Question: After reading ["Is *everyone*" singular or plural?"](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/225/is-everyone-singular-or-plural), I would refrain from asking this question, but the husband of a colleague of mine (English professor, native speaker of British English) stated against it, so I am looking for further enlightenment.

He advocates *some* should be solely used to refer to plural forms. Thus,

> 
> some non-existent towns
> 
> 
> 

is perfectly correct, but

> 
> some non-existent town
> 
> 
> 

should be replaced by 

> 
> a non-existent town
> 
> 
> 

Is that true?

Answer: 
*[Some](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/british/some_1)* is used to refer to a particular person or thing without stating which. For example,

> 
> **Some** customer called yesterday.
> 
> 
>
You're right, he's right, they're right, everyone's right.

Just incomplete. No one has mentioned the important detail.

"A non-existent town" - CORRECT
"Some non-existent town" - INFORMAL

That's all there is to it.

"Some" is being used EXACTLY the way "a" is supposed to be used. You can't use "some" in this way in proper speech or writing. It in formal, stressing the indefiniteness. For further emphasis (almost to the point of being silly), we may also say "Some random non-existent town."