerve that travels with the ophthalmic aery. Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 18. Orbit. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy.
|
Following endaerectomy on the right common carotid, a patient is found to be blind in the right eye. It is appears that a small thrombus embolized during surgery and lodged in the aery supplying the optic nerve. Which aery would be blocked?
A. Central aery of the retina
B. Infraorbital aery
C. Lacrimal aery
D. Nasociliary aretry
| 0.363936 | 0.539744 | 0.312651 |
medmcqa
|
Growth hormone has its effect on growth through?
|
[
"Directly",
"IG1-1",
"Thyroxine",
"Intranuclear receptors"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., IGI-1GH has two major functions :-i) Growth of skeletal system :- The growth is mediated by somatomedins (IGF). Increased deposition of cailage (including chondroitin sulfate) and bone with increased proliferation of chondrocytes and osteocytes.ii) Metabolic effects :- Most of the metabolic effects are due to direct action of GH. These include gluconeogenesis, decreased peripheral utilization of glucose (decreased uptake), lipolysis and anabolic effect on proteins.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Growth hormone has its effect on growth through?
A. Directly
B. IG1-1
C. Thyroxine
D. Intranuclear receptors
Answer:
|
B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., IGI-1GH has two major functions :-i) Growth of skeletal system :- The growth is mediated by somatomedins (IGF). Increased deposition of cailage (including chondroitin sulfate) and bone with increased proliferation of chondrocytes and osteocytes.ii) Metabolic effects :- Most of the metabolic effects are due to direct action of GH. These include gluconeogenesis, decreased peripheral utilization of glucose (decreased uptake), lipolysis and anabolic effect on proteins.
|
Growth hormone has its effect on growth through?
A. Directly
B. IG1-1
C. Thyroxine
D. Intranuclear receptors
| 0.314008 | 0.575933 | 0.575933 |
medmcqa
|
Scrub typhus is transmitted by: September 2004
|
[
"Louse",
"Tick",
"Mite",
"Milk"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Ans. C i.e. Mite
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Scrub typhus is transmitted by: September 2004
A. Louse
B. Tick
C. Mite
D. Milk
Answer:
|
C. Ans. C i.e. Mite
|
Scrub typhus is transmitted by: September 2004
A. Louse
B. Tick
C. Mite
D. Milk
| 0.24368 | 0.510549 | 0.440825 |
medmcqa
|
Abnormal vascular patterns seen with colposcopy in case of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia are all except
|
[
"Punctation",
"Mosaicism",
"Satellite lesions",
"Atypical vessels"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Abnormal vascular pattern include punctation, mosaicism and atypical vessels.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Abnormal vascular patterns seen with colposcopy in case of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia are all except
A. Punctation
B. Mosaicism
C. Satellite lesions
D. Atypical vessels
Answer:
|
C. Abnormal vascular pattern include punctation, mosaicism and atypical vessels.
|
Abnormal vascular patterns seen with colposcopy in case of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia are all except
A. Punctation
B. Mosaicism
C. Satellite lesions
D. Atypical vessels
| 0.295499 | 0.456181 | 0.340296 |
medmcqa
|
Per rectum examination is not a useful test for diagnosis of
|
[
"Anal fissure",
"Hemorrhoid",
"Pilonidal sinus",
"Rectal ulcer"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
PILONIDAL SINUS/DISEASE (Jeep Bottom; Driver's Bottom) Pilus--hair; Nidus--nest It is epithelium lined tract, situated sho distance behind the anus, containing hairs and unhealthy diseased granula- tion tissue. It is due to penetration of hairs through the skin into subcutaneous tissue. It forms granuloma/unhealthy granulation tissue in the deeper plane. It is of infective origin and occurs in sacral region between the buttocks, umbilicus, axilla. Other indications of per rectal examination are:Carcinoma rectum, Stricture rectum, Polyps, BPH and carcinoma prostate, Secondaries in the rectovesical pouch (Blumer shelf), Sphincter tone, Pelvic abscess (is felt as boggy swelling), to feel the internal opening of anal fistulas, in bimanual palpation of the bladder or pelvic tumours, in acute abdominal conditions--it reveals dilated empty rectum with tenderness.Reference : page 967 and 952 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Per rectum examination is not a useful test for diagnosis of
A. Anal fissure
B. Hemorrhoid
C. Pilonidal sinus
D. Rectal ulcer
Answer:
|
C. PILONIDAL SINUS/DISEASE (Jeep Bottom; Driver's Bottom) Pilus--hair; Nidus--nest It is epithelium lined tract, situated sho distance behind the anus, containing hairs and unhealthy diseased granula- tion tissue. It is due to penetration of hairs through the skin into subcutaneous tissue. It forms granuloma/unhealthy granulation tissue in the deeper plane. It is of infective origin and occurs in sacral region between the buttocks, umbilicus, axilla. Other indications of per rectal examination are:Carcinoma rectum, Stricture rectum, Polyps, BPH and carcinoma prostate, Secondaries in the rectovesical pouch (Blumer shelf), Sphincter tone, Pelvic abscess (is felt as boggy swelling), to feel the internal opening of anal fistulas, in bimanual palpation of the bladder or pelvic tumours, in acute abdominal conditions--it reveals dilated empty rectum with tenderness.Reference : page 967 and 952 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition
|
Per rectum examination is not a useful test for diagnosis of
A. Anal fissure
B. Hemorrhoid
C. Pilonidal sinus
D. Rectal ulcer
| 0.280584 | 0.63638 | 0.306986 |
medmcqa
|
Characteristics of Remifentanyl – a) Metabolised by plasma esteraseb) Short half lifec) More potent than Alfentanyld) Dose reduced in hepatic and renal diseasee) Duration of action more than Alfentanyl
|
[
"ab",
"bc",
"abc",
"bcd"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Remifentanil is the shortest acting opioid due to its metabolism by plasma esterase → dose adjustment is not needed in liver or kidney disease. It is more potent than alfentanil : Order of potency is Sufentanil > Fentanyl = Remifentanil > Alfentanil.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Characteristics of Remifentanyl – a) Metabolised by plasma esteraseb) Short half lifec) More potent than Alfentanyld) Dose reduced in hepatic and renal diseasee) Duration of action more than Alfentanyl
A. ab
B. bc
C. abc
D. bcd
Answer:
|
C. Remifentanil is the shortest acting opioid due to its metabolism by plasma esterase → dose adjustment is not needed in liver or kidney disease. It is more potent than alfentanil : Order of potency is Sufentanil > Fentanyl = Remifentanil > Alfentanil.
|
Characteristics of Remifentanyl – a) Metabolised by plasma esteraseb) Short half lifec) More potent than Alfentanyld) Dose reduced in hepatic and renal diseasee) Duration of action more than Alfentanyl
A. ab
B. bc
C. abc
D. bcd
| 0.258156 | 0.365914 | 0.290734 |
medmcqa
|
Hypomimia is ?
|
[
"Decreased ability to copy",
"Decreased execution",
"Deficit of expression by gesture",
"Deficit of fluent speech"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Ans. C. Deficit of expression by gestureHypomimiaHypomimia or amimia is a deficit or absence of expression by gesture or mimicry.This is usually most obvious as a lack of facial expressive mobility (mask - like facies).This is a feature of frontal subcoical disease.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Hypomimia is ?
A. Decreased ability to copy
B. Decreased execution
C. Deficit of expression by gesture
D. Deficit of fluent speech
Answer:
|
C. Ans. C. Deficit of expression by gestureHypomimiaHypomimia or amimia is a deficit or absence of expression by gesture or mimicry.This is usually most obvious as a lack of facial expressive mobility (mask - like facies).This is a feature of frontal subcoical disease.
|
Hypomimia is ?
A. Decreased ability to copy
B. Decreased execution
C. Deficit of expression by gesture
D. Deficit of fluent speech
| 0.343004 | 0.518381 | 0.295667 |
medmcqa
|
Naglers reaction is shown by
|
[
"Clostridium tetani",
"Clostridium botulinum",
"Clostridium perfringens",
"Clostridium septicum"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Nagler's reaction - when Clostridium perfringens is grown in media containing 6 % agar, 5% Fildes peptic digest of sheep blood and 20% human serum, with antitoxin spread on one half of plate, colonies in the other half without antitoxin will be surrounded by a zone of opacity. No opacity around the colonies on the half of plate with antitoxin, this is due to the specific neutralization of the alpha-toxin. This specific lecithinase effect, known as the Nagler's reaction. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 263
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Naglers reaction is shown by
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium septicum
Answer:
|
C. Nagler's reaction - when Clostridium perfringens is grown in media containing 6 % agar, 5% Fildes peptic digest of sheep blood and 20% human serum, with antitoxin spread on one half of plate, colonies in the other half without antitoxin will be surrounded by a zone of opacity. No opacity around the colonies on the half of plate with antitoxin, this is due to the specific neutralization of the alpha-toxin. This specific lecithinase effect, known as the Nagler's reaction. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 263
|
Naglers reaction is shown by
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium septicum
| 0.36022 | 0.544857 | 0.272093 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following statements are True/False? 1. Hirsutism, which is defined as androgen-dependent excessive male pattern hair growth, affects approximately 25% of women. 2. Virilization refers to a condition in which androgen levels are sufficiently high to cause additional signs and symptoms. 3. Frequently, patients with growth hormone excess (i.e., acromegaly) present with hirsutism. 4. A simple and commonly used method to grade hair growth is the modified scale of Ferriman and Gallwey. 5. Scores above 8 suggest excess androgen-mediated hair growth.
|
[
"1, 2, 3 True & 4, 5 false",
"1, 3, 5 True & 2, 4 false",
"2, 4, 5 True & 1, 3 false",
"1, 2, 3, 4 True & 5 false"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Here statement 1 & 3 are wrong. It is actually a direct pick from harrison, an impoant topic for entrance examinations hirsutism is seen in 10% of woman. Acromegaly rarely causes hirsutism. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 380-382
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Which of the following statements are True/False? 1. Hirsutism, which is defined as androgen-dependent excessive male pattern hair growth, affects approximately 25% of women. 2. Virilization refers to a condition in which androgen levels are sufficiently high to cause additional signs and symptoms. 3. Frequently, patients with growth hormone excess (i.e., acromegaly) present with hirsutism. 4. A simple and commonly used method to grade hair growth is the modified scale of Ferriman and Gallwey. 5. Scores above 8 suggest excess androgen-mediated hair growth.
A. 1, 2, 3 True & 4, 5 false
B. 1, 3, 5 True & 2, 4 false
C. 2, 4, 5 True & 1, 3 false
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 True & 5 false
Answer:
|
C. Here statement 1 & 3 are wrong. It is actually a direct pick from harrison, an impoant topic for entrance examinations hirsutism is seen in 10% of woman. Acromegaly rarely causes hirsutism. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 380-382
|
Which of the following statements are True/False? 1. Hirsutism, which is defined as androgen-dependent excessive male pattern hair growth, affects approximately 25% of women. 2. Virilization refers to a condition in which androgen levels are sufficiently high to cause additional signs and symptoms. 3. Frequently, patients with growth hormone excess (i.e., acromegaly) present with hirsutism. 4. A simple and commonly used method to grade hair growth is the modified scale of Ferriman and Gallwey. 5. Scores above 8 suggest excess androgen-mediated hair growth.
A. 1, 2, 3 True & 4, 5 false
B. 1, 3, 5 True & 2, 4 false
C. 2, 4, 5 True & 1, 3 false
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 True & 5 false
| 0.339306 | 0.4952 | 0.421832 |
medmcqa
|
The pharmakokinetic change occurring in geriatric patient is due to
|
[
"Gastric absorption",
"Liver metabolism",
"Renal clearance",
"Hypersensitivity"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
One of the most impoant pharmacokinetic changes associated with aging is decreased renal elimination of drugs. After age 40, creatinine clearance decreases an average of 8 mL/min/1.73 m2/decade; however, the age-related decrease varies substantially from person to person. Serum creatinine levels often remain within normal limits despite a decrease in GFR because older adults generally have less muscle mass and are generally less physically active than younger adults and thus produce less creatinine. Maintenance of normal serum creatinine levels can mislead clinicians who assume those levels reflect normal kidney function. Decreases in tubular function with age parallel those in glomerular function. Refer katzung 11/e p1039
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
The pharmakokinetic change occurring in geriatric patient is due to
A. Gastric absorption
B. Liver metabolism
C. Renal clearance
D. Hypersensitivity
Answer:
|
C. One of the most impoant pharmacokinetic changes associated with aging is decreased renal elimination of drugs. After age 40, creatinine clearance decreases an average of 8 mL/min/1.73 m2/decade; however, the age-related decrease varies substantially from person to person. Serum creatinine levels often remain within normal limits despite a decrease in GFR because older adults generally have less muscle mass and are generally less physically active than younger adults and thus produce less creatinine. Maintenance of normal serum creatinine levels can mislead clinicians who assume those levels reflect normal kidney function. Decreases in tubular function with age parallel those in glomerular function. Refer katzung 11/e p1039
|
The pharmakokinetic change occurring in geriatric patient is due to
A. Gastric absorption
B. Liver metabolism
C. Renal clearance
D. Hypersensitivity
| 0.259592 | 0.44455 | 0.305577 |
medmcqa
|
True regarding lag phase is?
|
[
"Time taken to adpt in the new environment",
"Growth occurs exponentially",
"The plateau in lag phase is due to cell death",
"It is the 2nd phase in bacterial growth curve"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Lag phase: Immediately following the seeding of a culture medium, there is no appreciable number, though there may be an increase in the size of the cells. This initial period is the time required for the adaptation to the new environment, during which the necessary enzymes and metabolic intermediates are built up in adequate quantities for multiplication to proceed. The duration of the lag phase varies with the species, sizes of the inoculation, nature of the culture media and the environmental factors such as temperature REF:Ananthanarayan & Panicker's Textbook of Microbiology 8th edition pg no: 24
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
True regarding lag phase is?
A. Time taken to adpt in the new environment
B. Growth occurs exponentially
C. The plateau in lag phase is due to cell death
D. It is the 2nd phase in bacterial growth curve
Answer:
|
A. Lag phase: Immediately following the seeding of a culture medium, there is no appreciable number, though there may be an increase in the size of the cells. This initial period is the time required for the adaptation to the new environment, during which the necessary enzymes and metabolic intermediates are built up in adequate quantities for multiplication to proceed. The duration of the lag phase varies with the species, sizes of the inoculation, nature of the culture media and the environmental factors such as temperature REF:Ananthanarayan & Panicker's Textbook of Microbiology 8th edition pg no: 24
|
True regarding lag phase is?
A. Time taken to adpt in the new environment
B. Growth occurs exponentially
C. The plateau in lag phase is due to cell death
D. It is the 2nd phase in bacterial growth curve
| 0.403979 | 0.509203 | 0.392955 |
medmcqa
|
A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria
|
[
"USG",
"X-ray KUB",
"Urine routine",
"Urine microscopy for malignant cytology cells"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
Urine microscopy for malignant cytology "Painless haematuria is by far the most common symptom of bladder cancer and should be regarded as indicative of a bladder carcinoma until proven otherwise." Bailey & Love 25/e p1336 (24/e p1363) Cigarette smoking is the main etiological factor and accounts ,for about 50% of bladder cancers Among the given options 'urine microscopy' is the best choice for investigating a pt. with high suspicion for bladder ca. This is not a good screening test but a positive result is highly specific. The best investigation would be cystoscopy & biopsy. Investigations for bladder cancer 1. Urinary cytology - Exfoliated cells from both normal and neoplastic urothelium can be readily identified in voided urine. Examination of cytological specimens can detect the malignant cells either at the time of initial presentation or during follow-up. Cytological examination may be especially useful in screening high-risk population and assessing the response to treatment. 2. Cystourethroscopy and tumor resection - The diagnosis and initial staging of bladder cancer is made by cystoscopy and transurethral resection. 3.Imaging (IVP, CT, MRI) - Although various imaging techniques can detect bladder cancer, its presence is confirmed by cystoscopy & biopsy. - Therefore imaging modalities are used to image the upper urinary tract and, when infiltrating bladder tumors are detected to assess the depth of muscle wall infiltration and the presence of local & distant metastasis. - Intravenous urography remains one of the most common imaging tests for the evaluation of hematuria. However, intravenous pyelography is increasingly being replaced by computed tomography (CT) urography, which is more accurate, for evaluation of the entire abdominal cavity, renal parenchyma, and ureters in patients with hematuria. Bladder tumors may be recognized as pedunculated, radiolucent filling defects projecting into the lumen; nonpapillary, infiltrating tumors may result in fixation or flattening of the bladder wall. 4. Urinary tumor markers - - Several new tests have been developed in order to overcome the shocomings of urinary cytology such as the low sensitivity for low-grade superficial tumors and inter-observer variability. - Commercially available tests include, the BTA test, the BTA stat test, the BTA TRAK assay determination of urinary nuclear matrix protein (NMP22), Immunocyt and UroVysion . - These tests can detect cancer specific proteins in urine (BTA/NMP22) or augment cytology by identifying cell surface or cytogenetic markers in the nucleus. Other tests under investigation include identification of the Lewis X antigen on exfoliated urothelial cells, and the determination of telomerase activity in exfoliated cells. - These tests have been demonstrated to enhance detection of bladder cancer when used either individually or in combination with cytology. They have been used to detect both new index tumors as well as recurrent tumors.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria
A. USG
B. X-ray KUB
C. Urine routine
D. Urine microscopy for malignant cytology cells
Answer:
|
D. Urine microscopy for malignant cytology "Painless haematuria is by far the most common symptom of bladder cancer and should be regarded as indicative of a bladder carcinoma until proven otherwise." Bailey & Love 25/e p1336 (24/e p1363) Cigarette smoking is the main etiological factor and accounts ,for about 50% of bladder cancers Among the given options 'urine microscopy' is the best choice for investigating a pt. with high suspicion for bladder ca. This is not a good screening test but a positive result is highly specific. The best investigation would be cystoscopy & biopsy. Investigations for bladder cancer 1. Urinary cytology - Exfoliated cells from both normal and neoplastic urothelium can be readily identified in voided urine. Examination of cytological specimens can detect the malignant cells either at the time of initial presentation or during follow-up. Cytological examination may be especially useful in screening high-risk population and assessing the response to treatment. 2. Cystourethroscopy and tumor resection - The diagnosis and initial staging of bladder cancer is made by cystoscopy and transurethral resection. 3.Imaging (IVP, CT, MRI) - Although various imaging techniques can detect bladder cancer, its presence is confirmed by cystoscopy & biopsy. - Therefore imaging modalities are used to image the upper urinary tract and, when infiltrating bladder tumors are detected to assess the depth of muscle wall infiltration and the presence of local & distant metastasis. - Intravenous urography remains one of the most common imaging tests for the evaluation of hematuria. However, intravenous pyelography is increasingly being replaced by computed tomography (CT) urography, which is more accurate, for evaluation of the entire abdominal cavity, renal parenchyma, and ureters in patients with hematuria. Bladder tumors may be recognized as pedunculated, radiolucent filling defects projecting into the lumen; nonpapillary, infiltrating tumors may result in fixation or flattening of the bladder wall. 4. Urinary tumor markers - - Several new tests have been developed in order to overcome the shocomings of urinary cytology such as the low sensitivity for low-grade superficial tumors and inter-observer variability. - Commercially available tests include, the BTA test, the BTA stat test, the BTA TRAK assay determination of urinary nuclear matrix protein (NMP22), Immunocyt and UroVysion . - These tests can detect cancer specific proteins in urine (BTA/NMP22) or augment cytology by identifying cell surface or cytogenetic markers in the nucleus. Other tests under investigation include identification of the Lewis X antigen on exfoliated urothelial cells, and the determination of telomerase activity in exfoliated cells. - These tests have been demonstrated to enhance detection of bladder cancer when used either individually or in combination with cytology. They have been used to detect both new index tumors as well as recurrent tumors.
|
A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria
A. USG
B. X-ray KUB
C. Urine routine
D. Urine microscopy for malignant cytology cells
| 0.265814 | 0.473127 | 0.254376 |
medmcqa
|
With which of the following receptors theophylline has an antagonistic interaction ?
|
[
"Histamine receptors",
"Bradykinin receptors",
"Adenosine receptors",
"Imidazoline receptors"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
With which of the following receptors theophylline has an antagonistic interaction ?
A. Histamine receptors
B. Bradykinin receptors
C. Adenosine receptors
D. Imidazoline receptors
Answer:
|
C.
|
With which of the following receptors theophylline has an antagonistic interaction ?
A. Histamine receptors
B. Bradykinin receptors
C. Adenosine receptors
D. Imidazoline receptors
| 0.544814 | 0.522389 | 0.446535 |
|
medmcqa
|
Hyper viscosity is seen in
|
[
"Cryoglobulinemia",
"Multiple myeloma",
"MGUS",
"Lymphoma"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Ref William hematology 6/e p1268 The term cryoglobulinemia refers to the presence in the serum of proteins that precipitate at temperatures below 37 degrees C and redissolve on rewarming. ... The elective treatment for hyperviscosity syndrome, whether associated with monoclonal, mixed, or polyclonalcryoglobulinemia, is plasma exchange.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Hyper viscosity is seen in
A. Cryoglobulinemia
B. Multiple myeloma
C. MGUS
D. Lymphoma
Answer:
|
A. Ref William hematology 6/e p1268 The term cryoglobulinemia refers to the presence in the serum of proteins that precipitate at temperatures below 37 degrees C and redissolve on rewarming. ... The elective treatment for hyperviscosity syndrome, whether associated with monoclonal, mixed, or polyclonalcryoglobulinemia, is plasma exchange.
|
Hyper viscosity is seen in
A. Cryoglobulinemia
B. Multiple myeloma
C. MGUS
D. Lymphoma
| 0.290843 | 0.430189 | 0.343467 |
medmcqa
|
For a positively skewed curve which measure of central tendency is largest
|
[
"Mean",
"Mode",
"Median",
"All are equal"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
A distribution is negatively skewed, or skewed to the left, if the scores fall toward the higher side of the scale and there are very few low scores. In positively skewed distributions, the mean is usually greater than the median, which is always greater than the mode. Ref :
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
For a positively skewed curve which measure of central tendency is largest
A. Mean
B. Mode
C. Median
D. All are equal
Answer:
|
A. A distribution is negatively skewed, or skewed to the left, if the scores fall toward the higher side of the scale and there are very few low scores. In positively skewed distributions, the mean is usually greater than the median, which is always greater than the mode. Ref :
|
For a positively skewed curve which measure of central tendency is largest
A. Mean
B. Mode
C. Median
D. All are equal
| 0.323207 | 0.711569 | 0.478249 |
medmcqa
|
The process of hardening a cement matrix through hydration with oral fluids to achieve greater mechanical strength is known as:
|
[
"Maturation",
"Setting",
"Hardening",
"Mineralization"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Maturation (cement)—The process of hardening a cement matrix through hydration with oral fluids to achieve greater mechanical strength.
Ref: Phillip’s Science of Dental Materials ed 12 pg 309
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
The process of hardening a cement matrix through hydration with oral fluids to achieve greater mechanical strength is known as:
A. Maturation
B. Setting
C. Hardening
D. Mineralization
Answer:
|
A. Maturation (cement)—The process of hardening a cement matrix through hydration with oral fluids to achieve greater mechanical strength.
Ref: Phillip’s Science of Dental Materials ed 12 pg 309
|
The process of hardening a cement matrix through hydration with oral fluids to achieve greater mechanical strength is known as:
A. Maturation
B. Setting
C. Hardening
D. Mineralization
| 0.34601 | 0.355371 | 0.333023 |
medmcqa
|
Superior vena cava is derived from:
|
[
"Aortic arch",
"Pharyngeal arch",
"Cardinal vein",
"Vitelline vein"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Ans. C Cardinal veinRef; hangman's essesntial medical Embroyology pg. 57# During early embryonic development (through 4th week), paired cardinal veins drain the body. Anterior cardinal veins drain the head and upper limb buds, while posterior cardinal veins drain the body. Both the anterior and posterior veins on each side unite at the common cardinal veins that flow into the sinus venosus and ultimately into the common atrium (Image).# Anterior cardinal veins are retained. An anastomosis between the two forms the left brachiocephalic vein, and anterior segments from both form the jugular system for the head and neck (Image).# Most of the posterior segment on the left disappears except for that forming the left superior intercostal vein, whereas the right posterior segment forms the superior vena cava.Extra mileDefects of SVC Development* Double inferior vena cava occurs when the left supracardinal vein persists, thereby forming an additional inferior vena cava below the level of the kidneys.* Left superior vena cava occurs when the left anterior cardinal vein persists, forming a superior vena cava on the left side. The right anterior cardinal vein abnormally regresses.* Double superior vena cava occurs when the left anterior cardinal vein persists, forming a superior vena cava on the left side. The right anterior cardinal vein also forms a superior vena cava on the right side.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Superior vena cava is derived from:
A. Aortic arch
B. Pharyngeal arch
C. Cardinal vein
D. Vitelline vein
Answer:
|
C. Ans. C Cardinal veinRef; hangman's essesntial medical Embroyology pg. 57# During early embryonic development (through 4th week), paired cardinal veins drain the body. Anterior cardinal veins drain the head and upper limb buds, while posterior cardinal veins drain the body. Both the anterior and posterior veins on each side unite at the common cardinal veins that flow into the sinus venosus and ultimately into the common atrium (Image).# Anterior cardinal veins are retained. An anastomosis between the two forms the left brachiocephalic vein, and anterior segments from both form the jugular system for the head and neck (Image).# Most of the posterior segment on the left disappears except for that forming the left superior intercostal vein, whereas the right posterior segment forms the superior vena cava.Extra mileDefects of SVC Development* Double inferior vena cava occurs when the left supracardinal vein persists, thereby forming an additional inferior vena cava below the level of the kidneys.* Left superior vena cava occurs when the left anterior cardinal vein persists, forming a superior vena cava on the left side. The right anterior cardinal vein abnormally regresses.* Double superior vena cava occurs when the left anterior cardinal vein persists, forming a superior vena cava on the left side. The right anterior cardinal vein also forms a superior vena cava on the right side.
|
Superior vena cava is derived from:
A. Aortic arch
B. Pharyngeal arch
C. Cardinal vein
D. Vitelline vein
| 0.32201 | 0.563425 | 0.328116 |
medmcqa
|
Testicular artery usually arises from
|
[
"Abdominal aorta below renal artery",
"Renal artery",
"Internal iliac artery",
"Ext iliac artery"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Ans) a (Abdominal aorta ....) Ref Chaurasia vol 2 pg 186Testicular artery is a branch of abdominal aorta given off at the level of vertebrae L2.Venous drainageVeins emerging from the testis forms pampiniform plexus. Plexus condenses into 4 veins at the superficial inguinal ring & into 2 veins at the deep inguinal ring.Ultimately one vein is formed which drains into IVC (on right side) or left renal vein (on left side).
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Testicular artery usually arises from
A. Abdominal aorta below renal artery
B. Renal artery
C. Internal iliac artery
D. Ext iliac artery
Answer:
|
A. Ans) a (Abdominal aorta ....) Ref Chaurasia vol 2 pg 186Testicular artery is a branch of abdominal aorta given off at the level of vertebrae L2.Venous drainageVeins emerging from the testis forms pampiniform plexus. Plexus condenses into 4 veins at the superficial inguinal ring & into 2 veins at the deep inguinal ring.Ultimately one vein is formed which drains into IVC (on right side) or left renal vein (on left side).
|
Testicular artery usually arises from
A. Abdominal aorta below renal artery
B. Renal artery
C. Internal iliac artery
D. Ext iliac artery
| 0.276173 | 0.445418 | 0.324371 |
medmcqa
|
Position of vocal cord in cadaver is:
|
[
"Median",
"Paramedian",
"Intermediate",
"Full Abduction"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
The vocal fold of the excised larynx is known to be located at an intermediate position(the so-called cadaver position).
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Position of vocal cord in cadaver is:
A. Median
B. Paramedian
C. Intermediate
D. Full Abduction
Answer:
|
C. The vocal fold of the excised larynx is known to be located at an intermediate position(the so-called cadaver position).
|
Position of vocal cord in cadaver is:
A. Median
B. Paramedian
C. Intermediate
D. Full Abduction
| 0.426185 | 0.509684 | 0.269908 |
medmcqa
|
Organisms that has not been cultured successfully so far is-
|
[
"Leptospira",
"Treponema pallidum",
"Bordetella",
"Staphylococcus"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Organisms that has not been cultured successfully so far is-
A. Leptospira
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Bordetella
D. Staphylococcus
Answer:
|
B.
|
Organisms that has not been cultured successfully so far is-
A. Leptospira
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Bordetella
D. Staphylococcus
| 0.306285 | 0.44814 | 0.382931 |
|
medmcqa
|
Normal waist hip ratio of a female is below
|
[
"0.7",
"0.8",
"0.9",
"1"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
WHO CUT-OFF POINTS OF WHR Indicator CUT-OFF points Risk of metabolic complications Waist circumference >94 cm (M) >80 cm (W) Increased Hip cirrcumference >102 cm (M) >88 cm (W) Substantially increased Waist-Hip ratio >= 0.95(M) >= 0.80(W) Substantially increased Ref: Park 23rd edition Pgno : 400 WC & WHR, WHO Consultation 2008
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Normal waist hip ratio of a female is below
A. 0.7
B. 0.8
C. 0.9
D. 1
Answer:
|
B. WHO CUT-OFF POINTS OF WHR Indicator CUT-OFF points Risk of metabolic complications Waist circumference >94 cm (M) >80 cm (W) Increased Hip cirrcumference >102 cm (M) >88 cm (W) Substantially increased Waist-Hip ratio >= 0.95(M) >= 0.80(W) Substantially increased Ref: Park 23rd edition Pgno : 400 WC & WHR, WHO Consultation 2008
|
Normal waist hip ratio of a female is below
A. 0.7
B. 0.8
C. 0.9
D. 1
| 0.349977 | 0.488789 | 0.365708 |
medmcqa
|
The most common cause of renal scaring in a 3 year old child is -
|
[
"Trauma",
"Tuberculosis",
"Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis",
"Interstitial nephritis"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Chronic pyelonephritis is characterized by renal inflammation and scarring induced by recurrent or persistent renal infection, vesicoureteral reflux, or other causes of urinary tract obstruction. VUR is a congenital condition that results from incompetence of the ureterovesical valve due to a sho intramural segment Ref Harrison20th edition pg 234
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
The most common cause of renal scaring in a 3 year old child is -
A. Trauma
B. Tuberculosis
C. Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis
D. Interstitial nephritis
Answer:
|
C. Chronic pyelonephritis is characterized by renal inflammation and scarring induced by recurrent or persistent renal infection, vesicoureteral reflux, or other causes of urinary tract obstruction. VUR is a congenital condition that results from incompetence of the ureterovesical valve due to a sho intramural segment Ref Harrison20th edition pg 234
|
The most common cause of renal scaring in a 3 year old child is -
A. Trauma
B. Tuberculosis
C. Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis
D. Interstitial nephritis
| 0.183512 | 0.408604 | 0.374495 |
medmcqa
|
A 6hours old snake bite patient comes to emergency with mild local edema at the injury site. On examination no abnormalities detected and lab repos are normal. Most appropriate management is
|
[
"Incision and suction",
"Wait and watch",
"Local subcutaneous antisnake venom",
"Intravenous antisnake venom"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
All patients with a history of snake bite should be observed for 8-12 h after the bite, if the skin is broken and the offending snake cannot be positively identified as non-poisonous. Ref: Krishnan vij ; 5th ed; Page no: 484
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
A 6hours old snake bite patient comes to emergency with mild local edema at the injury site. On examination no abnormalities detected and lab repos are normal. Most appropriate management is
A. Incision and suction
B. Wait and watch
C. Local subcutaneous antisnake venom
D. Intravenous antisnake venom
Answer:
|
B. All patients with a history of snake bite should be observed for 8-12 h after the bite, if the skin is broken and the offending snake cannot be positively identified as non-poisonous. Ref: Krishnan vij ; 5th ed; Page no: 484
|
A 6hours old snake bite patient comes to emergency with mild local edema at the injury site. On examination no abnormalities detected and lab repos are normal. Most appropriate management is
A. Incision and suction
B. Wait and watch
C. Local subcutaneous antisnake venom
D. Intravenous antisnake venom
| 0.242211 | 0.471127 | 0.266783 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with recurrent meningitis due to CSF leaks?
|
[
"Meningococci",
"Pneumococci",
"Hemophilus Influenza",
"E. Coli"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
Intracranial CSF leaks cause bacterial meningitis, about 80% are caused by S. Pneumoniae. Other causative organisms are meningococcus, Hemophilus species and S.aurues. Ref: Clinical Pediatric Neurology By Ronald B. David, Page 217
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with recurrent meningitis due to CSF leaks?
A. Meningococci
B. Pneumococci
C. Hemophilus Influenza
D. E. Coli
Answer:
|
B. Intracranial CSF leaks cause bacterial meningitis, about 80% are caused by S. Pneumoniae. Other causative organisms are meningococcus, Hemophilus species and S.aurues. Ref: Clinical Pediatric Neurology By Ronald B. David, Page 217
|
Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with recurrent meningitis due to CSF leaks?
A. Meningococci
B. Pneumococci
C. Hemophilus Influenza
D. E. Coli
| 0.370878 | 0.485196 | 0.414163 |
medmcqa
|
Treatment of choice in traumatic facial nerve injury is:
|
[
"Facial sling",
"Facial nerve repair",
"Conservative management",
"Systemic corticosteroids"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
(b) Facial nerve repair(Ref. Scott Brown, 6th ed., 1404)Since generally following trauma the facial nerve injury occurs as sudden onset. Facial decompression should be the best option.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Treatment of choice in traumatic facial nerve injury is:
A. Facial sling
B. Facial nerve repair
C. Conservative management
D. Systemic corticosteroids
Answer:
|
B. (b) Facial nerve repair(Ref. Scott Brown, 6th ed., 1404)Since generally following trauma the facial nerve injury occurs as sudden onset. Facial decompression should be the best option.
|
Treatment of choice in traumatic facial nerve injury is:
A. Facial sling
B. Facial nerve repair
C. Conservative management
D. Systemic corticosteroids
| 0.263715 | 0.48662 | 0.232817 |
medmcqa
|
What is the best method of informing the rural population about Oral rehydration technique: March 2013 (d, f)
|
[
"Chalk and talk/Lecture",
"Demonstrations",
"Role play",
"Flash cards"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
Ans. B i.e. Demonstrations Demonstration involves showing by reason or proof explaining or making clear by use of examples or experiments. Put more simply, demonstration means to clearly show
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
What is the best method of informing the rural population about Oral rehydration technique: March 2013 (d, f)
A. Chalk and talk/Lecture
B. Demonstrations
C. Role play
D. Flash cards
Answer:
|
B. Ans. B i.e. Demonstrations Demonstration involves showing by reason or proof explaining or making clear by use of examples or experiments. Put more simply, demonstration means to clearly show
|
What is the best method of informing the rural population about Oral rehydration technique: March 2013 (d, f)
A. Chalk and talk/Lecture
B. Demonstrations
C. Role play
D. Flash cards
| 0.212517 | 0.431397 | 0.289358 |
medmcqa
|
Lymph vessel which drain the posterior 1/3 rd of the tongue:
|
[
"Basal vessel.",
"Marginal vessel.",
"Central vessel.",
"Lateral vessel."
] |
mcq
|
A
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Lymph vessel which drain the posterior 1/3 rd of the tongue:
A. Basal vessel.
B. Marginal vessel.
C. Central vessel.
D. Lateral vessel.
Answer:
|
A.
|
Lymph vessel which drain the posterior 1/3 rd of the tongue:
A. Basal vessel.
B. Marginal vessel.
C. Central vessel.
D. Lateral vessel.
| 0.351073 | 0.767914 | 0.285473 |
|
medmcqa
|
Risk factors associated with post-operative nausea and vomiting following strabismus surgery are all except -
|
[
"Age < 3years",
"Duration of anesthesia > 30 mins",
"Personal or family history of post - op nausea and vomiting",
"Personal or family history of motion sickness"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Age < 3 years Post operative nausea and vomiting (PONY) following strabismus surgery It can cause post - op wound dehiscence, hematoma, orbital hemorrhage and aspiration. 30 % of all procedures are associated with PONV. Major risk factors are: Age > 3years Duration of anesthesia > 30 mins Personal or family history of post - op nausea and vomiting Personal or family history of motion sickness Medical management of PONV includes: dimenhydrinate, metoclopramide, droperidol, dexamethasone, ondansatron
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Risk factors associated with post-operative nausea and vomiting following strabismus surgery are all except -
A. Age < 3years
B. Duration of anesthesia > 30 mins
C. Personal or family history of post - op nausea and vomiting
D. Personal or family history of motion sickness
Answer:
|
A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Age < 3 years Post operative nausea and vomiting (PONY) following strabismus surgery It can cause post - op wound dehiscence, hematoma, orbital hemorrhage and aspiration. 30 % of all procedures are associated with PONV. Major risk factors are: Age > 3years Duration of anesthesia > 30 mins Personal or family history of post - op nausea and vomiting Personal or family history of motion sickness Medical management of PONV includes: dimenhydrinate, metoclopramide, droperidol, dexamethasone, ondansatron
|
Risk factors associated with post-operative nausea and vomiting following strabismus surgery are all except -
A. Age < 3years
B. Duration of anesthesia > 30 mins
C. Personal or family history of post - op nausea and vomiting
D. Personal or family history of motion sickness
| 0.217895 | 0.437942 | 0.276669 |
medmcqa
|
All are True about Acute Osteomyelitis except
|
[
"Common in children",
"Severe pain",
"Involves Epiphyseal plate",
"Treatment involves 6 weeks of Antibiotics"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
All are True about Acute Osteomyelitis except
A. Common in children
B. Severe pain
C. Involves Epiphyseal plate
D. Treatment involves 6 weeks of Antibiotics
Answer:
|
C.
|
All are True about Acute Osteomyelitis except
A. Common in children
B. Severe pain
C. Involves Epiphyseal plate
D. Treatment involves 6 weeks of Antibiotics
| 0.246076 | 0.502288 | 0.315847 |
|
medmcqa
|
Anterolateral ahroscopy of knee is for:
|
[
"To see patellofemoral aiculation",
"To see the posterior cruciate ligament",
"To see the anterior poion of lateral meniscus",
"To see the periphery of the posterior horn of medial meniscus"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Standard poals in knee ahroscopy Anterolateral poal Almost all the structures within the knee joint can be seen except- posterior cruciate ligament anterior poion of the lateral meniscus periphery of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus in tight knees. Anteromedial poal Additional viewing of lateral compament Posteromedial poal Used for viewing the posteromedial structures For repair or removal of the displaced posterior horn of meniscal tears Superolateral poal Used for diagnostically viewing the dynamics of patella-femoral joint, excision of medial plica.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Anterolateral ahroscopy of knee is for:
A. To see patellofemoral aiculation
B. To see the posterior cruciate ligament
C. To see the anterior poion of lateral meniscus
D. To see the periphery of the posterior horn of medial meniscus
Answer:
|
A. Standard poals in knee ahroscopy Anterolateral poal Almost all the structures within the knee joint can be seen except- posterior cruciate ligament anterior poion of the lateral meniscus periphery of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus in tight knees. Anteromedial poal Additional viewing of lateral compament Posteromedial poal Used for viewing the posteromedial structures For repair or removal of the displaced posterior horn of meniscal tears Superolateral poal Used for diagnostically viewing the dynamics of patella-femoral joint, excision of medial plica.
|
Anterolateral ahroscopy of knee is for:
A. To see patellofemoral aiculation
B. To see the posterior cruciate ligament
C. To see the anterior poion of lateral meniscus
D. To see the periphery of the posterior horn of medial meniscus
| 0.288228 | 0.436966 | 0.255464 |
medmcqa
|
Regarding vaginal candidiasis which one of the following is false:
|
[
"Cottage cheese like secretions are seen",
"Intense pruritus",
"Most common in non-pregnant women",
"Buds and hyphae seen in KOH preparation"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Ans. C. Most common in non-pregnant womenCandidiasis is caused by Candida albinism which thrives in an acidic medium with an abundant supply of carbohydrates. It is found commonly in pregnancy, and in patients on oral contraceptives, antibiotics and. corticosteroids. It is also seen in patients with diabetes. It causes a profuse discharge and intense pruritus with soreness of vagina and dysuria. Vagina and vulva are edematous and excoriated and the white patches of cheesy material on the vagina and vulva can be easily identified. A 10%KOH smear shows the buds and hyphae of the Candida organism. Nystatin or ketoconazole vaginal tablets used for one week are curative when used along with a cream of the same medication for External use.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Regarding vaginal candidiasis which one of the following is false:
A. Cottage cheese like secretions are seen
B. Intense pruritus
C. Most common in non-pregnant women
D. Buds and hyphae seen in KOH preparation
Answer:
|
C. Ans. C. Most common in non-pregnant womenCandidiasis is caused by Candida albinism which thrives in an acidic medium with an abundant supply of carbohydrates. It is found commonly in pregnancy, and in patients on oral contraceptives, antibiotics and. corticosteroids. It is also seen in patients with diabetes. It causes a profuse discharge and intense pruritus with soreness of vagina and dysuria. Vagina and vulva are edematous and excoriated and the white patches of cheesy material on the vagina and vulva can be easily identified. A 10%KOH smear shows the buds and hyphae of the Candida organism. Nystatin or ketoconazole vaginal tablets used for one week are curative when used along with a cream of the same medication for External use.
|
Regarding vaginal candidiasis which one of the following is false:
A. Cottage cheese like secretions are seen
B. Intense pruritus
C. Most common in non-pregnant women
D. Buds and hyphae seen in KOH preparation
| 0.282324 | 0.551656 | 0.392141 |
medmcqa
|
25 year old patient Suspected to have a pneumoperitoneum. Patient is unable to stand. Best x-ray view is
|
[
"Left lateral decubitus view",
"Right lateral decubitus view",
"Supine",
"Prone"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Left lateral decubitus view demonstrates the air between dense shadow of liver and the abdominal wall.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
25 year old patient Suspected to have a pneumoperitoneum. Patient is unable to stand. Best x-ray view is
A. Left lateral decubitus view
B. Right lateral decubitus view
C. Supine
D. Prone
Answer:
|
A. Left lateral decubitus view demonstrates the air between dense shadow of liver and the abdominal wall.
|
25 year old patient Suspected to have a pneumoperitoneum. Patient is unable to stand. Best x-ray view is
A. Left lateral decubitus view
B. Right lateral decubitus view
C. Supine
D. Prone
| 0.363499 | 0.568605 | 0.368104 |
medmcqa
|
What is the most probable poal of entry of Aspergillus?
|
[
"Puncture wound",
"Blood",
"Lungs",
"Gastrointestinal tract"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Aspergillus species are widely distributed on decaying plants, producing chains of conidia. Aspergillus species unlike Candida species do not form the pa of normal flora of humans. They are ubiquitous in the environment; hence transmission of infection is mostly exogenous. Aspergillus transmission occurs by inhalation of airborne conidia. Risk Factors for invasive aspergillosis are: Glucocoicoid use (the most impoant risk factor) Profound neutropenia or Neutrophil dysfunction Underlying pneumonia or COPD, tuberculosis or sarcoidosis Antitumor necrosis factor therapy.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
What is the most probable poal of entry of Aspergillus?
A. Puncture wound
B. Blood
C. Lungs
D. Gastrointestinal tract
Answer:
|
C. Aspergillus species are widely distributed on decaying plants, producing chains of conidia. Aspergillus species unlike Candida species do not form the pa of normal flora of humans. They are ubiquitous in the environment; hence transmission of infection is mostly exogenous. Aspergillus transmission occurs by inhalation of airborne conidia. Risk Factors for invasive aspergillosis are: Glucocoicoid use (the most impoant risk factor) Profound neutropenia or Neutrophil dysfunction Underlying pneumonia or COPD, tuberculosis or sarcoidosis Antitumor necrosis factor therapy.
|
What is the most probable poal of entry of Aspergillus?
A. Puncture wound
B. Blood
C. Lungs
D. Gastrointestinal tract
| 0.351249 | 0.52366 | 0.405371 |
medmcqa
|
For TOF management in antenatal period includes ?
|
[
"Balloon valvotomy",
"Open hea surgery",
"Karyotyping",
"Aspirin"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., KaryotypingTOF has been associated with untreated maternal diabetes, phenylketonuria, and intake of retinoic acid.Associated chromosomal anomalies occur in 30% cases and include trisomies 21, 18, 13 and 22q11 microdeletion, especially in pulmonary atresia and absent pulmonary valve syndrome (APVS).There is also a high association with extra - cardiac anomalies in paicular, abdominal and thoracic abnormalities.When a TOF is diagnosed during fetal life, karyotyping and targeted morphologic ultrasound examination should be offered.Isolated TOF - Good prognosis in TOF with pulmonary stenosis (>90% survival after surgery).However, other forms of TOF such as pulmonary atresia and absent pulmonary valve syndrome do not have a good prognosis (moderate prognosis for pulmonary atresia and bad prognosis for APVS).
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
For TOF management in antenatal period includes ?
A. Balloon valvotomy
B. Open hea surgery
C. Karyotyping
D. Aspirin
Answer:
|
C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., KaryotypingTOF has been associated with untreated maternal diabetes, phenylketonuria, and intake of retinoic acid.Associated chromosomal anomalies occur in 30% cases and include trisomies 21, 18, 13 and 22q11 microdeletion, especially in pulmonary atresia and absent pulmonary valve syndrome (APVS).There is also a high association with extra - cardiac anomalies in paicular, abdominal and thoracic abnormalities.When a TOF is diagnosed during fetal life, karyotyping and targeted morphologic ultrasound examination should be offered.Isolated TOF - Good prognosis in TOF with pulmonary stenosis (>90% survival after surgery).However, other forms of TOF such as pulmonary atresia and absent pulmonary valve syndrome do not have a good prognosis (moderate prognosis for pulmonary atresia and bad prognosis for APVS).
|
For TOF management in antenatal period includes ?
A. Balloon valvotomy
B. Open hea surgery
C. Karyotyping
D. Aspirin
| 0.308718 | 0.463557 | 0.336964 |
medmcqa
|
What change will be seen in vertebral column in ochronosis-
|
[
"Calcification of disc",
"Bamboo spine",
"Increased disc space",
"None"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Calcification of discAlkaptonuria# It is due to deficiency of homogentisate oxidase. As a result homogentisic acid (homogentisate) is excreted execessively in urine, There are three important characteristic features in alkaptonuria-Urine becomes dark after being exposed to air. It is due spontaneous oxidation of homogentisate into benzoquinone acetate, which polvmerse to form black-brown pigment alkapton which imparts a characteristic black-brown colour to urine.Alkapton deposition occurs in sclera, ear, nose, cheeks and intervertebral disc space. A condition called ochronosis. There may be calcification of intervertebral discs.Onchronosis arthritis affecting shoulder, hips, knee.# Benedict's test is strongly positive in urine and so is the ferric chloride (FeClyl test. Benedict's reagent gives a greenish brown precipitate with brownish black supematent. Feh ling's reagent (FeClj gives blue green colour.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
What change will be seen in vertebral column in ochronosis-
A. Calcification of disc
B. Bamboo spine
C. Increased disc space
D. None
Answer:
|
A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Calcification of discAlkaptonuria# It is due to deficiency of homogentisate oxidase. As a result homogentisic acid (homogentisate) is excreted execessively in urine, There are three important characteristic features in alkaptonuria-Urine becomes dark after being exposed to air. It is due spontaneous oxidation of homogentisate into benzoquinone acetate, which polvmerse to form black-brown pigment alkapton which imparts a characteristic black-brown colour to urine.Alkapton deposition occurs in sclera, ear, nose, cheeks and intervertebral disc space. A condition called ochronosis. There may be calcification of intervertebral discs.Onchronosis arthritis affecting shoulder, hips, knee.# Benedict's test is strongly positive in urine and so is the ferric chloride (FeClyl test. Benedict's reagent gives a greenish brown precipitate with brownish black supematent. Feh ling's reagent (FeClj gives blue green colour.
|
What change will be seen in vertebral column in ochronosis-
A. Calcification of disc
B. Bamboo spine
C. Increased disc space
D. None
| 0.466907 | 0.454566 | 0.347324 |
medmcqa
|
If solid line represent the rigid height, then the following diagram with excessive inter arch space is classified in?
|
[
"Class - 1",
"Class - 2",
"Class - 3",
"Class - 4"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
If solid line represent the rigid height, then the following diagram with excessive inter arch space is classified in?
A. Class - 1
B. Class - 2
C. Class - 3
D. Class - 4
Answer:
|
B.
|
If solid line represent the rigid height, then the following diagram with excessive inter arch space is classified in?
A. Class - 1
B. Class - 2
C. Class - 3
D. Class - 4
| 0.400143 | 0.382622 | 0.3372 |
|
medmcqa
|
Pearsonian measure of skewness -
|
[
"Mode - Mean/ SD",
"Mean - Mode/ SD",
"SD/Mode - mean",
"Mean - Mode/ SD"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
Ans. is b' i.e., Mean-Mode Measures of Skewness o There are following measures of skewness 1. Karl pearson's measure The formula for measuring skewness is divided into a) absolute measure Skewness = Mean - Mode b) relative measure The relative measure is known as the Coefficient of Skewness and is more frequently used than the absolute measure of skewness. Fuher, when a comparison between two or more distributions is involved, it is the relative measure of Skewness which is used.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Pearsonian measure of skewness -
A. Mode - Mean/ SD
B. Mean - Mode/ SD
C. SD/Mode - mean
D. Mean - Mode/ SD
Answer:
|
B. Ans. is b' i.e., Mean-Mode Measures of Skewness o There are following measures of skewness 1. Karl pearson's measure The formula for measuring skewness is divided into a) absolute measure Skewness = Mean - Mode b) relative measure The relative measure is known as the Coefficient of Skewness and is more frequently used than the absolute measure of skewness. Fuher, when a comparison between two or more distributions is involved, it is the relative measure of Skewness which is used.
|
Pearsonian measure of skewness -
A. Mode - Mean/ SD
B. Mean - Mode/ SD
C. SD/Mode - mean
D. Mean - Mode/ SD
| 0.364118 | 0.569032 | 0.32281 |
medmcqa
|
Following are the causes of sudden loss of vision except ?
|
[
"Angle closure glaucoma",
"Endophthalmitis",
"Central serous retinopathy",
"Corneal ulceration"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Corneal ulceration
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Following are the causes of sudden loss of vision except ?
A. Angle closure glaucoma
B. Endophthalmitis
C. Central serous retinopathy
D. Corneal ulceration
Answer:
|
D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Corneal ulceration
|
Following are the causes of sudden loss of vision except ?
A. Angle closure glaucoma
B. Endophthalmitis
C. Central serous retinopathy
D. Corneal ulceration
| 0.308563 | 0.656719 | 0.41269 |
medmcqa
|
All of the following are features of Lymph node histology except
|
[
"Subcapsular sinus present",
"Both Efferent and Afferent are present",
"Coex and Medulla are present",
"Red pulp and White pulp are present"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
Red pulp and White pulp are present in spleenHistologically, a lymph node is subdivided into three regions: coex, paracoex, and medulla. All three regions have a rich supply of sinusoids, enlarged endothelially lined spaces through which lymph percolates.The afferent lymph vessels pierce the capsule on the convex surface of the node and empty their lymph into the subcapsular sinus. This sinus is continuous with the coical sinuses and delivers the lymph into the medullary sinuses, eventually to enter the efferent lymphatic vessels.Reference: Krishna Garg Histology; 5th edition; Page no: 92
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
All of the following are features of Lymph node histology except
A. Subcapsular sinus present
B. Both Efferent and Afferent are present
C. Coex and Medulla are present
D. Red pulp and White pulp are present
Answer:
|
D. Red pulp and White pulp are present in spleenHistologically, a lymph node is subdivided into three regions: coex, paracoex, and medulla. All three regions have a rich supply of sinusoids, enlarged endothelially lined spaces through which lymph percolates.The afferent lymph vessels pierce the capsule on the convex surface of the node and empty their lymph into the subcapsular sinus. This sinus is continuous with the coical sinuses and delivers the lymph into the medullary sinuses, eventually to enter the efferent lymphatic vessels.Reference: Krishna Garg Histology; 5th edition; Page no: 92
|
All of the following are features of Lymph node histology except
A. Subcapsular sinus present
B. Both Efferent and Afferent are present
C. Coex and Medulla are present
D. Red pulp and White pulp are present
| 0.367363 | 0.626448 | 0.362515 |
medmcqa
|
During Sx for meningioma, the left paracentral lobule was injured. It would lead to paresis of
|
[
"Rt. Leg and perineus",
"Left face",
"Right face",
"Right shoulder & trunk"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e Rt. Leg and perineum Paracentral lobule:On the medial surface of cerebral hemisphere, the U shaped gyrus around the end of the central sulcus is the paracentral lobule.Motor cortex is located in the precentral gyrus on the superolateral surface of the hemisphere and in the anterior part of the paracentral lobule.Stimulation in this area results in movements in the opposite half of the body.The body is represented upside down in this area.A look at the motor homunculus in Ganong will show that the leg and perineum are represented in the paracentral lobule.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
During Sx for meningioma, the left paracentral lobule was injured. It would lead to paresis of
A. Rt. Leg and perineus
B. Left face
C. Right face
D. Right shoulder & trunk
Answer:
|
A. Ans. is 'a' i.e Rt. Leg and perineum Paracentral lobule:On the medial surface of cerebral hemisphere, the U shaped gyrus around the end of the central sulcus is the paracentral lobule.Motor cortex is located in the precentral gyrus on the superolateral surface of the hemisphere and in the anterior part of the paracentral lobule.Stimulation in this area results in movements in the opposite half of the body.The body is represented upside down in this area.A look at the motor homunculus in Ganong will show that the leg and perineum are represented in the paracentral lobule.
|
During Sx for meningioma, the left paracentral lobule was injured. It would lead to paresis of
A. Rt. Leg and perineus
B. Left face
C. Right face
D. Right shoulder & trunk
| 0.262341 | 0.455338 | 0.280085 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following bacterial meningitis is associated with sudural effusion?
|
[
"H. influenza",
"Neisseria meningitits",
"Streptococcus pneumonia",
"Enterococcus"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Chronic Subdural Empyema It may be primary infection of subdural space from sinusitis focus causing suppuration and pus formation. It can be complication of the chronic subdural haematoma. It is due to secondary bacterial infection of collected clot/fluid. Infection is from sinusitis scalp (common)/through earlier trauma wound/haematogenous. Commonly Gram positive organisms cause empyema like streptococci (viridans/milleri) but other virulent organisms like Gram negative bacteria (H.influenzae) occasionally can cause. There is coical venous thrombophlebitis and coical infarction. Headache, fever, meningism and convulsions are the features. MRI is ideal than CT to diagnose. Treatment: Antibiotics, craniotomy and drainage; anticonvulsants, ICU care, proper monitoring, regular follow up. Condition has got 10% moality. Ref: SRB's Manual of Surgery 5th edition Pgno : 1097
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Which of the following bacterial meningitis is associated with sudural effusion?
A. H. influenza
B. Neisseria meningitits
C. Streptococcus pneumonia
D. Enterococcus
Answer:
|
A. Chronic Subdural Empyema It may be primary infection of subdural space from sinusitis focus causing suppuration and pus formation. It can be complication of the chronic subdural haematoma. It is due to secondary bacterial infection of collected clot/fluid. Infection is from sinusitis scalp (common)/through earlier trauma wound/haematogenous. Commonly Gram positive organisms cause empyema like streptococci (viridans/milleri) but other virulent organisms like Gram negative bacteria (H.influenzae) occasionally can cause. There is coical venous thrombophlebitis and coical infarction. Headache, fever, meningism and convulsions are the features. MRI is ideal than CT to diagnose. Treatment: Antibiotics, craniotomy and drainage; anticonvulsants, ICU care, proper monitoring, regular follow up. Condition has got 10% moality. Ref: SRB's Manual of Surgery 5th edition Pgno : 1097
|
Which of the following bacterial meningitis is associated with sudural effusion?
A. H. influenza
B. Neisseria meningitits
C. Streptococcus pneumonia
D. Enterococcus
| 0.337529 | 0.520891 | 0.441433 |
medmcqa
|
All of the following statements are true regarding hyperophy, except:
|
[
"Occurs due to synthesis and assembly of additional intracellular components.",
"There is an increase in the size of the cells.",
"Cells capable of division respond to stress by hyperophy and hyperplasia.",
"There is an increase in the number of cells."
] |
mcq
|
D
|
The increased size of the cells is due to the synthesis and assembly of additional intracellular structural components. Hyperophy refers to an increase in the size of cells, which results in an increase in the size of the affected organ. Cells capable of division may respond to stress by undergoing both hyperplasia and hyperophy. The hyperophied organ has no new cells, just larger cells.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
All of the following statements are true regarding hyperophy, except:
A. Occurs due to synthesis and assembly of additional intracellular components.
B. There is an increase in the size of the cells.
C. Cells capable of division respond to stress by hyperophy and hyperplasia.
D. There is an increase in the number of cells.
Answer:
|
D. The increased size of the cells is due to the synthesis and assembly of additional intracellular structural components. Hyperophy refers to an increase in the size of cells, which results in an increase in the size of the affected organ. Cells capable of division may respond to stress by undergoing both hyperplasia and hyperophy. The hyperophied organ has no new cells, just larger cells.
|
All of the following statements are true regarding hyperophy, except:
A. Occurs due to synthesis and assembly of additional intracellular components.
B. There is an increase in the size of the cells.
C. Cells capable of division respond to stress by hyperophy and hyperplasia.
D. There is an increase in the number of cells.
| 0.548982 | 0.549335 | 0.491291 |
medmcqa
|
Glucose sympo occurs with:
|
[
"Na+",
"Ca++",
"K+",
"Cl-"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
A i.e. Na+
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Glucose sympo occurs with:
A. Na+
B. Ca++
C. K+
D. Cl-
Answer:
|
A. A i.e. Na+
|
Glucose sympo occurs with:
A. Na+
B. Ca++
C. K+
D. Cl-
| 0.429891 | 0.495268 | 0.49247 |
medmcqa
|
All are true about temporal arteritis except -
|
[
"Can leads to sudden bilateral blindness",
"More corrunon in females",
"Worsen on exposure to heat",
"Mostly affects elderly"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
All are true about temporal arteritis except -
A. Can leads to sudden bilateral blindness
B. More corrunon in females
C. Worsen on exposure to heat
D. Mostly affects elderly
Answer:
|
C.
|
All are true about temporal arteritis except -
A. Can leads to sudden bilateral blindness
B. More corrunon in females
C. Worsen on exposure to heat
D. Mostly affects elderly
| 0.314468 | 0.429614 | 0.338452 |
|
medmcqa
|
Of the various modalities used in the treatment of re-threatening effects of hyperkalemia which one of the following as the most rapid onset of action ?
|
[
"Hemodialysis",
"Sodium bicarbonate infusion",
"Insulin and glucose infusion",
"Intravenous calcium gluconate"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Of the various modalities used in the treatment of re-threatening effects of hyperkalemia which one of the following as the most rapid onset of action ?
A. Hemodialysis
B. Sodium bicarbonate infusion
C. Insulin and glucose infusion
D. Intravenous calcium gluconate
Answer:
|
A.
|
Of the various modalities used in the treatment of re-threatening effects of hyperkalemia which one of the following as the most rapid onset of action ?
A. Hemodialysis
B. Sodium bicarbonate infusion
C. Insulin and glucose infusion
D. Intravenous calcium gluconate
| 0.439391 | 0.523094 | 0.503119 |
|
medmcqa
|
In chronic alcoholism the rate limiting component for alcohol metabolism excluding enzymes is/are : (PGI Dec 2008)
|
[
"NADP",
"NAD+",
"NADPH",
"FADH"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
Ans : B (NAD+) & C (NADPH) In chronic alcoholism rate limiting component for alcohol metabolism is NAD* & NADPHOxidation of ethanol by alcohol dehydrogenaseQ & NADQ leads to excess production of NADHSome metabolism of ethanol takes place via a cytochrome P450 dependent microsomal ethanol oxidising systme (MEOS) Q involving NADPH & O2:, This system increase in activity in chronic alcoholism & may account for the increased metabolic clearnce in this condition.Ethanol + NADPH + H+ O2 MEOS Acetaldehyde
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
In chronic alcoholism the rate limiting component for alcohol metabolism excluding enzymes is/are : (PGI Dec 2008)
A. NADP
B. NAD+
C. NADPH
D. FADH
Answer:
|
B. Ans : B (NAD+) & C (NADPH) In chronic alcoholism rate limiting component for alcohol metabolism is NAD* & NADPHOxidation of ethanol by alcohol dehydrogenaseQ & NADQ leads to excess production of NADHSome metabolism of ethanol takes place via a cytochrome P450 dependent microsomal ethanol oxidising systme (MEOS) Q involving NADPH & O2:, This system increase in activity in chronic alcoholism & may account for the increased metabolic clearnce in this condition.Ethanol + NADPH + H+ O2 MEOS Acetaldehyde
|
In chronic alcoholism the rate limiting component for alcohol metabolism excluding enzymes is/are : (PGI Dec 2008)
A. NADP
B. NAD+
C. NADPH
D. FADH
| 0.37341 | 0.551203 | 0.426769 |
medmcqa
|
Minimum level of iodine iodized salt reaching the consumer level according to iodine programme should be:-
|
[
"5 ppm",
"30 ppm",
"15 ppm",
"20 ppm"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
National Iodine deficiency disorder programme , 1992: - National goitre control programme, 1962 is conveed to NIDDCP, 1992 - Impact indicators: Major indicator - Urinary iodine excretion levels ( generally measured in pregnant women over 24hrs) Others - Neonatal hypothyroidism , Goitre - Level of salt iodinisation: 30 ppm at production level 15 ppm at consumer level - Two-in-one salt: 40mcg iodine + 1mg iron/gm of salt MBI kits- Field Test Kits that allow Iodised salt manufacturers, quality controllers, health inspectors, social workers, NGO activists and even school children to assess the amount of iodine in iodised salt.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Minimum level of iodine iodized salt reaching the consumer level according to iodine programme should be:-
A. 5 ppm
B. 30 ppm
C. 15 ppm
D. 20 ppm
Answer:
|
C. National Iodine deficiency disorder programme , 1992: - National goitre control programme, 1962 is conveed to NIDDCP, 1992 - Impact indicators: Major indicator - Urinary iodine excretion levels ( generally measured in pregnant women over 24hrs) Others - Neonatal hypothyroidism , Goitre - Level of salt iodinisation: 30 ppm at production level 15 ppm at consumer level - Two-in-one salt: 40mcg iodine + 1mg iron/gm of salt MBI kits- Field Test Kits that allow Iodised salt manufacturers, quality controllers, health inspectors, social workers, NGO activists and even school children to assess the amount of iodine in iodised salt.
|
Minimum level of iodine iodized salt reaching the consumer level according to iodine programme should be:-
A. 5 ppm
B. 30 ppm
C. 15 ppm
D. 20 ppm
| 0.328373 | 0.530972 | 0.370097 |
medmcqa
|
True statement regarding specific death rates
|
[
"Specific for age and sex",
"Identify particular group or groups \"at risk\" for preventive action",
"Find out cause or disease specific",
"All of the above"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
(A1I of the above) (54- Park 20th)Specific death rates - may be (a) cause or disease specific e.g. TB, cancer, accidents (b) Related to specific groups e.g. age specific, sex specific, age and sex specific etc.* Rates can also be made specific for many others variables such as income, religion, race, housing etc.* Specific death rates can help us to identify particular groups or groups "at risk" for preventive action. They permit comparisons between different causes within the same populations* Specific death rates are obtained mainly in countries in which a satisfactory civil registration system operates and in which a high proportion of death is certified medically.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
True statement regarding specific death rates
A. Specific for age and sex
B. Identify particular group or groups "at risk" for preventive action
C. Find out cause or disease specific
D. All of the above
Answer:
|
D. (A1I of the above) (54- Park 20th)Specific death rates - may be (a) cause or disease specific e.g. TB, cancer, accidents (b) Related to specific groups e.g. age specific, sex specific, age and sex specific etc.* Rates can also be made specific for many others variables such as income, religion, race, housing etc.* Specific death rates can help us to identify particular groups or groups "at risk" for preventive action. They permit comparisons between different causes within the same populations* Specific death rates are obtained mainly in countries in which a satisfactory civil registration system operates and in which a high proportion of death is certified medically.
|
True statement regarding specific death rates
A. Specific for age and sex
B. Identify particular group or groups "at risk" for preventive action
C. Find out cause or disease specific
D. All of the above
| 0.465624 | 0.619157 | 0.455525 |
medmcqa
|
Pre-exposure prophylaxis for rabies is given on days
|
[
"0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90",
"0, 3, 7, 28, 90",
"0, 3",
"0, 7, 28"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
New recommended regimen/Schedule (New guidelines( Type of prophylaxis Regimen Post exposure Intramuscular Essen Regimen (1-1-1-1-1) Day 0,3,7,14,28 Post exposure intradermal Updated Thai Red Cross Regimen (2-2-2-0-2) Day 0,3,7,28 Post exposure in vaccinated individuals Day 0,3 Pre-exposure prophylaxis Day 0,7,21/28 Minimum potency: 2.5 IU per IM dose Zagreb regimen of rabies Vaccine (Intramuscular Post-exposure) : 1. 4-dose abbreted multisite regimen 2-0-1-0-1 (2 doses on Day 0,1 dose on Day 7, 1 dose on day 21 Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 297-298
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Pre-exposure prophylaxis for rabies is given on days
A. 0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90
B. 0, 3, 7, 28, 90
C. 0, 3
D. 0, 7, 28
Answer:
|
D. New recommended regimen/Schedule (New guidelines( Type of prophylaxis Regimen Post exposure Intramuscular Essen Regimen (1-1-1-1-1) Day 0,3,7,14,28 Post exposure intradermal Updated Thai Red Cross Regimen (2-2-2-0-2) Day 0,3,7,28 Post exposure in vaccinated individuals Day 0,3 Pre-exposure prophylaxis Day 0,7,21/28 Minimum potency: 2.5 IU per IM dose Zagreb regimen of rabies Vaccine (Intramuscular Post-exposure) : 1. 4-dose abbreted multisite regimen 2-0-1-0-1 (2 doses on Day 0,1 dose on Day 7, 1 dose on day 21 Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 297-298
|
Pre-exposure prophylaxis for rabies is given on days
A. 0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90
B. 0, 3, 7, 28, 90
C. 0, 3
D. 0, 7, 28
| 0.278074 | 0.53972 | 0.520082 |
medmcqa
|
Regarding Sjogren's syndrome, all are true except: September 2010
|
[
"Keratoconjuctivitis sicca",
"Rheumatoid ahritis",
"Epiphora",
"Autoimmune in nature"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Ans. C: Epiphora SjOgren's syndrome (also known as "Mikulicz disease" and "Sicca syndrome", is a systemic autoimmune disease in which immune cells attack and destroy the exocrine glands that produce tears and saliva SjOgren's syndrome can exist as a disorder in its own right (Primary Sjogren's syndrome) or it may develop years after the onset of an associated rheumatic disorder such as rheumatoid ahritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, scleroderma, primary biliary cirrhosis etc. (Secondary SjOgren's syndrome)
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Regarding Sjogren's syndrome, all are true except: September 2010
A. Keratoconjuctivitis sicca
B. Rheumatoid ahritis
C. Epiphora
D. Autoimmune in nature
Answer:
|
C. Ans. C: Epiphora SjOgren's syndrome (also known as "Mikulicz disease" and "Sicca syndrome", is a systemic autoimmune disease in which immune cells attack and destroy the exocrine glands that produce tears and saliva SjOgren's syndrome can exist as a disorder in its own right (Primary Sjogren's syndrome) or it may develop years after the onset of an associated rheumatic disorder such as rheumatoid ahritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, scleroderma, primary biliary cirrhosis etc. (Secondary SjOgren's syndrome)
|
Regarding Sjogren's syndrome, all are true except: September 2010
A. Keratoconjuctivitis sicca
B. Rheumatoid ahritis
C. Epiphora
D. Autoimmune in nature
| 0.265816 | 0.49204 | 0.349944 |
medmcqa
|
Best indicator of antemoum drowning is :
|
[
"Froth in mouth and nostrils",
"Cutis anserina",
"Washerman's hand",
"Water in nose"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
A i.e. Fine froth in mouth & nostril
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Best indicator of antemoum drowning is :
A. Froth in mouth and nostrils
B. Cutis anserina
C. Washerman's hand
D. Water in nose
Answer:
|
A. A i.e. Fine froth in mouth & nostril
|
Best indicator of antemoum drowning is :
A. Froth in mouth and nostrils
B. Cutis anserina
C. Washerman's hand
D. Water in nose
| 0.293628 | 0.443228 | 0.337686 |
medmcqa
|
Splenomegaly may be a feature of: March 2013
|
[
"Megaloblastic anemia",
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Thalassemia",
"G6PD deficiency"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
Ans. B i.e. Sickle cell anemia Splenomegaly Splenomegaly refers strictly to spleen enlargement, and is distinct from hyperspineism , which connotes overactive function by a spleen of any size. Splenomegaly and hypersplenism should not be confused. Each may be found separately, or they may coexist. Clinically if a spleen is palpable, it means it is enlarged as it has to undergo enlargement by at least two folds to become palpable. However, the tip of the spleen may be palpable in a newborn baby up to 3 months of age Early sickle cell anemia may present with splenomegaly
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Splenomegaly may be a feature of: March 2013
A. Megaloblastic anemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Thalassemia
D. G6PD deficiency
Answer:
|
B. Ans. B i.e. Sickle cell anemia Splenomegaly Splenomegaly refers strictly to spleen enlargement, and is distinct from hyperspineism , which connotes overactive function by a spleen of any size. Splenomegaly and hypersplenism should not be confused. Each may be found separately, or they may coexist. Clinically if a spleen is palpable, it means it is enlarged as it has to undergo enlargement by at least two folds to become palpable. However, the tip of the spleen may be palpable in a newborn baby up to 3 months of age Early sickle cell anemia may present with splenomegaly
|
Splenomegaly may be a feature of: March 2013
A. Megaloblastic anemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Thalassemia
D. G6PD deficiency
| 0.29611 | 0.599738 | 0.599738 |
medmcqa
|
Gp2b3A inhibitors are all except -
|
[
"Abciximab",
"Eptifibatide",
"Tirofiban",
"Prasugrel"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Prasugrel Glycoproteins lIb / IIIa inhibitorso The platelet glycoprotein mediates platelet aggregation via binding of adhesive proteins such as fibrinogen and Von Willebrand factor.o GP lib / Ilia inhibitors, inhibit platelet aggregation by blocking GPIIb / IlIa.o They are more complete inhibitors than either aspirin or clopidogrel / ticlopidinejj because they inhibit final pathway in platelet aggregation (whether it is mediated by ADP or TXA2), while aspirin blocks only TXA2 pathway and clopidogrel blocks only ADP pathway,o Drugs are -o In addition to inhibiting Gp lib / Ilia receptor, abciximab also inhibits ay(33 receptor (which binds vitronectin) and amb2 (a leukocyte integerin). This action is responsible for anti-inflammatory and antiproliferative properties of abciximab.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Gp2b3A inhibitors are all except -
A. Abciximab
B. Eptifibatide
C. Tirofiban
D. Prasugrel
Answer:
|
D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Prasugrel Glycoproteins lIb / IIIa inhibitorso The platelet glycoprotein mediates platelet aggregation via binding of adhesive proteins such as fibrinogen and Von Willebrand factor.o GP lib / Ilia inhibitors, inhibit platelet aggregation by blocking GPIIb / IlIa.o They are more complete inhibitors than either aspirin or clopidogrel / ticlopidinejj because they inhibit final pathway in platelet aggregation (whether it is mediated by ADP or TXA2), while aspirin blocks only TXA2 pathway and clopidogrel blocks only ADP pathway,o Drugs are -o In addition to inhibiting Gp lib / Ilia receptor, abciximab also inhibits ay(33 receptor (which binds vitronectin) and amb2 (a leukocyte integerin). This action is responsible for anti-inflammatory and antiproliferative properties of abciximab.
|
Gp2b3A inhibitors are all except -
A. Abciximab
B. Eptifibatide
C. Tirofiban
D. Prasugrel
| 0.363156 | 0.404789 | 0.337955 |
medmcqa
|
True of case control studies -
|
[
"It proceeds from cause to effect",
"Odds ratio can be calculated",
"Incidence can be calculated",
"Needs many patients"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
True of case control studies -
A. It proceeds from cause to effect
B. Odds ratio can be calculated
C. Incidence can be calculated
D. Needs many patients
Answer:
|
B.
|
True of case control studies -
A. It proceeds from cause to effect
B. Odds ratio can be calculated
C. Incidence can be calculated
D. Needs many patients
| 0.362164 | 0.644325 | 0.529684 |
|
medmcqa
|
All of the following could include the mechanism or function of oxigenases, EXCEPT:
|
[
"Incorporate 2 atoms of oxygen",
"Incorporate 1 atom of oxygen",
"Required for hydroxylation of steroids",
"Required for carboxylation of drugs"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
Carboxylation is a function of carboxylase enzymes which belong to the class of 'Ligases'. It is not a function of oxygenase enzymes. Monoxygenases incorporate one atom of oxygen and play an impoant role in hydroxylation of steroids. Dioxygenases incorporate 2 atoms of oxygen into the substrate. Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th Edition, Page 96, 97; Enzyme Assays: High-Throughput Screening, Genetic Selection and Fingerprinting edited by Jean-Louis Reymond, 2006, Page 85.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
All of the following could include the mechanism or function of oxigenases, EXCEPT:
A. Incorporate 2 atoms of oxygen
B. Incorporate 1 atom of oxygen
C. Required for hydroxylation of steroids
D. Required for carboxylation of drugs
Answer:
|
D. Carboxylation is a function of carboxylase enzymes which belong to the class of 'Ligases'. It is not a function of oxygenase enzymes. Monoxygenases incorporate one atom of oxygen and play an impoant role in hydroxylation of steroids. Dioxygenases incorporate 2 atoms of oxygen into the substrate. Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 27th Edition, Page 96, 97; Enzyme Assays: High-Throughput Screening, Genetic Selection and Fingerprinting edited by Jean-Louis Reymond, 2006, Page 85.
|
All of the following could include the mechanism or function of oxigenases, EXCEPT:
A. Incorporate 2 atoms of oxygen
B. Incorporate 1 atom of oxygen
C. Required for hydroxylation of steroids
D. Required for carboxylation of drugs
| 0.431821 | 0.516053 | 0.492545 |
medmcqa
|
According to recent SC judgment, doctor can be charged for medical negligence under 304-A, only if: AIIMS 12
|
[
"He is from corporate hospital",
"Negligence is from inadveent error",
"Simple negligence",
"Gross negligence"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
Ans. Gross negligence
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
According to recent SC judgment, doctor can be charged for medical negligence under 304-A, only if: AIIMS 12
A. He is from corporate hospital
B. Negligence is from inadveent error
C. Simple negligence
D. Gross negligence
Answer:
|
D. Ans. Gross negligence
|
According to recent SC judgment, doctor can be charged for medical negligence under 304-A, only if: AIIMS 12
A. He is from corporate hospital
B. Negligence is from inadveent error
C. Simple negligence
D. Gross negligence
| 0.315396 | 0.543748 | 0.286804 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following is very difficult to induce antibody -
|
[
"Polysaccharide",
"Protein",
"Antigen",
"Effector"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
An antigen is any substance that causes an immune system to produce antibodies against it. Antigens are usually peptides, polysaccharides or lipids. In general, molecules other than peptides (saccharides and lipids) qualify as antigens but not as immunogens since they cannot elicit an immune response on their own. Ref: Ananthanarayan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg:88
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Which of the following is very difficult to induce antibody -
A. Polysaccharide
B. Protein
C. Antigen
D. Effector
Answer:
|
A. An antigen is any substance that causes an immune system to produce antibodies against it. Antigens are usually peptides, polysaccharides or lipids. In general, molecules other than peptides (saccharides and lipids) qualify as antigens but not as immunogens since they cannot elicit an immune response on their own. Ref: Ananthanarayan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg:88
|
Which of the following is very difficult to induce antibody -
A. Polysaccharide
B. Protein
C. Antigen
D. Effector
| 0.411614 | 0.564254 | 0.460904 |
medmcqa
|
Prevalence is a:
|
[
"Rate",
"Ratio",
"Propoion",
"None of the above"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Tools of measurement in epidemics: - Rate = x 1000/ 10000/ 100000 ; a is pa of b - Ratio = a/b ; a is not a pa of b - Propoion = x 100 = % ; a is pa of b Prevalence = No. of all current cases of a disease at a time /Estimated total population at that time X 100 Hence, Prevalence is a propoion (Prevalence is NOT a Ratio): Numerator is a pa of denominator & is always expressed in percentage. Incidence is rate.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Prevalence is a:
A. Rate
B. Ratio
C. Propoion
D. None of the above
Answer:
|
C. Tools of measurement in epidemics: - Rate = x 1000/ 10000/ 100000 ; a is pa of b - Ratio = a/b ; a is not a pa of b - Propoion = x 100 = % ; a is pa of b Prevalence = No. of all current cases of a disease at a time /Estimated total population at that time X 100 Hence, Prevalence is a propoion (Prevalence is NOT a Ratio): Numerator is a pa of denominator & is always expressed in percentage. Incidence is rate.
|
Prevalence is a:
A. Rate
B. Ratio
C. Propoion
D. None of the above
| 0.431802 | 0.70076 | 0.501959 |
medmcqa
|
S2 is best appreciated in -
|
[
"3rd left intercostal space",
"2nd right intercostal space",
"4th left intercostal space",
"5th left intercostal space"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 3rd left intercostal space o Best areas to auscultate for both components of the second heart sound (A2 and P2) are either the left sternal border at the level of second intercostal space (Pulmonic area) or the left sternal border at the level of third intercostal space (Erb s point).
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
S2 is best appreciated in -
A. 3rd left intercostal space
B. 2nd right intercostal space
C. 4th left intercostal space
D. 5th left intercostal space
Answer:
|
A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 3rd left intercostal space o Best areas to auscultate for both components of the second heart sound (A2 and P2) are either the left sternal border at the level of second intercostal space (Pulmonic area) or the left sternal border at the level of third intercostal space (Erb s point).
|
S2 is best appreciated in -
A. 3rd left intercostal space
B. 2nd right intercostal space
C. 4th left intercostal space
D. 5th left intercostal space
| 0.361535 | 0.453474 | 0.306059 |
medmcqa
|
Position of limb in posterior dislocation of hip -
|
[
"Flexion, abduction & external rotation",
"Flexion, adduction & internal rotation",
"Flexion, adduction & external rotation",
"Flexion, abduction & internal rotation"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Flexion, adduction & internal rotation Hip conditionDeformitySynovitisArthritisPosterior dislocationAnterior dislocationFemoral neck fractureIntertrochantric fractureFlexion, abduction, external rotation, apparent lengtheningFlexion, adduction, internal rotation, true shorteningFlexion, adduction, internal rotation, apparent & true shorteningFlexion, abduction, external rotation, true lengtheningExternal rotation, later adduction & flexionMarked external rotation, later adduction & flexion
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Position of limb in posterior dislocation of hip -
A. Flexion, abduction & external rotation
B. Flexion, adduction & internal rotation
C. Flexion, adduction & external rotation
D. Flexion, abduction & internal rotation
Answer:
|
B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Flexion, adduction & internal rotation Hip conditionDeformitySynovitisArthritisPosterior dislocationAnterior dislocationFemoral neck fractureIntertrochantric fractureFlexion, abduction, external rotation, apparent lengtheningFlexion, adduction, internal rotation, true shorteningFlexion, adduction, internal rotation, apparent & true shorteningFlexion, abduction, external rotation, true lengtheningExternal rotation, later adduction & flexionMarked external rotation, later adduction & flexion
|
Position of limb in posterior dislocation of hip -
A. Flexion, abduction & external rotation
B. Flexion, adduction & internal rotation
C. Flexion, adduction & external rotation
D. Flexion, abduction & internal rotation
| 0.443099 | 0.577308 | 0.326692 |
medmcqa
|
Drug causing malignant hyperthermia:(Asked twice in the exam)
|
[
"Cisatracurium",
"Suxamethonium",
"Propofol",
"Thiopentone"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
Ans. b. SuxamethoniumSuxamethonium is the drug most commonly responsible for causing malignant hyperthermia.'Drugs causing malignant hyperthermia are- succinylcholine (most common cause), halothane (MC inhalational agent), iso/des/sevo/methoxy- fluranes, lignocaine, TCA, MAO inhibitors and phenothiazines.''Thiopentone and pancuronium are protective drugs for malignant hyperthermia, as these raise the triggering threshold.''In malignant hyperthermia susceptible patients, safe anesthetics are N2O, Non-depolarizing muscle relaxants (atracurium), opiates, tranquilizers, etomidate, barbiturates (thiopentone) and propofol.'Malignant Hyperthermia* Autosomal dominant genetic disorder of skeletal muscle* Occurs in susceptible individuals due to exposure to some triggering agents, typically Suxamethonium or volatile agents, which cause an abnormal increase in intracellular calcium.* It is caused by dysregulation of excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle.Triggering Agents:* Succinylcholine (most common cause)* Halothane (MC inhalational agent)* Halogenated Anesthesia:- Fluranes: Isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane. methoxy-flurane- Ether- Cyclopropane* Lignocaine* TCA* MAO inhibitors* PhenothiazinesClinical Features:* Rise in end tidal CO2 (1st sign)* Masseter muscle rigidity (MMR) and tachycardia are earliest sign* Hypermetabolic features, metabolic acidosis, fever, hyperthermia* Sympathetic over activity: Tachycardia, arrhythmia, unstable BP. initial hypertension* Muscle damage: Masseter muscle spasm, generalized rigidity, hyperkalemiaTretment:* Triggering agent must be stopped and hyperventilate with 100% oxygen* The mainstay of therapy is immediate administration of IV dantrolene.* Dantrolene is the only drug effective in reversing the symptoms and preventing the episode.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Drug causing malignant hyperthermia:(Asked twice in the exam)
A. Cisatracurium
B. Suxamethonium
C. Propofol
D. Thiopentone
Answer:
|
B. Ans. b. SuxamethoniumSuxamethonium is the drug most commonly responsible for causing malignant hyperthermia.'Drugs causing malignant hyperthermia are- succinylcholine (most common cause), halothane (MC inhalational agent), iso/des/sevo/methoxy- fluranes, lignocaine, TCA, MAO inhibitors and phenothiazines.''Thiopentone and pancuronium are protective drugs for malignant hyperthermia, as these raise the triggering threshold.''In malignant hyperthermia susceptible patients, safe anesthetics are N2O, Non-depolarizing muscle relaxants (atracurium), opiates, tranquilizers, etomidate, barbiturates (thiopentone) and propofol.'Malignant Hyperthermia* Autosomal dominant genetic disorder of skeletal muscle* Occurs in susceptible individuals due to exposure to some triggering agents, typically Suxamethonium or volatile agents, which cause an abnormal increase in intracellular calcium.* It is caused by dysregulation of excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle.Triggering Agents:* Succinylcholine (most common cause)* Halothane (MC inhalational agent)* Halogenated Anesthesia:- Fluranes: Isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane. methoxy-flurane- Ether- Cyclopropane* Lignocaine* TCA* MAO inhibitors* PhenothiazinesClinical Features:* Rise in end tidal CO2 (1st sign)* Masseter muscle rigidity (MMR) and tachycardia are earliest sign* Hypermetabolic features, metabolic acidosis, fever, hyperthermia* Sympathetic over activity: Tachycardia, arrhythmia, unstable BP. initial hypertension* Muscle damage: Masseter muscle spasm, generalized rigidity, hyperkalemiaTretment:* Triggering agent must be stopped and hyperventilate with 100% oxygen* The mainstay of therapy is immediate administration of IV dantrolene.* Dantrolene is the only drug effective in reversing the symptoms and preventing the episode.
|
Drug causing malignant hyperthermia:(Asked twice in the exam)
A. Cisatracurium
B. Suxamethonium
C. Propofol
D. Thiopentone
| 0.245409 | 0.46243 | 0.46243 |
medmcqa
|
Household insectiside used for malaria-
|
[
"Malathion",
"Pyrethrum",
"Paris green",
"Permethrin"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Malathion* Insectisides used for control of malaria are-i) Residual sprapy-# In residual spray, spraying of houses with residual insectisides is done. Residual insectisides remains active over extended periods i.e., they have residual action even after the time of spray.# Commonly used residual insectisides are - Malathion, DDT, Lindane, propoxure (OMS-33).ToxicantDosage in g/m2Average duration of effectiveness (months)DDT1 to 26 to 12Lindane0-53Malathion23OMS-3323ii) Space spray# Space sprays are those where the insecticidal formation is sprayed into the atmosphere in the form of a mist or fog to kill insect. Action is short lived and temporary since there is no residual action.# The most commonly used space spray insecticide is Pyrethrum.# New equipment has been developed to use residual insectiside as space spray by ultra low volume (ULV) technique. Malathions and fenthion are most commonly used.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Household insectiside used for malaria-
A. Malathion
B. Pyrethrum
C. Paris green
D. Permethrin
Answer:
|
A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Malathion* Insectisides used for control of malaria are-i) Residual sprapy-# In residual spray, spraying of houses with residual insectisides is done. Residual insectisides remains active over extended periods i.e., they have residual action even after the time of spray.# Commonly used residual insectisides are - Malathion, DDT, Lindane, propoxure (OMS-33).ToxicantDosage in g/m2Average duration of effectiveness (months)DDT1 to 26 to 12Lindane0-53Malathion23OMS-3323ii) Space spray# Space sprays are those where the insecticidal formation is sprayed into the atmosphere in the form of a mist or fog to kill insect. Action is short lived and temporary since there is no residual action.# The most commonly used space spray insecticide is Pyrethrum.# New equipment has been developed to use residual insectiside as space spray by ultra low volume (ULV) technique. Malathions and fenthion are most commonly used.
|
Household insectiside used for malaria-
A. Malathion
B. Pyrethrum
C. Paris green
D. Permethrin
| 0.190313 | 0.419171 | 0.317095 |
medmcqa
|
False about obstructive jaundice
|
[
"Unconjugated bilirubin",
"Pruritus",
"Pale stools",
"Icterus"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Obstructive jaundice Most common surgical cause of obstructive jaundice is CBD stones Characterized by dark urine, pale coloured stools, icterus and Pruritus Presence of urobilinogen in urine rules out obstructive jaundice USG is the best test to differentiate medical from surgical jaundice Unconjugated bilirubin is normal Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pg no : 1998
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
False about obstructive jaundice
A. Unconjugated bilirubin
B. Pruritus
C. Pale stools
D. Icterus
Answer:
|
A. Obstructive jaundice Most common surgical cause of obstructive jaundice is CBD stones Characterized by dark urine, pale coloured stools, icterus and Pruritus Presence of urobilinogen in urine rules out obstructive jaundice USG is the best test to differentiate medical from surgical jaundice Unconjugated bilirubin is normal Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pg no : 1998
|
False about obstructive jaundice
A. Unconjugated bilirubin
B. Pruritus
C. Pale stools
D. Icterus
| 0.238158 | 0.748698 | 0.340179 |
medmcqa
|
All of the following structure lies outside the cavernous sinus except
|
[
"Sphenoidal air sinus",
"Internal carotid aery",
"Foramen lacerum",
"Maxillary nerve"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
structures outside the sinus: 1. Superiorly: optic tract, optic chiasma, olfactory tract, internal carotid aery and anterior perforated substance. 2.inferiorly: foramen lacerum and the junction of the body and greater wing of the sphenoid bone 3.medically: hypophysis cerebri and sphenoidal air sinus 4.laterally: temporal lobe with uncus 5.below laterally: mandibular nerve 6.anteriorly: superior orbital fissure and apex of the orbit 7.posteriorly: apex of the petrous temporal and the crus cerebri of the midbrain Ref BDC volume 3:sixth edition pg 193
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
All of the following structure lies outside the cavernous sinus except
A. Sphenoidal air sinus
B. Internal carotid aery
C. Foramen lacerum
D. Maxillary nerve
Answer:
|
D. structures outside the sinus: 1. Superiorly: optic tract, optic chiasma, olfactory tract, internal carotid aery and anterior perforated substance. 2.inferiorly: foramen lacerum and the junction of the body and greater wing of the sphenoid bone 3.medically: hypophysis cerebri and sphenoidal air sinus 4.laterally: temporal lobe with uncus 5.below laterally: mandibular nerve 6.anteriorly: superior orbital fissure and apex of the orbit 7.posteriorly: apex of the petrous temporal and the crus cerebri of the midbrain Ref BDC volume 3:sixth edition pg 193
|
All of the following structure lies outside the cavernous sinus except
A. Sphenoidal air sinus
B. Internal carotid aery
C. Foramen lacerum
D. Maxillary nerve
| 0.536025 | 0.622389 | 0.297362 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following is the best procedure done for intrapaum fetal monitoring:
|
[
"Fetal echocardiography",
"Fetal scalp pH",
"Continuous electrical fetal hea monitoring",
"Physical examination"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Electrical Fetal hea monitoring is useful as: (1) Provides accurate information, (2) Helpful in diagnosing fetal distress, (3) Directs about intervention to prevent fetal death or morbidity, (4) It is superior to intermittent monitoring methods.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Which of the following is the best procedure done for intrapaum fetal monitoring:
A. Fetal echocardiography
B. Fetal scalp pH
C. Continuous electrical fetal hea monitoring
D. Physical examination
Answer:
|
C. Electrical Fetal hea monitoring is useful as: (1) Provides accurate information, (2) Helpful in diagnosing fetal distress, (3) Directs about intervention to prevent fetal death or morbidity, (4) It is superior to intermittent monitoring methods.
|
Which of the following is the best procedure done for intrapaum fetal monitoring:
A. Fetal echocardiography
B. Fetal scalp pH
C. Continuous electrical fetal hea monitoring
D. Physical examination
| 0.385115 | 0.526566 | 0.526566 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following is measured by the device, Bellow's spirometer?
|
[
"TLC",
"RV",
"Closing volume",
"ERV"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
The spirometer is a simple device for measuring gas volumes. The frequently used water spirometer, rolling seal spirometer and bellows spirometer. The last two are not water-filled and are more poable. The VT, IRV, ERV, IC, and VC can all be measured with a spirometer (as can the forced expiratory volume in 1 second , forced vital capacity , and forced expiratory flow ). The RV, the FRC, and the TLC, however, cannot be determined with a spirometer because the subject cannot exhale all the gas in the lungs. The lung volumes not measurable with spirometry can be determined by the nitrogen-washout technique, by the helium-dilution technique, and by body plethysmography. The FRC is usually determined, and RV (which is equal to FRC minus ERV) and the TLC (which is equal to VC plus RV) are then calculated from volumes obtained by spirometry. Ref: Levitzky M.G. (2007). Chapter 3. Alveolar Ventilation. In M.G. Levitzky (Ed), Pulmonary Physiology, 7e.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Which of the following is measured by the device, Bellow's spirometer?
A. TLC
B. RV
C. Closing volume
D. ERV
Answer:
|
D. The spirometer is a simple device for measuring gas volumes. The frequently used water spirometer, rolling seal spirometer and bellows spirometer. The last two are not water-filled and are more poable. The VT, IRV, ERV, IC, and VC can all be measured with a spirometer (as can the forced expiratory volume in 1 second , forced vital capacity , and forced expiratory flow ). The RV, the FRC, and the TLC, however, cannot be determined with a spirometer because the subject cannot exhale all the gas in the lungs. The lung volumes not measurable with spirometry can be determined by the nitrogen-washout technique, by the helium-dilution technique, and by body plethysmography. The FRC is usually determined, and RV (which is equal to FRC minus ERV) and the TLC (which is equal to VC plus RV) are then calculated from volumes obtained by spirometry. Ref: Levitzky M.G. (2007). Chapter 3. Alveolar Ventilation. In M.G. Levitzky (Ed), Pulmonary Physiology, 7e.
|
Which of the following is measured by the device, Bellow's spirometer?
A. TLC
B. RV
C. Closing volume
D. ERV
| 0.388368 | 0.570283 | 0.476074 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following is a newly emerging food poisoning organism
|
[
"Salmonella typhimurium",
"Enterococcus",
"Diphtheria",
"Pseudomonas"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Ans: a (Salmonella typhimurium) Ref: Ananathanarayan,7th ed, p. 303Of the above given, S. typhimurium causes food poisoningSalmonella gastroenteritisS. typhimurium is the most common cause of food poisoning due to salmonella species.Incubation period--6-24 hrsFood poisoning is never caused by S. typhi. Source of transmission: poultry, meat, milk and milk products.C/F-nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, abdominal cramps, fever.Blood culture is usually negativeNoteS. aureus is the most common cause of food poisoning in the westIP and clinical features of various bacteria causing food poisoiningIncubation period Organism responsible 1- hrs S. aureus-nausea, vomiting, diarrheaB. cereus-nausea, vomiting 8-16 hrs C. perfringes-abdominal cramps, diarrhoea (vomiting rare)B. cereus-abdominal cramps, diarrhoea, vomiting > 16 hrs Vibrio cholera-watery diarrhoeaETEC-watery diarrhoeaEHEC-bloody diarrhoeaSalmonella species-inflammatory diarrhoeaCamphylobacter jej uni-inflammatory diarrhoeaShigella species- dysentryV. parahaemolyticus-dysentry
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Which of the following is a newly emerging food poisoning organism
A. Salmonella typhimurium
B. Enterococcus
C. Diphtheria
D. Pseudomonas
Answer:
|
A. Ans: a (Salmonella typhimurium) Ref: Ananathanarayan,7th ed, p. 303Of the above given, S. typhimurium causes food poisoningSalmonella gastroenteritisS. typhimurium is the most common cause of food poisoning due to salmonella species.Incubation period--6-24 hrsFood poisoning is never caused by S. typhi. Source of transmission: poultry, meat, milk and milk products.C/F-nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, abdominal cramps, fever.Blood culture is usually negativeNoteS. aureus is the most common cause of food poisoning in the westIP and clinical features of various bacteria causing food poisoiningIncubation period Organism responsible 1- hrs S. aureus-nausea, vomiting, diarrheaB. cereus-nausea, vomiting 8-16 hrs C. perfringes-abdominal cramps, diarrhoea (vomiting rare)B. cereus-abdominal cramps, diarrhoea, vomiting > 16 hrs Vibrio cholera-watery diarrhoeaETEC-watery diarrhoeaEHEC-bloody diarrhoeaSalmonella species-inflammatory diarrhoeaCamphylobacter jej uni-inflammatory diarrhoeaShigella species- dysentryV. parahaemolyticus-dysentry
|
Which of the following is a newly emerging food poisoning organism
A. Salmonella typhimurium
B. Enterococcus
C. Diphtheria
D. Pseudomonas
| 0.389908 | 0.689257 | 0.469097 |
medmcqa
|
Atherosclerosis initiation by fibroblast plaque is mediated by injury to ?
|
[
"Smooth muscle",
"Media",
"Adventitia",
"Endothelium"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Endothelium The most acceptable hypothesis for the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis is "the response to injury hypothesis". According to this hypothesis, atherosclerosis is a chronic inflammatory response of the aerial wall initiated by injury to endothelium. Pathogenesis of atherosclerosis Following stages occurs in the pathogenesis of Atherosclerosis: Endothelial injury Earliest stages of the development of atherosclerosis are mediated by the inflammatory cascade. Inflammation mediated injury to endothelium is the cornestone in the development of atherosclerosis. After injury, endothelium is activated and there is increased expression of adhesion molecule-VCAM-1 and there is increased permeability to endothelium. TNF is the major cytokine to induce this expression. Migration of leukocytes When VCAM-1 is expressed on endothelium, leukocytes adhere to the endothelium. Leukocytes than cross the endothelial barrier and begin to accumulate in subendothelial intimal space. Macrophages engulf LDL cholesterol and form foam cells - formation of earliest lesion, i.e. fatty streak. Macrophages also form oxygen free radicals that cause oxidation of LDL to yield oxidized LDL (modified LDL). Smooth muscle cell migration and proliferation Inflammatory cells in subendothelial intimal space secrete cytokines, mainly PDGF, TGF-ct and FGF which cause migration of smooth muscle cells from media to subendothelial intimal space as well as their proliferation. Maturation of plaque Smooth muscle cells synthesize extracellular matrix (especially collegen) and conve a fatty streak into a mature fibrofatty atheroma, and contribute to the progressive growth of atherosclerotic lesions.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Atherosclerosis initiation by fibroblast plaque is mediated by injury to ?
A. Smooth muscle
B. Media
C. Adventitia
D. Endothelium
Answer:
|
D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Endothelium The most acceptable hypothesis for the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis is "the response to injury hypothesis". According to this hypothesis, atherosclerosis is a chronic inflammatory response of the aerial wall initiated by injury to endothelium. Pathogenesis of atherosclerosis Following stages occurs in the pathogenesis of Atherosclerosis: Endothelial injury Earliest stages of the development of atherosclerosis are mediated by the inflammatory cascade. Inflammation mediated injury to endothelium is the cornestone in the development of atherosclerosis. After injury, endothelium is activated and there is increased expression of adhesion molecule-VCAM-1 and there is increased permeability to endothelium. TNF is the major cytokine to induce this expression. Migration of leukocytes When VCAM-1 is expressed on endothelium, leukocytes adhere to the endothelium. Leukocytes than cross the endothelial barrier and begin to accumulate in subendothelial intimal space. Macrophages engulf LDL cholesterol and form foam cells - formation of earliest lesion, i.e. fatty streak. Macrophages also form oxygen free radicals that cause oxidation of LDL to yield oxidized LDL (modified LDL). Smooth muscle cell migration and proliferation Inflammatory cells in subendothelial intimal space secrete cytokines, mainly PDGF, TGF-ct and FGF which cause migration of smooth muscle cells from media to subendothelial intimal space as well as their proliferation. Maturation of plaque Smooth muscle cells synthesize extracellular matrix (especially collegen) and conve a fatty streak into a mature fibrofatty atheroma, and contribute to the progressive growth of atherosclerotic lesions.
|
Atherosclerosis initiation by fibroblast plaque is mediated by injury to ?
A. Smooth muscle
B. Media
C. Adventitia
D. Endothelium
| 0.361195 | 0.49413 | 0.360266 |
medmcqa
|
The WBC that is considered “second line of defence” is:
|
[
"Neutrophil",
"Eosinophil",
"Basophil",
"Monocyte"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
Monocyte is considered as the second line of defence.
Phagocytosis by Macrophages.
Macrophages are the end-stage product of monocytes that enter the tissues from the blood. When activated by the immune system, they are much more powerful phagocytes than neutrophils, often capable of phagocytizing as many as 100 bacteria. They also have the ability to engulf much larger particles, even whole RBCs or, occasionally, malarial parasites, whereas neutrophils are not capable of phagocytizing particles much larger than bacteria. Also, after digesting particles, macrophages can extrude the residual products and often survive and function for many more months.
Reference: GUYTON AND HALL TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY, THIRTEENTH EDITION(INTERNATIONAL EDITION ) page no 458
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
The WBC that is considered “second line of defence” is:
A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Basophil
D. Monocyte
Answer:
|
D. Monocyte is considered as the second line of defence.
Phagocytosis by Macrophages.
Macrophages are the end-stage product of monocytes that enter the tissues from the blood. When activated by the immune system, they are much more powerful phagocytes than neutrophils, often capable of phagocytizing as many as 100 bacteria. They also have the ability to engulf much larger particles, even whole RBCs or, occasionally, malarial parasites, whereas neutrophils are not capable of phagocytizing particles much larger than bacteria. Also, after digesting particles, macrophages can extrude the residual products and often survive and function for many more months.
Reference: GUYTON AND HALL TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY, THIRTEENTH EDITION(INTERNATIONAL EDITION ) page no 458
|
The WBC that is considered “second line of defence” is:
A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Basophil
D. Monocyte
| 0.340563 | 0.590976 | 0.417496 |
medmcqa
|
Mark the true statement regarding use of Lithium in maniac-depressive psychosis?
|
[
"Monotherapy for acute episodes",
"Monitoring of serum concentration is not useful for guiding dose adjustment",
"Can result in leucocytosis",
"Can result in hypehyroidism on long term use"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Lithium Use : Prophylaxis of mania alone, with sedatives in acute mania. Monitoring of S. concentration is significant to know the toxicity of drug S/E of Lithium Lithium use for a long time causes benign and reversible T-wave flattening Seizures Polyuria and compensatory polydipsia Dermatitis, folliculitis, vasculitis Weight gain
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Mark the true statement regarding use of Lithium in maniac-depressive psychosis?
A. Monotherapy for acute episodes
B. Monitoring of serum concentration is not useful for guiding dose adjustment
C. Can result in leucocytosis
D. Can result in hypehyroidism on long term use
Answer:
|
C. Lithium Use : Prophylaxis of mania alone, with sedatives in acute mania. Monitoring of S. concentration is significant to know the toxicity of drug S/E of Lithium Lithium use for a long time causes benign and reversible T-wave flattening Seizures Polyuria and compensatory polydipsia Dermatitis, folliculitis, vasculitis Weight gain
|
Mark the true statement regarding use of Lithium in maniac-depressive psychosis?
A. Monotherapy for acute episodes
B. Monitoring of serum concentration is not useful for guiding dose adjustment
C. Can result in leucocytosis
D. Can result in hypehyroidism on long term use
| 0.348458 | 0.613719 | 0.266605 |
medmcqa
|
Determination of Pulp vitality by pulse oximeter based on:
|
[
"Beer's law.",
"Pascal's law.",
"Doppler law.",
"Poisslues law."
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Pulse oxymetry-
Based on Beer Lambert law
Utilization of a probe that transmits red (640 mm) and infrared light
Photo detector as a receptor site
Different absorption ability of light by oxygenated and deoxygenated haemoglobin leads to changes in the amount of light differently absorbed by the vascular bed before reaching the photo detector.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Determination of Pulp vitality by pulse oximeter based on:
A. Beer's law.
B. Pascal's law.
C. Doppler law.
D. Poisslues law.
Answer:
|
A. Pulse oxymetry-
Based on Beer Lambert law
Utilization of a probe that transmits red (640 mm) and infrared light
Photo detector as a receptor site
Different absorption ability of light by oxygenated and deoxygenated haemoglobin leads to changes in the amount of light differently absorbed by the vascular bed before reaching the photo detector.
|
Determination of Pulp vitality by pulse oximeter based on:
A. Beer's law.
B. Pascal's law.
C. Doppler law.
D. Poisslues law.
| 0.305217 | 0.378311 | 0.343552 |
medmcqa
|
An Isograft indicates transfer of tissues between -
|
[
"Unrelated donors",
"Related donors",
"Monozygotic twins",
"From the same individual"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
An Isograft indicates transfer of tissues between -
A. Unrelated donors
B. Related donors
C. Monozygotic twins
D. From the same individual
Answer:
|
C.
|
An Isograft indicates transfer of tissues between -
A. Unrelated donors
B. Related donors
C. Monozygotic twins
D. From the same individual
| 0.418639 | 0.622922 | 0.425116 |
|
medmcqa
|
All of the following are causes of congenital blindness Except
|
[
"Toxoplasmosis",
"Congenital rubella",
"Vitamin A deficiency",
"Cataract"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Causes of congenital blindness:ToxoplasmosisCongenital cataractsGenetic diseaseCongenital rubellaCongenital glaucomaUsher syndrome(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 318 - 319)
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
All of the following are causes of congenital blindness Except
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Congenital rubella
C. Vitamin A deficiency
D. Cataract
Answer:
|
C. Causes of congenital blindness:ToxoplasmosisCongenital cataractsGenetic diseaseCongenital rubellaCongenital glaucomaUsher syndrome(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 318 - 319)
|
All of the following are causes of congenital blindness Except
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Congenital rubella
C. Vitamin A deficiency
D. Cataract
| 0.372811 | 0.533441 | 0.459535 |
medmcqa
|
Hypersecretory glaucoma is seen in –
|
[
"Epidemic dropsy",
"Marfan's syndrome",
"Hypertension",
"Diabetes"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
"In epidemic dropsy, glaucoma is wide angle glaucoma, with normal chamber and angle. Outflow is within normal limits. The queous shows raised level of histamin, prostaglandin and protein suggesting that glaucoma is hypersecretory". _ Mukherjee
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Hypersecretory glaucoma is seen in –
A. Epidemic dropsy
B. Marfan's syndrome
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes
Answer:
|
A. "In epidemic dropsy, glaucoma is wide angle glaucoma, with normal chamber and angle. Outflow is within normal limits. The queous shows raised level of histamin, prostaglandin and protein suggesting that glaucoma is hypersecretory". _ Mukherjee
|
Hypersecretory glaucoma is seen in –
A. Epidemic dropsy
B. Marfan's syndrome
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes
| 0.285168 | 0.518606 | 0.43475 |
medmcqa
|
A 14-year-old girl presents with quadriparesis, facial palsy, winging of scapula and ptosis. There is h/o similar illness in father and brother but less severe. Her CPK level is also raised (500IU/L). She is probably suffering from?
|
[
"Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy",
"Becker muscular dystrophy",
"Limb-girdle dystrophy",
"Scapulofaciohumeral dystrophy"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
Facial muscle involvement is not seen with Becker and Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy Emery Dreifuss and Becker are XLR disease so can't be present in a girl child. Hence by exclusion the diagnosis is Dx: Scapulo-Faciohumeraldystrophy. Facio-Scapulo-humeral dystrophy Autosomal dominant inheritance and has an onset in childhood or young adulthood. Facial weakness is the initial manifestation-->inability to smile, whistle or fully close the eyes. Weakness of the shoulder girdles-->makes arm elevation difficult. Scapular winging becomes apparent with attempts at abduction and forward movement of the arms. The serum CK level may be normal or mildly elevated. No specific treatment is available, ankle-foot ohoses are helpful for foot-drop.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
A 14-year-old girl presents with quadriparesis, facial palsy, winging of scapula and ptosis. There is h/o similar illness in father and brother but less severe. Her CPK level is also raised (500IU/L). She is probably suffering from?
A. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
B. Becker muscular dystrophy
C. Limb-girdle dystrophy
D. Scapulofaciohumeral dystrophy
Answer:
|
D. Facial muscle involvement is not seen with Becker and Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy Emery Dreifuss and Becker are XLR disease so can't be present in a girl child. Hence by exclusion the diagnosis is Dx: Scapulo-Faciohumeraldystrophy. Facio-Scapulo-humeral dystrophy Autosomal dominant inheritance and has an onset in childhood or young adulthood. Facial weakness is the initial manifestation-->inability to smile, whistle or fully close the eyes. Weakness of the shoulder girdles-->makes arm elevation difficult. Scapular winging becomes apparent with attempts at abduction and forward movement of the arms. The serum CK level may be normal or mildly elevated. No specific treatment is available, ankle-foot ohoses are helpful for foot-drop.
|
A 14-year-old girl presents with quadriparesis, facial palsy, winging of scapula and ptosis. There is h/o similar illness in father and brother but less severe. Her CPK level is also raised (500IU/L). She is probably suffering from?
A. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
B. Becker muscular dystrophy
C. Limb-girdle dystrophy
D. Scapulofaciohumeral dystrophy
| 0.289782 | 0.552454 | 0.438266 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following is true statement regarding human eye
|
[
"Cornea cut off wavelength upto 400 nm",
"Normal eye medium will permit wavelength of 400- 700 nm",
"Even after cataract surgery UV rays are not penetrated",
"Lens will not reflect light"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
Ans. b (normal rye medium will permit wavelength of 400- 700 ntn) Ref: yanoff 3rd ed p 383, internet sitesCornea and lens act as special filters absorbing the more energetic wavelength of the electromagnetic spectrum that can damage the retina. Cornea absorbs wavelength below 295nm where as lens absorbs strongly in the long U V B (300 - 315) and most of the UV A (315 - 400) wave-lengths. Eye light transmittance is relatively high in the 400nm-700nm range.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Which of the following is true statement regarding human eye
A. Cornea cut off wavelength upto 400 nm
B. Normal eye medium will permit wavelength of 400- 700 nm
C. Even after cataract surgery UV rays are not penetrated
D. Lens will not reflect light
Answer:
|
B. Ans. b (normal rye medium will permit wavelength of 400- 700 ntn) Ref: yanoff 3rd ed p 383, internet sitesCornea and lens act as special filters absorbing the more energetic wavelength of the electromagnetic spectrum that can damage the retina. Cornea absorbs wavelength below 295nm where as lens absorbs strongly in the long U V B (300 - 315) and most of the UV A (315 - 400) wave-lengths. Eye light transmittance is relatively high in the 400nm-700nm range.
|
Which of the following is true statement regarding human eye
A. Cornea cut off wavelength upto 400 nm
B. Normal eye medium will permit wavelength of 400- 700 nm
C. Even after cataract surgery UV rays are not penetrated
D. Lens will not reflect light
| 0.497015 | 0.576193 | 0.440104 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following muscle is not a hybrid muscle
|
[
"Pectoralis major",
"Extensor digitorum",
"Flexor digitorum profundus",
"Brachialis"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
Extensor digitorum Hybrid muscles are the muscles having more than one nerve supply Pctoralis major: lateral & medial pectoral nerves Brachialis: additional proprioceptive fibres from radial nerve, in addition to its muscular nerve, musculocutaneous nerve. Extensor digitorum is supplied by the posterior interosseous nerve only.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Which of the following muscle is not a hybrid muscle
A. Pectoralis major
B. Extensor digitorum
C. Flexor digitorum profundus
D. Brachialis
Answer:
|
B. Extensor digitorum Hybrid muscles are the muscles having more than one nerve supply Pctoralis major: lateral & medial pectoral nerves Brachialis: additional proprioceptive fibres from radial nerve, in addition to its muscular nerve, musculocutaneous nerve. Extensor digitorum is supplied by the posterior interosseous nerve only.
|
Which of the following muscle is not a hybrid muscle
A. Pectoralis major
B. Extensor digitorum
C. Flexor digitorum profundus
D. Brachialis
| 0.440845 | 0.613132 | 0.425014 |
medmcqa
|
Delayed union of fracture of a bone follo-wing a surgical treatment may be due to
|
[
"Infection",
"Inadequate circulation",
"Inadequate mobilization",
"All of the above"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
D i.e. All
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Delayed union of fracture of a bone follo-wing a surgical treatment may be due to
A. Infection
B. Inadequate circulation
C. Inadequate mobilization
D. All of the above
Answer:
|
D. D i.e. All
|
Delayed union of fracture of a bone follo-wing a surgical treatment may be due to
A. Infection
B. Inadequate circulation
C. Inadequate mobilization
D. All of the above
| 0.226637 | 0.477588 | 0.25607 |
medmcqa
|
What is the pressure of inspiration?
|
[
"Intrapleuarl",
"Transpulmonary",
"Trans chest wall",
"Alveolar pressure"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Ans: a (Intrapleural) Ref: Ganong,22nd ed,p. 6651The main pressure in lung related to inspiration is intrapleural pressure.Intrapleural pressure.The pressure in the intrapleural space between the lungs and chest wall is intrapleural pressure.Intrapleural pressure changes from -2.5 to -6 mmHg during inspiration. During strong inspiratory effort it may reach up to -30 mmHg.Transpulmonary pressureIt is the difference between alveolar pressure and intrapleural pressure. It is the measure of elastic forces in the lungs.Alveolar pressure or intrapulmonary pressureIt is the pressure inside the lung alveoli. When no air flows the alveolar pressure is considered to be equal to the atmospheric pressure, i.e., 0 cm of water.During inspiration it decreases to -1 cm of water.During expiration it increases to+1 cm of water.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
What is the pressure of inspiration?
A. Intrapleuarl
B. Transpulmonary
C. Trans chest wall
D. Alveolar pressure
Answer:
|
A. Ans: a (Intrapleural) Ref: Ganong,22nd ed,p. 6651The main pressure in lung related to inspiration is intrapleural pressure.Intrapleural pressure.The pressure in the intrapleural space between the lungs and chest wall is intrapleural pressure.Intrapleural pressure changes from -2.5 to -6 mmHg during inspiration. During strong inspiratory effort it may reach up to -30 mmHg.Transpulmonary pressureIt is the difference between alveolar pressure and intrapleural pressure. It is the measure of elastic forces in the lungs.Alveolar pressure or intrapulmonary pressureIt is the pressure inside the lung alveoli. When no air flows the alveolar pressure is considered to be equal to the atmospheric pressure, i.e., 0 cm of water.During inspiration it decreases to -1 cm of water.During expiration it increases to+1 cm of water.
|
What is the pressure of inspiration?
A. Intrapleuarl
B. Transpulmonary
C. Trans chest wall
D. Alveolar pressure
| 0.334968 | 0.482783 | 0.375463 |
medmcqa
|
One standard detion in normal standard curev includes value-
|
[
"50%",
"68%",
"95%",
"100%"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 849. 1SD : confidence limit = 68% 2SD : confidence limit = 95% 3SD : confidence limit = 99.7%
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
One standard detion in normal standard curev includes value-
A. 50%
B. 68%
C. 95%
D. 100%
Answer:
|
B. Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 849. 1SD : confidence limit = 68% 2SD : confidence limit = 95% 3SD : confidence limit = 99.7%
|
One standard detion in normal standard curev includes value-
A. 50%
B. 68%
C. 95%
D. 100%
| 0.357754 | 0.466178 | 0.358734 |
medmcqa
|
Foam cells are seen in infection with which virus ?
|
[
"Measles",
"EBV",
"Molluscum contagiosum",
"RSV"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., EBV EBV encephalomyelitis shows :Abnormal white matter with perivascular infiltrates of inflammatory cells and foam cells.Some myelin is replaced by lipid-filled macrophages and hyperplastic astrocytes.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Foam cells are seen in infection with which virus ?
A. Measles
B. EBV
C. Molluscum contagiosum
D. RSV
Answer:
|
B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., EBV EBV encephalomyelitis shows :Abnormal white matter with perivascular infiltrates of inflammatory cells and foam cells.Some myelin is replaced by lipid-filled macrophages and hyperplastic astrocytes.
|
Foam cells are seen in infection with which virus ?
A. Measles
B. EBV
C. Molluscum contagiosum
D. RSV
| 0.443047 | 0.580735 | 0.576234 |
medmcqa
|
During extraction of the upper first molar, the mesio buccal root is missing and is suspected to have been pushed into the maxillary sinus.
The best position for the patient immediately after the incident is
|
[
"To position the patient upright",
"To position the patients in a semi inclined posture to visualize the perforation",
"Trendelenberg position",
"Reverse trendelenberg position"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
During extraction of the upper first molar, the mesio buccal root is missing and is suspected to have been pushed into the maxillary sinus.
The best position for the patient immediately after the incident is
A. To position the patient upright
B. To position the patients in a semi inclined posture to visualize the perforation
C. Trendelenberg position
D. Reverse trendelenberg position
Answer:
|
A.
|
During extraction of the upper first molar, the mesio buccal root is missing and is suspected to have been pushed into the maxillary sinus.
The best position for the patient immediately after the incident is
A. To position the patient upright
B. To position the patients in a semi inclined posture to visualize the perforation
C. Trendelenberg position
D. Reverse trendelenberg position
| 0.363649 | 0.525422 | 0.407683 |
|
medmcqa
|
Rescue P.C.I is done for which of the following?
|
[
"Persistent chest pain with ST elevation > 60 min after thrombolysis",
"Persistent chest pain with ST elevation > 30 min after thrombolysis",
"Persistent Chest pain with ST elevation >90 min after thrombolysis",
"Pain with ST elevation for >120minutes after thrombolysis"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
Option C = Rescue P.C.I. After thrombolysis ST Elevation begin to reduce If ST Elevation persisting in spite of thrombolysis. So it's failure of thrombolysis | within 90 minutes Rescue PCI Types of PCI Primary PCI done for STEMI (Door to device time < 90 minutes). Delayed PCI done for Unstable Angina NSTEMI Rescue PCI Failure of thrombolysis (within 90 minutes).
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Rescue P.C.I is done for which of the following?
A. Persistent chest pain with ST elevation > 60 min after thrombolysis
B. Persistent chest pain with ST elevation > 30 min after thrombolysis
C. Persistent Chest pain with ST elevation >90 min after thrombolysis
D. Pain with ST elevation for >120minutes after thrombolysis
Answer:
|
C. Option C = Rescue P.C.I. After thrombolysis ST Elevation begin to reduce If ST Elevation persisting in spite of thrombolysis. So it's failure of thrombolysis | within 90 minutes Rescue PCI Types of PCI Primary PCI done for STEMI (Door to device time < 90 minutes). Delayed PCI done for Unstable Angina NSTEMI Rescue PCI Failure of thrombolysis (within 90 minutes).
|
Rescue P.C.I is done for which of the following?
A. Persistent chest pain with ST elevation > 60 min after thrombolysis
B. Persistent chest pain with ST elevation > 30 min after thrombolysis
C. Persistent Chest pain with ST elevation >90 min after thrombolysis
D. Pain with ST elevation for >120minutes after thrombolysis
| 0.354259 | 0.522767 | 0.369012 |
medmcqa
|
Fever associated with infection
|
[
"Accelerates bacterial and viral replication",
"Left shifts the oxygen dissociation curve",
"Is due to interleukin-1 released from CD4 T-helper cells",
"Increase oxygen release to tissue"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
Fever right shifts the oxygen dissociation curve, which allows for a greater release of oxygen to the tissue, making oxygen easily available to neutrophils and monocytes for use in the oxygen-dependent myeloperoxidase system of bactericidal killing. Having more oxygen available to tissue also enhances wound healing. In addition, fever interferes with bacterial and viral replication by providing a hostile environment for incubation. Fever is produced by the release of interleukin-I from macrophages. Interleukin-I, in turn, stimulates the hypothalamus to synthesize prostaglandins, which interact with the thermoregulatory center to produce fever.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Fever associated with infection
A. Accelerates bacterial and viral replication
B. Left shifts the oxygen dissociation curve
C. Is due to interleukin-1 released from CD4 T-helper cells
D. Increase oxygen release to tissue
Answer:
|
D. Fever right shifts the oxygen dissociation curve, which allows for a greater release of oxygen to the tissue, making oxygen easily available to neutrophils and monocytes for use in the oxygen-dependent myeloperoxidase system of bactericidal killing. Having more oxygen available to tissue also enhances wound healing. In addition, fever interferes with bacterial and viral replication by providing a hostile environment for incubation. Fever is produced by the release of interleukin-I from macrophages. Interleukin-I, in turn, stimulates the hypothalamus to synthesize prostaglandins, which interact with the thermoregulatory center to produce fever.
|
Fever associated with infection
A. Accelerates bacterial and viral replication
B. Left shifts the oxygen dissociation curve
C. Is due to interleukin-1 released from CD4 T-helper cells
D. Increase oxygen release to tissue
| 0.388869 | 0.611744 | 0.43112 |
medmcqa
|
Last organ to putrefy in females is?
|
[
"Liver",
"Uterus",
"Brain",
"Breast"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Uterus Order of putrefactiono Order of appearance of putrefaction from earliest to last is : larynx, trachea > stomach, intestine > spleen, liver > brain, lungs > heart > kidney, bladder > uterus/prostate > bone.o Amongst the soft tissues uterus in female and prostate in malesm are last to undergo putrefaction, as uterus and prostate resist putrefaction. Otherwise bones are last to undergo putrefaction, overall.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Last organ to putrefy in females is?
A. Liver
B. Uterus
C. Brain
D. Breast
Answer:
|
B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Uterus Order of putrefactiono Order of appearance of putrefaction from earliest to last is : larynx, trachea > stomach, intestine > spleen, liver > brain, lungs > heart > kidney, bladder > uterus/prostate > bone.o Amongst the soft tissues uterus in female and prostate in malesm are last to undergo putrefaction, as uterus and prostate resist putrefaction. Otherwise bones are last to undergo putrefaction, overall.
|
Last organ to putrefy in females is?
A. Liver
B. Uterus
C. Brain
D. Breast
| 0.356082 | 0.591681 | 0.397898 |
medmcqa
|
Hamartomatous lung tissue is?
|
[
"Hypoplasia of lung",
"Congenital cyst",
"Lobar sequestration",
"Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
Ans. (d) Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 670; 8th/pg 679)Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CCAM): Hamartomatous Q or dysplastic lung tissue, usually confined to one lobe.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Hamartomatous lung tissue is?
A. Hypoplasia of lung
B. Congenital cyst
C. Lobar sequestration
D. Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation
Answer:
|
D. Ans. (d) Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 670; 8th/pg 679)Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CCAM): Hamartomatous Q or dysplastic lung tissue, usually confined to one lobe.
|
Hamartomatous lung tissue is?
A. Hypoplasia of lung
B. Congenital cyst
C. Lobar sequestration
D. Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation
| 0.317447 | 0.509624 | 0.509624 |
medmcqa
|
Test for diagnosis of pyogenic meningitis is?
|
[
"Widal",
"CSF PCR",
"CSF examination",
"PET scan"
] |
mcq
|
C
|
ANSWER: (C) CSF examinationREF: Harrison 17th ed chapter 376The diagnosis of bacterial meningitis is made by examination of the CSF. The need to obtain neuroimaging studies (CT or MRI) prior to LP requires clinical judgment.A broad-range PCR can detect small numbers of viable and nonviable organisms in CSF and is expected to be useful for making a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis in patients who have been pretreated with oral or parenteral antibiotics and in whom Gram's stain and CSF culture are negative
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Test for diagnosis of pyogenic meningitis is?
A. Widal
B. CSF PCR
C. CSF examination
D. PET scan
Answer:
|
C. ANSWER: (C) CSF examinationREF: Harrison 17th ed chapter 376The diagnosis of bacterial meningitis is made by examination of the CSF. The need to obtain neuroimaging studies (CT or MRI) prior to LP requires clinical judgment.A broad-range PCR can detect small numbers of viable and nonviable organisms in CSF and is expected to be useful for making a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis in patients who have been pretreated with oral or parenteral antibiotics and in whom Gram's stain and CSF culture are negative
|
Test for diagnosis of pyogenic meningitis is?
A. Widal
B. CSF PCR
C. CSF examination
D. PET scan
| 0.345748 | 0.459916 | 0.364818 |
medmcqa
|
Causes of thickened gallbladder wall on ultrasound examination are all except:
|
[
"Postprandial state",
"Cholecystitis",
"Congestive cardiac failure",
"Kawasaki disease"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
Ans: D (Kawasaki disease) Ref: Manual of Emergency Critical Care Ultrasound Vicke E Noble. 2nd ed. Pg 156Explanation:Kawasaki disease is associated with hydrops of gallbladder.Gallbladder Wall Thickening A gallbladder wall that is thickened is a sign of inflammation. This is a non-specific finding, and many other pathologic processes, as well as a postprandial gallbladder, can give you falsely elevated measurements.It is important to measure the wall of the anterior gallbladder surface because of the acoustic enhancement artifact mentioned.Because sound waves travel through a fluid-filled structure, no attenuation occurs. Thus, when those sound weaves hit the back of the gallbladder, they will be so strong that they will obscure an accurate picture of the wall thickness.For gallbladder wall thickness, greater than 3 mm is abnormal.Differential for Thickened Gallbladder WallPostprandialRenal failureAscitesHepatitisHypoalbuminemiaHIV/AIDSAdenomyomatosisMultiple myelomaCholecystitisCongestive heart failure
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Causes of thickened gallbladder wall on ultrasound examination are all except:
A. Postprandial state
B. Cholecystitis
C. Congestive cardiac failure
D. Kawasaki disease
Answer:
|
D. Ans: D (Kawasaki disease) Ref: Manual of Emergency Critical Care Ultrasound Vicke E Noble. 2nd ed. Pg 156Explanation:Kawasaki disease is associated with hydrops of gallbladder.Gallbladder Wall Thickening A gallbladder wall that is thickened is a sign of inflammation. This is a non-specific finding, and many other pathologic processes, as well as a postprandial gallbladder, can give you falsely elevated measurements.It is important to measure the wall of the anterior gallbladder surface because of the acoustic enhancement artifact mentioned.Because sound waves travel through a fluid-filled structure, no attenuation occurs. Thus, when those sound weaves hit the back of the gallbladder, they will be so strong that they will obscure an accurate picture of the wall thickness.For gallbladder wall thickness, greater than 3 mm is abnormal.Differential for Thickened Gallbladder WallPostprandialRenal failureAscitesHepatitisHypoalbuminemiaHIV/AIDSAdenomyomatosisMultiple myelomaCholecystitisCongestive heart failure
|
Causes of thickened gallbladder wall on ultrasound examination are all except:
A. Postprandial state
B. Cholecystitis
C. Congestive cardiac failure
D. Kawasaki disease
| 0.353502 | 0.558063 | 0.3079 |
medmcqa
|
In caloric test, cold water stimulation causes movement of eye -
|
[
"Some side",
"Opposite side",
"Up",
"Do\\vn"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Opposite side [Ref: Dhingra 5th/e p. 48}o Each ear is irrigated twice : once with cold water (70C below the body temperature, i. e. 300C) and then with warm water (70C above the body temperature, i.e. 440C).o Cold water provokes nystagmus towards the opposite ear, while warm water provokes nystagmus towardssame ear (COWS Cold - oppsite, Warm - same).
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
In caloric test, cold water stimulation causes movement of eye -
A. Some side
B. Opposite side
C. Up
D. Do\vn
Answer:
|
B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Opposite side [Ref: Dhingra 5th/e p. 48}o Each ear is irrigated twice : once with cold water (70C below the body temperature, i. e. 300C) and then with warm water (70C above the body temperature, i.e. 440C).o Cold water provokes nystagmus towards the opposite ear, while warm water provokes nystagmus towardssame ear (COWS Cold - oppsite, Warm - same).
|
In caloric test, cold water stimulation causes movement of eye -
A. Some side
B. Opposite side
C. Up
D. Do\vn
| 0.454301 | 0.487733 | 0.368639 |
medmcqa
|
Which of the following is not false about annual risk of TB
|
[
"ARI of 1% = 75 new cases",
"Current ARI in India is 1.7%",
"It is represents new cases of TB",
"It is assessed by tuberculin conversion in previously non-vaccinated children"
] |
mcq
|
D
|
Incidence of TB infection (Annual infection rate, Annual risk of Infection ARI) : Percentage of population under study who will be newly infected (not diseased or cases) with TB among Non-infected in 1 year. Expresses attacking force of TB in community In developing countries 1% ARI corresponds to: 50 SS +ve cases per 100,000 general population Tuberculin conversion index is the "best indicator for evaluation of TB problem and its trend" in the community. Current ARI in India : 1.5% Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 190-191
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Which of the following is not false about annual risk of TB
A. ARI of 1% = 75 new cases
B. Current ARI in India is 1.7%
C. It is represents new cases of TB
D. It is assessed by tuberculin conversion in previously non-vaccinated children
Answer:
|
D. Incidence of TB infection (Annual infection rate, Annual risk of Infection ARI) : Percentage of population under study who will be newly infected (not diseased or cases) with TB among Non-infected in 1 year. Expresses attacking force of TB in community In developing countries 1% ARI corresponds to: 50 SS +ve cases per 100,000 general population Tuberculin conversion index is the "best indicator for evaluation of TB problem and its trend" in the community. Current ARI in India : 1.5% Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 190-191
|
Which of the following is not false about annual risk of TB
A. ARI of 1% = 75 new cases
B. Current ARI in India is 1.7%
C. It is represents new cases of TB
D. It is assessed by tuberculin conversion in previously non-vaccinated children
| 0.339786 | 0.459478 | 0.414717 |
medmcqa
|
A 12-year-old girl presents to the casualty with symptoms of fever, shoness of breath, and cough. A chest X-ray reveals complete consolidation of the lower lobe of the left lung. Cultures of the lower lobe of the left lung would most likely reveal which organism?
|
[
"Streptococcus pneumoniae",
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Klebsiella pneumoniae",
"Pseudomonas aeruginosa"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
The history and findings are consistent with a lobar pneumonia. The most common etiologic agent of lobar pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae. ESSENTIALS OF DIAGNOSIS Productive cough, fever, rigors, dyspnea, early pleuritic chest pain Consolidating lobar pneumonia on chest radiograph Lancet-shaped gram-positive diplococci on Gram stain of sputum Ref: Papadakis MA, McPhee SJ, "Pneumonia, Pneumococcal." Quick Medical Diagnosis & Treatment
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
A 12-year-old girl presents to the casualty with symptoms of fever, shoness of breath, and cough. A chest X-ray reveals complete consolidation of the lower lobe of the left lung. Cultures of the lower lobe of the left lung would most likely reveal which organism?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Answer:
|
A. The history and findings are consistent with a lobar pneumonia. The most common etiologic agent of lobar pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae. ESSENTIALS OF DIAGNOSIS Productive cough, fever, rigors, dyspnea, early pleuritic chest pain Consolidating lobar pneumonia on chest radiograph Lancet-shaped gram-positive diplococci on Gram stain of sputum Ref: Papadakis MA, McPhee SJ, "Pneumonia, Pneumococcal." Quick Medical Diagnosis & Treatment
|
A 12-year-old girl presents to the casualty with symptoms of fever, shoness of breath, and cough. A chest X-ray reveals complete consolidation of the lower lobe of the left lung. Cultures of the lower lobe of the left lung would most likely reveal which organism?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
| 0.336561 | 0.616078 | 0.439048 |
medmcqa
|
IgA deposits on skin biopsy
|
[
"Henoch Schouleiln puspura",
"Giant cell aeritis",
"Microscopic polyangitis",
"Wegener's granulomatosis"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
A.i.e. Henosch Schonlein purpura
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
IgA deposits on skin biopsy
A. Henoch Schouleiln puspura
B. Giant cell aeritis
C. Microscopic polyangitis
D. Wegener's granulomatosis
Answer:
|
A. A.i.e. Henosch Schonlein purpura
|
IgA deposits on skin biopsy
A. Henoch Schouleiln puspura
B. Giant cell aeritis
C. Microscopic polyangitis
D. Wegener's granulomatosis
| 0.22668 | 0.420922 | 0.409553 |
medmcqa
|
A Dentin 'Primer'?
|
[
"Etches the dentin",
"It increases the surface energy & wets the dentin surface",
"Removes the smear layer",
"Conditions the dentin"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
A Dentin 'Primer'?
A. Etches the dentin
B. It increases the surface energy & wets the dentin surface
C. Removes the smear layer
D. Conditions the dentin
Answer:
|
B.
|
A Dentin 'Primer'?
A. Etches the dentin
B. It increases the surface energy & wets the dentin surface
C. Removes the smear layer
D. Conditions the dentin
| 0.405219 | 0.478699 | 0.309913 |
|
medmcqa
|
Which of the following hormonal activity is expected immediately prior to Ovulation?
|
[
"LH surge",
"FSH surge",
"Progestrone surge",
"Estrogen surge"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Ovulation occurs due to the effect of increased concentration of LH. In the pre-ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle, the ovarian follicle will undergo a series of transformations called cumulus expansion, which is stimulated by FSH. This is followed by LH surge.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Which of the following hormonal activity is expected immediately prior to Ovulation?
A. LH surge
B. FSH surge
C. Progestrone surge
D. Estrogen surge
Answer:
|
A. Ovulation occurs due to the effect of increased concentration of LH. In the pre-ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle, the ovarian follicle will undergo a series of transformations called cumulus expansion, which is stimulated by FSH. This is followed by LH surge.
|
Which of the following hormonal activity is expected immediately prior to Ovulation?
A. LH surge
B. FSH surge
C. Progestrone surge
D. Estrogen surge
| 0.429204 | 0.621935 | 0.409627 |
medmcqa
|
Following are fibrous joints :
|
[
"Pubic symphysis",
"Fronto parietal suture",
"Manubrio sternal joint",
"Inf. radio ulnar joint"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
B. i.e. Frontoparietal sutureSkull sutures (except sphen-occipital), vomer- sphenoid rostrum schindylesisQ, inferior tibiofibular syndesmosis and dentoalveolar gomphosis (tooth socket) joints are fibrous joints. A Schindylesis is a specialized suture where a rigid bone fits into a groove on a neighbouring element eg a cleft between the alae of vomer, which receives the rostrum of the sphenoid. (i.e. vomer - sphenoidal rostrum junction)Q- Epiphyseo-diaphyseal growth plateQ, costochondral, 1st chondrosternal and sphenoocipital joints are synchondrosis/ syncendrosis or primary cailaginous joints; whereas, symphysis pubis, symphysis menti, sacrococcygeal, interveebral and manubriosternal jointsQ are symphyses or secondary cailaginous joints.Aicular cailage of most (not all) synol joints are lined by hyaline cailage Q. In some synol joints the cavity is paially or completely subdivided into two by an aicular disc, made up of fibrocailage eg. Temporomadibular jt, sternoclavicular jt, menisci of knee joint. More mobile the joint the more commonly it discloates eg shoulder jtQ. MCP Jt. is a condylar - synol joint
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
Following are fibrous joints :
A. Pubic symphysis
B. Fronto parietal suture
C. Manubrio sternal joint
D. Inf. radio ulnar joint
Answer:
|
B. B. i.e. Frontoparietal sutureSkull sutures (except sphen-occipital), vomer- sphenoid rostrum schindylesisQ, inferior tibiofibular syndesmosis and dentoalveolar gomphosis (tooth socket) joints are fibrous joints. A Schindylesis is a specialized suture where a rigid bone fits into a groove on a neighbouring element eg a cleft between the alae of vomer, which receives the rostrum of the sphenoid. (i.e. vomer - sphenoidal rostrum junction)Q- Epiphyseo-diaphyseal growth plateQ, costochondral, 1st chondrosternal and sphenoocipital joints are synchondrosis/ syncendrosis or primary cailaginous joints; whereas, symphysis pubis, symphysis menti, sacrococcygeal, interveebral and manubriosternal jointsQ are symphyses or secondary cailaginous joints.Aicular cailage of most (not all) synol joints are lined by hyaline cailage Q. In some synol joints the cavity is paially or completely subdivided into two by an aicular disc, made up of fibrocailage eg. Temporomadibular jt, sternoclavicular jt, menisci of knee joint. More mobile the joint the more commonly it discloates eg shoulder jtQ. MCP Jt. is a condylar - synol joint
|
Following are fibrous joints :
A. Pubic symphysis
B. Fronto parietal suture
C. Manubrio sternal joint
D. Inf. radio ulnar joint
| 0.392747 | 0.562818 | 0.498786 |
medmcqa
|
For exhumation the order should be passed by -
|
[
"Chief judicial magistrate",
"Executive magistrate",
"Police officer",
"Session judge"
] |
mcq
|
B
|
The body is exhumed only when, there is written order from the executive magistrate.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
For exhumation the order should be passed by -
A. Chief judicial magistrate
B. Executive magistrate
C. Police officer
D. Session judge
Answer:
|
B. The body is exhumed only when, there is written order from the executive magistrate.
|
For exhumation the order should be passed by -
A. Chief judicial magistrate
B. Executive magistrate
C. Police officer
D. Session judge
| 0.368094 | 0.467657 | 0.27333 |
medmcqa
|
The radiograph of a 32 year old patient is shown below. The patient is asymptomatic and the lesion revealed in the radiograph is an accidental finding. The most likely diagnosis is:
|
[
"Stafne’s bone cavity",
"Radicular Cyst",
"Dentigerous cyst",
"Lateral periodontal cyst"
] |
mcq
|
A
|
Radiological signs:
The lesion presents as a chance radiographic finding. It is a round or an ovoid (<3 cm) uniform radiolucency with a well-defined, usually corticated, margin. Stafne’s bone cavity is non-expansile and is found below the mandibular canal just anterior to the angle of the mandible. The location of Stafne’s bone cavity distinguishes it from odontogenic lesions, whose origin is within the alveolar bone.
|
The following are multiple choice questions (with answers) about knowledge and skills in advanced master-level STEM courses.
The radiograph of a 32 year old patient is shown below. The patient is asymptomatic and the lesion revealed in the radiograph is an accidental finding. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Stafne’s bone cavity
B. Radicular Cyst
C. Dentigerous cyst
D. Lateral periodontal cyst
Answer:
|
A. Radiological signs:
The lesion presents as a chance radiographic finding. It is a round or an ovoid (<3 cm) uniform radiolucency with a well-defined, usually corticated, margin. Stafne’s bone cavity is non-expansile and is found below the mandibular canal just anterior to the angle of the mandible. The location of Stafne’s bone cavity distinguishes it from odontogenic lesions, whose origin is within the alveolar bone.
|
The radiograph of a 32 year old patient is shown below. The patient is asymptomatic and the lesion revealed in the radiograph is an accidental finding. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Stafne’s bone cavity
B. Radicular Cyst
C. Dentigerous cyst
D. Lateral periodontal cyst
| 0.344003 | 0.417779 | 0.307405 |
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