Even in this country, women were not allowed to vote in political elections until the 20th century, and the case was similar in countries around the world.<p>How does your argument that &quot;all issues which feminists (make no mistake, feminists of the 1920&#x27;s were &quot;radical&quot;) seek to fix are a result of empirical reality&quot; fit with that?   Women couldn&#x27;t vote, and that was just the natural outcome of &quot;empirical reality&quot;, now they can, and that is, what exactly?  Did &quot;empirical reality&quot; change?  Or is the fact that women now vote in virtually all countries a terrible crime against biology?