Genuinely curious how the law applies here. How is the &quot;time of the breach&quot; determined? When the buyer got the email that sale was voided? If that email were sent a few days earlier or later would that change the amount of damage the buyer suffered? That doesn&#x27;t seem right. (The FMV of the tickets goes to $0 after the game, right?)<p>I guess I don&#x27;t really follow why the buyer is entitled to appreciation on something that was never in their possession.<p>If the tickets had instead declined in value before the seller backed out then wouldn&#x27;t the buyer still get back all their money? I assume it would be unacceptable to refund them just the then-current FMV, so why is it different when the tickets appreciate in value?