I need to make a call to a soap webservice in an android device. I have been reading a lot of articles in stackoverflow and on other pages, watching videos... But I've tried everythin and I can't make it work in my android device, and I can't test in on an emulator, because my computer can't handle any of them, so I don't know if the error is on the code or if it's a problem of my android device.  The layout xml are only an EditText, a Button, and a TextView.  In this link you can see the request xml I need to send to the webservice (should I use SOAP 1.1 or SOAP 1.2 ?)   This is my actual code, and I have tried many other ways, and none of them have worked for me. Any help? (url, namespace, soap_action and method_name values are okey, aren't they?)  package com.example.doazdoas.webservice_prueba;       import android.app.Activity;     import android.os.Bundle;     import android.util.Log;     import android.view.View;     import android.widget.Button;     import android.widget.TextView;      import org.ksoap2.SoapEnvelope;     import org.ksoap2.serialization.SoapObject;     import org.ksoap2.serialization.SoapSerializationEnvelope;     import org.ksoap2.transport.HttpTransportSE;      import android.os.AsyncTask;     import android.widget.Toast;      import static android.content.ContentValues.TAG;     public class MainActivity extends Activity{     private TextView textResult;     private Button buttonSend;      String NAMESPACE = "http://www.webserviceX.NET/";     String METHOD_NAME = "GetCitiesByCountry";     String SOAP_ACTION = NAMESPACE + METHOD_NAME;     String URL = "http://www.webservicex.net/globalweather.asmx?WSDL";      private Object resultsRequestSOAP = null;      HttpTransportSE androidHttpTransport;      @Override     public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState)     {         super.onCreate(savedInstanceState);         setContentView(R.layout.activity_main);          textResult = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.textResultado);         buttonSend = (Button)findViewById(R.id.buttonEnviar);         //setContentView(tv);     }      public void onClickEnviar(View view){         AsyncCallWS task = new AsyncCallWS();         task.execute();     }      private class AsyncCallWS extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, Void> {          @Override         protected void onPreExecute() {             Log.i(TAG, "onPreExecute");         }          @Override         protected Void doInBackground(Void... params) {             Log.i(TAG, "doInBackground");             sendRequest();             return null;         }          @Override         protected void onPostExecute(Void result) {             Log.i(TAG, "onPostExecute");             Log.d("dump Request: " ,androidHttpTransport.requestDump);             Log.d("dump response: " ,androidHttpTransport.responseDump);         }      }       public void sendRequest(){         SoapObject request = new SoapObject(NAMESPACE, METHOD_NAME);           //SoapObject         request.addProperty("@CountryName", "SPAIN");         SoapSerializationEnvelope envelope = new SoapSerializationEnvelope(SoapEnvelope.VER11);         envelope.setOutputSoapObject(request);           androidHttpTransport = new HttpTransportSE(URL);         try         {             androidHttpTransport.call(SOAP_ACTION, envelope);             resultsRequestSOAP =  envelope.getResponse();             String[] results = (String[])  resultsRequestSOAP;             textResult.setText( results[0]);         }         catch (Exception aE)         {             aE.printStackTrace ();         }     } }

I am having a lot of trouble finding good information on how to call a standard SOAP/WSDL web service with Android. All I've been able to find are either very convoluted documents and references to "kSoap2" and then some bit about parsing it all manually with . OK, that's fine, but it's 2008, so I figured there should be some good library for calling standard web services.  The web service is just basically one created in . I would like to have IDE support for generating the plumbing classes. I just need the easiest/most-elegant way to contact a  based web service from an Android-based phone.


In Python,sometimes I see the string variable using ' ' to define it; sometimes I see the string variable using " " to define it.   For instance, it seems to me that both of the followings work  file_to_read = os.path.join(path, 'file.txt')  file_to_read = os.path.join(path, "file.txt")   My question is that are ' 'and " " totally interchangeble?

According to the documentation, they're pretty much interchangeable.  Is there a stylistic reason to use one over the other?


I know these are float point division. But why did these two formula behave differently?  And I did some more investigation, the result confusing me even more:  >>>0.9/3 0.3  >>>1.2/3 0.39999999999999997  >>>1.5/3 0.5   What's the logic here to decide whether the result is printed with one decimal place or more?  PS: I used python3.4 to do the experiment above.

Consider the following code:   0.1 + 0.2 == 0.3  ->  false   0.1 + 0.2         ->  0.30000000000000004   Why do these inaccuracies happen?


My stackoverflow reputation is again down to 16 from 1900+.    And profile name also changed to userXXXXX.  Note : There is no notification or email.    As image shows, reputation is decreased but no reason why.  Can someone explain what and why is this happening to my account?

This user is only displaying 56 rep.   But surely (s)he has much more than that.        The user has also never given out any bounties.  Also, badges are missing:


I have date in string:  mystring = "2013-10-25 07:53:07.367857"   Can I convert this string to datetime object?

I've got a huge list of date-times like this as strings:  Jun 1 2005  1:33PM Aug 28 1999 12:00AM   I'm going to be shoving these back into proper datetime fields in a database so I need to magic them into real datetime objects.   This is going through Django's ORM so I can't use SQL to do the conversion on insert.


I want to upgrade the ram for my dell xps 15 9750 which is now 8gb ram (2x4gb). I buyed 16gb (ddr4 2666 dual-rank) ram.  Is it possible to mix single-rank (4gb ddr4 2666) and dual-rank (16gb ddr4 2666) together ???  If I mix this together, is there any risk for my laptop ????   Thank you in advances

I currently have a  8GB DDR4 RAM. I want to upgrade my system to have 16 GB RAM. I already have bought the  8GB DDR4 RAM.  I understand that my current RAM is a single-rank RAM and my new one is dual-ranked RAM. My question is can I plugin the new RAM into my MOBO and expect everything to work harmoniously?  My MOBO is a MSI Gaming Z170A M5.


The commonly used version of this Christian prayer comes from the King James Bible     9 After this manner therefore pray ye: Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name.   10 Thy kingdom come, Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven.   11 Give us this day our daily bread.   12 And forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors.   13 And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil: For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen.   —Matthew 6:9–13   says that the second person informal is used when speaking to God, but does not give a reason as to why. To me it would make more sense to address the creator of the universe as formally as possible.

The word "thou" (and similar variations of the Latin tu in other languages) was used between people for informal speech, and talking to people of lower standing.  So why did people use it (most prominently, in the King James Version of the Bible) to address God? If anything, I'd think speaking in humble deference to one's deity would definitely require one to use "you".


I bought chuck roast beef from the store but when I cooked it for my beef noodle soup, it was a little hard.  My mom told me sometimes adding salt will suck out the water amd make it hard. I'm not sure if this was the reason why though.   Are there any key things to keep in mind when cooking beef to keep it soft?

My housemate often manages to pick up reduced meat from the local supermarket (Sainsbury's in the UK) at the time he comes home.  It's usually silverside, topside or brisket of beef. Occasionally it's pork shoulder.  Without fail however my meat ends up "tough". Here's the exact procedure I follow for my standard "roast":   Take frozen joint of meat out of the freezer around 8-10AM. Prepare 2 onions, celery, carrots and half bulb garlic. Throw them in my roasting pan. Season joint with salt and pepper, pour extra virgin olive oil over it, sear it in a frying pan. Cook at 20degC less than the suggested temperatures for the suggested times according to my MasterChef book, specifically for that cut of meat. For instance tonight's brisket was 900g - I cooked it at 160degC for 1h30m. Rest for 10-15m while I make the gravy and finish off the potatoes in another pan.   I cook it at 20deg less because it's a fan oven.  Can anyone explain the factors that affect how tough the meat becomes? Am I not searing properly? Is the meat prone to being tough because it's not fresh (reduced stuff)? Is it not defrosting for long enough?  Thanks in advance,


In my app, I start at the main activity, and there is a plus sign that takes you through a series of popup windows. Inside the popup windows, it has edittexts that the user can edit in order to set the title of a button. The newly created button is made when another button is pressed. The newly created button is then put on the MainActivity and all popup windows are dismissed.   My question is, how would you save that newly created button when the app is completely terminated (when you swipe right to close the app in the overview window)? I want to be able when I reopen the app, the button is still there, and the app doesn't return to its original state.  Thank you in advance. Hopefully this post makes sense.  How do you save the current state of the mainActivity and recreate it on reopen.

I've been working on the Android SDK platform, and it is a little unclear how to save an application's state. So given this minor re-tooling of the 'Hello, Android' example:  package com.android.hello;  import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.TextView;  public class HelloAndroid extends Activity {    private TextView mTextView = null;    /** Called when the activity is first created. */   @Override   public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) {     super.onCreate(savedInstanceState);      mTextView = new TextView(this);      if (savedInstanceState == null) {        mTextView.setText("Welcome to HelloAndroid!");     } else {        mTextView.setText("Welcome back.");     }      setContentView(mTextView);   } }   I thought it would be enough for the simplest case, but it always responds with the first message, no matter how I navigate away from the app.  I'm sure the solution is as simple as overriding onPause or something like that, but I've been poking away in the documentation for 30 minutes or so and haven't found anything obvious.


I am attempting to run a Sudoku game code in java (Using NetBeans) and am currently writing the method that initializes the game and reads the file containing the starting game code. The text file reads as so:  0,0,2,9,8,0,5,0,0 4,0,0,0,7,0,0,1,3 0,3,9,6,0,4,0,7,0 2,0,0,0,5,6,4,0,0 8,4,0,3,0,0,2,0,1 9,0,7,0,0,1,0,8,6 6,0,0,7,0,5,1,3,0 0,9,1,4,0,0,0,0,5 0,2,0,0,3,0,6,0,8   My current code being run is:          Scanner f = new Scanner(new FileReader("C:(MY FILE LOCATION)"));         for (int i = 0; i < 9; i++) {             line = f.next();             readLine = line.split(",");             for (int j = 0; j < 9; j++) {                 gameBoard[i][j] = readLine[j];             }         }   The NullPointerException comes from the line of code:  gameBoard[i][j] = readLine[j];   When I don't declare the numbers to the game board and just print them out instead it works just fine. I already having it throwing FileNotFoundException. Thanks for any help!

What are Null Pointer Exceptions (java.lang.NullPointerException) and what causes them?  What methods/tools can be used to determine the cause so that you stop the exception from causing the program to terminate prematurely?


I would like to make the diagram  \documentclass{article} \usepackage{amsmath,amsfonts} \usepackage{tikz-cd} \begin{document}     \[         \begin{tikzcd}             A \arrow[r, bend left=40, "H\circ r", ""{name=U}]\arrow[r, bend right=40, "K", swap, ""{name=D}]    &\textbf{Abcd}\arrow[Rightarrow, "\eta", from=U, to=D].         \end{tikzcd}         \] \end{document}   perfectly symmetric. I've been trying to change the parameters after the bend left/right option but I don't think this is the right way to proceed. Is there a standard way to act, which is "robust" with respect to the whole diagram?

How do you draw natural transformation arrows as mentioned in this  but using TikZ rather than xy? More generally, is it possible to draw edges between edge labels, from an edge label to a node, and from a node to an edge label or is it necessary to explicitly construct a node in order to draw an edge? Does providing an edge label in the path environment implicitly construct a node that can be used as the source and target of another edge? I would like to do this using the matrix and path environments in TikZ if possible.  Example:  \documentclass{article}  \usepackage{tikz} \usetikzlibrary{matrix,arrows}  \begin{tikzpicture}[description/.style={fill=white,inner sep=2pt}]     \matrix (m) [matrix of math nodes, row sep=3em,     column sep=2.0em, text height=1.5ex, text depth=0.25ex]     { \mathcal{D} & & \mathcal{J} \\       \mathcal{C} & & \\ };     \path[->,font=\scriptsize]     (m-1-1) edge[loop left] node[auto] {$ F \circ G $} (m-1-1)     (m-1-1.20) edge node[auto] {$ G $} (m-1-3.160)     (m-1-3.200) edge node[auto] {$ F $} (m-1-1.340)     (m-1-1) edge node[left] {$ H $} (m-2-1);     \end{tikzpicture}  \end{document}     How can I connect F◦G and H with a curved natural transformation arrow ⟹? Feel free to rearrange the diagram if you'd like.


I'm trying to make a hole through the face:    So it will come out just like this hole on the other side of the mesh:    If it doesn't make sense, i'm saying this: On the first picture, It clearly has no hole.  On the second picture, It is the other side of the CUBE , i have used "knife" tool to cut the hole but it didn't go through, so i'm trying to make that exact hole, on the first pictures face so i can make a window.

I'm using Blender 2.66,  I find that the knife tool (K) doesn't work the way it used to.     Dragging across an obscured edge, even if selected, doesn't cut it. There seems to be no way to activate the option to do a midpoint cut or multiple cuts.


I know you're supposed to press the home and lock button and restart it but my iPhones lock button has been broken for awhile and I can't afford to fix it or fix it myself.

My friend's iPhone's sleep/wake button no longer works. Is there any way to turn off the screen besides setting up auto-lock and waiting a few minutes?


As far as I know, quantum computers are able to solve only some of the NP-Problems in polynomial time, using the Grovers algorithm. I read that if one manages to create a reduction of Grovers algorithm on one of the NP-Complete algorithms, for example 3SAT, then it will be a huge milestone, since we could solve all other NP-Complete problems. I also read that current quantum computers lack error-correcting qubits to create a reduction of Grovers algorithm on 3SAT. What would be a sufficient amount of qubits to solve such problem and what amount do we currently have?

The P versus NP problem is a major unsolved problem in computer science. It asks whether every problem whose solution can be quickly verified can also be solved quickly. It is one of the seven Millennium Prize Problems selected by the Clay Mathematics Institute, each of which carries a US$1,000,000 prize for the first correct solution. My question is, can a quantum computer be used to solve P = NP?


I tried to check if url is valid or invalid. the checks of 7,8 returns wrong outputs.  alert('1: ' + learnRegExp('http://www.google-com.123.com')); // true alert('2: ' + learnRegExp('http://www.google-com.123')); // false alert('3: ' + learnRegExp('https://www.google-com.com')); // true alert('4: ' + learnRegExp('http://google-com.com')); // true alert('5: ' + learnRegExp('http://google.com')); //true alert('6: ' + learnRegExp('google.com')); //true alert('7: ' + learnRegExp('ww.google.com')); //false -> it returns true alert('8: ' + learnRegExp('www.google.co.il')); //true -> it returns false alert('9: ' + learnRegExp('http://ww.google.co.il')); //false alert('10: ' + learnRegExp('https://ww.google.co.il')); //false  function learnRegExp(){     return /((ftp|https?):\/\/)?(www\.)?[a-z0-9\-\.]{3,}\.[a-z]{3}$/     .test(learnRegExp.arguments[0]); }   please help me to solve it.  any help appreciated!

How can I check if a given string is a valid URL address?  My knowledge of regular expressions is basic and doesn't allow me to choose from the hundreds of regular expressions I've already seen on the web.


Hey can anyone help me get started on this proof?  Prove OFC7: for elements x,y in an ordered field, (-x)(-y) = x*y.  I am allowed to use the following axioms:  F1. x+(y+z) = (x+y)+z; F2. x+y=y+x; F3. there is a specified element 0 such that x+0=x; F4. there is a specified element -x such that x+(-x)=0; F5. x*(y*z)=(x*y)*z; F6. x*y=y*x; F7. there is a specified element 1 such that x*1=x and 1 does not equal 0; F8. for any x not equal to 0, there is a specified element x^-1 such that x*(x^-1) = 1; F9. x*(y+z)=x*y+x*z. OFC1. If x+y=x+z, then y=z. OFC2. -(-x)=x OFC3. If x is not equal to 0 and xy=xz, then y=z. OFC4. x*0=0 OFC5. If x*y=0 then x=0 or y=0. 0FC6. (-x)*y=-(x*y)

Someone recently asked me why a negative $\times$ a negative is positive, and why a negative $\times$ a positive is negative, etc.  I went ahead and gave them a proof by contradiction like so:  Assume $(-x) \cdot (-y) = -xy$  Then divide both sides by $(-x)$ and you get $(-y) = y$  Since we have a contradiction, then our first assumption must be incorrect.  I'm guessing I did something wrong here. Since the conclusion of $(-x) \cdot (-y) = (xy)$ is hard to derive from what I wrote.  Is there a better way to explain this?  Is my proof incorrect?  Also, what would be an intuitive way to explain the negation concept, if there is one?


This question came up when I recently answered this question  and I found this question  which seemed to be related, but the given answers do not really satisfy me. Also this question  is about the cooling of a deodorant spray and doesn't address the cooling of the container. A web search gave conflicting, mostly not scientifically well explained answers.   In my opinion, there are three possible cooling effects:  (1) The adiabatic expansion of the gas involves work against the external pressure thus cooling the gas. This should already work for an ideal gas.  (2) The adiabatic expansion of the gas leads to a cooling due to the Joule-Thompson effect because the gas is not an ideal gas. This is due to a change of kinetic to potential energy of the molecules.  (3) The cooling of the container is due to evaporation cooling of the liquified gas inside the container.  ad (1) The problem with answer (1) is that the adiabatic expansion occurs outside the container against the air pressure. Thus the cooling should only occur for the outside gas not for the gas in the container.  ad (2) This problem should not occur  for answer (2) because the JT cooling effect already takes place inside the container upon pressure reduction. Also the cooling outside the container should occur.  ad (3) The gas is partially liquified inside the container due to the high pressure (e.g. butane) and the cooling of the container is caused by the evaporation heat of the liquid.  In the case of the aerosol spray I am now inclined to think that my answer (3) is the dominant effect in the container cooling. This does, however, not conform with the top rated answer (work due to adiabatic expansion of gas) of the mentioned identical question.   Am I right with my suspicion that a cooling by adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas cools the gas outside but not inside the container?   Is the container indeed cooled mainly by the liquid evaporation heat effect? Or is the Joule Thompson effect more important?

We all use deodorant and they always feel cold, why is that?  Is it because it is liquid inside the bottle and a gas when it is released?


I have a raster file of 1600 km2 with cell size 2x2 m that I need to polygonize and the script takes a really long time to finish (>25 minutes, but I don't know how long it effectively takes, since I had to kill the task)  How can I make smaller tiles of the large raster in QGIS? Let's say we make 16 tiles, so 4x4 tiles. What is the best method for that in QGIS 3.3+?

I have an image of size 1GB (.tif), with the width and height 94000x71680. I would like to chunk this image into 20000X20000 tiles so that I can process them.   How can I do this?


Can Ubuntu be put on a tablet that currently has Android on it (instead of android)?  I have a tablet (Asus Transformer Prime) that I would like to play with tech-wise and I wanted to know if there is a way I can get Ubuntu on it, so that I could use it with ROS to do robot design/programming.

I've read instructions about dual boot Android / Transformer Prime (a significant factor in ordering one). Also about not working with /latest/ Transformer Prime (firmware / BIOS?) Also about imminent Ubuntu ARM support.  Will I be able to run Ubuntu in a day or two when Transformer arrives?  Also, am I right to assume I can restore Transformer to factory status if I break something in the attempt?


The question is from a book used for transition between high school mathematics and university mathematics, which states: Prove the following statement or give a counterexample      $\forall n \in \mathbb Z, \exists a,b,c,d,e,f,g,h \in \mathbb Z$ such that $n=a^3+b^3+c^3+d^3+e^3+f^3+g^3+h^3$   After several trials I believe the statement is true but find it difficult to prove. Could somebody offer a solution without reference to congruence? I can see that if one choose $a,b,c,d,e,f,g$ equals from $0 \:to\: 1$ each then $n \in {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8} $ can be represented. For the next eight numbers, by choosing $a=2$ and adjusting the remaining parameters from $0\:to\:1$, can also be achieved. Thus I suspect all numbers can be represented this way, but, having said that, I still feel hard to find a proof.

Can anyone offer an elementary proof why: $$\forall n \in {\mathbb Z} \space \exists a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h \in {\mathbb Z}$$such that$$n=a^3+b^3+c^3+d^3+e^3+f^3+g^3+h^3{\rm ?}$$  In other words, why every integer is the sum of eight cubes integers.  My first thought was that since the gaps between $p^3$ and $(p+1)^3$ increase with $p,$ this would only hold for small integers.  This is wrong; can anyone tell me why?  N.B. This is different to Waring's problem because $n,a,b,c...$ dot not have to be natural numbers, so we can have $27=3^3+(-1)^3+(-1)^3+(-1)^3+(-1)^3$


I recently asked a question () and was explained that there is sort of a "freedom" with how one chooses to subdivide the area underneath a given curve so long as the way you define your dx (in the context of Riemann sum) will converge to zero as n→∞ .  This immediately made me realize that you could subdivide a given area under the curve an infinitely many number of ways (even "more so" when you consider that the subdivisions do not even have to be uniform).   As I understand it, these changes in subdivisions do not alter the resulting value of the integral. And perhaps that is where my misunderstanding arrives.   Consider the picture below:    In the first picture, we would have an integral of the following form: $\int_A^B f(x) d(x)$   In the second picture, we would have an integral of the following form: $\int_A^B f(x) 2dx$  (at least I believe that is how the notation would work)  My confusion is the following: using either one of these versions of uniform subdivisions will result in the same value. However, I feel like there must be a different interpretation that captures the fact that the subdivision for the lower graph is actually going to "fill up" the area under the curve more quickly.   Could someone please explain?   Edit 1: It seems like a clarification that I need in my question (based on below comments) is my misunderstanding of why a change in our “dx of choice” necessarily redefines the interval we are discussing. I do not see why I can’t change the subdivision without changing the interval.   Edit 2: As I know understand, the picture that I have is incorrect in that the bottom image should have its interval redefined to $2A$ and $2B$. However, I still do not understand why the change in interval demands that a corresponding change in subdivision must occur.

I am familiar and comfortable with the following definition of an integral (defined as the the Riemann Sum where n approaches infinity).    I have circled in red two terms to emphasize a concept that I was taught: the $\frac{b-a}{n}$ term effectively becomes the $dx$ term. This intuitively makes sense to me.   Additionally, I am familiar with the following statement (as expressed here: )    However, I have boxed in red something that I find rather confusing when trying to interpret it through the understanding that $\frac{b-a}{n}$ sorta kinda equals $dx$...  Specifically, the $du$ value appears to be changing throughout the interval $[ g(a), g(b)]$. To reframe this in the "Riemann Sum" version,we would have something like: $\text{ "value that varies depending on where you are"} * \frac{g(b)-g(a)}{n}$  This is very confusing to me...because, if this is the correct interpretation, I'm not quite certain I understand why this is allowed.


I am trying to calculate the noise voltage Vn of a thermopile sensor for NEP. As according to formula NEP = Vn/R Can someone elaborate how would i do that if my thermopile is connected to AD360 amplifier ?

I am working on the characterisation of thermopile sensor and stuck in determining the NEP of the sensor. My thermopile sensor with AD8630 amplifier receives IR radiation coming from the blackbody at 500K. To calculate noise equivalent power I have calculated output voltage of the thermopile by simply taking the output of the sensor and power incident through power meter but I am not sure how to calculate the noise voltage ? should I take Johnson noise as the noise voltage ? if so then how can I calculate it ? Please, someone give me an idea about how to deal with NEP in such situation. Thank you and stay safe


I am confused by the way the authors' names are capitalized when both biblatex and frenchb in bbel are used. There is no reference to this behavior in either documentation and I don't know how to make the authors' names appear as in the "english" style. Here is a MWE:  \documentclass[a4,11pt]{article} \PassOptionsToPackage{utf8}{inputenc} \usepackage{inputenc} \input{glyphtounicode}   %  to enable ligatured letters \PassOptionsToPackage{T1}{fontenc} % T2A for cyrillics     \usepackage{fontenc}  \PassOptionsToPackage{frenchb,english}{babel}     \usepackage{babel} %\PassOptionsToPackage{frenchpro}{babel} % inopérant  \frenchbsetup{LowercaseSuperscripts=false} \usepackage{csquotes} \PassOptionsToPackage{%     %backend=biber, %instead of bibtex     backend=bibtex8,bibencoding=ascii,%     %language=autobib,%     language=auto,     %language=french,     %autocite=inline,     %style=numeric-comp,%     style=authoryear-comp, % Author 1999, 2010     %style=authoryear,%     %style=alphabetic,%     %bibstyle=authoryear,dashed=false, % dashed: substitute rep. author with ---     sorting=nyt, % name, year, title     maxbibnames=3, % default: 3, et al.     backref=true,%     hyperref=true,     natbib=true % natbib compatibility mode (\citep and \citet still     work) }{biblatex}     \usepackage{biblatex} %\addbibresource{../Xbib.bib} \usepackage{filecontents} \begin{filecontents}{\jobname.bib} @Article{abr4,   Title                    = {Bargaining, reputation and equilibrium     selection in repeated games with contracts},   Author                   = {Dilip Abreu and David Pearce},   Journal                  = {Econometrica},   Year                     = {2007},   Number                   = {3},   Pages                    = {653-710},   Volume                   = {75}, } @InBook{bar3,    Title                    = {Mathematical theory of reliability},   Author                   = {Richard E. Barlow and Frank Proschan},   Chapter                  = {1},   Pages                    = {9-18},   Publisher                = {{J}ohn {W}iley \& {S}ons},   Year                     = {1965}  } \end{filecontents}  \addbibresource{\jobname.bib}    \begin{document} \selectlanguage{french} % if commented, authors appear with only first letter capitalized \section{First section}   This is a document.   I cite a book here: \cite{bar3}. An article here:\cite{abr4}.    \printbibliography   \end{document}   As you can see when comment out "selectlanguage=french", the names come with a first capital : Barlow and Proschan. When selectlanguage is set to french, we get BARLOW, Richard E. and Franck PROSCHAN.  It would be OK if the capital letters only appeared in the reference section. But I find it awkward that in the text the authorname also appears in CAPITALS. Any work around? Thanks.

I'm using biblatex to manage my citation in a natbib style :  \usepackage[style=alphabetic,maxnames=6,natbib=true]{biblatex}   However when I use the \citet command, the author's name is in a \textsc font, I would like to change this behavior so that the font used is the default one, but I could not find how to do this in biblatex's documentation.


I'm using the acronym package. Normally, if I enter an acronym like this:   This is a system with \ac{LTI} propertiesSystem. It can be ...   The pdf shows something like this:      This is a system with linear, time invariant (LTI) properties. It can be ...   But I would like to have something like this:     This is a system with LTI (linear, time invariant) properties. It can be ...   How can I set up the acronym package to put the brackets around the description and not around the acronym?  edit:  I tried now using this self defined command:  \newcommand{\A}[1]{\acs{#1} (\aclu{#1})}   It shows the acronym first and the long version in brackets. But if I use the same acronym later, the full description ist shown again and again. I would prefer, that it is shown just the first time...

I am using the acronym package and have the following problem: In my document, I always want to use \ac{...} for my acronyms, so I don't have to care about whether I already mentioned the full name of the acronym or not. \ac{...}'s default behavior is that it prints the full name and the acronym in brackets when the acronym is mentioned the first time (Example: \ac{HTML} is printed as "HyperText Markup Language (HTML)"). The next time I use it, only the acronym gets printed.  This is okay in most cases. But for some acronyms, like "HTML", it would be better to have the acronym first and the full name in brackets, like "HTML (HyperText Markup Language)". I can achieve this if I write \acs{HTML} (\acl{HTML}), but then I can't use \ac{HTML}, because the next time it will print the full version + acronym in brackets again ;)  Is there any way to reverse the full name and the acronym at the first time \ac{} is used (or is there an alternative command to achieve this)?  I know that it seems to be possible with the glossaries package (see ) but the solution provided there is applied to all acronyms, not only to some of them. Also I would like to keep the acronym package if possible.


I would like to have the names of authors/editors (editors only if no authors given) in a certain color (e.g. red).    \documentclass[% ]{scrbook}%  \usepackage[english]{babel} \usepackage{filecontents} \begin{filecontents*}{\jobname.bib}     @InCollection{DelPercio2014,   author    = {Del Percio, Alfonso and Reisigl, Martin},   title     = {Angewandte Diskursforschung},   booktitle = {Diskursforschung - Ein interdisziplinäres Handbuch},   publisher = {transcript Verlag},   isbn      = {9783839427224},   date      = {2014},   location  = {Bielefeld}, }  @InCollection{Angermuller2014c,   author    = {Angermuller, Johannes and Macgilchrist, Felicitas},   title     = {Einleitung: Konzepte und Kontroversen der Diskurstheorie},   booktitle = {Diskursforschung: ein interdisziplinäres Handbuch},   editor = {Hans Wurst},   publisher = {transcript Verlag},   pages     = {17--20},   date      = {2014},   origdate  = {1999},    location  = {Bielefeld}, }  @Book{Motakef2015,   title     = {Prekarisierung},   publisher = {transcript Verlag},   author    = {Motakef, Mona},   isbn      = {978-3-8376-2566-0},   date      = {2015},   location  = {Bielefeld},   url       = {http://www.transcript-verlag.de/978-3-8376-2566-0/prekarisierung}, } \end{filecontents*} \usepackage[   backend=biber,   style=ext-authoryear,   innamebeforetitle=true,   ]{biblatex}  \addbibresource{\jobname.bib} \begin{document} \chapter{Titel} \footcite[23-44]{Motakef2015} \footcite[19\psq]{Angermuller2014c} \footcite[123]{DelPercio2014} \printbibliography \end{document}   Right now it looks like this    but it should be colored as seen here:

I'm writing because I wasn't able to find a solution nor in Google nor here. My question is similar to , but that hasn't a solution yet. Is similar to  too, but it uses beamer and I'm not.  My question is: how can I change the color of the author (only the author) item in my bibliography, which is formatted as follows:  \usepackage[backend=bibtex,style=authoryear,natbib=true,dashed=false,language=italian]{biblatex}  This works fine, but in the Bibliography at the end of the document, I would have the author colored. I mean, only the author, nothing more in the document, which should remain the same.  I tried by adding \textcolor to the item in the bibliography file:  @article{addicott2006networks,  title={Networks, organizational learning and knowledge management: NHS cancer networks},  author={\textcolor{red}{Addicott, Rachael} and McGivern, Gerry and Ferlie, Ewan},  journal={Public Money and Management},  volume={26},  number={2},  pages={87--94},  year={2006},  publisher={Taylor & Francis},  langid={italian},  }   The result was perfect for the bibliography, but it modifies also the color of the reference in the text, as in the following images:      Does anyone know how to just color the author in the bibliography and leave unaltered in the text?  (I know I'm not providing any MWE, honestly I don't think is necessary in this case. But if needed I will post it.)  Thank you for your time, R.  UPDATE: sorry guys, here the MWE for what I'm trying to figure out:  \documentclass[12pt]{article} \usepackage{color} \usepackage[backend=bibtex,style=authoryear,natbib=true,dashed=false,language=italian]{biblatex}  \addbibresource{biblio.bib}  \begin{document}  Reference I don't want to be coloured \citep{addicott2006networks}  \printbibliography[title={Bibliografia}]  \end{document}   @article{addicott2006networks,  title={Networks, organizational learning and knowledge management: NHS cancer networks},  author={\textcolor{red}{Addicott, Rachael} and McGivern, Gerry and Ferlie, Ewan},  journal={Public Money and Management},  volume={26},  number={2},  pages={87--94},  year={2006},  publisher={Taylor \& Francis},  langid={italian},  }


this week I installed Ubuntu 20.04 on my laptop and connected it to my external 27" screen (EIZO 27" with 3840x2160px). In order to enable video acceleration in Firefox via VA-API I switched to Wayland. Since all desktop elements are very small on the HiDPI external screen I enabled the "experimental-features" to allow for fractional scaling of 125% ... gsettings set org.gnome.mutter experimental-features "['scale-monitor-framebuffer']" So far it looked good except the top bar overlapping the dash and the top right icons moving out of the top bar. Apart from being an optical glitch it also impacts usability because the icons overlap application windows. Screenshot of top bar with misplaced icons  I blamed it to the "experimental-features" and the 125% setting but when I turn off the "experimental features" and revert to 100% the setting persists. Even if I switch back to the "old" X-Server and disable Wayland. Can anyone help me how to fix this issue or is it not a configuration issue but a bug? Thanks a lot! Daniel

I've just updated my system to Ubuntu 20.04. I'm facing issues with missing icons and alignment of icons in the top bar. I've attached screenshots below.   Misaligned Icons:   Missing Icons:


I have trigger Code:  Trigger AutoEmailsending on Order (after update)  {     Map<Id,Order> Orderdetail = new Map<Id,Order>();     Set<Id> Accountid = new Set<Id>();     for(order or1 : Trigger.new)     {         if(or1.Status == 'Submitted' && (or1.Subtype__c =='Offer' || or1.Subtype__c =='ASP'))         {             Orderdetail.put(or1.id,or1);             Accountid.add (or1.accountid);         }     }     List<Attachment> Attachmentlst = [Select Id,                                              ParentId,                                               Name,                                              BodyLength,                                              Body,                                              Description                                          From Attachment                                          where ParentId=:Orderdetail.keyset()];       for (attachment attachmentlst1 : attachmentlst )     {          String Emailaddress = UserInfo.getUserEmail();        Profile[] profiles = [select id from profile where name in ('Sales Rep - France','Sales Rep - Italy')];          String[] values = new String[0];          for(Profile Id: profiles)         values.add(Order_Configuration__c.getInstance(id));           //string SellingOfficePhone = Order_Configuration__c.getInstance().Selling_Office_Phone__c;          String SellingOfficePhone = Order_Configuration__c.getInstance(UserInfo.getProfileId()); String Market = Accountmap.get(Orderdetail.get(attachmentlst1.ParentId).accountid).Market__c;         CCaddress.add(emailaddress);         if(CustomerServiceEmail !=null)         CCaddress.add(CustomerServiceEmail);           Messaging.SingleEmailMessage mail = new                   Messaging.SingleEmailMessage();         mail.setToAddresses(Toaddress);         mail.setCcAddresses(CCaddress);         if(Orderdetail.get(attachmentlst1.ParentId).Subtype__c =='Offer' || Market=='FR')         {             mail.setSenderDisplayName('Trade Order-FR');              ResourceName = 'TC_for_France';             TCname = 'CONDITIONS_GENERALES_DEVENTE.pdf';                     strHtmlBody ='Hi,

';                         strHtmlBody+=+SellingOfficePhone +                       '                    mail.setHtmlBody(strHtmlBody);         }         else         {                  if(!String.isBlank(SellingOfficePhone))                 {                     {                       strHtmlBody +=                         +SellingOfficePhone+                      }                 }                  mail.setHtmlBody(strHtmlBody);         }            Messaging.Emailfileattachment efa = new Messaging.Emailfileattachment();         efa.setFileName(attachmentlst1.Name);         efa.setBody(attachmentlst1.Body);         fileAttachments.add(efa);         Messaging.Emailfileattachment efa1 = new Messaging.Emailfileattachment();         efa1.setFileName(TCname);         efa1.setBody(resources.get(resourceName));         fileAttachments.add(efa1);         mail.setFileAttachments(fileAttachments);         Messaging.sendEmail(new Messaging.SingleEmailMessage[] {mail});      } }   I have a order configuration Custom setting object is there and selling office phone field is there inside order configuration Custom setting object and the value is different for two profiles how do i access the profile value for selling office of custom setting in If and another profile value for selling office in else statement I have Tried so many times ,Anyone Guide me for the Answer

I have created the custom setting with the hierarchy type    I have added some fields to the custom settings  phone field is added to the custom settings  custom setting Name:Order_Configuration__c  Phone :12345 - one profile  phone:456798 - another profile   Is it possible to access the different values for different profiles in custom settings using apex trigger code


A lot of people who I have spoken with in philosophy courses treat science as if it is completely separate from philosophy. Some scientists, like  when he was still alive, seem to agree with this view of the two being completely separate. However, after reading some text, I discovered that English philosopher, Sir Francis Bacon, established the scientific method and argued that " science could be achieved by use of a skeptical and methodical approach whereby scientists aim to avoid misleading themselves." Also, science is seen as part of the Enlightenment philosophical movement according to Stanford:     Scientific method became a revolutionary force of the Enlightenment. -Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy   Even empiricism, a form of philosophy created by Francis Bacon, is essentially . To me, this would make science a branch or part of philosophy. Is this assumption correct, and if so, why do so many people see science and philosophy as completely separate? Was there any philosophical movement or thought reform that led to the separation of the two, or does science continue to be part of philosophy and the idea of them being completely separate is simply a misinterpretation?

In the past, both Philosophy and Science were one. However, because of the vastness of Science, it was cut off. I am inclined to go along the same line of thinking, but, is there a way to merge both disciplines once again?


Is there no way to use Google Translate to translate InDesign files? I would like to translate my text boxes from English to a few other languages, and save each language as a different file.

What are the best practice for translating documents in InDesign?  I guess there is some mechanism for import-export XML like Illustrator Variables to translate without using installed Indesign?  I'm thinking about this workflow:   export InDesign data into XML translate texts inside XML import XML into InDesign correct translated pages


We know that Hogwarts is in Britain, and all students speak English. Thus all the spell we have seen have English dialect. But what about the wizards of countries outside Britain?   Like when Hermione went to France and Ron went to Egypt. I am sure none of those wizards cast their spells in English... but somehow this thing was never discussed or mentioned?  Does this mean that every spell one cast in English has its counter spell in other languages? Each one of the spells in each one of the languages? Then what about the spells that one wizard invents himself and never discloses in  public, like Sectumsempra (Invented by Snape and there could be tons of others from other wizards)?  Does this also mean that other wizards of other countries may have invented spells of their own, in their own language which somehow they have kept secret? There should be a check on things like this. Does the ministry keep track of such spells? If yes then how?

The spells that we know about in the Harry Potter world all seem to be either in Latin, derived from Latin, or resembling Latin.  This makes sense for the European World, but there were likely witches and wizards in Africa, Asia, and the Americas.  These cultures would have developed independently, and the magical people in them would likely have still found ways to cast their spells.  Do cultures with languages that did not derive from Latin use the same words and phrases that are related to Latin for their spells?  Or did they have other phrases based on the languages in their cultures?


So, I know that SR makes two statements. One is the first assumption it has: "Speed of light is the same with respect to all reference frames".  Second, the statement: "A photon cannot have a reference frame". (Please correct me if the statements I wrote are not accurate.)  Aren't these two statements a bit paradoxical? One first says that Speed of this thing is the same with respect to all frames. And then says speed is not defined wrt to it's own frame, because there is no such frame.  The comparison has already been made in assumption one. It's not logical to say in the next statement the opposite, and say that no we are just not comparing with it's own reference frames. It's a contradiction.  Are Physics textbooks not accurate enough? or have I made a mistake somewhere in my thinking.  I don't really want to be correct, but just want to know my mistake.  But, so far, it seems like a Philosophical mistake in SR.  Any statement is only valid under the assumption applied on top of it.  I understand that the photon cannot have a frame of reference, but what I am pointing to, is that a comparison with "All" reference frames has already been made earlier. Before this statement is established that "Photon cannot have a frame of reference".  You cannot compare without defining. This seems like a paradoxical set of statements.  If you look at the current answers, this is exactly what I am referring to. We have a reason from statement 1 itself for statement 2 to be true, but if statement 2 is true, then it violates part of statement 1, because both cannot be absolutely true together.  I agree that statement 2 will follow from statement 1, but if statement 2 follows, then statement 1 cannot be absolutely true, because it was stated first. Statement 2 follows from it through reasoning.  Let me illustrate what I think could be wrong: We make statement 1: "Speed of light is same wrt to all reference frames" These statements are a subset of statement 1: Statement A: " Speed of light is same wrt to A reference frame" Statement B: " Speed of light is same wrt to B reference frame" Statement C: " Speed of light is same wrt to it's own reference frame".    If 1 is true, then A, B , and C all are true, so far.  But, now we say that it follows from 1, that C cannot be true, because there can be no reference frame for photon. This constitutes a contradiction, because C has already been said to be True.

Quite a few of the questions given on this site mention a photon in vacuum having a rest frame such as it having a zero mass in its rest frame. I find this contradictory since photons must travel at the speed of light in all frames according to special relativity.  Does a photon in vacuum have a rest frame?


I just installed ubuntu 20.04 and I noticed that the installation process created a W95 FAT32 partition (mounted at /boot/efi). Why is that? Is that normal? Previously I had a double boot (windows + linux) so I thought it might be related to that. I therefore formatted the whole thing and reinstalled again but the FAT32 partition is still there. Thanks

What is the ESP (EFI System Partition)? I know it relates to UEFI. Would I end up with a bricked computer that wouldn't even boot to UEFI/BIOS if it were to mistakenly get removed? Is it fixable if it does?


How to find which Column in Table (SQL) has the Value We're looking for ? e.g. I need to find "CAR" in My Table "Automobile".. when I know column name I'll write :    select * from Automobile where AutomobileName='CAR'   but consider I don't know which Column contains the Value, then ?

Is it possible to search every field of every table for a particular value in Oracle?  There are hundreds of tables with thousands of rows in some tables so I know this could take a very long time to query. But the only thing I know is that a value for the field I would like to query against is 1/22/2008P09RR8. <  I've tried using this statement below to find an appropriate column based on what I think it should be named but it returned no results.  SELECT * from dba_objects  WHERE object_name like '%DTN%'   There is absolutely no documentation on this database and I have no idea where this field is being pulled from.  Any thoughts?


The Cantor set is usually defined in the following way:  Let $A_1 = [0, 1]$ and \begin{equation}  A_n = A_{n-1} \setminus \bigcup_{k=1}^\infty \left( \frac{1 + 3k}{3^n}, \frac{2 + 3k}{3^n} \right) \textrm{for}\ n > 1 \textrm{.} \end{equation}  Then, the Cantor Set, $\mathcal{C}$, is \begin{equation} \mathcal{C} = \bigcap_{n \in \mathbb{N}} A_n \textrm{.}  \end{equation}  My question is: can't we just define the Cantor Set as \begin{equation} \mathcal{C} = \lim_{n \to \infty} A_n \textrm{.} \end{equation}  Why not? Is it because we haven't already defined what does the limit of such a sequence mean?

The Cantor set, as showed in books and , is defined in terms of $C_k$, the finite Cantor set of level $k$:  $$ \mathcal{C} = \bigcap_{k=1}^\infty C_k $$  But after intersection only the "last" remains, so, why not to define it by a limit?    $$\mathcal{C} = \lim_{k \to \infty} C_k$$  It is perhaps a naive intuition, but I not see a good justification.    (adding here a note after first answer, only for comment the comments)  NOTE: if it is not only a  question of choice of notation, but also about context and semantics. Can I tell an engineer that the intersection is a kind of specification, something like a project to explain "what I need", and the limit is a "what  I get", the end result?    ...Or perhaps the inverse, as suggested by @HansLundmark (thanks the comment! also thnaks @SangchulLee!). I am supposing that $C_k$ is a "decreasing sequence",  $C_1 \supseteq C_2 \supseteq C_3 \supseteq \dotsb$, so using  we can say   "it's natural to define the limit as the intersection: $C_n \to \mathcal{C}$ as $n\to\infty$",   where $\mathcal{C}$ is defined by intersection.  About comment of @LordShark: its is possible to use  "limits" notation in the context of set sequences without "develop a theory" for it?  @HansLundmark's link is a satisfactory answer for it?


I have a bunch of materials I created using Material Library VX. Now I am trying to apply them using Python. I tried the following but it doesn't seem to work with Material Library VX. object = bpy.data.objects[objectName] mat = bpy.data.materials.get("Metal")      if object.data.materials:         object.data.materials[0] = mat     else:         object.data.materials.append(mat)  I noticed this bpy.context.scene.matlib.apply within the plugin.  However, I can't seem to get that to work either. Any idea on how you can apply a material to a specific object name using Material VX?

How can I assign a new material to an object in the scene via Python?


The task is to prove that set of bijections between set of natural numbers is continuum(is equinumerous to the set of real numbers). I have some ideas, like proving that mentioned set is equinumerous  to the set of points in section from 0 to 1, however hasn’t really managed that

The set of permutations of the natural numbers has the cardinality of the continuum. I've got injections in both directions, no problem. The Schröder–Bernstein theorem tells us that this implies the existence of a bijection. I'm wondering if it's possible to construct one explicitly.  (In what follows, I'm using the convention that $0\not\in\Bbb N$. This obviously doesn't change anything, cardinality-wise.)    For $\Bbb R\to S_\Bbb N$, we note that every real number is the limit of some rearrangement of the alternating harmonic series. If $\alpha\in\Bbb R$, we start with positive terms: $1+\frac13+\frac15+\cdots$, until we obtain a partial sum greater than $\alpha$. We then add negative terms until our partial sum is less than $\alpha$, then we switch back to the positive terms, starting with the first unused one, etc.  In this way, we construct a series, and if we take the absolute values of the reciprocals of the terms of it, we have a permutation of $\Bbb N$. This mapping is not onto, because many permutations of the series converge to $\alpha$ - all we have to do is "overshoot" at some point, and then continue converging to $\alpha$ as usual. (More trivially, we only get permutations with $\sigma(1)=1$ using this particular construction.)    In the other direction, if we have a permutation $\sigma\in S_\Bbb N$, we can write the continued fraction $[\sigma(1);\sigma(2),\sigma(3),\ldots]$. This actually injects $S_\Bbb N$ into $\Bbb R\setminus\Bbb Q$, because non-terminating continued fractions represent irrational numbers. Thus, this mapping is not onto; it is not even onto the irrationals.For example, no permutation of $\Bbb N$ maps in this way to any quadratic irrational, or to $e$, or to any other irrational whose c.f. expansion has repeated terms.    So, those injections are fun and all, but finding an explicit bijection seems hard. Clearly, a bijection between $S_\Bbb N$ and any interval would suffice, because there are standard, elementary ways to construct bijections between $\Bbb R$ and any interval.  I have Googled in vain for a solution, and I don't believe this question is a duplicate. I will be happy for a hint or a full solution, or an explanation of why such an explicit construction is impossible.  Full disclosure: someone online claimed that this is "not hard", but refused to explain how, other than mentioning the Cauchy sequence construction of the reals. I don't see how that's useful, and I think he's mistaken or bluffing. I'm not too proud to admit I'm stumped. :/


Let $f: X \to Y$, and $A\subseteq Y$. Show that $f^{-1}(A^c)=(f^{-1}(A))^c$  I know how to prove that $f^{-1}(A^c)\subseteq(f^{-1}(A))^c$, but stuck on proving $(f^{-1}(A))^c\subseteq  f^{-1}(A^c)$. Could someone help with this step please? Thanks.

Let $A,B,C$ be sets such that $C\subseteq B$. Let $f: A \to B$ be a function.  Prove that $f^{-1} (B\setminus C)=A\setminus f^{-1} (C).$   I really need help with this proof problem. I'm not sure where to begin or what strategy to consider using.


As far as I know, as an object gets closer to an event horizon, gravitation time dilation makes it move slower from an outside perspective, so that it looks like it take an infinite amount of time for the object to reach the event horizon. It seems like a similar process should slow the formation of the black hole itself: As the star collapses, its gravitational time dilation makes itself collapse more slowly. This makes me wonder: from a perspective of an outside observer, can a singularity ever form? E.g. someone on earth observers a massive star collapse, forming a black hole. From his perspective, the mass gets closer and closer, but does it ever form a singularity before the black hole evaporates? Furthermore, if from the perspective of a mass collapsing into a black hole, its time slows down and the outside universe "speeds up", could this mean that the black hole evaporates before me, the mass, can become singularity? UPDATE: Let me show you my reasoning and correct me when I'm wrong (I assume I will be at some point): From a far away observer the black hole forms. Over a very long period it evaporates. In the end, it evaporates down to nothing. , the black hole cease to exist, the potential singularity is no more. Now, from a perspective of a massive star: I begin to collapse. All the mass gravitates towards my center. Meanwhile, due to gravitational time dilation from GR, my time ticks slower relative to the rest of the universe. My size crosses the Schwarzschild radius, an Event Horizon is now present. However, now I start to lose mass due to Hawking Radiation. From an outsiders point of view, this is very slow, but from my point of view this is getting faster and faster. Could the singularity form before Black Hole's mass is evaporated?

One thing I know about black holes is that an object gets closer to the event horizon, gravitation time dilation make it move more slower from an outside perspective, so that it looks like it take an infinite amount of time for the object to reach the event horizon. It seems like a similar process should slow the formation of the black hole itself: As the star collapses, its gravitational time dilation make itself collapse more slowly. This make me wonder, are what astronomers claim to be black holes really black holes, or are they stars that progressively make themselves more similar to one without actually reaching the stage of having an event horizon?  EDIT: Contemplating one answer, I realize the question is ambiguous. What does finite time mean in general relativity. Here is a less ambiguous question: Is there a connected solution of 3+1 dimensional general relativity with one space-like slice not have a singularity, and another space-like slice having one.


If a wizard does not move can he cast a second spell in his turn the way melee characters can take extra swings? Also if so, can he still use a quickened spell for a total of three a turn?  I have a level 15 wizard/abjurant champion and was wondering how it worked.

A friend and myself were having a discussion and we had a small disagreement about a rule. He says that if he has a high base attack bonus, say 20/15/10/5, and has a special ability that is activated as a standard action that he can use it 4 times on his round similarly to a full attack action. My argument is that the high base attack bonus only applies to attacks. He says that since a single attack is a standard action the 4 attacks can be replaced by standard actions.  More specifically he says that his god character can use the Hand of Death salient divine power 5 times in a round, 4 for base attack bonus and 1 for haste.  Which one of us is right?


I tried to solve this.But I end up with two types of antiderivative function.Then how to find the definite integral of this function? My results are -2(Sin x/2 -Cos x/2) and 2√(1+sinx).Which one should i use to find definite integral?

To find:  $$\int \sqrt{1+\sin(x)} dx$$  What I  tried:  I put $\tan(\frac{x}{2}) = t$, using which I got it to:  $$I = 2\int \dfrac{1+t}{(1+t^2)^{\frac{3}{2}}}dt$$  Now I am badly stuck. There seems no way to approach this one. Please give a hint. Also, can we initially to some manipulations on the original integral to make it easy? Thank you.


After upgrading from 17.04 to 18.04 I found bootup to be a little slow. After running systemd-analyze blame I get the following output       38.090s snapd.seeded.service      36.432s snapd.service       6.485s NetworkManager-wait-online.service       2.462s keyboard-setup.service       1.784s vmware.service       1.614s apt-daily.service       1.572s ufw.service       1.536s apt-daily-upgrade.service       1.203s dev-sda1.device        482ms upower.service        461ms systemd-journal-flush.service        443ms networkd-dispatcher.service        423ms NetworkManager.service        399ms systemd-logind.service        349ms vmware-USBArbitrator.service        318ms swapfile.swap        308ms dnsmasq.service        305ms udisks2.service        290ms systemd-rfkill.service        280ms systemd-udev-trigger.service        249ms ModemManager.service        237ms systemd-resolved.service        232ms systemd-timesyncd.service   What can I do to reduce the bootup time, specifically these snapped services?

I'be been running 18.04 since a clean SSD install on the day of it's official release, without issues. Power on to login was seconds (max 10)  Then, I did a regular upgrade this morning:  $ sudo apt update && sudo apt dist-upgrade   The packages installed/upgraded were:  Install: linux-headers-4.15.0-24:amd64 (4.15.0-24.26, automatic), linux-headers-4.15.0-24-generic:amd64 (4.15.0-24.26, automatic), linux-modules-extra-4.15.0-24-generic:amd64 (4.15.0-24.26, automatic), linux-modules-4.15.0-24-generic:amd64 (4.15.0-24.26, automatic), linux-image-4.15.0-24-generic:amd64 (4.15.0-24.26, automatic) Upgrade: gnome-control-center-data:amd64 (1:3.28.1-0ubuntu1.18.04.1, 1:3.28.1-0ubuntu1.18.04.2), linux-headers-generic:amd64 (4.15.0.23.25, 4.15.0.24.26), gnome-control-center:amd64 (1:3.28.1-0ubuntu1.18.04.1, 1:3.28.1-0ubuntu1.18.04.2), linux-image-generic:amd64 (4.15.0.23.25, 4.15.0.24.26), linux-signed-generic:amd64 (4.15.0.23.25, 4.15.0.24.26), gnome-control-center-faces:amd64 (1:3.28.1-0ubuntu1.18.04.1, 1:3.28.1-0ubuntu1.18.04.2), linux-generic:amd64 (4.15.0.23.25, 4.15.0.24.26)   I rebooted once the upgrade had completed, and noted a 2-3 minute delay on the Ubuntu loading/splash screen (prior to login) (without any progress/activity indicated on the dots).  I powered off and tried to boot again, but am getting this delay consistently now. Also close down is much slower too.  Update #1 (2018-07-03): Analysis on systemd:  $ sudo systemd-analyze blame 3min 53.073s plymouth-quit-wait.service     2min 20.699s snapd.seeded.service          49.949s snapd.service           6.186s NetworkManager-wait-online.service           1.148s dev-sda2.device           1.098s plymouth-start.service   Showing that plymouth-quit-wait.service (which I now believe is related to the Ubuntu loading/splash screen) and snapd.seeded.service were by far the longest running services to initiate. So I compared the times before the dist-upgrade and after:  $ journalctl -u plymouth-quit-wait.service --since today -- Logs begin at Fri 2018-04-27 13:01:30 BST, end at Tue 2018-07-03 12:38:05 BST. -- Jul 03 04:15:43 user-laptop systemd[1]: Starting Hold until boot process finishes up... Jul 03 04:15:46 user-laptop systemd[1]: Started Hold until boot process finishes up. -- Reboot -- Jul 03 04:21:17 user-laptop systemd[1]: Starting Hold until boot process finishes up... Jul 03 04:24:52 user-laptop systemd[1]: Started Hold until boot process finishes up.   Before the upgrade plymouth-quit-wait.service took 3 seconds. After the upgrade it took 3 minutes 35 seconds  $ journalctl -u snapd.seeded.service --since today -- Logs begin at Fri 2018-04-27 13:01:30 BST, end at Tue 2018-07-03 12:42:14 BST. -- Jul 03 04:15:43 user-laptop systemd[1]: Starting Wait until snapd is fully seeded... Jul 03 04:15:43 user-laptop systemd[1]: Started Wait until snapd is fully seeded. -- Reboot -- Jul 03 04:22:47 user-laptop systemd[1]: Starting Wait until snapd is fully seeded... Jul 03 04:24:49 user-laptop systemd[1]: Started Wait until snapd is fully seeded.   Before the upgrade snapd.seeded.service took 0 seconds. After the upgrade it took 2 minutes 2 seconds.  Update #2 (2018-07-06): This morning's boot saw the return of the delay. So I guess we're still waiting for the kernel/plymouth/snapd update.  Update #3 (2018-07-12): The problem seems to be resolved, but I didn't see any update to snap or plymouth, and I'm still running 4.15.0-24 kernel. So I'm not sure which package update fixed the problem, or if it just resolved itself somehow. Reading the bug updates on launchpad it's unclear to me what was done (or is being done) to what package/s. If anyone can clarify that would be very useful.


I have a Trane XV90 furnace and XL14i AC. The thermostat is old and I want to install a Honeywell Wifi one. Today I just checked the wires and found on the control board R and G are jumpered and the G is not actually connected to the thermostat. So my question is when I install the new thermostat, should I keep the G wire as is or rewire and connect it? Thanks.

I have a Trane XV90 and XL 14i. The wiring looks a little strange as in the picture bellow.                    _____________                   |           |   BK W2  W1   R  G  Y  B/C  YLO O     |___||   |__|  ||   |          |   |     ||   |_____>|----------|         |   |     ||_________>|other wire|         |   |     |           ------------         V   V     V     ---------------     |thermostat   |     ---------------  The R and G are jumpered together and the G wire is connected on the board  but is actually not connecting to the thermostat on the other end. So people told me that means the furnace fan is always on! (In my diagram above, I switched the location of Y and B/C to make diagram easier to draw. You can refer to the photo added below to see the details) My questions are the following  is the jumper between O and Y doing anything? I don't think I have heat pump I need to install Honeywell wifi thermostat and I am thinking of doing either one of the following:   remove jumper between R and G, and use G to connect B/C and then to thermostat C and put jumper between G and Y  leave jumper between R and G, and use G to connect B/C and then to thermostat C and put jumper between G and Y  remove jumper between R and G, connect G on control board to thermostat G, and finally have the spare wire to connect B/C and then thermostat C  leave jumper between R and G, does not connect G to thermostat,  and just use a spare wire to connect B/C on board to thermostat C   Can anyone comment on those plans? Thanks a lot!


In The Force Awakens who is the hologram lord guy whom the Dark Side soldiers and captains consult? He’s in a chair like that US president, and is a hologram, and is gigantic as well as old and alien like looking. Sort of like Voldemort.  Does the film explain who he is?

In The Force Awakens, Kylo Ren and General Hux go talk to someone who is shown as the hologram of a big, weird, and scary guy. They call him “Supreme Leader,” and he seems to be the power behind the ruler.  Who is he? Where does he come from? How was he tied into all of this?


I started the Ubuntu trial from a CD, but can't subsequently install Ubuntu because 'something' (probably from a previous attempt) is on the hard disk, it's not a partition. Now I simply want to reformat the whole disk, how can I do it?

I am running Ubuntu 14.04.2 and I want to format my disk for another operating system (Windows 10).  My desire to do this stems from a recent problem I have been having with installing the new OS. I try to boot from a live DVD (which I have confirmed is working), but my computer does enter the Windows 10 installation setup.  So, I am hoping that completely wiping the disk will solve this issue. Ideally, I want to do this with my only resources being Ubuntu and an internet connection. I can't connect the hard drive to another computer, and it would be difficult for me to have to burn a disc for any reason.  Thank you.


Is there a way to automatically cast an object to a specific type when passing that object into an overloaded method?  I have three classes that all inherit from a base class   class Cat : Animal class Dog : Animal class Tiger : Animal   I have another class, a class that writes to a database (dbInterface) that has an overloaded create method for each of these types  void Create(Cat cat); void Create(Dog dog); void Create(Tiger tiger);   I would like to call a Create method like so  Animal cat = new Cat();  dbInterface.Create(cat);   and I'd like this to call the Create(Cat cat) method specifically. Currently this doesn't happen because cat is type Animal.  Currently what I'm doing that I don't particularly like is I have a generic create method Create(Animal animal) and in that method I check for a valid cast and call the appropriate method.  void Create(Animal animal) {     Cat cat = animal as Cat;     if (cat != null)     {          Create(cat);     } ... for Dog and Tiger too ... }   Is there a better way to do this or am I doing something stupid?

I have heard/read the term but don't quite understand what it means.  When should I use this technique and how would I use it? Can anyone provide a good code sample?


I've a problem with my individualized bullet points in itemize. The text is transparent, but the bullet points aren't. It looks like the following slide: The images for the bullet points are defined in a beamer theme template through: \setbeamertemplate{itemize item}{\includegraphics[height=1.6ex]{Dot_sub.png}} \setbeamertemplate{itemize subitem}{\includegraphics[height=3ex]{Dot_subsub.png}}  I want those defined images to also show up transperant in the beginning. How can I manage that? \begin{frame}[plain] \setbeamercovered{transparent}   \vspace{-0cm} \frametitle{Example slide}  \begin{itemize}     \item <1->one    \item <2->two    \begin{itemize}      \item <3->one      \item <4->two    \end{itemize} \end{itemize}  \end{frame}

With \setbeamercovered{transparent} covered parts of a slide are displayed transparently. If there is a (small) picture among the text, it is shown as it is. Beamer has only this picture, so it shows this picture. My question: How can I give a gray version of the picture to beamer such that in covered parts of a slide, this gray version is used?


Let $f:\Bbb R\to \Bbb R$ be a continuous function such that $f(i)=0\forall i\in \Bbb Z$.  Which of the following is always  true:   $Image(f)$ is closed in $\Bbb R$. $Image(f)$ is open in $\Bbb R$. $f$ is uniformly continuous.   My try:  1.I am unable to find a example here.   False take $f(x)=0$.   3.I am unable to find a example here.  Please give some hints here.

Written with .      Let $f: \Bbb R \to \Bbb R $ be a continuous function such that $f(i) = 0 \ for \ all \ i \in \Bbb Z$. Then which of the following is true : -          A. Image(f) is closed in $\Bbb R$     B. Image(f) is open in $\Bbb R$     C. f is uniformly continuous     D. None of the above   For the correct option, look at the end of the question.     I tried to contradict the options by bringing examples(It was obviously the first step considering 'None of the above was' an option)      I wasn't able to think of a single function that contradicts either of the options. However, graphically I would say that these functions satisfy the hypothesis and contradict the options (Image uploaded)  Here's what the functions are   1) Just like $sin x,$ the function touches 1 and -1. The major difference would be that this function touches the x-axis at all integral values and no where else.  2) The second graph touches the integers and zero and in each interval $(m,m+1)$, the graph's maximum and minimum value tend to increase slightly and they tend to +1 and -1 as $x \to \infty$ Thus, the function gets arbitrarily close to 1 and -1 without touching them.    3) The third graph is just like $x Sin(x)$. The difference is that this one touches the x-axis at integer values. With each interval $(m,m+1)$, our graph has its 'magnitude of difference' increasing.    Are my graphs correct? If they, can they explicitly be expressed as familiar functions? If not, which explicitly express-able  examples can be used to contradict the first three options?  The correct answer is D    Source - Tata Institute of Fundamental Research Graduate Studies Exam 2016


I wonder if there is any possibility to evaluate theoretical characteristics of matter with negative mass? This is not thing of anti-mass but classical matter just with negated weight. I thing that if you would put it on surface of the Earth it would fly to heaven, wouldn't it? Could this be space-freedom redefined problem solution or am I just curious too much?  Can't we simply use working functions/formulas with negate mark?

Since Newtonian gravity is analogous to electrostatics shouldn't there be something called negative mass? Also, a moving charge generates electric field, but why doesn't a moving mass generate some other field?


I've been looking around for answer to this but haven't found solution that works for my situation. I'm pulling in keywords dynamically from the URL and populating the page title with them. They are lower case and I need to find a way to make the first letter of each keyword Uppercase. This is the script I have so far:    var keywords = window.location.href.match(/kw=(.+)/)[1];  var array = keywords.split('+');  document.title = array.join("" + " ");     I thought this would be so simple but have struggled with it.  Any help would be greatly appreciated.  Thanks!  Update: this works     <script type="text/javascript">  var metas = document.getElementsByTagName('meta');      for (var i=0; i<metas.length; i++) {    if (metas[i].getAttribute("property") == "keywords") {      document.title = metas[i].getAttribute("content") + " ";    }     }       var mystr = document.title;  var subs =  mystr.replace(",", " ");  var newtitle = toTitleCase(subs);  document.title = newtitle;    function toTitleCase(str) {    return str.replace(/\w\S*/g, function(txt) {      return txt.charAt(0).toUpperCase() + txt.substr(1).toLowerCase();    });  }     </script>

Is there a simple way to convert a string to Title Case? E.g. john smith becomes John Smith. I'm not looking for something complicated like , just (hopefully) some kind of one- or two-liner.


I would like to remove or restrict access to some phpbb directories

I have several .pdf files, which should be viewed on my website by clicking a link on a page. But when a pdf file opens, in the address bar the directory where all .pdf files reside is visible. So if the user enters http://example.com/myDir in the address bar he will see and be able to download all files at once. But I don't want that!  When I chmod 644 myDir, the files are not visible even for my site - i.e. you can not open them by clicking the link I have mentioned. How to solve this problem?


When I run sudo apt-get install <whatever> it returns the choice to Y or N. Is there any exception to this behavior?     Because recently when I ran similar commands (without -y ) it didn't ask for Y or N. I used  Ctrl + C to interupt the process.

Just for curiosity, sometimes while installing software throught apt-get install software_name the terminal prompt me for a confirmation "type Yes or No", but not allways.  I dont mean the sudo password prompt, but the message "Will be downloaded and configrated XXX Kb, continue?" (or something similar)  Why?


Why this is not work in beamer?  \documentclass[hyperref]{beamer} \usepackage{hyperref} ... \subsubsection{\protect Verification of \eqref{item:c}} ...

Consider the following example:  \documentclass{article}  \usepackage{amsmath} \usepackage{hyperref}  \begin{document}  \begin{align}  \label{func1a}   U(X,Y)   &= 2X + 5Y,\\  \label{func1b}   U(X,Y)   &= (XY)^{0.5},\\  \label{func1c}   U(X,Y)   &= \min(X,Y). \end{align}  \section{The function~\eqref{func1a}}  \end{document}   This produces the following warnings:  Package hyperref Warning: Token not allowed in a PDF string (PDFDocEncoding): (hyperref)                removing `\hbox' on input line 20.   Package hyperref Warning: Token not allowed in a PDF string (PDFDocEncoding): (hyperref)                removing `\mathsurround' on input line 20.   Package hyperref Warning: Token not allowed in a PDF string (PDFDocEncoding): (hyperref)                removing `\z@' on input line 20.   Package hyperref Warning: Token not allowed in a PDF string (PDFDocEncoding): (hyperref)                removing `\unskip' on input line 20.   Package hyperref Warning: Token not allowed in a PDF string (PDFDocEncoding): (hyperref)                removing `\@@italiccorr' on input line 20.   How do I fix this?  P.S. The warnings are caused by .


I have a zig-zag figure I want to import and manipulate in Blender, preferably on a segment-by-segment basis.  The canonical method for doing "line art" in Blender appears to be to create a curve object then, in the Properties, crank up the Bevel Depth to a suitable value.  The problem is that, for "curves" having hard, acute angles, you end up with a very thin, distorted shape.  Here's an example curve.  All handles are set as vectors:    Here's the same curve with a bevel applied.  Note how the generated tube is flattened, making it nearly invisible when viewed along the Z-axis.  The sharper the angles, the thinner the resulting tube:    I'd like uniform "thickness" no matter what angle I view it from (particularly along the Z-axis).  How can I best achieve this?

I can't create a Pipe 3D without annoying shrinkage in the corner of my bezier curve using bevel object. Those are my step.  I create a bezier curve (on 3 axes) transforming two corner in Vector corner (to have a perfect angle)  I generate a circle and using bevel object I sweep the circle along the bezier (3d).  Easy...BUT I can't undestand how to solve the shrinkage in the corners. Other artifacts (such as compenetration) comes when instead using a Vector corner I use a normal (automatic) corner and model it in 90 degree shape.     Thanks


In this  it is explained that  records are immutable by default  But records can be used just like a normal class: using System;  record A {     public int u;     public int U     {         set { u = value; }     }     internal void f() => u++; } record Program {     static void Main()     {         A x = new A() { u = 1000 };         x.U = 100;         x.f();         Console.WriteLine(x);         Console.ReadKey();     } }  What is meant by the immutability of a record?

I am working on creating an immutable class. I have marked all the properties as read-only.   I have a list of items in the class. Although if the property is read-only the list can be modified.   Exposing the IEnumerable of the list makes it immutable. I wanted to know  what is the basic rules one has to follow to make a class immutable ?


I am running Ubuntu 14.04 in VMware on a Windows 10 host. I am trying to install Laravel, I have actually installed Laravel successfully but I want to set the laravel command globally, and in order to do so I tried updating the bash_profile by opening it in nano and then I wrote :  export PATH="$PATH:~/.composer/vendor/bin"   and then saved it. Now when I try to see if the $PATH was successfully updated by typing echo $PATH, it doesn't show me the newly added ~/.composer/vendor/bin path. But when I again open the bash_profile in nano, I can see my export path line in it I recently added. What am I doing wrong?

I was setting path for anaconda. an answer to a question  has the following solution. I searched for .bash_profile, but I can't seem to find it. How do I setup this file and get it to run on startup?


When I build complex design's markup, I can create deep level of nesting div's (15-20 nesting level). If it is impact bad on SEO?

For example, if I wrap my content with
 tags (for no reason, just for arguments sake), would that cause a difference to search engines? Does thinner markup improve SEO?

Text text text text text...

    versus

Text text text text text...

    versus
Text text text text text...
         From an SEO standpoint, are these all equal or not?


I just went on the site and donated the $15 for all services just after confirmation it was paid on paypal my system crashed. I never had the opportunity to download what I paid for and did not give any information as to who I was. So where do I go from here thanks for any help you can give me! Gardener

I would like to see a full how-to guide on how to install Ubuntu.


How can someone get his/her question noticed when there are no replies/comments/answers?  I myself have several questions where...  ... (but it did got me the Tumbleweed badge, not sure if I am proud about that :-)  ...  What is the "best practice" to get your post noticed?

I asked a question almost as soon as I got my account. I got a few decent answers, but none of them helped solve my problem. The question has long since become buried by newer questions, and there's still no accepted answer. Unfortunately, because there are quite a few answers with votes, to a casual observer it probably looks like the question was answered and I just neglected to mark an answer as accepted, and the system does not consider it "unanswered".  Or, I asked a question that was a bit more difficult to answer. After waiting for some time, I received no answers, little or no comments, and only a few views. The question does show up in the "unanswered" list, but no one has answered my question.  In either case, what's the protocol for me to try to get this question answered?  I see several options:   Post the question a second time, possibly linking to the original, to get attention for the original question. This is encouraged on sites like Reddit.  However, it's probably not appropriate here, since we're encouraged to check for duplicates and not submit a question that's already been asked by someone else, so this probably falls under that heading. Wait for some kind of wiki-like talk page to be implemented, then post a plea on the talk page for input and hope that activity on the talk page bumps up the question. Edit the question, but do nothing further on the Stack Exchange site. If I edit my post to say that I haven't accepted any of the current answers but am looking for more, then the question might get answered eventually by people browsing through old questions to find something they can answer. Post the question on other sites, but link to my original question on Stack Exchange. People will either answer here, or they'll answer on the other site and I can post the accepted answer here myself.  This might be considered spamming, so it might be better to do this without the link.      For more information, see the "" page in the .


The Google hybrid layer from the OpenLayers Plugin is no longer working for any of our maps. It's gone completely blank, and uninstalling and reinstalling the plugin hasn't resolved the issue.  Has anyone else experienced this and knows how to address the problem?  Sorry for the vagueness of the question, or if this is a duplication, but I'm still something of a novice with QGIS!

I had done a few projects using Google Physical/Streets as basemaps but now when I re-open those projects all layers appear except for the google basemap (other layers include .kml).   I had previously had this issue when I had a poor internet connection - the basemap would not load - but I now have a good connection so that should not be the problem.  I have also tried starting a new project and adding Google Physical there but likewise nothing appears. In the old projects I have tried removing and re-adding the basemap but no luck.   I have tried uninstalling and re-installing the OpenLayers Plugin (version 1.3.6) but the problem persists. When I use the plugin to add OSM however it does work (but I need Google for these projects).   I have verified the CRS and have it set to WGS 84/Peudo Mercator EPSG:3857  I am using QGIS 2.8.2-Wien on Mac  How do I make Google Physical visible again?


My doctor challenged me to solve this integral and I tried my best, please help me ?! $$ \int \frac{1}{\cos \theta}\, d\theta $$

$$\begin{align} \int \sec x \, dx  &= \int \cos x \left(  \frac{1}{\cos^2x} \right)  \, dx \\ &= \int \cos x \left(  \frac{1}{1-\sin^2x} \right) \, dx \\ & = \int\cos x\cdot\frac{1}{1-\frac{1-\cos2x}{2}} \, dx \\ &= \int \cos x \cdot\frac{2}{1+\cos2x} \, dx  \end{align}$$  I am stuck in here. Any help to integrate secant?


I have two Mac laptops logged into iCloud with same credentials. Now if I run e.g. Chrome then it will bring Chrome icon on the other laptop automatically. That's a good feature to share data/work between them, but how do I disable this feature or hide the icon? I'm running macOS Catalina 10.15.7.

I updated my OS to High Sierra, 10.13.5, and started seeing a weird dock icon pop up whenever I open a mail app on my iPhone. I want to get rid of this feature. Dock Preferences do not seem to have option to remove it. Thanks


Can someone please give me a simple explanation of how to achieve or emulate run-time polymorphism in C.  Also, is this a valid example of runtime-polymorphism:  void fred(){   printf("Fred here!\n");  }  void john(){   printf("John here\n"); }  void barbara ( void (*function_ptr)() ){   (*function_ptr)(); }  int main(){   barbara (fred);   barbara (john);   return 0; }   The function barbara dynamically calls either john() or fred(). Is this what runtime polymorphism exactly is?

Is there a way to write OO-like code in the C programming language?    See also:       Found by searching on "[c] oo".


I've scanned a drawing that has lots of detail. I've image traced it to the 30 colour maximum. I've expanded it so it's editable. I want to change the colours of this drawing. Because there is so much detail with many colours right next to eachother, I have to do ENDLESS clicking to select a colour and change it.   Is there a way for me to just select something, and the programme to select every colour that is the same in the drawing out of the 30 colour limit so I can change the colours easily?   thanks for any replies!!!

I have a group of objects of the same colour, consisting of compound paths, regular paths and groups of these. How to change the colour of all objects at once? When I tried to use colour picker or change it through color palette the colour remained the same but the graphics was rendered with a very tiny outline of the new colour, which I guess is not printable. Usually I had to change the colour of all objects individually.  Edit: I'm sorry if I was not too precise. I mean to apply new colour / swatch to all member objects of the group at once, not to change properties of a commonly shared swatch.    Edit 2: I received very useful answers, however my goal was to pick a colour from another object, serving as a source. When I tried to select all objects, for example with ctrl-a, and then use a eyedropper to pick up a desired colour, it didn't work for some objects in some groups. Please have a look at my answer where several methods are listed.


In python, I have a class that contains a list as one of its members.  class fan_details:     name = ""     previous_addresses = []     age = 0   fans = []  x.name = "Joe Blow" x.previous_address.append("4, seaview rd") x.age = 42; fans.append(x)  x.previous_address.pop(0)  x.name = "Jimmy Flag" x.previous_address.append("21, Main Street") x.age = 33; fans.append(x)  print fans[0].previous_address print fans[1].previous_address   The two last print statements would print out "21, Main Street". It looks like the append() is like a pointer in C as the fans[0].previous address is the same as fans[1].previous address.  Is there a way of keeping fans[0].previous_address to "4, seaview rd"?  Please bear with me as I am a noob in Python.  Thanks in advance.

Is there any meaningful distinction between:  class A(object):     foo = 5   # some default value   vs.  class B(object):     def __init__(self, foo=5):         self.foo = foo   If you're creating a lot of instances, is there any difference in performance or space requirements for the two styles? When you read the code, do you consider the meaning of the two styles to be significantly different?


Consider the conversation below. Is the last question correct?     A: What did you think about it?   B: I thought it was terrible.   A: You thought it was terrible?   It sounds a bit strange without the auxiliary verb.

Examples:   "She said you were here and saw everything."   "She said WHAT?" "They are going to Swaziland in November."   "They are going WHERE?"   People stress the interrogative pronoun usually because of surprise, indignation, or even doubt about having heard the right word.


The problem with which I have a problem it's this:  For $a,b,c>0$ prove that $$ \frac{a^2}{b} +  \frac{b^2}{c} +  \frac{c^2}{a} \geqslant a + b + c + \frac{4(a - b)^2}{a + b + c} $$  Titu's Lemma and AM-GM work no good because this similar looking inequality is sharper. After trying these, I decided to go for the following. Here is my work: Multiply $abc(a + b + c)$ to both the sides, $$ (a + b + c) (a^3c + ab^3 + bc^3) \geqslant abc(a^2 + b^2 + c^2 + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca) + 4abc (a - b) ^2 $$ After some work we are left to prove that: $$ \sum_{cyc} {a^2b^3 + ab^4 - 2a^2 b^2 c} \geqslant abc(4 a^2 + 4 b^2 - 8ab) $$ How to prove this or there is some better approach? This inequality was the first in a list of many inequalities, but I don't think that means it is easy. Thanks for help!

For $a,b,c>0$, prove that $$\frac{a^2}{b}+\frac{b^2}{c}+\frac{c^2}{a}\ge a+b+c+\frac{4(a-b)^2}{a+b+c}.$$ (Source : Balkan Mathematical Olympiad 2005)  My work: From the given inequality, we can have, $$\frac{(a-b)^2}{b}+\frac{(b-c)^2}{c}+\frac{(c-a)^2}{a}\ge \frac{4(a-b)^2}{a+b+c}$$ This can be re-written as, $$(a+b+c)\left(\frac{(a-b)^2}{b}+\frac{(b-c)^2}{c}+\frac{(c-a)^2}{a}\right)\ge 4(a-b)^2$$ Now, what am I supposed to do? I am doubtful whether the question is correct or not. Please help. EDIT: After checking quite a few cases I conclude that the inequality is actually working. So there might not be any mistakes at all.


How to find multiple blank lines in Notepad++ and join the the separated text lines with a macro?  Below is screenshot of the file, where I want a macro to find out this blank line and correct the SEE and FIGURE should come to one line.


Find the positive integers $n$ with exactly $12$ divisors $1 = d_1 < d_2 < · · · < d_{12} = n$ such that the divisor with index d4 (that is, $d_{d_4 − 1}$) is $(d_1 + d_2 + d_4)d_8$ It said that there exists an $1<i<12$ such that $d_i = d_1+d_2+d_4$, but the book did not explain why, it does not seem trivial for me

Find a number $n$ which has      $12$ divisors $(1 = d_1 < d_2 < \cdots <d_{12}=n )$ and    $d_{d_4-1}=(d_1+d_2+d_4)d_8$.       Note: This is a problem from Russian Mathematical Olympiad 1989. I think this is related with  one. But this seems harder to me.


I need a proof for the inequality: $\sum_{i=0}^{t-2}{\frac{1}{t+3i}} \leq \frac{1}{2}$ for all natural numbers $t \geq 2$. For $t=2$ both sides are equal.  Can someone find a proof for all $t$? maybe by proving monotonicity (non-increasing) in $t$?

I'm struggling with proving the following inequality: $$\sum_{i=0}^{t-2}{\frac{1}{t+3i}} \leq \frac{1}{2}$$  for all $t \geq 2$. I think it is monotonic non-increasing in $t$, which would suffice.  Thanks in advance!


This question is really very basic: how do we deal with irrationals in Physics? If for instance, in some meaningful calculation we get a length of $\pi$ meters, or a force of $\pi$ Newtons, how should we understand this? One could say: "well, we understand it as a rational approximation", but then there comes another question: which rational approximation? We can approximate $\pi$ by $3,14$ or $3,1415$ and so forth, increasing the precision, but yet never getting really to $\pi$.  Another problem is: well, the equations gave us $\pi$, and this is not a physically meaningful thing, so is there something wrong with the equation? Because, in nature I think there really isn't irrationals lurking arround, so that this becomes a little complicated.  So: how do we deal with irrationals in Physics?

Suppose I have a  that is infinitely precise. Also suppose that this caliper returns not a number, but rather whether the precise length is rational or irrational.  If I were to use this caliper to measure any small object, would the caliper ever return an irrational number, or would the true dimensions of physical objects be constrained to rational numbers?


Can't get stdio.h directory even after using the libc6 installing command. Terminal prints the following:  Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree        Reading state information... Done Package libc6-dev is not available, but is referred to by another package. This may mean that the package is missing, has been obsoleted, or is only available from another source E: Package 'libc6-dev' has no installation candidate

There are now errors when updating and I cannot install most software due to a corrupted  /etc/apt/sources.list   file. Is there a copy I can download to replace it?  The file would be for Ubuntu 12.04 (Final Beta) in the United States.


I'm new here,  was my first question. Got an answer quite fast, but can't accept it. I'm logged in, can edit my question, but don't see any checkmarks to accept answers at all (tried in Google Chrome and Opera). Don't see any means to raise the "karma" of the person who answered either.  BTW, the answer never came to my e-mail, even though I checked that option.

Sometimes I have asked a question which got no answers, but is answered in the comments to the question.  How should I handle these questions? I can't accept an answer, so it is never an accepted question.  For example this one:   (ok here the answer in the comments is from me, but nevertheless I also have others of them)


I've read that function composition "generally does not commute."  Not counting compositions involving the identity function, and compositions of a function and its inverse, are there examples of functions on the reals (for example) $f, g$ where $fg = gf$ outside of these cases?

Today I was thinking about composition of functions.  It has nice properties, its always associative, there is an identity, and if we restrict to bijective functions then we have an inverse.  But then I thought about commutativity.  My first intuition was that bijective self maps of a space should commute but then I saw some counter-examples. The symmetric group is only abelian if $n \le 2$ so clearly there need to be more restrictions on functions than bijectivity for them to commute.  The only examples I could think of were boring things like multiplying by a constant or maximal tori of groups like $O(n)$ (maybe less boring).  My question: In a euclidean space, what are (edit) some nice characterizations of sets of functions that commute? What about in a more general space?   Bonus: Is this notion of commutativity important anywhere in analysis?


I want to convert UTC time zone to local time zone. I use this code to convert from long object to UTC date time.  public class LongToDateTimeConverter : IValueConverter {     DateTime _time = new DateTime(1970, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0);      public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture)     {         long dateTime = (long)value;          return $"{_time.AddSeconds(dateTime).ToString("HH:mm:ss tt")} UTC";     }      public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture)     {         throw new NotImplementedException();     }  After I display the utc time zone with this code:  <Label Text="{Binding WeatherDataCurrent.Sys.Sunrise, Converter={StaticResource longToDateTimeConverter}}"                                 HorizontalTextAlignment="Center"                                Grid.Row="1"                                Grid.Column="0"                                TextColor="White"                                FontAttributes="Bold"/>  How to convert this UTC time to local  time ?

There is this example code, but then it starts talking about millisecond / nanosecond problems.  The same question is on MSDN, .  This is what I've got so far:  public Double CreatedEpoch {   get   {     DateTime epoch = new DateTime(1970, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0).ToLocalTime();     TimeSpan span = (this.Created.ToLocalTime() - epoch);     return span.TotalSeconds;   }   set   {     DateTime epoch = new DateTime(1970, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0).ToLocalTime();     this.Created = epoch.AddSeconds(value);   } }


I am trying to make a delay of 1 minute in a redstone circuit.  That would require 600 ticks. That s a lot of repeaters going to be used. Is there other ways of getting a 1 minute (or even longer) delays in a redstone circuit?

The only things I've found so far are a cart method (which ceased working in 1.6), a dispenser method (utilizing the decay on dropped items, but this requires occasional feeding), and a binary counter (which won't work for a single input but rather a fluctuating one).  I want to have a circuit that when I apply an input signal, the output signal doesn't change for 2 to 5 minutes.  When the input turns off, I again want a 2 to 5 minute delay.  I could accomplish this with (roughly) 240 to 600 redstone repeaters, but this is far in excess of being useful.  The only method I can think of, but would require a XOR gate (on the button-input and final output) to start and stop a clock attached to a binary counter.  While I can make room for a device of this size, I was hoping for something simpler.


Did the passing of time come before everything else? As in, how long was there "nothing"? And if we can put a time on that, wouldn't time itself be something? And if so, is time the thing that "always was, always is and always will be"? Will time always exist, even if there was nothing else out there? I feel like it would have too. And is it possible for time and space to be the same thing? Like could time, space, and distance be the same thing?

Did spacetime start with the Big Bang?  I mean, was there any presence of this spacetime we are experiencing now before big bang? And could there be a presence/existence of any other space-time before the big bang?


Went to a porn site using safari and suddenly a flashing message came to the screen, Big mistake on my part but can it be fixed.  Two messages one says Print option and goes up the screen then down to disappear then up again like a jumping jack. The screen behind says at Top safari-securityalert.com and the actual screen says "Contact Support and gives a Telephone number Support  1 844 749-1071.  Also says my "iPad has been locked due to detected illegal activity. Call Immediately and says call Apple Support to unlock".  I very much doubt this is an Apple telephone number.      . I have not been able to exit the site as it keeps flashing and jumping and no matter how many times I hit the X, nothing happens. I have rebooted twice. Can this be a virus or malware from going to a Safari site? What to do to remedy.  Is this a virus? How can I get out of this cycle of jumping jack message?

When I went to a website in Safari, it opened up another website with popups claiming my iPad has a virus.  I deleted some of my apps to try and get rid of the virus, but the popup keeps showing up every time I open Safari. Can someone help me?


Is there a way to achieve the following:  calculate_fun(self.key1="some_value", self.key2="another_value")   Basically use a variable as the key for a Keyword variable.  Currently, if I try this it errors out as it is not accepting a variable on the left hand side of the "=" sign. It is expecting something in the form of:  calculate_fun(field1="some_value", field2="another_value")   But that means that I need to hardcode field1 and field2. I would like the keyword to be a variable so I can change it at runtime, hence field1 can become field55 at runtime.

Does python have the ability to create dynamic keywords?  For example:  qset.filter(min_price__usd__range=(min_price, max_price))   I want to be able to change the usd part based on a selected currency.