&gt; If a country wants to do this with domestic software produced by a domestic business<p>It doesn&#x27;t really make sense to do that with domestic software and to give imported software a free pass.<p>&gt; which other country that is a party to this treaty is going to have standing to bring litigation<p>Why does it need to be a country? The domestic software maker whom the government forces to do something that is not allowed under the treaty should have standing.<p>For example, there&#x27;s Russia-Canada income tax treaty. If one of those countries wants to hose me in a way that is contrary to that treaty, I should be able to use it to defend myself. I assume it would work the same way with TPP, but obviously IANAL.