So, (1) companies adhered to Belgium laws, (2) Belgium laws were found to be violating international agreements and (3) _companies_ are supposed to pay for it?<p>What the fuck? Why doesn&#x27;t Belgium pay for its violation itself? Why someone who was adhering to the law would need to pay because the law was found to be wrong?<p>I must have misunderstood this somehow, because this is just too idiotic otherwise.