I think it&#x27;s a 1% explanatory effect of the total variance. That means that 1% of the variance in the population (not the size of the effect) is explainable by this factor.<p>(Also, the base rate of depression is far more than 1%, see e.g. <a href="http:&#x2F;&#x2F;tech.mit.edu&#x2F;V120&#x2F;N3&#x2F;dep1.3n.html" rel="nofollow">http:&#x2F;&#x2F;tech.mit.edu&#x2F;V120&#x2F;N3&#x2F;dep1.3n.html</a> - it&#x27;s around 17% for just a major depressive episode.)