Question: I was a trinitian, until I discussed with JW. I still believe in Trinity cause there're many verses back this up(including Mat 28:19) But I wondered
According to Phil 2:9 and some other verses. Jesus was exalted. If He was/is God, why after resurrection He was not only resurrected but also exalted to higher position (as if he wasn't in that position)?

Edit :
I meant, God the Father exalted Jesus to be on the right hand after His obedience, as if He was an angel (Michael Arcangel) before then now be the first born aka the heir of the authorities and kingdom of His Father.

Edit 2 : oh may, this Jw doctrine almost make me able only understand verses like Jw thinks. That, as if I was blind to the whole context of the chapter and story and bible.

Answer: 
The humbling of the Son of God, and then his exaltation in humanity, is explained in Hebrews 2:9. The literal translation demonstrates the sequence of events :

> 
> ... but who little some than angels made lower we see Jesus on account of the suffering of the death with glory and with honour crowned
> 
> 
> 

This is the Englishman's Greek New Testament literal interlinear but can also be seen, very much the same, in the [Biblehub literal interlinear](https://biblehub.com/interlinear/hebrews/2-9.htm).

Being made lower than the angels, that is to say, coming from heaven and having already humbled himself ('voiding' himself as we read in Philippians 2:7) Jesus, in humanity, went further and submitted to suffering and death - in humanity.

For this cause, as the writer to the Hebrews makes clear, that is to say on account of the suffering and death he endured in his humanity, he is, upon resurrection, highly exalted.

The exaltation is in honour of what he, himself, in humanity, endured in his humanity, and is not automatically applied due to his previous glory and honour prior to incarnation.
Jesus was exalted precisely because he had been humbled during His incarnation, a process that the passage in Phil 2:5-11 calls the "kenosis", "became nothing", or "emptied Himself". Here is the passage in question:

> 
> **5** Let this mind be in you which was also in Christ Jesus:
> 
> 
> **6** Who, existing in the form of God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
> 
> 
> **7** **but emptied [ἐκένωσεν] Himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in human likeness.**
> 
> 
> **8** And being found in appearance as a man, He **humbled Himself** and became obedient to death— even death on a cross.
> 
> 
> **9** Therefore God exalted Him to the highest place and gave Him the name above all names, **10** that at the name of Jesus every knee
> should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, **11** and
> every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God
> the Father.
> 
> 
> 

This passage sets out several facts:

1. Jesus was equal with God before the incarnation/kenosis
2. Jesus voluntarily became human (was "incarnated") and was humbled
3. Jesus voluntarily died as a human
4. Jesus, following the resurrection, was exalted, that is, his previous status in heaven was restored

This answered Jesus' prayer in John 17:5 -

> 
> And now, Father, glorify Me in Your presence with the glory I had with
> You before the world existed.
> 
> 
> 

It is very significant that Jesus' exaltation described in Phil 2:9-11 is almost a direct quote (of the LXX text) of a prophecy in Isa 45:23 about what would happen to Jehovah/YHWH which effectively means that Paul, in Phil 2:9-11, is describing Jesus as Jehovah.