If
\[\frac{y}{x-z}=\frac{x+y}{z}=\frac{x}{y}\]
for three positive numbers $x,y$ and $z$, all different, then $\frac{x}{y}=$
$\text{(A) } \frac{1}{2}\quad \text{(B) } \frac{3}{5}\quad \text{(C) } \frac{2}{3}\quad \text{(D) } \frac{5}{3}\quad \text{(E) } 2$
$\fbox{E}$ We have $\frac{x+y}{z} = \frac{x}{y} \implies xy+y^2=xz$ and $\frac{y}{x-z} = \frac{x}{y} \implies y^2=x^2-xz \implies x^2-y^2=xz$. Equating the two expressions for $xz$ gives $xy+y^2=x^2-y^2 \implies x^2-xy-2y^2=0 \implies (x+y)(x-2y)=0$, so as $x+y$ cannot be $0$ for positive $x$ and $y$, we must have $x-2y=0 \implies x=2y \implies \frac{x}{y}=2$.