Assuming that is the case, could this have anything to do with the US&#x27;s top income decile being the highest in the OECD 30[0] while the income for the lowest decile in closer to the bottom? Meaning that it&#x27;s as much a function of just the distance required to move from one quintile to another as it is a measure of any structural mobility or inequality.<p>[0] 2010, the most recent I could find - <a href="http:&#x2F;&#x2F;www.economist.com&#x2F;blogs&#x2F;freeexchange&#x2F;2010&#x2F;09&#x2F;income_inequality_0" rel="nofollow">http:&#x2F;&#x2F;www.economist.com&#x2F;blogs&#x2F;freeexchange&#x2F;2010&#x2F;09&#x2F;income_i...</a>