question: Q:A previously healthy 22-year-old man presents to the university clinic with increasing scrotal pain and swelling over the past 5 days. He also has dysuria and urinary frequency. He has never felt this type of pain before. The young man considers himself generally healthy and takes no medications. He is sexually active with one partner and uses condoms inconsistently. At the clinic, his temperature is 36.7℃ (98.1℉), the blood pressure is 115/70 mm Hg, the pulse is 84/min, and the respirations are 14/min. On examination, he has swelling and tenderness of the right scrotum, especially over the posterior aspect of the right testicle. The Prehn sign is positive. The remainder of the physical exam is unremarkable. Doppler sonography shows increased blood flow to the testis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? 
  {'A': 'IV ceftriaxone and oral doxycycline', 'B': 'Manual detorsion guided by Doppler sonography', 'C': 'Oral metronidazole for patient and sexual partner', 'D': 'Radical orchiectomy', 'E': 'Surgical exploration'},