Question: What does the Greek word κύριος mean in 1 Cor. 12:3?

Is the phrase «κύριος Ἰησοῦς» to be understood as "Jesus is Yahveh" (where κύριος is a substitute for the Tetragrammaton), or "Jesus is the lord" (where κύριος simply means "master," "lord")?

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> [1 Cor. 12:3](http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cfm?b=1Co&c=12&t=KJV#s=t_conc_1074003)
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> So I want you to know that no one speaking by the Spirit of God will curse Jesus, and no one can say Jesus is **Lord**, except by the Holy Spirit. (New Living Translation)
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> διὸ γνωρίζω ὑμῖν ὅτι οὐδεὶς ἐν πνεύματι θεοῦ λαλῶν λέγει ἀνάθεμα Ἰησοῦς καὶ οὐδεὶς δύναται εἰπεῖν **κύριος** Ἰησοῦς εἰ μὴ ἐν πνεύματι ἁγίῳ (Textus Receptus)
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Answer: 
The Greek word **κύριος** means "Master-Lord-Ruler". It has no connection to "Yahveh", which in Greek is translated (excluding pronouns and articles) using forms of the verb "εἰμὶ" (to be) . Also, the audience of the epistle has a Greek cultural background, where the word "κύριος" (lord) is not used in place of the word "θεός" (god).

However, Paul, being a former Pharisee, uses the word "κύριος" extensively when refering to Jesus, as for a religious Jew this is a reserved way of refering to "Yahveh". He would call Jesus either "Lord Jesus" or "Jesus Christ" (Jesus the Annointed; "Christ" is a transliteration of "Χριστός", a Greek word). The whole point of Christianity is that Jesus is the Son of God sent by God to earth as the Messiah that brings salvation to the human kind. From a Jewish standpoint, calling Jesus *Lord* is calling him *God*, and calling Jesus *Annointed* is calling him *Messiah*.

In this verse, Paul proclaims that one cannot recognize that Jesus is more than a man if not by enlightment by the Holy Spirit. Even though the word does not mean or imply "God" in Greek, it is obvious that it used in this way, since what Paul teaches is that Jesus is God.
As I understand it, the Jewish people say Adonai (which can be translated Lord) when reading the Tetragrammaton, but I don't think it's ever written as a substitute; only spoken. (Not researched sorry).

I think this book is written in the early Christian culture, which was diverging from the Jewish culture, so it may be that 'the new way' is to write it. There is no Tetragrammaton in Greek, so perhaps writing Lord like this is the Greek equivalent.

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Looking through the uses of κύριος in the new testament:

<http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G2962&t=KJV>

Throughout the book of Matthew it's mostly used to refer to Jesus, secondly to God the father, and thirdly used in parables (probably still referring to God):

In the below examples, κύριος is followed by G2962 (the strongs number).

* **God** - Mat 1:24 - Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord G2962 had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:
* **Jesus** - Mat 8:2 - And, behold, there came a leper and worshipped him, saying, Lord, G2962 if thou wilt, thou canst make me clean.
* **Parable** - Mat 10:24 - The disciple is not above his master, nor the servant above his lord. G2962

I read through the first page of the above link, and couldn't find any other uses of the word. I checked a few verses on each of the remaining pages. From what I've seen, the word κύριος is only used to refer to God the father, or Jesus throughout the New Testament.

If anyone has the time and inclination to go through all the verses and double check, even if there are one or two that do not refer to God or Jesus, I think it's plain that the writers of the New Testament are saying that Jesus and God the Father are one, as they both share the same title 'The Lord' throughout the collection of books.