&gt; Liebniz notation didn&#x27;t win because someone argued that anglos were biased and diversity was needed, it won because mathematical arguments demonstrated it was better.<p>&gt; Unfortunately the authors of this piece don&#x27;t actually make that latter argument.<p>Is this to imply there is a more-correct philosophy? I have no formal training in philosophy but I feel that to claim one philosophy is objectively better than another is a bit much.