Suppose I have a website for a company which I want to SEO.  Think of two scenarios:  1) There is only index.php, and for /about /contact sections I do it like this: index.php?what=about , index.php?what=contact etc. and I change the url using .htaccess, so the links become www.company.com/about , www.company.com/contact and every page has unique content of course.  2) Everything has their own page. i.e. :   http  index.php about.php contact.php    I think that these two scenarios are the same, if they have the same content. I mean Google should not care about the server-end right? Or am I wrong? Please inform me before I go any further :)  Thanks !

I am creating a new website for a client, and I think a single page website / layout will be pretty neat. There is not that much detailed content, it is a company that imports a lot of products from different companies. So it will be a bit of a showcase of the different types of products / equipment you can order. Of the whole catalog only maybe 10 products are actually shown.  Now I have the basic structure with sections and links like:      #home / #products / #equipment / #services / #contact.    Now from what I understand is that Google does not index links containing #, so there will be no problem of duplicate content, everything will be indexed as the frontpage.  Now what I want to optimize is searching. This company is agent of some product in the country, meaning only they have the permission to import and sell that product. This means  that when somebody searches for product x, this website pops up as the first hit.  Now can I make it that they will be automatically brought to the #products part of the website directly from google.  I was thinking of something like having google index the different sections as different pages. Is something like that possible?


Maddy and I have a great idea for a fan Horror game but we don't know how to make a good jumpscare for a horror game! Enlighten us in how a jumpscare works well to make this fan game the best it can be!

I am working on a game and would like to include a few jump scares. So here is a rather simple question — What makes a good jump scare and when and how should they happen?


I have a file that contains:  [Settings] gtk-theme-name = Arc gtk-icon-theme-name = Luv   I am trying to replace the 3rd line so that "Luv" will say somethig else. I tried with this command:  sed -r "3 s/.*/gtk-icon-theme-name = $SELECTED/" ~/.config/gtk-3.0/settings.ini   However, the output gets shown in my terminal and doesn't actually change the file at all. The variable is set by a previous command, btw (trying to write a script to change gtk3 icons for *box users).  Thanks a ton to whoever helps!

How can I find and replace specific words in a text file using command line?


just want to clear something up. Take a ball that's been dropped to the ground. Gravity acts and this ball as it has mass and then the ball now moves to the ground with a constant force of say ($X$). Now when the ball makes contact with the ground, Newtons 3'rd Law takes effect (no air resistance): If object A (the ball) exerts a force on object B (the floor), then object B will exert an equal force on object A in the opposite direction. (Action has equal opposite reaction). Now here's where I get confused. If the ball (which has a constant force when it hits the ground ($X$)) experiences the same constant force in the opposite direction ($-X$, minus indicating opposite direction), then the total force acting on the ball should be net ZERO ( $X + (-X) = 0$). So there are no net forces acting on the ball, so why does it BOUNCE BACK? What am I missing? Shouldn't the ball just stay on the ground? Bouncing back means a force greater than (-X) was applied to the ball giving it upward motion. Where did it come from?

When a ball is thrown onto a wall, the ball exerts a force onto the wall. According to Newton's Third Law, the wall will exert an equal and opposite force to the ball. Thus, how would the ball be able to bounce back? Shouldn't it just slide down the wall?


I would like to be able to run the aliased commands I have defined for my current user in conjunction with sudo as well.   This does not work by default, because they would have to be defined for root instead of my current user in order to work with sudo.  An example is the ll alias:  $ type ll ll is aliased to `ls -alF' $ sudo ll / sudo: ll: command not found   A special problem would be nested aliases:  bytecommander@BC-AlkaliMetal:~$ type ls ls is aliased to `ls --color=auto'   So actually ll should evaluate to ls -alf --color=auto.  How can I run aliases defined for my current user as root with sudo properly?

I was playing around with aliases today and I noticed that aliases don't seem to be available whilst using sudo:  danny@kaon:~$ alias alias egrep='egrep --color=auto' alias fgrep='fgrep --color=auto' alias grep='grep --color=auto' alias l='ls -CF' alias la='ls -A' alias ll='ls -alF' alias ls='ls --color=auto'  danny@kaon:~$ ll -d / drwxr-xr-x 23 root root 4096 2011-01-06 20:29 //  danny@kaon:~$ sudo -i root@kaon:~# ll -d / drwxr-xr-x 23 root root 4096 2011-01-06 20:29 // root@kaon:~# exit logout  danny@kaon:~$ sudo ll -d / sudo: ll: command not found   Is there any reason why you cannot use aliases whilst using sudo?


The locked and closed question  has an  that contains an anti-pattern, .  I tried to edit and to comment, which both did not work, as this is a . Yet, it would be nice if it could avoid advertising anti-patterns.  Is there any way to amend the answer, or any alternative?

Historical locks are sometimes applied to questions.   What is a historical lock? What is the purpose of a historical lock? How are questions affected by historical locking? When is it appropriate to lock a question for historical reasons?  When is it not appropriate? How do I request a historical lock for a question? What should I do if I notice a serious problem with a historically-locked question or one of its answers?


Suppose I have a trusted ISO Ubuntu 18.04 image on a USB stick. I have a brand new notebook and boot it from the USB stick. The notebook is connected through Wi-Fi with an unknown or untrusted internet provider ( suppose I am in a Wi-Fi Caffé), so I cannot trust dynamic DNS I got through DHCP.  AFAIK, when installing and upgrading packages, secure apt is used, so downloaded packages are signed and their signatures are checked by the public keys previously loaded in the ISO image.  I conclude that under this situation the installation is secure, regardless of the reliability of the DNS you are using.    Are my assumptions true?    Note: Although this question has been marked as a duplicate one of  , it is slightly different because it has to do more with a brand new installation than with upgrading packages of an installed system, and my question is originally concerned with DNS reliability instead of HTTP vs HTTPS protocol. Nevertheless, as fas as both cases use apt in a secure way, relying on public key infrastructure, the answer for both of them is the same.

Are repository updates secure?  As a bear of little brain from the developer side, I cannot understand why the repository list is http://security.ubuntu.com and the other http(unsecured) sites listed in /etc/apt/sources.list.  Without a certificate chain match this appears as "ask any responder for a list of packages to update" instead of "ask the ubuntu.com site..."  Can any network choose to spoof the update sites, and is this a common practice to provide a locally cached and vetted copy?


Tag excerpts don't support formatting (). However, their  seems to suggest so:

For example, on the   , note that the edits are rendered with Markdown previews.    (e.g. the code-ified and linked array_unique() at the start of my post) Markdown is not supported in excerpts, so this should not happen. This is still an issue eight years later.


Suppose I have some theorem in the paper  Section 1 Theorem 1.1. Let ...  And then later in the paper I want to recall the theorem by reprinting it  Section 4 We recall Theorem 1.1: Theorem 1.1. Let ...  What's the proper way to do this?

Often in my papers I want to mention theorems in the introduction that are introduced in more detail and proved in a later section.  I'd like to include the statement of these theorems twice over, each time numbered as the theorem would naturally appear in its later section.  My current solution (using amsthm) is, e.g.  %(in the introduction) \newtheorem*{thm:associativity}{Theorem \ref{thm:associativity}} \begin{thm:associativity} Lorem ipsum ... \end{thm:associativity}  %(in a later section) \begin{thm} \label{thm:associativity} Lorem ipsum ... \end{thm}      Can anyone think of a cleaner solution?


Particles can be seen as "Unitary irreducible representations of the Poincare' group" using the Casimir of the representations: $m$ and $j$. Now, is it possible to generalize this procedure in order to classify all the "Unitary irreducible representations of the Diffeomorphism group"? If it's possible, does this give a generalization of the concept of particle? In both cases the group is acting on the space-time.

In (special) relativistic quantum mechanics there is a standard argument that says that the (rigged) Hilbert space of states $H$ should be equipped with a projective unitary representation $U$ of the Poincaré group $P$ that goes something like this:  Suppose we have two observers $O_1$ and $O_2$ and $x\in P$ is the Poincaré transformation that maps $O_1$s coordinate system into $O_2$s coordinate system.  Then, if $O_1$ and $O_2$ attempt to measure the same thing, they will actual find different states, $\left| \psi _1\right>$ and $\left| \psi _2\right>$ respectively, in $H$ (for example, if you first find the vector $(1,0,0)$, rotate your axes by $\pi/2$ and measure the same vector, the numbers you now record are going to be $(0,1,0)$).  In fact, this gives us a map of states:  $\left| \psi _1\right> \mapsto \left| \psi _2\right>$ (it's only going to be well-defined up to phase).  Let us call this map $U(x)$, so that $\left| \psi _2\right> =U(x)\left| \psi _1\right>$.  However, if we accept the principle of relativity that physics should be the same in two reference frames related by a Poincaré transformation, then we better have that $$ \left| \left< \phi _1|\psi _1\right> \right| =\left| \left< \phi _2|\psi _2\right> \right| =\left| \left< U(x)\phi _1|U(x)\psi _1\right> \right| $$ for all (normalized) $\left| \psi _1\right>$ and $\left| \phi _1\right>$ because this represents a probability (of course, $\left| \psi _2\right> :=U(x)\left| \psi _1\right>$ and $\left| \phi _2\right> =U(x)\left| \phi _1\right>$).   then tells us that this gives a projective unitary representation of $P$ on $H$.  (Note:  I am allowing some elements of $P$ to be represented by antiunitaries.)  Now, if you try to do the same argument in curved spacetime, you run into the obvious problem that you will not in general have an analogue of the Poincaré group (I believe there exist spacetimes which possess no Killing fields); however, it naively seems as if the principle of general covariance suggests that we should 'upgrade' the isometry group of spacetime to the entire diffeomorphism group of the spacetime in the above argument.  (In particular, I don't see how this argument makes crucial use of the fact that both observes coordinate bases are orthonormal.)  That then, would imply, that the Hilbert space of states in a quantum theory of curved spacetime should possess a projective unitary representation of the diffeomorphism group of that spacetime.  This, however, at first glance, seems like it would be false.  So, where does the argument break down if you replace the Poincaré group in special relativity with the diffeomorphism group in general relativity?  Or, is it in fact the case that we should obtain a unitary representation of the entire diffeomorphism group.


Be $f:[0,1]\longrightarrow[0,1]$ a continuous function, prove that exists $x\in[0,1]$ so that $f(x)=x$ .  I am studying mathematical analysis in functions of one variable, and looking through my notes I can't find any theorem or proposition to help me prove it.

Question: Let $a, b \in \mathbb{R}$ with $a < b$ and let $f: [a,b] \rightarrow [a,b]$ continuous. Show: $f$ has a fixed point, that is, there is an $x \in [a,b]$ with $f(x)=x$.  I suppose this has to do with the basic definition of continuity. The definition I am using is that $f$ is continuous at $a$ if $\displaystyle \lim_{x \to a} f(x)$ exists and if $\displaystyle \lim_{x \to a} f(x) = f(a)$. I must not be understanding it, since I am not sure how to begin showing this... Should I be trying to show that $x$ is both greater than or equal to and less than or equal to $\displaystyle \lim_{x \to a} f(x)$ ?


I'm thinking that since $\sum a_n x^n$ = $\sum b_n x^n$ are equal, then it should be obvious that $a_n = b_n$ for all  $n\in\mathbb{N}$. Is this true or false? Thank you!

I guess the answer is NO, for polynomials.  I know that there are more than one series expansion for every function.  But I am talking about power series here.  All Ideas are appreciated


I was playing on my PlayStation 4 when my fully charged controller suddenly turned off. I thought it just went dead and plugged it into my charger. I then tried to turn on my other controller but it wouldn't connect. I tried to rest the controller but that didn't work. Does anyone know how to fix this? I only want to use unplugging my Playstation as a last resort because I've put a lot of hours into what I was playing and was about to save when the controller turned off. Also, my controllers will connect to my mom's system but not mine.

I was playing my PS4 two days ago and then packed it up with two controllers that were both connected to this PS4.   I got to where I was going, set everything up and now the controllers won't connect. They show pulsing orange when they plug in, but when I hit the PS Button to connect, it blinks white 1-2 times and goes back to orange.   I have tried resetting them both.  Can anyone help?


Currently working on a project but have run a bit into a stand still with my program.  while(True):     if p1.play() == False:         break     betInput = int(input("How much do you want to bet?"))     while(betInput > p1.wallet or betInput <=0):         betInput = int(input("How much do you want to bet?"))         continue     p1.bet(betInput)     print("")      for i in range(2):         p1.getCard ( d.dealCard() )         p2.getCard ( d.dealCard() )     p1.show()     p2.dealShow()     gameInput = input("Hit or Stand? H\S")     gameInput = gameInput.lower()     p1.gameMove(gameInput)     if p1.winCheck(betInput) == 1:         continue      while gameInput == 'h' and p1.cardCheck() != True or gameInput == 'hit' and p1.cardCheck() != True:         gameInput = input("Hit or Stand? H\S")         gameInput = gameInput.lower()         p1.gameMove(gameInput)         if p1.winCheck(betInput) == 1:             if p1.play() == False:                 pass         p2.winCheck(betInput)   The issue is that when I go to break out of "gameInput" loop (to quit the program), it just breaks out of it and then continues on down the code, is there a way I can have it loop back up to the first while loop? Or, is there a way to just terminate the program right then and there?

Given the following code (that doesn't work):  while True:     #snip: print out current state     while True:         ok = get_input("Is this ok? (y/n)")         if ok.lower() == "y": break 2 #this doesn't work :(         if ok.lower() == "n": break     #do more processing with menus and stuff   Is there a way to make this work? Or do I have do one check to break out of the input loop, then another, more limited, check in the outside loop to break out all together if the user is satisfied?


I'm trying to cut the mesh in grey with the plane in yellow to get a rounded face. I tried with the Bolean Modifier but no way it doesn't work.  I'm using the version 2.7. Thanks for your help.

Coming from SketchUp one of the tools I miss most is the circle draw tool which lets you draw a circle on any face and then you could extrude it in/out. The only tool that I know of that comes close to this is the knife tool but this would be very impractical to cut out with the knife  Example:    Is there any tool in blender that can match this function? also how could you do this with squares?


I tried to turn off Facebook notifications in my System Preferences on my OSX 10.9.1 but they still won't go away. What am I doing wrong? I unchecked all the boxes but it insists on showing me pop up balloons in the top right corner of my screen every time I get a notification. How can I make it go away??? Do I need to re-boot my computer in order for it to work?

How to turn off Facebook notifications on Mac OS X Mountain Lion?


How can I upgrade from 5.1.1 to 6.x in order to utilize  storage?

This Community Wiki question is designed to be the "canonical question" for questions asking how to upgrade one's device to a new Android version.   I want to get a newer version of the OS for my Android device. How can I do that?  See also:


I'm facing some strange behabiour in my bash script. I have a simple script parser.sh, wich is really simple: #!/bin/bash  for arg in "$@" do      echo ARGUMENT: "$arg" done  This script is called from another script in the same directory, lets call this one test.sh #!/bin/bash  `pwd`/parser.sh "ARG1=FIRST" "ARG2=TESTING SPACES"  The script shown above really works, and outputs the arguments as expected: ARGUMENT: ARG1=FIRST ARGUMENT: ARG2=TESTING SPACES  However, if I change the test.sh as follows: #!/bin/bash  ARGS="\"ARG1=FIRST\" \"ARG2=TESTING SPACES\"" `pwd`/parser.sh $ARGS   This simple modification, makes the code to fails when iterating over arguments: ARGUMENT: "ARG1=FIRST" ARGUMENT: "ARG2=TESTING ARGUMENT: SPACES"  Why is that happening? What am I missing? Thanks in advance

Or, an introductory guide to robust filename handling and other string passing in shell scripts.  I wrote a shell script which works well most of the time. But it chokes on some inputs (e.g. on some file names).  I encountered a problem such as the following:   I have a file name containing a space hello world, and it was treated as two separate files hello and world. I have an input line with two consecutive spaces and they shrank to one in the input. Leading and trailing whitespace disappears from input lines. Sometimes, when the input contains one of the characters \[*?, they are replaced by some text which is is actually the name of files. There is an apostrophe ' (or a double quote ") in the input and things got weird after that point. There is a backslash in the input (or: I am using Cygwin and some of my file names have Windows-style \ separators).   What is going on and how do I fix it?


In Kittel's Solid state physics, on page 171. He claimes     If one particular wavevector $k$ is contained in a $\psi$, then all other wavevectors in the Fourier expansion of this $\psi$ will have the form $k+G$, where $G$ is any reciprocal lattice vector.    He then continues with stating that a wavefunction labeled as $\psi_k$ may equally well be labeled as $\psi_{k+G}$ because if $k$ enters in the Fourier expansion, then $k+G$ may enter.   I am really wondering what is the proper argument for justifying this. Although I may have overlooked it when reading the text, I cannot find a good explaination.   His first statement is that  $$ \psi = \sum_{k} C(k) e^{ikx},$$ but after discussing that all wavevectors have the form $k+G$, and deriving the central equation, he is able to rewrite this into  $$ \psi_k = \sum_{G} C(k-G) e^{i(k-G)x} = \left( \sum_{G} C(k-G) e^{-iGx} \right) e^{ikx}, $$  which proves Bloch's theorem. Justifying the quoted claim therefore seems essential to proving the desired result. If this is not the case, I don't think I see the connection between the first and second expression for $\psi$ and would really like a explaination of the two expressions and their relation.

This is a question about the 'Second Proof of Bloch's Theorem' which can be found in chapter 8 of Solid State Physics by Ashcroft and Mermin. Alternatively a similar (one dimensional) version of the proof can be found at   The Schrodinger equation is given by $$\left[-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\mathbf{\nabla}^2+U(\mathbf{r})\right]\psi=\epsilon\psi$$ We write the periodic potential as the Fourier series $$U(\mathbf{r})=\sum_{\mathbf{K}}U_{\mathbf{K}}e^{i\mathbf{K}.\mathbf{r}}$$ where $\mathbf{K}$ is a reciprocal lattice vector, whilst the eigenfunctions may be written as the plane wave expansion $$\psi(\mathbf{r})=\sum_{\mathbf{q}}c_{\mathbf{q}}e^{i\mathbf{q}\cdot\mathbf{r}}$$ Substitution yields the condition on the coefficients $$\left(\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}q^2-\epsilon\right)c_{\mathbf{q}}+\sum_{\mathbf{K'}}U_{\mathbf{K'}}c_{\mathbf{q}-\mathbf{K'}}=0$$ This couples wavevectors that differ only by a reciprocal lattice vector. My question is why does this imply that $c_{\mathbf{q}}=0$ unless $\mathbf{q}=\mathbf{k},\mathbf{k}+\mathbf{K},...$ (with $\mathbf{k}$ in the first Brillouin zone) so that the eigenfunctions are given by $$\psi_{\mathbf{k}}=\sum_{\mathbf{K}}c_{\mathbf{k}-\mathbf{K}}e^{i(\mathbf{k}-\mathbf{K})\cdot\mathbf{r}}$$ I see no reason to suggest that the eigenfunctions aren't given by $$\psi(\mathbf{r})=\sum_{\mathbf{k}}\sum_{\mathbf{K}}c_{\mathbf{k}-\mathbf{K}}e^{i(\mathbf{k}-\mathbf{K})\cdot\mathbf{r}}$$ but this doesn't seem to explained in much detail in either of the above sources. Thanks!


I just switched to Ubuntu from openSuse where I used wireshark with no problem.  Now I receive the error that "You don't have permission to capture on that device" referring to my 802.11 wifi.  I have root privileges but not running as root.  I installed Wireshark from the Ubuntu software Center.  Solution please.

I'm using Ubuntu 13.04.  Wireshark won't show me any logs, won't function at all. I'm connected to my WiFi,  Belkin router.


I distinctly remember as a kid in probably the mid-90s watching a series of one-off sci fi shorts. Quite dark / hard sci fi. Kind of a manga vibe but not necessarily Japanese. I seem to recall they (or at least this one) had little / no dialogue? Almost certainly Channel 4 / BBC2.  I remember one in particular about someone (maybe an assassin?) who had to keep shooting a crane so it wouldn't dock with her escape pod while she was trying to finish something against the clock. I'm pretty sure she died in the end.

This was a scene in a movie that I watched in the 2000's or early 2010's (possibly earlier). Regardless, it wasn't recent, and I don't remember much of it, only images. I know the leading role is a woman (I think she had black hair). This woman has some robot-like behaviors (I don't think she is a robot but she is acts as though controlled and fights really well). The woman and some other people are trying to infiltrate a base. They are trying to prevent something, kill the people in charge, or something. I remember when they are trying to get in, there's the main woman and her friend in a field full of grass. They're fighting with the enemy but thorns erupt from the ground, and the thorns sting one of the woman's feet.


In default installation of macOS, Python and Bash are installed in /usr/bin and /bin directories respectively.  $ which python /usr/bin/python  $ which bash /bin/bash   So it's appropriate files can be opened using the command-line as:  python foo.py   Along similar lines, I want the ability to open an HTML file with Google Chrome using the command-line as:  $ chrome foo.html   But I get the following output:  bash: chrome: command not found   An alternate way to achieve the desired workflow is make Google Chrome as the default browser and execute the following command:  open foo.html   How do I achieve the former workflow?

I want to create command in terminal that would allow me to use  chrome index.html   and have the the given file open in Google Chrome.  How can I get this working?


I need to delete two Oracle VirtualBox snapshots from /dev/sda because it is running out of space.  Unfortunately there is even not enough space to remove them by VirtualBox Manager. It seems to me it is because VirtualBox Manager uses the trash function of Unity and this function does not enough space to move the file for recycling purpose.  How to   change my Trash folder from /dev/sda to /dev/sdb or somewhere else where there is enough space to save the recyclable files or how to disable this feature for /dev/sda where the OS and VirtualBox are located.   After fixing this issue, hopefully with some good answers here, I am going to move the default snapshot directory for this machine on /dev/sda where there is more space available.

When I select the file and push delete this file is automatically landing in the trash. How can I delete files bypassing trash without using a mouse?


I don't remember much, but I know that this cartoon used to air on Cartoon Network and it had monsters which would turn into stones/crystals when defeated. These crystals were then used to summon the monster and fight for the person who had the crystal. (Kind of like Pokémon). Also, the story was going in some world/dimension and the mc's grandpa had something to do with the story too.

What is the name of the anime TV show where a boy can summon beasts with crystals/gems. It was on SABC 2. There was also a boy that could summon a purple turtle . I think the gems were blue, green, and red.


Question view counts can be hard to read when over 1,000. For example:   "viewed 10000 times" would be clearer as "viewed 10,000 times":      "viewed 298513 times" would be clearer as "viewed 298,513 times":        Thousands separators are used elsewhere, for reputation:          For question counts:

For usability reasons, for example in , the 'viewed' counter should show as  ...instead of... . It's much harder to decipher that there are a million views on the question just by looking at it.  Some people in the comments pointed out internationalization concerns with it. I do think that since there might be a problem with it, that spaces would probably be a better idea.


I am trying to pass a variable that contains spaces from bash to awk.  I have simple a simple script for doing this with single string variables (in which I am searching the first column of the FILE for the variable), for example:  var=string  awk -v v=$var '(index($1, v) !=0) {print}' FILE   This does not work if var="string1 string2".  I have new searches where the variables are groups of words separated by spaces as in second var.  E.g.,  var="string1 string2 string_n"  awk -v v=$var '(index($1, v) !=0) {print}' FILE

If you've been following unix.stackexchange.com for a while, you should hopefully know by now that leaving a variable unquoted in list context (as in echo $var) in Bourne/POSIX shells (zsh being the exception) has a very special meaning and shouldn't be done unless you have a very good reason to.  It's discussed at length in a number of Q&A here (Examples: , , , )  That has been the case since the initial release of the Bourne shell in the late 70s and hasn't been changed by the Korn shell (one of ) or bash which mostly copied the Korn shell, and that's how that has been specified by POSIX/Unix.  Now, we're still seeing a number of answers here and even occasionally publicly released shell code where variables are not quoted. You'd have thought people would have learnt by now.  In my experience, there are mainly 3 types of people who omit to quote their variables:   beginners. Those can be excused as admittedly it's a completely unintuitive syntax. And it's our role on this site to educate them. forgetful people. people who are not convinced even after repeated hammering, who think that surely the Bourne shell author did not intend us to quote all our variables.   Maybe we can convince them if we expose the risk associated with this kind of behaviours.  What's the worst thing than can possibly happen if you forget to quote your variables. Is it really that bad?  What kind of vulnerability are we talking of here?  In what contexts can it be a problem?


Fairly new to latex and I want to decrease the space between the address line and the line with e-mail/phone on it in moderncv.    \documentclass[11pt,a4paper,sans]{moderncv} \moderncvstyle{banking}                             \moderncvcolor{blue}                                 \usepackage[scale=0.75]{geometry} \usepackage{import}  \name{My}{Name} \address{Blah Blah address, Blahh }{}{} \phone[mobile]{+44 12345 12345}                    \email{myname@gmail.com}                               \homepage{website.com}

Moderncv has a line of empty space between address and phone/email, like this:   MWE:  \documentclass[12pt]{moderncv} \moderncvstyle{banking} \name{Sherlock}{Holmes} \address{221B Baker Street}{London}{U.K.} % Your current address \phone[mobile] {+44~(0)71234 00000}    % Your mobile phone number \email{superdetective@mail.com}  \begin{document} \makecvtitle \end{document}   How do I remove/decrease that space by shifting the phone and email line up?


I applied for UK standard visit visa (6 months) for tourism and i got refused for some reason can be seen in the picture , can any one explain to me why i got refused and if the new documents i will provide will help ?  new provided documents  1-i bought a land and i will provide documents proving that. 2-i will add my father as a sponsor and will get a 6 month bank account statement for him and documents showing he owns his own pharmacy .   before applying for the first time i added 2000 pounds to my bank account , got my bank account statement then withdraw the money to convert it to pounds , should i add a letter about that?  there is about 3000 pound in my bank account and it can be noticed they are my pay check and no large deposits , i will added father bank account with( 2000 pounds to 3000 pounds) as a sponsor , will that be sufficient knowing i am staying for a week in uk?  Documents I applyed at first application  1-6 months bank statements 2- papers from my company proving I still work there  3-parentes house documents  4-document showing I am still with family not married or anything 5-fathe pharmacy papers  That's all I believe

Many of the UK visa refusals we see here share a common pattern and the prevailing reasons refer to V 4.2 (a) and (c).    I do understand that, while the applicants may describe very different individual circumstances, there's a consistent pattern and, broadly, fall into specific categories:    Credibility (lifestyle, lack of ties, visit history, lies & omissions) Funding (insufficient funds, provenance of funds, funds parking) Sponsorship (family, friends, employer)   Question: What most commonly triggers a UK visa refusal where V 4.2 (a) and (c) are given as the grounds?  Secondarily: Given that there is a clear pattern, to what extent are these refusals predictable? Does sponsorship make a difference? Is there a set of personal circumstances, however abstract, where a refusal is all but guaranteed? For example, why do those we see here on TSE who sought entry for the PLAB or British Army appear to be refused with a common theme? Is there a uniform shortcoming or is it just discrimination?   PLAB: What is about applications for a visa, for the purpose of sitting the Professional and Linguistic Assessments Board (PLAB) exam, that seem to invite refusals. After all, the test is given so that international medical graduates can show that they qualify to practise medicine in the UK. The first part, PLAB 1, can be taken in centres outside of the UK. However, PLAB 2 can be taken only in the UK. Why can't you can't get a visa just to sit the exam, promising that you'll leave immediately after?    British Army: Since Commonwealth citizens are eligible to apply online to join, even those who don't reside in the UK, why is it so difficult to get a visa just to attend an interview to see whether you are suitable? Even with an invitation from the Army, such visa applications seem to be unsuccessful. Isn't a career in the British Army a valid reason?     Lastly:  After such a refusal, what approaches would increase the chance of a successful application?


The visualization of gravity as shown by  is pretty good at explaining how massive objects bend space, and such bending causes objects around it to fall towards it (a.k.a: gravity).  However, here's what I do not understand. The reason why the experiment in the video works in the first place, is because real gravity -the one in that room- is acting on the marvels and causing those marvels to bend the sheet. In the real world, there must be a force that causes massive objects to bend space in the first place. What is that force?  To put my question in a simple set of equations:  Experiment: Marvel + Sheet + Real Gravity = Sheet Bending (Fake Gravity).  Real World: Planet + Space + (?) = Space Bending (Real Gravity).  There are other questions about this on StackExchange, but they don't seem to address the missing variable in the equations above.

Possible Duplicate:          Since I read Cosmos long ago, I see the same analogy about the balls rolling on a rubber sheet used to explain how gravity works. But a ball rolls on a surface because gravity is pulling it down. In space it will follow a straight line and go over any hole on the surface.  So, in the analogy we all know, where the curvature of the rubber sheet is gravity, what is pulling the ball down? If space is curved, what keeps an object attached to that "surface" of space?


Given $a,b,c>0$, prove that $$(a+\frac{bc}{a})(b+\frac{ca}{b})(c+\frac{ab}{c})\geq 4 \sqrt[3]{(a^3+b^3)(b^3+c^3)(c^3+a^3)}.$$  I noticed that by AM-GM the LHS $\leq 4[\frac{2(a^3+b^3+c^3)}{3}]^3 =\frac{8}{3}(a^3+b^3+c^3)$ and the RHS $=2abc+\frac{a^2b^2}{c}+\frac{b^2c^2}{a}+\frac{c^2a^2}{b}+a^3+b^3+c^3.$ Therefore proving $2abc+\frac{a^2b^2}{c}+\frac{b^2c^2}{a}+\frac{c^2a^2}{b}\geq \frac{5}{3}(a^3+b^3+c^3)$ would suffice. However, I've found a counterexample to that last inequality. So how could I've done better?

Let $a,\ b,\ c$ be positive real numbers. Prove that: $$\left(a+\dfrac{bc}{a}\right)\left(b+\dfrac{ca}{b}\right)\left(c+\dfrac{ab}{c}\right)\geq 4\sqrt[3]{\left(a^{3}+b^{3}\right)\left(b^{3}+c^{3}\right)\left(c^{3}+a^{3}\right)}\tag1$$


In the questions/answers you can markup text easily using hotkeys like Ctrl+B for bolding text, Ctrl+K for code, etc. Why isn't this done for comments since comments use 'mini-Markdown' (just not via hotkey)? It would surely save time commenting.

Ever since we got the ability to format comments, I have abused it mercilessly. I put quick code snippets in there all of the time. And I find myself often highlighting a word or two and hitting Ctrl+K, and then quickly mutter, "Ah, dammit," since it didn't do anything.  Can we please have formatting keyboard shortcuts on comments? I promise to make waffles.  Update: Kip made a timely edit of  (didn't show up in my search, dammit) where this was declined, but there's a GreaseMonkey script. However, my waffle offer still stands.


We put 12 different balls to 4 equal boxes. How many configurations are possible?  If the boxes were distinguishable it would be simply $4^{12}$, but I do not know how to consider the fact that they are distinguishable.

I was hoping I could receive some clarification into the the four cases:   Placing labeled balls in unlabeled boxes with repetition. Placing labeled balls in unlabeled boxes without repetition. Placing unlabeled balls in unlabeled boxes with repetition. Placing unlabeled balls in unlabeled boxes without repetition.   I just want an intuitive understanding of the four cases.  How many ways are there to arrange, say, 4 balls into 9 boxes or 9 balls into 4 boxes in each case above, and why?


Hy, I used this tutorial and didn't work    and also this   if someone could help me with any tips about installing I remain fully grateful.

I am a heavy user of certain applications that are built on AIR.   It appears that AIR has discontinued support for Linux. Even the older versions in the Adobe AIR Archives seem to support only 32 bit Linux distributions and I am on 64 bit currently.  Is there even a slight possibility that I could run AIR in these conditions? If so, can you please tell me where can I get a detailed step by step installation for this?


How can I derive Newton's gravitational law?  $$F=G\frac{m_1 m_2}{r^2}$$  Is it impossible to derive?  Did Newton get this just by obervations?

I am having trouble comprehending how anyone could come up with this formula:  $$F = \frac{GMm}{d^2}.$$   Could someone walk me through this?


I setup a date field for my content type and also have an exposed date filter for my view, but I can't seem to figure out how to get the date picker popup to show up. Is there a setting that I have to set somewhere?   I've also installed Better Exposed Filters and I still don't see any option for my view. Also installed Date and the Calendar module. I know jQuery UI has a built in calendar popup and that's installed by default on Drupal 8 installs.   How do I turn this on?

How can I configure an exposed filter so that users can filter my site content by creation date, preferably using a date picker?   I tried using Content: Authored on as filter, but it gets me a text field to enter the date to enter a date/time in the yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss format, which makes entering the date more difficult for users and more error prone.  What is the difference between Drupal 8 and Drupal 7 with  7.x-3?


I've tried to build this hand with uv circle and ciylinder but I just get nowhere... Can someone give me any tips oh how making those different shapes?  What I have so far is this shameless try... I'm planning in bevels + alt e to extrude into the shape.  It's really 'shapeless'...

beginner doubt here! I've been staring for this hand for a long time and have no idea how I could sculpt that. Does anyone have any tips for me? I've been modeling for a really short time, so anything is helpful! Thanks a lot in advance!!!


Is there a word similar to verbatim but means "Too many meaningless words used"?  I am looking for a word which describes the statement is meaningless with too many words.

How do you say in English, when one describes the matter in a more complicated manner than it is? For instance, one has two options, A and B; and either of them has to be accepted. One wants to say the same matter in either of the following two ways:   Incorrectly failing to reject A.  Incorrectly accepting A.    Both 1) and 2) are equivalent statements, but in 1) the person is speaking in a complicated way. In other words, what a situation/way is called when it is being described in a complicated manner, instead of simple one. I hope, you understand what I want to ask.


I just got a tag badge on [linguistics.se] as the first user for that specific tag. It took surprisingly long from fulfilling the criteria to receiving the badge. So my question out of curiosity: How long does it take to mint a brand new tag badge?

Do badges get calculated in real time, or do they get calculated by an external service? How long does it take for a badge to be awarded, once its requirements are met?  Does Stack Overflow use any external services to do things, like maintenance, e-mailing or badge calculation?


I am really not good with regular expressions and I come here for some assistance :). I am trying to combine regular expressions with something like AND. For example if we have a text file with:  abc1-xyz  abc1-ertxyz  abc1xyz  postxyz  abc1   I would like to match everything that starts with "abc1" AND also contains the letters "xyz" somewhere.  I know that I can start with:  /^abc1/   but I am not sure how to combine so it can also match to contain "xyz".  Thank you for your assistance in advance.

Obviously, you can use the | (pipe?) to represent OR, but is there a way to represent AND as well?  Specifically, I'd like to match paragraphs of text that contain ALL of a certain phrase, but in no particular order.


Let $\mathcal{P}(X_N)$ be the power set of a set $X$ with $N$ elements.  I am trying to prove by induction that its cardinality $\mid \mathcal{P}(X_N) \mid = 2^N$.  Firstly, I think it helps to observe that this can pretty much be "rewritten" or rather fleshed out as  $$\mid \mathcal{P}(X_N) \mid = 2^N = 2^{N-1} \cdot 2^1 = 2 \cdot \mid \mathcal{P}(X_{N-1}) \mid.$$  See that if $N = 0$, $X$ is then the empty set $\emptyset$ and {$\emptyset$} is its only subset; thus, $\mathcal{P}(X_0)$ = $2^0 = 1$, which is correct.  (*) So assume $\mid \mathcal{P}(X_N) \mid$ does in fact equal $2^N$.  Then we see that  $$\mid \mathcal{P}(X_{N+1}) \mid = 2^{N+1} = 2^N \cdot 2^1 = 2 \mid \mathcal{P}(X_N) \mid,$$  which is true by (*), our inductive hypothesis.  My question is (as you might expect if you have read any of my other posts)...is this a correct use of induction? I apologize in advance if this is a tiresome sort of theme; considering my beginner's lack of competency and self-assuredness, competently-given feedback and assurance from insightful and encouraging users here is more than extremely helpful.

Please help with this question. Show that for a finite set $A$ of cardinality $n$, the cardinality of $P(A)$ is $2^n$, where $P(A)$ is the power set of $A$. Thank you in advance for any help that is given.


I have a form that I would like to center in a div, but also apply a max-width  Here is what I have:  HTML:

        <form method="POST">            {% csrf_token %}                <legend>Join Today</legend>                {{ form|crispy }}                <button class="btn btn-outline-info" type="submit">Sign Up</button>        </form>

Already Have An Account? Sign In

   CSS:  .form-register {   display: inline;   margin: 0 auto; }  form {   width: 80%;   max-width: 300px;   display: inline;   margin: 0 auto; }    However if I switch the width and max-width between the two CSS classes, I get either of the following results:     or

How can I horizontally center a
 within another
 using CSS?

Foo foo


Hi I had kde installed besides unity. I didn't like it so I've uninstalled kde.  But even after that I still get updates for some kde stuff (konqueror, kate, okular, akonadi and many many things...)  I don't see any ppa related to kde in software updater. How do I remove it completely? Or at least stop getting those updates?

I have 2 computers with Ubuntu but on both I installed KDE to have another option for the users. Since Unity has come along very well, there has not been a need to use KDE for a while now. How can I delete all KDE related packages with one single sweep, freeing space and anything KDE related in Ubuntu, including overwriting the Logo of ubuntu when the PCs start or shutdown since after installing KDE the Kubuntu logo is the default one. How to revert back completely from all KDE stuff with a simple short command line or GUI tool.  NOTE - I ask this because it is very time consuming to start selecting, one by one, each package that relates to the KDE desktop environment, checking if it also relates to any GTK, checking dependencies for each, etc.. Deleting the package kubuntu-desktop does not remove every installed KDE package that was installed with it since this is a pseudo package that installs the rest of the real packages but does not uninstall them which makes me wonder why a package can install a whole bunch of other packages but not uninstall them with some added option to actually uninstall them not just the dummy package itself.


Prove without using induction that the following formula:$$\sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k\binom{n}{k}=0$$ is valid for every $n\ge1$.  Progress For each odd $n$ we can use the identity:$$\binom{n}{k}=\binom{n}{n-k}$$ In fact all terms equidistant from the end points are opposite. My question is: if $n$ is even how can we prove it?

Let $n$ be a positive integer. Prove that   \begin{align} \sum_{k=0}^n \left(-1\right)^k \binom{n}{k} = 0 . \end{align}   I tried to solve it using induction, but that got me nowhere. I think the easiest way to prove it is to think of a finite set of $n$ elements, but I can't find the solution.


The aim of a study is to determine whether a teacher recognizes the handwriting of his students. The teacher gets 3 tests and 3 names of students and has to place the test with the correct student. In order to judge the teacher's performance, we need to know how many correct assignments to expect by chance. What is the probability of having 0, 1, 2 and 3 right guessess? Edit: I do know how to solve this by writing down all possibilities and looking at them, but I'd like to know if there is a way to compute this. Edit 2: This is the answer in my book: $$\begin{align*} P(x=0) &= 2/6;\\ P(x=1) &= 3/6;\\ P(x=2) &= 0;\\ P(x=3) &= 1/6\\ \end{align*}$$

Suppose two random permutations of the numbers 1 to n placed side by side.  a) Calculate the expectation number of fixed points for $n = 5$.  b) Find the value of expectation in the amount of fixed points for n tending to infinity


Problem  $A = \{1, 2, 3, 4\}$ $B = \{1, 2, 3, 4, 5\}$ Find the number of mappings from A to B such that $f(i)\le f(j)$ for all $i<j$.  My approach: The required set of functions= $\{\text{Set of total possible of functions}\}\setminus\{\text{Functions such that $f(i)>f(j)$ for $i<j$}\}$   (i) The number of possible functions would be $5 \times 5 \times 5 \times 5 = 625$.(There are $5$ mappings possible for each one of them.)  (ii)To find the number of functions such that $f(i)>f(j)$ for $i < j$, I can choose any four elements from $B$ in $C(5,4)$ ways. This will have only one decreasing order and only one arrangement is possible out of every set of elements I will choose. I will therefore have $5$ such functions.  So the required number of functions would be $625-5 = 620$ which largely differs from the answer stated by my textbook, i.e. $70$. Please help me out.

I stumbled upon a question given like:  Let $m$ and $n$ be two integers such that $m \geq n \geq 1$.   Count the number of functions $$f: \{1, 2, · · · , n\} \to \{1, 2, · · · , m\}$$ of the following two types:  (a) strictly increasing; i.e., whenever $x < y, f(x) < f(y)$, and  (b) non-decreasing; i.e., whenever $x < y, f(x) \leq f(y)$.  I tried in the following way.  For (a). We can say $f(n)>f(n-1)$ AND $f(n)>f(n-2) \ldots f(n)>f(1)$ (total $n-1$ elements)  Similarly for $f(n-1)>f(n-2), f(n-1)>f(n-3) \ldots f(n-1)>f(1)$ (total $n-2$ elements)...  and $f(2)>1$  Like this $$(n-1) + (n-2) + \ldots + (1) = \frac{n(n-1)}{2}$$  Is this correct?  For (b). Since there's equality, it will be $$n + (n-1) + ... (1) = \frac{n(n+1)}{2}$$  Is my approach correct? Any help is appreciated. Thanks in advance.


NOTE: THIS IS FOR QGIS 2.14.1 and uses VectorGrid instead of CreateGrid also though the question How to generate a grid programmatically in Python without GUI? is answered fantastically the PyQGIS language is outdated  We have a .txt file  "Extent.txt", in this example this file contains the coordinates of 4 points formatted like so;     Point,Lat,Lon   TL,-29.788254, 30.820720   TR,-29.788254, 30.825372   BL,-29.790710, 30.820720   BR,-29.790710, 30.825372   We want to add this shapefile in our QGIS Map Document, and then create a vector grid that has the same extents of this .txt file, all using PyQGIS.  We add the .txt file with a PyQGIS script  import csv, ctypes, os, sys, datetime, string import processing from PyQt4.QtGui import * from PyQt4.QtCore import * from qgis.core import * from qgis.utils import iface  #Load CSV gridSettings = QSettings() gridoldValidation = gridSettings.value( "/Projections/defaultBehaviour") gridSettings.setValue( "/Projections/defaultBehaviour", "useGlobal" ) gridInFlnm='Extent.txt' gridInDrPth='PATH_TO_CSV_FOLDER' gridInFlPth="file:///"+gridInDrPth+gridInFlnm griduri = gridInFlPth+"?delimiter=%s&xField=%s&yField=%s" % (",","lon","lat") gridbh = QgsVectorLayer(griduri, gridInFlnm, "delimitedtext") gridbh.isValid() gridbh.setCrs(QgsCoordinateReferenceSystem(32365,  QgsCoordinateReferenceSystem.EpsgCrsId)) QgsMapLayerRegistry.instance().addMapLayer(gridbh) gridSettings.setValue( "/Projections/defaultBehaviour", gridoldValidation )   This produces our point vector layer from our .txt file!   So...How do we get our Vector Grid?  NOTE: THIS IS FOR QGIS 2.14.1 and uses VectorGrid instead of CreateGrid also though the question  is answered fantastically the PyQGIS language is outdated

Is there a QGIS Python binding for generating a grid programmatically without using the GUI?


I have a bunch of images on one page and I am using the following to trigger an event:  $('.img').on('mouseover', function() {  //do something  });   Is there some way to add a delay such that if a user hovers for maybe 1 second, then it does "//do something" or actually triggers the "mouseover" event?

I would like to delay a hover event in jquery.  I am reading from a file when user hovers over a link or label.  I don't want this event to occur immediately in case the user is just moving the mouse across the screen.  Is there a way to delay the event from firing?  Thank you.  Example code:  $(function() {     $('#container a').hover(function() {         $('
').load('ReadTextFileX.aspx',             {filename:'file.txt'},             function() {                 $(this).appendTo('#info');             }          );     },         function() { $('#info').remove(); }     }); });   UPDATE: (1/14/09) After adding the HoverIntent plugin the above code was changed to the following to implement it.  Very simple to implement.  $(function() {     hiConfig = {         sensitivity: 3, // number = sensitivity threshold (must be 1 or higher)         interval: 200, // number = milliseconds for onMouseOver polling interval         timeout: 200, // number = milliseconds delay before onMouseOut         over: function() {             $('
').load('ReadTextFileX.aspx', {filename:'file.txt'},                 function() {                    $(this).appendTo('#info');                 }              );         }, // function = onMouseOver callback (REQUIRED)         out: function() { $('#info').remove();  } // function = onMouseOut callback (REQUIRED)     }     $('#container a').hoverIntent(hiConfig) }


I was given the following problem:     In a country in which people only want boys, every family continues to have children until they have a boy. If they have a girl, they have another child. If they have a boy, they stop. What is the proportion of boys to girls in the country?   Could you please check my solution?    Let's start by saying that the probability of having a boy or a girl is 50%. Then we have:   probability of having a family with 1 boy: $\frac12$; probability of having a family with 1 girl and 1 boy: $\frac12 \cdot \frac12$; probability of having a family with 2 girls and 1 boy: $\left(\frac12\right)^3 \cdot \frac12$; ... probability of having a family with $n$ girls and 1 boy: $\left(\frac12\right)^n \cdot \frac12$.   As we could expect, we have $\sum_{n = 1}^\inf \left(\frac12\right)^n = 1$.  Suppose there are $f$ families in the whole country. Then:   $f \cdot \frac12$ families have 1 boy; $f \cdot \left(\frac12\right)^2$ families have 1 girl, 1 boy; ... $f \cdot \left(\frac12\right)^n$ families have $n - 1$ girls, 1 boy.   Obviously, $\sum_{n = 1}^\inf f \cdot \left(\frac12\right)^n = f$.  Finally:   total boys: $f$ (because all families have exactly a boy); total girls: $\sum_{n = 1}^\inf f \cdot \left(\frac12\right)^n \cdot (n - 1) = f$.   In conclusion, the ratio is still 50% : 50%.  This result makes perfect sense to me, but I'm wondering if I got everything right?

In a country where everyone wants a boy, each family continues having babies till they have a boy. After some time, what is the proportion of boys to girls in the country? (Assuming probability of having a boy or a girl is the same)


How to find $$\int_0^\infty e^{-ax^2-\frac{b}{x^2}}dx$$ using gaussian integral?  I tried complete the square: $$-ax^2-\frac{b}{x^2}=-\left(\sqrt{a}x+\frac{\sqrt{b}}{x}\right)^2+2\sqrt{ab}$$, but what next?  I tried integration by parts $u=e^{-ax^2-\frac{b}{x^2}}, dv=dx$, but what next?

How can I evaluate $$I=\int_{0}^{+\infty}\!e^{-ax^2-\frac b{x^2}}\,dx$$ for $a,b>0$?  My methods:  Let $a,b > 0$ and let $$I(b)=\int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-ax^2-\frac b{x^2}}\,dx.$$ Then $$I'(b)=\int_{0}^{\infty}-\frac{1}{x^2}e^{-ax^2-\frac b{x^2}}\,dx.$$  What the other methods that can I use to evaluate it? Thank you.


I am making a website and am confused as I don't know where to place the RSS button. Considering this is my website:   Should I place the RSS button only on post pages? Or should I place it throughout the website? I'd like to clarify that I know where to place the RSS button in terms of layout(planning to place it on the top right corner), I'm asking where is it deemed useful and not annoying?

I think for all websites it would be a MUST to ensure the RSS icon is displayed in the address bar!  But there are tons of pages, who don't care and even hide the RSS icon somewhere on the site.  What do you offer your clients, where to place the RSS icon?  Is there a so called optimal placement? Is there any study on this topic?


I see intuitively $\left( 1+\dfrac {1} {n}\right) ^{n}$ is increasing but I think, it is not obvious. How can I prove this?    Recall. If sequence of $\left\{ x_{n}\right\} _{n}$ is increasing then $x_n<x_{n+1}$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$.  Note that the limit converges to $e$ (Euler's number).

Show that $U_n:=\left(1+\dfrac{1}{n}\right)^n$, $n\in\Bbb N$, defines a monotonically increasing sequence.   I must show that $U_{n+1}-U_n\geq0$, i.e. $$\left(1+\dfrac{1}{n+1}\right)^{n+1}-\left(1+\dfrac{1}{n}\right)^n\geq0.$$  I am trying to go ahead of this step.


I am struggling to find a way to handle this need. I have a few views exports set up on our site. The Client can go to the view page and download the csv. Works great.  The client is asking to see if the csv's can download nightly without them having to go to the page and click to download. I have not seen something in Drupal that allows me to handle this. I am a front-end dev so not a module creator. I have gone through rules scheduler with no luck.  Can someone try to share some insight to point me in the right direction. Thanks!!!

I have a bunch of views/reports built for my client. The reviewers then click download csv for the excel file. They asked if the views could download themselves daily to a folder.  Is that possible? And could you share links or knowledge how to handle this. I have been trying to figure it out.  Note: Right now the user is downloading CSV's from Drupal 7, an install of Moodle 1.9 in a Drupal 6 Shell and Survey Monkey. After they download and combine using Excel, the user creates reports that way for the users we have come to our events. Being a Front-end developer, coding is not my strength.


We are getting too many clicks and links from some junk websites, most of the websites are expired domain when we try to visit it.  We have got these list of domains from using our web master tools and Google Analytics.  INFO: These domains are blocked by Google for malware.   We get too many links and clicks from the following domains.  So, We are thinking that, someone is doing negative SEO for us or want to demage our website.   Since these visits, Our ranking position is dropped.   Can someone help me ?  cheapdedicatedhostingcornwall.xyz    sharedhostingclwyd.xyz   makemoneywithresellerhostingcastlereagh.xyz  bestpriceforvpshostingdiscount.xyz   affordableresellerhostinggrampian.xyz cheapdedicatedhostingarmagh.xyz  sharedhostingdiscountcarrickfergus.xyz vpshostingdiscountcentral.xyz vpshostingbackupcambridgeshire.xyz webhostsfreeuk.xyz allaboutsharedhostingards.xyz sharedhostingcambridgeshire.xyz affordablededicatedhostingalderney.xyz findsystemissueonline.xyz networkissuereportinfo.xyz learnsystemlogs.xyz foundsystemerrorlogs.xyz checksystemalertsonline.xyz systemnetworkreports.xyz erashows.xyz anysearchhere.xyz financeholowin.xyz away-network-alert.xyz system-critical-alert.xyz browser-error-alert.xyz energyholo.xyz secondclassbooking.xyz systemcheckinfo.xyz

We have recently discovered a host of spammy links pointing to our website been put up in last 1 month through webmaster tool We have not engaged any seo agency/link building and have never created these links  Worst, these are spammy forum sites and almost some-one seems making an attack to our site as the link and keyword is same in all these sites Till not Have not received any warning, however as it has come to our notice - before any SERP getting down - we want to action this out  One thing we have observed is that - All these spammy links points to a single inner page of website  Pl suggest as have   a) Will Google disvow tool will work by stating to disvow these links  or  b) Is it a good way if we make this specific page 'nofollow' and even 'noindex' The reasoning behind this is like if the page is not followed and not indexed - the negative links pointing to the page of the site is already no follow and may be out from google serp  or what's the best alternate way to tackle this. Pl suggest in urgent help and advise required


X is n bits long. Y is n*k bits long. I want to assign copies of X to fill Y. As follows: assign Y = { X , X , ... , X } ; I know how to do it with a loop - but is there a quicker alternative ?

Given a signal wire [7:0] dummy, how can I concatenate it n times?  That is, is there a notation for the following:  {dummy, ..., dummy} // n times   ?


I have some questions:   Why "star wars" and not "stars wars"?  Is "star wars" equivalent to "wars of the stars"? In French it would be "les guerres des etoiles", what about the English version? If question 2 is true, why doesn't "world war" mean "war of the worlds"?

English, having originated as a germanic language, uses premodifier noun adjuncts (is this the right terminology?) to form compound nouns like "science fiction writer". However, English also says "table of contents", where "of contents" is a prepositional phrase I would think. Now, I write texts or translate and get corrected by reviewers and proof-readers, who are English and serious people, while I am not. For example, recently I wrote "density of water" and was corrected to "water density". It gets worse, I feel, when there are several premodifiers e.g. I wrote "plant of the Cimenterie Nationale d'Haïti" and was corrected to "Cimenterie Nationale d'Haïti plant".  What is the rule? Is there a recommended limit to the number of premodifiers? Perhaps not more than two? Science fiction writer sounds OK. What is the correct terminology talking about this issue?  With many thanks!


Is there any way in javascript to check if web page has been vertically scrolled? specially for Internet Explorer? I need to get the mouse position in IE but using jQuery event e.pageY it gives correct value when page is not scrolled but when page is scrolled down then it gives wrong position.

I need to grab the height of the window and the scrolling offset in jQuery, but I haven't had any luck finding this in the jQuery docs or Google.  I'm 90% certain there's a way to access height and scrollTop for an element (presumably including the window), but I just can't find the specific reference.


How can a photon have a spin of $1$ when it has no mass? Since the spin is intrinsic angular momentum, if $m = 0$, then the spin must be zero.

I often hear about subatomic particles having a property called "spin" but also that it doesn't actually relate to spinning about an axis like you would think. Which particles have spin? What does spin mean if not an actual spinning motion?


What does until after mean? For example: "The pub opens until after 6 p.m." does it mean the pub opens as the clock strikes 6 p.m. or maybe It opens after 6 p.m.? If it means that it begins to work at 6, then what is the role of "after" there and the other way around?

As in "The sun doesn't rise until after dawn." Would the meaning of the sentence be changed if we used until? I found on a website that  is just an intensifier or clarifier.


I am trying to load dwg in GeoServer and show it in OpenLayers, so I saved the dwg as dxf with AutoCAD. Then I used QGIS to save the dxf as shapefile.  But when I am trying to load the shapefile with GeoServer it can't calculate the bounds, and if I am trying to manually put the bounds it doesn't display the shapefile layer.  This is the way to display dwg? I did something wrong? There is other way?

Any ideas as to how can I convert dwg to shp?  I tried Kosmo and gvSIG. gvSIG kind of worked but it seems like I lost information.. in addition everything was converted into lines, no polygons. I can manually recreate the polygons, but there must be a better program to do this conversion.  Ideas?


There is a basic result about commutative semigroups which says     Any commutative semigroup satisfying the cancellation property can be embedded in a group.   However, I read that     Not every semigroup with cancellation can be embedded in a group.   Can someone provide a reference or an example of a (non-commutative) semigroup with cancellation that cannot be embedded in a group?  What else is known about algebraic structures with the cancellation law which may not be subsets of a group?

Under what assumptions can a semigroup $(S,*)$ be embedded into a group?


Alright, I am new to Python and am learning about tuples and lists. I have been asked to create a program, however that involves converting the following list:      li = [1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15,16,17,18]   in to a list which looks like this:      li = [[(1,2,3),(4,5,6)],[(7,8,9),(10,11,12)],[(13,14,15),(16,17,18)]   Basically, from a simple list to a list containing a sublist which contains two tuples which contain 3 elements.  I appreciate your help.  Thanks.

I have a list of arbitrary length, and I need to split it up into equal size chunks and operate on it. There are some obvious ways to do this, like keeping a counter and two lists, and when the second list fills up, add it to the first list and empty the second list for the next round of data, but this is potentially extremely expensive.  I was wondering if anyone had a good solution to this for lists of any length, e.g. using generators.  I was looking for something useful in itertools but I couldn't find anything obviously useful. Might've missed it, though.  Related question:


I have an HP Laptop, a , recently bought in February. It  came with Windows 10 preinstalled. Since it was not working well for me, I thought of installing Ubuntu 18.04 to use in a second partition, after I did that, I was not able to boot in any of the OS.   When I checked the BIOS setting, I found there was an entry before "OS Boot Manager", that was gone and there is no option that says - "Boot from harddisk" in UEFI boot order.  Even when I change to "Legacy Support", it never boots up. So I thought of installing the clean Ubuntu 18.04 in the whole partition, removing the whole Windows from my machine, still, there is no change, I still get "there is no boot device or boot loader failed".  I have applied all of my knowledge whatever I gained from the internet to fix this. I also tried - efibootmgr to change the boot order, but nothing worked for me, finally now I logged in using Ubuntu Live USB and change the boot order to  Ubuntu first (using efibootmgr -n XXXX), but now I can't shut down or restart my machine. It is running from the installed ubuntu from the hard disk, but it is a temporary fix, until I find a solution to boot from my hard disk.   I am pretty sure there is no problem with the hard disk because I can access my installed Ubuntu, but to access that I need to use the Live USB to change the boot order for the next time. But the boot order is not retained if I shutdown or restart.  I will be very glad if someone can help me with this. If there is any way we can disable the UEFI from the BIOS or we can add Ubuntu in the UEFI boot order list, anything that can fix this.   I have no idea why this Windows Boot Loader went away. Because I am pretty sure while installing Ubuntu in the first place, I did not touch anything related to Windows.  Additional Info:  I installed Ubuntu in the UEFI mode, instead of Legacy Support. Images have been added in the comment section. Please help.

I'm absolutely new to Linux. I would like to know how to install Ubuntu alongside the pre-installed Windows 8+ OS.  Should I do it with Wubi, or through the Live USB/DVD?  What steps do I need to take to correctly install Ubuntu?


in the first time of learning command line i've saw the quick performance that it presents and its deal with files, directories, and programs efficiently. after all of that i think command line not only surrounded by this feature and i think has to much extra features and i wish from this features to be one for downloading videos from youtube. anyway i have tried numerous of website and programs that can do that but often is not with required qualifications. finally, i want something can do it by cmd prompt anything other i don't. thanks all of you

Possible Duplicate:          How to download a Youtube video from command line?  Mac OS X and/or Ubuntu Linux. Optionally, i'd like to save it in .avi or .mkv format.


How do I type two lines of subscript as shown below?

Is there a way to force a line break inside a math mode text?  My example:  \[   \underbrace{....}_\text{Some long text that should be multiline} \]   Trying  \text{Some long text that\\ should be multiline}   Didn't do the trick.


I am continuously facing a problem where the icons in sidebar start to get distorted. When I restart my computer - this seems to go away. But it has a tendency to return if I log out and into my user.   Below is a screenshot:     Here are my specs:     *-display                         description: VGA compatible controller           product: GT216M [GeForce GT 330M]           vendor: NVIDIA Corporation           physical id: 0           bus info: pci@0000:01:00.0           version: a2           width: 64 bits           clock: 33MHz           capabilities: pm msi pciexpress vga_controller bus_master cap_list rom           configuration: driver=nouveau latency=0           resources: irq:32 memory:d2000000-d2ffffff memory:c0000000-cfffffff memory:d0000000-d1ffffff    ioport:2000(size=128) memory:d3000000-d307ffff   *-display            description: VGA compatible controller           product: Core Processor Integrated Graphics Controller           vendor: Intel Corporation           physical id: 2           bus info: pci@0000:00:02.0           version: 12           width: 64 bits           clock: 33MHz           capabilities: msi pm vga_controller bus_master cap_list           configuration: driver=i915 latency=0           resources: irq:31 memory:d3400000-d37fffff memory:b0000000-bfffffff ioport:3130(size=8)   What would be the most effective way to remedy this issue?

I just ordered the Nvidia GTX card. I have a dilemma, though. Should I keep using the driver which is available in "additional drivers" in Ubuntu, or should I install the driver from the Nvidia site?  So which driver is the best for me?


Let $T$ be a self-adjoint operator on a Hilbert space $H$, such that $T^2=T^3.$   Prove that $T$ is an orthogonal projection. Is that true if we had $T^4=T^3$?   Thank you for the help.

I have seen several answers and proofs here at MSE that a self-adjoint operator $T$ on a Hilbert space $H$ where $T^2=T$, implies $T$ being an orthogonal projection operator.   The thought struck me; what would happen if the condition $T^2=T$ is replaced by $T^3=T^2$ or instead by $T^4=T^3$ or why not more generally by $T^n=T^{n+1}$ for some $n\in\mathbb{N}$? Would this still imply $T$ to be an orthogonal projection operator?  I guess someone must have thought of this before me? In that case perhaps there is a reference in the literature for this or perhaps the proof is way simpler than I might expect?


Make an examples $f:\Bbb{C}\to\Bbb{C}$ holomorph (If it exists) with the property:(Justify your answer)  $Re f(z)>0$ for all $z\in\Bbb{C}$ and $f$ is not constant.  My attemp: I find a question in Conway that is discussed in    But my question is difference. Because we have not the hypothesis   $Re f(z)\geq 0$ and the domain is $\Bbb{C}$ instead of $D$.  So we can not use the open mapping theorem and I think there is not such function!

Suppose that $f$ is holomorphic on $\mathbb C$ and that $\Re(f(z))\ge 0$ for all $z$. Show that $f$ is constant. [Hint: consider $e^{−f(z)}$.]   My thoughts: If $\Re(f(z))\ge 0 $ holds, then $e^{−f(z)}$ is a bounded holomorphic function (do I need to prove this or is it obvious?) So then by Liouville's Theorem $e^{−f(z)}$ is constant.   But then I'm not sure how to rigorously go from this $\exp(−f(z))$ back to $f(z)$.   Could anyone help me piece this together please?  Thanks


My teacher said it is impossible to use Past Simple with Present Perfect. What about this example:  I went shopping [today/yesterday] to improve my mood but instead I ... sad.  Should I use became or have become? I want to emphasize I am still sad.  or is it better to say:  I went shopping and I am sad.

Can I use present perfect tense and simple past tense in the same sentence ?  For example :  Even though I have just/recently cleaned  up the house, I spotted some bugs around the kitchen (today/this evening).  Is this sentence grammatically correct and idiomatic as well?


Let $f: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be a twice differentiable function.  Prove that if $x_1<x_2<x_3$ and $f(x_1)=f(x_2)=f(x_3)=0,$ then there exists a point $q\in(x_1,x_3)$ such that $f''(q)=0$.  I think it's based on Rolle's theorem, but I can't prove it rigorously. Would anybody have a rigorous way to prove this?

Let $g:\mathbf{R\rightarrow R}$ be a twice differentiable function.  a) Prove that if $a_1 < a_2$ and $g(a_1)=g(a_2)=0$, then there exists a point $m \in (a_1,a_2)$ such that $g'(m)=0$.  b) Prove that if $a_1 < a_2 < a_3$ and $g(a_1)=g(a_2)=g(a_3)=0$, then there exists a point $n \in (a_1,a_3)$ such that $g''(m)=0$.  I am just curious about how to prove this very rigorously. My intuition tells me that both parts are true, but I have a hard time putting it down in writing. Any general tips about how I can learn to do this better are also much appreciated!


I have an entry level DSLR Nikon D3300 which I left in its bag couple of days back. Today I found it was still turned on. I was just wondering if there can be any trouble because of that. Will this cause any kind of malfunctioning or anything in the camera? Maybe it's not a problem in the short term but in the long run it will create problems? If that is the case please let me know.  It has happened few times earlier as well, so I need your advice.

I spent a good hour today moseying after some azure-winged magpies. We had a nice waltz across a parkland, they rarely letting me get close enough to even contemplate a shot. As such, I spent long stretches (~10min) with my Nikon DSLR on but not in use.  And then I began wondering about power drain in such situations (switched on but untouched), and how different that status actually was from off, and after what period of time it makes sense to go ahead and switch the camera off?


I installed Oracle VirtualBox on Windows 8. Then I downloaded android-x86-4.2-20121225.iso from .  After I installed Android x86-4.2 on VirtualBox from the ISO, I could run it, but the Internet is not working.  What can I do to troubleshoot this or get Internet connectivity?  Update:-  (1) I try it In VB, changing NAT connection settings to: AMD PCNet FAST III (Am79C973) but still not working   (2) I use other OS like windows XP with NAT connection settings to: AMD PCNet FAST III (Am79C973) setting that work nice like internet and everything. so plz give me a other option for android-x86-4.2-20121225 to connect internet ??

I installed Oracle VirtualBox on Win7, then I downloaded  from . After I installed Android x86-4.2 on VirtualBox from ISO and creating fake SD Card for it, I tried to run it, but when I started it I saw these lines in console:  Detecting Android-x86... found at /dev/sda1  ANDROID root@x86:/ #   And no thing else. I tried that some times but result is the same. How I can solve this problem?  Update: Even I waited more than 20 minutes and nothing happen!


Is this code correct? int *set_new (int choice) {    int *new_choice {new int};    *new_choice = choice;    return new_choice; }  Should I delete *new_choice after the value is returned, because *new_choice is on the memory heap? int *set_new (int choice) {    int *new_choice {new int};    *new_choice = choice;    return new_choice;    delete new_choice; }  Or, do I need to delete it where the function is finished calling? if not deleted, will it cause a memory leak? I learned on a website if you use dynamic memory (new) immediately after that delete (delete) so there is no memory leak. The function is called in main: int main () {  int *b {new_choice (23)};  printf ("% d", *b);  delete b; }

I think we all understand the necessity of delete when reassigning a dynamically-allocated pointer in order to prevent memory leaks. However, I'm curious, to what extent does the C++ mandate the usage of delete? For example, take the following program  int main() {      int* arr = new int[5];      return 0; }   While for all intents and purposes no leak occurs here (since your program is ending and the OS will clean up all memory once it returns), but does the standard still require -- or recommend -- the usage of delete[] in this case? If not, would there be any other reason why you would delete[] here?


How to get this low contrast washed flared look for portraits in lightroom

I found this image on  and quite a few have this vivid yet pastel effect.   Can it be achieved in Photoshop or Lightroom?


I have a report created in Latex:  \documentclass{report} \usepackage[backend=bibtex]{biblatex} \addbibresource{testbib.bib} \begin{document} \tableofcontents \chapter{First chapter} For more information see \cite{ahu61}. \printbibliography \end{document}     The Bibliography is not present in the Table Of Contents. How to fix?

I just managed to switch from using BibTeX to biblatex with the biber backend. My references now appear how I want. However I have two new issues.  1) How do I change "Bibliography" to references? The old \renewcommand{\bibname}{References} does nothing.  2) How do I make the Bibliography appear in my Table of Contents because it now doesn't when using \printbibliography as per biblatex. Is it just a case of doing the \addcontentsline{toc}{chapter}{References}? Or is there a more subtle method?


how can I download Ubuntu and also keep all my files saved to my laptop at the same time? I have a bunch of apps that I don't want to get deleted and I've already downloaded the iOS on my USB and before I do anything I need to know how I can download it without anything getting removed.

I would like to see a full how-to guide on how to install Ubuntu.


Please take a look at this question and answer: .  It's clearly off-topic as it's a request for a recommendation of an external library. I voted to close the question and put a comment to OP. OP replied to my comment but still left the question.  Then another user put an answer. I put the comment for the answer as well but the answer stayed and was later accepted.  Moreover, both the question and answer were upvoted once.  I downvoted both the question and answer as there was no response from OP and answerer.  Now, the rep changes were:   OP better of by 5 rep (+5 upvote, -2 downvote, 2 accepted an answer). Answerer better of by 23 (+10 upvote, -2 downvote, 15 accepted answer). me down by 1 (-1 downvote on answer)   The question was later put on hold but it doesn't change the rep gains and losses.  I'm not complaining about my lost rep. I just feel that the reward for asking and answering off-topic questions exists in the system. That gives a wrong  indication of hat behaviour is desired in SO.  Maybe when a question is put on hold for off-topic reasons, the reputation gains (only gains) should be reversed?  UPDATE  Aziz Shaikh has a valid point that the rep changes will be reversed once the question is closed and deleted (see ). The problem is, with the way closing queue is going, that may take very long (up to forever).

It annoys me when people post answers to obviously off-topic questions like , especially after those questions have already received several close votes. Migrations seem to happen rather infrequently these days, so there's probably no reputation to gain for questions that are likely to be closed. And although sure, the answer may help the OP, it also encourages bad behavior (posting off-topic questions.)  Is it appropriate to downvote these answers?   Personally, I think I could make a case for both sides.


I try to use the following code for citation but it is not working .  \documentclass[10pt,a4paper]{article} \usepackage{apacite}  \usepackage{cite} \begin{document} ~\cite{Abuelyaman2008} ~\cite{Abuelyaman2008}  ssssssssss\citep{Agrawal2002}   \bibliographystyle{apacite} \bibliography{VSM_references}  \end{document}   I want to show author name and year if there is just one author but if there are three authors just show the first author and et al.  This is one of the .bib entries:   @ARTICLE{Abuelyaman2008,   author = {Eltayeb Salih Abuelyaman},   title = {An Optimized Scheme for Vertical Partitioning of a Distributed Database},   journal = {IJCSNS International Journal of Computer Science and Network Security},   year = {2008},   volume = {VOL.8 No.1},   pages = {310-316},   owner = {DELL2},   timestamp = {2013.03.31} }   And this is the other one:  @ARTICLE{Agrawal2002,   author = {Sanjay Agrawal, Surajit Chaudhuri, Gautam Das},   title = {DBXplorer: A System for Keyword-Based Search over Relational Databases},   journal = {Data Engineering, 2002. Proceedings. 18th International Conference     on. IEEE},   year = {2002},   owner = {Dell2},   timestamp = {2013.03.30} }   many thanks in advance Ayham

The apacite package documentation here:    states that whenever citing more than two authors (but less than six), the first time the full will appear, but from thereon, citing again the paper will lead to an et al suffix after the first author.  Is there a way to make apacite use et al. already from the beginning whenever citing more than two authors?  Also, is there a way to make apacite use "and" instead of "&" between author names?


I am planning to buy a new Dell Vostro 15 3590 laptop which will be preinstalled with Windows 10. So I want to know whether it will be compatible with Ubuntu or Linux distributions for dual boot. This question is because I am unable to install dual boot on my Acer Aspire A315-56 laptop as hard disk was never recognized by the Ubuntu installer. And I have read somewhere in Dell forums that AHCI SATA mode will soon be not available on newer laptops. Already HP and Lenovo have disabled it and RAID is the chosen option by manufacturers. I am worried whether Dell Vostro will be one of that kind and Linux can't be installed there. Linux guys should find easy possibility of installation with RAID option as this will be most normal case in future. Thanks in advance guys.

I have a device on which I would like to install Ubuntu. How do I find out if Ubuntu will work on it?


runAnimation: function(){   var iframe = document.querySelector('.active iframe');   window.frames[iframe.id].contentWindow.runAnimation(); },   The above code prints the following error in Safari:  TypeError: undefined is not an object (evaluating 'window.frames[iframe.id].contentWindow.runAnimation')   I have tried the answer ,  and , basically every possible solution.  Another interesting thing to point out is window returns undefined on Safari only!    /**  * @property {array} Templates.slide - The template part for each slide  * Html template for app  */  //Iframe Template presenter.Templates.slide = [   '<iframe id="slide-<%= id %>" class="slide" data-disable-back="<%= disableBack %>" data-disable-forward="<%= disableForward %>" data-position="<%= position %>" data-src="<%= url %>">', ].join('\n');     /**  * Default options for the carousel.  * @public  */  //Owl Carousel options  Owl.Defaults = {   ...   // Classes and Names   themeClass: 'owl-theme',   baseClass: 'owl-carousel',   itemClass: 'owl-item',   centerClass: 'center',   activeClass: 'active'  };  /**  * The main view for the presentation  * This renders a collection presentation  * Builds owlCarousel and attaches api controls  */ presenter.PresentationView = Backbone.View.extend({   ...      /**    * Runs slide animation. Called on the slide itself once its loaded    */   runAnimation: function(){     var iframe = document.querySelector('.active iframe');     window.frames[iframe.id].contentWindow.runAnimation();   },   ...  /**  * Adds listners for carousel events. Used to trigger runAnimation along with  * other function  */   carouselEvents: function(){     var self = this;     this.slider.on('translated.owl.carousel', function(){       self.showControls();       self.runAnimation();     });   },    /**  * Standard backbone method. Called when view is instantiated  * @param {object} options - Options passed when creating the view  *                           (such as instanceURL)  */   initialize : function(options){     this.options = options;     this.render();     this.buildSlider();     this.loadFour();     this.carouselControls();     this.carouselEvents();     this.keyNavigation();     this.UIEvent();     this.reScale();   },  });

What's the best way of checking if an object property in JavaScript is undefined?


What is the result of $$ \sqrt{(-1)^2} ?$$ I see two potential ways of solving this. First, by direct calculation $$ \sqrt{(-1)^2} = \sqrt{1} = 1. $$ Second, by applying the power rule $$ \sqrt{(-1)^2} = (-1)^{2^{1/2}} = (-1)^{2/2} = -1. $$  Intuitively, I would say the first approach is correct. However, I did not find any restrictions to the power rule that would rule out the second solution.

I know there must be something unmathematical in the following but I don't know where it is: \begin{align} \sqrt{-1} &= i \\\\\ \frac1{\sqrt{-1}} &= \frac1i \\\\  \frac{\sqrt1}{\sqrt{-1}} &= \frac1i \\\\  \sqrt{\frac1{-1}} &= \frac1i \\\\  \sqrt{\frac{-1}1} &= \frac1i \\\\  \sqrt{-1} &= \frac1i \\\\  i &= \frac1i \\\\  i^2 &= 1 \\\\  -1 &= 1 \quad !!? \end{align}


$$\sum^{\infty}_{n=1}\frac{n}{\sqrt{n^2+1}}$$  What convergence test would one use for this, and how?

How does one test for convergence of $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n}{\sqrt{n^2 +1}}$?   My work ...  First I had a look at the series.  $S_n = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}+\frac{2}{\sqrt{5}}+\frac{3}{\sqrt{10}}+\frac{4}{\sqrt{17}}+...$  I used Geogebra and the series clearly diverges.  I was going to compare this series to:   $S^{'}_n = 1+\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{4}}+...$  ... but I couldn't see anyway of showing that:   $S_n \ge S^{'}_n$  When I use the ratio test I get:   $\frac{(n+1)\sqrt{n^2+1}}{(n)\sqrt{n^2+2n+2}}$  Which I can't see any way of simplifying.  What method should I use here?


I have desktop PC and I use US keyboard layout. Recently I bought laptop with UK keyboard (I know, but discount was good so I couldn't resist).   Now what happens is that whatever keyboard I choose for laptop (ENG - UK) Windows 10 automatically sets that layout to any other PC I use and where I am logged in with my Microsoft credentials (@live) and that is on any other PC I use at home or at work. Opposite is also true when I revert from UK to US on my desktop PCs it is set that way on laptop as well.- Any idea how to stop "backup" & "transfer" of this specific setting?  As it seems I wasn't clear enough with OP here is additional explanation: Moreover if I delete US layout on laptop Windows delete it on BOTH Laptop AND PC. Same for UK layout. If I delete it on PC it deletes it on Laptop as well. Whatever I do on one machine it goes on every other machine.

I use Windows 10 with the same Microsoft account on 3 different computers, each one with a different physical keyboard layout: ITA, UK, DE.  In "Control panel - Clock and International settings - Language" I have ITA as display language with ITA/DE/UK keyboard layouts, followed by ENG(US) with only UK layout.  In the same window I opened "Advanced settings" where I set an override (second drop-down list) to the default ("the first one on the list") language/keyboard: that would be ITA/ITA, while I want (on this computer) ITA/DE.  However, when now I log in in the other computers, I get ITA/DE there as well, while each computer should have a different one, being the physical keyboards different: ITA/DE here, ITA/UK on the second one and ITA/ITA on the third one.  If I change one, they all change. And if I don't apply the override, the issue seems to be the same.  Basically the last used language AND keyboard settings are stored on the cloud and applied wherever I log in.  How to set Windows 10 to remember, PER computer, the last used language/keyboard layout settings, without having that setting follow me?


If I have a black hole with a mass that's exactly the same mass as a star, why does the black hole warp spacetime so much more (light can’t escape) than a star (light can escape) with the exact same mass?  Is it due to the black hole having a singularity, or it being more dense than the star, or something else?

I've seen in a documentary that when a star collapses and becomes a black hole, it starts to eat the planets around.   But it has the same mass, so how does its gravitational field strength increase?


How to put the bash subshell sed output into the main/root shell environment variable ? it'll fail, v=`echo NO |tee >(sed 's/^/&YES/' )`  How's the true to solve it?

Why do I get different values for $x from the snippets below?  #!/bin/bash  x=1 echo fred > junk ; while read var ; do x=55 ; done < junk echo x=$x  #    x=55 .. I'd expect this result  x=1 cat junk | while read var ; do x=55 ; done echo x=$x  #    x=1 .. but why?  x=1 echo fred | while read var ; do x=55 ; done echo x=$x  #    x=1  .. but why?


Sorry for repeat the same thread but nobody answer me and I need a fix as soon as posible because I can't stay updating PCs going first to 15.10 and later to the LTS. Please help me! Thanks in advance!  This is the original message.  I have a Toshiba NB300 with 1 GB RAM with Intel® Atom™ processor N450 and I recently installed Lubuntu 16.04 LTS i386 and I have this message on the screen instead of the login box  /dev/sda6: clean, 124768/2379216 files, 881581/9509376 blocks   How can I fix it?  Thanks in advance.


Why doesnt the official SE android app support chat . It would be better to have an all in one app that wouldn't require us to rely on third party softwares or browsers. I came across a third party app that supports chat :   Personally ,i dont prefer using browsers on a mobile given that they aren't smooth enough compared to what a chat app would be like.

Being able to join chat rooms from the Android app would be a plus! It would truly make us connected on the go, instead of having to sit down at our desks and open a browser window. This will allow more users to fully utilize the chat system and join events no matter where they are.


I am showing a subsection of the code where i am defining two functions  defining_polygon_outside_nest and defining_polygon_inside_nest. err is an integer whose values ranges from [0,5]. I define err as a global variable within these functions and want to use this to add specific values in list ants_inroi_outsidenest and ants_inroi_insidenest. Whenever i do this, i am getting an error if for_coordinates_inside_nest((x,y)) is True and err==0: NameError: global name 'err' is not defined. It works fine if i am not using err in function defining_polygon_inside_nest Any suggestions to solve this?  err = 0 def defining_polygon_outside_nest(tag_data):     global err     ants_in_arena = []     ants_inroi_outsidenest = []     for id, (x,y) in tag_data:         ants_in_arena.append(id)         if for_coordinates_outside_nest((x,y)) is True and err==0:             ants_inroi_outsidenest.append(id)      return ants_inroi_outsidenest   def defining_polygon_inside_nest(tag_data):        global err     ants_in_arenai = []     ants_inroi_insidenest = []     for id, (x, y) in tag_data:         ants_in_arenai.append(id)         if for_coordinates_inside_nest((x,y)) is True and err==0:             ants_inroi_insidenest.append(id)     return ants_inroi_insidenest

How can I create or use a global variable in a function?  If I create a global variable in one function, how can I use that global variable in another function? Do I need to store the global variable in a local variable of the function which needs its access?


I want a way by which whenever I create a new file in a particular directory, I want it to be executable by default.  Is this even possible, if so how?

I have an entire folder dedicated to python scripts.  I'm tired of doing chmod on every new python script that I write.  Is there a way to make every file inside my folder executable if it is a python script?  It would be nice to have a script that checks whenever a new .py script is created and if there is a new .py script make it executable right there on the spot.   I use Vim.


It's hard to describe, but the votecell <td> tag can overlay the questions/answers in chrome. It is clear this is not on purpose as it only occurs in chrome (tested in IE and Firefox). Here's an image to show what I mean:    To recreate this, resize your window horizontally until a scroll bar is shown. Then simply scroll right and then up/down the page.  I am using "Chrome Version 43.0.2357.81 m."  So onto the question: is this the same for everyone else with this version of chrome? Will this be fixed?  Edit: While the other question produces the same error, my browser is not zoomed in. This happens regardless of zoom.

I've noticed that the "Sticky vote" count is defective when a certain page contains horizontal scrolling -when it's zoomed in, for example- because the vote count overlays the text of the question, as you may see in this image:


In Ubuntu 18.04, the "files" application behaves in - what to me anyway - is a very annoying way.  Scenario: I am viewing a directory containing some files. I want to access a particular file, lets say "readme.txt", so I hit the "r" key.  I would expect it highlight the first file beginning with the name "r". But no, instead it starts performing a global search. To me this is an illogical and counter-intuitive behavior: if I am in the context of a specific directory, why would you suddenly take that view away, and start doing a global search??  I prefer to use keyboard over mouse as much as possible, but the Files app in particular seems to be not very keyboard-friendly.  I looked in the settings, can't see an obvious way to change this behavior. Any suggestions?  Edit: There is an option to "only search in the current folder", but this doesn't work properly (often searches globally despite this settings), and it still has the annoying effect of changing the current view.

Until now I was using a "traditional" version of Nautilus: that that comes with Ubuntu 10.10. Now I'm using 3.6.3, included with Ubuntu 13.04 (most likely any recent version is equivalent for the scope of my question, anyway).  One major difference between the two is the search-as-you-type behavior: in classic versions of Nautilus, when you typed an input, the file with the closest alphabetical match would become the selected one, the eligible files/folders being restricted to the current directory.  The new behavior is to perform an optionally-global search instead.  Can one configure Nautilus to provide the previous functionality ?


I am supposed to run a regression of Medical Expenditure on several explanatory variables like income, no of illnesses, age and also some dummy variables like gender differentiating dummy, dummy for health insurance cover etc. The simple linear regression thus obtained turns out to have low t and R2 values. I used some other functional forms like log transformation for income and medical expenditure. I even tried dropping some variables but the insignificance and low R2 persist. I dropped the intercept and the regression turned out to have high R2 (almost .95 in comparison to a .15 in the first model). How do I interpret this? I know dropping the intercept has some implications and we need to factor in presence of Dummy Variables as well since without an intercept, there'd be no base case for the Dummy Variables.  What is wrong with the entire interpretation? Given the possibility of dropping a variable, how do I interpret the dummy variables (there are 4 in total).

In a simple linear model with a single explanatory variable,  $\alpha_i = \beta_0 + \beta_1 \delta_i + \epsilon_i$  I find that removing the intercept term improves the fit greatly (value of $R^2$ goes from 0.3 to 0.9). However, the intercept term appears to be statistically significant.  With intercept:   Call: lm(formula = alpha ~ delta, data = cf)  Residuals:      Min       1Q   Median       3Q      Max  -0.72138 -0.15619 -0.03744  0.14189  0.70305   Coefficients:             Estimate Std. Error t value Pr(>|t|)     (Intercept)  0.48408    0.05397    8.97   <2e-16 *** delta        0.46112    0.04595   10.04   <2e-16 *** --- Signif. codes:  0 ‘***’ 0.001 ‘**’ 0.01 ‘*’ 0.05 ‘.’ 0.1 ‘ ’ 1   Residual standard error: 0.2435 on 218 degrees of freedom Multiple R-squared: 0.316,    Adjusted R-squared: 0.3129  F-statistic: 100.7 on 1 and 218 DF,  p-value: < 2.2e-16    Without intercept:   Call: lm(formula = alpha ~ 0 + delta, data = cf)  Residuals:      Min       1Q   Median       3Q      Max  -0.92474 -0.15021  0.05114  0.21078  0.85480   Coefficients:       Estimate Std. Error t value Pr(>|t|)     delta  0.85374    0.01632   52.33   <2e-16 *** --- Signif. codes:  0 ‘***’ 0.001 ‘**’ 0.01 ‘*’ 0.05 ‘.’ 0.1 ‘ ’ 1   Residual standard error: 0.2842 on 219 degrees of freedom Multiple R-squared: 0.9259,   Adjusted R-squared: 0.9256  F-statistic:  2738 on 1 and 219 DF,  p-value: < 2.2e-16    How would you interpret these results? Should an intercept term be included in the model or not?  Edit  Here's the residual sums of squares:  RSS(with intercept) = 12.92305 RSS(without intercept) = 17.69277


I have to create a several data frame print composer layout: is there a command or a plugin in QGIS 2.4.0 Chugiak that allows to insert several data frame? I dont't know if QGIS can manage more than one data frame (maybe I'm talking with an ESRI language referring to "data frame").

I am working with QGIS Composer 2.0 and I would like to add a second map.    What I would like to do is to have a main map that takes up the majority of the print area.  This map, Main Map, will have four layers active from QGIS Desktop.    The second map, Overview Map, is a small map identifying the overview of the area.  The overview map will be at a different scale than Main Map, and it will also only have one layer active from QGIS Desktop.    The issue I am having is that when I add a new map, the map areas are updated when I change the layers in QGIS Desktop.    QGIS 2.0 has a new function for Overviews, but the documentation is not overly clear on how to use it.    In ArcMap, you can set up different views, which allows for different data, scale, symbology, etc. ensuring that the different maps in the print layout are independent.    Is there a way to do something like this in QGIS Composer?    Two maps with different layers, from the same QGIS Desktop instance?


I have very big issues in externalizing and generella produce plot with latex. I'm compiling with PDFLatex and the compiler is texmaker. I'm compiling my thesis that consists in different chapters and some plots. i already red all the topics about this problem but i can't get a solution. the problem are:  first, latex refuse to externalize picture, so i added --enable-write18 in the library with \usetikzlibrary{external}\tikzexternalize. after that, some plot were drawn, but memory exceed problem come along; i add the line --extra-mem-bot=100000000 (now it's removed) but after i reach 21000000000 it can compile no more;  At this moment the lines \usetikzlibrary{external}\tikzexternalize are commented because the compiler totally stopped to work even with them on and only loaded the picture already created, even i modify them. what would i do to solve the problem?

I have fairly large datasets with densely strucutred data that i cant downsampe much without loosing structure. I use TexMaker on Ubuntu 14.04LTS. I use   \usepackage{tikz,pgfplots,pgfplotstable} \pgfplotsset{compat=1.9} \usepgfplotslibrary{external} \tikzexternalize   and   \tikzsetnextfilename{figs/test1}   to externalize the figures. This works good compiling with pdflatex -shell-escape. But as the data becomes to large I am out of memory. I am trying to compile using LuaLaTeX -shell-escape instead of pdfLatex but get the following error message:   ! Package tikz Error: Sorry, the system call 'pdflatex -halt-on-error -interact ion=batchmode -jobname "figs/test1" "\def\tikzexternalrealjob{article}\input{ar ticle}"' did NOT result in a usable output file 'figs/test1' (expected one of . pdf:.jpg:.jpeg:.png:). Please verify that you have enabled system calls. For pd flatex, this is 'pdflatex -shell-escape'. Sometimes it is also named 'write 18' or something like that. Or maybe the command simply failed?   so pgfPlots seem to call pdfLatex without the appropriate -shell-escape flag and without me specifying it. How can i get this to compile in LuaLatex? or can i compile only the figures in LuaLatex and the rest in pdfLatex (the opposite of what is happening now)? I found  and  example but neither helped me...  Thankfull for help and i am also thankful for any general advice that can help me resolve the problem of ploting larger data sets in pgfplots.   Cheers /J


What does it mean when the function look like this?   bool Connect([ref string  errormessage])  {      \\Code  }   Do I call it like this?    string error = "";  if(!<MyInstance>.Connect(error))        MessageBox.Show(error);

I'm looking for a clear, concise and accurate answer.    Ideally as the actual answer, although links to good explanations welcome.  This also applies to VB.Net, but the keywords are different - ByRef and ByVal.