<p>There is most likely an assumption in the background that utility is increasing in the amount of flour, independently of its packaging. Then you are willing to exchange two 1kg-bags of flour for one 2kg-bag of flour. Thus the MRS is -2 (or -0.5, depending on the direction of exchange).</p>

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2021-07-07T08:22:19.807Z
2021-07-07T08:22:19.807Z
VARulle
<p>The following statement is given as true and I cannot make sense why. It is the only information given.</p>
<p>&quot;The <span class="math-container">$MRS$</span> of flour in 1kg bags for flour in 2kg bags is negative and constant.&quot;</p>
<p>I thought working by <span class="math-container">$MU_{1kg}/MU_{2kg}$</span>, but could not reach any conclusion.</p>

<microeconomics><utility>
Question about Marginal Utility
madetolast
# Question about Marginal Utility

(Asked by: username_0 on 2021-07-07)

The following statement is given as true and I cannot make sense why. It is the only information given.

"The $MRS$ of flour in 1kg bags for flour in 2kg bags is negative and constant."

I thought working by $MU\_{1kg}/MU\_{2kg}$, but could not reach any conclusion.

**Tags:** microeconomics, utility


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## 1 answers

### Answer by username_1 on 2021-07-07. Score: 3 | Accepted answer

There is most likely an assumption in the background that utility is increasing in the amount of flour, independently of its packaging. Then you are willing to exchange two 1kg-bags of flour for one 2kg-bag of flour. Thus the MRS is -2 (or -0.5, depending on the direction of exchange).


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