text: If you weren't so guarded about protecting your sacred institution perhaps I wouldn't have to surmise as much.  You can't have it both ways... either there is a fundamental problem with the clerical culture or there isn't.  If it was there in the 11th century (during Damian's time), it was likely there in the 10th, 8th, 6th, etc.  Incidentally, I found this little gem attributed to Mr. Damian: 
  
  [Damian opposes the ordination of sodomites. He is also opposed to unshriven sodomites saying Holy Mass and wrote that “God refuses the sacrifice from an impure priest.”]
  
  So is he right or wrong about the validity of holy Eucharist from an "impure priest?"  Seems to me this is in conflict with official church teaching... which is not surprising, just pointing out the irony of using him as an example of "orthodox" teaching."