I've been waiting for a girl like you. I've been waiting for a girl such as you. I believe both are grammatically correct constructions in English. Loosely speaking, I understand, they mean just about the same thing to most English speakers. If my understanding is correct, I was wondering if: (1) still, their meanings are slightly different because "like" implies comparison while "such as" implies inclusion just as "I like a girl like you" means I don't like you, but some other girls like you whereas "I like a girl such as you" means I like you and any girl like you. (2) both can be used interchangeably in certain contexts, but not always, because I've heard some English teachers say "like" often connotes comparison to hypothetical persons or things while "such as” is usually used when talking about specific persons or things. (3) there is any reason why the second construction with "such as", though perfectly grammatical, seems far less popular and used compared to the first one with "like". Would you say, if you agree on my take, that's probably because “such as” usually has a more formal air to it, making it sound rather old-fashioned or stilted? (4) that being said, few English speakers care and most think both can be used interchangeably as long as context allows because they're just different ways of saying the same thing.

This one never ceases to confuse me. When to use 'such as' and when to use 'like' while giving examples? Is there any clear rule?        Metros like Mumbai, Delhi and Karachi are unsafe after dark.    Metros such as Mumbai, Delhi and Karachi are unsafe after dark.       (Before anyone points out, Delhi and Karachi are unsafe round-the-clock, but it's just an example.)


I have installed a fresh Ubuntu on a desktop PC and connected my TP-Link (model: tl-wn8200nd) to it but it won't turn on. I tried it on a Windows PC and it turned on just fine. Please note that I'm completely new to Linux.

I'm testing Ubuntu 18.04 with my current desktopand everything works correctly except for the Wi-Fi adapter. I'm using a TP-LINK TL-WN8200ND version 2.  As requested , my wireless-info output is at .  I've tested Mint 19, Kubuntu and KDE neon, with similar results.  Is there an official driver that works out of the box?


I am from Venezuela and I do not speak English. I would like to help out here however, to answer questions I need to use Google Translate.  May I ask (and answer) questions in Spanish?

Otherwise known as  必须用英语吗？(is English required?) ¿Necesito hablar en inglés? ?האם אני חייב לכתוב באנגלית Muss ich auf Englisch schreiben?  Do I have to use English when posting a question, an answer or a comment on a Stack Exchange site?


Let $R$ be a ring, $\mathbb{Q}$ be the field of rational numbers, and $f,g: R \to \mathbb{Q}$ be homomorphisms such that $f(n)=g(n)$ for all $n\in \mathbb{Z}$, where $\mathbb{Z}$ is the ring of integers, show that $f=g$.  (Hint: first show $f(1/n)= g(1/n)$ for all $n \in \mathbb{Z}$)

I have two ring homomorphisms $f,g\colon \mathbb{Q}\to X$. I know that $f=g$ on the integers. How can I show that $f$ and $g$ agree on the rationals?   My attempt:  let $x,y \in \mathbb{Z}$, $y\neq 0$.  $$\begin{align*} f(x/y)&=f(x)f(1/y) &&\text{because }f\text{ is a ring homomorphism}\\  &=g(x)f(1/y) &&\text{because }f\text{ and }g\text{ agree on the integers} \end{align*}$$  I do not know how to rewrite $f(1/y)$ so that I can replace it with $g(1/y)$. Any hints will be much appreciated. Thanks.


I was going through the text: A First Course in Graph Theory by Chartrand, Zhang, where I came across the following claim, [here graph $G$ is of order $n$] :  Any two edges of $G$ that are colored the same cannot be adjacent of course. This says that we can never have more than $\frac{n}{2}$ edges of $G$ that are colored the same.  Which means that maximum number of non-adjacent vertices in a graph $G$ is $\frac{n}{2}$. The text does not give any reason or logic behind the same, which makes me feel that this fact is quite obvious and can be obtained quite intuitively. But I could not quite obtain it intuitively but rather I tried out a sort of small proof. Let $G$ be a graph with $n$ vertices. Let $G$ be such that $C_n$ is a subgraph of $G$. [The number $\frac{n}{2}$ made me feel that we are using the alternate edges from the maximum possible cycle in the graph.]  $\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad$The edges highlighted with yellow indicate the non adjacent edges in the graph If $n$ is even in the above diagram we shall attain the number $\frac{n}{2}$ of non adjacent edges. But suppose,of the sake of contradiction, there were $\frac{n}{2}+1$ non adjacent edges. But since the edges highlighted in yellow have covered all the vertices in $C_n$, not is impossible for us to incorporate another edges $e$, which is not adjacent to any of the above yellow edges. So we arrive at a contradiction. But is it possible to understand the above bound more intuitively (unlike  where a rigorous proof is asked, but my main intention is not to get a proof but rather understand the claim, in an intuitive manner, which even the authors I guess had in their minds, while writing the book) ?

Show that if $G$ is a graph with $n$ vertices, then no more than $n/2$ edges can be colored in the same color, in any edge coloring of $G$.  I know there are  satisfy the statement, e.g a circuit of $n$ vertices with an even $n$ .   However, I want the proof of above statement. As we known, cases can only falsify a statement instead of verify it.


I am trying to set a proxy on a rotating basis; but my export commands are not working. I'm using CentOS 7.  I've gone back to basics and tested a really simple bash script, which sets and unsets environment variables, and then tests them. The environment variables appear set properly, but my external IP is still showing as my local IP.  $1 is an address in the form   #!/bin/bash  function set() {     export http_proxy="$1/"    # not working     export https_proxy="$1/"   # not working     testExtIP }  function unset() {     unset http_proxy     unset https_proxy     testExtIP }  function testExtIP() {     externalHTTP=$(curl -s http://api.ipify.org) # an API that echos the external IP quickly     externalHTTPS=$(curl -s https://api.ipify.org)     echo "External HTTP: $externalHTTP; external HTTPS: $externalHTTPS"  }  case "$1" in     'set')     set $2 # speed     ;;     'unset')     unset $2     ;;     'test')     testExtIP $2     ;;     *)     echo "Usage: $0 $versum [set|unset|test]"     ;; esac   I would like the script to return:  External HTTP: 119.27.177.169; external HTTPS: 119.27.177.169  But my external IP isn't set:  External HTTP: **SERVERIP**; external HTTPS: **SERVERIP**  which I've tested using various tools. Why is the export command not working? Am I missing something important?

I have multiple Amazon EC2 accounts and want to quickly be able to switch variables, such as $EC2_HOME, using a script.  I have have a shell script set up like this:  #!/bin/sh export EC2_HOME=/home/me/.ec2 echo $EC2_HOME   When I run the script I know that EC2_HOME is set, but I thought that using export would make the variable stick around after the script completed. It does not, as running echo $EC_HOME does not show anything.  I know this must be very rudimentary Linux scripting knowledge, but I don't know it. I tried looking for related questions without luck - so my apologies if this is a duplicate.


I've learned that the firmware-subsystem uses udevd to copy a firmware to the created sysfs 'data' entry.  But how does this work in case of a built-in driver module where udevd hasn't started yet?  I'am using a 3.14 Kernel.  TIA!

I'd like to have all my modules built-in, but this fails with iwlagn:  iwlagn 0000:03:00.0: request for firmware file 'iwlwifi-6000-4.ucode' failed. iwlagn 0000:03:00.0: no suitable firmware found!   The microcode file exists in /lib/firmware and the whole thing works just fine if I compile iwlagn as module. I have no idea where it's looking for the file or what's wrong - any ideas?


I need help from you guys I will explain briefly where I am struggling. I am developing a windows application using VB.Net. So, I have a windows form called - "XT" in that "XT" form I have a web browser control and a button. While loading the form is navigating to a website. Let us assume the site is STACK OVERFLOW. Now web browser is navigated to the given site and displayed in the web browser control. When I click on a button in XT form, The content displayed in the web browser control should be exactly converted to a pdf file and should save in our local disk. ADVANCE VERY VERY THANKS... this will be a breakthrough if I get a solution to make my application move forward

I want to generate a PDF by passing HTML contents to a function. I have made use of iTextSharp for this but it does not perform well when it encounters tables and the layout just gets messy.  Is there a better way?


When should one use “shall” and "will”?     'Sure, I __________ come.'   Which word - "shall" or "will" - should be used in the blank?

Which is the correct use of these two words, and in which context should one be used rather than the other?


XML File below.  Looking to be able to read from and write to the below file.  Using the below code I am able to SEARCH for a specific pagename node  `XDocument xmldoc = XDocument.Load(path);   metadata m = new metadata();  XElement emp = xmldoc.Descendants("data").FirstOrDefault(p => p.Element("pagename").Value == pagename);          if (emp != null)         {            //How to populate each child node            // dctermscreator.en = this            // dctermscreator.fr = this             //so on         }`   `<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?>  <root>  <data>   <pagename>default</pagename>   <metadata>     <desc>       <en>eng desc</en>       <fr>desc fra</fr>     </desc>     <dctermscreator>       <en>eng desc</en>       <fr>desc fra</fr>     </dctermscreator>     <dctermssubject>       <en>eng desc</en>       <fr>desc fra</fr>     </dctermssubject>   </metadata>  </data>  </root>`

How do I Deserialize this XML document:  <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Cars>   <Car>     <StockNumber>1020</StockNumber>     <Make>Nissan</Make>     <Model>Sentra</Model>   </Car>   <Car>     <StockNumber>1010</StockNumber>     <Make>Toyota</Make>     <Model>Corolla</Model>   </Car>   <Car>     <StockNumber>1111</StockNumber>     <Make>Honda</Make>     <Model>Accord</Model>   </Car> </Cars>   I have this:  [Serializable()] public class Car {     [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute("StockNumber")]     public string StockNumber{ get; set; }      [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute("Make")]     public string Make{ get; set; }      [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute("Model")]     public string Model{ get; set; } }   .  [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlRootAttribute("Cars", Namespace = "", IsNullable = false)] public class Cars {     [XmlArrayItem(typeof(Car))]     public Car[] Car { get; set; }  }   .  public class CarSerializer {     public Cars Deserialize()     {         Cars[] cars = null;         string path = HttpContext.Current.ApplicationInstance.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/") + "cars.xml";          XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Cars[]));          StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(path);         reader.ReadToEnd();         cars = (Cars[])serializer.Deserialize(reader);         reader.Close();          return cars;     } }   that don't seem to work :-(


Opened my project today and the panels were in different places. Very uncomfortable to use. How do I move them back to the default location?

I accidentally opened too many menus (or windows) and I want to reset them to default.  It is really annoying, and effecting my animation.  Thanks


I just purchased an iPhone 5s and attached to my iCloud. After that it seems that App Store applications were not installing properly. I did a factory reset and the following screen is shown:  Could Not Activate iPhone Your iPhone could not be activated because the activation server cannot be reached. Try connecting your iPhone to iTunes to activate it, or try again in a few minutes. If this problem persists, contact Apple Support at apple.com/uk/support Try Again

My iPhone 5 that has been running iOS 7 since beta 1 suddenly wants to be activated.  When locked, it shows me my wallpaper. After sliding to unlock, it asks for my passcode. When I enter it, it takes me straight to the 'Activate iPhone' page - like it wants to be set up.  The text on the page:     This iPhone is currently linked to an Apple ID (e**@icloud.com). Sign in with the Apple ID that was used to set up this iPhone.   After I input the correct credentials and press Next in the top right corner, the title of the page changes to 'Activating...', then changes back to how it was before.  About 15 seconds later, it transitions to a 'Could not activate iPhone' page:     Your iPhone could not be activated because the activation server is temporarily unavailable. Try connecting your iPhone to iTunes to activate it, or try again in a couple of minutes.      If this problem persists, contact Apple Support at apple.com/support   Has anyone encountered this problem before? Is there a solution to it?


Prove that there exists a unique function $f: [0, \infty) \to [0, \infty)$ which satisfies the equation $f(f(x))=6x-f(x)$  $f(x)=2x$ seems to satisfy except $f(0)=0$ but $0$ is not in the codomain. Let $f(0)=a \implies f(a)=a$ which means there's a fixed point. Also, I can show that it's an injective function.

If $f: [0,\infty) \rightarrow [0,\infty)$ and   $f(f(x))=6x-f(x)$ $f(x)>0$ $  \forall x \in (0,\infty) $   Find f(x)


I know the solution to this problem is (n-1)!. If it was a line we would have used n! for each spot as we care about order and we cannot choose a person more than once. I also know that the way you get to this number is because it is possible to rotate the circle through n possible combinations which are essentially the same. Here, i get a bit confused though. At this point, why not subtract these n (or maybe n times n for each person we choose to put at a specific chair) possibilities from the total? why do we divide by n?  p.s. I know about the explanation involving the first person as a pivot. I am mainly having a hard time with the division of n.

Well if one looks at the formula of circular permutations $Pc = (n-1)!$  But as we come to that formula, I need a concrete example and an explanation.  Another thing, I have seen that when working with a bracelet, the formula changes. A concrete example please along with an explanation  Finally how the formula is worked when there are repeated elements that are permuted.  Thank you


I have an old lubuntu system (4.13.0 update (see comments) 17.10), and I can hardly update any software, nor install new, because most repos are not there anymore. I simply want to upgrade, version by version, walk the long way to some modern version. When I try this:  sudo apt-get dist-upgrade   I get the answer  The following packages will be upgraded:   snapd waterfox   This is certainly not what I expect. I assume that I have made some mistakes, but I am clueless.  Is there any way to upgrade the system from this state of affairs?   I know that questions about old systems are not wanted here, but I hope this is treated as an obvious exception. If not, please tell men where I can get help other than here. Thanks!  update because asked to clarify why this question is not a duplicate: I do not want to install old versions of software on an old system. I simply want to upgrade the system. In the comments, I got a helpful answer (link to another question) of how to start the process. The information given below is, to my understanding, certainly helpful for others with similar questions.

Recently I have installed an older version of Ubuntu on my old machine. Whenever I try to install any software, I get an error saying it couldn't be found:  $ sudo apt-get install vlc Reading package lists... Done                Building dependency tree        Reading state information... Done     E: Couldn't find package vlc


In Harry Potter, there are many instances of fantastic beasts. What makes those beasts magic? Why is a Flesh-eating slug magic, for example, but not a Venus Flytrap?   Not a dupe of  because here I'm looking for an inherent nature (such as what makes magical things magical) but there I'm searching for any physical characteristic.

The simple answer to this question would be that magical creatures are capable of using magic as an evolutionary advantage. Magical abilities are often considered to be "wondrous" and "special", but as we know, there are plenty of non-magical animals with unique characteristics like the changing of colours (the chameleon) or biological immortality (). In other cases, both magical and non-magical animals share the same ability; for example, the lotus leaf and augurey feathers are able to repel water but only one has a magical origin.  I appreciate that this question can lead to a discussion about how wizards do generally distinguish between "physical" and "magical" phenomena but since wizards don't use scientific methods like non-magical scientists, it strikes me that they would struggle to detect whether a phenomenon is "physical" or "magical" in its nature.   How can they distinguish between creatures that are magical and those that are mundane?


I am submitting a PhD application, for which I am required to include a writing sample; either a publication or a class report. I don’t have publications but I have a submitted paper authored by me and my advisor which I already submitted to a conference but was not yet accepted (results are due in 2 months).   I was thinking of submitting this paper for admissions as a writing sample because I think that it is well written. I know that I have to get my advisor’s permission.  In case my advisor agrees, is doing that appropriate? My yet to be accepted paper will be reviewed by professors in the department I am applying to.

I have a manuscript that is under review in a major journal which is a main result out of a few recent years of my research. When applying for faculty positions, I would like to send the draft as a part of my writing sample. But since the material is not yet published, I am not sure if it is a good idea.  What are the foreseeable disadvantages of sending an article in review to the faculty search committee?  My area is neuroscience / biomedical engineering.  Update: The paper got into a high-profile journal, and I got a job at a different place which did not require a writing sample.


I happen to be running Ubuntu 12.10 on my machine and I noticed that it is no longer supported since there are no quantal repositories left and I can't update or install any software any more.  I tried to run update-manager, but it failed to download repository information since it doesn't exist any more.  How would I proceed to upgrade this machine (without a complete new install of course)?

What are the different ways I can use to upgrade Ubuntu from one release to another?


i have the following LINQ statement, I need to write inside, the if clause, I did the following but obviously its an error,im asking how can I implement something like this in LINQ?  var devices = (from c in db.MasterDatas                join m in db.TurbineDevices on                c.turbine_id equals m.turbine_ip                join t in db.v_vpn_gateway_info                on m.turbine_ip equals t.turbine_id                where m.turbine_ip == id                                   select new TurbineDvce                {                   if(t.vpn_gateway==m.device_ip)                       {Comments =vpn_gateway                             }else                     Comments = m.comments,                    Description = m.description,                    DeviceIP = m.device_ip,                    DeviceType = m.device_type,                    FirmwareVersion = m.firmware_version,                    Model = m.model,                    Password = m.psw,                    Phone = m.tel_number,                    Producer = m.producer,                    PublicIP = m.public_ip,                    TurbineId = m.turbine_ip,                    Username = m.username                });

Is it possible to use If Else conditional in a LINQ query?  Something like  from p in db.products if p.price>0 select new {   Owner=from q in db.Users         select q.Name } else select new {    Owner = from r in db.ExternalUsers             select r.Name }


Why here is used "they" instead of "it" or "there" for example? What does "they" mean here?  "Can we go to Polseath as usual?" "I'm afraid not," said his mother. "They are quite full up this year."

I am reading a book. A paragraph begins with this sentence:     They say we Scots are a pessimistic people. Maybe it has to do   with the weather - all those dreary, rainy days.   I am searching for pronouns "they" but I couldn't find what it refers to because I could not find anything for it.  Can anyone help me about it?  This is the whole passage:     But to do that, you need to be more than usually canny.   And that provides an important clue as to just where the history   of insurance had its origins. Where else but in bonny, canny   Scotland?      Taking Cover      They say we Scots are a pessimistic people. Maybe it has to do   with the weather - all those dreary, rainy days.


My cousin was recently killed when hit by a car from behind as he was cycling his road bike in the countryside in broad daylight. The accident occurred on a sunny day as he entered a shaded area of tree's. I am now looking at raising awareness of the benefit of using rear lights in the day and I could use some help please.

My bike light, the , has a "Daylighting" mode which flashes very brightly and is intended to be used during the day. Similarly, many tail lights have flashing modes. Obviously one should bike with lights at night. But is it advisable to bike with lights on (in flashing mode) during the day as well, to alert cars to your presence? Or does it not make much of a difference? If there are any scientific studies or data on this, please reference.


I want to prevent SEO from duplicated content.  I have a separate domain only for shortened URLs which is mainly for sharing purpose.  I plan to set the rel=canonical in the HTML head and redirect to the long-version on request, identified through the unique content-id (similar how stackoverflow does).    Which URL should I advisedly point to, getting the highest potential in regard to SEO? <link rel="canonical" href="https://www.mainpage.com/content/1012921/"> or <link rel="canonical" href="https://www.mainpage.com/content/1012921/this-is-the-original-and-long-version/"> or <link rel="canonical" href="https://sho.rt/yd8eEndSX/">  Content-id wont change, but Domain/TLD (even if not assumed to) could. Shortend Domain/TLD won't never change.

Our URLs will be created by the user's content.  Eg:  www.example.com/bar-1234/i-went-to-baz-4321  The "i went to baz" portion is user generated, included with the aim of being helpful to the person viewing the URL and also to possibly contain useful keywords for search engines.  However, the string that forms that portion is user editable. So it could become:  www.example.com/bar-1234/we-drove-to-baz-4321  AFAICT the canonical URL should be:  www.example.com/bar-1234/4321  The string portion is discarded by the controller, which means that there's potential for duplicate content from limitless URLs!  So, my question is, does it matter if my canonical URL is 'non SEO friendly'?  It seems logical to me to provide search engines with the "id only" version of the URL which is always consistent, but the canonical URL is the one that appears in search results, so is there any benefit from trying to use more 'SEO friendly' URLs?


For instance, why are only non-negative integer powers of a variable allowed within the scope of the definition of a polynomial? I am thinking there must be some reason within the developmental context of the definition but I am not sure what it is.

Why can't:  $$2x^{-3} - 3x$$  or  $$\frac{1}{2x}$$  be polynomials too?  Why have a definition that excludes these algebraic forms?


I know this question has been answered   But i have difficulty in understanding that proof.The book says we can assume that $A_5$ has no normal subgroup.How to find the proof using this property ?  EDIT- (I solved the previous question ( $A_5$ has no normal subgroup ) but i am not able to solve this problem ).  I have already mentioned that my question similar to   so please don't mark it as duplicate.  The book which i am talking about is  - Topics In Algerbra by Herstein. (2.10.15)  I am thankful if some can explain the same proof ( provided in link ).I have difficulty in understanding the homomorphic part of that answer.

How can it be proved that any subgroup of $A_5$ has order at most 12?  This is [Herstein, Problem 2.10.15], which also gives the hint that I can assume the result of the previous problem that $A_5$ has no normal subgroups $N \ne (e),A_5$.    This problem appears in an earlier section of the text than the Sylow theorems.  There is a proof given at , but it uses the Sylow theorems, and I wonder if a more elementary proof is available.  So far, I can prove the following: For $n \ge 3$, the subgroup generated by the 3-cycles is $A_n$; if a normal subgroup of $A_n$ contains even a single 3-cycle it must be all of $A_n$; $A_5$ has no normal subgroups $N \ne (e),A_5$.  I showed the latter by repeatedly conjugating a given nontrivial element in $A_5$ by 3-cycles to eventually obtain elements whose product is a 3-cycle.


In group theory, a group $G$ can often be divided into classes. Two elements $U,V \in G$ belong to the same class if $\exists R\in G: RUR^{-1}=V$. This always strikes me as counter-intuitive. Apart from groups like symmetry groups, where one can assign "physical meaning" to the group elements, I lack understanding/a reason for why this distinction of classes is as powerful as it is. Why would an abstract group be divisible into classes? (Maybe a historical argument can help.)  Of course, I do not doubt that it is possible to do this when looking at concrete group tables and figuring out the classes manually. Is there an underlying reason for why dividing the group is most of the time possible with classes that do not only consist of one or all elements of the group?  Another thing is, why can an element only belong to exactly one class? The definition seems a bit lax; I sometimes wonder why there cannot be to different $R_1,R_2$ that sort some element into two different classes? Because then that is actually the same class for both elements...  Edit  This also comes from the fact that, when trying to devide a group into classes given only the group table and no "visual representation" (e.g. symmetry operations) for the group elements, how can at some point I know that I have found all elements of the class; that is, without calculating all possible combinations $RUR^{-1}$? "There might be some other combination of elements, that connects two classes..."

I am learning group theory, and while learning automorphisms, I came across conjugation as an example in many textbooks. Though the definition itself, (and when considering the case of abelian groups), it seems pretty innocent, I have to admit that I have no intuition about whats happening, or why even such a map is important. Did anyone feel this way when you learnt it? Any examples/references that you have found useful when you learnt it?


I am trying to process command line arguments using getopts in bash. One of the requirements is for the processing of an arbitrary number of option arguments (without the use of quotes).  1st example (only grabs the 1st argument)  madcap:~/projects$ ./getoptz.sh -s a b c -s was triggered Argument: a   2nd example (I want it to behave like this but without needing to quote the argument"  madcap:~/projects$ ./getoptz.sh -s "a b c" -s was triggered Argument: a b c   Is there a way to do this?  Here's the code I have now:  #!/bin/bash while getopts ":s:" opt; do     case $opt in     s) echo "-s was triggered" >&2        args="$OPTARG"        echo "Argument: $args"        ;;        \?) echo "Invalid option: -$OPTARG" >&2        ;;     :) echo "Option -$OPTARG requires an argument." >&2        exit 1        ;;     esac done   Note that I want to support multiple flags this way, e.g.  madcap:~/projects$ ./getoptz.sh -s a b c -u 1 2 3 4 -s was triggered Argument: a b c -u was triggered Argument: 1 2 3 4

In below code when I give option r then getopts requires one arguments:  while getopts ":hr::l:" opt; do     case $opt in         r ) echo "Run Numbers - argument = $OPTARG " ;;         l ) echo "Latency range - argument = $OPTARG" ;;         h ) helptext             graceful_exit ;;         * ) usage             clean_up             exit 1     esac done   But I need to pass two arguments after -r option, instead of one. Is there an easy way to do this?


I'm a fairly new DM running my first campaign. What do I do when players try something, but there are no rules for it, and my real-world knowledge doesn't help me figure out what would happen?  For example, in our last session one of my players wanted to start a fire in front of a cave to drive the inhibitants out. There are no printed guidelines for this, and I don't know how or whether that would actually work — I've never done anything remotely like lighting a fire to smoke something out of a cave before. I didn't know what would or should happen (How long does the fire have to burn for the plan to work? How deep into the cave would the smoke go?), but more importantly I didn't know how to deal with this and move the game forward, which is the DM's job. Luckily the other players talked him into a different plan, but I don't know what I would have done.  When a situation comes up in the game where there are no direct rules and one doesn't have the expertise to know what should happen, what is a DM to do?

Role playing is an excellent hobby to train your problem solving skills. You learn to look at situations from different view points (i.e. the characters) and you have various skills and resources at your hands (from dangerous to trivial, from magical to mundane...) which you will often sort through, combine and apply to solve the problem at hand. In our group of RPG veterans this fact leads to a strong prevalence of what I will call MacGyver-ism. Let me explain using an example:  One of the recurring items is the molotov cocktail, or some genre-specific variant. It is highly efficient, trivial to create (pour liquid into bottle) and the ingredients are wide spread and cheap (gazoline/lamp oil, a bottle, some cloth). The process seems to be so simple that even untrained characters of low intelligence should easily be able to do it.  Just as MacGyver will do in his shows, the players will often combine mundane items and/or trivial skills in unforseeable ways to get an advantage, be it combat or plot wise. This can lead to solutions which are:  very unrealistic given the setting (i.e. some medieval character would probably not know how to manufacture a molotov cocktail) overpowered (tips balance of certain encounters/problems, especially low-tech close-combat settings) are hard to forsee/prevent, as the needed ingredients are wide-spred and freely available (I can hardly keep my players from buying lamp oil or bottles)  So far I have not yet found a very compelling reason why my players should not be creating molotov cocktails (or similar improvised devices) all the time, and in settings where such solutions seems to be very unfitting (say, high fantasy). How can I limit or control the prevalence of over-improvisation or MacGyver-ism in players actions? As the first answers and comments heavily focused on the molotov: I am just as well concerned about players being true to their characters knowledge and possibilites as I am about the problem of power balance.  A medievalish soldier just should not possess the knowledge to build improvised firearms, bombs or complicated mechanical contraptions.  I have absolutely no problems with PCs being smart, creative and inventive while solving problems. I have a problem though, when the players are smart/inventive in ways which don't fit the setting or their supposed PC knowledge. As it was suggested that his question is not entirely system agnostic (I somewhat agree), here some systems where I have struggled with this issue: MERP (low magic high fantasy), Call of Cthulhu (Investigative/Horror), DSA (high magic high fantasay)


I wish to run stuff from startup and also trigger reboots using cron.  I was using sudo crontab -e and adding commands there. The commands work apart from the reboots. The reboots do not happen all the time. I wish to reboot at 4 am every morning. My added line is :  00 4 * * * root /sbin/shutdown -r now >> /var/log/daily-backup.log 2>&1   I now instead modified /etc/crontab instead for the reboots and it seems to work. Why is this? Shouldn't crontab -e work anyways because commands get run as root?

System crontab:  /etc/crontab   Root crontab:  sudo crontab -u root -e   Which way is preferred? As they all run tasks within administration privilege.


Suppose that $A$ and $B$ are linear transformations (on the same finite dimensional vector space) such that $A^2=A$ and $B^2=B$.  Is it true that $A$ and $B$ are similar if and only if rank($A$)=rank($B$)?  As far as I can tell, it is true.  What I have for the forward direction is this:  $A=C^{-1}BC$  $CA=BC$  And by a theorem, we can say, rank($CA$)=rank($BC$).  Further, by the same theorem, we can say, rank($A$)=rank($B$) because $C$ is invertible.  I'm stuck on the reverse direction though.  I can put an invertible $C$ in there, but past that, I don't think I can make the assumption that $CA=BC$.  Thanks.

Definitions: For $F$ a field,   $A,B\in F^{m\times n}$ are equivalent means there exist invertible matrices $Q\in F^{m\times m}$ and $P\in F^{n\times n}$ so that $B=QAP$, $A,B\in F^{n\times n}$ are similar means there exists an invertible matrix $P\in F^{n\times n}$ so that $B=PAP^{-1}$. $[T]_\mathcal{B}$ is the matrix of the linear transformation $T:V\to V$ with respect to an ordered basis $\mathcal B$ of $V$.   I've seen the result that $A,B\in F^{m\times n}$ are equivalent iff they have the same row and column reduced echelon form iff they have the same rank.  I'd like to show that if $A,B\in F^{n\times n}$ are idempotent matrices, they are similar iff they have the same rank.  I've noted that similarity of two matrices implies their equivalence, and hence that they have the same rank. So it remains to show that $rank(A)=rank(B)$ implies $A$ and $B$ are similar.  Observations: If $V$ is a finite-dimensional vector space over field $F$ and $T:V\to V$ is an idempotent linear transformation (i.e. $T^2=T$), then $V=im T\oplus \ker T$ and if $\mathcal B_1=\{v_1,v_2,...,v_m\},\mathcal B_2=\{v_{m+1},...,v_n\}$ are bases for $im T$ and $\ker T$ respectively, then $[T]_{\mathcal B_1\cup \mathcal B_2}\in F^{n\times n}$ is a $1\times 2$ block matrix with $C\in F^{n\times m}$ in the first entry and zero matrix for the other entry, where the $j$th column of $C$ is given by the scalars $a_{1j},...,a_{nj}$ so that $T(v_j)=\sum_{i=1}^n a_{ij}v_i$ (which uniquely define $T(v_j)$ since $\{v_1,...,v_n\}$ are a basis for $V$).  Let $L_A,L_B$ be the linear transformations representing left-multiplication by $A$ and $B$, respectively. Then $A'=[L_A]_\mathcal B$ and $B'=[L_B]_\mathcal B$ take the block matrix form described above, and since $rank (A)=rank (B)$ by assumption, $A'$ and $B'$ have the same row and column reduced echelon form. So starting from the row and column reduced echelon form that they take, we can multiply on the left and right by invertible matrices (by doing the inverse elementary matrix operations that we did to get the reduced forms) to get back to either matrix, i.e. if $D$ is the row and column reduced echelon form for the two, then $QA'P=D=RB'S$ where $Q,P,R,S$ are invertible $n\times n$ matrices.   Hence $B'=R^{-1}QA'PS^{-1}$. We want to show that the $A,B$ being idempotent gives us that $R^{-1}Q=(PS^{-1})^{-1}$. This is where I'm stuck.  Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks in advance


If you visit a site's /help page as a moderator, you now have a weird "edit" link:    Clicking on it brings up an inline editor box which lets me add text that appears just above the link:    That doesn't seem to be doing anything useful, so I assume the edit button is a bug. Is it actually a bug or are we supposed to use this space to add a header to our help center or something? I admit I don't really see much point to it, if so. Am I missing something?

I have found out that site moderators can edit certain parts of pages in the Help Center.  In particular, "" or parts of it can be customized.    What pages or parts of pages are editable exactly?   Is "" editable?  This  because I'd like to have information about a particular very common category of questions to be included there.  What other pages in the help center are editable? Can moderators change which links show up on  and in what order? What parts of  can be edited? Can some the suggestions that show up on the "Ask Question" page under the headings "How to Ask", "How to Format", and "How to Tag" be edited?   This would be useful to know, because when , I'd like to propose edits that the moderators can actually carry out.


I checked some other questions, and found that "a photo is an image taken by a camera". But what is an image? What is the difference between image and picture?

What is the difference between photo and image?


I'm very new on this for this has never been taught in my school.  I have ten 5mm blue LEDs. Each led has 3.4V and 30mA max current. The only thing I know is that I have 34V for my LEDs. The power supply I would be using has 14V (a 5V usb cable plus a 9V battery).  So, my question is: how many volts should I really have as a power supply and how many ohms as well as watts should the resistor have? (I currently have 220ohms 1/4 watt for the resistors)  P.S. these will all be attached to a breadboard.  This will be made into a game. 10 LEDs 20 switches. It's called the nim number game. so the mechanics of the game is each player can turn on a maximum of 2 LEDs per turn. However, the last player to turn on the remaining LED that's not turned on wins. The project is done, honestly. We've attached the wires, Leds, switches, and ICs.  However, the initial power supply for the project is a 9V battery. But when the 6th LED is turned-on, the light it emits is very low already. Then, emission of light of all 10 Led lights becomes very low if all leds are turned on. So I added a 5V usb cable but I got the feeling that the resistors aren't compatible with the power supply anymore.  Thanks in advance for answering!

I have seen many resistances with difference Wattage i.e 1/4W, 1/2 W, 1 W, 2 W ,3W etc. If I have 3 W Load which is an (large 3W) LED in my case, which Resistance should I use?  Also The LED I am using needs 3.5V DC and 0.8 A current. I have a Battery which outputs 8V. How can I calculate the Value of the resistance which can drop 8V to 6V?


In a single study, a researcher can obtain a relevant summary statistic, and construct an $x$% confidence interval for that summary statistic. Under the frequentist framework, this obtained confidence interval is thought of as being one of the infinitely many possible confidence intervals had the exact same study been Repeated infinitely many times. Now think about a meta-analysis of 10 studies (i.e., loosely speaking, combining the results of 10 studies to make a summary of the 10 studies' summaries). Again, here, one can also construct an $x$% confidence interval for the summary of the 10 studies' summaries (i.e., meta-analytic summary). Question I was wondering how should one think of/interpret the Confidence Interval for the meta-analytic summary under the Frequentist Framework? For clarity Precisely, There are two difficult notions that make interpreting the CI for the meta-analytic summary in my example difficult for me: First, is the number of studies. I have 10 studies, and these are the only number of studies available on the topic of interest to me.  So, how the number of studies affect the interpretation of a CI for a meta-analytic summary? Second, is the number of repetitions. I know we must think of repeating our meta-analysis with 10 studies infinitely many times. But, when we have only 10 studies ever available what does infinitely many repetitions means, here (I mean there are 10 studies and they can only be meta-analyzed only one time)?

Imagine you have to do reporting on the numbers of candidates who yearly take a given test. It seems rather difficult to infer the observed % of success, for instance, on a wider population due to the specifity of the target population. So you may consider that these data represent the whole population.   Are results of tests indicating that the proportions of males and females are different really correct? Does a test comparing observed and theoretical proportions appear to be a correct one, since you consider a whole population (and not a sample)?


I saw loads of posts with similar issues; I've looked at the solutions with no luck so far.  I use Ubuntu 12.04 LTS Desktop, installed in partition sda5, mounted as /. The main part of the disk is allocated to sda6, mounted as /Home.  I cannot either:   cd into this Home directory use mkdir to create a sub folder   I can see it and create files etc, when logged in as root, using nautilus, but from a terminal I just get:   -su: cd: /Home: No such file or directory   I am new to Ubuntu (coming fom Windows) and although I thought I was getting to grips with it, this has me beat.   Any help appreciated. TIA

How do I change directories to downloads, from the home folder, in the latest version Ubuntu 12.10? I tried cd /downloads, but it gave an error saying that there is no such directory.


I’m new to number theory and I’m solving questions in the textbook one by one. Here is one : If $m\geq 1$ and $n\geq2$ , which both of them are natural numbers , prove this statement: $$(n-1)^2 | (n^m-1) \iff (n-1)| m.$$ This is my approach : I started from the left part of the statement; I used $$(a^n-b^n)=(a-b)(a^{n-1}+a^{n-2}b+...+b^{n-1}),$$ to expand $n^m-1$ in the statement , Then used geometric series sum and I came to this : $$1|n^m-1$$ And I don’t know how to continue this . I’m looking for a hint , and not an answer. Give me an answer and you’ll be cursed :) Thank you in advance.

How do you prove this?  $$\left(n-1\right)^2\mid\left(n^k-1\right)\Longleftrightarrow\left(n-1\right)\mid k$$


There's a tag anroid-listview which has a spelling mistake and should be removed. It has 4 questions attached so they should be moved to android-listview.

Just a few days ago i "eradicated"  manually (i think there were only 8 questions). Can moderators do something about this sort of thing with the click of a button?  Edit: Just noticed some relevant questions, so i'd be more interested in the count threshold at which a retag-request should be filed.


Can a road bike be "converted" to a hybrid/more upright bike? Flat bars and the shifters/brakes should be simple enough, but will the shifters adapt to my Ultegra set?

Some years ago, I picked up a Cannondale R3000 and moved all the components to my current bike as an exercise in bike building, never repeated (in fairness, the Cannondale fit me a little better but my beautiful 1998 Klein has such a sweet, sweet paint job...). I've been putting the frame on Craigslist off and on for a few years, but no one seems to want to pay what I'm asking. Regardless, my current MTB is an all-mountain beast that I bought before I knew my riding style, and I'm thinking of picking up a more cross-country steed.  Times being tight and all, is there anything preventing me from building out the Cannondale road frame as a mountain bike? Obvious [potential] answers (e.g., tire clearance) are good, more involved ones (e.g., frame robustness) are too. I'm trying to get a picture of what might lie ahead in this venture.


I have done some analyses on the spatial distribution of traffic signs using kernel density, I used SQUARE_KILOMETERS in area unit, the output is good and clear, but I don't understand the meaning of the legend.

In ArcMap 9.3 I've used Kernel Density to map various incidents, but the resulting shapefile doesn't display any units of measurement. Is there a good, not-to-technical source that would explain in lay terminology the interpretation of the output values in terms of the input cell size and search radius?


In SQL database that stores Images in a parcelImages table.Since each parcel can take part in multiple Images and each images can involve multiple parcels.    I want to get each parcel having Image value with comma separated values as shown above  I tried with this SQL Query   SELECT ParcelId,id,concat(ParcelId, ' ', id)  FROM ParcelImages  WHERE Id IN (43418,43464,43465,43466,43467,43470,43471,43482,43483)   but expected result not get. How can this be done?  I have also tried an INNER JOIN How can I achieve this, I'm kinda stuck at the early beginning.  If there is a table called STUDENTS  ID                     StudentName                                                       ----------             -------------                                                       1                      Mary                                                       1                      John                                                       1                      Sam                                                       2                      Alaina                                                       2                      Edward                                                           Result I expected was:  ID              StudentName                                                       ----------      -------------                                                       1               Mary, John, Sam                                                       2               Alaina, Edward

I am trying to query two tables and get results like the following:  Section    Names shoes      AccountName1, AccountName2, AccountName3 books      AccountName1   The tables are:  CREATE TABLE dbo.TableA(ID INT, Section varchar(64), AccountId varchar(64));  INSERT dbo.TableA(ID, Section, AccountId) VALUES (1 ,'shoes','A1'), (2 ,'shoes','A2'), (3 ,'shoes','A3'), (4 ,'books','A1');  CREATE TABLE dbo.TableB(AccountId varchar(20), Name varchar(64));  INSERT dbo.TableB(AccountId, Name) VALUES ('A1','AccountName1'), ('A2','AccountName2'), ('A3','AccountNAme3');   I saw a few questions answered saying to use "XML PATH" and "STUFF" to query the data to get the results I am looking for, but I think there is something missing.  I have tried the below query and get the error message:     Column 'a.AccountId' is invalid in the select list because it is not contained in either an aggregate function or the GROUP BY clause.   I don't have it in the SELECT clause of either query, but I assume the error is because AccountId is not unique in TableA.  Here is the query I am currently trying to get working correctly.  SELECT section, names= STUFF((     SELECT ', ' + Name FROM TableB as b  WHERE AccountId = b.AccountId FOR XML PATH('')), 1, 1, '') FROM TableA AS a GROUP BY a.section


I have a long article (~20 pages) with lots of equations being numbered and stuff. For a good cleanup, I would like to unnumber the unused equations. I am aware I can , but I would like to clean the thing up and not rely to the feature of mathtools. Therefore, is it possible to somehow display the list of unused labels?  On the following MWE, it should show (in the log, in bash, whatever) that boo was unused:  \documentclass{article} \begin{document} \section{BLA}\label{bla} \section{BOO}\label{boo} In Section~\ref{bla}. \end{document}

When writing documents, I consider it to be necessary that all figures and tables are referenced (\ref) in the text, whether or not I've remembered to \label them. LaTeX does not currently warn if a figure or table is not referenced. Is there a way to ensure that this is flagged up as a warning?  Note that I am specifically concerned about figures and tables, not chapter or section headings; it will be no good looking just at \labels that don't have an associated \ref.  In other words, it should report boo and not report bla in the following MWE:  \documentclass{article} \begin{document} \section{BLA}\label{bla} \section{BOO}\label{boo} In Section~\ref{bla} we do something. \end{document}


!#/usr/bin/perl -w   use strict;   use warnings;   use File::Find::Rule;   my $finder=File::Find::Rule->directory->in($directory);     Warning is  Can't locate File/Find/Rule.pm in @INC   (@INC contains: /usr/lib64/perl5/site_perl/5.8.8/x86_64-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.8 /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl /usr/lib64/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.8/x86_64-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.8 /usr/lib/perl5/vendor_perl /usr/lib64/perl5/5.8.8/x86_64-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/5.8.8 .) at ./test.pl line 4.   BEGIN failed--compilation aborted at ./test.pl line 4.

I get this error:  Can't locate Foo.pm in @INC  Is there an easier way to install it than downloading, untarring, making, etc?


I want to log out of Stack Overflow or any Stack Exchange site, but always it shows me logged in!  How do I log out of this site?  Note: I have yet to register; the site currently always shows my name and default email. I wish to log out so that I may start a new session!

I have a registered StackOverflow account which I normally log into using OpenID.  Recently I logged out in order to post a question anonymously (supplying a fake name and of my secondary email addresses).  The problem now is that I'm logged in to StackOverflow as this "dummy" user, unable to see a way to log out.  The top menu normally has a "logout" link, but when you aren't fully registered this link is replaced with "register".  There is no "logout" link for me. :(  So..   When logged out there is a "login" link. When logged in there is a "logout" link. When "logged in" with an unregistered account, there is only a "register" link (no "logout").


I am given a sequence {$a_{n}$} of nonzero numbers converges to infinity. How can I use this to prove that the sequence {$\frac{1}{a_{n}}$} converges to 0?  I can intuitively see why $\frac{1}{\infty}$ would converge to 0 but have no idea how to go about proving this. The working definition I have for convergence is $|x_{n} - L| < \varepsilon$ if for each $\varepsilon > 0$ $\exists N\in N$ such that the inequality is true $\forall n \geq N$.  Any hints/help would be much appreciated! Thank you.

Prove that if $u_n\rightarrow \infty$ then $\frac{1}{u_n} \rightarrow 0$  Could someone please point me in the right direction? I don't know how to show this at all. Any help would be much appreciated :)


As an incoming Senior, I am currently having the debate that many before me have had: Masters, or PhD?  I'm a biomedical engineering student who wants to get an advanced degree to better position myself for high-end R&D and engineering jobs in industry. From what I've gathered, it seems like a Masters can do the trick, though getting a PhD may put me in an even better position. BME seems to be different than other fields when it comes to advanced degrees. It seems to me that the PhD's have more opportunities than Master's upon graduation in the BME field.   So if I ignore all factors, and want to maximize my chances of doing high-end R&D engineering at a good medical imaging company, it seems that PhD is what I should get.   However, here are some considerations that I have.   1) The time and effort required for a PhD is significant. A PhD in BME takes a longer time than average, and is quite difficult. I don't quite enjoy the idea of entering the workforce at the age of 27.   2) However, PhD's are funded fully, so there appears to be no financial burden/debt (apart from the fact that I won't be earning like my Bachelors/Masters counterparts during my PhD years).   3) PhD programs are harder than Masters programs to get in to. I believe I could get into a top tier university for a Masters program, but not a PhD program.  4) Masters requires less time and effort, and seems to get me qualified for more jobs than a bachelor's.   5) A Masters, however, may not qualify me for the high-end R&D that a PhD might.  6) I may be wrong, but funding for Masters programs is limited. I could obtain significant debt.   Number 6 is a big problem for me. Do Masters students incur debt, or do they generally get enough funding to get by? I read in a lot of top universities that no guaranteed funding is available like there is for PhDs, but TA and RA positions may be available. How common is it for Masters students to get such positions?  If Masters students do get funding, then my plan is to enter into a Masters program (hopefully at a top 15 BME program), and apply for jobs at the end of my degree. If I get good opportunities, I'll take them, otherwise, I might apply for a PhD program. (I am worried about one thing; does this extend the amount of time it'll take for me to begin work? Or can I apply the work I've done in my Masters towards my PhD?).  However, if Masters students do not get enough funding, and I could incur debt, my idea was to apply to PhD program and potentially opt out with a Masters if I can get good job opportunities, or if my PhD is too challenging. How frowned upon is doing this (I would imagine that my advisor couldn't be too pleased)?  Any advice would be appreciated! I want to know if my assumptions are reasonable, and if my plans are reasonable as well!

I'm considering a PhD or Master's in engineering in the US, and I haven't really decided which makes the most sense for me. There are many questions and answers here that mention leaving a PhD program with a Master's and how it's not a "failure" or "dropping out", but it occurs to me: what effect does this have on a person's adviser/professors?   What about references, future relationships, etc? Is it taken negatively or as an insult, or cutting ties, to bow out with the lower degree?  What prompted this question is that a few programs that most interest me state explicitly that there is very little funding available for Masters students (so you are mostly expected to pay your own way), but full funding and additional opportunities are available for those admitted to a PhD program. The way they are worded, they seem extremely interested in good PhD candidates, and not at all interested in Masters students.  I'm not considering seeking a PhD solely to get a Masters/funding, because that's just outright dishonest and I wouldn't stomach such deceit. But, what might the ethics be of not being certain whether you want a PhD or a Masters, but applying for a PhD program?   If one's adviser and/or program and/or professors are explicitly harmed by having someone complete their Masters requirements, then I'd be much more hesitant to even consider a PhD application unless I was certain that's what I wanted. If being unsure is considered normal and the "harm" caused by bowing out of the program with a Masters not so great, then that would certainly ease things the other direction.  To be clear, these departments also specifically suggest you pick Masters OR PhD, and generally discourage you from applying to both. Thus my quandary!


Prove that E $\subseteq$ X is not connected if and only if there exist open sets $A, B \subseteq X$ such that $E \subseteq A ∪ B, A ∩ B$ = $\emptyset$ and $E ∩ A$ and $E ∩ B$ are both nonempty.  $X$ is a nonempty set equipped with a metric d.  Having a hard time proving the ⇒ part of the proof. Help!

Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space. Prove that $E$ is disconnected iff there exists two open disjoint sets $A$,$B$ in $X$ such that $E\cap A\neq\emptyset, E\cap B\neq \emptyset$ and $E\subset A\cup B$.   I'm not sure how to begin, so let me just start by pointing some stuff out from the question that I noticed, and my knowledge as of now. (Hopefully it'll be useful.)   There is $a\in A, b\in B$ which are both limit points of $E$ (I think) Since $A$ and $B$ are disjoint, $A\cap B=\emptyset$  The closure of a set is the "smallest" set which contains its limit points, (so it is a closed set as well).  Both $A$ and $B$ are open so they are made up entirely of interior points, so they don't have any points on the boundary.   I know that the definition of separated means that I have $A,B\subset X$, for which $A\cap \bar{B}=\emptyset=\bar{A}\cap B$, where the bar above the set denotes its closure.  And I know that the definition of connected set means for $E\subset X$, $E$ is connected if $E$ is not the union of two non-empty separated sets, so a disconnected set would be for $E\subset X$, $E$   is disconnected if it is the union of two separated sets (which are both non-empty).  Any hints as to how to begin would be appreciated. Thank you.


I am trying to prove/disprove $\operatorname{Arg}(zw)=\operatorname{Arg}(z)+\operatorname{Arg}(w)$. Apparently $\operatorname{Arg}(zw)=\operatorname{Arg}(z)+\operatorname{Arg}(w)+2k\pi$ where $k=0,1,\text{ or }-1$, but I have no idea why. I keep on finding that answer online. I am very lost on how to prove this statement, any help would be great. Thank you.

I talked to my professor and they said that it can be disproven using an example, specifically using a picture to explain why it statement is false. Can anyone help me out?


In the country where I live, Victoria, an oppresive dictator, named El Jeffo sold off the state owned power generation distribution and retailing companies to the private sector. We were promised our cake and that we could eat it too. But we all know this isn't possible. Now the situation has deteriorated to the extent that there are power generation companies, power distribution companies and retail companies that are essentially billing systems for the power distribution companies - and these billing companies spend vast amounts of money advertising huge double digit percentage discounts for overpriced electricity. Needless to say, with such huge advertising overheads  A coup took place, and El Jeffo was deposed, but given a role to play football manager. A new regime took over, and it decided that solar was good, and paid huge vast subsidies to people that would install solar systems. Things were good, so long as the sun was shining as you could sell AC power back to the network, not noticing the huge increases in prices that were taking place.  Now, the era of belt tightening has come upon us, and for this reason we are looking at improving efficiency. It is no longer profitable to send the power out via AC. Given that most solar is DC, batteries are DC and cell voltages are in the low single digit volts, and I2R losses would be short for short cable runs, and also that DC to DC converters are every efficient, no need for isolation etc would there be any benefit in efficiency in running TVs, LED lighting, most electronic appliances off some DC (everything apart from huge motors and resistive heatime appliances) and what would be good standard voltages for households for power that is generated and distruted only within the household?

We know that we have now 50/60Hz in our walls due to mainly historical reasons - back 100 years ago there were no ways to up/down scale DC voltage.  These days we just have problems due to that - every single device sold have to have ~1uF cap per 1W of power before it's PSU to have enough power when we go through 0. (this problem does not exist in 3-phase power, but it available mainly in industrial applications only AFAIK) + caps have to have higher rated voltage to survive sine peaks + all this PFC mess.  Is that correct to say that if we were to design modern power grid, we would skip AC, and just have DC everywhere? As far as I see, it would significantly increase reliability & reduce cost of many devices out there.


== Cross-posted so  due to recommendation in the comments == Consider . I can't figure out if the very low notes at the very beginning are played by a (contra)basoon or a contrabass (or both). I don't know how to figure this out since there is is no guarantee that Harnoncourt adhered to the instrumentation of any sheet music of this piece that I can find. To me, the first note really sounds like a string being played, while the other ones could also be a woodwind instrument playing. As noted , there is a contrabasoon player in the , but unfortunately, this doesn't help us to answer the question either. I'd be grateful for anyone with a more precise ear than me and even more for someone with a source for the correct answer of this question.

== Crossposted from  as the question was deemed more appropriate for this site by a user with lots of rep == Consider . I can't figure out if the very low notes at the very beginning are played by a (contra)basoon or a contrabass (or both). I don't know how to figure this out since there's is no guarantee that Harnoncourt adhered to the instrumentation of any sheet music of this piece that I can find. To me, the first note really sounds like a string being played, while the other ones could also be a woodwind instrument playing. I'd be grateful for anyone with a more precise ear than me and even more for someone with a source for the correct answer of this question. Kind regards


I can't understand why my mesh has these black faces . . . (i have just retopology my high poly)    When i render it becomes in this way    But when i export with fbx in unity the result is this one    Can anyone tell me what's the problem please?

While rendering a mesh with smooth shading on, I get a dark region/shadow on certain faces. The effect is more evident when smooth shading is applied to a mesh containing ngons, with the ngons turning black when rendered.   The blackening effect is visible in the viewport too.  How can I solve this problem?


I'm puzzled on why a comma is used in this sentence.   "He showed admirable restraint, and refused to be provoked."  Independent and Dependent clause logic doesn't work here. I saw this on Cambridge online dictionary for the word "restraint".

I read this sentence on an educational website:     Now times have changed and you are ready for situations involving forces in two dimensions.   Shouldn't there be a comma before and, since the subject of the sentence has changed (things vs. you)?      Now times have changed, and you are ready for situations involving forces in two dimensions.   What is the exact comma rule for joining two clauses with and?


My surname is LO and my given name is Kei Cheung Arthur while my boarding pass name only shows that I am Arthur LO.  Will it affect my boarding?

I'm traveling from JED Saudi Arabia to Singapore by Saudi airlines. My last name doesn't match the passport. But all other details are same, e.g. passport no., DOB, etc.


I'm trying to solve for 188 and 131, how do we get 188 and 131 using CRT?  I can calculate these, its just I do not get how to get 188 and 131.  √23 (mod 209)  √a (mod p) = ±a(p+1)/4, if p ≡ 3 (mod 4)  √4 (mod 11) = ±23^3(mod 11) = ±1  √4 (mod 11) = ±23^3(mod 11) = ±17   Using the CRT we can therefore calculate √ 23 (mod 209) as ±188, ±131

I split this into $x^2\equiv 1\pmod {7}$ and $x^2\equiv 1\pmod {13}$.  For $x^2\equiv 1\pmod {7}$, i did: $$ (\pm1 )^2\equiv 1\pmod{7}$$ $$(\pm2 )^2\equiv 4\pmod{7}$$ $$(\pm3 )^2\equiv 2\pmod{7}$$ Which shows that the solutions to $x^2\equiv 1\pmod {7}$ are $\pm1$.  For $x^2\equiv 1\pmod {13}$, i did: $$ (\pm1 )^2\equiv 1\pmod{13}$$ $$(\pm2 )^2\equiv 4\pmod{13}$$ $$(\pm3 )^2\equiv 9\pmod{13}$$ $$ (\pm4 )^2\equiv 3\pmod{13}$$ $$(\pm5 )^2\equiv {-1}\pmod{13}$$ $$(\pm6 )^2\equiv 10\pmod{13}$$Which shows that the solutions to $x^2\equiv 1\pmod {13}$ are $\pm1$.  Thus, I concluded that the solutions to $x^2\equiv 1\pmod {91}$ must be $\pm1$. I thought that $\pm1$ were the only solutions, but apparently I am incorrect! How do I go about finding the other solutions to this congruence?


In the first Transformers movie, it was shown that Allspark energy converted a Nokia phone into a small robot. And, this robot was offensive by default. Why?

In the , common household electronics like cellphones, radios and blenders are often turned into Transformers when they come in contact with the AllSpark energy. Why are these new Transformers always evil, trying to shoot everything around them? Is there an in-universe explanation for this behaviour?


What I understood so far from preference shares is, the promotors sell a part of their shares at the current market price to some investment firm as preferential shares. But what good does it do them?  Can someone please explain me the concept of preferential shares in simple terms?

What are "preferred" stocks?  How are they different from normal (common) stocks that you can buy on a stock exchange?


The racial ability in question is from the Dragonspawn. "All spawn gain the ability to cast spells as 1st-level Sorcerers. If the base creature already possessed levels in Sorcerer, then the dragonspawn's effective sorcerer level increases by +1."  And the specific class I'm looking at is the Eldritch Theurge.  Though the question would still apply to any class that advances arcane spellcasting class levels.

For example Lets use the Marrutact from Sandstorm, it can cast as a 5th level wizard. if it then takes a prestige class that requires the ability to cast 1st level Arcane spells and advances arcane casting such as Abjurant Champion. assuming it meets all other prerequisites does the Marrutacts spellcasting improve when it takes a level in Abjurant Champion or does it gain no benefit?


Is it possible to write a command using TikZ to produce a small rounded and colored box around a piece of text, inside sentence? I know the \framedbox command gives a rectangle around a piece of text (but not a rounded rectangle as far as I know).   I guess one could also adjust the color of the background when using framebox (using tips from answers to  question), but I don't think it could help with other factors such as the box's edge-width, the amount of roundness, etc.   The following picture was produced with Inkscape for the purpose of the question.

I want to add a box with a very light pink background and red border around a word but inline and  within a sentence.   i.e. something like this (drawn with inkscape)    I know the mdframed package can be used for placing boxes around paragraphs, but it does not seem to work inline and also give colored boxes.   Possibly TikZ is a solution? From the little I know of TikZ, it can be used to draw pictures inline inside a sentence.


As a phonics teacher, I have long had a problem with finding the right explanation to my students about an inconsistent sound. Hope someone has the explanation to it here.   The long i sound in English represented by the IPA: aɪ exists in a lot of words including lie, by, tie, night, rice, lice, etc. Here comes the problem.   Not even talking about accents of different regions, but even within the same person, there seems to be an inconsistency. For example, when one says lice, he/she doesn' say lie-s, but with the vowel being something different. It also applies to tie vs tight, bye vs bite, fly vs flight, and many more. I wonder whether other phonics teachers point this out to their students and, if they do, how they explain it? Is there a rule to when the long i is one way and when the other? Or is it really  the same but it's my ears that's playing tricks on me? Appreciate any help and discussions.

What is the origin of “long long i” before voiced consonants (the [ai] of wide, while, & tribe) versus “short long i” before unvoiced consonants (the [ʌi] of white, wife, & wipe)? When did this difference appear? Is it just a secondary distinction, or are there minimal pairs for these two diphthongs?  Obviously the distinction is not present in all accents—though its presence in most leads me to believe it's not a late arrival—and yet I've never found a dictionary that distinguishes them.


I need to extract some specific names in Arabic/Persian (something like proper nouns in English), using python re library. example (the word "شرکت" means "company" and we want to extract what the company name is): input: شرکت تست گستران خلیج فارس output: تست گستران خلیج فارس  I've seen  and it would be fine to replace "university" with "شرکت" in that example but I don't understand how to find the keywords by regex with Arabic Unicode when it's not possible to use that in this way: re.match("شرکت", "\u0634\u0631\u06A9\u062A") # returns None

I need to delete some Unicode symbols from the string 'بِسْمِ اللَّهِ الرَّحْمَٰنِ الرَّحِيمِ'  I know they exist here for sure. I tried:  re.sub('([\u064B-\u0652\u06D4\u0670\u0674\u06D5-\u06ED]+)', '', 'بِسْمِ اللَّهِ الرَّحْمَٰنِ الرَّحِيمِ')   but it doesn't work. String stays the same. What am I doing wrong?


I have samples from normal distributions with the same mean but different standard deviations. I know the corresponding standard deviation for each sample. Is there a way to more accurately estimate mean other than taking an average over all the samples?

I have a large set of data points of the form (mean, stdev). I wish to reduce this to a single (better) mean, and a (hopefully) smaller standard deviation.  Clearly I could simply compute $\frac{\sum data_{mean}}{N}$, however this does not take in to account the fact that some of the data points are significantly more accurate than others.  To put it simply, I wish to preform a weighted average of these data points, but do not know what the weighting function should be in terms of the standard deviation.


Is there a way to reduce an iterable object to a single value? In javascript this can be done like so:    var array = [{num: 1}, {num: 10}, {num: 5}];  var result = array.reduce((cur, val) => val.num > cur ? val.num : cur, 0);      console.log(result);     The above will return the largest number in the array of objects.  Currently in C# I am using a foreach to find the largest item, but is there a built in function similar to the javascript reduce method from above?

What scenarios would warrant the use of the "" algorithm?   Is there a .NET implementation of this algorithm?


in my bash script I try to use a number as an input variable for a for loop I run the script as   ./script.sh InputFolder/ Number_of_iterations   the script should work inside the given folder and run a for loop as many times as the Number_of_iterations variable is set to. But somehow I can't set the variable as an integer.   this is an example of my loop in the script:  for i in {1..$(($2))} do  echo "Welcome $i times" done   I have tried already the double brackets $(($...)) option as well as the double quotations "...", but the output I keep getting is   Welcome {1..5} times   which make me think, this is not an integer.  I would appreciate any help in reading the input parameter as an integer into the script.

I want to use $var in a shell brace expansion with a range, in bash. Simply putting {$var1..$var2} doesn't work, so I went "lateral"...   The following works, but it's a bit kludgey.    # remove the split files echo rm foo.{$ext0..$extN} rm-segments > rm-segments source rm-segments   Is there a more "normal" way?


Since Ubuntu 20.04.01 was released a few days ago I expected that devs will update https://changelogs.ubuntu.com/meta-release-lts or https://changelogs.ubuntu.com/meta-release to meet new release. But still, there is no description for the new release so do-release-upgrade don't find a new version without -d argument I think that LTS can be upgraded after new .01 version is out

I want to use do-release-upgrade to upgrade from 18.04 to 20.04, but I can't do that do-release-upgrade Checking for a new Ubuntu release There is no development version of an LTS available.  It seems that  is used, and it still points to 18.04. Do you know when (or how?) can I upgrade to 20.04?


Nuclear decay is said to be random and spontaneous but how do we know for certain, that it is not just a lack of understanding of some other unknown force.  Doesn't everything in the universe just depend on the starting conditions, arguably nothing is random.

When it comes to radioactive decay, what is the difference between random and spontaneous?  For example, when the count rate of a radioactive isotope is measured, the readings fluctuate. Is this a demonstration of the randomness of the process, or of its spontaneous nature?


Historically, the word "decimate" means to "reduce/ destroy by one tenth"... i.e., a decimated army of 100 soldiers would have lost 10 soldiers. Is there a word that means the inverse, IOW "reduce/ destroy to one tenth", where a XXXXX army of 100 would only have 10 soldiers left? Ummm... dunno why this was marked as a duplicate to a question I didn't ask, but... still looking for an answer...

In , I learned that "to decimate" meant to reduce by 10% (hope I got that right).  And it is lamented that no-one uses it in this sense anymore.  Now, given that I never until today knew that it once had this meaning: was it ever even used this way in modern times?  When was it last used in a mainstream publication in this sense?


My friend has a trample deck, and I have a  that says "Whenever Stinkweed Imp deals combat damage to a creature, destroy that creature."  Can a creature destroyed this way still deal trample damage?  What if I block with a creature that actually has deathtouch?

I'm playing myself with two Avacyn Restored decks from a 6-booster sealed prerelease tournament, and wonder whether a 6/4 creature with trample blocked by a 4/1 creature would still allow damage through.


I read this example of pushing a table with your hands. So the force is applied on the table to push and the table exerts the same amount of force on our hands.   My question is, if the forces are equal and opposite, how does the table move on our push? Don't they cancel out? According to newtons third law reaction force from the table is same right.

Given Newton's third law, why is there motion at all? Should not all forces even themselves out, so nothing moves at all? When I push a table using my finger, the table applies the same force onto my finger like my finger does on the table just with an opposing direction, nothing happens except that I feel the opposing force. But why can I push a box on a table by applying force ($F=ma$) on one side, obviously outbalancing the force the box has on my finger and at the same time outbalancing the friction the box has on the table? I obviously have the greater mass and acceleration as for example the matchbox on the table and thusly I can move it, but shouldn't the third law prevent that from even happening? Shouldn't the matchbox just accommodate to said force and applying the same force to me in opposing direction?


I'm looking for a way to prove $\sin^2x+\cos^2x=1$ without using the Pythagorean Theorem or proving it.  The only thing I've tried was to play with the Taylor series, but I didn't get far with that as nothing seemed to 'mathify' nicely after a point.

How do you prove the following trigonometric identity: $$ \sin^2\theta+\cos^2\theta=1$$  I'm curious to know of the different ways of proving this depending on different characterizations of sine and cosine.


When using the --help option of a terminal program, a lot of output is produced. It usually starts with Usage: and then a bunch of things and brackets and parentheses. My question is, what doe the brackets/parentheses mean? I believe that anything in between [] is optional, but could somebody explain what the rest means?

While researching another problem, I ,  locate something | xargs -I {} bash -c "if [ -d "{}" ]; then echo {}; fi"   that I wanted to learn more about.  So I ran man xargs and get the following output:  XARGS(1)                    General Commands Manual                   XARGS(1)  NAME        xargs - build and execute command lines from standard input  SYNOPSIS        xargs  [-0prtx]  [-E  eof-str] [-e[eof-str]] [--eof[=eof-str]] [--null]        [-d delimiter] [--delimiter delimiter]  [-I  replace-str]  [-i[replace-        str]]    [--replace[=replace-str]]   [-l[max-lines]]   [-L   max-lines]        [--max-lines[=max-lines]] [-n max-args] [--max-args=max-args] [-s  max-        chars]  [--max-chars=max-chars]  [-P max-procs] [--max-procs=max-procs]        [--interactive]      [--verbose]      [--exit]      [--no-run-if-empty]        [--arg-file=file]   [--show-limits]   [--version]   [--help]   [command        [initial-arguments]]  DESCRIPTION        This manual page documents the GNU version of xargs...   I am trying to get better at using documentation to learn about Linux programs, but that "Synopsis" section is intimidating to new users.  It literally looks like gibberish compared to man locate or man free.  So far, I understand that square brackets mean optional and nested brackets mean options in optional.  But how am I supposed to induce a valid command with that?  I am not asking for help with xargs here.  I am looking for help interpreting a man page to understand complicated commands.  I want to stop making Google-indexed web blogs and personal help from others my first approach to learning Linux commands.


for the input   ATTTGGC   TGCCTTA   CGGTATC   GAAAATT   I want an output of 3-mers from each line forming a final list composed of all 3-mers  the output should be like  [ATT, TTT, TTG, TGG, GGC, TGC, GCC...]   not the GC\n for first line or TA\n for second-line  def getKmersFromDna(Dna,k): kmer_list = [] for i in range(len(Dna)-k+1):         kmer_list.append(Dna[i:i+k]) return list(kmer_list)   giving  output like ['CC\n', 'C\nG', '\nGT'] which I do not want.

What is the Python equivalent of Perl's chomp function, which removes the last character of a string if it is a newline?


Suppose we have a necklace of n beads. Each bead is labeled with an integer and the sum of all these labels is $n − 1$. Prove that we can cut the necklace to form a string whose consecutive labels $x_1, x_2,\dots, x_n$ satisfy $\sum_{i=1}^k x_i \le k −1$ for $k = 1,2,\dots,n$

I ran into nice problem which I proved and would be thankful if anyone assess it.  Given a sequence of integers $x_1,  x_2, \dots, x_n$ whose sum is 1? prove that exactly one of the cyclic shifts  $$x_1,x_2,\dots, x_n; \quad x_2,\dots, x_n,x_1; \cdots  \quad x_n, x_1\dots, x_{n-1}$$ has all of his partial sums positive. (By a partial sum we mean the sum of the first $k$ terms, $k\leqslant n$.)  My solution: For $n=1$ we have a single-term sequence and it is obvious.  Assume that our proposition is true for $n$. We'll try to prove it for $n+1$.  Let we have the sequence $(x_1, x_2, \dots, x_n,x_{n+1})$ then $\exists \ i$ such that $x_i>0$.   If $1\leqslant i <n+1$ then consider the following sequence $(x_1, \dots,x_i+x_{i+1},\dots, x_{n+1})$ which has $n$ elements. Then using the assumption of induction we have that there is exactly one cyclic shift with desired property, And if we write $x_i, x_{i+1}$ instead of $x_i+x_{i+1}$ and since $x_i>0$ we get our desired sequence. If $i=n+1$, i.e. $x_{n+1}>0$ then replace the sequence $(x_1, x_2, \dots, x_n,x_{n+1})$ by $(x_2, \dots, x_n,x_{n+1}+x_1)$ which consists of $n$ terms. Then using the assumption of induction we get exactly one sequence with desired properties and separating $x_{n+1}+x_1$ to $x_{n+1}, x_1$ we get the sequence with $n+1$ elements since $x_{n+1}>0$.


Suppose I place a cylinder filled with ideal gas is placed on a train, which starts moving. Does the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increase? Will the temperature of the gas rise as a consequence?  Further details: This question arises from a book I was reading, which states that      The motion of molecules is truly random. In other words, the center of mass of the gas is assumed to be at rest and any rotation about the center of mass is assumed to be absent. Any systematic motion of a gas sample has no effect on temperature.

In (non-relativistic) classical physics, if the temperature of an object is proportional to the average kinetic energy ${1 \over 2} m\overline {v^{2}}$of its particles (or molecules), then shouldn't that temperature depend on the frame of reference - since $\overline {v^{2}}$ will be different in different frames?  (I.e. In the lab frame  $K_l = {1 \over 2} m\overline {v^{2}} $, but in a frame moving with velocity $u$ relative to the lab frame, $K_u =  {1 \over 2} m \overline {(v+u)^{2}}$).


My Professor is requiring me to write a script for my final presentation. I'm using LaTeX (because I can), and I'd like to reference my a slide from my beamer presentation within my script.  Right now I have two files, presentation.tex and script.tex.   presentation.tex:   \documentclass{beamer}  \title{My Presentation} \author{John Smith}  \graphicspath{{src/}}  \begin{document} \maketitle  \begin{frame}     \begin{figure}[p]         \centering         \includegraphics[width=\textwidth,keepaspectratio]{myimage.png}         \caption{This caption is important (Williams).\label{fig-1-williams}}     \end{figure} \end{frame}  \end{document}   script.tex  \documentclass{article}  \title{My Script} \author{John Smith}  \begin{document} \maketitle  \input{presentation}  \end{document}   I've encountered , which seemed similar to my question, however their question appeared to include the entire document, which is not my goal. I'd like to be able to reference a label of a figure in presentation.tex. Something such as the following:  As you can see by Figure~\ref{fig-1-williams}, dogs are better than cats.   How does one go about citing an out of document image like this? I believe the two documents should remain paired in some way, but I'm not sure how.

I want to cross-reference between different .tex files, just because I want to put every chapters separately.  Let's say in file chapterI.tex I have \label{a} and I want to access this in file chapterII.tex using something like \ref{a}. How to do this exactly in LaTeX, moreover if LEd have an easy feature to cover this, it will be better (I have put those both files in the same project).  I found another question with similar title, but I just didn't really understand. It's here: .


Is developerquestion.com a Stack Exchange ripoff, or is there some valid connection to SE? I.e. does it use the Stack Exchange framework (it really looks very similar)?  Interestingly, it mirrors all the questions of the Stack Exchange sites. Unfortunately, the site does not contain any "about" info at all.

of Stack Overflow, all content posted on Stack Exchange sites by their users (i.e. you wonderful people) has been provided to the whole universe under . For my fellow non-lawyers, that license basically means:   Anyone can use any Stack Exchange posts at any time without having to ask for permission Making money off of the copied content is permitted You don't even have to copy stuff from here verbatim; you can just use it as a starting point and make whatever edits you want There are just two rules you have to follow:   You have to provide . Simple links to the original post and author info are just fine. You have to  and allow other people to use your content, as long as they follow these very same rules. How meta!    (If you ever forget any of that, and want to refresh your memory, the license info is linked to in the footer of every page.)  There are, in fact, a lot of people who republish varying amounts of our content for assorted reasons. Unfortunately, there are some Stack Content Republishers Attributing Poorly and/or Excelling at Ranking (SCRAPERs, for short).  In this context, "attributing poorly" means any use that doesn't follow our attribution rules or make any other reasonable attempt at give credit. This can get pretty egregious; I've seen SCRAPERs that not only don't link back to SE originals, but also use fake author info and post dates to make it harder to find originals. By "excelling at ranking," I'm referring to copycat sites that end up higher in Google results than the original SE sites do for the same content. That's not necessarily wrong, but in some cases, it indicates inappropriate SEO hackery.  So, the question is: what can you do if you spot a SCRAPER?


The fighting style feature states that     You can’t take a Fighting Style option more than once, even if you later get to choose again.   However, if you are a Ranger 2/Fighter 1 (for example), can you choose the same fighting style as a Ranger and as a Fighter because it’s two different class features?

Suppose I have a ranger with the style Archery, and I take a one level dip into fighter and also pick Archery. Do I get an additional +4 to my attack rolls, or just +2? More generally, does the same Fighting Style stack with itself in other cases, like dueling with Paladin and dueling with Fighter?


I'm hoping someone can help me with an issue I'm having with using wifi on my laptop.   I recently switched to Ubuntu 16.04 from Windows 10 on my laptop, when connecting to the main Virgin Hub or the 300mbs tp-link tl-wa850re wifi extender the wifi signal strength seems to decrease massively when I am not near either of the wifi devices. When the laptop is very close to the devices the wifi signal is strong and works well, however even if I am a meter away the wifi becomes slow. It is impossible to load pages in my room on my desk whereas when using Windows 10 the signal was still strong whilst at my desk.  Below is the pastebin of the wireless-info, hopefully someone can see a problem and help, cheers

I have a HP 14-AN001NA laptop. It came with Windows 10 installed on which the Wi-Fi worked fine anywhere in the house.   However I removed Windows 10 and installed Ubuntu 16.04 instead and since I have had terrible Wi-Fi anywhere aside from about three foot away from the router. I don't know if it's relevant but my Wi-Fi is not called wlan0 but wlo1 for some reason (I didn't change it).  When running lspci -knn | grep Net -A3     I get the following output:  05:00.0 Network controller [0280]: Realtek Semiconductor Co., Ltd. RTL8723BE PCIe Wireless Network Adapter [10ec:b723] DeviceName:   Subsystem: Hewlett-Packard Company RTL8723BE PCIe Wireless Network Adapter [103c:81c1] Kernel driver in use: rtl8723be Kernel modules: wl, rtl8723be


I am learning WordPress and I am working on the contact us form. I am using jQuery validation. I am using the below code. function contact($atts){  $html='<form name="invite" id="contactform" class="contactform" method="post" action="">

         Your email address         <input name="email" placeholder="your.email@gmail.com" type="email" class="form-control customInput" />

         Your Message         <textarea name="message" placeholder="Your Message..." rows="6" class="form-control customInput"></textarea>

<input type="submit" class="" name="Send Mail">
 </form>';  $html.='  ';  return $html;  } add_shortcode( 'contact-form', 'contact');  My issue is, I am getting the error  Uncaught ReferenceError: $ is not defined  I already added the jquery at the bottom above the . I know the jquery validation is above the jquery but If I add again jQuery then there will be two jQuery on my page. and if I remove the jQuery from the bottom then my other scripts are not working. Can you please assist me in what is the best way to handle this issue?

I know that jQuery is loaded, because I can switch out the $ for 'jQuery' and everything behaves as expected, but this will be a messy script if I can't fix this  This script:  jQuery(document).ready(function(){     $("ul.vimeo_desc_feed li a").click(function(){         alert($(this).attr('href'));         return false;     }) });   Produces the error $ is not a function  This script:  jQuery(document).ready(function(){     jQuery("ul.vimeo_desc_feed li a").click(function(){         alert(jQuery(this).attr('href'));         return false;     }) });   works fine.


Show that if $f'(z)=0$ from the function $f : D \to \mathbb{C}$ which $D \subset \mathbb{C}$ is a domain (i.e. open connected set), then $f(z)=a \in \mathbb{C}$ ($a$ is a constant in $\mathbb{C}$). The conclusion is it the same if $f'(z)=0$ on any open   set?   I think I can use the Cauchy-Riemann theorem, but it's unclear.   Is anyone could explain to me how to solve this problem?

I've been thinking how to prove that an analytic function $f$ in the domain $D$ is a constant if  $f'(z)=0$ in every point in $D$, but I haven't figured it out yet.  What I was thinking is to use Cauchy-Riemann equations, but it didn't work well...  If this is not true, I would like to know the counterexample...  Here is what I tried:  Let $f(z)=u(x,y)+iv(x,y)$  $\color{blue}{(1)}\text{(Cauchy-Riemann})\begin{cases} u_y=-v_x\\ u_x=v_y \end{cases}$  $\color{blue}{(2)}\lim\limits_{\Delta z \to 0}\frac{f(z_0+\Delta z)-f(z_0)}{\Delta z }=0$ for all $z_0$ in $D$  I'm stuck here...


I am trying to apply a CSS style for content inside the iframe, please check this link   jQuery:  $(document).ready(function() {     $('iframe').contents().find('h1').css('color','red'); });   HTML:  <iframe src="mysite" width="100%" height="100%" id="myframe"></iframe>   For iframe source I have used a live website.

I have a simple page that has some iframe sections (to display RSS links). How can I apply the same CSS format from the main page to the page displayed in the iframe?


A connection $\nabla$ in a vector bundle $E$ over manifold $M$ is a (globally defined) map $$ \nabla : \Gamma(E) \to \Gamma(T^* M) \otimes \Gamma(E) $$ that satisfies the Leibniz rule: $$ \nabla(f \, s) = \mathrm{d}f \otimes s + f \nabla s $$ I often heard that in vector bundles, a connection gives us a way to identify nearby fibers, so we can differentiate sections, however I don't how this works using the above  definition. Could any one please explain how a connection allows us to identify nearby fibers and to differentiate section ? Your help would be greatly appreciated!

I know that section of $TM$ is a vector field on manifold. And I understand that we need a connection to differentiate vectors that live in two different spaces. But still couldn’t grasp the idea how defining the connection that way will allow us to somehow compare or connect those spaces. Like in affine connection: It’s  a bilinear map that sends two vector fields to another one. But how this connection help us to compare the vector space at point $p$ to vector space of point $q$?


I once was suspended in Stack Overflow (the time that I'm implying in this question) and I currently am.  I came across my account on Stack Overflow and I want to edit a post. Turns out I was suspended, but for some reason, instead of "Account is suspended.", it was "Suggested edits queue is full.". I took a look further on the question and asked if one of my friends owned it. Turns out their question has no suggested edits at all. I also checked if people suggested edits on any of my questions. Turns out there's none. Is this a bug? Let me know.

Possible Duplicate:          I temporarily lost the ability to edit questions or answers on Stack Overflow, the link was simply missing. It's not for a couple of posts that have pending edits as I've had a browse around and it is universal.  My current edit stats are:      Alex Hadley had 96 edit suggestions approved, and 6 edit suggestions rejected.   Which seems reasonable to me.  My questions are:    What are the factors that determine this sort of suspension of permissions?  What can one do to improve the situation in the future, and avoid such 'suspensions'? How long do they normally last? And also, is it possible for additional information to be provided when this occurs?   Note, this was only a temporary issue, but the question is still interesting I believe.


I have a I2C Master as a MCU operating on 3.3VDC.  And a slave MCU operating at 5VDC.  I want to communicate between these two devices using I2C.   For level shifting 3.3V to/from 5V purpose I am using a I2C isolator ic   At master side, 4.7kohm pull ups are used for communicating with other slaves at 3.3V.  Is it required to connect the pull up resistors at isolator second side i.e. 5V side?  If yes then what should be its value?

In our current design, we have two devices which communicate with each other using I2C. But their I2C logic levels are different, so we need to use a level translation? Can I use a simple level translator for this? I have chosen this part MAX13003


I've read some sci-fi novel long ago where lizards during natural selection became more advanced than humans. Also, as some clue, in that book's world transport was mostly biological - I remember giant fishes used as transport. Can't remember its title.

Many, many years ago, I read a book where dinosaurs were assumed to have suvived the K-T event (or it never happened), and they evolved to intelligent species that used not only language (which combined sound, posture, and colour changes on their skin) but also used technology.  In the series, a human is captured or somehow gets integrated with one of the evolved dinosaur groups.  Again, from a very faint memory, the dinosaurs had a level of technology that would be about middle ages, and the humans were much more analogous to American Indian.  That's really all I can recall about the book, and I am trying to find it for my daughter to read.  Can anyone help me out?


I understand that for transporting electric energy it makes way more sense to have AC. But within my house, I don't think that argument holds any more.  Devices I use (roughly ordered by power consumption):   Stove / oven: Isn't connected to the usual power plugs anyway, but a "high power" one Washing Machine: max 900 W Micro Wave: 800 W Hand mixer: 450 W (I was quite surprised by that) Fridge+Freezer: max 110 W Laptop (usually 50 Watt, max 90 Watt) Smartphone: 15 W? electrical shaver: < 10 W LED lights: 3 W alarm clock: ? Charging USB 2/3 devices   I've just seen that the car charger cable for my Notebook is WAY smaller than the one for the usual power plug. Looking at the power supply unit of my laptop, I see that it outputs direct current.  Seeing this huge difference in the size of the charger unit (and the price as well), I wonder why the usual power socket does not provide DC, but AC. What are the advantages within a house to use AC? Why wouldn't it be a good idea to have DC power plugs (e.g. as in cars)? (I've also heard that solar pannels provide DC).

This is a philosophical question. Over the last few years, many of the household devices, particularly those that are more mobile and etc are DC devices. Are we at some point where a DC household may become a possibility and Edisons dream might come true??  The array of DC devices    Internet stuff - routers, modems Most complex computer electronics - Desktops, laptops, NAS, phones, tablets, gaming consoles, etc Lighting - LED More that I cant think of or perhaps know which also convert AC -> DC   Problems with AC     Each device needs its own power supply ( AC-> DC power brick). This is a) Unpleasant to look at and deal with, and b) a costly point of failure.  Each power brick may or may not be optimized, as far as power conversion goes.   Alternative - A central (or a few ) high capacity power adapter which converts the AC into a DC power grid for the house which can then be tapped directly by the various devices. This eliminates the need for the power brick, and hopefully the central power adapter is of state of the art, and can be upgraded seperately from the devices, as needed.  Need standardization of:   Device voltage. Currently devices use 5/ 9 / 12 or others I may not be aware of, for this idea to work they need to work with one particular one, unless switching between voltages is cheap enough, or multiple DC lines are provided. Power socket input. Each device appears to have its own input socket type, this should standardize if the power supply cable should be comoditized, perhaps USB - C will play a part here.


#include<iostream>  using namespace std; int hour(int h) {     int second;     //second=(h/3600);     if (h>3600)         second=h/3600;     else         second=(h/3600);     return (second); }  int minute(int m) {     int second2;     second2=(   );     return(second2); }  int second(int s) {     int second3;     second3=((s-3600)%60);     return (second3); }  void main() {     int convert;     cout<<"please enter seconed to convert it to hour\b";      cin>>convert;     cout<<"hr : min : sec \n";     cout<<hour(convert)<<":"<<minute(convert)<<":"<<second(convert)<<endl;     system("pause"); }   thanks for the help, this is supposed to convert seconds to minutes to hours but it doesnt seem to work properly.again, sorry if its super simple i just started learning c++ this year and a lot of stuff confuses me

What is the correct (most efficient) way to define the main() function in C and C++ — int main() or void main() — and why? And how about the arguments? If int main() then return 1 or return 0?  There are numerous duplicates of this question, including:       — For C++, with a very good answer indeed.     Related:


How can I turn this into canonical form and then use the two-phase simplex method to solve it?  $$max\quad -2x_1-x_2-x_3 \\ \text{subject to: }-x_1-x_3 \le -1 \\ -x_1+x_2 \le -2 \\ -x_2+x_3 \le -1 \\ x_1,x_2,x_3 \ge 0 $$  When I put it into the tableau with only slack variables there are no negative coefficients in the bottom room to find the column to pivot around

How can I turn this into canonical form and then use the two-phase simplex method to solve it? Would I need to add slack variable AND surplus variables?  $$\max\quad -2x_1-x_2-x_3 \\ \text{subject to: }-x_1-x_3 \le -1 \\ -x_1+x_2 \le -2 \\ -x_2+x_3 \le -1 \\ x_1,x_2,x_3 \ge 0 $$  When I put it into the tableau with only slack variables there are no negative coefficients in the bottom room to find the column to pivot around.