I'm sure this is a dup, but what happened to this feature?  Not too long ago, people's name had the percent of questions on which they accepted an answer. I don't remember reading that it changed in the blog or elsewhere, yet suddenly this is gone.

My feature request (or anti-feature-request perhaps) is the following: Let's stop displaying a user's accept rate.  For those of you who know "Fawlty Towers", the whole issue of a visible accept rate and our behavior towards it starts to feel like .   We generally seem to agree that harassing a user about it is not appropriate and that our decision to answer a question should not depend on it, yet we display it in varying terrorist-threat-levels of color. Yes dear users, please don't pay any attention to the brightly orange colored percentage you see there. And whatever you do, don't bring it up.  But as long as you're displaying the accept rate, people will comment on it, criticize users for it and possibly reconsider answering because of it. And while I'm of the opinion that a low accept rate should not stop you from answering (we're here to make the internet better after all) and that the possible reputation gain (or lack thereof) should not factor in either, I can't blame users for considering it. It's in their face after all. And we're only people.   So let's take the issue off the table. Or at least partially. Information about a user's acceptance behavior can still always be gathered from the profile. But at least that would be less in-your-face.   "But it helps me to see if a user is a help vampire!" I'm still wondering if those are of the sparkly variety as well, but I digress. So what? If the question is bad, downvote it. Evaluate a question on its individual value. There is no need to take a user's history into account. There might be a correlation between the quality of a question and a user's accept rate, but there doesn't have to be. And if there is, the bigger problem is the question's quality.  "Exactly! A user with a low accept rate might indicate there's a problem!" I'm not arguing we should get rid of the accept-rate value within SO/SE. After all, this Q&A works based on up and downvotes, as well as the acceptance of an answer. But why not use it behind the scenes to (very occasionally) nudge the user with a statement like:      "You have received several answers to your questions, yet have not accepted an answer as correct or helpful in a while. You might want to evaluate them and where possible ".    After all, in the various questions with regards to comments on low accept rates, if any comments are encouraged at all, then they are of this soft variety. So why not let the system take care of that?  I feel this would take the whole issue of accept rate off the table, while still providing the user with the information he might have missed or needs. (As a bonus, it would reduce the frequency with which the topic is brought up here on Meta) And those users who would ignore this information are most likely not convinced by a displayed percentage either.


WFS works only in IE browser for me.   It's not working in any other browser. I don't have much expertise in  checking browser compatibility, could someone suggest me how to resolve this issue or if any workaround is available for this issue to make it works in Mozilla and Chrome also.

When exactly do I need to use a proxy with openlayers? I've done a lot of reading on this but can't seem to find a definitive answer. Wondering if this is the route of my problems.  For instance, if I have one server running Geoserver (WFS) on port 8080 and Apache (serving OpenLayers) on port 80 would I need to use a proxy?  If the servers are physically separate would I need to use proxy?


How String concatenation works in java?. This question is not for comparing Strings. Its for comparing objects and while concatenation i am getting only false. Why this is happen? I have written a code for comparing the String references  public class StringClass {     public static void main(String[] args) {             String s1 = new String("hello");         String s2 = new String("hello");         String s3 = "hello";         String s4 = "hello";         String s5 = "java";         String s6 = "developer";         String s7 = s5 + s6;         String s8 = "java" + s6;         String s9 = "javadeveloper";         String s10 = "java" + "developer";          System.out.println("s1 == s2 " + s1==s2);         System.out.println("s3 == s4 " + s3 == s4);         System.out.println("s7 == s9" + s7 == s9);         System.out.println("s9 == s10" + s9==s10);     }  }   In console i am getting like this  false false false false   Why concatenation doesnt work in this code?. I am expecting the output like this  s1 == s2 false s3 == s4 true s7 = s9 false s9 == s10 true

I've been using the == operator in my program to compare all my strings so far. However, I ran into a bug, changed one of them into .equals() instead, and it fixed the bug.  Is == bad? When should it and should it not be used? What's the difference?


A little background information.  In June 2017 I was "blitzed" two times in Germany and one time in Switzerland while visiting friends and family.  Sure enough, I received three emails and three letters in the mail from Enterprise Germany.  I have waited months without receiving any citations from the local authorities from where I was speeding.  Worried, I emailed  the Enterprise Ordungswidrigkeiten department in the email addressing my concern with the Ordungswidrigkeiten numbers hat I have received from them.  I have never heard back from them.  I also called the Enterprise support number here in the states with all the information and my concerns and yet said they would reach out to their European headquarters.  So now being 2019 and I have never heard back with multiple attempts trying to get this resolved unsuccessfully. I am planning on going back and renting a car this summer.  I don't know what else to do or what consequences I will face when I enter Germany.  By the way, I am a dual national (German/American) if there are any additional consequences when I enter the country with my German passport.

During a trip to Germany in May, I accrued (unknowingly) three speeding tickets from automated ticketing cameras throughout the picturesque countryside. The reason I know that the tickets exist is because of the three letters I received from the rental car company informing me that they will be levying a fee on my credit card, 20 euros for each ticket, for the service of passing along my address in the United States to the respective ticketing agencies. That was at the beginning of July.  Now, more than three months after the violation occurred, I have yet to see any mail regarding these tickets. Do I have any obligation that I'm not fulfilling by just waiting for the tickets to arrive? Will I be blamed for paying them late? Is there a way to pay a ticket that you haven't seen?  Out of curiosity, not because I want to utilize this route, what happens if I don't pay them? What leverage can the ticketing agency apply to get me to pay them? Would that prevent me from renting a car? anywhere or just in Germany?


As far as I know, tail -f <filename> allows to continuously print newly appended data from one single file.   What if I need to get content from multiple files located in multiple folders under the same parent folder, then filter that content if need be, and finally print it as a real-time stream, as new data gets appended to any one of the multiple monitored files?  EDIT: the operating system is RedHat Enterprise Linux 7.4

I tried tailing two files using the option:  tail -0f file1.log -0f file2.log   In Linux I see an error "tail : can process only one file at a time".  In AIX I see the error as "Invalid options".  This works fine when I use:  tail -f file1 -f file 2   in Linux but not in AIX.  I want to be able to tail multiple files using -0f or -f in AIX/Linux  multitail is not recognized in either of these OS.


Editing a polygon is possible by clicking on it, and the edit "pencil" icon appears, allowing you to drag or even add new coordinates. There is, however, no way to delete coordinates, as far as I can tell, except by doing an update function using SQL and manually finding and typing in the lat-long coordinates. That would be immensely tedious, since the coordinates' locations in my map are based on visual appearance rather than any quantitative relationship.

How can I delete the vertex of a line that I have previously created? I´m doing tests. I know how to edit a line or create a new one and add vertexs clicking in a transparent circle between two vertexs already created, but if i want to remove this vertex created, i don´t know how to do it.


<?php $pdo = new PDO('mysql:host=localhost;dbname=leonzemaim', 'leonzemaim', 'leonzemaim'); $stmt = $pdo->prepare('SELECT * FROM Orders'); $stmt->execute(); ?>   Hi. I try get my result in utf8 code?

I'm setting up a new server and want to support UTF-8 fully in my web application. I have tried this in the past on existing servers and always seem to end up having to fall back to ISO-8859-1.  Where exactly do I need to set the encoding/charsets? I'm aware that I need to configure Apache, MySQL, and PHP to do this — is there some standard checklist I can follow, or perhaps troubleshoot where the mismatches occur?  This is for a new Linux server, running MySQL 5, PHP, 5 and Apache 2.


A popular maths comic strip for little kid is shown in below:    Why, this proof is wrong? And, what happen when you comparing the areas of these two figure (truncate square, and circle)? Are the area equal? Formally prove it, for both of the statement.

What is wrong with this proof?    Is $\pi=4?$


I'm trying to factor $x^6+x^5+x^4+x^3+x^2+x+1$ in $\mathbb{F}_2[x]$. But I don't know how to do that. Anyone can tell whether there is a nice way to solve all these kinds of problems?

Express $x^8-x$ as a product of irreducibles in $\Bbb Z_2[x]$.  Work so far:  $$x^8 - x = x(x^7 - 1) = x(x - 1)(x^6+x^5+x^4+x^3+x^2+x+1)$$  From here, I think the Zeros of an Irreducible over a splitting field Theorem would be the method. I am unsure how to proceed


Using tikz, How can I get the arrowhead in this example to be angled 'better'?   \draw [arrows=-{>[scale=2, length=3, width=3.5]},line width=0.7mm] (0,0) arc (90:-20:0.4);

Arrow heads added to arches with small radius look ugly, they do not look symmetrical. Here is an example :      \documentclass{article}     \usepackage{tikz}     \usetikzlibrary{arrows.meta}      \begin{document}     \begin{tikzpicture}[>=stealth]     \draw[->] (0,0) arc (00:290:.15cm);     \end{tikzpicture}     \end{document}   This gives an arrow like (screenshot of 24x magnification):    What I would like to have is something like:    Is it possible, how?


I have a redmi note 5. It has been asking for updates for a while, which I have been postponing. The reason is that my previous phone, a huawei, got locked into bootloop when I did update it, so I have been weary.  But since I'm starting to cave, I was wondering if there was a way to backup absolutely, utterly everything on the phone, to the point of being able to flash it if I have to, load the data again, and end up holding the exact same phone I did before all that.

I know I'm asking for the close-to-impossible -- as a real full-backup certainly requires root permissions. But still there are many folks around not wanting to root their devices -- afraid of voiding their warranties or bricking their devices, or just not having their devices supported by any rooting method.  I also know there were a lot of questions asked already on this topic, and I checked all of them having the backup tag -- none covers the entire topic, all just have pieces, and especially people new to Android (but other non-power-users as well) would have a hard time figuring out the best way.  So I want a detailed canonical answer to the question:  Not involving root-solutions, how to achieve a backup as close as possible to a full backup?  Please do not give simple one-liner answers like "Use app xyz [full-stop]." If mentioning an app (and I doubt a single app would be the answer here), include what parts are covered by it -- as well as ideas on how to fill the gaps it leaves. (And to make it absolutely clear: I know the first thing coming to mind is Titanium Backup -- I use it myself, but this does not apply here: This question is strictly about methods for non-rooted devices!) Moreover, the answer should be as generic as possible in terms of applying to a wide range of devices (i.e. it should not be restricted to one device or manufacturer).  I already mentioned having investigated all questions here tagged backup. These will certainly be helpful providing details for answers here, so I will list up the topmost ones concerning my question:            All these provide some details for my question (so feel free to get inspired by them) -- but I feel there are still details missing. Also it would be helpful to have a summary -- say, an answer including the full description of "the maximum possible".  A last criterium: While I'd consider cloud-based solutions legit, I'd favour local solutions. If you can provide both: all the better. But some people value privacy quite high (I'm one of them), and thus would not trust their data to some cloud service.    Thanks to Ryan, we now have a solution for a really complete backup of all apps and their data -- which I didn't dare to hope for! The only disadvantage: His solution only works for less than 10% of all Android users; namely those whose devices are running at least with Android 4.x.  So again, I ask the close-to-impossible: Any solutions applicable at least on Gingerbread (2.3.x) or, better, even Froyo (2.2.x) -- so they cover the majority of current devices? These solutions may involve multiple tools (try to keep it as simple as possible though; think of your mother to follow your instructions ;)  And keep in mind: NO ROOT!    To further motivate high-quality answers (and hopefully avoid low-quality ones), I will be a harsh one here: As I rarely do, I will down-vote answers not fitting the mentioned criteria on one end -- but on the other end, I will setup a bounty for the best answer (which cannot be done immediately, but earliest after 2 days).


In Ubuntu 17.10 I noticed 2 new partitions when using gnome-disk-utility. From what I understand, they are snap partitions/loop devices created when installing pieces of software. Note that I don't see them listed as partitions in gparted which I find confusing. The problem is I don't know why I have them and would like to get rid of them.  Do I need them? Is it safe to just delete them? For instance, what would happen if I were to delete bluez_129.snap, would I lose my Bluetooth tools?

I just realized using gnome-disk-utility (3.18.3.1) that my 16.04 installation is featuring several small loop devices.  In detail:   78 MB Loop Device (/var/lib/snapd/sn_ntu-core_352.snap -> /dev/loop0) 76 MB Loop Device (/var/lib/snapd/sn_ntu-core_216.snap -> /dev/loop1) 79 MB Loop Device (/var/lib/snapd/sn_ntu-core_423.snap -> /dev/loop2) 705 KB Loop Device (/var/lib/snapd/snaps/tpad_12.snap -> /dev/loop3) 684 KB Loop Device (/var/lib/snapd/snaps/tpad_11.snap -> /dev/loop5) 705 KB Loop Device (/var/lib/snapd/snaps/tpad_13.snap -> /dev/loop6)   Image showing gnome-disk-utility    My questions are as follows:   What are those loop devices used for? Is that an expected behaviour in 16.04? Can  I remove them? And if so - how (just by unmounting)? Is there any risk in removing the 2 installed snaps mentioned below (tpad and ubuntu-core)   UPDATE  Installed snaps  According to snap list I do have   tpad (1.8.1) ubuntu-core (16.04.1)   installed. I remember I did tinker with snaps for a short time when  I realized this option - but am pretty unsure if  I  installed those 2 snaps - or if they are pre-/auto-installed.  tpad is a Terminal text editor with GUI-like user interface  I  did install manually, as  I don't use it  I removed it now via sudo snap remove tpad. As a result the 2 loop devices pointing to tpad are gone in gnome-disk-utility.  So - at the current point  I am still having 1 snap installed called ubuntu-core and I don't know what it is used for. The summary of this particular snap is   The ubuntu-core OS snap


I am studying computer science in first term,  and i got a task that i was not able to solve for a long time now.  I have to prove that   $ 3 > (1+\frac{1}{n})^n>=2$  for every $n \in \mathbb{N}$  $(1+\frac{1}{n})^n>=2$  Can be proved easily with Bernoullis Inequality:  $(1+x)^n>=1+x*n$ $(2= 1+\frac{1}{n}*n)$   Thats cool. But how do i prove that it is smaller than 3? I thought of the following. Using bionomical theorem we can write the above term as:  $$\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n}{k}*\frac{1}{n^k}$$  If we write the first to sums for k= 0 and k= 1 seperately, we can see that they both equal 1.  $$\binom{n}{0}*\frac{1}{n^0}$$ And  $$\binom{n}{1}*\frac{1}{n^1}$$  Both equal one, am i correct.  So the sum $$\sum_{k=2}^N\binom{n}{k}*\frac{1}{n^k}$$ (Without the first two sums) has to be >1. But thats where my problem is. I mean i already proved that Each of the sums is smaller than 1 but that doesnt prove anything, right? $>1+>1\neq >1$ if you know what i mean. The whole thing has to be proofed to be smaller than 1. How can i see that.  P.S: The answer is NOT that the above term wont get bigger as Eulers Number, as by definition.  I mean this statement is correct, but it would not solve the question. I really have to, and want, to show it on my own.   Any help is much apprechiated, been thinking about this for so many hours now.

How can I elegantly show that: $(1 + \frac{1}{k})^k \leq 3$ For instance I could use the fact that this is an increasing function and then take $\lim_{ k\to \infty}$ and say that it equals $e$ and therefore is always less than $3$   Is this sufficient? What is a better wording than "increasing function"


very new to python so sorry for the silly question I've created a user input interface fn=input()  #Where the user will input version32 for instance so effectively fn=Version32  I've then imported a template word document using docx, which has been heavily modified based upon user input. I then want the file name output to be saved as "fn" or in this case Version32 output.save(r"C:\Users\XXX\XXX\XXX\'fn'.docx")  Where fn is a variable? Is this even possible, or am I barking up the wrong tree? Kind Regards!!

I want to do something like String.Format("[{0}, {1}, {2}]", 1, 2, 3) which returns:  [1, 2, 3]   How do I do this in Python?


I want to ensure that only one instance of my WinForm application is running at a time. I use separate utility to run my application.   In that utility, I want to ensure that my app's EXE is not called by my utility if there is already a running instance of my app. To check if there is a already running instance or not, I have used Process.GetProcessesByName (in my utility) which is pretty much suggested by many people. It works in normal circumstances.   However, we found that if user keeps double clicking (too fast) on the utility (which starts an app), he ends up getting more than one instances (number of instances are not equal to number of double clicks). How can we handle this case?  I think, code which checks for the already running process executes by the time first instance is up & running and it's process details are available through Process.GetProcessesByName.   Note: Whether to allow multiple instances or not is dependent on the configuration in my utility.

Using C# and WPF under .NET (rather than  or console), what is the correct way to create an application that can only be run as a single instance?  I know it has something to do with some mythical thing called a mutex, rarely can I find someone that bothers to stop and explain what one of these are.  The code needs to also inform the already-running instance that the user tried to start a second one, and maybe also pass any command-line arguments if any existed.


How do you split a string into tokens in C++?

I'm trying to iterate over the words of a string.  The string can be assumed to be composed of words separated by whitespace.  Note that I'm not interested in C string functions or that kind of character manipulation/access. Also, please give precedence to elegance over efficiency in your answer.  The best solution I have right now is:  #include <iostream> #include <sstream> #include <string>  using namespace std;  int main() {     string s = "Somewhere down the road";     istringstream iss(s);      do     {         string subs;         iss >> subs;         cout << "Substring: " << subs << endl;     } while (iss); }   Is there a more elegant way to do this?


A lot of song lyrics include phrases where "do/don't" is used instead of "does/doesn't" with subjects in 3rd person singular.  We are taught that is incorrect grammar. But, given how widespread that practice is, is it really incorrect? Or is it just informal?  How do you feel about it if you're a native American or British speaker and you encounter such a phrase, please?   Thanks!

I'd like to know how the sentence "That don't impress me much" sounds to a native English speaker.  The phrase is the title of a song by Shania Twain, and to my eyes it contains a clear error. It is obviously intended, and I want to know what was the effect that the author wanted to obtain.  Other examples that come to mind:   “She's got a ticket to ride, but she don't care” — The Beatles “My love don't cost a thing” — Jennifer Lopez “It don't matter” — Akon “She don't care about me” — heard in the Lost series “It Don't Mean a Thing” — a jazz album title “The Sun Don't Lie” — another album title


If $1+2^n+4^n$ is prime number then prove that $n=3^k$ for some $k\in \mathbb{N}$.  I've looked at  for an inspiration. In base 2, $1+2^n+4^n=10\ldots010\ldots01$ and I am completely stuck.

If $n\in\mathbb N$ and $4^n+2^n+1$ is prime, prove that there exists an $m\in\mathbb N\cup\{0\}$ such that $n=3^m$.  I.e. if $4^n+2^n+1$ is prime, prove that $n=3^m$, where $m\in\mathbb N\cup\{0\}$.  I don't know how I could solve this, I don't have any ideas. I know that $4^n+2^n+1$ is obviously odd. Assume $m=0$, i.e. $n=1$. Then $3$ is prime. So that doesn't disprove what we're trying to show.  So assume $m>0$. Then $4^n+2^n+1>3$, so $4^n+2^n+1$ is either $3k+1$ or $3k+2$, where $k\in\mathbb N$. So either $4^n+2^n$ or $4^n+2^n-1$ is divisible by 3. I think it's not something that could help out at solving this. Just a little observation. I don't have any ideas.


I want to buy a PS4 from the USA for use in India, but I'm worried that if something goes wrong that I won't be covered by warranty.   Does Sony's manufacturer warranty cover for the complete product, i.e. is it an international warranty from Sony?  Furthermore, will a USA console work in India?

This question has been asked before, but it was for PS3 and Xbox 360 and was asked August 2010. This time around my question goes specifically to PS4, since I'm moving from Mexico to Europe and I was wondering if the European games will run in my console or if I'll have to buy a new one. I never thought of this before (which is why I never paid attention if it was mentioned in reports or specs of the console) and the research I did wasn't too helpful.


Is it best to have product sizes in a drop down box or as buttons, someone said to me buttons because it's one less click.  So examples of buttons would be on the product pages of this site - www.costumecrowd.co.uk (my site). I guess another question would be if buttons are indeed better maybe a label should be added near the element explaining what that the area is as S, M, L - doesn't exactly say.

I'm redesigning my filters and product page of an online apparel store. Do you think I should display all sizes and use radio button or using a drop down menu to select the size ?


The speed of light in a medium is often lower than in the vacuum but does the same apply for gravitational waves. Is the speed of gravity in all media the same as light in that medium?  This question  has already a answer but it is not clear what the cause is that GW are not slowing down. Compared with EM-waves, which are in contrary slowed down, the reason for that wasn't dipole density but 'Its just the electrons not moving "instantly" with the changing electric field.' But is it sure that there isn't any particle of a medium in case of GW which also doesn't move instantly with the change of GW?

I've heard that gravitational waves travel at the speed of light, and have some parallels to electromagnetic waves.  EM waves slow down as they pass through matter (speed of light in glass is slower than in vacuum, for instance).  Do gravitational waves also slow down as they pass through matter?  If so, are there any effects like  when matter passes through a medium at a speed greater than the velocity of gravity in that medium?  Do large masses like stars or Jupiter act as ball lenses for gravitational waves?


During the daytimes I visit StackOverflow, I often have the feeling that the gross of the questions is unseen, unvoted on or downvoted.  I see a lot of low-quality-, no-reasearch-kind of questions.  It feels like popular question only come up rarely, and that StackExchange box on the right only seldomly shows StackOverflow questions.  Does StackOverflow converge towards the state of "Done"?    Aside: Was that the business reason why new languages are explored now?    I was writing up my own theory as an answer, but then the question got closed:  Here is my new theory:  StackOverflow is on a decline. During european daytimes at least, a lot of questions are closed (because of quality, duplication or lack of research). That decline roots in that the big questions of the past years are answered now.  A majority of good question is now very specialist, with minor audiences.  However. Technology and reasearch advance faster and faster. Even though the not-so-good or specialist questions now hide the big questions by their sheer number, sooner or later the number of new and pristine questions will exponentially rise.   We will be travelling towards the technological singularity.

I think everybody with a history of participation can't help but notice the explosive growth of repeated duplicate questions. The work of looking for duplicates and then closing questions has overtaken the work of actually answering questions.  It's become virtually impossible to ask something which hasn't been yet asked. Lately I feel boredom each time I see a new question and start answering it only to realize after the first written sentence that I have answered similar questions five times over or seen them answered some ten times or more. I know where it's going to be going and what answers with what votes it is going to receive before any answer is even written.  It's obviously not the administration's fault, it is simply so. The questions is, what to do about it? Engaging more moderators to close and close duplicates won't work because it's already starting to repel users who get mad at their questions closed and become afraid of asking more or perhaps just go away.  The original idea of Jeff stated the the site is for questions that can be answered. Meaning no open-ended discussions. When I first read this I had a casual thought - well, and what's gonna happen when they all are asked and answered? Will it become a museum, a monument of wisdom and knowledge or what?  I'm not sure what to do about it. Perhaps deprecation/versioning of older questions so that their new versions can sparkle the tiresome evening...  POSTSCRIPTUM.  I recall Star Trek Voyager episode  when another Q asked Captain Janeway for asylum. He was tired of immortality and wanted to die. They opened a hearing and went on to visit the continuum to evaluate the living conditions there which caused the suffering and the wish to escape it in death. A lifeless picture presented itself to the visitors... a house lone in an open space, two people going about their business, nobody talking. When asked why they were silent, the following was said. It's been so long, all has already been said, all stories told, all jokes are made... there is nothing left to do...  Are we there as well?  UPDATE: Just saw this answer in another question:       Also, some of the core questions got asked early on in the life of the site. Great questions still come around from time to time, but many have already been asked.   Doesn't that confirm my point?


I'm using BoUML 7.10, the latest version, on Windows 10 Professional at work.  By default, it installs to C:\Program Files (x86)\BoUML (or something very similar). When a new project is created, it creates a subdirectory in that directory.  Somehow, it creates the directory in a way that Windows CAN'T SEE IT.  Trying to change the standard H(idden) and S(ystem) attribute flags on the listing of the containing directory doesn't work.  NONE of the Windows command line tools see the subdirectory, or the files in it, making it impossible to delete the files if necessary - and I managed to make a mess that created a "lock" file, that must be manually deleted. The GNU "find" utility, ported to Windows, does see the invisible subdirectory and all the files.  The -name and -name0 options to find work.  The -ld option doesn't; apparently, there is something different in the way directory entries are structured.  I haven't tried the -delete option yet. I ran a full chkdsk.  It reported that nothing was wrong.  I tried uninstalling and reinstalling BoUML, deleting the directory in between steps.  After reinstalling it, the invisible project directory was still there, and so was the lock file. Have any of you ever run into anything like this?  Any ideas?  Any suggestions on how to proceed, that DON'T involve nuking the computer from orbit?  There USED to be specialized DOS utilities for working on corrupted directories, but that was a long time ago and I don't know whether anything like exists for Windows. UPDATE: I did some more experimenting early this morning.  (Insomnia is a terrible thing.)  First, I confirmed that it is Windows 10 Professional.  (It is a somewhat-old build of Windows 10: our IT guys are conservative about loading updates.) GNU find sees the cloaked directory ONLY if it is running from inside a GNU Emacs shell, which apparently uses a seven-year-old version of cmdproxy.exe to feed commands to Windows.  It doesn't see it from a straight-up cmd.exe desktop shell, or from Windows Power Shell, whether run as Administrator or as a normal user.  BoUML sees it when run as a normal user. I have a ticket open with our IT guys.  It will be interesting to see what happens.  Absolute worst case is I go buy a USB hard drive, we take a mega-backup, and then we nuke the whole PC from orbit and rebuild. UPDATE AGAIN I just saw this question.  This MIGHT have something to do with it, or MIGHT offer a clue.  I just don't know.

I'm using  to backup my mailboxes. The process just dumps the contents of your mailbox into .eml files on your disk. Anyway, the first mailbox I backed up shows up as I expect. However, the next one doesn't show in Explorer and, if I enter it in the address bar, it tells me that it doesn't exist.  However, IMAPSize is insisting that the files are there. (A lot of disk writing was being performed during the operation.) Moreover, the directory does appear in the Windows directory dialog and - as I have GNU tools installed - it shows in ls (but not in the native dir). I can't cd into the directory, but ls does seem to be able to access it (and, indeed, the directories and files I expect appear to be there).    Also note that the timestamp and filesize of backup.db are different in the dir and ls -l output.  In short: What is going on here and how do I fix it!?


In D&D 5e, can a monk/druid use the monk ability Flurry of Blows in wild shape?

Can a Druid/Monk who is Wild Shaped perform Unarmed Strikes?


I have blog website and has hundreds of blog items and blog can be accessed via different URL, it is mentioned that duplicate contents on website affects google ranking, defining single url as canonical url in code can solve this problem or we should about such scenario.  in below mentioned example you can see that i can access same blog via 3 different url,   Example URL   www.example.com/blog/11/title-of-blog www.example.com/blog/2018/11/title-of-blog www.example.com/archive/year/11/title-of-blog   Based on above example its same blog accessible from three different url,    How will it affect my google ranking   And defining first url as canonical in code will solve this problem or we should avoid using multiple url for same page all together   What is the best practice that we should follow if we have multiple url for same page

This is a general, community wiki question regarding duplicate content.  If your question was closed as a duplicate of this question and you feel that the information provided here does not provide a sufficient answer, please open a discussion on .     What does Google consider to be duplicate content? Will the way I am presenting my content result in a duplicate content penalty? How can I avoid having my site's content treated as duplicate content?


If I want to delete everything in the current directory except for "myfile", I can use  rm -r !("myfile")   But if I put this in a script (called cleanup):  #!/bin/bash rm -r !("myfile")   I get:  pi@raspberrypi:~/tmp $ ./cleanup ./cleanup: line 2: syntax error near unexpected token `(' ./cleanup: line 2: `rm -r !("file2")'   If I run   ps -p $$   I can see that my terminal is using bash,   PID TTY          TIME CMD 1345 pts/3    00:00:02 bash   so I'm unclear on what the problem is.    Notes:   I realize that if the script actually worked, it would delete itself. So, my script really would be something more like: rm -r !("cleanup"|"myfile"), but the error message is the same either way.  As shown by the blockquote, this is on a Raspbian OS (9 - stretch), which is Debian based. I feel like this question is bound to be a duplicate, but I can't find it. There is a similarly named , but it is in regards to inheriting variables, and so doesn't address my issue.

I'm not well versed in shell scripting but I imagine this to be a painfully easy fix but its eluding me.  I need to copy the contents of a directory excluding a number of files. I have a command that works when I enter it into the terminal, but when its run in a shell script it fails with a syntax error or just doesn't work.   The command in question is:  cp -r path/to/!(dir1|dir2|dir3) destination   Any help would be greatly appreciated!


in the 4 pictures in the last answer, is the vertical axe the probability? I.e. it seems to me that it is somewhat unnormalized : it has the value 2 in the 2nd picture and 3 in the 3rd picture. In the l.h.s. of each picture they write that this vertical axe really should be a probability. So why it is not in the range $[0,1]$? Also, they write      Note that as soon as you see your first Tail after the 3rd flip, the prior probability of p is now 0 at p=1 - ie there is SOME probability of seeing Tail.   So the value at each point should be in the range $[0,1]$, but it is not!

On the , there is this line:      $p(\mathrm{height}|\mathrm{male}) = 1.5789$ (A probability distribution over 1 is OK. It is the area under the bell curve that is equal to 1.)    How can a value $>1$ be OK? I thought all probability values were expressed in the range $0 \leq p \leq 1$. Furthermore, given that it is possible to have such a value, how is that value obtained in the example shown on the page?


I am not a statistician, and just try to understand a concept. According to Wikipedia,      A random variable is defined as a function that maps outcomes to   numerical quantities (labels), typically real numbers. In this sense,   it is a procedure for assigning a numerical quantity to each physical   outcome, and, contrary to its name, this procedure itself is neither   random nor variable. What is random is the unstable physics that   describes how the coin lands, and the uncertainty of which outcome   will actually be observed.   My understanding is,     The domain of a random variable is the set of possible   outcomes, and the range of a random variable is whatever we   set it to be. For instance, if $\mathcal{X}$ was a random variable   for the coin tossing random process, both of the followings would   still be proper to define: $$\mathcal{X}: > \{\text{head,tail}\}\rightarrow \{0,1\}\ \ \ \text{OR} \ \ \ > \mathcal{X}: \{\text{head,tail}\}\rightarrow \{102,321312\}.$$ Random   variables are the starting block for doing computations. That's all   they do!   Is this correct?   Now, I am trying to understand the following statement from  paper:     Suppose we are given a positive function $f : \{1 ... m\} \rightarrow > R^+$, which describes the unnormalized mass of a discrete random   variable $I$,      $P(I\in B) = \sum_{i\in B}\frac{f(i)}{\sum_j^m f(j)}, \text{ where } > B\subset\{1...m\}$   My immediate reaction when I hear the term function is to assume an infinite vector. In this case the $f$ vector length is bounded by $m$, and it encodes in each cell of the vector a positive real number. This can be considered as an unnormalized probability vector of a discrete random variable $I$, whose domain is $\{1 ... m\}$, and board is $R^+$. So far, this is fine.   Now, what I don't understand is the notation in the $P(I\in B)$. What does it mean? How can a function $I$ be a member of set of integers from $\{1 ... m\}$? From what I understand $I$ is not a single value, but is a function. It seems the designed interpretation is that we assume a particular input of $I$, which means $P(I\in B)$ implicitly means $P(I(i\in{B}))$, which then can be rewritten as $\sum_{i\in B}P(I(i))$. Now, since we assumed $f$ to be the unnormalized probability vector representing $I$, we can use it to compute the probability of each of the $i$ assignments by just normalizing it $$\sum_{i\in B}P(I(i))=\sum_{i\in B}\frac{f(i)}{\sum_{j\in B}f(j)}.$$   So, subject to some refinements, I can understand the notation $P(I\in B)$, but I am not sure if what I described is accurate.

What do they mean when they say "random variable"?


I was thinking about adjacency matrices, when I realised that an adjacency matrix is nilpotent if and only if there is no cycle in the graph.  So, I started wondering: if a graph has an adjacency matrix that is invertible, what does it mean for the graph?  I usually define a graph the following way (but if the is some proprieties with another definition, I'm also interested): a graph $G=(V,E)$ is couple of set where $V = [\![1;n]\!]$ and $E \subset \{ (i,j) \in V^2, i\neq j$}. The adjacency matrix $M=(M_{ij})$ is defined such as $M_{ij} = 1$ if $(i,j) \in V$, $0$ otherwise.  Here I'm talking about undirected graphs.

Which are the sufficient and necessary conditions for an undirected graph with no self edges (i.e. no loop of length $1$) to have an invertible adjacency matrix?  In this case, the adjacency matrix is symmetric (i.e. $A = A^\top$). Moreover, all the diagonal elements are $0$ and there is a $1$ in both the entries $(i,j)$ and $(j,i)$, with $i\neq j$, if and only if vertices $i$ and $j$ are connected.   A first necessary condition is the following: all vertices must have at least one connection, otherwise the relative row of $A$ is null. But what else?


I just encountered a strange problem in a simple for loop. I get an ArgumentOutOfRangeException when I try to access input_list[i]. input_list is a list of some objects and has two members. But i equals 2 when the exception is thrown.  var count = input_list.Count; var taskList = new Thread[count]; for (int i = 0; i < count; i++) {     taskList[i] = new Thread(() => SomeFunction(input_list[i]);     taskList[i].Start(); }   In the second version, I only introduced a local variable k that is used as an index for the input_list:  var count = input_list.Count; var taskList = new Thread[count]; for (int i = 0; i < count; i++) {     int k = i;     taskList[i] = new Thread(() => SomeFunction(input_list[k]);     taskList[i].Start(); }   This second version doesn't throw an exception.  So, how can i be 2 in this example? And why doesn't k become 2 in the same way?  I'm using version 4.6 of the .NET Framework and Visual Studio 2015.

I met an interesting issue about C#. I have code like below.  List<Func<int>> actions = new List<Func<int>>();  int variable = 0; while (variable < 5) {     actions.Add(() => variable * 2);     ++ variable; }  foreach (var act in actions) {     Console.WriteLine(act.Invoke()); }   I expect it to output 0, 2, 4, 6, 8. However, it actually outputs five 10s.  It seems that it is due to all actions referring to one captured variable. As a result, when they get invoked, they all have same output.  Is there a way to work round this limit to have each action instance have its own captured variable?


I am having trouble with writing case $1 in a bash file. I tried with    cat <<EOT > /etc/init.d/startup.sh #!/bin/bash  PATH=/sbin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/usr/bin  case "$1" in     start)         bash /root/install.sh >> /root/installation_log.txt 2>&1         ;;     stop|restart|reload)         ;; esac EOT   But the problem is it writes everything to startup.sh but $1. Line     case "$1" in     become   case "" in    after the operation. What to do?

How can I echo "$" in a here-doc in bash?  For example, I want to have a file with the content on remote server like $ABC=home_dir.  $ ssh hostname sudo -s <<EOF echo "$ABC=home_dir" > file EOF   But it would be treated as a variable. How can I print a literal $?


I found the following problem in the book Understanding Probability:  An ordinary deck of 52 cards is thoroughly shuffled. The dealer turns over the cards one at a time, counting as he goes ``ace, two, three, $\ldots$ , king, ace, two, $\ldots$," and so on, so that the dealer ends up calling out the thirteen ranks four times each. A match occurs if the card that comes up matches the rank called out by the dealer as he turns it over.   The author states that the inclusion-exclusion rule can be used to find  the value 0.9838 for the probability of at least one match.  I could not reproduce this result.   As pointed by Joriki, a derivation of this result is given in    This quite complicated derivation is based on an integral representation involving  a Laguerre polynomial of degree four.  However, for the specific example, you would expect that a a direct application of the inclusion-exclusion formula  must be possible.

I have a very simple problem.  Lets assume that I have a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. I start drawing the top card always and when the card matches its rank I lose. J=11 Q=12 K=13.  If there were only 13 cards I could easily use the $\ \frac{!n}{n!}$ for derangements in order to solve this. The problem is that there are 52 cards so when I pass 13 I start from 1 again so I don't know what is the probability to win. Example of the game     1st card: 4 - Continue   2nd Card: A - continue   3rd Card: K - Continue   4th Card: K - Continue   5th Card: 6 - Continue   6th Card: 9 - Continue   7th Card: 10 - Continue   8th Card: A - Continue   9th Card: J - Continue   10th Card: 3 - Continue   11th Card: 2 - Continue   12th Card: 8 - Continue   13th Card: A - Continue   1st card: 5 - Continue   2nd Card 2 LOSE   So actually I have to count from 1 to 13 4 times and if I draw all 52 cards then I win. What's the probability?


Consider the following MWE1:  \documentclass{article} \newcommand*{\myOwnCommand}{\c{C}engel} \begin{document} This is my surname: \myOwnCommand. \end{document}   MWE1 works just fine. The cedilla is produced under C.  Now, consider the following MWE2.  \documentclass{article} \xdef\myOwnCommand{\c{C}engel} \begin{document} This is my surname: \myOwnCommand. \end{document}   This time, I have defined \myOwnCommand globally using the TEX primitive \xdef, and I wanted \myOwnCommand also to be expanded at once. I'm going to use it inside loops like \DTLforeach in the datatool package.  When I compile MWE2, I get the following error:  ! Illegal parameter number in definition of \myOwnCommand. <to be read again>                     \crcr  l.15 \xdef\myOwnCommand{\c{C}                              engel} ?    I ask myself where my error is.

Is it somehow possible to have utf8 characters (e.g. german umlauts) inside \edef ? The following example document behaves fine if the umlaut is given directly as argument like \convertTest{Müller}. The resulting output is "Mueller" after conversion. If "Müller" is given via a \edef like in \convertTest{\authorname}, the resulting output is not as expected ("M.ller"), although the message on \newcommand entry (before convert) is the same.   \documentclass{article}  \usepackage[ngerman]{babel}   \usepackage[utf8]{inputenc}   \usepackage[T1]{fontenc}   \usepackage{stringstrings}   \newcommand{\convertTest}[1]{   \message {before convert: #1}   \convertword[q]{#1}{}{ue}   \message {after convert: \thestring}   \thestring \  }  \begin{document}   \convertTest{Müller}   \edef\authorname{Müller} \convertTest{\authorname}   \end{document}


As a beginner in unit testing. Every example i observe that test method compare the output with expected value   Assert(expected,actual);   I am not able to understand if method do not have any return type then i can't test in unit testing those method. Means if i have to write unit test then we have a mandatory to write such a method which have a return type other than void.

What is the best way to unit test a method that doesn't return anything? Specifically in c#.  What I am really trying to test is a method that takes a log file and parses it for specific strings. The strings are then inserted into a database. Nothing that hasn't been done before but being VERY new to TDD I am wondering if it is possible to test this or is it something that doesn't really get tested.


Is it correct to say "Forbes' building was sold to NYU" or "Forbes's building was sold to NYU" ? Or perhaps both are correct?

What is the possessive of a noun ending in ‑s?  Are these both right, or is the second one wrong?   the boys' books the boss' car


If users could read items which they engaged when even they are offline, it would be a very useful experience. Suppose there is a user with limited time internet connectivity, so he can sync his stack exchange stuff to his phone while he is in the internet connection. Then he would be able to read them. After he wrote an answer it should be saved in his phone. Then once he connected to internet that answer should be published automatically.

It's not a given that we're always connected to the internet, so why not include some offline features in the Stack Exchange App?  Something similar to Gmail app like    Currently the favorite questions are missing in the Android App.  Once they are back, can we have access to favorites in offline mode?  Once  connected to the internet again they could be synced to your device for the latest updates.  I tried to make a sample screen:    This image uses fake data


The universe is expanding in the 3 spatial dimensions, could it not also be expanding in time dimension. In other words, are we stuck in 3 dimensions because we are riding the "bow wave" of the big bang in the time dimension, stuck on a 3d plane perpendicular to our world lines in spacetime? Think of a 3d-printer, are we on the upper surface of the printed object with new time being added continuously.  Would this mean that the quantum foam is the moment when the universe comes into existence, that the collapse of wave functions is when probability becomes reality? In that way there would be no need for the many worlds interpretation of quantum physics. Ahead of now is "outside" the universe i.e. there is nothing so the extra quantum states never "existed" in any sense, they were only ever mathematical probabilities. The act of observation is simply being in the now and that's why quantum systems are different depending on where you measure them - it's a different locus of the 3 spatial dimensions and "now".  Update  I don't believe that this is a duplicate question. After some discussion elsewhere it turns out that what I am describing is the Evolving Block Universe. It is well (and more formally) described by South African cosmologist George Ellis in this paper:    There is also a YouTube presentation, recorded in 2012, here:

Einstein's big revelation was that time and space are inseparable components of the same fabric. Physical observation tells us that distant galaxies are moving away from us at an accelerated rate, and because of the difficulty (impossibility?) of defining a coordinate system where things have well defined coordinates while also moving away from each other without changing the metric on the space, we interpret this to mean that space itself is expanding.   Because space and time are so directly intertwined is it possible that time too is expanding? Or perhaps it could be contracting?


How to get MD 5 Hash value for only few specified files out of a folder using Command Prompt

As mentioned in , the command:CertUtil -hashfile yourFileName MD5can be used to obtain the MD5 hash value for a particular file.  How can I find the MD5 hash values for multiple files in a folder using cmd?


I'm using the android official app, and sine I have updated it two hours ago, the markdown of the questions/answers is not properly renderized (Well doesn't tenderize at all).

Update: This is fixed on version 1.0.43 as per the accepted answer below.  Already saw ,  and . They are old and seem to be about previous versions.  I just updated to the version 1.0.41 of the Android app that brings the new feature - Achievements. Sadly, I think the stress of World Cup has made you guys not do a good job with it. It's buggy.  When I open my Achievements panel and tap on any post, I get this:    After I get this, it persists throughout the rest of the app. For example, if I go to the feed and open another question, I get this too.  Detailed reproduction steps are available in AD7six's answer.  My Device: Samsung Galaxy SIII LTE GT-I9305 Android: Stock ROM 4.3 Jelly Bean  Other Devices: - Device model, Android version, Reported by - HTC Desire, 4.2.2, xd6_ - Huawei Ascend, 4.2, Manu343726 - LG Optimus F3, 4.1.2, Rocket Hazmat - LG Optimus G, 4.3, Canadian Luke - Samsung Galaxy Nexus (Sprint), 4.3, Chrono Kitsune - Samsung Galaxy Note II, 4.3, Katja Christiansen - Samsung Galaxy SII GT-I9100, 4.1.2, AD7six - Sharp SH837W, 4.1.2, timrau - Sony Xperia SP, 4.3, pepoluan - Sony Xperia Z1, 4.3, user2313067 - Unknown, 4.2.1, Deer Hunter


Consider the following mysql query: SELECT a.*, b.* FROM a INNER JOIN b ON b.id = a.b_id. These two tables have identicaly named columns (id for example). I was under the assumption, that if I run this query with php, I will be able to access the fields from each returned row of the query the following way:   $sql = "SELECT a.*, b.* FROM a INNER JOIN b ON b.id = a.b_id";  $result = mysqli_query($connection, $sql);  $row = mysqli_fetch_assoc($result));  print_r($row);   My expected outcome from a similar script would need to be an array along the following lines:     array(         'a.id'        => ...,          'b.id'        => ...,          'a.b_id'  => ...      )   Instead, what I get is something like this:     array(         'id'        => ...,          'b_id'  => ...      )   If I run the same query in mysql, I get the results from both tables in the result set (so columns with overlaping names aren't retrieved only once). Is there any way to simulate the same thing with php, and still maintain using wildcard in the query?  I am well aware of why wildcard should not be used in queries, but taking into account, that I will need to use ALL columns from these two tables in my script, and we are talking about a bunch of columns, I would prefer to use it this way.

I have two tables in my database:  NEWS table with columns:   id - the news id  user - the user id of the author)   USERS table with columns:   id - the user id   I want to execute this SQL:   SELECT * FROM news JOIN users ON news.user = user.id    When I get the results in PHP I would like to get associative array and get column names by $row['column-name']. How do I get the news ID and the user ID, having the same column name?


I am trying to save a file line by line as a string array, but I am a beginner and confused.  package com.java24hours;  import java.io.*;  public class ShorteningVelocity {     public static void main(String[] arguments) throws IOException {          FileReader SVfile = new FileReader(new File("C:\\Documents\\10-27-15110mMKPSS3.dat"));         BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(SVfile);         String temp = br.readLine();         while (temp != null) {             temp = br.readLine(); //reads file line by line              System.out.println();         }     } }

I have a file (called "number.txt") which I want to read to an array in Java. How exactly do I go ahead and do this? It is a straight-forward "1-dimensional" file, containing 100 numbers.  The problem is that I get an exception every time. Apparently it can't find it (I am sure its spelled correctly). When looking through code examples, it doesn't specify the file's entire file path, only the name of the file itself. How would I go about doing that if its necessary?  Also, when reading the file, will the array automatically contain all the lines of the file, or will I have to make a loop which which copies every line to corresponding subscript i?  I've heard of BufferedReader class, what it's purpose, and how does it corelate to reading input?


Is expired instant dry yeast dangerous to eat in breads,cakes etc.? Is it safe to eat? I have 2-1 lb. pkgs. unopened has 10/30/2010 on it,doesn't say best if or sell by, just has date. Does anyone know if it is harmful to eat? Thanks!

I was cleaning out my spice cabinet and deep in the back I found two packages (e.g., six envelopes) of active dry Red Star yeast that expired in March 2009, 15 months ago as of writing this question.  With the thought that dry yeast is basically freeze-dried and should have a decent shelf life, I proofed one envelope in warm water with some sugar to see if it really "expires". It foamed right up, so it seems like the answer is, at least for one year after the marked date, no.  Although in this case, does "expired" really mean "less effective" or "will taste funny"?


This might be a conceptually stupid question, but it also might not and since I am still a student I think I should I have no problem asking.  Imagine you have a method that if given certain conditions it will throw an NumberFormatException. I want to write a Unit Test to see if the exception is being correctly thorwn. How can I achieve this?  P.S. I am using JUnit to write the Unit Tests.  Thanks.

How can I use JUnit4 idiomatically to test that some code throws an exception?  While I can certainly do something like this:  @Test public void testFooThrowsIndexOutOfBoundsException() {   boolean thrown = false;    try {     foo.doStuff();   } catch (IndexOutOfBoundsException e) {     thrown = true;   }    assertTrue(thrown); }   I recall that there is an annotation or an Assert.xyz or something that is far less kludgy and far more in-the-spirit of JUnit for these sorts of situations.


I want to cut a hole out of an image.  When using Corel Draw I want to be able to draw some lines on the image to make a shape, select the inner part of the shape and delete it from the image leaving me with a hole in the image.   I am much more familiar with Flash where I just import an image, break it apart, draw a shape on it and delete the contents of the shape thereby creating a hole in the image.

On a whim, I decided to try to recreate a high resolution Paint Shop Pro 8 logo icon.   The icon is a red painter's palette with a paint prush and the text "PSP 8".  I traced the outline of the palette, traced the paint brush handle, bristle clamp, and bristles, and typed the text all on different layers.  My difficulty comes in that the palette has a hole cut in the middle of it for the artist's thumb to grip. I've traced a vector path for the hole, but I don't know how to make the center of the hole (which I've specified should have no fill) be empty space in the middle of the outer outline of the palette.  I'm sure that this will be better illustrated by images than by my words, so here you are:    Now, it would be the easiest thing in the world to convert the palette and the hole to raster layers, select the outline of the hole, highlight the palette layer and delete those pixels, but I want to get better at using vector drawing tools and being able to cut a hole out of the interior seems like a pretty basic skill to have.


Will votes on my answers/questions cast while I'm suspended still increase my reputation after the suspension ends?

My account has been , besides the following restrictions:  an account will be locked at 1 reputation the user page will have a visual indication that the account is in timed suspension, and for how long the account holder will be unable to vote, ask, answer or comment  What else does timed suspension prevent me doing? For example, can I still edit my own posts or delete content? And what is a network-wide suspension?


I have the following javascript   var filtered = [];  $('#footballCheck').on('change', function() {   if ($('#footballCheck').is(':checked')) {     for (var i = 0; i < fa_names.length; i++) {       if (fa_names[i]["facility_activity"].toLowerCase().indexOf("football") >= 0) {         filtered.push(fa_names[i]);       }     }      filtered.sort(SortByName);     $('#mCSB_1_container').empty(".facility-name");     for (var k = 0; k < filtered.length; k++) {       $('#mCSB_1_container').append('
\                                              <button class="btn btn-default btn-fill btn-menu" date-name="' + filtered[k]["facility_name"] + '">' + filtered[k]["facility_name"] + '</button>
');       $('#facilities-body').mCustomScrollbar("update");     }   } else {     for (var j = 0; j < filtered.length; j++) {       if (filtered[j]["facility_activity"].toLowerCase().indexOf("football") >= 0) {         delete filtered[j];       }     }     console.log(filtered);     console.log(filtered.length);     if (filtered.length > 0) {       filtered.sort(SortByName);       $('#mCSB_1_container').empty(".facility-name");       for (var k = 0; k < filtered.length; k++) {         $('#mCSB_1_container').append('
\                                                  <button class="btn btn-default btn-fill btn-menu" date-name="' + filtered[k]["facility_name"] + '">' + filtered[k]["facility_name"] + '</button>
');         $('#facilities-body').mCustomScrollbar("update");       }     } else {       $('#mCSB_1_container').empty(".facility-name");       for (k = 0; k < fa_names.length; k++) {         $('#mCSB_1_container').append('
\                                                  <button class="btn btn-default btn-fill btn-menu" date-name="' + fa_names[k]["facility_name"] + '">' + fa_names[k]["facility_name"] + '</button>
');         $('#facilities-body').mCustomScrollbar("update");       }     }   } });   that should do the following:   If the checkbox is checked, go through another array and push all objects whose key value "facility_activity" contains "football" to the filtered array If it is unchecked, then remove all objects from filtered array whose key value "facility_activity" contains "football" If it is unchecked and its length is > 0 (meaning that there are still filtered objects) print those If it is unchecked and the filtered array is empty, then append all items from the parent array (the one that is not filtered)   Here is the .  Background: The checkboxes act as filters for a search and the filtered array stores those filtered values (in no other place other than what is in that fiddle the filtered array is changed yet).  My problem is that console.log(filtered) returns [] and console.log(filtered.length) does NOT return 0 and it should. Why does this happen and how can I fix it?

What is the difference between using  on the array element as opposed to using ?   For example:  myArray = ['a', 'b', 'c', 'd'];  delete myArray[1]; //  or myArray.splice (1, 1);   Why even have the splice method if I can delete array elements like I can with objects?


I am new to this stack exchange, I primarily post on MSE. I know instead of usual parenthesis there is a syntax for displaying the parenthesis around permutation elements, i.e., $(2 3)$ or $(1 3 2)$ but there is one specific for these elements that spaces the numbers perfectly, does anyone know it by chance? I tried Detexify already. Also as a noob to this SE, please let me know If there is anything I said or did wrong on my first post please. I know MSE has some strict unwritten rules.

I split the question into two parts and included some answers.  1. Alternatives to the permute-package  The permute-package is very old (version 0.2, 1999) and can lead to .  Is there an up-to-date package (or possibility) that generates similarly appealing results with the same ease?  Consider the following small working example, which demonstrates just a few possibilies of permute:  \documentclass{article} \usepackage{permute} \begin{document}  That's what I want to have:  % $\pmt{(123)(45)}$ without star: no spacing between numbers  % $\pmt*{(123)(45)}$ with star: no difference (see note)  \renewcommand*\pmtseparator{\;} % thickspace, but see note below  % $\pmt{(123)(45)}$ without star: no spacing between numbers  $\pmt*{(123)(45)}$ with star: spaces between numbers  I do \emph{not} want to write something horrific like $\begin{array}{llllll}(1&2&3)(4&5)\end{array}$.  Of course I could write $(123)(45)$ or $(1,2,3)(4,5)$,  but I would like to have an apperance different from that of tuples, and numbers greater than 10 rule out the first possibility anyway. \end{document}   Notes:   Concerning \pmtseparator. The separator is included if the *-variant of \pmt is used. It is predefined as a space  . Hence, it only appears in text mode. Redefining it to \ , as the manual suggests, makes the space visible both in text and math mode. If you use \pmt only in math mode, it is better, as Philippe Goutet pointed out, to use \, for a thinspace or \; for a thickspace. (.) Verbose permutations can be created with \pmtv.   Solutions so far:   There seems to be no alternative, but the package permute works. Alternatively, if you do not insist on a special appearance, you use one of the two possibilities from the last paragraph.   (However, the permute-package has some limitations concerning the order of multiplication and the use of numbers greater than 9, but this could be discussed later and in another question.)  2. Typesetting permutations with LaTeX  Or what do typographers or other authors say about (1 2 3)(4 5) vs. (1,2,3)(4,5) vs. (123)(45)?


Let $E$ be a measurable set with $m(E)< \infty$.Then   $L^{\infty}\subset L^p(E)$ for each $p$ with $1\le p\lt  \infty$.Furthermore,if $f\in L^{\infty}$,then $$\|f\|_{  \infty}=\lim_{p\to \infty}\|f\|_{ p}$$   .  Proof:Let $f\in L^{\infty}(E)$ and $\mu=\|f\|_{\infty}$   $\implies \vert f(x)\vert^p \le \mu^p$ a.e. on $E$  $\implies \int_E \vert f(x)\vert^p \ dx \le \mu^p.m(E) \lt \infty$ a.e. on $E$  $\implies f\in L^p(E)$  $\implies L^{\infty}(E)\subset \ L^p(E)$.  How to show if $f\in L^{\infty}$,then $\|f\|_{ \infty}=\lim_{p\to \infty}\|f\|_{ p}$?  I've tried hard to prove this. My professor suggested  me to use the concept of limit superior,but i'm failing to make that idea practical.I know it is easy as it is consequence of above result but i'm lacking somewhere.So it will be heplful to give the detailed explanation of proof.  Thank you!  This is Davide Giraudo's answer for   Fix $\delta>0$ and let $S_\delta:=\{x,|f(x)|\geqslant \lVert f\rVert_\infty-\delta\}$ for $\delta<\lVert f\rVert_\infty$. We have  $$\lVert f\rVert_p\geqslant \left(\int_{S_\delta}(\lVert f\rVert_\infty-\delta)^pd\mu\right)^{1/p}=(\lVert f\rVert_\infty-\delta)\mu(S_\delta)^{1/p},$$ since $\mu(S_\delta)$ is finite and positive.   This gives  $$\liminf_{p\to +\infty}\lVert f\rVert_p\geqslant\lVert f\rVert_\infty.$$ As $|f(x)|\leqslant\lVert f\rVert_\infty$ for almost every $x$, we have for $p>q$, $$ \lVert f\rVert_p\leqslant\left(\int_X|f(x)|^{p-q}|f(x)|^qd\mu\right)^{1/p}\leqslant \lVert f\rVert_\infty^{\frac{p-q}p}\lVert f\rVert_q^{q/p},$$ giving the reverse inequality.  My question is how $\left(\int_X|f(x)|^{p-q}|f(x)|^qd\mu\right)^{1/p}\leqslant \lVert f\rVert_\infty^{\frac{p-q}p}\lVert f\rVert_q^{q/p}$ happened?

Could someone help me prove that given a finite measure space $(X, \mathcal{M}, \sigma)$ and a measurable function $f:X\to\mathbb{R}$ in $L^\infty$ and some $L^q$, $\displaystyle\lim_{p\to\infty}\|f\|_p=\|f\|_\infty$?    I don't know where to start.


So now and then I stumble upon an older question which is essentially a duplicate of a yet older and/or more popular/canonical question. Today's example is  which is the nth duplicate of .   However, I can't vote for close because of a close vote I've already cast five years ago.     You voted to close this question Aug 28 '11 at 13:26   Based on those related meta questions  and  they should have aged away long ago.  This is not the first time I'm seeing this. It seems that aging of close votes doesn't work very well for "very old" questions. At least, I don't remember seeing above message on a question posted after about 2012.

In March 2015,  was made to the close voting system, to allow users to recast close votes and close flags 14 days after they age away.  However, according to , apparently votes that were cast before the change was made cannot be recast. The user in question was trying to recast a vote in 2016, but was prevented because they cast a now-aged vote back in 2011.  Why is this the case? Is this intentional, or is it a bug?


Over the reals, I know this is true: $$(x^r)^s=(x^s)^r$$ for $x>0$ and $r,s\in\mathbb{Q}$.  Does the same equation hold over $\mathbb{C}$? I.e., $$(z^r)^s=(z^s)^r,$$ for $z\in\mathbb{C}-\{0\}$ and $r,s\in\mathbb{Q}$?

Regarding ,  it is not possible to combine complex powers in the usual way:  $$ (x^y)^z = x^{yz} $$  There was mention of multi-valued functions, is there some theory that makes this all work out correctly?


Suppose the collection $\{A_1, A_2,... A_k\}$ forms a group under matrix multiplication, where each $A_i$ is an $n×n$ real matrix. Let $A=\sum_{i=1}^kA_i$.  Show that $A^2=kA$ If the trace of $A$ is zero, then show that $A$ is the zero matrix  My try: Since $G=\{A_1, A_2,... A_k\}$ forms a group under matrix multiplication, there exists $A_p=I$ for some $ p\in \{1,2,...k\}$. WLOG let $A_1=I$. Also being group, for each $A_i \in G$ there exist $A_j \in G$ for some $j\in\{1, 2,...,k\}$ I cannot proceed further how to solve this problem. Please help me. Thank you in advance

Let  $G=\{M_1,M_2,...,M_k\}$ be a finite set such that $ M_i\in M_n(\mathbb R)$ and $(G,\;\cdot\:)$ is a group with matrix multiplication. If $\sum _{i=1}^k \operatorname{tr} (M_i)=0$ then how to prove $\sum _{i=1}^k M_i=0$ ?


I have a boundary layer for an area, the layer properties are:  top: 4431527.680136 m bottom: 4431199.984995 m left: 569103.516495 m right: 569438.079758 m  Projected Coordinate System:    NAD_1983_UTM_Zone_15N Projection: Transverse_Mercator False_Easting:  500000.00000000 False_Northing: 0.00000000 Central_Meridian:   -93.00000000 Scale_Factor:   0.99960000 Latitude_Of_Origin: 0.00000000 Linear Unit:    Meter  Geographic Coordinate System:   GCS_North_American_1983 Datum:  D_North_American_1983 Prime Meridian:     Greenwich Angular Unit:   Degree   Now, I have a new line shapefile (that I received from someone else) that is supposed to overlay on top of my layer but it did not. The new shapefile did not have any coordinate system. I defined it with the GCS North American 1983. I tried projecting it to NAD_1983_UTM_Zone_15N but it does not work. Here are the layer properties for the new layer. I am confused about the extent in dd.   top: 5194.424316 dd bottom: 4802.068848 dd left: 4754.654785 dd right: 5162.077148 dd  Geographic Coordinate System:   GCS_North_American_1983 Datum:  D_North_American_1983 Prime Meridian:     Greenwich Angular Unit:   Degree   Does anyone have any suggestion?

I put 4 different layers into my ArcMap document, but only one of them will show up on the map! I should be seeing the other 3 layers as well. When I do a Zoom to layer, I can see one layer, but I cannot figure out how to make the other 3 show up at once on top of each other.  Before I opened ArcMap, I used ArcCatalog where I right-clicked 3/4 of the shapefiles and  clicked Properties → Coordinate system → Import and then clicked on my Trees layer, which has the coordinate system I want the other 3 to have. But when I opened ArcMap the 4 layers did not overlap, nor could I move them above or below each other.


When using the command "cp", I need to know where exactly I want to paste my file. Often, I have to copy a file but without having to paste immediately or sometimes I do not know where I have to paste it. I want to have the option of navigating to the directory where I want to paste the file and then do it. Is there any command that does this? Basically, I want something like this- cp file.txt cd .. cd RandomDirectory paste  This can be done in GUI easily- Ctrl+C the file, navigate to the required directory and then Ctrl+V

In Bash, suppose I visit a directory, and then another directory. I would like to copy a file from the first directory to the second directory, but without specifying the long pathnames of them. Is it possible?   My temporary solution is to use /tmp as a temporary place to store a copy of the file. cp myfile /tmp when I am in the first directory, and then cp /tmp/myfile . when I am in the second directory. But I may check if the file will overwrite anything in /tmp.  Is there something similar to a clipboard for copying and pasting a file?


I want to maximize a function with constraints. When i use the following code i get: The index was outside the array When i use the commented code it works, but what's the difference?         for (int k = 0; k < 3; k++)         {             constraints.Add(new NonlinearConstraint(3, x => x[k] >= 0));         };         //constraints.Add(new NonlinearConstraint(3, x => x[0] >= 0));         //constraints.Add(new NonlinearConstraint(3, x => x[1] >= 0));         //constraints.Add(new NonlinearConstraint(3, x => x[2] >= 0));          var cobyla = new Accord.Math.Optimization.Cobyla(function, constraints);

I met an interesting issue about C#. I have code like below.  List<Func<int>> actions = new List<Func<int>>();  int variable = 0; while (variable < 5) {     actions.Add(() => variable * 2);     ++ variable; }  foreach (var act in actions) {     Console.WriteLine(act.Invoke()); }   I expect it to output 0, 2, 4, 6, 8. However, it actually outputs five 10s.  It seems that it is due to all actions referring to one captured variable. As a result, when they get invoked, they all have same output.  Is there a way to work round this limit to have each action instance have its own captured variable?


Actually question which I found:     Find the sum of the series $1^1+2^2+3^3+ \cdots +n^n $    This question has been bothering me since a long time. Any help would be appreciated!

Is there a way of finding a formula for $\sum\limits_{k=1}^n k^k$? Maybe I'm missing something really obvious, but I've looked around a bit on the Internet and I haven't been able to find anything.  So, what I'm looking for is a formula in closed form to generate the sequence $1,5,32,288,3413,\dots$


What is negative velocity and negative direction of the velocity?

Why and how does negative  exist? I have read on the internet about negative velocity but I still don't understand how it can even exist since time is positive and so is length. By doing some math I came to the conclusion it can't and should not exist and yet there are so many papers and videos trying to explain it.


What would be the definition of a branched covering of a manifold?  I am not familiar with branched coverings at all.

If $f:X\longrightarrow Y$ is a holomorphic map between two compact Riemann surfaces, then $f$ is called also a branched covering map. This is because the branched points of $f$ form a finite set $S\subseteq Y$ and the map $f$ restricted on $X\setminus f^{-1}(S)$ is a topological covering map of $Y\setminus S$.  Now I cannot find a standard notion of branched covering for topological spaces, but I think that it should be like the following:     A continuous and surjective map $f:X\longrightarrow Y$ between topological spaces is a branched covering map if there exists a dense subset $S\subseteq Y$ such that $f$ restricted on $X\setminus f^{-1}(S)$ is a topological covering map of $Y\setminus S$.   Some authors say that $S$ should be nowhere dense and others require that $S$ is a finite set. So, what is the more standard definition of branched covering in the topological framework?


I've been dealing with this problem for enough time and I don't even have a good idea nor a starting point. This is the problem:      Let $\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n$ be a convergent series. Show that $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\sqrt{a_n}}{n}$ is also convergent.    Thanks for your kind and nice answers, I'm sure a good tip or starting point will suffice.

Let $a_1,a_2,a_3,\ldots$ be reals. Prove that if $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n^{2}$ converges, then so does $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac {a_n}{n}$.   For this I have shown the case for when $ a_n^{2} \le\frac {|a_n|}{n}$ $\Rightarrow$ $ |a_n|\le\frac {1}{n}$ $\Rightarrow$ $\frac {|a_n|}{n} \le \frac{1}{n^{2}}$ and we know that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac {1}{n^{2}}$ converges and hence $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac {a_n}{n}$ converges by the comparison test. Now considering $ a_n^{2} \ge\frac {|a_n|}{n}$ $\Rightarrow$ $\frac {|a_n|}{n} \le a_n^{2}$ $\rightarrow$ combining the two cases for any n we have: $\frac {|a_n|}{n}\le\frac{1}{n^{2}}+a_n^{2}$ Hence using the comparion test again we know that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n^{2}$ converges and $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac {1}{n^{2}}$ converges hence the sum converges so we can conclude that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac {a_n}{n}$ is absoluetly convergent $\Rightarrow$ convergent.  Not to sure if this is correct, any help would be much appreciated, many thanks.


I have a log shipping setup for DR. The transaction log file of one of the secondary databases, which is in restoring mode, is 7 times larger than the data file and is filling up the disk space. What are the possible causes and fixes?  Note that it is the transaction log file of the secondary database in the DR site that is growing fast.   For your information, for the corresponding primary database, I take a Full backup every night and transaction log backup every 30 minutes. The transaction logs are shipped every 1 hour to the secondary database.  Thanks

This one seems to be a common question in most forums and all over the web, it is asked here in many formats that typically sound like this:  In SQL Server -  What are some reasons the transaction log grows so large? Why is my log file so big? What are some ways to prevent this problem from occurring? What do I do when I get myself on track with the underlying cause and want to put my transaction log file to a healthy size?


If a tree falls in a forest and no one is around does it still make a sound ? I know the answer is supposed to be no, because the sound is created when it enters someone's ear. What if I left a tape recorder in the forest and a tree fell, then when I go back and listen to the tape recorder won't I hear the noise from the tree falling, even though I wasn't there ? So doesn't this mean that the tree falling still made a sound even though there was no one around to hear it ?

The question of whether or not a tree that falls in the forest makes a sound - if there is nothing or no one around to hear it - comes up frequently at my house.  So, my question is: is there any way to "prove" or "dis-prove" this using physics? If it can be proven what is the answer?  My idea is yes, of course it makes a sound even if there is nothing to sense it! However, my parents seem to think that if there is nothing to "take in" the sound waves, there is no sounds.


I have a JAVA string that is being used to validate proper email addresses.   ^[\\w'-]+(\\.[\\w'-]+)*@[A-Za-z0-9]+([.-][A-Za-z0-9]+)*(\\.[A-Za-z]{2,})$   I want to user to be able to leave the address blank and not get an error message.  How is this possible?

Over the years I have slowly developed a  that validates MOST email addresses correctly, assuming they don't use an IP address as the server part.  I use it in several PHP programs, and it works most of the time.  However, from time to time I get contacted by someone that is having trouble with a site that uses it, and I end up having to make some adjustment (most recently I realized that I wasn't allowing 4-character TLDs).  What is the best regular expression you have or have seen for validating emails?  I've seen several solutions that use functions that use several shorter expressions, but I'd rather have one long complex expression in a simple function instead of several short expression in a more complex function.


\documentclass[a4paper]{article} \usepackage[landscape,hmargin=2cm,top=1.5cm,bottom=1.6cm,headsep=1mm,headheight=3cm]  {geometry}  \usepackage{multirow} \usepackage{tabularx} \usepackage{microtype} \usepackage{siunitx}  \begin{document} \noindent \begin{tabularx}{\textwidth}{|*{7}{c|}X|*{5}{c|}p{35mm}|}     \hline     &&&&suface quality&&&The financials crashed and burned during the 2008 meltdown but have since been in recovery mode with the rest of the market. This article will explore the risks and rewards associated with these Financial ETFs to identify which have been the best performers.&check&\SI{100}{\percent}&continueous&&worker& The Best Financial ETFs \\     \hline \end{tabularx}   \end{document}    As the above code show,the text can't in the center vertically,how to improve it?

I would like to know how to put vertical centered text inside a table cell.  The problem with m column type is that i'm actually using  to auto detect the width of the columns  \newcolumntype{Y}{>{\small\centering\arraybackslash}X} \begin{tabularx}{\textwidth}{YYY}    & Lorem ipsum \newline Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing & Lorem ipsum \newline Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing \\ Lorem ipsum Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing & A & B \\ Lorem ipsum Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing & C & D \\ \end{tabularx}   I would like to vertical centering in the boxes the A, B, C, D text


I'm trying to figure out a way to get natural (reverse) scrolling to work with a mouse. I know Ubuntu has a "natural scrolling" preference under System Settings, however, that only applies to the trackpad and doesn't work with an external mouse. I've tried the :  sudo add-apt-repository ppa:zedtux/naturalscrolling sudo apt-get update && sudo apt-get install naturalscrolling   I also tried messing with the .Xmodmap file; however, that doesn't seem to work consistently across all applications, which drives me crazy.  Anyone knows how to get natural scrolling to work consistently across all applications with a mouse?

Is there any way to enable inverse scrolling like on Mac OSX?


I'm trying to test for a specific item in an item frame and I'm sure I have the correct code.   /testfor @e[type=Item_Frame,x=-1285,y=72,z=788}] {Item:{id:minecraft:leather}}   However I get this error:  [02:46:44] Data tag parsing failed: Expected '}' but got ':' at: {Item:{id:minecraft:<--[HERE]   This is a fairly simple code. I follow the 'mold' everyone else is using for this specific testfor command, but I get an error. There may be a different way to write it 1.12?   Thanks in advance for the help!

I am trying to lock some boxes in a map of mine, and I used this command:   /blockdata 10 4 9 {Lock:Elyiana's Mage Key}   At first it worked, but then when I logged back on the next day it gave me this error message:    Data tag parsing failed: Expected '}' but ''' at: {Lock:Elyiana'<--[HERE]     I don't know why it doesn't like the apostrophe in the key's name. I would change it, but it already worked and locked some other items. My version is 1.12, does anyone have an answer to my problem?


Let me explain my problem with a real life code example:  message = "hello" for char in message:     print(char)   This program output is:   h e l l o   But i want to know character position. when i use str.index() it become:  message = "hello" for char in message:     print(char, message.index(char))   Output:  h 0 e 1 l 2 l 2 o 4   The L position is 2, and not 2 and 3! How can i get character position while iterating over this message?

How do I access the index in a for loop like the following?  ints = [8, 23, 45, 12, 78] for i in ints:     print('item #{} = {}'.format(???, i))   I want to get this output:  item #1 = 8 item #2 = 23 item #3 = 45 item #4 = 12 item #5 = 78   When I loop through it using a for loop, how do I access the loop index, from 1 to 5 in this case?


I am trying to use a text block from within the same Blender file, following the (rather old) advice here:   So I have two text blocks. One called Text and one called printy.py which contains the simplest of functions:  def printthing():      print('thing')  In 'Text', all it says is:  import bpy  import printy  printy.printthing()  I've saved and reopened the file. But I get: ModuleNotFoundError: No module named 'printy'  This seems laughably simple and I've seen the approach in a several places, e.g.  but I can't make it work.  What am I missing?

just downloaded todays Blender 2.8 build and it seems I can no longer import a function from another Textblock. Works well on a build from April 5th (haven't updated since then).  This simple example is not working in todays build:


Perhaps the problem isn't only related to applications run via launcher. And yes, I looked through possible answers first.  In Ubuntu 16.04.5, the apps I started via sidebar launchers, remembered their window sizes (and mostly positions,a s well).  In Ubuntu 18.04.2 (fresh installation), they are always started full-screen, no matter what. Is it possible to configure Gnome to remember at least last known windows size, as it was in 16.04.5 ?  I'd rather not use crutches like devilspie. The last thing I wish to do is replacing every launcher with wrappers.

Each time I open any application, it zooms to fill-up the entire desktop and so I am always forced to use "Unmaximize" using Alt+Space menu.


I have got another test question:     Would you like ..... wine?         any   some      This test assumes that the only correct answer is 'some' and some people argue that the use of 'any' in this sentence is grammatically incorrect.  I think that both 'some' and 'any' is possible there with a difference in the meaning that with 'some' we are expecting answer 'yes' and with 'any' we are not sure if the answer 'yes' or 'no' at all.  I can imagine the following dialog:  Q. Would you like some white wine? A. No, I don't like white wine. Q. Would you like some red wine instead? A. No, I don't like red wine too. Q. Would you like any wine?

I'm doing my English homework and my book says these sentences are correct:  1) Do you have any wine?  2) Can I have some water, please?  My questions are:   These sentences are structured differently.  Does a difference between "wine" and "water" cause the sentences to be structured differently? Why do we not use the word "some" in sentence #1?


Thinking that the Xubuntu could be even more slimmer/more lightware/more faster...    Tell me please are there any applications(pre-installed software) from the Standard(default) installation of Xubuntu which are not recommended to uninstall?   Even if I don't need them, it is not ok to uninstall them because they could affect the stability or the security of the system?  This question for Ubuntu(not Xubuntu) is here too, but is from 2012-2013, and I thought it would be ok to ask it again...    Kind regards,

Which programs installed by default in Ubuntu are generally regarded as safe to uninstall?  I'm mostly thinking of things like social networking, E-mail, you know. Bonus stuff.


My question is in which cases you should think about transforming your variable into a logarithmic one? My dependent variable in the number of patents a long a period of years and one of my explanatory is "R&D BUDGET" (research and development) . Whan im doing a regression i get a low values of R squared and Adj. R squared , and the intuition is that more budget will increase the number of patents . Is this kind of case i should consider transforming my explanatory variable into a logarithmic? Thank you in advance, Nitzan

Am I looking for a better behaved distribution for the independent variable in question, or to reduce the effect of outliers, or something else?


I want to make my desktop computer wireless, how exactly can I do this? Do I have to install a  wireless card in my PC? Is there another way?  I've read I can use a usb wireless adaptor. Are these difficult to install?

I would like to know whether I can buy a Wireless WLAN Transmitter for my desktop computer in order to not use a internet cable to connect to the internet but rather via my router's wireless WLAN option, or not.   I was thinking about buying the product below:   The idea is to just put this stick in and connect it with my computer and just make it connect to the internet with only this device and not the cable.  I personally think that it actually might not work due to the fact that there is no WLAN card or whatever those devices are called, built-in in my computer but maybe it is possible. That is why I thought I'd just ask the pros.   Thanks in advance :)


What should I do to find the distance between two very far points?  p1 = "POINT(6.2 61.1)" p2 = "POINT(6.1 61.0)"  select ST_Distance(   ST_Transform(ST_GeomFromWKT('$p1'), 'EPSG:4326', '$epsg'),   ST_Transform(ST_GeomFromWKT('$p2'), 'EPSG:4326', '$epsg') ) as distance   with EPSG:3857 this is 25550.25 but with EPSG:32632 I'm got 12382.11 and leaning on Google that's right.   I'm using GeoSpark library in my calculations.  Update: My range of longitude approximately from 20 to 190  Update 2: I can't use PostGIS, I'm using Hadoop and GeoSpark

I have a simple question about calculating distances in PostGIS.  I would like to get the distance between two geometries. I am using this sid : 4269 in meters what i am doing now is this : ST_Distance((a.geom,b.geom)) FROM ... but I am getting result in degrees. I think that I should work with geography but how can I cast a geom to a geography? I tried with (a.geom::geography) but i am getting an error.  What can I do to get my result in meters?   Thank You


So I bought my laptop with Windows 8 pre-installed. I had problems and then installed Ubuntu over everything (no recovery left partition left or anything like that).  I'd like to install Windows 8 again but I can't use the Windows 8 installer because I don't have a key my laptop is the ones that have the key in the bios so installation will recognize it And I'm not on Windows so I can't run the .exe (even with wine) () I'm talking about that.  I need the .iso to burn to a usb so I can install it and windows will grab my key from the bios (hopefully, else I'm screwed).  Or any other way to install Windows 8 without having to pay again.

I obtained a licence key for Windows 8 through DreamSpark. Is there a way to download a Windows 8 ISO image like you could for Windows 7? I am on a non-Windows machine, so I cannot use the Secure Download Manager to download Windows 8 directly using DreamSpark.


When converting my 2D matrix from String into char, for some odd reason, its printing in ASCII.  import java.util.Arrays;  public class Matrix {  //    static String[][] matrix = { //            {"a", "L", "M", "d"}, //            {"b", "G", "c", "N"}, //            {"H", "K", "e", "F"}, //            {"I", "J", "O", "P"} //    };      static char[][] matrix = {             {'a', 'L', 'M', 'd'},             {'b', 'G', 'c', 'N'},             {'H', 'K', 'e', 'F'},             {'I', 'J', 'O', 'P'}     };      public static char[][] transpose(char[][] matrix) {         char[][] transposedArray = new char[4][4];          System.out.println("Before: \n");         for (int row =0; row < 4; row ++) {             for (int col = 0; col < 4; col++) {                 System.out.print(matrix[row][col]+' ');             }             System.out.println("");         }          System.out.println("\nAfter: \n");         for (int row =0; row < 4; row ++) {             for (int col = 0; col < 4; col++) {                 transposedArray[row][col] = matrix[col][row];                 System.out.print(transposedArray[row][col]+' ');             }             System.out.println("");         }          return transposedArray;     }      public static void main (String args []){         transpose(matrix);     } }     Before:   129108109132 130103131110 104107133102 105106111112   After:   129130104105 108103107106 109131133111 132110102112     Why doesn't it print it normally like this:  Before:   a L M d  b G c N  H K e F  I J O P    After:   a b H I  L G K J  M c e O  d N F P

How do you concatenate characters in java? Concatenating strings would only require a + between the strings, but concatenating chars using + will change the value of the char into ascii and hence giving a numerical output. I want to do System.out.println(char1+char2+char3... and create a String word like this.  I could do   System.out.print(char1); System.out.print(char2); System.out.print(char3);   But, this will only get me the characters in 1 line. I need it as a string. Any help would be appreciated.  Thanks


How can I move files from my pen-drive to the /personal folder using the graphical interface in Ubuntu 16.04 LTS?  Can I shift my /personal folder to anywhere from / ?

I'm new to linux and the terminal. As I learn how to use the terminal to navigate through directories, I like to use the gui file explorer to mirror my terminal navigation. The icons and file extension info in the gui file explorer help me figure out what everything is. However, I can't access the root folder via the gui, I can only access it via the terminal. Is there a way to enable access to the root folder outside of the terminal?


Prove $\sqrt{1+2\sqrt{1+3\sqrt{1+4\sqrt{\cdots}}}}=3$   I tried to express it as a recursive sequence, but I failed.

I recently came across this problem     Q1 Show that $\lim\limits_{n \rightarrow \infty} \underbrace{{\sqrt{1+2\sqrt{1+3\sqrt{1+4\sqrt{1+\cdots+n\sqrt{1}}}}}}}_{n \textrm{ times  }} = 3$   After trying it I looked at the solution from that book which was very ingenious but it was incomplete because it assumed that the limit already exists.  So my question is     Q2 Prove that the sequence$$\sqrt{1+2\sqrt{1}},\sqrt{1+2\sqrt{1+3\sqrt{1}}},\sqrt{1+2\sqrt{1+3\sqrt{1+4\sqrt{1}}}},\cdots,\sqrt{1+2\sqrt{1+3\sqrt{1+4\sqrt{1+\cdots+n\sqrt{1}}}}}$$ converges.   Though I only need solution for Q2, if you happen to know any complete solution for Q1 it would be a great help .  If the solution from that book is required I can post it but it is not complete as I mentioned.   Edit: I see that a similar question was asked before on this site but it was not proved that limit should exist.


It seems that the figures in my document are positioned at the top of the page by default. Is it possible to change that default behaviour to [h]? (without adding [h] to all the figures)  Thanks in advance!

I have a document with many floats (figures, specifically).  I want to be able to change the global floats positioning policy from htbp to just h (or even H with the floats package).  For my-own reasons, I don't want to do this by appending the [h] argument to each float env.  One option that I can think of is using a macro:  \newcommand{\mypos}{h} % or htbp \begin{figure}[\mypos]...   I also prefer not to do that - It is cumbersome.  Is there a way to set the global float positioning argument globally?


I have Windows 10, as I upgraded from Windows 7  Everything works fine, but it's quite possible I will need to re-install the OS at a later date.  When I upgraded, I was not provided with a new key.  When I visit  I get an a.exe which gives me 2 options. Upgrade or create installation for a new PC. Neither is what I want as the page cited suggests I can create an ISO for this PC.  If I were to reformat my PC today, how can I re-install Windows 10 as I have no key and no ISO?

Here's the situation: I own Windows 7 Ultimate, box version, with product key and all. But I DON'T HAVE IT INSTALLED.  I used my only system SSD to test Windows 10 Insider Preview.  I admit I used pirate KMS to activate it, since it refused to activate.  Now I installed official Windows 10 Pro, but it obviously doesn't activate. At least legally, because activating via pirate KMS still works, but it's not what I need. I'm entitled to free upgrade as legal, registered Windows 7 owner.  I've read I have to wipe my HD, install Windows 7, activate it, install ALL updates (which would take all day), then upgrade (and it would activate then).  Since I don't have whole day to waste for it - is there a shortcut? I'm looking for a way to use my Windows 7 product key to activate my Windows 10 upgrade. I'm positive it's possible, but it requires some magic. Any clues?  Here's my guess, when you do normal upgrade procedure you get new product key for Windows 10 based on the product key you had for previous Windows version. The old key has to be validated first. My question is: how to achieve it using only existing Windows 10 installation? Maybe I could install Windows 7 on virtual machine, activate it and somehow get the new product key from VM? Anyone tried that?


As I've read everywhere, HAVING clause and WHERE clause performs a sort of similar function but the WHERE clause condition applies before grouping and the HAVING applies after. What exactly does this mean? What if I don't group them before hand? Do I just get the same results?

What is the difference between HAVING and WHERE in an SQL SELECT statement? EDIT: I have marked Steven's answer as the correct one as it contained the key bit of information on the link:  When GROUP BY is not used, HAVING behaves like a WHERE clause  The situation I had seen the WHERE in did not have GROUP BY and is where my confusion started. Of course, until you know this you can't specify it in the question.


I have fitted a Poisson model to my data in R which includes two factors as independent variables. Each factor has 5 levels. I have used the  contrasts = list(FactorA='contr.sum', FactorB='contr.sum')command to change the constraints of my model. So, the parameter estimates for each factor sum to 1.   My problem is that I find it very difficult to understand what exactly the p-values of the estimates mean. For instance, if the p-value for one level of FactorA is significant, does this mean that it's generally significant for explaining the response variable or only in comparison to the other levels of the same factor?  Are the constraints that I used involved in this interpretation that I have to make for the significance of each level?  Also, I do not get any output for the last level of each factor. Is there any way to interpret those two levels?

If in a linear regression I have categorical variable... how do I know the stastical signifance of the categorical variable?  Let's say the factor $X_1$ has 10 levels... there will be 10 different resultant t-values, under the umbrella of one factor variable $X_1$...  It seems to me that the statistical signifiance is tested for each level of the factor variable? No?  @Macro: Following your suggestion, I've built the following example:  It seems that x3 is useful and must be included in the model, from the below model comparison.  But actually that's wrong...  n=100     x1=1:n x2=(1:n)^2  x3=rnorm(n) ee=rnorm(n) y=3*x1-2*x2+x3+3+ee lm1=lm(y~x1+x2+x3) summary(lm1)  lm2=lm(y~x1+x2)  summary(lm2)  anova(lm1, lm2)  > anova(lm1, lm2) Analysis of Variance Table  Model 1: y ~ x1 + x2 + x3 Model 2: y ~ x1 + x2   Res.Df     RSS Df Sum of Sq      F    Pr(>F)     1     96  82.782                                   2     97 146.773 -1    -63.99 74.207 1.401e-13 *** --- Signif. codes:  0 '***' 0.001 '**' 0.01 '*' 0.05 '.' 0.1 ' ' 1


I am helping a friend fix his bike that he got for free. Everything went well, except that I cant raise the saddle. The seatpost is really stuck in the frame.   The clamp was easily removed. When I tried to turn the saddle only the saddle itself is turning, and the seatpost remained stuck. I tightened the saddle bracket as hard as I could, and I managed to turn the seat post a few millimeters back and forth. But somehow it is even more stuck now and I can't move it at all. I am afraid that I will bend/break the bracket in the seat if I tighten it anymore.   I tried with a pipe wrench and still couldn't twist it. Perhaps I will be able to if I have another person holding the bike so I have two hands for the wrench. I did manage to damage the surface of the seat post though.   I have a few questions:   How would a professional remove the seatpost? Why is it even stuck? Can this happen because of rust, or is it more likely because the previous owner hammered a 30.2mm seatpost into a frame meant for 30mm? I can see at the Wikipediaartikel () that both 29.6, 29.8, 30.0, 30.2 and 30.4mm are common sizes. As I don't have a precise caliper I can only tell you that it is approximately 30mm.  If it is because of rust, can I polish off the rust and use the same seatpost again? If so, should I polish the post or the internal part of the frame?

I have an old steel frame (Columbus Number 2 I think) that has the seat post (Suntour Superbe Pro - see, I said it was old!) rusted in. I have tried lots of WD-40 but it will not budge. Any tips on how I can get it out without having to cut the frame up?