I want to extract hostname or ip address from SQL query testing as DBO so I have all privileges.  I tried select host_name() but I'm just given the hostname like JackWeb - I need actual IP address; I can not run exec sp_who2 - what should I do?  Thanks in advance

Is there a query in SQL Server 2005 I can use to get the server's IP or name?


Show that $o(h)$ is equal to $o(ghg^{-1})$ for all $g , h \in G$.   My attempt.   Let $m = o(h)$ and $d = o(ghg^{-1})$. Then it follows that $m$ is the smallest such integer such that $h^m = 1$ and $d$ is the smallest such integer such that $(ghg^{-1})^d$ = 1.  Consider $(ghg^{-1})^m$, then $(ghg^{-1})^m$ = $gh^mg^{-1} = gg^{-1} = 1$. Hence $d$ divides $m$. (1)  Now consider $h^d$. Since $d$ divides $m$, there exists an integer $n$ such that $m = nd$. Hence $h^d = h^ \frac{m}{n}$ = $(h^m)^{\frac{1}{n}}$ = $1^{\frac{1}{n}} = 1$. Hence $m$ divides $d$. (2)  Therefore by (1) and (2) we get that $d = m$.  Can someone tell me if this is correct?

Let $H$ be a subgroup of $G$. Prove that $gHg^{-1}=\{ghg^{-1}|h \in H\}$ is a subgroup of $G$, $g\in G$. Show that $o(gHg^{-1})=o(H)$.   Attempt:  As $e=geg^{-1}\in gHg^{-1}$ then $gHg^{-1}$ is non-empty. Let $x=gh_1g^{-1}$, $y=gh_2g^{-1}\in gHg^{-1}$, $h_1, h_2\in H$   then $xy^{-1}=\cdots=g(h_1h_2^{-1})g^{-1}\in gHg^{-1}$ as $h_1h_2^{-1}\in H$ ($H$ being the subgroup of $G$)  Therefore, $gHg^{-1}$ is a subgroup.   The problem is in 2nd part. I am unable to sgow that $o(gHg^{-1})=o(H)$. Please help me to solve the problem using the elementary tools of abstract algebra.


I am running a generalized linear model. The dependent variable is binomial and independent variables are categorical and continuous variables. My question is : 1. Does the continuous independent variable have to be normally distributed?  2. Do I need to check for the normality of residuals of the continuous variables?                                               These are images of the model residuals. The model is as follows. B and A are categorical variables with two levels each and F is continuous.            t1<-glm(B ~ A + F, family = binomial, data = d, na.action = "na.fail") sm<-standardize(t1) model.set<-dredge(sm) model.set top.model<-get.models(model.set, subset=delta<2) top.model #model averaging u<-summary(model.avg(top.model), revised.var = T) u confint(u, full = T) plot(density(resid(t1)))  qqnorm(resid(t1))  qqline(resid(t1))   @Harlan Nelson, I have added the graphs.

This is probably a really basic question, but it's the first time I've created a model that defines Poisson as its error family.   In setting up my variables to make the model, should I be concerned about whether or not predictor variables are normally distributed, and if not, should I be attempting to transform them to make them normal? Or alternatively, should the residuals of simple regressions between each predictor and the response variable be normally distributed? Or is this something I look at overall, once the model is made, by looking at a histogram of the residuals of the full model? Or, does the normal distribution not even apply in this case because I have specified Poisson errors?


I have a domain name domain1.com and I want if someone want to connect (via minecraft) on port 25565 that the connection is transfered to another server.  So: connect to domain1.com:25565 ==> something listens on 25565 ==> transferes the Connection to gameserver.com:25565  I did looked into nginx but I saw that it doesnt work for the "minecraft" protocol.  What other Option do I have?

I have a server on local network with local IP 192.168.0.1 that is running POP3 server on port 995 (SSL). This server doesn't have external IP and I am not in control of it.  There's another server on local network with local IP 192.168.0.2 and external IP 123.123.123.123. It is running Ubuntu 16.04 and I have control over it.  How do access port 995 on server 192.168.0.1 via external IP 123.123.123.123?  UPDATE: So I tried this with iptables on 192.168.0.2 with no success so far:  sudo iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -p tcp --dport 995 -j DNAT --to-destination 192.168.0.1:995


I installed vlc using tar.xz file, now I want to remove it but as I have deleted the source directory from which it was installed, I am unable to uninstall it.  I have tried these commands:  apt-get remove vlc apt-get remove vlc-nox apt-get remove vlc-data sudo apt-get autoremove --purge vlc   without success

I used source code to build one package such as below:  ./configure --prefix=/usr --sysconfdir=/etc --localstatedir=/var --libexecdir=/usr/lib --with-package-name="Myplugin" --with-package-origin="http://www.ubuntu.org/" --enable-gtk-doc --disable-static make make install   But unfortunately, i discovered that its the latest version, and has lot of bugs, so i need to remove it/uninstall it. But how can i do so? I tried make clean; make uninstall but still i see it exist:  # pkg-config --list-all | grep Myplugin myplugin-.... $ ls /usr/lib/myplugin/libXYZ.so exist....   How do you remove this now?


How do I reduce the following and remove the $11$ from LHS, $$ 11x \equiv 4 \ \ \text{mod }50 $$

What is the best way to solve equations like the following:  $9x \equiv 33 \pmod{43}$  The only way I know would be to try all multiples of $43$ and $9$ and compare until I get $33$ for the remainder.  Is there a more efficient way ?   Help would be greatly appreciated!


Is it possible to remove the internal intersections of mesh that have been added together in edit mode to create one 'object' - ideally creating a smooth interior, e.g. for 3D printing?   I have tried booleans but they are so destructive I'm really hoping for another fix..   This is what I have right now:    And this is what I would like it to remain looking like this on the outside:    What I would like it to look like on the inside is a replica of the outside, with all the redundant mesh removed - like the inside of a toy or a clay model that has been hollowed out.   Booleans are just not working, they absolutely destroy the mesh whenever I try to use them.   Literally dying trying to figure this out, so any help would be immensely appreciated.   The key issue is that it's for optimising a model for 3D printing, AS WELL AS keeping it smooth on the outside (and non-manifold)   Thanks!!

I am pretty new to Blender but I looked at some tutorials on how to build my own structure etc. I found one  at about 2:05 minutes, where they select all inner vertices with some clicks and removes them afterwards.  Can somebody help me to redo this on my objects? I have for example two cubes and they intersect each other. My next steps are joining these two cubes, I click in edit mode on Mesh > Faces > Intersect  Then I choose Self intersect and now I am losing track of the video, where he does Link select and inverts the selection and then magically he just removes the selected parts...  Can somebody help me on this a little.  If I let the internal geometry stay, my printouts in the printer get holes and other ugly stuff...  EDIT  Since I got now an answer where some people up voted but it is still not working in my example.  I added a screenshot  Here I have two cubes moved against each other. The answer from Gwenn suggests to use Select > Internal Faces but in my case there is only Select > Interior Faces. I guess this is a typo but it is also selecting nothing. When I click on Select > Non Manyfolds there is also no selection :-(  After following some links and checking the '3D Printing Tools' add on, I found the check function there which tells me how many problems where found in before printing (visible in the screenshot). It says no Manyfolds, maybe thats the reason. But I still have the problem of empty spaces within the 3D print where the two cubes overlap.  Again, I just created two cubes and moved them against each other until they intersect.  The only possible solution by now is to use a boolean modification, Difference and select the second cube. In this case the overlapping part gets removed from one of the cubes. Not very handy but by now the only solution which works.


I am familiar to C and C++. I am using C# for the first time. I trying to learn about WCF and WPF. I using a tutorial in CodeProject. There the writer has given a sample code. There he has written something before an interface and methods in square brackets. What are those? Are they comments? Here is the given sample code.  [ServiceContract(SessionMode = SessionMode.Required,      CallbackContract = typeof(IChatCallback))] interface IChat {     [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, IsInitiating = false,          IsTerminating = false)]     void Say(string msg);      [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, IsInitiating = false,          IsTerminating = false)]     void Whisper(string to, string msg);      [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false, IsInitiating = true,          IsTerminating = false)]     Person[] Join(Person name);      [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, IsInitiating = false,          IsTerminating = true)]     void Leave(); }

What are attributes in .NET, what are they good for, and how do I create my own attributes?


I am trying to download a playlist using youtube -dl but getting an error.  Command:  youtube-dl --playlist-start 1 https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PL8B24C31197EC371C   Output:      [youtube:playlist] PL8B24C31197EC371C: Downloading page #1 ERROR: Unable to download webpage: <urlopen error [Errno 8] _ssl.c:510: EOF occurred in violation of protocol>   What should i do?

I use youtube-dl to download videos for watching later offline. Usually, it works fine. However, due to frequent changes on the video sites, it sometimes requires a quick update. It wasn't a problem before on 13.04 but after upgrading to 13.10, I get  # youtube-dl -U It looks like you installed youtube-dl with a package manager, pip, setup.py or a tarball. Please use that to update.   I tried updating it via apt-get but there is no new package. So the app's update mechanism has been disabled and the maintainers aren't keeping up, what is the solution? How do I update it?  And why was it changed at all? It was updating a package manager version just fine in raring.   I'm already running into compatibility problems.   $ youtube-dl "http://vimeo.com/55784152" [vimeo] 55784152: Downloading webpage [vimeo] 55784152: Extracting information ERROR: Unable to extract info section; please report this issue on https://yt-dl.org/bug . Be sure to call youtube-dl with the --verbose flag and include its complete output. Make sure you are using the latest version; type  youtube-dl -U  to update.   QUICK UPDATE:  As requested,  # type youtube-dl youtube-dl is hashed (/usr/bin/youtube-dl)  # apt-cache policy youtube-dl youtube-dl:   Installed: 2013.08.29-1   Candidate: 2013.08.29-1   Version table:  *** 2013.08.29-1 0         500 http://pl.archive.ubuntu.com/ubuntu/ saucy/universe amd64 Packages         100 /var/lib/dpkg/status


Which one should I use?    Play music loud Play music loudly    I think "play music loudly" is right but "play music loud" is used more. Please tell me your opinion and the reason why you choose it. Thank you so much. Maybe my grammar is wrong 'cause I'm not good at English

When someone is going to drive their car somewhere, I always used to say "drive safely" to them. Recently I was told I should say "drive safe."    (From: )   Which one is correct?  Similarly, is "do good" correct?


I would like to be able to write a few lines like:  a b c   in my LaTeX source code file, and have it come out as abc instead of a b c. (This is because in my use case, each line is a long and complicated thing, so concatenating all the lines in the source code ends up being completely unreadable.)  Is there a magic thing I can add at the end of each line to make it ignore the next line break?

I see that the code in many packages and examples contains percent signs % at the end of (many) lines. What are they used for? Do they affect the parsing of those lines?


I started as a humble merchant. I have both ships and I have figured out how to make some good cash. I am wondering if there is a way to fly the scout ship discoverer? I can't seem to get a google hit on this question but I see others saying that they set up the mercury to auto-trade and fly the discoverer ship but I can't figure out how to fly the other ship.

I start in X3: Albion prelude as a Humble Merchant. It starts with a ship called Mercury and another called the Discoverer.  I have travelled to the shipyard in Argon Prime, but I don't have any idea how to sell my ships.   How can I use the Discoverer? I haven't found a way to switch to the Discoverer cockpit. Am I allowed only to give it follow commands?


I was wondering if there are shapefiles for postcode regions in India.  I did find some shapefiles that give the outline of the administrative units in the country but not with postcodes. Right now I am using Google Map API that highlights the region under pin-code.    It looks like the information is not present in public domain. It looks like either you can crowdsource the information or buy it from a thirdparty called MapMyIndia.  I found a blog by Anand.S where he wrote about his crowdsourcing idea. Other than this I couldn't really find anything interesting:

I have been searching for free/paid (preferably free) sources for postal code shapefiles for India.   Does anyone know where I can find one?


Why does the .svg Blender editor display the imported curves in the exact opposite order of the original svg-file, unless I set the Shadeless property on their materials and switch to Rendered viewport-shading?  At first I thought this is a very special error but in  he has got the same issue.  Notice the white circle in the middle get's displayed behind the arrows in blender. Then he bothers about the colors and in the end changes everything to Shadeless, renders and gets the right result.  Isn't that kind of a bug?   Well at least now I that I found a solution to my problem, but maybe this could get fixed, since I wasted half a day on that confusing display-issue...

I'm trying to compose a cone in Inkscape, embedding text, image (after converted in vectors):   But, after importing in Blender, here is what I get:   You see then that something went wrong, but I don't know what. Please your advise is welcome !  JF


I have a data matrix $X$ with shape $p\times n$.  It might not matter but I interpret $X$ is $n$ vectors each containing $p$ features.  Then I compute $Q = X X^{T} / n$. This implies that $Q$ is positive definite.  I interpret $Q$ as covariance matrix of data which are columns of $X$. (Normally mean should be subtracted from $X$ before computing covariance this way. However the mean of $X$ is 0 in my case. That is why the formula for covariance is simpler in my case.)  Then I compute $Q^{-1}$, the inverse of $Q$. Which should be also positive definite.  I want to compute Mahalanobis distance for each column $x$ of $X$ as follows:  $\sqrt{x^T Q^{-1} x}$  However for some columns I get that $x^T Q^{-1} x$ is negative. This should not be possible in theory. So I suspect that the error is caused by numerical errors caused by software.  I use the Math.Net numerics library in C#. How do I avoid this problem?   I tried replacing $Q$ and $Q^{-1}$ by their transpose. The result should be the same in theory but slightly differs in practice. But the difference wasn't big enough I still get negative number for the same column.  What else I can do?

I have an expression for a covariance matrix $C$ in terms of the indices $i$ and $j$.  In this way I can analytically calculate the elements of my covariance matrix, however when I try to invert $C$ matlab gives a warning about the matrix being close to singular.  The inversion therefore doesn't work, by which I mean the multiplying $C$ by the inverse given i do not get the identity.  I have tried calculating the pseudo inverse but this also does not work.  I have also tried adding a small constant along the diagonal but again the results do not work.  In general I'm working with matrices of dimension 1200 but I will give low dimensional example matrix that has the same properties, i.e. the matrices are symmetric about the diagonal and the anti-diagonal     19.9939  19.9954  19.9958  19.9951  19.9933  19.9905  19.9865    19.9954  19.9973  19.9981  19.9978  19.9965  19.9940  19.9905    19.9958  19.9981  19.9993  19.9995  19.9985  19.9965  19.9933    19.9951  19.9978  19.9995  20.0000  19.9995  19.9978  19.9951    19.9933  19.9965  19.9985  19.9995  19.9993  19.9981  19.9958    19.9905  19.9940  19.9965  19.9978  19.9981  19.9973  19.9954    19.9865  19.9905  19.9933  19.9951  19.9958  19.9954  19.9939   As mentioned in the title the matrix isn't positive, however the the negative eigenvalues are very small suggesting that the matrix is not positive only due to machine precision.  The negative eigenvalues are $-1.4048e-14$ and $-2.4571e-15$.  How can I go about inverting these matrices?


I have a toilet which has water condensing on the outside of the tank and then dripping down onto the floor.  No, the tank is definitely not leaking.  This is weather related, as this always happens on somewhat warmer days (i.e. > 70 F) and when we have no HVAC running (i.e. < 90 F), so our windows are open and there is some humidity in the air.   Obviously the cold water in the tank is causing the condensation to occur on the outside.  Can anyone recommend a solution to this problem, other than placing buckets behind the toilet?  How do I keep my floor from getting wet every spring and fall?

My toilet is getting a great deal of condensation on the tank and dripping onto the floor. What can be done to address condensation on the exterior of a toilet tank?


it is clear that "Vanilla" means that component that we add to our food , and no one don't know the meaning of "experiences" but i can't got it in this context , and i thi,k that it is a slang or idiomatic expression , could you help getting the meaning of it :  " right there in front of them now without commenting on whether these people were already very socially awkward in the first place I thought it was very interesting how even with vanilla experiences one could be so used to reducing themselves to a voyeur that they come to prefer that rather than the real deal  "

"That extra effort is what gives traditional media its added oomph—typically 10-100 times that of a plain-vanilla email campaign"   This sentence is used in below paragraph:          They work because, to your prospect, it's a given that you've put in more effort. (A printed sales pack costs you more to put together; a telephone call takes 100% of one person's attention for its duration.) That extra effort is what gives traditional media its added oomph—typically 10-100 times that of a plain-vanilla email campaign.      I think that it means: extra effort can make the media more appealing. But the next part of the sentence is ambiguous  for me:    typically 10-100 times that of a plain-vanilla email campaign


As far as i understand, a encryption system is forward secure if new session keys are generated for each session, which is also part of  about forward secrecy:  By generating a unique session key for every session a user initiates, the compromise of a single session key will not affect any data other than that exchanged in the specific session protected by that particular key.  So far, so good, but it is the definition that bugs me:  An encryption system has the property of forward secrecy if plain-text (decrypted) inspection of the data exchange that occurs during key agreement phase of session initiation does not reveal the key that was used to encrypt the remainder of the session.  1. In this way, shouldn't e.g. asymmetric encryption be forward secure even if we do NOT alter keys between sessions? For asymmetric encryption, the data exchange during key agreement does NOT include the private key and also not necessarily the public key, hence a plain-text inspection of it does not reveal the key(s) that are used to encrypt the session... If i interpret it as both keys shouldn't be send as plaintext, then an assumed asymmetric encryption that changes the private-public key pair for each session is also NOT forward secure, because the public key is always public. 2. Is the definition wrong or insufficient? 3. Is it sufficient to think that any encryption system that changes keys for each session is forward secure?

Is all random private key that generating a unique session key is both forward secrecy and key freshness?


I'm using below regular expression to match numbers that includes decimals, negative numbers inside quotes ("). What changes should I be doing so that it does not match "#1200"?   \"(-?\d*.?\d+)\"  "1200"     ---> matches as expected "1200.67"  ---> matches as expected "-1200"    ---> matches as expected "-1200.67" ---> matches as expected "#1200"    ---> I'm not expecting this to match. As you can see It has # at the beginning.

I am tired of always trying to guess, if I should escape special characters like '()[]{}|' etc. when using many implementations of regexps.  It is different with, for example, Python, sed, grep, awk, Perl, rename, Apache, find and so on. Is there any rule set which tells when I should, and when I should not, escape special characters? Does it depend on the regexp type, like PCRE, POSIX or extended regexps?


Not much to say here that was not said in the title... I'm wondering about adding "a" before a quantifier, and what are the rules for it. Is somehow ten considered to be plural, where hundred / thousand considered to be a group of 100 / 1000, and as a group it's singular?

Edit Note:  This question has been linked to these questions about using an article before adjectives modifying numbers. This question here has nothing to do with adjectives at all:       The question  Why do we use the article 'a' when referring to 100, but not when referring to any other plural counting?  Here's an example:     I saw a hundred birds today.   But when talking about other count that 100, we don't use 'a' because it's plural:        I saw ninety-nine birds today.   I saw two birds today.   I saw two thousand birds.   I saw seventy-five birds.      Is there a grammatical or historical explanation?


Consider this example :  #include <iostream> using namespace std;  class MyClass { public:     ~MyClass() { cout << "DTOR OK !" << endl; } };  int main(void) {     MyClass test();     MyClass* pTest = new MyClass();     delete pTest; }   Why "DTOR OK !" is not printed twice ? why the destructor of the local object "test" is not called ?  When the destructor is private, I've noticed that there is only a compile error for delete pTest; but not for the local object ? what's happening here ?

Is there any good reason that an empty set of round brackets (parentheses) isn't valid for calling the default constructor in C++?  MyObject  object;  // ok - default ctor MyObject  object(blah); // ok  MyObject  object();  // error   I seem to type "()" automatically everytime. Is there a good reason this isn't allowed?


Explain why ($\mathbb{Z}_6$, +, · ) is not a field, where + is addition modulo 6 and · is multiplication modulo 6.  When I was trying to explain why this is not a field, I came into a bit of trouble. I understand that for it to be a field the following must be true: Closure, Associative law, Identity and inverses. I wasn't sure how to disprove this. So far, Ive drawn a caylee table, but I havent been able to figure out what section disproves it. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance (:

Let $n \in ℕ$. Show that the ring $ℤ/nℤ$ is a field if and only if $n$   is prime.   Let $n$ prime. I need to show that if $\bar{a} \neq 0$ then $∃\bar b: \bar{a} \cdot \bar{b} = \bar{1}$. Any hints for this ?  Suppose $ℤ/nℤ$ is a field. Therefore: for every $\bar{a} \neq 0$ $∃\bar b: \bar{a}\cdot \bar{b}=1$. How can I show that $n$ must be prime ?


The Death Star I's construction started on Geonosis since during the Clone Wars. Considering the size of the thing, it must be constructed either in orbit or the surface, since launching it would be too difficult without cracking the planet open like an egg if it's buried too deep. As such, why didn't the Jedi notice any trace of it throughout the war when they've remained in control of the system for most of the war, including the end?  Did it elude the attention of the Jedi and/or clone garrisons? Did it fail to be reported to the Jedi (remember that canon clones aren't in league with Palpatine)? Or was it publicly disguised as a more acceptable project?

According to various  there were over 2,379,000 people on board the original Death Star when it exploded. On top of that it's said that it took  to build and millions of people worked on the construction.   Yet despite all of those people working on a massive project (and the 2 million personnel being transferred and living there!) people like Han Solo and  about the Death Star. Even though Han is a smuggler who has a  and it would be in his interests to know about it.  So my question is: How did the Empire keep the Death Star secret from the general populace and even from the underworld which would have a vested interest in that information?  In-universe answers please.


interface:  public interface IAuthenticationRepository     {         Task<IEnumerable<dynamic>> GetMenuItems(string groupIds);     }   class:   public class AuthenticationRepository : Base, IAuthenticationRepository     {         public AuthenticationRepository(string sqlConnRep) : base(sqlConnRep) { }          public async Task<IEnumerable<dynamic>> GetMenuItems(string groupIds)         {             var menuAndFunctions = $@"select gfm.GroupId, fmm.MenuId, cm.MenuType, cm.MenuName, fmm.FunctionId,cf.FunctionName,                                      cf.Description, cf.IsDefault from FunctionMenuMapping fmm                                      inner join CoCMenu cm                                      on cm.Id = fmm.MenuId                                      inner join CoCFunction cf                                      on cf.Id = fmm.FunctionId                                      inner join GroupFunctionMapping gfm                                      on gfm.FunctionId = fmm.FunctionId                                      where gfm.GroupId in (" + groupIds + ")";             return await ExecQueryDynamic<dynamic>(menuAndFunctions);         }     Create an instance for AuthenticationRepository class and assigned the instance to the AuthenticationRepository  class object  public class AuthenticationLogic : IAuthenticationLogic     {             readonly AuthenticationRepository authenticationRepository;             public AuthenticationLogic( AuthenticationRepository authenticationRepository)             {                 this.authenticationRepository = new AuthenticationRepository("");             }     }   Create an instance for AuthenticationRepository class and assigned the instance to IAuthenticationRepository  interface   public class AuthenticationLogic : IAuthenticationLogic     {                 readonly IAuthenticationRepository IauthenticationRepository;                 public AuthenticationLogic(IAuthenticationRepository IauthenticationRepository)                 {                     this.IauthenticationRepository = new AuthenticationRepository("");                 }     }        What is the difference between them? both are doing the same. Is any permanence difference for it? and which one is best approach?

When should I use an interface and when should I use a base class?   Should it always be an interface if I don't want to actually define a base implementation of the methods?  If I have a Dog and Cat class. Why would I want to implement IPet instead of PetBase? I can understand having interfaces for ISheds or IBarks (IMakesNoise?), because those can be placed on a pet by pet basis, but I don't understand which to use for a generic Pet.


This question has already been asked. see above link.

I need help with this proof:     Let $A$ and $B$ be sets. Prove that $A\cap (B\setminus A)\subseteq \varnothing$.   My problem: Since $B\setminus A$ = $B\cap A^{c}$, we can say that if $x \in B$ then $x\in B\cap A^{c}$and $x \in A^{c}$ as well. So $x\notin A$.  Where do I go from here?


In a finite ring $R$ with identity show that $ab =1$ implies $ba = 1$, where $a,b \in R$.  I am having difficulty in doing this since there is no condition that there is no zero divisors and how will I use the finiteness of the ring!!

Let $R$ be a finite ring with identity $1$, and assume $\exists x,y\in R$ such that $ xy=1$. How can I show it implies $yx=1$?


for the millionth time guys this isn't a duplicate question and if it is, them all the solutions don't work for me. i have seen this issue in a newly installed system. I tried all the things provided on the internet including creating a new sources.list, deleted the entries of list.d folder, but when I try to run the apt-get update command I get the following:  W: Failed to fetch http://archive.ubuntu.com/ubuntu/dists/trusty/Release  Unable to find expected entry 'restricted/source/Sources' in Release file (Wrong sources.list entry or malformed file)   here is the sources.list  deb http://archive.ubuntu.com/ubuntu trusty main universe restricted    multiverse deb-src http://archive.ubuntu.com/ubuntu trusty universe main multiverse restricted  deb http://security.ubuntu.com/ubuntu/ trusty-security universe main multiverse restricted deb http://archive.ubuntu.com/ubuntu trusty-updates universe main multiverse restricted deb http://archive.ubuntu.com/ubuntu trusty-backports universe main multiverse restricted  # deb http://archive.canonical.com/ubuntu trusty partner # deb-src http://archive.canonical.com/ubuntu trusty partner  # deb http://extras.ubuntu.com/ubuntu trusty main # deb-src http://extras.ubuntu.com/ubuntu trusty main

I have unistalled and reinstalled the Ubuntu Software Center as per info I found in a similar thread and I got the same response about line 91 or something like that.  I just tried to upload a screen shot but since I'm new it won't allow me to.  I also can not figure out how to cut and paste anything so I have to hand type what the error screen says, both when I attempt to open the software center and nothing happens, when I try to enter commands into the terminal to uninstall, reinstall, whatever I get the same following:  COULD NOT INTITIALIZE THE PACKAGE INFORMATION An unresolvable problem occured while initializing the package information Please report t:his bug against the 'update-manager' package and include the following error message: 'E: Malformed line 91 in source list/etc/apt/sources.list (dist parse)  E: The list of sources could not be read.,  E: The package list of status file could not be parsed or opened.   How do I report bugs?  What can be done about this.  I have searched and everything everyone says to do leads me back to the same line error message.  So, I don't know how to get to line 91 in the source list; to tell you what it says. Sorry, I'm really new to this. That is what I need is to find out how to get there and fix what it says. I would really like to NOT have to re partition my hard drive and start from scratch, so I'm really looking forward to getting this problem solved. I need to be able to install new software.


The exercise 22  page 158 of Elements of Set Theory by B. Enderton is the following:     Show that the following statement is another equivalent version of the axiom of choice: For any set $A$ there is a function $F$ with $\text{dom }F=\bigcup A$ and such that $x\in F(x)\in A$ for all $x\in\bigcup A$.   The versions of the axiom of choice that I know for the moment are:        (although the Cardinal comparability and Zorn's lemma were stated as well, the author didn't prove yet that they're equivalent to the Axiom of Choice)  and the following form: (Exercise 18 in the same page)        I proved that AC III implies the statement of the exercise as follows:  Let $A$ be a set According to AC III there exists a function $f:\mathcal{P}A\setminus\{\emptyset\}\to A$ such as $\forall X\in\mathcal{P}A\setminus\{\emptyset\},\,f(X)\in X$.  Let  \begin{align*} g:&\bigcup A\,\,\to \mathcal{P}A\setminus\{\emptyset\}\\ &x \quad\quad\mapsto\{a\in A\mid x\in a\} \end{align*}  $g$ is a well defined function/  Let $F=f\circ g$. Then $\text{dom }F=\text{dom }g=\bigcup A$.  Let $x\in\bigcup A$. $F(x)=f(g(x))=f\left(\{a\in A\mid x\in a\}\right)$. Thus $F(x)\in\{a\in A\mid x\in a\}$. Thus $x\in F(x)\in A$.$$\tag*{$\square$}$$  I couldn't prove the other way. I had two ideas:( $F:\bigcup A\to A$ such that $\forall a\in\bigcup A,\,a\in F(a)\in A$)  1) We could try to construct an "inverse" of $F$. But $F$ isn't necessarily injective nor surjective. Thus such a construction would require the axiom of choice.  2) We could consider $f=F\circ g$ where $g:\,A\to \bigcup\bigcup A$ and $F:\,\bigcup\bigcup A\to\bigcup A$ but I couldn't find a suitable $g$.  Could you please help me? Thanks you in advance!

One of my favorite formulations of the Axiom of Choice is that for any nonempty family $A$ of nonempty sets, there is a choice function $F\colon A\to\cup A$ such that $F(X)\in X$ for each $X\in A$.   Using this, I was able to prove that there is also a function $f\colon\cup A\to A$ such that $x\in f(x)\in A$ for all $x\in\cup A$. I did this by considering any $x\in\cup A$, and letting $B_x=\{X\in A\mid x\in X\}$, and then letting $C=\{t\in\mathscr{P}(A)\mid \exists_{x\in\cup A}t=B_x\}$, i.e. $C$ is the set of all $B_x$. Now each $B_x$ is nonempty, so there is a choice function $F$ such that $F(B_x)\in B_x$ for each $B_x$. Defining $f(x)=F(B_x)$, I have $x\in f(x)\in A$ for every $x\in\cup A$. I suppose this is what I mean by a "backwards" choice function, even though it's not really one.  Is this equivalent to AC? That is, if for any set $A$, there exists a function $f\colon\cup A\to A$ such that $x\in f(x)\in A$ for all $x\in\cup A$, then AC holds? I couldn't immediately see a way to imply the Axiom of Choice, in any equivalent formulation assuming that the above is true for any set $A$. Is it just a one way implication? Thanks.


I understand that:  atan2(vector.y, vector.x) = the angle between the vector and the X axis.  But I wanted to know how to get the angle between two vectors using atan2. So I came across this solution:  atan2(vector1.y - vector2.y, vector1.x - vector2.x)   My question is very simple:  Will the two following formulas produce the same number?   atan2(vector1.y - vector2.y, vector1.x - vector2.x) atan2(vector2.y - vector1.y, vector2.x - vector1.x)   If not: How do I know what vector comes first in the subtractions?  Thanks

I have 3 points on my screen:  a = a point which is (c.x, 0) makes a line pointing straight up b = a user input touch, can be anywhere on the screen c = a moving object         a _______.________ |      |       | |      |       |  |   b  |       | |  .   |       | |   \  |       | |    \ |       |  |     \|       | |      | c     | |______._______|   I have drawn some lines so that you can see the vectors.  I want to be able to get the angle between a and b. I have tried this, but it doesn't work, does anyone know what I'm doing wrong?:  //v1 moving object float boxX = this.mScene.getLastChild().getX();  float boxY = this.mScene.getLastChild().getY();  //v2 user touch float touchX = pSceneTouchEvent.getX(); float touchY = pSceneTouchEvent.getY();       //v3 top of screen float topX = boxX; final float topY = 0;  float dotProd = (touchX * topX) + (touchY * topY);  float sqrtBox = (touchX * touchX) + (touchY * touchY); float sqrtTouch = (topX * topX) + (topY * topY);  double totalSqrt = sqrtBox * sqrtTouch; double theta = Math.acos(dotProd / Math.sqrt(totalSqrt));   The answer I usually get is between 0 and 1. How do I fix this so that I get the angle in degrees?


I would like to build a fully-connected network for classifying three classes. As input I have two feature sets. One feature set with 100 features and another feature set with 1000 features. The input features consists of temporal and frequency features from smartphone accelerometer and gyroscope readings. The three classes correspond to three activity patterns. I thought about designing the neural network as follows: input: 100 features layer 1: 50 units batch normalization relu activation dropout layer 2: 25 units batch normalization relu activation dropout layer 3: 13 units batch normalization relu activation dropout output: 3 classes  input: 1000 features layer 1: 500 units batch normalization relu activation dropout layer 2: 250 units batch normalization relu activation dropout layer 3: 125 units batch normalization relu activation dropout output: 3 classes  Does this design make sense or is it better to have the units constant in each layer or even growing the number of units for a start?

Is there a standard and accepted method for selecting the number of layers, and the number of nodes in each layer, in a feed-forward neural network? I'm interested in automated ways of building neural networks.


I am looking for an inductive proof of the following.     Let $\alpha \in S_n$ be a cycle of length $p$. Then $\alpha^p =1$.   For example $\alpha = (123)$ then $\alpha^3 = 1$ it is easy to verify.  My attempt: Induction on $p$: The base case is true for $p=1$. Inductive case, assume that true for $k$ i.e $\alpha^k = 1$. We want to prove for $\alpha^{k+1}$. Rewrite $\alpha^{k+1} $ can be rewritten as product of two cycle's of length less than $p$??  Note: I know that this question is already answered elsewhere on the site; however, I want to solve the above problem using induction.

I'm trying trying to prove that an $n$-cycle in some symmetric group has order $n$, but I don't know where to start. Would appreciate some hints.


There are even numbers and odd numbers, so if at least one prime was even, it would be divided by 2 perfectly. I am sorry if this is a stupid question. Just wanting to clarify some things

Are all prime numbers greater than 2 odd?   I wasn't allowed to assume this was true.   AFSOC that there exists an even prime $n$. Then by definition of even, $n = 2q$, where $q$ is a positive integer. But if $n$ is even, it is divisible by $2$, hence that contradicts $n$'s prime-ness. QED.   What? Is there some wacky prime that can't be assumed odd?


Which of the following sentences are correct?  Calves require less medication and gain weight quicker than that those raised in consignment.  Calves require less medication and gain weight more quickly than that those raised in consignment.

This is a follow up to this question:   "Quicker" is an adverb, as are "more" (in this context) and "quickly".  So is there a difference besides preference between these?


I have an iPhone 5, iOS 8.4.1. How can I repeat a Playlist? I've found how to repeat a song, but I want to repeat a playlist.

Where is the repeat button on a song for iOS 8.4 music app? Help!


I am trying to show that $C_c^{\infty}\cap{\cal F}C_c^{\infty}=\{0\}$, where $C_c^{\infty}$ denotes the space of all $C^\infty$ functions on $\mathbb{R}^n$ whose support is compact, and ${\cal F}C_c^{\infty}$ denotes the space of all Schwartz functions whose Fourier transform is in $C_c^{\infty}$.  My thought is the following: it is obvious that $C_c^{\infty}\cap{\cal F}C_c^{\infty}\supset\{0\}$. So I need to only show that $C_c^{\infty}\cap{\cal F}C_c^{\infty}\subset\{0\}$. Let $f\in C_c^{\infty}\cap{\cal F}C_c^{\infty}$. Then there exists a compact set $K\subset\mathbb{R}^n$ such that $K={\rm supp}\ {\cal F}f$. And I want to show that $f=0$, but I could not do that.  Any advice will be greatly appreciated. Thank you in advance.

Problem : Suppose that $f$ is continuous on $\mathbb{R}$. Show that $f$ and $\hat f$ cannot both be compactly supported unless $f=0$.  Hint : Assume $f$ is supported in [0,1/2]. Expand $f$ in a Fourier series in the interval [-,1], and note that as a result, f is a trigonometric polynomial.  I proved that f is trigonometric polynomial by using hint. But, I don't know how to prove function's fourier transform cannot compactly supported function.  Can I get some hints?


I have a relation table in Mysql with 3 columns   ID (Primary key and Auto Increment) Ref_id1 (Reference ID from table1) Ref_id2 (Reference ID from table1 also)   How can i forbid, in database level, any pair combination of Ref_id1 and Ref_id2 from reappearing.  EDIT:  For example:  After i insert a row like this  id    Ref_id1    Ref_id2   1        1          2  i want to forbid ANY other row with the same pair of Ref_id1 and Ref_id2 (which a UNIQUE INDEX can solve) AND any row with the reversed pair   Ref_id1    Ref_id2      2          1   PS. Sorry for the ugly coding, i'm new to the community and i can't use the tools correctly  EDIT 2:  My question is different from the duplicate proposed because i want to be able to restrict BOTH insertions   Pair1:  Ref_id1   Ref_id2     1         2  AND  Pair2:  Ref_id1   Ref_id2     2         1  AFTER my original insertion.  EDIT 3:  If this helps at all: Both Ref_id1 and Ref_id2 are foreign keys from the same column of a foreign table

How can I efficiently create a unique index on two fields in a table like this: create table t (a integer, b integer);  where any unique combination of two different numbers cannot appear more than once on the same row in the table.  In order words if a row exists such that a=1 and b=2, another row cannot exist where a=2 and b=1 or a=1 and b=2.  In other words two numbers cannot appear together more than once in any order.  I have no idea what such a constraint is called, hence the 'two-sided unique index' name in the title.  Update: If I have a composite key on columns (a,b), and a row (1,2) exists in the database, it is possible to insert another row (2,1) without an error.  What I'm looking for is a way to prevent the same pair of numbers from being used more than once in any order...


I 'm a beginner in QGIS in general and geo spatial data visualization.  Given a vector type map (.tab file) of districts geographically spanning my business area and csv file containing weekly sales volume per district. I tried to animate the weekly sales per district using QGIS time manager plugin. How to animate data from the csv by changing the vector map color , instead of plotting separate colored markers ?  I expected my result would be like this :

I am looking for a way to use the QGIS plugin "Time Manager" to animate a polygon shapefile. I have a polygon shapefile that has a field of population per year for each feature and I want the plugin to display the data year by year.  COUNTY_NAME / 2001_POP / 2002_POP / 2003_POP  Madison / 1500 / 2000 / 3000  Guilford / 1500 / 3000 / 4500  I have found tutorials that explains how to do it with a point layer, such as , but none with polygons. Any idea?


I want to get into Pokemon GO but unfortunately I live out in the middle of nowhere for the next six months. Is there any way I can make progress without having to drop cash, esp. given that I am unable to travel for my current situation?

I am really looking forward for the launch of Pokemon Go here in Portugal (as an excuse to go outside) but I'm really concerned if it will work with where I live. I pretty much live outside civilization:   3KM away from my house is a small village with ~50 people, 30KM away is a town with ~1000 people, 90KM away is one of the biggest cities in the country, Coimbra   Therefore, I would like to know if I will be able to play Pokemon Go or if I need to use my private jet to get to the nearest Pokemon.  PS: What I actually mean with this question is: Will I be able to catch Pokemon in the wild, or will they not spawn? I have GPS and mobile data


During my recent re-reading of The Two Towers I was struck again by a question that has bothered me since I was a youngling: What on earth is up with the Entwives?  Treebeard says they went away in the distant past and just... got lost?  Did Tolkien ever make mention of them again, or is this one of those unsolved mysteries of Middle Earth?

In the book The Two Towers Treebeard tells Merry and Pippin the sad story of the Entwives, who were lost (literally lost - they didn't die); he says the Ents believe that they "may meet [the Entwives] again in a time to come" and find a new home together where they can all live in peace.  However, he also says:      "But it is foreboded that that will only be when we both have lost all that we now have"   This loss will take the form of Sauron "withering" the woods of the Ents, just as Sauron once destroyed the gardens of the Entwives.  Then Treebeard sings an Elvish song about the Ents and Entwives, which ends with the lines     Together we [Ents and Entwives] will take the road that leads into the West,   And far away will find a land where both our hearts may rest.   Granted, fading into the West and traveling to a far away land there is a constant theme among the Elves, and this is an Elvish song, not an Entish one, but Treebeard says the Ents love it as well, which suggests that it reflects not only Elvish thought, but also Entish thought.    All of this is very familiar, and echoes the persistent thread woven throughout Tolkien's work - Arda and Middle-earth are changing;  the ancient world of mythology is transforming into the world of history in which we live today;  the old order is passing away;  the time of the Elves is over, and the time of Men is beginning;  magic will fade and science will supplant it; this final war against Sauron will be the last time that evil is gathered into a single, personified entity, and henceforth, the one ultimate evil will be replaced by many lesser, more insidious, subtler evils; and so on and so forth.  My question is this:  When Treebeard and the Elvish song speak of the Ents and Entwives finding a new, permanent home in the West, are they referring to Aman?  Will the Ents and Entwives eventually go to the Undying Lands?  The only other option seems to be that Tolkien thought the Ents would either die out or linger in Arda forever;  in the latter scenario, the Ents would presumably still be around today, though I would imagine that they all became what Treebeard referred to as "treeish", more or less immobile, and largely silent.  So if the Ents don't go to the Undying Lands, did they die out, go somewhere else, or did they, in Tolkien's imagination, linger on to modern times, hoever treeish they may have become?  Edit:   has this to say about the fate of the Ents;  the first citation (marked 6) is to Robert Foster's Complete Guide to Middle-earth, and the second (marked 14) is to Return of the King, specifically the chapter "Many Partings":     The Ents remained in Fangorn where they probably dwindled in the following Ages,[6] but Galadriel wished to Treebeard that they would meet again in Tasarinan, when Beleriand is lifted again from the waves, in Spring.[14]


I make  dictionary in python and append it into a list,after that I updated my keys value and then append it into my list but it remove my previous record and overwrite with the new record. How can I get out of it please guide me.  dic={ "name":"karan",  "password":"karan123" }  List1=[]  List1.append(dic)  dic.update({"name":"Zakir","password"="Zakir123"  List1.append(dic)   Result:  [{"name":"zakir","password":"zakir123"},{"name":"zakir","password":"zakir123"},]   But I want it like this:  [{"name":"karan","password":"laran123"},{"name":"zakir","password":"zakir123"},]

I needed to create a list of lists in Python, so I typed the following: my_list = [[1] * 4] * 3  The list looked like this: [[1, 1, 1, 1], [1, 1, 1, 1], [1, 1, 1, 1]]    Then I changed one of the innermost values: my_list[0][0] = 5  Now my list looks like this: [[5, 1, 1, 1], [5, 1, 1, 1], [5, 1, 1, 1]]    which is not what I wanted or expected. Can someone please explain what's going on, and how to get around it?


Let $R$ be an arbitrary ring and $X$ an irreducible $R$-scheme (let work for example with $X :=\mathbb{P}^m_R$) and $\mathcal{L}$ an invertible sheaf on $X$. We intend to construct a morphism $f: X \to \mathbb{P}^n_R$ to projective space.  According Hartshorne's  (page 150) or Bosch's (p 450) "Algebraic geometry" to construct such morphism is equivalent to give following data:  $s_0,s_1,..., s_n \in \Gamma(X, \mathcal{L})$ global sections such that they generate $X$ in the sense $X = \bigcup_{i=0} ^n X_{s_i}$ where $X_{s_i}$ are non vanishing loci wrt $s_i$.   Then we can locally define  the maps $f_i: X_{s_i} \to D_+(t_i)$ via ring maps $R[t_0/t_i, ..., t_m/t_i] \to \Gamma(\mathcal{O}_X,X_{s_i}), t_j/t_i \mapsto s_j/s_i$ and glueing them together give the desired morphism $f:X \to \mathbb{P}^n_R$. (*)  Remark: By construction we have $s_i:= f^{\#}(t_i)$.  Following question:   Let assume that $\mathcal{L}= \mathcal{O}_X$ and $\Gamma(\mathcal{O}_X,X)=R$.  Consider constant sections $s_0,s_1,..., s_n \in \Gamma(\mathcal{O}_X,X)=R$.  My question is why then the induced morphism $f: X \to \mathbb{P}^n_R$ by this data is constant?  REMARK: This question is based on following previous thread   of mine as also linked below and is meant to find an argument for constance of $f$ using arguments for ***general scheme morphisms**** instead of argueing like in case for morphisms between varieties.   Here I explicitely mean the following problem that occures in the answer in the related thread which hornestly doesn't satisfy me since the argument given there only covers the case when we consider $f$ as a morphism of varieties.   Indeed in this case using contravariant category equivalence between affine varieties and that of finitely generated reduced algebras over a field $k$ we can easily describe the morphism $f$ for given sections $s_i$ in following way:  We set $f: x \mapsto (s_0(x): s_1(x): ...:  s_n(x))= (s_0: s_1: ...:  s_n) \in \mathbb{P}^n_R$ is constant since the $s_i \in R$ are by assumption constant.  But if we leave the world of varieties then the morphism cannot just naively described as above nevertheless only using glueing technique as described in (*).  My question is how to show rigorously (without handweavings in the direction of the variety world) that in this case if the $s_i \in R$ are choosen as constants then $f$ is also a constant morphism?  btw: Does the expression $(s_0(x): s_1(x): ...:  s_n(x))$ have a meaning for morphisms to $\mathbb{P}^n_R$ in category of schemes? we have $s_i(x) \in \kappa(x) = \mathcal{O}_{X,x}/m_x$ so $(s_0(x): s_1(x): ...:  s_n(x))$ can't be expected to be a "point" of projective space.

I'm going to prove following exercise from Bosch's "Algebraic Geometry and Commutative Algebra" (page 461):    I'm struggle with proving that if $m < n$ then the morphism $\varphi: \mathbb{P}^n_R \to \mathbb{P}^m_R$ must be constant.   I tried following:  Assume that we have such non constant $\varphi$. Then we get $m+1$ global sections $s_i \in \Gamma(\mathbb{P}^n, \mathcal{L})$ where $\mathcal{L}:= \varphi^*\mathcal{O}_{P^m}(1)$ where $s_i:= f^{\#}(t_i)$ for canonical $t_i \in \Gamma(\mathbb{P}^m, \mathcal{O}_{P^m}(1))= \oplus_{i=0}^m \mathcal{O}_{P^m}(0) \cdot t_i$.   Since $Pic(\mathbb{P}^n)= \mathbb{Z}$ we conclude $f^*\mathcal{O}_{P^m}(1)= \mathcal{O}_{P^n}(d)$ for a $d \ge 0$ (otherwise it would not have global sections.  Denote $U:= span(s_i \vert i \in \{0,1,...,m\})= <f^{\#}(t_i) \vert i \in \{0,1,...,m\}>_R $ the $R$-module subspace of $\Gamma(\mathbb{P}^n, \mathcal{O}_{P^n}(d))$.  Since the $t_i$ generate $\Gamma(\mathbb{P}^m, \mathcal{O}_{P^m}(1))$ then the pullbacks $s_i$ generate $\Gamma(\mathbb{P}^n, \mathcal{O}_{P^n}(d))$, therefore $U= \Gamma(\mathbb{P}^n, \mathcal{O}_{P^n}(d))$.   Since $m<n$ by assumption and $\Gamma(\mathbb{P}^n, \mathcal{O}_{P^n}(d)))$ is generated by exactly $n+1$ elements if $d>0$ and otherwise $\Gamma(\mathbb{P}^n, \mathcal{O}_{P^n}(0))=R$ is generated by one element, we conclude $d=0$.  So $\varphi^*\mathcal{O}_{P^m}(1) = \mathcal{O}_{P^n}$ is the structure sheaf and all it's global sections are constants. Therefore also $s_i$.  What I don't understand is why does it already imply that $\varphi$ is constant, so that $\varphi(\mathbb{P}^n)=pt$?  We consider now the construction for $\varphi: X \to P^m$ in detail. As in Hartshorne described it comes by glueing the restrictions $\phi_i: X_{s_i} \to D_+(t_i)$ via ring maps $k[t_0/t_i, ..., t_m/t_i] \to \Gamma(\mathcal{O}_X,X_{s_i}), t_j//t_i \mapsto s_j/s_i$. Since $s_i$ constants we get $X= X_{s_i}$ and therefore all $\varphi_i$ factorise over $Spec(\Gamma(\mathcal{O}_X,X)$. Then also $\varphi$ factorise through this affine scheme.  So that it indeed suffice to show that the composition $X_{s_i}\to Spec(\Gamma(\mathcal{O}_X,X) \to D_+(t_i)$ is already constant. But how?


I tried to get an expression for the variance of a sum of a random number of iid random variables. My question is whether it is correct and, if not, what is wrong or what additional assumptions might be missing.  Specifically, let:  $$S=\sum_1^N{X_i},$$ where $N$ is a non-negative integer-valued random variable.  Suppose that the distributions of both $N$ and $X$ are known (and $X_i$ are iid), I want to know the value of the variance of $S$.  Is the following solution correct?  $$V(S)=V(X)E(N)+E(X)^2V(N)$$

In the vein of , I'm now at a roadblock on question 3 of this sheet:    (note: it's not my intention to ask every question I get stuck on here, merely the ones which have interesting general results; it just so happens that the two I've struggled with so far fit this criteria)  It goes as follows:  Let $N$ be a non-negative integer-valued random variable with mean $\mu_1$ and variance $\sigma_1^2$, and let $X_1, X_2, ...$ be random variables, each with mean $\mu_2$ and variance $\sigma_2^2$; furthermore, assume that $N, X_1, X_2,  . . .$ are independent. Without using generating functions, calculate the mean and variance of the random variable $S_N = X_1 + ... + X_N$ (when $N=0$ interpret $S_N$ as $0$).  I have the answer to calculating the mean, which I'll write up as an answer for future reference. Here's where I've got to with the variance bit:  $\mathbb{E}(S_N^2) = 0.P(N=0) + \sum_{r=1}^\infty\mathbb{E}((\sum_{i=1}^rX_i)^2).P(N=r)$  For $r=1$, we have the inner expectation as: $\mathbb{E}(X_1^2)$ which is equal to $\sigma_2^2+\mu_2^2$.  For $r > 1$, we have the inner expectation equal to: $r(\sigma_2^2 + 2\mu_2^2)$  So $\mathbb{E}(S_N^2) = (\sigma_2^2+\mu_2^2)P(N=1) + (\sigma_2^2 + 2\mu_2^2)\sum_{r=2}^\infty rP(N=r)$  which is almost in the form where I can use the same trick as in calculating the mean, but not quite.  Any help is much appreciated.


Argh, this happens to me all the time: I type a comment like "@Jon can you please explain that part in more detail?" and it ends up as "can you please explain that part in more detail?". This makes me look like a fool that doesn't capitalise the first letter of sentences.  This was mentioned before:    This feature won't go away and automatically capitalising my comment would not be a perfect solution either, so I am fine with this. I (grudgingly) accept that.  BUT!     possible duplicate of  –      What is this? There is no reason to have bad capitalisation on this one. Can this tiny little byte in the source code be fixed? Please? Pretty please? Please pretty please with sugar on top?

The comment reads:     possible duplicate of [link]   The missing capitalization bothers me a lot; it should be Possible.


My son has an Eee PC and he tried to turn it into a Chromebook.  It did not work and the computer is stuck on trying to load chromium.  I asked an IT Tech at our school how to fix it. He suggested using Ubuntu. I downloaded Ubuntu 18.04.1 LTS and I tried to boot it from a USB drive and I received this message:  This kernel requires an x86-64 CPU, but only detected an i686 CPU   How do I fix it, so I can use the PC?  Do I need to do something different?

The error message is      This kernel requires an x86-64 CPU,but only detected an i686 CPU. Unable to boot - please use a kernel appropriate for your CPU.   How can I overcome this?


So I have developed a C++ console application in Visual Studio to keep log of attendance with a credit card reader, then spit out a .csv file. However, as the program is right now, the user has to manually type "exit" for the program to close successfully and generate the .csv.  I know that non-tech people wouldn't realize this and could just hit the X button and lose their data. Is there any way to catch the signal and allow the program to do its cleanup work and close?  The program is already Windows-only so that is not an issue.

I guess the question says it all, but, what happens if someone closes a c++ console app? As in, clicks the "x" in the top corner. Does it instantly close? Does it throw some sort of exception? Is it undefined behavior?


If i have an object with a defined mass, like a stone, and put it on the shelf it will sit there forever (lets forget all external influences).  But if I have to hold up the stone I will eventually get tired, feel pain, and give up.  Obviously I am using up energy to keep the stone where it is. But, if it takes energy to keep an object at a certain hight it could not sit on the shelf forever because it would need infinite energy.  What am I missing?

I read the definition of  as  $$W ~=~ \vec{F} \cdot \vec{d}$$  $$\text{ Work  =  (Force) $\cdot$ (Distance)}.$$ If a book is there on the table, no work is done as no distance is covered. If I hold up a book in my hand and my arm is stretched, if no work is being done, where is my energy going?


My question arose from my previous question about a wind direction measuring circuit. Please have a look at the manual:  And here is the figures about my questions:   In Figure A, the potentiometer is used to output voltage proportional to the wind vane rotation angle.  In Figure B, the potentiometer comes to an end at point 1 and causes a short between the lines WHT(wind excitation voltage) and GRN(wind direction signal). But in theory current flows from + to ground. Do you think there is a path for current to flow in Figure B?  In Figure C, it seems like the situation is safe. Although the lines GRN and BLK are shorted at point 2, there is no potential difference and no current flows. Is that right?  My real confusion is about D6 and D7 the transzorb diodes(zener clampers?). I couldn’t really figure out in which circumstances they function and what happens in the absence of them. Why do we really need them?   In the manual it states: “To prevent false readings, signal conditioning electronics should clamp the signal to excitation or reference level when this occurs.” Do you think one needs an extra circuitry at the output?

I have some difficulty to understand the schematics for the following anemometer:   I have confusion at 5 points.  Here is the schematics:     In the manual it states: “Avoid a short circuit between the wind direction signal line and either the excitation or reference lines. Although there is a 1K ohm current limiting resistor in series with the wiper for protection, damage to the potentiometer may occur if a short circuit condition exists” But when I look at the circuit diagram it seems to me like there is no problem if wind direction signal line and the reference line shorts. It seems like there is danger if wind direction signal line via the 10K potentiometer comes to dead spot and shorts with the excitation line. Do you think there is a problem if wind direction signal line the 10K potentiometer comes to dead spot and shorts with the reference line? What is the use for the capacitor C1 at the circuit diagram which is connected in parallel with ac signal output for the wind speed? What is the use for D6 and D7? Could you give an example when are they beneficial? In the manual it states: It is important to note that, while the sensor mechanically rotates through 360°, the full scale wind direction signal from the signal conditioning occurs at 355°. The signal conditioning electronics must be adjusted accordingly. For example, in a circuit where 0 to 1.000 VDC represents 0° to 360°, the output must be adjusted for 0.986 VDC when the instrument is at 355°. (355°/360° X 1.000 volts = 0.986 volts). Is total dead spot 5° form only one side or it is at  both sides as 2,5°+2,5°? In the manual it states: “To prevent false readings, signal conditioning electronics should clamp the signal to excitation or reference level when this occurs.” Is that about the dead spot part in case of short circuit? Does a zener clamp work for that purpose at the signal output?


Ideally, I'd like the ability to see passed/failed audits on my Review History page.  If that's not possible, can we at least have some obvious denotation (even as simple as an asterisk) next to audit questions so we can find them quickly?  I know that any audit questions that are deleted are not visible in our history, and I'm fine with that.  But at times I'd like the ability to review past audits to help me understand what I did wrong, refresh that info in my brain, and use that info to make better review decisions in the future.

Confession: I have been suspended a couple times from reviewing activities.  Partial Redemption: I have become better and better at passing audits.   I'd like to see my recent and distant history with audits.  Even better, I'd like to see my history with the various types of audits.    I'm not sure this has much value beyond self-reflection and self-analysis. I'd like to see if there are patterns to when I was more likely to fail (do I get sloppy after 10 or 20?), or if there are certain types of reviews at which I struggle more (e.g., suggested edit vs close question).  I suspect that if I reviewed my history and revisited audits I failed, I could create rules and rhythms for myself to become a better reviewer.


Hello friends  I was stuck with the following code output.  x = 1; var a = 5; var b = 10;  var c = function(a, b, c) {              var x = 10;             document.write(x);              document.write(a);                   var f = function(a, b, c) {                     b = a;                      document.write(b+"\n");                      b = c;                     var x = 5;                 }              f(a,b,c);              document.write(b);   }  c(8,9,10); document.write(b);  document.write(x);   the expected output is : 10  8  8  9  10  1 but was confused with the output why the value of b in 10  8  8  9  10  1 is not 9. How the value of b got 10 instead. Please help me to understand the concept.

What is the scope of variables in javascript? Do they have the same scope inside as opposed to outside a function? Or does it even matter? Also, where are the variables stored if they are defined globally?


What happened here?    This is the relevant HTML (via Inspector):

   Reloading the page (which is the main page of Skeptics, incidentally) fixes the problem – so it’s not very serious … just puzzling.

I hope someone can see this post because the same thing happens in the bugs tab on meta for me right now:     Edit:   works now.   still broken (as in screenshot).   Edit:  Go tag listing now working again.


I have a line shapefile that contains contour lines. The attribute table of the shapefile has a field that gives the elevation of each line. I would like to draw a line across the contours and get an elevation profile. I found the Profile tool but it seems to require some sort of raster layer, and not my line shapefile layer (gives message "active layer is not a profilable layer"). It may be that I need to use some other plugin to convert my shapefile layer to the proper layer to use in the Profile tool.   Is there some sort of step-by-step tutorial on what plugins I need and how to convert a shapefile layer to the correct type of layer so that I can obtain an elevation profile by drawing a line across the contours?  Using QGIS 2.18.18

When using the Profile Tool plugin I get a graph that looks like the 2nd derivative of what I want. That is, it looks like the rate of change of the slope of the elevation profile. I just want the elevation profile! The data is present for good 1' contour lines. Why is the Profile Tool interpreting the data in such a bizarre way? What am I missing? And what are the Min and Max units?


The rules in my copy of Carcassonne state that cities that consist of only two tiles are worth only 2 points.   I played another copy of carcassonne (10nth anniversary edition), and the rules don't mention this rule anywhere and so I'm left to assume that each tile would each be worth two points like a normal city.    My question is, which set of rules is correct (most up to date, I guess)?

It seems that the scoring for fields and cities in Carcassonne varies -- has this changed over the years, or is this a difference between the US and international versions? Are there generally-accepted correct scoring rules for fields and cities?


I recently wrote an answer about the verb agreement when using the word "some", and I needed a noun that didn't have a plural. I had a discussion about this with , that has been moved to .  But we didn't really find a noun that absolutely does not have a plural. Do you know a noun that doesn't have a plural?

While attempting to answer  @ProgramFox has been trying to come up with an example of a noun with no plural.   The best I've come up with is egotism and Judaism.  ()  Some of the contenders I've already shot down are air, water, and money.  (Airs, waters, and monies are all legitimate plurals.)  My question is, a) Do my two examples have actual plurals?  b) Are there any other non-ism nouns that don't have a plural?


What's the known figures for the world population of magical humans? Further details, where available, is appreciated - population levels across geographical regions etc.

The question "" got me to wondering how many wizards and witches there were on the planet during the events of the Harry Potter series.    Was there any information given regarding this, either in the books or from JK Rowling herself? If there is not, then a best guess calculation would suffice.


Considering only Black Holes that form due to gravitational collapse since the big-bang, wouldn't it be true that that have not (in our reference frame), in fact, formed a singularity or even much of the interior of the black hole given GR time dilation?

One thing I know about black holes is that an object gets closer to the event horizon, gravitation time dilation make it move more slower from an outside perspective, so that it looks like it take an infinite amount of time for the object to reach the event horizon. It seems like a similar process should slow the formation of the black hole itself: As the star collapses, its gravitational time dilation make itself collapse more slowly. This make me wonder, are what astronomers claim to be black holes really black holes, or are they stars that progressively make themselves more similar to one without actually reaching the stage of having an event horizon?  EDIT: Contemplating one answer, I realize the question is ambiguous. What does finite time mean in general relativity. Here is a less ambiguous question: Is there a connected solution of 3+1 dimensional general relativity with one space-like slice not have a singularity, and another space-like slice having one.


Let $G$ be a group of $2 \times 2$ matrices and $N$ be the subgroup of $G$ of matrices with determinant 1. Prove $N=G'$ where $G'$ is commutator subgroup of $G$.  I was able to show $G'$ is subset of $N$ but having difficulty proving converse. My first approach was to break any $n\in N$ into $g_1g_2g_1^{-1}g_2^{-1}$. Then I tried to use normal subgroup property. For $n\in N$, $n=gn_1g^{-1}$ for some $g\in G$ and $n_1\in N$ as $N$ is normal. Now $nn_1^{-1}=gn_1g^{-1}n_1^{-1}$, this shows $nn_1^-1 \in G'$. What should be the next step from here?

Let $GL_2(R)$ be the general linear group of $2\times2$ matrices and $SL_2(R)$ the special linear group of $2\times2$ matrices. Show that the commutator subgroup of $GL_2(R)$ is $SL_2(R)$.  I can show that the commutator subgroup is contained in $SL_2(R)$ as if $A,B \in GL_2(R)$ then $$\operatorname{det}(ABA^{-1}B^{-1})=\operatorname{det}(A)\operatorname{det}(B)\operatorname{det}(A^{-1})\operatorname{det}(B^{-1})=1.$$   But how can I show the reverse inclusion? That is, that $SL_2(R)$ is contained in the commutator subgroup of $GL_2(R)$.  Any help will be appreciated.


This is homework but I’m really stuck. The question is to prove a fromula which states: $$1+\cos\theta+\cos2\theta+...+\cos n\theta=\frac{1}{2}+\frac{\sin(n+\frac{1}{2})\theta}{2\sin\frac{\theta}{2}}$$ I want to solve it using complex numbers So I came to this  (I missed Re in last one) Can you guys please help me finish this ?

I am being asked to prove that $$\sum\limits_{k=0}^{n}\cos(kx)=\frac{1}{2}+\frac{\sin(\frac{2n+1}{2}x)}{2\sin(x/2)}$$ I have some progress made, but I am stuck and could use some help. What I did: It holds that $$\sum\limits_{k=0}^{n}\cos(kx)=\sum\limits_{k=0}^{n}Re(\cos(kx))=\sum\limits_{k=0}^{n}Re(\cos(x)^{k})=Re(\sum\limits_{k=0}^{n}\cos(x)^{k})=Re\left(\cos(0)\cdot\frac{\cos(x)^{n}-1}{\cos(x)-1}\right)=Re\left(\frac{\cos(x)^{n}-1}{\cos(x)-1}\right) $$ For any $z_{1},z_{2}\in\mathbb{C}$ we have it that if $z_{1}=a+bi,z_{2}=c+di$ then $$\frac{z_{1}}{z_{2}}=\frac{z_{1}\overline{z2}}{|z_{2}|^{2}}=\frac{(a+bi)(c-di)}{|z_{2}|^{2}}=\frac{ac-bd+i(bc-ad)}{|z_{2}|^{2}}$$ hence $$Re\left(\frac{z_{1}}{z_{2}}\right)=\frac{Re(z_{1})Re(z_{2})-Im(z_{1})Im(z_{2})}{|z_{2}|^{2}}$$ Thus, $$Re\left(\frac{\cos(x)^{n}-1}{\cos(x)-1}\right)=\frac{(\cos(nx)-1)(\cos(x)-1)-\sin(nx)\sin(x)}{(\cos(x)-1)^{2}+\sin^{2}(x)}=\frac{\cos(nx)\cos(x)-\cos(nx)-\cos(x)+1-\sin(nx)\sin(x)}{\cos^{2}(x)-2\cos(x)+1+\sin^{2}(x)}=\frac{\cos(nx)\cos(x)-\cos(nx)-\cos(x)+1-\sin(nx)\sin(x)}{-2\cos(x)+2}=\frac{\cos(nx)\cos(x)-\cos(nx)-\cos(x)+1-\sin(nx)\sin(x)}{-2(\cos(x)-1)}= \frac{=\cos(nx)\cos(x)-\cos(nx)-\cos(x)+1-\sin(nx)\sin(x)}{-2(-2\cdot\sin^{2}(x/2))}=\frac{\cos(nx)\cos(x)-\cos(nx)-\cos(x)+1-\sin(nx)\sin(x)}{4\sin^{2}(x/2)}=\frac{\cos(nx)\cos(x)-\cos(nx)-\cos(x)+1-\sin(nx)\sin(x)}{4\sin^{2}(x/2)}=\frac{\cos(x(n+1))-\cos(nx)-\cos(x)+1}{4\sin^{2}(x/2)} $$ This is the part where I am stuck, I would appriciate any help or hint on how to continue. Edit: Given the corrections by André I get: $$(\cos(nx+x)-1)(\cos(x)-1)+\sin(nx+x)\sin(x)=\cos(nx+x)\cos(x)-\cos(nx)-\cos(x)+1+\sin(nx+x)\sin(x)$$ so $$\cos(nx+x)\cos(x)+\sin(nx+x)\sin(x)=\cos(xn+x-x)-\cos(nx)=0$$ Edit 2: I found anoter mistake in the above, I will try to correct Edit 3: When multiplying correctly the above it works out :-)


Some people have a very specific attitude that might not technically result in them breaking the rules, but can really push other's buttons or get under their skin.  In cases like this, where a person MIGHT be a little helpful but with an attitude, or taking little cheap shots here and there, why can we not block them?  Flagging or reporting them will do little good, maybe even no good, but they are simply not the kind of person one would ever want to hear from again.  It's very upsetting to me that I have to deal with people like that.  I don't need my blood pressure shooting up like that, yet I VALUE ACTUAL answers to questions that I ask.  I'm here on any given Stack Exchange site, JUST trying to find answers to a question, and here comes some guy with an attitude that decides he's going to vaguely answer my question to the point where I have to ask for clarification and then he comes back with an attitude telling me he already answered it and tries to point out how clear he was, all while giving me an attitude and even taking little cheap shots.  Or worse, gives an attitude right away and for no reason.  These people are basically taunting me, and then I might go off on them and then all of a sudden I'M the bad guy.  It's not right and it's not just.  I am getting very turned off to the community because of people like that and it SERIOUSLY deters me from participating in the community, but at the same time, there are plenty of kind people that will actually answer my question, and if I ask for clarification, they will give it in a very nice way.  I'm kind of tired of being turned into the bad guy because someone taunted me and shot my blood pressure up and really got under my skin.  And everyone's answer to that?  I shouldn't be on the internet, or I shouldn't be here.  But why should I have to miss out on a great resource just because other people get on my nerves when if I could simply block them, that would be the end of it?  I'm talking hard stop, solid wall end.  No last word from me, just block them and be done with it.  That's all I want, to block people that I know will never provide me with a constructive answer, or I know will only taunt me or give me an attitude.  Please let us do this.  As it stands, I avoid asking questions on stack exchange sites because of some of the replies that I've received in the past.  It would be such a great relief to be able to ask a question with the knowledge that if someone is going to give me a hard time, I can simply block them and never hear from them again.

Stack Overflow has successfully borrowed at least one XBox feature (Achievements).  I'd like to see another feature borrowed as well. Let's say I'm playing Halo online and another player is being a bigot.  I have the option to add him to a list of ignored users.  After doing that, all the racist things he says will never be heard through my headphones anymore. Now, on Stack Overflow, I'd like the ability to add a user to a list of ignored users.  This would hide all of that user's comments, and maybe his questions and answers as well (not sure if hiding questions/answers is necessary). This serves multiple purposes:  It would make it easy for users to avoid other users' flamebait. It would give users a more appropriate response to flamebait. The ability to start flame wars would be reduced, since fewer users would see those comments. Users would now have an incentive to be more diplomatic, as there is now a negative consequence to the behavior (the silent treatment). Administrators could review which users are the most often ignored, which would be a strong indication that someone should be  or even locked out of their account. Administrators wouldn't have to spend as much time dealing with complaints about abusive users, since users would have a better way to respond.    makes a good point in a comment to an answer, that I thought should get more visibility:  I had a problem, reported it and got the response "not bad enough to do anything about, sorry". Which is kind of true, because the only options available to the mods are the nuclear one (penalty box) and the zero-effect one (do nothing). We need a middle ground option where abuse can be handled for you without also being handled for everyone.


When reviewing a couple of late answers I came across 2 answers from the same user that were exactly the same. When checking the users page I saw that he had 4 answers, all of the answers are the same:       What is right way to deal with these answers? Should I flag with needs moderator attention and add all the answers in the description or is there something else I could do?

These three questions are essentially the same:        I found a good solution for it, blogged, and answered all three of these questions with the same post. Two of those were deleted, so I'm assuming it's bad form to answer multiple questions with the same answer.  What is the proper way to help people who've asked the same question in a different place?  Also, why was the answer with one upvote deleted, leaving one with no upvotes?


It seems that the word pandemic is generally understood to refer to a large or global geographic area.  Is it therefore redundant to say "global pandemic" in a sentence such as, "The restaurant is closed due to the global pandemic," or is "pandemic" by itself more stylistically correct? Note that my question is specifically about "pandemic" versus "global pandemic," not "epidemic" as in the question . Merriam Webster Unabridged[1] says for pandemic (adj):  pan·dem·ic (adjective): occurring over a wide geographic area and affecting an exceptionally high proportion of the population.   Wiktionary[2] says:  (epidemiology) Of a disease: epidemic over a wide geographical area and affecting a large proportion of the population; also, of or pertaining to a disease of this nature.  The  on March 11:  There are now more than 118,000 cases in 114 countries, and 4,291 people have lost their lives.  … We have therefore made the assessment that COVID-19 can be characterized as a pandemic.   [1] Webster's Third New International Dictionary, Unabridged, s.v. “pandemic,” accessed June 15, 2020, . [2] Wiktionary contributors, "pandemic," Wiktionary, The Free Dictionary,  (accessed June 15, 2020).

I really want to hear from the experts the definitions of all 4 terms especially whether global epidemic is equivalent to pandemic. Or should this question be directed to the epidemiologist?   Pandemic Global Epidemic Epidemic Endemic   I have Googled the terms and I understand the definition of 1), 3) and 4). In short the definition is based on geographical location and scale of outbreak, Pandemic is an outbreak of disease on a global scale (e.g. HIV). Epidemic is an outbreak of disease on a localised area. Endemic is a disease in a localised area. However, a definition for Global Epidemic is not available online.  Recently, WHO mentioned that "“It is important to put this on the table: this virus(Covid19) may become just another endemic virus in our communities, and this virus may never go away,” WHO emergencies expert Mike Ryan told an online briefing." Isn't covid19 considered a pandemic since it is on a global scale and is spreading rapidly?  Another term that I come across often is Global Epidemic. For example in the WHO website, HIV is listed as Global Epidemic. Does that mean Pandemic and Global Epidemic are the same?


I have a data table like this in excel:  ColA     ColB A        1 A        2 B        2 B        3 C        4   In a different sheet, I am trying to create two column for which the values will be drop down, using the validation.  For each row of this sheet, the first column will need to be the unique values from ColA, i.e. {A, B, C}, and depending on what was selected there, I want the second column to be presented only with the acceptable choices, i.e. if A is selected, the drop down would show {1, 2}, if B is selected, the drop down would show {2, 3}, ...  Any ideas? I feel I need a function in the validation selection that would return a subset of a list based on a selection criteria, like a SELECTIF ... All the functions I find are aggregate functions that have a nice if version (e.g. COUNTIF, ...)  I prefer to do this without VBA.  Thanks

hope someone can help to crack this one?  I've got a table on my data entry tab (sheet 1) where each row includes two data validation drop down lists (source is on sheet2). I want the options in the second drop down list (k13) to be dependant on what is selected in the first drop down list (g13)...  ie. if you select 'Diary' in the first drop down box then the second drop down only has 'Cheese', 'Milk' and 'Yogurt' - likewise, if you select 'Fruit' in the first box - I want the only options to be available specific to that categories column in the lookup table on sheet 2 (which are 'apple', 'pear' and 'banana' in this case)?  Please help - i think this is a vlookup indirect formula??


It seems that both these refer to cases where the regressed (dependent) variable can only take certain values, as opposed to a linear regression.  So what is the difference between probit and logistic regression?

What is the difference between  and ?  I'm more interested here in knowing when to use logistic regression, and when to use Probit.  If there is any literature which defines it using , that would be helpful as well.


when I try to open forge from the minecraft launcher, it doesn't load. I even did it without mods and it still didn't work. This is what I got from the game output:  [14:11:24] [main/INFO] [LaunchWrapper]: Loading tweak class name cpw.mods.fml.common.launcher.FMLTweaker [14:11:24] [main/INFO] [LaunchWrapper]: Using primary tweak class name cpw.mods.fml.common.launcher.FMLTweaker [14:11:24] [main/INFO] [LaunchWrapper]: Calling tweak class cpw.mods.fml.common.launcher.FMLTweaker [14:11:24] [main/INFO] [FML]: Forge Mod Loader version 7.10.1.1160 for Minecraft 1.7.10 loading [14:11:24] [main/INFO] [FML]: Java is Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM, version 1.8.0_25, running on Mac OS X:x86_64:10.10.1, installed at /Library/Internet Plug-Ins/JavaAppletPlugin.plugin/Contents/Home [14:11:24] [main/INFO] [LaunchWrapper]: Loading tweak class name cpw.mods.fml.common.launcher.FMLInjectionAndSortingTweaker [14:11:24] [main/INFO] [LaunchWrapper]: Loading tweak class name cpw.mods.fml.common.launcher.FMLDeobfTweaker [14:11:24] [main/INFO] [LaunchWrapper]: Calling tweak class cpw.mods.fml.common.launcher.FMLInjectionAndSortingTweaker [14:11:24] [main/ERROR] [LaunchWrapper]: Unable to launch java.util.ConcurrentModificationException     at java.util.ArrayList$Itr.checkForComodification(ArrayList.java:901) ~[?:1.8.0_25]     at java.util.ArrayList$Itr.remove(ArrayList.java:865) ~[?:1.8.0_25]     at net.minecraft.launchwrapper.Launch.launch(Launch.java:117) [launchwrapper-1.9.jar:?]     at net.minecraft.launchwrapper.Launch.main(Launch.java:28) [launchwrapper-1.9.jar:?]   I'm using 1.7.10 forge. i got the latest forge (10.13.2.1230) and it still doesn't work.  Mods:   Bibliocraft Assassins Craft parachute buildcraft mocreatures minions mod more nature nuclear bomb mod   PC Specifications:   iMac 24-inch, early 2008 2.8 GHz Intel Core 2 Duo 4 GB 800 MHz DDR2 SDRAM ATI Radeon HD 2600 Pro 256 MB

My minecraft will not start on only that version, I have a Windows 7 computer with Java 8u20 installed, because the latest java 7 update will not work at all(plus imma dev for other stuff).   [22:26:39] [main/INFO] [LaunchWrapper]: Loading tweak class name   cpw.mods.fml.common.launcher.FMLTweaker  [22:26:39] [main/INFO] [LaunchWrapper]: Using primary tweak class name   cpw.mods.fml.common.launcher.FMLTweaker  [22:26:39] [main/INFO] [LaunchWrapper]: Calling tweak class   cpw.mods.fml.common.launcher.FMLTweaker  [22:26:40] [main/INFO] [FML]: Forge Mod Loader version 7.10.25.1208 for Minecraft   1.7.10 loading  [22:26:40] [main/INFO] [FML]: Java is Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM, version   1.8.0_20, running on Windows 7:amd64:6.1, installed at C:\Program   Files\Java\jre1.8.0_20  [22:26:40] [main/INFO] [LaunchWrapper]: Loading tweak class name   cpw.mods.fml.common.launcher.FMLInjectionAndSortingTweaker  [22:26:40] [main/INFO] [LaunchWrapper]: Loading tweak class name   cpw.mods.fml.common.launcher.FMLDeobfTweaker  [22:26:40] [main/INFO] [LaunchWrapper]: Calling tweak class   cpw.mods.fml.common.launcher.FMLInjectionAndSortingTweaker  [22:26:40] [main/ERROR] [LaunchWrapper]: Unable to launch  java.util.ConcurrentModificationException     at java.util.ArrayList$Itr.checkForComodification(Unknown Source) ~[?:1.8.0_20]     at java.util.ArrayList$Itr.remove(Unknown Source) ~[?:1.8.0_20]     at net.minecraft.launchwrapper.Launch.launch(Launch.java:117) [launchwrapper-  1.9.jar:?]     at net.minecraft.launchwrapper.Launch.main(Launch.java:28) [launchwrapper-1.9.jar:?]  Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM warning: Using incremental CMS is deprecated and   will likely be removed in a future release


I am looking for an example of a test class where you cover the  catch (DmlException e) { //Code }  also catch (Exception e) { //Code }

This is a canonical question and answer developed by the community to help address common questions. If you've been directed here, or your question has been closed as a duplicate, please look through the resources here and use them to shape more specific questions. To browse all canonical questions and answers, including more unit test resources, navigate to the  tag.  This canonical question is intended to address several classes of common questions by providing a quick summary and links to comprehensive resources:   How is code coverage obtained and calculated? How do I increase my coverage?  Why can't I cover these lines? Why isn't the body of my loop or conditional statement covered?


Diabetes patients need to conduct the “fingerstick” a few times a day. One of the mechanisms of "fingerstick" is to take small amount of blood sample and put it onto a test strip. The enzyme on the test strip reduces the glucose and the electronics of the glucose meter detect the redox species produced. However, this method is painful and increase the risk of infection.  Photonic sensing technology opens up a new method for non-invasive blood glucose concentration. According to an article of  in 2013 (The link follows  ), the non-invasive kind was invented. By simply clipping the earlobe (without puncturing the skin), the blood glucose concentration could be measured. Does anybody knows the working principle for that? Or, suggest a paper describing that?

Diabetes patients need to conduct the “fingerstick” a few times a day. One of the mechanisms of "fingerstick" is to take small amount of blood sample and put it onto a test strip. The enzyme on the test strip reduces the glucose and the electronics of the glucose meter detect the redox species produced. However, this method is painful and increase the risk of infection.  Photonic sensing technology opens up a new method for non-invasive blood glucose concentration. According to an article of  in 2013 (The link follows  ), the non-invasive kind was invented. By simply clipping onto the earlobe (without puncturing the skin), the blood glucose concentration could be measured. Does anybody knows the working principle for that? Or, suggest a paper describing that?


As a  I get notification about pending suggested edit at the top bar. I can directly edit questions and answers. But as a less 20K reputation user I have to suggest edits for tag wiki and excerpt. I just suggested edits for . After suggesting edits, I got two pending suggested edits notification. So I clicked on it go review it. And I got this:        So I went to  to confirm whether there is actual pending edits or not and I got this:        But there were no pending suggested edits. But the top bar were still showing two pending edits.  So remove the notification for my own pending suggested edits for tag wiki from the top bar (same as the review page.)

On the new History beta site I have the privilege to approve tag edits already but my own edits still go into the review queue. And the review dashboard displays a different number of pending edits depending on where I am: on  I see one pending edit, on  I see none. I am pretty sure that the pending edit being displayed is my own - I edited a tag wiki and that edit hasn't been approved yet. It shouldn't be counted no matter where I am.


My professor wrote in an assignment that a random variable with an Inverse-Gamma 1 distribution has density function $$f_{ig}(\sigma|d,s) = C_g^{-1}(d,s)\cdot \sigma^{-(d+1)}\cdot \exp\left(-\frac{1}{2}\frac{s}{\sigma^2}\right)$$ where $$C_g(d,s) = \frac{1}{2}\cdot \Gamma\left(\frac{d}{2}\right)\cdot \left(\frac{2}{s}\right)^{\frac{d}{2}}.$$ This is quite different from the standard IG1 density. It does not appear to be a reparameterization or a form of the . If you plot it against a "normal" IG PDF with the same moments (mean = 0.5, SD = 2) the curves are quite different.  I find the $\sigma^2$ in the exponent to be particularly odd.  However, I'm not ready to say that this is a (massive) typo just yet. One reason is that - using this density as a prior - I get a posterior mode that is far less dependent on an initial guess than using the regular IG1 PDF.   One way to put my question, then, is: is this one of those optimization tricks of the trade or just a typo?  [Also: This is a prior density. So as long as this is proportional to a proper PDF I should be fine. (But I'll need to try to check that eventually.).]

I asked this question on mathoverflow yesterday and got a suggestion to try it here. I apologize if this is an easy question, but I can't seem to find an answer anywhere.  I'm trying to duplicate a macroeconomic paper that uses MCMC analysis to derive time series and parameter values. For the variance of a white noise term the authors of the original paper choose an inverse gamma prior of mean 0.5 and having a 90% confidence interval between 0.21 and 0.79.  I'm using Dynare to run my estimation and Dynare only accepts these kinds of parameters in terms of standard error. Therefore, my question basically amounts to "how do I find the square root of an inverse gamma distribution"?  In case it's not clear what I'm asking, here's how the model equation appears in the paper:  $a_t=\rho_a\times{a_{t-1}}+\epsilon_a;\hspace{20 pt}\epsilon_a\sim{N}(0,\sigma_a)$   $a_t$ follows a simple AR(1) process and $\epsilon_a$ is meant to be white noise with mean 0 and variance $\sigma_a$. The prior for $\sigma_a$ is supposed to follow an inverse gamma distribution with the mean and confidence interval above. My question then is how can I find the "square root of the distribution" so I can write an expression for the standard error of $\epsilon_a$, instead of its variance?  If it's not possible to come up with a simple expression for this, would you have any suggestions for roughly equivalent specifications of the prior?  Thanks in advance


How do you create your own package in Linux, just like cd, ls, or any third party package? All I know is how to create a .sh file, write a script in it and execute it using: bash file_name  But in addition to that I want to understand in more depth. Please explain the complete steps from downloading using apt-get to how to run it.

I have a single python script that I want to distribute as a deb package. It is a  which shows local date in Unity panel. I did follow  but I could not create a deb package because it fails.   Can someone give me a step-by-step instruction on what I should do? As far as I know this script depends on python-appindicator.   NOTE: I do not want any links to Debian/Ubuntu packaging instructions. I have seen most of them. I don't find them beginner friendly.


I have a Win7 PC with two hard drives. The primary is too small, and so I want to reload Win7 on the bigger drive, after making it the primary.   My problem is that when I have tried this in the past, the existing files and folders keep their original permissions, with some unknown SSID - the original installation and users which is no longer around. Then I keep getting permission errors.   The only way I've figured to avoid this previously, is to transfer all the data elsewhere, a separate drive, and treat this bigger drive as new: Format and go for it.   Is there another way?

I have an external HDD and I kind of messed up the file permissions but when fixing it I thought it is ok bc with my username I can access the files perfectly fine. Now that I use this with two PC (actually ATM I don't have access to my other PC) I can't access these files.  The problem is this directory has hundreds of folders with no permission for "everyone". I would like to give it the default permissions including have all access for the user "everyone". How do I do that via command line for these hundreds of folders?


I've learnt using the Work-Energy Theorem one can define potential energy and prove the conservation of mechanical energy. However, this only works for conservative forces while some forces in nature are not conservative. Since all macro forces in nature are made out of conservative fundamental forces at the micro scale, does this mean we can prove the conservation of energy using the work-energy theorem for all forces in nature?

My physics instructor told the class, when lecturing about energy, that it can't be created or destroyed.  Why is that?  Is there a theory or scientific evidence that proves his statement true or false?  I apologize for the elementary question, but I sometimes tend to over-think things, and this is one of those times. :)


My HTML layout looks like this: body //display: flex    nav //flex-basis: 85px    main //flex-grow: 1    footer //flex-basis: 50px   On desktop view, the footer is at the bottom: but if the content grows, later on, the footer is no more at the bottom, there is a gap between the bottom of the page and the end of the footer.  on mobile, you can immediately see the gap.   I'm using display: flex and looking for a way to make sure that the footer always stays at the bottom. her'es the layout css: body {   display: flex;   flex-direction: column;   min-height: 100vh; }  nav {   flex-basis: 85px; }  .main {   flex-grow: 1; } footer {   flex-basis: 50px;   background-color: #10182f;   color: white;   padding: 15px 0; }  Thanks in advance here are some images to clarify: Normal desktop view:  Longer viewport:  Normal mobile:

I have a simple 2-column layout with a footer that clears both the right and left div in my markup.  My problem is that I can't get the footer to stay at the bottom of the page in all browsers.  It works if the content pushes the footer down, but that's not always the case.


I am new with Latex and I want to fix my bibliography but it doesn't work well  this is my code of Latex  \documentclass[a4paper,12pt,oneside,latin1,utf8]{StyleRapport} \include{formatAndDefs} \usepackage{breakcites} \usepackage{makeidx} \makeindex \usepackage{multirow} \usepackage{latexsym}  %\usepackage[latin1]{inputenc} %\usepackage[utf8]{inputenc} \usepackage{float} \usepackage{epsfig} \usepackage{epstopdf} \usepackage{array} \usepackage{acronym} \usepackage{colortbl} \usepackage[table]{xcolor} \usepackage{fancyhdr} \usepackage{fancyhdr} \usepackage{graphicx} \usepackage{titletoc} \usepackage{minitoc} \usepackage{ragged2e} \usepackage{xcolor} \usepackage{slashbox,booktabs,amsmath} \pagestyle{fancy} \newcommand{\chaptertoc}[1]{\chapter*{#1} \addcontentsline{toc}{chapter}{#1} \markboth{\slshape\MakeUppercase{#1}}{\slshape\MakeUppercase{#1}}} \renewcommand{\headrulewidth}{0.3pt} \fancyhf{} \renewcommand{\chaptermark}[1]{\markboth{\bsc{\chaptername~\thechapter{} :} #1}{}} \renewcommand{\sectionmark}[1]{\markright{\thesection{} \ #1}} \renewcommand{\headrulewidth}{0.3pt} \lhead[]{\small{\rightmark}} \rhead[\small{\leftmark}]{} \cfoot[\small{\thepage}]{\thepage}  \begin{document} \include{PageDeGarde} \dominitoc \pagenumbering{roman} \frontmatter \chapter*{Remerciements}` \mainmatter \include{IntroductionGenerale} %\mainmatter \include{Chapter1} \include{Chapter2} \include{Chapter3} \include{Chapter4} \include{ConclusionGenerale} \bibliographystyle{StyleRapport} %On ne met rien ici, ca va se faire automatiquement après remplissage du fichier Bibliographie.bib %\bibliographystyle{plain} \bibliography{Bibliographie} %\newpage %\printindex \cleardoublepage \end{document}   and when I compile the bibliography.aux doesn't appear so please help me what to do?  I tried a lot to fixed at the begining I used   \usepackage[latin1]{inputenc}   then I changed to      \usepackage[utf8]{inputenc}  then I tried both of them

Hello I am newbie with Latex and I couldn't compile my bibliography.tex when I comment it the pfd work well but when I uncomment it. the PDF doesn't appear and I couldn't resolve it I tried a lot  this is my code   \documentclass[a4paper,12pt,oneside,latin1,utf8]{StyleRapport} \include{formatAndDefs} \usepackage{breakcites} \usepackage{makeidx} %\makeindex \usepackage{multirow} \usepackage{latexsym} \usepackage{cite} %\usepackage[latin1]{inputenc} %\usepackage[utf8]{inputenc} \usepackage{float} \usepackage{epsfig} \usepackage{epstopdf} \usepackage{array} \usepackage{acronym} \usepackage{colortbl} \usepackage[table]{xcolor} \usepackage{fancyhdr} \usepackage{fancyhdr} \usepackage{graphicx} \usepackage{titletoc} \usepackage{minitoc} \usepackage{ragged2e} \usepackage{xcolor} \usepackage{slashbox,booktabs,amsmath} \pagestyle{fancy} \newcommand{\chaptertoc}[1]{\chapter*{#1} \addcontentsline{toc}{chapter}{#1} \markboth{\slshape\MakeUppercase{#1}}{\slshape\MakeUppercase{#1}}} \renewcommand{\headrulewidth}{0.3pt} \fancyhf{} \renewcommand{\chaptermark}[1]{\markboth{\bsc{\chaptername~\thechapter{} :} #1}{}} \renewcommand{\sectionmark}[1]{\markright{\thesection{} \ #1}} \renewcommand{\headrulewidth}{0.3pt} \lhead[]{\small{\rightmark}} \rhead[\small{\leftmark}]{} \cfoot[\small{\thepage}]{\thepage}  \begin{document} \include{PageDeGarde} \dominitoc \pagenumbering{roman} \frontmatter \chapter*{Remerciements} \mainmatter \include{IntroductionGenerale} %\mainmatter \include{Chapter1} \bibliographystyle{StyleRapport} \bibliography{Bibliographie} \cleardoublepage \end{document}   My bibtex file called bibliography.tex and there is no bibliography.aux or bibliography.bll


It is clear from Archimedes Principle that, floating ice when melts completely does not cause any rise in water level , then how sea level is rising?

It was claimed that if an iceberg melts in the ocean, the sea level won't change as the ice displaces as much water as there will be melted water. The other claim was that the sea level should rise because oceans contain salt, so the water in oceans is denser than the water in the ice. Which one is the correct reasoning?


I can't find .local in home file Inside local file:  Inside home file:

How to show hidden files in Nautilus 3.20.3 Ubuntu 16.10?


Even after increasing the frequency why does the the ratio of Number of electron ejecting/number of capable photons to take out the electron remains constant? Check the image attached.

The situation is this.. I am performing a photoelectric effect experiment - just the usual - evacuated glass tube containing two metal electrodes connected to an external source of DC voltage (say an alkaline cell) and ammeter in series. I shine a light on one of the electrodes - the frequency is more than enough to cause eject photoelectrons, and the voltage of the cell opposes the electrons which are trying to get to the other electrode. The question is this - what happens to the current on increasing the intensity of light while keeping no. of photons falling on the electrode constant (in other words increasing the frequency)?   Does the current remain the same because the no. of photons falling on the electrode is constant and so no. of electrons being ejected is constant? Or does it increase because the electrons have more kinetic energy, ie, they are moving faster towards the other electrode so that the $t$ (time) term in $I$ = $q$/$t$ is less ($q$ remains constant because no. of electrons being ejected is still the same)?   This question appeared in one of my tests and the answer key says that the current remains constant but think that case 2 is correct and current would increase, which is why I asked this question.  Thanks.