<s>[INST] Shakespearian language and literature represented a removal from the spoken language and the common experience of the times. It was aristocratic, and beautifully so. The writing of Wadsworth and secular pieces like "Paradise Lost", pioneered the 'language of heaven', alienating literature further from the best contemporary literature of other languages.
 
Before this point literature had an aristocratic hue, sourced from feudal identities and the exchange of Latin manuscripts. So why do we consider the Shakespearian period a 'golden age'?[/INST]