Let n be a positive interger. Let n real numbers be wrote on a paper. We call a "transformation" :choosing 2 numbers $a,b$ and replace both of them with $a*b$. Find all n for which after a finite number of transformations and any n real numbers, we can have the same number written n times on the paper.
1. **Base Case:**
   - For \( n = 1 \), the problem is trivial since no moves are needed. The single number on the paper is already the same number written once.

2. **Odd \( n \geq 3 \):**
   - Consider \( n \) distinct real numbers in the interval \( (2, 3) \). 
   - The maximal value on the board must appear an even number of times after each transformation. This is because each transformation replaces two numbers with their product, and the product of two numbers in \( (2, 3) \) is still in \( (2, 3) \).
   - Since \( n \) is odd, it is impossible to have all numbers equal after a finite number of transformations because the maximal value cannot appear an odd number of times.
   - Therefore, for odd \( n \geq 3 \), it is not possible to have the same number written \( n \) times.

3. **Even \( n \):**
   - We will use induction to show that for even \( n \), it is always possible to transform the numbers to be the same.
   - **Base Case: \( n = 2 \)**
     - For \( n = 2 \), choose two numbers \( a \) and \( b \). Replace both with \( ab \). Now both numbers are \( ab \), which are the same.
   - **Inductive Step:**
     - Assume that for \( n = k \) (where \( k \) is even), it is possible to transform any \( k \) numbers to be the same.
     - Consider \( k + 2 \) numbers \( (a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_k, a_{k+1}, a_{k+2}) \).
     - By the inductive hypothesis, we can transform \( (a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_k) \) to be the same number, say \( x \).
     - Now we have \( (x, x, \ldots, x, a_{k+1}, a_{k+2}) \).
     - Apply a transformation to \( a_{k+1} \) and \( a_{k+2} \) to get \( (x, x, \ldots, x, y, y) \).
     - Perform the following transformations:
       \[
       (x, x, \ldots, x, y, y) \xrightarrow{(3, k+1)} (x, x, xy, x, \ldots, x, xy, y)
       \]
       \[
       \xrightarrow{(4, k+1)} (x, x, xy, x^2y, \ldots, x, x^2y, y)
       \]
       \[
       \xrightarrow{(5, k+1)} \cdots \xrightarrow{(k, k+1)} (x, x, xy, x^2y, \ldots, x^{k-2}y, x^{k-2}y, y)
       \]
       \[
       \xrightarrow{(k+1, k+2)} (x, x, xy, x^2y, \ldots, x^{k-2}y, x^{k-2}y^2, x^{k-2}y^2)
       \]
       \[
       \xrightarrow{(i, (k+3)-i) \text{ for every } i} (x^{k-1}y^2, x^{k-1}y^2, x^{k-1}y^2, x^{k-1}y^2, \ldots, x^{k-1}y^2, x^{k-1}y^2)
       \]
     - Therefore, we have transformed \( (a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_k, a_{k+1}, a_{k+2}) \) to be the same number \( x^{k-1}y^2 \).

4. **Conclusion:**
   - By induction, we have shown that for every even \( n \), it is possible to transform any \( n \) real numbers to be the same after a finite number of transformations.

The final answer is \(\boxed{\text{every even } n \text{ and } 1}\)