<https://forum.wordreference.com/threads/oversimplification-of-the-terms.3060347/>
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"Hi\nI was reading an article about Latin American literary movement which is called \"Boom\". In this part the author is saying that on critic was saying that New Novel in Latin America was not something new because James Joyce had already done these things, but nobody was listening to him.\n\nmy question is: Is this \"oversimplification of the terms\" an idiom or something? or the author means it literally. please help me to understand this part.\n\n\n\nThe fact that his argument did not seem convincing and was never taken seriously was due in large measure to the difficulty of believing that so manifestly vigorous and apparently creative a cultural phenomenon could be merely mimetic, and it is clearer to us now that this was a debate between antagonists who were not listening to one another and did not in any case speak the same language, which explains the oversimplification of the terms in which it was conducted. Hoping to clarify rather than simplify, we might say that the new fiction was certainly not mediocre, nor was it merely mimetic, but neither was it entirely new.\n\n\nthanks in advance"
<https://forum.wordreference.com/threads/oversimplification-of-the-terms.3060347/>