Find all natural numbers $ n > 1$ such that $ n^{2}$ does $ \text{not}$ divide $ (n \minus{} 2)!$.
To find all natural numbers \( n > 1 \) such that \( n^2 \) does not divide \( (n-2)! \), we need to analyze the divisibility conditions. 

1. **Restate the problem in terms of factorials:**
   We need to find \( n \) such that \( n^2 \nmid (n-2)! \). This is equivalent to finding \( n \) such that \( n^2 \mid (n-2)! \) does not hold.

2. **Prime factorization and Legendre's formula:**
   Let \( p \) be a prime divisor of \( n \) and let \( \alpha \) be the highest power of \( p \) dividing \( n \), i.e., \( p^\alpha \parallel n \). According to Legendre's formula, the exponent of \( p \) in \( n! \) is given by:
   \[
   v_p(n!) = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \left\lfloor \frac{n}{p^k} \right\rfloor
   \]

3. **Analyze the conditions for \( n \):**
   - If \( n \) has more than two prime divisors, or if \( v_2(n) \ge 2 \) or \( v_2(n) = 0 \), then for all \( k \le \alpha \), we have \( \frac{n}{p^k} \ge 3 \). Hence,
     \[
     v_p(n!) \ge \sum_{k=1}^{\alpha} \frac{n}{p^k} \ge 3\alpha = v_p(n^3)
     \]
     This implies \( n^3 \mid n! \), which is not what we want.

4. **Special cases:**
   - If \( n = 2p^\alpha \) and \( p \ge 3 \) and \( \alpha \ge 2 \), then:
     \[
     v_p(n!) = \sum_{k=1}^{\alpha} \frac{n}{p^k} = 2 \left( \frac{p^\alpha - 1}{p - 1} \right) \ge 3^\alpha - 1 \ge 3\alpha
     \]
     This implies \( n^3 \mid n! \), which is not what we want.
   - If \( n = 2p \), then:
     \[
     v_p(n!) = 2 \le 3
     \]
     Hence, \( \{2p \mid p \in \mathbb{P} \} \) are solutions.
   - If \( n = 2^\beta \), then:
     \[
     v_2(n!) = 2^\beta - 1 \le 3\beta
     \]
     If \( \beta \in \{1, 2, 3\} \), then \( 2, 4, 8 \) are solutions.
   - If \( n \) has one prime divisor greater than 3, then:
     \[
     v_p(n!) = \frac{p^\alpha - 1}{p - 1}
     \]
     - If \( \alpha \ge 3 \), then:
       \[
       \frac{p^\alpha - 1}{p - 1} \ge \frac{3^\alpha - 1}{2} \ge 3\alpha
       \]
     - If \( \alpha = 2 \), then:
       \[
       v_p(n!) = p + 1 < 6 \text{ if } p = 3
       \]
       Hence, \( 9 \) is a solution.
     - If \( \alpha = 1 \), it's easy to show that \( n^2 \nmid (n-2)! \), hence \( \mathbb{P} \) is a solution.

5. **Conclusion:**
   The solutions are \( S = \{8, 9\} \cup \mathbb{P} \cup \{2p \mid p \in \mathbb{P} \} \).

The final answer is \( \boxed{ S = \{8, 9\} \cup \mathbb{P} \cup \{2p \mid p \in \mathbb{P} \} } \).