Let $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ be a bijective function. Does there always exist an infinite number of functions $g:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ such that $f(g(x))=g(f(x))$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$?

[i]Proposed by Daniel Liu[/i]
1. **Initial Consideration:**
   We need to determine if there always exists an infinite number of functions \( g: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} \) such that \( f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) \) for all \( x \in \mathbb{R} \), given that \( f \) is a bijective function.

2. **Case 1: \( f \) does not have a finite order:**
   - If there exists some \( x \) such that the sequence \( \{x, f(x), f(f(x)), \dots \} \) is infinite, we can construct an infinite sequence of functions \( \{f, f^2, f^3, \dots \} \).
   - Since \( f \) is bijective and does not have a finite order, the sequence \( \{f, f^2, f^3, \dots \} \) is infinite.
   - For each \( n \), define \( g_n(x) = f^n(x) \). Then, \( f(g_n(x)) = f(f^n(x)) = f^{n+1}(x) \) and \( g_n(f(x)) = f^n(f(x)) = f^{n+1}(x) \), satisfying \( f(g_n(x)) = g_n(f(x)) \).

3. **Case 2: \( f \) has a finite order:**
   - Suppose there exists some \( n \in \mathbb{N} \) such that \( f^n(x) = x \) for all \( x \in \mathbb{R} \). This implies \( f \) is composed of cycles.
   - Let \( p \) be a divisor of \( n \) such that cycles of length \( p \) occur infinitely many times.

4. **Constructing \( g \) in the case of cycles:**
   - Consider two cycles of length \( p \): \( (a_1 \mapsto a_2 \mapsto \dots \mapsto a_p \mapsto a_1) \) and \( (b_1 \mapsto b_2 \mapsto \dots \mapsto b_p \mapsto b_1) \).
   - Define a function \( g \) as follows:
     \[
     g(x) = 
     \begin{cases} 
     f(x) & \text{if } x \neq a_i \text{ for any } i \\
     b_1 & \text{if } x = a_1 
     \end{cases}
     \]
   - Inductively, if \( g(a_i) = b_i \), then \( g(a_{i+1}) = b_{i+1} \). This ensures that \( g \) maps the cycle \( (a_1, a_2, \dots, a_p) \) onto the cycle \( (b_1, b_2, \dots, b_p) \).

5. **Conclusion:**
   - Since there are infinitely many pairs of cycles of length \( p \), we can construct infinitely many such functions \( g \).

Thus, in both cases, we can always find an infinite number of functions \( g \) such that \( f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) \) for all \( x \in \mathbb{R} \).

The final answer is \(\boxed{\text{YES}}\)