Say we wish to set attributions flush right and on the same line if there is ample room (at least 2em extra).  If there is not, they should be set on the next line, also flush right.  How would one write a macro \whence that took care of that?  My attempt below is not able to figure out whether or not there is room and requires a manual \\.     \documentclass{article}     \usepackage{showframe}      \textwidth=1.5in      \newcommand\whence[1]{\unskip\mbox{}\hskip2em\hfill#1}      \begin{document}      % attribution to the right, same line     all is water     \whence{thales}      % no room!     sum res cogitans     \whence{descartes}      % take new line     sum res cogitans\\     \whence{descartes}      \end{document}

In the first paragraph put out by the following programme, dolor is set at the right margin.  In the second, this doesn't happen, presumably because when the \hfill happens we are still on the first line.  \hsize 4in  lorem ipsum lorem ipsum lorem ip \hfill dolor  lorem ipsum lorem ipsum lorem ipsum lorem ipsum lorem ip \hfill dolor  lorem ipsum lorem ipsum lorem ipsum lorem ipsum lorem ip% \break\null \hfill dolor  lorem ipsum lorem ipsum lorem ipsum lorem ipsum lorem ipsum \break\null \hfill dolor  \bye     How can I ensure that dolor is set at the right margin, regardless of the position at which it occurs?  That is, how can I get the effect of the third paragraph, but not that of the fourth (with an extra line break) if the length of the text before dolor is changed?


The comparator code in C++ below is as follows:  struct WordGreaterComparator {     bool operator()(const std::string & left, const std::string & right) const     {         return (left > right);     } };   My question is can someone explain what exactly is going on with the part:  operator()(...   What exactly is the purpose of it and what does it mean?

I keep hearing a lot about functors in C++. Can someone give me an overview as to what they are and in what cases they would be useful?


Given two samples $X$ and $Y$ where $X$ has $X_1,...,X_n$ independent r.v's with unknown distribution $F$ and $Y$ has $Y_1,...,Y_m$ independent r.v's with unknown distribution $G$, find the expected value and variance of  $$R=\sum_{i=1}^{n+m}iA_i$$ (where $A_i$ is $1$ iff the $i$th smallest value of $X$ and $Y$ belongs to $X$ and is zero otherwise) assuming that $F=G$  If $F=G$ then I believe that implies that we have $n+m$ independent and identically distributed random variables, and therefore $\mathbb{P}(A_i=1)=\frac {n}{n+m}$ making $\mathbb{E}[R]=\frac {n(n+m+1)}{2}$. The variance causes me more trouble because $R$ is a sum of random variables and I am therefore not sure if using $\mathbb{E}\left[\binom{R}{2}\right]$ to calculate $\mathbb{E}[R^2]$ would be a good idea or if I need to expand $R^2$ and then use linearity of expectation.   I am not so certain about either of these results and even if they were correct, I am not satisfied with the way I obtained them. Is there a more rigorous and systematic way of getting to these answers? What if I had had to compute the expected value and variance of $R$ when $F\ne G$?  I would like to know how to obtain the $\mathbb{P}(A_i=1)$ so that I can calculate $\mathbb{E}[A_i]$ and consequently the expectation of $R$. I would like to do this formally, not just by saying that "because all the random variables in $X$ and $Y$ are equally likely to be the $i$th smallest, then $\mathbb{P}(A_i=1)=\frac {n}{n+m}$". I feel like this argument is a little hand wavy and dismissive, at least I would like to know if it could be derived from identities or other formulas.

$\newcommand{\E}[1]{\mathbb{E}\left[#1\right]} \newcommand{\r}[1]{r\left(#1\right)} \newcommand{\P}[1]{\mathbb{P}\left(#1\right)} \newcommand{\Var}[1]{\text{Var}\left[#1\right]}$  Given two sets of data $X$ with $m$ points and $Y$ with $n$ points, unioned (keeping duplicates) to create a data set $Z = \{Z_i\}$ with $m + n = N$ data points, the Wilcoxon Rank-Sum Test Statistic is given by \begin{equation*} T = \sum\limits_{i=1}^{N}r(Z_i)\cdot \mathbb{I}(Z_i \in X)\text{,} \end{equation*} where $\mathbb{I}(Z_i \in X)$ is $1$ if $Z_i \in X$, $0$ otherwise. ($r(\cdot)$ denotes the rank of the data point.)  Suppose there are no ties. Then  \begin{align*} \E{T} = \sum\limits_{i=1}^{N}\r{Z_i}\cdot \E{\mathbb{I}(Z_i \in X)} &= \sum\limits_{i=1}^{N}\r{Z_i}\cdot\P{Z_i \in X} \\ &= \dfrac{m}{N}\sum\limits_{i=1}^{N}\r{Z_i} \\ &= \dfrac{mN(N+1)}{2N} \\ &= \dfrac{m(N+1)}{2}\text{.} \end{align*} This comes out to what it says in the book Nonparametric Statistical Inference, 5th ed., by Gibbons and Chakraborti.  Now for $\Var{T}$: \begin{align*} \Var{T} &= \Var{\sum\limits_{i=1}^{N}\r{Z_i}\mathbb{I}(Z_i \in X)}\\ &= \sum\limits_{i=1}^{N}\left[\r{Z_i}\right]^2\Var{\mathbb{I}(Z_i \in X)} \\ &= \sum\limits_{i=1}^{N}\left[\r{Z_i}\right]^2\P{Z_i \in X}\left[1-\P{Z_i \in X}\right]\\ &= \left(\dfrac{m}{N}\right)\left(1-\dfrac{m}{N}\right)\sum\limits_{i=1}^{N}\left[\r{Z_i}\right]^2 \\ &= \left(\dfrac{m}{N}\right)\left(1-\dfrac{m}{N}\right)\left[\dfrac{N(N+1)(2N+1)}{6}\right] \\ &= \left(\dfrac{m}{N}\right)\left(\dfrac{N-m}{N}\right)\left[\dfrac{N(N+1)(2N+1)}{6}\right] \\ &= \left(\dfrac{m}{N}\right)\left(\dfrac{n}{N}\right)\left[\dfrac{N(N+1)(2N+1)}{6}\right] \\ &= \dfrac{2N+1}{N}\left[\dfrac{mn(N+1)}{6}\right] \end{align*} The answer should be $\dfrac{mn(N+1)}{12}$. What did I do wrong?


I recently met some sugar daddy and gave him my bank username and password for him to deposit money into my account. I had about 9.00$ in my account and he tried depositing 800$, then next day I tried logging into my account and it got shut down.  I called my bank and they told me it’s closed for fraud. Am I going to get in trouble for this or is there any way I can prove that that transaction was not from me?   They shut it down immediately so I doubt the scammer had tried spending the money. But is there any way they can prove that that wasn’t me (like my signature?) or see the location of where the transaction was taken place?

Someone is offering to pay me in a sort of sugar daddy/sugar baby arrangement. They want to make online deposits to me, and they're asking me for my online banking username and password. Is that information alone enough for them to be able to take my money out of my account, or am I safe?


I would like to know what are the differences between reading data in the next programs  The first one read data using a Scanner and the second one uses io  I know that we could also use JOptionPane but I would like to know the difference between using one or other option or if there are some of them which can only be used in specific cases.  You would really help me if you could answer, thanks any way for readind this, I appreciate it. C:  package test; import java.util.Scanner;  class Test{      public static void main(String [] args){           Scanner sc = new Scanner(System.in);          String name;           System.out.println("Ptss ...Tell me your name please.");          name = sc.nextLine();           System.out.println(name + " It's a pleasure to meet you");      } }        package test;     import java.util.io.*;      class Test{          public static void main(String [] args) throws IOException{               BufferedReader read = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(System.in));              String name;               System.out.println("Ptss ...Tell me your name please.");              name = read.readLine();              System.out.println(name + " It's a pleasure to meet you");         }     }

It is much more convenient and cleaner to use a single statement like  import java.awt.*;   than to import a bunch of individual classes  import java.awt.Panel; import java.awt.Graphics; import java.awt.Canvas; ...   What is wrong with using a wildcard in the import statement?


Prove that $\det A = 1$ with $A^T M A = M$ and  $M = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & I \\ -I &0 \end{bmatrix}$ ($I$ is the identity matrix of order n).

Suppose $A \in M_{2n}(\mathbb{R})$. and$$J=\begin{pmatrix} 0 & E_n\\   -E_n&0  \end{pmatrix}$$ where $E_n$ represents identity matrix. if $A$ satisfies $$AJA^T=J.$$ How to figure out $$\det(A)=1~?$$ My approach: I have tried to separate $A$ into four submartix:$$A=\begin{pmatrix}A_1&A_2 \\A_3&A_4 \end{pmatrix}$$ and I must add a assumption that $A_1$ is invertible. by elementary transfromation:$$\begin{pmatrix}A_1&A_2 \\ A_3&A_4\end{pmatrix}\rightarrow \begin{pmatrix}A_1&A_2 \\ 0&A_4-A_3A_1^{-1}A_2\end{pmatrix}$$ we have: $$\det(A)=\det(A_1)\det(A_4-A_3A_1^{-1}A_2).$$ From$$\begin{pmatrix}A_1&A_2 \\ A_3&A_4\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}0&E_n \\ -E_n&0\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}A_1&A_2 \\ A_3&A_4\end{pmatrix}^T=\begin{pmatrix}0&E_n \\ -E_n&0\end{pmatrix}.$$ we get two equalities:$$A_1A_2^T=A_2A_1^T$$ and $$A_1A_4^T-A_2A_3^T=E_n.$$ then $$\det(A)=\det(A_1(A_4-A_3A_1^{-1}A_2)^T)=\det(A_1A_4^T-A_1A_2^T(A_1^T)^{-1}A_3^T)=\det(A_1A_4^T-A_2A_1^T(A_1^T)^{-1}A_3^T)=\det(E_n)=1,$$ but I have no idea to deal with this problem when $A_1$ is not invertible.


There's no connection between Arduino and my computer. When I upload a program, I get the error message:  avrdude: ser_open(): can't open device "/dev/ttyS0": Permission denied An error occurred while uploading the sketch   Anybody knows the problem and the solution?  Thanks.

My OS is Ubuntu 18.04 and arduino was working until now.  Although there are a few solutions, none of them seems to work for me.  I followed  on the arduino website.  Then I tried , which should work in cases where the first solution didn't. The answer says we should create a few rules on /etc/udev/ruled.d/ path.  But none of them worked for me.  I also tested arduino in Windows 10 to see if it was a hardware problem, but it worked fine.  Does anyone have any other ideas on how to solve this issue?  UPDATE:   My username, sergio, is part of both groups (tty and dialout); I logged out and back in as arduino official tutorial explains; In Arduino IDE, the configurations are correct: Arduino UNO and ttyACM0 This is the output of ll /dev/ttyACM0 after running the tutorial commands:  crw-rw-rw- 1 root dialout 166, 0 Jul 15 05:41 /dev/ttyACM0    UPDATE 2:  I've created a script to solve this:


I have a Nikon d5500 and a 55-200mm lens. I'm hoping to get pictures like these for a project- my main hang up is lighting? What sort of equipment should I use and are there any specific angles? Thanks!

I would like to ask for some inputs on how I can achieve similar low-key results for a fish:    Current setup:    Small aquarium 30 x 15 x 15 cms (LBH) The sides and the back of the aquarium are covered by a black muslin cloth. The LED no longer has cardboard roll on it. I was using this to cut reflections, but it really reduced my working space. The LED helps me focus and provides continuous light.   Question: How do I implement the inverse square law here given the small space? I  don't understand how to bring the flash closer to the fish than to the background.  Thank you for reading the complete post.  Goal:   Perfectly and FULLY illuminated subject with no part lost to shadows.  Pitch-black background.


So I wanted to customise my chapter style and remove the space before it. I've already used \titlespacing from titlesec package, but there still is space before the title.  mycls.cls:  \NeedsTeXFormat{LaTeX2e} \ProvidesClass{mycls}[2015/11/18 My class]  \LoadClass{book}  \RequirePackage[showframe]{geometry}  \RequirePackage{titlesec}  \titleformat{\chapter}[display]   {\center}   {\thechapter}   {0.1875in}   {} \titlespacing*{\chapter}   {0in}   {0in}   {0.4375in}   example.tex:  \documentclass{mycls}  \usepackage{lipsum}  \title{Tex StackExchange Example} \author{Pedro}  \begin{document}  \maketitle  \chapter{Chapter}  \lipsum[1]  \lipsum[2]  \end{document}   Generated document with space between the top of the frame and the chapter number:    Any hint on what I'm not doing right/what I should be doing?

I have a problem that I can't seem to solve. Basically, I want my chapter headings to be at the same position relative to top of the page as the rest of the text. I've looked at numerous resources online, but the problem is still not solved... :(  I tried using the titlesec package, but no results:  \usepackage{titlesec} \titleformat{\chapter}[hang] {\normalfont\Large\bfseries}{\thechapter}{1em}{\Large} \titleformat{\section} {\normalfont\Large\bfseries}{\thesection}{1em}{} \titlespacing*{\chapter} {0pt}{\baselineskip}{0pt} \titlespacing*{\section} {0pt}{\baselineskip}{0pt}   Here is what I get in the output:  Chapter Heading:    Other text (sections):    Also, the headings of TOC LoF and LoT are a little off from normal Chapter heading spacing...  Please help!


I am not sure if it is the same as  and  but I am trying to set up the following mydomain.com is managed by a provider like IONOS or Dyn.com which does not provide an API for creating and managing records with Terraform.  Since we have several records there already, I don't want to switch everything to Route53 all at once. What I want to do is set up such that tenants.mydomain.com and *.tenants.mydomain.com is managed by Route53 but I only want to manually configure tenants.mydomain.com on the existing provider once. The instructions  does it for each subdomain.  However, it does not say whether it can handle the sub-subdomains. (Just trying it out right now, but learning on how to set up Route 53 right now so I am not sure if it would work). UPDATE: doing the steps for   allows me to set up the sub-subdomain records and works well with Terraform

My goal is to be able to add/drop subdomains for a multi-tenant app via Route53: tenant.example.com. Account provisioning should place the new tenant on a hosting node and then add the newly onboarded tenant subdomain to Route53. The parent DNS is currently handled by a 3rd party (dnsmadeeasy). Currently DNS provider has something like this:  example.com -> A -> <someIP> example.com -> MX -> <mailhost> mail.example.com -> CNAME ->  <mailhost> www.example.com -> CNAME -> example.com example.com -> NS -> <several provider name servers>   I'm also pretty sure the DNS parent provider (dnsmadeeasy) has a SOA record too which is implicit (not shown in management UI). So I did the following:   I added a wildcard hosted zone in Route53: *.example.com. This has 5 records right now, 4 NS records with various name servers and a SOA record I added the Route53 NS records to the parent DNS provider (dnsmadeeasy)  *.example.com -> NS -> <Route53 name server for hostzone above>   My thinking was that now I can start adding A records in the Route53 zone for each tenant:  tenant1.example.com -> A -> <tenant1 hosting IP> tenant2.example.com -> A -> <tenant1 hosting IP> ...   But trying to add A records in Route53 results in tenant1.\052.example.com which is not what I want. And I'm not even sure it will work.  My question is whether this is a correct way to go ahead or I'm of the wrong path.


difference between property with empty accessor or without accessor?  // Property with empty accessors public string Name { get; set; }  // Property without accessor public int Counter;   edit:  what implications beyond the compiler's statement implies such

I see a lot of example code for C# classes that does this:  public class Point {     public int x { get; set; }     public int y { get; set; } }   Or, in older code, the same with an explicit private backing value and without the new auto-implemented properties:  public class Point {     private int _x;     private int _y;      public int x {         get { return _x; }         set { _x = value; }     }      public int y {         get { return _y; }         set { _y = value; }     } }   My question is why. Is there any functional difference between doing the above and just making these members public fields, like below?  public class Point {     public int x;     public int y; }   To be clear, I understand the value of getters and setters when you need to do some translation of the underlying data. But in cases where you're just passing the values through, it seems needlessly verbose.


I'm looking for documentations regarding __init__'s second argument. In the snippet below, I instantiated an object of class test with a dict object, and actual content of this dict object was passed onto the test object via the second argument of the __init__ method. So I think I know how this works and this is a really neat feature, however I would like to learn more about this but haven't been able to find any page that documents how this works in detail. Could you please link me to a documentation that covers this, or explain to me how it works? Much appreciated! aDict = {     'a': 1,     'b': 2 }  class test:     def __init__(self, data):         self.data = data  new_aDict = test(aDict) new_aDict.data  {'a': 1, 'b': 2}

When defining a method on a class in Python, it looks something like this:  class MyClass(object):     def __init__(self, x, y):         self.x = x         self.y = y   But in some other languages, such as C#, you have a reference to the object that the method is bound to with the "this" keyword without declaring it as an argument in the method prototype.    Was this an intentional language design decision in Python or are there some implementation details that require the passing of "self" as an argument?


I'm a RSA n00b when it comes to the mathematics for RSA. After spending some time reading, watching lectures, etc. I pretty much have everything down, except for how to figure out the equation for determining the private key $d$.  Reading this very Q/A forum, a person said, "There are better ways to find $d$ from $e$ if you know $\varphi(n)$. But if you don't, you're in trouble, because you need to factorize $n$ to do that."  Taking that comment to heart, what is the "better way" to find "$d$" if you know $\varphi(n)$?  $m=42$    Message to be encrypted  $p=61$    Prime 1  $q=53$    Prime 2  $e=17$    Random Exponent greater than 2  --  $n=3233$  $\varphi(n)= 3120$  I know that $m^e = c \mod n$ is to encrypt and you get $2557$. To decrypt the equation is $c^d = m \mod n$, but my hangup is figuring out $d$. Can somebody spell out the equation, process, etc on figuring out $d$?

When given $p = 5, q = 11, N = 55$ and $e = 17$, I'm trying to compute the RSA private key $d$.  I can calculate $\varphi(N) = 40$, but my lecturer then says to use the extended Euclidean algorithm to compute $d$. That's where I get stuck.    Here's my work so far:  First I use the Euclid algorithm to calculate:  40 = 2(17) + 6  17 = 2(6) + 5 6 = 1(5) + 1 = gcd   So I know the GCD is 1. Applying the 'extended' section of the algorithm:  6 = 40-2(17) 5 = 17-2(6) 1 = 6-1(5) 1 = 6-1(17-2(6)) 3(6) = 1 (17) 3(40 - 2(17)) - 1(17) 3(40) - 3(17)   I know the answer is $33$, but I have no idea how to get there using the extended Euclidean algorithm. I can't figure out why I'm getting $3(40) - 3(17)$ when I know the answer should contain $33$.


For some reason, the election page does not seem to be detecting existing moderators correctly. Most notably the form to nominate yourself is not disabled like, I believe, it used to be. I was able to enter a nomination for myself in the  in spite of already :    If, on the other hand, I could earn double-diamond status please let me know in the next few hours so I can write up a real nomination before the voting starts!

, and I can nominate myself again, despite having won the first round of election.    I understand this isn't going to be easy to fix, given that SE only knows about community mods, employees and developer roles, and pro-tempore mods need to be able to nominate themselves.


Is there a way to add and remove or disable a CSS rule in JavaScript? Here is the CSS:   #myElement *, #myElement *:before {    outline:1px dotted red; }   Here is what I have so far:    var myCSS = "#myElement *, #myElement *:before {outline:1px dotted red;}"; // document.addCSS(myCSS);   EDIT: I can't add the rules to the HTML page and toggle between them. I need to be able to create a rule in JavaScript after the page loads and also switch it on and off in JS.

How do you add CSS rules (eg strong { color: red }) by use of Javascript?


I have an array of [1,2,3]  I want to make all the possible combinations using all elements of the array:  Result:  [[1], [2], [3]] [[1,2], [3]] [[1], [2,3]] [[1,3], [2]] [[1,2,3]]

I have a list with 15 numbers in, and I need to write some code that produces all 32,768 combinations of those numbers.   I've found  (by Googling) that apparently does what I'm looking for, but I found the code fairly opaque and am wary of using it. Plus I have a feeling there must be a more elegant solution.  The only thing that occurs to me would be to just loop through the decimal integers 1–32768 and convert those to binary, and use the binary representation as a filter to pick out the appropriate numbers.   Does anyone know of a better way? Using map(), maybe?


Want to convert the .kml file into .shp file so that I can create new the point, line and polygons data to work in ArcGIS.    Actually I want to use Google Earth to make data for ArcGIS.

My users are sending me point data that were digitized using Google Earth. How can I convert their KML to a shapefile and vice versa?


We are taught that $$2^3 = 8$$ Because $$ 2\times2\times2 = 8$$ However, how would we calculate something like: $$2^\pi = \space?$$

The way that I was taught it in 8th grade algebra, a number raised to a fractional exponent, i.e. $a^\frac x y$ is equivalent to the denominatorth root of the number raised to the numerator, i.e. $\sqrt[y]{a^x}$. So what happens when you raise a number to an irrational number? Obviously it is not so simple to break it down like above. Does an irrational exponent still have a well formed meaning?  The only example that comes to mind is Euler's identity, but that seems likes a pretty exceptional case. What about in general?


I want to put a LaTeX "notice" in my document, something like "This document was created using LaTeX". However, I think the words in italic might be wrong: should it be "created", or "produced", or what?, and should it be "using", or "on", or what?

Is there any common way to mention that a document has been typeset by TeX? So non-TeXnicians (TeXperts) may become a little familiar with the TeX world.  Update: It would be nice if one hero make a package that insert such information in a beauty and concise manner in a given language, so even lazy TeXnicians will credit TeX . For example:  ... \usepackage{colophon} ... \colophon[language=fa,packages=bibtex,xepersian] ...


I need to find my pLr. files for my terraria character but i have steam version so can't find them! Where are they can anyone help?

Currently my map server is run on my laptop at home, and my brother and I play via LAN each on his desktop PC.  However, I'd like to transfer my character from the Desktop PC to my laptop in order to play on the go.  Can I do this? Where is the character information saved?


I use Xubuntu and am very happy with XFCE. I use it in a netbook and saving screen space is vital for me. So I want to move the menus to a bar like it was in Unity. Some months ago I had followed the tutorial in  and it had worked fine in Xubuntu 16.04. Now I have installed Xubuntu 18.04 and am getting this error:  ~$ sudo add-apt-repository ppa:webupd8team/mate  The packages in this PPA require MATE 1.8 or newer. For Ubuntu 14.04, it depends on the following PPA: https://launchpad.net/~ubuntu-mate-dev/+archive/ubuntu/trusty-mate  Currently, this PPA only provides TopMenu (global menu) from Git for MATE 1.8+ and Xfce. More information: - MATE: http://www.webupd8.org/2014/12/get-global-menu-in-mate-18-with-topmenu.html - Xfce: http://www.webupd8.org/2015/02/use-global-menu-in-xubuntu-or-linux.html  Más información: https://launchpad.net/~webupd8team/+archive/ubuntu/mate Pulse [ENTRAR] para continuar o Ctrl+C para cancelar la adición.  Obj:1 http://ar.archive.ubuntu.com/ubuntu bionic InRelease                       Des:2 http://security.ubuntu.com/ubuntu bionic-security InRelease [83,2 kB]                                Obj:3 http://ar.archive.ubuntu.com/ubuntu bionic-updates InRelease                                                Obj:4 http://ppa.launchpad.net/lyx-devel/release/ubuntu bionic InRelease                                            Obj:5 http://ppa.launchpad.net/snwh/ppa/ubuntu bionic InRelease                                                                           Obj:6 http://ar.archive.ubuntu.com/ubuntu bionic-backports InRelease              Ign:7 http://ppa.launchpad.net/webupd8team/mate/ubuntu bionic InRelease       Err:8 http://ppa.launchpad.net/webupd8team/mate/ubuntu bionic Release   404  Not Found [IP: 91.189.95.83 80] Leyendo lista de paquetes... Hecho E: El repositorio «http://ppa.launchpad.net/webupd8team/mate/ubuntu bionic Release» no tiene un fichero de Publicación. N: No se puede actualizar de un repositorio como este de forma segura y por tanto está deshabilitado por omisión. N: Vea la página de manual apt-secure(8) para los detalles sobre la creación de repositorios y la configuración de usuarios.  ~$ sudo apt install xfce4-vala-appmenu-plugin unity-gtk3-module unity-gtk2-module appmenu-qt appmenu-qt5 Leyendo lista de paquetes... Hecho Creando árbol de dependencias        Leyendo la información de estado... Hecho El paquete appmenu-qt5 no está disponible, pero algún otro paquete hace referencia a él. Esto puede significar que el paquete falta, está obsoleto o sólo se encuentra disponible desde alguna otra fuente  E: No se ha podido localizar el paquete xfce4-vala-appmenu-plugin E: El paquete «appmenu-qt5» no tiene un candidato para la instalación   I don't want to install MATE, I want to keep XFCE but with the global menu bar.

When I try to install any package through the command line, I get an error.   $ sudo apt-get install <package> Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree        Reading state information... Done E: Unable to locate package <package>   Can anyone help me on this?


I have the following statement -  $$\frac{\pi}{2} <  \sum_{n=0}^\infty \dfrac{1}{n^2 + 1} < \frac{3\pi}{2} $$  So I tried to prove this statement using the integral test and successfully proved the lower bound. But when I tried to calculate the upper bound I was required to calculate the integral from -1 - $\int_{-1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{x^2 +1}\,dx$. If someone can explain why it will be great , thanks!

$${\pi \over 2} \le \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} {1 \over {1+n^2}} \le {\pi \over 2} + 1$$  I see I should use Riemann sum, and that $$\int_0^{\infty} {dx \over {1+x^2}} \le \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} {1 \over {1+n^2}}$$  But how do I explain this exactly, and how to get the other half of the inequality (with ${\pi \over 2} + 1$)?


For my research, I need to ask respondents to indicate on a map where they think crime happens. I think of this as a digital solution to physically dropping pins on a map. Is there an online software to allow this?  This is work I am doing as a student for my PhD. The work is carried out with police, that cannot be induced to use not immediately user-friendly software.  The software needs to be able to record in one answer, multiple points/polygons with attribute data (e.g. a short description of the type of crime they refer to). If it could be integrated together with a Survey even better, but not essential.   I can have access to Survey123, but it doesn't allow to record multiple points/polygons in the same answer (or multiple types of data input in the same question, for that matter). I have access to ArcGIS Online mapping, but I can't give access to the same file to all respondents. The reason why they can't see the previous respondent's answers is that they all need to provide their own response, and I need to limit any crossover between colleagues (also because I'd want to analyse inter-departmental differences).   My solution in the past has been asking as open questions, where crime happened, allowing for respondents to list names of streets/places in a text box. From that, I'd then manually have to enter/highlight in ArcGIS Desktop the answer by searching the place/street and drawing points/polygons myself. I would want to avoid doing this rather lengthy process again, as I have 200+ respondents.   Other options that I have explored, from reading old threads about this topic (specifically this one was the closest: ) seem unsuitable. Specifically, CrowdMap seems to have changed over time or been re-developed behind a price barrier (which I cannot justify). CrowdSpot seemed also to have developed the same idea around their project, but once again they offer commercial solutions ( which I would prefer avoiding since I couldn't justify the price).   Off top of my head, I can think of only these details, but I am happy to be more specific once more questions come in.  I can't predict what details I need to provide until I know know what the limitations of the proposed software are.

I am looking at collecting spatial information from a range of stakeholders to identify opportunities within a landscape.  However, the data that we are collecting are not presently mapped and so we wish to use an interactive method to get this information onto a map.  Which online websites/methods would people recommend for circulating to a non-technical audience to try and get them to map what they know?    Where the emphasis is on ease of use by the stakeholder.


I made another big screw-up, but I might be able to fix it. Whenever I use sudo [command], I always get  -bash: /usr/bin/sudo: cannot execute binary file: Exec format error   I recently did chmod -R 777 /,but stopped it immediately, however, I get the error above. Does anybody know how this can be fixed?  Thank you in advance

I accidently ran  sudo chmod 755 -R /   instead of  sudo chmod 755 -R ./   I stopped it after few seconds, but now there is some problems such as  sudo: must be setuid root   How can I revert permissions back?


lets say $\ Y $ distributed exponential with the following pdf: $$\ f_{\theta, \tau} = \theta \cdot e^{-\theta(y-\tau)}\mathbb I \{y \ge \tau\} , \theta > 0 $$ and I'm trying to find MLE when both $\ \theta, \tau $ are unknowns. If I did everything correctly then the log likelihood function is $$\ l(\theta, \tau ; y) = n\cdot ln(\theta) + \theta \cdot \tau \cdot n - \theta \sum y_i $$ derivative w.r.t $\ \theta $  is $$\ \frac{\partial l}{\partial \theta} = \frac{n}{\theta} + \tau \cdot n - \sum y_i  \Rightarrow \theta = \frac{n}{\sum y_i - \tau \cdot n}$$ and derivative w.r.t to $\ \tau $ is just $\ \frac{\partial l}{\partial \tau} = n  \Rightarrow n = 0 $ so I did something wrong here but can't figure out what ? Thanks.

I was doing my homework and the following problem came up! We have the CDF of an exponential distribution that is shifted $L$ units where $L>0$ and $x>=L$. The CDF is:  $$1-e^{-\lambda(x-L)}$$  The question says that we should assume that the following data are lifetimes of electric motors, in hours, which are:  $$\begin{align*} 153.52,103.23,31.75,28.91,37.91,7.11,99.21,31.77,11.01,217.40 \end{align*}$$  Please note that the $mean$ of these numbers is: $72.182$  Now the question has two parts which I will go through one by one:  Part1: Evaluate the log likelihood for the data when $\lambda=0.02$ and $L=3.555$. Now the way I approached the problem was to take the derivative of the CDF with respect to $\lambda$ to get the PDF which is:  $$(x-L)e^{-\lambda(x-L)}$$  Then since we have $n$ observations where $n=10$, we have the following joint pdf, due to independence:  $$(x_i-L)^ne^{-\lambda(x_i-L)n}$$ which can be rewritten as the following log likelihood:  $$n\ln(x_i-L)-\lambda\sum_{i=1}^n(x_i-L)$$ Is this the correct approach? Because it would take quite a while and be pretty cumbersome to evaluate $n\ln(x_i-L)$ for every observation?  Part2: The question also asks for the ML Estimate of $L$. So assuming the log likelihood is correct, we can take the derivative with respect to $L$ and get:  $\frac{n}{x_i-L}+\lambda=0$ and solve for $L$? Is this correct? Because I am not quite sure on how I should proceed?  Thanks so much for your help! I greatly appreciate it :)


How to prove that all eigenstate $|0\rangle,|1 \rangle,...| n\rangle $ are non-degenerate where  $a^{\dagger}a|n \rangle =n|n \rangle $

The standard treatment of the one-dimensional  (SHO) using the raising and lowering operators arrives at the countable basis of eigenstates $\{\vert n \rangle\}_{n = 0}^{\infty}$ each with corresponding eigenvalue $E_n = \omega \left(n + \frac{1}{2}\right)$. Refer to this construction as the abstract solution.  How does the abstract solution also prove uniqueness? Why is there only one unique sequence of countable eigenstates? In particular, can one prove the state $\vert 0\rangle$ is the unique ground state without resorting to coordinate representation? (It would then follow that the set $\{\vert n \rangle\}_{n = 0}^{\infty}$ is also unique.)  The uniqueness condition is obvious if one solves the problem in coordinate representation since then one works in the realm of differential equations where uniqueness theorems abound. Most textbooks ignore this detail (especially since they often solve the problem both in coordinate representation and abstractly), however I have found two exceptions:   Shankar appeals to a theorem which proves one-dimensional systems are non-degenerate, however this is unsatisfactory for two reasons:   Not every one-dimensional system is non-degenerate, however a general result can be proven for a large class of potentials (the SHO potential is in such a class). The proof requires a departure from the abstract solution since it classifies the potentials according to their functional properties.  Griffiths addresses this concern in a footnote stating that the equation $a \vert 0\rangle = 0$ uniquely determines the state $\vert 0\rangle$. Perhaps this follows from the abstract solution, however I do not see how.


I recently learned more about Taylor series, what I called infinite polynomials, and decided to find the Taylor series of $\sqrt{x}$. Of course, because $\frac{d}{dx}\sqrt{x}$ at $x=0$ is undefined, I am actually asking about the Taylor series of $\sqrt{x+1}$. I have found the Taylor series for this, kinda. It is $\sum_{n=0}^∞\left(\left(\prod_{m=1}^n\left(1.5-m\right)\right)\cdot\frac{x^n}{n!}\right)$. My real question is: Can this be made smaller?

I want help in writing Taylor series of $\sqrt{1+x}$ using sigma notation I got till  $1+\frac{x}{2}-\frac{x^2}{8}+\frac{x^3}{16}-\frac{5x^4}{128}+\ldots$ and so on. But I don't know what will come in sigma notation.


Screenshots are so useful. Is there a built-in way to upload an image that produces a link that can be shared inside a comment (since images can't be put into comments directly)? If not, what is a recommended fallback service that could be recommended that is trustworthy for Stack Overflow users to click on? I don't want to share links that won't be clicked on due to users not recognizing the URL as a safe site to visit. EDIT: Someone suggested this might be a duplicate of  - however it is a different question. I'm aware that embedding images isn't possible within comments and wasn't asking about that. I'm clearly asking what the preferred/trustworthy way of sharing links to images is inside of comments, hence, a different question.

I was wondering if it is possible to post a comment with an image.  Recently, during a question about data-visualization in Cross Validated, there was a controversy about using one type of chart for another.   I had posted a question about pie-charts, after reading some references I decided to build an example and clarify the point of using waffle-chart vs pie-chart. In a way, my example was not an answer it was more properly a comment on waffle-charts. But it seems to be impossible to post a comment with an image (Maybe, there is a way but I can't figure out how).  I don't know if it is relevant to post images in comments in other SO sites. So, if there is no way to post images in comments... why not making it possible? And if there is a way to post an image with a comment, how I can do it?


Sybill Trelawney's prophecy said that the child to face Voldemort would be      "born as the seventh month dies."   Neville was born on July 30th, Harry on 31st. So isn't the 31st really the last day of the month, the day the month dies?   Since Harry fits the prophecy better (e.g. he was born on the last day of the month), why would Neville even be considered as the child of the prophecy?

Here is Sybill Trelawney's first prophecy:     "The one with the power to vanquish the Dark Lord approaches ... born to those who have thrice defied him, born as the seventh month dies ... and the Dark Lord will mark him as his equal, but he will have power the Dark Lord knows not ... and either must die at the hand of the other for neither can live while the other survives ... the one with the power to vanquish the Dark Lord will be born as the seventh month dies ..."   The requirements for the Chosen One are then:   Parents defied Voldemort 3 times Born at the end of July   With all the witches and wizards who fought against Voldemort, how is it possible that only Harry and Neville fit these qualifications?  The First Wizarding War was extremely large, and so there were at least thousands, if not millions, of wizards and witches who defied Voldemort. July is also the .   It seems that there have to have been more possible Chosen Ones.


I am a complete novice latex and I am currently learning how to create the bibliography. The tutorial I am looking at is   It tells me to use the bibtex but I cannot find a site in google where I can download the program. Could anyone recommend a website I can download the bibtex?

Is there a 'biblatex in a nutshell' guide out there? I'd like if someone explained to me the essentials on how to use biblatex (what lines I have to write in my document, which files I have to have, how many times and what I have to compile), so then I can go to  to customise it further.


Could I ask for help in the following homework question?     Given any metric space $(M, d)$, show that the metric $\rho = d /(1 + d)$ is always uniformly equivalent to $d$ but that there are cases in which the inequality $d < C \rho$ may fail to hold.   Does equivalent imply uniformly equivalent?

Let $(E,d)$ be a metric space and $\rho(x,y)= \frac{d(x,y)}{1+d(x,y)}$. Show that $(E,\rho)$ is a metric and $\rho$ and $d$ are equivalent.   I have proved the part about the metric space. However, I cant remember how to prove the equivalence. Also I'm stuck with a follow up which says:     Show that there are no constants $c,C >0$ such that for all $x,y \in E:$ $$cd(x,y) \leq \rho(x,y) \leq Cd(x,y)$$


Here I am, poking around a remote server via SSH, and I want to find out about/read/edit/whatever a file. I don't like vi or other CMI stuff, I want to read it locally.  Is there any way I can download it without exiting my interactive SSH session? (Even better, would there be any way to run local commands without exiting it?)

If I'm logged in to a system via SSH, is there a way to copy a file back to my local system without firing up another terminal or screen session and doing scp or something similar or without doing SSH from the remote system back to the local system?


I have a command processing function that runs its arguments and outputs the results to a file. The outputs of those commands must now be PROCESSED just before going to the file.  I have only one requirement: echo "var is: $var" must show the outcome which will be used further down in the code.  THIS BREAKS MY REQUIREMENT: "${@:1}" | perl -pe 's/\**//g' >> './test.log'  I imagine something like this:  "${@:1}" 1>> perl -pe 's/\**//g' >> './test.log'   but it does not work.  I have simplified my code down to the following:  process() {     "${@:1}" 1>>'./test.log' }  process eval 'var=$(echo -e "*****ONE *****WORD"); echo -e "$var";' echo "var is: $var"   Currently this function outputs:   screen :"var is: *****ONE *****WORD"   logfile:"*****ONE *****WORD"   .  Required result:   screen :"var is: *****ONE *****WORD"    logfile:"ONE WORD"   How can I achieve this?  PS. muru asked me why I use eval. I answered, because there is no other way to populate the variable without duplicating code. Unfortunately our discussion under his answer was deleted.

I can use the "script" command to record an interactive session at the command line.  However, this includes all control characters and colour codes.  I can remove control characters (like backspace) with "col -b", but I can't find a simple way to remove the colour codes.  Note that I want to use the command line in the normal way, so don't want to disable colours there - I just want to remove them from the script output.  Also, I know can play around and try find a regexp to fix things up, but I am hoping there is a simpler (and more reliable - what if there's a code I don't know about when I develop the regexp?) solution.  To show the problem:   spl62 tmp: script Script started, file is typescript spl62 lepl: ls add-licence.sed  build-example.sh  commit-test         push-docs.sh add-licence.sh   build.sh          delete-licence.sed  setup.py asn              build-test.sh     delete-licence.sh   src build-doc.sh     clean             doc-src             test.ini spl62 lepl: exit Script done, file is typescript spl62 tmp: cat -v typescript Script started on Thu 09 Jun 2011 09:47:27 AM CLT spl62 lepl: ls^M ^[[0m^[[00madd-licence.sed^[[0m  ^[[00;32mbuild-example.sh^[[0m  ^[[00mcommit-test^[[0m         ^[[00;32mpush-docs.sh^[[0m^M ^[[00;32madd-licence.sh^[[0m   ^[[00;32mbuild.sh^[[0m          ^[[00mdelete-licence.sed^[[0m  ^[[00msetup.py^[[0m^M ^[[01;34masn^[[0m              ^[[00;32mbuild-test.sh^[[0m     ^[[00;32mdelete-licence.sh^[[0m   ^[[01;34msrc^[[0m^M ^[[00;32mbuild-doc.sh^[[0m     ^[[00;32mclean^[[0m             ^[[01;34mdoc-src^[[0m             ^[[00mtest.ini^[[0m^M spl62 lepl: exit^M  Script done on Thu 09 Jun 2011 09:47:29 AM CLT spl62 tmp: col -b < typescript  Script started on Thu 09 Jun 2011 09:47:27 AM CLT spl62 lepl: ls 0m00madd-licence.sed0m  00;32mbuild-example.sh0m  00mcommit-test0m         00;32mpush-docs.sh0m 00;32madd-licence.sh0m   00;32mbuild.sh0m          00mdelete-licence.sed0m  00msetup.py0m 01;34masn0m              00;32mbuild-test.sh0m     00;32mdelete-licence.sh0m   01;34msrc0m 00;32mbuild-doc.sh0m     00;32mclean0m             01;34mdoc-src0m             00mtest.ini0m spl62 lepl: exit  Script done on Thu 09 Jun 2011 09:47:29 AM CLT


The sum of $1+2+3+ . . . +n = n(n+1)/2$, as I have checked carefully, but how can you prove this?  I am determining the dimension of the space of $n x n$ matrices in the upper triangular form, and it is clear to me that the number of basis matrices has to be $1 + 2 + 3 + . . . +n$.  I found in a book that the number of basis matrices for a U.T. matrix is $n(n+1)/2$, which matches my idea but it is certainly a much more elegant way to put it.  But how do you go from one to the other?

Apparently $1+2+3+4+\ldots+n = \dfrac{n\times(n+1)}2$.  How? What's the proof? Or maybe it is self apparent just looking at the above?   PS: This problem is known as "The sum of the first $n$ positive integers".


I am new to blender and I really love it. I have completed some tutorials from tutor4u on youtube. I have a HP Probook 4530s with a core i5 2430M CPU and the problem is that when rendering files the CPU temps reach about 99C or about 210F which It think is not good.I have tried limiting the threads to 1 but then one of the core heats up to 200F or 95C. P.S. I am not sure if my computer has a graphics card. It does have Intel Integrated Graphics.

Apparently my CPU or GPU overheats when Blender renders more than a few minutes.  The computer suddenly powers down, taking down all running apps, email I'm writing, etc.  This is almost never a problem with still scenes, which finish soon enough, but often with animation renders.    The problem occurs with either Cycles or BI renders.  I'm running on a custom-built quad core 64-bit linux desktop system.  (I'm not the one who built it. I am  a knuckle-dragging caveman with hardware issues.) (Yes, all the fans are blowing and dust has been cleaned off.)  So far the only way to prevent this for now is to choose in camera properties: Performance, Threads, Fixed, 1.     Someday, I'll get better hardware, but in the meantime, I suspect Blender could run indefinitely, even with multiple threads, if I could make it pause for perhaps one minute between each frame when animating, just to cool down. How to make this happen?  At least, a way to run an arbitrary Python script between frames, or once per minute during any rendering. Such a script could contain a sleep stat  Even better, if Blender could throttle its rendering effort based on readings of the CPU temperature sensor.   Is that possible?  UPDATE: I've nearly forgotten about this issue, since writing a quick Python script to watch the CPU temperature, sending SIGSTOP and SIGCONT as gandalf3 describes. Zero crashes ever since. I reboot my machine once or twice per year for kernel upgrades, otherwise it's 100% up.  ANOTHER UPDATE: I took the machine apart, popped off the CPU heatsink, and applied fresh thermal paste.  Ever since, the CPU temperature has been running something like 30deg (C) cooler all the time.  Zero shutdowns, and I don't use the Python script any more unless I'm feeling paranoid.


So I asked a friend to dual-boost ubuntu 14.04 with Windows 8.1. But the USB stick he used to install ubuntu came out. He re-did the install but ubuntu didn't recognise windows and took over the entire laptop. Anyway, about the DVDs. I tried to play a DVD on totem. It didn't work. My brother installed VLC but when I tried to play a DVD on that it said it had to be Eclipse because of a playlist I had accidentally created. With the playlist now gone and a different DVD in the laptop I tried again, to little success. I have done several things in the terminal including libdvdread4 and some other stuff. I removed and installed VLC again to little success. At first it tried to play Sims3 as a DVD so I compressed the file and moved it. This enabled Angel to be read but not play. It has the cone stay on the screen and angel appears on the bar instead of VLC but then VLC comes back.

My machine can't play encrypted DVDs on a fresh install.  How do I add this capability?  Another useful bit of information would be what programs are best for playing DVDs, once I'm able to do so.  See the .  Will I be able to play DVD movies from ?


I am trying to create 3D maps. I have raw 3D point cloud data but unable to convert it to any GIS data format such as GeoJSON. How should I store 3D information in GeoJSON format?

I have found out how to get tab-delimited X,Y data into a layer but the Z field value is not given as an option on import?  I tried to edit the attributes to add and define a new field but it keeps crashing.


I have a Canon 70D and am using a 50mm lens. I want to prevent it from focusing on a subject all the time. Instead, I want everything to be in focus like you get with a kit lens (18-135 etc.).  I have turned autofocus off, but this then requires me to manually focus on the subject rather than having everything in focus.  How do I achieve this? Is there any other settings on my camera I need to enable/disable?

I am quite new to DSLRs and one of the first things I noticed was the incredible focus points and appearance of depth that you can achieve. That is great in a lot of scenarios, but not in all. When filming a landscape as a whole, I do not want to have the focus on that single tree, but on the whole skyline.  Is there a way by which you can sort-of "disable" the focus, so that the raw image is recorded without any added blur? I suppose something as simple as this is only a small function you can turn off, but I can't seem to find it in the manual of my camera.


I have taken code from .  I ran the code in ide provided in gfg itself.  I have edited code a bit , sizeof(int) is showing 4 but it is shown to take 8 bytes in struct through offset  #include <stdio.h>   #define OFFSETOF(TYPE, ELEMENT) ((size_t)&(((TYPE *)0)->ELEMENT))   typedef struct PodTag  {      int   i;      double d;      char  c;  } PodType;   int main()  {      printf("%ld", OFFSETOF(PodType, d) );       getchar();      return 0;  }

Why does the sizeof operator return a size larger for a structure than the total sizes of the structure's members?


Anyone that's been in a museum knows that's it's forbidden to photograph mainly old or very deteriorated crafts using a flash, but what is the reason for this? I don't see how a burst of relatively low intensity, non-ionizing radiation can have a long-term harmful effect on every kind of material. Or is it that some flashes radiate ionizing frequencies/intensities? Last equinox, at the (if I'm not mistaken) Kukulcan pyramid in Mexico, there was a festival in which they projected a series of lights at it as can be seen  and this sparked a discussion between me and my friends because one of them thought they were lasers and they were harmful to the structure according to one of his recent classes.   I think it's appropriate to break down the question into the following:   What is the actual effect flash lights from cameras have on materials?  If there is such, how is it generated and how does it differ from other light sources? Could an adequate-power-laser-show really harm a structure like an old pyramid? Are there any differences between the kind of erosion or decay caused by lasers and flashes?   EDIT   Please try to interpret the question in the broader sense, with the laser and pyramid example, not just the use of flash in a museum.

When I go to, for example, a museum I try to take some pictures.  Sometimes the museum staffs forbid me to use a flash. Do you know the reason? I don't think it is related to photo-electric effect, right?


Am using drupal 7 for my project.  Here am facing for custom url change.  My website url is www.example.com/plans/1. Above url need to change as www.example.com/plan-name.  Pls suggest to me to fix the issue.

I would like to define the display settings of my Taxonomy term page. As I understand, this is possible by configuring the Taxonomy view provided by the Taxonomy module.     However, I use custom URL's and by so, my taxonomy pages doesn't have the URL taxonomy/term but something like products/tents. Is there a way to customize these pages with the provide view?


Find the all possible real solutions of $$x^y=y^x$$ $x,y$ both are real numbers.  My attempt:I observed the following solutions  $x=2,y=4$  $x=4,y=2$  $y=x$  Is there any other possible solutions?

We know that $2^4 = 4^2$ and $(-2)^{-4} = (-4)^{-2}$. Is there another pair of integers $x, y$ ($x\neq y$) which satisfies the equality $x^y = y^x$?


All the files/folders within my Dropbox are showing with black thumbnails, see the following screenshot:    However, all my other files/folders (not in Dropbox) are showing with no problems, i.e.    Could someone explain what's going on here?  P.S.: If I exit Dropbox, i.e. not connected to Dropbox server, there will be no problem.

These wonderful icon overlays that give you useful information in the Windows Explorer are not showing up.   It's the most annoying with Dropbox (I already read ). I just tried reinstalling Dropbox - no help. I have this problem also with the  so I don't think that it is a dropbox problem specifically; and something is wrong in my OS. The OS is actually a pretty fresh clean-install...  OS: Win8 Pro 64-bit.


I am using mongodb with php. I have agreement download option on which when user clicks user get the agreemment downloaded. On click i have navigated to script where file download code in php is there code is  $mongoDbA = $mongoDb->findOne(array("agency_id" => new MongoId($_GET['id']))); $filename = '../../images/upload/'.$mongoDbA['file'];  if (file_exists($filename))  { header('Content-Description: File Transfer'); header('Content-Type: text/pdf'); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename='.basename($filename)); header('Expires: 0'); header('Cache-Control: must-revalidate'); header('Pragma: public'); header('Content-Length: ' . filesize($filename)); readfile($filename); exit; }   I have allowed to upload only pdf files so only pdf files are there in database  When i click then it gives me error & gives me white colored file that has no extension & size is 1 kb hardly....what is happening???

When working with PDFs, I've run across the MIME types application/pdf and application/x-pdf among others.   Is there a difference between these two types, and if so what is it? Is one preferred over the other?  I'm working on a web app which must deliver huge amounts of PDFs and I want to do it the correct way, if there is one.


I cant break blocks and im starting to get angry bc i spent $30.00 on this game for my computer!

I'm playing on a Survival world with cheats on, "easy" difficulty, and at night in-game. I didn't have a sword or anything to make a sword with, and I was starving, so I switched to Creative to give myself a stack of food and a bed to set my spawn point. When I switched back to Survival, I couldn't destroy or place blocks. I'm on single player, and my Internet is fine, and I can destroy blocks still if I switch to creative. I've tried resetting the button one, and reloading the map, and it still doesn't work. I've even tried deleting everything I gave myself in Creative. This happened before on a different world and I ended up deleting it.  This only happens on this world. How do I fix it?  If I know I'm in the correct game mode, what else can cause this?  Are there different causes in multiplayer?


How do I make the following in a TeX file? I try a lot of things but still don't work.

I know what my symbol or character looks like, but I don't know what the command is or which math alphabet it came from. How do I go about finding this out?


Below is the response I am getting from one of my authentication API.  {"auth":"413e193fe7d10011230b:cea7abe015a6c8d2a78c8dbb48a21f769f65e79441809e918d6e7e98913aeca3","channel_data":"{\"user_id\":\"969696\",\"user_info\":{\"name\":\"Sandra Smith\"}}"}   I would like to get values user_id and user_info from the above response using jquery or javascript. How can I do that?

Given a string of JSON data, how can I safely turn that string into a JavaScript object?  Obviously I can do this unsafely with something like:  var obj = eval("(" + json + ')');   but that leaves me vulnerable to the JSON string containing other code, which it seems very dangerous to simply eval.


I have a  system using windows 7 64-Bit. While windows was updating deep freeze was active. After updating windows restarted so the update was removed. After the restart windows was stuck in this process and same process kept repeating so login page never shows up. I was wondering if there is a way to disble deep freeze from registry and login to my account. I tried booting the windows in safe mode but it didn't seem working! I'd be thankful if you help me

I have the following setup:   Windows 7 Ultimate Deep Freeze   I "thawed" my machine last night and performed a Windows Update. The update is having issues (it gets stuck at 32%, fails, and restarts my machine). When it reboots it attempts it again, and again, and again, etc. (Endless loop).  I looked online and found some solutions, but none of them seem to be working:   When I run Safe Mode, Safe Mode w/ Network, or Safe Mode w/ Command Prompt it attempts to revert the Windows Update changes. However, the problem is with Deep Freeze on (and now in "Frozen" mode) the reverted changes don't stay, and I'm back into the loop of death. Oh, and side note: "Safe Mode w/ Command Prompt" does not actually take me to a command prompt window? Perhaps because it is attempting to complete the Windows Update changes first? I have tried to select the option to NOT restart when an windows error occurs, but it still does. I tried the remainder of all the other options in the F8 screen.     The only other option left is to find my Windows 7 Media Disc (I can't find it right now) and use it to repair windows (because for some reason the repair option does not show up in the F8 screen).  Is there a way to disable Deep Freeze from loading? When I selected "Safe Mode w/ Command Prompt" I noticed that it loads the DpFrz.sys file. I know that when I'm in the Windows Boot Manager if I press F10 instead of F8 (while highlighting Windows 7) it takes me to an "Edit Boot Options" screen:     Edit Windows boot options for: Windows 7      Path: \Windows\system32\winload.exe      Partition: 2 Hard Disk: 8e90e329      [ /NOEXECUTE=OPTIN (I CAN EDIT THIS LINE)   ]     Update: I found my Windows 7 Media Disk and it did not help out. The laptop had the "System Restore" as a partition on the HDD. I later received (in the mail) a Windows 7 Upgrade Disc from Sony to upgrade my system from Windows Vista to Windows 7 Ultimate. I placed the disc into the DVD drive and it does not come up as a "bootable" disc. I'm going to try to find an alternative disc to see if I can get into Command Prompt.    Update 2: I got a Windows Repair disc and got into a command prompt window. I got into the registry and disabled Deep Freeze. Also:   I renamed the Pending.xml file to Pending.old I cleared out the Windows Temp directory   I still am stuck in the loop (though, it isn't an issue with DeepFreeze anymore because I can make changes to the hard drive and they persist). Not sure what to do at this point?    Update 3: I ran the repair option and it couldn't repair, but it did point me to something. It says the error was due to a driver that was failing. I have a feeling it is my UPEK Fingerprint scanner.


Here is an example of the string I'm matching against.
"HERE IS THE TEXT  I'D LIKE"
   This gets me way too much. As in it doesnt stop at the  and it seems to still return the div and a tags.  /(?:
)?(?:)?.*(?:<)?/   This returns nothing  /(?:
)?(?:)?.*(?:)?/   So shouldn't the first part match against the unique "div" tag and the following "a" tag and not return them.  Then grab everything up until the first < that it hits which would be the closing "a" tag? I'm lost as to what is mucking this up.   Thank you.

I have this gigantic ugly string: J0000000: Transaction A0001401 started on 8/22/2008 9:49:29 AM J0000010: Project name: E:\foo.pf J0000011: Job name: MBiek Direct Mail Test J0000020: Document 1 - Completed successfully  I'm trying to extract pieces from it using regex. In this case, I want to grab everything after Project Name up to the part where it says J0000011: (the 11 is going to be a different number every time). Here's the regex I've been playing with: Project name:\s+(.*)\s+J[0-9]{7}:  The problem is that it doesn't stop until it hits the J0000020: at the end. How do I make the regex stop at the first occurrence of J[0-9]{7}?


In a set of balanced, connected bipartite graphs, all with regularity $r \ge 2$, is it possible that there exists a bipartite graph that does not contain a Hamiltonian cycle ?   My argument: The bipartite graph is balanced, so both of the partition has the same number of vertices. It's regularity $r \ge 2$ and the graph is connected, that means we can switch between the partitions, so there is a Hamiltonian path. Lets say that we have followed the Hamiltonian path from vertex $u$ and reached to a vertex $v$ and exhausted all the vertices, now how do I prove that there must be an edge that will take me back to $u$ from $v$?   I am getting lost with this construction of the "Hamiltonian cycle".  So does this mean that there can be such bipartite graph (connected, balanced, $r \ge 2$ regular) that does not contain a Hamiltonian cycle? If yes, can someone give me a concrete example?  N.B.: $r$-regular: every edge is $r$-degree.

Here's a quickie:  Let $r\ge2$. Does every connected $r$-regular bipartite graph contain a Hamiltonian cycle?  I've been playing around with this for almost an hour, but I can't prove it.


I would think the song like $1-Pr\{X_1 < k \} $ but what is confusing to me is the fact that this is a discrete random variable, and these inequalities ussually apply to absolute continuous variables, so I just don;t know what to do?  I have to prove: Geometric random variables $X_1:G(p_1) X_2:G(p_2) X_3:G(p_3)$ are independent, prove the following :  $$Pr(X_1 < X_2 < X_3)= \frac{(1-p_1)(1-p_2)p_2p_3^2}{(1-p_2p_3)(1-p_1p_2p_3)}$$  I got started like:  $$\begin{align*} \Pr[X_1 < X_2 < X_3] &= \sum_{k=0}^\infty \Pr[X_1 < k < X_3]\Pr[X_2 = k] \\ &\overset{\text{ind}}{=} \sum_{k=0}^\infty \Pr[X_1 < k]\Pr[k < X_3]\Pr[X_2 = k]. \end{align*}$$

$$P(X_1 < X_2 < X_3)= \frac{(1-p_1)(1-p_2)p_2p_3^2}{(1-p_2p_3)(1-p_1p_2p_3)}$$   To be frank I do not know where to start with this question, I would like an idea to get me going, or better yet an answer. This was on an earlier exam, I would like to be ready if something like this were to come up again tomorrow. What makes this a little bit more difficult than usual is the fact that geometric distribution is  a discrete variable..


I have read in various posts why hidden-city-ticketing is a bad thing for the passengers and for the airplane-company (for example  or  )  However, I still did not grasp, how come that a flight from A to B to C, is cheaper then a flight from just A to B?

I am based on Chennai and currently living in Toronto. I am planning to go to Switzerland from Chennai after some months ( once I back to Chennai).  Currently I am estimating my vacation cost ( 3-4 days stay in Switzerland , 4 members family).   Approximately, Switzerland is halfway from Chennai to Toronto ( based on distance ), So I expect the airfare to Swiss should be around 50-60% of the airfare of Chennai-Toronto. ( Assume, other than distance all factors are same ie. travel dates, weekdays, off/on season etc).  But I noticed that Chennai-Zurich costs almost 80% of Chennai-Toronto airfare. ( CAD 850+ compared to CAD 1100, if travel dates falls in Oct 2019).  How the airlines decide fares? As per my understanding distance is the most important factor.  Or Am I missing anything?


How can I prevent some sensitive data (e.g. password for the SMTP module) from getting into my repo as part of the Configuration Management system?

I am using Drupal 8 and drush cex to commit my configuration to my repository.  However, I want to keep passwords and API keys out of the repository.  How do I do that? (selectively exclude sensitive information from configuration management).  For example, I'm using the  module, but I noticed that in addition to the SMTP server and sender's name, etc., it also exports the API key to code, which should not be exposed.  I want to manage module configuration with configuration management, but I don't want to commit the key.


Does someone know if disallowing *.txt in robots.txt can be a problem? I fear a little that robots can't even access to robots.txt in this case.

User-agent: * Disallow: /robots.txt   What happens if you do this? Will search engines crawl robots.txt once and then never crawl it again?


Where $\phi(n)$ is Euler's phi function that counts the number of relatively prime integers less than or equal to n. I've been able to compute that 3,4,6 all have only 2 relatively prime integers less than or equal to them, however I'm unsure how to prove that there are indeed no others. While I am certain that this is the case, how can this be proved rigorously?

I found this exercise in Beachy and Blair: Abstract algebra:     Find all natural numbers $n$ such that $\varphi(n)=2$, where $\varphi(n)$ means the totient function.   My try:  $\varphi(n)=2$ if $n=3,4,6$ and I think that no other numbers have this property. So assume $n>7$.  Case 1: $n$ is prime, since $\varphi(n)=n-1$ for primes, no numbers here will have the desired property  Case 2: $n$ is of the form $n=p^k$ for some prime $p$ and $k\in\mathbb{N}, k\ge 2$. By Eulers formula we get $$ \varphi(n)=p^k-p^{k-1} $$ which clearly is greater than $2$ since $n>7$.  Case 3: $n$ is the product of different primes and is squarefree (each prime comes up at most once in the prime factorisation of $n$). Assume  $$ n=\prod_{i=1}^{m} p_i $$ by Eulers formula $$ \varphi(n)=n\prod_{p_i \ prime \ factor}\Big(1-\frac{1}{p_i}\Big) $$ which gives $$ \varphi(n)=p_1p_2\cdot\ldots\cdot p_m\Big(1-\frac{1}{p_1}\Big)\Big(1-\frac{1}{p_2}\Big)\cdot \ldots\cdot \Big(1-\frac{1}{p_m}\Big) $$ rearranging and multiplying out gives $$ (p_1-1)(p_2-1)\cdot\ldots\cdot (p_m-1) $$ which once again has to be greater than $2$ since $n>7$.  Case 4: $n$ is a product of different primes and not squarefree. This is similar to Case 3 but we get some more factors in the product so if there were no integers in Case 3 there cannot be here eighter.  Now my first question is: Is my reasonning correct? Ususally when I have to divide the solution up into so many cases I feel that I haven't grasped the problem properly, but I couldn't come up with anything better.  Any suggestions?  Thank you in advance


I need an insight into understanding the below code. The first print gives me output: 'a' whereas on changing the value of y[0][0] to "p" it changes the value of y[0][0], y[1][0], y[2][0] and y[3][0] as well. I was expecting an output like [['p', 'b', 'c'], ['a', 'b', 'c'], ['a', 'b', 'c'], ['a', 'b', 'c']] but instead got [['p', 'b', 'c'], ['p', 'b', 'c'], ['p', 'b', 'c'], ['p', 'b', 'c']]  x=["a","b","c"] y = [x] * 4 # first print print(y[0][0])  y[0][0] = "p" # second print print(y)

I needed to create a list of lists in Python, so I typed the following: my_list = [[1] * 4] * 3  The list looked like this: [[1, 1, 1, 1], [1, 1, 1, 1], [1, 1, 1, 1]]    Then I changed one of the innermost values: my_list[0][0] = 5  Now my list looks like this: [[5, 1, 1, 1], [5, 1, 1, 1], [5, 1, 1, 1]]    which is not what I wanted or expected. Can someone please explain what's going on, and how to get around it?


I need a P-channel depletion-mode MOSFET for a circuit I'm building. However, there is no model available in  that I have found, nor is there any available that I have found to buy online.   How can I simulate this kind of MOSFET in LTspice, and where can I get one?

Does anyone know how to model a depletion mode N channel MOSFET in spice?  I have looked online however the majority of resources have shown how to model a depletion type or enhancement type. I specifically want to model a FET that is fully on when there is a 0 Vgs voltage.  Resources i've looked at


I'm studying for my final for Statistics, and I want to understand literally every problem in my textbook (at least in the first 7 chapters).  One of the problems asks to show that ${n}\choose {k}$ $=$${n-1}\choose {k}$ $+$ ${n-1}\choose {k-1}$  I have the solution manual, but the steps it gives appears to skip a few important steps or leave out important clarifications.  Can someone please guide me step by step through this proof?

I'm trying to prove that ${n \choose r}$ is equal to ${{n-1} \choose {r-1}}+{{n-1} \choose r}$ when $1\leq r\leq n$.  I suppose I could use the counting rules in probability, perhaps combination= ${{n} \choose {r}}=\frac{n!}{r!(n-r!)}$.  I want to see an actual proof behind this equation.  Does anyone have any ideas?


Should "whatever" be one or two words in the sentence below?  Whatever / What ever happened to the Unknown Comic?  If one word or two words, why?  Thank you.

I tend to write, "say whatever they want", but I'm always tempted to write "say what ever they want". Is it acceptable to split the word in this context?


I am in a project where I need to do several documents. I did this size for a test:   A: 203x218cm, 300dpi B: 203x218cm, 72dpi C: 80x86cm, 300dpi   I would like to know some opinion about my files.   Which document works best if I want to print a document with good quality? It's a document in Photoshop   Thanks!

For wall-sized graphics and large banners (e.g. 3m × 5m), what is an acceptable PPI for print? As I understand it 300 ppi is the typical for 'small' artworks (esp. for clean text resolution). However, for small artworks, the audience usually engages at a much closer distance. Therefore, in the interests of keeping a bitmap file down to a reasonable size, can you get away with a much-reduced PPI for a large format/banner print?


‘As there is little foolish wand-waving here, many of you will hardly believe this is   magic. I don’t expect you will really understand the beauty of the softly simmering cauldron with its shimmering fumes, the delicate power of liquids that creep through human veins, bewitching the mind, ensnaring the senses ... I can teach you how to bottle fame, brew glory, even stopper death – if you aren’t as big a bunch of dunderheads as I usually have to teach.’   Philosopher's Stone - page 102 - Bloomsbury - chapter eight, The Potions Master   Pretty much what the title asks: What does it mean to stopper death?   I've seen it interpreted as an actual bit of death put into a phial (flask or beaker) and then put a stopper (a rubber cap) on the phial, trapping death in the phial.   I've also seen it interpreted as a potion that will keep one from dying (such as the Elixir of Life) or stave off death (such as the potion Snape gave Dumbledore in Half-Blood Prince that trapped the curse from the ring Horcrux in Dumbledore's hand).  What does it mean to "stopper death"?  I felt like this question has been asked before, maybe even by me, but I checked using several keywords and this didn't pop up. Just in case, though, if this is a duplicate, my apologies and please don't hesitate to VTC.

‘You are here to learn the subtle science and exact art of potionmaking,’ [Snape] began. He spoke in barely more than a whisper, but they caught every word – like Professor McGonagall, Snape had the gift of keeping a class silent without effort. ‘As there is little foolish wand-waving here, many of you will hardly believe this is magic. I don’t expect you will really understand the beauty of the softly simmering cauldron with its shimmering fumes, the delicate power of liquids that creep through human veins, bewitching the mind, ensnaring the senses ... I can teach you how to bottle fame, brew glory, even stopper death – if you aren’t as big a bunch of dunderheads as I usually have to teach.’¹   Philosopher's Stone - page 102 - Bloomsbury - chapter 8, The Potions Master   Are there any canon potions that actually grant fame or glory, or stopper death? I'm looking for specific canon-based answers from sources such as the Harry Potter books, interviews with J.K. Rowling, or information from Pottermore. Maybe because it's early I'm overlooking the obvious, but offhand I can't think of any canon potions that fit this criteria exactly.   ¹I edited in the entire paragraph that I can teach you how to bottle fame, brew glory, even stopper death comes from for clarity. Hopefully this will be helpful and provide a better context for the comment in question.


I have an exercise that asks for the minimum distance of a BCH-Code with length 63 over $F_2$ with generator polynomial given by $g(x)=(x+ 1)(x^6 +x+ 1)(x^6 +x^5 + 1)$.   As $g(x)=x^{13}+x^{11}+x^8+x^5+x^2+1$, the minimum distance is $\leq 6$.   I know that one can show that the distance is $\geq 6$ and therefore is equal to 6. Can someone help me how to do that? So show that the designed distance is 6?

Let $C$ be the cyclic code of length $63$ over $\mathbb{F}_2$ that has generator polynomial $$g(x)=(x+1)(x^6+x+1)(x^6+x^5+1)$$  We are asked to comment on the minimum distance of $C$. However I don't understand how to find the minimum distance. Can anyone explain how to do this? Thanks in advance!


I am following section 3.4 of Evan's book "Partial Differential Equations". In this section he considers the Burgers equation, $$u_t + \bigl(\frac{u^2}{2}\bigr)_x = 0$$ with initial data $$g(x) = \begin{cases} 0, & x < 0\\ 1, &0 \leq x \leq 1\\0, & x > 1\end{cases}$$ I have been able to follow how he obtains the solution for $0 \leq t \leq 2$, $$u(x,t) = \begin{cases} 0, & x < 0\\  \frac{x}{t},  & 0 <x < t\\ 1,  & t < x < 1+\frac{t}{2}\\0, & x > 1 + \frac{t}{2}\end{cases}$$ However he notes for $t \geq 2$ this solution breaks down as the rarefraction wave and the curves stemming from the initial condition $g(x) = 0$ intersect. He uses the Rankine-Hugoniot jump condition to find that $$\dot{s}(t) = \sigma = \frac{x}{2t}$$ This is where he begins to lose me. He claims that this implies $$\dot{s}(t) = \frac{s(t)}{2}$$ with $s(2) = 2$. He claims by solving this ODE we find $$s(t) = \sqrt{2t}$$ and so the final solution for $t \geq 2$ is $$u(x,t) = \begin{cases} 0, & x < 0\\ \frac{x}{t}, & 0 < x < \sqrt{2t}\\0, & x > \sqrt{2t}\end{cases}$$ How does he obtain that ODE? Moreover, how does he conclude that the shock occurs at $t = 2$ (aside from graphically)?

Using the method of characteristics, find a solution to Burgers' equation    \begin{cases} u_t+\left(\frac{u^2}{2} \right)_x =0 & \text{in }\mathbb{R}\times(0,\infty) \\ \qquad \qquad \, \, u=g & \text{on } \mathbb{R} \times\{t=0\} \end{cases}   with the initial conditions    $$g(x)=\begin{cases} 0 & \text{if }x < 0 \\ 1 & \text{if }0 \le x \le 1 \\ 0 & \text{if }x > 1 \end{cases}$$   First, I realized that the equation $u_t+\left(\frac{u^2}{2} \right)_x =0$ is equivalent to this form: $$u_t+uu_x =0$$  Then should I generally follow the method of solution as outlined in the answer of ?  Note that this is not a duplicate question of that page. Rather I want to know if that page can be used for my problem, even though my ICs are different.  By the way, the solution printed in my book (PDE Evans, 2nd edition, page 142) is      $$u(x,t) =  \begin{cases} 0 & \text{if } x < 0 \\  \frac xt & \text{if } 0 < x < t  \\ 1 & \text{if } t < x < 1 + \frac t2  \\ 0 & \text{if } x > 1 + \frac t2 \tag{$0 \le t \le 2$}  \end{cases}$$


I want to do some operation based on the user entered in the people picker control.  My code is:  $(document).ready(function () {     $("input[title='Project Owner']").focusout(function () {      //var User = $("textarea[title='People Picker']").val().split("\\");      //user = $.trim($("#Project Owner").text());     //var user = $().SPFindPeoplePicker({     //    peoplePickerDisplayName: "Project Owner"      //});     alert("Hello");     var user = $(this).val();      alert(user);  }); });   The foucusout() event runs perfectly but I am not getting the user name. What should I do?

I want to get the log-in name of user from people picker control using jquery.  I have a code which displays the display name of the user but I am not able to get the login name.  Code is as follows:  $(document).ready(function () { $("input[title='Project Owner']").focusout(function () {          var loginName = $("span.ms-entity-resolved").attr("title");      alert("Login Name:" + loginName);      var displayName = $("span.ms-entity-resolved div:first-child").attr("displaytext");      alert("Display Name :" +displayName);  });  });   Here Project Owner is name of the PeoplePicker control.  How do I get the login name?


I'm a little new to Blender and I only have very basic experience with the game engine.  One thing I noticed is that some models look way different in game than in the editor window. For example,   This doesn't happen on all models, just some of them. This model was created by Sega, so I wouldn't think there would be any errors with it. Does anybody know what's going on here?

I'm learning to use the game engine and I don't know why a mesh change its shape when I press P key.  This happened when I subdivided the red mesh. I subdivided it because I want the ball collide the red wall but I don't want a rigid wall, I want a soft wall.      Here is the file:  (The ball moves with left and right arrows)  Thank you!


Some concerns about pronounce in the new CoC involve workflow -- i.e., the need to go to a profile page to learn how someone chooses to be addressed.  I notice that reputation pops up as a hint during mouseover of user names in comments.  Does it make sense to include a field for pronoun preference in profiles, and add that field, if not blank, to the mouseover hint?  I think this would improve workflow (though not on tablets).

One of the questions people have raised about the new rules about pronouns is how users will know what pronouns are preferred.   We've had a trolling question which got  when the user included their preferred pronouns at the bottom of the question, and I agree that particularly on Stackoverflow (rather than sites like Interpersonal Skills or Workplace), this should be considered as 'noise' since it isn't the strict Q&A this site is about. (The codez should work whatever your gender).  Currently, the suggested way of displaying your pronouns is to put it in your profile's 'About Me' section. However, this is suboptimal, since it requires opening a new page.  I suggest adding a 'preferred pronouns' field in the user profile, and displaying this on a user's usercard. There's currently a 'new contributor' label, so it could be similar to that, with she/her pronouns or whatever they choose.  In comments, it could be appended to the reputation score that currently gets shown when you hover over a name:   4,305 reputation, she/her pronouns  The default would be blank. No flair updates, no hover-in-comments update. If a user fills in this field in their profile, then it will show.


I have a good background in OOP, mostly in C++ and Java.  I want to use objects in JavaScript, including inheritance.  The articles I've read on JS inheritance always talk about the prototypal inheritance model.  When creating functions (methods) for JS objects, they are always declared after the object itself is declared, and in a format such as:  Object.prototype.funcName = function() { }.  Yes, this works, but it also seems to work when declaring the function inside the object, like:  this.funcName = function() { };  This is one of the articles I've read: .  I've tested my code both ways and they seem to work identically well.  Can anybody tell me if I will encounter any problems down the road by declaring my functions inside my objects (like standard OOP), or will it bite me in the end?  Here's 'my' way:  function Person(name) {   this.name = name;    this.greeting = function() {     console.log('Hi! I\'m ' + this.name + ' from Person');   }; };   Here is the prototypal way:  function Person(name) {   this.name = name; };  Person.prototype.greeting = function() {   console.log('Hi! I\'m ' + this.name + ' from Person.proto'); };   Creating the object and calling the greeting works either way:  var person = new Person("Cool Dood");  person.greeting();   Any insights as to whether or not 'my' way of declaring the functions inside the object declaration would cause me problems in the future?

What's the difference between  var A = function () {     this.x = function () {         //do something     }; };   and  var A = function () { }; A.prototype.x = function () {     //do something };


What is the cheapest and reliable mobile network in Berlin? I may also ask what are the most effective Internet providers/connections in Berlin? I will be moving to Berlin for the very first time and so I need information regarding SIM cards/connections, best ISD rate tariff connections and also info regarding Internet (Good speed yet cheap) for Skyping.

I'll be staying in Berlin for one month and I have an unlocked iPhone (GSM) that I'd like to use while I'm here. What are my choices for SIM cards and packages that include data?


When I was a student of English as a foreign language, more years ago than I care to count, I was taught that the relative pronoun “whose” could only be used for human beings, i.e., when someone possesses something.   My teachers were native speakers from England, then.   Since that time, I’ve seen “whose”, as a relative pronoun, used in several contexts where no human beings are mentioned, e.g. with animals, objects, countries, abstract nouns, etc, in American newspapers and magazines. Unfortunately, I can’t remember any of the sentences and cannot give examples.  What is acceptable in written and spoken English, and what isn’t, concerning the use of “whose” ?

We lit a fire whose fuel was old timber wood.   Is the word whose referring to fire, an inanimate object, correct in this sentence? Or is there a more appropriate word?


Micrcontrollers such as PIC describe their pull up resistors as weak pull up resistors, what does weak signify?  When/why would I want to use external pull-up resistors on I/O pins that support internal pull up?

Im new in PIC world. I want to ask:  Do I need external pullup resistor for switches and encoders?  When I was using Atmel microcontrollers - I was just turning on internal pullup resistors in software.  In PIC18F25k50 datasheet I found information, that RB port pins are:  "Digital Output or Input with internal pull-up option"  So I assume that some ports may have internal pullups and I have to check datasheet. However I don't know what resistance is there and I can't find it in datasheet.  I'm asking because in many tutorials I see external pullups, so there must be some reason...


The following is given as an example of a negative feedback loop in my textbook, note that the op amp is assumed to be ideal.  However I do not seem to get the logic behind this acting as a negative feedback loop, suppose if \$V_{in}\$ is \$0.01 \$ after passing through the op amp it should be amplified to \$+6\ \mathrm V\$. Now \$V_{out}\$ is \$+6\ \mathrm V\$ hence the inverting input will also become \$+6\ \mathrm V\$ thus the difference between the two inputs becomes \$-5.99\ \mathrm V\$ thus \$V_{out}= -6\ \mathrm V\$ and this process shall repeat over and over again, would the circuit then just cycle between being \$+6\ \mathrm  V\$ and \$-6\ \mathrm V\$ until the power supply is disconnected? How is this considered a negative feedback, am I missing something crucial?

Have a look at the diagram above.  It shows an op-amp with negative feedback.  Ignoring the feedback loop for now, the voltage (pressure) coming from the 5V battery, acting on the inverting pin, should amount to 5V.  Now, I understand that the feedback loop is adjusting the voltage on the inverting pin to make it equal to the reference (non-inverting) pin or 3.3V and you can clearly see that the output is producing a negative voltage to achieve this.  I also understand that the input pins have a very high impedance.  What's confusing me is how it actually does this (considering my rudimentary knowledge of electronics).  I considered that the output was sinking some of the current produced (by the battery) to alleviate the pressure on the input pin and bring it down to 3.3V, but clearly that isn't the case (since the 1 ohm resistor is passing 5A).  So, I'm struggling to understand how 5V of pressure from the battery results in 3.3V on the input pin.  I'd appreciate it if somebody could explain this in an intuitive way.  Much Appreciated.  Edit:  Many thanks for your all your comments and insights.  The circuit itself is a distraction.  At the heart of this is my attempt to understand op-amp and negative feedback behaviour.  I wanted to understand the following:  a) if you could apply an input voltage to the op-amp that was different to the reference voltage (more specifically that you have voltage "pressure" acting on the input pin that is higher than the reference pin). This also assumes that you have some other input other than the feedback loop.  b) if a is true (and assuming that the op-amp adjusts its output to equalize the voltage on both pins) how is this achieved?  Clearly the feedback loop plays a part and the only thing I could think of was that the output was sinking current to take the pressure off the input pin and thus explain the voltage drop between the between the higher voltage source and the voltage appearing at the input pin.  Incidentally, the question would still stand even if you had a resistor between the source voltage and the feedback loop/input pin junction.  A better circuit example is shown below (taken from ):    But with V1 set to some voltage other than 0V.  Final Edit (Promise!):  From the electronics tutorial article linked above:  "This negative feedback results in the inverting input terminal having a different signal on it than the actual input voltage as it will be the sum of the input voltage plus the negative feedback voltage giving it the label or term of a Summing Point."  This is exactly where my confusion lies.  As I understand it voltage is simply pressure exerted measured with respect to some reference point (usually ground).  What the paragraph above is suggesting is that at the "summing point" there's a change in voltage (pressure) because of the addition of the feedback voltage.  Intuitively, I'm thinking that the output pin "sinks" some current to reduce the voltage at the summing point.  But that sinking of current would reduce Iin (since no current flows through the inverting pin).  The result would seem to be that Vin drops.  But is this the case?


Note that for $(x+1)(x+2)$ the coefficient of the linear term is divisible by $3$. Prove that in general for $$f(x)=(x+1)(x+2)(x+3)\cdots(x+p-1)$$ the coefficient of $x$ is divisible by $p$ where $p$ is an arbitrary odd prime.

I got a question to show that :      If $p$ is prime number, then   $$x^p - x \equiv x(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)\cdots (x -(p-1))\,\,\text{(mod }\,p\text{)}$$    Now I got 2 steps to show that the two polynomials are congruent:   Show they have same roots. Show the leading term's coefficients on both sides are the same.    For step 2, I know it is obvious $x^p$ has coefficient 1 on both sides.  For step 1, but I am not sure how to find all the solutions for $x^p -x$ modulo $p$.


There are a few posts on here regarding how to find all derived classes from a given class programatically (), but none that I can see when using Visual Studio (2015).  I'm looking at the 'Object Browser' window and I'm surprised such a feature doesn't exist. Am I doing something wrong or is there really no way to find out?

In Visual Studio, How do I show all classes inherited from a base class?    For example, in ASP.NET MVC there are several '' types -- and they all inherit from / implement the base class ActionResult.    It looks like unless you just 'know' that View and Json are valid ActionResult types, there is no way you can easily find this information out.    Please prove me wrong.  Is there something in the object browser that makes this easy to find out?  I'm even up for suggestions of tools outside of Visual Studio to discover this information about various classes.  For example: is there something in Resharper that will help me out?


Could anyone help me to prove is this statement is true or false? Thanks.

Put   $$ l^{\infty} = \{ (x_n) \subseteq \mathbb{C} : \forall j \; \;\ \;|x_j| \leq C(x)\} $$  I want to show that $c_0$, the space of all sequences of scalars that converges to $0$ is closed subspace of $l^{\infty}$.  MY atttemt: Take arbitrary sequence $(x_n) \in c_0$. We know $x_n \to 0$. but $0 \in c_0$. Therefore, every sequence in $c_0$ converges to an element in $c_0$. Hence, $c_0$ must be closed  Is this correct? thanks


In Russell's paradox, if there is a set that has everything as an element, it can be seen that it is a contradiction. I think if there is a set X such that $X \in X$, there is contradiction. I want to prove this by axiom of regularity but i cannot. How to prove this?

I think that the question is clear from the title:     Are there sets $A$ and $B$ such that $A \in B$ and $B \in A$?   My feeling is that the definition of any two such sets will be circular (we can't define $B$ till we define $A$ and we can't define $A$ till we define $B$), and hence will be excluded by some axiom.  On the other hand, I can't see an inherent contradiction, though I wouldn't be surprised if some form of Russell's paradox pops up, pushed behind one more set of braces.


Joey: (picking up a leftover part) What's this?  Chandler: I would have to say that is an 'L'-shaped bracket.

In a mobile purchasing guide, it says that you can have a small-sized phone very cheaply. The next sentence is:      But what if you want a bigger screen? In that case you (would have to/will   have to) spend more money.   I think its "will have to" because it is a fact.


I have the following function, which should return different values based on the head's text:  function getPage(){   var page;   var headText = $.trim($('h1').text());  if(headText=="Page 1"){     page= 'a'; }else if(headText=="Page 2"){     page= 'b'; }else if(headText=="Page 3"){     page ='c'; }else if(headText=="Page 4"){     page= 'd'; }else{     page= 'ERROR'; }  return page; }   Unfortunately, the function only returns "ERROR". I've tried it without the trim method. I've tried it by writing Page 1 - Page 4 into variables of their own and comparing 2 variables in the if() section. Nothing works. Where is my error? (I am certain that the text of the < h1>- Element is "Page 1", "Page 2", "Page  3" or "Page 4")

I'm using  to go through JavaScript, and it's returning many suggestions to replace == (two equals signs) with === (three equals signs) when doing things like comparing idSele_UNVEHtype.value.length == 0 inside of an if statement.  Is there a performance benefit to replacing == with ===?   Any performance improvement would be welcomed as many comparison operators exist.  If no type conversion takes place, would there be a performance gain over ==?


Example:     The circular window was apparently made to match the shape of the   sun.   Here apparently expresses doubt, but with a certain level of conviction: that was the intent of the person who designed the window.  Is there a word similar to apparently but with less level of conviction? Almost as if the conclusion were a rough guess? Or something that the speaker made up?

In the context of a business report would there be a difference (albeit subtle) between writing of "a seemingly unambitious plan" and "an apparently unambitious plan"?  To me the first seems to suggest that in reality the plan is ambitious, we just can't see it. Is this also the case for the second?  Edit — more explanation:  One of my difficulties is the differences in definitions (seemingly doesn't appear in most dictionaries).  The definitions from Google:     seem:         Give the impression or sensation of being something or having a particular quality: "Dawn seemed annoyed".         apparent:         Clearly visible or understood; obvious.   Seeming real or true, but not necessarily so.       Definition from Merriam-Webster:     seeming:   outwardly or superficially evident but not true or real    So the MW definition of seeming seems to closer to the definition of apparent in Google to me.  My query really is whether and to what extent does either word imply that the reality is or may be different to the appearance.


I updated Wordpress to 4.7.1 and cant upload SVG anymore.  I had a function in my functions.php file   function cc_mime_types($mimes) {    $mimes['svg'] = 'image/svg+xml';    return $mimes; } add_filter('upload_mimes', 'cc_mime_types');   but it also dont help now.

I have a snippet in my functions PHP file that allows me to upload SVG files. Since upgrading to the latest version of WP today, I can no longer upload svgs.  I also tried a second code snippet from CSS tricks website and that doesn't work either.    Does anyone know a) what may have caused this with the last update and b) Does anyone know a work around.  Here is the code I normally use:   function svg_mime_types( $mimes ) {    mimes['svg'] = 'image/svg+xml';    return $mimes;} add_filter( 'upload_mimes', 'svg_mime_types' );     Many thanks  Paul.


I am having trouble proving the following inequality. $$ \iint_{x^2+y^2 \leq 1} e^{x^2+y^2}\mathrm{d}x\mathrm{d}y \leqslant {\left(\int_{\sqrt{\pi}/2}^{\sqrt{\pi}/2} e^{x^2} \mathrm{d}x\right)}^2 $$ I have tried the following approaches but all failed.  $$0\leq x\leq 1\implies e^{x^2}\geq xe^{x^2}=\left(\frac{1}{2} e^{x^2}\right)'$$  this failed because $xe^{x^2}$ is too small sage: numerical_integral(x*exp(x^2),0,sqrt(pi)/2) (0.5966400253690076, 6.6240349357760975e-15) sage: numerical_integral(exp(x^2),0,sqrt(pi)/2) (1.1849166170926333, 1.3155217105571918e-14)   $${\left(\int_{-L}^L e^{x^2}\mathrm{d}x\right)}^2=\iint_{\begin{subarray}{l}{-L\leq x\leq L\\ -L\leq y\leq L}\end{subarray}} e^{x^2+y^2}\mathrm{d}x\mathrm{d}y\leq \iint_{x^2+y^2\leq L^2} e^{x^2+y^2}\mathrm{d}x\mathrm{d} y$$  The area $x^2+y^2\leq L^2$ is too small.  partial(prefix) sum taylor series of $e^{x^2}$, theoretically this can lead to a big enough estimation, however it involves too much calculation.

The formula we need to prove is $$ \displaystyle \iint_{x^{2}+y^{2} \leq 1} e^{x^{2}+y^{2}} d x d y \leq\left[\int_{-\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}}^{\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}} e^{x^{2}} d x\right]^{2}  $$ As I already done the left side $$ \iint_{x^{2}+y^{2} \leq 1} e^{x^{2}+y^{2}} d x d y  = \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \mathrm{d}\varphi \int_{0}^{1} e^{r^2}r\mathrm{d}r  = 2\pi \int_{0}^{1} e^{r^2}r\mathrm{d}r = \left.\pi e^{r^2}\right|_{0}^{1} = \pi(e-1) $$ I still have no idea about the right side.


I have a web page where I made some style into <h1>, <h2> tags, will it make some effect on my SEO ranking?

As Google and other search engines keep trying to get more and more 'human' in terms of understanding what's good and what's spam, is it known if they take into account the size of a heading ie. an  thats font size is 40px is going to speak a lot more to the user than a  thats font size is 14px?  Similarly, does placement of text factor? E.g. a 300-word article at the bottom of a landing page (not in the footer but below the useful content) would be there just for seo purposes?  I know they look at things like text-indent:-9999px; and white text on a white background, but what about these more border-line practices that both have legitimate uses, but also the possibility to be spammy?


Basically when you try to put makeup on the truth, for example when instead of calling someone autistic they call them special?

Is there a verb which means the same as "to dumb down" or "to make milder", in relation to an account of something I had witnessed? More specifically, a verb which describes telling your account of something you witnessed in a milder form so as to not scare the other person and "play down" the event.


The following packages have unmet dependencies:  ubuntu-sdk : Depends: qtcreator but it is not going to be installed               Depends: qtcreator-plugin-ubuntu but it is not going to be installed               Depends: qtcreator-plugin-ubuntu-cordova but it is not going to be installed               Recommends: qtdeclarative5-qtaudioengine-plugin but it is not going to be installed E: Unable to correct problems, you have held broken packages.   I am using ubuntu 13.04 x64

Occasionally, when I'm installing stuff, I get an error like the following:  Some packages could not be installed. This may mean that you have requested an impossible situation or if you are using the unstable distribution that some required packages have not yet been created or been moved out of Incoming. The following information may help to resolve the situation:  The following packages have unmet dependencies:  package1 : Depends: package2 (>= 1.8) but 1.7.5-1ubuntu1 is to be installed E: Unable to correct problems, you have held broken packages.   How can I resolve this?


I am trying to derive the close form expression for the update of $\omega_i$ in coordinate descent for lasso, but I find it hard to proceed. Could you give me some hints?  $min_\omega\sum_{i=1}^m(y_i-X_i\cdot\omega)^2+\lambda\|\omega\|_1$ I need to find $\omega_i = ?$

For the lasso problem $\min_\beta (Y-X\beta)^T(Y-X\beta)$ such that $\|\beta\|_1 \leq t$. I often see the soft-thresholding result $$ \beta_j^{\text{lasso}}= \mathrm{sgn}(\beta^{\text{LS}}_j)(|\beta_j^{\text{LS}}|-\gamma)^+ $$  for the orthonormal $X$ case. It is claimed that the solution can be "easily shown" to be such, but I've never seen a worked solution. Has anyone seen one or perhaps has done the derivation?


I'm a new Linux user, and I'm using a web server with a software that requires PHP 5.6, creating an incompatibility issue that I have been trying to solve for at least two days now. I read up a bunch of threads here on it, but none of them really solved the issue. The Linux version I'm at is 18.04.   So, what I tried so far:   To uninstall PHP 7.2 using sudo apt-get purge php7.0-common To disable the proxy using sudo a2dismod proxy_fcgi proxy (it returns that the proxy is already disabled) To install PHP 5.6 using sudo add-apt-repository ppa:ondrej/php or sudo add-apt-repository ppa:ondrej/apache2, it installs it After using sudo apt-get update, and using this sudo apt-get install php7.0 php5.6 php5.6-mysql php-gettext php5.6-mbstring php-xdebug libapache2-mod-php5.6 libapache2-mod-php7.0, I get the error:   I used  suggested on the comments, and the php5-compat helped, now at least when I try to unmount/mount (or whatever it's called) I don't get a "php5.6 module doesn't exist" anymore, and now if I do sudo apt-cache search php5.6 --names-only I get the list of packages for the first time.     Since I got that part done now, I'll consider it as done and see with the Oxwall people about their requirements. Thanks a bunch.

I need to use php5 (5.6) because I'm working on a Drupal 7 project which doesn't support php7. The problem is I recently updated to ubuntu 16.04 Xenial which seems to .   I tried to install it from , however when It try to install it with apt I always get similar errors.  $ sudo apt-get install php5-cli Cependant les paquets suivants le remplacent :   php7.0-cli:i386 php7.0-cli`   Which means it's obsolete. How can I install PHP 5.6 on Xenial?