It&#x27;s a bit confusing. For instance around page 80:<p>Table 5: Male suicide deaths and those aged 45-54 in the general population, by UK country vs Table 7: Patient suicide: male suicide deaths and those aged 45-54, by UK country.<p>Table 5 shows the rate. Table 7 shows the actual numbers. Why? Even the first key finding speculates about patient suicide increase due to higher numbers of patients. Do they not have this seemingly important statistic? A quick search says &quot;a quarter&quot; of the population will have a mental illness during the year. If true, then we&#x27;d expect around 25% of suicides to be from patients, right?<p>Why separate the APAP&#x2F;opiod combination in light of suicide if the APAP wasn&#x27;t a relevant cause? It seems like respiratory depression and liver poisoning aren&#x27;t that synergistic are they? An opiate naive user with 10&#x2F;325 oxy&#x2F;apap would almost certainly hit opiate overdose before liver damage was a life-threatening issue.<p>The study recommends &quot;safe prescribing&quot; but then shows the majority of opiate suicide isn&#x27;t with a prescription, and prescription overdose is skews heavily to older females with a &quot;major physical illness&quot;. And no comparison on how rx abuse compares with non-mentally-ill patients. Edit: And rx rates, too. I&#x27;m guessing older patients generally get way more opiates prescribed than younger ones.<p>Interesting read though, thanks.