text: As I understand it, dumping occurs when a product is exported at a lower price than is charged in the exporter's home market, and an anti-dumping tariff may be  imposed when that is the case. Is there any evidence that Canadians pay more for Canadian lumber than Americans do?  If not, there is no dumping. Countervailing duties, on the other hand, are appropriate when an industry is unfairly subsidized, for domestic consumers as well as consumers in export markets. What is the evidence that lumber companies, whether Canadian or American, would pay more to the Crown in the long term, which includes booms and busts in the housing market, for logging rights in Canada than they do?