Let's say that you have a captable with multiple share holders, divide to two groups: group A and group B. Now the company has decided to issue new shares. The decision was made to have these new share dilute the two groups differently: 25% of the shares will dilute group A, 75% of the shares will dilute group B.There are two clear scenarios to do this:One:
a. Issue 25% of the shares, perform anti-dilution for group B so they remain in the existing ownership %.
b. Issue the remaining 75% of the shares, perform anti-dilution for group A so they remain in the existing ownership % as following step a.or, two: 
the exact opposite - first issue 75% and do anti-dilution, then 25% and anti-dilution.My question is:
Does it matter in what order this is done? Whether it is as in scenario one or scenario two? Is one scenario better for Group A and another for Group B? Or is it exactly the same?And a bonus question - can this be done in a more fair way? Perhaps, at the same time? Or use some other mechanism of anti-dilution (value based? something else) to make it more fair?Thanks!