Given is the sequence $(a_n)_{n\geq 0}$ which is defined as follows:$a_0=3$ and $a_{n+1}-a_n=n(a_n-1) \ , \ \forall n\geq 0$.

Determine all positive integers $m$ such that $\gcd (m,a_n)=1 \ , \ \forall n\geq 0$.
1. **Induction to find the general form of \(a_n\):**

   We start with the given recurrence relation:
   \[
   a_{n+1} - a_n = n(a_n - 1)
   \]
   and the initial condition:
   \[
   a_0 = 3
   \]

   We will prove by induction that \(a_n = 2 \cdot n! + 1\) for all \(n \geq 0\).

   **Base case:**
   For \(n = 0\),
   \[
   a_0 = 3 = 2 \cdot 0! + 1
   \]
   which is true.

   **Inductive step:**
   Assume \(a_k = 2 \cdot k! + 1\) holds for some \(k \geq 0\). We need to show that \(a_{k+1} = 2 \cdot (k+1)! + 1\).

   Using the recurrence relation:
   \[
   a_{k+1} - a_k = k(a_k - 1)
   \]
   Substitute the inductive hypothesis \(a_k = 2 \cdot k! + 1\):
   \[
   a_{k+1} - (2 \cdot k! + 1) = k((2 \cdot k! + 1) - 1)
   \]
   Simplify the right-hand side:
   \[
   a_{k+1} - 2 \cdot k! - 1 = k \cdot 2 \cdot k!
   \]
   \[
   a_{k+1} - 2 \cdot k! - 1 = 2 \cdot k \cdot k!
   \]
   \[
   a_{k+1} = 2 \cdot k! + 1 + 2 \cdot k \cdot k!
   \]
   \[
   a_{k+1} = 2 \cdot k! (1 + k) + 1
   \]
   \[
   a_{k+1} = 2 \cdot (k+1)! + 1
   \]

   Thus, by induction, \(a_n = 2 \cdot n! + 1\) for all \(n \geq 0\).

2. **Finding \(m\) such that \(\gcd(m, a_n) = 1\) for all \(n \geq 0\):**

   We need to find all positive integers \(m\) such that \(\gcd(m, 2 \cdot n! + 1) = 1\) for all \(n \geq 0\).

   **Step 1: Check for even \(m\):**
   Since \(a_n = 2 \cdot n! + 1\) is always odd, any \(m\) that is a power of 2 will work. Thus, \(m = 2^t\) for any nonnegative integer \(t\) works.

   **Step 2: Check for \(m\) divisible by 3:**
   Since \(a_0 = 3\), \(\gcd(m, 3) = 1\) implies \(3 \nmid m\).

   **Step 3: Check for \(m\) with prime divisors \(p \geq 5\):**
   Suppose \(m\) has a prime divisor \(p \geq 5\). Consider \(a_{p-3} = 2 \cdot (p-3)! + 1\). By Wilson's theorem, \((p-1)! \equiv -1 \pmod{p}\). Thus,
   \[
   (p-3)! \cdot (p-2)(p-1) \equiv -1 \pmod{p}
   \]
   Since \((p-2)(p-1) \equiv 2 \cdot 1 = 2 \pmod{p}\),
   \[
   (p-3)! \cdot 2 \equiv -1 \pmod{p}
   \]
   \[
   (p-3)! \equiv -\frac{1}{2} \pmod{p}
   \]
   Therefore,
   \[
   a_{p-3} = 2 \cdot (p-3)! + 1 \equiv 2 \cdot -\frac{1}{2} + 1 \equiv -1 + 1 \equiv 0 \pmod{p}
   \]
   Hence, \(p \mid a_{p-3}\), which contradicts \(\gcd(m, a_n) = 1\). Thus, \(m\) cannot have any prime divisor \(p \geq 5\).

   Therefore, the only possible values for \(m\) are powers of 2.

The final answer is \( \boxed{ 2^t } \) for all nonnegative integers \(t\).