&gt;Honestly, given the number of women I know who have been sexually assaulted or physically abused, I&#x27;m amazed there isn&#x27;t more anti-male prejudice.<p>Would this work for anti-female prejudice if the stats were reversed.  For example, once you look past how the CDC picks a specific definition of rape that excludes male victims of female rapists, you find that within a given year, men are raped at almost the same rate as women (if memory serves it was a .2% difference).<p>So given this, why are anti-male prejudice given an explanation based on male behavior while anti-female prejudices are not given an explanation based on female behavior?