You brought this up as an argument against the idea that people discriminate based on (roughly) Bayesian estimation of what other people are likely to be like. Specifically, you heavily imply that if people were discriminating based on rough Bayesian estimation, there would be some level of discrimination against men as potential criminals (since they make up roughly all of the criminals) which does not obtain now.<p>I disagree; I think men suffer a lot of discrimination as potential criminals. I want to know what you think should be happening to men (if people were using a roughly Bayesian approach), and what you think is happening to men, and why you think it&#x27;s not compatible with the idea that what people are doing can be modeled as a Bayesian approach.