Question: I was a trinitian, until I discussed with JW. I still believe in Trinity cause there're many verses back this up(including Mat 28:19) But I wondered
According to Phil 2:9 and some other verses. Jesus was exalted. If He was/is God, why after resurrection He was not only resurrected but also exalted to higher position (as if he wasn't in that position)?

Edit :
I meant, God the Father exalted Jesus to be on the right hand after His obedience, as if He was an angel (Michael Arcangel) before then now be the first born aka the heir of the authorities and kingdom of His Father.

Edit 2 : oh may, this Jw doctrine almost make me able only understand verses like Jw thinks. That, as if I was blind to the whole context of the chapter and story and bible.

Answer: 
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> Jesus was exalted [...] (as if he wasn't in that position)
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He wasn't; he descended down to earth (previous two verses), hence the need for an [ascension](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ascension_of_Jesus), which is what [exaltation](http://www.greekdoc.com/bible/lexicon/uper.html#uperuyow) means; see also John 17:24.

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> I was a Trinitarian
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Apparently a Protestant or Evangelical Trinitarian; when doing the sign of the cross, moving the right hand from the forehead to the chest or abdomen signifies Christ's descent from heaven to earth, and its move to the right shoulder, His ascent to the Father's right hand side (Matthew 26:64, Mark 14:62, Luke 22:69, Acts 7:56, Hebrews 1:3, 8:1; 1 Peter 3:22).

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> If He was/is God, why after [the] resurrection He was [...] also exalted?
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This is a dead giveaway, insofar both seem to befit His humanity; otherwise, in light of divine immortality, one could also ask:

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> If Jesus was God (the famous John1:1), why was He ~~exalted to higher position~~ *resurrected*, as if he wasn't ~~in that position~~ *already alive to begin with*?
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Jesus was God (John 1:1, "the Word was God") in the sense of agency (authorized representative), similar to how Moses was made God (Exodus 7:1, ""See, I have made you God to Pharaoh," but note that the 'as' or 'like' often found in the translations is a gloss added by translators) but more so (note the comparison at John 1:17 between Jesus and Moses, Jesus > Moses).

Jesus himself says at John 17:3 that the Father is the only *true* God.

Jesus also says at John 8:4 that He is a man who has heard things *from* God, which summarizes his role as the image (Colossians 1:15, "The Son is the image of the invisible God") or 'Word' (John 1:1, Revelation 19:13, "His name is The Word of God") of God.

But, Jesus - a man who is God in the sense of agency - is then exalted to the right hand of God (= the Father) after 'passing the test' of a faultless, fully human life that was ontologically open the possibility of sin, where He now reigns with all authority granted to him *by* God.

Easy-peasy, lemon-squeezy.