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"Last month, Swedish legislators proposed a new law regarding rape and sexual assault where evidence of violence or threats were no longer required to prosecution. Now, only proof that explicitly stated consent was not present is required to criminal proceedings to begin against a defendant. This law is wonderful in the sense as it makes it easier for women to report and receive justice for alleged sexual violence cases. However, how can one explicitly prove consent? Do people sign a contract? Do they have to record a video of them saying yes? If there is no definitive proof, then it will be the woman&#x27;s word against the man&#x27;s (if he claims that the sex was consensual). This kind of evidence  is circumstantial and not judicially sound. How do we go about this legal issue?  https://www.google.com/amp/s/www.washingtonpost.com/amphtml/news/worldviews/wp/2017/12/20/amid-metoo-movement-and-fear-of-immigrants-sweden-proposes-tough-sexual-assault-law/ &#010;&#010;"
<https://www.bridge-the-divide.com/discussion/sexual-violence/the-issue-of-consent>