A friend described a book he remembered reading as "It was set in a future dystopia ruled by an aristocracy fitted with mental implants. At a certain age, all children got fitted with an implant, and those whose bodies accepted the implants became/remained part of the social elite, and those who rejected it became slaves (shaved heads were important somehow in this whole process - I THINK the slaves all had shaved heads).  The story was written from the point of view of a child of one of the most elite elites, as their social group approached their implant fittings.   In the end of the story, one of the child's close friends becomes a slave, and the child finds out that who will reject their implant, and hence become a slave, is in fact decided in advance and is done to maintain the status quo.  It would have been young-adult SciFi, PROBABLY written before the '80s."  It sounds very familiar but no matter what I search for or try to remember I can't get anywhere. Does anyone recognize this plot?

I need an ID on a (probably young adult) sci-fi novel I don't remember finishing.  I read it sometime in the late nineties or early noughties. The library book didn't show any obvious indications of age that I recall. The book was in Finnish but I think it was a translation. The cover image was a person with long chains of cabled-together cylinders projecting diagonally upward from the back of their neck. It almost looked like they were hooked into something by those.  The main protagonist is a young nobleman, I think the term was "Lord", from a ruling family. This class of nobleman is characterized by having databank neural implants dangling from the back of their neck. These databanks are heavy enough to affect the wearer's posture, and the result was described as a lordly slouch.  The story starts with the main character's coming of age ceremony, where they get the databank implants. There's a scene where the character gets a new set of clothes for the occasion, with his family crest cleverly worked into the decorative patterns by his mother.  After the actual implantation, the ceremony is interrupted by a coup of some sort. The main character has some trouble evading pursuit because he is wearing his family crest prominently. Somehow, he ends up outside the city, which is on some sort of stilts. For whatever reason, he can't return to the city, maybe he locked himself out or he was hiding from the coup.  This results in the character's first experience of being outside. I remember a scene where he's looking at the moon and pulls the hard data on said celestial body from his databanks, and then decides to look up poetry instead.   Some time later, the main character ends up living in a village of outsiders. The last scene I remember is that one night he overhears the men in the village singing about how their people had once been slaves to the Lords. That's where my recollection of the plot ends.  It is not  by Walter John Williams; the story didn't mention splitting one's consciousness, and in the Aristoi setting the databank seems to be "in the cloud" rather than as external add-ons.


I am developing a theme (which I am calling AsylumInfo) that gets built into a directory call /build and I have symlink from there to the wordpress setup on my computer.   When I use wp-admin I get the notification below. When I go to the theme chooser page and click 'update theme' button I see the following,.    When I click on the View version 1.13 link I get taken to . In other words Wordpress appears to be looking at the directory name, not the theme name, before trying to find a non-existent update online. By private theme has no link at all to this published theme and I want Wordpress to stop thinking that I need to upgrade.  How can I get rid of this?  I imagine one option is renaming /build to /asyluminfo, which I can do but can't be necessary. Another is set the version of my theme to something > 1.13, but that's also arbitrary.  I can't believe this hasn't happened to someone else before?

We have a totally custom theme that we have built in house, recently the WordPress updater has started saying the theme is out of date.     When I investigated this supposed update it links me to a similarly named theme in the WordPress theme directory but one that is not developed by us.    We normally update our themes manually either through the filesystem or FTP. We have never submitted our theme to the WordPress directory nor do we have a mechanism or infrastructure to allow our themes to "phone home" to check for updates.  What is going on here? How do I stop it misreporting the theme update? I really want to stop this behaviour to prevent an over eager customer trying to update the theme to this one and breaking their site.


Each cereal box contains 1 of 5 uniformly distributed prizes.  If you open 10 randomly selected boxes, what is the probability that you will get all 5 prizes?  More generally, is there a formula you can use to solve this when the number of prizes is x and the number of boxes is y?

I'm trying to solve the well known Coupon Collector's Problem by explicitly finding the probability distribution (so far all the methods I read involve using some sort of trick). However, I'm not having much luck getting anywhere as combinatorics is not something I'm particularly good at.   The Coupon Collector's Problem is stated as:  There are $m$ different kinds of coupons to be collected from boxes. Assuming each type of coupon is equally likely to be found per box, what's the expected amount of boxes one has to buy to collect all types of coupons?  What I'm attempting:  Let $N$ be the random variable associated with the number of boxes one has to buy to find all coupons. Then $P(N=n)=\frac{|A_n|}{|\Omega _n|}$, where $A_n$ is the set of all outcomes such that all types of coupons are observed in $n$ buys, and $\Omega _n$ is the set of all the possible outcomes in $n$ buys. I think $|\Omega _n| = m^n$, but I'm not even sure about that anymore, as all my attempts so far led to garbage probabilities that either diverged or didn't sum up to 1.


Given a $3\times 3$ symmetric matrix  \begin{equation}  M= \begin{pmatrix} A & B & C \\ B & D & E \\  C & E & F\\  \end{pmatrix}, \end{equation}  how do I find the eigenvalues? Brute-forcing it by looking at the roots of the characteristic polynomial seems overwhelming.  Are there any properties of symmetric matrices that might simplify the problem or am I overlooking something?

How do we find general information about the eigenvalues of an arbitrary 3x3 symmetric matrix without resorting to explicitly computing the solutions to the cubic characteristic equation?:  \begin{bmatrix}     a   & b & c  \\     b    & d & e \\     c & e &f \end{bmatrix}  (In this case the sum and product of the eigenvalues, and the sum of the reciprocals of the eigenvalues.) Since diagonalization preserves the trace and determinant of matrices, would it be best to just find the corresponding diagonal matrix and read off the sum and product of the eigenvalues from there? The problem is I can't think of a way to diagonalize a matrix without explicitly computing the eigenvalues.


An external 3½" HDD seems to be in danger of failing — it's making .  I've acquired a replacement drive, and want to know the best strategy to get the data off of the dubious drive with the best chance of saving as much as possible.  There are some directories that are more important than others.  However, I'm guessing that picking and choosing directories is going to reduce my chances of saving the whole thing.  I would also have to mount it, dump a file listing, and then unmount it in order to be able to effectively prioritize directories.  Adding in the fact that it's time-consuming to do this, I'm leaning away from this approach.  I've considered just using dd, but I'm not sure how it would handle read errors or other problems that might prevent only certain parts of the data from being rescued, or which could be overcome with some retries, but not so many that they endanger other parts of the drive from being saved.  I guess ideally it would do a single pass to get as much as possible and then go back to retry anything that was missed due to errors.  Is it possible that copying more slowly — e.g. pausing every x MB/GB — would be better than just running the operation full tilt, for example to avoid any overheating issues?  For the "where is your backup" crowd: this actually is my backup drive, but it also contains some non-critical and bulky stuff, like music, that aren't backups, i.e. aren't backed up.  The drive has not exhibited any clear signs of failure other than this somewhat ominous sound.  I did have to fsck a few errors recently — orphaned inodes, incorrect free blocks/inodes counts, inode bitmap differences, zero dtime on deleted inodes; about 20 errors in all.  The filesystem of the partition is ext3.

Windows asks me to reformat every time I plug it into my computer, so I fired up Ubuntu via VirtualBox (selecting the external hard drive in the USB settings for VirtualBox beforehand) to see if I can access it there.  Does anyone have any suggestions for me? I have over 1TB of data on this drive and do not want to lose it. When I plug it into an electrical outlet, the light turns on, and when I plug it into my laptop, I can feel it clicking.


I don't know why but I get this pop-up 5-10 times in a day. It is very frustrating that I have to re-enter the password again and again.  I tried cancelling it but appears again.    I followed the steps shared as the answer , but unable to fix this problem.   Can anyone have idea how to fix the problem that this popup did not get appeared repeatedly?

Periodically, I'm seeing this keychain dialog pop up:    I click 'Cancel', then it pops up again, then I click 'Cancel' again, and it goes away for a while.  (Maybe an hour or two, I haven't timed it.)  I haven't noticed anything not working right.  What's going on here?  If it matters, this is OS X 10.8.2.


I'm from Spain and I will be backpacking around Eastern Europe next month. I will visit some countries where Euro is the official currency (like Slovakia) and I'll also visit some other countries like Hungary or Serbia where they have a different currency.  I thought that it might be possible to pay using euros in all those countries because they receive a lot of tourists from Western Europe and they share borders with some euro-countries.   I think that I will be visiting only major cities.  So, my question is: Is it possible to pay using euros in those countries?  In case the answer is no or it is not recommended to do so (for instance, because is much more expensive to do so than to pay using the local currency), what would you recommend me to do?    P.S. I found  which was helpful to me but I don't know if the situation has changed from the time it was asked or if the situation is different in some other countries.  EDIT: The countries that I'm planning to visit and don't have Euro as their currency are Hungary, Serbia, Croatia and possibly Romania. The situation in Hungary is now clear for me thanks to . But I would be still interested to know if the same applies in the other countries that I've mentioned.

The official currency of Hungary is the Forint but so far everything I have looked for prices online, such as trains, buses and taxis, are quoted in Euros and Forints. Hotel reservation asked that I pay in Euros at the hotel. Considering that I will only spend a few days in Budapest, are Forints necessary? Or can I pay for transport, admissions and food in Euros? In such a case, how is the conversion rate set?


I'm trying to extrude the selected face in Cube #1 by pressing E, left click then move along X axis. The desired result is Cube #3 but what I get is Cube #2. Is there any workaround for this as it seems a very simple problem and I find it weird that this function hasn't been implemented yet. Thank you in advance!

In sketchup the extruding is similar to blender, but when I pull down it is different. I have a cube in sketchup and added 2 edges, and with the center face I pull down and it cuts to make the u shape. Sketchup  I tried something similar in Blender, but it did not work. After adding loop cut when pull down it created extra faces that I have delete and it adds more work to do. Is there any method or how can i make a simple way cut or extrude downwards? With the boolean can cut in sketchup, it's a simple way just to extrude downward and get what I want. Any suggestion or help which and make my work faster with this simple methods? Blender


Must the derivative at a point be finite? A phrase I've seen in videos and textbooks is that the 'derivative at that point exists'. But since the derivative is a limit, namely $$ \lim_{x \to a} \frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x-a}$$ isn't it possible for this limit to tend to $+ \infty$ or $-\infty$ ? Or is it the case that the derivative must be finite and even when this part is not mentioned this is always understood from context? Thanks!

I've been having a few questions about infinite derivative for a long time now. I think to answer these questions involves dealing with properties of limit, hope someone can help. Thanks!  1). Does writing the derivative of a function as a function lose information? For example, the function $y = x^{1/3}$ has a derivative that evaluates to infinite at $x = 0$. But its derivative is undefined at the point, we only know it $\lim_{x\to0} y$ is infinite.   2). I know that most calculus textbooks consider having an infinite derivative to be not differentiable at that point, which means we are not allowed to apply chain rule and product rule. However, am I guaranteed to get a wrong answer if I apply them to cases where derivatives are infinite, or are there cases where it is still legal to do so(by the nature of dealing with infinite limits)?  3). The slope at $t = c$ on a curve defined by parametric equations $y = f(t)$ and $x = g(t)$ is $dy/dx = (dy/dt)/(dx/dt)$. When both $dy/dt$ and $dx/dt$ equals $0$ at $t = c$, the textbook applies l'Hospital's rule to find $\lim_{t\to c} dy/dx$ and thereby determines the slope at $t = c$. But why should we turn to find the limit of the derivative as $t\to c$ instead of the derivative itself at $t = c$?


I want to search for a string and limit that search to certain sites.  For instance I may want to search   Google TV site:walmart.com Google TV site:amazon.com Google TV site:bn.com Google TV site:bestbuy.com Google TV site:toysrus.com   I want to be able to type in the string each time, but limit the search to those domains, it's ok if each are in a seperate window.  Any ideas?

I want to limit my Google search query to a set of websites. I am using the Opera Mini browser on my tablet for searching.


If I have a question about an open source project on GitHub, is it considered good or bad etiquette to open a new issue for that project on GitHub and post the same question on Stack Overflow (or other, appropriate SE site)?

I made a question at Stack Overflow long ago and also posted the same question in a non-Stack Exchange website (Xtreme VB Talk). The question .  According to the answer, I shouldn't have cross-posted between Stack Overflow and XtremeVBTalk, because     it increases the probability that wires will get crossed and everyone will waste time.   But I'm not sure why is that wrong. You see, I simply see Stack Overflow and XtremeVBTalk as two different communities with different users. So posting the question in both sites would just give me more answers. And if I got the answer in one of them, I would report back to the other site and let everyone know (and perhaps someone else would be benefited as well). I really doubt it is a waste of time - the more input, the better. The fact that someone was a user in both websites is simply a coincidence.  I realize that Meta Stack Exchange question  exists, but apparently it involves cross-posting within Stack Exchange sites, but this is about external websites instead.  I also realize that I was told that as "advice" (since my question was not flagged or anything), but well, I am now curious: Why would anyone consider this a bad practice?


I am wondering how to type those kinds of symbols in LATEX. Please help me.      Thank you very much!

I know what my symbol or character looks like, but I don't know what the command is or which math alphabet it came from. How do I go about finding this out?


If when I am hungry I can command someone to "feed me", what is the equivalent command when I am thirsty? For years I have joked with friends that it must be "quench me", however, I doubt that this is right.

I can say "I feed someone". Am I forced to say "I give someone a drink", or is there a single word for this (as in "I [verb] someone")?  Unfortunately my thesaurus can't really help me.


When flagging a question on SO as offtopic and suggesting migration, math and cs are not on the list of site where it can be moved to (there are only meta, superuser, tex, dba and sharepoint). I sometimes stumble over questions that appear in CS context and are mostly math, so they should belong to one of these sites. Are these cases so seldom that they do not appear on the lists of valid suggested migrations or are there other reasons? If this is not the case, I would suggest adding these alternatives.

I think there should be more Stack Exchange networks available when flagging a question to be migrated. For example I'd think that the following question:    ...would be a better fit on unix.stackexchange.com instead of Stack Overflow. But without the option to mark it so, I feel hesitant to mark it.


I've just installed Ubuntu 14.04.3 in VirtualBox 5.0.14, and got the usual problem of only being able to get 640x480 screen resolution.   I ran sudo apt-get install virtualbox-guest-dkms, restarted virtual box; no change.  I ran Xdiagnose with all diagnostic options checked - now I have a choice of 640x480 and 1024x768. Well, that's better, but still not good enough.  I go to System Settings | Software & Updates | Additional drivers, and under InnoTek Systemberatung GmbH: VirtualBox Graphics Adapter select "Using x86 virtualisation solution-X11 guest utilities from virtual-guest-x11 (proprietary)" and click apply. The computer thinks about it for a few moments, then changes my selection back to "Do not use the device".  So what next? How do I get bigger screen sizes?

I've recently installed Ubuntu on Oracle's Virtualbox.  Now I want to install the guest additions.  I started up my Ubuntu guest OS, clicked "Devices" and chose "Install Guest Additions". Nothing happened, and I don't see the CD icon on my desktop.  How can I make this work?


So I'm trying to make a set of methods that find the mode of a set of ints given to it (in the form of an array), and return an array holding all of the modes, including the possibility of no modes. I sat down for a while writing these snippets of code and I couldn't get it to work, after extensive debugging. The code isn't in great style but I just want to know if anyone could figure out what is going wrong. By the way, the main() method is just there to test out the method. Here's the code:  public static int[] getMode(int[] numset) {     Map<Integer, Integer> vals = new HashMap<Integer, Integer>();     ArrayList<Integer> modes = new ArrayList<Integer>();     int highCount = 0;      for(int num : numset) {         if(vals.containsKey(num))             vals.put(num, vals.get(num) + 1);         else             vals.put(num, 0);            }      if(allValuesEqual(vals)) return new int[0];      for(int key : vals.keySet()) {         if(vals.get(key) > highCount) {             highCount = vals.get(key);         }     }      for(int key : vals.keySet()) {         if(vals.get(key) == highCount)             modes.add(key);     }      int[] mode = new int[modes.size()];     int count = 0;     for(int num : modes) {         mode[count] = num;         count++;     }       return mode; }  private static boolean allValuesEqual(Map<Integer,Integer> vmap) {     ArrayList<Integer> a = new ArrayList<Integer>();     for(int key : vmap.keySet()) {         a.add(vmap.get(key));     }      for(int i = 0, n = a.size(); i < n; i++) {         if(a.get(i) != a.get(0) && i != 0)             return false;     }     return true; }  public static void main(String[] args) {     int[] array = {6,10,10};     System.out.println(getMode(array)); }   The result: [I@677327b6. I am utterly stumped. Any ideas?

In Java, arrays don't override toString(), so if you try to print one directly, you get the className + '@' + the hex of the  of the array, as defined by Object.toString():  int[] intArray = new int[] {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}; System.out.println(intArray);     // prints something like '[I@3343c8b3'   But usually, we'd actually want something more like [1, 2, 3, 4, 5]. What's the simplest way of doing that? Here are some example inputs and outputs:  // Array of primitives: int[] intArray = new int[] {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}; //output: [1, 2, 3, 4, 5]  // Array of object references: String[] strArray = new String[] {"John", "Mary", "Bob"}; //output: [John, Mary, Bob]


How can i have two or more ISO file that made for Boot (Bootable ISO), in One CD or DVD to boot ? I have two different anti-viruses (Live Rescue) and i want to use them in one CD or DVD and switch between them from a DOS Command-Line (That is on the CD/DVD). How can i do this ?

I have many CD ISOs downloaded from the Internet. They are each about 100 MB in size and consist of repair/diagnostic programs and other tools. Some of them are Linux-based; others are based on DOS clones, like FreeDOS. I want to put all of the ISOs onto one bootable DVD, so that when I use the DVD, I will get a menu prompting me to select the ISO I want to boot. How can I do this? I've seen some rescue CDs that are combinations of other people's ISOs, but I have no idea how they were made.  Regarding bounty: I, a different person than the OP, have placed a bounty on this question for a solution that meets ALL of these criteria:  Is for DVDs (not flash drives!!!) Is free Works with any ISO file, regardless of original OS


The command that I typed into Terminal was  sudo add-apt-repository ppa:cairo-dock-team/ppa   It then says to enable PPA in list of repositories, and gives more commands to enter. After entering those, it says that I have held broken packages. What does this mean, and how do I fix it?

Occasionally, when I'm installing stuff, I get an error like the following:  Some packages could not be installed. This may mean that you have requested an impossible situation or if you are using the unstable distribution that some required packages have not yet been created or been moved out of Incoming. The following information may help to resolve the situation:  The following packages have unmet dependencies:  package1 : Depends: package2 (>= 1.8) but 1.7.5-1ubuntu1 is to be installed E: Unable to correct problems, you have held broken packages.   How can I resolve this?


I started investing in the stock market last year. I've read tons of information and tried different products.  My knowledge about compound interest is, when you invest in one stock, get 5% return, you use this 5% to buy more stocks and then make interest based on your new stack of stocks.   There are ETFs and robo advisers which will automatically do this for you.  But, I have my stocks on my broker (around 7 companies at the moment). I have currently a 8% gain.  How do I sell/buy to "compound" my interest?  Do i sell one company completely and buy a new one? Do I sell 8% worth of stocks and buy more of one or more companies?

I've read Einsteins quote stating "The most powerful force in the universe is compound interest." However, everywhere I read this is basically only possible with dividend paying stocks and then applying a dividend reinvestment plan.  Is there a re-investing strategy like this for non-dividend paying mutual funds (or even non-dividend paying stock)? I figured that the only way would be to sell all your funds and then buy x+1 funds again, but this would cause a big loss because of transaction costs from the broker.


With up-to-date Intel drivers (HD4000) on Ubuntu 14.04 with Unity, rotating the screen xrandr -o leftbreaks the vsync and induces a lot of tearing (mostly vertical one when dragging a window), I get no tearing on a non-rotated screen.  The tear-free option seems disabled:  $ cat /var/log/Xorg.0.log | grep Tear [    18.316] (**) intel(0): "Tear free" disabled   But in 14.04, I can't find a xorg.conf with the intel device configuration to pass the TearFree option.

As Ubuntu 10.10 seems to neither detect my graphics card (Intel 82852/855GM) automatically nor use the corresponding Intel driver even after manually installing it, I am looking into manually configuring X (shouldn't I?). Where can I find the configuration files I need to edit?


I'm a beginning student of Probability and Statistics and I've been reading the book Elementary Probability for Applications by Rick Durret.  In this book, he outlines the 4 Axioms of Probability.   For any event $A$, $0 \leq P (A) \leq 1$. If $\Omega $ is the sample space then $P (\Omega) =1$. If $A$ and $B$ are disjoint, that is, the intersection $A \cap B = \emptyset$, then $$P(A\cup B) = P(A) + P(B)$$ If $A_1, A_2,\ldots$, is an infinite sequence of pairwise disjoint events (that is, $A_i\cap A_j = \emptyset$ when $i \neq j $) then  $$P\left(\bigcup_{i=1}^\infty A_i\right)=\sum_{i=1}^\infty P(A_i).$$   The book fails to explain why we need Axiom 4. I have tried searching on Wikipedia but I haven't had any luck. I don't understand how we can have a probability of disjoint infinite events. The book states that when the you have infinitely many events, the last argument breaks down and this is now a new assumption. But then the book states that we need this or else the theory of Probability becomes useless.   I was wondering if there were any intuitive examples of situations where this fourth axiom applies.   Why is it so important for probabilty theory? And why does the author state that not everyone believes we should use this axiom.

In probability theory, it is (as far as I am aware) universal to equate "probability" with a probabilistic measure in the sense of measure theory (possibly a particularly well behaved measure, but never mind). In particular, we do assume $\sigma$-additivity, but not anything more (say, additivity with respect to families with cardinality $\mathfrak{c}$ [which would of course make things break down]).  For me, as a mathematician, this is completely satisfactory, and until recently I hardly realised that it may not be entirely obvious that probability should behave thus. A sufficiently convincing justification  for working with measures would be that integration theory is precious, and we want to be able to make use of integrals to compute expected values, variances, moments and so on. And we can't require any "stronger" kind of additivity, since then things fall apart already for a uniform random distribution on $[0,1]$.  However, recently I have had some interactions with non-mathematicians, who approach "higher" mathematics with some understandable uncertainty, but who still find the notion of probability relevant. One of the things it made me realise is that I am not myself fully aware why, in principle, we define things thus and not otherwise. Hence, after this overlong introduction, here is the question. Is there a fundamental reason why measure theory is the "only right way" to deal with probabilities (as opposed to e.g. declaring probabilities to be just finitely additive)? If so, is there a "spectacular" example showing why any other approach would not work? If not, then is there an alternative approach (with any research behind it)?


Let $A,B$ be rings. If $f:A\rightarrow B$ is a homomorphism from $A$ onto $B$ with kernel $K$, and $J$ is an ideal of $A$ such that $K\subseteq J$, then $f(J)$ is an ideal of $B$:  My solution: Let $a,b\in J$. Then $a+b\in J$, so $$f(a)+f(b)=f(a+b)\in f(J).$$ Also, $-a\in J$, so  $$-f(a)=f(-a)\in f(J).$$ Finally, if $c\in A$, then $$f(a)f(c)=f(ac)\in f(J).$$  We don't need the fact that $K\subseteq J$, or am I mistaken somewhere?

I'm trying to learn some basic abstract algebra from Pinter's A Book of Abstract Algebra and I find myself puzzled by the following simple question about ring homomorphisms:     Let $A$ and $B$ be rings.  If $f : A \to B$ is a homomorphism from $A$ onto $B$ with kernel $K$, and $J$ is an ideal of $A$ such that $K \subseteq J$, then $f(J)$ is an ideal of $B$.   I'm clearly missing the obvious, but I don't see where the requirement $K \subseteq J$ comes into the proof.  Since $f$ is also a homomorphism of additive groups, the image $f(J)$ must be closed under addition and negatives (correct?). Then for $f(J)$ to be an ideal we have to show that it is closed under multiplication by an arbitrary element $b \in B$. Since $f$ is onto, there is some $a \in A$ such that $b = f(a)$. Let $j'$ be any element of $f(J)$, so $j' = f(j)$ for some $j \in J$. Then $bj' = f(a)f(j) = f(aj)$, and $aj \in J$ since $J$ is an ideal.  Then it seems that $f(J)$ is closed under multiplication by $B$.  What mistaken assumption am I making?


I have a for loop:  for host in $(cat ./hosts) do    echo -e "$host"    ssh -o "StrictHostKeyChecking no" $host "uptime" 2>/dev/null    echo -e "\n" done   and a while loop which is supposed to the the exact same job as the above for loop:  while read host do    echo -e "$host"    ssh -o "StrictHostKeyChecking no" $host "uptime" 2>/dev/null    echo -e "\n" done <./hosts   hosts is a file located at the same place as the scripts containing for and while loop and it contains some host name of remote servers. The for loop prints the expected result (for all the hosts listed in the hosts file) but in case of while loop it only prints the first host's uptime and quits!   hosts file contains one host name per line.  The question is why the behavior of these two loops are different?

I am trying to read user and server details from file tempo.txt and then check the disk space usage of the file system on that unix account using another script server_disk_space.sh.But I am not able to figure out why while loop is only working for first line and for loop is working fine.Please help me understand this.  Using while loop  #!/usr/bin/ksh while read line do r1=`echo $line | cut -d"#" -f1`; r2=`echo $line | cut -d"#" -f2`; apx_server_disk_space.sh $r2 $r1 done<tempo.txt   Output  8     Using for loop  #!/usr/bin/ksh for line in $(cat tempo.txt) do r1=`echo $line | cut -d"#" -f1`; r2=`echo $line | cut -d"#" -f2`; apx_server_disk_space.sh $r2 $r1 done   Output  8 23 54 89 12     Contents of server_disk_space.sh  #!/usr/bin/ksh user=$1 server=$2 count=`ssh ${user}@${server} "df -h ."` echo ${count} | awk '{print $12}' | tr -d %   Above script outputs the value of Use percentage of Disk Usage on any server .    Contents of tempo.txt  abclin542#abcwrk47# abclin540#abcwrk1# abclin541#abcwrk2# abclin543#abcwrk3# abclin544#abcwrk33#


I want to change in-text citation abbreviation. I mean, I want to use Turkish version of English abbreviation. I searched before I asked queation but I can not figure out.   For example,  Davidson ve MacKinnon (1993) instead of Davidson and MacKinnon (1993)  or  Heckman ve diğ. (2010) instead of Heckman et al. (2010).  \documentclass[a4,11pt]{book} \usepackage[utf8]{inputenc} \usepackage[turkish]{babel} \usepackage [top=2 cm, bottom=2cm, right=3cm, left=3cm]{geometry} \usepackage{natbib} \usepackage{hyperref} \hypersetup{colorlinks=true,citecolor=blue, linkcolor=blue} \usepackage{setspace} \usepackage{graphicx} \usepackage{lineno} \usepackage{amsmath}

My LaTeX document is English but when I cite multiple authors     Teyseyre und Campo   occurs instead of      Teyseyre and Campo   I set \selectlanguage{english} and for every single entry I added language = {english}.   I also tried adding the following which I found in another thread:  \usepackage{babelbib}  \selectbiblanguage{english}  \renewcommand\betweenauthors{and} \providecommand\harvardand{} \renewcommand\harvardand{and}   Tt still displays the German "und".  Can someone help me getting rid of it?


My game is a 2D, top-down game where you aim with the mouse and the gun follows it. I'm trying to get the bullet to go in the direction of where the mouse is. The code will be a component of the bullet prefab. here my code:  public class BulletBehavior : MonoBehaviour {  public float speed;  // Use this for initialization void Start () {  }  // Update is called once per frame void Update () {     GetComponent<Rigidbody2D>().velocity = new Vector2(speed, GetComponent<Rigidbody2D>().velocity.y); }   private void OnTriggerEnter2D(Collider2D collision) {     Destroy(gameObject); }   }

I am making an FPS, in Unity. I have a player with a gun, and I have a bullet prefab. I changed the mouse pointer to look like a crosshair, but I don't know how to place the bullet where the crosshair is aiming.   The player movement is on the x and z axis. I have done lots of research on the Internet, and couldn't find anything suitable; most of what I found, I could not understand enough to change it according to my needs.  How do I set up a bullet to fire towards the mouse pointer?


I'm subscribing to an event this way:    s1.MouseUp += (s, e) =>   {   indexOfPointToMove = -1;   s1.LineStyle = LineStyle.Solid;   MyModel.RefreshPlot(false);    e.Handled = true;  };   How could I unsubscribe in different scope?  (but in scope of s1)  I've tried the following:  s1.MouseUp = null;    s1.MouseUp -=(s,e) =>  {        indexOfPointToMove = -1;        s1.LineStyle = LineStyle.Solid;        MyModel.RefreshPlot(false);        e.Handled = true;   };    s1.MouseUp += (s,e) => { //nothing };   But the event is still firing, how can this be done?

Is it possible to unsubscribe an anonymous method from an event?  If I subscribe to an event like this:  void MyMethod() {     Console.WriteLine("I did it!"); }  MyEvent += MyMethod;   I can un-subscribe like this:  MyEvent -= MyMethod;   But if I subscribe using an anonymous method:  MyEvent += delegate(){Console.WriteLine("I did it!");};   is it possible to unsubscribe this anonymous method?  If so, how?


I started a HDHP medical plan and HSA account on 1/1/2019. We then had our first child on 1/8/2019. The OB/GYN office took a prepayment for the delivery services before 1/1/2019. So the question is: can I claim the part of the bill that I prepaid as an HSA distribution since the service date was after the creation of the HSA even though the payment date was before creation of the HSA?

Starting next year (2019), my family will be covered by an HSA plan. A member of my family is undergoing a medical treatment, starting on 12/27/2018, which will continue into March 2019. There is a flat fee for this service, which will be billed on 12/27. Which, of any of this, could be paid for using the HSA?   None? Only services provided on or after 1/1/2019? Only services provided after the date the HSA is "established", which might be a week or two into the New Year?


So I intend to take . It takes an immediate action to activate.  I already know questions will come up with my DM when I try to use this ability...  The way I understand the mechanics immediate actions are allowed at any time. So I intend to use Wave Shield once an attack connects and damage dice are to be rolled.  So first off is this correct? I believe it is since immediate actions have no restrictions on when they can be used outside of having already used a swift action or immediate action on your turn, or having used your immediate action for the next turn already!  The second question is slightly more awkward, will this casting of Wave Shield provoke an attack of opportunity? I can't find much on the matter besides   It is practically a sidenote that mentions spells with a cast time of a standard action. Does that mean this spell is immune to attacks of opportunity?

As we all know, immediate actions are just like swift actions, but can be performed outside of one's turn.     However, unlike a swift action, an immediate action can be performed at any time - even if it's not your turn.   However, it is still unclear if one can use an immediate action during someone else's action.  For example:  A monster swings at a conjurer.    Can conjurer abrupt jaunt outside monster's reach right after the attack was rolled, thus wasting an attack?  What about right after the damage was rolled, but not yet applied?  What about casting celerity and baleful transposition on yourself and monster's ally so the monster would hit his ally, given high enough attack roll?   Let's complicate a bit with a complex, full-round action on a monster's side.    Can one use immediate action in between attacks in full attack? What about after movement part of a charge?


I am trying to understand the work-energy theorem, and on my book there is the following example which I find a bit confusing: A point of mass $m$ moves up from the lowest part of on an inclined plane with initial velocity $v_{0}$. Find the height at which the point stops. So the solution is just $\frac{1}{2}mv_{0}^2 = mgh$ and then it easy to find h. My doubt is about the fact that is just uses $h$ instead of $h \cos\theta$. Is it because work is a scalar quantity? Or because it's a conservative force? Thanks a lot Edit: sorry, found answer here:

Suppose an object is pushed up a smooth inclined plane from ground level to a point h above the ground with force F. The angle of inclination is A. How much work is done?  To push an object up a smooth inclined plane, one must overcome the force of gravity which causes the object to slide down the plane. Hence, the force F=mgsinA must be applied. We can denote the distance the body undergoes as s=hsinA, then:  W=Fs=mg(sinA)^2  The answer is mgh and I know that this can be easily proven using energy conservation laws, but I want to know why my method is incorrect.


I have a windows 8 enterprise edition. I want to update it to windows 8.1. As the standard procedure says to open store and in store choose windows update but I am not finding any the windows update tile. Is there any patch to apply before I check for update?  Please tell me how to upgrade.

So it is shown that volume license packages of Windows 8, like Pro and Enterprise, are unavailable for upgrading.  I received a link last night to download the Windows 8.1 Enterprise 90-day Evaluation, but it will replace my current Windows 8 Enterprise version.  Is it known when these versions will become available for upgrade? I've been waiting patiently for weeks to get this upgrade.  Thanks.


so I have a alias for hadoop which I defined in bash_aliases which bashrc touches upon I guess.  alias hadoop=/usr/local/hadoop-2.7.2/bin/hadoop   Now the alias works fine when I directly try to run it. But when I try this  ssh aditya@localhost hadoop   I get the following error message  bash: hadoop: command not found   I tried the following too  shopt -s expand_aliases   But that didn't work. Could anyone help me out.  Update:   question is different from mine, because the ssh command is not generated by me, so the solution to that question does not solve my question. The ssh command is generated and executed by a script inside a library I am using. I do not prefer to modify that script to change the command as I am not completely aware of how that script works.

I have an alias defined in my .bashrc  alias l.='ls -d .* --color=auto'   It's very useful :) but it doesn't work via ssh:  $ ssh localhost l. bash: l.: command not found   Why is that?


I use this after I checked if the user is admin     if ( isset($_GET['action'])  && $_GET['action'] === 'edit' )   is there better way?

I'm building a plugin and I want to add bits of javascript in the admin head but only for certain admin pages. I don't mean pages as in a WordPress page that you create yourself but rather existing admin section pages like 'Your Profile', 'Users', etc. Is there a wp function specifically for this task? I've been looking and I can only find the boolean function is_admin and action hooks but not a boolean function that just checks.


I have a goal: take a feature class, select some of the records by attribute, and make a layer for further processing. Should be simple, but I am having multiple problems. Note: I am working in a Python 2.65/ArcGIS 10 environment (may be cause of some of these issues). I start with my gdb   master_dict = {'Alabama': ['01009', '01013'], ...}  statePath = "<...>/gdb/master_merge_footprints.gdb"   I want to iterate through the gdb and find specific features based on state names. This part works. I can even print the fields just to test that the feature class exists:   stateNames = ['Alabama', 'Alaska'...]  for name in stateNames:      arcpy.env.workspace = statePath     featureclasses = arcpy.ListFeatureClasses()     fip_merge_list = []     for fc in featureclasses:         if name in fc:             print fc             fipslist  = (master_dict[name]):             for fip in fipslist:                  ### Here's where the problem occurs   Here is where the problem occurs. As I mentioned if I've tried several things to make sure that fc exists,  including fieldnames = [field.name for field in arcpy.ListFields(fc)]. I am able to print the field names and verify that the field for the where clause also exists. I create a hard output path to an existing gdb just to make sure the process will work. When I run this however, nothing shows up in my gdb when I check in ArcMap. I can manually run a selectByAttributes function in ArcMap directly on this fc as well.   select = arcpy.MakeFeatureLayer_management(fc, statePath + "/%s_temp_lyr_%s"%(name, fip),"FIPS_CODE = '%s'"%(fip))   The process runs and doesn't throw an error, but nothing is showing in my gdb. So I tried just using the SelectLayerByAttributes_management with fc and it throws an error:  select_1 = arcpy.SelectLayerByAttribute_management (fc, "NEW_SELECTION", "FIPS_CODE = '%s'"%(fip))      Traceback (most recent call last):   File "", line 1, in          select_1 = arcpy.SelectLayerByAttribute_management (fc, "NEW_SELECTION", "FIPS_CODE = '%s'"%(fip))   File "C:\Program Files   (x86)\ArcGIS\Desktop10.0\arcpy\arcpy\management.py", line 4259, in   SelectLayerByAttribute       raise e ExecuteError: Failed to execute. Parameters are not valid. The value cannot be a feature class ERROR 000840: The value is not a   Raster Layer. ERROR 000840: The value is not a Mosaic Layer. Failed to   execute (SelectLayerByAttribute).   So, I can't make a layer from my feature class, I can't select by attributes, and I am stuck. I have manually verified that the feature class exists (both in Python and ArcMap), I have verified that the field exists, and I have verified that the fip exists. Any advice on what I am doing incorrectly here?

I have a script that calculating vertices angles on Polyline layer and the selecting features in that layer at a specified angle. at the end of the script i'm using select by attribute and getting error 000840 the value is not raster layer, the value is not mosaic layer    SelectLayerByAttribute_management(my_shp_name, 'NEW_SELECTION', myquery)


What is the difference between weight and gravitational force?  I am a beginner who want to study physics properly.

What is the difference between the weight of an object and the mass of an object?


Since applying the full set of patches on a Win 7.1 Pro desktop and a Windows 2012 R2 Datacenter Azure server running SQL 2014, SQL Management Studio (2008 and 2014 versions) won't connect to the SQL 2014 Azure server. The client connection attempt times out and fails with SQL server error 5.   SQL server transactional replication continues to work normally between local SQL 2008 instance and the remote SQL 2014 instance. Also, the SQL Management Studio 2014 on the remote (Azure) server can connect to the local (on site) SQL 2008 instance with no problem, as well as to the remote (Azure) SQL 2014 server. DNS resolution and IP connectivity in both directions is normal. I can see that the remote SQL 2014 instance correctly creates its SPN at startup. There is a warning on the SQL 2014 that NTLM fallback is being used by some clients.   I don't have a local instance of SQL 2014 nor a remote instance of SQL 2008. So I'm not sure if it's a relevant factor that the server is remote, on Azure, over VPN, or if I would be seeing the same problem with a patched local client and patched local SQL server.   I notice the SQL Browser service on the remote SQL 2014 server is stopped and disabled. I'm not sure if this was the case pre-patch. However I am running one instance on the default port, not a named instance, so I would expect I don't need the SQL Browser service?  There are reported authentication problems with this Patch Tuesday relating to Server 2003 network file shares. I haven't seen reports of general AD authentication problems, or SQL Server authentication problems. Is anyone else having this problem or similar? Any suggestions of which KB I should try to rollback? Should I run the Kerberos configuration analyser? Should I start the disabled SQL Browser service?   Any help appreciated.   Removing MS15-027(KB3002657) from the server and rebooting the server does not resolve the problem. Removing KB 3046049 on the client and rebooting the client does not resolve the problem.  Removing KB 3046049 on the server and rebooting the server does not resolve the problem, but the error code changed from 5 to 53 (a more common error code).   Edit: this is not the same problem as   though it may have the same root cause. (There seem to be increasing reports of a variety of authentication related problems after Tuesday's patch.) Specifically in my case, windows authentication is working normally, I can RDP into the patched machines and between the patched machines and AD based login works fine.   Edit: The same problem affects SQL authentication (non AD). Identical error message. That suggests this is a connectivity problem and not an authentication problem.   We don't have any Windows 2003 servers affected. So the problem we are seeing is not confined to Windows Server 2003 (as is reported for some other similar March Patch issues).

We have the following setup:   One Domain Controller (DC, Server 2003 R2 Standard x64) One SQL Server (SQL, Server 2008 R2 Standard x64) some clients.   All machines are in the same domain. All user accounts in use are domain accounts. SQL runs one instance of each SQL Server 2005, 2008, 2008R2, 2012 and 2014.  Since tonight (DC rebooted to install automatic Windows security updates), accessing the SQL 2005, 2008 and 2008R2 instances through Windows authentication does not work properly anymore:  When accessing one of these instances   from one of the clients using Windows authentication   the following error occurs (it's the 2008R2 message, the 2005/2008 messages are similar):     Login failed. The login is from an untrusted domain and cannot be used with Windows authentication. (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 18452)   Obviously, the message text does not apply, since there is only one domain.  Now the surprising thing is: As soon as user is logged in on SQL (starting an RDP sesson or even simply running runas /user:MYDOMAIN\someuser cmd and keeping the window open), this user can access all SQL Server instances from all clients without any problems until the process running with that user's credentials is closed.  This means that I can just workaround this problem by executing the above runas command for all users on SQL once (and keeping the windows open), but, obviously, something is severely broken. I suspect tonight's security updates on DC have something to do with it (since that's the only thing that changed), but I'd rather avoid uninstalling and rebooting each one of them (12 updates were installed and DC is really old and slow).  Has anyone encountered this issue before and knows how to fix it permanently? Any other ideas (other than spending the next few days becoming a Kerberos expert)?


I am a complete noob on electronics, please answer in basic terms, what I know about resistors is in this question nothing more, unable to make any reliable calculations therefor I require a specific answer I can apply :)  I have an AC device with output of 20V and 4.5A from 220V input all consistant. I need to reduce the Volts only and not the A for two applications 1. Reduce to 15V and maintain 4.5A (required to run very sensitive 15V electric miniture motor) and 2. Reduce to 5V and maintain 4.5A (required to run single LED with 1. above). Which resistors must I install for example 6000k 200ohm carbon or metal film? I don't own a volt or multimeter.  Many thanks

Power supplies are available in a wide range of voltage and current ratings.  If I have a device that has specific voltage and current ratings, how do those relate to the power ratings I need to specify?  What if I don't know the device's specs, but am replacing a previous power supply with particular ratings?  Is it OK to go lower voltage, or should it always be higher?  What about current?  I don't want a 10 A supply to damage my 1 A device.


I'm learning to use the beautiful Metropolis theme, but I have a long-standing problem with the fonts in math mode. As you can see from the image, the font of the elementary functions is poorly displayed. I'm compiling with XeLaTex.  This is my code \documentclass[aspectratio=169]{beamer}         \usetheme[progressbar=foot,numbering=none]{metropolis}         \usepackage[italian]{babel}         \usepackage[utf8]{inputenc}         \usepackage{centernot}         \usepackage{enumerate}         \usepackage{array}         \usepackage{fontspec}         \usepackage{semantic}        \begin{document}     \begin{frame}         \begin{itemize}[<+->]             \item $a_n = |n|$ (valore assoluto)             \item $a_n = n^2$ (potenza ad esponente pari)             \item $a_n = n^3$ (potenza ad esponente dispari)             \item $a_n = \frac{1}{n^2}$ (reciproco di potenza pari)             \item $a_n = \frac{1}{n^3}$ (reciproco di potenza pari)             \item $a_n = \sqrt[2]{n}$ (radice di indice pari)             \item $a_n = \sqrt[3]{n}$ (radice di indice dispari)             \item $a_n = \log_2 n$ (logaritmo con base maggiore di 1)             \item $a_n = \log_{\frac{1}{3}} n$ (logaritmo con base tra 0 e 1)             \item $a_n = 2^n$ (esponenziale ad esponente maggiore di 1)             \item $a_n = \left( \frac{1}{3} \right)^n$ (esponenziale ad esponente tra 0 e 1)             \item $a_n = \sin n $ (seno)             \item $a_n = \cos n $ (coseno)               \item $a_n = \tan n $ (tangente)             \item $a_n = \arcsin n $ (arcoseno) \end{itemize}     \end{frame}     \end{document}  Thank you all.

When using the metropolis theme for beamer, I get text and math in Fira Sans, except for math operators. I compile the following MWE using LuaTeX.  \documentclass{beamer}  \usetheme{metropolis}  \begin{document}    \begin{frame}     Ordinary text.     \[ a^2 + b^2 = \sin^2(x) - \mathsf{y} + \mathrm{z}  \]   \end{frame}  \end{document}   The outcome for me is that a, b, 2 and x are set in Fira Sans Light Italic, and y is set in Fira Sans Light, but sin is set in the sans font of (I guess) Latin Modern. (The z is also in Latin Modern, but this is expected behaviour from beamer.)  Unsurprisingly, I get the same result if I replace \usetheme{metropolis} with  \usepackage[no-math]{fontspec} \setsansfont[ItalicFont={Fira Sans Light Italic},   BoldFont={Fira Sans},   BoldItalicFont={Fira Sans Italic}]%   {Fira Sans Light}   I guess that this is to do with beamer's patching parts of the math fonts to match the text font (see ). However, I don't understand the font system well enough to modify this.  There was , but I've no idea how to apply that answer when using fontspec, or if this is even possible.  Is there a way to change the operator font to match the upright/sans math font (i.e., Fira Sans Light)?


(APMO 1990) Let $G$ is a graph that satisfies the following conditions. (1) No point has edges to all other points, (2) there are no triangles, (3) given any two points $A,B$ s.t. there is no edge AB, there is exactly one point $C$ that there are edges AC and BC. Prove every point has the same degree.  I found a proof online, but it uses common complement, which doesn't make sense to me. I've tried considering the $N_a,N_b$ of two points A, B, where there isn't an edge $AB$ and proving them having no edges between $N_a,N_b$ without, and their common point $C$, but then I'm stuck.

Question:  Consider a group of n people with the following properties:  • no person is friends with everyone, • any pair of strangers share exactly one friend in common,  • no three people are mutually friends. Show that everyone has the same number of friends.  I want to solve this using Ramsey's theorem but I'm struggling to formulate it in a way that would make it straightforward.. Any help would be greatly appreciated.


I need to generate a random amount of string for a certain amount of times; so for example:   for k in range(5):    print("Country", location)    print("Animal", animal)   so location and animal will be randomly generated from a list, and each of the 5 times it gets printed, it will have random number of locations and animal, so for every iteration a  random number of locations and animals will be printed from a given list

Assume I have the following list:  foo = ['a', 'b', 'c', 'd', 'e']   What is the simplest way to retrieve an item at random from this list?


I want to create RegEx validator for my JSON response data, but I could not create successfully. What I am doing wrong? Please help me in this regards, thanks.  If service returns an error, response json must be as follows;  {  "status":"error",  "error":{    "connection timeout"  } }   If service returns a success, response json must be as follows;  {    "status":"success",    "result":{       "username":"msmumbucoglu",       "password":"123456",       "name":"Hacked By Mehmet:)"    } }   My regex is as follows:  (?:"status":")|(?:"result":")|(?:"error":")(.*?)(?:")

Given a string of JSON data, how can I safely turn that string into a JavaScript object?  Obviously I can do this unsafely with something like:  var obj = eval("(" + json + ')');   but that leaves me vulnerable to the JSON string containing other code, which it seems very dangerous to simply eval.


At first, I attempted to make text stumble slowly into scene like drunken sailors, but I ended up with the galloping text that runs like horses; nonetheless, I like the effect.  In all three examples below, all letters are individually done on separate layers and all have same animation. In second & third examples, I've spaced out letters by only shifting frames to the right on timeline, without ever changing animation of letters or their speeds.   Now how do I mimic the galloping examples below with Animation Nodes?  And next, how do I slow down their speed so to make them seem drunken and clumsy? This is for future projects with motion graphics.   Assistance appreciated. Thanks in advance.

Only, I wish to learn using Animation Nodes for future motion graphics. Any assistance is appreciated.  You can do your own way of wobbling the text. I am not too exact as to how do you do it or what font style you use. I am only just keen on learning nodes for wobbling text for future projects. Thanks in advance.


I have a database of invoices. Some of these are to be paid by us. These are called expenses. Some are to be paid us by others. How should I call those? I want a word that is fit to use for invoices and that is the same like expense other way around.

If I have to pay an invoice it's my liability. If someone has to pay an invoice issued by me it's also liability. Are there any words that distinguish these two types of liabilities?  Disclaimer: Sorry if that's obvious, I'm not a native speaker.


I've spent a long, long time searching for a viable, long-term fix for this problem; though I'm beginning to believe that Google Play (or Google Play Services) is to blame. I recently factory reset my phone running KitKat 4.4.2, which has both 16GB of Internal Storage (not an internal SD Card) and a 16GB external microSD card. Even with over 12GB of space remaining (after the factory reset, I was free to download apps from the store with no errors for a while, though it was visibly running a different version), it gives me this error. This is 12GB of Internal Storage, I have over 7GB more on the SD card.  I'm currently at a loss about this. I've attempted to rollback both the Store and the Services apps, and it only clears me to download apps for 5-10 minutes (if that) before giving me the same old error. “Error while downloading There is insufficient space on the device”.  Update: While writing this question up, yet again I attempted to download three apps. The first proceeded through the process without any issue (keep in mind that I had not changed anything since the last time an error was encountered - I simply unlocked the phone and clicked install on the already-open Play Store page for Facebook Messenger), while the second and third spat out the same old error.  I have attempted to clear my cache/move it to another partition, clear the data on both the Store and Services apps as well as the caches, and several other things. APK files never fail to install when attempting to install from an external source. This issue is also not local to this phone alone, my previous model did the exact same thing without the allowance for one download that I just experienced.  Edit regarding "duplicate question": Whether this is a duplicate question or not, I have found no valid solution for this, regardless of how many threads I have looked at and how many different methods I have tried. I've purchased a new cellphone to try and bypass this error ffs. It is not my home internet, as I have attempted to update apps and download new apps from both my mobile internet connection and from several (more than five) different internet sources; inclusive of a USB-tethered internet connection shared from both my computer and a friend's computer. I would like to state that this question is different in the light that I have tried and exhausted every method I have come across, without a single ounce of lasting success.  To put it bluntly, I think that Google needs to get off their asses and fix the problems that so many people are so blatantly reporting.

After one of the latest updates (not sure if it was the last one or a previous one) of the Google Play app, I am having an error trying to update a large app (42MB). It says:     Error Downloading . There is insufficient space on the device.   My device is a Samsung P1000 running Froyo. It's rooted, but the error was there before rooting it.  A quick Google search showed several Samsung users having the same problem (the app in question that was giving me the headache is Smurf's village). Some said that removing the updates to the Android Market (Google Play) app would fix it, but to me it was of no avail.  I also tried the procedure in  to no avail.  Now I am stuck with a prehistoric version of the Market (that works on small apps) and still cannot update Smurf's Village or install big apps. How can I fix this?  EDIT: device has over 2GB of internal SD storage, 27GB of external SD card, so space is not an issue.


I was on Meta Super User trying to submit an ad for the Internet of Things Q&A proposal, with the following in my answer box:  [![Stack Exchange Q&A site proposal: Internet of Things][1]][2]    [1]: http://area51.stackexchange.com/ads/proposal/94224.png   [2]: http://area51.stackexchange.com/proposals/94224/   I then got an error:       Community ads must have an image hosted at i.stack.imgur.com; use the image button from the editor to upload.   Can we enable Area 51 images for Community Ads?

For each proposal on Area51, a promotional image is automatically generated and it shows the current state, e.g. number of followers/supporters or comitted. Example:    They’re obviously useful for  on existing sites. Alas, the current requirements for those say that the image needs to be hosted on imgur.com. I can easily provide the URL https://area51.stackexchange.com/ads/proposal/{proposal-number}.png in the image upload dialog, to get a cryptic imgur address back, but I’m afraid that it won’t update dynamically.  Please note that I was able to use the area51 URL on some sites until right now, when the poster generator seems to be broken or off-line, but on other sites the software stopped me from posting any image not hosted on imgur. Can we please have the dynamic posters working everywhere (and in “HiDPI”) or be assured that the external service will update them regularly?


I need to calculate effect size from linear mixed model coefficients. I am not entirely sure how to do this and some of the readings I've found are not helping me understand this. Can anyone shed some light on this process? Below is the code for my linear mixed model. Thanks for any help!  p1 <- lmer(dv ~ IV1 * IV2 +           (1 + IV1 | subj),        data,        control = lmerControl(optimizer = "bobyqa"))

I have run a mixed effects model with a ln transformed continuous response (seconds) and found a significant effect of the categorical predictor (treatment/control, the only fixed effect in the model).   I want to: 1- Report an effect size (cohen's d, etc) 2- Describe the magnitude of the effect in terms of mean number of seconds that the treated individuals differed from the control individuals, after accounting for the random effects.  I am not sure how to achieve either of these goals. Thank you very much in advance for any advice you can offer.  My code and results are below.  mod1 = lmer(data=data, ln_duration ~ treatment + (1 | id/date/size) +   (1 | visitor), na.action=na.exclude)  Linear mixed model fit by REML  t-tests use  Satterthwaite approximations to degrees of freedom ['lmerMod'] Formula: ln_duration ~ treatment + (1 | id/date/size) +   (1 | visitor)  Data: data  REML criterion at convergence: 248  Scaled residuals:    Min      1Q  Median      3Q     Max  -2.7323 -0.4963 -0.0206  0.5600  3.8502   Random effects:  Groups                             Name        Variance Std.Dev.  display_size:(date:id)             (Intercept) 0.00000  0.0000    date:id                            (Intercept) 0.00000  0.0000    visitor                            (Intercept) 0.03574  0.1891    id                                 (Intercept) 0.01164  0.1079    Residual                                       0.20001  0.4472   Number of obs: 170, groups:   size:(date:id), 130; date:id, 128; visitor, 118; id, 58  Fixed effects:                       Estimate     Std. Error  df t value  Pr(>|t|)     (Intercept)               -0.17012    0.06334  41.63000   -2.686 0.010348 *              treatmenttreatment  0.31172    0.08135  40.27000    3.832 0.000436 *** --- Signif. codes:  0 ‘***’ 0.001 ‘**’ 0.01 ‘*’ 0.05 ‘.’ 0.1 ‘ ’ 1  Correlation of Fixed Effects:             (Intr)     trtmnt -0.729


Why is  not an experimental error since it is the error created by photons striking on elementary particles?

From what I understand, the  states that there is a fundamental natural limit to how accurately we can measure velocity and momentum at the same time. It's not a limit on equipment but just a natural phenomenon.  However, isn't this just an observational limit? There is a definite velocity and momentum, we just don't know it. As in, we can only know so much about the universe, but the universe still has definite characteristics.  Considering this, how do a wide range of quantum mechanical phenomena work? For example, quantum tunneling - its based on the fact that the position of the object is indefinite. But the position is definite, we just don't know it definitely. Or the famous light slot experiment? The creation of more light slots due to uncertainty of the photon's positions?  What I am basically asking is why is a limit on the observer, affecting the phenomenon he is observing? Isn't that equivalent to saying  because we haven't seen Star X, it doesn't exist? It's limiting the definition of the universe to the limits of our observation!


Let $\lambda>1$ and show the equation $\lambda - z -e^{-z} = 0$ has exacly one solution in the half plane $\{z:Re(z)>0\}$. Show that this solution must be real. What happens to the solution as $\lambda \rightarrow 1 $?

Let $\lambda > 1$ , want to show that the equation $$\lambda-z-e^{-z}=0$$ has exactly one solution in the right half plane $\{z:Re(z)>0\}$. Moreover, the solution must be real.I tried to use Rouche's theorem on $g(z)=\lambda - z$ and $f(z)=e^{-z}$ to get that the number of zeros of $f+g$ and the number of zeros of $g(z)$ is the same, and since $g(z)$ has only one solution then the equation about must also have one solution the problem is I don't know how to choose the correct curve $\gamma$ such that this will work.for the second part I used the IVT to show that $\lambda -x-e^{-x}$ has a zero in  $(0,\lambda)$ to conclude that the solution is real. is this acceptable? Thank you for your help.


I am confused whether to place the acronym before or after the words are spelled out. For example, the first time this organisation is mentioned, which of these alternatives is more correct:  The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) was established in 1958.  or  NASA (The National Aeronautics and Space Administration) was established in 1958.  My intuition is that the first seems more correct, but I am not sure. Any ideas? Also, if you could point me to an official style guide or similar which clarifies this, I would be very grateful. Edit: The website Chicago manual style online has a Q&A section where the following is found:  Q. I work for a technical magazine. I’ve always been taught that when it comes to acronyms, the rule is you spell out the words first followed by the acronym in parentheses, and then use the acronym for later references in the copy. If there are no other mentions of the acronym later in the copy, then you just spell it out without the acronym in parentheses. Is this correct? My coworker is debating this with me. A. Yes, that’s a good system. Sometimes it’s helpful to repeat the full name in later chapters as a reminder. Occasionally, too, it makes sense to use the acronym first and put the full name in parentheses, if the acronym in question is so familiar to your expected audience that it almost goes without explication.  Source:

Which is proper/acceptable?  Take for instance this sentence:     We would like to use IBM machines.   Now consider that I needed to fully qualify IBM... How do I make this not read strangely?     We would like to use IBM (International Business Machines) machines.   or      We would like to use International Business Machines (IBM) machines.   (Please note that IBM is not the real acronym but it's similar to what I need to pull off)  EDIT:  I should add that part of my question is that if it's incorrect or less correct to put [Fully qualified name] (Acronym) or [Acronym] (Fully qualified name)


Find the number of trailing zeroes.  $k=1^1\times 2^2\times 3^3\times \cdots \times100^{100}$  It usually involves calculating number of $5$'s in  $5^5\times 10^{10}\times 15^{15}\times \cdots\times 100^{100}$   calulating 5's one by one is pretty boring and time consuming are their any other methods.

How many $0's$ are in the end of:  $$1^1 \cdot 2^2 \cdot 3^3 \cdot 4^4.... 99^{99}$$  The answer is supposed to be $1100$ but I have absolutely NO clue how to get there.  Any advice?


I want to take some smart photos of myself with my Canon 250D. I have it set to 18mm so I can stand a bit away from the tripod. I then put the camera on a 10 second self timer. Eye AF is on.  When I am close to the camera I have tried tapping the screen to track where my head is, and a green square appears. However, as I get further away this stays in the same place and doesn't track me. The issue seems to be that when the shutter button is pressed the focus locks on to whatever is in focus at that time, hence when I enter the frame it didn't track me like it normally would.  I am using Auto shooting mode.  Focusing works completely fine without the Self Timer but I need it. I have found I can get slightly better results by switching from Auto Focus to Manual Focus and fiddling around with it a bit but its not an ideal solution.

Here's a typical situation during vacations:   I set my Canon 77D on a tripod I change the shooting setting to "timed series" (2-10 shots after a 10-second delay) I go stand in front of the camera Problem: camera uses the initial focus instead of focusing when the actual shot takes place Result: blurry shot of myself with a perfectly sharp background   Is there a setting that forces the camera to re-focus before each timed shot? I've tried switching to AI Servo, but it didn't help. I'm also aware I can use a Bluetooth/IR remote or connect the camera to my phone, but a simple timer is a lot easier and faster.


I recently installed 14.04.  But now I need a new driver for my nVidia GeForce GT 630. The former driver was rejected as not compatible with the 64-bit. I found that other driver and when I wanted to install it in the terminal with sh I was called first to stop the x-server. It cannot be installed with running x-server.  So how do I install them?

I just ordered the Nvidia GTX card. I have a dilemma, though. Should I keep using the driver which is available in "additional drivers" in Ubuntu, or should I install the driver from the Nvidia site?  So which driver is the best for me?


I have read up on this and tried it myself, but I cannot seem to figure out how to override a parent theme function using my child theme.  I need to know what I am doing wrong (and I am sure there are several wrong things).  Here is the function in the parent theme:  function html5_insert_image($html, $id, $caption, $title, $align, $url, $size, $alt) {     $url = wp_get_attachment_url($id);     $src = wp_get_attachment_image_src( $id, $size, false );     $html5 = "
";     $html5 .= "";     if ($caption) {          $html5 .= "
$caption
";     }     $html5 .= "
";     return $html5; } add_filter( 'image_send_to_editor', 'html5_insert_image', 10, 9 );   Here is the function in the child theme:  function remove_html5_insert_image(){     remove_filter('init','html5_insert_image',1); } add_action('after_setup_theme','remove_html5_insert_image');

I've been reading around and trying to figure out how to do this, but for some reason I can't seem to override parent functions in my child theme.  I'm using TwentyTen as a parent - can anyone tell me why this function in my child theme isn't overriding the parent function please?  // Override read more link function osu_twentyten_continue_reading_link() {  return ' ' . __( 'Read on &rarr;', 'twentyten-child' ) . ''; } function osu_twentyten_auto_excerpt_more( $more ) {  return ' &hellip;' . osu_twentyten_continue_reading_link(); } remove_filter( 'excerpt_more', 'twentyten_auto_excerpt_more' ); add_filter( 'excerpt_more', 'osu_twentyten_auto_excerpt_more' );   I thought you had to remove the filter/action etc. before re-adding it right?  Thanks,  osu


I need to find Thomas cook flight number from Manchester, UK to Dalaman, Turkey on September 21st and 22nd, 2013.  Is there a tool to find flight numbers of past Thomas Cook airline flights?

The question  only deals with flights in the US sourced from the  . Is there some similar source for EU, Asia etc?


There is an ellipse that is parameterized as x[t] = 4 Cos[t];  y[t] = 2 Sin[t]; P[t] = {x[t],y[t]};  And we are given a drill bit that is r  inches in radius. We are instructed to find the largest radius drill bit that will exactly cut out the ellipse without taking any area outside of the ellipse.  The above image details the following: The black circle is the drill bit that is used to cut out the Blue colored ellipse. The red elliptic path is the path the center of the drill bit has to move in-order to cutout the ellipse. The blue ellipse is the shape to be cut out. The radius of the black circle is 2.35 and it just about cuts out the blue ellipse.  The above image arises when a drill bit of diameter 3.35 is used. Note that the drill bit takes out areas that are beyond the blue ellipse. How can I figure out the largest drill bit that would exactly cut out the ellipse with out removing any area beyond the ellipse? What would be the understanding or methodology to identify that max radius?

I am currently stuck on this question and it's implementation on Mathematica. You are the chief engineer at the Badger Steel Plate Company in Madison, Wisconsin. In comes an order for 750 square steel plates, each measuring 12 inches wide and 12 inches long. Go to the drawing board plate = Graphics[{Blue, Thickness[0.01], Line[{{-6, -6}, {-6, 6}, {6, 6}, {6, -6}, {-6, -6}}]}];  plateplot = Show[plate, Axes -> True, AxesOrigin -> {0, 0}, AspectRatio -> Automatic, AxesLabel -> {"x", "y"}]  But here's the kicker: The plates are to have everything inside the ellipse $(x/4)^2+(y/2)^2=1$ cut out. Take a look: Clear[x, y, t];  x[t_] = 4 Cos[t];  y[t_] = 2 Sin[t];  hole = ParametricPlot[{x[t], y[t]}, {t, 0, 2 Pi}, PlotStyle -> {{Blue,  Thickness[0.01]}}];  Show[plateplot, hole]   You have a new robotic router that takes instructions from Mathematica and whose cutting center can be programmed to follow any curve you tell it to follow. If you are going to use a bit 1 inch in diameter, then what curve should you program in as the path of the center of the router to cut out the ellipse? After you have found the correct curve, add its plot to the plot above. Big Tip: If your curve is an ellipse, then you screwed up. The normal vector D[unittan[t], t] could be very useful. I was able to obtain the plot using normal vector D[unittan[t], t] for the plot which produced the Following plot Now I have the following question. Actually, the bit size of 1 inch in diameter used above was arbitrarily chosen by reaching into the  drawer and pulling out a bit. You could always get by with a smaller bit. Why? But you cannot use bits that are too large. Why? Try to estimate the diameter of the largest bit that you could use to do the job.  Any help on demystifying this question will be greatly appreciated


An operator $\hat{Q}(t)$ can be  written as $\hat{Q}(t)= e^{iHt} \hat{Q(0)} e^{-iHt}$ in Heisenberg picture.  Let us choose $\hat{Q(0)} = |{m(0)}\rangle \langle{m(0)}|$. Then $e^{iHt} \hat{Q(0)} e^{-iHt} = |{m(-t)}\rangle \langle{m(-t)}| = \hat{Q}(-t) $  and not $\hat{Q}(t)$. While as the reversing the order of evolution operators gives  $e^{-iHt} \hat{Q(0)} e^{iHt} = |{m(t)}\rangle \langle{m(t)}| = \hat{Q}(t) $. It seems that the conventional definition gets reversed here!  Interestingly, the complex conjugate of the operator $\hat{Q}(t)$ i,e. $\hat{Q}^*(t)$ follows the correct "Heisenberg prescription" of time translation.  Can someone help me to understand what is going on?

The  is defined as $$ \rho_\psi ~:=~ \frac{\lvert\psi(t)\rangle  \langle \psi(t)\vert}{ \langle \psi(t) |\psi(t)\rangle }$$ in the Schrödinger picture. $\rho_\psi$ is obviously a time dependent projector, and the equation of motion on these projectors become: $$   i\hbar\frac{d}{dt} \rho_\psi ~=~ [H,\rho_\psi]   \tag{S} $$ but my book also reports that the  on the operators/observables is:  $$   \mathrm{i}\hbar\frac{d}{dt} A ~=~ [A,H] .  \tag{H} $$ Why are the signs in eqs. (S) and (H) opposite?   Isn't $A$ an operator like  $ \rho_\psi$, although time independent? They belong to the same operator space, so I don't think I can apply duality, but I know that $A$ operate on the states to give us the expectation value through the relation  $$  \mathrm{Tr}( \rho_\psi A)$$ so it should be in the dual space of the observables.


Solve $6x\equiv 2\pmod 8$  This is the method that I used: $$6x\equiv 2\pmod 8\implies12x\equiv 4\pmod 8\implies3x\equiv 1\pmod 8\implies9x\equiv 3\pmod 8$$ $$\implies x\equiv 3\pmod 8$$ However, the solution to the question gives $2$ solutions: $$x\equiv 3\pmod 8 ~\text{or}~x\equiv 7\pmod 8$$ How did they get the second solution? Forgive me for such a basic question, but I have only just started learning Number Theory and modular Arithmetic. Also, I'm not quite sure if I was allowed to divide by $4$ in the $3$rd stage. Thanks for your help.

I know how to compute modular multiplicative inverses for co-prime variables $a$ and $b$, but is there an efficient method for computing variable $x$ where $x < b$ and $a$ and $b$ are not co-prime, given variables $a$, $b$ and $c$, as described by the equation below?   $ a x \equiv c \mod b $   For example, given  $ 154x \equiv 14 \mod 182 $, is there an efficient method for computing all the possibilities of $x$, without pure bruteforce?  Please note that I'm not necessarily asking for a direct solution, just a more optimized one.    I do not believe that the Extended Euclidean Algorithm will work here, because $a$ and $b$ are not co-prime.   Edit:  Follow up question, since the first one had a shortcut:  Could the be computed efficiently as well?  $12260x \equiv 24560 \mod 24755$.  $107$ needs to be one of the computed answers.


Can I simplify this sum $$\sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{90}{n}p^n(1-p)^{90-n}$$

Could anyone explain how this statement is true? You may notice that this statement is part of the process of adding two independent binomial r.v.'s.  $$ \ \sum_{x=0}^\infty{n \choose x}{m \choose w-x} ={n+m \choose w}\ $$


Im trying to read the server states from the guildwars API. For that i match the servername, then comes an occasional language specifier and a ",\n which i intend to match with .* and after that follows the population. But instead of directly matching the first occurrence of population it instead matches the last one. Can someone tell me why( and how to fix this)?  Edit: I found a workaround. By substituting .* with .{,20} it works.  relevant part of the API "name": "Riverside [DE]", "population": "Full"   with urlopen('https://api.guildwars2.com/v2/worlds?ids=all') as api: s = api.read() s = s.decode('utf-8') search = re.search(r'''Riverside.*"population": "''',s,re.S) print(search) s = s[search.span()[1]:] state = re.search(r'[a-zA-Z]*',s) print(state)

I have this gigantic ugly string: J0000000: Transaction A0001401 started on 8/22/2008 9:49:29 AM J0000010: Project name: E:\foo.pf J0000011: Job name: MBiek Direct Mail Test J0000020: Document 1 - Completed successfully  I'm trying to extract pieces from it using regex. In this case, I want to grab everything after Project Name up to the part where it says J0000011: (the 11 is going to be a different number every time). Here's the regex I've been playing with: Project name:\s+(.*)\s+J[0-9]{7}:  The problem is that it doesn't stop until it hits the J0000020: at the end. How do I make the regex stop at the first occurrence of J[0-9]{7}?


EDIT 1: I am aware this question has been marked as a duplicate and I initially deleted it.  However, after reading  that deleting is bad and that I should edit my question rather than deleting it, I undeleted and am trying to improve the question for anyone else who might have the same issue I did.   After the post marked as "already answered" linked to something I already knew (and a post I've read often) but didn't represent my question/confusion, I tried to expand my test case and realized my problem was not in knowing about references, but rather misunderstanding of how autoboxing worked and the relationship between an Integer reference and its (immutable) value.  See edit below the original question which demonstrates what my confusion was.  Original Question:  I'm still trying to learn how to leverage Java 8+ lambda functional interfaces.  While I know it's not necessarily a best practice to modify a parameter passed to a method, I am not sure why the input value to a lambda expression, modified within the expression, is not modified.  Here's an example program which I would expect to modify the value of its input (t) to the value 42:  import java.util.function.Consumer;  public class Main {     static Consumer<Integer> foo = n -> {         n = 42;     };      public static void main(String... args) {         Integer t = 0;         foo.accept(t);         System.out.println("Why is " + t + " not equal to 42?");     } }   Output:     Why is 0 not equal to 42?   EDIT 2:   As has been pointed out by the first commenter, the problem was trying to reassign the parameter (an immutable Integer container).  I wasn't really trying to change the reference of the Integer, I was trying to change the boxed value and assumed that Java would do that for me automagically.  I was wrong.    Below, I have modified the earlier code to demonstrate what I thought would happen and what I was expecting.  While the marked duplicate about "pass by value" is related and one of several associated issues, it was not the source of my confusion.  It was ultimately my misunderstanding of how autoboxing works (creating a new object, rather than modifying the boxed value of the existing object) that was the root of my issue.  import java.util.function.Consumer;  public class Main {     /**      * How I thought {@link Integer} worked, not how it works.      */     class BoxedInt {         int boxed;          BoxedInt(int i) {             box(i);         }          void box(int i) {             this.boxed = i;         }          int unbox() {             return boxed;         }          public String toString() {             return String.valueOf(unbox());         }     }      static Consumer<BoxedInt> foo = n -> {         n.box(42); // what I thought happened with n = 42     };      public static void main(String... args) {         BoxedInt t = new Main().new BoxedInt(0);         foo.accept(t);         System.out.println("See how " + t + " is equal to 42.");     } }   Result:     See how 42 is equal to 42.

I always thought Java uses pass-by-reference. However, I've seen a couple of blog posts (for example, ) that claim that it isn't (the blog post says that Java uses pass-by-value). I don't think I understand the distinction they're making. What is the explanation?


In the past I was using my Canon 430EXII and Godox AD200 with Godox X2T-C Trigger and it was working fine. Recently, my trigger broke and needed to buy a new one. Now I have Godox XProC, unfortunately, I could not get it peered with Godox X1R-C. I watched different Youtube videos, searched online, read the manuals but could not find what I am doing wrong. The transmitter and the receiver is both set to same channel and groups. Does anyone have any suggestion, what I may be doing wrong. By the way AD-200 fires fine. Thank you in advance!

I have a Godox X2Tc and a Godox X1Rc. I want to control my Canon Speedlite 430 EXII. (I also have a Godox V1, which is a beautiful thing!) I have the Canon Speedlite attached to the Godox receiver, so it should fire. It just wont! How do I set it up correctly so the receiver makes the Canon Speedlite fire?  Update: Michael C answered this question. I had the ID numbers set differently on the transmitter and receiver. I made them the same and now it all works. Perfect! Thanks Michael!!


I have pip installed for python3:  $ pip3 -V pip 1.5.4 from /usr/lib/python3/dist-packages (python 3.4)   If I try to upgrade to Version 8, this is what I get:  $ sudo pip3 install --upgrade pip Downloading/unpacking pip from https://pypi.python.org/packages/9c/32/004ce0852e0a127f07f358b715015763273799bd798956fa930814b60f39/pip-8.1.2-py2.py3-none-any.whl#md5=0570520434c5b600d89ec95393b2650b Downloading pip-8.1.2-py2.py3-none-any.whl (1.2MB): 1.2MB downloaded Installing collected packages: pip Found existing installation: pip 1.5.4 Not uninstalling pip at /usr/lib/python3/dist-packages, owned by OS Successfully installed pip Cleaning up...   Can anyone tell me why it won't upgrade to a newer version?

I am new to Linux and Ubuntu.  I was trying to upgrade pip but ran into this...  $ sudo pip install --upgrade pip Cannot fetch index base URL https://pypi.python.org/simple/ Downloading/unpacking pip from https://pypi.python.org/packages/py2.py3/p/pip/pip-7.1.0-py2.py3-none-any.whl#md5=b108384a762825ec20345bb9b5b7209f   Downloading pip-7.1.0-py2.py3-none-any.whl (1.1MB): 1.1MB downloaded Installing collected packages: pip   Found existing installation: pip 1.5.4     Not uninstalling pip at /usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages, owned by OS Successfully installed pip Cleaning up...   Any idea why?


I have this code for a trigger, that according to my logic, should break on the second run, given an if statement I setup, but I'm still getting an error related to maximum trigger depth. Here is my trigger: trigger OppProductRollupTriggers on OpportunityLineItem (after insert,after update) {          List<OpportunityLineItem> allPLI = new List<OpportunityLineItem>();              allPLI = [SELECT Id,Name,OpportunityId,Opportunity.Custom_Product__c,Quantity,Product2.Family from OpportunityLineItem WHERE ID IN:Trigger.newMap.keySet()];     System.debug(allPLI);          for ( OpportunityLineItem oli : allPLI) {                 IF(oli.Name.contains('P1') || oli.Product2.Family.contains('Fam1') || oli.Product2.Family.contains('FAM2') ||  oli.Name.contains('P2')){                         IF(oli.Opportunity.Custom_Product__c ==FALSE)             {                                 oli.Opportunity.Custom_Product__c= TRUE;                 update oli;             }             else{                 return;             }         }     } }  The line I believe should break the loop, is the one that says if the Custom_Product__c == FALSE, then do the update, if the update was already done(meaning it will be True, just return. Any ideas why I'm still getting an error?

Here I'm talking about a handler that covers all the s and that accepts SObjects of arbitrary type. And the recursion problem is where a change caused by a trigger results in that trigger getting called again and so on creating an infinite loop.  So an example trigger would be:  trigger ExampleTrigger on Example__c (before insert, before update, before delete,         after insert, after update, after delete, after undelete) {      SObjectType t = Example__c.SObjectType;     MyHandler.handle(t, Trigger.operationType, Trigger.oldMap, Trigger.newMap); }   with the handler:  public inherited sharing MyHandler {      public void handle(SObjectType t, TriggerOperation op,             Map<Id, SObject> oldMap, Map<Id, SObject> newMap) {          // Logic conditional on t and op that does updates that cause recursion         ...     } }   Often single static Boolean flags are talked about to block trigger recursion. (Though an approach based on change checking that is designed to settle to the correct state can be needed instead to produce the correct business results.)  But for the simple case of complete blocking, (and now I'm writing this I think the answer is "yes"), is this pattern sufficient?  public inherited sharing MyHandler {      // Implements equals and hashCode     private class Kind {         ...     }      private static final Set<Kind> BLOCKED = new Set<Kind>();      public void handle(SObjectType t, TriggerOperation op,             Map<Id, SObject> oldMap, Map<Id, SObject> newMap) {          if (BLOCKED.contains(new Kind(t, op))) return;         ...         BLOCKED.add(new Kind(t, TriggerOperation.BEFORE_INSERT));         BLOCKED.add(new Kind(t, TriggerOperation.AFTER_INSERT));         insert sobs;         ...     } }


in a folder I got the following files:  book.h, book.cpp , card.h, card.cpp  these are the content of the book.h  class book {  public:         string title;         string author;         string get_title();         string get_author();  }  book::book(string title, string author){    title = title;    author = author; }   this is my book.cpp:  #include <book.h> #include <iostream> #include <string>  using namespace std;  string book::get_title(){    return title; }  string book::get_author(){  return author; }  int main(){  cout << ¨it works! \n¨  }   I I try to compile using g++ -c book.cpp, I keep getting an error message saying:  book.cpp:1:18: fatal error: book.h: No such file or directory compilation terminated.

In the C and C++ programming languages, what is the difference between using angle brackets and using quotes in an include statement, as follows?   #include <filename>  #include "filename"


I'm trying to connect a BNO080(IMU) to my microcontroller on a PCB. There are capacitors at the voltage input to the IC and I don't properly understand what these capacitors are doing or how their values are determined to be 0.1uF. Any help?

What is a decoupling capacitor (or smoothing capacitor as referred to in the link below)?  How do I know if I need one and if so, what size and where it needs to go?    mentions many chips needing one between VCC and GND; how do I know if a specific chip is one?   Would an  4-bit parallel access shift register used with an Arduino need one? (To use my current project as an example) Why or why not?  I feel like I'm starting to understand the basics of resistors and some places they're used, what values should be used in said places, etc, and I'd like to understand capacitors at the basic level as well.


Putting $n=1$, we get $f(f(1))+f(2)=3$. Thus there are two possibilities. Either $f(f(1))=1, f(2)=2$ or $f(f(1))=2, f(2)=1$. Also, we observe that $f(f(n))=n+2-f(n+1)\leq n+1$ and $f(n+1)=n+2-f(f(n))\leq n+1$. How do we get the values of $f(1)$ and $f(2)$?

Find all functions $f$ such that $f:\mathbb{N}\rightarrow\  \mathbb{N}$ and $f(f(n))+f(n+1)=n+2$   Let us plug in $n=1$  $f(f(1))+f(2)=3$  Since the function is from $\mathbb{N}$ to $\mathbb{N}$, $f(2)$ can only take the values $1,2$. Now we divide the problem into cases.  Case-1: $f(f(1))=2,f(2)=1$  We can assume that $f(1)=c$ for the time being. Then plugging in $n=3$ and using $f(2)=1$ gives $$f(3)=4-c$$ and again since the range of the function is positive integers,then $4-c$ has to be positive and hence $c$ belongs to  {$1,2,3$}. Now, $$f(1)=c$$$$\implies f(f(1))=f(c)$$$$\implies 2=f(c)$$ by the assumption that $f(f(1))=2$ . Now,since $c$ can only take the values $1,2,3$,we start treating cases. If $c=1$,$$f(c)=2$$$$\implies f(1)=2$$ but we know from the deinition of $c$ that $f(1)=c=1$,a contradiction.If $c=2$,then $2=f(c)=f(2)$ but $f(2)=1$ by assumption. Finally,if $c=3$ $$2=f(c)=f(3)$$ but $$f(3)=4-c=4-3=1$$ which is once again a contradiction. Therefore there are no such functions in this case.  Case-2: $f(f(1))=1,f(2)=2$  Again assuming $f(1)=c$ and using $f(n)\le n$ along with plugging $n=c-1$ will give us that $f(1)=1$ and then it is easy to prove that such a function exists by recursion. I can only give a "sort of recursive" way to define the function. Here it goes $$f:\mathbb{N}\rightarrow \mathbb{N}$$$$f(1)=1$$$$f(n)=n+1-f(f(n-1))$$  But this case is harder to deal with.Some help will be appreciated.


Ideally I am looking for RPGs that completely lack all randomization. No cards, no dice, no spinners. Hidden player knowledge is bad too, even that level of "random" is too random.  I'm looking for the RPG equivalent to Go or Chess.  Acceptable concessions: Should no games exist that are purely deterministic, here are the levels of randomness I will accept. These are in order, a game with only the last item is less desirable than one with only the first.   Ignorable Randomness. The game features random shops or loot, random battles on travel or some other easily ignored randomness that can be replaced with non-randomized lists or just excluded. Pre-game Randomization. Rolling for character stats, but then using what was rolled for the rest of the game with no further randomization. Hidden Player Knowledge. For example, if the game has a stealth mechanism that allows the GM not to mark the location of the hidden enemy. Hidden Character Knowledge is always acceptable. One-Off Random Element. Perhaps the game has a single spell which hits on a coin flip. TBD - I may add additional acceptable levels of randomness if no games are found.

I am interested in using a diceless resolution system for my roleplaying, but am not sure what my options are in that vein. I can think of basically two categories of diceless tabletop role-playing systems - systems which eschew any randomisation, and those which randomise by some method other than dice.  Examples  Non-random tabletop systems  One option is of direct comparison of stats or other game statistics without a randomization factor. The obvious example here is Amber DRPG, but I suspect that there are other narrative driven RPGs out there that I don't know about.   Even in Amber, situation resolution it is rarely by direct comparison between stats. Narrative techniques can be used to manoeuvre two characters into a situation which narrows the gap between their ranking, widens it, or brings other stats into the picture - the classic example of course being Corwin relying on his stamina to stretch out conflicts with his siblings such that it becomes a dominant enough factor that he can escape.  Other randomisation techniques  I have seen card-based randomization system. Over the years, I've played quite a few home brew games based on the original SAGA Dragonlance system, which was similar to the SAGA Marvel superhero system.  The basic mechanics were that you had a hand size according to your experience, and for any skill check you would play a card from your hand and replace your card from the draw pile. If you had a card of the right suit as the skill check (a strength card on a strength check) you would also draw a card from the draw pile and add that to your skill check, so a small trump was often worth more than a medium value card not of the correct suit. When you were wounded, you would discard cards to the value of the damage, but those cards wouldn't be replenished - your hand size would be reduced until you were healed. One nice aspect of the system was that it simulated fatigue beautifully, you might start a scene with a spread of high, medium and low cards, but as your high cards were played they would more often than not get replaced by lower value cards, until you were left with a bunch of useless cards and feeling very vulnerable.    The only other system I've played without dice was Everway which, if I remember correctly, used a combination of these techniques, stats based resolution, card resolution and GM fiat.  What I would be interested in is what other diceless resolution techniques exist, ideally with examples of tabletop diceless resolution methods people have tried and how they found them to play.


I'm currently using Ubuntu 14.04. It's showing the whole hard drive as single partition. I need to split the drive into different partitions.  How can I accomplish this, preferably via the terminal?

I only have access to the server via a terminal and I can't use graphical tools such as GParted! I want to create a new partition from a part of the root (about 768mb) for swap.  # df -h Filesystem      Size  Used Avail Use% Mounted on /dev/vda         20G  1.3G   18G   7% / udev             10M     0   10M   0% /dev tmpfs           199M  4.9M  194M   3% /run tmpfs           100M   12K  100M   1% /run/user tmpfs           5.0M  4.0K  5.0M   1% /run/lock


I have a Latex-file with some \psplots and \includegraphics commands.  When I compile with LaTeX->PS->PDF the \psplots are okay but I get the error message   cannot determine the size of graphic in fig5.jpg    And fig5 is much to big. And also  some characters f.E \ding{46} are printed not correctly.  When I compile directly Latex->PDF I only get the right size of Fig5.jpg but no drawings from the plots. The \ding{46} is correct.  I use the latest versions of MikTeX, TexnicCenter and GhostScript (I updated the today)  What is wrong?  MWE:  \documentclass[a4paper,11pt]{article}  \usepackage{graphicx}  \usepackage{pstricks}  \usepackage{pst-plot}  \usepackage{pifont}  \usepackage{marvosym}  \begin{document}  \begin{pspicture}(0,0)(6,6)  \psset{xunit=30pt, yunit=3pt}  \psgrid[Ox=0, Oy=0, xunit=1, yunit=10,subgriddiv=1,griddots=10,gridlabelcolor=white](0,0)(0,0)(6,6)  \psaxes[Dx=1,Dy=10,linewidth=1pt,ticksize=4pt](0,0)(0,0)(6,60) \psplot[plotpoints=200, algebraic=true, linewidth=2pt]{0}{3}{3*x^2+4}  \end{pspicture}  \\  \\  \ding{46}  \\  \includegraphics[width={\textwidth}]{fig5.jpg}  \end{document}

I thought that PSTricks package was not possible to use in pdfLaTeX but .   How can I force pdfLaTeX to use PSTricks then?


I usually play in third-person and when I activate my invisibility, I seem invisible, but when I start to move around, I become visible again (and become invisible again when stopped). Yet it always seems that NPCs can still see me. Guards will say something along the lines of 'Are you trying to hide?' when I am invisible.  I've tried everything. Save and reload doesn't work, multiple different potions didn't work. I even have the power 'Embrace of the Shadows' and that doesn't work. I've been wondering if it is my armor or weapons, so I took those off. Nothing. I tried muffling my footsteps. Nothing. I tried having no carry weight. Nothing. I am completely unable to go invisible. Guards and enemies attack me on sight, and this is becoming a real annoyance.   Is there any way to fix my problem, and does anyone know why it was caused?

So there I am, with nothing but my dagger and 4 enduring invisibility potions, all I need to do is sneak in, and out of the Thalmor Embassy. Easy, right? Or so I think. After I cause a distraction and grab my dagger and potions from the chest, I open the first door after having gulped a invisibility potion, and Charge past them real quick, and BOOM firebolts and lightning bolts fly at me, and I get smacked into a wall, my butt thouroughly kicked. What happened?! Does an invisibility potion NOT make you invisible? They turned on me faster than a hound on a bunny the moment I opened the door....