Starting at $(0, 0)$, Richard takes $2n+1$ steps, with each step being one unit either East, North, West, or South. For each step, the direction is chosen uniformly at random from the four possibilities. Determine the probability that Richard ends at $(1, 0)$.
1. Define the number of steps in each direction:
   - Let \( N \) be the number of steps North.
   - Let \( S \) be the number of steps South.
   - Let \( E \) be the number of steps East.
   - Let \( W \) be the number of steps West.

2. Given conditions:
   - Richard ends at \((1, 0)\), so the net displacement in the East-West direction must be 1 unit East.
   - Therefore, \( E = W + 1 \).
   - The net displacement in the North-South direction must be zero, so \( N = S \).
   - The total number of steps is \( 2n + 1 \), so \( E + W + N + S = 2n + 1 \).

3. Substitute \( E = W + 1 \) and \( N = S \) into the total steps equation:
   \[
   (W + 1) + W + N + N = 2n + 1
   \]
   Simplify to:
   \[
   2W + 1 + 2N = 2n + 1
   \]
   \[
   2W + 2N = 2n
   \]
   \[
   W + N = n
   \]

4. Use the stars and bars method to find the number of ways to distribute \( W \) and \( N \) such that \( W + N = n \):
   \[
   \binom{n+1}{1} = n + 1
   \]

5. Calculate the number of ways to order the steps:
   - We have \( W \) steps West, \( W + 1 \) steps East, and \( N \) steps North and South.
   - The total number of ways to order these steps is:
   \[
   \frac{(2n+1)!}{W!(W+1)!N!N!}
   \]

6. Sum over all possible values of \( W \) from 0 to \( n \):
   \[
   \sum_{W=0}^{n} \frac{(2n+1)!}{W!(W+1)!((n-W)!)^2}
   \]

7. The total number of possible paths is \( 4^{2n+1} \).

8. The probability is the ratio of the number of favorable paths to the total number of paths:
   \[
   \frac{\sum_{W=0}^{n} \frac{(2n+1)!}{W!(W+1)!((n-W)!)^2}}{4^{2n+1}}
   \]

9. Using WolframAlpha, the summation evaluates to:
   \[
   \frac{4^{2n+1} \cdot ((n + \frac{1}{2})!)^2}{\pi((n+1)!)^2}
   \]

10. Therefore, the probability is:
   \[
   \frac{\frac{4^{2n+1} \cdot ((n + \frac{1}{2})!)^2}{\pi((n+1)!)^2}}{4^{2n+1}} = \frac{((n + \frac{1}{2})!)^2}{\pi((n+1)!)^2}
   \]

The final answer is \(\boxed{\frac{((n + \frac{1}{2})!)^2}{\pi((n+1)!)^2}}\).