question: Q:A 65-year-old man comes to his primary care physician with a 6-month history of bilateral calf pain. The pain usually occurs after walking his dog a few blocks and is more severe on the right side. He has coronary artery disease, essential hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 43 years and drinks two alcoholic beverages a day. Current medications include metformin, lisinopril, and aspirin. He is 183 cm (5 ft 11 in) tall and weighs 113 kg (250 lb); BMI is 34.9 kg/m2. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 84/min, and blood pressure is 129/72 mm Hg. Cardiac examination shows a gallop without murmurs. The legs have shiny skin with reduced hair below the knee. Femoral and popliteal pulses are palpable bilaterally. Dorsal pedal pulses are 1+ on the left and absent on the right. Ankle-brachial index (ABI) is performed in the office. ABI is 0.5 in the right leg, and 0.6 in the left leg. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?? 
  {'A': 'Graded exercise therapy', 'B': 'Propranolol therapy', 'C': 'Spinal cord stimulation', 'D': 'Vascular bypass surgery', 'E': 'Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with stenting'},