<i>Genetic, &quot;wide&quot; social or &quot;close&quot; social (family), I see no such claim being made, and if anyone were to make that claim, I think that they have no good foundation to base it on.</i><p>Asift made this claim and you asserted it was false. What evidence (if any) would cause you to believe it to be true?<p><i>Even if that were true, I see no claim that they cannot change, so I don&#x27;t see why the cause matters.</i><p>The cause matters because it affects potential solutions. If the cause of a mobility difference between the US and Sweden is economic, then the fix is probably adopting the Swedish economic system (e.g., privatizing education and adopting their sane corporate tax system). If the cause is genetic then the solution would be adopting Swedish genetics by removing from the gene pool anyone of non-Nordic descent. If the cause were close social then the solution would be preventing poor people from transmitting their harmful values and behaviors to their children.<p>Hypothetically, suppose I could provide adequate evidence (as per my prior question) that Ashkenazi Jews have superior intelligence and other hereditary advantages that cause them to occupy disproportionate chunks of the top rungs of society (thereby lowering mobility). Asift and myself would oppose changing this since the only solutions are violent. If one doesn&#x27;t eliminate violence as a possible solution, what new avenues open up for us to solve this &quot;Jewish problem&quot;?