ᎾᏍᎩ ᎢᏳᏍᏗ ᎢᏳᏃ ᎠᏥᎸᎨᎳᏍᏗ ᎨᏒ ᎠᏂᎵᏫ ᏥᎨᎦᏒᎦᎶᏕ, ᏅᏍᎦᏅᎾ ᎢᎬᏩᏓᏛᏁᏗ ᏱᎨᏎᎢ, (ᎠᏥᎸ-ᎨᎳᏍᏗᏰᏃ ᎨᏒ ᎠᎴ ᏗᎧᎿᏩᏛᏍᏗ ᏚᎾᏚᏓᏖ ᏴᏫ ᎦᎾᏓᏂᎸᏨ) ᎦᏙᏃ ᎠᏏ ᎤᏚᎸᏗ ᏂᎦᎵᏍᏗᏍᎨ ᏅᏩᏓᎴ ᎠᏥᎸᎨᎶᎯ ᎤᎾᏄᎪᎢᏍᏗᏱ ᎹᎵᎩᏏᏕᎩ ᏄᏍᏛ ᎾᏍᎩᏯᎢ, ᎡᎳᏂᏃ ᎾᏍᎩᏯ ᎦᏰᎪᏎᏗ ᏂᎨᏒᎾ ᎨᏒᎢ?
Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it hath the people received the law), what further need was there that another priest should arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be reckoned after the order of Aaron?