im Blender beginner and want so scale my cylinder in shape but i cant figuere out how to do it. I Tried to do it with the base cylinder and without mirror mode, in this case it work but i need to work in mirror mode.    i watch a video  to do this lizard but in his video it stay in shape :( have you any hint how i can do this ?

I have a simple cylinder which is mirrored on both the X and Y axis.  When I scale it along the X axis, the two halves of the cylinder overlap, rather than scale as it would before the mirror modifier was applied:    I haven't used Blender in a while and I know this is a simple fix.


Im pretty sure it doesn't, but how can I be sure?  Was thinking by using   $$f(x) = \sin(x) + 2$$ and $$g(x) = \cos(x) + 2$$  Thanks!`

I've been thinking about this problem for a while now but I can't fully come up with an example. It would make sense that this would exist and the only way I think it would work is if the functions were oscillating up and down and you could never find a point where f(n) is always bigger than c * g(n) and you could never find a point where f(n) is always less than c * g(n)


I made a ram block device using 'rd' module. Afterward, I formatted it with ext4 filesystem. I ran fio benchmark towards the ramdisk. But the performance is extremely low in that it shows only around 100 mb/s. My kernel version is 5.4.0 and the OS is Ubuntu 18.04. Any ideas?

I know that RAM disks are fast, faster than any disk, but they lose their contents on a shutdown of the operating system. The capacity is limited to the RAM. Is there a useful implementation on a new 64-bit Windows 2008 server?


as the question posed I would like to know how to add all these related lists on the case visualforce page. I have added others and they work perfect, but specifically with these (CaseComments, Attachments, Team Members and Histories ) gives the following error  'CaseComment' is not a valid child relationship name for entity Case  'Attachments' is not a valid child relationship name for entity Case   'TeamMembers' is not a valid child relationship name for entity Case   'Histories' is not a valid child relationship name for entity Case

I want to add CaseComment and CaseHistory related list to my visualforce page.   <apex:relatedList list=" " />  What should be the value for List attribute in the code defined above. When I added   <apex:relatedList list="CaseHistory" /> 'Histories' is also not working   <apex:relatedList list="CaseComment" /> 'CaseComments' is also not working  I get errors saying they are not valid child relationship name for entity Case.  Please help me out on this issue.


I was wondering when marking / flagging a question as a duplicate, I see two identical options: "A duplicated "mark as duplicate" "  One in the first page:    Another under "Should be closed" page:    I assume the one under "Should be closed" should be removed. Can we remove it? And should we?

We've changed the flagging format from today(AFAIK) as below,        looks good.  But, when I select it should be closed for another reason...  I can see the same reason duplicate on the top.        What is the need of placing that reason over there? It should not be there. Please remove the dupe.


When resistors are serially connected, the current is the same through the whole circuit. To my knowledge, the electric current is electrons traveling.   Also, the power of the generator equals the power lost...  Since current stays the same through all resistors, what exactly is being lost here? (when connected to a voltage source)  If the amount of electrons and their speed when entering the resistor is the same when they "get out" of a resistor, what generated heat? What was lost in the process of lighting a bulb? If no electrons were lost why is a battery not an infinite source of electricity?  What happened in the resistor that made it heat up?   Keep in mind all the information here are only true to my knowledge, which is flawed, if I am wrong, please correct me.

When electrons flow through a conductor it is subject to resistive loss, which has the unfortunate capability of producing heat from this current, leaving us with less current in the other end of the conductor opposite to the power source.   When current is lost due to heat, what happens to the electron? I mean, what is left of it? I guess heat is caused by friction, but that doesn't mean that the electron is not able to travel all the way through to the load of the conductor, or what?


If $F$ is field such that $|F|=q=p^n$, $(m,p)=1$ and $E$ is the splitting field of $x^m-1\in F[x]$ then $[E:F]$ is the minimum positive integer $k$ such that $m \mid (q^k-1)$. I have no any idea on this. But I really want to know how to prove this. Thanks!

Let $k$ be a finite field of order $q$ in characteristic $p$, let $n$ be a positive integer not divisible by $p$, and let $K$ be the splitting field of $X^n-1$ over $k$. Prove that $[K:k]$ equals the smallest positive integer $d$ such that $n\mid q^d-1$.  My approach: It's easy to show that if $k$ is a finite field of order $q$ with $\text{char} \ k=p$ then $k=\mathbb{F}_{q}$ with $q=p^m$ with $m\geq 1$. If $K$ is the splitting field of $X^n-1$ over $k$ then $K=\mathbb{F}_{q^r}$ for some suitable $r\geq 1$.  Let $\alpha \in K=\mathbb{F}_{q^r}$ be a root of $X^n-1$ then $\alpha^n-1=0$ and $\alpha\neq 0$.   Thus, $\alpha^n=1$ and $\alpha \in \mathbb{F}^{\times}_{q^r}$ where $\mathbb{F}^{\times}_{q^r}$ is the cyclic group of order $q^r-1$.  But I have some difficulties:  1) From $\alpha^n=1$ it follows that $o(\alpha)\mid n$. How to show that $o(\alpha)=n$? I was trying to show it using that $(n,p)=1$ but I failed.  Remark: Because if we can show that $o(\alpha)=n$ then the desired result follows immediately from cyclicity of multiplicative group of field $\mathbb{F}_{q^r}$.  I have spent one day in order to come up with this approach. So please do not duplicate this question and can anyone show how to answer my question, please.  Detailed explanation would be great!


Why in this sentence "older " is the correct word?  He married the older sister and now they have two sets of twins.   He married the elder sister and now they have two sets of twins.

What is the difference between "Older" and "Elder" ?  And are they interchangeable ?


I was going through server jre, when i extracted serverjre tar.gz , it gave me jdk folder. why does serverJRE gives JDK like folder. There is JRE folder inside serverJRE also. So which one to use, whole serverJRE or just JRE folder which is inside serverJRE. Also contents of JRE inside serverJRE is same as JRE inside JDK.   I am not understanding the difference.

Is there any real practical difference between "java -server" and "java -client"?    All I can find on Sun's site is a vague      "-server starts slower but should run faster".     What are the real differences?  (Using JDK 1.6.0_07 currently.)


There's a nice problem that's found in textbooks and on MSE to show that $$\zeta(2) = \frac{\pi^2}{6}$$ using just a tictch of multivariable calculus and a couple trig substitutions. The main idea is to find the below integral,  $$I = \int_0^1 \int_0^1 \frac{dx\, dy}{1-xy},$$ in two different ways. The first is to Taylor expand the integrand and exchange sum and integral signs to net $$ I = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{1}{(n+1)^2}.$$  The second is to transform to rotated coordinates, integrate over one of them with a trig substitution, and then integrate over the other with another such substitution. I recommend checking out the explicit steps .   Though I'm aware of many derivations for the Basel problem (and the generating function, Poisson summation, contour integral derivations for the other $\zeta(2n)$), many from MSE, I enjoy the style of proof above.     My question is: Can we show that $$\zeta(4) = \frac{\pi^4}{90}$$ using the integral $$J = \int_0^1 \int_0^1 \int_0^1 \int_0^1 \frac{dw\, dx\, dy\, dz}{1-wxyz} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{1}{(n+1)^4}$$ through a handful of change of variables and direct integration?   I'm most interested in linear transformations followed by trig subs in the style of the above proof, but that's not a necessity.

In page 122 of a book by , namely  (1956), there is an exercise for evaluating the following integral in two ways.  $$\int_0^1\!\!\!\int_0^1\frac1{1-xy}\,dy\,dx$$  First way is to write the integrand as a geometric series,  $$\int_0^1\!\!\!\int_0^1\frac1{1-xy}\,dy\,dx=\int_0^1\!\!\!\int_0^1\left(\sum_{n=1}^\infty(xy)^{n-1}\right)\,dy\,dx=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac1{n^2}$$  and the second way by use of a suitable change of variables ($y:=u-v,x:=u+v$) which is also published by  in this .  Hence, the second way together with the result of the first way is a proof for the famous , in fact to show that $\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac1{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}6$.  Now, the main question is, if there is a suitable change of variables for the following integral  $$\int_0^1\!\!\!\int_0^1\!\!\!\int_0^1\!\!\!\int_0^1\frac1{1-xyzw}\,dw\,dz\,dy\,dx~?$$  Unfortunately, I think a similar change of variables like ($w:=p\pm q\pm r\pm s,\cdots$) doesn't work here, while I'm not really sure!


I'm trying to ping local IPs on my Mac but it's not working as I would expect.  If I ping 127.0.0.1, there's no problem:  PING 127.0.0.1 (127.0.0.1): 56 data bytes 64 bytes from 127.0.0.1: icmp_seq=0 ttl=64 time=0.056 ms 64 bytes from 127.0.0.1: icmp_seq=1 ttl=64 time=0.083 ms 64 bytes from 127.0.0.1: icmp_seq=2 ttl=64 time=0.089 ms   However if I ping any other local IPs, it doesn't work:  PING 127.0.0.99 (127.0.0.99): 56 data bytes Request timeout for icmp_seq 0 Request timeout for icmp_seq 1 Request timeout for icmp_seq 2 Request timeout for icmp_seq 3   If I try the same thing on Windows, it's working. Does anybody know why it is not working on Mac OS X?

According to everything I read, the entire 127.x.x.x subnet should loopback.  However, on my Mac, I can only ping 127.0.0.1  I know I've done this before (though possibly on another OS) and has come in very useful for developing multiple SSL sites locally and for tunneling remote services for access on a local IP (for example I could ssh into my MySQL server, and just port forward the standard port to the same port on my local machine but on 127.0.0.2 while my local server ran at 127.0.0.1.


Let $A$ and $B$ be two sets of real numbers. Define the distance from $A$ to $B$ by $$\rho (A,B) = \inf \{ |a-b| : a \in A, b \in B\} \;.$$ Give an example to show that the distance between two closed sets can be $0$ even if the two sets are disjoint.

Is given metric space $(M, d)$. Let $A\cap B = \emptyset; \,\,\text{dist}(A,B):=\inf\{d(x,y):x\in A, y\in B\}$. $A, B$ are both closed sets. Is it possible that $\text{dist}(A,B)=0$?  The first thought comes into mind is that obviously $\text{dist}(A,B)>0$, but possibly there are some tricky $d$ and $A, B$ so that it's untrue.  Thanks in advance!


Hey guys I've been having trouble with my code within the if statements. Regardless of what I enter the if statements always return f_resist [] to 0. I think there is an error along my if statements but im not sure :(  Scanner u_scancolor = new Scanner(System.in); //declare input box System.out.println("Enter three colors on the resistor seperated by hyphens.      ie: Red-Blue-Brown"); System.out.println("Colours you can use: Black, Brown, Red, White, Orange,   Yellow, Green, Grey, Violet, Blue"); String f_wire = u_scancolor.next(); //takes a string System.out.println(f_wire); int [] f_resist; f_resist = new int [3];   String [] f_wordcolor= f_wire.split("-"); //splits the colors by hyphen into   individual strings   for (int cnt1=0 ; cnt1<3; cnt1++) {   f_wordcolor [cnt1] = f_wordcolor [cnt1].toUpperCase();  System.out.println(f_wordcolor [cnt1]);  if (f_wordcolor [cnt1] == "BLACK ") {    f_resist [cnt1] = 0;   }  else if (f_wordcolor [cnt1] == "BROWN") {    f_resist [cnt1] = 1;  }    else if (f_wordcolor [cnt1] == "RED") {    f_resist [cnt1] = 2;   }   else if (f_wordcolor [cnt1] == "ORANGE") {    f_resist [cnt1] = 3;   }  else if (f_wordcolor [cnt1] == "YELLOW") {    f_resist [cnt1] = 4;   }  else if (f_wordcolor [cnt1] == "GREEN") {    f_resist [cnt1] = 5;  }   else if (f_wordcolor [cnt1] == "BLUE") {    f_resist [cnt1] = 6;   }    else if (f_wordcolor [cnt1] == "VIOLET") {    f_resist [cnt1] = 7;   }    else if (f_wordcolor [cnt1] == "GREY") {    f_resist [cnt1] = 8;   }    else if (f_wordcolor [cnt1] == "WHITE") {    f_resist [cnt1] = 9;   }    System.out.println(f_resist [cnt1]);  }  String f_add1 = Integer.toString(f_resist [0]); String f_add2 = Integer.toString(f_resist [1]); String f_stringadd = f_add1 + f_add2;  int f_intadd = Integer.parseInt(f_stringadd);   int f_ohm = f_intadd*10^f_resist[2];  System.out.println("Total ohms: " + f_ohm);  } }

I've been using the == operator in my program to compare all my strings so far. However, I ran into a bug, changed one of them into .equals() instead, and it fixed the bug.  Is == bad? When should it and should it not be used? What's the difference?


I requested my elementary OS account be deleted, and I confirmed it, and the countdown reached 2 hours at 11:30pm BTC. I went back on my computer today, and my account was still active and receiving reputation - I'd passed 2000 overnight.  Is it an issue with global authentication that caused this?    I have contacted the team again so they do / will know.

I have 3 accounts that I am deleting - however, several hours after the 24 hour (+ grace period - end about 4-5 hours ago), the countdown completed, but disappeared and the accounts are still there.   I would rather not go through another 24 hours, and would like to have these accounts deleted (and yes, I have thought about it and this decision is not up for discussion).  Currently, the accounts are still there.  Could this please be seen to?


Am wondering what is the equivalent in PHP for SQL Server escaping of strings?

I'm looking for the alternative of mysql_real_escape_string() for SQL Server. Is addslashes() my best option or there is another alternative function that can be used?  An alternative for mysql_error() would also be useful.


I want to play one specific game EA sports Cricket 2002 using wine or play on Linux,This game runs properly only in Windows 98 or Windows XP .Do anyone knows on which particular wine version I can play this game and how to install that version of wine.Which repositories of wine are currently open to play this game.Edit:I am not able to play on current releases of Wine and play on Linux it hangs when i try to run executable 'exe' file,I've tried changing settings using configure wine and winconsole cmd with parameter --nointro.Though I am successful in playing one more game swat3 demo using wine and call of duty?

Can .exe and .msi files (Windows software) be installed in Ubuntu?


I would like to take the menu image, below, and superimpose it on top of the screen in the image below it, so it looks like the person is looking at that on their screen.   Is this easily done in Photoshop, or is it a bad idea for a beginner-intermediate to try?? I would assume it requires some kind of mesh that can change the perspective of the menu. I'm using PS CS6.   Thanks in advance.

I'm trying to achieve the effect shown below, but with a photograph and I'm having some trouble maintaining the height width ratio so the photograph doesn't look too distorted - can anyone offer any tips or tutorials?  Thanks in advance for your help.


What will be the simplest way to convert convert 5V DC to 100V DC, for low power application ~0.2 Amps for a portable electrophoresis power supply?

I am using an USB port as a power supply. Is there a way I can take the weak 5V of a regular laptop USB and transform if to 100V+ while begin in the smallest package possible. I've heard of boost converters but they are usualy too big. I want something that has the size of like a normal USB key.   What I want to do is to charge up around 5 capacitors at 100+V and then discharge them later. Power efficiency not a concern for me.  It would be helpful to include a schematic of the circuit.


I have noticed that when you are exchanging comments with someone under an answer, and reach a certain number of comments, you are opted to start a chat instead. Is it possible to initiate this right away? If not, could you make it possible?  My example of when this could be nice to have is this: I wrote a general answer to a question about Hibernate, and after some time someone asked a quite specific question in a comment underneath my answer. I would like to help out, but still it would be nice not to clutter my general answer with very specific comments. In this case I would have liked to just initiate a chat with the person asking right away, and then avoid a long comment conversation that really is quite irrelevant to the actual answer.

I've seen , but there seem to be no proper solution.  I suggest an ability to insert a "Let us continue this discussion in chat" comment before the thread gets messy enough to fit the requirement. The point is to prevent the problem before it occurs.  Perhaps this should become a privilege for users of X reputation or more?  Your opinions on the subject?


In a LaTeX document I have several figures and tables and I need to reference some of them. I tried putting the label in different positions and figured out that it worked when I put the label next to the caption. However, when the hyperlink is clicked it goes to the caption and the next table is in view which might confuse the readers of the document. Furthermore, when I put the label code after the table environment, the number displayed in the pdf is the section number (and subsection if available). How can I make the references point to the actual graphics and have their number?  EDIT: I have solved the problem by using the package "hypcap" and using the command /capstart at the point I want the "hyperref" to anchor.

I'm using the following command to embed images in my LaTeX document (which is then rendered as PDF)  \newcommand{\img}[4]{   \begin{figure}[!hbt]     \centering       \vspace{1ex}       \includegraphics[width=#2]{images/#1}       \caption[#4]{\label{img.#1} #3}     \vspace{1ex}   \end{figure} }   When creating a href to an image, the viewer jumps to the image caption instead of the top of the image. How do I change my \img command so it still puts the caption below the image but links to it jump to the image itself?


If    $$ \lim_{x \rightarrow a} f(x)= \infty\quad \lim_{x \rightarrow a} g(x)=\infty$$  and    $$ \lim_{x \rightarrow a} \frac{f'(x)}{g'(x)}=L $$    then   $$ \lim_{x \rightarrow a} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=L  $$     Is this correct? Any response would be appreciated.

I ask for the proof of the L'Hôpital rule for the indeterminate form $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ utilizing the rule for the form $\frac{0}{0}$.   Theorem: Let $f,g:(a,b)\to \mathbb{R}$ be two differentiable functions such as that:  $\forall x\in(a,b)\ \ g(x)\neq 0\text{ and }g^{\prime}(x)\neq 0$ and $\lim_{x\to a^+}f(x)=\lim_{x\to a^+}g(x)=+\infty$ If the limit $$\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{f^{\prime}(x)}{g^{\prime}(x)}$$ exists and is finite, then  $$\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{f^{\prime}(x)}{g^{\prime}(x)}$$  My attempt:  Since $\lim_{x\to a^+}f(x)=+\infty$, $$\exists \delta>0:a<x<a+\delta<b\Rightarrow f(x)>0\Rightarrow f(x)\neq 0$$  Let $F,G:(a,a+\delta)\to \mathbb{R}$, $F(x)=\frac{1}{f(x)}$, $G(x)=\frac{1}{g(x)}$. Then by the hypothesis $\lim_{x\to a^+}F(x)=\lim_{x\to a^+}G(x)=0$, $$\forall x\in(a,b)\ \ G(x)\neq 0\text{ and }G^{\prime}(x)=-\frac{1}{g^2(x)}g^{\prime}(x)\neq 0$$ The question is, does the limit $$\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{F^{\prime}(x)}{G^{\prime}(x)}=\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{-\frac{1}{f^2(x)}f^{\prime}(x)}{-\frac{1}{g^2(x)}g^{\prime}(X)}=\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{g^2(x)f^{\prime}(x)}{f^2(x)g^{\prime}(x)}$$ exist?   The limit $$\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{f^{\prime}(x)}{g^{\prime}(x)}$$ exists by the hypothesis but we don't know if the limit $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{g^2(x)}{f^2(x)}$ exists to deduce that the limit $$\lim_{x\to a^+}\frac{F^{\prime}(x)}{G^{\prime}(x)}$$ exists to use the L'Hôpital Rule for the form $\frac{0}{0}$.  EDIT: After discussing it with other users in the site, we came to the conclusion that this proof is only partial and can't logically be continued to yield the Theorem.  As a result, the rule for the $\frac{0}{0}$ form can't be used to proove the rule for the  $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ form. Mr. Tavares and myself have already given two different proofs (with the pretty much the same main idea) of the Theorem in question using Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem. You can read them below. You can also read the proof Rudin gives for a stronger version of the Theorem (that does not suppose that $\lim_{x\to a^+}f(x)=+\infty$) in his book Principle of Meathematical Analysis. If you have any objections in either proofs please let me know. Thank you.


Anyone know how to integrate the following?  $$ \int_0^{+\infty} \! e^{-t^2} \, \mathrm{d}t $$  Thanks

How to prove  $$\int_{0}^{\infty} \mathrm{e}^{-x^2}\, dx = \frac{\sqrt \pi}{2}$$


I've used the form "XX00s" to mean a century, as in How poverty affected Britain in the late 1800s or In the 1600s the tensions between the crown and parliament came to a head And I use "XXX0s" to mean a decade, as in The 1990s saw two wars This is fine until I need to refer to the first decade of a century. In the 1800s could mean 1800-1809 or 1800-1899 according to my usage. What is the correct meaning of "In the 1600s"? I checked the Chicago Style Guide but it doesn't clarify this case. And Wikipedia disambiguates both meanings:

If I wanted to say something occurred occurred between 1627 and 1629, I would use "the late 1620s". However, if I wanted to say something occurred between 1607 and 1609, I couldn't use "the late 1600s" because that would imply it occurred between 1670 and 1699.


What is the physics meaning of the "trace" (Tr) and how we can calculate it? $$ Z=tr\left \{ e^{\left ( -H \right )} \right \} $$ Where Z is the partition function .

I was recently thinking what information do we get from a matrix. So if we say the columns (or rows) of a matrix define the basis of a system, say vectors of 3 dimensional space. Then the determinant will tell about the volume of the space enclosed by those vectors. Does trace give any information about the space?


I am running Debian live XFCE, and I cannot seem to determine the font used by the Terminal.  I went to Edit, Preferences, Appearance and it just says "Monospace Regular".  Then I did cat /etc/default/console-setup and it just says FONTFACE="Fixed".  Can I somehow get the actual, proper font name, or alternatively the path to the font file being used?

In Fedora 22, in KDE (plasma) System Settings -> Font -> Fonts, the setting for "General" is "Sans Serif 10", for "Fixed width" is "Monospace 10", for "small" is "Sans Serif 8", for "Toolbar" is "Sans Serif 9", for "Menu" is "Sans Serif 10", and for "Window title" is "OxygenSans 10".  How can I figure out which font file is being used for the generic "Monospace" alias?  (I'm sure I can follow the same procedure to figure out Sans Serif.)  fc-list shows 30 files, but fc-list | grep -I monospace shows nothing.  ("Monospace" must be an alias, and isn't the name of an actual font.)  fc-match --all shows 30 files, but likewise, fc-match | grep -I monospace shows nothing.  ls -la ~/.config | grep font shows nothing.  (No ~/.config/fontconfig)  /etc/fonts/fonts.conf lists font directories, accepts deprecated aliases, and points to /etc/fonts/conf.d.  /etc/fonts/conf.d/60-latin.conf is an XML file with element alias, with child family ("monospace") and prefer families ("Bitstream Vera Sans Mono", "DejaVu Sans Mono", "Incolsolata", "Andale Mono", "Courier New", "Cumberland AMT", "Luxi Mono", "Nimbus Mono L", Nimbus Mono", and "Courier").  /etc/fonts/conf.d/61-oxygen-mono.conf has child family ("monospace") and prefer family ("Oxygen Mono").  /etc/fonts/conf.d/69-gnu-free-mono has child family ("monospace") and prefer family ("FreeMono").  /etc/fonts/conf.d/69-unifont.conf has child family ("monospace") and prefer family ("FreeMono").  Now, in this case, the only prefer family quoted above that is installed is "Oxygen Mono" (in OxygenMono-Regular.ttf), so the system must be using that font.  But, what if some of the other prefer families were installed?  Isn't there a simple command that lets you see what a generic system alias like "Monospace" is mapped to?  I only see fc-{cache, cat, list, match, pattern, query, scan, and validate} on my system, and the only two that looks like they might perform this (list, match) don't seem to have this feature.


Is the total impact of an user's combined SE accounts visible somewhere or can it be queried in the Stack Exchange Data Explorer?

The New Model profiles on Meta.SE (pretty big improvement!) have a section for "" stat.  Now, unless I'm much mistaken, that stat is specific to a given site on the network.  If that assumption is indeed correct, is there a way to find out the "People Reached" summary across 100% of the sites on the network for all your connected profiles?


$ sudo update-alternatives --install "usr/bin/java" "java" "usr/lib/java/jdk1.8.0_144/bin/java" 1 update-alternatives: error: alternative link is not absolute as it should be: usr/bin/java   Help me out guys, what am I missing?

I typed:  sudo update-alternatives --install "/usr/bin/java" "java" "/usr/lib/jvm/ jdk1.8.0/bin/java" 1   It's says alternatives --install needs link name path priority


There's a question I answered some time ago (about 2 weeks) and now I see there were some edits introduced a week ago by another person to the question and to my answer. Why am I not notified of these edits? I'd like to be because for instance if the question was changed, maybe my answer is no longer valid (I mean it doesn't answer the updated question and I can loose reputation). And if my answer was changed, maybe it doesn't answer the original question, maybe it's changed completely (at least I can't guarantee the opposite). I assume people with great reputation edit posts and answers only slightly and if there are some mistakes that can easily be fixed, but you don't need to have 10 thousands of rep to make edits, so how am I protected from people trolls or people who accidentally made my answer invalid? I feel uncomfortable with such rules and I'd like to be at least notified of changes.

Currently, a user does not get any notification when a trivial edit (less than 6 characters, by a user who has the ) is made on one of his/her posts. As in .  Even though the user is trust-worthy (owing to the rep of the user), wouldn't it be nice for the OP to get a notification whenever an edit is made, even trivial?


I am looking for rules in D&D 5e that can clarify the process of tying up an enemy (someone that does not want to be tied up) fully capable of defending themself.

I can't quite find in the PHB or DMG how to slap manacles onto someone during combat. PHB 152 describes how to break out of mundane manacles, while DMG 165 shows how Dimensional Shackles work (they are essentially magic manacles -- use 1 action to bind an Incapacitated target).  Is there an official rule on how to use manacles in combat, or do we have to use house rules?


These are my SRV host details:  HOST: _http._tcp.ngxdev.com ANSWER: 0 29080 ngxdev.com   As you can see, if I enter a full link: http:// ngxdev.com:29080(Not allowed to post more than 1 link), it works, but  does not redirect to port 29080 as it should, redirects to port 80 instead.  Using name.com, config line:

It seems like a minimal amount of work and it will make the server-side implementation of reliable websites much simpler. Also SRV records have been around for years...  Is there something I'm missing here?  Edit: @DJ Pon3 - what I'm talking about is:   one site served from two datacentres without needing BGP, but still working if either datacentre goes offline.  (Can also be achieved by short DNS TTLs.) multiple httpS servers on different ports on one IP address.


When someone posts an answer that's really a comment, mods can move it to the comments.  But when someone posts a comment that is essentially a complete answer (and no further answer is likely to be forthcoming) about all we can do to get the answer to be an answer on the question is say "please post that as an answer".  Should mods be given the ability to go the other way, making answers-in-comments into actual answers (simultaneously deleting the comment)?   [Note that this is not the same thing as  which is about commenters making their own comments into answers, nor is it the same as  (which is about askers making comments that answer their questions into answers, and which the previous one should not be marked as a duplicate of since they're asking quite distinct things); it's fairly obvious that those two questions could have very different answers to each other, and both could have very different answers to this question, which is about moderators converting comments to answers. Different questions, requiring different sorts of answers.]  If the original poster of the comment has some strong reason to not want it as an answer they are still able to delete the answer, of course, but the comment would (and generally should) remain deleted in that case.

This one is more of a netiquette question.  Sometimes I stumble on "unanswered" questions that were actually answered - in their comments. Those questions are shown as unanswered in the statistics.  For example: .  What should be done?   Flag the question so one moderator can somehow mark it as answered. Answer the question yourself (as a community wiki answer), mostly by copying the comments. Nothing. Move along.   EDIT  I'm talking about questions without activity for weeks or months.  Feature request  Give diamond-mods the ability to change a comment to an answer; and allow users to flag for this action.


I need to write "References" title at the end of each chapter instead of "Bibliography". My codes are simply  \begin{thebibliography}{99} .... \end{thebibliography}   I tried with adding  \addtocaptionsenglish{References}   and  \renewcommand\contentsname{References}   but they didn't work.   Thanks for your helps.

I'd like to modify the names used to typeset some of my document elements. For example, the caption of figure floats should change from "Figure" to "Fig.", and my \tableofcontents sectioning heading shouldn't read "Contents", but "Table of Contents". How can I do that?  \documentclass{article} % \usepackage[english]{babel} \begin{document} \tableofcontents \section{foo} \begin{figure}[h] \centering \rule{1cm}{1cm}% placeholder for graphic \caption{A figure} \end{figure} \end{document}


Let $$a^x \equiv b^x \pmod p$$ and $$a^y \equiv b^y \pmod p$$ and $\gcd(y, x)=1$ then prove that $$a \equiv b \pmod p$$ As it is given that gcd$(y, x)=1$ so by the fundamental theorem of arithmetic there exists integers $u$ and $v$ such that $ux+vy=1$. Now without the loss of generality let us assume that $a < b$ then $b=a+k$ for some positive integer $k$. Now $$a+k=(a+k)^{ux+vy} \equiv a^{ux+vy}=a \pmod p.$$ So we get $p$ divides $k=b-a$. So $b \equiv a \pmod p$  $$$$$ Is My Proof Correct???

Let $D$ be an integral domain and let $a^m=b^m$ and $a^n=b^n$ where $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime integers, $a,b \in D$.   How do I show $a=b$?


According to Wikipedia, "A mondegreen is a mishearing or misinterpretation of a phrase as a result of near-homophony, in a way that gives it a new meaning"  "Mondegreen" is also an example of a mondegreen, because it is a mishearing of "laid him on the green"  My question is this: Is there a word for this? That is, is there a word that describes the phenomenon of a word being an example of what it is?  Are there other instances of this?  To provide an analogous example, onomatopoeia characterizes a word which sounds like the sound it describes (ex, boom, chirp).    thought related,  is different, I think.   Thanks!

For example, "word" is a word, "adjectival" is adjectival, etc. Is there a term for this? Something like a set that includes itself, but not quite. I want to call it "autoinclusive"; would that work linguistically?


This should be a simple inquiry. Doing a regression analysis I found that the coefficient of a predictor has a(n) (infinitesimal) positive effect of 0.001 that is significant at the 0.005 level. I cannot help wondering how a similar phenomenon may be possibile. Do you think it might depend on the fact that my variables are not (yet) scaled? As soon as I have rescaled all the predictors, do you think that the magnitude of the effect in point would change? I hope someone is able to clarify this puzzle.

I've got a very small coefficient (-0.04) and R-squared (0.028) but a significant P value (<0.0001). My question is:   Is my result still meaningful? How to interpret it?   The result is from a linear regression model in a big database in R.  The independent variable (B) has more than 200 values, whereas the dependent variable (A) has 13 values.   The potential correlation is below:   So, I ran a linear regression model between A and B and the result is:  >mod1<-lm(A~B)          Call:         lm(formula = A ~ B)           Residuals:              Min      1Q  Median      3Q     Max           -63.174 -11.816  -1.651  10.184 118.001            Coefficients:                        Estimate Std. Error t value Pr(>|t|)              (Intercept) 132.274547   0.303723 435.511  < 2e-16 ***          B            -0.036675   0.009052  -4.052 5.13e-05 ***          ---         Signif. codes:  0 ‘***’ 0.001 ‘**’ 0.01 ‘*’ 0.05 ‘.’ 0.1 ‘ ’ 1          Residual standard error: 18.52 on 8093 degrees of freedom            (123 observations deleted due to missingness)         Multiple R-squared:  0.002024,  Adjusted R-squared:  0.001901          F-statistic: 16.42 on 1 and 8093 DF,  p-value: 5.134e-05   As you can see, the coefficient of B is only -0.03 and adjusted R squared is only 0.1% but with a p value <0.0001. Is my result reasonable and countable? Surely, my database is larger (8000 records) and even a very small effect size will show a significant P value. But how would I interpret this?


I understand from my very limited knowledge of relativity that an object traveling at relativistic speeds essentially experiences the progression of time slow to a crawl. Since, according to , gravity bends spacetime, does that mean that time is also slowed down by large amounts of gravity?  If I were in a place where there was absolutely no gravity in any way shape or form, would I experience time passing more quickly, and if so, by how much?

Pardon the misleading title.  It is to my understanding that moving/heavy clocks run slow. The Earth itself is under gravitational influence from many sources, and is moving. Is there a way to know how much 'faster' a clock would run if those influences were removed? I don't need a precise number, an order of magnitude is fine, just to get the idea.  Any insight is appreciated.


I have the following text:  serverName: NZRC222 total: 8.46 GB serverId: 259695  serverName: NZRC333 total: 50.13 TB serverId: 260582  serverName: NZRC555 total: 9.31 TB serverId: 260956   My desired output would be:   serverName: NZRC222, total: 8.46 GB, serverId: 259695,  serverName: NZRC333, total: 50.13 TB, serverId: 260582,  serverName: NZRC555, total: 9.31 TB, serverId: 260956,   Basically, I want to generate a csv file which can be imported to the Excel.  When I go with : sed '/\w.*/ a ,' file I get this:  serverName: NZRC222 , total: 50.13 TB , serverId: 260582 ,  serverName: NZRC333 , total: 9.31 TB , serverId: 260956 ,   Any suggestions? Thank you in advance!

I have a code block as follows in a file:  BalancerMember http://snode1:80 min=1 max=1000 loadfactor=1  timeout=30 keepalive=on route=tc_snode1 BalancerMember http://snode2:80 min=1 max=1000 loadfactor=1  timeout=30 keepalive=on route=tc_snode2   I want to search for all lines which had tc_ keyword and add status=D at the end of those lines. So, the above entries will become like this  BalancerMember http://snode1:80 min=1 max=1000 loadfactor=1  timeout=30 keepalive=on route=tc_snode1 status=D BalancerMember http://snode2:80 min=1 max=1000 loadfactor=1  timeout=30 keepalive=on route=tc_snode2 status=D   I am using the following command to achieve this:  sed -i '/tc_/a status=D' app.conf   But I can see status=D is being after a newline. I don't want a newline for this. It should be appended with a '' (space) .


The file extension .cmd somehow got associated with Vim on my Windows 7 machine. When I try to run the cmd file, either by double clicking or running it by typing its name into a command prompt, it opens in Vim. I need to actually run this script.  In the right click menu, there's no "Open With..." or "Run" or anything like that.  The file is shared by many people, so I cannot change it's extension or modify it in anyway.  How can I run this file? (I would consider resetting the file associate back to whatever is default to be an acceptable answer).  Edit: Worth nothing that the CMD file I need to run is on a network machine, which is accessed from an .lnk file on my machine.

problem  If I run a .cmd file from cmd.exe it works fine. However if I run it from Start menu / Run line, it opens in Notepad++, my editor. (edit I've it installed for years, didn't update it recently. However, this phenomenon with the .cmds only started recently.)  Both time, I use a full absolute path. I use windows 7 x64.  registry  My HKLM/Software/Classes/cmdfile/shell/open/command's (Default) is set to "%1" %* and .cmd's (Default) is cmdfile in both HKLM and HKCU and there is no cmdfile in HKCU.   However the other keys I did not check / did not understand their meaning or significance, in particular I don't know an easy way to follow clsid values, and know what do they mean as a given key.  context menu  If I right click a .cmd the bold text is its name (edit) says "Open". But even from here if I click open, it opens in notepad++, my text editor.  icon (edited) If I go to the folder in explorer, the icon is a Notepad++ icon.  question  Why is the Run line behaving differently from the command line?  How can I restore my .cmds to run from the Run dialog, too?


I've tried using  sudo apt-get remove amazon   and the result was sudo-apt-get: command not found  and I tried   sudo apt-get remove amazon*   and I got  Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree        Reading state information... Done Note, selecting 'unity-webapps-amazoncloudreader' for regex 'amazon*' Note, selecting 'ruby-amazon-ec2' for regex 'amazon*' Note, selecting 'libnet-amazon-s3-tools-perl' for regex 'amazon*' Note, selecting 'unity-webapps-amazon' for regex 'amazon*' Note, selecting 'libnet-amazon-ec2-perl' for regex 'amazon*' Note, selecting 'gamazons' for regex 'amazon*' Note, selecting 'libnet-amazon-perl' for regex 'amazon*' Note, selecting 'libamazon-sqs-simple-perl' for regex 'amazon*' Note, selecting 'libnet-amazon-s3-perl' for regex 'amazon*' Note, selecting 'flight-of-the-amazon-queen' for regex 'amazon*' Note, selecting 'gmpc-plugin-coveramazon' for regex 'amazon*' Package 'unity-webapps-amazon' is not installed, so not removed Package 'gmpc-plugin-coveramazon' is not installed, so not removed Package 'flight-of-the-amazon-queen' is not installed, so not removed Package 'gamazons' is not installed, so not removed Package 'libamazon-sqs-simple-perl' is not installed, so not removed Package 'libnet-amazon-ec2-perl' is not installed, so not removed Package 'libnet-amazon-perl' is not installed, so not removed Package 'libnet-amazon-s3-perl' is not installed, so not removed Package 'libnet-amazon-s3-tools-perl' is not installed, so not removed Package 'ruby-amazon-ec2' is not installed, so not removed Package 'unity-webapps-amazoncloudreader' is not installed, so not removed 0 upgraded, 0 newly installed, 0 to remove and 18 not upgraded.   How can I remove this amazon application that was installed by default?

I was able to go to the ubuntu software center before and remove it and now it doesn't show up since the switch to the gnome software store. Trying the terminal method of removing the shopping lens doesn't work in this release.


I am trying to append an element to a div panel with out it duplicating by 2. It works fine if I append to the body, but If I append to a div it adds 2 more.  $("#click").click(function () {     $("#panel1").append(txt_box='

');     $("#button_pro").append(txt_box);     id++;  });   var id=1,txt_box;     $('#button_pro').on('click','.add',function(){         $(this).remove();         txt_box='

';         $("#button_pro").append(txt_box);         id++;     });      $('#button_pro').on('click','.remove',function(){         var parent=$(this).parent().prev().attr("id");         var parent_im=$(this).parent().attr("id");         $("#"+parent_im).slideUp('medium',function(){             $("#"+parent_im).remove();          });     });   }); </script>

I have a bit of code where I am looping through all the select boxes on a page and binding a .hover event to them to do a bit of twiddling with their width on mouse on/off.  This happens on page ready and works just fine.  The problem I have is that any select boxes I add via Ajax or DOM after the initial loop won't have the event bound.  I have found this plugin (), but before I add another 5k to my pages with a plugin, I want to see if anyone knows a way to do this, either with jQuery directly or by another option.


I just installed Ubuntu on my HP Pavilion dv6-6c50ca, and I noticed that every time that I start my laptop with Ubuntu the fan runs really fast and the laptop produces a lot of heat. When I run windows on it, the battery life lasts for 4 hours but when I run Ubuntu, it barely lasts for an hour and a half no matter what I'm doing, even when I'm typing a simple word document. Here are my laptop specifications:   HD BrightView LED-backlit Display Intel core i5 2.5 Ghz i5-2450M 750GB hard drive 5400RPM Video card: AMD Radeon HD 7690M XT Battery: 6-Cell Lithium-ion   .  Thank you for your help!

Last year I purchased a Dell Inspiron 5315 laptop shipping with Windows 7 preinstalled. I installed Ubuntu 10.10 alongside it with dual-booting. On upgrading to Ubuntu 11.10, I was upset to find I now get less than one hour of battery life! Windows 7 gives me 2.5 hours of running time.  Is there any possible explanation why  my battery is running out faster with Ubuntu? Can anybody tell me better power options?


Comming from a mostly Java background I recently started learning a bit of C++. I'm trying to create a class that describes a LinkedList. Since I want this class to be something like an external library, so I can use it in other applications, I need it to be declared as a header file.  I understand that from a design point of view C++ needs both a header and a cpp file, where the header will mostly contain declarations and the implementation will be left for the cpp file.  What I don't understand though is what is the actual purpose of the above design technique. The point of being able to quickly go through the header file and read the comments about the functionality of each method seems moot to me, since C++ (or at least my Codeblocks editor) supports the /** comments like Java so it is much easier to create an object of the class and simply hit the . button to open the methods description menu, and read any description I like in a more orderly and structured manner than going through a header file.  Also I noticed that the program runs fine if put everything inside the header file and completly ignore the cpp file.  So my question boils down to whether I should just implement everything in the header file, or whether this is considered unacceptable C++ coding practice and if so, why.

Why does C++ have header files and .cpp files?


What is actually the difference between these two casts? SomeClass sc = (SomeClass)SomeObject; SomeClass sc2 = SomeObject as SomeClass;  Normally, shouldn't they both be explicit casts to the specified type?

When programming interfaces, I've found I'm doing a lot of casting or object type conversion.  Is there a difference between these two methods of conversion?  If so, is there a cost difference or how does this affect my program?  public interface IMyInterface {     void AMethod(); }  public class MyClass : IMyInterface {     public void AMethod()     {        //Do work     }      // Other helper methods.... }  public class Implementation {     IMyInterface _MyObj;     MyClass _myCls1;     MyClass _myCls2;      public Implementation()     {         _MyObj = new MyClass();          // What is the difference here:         _myCls1 = (MyClass)_MyObj;         _myCls2 = (_MyObj as MyClass);     } }   Also, what is "in general" the preferred method?


We can show that $\mathbb{Q}$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{N}$ by constructing a bijection between the two with Cantor's diagonalization argument. Is there a similar way we can show that $\mathbb{Q}^c$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$?  I was thinking we could do it in the following way, if we can show that the cardinality of the reals and the irrationals are the same then we are done.   It is pretty obvious that the size of $\mathbb{Q}^c$ can be at most the size of $\mathbb{R}$, but we also know that $\mathbb{Q}^c\not\simeq \mathbb{N}$ so the size of $\mathbb{Q}^c$ is not $\aleph_0$. But then this is just the continuum hypothesis.   Is there another way to construct a bijection that gives us an answer that is decidable?

Is there a simple, constructive, 1-1 mapping between the reals and the irrationals?  I know that the Cantor–Bernstein–Schroeder theorem implies the existence of a 1-1 mapping between the reals and the irrationals, but the proofs of this theorem are nonconstructive.  I wondered if a simple (not involving an infinite set of mappings) constructive (so the mapping is straightforwardly specified) mapping existed.  I have considered things like mapping the rationals to the rationals plus a fixed irrational, but then I could not figure out how to prevent an infinite (possible uncountably infinite) regression.


My machine with an Ivy Bridge CPU is stable under Windows 7 but freezes in Ubuntu 12.04 LTS 64-bit. The freezing appears to occur randomly. I read somewhere that kernel 3.3.6 fixes the Ubuntu freeze issue. Any idea when this will be available in 12.04?  Specs:   ASRock Extreme3 Motherboard with i5-3570K processor (no overclocking)

All operating systems freeze sometimes, and Ubuntu is no exception. What should I do to regain control when...   just one program stops responding? nothing at all responds to mouse clicks or key presses? the mouse stops moving entirely? I have an    In what order should I try various solutions before deciding to pull the power plug?  What should I do when starting up Ubuntu fails?  Is there a diagnostic procedure I can follow?


Finally catch a day when Jon Skeet scores less than 100! :-) Weird and some more weird.   Below is a day-view of his reputation change under graph view. Can anyone explain why there is a 0-score shown there? Shouldn't it always be 15 for accepted answer? Clearly it should not be related to day reputation limit here.  P.S. I did check these two answers, and it had never received any down-votes (sure he did, just to clarify though).

What does it mean to accept an answer? How do I accept an answer, and what are the rules? Can I accept my own self-answer? What are the reputation benefits? Which answer should I accept? Should I upvote the accepted answer? What should I do if none of the answers are suitable?      For more information, see "" in the .


I am working on binary classification problem, I try to evaluate the performance of some classification algorithms (LR,Decission Tree , Random forest ...). I am using a 10 fold cross-validation technique (to avoid over-fitting) with AUC ROC as scoring function to compare the performance of the algorithms, but I am getting a weird results with Random forest and AdbBoost, I have a perfect AUC_ROC score (i.e. =1) despite the fact that the Recall(TPR) and FPR of this algorithms are different from 1 and 0 respectively .

I am working on binary classification problem, I try to evaluate the performance of some classification algorithms (LR,Decission Tree , Random forest ...). I am using  a cross validation technique (to avoid over-fitting) with AUC ROC as scoring function to compare the performance of the algorithms, but I am getting a weird results with Random forest and AdbBoost, I have a perfect AUC_ROC score (i.e. =1) despite the fact that the recall(TPR) and FPR of this algorithms are different from 1 and 0 respectively .  def FPR(y_true, y_pred):     tn, fp, fn, tp = confusion_matrix(y_true, y_pred).ravel()     result = fp / (fp+tn)     return result def FNR(y_true, y_pred):     tn, fp, fn, tp = confusion_matrix(y_true, y_pred).ravel()     result = fn / (tp+fn)     return result FPR_scorer = make_scorer(FPR) FNR_scorer = make_scorer(FNR)     def get_CrossValResults2(model,cv_rst,bestIndx):     best=pd.DataFrame.from_dict(cv_rst).iloc[bestIndx]     roc="{:.12f}".format(best['mean_test_roc_auc'])     acc ="{:.0%}".format(best['mean_test_accuracy'])     prec ="{:.0%}".format(best['mean_test_precision'])     rec ="{:.0%}".format( best['mean_test_recall'])     f1 ="{:.0%}".format(best['mean_test_f1'])     r2="{:.2f}".format(best['mean_test_r2'])     g_mean="{:.2f}".format(best['mean_test_gmean'])     pr_auc="{:.8f}".format(best['mean_test_pr'])     fnr="{:.0%}".format(best['mean_test_fnr'])     fpr="{:.0%}".format(best['mean_test_fpr'])     rst = pd.DataFrame([[ model, acc,prec,rec,fpr,fnr,f1,roc,pr_auc,g_mean,r2]],columns = ['Model', 'Accuracy', 'Precision', 'Recall','FPR','FNR', 'F1-Score','ROC_auc','PR_auc','gmean','r2'])     return rst        cross_val_rst = pd.DataFrame(columns = ['Model', 'Accuracy', 'Precision', 'Recall','FPR','FNR', 'F1-Score','ROC_auc','PR_auc','gmean','r2'])              scoring = {'accuracy':'accuracy','recall':'recall','precision':'precision','fpr':FPR_scorer,'fnr':FNR_scorer,'f1':'f1' ,'roc_auc':'roc_auc','pr':'average_precision','gmean':Gmean_scorer,'r2':'r2'}     param_grid = {'n_estimators': [200],               'max_depth': [80,90],               'min_samples_leaf': [2,3, 4],             'min_samples_split': [2,5,12],             'criterion': [ 'gini'],              'class_weight' : [class_weights], 'n_jobs' : [-1]}  clf = GridSearchCV(RandomForestClassifier(class_weight=class_weights), param_grid, cv=kfold,scoring=scoring,refit=refit)#Fit the model bestmodel = clf.fit(X,Y)       cross_val_rst = cross_val_rst.append(get_CrossValResults2(model='Random Forrest',bestIndx=bestmodel.best_index_,cv_rst=bestmodel.cv_results_),ignore_index=True)


After all, the density of matter in the first fraction of a second was much higher than that found in any star, and dense matter is supposed to curve spacetime strongly.  At sufficient density there must be matter contained within a region smaller than the Schwarzschild radius for its mass. Was the force of the big bang stronger that the gravitational push?   Where did this infinitely dense matter originate from before the big bang? Was the big bang its self already a black hole and simply spewing matter at the end of it's life?

Extrapolation of the expansion of the Universe backwards in time using general relativity yields an infinite density and temperature at a finite time in the past.  If the matter contained within our galaxy were concentrated within a small radius wouldn't that lead to the entire universe being a black hole? If so how is it that all the matter of our observable universe could have originated from a region of infinite density?


In the glext.h header there is the group of functions with the prefix glTangent. It has signatures similar to the glVertex and glNormal function groups (it contains functions for each type and glTangentPointer). I guess it is an vertex attribute as the normal, the color, etc...  But what meaning does the tangent attribute have? And in which context is it used?  Edit: The term Tangent does make sense to me. But when the normal vector is already given, why also give the tangent vector?  My approach to answer my own question:  The glTangent allows to add a tangent vector to a vertex. It has no special meaning in classic rendering and does not replace normals. But it is used to implement bump maps. The shader brings the attribute into scope through the following GLSL declaration:  attribute vec4 glTangent4f;   The following sources only focus on the shader code and only mention, that the attribute is given by an engine. I guess that the engine itself calls one of the glTangent-functions.  Sources:       /Sources  The following code snipped I found sets up the shader variables. It names the tangent vector variable GLTangent. It also sets up more common variables like GLVertex or GLColor.  glBindAttribLocation(p, VETYPE_TANGENT, "GLTangent");   Then the variable is accessed through  attribute vec4 GLTangent;

I would like to find out the following information:   What are they? Example usage in game development (the area they are used in)   About the following vector types:   Normal Tangent Binormal   A simple game development centric explanation would suffice.


I keep hearing from Zimbabwe people living in UK the expression: "I am going to bath" instead of I'm having a bath or taking a bath, or even I'm going to bathe. Are these foreigners using the word bath incorrectly? To me going to bath is travelling the M3 to the west country.

Recently, I came across the verb to bathe written as bath in two English coursebooks used by Italian students. The first time I saw it, I dismissed it as a typographical error and told my private student that the verb was bathe, but when it appeared a second time, in a different  textbook, I checked with an online dictionary and read the following definition with which I am most familiar.              bath verb: to wash (someone) in a container filled with water   "to give a bath to (someone)"   "to have a bath" : to wash yourself in a bath      But in a different dictionary I read this        [WITH OBJECT] British   1. Wash (someone) while immersing them in a bath:    how to bath a baby      1.1 [NO OBJECT] Wash oneself while immersed in a bath:   a)there was no hot water to bath in   b)These are the people that quite happily let me shower and bath with no hot water for 10 days, because they couldn't be bothered to fix a tap.   I told my student that it appeared that to bath was a BrEng variation and that Americans probably didn't say or use it.   However, upon doing some research I found many websites that use bath and bathe indiscriminately, with the same meaning   How do I bath my baby?  (UK) Read about how to bath your baby  (UK) In California it is illegal to bath two babies in the same bath at the same time.  (US) [this might be a typo] But try not to bath more than once a day  (Aus) You can bath the baby daily, but make sure… .  (Arab Emirates)          It’s not necessary to bathe your newborn every day  (Aus) If it's easier for you to bathe the twins during the day...  (US)   The first time you bathe your baby, you may feel a bit nervous.  (India)   You don't need to bathe your baby every day...  (UK) What’s the best way to bathe my baby?  (UK)   The above shows the transitive use of the verb bath/bathe. I presume the age of the child or adult being bathed is not a key factor, it was just easier for me to search "bath/e your baby".   The phrase in one of my student's coursebook was using the intransitive form instead.     You'll visit onsen or thermal springs where we recommend you bath   communally like the Japanese.   Questions: Apparently, both forms are acceptable but is to bath AmEng or BrEng? Is it grammatical? (I just find it so odd.)    Finally, if the pronunciation of the verb to bath is /bɑːθ/ (UK) and /baTH/ (US) does this effect the pronunciation of the past form bathed? i.e. /bɑːθt/ (I don't think it does, but I'd just like a confirmation)


I have a computer running windows 10 that does some operations for me remotely, but for some reason it randomly disconnects, and the only solution I have found is to restart the computer. Re-establishing the connection doesn't work most of the times. Is there a way for me to restart my this computer automatically whenever it disconnects from the internet?

I have a media server (Windows 8) located in a very inconvenient part of my house. Occasionally I will have to reset my router or it will reset itself. The issue is the PC loses connectivity for some reason, and I am forced to walk outside, around the house, into the basement, over a bunch of toys and weights and boxes, to push a button to reboot it.  I would love to have it check itself every 5-10 minutes and auto reboot if it is unable to ping a given address/IP.  Any ideas how to accomplish this?


I think that the following statement is correct.     Let $n \geq 3$ and let $p$ be prime. Show that $\sqrt[n]{p}$ is not contained in a cyclotomic extension of $\mathbb{Q}$.   My idea for a proof is that, when $n \geq 3$, the minimal polynomial of $\sqrt[n]{p}$ over $\mathbb{Q}$, $x^n-p$ has complex roots (since they are of the form $\zeta_n\cdot\sqrt[n]{p}$). Since $\sqrt[n]{p}$ is real, we have that $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[n]{p})$ contains $\sqrt[n]{p}$ but not the complex roots of its minimal polynomial. This implies that $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[n]{p})$ is not normal.   Therefore, $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[n]{p})$ cannot be an intermediate extension of any cyclotomic extension, since cyclotomic extensions are abelian (all intermediate extensions are normal). This implies that $\sqrt[n]{p}$ is not contained in any cyclotomic extension of $\mathbb{Q}$.  My question is whether this statement is correct, and if so, if my proof is correct. Moreover, does it hold more generally for cyclotomic extensions over fields with characteristic 0? Is $p$ prime necessary, or does it work for any $p \in \mathbb{Q}$ such that $\sqrt[n]{p}$ is irrational?

Question is to prove that $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{2})$ is not in any cyclotomic extension of $\mathbb{Q}$.   As i was not so sure how to proceed i did the following thing(which may possibly be not so relevant to the Question but hope it would give me some hint to proceed). As $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{2})$ is not Galois over $\mathbb{Q}$, I tried Computing Splitting Field and corresponding galois Group and ended up in concluding that Galois Group is isomorphic to $S_3$. As $S_3$ is not abelian Group there could possibly no Sub field $K$ of Cyclotomic field with $Gal(\frac{K}{\mathbb{Q}})\cong S_3$.  I am helpless after this.  Please let me know am i going in a correct path?? Any suggestion/hint would be appreciated :) Thank You


My question is related to the , with a slight modification.  Question: Three particles, $A$, $B$ and $C$, are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle $ABC$ of side length $d$.  Starting at $t=0$, each particle moves with a constant speed $v$.  $A$ always has its velocity along $AB$, $B$ along $BC$ and $C$ along $CA$. At what time will the particles meet?  Modification: What would be the equation of the curve followed by the bodies? (If it can be found; provide minimal amount of variables to find it if currently available ones don't suffice.)  Additional challenge: Could this entire problem (with the added modification) be generalized for an $n$-sided polygon following a particular path in each case?  My understanding of this: So in the link above, you can see that it is described as a logarithmic spiral but how do we prove this? Moreover it references a pursuit curve, how do we know this?

Three particles $A,$ $B$ and $C$ are situated at the vertices of an equilateral $ΔABC$ with sides each of length $l.$   Particle $A$ moves towards particle $B$ with a speed of $s.$ Simultaneously, particle $B$ moves with the same speed towards particle $C$ and $C$ moves towards particle $A.$ Tracing out a pursuit curve, they meet each other.  What is the distance covered by particle $A$ when it revolves around by $2π$ radians?  I could find out the total time taken by the particle $A$ to collide with $B$ (which is $\frac{2l}{3s}$) and total distance $l$ covered by $A$ but I could not figure out the distance traced to revolove 360°.


I'm trying to improve my login system and make it more secure.  $hashed_pass = password_hash($pass, PASSWORD_BCRYPT);   Is this function the best way to safely store password and other information in the database?

It is currently said that MD5 is partially unsafe. Taking this into consideration, I'd like to know which mechanism to use for password protection.  This question,   suggests that hashing multiple times may be a good idea, whereas  suggests using salt.  I'm using PHP. I want a safe and fast password encryption system. Hashing a password a million times may be safer, but also slower. How to achieve a good balance between speed and safety? Also, I'd prefer the result to have a constant number of characters.   The hashing mechanism must be available in PHP It must be safe It can use salt (in this case, are all salts equally good? Is there any way to generate good salts?)   Also, should I store two fields in the database (one using MD5 and another one using SHA, for example)? Would it make it safer or unsafer?  In case I wasn't clear enough, I want to know which hashing function(s) to use and how to pick a good salt in order to have a safe and fast password protection mechanism.  Related questions that don't quite cover my question:


I am trying to compile a test.cpp file which uses the opencv library. I run the g++ command as follows: g++ test.cpp -o test -I/usr/local/include/opencv4 -L/usr/local/lib -lopencv_core -lopencv_imgproc -lopencv_imgcodecs -lopencv_highgui  This successfully generates an executable named test which works the way I want it to. However, when I try to compile like this(which is also the way makefile compiles given CFLAGS and LDFLAGS as variables): g++ -I/usr/local/include/opencv4 -L/usr/local/lib -lopencv_core -lopencv_imgproc -lopencv_imgcodecs -lopencv_highgui test.cpp -o test  it gives me the following error: /usr/bin/ld: /tmp/cc58r16w.o: in function `main': test.cpp:(.text+0x62): undefined reference to   `cv::imread(std::__cxx11::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > const&, int)' /usr/bin/ld: test.cpp:(.text+0xc0): undefined reference to `cv::namedWindow(std::__cxx11::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > const&, int)' /usr/bin/ld: test.cpp:(.text+0x139): undefined reference to `cv::imshow(std::__cxx11::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > const&, cv::_InputArray const&)' /usr/bin/ld: test.cpp:(.text+0x170): undefined reference to `cv::waitKey(int)' /usr/bin/ld: test.cpp:(.text+0x181): undefined reference to `cv::Mat::~Mat()' /usr/bin/ld: test.cpp:(.text+0x256): undefined reference to `cv::Mat::~Mat()' collect2: error: ld returned 1 exit status  I apologize in advance if this is a silly mistake I am overlooking, but I can't seem to find a solution. Help appreciated. Thanks

Why does the order in which libraries are linked sometimes cause errors in GCC?


I have the following string that I want to split on the "\n" but I need to remove/replace all of the occurances of multiple "\n\n";   Here is my sample string:  "\n01:05 PM\n901\nNew York Mets \n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n \n+125\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n\n"   So that I end up with an array like  1:05 PM  901 New York Mets +125  I've tried,   string adjRow = row.InnerText.Replace("\n", "");   Is there a single Regex Pattern that will work?  Added the following and seems to work.       RegexOptions options = RegexOptions.None;                     Regex regex = new Regex("[\n]{2,}", options);                     string adjRow = regex.Replace(tempRow, "\n");   Here is the result,     "\n01:05 PM\n901\nNew York Mets \n \n+128\n \nOv\n8½\n-113\no\n"

How can I replace multiple spaces in a string with only one space in C#?  Example:  1 2 3  4    5   would be:  1 2 3 4 5


$\textbf{Problem}$ Trying to that $\exp: M_n(\mathbb{C}) \rightarrow GL(n,\mathbb{C})$  is surjective. $\textbf{Attempt}$ I started by considering a complex matrix A $\in M_n \mathbb{C}$, to this matrix I applied the Jordan normal form so $ A = \lambda I + N $ where $I$ is the identity matrix and $N$ is an upper triangular matrix. Thus, using the exponential map I get: $$ M_n \mathbb{C} \rightarrow GL(n \mathbb{C}) \\ A = (\lambda I + N) \mapsto exp(\lambda I + N) $$ Expanding the exponential we get and using the following Jordan Formula: $\textbf{Jordan Formula:}$ $$\mathbf J=\begin{pmatrix}\lambda&1&&\\&\lambda&\ddots&\\&&\ddots&1\\&&&\lambda\end{pmatrix}$$ $$f(\mathbf A)=\begin{pmatrix}f(\lambda)&f^\prime(\lambda)&\cdots&\frac{f^{(n-1)}(\lambda)}{(n-1)!}\\&f(\lambda)&\ddots&\vdots\\&&\ddots&f^\prime(\lambda)\\&&&f(\lambda)\end{pmatrix}$$ $$exp(\mathbf A)=\begin{pmatrix}exp(\lambda)&exp(\lambda)&\cdots&\frac{exp(\lambda)}{(n-1)!}\\&exp(\lambda)&\ddots&\vdots\\&&\ddots&exp(\lambda)\\&&&exp(\lambda)\end{pmatrix}$$ and I can identify this last matrix as an element of $GL(N, \mathbb C)$? If yes, is this enough to prove the surjectiveness of the map? What am I missing? Thanks in advance! Edit: I used @BenGrossmann and @user1551 hint, so I defined: $ M = log(\lambda I ) + N $ and $J = \lambda I + N $ then $\exp(M) = \exp(\log ( \lambda I) + N) = \lambda I \exp(N) $ as N is nilpotent of degree 3 thus $exp(N) \approx I + N + \frac{1}{2} N^2$, I plug this in the above equation and I get: $$ \exp(M) = \lambda I (\approx I + N + \frac{1}{2} N^2) $$ How can I prove that $\exp(M) = J$ from this?

Let $M_n(\mathbb{F})$ be the set of all $n\times n$ with entries in $\mathbb{F}$ and let $\exp:M_n(\mathbb{C})\to M_n(\mathbb{C})$ be defined by  $$ \exp(A)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{A^k}{k!},$$ for all $A\in M_n(\mathbb{C}).$  I want to prove that $\exp$ is a surjective map from $M_n(\mathbb{C})$ to $GL(n,\mathbb{C})=\left\{A\in M_n(\mathbb{C})\,\middle| \det(A)\neq0\right\}$, how do I go about that?   I mean saying that $\exp:M_n(\mathbb{R})\to GL(n,\mathbb{R})$ is an analogous to saying $\exp:\mathbb{R}\to \mathbb{R}_{>0}$ and this is also pretty intuitive, since, in analogy with the case of numbers, $A^0=I\;\forall A$, so $\exp(0)=I+0+\frac{0^2}{2!}+\dots=I$, so even for $A=0$ we get $\det\left(\exp(A)\right)\neq0$ and so because of the first term we can never get a zero determinant. But I have no idea how to prove the subjectiveness.  Thanks in advance.


I have an array that is initialized like this:  Element[] array = {new Element(1), new Element(2), new Element(3)};   How do I to convert this array into an ArrayList object?

I have an array that is initialized like:  Element[] array = {new Element(1), new Element(2), new Element(3)};   I would like to convert this array into an object of the  class.  ArrayList<Element> arraylist = ???;


I have signal, but wifi never connects. I use kubuntu 19.04. I tried to follow this steps.  git clone -b extended https://github.com/lwfinger/rtlwifi_new.git  sudo dkms add ./rtlwifi_new  sudo dkms install rtlwifi-new/0.6   And works to show my wifi icon, but I`cant connect (obviusly I put my password).  Then I tried:  sudo modprobe -r rtl8723de && sudo modprobe rtl8723de   But nothing.   What hapend whit this wifi card? Why is so hard to configure?

My Wi-Fi connection seems to be very weak and the range is very low. It drops by two bars if I just move to the next room and by two if just step outside.  The speed is also not fast as compared to what I get from the router on my desktop .  My laptop is a HP laptop with RTL8723de module. Can anyone help me in bumping up my Wi-Fi speed?  Result of lspci -nnk | grep 0280 -A3:  03:00.0 Network controller [0280]: Realtek Semiconductor Co., Ltd. Device [10ec:d723] Subsystem: Hewlett-Packard Company Device [103c:8319] Kernel driver in use: rtl8723de Kernel modules: rtl8723de


iPad 4 operating on iOS 10.3.3 has multiple grayed out icons that have “waiting...” under them. Have waited hours, no change. Did hard reboot, with and without WiFi, no change. Looking for suggestions on how to remove them.  Also, the App Store icon is missing. How do I restore it. Thanks.

I have this app with a greyed out icon which I'm trying to delete.    I tap and hold, and it asks me if I want to delete it and its data. I confirm and nothing happens.  I try to open it and nothing happens.  I go to Settings>General>Usage and it's not in the list.  I reboot the device and it's still here.  Is there another way to force deletion of this (ghost) app?


I am a novice in database administration and have a design question. My use-case is storing data annotations(data labels) for Machine Learning, which can run into hundreds of thousands for each client. I will also need to query based on information within those annotations. Would I be better off using a NoSQL database like MongoDB, or a relational one like PostgreSQL, where I can save each annotation as a json? In case of a relational database, would it make sense to save each client's annotations in separate tables? PS - I also need to store other data that is usually stored in relational databases, like users, tasks etc.

What are the differences between NoSQL and a traditional RDBMS?  Over the last few months, NoSQL has been frequently mentioned in the technical news. What are its most significant features relative to a traditional RDBMS? At what level (physical, logical) do the differences occur?  Where are the best places to use NoSQL? Why?


MS word 10 is always appearing on top of other applications in my windows 7x86 PC, Its bothering, how to stop it.

For one reason or another, my Word suddenly decided to stay always on top of all other windows. This is terribly annoying. The odd thing is: of three documents I have open, two are on top of everything else, and one behaves normal.  I found one . I wonder whether this is a known bug and whether there's a workaround. Sometimes closing all windows helps, but later the behavior creeps back. Other Office products don't seem to show this behavior.  I'm using Microsoft Office Professional Plus 2010, 14.0.4760.1000 (64 bit).


I need the current Date Time from where the user of my website filling a <form/>. The Date-Time should be user's Time Zone I need to get the DateTime without setting the TimeZone    When I use  date("Y-m-d H:i:s")   It only returns DateTime in IST. whether user is from India,USA or UK.  I need the current Date-Time from the User's TimeZone.  I need to insert the value to datetime field in MySql  I didn't ask for user timezone , rather I need the date and time from user's time zone

Is there a standard way for a web server to be able to determine a user's timezone within a web page?   Perhaps from an HTTP header or part of the user-agent string?


Duplicate of:   I would like to find out the path to the currently executing script. I have tried os.getcwd() but that only returns the directory I ran the script from not the actual directory the script is stored.

I have scripts calling other script files but I need to get the filepath of the file that is currently running within the process.   For example, let's say I have three files. Using :   script_1.py calls script_2.py.  In turn, script_2.py calls script_3.py.    How can I get the file name and path of script_3.py, from code within script_3.py, without having to pass that information as arguments from script_2.py?  (Executing os.getcwd() returns the original starting script's filepath not the current file's.)


my last question:   I fixed the issue in my last post. everything has been fine till just now. there is a new issue.   in the project A, i have coded up an linkedList class template.  #ifndef LINKEDLIST_H_ #define LINKEDLIST_H_   template<class T> struct Node{         T value;         Node* next;     };   template<class T> class linkedList {  private:     Node<T>* head; public:      bool isEmpty() const{ return head == nullptr;}     Node<T>* getHead() const{return head;}     bool existVal(T value) const;     void insertVal(T value);     void deleteVal(T value){}        linkedList(){}     ~linkedList(){}  };  #endif   Anyways, i created another class, which would included   linkedList<unsigned int> num1   as private member variable.  here is the actual code:  #include"linkedList.h"  #ifndef L2_H_ #define L2_H_  class Add2Nums{ public:     Add2Nums(unsigned int, unsigned int);     ~Add2Nums(){}   private:     linkedList<unsigned int> num1;     linkedList<unsigned int> num2;     Add2Nums(); };   #endif   #include"L2.h"   Add2Nums::Add2Nums(unsigned int a, unsigned int b){     while(a!=0){         num1.insertVal(a%10);         a/=10;     }      while(b!=0){         num2.insertVal(b%10);         b/=10;     }  }   when i build the project, the following issues came up:

Quote from :     The only portable way of using templates at the moment is to implement them in header files by using inline functions.   Why is this?  (Clarification: header files are not the only portable solution. But they are the most convenient portable solution.)


I bought an  laptop with a 24GB mSSD customization. I want to install Ubuntu in a dual boot setup alongside the existing Windows 8 OS.  I've disabled Secure Boot and Intel Smart Response Technology, but when I try to install Ubuntu, I'm unable to identify any 24GB partition into which I can install / (the root partition).  Any kind of help would be highly appreciated.

I am trying to install Ubuntu 13.04 on my 24Gb MSATA SSD. In my laptop, I've also got a 500Gb SATA HDD. I realize that in order for this to work I need to put my /home directory on the 500Gb HDD.   I've tried installing it by creating a ext4 partition on the SSD and a 8Gb swap partition on my HDD. This resulted in an error saying something similar to Cannot install bootloader, please select an other location for the bootloader.   Now before I waste any more time trying to get it to work I'm going to ask a bunch of questions:   Where should I put the swap partition? How big should I make the swap partition? (I've got 12Gb RAM) My 500Gb HDD is currently in Raid mode. Should I change that (to AHCI or IDE)? Where should I put the bootloader if the error message occurs again? How do I make the home directory point to the HDD instead of the SSD? Can I configure Ubuntu to install software/packages on the HDD instead of the SSD?


According to the De-Broglie Wave Hypothesis an electron can be considered to be a wave. Red Shift occurs due to the expansion of space(Cosmological red shift), which must expand even on the scale of atoms, thus, even electron waves must be red shifted. However, that would imply that the wavelength of the electron wave is constantly increasing, and consequently its energy decreasing? But would that not cause the electron to spiral into the nucleus?

I have looked at other questions on this site (e.g. "why does space expansion affect matter") but can't find the answer I am looking for.  So here is my question: One often hears talk of space expanding when we talk about the speed of galaxies relative to ours. Why, if space is expanding, does matter not also expand? If a circle is drawn on balloon (2d plane), and the balloon expands, then the circle also expands. If matter is an object with 3 spatial dimensions, then when those 3 dimensions expand, so should the object.  If that was the case, we wouldn't see the universe as expanding at all, because we would be expanding (spatially) with it.  I have a few potential answers for this, which raise their own problems:   Fundamental particles are 'point sized' objects. They cannot expand because they do not have spatial dimension to begin with. The problem with this is that while the particles would not expand, the space between them would, leading to a point where the 3 non-gravity forces would no longer hold matter together due to distance Fundamental particles are curled up in additional dimensions a la string theory. These dimensions are not expanding. Same problems as 1, with the added problem of being a bit unsatisfying. The answer seems to be (from Marek in the previous question) that the gravitational force is so much weaker than the other forces that large (macro) objects move apart, but small (micro) objects stay together. However, this simple explanation seems to imply that expansion of space is a 'force' that can be overcome by a greater one. That doesn't sound right to me.


Can anyone help me showing that :  For any simply connected plain domain $D_1, D_2 \subseteq \mathbb{C}$ where $ D_1 \cap D_2 \neq \phi$ is connected, show that $D_1 \cup D_2$ and $D_1 \cap D_2$ are simply connected.  The restriction is I have to use homotopy notion. That is, a domain $D \subseteq \mathbb{C}$ is simply connected if every continuous closed curve is homotopic to a point $z \in D$.  I have no idea about this since homotopy is very new to me.

I have some basics concept that, in $\mathbb{C}$, a "simply connected domain $D$" is a region in $\mathbb{C}$ with no holes. I am not sure whether it has various formal definition , but the one used in my complex analysis class looks very complicated. I barely understand what it means :  $\textbf{Definition}$ Let $\gamma_0, \gamma_1$ be two continuous closed path in a domain $D \subseteq \mathbb{C}$ parameterized by $I = [0,1]$;that is, $\gamma_i(0) = \gamma_i(1)$ for all $i = 0, 1.$ We say $\gamma_0, \gamma_1$ are $\textbf{homotopic as closed paths on D}$ if there exists function $\delta : I \times I \rightarrow D$ such that   $1) \ \delta(t,0) = \gamma_0(t) \ \forall t \in I \ \ $    $2) \ \delta(t,1) = \gamma_1(t) \ \forall t \in I \ \ $     $3) \ \delta(0,u) = \delta(1,u) \ \forall u \in I.$  A continuous closed path is $\textbf{homotopic to a point}$ if it is homotopic to a constant path(as a closed path).  $\textbf{Definition}$ A region $D \subseteq \mathbb{C}$ is called $\textbf{simply conected}$ if every continuous closed path in $D$ is homotopic to a point in $D$.  $\textbf{Problem :}$ 1) Let $D_1, D_2$ be simply connected plane domains whose intersection is nonempty and connected. Prove that their intersection and union are both simply connected.  2) Let $P, Q$ be smooth functions on a domain $D \subseteq \mathbb{C}$, Find necessary and sufficient condition for the form $P dz + Q d\bar{z}$ to be closed.


I want to render the outline of faces as shown in the below image to show the divisions of panels. How to do this in Blender?

Is there a way to render an object with a subdivision surface modifier with a wireframe which is the original geometry as well as the wires that make the subdivision surface?  Example:   This wireframe here is curved. What if there was displayed the straight wireframe. The wires that make are made by the subdivision surface. Thats what I want to achieve. How to do it?  What I mean is - How to render the curved wireframe (which is the original geometry with the straight wireframe (which is the wireframe the is made by the subdivision surface)?


Let $(f_n)$ be a function sequence on $D \subset \mathbb R$ with $f_n \to f^*$ uniform on $D$. Assume $f_n$ bounded for all $n$.   I want to prove the following:  $f^*$ is bounded and  $$  \| f_n \|_\infty \to \| f^* \|_\infty, \quad \sup_{x \in D} f_n(x) \xrightarrow{n\to\infty} \sup_{x \in D} f^*(x)\,. $$    What I have done thus far;  We have that $f_n(x)$ is bounded for each $n \in \mathbb N$. Therefore, for all $n \in \mathbb N$ we can find a $M \in \mathbb R$ (possibly depending on $n$) such that for all $x \in D$ we have $$ |f_n(x)| < M_n\,. $$ As $f_n$ converges uniformly to $f^*$ on $D$, we have $$  \forall_{\epsilon > 0}\exists_{n^* \in \mathbb N}\forall_{n\geq n^*}\forall_{x\in D}: |f_n(x) - f^*(x)| < \epsilon\,. $$  We shall first show that $f^*$ is bounded, therefore we need to prove that there exists an $M^* \in \mathbb R$ such that for all $x \in D$ we have $$  |f^*(x)| < M^*\,. $$  To this end, take $\epsilon = 1$, then for $n \geq n^*$ we have that for all $x \in D$ \begin{align*}  |f_n(x) - f^*(x)| < 1 \iff |f^*(x) - f_n(x)| &< 1\\  \therefore -1 < f^*(x) - f_n(x) &< 1 \\  \therefore -1 + f_n(x) < f^*(x) &< 1 + f_n(x)   \qquad \mbox{but $|f_n(x)| < M_n$, hence} \\  \therefore -1 - M_n < f^*(x) &< 1 + M_n \iff |f^*(x)| < 1 + M_n\,. \end{align*}  Now we have that $f^*$ is bounded by a quantity depending on $n \geq n^*$, which I assume is not enough. At this point I did some research and found  link, which basically says this is sufficient. However, when looking at  link, I would suspect my proof is not enough and we want a value in $\mathbb R$ that bounds $f^*$ independent of any $x$ or $n$.  N.B. I haven't started the second part of the proof yet.

I have lecture notes with the claim $(C_b(X), \|\cdot\|_\infty)$, the space of bounded continuous functions with the sup norm is complete.  The lecturer then proved two things, (i) that $f(x) = \lim f_n (x)$ is bounded and (ii) that $\lim f_n \in \mathbb{R}$.  I don't understand why it's not enough that $f$ is bounded. I think the limit of a sequence of continuous functions is continuous and then if $f$ is bounded, it's in $C_b(X)$. So what is this $\lim f_n \in \mathbb{R}$ about? Many thanks for your help.


Regular PDF files consist of vector elements, such as text and vector graphics, and other embedded data, such as image files. Extracting the latter is quite easy with utilities such as pdfimages (as described ).  On the other hand, scanned PDF documents are compilations of scanned pages. Every single page is a bitmap image, possibly overlayed with a searchable text layer produced by OCR. As a result, running pdfimages on a scanned PDF document will merely extract the scanned pages.  What I am looking for is an application or command-line utility that can distinguish between images and text in a scanned PDF document and extract the former.  Does anything like this exist?

Before I started using Ubuntu I used Nitro PDF reader to automatically extract images from PDF files. Is there a PDF reader for Linux that does this?  I would like to be able to extract images faster/easier than when taking a snapshot.


Note: I am not asking for help here, My own personal problem has been solved. This is a suggestion that might help other people in future with the same problem. I was having a problem creating a proper, registered account. Someone on the Science Fiction community, where I was participating as an unregistered user, suggested I come to Meta to ask for advice.  So I came here, and found that I need to register and log in before I could ask a question. There was a big paradox there: I was unable to register an account, but I couldn't ask for help as to why or how without having an account. In the end I solved the problem by asking for help on Science Fiction, and having a moderator migrate my post to here. Not an ideal solution. If I hadn't already been known on that community, it might have been closed and deleted. I am probably not the only person ever to be stymied by this. There should be a way for users to find out why they aren't able to register without having to go through what I did. One way to solve this may be to allow questions from unregistered users here.

You can normally ask anonymously on any (all other?) SE sites by just posting a question.  However, Meta says:     Oops! Your question couldn't be submitted because:         name and email, or your OpenID, are missing      (And what's the "name and email" doing there? You can't enter them.)


I have no internet icons or buttons in the toolbar at the top of my screen.  I cannot figure out which Internet connections I am using because I don't have that icon/button and I cannot find it anywhere else.  Where are they hidden and how do I put them there?

So a couple of weeks ago my network manager icon stopped appearing; I still get automatically connected to my saved networks and the internet works fine, etc. If I go into System Settings and look at the Network settings I can still see all the networks, only the icon that's normal in the top bar is missing.  I have no idea what caused this, I don't remember installing anything. I think it just happened after a regular update.  I tried these commands to make sure I was properly up-to-date, (which I found on another forum post):  sudo apt-get -f install sudo apt-get update sudo apt-get upgrade   That didn't do it so I found this post:  and I followed the instructions in those answers:  sudo apt-get purge network-manager-gnome && \ sudo apt-get install network-manager-gnome   And, quoted from an answer there:     Add nm-applet to the Startup Applications (which may be found by   entering "Startup Applications" in the Dash).   I restarted and then saw no Unity interface at all! So I tried those 3 commands above to update again and thankfully that fixed Unity but I still don't have my network manager.  If I try the command nm-applet in a terminal it says:  nm-applet-Message: using fallback from indicator to GtkStatusIcon   So.... I'm pretty much stumped. Any help would be appreciated.


What causes the surface of a lake to suddenly change texture. More specifically, what causes short wavelength water waves to dissipate in certain regions of a body of water with fairly sharp transition between regions with short wavelength waves and those without?     I took a kayak out on lake Michigan (not pictured) and paddled out to a line of transition between water textures. I was about 0.5km from the shore in water much deeper than the wavelength of the surface waves (>2m; longer than my paddle).  The air was still, with almost no detectable wind. The water was clear, and I could see at at down to at least the length of my paddle (2m), and there were visibly no fish in the water.  To my left the water was rough, with both short wavelength waves (1-5cm) and long wavelength waves (20cm - 1m). To my right, there water was smooth with no visible short wavelength waves but the same long wavelength waves. The transition between the two regions was about 4 meters wide, and both the smooth and rough regions cover very large areas with apparently consistent wave texture within them. It's as if something was low-pass filtering the waves, and I have no idea what it could be. What causes that?   (Neither the smooth nor the rough region featured speckled interference waves like those here: )  Here's some stock photo of the effect:

On a calm smooth lake, or even a large rain puddle, I've seen transient rough patches on the surface suddenly appear and disappear, and sometimes move across the water some distance before disappearing.  The amplitude and wavelengths of the wavelets are centimeter scale, and the motion of the water at the surface appears jumbled and random, almost like boiling, but only at the surface. The disturbance does not seem to propagate far outside the rough patch.  I am pretty certain these are being driven by small turbulent gusts of wind (which I can sometimes feel pass around me) and that there are no moving submerged objects.  Can wind blowing on smooth water create speckle interference patterns?  Is it necessary that the wavelets all be of the same wavelength for a speckle pattern to develop?    ANSWER SUMMARY  My conclusion is that the phenomenon I observed is not caused by 'speckle interference' although some interference of the ripples is clearly taking place as well.    Chris White rightly pointed out that what I described is commonly referred to as capillary waves, so I marked his answer as the correct one.  My search for 'capillary waves' on the web turned up  which is a vigorous example of what I was seeing on my lake.    There is a minimum in the phase-velocity of capillary-gravity waves on a air-water interface at a wavelength of 1.7 cm which probably provides a better physical explanation for the unique qualitative appearance than 'speckle interference.'   Capillary waves are also thought to have a critical role in .  The complete mathematical theory of capillary-gravity waves does not appear simple. However, I also found this paper describing  for anyone interested in a physical explanation.


"He gritted his teeth."   I can't tell if gritted is correct because both gritted and grit don't sound right to me in this sentence.  The dictionary says that both grit and gritted are the past tense. (Nowhere does it say 'grot' btw)  In the grit vs gritted they're asking which one is correct when they both technically are and the answers for it aren't useful to me, plus I am asking how it fits in t h i s sentence because I know grit can fit into other sentences, but I wasn't sure if it would fit in mine.

Dictionary sources tell me that the past tense of grit is gritted rather than grit. Why does that sound weird to me? Am I delusional, or is this one of those words changing in current usage? Pet is a similar case - I rarely hear petted used as a past tense.


Is there a way to prevent a new defined function to be called as constructor in JavaScript? Like throw out error when placing new before calling it.

Given a function:  function x(arg) { return 30; }   You can call it two ways:  result = x(4); result = new x(4);   The first returns 30, the second returns an object.  How can you detect which way the function was called inside the function itself?  Whatever your solution is, it must work with the following invocation as well:  var Z = new x();  Z.lolol = x;  Z.lolol();   All the solutions currently think the Z.lolol() is calling it as a constructor.


Edit 2: I called an engineer and paid for his evaluation of the wall. It's not load bearing. Realized that I left out some basics about the house.  This house is built on a raised foundation with cripple walls attaching the floor joists to the foundation. The metal post is attached to the fireplace foundation (which is independent of the houses foundation). There is no foundation (just 3 feet of empty air) underneath the wall I want to remove. The header is just oddly sized.  The header does not connect to the beam.  Edit 1: I decided to punch a hole above the door frame. The header is a 4x6, but the cripple studs do not attach to the Beam(which is load bearing). I was able to get into the "attic" and look at the top plate of the wall. It's a 2x4, nailed to the side of the 2x8 rafter.   I followed the link below for how to identify if your wall is load bearing:   If there is a load bearing wall or beam directly above or below this wall, it is likely load bearing. There is a load bearing beam above the wall, it's supported by it's own metal pole directly to the foundation.  If there's a single top plate, the wall most likely isn't load bearing. I found what looks like a single top plate, nailed to the side of a rafter. There is a gap between the top plate and the roof.  Expose the wall over a doorway or pass-through. If it's a solid 2x6 or greater turned vertically going from the jack stud on one side to the other, there's a good chance the wall is load bearing. If there are only cripple studs on a flat 2x4 to give you something to attach the drywall, it likely isn't load bearing. It's a 4x6, which seems very beefy for the location. However, there is nothing under the king / jack studs but a single 2x4. They aren't tied directly to the foundation.  So, overall pretty confused.   Original post I have a wall in my house I would like to eventually remove completely. But, in the mean time I am just trying to make the opening to the kitchen bigger.  I am trying to figure out if I should stop where I am at, or keep going up, so that the ceiling is continuous between then kitchen and living room.  I don’t think the wall is load bearing, I have access to the crawl space and the wall is not built directly on the foundation. There is a beam that runs the length of the house which I don’t think is supported by the wall because there is metal pole that supports the beam in the living room (see picture).  There was a pocket door in the wall, and I just finished removing that and cutting back all the drywall, but I want to keep going up to the cathedral ceiling…however, I don’t know if the door frame is providing any support for the roof/ ceiling or the beam.  The door frame seems to be two 2x4s, and the header seems to be three 2x4s (as measured with a stud finder) there seems to be one stud going from the beam to the header. According to the stud finder the two 2x4s may go all the way to the roof (past the header)  If I pull off the drywall what do I need to look for to know if I can remove the header and continue opening the wall to the ceiling/roof?  Few pictures

Other than looking up blue prints, which many homeowners may not have, are there ways to determine if a wall is load bearing?  Methods I can think of might include:   Going up in the attic to check if ceiling trusses run perpendicular to the wall If the wall is an exterior wall   Any others?


Installing 16.04.01.  I have installed Ubuntu with my own user details, james.  I have then created two other users, hacker, for being able to adjust my own account and toor, to have an account I can log into with root privileges.  I edited /etc/passwd and /etc/group to change the uid/gid of hacker from 1001 to 502 and of toor from 1002 to 0.  I also changed uid and gid on the /home/xxx directories to match, and changed the home directory for toor to /root.  When I did this, the two accounts disappeared from the list of Users under Settings.  I subsequently ran usermod on the hacker account and was told that nothing was changed.  I have now run find / -uid 1001 -exec chown 502 {} + and a similar command for gid.  Still no sign of the two accounts when I log in.  I know the users exist in the system as I tried to create a new hacker account and was told that it already existed.  Any ideas what I have missed and how to reinstate the accounts in a) Settings and b) the login screen?

I installed Ubuntu and Windows on my MacBook and Ubuntu is my primary OS; however, all of my media stays on my OSX partition. I want to be able to access it (at least my OSX user's home folder) from Ubuntu without having to launch a media player (or anything else) as root. Also, because I occasionally want to fire up my machine in OSX, I don't want to change anything that I would need to change back frequently (I read a lot about changing UID--I don't exactly understand what this entails, but I wouldn't want to have to change my UID back and forth depending on which OS I'm using. Similarly, I don't want to change file system permissions back and forth).  Also, I saw something about a "noowner" option, but that doesn't seem to do what I want it to.  So I guess I'd like to be able to do something like this:  sudo mount -t hfsplus -o noowner /dev/sda2/ /media/Mac   And then be able to access all of my media (at least everything in my OSX user's Home folder) without dropping in as root. (for clarity: the above command line entry doesn't do what I want it to do, but I want to be able to do something similar).  Or would it be better to change my UID? And if so, how?


2-41. let $f:\Bbb{R} \times \Bbb{R} \rightarrow \Bbb{R}$ be differentiable. for each $x \in \Bbb{R}$ define $g_x: \Bbb{R} \rightarrow \Bbb{R}$ by $g_x(y)=f(x,y)$. suppose that for each $x$ there is a unique $y$ with $g'_x(y)=0$; let $c(x)$ be this $y$. (a) If $D_{2,2}f(x,y) \neq 0$ for all $(x,y)$, show that $c$ is differentiable and $c'(x)=-\frac{D_{2,1}f(x,c(x))}{D_{2,2}f(x,c(x))}$. Hint: $g'_x(y)=0$ can be written $D_2f(x,y)=0$. (b) show that if $c'(x)=0$, then for some $y$ we have $D_{2,1}f(x,y)=0$ $D_2f(x,y)=0$ (c) let $f(x,y)=x(y \,log \,y \,- \,y)- y \,log\, x$. find $\underset{\frac{1}{2}\leq x \leq 2}{max}(\underset {\frac{1}{2}\leq y \leq 1}{min}f(x,y))$.  for the given $f(x,y)$, $c(x)=e^{log\,x/x}. \, c'(x)=0 \implies x=1$ and since $c(1)=1,$ according to part (b), $D_{2,2}f(1,1)=0$ and $D_2f(1,1)=0$ But how do I know $\underset{\frac{1}{2}\leq x \leq 2}{max}(\underset {\frac{1}{2}\leq y \leq 1}{min}f(x,y))$ occurrs at $(1,1)$? What other critical points do I have to look at? please give a hint.please do not provide solution.

Let $f(x,y)=x(y\ln y-y)-y\ln x.$ Find $\max_{1/2\le x\le 2}(\min_{1/3\le y\le1}f(x,y))$.   This problem is quite easy and it is from Spivak; it is the part $c)$ of the general exercise 2-41 page 43 Calculus on manifolds; here it is:     Let $f:\mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{R}\to \mathbb{R}$ be twice continuously differentiable. For each $x\in \mathbb{R}$ define $g_x(y)=f(x,y)$. Suppose that for each $x$ there is a unique $y$ with $g'_x(y)=0$; let $c(x)$ be this $y$.      $a)$: If $D_{2,2}f(x,y)\ne0$ for all $(x,y)$ show that $c$ is differentiable and $c'(x)=-\frac{D_{2,1}f(x,c(x))}{D_{2,2}f(x,c(x))}$      $b)$: Show that if $c'(x)=0$, then for some $y$ we have $D_{2,1}f(x,y)=0$, $D_2f(x,y)=0$.   I cannot visualize how part c) relates to the previous ones. Can you give me a hint?


I have a table with polygons that I wish to display in a map. I would like the smaller polygons to appear on top of larger polygons. Is there a way to set the drawing order such that  the larger polygon outlines don't cover up the smaller ones?  I've tried using the polygon area attribute as a transparency factor within the layer's symbology properties - but this is not working well enough.

I know that in ArcGIS drawing order is controlled by layers, and if I want to make some features be drawn on top of other features I can use definition queries to separate them into different layers and position one on top of the other.   But I was wondering (mostly out of curiosity) what dictates the drawing order of the 1000 overlapping polygons in my feature class, and if there's a way that I can control what features are displayed on top within one layer?