<s>[INST] Red wine, particularly a full-bodied and rich red wine known as cabernet franc, usually sells for a higher price than a full-bodied and rich red wine called merlot. However, the November 2008 issue of an American wine magazine reported that the price of cabernet franc was actually lower than the price of merlot during the period from 1999 to 2008. The magazine suggested that the most likely explanation for this abnormality was changes in the global consumption patterns of red wine. According to the magazine, the popularity of cabernet franc had been declining over the past few years, even though there were no reported changes in the demand for merlot. Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the magazine’s explanation that the declining popularity of cabernet franc (relative to merlot) was the reason for the lower price of cabernet franc during that period?[/INST]