If a Dementor can consume and destroy a person's soul, and a Horcrux is part of someone's soul in an object, could harry have just found a Horcrux and thrown it at a Dementor, so that it could destroy it for him?

Could the Dementors’ Kiss destroy a living Horcrux, like Harry? Lupin explains the Dementors’ Kiss to Harry in Prisoner of Azkaban:     ‘They call it the Dementors’ Kiss,’ said Lupin, with a slightly twisted smile. ‘It’s what Dementors do to those they wish to destroy utterly. I suppose there must be some kind of mouth under there, because they clamp their jaws upon the mouth of the victim and – and suck out his soul.’   Harry accidentally spat out a bit of Butterbeer. ‘What – they kill –?’   ‘Oh, no,’ said Lupin. ‘Much worse than that. You can exist without your soul, you know, as long as your brain and heart are still working. But you’ll have no sense of self any more, no memory, no ... anything. There’s no chance at all of recovery. You’ll just – exist. As an empty shell. And your soul is gone for ever ... lost.’   Prisoner of Azkaban - Page 183 - British Hardcover   Subsequently, Dumbledore tells Snape in The Prince's Tale in Deathly Hallows:     'On the night Lord Voldemort tried to kill him, when Lily cast her own life between them as a shield, the Killing Curse rebounded upon Lord Voldemort, and a fragment of   Voldemort’s soul was blasted apart from the whole, and latched itself on to the only living soul left in that collapsing building.   Deathly Hallows - Page 550 - British Hardcover   I noticed that it says the portion of Voldemort's soul latched onto Harry's soul, but it does not specify in canon that the two souls assimilate one another, as opposed to co-existing (aside from Dumbledore saying, 'To speak of one [Harry] is to speak of the other [Voldemort].')  When delivering the Kiss would a Dementor be able to tell there was a portion of another person’s soul along with the victim’s own soul? If not -- based on what we know about the Dementors’ Kiss, Horcruxes, and the soul from canon -- could the Dementor destroy the Horcrux portion of the soul while leaving the victim’s original and untainted soul untouched and intact? Or would both portions of both souls be sucked out by the Dementor?  From the King's Cross chapter in Deathly Hallows we know it is possible for the Horcrux portion of attached souls to be destroyed while the other part lives. Based on what we know from canon could the Dementors' Kiss be a means of destroying a Horcrux?  Related question . (What effect would the Dementors' Kiss have on Voldemort prior to the destruction of his Horcruxes?)


What is the best way to draw four partially shaded venn-diagrams next to each other in the middle of a page? My goal is to depict the union, intersection, complement, etc.

What I am up to is to write some exercises dealing with logical formulas for my students, like:     And the students should draw these formulas on . At the end of the lesson, I really would like to print the correct answer for them. I found a great resource on a forum thread at , which helped me a lot to make up some Venn diagrams with tikz, but have some problems with visualizing complements, like ~A.  A simple, modified version of the TeX file found on the forum linked above, can be seen below, which produces the following expression:    \documentclass{letter}   \usepackage{tikz}   \def\firstcircle{(90:1.75cm) circle (2.5cm)}   \def\secondcircle{(210:1.75cm) circle (2.5cm)}   \def\thirdcircle{(330:1.75cm) circle (2.5cm)}   \begin{document}     \begin{tikzpicture}       \begin{scope}     \clip \secondcircle;     \fill[cyan] \thirdcircle;       \end{scope}       \begin{scope}     \clip \firstcircle;     \fill[cyan] \thirdcircle;       \end{scope}       \draw \firstcircle node[text=black,above] {$A$};       \draw \secondcircle node [text=black,below left] {$B$};       \draw \thirdcircle node [text=black,below right] {$C$};     \end{tikzpicture}   \end{document}   Which looks like:    Could anyone please help me out plotting/defining some expressions dealing with complements? A nice example could be:    That should look like: (image from )    I do not insist on the red color :)  I would like to use the simplest possible solution, as I would like to mass generate the exercises with the help of . So any suggestion dealing with gnuplot, R or any other opensource packages is welcome. Thank you!    UPDATE (25/01/2011): added details based on answers.  Thank you @Leo Liu, you helped me a lot! I modified a bit the code you suggested to be able to color the area outside of the two circles also (in the H universe), but have no idea how to set a background to that polygon also. The code:  \begin{tikzpicture}[fill=gray] % left hand \scope \clip (-2,-2) rectangle (2,2)       (1,0) circle (1); \fill (0,0) circle (1); \endscope % right hand \scope \clip (-2,-2) rectangle (2,2)       (0,0) circle (1); \fill (1,0) circle (1); \endscope % outline \draw (0,0) circle (1) (0,1)  node [text=black,above] {$A$}       (1,0) circle (1) (1,1)  node [text=black,above] {$B$}       (-2,-2) rectangle (3,2) node [text=black,above] {$H$}; \end{tikzpicture}   And the image generated:    I will also look for even odd rule in the near future which does not make sense for me at the moment but looks really simple and promising!


The below java(android) source works on debug build, release(signed) build, and allatori obsfucation build(signed).  SomeActivity.java  //Sends event to an async event processing class public void emitEvent(){      EventHandlerClass.emit("myEvent");  }  .... //Recieves callback from EventHandlerClass public void handleEvent(Event event){//Event object has a String field named eventField;      if(event.eventField == "myEvent"){       }else if (event.eventField == "myEvent2"){               .......      } }   EventHandlerClass.java  public void emit(String eventName){   ...//process async event      eventSource.handleEvent(new Event(eventName));  }   As you can see, the callback gets a string and compares it with the  "=="  operator. Somehow, this works, but I really don't know why this should work. As far as I know, the "==" should be a reference comparison.   This means that the 'event.eventField' has the same reference as the hardcoded String "myEvent". Is there a special rule on java for storing hardcoded Strings?

I've been using the == operator in my program to compare all my strings so far. However, I ran into a bug, changed one of them into .equals() instead, and it fixed the bug.  Is == bad? When should it and should it not be used? What's the difference?


I have dedicated a lot of time learning LaTeX, but periodically hear about LuaTex and its virtues. What I don't hear are the costs of switching over, other than the need to have new programs.  There are two costs that I expect in any transition:   The difficulty in learning new commands for old functionality. If there is a new function in LuaTex that I couldn't use in LaTeX, of course I need to learn that, and that isn't a transfer cost, per se, but the cost of expanding my technical repetoire. However, if I need to relearn commands I once new, then that is a cost. The cost in changing existing texts to use LuaTex. Since I have ongoing projects, changing over would entail changing current projects to match the new format.   In each case, the question is how hard is it to keep doing what I can currently do in LaTeX but in LuaTex. If there is perfect compatibility in LuaTex with LaTeX commands, there is no additional cost just to change over. If the commands are utterly different, then it is like someone starting from scratch at either language.  I am not looking for recommendations, as that falls outside the scope of SE, just general descriptions of the major differences, and educated estimates of the difficulty of making those changes.

I'm in the process of switching my LaTeX document from pdflatex to lualatex. Similar to  I would like to know, what are typical packages loaded with LuaLaTeX and which typical pdfLaTeX packages should be removed or replaced?  The following are the main difference I found so far:   Don't use inputenc, but instead save your plain files in utf-8 and add the following as the first line: % !Mode:: "TeX:UTF-8". Don't use font-packages but instead load fontspec with \setmainfont{FONT_NAME}, \setsansfont{FONT_NAME}, \setmonofont{FONT_NAME}. In order to make microtype work with fontspec, use the beta version of microtype (At least with TeX Live 2011). . hyperref should be loaded with the option unicode.   What other packages do you use? What about babel and textcomp? And are there some "killer-packages" that are only working with lualatex besides fontspec?


I'm a really newbie in Drupal world. I use Plone since 2004 but now I've to learn also Drupal for various reasons.  I'm reading books and tutorials, using this CMS as power user and many more.  Now it's time to go deep and the first thing goal is: theming from scratch. I've notice that PhpTemplate it's not exactly a clean pagetemplate system (for my point of view), while Twig seems very interesting, but I don't understand if Twig could be clearly used in Drupal7 or not.

I do a lot of  development and I like their templating language. , the , looks very much like it.  How can I use Twig in Drupal 7 or even Drupal 6?


Maybe you know, imgur.com is banned in Turkey. So we can't see images on asked questions and can not upload any image to questions. Is there an alternative to imgur.com for downloading/uploading images?  Or can you suggest anything to get rid of this?

Imgur is blocked by two of the private ISPs we use. Is there a workaround without involving tunnelling?  Bear in mind that Filmot (an Imgur mirror) and Flickr are also blocked.


Provided an action: $$S[A_\nu] = \int\left(\frac{1}{4\mu_0}(A_{\gamma,\mu}-A_{\mu,\gamma})(A_{\zeta,\alpha}-A_{\alpha,\zeta})\eta^{\gamma\zeta}\eta^{\mu\alpha}+\frac{1}{2}\nu^2A_\mu A_\gamma -\beta A_\mu J^\mu\right)\sqrt{-\eta}~dtd^3x,$$  How would one go about finding the field equations for the same? I do understand that using the Euler-Lagrange method is how one should start out.   Does it tell us what kind of field we're looking at, at a glance?

I've started reading Peskin and Schroeder on my own time, and I'm a bit confused about how to obtain Maxwell's equations from the (source-free) lagrangian density $L = -\frac{1}{4}F_{\mu\nu}F^{\mu\nu}$ (where $F^{\mu\nu} = \partial^\mu A^\nu - \partial^\nu A^\mu$ is the field tensor).  Substituting in for the definition of the field tensor yields $L = -\frac{1}{2}[(\partial_\mu A_\nu)(\partial^\mu A^\nu) - (\partial_\mu A_\nu)(\partial^\nu A^\mu)]$.  I know I should be using $A^\mu$ as the dynamical variable in the Euler-Lagrange equations, which become $\frac{\partial L}{\partial A_\mu} - \partial_\mu\frac{\partial L}{\partial(\partial_\mu A_\nu)} = - \partial_\mu\frac{\partial L}{\partial(\partial_\mu A_\nu)}$, but I'm confused about how to proceed from here.  I know I should end up with $\partial_\mu F^{\mu\nu} = 0$, but I don't quite see why.  Since $\mu$ and $\nu$ are dummy indices, I should be able to change them: how do the indices in the lagrangian relate to the indices in the derivatives in the Euler-Lagrange equations?


It is well known that for a linear regression problem $y=X\beta+\epsilon$, we have a closed form solution $\hat{\beta}=(X^TX)^{-1}X^Ty$.   Then, it's natural to ask the similar question about logistic regression, which has also been discussed (e.g. ).    However, I don't understand it well that what the reason there to forbid us from just inverse the logistic transformation and use the closed form solution for linear regression again.   For example, for a logistic regression problem $<y, X>$, since we model it in such a way: $$ y = \dfrac{1}{1+e^{-X\beta}} $$ why can't we inverse that function to get $X\beta=\log\dfrac{y}{1-y}=y'$, and simply following the closed form to get $\hat{\beta}=(X^TX)^{-1}X^Ty'$?  I hope the reason is more than "$1-y$ will be zero for $y=1$" because I believe we can always figure out a way to work around these computation issues.   EDIT:  Thanks for @Chaconne's suggestion of this .

As explained in , a linear model can be written in the form:  $$ y = \beta_1 x_{1} + \cdots + \beta_p x_{p} + \varepsilon_i,$$  where $y$ is the response variable and  $x_{i}$ is the $i^{th}$ explanatory variable.  Often with the goal of meeting test assumptions, one can transform the response variable. For example we apply the log function on each $y_i$. Transforming a response variable does NOT equate to doing a GLM.  A GLM can be written in the following form (from the )  $$ g(u) = \beta_1 x_{1} + \cdots + \beta_p x_{p} + \varepsilon_i,$$  where $u$ is just another symbol for $y$ as I understand from page 2 in the course handout. $g()$ is called the link function.  I don't really understand the difference between a GLM and LM with transformed variable from the slides in the course. Can you help me with that?


How do i change 2.278481... to 2.2?  double a = 180; double b = 79; double x = (a/b);   Math.ceil() returns 3 and Math.floor() returns 2

What I would like is a method to convert a double to a string which rounds using the half-up method - i.e. if the decimal to be rounded is 5, it always rounds up to the next number. This is the standard method of rounding most people expect in most situations.  I also would like only significant digits to be displayed - i.e. there should not be any trailing zeroes.  I know one method of doing this is to use the String.format method:  String.format("%.5g%n", 0.912385);   returns:  0.91239   which is great, however it always displays numbers with 5 decimal places even if they are not significant:   String.format("%.5g%n", 0.912300);   returns:  0.91230   Another method is to use the DecimalFormatter:  DecimalFormat df = new DecimalFormat("#.#####"); df.format(0.912385);   returns:  0.91238   However as you can see this uses half-even rounding. That is it will round down if the previous digit is even. What I'd like is this:  0.912385 -> 0.91239 0.912300 -> 0.9123   What is the best way to achieve this in Java?


I would like to keep my .bashrc file in a gitlab repo, for obvious reasons. However, it sits in my home directory. Initialising a git repo in my home repo seems unweildly, as it then looks at everything "below" it in the tree (to my understanding).   While I understand that I can simply not add these files to git tracking, I don't want to accidentaly "git add *" out of habit and then try and push my whole directory tree to gitlab's servers.  Is there a way to point my .bashrc (and .vimrc, etc) at a subdirectory or somesuch?   Thanks!

I need an elegant solution to store my dotfiles on GitHub for easy access. I tried to create a dotfiles directory and symlink all the dotfiles into there. Then I tried adding the symlinks to git and committing in that directory, but git saves the links not the contents of the files it points to. Is there a way to do this or something similar?


When I fetch data from an URL with a 403 response  is = conn.getInputStream();   It throws an IOException and I can't get the response data.  But when I use firefox and access that url directly, The ResponseCode is still 403, but I can get the html content

In Java, this code throws an exception when the HTTP result is 404 range:  URL url = new URL("http://stackoverflow.com/asdf404notfound"); HttpURLConnection conn = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); conn.getInputStream(); // throws!   In my case, I happen to know that the content is 404, but I'd still like to read the body of the response anyway.  (In my actual case the response code is 403, but the body of the response explains the reason for rejection, and I'd like to display that to the user.)  How can I access the response body?


For $n,r∈N$, $1<r<n$, let $z(r,n)$ be the largest possible number of 0 entries in an $n×n$ matrix which has no $r×r$ submatrix whose entries are all $0$. (Here a submatrix is obtained by selecting any $r$ rows and any $r$ columns; the rows/columns need not be consecutive.)  Consider a random matrix in which each entry is  $0$ with probability $p$ and $1$ with probability $1−p$, independently.  Deduce that $z(r,n)>pn^{2}−p^{r^{2}}n^{2r}$. My solution:  Let $[n]_{2}$ denote the set of all $n×n$ matrices, with only $0−1$ entries. For each $σ∈[n]_{2}$ let the random variable $X(σ)$ denote the number of $0$ entries in $σ$ and the random variable $Y(σ)$ denote the number of $r×r$ submatrices filled with entirely with $0$'s. It follows that $\mathbb{E}(X)=pn^{2}$ and $\mathbb{E}(Y)=\binom{n}{r}^{2}p^{r^{2}}<n^{2r}p^{r^{2}}$ .  Further more consider the random variable $X−Y$ for which $\mathbb{E}(X-Y)>pn^{2}-n^{2r}p^{r^{2}}$. It follows that there exists a $σ∈[n]_{2}$ such that $X(σ)−Y(σ)>pn^{2}-n^{2r}p^{r^{2}}$. Given such a $σ$ construct $σ′∈[n]_{2}$ as follows. For each of the all $0$, $r×r$ sub matrices of $σ$ remove at random a single $0$ from each to ensure $σ′$ has no $r×r$ such sub-matrices. Then we have removed at most $\binom{n}{r}^{2}<n^{2r}$ such zero's and so we can conclude that $σ′$ has at least $pn^{2}-n^{2r}p^{r^{2}}$ zeros thus we can conclude that $z(n,r)>pn^{2}-n^{2r}p^{r^{2}}$.  Id appreciate any comments on the validity of the proof.

I'm working my way through the Oxford notes in Probabilistic Combinatorics and came across this question in one of the question sheets; I'd like to stress that this is not my homework: I'm simply working through the notes for my own pleasure.   For $n, r ∈ \mathbb{N}$, $1 < r < n$, let $z(r, n)$ be the largest possible number of $0$ entries in an $n × n$ matrix which has no $r × r$ submatrix whose entries are all $0$. (Here a submatrix is obtained by selecting any $r$ rows and any $r$ columns; the rows/columns need not be consecutive.)  Consider a random matrix in which each entry is $0$ with probability $p$ and $1$ with probability $1−p$, independently.   Deduce that $z(r, n) > pn^{2}-p^{r^{2}}n^{2r}.$  My solution:  Let $[n]_{2}$ denote the set of all $n \times n$ matrices, with only $0-1$ entries. For each $\sigma \in [n]_{2}$ let the random variable $X(\sigma)$ denote the number of $0$ entries in $\sigma$ and the random variable $Y(\sigma)$ denote the number of $r \times r$ submatrices filled with entirely with $0$'s. It follows that $\mathbb{E}(X)=pn^{{2}}$ and $\mathbb{E}(Y)=\binom{n}{r}^{2}p^{r^{2}}<n^{2r}p^{r^{2}}$.   Further more consider the random variable $X-Y$ for which $\mathbb{E}(X-Y)>pn^{2}-n^{2r}p^{r^{2}}$. It follows that there exists a $\sigma \in [n]_{2}$ such that $X(\sigma)-Y(\sigma)>pn^{2}-n^{2r}p^{r^{2}}$. Given such a $\sigma$ construct $\sigma' \in [n]_{2}$ as follows. For each of the all $0$, $r \times r$ sub matrices of $\sigma$ remove at random a single $0$ from each to ensure $\sigma'$ has no $r \times r$ such sub-matrices. We have removed at most $\binom{n}{r}^{2}<n^{2r}$ such zero's and so we can conclude that $\sigma'$ has at least $pn^{2}-p^{r^{2}}n^{2r}$ zeros thus we can conclude that $z(n,r)>pn^{2}-p^{r^{2}}n^{2r}$.  I'd appreciate any comments on the validity of the proof.


I have the Intel Atom® Processor N450 (supports x64 but its not amd processor) on my netbook but here  says:  If you have a non-64-bit processor made by AMD, or if you need full support for 32-bit code, use the i386 images instead. Choose this if you are at all unsure.

I was told that computers with more than 2 gig's memory need a 64 bit operating system to utilize all RAM.  Is the 64bit Ubuntu download really JUST for AMD processors? I am asking because the disk image I downloaded says AMD64.  So will my new Intel 2.3Ghz Core i3 Dual Core processor work with 64 bit Ubuntu?  It runs the 64bit version of Windows without any qualm.


I'm totally new to blender and I start trying to do a wizard hat. Since I started, I manage to do pretty much every thing I wanted to do. But I'm starting to struggle. So what I'm trying to do is pretty obvious, I'm trying to "glue" my plane star on my 3D hat. I tried "Boolean Union", big failure. And I didn't try to merge on vertices because I don't know how to create a 5 vertices stars on my rounded 3D model. I didn't find any tutorials or documentation, that's why I writting here, I tried to do it my way but maybe it's not a good one. If any of you got an idea on how to do that, I'll appreciate ! Cheers.

I didn't address this in a while because I was busy with something else, but now it has cycled back into my schedule.  Right now I have a shirt modeled and bones set in place. It's already technically rigged, but the only issue is the buttons.   I'm not entirely sure how to go about connecting them to the shirt's deformations. I tried to combine them and the shirt into one object, but because of the shirt's modifiers, (Solidify and subsurf, which I don't want to apply yet), the buttons become extremely deformed. I've tried to match the weight painting intensity where a button is at in correspondence with the shirt, but that doesn't seem to work, maybe it has to do with the specifics of where the button is?   Is there a way to make the buttons follow the shirt's deformations without deforming the mesh vertices of the button? I know that if I probably apply the modifiers on the shirt and combine it with the buttons, it would be okay, but I'm not okay with doing that just yet with the shirt.    I rigged the shirt by deleting all vertex groups, assigning empty groups to the mesh from the armature, and then assigned automatic groups in the weight paint menu.  Is there a way to do this?


The question  (and answers therein) involve using the extract package to produce a LaTeX file that contains all the text within in a specified environment.  My question is if it is possible to do the reverse?  I am forced to work with Microsoft Word users.  Due to Word's stability issues we usually maintain a .docx file containing all the text for a paper (or in this case my thesis) and one containing all of the figures and captions.  Some journals require this approach as well. The endfloat package gets part of the way there by placing figures at the end of the PDF that is generated.  I've had trouble using TeX4ht or latex2rtf because all of my figures are PDF.  Figures in PDF format work great with pdftex, which I use to generated the PDF files.   Being a chemist, I use a lot of superscripts and subscripts, in particular with the mhchem package.  I was hoping that if I could the text into HTML or RTF I could import to word without have to redo every subscript and superscript in the text.  I've tried placing all of the \includegraphics commands within a comment environment (like textonly below) using the comment package:  \begin{figure} \begin{textonly} \centering \includegraphics{figurefile} \end{textonly} \label{fig:figure} \end{figure}   This approach broke all of my references (\ref{fig:figure}) to figures - they typeset as ??.  Is finding a way to compile the LaTeX code into a more Word friendly format the way to go or is converting the PDF generated by pdftex the best approach?  I find that I have to manually fix the subscripts and superscripts to be recognized by Word.  Additionally, all of the \refs work in the final output PDF, where that may be a problem in a split file approach.

I often have to write up reports based on the analysis of some data. I use R to analyse the data and export tables, figures, and text. This is then included into a LaTeX document either using input or Sweave ().  However, when I collaborate with others, I sometimes need to provide a document in Open Office / MS Word format.  Question:  Thus, assume the simplest scenario   I have a LaTeX document with text, tables, and figures I need to export this reliably into Open Office or MS Word format: this includes mathematical formulas, table formatting, and quality figures) I don't need to go back from MS Word to LaTeX   What is a reliable, efficient, and preferably free process?  Initial Thoughts:   Export to HTML,  LaTeX - LyX - ODF Use odfWeave  that deals with some specific issues associated with LaTeX to Open Office conversion    I was hoping that there is an expert out there who has worked out a good system already.


public class exerciseFive {      public static void main (String[] args) {         Scanner scanner = new Scanner(System.in);          double finalTax = 0.0;         char taxGroup = 0;         int taxIncome = 0;         int income = 0;         int deduction = 0;         int amount;         do {             System.out.println("Enter next amount: ");             amount = scanner.nextInt();             if (amount > 0) {                 income += amount;             }             else if (amount < 0) {                 deduction -= amount;             }          } while (amount != 0);          System.out.println("Income      = $" + income);         System.out.println("Deductions  = $" + deduction);         System.out.println("Taxable Income  = $" + taxableIncome(income, deduction, taxIncome));         System.out.println("Tax Group   = " + taxGroup(taxIncome, taxGroup));         //System.out.println("Tax Owed  = $" + computeTax(taxGroup, taxIncome, finalTax));     }      public static int taxableIncome (int income, int deduction, int taxIncome) {         taxIncome = income - deduction;         if (taxIncome <= 0) {             taxIncome = 0;         }         return taxIncome;     }   public static char taxGroup (int taxIncome, char taxGroup) {           if (taxIncome >= 500_000) {             taxGroup = 'S';         }         else if (taxIncome >= 200_000 && taxIncome < 500000) {             taxGroup = 'Q';         }         else if (taxIncome >= 100_000) {             taxGroup = 'M';         }         else if (taxIncome >= 50_000) {             taxGroup = 'A';         }         else if (taxIncome >= 20_000) {             taxGroup = 'R';         }         else {             taxGroup = 'P';         }         return taxGroup;     }     My output:  Income      = $228000 Deductions  = $3450 Taxable Income  = $224550 Tax Group   = P  Correct Output:  Income         = $228000.0 Deductions     = $3450.0 Taxable income = $224550.0 Tax group      = Q   I believe the issue is in this method. I pass the char taxGroup as an argument in the taxGroup method but it is not being updated by the for-loop. I think it may have something to do with the variable being declared in the main method?? Thanks in advance for any help.  As you can see from the output my income, deductions, and taxable income are all correct. The only thing that is wrong is the Tax group.

I always thought Java uses pass-by-reference. However, I've seen a couple of blog posts (for example, ) that claim that it isn't (the blog post says that Java uses pass-by-value). I don't think I understand the distinction they're making. What is the explanation?


I have installed ubuntu in my system, I did not create any partition, Now i want to separate a partition from existing drive.

I wanna create a new partition from the existing root partition.My root partition is about 250GB.I wanna create a new partition say 150 GB taking space from this root partition.Can anyone help me with the procedure on doing this?  output: fdisk -l  karthick@karthick:~$ sudo fdisk -l [sudo] password for karthick:   Disk /dev/sda: 250.0 GB, 250000000000 bytes 255 heads, 63 sectors/track, 30394 cylinders Units = cylinders of 16065 * 512 = 8225280 bytes Sector size (logical/physical): 512 bytes / 512 bytes I/O size (minimum/optimal): 512 bytes / 512 bytes Disk identifier: 0x28219744  Device Boot      Start         End      Blocks   Id  System /dev/sda1   *           1          61      487424   83  Linux Partition 1 does not end on cylinder boundary. /dev/sda2              61       30395   243650561    5  Extended /dev/sda5              61         124      498688   82  Linux swap / Solaris /dev/sda6             124         186      498688   82  Linux swap / Solaris /dev/sda7             186       30395   242651136   83  Linux


I believe this line   if test "$suman_inspect" -eq "yes"; then   is causing this error (verbatim):  bash: test: no: integer expression expected   I formulated the above test expression because I saw this example online:   if test "$#" -eq "0"; then   where this test checks to see if the length of the arguments array is 0.  So is there something wrong with both these checks? I am not sure I understand how the first could be valid but the second one invalid.

I am making the check for update script for my theme  I have 2 text files. First one is called "current.txt" and contains the current version. There is 4.1.1 string in that text file.  Second one is called "latest.txt" and contains the latest version. There is 4.2 string in this text file.  So here is the code  echo "Checking update"; x=$(cat ./current.txt) y=$(cat ./latest.txt) if [ "$x" -eq "$y" ] then        echo There is version $y update else        echo Version $x is the latest version fi   What it mean is if current.txt is NOT the same with latest.txt then it will say "there is version 4.2 update". If not, it will say "version 4.1.1 is the latest version"  But when I try to run it. I get this error  Checking update ./test.sh: line 4: [: 4.1.1: integer expression expected Version 4.1.1 is the latest version   So what am I doing wrong with this?


I'm trying to predict whether a person is likely to get robbed or not    (=dependent variable).     I will use logistic regression (classifier) to make the prediction.  In my data I have a lot of independent variables: some are numerical, some are categorical. I have to convert my categorical variables into dummies. E.g. Ethnicity (latino, asian, etc.) will be converted to is_latino, is_asian, etc. where the values can be either 0 (yes) or 1 (no).  Since I have a lot of independent variables I want to apply feature selection as I expect that not all of them are actually adding value to the prediction. For now I'm just looking at p-values to start off with (will implement cross-validation at a later stage)   The problem:   My results show that some dummies are significant, whereas other dummies relating to the same variable are not. E.g. is_latino seems to be very significant, whereas is_asian is not significant.    The question:   Can I continue by using only those dummies which appear to be significant (is_latino)? Or do I need to keep all the ones which relate to the same variable (ethnicity)?

In the context of feature selection it is common to recode categorical variables with more than 2 categories into dummies. Selection methods such as elastic nets or lasso regression select the best predictors, whereby it is possible that only some dummies of each categorical variable are selected. I am wondering, if there can appear some problems due to this procedure. I found some comments about the topic on  and a , stating that the procedure should be used carefully, but that there are no general problems. However, I was not able to find any detailed literature or any educated guidelines, which could be followed.  Question: Can there appear any problems, if not all dummies of a categorical variable are selected for a model?  For example, I could imagine that the automatic selection relies on the order of the categories and the resulting reference category. Let's say there is a variable with categories A, B, and C. A dummy recoding into dummyB and dummyC would probably result in different variable selections compared to a dummy recoding into dummyA and dummyB.  Any advice or literature is highly appreciated!  UPDATE:  Based on Ben's comment I found some literature about a comparison of the lasso and the group lasso, which addresses my question:      However, based on this literature 2 further questions appeared:  1) It seems like the normal lasso is still used regularly, whereby the group lasso doesn't appear that often in current literature. Is there a specific reason for that?  2) When I have categorical variables with many categories, isn't it a problem, if I select the whole categorical variable? Or in other words, is it sometimes advantageous to use the lasso instead of the group lasso?


I know Ubuntu Touch for Nexus 7 (2012) has been deprecated. But there must be an option for installing it on my tablet anyway, the thing is all the tutorials I find are old, and refer to the time when the official version was available.  Is there any community developing an updated version for this tablet? Or is there any way of installing the latest version (even if it is now deprecated)?

I'm trying to install Ubuntu on my Nexus 7 (2012) Tablet, however, it appears that this tablet is no longer included in the official dev releases. I'm about half way through following the Porting to a New Device Guide and I'm just starting to realize how in-depth this project is about to become, so I was wondering if there was a way to find and install the last devel release for grouper.  This is the result that I got while following the install guide for Ubuntu Touch:  $ ubuntu-device-flash touch --channel=stable --device grouper --bootstrap  2015/06/08 12:48:59 Device is |grouper| Device grouper not found on server https://system-image.ubuntu.com channel stable   I also tried this with devel as well. It makes sense that a uTouch build for Grouper is not in either of these channels, as it is no longer officially supported.  As I'm not against taking the time to learn how to do this properly, if there is not a way to access a build for grouper, does anyone have some good articles to read or advice from their attempts at doing these sorts of things? This will be my first major foray into development or trying something like this.


Today I answered  which you can consider to be a little off topic but there was some major misunderstanding that how that person was approaching an issue so I gave him a little advice to put him in the right direction.  Soon after my answer I got down voted and was  that I shouldn't answer off topic questions:     Please don't answer off-topic questions; by actively answering them, you give the question that questions like this are appropriate for SO, which only encourages more off-topic questions.   My argument is IF someone has a problem and they dont even realise that  what is the problem and where is it? and they ask a question on SO not about the actual problem but about the symptoms of that problem, Would it be not better to explain them how they end up having these problems and they can be avoided.  Since the person doesn't even realise where the actual problem is their questions will appear to be off topic. Would it be not better if we can help them to address the actual issues rather than down voting these questions or putting them on hold?  I might be wrong in saying all this but its just a thought, Help someone in need when it doesn't cost you a penny, why not then pal?

It annoys me when people post answers to obviously off-topic questions like , especially after those questions have already received several close votes. Migrations seem to happen rather infrequently these days, so there's probably no reputation to gain for questions that are likely to be closed. And although sure, the answer may help the OP, it also encourages bad behavior (posting off-topic questions.)  Is it appropriate to downvote these answers?   Personally, I think I could make a case for both sides.


I have this part of shell script :  #!/bin/bash shopt -s extglob currentDate=$(date +%F)  echo $currentDate command="grep $currentDate" gcs3='s3://gc-reporting-pud-production/splunk_printer_log_files' gcs3ls='aws s3 ls 's3://gc-reporting-pud-production/splunk_printer_log_files/SOUTH_ASIA/' --recursive ' ssyss3=s3://ssyssplunk  gcs3Current=$($gcs3ls|$command|sed 's/^.*\(splunk_printer.*\)/\1/g')  SAVEIFS=$IFS IFS=$(echo -en "\n\b") s3ls='aws s3 ls --human-readable --summarize 's3://ssyssplunk/' --recursive' echo "ls: " $s3ls egrepCommand="'$currentDate|Total'" echo "grep: " $egrepCommand totalSize=$($s3ls|egrep $currentDate\|Total|awk -F 'Total Size:' '{print $2}'|sed '/^$/d') echo "total size: "  $totalSize IFS=$SAVEIFS   and im getting this error :     2019-05-27 ls:  aws s3 ls --human-readable --summarize   s3://ssyssplunk/ --recursive grep:  '2019-05-27|Total'   ./copyFilesFromS13.sh: line 54: aws s3 ls --human-readable --summarize   s3://ssyssplunk/ --recursive: No such file or directory total size:   what am i doing wrong ?

$ ls -l /tmp/test/my\ dir/ total 0   I was wondering why the following ways to run the above command fail or succeed?  $ abc='ls -l "/tmp/test/my dir"'  $ $abc ls: cannot access '"/tmp/test/my': No such file or directory ls: cannot access 'dir"': No such file or directory  $ "$abc" bash: ls -l "/tmp/test/my dir": No such file or directory  $ bash -c $abc 'my dir'  $ bash -c "$abc" total 0  $ eval $abc total 0  $ eval "$abc" total 0


Let $G$ be a group of order $p^2$. Use the class equation to prove that $G$ is abelian.   The conjugacy class equation, at least how I remember it, is $$ |G| = |Z(G)|+\sum_{x\in I \backslash Z(g)} \frac{|C|}{C_G(x)} $$ where $|Z(G)|$ is the center of $G$, and $|C_G(x)|$ is the central subgroup of $G$.  I am tempted to start with using Lagrange's theorem, which gives possible orders $o(x,y)$ of $1,p,p^2$.    Now, to prove that $G$ is abelian, perhaps I need to prove that $|C_G(x)|=G$? ($C_G(x)$ being the central subgroup in which every element inside of it commutes)

I have a group $G$ with $p^2$ elements, where $p$ is a prime number. Some (potentially) useful preliminary information I have is that there are exactly $p+1$ subgroups with $p$ elements, and with that I was able to show $G$ has a normal subgroup $N$ with $p$ elements.   My problem is showing that $G$ is abelian, and I would be glad if someone could show me how.   I had two potential approaches in mind and I would prefer if one of these were used (especially the second one).   First: The center $Z(G)$ is a normal subgroup of $G$ so by Langrange's theorem, if $Z(G)$ has anything other than the identity, it's size is either $p$ or $p^2$. If $p^2$ then $Z(G)=G$ and we are done. If $Z(G)=p$ then the quotient group of $G$ factored out by $Z(G)$ has $p$ elements, so it is cylic and I can prove from there that this implies $G$ is abelian. So can we show theres something other than the identity in the center of $G$?  Second: I list out the elements of some other subgroup $H$ with $p$ elements such that the intersection of $H$ and $N$ is only the identity (if any more, due to prime order the intersected elements would generate the entire subgroups). Let $N$ be generated by $a$ and $H$ be generated by $b$. We can show $NK= G$, i.e every element in G can be wrriten like $a^k b^l $. So for this method, we just need to show $ab=ba$ (remember, these are not general elements in the set, but the generators of $N$ and $H$).   Do any of these methods seem viable? I understand one can give very strong theorems using Sylow theorems and related facts, but I am looking for an elementary solution (no Sylow theorems, facts about p-groups, centrailzers) but definitions of centres and normalizers is fine.


I am trying to process only k (10) portions of a list of lists at a time. The problem is that there are remainders (quotient) from dividing by 10 so I want to also process the remaining. Is there an elegant solution to this?  so far here is my code:  for x10 in np.arange(0, len(candidates), 10):     indexed = enumerate([list(enumerate(entry)) for entry in candidates[[x10-10:x10]]])   Not a duplicate: I dont want to split the list into evenly sized chunks but into multiples of 10  Update: turns out x10:x10+10 did it... thought that would give me out of index error, strange

I have a list of arbitrary length, and I need to split it up into equal size chunks and operate on it. There are some obvious ways to do this, like keeping a counter and two lists, and when the second list fills up, add it to the first list and empty the second list for the next round of data, but this is potentially extremely expensive.  I was wondering if anyone had a good solution to this for lists of any length, e.g. using generators.  I was looking for something useful in itertools but I couldn't find anything obviously useful. Might've missed it, though.  Related question:


I imported an UserControl into my page:  <%@ Register Src="~/Forms/Admin/UserControls/wucAutoCompleteCity.ascx" TagName="wucAutoCompleteCity" TagPrefix="uc12" %>   and I am using it like this              <li>                <uc12:wucAutoCompleteCity id="wucAutoCompleteCity1" runat="server" visible="true" />             </li>   But when I try to publish the solution, Visual Studio 2012 is throwing this error     Type 'Cienworks.View.wucAutoCompleteCity ' exists in both   'c:\Users\Lucasp\AppData\Local\Temp\Temporary ASP.NET   Files\mysolution\cc396d72\280f05fc\App_Web_wucautocompletecity.ascx.33f5864.dll'   and 'c:\Users\Lucasp\AppData\Local\Temp\Temporary ASP.NET   Files\mysolution\cc396d72\280f05fc\App_Web_imw4lcx2.dll'   I have no ideia what is causing it. Any suggestions?

When running a web application project, at seemingly random times a page may fail with a CS0433 error: type exists in multiple DLL's.  The DLL's are all generated DLL's residing in the "Temporary ASP.NET Files" directory.


For example: In a normal map node "Adjusting the strength of this node will effect "X" quality of the material"?

I'd like to have a node like the Frame node but one that can have lots of text, not just a header. I've looked and it looks like there isn't any such capability so far, so I was wondering how easy it would be for someone to create a custom Comment node as an add-on or script (I don't know the differences between the two). I myself would love to leave detailed comments in complex node trees so that I can figure out what I was doing/what to do when I come back to them months later.


Suppose that $T_1,…,T_{10}$ are iid $Exp(λ)$ and that $S=\sum_{i=1}^{10}Ti$. In this case, S is a gamma distribution right? How would you write the parameters for this Gamma?

I have a sequence $T_1,T_2,\ldots$ of independent exponential random variables with paramter $\lambda$. I take the sum $S=\sum_{i=1}^n T_i$ and now I would like to calculate the probability density function.  Well, I know that $P(T_i>t)=e^{-\lambda t}$ and therefore $f_{T_i}(t)=\lambda e^{-\lambda t}$ so I need to find $P(T_1+\cdots+T_n>t)$ and take the derivative. But I cannot expand the probability term, you have any ideas?


I have a 1/1  and use a +1/+1 pump spell to make it a 2/2. My opponent casts a  to deal 3 damage to it. I respond with  for +2/+2 and Hexproof, he responds with .  Does the Kitesail Scout die?  I know the last in first out stack rule, but didn't my Kitesail have Hexproof, so therefore his Murder could not be cast as the Kitesail was no longer a legal target?

When you have a card like  which reads "Exile Target Creature with power 3 or less", as I understand it, it becomes untargetable if the opponent's creature power increases thanks to a pump spell like .  But what if the Disregard is already on the stack and targeting; and they respond with Brute Strength? I'm pretty sure (and my opponent with Brute Strength was certain) that it won't exile the creature, but I don't know which rule states this, and there's no gatherer ruling on the spell.


If I understand correctly, the operating system gets subnet mask together with IP and other stuff from the DHCP server. And this subnet mask seems to be important for router because it knows if packet goes from/to LAN or should be sent somewhere else or it's received from Internet. But why is the subnet mask needed for the operating system? What does the operating system do with the knowledge of the subnet mask?

This is a  about IPv4 Subnets.      Related:               How does Subnetting Work, and How do you do it by hand or in your head?  Can someone explain both conceptually and with several examples? Server Fault gets lots of subnetting homework questions, so we could use an answer to point them to on Server Fault itself.   If I have a network, how do I figure out how to split it up? If I am given a netmask, how do I know what the network Range is for it? Sometimes there is a slash followed by a number, what is that number? Sometimes there is a subnet mask, but also a wildcard mask, they seem like the same thing but they are different? Someone mentioned something about knowing binary for this?


I would like to understand when to use the gerund form of a verb after "to." I had in my mind that every verb used after "to" was in its infinitive form, like for example:   It is hard to play the piano when your fingers are cold. Call me if you decide to buy those pants.   However, I have come across sentences where this logic is not followed; for example:   I got used to reading in the bus. He went back to studying mathematics.   This is getting me very confused, so I need some help with this.

I saw some scenarios that used the structure "to + V-ing", such as the following:   Looking forward to hearing. Disposed to using few words. I would like to apply what I learned in school to helping make more money. This is the closest we have come to winning the league.   When can I use this structure? I'm confused about that.


I have the following task:  Prove that a semigroup $S$ is a rectangular band if and only if it is nowhere commutative.  So, if I get it right, what I have to prove has $2$ sides.  First, I need to prove that if I have a nowhere commutative semigroup, that must be a rectangular band.  Let us have a semigroup $S$ which is nowhere commutative. Let us have arbitrary $a,b \in S$. Then, if $ab=ba \rightarrow a=b$.  I need to prove that in that case, $aba =a$ $\forall a,b \in S$.  Second, I need to prove that if I have a rectangular band, then it must be a nowhere commutative semigroup.  Let us have a rectangular band $B$. In that case, $aba=a$. We need to prove that if $ab = ba \rightarrow a=b$.  I am new to algebra, and I have no idea how could one prove such things. I hope I asked the question right, any help appreciated. :)

I have recently read about Nowhere commutative semigroups, and there, they say, if $S$ is a semigroup, then these statements are equivalent:   $S$ is nowhere commutative($ab=ba$ implies $a=b$). $S$ is a rectangular band(For all $a$ and $b$ in $S$, $aba = a$).   There, they used a proof with something like Green classes, but I have no idea, what they meant to be. Can you give me a proof, which is easier to understand? Any help appreciated!


The question is for any integer $a$, show that $a^{37} \equiv a \pmod{1729}$.  I have already proven using fermat's little theorem that if $a$ and $1729$ are relatively prime, then it is true, but I do not know how to do it if they are not. Please help.

I'm asked to show that $a^{61} \equiv a\pmod{1001}$ for every $a \in \mathbb{N}$. I've tried to tackle this using Fermat's Little Theorem and Euler's Theorem, but I can't even get started. My main problem seems to be the "for every $a \in \mathbb{N}$" part, because if it restricted $\gcd(a, 1001) = 1$ I would be able to factor out 1001 and try to show that it's factors divide $a^{61} - a$. I'm kinda lost here. Any help is appreciated.


It's a simple program for version numbers directories. It fails to compile with this error:  no suitable conversion function from "std::string" to "const char *" exists  #include <iostream> #include <stdio.h> #include <io.h>  using namespace std;  int main() {     int max = 10, daily_patch = 0, monthly_patch = 0, yearly_patch;      cout << " Enter the yearly_patch Number : ";     cin >> yearly_patch;      for (int i = yearly_patch; i <= yearly_patch; i++) {         for (int j = 0; j < max; j++) {             for (int k = 0; k < max; k++) {                 string str1 = to_string(i);                 string str2 = to_string(j);                 string str3 = to_string(k)                 string dot = ".";                 string dir = str1 + dot + str2 + dot + str3;                                  mkdir(dir);             }         }     } }

How can I convert an std::string to a char* or a const char*?


I have this insertion PHP code :  <?PHP  require("config.inc.php"); if (!empty($_POST)) {        $query = "INSERT INTO projects ( project_author, project_title, project_spec, project_links, project_desc,created_at ) VALUES ( :user, :title, :spec, :links, :desc, NOW() ) ";     $query_params = array(         ':user' => $_POST['author'],         ':title' => $_POST['title'],         ':spec' => $_POST['spec'],         ':links' => $_POST['links'],         ':desc' => $_POST['desc'],     );     try {         $stmt   = $db->prepare($query);         $result = $stmt->execute($query_params);     }     catch (PDOException $ex) {         $response["success"] = 0;         $response["message"] = "Database Error. Couldn't add post!";         die(json_encode($ex));     }      $response["success"] = 1;     $response["message"] = "Post Successfully Added!";     echo json_encode($response);  }else{ echo 'omar almrsomi'; } ?>    The retrieving PHP code from MySQL is:  <?php $mysql_db_hostname = "com"; $mysql_db_user = "xxxxx"; $mysql_db_password = "xxxxxxxxxx"; $mysql_db_database = "xxxxxxxxx";  $con = @mysqli_connect($mysql_db_hostname, $mysql_db_user, $mysql_db_password,  $mysql_db_database);  if (!$con) {  trigger_error('Could not connect to MySQL: ' . mysqli_connect_error()); } $var = array(); $sql = "SELECT * FROM projects"; $result = mysqli_query($con, $sql);  while($obj = mysqli_fetch_object($result)) { $var[] = $obj; } echo '{"projects":'.json_encode($var).'}'; ?>     Problem:  The insertion and retrieving from MySQL gave ????????????? sign.  Note:  Inserted text in Arabic.  Question:  How to insert Arabic (Unicode) to MySQL?  Thanks in advance

I'm setting up a new server and want to support UTF-8 fully in my web application. I have tried this in the past on existing servers and always seem to end up having to fall back to ISO-8859-1.  Where exactly do I need to set the encoding/charsets? I'm aware that I need to configure Apache, MySQL, and PHP to do this — is there some standard checklist I can follow, or perhaps troubleshoot where the mismatches occur?  This is for a new Linux server, running MySQL 5, PHP, 5 and Apache 2.


I know that $\ F_n$/[$\ F_n$,$\ F_n$] is isomorphic to $\Bbb Z^n$, but I do not know what happens if the rank is infinite. In particular, if the rank is countable, is the resulting group isomorphic to the direct sum or product of countable many $\Bbb Z$s? And what happens if the rank is uncountable?

How does one prove that if $X$ is a set, then the abelianization of the free group $FX$ on $X$ is the free abelian group on $X$?


I'm a little bored of Windows 10 and as of yesterday I could no longer access my desktop so it was time to change! Does anyone has any experience with getting a Dual boot with windows 10 / installing Linux with windows 10 in general? If so, is there any articular settings etc. that needs changing in order for it to run smoothly?  Thanks,  Z

I'm absolutely new to Linux. I would like to know how to install Ubuntu alongside the pre-installed Windows 8+ OS.  Should I do it with Wubi, or through the Live USB/DVD?  What steps do I need to take to correctly install Ubuntu?


Obviously, I haven't studied GR, I know no more than common knowledge. However, I'm wondering, is it impossible to develop a mathematical model based on flat space, in which the new equations of motion and gravity make the same predictions as GR? Or it's possible, but the equations will be very long and messy?

Can general relativity be completely described as a field in a flat space? Can it be done already now or requires advances in quantum gravity?


I am new to design patterns. I want to use the singleton design pattern for this database class. Can anyone help me with this?  Here is my complete code:  public interface ResourceConnection {     public Connection getConnection(); }  public class ResourceConnectionFactory {     public ResourceConnection getConnection() {         return new MysqlResourceConnectionImpl();     } }   public class MysqlResourceConnectionImpl implements ResourceConnection {      Connection con = null;      @Override     public Connection getConnection() {         try {             Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver");             con = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/library", "root", "root");         }          catch (ClassNotFoundException ex) {             Logger.getLogger(MysqlResourceConnectionImpl.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex);         } catch (SQLException ex) {             Logger.getLogger(MysqlResourceConnectionImpl.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex);         }         return con;     } }

What is an efficient way to implement a singleton pattern in Java?


Every once in a while we get a question about how to report a bad user to the administrators. Sometimes it's a spammer, sometimes it's a troll, and sometimes it's just someone who had a momentary blip in the "socially acceptable" filter.   But my question is how to report one user. He is always performing to ask the question, he is going to the chat room, he gives all the code and plead to solve his problem. I warned many times, but he is always doing that with other developers.  You can ask me why you are going to report him. Because he didn't work for his project; he always get work from the SO members.  Note: I think he is a junior developer...

From time to time certain chat rooms (JavaScript and probably PHP, too) attract the attention of a fellow help vampire who thinks he can start sucking from the people in there.  Often their message end up being flagged as offensive (and those flags are likely to be validated, too, because people are annoyed by such behaviour) but it's kind of an inappropriate use of those flags.  I'm proposing a new chat flag type, which is especially meant for help vampires. Flagging it would present the flag to 10k users and owners of the room where the flag originated (no matter how much rep they have). When the flag is validated it would cause messages from this user to be shown with a low opacity for maybe three hours. It could also notify the user that help vampirism is a bad thing and that he needs to improve his behaviour.  Repeated flags of this type - obviously with some time in between in case multiple message which are really part of the same conversation are flagged - should then result in a temporary ban from the room where the messages got flagged. If that doesn't help the next step would probably be a temporary ban from all chat rooms.    For clarification, I'm not talking about the quick "this line doesn't work, why?" stuff but the kind of help vampires who get cocky even though they just got e.g. a link to a SO question which has a perfectly fine and fitting answer. Because hey, you didn't give them teh codez!


Why when a question is closed, the closing message says that I voted for a different reason than I actually chose, only because it was the most voted by the majority, rather than just tell the user which members voted for closure, and inform the reason of most votes, without indicating that all voted the same option, even when it does not occur?  I asked  in , but still got no answer.

Do not give the impression that all votes are unanimously in favor of the winning close-reason. I closed for "belongs on superuser," yet SO claims I closed for a completely different reason.  Source:


I played Fallout 4 for a pretty Long time on my PS4. In January I built a gaming PC and now would love to continue my save game from my PS4.  I already did this with skyrim using a Special converter.  If anyone knows a way how to do this I would be realy happy!

Is it possible to copy a PS4 Fallout 4 save file to a PC and use it with the PC version?


I was just working around with number and string and found Expected behavior of javascript.  new String("a") == "a" returns true while new String("a") == new String("a") returns false   Same applies with Number     new Number(7) == new Number(7) returns false   Please Someone explain me why this is happening  Thanks in advance.

I entered this statement in JSLint:  var number = new Number(3);   And received the following message:     Do not use Number as a constructor.   Why is that? The statement is creating a number object, not a primitive value, so I don't see why using new is a problem.  EDIT: Thanks for all the responses. They've got me thinking further, so I posted a follow-up question .


I am trying to understand the boy and girl paradox.  The paradox states that if a family has two children and one of them is a boy, then the probability of the other being a girl is 2/3.  When you write out the set of possible outcomes { bb, bg, gb, gg } it makes a little more sense.  My question is why does age/order matter?  The two possible outcomes boy/girl and girl/ boy are the same right?

In a family with two children, what are the chances, if one of the children is a girl, that both children are girls?  I just dipped into a book, The Drunkard's Walk - How Randomness Rules Our Lives, by Leonard Mlodinow, Vintage Books, 2008. On p.107 Mlodinow says the chances are 1 in 3.   It seems obvious to me that the chances are 1 in 2. Am I correct? Is this not exactly analogous to having a bowl with an infinite number of marbles, half black and half red? Without looking I draw out a black marble. The probability of the second marble I draw being black is 1/2.


After creating a New Incoming VPN Connection in my Windows 7 Ultimate 32 SP1, the Network Icon in the System Tray always shows a red cross mark even though I am perfectly connected to the LAN & Internet.  This issue is already discussed  on Super User.  However, the solutions posted there did not work in my case.    What all I have tried so far, including earlier suggested solutions to the old question:   Deleted the subkey 'Config' from HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Control\Network and restarted Windows. Waited for over 10 minutes but the red cross mark remains. Release, Renew, FlushDNS IP address. Full uninstall & reinstall of latest drives of Realtek PCIe GBE Network adapter. (Gigabyte 880GM USB3 Rev 3.1 board) Disable & Re-Enable Network Adapter. Updated Windows 7 SP1 with Convenience roll-up update.   Even after incoming VPN connection is established, it continues to show the cross mark.   If I start in Safe Mode with Networking then only it’s gone but only during Safe Mode.  Does anyone know if this is a bug in Windows 7 and is there any particular update that fixes it?

In Windows 7, after a few weeks of running Hamachi VPN, the internet icon in the system tray shows a red "X", indicating I have no network connection:    This is false, as I am not only connected to two networks, I'm also connected to the internet (as shown below), therefore, the icon should show no errors.    I've researched the LogMeIn Hamachi help forums and several other related forums and no one seems to have posted a working solution.  What I've Tried So Far:   I have uninstalled Hamachi I reset the local LAN adapter. I have changed the order of listed connections in Network Connections > Advanced > Adapters & Bindings I have disabled IPv6 on both networks, and one at a time I deleted the "Incoming Connection" I had for my Windows 7 VPN in Network Adapters   I've run my research resources dry and I'm out of ideas. Any suggestions?


I made a Python program for a client, and he wants the python program to run on Ubuntu server. I am not familiar at all with Linux.   I do not understand, what he mean by "Ubuntu Server". Does he mean, he has a website that runs on Ubuntu server? He needs the program ready in next few hours, I asked him for clarification on this thing, but he is probably sleeping, and I need to make the project ready as soon as possible.

Trying to learn how to run my scripts through Ubuntu's terminal regularly.  That being said I am familiar with bash, wget, and awk being called but how do I call python files to run in the terminal?  I would like to learn this but I am unsure on where to research it.  I have a .pyw file that references several .py files in a folder.


Is $0.\overline{0}1$ possible in mathematical terms? I know that if you have a repeating decimal, the number is infinite and doesn't end. Thus, the 1 at the end here would stop the repeating decimal, am I right? Is this possible?

Does $1.0000000000\cdots 1$ (with  an infinite number of  $0$ in it) exist?


SELECT some_column  FROM some_table  WHERE some_column = '3.'   Return row/rows  SELECT some_column  FROM some_table  WHERE ISNUMERIC(some_column) = 0    AND some_column IS NOT NULL    AND some_column <> ''   Does not return any non numeric row/rows. there is a row which has a column value of '3.'  Am i missing something. Please Advise.

Why would the following query return "Error converting data type varchar to bigint"?  Doesn't IsNumeric make the CAST safe?  I've tried every numeric datatype in the cast and get the same "Error converting..." error.  I don't believe the size of the resulting number is a problem because overflow is a different error.  The interesting thing is, in management studio, the results actually show up in the results pane for a split second before the error comes back.  SELECT CAST(myVarcharColumn AS bigint)   FROM myTable   WHERE IsNumeric(myVarcharColumn) = 1 AND myVarcharColumn IS NOT NULL   GROUP BY myVarcharColumn   Any thoughts?


I have a sheet,it includes: number,name,pass,access,result. I want get name,pass,result to testweb, I try writing it but i get this error  :    String user[],pass[],result[]; Workbook workbook = WorkbookFactory.create(new File(pathFile)); Sheet sheet = workbook.getSheetAt(0); workbook.close(); if (sheet != null) { int rowindex =0; for(Row row : sheet) {    for(Cell cell:row){       int i=cell.getColumnIndex();       if(i==1) user[rowindex]=cell.toString();       if(i==2) pass[rowindex]=cell.toString();       if(i==4) result[rowindex]=cell.toString();       }       rowindex++;   } } else {     System.out.println("Sheet was not found");   }

What are Null Pointer Exceptions (java.lang.NullPointerException) and what causes them?  What methods/tools can be used to determine the cause so that you stop the exception from causing the program to terminate prematurely?


The problem goes like this: "Assume $A$$1$ $\equiv$  $A$$2$ . Show that for any formula $C$-containing $A$$1$ as a part , if we replace one of more occurences of the part $A$$1$ by $A$$2$ , then the resulting formula is logically equivalent to $C$." Now, at first glance ,this theorem seems obvious to me , but I still have to prove it. My choice is to use the law of induction and the following identities (which can be derived from $A$$1$ $\equiv$  $A$$2$). $1$.  $A$$1$ $\equiv$  $A$$2$  $2$.  ($\lnot$$A$$1$) $\equiv$ ($\lnot$$A$$2$) $3$.  ($A$$1$) $d$ $B$  $\equiv$   ($A$$2$) $d$ $B$  $4$.  $B$ $d$ ($A$$1$)  $\equiv$   $B$ $d$ ($A$$1$)  (Here $d\in\{\land,\lor,\Leftarrow,\Rightarrow,\Leftrightarrow\}$)  Now, I am used to doing induction with only one operation (like $+$), but now there is more then one operation. Also, I have to to consider commuting (rule $3$ and $4$). I tried to use summation signs but i does't seem to get simpler (is summation even usable in proportional logic?). I know the basics of induction by heart, but I don't know how to extend them to so many cases. Can someone show me how?

This semester I take Introduction to logic and sets theory and for logic our reference is A Mathematical Introduction to Logic by H.B.Enderton.  I have some problems with this course I mean it is somehow unfamiliar ! our professor teach well and I learn at class but when I want to solve my homework ,I have no idea ,how to solve problems !  I don't have any idea how to prove this :  suppose a and b are tautologically equivalent, where A is wff and a is used in A and B is  another wff that b is used in; prove that A and B are tautologically equivalent.  Any one can help me ?


I would like to know which of the options below is correct:   'It is mine and John's favourite' 'It is my and John's favourite'   Or if both are incorrect, what would be the correct way to phrase this?

I just stumbled upon a :     My wife and I's seafood collaboration dinner. How does it look?   Sure enough, the top comment immediately points out that it should be "my wife's and my". However, a cross-post to the Grammar subreddit produced :     It's fine as it is written. "my wife and I" is a noun phrase, functioning as a subjective pronoun in the singular and made possessive with the apostrophe. It is exactly the same as "our".      It seems weird because you would never use "I's" on its own but it is not on its own here - it is part of a noun phrase.   That's a rather intriguing argument. Does it hold any water?


I got this problem from my textbook:  $ \sin{\theta} \mapsto \frac{e^{i\theta}-e^{-i\theta}}{2i} = \frac{z - \bar{z}}{2i} $ and $ z := e^{i\theta}$. So $ \frac{dz}{d\theta} = i e^{i\theta} \rightarrow d\theta = -ie^{-i\theta}dz= -i\bar{z}dz.$ What are the limits? Pluggin in $ \theta = 0 \rightarrow z = 1$ which is the same as $ \theta = 2 \pi $?


At the bar last night I got a number from an amazing girl that I dialed in the bar. I had no signal when I dialed the number (the bar was deep underground) and I don't see the number in my call history.  How can I recover this number?

I dialed a number when I had no network support but it does not appear in the call history of my android phone.  Is there any way to get it ? (system logs or whatever)  THanks a lot in advance, Jack


I have seem to forgot this important fact, and I am trying to prove it to myself by looking at $A$ as matrix of the elementary row operations.  Where I seem to get stuck is that if $A$ are elementary row operations on $B$ when multiplying $B$ on the left does not multiplying $B$ from the right will no act on $B$ as elementary row operations and therefore will not result $BA=I$?

If $A$ and $B$ are square matrices such that $AB = I$, where $I$ is the identity matrix, show that $BA = I$.    I do not understand anything more than the following.   Elementary row operations. Linear dependence. Row reduced forms and their relations with the original matrix.   If the entries of the matrix are not from a mathematical structure which supports commutativity, what can we say about this problem?  P.S.: Please avoid using the transpose and/or inverse of a matrix.


$\{z\in \mathbb{C} \mid z^{60}=-1, z^k \not=-1 \text{ for } 0<k<60\}$ I tried to solve this but I've no idea on this type of questions, how to get start or in which way should I proceed. How can i do this?

How many elements does  the set $$\{z\in \mathbb{C}\mid z^{60}= -1; z^k \neq -1\text{ for } 0\lt k< 60\}$$ have?  $1.\quad24$  $2.\quad30$  $3.\quad32$  $4.\quad45$  I assumed  that  set  consists  of  elements  of  order  $120$ (as $(-1)^{2}=1$) i.e no  lesser  number  than  120  can  take   them to  $1$ because  if  a  number  lesser  than  60  can  take  them  to  $-1$ then a  lesser  than 120  number  can take  them to  $1$  also. So  the number  of  primitive  $60$th  roots  of $1$ , that  happens  to  be  32. But  the  answer  is  given  30. What  am  I  missing  here?


this is my table structure i have duplicate entry i will define duplicate by date (time stamp is in seconds) how can i delete is using sql query ?   database name db_misc  table name t_cmd_logs  lid     user    message     date    addedDate    Here is my data:   lid     user       message         date                 addedDate 5   DarkScorpion    -jjjj   2016-08-08 17:23:24     2016-08-08 17:24:01 6   DarkScorpion    -jjjj   2016-08-08 17:23:24     2016-08-08 17:25:01 7   DarkScorpion    -jjjj   2016-08-08 17:23:24     2016-08-08 17:26:01 8   DarkScorpion    -jjjj   2016-08-08 17:23:24     2016-08-08 17:27:02 9   DarkScorpion    -jjjj   2016-08-08 17:23:24     2016-08-08 17:28:01 10  DarkScorpion    -jjjj   2016-08-08 17:23:24     2016-08-08 17:29:01 11  DarkScorpion    -jjjj   2016-08-08 17:23:24     2016-08-08 17:30:01 12  DarkScorpion    -jjjj   2016-08-08 17:23:24     2016-08-08 17:31:01 13  DarkScorpion    -jjjj   2016-08-08 17:23:24     2016-08-08 17:32:01 14  DarkScorpion    -jjjj   2016-08-08 17:23:24     2016-08-08 17:33:01 15  DarkScorpion    -jjjj   2016-08-08 17:23:24     2016-08-08 17:34:01 16  DarkScorpion    -jjjj   2016-08-08 17:23:24     2016-08-08 17:35:01    I apologize, I am weak in English.   i found 1 way to copy t_cmd_logs data to t_cmd_log but i have to run this every 1 minute so i have to delete data from t_cmd_logs after copy is there any thing possible i have used   INSERT INTO t_cmd_log  SELECT * FROM t_cmd_logs WHERE 1 GROUP BY user,message,date ;  DELETE FROM t_cmd_logs;   but in phpmyadmin sql gives me error am i doing it wrong ?  please help me

What is the best way to remove duplicate rows from a fairly large SQL Server table (i.e. 300,000+ rows)?  The rows, of course, will not be perfect duplicates because of the existence of the RowID identity field.  MyTable  RowID int not null identity(1,1) primary key, Col1 varchar(20) not null, Col2 varchar(2048) not null, Col3 tinyint not null


I'm looking for a grammatical explanation for this clause     Men tend to talk about fewer subjects, the most popular being work, and sport.   In other words, we could say "..., among which, work and sport are the most popular". But I can't find a grammatical explanation for the first one ".. being work and sport."

Which is correct, and why?     some days we went on adventures — him maneuvering our scooter, me resting my chin …   or     some days we went on adventures — he maneuvering our scooter, I resting my chin …


I have problem with "returning" one procedure result to another procedure.  Description:  For example we have complex SELECT with parameters putted in one procedure.  USE [myDB] GO  ALTER PROCEDURE dbo.Procedure1 @today date AS   SELECT * FROM complex_query   now it's returning a lot of columns and numbers of columns and rows depends on @today value.  No I want to use result of Procedure1 in Procedure2  USE [myDB] GO  DECLARE @cntMonth INT = 0;  WHILE @cntMonth < 12   BEGIN   SELECT x,y,z FROM result_of_Procedure1   SET @cntMonth = @cntMonth + 1; END;   why I want it like that? It's because the software I'm working on is connecting to DB, run procedure and get the result to frontend. So I have to code all the way in SQL. So assuming software is doing one-time connection I don't want to got through Procedure1 every time WHILE statement is executed. How can I store the effect of Procedure1 to use it through Procedure2 while loop and prevent multiple runs of Procedure1?

I have a stored procedure that returns 80 columns, and 300 rows.  I want to write a select that gets 2 of those columns.  Something like   SELECT col1, col2 FROM EXEC MyStoredProc 'param1', 'param2'   When I used the above syntax I get the error:      "Invalid Column Name".   I know the easiest solution would be to change the stored procedure, but I didn't write it, and I can't change it.    Is there any way to do what I want?   I could make a temp table to put the results in, but because there are 80 columns so I would need to make an 80 column temp table just to get 2 columns.  I wanted to avoid tracking down all the columns that are returned. I tried using WITH SprocResults AS .... as suggested by Mark, but I got 2 errors      Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'EXEC'.Incorrect syntax near ')'.  I tried declaring a table variable and I got the following error      Insert Error: Column name or number of supplied values does not match table definition  If I try  SELECT * FROM EXEC MyStoredProc 'param1', 'param2' I get the error :     Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'exec'.


Copying folders on a Windows 10 machine from one drive to another in File Explorer fails with the following error:       "the file name(s) would be too long for the destination folder."   Both drives are the same size and use the same format. How can it fit on the source but not on the destination?

There's a bunch of files on a network drive, on a fairly deep path and the directories on most of of have long names. I think that these were originally created when someone copied & pasted the root directory for this group of files from their local workstation to the shared network drive. I imagine that on the local workstation, there was no problem opening the file, but now that they are on a longer path on the network, Windows can't open them when I double-click. I've also tried copying the files, and renaming them to somethign shorter, but Windows is unable to do that as well.  TL;DR  files from someone's workstation on a (hypothetical) path like this:  C:\Documents and Settings\SomeUser\Files\RootOfLongFileNames\LongSubdirectoryName1\...\VeryLongAndDescriptiveAndSpecificFilename.xls -----------------------------------------^   have now been copied and pasted on to the network like this:  Q:\Dir1\Dir2\ProjectA\FilesForSomething\SomeotherDirectory\Blahblah\RootOfLongFileNames\LongSubdirectoryName1\...\VeryLongAndDescriptiveAndSpecificFilename.xls ---------------------------------------------------------------------^   And the path is now too long for Windows XP to handle.  Any tips as to how I can read these files?


If the verb ends with a vowel plus -l (as in travel or equal), then you need to double the l before adding -ed and -ing in British English.    Is it a general rule in British English? or there are some exceptions (feeling, kneeling ...)

I am confused about the spelling of the past tense of the verb "cancel".  I googled a bit but everyone has a different opinion apparently. I need to know the correct standard spelling.


I am arriving at Heathrow Airport in London with 5 large bags and a very large music keyboard.  What would be the best way to go to East London from there?  One of the trick points is that 3 of the bags and the keyboard will be in the cargo area of the airport. So we have to get the bags from the flight and then collect the rest before heading to East London.  We are thinking between hiring a large SUV and dropping it in East London somewhere or maybe UberXL. Or? Thanks for any idea!

I will be arriving in Heathrow around noon with a lot of luggage (around 4 big pieces). Will I find room in taxis to take this to downtown London or should I book something in advance ?


I'm trying to assign an element from a pointer the same value as another element from the same pointer.  int testFunc() {     char *p = "123";     p[0] = p[2];     return 0; }   Curious as to why the above code doesn't work - and what is the best way to achieve what I'm trying to do?

The following code receives seg fault on line 2:  char *str = "string"; str[0] = 'z';  // could be also written as *str = 'z' printf("%s\n", str);   While this works perfectly well:  char str[] = "string"; str[0] = 'z'; printf("%s\n", str);   Tested with MSVC and GCC.


How can I add my signature to Preview on a Mac without a built-in camera?  I've got a mid 2012 Mac mini, running macOS 10.11 using a 3rd party mouse and Apple keyboard, connected to 2x 3rd party HDMI displays.   I want to add my signature to the Preview app, so that I can sign documents digitally in Preview without having to print, sign, scan.   In the past I have used a built-in webcam to get my signatures saved into Preview, but I can't do that on this Mac mini.  I have access to another mac with a camera and an iPhone if required.

A follow on to . Is it possible to just copy the plist file containing the signature from one Mac to another? Is there a recommended method for exporting and import signatures from one Mac to another I should follow instead?  I could "sign" a blank PDF and take a screen shot of it but but I really want the same password to go along with the image so it's 100% the same signature on the other Mac as the one I'm using on this Mac.


I saw this sentence:      The tea tastes better if you drink it hot.   Since 'drink' is a verb, it really confused me why the adj 'hot' is used here rather than the adv 'hotly'?

Her teeth gleamed white against the tanned skin of her face.   It seems ‘white’ is an adjunct modifying gleamed, while it’s not a complement for it’s not necessary to complete the meaning. But I’m wondering if adjectives can make adjuncts modifying verbs. My question are two: (1) Is ‘white’ a complement or an adjunct? (2) Can adjectives make adjuncts modifying verbs? (Even if the case is not an example of this question, would you let me know?)


I'm attempting to render a long character animation in cycles, and before each frame is starting to render, bvh is coming up and making everything super slow.

In the render properties panel, under the performance rollout there is a setting for static vs. dynamic BVH.  I am simply wondering what this setting does.  From the :     The raytracing acceleration structure used is a bounding volume hierarchy... This code includes spatial splits to make it more competitive with kd-trees.   Unfortunately, though I know quite a bit about cycles, this is totally Greek to me.  I couldn't really find much else useful on the web other than it may have some impact on animations only.  Can anybody explain this better (maybe starting with BVH in general)?


Okay so according to my high-school knowledge I know about inertia and momentum. Now I have a question regarding the photon which my teachers say that is to be learnt in higher classes(and thus not answering my question so).  So the question is, why does a photon have momentum and no mass? I mean $p=mv$, right? If $m=0$ then it shouldn't have any momentum. Considering it to be a 0-dimensional the answer could be yes, it could have momentum without mass but if I had to add more to the question, I would say, what if you've got like a million-billion photons which stacked together very closely and moving as a single thing, then it would have a volume and thus, according to Newton, anything with a volume has a mass. Now photons is energy, you may say, but then there is the mass-energy equivalence, i.e., $E=mc^2$.  I know it's a sort of a childish but a question.

As an explanation of why a large gravitational field (such as a black hole) can bend light, I have heard that light has momentum. This is given as a solution to the problem of only massive objects being affected by gravity. However, momentum is the product of mass and velocity, so, by this definition, massless photons cannot have momentum.  How can photons have momentum?   How is this momentum defined (equations)?


Say I'm talking to a friend about a particular sound, then I tell him I will show him what I mean. Is there a way to say show without implying visual demonstration? I guess maybe play? Any other suggestions?

In , we have a verb meaning "to show" corresponding to "to see/to look", and we have a different verb corresponding to "to hear/to listen":  inti tara stampa (you look at a picture.) ---- jiena nurilek stampa (I show you a picture) inti tisma' diska (you listen to a song.) ----- jiena nsemmagħlek diska (I 'show' you a song)  In English, do you "show someone a song" (sounds weird to me) or is there a verb that corresponds more directly to the Maltese insemmgħek?


I play a teleportation and extra dimensional sorcerer in my group and I'm getting close to obtaining the spell  which requires "a diamond worth at least 5,000 gp". How big would a  be? My reason for asking is that I want to place the diamond on top of my legendary staff, and the size definitely dictates whether I can or can not do so.

Context  The  (DMG p134) describe six categories of gemstone: 10gp, 50gp, 100gp, 500gp, 1000gp, and 5000gp.  What does this mean? An agate can be worth anywhere between 10gp and 5000gp depending on how big it is, not to mention other factors.  Therefor, I believe we are forced to assume a standard gemstone size for this table.  For the table to be of any use as a resource, a 10gp agate must be roughly the same size as a 5000gp black sapphire.  The statements “an amethyst is worth 100gp” and “a topax is worth 500gp” simply do not mean anything without a size reference.        I understand that gemstone value is not entirely, or even mostly dependent on size: color, clarity, and cut are also important.  But this is not any help, and only makes the existence of a table ranking of gemstone value even more baffling unless we can also assume a standard level of quality, and indeed this assumption is supported by the fact that the table already lists different grades of certain gems.  Sapphires and rubies, for example, appear in different categories of value depending on their color and clarity.  However there is some slight evidence to suggest that there is no standard size.  The 5,000gp gemstone list includes both a diamond and a ruby, which are often not the same value, so perhaps the ruby on this list is larger than the diamond?  Even if this were the case, as I have argued above the table does not make sense without at least some reference to size, so the size variation must be slight, or within a range.  Alternatively, there is a standard gemstone size and either (A) rubies and diamonds are worth the same in this world or (B) the listed diamond is lower grade or the ruby is higher grade (and indeed, there are lower grade rubies listed elsewhere in the table).   My Question  Is there indeed a standard gemstone size in the DMG's treasure tables, and if yes, what is it?   Parameters  I do not require a strictly RAW answer to this question.  There does not seem to be guidance on this issue within the official rules, but I can think of three possible ways of answering this question, in order of authority:    Inference from official adventure modules that contain a description of a gemstone’s size and value.  To get at the pure value of the gemstone as a material, such a reference should not be to gemstones that are part of an art object Inference from real world gemstone value, applied to the RAW.   SE answer to a similar question has some helpful guidance. If nothing else, a secondary source with more usable gemstone tables would be helpful.  This includes previous editions, thoughtfully written homebrews, and third party publications.   All I want is a number that is plausible, based on either real life or existing D&D materials.


I have been playing around with the script and can't get it working. It always defaults to option3.  Can anyone help?  <select id="select">   <option>Please select</option>   <option value="option1">option1</option>   <option value="option2">option2</option>   <option value="option3">option3</option> </select>

I'm using  to go through JavaScript, and it's returning many suggestions to replace == (two equals signs) with === (three equals signs) when doing things like comparing idSele_UNVEHtype.value.length == 0 inside of an if statement.  Is there a performance benefit to replacing == with ===?   Any performance improvement would be welcomed as many comparison operators exist.  If no type conversion takes place, would there be a performance gain over ==?


Are there any antivirus applications that work on Ubuntu 16.04? Thanks!

What antivirus programs are available for Ubuntu?  We previously used Symantec Endpoint Protection but it does not work in Ubuntu.


I have such code:
         link
   I need to change href attribute to www.example2.com How would I achieve that using javascript?

How can you change the href for a hyperlink using jQuery?


I ran a small self-hosted Bukkit server for Minecraft version 1.5.2 and later 1.16 I only used a few plugins, e.g. a AutoBackup, nothing game-changing. Now, for different reasons, I wanted to switch back to Vanilla starting from version 1.16.1. But the Bukkit server stored the world in three separate folders:  WORLDNAME WORLDNAME_nether WORLDNAME_the_end  How can I combine those folders to make the server compatible with a Vanilla server again?

I have a server running the standard, unmodified Vanilla server on a Linux box. After talking to the people on the server we have decided that moving to a Bukkit Server would be better because of the awesome plugins.   However, it seems that Minecraft generates "nether" and "overworld" files differently than Bukkit. Bukkit generates a world and a world_nether folders. I have read the  that copying the Vanilla's world folder to world and world_nether seems to work but I feel like this a a bit hackish and might cause problems in the future.   Has anyone successively done this?


I've read several articles and tried various methods and I'm pulling my hair out... I know the answer is punching me in the nose but I just cant seem to see it.  I have 2 network ports on my server (Debian LAMP): eno1 eno2  I have a block of 5 IP addresses and I'm trying to assign the extra IPs to eno2 (or eno1, I don't care).  I have read the debian wiki and tried!  I added netmask field however dont believe it has to be there per debian wiki.  I got all IPs to ping successfully the other night with listing as(no alias #): Iface eno2 inet static Address ..***.*01  Iface eno2 inet static Address ..***.*02  Etc.. But then the following morning ALL interfaces were down and had to do a hard reboot which brought eno1 back online (though the "aliases" did not work after that, only the first IP set for the interface was reachable on both eno1 and eno2)  I've also tried using aliases: iface eno2:1 inet static address ...  I am using tabs properly (I believe) for the address field as i read in a similar article that spaces wont work properly on network config.  What am I doing wrong? Or may be I'm misunderstanding an answer in a relevant article.  I appreciate any information provided. If all else fails I will just use a single ip for eno1 and another single ip for eno2. I'm scared to do any changes under /dev/network (if I recall correctly) because I'll cost myself another 1hour drive to my server.  Guessing in the wind: Interface aliases MAC addresses are posing an issue? May be make each interface alias with their own MAC? If so, what is a good method for making MAC addresses?  Final piece I'll add: I thought I had this configured correctly because if I run ifdown eno2 && ifup eno2 it would bring network interface back online. Some variations of the file would fail when running that command... so I feel like in all over the answer but again I feel I'm missing a very small detail.  Debian 9 w/ Apache

I would like to use two different static IP addresses for the same network with the same Wi-Fi dongle. I read in different forums that it's better to use /etc/network/interfaces instead of dhcpcd.conf for that purpose. So I changed the /etc/network/interfaces that way:  auto lo iface lo inet loopback  iface eth0 inet dhcp auto wlan0 allow-hotplug wlan0 iface wlan0 inet static     address 192.168.0.60     netmask 255.255.255.0     gateway 192.168.0.10     wpa-conf /etc/wpa_supplicant/wpa_supplicant.conf auto wlan0:0 allow-hotplug wlan0:0 iface wlan0:0 inet static     address 192.168.0.61     netmask 255.255.255.0     wpa-conf /etc/wpa_supplicant/wpa_supplicant.conf   The issue now is that for the most of the time I can't ping any member of the network. During the first 10 seconds, everything works fine and then I mostly don't get any connection.  ifconfig shows the following:  lo        Link encap:Lokale Schleife             inet Adresse:127.0.0.1  Maske:255.0.0.0           inet6-Adresse: ::1/128 Gültigkeitsbereich:Maschine           UP LOOPBACK RUNNING  MTU:65536  Metrik:1           RX packets:1237 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0           TX packets:1237 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0           Kollisionen:0 Sendewarteschlangenlänge:1            RX bytes:100748 (98.3 KiB)  TX bytes:100748 (98.3 KiB)  wlan0     Link encap:Ethernet  Hardware Adresse b8:27:eb:a2:4b:72             inet Adresse:192.168.0.60  Bcast:192.168.0.255  Maske:255.255.255.0           inet6-Adresse: fe80::ba27:ebff:fea2:4b72/64 Gültigkeitsbereich:Verbindung           UP BROADCAST MULTICAST  MTU:1500  Metrik:1           RX packets:15498 errors:0 dropped:10634 overruns:0 frame:0           TX packets:5446 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0           Kollisionen:0 Sendewarteschlangenlänge:1000            RX bytes:5910381 (5.6 MiB)  TX bytes:722284 (705.3 KiB)  wlan0:0   Link encap:Ethernet  Hardware Adresse b8:27:eb:a2:4b:72             inet Adresse:192.168.0.61  Bcast:192.168.0.255  Maske:255.255.255.0           UP BROADCAST MULTICAST  MTU:1500  Metrik:1   and route -ne has the following output:    Ziel            Router          Genmask         Flags   MSS Fenster irtt Iface 0.0.0.0         192.168.0.10    0.0.0.0         UG        0 0          0 wlan0 192.168.0.0     0.0.0.0         255.255.255.0   U         0 0          0 wlan0   I also stoped dhcpcd, the IPs aren't in the dhcp IP pool of the router and with one static IP everything works fine  Does anyone have any clue what I did wrong?


Calculate: $27^{162} \pmod {41}$  So we need to calculate x which is a remainder of $$\frac{27^{162}}{41}$$  $27 = 3^3$ so we can write such equation: $$3^{486} = 41k + x$$ or  $$3^{3 \times 162} = 41k + x$$ where x is a reminder.  But what do I do next to calculate this without using calculator(or using simple one)?

I've read about Fermat's little theorem and generally how congruence works. But I can't figure out how to work out these two:   $13^{100} \bmod 7$ $7^{100} \bmod 13$   I've also heard of this formula:  $$a \equiv b\pmod n \Rightarrow a^k \equiv b^k \pmod n $$  But I don't see how exactly to use that here, because from $13^1 \bmod 7$ I get 6, and $13^2 \bmod 7$ is 1. I'm unclear as to which one to raise to the kth power here (I'm assuming k = 100?)  Any hints or pointers in the right direction would be great.


My question concerns an aspect of the pole-barn paradox that, to my knowledge, has not been discussed so far. So rejecting the question as "duplicate" is incorrect, in my view. Here is the edited version: Einstein's 1905 postulates entail that unlimitedly long objects can be trapped, in a compressed state, inside unlimitedly short containers: "These are the props. You own a barn, 40m long, with automatic doors at either end, that can be opened and closed simultaneously by a switch. You also have a pole, 80m long, which of course won't fit in the barn. [...] So, as the pole passes through the barn, there is an instant when it is completely within the barn. At that instant, you close both doors simultaneously, with your switch. [...] If it does not explode under the strain and it is sufficiently elastic it will come to rest and start to spring back to its natural shape but since it is too big for the barn the other end is now going to crash into the back door and the rod will be TRAPPED IN A COMPRESSED STATE inside the barn."  One of the comments on the previous version of the question is as follows: "Note that the pole is not compressed by the Lorentz-FitzGerald contraction, it's compressed by colliding with the back door at 0.866c" Not true. The compression occurs before colliding - the long object is still flying inside the short container when the doors are closed. That is, the compression is purely relativistic. Then the trapped object will "start to spring back to its natural shape". How much energy will be released if a 1 km object, compressed to 1 cm, restores its original length? Even the question sounds absurd, let alone the answer. If such trapping is absurd, we have reductio ad absurdum: the absurdity of the logical consequence shows that at least one of the postulates is false. Is trapping unlimitedly long objects, in a compressed state, inside unlimitedly short containers absurd?

Suppose the proper length of a train is longer than that of a bridge, and the bridge can't bear the total weight of the train but can bear it partially. As the train goes very fast, it becomes shorter than the bridge and it can be entirely on the bridge. As a result, the bridge will collapse. However, in the train's frame, the train is even longer than the bridge, and it is only partially on the bridge; so the bridge will not collapse. What is the solution to this paradox?


The number of real solutions of the equation $$\cos(\cos(\cos(\cos(x)))) = \sin(\sin(\sin(\sin(x))))$$ (I have no clue to solve this problem)

I found this problem in a collection of contest problems of a Russian competition in 1995 and wasn't able to solve it.     Solve for real $x$:   $$ \cos (\cos (\cos (\cos(x))))=\sin (\sin (\sin (\sin (x)))) $$   My guess is that there is no solution, but how do I prove it? I tried to estimate  $LHS\ge \cos (1) \ge \cos(\pi/3)=1/2 $  and RHS similarly but the ranges overlap..  Do you have a better idea?


I am new to Ubuntu. Please help me with the following question. what is the meaning of ~/ in ls -la ~/

I was confused, trying to copy some files from one PC to another. I have it figured out, but the syntax is still confusing to me. This works:  scp ~/Desktop/Volenteer.png jay@server.ip:~j0h/b   which puts Volenteer.png in the folder /home/j0h/b.  However, this doesn't work:  scp ~Desktop/Volenteer.png     jay@server.ip:~j0h/b   This also fails, giving an exit status 1 file not found:  scp ~/Desktop/Volenteer.png     jay@server.ip:~/j0h/b   As does this:  scp ~Desktop/Volenteer.png     jay@server.ip:~j0h/b   So clearly, there is some difference between ~ and ~/ That difference is the presence of /   $~/ bash: /home/j0h/: Is a directory $ ~ bash: /home/j0h: Is a directory   So why in scp, does the ~ resolve to ~/ ? That is a guess, I cant verify that's what is happening.  But it seems inconsistent, and therefore confusing.  Is this a bug in scp? or is there something about tilde I am missing?


Over on Science Fiction & Fantasy, we've had a couple of answers containing some Unicode characters that spilled over onto the rest of the page.     The comments were deleted and edited to push the offending bit into history, .  So the direct problem has been solved.  However, should Unicode characters in a post be able to do this? Should the contents of an element be allowed to draw outside the boundaries of that element? (I think they should not, hence this bug report).

After viewing  (which contains a lot of Unicode) I had the idea to test if usernames allow ZALGO. To my dismay they do.  Is this wanted? Together with ShadowWizard we did a quick test. ZALGO has the ability to "break" comments.        Shouldn't that be avoided before someone start abusing it?    EDIT: little clarification: I asked around and it seems that some time ago Zalgo didn't work in usernames. So it seems that some "recent" change broke that rule. While it is true that missuses could be handled manually, it could be worth to check why the behaviour changed suddenly (assuming my sources where right).


The following is an interview question.     You are invited to a welcome party with $25$ fellow team members. Each of the fellow members shakes hands with you to welcome you. Since a number of people in the room haven't met each other, there is a lot of random handshaking among others as well. If you don't know the total number of handshakes, can you say with certainty that there are at least two people present who shook hands with exactly the same number of people?   I have a vague feeling that the answer is yes, which can be justified using the Pigeonhole principle.   However, I do not know how to answer the question concre

I've tried deriving a proof for this using the handshaking lemma, but that was unsuccessful. Could someone please explain to me how they would do this proof?


I haven't found any question on this but I'm having problems when placing a Tikz picture in a document. It's enclosed in a Figure environment, and it uses \centerfloat to center it, with some code in the preamble since it's not a Memoir, but an Article class.   In my MWE I added the picture between two Lorem Ipsums, but when typesetting, it appears before both of them. What is happening and how can I solve it?  \documentclass{article} \usepackage{rotating} \usepackage{pgfplots} \usepackage{tikz} \usetikzlibrary{arrows,positioning,calc} \usepackage{caption}  \makeatletter \newcommand*{\centerfloat}{%   \parindent \z@   \leftskip \z@ \@plus 1fil \@minus \textwidth   \rightskip\leftskip   \parfillskip \z@skip} \makeatother  \tikzset{     every node/.style={align=center, fill=white, draw=black, thick, rectangle, outer sep=0mm, inner sep=0mm},     rect/.style={minimum height=8mm},     recv/.style={text width=2.5cm, rotate=90}, }  \begin{document}      FIRST Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Nam sit amet ante id augue faucibus maximus sit amet vel lacus. Suspendisse potenti. Nullam metus nunc, auctor vel rutrum sed, sollicitudin vitae ante. Pellentesque habitant morbi tristique senectus et netus et malesuada fames ac turpis egestas. In ornare elit dui, sed aliquet erat pharetra ac. Nullam viverra ipsum tincidunt est cursus, at elementum neque congue. Aliquam tempor lorem ac eros mollis accumsan. Quisque vulputate consectetur ex at mattis. Ut aliquam, ligula at placerat elementum, lorem mauris convallis ante, vel faucibus nulla leo vel odio. Quisque nec ullamcorper ipsum.\\  \begin{figure}     \centerfloat \begin{tikzpicture}     \node[rect, text width=4cm] (prop) at (0,0) {proposition};     \node[rect, text width=12cm, left=0mm of prop, anchor=east] (ent) {entity};  \end{tikzpicture} \caption{A caption} \end{figure}  SECOND Nullam et efficitur justo. Donec sodales velit sit amet lorem varius tempus. Nulla vitae leo justo. Phasellus rhoncus egestas dui, in rutrum nisi ullamcorper sit amet. Aliquam eget imperdiet dolor. Morbi quis hendrerit erat. Nulla ornare purus ac sollicitudin dapibus.  \end{document}    And here's the result:

Is there any package or a method to force LaTeX to keep floating environments like table and figure closer to where they are declared?