<s>[INST] A 60-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and smoking is evaluated for new onset of chest pain with radiation to the arm. The pain is intermittent and triggered by physical exertion. His ECG shows ST segment depression and T wave inversion during episodes of pain. He undergoes a cardiac catheterization that reveals a 90% stenosis in the proximal left anterior descending (LAD) artery. He is diagnosed with stable angina secondary to coronary artery disease. What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?
A. Urgent revascularization with percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) or coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)
B. Medical therapy with antianginal agents (nitrates, beta blockers, and calcium channel blockers) to alleviate symptoms and slow disease progression
C. Management of comorbid conditions such as hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and smoking cessation
D. A combination of B and C[/INST]