":Friends, I checked the Isaiah link  a wonderful page, thank you! I checked its reading against my Masoretic text and they are almost identical. I did notice that the verse uses ""hidden"", the Hebrew root of this being STR, which I use for my own name in Hebrew! AL-eSToR  ""let me not be hidden"". However, there are no free standing pronouns in this verse. Fred P Miller's comments on the verse are interesting and valuable. He sees a reference to the trinity. The text reads like this. 
 {| 
 |ani|v'atah|adonai|Yahweh|sh'lachni|v'ruacho 
 |- 
 |I|&now;|my lord|Yahweh|he sent me|&his; Spirit 
 |- 
 |} 
 :This is interesting, because normally Hebrew is Verb-Subject-Object. Here it seems to be Obeject-Subject-Verb. I would translate this into English: ""And now it is I, Yahweh sends, and his Spirit."" Anyway, sorry, no feminine markings in this section at all. 
 :However, you do seem to be missing the point. I expect 100% of references to spirit to be feminine in the OT. The word is feminine. Feminine markings say nothing about the real gender of the HS, only masculine markings could say anything. Feminine is simply required grammatically. 
 :If you want to find evidence of a feminine Spirit, Latin's a much better place to look. Every masculine reference can be written off as purely grammatical, and a feminine reference will prove the writer believed the spirit to be feminine. But Greek is just as good really, because spirit is neuter, any reference male or female is ungrammatical, used to indicate real gender. 
 :Can you see? If the Holy Spirit really is feminine, the only languages that will never be able to show it are Semitic languages. If I wanted to prove that the Holy Spirit was feminine, the one place I'd never look is Semitic languages because they are almost grammatically incapable of showing it. 
 :Let me show it in English. Imagine gay marriage is legal and I'm broght up by a gay couple who adopt me. It's normal in this pretend world. Imagine also that it's the kind of gay couple where one loves drag and acting female. Let's also say that it is normal in this pretend world to call the female-acting partner in a gay family like this ""mother"". Now imagine I say to my friends at school, ""Both my parents work, but mum packed my lunch, he likes looking after me."" By using ""mum"" and ""he"" I communicate that the real sex of my mum is male, and that therefore I come from one of the gay families. Bizarre example and not completly the same as ancient languages, but I hope it makes the point. 
 :French and German people are fun to listen to as they learn English, because they call pots and pans and things ""he"" or ""she"", they can't help it, it's in their native languages. Asian people are fun because they get ""he"" and ""she"" mixed up when talking about people, they don't have to do that in their native languages. 
 :Greeks called spirits ""it"", but Jesus calls the Spirit ""he"". Was he just dumb? Even if the spirit is not masculine. The one thing he/it cannot be is feminine.   

 "