<p><pre><code>  &gt; If the service is fair use, then whether they own physical
  &gt; copies or not is immaterial, since the users ownership of 
  &gt; physical copies of the work is not one of the factors 
  &gt; called to be considered in fair use analysis.
</code></pre>
I&#x27;ve wondered this also.  Can you point to case law for this?  
I&#x27;ve seen some seemingly authoritative sites[1] suggest that owning a legal copy is a mitigating factor under &quot;Market Effect&quot;.<p>Separately, I&#x27;ve seen some reference to opinions that say that the &quot;Four Factors&quot; are just a starting point, and that other factors (presumably including legal ownership) can also be considered.  For example, here[2] Posner says &quot;the four factors are a checklist of things to be considered rather than a formula for decision&quot; and &quot;the factors and purposes are not exhaustive&quot;.<p>[1] <a href="https:&#x2F;&#x2F;www.lib.purdue.edu&#x2F;uco&#x2F;CopyrightBasics&#x2F;fair_use.html" rel="nofollow">https:&#x2F;&#x2F;www.lib.purdue.edu&#x2F;uco&#x2F;CopyrightBasics&#x2F;fair_use.html</a><p>[2] <a href="http:&#x2F;&#x2F;www.techlawjournal.com&#x2F;courts2003&#x2F;ty&#x2F;20020530.asp" rel="nofollow">http:&#x2F;&#x2F;www.techlawjournal.com&#x2F;courts2003&#x2F;ty&#x2F;20020530.asp</a>