Adapter protein implicated in the regulation of a large spectrum of both general and specialized signaling pathways. Binds to a large number of partners, usually by recognition of a phosphoserine or phosphothreonine motif. Binding generally results in the modulation of the activity of the binding partner. Negative regulator of osteogenesis. Blocks the nuclear translocation of the phosphorylated form (by AKT1) of SRPK2 and antagonizes its stimulatory effect on cyclin D1 expression resulting in blockage of neuronal apoptosis elicited by SRPK2. Negative regulator of signaling cascades that mediate activation of MAP kinases via AKAP13.

Adapter protein implicated in the regulation of a large spectrum of both general and specialized signaling pathways. Binds to a large number of partners, usually by recognition of a phosphoserine or phosphothreonine motif. Binding generally results in the modulation of the activity of the binding partner (By similarity). Positively regulates phosphorylated protein HSF1 nuclear export to the cytoplasm.

Adapter protein implicated in the regulation of a large spectrum of both general and specialized signaling pathways. Binds to a large number of partners, usually by recognition of a phosphoserine or phosphothreonine motif. Binding generally results in the modulation of the activity of the binding partner. Negatively regulates the kinase activity of PDPK1.

Adapter protein implicated in the regulation of a large spectrum of both general and specialized signaling pathways. Binds to a large number of partners, usually by recognition of a phosphoserine or phosphothreonine motif. Binding generally results in the modulation of the activity of the binding partner.

Adapter protein implicated in the regulation of a large spectrum of both general and specialized signaling pathways. Binds to a large number of partners, usually by recognition of a phosphoserine or phosphothreonine motif. Binding generally results in the modulation of the activity of the binding partner. When bound to KRT17, regulates protein synthesis and epithelial cell growth by stimulating Akt/mTOR pathway. May also regulate MDM2 autoubiquitination and degradation and thereby activate p53/TP53.

Adapter protein implicated in the regulation of a large spectrum of both general and specialized signaling pathways. Binds to a large number of partners, usually by recognition of a phosphoserine or phosphothreonine motif. Binding generally results in the modulation of the activity of the binding partner. Promotes cytosolic retention and inactivation of TFEB transcription factor by binding to phosphorylated TFEB. Induces ARHGEF7 activity on RAC1 as well as lamellipodia and membrane ruffle formation. In neurons, regulates spine maturation through the modulation of ARHGEF7 activity (By similarity).

Does not catalyze the synthesis of 1-aminocyclopropane-1- carboxylate but is capable of catalyzing the deamination of L- vinylglycine.

The B regulatory subunit might modulate substrate selectivity and catalytic activity, and also might direct the localization of the catalytic enzyme to a particular subcellular compartment

As the regulatory component of the serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) holoenzyme, modulates substrate specificity, subcellular localization, and responsiveness to phosphorylation. The phosphorylated form mediates the interaction between PP2A and AKT1, leading to AKT1 dephosphorylation.

The PR65 subunit of protein phosphatase 2A serves as a scaffolding molecule to coordinate the assembly of the catalytic subunit and a variable regulatory B subunit. Upon interaction with GNA12 promotes dephosphorylation of microtubule associated protein TAU/MAPT. Required for proper chromosome segregation and for centromeric localization of SGO1 in mitosis.

The PR65 subunit of protein phosphatase 2A serves as a scaffolding molecule to coordinate the assembly of the catalytic subunit and a variable regulatory B subunit

The B regulatory subunit might modulate substrate selectivity and catalytic activity, and also might direct the localization of the catalytic enzyme to a particular subcellular compartment. Essential for serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A-mediated dephosphorylation of WEE1, preventing its ubiquitin-mediated proteolysis, increasing WEE1 protein levels, and promoting the G2/M checkpoint.

The B regulatory subunit might modulate substrate selectivity and catalytic activity, and also might direct the localization of the catalytic enzyme to a particular subcellular compartment. Within the PP2A holoenzyme complex, isoform 2 is required to promote proapoptotic activity (By similarity). Isoform 2 regulates neuronal survival through the mitochondrial fission and fusion balance (By similarity).

B regulatory subunit of protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) that plays a key role in cell cycle by controlling mitosis entry and exit. The activity of PP2A complexes containing PPP2R2D (PR55-delta) fluctuate during the cell cycle: the activity is high in interphase and low in mitosis. During mitosis, activity of PP2A is inhibited via interaction with phosphorylated ENSA and ARPP19 inhibitors. Within the PP2A complexes, the B regulatory subunits modulate substrate selectivity and catalytic activity, and may also direct the localization of the catalytic enzyme to a particular subcellular compartment (By similarity).

A bifunctional enzyme responsible for the oxidation and isomerization of 3beta-hydroxy-Delta(5)-steroid precursors to 3-oxo- Delta(4)-steroids, an essential step in steroid hormone biosynthesis. Specifically catalyzes the conversion of pregnenolone to progesterone, 17alpha-hydroxypregnenolone to 17alpha-hydroxyprogesterone, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) to 4-androstenedione, and androstenediol to testosterone. Additionally, catalyzes the interconversion between 3beta-hydroxy and 3-oxo-5alpha-androstane steroids controlling the bioavalability of the active forms. Specifically converts dihydrotestosterone to its inactive form 5alpha-androstanediol, that does not bind androgen receptor/AR. Also converts androstanedione, a precursor of testosterone and estrone, to epiandrosterone. Expected to use NAD(+) as preferred electron donor for the 3beta-hydroxy-steroid dehydrogenase activity and NADPH for the 3-ketosteroid reductase activity (Probable).

3-beta-HSD is a bifunctional enzyme, that catalyzes the oxidative conversion of Delta(5)-ene-3-beta-hydroxy steroid, and the oxidative conversion of ketosteroids. The 3-beta-HSD enzymatic system plays a crucial role in the biosynthesis of all classes of hormonal steroids.

The 3-beta-HSD enzymatic system plays a crucial role in the biosynthesis of all classes of hormonal steroids. HSD VII is active against four 7-alpha-hydroxylated sterols. Does not metabolize several different C(19/21) steroids as substrates. Involved in bile acid synthesis. Plays a key role in cell positioning and movement in lymphoid tissues by mediating degradation of 7-alpha,25- dihydroxycholesterol (7-alpha,25-OHC): 7-alpha,25-OHC acts as a ligand for the G protein-coupled receptor GPR183/EBI2, a chemotactic receptor for a number of lymphoid cells.

GTPase activating protein (GAP) which specifically converts GTP-bound Rho-type GTPases including RAC1 and CDC42 in their inactive GDP-bound form. By specifically inactivating RAC1 at the leading edge of migrating cells, it regulates the spatiotemporal organization of cell protrusions which is important for proper cell migration. Also negatively regulates CDC42 in the process of actin remodeling and the formation of epithelial cell junctions. Through its GAP activity toward RAC1 and/or CDC42 plays a specific role in phagocytosis of large particles. Specifically recruited by a PI3 kinase/PI3K-dependent mechanism to sites of large particles engagement, inactivates RAC1 and/or CDC42 allowing the reorganization of the underlying actin cytoskeleton required for engulfment. It also plays a role in angiogenesis and the process of repulsive guidance as part of a semaphorin-plexin signaling pathway. Following the binding of PLXND1 to extracellular SEMA3E it dissociates from PLXND1 and inactivates RAC1, inducing the intracellular reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and the collapse of cells.

Binds differentially to the SH3 domains of certain proteins of signal transduction pathways. Binds to phosphatidylinositols; linking the hemopoietic tyrosine kinase fes to the cytoplasmic membrane in a phosphorylation dependent mechanism

Functions as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RAB11A.

Functions as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) with specificity for RAB11A and RAB25. Inhibits the auto- and transphosphorylation activity of BTK. Plays a negative regulatory role in BTK-related cytoplasmic signaling in B- cells. May be involved in BCR-induced apoptotic cell death.

Catalyzes the oxidative ring opening of 3-hydroxyanthranilate to 2-amino-3-carboxymuconate semialdehyde, which spontaneously cyclizes to quinolinate.

Hydrolysis of the deoxyribose N-glycosidic bond to excise 3- methyladenine, and 7-methylguanine from the damaged DNA polymer formed by alkylation lesions

Repressor of translation initiation that regulates EIF4E activity by preventing its assembly into the eIF4F complex: hypophosphorylated form competes with EIF4G1/EIF4G3 and strongly binds to EIF4E, leading to repress translation. In contrast, hyperphosphorylated form dissociates from EIF4E, allowing interaction between EIF4G1/EIF4G3 and EIF4E, leading to initiation of translation. Mediates the regulation of protein translation by hormones, growth factors and other stimuli that signal through the MAP kinase and mTORC1 pathways.

Repressor of translation initiation involved in synaptic plasticity, learning and memory formation (By similarity). Regulates EIF4E activity by preventing its assembly into the eIF4F complex: hypophosphorylated form of EIF4EBP2 competes with EIF4G1/EIF4G3 and strongly binds to EIF4E, leading to repress translation. In contrast, hyperphosphorylated form dissociates from EIF4E, allowing interaction between EIF4G1/EIF4G3 and EIF4E, leading to initiation of translation. EIF4EBP2 is enriched in brain and acts as a regulator of synapse activity and neuronal stem cell renewal via its ability to repress translation initiation (By similarity). Mediates the regulation of protein translation by hormones, growth factors and other stimuli that signal through the MAP kinase and mTORC1 pathways (By similarity).

Repressor of translation initiation that regulates EIF4E activity by preventing its assembly into the eIF4F complex: hypophosphorylated form competes with EIF4G1/EIF4G3 and strongly binds to EIF4E, leading to repress translation. In contrast, hyperphosphorylated form dissociates from EIF4E, allowing interaction between EIF4G1/EIF4G3 and EIF4E, leading to initiation of translation.

EIF4E-binding protein that regulates translation and stability of mRNAs in processing bodies (P-bodies). Plays a key role in P-bodies to coordinate the storage of translationally inactive mRNAs in the cytoplasm and prevent their degradation. Acts as a binding platform for multiple RNA-binding proteins: promotes deadenylation of mRNAs via its interaction with the CCR4-NOT complex, and blocks decapping via interaction with eIF4E (EIF4E and EIF4E2), thereby protecting deadenylated and repressed mRNAs from degradation. Component of a multiprotein complex that sequesters and represses translation of proneurogenic factors during neurogenesis (By similarity). Promotes miRNA-mediated translational repression. Required for the formation of P- bodies. Involved in mRNA translational repression mediated by the miRNA effector TNRC6B by protecting TNRC6B-targeted mRNAs from decapping and subsequent decay. Also acts as a nucleoplasmic shuttling protein, which mediates the nuclear import of EIF4E and DDX6 by a piggy-back mechanism.

Component of several heterodimeric complexes involved in amino acid transport. The precise substrate specificity depends on the other subunit in the heterodimer. The complexes function as amino acid exchangers. The heterodimer functions as sodium-independent, high-affinity transporter that mediates uptake of large neutral amino acids such as phenylalanine, tyrosine, leucine, histidine, methionine, tryptophan, valine and isoleucine. The heterodimer with SLC7A5/LAT1 mediates the uptake of L-DOPA (By similarity). The heterodimer formed by SLC3A2 and SLC7A6 or SLC3A2 and SLC7A7 mediates the uptake of dibasic amino acids. The heterodimer with SLC7A5/LAT1 mediates the transport of thyroid hormones diiodothyronine (T2), triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) across the cell membrane. The heterodimer with SLC7A5/LAT1 is involved in the uptake of toxic methylmercury (MeHg) when administered as the L-cysteine or D,L-homocysteine complexes. When associated with LAPTM4B, the heterodimer with SLC7A5/LAT1 is recruited to lysosomes to promote leucine uptake into these organelles, and thereby mediates mTORC1 activation. The heterodimer with SLC7A5/LAT1 may play a role in the transport of L-DOPA across the blood-brain barrier (By similarity). The heterodimer formed by SLC3A2 and SLC7A5/LAT1 or SLC3A2 and SLC7A8/LAT2 is involved in the cellular activity of small molecular weight nitrosothiols, via the stereoselective transport of L- nitrosocysteine (L-CNSO) across the transmembrane. The heterodimer with SLC7A10 translocates small neutral L- and D-amino acids across the plasma membrane. SLC3A2-SLC7A10 preferentially mediates exchange transport, but can also operate via facilitated diffusion (By similarity). Together with ICAM1, regulates the transport activity of SLC7A8/LAT2 in polarized intestinal cells by generating and delivering intracellular signals. Required for targeting of SLC7A5/LAT1 and SLC7A8/LAT2 to the plasma membrane and for channel activity. Plays a role in nitric oxide synthesis in human umbilical vein endothelial cells (HUVECs) via transport of L-arginine. May mediate blood-to-retina L-leucine transport across the inner blood-retinal barrier (By similarity).

G-protein coupled receptor for 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin). Also functions as a receptor for various drugs and psychoactive substances. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors, such as adenylate cyclase. Beta-arrestin family members inhibit signaling via G proteins and mediate activation of alternative signaling pathways. Signaling inhibits adenylate cyclase activity and activates a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system that regulates the release of Ca(2+) ions from intracellular stores. Plays a role in the regulation of 5-hydroxytryptamine release and in the regulation of dopamine and 5-hydroxytryptamine metabolism. Plays a role in the regulation of dopamine and 5-hydroxytryptamine levels in the brain, and thereby affects neural activity, mood and behavior. Plays a role in the response to anxiogenic stimuli.

G-protein coupled receptor for 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin). Also functions as a receptor for ergot alkaloid derivatives, various anxiolytic and antidepressant drugs and other psychoactive substances, such as lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD). Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors, such as adenylate cyclase. Signaling inhibits adenylate cyclase activity. Arrestin family members inhibit signaling via G proteins and mediate activation of alternative signaling pathways. Regulates the release of 5-hydroxytryptamine, dopamine and acetylcholine in the brain, and thereby affects neural activity, nociceptive processing, pain perception, mood and behavior. Besides, plays a role in vasoconstriction of cerebral arteries.

G-protein coupled receptor for 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin). Also functions as a receptor for ergot alkaloid derivatives, various anxiolytic and antidepressant drugs and other psychoactive substances. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors, such as adenylate cyclase. Signaling inhibits adenylate cyclase activity. Regulates the release of 5-hydroxytryptamine in the brain, and thereby affects neural activity. May also play a role in regulating the release of other neurotransmitters. May play a role in vasoconstriction.

G-protein coupled receptor for 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin). Also functions as a receptor for various alkaloids and psychoactive substances. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors, such as adenylate cyclase. Signaling inhibits adenylate cyclase activity.

G-protein coupled receptor for 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin). Also functions as a receptor for various drugs and psychoactive substances, including mescaline, psilocybin, 1-(2,5-dimethoxy-4-iodophenyl)-2- aminopropane (DOI) and lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD). Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors. Beta-arrestin family members inhibit signaling via G proteins and mediate activation of alternative signaling pathways. Signaling activates phospholipase C and a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system that modulates the activity of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase and promotes the release of Ca(2+) ions from intracellular stores. Affects neural activity, perception, cognition and mood. Plays a role in the regulation of behavior, including responses to anxiogenic situations and psychoactive substances. Plays a role in intestinal smooth muscle contraction, and may play a role in arterial vasoconstriction.

G-protein coupled receptor for 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin). Also functions as a receptor for various ergot alkaloid derivatives and psychoactive substances. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors. Beta-arrestin family members inhibit signaling via G proteins and mediate activation of alternative signaling pathways. Signaling activates a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system that modulates the activity of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase and down-stream signaling cascades and promotes the release of Ca(2+) ions from intracellular stores. Plays a role in the regulation of dopamine and 5-hydroxytryptamine release, 5- hydroxytryptamine uptake and in the regulation of extracellular dopamine and 5-hydroxytryptamine levels, and thereby affects neural activity. May play a role in the perception of pain (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of behavior, including impulsive behavior. Required for normal proliferation of embryonic cardiac myocytes and normal heart development. Protects cardiomyocytes against apoptosis. Plays a role in the adaptation of pulmonary arteries to chronic hypoxia. Plays a role in vasoconstriction. Required for normal osteoblast function and proliferation, and for maintaining normal bone density. Required for normal proliferation of the interstitial cells of Cajal in the intestine (By similarity).

G-protein coupled receptor for 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin). Also functions as a receptor for various drugs and psychoactive substances, including ergot alkaloid derivatives, 1-2,5,- dimethoxy-4-iodophenyl-2-aminopropane (DOI) and lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD). Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors. Beta-arrestin family members inhibit signaling via G proteins and mediate activation of alternative signaling pathways. Signaling activates a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system that modulates the activity of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase and down-stream signaling cascades and promotes the release of Ca(2+) ions from intracellular stores. Regulates neuronal activity via the activation of short transient receptor potential calcium channels in the brain, and thereby modulates the activation of pro-opiomelacortin neurons and the release of CRH that then regulates the release of corticosterone. Plays a role in the regulation of appetite and eating behavior, responses to anxiogenic stimuli and stress. Plays a role in insulin sensitivity and glucose homeostasis.

This is one of the several different receptors for 5- hydroxytryptamine (serotonin), a biogenic hormone that functions as a neurotransmitter, a hormone, and a mitogen. This receptor is a ligand- gated ion channel, which when activated causes fast, depolarizing responses in neurons. It is a cation-specific, but otherwise relatively nonselective, ion channel.

This is one of the several different receptors for 5- hydroxytryptamine (serotonin), a biogenic hormone that functions as a neurotransmitter, a hormone, and a mitogen. This receptor is a ligand- gated ion channel, which when activated causes fast, depolarizing responses. It is a cation-specific, but otherwise relatively nonselective, ion channel.

This is one of the several different receptors for 5- hydroxytryptamine (serotonin), a biogenic hormone that functions as a neurotransmitter, a hormone, and a mitogen. This receptor is a ligand- gated ion channel, which when activated causes fast, depolarizing responses. It is a cation-specific, but otherwise relatively nonselective, ion channel

This is one of the several different receptors for 5- hydroxytryptamine (serotonin), a biogenic hormone that functions as a neurotransmitter, a hormone, and a mitogen. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins that stimulate adenylate cyclase

This is one of the several different receptors for 5- hydroxytryptamine (serotonin), a biogenic hormone that functions as a neurotransmitter, a hormone, and a mitogen. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins

This is one of the several different receptors for 5- hydroxytryptamine (serotonin), a biogenic hormone that functions as a neurotransmitter, a hormone, and a mitogen. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins that stimulate adenylate cyclase. It has a high affinity for tricyclic psychotropic drugs (By similarity). Controls pyramidal neurons migration during corticogenesis, through the regulation of CDK5 activity (By similarity). Is an activator of TOR signaling.

Translation initiation regulator which represses non-AUG initiated translation and repeat-associated non-AUG (RAN) initiated translation by acting as a competitive inhibitor of eukaryotic translation initiation factor 5 (EIF5) function. Increases the accuracy of translation initiation by impeding EIF5-dependent translation from non-AUG codons by competing with it for interaction with EIF2S2 within the 43S pre-initiation complex (PIC) in an EIF3C- binding dependent manner.

Translation initiation regulator which represses repeat- associated non-AUG (RAN) initiated translation probably by acting as a competitive inhibitor of eukaryotic translation initiation factor 5 (EIF5) function. Enhances histone H4 gene transcription but does not seem to bind DNA directly.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of ribonucleotide and deoxyribonucleotide monophosphates, releasing inorganic phosphate and the corresponding nucleoside. AMP is the major substrate but can also hydrolyze dCMP and IMP.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of nucleotide monophosphates, releasing inorganic phosphate and the corresponding nucleoside, AMP is the major substrate.

Specifically hydrolyzes 7-methylguanosine monophosphate (m(7)GMP) to 7-methylguanosine and inorganic phosphate. The specific activity for m(7)GMP may protect cells against undesired salvage of m(7)GMP and its incorporation into nucleic acids. Also has weak activity for CMP. UMP and purine nucleotides are poor substrates.

Broad specificity cytosolic 5'-nucleotidase that catalyzes the dephosphorylation of 6-hydroxypurine nucleoside 5'-monophosphates. In addition, possesses a phosphotransferase activity by which it can transfer a phosphate from a donor nucleoside monophosphate to an acceptor nucleoside, preferably inosine, deoxyinosine and guanosine. Has the highest activities for IMP and GMP followed by dIMP, dGMP and XMP. Could also catalyze the transfer of phosphates from pyrimidine monophosphates but with lower efficiency. Through these activities regulates the purine nucleoside/nucleotide pools within the cell.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of nucleotide monophosphates, releasing inorganic phosphate and the corresponding nucleoside, with AMP being the preferred substrate. Shows a preference for ribonucleotide monophosphates over their equivalent deoxyribose forms. Other substrates include IMP, UMP, GMP, CMP, dAMP, dCMP, dTMP, NAD and NMN.

Catalyzes the oxidative decarboxylation of 6-phosphogluconate to ribulose 5-phosphate and CO(2), with concomitant reduction of NADP to NADPH.

Acts as a molecular chaperone for PCSK2/PC2, preventing its premature activation in the regulated secretory pathway. Binds to inactive PCSK2 in the endoplasmic reticulum and facilitates its transport from there to later compartments of the secretory pathway where it is proteolytically matured and activated. Also required for cleavage of PCSK2 but does not appear to be involved in its folding. Plays a role in regulating pituitary hormone secretion. The C-terminal peptide inhibits PCSK2 in vitro.

Oxidized purine nucleoside triphosphate hydrolase which is a prominent sanitizer of the oxidized nucleotide pool. Catalyzes the hydrolysis of 2-oxo-dATP (2-hydroxy-dATP) into 2-oxo-dAMP. Has also a significant hydrolase activity toward 2- oxo-ATP, 8-oxo-dGTP and 8-oxo-dATP. Through the hydrolysis of oxidized purine nucleoside triphosphates, prevents their incorporation into DNA and the subsequent transversions A:T to C:G and G:C to T:A. Also catalyzes the hydrolysis of methylated purine nucleoside triphosphate preventing their integration into DNA. Through this antimutagenic activity protects cells from oxidative stress.

Plays an essential role in both canonical and non-canonical autophagy: interacts with ATG12-ATG5 to mediate the lipidation to ATG8 family proteins (MAP1LC3A, MAP1LC3B, MAP1LC3C, GABARAPL1, GABARAPL2 and GABARAP). Acts as a molecular hub, coordinating autophagy pathways via distinct domains that support either canonical or non- canonical signaling. During canonical autophagy, interacts with ATG12-ATG5 to mediate the conjugation of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) to ATG8 proteins, to produce a membrane-bound activated form of ATG8. Thereby, controls the elongation of the nascent autophagosomal membrane. Also involved in non-canonical autophagy, a parallel pathway involving conjugation of ATG8 proteins to single membranes at endolysosomal compartments, probably by catalyzing conjugation of phosphatidylserine (PS) to ATG8. Non-canonical autophagy plays a key role in epithelial cells to limit lethal infection by influenza A (IAV) virus (By similarity). Regulates mitochondrial antiviral signaling (MAVS)-dependent type I interferon (IFN-I) production. Negatively regulates NOD1- and NOD2-driven inflammatory cytokine response. Instead, promotes with NOD2 an autophagy-dependent antibacterial pathway. Plays a role in regulating morphology and function of Paneth cell.

May play a role in regulating epithelial homeostasis in an ATG16L1-dependent manner.

Functions as transport protein in the blood stream. Binds various ligands in the interior of its beta-barrel domain. Also binds synthetic drugs and influences their distribution and availability in the body. Appears to function in modulating the activity of the immune system during the acute-phase reaction.

Functions as transport protein in the blood stream. Binds various hydrophobic ligands in the interior of its beta-barrel domain. Also binds synthetic drugs and influences their distribution and availability. Appears to function in modulating the activity of the immune system during the acute-phase reaction.

Inhibitor of serine proteases. Its primary target is elastase, but it also has a moderate affinity for plasmin and thrombin. Irreversibly inhibits trypsin, chymotrypsin and plasminogen activator. The aberrant form inhibits insulin-induced NO synthesis in platelets, decreases coagulation time and has proteolytic activity against insulin and plasmin

Essential component of the apolipoprotein B mRNA editing enzyme complex which is responsible for the postranscriptional editing of a CAA codon for Gln to a UAA codon for stop in APOB mRNA. Binds to APOB mRNA and is probably responsible for docking the catalytic subunit, APOBEC1, to the mRNA to allow it to deaminate its target cytosine. The complex also protects the edited APOB mRNA from nonsense- mediated decay.

Serine protease inhibitor. The major targets of this inhibitor are plasmin and trypsin, but it also inactivates matriptase- 3/TMPRSS7 and chymotrypsin.

Is able to inhibit all four classes of proteinases by a unique 'trapping' mechanism. This protein has a peptide stretch, called the 'bait region' which contains specific cleavage sites for different proteinases. When a proteinase cleaves the bait region, a conformational change is induced in the protein which traps the proteinase. The entrapped enzyme remains active against low molecular weight substrates (activity against high molecular weight substrates is greatly reduced). Following cleavage in the bait region, a thioester bond is hydrolyzed and mediates the covalent binding of the protein to the proteinase

Is able to inhibit all four classes of proteinases by a unique 'trapping' mechanism. This protein has a peptide stretch, called the 'bait region' which contains specific cleavage sites for different proteinases. When a proteinase cleaves the bait region, a conformational change is induced in the protein which traps the proteinase. The entrapped enzyme remains active against low molecular weight substrates (activity against high molecular weight substrates is greatly reduced). Following cleavage in the bait region a thioester bond is hydrolyzed and mediates the covalent binding of the protein to the proteinase (By similarity). Displays inhibitory activity against chymotrypsin, papain, thermolysin, subtilisin A and, to a lesser extent, elastase but not trypsin. May play an important role during desquamation by inhibiting extracellular proteases.

Synthesizes the galactose-alpha(1,3)-galactose group on the glycosphingolipid isoglobotrihexosylceramide or isogloboside 3 (iGb3) by catalyzing the transfer of galactose from UDP-Galactose to its acceptor molecule Gal-beta-1,4-Glc-ceramide. Can also catalyze the addition of galactose to iGb3 itself to form polygalactose structures.

Catalyzes the transfer of galactose from UDP-alpha-D- galactose to lactosylceramide/beta-D-galactosyl-(1->4)-beta-D-glucosyl- (1<->1)-ceramide(d18:1(4E)) to produce globotriaosylceramide/globoside Gb3Cer (d18:1(4E)). Also able to transfer galactose to galactosylceramide/beta-D-Gal-(1<->1')-Cer. Globoside Gb3Cer is a glycosphingolipid of the globo serie, one of the major types of neutral root structures of glycosphingolipids, that constitute a significant portion of mammalian cell membranes (Probable). Globotriaosylceramide/globoside Gb3Cer in blood and tissue cell membranes is the antigen Pk of blood histogroup P.

Catalyzes the transfer of N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) to core 2 branched O-glycans. Necessary for the synthesis of type III mucin which is specifically produced in the stomach, duodenum, and pancreatic duct. May protect against inflammation-associated gastric adenocarcinomas (By similarity).

Functions as a cell surface receptor and performs physiological functions on the surface of neurons relevant to neurite growth, neuronal adhesion and axonogenesis. Interaction between APP molecules on neighboring cells promotes synaptogenesis. Involved in cell mobility and transcription regulation through protein-protein interactions. Can promote transcription activation through binding to APBB1-KAT5 and inhibits Notch signaling through interaction with Numb. Couples to apoptosis- inducing pathways such as those mediated by G(o) and JIP. Inhibits G(o) alpha ATPase activity (By similarity). Acts as a kinesin I membrane receptor, mediating the axonal transport of beta-secretase and presenilin 1 (By similarity). By acting as a kinesin I membrane receptor, plays a role in axonal anterograde transport of cargo towards synapes in axons. Involved in copper homeostasis/oxidative stress through copper ion reduction. In vitro, copper-metallated APP induces neuronal death directly or is potentiated through Cu(2+)-mediated low-density lipoprotein oxidation. Can regulate neurite outgrowth through binding to components of the extracellular matrix such as heparin and collagen I and IV. The splice isoforms that contain the BPTI domain possess protease inhibitor activity. Induces a AGER-dependent pathway that involves activation of p38 MAPK, resulting in internalization of amyloid-beta peptide and leading to mitochondrial dysfunction in cultured cortical neurons. Provides Cu(2+) ions for GPC1 which are required for release of nitric oxide (NO) and subsequent degradation of the heparan sulfate chains on GPC1.

By binding to ENY2, interferes with the nuclear functions of the deubiquitinase (DUB) module of the SAGA complex which consists of ENY2, ATXN7, ATXN7L3 and the histone deubiquitinating component USP22. Affects USP22 DUB activity toward histones indirectly by changing the subcellular distribution of ENY2 and altering ENY2 availability for ATXN7L3 interaction. Regulates H2B monoubiquitination (H2Bub1) levels through cytoplasmic sequestration of ENY2 resulting in loss of nuclear ENY2-ATXN7L3 association which destabilizes ATXN7L3. Affects protein expression levels of ENY2 and ATXN7L3.

Receptor for adenosine. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which inhibit adenylyl cyclase

Receptor for adenosine (By similarity). The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase (By similarity).

Receptor for adenosine. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase

[Isoform 2]: Receptor for adenosine. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which inhibits adenylyl cyclase.

Associates with SLC3A2/4F2hc to form a functional heterodimeric complex that translocates small neutral L- and D-amino acids across the plasma membrane. Preferentially mediates exchange transport, but can also operate via facilitated diffusion (By similarity). Acts as a major transporter for glycine, L- and D-serine in the central nervous system. At the spinal cord and brainstem regulates glycine metabolism and glycinergic inhibitory neurotransmission by providing for glycine de novo synthesis from L- serine and glycine recycling from astrocytes to glycinergic motor neurons (By similarity). At Schaffer collateral-CA1 synapses mediates D-serine and glycine release that modulates post-synaptic activation of NMDA receptors and excitatory glutamatergic transmission (By similarity). May regulate D-serine release from mesenchymal progenitors located in developing subcutaneous adipose tissue, favoring white adipocyte over thermogenic beige adipocyte lineage commitment (By similarity).

Displays cellular triglyceride lipase activity in liver, increases the levels of intracellular fatty acids derived from the hydrolysis of newly formed triglyceride stores and plays a role in very low-density lipoprotein assembly. Displays serine esterase activity in liver. Deacetylates a variety of arylacetamide substrates, including xenobiotic compounds and procarcinogens, converting them to the primary arylamide compounds and increasing their toxicity.

Plays a role in the normal development of the peripheral and central nervous system. Required for the correct localization of aurora kinase AURKA and the microtubule minus end-binding protein NUMA1 as well as a subset of AURKA targets which ensures proper spindle formation and timely chromosome alignment.

Sodium-dependent amino acids transporter that has a broad substrate specificity, with a preference for zwitterionic amino acids. It accepts as substrates all neutral amino acids, including glutamine, asparagine, and branched-chain and aromatic amino acids, and excludes methylated, anionic, and cationic amino acids. Through binding of the fusogenic protein syncytin- 1/ERVW-1 may mediate trophoblasts syncytialization, the spontaneous fusion of their plasma membranes, an essential process in placental development.

Converts acetoacetate to acetoacetyl-CoA in the cytosol (By similarity). Ketone body-utilizing enzyme, responsible for the synthesis of cholesterol and fatty acids (By similarity).

Although its physiological function is unclear, it can inhibit neutrophil cathepsin G and mast cell chymase, both of which can convert angiotensin-1 to the active angiotensin-2.

Transaminase with broad substrate specificity. Has transaminase activity towards aminoadipate, kynurenine, methionine and glutamate. Shows activity also towards tryptophan, aspartate and hydroxykynurenine. Accepts a variety of oxo-acids as amino-group acceptors, with a preference for 2-oxoglutarate, 2-oxocaproic acid, phenylpyruvate and alpha-oxo-gamma-methiol butyric acid. Can also use glyoxylate as amino-group acceptor (in vitro).

May be involved in endocytic recycling of growth factor receptors such as EGFR.

Regulates clathrin-mediated endocytosis by phosphorylating the AP2M1/mu2 subunit of the adaptor protein complex 2 (AP-2) which ensures high affinity binding of AP-2 to cargo membrane proteins during the initial stages of endocytosis. Isoform 1 and isoform 2 display similar levels of kinase activity towards AP2M1. Preferentially, may phosphorylate substrates on threonine residues. Regulates phosphorylation of other AP-2 subunits as well as AP-2 localization and AP-2-mediated internalization of ligand complexes. Phosphorylates NUMB and regulates its cellular localization, promoting NUMB localization to endosomes. Binds to and stabilizes the activated form of NOTCH1, increases its localization in endosomes and regulates its transcriptional activity.

Non-catalytic subunit of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), an energy sensor protein kinase that plays a key role in regulating cellular energy metabolism. In response to reduction of intracellular ATP levels, AMPK activates energy-producing pathways and inhibits energy-consuming processes: inhibits protein, carbohydrate and lipid biosynthesis, as well as cell growth and proliferation. AMPK acts via direct phosphorylation of metabolic enzymes, and by longer-term effects via phosphorylation of transcription regulators. Also acts as a regulator of cellular polarity by remodeling the actin cytoskeleton; probably by indirectly activating myosin. Beta non-catalytic subunit acts as a scaffold on which the AMPK complex assembles, via its C- terminus that bridges alpha (PRKAA1 or PRKAA2) and gamma subunits (PRKAG1, PRKAG2 or PRKAG3)

AMP/ATP-binding subunit of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), an energy sensor protein kinase that plays a key role in regulating cellular energy metabolism. In response to reduction of intracellular ATP levels, AMPK activates energy-producing pathways and inhibits energy-consuming processes: inhibits protein, carbohydrate and lipid biosynthesis, as well as cell growth and proliferation. AMPK acts via direct phosphorylation of metabolic enzymes, and by longer-term effects via phosphorylation of transcription regulators. Also acts as a regulator of cellular polarity by remodeling the actin cytoskeleton; probably by indirectly activating myosin. Gamma non-catalytic subunit mediates binding to AMP, ADP and ATP, leading to activate or inhibit AMPK: AMP-binding results in allosteric activation of alpha catalytic subunit (PRKAA1 or PRKAA2) both by inducing phosphorylation and preventing dephosphorylation of catalytic subunits. ADP also stimulates phosphorylation, without stimulating already phosphorylated catalytic subunit. ATP promotes dephosphorylation of catalytic subunit, rendering the AMPK enzyme inactive.

May play a role in preadipocyte differentiation and adipogenesis.

Plays a role in angiogenesis and cell migration. In smooth muscle cell migration, may act through the RhoA pathway.

Catalytic subunit of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), an energy sensor protein kinase that plays a key role in regulating cellular energy metabolism. In response to reduction of intracellular ATP levels, AMPK activates energy-producing pathways and inhibits energy-consuming processes: inhibits protein, carbohydrate and lipid biosynthesis, as well as cell growth and proliferation. AMPK acts via direct phosphorylation of metabolic enzymes, and by longer-term effects via phosphorylation of transcription regulators. Regulates lipid synthesis by phosphorylating and inactivating lipid metabolic enzymes such as ACACA, ACACB, GYS1, HMGCR and LIPE; regulates fatty acid and cholesterol synthesis by phosphorylating acetyl-CoA carboxylase (ACACA and ACACB) and hormone-sensitive lipase (LIPE) enzymes, respectively (By similarity). Promotes lipolysis of lipid droplets by mediating phosphorylation of isoform 1 of CHKA (CHKalpha2). Regulates insulin-signaling and glycolysis by phosphorylating IRS1, PFKFB2 and PFKFB3 (By similarity). AMPK stimulates glucose uptake in muscle by increasing the translocation of the glucose transporter SLC2A4/GLUT4 to the plasma membrane, possibly by mediating phosphorylation of TBC1D4/AS160 (By similarity). Regulates transcription and chromatin structure by phosphorylating transcription regulators involved in energy metabolism such as CRTC2/TORC2, FOXO3, histone H2B, HDAC5, MEF2C, MLXIPL/ChREBP, EP300, HNF4A, p53/TP53, SREBF1, SREBF2 and PPARGC1A. Acts as a key regulator of glucose homeostasis in liver by phosphorylating CRTC2/TORC2, leading to CRTC2/TORC2 sequestration in the cytoplasm (By similarity). In response to stress, phosphorylates 'Ser-36' of histone H2B (H2BS36ph), leading to promote transcription (By similarity). Acts as a key regulator of cell growth and proliferation by phosphorylating TSC2, RPTOR and ATG1/ULK1: in response to nutrient limitation, negatively regulates the mTORC1 complex by phosphorylating RPTOR component of the mTORC1 complex and by phosphorylating and activating TSC2. In response to nutrient limitation, promotes autophagy by phosphorylating and activating ATG1/ULK1. In that process also activates WDR45/WIPI4. Phosphorylates CASP6, thereby preventing its autoprocessing and subsequent activation. In response to nutrient limitation, phosphorylates transcription factor FOXO3 promoting FOXO3 mitochondrial import (By similarity). Also acts as a regulator of cellular polarity by remodeling the actin cytoskeleton; probably by indirectly activating myosin. AMPK also acts as a regulator of circadian rhythm by mediating phosphorylation of CRY1, leading to destabilize it (By similarity). May regulate the Wnt signaling pathway by phosphorylating CTNNB1, leading to stabilize it (By similarity). Also has tau-protein kinase activity: in response to amyloid beta A4 protein (APP) exposure, activated by CAMKK2, leading to phosphorylation of MAPT/TAU; however the relevance of such data remains unclear in vivo (By similarity). Also phosphorylates CFTR, EEF2K, KLC1, NOS3 and SLC12A1.

Catalytic subunit of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), an energy sensor protein kinase that plays a key role in regulating cellular energy metabolism. In response to reduction of intracellular ATP levels, AMPK activates energy-producing pathways and inhibits energy-consuming processes: inhibits protein, carbohydrate and lipid biosynthesis, as well as cell growth and proliferation. AMPK acts via direct phosphorylation of metabolic enzymes, and by longer-term effects via phosphorylation of transcription regulators. Regulates lipid synthesis by phosphorylating and inactivating lipid metabolic enzymes such as ACACA, ACACB, GYS1, HMGCR and LIPE; regulates fatty acid and cholesterol synthesis by phosphorylating acetyl-CoA carboxylase (ACACA and ACACB) and hormone-sensitive lipase (LIPE) enzymes, respectively. Promotes lipolysis of lipid droplets by mediating phosphorylation of isoform 1 of CHKA (CHKalpha2). Regulates insulin-signaling and glycolysis by phosphorylating IRS1, PFKFB2 and PFKFB3 (By similarity). Involved in insulin receptor/INSR internalization. AMPK stimulates glucose uptake in muscle by increasing the translocation of the glucose transporter SLC2A4/GLUT4 to the plasma membrane, possibly by mediating phosphorylation of TBC1D4/AS160 (By similarity). Regulates transcription and chromatin structure by phosphorylating transcription regulators involved in energy metabolism such as CRTC2/TORC2, FOXO3, histone H2B, HDAC5, MEF2C, MLXIPL/ChREBP, EP300, HNF4A, p53/TP53, SREBF1, SREBF2 and PPARGC1A. Acts as a key regulator of glucose homeostasis in liver by phosphorylating CRTC2/TORC2, leading to CRTC2/TORC2 sequestration in the cytoplasm (By similarity). In response to stress, phosphorylates 'Ser-36' of histone H2B (H2BS36ph), leading to promote transcription (By similarity). Acts as a key regulator of cell growth and proliferation by phosphorylating TSC2, RPTOR and ATG1/ULK1: in response to nutrient limitation, negatively regulates the mTORC1 complex by phosphorylating RPTOR component of the mTORC1 complex and by phosphorylating and activating TSC2. In response to nutrient limitation, promotes autophagy by phosphorylating and activating ATG1/ULK1. In that process also activates WDR45/WIPI4. Phosphorylates CASP6, thereby preventing its autoprocessing and subsequent activation. AMPK also acts as a regulator of circadian rhythm by mediating phosphorylation of CRY1, leading to destabilize it (By similarity). May regulate the Wnt signaling pathway by phosphorylating CTNNB1, leading to stabilize it (By similarity). Also acts as a regulator of cellular polarity by remodeling the actin cytoskeleton; probably by indirectly activating myosin. Also phosphorylates CFTR, EEF2K, KLC1, NOS3 and SLC12A1. Plays an important role in the differential regulation of pro-autophagy (composed of PIK3C3, BECN1, PIK3R4 and UVRAG or ATG14) and non- autophagy (composed of PIK3C3, BECN1 and PIK3R4) complexes, in response to glucose starvation (By similarity). Can inhibit the non-autophagy complex by phosphorylating PIK3C3 and can activate the pro-autophagy complex by phosphorylating BECN1 (By similarity).

Component of the U5 snRNP complex that is required for spliceosome assembly and for pre-mRNA splicing.

Functions in trans to edit the amino acid moiety from incorrectly charged tRNA(Ala).

Bifunctional enzyme that catalyzes the first two steps in lysine degradation.

Biosynthesis of L-glutamate from L-aspartate or L-cysteine. Important regulator of levels of glutamate, the major excitatory neurotransmitter of the vertebrate central nervous system. Acts as a scavenger of glutamate in brain neuroprotection. The aspartate aminotransferase activity is involved in hepatic glucose synthesis during development and in adipocyte glyceroneogenesis. Using L-cysteine as substrate, regulates levels of mercaptopyruvate, an important source of hydrogen sulfide. Mercaptopyruvate is converted into H(2)S via the action of 3-mercaptopyruvate sulfurtransferase (3MST). Hydrogen sulfide is an important synaptic modulator and neuroprotectant in the brain. In addition, catalyzes (2S)-2- aminobutanoate, a by-product in the cysteine biosynthesis pathway.

May function as a general inhibitor of the histone deacetylase HDAC1. Binding to the pocket region of RB1 may displace HDAC1 from RB1/E2F complexes, leading to activation of E2F target genes and cell cycle progression. Conversely, displacement of HDAC1 from SP1 bound to the CDKN1A promoter leads to increased expression of this CDK inhibitor and blocks cell cycle progression. Also antagonizes PAWR mediated induction of aberrant amyloid peptide production in Alzheimer disease (presenile and senile dementia), although the molecular basis for this phenomenon has not been described to date.

Catalyzes the irreversible transamination of the L-tryptophan metabolite L-kynurenine to form kynurenic acid (KA). As a member of the malate-aspartate shuttle, it has a key role in the intracellular NAD(H) redox balance. Is important for metabolite exchange between mitochondria and cytosol, and for amino acid metabolism. Facilitates cellular uptake of long-chain free fatty acids.

Hydrolyzes fatty acids from S-acylated cysteine residues in proteins. Has depalmitoylating activity towards NRAS. Has depalmitoylating activity towards DLG4/PSD95. May have depalmitoylating activity towards MAP6 (By similarity).

Hydrolyzes fatty acids from S-acylated cysteine residues in proteins. Has depalmitoylating activity towards DLG4/PSD95. Has depalmitoylating activity towards GAP43 (By similarity). Has depalmitoylating activity towards MAP6 (By similarity). Has depalmitoylating activity towards NRAS.

Hydrolyzes fatty acids from S-acylated cysteine residues in proteins. Has depalmitoylating activity towards NRAS and DLG4/PSD95.

Appears to function in the signal transduction from Ras activation to actin cytoskeletal remodeling. Suppresses insulin-induced promoter activities through AP1 and SRE. Mediates Rap1-induced adhesion.

DNA deaminase (cytidine deaminase) with restriction activity against viruses, foreign DNA and mobility of retrotransposons. Exhibits antiviral activity against adeno-associated virus (AAV) and human T- cell leukemia virus type 1 (HTLV-1) and may inhibit the mobility of LTR and non-LTR retrotransposons. Selectively targets single-stranded DNA and can deaminate both methylcytosine and cytosine in foreign DNA. Can induce somatic hypermutation in the nuclear and mitochondrial DNA. May also play a role in the epigenetic regulation of gene expression through the process of active DNA demethylation.

DNA deaminase (cytidine deaminase) which acts as an inhibitor of retrovirus replication and retrotransposon mobility via deaminase- dependent and -independent mechanisms. After the penetration of retroviral nucleocapsids into target cells of infection and the initiation of reverse transcription, it can induce the conversion of cytosine to uracil in the minus-sense single-strand viral DNA, leading to G-to-A hypermutations in the subsequent plus-strand viral DNA. The resultant detrimental levels of mutations in the proviral genome, along with a deamination-independent mechanism that works prior to the proviral integration, together exert efficient antiretroviral effects in infected target cells. Selectively targets single-stranded DNA and does not deaminate double-stranded DNA or single- or double-stranded RNA. Exhibits antiviral activity against simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV), hepatitis B virus (HBV) and human T-cell leukemia virus type 1 (HTLV-1) and may inhibit the mobility of LTR and non-LTR retrotransposons.

DNA deaminase (cytidine deaminase) which acts as an inhibitor of retrovirus replication and retrotransposon mobility via deaminase- dependent and -independent mechanisms. After the penetration of retroviral nucleocapsids into target cells of infection and the initiation of reverse transcription, it can induce the conversion of cytosine to uracil in the minus-sense single-strand viral DNA, leading to G-to-A hypermutations in the subsequent plus-strand viral DNA. The resultant detrimental levels of mutations in the proviral genome, along with a deamination-independent mechanism that works prior to the proviral integration, together exert efficient antiretroviral effects in infected target cells. Selectively targets single-stranded DNA and does not deaminate double-stranded DNA or single- or double-stranded RNA. Exhibits antiviral activity against simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV), hepatitis B virus (HBV), herpes simplex virus 1 (HHV-1) and Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and may inhibit the mobility of LTR and non- LTR retrotransposons. May also play a role in the epigenetic regulation of gene expression through the process of active DNA demethylation.

DNA deaminase (cytidine deaminase) which acts as an inhibitor of retrovirus replication and retrotransposon mobility via deaminase- dependent and -independent mechanisms. Exhibits antiviral activity against HIV-1. After the penetration of retroviral nucleocapsids into target cells of infection and the initiation of reverse transcription, it can induce the conversion of cytosine to uracil in the minus-sense single- strand viral DNA, leading to G-to-A hypermutations in the subsequent plus-strand viral DNA. The resultant detrimental levels of mutations in the proviral genome, along with a deamination- independent mechanism that works prior to the proviral integration, together exert efficient antiretroviral effects in infected target cells. Selectively targets single-stranded DNA and does not deaminate double-stranded DNA or single- or double-stranded RNA. Inhibits also the mobility of LTR and non-LTR retrotransposons.

DNA deaminase (cytidine deaminase) which acts as an inhibitor of retrovirus replication and retrotransposon mobility via deaminase- dependent and -independent mechanisms. Exhibits antiviral activity against viruse such as HIV-1 or HIV-2. After the penetration of retroviral nucleocapsids into target cells of infection and the initiation of reverse transcription, it can induce the conversion of cytosine to uracil in the minus-sense single-strand viral DNA, leading to G-to-A hypermutations in the subsequent plus-strand viral DNA. The resultant detrimental levels of mutations in the proviral genome, along with a deamination-independent mechanism that works prior to the proviral integration, together exert efficient antiretroviral effects in infected target cells. Selectively targets single-stranded DNA and does not deaminate double-stranded DNA or single- or double-stranded RNA. Exhibits antiviral activity also against hepatitis B virus (HBV), equine infectious anemia virus (EIAV), xenotropic MuLV-related virus (XMRV) and simian foamy virus (SFV) and may inhibit the mobility of LTR and non-LTR retrotransposons. May also play a role in the epigenetic regulation of gene expression through the process of active DNA demethylation.

DNA deaminase (cytidine deaminase) which acts as an inhibitor of retrovirus replication and retrotransposon mobility via deaminase- dependent and -independent mechanisms. Exhibits potent antiviral activity against Vif-deficient HIV-1. After the penetration of retroviral nucleocapsids into target cells of infection and the initiation of reverse transcription, it can induce the conversion of cytosine to uracil in the minus-sense single-strand viral DNA, leading to G-to-A hypermutations in the subsequent plus-strand viral DNA. The resultant detrimental levels of mutations in the proviral genome, along with a deamination-independent mechanism that works prior to the proviral integration, together exert efficient antiretroviral effects in infected target cells. Selectively targets single-stranded DNA and does not deaminate double-stranded DNA or single- or double-stranded RNA. Exhibits antiviral activity also against simian immunodeficiency viruses (SIVs), hepatitis B virus (HBV), equine infectious anemia virus (EIAV), xenotropic MuLV-related virus (XMRV) and simian foamy virus (SFV). May inhibit the mobility of LTR and non-LTR retrotransposons.

DNA deaminase (cytidine deaminase) which acts as an inhibitor of retrovirus replication and retrotransposon mobility via deaminase- dependent and -independent mechanisms. The A3H-var/haplotype 2 exhibits antiviral activity against vif-deficient HIV-1. After the penetration of retroviral nucleocapsids into target cells of infection and the initiation of reverse transcription, it can induce the conversion of cytosine to uracil in the minus-sense single-strand viral DNA, leading to G-to-A hypermutations in the subsequent plus-strand viral DNA. The resultant detrimental levels of mutations in the proviral genome, along with a deamination-independent mechanism that works prior to the proviral integration, together exert efficient antiretroviral effects in infected target cells. Selectively targets single-stranded DNA and does not deaminate double-stranded DNA or single- or double-stranded RNA. Exhibits antiviral activity also against T-cell leukemia virus type 1 (HTLV-1) and may inhibit the mobility of LTR and non-LTR retrotransposons.

Catalyzes the translocation of specific phospholipids from the cytoplasmic to the extracellular/lumenal leaflet of membrane coupled to the hydrolysis of ATP. Thereby, participates in phospholipid transfer to apolipoproteins to form nascent high density lipoproteins/HDLs. Transports preferentially phosphatidylcholine over phosphatidylserine. May play a similar role in the efflux of intracellular cholesterol to apolipoproteins and the formation of nascent high density lipoproteins/HDLs.

Probable lipid transporter that modulates cholesterol sequestration in the late endosome/lysosome by regulating the intracellular sphingolipid metabolism, in turn participates in cholesterol homeostasis (Probable). May alter the transbilayer distribution of ceramide in the intraluminal membrane lipid bilayer, favoring its retention in the outer leaflet that results in increased acid ceramidase activity in the late endosome/lysosome, facilitating ceramide deacylation to sphingosine leading to the sequestration of free cholesterol in lysosomes. In addition regulates amyloid-beta production either by activating a signaling pathway that regulates amyloid precursor protein transcription through the modulation of sphingolipid metabolism or through its role in gamma- secretase processing of APP. May play a role in myelin formation (By similarity).

Catalyzes the ATP-dependent transport of phospholipids such as phosphatidylcholine and phosphoglycerol from the cytoplasm into the lumen side of lamellar bodies, in turn participates in the lamellar bodies biogenesis and homeostasis of pulmonary surfactant. Transports preferentially phosphatidylcholine containing short acyl chains. In addition plays a role as an efflux transporter of miltefosine across macrophage membranes and free cholesterol (FC) through intralumenal vesicles by removing FC from the cell as a component of surfactant and protects cells from free cholesterol toxicity.

Flippase that catalyzes in an ATP-dependent manner the transport of retinal-phosphatidylethanolamine conjugates like the 11- cis and all-trans isomers of N-retinylidene-phosphatidylethanolamine from the lumen to the cytoplasmic leaflet of photoreceptor outer segment disk membranes, where N-cis-retinylidene- phosphatidylethanolamine (N-cis-R-PE) is then isomerized to its all- trans isomer (N-trans-R-PE) and reduced by RDH8 to produce all-trans- retinol (all-trans-rol) and therefore prevents the accumulation of excess of 11-cis-retinal and its schiff-base conjugate and the formation of toxic bisretinoid. May display both ATPase and GTPase activity that is strongly influenced by the lipid environment and the presence of retinoid compounds. Binds the unprotonated form of N- retinylidene-phosphatidylethanolamine with high affinity in the absence of ATP, and ATP binding and hydrolysis induce a protein conformational change that causes the dissociation of N-retinylidene- phosphatidylethanolamine (By similarity).

Cholesterol efflux transporter in macrophages that is responsible for APOAI/high-density lipoproteins (HDL) formation at the plasma membrane under high cholesterol levels and participates in reverse cholesterol transport. May play a role in the processing of autolysosomes (By similarity).

Probable transporter which may play a role in macrophage lipid transport and homeostasis.

Catalyzes the translocation of specific phospholipids from the cytoplasmic to the extracellular/lumenal leaflet of membrane coupled to the hydrolysis of ATP. Transports preferentially phosphatidylserine over phosphatidylcholine. Plays a role in lipid homeostasis and macrophage- mediated phagocytosis. Binds APOA1 and may function in apolipoprotein-mediated phospholipid efflux from cells. May also mediate cholesterol efflux. May regulate cellular ceramide homeostasis during keratinocyte differentiation. Involved in lipid raft organization and CD1D localization on thymocytes and antigen-presenting cells, which plays an important role in natural killer T-cell development and activation (By similarity). Plays a role in phagocytosis of apoptotic cells by macrophages (By similarity). Macrophage phagocytosis is stimulated by APOA1 or APOA2, probably by stabilization of ABCA7 (By similarity). Also involved in phagocytic clearance of amyloid-beta by microglia cells and macrophages (By similarity). Further limits amyloid-beta production by playing a role in the regulation of amyloid-beta A4 precursor protein (APP) endocytosis and/or processing. Amyloid-beta is the main component of amyloid plaques found in the brains of Alzheimer patients.

[Isoform 1]: Catalyzes ATP-dependent import of organic anions such as taurocholate and estrone sulfate. In vitro, also imports ochratoxin A. Also mediates cholesterol efflux independent of apolipoprotein, and plays a role in sphingomyelin production in oligodendrocytes.

Transporter that may play a role in monocyte differentiation and lipid transport and homeostasis.

Transports lipids such as glucosylceramides from the outer to the inner leaflet of lamellar granules (LGs) membrane, whereby the lipids are finally transported to the keratinocyte periphery via the trans-Golgi network and LGs and released to the apical surface of the granular keratinocytes to form lipid lamellae in the stratum corneum of the epidermis, which is essential for skin barrier function. In the meantime, participates in the transport of the lamellar granules-associated proteolytic enzymes, in turn regulates desquamation and keratinocyte differentiation. Furthermore, is essential for the regulation of cellular cholesterol homeostasis by regulating ABCA1-dependent cholesterol efflux from macrophages through interaction with NR1H2 and ABCA1 (By similarity). Plays pleiotropic roles in regulating glucose stimulated insulin secretion from beta cells, regulating the morphology and fusion of insulin granules, lipid raft abundance and the actin cytoskeleton (By similarity). Also involved in lung surfactant biogenesis (By similarity).

Energy-dependent efflux transporter responsible for decreased drug accumulation in multidrug-resistant cells. Specifically present in limbal stem cells, where it plays a key role in corneal development and repair (By similarity).

ATP-dependent transporter that catalyzes the transport of a broad-spectrum of porphyrins from the cytoplasm to the extracellular space through the plasma membrane or into the vesicle lumen. May also function as an ATP-dependent importer of porphyrins from the cytoplasm into the mitochondria, in turn may participate in the de novo heme biosynthesis regulation and in the coordination of heme and iron homeostasis during phenylhydrazine stress. May also play a key role in the early steps of melanogenesis producing PMEL amyloid fibrils. In vitro, it confers to cells a resistance to toxic metal such as arsenic and cadmium and against chemotherapeutics agent such as 5-fluorouracil, SN-38 and vincristin. In addition may play a role in the transition metal homeostasis (By similarity).

Exports glutathione-coordinated iron-sulfur clusters such as [2Fe-2S]-(GS)4 cluster from the mitochondria to the cytosol in an ATP- dependent manner allowing the assembly of the cytosolic iron-sulfur (Fe/S) cluster-containing proteins and participates in iron homeostasis. Moreover, through a functional complex formed of ABCB7, FECH and ABCB10, also plays a role in the cellular iron homeostasis, mitochondrial function and heme biosynthesis. In cardiomyocytes, regulates cellular iron homeostasis and cellular reactive oxygen species (ROS) levels through its interaction with COX4I1 (By similarity). May also play a role in hematopoiesis (By similarity).

ATP-dependent low-affinity peptide transporter which translocates a broad spectrum of peptides from the cytosol to the lysosomal lumen for degradation. Displays a broad peptide length specificity from 6-mer up to at least 59-mer peptides with an optimum of 23-mers. Binds and transports smaller and larger peptides with the same affinity. Favors positively charged, aromatic or hydrophobic residues in the N- and C-terminal positions whereas negatively charged residues as well as asparagine and methionine are not favored.

Catalyzes the export of an unknown physiological substrate from the mitochondrial matrix to the cytosol in an ATP-dependent manner. May also transport the heme analog Zn (II) mesoporphyrin (ZnMP) in an ATP dependent manner but can't export the heme precursor 5-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) from mitochondria. Plays a role in the early step of the heme biosynthetic process during insertion of iron into protoporphyrin IX (PPIX). In turn participates in hemoglobin synthesis and also protects against oxidative stress. In addition may be involved in mitochondrial unfolded protein response (UPRmt) signaling pathway, although ABCB10 probably does not participate in peptide export from mitochondria.

Catalyzes the transport of the major hydrophobic bile salts, such as taurine and glycine-conjugated cholic acid across the canalicular membrane of hepatocytes in an ATP-dependent manner, therefore participates in hepatic bile acid homeostasis and consequently to lipid homeostasis through regulation of biliary lipid secretion in a bile salts dependent manner. Transports taurine-conjugated bile salts more rapidly than glycine-conjugated bile salts. Also transports non-bile acid compounds, such as pravastatin and fexofenadine in an ATP-dependent manner and may be involved in their biliary excretion.

Subunit of the beta-cell ATP-sensitive potassium channel (KATP). Regulator of ATP-sensitive K(+) channels and insulin release.

Subunit of ATP-sensitive potassium channels (KATP). Can form cardiac and smooth muscle-type KATP channels with KCNJ11. KCNJ11 forms the channel pore while ABCC9 is required for activation and regulation.

ATP-dependent transporter of the ATP-binding cassette (ABC) family involved in the transport of very long chain fatty acid (VLCFA)- CoA from the cytosol to the peroxisome lumen. Coupled to the ATP- dependent transporter activity has also a fatty acyl-CoA thioesterase activity (ACOT) and hydrolyzes VLCFA-CoA into VLCFA prior their ATP- dependent transport into peroxisomes, the ACOT activity is essential during this transport process. Thus, plays a role in regulation of VLCFAs and energy metabolism namely, in the degradation and biosynthesis of fatty acids by beta-oxidation, mitochondrial function and microsomal fatty acid elongation. Involved in several processes; namely, controls the active myelination phase by negatively regulating the microsomal fatty acid elongation activity and may also play a role in axon and myelin maintenance. Controls also the cellular response to oxidative stress by regulating mitochondrial functions such as mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation and depolarization. And finally controls the inflammatory response by positively regulating peroxisomal beta-oxidation of VLCFAs (By similarity).

ATP-dependent transporter of the ATP-binding cassette (ABC) family involved in the transport of very long chain fatty acid (VLCFA)- CoA from the cytosol to the peroxisome lumen. Like ABCD1 seems to have fatty acyl-CoA thioesterase (ACOT) and ATPase activities, according to this model, VLCFA-CoA as free VLCFA is transpoted in an ATP-dependent manner into peroxisomes after the hydrolysis of VLCFA-CoA mediated by the ACOT activity of ABCD2 (Probable). Shows overlapping substrate specificities with ABCD1 toward saturated fatty acids (FA) and monounsaturated FA (MUFA) but has a distinct substrate preference for shorter VLCFA (C22:0) and polyunsaturated fatty acid (PUFA) such as C22:6-CoA and C24:6-CoA (in vitro). Thus, may play a role in regulation of VLCFAs and energy metabolism namely, in the degradation and biosynthesis of fatty acids by beta-oxidation.

Broad substrate specificity ATP-dependent transporter of the ATP-binding cassette (ABC) family that catalyzes the transport of long- chain fatty acids (LCFA)-CoA, dicarboxylic acids-CoA, long-branched- chain fatty acids-CoA and bile acids from the cytosol to the peroxisome lumen for beta-oxydation. Has fatty acyl-CoA thioesterase and ATPase activities. Probably hydrolyzes fatty acyl- CoAs into free fatty acids prior to their ATP-dependent transport into peroxisomes (By similarity). Thus, play a role in regulation of LCFAs and energy metabolism namely, in the degradation and biosynthesis of fatty acids by beta-oxidation.

Lysosomal membrane protein that transports cobalamin (Vitamin B12) from the lysosomal lumen to the cytosol in an ATP-dependent manner (PubMed:22922874,PubMed:33845046,PubMed:28572511,PubMed:31467407). Targeted by LMBRD1 lysosomal chaperone from the endoplasmic reticulum to the lysosomal membrane. Then forms a complex with lysosomal chaperone LMBRD1 and cytosolic MMACHC to transport cobalamin across the lysosomal membrane.

Cotranslational quality control factor involved in the No-Go Decay (NGD) pathway. Together with PELO and HBS1L, is required for 48S complex formation from 80S ribosomes and dissociation of vacant 80S ribosomes. Together with PELO and HBS1L, recognizes stalled ribosomes and promotes dissociation of elongation complexes assembled on non-stop mRNAs; this triggers endonucleolytic cleavage of the mRNA, a mechanism to release non- functional ribosomes and to degrade damaged mRNAs as part of the No-Go Decay (NGD) pathway. Plays a role in the regulation of mRNA turnover (By similarity). Plays a role in quality control of translation of mitochondrial outer membrane-localized mRNA. As part of the PINK1-regulated signaling, ubiquitinated by CNOT4 upon mitochondria damage; this modification generates polyubiquitin signals that recruit autophagy receptors to the mitochondrial outer membrane and initiate mitophagy. RNASEL-specific protein inhibitor which antagonizes the binding of 2-5A (5'-phosphorylated 2',5'-linked oligoadenylates) to RNASEL. Negative regulator of the anti-viral effect of the interferon-regulated 2-5A/RNASEL pathway.

Isoform 2 is required for efficient Cap- and IRES-mediated mRNA translation initiation. Isoform 2 is not involved in the ribosome biogenesis.

Displays an antiviral effect against flaviviruses such as west Nile virus (WNV) in the presence of OAS1B.

Catalyzes the efflux of phospholipids such as sphingomyelin, cholesterol and its oxygenated derivatives like 7beta- hydroxycholesterol and this transport is coupled to hydrolysis of ATP. The lipid efflux is ALB-dependent. Is an active component of the macrophage lipid export complex. Could also be involved in intracellular lipid transport processes. The role in cellular lipid homeostasis may not be limited to macrophages. Prevents cell death by transporting cytotoxic 7beta- hydroxycholesterol.

Broad substrate specificity ATP-dependent transporter of the ATP-binding cassette (ABC) family that actively extrudes a wide variety of physiological compounds, dietary toxins and xenobiotics from cells. Involved in porphyrin homeostasis, mediating the export of protoporphyrin IX (PPIX) from both mitochondria to cytosol and cytosol to extracellular space, it also functions in the cellular export of heme. Also mediates the efflux of sphingosine-1-P from cells. Acts as a urate exporter functioning in both renal and extrarenal urate excretion. In kidney, it also functions as a physiological exporter of the uremic toxin indoxyl sulfate (By similarity). Also involved in the excretion of steroids like estrone 3- sulfate/E1S, 3beta-sulfooxy-androst-5-en-17-one/DHEAS, and other sulfate conjugates. Mediates the secretion of the riboflavin and biotin vitamins into milk (By similarity). Extrudes pheophorbide a, a phototoxic porphyrin catabolite of chlorophyll, reducing its bioavailability (By similarity). Plays an important role in the exclusion of xenobiotics from the brain (Probable). It confers to cells a resistance to multiple drugs and other xenobiotics including mitoxantrone, pheophorbide, camptothecin, methotrexate, azidothymidine, and the anthracyclines daunorubicin and doxorubicin, through the control of their efflux. In placenta, it limits the penetration of drugs from the maternal plasma into the fetus (By similarity). May play a role in early stem cell self-renewal by blocking differentiation (By similarity).

ATP-dependent transporter of the ATP-binding cassette (ABC) family that may be involved in the cellular efflux of sterols, in particular cholesterol and desmosterol (a cholesterol precursor), to high-density lipoprotein (HDL). May play an important role in the removal of amyloid-beta peptides from brain, in a process that can be antagonized by desmosterol. However it is unclear whether ABCG4 can directly transport amyloid-beta peptides or whether peptide export may be facilitated due to changes in the membrane lipid environment (By similarity). Induces apoptosis in various cells.

ABCG5 and ABCG8 form an obligate heterodimer that mediates Mg(2+)- and ATP-dependent sterol transport across the cell membrane. Plays an essential role in the selective transport of dietary plant sterols and cholesterol in and out of the enterocytes and in the selective sterol excretion by the liver into bile. Required for normal sterol homeostasis. The heterodimer with ABCG8 has ATPase activity.

ABCG5 and ABCG8 form an obligate heterodimer that mediates Mg(2+)- and ATP-dependent sterol transport across the cell membrane. Plays an essential role in the selective transport of the dietary cholesterol in and out of the enterocytes and in the selective sterol excretion by the liver into bile. Required for normal sterol homeostasis. The heterodimer with ABCG5 has ATPase activity.

Lysophosphatidylserine (LPS) lipase that mediates the hydrolysis of lysophosphatidylserine, a class of signaling lipids that regulates immunological and neurological processes. Represents a major lysophosphatidylserine lipase in the brain, thereby playing a key role in the central nervous system (By similarity). Also able to hydrolyze oxidized phosphatidylserine; oxidized phosphatidylserine is produced in response to severe inflammatory stress and constitutes a proapoptotic 'eat me' signal. Also has monoacylglycerol (MAG) lipase activity: hydrolyzes 2-arachidonoylglycerol (2-AG), thereby acting as a regulator of endocannabinoid signaling pathways. Has a strong preference for very-long-chain lipid substrates; substrate specificity is likely due to improved catalysis and not improved substrate binding.

Catalytic component of the apolipoprotein B mRNA editing enzyme complex which is responsible for the postranscriptional editing of a CAA codon for Gln to a UAA codon for stop in the APOB mRNA. Also involved in CGA (Arg) to UGA (Stop) editing in the NF1 mRNA. May also play a role in the epigenetic regulation of gene expression by participating in DNA demethylation.

Probable C to U editing enzyme whose physiological substrate is not yet known. Does not display detectable apoB mRNA editing. Has a low intrinsic cytidine deaminase activity. May play a role in the epigenetic regulation of gene expression through the process of active DNA demethylation.

Putative C to U editing enzyme whose physiological substrate is not yet known.

Progesterone-dependent acylglycerol lipase that catalyzes hydrolysis of endocannabinoid arachidonoylglycerol (AG) from cell membrane. Acts as a progesterone receptor: progesterone-binding activates the acylglycerol lipase activity, mediating degradation of 1-arachidonoylglycerol (1AG) and 2- arachidonoylglycerol (2AG) to glycerol and arachidonic acid (AA). Also displays an ester hydrolase activity against acetyl ester, butanoate ester and hexadecanoate ester. Plays a key role in sperm capacitation in response to progesterone by mediating degradation of 2AG, an inhibitor of the sperm calcium channel CatSper, leading to calcium influx via CatSper and sperm activation. May also play a role in smooth muscle cells migration (By similarity).

Phospholipase that may play a role in phospholipids remodeling. May selectively cleave myristate (C14)-containing phosphatidylcholines through its predominant phospholipase 1 activity, cleaving preferentially acyl groups in sn1 position. In parallel, may have a minor phospholipase 2 activity acting on acyl groups in position sn2. In addition to (C14)-containing phosphatidylcholines, may also act on other medium-chain-containing and oxidatively truncated phospholipids.

Lysophospholipase selective for N-acyl phosphatidylethanolamine (NAPE). Contributes to the biosynthesis of N- acyl ethanolamines, including the endocannabinoid anandamide by hydrolyzing the sn-1 and sn-2 acyl chains from N-acyl phosphatidylethanolamine (NAPE) generating glycerophospho-N-acyl ethanolamine (GP-NAE), an intermediate for N-acyl ethanolamine biosynthesis. Hydrolyzes substrates bearing saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated N-acyl chains. Shows no significant activity towards other lysophospholipids, including lysophosphatidylcholine, lysophosphatidylethanolamine and lysophosphatidylserine.

Coenzyme A-dependent lysophosphatidic acid acyltransferase that catalyzes the transfert of an acyl group on a lysophosphatidic acid. Functions preferentially with 1-oleoyl- lysophosphatidic acid followed by 1-palmitoyl-lysophosphatidic acid, 1- stearoyl-lysophosphatidic acid and 1-arachidonoyl-lysophosphatidic acid as lipid acceptor. Functions preferentially with arachidonoyl-CoA followed by oleoyl-CoA as acyl group donors (By similarity). Functions in phosphatidic acid biosynthesis. May regulate the cellular storage of triacylglycerol through activation of the phospholipase PNPLA2. Involved in keratinocyte differentiation. Regulates lipid droplet fusion (By similarity).

Lipase that preferentially hydrolysis medium-chain saturated monoacylglycerols including 2-arachidonoylglycerol. Through 2-arachidonoylglycerol degradation may regulate endocannabinoid signaling pathways (By similarity). Also has a lysophosphatidyl lipase activity with a preference for lysophosphatidylglycerol among other lysophospholipids (By similarity). Also able to degrade bis(monoacylglycero)phosphate (BMP) and constitutes the major enzyme for BMP catabolism. BMP, also known as lysobisphosphatidic acid, is enriched in late endosomes and lysosomes and plays a key role in the formation of intraluminal vesicles and in lipid sorting.

Acts as an acyl-protein thioesterase that hydrolyzes fatty acids from acylated residues in proteins. Regulates the mitochondrial S-depalmitoylation of the nucleophilic active site residue of peroxiredoxin-5/PRDX5, a key antioxidant protein, therefore modulating mitochondrial antioxidant ability. Also catalyzes the deglucuronidation of mycophenolic acid acyl-glucuronide, an active metabolite of the immunosuppressant drug mycophenolate.

Acts as an atypical protein-lysine deacetylase in vitro. Catalyzes the deacetylation of lysine residues using CoA as substrate, generating acetyl-CoA and the free amine of protein- lysine residues. Additional experiments are however required to confirm the protein-lysine deacetylase activity in vivo (Probable). Has hydrolase activity towards various surrogate p- nitrophenyl (pNp) substrates, such as pNp-butyrate, pNp-acetate and pNp-octanoate in vitro, with a strong preference for pNp-acetate. May activate transcription.

Phosphatidylserine (PS) lipase that mediates the hydrolysis of phosphatidylserine to generate lysophosphatidylserine (LPS) (By similarity). LPS constitutes a class of signaling lipids that regulates immunological and neurological processes (By similarity). Has no activity towards diacylglycerol, triacylglycerol or lysophosphatidylserine lipase. Also has monoacylglycerol lipase activity, with preference for 1-(9Z,12Z- octadecadienoyl)-glycerol (1-LG) and 2-glyceryl-15-deoxy-Delta(12,14)- prostaglandin J2 (15d-PGJ(2)-G).

May act in negative regulation of cell growth and transformation by interacting with nonreceptor tyrosine kinases ABL1 and/or ABL2. May play a role in regulation of EGF-induced Erk pathway activation. Involved in cytoskeletal reorganization and EGFR signaling. Together with EPS8 participates in transduction of signals from Ras to Rac. In vitro, a trimeric complex of ABI1, EPS8 and SOS1 exhibits Rac specific guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) activity and ABI1 seems to act as an adapter in the complex. Regulates ABL1/c-Abl- mediated phosphorylation of ENAH. Recruits WASF1 to lamellipodia and there seems to regulate WASF1 protein level. In brain, seems to regulate the dendritic outgrowth and branching as well as to determine the shape and number of synaptic contacts of developing neurons.

May inhibit tumor metastasis (By similarity). In vitro, reduces cell motility.

Actin-binding protein that regulates actin polymerization, filopodia dynamics and increases the branching of proximal dendrites of developing neurons.

Non-receptor tyrosine-protein kinase that plays a role in many key processes linked to cell growth and survival such as cytoskeleton remodeling in response to extracellular stimuli, cell motility and adhesion, receptor endocytosis, autophagy, DNA damage response and apoptosis. Coordinates actin remodeling through tyrosine phosphorylation of proteins controlling cytoskeleton dynamics like WASF3 (involved in branch formation); ANXA1 (involved in membrane anchoring); DBN1, DBNL, CTTN, RAPH1 and ENAH (involved in signaling); or MAPT and PXN (microtubule-binding proteins). Phosphorylation of WASF3 is critical for the stimulation of lamellipodia formation and cell migration. Involved in the regulation of cell adhesion and motility through phosphorylation of key regulators of these processes such as BCAR1, CRK, CRKL, DOK1, EFS or NEDD9. Phosphorylates multiple receptor tyrosine kinases and more particularly promotes endocytosis of EGFR, facilitates the formation of neuromuscular synapses through MUSK, inhibits PDGFRB-mediated chemotaxis and modulates the endocytosis of activated B-cell receptor complexes. Other substrates which are involved in endocytosis regulation are the caveolin (CAV1) and RIN1. Moreover, ABL1 regulates the CBL family of ubiquitin ligases that drive receptor down-regulation and actin remodeling. Phosphorylation of CBL leads to increased EGFR stability. Involved in late-stage autophagy by regulating positively the trafficking and function of lysosomal components. ABL1 targets to mitochondria in response to oxidative stress and thereby mediates mitochondrial dysfunction and cell death. In response to oxidative stress, phosphorylates serine/threonine kinase PRKD2 at 'Tyr-717'. ABL1 is also translocated in the nucleus where it has DNA-binding activity and is involved in DNA-damage response and apoptosis. Many substrates are known mediators of DNA repair: DDB1, DDB2, ERCC3, ERCC6, RAD9A, RAD51, RAD52 or WRN. Activates the proapoptotic pathway when the DNA damage is too severe to be repaired. Phosphorylates TP73, a primary regulator for this type of damage- induced apoptosis. Phosphorylates the caspase CASP9 on 'Tyr-153' and regulates its processing in the apoptotic response to DNA damage. Phosphorylates PSMA7 that leads to an inhibition of proteasomal activity and cell cycle transition blocks. ABL1 acts also as a regulator of multiple pathological signaling cascades during infection. Several known tyrosine-phosphorylated microbial proteins have been identified as ABL1 substrates. This is the case of A36R of Vaccinia virus, Tir (translocated intimin receptor) of pathogenic E.coli and possibly Citrobacter, CagA (cytotoxin-associated gene A) of H.pylori, or AnkA (ankyrin repeat-containing protein A) of A.phagocytophilum. Pathogens can highjack ABL1 kinase signaling to reorganize the host actin cytoskeleton for multiple purposes, like facilitating intracellular movement and host cell exit. Finally, functions as its own regulator through autocatalytic activity as well as through phosphorylation of its inhibitor, ABI1. Regulates T-cell differentiation in a TBX21-dependent manner (By similarity). Positively regulates chemokine-mediated T-cell migration, polarization, and homing to lymph nodes and immune-challenged tissues, potentially via activation of NEDD9/HEF1 and RAP1 (By similarity). Phosphorylates TBX21 on tyrosine residues leading to an enhancement of its transcriptional activator activity (By similarity).

Non-receptor tyrosine-protein kinase that plays an ABL1- overlapping role in key processes linked to cell growth and survival such as cytoskeleton remodeling in response to extracellular stimuli, cell motility and adhesion and receptor endocytosis. Coordinates actin remodeling through tyrosine phosphorylation of proteins controlling cytoskeleton dynamics like MYH10 (involved in movement); CTTN (involved in signaling); or TUBA1 and TUBB (microtubule subunits). Binds directly F-actin and regulates actin cytoskeletal structure through its F-actin- bundling activity. Involved in the regulation of cell adhesion and motility through phosphorylation of key regulators of these processes such as CRK, CRKL, DOK1 or ARHGAP35. Adhesion-dependent phosphorylation of ARHGAP35 promotes its association with RASA1, resulting in recruitment of ARHGAP35 to the cell periphery where it inhibits RHO. Phosphorylates multiple receptor tyrosine kinases like PDGFRB and other substrates which are involved in endocytosis regulation such as RIN1. In brain, may regulate neurotransmission by phosphorylating proteins at the synapse. ABL2 acts also as a regulator of multiple pathological signaling cascades during infection. Pathogens can highjack ABL2 kinase signaling to reorganize the host actin cytoskeleton for multiple purposes, like facilitating intracellular movement and host cell exit. Finally, functions as its own regulator through autocatalytic activity as well as through phosphorylation of its inhibitor, ABI1. Positively regulates chemokine-mediated T-cell migration, polarization, and homing to lymph nodes and immune-challenged tissues, potentially via activation of NEDD9/HEF1 and RAP1 (By similarity).

May act as scaffold protein (By similarity). May play a role in the development of the retina. Has been suggested to play a role in axon guidance.

May act as scaffold protein. May stimulate ABRA activity and ABRA-dependent SRF transcriptional activity.

Acts as an activator of serum response factor (SRF)-dependent transcription possibly by inducing nuclear translocation of MKL1 or MKL2 and through a mechanism requiring Rho-actin signaling.

Involved in DNA damage response and double-strand break (DSB) repair. Component of the BRCA1-A complex, acting as a central scaffold protein that assembles the various components of the complex and mediates the recruitment of BRCA1. The BRCA1-A complex specifically recognizes 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitinated histones H2A and H2AX at DNA lesion sites, leading to target the BRCA1-BARD1 heterodimer to sites of DNA damage at DSBs. This complex also possesses deubiquitinase activity that specifically removes 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin on histones H2A and H2AX.

Component of the BRISC complex, a multiprotein complex that specifically cleaves 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin, leaving the last ubiquitin chain attached to its substrates. May act as a central scaffold protein that assembles the various components of the BRISC complex and retains them in the cytoplasm. Plays a role in regulating the onset of apoptosis via its role in modulating 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of target proteins (By similarity). Required for normal mitotic spindle assembly and microtubule attachment to kinetochores via its role in deubiquitinating NUMA1. Plays a role in interferon signaling via its role in the deubiquitination of the interferon receptor IFNAR1; deubiquitination increases IFNAR1 activities by enhancing its stability and cell surface expression. Down- regulates the response to bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) via its role in IFNAR1 deubiquitination. Required for normal induction of p53/TP53 in response to DNA damage. Independent of the BRISC complex, promotes interaction between USP7 and p53/TP53, and thereby promotes deubiquitination of p53/TP53, preventing its degradation and resulting in increased p53/TP53-mediated transcription regulation and p53/TP53-dependent apoptosis in response to DNA damage.

Protein with a unique structure having two opposing regulatory activities toward small GTP-binding proteins. The C-terminus is a GTPase-activating protein domain which stimulates GTP hydrolysis by RAC1, RAC2 and CDC42. Accelerates the intrinsic rate of GTP hydrolysis of RAC1 or CDC42, leading to down-regulation of the active GTP-bound form. The central Dbl homology (DH) domain functions as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) that modulates the GTPases CDC42, RHOA and RAC1. Promotes the conversion of CDC42, RHOA and RAC1 from the GDP-bound to the GTP-bound form. Functions as an important negative regulator of neuronal RAC1 activity (By similarity). Regulates macrophage functions such as CSF-1 directed motility and phagocytosis through the modulation of RAC1 activity (By similarity).

Could be a novel TATA-binding protein (TBP) which can function as a basal transcription activator. Can act as a regulator of basal transcription for class II genes (By similarity).

May act as a mediator of the PTEN growth-suppressive signaling pathway. May play a role in developmental processes.

Cytosolic enzyme that catalyzes the carboxylation of acetyl- CoA to malonyl-CoA, the first and rate-limiting step of de novo fatty acid biosynthesis. This is a 2 steps reaction starting with the ATP-dependent carboxylation of the biotin carried by the biotin carboxyl carrier (BCC) domain followed by the transfer of the carboxyl group from carboxylated biotin to acetyl-CoA.

Mitochondrial enzyme that catalyzes the carboxylation of acetyl-CoA to malonyl-CoA and plays a central role in fatty acid metabolism. Catalyzes a 2 steps reaction starting with the ATP-dependent carboxylation of the biotin carried by the biotin carboxyl carrier (BCC) domain followed by the transfer of the carboxyl group from carboxylated biotin to acetyl-CoA. Through the production of malonyl-CoA that allosterically inhibits carnitine palmitoyltransferase 1 at the mitochondria, negatively regulates fatty acid oxidation (By similarity). Together with its cytosolic isozyme ACACA, which is involved in de novo fatty acid biosynthesis, promotes lipid storage (By similarity).

Isobutyryl-CoA dehydrogenase which catalyzes one of the steps of the valine catabolic pathway. To a lesser extent, is also able to catalyze the oxidation of (2S)-2-methylbutanoyl-CoA.

As part of the MCIA complex, primarily participates in the assembly of the mitochondrial complex I and therefore plays a role in oxidative phosphorylation. This moonlighting protein has also a dehydrogenase activity toward a broad range of substrates with greater specificity for long-chain unsaturated acyl-CoAs. However, in vivo, it does not seem to play a primary role in fatty acid oxidation. In addition, the function in complex I assembly is independent of the dehydrogenase activity of the protein.

Long-chain specific acyl-CoA dehydrogenase is one of the acyl-CoA dehydrogenases that catalyze the first step of mitochondrial fatty acid beta-oxidation, an aerobic process breaking down fatty acids into acetyl-CoA and allowing the production of energy from fats (By similarity). The first step of fatty acid beta-oxidation consists in the removal of one hydrogen from C-2 and C-3 of the straight-chain fatty acyl-CoA thioester, resulting in the formation of trans-2-enoyl- CoA (By similarity). Among the different mitochondrial acyl-CoA dehydrogenases, long-chain specific acyl-CoA dehydrogenase can act on saturated and unsaturated acyl-CoAs with 6 to 24 carbons with a preference for 8 to 18 carbons long primary chains.

Medium-chain specific acyl-CoA dehydrogenase is one of the acyl-CoA dehydrogenases that catalyze the first step of mitochondrial fatty acid beta-oxidation, an aerobic process breaking down fatty acids into acetyl-CoA and allowing the production of energy from fats. The first step of fatty acid beta-oxidation consists in the removal of one hydrogen from C-2 and C-3 of the straight-chain fatty acyl-CoA thioester, resulting in the formation of trans-2-enoyl-CoA. Electron transfer flavoprotein (ETF) is the electron acceptor that transfers electrons to the main mitochondrial respiratory chain via ETF-ubiquinone oxidoreductase (ETF dehydrogenase). Among the different mitochondrial acyl-CoA dehydrogenases, medium-chain specific acyl-CoA dehydrogenase acts specifically on acyl-CoAs with saturated 6 to 12 carbons long primary chains.

Short-chain specific acyl-CoA dehydrogenase is one of the acyl-CoA dehydrogenases that catalyze the first step of mitochondrial fatty acid beta-oxidation, an aerobic process breaking down fatty acids into acetyl-CoA and allowing the production of energy from fats (By similarity). The first step of fatty acid beta-oxidation consists in the removal of one hydrogen from C-2 and C-3 of the straight-chain fatty acyl-CoA thioester, resulting in the formation of trans-2-enoyl- CoA (By similarity). Among the different mitochondrial acyl-CoA dehydrogenases, short-chain specific acyl-CoA dehydrogenase acts specifically on acyl-CoAs with saturated 4 to 6 carbons long primary chains.

Very long-chain specific acyl-CoA dehydrogenase is one of the acyl-CoA dehydrogenases that catalyze the first step of mitochondrial fatty acid beta-oxidation, an aerobic process breaking down fatty acids into acetyl-CoA and allowing the production of energy from fats. The first step of fatty acid beta-oxidation consists in the removal of one hydrogen from C-2 and C-3 of the straight-chain fatty acyl-CoA thioester, resulting in the formation of trans-2-enoyl- CoA. Among the different mitochondrial acyl-CoA dehydrogenases, very long- chain specific acyl-CoA dehydrogenase acts specifically on acyl-CoAs with saturated 12 to 24 carbons long primary chains.

GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for ADP ribosylation factor 6 (ARF6) required for clathrin-dependent export of proteins from recycling endosomes to trans-Golgi network and cell surface. Required for regulated export of ITGB1 from recycling endosomes to the cell surface and ITGB1-dependent cell migration.

GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for ADP ribosylation factor 6 (ARF6).

GTPase-activating protein for the ADP ribosylation factor family.

Probable acetyl-CoA transporter necessary for O-acetylation of gangliosides. Negatively regulates BMP signaling.

Binds medium- and long-chain acyl-CoA esters and may function as an intracellular carrier of acyl-CoA esters

Acyl-CoA binding protein which acts as the peroxisome receptor for pexophagy but is dispensable for aggrephagy and nonselective autophagy. Binds medium- and long-chain acyl-CoA esters.

Binds long-chain acyl-coenzyme A molecules with a strong preference for unsaturated C18:1-CoA, lower affinity for unsaturated C20:4-CoA, and very weak affinity for saturated C16:0-CoA. Does not bind fatty acids.

Catalyzes the conversion of fatty acids such as long-chain and very long-chain fatty acids to their active form acyl-CoAs for both synthesis of cellular lipids, and degradation via beta-oxidation. Can activate diverse saturated, monosaturated and polyunsaturated fatty acids.

Catalyzes the conversion of fatty acids such as long chain and very long-chain fatty acids to their active form acyl-CoAs for both synthesis of cellular lipids, and degradation via beta-oxidation. Can activate diverse saturated, monosaturated and polyunsaturated fatty acids. Has increased ability to activate oleic and linoleic acid. May play a role in spermatogenesis.

Binds medium- and long-chain acyl-CoA esters with very high affinity and may function as an intracellular carrier of acyl-CoA esters. It is also able to displace diazepam from the benzodiazepine (BZD) recognition site located on the GABA type A receptor. It is therefore possible that this protein also acts as a neuropeptide to modulate the action of the GABA receptor

Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase only active with R- and S-2-methyl- C15-CoA.

Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase, that exhibits maximal activity towards saturated C22-CoA. Probably participates in beta-oxydation and energy production but could also play a role in the metabolism of specific fatty acids to control fatty acids composition of cellular lipids in brain (Probable).

Short and branched chain specific acyl-CoA dehydrogenase that catalyzes the removal of one hydrogen from C-2 and C-3 of the fatty acyl-CoA thioester, resulting in the formation of trans-2-enoyl-CoA. Among the different mitochondrial acyl-CoA dehydrogenases, acts specifically on short and branched chain acyl-CoA derivatives such as (S)-2-methylbutyryl-CoA as well as short straight chain acyl-CoAs such as butyryl-CoA. Plays an important role in the metabolism of L- isoleucine by catalyzing the dehydrogenation of 2-methylbutyryl-CoA, one of the steps of the L-isoleucine catabolic pathway. Can also act on valproyl-CoA, a metabolite of valproic acid, an antiepileptic drug.

Component of the shelterin complex (telosome) that is involved in the regulation of telomere length and protection. Shelterin associates with arrays of double-stranded TTAGGG repeats added by telomerase and protects chromosome ends. Without its protective activity, telomeres are no longer hidden from the DNA damage surveillance and chromosome ends are inappropriately processed by DNA repair pathways. Promotes binding of POT1 to single-stranded telomeric DNA. Modulates the inhibitory effects of POT1 on telomere elongation. The ACD-POT1 heterodimer enhances telomere elongation by recruiting telomerase to telomeres and increasing its processivity. May play a role in organogenesis.

Essential counter-regulatory carboxypeptidase of the renin- angiotensin hormone system that is a critical regulator of blood volume, systemic vascular resistance, and thus cardiovascular homeostasis. Converts angiotensin I to angiotensin 1- 9, a nine-amino acid peptide with anti-hypertrophic effects in cardiomyocytes, and angiotensin II to angiotensin 1-7, which then acts as a beneficial vasodilator and anti-proliferation agent, counterbalancing the actions of the vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. Also removes the C-terminal residue from three other vasoactive peptides, neurotensin, kinetensin, and des-Arg bradykinin, but is not active on bradykinin. Also cleaves other biological peptides, such as apelins (apelin-13, [Pyr1]apelin-13, apelin-17, apelin-36), casomorphins (beta-casomorphin- 7, neocasomorphin) and dynorphin A with high efficiency. In addition, ACE2 C-terminus is homologous to collectrin and is responsible for the trafficking of the neutral amino acid transporter SL6A19 to the plasma membrane of gut epithelial cells via direct interaction, regulating its expression on the cell surface and its catalytic activity.

Endoplasmic reticulum ceramidase that catalyzes the hydrolysis of ceramides into sphingosine and free fatty acids at alkaline pH. Ceramides, sphingosine, and its phosphorylated form sphingosine-1- phosphate are bioactive lipids that mediate cellular signaling pathways regulating several biological processes including cell proliferation, apoptosis and differentiation. Exhibits a strong substrate specificity towards the natural stereoisomer of ceramides with D-erythro-sphingosine as a backbone and has a higher activity towards very long-chain unsaturated fatty acids like the C24:1-ceramide. May also hydrolyze dihydroceramides to produce dihydrosphingosine. ACER1 is a skin-specific ceramidase that regulates the levels of ceramides, sphingosine and sphingosine-1-phosphate in the epidermis, mediates the calcium-induced differentiation of epidermal keratinocytes and more generally plays an important role in skin homeostasis.

Golgi ceramidase that catalyzes the hydrolysis of ceramides into sphingoid bases like sphingosine and free fatty acids at alkaline pH. Ceramides, sphingosine, and its phosphorylated form sphingosine-1-phosphate are bioactive lipids that mediate cellular signaling pathways regulating several biological processes including cell proliferation, apoptosis and differentiation. Has a better catalytic efficiency towards unsaturated long-chain ceramides, including C18:1-, C20:1- and C24:1-ceramides. Saturated long-chain ceramides and unsaturated very long-chain ceramides are also good substrates, whereas saturated very long-chain ceramides and short-chain ceramides are poor substrates. Also hydrolyzes dihydroceramides to produce dihydrosphingosine. It is the ceramidase that controls the levels of circulating sphingosine-1- phosphate and dihydrosphingosine-1-phosphate in plasma through their production by hematopoietic cells (By similarity). Regulates cell proliferation, autophagy and apoptosis by the production of sphingosine and sphingosine-1-phosphate. As part of a p53/TP53-dependent pathway, promotes for instance autophagy and apoptosis in response to DNA damage. Through the production of sphingosine, may also regulate the function of the Golgi complex and regulate the glycosylation of proteins.

Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi ceramidase that catalyzes the hydrolysis of unsaturated long-chain C18:1-, C20:1- and C20:4- ceramides, dihydroceramides and phytoceramides into sphingoid bases like sphingosine and free fatty acids at alkaline pH. Ceramides, sphingosine, and its phosphorylated form sphingosine-1- phosphate are bioactive lipids that mediate cellular signaling pathways regulating several biological processes including cell proliferation, apoptosis and differentiation. Controls the generation of sphingosine in erythrocytes, and thereby sphingosine-1- phosphate in plasma. Through the regulation of ceramides and sphingosine-1-phosphate homeostasis in the brain may play a role in neurons survival and function (By similarity). By regulating the levels of pro-inflammatory ceramides in immune cells and tissues, may modulate the inflammatory response (By similarity).

Hydrolyzes rapidly the acetylcholine neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft allowing to terminate the signal transduction at the neuromuscular junction. Role in neuronal apoptosis.

Dipeptidyl carboxypeptidase that removes dipeptides from the C-terminus of a variety of circulating hormones, such as angiotensin I, bradykinin or enkephalins, thereby playing a key role in the regulation of blood pressure, electrolyte homeostasis or synaptic plasticity. Composed of two similar catalytic domains, each possessing a functional active site, with different selectivity for substrates. Plays a major role in the angiotensin-renin system that regulates blood pressure and sodium retention by the kidney by converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II, resulting in an increase of the vasoconstrictor activity of angiotensin. Also able to inactivate bradykinin, a potent vasodilator, and therefore enhance the blood pressure response. Acts as a regulator of synaptic transmission by mediating cleavage of neuropeptide hormones, such as substance P, neurotensin or enkephalins. Catalyzes degradation of different enkephalin neuropeptides (Met- enkephalin, Leu-enkephalin, Met-enkephalin-Arg-Phe and possibly Met- enkephalin-Arg-Gly-Leu). Acts as a regulator of synaptic plasticity in the nucleus accumbens of the brain by mediating cleavage of Met-enkephalin- Arg-Phe, a strong ligand of Mu-type opioid receptor OPRM1, into Met- enkephalin (By similarity). Met-enkephalin-Arg-Phe cleavage by ACE decreases activation of OPRM1, leading to long-term synaptic potentiation of glutamate release (By similarity). Also acts as a regulator of hematopoietic stem cell differentiation by mediating degradation of hemoregulatory peptide N-acetyl-SDKP (AcSDKP). Acts as a regulator of cannabinoid signaling pathway by mediating degradation of hemopressin, an antagonist peptide of the cannabinoid receptor CNR1. Involved in amyloid-beta metabolism by catalyzing degradation of Amyloid-beta protein 40 and Amyloid-beta protein 42 peptides, thereby preventing plaque formation. Catalyzes cleavage of cholecystokinin (maturation of Cholecystokinin-8 and Cholecystokinin-5) and Gonadoliberin-1 (both maturation and degradation) hormones. Degradation of hemoregulatory peptide N-acetyl-SDKP (AcSDKP) and amyloid-beta proteins is mediated by the N-terminal catalytic domain, while angiotensin I and cholecystokinin cleavage is mediated by the C-terminal catalytic region.

Ionotropic receptor with a probable role in the modulation of auditory stimuli. Agonist binding may induce an extensive change in conformation that affects all subunits and leads to opening of an ion- conducting channel across the plasma membrane. The channel is permeable to a range of divalent cations including calcium, the influx of which may activate a potassium current which hyperpolarizes the cell membrane. In the ear, this may lead to a reduction in basilar membrane motion, altering the activity of auditory nerve fibers and reducing the range of dynamic hearing. This may protect against acoustic trauma.

After binding acetylcholine, the AChR responds by an extensive change in conformation that affects all subunits and leads to opening of an ion-conducting channel across the plasma membrane

After binding acetylcholine, the AChR responds by an extensive change in conformation that affects all subunits and leads to opening of an ion-conducting channel across the plasma membrane.

After binding acetylcholine, the AChR responds by an extensive change in conformation that affects all subunits and leads to opening of an ion-conducting channel across the plasma membrane permeable to sodium ions.

After binding acetylcholine, the AChR responds by an extensive change in conformation that affects all subunits and leads to opening of an ion-conducting channel across the plasma membrane. The channel is blocked by alpha-bungarotoxin

Ionotropic receptor with a probable role in the modulation of auditory stimuli. Agonist binding induces a conformation change that leads to the opening of an ion-conducting channel across the plasma membrane. The channel is permeable to a range of divalent cations including calcium, the influx of which may activate a potassium current which hyperpolarizes the cell membrane. In the ear, this may lead to a reduction in basilar membrane motion, altering the activity of auditory nerve fibers and reducing the range of dynamic hearing. This may protect against acoustic trauma. May also regulate keratinocyte adhesion.

[Isoform 1]: Upon acetylcholine binding, the AChR responds by an extensive change in conformation that affects all subunits and leads to opening of an ion-conducting channel across the plasma membrane.

After binding acetylcholine, the AChR responds by an extensive change in conformation that affects all subunits and leads to opening of an ion-conducting channel across the plasma membrane permeable to sodiun ions.

Mitochondrial protein-lysine N-methyltransferase that trimethylates ATP synthase subunit C, ATP5MC1 and ATP5MC2. Trimethylation is required for proper incorporation of the C subunit into the ATP synthase complex and mitochondrial respiration. Promotes chronic pain. Involved in persistent inflammatory and neuropathic pain: methyltransferase activity in the mitochondria of sensory neurons promotes chronic pain via a pathway that depends on the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) and on the engagement of spinal cord microglia.

Atypical chemokine receptor that controls chemokine levels and localization via high-affinity chemokine binding that is uncoupled from classic ligand-driven signal transduction cascades, resulting instead in chemokine sequestration, degradation, or transcytosis. Also known as interceptor (internalizing receptor) or chemokine-scavenging receptor or chemokine decoy receptor. Has a promiscuous chemokine- binding profile, interacting with inflammatory chemokines of both the CXC and the CC subfamilies but not with homeostatic chemokines. Acts as a receptor for chemokines including CCL2, CCL5, CCL7, CCL11, CCL13, CCL14, CCL17, CXCL5, CXCL6, IL8/CXCL8, CXCL11, GRO, RANTES, MCP-1, TARC and also for the malaria parasites P.vivax and P.knowlesi. May regulate chemokine bioavailability and, consequently, leukocyte recruitment through two distinct mechanisms: when expressed in endothelial cells, it sustains the abluminal to luminal transcytosis of tissue-derived chemokines and their subsequent presentation to circulating leukocytes; when expressed in erythrocytes, serves as blood reservoir of cognate chemokines but also as a chemokine sink, buffering potential surges in plasma chemokine levels

Atypical chemokine receptor that controls chemokine levels and localization via high-affinity chemokine binding that is uncoupled from classic ligand-driven signal transduction cascades, resulting instead in chemokine sequestration, degradation, or transcytosis. Also known as interceptor (internalizing receptor) or chemokine-scavenging receptor or chemokine decoy receptor. Acts as a receptor for chemokines including CCL2, CCL3, CCL3L1, CCL4, CCL5, CCL7, CCL8, CCL11, CCL13, CCL17, CCL22, CCL23, CCL24, SCYA2/MCP-1, SCY3/MIP-1-alpha, SCYA5/RANTES and SCYA7/MCP-3. Upon active ligand stimulation, activates a beta- arrestin 1 (ARRB1)-dependent, G protein-independent signaling pathway that results in the phosphorylation of the actin-binding protein cofilin (CFL1) through a RAC1-PAK1-LIMK1 signaling pathway. Activation of this pathway results in up-regulation of ACKR2 from endosomal compartment to cell membrane, increasing its efficiency in chemokine uptake and degradation. By scavenging chemokines in tissues, on the surfaces of lymphatic vessels, and in placenta, plays an essential role in the resolution (termination) of the inflammatory response and in the regulation of adaptive immune responses. Plays a major role in the immune silencing of macrophages during the resolution of inflammation. Acts as a regulator of inflammatory leukocyte interactions with lymphatic endothelial cells (LECs) and is required for immature/mature dendritic cells discrimination by LECs.

Atypical chemokine receptor that controls chemokine levels and localization via high-affinity chemokine binding that is uncoupled from classic ligand-driven signal transduction cascades, resulting instead in chemokine sequestration, degradation, or transcytosis. Also known as interceptor (internalizing receptor) or chemokine-scavenging receptor or chemokine decoy receptor. Acts as a receptor for chemokines CXCL11 and CXCL12/SDF1. Chemokine binding does not activate G-protein-mediated signal transduction but instead induces beta-arrestin recruitment, leading to ligand internalization and activation of MAPK signaling pathway. Required for regulation of CXCR4 protein levels in migrating interneurons, thereby adapting their chemokine responsiveness. In glioma cells, transduces signals via MEK/ERK pathway, mediating resistance to apoptosis. Promotes cell growth and survival. Not involved in cell migration, adhesion or proliferation of normal hematopoietic progenitors but activated by CXCL11 in malignant hemapoietic cells, leading to phosphorylation of ERK1/2 (MAPK3/MAPK1) and enhanced cell adhesion and migration. Plays a regulatory role in CXCR4-mediated activation of cell surface integrins by CXCL12. Required for heart valve development. Regulates axon guidance in the oculomotor system through the regulation of CXCL12 levels.

Atypical chemokine receptor that controls chemokine levels and localization via high-affinity chemokine binding that is uncoupled from classic ligand-driven signal transduction cascades, resulting instead in chemokine sequestration, degradation, or transcytosis. Also known as interceptor (internalizing receptor) or chemokine-scavenging receptor or chemokine decoy receptor. Acts as a receptor for chemokines CCL2, CCL8, CCL13, CCL19, CCL21 and CCL25. Chemokine-binding does not activate G-protein-mediated signal transduction but instead induces beta-arrestin recruitment, leading to ligand internalization. Plays an important role in controlling the migration of immune and cancer cells that express chemokine receptors CCR7 and CCR9, by reducing the availability of CCL19, CCL21, and CCL25 through internalization. Negatively regulates CXCR3-induced chemotaxis. Regulates T-cell development in the thymus.

Involved in transcriptional activation and repression of select genes by chromatin remodeling (alteration of DNA-nucleosome topology). Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complexes that carry out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA-histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP-dependent manner. Required for maximal ATPase activity of SMARCA4/BRG1/BAF190A and for association of the SMARCA4/BRG1/BAF190A containing remodeling complex BAF with chromatin/nuclear matrix. Belongs to the neural progenitors-specific chromatin remodeling complex (npBAF complex) and is required for the proliferation of neural progenitors. During neural development a switch from a stem/progenitor to a postmitotic chromatin remodeling mechanism occurs as neurons exit the cell cycle and become committed to their adult state. The transition from proliferating neural stem/progenitor cells to postmitotic neurons requires a switch in subunit composition of the npBAF and nBAF complexes. As neural progenitors exit mitosis and differentiate into neurons, npBAF complexes which contain ACTL6A/BAF53A and PHF10/BAF45A, are exchanged for homologous alternative ACTL6B/BAF53B and DPF1/BAF45B or DPF3/BAF45C subunits in neuron-specific complexes (nBAF). The npBAF complex is essential for the self-renewal/proliferative capacity of the multipotent neural stem cells. The nBAF complex along with CREST plays a role regulating the activity of genes essential for dendrite growth (By similarity). Component of the NuA4 histone acetyltransferase (HAT) complex which is involved in transcriptional activation of select genes principally by acetylation of nucleosomal histones H4 and H2A. This modification may both alter nucleosome - DNA interactions and promote interaction of the modified histones with other proteins which positively regulate transcription. This complex may be required for the activation of transcriptional programs associated with oncogene and proto-oncogene mediated growth induction, tumor suppressor mediated growth arrest and replicative senescence, apoptosis, and DNA repair. NuA4 may also play a direct role in DNA repair when recruited to sites of DNA damage. Putative core component of the chromatin remodeling INO80 complex which is involved in transcriptional regulation, DNA replication and probably DNA repair.

Involved in transcriptional activation and repression of select genes by chromatin remodeling (alteration of DNA-nucleosome topology). Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complexes that carry out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA-histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP-dependent manner. Belongs to the neuron-specific chromatin remodeling complex (nBAF complex), as such plays a role in remodeling mononucleosomes in an ATP-dependent fashion, and is required for postmitotic neural development and dendritic outgrowth. During neural development a switch from a stem/progenitor to a postmitotic chromatin remodeling mechanism occurs as neurons exit the cell cycle and become committed to their adult state. The transition from proliferating neural stem/progenitor cells to postmitotic neurons requires a switch in subunit composition of the npBAF and nBAF complexes. As neural progenitors exit mitosis and differentiate into neurons, npBAF complexes which contain ACTL6A/BAF53A and PHF10/BAF45A, are exchanged for homologous alternative ACTL6B/BAF53B and DPF1/BAF45B or DPF3/BAF45C subunits in neuron- specific complexes (nBAF). The npBAF complex is essential for the self- renewal/proliferative capacity of the multipotent neural stem cells. The nBAF complex along with CREST plays a role regulating the activity of genes essential for dendrite growth. ACTL6B/BAF53B is not essential for assembly of the nBAF complex but is required for targeting the complex and CREST to the promoter of genes essential for dendritic growth (By similarity). Essential for neuronal maturation and dendrite development.

May play an important role in formation and fusion of Golgi- derived vesicles during acrosome biogenesis.

Catalyzes the cleavage of citrate into oxaloacetate and acetyl-CoA, the latter serving as common substrate for de novo cholesterol and fatty acid synthesis.

The muscarinic acetylcholine receptor mediates various cellular responses, including inhibition of adenylate cyclase, breakdown of phosphoinositides and modulation of potassium channels through the action of G proteins. Primary transducing effect is Pi turnover

The muscarinic acetylcholine receptor mediates various cellular responses, including inhibition of adenylate cyclase, breakdown of phosphoinositides and modulation of potassium channels through the action of G proteins. Primary transducing effect is adenylate cyclase inhibition. Signaling promotes phospholipase C activity, leading to the release of inositol trisphosphate (IP3); this then triggers calcium ion release into the cytosol.

The muscarinic acetylcholine receptor mediates various cellular responses, including inhibition of adenylate cyclase, breakdown of phosphoinositides and modulation of potassium channels through the action of G proteins. Primary transducing effect is Pi turnover.

The muscarinic acetylcholine receptor mediates various cellular responses, including inhibition of adenylate cyclase, breakdown of phosphoinositides and modulation of potassium channels through the action of G proteins. Primary transducing effect is inhibition of adenylate cyclase

Converts alpha-amino-beta-carboxymuconate-epsilon- semialdehyde (ACMS) to alpha-aminomuconate semialdehyde (AMS). ACMS can be converted non-enzymatically to quinolate (QA), a key precursor of NAD, and a potent endogenous excitotoxin of neuronal cells which is implicated in the pathogenesis of various neurodegenerative disorders. In the presence of ACMSD, ACMS is converted to AMS, a benign catabolite. ACMSD ultimately controls the metabolic fate of tryptophan catabolism along the kynurenine pathway.

Has an acyl-CoA thioesterase activity with a preference for the long chain fatty acyl-CoA thioesters hexadecanoyl-CoA/palmitoyl-CoA and tetradecanoyl-CoA/myristoyl-CoA which are the main substrates in the mitochondrial beta-oxidation pathway.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of acyl-CoAs into free fatty acids and coenzyme A (CoASH), regulating their respective intracellular levels. Preferentially hydrolyzes acetyl-CoA.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of acyl-CoAs into free fatty acids and coenzyme A (CoASH), regulating their respective intracellular levels. Has acyl-CoA thioesterase activity towards medium (C12) and long-chain (C18) fatty acyl-CoA substrates (By similarity). Can also hydrolyze 3-hydroxyphenylacetyl-CoA and 3,4-dihydroxyphenylacetyl-CoA (in vitro) (By similarity). May play a role in controlling adaptive thermogenesis (By similarity).

Bifunctional iron sensor that switches between 2 activities depending on iron availability. Iron deprivation, promotes its mRNA binding activity through which it regulates the expression of genes involved in iron uptake, sequestration and utilization. Binds to iron-responsive elements (IRES) in the untranslated region of target mRNAs preventing for instance the translation of ferritin and aminolevulinic acid synthase and stabilizing the transferrin receptor mRNA.

Catalyzes the isomerization of citrate to isocitrate via cis- aconitate.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of acyl-CoAs into free fatty acids and coenzyme A (CoASH), regulating their respective intracellular levels. More active towards saturated and unsaturated long chain fatty acyl-CoAs (C12-C20).

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of acyl-CoAs into free fatty acids and coenzyme A (CoASH), regulating their respective intracellular levels. Displays higher activity toward long chain acyl CoAs (C14-C20). The enzyme is involved in enhancing the hepatic fatty acid oxidation in mitochondria (By similarity).

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of acyl-CoAs into free fatty acids and coenzyme A (CoASH), regulating their respective intracellular levels. Functions as a peroxisomal succinyl-coenzyme A thioesterase that can also hydrolyze glutaryl-CoA and long chain saturated acyl-CoAs.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of acyl-CoAs into free fatty acids and coenzyme A (CoASH), regulating their respective intracellular levels. Catalyzes the hydrolysis of phytanoyl-CoA and pristanoyl-CoA, two methyl-branched fatty acids derived from phytol, that enter the body via the diet.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of acyl-CoAs into free fatty acids and coenzyme A (CoASH), regulating their respective intracellular levels. Displays no strong substrate specificity with respect to the carboxylic acid moiety of Acyl-CoAs (By similarity). Hydrolyzes medium length (C2 to C20) straight-chain, saturated and unsaturated acyl-CoAS but is inactive towards substrates with longer aliphatic chains. Moreover, it catalyzes the hydrolysis of CoA esters of bile acids, such as choloyl-CoA and chenodeoxycholoyl-CoA and competes with bile acid CoA:amino acid N-acyltransferase (BAAT) (By similarity). Is also able to hydrolyze CoA esters of dicarboxylic acids (By similarity). It is involved in the metabolic regulation of peroxisome proliferation.

Acyl-CoA thioesterases are a group of enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of acyl-CoAs to the free fatty acid and coenzyme A (CoASH), providing the potential to regulate intracellular levels of acyl-CoAs, free fatty acids and CoASH. Active on long chain acyl-CoAs

Involved in the initial and rate-limiting step of peroxisomal beta-oxidation of straight-chain saturated and unsaturated very-long- chain fatty acids. Catalyzes the desaturation of fatty acyl-CoAs such as palmitoyl-CoA (hexadecanoyl- CoA) to 2-trans-enoyl-CoAs ((2E)-enoyl-CoAs) such as (2E)-hexadecenoyl- CoA, and donates electrons directly to molecular oxygen (O(2)), thereby producing hydrogen peroxide (H(2)O(2)).

Oxidizes the CoA esters of the bile acid intermediates di- and tri-hydroxycholestanoic acids. Capable of oxidizing short as well as long chain 2-methyl branched fatty acids (By similarity).

This enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of the N-terminal peptide bond of an N-acetylated peptide to generate an N-acetylated amino acid and a peptide with a free N-terminus. It preferentially cleaves off Ac-Ala, Ac-Met and Ac-Ser.

Carrier of the growing fatty acid chain in fatty acid biosynthesis (By similarity). Accessory and non- catalytic subunit of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I), which functions in the transfer of electrons from NADH to the respiratory chain. Accessory protein, of the core iron-sulfur cluster (ISC) assembly complex, that regulates, in association with LYRM4, the stability and the cysteine desulfurase activity of NFS1 and participates in the [2Fe-2S] clusters assembly on the scaffolding protein ISCU. The core iron-sulfur cluster (ISC) assembly complex is involved in the de novo synthesis of a [2Fe-2S] cluster, the first step of the mitochondrial iron-sulfur protein biogenesis. This process is initiated by the cysteine desulfurase complex (NFS1:LYRM4:NDUFAB1) that produces persulfide which is delivered on the scaffold protein ISCU in a FXN- dependent manner. Then this complex is stabilized by FDX2 which provides reducing equivalents to accomplish the [2Fe-2S] cluster assembly. Finally, the [2Fe-2S] cluster is transferred from ISCU to chaperone proteins, including HSCB, HSPA9 and GLRX5 (By similarity).

[Acrosin-binding protein, mature form]: Acrosomal protein that maintains proacrosin (pro-ACR) as an enzymatically inactive zymogen in the acrosome. Involved also in the acrosome formation.

Acrosin is the major protease of mammalian spermatozoa. It is a serine protease of trypsin-like cleavage specificity, it is synthesized in a zymogen form, proacrosin and stored in the acrosome

Catalyzes the activation of fatty acids by CoA to produce an acyl-CoA, the first step in fatty acid metabolism (By similarity). Capable of activating medium-chain fatty acids (e.g. butyric (C4) to decanoic (C10) acids), and certain carboxylate-containing xenobiotics, e.g. benzoate (By similarity).

Catalyzes the activation of fatty acids by CoA to produce an acyl-CoA, the first step in fatty acid metabolism. Capable of activating medium-chain fatty acids (e.g. butyric (C4) to decanoic (C10) acids), and certain carboxylate- containing xenobiotics, e.g. benzoate.

Catalyzes the synthesis of acetyl-CoA from short-chain fatty acids. Acetate is the preferred substrate. Can also utilize propionate with a much lower affinity (By similarity). Provides acetyl-CoA that is utilized mainly for oxidation under ketogenic conditions (By similarity). Involved in thermogenesis under ketogenic conditions, using acetate as a vital fuel when carbohydrate availability is insufficient (By similarity).

Catalyzes the synthesis of acetyl-CoA from short-chain fatty acids. Acetate is the preferred substrate. Can also utilize propionate with a much lower affinity (By similarity).

Acyl-CoA synthases catalyze the initial reaction in fatty acid metabolism, by forming a thioester with CoA. Has some preference toward medium-chain substrates. Plays a role in adipocyte differentiation.

Catalyzes the initial reaction in intramitochondrial fatty acid synthesis, by activating malonate and methylmalonate, but not acetate, into their respective CoA thioester. May have some preference toward very-long-chain substrates.

Covalently binds beta-alanine in an ATP-dependent manner to form a thioester bond with its phosphopantetheine group and transfers it to an, as yet, unknown acceptor. May be required for a post- translational protein modification or for post-transcriptional modification of an RNA.

Catalyzes the conversion of long-chain fatty acids to their active form acyl-CoAs for both synthesis of cellular lipids, and degradation via beta-oxidation. Preferentially uses palmitoleate, oleate and linoleate. Preferentially activates arachidonate than epoxyeicosatrienoic acids (EETs) or hydroxyeicosatrienoic acids (HETEs) (By similarity).

Acyl-CoA synthetases (ACSL) activates long-chain fatty acids for both synthesis of cellular lipids, and degradation via beta- oxidation. Required for the incorporation of fatty acids into phosphatidylcholine, the major phospholipid located on the surface of VLDL (very low density lipoproteins). Has mainly an anabolic role in energy metabolism. Mediates hepatic lipogenesis. Preferentially uses myristate, laurate, arachidonate and eicosapentaenoate as substrates. Both isoforms exhibit the same level of activity (By similarity).

Catalyzes the conversion of long-chain fatty acids to their active form acyl-CoA for both synthesis of cellular lipids, and degradation via beta-oxidation. Preferentially activates arachidonate and eicosapentaenoate as substrates. Preferentially activates 8,9-EET > 14,15-EET > 5,6-EET > 11,12-EET. Modulates glucose- stimulated insulin secretion by regulating the levels of unesterified EETs (By similarity). Modulates prostaglandin E2 secretion.

Catalyzes the conversion of long-chain fatty acids to their active form acyl-CoAs for both synthesis of cellular lipids, and degradation via beta-oxidation. ACSL5 may activate fatty acids from exogenous sources for the synthesis of triacylglycerol destined for intracellular storage (By similarity). Utilizes a wide range of saturated fatty acids with a preference for C16-C18 unsaturated fatty acids (By similarity). It was suggested that it may also stimulate fatty acid oxidation (By similarity). At the villus tip of the crypt-villus axis of the small intestine may sensitize epithelial cells to apoptosis specifically triggered by the death ligand TRAIL. May have a role in the survival of glioma cells.

Catalyzes the conversion of long-chain fatty acids to their active form acyl-CoA for both synthesis of cellular lipids, and degradation via beta-oxidation. Plays an important role in fatty acid metabolism in brain and the acyl- CoAs produced may be utilized exclusively for the synthesis of the brain lipid.

Catalyzes the activation of fatty acids by CoA to produce an acyl-CoA, the first step in fatty acid metabolism. Capable of activating medium-chain fatty acids (e.g. butyric (C4) to decanoic (C10) acids), and certain carboxylate-containing xenobiotics, e.g. benzoate. Also catalyzes the activation of lipoate to lipoyl-nucleoside monophosphate (By similarity). Activates lipoate with GTP at a 1000-fold higher rate than with ATP and activates both (R)- and (S)-lipoate to the respective lipoyl-GMP, with a preference for (R)-lipoate (By similarity).

Catalyzes the activation of fatty acids by CoA to produce an acyl-CoA, the first step in fatty acid metabolism. Capable of activating medium-chain fatty acids with a preference for isobutyrate among fatty acids with 2-6 carbon atoms (By similarity).

Catalyzes the activation of fatty acids by CoA to produce an acyl-CoA, the first step in fatty acid metabolism (By similarity). Capable of activating medium-chain fatty acids with a preference for C6-12 fatty acids (By similarity).

Catalyzes the activation of fatty acids by CoA to produce an acyl-CoA, the first step in fatty acid metabolism.

Catalyzes the synthesis of acetyl-CoA from short-chain fatty acids. Propionate is the preferred substrate. Can utilize acetate and butyrate with a much lower affinity (By similarity).

Actins are highly conserved proteins that are involved in various types of cell motility and are ubiquitously expressed in all eukaryotic cells

Actins are highly conserved proteins that are involved in various types of cell motility and are ubiquitously expressed in all eukaryotic cells.

Actin is a highly conserved protein that polymerizes to produce filaments that form cross-linked networks in the cytoplasm of cells. Actin exists in both monomeric (G-actin) and polymeric (F-actin) forms, both forms playing key functions, such as cell motility and contraction. In addition to their role in the cytoplasmic cytoskeleton, G- and F-actin also localize in the nucleus, and regulate gene transcription and motility and repair of damaged DNA.

Receptor for corticotropin (ACTH). This receptor is mediated by G proteins (G(s)) which activate adenylate cyclase (cAMP).

Testis-specic protein that plays an important role in fusion of proacrosomal vesicles and perinuclear theca formation.

F-actin cross-linking protein which is thought to anchor actin to a variety of intracellular structures. This is a bundling protein

F-actin cross-linking protein which is thought to anchor actin to a variety of intracellular structures. This is a bundling protein (Probable). Probably involved in vesicular trafficking via its association with the CART complex. The CART complex is necessary for efficient transferrin receptor recycling but not for EGFR degradation. Involved in tight junction assembly in epithelial cells probably through interaction with MICALL2. Links MICALL2 to the actin cytoskeleton and recruits it to the tight junctions (By similarity). May also function as a transcriptional coactivator, stimulating transcription mediated by the nuclear hormone receptors PPARG and RARA.

Negatively regulates the Hedgehog (SHH) signaling. Binds to the promoter of the SHH signaling mediator, GLI1, and inhibits its expression.

Component of a multi-subunit complex involved in microtubule based vesicle motility. It is associated with the centrosome

Transmembrane serine/threonine kinase activin type-1 receptor forming an activin receptor complex with activin receptor type-2 (ACVR2A or ACVR2B). Transduces the activin signal from the cell surface to the cytoplasm and is thus regulating a many physiological and pathological processes including neuronal differentiation and neuronal survival, hair follicle development and cycling, FSH production by the pituitary gland, wound healing, extracellular matrix production, immunosuppression and carcinogenesis. Activin is also thought to have a paracrine or autocrine role in follicular development in the ovary. Within the receptor complex, type-2 receptors (ACVR2A and/or ACVR2B) act as a primary activin receptors whereas the type-1 receptors like ACVR1B act as downstream transducers of activin signals. Activin binds to type-2 receptor at the plasma membrane and activates its serine- threonine kinase. The activated receptor type-2 then phosphorylates and activates the type-1 receptor such as ACVR1B. Once activated, the type- 1 receptor binds and phosphorylates the SMAD proteins SMAD2 and SMAD3, on serine residues of the C-terminal tail. Soon after their association with the activin receptor and subsequent phosphorylation, SMAD2 and SMAD3 are released into the cytoplasm where they interact with the common partner SMAD4. This SMAD complex translocates into the nucleus where it mediates activin-induced transcription. Inhibitory SMAD7, which is recruited to ACVR1B through FKBP1A, can prevent the association of SMAD2 and SMAD3 with the activin receptor complex, thereby blocking the activin signal. Activin signal transduction is also antagonized by the binding to the receptor of inhibin-B via the IGSF1 inhibin coreceptor. ACVR1B also phosphorylates TDP2.

Serine/threonine protein kinase which forms a receptor complex on ligand binding. The receptor complex consisting of 2 type II and 2 type I transmembrane serine/threonine kinases. Type II receptors phosphorylate and activate type I receptors which autophosphorylate, then bind and activate SMAD transcriptional regulators, SMAD2 and SMAD3. Receptor for activin AB, activin B and NODAL. Plays a role in cell differentiation, growth arrest and apoptosis.

Type I receptor for TGF-beta family ligands BMP9/GDF2 and BMP10 and important regulator of normal blood vessel development. On ligand binding, forms a receptor complex consisting of two type II and two type I transmembrane serine/threonine kinases. Type II receptors phosphorylate and activate type I receptors which autophosphorylate, then bind and activate SMAD transcriptional regulators. May bind activin as well.

Bone morphogenetic protein (BMP) type I receptor that is involved in a wide variety of biological processes, including bone, heart, cartilage, nervous, and reproductive system development and regulation. As a type I receptor, forms heterotetrameric receptor complexes with the type II receptors AMHR2, ACVR2A or ACVR2B. Upon binding of ligands such as BMP7 or GDF2/BMP9 to the heteromeric complexes, type II receptors transphosphorylate ACVR1 intracellular domain. In turn, ACVR1 kinase domain is activated and subsequently phosphorylates SMAD1/5/8 proteins that transduce the signal. In addition to its role in mediating BMP pathway-specific signaling, suppresses TGFbeta/activin pathway signaling by interfering with the binding of activin to its type II receptor. Besides canonical SMAD signaling, can activate non-canonical pathways such as p38 mitogen-activated protein kinases/MAPKs (By similarity).

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of N-acetylated amino acids to acetate and free amino acids.

Catalyzes the deacetylation of N-acetylaspartic acid (NAA) to produce acetate and L-aspartate. NAA occurs in high concentration in brain and its hydrolysis NAA plays a significant part in the maintenance of intact white matter. In other tissues it acts as a scavenger of NAA from body fluids

Plays an important role in deacetylating mercapturic acids in kidney proximal tubules. Also acts on N-acetyl-aromatic amino acids (By similarity).

Cleaves the membrane-bound precursor of TNF-alpha at '76- Ala-|-Val-77' to its mature soluble form. Responsible for the proteolytical release of soluble JAM3 from endothelial cells surface. Responsible for the proteolytic release of several other cell-surface proteins, including heparin-binding epidermal growth-like factor, ephrin-A2, CD44, CDH2 and for constitutive and regulated alpha-secretase cleavage of amyloid precursor protein (APP). Contributes to the normal cleavage of the cellular prion protein. Involved in the cleavage of the adhesion molecule L1 at the cell surface and in released membrane vesicles, suggesting a vesicle-based protease activity. Controls also the proteolytic processing of Notch and mediates lateral inhibition during neurogenesis (By similarity). Responsible for the FasL ectodomain shedding and for the generation of the remnant ADAM10-processed FasL (FasL APL) transmembrane form. Also cleaves the ectodomain of the integral membrane proteins CORIN and ITM2B. Mediates the proteolytic cleavage of LAG3, leading to release the secreted form of LAG3 (By similarity). Mediates the proteolytic cleavage of IL6R and IL11RA, leading to the release of secreted forms of IL6R and IL11RA. Enhances the cleavage of CHL1 by BACE1 (By similarity). Cleaves NRCAM (By similarity). Cleaves TREM2, resulting in shedding of the TREM2 ectodomain. Involved in the development and maturation of glomerular and coronary vasculature (By similarity). During development of the cochlear organ of Corti, promotes pillar cell separation by forming a ternary complex with CADH1 and EPHA4 and cleaving CADH1 at adherens junctions (By similarity). May regulate the EFNA5-EPHA3 signaling.

Probable ligand for integrin in the brain. This is a non catalytic metalloprotease-like protein. Required for localization of the potassium channel subunit proteins KCNA1/KV1.1 and KCNA2/KV1.2 at cerebellar cortex basket cell distal terminals, is thereby involved in ephaptic inhibitory synchronization of Purkinje cell firing and response to stress (By similarity). Plays a role in spatial learning and motor coordination (By similarity). Involved in the nociceptive pain response to chemical-derived stimulation (By similarity).

Active metalloproteinase with gelatinolytic and collagenolytic activity. Plays a role in the wound healing process. Mediates both heterotypic intraepithelial cell/T-cell interactions and homotypic T-cell aggregation. Inhibits beta-1 integrin-mediated cell adhesion and migration of airway smooth muscle cells. Suppresses cell motility on or towards fibronectin possibly by driving alpha-v/beta-1 integrin (ITAGV-ITGB1) cell surface expression via ERK1/2 inactivation. Cleaves E-cadherin in response to growth factor deprivation. Plays a role in glomerular cell migration. Plays a role in pathological neovascularization. May play a role in cartilage remodeling. May be proteolytically processed, during sperm epididymal maturation and the acrosome reaction. May play a role in sperm-egg binding through its disintegrin domain.

Cleaves the membrane-bound precursor of TNF-alpha to its mature soluble form. Responsible for the proteolytical release of soluble JAM3 from endothelial cells surface. Responsible for the proteolytic release of several other cell-surface proteins, including p75 TNF-receptor, interleukin 1 receptor type II, p55 TNF-receptor, transforming growth factor-alpha, L-selectin, growth hormone receptor, MUC1 and the amyloid precursor protein. Acts as an activator of Notch pathway by mediating cleavage of Notch, generating the membrane-associated intermediate fragment called Notch extracellular truncation (NEXT). Plays a role in the proteolytic processing of ACE2. Plays a role in hemostasis through shedding of GP1BA, the platelet glycoprotein Ib alpha chain (By similarity). Mediates the proteolytic cleavage of LAG3, leading to release the secreted form of LAG3 (By similarity). Mediates the proteolytic cleavage of IL6R, leading to the release of secreted form of IL6R. Mediates the proteolytic cleavage and shedding of FCGR3A upon NK cell stimulation, a mechanism that allows for increased NK cell motility and detachment from opsonized target cells.

Sperm surface membrane protein that may be involved in spermatogenesis and fertilization. This is a non catalytic metalloprotease-like protein (By similarity).

Participates in the proteolytic processing of beta-type neuregulin isoforms which are involved in neurogenesis and synaptogenesis, suggesting a regulatory role in glial cell. Also cleaves alpha-2 macroglobulin. May be involved in osteoblast differentiation and/or osteoblast activity in bone (By similarity).

This alpha-adrenergic receptor mediates its action by association with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol- calcium second messenger system. Its effect is mediated by G(q) and G(11) proteins. Nuclear ADRA1A-ADRA1B heterooligomers regulate phenylephrine(PE)-stimulated ERK signaling in cardiac myocytes.

This alpha-adrenergic receptor mediates its action by association with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol- calcium second messenger system. Its effect is mediated by G(q) and G(11) proteins. Nuclear ADRA1A-ADRA1B heterooligomers regulate phenylephrine (PE)-stimulated ERK signaling in cardiac myocytes.

This alpha-adrenergic receptor mediates its effect through the influx of extracellular calcium

May be involved in sperm maturation and/or fertilization. May also be involved in epithelia functions associated with establishing and maintaining gradients of ions or nutrients

May play a role in cell-cell and cell-matrix interactions. This is a non-catalytic metalloprotease-like protein

May play a role in the adhesive and proteolytic events that occur during lymphocyte emigration or may function in ectodomain shedding of lymphocyte surface target proteins, such as FASL and CD40L. May be involved in sperm maturation

May be involved in spermatogenesis and fertilization. Seems to be a non catalytic metalloprotease-like protein

Alpha-2 adrenergic receptors mediate the catecholamine- induced inhibition of adenylate cyclase through the action of G proteins. The rank order of potency for agonists of this receptor is oxymetazoline > clonidine > epinephrine > norepinephrine > phenylephrine > dopamine > p-synephrine > p-tyramine > serotonin = p- octopamine. For antagonists, the rank order is yohimbine > phentolamine = mianserine > chlorpromazine = spiperone = prazosin > propanolol > alprenolol = pindolol.

Alpha-2 adrenergic receptors mediate the catecholamine- induced inhibition of adenylate cyclase through the action of G proteins. The rank order of potency for agonists of this receptor is clonidine > norepinephrine > epinephrine = oxymetazoline > dopamine > p-tyramine = phenylephrine > serotonin > p-synephrine / p-octopamine. For antagonists, the rank order is yohimbine > chlorpromazine > phentolamine > mianserine > spiperone > prazosin > alprenolol > propanolol > pindolol.

Alpha-2 adrenergic receptors mediate the catecholamine- induced inhibition of adenylate cyclase through the action of G proteins

Adenosine deaminase that may contribute to the degradation of extracellular adenosine, a signaling molecule that controls a variety of cellular responses. Requires elevated adenosine levels for optimal enzyme activity. Binds to cell surfaces via proteoglycans and may play a role in the regulation of cell proliferation and differentiation, independently of its enzyme activity.

Plays a role in lysosomal amyloid precursor protein (APP) processing by cleaving and activating CTSD/cathepsin D which leads to APP degradation.

May play a role in sperm development and fertilization This is a non-catalytic metalloprotease-like protein.

Required for male fertility and normal male germ cell differentiation (By similarity). Plays a role in spermatogenesis (By similarity). Binds to RNA but not to DNA (By similarity).

Required for male fertility and normal male germ cell differentiation.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of the free cytosolic methylated adenosine nucleotide N(6)-methyl-AMP (N6-mAMP) to produce inositol monophosphate (IMP) and methylamine. Is required for the catabolism of cytosolic N6-mAMP, which is derived from the degradation of mRNA containing N6-methylated adenine (m6A). Catalyzes the removal of different alkyl groups not only from N6-substituted purine or 2-aminopurine nucleoside monophosphates but also from O6-substituted compounds in vitro.

Sperm surface membrane protein that may be involved in sperm- egg plasma membrane adhesion and fusion during fertilization. Could have a direct role in sperm-zona binding or migration of sperm from the uterus into the oviduct. Interactions with egg membrane could be mediated via binding between its disintegrin-like domain to one or more integrins receptors on the egg. This is a non catalytic metalloprotease-like protein

May play an important role in male reproduction including sperm maturation and gonadotrope function. This is a non catalytic metalloprotease-like protein (By similarity).

Cleaves and releases a number of molecules with important roles in tumorigenesis and angiogenesis, such as TEK, KDR, EPHB4, CD40, VCAM1 and CDH5. May mediate cell-cell, cell-matrix interactions and regulate the motility of cells via interactions with integrins.

GTPase-activating protein for the ADP ribosylation factor family (Probable). Binds phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PtdInsP3) and inositol 1,3,4,5-tetrakisphosphate (InsP4).

GTPase-activating protein for the ADP ribosylation factor family (Potential). Binds phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PtdInsP3) and inositol 1,3,4,5-tetrakisphosphate (InsP4). Possesses a stoichiometry of two binding sites for InsP4 with identical affinity.

Catalyzes the exchange of the acyl chain in acyl- dihydroxyacetonephosphate (acyl-DHAP) for a long chain fatty alcohol, yielding the first ether linked intermediate, i.e. alkyl- dihydroxyacetonephosphate (alkyl-DHAP), in the pathway of ether lipid biosynthesis.

Probably participates in deamination of adenosine-34 to inosine in many tRNAs.

Catalyzes the hydrolytic deamination of adenosine and 2- deoxyadenosine. Plays an important role in purine metabolism and in adenosine homeostasis. Modulates signaling by extracellular adenosine, and so contributes indirectly to cellular signaling events. Acts as a positive regulator of T-cell coactivation, by binding DPP4. Its interaction with DPP4 regulates lymphocyte-epithelial cell adhesion. Enhances dendritic cell immunogenicity by affecting dendritic cell costimulatory molecule expression and cytokines and chemokines secretion (By similarity). Enhances CD4+ T-cell differentiation and proliferation. Acts as a positive modulator of adenosine receptors ADORA1 and ADORA2A, by enhancing their ligand affinity via conformational change. Stimulates plasminogen activation. Plays a role in male fertility. Plays a protective role in early postimplantation embryonic development (By similarity).

Appears to be essential for maintaining mitochondrial cristae formation and mitochondrial function by acting via YME1L1 in a kinase- independent manner to regulate essential mitochondrial structural proteins OPA1 and IMMT. The action of this enzyme is not yet clear (Probable). It is not known if it has protein kinase activity and what type of substrate it would phosphorylate (Ser, Thr or Tyr) (Probable).

The function of this protein is not yet clear. It is not known if it has protein kinase activity and what type of substrate it would phosphorylate (Ser, Thr or Tyr)

Catalyzes the formation of the signaling molecule cAMP in response to G-protein signaling. Mediates responses to increased cellular Ca(2+)/calmodulin levels (By similarity). May be involved in regulatory processes in the central nervous system. May play a role in memory and learning. Plays a role in the regulation of the circadian rhythm of daytime contrast sensitivity probably by modulating the rhythmic synthesis of cyclic AMP in the retina (By similarity).

Catalyzes the formation of the signaling molecule cAMP in response to G-protein signaling. Down-stream signaling cascades mediate changes in gene expression patterns and lead to increased IL6 production. Functions in signaling cascades downstream of the muscarinic acetylcholine receptors (By similarity).

Catalyzes the formation of the signaling molecule cAMP in response to G-protein signaling. Participates in signaling cascades triggered by odorant receptors via its function in cAMP biosynthesis. Required for the perception of odorants. Required for normal sperm motility and normal male fertility. Plays a role in regulating insulin levels and body fat accumulation in response to a high fat diet.

Catalyzes the formation of the signaling molecule cAMP in response to G-protein signaling.

Catalyzes the formation of the signaling molecule cAMP in response to G-protein signaling. Mediates signaling downstream of ADRB1. Regulates the increase of free cytosolic Ca(2+) in response to increased blood glucose levels and contributes to the regulation of Ca(2+)-dependent insulin secretion.

Catalyzes the formation of the signaling molecule cAMP downstream of G protein-coupled receptors. Functions in signaling cascades downstream of beta- adrenergic receptors in the heart and in vascular smooth muscle cells. Functions in signaling cascades downstream of the vasopressin receptor in the kidney and has a role in renal water reabsorption. Functions in signaling cascades downstream of PTH1R and plays a role in regulating renal phosphate excretion. Functions in signaling cascades downstream of the VIP and SCT receptors in pancreas and contributes to the regulation of pancreatic amylase and fluid secretion (By similarity). Signaling mediates cAMP-dependent activation of protein kinase PKA. This promotes increased phosphorylation of various proteins, including AKT. Plays a role in regulating cardiac sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+) uptake and storage, and is required for normal heart ventricular contractibility. May contribute to normal heart function (By similarity). Mediates vasodilatation after activation of beta-adrenergic receptors by isoproterenol. Contributes to bone cell responses to mechanical stimuli (By similarity).

Catalyzes the formation of cAMP in response to activation of G protein-coupled receptors (Probable). Functions in signaling cascades activated namely by thrombin and sphingosine 1-phosphate and mediates regulation of cAMP synthesis through synergistic action of the stimulatory G alpha protein with GNA13. Also, during inflammation, mediates zymosan-induced increase intracellular cAMP, leading to protein kinase A pathway activation in order to modulate innate immune responses through heterotrimeric G proteins G(12/13) (By similarity). Functions in signaling cascades activated namely by dopamine and C5 alpha chain and mediates regulation of cAMP synthesis through synergistic action of the stimulatory G protein with G beta:gamma complex. Functions, through cAMP response regulation, to keep inflammation under control during bacterial infection by sensing the presence of serum factors, such as the bioactive lysophospholipid (LPA) that regulate LPS-induced TNF-alpha production. However, it is also required for the optimal functions of B and T cells during adaptive immune responses by regulating cAMP synthesis in both B and T cells (By similarity).

Catalyzes the formation of cAMP in response to calcium entry leadings to cAMP signaling activation that affect processes suche as synaptic plasticity and insulin secretion. Plays a role in many brain functions, such as learning, memory, drug addiction, and anxiety modulation through regulation of synaptic plasticity by modulating long-term memory and long-term potentiation (LTP) through CREB transcription factor activity modulation. Plays a central role in insulin secretion by controlling glucose homeostasis through glucagon- like peptide 1 and glucose signaling pathway and maintains insulin secretion through calcium-dependent PKA activation leading to vesicle pool replenishment. Also, allows PTGER3 to induce potentiation of PTGER4-mediated PLA2 secretion by switching from a negative to a positive regulation, during the IL1B induced-dedifferentiation of smooth muscle cells.

Adenylyl cyclase that catalyzes the formation of the signaling molecule cAMP in response to activation of G protein-coupled receptors. Contributes to signaling cascades activated by CRH (corticotropin-releasing factor), corticosteroids and beta-adrenergic receptors.

Catalyzes the formation of the signaling molecule cAMP. May function as sensor that mediates responses to changes in cellular bicarbonate and CO(2) levels. Has a critical role in mammalian spermatogenesis by producing the cAMP which regulates cAMP-responsive nuclear factors indispensable for sperm maturation in the epididymis. Induces capacitation, the maturational process that sperm undergo prior to fertilization (By similarity). Involved in ciliary beat regulation.

Membrane-cytoskeleton-associated protein that promotes the assembly of the spectrin-actin network. Binds to the erythrocyte membrane receptor SLC2A1/GLUT1 and may therefore provide a link between the spectrin cytoskeleton to the plasma membrane. Binds to calmodulin. Calmodulin binds preferentially to the beta subunit.

Membrane-cytoskeleton-associated protein that promotes the assembly of the spectrin-actin network. Plays a role in actin filament capping. Binds to calmodulin (Probable). Involved in myogenic reactivity of the renal afferent arteriole (Af-art), renal interlobular arteries and middle cerebral artery (MCA) to increased perfusion pressure. Involved in regulation of potassium channels in the vascular smooth muscle cells (VSMCs) of the Af-art and MCA ex vivo. Involved in regulation of glomerular capillary pressure, glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and glomerular nephrin expression in response to hypertension. Involved in renal blood flow (RBF) autoregulation. Plays a role in podocyte structure and function. Regulates globular monomer actin (G-actin) and filamentous polymer actin (F-actin) ratios in the primary podocytes affecting actin cytoskeleton organization. Regulates expression of synaptopodin, RhoA, Rac1 and CDC42 in the renal cortex and the primary podocytes. Regulates expression of nephrin in the glomeruli and in the primary podocytes, expression of nephrin and podocinin in the renal cortex, and expression of focal adhesion proteins integrin alpha-3 and integrin beta-1 in the glomeruli. Involved in cell migration and cell adhesion of podocytes, and in podocyte foot process effacement. Regulates expression of profibrotics markers MMP2, MMP9, TGF beta-1, tubular tight junction protein E- cadherin, and mesenchymal markers vimentin and alpha-SMA (By similarity). Promotes the growth of neurites (By similarity).

May play an important role in the control of the immune response and during pregnancy.

Required for sperm flagellum formation and maturation of elongating spermatids, thus playing an essential role in male fertility. Contributes to in vitro proteolytic cleavage of SEPT10 in a calmodulin-dependent manner.

Alcohol dehydrogenase. Oxidizes primary as well as secondary alcohols. Ethanol is a very poor substrate.

Catalyzes the NAD-dependent oxidation of all-trans-retinol and its derivatives such as all-trans-4-hydroxyretinol and may participate in retinoid metabolism. In vitro can also catalyzes the NADH-dependent reduction of all-trans- retinal and its derivatives such as all-trans-4-oxoretinal. Catalyzes in the oxidative direction with higher efficiency. Has the same affinity for all-trans-4-hydroxyretinol and all-trans-4-oxoretinal.

Alcohol dehydrogenase. Exhibits high activity for ethanol oxidation and plays a major role in ethanol catabolism.

Catalyzes the NAD-dependent oxidation of either all-trans- retinol or 9-cis-retinol. Also oxidizes long chain omega-hydroxy fatty acids, such as 20-HETE, producing both the intermediate aldehyde, 20-oxoarachidonate and the end product, a dicarboxylic acid, (5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)-eicosatetraenedioate. Also catalyzes the reduction of benzoquinones.

Catalyzes the oxidation of long-chain primary alcohols and the oxidation of S-(hydroxymethyl) glutathione. Also oxidizes long chain omega-hydroxy fatty acids, such as 20-HETE, producing both the intermediate aldehyde, 20-oxoarachidonate and the end product, a dicarboxylic acid, (5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)-eicosatetraenedioate. Class-III ADH is remarkably ineffective in oxidizing ethanol. Required for clearance of cellular formaldehyde, a cytotoxic and carcinogenic metabolite that induces DNA damage.

Plays a role in stimulating adipocyte differentiation and development.

Insulin-sensitizing adipocyte-secreted protein (adipokine) that regulates glucose metabolism in liver and adipose tissue. Promotes glucose uptake in adipocytes and suppresses de novo glucose production in hepatocytes via the PI3K-Akt signaling pathway. Administration lead to reduction of blood glucose. Able to attenuate inflammation in fat tissue.

Important adipokine involved in the control of fat metabolism and insulin sensitivity, with direct anti-diabetic, anti-atherogenic and anti-inflammatory activities. Stimulates AMPK phosphorylation and activation in the liver and the skeletal muscle, enhancing glucose utilization and fatty-acid combustion. Antagonizes TNF-alpha by negatively regulating its expression in various tissues such as liver and macrophages, and also by counteracting its effects. Inhibits endothelial NF-kappa-B signaling through a cAMP-dependent pathway. May play a role in cell growth, angiogenesis and tissue remodeling by binding and sequestering various growth factors with distinct binding affinities, depending on the type of complex, LMW, MMW or HMW.

Belongs to an adhesion system, which plays a role in the organization of homotypic, interneuronal and heterotypic cell-cell adherens junctions (AJs). May connect the nectin-afadin and E-cadherin- catenin system through alpha-actinin and may be involved in organization of the actin cytoskeleton at AJs through afadin and alpha- actinin (By similarity). Involved in cell movement: localizes at the leading edge of moving cells in response to PDGF and is required for the formation of the leading edge and the promotion of cell movement, possibly via activation of Rac signaling (By similarity). Acts as a centrosome maturation factor, probably by maintaining the integrity of the pericentriolar material and proper microtubule nucleation at mitotic spindle poles. The function seems to implicate at least in part WRAP73; the SSX2IP:WRAP73 complex is proposed to act as regulator of spindle anchoring at the mitotic centrosome. Involved in ciliogenesis. It is required for targeted recruitment of the BBSome, CEP290, RAB8, and SSTR3 to the cilia.

Plays a role in fat cell development; promotes adipogenic differentiation and stimulates transcription initiation of master adipogenesis factors like PPARG and CEBPA at early stages of preadipocyte differentiation. Its overexpression confers resistance to the anticancer chemotherapeutic drug cisplatin.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of the purine nucleoside adenosine at the 5' position in an ATP-dependent manner. Serves as a potential regulator of concentrations of extracellular adenosine and intracellular adenine nucleotides.

[Adrenomedullin-2]: May play a role as physiological regulators of gastrointestinal, cardiovascular bioactivities mediated by the CALCRL/RAMPs receptor complexes. Activates the cAMP-dependent pathway.

AM and PAMP are potent hypotensive and vasodilatator agents. Numerous actions have been reported most related to the physiologic control of fluid and electrolyte homeostasis. In the kidney, am is diuretic and natriuretic, and both am and pamp inhibit aldosterone secretion by direct adrenal actions. In pituitary gland, both peptides at physiologically relevant doses inhibit basal ACTH secretion. Both peptides appear to act in brain and pituitary gland to facilitate the loss of plasma volume, actions which complement their hypotensive effects in blood vessels

May be involved in transcriptional regulation. May play a role in neuronal function; perhaps involved in protection of brain tissues from oxidative stress. May be involved in erythroid differentiation (By similarity).

May be involved in transcriptional regulation. May mediate some of the neuroprotective peptide VIP-associated effects involving normal growth and cancer proliferation. Positively modulates WNT-beta- catenin/CTNN1B signaling, acting by regulating phosphorylation of, and thereby stabilizing, CTNNB1. May be required for neural induction and neuronal differentiation. May be involved in erythroid differentiation (By similarity).

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of D-glucose to D-glucose 6- phosphate using ADP as the phosphate donor. GDP and CDP can replace ADP, but with reduced efficiency (By similarity).

Catalyzes the post-translational modification of target proteins by phosphopantetheine. Can transfer the 4'-phosphopantetheine moiety from coenzyme A, regardless of whether the CoA is presented in the free thiol form or as an acetyl thioester, to a serine residue of a broad range of acceptors including the acyl carrier domain of FASN.

Specifically acts as an arginine mono-ADP-ribosylhydrolase by mediating the removal of mono-ADP-ribose attached to arginine residues on proteins.

Hydrolyzes ADP-ribose, IDP-ribose, CDP-glycerol, CDP-choline and CDP-ethanolamine, but not other non-reducing ADP-sugars or CDP- glucose. May be involved in immune cell signaling as suggested by the second-messenger role of ADP-ribose, which activates TRPM2 as a mediator of oxidative/nitrosative stress (By similarity).

ADP-ribosylhydrolase that preferentially hydrolyzes the scissile alpha-O-linkage attached to the anomeric C1'' position of ADP- ribose and acts on different substrates, such as proteins ADP- ribosylated on serine and threonine, free poly(ADP-ribose) and O- acetyl-ADP-D-ribose. Specifically acts as a serine mono-ADP- ribosylhydrolase by mediating the removal of mono-ADP-ribose attached to serine residues on proteins, thereby playing a key role in DNA damage response. Serine ADP- ribosylation of proteins constitutes the primary form of ADP- ribosylation of proteins in response to DNA damage. Does not hydrolyze ADP-ribosyl- arginine, -cysteine, -diphthamide, or -asparagine bonds. Also able to degrade protein free poly(ADP-ribose), which is synthesized in response to DNA damage: free poly(ADP-ribose) acts as a potent cell death signal and its degradation by ADPRHL2 protects cells from poly(ADP-ribose)-dependent cell death, a process named parthanatos. Also hydrolyzes free poly(ADP-ribose) in mitochondria. Specifically digests O-acetyl-ADP-D-ribose, a product of deacetylation reactions catalyzed by sirtuins. Specifically degrades 1''-O-acetyl-ADP-D-ribose isomer, rather than 2''-O-acetyl- ADP-D-ribose or 3''-O-acetyl-ADP-D-ribose isomers.

Beta-adrenergic receptors mediate the catecholamine-induced activation of adenylate cyclase through the action of G proteins. This receptor binds epinephrine and norepinephrine with approximately equal affinity. Mediates Ras activation through G(s)-alpha- and cAMP-mediated signaling. Involved in the regulation of sleep/wake behaviors.

Beta-adrenergic receptors mediate the catecholamine-induced activation of adenylate cyclase through the action of G proteins. The beta-2-adrenergic receptor binds epinephrine with an approximately 30- fold greater affinity than it does norepinephrine.

Beta-adrenergic receptors mediate the catecholamine-induced activation of adenylate cyclase through the action of G proteins. Beta- 3 is involved in the regulation of lipolysis and thermogenesis

Component of the 26S proteasome, a multiprotein complex involved in the ATP-dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. This complex plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins, which could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Therefore, the proteasome participates in numerous cellular processes, including cell cycle progression, apoptosis, or DNA damage repair. Within the complex, functions as a proteasomal ubiquitin receptor. Engages and activates 19S- associated deubiquitinases UCHL5 and PSMD14 during protein degradation. UCHL5 reversibly associate with the 19S regulatory particle whereas PSMD14 is an intrinsic subunit of the proteasome lid subcomplex.

ADP:ATP antiporter that mediates import of ADP into the mitochondrial matrix for ATP synthesis, and export of ATP out to fuel the cell. Cycles between the cytoplasmic-open state (c-state) and the matrix-open state (m-state): operates by the alternating access mechanism with a single substrate- binding site intermittently exposed to either the cytosolic (c-state) or matrix (m-state) side of the inner mitochondrial membrane (By similarity). In addition to its ADP:ATP antiporter activity, also involved in mitochondrial uncoupling and mitochondrial permeability transition pore (mPTP) activity. Plays a role in mitochondrial uncoupling by acting as a proton transporter: proton transport uncouples the proton flows via the electron transport chain and ATP synthase to reduce the efficiency of ATP production and cause mitochondrial thermogenesis (By similarity). Proton transporter activity is inhibited by ADP:ATP antiporter activity, suggesting that SLC25A4/ANT1 acts as a master regulator of mitochondrial energy output by maintaining a delicate balance between ATP production (ADP:ATP antiporter activity) and thermogenesis (proton transporter activity) (By similarity). Proton transporter activity requires free fatty acids as cofactor, but does not transport it (By similarity). Also plays a key role in mPTP opening, a non-specific pore that enables free passage of the mitochondrial membranes to solutes of up to 1.5 kDa, and which contributes to cell death. It is however unclear if SLC25A4/ANT1 constitutes a pore-forming component of mPTP or regulates it (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of mitophagy independently of ADP:ATP antiporter activity: promotes mitophagy via interaction with TIMM44, leading to inhibit the presequence translocase TIMM23, thereby promoting stabilization of PINK1 (By similarity).

ADP:ATP antiporter that mediates import of ADP into the mitochondrial matrix for ATP synthesis, and export of ATP out to fuel the cell (By similarity). Cycles between the cytoplasmic-open state (c- state) and the matrix-open state (m-state): operates by the alternating access mechanism with a single substrate-binding site intermittently exposed to either the cytosolic (c-state) or matrix (m-state) side of the inner mitochondrial membrane (By similarity). In addition to its ADP:ATP antiporter activity, also involved in mitochondrial uncoupling and mitochondrial permeability transition pore (mPTP) activity (By similarity). Plays a role in mitochondrial uncoupling by acting as a proton transporter: proton transport uncouples the proton flows via the electron transport chain and ATP synthase to reduce the efficiency of ATP production and cause mitochondrial thermogenesis (By similarity). Proton transporter activity is inhibited by ADP:ATP antiporter activity, suggesting that SLC25A5/ANT2 acts as a master regulator of mitochondrial energy output by maintaining a delicate balance between ATP production (ADP:ATP antiporter activity) and thermogenesis (proton transporter activity) (By similarity). Proton transporter activity requires free fatty acids as cofactor, but does not transport it (By similarity). Probably mediates mitochondrial uncoupling in tissues that do not express UCP1 (By similarity). Also plays a key role in mPTP opening, a non-specific pore that enables free passage of the mitochondrial membranes to solutes of up to 1.5 kDa, and which contributes to cell death. It is however unclear if SLC25A5/ANT2 constitutes a pore-forming component of mPTP or regulates it (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of mitophagy independently of ADP:ATP antiporter activity: promotes mitophagy via interaction with TIMM44, leading to inhibit the presequence translocase TIMM23, thereby promoting stabilization of PINK1 (By similarity). As part of the mitotic spindle-associated MMXD complex it may play a role in chromosome segregation.

ADP:ATP antiporter that mediates import of ADP into the mitochondrial matrix for ATP synthesis, and export of ATP out to fuel the cell (By similarity). Cycles between the cytoplasmic-open state (c- state) and the matrix-open state (m-state): operates by the alternating access mechanism with a single substrate-binding site intermittently exposed to either the cytosolic (c-state) or matrix (m-state) side of the inner mitochondrial membrane (By similarity). In addition to its ADP:ATP antiporter activity, also involved in mitochondrial uncoupling and mitochondrial permeability transition pore (mPTP) activity. Plays a role in mitochondrial uncoupling by acting as a proton transporter: proton transport uncouples the proton flows via the electron transport chain and ATP synthase to reduce the efficiency of ATP production and cause mitochondrial thermogenesis (By similarity). Proton transporter activity is inhibited by ADP:ATP antiporter activity, suggesting that SLC25A6/ANT3 acts as a master regulator of mitochondrial energy output by maintaining a delicate balance between ATP production (ADP:ATP antiporter activity) and thermogenesis (proton transporter activity) (By similarity). Proton transporter activity requires free fatty acids as cofactor, but does not transport it (By similarity). Also plays a key role in mPTP opening, a non-specific pore that enables free passage of the mitochondrial membranes to solutes of up to 1.5 kDa, and which contributes to cell death. It is however unclear if SLC25A6/ANT3 constitutes a pore-forming component of mPTP or regulates it (By similarity).

ADP:ATP antiporter that mediates import of ADP into the mitochondrial matrix for ATP synthesis, and export of ATP out to fuel the cell (By similarity). Cycles between the cytoplasmic-open state (c- state) and the matrix-open state (m-state): operates by the alternating access mechanism with a single substrate-binding site intermittently exposed to either the cytosolic (c-state) or matrix (m-state) side of the inner mitochondrial membrane (By similarity). Specifically required during spermatogenesis, probably to mediate ADP:ATP exchange in spermatocytes. Large ATP supplies from mitochondria may be critical for normal progression of spermatogenesis during early stages of meiotic prophase I, including DNA double-strand break repair and chromosomal synapsis (By similarity). In addition to its ADP:ATP antiporter activity, also involved in mitochondrial uncoupling and mitochondrial permeability transition pore (mPTP) activity (By similarity). Plays a role in mitochondrial uncoupling by acting as a proton transporter: proton transport uncouples the proton flows via the electron transport chain and ATP synthase to reduce the efficiency of ATP production and cause mitochondrial thermogenesis (By similarity). Proton transporter activity is inhibited by ADP:ATP antiporter activity, suggesting that SLC25A31/ANT4 acts as a master regulator of mitochondrial energy output by maintaining a delicate balance between ATP production (ADP:ATP antiporter activity) and thermogenesis (proton transporter activity) (By similarity). Proton transporter activity requires free fatty acids as cofactor, but does not transport it (By similarity). Also plays a key role in mPTP opening, a non-specific pore that enables free passage of the mitochondrial membranes to solutes of up to 1.5 kDa, and which contributes to cell death (By similarity). It is however unclear if SLC25A31/ANT4 constitutes a pore-forming component of mPTP or regulates it (By similarity).

Hydrolyzes bioactive fatty-acid esters of hydroxy-fatty acids (FAHFAs), but not other major classes of lipids. Show a preference for FAHFAs with branching distal from the carboxylate head group of the lipids. Regulates the expression and the cell-associated anticoagulant activity of the inhibitor TFPI in endothelial cells (in vitro).

Essential for the synthesis of various steroid hormones. Participates in the reduction of mitochondrial cytochrome P450 for steroidogenesis. Transfers electrons from adrenodoxin reductase to CYP11A1, a cytochrome P450 that catalyzes cholesterol side-chain cleavage. Does not form a ternary complex with adrenodoxin reductase and CYP11A1 but shuttles between the two enzymes to transfer electrons (By similarity).

[Isoform 1]: As a positive regulator of collagen fibrillogenesis, it is probably involved in the organization and remodeling of the extracellular matrix.

Acts as an accessory subunit for the core Polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2), which mediates histone H3K27 (H3K27me3) trimethylation on chromatin leading to transcriptional repression of the affected target gene. Plays a role in nucleosome localization of the PRC2 complex.

Plays a vital role in regulating thiol metabolism and preserving oxygen homeostasis by oxidizing the sulfur of cysteamine and N-terminal cysteine-containing proteins to their corresponding sulfinic acids using O2 as a cosubstrate. Catalyzes the oxidation of cysteamine (2-aminoethanethiol) to hypotaurine. Catalyzes the oxidation of regulators of G-protein signaling 4 (RGS4) and 5 (RGS5) and interleukin-32 (IL32).

Probably involved in the sorting and selective transport of receptors and ligands across polarized epithelia.

Exonuclease with activity against single- and double-stranded DNA and RNA. Mediates p53-induced apoptosis. When induced by p53 following DNA damage, digests double-stranded DNA to form single- stranded DNA and amplifies DNA damage signals, leading to enhancement of apoptosis.

Probably involved in transcriptional regulation. In vitro or as fusion protein with KMT2A/MLL1 has transactivation activity. Binds to cruciform DNA. In cells, binding to unmodified histone H3 regulates DOT1L functions including histone H3 'Lys-79' dimethylation (H3K79me2) and gene activation.

May play a role in a signaling cascade by enhancing the kinase activity of SRC. Contributes to SRC-regulated transcription activation.

Cofactor for the transcription factor TCF7. Involved in regulation of lymphoid development by driving multipotent hematopoietic progenitor cells towards a T cell fate.

Chromatin reader component of the super elongation complex (SEC), a complex required to increase the catalytic rate of RNA polymerase II transcription by suppressing transient pausing by the polymerase at multiple sites along the DNA. Specifically recognizes and binds acylated histone H3, with a preference for histone H3 that is crotonylated. Crotonylation marks active promoters and enhancers and confers resistance to transcriptional repressors. Recognizes and binds histone H3 crotonylated at 'Lys-9' (H3K9cr), and with slightly lower affinity histone H3 crotonylated at 'Lys-18' (H3K18cr). Also recognizes and binds histone H3 acetylated and butyrylated at 'Lys-9' (H3K9ac and H3K9bu, respectively), but with lower affinity than crotonylated histone H3. In the SEC complex, MLLT3 is required to recruit the complex to crotonylated histones. Recruitment of the SEC complex to crotonylated histones promotes recruitment of DOT1L on active chromatin to deposit histone H3 'Lys-79' methylation (H3K79me). Plays a key role in hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) maintenance by preserving, rather than confering, HSC stemness. Acts by binding to the transcription start site of active genes in HSCs and sustaining level of H3K79me2, probably by recruiting DOT1L.

Functions as carrier for hydrophobic molecules in body fluids (Probable). Essential for the solubility and activity of lipidated Wnt family members, including WNT1, WNT2B, WNT3, WNT3A, WNT5A, WNT7A, WNT7B, WNT8, WNT9A, WNT9B, WNT10A and WNT10B. Binds vitamin E. May transport vitamin E in body fluids under conditions where the lipoprotein system is not sufficient. May be involved in the transport of vitamin E across the blood-brain barrier.

Can cross-link actin filaments into both network and bundle structures (By similarity). May modulate changes in actin filament integrity and induce lamellipodia formation. May function as an adapter molecule that links other proteins, such as SRC and PKC to the actin cytoskeleton. Seems to play a role in the development and progression of prostate adenocarcinoma by regulating cell-matrix adhesions and migration in the cancer cells.

RNA-binding protein. Might be involved in alternative splicing regulation through an interaction with G-quartet RNA structure.

Putative transcription activator that may function in lymphoid development and oncogenesis. Binds, in vitro, to double- stranded DNA

Key component of the super elongation complex (SEC), a complex required to increase the catalytic rate of RNA polymerase II transcription by suppressing transient pausing by the polymerase at multiple sites along the DNA. In the SEC complex, AFF4 acts as a central scaffold that recruits other factors through direct interactions with ELL proteins (ELL, ELL2 or ELL3) and the P-TEFb complex. In case of infection by HIV-1 virus, the SEC complex is recruited by the viral Tat protein to stimulate viral gene expression.

Putative mitochondrial ATPase. Plays a role in mitochondrial morphology and mitochondrial protein metabolism. Promotes degradation of excess nuclear-encoded complex IV subunits (COX4I1, COX5A and COX6A1) and normal activity of complexes III and IV of the respiratory chain. Mediates mitochondrial translocation of TP53 and its transcription-independent apoptosis in response to genotoxic stress.

ATP-dependent protease which is essential for axonal and neuron development. In neurons, mediates degradation of SMDT1/EMRE before its assembly with the uniporter complex, limiting the availability of SMDT1/EMRE for MCU assembly and promoting efficient assembly of gatekeeper subunits with MCU. Required for paraplegin (SPG7) maturation. After its cleavage by mitochondrial-processing peptidase (MPP), it converts paraplegin into a proteolytically active mature form (By similarity). Required for the maturation of PINK1 into its 52kDa mature form after its cleavage by mitochondrial-processing peptidase (MPP). Involved in the regulation of OMA1-dependent processing of OPA1.

Component of clathrin-coated vesicles. Component of the aftiphilin/p200/gamma-synergin complex, which plays roles in AP1G1/AP-1-mediated protein trafficking including the trafficking of transferrin from early to recycling endosomes, and the membrane trafficking of furin and the lysosomal enzyme cathepsin D between the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and endosomes.

Adds the third glucose residue to the lipid-linked oligosaccharide precursor for N-linked glycosylation. Transfers glucose from dolichyl phosphate glucose (Dol-P-Glc) onto the lipid-linked oligosaccharide Glc(2)Man(9)GlcNAc(2)-PP-Dol

Putative alpha-1,2-glucosyltransferase, which adds the third glucose residue to the lipid-linked oligosaccharide precursor for N- linked glycosylation. Transfers glucose from dolichyl phosphate glucose (Dol-P-Glc) onto the lipid-linked oligosaccharide Glc(2)Man(9)GlcNAc(2)-PP-Dol (By similarity). When coupled to KCNH2 may reduce KCNH2 sensitivity to classic proarrhythmic drug blockade, possibly by mediating glycosylation of KCNH2. Has a role in maintenance of cochlear outer hair cell function (By similarity).

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of glycosphingolipids and participates in their degradation in the lysosome.

GTPase-activating protein for ARF1 and, to a lesser extent, ARF5. Directly and specifically regulates the adapter protein 3 (AP-3)- dependent trafficking of proteins in the endosomal-lysosomal system.

GTPase-activating protein for the ADP ribosylation factor family (Potential). GTPase which may be involved in the degradation of expanded polyglutamine proteins through the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway.

Required for vesicle docking or fusion during acrosome biogenesis (By similarity). May play a role in RNA trafficking or localization. In case of infection by HIV-1, acts as a cofactor for viral Rev and promotes movement of Rev-responsive element-containing RNAs from the nuclear periphery to the cytoplasm. This step is essential for HIV-1 replication.

Promotes angiogenesis and the proliferation of endothelial cells. Able to bind to endothelial cells and promote cell proliferation, suggesting that it may act in an autocrine fashion.

Lipid kinase that can phosphorylate both monoacylglycerol and diacylglycerol to form lysophosphatidic acid (LPA) and phosphatidic acid (PA), respectively. Does not phosphorylate sphingosine. Phosphorylates ceramide (By similarity). Phosphorylates 1,2-dioleoylglycerol more rapidly than 2,3- dioleoylglycerol (By similarity). Independently of its lipid kinase activity, acts as a component of the TIM22 complex. The TIM22 complex mediates the import and insertion of multi-pass transmembrane proteins into the mitochondrial inner membrane by forming a twin-pore translocase that uses the membrane potential as the external driving force. In the TIM22 complex, required for the import of a subset of metabolite carriers into mitochondria, such as ANT1/SLC25A4 and SLC25A24, while it is not required for the import of TIMM23. Overexpression increases the formation and secretion of LPA, resulting in transactivation of EGFR and activation of the downstream MAPK signaling pathway, leading to increased cell growth.

Catalyzes the conversion of GlcNAc-6-P into GlcNAc-1-P during the synthesis of uridine diphosphate/UDP-GlcNAc, a sugar nucleotide critical to multiple glycosylation pathways including protein N- and O- glycosylation.

Required for RNA-mediated gene silencing (RNAi). Binds to short RNAs such as microRNAs (miRNAs) or short interfering RNAs (siRNAs), and represses the translation of mRNAs which are complementary to them. Lacks endonuclease activity and does not appear to cleave target mRNAs. Also required for transcriptional gene silencing (TGS) of promoter regions which are complementary to bound short antigene RNAs (agRNAs).

Required for RNA-mediated gene silencing (RNAi) by the RNA- induced silencing complex (RISC). The 'minimal RISC' appears to include AGO2 bound to a short guide RNA such as a microRNA (miRNA) or short interfering RNA (siRNA). These guide RNAs direct RISC to complementary mRNAs that are targets for RISC-mediated gene silencing. The precise mechanism of gene silencing depends on the degree of complementarity between the miRNA or siRNA and its target. Binding of RISC to a perfectly complementary mRNA generally results in silencing due to endonucleolytic cleavage of the mRNA specifically by AGO2. Binding of RISC to a partially complementary mRNA results in silencing through inhibition of translation, and this is independent of endonuclease activity. May inhibit translation initiation by binding to the 7- methylguanosine cap, thereby preventing the recruitment of the translation initiation factor eIF4-E. May also inhibit translation initiation via interaction with EIF6, which itself binds to the 60S ribosomal subunit and prevents its association with the 40S ribosomal subunit. The inhibition of translational initiation leads to the accumulation of the affected mRNA in cytoplasmic processing bodies (P- bodies), where mRNA degradation may subsequently occur. In some cases RISC-mediated translational repression is also observed for miRNAs that perfectly match the 3' untranslated region (3'-UTR). Can also up- regulate the translation of specific mRNAs under certain growth conditions. Binds to the AU element of the 3'-UTR of the TNF (TNF- alpha) mRNA and up-regulates translation under conditions of serum starvation. Also required for transcriptional gene silencing (TGS), in which short RNAs known as antigene RNAs or agRNAs direct the transcriptional repression of complementary promoter regions.

Required for RNA-mediated gene silencing (RNAi). Binds to short RNAs such as microRNAs (miRNAs) and represses the translation of mRNAs which are complementary to them. Proposed to be involved in stabilization of small RNA derivates (siRNA) derived from processed RNA polymerase III-transcribed Alu repeats containing a DR2 retinoic acid response element (RARE) in stem cells and in the subsequent siRNA- dependent degradation of a subset of RNA polymerase II-transcribed coding mRNAs by recruiting a mRNA decapping complex involving EDC4. Possesses RNA slicer activity but only on select RNAs bearing 5'- and 3'-flanking sequences to the region of guide-target complementarity.

Required for RNA-mediated gene silencing (RNAi). Binds to short RNAs such as microRNAs (miRNAs) and represses the translation of mRNAs which are complementary to them. Lacks endonuclease activity and does not appear to cleave target mRNAs. Also required for RNA-directed transcription and replication of the human hapatitis delta virus (HDV).

Required for MUC2 post-transcriptional synthesis and secretion. May play a role in the production of mucus by intestinal cells (By similarity). Proto-oncogene that may play a role in cell migration, cell differentiation and cell growth. Promotes cell adhesion.

Required for calcium-mediated regulation of ciliary beat frequency and mucociliary clearance in the airway. Might be involved in the regulation of intracellular calcium in tracheal epithelial cells.

Endothelial receptor which functions together with RECK to enable brain endothelial cells to selectively respond to Wnt7 signals (WNT7A or WNT7B). Plays a key role in Wnt7-specific responses, such as endothelial cell sprouting and migration in the forebrain and neural tube, and establishment of the blood-brain barrier (By similarity). Acts as a Wnt7-specific coactivator of canonical Wnt signaling: required to deliver RECK-bound Wnt7 to frizzled by assembling a higher-order RECK-ADGRA2-Fzd-LRP5-LRP6 complex. ADGRA2-tethering function does not rely on its G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) structure but instead on its combined capacity to interact with RECK extracellularly and recruit the Dishevelled scaffolding protein intracellularly. Binds to the glycosaminoglycans heparin, heparin sulfate, chondroitin sulfate and dermatan sulfate.

Orphan receptor that may have a role in planar cell polarity pathway.

Phosphatidylserine receptor which enhances the engulfment of apoptotic cells. Also mediates the binding and engulfment of Gram-negative bacteria. Stimulates production of reactive oxygen species by macrophages in response to Gram-negative bacteria, resulting in enhanced microbicidal macrophage activity. In the gastric mucosa, required for recognition and engulfment of apoptotic gastric epithelial cells. Promotes myoblast fusion (By similarity). Activates the Rho pathway in a G-protein-dependent manner. Inhibits MDM2-mediated ubiquitination and degradation of DLG4/PSD95, promoting DLG4 stability and regulating synaptic plasticity (By similarity). Required for the formation of dendritic spines by ensuring the correct localization of PARD3 and TIAM1 (By similarity). Potent inhibitor of angiogenesis in brain and may play a significant role as a mediator of the p53/TP53 signal in suppression of glioblastoma.

Orphan G-protein coupled receptor involved in cell adhesion and probably in cell-cell interactions. Activates NFAT-signaling pathway, a transcription factor, via the G-protein GNAZ. Involved in angiogenesis inhibition (By similarity).

Receptor that plays a role in the regulation of synaptogenesis and dendritic spine formation at least partly via interaction with ELMO1 and RAC1 activity (By similarity). Promotes myoblast fusion through ELMO/DOCK1.

Orphan receptor. Signals via G(s)-alpha family of G-proteins. Has protumorigenic function especially in glioblastoma.

Orphan receptor involved in cell adhesion and probably in cell-cell interactions specifically involving cells of the immune system. May play a role in regulatory T-cells (Treg) development.

Cell surface receptor that binds to the chondroitin sulfate moiety of glycosaminoglycan chains and promotes cell attachment. Promotes granulocyte chemotaxis, degranulation and adhesion. In macrophages, promotes the release of inflammatory cytokines, including IL8 and TNF. Signals probably through G-proteins. Is a regulator of mast cell degranulation.

Orphan receptor that may play a role myeloid-myeloid interactions during immune and inflammatory responses. A ligand for the soluble form of this receptor is present at the surface of monocytes- derived macrophages and activated neutrophils.

Receptor potentially involved in both adhesion and signaling processes early after leukocyte activation. Plays an essential role in leukocyte migration.

Receptor that plays a critical role in lung surfactant homeostasis. May play a role in controlling adipocyte function.

Receptor involved in cell adhesion and probably in cell-cell interactions. Mediates cell matrix adhesion in developing neurons and hematopoietic stem cells. Receptor for collagen III/COL3A1 in the developing brain and involved in regulation of cortical development, specifically in maintenance of the pial basement membrane integrity and in cortical lamination (By similarity). Binding to the COL3A1 ligand inhibits neuronal migration and activates the RhoA pathway by coupling to GNA13 and possibly GNA12. Plays a role in the maintenance of hematopoietic stem cells and/or leukemia stem cells in bone marrow niche (By similarity). Plays a critical role in cancer progression by inhibiting VEGFA production threreby inhibiting angiogenesis through a signaling pathway mediated by PRKCA. Plays an essential role in testis development (By similarity).

Orphan receptor. Could be involved in a signal transduction pathway controlling epididymal function and male fertility. May regulate fluid exchange within epididymis.

Orphan receptor that regulates migration of lymphatic endothelial cells in vitro via the small GTPases RhoA and CDC42. Regulates B-cell development (By similarity). Seems to signal through G-alpha(q)-proteins.

Adhesion G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR). Transduces intracellular signals through coupling to guanine nucleotide-binding protein G(s) subunit alpha and activation of adenylate cyclase pathway. Isoform 1, but not isoform 2, is constitutively active, as evidenced by elevated basal cAMP levels, and responds to mechanical activation (shaking).

G-protein coupled receptor which is activated by type IV collagen, a major constituent of the basement membrane (By similarity). Couples to G(i)-proteins as well as G(s)-proteins. Essential for normal differentiation of promyelinating Schwann cells and for normal myelination of axons. Regulates neural, cardiac and ear development via G-protein- and/or N-terminus- dependent signaling (By similarity). May act as a receptor for PRNP which may promote myelin homeostasis (By similarity).

[Isoform 1]: Heparan sulfate basal lamina glycoprotein that plays a central role in the formation and the maintenance of the neuromuscular junction (NMJ) and directs key events in postsynaptic differentiation. Component of the AGRN-LRP4 receptor complex that induces the phosphorylation and activation of MUSK. The activation of MUSK in myotubes induces the formation of NMJ by regulating different processes including the transcription of specific genes and the clustering of AChR in the postsynaptic membrane. Calcium ions are required for maximal AChR clustering. AGRN function in neurons is highly regulated by alternative splicing, glycan binding and proteolytic processing. Modulates calcium ion homeostasis in neurons, specifically by inducing an increase in cytoplasmic calcium ions. Functions differentially in the central nervous system (CNS) by inhibiting the alpha(3)-subtype of Na+/K+-ATPase and evoking depolarization at CNS synapses. This secreted isoform forms a bridge, after release from motor neurons, to basal lamina through binding laminin via the NtA domain

Calcium-independent receptor of high affinity for alpha- latrotoxin, an excitatory neurotoxin present in black widow spider venom which triggers massive exocytosis from neurons and neuroendocrine cells. Receptor for TENM2 that mediates heterophilic synaptic cell-cell contact and postsynaptic specialization. Receptor probably implicated in the regulation of exocytosis (By similarity).

Endothelial orphan receptor that acts as a key regulator of angiogenesis.

Plays a role in weight homeostasis. Involved in the control of feeding behavior through the central melanocortin system. Acts as alpha melanocyte-stimulating hormone antagonist by inhibiting cAMP production mediated by stimulation of melanocortin receptors within the hypothalamus and adrenal gland. Has very low activity with MC5R (By similarity). Is an inverse agonist for MC3R and MC4R being able to suppress their constitutive activity. It promotes MC3R and MC4R endocytosis in an arrestin-dependent manner.

G-protein coupled receptor which has an essential role in the development of hearing and vision. Couples to G-alpha(i)-proteins, GNAI1/2/3, G-alpha(q)-proteins, GNAQ, as well as G-alpha(s)-proteins, GNAS, inhibiting adenylate cyclase (AC) activity and cAMP production. Required for the hair bundle ankle formation, which connects growing stereocilia in developing cochlear hair cells of the inner ear. In response to extracellular calcium, activates kinases PKA and PKC to regulate myelination by inhibiting the ubiquitination of MAG, thus enhancing the stability of this protein in myelin-forming cells of the auditory pathway. In retina photoreceptors, the USH2 complex is required for the maintenance of periciliary membrane complex that seems to play a role in regulating intracellular protein transport. Involved in the regulation of bone metabolism.

Peroxisomal aminotransferase that catalyzes the transamination of glyoxylate to glycine and contributes to the glyoxylate detoxification. Also catalyzes the transamination between L-serine and pyruvate and contributes to gluconeogenesis from the L-serine metabolism.

Can metabolize asymmetric dimethylarginine (ADMA) via transamination to alpha-keto-delta-(NN-dimethylguanidino) valeric acid (DMGV). ADMA is a potent inhibitor of nitric-oxide (NO) synthase, and this activity provides mechanism through which the kidney regulates blood pressure.

Receptor for angiotensin II, a vasoconstricting peptide, which acts as a key regulator of blood pressure and sodium retention by the kidney. The activated receptor in turn couples to G-alpha proteins G(q) (GNAQ, GNA11, GNA14 or GNA15) and thus activates phospholipase C and increases the cytosolic Ca(2+) concentrations, which in turn triggers cellular responses such as stimulation of protein kinase C.

Receptor for angiotensin II, a vasoconstricting peptide. Signals primarily via a non-canonical G-protein- and beta-arrestin independent pathways. Cooperates with MTUS1 to inhibit ERK2 activation and cell proliferation.

Transcription factor required for the proper patterning of the epidermis, which plays a key role in early epithelial morphogenesis. Directly binds promoter and enhancer regions and acts by maintaining local enhancer-promoter chromatin architecture. Interacts with many sequence-specific zinc-finger transcription factors and methyl-CpG-binding proteins to regulate the expression of mesoderm genes that wire surface ectoderm stratification.

Involved in vesicle trafficking and required for ciliogenesis, formation of primary non-motile cilium, and recruitment of RAB8A to the basal body of primary cilium. Component of the tectonic-like complex, a complex localized at the transition zone of primary cilia and acting as a barrier that prevents diffusion of transmembrane proteins between the cilia and plasma membranes. Involved in neuronal differentiation. As a positive modulator of classical Wnt signaling, may play a crucial role in ciliary signaling during cerebellum embryonic development.

Ligand-activated transcription factor that enables cells to adapt to changing conditions by sensing compounds from the environment, diet, microbiome and cellular metabolism, and which plays important roles in development, immunity and cancer. Upon ligand binding, translocates into the nucleus, where it heterodimerizes with ARNT and induces transcription by binding to xenobiotic response elements (XRE). Regulates a variety of biological processes, including angiogenesis, hematopoiesis, drug and lipid metabolism, cell motility and immune modulation. Xenobiotics can act as ligands: upon xenobiotic- binding, activates the expression of multiple phase I and II xenobiotic chemical metabolizing enzyme genes (such as the CYP1A1 gene). Mediates biochemical and toxic effects of halogenated aromatic hydrocarbons. Next to xenobiotics, natural ligands derived from plants, microbiota, and endogenous metabolism are potent AHR agonists. Tryptophan (Trp) derivatives constitute an important class of endogenous AHR ligands. Acts as a negative regulator of anti-tumor immunity: indoles and kynurenic acid generated by Trp catabolism act as ligand and activate AHR, thereby promoting AHR-driven cancer cell motility and suppressing adaptive immunity. Regulates the circadian clock by inhibiting the basal and circadian expression of the core circadian component PER1. Inhibits PER1 by repressing the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer mediated transcriptional activation of PER1. The heterodimer ARNT:AHR binds to core DNA sequence 5'-TGCGTG-3' within the dioxin response element (DRE) of target gene promoters and activates their transcription.

Acts as a co-chaperone of HSP90AA1. Activates the ATPase activity of HSP90AA1 leading to increase in its chaperone activity. Competes with the inhibitory co- chaperone FNIP1 for binding to HSP90AA1, thereby providing a reciprocal regulatory mechanism for chaperoning of client proteins. Competes with the inhibitory co-chaperone TSC1 for binding to HSP90AA1, thereby providing a reciprocal regulatory mechanism for chaperoning of client proteins.

Acts as a chaperone to prevent the harmful aggregation of alpha-hemoglobin during normal erythroid cell development. Specifically protects free alpha-hemoglobin from precipitation. It is predicted to modulate pathological states of alpha-hemoglobin excess such as beta- thalassemia.

Single-stranded DNA-specific cytidine deaminase. Involved in somatic hypermutation (SHM), gene conversion, and class-switch recombination (CSR) in B-lymphocytes by deaminating C to U during transcription of Ig-variable (V) and Ig-switch (S) region DNA. Required for several crucial steps of B-cell terminal differentiation necessary for efficient antibody responses. May also play a role in the epigenetic regulation of gene expression by participating in DNA demethylation.

Acts as a ventralizing factor during embryogenesis. Inhibits axin-mediated JNK activation by binding axin and disrupting axin homodimerization. This in turn antagonizes a Wnt/beta-catenin- independent dorsalization pathway activated by AXIN/JNK-signaling (By similarity).

Actin-binding protein that promotes actin bundling. May neither bind calcium nor depend on calcium for function.

Actin-binding protein that enhances membrane ruffling and RAC activation. Enhances the actin-bundling activity of LCP1. Binds calcium. Plays a role in RAC signaling and in phagocytosis. May play a role in macrophage activation and function. Promotes the proliferation of vascular smooth muscle cells and of T-lymphocytes. Enhances lymphocyte migration. Plays a role in vascular inflammation.

Functions both as NADH oxidoreductase and as regulator of apoptosis. In response to apoptotic stimuli, it is released from the mitochondrion intermembrane space into the cytosol and to the nucleus, where it functions as a proapoptotic factor in a caspase- independent pathway. Release into the cytoplasm is mediated upon binding to poly-ADP-ribose chains (By similarity). The soluble form (AIFsol) found in the nucleus induces 'parthanatos' i.e. caspase-independent fragmentation of chromosomal DNA. Binds to DNA in a sequence-independent manner. Interacts with EIF3G, and thereby inhibits the EIF3 machinery and protein synthesis, and activates caspase-7 to amplify apoptosis. Plays a critical role in caspase-independent, pyknotic cell death in hydrogen peroxide-exposed cells. In contrast, participates in normal mitochondrial metabolism. Plays an important role in the regulation of respiratory chain biogenesis by interacting with CHCHD4 and controlling CHCHD4 mitochondrial import.

Induces apoptosis through a caspase dependent pathway. Reduces mitochondrial membrane potential.

Hydrolyzes bioactive fatty-acid esters of hydroxy-fatty acids (FAHFAs), but not other major classes of lipids. Show a preference for FAHFAs with branching distal from the carboxylate head group of the lipids.

Involved in innate immune response by recognizing cytosolic double-stranded DNA and inducing caspase-1-activating inflammasome formation in macrophages. Upon binding to DNA is thought to undergo oligomerization and to associate with PYCARD initiating the recruitment of caspase-1 precursor and processing of interleukin-1 beta and interleukin-18. Detects cytosolic dsDNA of viral and bacterial origin in a non- sequence-specific manner. Also acts as a mediator of pyroptosis, necroptosis and apoptosis (PANoptosis), an integral part of host defense against pathogens, in response to bacterial infection (By similarity). Can also trigger PYCARD-dependent, caspase-1-independent cell death that involves caspase-8 (By similarity). Tumor suppressor which may act by repressing NF-kappa-B transcriptional activity.

Non-catalytic component of the multisynthase complex. Stimulates the catalytic activity of cytoplasmic arginyl-tRNA synthase. Binds tRNA. Possesses inflammatory cytokine activity. Negatively regulates TGF-beta signaling through stabilization of SMURF2 by binding to SMURF2 and inhibiting its SMAD7- mediated degradation (By similarity). Involved in glucose homeostasis through induction of glucagon secretion at low glucose levels (By similarity). Promotes dermal fibroblast proliferation and wound repair. Regulates KDELR1-mediated retention of HSP90B1/gp96 in the endoplasmic reticulum (By similarity). Plays a role in angiogenesis by inducing endothelial cell migration at low concentrations and endothelian cell apoptosis at high concentrations. Induces maturation of dendritic cells and monocyte cell adhesion. Modulates endothelial cell responses by degrading HIF-1A through interaction with PSMA7.

Required for assembly and stability of the aminoacyl-tRNA synthase complex. Mediates ubiquitination and degradation of FUBP1, a transcriptional activator of MYC, leading to MYC down-regulation which is required for aveolar type II cell differentiation. Blocks MDM2-mediated ubiquitination and degradation of p53/TP53. Functions as a proapoptotic factor.

Class-IV neuronal intermediate filament that is able to self- assemble. It is involved in the morphogenesis of neurons. It may form an independent structural network without the involvement of other neurofilaments or it may cooperate with NEFL to form the filamentous backbone to which NEFM and NEFH attach to form the cross-bridges. May also cooperate with the neuronal intermediate filament protein PRPH to form filamentous networks (By similarity).

May be important in protein trafficking and/or protein folding and stabilization

May play a positive role in AHR-mediated (aromatic hydrocarbon receptor) signaling, possibly by influencing its receptivity for ligand and/or its nuclear targeting

Transcription factor playing an essential role to promote self-tolerance in the thymus by regulating the expression of a wide array of self-antigens that have the commonality of being tissue- restricted in their expression pattern in the periphery, called tissue restricted antigens (TRA). Binds to G-doublets in an A/T-rich environment; the preferred motif is a tandem repeat of 5'- ATTGGTTA-3' combined with a 5'-TTATTA-3' box. Binds to nucleosomes (By similarity). Binds to chromatin and interacts selectively with histone H3 that is not methylated at 'Lys-4', not phosphorylated at 'Thr-3' and not methylated at 'Arg-2'. Functions as a sensor of histone H3 modifications that are important for the epigenetic regulation of gene expression. Mainly expressed by medullary thymic epithelial cells (mTECs), induces the expression of thousands of tissue-restricted proteins, which are presented on major histocompatibility complex class I (MHC-I) and MHC-II molecules to developing T-cells percolating through the thymic medulla. Also induces self- tolerance through other mechanisms such as the regulation of the mTEC differentiation program. Controls the medullary accumulation of thymic dendritic cells and the development of regulatory T-cell through the regulation of XCL1 expression. Regulates the production of CCR4 and CCR7 ligands in medullary thymic epithelial cells and alters the coordinated maturation and migration of thymocytes. In thimic B-cells, allows the presentation of licensing-dependent endogenous self-anitgen for negative selection. In secondary lymphoid organs, induces functional inactivation of CD4(+) T-cells. Expressed by a distinct bone marrow-derived population, induces self-tolerance through a mechanism that does not require regulatory T-cells and is resitant to innate inflammatory stimuli (By similarity).

Adapter or scaffold protein which participates in the assembly of numerous protein complexes and is involved in several cellular processes such as cell fate determination, cytoskeletal organization, repression of gene transcription, mitosis, cell-cell adhesion, cell differentiation, proliferation and migration. Contributes to the linking and/or strengthening of epithelia cell-cell junctions in part by linking adhesive receptors to the actin cytoskeleton. May be involved in signal transduction from cell adhesion sites to the nucleus. Plays an important role in regulation of the kinase activity of AURKA for mitotic commitment. Also a component of the IL-1 signaling pathway modulating IL-1-induced NFKB1 activation by influencing the assembly and activity of the PRKCZ-SQSTM1-TRAF6 multiprotein signaling complex. Functions as an HDAC-dependent corepressor for a subset of GFI1 target genes. Acts as a transcriptional corepressor for SNAI1 and SNAI2/SLUG-dependent repression of E-cadherin transcription. Acts as a hypoxic regulator by bridging an association between the prolyl hydroxylases and VHL enabling efficient degradation of HIF1A. Positively regulates microRNA (miRNA)-mediated gene silencing. Negatively regulates the Hippo signaling pathway and antagonizes phosphorylation of YAP1.

Splice factor regulating alternative splice site selection for certain mRNA precursors. Mediates regulation of pre-mRNA splicing in a PKA-dependent manner.

Catalyzes the NADPH-dependent reduction of a wide variety of carbonyl-containing compounds to their corresponding alcohols. Displays enzymatic activity towards endogenous metabolites such as aromatic and aliphatic aldehydes, ketones, monosaccharides and bile acids, with a preference for negatively charged substrates, such as glucuronate and succinic semialdehyde. Functions as a detoxifiying enzyme by reducing a range of toxic aldehydes. Reduces methylglyoxal and 3-deoxyglucosone, which are present at elevated levels under hyperglycemic conditions and are cytotoxic. Involved also in the detoxification of lipid-derived aldehydes like acrolein (By similarity). Plays a role in the activation of procarcinogens, such as polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon trans-dihydrodiols, and in the metabolism of various xenobiotics and drugs, including the anthracyclines doxorubicin (DOX) and daunorubicin (DAUN). Displays no reductase activity towards retinoids (By similarity).

Catalyzes the NADPH-dependent reduction of a wide variety of carbonyl-containing compounds to their corresponding alcohols. Displays strong enzymatic activity toward all-trans- retinal, 9-cis-retinal, and 13-cis-retinal. Plays a critical role in detoxifying dietary and lipid-derived unsaturated carbonyls, such as crotonaldehyde, 4- hydroxynonenal, trans-2-hexenal, trans-2,4-hexadienal and their glutathione-conjugates carbonyls (GS-carbonyls). Displays no reductase activity towards glucose.

[Isoform 1]: Catalyzes the NADPH-dependent reduction of a variety of carbonyl substrates, like aromatic aldehydes, alkenals, ketones and alpha-dicarbonyl compounds. In addition, catalyzes the reduction of androgens and estrogens with high positional selectivity (shows 17-beta- hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity) as well as 3-keto-acyl-CoAs. Displays strong enzymatic activity toward all-trans- retinal and 9-cis-retinal. May play a physiological role in retinoid metabolism.

Cytosolic aldo-keto reductase that catalyzes the NADH and NADPH-dependent reduction of ketosteroids to hydroxysteroids. Most probably acts as a reductase in vivo since the oxidase activity measured in vitro is inhibited by physiological concentrations of NADPH. Displays a broad positional specificity acting on positions 3, 17 and 20 of steroids and regulates the metabolism of hormones like estrogens and androgens. May also reduce conjugated steroids such as 5alpha- dihydrotestosterone sulfate. Displays affinity for bile acids.

Cytosolic aldo-keto reductase that catalyzes the NADH and NADPH-dependent reduction of ketosteroids to hydroxysteroids. Most probably acts as a reductase in vivo since the oxidase activity measured in vitro is inhibited by physiological concentrations of NADPH. Displays a broad positional specificity acting on positions 3, 17 and 20 of steroids and regulates the metabolism of hormones like estrogens and androgens. Works in concert with the 5-alpha/5-beta-steroid reductases to convert steroid hormones into the 3-alpha/5-alpha and 3- alpha/5-beta-tetrahydrosteroids. Catalyzes the inactivation of the most potent androgen 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone (5-alpha-DHT) to 5-alpha- androstane-3-alpha,17-beta-diol (3-alpha-diol). Also specifically able to produce 17beta-hydroxy-5alpha-androstan-3-one/5alphaDHT. May also reduce conjugated steroids such as 5alpha- dihydrotestosterone sulfate. Displays affinity for bile acids.

Cytosolic aldo-keto reductase that catalyzes the NADH and NADPH-dependent reduction of ketosteroids to hydroxysteroids. Acts as a NAD(P)(H)-dependent 3-, 17- and 20-ketosteroid reductase on the steroid nucleus and side chain and regulates the metabolism of androgens, estrogens and progesterone. Displays the ability to catalyze both oxidation and reduction in vitro, but most probably acts as a reductase in vivo since the oxidase activity measured in vitro is inhibited by physiological concentration of NADPH. Acts preferentially as a 17- ketosteroid reductase and has the highest catalytic efficiency of the AKR1C enzyme for the reduction of delta4-androstenedione to form testosterone. Reduces prostaglandin (PG) D2 to 11beta-prostaglandin F2, progesterone to 20alpha-hydroxyprogesterone and estrone to 17beta-estradiol. Catalyzes the transformation of the potent androgen dihydrotestosterone (DHT) into the less active form, 5-alpha-androstan-3-alpha,17-beta-diol (3-alpha-diol). Also displays retinaldehyde reductase activity toward 9-cis-retinal.

Cytosolic aldo-keto reductase that catalyzes the NADH and NADPH-dependent reduction of ketosteroids to hydroxysteroids. Liver specific enzyme that acts as NAD(P)(H)-dependent 3-, 17- and 20- ketosteroid reductase on the steroid nucleus and side chain. Displays the ability to catalyze both oxidation and reduction in vitro, but most probably acts as a reductase in vivo since the oxidase activity measured in vitro is inhibited by physiological concentration of NADPH. Acts preferentially as a 3-alpha-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (HSD) with a subsidiary 3-beta-HSD activity. Catalyzes efficiently the transformation of the potent androgen 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone (5alpha-DHT or 17beta- hydroxy-5alpha-androstan-3-one) into the less active form, 5-alpha- androstan-3-alpha,17-beta-diol (3-alpha-diol). Catalyzes the reduction of estrone into 17beta-estradiol but with low efficiency. Metabolizes a broad spectrum of natural and synthetic therapeutic steroid and plays an important role in metabolism of androgens, estrogens, progestereone and conjugated steroids. Catalyzes the biotransformation of the pesticide chlordecone (kepone) to its corresponding alcohol leading to increased biliary excretion of the pesticide and concomitant reduction of its neurotoxicity since bile is the major excretory route.

Catalyzes the stereospecific NADPH-dependent reduction of the C4-C5 double bond of bile acid intermediates and steroid hormones carrying a delta(4)-3-one structure to yield an A/B cis-ring junction. This cis-configuration is crucial for bile acid biosynthesis and plays important roles in steroid metabolism. Capable of reducing a broad range of delta-(4)-3-ketosteroids from C18 (such as, 17beta- hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one) to C27 (such as, 7alpha-hydroxycholest-4-en-3- one).

Differentially targeted protein that binds to type I and II regulatory subunits of protein kinase A and anchors them to the mitochondria or the plasma membrane. Although the physiological relevance between PKA and AKAPS with mitochondria is not fully understood, one idea is that BAD, a proapoptotic member, is phosphorylated and inactivated by mitochondria-anchored PKA. It cannot be excluded too that it may facilitate PKA as well as G protein signal transduction, by acting as an adapter for assembling multiprotein complexes. With its RGS domain, it could lead to the interaction to G- alpha proteins, providing a link between the signaling machinery and the downstream kinase (By similarity).

Binds to type II regulatory subunits of protein kinase A and anchors/targets them

Anchoring protein that mediates the subcellular compartmentation of protein kinase A (PKA) and protein kinase C (PKC)

Probably targets cAMP-dependent protein kinase (PKA) to the cellular membrane or cytoskeletal structures. The membrane-associated form reduces epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) activity, whereas the free cytoplasmic form may negatively regulate ENaC channel feedback inhibition by intracellular sodium.

Protein kinase A (PKA)-binding protein. Binds to type II regulatory subunits of protein kinase A (PKA) and may block the A- kinase anchoring protein (AKAP)-mediated subcellular localization of PKA.

Binds to type I and II regulatory subunits of protein kinase A and anchors them to the cytoplasmic face of the mitochondrial outer membrane (By similarity). Involved in mitochondrial-mediated antiviral innate immunity. Promotes translocation of NDUFS1 into mitochondria to regulate mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I) activity (By similarity).

May function as a regulator of both motility- and head- associated functions such as capacitation and the acrosome reaction

Major structural component of sperm fibrous sheath. Plays a role in sperm motility.

Multivalent scaffold protein that anchors the cAMP-dependent protein kinase/PKA to cytoskeletal and/or organelle-associated proteins, targeting the signal carried by cAMP to specific intracellular effectors. Association with the beta2- adrenergic receptor (beta2-AR) not only regulates beta2-AR signaling pathway, but also the activation by PKA by switching off the beta2-AR signaling cascade. Plays a role in long term synaptic potentiation by regulating protein trafficking from the dendritic recycling endosomes to the plasma membrane and controlling both structural and functional plasticity at excitatory synapses.

Binds to type II regulatory subunits of protein kinase A and anchors/targets them to the nuclear membrane or sarcoplasmic reticulum. May act as an adapter for assembling multiprotein complexes

Anchoring protein that mediates the subcellular compartmentation of cAMP-dependent protein kinase (PKA type II). Acts as an anchor for a PKA-signaling complex onto mitotic chromosomes, which is required for maintenance of chromosomes in a condensed form throughout mitosis. Recruits condensin complex subunit NCAPD2 to chromosomes required for chromatin condensation; the function appears to be independent from PKA-anchoring. May help to deliver cyclin D/E to CDK4 to facilitate cell cycle progression. Required for cell cycle G2/M transition and histone deacetylation during mitosis. In mitotic cells recruits HDAC3 to the vicinity of chromatin leading to deacetylation and subsequent phosphorylation at 'Ser-10' of histone H3; in this function may act redundantly with AKAP8L. Involved in nuclear retention of RPS6KA1 upon ERK activation thus inducing cell proliferation. May be involved in regulation of DNA replication by acting as scaffold for MCM2. Enhances HMT activity of the KMT2 family MLL4/WBP7 complex and is involved in transcriptional regulation. In a teratocarcinoma cell line is involved in retinoic acid-mediated induction of developmental genes implicating H3 'Lys-4' methylation. May be involved in recruitment of active CASP3 to the nucleus in apoptotic cells. May act as a carrier protein of GJA1 for its transport to the nucleus. May play a repressive role in the regulation of rDNA transcription. Preferentially binds GC-rich DNA in vitro. In cells, associates with ribosomal RNA (rRNA) chromatin, preferentially with rRNA promoter and transcribed regions. Involved in modulation of Toll- like receptor signaling. Required for the cAMP-dependent suppression of TNF-alpha in early stages of LPS-induced macrophage activation; the function probably implicates targeting of PKA to NFKB1 (By similarity).

Scaffolding protein that assembles several protein kinases and phosphatases on the centrosome and Golgi apparatus. Required to maintain the integrity of the Golgi apparatus. Required for microtubule nucleation at the cis-side of the Golgi apparatus. Required for association of the centrosomes with the poles of the bipolar mitotic spindle during metaphase. In complex with PDE4DIP isoform 13/MMG8/SMYLE, recruits CAMSAP2 to the Golgi apparatus and tethers non-centrosomal minus-end microtubules to the Golgi, an important step for polarized cell movement. In complex with PDE4DIP isoform 13/MMG8/SMYLE, EB1/MAPRE1 and CDK5RAP2, contributes to microtubules nucleation and extension also from the centrosome to the cell periphery.

Catalyzes the NADPH-dependent reduction of 1,5-anhydro-D- fructose (AF) to 1,5-anhydro-D-glucitol (By similarity). Has low NADPH- dependent reductase activity towards 9,10-phenanthrenequinone (in vitro).

Might act as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase, or as part of E3 complex, which accepts ubiquitin from specific E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes and then transfers it to substrates.

Enhances NF-kappa-B transcriptional activity by regulating the nuclear localization of the NF-kappa-B subunit RELA and promoting the phosphorylation of RELA by PRKACA. Regulates the effect of the cAMP-dependent protein kinase signaling pathway on the NF-kappa-B activation cascade.

May act as a negative regulator of Aurora-A kinase, by down- regulation through proteasome-dependent degradation

Molecular adapter that acts as a bridge between proteins, and which is involved skeletal muscle development (By similarity). Functions as signal transducer for MSTN during skeletal muscle regeneration and myogenesis (By similarity). May regulate chemotaxis of both macrophages and myoblasts by reorganising actin cytoskeleton, leading to more efficient lamellipodia formation via a PI3 kinase dependent pathway (By similarity). In contrast to AKIRIN2, not involved in nuclear import of proteasomes.

Molecular adapter that acts as a bridge between a variety of multiprotein complexes, and which is involved in embryonic development, immunity, myogenesis and brain development. Plays a key role in nuclear protein degradation by promoting import of proteasomes into the nucleus: directly binds to fully assembled 20S proteasomes at one end and to nuclear import receptor IPO9 at the other end, bridging them together and mediating the import of pre-assembled proteasome complexes through the nuclear pore. Involved in innate immunity by regulating the production of interleukin-6 (IL6) downstream of Toll-like receptor (TLR): acts by bridging the NF-kappa-B inhibitor NFKBIZ and the SWI/SNF complex, leading to promote induction of IL6 (By similarity). Also involved in adaptive immunity by promoting B-cell activation (By similarity). Involved in brain development: required for the survival and proliferation of cerebral cortical progenitor cells (By similarity). Involved in myogenesis: required for skeletal muscle formation and skeletal development, possibly by regulating expression of muscle differentiation factors (By similarity). Also plays a role in facilitating interdigital tissue regression during limb development (By similarity).

Centrosomal protein that plays a key role in cell delamination by regulating microtubule organization (By similarity). Required for the delamination and retention of neural stem cells from the subventricular zone during neurogenesis (By similarity). Also regulates the epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition in other epithelial cells (By similarity). Acts by increasing centrosomal microtubule nucleation and recruiting nucleation factors and minus-end stabilizers, thereby destabilizing microtubules at the adherens junctions and mediating constriction of the apical endfoot (By similarity). In addition, may also act as a transcription factor that specifically activates the expression of the CD40 receptor and its ligand CD40L/CD154, two cell surface molecules on lymphocytes that are critical for antigen-dependent-B-cell development. Binds to A/T-rich promoters. It is unclear how it can both act as a microtubule organizer and as a transcription factor; additional evidences are required to reconcile these two apparently contradictory functions (Probable).

Scaffold protein that plays an important role in assembling signaling complexes downstream of several types of G protein-coupled receptors. Activates RHOA in response to signaling via G protein- coupled receptors via its function as Rho guanine nucleotide exchange factor. May also activate other Rho family members. Part of a kinase signaling complex that links ADRA1A and ADRA1B adrenergic receptor signaling to the activation of downstream p38 MAP kinases, such as MAPK11 and MAPK14. Part of a signaling complex that links ADRA1B signaling to the activation of RHOA and IKBKB/IKKB, leading to increased NF-kappa-B transcriptional activity. Part of a RHOA-dependent signaling cascade that mediates responses to lysophosphatidic acid (LPA), a signaling molecule that activates G-protein coupled receptors and potentiates transcriptional activation of the glucocorticoid receptor NR3C1. Part of a signaling cascade that stimulates MEF2C- dependent gene expression in response to lysophosphatidic acid (LPA) (By similarity). Part of a signaling pathway that activates MAPK11 and/or MAPK14 and leads to increased transcription activation of the estrogen receptors ESR1 and ESR2. Part of a signaling cascade that links cAMP and EGFR signaling to BRAF signaling and to PKA-mediated phosphorylation of KSR1, leading to the activation of downstream MAP kinases, such as MAPK1 or MAPK3. Functions as scaffold protein that anchors cAMP- dependent protein kinase (PKA) and PRKD1. This promotes activation of PRKD1, leading to increased phosphorylation of HDAC5 and ultimately cardiomyocyte hypertrophy (By similarity). Has no guanine nucleotide exchange activity on CDC42, Ras or Rac. Required for normal embryonic heart development, and in particular for normal sarcomere formation in the developing cardiomyocytes (By similarity). Plays a role in cardiomyocyte growth and cardiac hypertrophy in response to activation of the beta-adrenergic receptor by phenylephrine or isoproterenol. Required for normal adaptive cardiac hypertrophy in response to pressure overload. Plays a role in osteogenesis (By similarity).

Could play a role in constitutive transport element (CTE)- mediated gene expression by association with DHX9. Increases CTE- dependent nuclear unspliced mRNA export. Proposed to target PRKACA to the nucleus but does not seem to be implicated in the binding of regulatory subunit II of PKA. May be involved in nuclear envelope breakdown and chromatin condensation. May be involved in anchoring nuclear membranes to chromatin in interphase and in releasing membranes from chromating at mitosis. May regulate the initiation phase of DNA replication when associated with TMPO isoform Beta. Required for cell cycle G2/M transition and histone deacetylation during mitosis. In mitotic cells recruits HDAC3 to the vicinity of chromatin leading to deacetylation and subsequent phosphorylation at 'Ser-10' of histone H3; in this function seems to act redundantly with AKAP8. May be involved in regulation of pre-mRNA splicing.

AKT1 is one of 3 closely related serine/threonine-protein kinases (AKT1, AKT2 and AKT3) called the AKT kinase, and which regulate many processes including metabolism, proliferation, cell survival, growth and angiogenesis. This is mediated through serine and/or threonine phosphorylation of a range of downstream substrates. Over 100 substrate candidates have been reported so far, but for most of them, no isoform specificity has been reported. AKT is responsible of the regulation of glucose uptake by mediating insulin-induced translocation of the SLC2A4/GLUT4 glucose transporter to the cell surface (By similarity). Phosphorylation of PTPN1 at 'Ser-50' negatively modulates its phosphatase activity preventing dephosphorylation of the insulin receptor and the attenuation of insulin signaling (By similarity). Phosphorylation of TBC1D4 triggers the binding of this effector to inhibitory 14-3-3 proteins, which is required for insulin-stimulated glucose transport. AKT regulates also the storage of glucose in the form of glycogen by phosphorylating GSK3A at 'Ser-21' and GSK3B at 'Ser-9', resulting in inhibition of its kinase activity (By similarity). Phosphorylation of GSK3 isoforms by AKT is also thought to be one mechanism by which cell proliferation is driven (By similarity). AKT regulates also cell survival via the phosphorylation of MAP3K5 (apoptosis signal-related kinase). Phosphorylation of 'Ser-83' decreases MAP3K5 kinase activity stimulated by oxidative stress and thereby prevents apoptosis. AKT mediates insulin-stimulated protein synthesis by phosphorylating TSC2 at 'Ser-939' and 'Thr-1462', thereby activating the TORC1 signaling pathway, and leading to both phosphorylation of 4E-BP1 and in activation of RPS6KB1. Also regulates the TORC1 signaling pathway by catalyzing phosphorylation of CASTOR1. AKT is involved in the phosphorylation of members of the FOXO factors (Forkhead family of transcription factors), leading to binding of 14-3- 3 proteins and cytoplasmic localization. In particular, FOXO1 is phosphorylated at 'Thr-24', 'Ser-256' and 'Ser- 319'. FOXO3 and FOXO4 are phosphorylated on equivalent sites. AKT has an important role in the regulation of NF-kappa-B-dependent gene transcription and positively regulates the activity of CREB1 (cyclic AMP (cAMP)-response element binding protein). The phosphorylation of CREB1 induces the binding of accessory proteins that are necessary for the transcription of pro-survival genes such as BCL2 and MCL1. AKT phosphorylates 'Ser-454' on ATP citrate lyase (ACLY), thereby potentially regulating ACLY activity and fatty acid synthesis (By similarity). Activates the 3B isoform of cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase (PDE3B) via phosphorylation of 'Ser-273', resulting in reduced cyclic AMP levels and inhibition of lipolysis (By similarity). Phosphorylates PIKFYVE on 'Ser-318', which results in increased PI(3)P-5 activity (By similarity). The Rho GTPase-activating protein DLC1 is another substrate and its phosphorylation is implicated in the regulation cell proliferation and cell growth. AKT plays a role as key modulator of the AKT-mTOR signaling pathway controlling the tempo of the process of newborn neurons integration during adult neurogenesis, including correct neuron positioning, dendritic development and synapse formation (By similarity). Signals downstream of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI(3)K) to mediate the effects of various growth factors such as platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF), epidermal growth factor (EGF), insulin and insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I). AKT mediates the antiapoptotic effects of IGF-I (By similarity). Essential for the SPATA13-mediated regulation of cell migration and adhesion assembly and disassembly. May be involved in the regulation of the placental development (By similarity). Phosphorylates STK4/MST1 at 'Thr-120' and 'Thr-387' leading to inhibition of its: kinase activity, nuclear translocation, autophosphorylation and ability to phosphorylate FOXO3. Phosphorylates STK3/MST2 at 'Thr-117' and 'Thr-384' leading to inhibition of its: cleavage, kinase activity, autophosphorylation at Thr-180, binding to RASSF1 and nuclear translocation. Phosphorylates SRPK2 and enhances its kinase activity towards SRSF2 and ACIN1 and promotes its nuclear translocation. Phosphorylates RAF1 at 'Ser-259' and negatively regulates its activity. Phosphorylation of BAD stimulates its pro-apoptotic activity. Phosphorylates KAT6A at 'Thr-369' and this phosphorylation inhibits the interaction of KAT6A with PML and negatively regulates its acetylation activity towards p53/TP53. Phosphorylates palladin (PALLD), modulating cytoskeletal organization and cell motility. Phosphorylates prohibitin (PHB), playing an important role in cell metabolism and proliferation. Phosphorylates CDKN1A, for which phosphorylation at 'Thr-145' induces its release from CDK2 and cytoplasmic relocalization. These recent findings indicate that the AKT1 isoform has a more specific role in cell motility and proliferation. Phosphorylates CLK2 thereby controlling cell survival to ionizing radiation. Phosphorylates PCK1 at 'Ser-90', reducing the binding affinity of PCK1 to oxaloacetate and changing PCK1 into an atypical protein kinase activity using GTP as donor. Also acts as an activator of TMEM175 potassium channel activity in response to growth factors: forms the lysoK(GF) complex together with TMEM175 and acts by promoting TMEM175 channel activation, independently of its protein kinase activity.

AKT2 is one of 3 closely related serine/threonine-protein kinases (AKT1, AKT2 and AKT3) called the AKT kinase, and which regulate many processes including metabolism, proliferation, cell survival, growth and angiogenesis. This is mediated through serine and/or threonine phosphorylation of a range of downstream substrates. Over 100 substrate candidates have been reported so far, but for most of them, no isoform specificity has been reported. AKT is responsible of the regulation of glucose uptake by mediating insulin-induced translocation of the SLC2A4/GLUT4 glucose transporter to the cell surface. Phosphorylation of PTPN1 at 'Ser-50' negatively modulates its phosphatase activity preventing dephosphorylation of the insulin receptor and the attenuation of insulin signaling. Phosphorylation of TBC1D4 triggers the binding of this effector to inhibitory 14-3-3 proteins, which is required for insulin-stimulated glucose transport. AKT regulates also the storage of glucose in the form of glycogen by phosphorylating GSK3A at 'Ser-21' and GSK3B at 'Ser-9', resulting in inhibition of its kinase activity. Phosphorylation of GSK3 isoforms by AKT is also thought to be one mechanism by which cell proliferation is driven. AKT regulates also cell survival via the phosphorylation of MAP3K5 (apoptosis signal-related kinase). Phosphorylation of 'Ser-83' decreases MAP3K5 kinase activity stimulated by oxidative stress and thereby prevents apoptosis. AKT mediates insulin-stimulated protein synthesis by phosphorylating TSC2 at 'Ser-939' and 'Thr-1462', thereby activating mTORC1 signaling and leading to both phosphorylation of 4E- BP1 and in activation of RPS6KB1. AKT is involved in the phosphorylation of members of the FOXO factors (Forkhead family of transcription factors), leading to binding of 14-3-3 proteins and cytoplasmic localization. In particular, FOXO1 is phosphorylated at 'Thr-24', 'Ser-256' and 'Ser-319'. FOXO3 and FOXO4 are phosphorylated on equivalent sites. AKT has an important role in the regulation of NF- kappa-B-dependent gene transcription and positively regulates the activity of CREB1 (cyclic AMP (cAMP)-response element binding protein). The phosphorylation of CREB1 induces the binding of accessory proteins that are necessary for the transcription of pro-survival genes such as BCL2 and MCL1. AKT phosphorylates 'Ser-454' on ATP citrate lyase (ACLY), thereby potentially regulating ACLY activity and fatty acid synthesis. Activates the 3B isoform of cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase (PDE3B) via phosphorylation of 'Ser-273', resulting in reduced cyclic AMP levels and inhibition of lipolysis. Phosphorylates PIKFYVE on 'Ser-318', which results in increased PI(3)P- 5 activity. The Rho GTPase-activating protein DLC1 is another substrate and its phosphorylation is implicated in the regulation cell proliferation and cell growth. AKT plays a role as key modulator of the AKT-mTOR signaling pathway controlling the tempo of the process of newborn neurons integration during adult neurogenesis, including correct neuron positioning, dendritic development and synapse formation. Signals downstream of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI(3)K) to mediate the effects of various growth factors such as platelet- derived growth factor (PDGF), epidermal growth factor (EGF), insulin and insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I). AKT mediates the antiapoptotic effects of IGF-I. Essential for the SPATA13-mediated regulation of cell migration and adhesion assembly and disassembly. May be involved in the regulation of the placental development

AKT3 is one of 3 closely related serine/threonine-protein kinases (AKT1, AKT2 and AKT3) called the AKT kinase, and which regulate many processes including metabolism, proliferation, cell survival, growth and angiogenesis. This is mediated through serine and/or threonine phosphorylation of a range of downstream substrates. Over 100 substrate candidates have been reported so far, but for most of them, no isoform specificity has been reported. AKT3 is the least studied AKT isoform. It plays an important role in brain development and is crucial for the viability of malignant glioma cells. AKT3 isoform may also be the key molecule in up-regulation and down-regulation of MMP13 via IL13. Required for the coordination of mitochondrial biogenesis with growth factor-induced increases in cellular energy demands. Down- regulation by RNA interference reduces the expression of the phosphorylated form of BAD, resulting in the induction of caspase- dependent apoptosis.

Component of the FTS/Hook/FHIP complex (FHF complex). The FHF complex may function to promote vesicle trafficking and/or fusion via the homotypic vesicular protein sorting complex (the HOPS complex). Regulates apoptosis by enhancing phosphorylation and activation of AKT1. Increases release of TNFSF6 via the AKT1/GSK3B/NFATC1 signaling cascade. FHF complex promotes the distribution of AP-4 complex to the perinuclear area of the cell.

Subunit of mTORC1, which regulates cell growth and survival in response to nutrient and hormonal signals. mTORC1 is activated in response to growth factors or amino acids. Growth factor-stimulated mTORC1 activation involves a AKT1-mediated phosphorylation of TSC1- TSC2, which leads to the activation of the RHEB GTPase that potently activates the protein kinase activity of mTORC1. Amino acid-signaling to mTORC1 requires its relocalization to the lysosomes mediated by the Ragulator complex and the Rag GTPases. Activated mTORC1 up-regulates protein synthesis by phosphorylating key regulators of mRNA translation and ribosome synthesis. mTORC1 phosphorylates EIF4EBP1 and releases it from inhibiting the elongation initiation factor 4E (eiF4E). mTORC1 phosphorylates and activates S6K1 at 'Thr-389', which then promotes protein synthesis by phosphorylating PDCD4 and targeting it for degradation. Within mTORC1, AKT1S1 negatively regulates mTOR activity in a manner that is dependent on its phosphorylation state and binding to 14-3-3 proteins. Inhibits RHEB-GTP-dependent mTORC1 activation. Substrate for AKT1 phosphorylation, but can also be activated by AKT1- independent mechanisms. May also play a role in nerve growth factor- mediated neuroprotection.

Through its interaction with ARL14 and MYO1E, may connect MHC class II-containing cytoplasmic vesicles to the actin network and hence controls the movement of these vesicles along the actin cytoskeleton in dendritic cells.

Cytosolic dehydrogenase that catalyzes the irreversible oxidation of a wide range of aldehydes to their corresponding carboxylic acid. Functions downstream of retinol dehydrogenases and catalyzes the oxidation of retinaldehyde into retinoic acid, the second step in the oxidation of retinol/vitamin A into retinoic acid (By similarity). This pathway is crucial to control the levels of retinol and retinoic acid, two important molecules which excess can be teratogenic and cytotoxic (By similarity). Also oxidizes aldehydes resulting from lipid peroxidation like (E)-4-hydroxynon-2-enal/HNE, malonaldehyde and hexanal that form protein adducts and are highly cytotoxic. By participating for instance to the clearance of (E)-4-hydroxynon-2-enal/HNE in the lens epithelium prevents the formation of HNE-protein adducts and lens opacification. Functions also downstream of fructosamine-3-kinase in the fructosamine degradation pathway by catalyzing the oxidation of 3-deoxyglucosone, the carbohydrate product of fructosamine 3-phosphate decomposition, which is itself a potent glycating agent that may react with lysine and arginine side-chains of proteins. Has also an aminobutyraldehyde dehydrogenase activity and is probably part of an alternative pathway for the biosynthesis of GABA/4-aminobutanoate in midbrain, thereby playing a role in GABAergic synaptic transmission (By similarity).

Converts retinaldehyde to retinoic acid. Recognizes as substrates free retinal and cellular retinol-binding protein-bound retinal. Can metabolize octanal and decanal, but has only very low activity with benzaldehyde, acetaldehyde and propanal. Displays complete lack of activity with citral (By similarity).

NAD-dependent aldehyde dehydrogenase that catalyzes the formation of retinoic acid. Has high activity with all-trans retinal, and has much lower in vitro activity with acetaldehyde. Required for the biosynthesis of normal levels of retinoic acid in the embryonic ocular and nasal regions; retinoic acid is required for normal embryonic development of the eye and the nasal region (By similarity).

ALDHs play a major role in the detoxification of alcohol- derived acetaldehyde. They are involved in the metabolism of corticosteroids, biogenic amines, neurotransmitters, and lipid peroxidation

Cytosolic 10-formyltetrahydrofolate dehydrogenase that catalyzes the NADP(+)-dependent conversion of 10-formyltetrahydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate and carbon dioxide. May also have an NADP(+)-dependent aldehyde dehydrogenase activity towards formaldehyde, acetaldehyde, propionaldehyde, and benzaldehyde (By similarity).

Mitochondrial 10-formyltetrahydrofolate dehydrogenase that catalyzes the NADP(+)-dependent conversion of 10-formyltetrahydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate and carbon dioxide.

Acts as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for Rab5 GTPase. Regulates the ALS2-mediated endosome dynamics.

ALDHs play a major role in the detoxification of alcohol- derived acetaldehyde (Probable). They are involved in the metabolism of corticosteroids, biogenic amines, neurotransmitters, and lipid peroxidation (Probable). Oxidizes medium and long chain aldehydes into non-toxic fatty acids. Preferentially oxidizes aromatic aldehyde substrates. Comprises about 50 percent of corneal epithelial soluble proteins (By similarity). May play a role in preventing corneal damage caused by ultraviolet light (By similarity).

Catalyzes the oxidation of medium and long chain aliphatic aldehydes to fatty acids. Active on a variety of saturated and unsaturated aliphatic aldehydes between 6 and 24 carbons in length. Responsible for conversion of the sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P) degradation product hexadecenal to hexadecenoic acid.

Oxidizes medium and long chain saturated and unsaturated aldehydes. Metabolizes also benzaldehyde. Low activity towards acetaldehyde and 3,4-dihydroxyphenylacetaldehyde. May not metabolize short chain aldehydes. Can use both NADP(+) and NAD(+) as electron acceptor. May have a protective role against the cytotoxicity induced by lipid peroxidation.

Oxidizes medium and long chain aldehydes into non-toxic fatty acids.

Irreversible conversion of delta-1-pyrroline-5-carboxylate (P5C), derived either from proline or ornithine, to glutamate. This is a necessary step in the pathway interconnecting the urea and tricarboxylic acid cycles. The preferred substrate is glutamic gamma- semialdehyde, other substrates include succinic, glutaric and adipic semialdehydes.

Required for leukotriene biosynthesis by ALOX5 (5- lipoxygenase). Anchors ALOX5 to the membrane. Binds arachidonic acid, and could play an essential role in the transfer of arachidonic acid to ALOX5. Binds to MK-886, a compound that blocks the biosynthesis of leukotrienes.

Multifunctional enzyme mediating important protective effects. Metabolizes betaine aldehyde to betaine, an important cellular osmolyte and methyl donor. Protects cells from oxidative stress by metabolizing a number of lipid peroxidation-derived aldehydes. Involved in lysine catabolism.

Catalyzes the NAD-dependent oxidation of 2-aminomuconic semialdehyde of the kynurenine metabolic pathway in L-tryptophan degradation.

Converts gamma-trimethylaminobutyraldehyde into gamma- butyrobetaine with high efficiency (in vitro). Can catalyze the irreversible oxidation of a broad range of aldehydes to the corresponding acids in an NAD-dependent reaction, but with low efficiency.

Catalyzes the reversible transamination between alanine and 2-oxoglutarate to form pyruvate and glutamate. Participates in cellular nitrogen metabolism and also in liver gluconeogenesis starting with precursors transported from skeletal muscles (By similarity).

Catalyzes the reversible transamination between alanine and 2-oxoglutarate to form pyruvate and glutamate.

Binds water, Ca(2+), Na(+), K(+), fatty acids, hormones, bilirubin and drugs (Probable). Its main function is the regulation of the colloidal osmotic pressure of blood (Probable). Major zinc transporter in plasma, typically binds about 80% of all plasma zinc. Major calcium and magnesium transporter in plasma, binds approximately 45% of circulating calcium and magnesium in plasma (By similarity). Potentially has more than two calcium-binding sites and might additionally bind calcium in a non-specific manner (By similarity). The shared binding site between zinc and calcium at residue Asp-273 suggests a crosstalk between zinc and calcium transport in the blood (By similarity). The rank order of affinity is zinc > calcium > magnesium (By similarity). Binds to the bacterial siderophore enterobactin and inhibits enterobactin-mediated iron uptake of E.coli from ferric transferrin, and may thereby limit the utilization of iron and growth of enteric bacteria such as E.coli. Does not prevent iron uptake by the bacterial siderophore aerobactin.

Required for clearance of cellular formaldehyde, a cytotoxic and carcinogenic metabolite that induces DNA damage.

Catalyzes the reversible conversion of beta-D-fructose 1,6- bisphosphate (FBP) into two triose phosphate and plays a key role in glycolysis and gluconeogenesis. In addition, may also function as scaffolding protein (By similarity).

Catalyzes the NADPH-dependent reduction of a wide variety of carbonyl-containing compounds to their corresponding alcohols. Displays enzymatic activity towards endogenous metabolites such as aromatic and aliphatic aldehydes, ketones, monosacharides, bile acids and xenobiotics substrates. Key enzyme in the polyol pathway, catalyzes reduction of glucose to sorbitol during hyperglycemia. Reduces steroids and their derivatives and prostaglandins. Displays low enzymatic activity toward all-trans-retinal, 9-cis-retinal, and 13-cis- retinal. Catalyzes the reduction of diverse phospholipid aldehydes such as 1-palmitoyl-2- (5-oxovaleroyl)-sn -glycero-3-phosphoethanolamin (POVPC) and related phospholipid aldehydes that are generated from the oxydation of phosphotidylcholine and phosphatdyleethanolamides. Plays a role in detoxifying dietary and lipid-derived unsaturated carbonyls, such as crotonaldehyde, 4-hydroxynonenal, trans-2-hexenal, trans-2,4-hexadienal and their glutathione-conjugates carbonyls (GS- carbonyls).

Mannosyltransferase involved in the last steps of the synthesis of Man5GlcNAc(2)-PP-dolichol core oligosaccharide on the cytoplasmic face of the endoplasmic reticulum. Catalyzes the addition of the 4th and 5th mannose residues to the dolichol-linked oligosaccharide chain.

Adds the eighth mannose residue in an alpha-1,6 linkage onto the dolichol-PP-oligosaccharide precursor (dolichol-PP-Man(7)GlcNAc(2)) required for protein glycosylation

[Isoform 1]: Possible multifunctional enzyme with both glycosyltransferase and deubiquitinase activities

Involved in protein N-glycosylation. May play a role in the second step of the dolichol-linked oligosaccharide pathway. May anchor the catalytic subunit ALG13 to the ER.

Catalyzes the addition of the first of nine mannose moieties to form a dolichol-lipid linked oligosaccharide intermediate required for proper N-linked glycosylation.

Mannosylates Man(2)GlcNAc(2)-dolichol diphosphate and Man(1)GlcNAc(2)-dolichol diphosphate to form Man(3)GlcNAc(2)-dolichol diphosphate.

Adds the first Dol-P-Man derived mannose in an alpha-1,3 linkage to Man5GlcNAc2-PP-Dol.

Adds the first glucose residue to the lipid-linked oligosaccharide precursor for N-linked glycosylation. Transfers glucose from dolichyl phosphate glucose (Dol-P-Glc) onto the lipid-linked oligosaccharide Man(9)GlcNAc(2)-PP-Dol

Adds the second glucose residue to the lipid-linked oligosaccharide precursor for N-linked glycosylation. Transfers glucose from dolichyl phosphate glucose (Dol-P-Glc) onto the lipid-linked oligosaccharide Glc(1)Man(9)GlcNAc(2)-PP-Dol before it is transferred to the nascent peptide (By similarity). Required for PKD1/Polycystin-1 maturation and localization to the plasma membrane of the primary cilia (By similarity).

Catalyzes the transfer of mannose from Dol-P-Man to lipid- linked oligosaccharides.

Dioxygenase that acts as on nucleic acids, such as DNA and tRNA. Requires molecular oxygen, alpha-ketoglutarate and iron. A number of activities have been described for this dioxygenase, but recent results suggest that it mainly acts as on tRNAs and mediates their demethylation or oxidation depending on the context and subcellular compartment. Mainly acts as a tRNA demethylase by removing N(1)-methyladenine from various tRNAs, with a preference for N(1)-methyladenine at position 58 (m1A58) present on a stem loop structure of tRNAs. Acts as a regulator of translation initiation and elongation in response to glucose deprivation: regulates both translation initiation, by mediating demethylation of tRNA(Met), and translation elongation, N(1)- methyladenine-containing tRNAs being preferentially recruited to polysomes to promote translation elongation. In mitochondrion, specifically interacts with mt-tRNA(Met) and mediates oxidation of mt-tRNA(Met) methylated at cytosine(34) to form 5- formylcytosine (f(5)c) at this position. mt-tRNA(Met) containing the f(5)c modification at the wobble position enables recognition of the AUA codon in addition to the AUG codon, expanding codon recognition in mitochondrial translation. Specifically demethylates DNA methylated on the 6th position of adenine (N(6)-methyladenosine) DNA. N(6)- methyladenosine (m6A) DNA is present at some L1 elements in embryonic stem cells and probably promotes their silencing (By similarity). Demethylates mRNAs containing N(3)-methylcytidine modification. Also able to repair alkylated single-stranded DNA by oxidative demethylation, but with low activity. Also has DNA lyase activity and introduces double-stranded breaks at abasic sites: cleaves both single-stranded DNA and double-stranded DNA at abasic sites, with the greatest activity towards double-stranded DNA with two abasic sites. DNA lyase activity does not require alpha-ketboglutarate and iron and leads to the formation of an irreversible covalent protein-DNA adduct with the 5' DNA product. DNA lyase activity is not required during base excision repair and class switch recombination of the immunoglobulin heavy chain during B lymphocyte activation. May play a role in placental trophoblast lineage differentiation (By similarity).

Dioxygenase that repairs alkylated nucleic acid bases by direct reversal oxidative dealkylation. Can process both double- stranded (ds) and single-stranded (ss) DNA substrates, with a strong preference for dsDNA. Uses molecular oxygen, 2-oxoglutarate and iron as cofactors to oxidize the alkyl groups that are subsequently released as aldehydes, regenerating the undamaged bases. Probes the base pair stability, locates a weakened base pair and flips the damaged base to accommodate the lesion in its active site for efficient catalysis. Repairs monoalkylated bases, specifically N1- methyladenine and N3-methylcytosine, as well as higher order alkyl adducts such as bases modified with exocyclic bridged adducts known as etheno adducts including 1,N6-ethenoadenine, 3,N4-ethenocytosine and 1,N2-ethenoguanine. Acts as a gatekeeper of genomic integrity under alkylation stress. Efficiently repairs alkylated lesions in ribosomal DNA (rDNA). These lesions can cause ss- and dsDNA strand breaks that severely impair rDNA transcription. In a response mechanism to DNA damage, associates with PCNA at replication forks to repair alkylated adducts prior to replication.

Dioxygenase that mediates demethylation of DNA and RNA containing 1-methyladenosine (m1A). Repairs alkylated DNA containing 1-methyladenosine (m1A) and 3-methylcytosine (m3C) by oxidative demethylation. Has a strong preference for single- stranded DNA. Able to process alkylated m3C within double-stranded regions via its interaction with ASCC3, which promotes DNA unwinding to generate single-stranded substrate needed for ALKBH3. Can repair exocyclic 3,N4-ethenocytosine adducs in single-stranded DNA. Also acts on RNA. Demethylates N(1)- methyladenosine (m1A) RNA, an epigenetic internal modification of messenger RNAs (mRNAs) highly enriched within 5'-untranslated regions (UTRs) and in the vicinity of start codons. Requires molecular oxygen, alpha-ketoglutarate and iron.

Dioxygenase that mediates demethylation of actin monomethylated at 'Lys-84' (K84me1), thereby acting as a regulator of actomyosin-processes. Demethylation of actin K84me1 is required for maintaining actomyosin dynamics supporting normal cleavage furrow ingression during cytokinesis and cell migration. In addition to proteins, also demethylates DNA: specifically demethylates DNA methylated on the 6th position of adenine (N(6)-methyladenosine) DNA, thereby regulating Polycomb silencing (By similarity).

Dioxygenase that demethylates RNA by oxidative demethylation: specifically demethylates N(6)-methyladenosine (m6A) RNA, the most prevalent internal modification of messenger RNA (mRNA) in higher eukaryotes. Can also demethylate N(6)-methyladenosine in single- stranded DNA (in vitro). Requires molecular oxygen, alpha-ketoglutarate and iron. Demethylation of m6A mRNA affects mRNA processing and export. Required for the late meiotic and haploid phases of spermatogenesis by mediating m6A demethylation in spermatocytes and round spermatids: m6A demethylation of target transcripts is required for correct splicing and the production of longer 3'-UTR mRNAs in male germ cells (By similarity).

Probable dioxygenase that requires molecular oxygen, alpha- ketoglutarate and iron.

May function as protein hydroxylase; can catalyze auto- hydroxylation at Leu-110 (in vitro), but this activity may be due to the absence of the true substrate. Required to induce programmed necrosis in response to DNA damage caused by cytotoxic alkylating agents. Acts by triggering the collapse of mitochondrial membrane potential and loss of mitochondrial function that leads to energy depletion and cell death. ALKBH7-mediated necrosis is probably required to prevent the accumulation of cells with DNA damage. Does not display DNA demethylase activity. Involved in fatty acid metabolism (By similarity).

Catalyzes the methylation of 5-carboxymethyl uridine to 5- methylcarboxymethyl uridine at the wobble position of the anticodon loop in tRNA via its methyltransferase domain. Catalyzes the last step in the formation of 5-methylcarboxymethyl uridine at the wobble position of the anticodon loop in target tRNA. Has a preference for tRNA(Arg) and tRNA(Glu), and does not bind tRNA(Lys)(PubMed:20308323). Binds tRNA and catalyzes the iron and alpha-ketoglutarate dependent hydroxylation of 5-methylcarboxymethyl uridine at the wobble position of the anticodon loop in tRNA via its dioxygenase domain, giving rise to 5-(S)- methoxycarbonylhydroxymethyluridine; has a preference for tRNA(Gly). Required for normal survival after DNA damage. May inhibit apoptosis and promote cell survival and angiogenesis.

Cytokine that acts as a physiological ligand for receptor tyrosine kinase LTK, leading to its activation. Monomeric ALKAL1 binds to LTK, leading to LTK homodimerization and activation. In contrast to ALKAL2, does not act as a potent physiological ligand for ALK.

Cytokine that acts as a physiological ligand for receptor tyrosine kinases LTK and ALK, leading to their activation. Cytokine-binding is sufficient to activate LTK. In contrast, ALKAL2-driven activation of ALK is coupled with heparin-binding to ALK. Stimulation of ALK signaling is involved in neural development and regulation of energy expenditure.

Glyceryl-ether monooxygenase that cleaves the O-alkyl bond of ether lipids. Ether lipids are essential components of brain membranes.

Neuronal receptor tyrosine kinase that is essentially and transiently expressed in specific regions of the central and peripheral nervous systems and plays an important role in the genesis and differentiation of the nervous system. Also acts as a key thinness protein involved in the resistance to weight gain: in hypothalamic neurons, controls energy expenditure acting as a negative regulator of white adipose tissue lipolysis and sympathetic tone to fine-tune energy homeostasis (By similarity). Following activation by ALKAL2 ligand at the cell surface, transduces an extracellular signal into an intracellular response. In contrast, ALKAL1 is not a potent physiological ligand for ALK. Ligand-binding to the extracellular domain induces tyrosine kinase activation, leading to activation of the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) pathway. Phosphorylates almost exclusively at the first tyrosine of the Y-x-x-x-Y-Y motif. Induces tyrosine phosphorylation of CBL, FRS2, IRS1 and SHC1, as well as of the MAP kinases MAPK1/ERK2 and MAPK3/ERK1. ALK activation may also be regulated by pleiotrophin (PTN) and midkine (MDK). PTN-binding induces MAPK pathway activation, which is important for the anti-apoptotic signaling of PTN and regulation of cell proliferation. MDK-binding induces phosphorylation of the ALK target insulin receptor substrate (IRS1), activates mitogen-activated protein kinases (MAPKs) and PI3-kinase, resulting also in cell proliferation induction. Drives NF-kappa-B activation, probably through IRS1 and the activation of the AKT serine/threonine kinase. Recruitment of IRS1 to activated ALK and the activation of NF-kappa-B are essential for the autocrine growth and survival signaling of MDK.

The function of this enzyme is unclear as allantoicase activity is not known to exist in mammals.

Involved in PCM1-dependent intracellular transport. Required, directly or indirectly, for the localization of NCAPD2 to the proximal ends of centrioles. Required for proper formation and/or maintenance of primary cilia (PC), microtubule-based structures that protrude from the surface of epithelial cells.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that detects bacterial pathogen-associated molecular pattern metabolites (PAMPs) and initiates an innate immune response, a critical step for pathogen elimination and engagement of adaptive immunity. Specifically recognizes and binds ADP-D-glycero-beta- D-manno-heptose (ADP-Heptose), a potent PAMP present in all Gram- negative and some Gram-positive bacteria. ADP- Heptose-binding stimulates its kinase activity to phosphorylate and activate TIFA, triggering pro-inflammatory NF-kappa-B signaling. May be involved in monosodium urate monohydrate (MSU)-induced inflammation by mediating phosphorylation of unconventional myosin MYO9A. May also play a role in apical protein transport by mediating phosphorylation of unconventional myosin MYO1A. May play a role in ciliogenesis.

Protein kinase that recognizes phosphorylation sites in which the surrounding peptides have an alpha-helical conformation. Regulates cardiac development and cardiomyocyte differentiation by negatively regulating Wnt/beta-catenin signaling.

[Isoform 1]: FAD-dependent sulfhydryl oxidase that regenerates the redox-active disulfide bonds in CHCHD4/MIA40, a chaperone essential for disulfide bond formation and protein folding in the mitochondrial intermembrane space. The reduced form of CHCHD4/MIA40 forms a transient intermolecular disulfide bridge with GFER/ERV1, resulting in regeneration of the essential disulfide bonds in CHCHD4/MIA40, while GFER/ERV1 becomes re-oxidized by donating electrons to cytochrome c or molecular oxygen.

May act as a GTPase regulator. Controls survival and growth of spinal motoneurons (By similarity).

Involved in protein-protein interactions that result in protein complexes, receptor-ligand binding or cell adhesion

Sequence-specific DNA-binding transcription factor that binds palindromic sequences within promoters and may activate or repress the transcription of a subset of genes. Most probably regulates the expression of genes involved in the development of mesenchyme-derived craniofacial structures. Early on in development, it plays a role in forebrain mesenchyme survival. May also induce epithelial to mesenchymal transition (EMT) through the expression of SNAI1.

Transcriptional regulator with a possible role in patterning of mesoderm during development.

Transcription factor involved in skull and limb development. Plays an essential role in craniofacial development, skin and hair follicle development.

Catalyzes the interconversion of (R)- and (S)-stereoisomers of alpha-methyl-branched-chain fatty acyl-CoA esters. Acts only on coenzyme A thioesters, not on free fatty acids, and accepts as substrates a wide range of alpha-methylacyl-CoAs, including pristanoyl-CoA, trihydroxycoprostanoyl-CoA (an intermediate in bile acid synthesis), and arylpropionic acids like the anti-inflammatory drug ibuprofen (2- (4-isobutylphenyl)propionic acid) but neither 3-methyl-branched nor linear-chain acyl-CoAs.

Involved in the mineralization and structural organization of enamel

[Alpha-1-microglobulin]: Antioxidant and tissue repair protein with reductase, heme-binding and radical-scavenging activities. Removes and protects against harmful oxidants and repairs macromolecules in intravascular and extravascular spaces and in intracellular compartments. Intravascularly, plays a regulatory role in red cell homeostasis by preventing heme- and reactive oxygen species-induced cell damage. Binds and degrades free heme to protect fetal and adult red blood cells from hemolysis. Reduces extracellular methemoglobin, a Fe3+ (ferric) form of hemoglobin that cannot bind oxygen, back to the Fe2+ (ferrous) form deoxyhemoglobin, which has oxygen-carrying potential. Upon acute inflammation, inhibits oxidation of low- density lipoprotein particles by MPO and limits vascular damage. Extravascularly, protects from oxidation products formed on extracellular matrix structures and cell membranes. Catalyzes the reduction of carbonyl groups on oxidized collagen fibers and preserves cellular and extracellular matrix ultrastructures. Importantly, counteracts the oxidative damage at blood-placenta interface, preventing leakage of free fetal hemoglobin into the maternal circulation. Intracellularly, has a role in maintaining mitochondrial redox homeostasis. Bound to complex I of the respiratory chain of mitochondria, may scavenge free radicals and preserve mitochondrial ATP synthesis. Protects renal tubule epithelial cells from heme-induced oxidative damage to mitochondria. Reduces cytochrome c from Fe3+ (ferric) to the Fe2+ (ferrous) state through formation of superoxide anion radicals in the presence of ascorbate or NADH/NADPH electron donor cofactors, ascorbate being the preferred cofactor. Has a chaperone role in facilitating the correct folding of bikunin in the endoplasmic reticulum compartment (By similarity).

Bifunctional enzyme that catalyzes the post-translational modification of inactive peptidylglycine precursors to the corresponding bioactive alpha-amidated peptides, a terminal modification in biosynthesis of many neural and endocrine peptides. Alpha-amidation involves two sequential reactions, both of which are catalyzed by separate catalytic domains of the enzyme. The first step, catalyzed by peptidyl alpha-hydroxylating monooxygenase (PHM) domain, is the copper-, ascorbate-, and O2- dependent stereospecific hydroxylation (with S stereochemistry) at the alpha-carbon (C-alpha) of the C-terminal glycine of the peptidylglycine substrate. The second step, catalyzed by the peptidylglycine amidoglycolate lyase (PAL) domain, is the zinc- dependent cleavage of the N-C-alpha bond, producing the alpha-amidated peptide and glyoxylate. Similarly, catalyzes the two- step conversion of an N-fatty acylglycine to a primary fatty acid amide and glyoxylate (By similarity).

Plays a role in biomineralization. Seems to regulate the formation of crystallites during the secretory stage of tooth enamel development. Thought to play a major role in the structural organization and mineralization of developing enamel

Regulator of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway. Acts by specifically binding phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2), translocating to the cell membrane and interacting with key regulators of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway, such as components of the beta-catenin destruction complex. Acts both as a positive and negative regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway, depending on the context: acts as a positive regulator by promoting LRP6 phosphorylation. Also acts as a negative regulator by acting as a scaffold protein for the beta-catenin destruction complex and promoting stabilization of Axin at the cell membrane. Promotes CTNNB1 ubiquitination and degradation. Involved in kidney development.

Negative regulator of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway involved in neuroectodermal patterning. Acts by specifically binding phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2), translocating to the cell membrane and interacting with key regulators of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway, such as components of the beta-catenin destruction complex.

Regulator of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway. Acts by specifically binding phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2), translocating to the cell membrane (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates the polyubiquitination of lysine and cysteine residues on target proteins, such as CD3D, CYP3A4, CFTR, INSIG1, SOAT2/ACAT2 and APOB for proteasomal degradation. Component of a VCP/p97-AMFR/gp78 complex that participates in the final step of endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD). The VCP/p97-AMFR/gp78 complex is involved in the sterol-accelerated ERAD degradation of HMGCR through binding to the HMGCR-INSIG1 complex at the ER membrane. In addition, interaction of AMFR with AUP1 facilitates interaction of AMFR with ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme UBE2G2 and ubiquitin ligase RNF139, leading to sterol-induced HMGCR ubiquitination. The ubiquitinated HMGCR is then released from the ER into the cytosol for subsequent destruction. In addition to ubiquitination on lysine residues, catalyzes ubiquitination on cysteine residues: together with INSIG1, mediates polyubiquitination of SOAT2/ACAT2 at 'Cys-277', leading to its degradation when the lipid levels are low. Catalyzes ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of INSIG1 when cells are depleted of sterols. Mediates polyubiquitination of INSIG2 at 'Cys-215' in some tissues, leading to its degradation. Also regulates ERAD through the ubiquitination of UBL4A a component of the BAG6/BAT3 complex. Also acts as a scaffold protein to assemble a complex that couples ubiquitination, retranslocation and deglycosylation. Mediates tumor invasion and metastasis as a receptor for the GPI/autocrine motility factor. In association with LMBR1L and UBAC2, negatively regulates the canonical Wnt signaling pathway in the lymphocytes by promoting the ubiquitin-mediated degradation of CTNNB1 and Wnt receptors FZD6 and LRP6.

Promotes growth and fasciculation of neurites from cultured hippocampal neurons. May be involved in fasciculation as well as myelination of developing neural axons. May have a role in regeneration as well as neural plasticity in the adult nervous system. May mediate homophilic as well as heterophilic cell-cell interaction and contribute to signal transduction through its intracellular domain. Assembled with KCNB1 modulates the gating characteristics of the delayed rectifier voltage-dependent potassium channel KCNB1.

Required for depolarization-dependent survival of cultured cerebellar granule neurons. May mediate homophilic as well as heterophilic cell-cell interaction with AMIGO1 or AMIGO3. May contribute to signal transduction through its intracellular domain. May be required for tumorigenesis of a subset of gastric adenocarcinomas

May mediate heterophilic cell-cell interaction. May contribute to signal transduction through its intracellular domain (By similarity).

On ligand binding, forms a receptor complex consisting of two type II and two type I transmembrane serine/threonine kinases. Type II receptors phosphorylate and activate type I receptors which autophosphorylate, then bind and activate SMAD transcriptional regulators. Receptor for anti-Muellerian hormone

Membrane-bound component of the endocytic receptor formed by AMN and CUBN. Required for normal CUBN glycosylation and trafficking to the cell surface. The complex formed by AMN and CUBN is required for efficient absorption of vitamin B12. Required for normal CUBN-mediated protein transport in the kidney (Probable).

Inhibits the Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway, probably by recruiting CTNNB1 to recycling endosomes and hence preventing its translocation to the nucleus.

Regulates the translocation of phosphorylated SRC to peripheral cell-matrix adhesion sites. Required for proper architecture of actin filaments. Inhibits the Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway, probably by recruiting CTNNB1 to recycling endosomes and hence preventing its translocation to the nucleus. Participates in angiogenesis. May play a role in the polarity, proliferation and migration of endothelial cells. Selectively promotes FGF-induced MAPK activation through SRC.

Plays a central role in tight junction maintenance via the complex formed with ARHGAP17, which acts by regulating the uptake of polarity proteins at tight junctions. Appears to regulate endothelial cell migration and tube formation. May also play a role in the assembly of endothelial cell-cell junctions.

Exopeptidase which selectively removes arginine and/or lysine residues from the N-terminus of several peptide substrates including Arg(0)-Leu-enkephalin, Arg(0)-Met-enkephalin and Arg(-1)-Lys(0)- somatostatin-14. Can hydrolyze leukotriene A4 (LTA-4) into leukotriene B4 (LTB-4) (By similarity).

Regulates central hypertension through its calcium-modulated preference to cleave N-terminal acidic residues from peptides such as angiotensin II.

May participate in mechanisms of regulated exocytosis in synapses and certain endocrine cell types. May control the properties of the membrane associated cytoskeleton

Cytosolic metallopeptidase that catalyzes the removal of unsubstituted N-terminal hydrophobic amino acids from various peptides. The presence of Zn(2+) ions is essential for the peptidase activity, and the association with other cofactors can modulate the substrate spectificity of the enzyme. For instance, in the presence of Mn(2+), it displays a specific Cys-Gly hydrolyzing activity of Cys-Gly-S- conjugates. Involved in the metabolism of glutathione and in the degradation of glutathione S-conjugates, which may play a role in the control of the cell redox status.

Broad specificity aminopeptidase which plays a role in the final digestion of peptides generated from hydrolysis of proteins by gastric and pancreatic proteases. Also involved in the processing of various peptides including peptide hormones, such as angiotensin III and IV, neuropeptides, and chemokines. May also be involved the cleavage of peptides bound to major histocompatibility complex class II molecules of antigen presenting cells. May have a role in angiogenesis and promote cholesterol crystallization. May have a role in amino acid transport by acting as binding partner of amino acid transporter SLC6A19 and regulating its activity (By similarity).

Aminopeptidase which catalyzes the hydrolysis of amino acid residues from the N-terminus of peptide or protein substrates.

Metalloprotease which may be important for placentation by regulating biological activity of key peptides at the embryo-maternal interface. On synthetic substrates it shows a marked preference for Leu-4-methylcoumaryl-7-amide (Leu-MCA) over Met-MCA, Arg-LCA and Lys- LCA. Cleaves the N-terminal amino acid of several peptides such as angiotensin-3, kisspeptin-10 and endokinin C.

Substrate-recognition component of a DCX (DDB1-CUL4-X-box) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex involved in cell cycle control and autophagy. The DCX(AMBRA1) complex specifically mediates the polyubiquitination of target proteins such as BECN1, CCND1, CCND2, CCND3, ELOC and ULK1. Acts as an upstream master regulator of the transition from G1 to S cell phase: AMBRA1 specifically recognizes and binds phosphorylated cyclin-D (CCND1, CCND2 and CCND3), leading to cyclin-D ubiquitination by the DCX(AMBRA1) complex and subsequent degradation. By controlling the transition from G1 to S phase and cyclin-D degradation, AMBRA1 acts as a tumor suppressor that promotes genomic integrity during DNA replication and counteracts developmental abnormalities and tumor growth. AMBRA1 also regulates the cell cycle by promoting MYC dephosphorylation and degradation independently of the DCX(AMBRA1) complex: acts via interaction with the catalytic subunit of protein phosphatase 2A (PPP2CA), which enhances interaction between PPP2CA and MYC, leading to MYC dephosphorylation and degradation. Acts as a regulator of Cul5-RING (CRL5) E3 ubiquitin- protein ligase complexes by mediating ubiquitination and degradation of Elongin-C (ELOC) component of CRL5 complexes. Acts as a key regulator of autophagy by modulating the BECN1-PIK3C3 complex: controls protein turnover during neuronal development, and regulates normal cell survival and proliferation. In normal conditions, AMBRA1 is tethered to the cytoskeleton via interaction with dyneins DYNLL1 and DYNLL2. Upon autophagy induction, AMBRA1 is released from the cytoskeletal docking site to induce autophagosome nucleation by mediating ubiquitination of proteins involved in autophagy. The DCX(AMBRA1) complex mediates 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of BECN1, increasing the association between BECN1 and PIK3C3 to promote PIK3C3 activity (By similarity). In collaboration with TRAF6, AMBRA1 mediates 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of ULK1 following autophagy induction, promoting ULK1 stability and kinase activity. Also activates ULK1 via interaction with TRIM32: TRIM32 stimulates ULK1 through unanchored 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Also acts as an activator of mitophagy via interaction with PRKN and LC3 proteins (MAP1LC3A, MAP1LC3B or MAP1LC3C); possibly by bringing damaged mitochondria onto autophagosomes. Also activates mitophagy by acting as a cofactor for HUWE1; acts by promoting HUWE1- mediated ubiquitination of MFN2. AMBRA1 is also involved in regulatory T-cells (Treg) differentiation by promoting FOXO3 dephosphorylation independently of the DCX(AMBRA1) complex: acts via interaction with PPP2CA, which enhances interaction between PPP2CA and FOXO3, leading to FOXO3 dephosphorylation and stabilization. May act as a regulator of intracellular trafficking, regulating the localization of active PTK2/FAK and SRC (By similarity). Also involved in transcription regulation by acting as a scaffold for protein complexes at chromatin (By similarity).

Molecular chaperone for LDL receptor-related proteins that may regulate their ligand binding activity along the secretory pathway.

Is a promoter of calcium phosphate mineralization, playing a critical role in the formation of the compact, mineralized, aprismatic enamel surface layer during the maturation stage of amelogenesis.

Calcium-binding enzyme that initiates starch digestion in the oral cavity. Catalyzes the hydrolysis of internal (1->4)-alpha-D-glucosidic bonds, yielding a mixture of maltose, isomaltose, small amounts of glucose as well as small linear and branched oligosaccharides called dextrins.

Ubiquitin-binding protein that specifically recognizes and binds 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin. Does not bind 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitin. Positively regulates the internalization of ligand-activated EGFR by binding to the Ub moiety of ubiquitinated EGFR at the cell membrane.

Acts as a molecular chaperone for G protein-coupled receptors, regulating their biogenesis and exit from the ER.

Multifunctional protein that is involved in the regulation of many processes including tumor suppression, apoptosis, cell cycle progression or transcription. Promotes apoptosis by favouring the activation of caspase-9/CASP9 and allowing apoptosome formation. In addition, plays a role in the modulation of histone acetylation and transcription as part of the INHAT (inhibitor of histone acetyltransferases) complex. Inhibits the histone- acetyltranferase activity of EP300/CREBBP (CREB-binding protein) and EP300/CREBBP-associated factor by histone masking. Preferentially binds to unmodified histone H3 and sterically inhibiting its acetylation and phosphorylation leading to cell growth inhibition. Participates in other biochemical processes such as regulation of mRNA nuclear-to-cytoplasmic translocation and stability by its association with ELAVL1 (Hu-antigen R). Plays a role in E4F1-mediated transcriptional repression as well as inhibition of protein phosphatase 2A.

Multifunctional protein that is involved in the regulation of many processes including cell proliferation, apoptosis, cell cycle progression or transcription. Regulates the proliferation of neuronal stem cells, differentiation of leukemic cells and progression from G1 to S phase of the cell cycle. As negative regulator of caspase-3-dependent apoptosis, may act as an antagonist of ANP32A in regulating tissue homeostasis. Exhibits histone chaperone properties, able to recruit histones to certain promoters, thus regulating the transcription of specific genes. Also plays an essential role in the nucleocytoplasmic transport of specific mRNAs via the uncommon nuclear mRNA export receptor XPO1/CRM1. Participates in the regulation of adequate adaptive immune responses by acting on mRNA expression and cell proliferation (By similarity).

Histone chaperone that specifically mediates the genome-wide removal of histone H2A.Z/H2AZ1 from the nucleosome: removes H2A.Z/H2AZ1 from its normal sites of deposition, especially from enhancer and insulator regions. Not involved in deposition of H2A.Z/H2AZ1 in the nucleosome. May stabilize the evicted H2A.Z/H2AZ1-H2B dimer, thus shifting the equilibrium towards dissociation and the off-chromatin state. Inhibits activity of protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A). Does not inhibit protein phosphatase 1. May play a role in cerebellar development and synaptogenesis.

Together with the RING-H2 protein ANAPC11, constitutes the catalytic component of the anaphase promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C), a cell cycle-regulated E3 ubiquitin ligase that controls progression through mitosis and the G1 phase of the cell cycle. The APC/C complex acts by mediating ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of target proteins: it mainly mediates the formation of 'Lys-11'-linked polyubiquitin chains and, to a lower extent, the formation of 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. The CDC20-APC/C complex positively regulates the formation of synaptic vesicle clustering at active zone to the presynaptic membrane in postmitotic neurons. CDC20-APC/C-induced degradation of NEUROD2 drives presynaptic differentiation.

Key regulator of abscission step in cytokinesis: part of the cytokinesis checkpoint, a process required to delay abscission to prevent both premature resolution of intercellular chromosome bridges and accumulation of DNA damage. Together with CHMP4C, required to retain abscission-competent VPS4 (VPS4A and/or VPS4B) at the midbody ring until abscission checkpoint signaling is terminated at late cytokinesis. Deactivation of AURKB results in dephosphorylation of CHMP4C followed by its dissociation from ZFYVE19/ANCHR and VPS4 and subsequent abscission.

Steroid hormone receptors are ligand-activated transcription factors that regulate eukaryotic gene expression and affect cellular proliferation and differentiation in target tissues. Transcription factor activity is modulated by bound coactivator and corepressor proteins like ZBTB7A that recruits NCOR1 and NCOR2 to the androgen response elements/ARE on target genes, negatively regulating androgen receptor signaling and androgen-induced cell proliferation. Transcription activation is also down-regulated by NR0B2. Activated, but not phosphorylated, by HIPK3 and ZIPK/DAPK3.

[Brain natriuretic peptide 32]: Cardiac hormone that plays a key role in mediating cardio-renal homeostasis. May also function as a paracrine antifibrotic factor in the heart (By similarity). Acts by specifically binding and stimulating NPR1 to produce cGMP, which in turn activates effector proteins that drive various biological responses. Involved in regulating the extracellular fluid volume and maintaining the fluid- electrolyte balance through natriuresis, diuresis, vasorelaxation, and inhibition of renin and aldosterone secretion. Binds the clearance receptor NPR3.

[CNP-22]: Hormone which plays a role in endochondral ossification through regulation of cartilaginous growth plate chondrocytes proliferation and differentiation (By similarity). May also be vasoactive and natriuretic. Acts by specifically binding and stimulating NPR2 to produce cGMP. Binds the clearance receptor NPR3.

Proposed effector of Rab5. Binds to phosphatidylinositol 3- phosphate (PI(3)P). Involved in homotypic early endosome fusion and to a lesser extent in heterotypic fusion of chlathrin-coated vesicles with early endosomes. Involved in macropinocytosis; the function is dependent on Rab5-GTP. Required for correct endosomal localization. Involved in the internalization and trafficking of activated tyrosine kinase receptors such as PDGFRB. Regulates the subcellular localization of the retromer complex in a EHD1-dependent manner. Involved in endosome-to-Golgi transport and biosynthetic transport to late endosomes and lysosomes indicative for a regulation of retromer complex-mediated retrograde transport.

[Atrial natriuretic peptide]: Hormone that plays a key role in mediating cardio-renal homeostasis, and is involved in vascular remodeling and regulating energy metabolism. Acts by specifically binding and stimulating NPR1 to produce cGMP, which in turn activates effector proteins, such as PRKG1, that drive various biological responses. Regulates vasodilation, natriuresis, diuresis and aldosterone synthesis and is therefore essential for regulating blood pressure, controlling the extracellular fluid volume and maintaining the fluid-electrolyte balance. Also involved in inhibiting cardiac remodeling and cardiac hypertrophy by inducing cardiomyocyte apoptosis and attenuating the growth of cardiomyocytes and fibroblasts. Plays a role in female pregnancy by promoting trophoblast invasion and spiral artery remodeling in uterus, and thus prevents pregnancy-induced hypertension (By similarity). In adipose tissue, acts in various cGMP- and PKG-dependent pathways to regulate lipid metabolism and energy homeostasis. This includes up-regulating lipid metabolism and mitochondrial oxygen utilization by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), and increasing energy expenditure by acting via MAPK11 to promote the UCP1-dependent thermogenesis of brown adipose tissue. Binds the clearance receptor NPR3 which removes the hormone from circulation.

Ribonuclease that cleaves tRNA within anticodon loops to produce tRNA-derived stress-induced fragments (tiRNAs) which inhibit protein synthesis and triggers the assembly of stress granules (SGs). Binds to actin on the surface of endothelial cells; once bound, angiogenin is endocytosed and translocated to the nucleus. Stimulates ribosomal RNA synthesis including that containing the initiation site sequences of 45S rRNA. Angiogenin induces vascularization of normal and malignant tissues. Angiogenic activity is regulated by interaction with RNH1 in vivo.

Induces sprouting in endothelial cells through an autocrine and paracrine action

Acts in part as a hepatokine that is involved in regulation of lipid and glucose metabolism. Proposed to play a role in the trafficking of energy substrates to either storage or oxidative tissues in response to food intake (By similarity). Has a stimulatory effect on plasma triglycerides (TG), which is achieved by suppressing plasma TG clearance via inhibition of LPL activity. The inhibition of LPL activity appears to be an indirect mechanism involving recruitment of proprotein convertases PCSK6 and FURIN to LPL leading to cleavage and dissociation of LPL from the cell surface; the function does not require ANGPTL3 proteolytic cleavage but seems to be mediated by the N- terminal domain, and is not inhibited by GPIHBP1. Can inhibit endothelial lipase, causing increased plasma levels of high density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol and phospholipids. Can bind to adipocytes to activate lipolysis, releasing free fatty acids and glycerol. Suppresses LPL specifically in oxidative tissues which is required to route very low density lipoprotein (VLDL)-TG to white adipose tissue (WAT) for storage in response to food; the function may involve cooperation with circulating, liver-derived ANGPTL8 and ANGPTL4 expression in WAT (By similarity). Contributes to lower plasma levels of low density lipoprotein (LDL)-cholesterol by a mechanism that is independent of the canonical pathway implicating APOE and LDLR. May stimulate hypothalamic LPL activity (By similarity).

Mediates inactivation of the lipoprotein lipase LPL, and thereby plays a role in the regulation of triglyceride clearance from the blood serum and in lipid metabolism. May also play a role in regulating glucose homeostasis and insulin sensitivity (Probable). Inhibits proliferation, migration, and tubule formation of endothelial cells and reduces vascular leakage. Upon heterologous expression, inhibits the adhesion of endothelial cell to the extracellular matrix (ECM), and inhibits the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton, formation of actin stress fibers and focal adhesions in endothelial cells that have adhered to ANGPTL4-containing ECM (in vitro). Depending on context, may modulate tumor-related angiogenesis (By similarity).

May play a role in the wound healing process. May promote epidermal proliferation, remodeling and regeneration. May promote the chemotactic activity of endothelial cells and induce neovascularization. May counteract high-fat diet-induced obesity and related insulin resistance through increased energy expenditure

Has a role in the formation and organization of the extracellular matrix. In the eye, it functions as a mediator of dexamethasone-induced matrix deposition in the trabecular meshwork, the tissue responsible for the outflow of the ocular aqueous humor and for the maintenance of intraocular pressure. Is a negative regulator of angiogenesis in the cornea, and plays a major role in maintaining corneal avascularity and transparency.

Hormone that acts as a blood lipid regulator by regulating serum triglyceride levels. May be involved in the metabolic transition between fasting and refeeding: required to direct fatty acids to adipose tissue for storage in the fed state (By similarity).

Binds and activates TEK/TIE2 receptor by inducing its dimerization and tyrosine phosphorylation. Plays an important role in the regulation of angiogenesis, endothelial cell survival, proliferation, migration, adhesion and cell spreading, reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton, but also maintenance of vascular quiescence. Required for normal angiogenesis and heart development during embryogenesis. After birth, activates or inhibits angiogenesis, depending on the context. Inhibits angiogenesis and promotes vascular stability in quiescent vessels, where endothelial cells have tight contacts. In quiescent vessels, ANGPT1 oligomers recruit TEK to cell- cell contacts, forming complexes with TEK molecules from adjoining cells, and this leads to preferential activation of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase and the AKT1 signaling cascades. In migrating endothelial cells that lack cell-cell adhesions, ANGT1 recruits TEK to contacts with the extracellular matrix, leading to the formation of focal adhesion complexes, activation of PTK2/FAK and of the downstream kinases MAPK1/ERK2 and MAPK3/ERK1, and ultimately to the stimulation of sprouting angiogenesis. Mediates blood vessel maturation/stability. Implicated in endothelial developmental processes later and distinct from that of VEGF. Appears to play a crucial role in mediating reciprocal interactions between the endothelium and surrounding matrix and mesenchyme.

Binds to TEK/TIE2, competing for the ANGPT1 binding site, and modulating ANGPT1 signaling (PubMed:15284220, PubMed:19116766, PubMed:19223473,PubMed:9204896). Can induce tyrosine phosphorylation of TEK/TIE2 in the absence of ANGPT1 (PubMed:15284220, PubMed:19116766, PubMed:19223473,PubMed:9204896). In the absence of angiogenic inducers, such as VEGF, ANGPT2-mediated loosening of cell-matrix contacts may induce endothelial cell apoptosis with consequent vascular regression. In concert with VEGF, it may facilitate endothelial cell migration and proliferation, thus serving as a permissive angiogenic signal (PubMed:15284220, PubMed:19116766, PubMed:19223473,PubMed:9204896). Involved in the regulation of lymphangiogenesis.

Binds to TEK/TIE2, modulating ANGPT1 signaling. Can induce tyrosine phosphorylation of TEK/TIE2. Promotes endothelial cell survival, migration and angiogenesis.

Essential component of the renin-angiotensin system (RAS), a potent regulator of blood pressure, body fluid and electrolyte homeostasis.

Attaches integral membrane proteins to cytoskeletal elements; binds to the erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2, to Na-K ATPase, to the lymphocyte membrane protein GP85, and to the cytoskeletal proteins fodrin, tubulin, vimentin and desmin. Erythrocyte ankyrins also link spectrin (beta chain) to the cytoplasmic domain of the erythrocytes anion exchange protein; they retain most or all of these binding functions.

Plays an essential role in the localization and membrane stabilization of ion transporters and ion channels in several cell types, including cardiomyocytes, as well as in striated muscle cells. In skeletal muscle, required for proper localization of DMD and DCTN4 and for the formation and/or stability of a special subset of microtubules associated with costameres and neuromuscular junctions. In cardiomyocytes, required for coordinate assembly of Na/Ca exchanger, SLC8A1/NCX1, Na/K ATPases ATP1A1 and ATP1A2 and inositol 1,4,5- trisphosphate (InsP3) receptors at sarcoplasmic reticulum/sarcolemma sites. Required for expression and targeting of SPTBN1 in neonatal cardiomyocytes and for the regulation of neonatal cardiomyocyte contraction rate. In the inner segment of rod photoreceptors, required for the coordinated expression of the Na/K ATPase, Na/Ca exchanger and beta-2-spectrin (SPTBN1) (By similarity). Plays a role in endocytosis and intracellular protein transport. Associates with phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PI3P)-positive organelles and binds dynactin to promote long-range motility of cells. Recruits RABGAP1L to (PI3P)-positive early endosomes, where RABGAP1L inactivates RAB22A, and promotes polarized trafficking to the leading edge of the migrating cells. Part of the ANK2/RABGAP1L complex which is required for the polarized recycling of fibronectin receptor ITGA5 ITGB1 to the plasma membrane that enables continuous directional cell migration (By similarity).

In skeletal muscle, required for costamere localization of DMD and betaDAG1 (By similarity). Membrane-cytoskeleton linker. May participate in the maintenance/targeting of ion channels and cell adhesion molecules at the nodes of Ranvier and axonal initial segments. Regulates KCNA1 channel activity in function of dietary Mg(2+) levels, and thereby contributes to the regulation of renal Mg(2+) reabsorption.

May play a role as a scaffolding protein that may be associated with the abnormal phenotype of leukemia cells. Isoform 2 may possess an antiapoptotic effect and protect cells during normal cell survival through its regulation of caspases.

Regulates intra- and extracellular levels of inorganic pyrophosphate (PPi), probably functioning as PPi transporter

Endonuclease that probably plays a role in the DNA damage response and DNA repair.

Involved in mitotic nuclear envelope reassembly by promoting dephosphorylation of BAF/BANF1 during mitotic exit. Coordinates the control of BAF/BANF1 dephosphorylation by inhibiting VRK1 kinase and promoting dephosphorylation of BAF/BANF1 by protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A), thereby facilitating nuclear envelope assembly. May regulate nuclear localization of VRK1 in non- dividing cells. It is unclear whether it acts as a real PP2A regulatory subunit or whether it is involved in recruitment of the PP2A complex. Involved in brain development.

Mitochondrial protein-lysine N-methyltransferase that trimethylates adenine nucleotide translocases ANT2/SLC25A5 and ANT3/SLC25A6, thereby regulating mitochondrial respiration. Probably also trimethylates ANT1/SLC25A4.

May play an important role in endothelial cell activation. May act as a nuclear transcription factor that negatively regulates the expression of cardiac genes. Induction seems to be correlated with apoptotic cell death in hepatoma cells.

Recruits CKI-epsilon to the beta-catenin degradation complex that consists of AXN1 or AXN2 and GSK3-beta and allows efficient phosphorylation of beta-catenin, thereby inhibiting beta-catenin/Tcf signals.

Substrate receptor subunit of a cullin-RING superfamily E3 ligase complex (CUL5-based E3 ubiquitin ligase complex) which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Depending of the metabolic state of the cell, promotes the proteasomal degradation of IMPDH2, the rate-limiting enzyme in GTP biosynthesis or protects IMPDH2 by stabilizing IMPDH2 filaments assembly. Implicated in different cellular processes, like copper homeostasis and cell proliferation.

May be involved in the trafficking of signaling proteins to the cilia.

Plays a role in the cellular response to hydrogen peroxide and in the maintenance of mitochondrial integrity under conditions of cellular stress. Involved in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-associated degradation (ERAD) pathway (By similarity).

Required for cytokinesis. Essential for the structural integrity of the cleavage furrow and for completion of cleavage furrow ingression. Plays a role in bleb assembly during metaphase and anaphase of mitosis. May play a significant role in podocyte cell migration.

Arginine methyltransferase that methylates (mono and asymmetric dimethylation) the guanidino nitrogens of arginyl residues present in proteins such as ESR1, histone H2, H3 and H4, ILF3, HNRNPA1, HNRNPD, NFATC2IP, SUPT5H, TAF15, EWS, HABP4, SERBP1, RBM15, FOXO1, CHTOP and MAP3K5/ASK1. Constitutes the main enzyme that mediates monomethylation and asymmetric dimethylation of histone H4 'Arg-4' (H4R3me1 and H4R3me2a, respectively), a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation. May be involved in the regulation of TAF15 transcriptional activity, act as an activator of estrogen receptor (ER)-mediated transactivation, play a key role in neurite outgrowth and act as a negative regulator of megakaryocytic differentiation, by modulating p38 MAPK pathway. Methylates RBM15, promoting ubiquitination and degradation of RBM15. Methylates FOXO1 and retains it in the nucleus increasing its transcriptional activity. Methylates CHTOP and this methylation is critical for its 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC)-binding activity. Methylates MAP3K5/ASK1 at 'Arg-78' and 'Arg-80' which promotes association of MAP3K5 with thioredoxin and negatively regulates MAP3K5 association with TRAF2, inhibiting MAP3K5 stimulation and MAP3K5-induced activation of JNK. Methylates H4R3 in genes involved in glioblastomagenesis in a CHTOP- and/or TET1- dependent manner. Plays a role in regulating alternative splicing in the heart (By similarity).

Arginine methyltransferase that methylates the guanidino nitrogens of arginyl residues in proteins such as STAT3, FBL, histone H4. Acts as a coactivator (with NCOA2) of the androgen receptor (AR)- mediated transactivation. Acts as a coactivator (with estrogen) of estrogen receptor (ER)-mediated transactivation. Enhances PGR, PPARG, RARA-mediated transactivation. May inhibit NF-kappa-B transcription and promote apoptosis. Represses E2F1 transcriptional activity (in a RB1- dependent manner). May be involved in growth regulation.

Protein-arginine N-methyltransferase that catalyzes both the monomethylation and asymmetric dimethylation of the guanidino nitrogens of arginine residues in target proteins, and therefore falls into the group of type I methyltransferases (Probable). May regulate retinoic acid synthesis and signaling by inhibiting ALDH1A1 retinal dehydrogenase activity.

Arginine methyltransferase that can both catalyze the formation of omega-N monomethylarginine (MMA) and symmetrical dimethylarginine (sDMA), with a preference for the formation of MMA. Specifically mediates the symmetrical dimethylation of arginine residues in the small nuclear ribonucleoproteins Sm D1 (SNRPD1) and Sm D3 (SNRPD3); such methylation being required for the assembly and biogenesis of snRNP core particles. Methylates SUPT5H and may regulate its transcriptional elongation properties. Mono- and dimethylates arginine residues of myelin basic protein (MBP) in vitro. May play a role in cytokine-activated transduction pathways. Negatively regulates cyclin E1 promoter activity and cellular proliferation. Methylates histone H2A and H4 'Arg-3' during germ cell development (By similarity). Methylates histone H3 'Arg-8', which may repress transcription (By similarity). Methylates the Piwi proteins (PIWIL1, PIWIL2 and PIWIL4), methylation of Piwi proteins being required for the interaction with Tudor domain-containing proteins and subsequent localization to the meiotic nuage (By similarity). Methylates RPS10. Attenuates EGF signaling through the MAPK1/MAPK3 pathway acting at 2 levels. First, monomethylates EGFR; this enhances EGFR 'Tyr-1197' phosphorylation and PTPN6 recruitment, eventually leading to reduced SOS1 phosphorylation. Second, methylates RAF1 and probably BRAF, hence destabilizing these 2 signaling proteins and reducing their catalytic activity. Required for induction of E-selectin and VCAM-1, on the endothelial cells surface at sites of inflammation. Methylates HOXA9. Methylates and regulates SRGAP2 which is involved in cell migration and differentiation. Acts as a transcriptional corepressor in CRY1-mediated repression of the core circadian component PER1 by regulating the H4R3 dimethylation at the PER1 promoter (By similarity). Methylates GM130/GOLGA2, regulating Golgi ribbon formation. Methylates H4R3 in genes involved in glioblastomagenesis in a CHTOP- and/or TET1-dependent manner. Symmetrically methylates POLR2A, a modification that allows the recruitment to POLR2A of proteins including SMN1/SMN2 and SETX. This is required for resolving RNA-DNA hybrids created by RNA polymerase II, that form R-loop in transcription terminal regions, an important step in proper transcription termination. Along with LYAR, binds the promoter of gamma-globin HBG1/HBG2 and represses its expression. Symmetrically methylates NCL. Methylates p53/TP53; methylation might possibly affect p53/TP53 target gene specificity. Involved in spliceosome maturation and mRNA splicing in prophase I spermatocytes through the catalysis of the symmetrical arginine dimethylation of SNRPB (small nuclear ribonucleoprotein- associated protein) and the interaction with tudor domain-containing protein TDRD6 (By similarity).

Arginine methyltransferase that can catalyze the formation of both omega-N monomethylarginine (MMA) and asymmetrical dimethylarginine (aDMA), with a strong preference for the formation of aDMA. Preferentially methylates arginyl residues present in a glycine and arginine-rich domain and displays preference for monomethylated substrates. Specifically mediates the asymmetric dimethylation of histone H3 'Arg-2' to form H3R2me2a. H3R2me2a represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression and is mutually exclusive with methylation on histone H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me2 and H3K4me3). Acts as a transcriptional repressor of various genes such as HOXA2, THBS1 and TP53. Repression of TP53 blocks cellular senescence (By similarity). Also methylates histone H2A and H4 'Arg-3' (H2AR3me and H4R3me, respectively). Acts as a regulator of DNA base excision during DNA repair by mediating the methylation of DNA polymerase beta (POLB), leading to the stimulation of its polymerase activity by enhancing DNA binding and processivity. Methylates HMGA1. Regulates alternative splicing events. Acts as a transcriptional coactivator of a number of steroid hormone receptors including ESR1, ESR2, PGR and NR3C1. Promotes fasting-induced transcriptional activation of the gluconeogenic program through methylation of the CRTC2 transcription coactivator (By similarity). May play a role in innate immunity against HIV-1 in case of infection by methylating and impairing the function of various HIV-1 proteins such as Tat, Rev and Nucleocapsid protein p7 (NC). Methylates GPS2, protecting GPS2 from ubiquitination and degradation (By similarity). Methylates SIRT7, inhibiting SIRT7 histone deacetylase activity and promoting mitochondria biogenesis.

Arginine methyltransferase that can both catalyze the formation of omega-N monomethylarginine (MMA) and symmetrical dimethylarginine (sDMA), with a preference for the formation of MMA. Specifically mediates the symmetrical dimethylation of arginine residues in the small nuclear ribonucleoproteins Sm D1 (SNRPD1) and Sm D3 (SNRPD3); such methylation being required for the assembly and biogenesis of snRNP core particles. Specifically mediates the symmetric dimethylation of histone H4 'Arg-3' to form H4R3me2s. Plays a role in gene imprinting by being recruited by CTCFL at the H19 imprinted control region (ICR) and methylating histone H4 to form H4R3me2s, possibly leading to recruit DNA methyltransferases at these sites. May also play a role in embryonic stem cell (ESC) pluripotency. Also able to mediate the arginine methylation of histone H2A and myelin basic protein (MBP) in vitro; the relevance of such results is however unclear in vivo.

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent and membrane-associated arginine methyltransferase that can both catalyze the formation of omega-N monomethylarginine (MMA) and asymmetrical dimethylarginine (aDMA) in proteins such as NIFK, myelin basic protein, histone H4, H2A and H2A/H2B dimer. Able to mono- and dimethylate EWS protein; however its precise role toward EWS remains unclear as it still interacts with fully methylated EWS.

Arginine methyltransferase that can both catalyze the formation of omega-N monomethylarginine (MMA) and symmetrical dimethylarginine (sDMA). Specifically mediates the symmetrical dimethylation of SF3B2. Involved in the regulation of alternative splicing of pre-mRNA.

Does not exhibit calcium-activated chloride channel (CaCC) activity. Can inhibit the activity of ANO1.

Calcium-activated chloride channel (CaCC). Plays a role in transepithelial anion transport and smooth muscle contraction. Required for the normal functioning of the interstitial cells of Cajal (ICCs) which generate electrical pacemaker activity in gastrointestinal smooth muscles. Acts as a major contributor to basal and stimulated chloride conductance in airway epithelial cells and plays an important role in tracheal cartilage development. Required for CFTR activation by enhancing endoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+) store release and is also required for CFTR membrane expression. Required for basal and ATP-dependent mucus secretion in airways and intestine, probably by controlling exocytosis of mucus-filled granules by providing Ca(2+) to an apical signaling compartment (By similarity). Contributes to airway mucus expression induced by interleukins IL3 and IL8 and by the asthma-associated protein CLCA1 and is required for expression of mucin MUC5AC. However, was shown in another study not to be required for MUC5AC expression. Plays a role in the propagation of Ca(2+) waves in Kolliker's organ in the cochlea and contributes to the refinement of auditory brainstem circuitries prior to hearing onset (By similarity). In vomeronasal sensory neurons, modulates spontaneous firing patterns in the absence of stimuli as well as the firing pattern of pheromone- evoked activity (By similarity). Responsible for calcium-activated chloride channel activity in type I taste cells of the vallate papillae (By similarity). Acts as a heat sensor in nociceptive neurons (By similarity). In dorsal root ganglion neurons, plays a role in mediating non-histaminergic Mas-related G-protein coupled receptor (MRGPR)- dependent itching, acting as a downstream effector of MRGPRs (By similarity). In the developing brain, required for the Ca(2+)-dependent process extension of radial glial cells (By similarity).

Has calcium-dependent phospholipid scramblase activity; scrambles phosphatidylcholine and galactosylceramide (By similarity). Seems to act as potassium channel regulator and may inhibit pain signaling; can facilitate KCNT1/Slack channel activity by promoting its full single-channel conductance at very low sodium concentrations and by increasing its sodium sensitivity (By similarity). Does not exhibit calcium-activated chloride channel (CaCC) activity.

Has calcium-dependent phospholipid scramblase activity; scrambles phosphatidylserine, phosphatidylcholine and galactosylceramide (By similarity). Does not exhibit calcium-activated chloride channel (CaCC) activity (By similarity).

Does not exhibit calcium-activated chloride channel (CaCC) activity.

Small-conductance calcium-activated nonselective cation (SCAN) channel which acts as a regulator of phospholipid scrambling in platelets and osteoblasts. Phospholipid scrambling results in surface exposure of phosphatidylserine which in platelets is essential to trigger the clotting system whereas in osteoblasts is essential for the deposition of hydroxyapatite during bone mineralization. Has calcium- dependent phospholipid scramblase activity; scrambles phosphatidylserine, phosphatidylcholine and galactosylceramide (By similarity). Can generate outwardly rectifying chloride channel currents in airway epithelial cells and Jurkat T lymphocytes.

Does not exhibit calcium-activated chloride channel (CaCC) activity

Has calcium-dependent phospholipid scramblase activity; scrambles phosphatidylserine, phosphatidylcholine and galactosylceramide (By similarity). Does not exhibit calcium-activated chloride channel (CaCC) activity. Can inhibit the activity of ANO1.

Receptor for the atrial natriuretic peptide NPPA/ANP and the brain natriuretic peptide NPPB/BNP which are potent vasoactive hormones playing a key role in cardiovascular homeostasis. Has guanylate cyclase activity upon binding of the ligand.

Receptor for the C-type natriuretic peptide NPPC/CNP hormone. Has guanylate cyclase activity upon binding of its ligand. May play a role in the regulation of skeletal growth.

Receptor for the natriuretic peptide hormones, binding with similar affinities atrial natriuretic peptide NPPA/ANP, brain natriuretic peptide NPPB/BNP, and C-type natriuretic peptide NPPC/CNP. May function as a clearance receptor for NPPA, NPPB and NPPC, regulating their local concentrations and effects. May regulate diuresis, blood pressure and skeletal development. Does not have guanylate cyclase activity.

Chromatin regulator which modulates histone acetylation and gene expression in neural precursor cells (By similarity). May recruit histone deacetylases (HDACs) to the p160 coactivators/nuclear receptor complex to inhibit ligand-dependent transactivation. Has a role in proliferation and development of cortical neural precursors. May also regulate bone homeostasis (By similarity).

May recruit HDACs to the p160 coactivators/nuclear receptor complex to inhibit ligand-dependent transactivation

Required to prevent the misactivation of serine (Ser) with tRNA(Ala) by promoting the hydrolysis of Ser-mischarged tRNA(Ala), thereby playing a role in translational fidelity. Binds directly to the catalytic domain of AARS/AlaRS and captures Ser that is misactivated by AARS/AlaRS, preventing the charging of Ser adenylates to tRNA(Ala) and precluding Ser misincorporation in nascent peptides.

Could play pivotal roles in cell cycle and DNA regulation. Involved in innate immune defense against viruse by positively regulating the viral dsRNA receptors DDX58 and IFIH1 signaling pathways. Involves in NOD2- and NOD1- mediated responses to bacteria suggesting a role in innate antibacterial immune pathways too. Target of enterovirus 71 which is the major etiological agent of HFMD (hand, foot and mouth disease). Could play a central role for the formation and/or maintenance of the blood vessels of the circulation system (By similarity).

May be involved in the energy metabolism. Could be a molecular link between myofibrillar stretch-induced signaling pathways and muscle gene expression

Acts as a regulator of adipogenesis. Involved in the regulation of the feeding behavior.

May be a guanine exchange factor (GEF) for Rab21, Rab32 and Rab38 and regulate endosome dynamics. May regulate the participation of VAMP7 in membrane fusion events; in vitro inhibits VAMP7-mediated SNARE complex formation by trapping VAMP7 in a closed, fusogenically inactive conformation. Involved in peripheral melanosomal distribution of TYRP1 in melanocytes; the function, which probably is implicating vesicle-trafficking, includes cooperation with Rab32, Rab38 and VAMP7 (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of neurite growth; the function seems to require its GEF activity, probably towards Rab21, and VAMP7 but not Rab32/38 (By similarity). Proposed to be involved in Golgi sorting of VAMP7 and transport of VAMP7 vesicles to the cell surface; the function seems to implicate kinesin heavy chain isoform 5 proteins, GOLGA4, RAB21 and MACF1. Required for the colocalization of VAMP7 and Rab21, probably on TGN sites. Involved in GLUT1 endosome-to-plasma membrane trafficking; the function is dependent of association with VPS29. Regulates the proper trafficking of melanogenic enzymes TYR, TYRP1 and DCT/TYRP2 to melanosomes in melanocytes (By similarity).

Putative regulatory subunit of protein phosphatase 6 (PP6) that may be involved in the recognition of phosphoprotein substrates. Involved in the PP6-mediated dephosphorylation of NFKBIE opposing its degradation in response to TNF-alpha. Selectively inhibits the phosphatase activity of PPP1C. Targets PPP1C to modulate HNRPK phosphorylation.

Putative regulatory subunit of protein phosphatase 6 (PP6) that may be involved in the recognition of phosphoprotein substrates

Induces HBG1 expression. May have a role in spermatogenesis where it promotes autophagy in response to serum starvation, via the NF-kappaB pathway (By similarity).

Involved in the endosome-to-plasma membrane trafficking and recycling of SNX27-retromer-dependent cargo proteins, such as GLUT1

Required for normal progression through mitosis. Involved in chromosome alignment and cytokinesis via regulation of microtubules polymerization.

Plays an important role in regulating intracellular signaling events associated with erythroid terminal differentiation.

May regulate the interaction between the 3M complex and the histone deacetylases HDAC4 and HDAC5. May also regulate LRP2/megalin (By similarity).

Regulator of different signaling pathways. Regulates EPHA8 receptor tyrosine kinase signaling to control cell migration and neurite retraction (By similarity).

As part of the intermicrovillar adhesion complex/IMAC plays a role in epithelial brush border differentiation, controlling microvilli organization and length. Plays a role in assembly of the complex. May play a role in cellular response to endoplasmic reticulum stress (By similarity).

Most important serine protease inhibitor in plasma that regulates the blood coagulation cascade. AT-III inhibits thrombin, matriptase-3/TMPRSS7, as well as factors IXa, Xa and XIa. Its inhibitory activity is greatly enhanced in the presence of heparin.

Plays a role in cell attachment and migration. Interacts with extracellular matrix proteins and with the actin cytoskeleton. Mediates adhesion of cells to type 1 collagen and gelatin, reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and promotes cell spreading. Plays a role in the angiogenic response of cultured umbilical vein endothelial cells.

Necessary for cellular interactions with laminin and the extracellular matrix.

Binds specifically to calcyclin in a calcium-dependent manner (By similarity). Required for midbody formation and completion of the terminal phase of cytokinesis.

[Isoform A]: Binds to membranes enriched in phosphatidylserine or phosphatidylglycerol in a calcium-dependent manner. Half-maximal membrane binding requires about 60 uM calcium. Does not bind to membranes that lack phospholipids with an acidic headgroup.

Plays important roles in the innate immune response as effector of glucocorticoid-mediated responses and regulator of the inflammatory process. Has anti-inflammatory activity. Plays a role in glucocorticoid-mediated down-regulation of the early phase of the inflammatory response (By similarity). Contributes to the adaptive immune response by enhancing signaling cascades that are triggered by T-cell activation, regulates differentiation and proliferation of activated T-cells. Promotes the differentiation of T-cells into Th1 cells and negatively regulates differentiation into Th2 cells. Has no effect on unstimulated T cells. Negatively regulates hormone exocytosis via activation of the formyl peptide receptors and reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton. Has high affinity for Ca(2+) and can bind up to eight Ca(2+) ions (By similarity). Displays Ca(2+)-dependent binding to phospholipid membranes. Plays a role in the formation of phagocytic cups and phagosomes. Plays a role in phagocytosis by mediating the Ca(2+)-dependent interaction between phagosomes and the actin cytoskeleton (By similarity).

Calcium-regulated membrane-binding protein whose affinity for calcium is greatly enhanced by anionic phospholipids. It binds two calcium ions with high affinity. May be involved in heat-stress response. Inhibits PCSK9-enhanced LDLR degradation, probably reduces PCSK9 protein levels via a translational mechanism but also competes with LDLR for binding with PCSK9.

Inhibitor of phospholipase A2, also possesses anti-coagulant properties. Also cleaves the cyclic bond of inositol 1,2-cyclic phosphate to form inositol 1-phosphate

Calcium/phospholipid-binding protein which promotes membrane fusion and is involved in exocytosis.

This protein is an anticoagulant protein that acts as an indirect inhibitor of the thromboplastin-specific complex, which is involved in the blood coagulation cascade

May associate with CD21. May regulate the release of Ca(2+) from intracellular stores

Calcium/phospholipid-binding protein which promotes membrane fusion and is involved in exocytosis

Low affinity receptor for acetylcholine known to be targeted by disease-causing pemphigus vulgaris antibodies in keratinocytes.

Removes the secondary (acyloxyacyl-linked) fatty acyl chains from the lipid A region of bacterial lipopolysaccharides. By breaking down LPS, terminates the host response to bacterial infection and prevents prolonged and damaging inflammatory responses (By similarity). In peritoneal macrophages, seems to be important for recovery from a state of immune tolerance following infection by Gram-negative bacteria (By similarity).

Catalyzes the degradation of compounds such as putrescine, histamine, spermine, and spermidine, substances involved in allergic and immune responses, cell proliferation, tissue differentiation, tumor formation, and possibly apoptosis. Placental DAO is thought to play a role in the regulation of the female reproductive function

Has a monoamine oxidase activity with substrate specificity for 2-phenylethylamine and tryptamine. May play a role in adipogenesis. May be a critical modulator of signal transmission in retina.

Cell adhesion protein that participates in lymphocyte extravasation and recirculation by mediating the binding of lymphocytes to peripheral lymph node vascular endothelial cells in an L-selectin- independent fashion. Has semicarbazide-sensitive (SSAO) monoamine oxidase activity. May play a role in adipogenesis.

Catalyzes the oxidative deamination of primary and some secondary amine such as neurotransmitters, with concomitant reduction of oxygen to hydrogen peroxide and has important functions in the metabolism of neuroactive and vasoactive amines in the central nervous system and peripheral tissues. Preferentially oxidizes serotonin. Also catalyzes the oxidative deamination of kynuramine to 3-(2-aminophenyl)-3-oxopropanal that can spontaneously condense to 4-hydroxyquinoline (By similarity).

Catalyzes the oxidative deamination of primary and some secondary amines such as neurotransmitters, and exogenous amines including the tertiary amine, neurotoxin 1-methyl-4-phenyl-1,2,3,6- tetrahydropyridine (MPTP), with concomitant reduction of oxygen to hydrogen peroxide and participates in the metabolism of neuroactive and vasoactive amines in the central nervous system and peripheral tissues. Preferentially degrades benzylamine and phenylethylamine.

Oxidase with broad substrate specificity, oxidizing aromatic azaheterocycles, such as N1-methylnicotinamide, N-methylphthalazinium and phthalazine, as well as aldehydes, such as benzaldehyde, retinal, pyridoxal, and vanillin. Plays a key role in the metabolism of xenobiotics and drugs containing aromatic azaheterocyclic substituents. Participates in the bioactivation of prodrugs such as famciclovir, catalyzing the oxidation step from 6-deoxypenciclovir to penciclovir, which is a potent antiviral agent. Is probably involved in the regulation of reactive oxygen species homeostasis. May be a prominent source of superoxide generation via the one-electron reduction of molecular oxygen. May also catalyze nitric oxide (NO) production via the reduction of nitrite to NO with NADH or aldehyde as electron donor. May play a role in adipogenesis.

Adaptins are components of the adapter complexes which link clathrin to receptors in coated vesicles. Clathrin-associated protein complexes are believed to interact with the cytoplasmic tails of membrane proteins, leading to their selection and concentration. Binding of AP180 to clathrin triskelia induces their assembly into 60- 70 nm coats (By similarity).

Necessary for adaptor protein complex 1 (AP-1)-dependent transport between the trans-Golgi network and endosomes. Regulates the membrane association of AP1G1/gamma1-adaptin, one of the subunits of the AP-1 adaptor complex. The direct interaction with AP1G1/gamma1- adaptin attenuates the release of the AP-1 complex from membranes. Regulates endosomal membrane traffic via association with AP-1 and KIF5B thus linking kinesin-based plus-end-directed microtubular transport to AP-1-dependent membrane traffic. May act as effector of AP-1 in calcium-induced endo-lysosome secretion. Inhibits Arp2/3 complex function; negatively regulates cell spreading, size and motility via intracellular sequestration of the Arp2/3 complex.

Subunit of clathrin-associated adaptor protein complex 1 that plays a role in protein sorting in the late-Golgi/trans-Golgi network (TGN) and/or endosomes. The AP complexes mediate both the recruitment of clathrin to membranes and the recognition of sorting signals within the cytosolic tails of transmembrane cargo molecules.

Subunit of clathrin-associated adaptor protein complex 1 that plays a role in protein sorting in the late-Golgi/trans-Golgi network (TGN) and/or endosomes. The AP complexes mediate both the recruitment of clathrin to membranes and the recognition of sorting signals within the cytosolic tails of transmembrane cargo molecules. In association with AFTPH/aftiphilin in the aftiphilin/p200/gamma-synergin complex, involved in the trafficking of transferrin from early to recycling endosomes, and the membrane trafficking of furin and the lysosomal enzyme cathepsin D between the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and endosomes.

May function in protein sorting in late endosomes or multivesucular bodies (MVBs).

Subunit of clathrin-associated adaptor protein complex 1 that plays a role in protein sorting in the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and endosomes. The AP complexes mediate the recruitment of clathrin to membranes and the recognition of sorting signals within the cytosolic tails of transmembrane cargo molecules

Subunit of clathrin-associated adaptor protein complex 1 that plays a role in protein sorting in the late-Golgi/trans-Golgi network (TGN) and/or endosomes. The AP complexes mediate both the recruitment of clathrin to membranes and the recognition of sorting signals within the cytosolic tails of transmembrane cargo molecules. Involved in TLR3 trafficking.

Component of the adaptor protein complex 2 (AP-2). Adaptor protein complexes function in protein transport via transport vesicles in different membrane traffic pathways. Adaptor protein complexes are vesicle coat components and appear to be involved in cargo selection and vesicle formation. AP-2 is involved in clathrin-dependent endocytosis in which cargo proteins are incorporated into vesicles surrounded by clathrin (clathrin-coated vesicles, CCVs) which are destined for fusion with the early endosome. The clathrin lattice serves as a mechanical scaffold but is itself unable to bind directly to membrane components. Clathrin-associated adaptor protein (AP) complexes which can bind directly to both the clathrin lattice and to the lipid and protein components of membranes are considered to be the major clathrin adaptors contributing the CCV formation. AP-2 also serves as a cargo receptor to selectively sort the membrane proteins involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis. AP-2 seems to play a role in the recycling of synaptic vesicle membranes from the presynaptic surface. AP-2 recognizes Y-X-X-[FILMV] (Y-X-X-Phi) and [ED]-X-X-X-L- [LI] endocytosis signal motifs within the cytosolic tails of transmembrane cargo molecules. AP-2 may also play a role in maintaining normal post-endocytic trafficking through the ARF6-regulated, non- clathrin pathway. During long-term potentiation in hippocampal neurons, AP-2 is responsible for the endocytosis of ADAM10. The AP-2 alpha subunit binds polyphosphoinositide-containing lipids, positioning AP-2 on the membrane. The AP-2 alpha subunit acts via its C-terminal appendage domain as a scaffolding platform for endocytic accessory proteins. The AP-2 alpha and AP-2 sigma subunits are thought to contribute to the recognition of the [ED]-X-X-X-L-[LI] motif (By similarity).

Component of the adaptor protein complex 2 (AP-2). Adaptor protein complexes function in protein transport via transport vesicles in different membrane traffic pathways. Adaptor protein complexes are vesicle coat components and appear to be involved in cargo selection and vesicle formation. AP-2 is involved in clathrin-dependent endocytosis in which cargo proteins are incorporated into vesicles surrounded by clathrin (clathrin-coated vesicles, CCVs) which are destined for fusion with the early endosome. The clathrin lattice serves as a mechanical scaffold but is itself unable to bind directly to membrane components. Clathrin-associated adaptor protein (AP) complexes which can bind directly to both the clathrin lattice and to the lipid and protein components of membranes are considered to be the major clathrin adaptors contributing the CCV formation. AP-2 also serves as a cargo receptor to selectively sort the membrane proteins involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis. AP-2 seems to play a role in the recycling of synaptic vesicle membranes from the presynaptic surface. AP-2 recognizes Y-X-X-[FILMV] (Y-X-X-Phi) and [ED]-X-X-X-L- [LI] endocytosis signal motifs within the cytosolic tails of transmembrane cargo molecules. AP-2 may also play a role in maintaining normal post-endocytic trafficking through the ARF6-regulated, non- clathrin pathway. During long-term potentiation in hippocampal neurons, AP-2 is responsible for the endocytosis of ADAM10. The AP-2 beta subunit acts via its C-terminal appendage domain as a scaffolding platform for endocytic accessory proteins; at least some clathrin-associated sorting proteins (CLASPs) are recognized by their [DE]-X(1,2)-F-X-X-[FL]-X-X-X-R motif. The AP-2 beta subunit binds to clathrin heavy chain, promoting clathrin lattice assembly; clathrin displaces at least some CLASPs from AP2B1 which probably then can be positioned for further coat assembly.

Sequence-specific DNA-binding protein that interacts with inducible viral and cellular enhancer elements to regulate transcription of selected genes. AP-2 factors bind to the consensus sequence 5'-GCCNNNGGC-3' and activate genes involved in a large spectrum of important biological functions including proper eye, face, body wall, limb and neural tube development. They also suppress a number of genes including MCAM/MUC18, C/EBP alpha and MYC. AP-2-beta appears to be required for normal face and limb development and for proper terminal differentiation and function of renal tubular epithelia.

Sequence-specific DNA-binding protein that interacts with inducible viral and cellular enhancer elements to regulate transcription of selected genes. AP-2 factors bind to the consensus sequence 5'-GCCNNNGGC-3' and activate genes involved in a large spectrum of important biological functions including proper eye, face, body wall, limb and neural tube development. They also suppress a number of genes including MCAM/MUC18, C/EBP alpha and MYC. Involved in the MTA1-mediated epigenetic regulation of ESR1 expression in breast cancer.

Sequence-specific DNA-binding protein that interacts with inducible viral and cellular enhancer elements to regulate transcription of selected genes. AP-2 factors bind to the consensus sequence 5'-GCCNNNGGC-3' and activate genes involved in a large spectrum of important biological functions including proper eye, face, body wall, limb and neural tube development. They also suppress a number of genes including MCAM/MUC18, C/EBP alpha and MYC (By similarity).

Sequence-specific DNA-binding protein that interacts with inducible viral and cellular enhancer elements to regulate transcription of selected genes. AP-2 factors bind to the consensus sequence 5'-GCCNNNGGC-3' and activate genes involved in a large spectrum of important biological functions including proper eye, face, body wall, limb and neural tube development. They also suppress a number of genes including MCAM/MUC18, C/EBP alpha and MYC. AP-2-epsilon may play a role in the development of the CNS and in cartilage differentiation (By similarity).

Component of the adaptor protein complex 2 (AP-2). Adaptor protein complexes function in protein transport via transport vesicles in different membrane traffic pathways. Adaptor protein complexes are vesicle coat components and appear to be involved in cargo selection and vesicle formation. AP-2 is involved in clathrin-dependent endocytosis in which cargo proteins are incorporated into vesicles surrounded by clathrin (clathrin-coated vesicles, CCVs) which are destined for fusion with the early endosome. The clathrin lattice serves as a mechanical scaffold but is itself unable to bind directly to membrane components. Clathrin-associated adaptor protein (AP) complexes which can bind directly to both the clathrin lattice and to the lipid and protein components of membranes are considered to be the major clathrin adaptors contributing the CCV formation. AP-2 also serves as a cargo receptor to selectively sort the membrane proteins involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis. AP-2 seems to play a role in the recycling of synaptic vesicle membranes from the presynaptic surface. AP-2 recognizes Y-X-X-[FILMV] (Y-X- X-Phi) and [ED]-X-X-X-L-[LI] endocytosis signal motifs within the cytosolic tails of transmembrane cargo molecules (By similarity). AP-2 may also play a role in maintaining normal post-endocytic trafficking through the ARF6-regulated, non-clathrin pathway. During long-term potentiation in hippocampal neurons, AP-2 is responsible for the endocytosis of ADAM10. The AP-2 mu subunit binds to transmembrane cargo proteins; it recognizes the Y- X-X-Phi motifs (By similarity). The surface region interacting with to the Y-X-X-Phi motif is inaccessible in cytosolic AP-2, but becomes accessible through a conformational change following phosphorylation of AP-2 mu subunit at Thr-156 in membrane-associated AP-2. The membrane-specific phosphorylation event appears to involve assembled clathrin which activates the AP-2 mu kinase AAK1. Plays a role in endocytosis of frizzled family members upon Wnt signaling (By similarity).

Component of the adaptor protein complex 2 (AP-2). Adaptor protein complexes function in protein Transport via Transport vesicles in different membrane traffic pathways. Adaptor protein complexes are vesicle coat components and appear to be involved in cargo selection and vesicle formation. AP-2 is involved in clathrin-dependent endocytosis in which cargo proteins are incorporated into vesicles surrounded by clathrin (clathrin-coated vesicles, CCVs) which are destined for fusion with the early endosome. The clathrin lattice serves as a mechanical scaffold but is itself unable to bind directly to membrane components. Clathrin-associated adaptor protein (AP) complexes which can bind directly to both the clathrin lattice and to the lipid and protein components of membranes are considered to be the major clathrin adaptors contributing the CCV formation. AP-2 also serves as a cargo receptor to selectively sort the membrane proteins involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis. AP-2 seems to play a role in the recycling of synaptic vesicle membranes from the presynaptic surface. AP-2 recognizes Y-X-X-[FILMV] (Y-X-X-Phi) and [ED]-X-X-X-L- [LI] endocytosis signal motifs within the cytosolic tails of transmembrane cargo molecules. AP-2 may also play a role in maintaining normal post-endocytic trafficking through the ARF6-regulated, non- clathrin pathway. The AP-2 alpha and AP-2 sigma subunits are thought to contribute to the recognition of the [ED]-X-X-X-L-[LI] motif (By similarity). May also play a role in extracellular calcium homeostasis.

Subunit of non-clathrin- and clathrin-associated adaptor protein complex 3 (AP-3) that plays a role in protein sorting in the late-Golgi/trans-Golgi network (TGN) and/or endosomes. The AP complexes mediate both the recruitment of clathrin to membranes and the recognition of sorting signals within the cytosolic tails of transmembrane cargo molecules. AP-3 appears to be involved in the sorting of a subset of transmembrane proteins targeted to lysosomes and lysosome-related organelles. In concert with the BLOC-1 complex, AP-3 is required to target cargos into vesicles assembled at cell bodies for delivery into neurites and nerve terminals.

Subunit of non-clathrin- and clathrin-associated adaptor protein complex 3 (AP-3) that plays a role in protein sorting in the late-Golgi/trans-Golgi network (TGN) and/or endosomes. The AP complexes mediate both the recruitment of clathrin to membranes and the recognition of sorting signals within the cytosolic tails of transmembrane cargo molecules. AP-3 appears to be involved in the sorting of a subset of transmembrane proteins targeted to lysosomes and lysosome-related organelles. In concert with the BLOC-1 complex, AP-3 is required to target cargos into vesicles assembled at cell bodies for delivery into neurites and nerve terminals

Part of the AP-3 complex, an adaptor-related complex which is not clathrin-associated. The complex is associated with the Golgi region as well as more peripheral structures. It facilitates the budding of vesicles from the Golgi membrane and may be directly involved in trafficking to lysosomes. Involved in process of CD8+ T- cell and NK cell degranulation. In concert with the BLOC-1 complex, AP-3 is required to target cargos into vesicles assembled at cell bodies for delivery into neurites and nerve terminals (By similarity).

Part of the AP-3 complex, an adaptor-related complex which is not clathrin-associated. The complex is associated with the Golgi region as well as more peripheral structures. It facilitates the budding of vesicles from the Golgi membrane and may be directly involved in trafficking to lysosomes. In concert with the BLOC-1 complex, AP-3 is required to target cargos into vesicles assembled at cell bodies for delivery into neurites and nerve terminals

Catalyzes the asymmetric hydrolysis of diadenosine 5',5'''- P1,P4-tetraphosphate (Ap4A) to yield AMP and ATP (By similarity). Exhibits decapping activity towards FAD-capped RNAs and dpCoA-capped RNAs in vitro (By similarity).

Component of the adaptor protein complex 4 (AP-4). Adaptor protein complexes are vesicle coat components involved both in vesicle formation and cargo selection. They control the vesicular transport of proteins in different trafficking pathways. AP-4 forms a non clathrin-associated coat on vesicles departing the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and may be involved in the targeting of proteins from the trans-Golgi network (TGN) to the endosomal-lysosomal system. It is also involved in protein sorting to the basolateral membrane in epithelial cells and the proper asymmetric localization of somatodendritic proteins in neurons. AP-4 is involved in the recognition and binding of tyrosine-based sorting signals found in the cytoplasmic part of cargos, but may also recognize other types of sorting signal (Probable).

Component of the adaptor protein complex 4 (AP-4). Adaptor protein complexes are vesicle coat components involved both in vesicle formation and cargo selection. They control the vesicular transport of proteins in different trafficking pathways. AP-4 forms a non clathrin-associated coat on vesicles departing the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and may be involved in the targeting of proteins from the trans-Golgi network (TGN) to the endosomal-lysosomal system. It is also involved in protein sorting to the basolateral membrane in epithelial cells and the proper asymmetric localization of somatodendritic proteins in neurons (By similarity). Within AP-4, the mu-type subunit AP4M1 is directly involved in the recognition and binding of tyrosine-based sorting signals found in the cytoplasmic part of cargos. The adaptor protein complex 4 (AP-4) may also recognize other types of sorting signal (By similarity).

As part of AP-5, a probable fifth adaptor protein complex it may be involved in endosomal transport.

As part of AP-5, a probable fifth adaptor protein complex it may be involved in endosomal transport. According to PubMed:18395520, it may play a role in cell death.

As part of AP-5, a probable fifth adaptor protein complex it may be involved in endosomal transport. According to PubMed:20613862, it is required for efficient homologous recombination DNA double-strand break repair.

As part of AP-5, a probable fifth adaptor protein complex it may be involved in endosomal transport. According to PubMed:20613862 it is a putative helicase required for efficient homologous recombination DNA double-strand break repair.

Oligomeric Apaf-1 mediates the cytochrome c-dependent autocatalytic activation of pro-caspase-9 (Apaf-3), leading to the activation of caspase-3 and apoptosis. This activation requires ATP. Isoform 6 is less effective in inducing apoptosis.

Putative function in synaptic vesicle exocytosis by binding to Munc18-1, an essential component of the synaptic vesicle exocytotic machinery. May modulate processing of the amyloid-beta precursor protein (APP) and hence formation of APP-beta. Component of the LIN-10- LIN-2-LIN-7 complex, which associates with the motor protein KIF17 to transport vesicles containing N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor subunit NR2B along microtubules (By similarity).

Putative function in synaptic vesicle exocytosis by binding to STXBP1, an essential component of the synaptic vesicle exocytotic machinery. May modulate processing of the amyloid-beta precursor protein (APP) and hence formation of APP-beta

May modulate processing of the amyloid-beta precursor protein (APP) and hence formation of APP-beta. May enhance the activity of HIF1A in macrophages by inhibiting the activity of HIF1AN.

Transcription coregulator that can have both coactivator and corepressor functions. Adapter protein that forms a transcriptionally active complex with the gamma-secretase- derived amyloid precursor protein (APP) intracellular domain. Plays a central role in the response to DNA damage by translocating to the nucleus and inducing apoptosis. May act by specifically recognizing and binding histone H2AX phosphorylated on 'Tyr-142' (H2AXY142ph) at double-strand breaks (DSBs), recruiting other pro-apoptosis factors such as MAPK8/JNK1. Required for histone H4 acetylation at double-strand breaks (DSBs). Its ability to specifically bind modified histones and chromatin modifying enzymes such as KAT5/TIP60, probably explains its transcription activation activity. Functions in association with TSHZ3, SET and HDAC factors as a transcriptional repressor, that inhibits the expression of CASP4. Associates with chromatin in a region surrounding the CASP4 transcriptional start site(s). Involved in hippocampal neurite branching and neuromuscular junction formation, as a result plays a role in spatial memory functioning (By similarity). Plays a role in the maintenance of lens transparency (By similarity). May play a role in muscle cell strength (By similarity).

Plays a role in the maintenance of lens transparency, and may also play a role in muscle cell strength (By similarity). Involved in hippocampal neurite branching and neuromuscular junction formation, as a result plays a role in spatial memory functioning (By similarity). Activates transcription of APP.

May modulate the internalization of amyloid-beta precursor protein

Substrate-recognition component of a Cul2-RING (CRL2) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex of the DesCEND (destruction via C-end degrons) pathway, which recognizes a C-degron located at the extreme C terminus of target proteins, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. The C-degron recognized by the DesCEND pathway is usually a motif of less than ten residues and can be present in full-length proteins, truncated proteins or proteolytically cleaved forms. The CRL2(APPBP2) complex specifically recognizes proteins with a -Arg-Xaa- Xaa-Gly degron at the C-terminus, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. The CRL2(APPBP2) complex mediates ubiquitination and degradation of truncated SELENOV selenoproteins produced by failed UGA/Sec decoding, which end with a -Arg-Xaa-Xaa-Gly degron. May play a role in intracellular protein transport: may be involved in the translocation of APP along microtubules toward the cell surface.

Component of the anaphase promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C), a cell cycle-regulated E3 ubiquitin ligase that controls progression through mitosis and the G1 phase of the cell cycle. The APC/C complex acts by mediating ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of target proteins: it mainly mediates the formation of 'Lys-11'-linked polyubiquitin chains and, to a lower extent, the formation of 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains.

Together with the cullin protein ANAPC2, constitutes the catalytic component of the anaphase promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C), a cell cycle-regulated E3 ubiquitin ligase that controls progression through mitosis and the G1 phase of the cell cycle. The APC/C complex acts by mediating ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of target proteins: it mainly mediates the formation of 'Lys-11'-linked polyubiquitin chains and, to a lower extent, the formation of 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. May recruit the E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes to the complex.

Component of the anaphase promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C), a cell cycle-regulated E3 ubiquitin ligase that controls progression through mitosis and the G1 phase of the cell cycle. In the complex, plays a role in the release of the mitotic checkpoint complex (MCC) from the APC/C: not required for APC/C activity itself, but promotes the turnover of CDC20 and MCC on the APC/C, thereby participating in the responsiveness of the spindle assembly checkpoint. Also required for degradation of CDC20.

Component of the anaphase promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C), a cell cycle-regulated E3 ubiquitin ligase that controls progression through mitosis and the G1 phase of the cell cycle. The APC/C complex acts by mediating ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of target proteins: it mainly mediates the formation of 'Lys-11'-linked polyubiquitin chains and, to a lower extent, the formation of 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. APC7 is not required for the assembly of the APC/C complex, but has an enzyme-substrate adapter activity mediating the processive ubiquitination of specific substrates. Involved in brain development through the specific ubiquitination and clearance of MKI67 from constitutive heterochromatin after neuronal progenitors exit mitosis.

Negative regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway. Inhibits Wnt signaling in a cell-autonomous manner and functions upstream of beta- catenin. May act via its interaction with Wnt and LRP proteins. May play a role in colorectal tumorigenesis.

Stabilizes microtubules and may regulate actin fiber dynamics through the activation of Rho family GTPases. May also function in Wnt signaling by promoting the rapid degradation of CTNNB1.

Tumor suppressor. Promotes rapid degradation of CTNNB1 and participates in Wnt signaling as a negative regulator. APC activity is correlated with its phosphorylation state. Activates the GEF activity of SPATA13 and ARHGEF4. Plays a role in hepatocyte growth factor (HGF)- induced cell migration. Required for MMP9 up-regulation via the JNK signaling pathway in colorectal tumor cells. Acts as a mediator of ERBB2-dependent stabilization of microtubules at the cell cortex. It is required for the localization of MACF1 to the cell membrane and this localization of MACF1 is critical for its function in microtubule stabilization.

Endogenous ligand for the apelin receptor (APLNR). Drives internalization of the apelin receptor (By similarity). Apelin-36 dissociates more hardly than (pyroglu)apelin-13 from APLNR (By similarity). Hormone involved in the regulation of cardiac precursor cell movements during gastrulation and heart morphogenesis (By similarity). Has an inhibitory effect on cytokine production in response to T-cell receptor/CD3 cross-linking; the oral intake of apelin in the colostrum and the milk might therefore modulate immune responses in neonates (By similarity). Plays a role in early coronary blood vessels formation (By similarity). Mediates myocardial contractility in an ERK1/2-dependent manner (By similarity). May also have a role in the central control of body fluid homeostasis by influencing vasopressin release and drinking behavior (By similarity).

Multifunctional protein that plays a central role in the cellular response to oxidative stress. The two major activities of APEX1 are DNA repair and redox regulation of transcriptional factors. Functions as a apurinic/apyrimidinic (AP) endodeoxyribonuclease in the DNA base excision repair (BER) pathway of DNA lesions induced by oxidative and alkylating agents. Initiates repair of AP sites in DNA by catalyzing hydrolytic incision of the phosphodiester backbone immediately adjacent to the damage, generating a single-strand break with 5'-deoxyribose phosphate and 3'-hydroxyl ends. Does also incise at AP sites in the DNA strand of DNA/RNA hybrids, single-stranded DNA regions of R-loop structures, and single-stranded RNA molecules. Has a 3'-5' exoribonuclease activity on mismatched deoxyribonucleotides at the 3' termini of nicked or gapped DNA molecules during short-patch BER. Possesses a DNA 3' phosphodiesterase activity capable of removing lesions (such as phosphoglycolate) blocking the 3' side of DNA strand breaks. May also play a role in the epigenetic regulation of gene expression by participating in DNA demethylation. Acts as a loading factor for POLB onto non-incised AP sites in DNA and stimulates the 5'- terminal deoxyribose 5'-phosphate (dRp) excision activity of POLB. Plays a role in the protection from granzymes-mediated cellular repair leading to cell death. Also involved in the DNA cleavage step of class switch recombination (CSR). On the other hand, APEX1 also exerts reversible nuclear redox activity to regulate DNA binding affinity and transcriptional activity of transcriptional factors by controlling the redox status of their DNA-binding domain, such as the FOS/JUN AP-1 complex after exposure to IR. Involved in calcium-dependent down- regulation of parathyroid hormone (PTH) expression by binding to negative calcium response elements (nCaREs). Together with HNRNPL or the dimer XRCC5/XRCC6, associates with nCaRE, acting as an activator of transcriptional repression. Stimulates the YBX1-mediated MDR1 promoter activity, when acetylated at Lys-6 and Lys-7, leading to drug resistance. Acts also as an endoribonuclease involved in the control of single-stranded RNA metabolism. Plays a role in regulating MYC mRNA turnover by preferentially cleaving in between UA and CA dinucleotides of the MYC coding region determinant (CRD). In association with NMD1, plays a role in the rRNA quality control process during cell cycle progression. Associates, together with YBX1, on the MDR1 promoter. Together with NPM1, associates with rRNA. Binds DNA and RNA.

Functions as a weak apurinic/apyrimidinic (AP) endodeoxyribonuclease in the DNA base excision repair (BER) pathway of DNA lesions induced by oxidative and alkylating agents. Initiates repair of AP sites in DNA by catalyzing hydrolytic incision of the phosphodiester backbone immediately adjacent to the damage, generating a single-strand break with 5'-deoxyribose phosphate and 3'-hydroxyl ends. Also displays double-stranded DNA 3'-5' exonuclease, 3'- phosphodiesterase activities. Shows robust 3'-5' exonuclease activity on 3'-recessed heteroduplex DNA and is able to remove mismatched nucleotides preferentially. Shows fairly strong 3'-phosphodiesterase activity involved in the removal of 3'-damaged termini formed in DNA by oxidative agents. In the nucleus functions in the PCNA-dependent BER pathway. Required for somatic hypermutation (SHM) and DNA cleavage step of class switch recombination (CSR) of immunoglobulin genes. Required for proper cell cycle progression during proliferation of peripheral lymphocytes.

Non-catalytic subunit of the gamma-secretase complex, an endoprotease complex that catalyzes the intramembrane cleavage of integral membrane proteins such as Notch receptors and APP (amyloid- beta precursor protein). Required for normal gamma-secretase assembly. The gamma-secretase complex plays a role in Notch and Wnt signaling cascades and regulation of downstream processes via its role in processing key regulatory proteins, and by regulating cytosolic CTNNB1 levels (Probable).

Probable subunit of the gamma-secretase complex, an endoprotease complex that catalyzes the intramembrane cleavage of integral proteins such as Notch receptors and APP (amyloid-beta precursor protein). It probably represents a stabilizing cofactor for the presenilin homodimer that promotes the formation of a stable complex. Probably present in a minority of gamma-secretase complexes compared to APH1A.

Antiapoptotic factor that may have a role in protein assembly. Negatively regulates ACIN1. By binding to ACIN1, it suppresses ACIN1 cleavage from CASP3 and ACIN1-mediated DNA fragmentation. Also known to efficiently suppress E2F1-induced apoptosis. Its depletion enhances the cytotoxic action of the chemotherapeutic drugs.

Receptor for apelin receptor early endogenous ligand (APELA) and apelin (APLN) hormones coupled to G proteins that inhibit adenylate cyclase activity. Plays a key role in early development such as gastrulation, blood vessels formation and heart morphogenesis by acting as a receptor for APELA hormone (By similarity). May promote angioblast migration toward the embryonic midline, i.e. the position of the future vessel formation, during vasculogenesis (By similarity). Promotes sinus venosus (SV)-derived endothelial cells migration into the developing heart to promote coronary blood vessel development (By similarity). Also plays a role in various processes in adults such as regulation of blood vessel formation, blood pressure, heart contractility and heart failure.

May be involved in angiogenesis. May play a role in activity- dependent changes of brain vasculature. May affect blood-brain permeability.

Histone chaperone involved in single-strand and double-strand DNA break repair. Recruited to sites of DNA damage through interaction with branched poly-ADP-ribose chains, a polymeric post-translational modification synthesized transiently at sites of chromosomal damage to accelerate DNA strand break repair reactions. Following recruitment to DNA damage sites, acts as a histone chaperone that mediates histone eviction during DNA repair and promotes recruitment of histone variant MACROH2A1. Also has a nuclease activity: displays apurinic-apyrimidinic (AP) endonuclease and 3'-5' exonuclease activities in vitro. Also able to introduce nicks at hydroxyuracil and other types of pyrimidine base damage. Together with PARP3, promotes the retention of the LIG4-XRCC4 complex on chromatin and accelerate DNA ligation during non-homologous end-joining (NHEJ). Also acts as a negative regulator of cell pluripotency by promoting histone exchange (By similarity). Required for the embryo implantation during the epithelial to mesenchymal transition in females (By similarity).

May play a role in postsynaptic function. The C-terminal gamma-secretase processed fragment, ALID1, activates transcription activation through APBB1 (Fe65) binding (By similarity). Couples to JIP signal transduction through C-terminal binding. May interact with cellular G-protein signaling pathways. Can regulate neurite outgrowth through binding to components of the extracellular matrix such as heparin and collagen I.

May play a role in the regulation of hemostasis. The soluble form may have inhibitory properties towards coagulation factors. May interact with cellular G-protein signaling pathways. May bind to the DNA 5'-GTCACATG-3'(CDEI box). Inhibits trypsin, chymotrypsin, plasmin, factor XIA and plasma and glandular kallikrein. Modulates the Cu/Zn nitric oxide-catalyzed autodegradation of GPC1 heparan sulfate side chains in fibroblasts (By similarity).

Exhibits strong arylesterase activity with beta-naphthyl acetate and phenyl acetate. May play a role in adipocyte differentiation.

Participates in the reverse transport of cholesterol from tissues to the liver for excretion by promoting cholesterol efflux from tissues and by acting as a cofactor for the lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT). As part of the SPAP complex, activates spermatozoa motility.

May stabilize HDL (high density lipoprotein) structure by its association with lipids, and affect the HDL metabolism

May have a role in chylomicrons and VLDL secretion and catabolism. Required for efficient activation of lipoprotein lipase by ApoC-II; potent activator of LCAT. Apoa-IV is a major component of HDL and chylomicrons

Minor apolipoprotein mainly associated with HDL and to a lesser extent with VLDL. May also be associated with chylomicrons. Important determinant of plasma triglyceride (TG) levels by both being a potent stimulator of apo-CII lipoprotein lipase (LPL) TG hydrolysis and an inhibitor of the hepatic VLDL-TG production rate (without affecting the VLDL-apoB production rate) (By similarity). Activates poorly lecithin:cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT) and does not enhance efflux of cholesterol from macrophages. Binds heparin.

Apo(a) is the main constituent of lipoprotein(a) (Lp(a)). It has serine proteinase activity and is able of autoproteolysis. Inhibits tissue-type plasminogen activator 1. Lp(a) may be a ligand for megalin/Gp 330.

Macrophage receptor that binds to the apolipoprotein B48 (APOB) of dietary triglyceride (TG)-rich lipoproteins (TRL) or to a like domain of APOB in hypertriglyceridemic very low density lipoprotein (HTG-VLDL). Binds and internalizes TRL when out of the context of the macrophage. May provide essential lipids to reticuloendothelial cells. Could also be involved in foam cell formation with elevated TRL and remnant lipoprotein (RLP). Mediates the rapid high-affinity uptake of chylomicrons (CM), HTG-VLDL, and trypsinized (tryp) VLDL devoid of APOE in vitro in macrophages.

Apolipoprotein B is a major protein constituent of chylomicrons (apo B-48), LDL (apo B-100) and VLDL (apo B-100). Apo B- 100 functions as a recognition signal for the cellular binding and internalization of LDL particles by the apoB/E receptor

Inhibitor of lipoprotein binding to the low density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor, LDL receptor-related protein, and very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) receptor. Associates with high density lipoproteins (HDL) and the triacylglycerol-rich lipoproteins in the plasma and makes up about 10% of the protein of the VLDL and 2% of that of HDL. Appears to interfere directly with fatty acid uptake and is also the major plasma inhibitor of cholesteryl ester transfer protein (CETP). Binds free fatty acids and reduces their intracellular esterification. Modulates the interaction of APOE with beta-migrating VLDL and inhibits binding of beta-VLDL to the LDL receptor-related protein.

Component of chylomicrons, very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL), low-density lipoproteins (LDL), and high-density lipoproteins (HDL) in plasma. Plays an important role in lipoprotein metabolism as an activator of lipoprotein lipase. Both proapolipoprotein C-II and apolipoprotein C-II can activate lipoprotein lipase. In normolipidemic individuals, it is mainly distributed in the HDL, whereas in hypertriglyceridemic individuals, predominantly found in the VLDL and LDL.

Component of triglyceride-rich very low density lipoproteins (VLDL) and high density lipoproteins (HDL) in plasma. Plays a multifaceted role in triglyceride homeostasis. Intracellularly, promotes hepatic very low density lipoprotein 1 (VLDL1) assembly and secretion; extracellularly, attenuates hydrolysis and clearance of triglyceride- rich lipoproteins (TRLs). Impairs the lipolysis of TRLs by inhibiting lipoprotein lipase and the hepatic uptake of TRLs by remnant receptors. Formed of several curved helices connected via semiflexible hinges, so that it can wrap tightly around the curved micelle surface and easily adapt to the different diameters of its natural binding partners.

APOD occurs in the macromolecular complex with lecithin- cholesterol acyltransferase. It is probably involved in the transport and binding of bilin. Appears to be able to transport a variety of ligands in a number of different contexts

APOE is an apolipoprotein, a protein associating with lipid particles, that mainly functions in lipoprotein-mediated lipid transport between organs via the plasma and interstitial fluids. APOE is a core component of plasma lipoproteins and is involved in their production, conversion and clearance. Apolipoproteins are amphipathic molecules that interact both with lipids of the lipoprotein particle core and the aqueous environment of the plasma. As such, APOE associates with chylomicrons, chylomicron remnants, very low density lipoproteins (VLDL) and intermediate density lipoproteins (IDL) but shows a preferential binding to high-density lipoproteins (HDL). It also binds a wide range of cellular receptors including the LDL receptor/LDLR, the LDL receptor-related proteins LRP1, LRP2 and LRP8 and the very low-density lipoprotein receptor/VLDLR that mediate the cellular uptake of the APOE-containing lipoprotein particles. Finally, APOE has also a heparin-binding activity and binds heparan- sulfate proteoglycans on the surface of cells, a property that supports the capture and the receptor-mediated uptake of APOE-containing lipoproteins by cells. A main function of APOE is to mediate lipoprotein clearance through the uptake of chylomicrons, VLDLs, and HDLs by hepatocytes. APOE is also involved in the biosynthesis by the liver of VLDLs as well as their uptake by peripheral tissues ensuring the delivery of triglycerides and energy storage in muscle, heart and adipose tissues. By participating in the lipoprotein-mediated distribution of lipids among tissues, APOE plays a critical role in plasma and tissues lipid homeostasis. APOE is also involved in two steps of reverse cholesterol transport, the HDLs-mediated transport of cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver, and thereby plays an important role in cholesterol homeostasis. First, it is functionally associated with ABCA1 in the biogenesis of HDLs in tissues. Second, it is enriched in circulating HDLs and mediates their uptake by hepatocytes. APOE also plays an important role in lipid transport in the central nervous system, regulating neuron survival and sprouting. APOE is also involved in innate and adaptive immune responses, controlling for instance the survival of myeloid-derived suppressor cells (By similarity). Binds to the immune cell receptor LILRB4. APOE may also play a role in transcription regulation through a receptor-dependent and cholesterol-independent mechanism, that activates MAP3K12 and a non-canonical MAPK signal transduction pathway that results in enhanced AP-1-mediated transcription of APP.

Minor apolipoprotein that associates with LDL. Inhibits cholesteryl ester transfer protein (CETP) activity and appears to be an important regulator of cholesterol transport. Also associates to a lesser degree with VLDL, Apo-AI and Apo-AII.

Binds to various kinds of negatively charged substances such as heparin, phospholipids, and dextran sulfate. May prevent activation of the intrinsic blood coagulation cascade by binding to phospholipids on the surface of damaged cells

May play a role in lipid exchange and transport throughout the body. May participate in reverse cholesterol transport from peripheral cells to the liver

May affect the movement of lipids in the cytoplasm or allow the binding of lipids to organelles

May play a role in lipid exchange and transport throughout the body. May participate in reverse cholesterol transport from peripheral cells to the liver (By similarity).

Probably involved in lipid transport. Can bind sphingosine-1- phosphate, myristic acid, palmitic acid and stearic acid, retinol, all- trans-retinoic acid and 9-cis-retinoic acid.

Protease responsible for filaggrin processing, essential for the maintenance of a proper epidermis organization.

Promotes activation of caspases and apoptosis. Promotes mitochondrial membrane changes and efflux of apoptogenic proteins from the mitochondria. Contributes to p53/TP53-dependent apoptosis after radiation exposure. Promotes proteasomal degradation of MCL1. Competes with BAK1 for binding to MCL1 and can displace BAK1 from its binding site on MCL1 (By similarity). Competes with BIM/BCL2L11 for binding to MCL1 and can displace BIM/BCL2L11 from its binding site on MCL1.

DNA-binding protein involved in single-strand DNA break repair, double-strand DNA break repair and base excision repair. Resolves abortive DNA ligation intermediates formed either at base excision sites, or when DNA ligases attempt to repair non-ligatable breaks induced by reactive oxygen species. Catalyzes the release of adenylate groups covalently linked to 5'-phosphate termini, resulting in the production of 5'-phosphate termini that can be efficiently rejoined. Also able to hydrolyze adenosine 5'-monophosphoramidate (AMP-NH(2)) and diadenosine tetraphosphate (AppppA), but with lower catalytic activity. Likewise, catalyzes the release of 3'-linked guanosine (DNAppG) and inosine (DNAppI) from DNA, but has higher specific activity with 5'-linked adenosine (AppDNA) (By similarity).

Catalyzes a salvage reaction resulting in the formation of AMP, that is energically less costly than de novo synthesis.

Aquaporins facilitate the transport of water and small neutral solutes across cell membranes.

[Isoform 1]: Water channel that mediates water transport across cell membranes irrespective of the cytosolic pH. The channel is permeable to glycerol, especially when the cytosolic pH is acidified. Contributes to adipocyte water and glycerol permeability, and may thereby contribute to the utilization of glycerol derived from phospholipid degradation. May contribute to water transport in the intestine (Probable).

Channel protein that facilitates the transport of water, glycerol and hydrogen peroxide across membrane of cell or organelles guaranteeing intracellular homeostasis in several organes like liver, kidney and brain. In situation of stress, participates in endoplasmic reticulum (ER) homeostasis by regulating redox homeostasis through the transport of hydrogen peroxide across the endoplasmic reticulum membrane thereby regulating the oxidative stress through the NADPH oxidase 2 pathway. Plays a role by maintaining an environment suitable for translation or protein foldings in the ER lumen namely by participating in the PKD1 glycosylation processing resulting in regulation of PKD1 membrane trafficking thereby preventing the accumulation of unfolding protein in ER (By similarity). Plays a role in the proximal tubule function by regulating its endosomal acidification (By similarity). May play a role in postnatal kidney development (By similarity).

Forms a water-specific channel that provides the plasma membranes of red cells and kidney proximal tubules with high permeability to water, thereby permitting water to move in the direction of an osmotic gradient.

Forms a water-specific channel that provides the plasma membranes of renal collecting duct with high permeability to water, thereby permitting water to move in the direction of an osmotic gradient. Plays an essential role in renal water homeostasis.

Water channel required to promote glycerol permeability and water transport across cell membranes. Acts as a glycerol transporter in skin and plays an important role in regulating SC (stratum corneum) and epidermal glycerol content. Involved in skin hydration, wound healing, and tumorigenesis. Provides kidney medullary collecting duct with high permeability to water, thereby permitting water to move in the direction of an osmotic gradient. Slightly permeable to urea and may function as a water and urea exit mechanism in antidiuresis in collecting duct cells. It may play an important role in gastrointestinal tract water transport and in glycerol metabolism (By similarity).

Forms a water-specific channel. Plays an important role in brain water homeostasis and in glymphatic solute transport. Required for a normal rate of water exchange across the blood brain interface. Required for normal levels of cerebrospinal fluid influx into the brain cortex and parenchyma along paravascular spaces that surround penetrating arteries, and for normal drainage of interstitial fluid along paravenous drainage pathways. Thereby, it is required for normal clearance of solutes from the brain interstitial fluid, including soluble beta-amyloid peptides derived from APP. Plays a redundant role in urinary water homeostasis and urinary concentrating ability (By similarity).

Forms a water-specific channel. Plays an important role in fluid secretion in salivary glands (By similarity). Required for TRPV4 activation by hypotonicity. Together with TRPV4, controls regulatory volume decrease in salivary epithelial cells. Seems to play a redundant role in water transport in the eye, lung and in sweat glands (By similarity).

Forms a water-specific channel that participates in distinct physiological functions such as glomerular filtration, tubular endocytosis and acid-base metabolism.

Forms a channel that mediates water and glycerol transport across cell membranes at neutral pH. The channel is also permeable to urea. Plays an important role in body energy homeostasis under conditions that promote lipid catabolism, giving rise to glycerol and free fatty acids. Mediates glycerol export from adipocytes. After release into the blood stream, glycerol is used for gluconeogenesis in the liver to maintain normal blood glucose levels and prevent fasting hypoglycemia. Required for normal glycerol reabsorption in the kidney (By similarity).

Forms a water-specific channel; mercury-sensitive. Not permeable to glycerol or urea

Forms a water channel with a broad specificity. Also permeable glycerol and urea. Mediates passage of a wide variety of small, non-charged solutes including carbamides, polyols, purines, and pyrimidines.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Intron-binding spliceosomal protein required to link pre-mRNA splicing and snoRNP (small nucleolar ribonucleoprotein) biogenesis. Plays a key role in position-dependent assembly of intron-encoded box C/D small snoRNP, splicing being required for snoRNP assembly. May act by helping the folding of the snoRNA sequence. Binds to intron of pre-mRNAs in a sequence-independent manner, contacting the region between snoRNA and the branchpoint of introns (40 nucleotides upstream of the branchpoint) during the late stages of splicing. Has ATP-dependent RNA helicase activity and can unwind double-stranded RNA molecules with a 3' overhang (in vitro).

Cilium-specific protein required to control the microtubule- based, ciliary axoneme structure. May act by maintaining the association between IFT subcomplexes A and B. Binds GTP but is not able to hydrolyze it; the GTPase activity remains unclear. Required to pattern the neural tube. Involved in cerebral cortex development: required for the initial formation of a polarized radial glial scaffold, the first step in the construction of the cerebral cortex, by regulating ciliary signaling. Regulates the migration and placement of postmitotic interneurons in the developing cerebral cortex. May regulate endocytic recycling traffic; however, additional evidence is required to confirm these data.

Together with ARL2, plays a role in the nuclear translocation, retention and transcriptional activity of STAT3. May play a role as an effector of ARL2.

Positively regulates SLC1A1/EAAC1-mediated glutamate transport by increasing its affinity for glutamate in a PKC activity- dependent manner. Promotes the catalytic efficiency of SLC1A1/EAAC1 probably by reducing its interaction with ARL6IP5, a negative regulator of SLC1A1/EAAC1-mediated glutamate transport (By similarity). Plays a role in the formation and stabilization of endoplasmic reticulum tubules. Negatively regulates apoptosis, possibly by modulating the activity of caspase-9 (CASP9). Inhibits cleavage of CASP9-dependent substrates and downstream markers of apoptosis but not CASP9 itself. May be involved in protein transport, membrane trafficking, or cell signaling during hematopoietic maturation.

Involved in modulating alternative pre-mRNA splicing with either 5' distal site activation or preferential use of 3' proximal site. In case of infection by Herpes simplex virus (HSVI), may act as a splicing inhibitor of HSVI pre-mRNA.

Involved in the transduction of mitogenic signals from the cell membrane to the nucleus. May also regulate the TOR signaling cascade.

Promotes osteoblast cell differentiation and terminal mineralization. Plays a role in inducing the cell cycle arrest via inhibiting CCND1 expression in all-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA) signal pathway.

Phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate-dependent GTPase- activating protein that modulates actin cytoskeleton remodeling by regulating ARF and RHO family members. Is activated by phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4,5)P3) binding. Can be activated by phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4,5)P2) binding, albeit with lower efficiency. Has a preference for ARF1 and ARF5 (By similarity).

Phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate-dependent GTPase- activating protein that modulates actin cytoskeleton remodeling by regulating ARF and RHO family members. Is activated by phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4,5)P3) binding. Can be activated by phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4,5)P2) binding, albeit with lower efficiency (By similarity).

Phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate-dependent GTPase- activating protein that modulates actin cytoskeleton remodeling by regulating ARF and RHO family members. Is activated by phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4,5)P3) binding. Can be activated by phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4,5)P2) binding, albeit with lower efficiency. Acts on ARF6, RAC1, RHOA and CDC42. Plays a role in the internalization of anthrax toxin.

Specifically phosphorylates the agonist-occupied form of the beta-adrenergic and closely related receptors, probably inducing a desensitization of them. Key regulator of LPAR1 signaling. Competes with RALA for binding to LPAR1 thus affecting the signaling properties of the receptor. Desensitizes LPAR1 and LPAR2 in a phosphorylation- independent manner. Positively regulates ciliary smoothened (SMO)-dependent Hedgehog (Hh) signaling pathway by facilitating the trafficking of SMO into the cilium and the stimulation of SMO activity (By similarity). Inhibits relaxation of airway smooth muscle in response to blue light.

Specifically phosphorylates the agonist-occupied form of the beta-adrenergic and closely related receptors.

Probably functions as component of the Arp2/3 complex which is involved in regulation of actin polymerization and together with an activating nucleation-promoting factor (NPF) mediates the formation of branched actin networks.

Component of the Arp2/3 complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates actin polymerization upon stimulation by nucleation-promoting factor (NPF). The Arp2/3 complex mediates the formation of branched actin networks in the cytoplasm, providing the force for cell motility. In addition to its role in the cytoplasmic cytoskeleton, the Arp2/3 complex also promotes actin polymerization in the nucleus, thereby regulating gene transcription and repair of damaged DNA. The Arp2/3 complex promotes homologous recombination (HR) repair in response to DNA damage by promoting nuclear actin polymerization, leading to drive motility of double- strand breaks (DSBs).

Component of the tRNA-splicing ligase complex required to facilitate the enzymatic turnover of catalytic subunit RTCB. Together with DDX1, acts by facilitating the guanylylation of RTCB, a key intermediate step in tRNA ligation.

Master regulator of synaptic plasticity that self-assembles into virion-like capsids that encapsulate RNAs and mediate intercellular RNA transfer in the nervous system. ARC protein is released from neurons in extracellular vesicles that mediate the transfer of ARC mRNA into new target cells, where ARC mRNA can undergo activity-dependent translation. ARC capsids are endocytosed and are able to transfer ARC mRNA into the cytoplasm of neurons. Acts as a key regulator of synaptic plasticity: required for protein synthesis- dependent forms of long-term potentiation (LTP) and depression (LTD) and for the formation of long-term memory. Regulates synaptic plasticity by promoting endocytosis of AMPA receptors (AMPARs) in response to synaptic activity: this endocytic pathway maintains levels of surface AMPARs in response to chronic changes in neuronal activity through synaptic scaling, thereby contributing to neuronal homeostasis. Acts as a postsynaptic mediator of activity-dependent synapse elimination in the developing cerebellum by mediating elimination of surplus climbing fiber synapses. Accumulates at weaker synapses, probably to prevent their undesired enhancement. This suggests that ARC-containing virion-like capsids may be required to eliminate synaptic material. Required to transduce experience into long-lasting changes in visual cortex plasticity and for long-term memory (By similarity). Involved in postsynaptic trafficking and processing of amyloid-beta A4 (APP) via interaction with PSEN1 (By similarity). In addition to its role in synapses, also involved in the regulation of the immune system: specifically expressed in skin-migratory dendritic cells and regulates fast dendritic cell migration, thereby regulating T-cell activation (By similarity).

Ligand of the EGF receptor/EGFR. Autocrine growth factor as well as a mitogen for a broad range of target cells including astrocytes, Schwann cells and fibroblasts

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that catalyzes 'Lys-11'- or 'Lys- 33'-linked polyubiquitin chains, with some preference for 'Lys-33' linkages. E3 ubiquitin-protein ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Ubiquitinates SEPTIN4, DIABLO/SMAC and HTRA2 in vitro. Modulates pulmonary inflammation by targeting SOCS2 for ubiquitination and subsequent degradation by the proteasome.

Small GTPase involved in protein trafficking between different compartments. Modulates vesicle budding and uncoating within the Golgi complex. In its GTP-bound form, triggers the recruitment of coatomer proteins to the Golgi membrane. The hydrolysis of ARF1-bound GTP, which is mediated by ARFGAPs proteins, is required for dissociation of coat proteins from Golgi membranes and vesicles. The GTP- bound form interacts with PICK1 to limit PICK1-mediated inhibition of Arp2/3 complex activity; the function is linked to AMPA receptor (AMPAR) trafficking, regulation of synaptic plasticity of excitatory synapses and spine shrinkage during long-term depression (LTD) (By similarity).

GTP-binding protein that functions as an allosteric activator of the cholera toxin catalytic subunit, an ADP-ribosyltransferase. Involved in protein trafficking; may modulate vesicle budding and uncoating within the Golgi apparatus

GTP-binding protein involved in protein trafficking; may modulate vesicle budding and uncoating within the Golgi apparatus.

GTP-binding protein involved in protein trafficking that regulates endocytic recycling and cytoskeleton remodeling. Required for normal completion of mitotic cytokinesis (By similarity). Plays a role in the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and the formation of stress fibers (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of dendritic spine development, contributing to the regulation of dendritic branching and filopodia extension. Plays an important role in membrane trafficking, during junctional remodeling and epithelial polarization. Regulates surface levels of adherens junction proteins such as CDH1 (By similarity). Required for NTRK1 sorting to the recycling pathway from early endosomes (By similarity).

GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for the ADP ribosylation factor 1 (ARF1). Involved in membrane trafficking and /or vesicle transport. Promotes hydrolysis of the ARF1-bound GTP and thus, is required for the dissociation of coat proteins from Golgi-derived membranes and vesicles, a prerequisite for vesicle's fusion with target compartment. Probably regulates ARF1-mediated transport via its interaction with the KDELR proteins and TMED2. Overexpression induces the redistribution of the entire Golgi complex to the endoplasmic reticulum, as when ARF1 is deactivated. Its activity is stimulated by phosphoinosides and inhibited by phosphatidylcholine (By similarity).

GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for ADP ribosylation factor 1 (ARF1). Implicated in coatomer-mediated protein transport between the Golgi complex and the endoplasmic reticulum. Hydrolysis of ARF1-bound GTP may lead to dissociation of coatomer from Golgi-derived membranes to allow fusion with target membranes.

GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for ADP ribosylation factor 1 (ARF1). Hydrolysis of ARF1-bound GTP may lead to dissociation of coatomer from Golgi-derived membranes to allow fusion with target membranes.

Plays a role in controlling biogenesis of secretory granules at the trans-Golgi network. Mechanisitically, binds ARF-GTP at the neck of a growing secretory granule precursor and forms a protective scaffold. Once the granule precursor has been completely loaded, active PRKD1 phosphorylates ARFIP1 and releases it from ARFs. In turn, ARFs induce fission. Through this mechanism, ensures proper secretory granule formation at the Golgi of pancreatic beta cells.

Plays a role in constitutive metalloproteinase (MMP) secretion from the trans Golgi network. May have important functions during vesicle biogenesis at certain cargo subdomains, which could be predominantly utilized by secreted MMPs, such as MMP7 and MMP2. Also involved in autophagy by regulating the starvation-dependent trafficking of ATG9A vesicles which deliver the phosphatidylinositol 4-kinase beta (PI4KB) to the autophagosome initiation site. Involved in phagophore growth during mitophagy by regulating ATG9A trafficking to mitochondria. In addition, plays a role in NF-kappa-B inhibition by interacting with IKBKB and IKBKG.

Trans-Golgi-associated GTPase that regulates protein sorting. Controls the targeting of ARL1 and its effector to the trans-Golgi. Required for the lipidation of chylomicrons in the intestine and required for VLDL lipidation in the liver.

Capable of inducing cell cycle arrest in G1 and G2 phases. Acts as a tumor suppressor. Binds to MDM2 and blocks its nucleocytoplasmic shuttling by sequestering it in the nucleolus. This inhibits the oncogenic action of MDM2 by blocking MDM2-induced degradation of p53 and enhancing p53-dependent transactivation and apoptosis. Also induces G2 arrest and apoptosis in a p53-independent manner by preventing the activation of cyclin B1/CDC2 complexes. Binds to BCL6 and down-regulates BCL6-induced transcriptional repression. Binds to E2F1 and MYC and blocks their transcriptional activator activity but has no effect on MYC transcriptional repression. Binds to TOP1/TOPOI and stimulates its activity. This complex binds to rRNA gene promoters and may play a role in rRNA transcription and/or maturation. Interacts with NPM1/B23 and promotes its polyubiquitination and degradation, thus inhibiting rRNA processing. Plays a role in inhibiting ribosome biogenesis, perhaps by binding to the nucleolar localization sequence of transcription termination factor TTF1, and thereby preventing nucleolar localization of TTF1 (By similarity). Interacts with COMMD1 and promotes its 'Lys63'-linked polyubiquitination. Interacts with UBE2I/UBC9 and enhances sumoylation of a number of its binding partners including MDM2 and E2F1. Binds to HUWE1 and represses its ubiquitin ligase activity. May play a role in controlling cell proliferation and apoptosis during mammary gland development.

Functions as a RHOA-specific guanine nucleotide exchange factor regulating signaling pathways downstream of integrins and growth factor receptors. Functions in axonal branching, synapse formation and dendritic morphogenesis. Functions also in focal adhesion formation, cell motility and B-lymphocytes activation. May regulate NEFL expression and aggregation and play a role in apoptosis (By similarity).

Acts as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RHOA, RHOB and RHOC.

Key element of the urea cycle converting L-arginine to urea and L-ornithine, which is further metabolized into metabolites proline and polyamides that drive collagen synthesis and bioenergetic pathways critical for cell proliferation, respectively; the urea cycle takes place primarily in the liver and, to a lesser extent, in the kidneys.

May play a role in the regulation of extra-urea cycle arginine metabolism and also in down-regulation of nitric oxide synthesis. Extrahepatic arginase functions to regulate L-arginine bioavailability to nitric oxid synthase (NOS). Arginine metabolism is a critical regulator of innate and adaptive immune responses. Seems to be involved in negative regulation of the survival capacity of activated CD4(+) and CD8(+) T cells. May suppress inflammation- related signaling in asthmatic airway epithelium. May contribute to the immune evasion of H.pylori by restricting M1 macrophage activation and polyamine metabolism (By similarity). In fetal dendritic cells may play a role in promoting immune suppression and T cell TNF-alpha production during gestation. Regulates RPS6KB1 signaling, which promotes endothelial cell senescence and inflammation and implicates NOS3/eNOS dysfunction. Can inhibit endothelial autophagy independently of its enzymatic activity implicating mTORC2 signaling. Involved in vascular smooth muscle cell senescence and apoptosis independently of its enzymatic activity. Since NOS is found in the penile corpus cavernosum smooth muscle, the clitoral corpus cavernosum and the vagina, arginase-2 plays a role in both male and female sexual arousal.

Required for the estrogen-dependent expression of ESR1 target genes. Can act in cooperation with MED1.

Seems to play a role in the regulation of RhoA GTPase by guanine nucleotide-binding alpha-12 (GNA12) and alpha-13 (GNA13) subunits. Acts as GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for GNA12 and GNA13, and as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RhoA GTPase. Activated G alpha 13/GNA13 stimulates the RhoGEF activity through interaction with the RGS-like domain. This GEF activity is inhibited by binding to activated GNA12. Mediates angiotensin-2-induced RhoA activation.

Activates Rho-GTPases by promoting the exchange of GDP for GTP. May be involved in epithelial barrier permeability, cell motility and polarization, dendritic spine morphology, antigen presentation, leukemic cell differentiation, cell cycle regulation, innate immune response, and cancer. Binds Rac-GTPases, but does not seem to promote nucleotide exchange activity toward Rac-GTPases, which was uniquely reported in PubMed:9857026. May stimulate instead the cortical activity of Rac. Inactive toward CDC42, TC10, or Ras-GTPases. Forms an intracellular sensing system along with NOD1 for the detection of microbial effectors during cell invasion by pathogens. Required for RHOA and RIP2 dependent NF-kappaB signaling pathways activation upon S.flexneri cell invasion. Involved not only in sensing peptidoglycan (PGN)-derived muropeptides through NOD1 that is independent of its GEF activity, but also in the activation of NF-kappaB by Shigella effector proteins (IpgB2 and OspB) which requires its GEF activity and the activation of RhoA. Involved in innate immune signaling transduction pathway promoting cytokine IL6/interleukin-6 and TNF-alpha secretion in macrophage upon stimulation by bacterial peptidoglycans; acts as a signaling intermediate between NOD2 receptor and RIPK2 kinase. Contributes to the tyrosine phosphorylation of RIPK2 through Src tyrosine kinase leading to NF-kappaB activation by NOD2. Overexpression activates Rho-, but not Rac-GTPases, and increases paracellular permeability (By similarity). Involved in neuronal progenitor cell division and differentiation. Involved in the migration of precerebellar neurons (By similarity).

Acts as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RhoA and RhoB GTPases.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor which activates Rho GTPases. Strongly activates RHOA. Also strongly activates RHOB, weakly activates RHOC and RHOG and shows no effect on RHOD, RHOV, RHOQ or RAC1 (By similarity). Involved in regulation of cell shape and actin cytoskeletal organization. Plays a role in actin organization by generating a loss of actin stress fibers and the formation of membrane ruffles and filopodia. Required for SRC-induced podosome formation (By similarity). Involved in positive regulation of immature dendritic cell migration (By similarity).

Acts as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RhoA GTPase. May be involved in activation of the SAPK/JNK pathway Stimulates genotoxic stress-induced RHOB activity in breast cancer cells leading to their cell death.

May play a role in developmental myelination of peripheral nerves.

May play a role in the regulation of RhoA GTPase by guanine nucleotide-binding alpha-12 (GNA12) and alpha-13 (GNA13). Acts as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RhoA GTPase and may act as GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for GNA12 and GNA13. Involved in neurotrophin-induced neurite outgrowth.

May play a role in the regulation of RhoA GTPase by guanine nucleotide-binding alpha-12 (GNA12) and alpha-13 (GNA13). Acts as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RhoA GTPase and may act as GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for GNA12 and GNA13.

Specific GEF for RhoA activation. Does not activate RAC1 or CDC42. Regulates vascular smooth muscle contractility. Negatively regulates excitatory synapse development by suppressing the synapse- promoting activity of EPHB2.

Guanyl-nucleotide exchange factor of the RHOG GTPase stimulating the exchange of RHOG-associated GDP for GTP. May play a role in chemotactic cell migration by mediating the activation of RAC1 by EPHA2. May also activate CDC42 and mediate activation of CDC42 by the viral protein HPV16 E6.

Acts as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RhoA GTPases.

Acts as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RhoA GTPases. Its activation induces formation of actin stress fibers. Also acts as a GEF for RAC1, inducing production of reactive oxygen species (ROS). Does not act as a GEF for CDC42. The G protein beta-gamma (Gbetagamma) subunits of heterotrimeric G proteins act as activators, explaining the integrated effects of LPA and other G-protein coupled receptor agonists on actin stress fiber formation, cell shape change and ROS production. Required for EPB41L4B-mediated regulation of the circumferential actomyosin belt in epithelial cells.

Acts as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RhoA GTPase.

May play a role in actin cytoskeleton reorganization in different tissues since its activation induces formation of actin stress fibers. It works as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor for Rho family of small GTPases. Links specifically G alpha q/11-coupled receptors to RHOA activation. May be an important regulator of processes involved in axon and dendrite formation. In neurons seems to be an exchange factor primarily for RAC1. Involved in skeletal myogenesis (By similarity).

Activates RhoG GTPase by promoting the exchange of GDP by GTP. Required for the formation of membrane ruffles during macropinocytosis. Required for the formation of cup-like structures during trans-endothelial migration of leukocytes. In case of Salmonella enterica infection, activated by SopB, which induces cytoskeleton rearrangements and promotes bacterial entry.

Adapter protein (clathrin-associated sorting protein (CLASP)) required for efficient endocytosis of the LDL receptor (LDLR) in polarized cells such as hepatocytes and lymphocytes, but not in non- polarized cells (fibroblasts). May be required for LDL binding and internalization but not for receptor clustering in coated pits. May facilitate the endocytosis of LDLR and LDLR-LDL complexes from coated pits by stabilizing the interaction between the receptor and the structural components of the pits. May also be involved in the internalization of other LDLR family members. Binds to phosphoinositides, which regulate clathrin bud assembly at the cell surface. Required for trafficking of LRP2 to the endocytic recycling compartment which is necessary for LRP2 proteolysis, releasing a tail fragment which translocates to the nucleus and mediates transcriptional repression (By similarity).

Involved in transcriptional activation and repression of select genes by chromatin remodeling (alteration of DNA-nucleosome topology). Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complexes that carry out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA-histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP-dependent manner. Binds DNA non-specifically. Belongs to the neural progenitors- specific chromatin remodeling complex (npBAF complex) and the neuron- specific chromatin remodeling complex (nBAF complex). During neural development a switch from a stem/progenitor to a postmitotic chromatin remodeling mechanism occurs as neurons exit the cell cycle and become committed to their adult state. The transition from proliferating neural stem/progenitor cells to postmitotic neurons requires a switch in subunit composition of the npBAF and nBAF complexes. As neural progenitors exit mitosis and differentiate into neurons, npBAF complexes which contain ACTL6A/BAF53A and PHF10/BAF45A, are exchanged for homologous alternative ACTL6B/BAF53B and DPF1/BAF45B or DPF3/BAF45C subunits in neuron-specific complexes (nBAF). The npBAF complex is essential for the self-renewal/proliferative capacity of the multipotent neural stem cells. The nBAF complex along with CREST plays a role regulating the activity of genes essential for dendrite growth (By similarity).

Involved in transcriptional activation and repression of select genes by chromatin remodeling (alteration of DNA-nucleosome topology). Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complexes that carry out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA-histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP-dependent manner. Belongs to the neural progenitors-specific chromatin remodeling complex (npBAF complex) and the neuron-specific chromatin remodeling complex (nBAF complex). During neural development a switch from a stem/progenitor to a postmitotic chromatin remodeling mechanism occurs as neurons exit the cell cycle and become committed to their adult state. The transition from proliferating neural stem/progenitor cells to postmitotic neurons requires a switch in subunit composition of the npBAF and nBAF complexes. As neural progenitors exit mitosis and differentiate into neurons, npBAF complexes which contain ACTL6A/BAF53A and PHF10/BAF45A, are exchanged for homologous alternative ACTL6B/BAF53B and DPF1/BAF45B or DPF3/BAF45C subunits in neuron- specific complexes (nBAF). The npBAF complex is essential for the self- renewal/proliferative capacity of the multipotent neural stem cells. The nBAF complex along with CREST plays a role regulating the activity of genes essential for dendrite growth (By similarity). Binds DNA non- specifically.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase, which catalyzes ubiquitination of target proteins together with ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 UBE2L3. Acts as an atypical E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase by working together with cullin-RING ubiquitin ligase (CRL) complexes and initiating ubiquitination of CRL substrates: associates with CRL complexes and specifically mediates addition of the first ubiquitin on CRLs targets. The initial ubiquitin is then elongated by CDC34/UBE2R1 and UBE2R2. E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity is activated upon binding to neddylated cullin-RING ubiquitin ligase complexes. Plays a role in protein translation in response to DNA damage by mediating ubiquitination of EIF4E2, the consequences of EIF4E2 ubiquitination are however unclear. According to a report, EIF4E2 ubiquitination leads to promote EIF4E2 cap-binding and protein translation arrest. According to another report EIF4E2 ubiquitination leads to its subsequent degradation. Acts as the ligase involved in ISGylation of EIF4E2. In vitro, controls the degradation of the LINC (LInker of Nucleoskeleton and Cytoskeleton) complex member SUN2 and may therefore have a role in the formation and localization of the LINC complex, and as a consequence, nuclear subcellular localization and nuclear morphology.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase, which catalyzes ubiquitination of target proteins together with ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 UBE2L3. Acts as an atypical E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase by working together with cullin-5-RING ubiquitin ligase complex (ECS complex, also named CRL5 complex) and initiating ubiquitination of ECS substrates: associates with ECS complex and specifically mediates addition of the first ubiquitin on ECS targets (By similarity). The initial ubiquitin is then elongated (By similarity). E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity is activated upon binding to neddylated form of the ECS complex. Mediates 'Lys-6', 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination. May play a role in myelopoiesis.

Transcription factor which may be involved in the control of cell cycle progression by the RB1/E2F1 pathway and in B-cell differentiation.

Transcription factor which may be involved in neuroblastoma growth and malignant transformation. Favors nuclear targeting of ARID3A.

DNA-binding protein which modulates activity of several transcription factors including RB1 (retinoblastoma-associated protein) and AR (androgen receptor) (By similarity). May function as part of an mSin3A repressor complex. Has no intrinsic transcriptional activity (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of epigenetic modifications at the PWS/AS imprinting center near the SNRPN promoter, where it might function as part of a complex with RB1 and ARID4B (By similarity). Involved in spermatogenesis, together with ARID4B, where it acts as a transcriptional coactivator for AR and enhances expression of genes required for sperm maturation. Regulates expression of the tight junction protein CLDN3 in the testis, which is important for integrity of the blood-testis barrier (By similarity). Plays a role in myeloid homeostasis where it regulates the histone methylation state of bone marrow cells and expression of various genes involved in hematopoiesis. May function as a leukemia suppressor (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional repressor. May function in the assembly and/or enzymatic activity of the Sin3A corepressor complex or in mediating interactions between the complex and other regulatory complexes. Plays a role in the regulation of epigenetic modifications at the PWS/AS imprinting center near the SNRPN promoter, where it might function as part of a complex with RB1 and ARID4A. Involved in spermatogenesis, together with ARID4A, where it functions as a transcriptional coactivator for AR (androgen receptor) and enhances expression of genes required for sperm maturation. Regulates expression of the tight junction protein CLDN3 in the testis, which is important for integrity of the blood-testis barrier. Plays a role in myeloid homeostasis where it regulates the histone methylation state of bone marrow cells and expression of various genes involved in hematopoiesis. May function as a leukemia suppressor (By similarity).

Binds to AT-rich stretches in the modulator region upstream of the human cytomegalovirus major intermediate early gene enhancer. May act as repressor and down-regulate enhancer-dependent gene expressison. May positively regulate chondrocyte- specific transcription such as of COL2A1 in collaboration with SOX9 and positively regulate histone H3 acetylation at chondrocyte-specific genes. May stimulate early-stage chondrocyte differentiation and inhibit later stage differention (By similarity). Can repress ESR1- mediated transcriptional activation; proposed to act as corepressor for selective nuclear hormone receptors. As RNA-binding protein involved in the regulation of inflammatory response by stabilizing selective inflammation-related mRNAs, such as IL6, STAT3 and TBX21. Binds to stem loop structures located in the 3'UTRs of IL6, STAT3 and TBX21 mRNAs; at least for STAT3 prevents binding of ZC3H12A to the mRNA stem loop structure thus inhibiting its degradation activity. Contributes to elevated IL6 levels possibly implicated in autoimmunity processes. IL6-dependent stabilization of STAT3 mRNA may promote differentiation of naive CD4+ T-cells into T-helper Th17 cells. In CD4+ T-cells may also inhibit RORC-induced Th17 cell differentiation independently of IL6 signaling. Stabilization of TBX21 mRNA contributes to elevated interferon-gamma secretion in Th1 cells possibly implicated in the establishment of septic shock (By similarity). Stabilizes TNFRSF4/OX40 mRNA by binding to the conserved stem loop structure in its 3'UTR; thereby competing with the mRNA-destabilizing functions of RC3H1 and endoribonuclease ZC3H12A (By similarity).

Transcription coactivator that binds to the 5'-AATA[CT]-3' core sequence and plays a key role in adipogenesis and liver development. Acts by forming a complex with phosphorylated PHF2, which mediates demethylation at Lys-336, leading to target the PHF2-ARID5B complex to target promoters, where PHF2 mediates demethylation of dimethylated 'Lys-9' of histone H3 (H3K9me2), followed by transcription activation of target genes. The PHF2-ARID5B complex acts as a coactivator of HNF4A in liver. Required for adipogenesis: regulates triglyceride metabolism in adipocytes by regulating expression of adipogenic genes. Overexpression leads to induction of smooth muscle marker genes, suggesting that it may also act as a regulator of smooth muscle cell differentiation and proliferation. Represses the cytomegalovirus enhancer.

Involved in transcriptional activation and repression of select genes by chromatin remodeling (alteration of DNA-nucleosome topology). Required for the stability of the SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complex SWI/SNF-B (PBAF). May be involved in targeting the complex to different genes. May be involved in regulating transcriptional activation of cardiac genes.

DNA helicase that modulates androgen receptor (AR)-dependent transactivation in a promoter-dependent manner. Not able to remodel mononucleosomes in vitro (By similarity).

Catalyzes the NADPH-dependent reduction of succinic semialdehyde to gamma-hydroxybutyrate. May have an important role in producing the neuromodulator gamma-hydroxybutyrate (GHB). Has broad substrate specificity. Has NADPH-dependent aldehyde reductase activity towards 2-carboxybenzaldehyde, 2-nitrobenzaldehyde and pyridine-2- aldehyde (in vitro). Can reduce 1,2-naphthoquinone and 9,10- phenanthrenequinone (in vitro). Can reduce the dialdehyde protein- binding form of aflatoxin B1 (AFB1) to the non-binding AFB1 dialcohol. May be involved in protection of liver against the toxic and carcinogenic effects of AFB1, a potent hepatocarcinogen.

Can reduce the dialdehyde protein-binding form of aflatoxin B1 (AFB1) to the non-binding AFB1 dialcohol. May be involved in protection of liver against the toxic and carcinogenic effects of AFB1, a potent hepatocarcinogen.

GTPase that recruits MYO1E to MHC class II-containing vesicles via the effector protein ARL14EP and hence controls the movement of these vesicles along the actin cytoskeleton in dendritic cells.

GTP-binding protein that functions as an allosteric activator of the cholera toxin catalytic subunit, an ADP-ribosyltransferase. Involved in protein trafficking; may modulate vesicle budding and uncoating within the Golgi apparatus (By similarity).

GTP-binding protein that recruits several effectors, such as golgins, arfaptins and Arf-GEFs to the trans-Golgi network, and modulates their functions at the Golgi complex. Plays thereby a role in a wide range of fundamental cellular processes, including cell polarity, innate immunity, or protein secretion mediated by arfaptins, which were shown to play a role in maintaining insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells.

Small GTP-binding protein which cycles between an inactive GDP-bound and an active GTP-bound form, and the rate of cycling is regulated by guanine nucleotide exchange factors (GEF) and GTPase- activating proteins (GAP). GTP-binding protein that does not act as an allosteric activator of the cholera toxin catalytic subunit. Regulates formation of new microtubules and centrosome integrity. Prevents the TBCD-induced microtubule destruction. Participates in association with TBCD, in the disassembly of the apical junction complexes. Antagonizes the effect of TBCD on epithelial cell detachment and tight and adherens junctions disassembly. Together with ARL2, plays a role in the nuclear translocation, retention and transcriptional activity of STAT3. Component of a regulated secretory pathway involved in Ca(2+)-dependent release of acetylcholine. Required for normal progress through the cell cycle. Also regulates mitochondrial integrity and function.

Small GTP-binding protein which cycles between an inactive GDP-bound and an active GTP-bound form, and the rate of cycling is regulated by guanine nucleotide exchange factors (GEF) and GTPase- activating proteins (GAP). Required for normal cytokinesis and cilia signaling. Requires assistance from GTPase-activating proteins (GAPs) like RP2 and PDE6D, in order to cycle between inactive GDP-bound and active GTP-bound forms. Required for targeting proteins to the cilium, including myristoylated NPHP3 and prenylated INPP5E. Targets NPHP3 to the ciliary membrane by releasing myristoylated NPHP3 from UNC119B cargo adapter into the cilium. Required for PKD1:PKD2 complex targeting from the trans-Golgi network to the cilium (By similarity).

Small GTP-binding protein which cycles between an inactive GDP-bound and an active GTP-bound form, and the rate of cycling is regulated by guanine nucleotide exchange factors (GEF) and GTPase- activating proteins (GAP). GTP-binding protein that does not act as an allosteric activator of the cholera toxin catalytic subunit. Recruits CYTH1, CYTH2, CYTH3 and CYTH4 to the plasma membrane in GDP-bound form.

Small GTP-binding protein which cycles between an inactive GDP-bound and an active GTP-bound form, and the rate of cycling is regulated by guanine nucleotide exchange factors (GEF) and GTPase- activating proteins (GAP). GTP-binding protein that does not act as an allosteric activator of the cholera toxin catalytic subunit. May be involved in transport between a perinuclear compartment and the plasma membrane, apparently linked to the ABCA1-mediated cholesterol secretion pathway. Recruits CYTH1, CYTH2, CYTH3 and CYTH4 to the plasma membrane in the GDP-bound form. Regulates the microtubule-dependent intracellular vesicular transport from early endosome to recycling endosome process.

Involved in membrane protein trafficking at the base of the ciliary organelle. Mediates recruitment onto plasma membrane of the BBSome complex which would constitute a coat complex required for sorting of specific membrane proteins to the primary cilia. Together with BBS1, is necessary for correct trafficking of PKD1 to primary cilia (By similarity). Together with the BBSome complex and LTZL1, controls SMO ciliary trafficking and contributes to the sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway regulation. May regulate cilia assembly and disassembly and subsequent ciliary signaling events such as the Wnt signaling cascade. Isoform 2 may be required for proper retinal function and organization (By similarity).

Plays a role in lysosome motility (By similarity). In neurons, mediates the anterograde axonal long-range transport of presynaptic lysosome-related vesicles required for presynaptic biogenesis and synaptic function (By similarity). May play a role in chromosome segregation (By similarity).

Small GTPase which cycles between active GTP-bound and inactive GDP-bound states. In its active state, binds to a variety of effector proteins playing a key role in the regulation of lysosomal positioning which is important for nutrient sensing, natural killer cell-mediated cytotoxicity and antigen presentation. Along with its effectors, orchestrates lysosomal transport and fusion. Localizes specifically to lysosomal membranes and mediates anterograde lysosomal motility by recruiting PLEKHM2, which in turn recruits the motor protein kinesin-1 on lysosomes. Required for lysosomal and cytolytic granule exocytosis. Critical factor involved in NK cell-mediated cytotoxicity. Drives the polarization of cytolytic granules and microtubule-organizing centers (MTOCs) toward the immune synapse between effector NK lymphocytes and target cells. In neurons, mediates the anterograde axonal long-range transport of presynaptic lysosome-related vesicles required for presynaptic biogenesis and synaptic function (By similarity). Also acts as a regulator of endosome to lysosome trafficking pathways of special significance for host defense. Regulates cargo trafficking to lysosomes by binding to PLEKHM1 and recruiting the HOPS subunit VPS41, resulting in functional assembly of the HOPS complex on lysosomal membranes. Plays an important role in cargo delivery to lysosomes for antigen presentation and microbial killing. Directs the intersection of CD1d with lipid antigens in lysosomes, and plays a role in intersecting phagosomes with lysosomes to generate phagolysosomes that kill microbes. Involved in the process of MHC II presentation. Regulates the delivery of antigens to lysosomes and the formation of MHC II-peptide complexes through the recruitment of the HOPS complex to lysosomes allowing the fusion of late endosomes to lysosomes (By similarity). May play a role in chromosome segregation.

Catalyzes the reversible cleavage of L-argininosuccinate to fumarate and L-arginine, an intermediate step reaction in the urea cycle mostly providing for hepatic nitrogen detoxification into excretable urea as well as de novo L-arginine synthesis in nonhepatic tissues. Essential regulator of intracellular and extracellular L-arginine pools. As part of citrulline-nitric oxide cycle, forms tissue-specific multiprotein complexes with argininosuccinate synthase ASS1, transport protein SLC7A1 and nitric oxide synthase NOS1, NOS2 or NOS3, allowing for cell-autonomous L- arginine synthesis while channeling extracellular L-arginine to nitric oxide synthesis pathway.

May play a role in cell survival and cell growth. May suppress the transcriptional activity of p53/TP53.

Essential for male fertility and sperm mitochondrial sheath formation (By similarity). Required for proper mitochondrial elongation and coiling along the flagellum during the formation of the mitochondrial sheath (By similarity). Facilitates the growth and aggressiveness of neuroblastoma cells. Increases the EZH2 activity and H3K27me3 levels in a RBBP4-dependent manner, and facilitates the enrichment of polycomb repressive complex 2 and H3K27me3 on gene promoters, resulting in transcriptional repression of tumor suppressors affecting the proliferation, invasion, and metastasis of tumor cells.

In association with mitochondrial contact site and cristae organizing system (MICOS) complex components and mitochondrial outer membrane sorting assembly machinery (SAM) complex components may regulate mitochondrial dynamics playing a role in determining mitochondrial length, distribution and motility.

Required for sperm flagellum axoneme organization and function (By similarity). Involved in axonemal central pair complex assembly and/or stability (By similarity).

Involved in fetal development, T-cell function and adrenal gland growth homeostasis (By similarity). Negatively regulates adrenal cells survival. Plays a role in steroidogenesis, modulates steroidogenic enzymes expression and cortisol production.

Component of the CTLH E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that selectively accepts ubiquitin from UBE2H and mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of the transcription factor HBP1.

Involved in ciliogenesis. It is required for appropriate acetylation and polyglutamylation of ciliary microtubules, and regulation of cilium length. Acts as a positive regulator of hedgehog (Hh)signaling (By similarity). May participate in the trafficking and/or retention of GLI2 and GLI3 proteins at the ciliary tip (By similarity).

Involved in GBF1 recruitment, Golgi maintenance and protein secretion.

Metal-dependent phosphatase that shows phosphatase activity against several substrates, including fructose-1-phosphate and fructose-6-phosphate (By similarity). Its preference for fructose-1- phosphate, a strong glycating agent that causes DNA damage rather than a canonical yeast metabolite, suggests a damage-control function in hexose phosphate metabolism (By similarity). Has also been shown to have O-methyltransferase activity that methylates glutamate residues of target proteins to form gamma-glutamyl methyl ester residues. Possibly methylates PCNA, suggesting it is involved in the DNA damage response.

Regulates mitochondrial transport during axon regeneration. Increases the proportion of motile mitochondria by recruiting stationary mitochondria into the motile pool. Enhances mitochondria movement and neurite growth in both adult axons and embryonic neurons. Promotes neuronal survival and axon regeneration after nerve injury. May link mitochondria to the Trak1-kinesin motor complex via its interaction with MIRO1.

May regulate the dynamics and distribution of mitochondria in neural cells.

Regulates mitochondrial aggregation and transport in axons in living neurons. May link mitochondria to the TRAK2-kinesin motor complex via its interaction with Miro and TRAK2. Mitochondrial distribution and dynamics is regulated through ARMCX3 protein degradation, which is promoted by PCK and negatively regulated by WNT1. Enhances the SOX10-mediated transactivation of the neuronal acetylcholine receptor subunit alpha-3 and beta-4 subunit gene promoters.

Transcription factor that plays a role in the development of the hypothalamo-pituitary axis, postnatal brain growth, and visual and renal function. Specifically recognizes the xenobiotic response element (XRE).

Required for activity of the AHR. Upon ligand binding, AHR translocates into the nucleus, where it heterodimerizes with ARNT and induces transcription by binding to xenobiotic response elements (XRE). Not required for the ligand-binding subunit to translocate from the cytosol to the nucleus after ligand binding. The complex initiates transcription of genes involved in the regulation of a variety of biological processes, including angiogenesis, hematopoiesis, drug and lipid metabolism, cell motility and immune modulation (Probable). The heterodimer binds to core DNA sequence 5'- TACGTG-3' within the hypoxia response element (HRE) of target gene promoters and functions as a transcriptional regulator of the adaptive response to hypoxia (By similarity). The heterodimer ARNT:AHR binds to core DNA sequence 5'-TGCGTG-3' within the dioxin response element (DRE) of target gene promoters and activates their transcription.

Direct regulator of SIRT1. Enhances SIRT1-mediated deacetylation of p53/TP53, thereby participating in inhibition of p53/TP53-mediated transcriptional activity.

Protein phosphatase inhibitor that specifically inhibits protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) during mitosis. When phosphorylated at Ser-62 during mitosis, specifically interacts with PPP2R2D (PR55-delta) and inhibits its activity, leading to inactivation of PP2A, an essential condition to keep cyclin-B1-CDK1 activity high during M phase. May indirectly enhance GAP-43 expression.

ATP-binding component of the Arp2/3 complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates actin polymerization upon stimulation by nucleation-promoting factor (NPF). The Arp2/3 complex mediates the formation of branched actin networks in the cytoplasm, providing the force for cell motility. Seems to contact the pointed end of the daughter actin filament. In podocytes, required for the formation of lamellipodia downstream of AVIL and PLCE1 regulation. In addition to its role in the cytoplasmic cytoskeleton, the Arp2/3 complex also promotes actin polymerization in the nucleus, thereby regulating gene transcription and repair of damaged DNA. The Arp2/3 complex promotes homologous recombination (HR) repair in response to DNA damage by promoting nuclear actin polymerization, leading to drive motility of double-strand breaks (DSBs).

Plays a role in the organization of the actin cytoskeleton. May function as ATP-binding component of the Arp2/3 complex which is involved in regulation of actin polymerization and together with an activating nucleation-promoting factor (NPF) mediates the formation of branched actin networks. May decrease the metastatic potential of tumors.

May play a role in the suppression of metastatic potential in lung adenoma carcinoma cells.

ATP-binding component of the Arp2/3 complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates actin polymerization upon stimulation by nucleation-promoting factor (NPF). The Arp2/3 complex mediates the formation of branched actin networks in the cytoplasm, providing the force for cell motility. Seems to contact the pointed end of the daughter actin filament. In podocytes, required for the formation of lamellipodia downstream of AVIL and PLCE1 regulation. In addition to its role in the cytoplasmic cytoskeleton, the Arp2/3 complex also promotes actin polymerization in the nucleus, thereby regulating gene transcription and repair of damaged DNA. The Arp2/3 complex promotes homologous recombination (HR) repair in response to DNA damage by promoting nuclear actin polymerization, leading to drive motility of double-strand breaks (DSBs). Plays a role in ciliogenesis.

May function as component of the Arp2/3 complex which is involved in regulation of actin polymerization and together with an activating nucleation-promoting factor (NPF) mediates the formation of branched actin networks

Proposed core component of the chromatin remodeling INO80 complex which is involved in transcriptional regulation, DNA replication and probably DNA repair. Involved in DNA double-strand break repair and UV-damage excision repair.

Required for formation and/or maintenance of proper nucleolar structure and function. Plays a dual role in the regulation of ribosomal DNA (rDNA) transcription (By similarity). In the presence of high glucose, maintains active rDNA transcription through H2A.Z deposition and under glucose starvation, is required for the repression of rDNA transcription, and this function may be independent of H2A.Z (By similarity).

Plays an important role in the functional organization of mitotic chromosomes. Exhibits low basal ATPase activity, and unable to polymerize

Actin-binding component of the Arp2/3 complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates actin polymerization upon stimulation by nucleation-promoting factor (NPF). The Arp2/3 complex mediates the formation of branched actin networks in the cytoplasm, providing the force for cell motility. Seems to contact the mother actin filament. In addition to its role in the cytoplasmic cytoskeleton, the Arp2/3 complex also promotes actin polymerization in the nucleus, thereby regulating gene transcription and repair of damaged DNA. The Arp2/3 complex promotes homologous recombination (HR) repair in response to DNA damage by promoting nuclear actin polymerization, leading to drive motility of double-strand breaks (DSBs).

Component of the Arp2/3 complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates actin polymerization upon stimulation by nucleation-promoting factor (NPF). The Arp2/3 complex mediates the formation of branched actin networks in the cytoplasm, providing the force for cell motility. In addition to its role in the cytoplasmic cytoskeleton, the Arp2/3 complex also promotes actin polymerization in the nucleus, thereby regulating gene transcription and repair of damaged DNA. The Arp2/3 complex promotes homologous recombination (HR) repair in response to DNA damage by promoting nuclear actin polymerization, leading to drive motility of double-strand breaks (DSBs).

Actin-binding component of the Arp2/3 complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates actin polymerization upon stimulation by nucleation-promoting factor (NPF). The Arp2/3 complex mediates the formation of branched actin networks in the cytoplasm, providing the force for cell motility. In addition to its role in the cytoplasmic cytoskeleton, the Arp2/3 complex also promotes actin polymerization in the nucleus, thereby regulating gene transcription and repair of damaged DNA. The Arp2/3 complex promotes homologous recombination (HR) repair in response to DNA damage by promoting nuclear actin polymerization, leading to drive motility of double-strand breaks (DSBs).

Regulates actin polymerization by inhibiting the actin- nucleating activity of the Arp2/3 complex; the function is competitive with nucleation promoting factors. Participates in an incoherent feedforward loop at the lamellipodium tip where it inhibits the ARP2/2 complex in response to Rac signaling and where Rac also stimulates actin polymerization through the WAVE complex. Involved in steering cell migration by controlling its directional persistence.

Functions in regulating agonist-mediated G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) signaling by mediating both receptor desensitization and resensitization processes. During homologous desensitization, beta- arrestins bind to the GPRK-phosphorylated receptor and sterically preclude its coupling to the cognate G-protein; the binding appears to require additional receptor determinants exposed only in the active receptor conformation. The beta-arrestins target many receptors for internalization by acting as endocytic adapters (CLASPs, clathrin- associated sorting proteins) and recruiting the GPRCs to the adapter protein 2 complex 2 (AP-2) in clathrin-coated pits (CCPs). However, the extent of beta-arrestin involvement appears to vary significantly depending on the receptor, agonist and cell type. Internalized arrestin-receptor complexes traffic to intracellular endosomes, where they remain uncoupled from G-proteins. Two different modes of arrestin- mediated internalization occur. Class A receptors, like ADRB2, OPRM1, ENDRA, D1AR and ADRA1B dissociate from beta-arrestin at or near the plasma membrane and undergo rapid recycling. Class B receptors, like AVPR2, AGTR1, NTSR1, TRHR and TACR1 internalize as a complex with arrestin and traffic with it to endosomal vesicles, presumably as desensitized receptors, for extended periods of time. Receptor resensitization then requires that receptor-bound arrestin is removed so that the receptor can be dephosphorylated and returned to the plasma membrane. Involved in internalization of P2RY4 and UTP-stimulated internalization of P2RY2. Involved in phosphorylation-dependent internalization of OPRD1 ands subsequent recycling. Involved in the degradation of cAMP by recruiting cAMP phosphodiesterases to ligand- activated receptors. Beta-arrestins function as multivalent adapter proteins that can switch the GPCR from a G-protein signaling mode that transmits short-lived signals from the plasma membrane via small molecule second messengers and ion channels to a beta-arrestin signaling mode that transmits a distinct set of signals that are initiated as the receptor internalizes and transits the intracellular compartment. Acts as signaling scaffold for MAPK pathways such as MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2). ERK1/2 activated by the beta-arrestin scaffold is largely excluded from the nucleus and confined to cytoplasmic locations such as endocytic vesicles, also called beta-arrestin signalosomes. Recruits c-Src/SRC to ADRB2 resulting in ERK activation. GPCRs for which the beta-arrestin-mediated signaling relies on both ARRB1 and ARRB2 (codependent regulation) include ADRB2, F2RL1 and PTH1R. For some GPCRs the beta-arrestin-mediated signaling relies on either ARRB1 or ARRB2 and is inhibited by the other respective beta-arrestin form (reciprocal regulation). Inhibits ERK1/2 signaling in AGTR1- and AVPR2- mediated activation (reciprocal regulation). Is required for SP- stimulated endocytosis of NK1R and recruits c-Src/SRC to internalized NK1R resulting in ERK1/2 activation, which is required for the antiapoptotic effects of SP. Is involved in proteinase-activated F2RL1- mediated ERK activity. Acts as signaling scaffold for the AKT1 pathway. Is involved in alpha-thrombin-stimulated AKT1 signaling. Is involved in IGF1-stimulated AKT1 signaling leading to increased protection from apoptosis. Involved in activation of the p38 MAPK signaling pathway and in actin bundle formation. Involved in F2RL1-mediated cytoskeletal rearrangement and chemotaxis. Involved in AGTR1-mediated stress fiber formation by acting together with GNAQ to activate RHOA. Appears to function as signaling scaffold involved in regulation of MIP-1-beta- stimulated CCR5-dependent chemotaxis. Involved in attenuation of NF- kappa-B-dependent transcription in response to GPCR or cytokine stimulation by interacting with and stabilizing CHUK. May serve as nuclear messenger for GPCRs. Involved in OPRD1-stimulated transcriptional regulation by translocating to CDKN1B and FOS promoter regions and recruiting EP300 resulting in acetylation of histone H4. Involved in regulation of LEF1 transcriptional activity via interaction with DVL1 and/or DVL2 Also involved in regulation of receptors other than GPCRs. Involved in Toll-like receptor and IL-1 receptor signaling through the interaction with TRAF6 which prevents TRAF6 autoubiquitination and oligomerization required for activation of NF- kappa-B and JUN. Binds phosphoinositides. Binds inositolhexakisphosphate (InsP6) (By similarity). Involved in IL8- mediated granule release in neutrophils. Required for atypical chemokine receptor ACKR2-induced RAC1-LIMK1-PAK1-dependent phosphorylation of cofilin (CFL1) and for the up-regulation of ACKR2 from endosomal compartment to cell membrane, increasing its efficiency in chemokine uptake and degradation. Involved in the internalization of the atypical chemokine receptor ACKR3. Negatively regulates the NOTCH signaling pathway by mediating the ubiquitination and degradation of NOTCH1 by ITCH. Participates in the recruitment of the ubiquitin- protein ligase to the receptor.

Functions in regulating agonist-mediated G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) signaling by mediating both receptor desensitization and resensitization processes. During homologous desensitization, beta- arrestins bind to the GPRK-phosphorylated receptor and sterically preclude its coupling to the cognate G-protein; the binding appears to require additional receptor determinants exposed only in the active receptor conformation. The beta-arrestins target many receptors for internalization by acting as endocytic adapters (CLASPs, clathrin- associated sorting proteins) and recruiting the GPRCs to the adapter protein 2 complex 2 (AP-2) in clathrin-coated pits (CCPs). However, the extent of beta-arrestin involvement appears to vary significantly depending on the receptor, agonist and cell type. Internalized arrestin-receptor complexes traffic to intracellular endosomes, where they remain uncoupled from G-proteins. Two different modes of arrestin- mediated internalization occur. Class A receptors, like ADRB2, OPRM1, ENDRA, D1AR and ADRA1B dissociate from beta-arrestin at or near the plasma membrane and undergo rapid recycling. Class B receptors, like AVPR2, AGTR1, NTSR1, TRHR and TACR1 internalize as a complex with arrestin and traffic with it to endosomal vesicles, presumably as desensitized receptors, for extended periods of time. Receptor resensitization then requires that receptor-bound arrestin is removed so that the receptor can be dephosphorylated and returned to the plasma membrane. Mediates endocytosis of CCR7 following ligation of CCL19 but not CCL21. Involved in internalization of P2RY1, P2RY4, P2RY6 and P2RY11 and ATP-stimulated internalization of P2RY2. Involved in phosphorylation-dependent internalization of OPRD1 and subsequent recycling or degradation. Involved in ubiquitination of IGF1R. Beta- arrestins function as multivalent adapter proteins that can switch the GPCR from a G-protein signaling mode that transmits short-lived signals from the plasma membrane via small molecule second messengers and ion channels to a beta-arrestin signaling mode that transmits a distinct set of signals that are initiated as the receptor internalizes and transits the intracellular compartment. Acts as signaling scaffold for MAPK pathways such as MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2) and MAPK10 (JNK3). ERK1/2 and JNK3 activated by the beta-arrestin scaffold are largely excluded from the nucleus and confined to cytoplasmic locations such as endocytic vesicles, also called beta-arrestin signalosomes. Acts as signaling scaffold for the AKT1 pathway. GPCRs for which the beta-arrestin- mediated signaling relies on both ARRB1 and ARRB2 (codependent regulation) include ADRB2, F2RL1 and PTH1R. For some GPCRs the beta- arrestin-mediated signaling relies on either ARRB1 or ARRB2 and is inhibited by the other respective beta-arrestin form (reciprocal regulation). Increases ERK1/2 signaling in AGTR1- and AVPR2-mediated activation (reciprocal regulation). Involved in CCR7-mediated ERK1/2 signaling involving ligand CCL19. Is involved in type-1A angiotensin II receptor/AGTR1-mediated ERK activity. Is involved in type-1A angiotensin II receptor/AGTR1-mediated MAPK10 activity. Is involved in dopamine-stimulated AKT1 activity in the striatum by disrupting the association of AKT1 with its negative regulator PP2A. Involved in AGTR1-mediated chemotaxis. Appears to function as signaling scaffold involved in regulation of MIP-1-beta-stimulated CCR5-dependent chemotaxis. Involved in attenuation of NF-kappa-B-dependent transcription in response to GPCR or cytokine stimulation by interacting with and stabilizing CHUK. Suppresses UV-induced NF-kappa- B-dependent activation by interacting with CHUK. The function is promoted by stimulation of ADRB2 and dephosphorylation of ARRB2. Involved in p53/TP53-mediated apoptosis by regulating MDM2 and reducing the MDM2-mediated degradation of p53/TP53. May serve as nuclear messenger for GPCRs. Upon stimulation of OR1D2, may be involved in regulation of gene expression during the early processes of fertilization. Also involved in regulation of receptors other than GPCRs. Involved in endocytosis of TGFBR2 and TGFBR3 and down-regulates TGF-beta signaling such as NF-kappa-B activation. Involved in endocytosis of low-density lipoprotein receptor/LDLR. Involved in endocytosis of smoothened homolog/Smo, which also requires GRK2. Involved in endocytosis of SLC9A5. Involved in endocytosis of ENG and subsequent TGF-beta-mediated ERK activation and migration of epithelial cells. Involved in Toll-like receptor and IL-1 receptor signaling through the interaction with TRAF6 which prevents TRAF6 autoubiquitination and oligomerization required for activation of NF- kappa-B and JUN. Involved in insulin resistance by acting as insulin- induced signaling scaffold for SRC, AKT1 and INSR. Involved in regulation of inhibitory signaling of natural killer cells by recruiting PTPN6 and PTPN11 to KIR2DL1. Involved in IL8-mediated granule release in neutrophils. Involved in the internalization of the atypical chemokine receptor ACKR3. Acts as an adapter protein coupling FFAR4 receptor to specific downstream signaling pathways, as well as mediating receptor endocytosis. During the activation step of NLRP3 inflammasome, directly associates with NLRP3 leading to inhibition of pro-inflammatory cytokine release and inhibition of inflammation.

May play a role in an as yet undefined retina-specific signal transduction. Could bind to photoactivated-phosphorylated red/green opsins

Functions as an adapter recruiting ubiquitin-protein ligases to their specific substrates. Through an ubiquitination-dependent mechanism plays for instance a role in the incorporation of SLC11A2 into extracellular vesicles. More generally, plays a role in the extracellular transport of proteins between cells through the release in the extracellular space of microvesicles. By participating in the ITCH-mediated ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of NOTCH1, negatively regulates the NOTCH signaling pathway.

Adapter protein that plays a role in regulating cell-surface expression of adrenergic receptors and probably also other G protein- coupled receptors. Plays a role in NEDD4-mediated ubiquitination and endocytosis af activated ADRB2 and subsequent ADRB2 degradation. May recruit NEDD4 to ADRB2. Alternatively, may function as adapter protein that does not play a major role in recruiting NEDD4 to ADRB2, but rather plays a role in a targeting ADRB2 to endosomes.

Functions as an adapter recruiting ubiquitin-protein ligases to their specific substrates (By similarity). Plays a role in endocytosis of activated G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) (Probable). Through an ubiquitination-dependent mechanism also plays a role in the incorporation of SLC11A2 into extracellular vesicles (By similarity). May play a role in glucose uptake.

Binds to photoactivated, phosphorylated RHO and terminates RHO signaling via G-proteins by competing with G-proteins for the same binding site on RHO (By similarity). May play a role in preventing light-dependent degeneration of retinal photoreceptor cells.

Removes sulfate groups from chondroitin-4-sulfate (C4S) and regulates its degradation. Involved in the regulation of cell adhesion, cell migration and invasion in colonic epithelium. In the central nervous system, is a regulator of neurite outgrowth and neuronal plasticity, acting through the control of sulfate glycosaminoglycans and neurocan levels (By similarity).

Exhibits arylsulfatase activity towards the artificial substrate 4-methylumbelliferyl sulfate.

Displays arylsulfatase activity at acidic pH towards artificial substrates, such as p-nitrocatechol sulfate and also, but with a lower activity towards p-nitrophenyl sulfate and 4- methylumbelliferyl sulfate. Catalyzes the hydrolysis of the 3-sulfate groups of the N-sulfo-D- glucosamine 3-O-sulfate units of heparin.

Displays arylsulfatase activity at neutral pH, when co- expressed with SUMF1; arylsulfatase activity is measured in the secretion medium of retinal cell line, but no activity is recorded when measured in cell extracts. Lacks arylsulfatase activity.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of pseudosubstrates such as p- nitrocatechol sulfate and p-nitrophenyl sulfate. Catalyzes the hydrolysis of the 2-sulfate groups of the 2-O-sulfo-D- glucuronate residues of chondroitin sulfate, heparin and heparitin sulfate. Acts selectively on 2- sulfoglucuronate and lacks activity against 2-sulfoiduronate.

Exhibits arylsulfatase activity towards the artificial substrate 4-methylumbelliferyl sulfate. May be essential for the correct composition of cartilage and bone matrix during development. Has no activity toward steroid sulfates.

Ligand for the GFR-alpha-3-RET receptor complex but can also activate the GFR-alpha-1-RET receptor complex. Supports the survival of sensory and sympathetic peripheral neurons in culture and also supports the survival of dopaminergic neurons of the ventral mid-brain. Strong attractant of gut hematopoietic cells thus promoting the formation Peyer's patch-like structures, a major component of the gut-associated lymphoid tissue.

Plays a role as a mediator in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) cholesterol and bile acid homeostasis. Participates in sterol transport out of the ER and distribution into plasma membranes.

Contributes to the regulation of alternative splicing of pre- mRNAs.

Transcription factor. Binds to specific sequence motif 5'-TAATTA-3' in regulatory elements of target genes, such as histone demethylase KDM5C. Positively modulates transcription of KDM5C. Activates expression of KDM5C synergistically with histone lysine demethylase PHF8 and perhaps in competition with transcription regulator ZNF711; synergy may be related to enrichment of histone H3K4me3 in regulatory elements. Required for normal brain development. Plays a role in neuronal proliferation, interneuronal migration and differentiation in the embryonic forebrain (By similarity). May also be involved in axonal guidance in the floor plate (By similarity).

Participates in the detoxification of a plethora of hydrazine and arylamine drugs. Catalyzes the N- or O-acetylation of various arylamine and heterocyclic amine substrates and is able to bioactivate several known carcinogens

Catalyzes the transfer of a methyl group from AdoMet to trivalent arsenicals producing methylated and dimethylated arsenicals. It methylates arsenite to form methylarsonate, Me-AsO(3)H(2), which is reduced by methylarsonate reductase to methylarsonite, Me-As(OH)2. Methylarsonite is also a substrate and it is converted into the much less toxic compound dimethylarsinate (cacodylate), Me(2)As(O)-OH.

Lysosomal ceramidase that hydrolyzes sphingolipid ceramides into sphingosine and free fatty acids at acidic pH. Ceramides, sphingosine, and its phosphorylated form sphingosine-1-phosphate are bioactive lipids that mediate cellular signaling pathways regulating several biological processes including cell proliferation, apoptosis and differentiation. Has a higher catalytic efficiency towards C12-ceramides versus other ceramides. Also catalyzes the reverse reaction allowing the synthesis of ceramides from fatty acids and sphingosine. For the reverse synthetic reaction, the natural sphingosine D-erythro isomer is more efficiently utilized as a substrate compared to D-erythro-dihydrosphingosine and D-erythro- phytosphingosine, while the fatty acids with chain lengths of 12 or 14 carbons are the most efficiently used. Has also an N- acylethanolamine hydrolase activity. By regulating the levels of ceramides, sphingosine and sphingosine-1-phosphate in the epidermis, mediates the calcium-induced differentiation of epidermal keratinocytes. Also indirectly regulates tumor necrosis factor/TNF-induced apoptosis (By similarity). By regulating the intracellular balance between ceramides and sphingosine, in adrenocortical cells, probably also acts as a regulator of steroidogenesis.

Plasma membrane ceramidase that hydrolyzes sphingolipid ceramides into sphingosine and free fatty acids at neutral pH. Ceramides, sphingosine, and its phosphorylated form sphingosine-1-phosphate are bioactive lipids that mediate cellular signaling pathways regulating several biological processes including cell proliferation, apoptosis and differentiation. Also catalyzes the reverse reaction allowing the synthesis of ceramides from fatty acids and sphingosine. Together with sphingomyelinase, participates in the production of sphingosine and sphingosine-1- phosphate from the degradation of sphingomyelin, a sphingolipid enriched in the plasma membrane of cells. Also participates in the hydrolysis of ceramides from the extracellular milieu allowing the production of sphingosine-1-phosphate inside and outside cells (By similarity). This is the case for instance with the digestion of dietary sphingolipids in the intestinal tract (By similarity).

Possesses phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate-dependent GTPase-activating protein activity for ARF1 (ADP ribosylation factor 1) and ARF5 and a lesser activity towards ARF6. May coordinate membrane trafficking with cell growth or actin cytoskeleton remodeling by binding to both SRC and PIP2. May function as a signal transduction protein involved in the differentiation of fibroblasts into adipocytes and possibly other cell types (By similarity). Plays a role in ciliogenesis.

Activates the small GTPases ARF1, ARF5 and ARF6. Regulates the formation of post-Golgi vesicles and modulates constitutive secretion. Modulates phagocytosis mediated by Fc gamma receptor and ARF6. Modulates PXN recruitment to focal contacts and cell migration.

May be a substrate-recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin-Cullin-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins.

Probable substrate-recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin-Cullin-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins.

Probable substrate-recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin-Cullin-SOCS-box protein) E3 ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Mediates Notch-induced ubiquitination and degradation of TCF3/E2A and JAK2. May play a role in testis development (By similarity).

Substrate-recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin- Cullin-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Mediates Notch- induced ubiquitination and degradation of substrates including TCF3/E2A and JAK2. Required during embryonic heart development for complete heart looping (By similarity). Required for cardiomyocyte differentiation.

Probable substrate-recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin-Cullin-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Recognizes TNFRSF1B.

Probable substrate-recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin-Cullin-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Promotes differentiation and maturation of the vascular lineage by an oxygen-dependent mechanism (By similarity).

May be a substrate-recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin-Cullin-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. May play a role in the initiation of arteriogenesis (By similarity).

Substrate-recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin- Cullin-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Recognizes at least two forms of creatine kinase, CKB and CKMT1A.

Plays a role in DNA damage repair as component of the ASCC complex. Part of the ASC-1 complex that enhances NF- kappa-B, SRF and AP1 transactivation. In cells responding to gastrin-activated paracrine signals, it is involved in the induction of SERPINB2 expression by gastrin. May also play a role in the development of neuromuscular junction.

Plays a role in DNA damage repair as component of the ASCC complex. Recruits ASCC3 and ALKBH3 to sites of DNA damage by binding to polyubiquitinated proteins that have 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Part of the ASC-1 complex that enhances NF- kappa-B, SRF and AP1 transactivation. Involved in activation of the ribosome quality control (RQC) pathway, a pathway that degrades nascent peptide chains during problematic translation. As part of the ribosome quality control trigger (RQT) complex, recognizes ZNF598-dependent ubiquitination of stalled ribosomes (By similarity).

3'-5' DNA helicase involved in repair of alkylated DNA. Promotes DNA unwinding to generate single-stranded substrate needed for ALKBH3, enabling ALKBH3 to process alkylated N3- methylcytosine (3mC) within double-stranded regions. Also involved in activation of the ribosome quality control (RQC) pathway, a pathway that degrades nascent peptide chains during problematic translation. Drives the splitting of stalled ribosomes, as part of the ribosome quality control trigger (RQT) complex. Part of the ASC-1 complex that enhances NF-kappa-B, SRF and AP1 transactivation.

Transcription factor that plays a key role in neuronal differentiation: acts as a pioneer transcription factor, accessing closed chromatin to allow other factors to bind and activate neural pathways. Directly binds the E box motif (5'-CANNTG-3') on promoters and promotes transcription of neuronal genes. The combination of three transcription factors, ASCL1, POU3F2/BRN2 and MYT1L, is sufficient to reprogram fibroblasts and other somatic cells into induced neuronal (iN) cells in vitro. Plays a role at early stages of development of specific neural lineages in most regions of the CNS, and of several lineages in the PNS. Essential for the generation of olfactory and autonomic neurons. Acts synergistically with FOXN4 to specify the identity of V2b neurons rather than V2a from bipotential p2 progenitors during spinal cord neurogenesis, probably through DLL4-NOTCH signaling activation. Involved in the regulation of neuroendocrine cell development in the glandular stomach (By similarity).

AS-C proteins are involved in the determination of the neuronal precursors in the peripheral nervous system and the central nervous system

Could be a transcriptional regulator involved in skin development.

Functions as key mediator in apoptosis and inflammation. Promotes caspase-mediated apoptosis involving predominantly caspase-8 and also caspase-9 in a probable cell type-specific manner. Involved in activation of the mitochondrial apoptotic pathway, promotes caspase-8- dependent proteolytic maturation of BID independently of FADD in certain cell types and also mediates mitochondrial translocation of BAX and activates BAX-dependent apoptosis coupled to activation of caspase- 9, -2 and -3. Involved in macrophage pyroptosis, a caspase-1-dependent inflammatory form of cell death and is the major constituent of the ASC pyroptosome which forms upon potassium depletion and rapidly recruits and activates caspase-1. In innate immune response, acts as an integral adapter in the assembly of the inflammasome which activates caspase-1 leading to processing and secretion of pro-inflammatory cytokines. The function as activating adapter in different types of inflammasomes is mediated by the pyrin and CARD domains and their homotypic interactions. Required for recruitment of caspase-1 to inflammasomes containing certain pattern recognition receptors, such as NLRP2, NLRP3, NLRP6, AIM2 and probably IFI16. In the NLRP1 and NLRC4 inflammasomes seems not be required but facilitates the processing of procaspase-1. In cooperation with NOD2 involved in an inflammasome activated by bacterial muramyl dipeptide leading to caspase-1 activation. May be involved in RIGI- triggered pro-inflammatory responses and inflammasome activation. In collaboration with AIM2 which detects cytosolic double-stranded DNA may also be involved in a caspase-1-independent cell death that involves caspase-8. In adaptive immunity may be involved in maturation of dendritic cells to stimulate T-cell immunity and in cytoskeletal rearrangements coupled to chemotaxis and antigen uptake may be involved in post-transcriptional regulation of the guanine nucleotide exchange factor DOCK2; the latter function is proposed to involve the nuclear form. Also involved in transcriptional activation of cytokines and chemokines independent of the inflammasome; this function may involve AP-1, NF-kappa-B, MAPK and caspase-8 signaling pathways. For regulation of NF-kappa-B activating and inhibiting functions have been reported. Modulates NF-kappa-B induction at the level of the IKK complex by inhibiting kinase activity of CHUK and IKBK. Proposed to compete with RIPK2 for association with CASP1 thereby down-regulating CASP1-mediated RIPK2-dependent NF-kappa-B activation and activating interleukin-1 beta processing. Modulates host resistance to DNA virus infection, probably by inducing the cleavage of and inactivating CGAS in presence of cytoplasmic double-stranded DNA.

Histone chaperone that facilitates histone deposition and histone exchange and removal during nucleosome assembly and disassembly. Cooperates with chromatin assembly factor 1 (CAF-1) to promote replication-dependent chromatin assembly and with HIRA to promote replication-independent chromatin assembly. Promotes homologous recombination-mediated repair of double-strand breaks (DSBs) at stalled or collapsed replication forks: acts by mediating histone replacement at DSBs, leading to recruitment of the MMS22L-TONSL complex and subsequent loading of RAD51. Also involved in the nuclear import of the histone H3-H4 dimer together with importin-4 (IPO4): specifically recognizes and binds newly synthesized histones with the monomethylation of H3 'Lys-9' and acetylation at 'Lys-14' (H3K9me1K14ac) marks, and diacetylation at 'Lys-5' and 'Lys-12' of H4 (H4K5K12ac) marks in the cytosol. Required for the formation of senescence-associated heterochromatin foci (SAHF) and efficient senescence-associated cell cycle exit.

Histone chaperone that facilitates histone deposition and histone exchange and removal during nucleosome assembly and disassembly. Cooperates with chromatin assembly factor 1 (CAF-1) to promote replication-dependent chromatin assembly. Also involved in the nuclear import of the histone H3-H4 dimer together with importin-4 (IPO4): specifically recognizes and binds newly synthesized histones with the monomethylation of H3 'Lys-9' (H3K9me1) and diacetylation at 'Lys-5' and 'Lys-12' of H4 (H4K5K12ac) marks in the cytosol. Does not participate in replication-independent nucleosome deposition which is mediated by ASF1A and HIRA. Required for gonad development.

Has both L-asparaginase and beta-aspartyl peptidase activity. May be involved in the production of L-aspartate, which can act as an excitatory neurotransmitter in some brain regions. Is highly active with L-Asp beta-methyl ester. Besides, has catalytic activity toward beta-aspartyl dipeptides and their methyl esters, including beta-L-Asp- L-Phe, beta-L-Asp-L-Phe methyl ester (aspartame), beta-L-Asp-L-Ala, beta-L-Asp-L-Leu and beta-L-Asp-L-Lys. Does not have aspartylglucosaminidase activity and is inactive toward GlcNAc-L-Asn. Likewise, has no activity toward glutamine.

Mediates the endocytosis of plasma glycoproteins to which the terminal sialic acid residue on their complex carbohydrate moieties has been removed. The receptor recognizes terminal galactose and N- acetylgalactosamine units. After ligand binding to the receptor, the resulting complex is internalized and transported to a sorting organelle, where receptor and ligand are disassociated. The receptor then returns to the cell membrane surface

Histone methyltransferase specifically trimethylating 'Lys- 36' of histone H3 forming H3K36me3. Also monomethylates 'Lys-9' of histone H3 (H3K9me1) in vitro (By similarity). The physiological significance of the H3K9me1 activity is unclear (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator. Component or associated component of some histone methyltransferase complexes which regulates transcription through recruitment of those complexes to gene promoters. Component of the Set1/Ash2 histone methyltransferase (HMT) complex, a complex that specifically methylates 'Lys-4' of histone H3, but not if the neighboring 'Lys-9' residue is already methylated. As part of the MLL1/MLL complex it is involved in methylation and dimethylation at 'Lys-4' of histone H3. May play a role in hematopoiesis. In association with RBBP5 and WDR5, stimulates the histone methyltransferase activities of KMT2A, KMT2B, KMT2C, KMT2D, SETD1A and SETD1B.

Isoform 2 and isoform 3 function as proton-gated sodium channels; they are activated by a drop of the extracellular pH and then become rapidly desensitized. The channel generates a biphasic current with a fast inactivating and a slow sustained phase. Has high selectivity for sodium ions and can also transport lithium ions with high efficiency. Isoform 2 can also transport potassium, but with lower efficiency. It is nearly impermeable to the larger rubidium and cesium ions. Isoform 3 can also transport calcium ions. Mediates glutamate- independent Ca(2+) entry into neurons upon acidosis. This Ca(2+) overloading is toxic for cortical neurons and may be in part responsible for ischemic brain injury. Heteromeric channel assembly seems to modulate channel properties. Functions as a postsynaptic proton receptor that influences intracellular Ca(2+) concentration and calmodulin-dependent protein kinase II phosphorylation and thereby the density of dendritic spines. Modulates activity in the circuits underlying innate fear.

Cation channel with high affinity for sodium, which is gated by extracellular protons and inhibited by the diuretic amiloride. Also permeable for Li(+) and K(+). Generates a biphasic current with a fast inactivating and a slow sustained phase. Heteromeric channel assembly seems to modulate

Cation channel with high affinity for sodium, which is gated by extracellular protons and inhibited by the diuretic amiloride. Generates a biphasic current with a fast inactivating and a slow sustained phase. In sensory neurons is proposed to mediate the pain induced by acidosis that occurs in ischemic, damaged or inflamed tissue. May be involved in hyperalgesia. May play a role in mechanoreception. Heteromeric channel assembly seems to modulate channel properties.

Probable cation channel with high affinity for sodium. In vitro, has no proton-gated channel activity.

Cation channel that gives rise to very low constitutive currents in the absence of activation. The activated channel exhibits selectivity for sodium, and is inhibited by amiloride.

Involved in the regulation of melanogenesis. The binding of ASP to MC1R precludes alpha-MSH initiated signaling and thus blocks production of cAMP, leading to a down-regulation of eumelanogenesis (brown/black pigment) and thus increasing synthesis of pheomelanin (yellow/red pigment). In higher primates, agouti may affect the quality of hair pigmentation rather than its pattern of deposition. Could well play a role in neuroendocrine aspects of melanocortin action. May have some functional role in regulating the lipid metabolism with adipocytes

Has in vitro nucleotide phosphodiesterase activity with nucleoside triphosphates, such as ATP. Has in vitro activity with p-nitrophenyl-TMP. Has lower activity with nucleoside diphosphates, and no activity with nucleoside monophosphates. Has in vitro activity with CDP-choline, giving rise to CMP and phosphocholine. Has in vitro activity with CDP-ethanolamine. Does not have sphingomyelin phosphodiesterase activity.

Lipid-modulating phosphodiesterase. Active on the surface of macrophages and dendritic cells and strongly influences macrophage lipid composition and membrane fluidity. Acts as a negative regulator of Toll-like receptor signaling (By similarity). Has in vitro phosphodiesterase activity, but the physiological substrate is unknown. Lacks activity with phosphocholine-containing lipids, but can cleave CDP-choline, and can release phosphate from ATP and ADP (in vitro) (By similarity).

Nucleoside triphosphate pyrophosphatase that hydrolyzes dTTP and UTP. Can also hydrolyze CTP and the modified nucleotides pseudo- UTP, 5-methyl-UTP (m(5)UTP) and 5-methyl-CTP (m(5)CTP). Has weak activity with dCTP, 8-oxo-GTP and N(4)-methyl-dCTP. May have a dual role in cell division arrest and in preventing the incorporation of modified nucleotides into cellular nucleic acids. In addition, the presence of the putative catalytic domain of S-adenosyl-L-methionine binding in the C-terminal region argues for a methyltransferase activity (Probable).

[Isoform 1]: Catalyzes the transfer of a methyl group onto N- acetylserotonin, producing melatonin (N-acetyl-5-methoxytryptamine).

Converts sphingomyelin to ceramide. Exists as two enzymatic forms that arise from alternative trafficking of a single protein precursor, one that is targeted to the endolysosomal compartment, whereas the other is released extracellularly. However, in response to various forms of stress, lysosomal exocytosis may represent a major source of the secretory form.

Tethering protein that sequesters GLUT4-containing vesicles in the cytoplasm in the absence of insulin. Modulates the amount of GLUT4 that is available at the cell surface (By similarity). Enhances VCP methylation catalyzed by VCPKMT.

Cleaves the GlcNAc-Asn bond which joins oligosaccharides to the peptide of asparagine-linked glycoproteins.

[Isoform 1]: Specifically hydroxylates an Asp or Asn residue in certain epidermal growth factor-like (EGF) domains of a number of proteins.

Involved in mitotic spindle regulation and coordination of mitotic processes. The function in regulating microtubule dynamics at spindle poles including spindle orientation, astral microtubule density and poleward microtubule flux seems to depend on the association with the katanin complex formed by KATNA1 and KATNB1. Enhances the microtubule lattice severing activity of KATNA1 by recruiting the katanin complex to microtubules. Can block microtubule minus-end growth and reversely this function can be enhanced by the katanin complex. May have a preferential role in regulating neurogenesis.

Regulator that plays a central role in regulation of apoptosis via its interaction with p53/TP53. Regulates TP53 by enhancing the DNA binding and transactivation function of TP53 on the promoters of proapoptotic genes in vivo.

Regulator that plays a central role in regulation of apoptosis and cell growth via its interactions with proteins such as TP53. Regulates TP53 by enhancing the DNA binding and transactivation function of TP53 on the promoters of proapoptotic genes in vivo. Inhibits the ability of NAE1 to conjugate NEDD8 to CUL1, and thereby decreases NAE1 ability to induce apoptosis. Impedes cell cycle progression at G2/M. Its apoptosis-stimulating activity is inhibited by its interaction with DDX42.

One of the enzymes of the urea cycle, the metabolic pathway transforming neurotoxic amonia produced by protein catabolism into inocuous urea in the liver of ureotelic animals. Catalyzes the formation of arginosuccinate from aspartate, citrulline and ATP and together with ASL it is responsible for the biosynthesis of arginine in most body tissues.

Component of the PAT complex, an endoplasmic reticulum (ER)- resident membrane multiprotein complex that facilitates multi-pass membrane proteins insertion into membranes. The PAT complex acts as an intramembrane chaperone by directly interacting with nascent transmembrane domains (TMDs), releasing its substrates upon correct folding, and is needed for optimal biogenesis of multi-pass membrane proteins. WDR83OS/Asterix is the substrate- interacting subunit of the PAT complex, whereas CCDC47 is required to maintain the stability of WDR83OS/Asterix. WDR83OS/Asterix associates with the first transmembrane domain (TMD1) of the nascent chain, independently of the N-glycosylation of the chain and irrespective of the amino acid sequence and transmembrane topology of TMD1. The PAT complex favors the binding to TMDs with exposed hydrophilic amino acids within the lipid bilayer and provides a membrane-embedded partially hydrophilic environment in which TMD1 binds.

Oocyte-specific oolemmal receptor involved in sperm and egg adhesion and fertilization. Plays a role in the polyspermy inhibition. Probably acts as a protease for the post-fertilization cleavage of ZP2. Cleaves the sperm-binding ZP2 at the surface of the zona pellucida after fertilization and cortical granule exocytosis, rendering the zona pellucida unable to support further sperm binding.

Neuronal adhesion molecule that is required for normal migration of young postmitotic neuroblasts along glial fibers, especially in the cerebellum. Required for normal rate of migration of granule cells during brain development and for normal cerebellum development.

Mediates recycling of the neuronal cell adhesion molecule ASTN1 to the anterior pole of the cell membrane in migrating neurons. Promotes ASTN1 internalization and intracellular transport of endocytosed ASTN1 (By similarity). Selectively binds inositol-4,5- bisphosphate, inositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate and inositol-1,3,4,5- tetrakisphosphate, suggesting it is recruited to membranes that contain lipids with a phosphoinositide headgroup (Ref.6).

Cholesterol transporter that mediates non-vesicular transport of cholesterol from the plasma membrane (PM) to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) (By similarity). Contains unique domains for binding cholesterol and the PM, thereby serving as a molecular bridge for the transfer of cholesterol from the PM to the ER (By similarity). Plays a crucial role in cholesterol homeostasis and has the unique ability to localize to the PM based on the level of membrane cholesterol (By similarity). In lipid-poor conditions localizes to the ER membrane and in response to excess cholesterol in the PM is recruited to the endoplasmic reticulum-plasma membrane contact sites (EPCS) which is mediated by the GRAM domain (By similarity). At the EPCS, the sterol- binding VASt/ASTER domain binds to the cholesterol in the PM and facilitates its transfer from the PM to ER (By similarity). May play a role in tumor progression (By similarity). Plays a role in autophagy regulation and is required for biogenesis of the autophagosome. This function in autophagy requires its cholesterol- transfer activity.

Cholesterol transporter that mediates non-vesicular transport of cholesterol from the plasma membrane (PM) to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) (By similarity). Contains unique domains for binding cholesterol and the PM, thereby serving as a molecular bridge for the transfer of cholesterol from the PM to the ER (By similarity). Plays a crucial role in cholesterol homeostasis and has the unique ability to localize to the PM based on the level of membrane cholesterol (By similarity). In lipid-poor conditions localizes to the ER membrane and in response to excess cholesterol in the PM is recruited to the endoplasmic reticulum-plasma membrane contact sites (EPCS) which is mediated by the GRAM domain (By similarity). At the EPCS, the sterol- binding VASt/ASTER domain binds to the cholesterol in the PM and facilitates its transfer from the PM to ER (By similarity).

Probable Polycomb group (PcG) protein involved in transcriptional regulation mediated by ligand-bound nuclear hormone receptors, such as retinoic acid receptors (RARs) and peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPARG). Acts as coactivator of RARA and RXRA through association with NCOA1. Acts as corepressor for PPARG and suppresses its adipocyte differentiation-inducing activity (By similarity). Non- catalytic component of the PR-DUB complex, a complex that specifically mediates deubiquitination of histone H2A monoubiquitinated at 'Lys-119' (H2AK119ub1). Acts as a sensor of N(6)- methyladenosine methylation on DNA (m6A): recognizes and binds m6A DNA, leading to its ubiquitination and degradation by TRIP12, thereby inactivating the PR-DUB complex and regulating Polycomb silencing.

Putative Polycomb group (PcG) protein. PcG proteins act by forming multiprotein complexes, which are required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of homeotic genes throughout development. PcG proteins are not required to initiate repression, but to maintain it during later stages of development. They probably act via methylation of histones, rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility (By similarity). Involved in transcriptional regulation mediated by ligand-bound nuclear hormone receptors, such as peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPARG). Acts as coactivator for PPARG and enhances its adipocyte differentiation- inducing activity; the function seems to involve differential recruitment of acetylated and methylated histone H3.

Putative Polycomb group (PcG) protein. PcG proteins act by forming multiprotein complexes, which are required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of homeotic genes throughout development. PcG proteins are not required to initiate repression, but to maintain it during later stages of development. They probably act via methylation of histones, rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility (By similarity).

Plays a central role during spermatogenesis by repressing transposable elements and preventing their mobilization, which is essential for the germline integrity. Acts via the piRNA metabolic process, which mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and governs the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons. Its association with pi-bodies suggests a participation in the primary piRNAs metabolic process. Required prior to the pachytene stage to facilitate the production of multiple types of piRNAs, including those associated with repeats involved in the regulation of retrotransposons. May act by mediating protein-protein interactions during germ cell maturation (By similarity).

Catalytic component of P4-ATPase flippase complex, which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of phosphatidylcholine (PC) from the outer to the inner leaflet of the plasma membrane. Initiates inward plasma membrane bending and recruitment of Bin/amphiphysin/Rvs (BAR) domain-containing proteins involved in membrane tubulation and cell trafficking. Facilitates ITGB1/beta1 integrin endocytosis, delaying cell adhesion and cell spreading on extracellular matrix. Has low flippase activity toward glucosylceramide (GlcCer).

Catalytic component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex, which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of glucosylceramide (GlcCer) from the outer to the inner leaflet of lysosome membranes. Plays an important role in the maintenance of lysosome membrane integrity and function in cortical neurons.

Catalytic component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex, which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of glucosylceramide (GlcCer) from the outer to the inner leaflet of the plasma membrane.

Catalytic component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of aminophospholipids, phosphatidylserines (PS) and phosphatidylethanolamines (PE), from the outer to the inner leaflet of the plasma membrane. Does not show flippase activity toward phosphatidylcholine (PC). Contributes to the maintenance of membrane lipid asymmetry with a specific role in morphogenesis of muscle cells. In myoblasts, mediates PS enrichment at the inner leaflet of plasma membrane, triggering PIEZO1-dependent Ca2+ influx and Rho GTPases signal transduction, subsequently leading to the assembly of cortical actomyosin fibers and myotube formation. May be involved in the uptake of farnesyltransferase inhibitor drugs, such as lonafarnib.

Catalytic component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of aminophospholipids, phosphatidylserines (PS) and phosphatidylethanolamines (PE), from the outer to the inner leaflet of intracellular membranes. May contribute to the maintenance of membrane lipid asymmetry in endosome compartment.

The catalytic subunit of a H(+)/K(+) ATPase and/or Na(+)/K(+) ATPase pump which transports K(+) ions in exchange for Na(+) and/or H(+) ions across the apical membrane of epithelial cells. Uses ATP as an energy source to pump K(+) ions into the cell while transporting Na(+) and/or H(+) ions to the extracellular compartment. Involved in the maintenance of electrolyte homeostasis through K(+) ion absorption in kidney and colon (By similarity). In the airway epithelium, may play a primary role in mucus acidification regulating its viscosity and clearance.

Endoplasmic reticulum translocase required to remove mitochondrial transmembrane proteins mistargeted to the endoplasmic reticulum. Acts as a dislocase that mediates the ATP- dependent extraction of mislocalized mitochondrial transmembrane proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum membrane. Specifically binds mitochondrial tail-anchored transmembrane proteins: has an atypically large substrate-binding pocket that recognizes and binds moderately hydrophobic transmembranes with short hydrophilic lumenal domains.

ATPase which acts as a lysosomal polyamine exporter with high affinity for spermine. Also stimulates cellular uptake of polyamines and protects against polyamine toxicity. Plays a role in intracellular cation homeostasis and the maintenance of neuronal integrity. Contributes to cellular zinc homeostasis. Confers cellular protection against Mn(2+) and Zn(2+) toxicity and mitochondrial stress. Required for proper lysosomal and mitochondrial maintenance. Regulates the autophagy-lysosome pathway through the control of SYT11 expression at both transcriptional and post-translational levels. Facilitates recruitment of deacetylase HDAC6 to lysosomes to deacetylate CTTN, leading to actin polymerization, promotion of autophagosome-lysosome fusion and completion of autophagy. Promotes secretion of exosomes as well as secretion of SCNA via exosomes. Plays a role in lipid homeostasis.

This is the catalytic component of the active enzyme, which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the exchange of sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane. This action creates the electrochemical gradient of sodium and potassium ions, providing the energy for active transport of various nutrients.

This is the catalytic component of the active enzyme, which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the exchange of sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane. This action creates the electrochemical gradient of sodium and potassium, providing the energy for active transport of various nutrients.

This is the catalytic component of the active enzyme, which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the exchange of sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane. This action creates the electrochemical gradient of sodium and potassium ions, providing the energy for active transport of various nutrients. Plays a role in sperm motility

This is the non-catalytic component of the active enzyme, which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the exchange of Na(+) and K(+) ions across the plasma membrane. The beta subunit regulates, through assembly of alpha/beta heterodimers, the number of sodium pumps transported to the plasma membrane. Plays a role in innate immunity by enhancing virus-triggered induction of interferons (IFNs) and interferon stimulated genes (ISGs). Mechanistically, enhances the ubiquitination of TRAF3 and TRAF6 as well as the phosphorylation of TAK1 and TBK1.

This is the non-catalytic component of the active enzyme, which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the exchange of Na(+) and K(+) ions across the plasma membrane. The exact function of the beta-2 subunit is not known

This is the non-catalytic component of the active enzyme, which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the exchange of Na(+) and K(+) ions across the plasma membrane. The exact function of the beta-3 subunit is not known

May act as a transcriptional coregulator during muscle development through its interaction with SNW1. Has lost its ancestral function as a Na,K-ATPase beta-subunit.

Key regulator of striated muscle performance by acting as the major Ca(2+) ATPase responsible for the reuptake of cytosolic Ca(2+) into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the translocation of calcium from the cytosol to the sarcoplasmic reticulum lumen (By similarity). Contributes to calcium sequestration involved in muscular excitation/contraction.

This magnesium-dependent enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the translocation of calcium from the cytosol to the sarcoplasmic reticulum lumen. Involved in autophagy in response to starvation. Upon interaction with VMP1 and activation, controls ER-isolation membrane contacts for autophagosome formation. Also modulates ER contacts with lipid droplets, mitochondria and endosomes.

This magnesium-dependent enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the transport of calcium. Transports calcium ions from the cytosol into the sarcoplasmic/endoplasmic reticulum lumen. Contributes to calcium sequestration involved in muscular excitation/contraction.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the transport of calcium from the cytoplasm to the extracellular space thereby maintaining intracellular calcium homeostasis. Plays a role in blood pressure regulation through regulation of intracellular calcium concentration and nitric oxide production leading to regulation of vascular smooth muscle cells vasoconstriction. Positively regulates bone mineralization through absorption of calcium from the intestine. Plays dual roles in osteoclast differentiation and survival by regulating RANKL-induced calcium oscillations in preosteoclasts and mediating calcium extrusion in mature osteoclasts (By similarity). Regulates insulin sensitivity through calcium/calmodulin signaling pathway by regulating AKT1 activation and NOS3 activation in endothelial cells. May play a role in synaptic transmission by modulating calcium and proton dynamics at the synaptic vesicles.

ATP-driven Ca(2+) ion pump involved in the maintenance of basal intracellular Ca(2+) levels in specialized cells of cerebellar circuit and vestibular and cochlear systems. Uses ATP as an energy source to transport cytosolic Ca(2+) ions across the plasma membrane to the extracellular compartment. Has fast activation and Ca(2+) clearance rate suited to control fast neuronal Ca(2+) dynamics. At parallel fiber to Purkinje neuron synapse, mediates presynaptic Ca(2+) efflux in response to climbing fiber-induced Ca(2+) rise. Provides for fast return of Ca(2+) concentrations back to their resting levels, ultimately contributing to long-term depression induction and motor learning (By similarity). Plays an essential role in hearing and balance. In cochlear hair cells, shuttles Ca(2+) ions from stereocilia to the endolymph and dissipates Ca(2+) transients generated by the opening of the mechanoelectrical transduction channels. Regulates Ca(2+) levels in the vestibular system, where it contributes to the formation of otoconia. In non-excitable cells, regulates Ca(2+) signaling through spatial control of Ca(2+) ions extrusion and dissipation of Ca(2+) transients generated by store-operated channels. In lactating mammary gland, allows for the high content of Ca(2+) ions in the milk (By similarity).

ATP-driven Ca(2+) ion pump involved in the maintenance of basal intracellular Ca(2+) levels at the presynaptic terminals. Uses ATP as an energy source to transport cytosolic Ca(2+) ions across the plasma membrane to the extracellular compartment. May counter-transport protons, but the mechanism and the stoichiometry of this Ca(2+)/H(+) exchange remains to be established (By similarity).

Calcium/calmodulin-regulated and magnesium-dependent enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled with the transport of calcium out of the cell. By regulating sperm cell calcium homeostasis, may play a role in sperm motility (By similarity).

ATP-driven pump that supplies the Golgi apparatus with Ca(2+) and Mn(2+) ions, both essential cofactors for processing and trafficking of newly synthesized proteins in the secretory pathway. Within a catalytic cycle, acquires Ca(2+) or Mn(2+) ions on the cytoplasmic side of the membrane and delivers them to the lumenal side. The transfer of ions across the membrane is coupled to ATP hydrolysis and is associated with a transient phosphorylation that shifts the pump conformation from inward-facing to outward-facing state. Plays a primary role in the maintenance of Ca(2+) homeostasis in the trans-Golgi compartment with a functional impact on Golgi and post-Golgi protein sorting as well as a structural impact on cisternae morphology. Responsible for loading the Golgi stores with Ca(2+) ions in keratinocytes, contributing to keratinocyte differentiation and epidermis integrity. Participates in Ca(2+) and Mn(2+) ions uptake into the Golgi store of hippocampal neurons and regulates protein trafficking required for neural polarity (By similarity). May also play a role in the maintenance of Ca(2+) and Mn(2+) homeostasis and signaling in the cytosol while preventing cytotoxicity.

ATP-driven pump that supplies the Golgi apparatus with Ca(2+) and Mn(2+) ions, both essential cofactors for processing and trafficking of newly synthesized proteins in the secretory pathway. Within a catalytic cycle, acquires Ca(2+) or Mn(2+) ions on the cytoplasmic side of the membrane and delivers them to the lumenal side. The transfer of ions across the membrane is coupled to ATP hydrolysis and is associated with a transient phosphorylation that shifts the pump conformation from inward-facing to outward-facing state. Induces Ca(2+) influx independently of its ATP-driven pump function. At the basolateral membrane of mammary epithelial cells, interacts with Ca(2+) channel ORAI1 and mediates Ca(2+) entry independently of the Ca(2+) content of endoplasmic reticulum or Golgi stores. May facilitate transepithelial transport of large quantities of Ca(2+) for milk secretion via activation of Ca(2+) influx channels at the plasma membrane and active Ca(2+) transport at the Golgi apparatus.

Catalyzes the pyridoxal-phosphate-dependent breakdown of phosphoethanolamine, converting it to ammonia, inorganic phosphate and acetaldehyde.

Catalyzes the pyridoxal-phosphate-dependent breakdown of 5- phosphohydroxy-L-lysine, converting it to ammonia, inorganic phosphate and 2-aminoadipate semialdehyde.

Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core, and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP synthesis in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. Part of the complex F(0) domain and the peripheric stalk, which acts as a stator to hold the catalytic alpha(3)beta(3) subcomplex and subunit a/ATP6 static relative to the rotary elements

Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP synthesis in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. Part of the complex F(0) domain. A homomeric c-ring of probably 10 subunits is part of the complex rotary element

Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core, and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP synthesis in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. Part of the complex F(0) domain. Minor subunit located with subunit a in the membrane (By similarity).

Component of the transcription regulatory histone acetylation (HAT) complex SAGA, a multiprotein complex that activates transcription by remodeling chromatin and mediating histone acetylation and deubiquitination. Within the SAGA complex, participates in a subcomplex that specifically deubiquitinates both histones H2A and H2B. The SAGA complex is recruited to specific gene promoters by activators such as MYC, where it is required for transcription. Required for nuclear receptor-mediated transactivation. Within the complex, it is required to recruit USP22 and ENY2 into the SAGA complex. Regulates H2B monoubiquitination (H2Bub1) levels. Affects subcellular distribution of ENY2, USP22 and ATXN7L3B.

Catalytic component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of aminophospholipids from the outer to the inner leaflet of various membranes and ensures the maintenance of asymmetric distribution of phospholipids. Phospholipid translocation seems also to be implicated in vesicle formation and in uptake of lipid signaling molecules. In vitro, its ATPase activity is selectively and stereospecifically stimulated by phosphatidylserine (PS). The flippase complex ATP8A1:TMEM30A seems to play a role in regulation of cell migration probably involving flippase- mediated translocation of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) at the plasma membrane (By similarity). Acts as aminophospholipid translocase at the plasma membrane in neuronal cells (By similarity).

Catalytic component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of aminophospholipids from the outer to the inner leaflet of various membranes and ensures the maintenance of asymmetric distribution of phospholipids (By similarity). Able to translocate phosphatidylserine, but not phosphatidylcholine. Phospholipid translocation seems also to be implicated in vesicle formation and in uptake of lipid signaling molecules (By similarity). Reconstituted to liposomes, the ATP8A2:TMEM30A flippase complex predominantly transports phosphatidylserine (PS) and to a lesser extent phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) (By similarity). Phospholipid translocation is not associated with a countertransport of an inorganic ion or other charged substrate from the cytoplasmic side toward the exoplasm in connection with the phosphorylation from ATP (By similarity). ATP8A2:TMEM30A may be involved in regulation of neurite outgrowth (By similarity). Proposed to function in the generation and maintenance of phospholipid asymmetry in photoreceptor disk membranes and neuronal axon membranes (By similarity). May be involved in vesicle trafficking in neuronal cells (By similarity). Required for normal visual and auditory function; involved in photoreceptor and inner ear spiral ganglion cell survival (By similarity).

Catalytic component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of phospholipids, in particular phosphatidylcholines (PC), from the outer to the inner leaflet of the plasma membrane. May participate in the establishment of the canalicular membrane integrity by ensuring asymmetric distribution of phospholipids in the canicular membrane (By similarity). Thus may have a role in the regulation of bile acids transport into the canaliculus, uptake of bile acids from intestinal contents into intestinal mucosa or both and protect hepatocytes from bile salts (By similarity). Involved in the microvillus formation in polarized epithelial cells; the function seems to be independent from its flippase activity. Participates in correct apical membrane localization of CDC42, CFTR and SLC10A2. Enables CDC42 clustering at the apical membrane during enterocyte polarization through the interaction between CDC42 polybasic region and negatively charged membrane lipids provided by ATP8B1 (By similarity). Together with TMEM30A is involved in uptake of the synthetic drug alkylphospholipid perifosine. Required for the preservation of cochlear hair cells in the inner ear (By similarity). May act as cardiolipin transporter during inflammatory injury (By similarity).

P4-ATPase flippase which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of aminophospholipids from the outer to the inner leaflet of various membranes and ensures the maintenance of asymmetric distribution of phospholipids. Phospholipid translocation seems also to be implicated in vesicle formation and in uptake of lipid signaling molecules. May be responsible for the maintenance of asymmetric distribution of phosphatidylserine (PS) in spermatozoa membranes. Involved in acrosome reactions and binding of spermatozoa to zona pellucida.

Component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of aminophospholipids from the outer to the inner leaflet of various membranes and ensures the maintenance of asymmetric distribution of phospholipids. Phospholipid translocation seems also to be implicated in vesicle formation and in uptake of lipid signaling molecules (Probable).

Outer mitochondrial translocase required to remove mislocalized tail-anchored transmembrane proteins on mitochondria. Specifically recognizes and binds tail-anchored transmembrane proteins: acts as a dislocase that mediates the ATP- dependent extraction of mistargeted tail-anchored transmembrane proteins from the mitochondrion outer membrane (By similarity). Also plays a critical role in regulating the surface expression of AMPA receptors (AMPAR), thereby regulating synaptic plasticity and learning and memory (By similarity). Required for NMDA-stimulated AMPAR internalization and inhibition of GRIA1 and GRIA2 recycling back to the plasma membrane; these activities are ATPase-dependent (By similarity).

May be a transcriptional coactivator of the nuclear receptor ESR1 required to induce the expression of a subset of estradiol target genes, such as CCND1, MYC and E2F1. May play a role in the recruitment or occupancy of CREBBP at some ESR1 target gene promoters. May be required for histone hyperacetylation. Involved in the estrogen-induced cell proliferation and cell cycle progression of breast cancer cells.

Has an imporant role in DNA replication and in maintaining genome integrity during replication stress. Involved in a RAD9A-related damage checkpoint, a pathway that is important in determining whether DNA damage is compatible with cell survival or whether it requires cell elimination by apoptosis. Modulates the RAD9A interaction with BCL2 and thereby induces DNA damage-induced apoptosis. Promotes PCNA deubiquitination by recruiting the ubiquitin-specific protease 1 (USP1) and WDR48 thereby down-regulating the error-prone damage bypass pathway. As component of the ATAD5 RFC-like complex, regulates the function of the DNA polymerase processivity factor PCNA by unloading the ring-shaped PCNA homotrimer from DNA after replication during the S phase of the cell cycle. This seems to be dependent on its ATPase activity. Plays important roles in restarting stalled replication forks under replication stress, by unloading the PCNA homotrimer from DNA and recruiting RAD51 possibly through an ATR-dependent manner. Ultimately this enables replication fork regression, breakage, and eventual fork restart. Both the PCNA unloading activity and the interaction with WDR48 are required to efficiently recruit RAD51 to stalled replication forks. Promotes the generation of MUS81-mediated single-stranded DNA-associated breaks in response to replication stress, which is an alternative pathway to restart stalled/regressed replication forks.

Specifically acetylates 'Lys-40' in alpha-tubulin on the lumenal side of microtubules. Promotes microtubule destabilization and accelerates microtubule dynamics; this activity may be independent of acetylation activity. Acetylates alpha-tubulin with a slow enzymatic rate, due to a catalytic site that is not optimized for acetyl transfer. Enters the microtubule through each end and diffuses quickly throughout the lumen of microtubules. Acetylates only long/old microtubules because of its slow acetylation rate since it does not have time to act on dynamically unstable microtubules before the enzyme is released. Required for normal sperm flagellar function. Promotes directional cell locomotion and chemotaxis, through AP2A2-dependent acetylation of alpha-tubulin at clathrin-coated pits that are concentrated at the leading edge of migrating cells. May facilitate primary cilium assembly.

Functions in the development of neural tissues, particularly the postnatal maturation of the cerebellar cortex. May play a role in neurotransmission through regulation of glutaminase/GLS, an enzyme responsible for the production in neurons of the glutamate neurotransmitter. Alternatively, may regulate the localization of mitochondria within axons and dendrites.

Essential for mitochondrial network organization, mitochondrial metabolism and cell growth at organism and cellular level. May play an important role in mitochondrial protein synthesis. May also participate in mitochondrial DNA replication. May bind to mitochondrial DNA D-loops and contribute to nucleoid stability. Required for enhanced channeling of cholesterol for hormone-dependent steroidogenesis. Involved in mitochondrial-mediated antiviral innate immunity.

May play a role in a mitochondrial network organization typical for stem cells, characterized by reduced mitochondrial metabolism, low mtDNA copies and fragmentated mitochondrial network. may act by suppressing ATAD3A function, interfering with ATAD3A interaction with matrix nucleoid complexes.

Involved in the post-translational conjugation of arginine to the N-terminal aspartate or glutamate of a protein. This arginylation is required for degradation of the protein via the ubiquitin pathway. Does not arginylate cysteine residues (By similarity).

This protein binds the cAMP response element (CRE) (consensus: 5'-GTGACGT[AC][AG]-3'), a sequence present in many viral and cellular promoters. Binds to the Tax-responsive element (TRE) of HTLV-I. Mediates PKA-induced stimulation of CRE-reporter genes. Represses the expression of FTH1 and other antioxidant detoxification genes. Triggers cell proliferation and transformation.

Transcriptional activator which regulates the transcription of various genes, including those involved in anti-apoptosis, cell growth, and DNA damage response. Dependent on its binding partner, binds to CRE (cAMP response element) consensus sequences (5'-TGACGTCA- 3') or to AP-1 (activator protein 1) consensus sequences (5'-TGACTCA- 3'). In the nucleus, contributes to global transcription and the DNA damage response, in addition to specific transcriptional activities that are related to cell development, proliferation and death. In the cytoplasm, interacts with and perturbs HK1- and VDAC1-containing complexes at the mitochondrial outer membrane, thereby impairing mitochondrial membrane potential, inducing mitochondrial leakage and promoting cell death. The phosphorylated form (mediated by ATM) plays a role in the DNA damage response and is involved in the ionizing radiation (IR)-induced S phase checkpoint control and in the recruitment of the MRN complex into the IR-induced foci (IRIF). Exhibits histone acetyltransferase (HAT) activity which specifically acetylates histones H2B and H4 in vitro. In concert with CUL3 and RBX1, promotes the degradation of KAT5 thereby attenuating its ability to acetylate and activate ATM. Can elicit oncogenic or tumor suppressor activities depending on the tissue or cell type.

This protein binds the cAMP response element (CRE) (consensus: 5'-GTGACGT[AC][AG]-3'), a sequence present in many viral and cellular promoters. Represses transcription from promoters with ATF sites. It may repress transcription by stabilizing the binding of inhibitory cofactors at the promoter.

Transcription factor that binds the cAMP response element (CRE) (consensus: 5'-GTGACGT[AC][AG]-3') and displays two biological functions, as regulator of metabolic and redox processes under normal cellular conditions, and as master transcription factor during integrated stress response (ISR). Binds to asymmetric CRE's as a heterodimer and to palindromic CRE's as a homodimer (By similarity). Core effector of the ISR, which is required for adaptation to various stress such as endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress, amino acid starvation, mitochondrial stress or oxidative stress. During ISR, ATF4 translation is induced via an alternative ribosome translation re-initiation mechanism in response to EIF2S1/eIF-2-alpha phosphorylation, and stress-induced ATF4 acts as a master transcription factor of stress-responsive genes in order to promote cell recovery. Promotes the transcription of genes linked to amino acid sufficiency and resistance to oxidative stress to protect cells against metabolic consequences of ER oxidation (By similarity). Activates the transcription of NLRP1, possibly in concert with other factors in response to ER stress. Activates the transcription of asparagine synthetase (ASNS) in response to amino acid deprivation or ER stress. However, when associated with DDIT3/CHOP, the transcriptional activation of the ASNS gene is inhibited in response to amino acid deprivation. Together with DDIT3/CHOP, mediates programmed cell death by promoting the expression of genes involved in cellular amino acid metabolic processes, mRNA translation and the terminal unfolded protein response (terminal UPR), a cellular response that elicits programmed cell death when ER stress is prolonged and unresolved (By similarity). Together with DDIT3/CHOP, activates the transcription of the IRS-regulator TRIB3 and promotes ER stress-induced neuronal cell death by regulating the expression of BBC3/PUMA in response to ER stress. May cooperate with the UPR transcriptional regulator QRICH1 to regulate ER protein homeostasis which is critical for cell viability in response to ER stress. In the absence of stress, ATF4 translation is at low levels and it is required for normal metabolic processes such as embryonic lens formation, fetal liver hematopoiesis, bone development and synaptic plasticity (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of osteoblast differentiation in response to phosphorylation by RPS6KA3/RSK2: phosphorylation in osteoblasts enhances transactivation activity and promotes expression of osteoblast-specific genes and post-transcriptionally regulates the synthesis of Type I collagen, the main constituent of the bone matrix. Cooperates with FOXO1 in osteoblasts to regulate glucose homeostasis through suppression of beta-cell production and decrease in insulin production (By similarity). Activates transcription of SIRT4 (By similarity). Regulates the circadian expression of the core clock component PER2 and the serotonin transporter SLC6A4 (By similarity). Binds in a circadian time-dependent manner to the cAMP response elements (CRE) in the SLC6A4 and PER2 promoters and periodically activates the transcription of these genes (By similarity). Mainly acts as a transcriptional activator in cellular stress adaptation, but it can also act as a transcriptional repressor: acts as a regulator of synaptic plasticity by repressing transcription, thereby inhibiting induction and maintenance of long-term memory (By similarity). Regulates synaptic functions via interaction with DISC1 in neurons, which inhibits ATF4 transcription factor activity by disrupting ATF4 dimerization and DNA-binding.

Transcription factor that either stimulates or represses gene transcription through binding of different DNA regulatory elements such as cAMP response element (CRE) (consensus: 5'-GTGACGT[AC][AG]-3'), ATF5-specific response element (ARE) (consensus: 5'- C[CT]TCT[CT]CCTT[AT]-3') but also the amino acid response element (AARE), present in many viral and cellular promoters. Critically involved, often in a cell type-dependent manner, in cell survival, proliferation, and differentiation. Its transcriptional activity is enhanced by CCND3 and slightly inhibited by CDK4. Important regulator of the cerebral cortex formation, functions in cerebral cortical neuroprogenitor cells to maintain proliferation and to block differentiation into neurons. Must be down-regulated in order for such cells to exit the cycle and differentiate (By similarity). Participates in the pathways by which SHH promotes cerebellar granule neuron progenitor cells proliferation (By similarity). Critical for survival of mature olfactory sensory neurons (OSN), directs expression of OSN-specific genes (By similarity). May be involved in osteogenic differentiation. Promotes cell proliferation and survival by inducing the expression of EGR1 sinergistically with ELK1. Once acetylated by EP300, binds to ARE sequences on target genes promoters, such as BCL2 and EGR1. Plays an anti- apoptotic role through the transcriptional regulation of BCL2, this function seems to be cell type-dependent (By similarity). Cooperates with NR1I3/CAR in the transcriptional activation of CYP2B6 in liver. In hepatic cells, represses CRE-dependent transcription and inhibits proliferation by blocking at G2/M phase. May act as a negative regulator of IL1B transduction pathway in liver. Upon IL1B stimulus, cooperates with NLK to activate the transactivation activity of C/EBP subfamily members. Besides its function of transcription factor, acts as a cofactor of CEBPB to activate CEBPA and promote adipocyte differentiation. Regulates centrosome dynamics in a cell-cycle- and centriole-age-dependent manner. Forms 9-foci symmetrical ring scaffold around the mother centriole to control centrosome function and the interaction between centrioles and pericentriolar material.

[Cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-6 alpha]: Precursor of the transcription factor form (Processed cyclic AMP- dependent transcription factor ATF-6 alpha), which is embedded in the endoplasmic reticulum membrane. Endoplasmic reticulum stress promotes processing of this form, releasing the transcription factor form that translocates into the nucleus, where it activates transcription of genes involved in the unfolded protein response (UPR).

[Cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-6 beta]: Precursor of the transcription factor form (Processed cyclic AMP- dependent transcription factor ATF-6 beta), which is embedded in the endoplasmic reticulum membrane. Endoplasmic reticulum stress promotes processing of this form, releasing the transcription factor form that translocates into the nucleus, where it activates transcription of genes involved in the unfolded protein response (UPR).

Stress-responsive chromatin regulator that plays a role in various biological processes including innate immunological memory, adipocyte differentiation or telomerase regulation. In absence of stress, contributes to the formation of heterochromatin and heterochromatin-like structure by recruiting histone H3K9 tri- and di-methyltransferases thus silencing the transcription of target genes such as STAT1 in adipocytes, or genes involved in innate immunity in macrophages and adipocytes (By similarity). Stress induces ATF7 phosphorylation that disrupts interactions with histone methyltransferase and enhances the association with coactivators containing histone acetyltransferase and/or histone demethylase, leading to disruption of the heterochromatin-like structure and subsequently transcriptional activation (By similarity). In response to TNF-alpha, which is induced by various stresses, phosphorylated ATF7 and telomerase are released from telomeres leading to telomere shortening. Also plays a role in maintaining epithelial regenerative capacity and protecting against cell death during intestinal epithelial damage and repair (By similarity).

E2-like enzyme involved in autophagy. Acts as an E2-like enzyme that catalyzes the conjugation of ATG12 to ATG5. ATG12 conjugation to ATG5 is required for autophagy. Likely serves as an ATG5-recognition molecule. Not involved in ATG12 conjugation to ATG3 (By similarity). Plays a role in adenovirus-mediated cell lysis.

Ubiquitin-like protein involved in autophagy vesicles formation. Conjugation with ATG5 through a ubiquitin-like conjugating system involving also ATG7 as an E1-like activating enzyme and ATG10 as an E2-like conjugating enzyme, is essential for its function. The ATG12-ATG5 conjugate acts as an E3-like enzyme which is required for lipidation of ATG8 family proteins and their association to the vesicle membranes.

Autophagy factor required for autophagosome formation and mitophagy. Target of the TOR kinase signaling pathway that regulates autophagy through the control of the phosphorylation status of ATG13 and ULK1, and the regulation of the ATG13-ULK1-RB1CC1 complex. Through its regulation of ULK1 activity, plays a role in the regulation of the kinase activity of mTORC1 and cell proliferation.

Lipid transfer protein involved in autophagosome assembly. Tethers the edge of the isolation membrane (IM) to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and mediates direct lipid transfer from ER to IM for IM expansion. Binds to the ER exit site (ERES), which is the membrane source for autophagosome formation, and extracts phospholipids from the membrane source and transfers them to ATG9 (ATG9A or ATG9B) to the IM for membrane expansion. Lipid transfer activity is enhanced by WIPI1 and WDR45/WIPI4, which promote ATG2A-association with phosphatidylinositol 3-monophosphate (PI3P)-containing membranes. Also regulates lipid droplets morphology and distribution within the cell.

Lipid transfer protein required for both autophagosome formation and regulation of lipid droplet morphology and dispersion. Tethers the edge of the isolation membrane (IM) to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and mediates direct lipid transfer from ER to IM for IM expansion. Binds to the ER exit site (ERES), which is the membrane source for autophagosome formation, and extracts phospholipids from the membrane source and transfers them to ATG9 (ATG9A or ATG9B) to the IM for membrane expansion (By similarity). Lipid transfer activity is enhanced by WDR45/WIPI4, which promotes ATG2B-association with phosphatidylinositol 3-monophosphate (PI3P)-containing membranes.

E2 conjugating enzyme required for the cytoplasm to vacuole transport (Cvt), autophagy, and mitochondrial homeostasis. Responsible for the E2-like covalent binding of phosphatidylethanolamine to the C- terminal Gly of ATG8-like proteins (GABARAP, GABARAPL1, GABARAPL2 or MAP1LC3A). The ATG12-ATG5 conjugate plays a role of an E3 and promotes the transfer of ATG8-like proteins from ATG3 to phosphatidylethanolamine (PE). This step is required for the membrane association of ATG8-like proteins. The formation of the ATG8- phosphatidylethanolamine conjugates is essential for autophagy and for the cytoplasm to vacuole transport (Cvt). Preferred substrate is MAP1LC3A. Also acts as an autocatalytic E2-like enzyme, catalyzing the conjugation of ATG12 to itself, ATG12 conjugation to ATG3 playing a role in mitochondrial homeostasis but not in autophagy. ATG7 (E1-like enzyme) facilitates this reaction by forming an E1-E2 complex with ATG3. Promotes primary ciliogenesis by removing OFD1 from centriolar satellites via the autophagic pathway.

Cysteine protease that plays a key role in autophagy by mediating both proteolytic activation and delipidation of ATG8 family proteins. The protease activity is required for proteolytic activation of ATG8 family proteins: cleaves the C-terminal amino acid of ATG8 proteins to reveal a C-terminal glycine. Exposure of the glycine at the C-terminus is essential for ATG8 proteins conjugation to phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) and insertion to membranes, which is necessary for autophagy. Preferred substrate is GABARAPL2 followed by MAP1LC3A and GABARAP. Protease activity is also required to counteract formation of high-molecular weight conjugates of ATG8 proteins (ATG8ylation): acts as a deubiquitinating- like enzyme that removes ATG8 conjugated to other proteins, such as ATG3. In addition to the protease activity, also mediates delipidation of ATG8 family proteins. Catalyzes delipidation of PE- conjugated forms of ATG8 proteins during macroautophagy. Compared to ATG4B, the major protein for proteolytic activation of ATG8 proteins, shows weaker ability to cleave the C-terminal amino acid of ATG8 proteins, while it displays stronger delipidation activity. Involved in phagophore growth during mitophagy independently of its protease activity and of ATG8 proteins: acts by regulating ATG9A trafficking to mitochondria and promoting phagophore-endoplasmic reticulum contacts during the lipid transfer phase of mitophagy.

Cysteine protease that plays a key role in autophagy by mediating both proteolytic activation and delipidation of ATG8 family proteins. Required for canonical autophagy (macroautophagy), non-canonical autophagy as well as for mitophagy. The protease activity is required for proteolytic activation of ATG8 family proteins: cleaves the C-terminal amino acid of ATG8 proteins MAP1LC3A, MAP1LC3B, MAP1LC3C, GABARAPL1, GABARAPL2 and GABARAP, to reveal a C- terminal glycine. Exposure of the glycine at the C-terminus is essential for ATG8 proteins conjugation to phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) and insertion to membranes, which is necessary for autophagy. Protease activity is also required to counteract formation of high-molecular weight conjugates of ATG8 proteins (ATG8ylation): acts as a deubiquitinating-like enzyme that removes ATG8 conjugated to other proteins, such as ATG3. In addition to the protease activity, also mediates delipidation of ATG8 family proteins. Catalyzes delipidation of PE- conjugated forms of ATG8 proteins during macroautophagy. Also involved in non-canonical autophagy, a parallel pathway involving conjugation of ATG8 proteins to single membranes at endolysosomal compartments, by catalyzing delipidation of ATG8 proteins conjugated to phosphatidylserine (PS). Compared to other members of the family (ATG4A, ATG4C or ATG4C), constitutes the major protein for proteolytic activation of ATG8 proteins, while it displays weaker delipidation activity than other ATG4 paralogs. Involved in phagophore growth during mitophagy independently of its protease activity and of ATG8 proteins: acts by regulating ATG9A trafficking to mitochondria and promoting phagophore-endoplasmic reticulum contacts during the lipid transfer phase of mitophagy.

Cysteine protease that plays a key role in autophagy by mediating both proteolytic activation and delipidation of ATG8 family proteins. The protease activity is required for proteolytic activation of ATG8 family proteins: cleaves the C-terminal amino acid of ATG8 proteins MAP1LC3 and GABARAPL2, to reveal a C-terminal glycine. Exposure of the glycine at the C-terminus is essential for ATG8 proteins conjugation to phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) and insertion to membranes, which is necessary for autophagy (By similarity). In addition to the protease activity, also mediates delipidation of ATG8 family proteins. Catalyzes delipidation of PE-conjugated forms of ATG8 proteins during macroautophagy. Compared to ATG4B, the major protein for proteolytic activation of ATG8 proteins, shows weaker ability to cleave the C-terminal amino acid of ATG8 proteins, while it displays stronger delipidation activity. In contrast to other members of the family, weakly or not involved in phagophore growth during mitophagy.

[Cysteine protease ATG4D]: Cysteine protease that plays a key role in autophagy by mediating both proteolytic activation and delipidation of ATG8 family proteins. The protease activity is required for proteolytic activation of ATG8 family proteins: cleaves the C-terminal amino acid of ATG8 proteins MAP1LC3 and GABARAPL2, to reveal a C-terminal glycine. Exposure of the glycine at the C-terminus is essential for ATG8 proteins conjugation to phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) and insertion to membranes, which is necessary for autophagy (By similarity). In addition to the protease activity, also mediates delipidation of ATG8 family proteins. Catalyzes delipidation of PE-conjugated forms of ATG8 proteins during macroautophagy. Also involved in non-canonical autophagy, a parallel pathway involving conjugation of ATG8 proteins to single membranes at endolysosomal compartments, by catalyzing delipidation of ATG8 proteins conjugated to phosphatidylserine (PS). ATG4D plays a role in the autophagy-mediated neuronal homeostasis in the central nervous system (By similarity). Compared to other members of the family (ATG4A, ATG4B or ATG4C), constitutes the major protein for the delipidation activity, while it promotes weak proteolytic activation of ATG8 proteins (By similarity). Involved in phagophore growth during mitophagy independently of its protease activity and of ATG8 proteins: acts by regulating ATG9A trafficking to mitochondria and promoting phagophore- endoplasmic reticulum contacts during the lipid transfer phase of mitophagy.

Involved in autophagic vesicle formation. Conjugation with ATG12, through a ubiquitin-like conjugating system involving ATG7 as an E1-like activating enzyme and ATG10 as an E2-like conjugating enzyme, is essential for its function. The ATG12-ATG5 conjugate acts as an E3- like enzyme which is required for lipidation of ATG8 family proteins and their association to the vesicle membranes. Involved in mitochondrial quality control after oxidative damage, and in subsequent cellular longevity. Plays a critical role in multiple aspects of lymphocyte development and is essential for both B and T lymphocyte survival and proliferation. Required for optimal processing and presentation of antigens for MHC II. Involved in the maintenance of axon morphology and membrane structures, as well as in normal adipocyte differentiation. Promotes primary ciliogenesis through removal of OFD1 from centriolar satellites and degradation of IFT20 via the autophagic pathway.

E1-like activating enzyme involved in the 2 ubiquitin-like systems required for cytoplasm to vacuole transport (Cvt) and autophagy. Activates ATG12 for its conjugation with ATG5 as well as the ATG8 family proteins for their conjugation with phosphatidylethanolamine. Both systems are needed for the ATG8 association to Cvt vesicles and autophagosomes membranes. Required for autophagic death induced by caspase-8 inhibition. Facilitates LC3-I lipidation with phosphatidylethanolamine to form LC3-II which is found on autophagosomal membranes. Required for mitophagy which contributes to regulate mitochondrial quantity and quality by eliminating the mitochondria to a basal level to fulfill cellular energy requirements and preventing excess ROS production. Modulates p53/TP53 activity to regulate cell cycle and survival during metabolic stress. Also plays a key role in the maintenance of axonal homeostasis, the prevention of axonal degeneration, the maintenance of hematopoietic stem cells, the formation of Paneth cell granules, as well as in adipose differentiation. Plays a role in regulating the liver clock and glucose metabolism by mediating the autophagic degradation of CRY1 (clock repressor) in a time-dependent manner (By similarity).

Phospholipid scramblase involved in autophagy by mediating autophagosomal membrane expansion. Cycles between the preautophagosomal structure/phagophore assembly site (PAS) and the cytoplasmic vesicle pool and supplies membrane for the growing autophagosome. Lipid scramblase activity plays a key role in preautophagosomal structure/phagophore assembly by distributing the phospholipids that arrive through ATG2 (ATG2A or ATG2B) from the cytoplasmic to the luminal leaflet of the bilayer, thereby driving autophagosomal membrane expansion. Also required to supply phosphatidylinositol 4- phosphate to the autophagosome initiation site by recruiting the phosphatidylinositol 4-kinase beta (PI4KB) in a process dependent on ARFIP2, but not ARFIP1. In addition to autophagy, also plays a role in necrotic cell death (By similarity).

Phospholipid scramblase involved in autophagy by mediating autophagosomal membrane expansion. Cycles between the preautophagosomal structure/phagophore assembly site (PAS) and the cytoplasmic vesicle pool and supplies membrane for the growing autophagosome. Lipid scramblase activity plays a key role in preautophagosomal structure/phagophore assembly by distributing the phospholipids that arrive through ATG2 (ATG2A or ATG2B) from the cytoplasmic to the luminal leaflet of the bilayer, thereby driving autophagosomal membrane expansion (By similarity). In addition to autophagy, also plays a role in necrotic cell death (By similarity).

Autophagy factor required for autophagosome formation. Stabilizes ATG13, protecting it from proteasomal degradation.

Endogenous F(1)F(o)-ATPase inhibitor limiting ATP depletion when the mitochondrial membrane potential falls below a threshold and the F(1)F(o)-ATP synthase starts hydrolyzing ATP to pump protons out of the mitochondrial matrix. Required to avoid the consumption of cellular ATP when the F(1)F(o)-ATP synthase enzyme acts as an ATP hydrolase. Indirectly acts as a regulator of heme synthesis in erythroid tissues: regulates heme synthesis by modulating the mitochondrial pH and redox potential, allowing FECH to efficiently catalyze the incorporation of iron into protoporphyrin IX to produce heme.

Positive regulation of apoptosis. May facilitate FBN1 microfibril biogenesis.

GTPase tethering membranes through formation of trans- homooligomers and mediating homotypic fusion of endoplasmic reticulum membranes. Functions in endoplasmic reticulum tubular network biogenesis. May also regulate Golgi biogenesis. May regulate axonal development.

GTPase tethering membranes through formation of trans- homooligomers and mediating homotypic fusion of endoplasmic reticulum membranes. Functions in endoplasmic reticulum tubular network biogenesis.

Transcription factor. Plays a crucial role in cell survival and RAD51 foci formation in response to methylating DNA damage. Involved in regulating the activity of ATM in the absence of DNA damage. May play a role in stabilizing ATM. Binds to the DYNLL1 promoter and activates its transcription.

Serine/threonine protein kinase which activates checkpoint signaling upon double strand breaks (DSBs), apoptosis and genotoxic stresses such as ionizing ultraviolet A light (UVA), thereby acting as a DNA damage sensor. Recognizes the substrate consensus sequence [ST]-Q. Phosphorylates 'Ser-139' of histone variant H2AX at double strand breaks (DSBs), thereby regulating DNA damage response mechanism (By similarity). Also plays a role in pre-B cell allelic exclusion, a process leading to expression of a single immunoglobulin heavy chain allele to enforce clonality and monospecific recognition by the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) expressed on individual B-lymphocytes. After the introduction of DNA breaks by the RAG complex on one immunoglobulin allele, acts by mediating a repositioning of the second allele to pericentromeric heterochromatin, preventing accessibility to the RAG complex and recombination of the second allele. Also involved in signal transduction and cell cycle control. May function as a tumor suppressor. Necessary for activation of ABL1 and SAPK. Phosphorylates DYRK2, CHEK2, p53/TP53, FBXW7, FANCD2, NFKBIA, BRCA1, CTIP, nibrin (NBN), TERF1, UFL1, RAD9, UBQLN4 and DCLRE1C. May play a role in vesicle and/or protein transport. Could play a role in T-cell development, gonad and neurological function. Plays a role in replication-dependent histone mRNA degradation. Binds DNA ends. Phosphorylation of DYRK2 in nucleus in response to genotoxic stress prevents its MDM2-mediated ubiquitination and subsequent proteasome degradation. Phosphorylates ATF2 which stimulates its function in DNA damage response. Phosphorylates ERCC6 which is essential for its chromatin remodeling activity at DNA double-strand breaks. Phosphorylates TTC5/STRAP at 'Ser-203' in the cytoplasm in response to DNA damage, which promotes TTC5/STRAP nuclear localization. Also involved in pexophagy by mediating phosphorylation of PEX5: translocated to peroxisomes in response to reactive oxygen species (ROS), and catalyzes phosphorylation of PEX5, promoting PEX5 ubiquitination and induction of pexophagy.

Transcriptional corepressor. Recruits NR2E1 to repress transcription. Promotes vascular smooth cell (VSMC) migration and orientation (By similarity). Corepressor of MTG8 transcriptional repression. Has some intrinsic repression activity which is independent of the number of poly-Gln (polyQ) repeats.

May be involved in forming the receptor site for cardiac glycoside binding or may modulate the transport function of the sodium ATPase

Transcriptional regulator. Activates E box-dependent transcription in collaboration with TCF3/E47, but the activity is completely antagonized by the negative regulator of neurogenesis HES1. Plays a role in the differentiation of subsets of neural cells by activating E box-dependent transcription (By similarity).

Transcription factor that binds to DNA at the consensus sequence 5'-CAG[GC]TG-3'. Dimerization with TCF3 isoform E47 may be required in certain situations. Binds to gene promoters and enhancer elements, and thereby regulates a transcriptional program of retinal ganglion cell (RGC) determinant genes (By similarity). Although the exact mechanism is not certain, retinal transcription regulation by ATOH7 has a role in RGC determination and survival, photoreceptor population development, targeting of RGC axons to the optic nerve and development of the retino-hypothalamic tract (By similarity). Binds to its own promoter and enhancer sequences, suggesting autoregulation of ATOH7 transcription (By similarity). Required for retinal circadian rhythm photoentrainment (By similarity). Plays a role in brainstem auditory signaling and binaural processing (By similarity).

Transcription factor that binds a palindromic (canonical) core consensus DNA sequence 5'-CANNTG- 3' known as an E-box element, possibly as a heterodimer with other bHLH proteins. Regulates endothelial cell proliferation, migration and tube-like structures formation. Modulates endothelial cell differentiation through NOS3. May be implicated in specification and differentiation of neuronal cell lineages in the brain (By similarity). May participate in kidney development and may be involved in podocyte differentiation (By similarity). During early embryonic development is involved in tissue-specific differentiation processes that are dependent on class II bHLH factors and namely modulates the differentiation program initiated by the pro-endocrine factor NEUROG3 (By similarity). During myogenesis, may play a role during the transition of myoblasts from the proliferative phase to the differentiation phase (By similarity). Positively regulates HAMP transcription in two ways, firstly by acting directly on the HAMP promoter via E-boxes binding and indirectly through increased phosphorylation of SMAD protein complex. Repress NEUROG3-dependent gene activation in a gene-specific manner through at least two mechanisms; requires only either the sequestering of a general partner such as TCF3 through heterodimerization, either also requires binding of the bHLH domain to DNA via a basic motif (By similarity).

Transcription regulator that syncronizes transcriptional and translational programs to promote macrophage invasion of tissues.

Transcription regulator that may syncronize transcriptional and translational programs.

Binds and deliver cytosolic copper to the copper ATPase proteins. May be important in cellular antioxidant defense

The catalytic subunit of the gastric H(+)/K(+) ATPase pump which transports H(+) ions in exchange for K(+) ions across the apical membrane of parietal cells. Uses ATP as an energy source to pump H(+) ions to the gastric lumen while transporting K(+) ion from the lumen into the cell (By similarity). Remarkably generates a million-fold proton gradient across the gastric parietal cell membrane, acidifying the gastric juice down to pH 1 (By similarity). Within a transport cycle, the transfer of a H(+) ion across the membrane is coupled to ATP hydrolysis and is associated with a transient phosphorylation that shifts the pump conformation from inward-facing (E1) to outward-facing state (E2). The release of the H(+) ion in the stomach lumen is followed by binding of K(+) ion converting the pump conformation back to the E1 state (By similarity).

The beta subunit of the gastric H(+)/K(+) ATPase pump which transports H(+) ions in exchange for K(+) ions across the apical membrane of parietal cells. Plays a structural and regulatory role in the assembly and membrane targeting of a functionally active pump (By similarity). Within a transport cycle, the transfer of a H(+) ion across the membrane is coupled to ATP hydrolysis and is associated with a transient phosphorylation of the alpha subunit that shifts the pump conformation from inward-facing (E1) to outward-facing state (E2). Interacts with the phosphorylation domain of the alpha subunit and functions as a ratchet, stabilizing the lumenal-open E2 conformation and preventing the reverse reaction of the transport cycle (By similarity).

Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core, and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP synthesis in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. Part of the complex F(1) domain and of the central stalk which is part of the complex rotary element. Rotation of the central stalk against the surrounding alpha(3)beta(3) subunits leads to hydrolysis of ATP in three separate catalytic sites on the beta subunits (By similarity).

Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core, and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP synthesis in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. Part of the complex F(0) domain. Minor subunit located with subunit a in the membrane

Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP synthesis in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. Part of the complex F(0) domain and the peripheric stalk, which acts as a stator to hold the catalytic alpha(3)beta(3) subcomplex and subunit a/ATP6 static relative to the rotary elements. Also involved in the restoration of oligomycin-sensitive ATPase activity to depleted F1-F0 complexes

Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP synthesis in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation (Probable). Minor subunit required to maintain the ATP synthase population in the mitochondria.

ATP-driven copper (Cu(+)) ion pump that plays an important role in intracellular copper ion homeostasis. Within a catalytic cycle, acquires Cu(+) ion from donor protein on the cytoplasmic side of the membrane and delivers it to acceptor protein on the lumenal side. The transfer of Cu(+) ion across the membrane is coupled to ATP hydrolysis and is associated with a transient phosphorylation that shifts the pump conformation from inward-facing to outward-facing state. Under physiological conditions, at low cytosolic copper concentration, it is localized at the trans-Golgi network (TGN) where it transfers Cu(+) ions to cuproenzymes of the secretory pathway. Upon elevated cytosolic copper concentrations, it relocalizes to the plasma membrane where it is responsible for the export of excess Cu(+) ions. May play a dual role in neuron function and survival by regulating cooper efflux and neuronal transmission at the synapse as well as by supplying Cu(+) ions to enzymes such as PAM, TYR and SOD3 (By similarity). In the melanosomes of pigmented cells, provides copper cofactor to TYR to form an active TYR holoenzyme for melanin biosynthesis (By similarity).

Copper ion transmembrane transporter involved in the export of copper out of the cells. It is involved in copper homeostasis in the liver, where it ensures the efflux of copper from hepatocytes into the bile in response to copper overload.

Plays a role in regulating membrane trafficking of cargo proteins, namely endosome to plasma membrane recycling and endosome to trans-Golgi network retrograde transport. In complex with MON2 and DOP1B, regulates SNX3 retromer-mediated endosomal sorting of WLS, a transporter of Wnt morphogens in developing tissues. Participates in the formation of endosomal carriers that direct WLS trafficking back to Golgi, away from lysosomal degradation. Appears to be implicated in intercellular communication by negatively regulating the release of exosomes. The flippase activity towards membrane lipids and its role in membrane asymmetry remains to be proved.

Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core, and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP synthesis in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. Subunits alpha and beta form the catalytic core in F(1). Rotation of the central stalk against the surrounding alpha(3)beta(3) subunits leads to hydrolysis of ATP in three separate catalytic sites on the beta subunits. Subunit alpha does not bear the catalytic high-affinity ATP-binding sites (By similarity). Binds the bacterial siderophore enterobactin and can promote mitochondrial accumulation of enterobactin-derived iron ions.

Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core, and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP synthesis in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. Subunits alpha and beta form the catalytic core in F(1). Rotation of the central stalk against the surrounding alpha(3)beta(3) subunits leads to hydrolysis of ATP in three separate catalytic sites on the beta subunits

Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core, and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP turnover in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. Part of the complex F(1) domain and of the central stalk which is part of the complex rotary element. Rotation of the central stalk against the surrounding alpha(3)beta(3) subunits leads to hydrolysis of ATP in three separate catalytic sites on the beta subunits.

May play an essential role for the assembly of the mitochondrial F1-F0 complex.

May play a role in the assembly of the F1 component of the mitochondrial ATP synthase (ATPase).

Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core, and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP synthesis in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. Part of the complex F(1) domain and the central stalk which is part of the complex rotary element. The gamma subunit protrudes into the catalytic domain formed of alpha(3)beta(3). Rotation of the central stalk against the surrounding alpha(3)beta(3) subunits leads to hydrolysis of ATP in three separate catalytic sites on the beta subunits.

Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP synthesis in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. Part of the complex F(0) domain. Minor subunit located with subunit a in the membrane

Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP synthesis in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. ATP5MK is a minor subunit of the mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase required for dimerization of the ATP synthase complex and as such regulates ATP synthesis in the mitochondria.

Mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V) produces ATP from ADP in the presence of a proton gradient across the membrane which is generated by electron transport complexes of the respiratory chain. F-type ATPases consist of two structural domains, F(1) - containing the extramembraneous catalytic core and F(0) - containing the membrane proton channel, linked together by a central stalk and a peripheral stalk. During catalysis, ATP synthesis in the catalytic domain of F(1) is coupled via a rotary mechanism of the central stalk subunits to proton translocation. Part of the complex F(0) domain and the peripheric stalk, which acts as a stator to hold the catalytic alpha(3)beta(3) subcomplex and subunit a/ATP6 static relative to the rotary elements

Appears to be a negative regulator of type-1 angiotensin II receptor-mediated signaling by regulating receptor internalization as well as mechanism of receptor desensitization such as phosphorylation. Induces also a decrease in cell proliferation and angiotensin II- stimulated transcriptional activity.

Required for checkpoint signaling after DNA damage. Required for ATR expression, possibly by stabilizing the protein.

May play a role in melanocortin signaling pathways that regulate energy homeostasis.

Involved in the initial immune cell clustering during inflammatory response and may regulate chemotactic activity of chemokines. May play a role in melanocortin signaling pathways that regulate energy homeostasis and hair color. Low-affinity receptor for agouti (By similarity). Has a critical role in normal myelination in the central nervous system (By similarity).

Involved in transcriptional regulation and chromatin remodeling. Facilitates DNA replication in multiple cellular environments and is required for efficient replication of a subset of genomic loci. Binds to DNA tandem repeat sequences in both telomeres and euchromatin and in vitro binds DNA quadruplex structures. May help stabilizing G-rich regions into regular chromatin structures by remodeling G4 DNA and incorporating H3.3-containing nucleosomes. Catalytic component of the chromatin remodeling complex ATRX:DAXX which has ATP-dependent DNA translocase activity and catalyzes the replication-independent deposition of histone H3.3 in pericentric DNA repeats outside S-phase and telomeres, and the in vitro remodeling of H3.3-containing nucleosomes. Its heterochromatin targeting is proposed to involve a combinatorial readout of histone H3 modifications (specifically methylation states of H3K9 and H3K4) and association with CBX5. Involved in maintaining telomere structural integrity in embryonic stem cells which probably implies recruitment of CBX5 to telomeres. Reports on the involvement in transcriptional regulation of telomeric repeat-containing RNA (TERRA) are conflicting; according to a report, it is not sufficient to decrease chromatin condensation at telomeres nor to increase expression of telomeric RNA in fibroblasts. May be involved in telomere maintenance via recombination in ALT (alternative lengthening of telomeres) cell lines. Acts as negative regulator of chromatin incorporation of transcriptionally repressive histone MACROH2A1, particularily at telomeres and the alpha-globin cluster in erythroleukemic cells. Participates in the allele-specific gene expression at the imprinted IGF2/H19 gene locus. On the maternal allele, required for the chromatin occupancy of SMC1 and CTCTF within the H19 imprinting control region (ICR) and involved in esatblishment of histone tails modifications in the ICR. May be involved in brain development and facial morphogenesis. Binds to zinc-finger coding genes with atypical chromatin signatures and regulates its H3K9me3 levels. Forms a complex with ZNF274, TRIM28 and SETDB1 to facilitate the deposition and maintenance of H3K9me3 at the 3' exons of zinc-finger genes.

Serine/threonine protein kinase which activates checkpoint signaling upon genotoxic stresses such as ionizing radiation (IR), ultraviolet light (UV), or DNA replication stalling, thereby acting as a DNA damage sensor. Recognizes the substrate consensus sequence [ST]- Q. Phosphorylates BRCA1, CHEK1, MCM2, RAD17, RPA2, SMC1 and p53/TP53, which collectively inhibit DNA replication and mitosis and promote DNA repair, recombination and apoptosis. Phosphorylates 'Ser-139' of histone variant H2AX at sites of DNA damage, thereby regulating DNA damage response mechanism. Required for FANCD2 ubiquitination. Critical for maintenance of fragile site stability and efficient regulation of centrosome duplication. Positively regulates the restart of stalled replication forks following activation by the KHDC3L-OOEP scaffold complex (By similarity).

Metalloprotease that may play a role in the degradation of COMP. Cleaves also alpha-2 macroglobulin and aggregan. Has anti- tumorigenic properties.

Cleaves the vWF multimers in plasma into smaller forms thereby controlling vWF-mediated platelet thrombus formation.

Has aminoprocollagen type I processing activity in the absence of ADAMTS2. Seems to be synthesized as a latent enzyme that requires activation to display aminoprocollagen peptidase activity. Cleaves lysyl oxidase LOX at a site downstream of its propeptide cleavage site to produce a short LOX form.

Metalloprotease which has proteolytic activity against the proteoglycan VCAN, cleaving it at the 'Glu-1428-|-1429-Ala' site. Cleaves VCAN in the pericellular matrix surrounding myoblasts, facilitating myoblast contact and fusion which is required for skeletal muscle development and regeneration.

Cleaves aggrecan, a cartilage proteoglycan, at the '1938- Glu-|-Leu-1939' site (within the chondroitin sulfate attachment domain), and may be involved in its turnover (By similarity). Has angiogenic inhibitor activity. Active metalloprotease, which may be associated with various inflammatory processes as well as development of cancer cachexia. May play a critical role in follicular rupture.

May play a role in tissue-remodeling process occurring in both normal and pathological conditions. May have a protease- independent function in the transport from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus of secretory cargos, mediated by the GON domain

Cleaves the propeptides of type I and II collagen prior to fibril assembly (By similarity). Does not act on type III collagen (By similarity). Cleaves lysyl oxidase LOX at a site downstream of its propeptide cleavage site to produce a short LOX form with reduced collagen-binding activity.

Cleaves the propeptides of type II collagen prior to fibril assembly. Does not act on types I and III collagens

Cleaves aggrecan, a cartilage proteoglycan, and may be involved in its turnover. May play an important role in the destruction of aggrecan in arthritic diseases. Could also be a critical factor in the exacerbation of neurodegeneration in Alzheimer disease. Cleaves aggrecan at the '392-Glu-|-Ala-393' site

Metalloproteinase that plays an important role in connective tissue organization, development, inflammation and cell migration. Extracellular matrix (ECM) degrading enzyme that show proteolytic activity toward the hyalectan group of chondroitin sulfate proteoglycans (CSPGs) including ACAN, VCAN, BCAN and NCAN. Cleavage within the hyalectans occurs at Glu-Xaa recognition motifs. Plays a role in embryonic development, including limb and cardiac morphogenesis, and skeletal muscle development through its VCAN remodeling properties. Cleaves VCAN in the pericellular matrix surrounding myoblasts, facilitating myoblast contact and fusion which is required for skeletal muscle development and regeneration (By similarity). Participates in development of brown adipose tissue and browning of white adipose tissue (By similarity). Plays an important role for T-lymphocyte migration from draining lymph nodes following viral infection.

Metalloprotease that may play a role in the degradation of COMP.

Cleaves the large aggregating proteoglycans, aggrecan (at the '1838-Glu-|-Ala-1839' site) and versican (at the '1428-Glu-|-Ala-1429' site). Has a protease-independent function in promoting the transport from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus of a variety of secretory cargos.

Transaminase involved in tyrosine breakdown. Converts tyrosine to p-hydroxyphenylpyruvate. Can catalyze the reverse reaction, using glutamic acid, with 2-oxoglutarate as cosubstrate (in vitro). Has much lower affinity and transaminase activity towards phenylalanine.

Necessary for the survival of cerebellar neurons. Induces neuritogenesis by activating the Ras-MAP kinase pathway. May play a role in the maintenance of a critical intracellular glycosylation level and homeostasis.

Chromatin-binding factor that repress Notch signaling in the absence of Notch intracellular domain by acting as a CBF1 corepressor. Binds to the HEY promoter and might assist, along with NCOR2, RBPJ- mediated repression. Can suppress ATXN1 cytotoxicity in spinocerebellar ataxia type 1 (SCA1). In concert with CIC and ATXN1, involved in brain development (By similarity).

Chromatin-binding factor that repress Notch signaling in the absence of Notch intracellular domain by acting as a CBF1 corepressor. Binds to the HEY promoter and might assist, along with NCOR2, RBPJ- mediated repression. Binds RNA in vitro. May be involved in RNA metabolism. In concert with CIC and ATXN1L, involved in brain development (By similarity).

Involved in the regulation of stress granule and P-body formation.

Deubiquitinating enzyme that cleaves both 'Lys-48'-linked and 'Lys-63'-linked poly-ubiquitin chains (in vitro)

Deubiquitinating enzyme involved in protein homeostasis maintenance, transcription, cytoskeleton regulation, myogenesis and degradation of misfolded chaperone substrates. Binds long polyubiquitin chains and trims them, while it has weak or no activity against chains of 4 or less ubiquitins. Involved in degradation of misfolded chaperone substrates via its interaction with STUB1/CHIP: recruited to monoubiquitinated STUB1/CHIP, and restricts the length of ubiquitin chain attached to STUB1/CHIP substrates and preventing further chain extension (By similarity). Interacts with key regulators of transcription and represses transcription: acts as a histone-binding protein that regulates transcription. Regulates autophagy via the deubiquitination of 'Lys-402' of BECN1 leading to the stabilization of BECN1.

Acts as component of the STAGA transcription coactivator-HAT complex. Mediates the interaction of STAGA complex with the CRX and is involved in CRX-dependent gene activation. Necessary for microtubule cytoskeleton stabilization.

Probable hormone that may attenuate cell proliferation and induce senescence of oligodendrocyte and neural precursor cells in the central nervous system (By similarity). ECRG4-induced senescence is characterized by G1 arrest, RB1 dephosphorylation and accelerated CCND1 and CCND3 proteasomal degradation (By similarity).

Catalyzes the fifth step in the leucine degradation pathway, the reversible hydration of 3-methylglutaconyl-CoA (3-MG-CoA) to 3- hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA). Can catalyze the reverse reaction but at a much lower rate in vitro. HMG-CoA is then quickly degraded by another enzyme (such as HMG-CoA lyase) to give acetyl-CoA and acetoacetate. Uses other substrates such as (2E)-glutaconyl-CoA efficiently in vitro, and to a lesser extent 3-methylcrotonyl-CoA (3-methyl-(2E)-butenoyl-CoA), crotonyl-CoA ((2E)-butenoyl-CoA) and 3-hydroxybutanoyl-CoA (the missing carboxylate reduces affinity to the active site). Originally it was identified as an RNA-binding protein as it binds to AU-rich elements (AREs) in vitro. AREs direct rapid RNA degradation and mRNA deadenylation. Might have itaconyl-CoA hydratase activity, converting itaconyl-CoA into citramalyl-CoA in the C5-dicarboxylate catabolism pathway. The C5-dicarboxylate catabolism pathway is required to detoxify itaconate, an antimicrobial metabolite and immunomodulator produced by macrophages during certain infections, that can act as a vitamin B12-poisoning metabolite.

DNA-binding protein that accumulates at DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) following DNA damage and promotes DNA resection and homologous recombination. Serves as a sensor of DNA damage: binds DNA with a strong preference for DNA substrates that mimic structures generated at stalled replication forks, and anchors RBBP8/CtIP to DSB sites to promote DNA end resection and ensuing homologous recombination repair. Inhibits non- homologous end joining (NHEJ). Required for the dynamic movement of AURKA at the centrosomes and spindle apparatus during the cell cycle.

Plays a role in the translocation of terminally misfolded proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum lumen to the cytoplasm and their degradation by the proteasome. Plays a role in lipid droplet formation. Induces lipid droplet clustering. Recruits ubiquitin- conjugating enzyme UBE2G2 to lipid droplets which facilitates its interaction with ubiquitin ligases AMFR/gp78 and RNF139/TRC8, leading to sterol-induced ubiquitination of HMGCR and its subsequent proteasomal degradation. Also required for the degradation of INSIG1, SREBF1 and SREBF2. Plays a role in regulating assembly and secretion of very low density lipoprotein particles and stability of apolipoprotein APOB.

Mitotic serine/threonine kinase that contributes to the regulation of cell cycle progression. Associates with the centrosome and the spindle microtubules during mitosis and plays a critical role in various mitotic events including the establishment of mitotic spindle, centrosome duplication, centrosome separation as well as maturation, chromosomal alignment, spindle assembly checkpoint, and cytokinesis. Required for normal spindle positioning during mitosis and for the localization of NUMA1 and DCTN1 to the cell cortex during metaphase. Required for initial activation of CDK1 at centrosomes. Phosphorylates numerous target proteins, including ARHGEF2, BORA, BRCA1, CDC25B, DLGP5, HDAC6, KIF2A, LATS2, NDEL1, PARD3, PPP1R2, PLK1, RASSF1, TACC3, p53/TP53 and TPX2. Regulates KIF2A tubulin depolymerase activity. Important for microtubule formation and/or stabilization. Required for normal axon formation. Plays a role in microtubule remodeling during neurite extension. Also acts as a key regulatory component of the p53/TP53 pathway, and particularly the checkpoint- response pathways critical for oncogenic transformation of cells, by phosphorylating and destabilizing p53/TP53. Phosphorylates its own inhibitors, the protein phosphatase type 1 (PP1) isoforms, to inhibit their activity. Inhibits cilia outgrowth (By similarity). Required for cilia disassembly via phosphorylation of HDAC6 and subsequent deacetylation of alpha-tubulin. Regulates protein levels of the anti-apoptosis protein BIRC5 by suppressing the expression of the SCF(FBXL7) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase substrate adapter FBXL7 through the phosphorylation of the transcription factor FOXP1.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase component of the chromosomal passenger complex (CPC), a complex that acts as a key regulator of mitosis. The CPC complex has essential functions at the centromere in ensuring correct chromosome alignment and segregation and is required for chromatin-induced microtubule stabilization and spindle assembly. Involved in the bipolar attachment of spindle microtubules to kinetochores and is a key regulator for the onset of cytokinesis during mitosis. Required for central/midzone spindle assembly and cleavage furrow formation. Key component of the cytokinesis checkpoint, a process required to delay abscission to prevent both premature resolution of intercellular chromosome bridges and accumulation of DNA damage: phosphorylates CHMP4C, leading to retain abscission-competent VPS4 (VPS4A and/or VPS4B) at the midbody ring until abscission checkpoint signaling is terminated at late cytokinesis. AURKB phosphorylates the CPC complex subunits BIRC5/survivin, CDCA8/borealin and INCENP. Phosphorylation of INCENP leads to increased AURKB activity. Other known AURKB substrates involved in centromeric functions and mitosis are CENPA, DES/desmin, GPAF, KIF2C, NSUN2, RACGAP1, SEPTIN1, VIM/vimentin, HASPIN, and histone H3. A positive feedback loop involving HASPIN and AURKB contributes to localization of CPC to centromeres. Phosphorylation of VIM controls vimentin filament segregation in cytokinetic process, whereas histone H3 is phosphorylated at 'Ser-10' and 'Ser-28' during mitosis (H3S10ph and H3S28ph, respectively). A positive feedback between HASPIN and AURKB contributes to CPC localization. AURKB is also required for kinetochore localization of BUB1 and SGO1. Phosphorylation of p53/TP53 negatively regulates its transcriptional activity. Key regulator of active promoters in resting B- and T-lymphocytes: acts by mediating phosphorylation of H3S28ph at active promoters in resting B-cells, inhibiting RNF2/RING1B-mediated ubiquitination of histone H2A and enhancing binding and activity of the USP16 deubiquitinase at transcribed genes (By similarity). Acts as an inhibitor of CGAS during mitosis: catalyzes phosphorylation of the N- terminus of CGAS during the G2-M transition, blocking CGAS liquid phase separation and activation, and thereby preventing CGAS-induced autoimmunity. Phosphorylates KRT5 during anaphase and telophase (By similarity).

Serine/threonine-protein kinase component of the chromosomal passenger complex (CPC), a complex that acts as a key regulator of mitosis. The CPC complex has essential functions at the centromere in ensuring correct chromosome alignment and segregation and is required for chromatin-induced microtubule stabilization and spindle assembly. Also plays a role in meiosis and more particularly in spermatogenesis. Has redundant cellular functions with AURKB and can rescue an AURKB knockdown. Like AURKB, AURKC phosphorylates histone H3 at 'Ser-10' and 'Ser-28'. AURKC phosphorylates the CPC complex subunits BIRC5/survivin and INCENP leading to increased AURKC activity. Phosphorylates TACC1, another protein involved in cell division, at 'Ser-228'.

Component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1 complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones; it mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119', rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility. The PRC1-like complex that contains PCGF5, RNF2, CSNK2B, RYBP and AUTS2 has decreased histone H2A ubiquitination activity, due to the phosphorylation of RNF2 by CSNK2B. As a consequence, the complex mediates transcriptional activation. In the cytoplasm, plays a role in axon and dendrite elongation and in neuronal migration during embryonic brain development. Promotes reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton, lamellipodia formation and neurite elongation via its interaction with RAC guanine nucleotide exchange factors, which then leads to the activation of RAC1 (By similarity).

Recruits HSPA8/HSC70 to clathrin-coated vesicles and promotes uncoating of clathrin-coated vesicles. Plays a role in clathrin- mediated endocytosis in neurons (By similarity).

Ca(2+)-regulated actin-binding protein which plays an important role in actin bundling. May have a unique function in the morphogenesis of neuronal cells which form ganglia. Required for SREC1-mediated regulation of neurite-like outgrowth. Plays a role in regenerative sensory axon outgrowth and remodeling processes after peripheral injury in neonates. Involved in the formation of long fine actin-containing filopodia-like structures in fibroblast. Plays a role in ciliogenesis. In podocytes, controls lamellipodia formation through the regulation of EGF-induced diacylglycerol generation by PLCE1 and ARP2/3 complex assembly.

May be involved in MAP kinase activation, epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) down-regulation and cell cycling.

On ligand binding, forms a receptor complex consisting of two type II and two type I transmembrane serine/threonine kinases. Type II receptors phosphorylate and activate type I receptors which autophosphorylate, then bind and activate SMAD transcriptional regulators. Receptor for activin A, activin B and inhibin A. Mediates induction of adipogenesis by GDF6 (By similarity).

Transmembrane serine/threonine kinase activin type-2 receptor forming an activin receptor complex with activin type-1 serine/threonine kinase receptors (ACVR1, ACVR1B or ACVR1c). Transduces the activin signal from the cell surface to the cytoplasm and is thus regulating many physiological and pathological processes including neuronal differentiation and neuronal survival, hair follicle development and cycling, FSH production by the pituitary gland, wound healing, extracellular matrix production, immunosuppression and carcinogenesis. Activin is also thought to have a paracrine or autocrine role in follicular development in the ovary. Within the receptor complex, the type-2 receptors act as a primary activin receptors (binds activin-A/INHBA, activin-B/INHBB as well as inhibin- A/INHA-INHBA). The type-1 receptors like ACVR1B act as downstream transducers of activin signals. Activin binds to type-2 receptor at the plasma membrane and activates its serine-threonine kinase. The activated receptor type-2 then phosphorylates and activates the type-1 receptor. Once activated, the type-1 receptor binds and phosphorylates the SMAD proteins SMAD2 and SMAD3, on serine residues of the C-terminal tail. Soon after their association with the activin receptor and subsequent phosphorylation, SMAD2 and SMAD3 are released into the cytoplasm where they interact with the common partner SMAD4. This SMAD complex translocates into the nucleus where it mediates activin-induced transcription. Inhibitory SMAD7, which is recruited to ACVR1B through FKBP1A, can prevent the association of SMAD2 and SMAD3 with the activin receptor complex, thereby blocking the activin signal. Activin signal transduction is also antagonized by the binding to the receptor of inhibin-B via the IGSF1 inhibin coreceptor.

Acyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of ester bonds between fatty alcohols and fatty acyl-CoAs to form wax monoesters. Shows a strong preference for decyl alcohol (C10), with less activity towards C16 and C18 alcohols. Shows a strong preference for saturated acyl-CoAs.

Acyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of ester bonds between fatty alcohols and fatty acyl-CoAs to form wax monoesters. Shows a preference for medium chain acyl-CoAs from C12 to C16 in length and fatty alcohols shorter than C20, as the acyl donors and acceptors, respectively. Also possesses acyl- CoA retinol acyltransferase (ARAT) activity that catalyzes 11-cis- specific retinyl ester synthesis. Shows higher catalytic efficiency toward 11-cis-retinol versus 9-cis- retinol, 13-cis-retinol, and all-trans-retinol substrates.

May act as a receptor for annexin II on marrow stromal cells to induce osteoclast formation

Component of the beta-catenin destruction complex required for regulating CTNNB1 levels through phosphorylation and ubiquitination, and modulating Wnt-signaling. Controls dorsoventral patterning via two opposing effects; down-regulates CTNNB1 to inhibit the Wnt signaling pathway and ventralize embryos, but also dorsalizes embryos by activating a Wnt-independent JNK signaling pathway. In Wnt signaling, probably facilitates the phosphorylation of CTNNB1 and APC by GSK3B. Likely to function as a tumor suppressor. Enhances TGF-beta signaling by recruiting the RNF111 E3 ubiquitin ligase and promoting the degradation of inhibitory SMAD7. Also a component of the AXIN1- HIPK2-TP53 complex which controls cell growth, apoptosis and development. Facilitates the phosphorylation of TP53 by HIPK2 upon ultraviolet irradiation.

Inhibitor of the Wnt signaling pathway. Down-regulates beta- catenin. Probably facilitate the phosphorylation of beta-catenin and APC by GSK3B.

Adapter protein which binds TBK1 and IKBKE playing a role in antiviral innate immunity. Activates serine/threonine-protein kinase TBK1 and facilitates its oligomerization. Enhances the phosphorylation of NF-kappa-B p65 subunit RELA by TBK1. Promotes TBK1-induced as well as TNF-alpha or PMA-induced activation of NF-kappa-B. Participates in IFNB promoter activation via TICAM1.

Antizyme inhibitor (AZI) protein that positively regulates ornithine decarboxylase (ODC) activity and polyamine uptake. AZI is an enzymatically inactive ODC homolog that counteracts the negative effect of ODC antizymes (AZs) OAZ1, OAZ2 and OAZ3 on ODC activity by competing with ODC for antizyme-binding. Inhibits antizyme-dependent ODC degradation and releases ODC monomers from their inactive complex with antizymes, leading to formation of the catalytically active ODC homodimer and restoring polyamine production.

Antizyme inhibitor (AZI) protein that positively regulates ornithine decarboxylase (ODC) activity and polyamine uptake. AZI is an enzymatically inactive ODC homolog that counteracts the negative effect of ODC antizymes (AZs) OAZ1, OAZ2 and OAZ3 on ODC activity by competing with ODC for antizyme-binding. Inhibits antizyme- dependent ODC degradation and releases ODC monomers from their inactive complex with antizymes, leading to formation of the catalytically active ODC homodimer and restoring polyamine production. Participates in the morphological integrity of the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and functions as a regulator of intracellular secretory vesicle trafficking.

Potent inhibitor of cell death. Inhibits activation of caspases. Appears to regulate cell death by blocking the voltage- dependent anion channel (VDAC) by binding to it and preventing the release of the caspase activator, CYC1, from the mitochondrial membrane. Also acts as a regulator of G2 checkpoint and progression to cytokinesis during mitosis

Promotes cell survival. Blocks dexamethasone-induced apoptosis. Mediates survival of postmitotic Sertoli cells by suppressing death-promoting activity of BAX.

Promotes cell survival by suppressing apoptosis induced by BAX but not BAK. Increases binding of AHCYL1/IRBIT to ITPR1. Reduces ITPR1-mediated calcium release from the endoplasmic reticulum cooperatively with AHCYL1/IRBIT under normal cellular conditions. Under apoptotic stress conditions, dissociates from ITPR1 and is displaced from mitochondria-associated endoplasmic reticulum membranes, leading to increased Ca(2+) transfer to mitochondria which promotes apoptosis. Required for the correct formation of the microtubule organizing center during oocyte cell division, potentially via regulation of protein abundance and localization of other microtubule organizing center components such as AURKA and TPX2 (By similarity).

Induces apoptosis and anoikis. Isoform BimL is more potent than isoform BimEL. Isoform Bim-alpha1, isoform Bim-alpha2 and isoform Bim-alpha3 induce apoptosis, although less potent than isoform BimEL, isoform BimL and isoform BimS. Isoform Bim-gamma induces apoptosis. Isoform Bim-alpha3 induces apoptosis possibly through a caspase- mediated pathway. Isoform BimAC and isoform BimABC lack the ability to induce apoptosis.

Retards apoptosis induced by IL-3 deprivation. May function in the response of hemopoietic cells to external signals and in maintaining endothelial survival during infection (By similarity). Can inhibit apoptosis induced by serum starvation in the mammary epithelial cell line HC11 (By similarity).

Component of the class I major histocompatibility complex (MHC). Involved in the presentation of peptide antigens to the immune system. Exogenously applied M.tuberculosis EsxA or EsxA-EsxB (or EsxA expressed in host) binds B2M and decreases its export to the cell surface (total protein levels do not change), probably leading to defects in class I antigen presentation.

Sodium-independent anion exchanger which mediates the electroneutral exchange of chloride for bicarbonate ions across the cell membrane. Plays an important role in osteoclast differentiation and function. Regulates bone resorption and calpain-dependent actin cytoskeleton organization in osteoclasts via anion exchange-dependent control of pH (By similarity). Essential for intracellular pH regulation in CD8(+) T- cells upon CD3 stimulation, modulating CD8(+) T-cell responses (By similarity).

Sodium-independent anion exchanger which mediates the electroneutral exchange of chloride for bicarbonate ions across the cell membrane.

Functions both as a transporter that mediates electroneutral anion exchange across the cell membrane and as a structural protein. Major integral membrane glycoprotein of the erythrocyte membrane; required for normal flexibility and stability of the erythrocyte membrane and for normal erythrocyte shape via the interactions of its cytoplasmic domain with cytoskeletal proteins, glycolytic enzymes, and hemoglobin. Functions as a transporter that mediates the 1:1 exchange of inorganic anions across the erythrocyte membrane. Mediates chloride- bicarbonate exchange in the kidney, and is required for normal acidification of the urine.

Involved in the biosynthesis of L2/HNK-1 carbohydrate epitope on glycoproteins. Can also play a role in glycosaminoglycan biosynthesis. Substrates include asialo-orosomucoid (ASOR), asialo- fetuin, and asialo-neural cell adhesion molecule. Requires sphingomyelin for activity: stearoyl-sphingomyelin was the most effective, followed by palmitoyl-sphingomyelin and lignoceroyl- sphingomyelin. Activity was demonstrated only for sphingomyelin with a saturated fatty acid and not for that with an unsaturated fatty acid, regardless of the length of the acyl group.

Involved in the biosynthesis of L2/HNK-1 carbohydrate epitope on both glycolipids and glycoproteins.

Glycosaminoglycans biosynthesis. Involved in forming the linkage tetrasaccharide present in heparan sulfate and chondroitin sulfate. Transfers a glucuronic acid moiety from the uridine diphosphate-glucuronic acid (UDP-GlcUA) to the common linkage region trisaccharide Gal-beta-1,3-Gal-beta-1,4-Xyl covalently bound to a Ser residue at the glycosaminylglycan attachment site of proteoglycans. Can also play a role in the biosynthesis of l2/HNK-1 carbohydrate epitope on glycoproteins. Shows strict specificity for Gal-beta-1,3-Gal-beta-1,4-Xyl, exhibiting negligible incorporation into other galactoside substrates including Galbeta1-3Gal beta1-O-benzyl, Galbeta1-4GlcNAc and Galbeta1-4Glc. Stimulates 2-phosphoxylose phosphatase activity of PXYLP1 in presence of uridine diphosphate- glucuronic acid (UDP-GlcUA) during completion of linkage region formation.

Transfers N-acetylgalactosamine onto globotriaosylceramide. Plays a critical role in preimplantation stage embryonic development (By similarity).

Beta-1,3-N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase that synthesizes a unique carbohydrate structure, GalNAc-beta-1-3GlcNAc, on N- and O- glycans. Has no galactose nor galactosaminyl transferase activity toward any acceptor substrate. Involved in alpha-dystroglycan (DAG1) glycosylation: acts coordinately with GTDC2/POMGnT2 to synthesize a GalNAc-beta3-GlcNAc-beta-terminus at the 4-position of protein O- mannose in the biosynthesis of the phosphorylated O-mannosyl trisaccharide (N-acetylgalactosamine-beta-3-N-acetylglucosamine-beta-4- (phosphate-6-)mannose), a carbohydrate structure present in alpha- dystroglycan, which is required for binding laminin G-like domain- containing extracellular proteins with high affinity.

O-glucosyltransferase that transfers glucose toward fucose with a beta-1,3 linkage. Specifically glucosylates O-linked fucosylglycan on TSP type-1 domains of proteins, thereby contributing to elongation of O-fucosylglycan.

Beta-1,3-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase involved in the synthesis of poly-N-acetyllactosamine. Catalyzes the initiation and elongation of poly-N-acetyllactosamine chains. Shows a marked preference for Gal(beta1-4)Glc(NAc)-based acceptors. Probably constitutes the main polylactosamine synthase.

Beta-1,3-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase involved in the synthesis of poly-N-acetyllactosamine. Has activity for type 2 oligosaccharides. Also acts as a core1-1,3-N- acetylglucosaminyltransferase (Core1-beta3GlcNAcT) to form the 6-sulfo sialyl Lewis x on extended core1 O-glycans.

Beta-1,3-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase involved in the synthesis of poly-N-acetyllactosamine. Has activity for type 2 oligosaccharides.

Beta-1,3-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase that plays a key role in the synthesis of lacto- or neolacto-series carbohydrate chains on glycolipids, notably by participating in biosynthesis of HNK-1 and Lewis X carbohydrate structures. Has strong activity toward lactosylceramide (LacCer) and neolactotetraosylceramide (nLc(4)Cer; paragloboside), resulting in the synthesis of Lc(3)Cer and neolactopentaosylceramide (nLc(5)Cer), respectively. Probably plays a central role in regulating neolacto-series glycolipid synthesis during embryonic development.

Beta-1,3-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase that synthesizes the core 3 structure of the O-glycan, an important precursor in the biosynthesis of mucin-type glycoproteins. Plays an important role in the synthesis of mucin-type O-glycans in digestive organs

N-acetyl glucosamine (GlcNAc) transferase that catalyzes the transfer of GlcNAc via a beta1->3 linkage from UDP-GlcNAc to the non- reducing terminal galactose (Gal) in the linearly growing chain of N- and O-linked keratan sulfate proteoglycans. Cooperates with B4GALT4 galactosyltransferase and CHST6 and CHST1 sulfotransferases to construct and elongate mono- and disulfated disaccharide units [->3Galbeta1->4(6-sulfoGlcNAcbeta)1->] and [->3(6-sulfoGalbeta)1->4(6- sulfoGlcNAcbeta)1->] within keratan sulfate polymer. Involved in biosynthesis of N-linked keratan sulfate proteoglycans in cornea, with an impact on proteoglycan fibril organization and corneal transparency (By similarity). May play a role in the maintenance of tissue architecture by suppressing cellular motility and invasion (By similarity).

Beta-1,3-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase that plays a role in the elongation of specific branch structures of multiantennary N- glycans. Has strong activity towards tetraantennary N-glycans and 2,6 triantennary glycans.

Beta-1,3-galactosyltransferase that transfers galactose from UDP-alpha-D-galactose to substrates with a terminal beta-N- acetylglucosamine (beta-GlcNAc) residue. Involved in the biosynthesis of the carbohydrate moieties of glycolipids and glycoproteins. Inactive towards substrates with terminal alpha-N-acetylglucosamine (alpha- GlcNAc) or alpha-N-acetylgalactosamine (alpha-GalNAc) residues.

Beta-1,3-galactosyltransferase that transfers galactose from UDP-galactose to substrates with a terminal beta-N-acetylglucosamine (beta-GlcNAc) residue. Can also utilize substrates with a terminal galactose residue, albeit with lower efficiency. Involved in the biosynthesis of the carbohydrate moieties of glycolipids and glycoproteins. Inactive towards substrates with terminal alpha-N- acetylglucosamine (alpha-GlcNAc) or alpha-N-acetylgalactosamine (alpha- GalNAc) residues.

Catalyzes the transfer of Gal to GlcNAc-based acceptors with a preference for the core3 O-linked glycan GlcNAc(beta1,3)GalNAc structure. Can use glycolipid LC3Cer as an efficient acceptor.

Beta-1,3-galactosyltransferase that transfers galactose from UDP-galactose to substrates with a terminal beta-linked galactose residue. Has a preference for galactose-beta-1,4-xylose that is found in the linker region of glycosaminoglycans, such as heparan sulfate and chondroitin sulfate. Has no activity towards substrates with terminal glucosamine or galactosamine residues.

Putative glycosyltransferase that could catalyze the transfer of galactose residues from UDP-alpha-D-galactose.

Beta-1,4-glucuronyltransferase involved in O-mannosylation of alpha-dystroglycan (DAG1). Transfers a glucuronic acid (GlcA) residue onto a xylose (Xyl) acceptor to produce the glucuronyl-beta- 1,4-xylose-beta disaccharide primer, which is further elongated by LARGE1, during synthesis of phosphorylated O-mannosyl glycan. Phosphorylated O-mannosyl glycan is a carbohydrate structure present in alpha-dystroglycan (DAG1), which is required for binding laminin G-like domain-containing extracellular proteins with high affinity. Required for axon guidance; via its function in O-mannosylation of alpha-dystroglycan (DAG1) (By similarity).

Involved in the biosynthesis of gangliosides GM2, GD2, GT2 and GA2 from GM3, GD3, GT3 and GA3, respectively.

Involved in the synthesis of the Sd(a) antigen (Sia-alpha2,3- [GalNAc-beta1,4]Gal-beta1,4-GlcNAc), a carbohydrate determinant expressed on erythrocytes, the colonic mucosa and other tissues. Transfers a beta-1,4-linked GalNAc to the galactose residue of an alpha-2,3-sialylated chain.

Transfers N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) from UDP-GalNAc to N-acetylglucosamine-beta-benzyl with a beta-1,4-linkage to form N,N'- diacetyllactosediamine, GalNAc-beta-1,4-GlcNAc structures in N-linked glycans and probably O-linked glycans. Mediates the N,N'- diacetyllactosediamine formation on gastric mucosa.

Transfers N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) from UDP-GalNAc to N-acetylglucosamine-beta-benzyl with a beta-1,4-linkage to form N,N'- diacetyllactosediamine, GalNAc-beta-1,4-GlcNAc structures in N-linked glycans and probably O-linked glycans

[Beta-1,4-galactosyltransferase 1]: The Golgi complex form catalyzes the production of lactose in the lactating mammary gland and could also be responsible for the synthesis of complex-type N-linked oligosaccharides in many glycoproteins as well as the carbohydrate moieties of glycolipids.

Responsible for the synthesis of complex-type N-linked oligosaccharides in many glycoproteins as well as the carbohydrate moieties of glycolipids. Can produce lactose.

Responsible for the synthesis of complex-type N-linked oligosaccharides in many glycoproteins as well as the carbohydrate moieties of glycolipids.

Galactose (Gal) transferase involved in the synthesis of terminal N-acetyllactosamine (LacNac) unit present on glycan chains of glycoproteins and glycosphingolipids. Catalyzes the transfer of Gal residue via a beta1->4 linkage from UDP-Gal to the non-reducing terminal N-acetyl glucosamine 6-O-sulfate (6-O-sulfoGlcNAc) in the linearly growing chain of both N- and O-linked keratan sulfate proteoglycans. Cooperates with B3GNT7 N-acetyl glucosamine transferase and CHST6 and CHST1 sulfotransferases to construct and elongate mono- and disulfated disaccharide units [->3Galbeta1->4(6- sulfoGlcNAcbeta)1->] and [->3(6-sulfoGalbeta)1->4(6- sulfoGlcNAcbeta)1->] within keratan sulfate polymer. Transfers Gal residue via a beta1->4 linkage to terminal 6-O- sulfoGlcNAc within the LacNac unit of core 2 O-glycans forming 6-sulfo- sialyl-Lewis X (sLex). May contribute to the generation of sLex epitope on mucin-type glycoproteins that serve as ligands for SELL/L-selectin, a major regulator of leukocyte migration. In the biosynthesis pathway of neolacto-series glycosphingolipids, transfers Gal residue via a beta1->4 linkage to terminal GlcNAc of a lactotriaosylceramide (Lc3Cer) acceptor to form a neolactotetraosylceramide.

Catalyzes the synthesis of lactosylceramide (LacCer) via the transfer of galactose from UDP-galactose to glucosylceramide (GlcCer). LacCer is the starting point in the biosynthesis of all gangliosides (membrane-bound glycosphingolipids) which play pivotal roles in the CNS including neuronal maturation and axonal and myelin formation (By similarity). Plays a role in the glycosylation of BMPR1A and regulation of its protein stability (By similarity). Essential for extraembryonic development during early embryogenesis (By similarity).

Catalyzes the synthesis of lactosylceramide (LacCer) via the transfer of galactose from UDP-galactose to glucosylceramide (GlcCer). LacCer is the starting point in the biosynthesis of all gangliosides (membrane-bound glycosphingolipids) which play pivotal roles in the CNS including neuronal maturation and axonal and myelin formation (By similarity).

Required for the biosynthesis of the tetrasaccharide linkage region of proteoglycans, especially for small proteoglycans in skin fibroblasts.

Component of the tectonic-like complex, a complex localized at the transition zone of primary cilia and acting as a barrier that prevents diffusion of transmembrane proteins between the cilia and plasma membranes. Required for ciliogenesis and sonic hedgehog/SHH signaling (By similarity).

Component of the tectonic-like complex, a complex localized at the transition zone of primary cilia and acting as a barrier that prevents diffusion of transmembrane proteins between the cilia and plasma membranes.

May play a synaptic role at the postsynaptic lipid rafts possibly through interaction with CAMK2A.

Catalyzes the amidation of bile acids (BAs) with the amino acids taurine and glycine. More than 95% of the BAs are N-acyl amidates with glycine and taurine. Amidation of BAs in the liver with glycine or taurine prior to their excretion into bile is an important biochemical event in bile acid metabolism. This conjugation (or amidation) plays several important biological roles in that it promotes the secretion of BAs and cholesterol into bile and increases the detergent properties of BAs in the intestine, which facilitates lipid and vitamin absorption. May also act as an acyl-CoA thioesterase that regulates intracellular levels of free fatty acids. In vitro, catalyzes the hydrolysis of long- and very long-chain saturated acyl-CoAs to the free fatty acid and coenzyme A (CoASH), and conjugates glycine to these acyl-CoAs.

Component of the BRCA1-A complex, a complex that specifically recognizes 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitinated histones H2A and H2AX at DNA lesions sites, leading to target the BRCA1-BARD1 heterodimer to sites of DNA damage at double-strand breaks (DSBs). The BRCA1-A complex also possesses deubiquitinase activity that specifically removes 'Lys-63'- linked ubiquitin on histones H2A and H2AX. In the BRCA1-A complex, it is required for the complex integrity and its localization at DSBs. Component of the BRISC complex, a multiprotein complex that specifically cleaves 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin in various substrates. In these 2 complexes, it is probably required to maintain the stability of BABAM2 and help the 'Lys-63'-linked deubiquitinase activity mediated by BRCC3/BRCC36 component. The BRISC complex is required for normal mitotic spindle assembly and microtubule attachment to kinetochores via its role in deubiquitinating NUMA1. Plays a role in interferon signaling via its role in the deubiquitination of the interferon receptor IFNAR1; deubiquitination increases IFNAR1 activity by enhancing its stability and cell surface expression. Down-regulates the response to bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) via its role in IFNAR1 deubiquitination.

Component of the BRCA1-A complex, a complex that specifically recognizes 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitinated histones H2A and H2AX at DNA lesions sites, leading to target the BRCA1-BARD1 heterodimer to sites of DNA damage at double-strand breaks (DSBs). The BRCA1-A complex also possesses deubiquitinase activity that specifically removes 'Lys-63'- linked ubiquitin on histones H2A and H2AX. In the BRCA1-A complex, it acts as an adapter that bridges the interaction between BABAM1/NBA1 and the rest of the complex, thereby being required for the complex integrity and modulating the E3 ubiquitin ligase activity of the BRCA1-BARD1 heterodimer. Component of the BRISC complex, a multiprotein complex that specifically cleaves 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin in various substrates. Within the BRISC complex, acts as an adapter that bridges the interaction between BABAM1/NBA1 and the rest of the complex, thereby being required for the complex integrity. The BRISC complex is required for normal mitotic spindle assembly and microtubule attachment to kinetochores via its role in deubiquitinating NUMA1. The BRISC complex plays a role in interferon signaling via its role in the deubiquitination of the interferon receptor IFNAR1; deubiquitination increases IFNAR1 activity by enhancing its stability and cell surface expression. Down-regulates the response to bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) via its role in IFNAR1 deubiquitination. May play a role in homeostasis or cellular differentiation in cells of neural, epithelial and germline origins. May also act as a death receptor- associated anti-apoptotic protein, which inhibits the mitochondrial apoptotic pathway. May regulate TNF-alpha signaling through its interactions with TNFRSF1A; however these effects may be indirect.

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex required for synaptic transmission. The BCR(KCTD13) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex mediates the ubiquitination of RHOA, leading to its degradation by the proteasome Degradation of RHOA regulates the actin cytoskeleton and promotes synaptic transmission (By similarity).

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex involved in regulation of cytoskeleton structure. The BCR(TNFAIP1) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex mediates the ubiquitination of RHOA, leading to its degradation by the proteasome, thereby regulating the actin cytoskeleton and cell migration. Its interaction with RHOB may regulate apoptosis. May enhance the PCNA- dependent DNA polymerase delta activity.

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex. The BCR(BACURD3) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex mediates the ubiquitination of target proteins, leading to their degradation by the proteasome (By similarity).

Responsible for the proteolytic processing of the amyloid precursor protein (APP). Cleaves at the N-terminus of the A-beta peptide sequence, between residues 671 and 672 of APP, leads to the generation and extracellular release of beta-cleaved soluble APP, and a corresponding cell-associated C-terminal fragment which is later released by gamma-secretase. Cleaves CHL1 (By similarity).

Responsible for the proteolytic processing of the amyloid precursor protein (APP). Cleaves APP, between residues 690 and 691, leading to the generation and extracellular release of beta-cleaved soluble APP, and a corresponding cell-associated C-terminal fragment which is later released by gamma-secretase. It has also been shown that it can cleave APP between residues 671 and 672. Involved in the proteolytic shedding of PMEL at early stages of melanosome biogenesis. Cleaves PMEL within the M-beta fragment to release the amyloidogenic PMEL luminal fragment containing M-alpha and a small portion of M-beta N-terminus. This is a prerequisite step for subsequent processing and assembly of PMEL fibrils into amyloid sheets. Responsible also for the proteolytic processing of CLTRN in pancreatic beta cells.

Transcriptional regulator that acts as repressor or activator, depending on the context. Binds to NF-E2 DNA binding sites. Plays important roles in coordinating transcription activation and repression by MAFK (By similarity). Together with MAF, represses the transcription of genes under the control of the NFE2L2 oxidative stress pathway.

Transcriptional regulator that acts as repressor or activator (By similarity). Binds to Maf recognition elements (MARE) (By similarity). Plays an important role in coordinating transcription activation and repression by MAFK (By similarity). Induces apoptosis in response to oxidative stress through repression of the antiapoptotic factor HMOX1. Positively regulates the nuclear import of actin (By similarity). Is a key regulator of adaptive immunity, crucial for the maintenance of regulatory T-cell function and B-cell maturation.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of acyl-CoAs into free fatty acids and coenzyme A (CoASH), regulating their respective intracellular levels. Preferentially hydrolyzes palmitoyl-CoA, but has a broad specificity acting on other fatty acyl-CoAs with chain- lengths of C8-C18. May play an important physiological function in brain.

Promotes cell death. Successfully competes for the binding to Bcl-X(L), Bcl-2 and Bcl-W, thereby affecting the level of heterodimerization of these proteins with BAX. Can reverse the death repressor activity of Bcl-X(L), but not that of Bcl-2 (By similarity). Appears to act as a link between growth factor receptor signaling and the apoptotic pathways.

May play a role in BANF1 regulation and influence tissue- specific roles of BANF1

Non-specific DNA-binding protein that plays key roles in mitotic nuclear reassembly, chromatin organization, DNA damage response, gene expression and intrinsic immunity against foreign DNA. Contains two non-specific double-stranded DNA (dsDNA)-binding sites which promote DNA cross-bridging. Plays a key role in nuclear membrane reformation at the end of mitosis by driving formation of a single nucleus in a spindle-independent manner. Transiently cross-bridges anaphase chromosomes via its ability to bridge distant DNA sites, leading to the formation of a dense chromatin network at the chromosome ensemble surface that limits membranes to the surface. Also acts as a negative regulator of innate immune activation by restricting CGAS activity toward self-DNA upon acute loss of nuclear membrane integrity. Outcompetes CGAS for DNA-binding, thereby preventing CGAS activation and subsequent damaging autoinflammatory responses. Also involved in DNA damage response: interacts with PARP1 in response to oxidative stress, thereby inhibiting the ADP-ribosyltransferase activity of PARP1. Involved in the recognition of exogenous dsDNA in the cytosol: associates with exogenous dsDNA immediately after its appearance in the cytosol at endosome breakdown and is required to avoid autophagy. In case of poxvirus infection, has an antiviral activity by blocking viral DNA replication.

Co-chaperone for HSP70 and HSC70 chaperone proteins. Acts as a nucleotide-exchange factor (NEF) promoting the release of ADP from the HSP70 and HSC70 proteins thereby triggering client/substrate protein release. Nucleotide release is mediated via its binding to the nucleotide-binding domain (NBD) of HSPA8/HSC70 where as the substrate release is mediated via its binding to the substrate-binding domain (SBD) of HSPA8/HSC70. Inhibits the pro-apoptotic function of PPP1R15A, and has anti-apoptotic activity. Markedly increases the anti-cell death function of BCL2 induced by various stimuli.

Co-chaperone for HSP70 and HSC70 chaperone proteins. Acts as a nucleotide-exchange factor (NEF) promoting the release of ADP from the HSP70 and HSC70 proteins thereby triggering client/substrate protein release.

Co-chaperone for HSP70 and HSC70 chaperone proteins. Acts as a nucleotide-exchange factor (NEF) promoting the release of ADP from the HSP70 and HSC70 proteins thereby triggering client/substrate protein release. Nucleotide release is mediated via its binding to the nucleotide-binding domain (NBD) of HSPA8/HSC70 where as the substrate release is mediated via its binding to the substrate-binding domain (SBD) of HSPA8/HSC70. Has anti- apoptotic activity. Plays a role in the HSF1 nucleocytoplasmic transport.

Inhibits the chaperone activity of HSP70/HSC70 by promoting substrate release (By similarity). Prevents constitutive TNFRSF1A signaling. Negative regulator of PRKN translocation to damaged mitochondria.

Co-chaperone for HSP/HSP70 proteins. It functions as a nucleotide-exchange factor promoting the release of ADP from HSP70, thereby activating HSP70-mediated protein refolding. Has an essential role in maintaining proteostasis at junctional membrane complexes (JMC), where it may function as a scaffold between the HSPA8 chaperone and JMC proteins enabling correct, HSPA8-dependent JMC protein folding (By similarity). Inhibits both auto-ubiquitination of PRKN and ubiquitination of target proteins by PRKN (By similarity).

ATP-independent molecular chaperone preventing the aggregation of misfolded and hydrophobic patches-containing proteins. Functions as part of a cytosolic protein quality control complex, the BAG6/BAT3 complex, which maintains these client proteins in a soluble state and participates in their proper delivery to the endoplasmic reticulum or alternatively can promote their sorting to the proteasome where they undergo degradation. The BAG6/BAT3 complex is involved in the post-translational delivery of tail- anchored/type II transmembrane proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum membrane. Recruited to ribosomes, it interacts with the transmembrane region of newly synthesized tail-anchored proteins and together with SGTA and ASNA1 mediates their delivery to the endoplasmic reticulum. Client proteins that cannot be properly delivered to the endoplasmic reticulum are ubiquitinated by RNF126, an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase associated with BAG6 and are sorted to the proteasome. SGTA which prevents the recruitment of RNF126 to BAG6 may negatively regulate the ubiquitination and the proteasomal degradation of client proteins. Similarly, the BAG6/BAT3 complex also functions as a sorting platform for proteins of the secretory pathway that are mislocalized to the cytosol either delivering them to the proteasome for degradation or to the endoplasmic reticulum. The BAG6/BAT3 complex also plays a role in the endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD), a quality control mechanism that eliminates unwanted proteins of the endoplasmic reticulum through their retrotranslocation to the cytosol and their targeting to the proteasome. It maintains these retrotranslocated proteins in an unfolded yet soluble state condition in the cytosol to ensure their proper delivery to the proteasome. BAG6 is also required for selective ubiquitin-mediated degradation of defective nascent chain polypeptides by the proteasome. In this context, it may participate in the production of antigenic peptides and play a role in antigen presentation in immune response (By similarity). BAG6 is also involved in endoplasmic reticulum stress-induced pre- emptive quality control, a mechanism that selectively attenuates the translocation of newly synthesized proteins into the endoplasmic reticulum and reroutes them to the cytosol for proteasomal degradation. BAG6 may ensure the proper degradation of these proteins and thereby protects the endoplasmic reticulum from protein overload upon stress. By inhibiting the polyubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of HSPA2 it may also play a role in the assembly of the synaptonemal complex during spermatogenesis (By similarity). Also positively regulates apoptosis by interacting with and stabilizing the proapoptotic factor AIFM1 (By similarity). By controlling the steady-state expression of the IGF1R receptor, indirectly regulates the insulin-like growth factor receptor signaling pathway.

Heterochromatin protein that acts as a transcription repressor and has the ability to promote the formation of large heterochromatic domains. May act by recruiting heterochromatin proteins such as CBX5 (HP1 alpha), HDAC5 and MBD1. Represses IGF2 expression by binding to its CpG-rich P3 promoter and recruiting heterochromatin proteins. At specific stages of Listeria infection, in complex with TRIM28, corepresses interferon-stimulated genes, including IFNL1, IFNL2 and IFNL3.

Adapter protein that links membrane-bound small G-proteins to cytoplasmic effector proteins. Necessary for CDC42-mediated reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and for RAC1-mediated membrane ruffling. Involved in the regulation of the actin cytoskeleton by WASF family members and the Arp2/3 complex. Plays a role in neurite growth. Acts syngeristically with ENAH to promote filipodia formation. Plays a role in the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton in response to bacterial infection. Participates in actin bundling when associated with EPS8, promoting filopodial protrusions.

Functions in endosome to Golgi retrograde transport. In response to calcium influx, may interact with SNARE fusion receptors and membrane phospholipids to mediate endosome fusion with the trans- Golgi network. By promoting the recycling of secretory vesicle transmembrane proteins, it indirectly controls dense-core secretory vesicle biogenesis, maturation and their ability to mediate the constitutive and regulated secretion of neurotransmitters and hormones. May regulate behavior and food intake by controlling calcium-stimulated exocytosis of neurotransmitters including NPY and serotonin and hormones like insulin. Proposed to play a role in hypothalamic neuronal firing by modulating gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)ergic inhibitory neurotransmission (By similarity).

Required for both basal and inducible autophagy. Determines the localization of the autophagy-specific PI3-kinase complex PI3KC3-C1. Plays a role in autophagosome formation and MAP1LC3/LC3 conjugation to phosphatidylethanolamine. Promotes BECN1 translocation from the trans-Golgi network to autophagosomes. Enhances PIK3C3 activity in a BECN1-dependent manner. Essential for the autophagy-dependent phosphorylation of BECN1. Stimulates the phosphorylation of BECN1, but suppresses the phosphorylation PIK3C3 by AMPK. Binds to STX17-SNAP29 binary t-SNARE complex on autophagosomes and primes it for VAMP8 interaction to promote autophagosome-endolysosome fusion. Modulates the hepatic lipid metabolism (By similarity).

Plays a role in the mitochondrial apoptosic process. Upon arrival of cell death signals, promotes mitochondrial outer membrane (MOM) permeabilization by oligomerizing to form pores within the MOM. This releases apoptogenic factors into the cytosol, including cytochrome c, promoting the activation of caspase 9 which in turn processes and activates the effector caspases.

Involved in B-cell receptor (BCR)-induced Ca(2+) mobilization from intracellular stores. Promotes Lyn-mediated phosphorylation of IP3 receptors 1 and 2.

Component of chromatin complexes such as the MLL1/MLL and NURF complexes

Deubiquitinating enzyme that plays a key role in chromatin by mediating deubiquitination of histone H2A and HCFC1. Catalytic component of the PR-DUB complex, a complex that specifically mediates deubiquitination of histone H2A monoubiquitinated at 'Lys-119' (H2AK119ub1). Does not deubiquitinate monoubiquitinated histone H2B. Acts as a regulator of cell growth by mediating deubiquitination of HCFC1 N-terminal and C-terminal chains, with some specificity toward 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitin chains compared to 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Deubiquitination of HCFC1 does not lead to increase stability of HCFC1. Interferes with the BRCA1 and BARD1 heterodimer activity by inhibiting their ability to mediate ubiquitination and autoubiquitination. It however does not mediate deubiquitination of BRCA1 and BARD1. Able to mediate autodeubiquitination via intramolecular interactions to couteract monoubiquitination at the nuclear localization signal (NLS), thereby protecting it from cytoplasmic sequestration. Acts as a tumor suppressor.

May play a role in anterograde transport of membrane proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi. May be involved in CASP8- mediated apoptosis (By similarity).

Functions as a chaperone protein. Is one of the most abundant endoplasmic reticulum (ER) proteins. Plays a role in the export of secreted proteins in the ER, the recognition of abnormally folded protein and their targeting to the ER associated-degradation (ERAD). Also serves as a cargo receptor for the export of transmembrane proteins (By similarity). Plays a role in the assembly of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I) by stimulating the translocation of NDUFS4 and NDUFB11 from the cytosol to the mitochondria via interaction with TOMM40. In response to ER stress, delocalizes from the ER-mitochondria contact sites and binds BCL2. May be involved in CASP8-mediated apoptosis.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. The BRCA1-BARD1 heterodimer specifically mediates the formation of 'Lys-6'-linked polyubiquitin chains and coordinates a diverse range of cellular pathways such as DNA damage repair, ubiquitination and transcriptional regulation to maintain genomic stability. Plays a central role in the control of the cell cycle in response to DNA damage. Acts by mediating ubiquitin E3 ligase activity that is required for its tumor suppressor function. Also forms a heterodimer with CSTF1/CSTF-50 to modulate mRNA processing and RNAP II stability by inhibiting pre-mRNA 3' cleavage.

Transcription factor, which is involved in craniofacial development, in odontogenesis and in stomach organogenesis. May have a role in the differentiation of molars from incisors. Plays a role in suppressing endodermal Wnt activity (By similarity). Binds to a regulatory module of the NCAM promoter.

Transcription factor. Binds optimally to the DNA consensus sequence 5'-YYTAATGRTTTTY-3'. May control the expression of neural adhesion molecules such as L1 or Ng-CAM during embryonic development of both the central and peripherical nervous system. May be involved in controlling adhesive processes in keratinizing epithelia (By similarity).

[Isoform 1]: Essential for normal retinal maturation and development (By similarity). Acts as a retinal cell surface receptor for NXNL1 and plays an important role in NXNL1-mediated survival of retinal cone photoreceptors. In association with glucose transporter SLC16A1/GLUT1 and NXNL1, promotes retinal cone survival by enhancing aerobic glycolysis and accelerating the entry of glucose into photoreceptors. May act as a potent stimulator of IL6 secretion in multiple cell lines that include monocytes.

Involved in the high-affinity, sodium-independent transport of cystine and neutral and dibasic amino acids (system b(0,+)-like activity). Thought to be responsible for the high-affinity reabsorption of cystine in the kidney tubule.

AP-1 family transcription factor that controls the differentiation of lineage-specific cells in the immune system. Following infection, participates in the differentiation of CD8(+) thymic conventional dendritic cells in the immune system. Acts via the formation of a heterodimer with JUN family proteins that recognizes and binds DNA sequence 5'-TGA[CG]TCA-3' and regulates expression of target genes (By similarity). Selectively suppresses CCN1 transcription and hence blocks the downstream cell proliferation signals produced by CCN1 and inhibits CCN1-induced anchorage-independent growth and invasion in several cancer types, such as breast cancer, malignant glioma and metastatic melanoma. Possibly acts by interfering with AP-1 binding to CCN1 promoter.

AP-1 family transcription factor that controls the differentiation of CD8(+) thymic conventional dendritic cells in the immune system. Required for development of CD8-alpha(+) classical dendritic cells (cDCs) and related CD103(+) dendritic cells that cross- present antigens to CD8 T-cells and produce interleukin-12 (IL12) in response to pathogens (By similarity). Acts via the formation of a heterodimer with JUN family proteins that recognizes and binds DNA sequence 5'-TGA[CG]TCA-3' and regulates expression of target genes.

AP-1 family transcription factor that controls the differentiation of lineage-specific cells in the immune system: specifically mediates the differentiation of T-helper 17 cells (Th17), follicular T-helper cells (TfH), CD8(+) dendritic cells and class- switch recombination (CSR) in B-cells. Acts via the formation of a heterodimer with JUNB that recognizes and binds DNA sequence 5'- TGA[CG]TCA-3'. The BATF-JUNB heterodimer also forms a complex with IRF4 (or IRF8) in immune cells, leading to recognition of AICE sequence (5'- TGAnTCA/GAAA-3'), an immune-specific regulatory element, followed by cooperative binding of BATF and IRF4 (or IRF8) and activation of genes. Controls differentiation of T-helper cells producing interleukin-17 (Th17 cells) by binding to Th17-associated gene promoters: regulates expression of the transcription factor RORC itself and RORC target genes such as IL17 (IL17A or IL17B). Also involved in differentiation of follicular T-helper cells (TfH) by directing expression of BCL6 and MAF. In B-cells, involved in class-switch recombination (CSR) by controlling the expression of both AICDA and of germline transcripts of the intervening heavy-chain region and constant heavy-chain region (I(H)-C(H)). Following infection, can participate in CD8(+) dendritic cell differentiation via interaction with IRF4 and IRF8 to mediate cooperative gene activation. Regulates effector CD8(+) T-cell differentiation by regulating expression of SIRT1. Following DNA damage, part of a differentiation checkpoint that limits self-renewal of hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs): up-regulated by STAT3, leading to differentiation of HSCs, thereby restricting self-renewal of HSCs (By similarity).

Plays a role in the mitochondrial apoptotic process. Under normal conditions, BAX is largely cytosolic via constant retrotranslocation from mitochondria to the cytosol mediated by BCL2L1/Bcl-xL, which avoids accumulation of toxic BAX levels at the mitochondrial outer membrane (MOM). Under stress conditions, undergoes a conformation change that causes translocation to the mitochondrion membrane, leading to the release of cytochrome c that then triggers apoptosis. Promotes activation of CASP3, and thereby apoptosis.

Regulatory subunit of the ATP-dependent ACF-1 and ACF-5 ISWI chromatin remodeling complexes, which form ordered nucleosome arrays on chromatin and slide edge- and center-positioned histone octamers away from their original location on the DNA template to facilitate access to DNA during DNA-templated processes such as DNA replication, transcription, and repair. Both complexes regulate the spacing of nucleosomes along the chromatin and have the ability to slide mononucleosomes to the center of a DNA template in an ATP-dependent manner. The ACF-1 ISWI chromatin remodeling complex has a lower ATP hydrolysis rate than the ACF-5 ISWI chromatin remodeling complex. Has a role in sensing the length of DNA which flank nucleosomes, which modulates the nucleosome spacing activity of the ACF-5 ISWI chromatin remodeling complex. Involved in DNA replication and together with SMARCA5/SNF2H is required for replication of pericentric heterochromatin in S-phase. May have a role in nuclear receptor-mediated transcription repression.

Atypical tyrosine-protein kinase that plays a central role in chromatin remodeling and acts as a transcription regulator. Involved in DNA damage response by phosphorylating 'Tyr-142' of histone H2AX (H2AXY142ph). H2AXY142ph plays a central role in DNA repair and acts as a mark that distinguishes between apoptotic and repair responses to genotoxic stress. Regulatory subunit of the ATP-dependent WICH-1 and WICH-5 ISWI chromatin remodeling complexes, which form ordered nucleosome arrays on chromatin and facilitate access to DNA during DNA-templated processes such as DNA replication, transcription, and repair. Both complexes regulate the spacing of nucleosomes along the chromatin and have the ability to slide mononucleosomes to the center of a DNA template. The WICH-1 ISWI chromatin remodeling complex has a lower ATP hydrolysis rate than the WICH-5 ISWI chromatin remodeling complex. The WICH-5 ISWI chromatin-remodeling complex regulates the transcription of various genes, has a role in RNA polymerase I transcription (By similarity). Within the B-WICH complex has a role in RNA polymerase III transcription. Mediates the recruitment of the WICH-5 ISWI chromatin remodeling complex to replication foci during DNA replication.

Regulatory subunit of the ATP-dependent BRF-1 and BRF-5 ISWI chromatin remodeling complexes, which form ordered nucleosome arrays on chromatin and facilitate access to DNA during DNA-templated processes such as DNA replication, transcription, and repair. Both complexes regulate the spacing of nucleosomes along the chromatin and have the ability to slide mononucleosomes to the center of a DNA template. The BRF-1 ISWI chromatin remodeling complex has a lower ATP hydrolysis rate than the BRF-5 ISWI chromatin remodeling complex. Chromatin reader protein, which may play a role in transcriptional regulation via interaction with ISWI (By similarity). Involved in positively modulating the rate of age-related behavioral deterioration (By similarity). Represses the expression of mitochondrial function-related genes, perhaps by occupying their promoter regions, working in concert with histone methyltransferase EHMT1 (By similarity).

Essential mediator of p53/TP53-dependent and p53/TP53- independent apoptosis. Promotes partial unfolding of BCL2L1 and dissociation of BCL2L1 from p53/TP53, releasing the bound p53/TP53 to induce apoptosis. Regulates ER stress-induced neuronal apoptosis (By similarity).

The BBSome complex is thought to function as a coat complex required for sorting of specific membrane proteins to the primary cilia. The BBSome complex is required for ciliogenesis but is dispensable for centriolar satellite function. This ciliogenic function is mediated in part by the Rab8 GDP/GTP exchange factor, which localizes to the basal body and contacts the BBSome. Rab8(GTP) enters the primary cilium and promotes extension of the ciliary membrane. Firstly the BBSome associates with the ciliary membrane and binds to RAB3IP/Rabin8, the guanosyl exchange factor (GEF) for Rab8 and then the Rab8-GTP localizes to the cilium and promotes docking and fusion of carrier vesicles to the base of the ciliary membrane. Required for primary cilia assembly and BBSome stability. Regulates cytoplasmic microtubule stability and acetylation.

Essential for intermediate filament organization in intestinal cells, interacts with intermediate filament and regulates intestinal lumen morphology.

Basal body protein required in multiciliate cells to align and maintain cilia orientation in response to flow. May act by mediating a maturation step that stabilizes and aligns cilia orientation. Not required to respond to planar cell polarity (PCP) or flow-based orientation cues (By similarity).

Probable molecular chaperone that assists the folding of proteins upon ATP hydrolysis. Plays a role in the assembly of BBSome, a complex involved in ciliogenesis regulating transports vesicles to the cilia. Involved in adipogenic differentiation.

Component of the chaperonin-containing T-complex (TRiC), a molecular chaperone complex that assists the folding of proteins upon ATP hydrolysis. As part of the TRiC complex may play a role in the assembly of BBSome, a complex involved in ciliogenesis regulating transports vesicles to the cilia. Involved in adipogenic differentiation.

The BBSome complex is thought to function as a coat complex required for sorting of specific membrane proteins to the primary cilia. The BBSome complex is required for ciliogenesis but is dispensable for centriolar satellite function. This ciliogenic function is mediated in part by the Rab8 GDP/GTP exchange factor, which localizes to the basal body and contacts the BBSome. Rab8(GTP) enters the primary cilium and promotes extension of the ciliary membrane. Firstly the BBSome associates with the ciliary membrane and binds to RAB3IP/Rabin8, the guanosyl exchange factor (GEF) for Rab8 and then the Rab8-GTP localizes to the cilium and promotes docking and fusion of carrier vesicles to the base of the ciliary membrane. The BBSome complex, together with the LTZL1, controls SMO ciliary trafficking and contributes to the sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway regulation. Required for proper BBSome complex assembly and its ciliary localization. Plays a role in olfactory cilium biogenesis/maintenance and trafficking (By similarity).

The BBSome complex is thought to function as a coat complex required for sorting of specific membrane proteins to the primary cilia. The BBSome complex is required for ciliogenesis but is dispensable for centriolar satellite function. This ciliogenic function is mediated in part by the Rab8 GDP/GTP exchange factor, which localizes to the basal body and contacts the BBSome. Rab8(GTP) enters the primary cilium and promotes extension of the ciliary membrane. Firstly the BBSome associates with the ciliary membrane and binds to RAB3IP/Rabin8, the guanosyl exchange factor (GEF) for Rab8 and then the Rab8-GTP localizes to the cilium and promotes docking and fusion of carrier vesicles to the base of the ciliary membrane. The BBSome complex, together with the LTZL1, controls SMO ciliary trafficking and contributes to the sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway regulation. Required for proper BBSome complex assembly and its ciliary localization.

The BBSome complex is thought to function as a coat complex required for sorting of specific membrane proteins to the primary cilia. The BBSome complex is required for ciliogenesis but is dispensable for centriolar satellite function. This ciliogenic function is mediated in part by the Rab8 GDP/GTP exchange factor, which localizes to the basal body and contacts the BBSome. Rab8(GTP) enters the primary cilium and promotes extension of the ciliary membrane. Firstly the BBSome associates with the ciliary membrane and binds to RAB3IP/Rabin8, the guanosyl exchange factor (GEF) for Rab8 and then the Rab8-GTP localizes to the cilium and promotes docking and fusion of carrier vesicles to the base of the ciliary membrane. The BBSome complex, together with the LTZL1, controls SMO ciliary trafficking and contributes to the sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway regulation. Required for proper BBSome complex assembly and its ciliary localization. Required for microtubule anchoring at the centrosome but not for microtubule nucleation. May be required for the dynein-mediated transport of pericentriolar proteins to the centrosome.

The BBSome complex is thought to function as a coat complex required for sorting of specific membrane proteins to the primary cilia. The BBSome complex is required for ciliogenesis but is dispensable for centriolar satellite function. This ciliogenic function is mediated in part by the Rab8 GDP/GTP exchange factor, which localizes to the basal body and contacts the BBSome. Rab8(GTP) enters the primary cilium and promotes extension of the ciliary membrane. Firstly the BBSome associates with the ciliary membrane and binds to RAB3IP/Rabin8, the guanosyl exchange factor (GEF) for Rab8 and then the Rab8-GTP localizes to the cilium and promotes docking and fusion of carrier vesicles to the base of the ciliary membrane. The BBSome complex, together with the LTZL1, controls SMO ciliary trafficking and contributes to the sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway regulation. Required for BBSome complex ciliary localization but not for the proper complex assembly.

Transcription factor that is necessary for cell cycle progression from G1 to S phase.

Transcription factor. Associated with the BAF SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complex. Binds to the 5'-TGACCA-3' sequence motif in regulatory regions of target genes, including a distal promoter of the HBG1 hemoglobin subunit gamma-1 gene. Involved in regulation of the developmental switch from gamma- to beta-globin, probably via direct repression of HBG1; hence indirectly repressing fetal hemoglobin (HbF) level. Involved in brain development. May play a role in hematopoiesis (By similarity). Essential factor in lymphopoiesis required for B-cell formation in fetal liver (By similarity). May function as a modulator of the transcriptional repression activity of NR2F2 (By similarity).

Key regulator of both differentiation and survival of T- lymphocytes during thymocyte development in mammals. Essential in controlling the responsiveness of hematopoietic stem cells to chemotactic signals by modulating the expression of the receptors CCR7 and CCR9, which direct the movement of progenitor cells from the bone marrow to the thymus. Is a regulator of IL2 promoter and enhances IL2 expression in activated CD4(+) T-lymphocytes. Tumor-suppressor that represses transcription through direct, TFCOUP2-independent binding to a GC-rich response element (By similarity). May also function in the P53-signaling pathway (By similarity).

Signaling adapter that contributes to B-cell development by linking B-cell receptor (BCR) signaling to the phosphoinositide 3- kinase (PI3K)-Akt signaling pathway. Has a complementary role to the BCR coreceptor CD19, coupling BCR and PI3K activation by providing a docking site for the PI3K subunit PIK3R1. Alternatively, links Toll- like receptor (TLR) signaling to PI3K activation, a process preventing excessive inflammatory cytokine production. Also involved in the activation of PI3K in natural killer cells. May be involved in the survival of mature B-cells via activation of REL.

Docking protein which plays a central coordinating role for tyrosine kinase-based signaling related to cell adhesion. Implicated in induction of cell migration and cell branching. Involved in the BCAR3-mediated inhibition of TGFB signaling (By similarity).

Acts as an adapter protein downstream of several growth factor receptors to promote cell proliferation, migration, and redistribution of actin fibers. Specifically involved in INS/insulin signaling pathway by mediating MAPK1/ERK2-MAPK3/ERK1 activation and DNA synthesis. Promotes insulin- mediated membrane ruffling (By similarity). In response to vasoconstrictor peptide EDN1, involved in the activation of RAP1 downstream of PTK2B via interaction with phosphorylated BCAR1. Inhibits cell migration and invasion via regulation of TGFB-mediated matrix digestion, actin filament rearrangement, and inhibition of invadopodia activity (By similarity). May inhibit TGFB- SMAD signaling, via facilitating BCAR1 and SMAD2 and/or SMAD3 interaction (By similarity). Regulates EGF-induced DNA synthesis. Required for the maintenance of ocular lens morphology and structural integrity, potentially via regulation of focal adhesion complex signaling (By similarity). Acts upstream of PTPRA to regulate the localization of BCAR1 and PTPRA to focal adhesions, via regulation of SRC-mediated phosphorylation of PTPRA (By similarity). Positively regulates integrin-induced tyrosine phosphorylation of BCAR1 (By similarity). Acts as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for small GTPases RALA, RAP1A and RRAS (By similarity). However, in a contrasting study, lacks GEF activity towards RAP1.

Plays a role in angiogenesis. Participates in the regulation of cell polarity and directional endothelial cell migration by mediating both the activation and recruitment of CDC42 and the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton at the cell leading edge. Promotes filipodia formation (By similarity). Functions synergistically with PELP1 as a transcriptional coactivator of estrogen receptor- responsive genes. Stimulates histone acetyltransferase activity. Binds to chromatin. Plays a regulatory role in autophagic activity. In complex with PHAF1, associates with the preautophagosomal structure during both non-selective and selective autophagy. Probably binds phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns3P) which would mediate the recruitment preautophagosomal structures.

Catalyzes the first reaction in the catabolism of the essential branched chain amino acids leucine, isoleucine, and valine

Catalyzes the first reaction in the catabolism of the essential branched chain amino acids leucine, isoleucine, and valine. May also function as a transporter of branched chain alpha-keto acids (By similarity).

During interphase, required for microtubule organizing and anchoring activities. During mitosis, required for the organization and stabilization of the spindle pole. Isoform 2/alpha is particularly important for the regulation of microtubule anchoring, microtubule stability, spindle architecture and spindle orientation, compared to isoform 1/beta. May promote cell cycle arrest by enhancing the inhibition of CDK2 activity by CDKN1A. May be required for repair of DNA damage by homologous recombination in conjunction with BRCA2. May not be involved in non-homologous end joining (NHEJ).

Required for box C/D snoRNAs accumulation involved in snoRNA processing, snoRNA transport to the nucleolus and ribosome biogenesis.

Symmetrically cleaves beta-carotene into two molecules of retinal using a dioxygenase mechanism.

Broad specificity mitochondrial dioxygenase that mediates the asymmetric oxidative cleavage of carotenoids. Cleaves carotenes (pure hydrocarbon carotenoids) such as all-trans-beta-carotene and lycopene as well as xanthophylls (oxygenated carotenoids) such as zeaxanthin, lutein and beta-cryptoxanthin at both the 9,10 and the 9',10' carbon- carbon double bond. Through its function in carotenoids metabolism regulates oxidative stress and the production of important signaling molecules.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation and inactivation of the branched-chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase complex, the key regulatory enzyme of the valine, leucine and isoleucine catabolic pathways. Key enzyme that regulate the activity state of the BCKD complex.

Plays a key role in both adaptive and innate immune signaling by bridging CARD domain-containing proteins to immune activation. Acts by channeling adaptive and innate immune signaling downstream of CARD domain-containing proteins CARD9, CARD11 and CARD14 to activate NF-kappa-B and MAP kinase p38 (MAPK11, MAPK12, MAPK13 and/or MAPK14) pathways which stimulate expression of genes encoding pro-inflammatory cytokines and chemokines. Recruited by activated CARD domain-containing proteins: homooligomerized CARD domain-containing proteins form a nucleating helical template that recruits BCL10 via CARD-CARD interaction, thereby promoting polymerization of BCL10, subsequent recruitment of MALT1 and formation of a CBM complex. This leads to activation of NF-kappa-B and MAP kinase p38 (MAPK11, MAPK12, MAPK13 and/or MAPK14) pathways which stimulate expression of genes encoding pro-inflammatory cytokines and chemokines. Activated by CARD9 downstream of C-type lectin receptors; CARD9-mediated signals are essential for antifungal immunity. Activated by CARD11 downstream of T-cell receptor (TCR) and B-cell receptor (BCR). Promotes apoptosis, pro-caspase-9 maturation and activation of NF-kappa-B via NIK and IKK.

Suppresses apoptosis in a variety of cell systems including factor-dependent lymphohematopoietic and neural cells. Regulates cell death by controlling the mitochondrial membrane permeability. Appears to function in a feedback loop system with caspases. Inhibits caspase activity either by preventing the release of cytochrome c from the mitochondria and/or by binding to the apoptosis-activating factor (APAF-1). Also acts as an inhibitor of autophagy: interacts with BECN1 and AMBRA1 during non-starvation conditions and inhibits their autophagy function. May attenuate inflammation by impairing NLRP1- inflammasome activation, hence CASP1 activation and IL1B release.

Contributes to the regulation of transcriptional activation of NF-kappa-B target genes. In the cytoplasm, inhibits the nuclear translocation of the NF-kappa-B p50 subunit. In the nucleus, acts as transcriptional activator that promotes transcription of NF-kappa-B target genes. Contributes to the regulation of cell proliferation (By similarity).

Acts as a sequence-specific transcriptional repressor in association with BCL6. May function in a narrow stage or be related to some events in the early B-cell development.

Transcriptional repressor mainly required for germinal center (GC) formation and antibody affinity maturation which has different mechanisms of action specific to the lineage and biological functions. Forms complexes with different corepressors and histone deacetylases to repress the transcriptional expression of different subsets of target genes. Represses its target genes by binding directly to the DNA sequence 5'-TTCCTAGAA-3' (BCL6-binding site) or indirectly by repressing the transcriptional activity of transcription factors. In GC B-cells, represses genes that function in differentiation, inflammation, apoptosis and cell cycle control, also autoregulates its transcriptional expression and up-regulates, indirectly, the expression of some genes important for GC reactions, such as AICDA, through the repression of microRNAs expression, like miR155. An important function is to allow GC B-cells to proliferate very rapidly in response to T- cell dependent antigens and tolerate the physiological DNA breaks required for immunglobulin class switch recombination and somatic hypermutation without inducing a p53/TP53-dependent apoptotic response. In follicular helper CD4(+) T-cells (T(FH) cells), promotes the expression of T(FH)-related genes but inhibits the differentiation of T(H)1, T(H)2 and T(H)17 cells. Also required for the establishment and maintenance of immunological memory for both T- and B-cells. Suppresses macrophage proliferation through competition with STAT5 for STAT- binding motifs binding on certain target genes, such as CCL2 and CCND2. In response to genotoxic stress, controls cell cycle arrest in GC B- cells in both p53/TP53-dependedent and -independent manners. Besides, also controls neurogenesis through the alteration of the composition of NOTCH-dependent transcriptional complexes at selective NOTCH targets, such as HES5, including the recruitment of the deacetylase SIRT1 and resulting in an epigenetic silencing leading to neuronal differentiation.

Positive regulator of apoptosis. Plays a role in the Wnt signaling pathway, negatively regulating the expression of Wnt signaling components CTNNB1 and HMGA1. Involved in cell cycle progression, maintenance of the nuclear structure and stem cell differentiation. May play a role in lung tumor development or progression (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator that acts as an activator. Promotes beta-catenin transcriptional activity. Plays a role in tumorigenesis. Enhances the neoplastic transforming activity of CTNNB1 (By similarity).

Involved in signal transduction through the Wnt pathway. Promotes beta-catenin's transcriptional activity (By similarity).

Death-promoting transcriptional repressor. May be involved in cyclin-D1/CCND1 mRNA stability through the SNARP complex which associates with both the 3'end of the CCND1 gene and its mRNA.

Transcriptional corepressor. May specifically inhibit gene expression when recruited to promoter regions by sequence-specific DNA- binding proteins such as BCL6. This repression may be mediated at least in part by histone deacetylase activities which can associate with this corepressor.

Transcriptional corepressor. May specifically inhibit gene expression when recruited to promoter regions by sequence-specific DNA- binding proteins such as BCL6 and MLLT3. This repression may be mediated at least in part by histone deacetylase activities which can associate with this corepressor. Involved in the repression of TFAP2A; impairs binding of BCL6 and KDM2B to TFAP2A promoter regions. Via repression of TFAP2A acts as a negative regulator of osteo-dentiogenic capacity in adult stem cells; the function implies inhibition of methylation on histone H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3) and 'Lys-36' (H3K36me2).

Protein with a unique structure having two opposing regulatory activities toward small GTP-binding proteins. The C-terminus is a GTPase-activating protein (GAP) domain which stimulates GTP hydrolysis by RAC1, RAC2 and CDC42. Accelerates the intrinsic rate of GTP hydrolysis of RAC1 or CDC42, leading to down-regulation of the active GTP-bound form. The central Dbl homology (DH) domain functions as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) that modulates the GTPases CDC42, RHOA and RAC1. Promotes the conversion of CDC42, RHOA and RAC1 from the GDP-bound to the GTP-bound form. The amino terminus contains an intrinsic kinase activity. Functions as an important negative regulator of neuronal RAC1 activity (By similarity). Regulates macrophage functions such as CSF1-directed motility and phagocytosis through the modulation of RAC1 activity. Plays a major role as a RHOA GEF in keratinocytes being involved in focal adhesion formation and keratinocyte differentiation.

Chaperone necessary for the assembly of mitochondrial respiratory chain complex III. Plays an important role in the maintenance of mitochondrial tubular networks, respiratory chain assembly and formation of the LETM1 complex.

Component of the fork protection machinery required to protect stalled/damaged replication forks from uncontrolled DNA2- dependent resection. Acts by stabilizing RAD51 at stalled replication forks and protecting RAD51 nucleofilaments from the antirecombinogenic activities of FBH1 and BLM. Does not regulate spindle orientation.

May play a role in proper chromosome biorientation through the detection or correction of syntelic attachments in mitotic spindles.

Important signaling molecule that activates signaling cascades downstream of NTRK2. During development, promotes the survival and differentiation of selected neuronal populations of the peripheral and central nervous systems. Participates in axonal growth, pathfinding and in the modulation of dendritic growth and morphology. Major regulator of synaptic transmission and plasticity at adult synapses in many regions of the CNS. The versatility of BDNF is emphasized by its contribution to a range of adaptive neuronal responses including long-term potentiation (LTP), long-term depression (LTD), certain forms of short-term synaptic plasticity, as well as homeostatic regulation of intrinsic neuronal excitability.

General activator of RNA polymerase III transcription. Requires for transcription from all three types of polymerase III promoters. Requires for transcription of genes with internal promoter elements and with promoter elements upstream of the initiation site.

Plays a central role in autophagy. Acts as core subunit of the PI3K complex that mediates formation of phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate; different complex forms are believed to play a role in multiple membrane trafficking pathways: PI3KC3-C1 is involved in initiation of autophagosomes and PI3KC3-C2 in maturation of autophagosomes and endocytosis. Involved in regulation of degradative endocytic trafficking and required for the abcission step in cytokinesis, probably in the context of PI3KC3-C2. Essential for the formation of PI3KC3-C2 but not PI3KC3-C1 PI3K complex forms. Involved in endocytosis. Protects against infection by a neurovirulent strain of Sindbis virus. May play a role in antiviral host defense.

Involved in 2 distinct lysosomal degradation pathways: acts as a regulator of autophagy and as a regulator of G-protein coupled receptors turnover. Regulates degradation in lysosomes of a variety of G-protein coupled receptors via its interaction with GPRASP1/GASP1.

Transcriptional repressor which associates with the NoRC (nucleolar remodeling complex) complex and plays a key role in repressing rDNA transcription. The sumoylated form modulates the stability of the NoRC complex component BAZ2A/TIP5 by controlling its USP21-mediated deubiquitination. Binds to unmethylated major satellite DNA and is involved in the recruitment of the Polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2) to major satellites (By similarity). Stimulates the ERCC6L translocase and ATPase activities.

Acts as a corepressor of recombining binding protein suppressor hairless (RBPJ) and inhibits Notch signaling in neural stem cells, thereby opposing their self-renewal and promoting neurogenesis.

Forms calcium-sensitive chloride channels. Highly permeable to bicarbonate.

Forms calcium-sensitive chloride channels. Permeable to bicarbonate.

Vesicle SNARE required for targeting and fusion of retrograde transport vesicles with the Golgi complex. Required for the integrity of the Golgi complex (By similarity).

Required for vesicular transport from the ER to the Golgi complex. Functions as a SNARE involved in the docking process of ER- derived vesicles with the cis-Golgi membrane (By similarity).

Signaling adapter molecule involved in p75NTR/NGFR signaling. Plays a role in cell cycle progression and neuronal differentiation. Inhibits neuronal differentiation in response to nerve growth factor (NGF). May act as a link between the cell cycle and neurotrophic factor signaling, possibly by functioning as an upstream modulator of receptor signaling, coordinating biological responses to external signals with internal cellular states (By similarity).

Regulator of mitochondrial apoptosis and G1 cell cycle in breast cancer. Protects the breast cancer cells against mitochondrial apoptosis and this effect is mediated through the modulation of BCL2 protein family, which involves the positive regulation of anti- apoptotic member BCL2 and the negative regulation of pro-apoptotic members BAD, BAK1 and PUMA. Required for the normal cell cycle progression during G1 in breast cancer cells through the regulation of CCND1 and CDKN1A. Regulates the level of PP2A regulatory subunit B and PP2A phosphatase activity.

May be a signaling adapter molecule involved in p75NTR- mediated apoptosis induced by NGF. Plays a role in zinc-triggered neuronal death (By similarity). May play an important role in the pathogenesis of neurogenetic diseases.

May play a role in microtubule deacetylation by negatively regulating the SIRT2 deacetylase activity toward alpha-tubulin and thereby participate in the control of cell cycle progression and genomic stability.

Apoptosis regulator. Has anti-apoptotic activity, both for apoptosis triggered via death-receptors and via mitochondrial factors.

Required for the correct formation of lens intermediate filaments as part of a complex composed of BFSP1, BFSP2 and CRYAA. Involved in altering the calcium regulation of MIP water permeability.

Required for the correct formation of lens intermediate filaments as part of a complex composed of BFSP1, BFSP2 and CRYAA. Plays a role in maintenance of retinal lens optical clarity (By similarity).

[Isoform 1]: Cleaves beta-linked terminal galactosyl residues from gangliosides, glycoproteins, and glycosaminoglycans.

Plays a role in cell adhesion. May play a role in cell-collagen interactions (By similarity).

Plays an important role in the degradation of dermatan and keratan sulfates

Transcription factor, which play a role in limb development. Is an essential player in the regulatory network governing transcription of genes implicated in limb morphogenesis.

Plays a role in controlling the transcriptional activity of MYOD1, ensuring that expanding myoblast populations remain undifferentiated. Repression may occur through muscle-specific E-box occupancy by homodimers. May also negatively regulate bHLH-mediated transcription through an N-terminal repressor domain. Serves as a key regulator of acinar cell function, stability, and identity. Also required for normal organelle localization in exocrine cells and for mitochondrial calcium ion transport. May function as a unique regulator of gene expression in several different embryonic and postnatal cell lineages. Binds to the E-box consensus sequence 5'-CANNTG-3' (By similarity).

Inhibits DNA binding of TCF3/E47 homodimers and TCF3 (E47)/NEUROD1 heterodimers and acts as a strong repressor of Neurod1 and Myod-responsive genes, probably by heterodimerization with class a basic helix-loop-helix factors. Despite the presence of an intact basic domain, does not bind to DNA (By similarity). In the brain, may function as an area-specific transcription factor that regulates the postmitotic acquisition of area identities and elucidate the genetic hierarchy between progenitors and postmitotic neurons driving neocortical arealization. May be required for the survival of a specific population of inhibitory neurons in the superficial laminae of the spinal cord dorsal horn that may regulate pruritis. Seems to play a crucial role in the retinogenesis, in the specification of amacrine and bipolar subtypes. Forms with PRDM8 a transcriptional repressor complex controlling genes involved in neural development and neuronal differentiation.

Transcriptional repressor involved in the regulation of the circadian rhythm by negatively regulating the activity of the clock genes and clock-controlled genes. Acts as the negative limb of a novel autoregulatory feedback loop (DEC loop) which differs from the one formed by the PER and CRY transcriptional repressors (PER/CRY loop). Both these loops are interlocked as it represses the expression of PER1/2 and in turn is repressed by PER1/2 and CRY1/2. Represses the activity of the circadian transcriptional activator: CLOCK-BMAL1|BMAL2 heterodimer by competing for the binding to E-box elements (5'-CACGTG- 3') found within the promoters of its target genes. Negatively regulates its own expression and the expression of DBP and BHLHE41/DEC2. Acts as a corepressor of RXR and the RXR-LXR heterodimers and represses the ligand-induced RXRA and NR1H3/LXRA transactivation activity. May be involved in the regulation of chondrocyte differentiation via the cAMP pathway. Represses the transcription of NR0B2 and attentuates the transactivation of NR0B2 by the CLOCK-BMAL1 complex. Drives the circadian rhythm of blood pressure through transcriptional repression of ATP1B1 in the cardiovascular system.

Transcriptional repressor involved in the regulation of the circadian rhythm by negatively regulating the activity of the clock genes and clock-controlled genes. Acts as the negative limb of a novel autoregulatory feedback loop (DEC loop) which differs from the one formed by the PER and CRY transcriptional repressors (PER/CRY loop). Both these loops are interlocked as it represses the expression of PER1 and in turn is repressed by PER1/2 and CRY1/2. Represses the activity of the circadian transcriptional activator: CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer by competing for the binding to E-box elements (5'-CACGTG-3') found within the promoters of its target genes. Negatively regulates its own expression and the expression of DBP and BHLHE41/DEC2. Acts as a corepressor of RXR and the RXR-LXR heterodimers and represses the ligand-induced RXRA/B/G, NR1H3/LXRA, NR1H4 and VDR transactivation activity. Inhibits HNF1A-mediated transactivation of CYP1A2, CYP2E1 AND CYP3A11 (By similarity).

Involved in the regulation of homocysteine metabolism. Converts betaine and homocysteine to dimethylglycine and methionine, respectively. This reaction is also required for the irreversible oxidation of choline.

Involved in the regulation of homocysteine metabolism. Converts homocysteine to methionine using S-methylmethionine (SMM) as a methyl donor.

Suppressor of apoptosis. Modulates unfolded protein response signaling. Modulates ER calcium homeostasis by acting as a calcium-leak channel. Negatively regulates autophagy and autophagosome formation, especially during periods of nutrient deprivation, and reduces cell survival during starvation (By similarity).

May function as adapter protein. Involved in the formation of clusters of actin bundles. Plays a role in the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton in response to bacterial infection.

Phosphoinositides-binding protein that induces the formation of planar or gently curved membrane structures. Binds to phosphoinositides, including to phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2) headgroups. There seems to be no clear preference for a specific phosphoinositide (By similarity).

Putative RNA-binding protein. Acts as a negative regulator of Wnt signaling. May be involved in regulating gene expression during embryonic development.

Regulates coat complex coatomer protein I (COPI)-independent Golgi-endoplasmic reticulum transport by recruiting the dynein-dynactin motor complex

Acts as an adapter protein linking the dynein motor complex to various cargos and converts dynein from a non-processive to a highly processive motor in the presence of dynactin. Facilitates and stabilizes the interaction between dynein and dynactin and activates dynein processivity (the ability to move along a microtubule for a long distance without falling off the track) (By similarity). Facilitates the binding of RAB6A to the Golgi by stabilizing its GTP-bound form. Regulates coat complex coatomer protein I (COPI)-independent Golgi- endoplasmic reticulum transport via its interaction with RAB6A and recruitment of the dynein-dynactin motor complex. Contributes to nuclear and centrosomal positioning prior to mitotic entry through regulation of both dynein and kinesin-1. During G2 phase of the cell cycle, associates with RANBP2 at the nuclear pores and recruits dynein and dynactin to the nuclear envelope to ensure proper positioning of the nucleus relative to centrosomes prior to the onset of mitosis (By similarity).

Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling subcomplex GBAF that carries out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA-histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP- dependent manner. May play a role in BRD4-mediated gene transcription.

Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling subcomplex GBAF that carries out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA-histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP- dependent manner.

Induces caspases and apoptosis. Counters the protective effect of BCL2 (By similarity).

Reduces the gamma-methene bridge of the open tetrapyrrole, biliverdin IX alpha, to bilirubin with the concomitant oxidation of a NADH or NADPH cofactor. Uses the reactants NADH or NADPH depending on the pH; NADH is used at the acidic pH range (6-6.9) and NADPH at the alkaline range (8.5-8.7). NADPH, however, is the probable reactant in biological systems.

Promotes guanine-nucleotide exchange on ARF1 and ARF3. Promotes the activation of ARF1/ARF3 through replacement of GDP with GTP. Involved in vesicular trafficking. Required for the maintenance of Golgi structure; the function may be independent of its GEF activity. Required for the maturaion of integrin beta-1 in the Golgi. Involved in the establishment and persistence of cell polarity during directed cell movement in wound healing. Proposed to act as A kinase-anchoring protein (AKAP) and may mediate crosstalk between Arf and PKA pathways. Inhibits GAP activity of MYO9B probably through competitive RhoA binding. The function in the nucleus remains to be determined.

Promotes guanine-nucleotide exchange on ARF1 and ARF3 and to a lower extent on ARF5 and ARF6. Promotes the activation of ARF1/ARF5/ARF6 through replacement of GDP with GTP. Involved in the regulation of Golgi vesicular transport. Required for the integrity of the endosomal compartment. Involved in trafficking from the trans-Golgi network (TGN) to endosomes and is required for membrane association of the AP-1 complex and GGA1. Seems to be involved in recycling of the transferrin receptor from recycling endosomes to the plasma membrane. Probably is involved in the exit of GABA(A) receptors from the endoplasmic reticulum. Involved in constitutive release of tumor necrosis factor receptor 1 via exosome-like vesicles; the function seems to involve PKA and specifically PRKAR2B. Proposed to act as A kinase-anchoring protein (AKAP) and may mediate crosstalk between Arf and PKA pathways.

Participates in the regulation of systemic glucose homeostasis, where it negatively regulates insulin granule biogenesis in pancreatic islet beta cells (By similarity). Also regulates glucagon granule production in pancreatic alpha cells (By similarity). Inhibits nuclear translocation of the transcriptional coregulator PHB2 and may enhance estrogen receptor alpha (ESR1) transcriptional activity in breast cancer cells.

Accelerates programmed cell death. Association to the apoptosis repressors Bcl-X(L), BHRF1, Bcl-2 or its adenovirus homolog E1B 19k protein suppresses this death-promoting activity. Does not interact with BAX.

Is a key player in the control of plasma membrane curvature, membrane shaping and membrane remodeling. Required in muscle cells for the formation of T-tubules, tubular invaginations of the plasma membrane that function in depolarization-contraction coupling. Is a negative regulator of endocytosis (By similarity). Is also involved in the regulation of intracellular vesicles sorting, modulation of BACE1 trafficking and the control of amyloid-beta production. In neuronal circuits, endocytosis regulation may influence the internalization of PHF-tau aggregates (By similarity). May be involved in the regulation of MYC activity and the control cell proliferation. Has actin bundling activity and stabilizes actin filaments against depolymerization in vitro.

Promotes cell motility and migration, probably via its interaction with the cell membrane and with podosome proteins that mediate interaction with the cytoskeleton. Modulates membrane curvature and mediates membrane tubulation. Plays a role in podosome formation. Inhibits phagocytosis.

Involved in cytokinesis and septation where it has a role in the localization of F-actin

Endoplasmic reticulum chaperone that plays a key role in protein folding and quality control in the endoplasmic reticulum lumen. Involved in the correct folding of proteins and degradation of misfolded proteins via its interaction with DNAJC10/ERdj5, probably to facilitate the release of DNAJC10/ERdj5 from its substrate (By similarity). Acts as a key repressor of the ERN1/IRE1-mediated unfolded protein response (UPR). In the unstressed endoplasmic reticulum, recruited by DNAJB9/ERdj4 to the luminal region of ERN1/IRE1, leading to disrupt the dimerization of ERN1/IRE1, thereby inactivating ERN1/IRE1 (By similarity). Accumulation of misfolded protein in the endoplasmic reticulum causes release of HSPA5/BiP from ERN1/IRE1, allowing homodimerization and subsequent activation of ERN1/IRE1 (By similarity). Plays an auxiliary role in post-translational transport of small presecretory proteins across endoplasmic reticulum (ER). May function as an allosteric modulator for SEC61 channel-forming translocon complex, likely cooperating with SEC62 to enable the productive insertion of these precursors into SEC61 channel. Appears to specifically regulate translocation of precursors having inhibitory residues in their mature region that weaken channel gating. May also play a role in apoptosis and cell proliferation.

Anti-apoptotic protein which acts by inhibiting the activities of CASP3, CASP7 and CASP9. Can inhibit the autocleavage of pro-CASP9 and cleavage of pro-CASP3 by CASP9. Capable of inhibiting CASP9 autoproteolysis at 'Asp-315' and decreasing the rate of auto proteolysis at 'Asp-330'. Acts as a mediator of neuronal survival in pathological conditions. Prevents motor-neuron apoptosis induced by a variety of signals. Possible role in the prevention of spinal muscular atrophy that seems to be caused by inappropriate persistence of motor- neuron apoptosis: mutated or deleted forms of NAIP have been found in individuals with severe spinal muscular atrophy

Multi-functional protein which regulates not only caspases and apoptosis, but also modulates inflammatory signaling and immunity, mitogenic kinase signaling, and cell proliferation, as well as cell invasion and metastasis. Acts as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase regulating NF-kappa-B signaling and regulates both canonical and non- canonical NF-kappa-B signaling by acting in opposite directions: acts as a positive regulator of the canonical pathway and suppresses constitutive activation of non-canonical NF-kappa-B signaling. The target proteins for its E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity include: RIPK1, RIPK2, RIPK3, RIPK4, CASP3, CASP7, CASP8, TRAF2, DIABLO/SMAC, MAP3K14/NIK, MAP3K5/ASK1, IKBKG/NEMO, IKBKE and MXD1/MAD1. Can also function as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase of the NEDD8 conjugation pathway, targeting effector caspases for neddylation and inactivation. Acts as an important regulator of innate immune signaling via regulation of Toll-like receptors (TLRs), Nodlike receptors (NLRs) and RIG-I like receptors (RLRs), collectively referred to as pattern recognition receptors (PRRs). Protects cells from spontaneous formation of the ripoptosome, a large multi-protein complex that has the capability to kill cancer cells in a caspase-dependent and caspase- independent manner. Suppresses ripoptosome formation by ubiquitinating RIPK1 and CASP8. Can stimulate the transcriptional activity of E2F1. Plays a role in the modulation of the cell cycle.

Multi-functional protein which regulates not only caspases and apoptosis, but also modulates inflammatory signaling and immunity, mitogenic kinase signaling and cell proliferation, as well as cell invasion and metastasis. Acts as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase regulating NF-kappa-B signaling and regulates both canonical and non- canonical NF-kappa-B signaling by acting in opposite directions: acts as a positive regulator of the canonical pathway and suppresses constitutive activation of non-canonical NF-kappa-B signaling. The target proteins for its E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity include: RIPK1, RIPK2, RIPK3, RIPK4, CASP3, CASP7, CASP8, IKBKE, TRAF1, and BCL10. Acts as an important regulator of innate immune signaling via regulation of Toll-like receptors (TLRs), Nodlike receptors (NLRs) and RIG-I like receptors (RLRs), collectively referred to as pattern recognition receptors (PRRs). Protects cells from spontaneous formation of the ripoptosome, a large multi-protein complex that has the capability to kill cancer cells in a caspase-dependent and caspase- independent manner. Suppresses ripoptosome formation by ubiquitinating RIPK1 and CASP8.

Anti-apoptotic protein which can regulate cell death by controlling caspases and by acting as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Has an unusual ubiquitin conjugation system in that it could combine in a single polypeptide, ubiquitin conjugating (E2) with ubiquitin ligase (E3) activity, forming a chimeric E2/E3 ubiquitin ligase. Its targets include CASP9 and DIABLO/SMAC. Acts as an inhibitor of CASP3, CASP7 and CASP9. Important regulator for the final stages of cytokinesis. Crucial for normal vesicle targeting to the site of abscission, but also for the integrity of the midbody and the midbody ring, and its striking ubiquitin modification.

Apoptotic regulator capable of exerting proapoptotic and anti-apoptotic activities and plays crucial roles in apoptosis, cell proliferation, and cell cycle control. Its anti-apoptotic activity is mediated through the inhibition of CASP3, CASP7 and CASP9, as well as by its E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity. As it is a weak caspase inhibitor, its anti-apoptotic activity is thought to be due to its ability to ubiquitinate DIABLO/SMAC targeting it for degradation thereby promoting cell survival. May contribute to caspase inhibition, by blocking the ability of DIABLO/SMAC to disrupt XIAP/BIRC4-caspase interactions. Protects against apoptosis induced by TNF or by chemical agents such as adriamycin, etoposide or staurosporine. Suppression of apoptosis is mediated by activation of MAPK8/JNK1, and possibly also of MAPK9/JNK2. This activation depends on TAB1 and MAP3K7/TAK1. In vitro, inhibits CASP3 and proteolytic activation of pro-CASP9.

This is a receptor for bradykinin. Could be a factor in chronic pain and inflammation.

Receptor for bradykinin. It is associated with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system.

Component of the BLOC-1 complex, a complex that is required for normal biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles (LRO), such as platelet dense granules and melanosomes. In concert with the AP-3 complex, the BLOC-1 complex is required to target membrane protein cargos into vesicles assembled at cell bodies for delivery into neurites and nerve terminals. The BLOC-1 complex, in association with SNARE proteins, is also proposed to be involved in neurite extension. As part of the BORC complex may play a role in lysosomes movement and localization at the cell periphery. Associated with the cytosolic face of lysosomes, the BORC complex may recruit ARL8B and couple lysosomes to microtubule plus-end-directed kinesin motor.

Component of the BLOC-1 complex, a complex that is required for normal biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles (LRO), such as platelet dense granules and melanosomes. In concert with the AP-3 complex, the BLOC-1 complex is required to target membrane protein cargos into vesicles assembled at cell bodies for delivery into neurites and nerve terminals. The BLOC-1 complex, in association with SNARE proteins, is also proposed to be involved in neurite extension (By similarity). As part of the BORC complex may play a role in lysosomes movement and localization at the cell periphery. Associated with the cytosolic face of lysosomes, the BORC complex may recruit ARL8B and couple lysosomes to microtubule plus-end-directed kinesin motor. May play a role in cell proliferation.

Component of the BLOC-1 complex, a complex that is required for normal biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles (LRO), such as platelet dense granules and melanosomes. In concert with the AP-3 complex, the BLOC-1 complex is required to target membrane protein cargos into vesicles assembled at cell bodies for delivery into neurites and nerve terminals. The BLOC-1 complex, in association with SNARE proteins, is also proposed to be involved in neurite extension. Plays a role in intracellular vesicle trafficking.

Component of the BLOC-1 complex, a complex that is required for normal biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles (LRO), such as platelet dense granules and melanosomes. In concert with the AP-3 complex, the BLOC-1 complex is required to target membrane protein cargos into vesicles assembled at cell bodies for delivery into neurites and nerve terminals. The BLOC-1 complex, in association with SNARE proteins, is also proposed to be involved in neurite extension. May play a role in intracellular vesicle trafficking, particularly in the vesicle-docking and fusion process.

May regulate cell proliferation and coordinate apoptosis and cell cycle progression via a novel mechanism independent of both p53/TP53 and NF-kappa-B.

Functions as a proapoptotic molecule through the caspase- dependent mitochondrial pathway of cell death.

Non-receptor tyrosine kinase involved in B-lymphocyte development, differentiation and signaling (By similarity). B-cell receptor (BCR) signaling requires a tight regulation of several protein tyrosine kinases and phosphatases, and associated coreceptors (By similarity). Binding of antigen to the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) triggers signaling that ultimately leads to B-cell activation (By similarity). Signaling through BLK plays an important role in transmitting signals through surface immunoglobulins and supports the pro-B to pre-B transition, as well as the signaling for growth arrest and apoptosis downstream of B-cell receptor (By similarity). Specifically binds and phosphorylates CD79A at 'Tyr-188'and 'Tyr-199', as well as CD79B at 'Tyr-196' and 'Tyr-207' (By similarity). Phosphorylates also the immunoglobulin G receptors FCGR2A, FCGR2B and FCGR2C. With FYN and LYN, plays an essential role in pre-B-cell receptor (pre-BCR)-mediated NF-kappa-B activation (By similarity). Contributes also to BTK activation by indirectly stimulating BTK intramolecular autophosphorylation (By similarity). In pancreatic islets, acts as a modulator of beta-cells function through the up-regulation of PDX1 and NKX6-1 and consequent stimulation of insulin secretion in response to glucose. Phosphorylates CGAS, promoting retention of CGAS in the cytosol.

The normal physiological role of BLM hydrolase is unknown, but it catalyzes the inactivation of the antitumor drug BLM (a glycopeptide) by hydrolyzing the carboxamide bond of its B- aminoalaninamide moiety thus protecting normal and malignant cells from BLM toxicity.

ATP-dependent DNA helicase that unwinds single- and double- stranded DNA in a 3'-5' direction. Participates in DNA replication and repair. Involved in 5'-end resection of DNA during double-strand break (DSB) repair: unwinds DNA and recruits DNA2 which mediates the cleavage of 5'-ssDNA. Negatively regulates sister chromatid exchange (SCE). Stimulates DNA 4-way junction branch migration and DNA Holliday junction dissolution. Binds single- stranded DNA (ssDNA), forked duplex DNA and DNA Holliday junction. Recruited by the KHDC3L-OOEP scaffold to DNA replication forks where it is retained by TRIM25 ubiquitination, it thereby promotes the restart of stalled replication forks (By similarity).

Functions as a central linker protein, downstream of the B- cell receptor (BCR), bridging the SYK kinase to a multitude of signaling pathways and regulating biological outcomes of B-cell function and development. Plays a role in the activation of ERK/EPHB2, MAP kinase p38 and JNK. Modulates AP1 activation. Important for the activation of NF-kappa-B and NFAT. Plays an important role in BCR- mediated PLCG1 and PLCG2 activation and Ca(2+) mobilization and is required for trafficking of the BCR to late endosomes. However, does not seem to be required for pre-BCR-mediated activation of MAP kinase and phosphatidyl-inositol 3 (PI3) kinase signaling. May be required for the RAC1-JNK pathway. Plays a critical role in orchestrating the pro-B cell to pre-B cell transition. May play an important role in BCR- induced B-cell apoptosis.

Tube-forming lipid transport protein which probably mediates the transfer of lipids between membranes at organelle contact sites. May be involved in the retrograde traffic of vesicle clusters in the endocytic pathway to the Golgi complex.

Tube-forming lipid transport protein which mediates the transfer of lipids between membranes at organelle contact sites. Required for retrograde traffic of vesicle clusters in the early endocytic pathway to the Golgi complex.

Tube-forming lipid transport protein which binds to phosphatidylinositols and affects phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns-4,5-P2) distribution.

Broad specificity oxidoreductase that catalyzes the NADPH- dependent reduction of a variety of flavins, such as riboflavin, FAD or FMN, biliverdins, methemoglobin and PQQ (pyrroloquinoline quinone). Contributes to heme catabolism and metabolizes linear tetrapyrroles. Can also reduce the complexed Fe(3+) iron to Fe(2+) in the presence of FMN and NADPH. In the liver, converts biliverdin to bilirubin.

Transcriptional activator which forms a core component of the circadian clock. The circadian clock, an internal time-keeping system, regulates various physiological processes through the generation of approximately 24 hour circadian rhythms in gene expression, which are translated into rhythms in metabolism and behavior. It is derived from the Latin roots 'circa' (about) and 'diem' (day) and acts as an important regulator of a wide array of physiological functions including metabolism, sleep, body temperature, blood pressure, endocrine, immune, cardiovascular, and renal function. Consists of two major components: the central clock, residing in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the brain, and the peripheral clocks that are present in nearly every tissue and organ system. Both the central and peripheral clocks can be reset by environmental cues, also known as Zeitgebers (German for 'timegivers'). The predominant Zeitgeber for the central clock is light, which is sensed by retina and signals directly to the SCN. The central clock entrains the peripheral clocks through neuronal and hormonal signals, body temperature and feeding-related cues, aligning all clocks with the external light/dark cycle. Circadian rhythms allow an organism to achieve temporal homeostasis with its environment at the molecular level by regulating gene expression to create a peak of protein expression once every 24 hours to control when a particular physiological process is most active with respect to the solar day. Transcription and translation of core clock components (CLOCK, NPAS2, BMAL1, BMAL2, PER1, PER2, PER3, CRY1 and CRY2) plays a critical role in rhythm generation, whereas delays imposed by post- translational modifications (PTMs) are important for determining the period (tau) of the rhythms (tau refers to the period of a rhythm and is the length, in time, of one complete cycle). A diurnal rhythm is synchronized with the day/night cycle, while the ultradian and infradian rhythms have a period shorter and longer than 24 hours, respectively. Disruptions in the circadian rhythms contribute to the pathology of cardiovascular diseases, cancer, metabolic syndromes and aging. A transcription/translation feedback loop (TTFL) forms the core of the molecular circadian clock mechanism. Transcription factors, CLOCK or NPAS2 and BMAL1 or BMAL2, form the positive limb of the feedback loop, act in the form of a heterodimer and activate the transcription of core clock genes and clock-controlled genes (involved in key metabolic processes), harboring E-box elements (5'-CACGTG-3') within their promoters. The core clock genes: PER1/2/3 and CRY1/2 which are transcriptional repressors form the negative limb of the feedback loop and interact with the CLOCK|NPAS2-BMAL1|BMAL2 heterodimer inhibiting its activity and thereby negatively regulating their own expression. This heterodimer also activates nuclear receptors NR1D1/2 and RORA/B/G, which form a second feedback loop and which activate and repressBMAL1 transcription, respectively.BMAL1 positively regulates myogenesis and negatively regulates adipogenesis via the transcriptional control of the genes of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway. Plays a role in normal pancreatic beta-cell function; regulates glucose-stimulated insulin secretion via the regulation of antioxidant genes NFE2L2/NRF2 and its targets SESN2, PRDX3, CCLC and CCLM. Negatively regulates the mTORC1 signaling pathway; regulates the expression of MTOR and DEPTOR. Controls diurnal oscillations of Ly6C inflammatory monocytes; rhythmic recruitment of the PRC2 complex imparts diurnal variation to chemokine expression that is necessary to sustain Ly6C monocyte rhythms. Regulates the expression of HSD3B2, STAR, PTGS2, CYP11A1, CYP19A1 and LHCGR in the ovary and also the genes involved in hair growth. Plays an important role in adult hippocampal neurogenesis by regulating the timely entry of neural stem/progenitor cells (NSPCs) into the cell cycle and the number of cell divisions that take place prior to cell-cycle exit. Regulates the circadian expression of CIART and KLF11. The CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer regulates the circadian expression of SERPINE1/PAI1, VWF, B3, CCRN4L/NOC, NAMPT, DBP, MYOD1, PPARGC1A, PPARGC1B, SIRT1, GYS2, F7, NGFR, GNRHR, BHLHE40/DEC1, ATF4, MTA1, KLF10 and also genes implicated in glucose and lipid metabolism. Promotes rhythmic chromatin opening, regulating the DNA accessibility of other transcription factors. The NPAS2-BMAL1 heterodimer positively regulates the expression of MAOA, F7 and LDHA and modulates the circadian rhythm of daytime contrast sensitivity by regulating the rhythmic expression of adenylate cyclase type 1 (ADCY1) in the retina. The preferred binding motif for the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer is 5'- CACGTGA-3', which contains a flanking Ala residue in addition to the canonical 6-nucleotide E-box sequence. CLOCK specifically binds to the half-site 5'-CAC-3', while BMAL1 binds to the half-site 5'-GTGA-3'. The CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer also recognizes the non-canonical E-box motifs 5'-AACGTGA-3' and 5'- CATGTGA-3'. Essential for the rhythmic interaction of CLOCK with ASS1 and plays a critical role in positively regulating CLOCK-mediated acetylation of ASS1. Plays a role in protecting against lethal sepsis by limiting the expression of immune checkpoint protein CD274 in macrophages in a PKM2-dependent manner (By similarity). Regulates the diurnal rhythms of skeletal muscle metabolism via transcriptional activation of genes promoting triglyceride synthesis (DGAT2) and metabolic efficiency (COQ10B) (By similarity).

Transcriptional activator which forms a core component of the circadian clock. The circadian clock, an internal time-keeping system, regulates various physiological processes through the generation of approximately 24 hour circadian rhythms in gene expression, which are translated into rhythms in metabolism and behavior. It is derived from the Latin roots 'circa' (about) and 'diem' (day) and acts as an important regulator of a wide array of physiological functions including metabolism, sleep, body temperature, blood pressure, endocrine, immune, cardiovascular, and renal function. Consists of two major components: the central clock, residing in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the brain, and the peripheral clocks that are present in nearly every tissue and organ system. Both the central and peripheral clocks can be reset by environmental cues, also known as Zeitgebers (German for 'timegivers'). The predominant Zeitgeber for the central clock is light, which is sensed by retina and signals directly to the SCN. The central clock entrains the peripheral clocks through neuronal and hormonal signals, body temperature and feeding-related cues, aligning all clocks with the external light/dark cycle. Circadian rhythms allow an organism to achieve temporal homeostasis with its environment at the molecular level by regulating gene expression to create a peak of protein expression once every 24 hours to control when a particular physiological process is most active with respect to the solar day. Transcription and translation of core clock components (CLOCK, NPAS2, BMAL1, BMAL2, PER1, PER2, PER3, CRY1 and CRY2) plays a critical role in rhythm generation, whereas delays imposed by post- translational modifications (PTMs) are important for determining the period (tau) of the rhythms (tau refers to the period of a rhythm and is the length, in time, of one complete cycle). A diurnal rhythm is synchronized with the day/night cycle, while the ultradian and infradian rhythms have a period shorter and longer than 24 hours, respectively. Disruptions in the circadian rhythms contribute to the pathology of cardiovascular diseases, cancer, metabolic syndromes and aging. A transcription/translation feedback loop (TTFL) forms the core of the molecular circadian clock mechanism. Transcription factors, CLOCK or NPAS2 and BMAL1 or BMAL2, form the positive limb of the feedback loop, act in the form of a heterodimer and activate the transcription of core clock genes and clock-controlled genes (involved in key metabolic processes), harboring E-box elements (5'-CACGTG-3') within their promoters. The core clock genes: PER1/2/3 and CRY1/2 which are transcriptional repressors form the negative limb of the feedback loop and interact with the CLOCK|NPAS2-BMAL1|BMAL2 heterodimer inhibiting its activity and thereby negatively regulating their own expression. This heterodimer also activates nuclear receptors NR1D1/2 and RORA/B/G, which form a second feedback loop and which activate and repress BMAL1 transcription, respectively. The CLOCK-BMAL2 heterodimer activates the transcription of SERPINE1/PAI1 and BHLHE40/DEC1.

May play a role in apoptosis. Isoform 1 seems to be the main initiator

Component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1 complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones; it mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119', rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility. The complex composed of RNF2, UB2D3 and BMI1 binds nucleosomes, and has activity only with nucleosomal histone H2A. In the PRC1-like complex, regulates the E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity of RNF2/RING2.

Required for maintaining the proliferative activity of embryonic cardiomyocytes by preventing premature activation of the negative cell cycle regulator CDKN1C/p57KIP and maintaining the required expression levels of cardiogenic factors such as MEF2C and NKX2-5. Acts as a ligand for ACVRL1/ALK1, BMPR1A/ALK3 and BMPR1B/ALK6, leading to activation of SMAD1, SMAD5 and SMAD8 transcription factors. Inhibits endothelial cell migration and growth. May reduce cell migration and cell matrix adhesion in breast cancer cell lines.

May be involved in follicular development. Oocyte-specific growth/differentiation factor that stimulates folliculogenesis and granulosa cell (GC) growth.

Metalloprotease that plays key roles in regulating the formation of the extracellular matrix (ECM) via processing of various precursor proteins into mature functional enzymes or structural proteins. Thereby participates in several developmental and physiological processes such as cartilage and bone formation, muscle growth and homeostasis, wound healing and tissue repair. Roles in ECM formation include cleavage of the C-terminal propeptides from procollagens such as procollagen I, II and III or the proteolytic activation of the enzyme lysyl oxidase LOX, necessary to formation of covalent cross- links in collagen and elastic fibers. Additional substrates include matricellular thrombospondin-1/THBS1 whose cleavage leads to cell adhesion disruption and TGF-beta activation.

Growth factor of the TGF-beta superfamily that plays essential roles in many developmental processes, including cardiogenesis, neurogenesis, and osteogenesis. Induces cartilage and bone formation. Initiates the canonical BMP signaling cascade by associating with type I receptor BMPR1A and type II receptor BMPR2. Once all three components are bound together in a complex at the cell surface, BMPR2 phosphorylates and activates BMPR1A. In turn, BMPR1A propagates signal by phosphorylating SMAD1/5/8 that travel to the nucleus and act as activators and repressors of transcription of target genes. Can also signal through non-canonical pathways such as ERK/MAP kinase signaling cascade that regulates osteoblast differentiation. Stimulates also the differentiation of myoblasts into osteoblasts via the EIF2AK3-EIF2A-ATF4 pathway by stimulating EIF2A phosphorylation which leads to increased expression of ATF4 which plays a central role in osteoblast differentiation.

Growth factor of the TGF-beta superfamily that plays an essential role in developmental process by inducing and patterning early skeletal formation and by negatively regulating bone density. Antagonizes the ability of certain osteogenic BMPs to induce osteoprogenitor differentitation and ossification. Initiates signaling cascades by associating with type II receptor ACVR2B to activate SMAD2-dependent and SMAD-independent signaling cascades including TAK1 and JNK pathways.

Growth factor of the TGF-beta superfamily that plays essential roles in many developmental processes, including neurogenesis, vascular development, angiogenesis and osteogenesis. Acts in concert with PTHLH/PTHRP to stimulate ductal outgrowth during embryonic mammary development and to inhibit hair follicle induction (By similarity). Initiates the canonical BMP signaling cascade by associating with type I receptor BMPR1A and type II receptor BMPR2. Once all three components are bound together in a complex at the cell surface, BMPR2 phosphorylates and activates BMPR1A. In turn, BMPR1A propagates signal by phosphorylating SMAD1/5/8 that travel to the nucleus and act as activators and repressors of transcription of target genes. Can also signal through non- canonical BMP pathways such as ERK/MAP kinase, PI3K/Akt, or SRC cascades. For example, induces SRC phosphorylation which, in turn, activates VEGFR2, leading to an angiogenic response.

Growth factor of the TGF-beta superfamily that plays essential roles in many developmental processes, including cartilage and bone formation or neurogenesis. Initiates the canonical BMP signaling cascade by associating with type I receptor BMPR1A and type II receptor BMPR2. In turn, BMPR1A propagates signal by phosphorylating SMAD1/5/8 that travel to the nucleus and act as activators and repressors of transcription of target genes. Can also signal through non-canonical pathway such as MAPK p38 signaling cascade to promote chondrogenic differentiation.

Growth factor of the TGF-beta superfamily that plays essential roles in many developmental processes including cartilage and bone formation. Also plays an important role in the regulation of iron metabolism by acting as a ligand for hemojuvelin/HJV (By similarity). Initiates the canonical BMP signaling cascade by associating with type I receptor ACVR1 and type II receptor ACVR2B. In turn, ACVR1 propagates signal by phosphorylating SMAD1/5/8 that travel to the nucleus and act as activators and repressors of transcription of target. Can also signal through non- canonical pathway such as TAZ-Hippo signaling cascade to modulate VEGF signaling by regulating VEGFR2 expression.

Growth factor of the TGF-beta superfamily that plays important role in various biological processes, including embryogenesis, hematopoiesis, neurogenesis and skeletal morphogenesis. Initiates the canonical BMP signaling cascade by associating with type I receptor ACVR1 and type II receptor ACVR2A. Once all three components are bound together in a complex at the cell surface, ACVR2A phosphorylates and activates ACVR1. In turn, ACVR1 propagates signal by phosphorylating SMAD1/5/8 that travel to the nucleus and act as activators and repressors of transcription of target genes. For specific functions such as growth cone collapse in developing spinal neurons and chemotaxis of monocytes, uses also BMPR2 as type II receptor. Can also signal through non-canonical pathways such as P38 MAP kinase signaling cascade that promotes brown adipocyte differentiation through activation of target genes, including members of the SOX family of transcription factors.

Induces cartilage and bone formation. May be the osteoinductive factor responsible for the phenomenon of epithelial osteogenesis. Plays a role in calcium regulation and bone homeostasis (By similarity). Signaling protein involved in regulation of thermogenesis and energy balance. Proposed to increase the peripheral response of brown adipose tissue (BAT) to adrenergic stimulation while acting centrally in the hypothalamus to increase sympathetic output to BAT.

Induces cartilage and bone formation. May be the osteoinductive factor responsible for the phenomenon of epithelial osteogenesis. Plays a role in calcium regulation and bone homeostasis (By similarity).

Inhibitor of bone morphogenetic protein (BMP) function, it may regulate BMP responsiveness of osteoblasts and chondrocytes.

On ligand binding, forms a receptor complex consisting of two type II and two type I transmembrane serine/threonine kinases. Type II receptors phosphorylate and activate type I receptors which autophosphorylate, then bind and activate SMAD transcriptional regulators. Binds to BMP7, BMP2 and, less efficiently, BMP4. Binding is weak but enhanced by the presence of type I receptors for BMPs. Mediates induction of adipogenesis by GDF6.

On ligand binding, forms a receptor complex consisting of two type II and two type I transmembrane serine/threonine kinases. Type II receptors phosphorylate and activate type I receptors which autophosphorylate, then bind and activate SMAD transcriptional regulators. Receptor for BMP2, BMP4, GDF5 and GDF6. Positively regulates chondrocyte differentiation through GDF5 interaction. Mediates induction of adipogenesis by GDF6.

On ligand binding, forms a receptor complex consisting of two type II and two type I transmembrane serine/threonine kinases. Type II receptors phosphorylate and activate type I receptors which autophosphorylate, then bind and activate SMAD transcriptional regulators. Receptor for BMP7/OP-1 and GDF5. Positively regulates chondrocyte differentiation through GDF5 interaction.

May act as a molecular switch during maturation of the 40S ribosomal subunit in the nucleolus.

Non-receptor tyrosine kinase that plays central but diverse modulatory roles in various signaling processes involved in the regulation of actin reorganization, cell migration, cell proliferation and survival, cell adhesion, and apoptosis. Participates in signal transduction stimulated by growth factor receptors, cytokine receptors, G-protein coupled receptors, antigen receptors and integrins. Induces tyrosine phosphorylation of BCAR1 in response to integrin regulation. Activation of BMX by integrins is mediated by PTK2/FAK1, a key mediator of integrin signaling events leading to the regulation of actin cytoskeleton and cell motility. Plays a critical role in TNF-induced angiogenesis, and implicated in the signaling of TEK and FLT1 receptors, 2 important receptor families essential for angiogenesis. Required for the phosphorylation and activation of STAT3, a transcription factor involved in cell differentiation. Also involved in interleukin-6 (IL6) induced differentiation. Also plays a role in programming adaptive cytoprotection against extracellular stress in different cell systems, salivary epithelial cells, brain endothelial cells, and dermal fibroblasts. May be involved in regulation of endocytosis through its interaction with an endosomal protein RUFY1. May also play a role in the growth and differentiation of hematopoietic cells; as well as in signal transduction in endocardial and arterial endothelial cells.

O-methyltransferase that specifically monomethylates 5'- monophosphate of cytoplasmic histidyl tRNA (tRNA(His)), acting as a capping enzyme by protecting tRNA(His) from cleavage by DICER1. Also able, with less efficiently, to methylate the 5' monophosphate of a subset of pre- miRNAs, acting as a negative regulator of miRNA processing. The 5' monophosphate of pre-miRNAs is recognized by DICER1 and is required for pre-miRNAs processing: methylation at this position reduces the processing of pre-miRNAs by DICER1. Was also reported to mediate dimethylation of pre-miR-145; however dimethylation cannot be reproduced by another group which observes a monomethylation of pre-miR-145.

Transcriptional activator (By similarity). It is likely involved in the regulation of keratinocytes terminal differentiation in squamous epithelia and hair follicles. Required for the maintenance of spermatogenesis (By similarity). It is involved in the positive regulation of oocyte maturation, probably acting through the control of BMP15 levels and regulation of AKT signaling cascade. May also play a role in the early development of embryos (By similarity).

Probable transcription factor specific for skin keratinocytes. May play a role in the differentiation of spermatozoa and oocytes. May also play an important role in early urinary-tract development.

Induces apoptosis. Interacts with viral and cellular anti- apoptosis proteins. Can overcome the suppressors BCL-2 and BCL-XL, although high levels of BCL-XL expression will inhibit apoptosis. Inhibits apoptosis induced by BNIP3. Involved in mitochondrial quality control via its interaction with SPATA18/MIEAP: in response to mitochondrial damage, participates in mitochondrial protein catabolic process (also named MALM) leading to the degradation of damaged proteins inside mitochondria. The physical interaction of SPATA18/MIEAP, BNIP3 and BNIP3L/NIX at the mitochondrial outer membrane regulates the opening of a pore in the mitochondrial double membrane in order to mediate the translocation of lysosomal proteins from the cytoplasm to the mitochondrial matrix. May function as a tumor suppressor.

Implicated in the suppression of cell death. Interacts with the BCL-2 and adenovirus E1B 19 kDa proteins

Apoptosis-inducing protein that can overcome BCL2 suppression. May play a role in repartitioning calcium between the two major intracellular calcium stores in association with BCL2. Involved in mitochondrial quality control via its interaction with SPATA18/MIEAP: in response to mitochondrial damage, participates in mitochondrial protein catabolic process (also named MALM) leading to the degradation of damaged proteins inside mitochondria. The physical interaction of SPATA18/MIEAP, BNIP3 and BNIP3L/NIX at the mitochondrial outer membrane regulates the opening of a pore in the mitochondrial double membrane in order to mediate the translocation of lysosomal proteins from the cytoplasm to the mitochondrial matrix. Plays an important role in the calprotectin (S100A8/A9)-induced cell death pathway.

May be a bridge molecule between BCL2 and ARHGAP1/CDC42 in promoting cell death.

Component of a cell-surface receptor complex that mediates cell-cell interactions between muscle precursor cells. Promotes differentiation of myogenic cells

Required for proper chromosome biorientation through the detection or correction of syntelic attachments in mitotic spindles.

Catalyzes the formation of L-carnitine from gamma- butyrobetaine

[Isoform 1]: Apoptosis regulator that functions through different apoptotic signaling pathways. Plays a roles as pro-apoptotic protein that positively regulates intrinsic apoptotic process in a BAX- and BAK1-dependent manner or in a BAX- and BAK1-independent manner. In response to endoplasmic reticulum stress promotes mitochondrial apoptosis through downstream BAX/BAK1 activation and positive regulation of PERK-mediated unfolded protein response (By similarity). Activates apoptosis independently of heterodimerization with survival-promoting BCL2 and BCL2L1 through induction of mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization, in a BAX- and BAK1-independent manner, in response to inhibition of ERAD- proteasome degradation system, resulting in cytochrome c release. In response to DNA damage, mediates intrinsic apoptotic process in a TP53-dependent manner. Plays a role in granulosa cell apoptosis by CASP3 activation. Plays a roles as anti-apoptotic protein during neuronal apoptotic process, by negatively regulating poly ADP-ribose polymerase-dependent cell death through regulation of neuronal calcium homeostasis and mitochondrial bioenergetics in response to NMDA excitation (By similarity). In addition to its role in apoptosis, may regulate trophoblast cell proliferation during the early stages of placental development, by acting on G1/S transition through regulation of CCNE1 expression. May also play a role as an inducer of autophagy by disrupting interaction between MCL1 and BECN1.

Acts as a mitochondrial iron-sulfur (Fe-S) cluster assembly factor that facilitates (Fe-S) cluster insertion into a subset of mitochondrial proteins (By similarity). Probably acts together with the monothiol glutaredoxin GLRX5. May protect cells against oxidative stress.

Acts as a cytosolic iron-sulfur (Fe-S) cluster assembly factor that facilitates [2Fe-2S] cluster insertion into a subset of cytosolic proteins. Acts together with the monothiol glutaredoxin GLRX3.

Acts as a mitochondrial iron-sulfur (Fe-S) cluster assembly factor that facilitates (Fe-S) cluster insertion into a subset of mitochondrial proteins. Probably acts together with NFU1.

Probable RNA-binding protein, which may be required during spermatogenesis. May act by binding to the 3'-UTR of mRNAs and regulating their translation (By similarity).

Component of the PeBoW complex, which is required for maturation of 28S and 5.8S ribosomal RNAs and formation of the 60S ribosome.

Could induce apoptosis in a BH3 domain-dependent manner. The direct interaction network of Bcl-2 family members may play a key role in modulation RTL10/BOP intrinsic apoptotic signaling activity.

As part of the BORC complex may play a role in lysosomes movement and localization at the cell periphery. Associated with the cytosolic face of lysosomes, the BORC complex may recruit ARL8B and couple lysosomes to microtubule plus-end-directed kinesin motor. Thereby, it may indirectly play a role in cell spreading and motility.

As part of the BORC complex may play a role in lysosomes movement and localization at the cell periphery. Associated with the cytosolic face of lysosomes, the BORC complex may recruit ARL8B and couple lysosomes to microtubule plus-end-directed kinesin motor.

Component of the chromosomal passenger complex (CPC), a complex that acts as a key regulator of mitosis. The CPC complex has essential functions at the centromere in ensuring correct chromosome alignment and segregation and is required for chromatin-induced microtubule stabilization and spindle assembly. Major effector of the TTK kinase in the control of attachment-error-correction and chromosome alignment.

Probably involved in the organization of the actin cytoskeleton. May act downstream of CDC42 to induce actin filament assembly leading to cell shape changes. Induces pseudopodia formation in fibroblasts in a CDC42-dependent manner.

Probably involved in the organization of the actin cytoskeleton. May act downstream of CDC42 to induce actin filament assembly leading to cell shape changes. Induces pseudopodia formation in fibroblasts.

Probably involved in the organization of the actin cytoskeleton. May act downstream of CDC42 to induce actin filament assembly leading to cell shape changes. Induces pseudopodia formation in fibroblasts. Inhibits MAPK8 independently of CDC42 binding. Controls septin organization and this effect is negatively regulated by CDC42 (By similarity).

Probably involved in the organization of the actin cytoskeleton. May act downstream of CDC42 to induce actin filament assembly leading to cell shape changes. Induces pseudopodia formation, when overexpressed in fibroblasts

Probably involved in the organization of the actin cytoskeleton. Induced membrane extensions in fibroblasts.

Serine hydrolase that catalyzes the hydrolytic activation of amino acid ester prodrugs of nucleoside analogs such as valacyclovir and valganciclovir. Activates valacyclovir to acyclovir. May play a role in detoxification processes. It is a specific alpha-amino acid ester hydrolase that prefers small, hydrophobic, and aromatic side chains and does not have a stringent requirement for the leaving group other than preferring a primary alcohol.

Lipid-binding protein which shows high specificity for the surfactant phospholipid dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC). Plays a role in the innate immune responses of the upper airways. Reduces the surface tension in secretions from airway epithelia and inhibits the formation of biofilm by pathogenic Gram-negative bacteria, such as P.aeruginosa and K.pneumoniae. Negatively regulates proteolytic cleavage of SCNN1G, an event that is required for activation of the epithelial sodium channel (ENaC), and thereby contributes to airway surface liquid homeostasis and proper clearance of mucus. Plays a role in the airway inflammatory response after exposure to irritants. May attract macrophages and neutrophils.

May play a role in innate immunity in mouth, nose and lungs. Binds bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) and modulates the cellular responses to LPS.

May have the capacity to recognize and bind specific classes of odorants. May act as a carrier molecule, transporting odorants across the mucus layer to access receptor sites. May serve as a primary defense mechanism by recognizing and removing potentially harmful odorants or pathogenic microorganisms from the mucosa or clearing excess odorant from mucus to enable new odorant stimuli to be received (By similarity).

Biotin--protein ligase catalyzing the biotinylation of the 4 biotin-dependent carboxylases acetyl-CoA-carboxylase, pyruvate carboxylase, propionyl-CoA carboxylase, and methylcrotonyl-CoA carboxylase.

Converts adenosine 3'-phosphate 5'-phosphosulfate (PAPS) to adenosine 5'-phosphosulfate (APS) and 3'(2')-phosphoadenosine 5'- phosphate (PAP) to AMP. Has 1000-fold lower activity towards inositol 1,4-bisphosphate (Ins(1,4)P2) and inositol 1,3,4-trisphosphate (Ins(1,3,4)P3), but does not hydrolyze Ins(1)P, Ins(3,4)P2, Ins(1,3,4,5)P4 or InsP6.

Regulatory subunit of the ATP-dependent NURF-1 and NURF-5 ISWI chromatin remodeling complexes, which form ordered nucleosome arrays on chromatin and facilitate access to DNA during DNA-templated processes such as DNA replication, transcription, and repair. The NURF-1 ISWI chromatin remodeling complex has a lower ATP hydrolysis rate than the NURF-5 ISWI chromatin remodeling complex. Within the NURF-1 ISWI chromatin-remodeling complex, binds to the promoters of En1 and En2 to positively regulate their expression and promote brain development. Histone-binding protein which binds to H3 tails trimethylated on 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3), which mark transcription start sites of active genes. Binds to histone H3 tails dimethylated on 'Lys-4' (H3K4Me2) to a lesser extent. May also regulate transcription through direct binding to DNA or transcription factors.

Protein kinase involved in the transduction of mitogenic signals from the cell membrane to the nucleus (Probable). Phosphorylates MAP2K1, and thereby activates the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. May play a role in the postsynaptic responses of hippocampal neurons.

Negatively regulates MAP kinase activation by limiting the formation of Raf/MEK complexes probably by inactivation of the KSR1 scaffold protein. Also acts as a Ras responsive E3 ubiquitin ligase that, on activation of Ras, is modified by auto-polyubiquitination resulting in the release of inhibition of Raf/MEK complex formation. May also act as a cytoplasmic retention protein with a role in regulating nuclear transport.

Involved in DNA damage response; activates kinases ATM, SMC1A and PRKDC by modulating their phosphorylation status following ionizing radiation (IR) stress. Plays a role in regulating mitochondrial function and cell proliferation. Required for protein stability of MTOR and MTOR- related proteins, and cell cycle progress by growth factors.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that specifically mediates the formation of 'Lys-6'-linked polyubiquitin chains and plays a central role in DNA repair by facilitating cellular responses to DNA damage. It is unclear whether it also mediates the formation of other types of polyubiquitin chains. The BRCA1-BARD1 heterodimer coordinates a diverse range of cellular pathways such as DNA damage repair, ubiquitination and transcriptional regulation to maintain genomic stability. Regulates centrosomal microtubule nucleation. Required for appropriate cell cycle arrests after ionizing irradiation in both the S-phase and the G2 phase of the cell cycle. Required for FANCD2 targeting to sites of DNA damage. Inhibits lipid synthesis by binding to inactive phosphorylated ACACA and preventing its dephosphorylation. Contributes to homologous recombination repair (HRR) via its direct interaction with PALB2, fine-tunes recombinational repair partly through its modulatory role in the PALB2-dependent loading of BRCA2-RAD51 repair machinery at DNA breaks. Component of the BRCA1-RBBP8 complex which regulates CHEK1 activation and controls cell cycle G2/M checkpoints on DNA damage via BRCA1-mediated ubiquitination of RBBP8. Acts as a transcriptional activator.

Involved in double-strand break repair and/or homologous recombination. Binds RAD51 and potentiates recombinational DNA repair by promoting assembly of RAD51 onto single-stranded DNA (ssDNA). Acts by targeting RAD51 to ssDNA over double-stranded DNA, enabling RAD51 to displace replication protein-A (RPA) from ssDNA and stabilizing RAD51- ssDNA filaments by blocking ATP hydrolysis. Part of a PALB2-scaffolded HR complex containing RAD51C and which is thought to play a role in DNA repair by HR. May participate in S phase checkpoint activation. Binds selectively to ssDNA, and to ssDNA in tailed duplexes and replication fork structures. May play a role in the extension step after strand invasion at replication-dependent DNA double-strand breaks; together with PALB2 is involved in both POLH localization at collapsed replication forks and DNA polymerization activity. In concert with NPM1, regulates centrosome duplication. Interacts with the TREX-2 complex (transcription and export complex 2) subunits PCID2 and SEM1, and is required to prevent R-loop-associated DNA damage and thus transcription-associated genomic instability. Silencing of BRCA2 promotes R-loop accumulation at actively transcribed genes in replicating and non-replicating cells, suggesting that BRCA2 mediates the control of R-loop associated genomic instability, independently of its known role in homologous recombination.

Metalloprotease that specifically cleaves 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Does not have activity toward 'Lys- 48'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Component of the BRCA1-A complex, a complex that specifically recognizes 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitinated histones H2A and H2AX at DNA lesions sites, leading to target the BRCA1-BARD1 heterodimer to sites of DNA damage at double-strand breaks (DSBs). In the BRCA1-A complex, it specifically removes 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin on histones H2A and H2AX, antagonizing the RNF8-dependent ubiquitination at double-strand breaks (DSBs). Catalytic subunit of the BRISC complex, a multiprotein complex that specifically cleaves 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin in various substrates. Mediates the specific 'Lys-63'-specific deubiquitination associated with the COP9 signalosome complex (CSN), via the interaction of the BRISC complex with the CSN complex. The BRISC complex is required for normal mitotic spindle assembly and microtubule attachment to kinetochores via its role in deubiquitinating NUMA1. Plays a role in interferon signaling via its role in the deubiquitination of the interferon receptor IFNAR1; deubiquitination increases IFNAR1 activity by enhancing its stability and cell surface expression. Down- regulates the response to bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) via its role in IFNAR1 deubiquitination. Deubiquitinates HDAC1 and PWWP2B leading to their stabilization (By similarity).

Scaffold subunit of various histone acetyltransferase (HAT) complexes, such as the MOZ/MORF and HBO1 complexes, that acts as a regulator of hematopoiesis. Plays a key role in HBO1 complex by directing KAT7/HBO1 specificity towards histone H3 'Lys-14' acetylation (H3K14ac), thereby promoting erythroid differentiation.

May play a role in spermatogenesis or folliculogenesis (By similarity). Binds hyperacetylated chromatin and plays a role in the regulation of transcription, probably by chromatin remodeling. Regulates transcription of the CCND1 gene. Plays a role in nucleosome assembly.

Chromatin reader that recognizes and binds hyperacetylated chromatin and plays a role in the regulation of transcription, probably by chromatin remodeling and interaction with transcription factors. Regulates transcription by promoting the binding of the transcription factor GATA1 to its targets (By similarity).

Chromatin reader protein that recognizes and binds acetylated histones and plays a key role in transmission of epigenetic memory across cell divisions and transcription regulation. Remains associated with acetylated chromatin throughout the entire cell cycle and provides epigenetic memory for postmitotic G1 gene transcription by preserving acetylated chromatin status and maintaining high-order chromatin structure. During interphase, plays a key role in regulating the transcription of signal- inducible genes by associating with the P-TEFb complex and recruiting it to promoters. Also recruits P-TEFb complex to distal enhancers, so called anti-pause enhancers in collaboration with JMJD6. BRD4 and JMJD6 are required to form the transcriptionally active P-TEFb complex by displacing negative regulators such as HEXIM1 and 7SKsnRNA complex from P-TEFb, thereby transforming it into an active form that can then phosphorylate the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II. Promotes phosphorylation of 'Ser-2' of the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II. According to a report, directly acts as an atypical protein kinase and mediates phosphorylation of 'Ser-2' of the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II; these data however need additional evidences in vivo. In addition to acetylated histones, also recognizes and binds acetylated RELA, leading to further recruitment of the P-TEFb complex and subsequent activation of NF-kappa-B. Also acts as a regulator of p53/TP53-mediated transcription: following phosphorylation by CK2, recruited to p53/TP53 specific target promoters.

Acts both as coactivator and as corepressor. May play a role in chromatin remodeling. Activator of the Wnt signaling pathway in a DVL1-dependent manner by negatively regulating the GSK3B phosphotransferase activity. Induces dephosphorylation of GSK3B at 'Tyr-216'. Down-regulates TRIM24-mediated activation of transcriptional activation by AR (By similarity). Transcriptional corepressor that down-regulates the expression of target genes. Binds to target promoters, leading to increased histone H3 acetylation at 'Lys-9' (H3K9ac). Binds to the ESR1 promoter. Recruits BRCA1 and POU2F1 to the ESR1 promoter. Coactivator for TP53-mediated activation of transcription of a set of target genes. Required for TP53-mediated cell-cycle arrest in response to oncogene activation. Promotes acetylation of TP53 at 'Lys-382', and thereby promotes efficient recruitment of TP53 to target promoters. Inhibits cell cycle progression from G1 to S phase.

May act as a coactivator during transcriptional activation by hormone-activated nuclear receptors (NR). Isoform 2 stimulates transcriptional activation by AR/DHTR, ESR1/NR3A1, RXRA/NR2B1 and THRB/ERBA2. At least isoform 1 and isoform 2 are components of the NuA4 histone acetyltransferase (HAT) complex which is involved in transcriptional activation of select genes principally by acetylation of nucleosomal histones H4 and H2A. This modification may both alter nucleosome - DNA interactions and promote interaction of the modified histones with other proteins which positively regulate transcription. This complex may be required for the activation of transcriptional programs associated with oncogene and proto-oncogene mediated growth induction, tumor suppressor mediated growth arrest and replicative senescence, apoptosis, and DNA repair. NuA4 may also play a direct role in DNA repair when recruited to sites of DNA damage. Component of a SWR1-like complex that specifically mediates the removal of histone H2A.Z/H2AZ1 from the nucleosome.

Plays a role in chromatin remodeling and regulation of transcription. Acts as a chromatin reader that recognizes and binds acylated histones: binds histones that are acetylated and/or butyrylated. Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling subcomplex GBAF that carries out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA- histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP-dependent manner. Orchestrates also the RAD51-RAD54 complex formation and thereby plays a role in homologous recombination (HR).

Testis-specific chromatin protein that specifically binds histone H4 acetylated at 'Lys-5' and 'Lys-8' (H4K5ac and H4K8ac, respectively) and plays a key role in spermatogenesis. Required in late pachytene spermatocytes: plays a role in meiotic and post-meiotic cells by binding to acetylated histones at the promoter of specific meiotic and post-meiotic genes, facilitating their activation at the appropriate time. In the post-meiotic phase of spermatogenesis, binds to hyperacetylated histones and participates in their general removal from DNA. Also recognizes and binds a subset of butyrylated histones: able to bind histone H4 butyrylated at 'Lys-8' (H4K8ac), while it is not able to bind H4 butyrylated at 'Lys-5' (H4K5ac) (By similarity). Also acts as a component of the splicing machinery in pachytene spermatocytes and round spermatids and participates in 3'-UTR truncation of specific mRNAs in post-meiotic spermatids (By similarity). Required for chromocenter organization, a structure comprised of peri-centromeric heterochromatin.

Component of the RNF20/40 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that mediates monoubiquitination of 'Lys-120' of histone H2B (H2BK120ub1). H2BK120ub1 gives a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation and is also prerequisite for histone H3 'Lys-4' and 'Lys-79' methylation (H3K4me and H3K79me, respectively). It thereby plays a central role inb histone code and gene regulation. The RNF20/40 complex forms a H2B ubiquitin ligase complex in cooperation with the E2 enzyme UBE2A or UBE2B; reports about the cooperation with UBE2E1/UBCH are contradictory. Required for transcriptional activation of Hox genes. Recruited to the MDM2 promoter, probably by being recruited by p53/TP53, and thereby acts as a transcriptional coactivator. Mediates the polyubiquitination of isoform 2 of PA2G4 in cancer cells leading to its proteasome-mediated degradation.

Component of the RNF20/40 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that mediates monoubiquitination of 'Lys-120' of histone H2B (H2BK120ub1). H2BK120ub1 gives a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation and is also prerequisite for histone H3 'Lys-4' and 'Lys-79' methylation (H3K4me and H3K79me, respectively). It thereby plays a central role in histone code and gene regulation. The RNF20/40 complex forms a H2B ubiquitin ligase complex in cooperation with the E2 enzyme UBE2A or UBE2B; reports about the cooperation with UBE2E1/UBCH are contradictory. Required for transcriptional activation of Hox genes.

General activator of RNA polymerase III transcription. Factor exclusively required for RNA polymerase III transcription of genes with promoter elements upstream of the initiation sites. Contributes to the regulation of gene expression; functions as activator in the absence of oxidative stress. Down-regulates expression of target genes in response to oxidative stress. Overexpression protects cells against apoptosis in response to oxidative stress.

Involved in tumorigenesis and may function by stabilizing p53/TP53.

Participates in tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF)-induced cell death. May be a target of Wnt/beta-catenin signaling in the liver.

Involved in regulation of actin and microtubule organization. Part of a WAVE complex that activates the Arp2/3 complex. As component of the WAVE1 complex, required for BDNF-NTRK2 endocytic trafficking and signaling from early endosomes (By similarity).

Involved in the histone deacetylase (HDAC1)-dependent transcriptional repression activity. When overexpressed in lung cancer cell line that lacks p53/TP53 expression, inhibits cell growth.

Meiotic recombination factor component of recombination bridges involved in meiotic double-strand break repair. Modulates the localization of recombinases DMC1:RAD51 to meiotic double-strand break (DSB) sites through the interaction with and stabilization of the BRCA2:HSF2BP complex during meiotic recombination. Indispensable for the DSB repair, homologous synapsis, and crossover formation that are needed for progression past metaphase I, is essential for spermatogenesis and male fertility.

Transcriptional repressor. Down-regulates transcription activation by NF-kappa-B by promoting the deacetylation of RELA at 'Lys-310'. Promotes HDAC1 binding to promoter regions. Down-regulates expression of anti-apoptotic genes that are controlled by NF-kappa-B. Promotes apoptosis in cells that have inadequate adherence to a substrate, a process called anoikis, and may thereby inhibit metastasis. May be a mediator of metastasis suppression in breast carcinoma.

Inhibits cell proliferation by negative regulation of the G1/S transition. Mediates cell death which is not of the classical apoptotic type and regulates expression of components of the plasminogen pathway.

Inhibits neuronal cell proliferation by negative regulation of the cell cycle transition.

Inhibits neuronal cell proliferation by negative regulation of the cell cycle transition. Promotes pituitary gonadotrope cell proliferation, migration and invasion, when overexpressed. May play a role in cell pituitary tumor development.

Required for high-level Shh responses in the developing neural tube. Together with CDK20, controls the structure of the primary cilium by coordinating assembly of the ciliary membrane and axoneme, allowing GLI2 to be properly activated in response to Shh signaling (By similarity).

Scaffold subunit of various histone acetyltransferase (HAT) complexes, such as the MOZ/MORF and HBO1 complexes, which have a histone H3 acetyltransferase activity. Plays a key role in HBO1 complex by directing KAT7/HBO1 specificity towards histone H3 'Lys-14' acetylation (H3K14ac). Some HAT complexes preferentially mediate histone H3 'Lys-23' (H3K23ac) acetylation. Positively regulates the transcription of RUNX1 and RUNX2.

Scaffold subunit of various histone acetyltransferase (HAT) complexes, such as the MOZ/MORF and HBO1 complexes, which have a histone H3 acetyltransferase activity. Plays a role in DNA replication initiation by directing KAT7/HBO1 specificity towards histone H3 'Lys- 14' acetylation (H3K14ac), thereby facilitating the activation of replication origins. Component of the MOZ/MORF complex which has a histone H3 acetyltransferase activity.

Role in sperm cell division, maturation, or function. This receptor mediates its action by association with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that plays a key role in polarization of neurons and centrosome duplication. Phosphorylates CDC25B, CDC25C, MAPT/TAU, RIMS1, TUBG1, TUBG2 and WEE1. Following phosphorylation and activation by STK11/LKB1, acts as a key regulator of polarization of cortical neurons, probably by mediating phosphorylation of microtubule-associated proteins such as MAPT/TAU at 'Thr-529' and 'Ser-579'. Also regulates neuron polarization by mediating phosphorylation of WEE1 at 'Ser-642' in postmitotic neurons, leading to down-regulate WEE1 activity in polarized neurons. In neurons, localizes to synaptic vesicles and plays a role in neurotransmitter release, possibly by phosphorylating RIMS1. Also acts as a positive regulator of centrosome duplication by mediating phosphorylation of gamma-tubulin (TUBG1 and TUBG2) at 'Ser-131', leading to translocation of gamma-tubulin and its associated proteins to the centrosome. Involved in the UV-induced DNA damage checkpoint response, probably by inhibiting CDK1 activity through phosphorylation and activation of WEE1, and inhibition of CDC25B and CDC25C.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that plays a key role in polarization of neurons and axonogenesis, cell cycle progress and insulin secretion. Phosphorylates CDK16, CDC25C, MAPT/TAU, PAK1 and WEE1. Following phosphorylation and activation by STK11/LKB1, acts as a key regulator of polarization of cortical neurons, probably by mediating phosphorylation of microtubule-associated proteins such as MAPT/TAU at 'Thr-529' and 'Ser-579'. Also regulates neuron polarization by mediating phosphorylation of WEE1 at 'Ser-642' in postmitotic neurons, leading to down-regulate WEE1 activity in polarized neurons. Plays a role in the regulation of the mitotic cell cycle progress and the onset of mitosis. Plays a role in the regulation of insulin secretion in response to elevated glucose levels, probably via phosphorylation of CDK16 and PAK1. While BRSK2 phosphorylated at Thr- 174 can inhibit insulin secretion, BRSK2 phosphorylated at Thr-260 can promote insulin secretion. Regulates reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton. May play a role in the apoptotic response triggered by endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress.

May be a transcriptional activator. May be involved in chromatin remodeling (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Required in the control of cell shape.

Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Required in the control of cell shape.

Plays a crucial role in the formation of lipid droplets (LDs) which are storage organelles at the center of lipid and energy homeostasis. In association with LDAF1, defines the sites of LD formation in the ER. Also required for growth and maturation of small nascent LDs into larger mature LDs. Mediates the formation and/or stabilization of endoplasmic reticulum-lipid droplets (ER-LD) contacts, facilitating protein and lipid delivery from the ER into growing LDs. Regulates the maturation of ZFYVE1- positive nascent LDs and the function of the RAB18-ZFYVE1 complex in mediating the formation of ER-LD contacts. Binds anionic phospholipids including phosphatidic acid. Plays an important role in the differentiation and development of adipocytes (By similarity).

DNA binding protein that function as transcriptional activator. Is essential for normal postnatal growth and nursing. Is an essential factor for neuronal neuropeptide Y and agouti-related peptide function and locomotory behavior in the control of energy balance (By similarity).

Functions as a beta-subunit for CLCNKA and CLCNKB chloride channels. In the kidney CLCNK/BSND heteromers mediate chloride reabsorption by facilitating its basolateral efflux. In the stria, CLCNK/BSND channels drive potassium secretion by recycling chloride for the basolateral SLC12A2 cotransporter.

Scaffold protein of the presynaptic cytomatrix at the active zone (CAZ) which is the place in the synapse where neurotransmitter is released. After synthesis, participates in the formation of Golgi-derived membranous organelles termed Piccolo-Bassoon transport vesicles (PTVs) that are transported along axons to sites of nascent synaptic contacts. At the presynaptic active zone, regulates the spatial organization of synaptic vesicle cluster, the protein complexes that execute membrane fusion and compensatory endocytosis (By similarity). Functions also in processes other than assembly such as the regulation of specific presynaptic protein ubiquitination by interacting with SIAH1 or the regulation of presynaptic autophagy by associating with ATG5 (By similarity). Mediates also synapse to nucleus communication leading to reconfiguration of gene expression by associating with the transcriptional corepressor CTBP1 and by subsequently reducing the size of its pool available for nuclear import (By similarity).

Binds sperm in vitro and promotes sperm capacitation. Specifically promotes capacitation induced by high density lipoproteins (HDLs). Also binds heparin, phospholipid liposomes, and weakly to gelatin. Does not bind chondroitin sulfate B.

May regulate epithelial calcium transport by inhibiting TRPV5 activity.

Preferentially cleaves the synthetic substrate H-D-Leu-Thr- Arg-pNA compared to tosyl-Gly-Pro-Arg-pNA.

Catalyzes both the synthesis of cyclic ADP-beta-D-ribose (cADPR) from NAD(+), and its hydrolysis to ADP-D-ribose (ADPR). Cyclic ADPR is known to serve as an endogenous second messenger that elicits calcium release from intracellular stores, and thus regulates the mobilization of intracellular calcium (Probable). May be involved in pre-B-cell growth (Probable).

IFN-induced antiviral host restriction factor which efficiently blocks the release of diverse mammalian enveloped viruses by directly tethering nascent virions to the membranes of infected cells. Acts as a direct physical tether, holding virions to the cell membrane and linking virions to each other. The tethered virions can be internalized by endocytosis and subsequently degraded or they can remain on the cell surface. In either case, their spread as cell-free virions is restricted. Its target viruses belong to diverse families, including retroviridae: human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1), human immunodeficiency virus type 2 (HIV-2), simian immunodeficiency viruses (SIVs), equine infectious anemia virus (EIAV), feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV), prototype foamy virus (PFV), Mason-Pfizer monkey virus (MPMV), human T- cell leukemia virus type 1 (HTLV-1), Rous sarcoma virus (RSV) and murine leukemia virus (MLV), flavivirideae: hepatitis C virus (HCV), filoviridae: ebola virus (EBOV) and marburg virus (MARV), arenaviridae: lassa virus (LASV) and machupo virus (MACV), herpesviridae: kaposis sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV), rhabdoviridae: vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV), orthomyxoviridae: influenza A virus, paramyxoviridae: nipah virus, and coronaviridae: SARS-CoV. Can inhibit cell surface proteolytic activity of MMP14 causing decreased activation of MMP15 which results in inhibition of cell growth and migration. Can stimulate signaling by LILRA4/ILT7 and consequently provide negative feedback to the production of IFN by plasmacytoid dendritic cells in response to viral infection. Plays a role in the organization of the subapical actin cytoskeleton in polarized epithelial cells. Isoform 1 and isoform 2 are both effective viral restriction factors but have differing antiviral and signaling activities. Isoform 2 is resistant to HIV-1 Vpu-mediated degradation and restricts HIV-1 viral budding in the presence of Vpu. Isoform 1 acts as an activator of NF-kappa-B and this activity is inhibited by isoform 2.

May function in the secretion of milk-fat droplets. May act as a specific membrane-associated receptor for the association of cytoplasmic droplets with the apical plasma membrane (By similarity). Inhibits the proliferation of CD4 and CD8 T-cells activated by anti-CD3 antibodies, T-cell metabolism and IL2 and IFNG secretion (By similarity).

Inhibits the proliferation of CD4 and CD8 T-cells activated by anti-CD3 antibodies, T-cell metabolism and IL2 and IFNG secretion.

Plays a role in T-cell activation and in the adaptive immune response. Regulates the proliferation of activated T-cells. Regulates the release of cytokines and IFNG by activated T-cells. Mediates the response of T-cells toward infected and transformed cells that are characterized by high levels of phosphorylated metabolites, such as isopentenyl pyrophosphate.

Plays a role in T-cell responses in the adaptive immune response. Inhibits the release of IFNG from activated T-cells.

Plays a role in T-cell responses in the adaptive immune response.

Regulates transcription in association with TATA binding protein (TBP). Removes TBP from the TATA box in an ATP-dependent manner

Probable substrate-specific adapter of an E3 ubiquitin- protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Seems to regulate expression levels and/or subnuclear distribution of TOP1, via an unknown mechanism (By similarity). May play a role in mesenchymal differentiation where it promotes myogenic differentiation and suppresses adipogenesis (By similarity).

Acts as a key regulator of dendritic field orientation during development of sensory cortex. Also directs dendrites toward active axon terminals when ectopically expressed (By similarity).

Adapter protein for the cul3 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex (By similarity). Involved in late neuronal development and muscle formation (By similarity).

Acts as a mediator of epithelial dynamics and organ branching by promoting cleft progression. Induced following accumulation of fibronectin in forming clefts, leading to local expression of the cell- scattering SNAIL2 and suppression of E-cadherin levels, thereby altering cell morphology and reducing cell-cell adhesion. This stimulates cell separation at the base of forming clefts by local, dynamic intercellular gap formation and promotes cleft progression (By similarity).

Involved in clathrin-mediated endocytosis at the synapse. Plays a role in neuronal development and in synaptic vesicle recycling in mature neurons, a process required for normal synaptic transmission.

Plays a major role as an activator of AKT family members by inhibiting PPP2CA-mediated dephosphorylation, thereby keeping AKTs activated. Plays a role in preventing motor neuronal death and accelerating the growth of pancreatic beta cells.

Specifically required during spermatogenesis to promote expression of piRNA precursors. The piRNA metabolic process mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and governs the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons, which is essential for the germline integrity. Acts by facilitating transcription elongation at piRNA loci during pachytene.

Growth factor that binds to EGFR, ERBB4 and other EGF receptor family members. Potent mitogen for retinal pigment epithelial cells and vascular smooth muscle cells.

Catalytic release of biotin from biocytin, the product of biotin-dependent carboxylases degradation.

When associated with NACA, prevents inappropriate targeting of non-secretory polypeptides to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Binds to nascent polypeptide chains as they emerge from the ribosome and blocks their interaction with the signal recognition particle (SRP), which normally targets nascent secretory peptides to the ER. BTF3 is also a general transcription factor that can form a stable complex with RNA polymerase II. Required for the initiation of transcription.

Anti-proliferative protein; the function is mediated by association with deadenylase subunits of the CCR4-NOT complex. Activates mRNA deadenylation in a CNOT6 and CNOT7-dependent manner. In vitro can inhibit deadenylase activity of CNOT7 and CNOT8. Involved in cell cycle regulation. Could be involved in the growth arrest and differentiation of the neuronal precursors (By similarity). Modulates transcription regulation mediated by ESR1. Involved in mitochondrial depolarization and neurite outgrowth.

Overexpression impairs serum-induced cell cycle progression from the G0/G1 to S phase

Non-receptor tyrosine kinase indispensable for B lymphocyte development, differentiation and signaling. Binding of antigen to the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) triggers signaling that ultimately leads to B-cell activation. After BCR engagement and activation at the plasma membrane, phosphorylates PLCG2 at several sites, igniting the downstream signaling pathway through calcium mobilization, followed by activation of the protein kinase C (PKC) family members. PLCG2 phosphorylation is performed in close cooperation with the adapter protein B-cell linker protein BLNK. BTK acts as a platform to bring together a diverse array of signaling proteins and is implicated in cytokine receptor signaling pathways. Plays an important role in the function of immune cells of innate as well as adaptive immunity, as a component of the Toll-like receptors (TLR) pathway. The TLR pathway acts as a primary surveillance system for the detection of pathogens and are crucial to the activation of host defense. Especially, is a critical molecule in regulating TLR9 activation in splenic B-cells. Within the TLR pathway, induces tyrosine phosphorylation of TIRAP which leads to TIRAP degradation. BTK also plays a critical role in transcription regulation. Induces the activity of NF-kappa-B, which is involved in regulating the expression of hundreds of genes. BTK is involved on the signaling pathway linking TLR8 and TLR9 to NF-kappa-B. Transiently phosphorylates transcription factor GTF2I on tyrosine residues in response to BCR. GTF2I then translocates to the nucleus to bind regulatory enhancer elements to modulate gene expression. ARID3A and NFAT are other transcriptional target of BTK. BTK is required for the formation of functional ARID3A DNA-binding complexes. There is however no evidence that BTK itself binds directly to DNA. BTK has a dual role in the regulation of apoptosis.

Inhibitory receptor on lymphocytes that negatively regulates antigen receptor signaling via PTPN6/SHP-1 and PTPN11/SHP-2. May interact in cis (on the same cell) or in trans (on other cells) with TNFRSF14. In cis interactions, appears to play an immune regulatory role inhibiting in trans interactions in naive T cells to maintain a resting state. In trans interactions, can predominate during adaptive immune response to provide survival signals to effector T cells.

May stimulate primary immune response. Acts on T-cell stimulated sub-optimally through the TCR/CD3 complex stimulating their proliferation and cytokine production.

Essential component of the mitotic checkpoint. Required for normal mitosis progression. The mitotic checkpoint delays anaphase until all chromosomes are properly attached to the mitotic spindle. One of its checkpoint functions is to inhibit the activity of the anaphase- promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C) by blocking the binding of CDC20 to APC/C, independently of its kinase activity. The other is to monitor kinetochore activities that depend on the kinetochore motor CENPE. Required for kinetochore localization of CENPE. Negatively regulates PLK1 activity in interphase cells and suppresses centrosome amplification. Also implicated in triggering apoptosis in polyploid cells that exit aberrantly from mitotic arrest. May play a role for tumor suppression.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that performs 2 crucial functions during mitosis: it is essential for spindle-assembly checkpoint signaling and for correct chromosome alignment. Has a key role in the assembly of checkpoint proteins at the kinetochore, being required for the subsequent localization of CENPF, BUB1B, CENPE and MAD2L1. Required for the kinetochore localization of PLK1. Required for centromeric enrichment of AUKRB in prometaphase. Plays an important role in defining SGO1 localization and thereby affects sister chromatid cohesion. Acts as a substrate for anaphase-promoting complex or cyclosome (APC/C) in complex with its activator CDH1 (APC/C-Cdh1). Necessary for ensuring proper chromosome segregation and binding to BUB3 is essential for this function. Can regulate chromosome segregation in a kinetochore-independent manner. Can phosphorylate BUB3. The BUB1-BUB3 complex plays a role in the inhibition of APC/C when spindle-assembly checkpoint is activated and inhibits the ubiquitin ligase activity of APC/C by phosphorylating its activator CDC20. This complex can also phosphorylate MAD1L1. Kinase activity is essential for inhibition of APC/CCDC20 and for chromosome alignment but does not play a major role in the spindle-assembly checkpoint activity. Mediates cell death in response to chromosome missegregation and acts to suppress spontaneous tumorigenesis.

Has a dual function in spindle-assembly checkpoint signaling and in promoting the establishment of correct kinetochore-microtubule (K-MT) attachments. Promotes the formation of stable end-on bipolar attachments. Necessary for kinetochore localization of BUB1. Regulates chromosome segregation during oocyte meiosis. The BUB1/BUB3 complex plays a role in the inhibition of anaphase-promoting complex or cyclosome (APC/C) when spindle-assembly checkpoint is activated and inhibits the ubiquitin ligase activity of APC/C by phosphorylating its activator CDC20. This complex can also phosphorylate MAD1L1.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the activated spliceosome.

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that specifically methylates the N(7) position of a guanine in 18S rRNA. Requires the methyltransferase adapter protein TRM112 for full rRNA methyltransferase activity. Involved in the pre-rRNA processing steps leading to small-subunit rRNA production independently of its RNA-modifying catalytic activity. Important for biogenesis end export of the 40S ribosomal subunit independent on its methyltransferase activity. Locus-specific steroid receptor coactivator. Potentiates transactivation by glucocorticoid (NR3C1), mineralocorticoid (NR3C2), androgen (AR) and progesterone (PGR) receptors. Required for the maintenance of open chromatin at the TSC22D3/GILZ locus to facilitate NR3C1 loading on the response elements. Required for maintenance of dimethylation on histone H3 'Lys-79' (H3K79me2), although direct histone methyltransferase activity is not observed in vitro.

Involved in the pre-mRNA splicing process. May play a role as regulator of AR transcriptional activity; may increase AR transcriptional activity.

Catalyzes a late step in pyrimidine degradation. Converts N-carbamoyl-beta-alanine (3-ureidopropanoate) into beta-alanine, ammonia and carbon dioxide. Likewise, converts N-carbamoyl-beta- aminoisobutyrate (3-ureidoisobutyrate) into beta-aminoisobutyrate, ammonia and carbon dioxide (Probable).

Essential for mitochondrial respiratory chain complex III (CIII) assembly and stability. Also required for cytochrome c oxidase complex (complex IV) assembly.

[CD160 antigen]: Receptor on immune cells capable to deliver stimulatory or inhibitory signals that regulate cell activation and differentiation. Exists as a GPI-anchored and as a transmembrane form, each likely initiating distinct signaling pathways via phosphoinositol 3-kinase in activated NK cells and via LCK and CD247/CD3 zeta chain in activated T cells. Receptor for both classical and non-classical MHC class I molecules. In the context of acute viral infection, recognizes HLA-C and triggers NK cell cytotoxic activity, likely playing a role in anti-viral innate immune response. On CD8+ T cells, binds HLA-A2-B2M in complex with a viral peptide and provides a costimulatory signal to activated/memory T cells. Upon persistent antigen stimulation, such as occurs during chronic viral infection, may progressively inhibit TCR signaling in memory CD8+ T cells, contributing to T cell exhaustion. On endothelial cells, recognizes HLA-G and controls angiogenesis in immune privileged sites. Receptor or ligand for TNF superfamily member TNFRSF14, participating in bidirectional cell-cell contact signaling between antigen presenting cells and lymphocytes. Upon ligation of TNFRSF14, provides stimulatory signal to NK cells enhancing IFNG production and anti-tumor immune response (By similarity). On activated CD4+ T cells, interacts with TNFRSF14 and down-regulates CD28 costimulatory signaling, restricting memory and alloantigen-specific immune response. In the context of bacterial infection, acts as a ligand for TNFRSF14 on epithelial cells, triggering the production of antimicrobial proteins and pro-inflammatory cytokines (By similarity).

Required for processing of 20S pre-rRNA precursor and biogenesis of 40S ribosomal subunits. May be required for trophinin- dependent regulation of cell adhesion during implantation of human embryos.

During interphase, forms fibers at the proximal ends of centrioles to maintain centrosome cohesion. During mitosis, dissociates from the centrosome following phosphorylation to allow centrosome separation. Contributes to CROCC/rootletin filament formation.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the biosynthesis of adrenal corticoids. Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon hydrogen bond at 11-beta position of 11-deoxycortisol and 11- deoxycorticosterone/21-hydroxyprogesterone yielding cortisol or corticosterone, respectively. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate and reducing the second into a water molecule. Two electrons are provided by NADPH via a two-protein mitochondrial transfer system comprising flavoprotein FDXR (adrenodoxin/ferredoxin reductase) and nonheme iron- sulfur protein FDX1 or FDX2 (adrenodoxin/ferredoxin).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase that catalyzes the biosynthesis of adrenal mineralocorticoid aldosterone. Catalyzes three sequential oxidative reactions of 11-deoxycorticosterone/21- hydroxyprogesterone, namely 11-beta hydroxylation followed with two successive oxidations at C18 to yield 18-hydroxy and then 18-aldehyde derivatives, resulting in the formation of aldosterone. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate and reducing the second into a water molecule. Two electrons are provided by NADPH via a two-protein mitochondrial transfer system comprising flavoprotein FDXR (adrenodoxin/ferredoxin reductase) and nonheme iron-sulfur protein FDX1 or FDX2 (adrenodoxin/ferredoxin).

Acute phase-regulated receptor involved in clearance and endocytosis of hemoglobin/haptoglobin complexes by macrophages and may thereby protect tissues from free hemoglobin-mediated oxidative damage. May play a role in the uptake and recycling of iron, via endocytosis of hemoglobin/haptoglobin and subsequent breakdown of heme. Binds hemoglobin/haptoglobin complexes in a calcium-dependent and pH- dependent manner. Exhibits a higher affinity for complexes of hemoglobin and multimeric haptoglobin of HP*1F phenotype than for complexes of hemoglobin and dimeric haptoglobin of HP*1S phenotype. Induces a cascade of intracellular signals that involves tyrosine kinase-dependent calcium mobilization, inositol triphosphate production and secretion of IL6 and CSF1. Isoform 3 exhibits the higher capacity for ligand endocytosis and the more pronounced surface expression when expressed in cells

Plays a role in the recruitment of the RNA exosome complex to pre-rRNA to mediate the 3'-5' end processing of the 5.8S rRNA; this function may include MPHOSPH6. Can activate PRKDC not only in the presence of linear DNA but also in the presence of supercoiled DNA. Can induce apoptosis in a p53/TP53 dependent manner. May regulate the TRAX/TSN complex formation. Potentiates transcriptional repression by NR1D1 and THRB (By similarity).

Probable chaperone required for the generation of 1 O-glycan Gal-beta1-3GalNAc-alpha1-Ser/Thr (T antigen), which is a precursor for many extended O-glycans in glycoproteins. Probably acts as a specific molecular chaperone assisting the folding/stability of core 1 beta-3- galactosyltransferase (C1GALT1).

Glycosyltransferase that generates the core 1 O-glycan Gal- beta1-3GalNAc-alpha1-Ser/Thr (T antigen), which is a precursor for many extended O-glycans in glycoproteins. Plays a central role in many processes, such as angiogenesis, thrombopoiesis and kidney homeostasis development

C1q associates with the proenzymes C1r and C1s to yield C1, the first component of the serum complement system. The collagen-like regions of C1q interact with the Ca(2+)-dependent C1r(2)C1s(2) proenzyme complex, and efficient activation of C1 takes place on interaction of the globular heads of C1q with the Fc regions of IgG or IgM antibody present in immune complexes

Is believed to be a multifunctional and multicompartmental protein involved in inflammation and infection processes, ribosome biogenesis, protein synthesis in mitochondria, regulation of apoptosis, transcriptional regulation and pre-mRNA splicing. At the cell surface is thought to act as an endothelial receptor for plasma proteins of the complement and kallikrein-kinin cascades. Putative receptor for C1q; specifically binds to the globular 'heads' of C1q thus inhibiting C1; may perform the receptor function through a complex with C1qR/CD93. In complex with cytokeratin-1/KRT1 is a high affinity receptor for kininogen-1/HMWK. Can also bind other plasma proteins, such as coagulation factor XII leading to its autoactivation. May function to bind initially fluid kininogen-1 to the cell membrane. The secreted form may enhance both extrinsic and intrinsic coagulation pathways. It is postulated that the cell surface form requires docking with transmembrane proteins for downstream signaling which might be specific for a cell-type or response. By acting as C1q receptor is involved in chemotaxis of immature dendritic cells and neutrophils and is proposed to signal through CD209/DC-SIGN on immature dendritic cells, through integrin alpha-4/beta-1 during trophoblast invasion of the decidua, and through integrin beta-1 during endothelial cell adhesion and spreading. Signaling involved in inhibition of innate immune response is implicating the PI3K-AKT/PKB pathway. Required for protein synthesis in mitochondria. In mitochondrial translation may be involved in formation of functional 55S mitoribosomes; the function seems to involve its RNA-binding activity. May be involved in the nucleolar ribosome maturation process; the function may involve the exchange of FBL for RRP1 in the association with pre-ribosome particles. Involved in regulation of RNA splicing by inhibiting the RNA-binding capacity of SRSF1 and its phosphorylation. Is required for the nuclear translocation of splicing factor U2AF1L4. Involved in regulation of CDKN2A- and HRK-mediated apoptosis. Stabilizes mitochondrial CDKN2A isoform smARF. May be involved in regulation of FOXC1 transcriptional activity and NFY/CCAAT-binding factor complex- mediated transcription. May play a role in antibacterial defense as it can bind to cell surface hyaluronan and inhibit Streptococcus pneumoniae hyaluronate lyase. May be involved in modulation of the immune response; ligation by HCV core protein is resulting in suppression of interleukin-12 production in monocyte-derived dendritic cells. Involved in regulation of antiviral response by inhibiting RIGI- and IFIH1-mediated signaling pathways probably involving its association with MAVS after viral infection.

May regulate the number of excitatory synapses that are formed on hippocampus neurons. Has no effect on inhibitory synapses (By similarity).

May regulate the number of excitatory synapses that are formed on hippocampus neurons. Has no effect on inhibitory synapses (By similarity). Plays a role in glucose homeostasis. Via AMPK signaling pathway, stimulates glucose uptake in adipocytes, myotubes and hepatocytes and enhances insulin-stimulated glucose uptake. In a hepatoma cell line, reduces the expression of gluconeogenic enzymes G6PC1 and PCK1 and hence decreases de novo glucose production (By similarity).

May regulate the number of excitatory synapses that are formed on hippocampus neurons. Has no effect on inhibitory synapses (By similarity). May inhibit adipocyte differentiation at an early stage of the process (By similarity).

Receptor (or element of a larger receptor complex) for C1q, mannose-binding lectin (MBL2) and pulmonary surfactant protein A (SPA). May mediate the enhancement of phagocytosis in monocytes and macrophages upon interaction with soluble defense collagens. May play a role in intercellular adhesion

Involved in the regulation of lipid metabolism in adipose tissue and liver.

May be involved in the regulation of the inflammatory network. Its role as pro- or anti-inflammatory seems to be context dependent. Seems to have some role in regulating food intake and energy balance when administered in the brain. This effect is sustained over a two-day period, and it is accompanied by decreased expression of orexigenic neuropeptides in the hypothalamus 3 hours post-injection (By similarity).

Mediates the proteolytic cleavage of HP/haptoglobin in the endoplasmic reticulum.

C1s B chain is a serine protease that combines with C1q and C1r to form C1, the first component of the classical pathway of the complement system. C1r activates C1s so that it can, in turn, activate C2 and C4

Probable adipokine. Activates AMPK, AKT, and p44/42 MAPK signaling pathways.

Trifunctional enzyme that catalyzes the interconversion of three forms of one-carbon-substituted tetrahydrofolate: (6R)-5,10- methylene-5,6,7,8-tetrahydrofolate, 5,10-methenyltetrahydrofolate and (6S)-10-formyltetrahydrofolate. These derivatives of tetrahydrofolate are differentially required in nucleotide and amino acid biosynthesis, (6S)-10-formyltetrahydrofolate being required for purine biosynthesis while (6R)-5,10-methylene-5,6,7,8-tetrahydrofolate is used for serine and methionine biosynthesis for instance.

May provide the missing metabolic reaction required to link the mitochondria and the cytoplasm in the mammalian model of one-carbon folate metabolism complementing thus the enzymatic activities of MTHFD2.

Lipid-binding protein that transports phosphatidylinositol, the precursor of phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PI(4,5)P2), from its site of synthesis in the endoplasmic reticulum to the cell membrane. It thereby maintains the pool of cell membrane phosphoinositides, which are degraded during phospholipase C (PLC) signaling. Plays a key role in the coordination of Ca(2+) and phosphoinositide signaling: localizes to sites of contact between the endoplasmic reticulum and the cell membrane, where it tethers the two bilayers. In response to elevation of cytosolic Ca(2+), it is phosphorylated at its C-terminus and dissociates from the cell membrane, abolishing phosphatidylinositol transport to the cell membrane. Positively regulates insulin secretion in response to glucose: phosphatidylinositol transfer to the cell membrane allows replenishment of PI(4,5)P2 pools and calcium channel opening, priming a new population of insulin granules.

May be involved in inflammatory process. May regulate cell architecture and adhesion.

Component of the centrioles that acts as a positive regulator of centriole elongation. Promotes assembly of centriolar distal appendage, a structure at the distal end of the mother centriole that acts as an anchor of the cilium, and is required for recruitment of centriolar distal appendages proteins CEP83, SCLT1, CEP89, FBF1 and CEP164. Not required for centriolar satellite integrity or RAB8 activation. Required for primary cilium formation. Required for sonic hedgehog/SHH signaling and for proteolytic processing of GLI3.

Required for insulin-stimulated glucose transport and glucose transporter SLC2A4/GLUT4 translocation from intracellular glucose storage vesicle (GSV) to the plasma membrane (PM) in adipocytes. Binds phospholipid membranes in a calcium-dependent manner and is necessary for the optimal membrane fusion between SLC2A4/GLUT4 GSV and the PM.

Transcription factor that binds specifically to the DRE (dual repressor element) and represses HTR1A gene transcription in neuronal cells. The combination of calcium and ATP specifically inactivates the binding with FRE. May play a role in the altered regulation of HTR1A associated with anxiety and major depression. Mediates HDAC-independent repression of HTR1A promoter in neuronal cell. Performs essential function in controlling functional maturation of synapses (By similarity). Plays distinct roles depending on its localization. When cytoplasmic, acts as a scaffold protein in the PI3K/PDK1/AKT pathway. Repressor of HTR1A when nuclear. In the centrosome, regulates spindle pole localization of the cohesin subunit SCC1/RAD21, thereby mediating centriole cohesion during mitosis.

Transcription factor that binds specifically to the DRE (dual repressor element) and represses HTR1A gene transcription in neuronal cells.

Receptor for the chemotactic and inflammatory peptide anaphylatoxin C3a. This receptor stimulates chemotaxis, granule enzyme release and superoxide anion production

Probably involved in the organization of the actin cytoskeleton by acting downstream of CDC42, inducing actin filament assembly. Alters CDC42-induced cell shape changes. In activated T- cells, may play a role in CDC42-mediated F-actin accumulation at the immunological synapse. May play a role in early contractile events in phagocytosis in macrophages.

Controls the classical pathway of complement activation. It binds as a cofactor to C3b/C4b inactivator (C3bINA), which then hydrolyzes the complement fragment C4b. It also accelerates the degradation of the C4bC2a complex (C3 convertase) by dissociating the complement fragment C2a. Alpha chain binds C4b. It interacts also with anticoagulant protein S and with serum amyloid P component

Controls the classical pathway of complement activation. It binds as a cofactor to C3b/C4b inactivator (C3bINA), which then hydrolyzes the complement fragment C4b. It also accelerates the degradation of the C4bC2a complex (C3 convertase) by dissociating the complement fragment C2a. It also interacts with anticoagulant protein S and with serum amyloid P component. The beta chain binds protein S

Membrane-anchoring subunit of succinate dehydrogenase (SDH) that is involved in complex II of the mitochondrial electron transport chain and is responsible for transferring electrons from succinate to ubiquinone (coenzyme Q)

Probable transmembrane reductase that may use ascorbate as an electron donor and transfer electrons across membranes to reduce monodehydro-L-ascorbate radical and iron cations Fe(3+) in another cellular compartment.

Transmembrane reductase that may use ascorbate as an electron donor in the cytoplasm and transfer electrons across endoplasmic reticulum membranes to reduce monodehydro-L-ascorbate radical and iron cations Fe(3+) in the lumen of that compartment.

Receptor for the chemotactic and inflammatory peptide anaphylatoxin C5a. The ligand interacts with at least two sites on the receptor: a high- affinity site on the extracellular N-terminus, and a second site in the transmembrane region which activates downstream signaling events. Receptor activation stimulates chemotaxis, granule enzyme release, intracellular calcium release and superoxide anion production.

Receptor for the chemotactic and inflammatory C3a, C4a and C5a anaphylatoxin peptides and also for their dearginated forms ASP/C3adesArg, C4adesArg and C5adesArg respectively. Couples weakly to G(i)-mediated signaling pathways.

Plays a role in a late step of leukocyte extravasation helping cells to overcome the endothelial basement membrane. Acts at the same site as, but independently of, PECAM1 (By similarity). Homophilic adhesion molecule, but these interactions may not be required for cell aggregation (By similarity).

General regulator of phagocytosis. Required to uptake Gram negative bacterium by macrophages.

Involved in the cytoplasmic maturation steps of pre-60S ribosomal particles by promoting the release of shuttling protein RSL24D1/RLP24 from the pre-ribosomal particles. Acts together with SPATA5, SPATA5L1 and CINP.

May be involved in membrane trafficking between endosomes and plasma membrane

The alpha-2/delta subunit of voltage-dependent calcium channels regulates calcium current density and activation/inactivation kinetics of the calcium channel. Plays an important role in excitation- contraction coupling (By similarity).

The alpha-2/delta subunit of voltage-dependent calcium channels regulates calcium current density and activation/inactivation kinetics of the calcium channel. Acts as a regulatory subunit for P/Q- type calcium channel (CACNA1A), N-type (CACNA1B), L-type (CACNA1C OR CACNA1D) and possibly T-type (CACNA1G). Overexpression induces apoptosis.

The alpha-2/delta subunit of voltage-dependent calcium channels regulates calcium current density and activation/inactivation kinetics of the calcium channel. Acts as a regulatory subunit for P/Q- type calcium channel (CACNA1A), N-type (CACNA1B), L-type (CACNA1C OR CACNA1D) but not T-type (CACNA1G) (By similarity).

The alpha-2/delta subunit of voltage-dependent calcium channels regulates calcium current density and activation/inactivation kinetics of the calcium channel.

Anti-apoptotic protein that modulates a caspase-10 dependent mitochondrial caspase-3/9 feedback amplification loop.

Component of a complex that binds and activates STK11/LKB1. In the complex, required to stabilize the interaction between CAB39/MO25 (CAB39/MO25alpha or CAB39L/MO25beta) and STK11/LKB1.

May be required for replication-independent chromatin assembly. May serve as a negative regulator of T-cell receptor (TCR) signaling via inhibition of calcineurin. Inhibition of activated calcineurin is dependent on both PKC and calcium signals. Acts as a negative regulator of p53/TP53 by keeping p53 in an inactive state on chromatin at promoters of a subset of it's target genes.

Cyclin-dependent kinase binding protein. Enhances cyclin- dependent kinase tyrosine phosphorylation by nonreceptor tyrosine kinases, such as that of CDK5 by activated ABL1, which leads to increased CDK5 activity and is critical for neuronal development, and that of CDK2 by WEE1, which leads to decreased CDK2 activity and growth inhibition. Positively affects neuronal outgrowth. Plays a role as a regulator for p53/p73-induced cell death (By similarity).

Modulates calcium-dependent activity of inositol 1,4,5- triphosphate receptors (ITPRs)(PubMed:14570872). Inhibits agonist- induced intracellular calcium signaling. Enhances inactivation and does not support calcium-dependent facilitation of voltage-dependent P/Q-type calcium channels. Causes calcium-dependent facilitation and inhibits inactivation of L-type calcium channels by binding to the same sites as calmodulin in the C- terminal domain of CACNA1C, but has an opposite effect on channel function. Suppresses the calcium-dependent inactivation of CACNA1D (By similarity). Inhibits TRPC5 channels. Prevents NMDA receptor-induced cellular degeneration. Required for the normal transfer of light signals through the retina (By similarity).

Required for sound encoding at inner hair cells (IHCs) synapses, likely via inhibition of the inactivation of voltage-gated calcium channel of type 1.3 (Cav1.3) in the IHCs. Required for the normal transfer of light signals through the retina (By similarity).

Involved in normal synaptic function through regulation of Ca(2+) influx and neurotransmitter release in photoreceptor synaptic terminals and in auditory transmission. Modulator of CACNA1D and CACNA1F, suppressing the calcium-dependent inactivation and shifting the activation range to more hyperpolarized voltages (By similarity).

Inhibits calcium-dependent inactivation of L-type calcium channel and shifts voltage dependence of activation to more depolarized membrane potentials (By similarity). Involved in the transmission of light signals (By similarity). May positively regulate neurotransmitter vesicle endocytosis and exocytosis in a salt-dependent manner (By similarity). May play a role in the extension and network organization of neurites (By similarity).

Negatively regulates Golgi-to-plasma membrane trafficking by interacting with PI4KB and inhibiting its activity.

Negatively regulates Golgi-to-plasma membrane trafficking by interacting with PI4KB and inhibiting its activity. May play a role in the physiology of neurons and is potentially important in memory and learning.

Calcium-binding protein (By similarity). Essential for maintaining the structural integrity of the sperm flagella (By similarity).

May function as a regulator of both motility- and head- associated functions such as capacitation and the acrosome reaction. Isoform 1 binds calcium in vitro. Isoform 2 and isoform 6 probably bind calcium. Isoform 3 and isoform 5 do not bind calcium in vitro. Isoform 4 probably does not bind calcium

Voltage-sensitive calcium channels (VSCC) mediate the entry of calcium ions into excitable cells and are also involved in a variety of calcium-dependent processes, including muscle contraction, hormone or neurotransmitter release, gene expression, cell motility, cell division and cell death. The isoform alpha-1A gives rise to P and/or Q- type calcium currents. P/Q-type calcium channels belong to the 'high- voltage activated' (HVA) group and are specifically blocked by the spider omega-agatoxin-IVA (AC P54282) (By similarity). They are however insensitive to dihydropyridines (DHP).

Voltage-sensitive calcium channels (VSCC) mediate the entry of calcium ions into excitable cells and are also involved in a variety of calcium-dependent processes, including muscle contraction, hormone or neurotransmitter release, gene expression, cell motility, cell division and cell death. This alpha-1B subunit gives rise to N-type calcium currents. N-type calcium channels belong to the 'high-voltage activated' (HVA) group. They are involved in pain signaling. Calcium channels containing alpha-1B subunit may play a role in directed migration of immature neurons. Mediates Ca(2+) release probability at hippocampal neuronal soma and synaptic terminals (By similarity).

Pore-forming, alpha-1C subunit of the voltage-gated calcium channel that gives rise to L-type calcium currents. Mediates influx of calcium ions into the cytoplasm, and thereby triggers calcium release from the sarcoplasm (By similarity). Plays an important role in excitation-contraction coupling in the heart. Required for normal heart development and normal regulation of heart rhythm. Required for normal contraction of smooth muscle cells in blood vessels and in the intestine. Essential for normal blood pressure regulation via its role in the contraction of arterial smooth muscle cells. Long-lasting (L-type) calcium channels belong to the 'high-voltage activated' (HVA) group (Probable).

Voltage-sensitive calcium channels (VSCC) mediate the entry of calcium ions into excitable cells and are also involved in a variety of calcium-dependent processes, including muscle contraction, hormone or neurotransmitter release, gene expression, cell motility, cell division and cell death. The isoform alpha-1D gives rise to L-type calcium currents. Long-lasting (L-type) calcium channels belong to the 'high-voltage activated' (HVA) group. They are blocked by dihydropyridines (DHP), phenylalkylamines, and by benzothiazepines.

Voltage-sensitive calcium channels (VSCC) mediate the entry of calcium ions into excitable cells. They are also involved in a variety of calcium-dependent processes, including muscle contraction, hormone or neurotransmitter release, gene expression, cell motility, cell division and cell death. The isoform alpha-1E gives rise to R-type calcium currents. R-type calcium channels belong to the 'high-voltage activated' (HVA) group and are blocked by nickel. They are however insensitive to dihydropyridines (DHP). Calcium channels containing alpha-1E subunit could be involved in the modulation of firing patterns of neurons which is important for information processing.

[Isoform 1]: Voltage-sensitive calcium channels (VSCC) mediate the entry of calcium ions into excitable cells and are also involved in a variety of calcium-dependent processes, including muscle contraction, hormone or neurotransmitter release, gene expression, cell motility, cell division and cell death. The isoform alpha-1F gives rise to L-type calcium currents. Long-lasting (L-type) calcium channels belong to the 'high-voltage activated' (HVA) group. They are blocked by dihydropyridines (DHP), phenylalkylamines, and by benzothiazepines. Activates at more negative voltages and does not undergo calcium- dependent inactivation (CDI), due to incoming calcium ions, during depolarization.

Voltage-sensitive calcium channels (VSCC) mediate the entry of calcium ions into excitable cells and are also involved in a variety of calcium-dependent processes, including muscle contraction, hormone or neurotransmitter release, gene expression, cell motility, cell division and cell death. The isoform alpha-1G gives rise to T-type calcium currents. T-type calcium channels belong to the 'low-voltage activated (LVA)' group and are strongly blocked by mibefradil. A particularity of this type of channel is an opening at quite negative potentials and a voltage-dependent inactivation. T-type channels serve pacemaking functions in both central neurons and cardiac nodal cells and support calcium signaling in secretory cells and vascular smooth muscle. They may also be involved in the modulation of firing patterns of neurons which is important for information processing as well as in cell growth processes.

Voltage-sensitive calcium channel that gives rise to T-type calcium currents. T-type calcium channels belong to the 'low-voltage activated (LVA)' group. A particularity of this type of channel is an opening at quite negative potentials, and a voltage-dependent inactivation. T-type channels serve pacemaking functions in both central neurons and cardiac nodal cells and support calcium signaling in secretory cells and vascular smooth muscle (Probable). They may also be involved in the modulation of firing patterns of neurons. In the adrenal zona glomerulosa, participates in the signaling pathway leading to aldosterone production in response to either AGT/angiotensin II, or hyperkalemia.

Voltage-sensitive calcium channels (VSCC) mediate the entry of calcium ions into excitable cells and are also involved in a variety of calcium-dependent processes, including muscle contraction, hormone or neurotransmitter release, gene expression, cell motility, cell division and cell death. This channel gives rise to T-type calcium currents. T-type calcium channels belong to the 'low-voltage activated (LVA)' group and are strongly blocked by nickel and mibefradil. A particularity of this type of channels is an opening at quite negative potentials, and a voltage-dependent inactivation. T-type channels serve pacemaking functions in both central neurons and cardiac nodal cells and support calcium signaling in secretory cells and vascular smooth muscle. They may also be involved in the modulation of firing patterns of neurons which is important for information processing as well as in cell growth processes. Gates in voltage ranges similar to, but higher than alpha 1G or alpha 1H (By similarity).

Pore-forming, alpha-1S subunit of the voltage-gated calcium channel that gives rise to L-type calcium currents in skeletal muscle. Calcium channels containing the alpha-1S subunit play an important role in excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle via their interaction with RYR1, which triggers Ca(2+) release from the sarcplasmic reticulum and ultimately results in muscle contraction. Long-lasting (L-type) calcium channels belong to the 'high-voltage activated' (HVA) group.

Regulatory subunit of L-type calcium channels. Regulates the activity of L-type calcium channels that contain CACNA1A as pore- forming subunit (By similarity). Regulates the activity of L-type calcium channels that contain CACNA1C as pore-forming subunit and increases the presence of the channel complex at the cell membrane. Required for functional expression L-type calcium channels that contain CACNA1D as pore-forming subunit. Regulates the activity of L-type calcium channels that contain CACNA1B as pore-forming subunit.

The beta subunit of voltage-dependent calcium channels contributes to the function of the calcium channel by increasing peak calcium current, shifting the voltage dependencies of activation and inactivation, modulating G protein inhibition and controlling the alpha-1 subunit membrane targeting

Regulatory subunit of the voltage-gated calcium channel that gives rise to L-type calcium currents. Increases CACNA1B peak calcium current and shifts the voltage dependencies of channel activation and inactivation (By similarity). Increases CACNA1C peak calcium current and shifts the voltage dependencies of channel activation and inactivation (By similarity).

The beta subunit of voltage-dependent calcium channels contributes to the function of the calcium channel by increasing peak calcium current, shifting the voltage dependencies of activation and inactivation, modulating G protein inhibition and controlling the alpha-1 subunit membrane targeting.

Cell cycle associated protein capable of promoting cell proliferation through the activation of CDK2 at the G1/S phase transition.

Functions as a coactivator for aryl hydrocarbon and nuclear receptors (NR). Recruited to promoters through its contact with the N- terminal basic helix-loop-helix-Per-Arnt-Sim (PAS) domain of transcription factors or coactivators, such as NCOA2. During ER- activation acts synergistically in combination with other NCOA2-binding proteins, such as EP300, CREBBP and CARM1. Involved in the transcriptional activation of target genes in the Wnt/CTNNB1 pathway. Functions as a secondary coactivator in LEF1-mediated transcriptional activation via its interaction with CTNNB1. Coactivator function for nuclear receptors and LEF1/CTNNB1 involves differential utilization of two different activation regions (By similarity). In association with CCAR1 enhances GATA1- and MED1-mediated transcriptional activation from the gamma-globin promoter during erythroid differentiation of K562 erythroleukemia cells.

Xenophagy-specific receptor required for autophagy-mediated intracellular bacteria degradation. Acts as an effector protein of galectin-sensed membrane damage that restricts the proliferation of infecting pathogens such as Salmonella typhimurium upon entry into the cytosol by targeting LGALS8-associated bacteria for autophagy. Initially orchestrates bacteria targeting to autophagosomes and subsequently ensures pathogen degradation by regulating pathogen-containing autophagosome maturation. Bacteria targeting to autophagosomes relies on its interaction with MAP1LC3A, MAP1LC3B and/or GABARAPL2, whereas regulation of pathogen-containing autophagosome maturation requires the interaction with MAP3LC3C. May play a role in ruffle formation and actin cytoskeleton organization and seems to negatively regulate constitutive secretion.

Catalyzes the reversible transfer of acyl groups from carnitine to coenzyme A (CoA) and regulates the acyl-CoA/CoA ratio. Also plays a crucial role in the transport of fatty acids for beta- oxidation. Responsible for the synthesis of short- and branched-chain acylcarnitines. Active towards some branched-chain amino acid oxidation pathway (BCAAO) intermediates. Trans-2- enoyl-CoAs and 2-methylacyl-CoAs are poor substrates.

Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins. They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types

Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins. They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types. Required for proper focal adhesion assembly. Involved in the regulation of cell migration.

Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins. They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types. May act as a negative regulator of neural cell growth.

Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins. They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types. M-cadherin is part of the myogenic program and may provide a trigger for terminal muscle differentiation

Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins. They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types. LI-cadherin may have a role in the morphological organization of liver and intestine. Involved in intestinal peptide transport.

Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins. They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types. PB-cadherins may have a role in the morphological organization of pituitary gland and brain tissues (By similarity).

Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins. They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells. CDH23 is required for establishing and/or maintaining the proper organization of the stereocilia bundle of hair cells in the cochlea and the vestibule during late embryonic/early postnatal development. It is part of the functional network formed by USH1C, USH1G, CDH23 and MYO7A that mediates mechanotransduction in cochlear hair cells. Required for normal hearing.

Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins. They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types. Cadherin-24 mediate strong cell-cell adhesion.

Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins. They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types. Ligand for integrins alpha-E/beta-7, ITGAE:ITGAB7, alpha-4/beta-7, ITGA4:ITGAB7 and alpha-4/beta-1, ITGA4:ITGAB1 through which modulates CD4(+) T cells activation.

Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins. They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types. CDH1 is involved in mechanisms regulating cell-cell adhesions, mobility and proliferation of epithelial cells. Has a potent invasive suppressor role. It is a ligand for integrin alpha-E/beta-7.

Calcium-dependent cell adhesion protein; preferentially mediates homotypic cell-cell adhesion by dimerization with a CDH2 chain from another cell. Cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types. Acts as a regulator of neural stem cells quiescence by mediating anchorage of neural stem cells to ependymocytes in the adult subependymal zone: upon cleavage by MMP24, CDH2-mediated anchorage is affected, leading to modulate neural stem cell quiescence. Plays a role in cell-to-cell junction formation between pancreatic beta cells and neural crest stem (NCS) cells, promoting the formation of processes by NCS cells (By similarity). CDH2 may be involved in neuronal recognition mechanism. In hippocampal neurons, may regulate dendritic spine density.

Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins. They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types. May play an important role in retinal development

Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins (By similarity). They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types. This cadherin may play a important role in endothelial cell biology through control of the cohesion and organization of the intercellular junctions (By similarity). It associates with alpha-catenin forming a link to the cytoskeleton. Acts in concert with KRIT1 and PALS1 to establish and maintain correct endothelial cell polarity and vascular lumen (By similarity). These effects are mediated by recruitment and activation of the Par polarity complex and RAP1B. Required for activation of PRKCZ and for the localization of phosphorylated PRKCZ, PARD3, TIAM1 and RAP1B to the cell junction.

Mediates homophilic cell-cell adhesion in a Ca(2+)- independent manner. Also mediates heterophilic cell-cell adhesion with CADM3 and NECTIN3 in a Ca(2+)- independent manner (By similarity). Interaction with CRTAM promotes natural killer (NK) cell cytotoxicity and interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma) secretion by CD8+ cells in vitro as well as NK cell-mediated rejection of tumors expressing CADM1 in vivo. In mast cells, may mediate attachment to and promote communication with nerves. CADM1, together with MITF, is essential for development and survival of mast cells in vivo. By interacting with CRTAM and thus promoting the adhesion between CD8+ T- cells and CD8+ dendritic cells, regulates the retention of activated CD8+ T-cell within the draining lymph node (By similarity). Required for the intestinal retention of intraepithelial CD4+ CD8+ T-cells and, to a lesser extent, intraepithelial and lamina propria CD8+ T-cells and CD4+ T-cells (By similarity). Interaction with CRTAM promotes the adhesion to gut-associated CD103+ dendritic cells, which may facilitate the expression of gut-homing and adhesion molecules on T-cells and the conversion of CD4+ T-cells into CD4+ CD8+ T-cells (By similarity). Acts as a synaptic cell adhesion molecule and plays a role in the formation of dendritic spines and in synapse assembly (By similarity). May be involved in neuronal migration, axon growth, pathfinding, and fasciculation on the axons of differentiating neurons (By similarity). May play diverse roles in the spermatogenesis including in the adhesion of spermatocytes and spermatids to Sertoli cells and for their normal differentiation into mature spermatozoa (By similarity). Acts as a tumor suppressor in non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC) cells. May contribute to the less invasive phenotypes of lepidic growth tumor cells.

Adhesion molecule that engages in homo- and heterophilic interactions with the other nectin-like family members, leading to cell aggregation. Important for synapse organization, providing regulated trans-synaptic adhesion. Preferentially binds to oligodendrocytes.

Involved in the cell-cell adhesion. Has both calcium- independent homophilic cell-cell adhesion activity and calcium- independent heterophilic cell-cell adhesion activity with IGSF4, NECTIN1 and NECTIN3. Interaction with EPB41L1 may regulate structure or function of cell-cell junctions (By similarity).

Involved in the cell-cell adhesion. Has calcium- and magnesium-independent cell-cell adhesion activity. May have tumor- suppressor activity.

Involved in the maturation of mitochondrial 4Fe-4S proteins functioning late in the iron-sulfur cluster assembly pathway.

Core component of the CAF-1 complex, a complex that is thought to mediate chromatin assembly in DNA replication and DNA repair. Assembles histone octamers onto replicating DNA in vitro. CAF-1 performs the first step of the nucleosome assembly process, bringing newly synthesized histones H3 and H4 to replicating DNA; histones H2A/H2B can bind to this chromatin precursor subsequent to DNA replication to complete the histone octamer. It may play a role in heterochromatin maintenance in proliferating cells by bringing newly synthesized cbx proteins to heterochromatic DNA replication foci.

Complex that is thought to mediate chromatin assembly in DNA replication and DNA repair. Assembles histone octamers onto replicating DNA in vitro. CAF-1 performs the first step of the nucleosome assembly process, bringing newly synthesized histones H3 and H4 to replicating DNA; histones H2A/H2B can bind to this chromatin precursor subsequent to DNA replication to complete the histone octamer.

Catalyzes the reversible hydration of carbon dioxide. Can hydrate cyanamide to urea.

Catalyzes the reversible hydration of carbon dioxide. Can also hydrate cyanamide to urea. Stimulates the chloride-bicarbonate exchange activity of SLC26A6. Essential for bone resorption and osteoclast differentiation. Involved in the regulation of fluid secretion into the anterior chamber of the eye. Contributes to intracellular pH regulation in the duodenal upper villous epithelium during proton- coupled peptide absorption.

Catalyzes the reversible hydration of carbon dioxide into bicarbonate and protons and thus is essential to maintaining intracellular and extracellular pH. May stimulate the sodium/bicarbonate transporter activity of SLC4A4 that acts in pH homeostasis. It is essential for acid overload removal from the retina and retina epithelium, and acid release in the choriocapillaris in the choroid.

Mitochondrial carbonic anhydrase that catalyzes the reversible conversion of carbon dioxide to bicarbonate/HCO3. Mitochondria are impermeable to HCO3, and thus this intramitochondrial carbonic anhydrase is pivotal in providing HCO3 for multiple mitochondrial enzymes that catalyze the formation of essential metabolites of intermediary metabolism in the urea and Krebs cycles.

Reversible hydration of carbon dioxide. Its role in saliva is unknown

Catalyzes the interconversion between carbon dioxide and water and the dissociated ions of carbonic acid (i.e. bicarbonate and hydrogen ions).

Pore-forming subunit of a voltage-gated ion channel required for sensory perception of sweet, bitter and umami tastes (By similarity). Specifically present in type II taste bud cells, where it plays a central role in sweet, bitter and umami taste perception by inducing ATP release from the cell, ATP acting as a neurotransmitter to activate afferent neural gustatory pathways (By similarity). Together with CALHM3, forms a fast-activating voltage-gated ATP-release channel in type II taste bud cells (TBCs) (By similarity). Acts both as a voltage-gated and calcium-activated ion channel: mediates neuronal excitability in response to changes in extracellular Ca(2+) concentration. Has poor ion selectivity and forms a wide pore (around 14 Angstroms) that mediates permeation of Ca(2+), Na(+) and K(+), as well as permeation of monovalent anions. Acts as an activator of the ERK1 and ERK2 cascade. Triggers endoplasmic reticulum stress by reducing the calcium content of the endoplasmic reticulum. May indirectly control amyloid precursor protein (APP) proteolysis and aggregated amyloid-beta (Abeta) peptides levels in a Ca(2+) dependent manner.

Pore-forming subunit of a voltage-gated ion channel, also permeable to larger molecules including ATP. Together with CALHM1, forms a fast-activating voltage-gated ATP-release channel in type II taste bud cells (TBCs). CALHM1-CALHM3-mediated ATP released acts as a neurotransmitter to gustatory neurons in response to GPCR-mediated tastes, including sweet, bitter and umami substances.

Buffers cytosolic calcium. May stimulate a membrane Ca(2+)- ATPase and a 3',5'-cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase

Calretinin is a calcium-binding protein which is abundant in auditory neurons

CGRP induces vasodilation. It dilates a variety of vessels including the coronary, cerebral and systemic vasculature. Its abundance in the CNS also points toward a neurotransmitter or neuromodulator role

This is a receptor for calcitonin. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase. The calcitonin receptor is thought to couple to the heterotrimeric guanosine triphosphate-binding protein that is sensitive to cholera toxin

Calcitonin causes a rapid but short-lived drop in the level of calcium and phosphate in blood by promoting the incorporation of those ions in the bones

Actin- and myosin-binding protein implicated in the regulation of actomyosin interactions in smooth muscle and nonmuscle cells (could act as a bridge between myosin and actin filaments). Stimulates actin binding of tropomyosin which increases the stabilization of actin filament structure. In muscle tissues, inhibits the actomyosin ATPase by binding to F-actin. This inhibition is attenuated by calcium-calmodulin and is potentiated by tropomyosin. Interacts with actin, myosin, two molecules of tropomyosin and with calmodulin. Also plays an essential role during cellular mitosis and receptor capping. Involved in Schwann cell migration during peripheral nerve regeneration (By similarity).

Possible morphogenetic cytoskeletal element in spermiogenic differentiation

May function as a specific light chain of unconventional myosin-10 (MYO10), also enhances MYO10 translation, possibly by acting as a chaperone for the emerging MYO10 heavy chain protein. May compete with calmodulin by binding, with different affinities, to cellular substrates.

Binds calcium. May be involved in terminal differentiation of keratinocytes

Calmodulin acts as part of a calcium signal transduction pathway by mediating the control of a large number of enzymes, ion channels, aquaporins and other proteins through calcium-binding. Calcium-binding is required for the activation of calmodulin. Among the enzymes to be stimulated by the calmodulin-calcium complex are a number of protein kinases, such as myosin light-chain kinases and calmodulin-dependent protein kinase type II (CaMK2), and phosphatases. Together with CCP110 and centrin, is involved in a genetic pathway that regulates the centrosome cycle and progression through cytokinesis. Is a regulator of voltage- dependent L-type calcium channels. Mediates calcium- dependent inactivation of CACNA1C. Positively regulates calcium-activated potassium channel activity of KCNN2. Forms a potassium channel complex with KCNQ1 and regulates electrophysiological activity of the channel via calcium- binding. Acts as a sensor to modulate the endoplasmic reticulum contacts with other organelles mediated by VMP1:ATP2A2.

Calmodulin acts as part of a calcium signal transduction pathway by mediating the control of a large number of enzymes, ion channels, aquaporins and other proteins through calcium-binding. Calcium-binding is required for the activation of calmodulin. Among the enzymes to be stimulated by the calmodulin-calcium complex are a number of protein kinases, such as myosin light-chain kinases and calmodulin- dependent protein kinase type II (CaMK2), and phosphatases. Together with CCP110 and centrin, is involved in a genetic pathway that regulates the centrosome cycle and progression through cytokinesis. Mediates calcium-dependent inactivation of CACNA1C. Positively regulates calcium-activated potassium channel activity of KCNN2.

Calmodulin acts as part of a calcium signal transduction pathway by mediating the control of a large number of enzymes, ion channels, aquaporins and other proteins through calcium-binding. Calcium-binding is required for the activation of calmodulin. Among the enzymes to be stimulated by the calmodulin- calcium complex are a number of protein kinases, such as myosin light- chain kinases and calmodulin-dependent protein kinase type II (CaMK2), and phosphatases. Together with CCP110 and centrin, is involved in a genetic pathway that regulates the centrosome cycle and progression through cytokinesis.

During spermatogenesis, may act as a lectin-independent chaperone for specific client proteins such as ADAM3. Required for sperm fertility (By similarity). CALR3 capacity for calcium-binding may be absent or much lower than that of CALR.

Receptor for calcitonin-gene-related peptide (CGRP) together with RAMP1 and receptor for adrenomedullin together with RAMP3 (By similarity). Receptor for adrenomedullin together with RAMP2. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase.

Calcium-binding chaperone that promotes folding, oligomeric assembly and quality control in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) via the calreticulin/calnexin cycle. This lectin interacts transiently with almost all of the monoglucosylated glycoproteins that are synthesized in the ER. Interacts with the DNA-binding domain of NR3C1 and mediates its nuclear export. Involved in maternal gene expression regulation. May participate in oocyte maturation via the regulation of calcium homeostasis (By similarity). Present in the cortical granules of non-activated oocytes, is exocytosed during the cortical reaction in response to oocyte activation and might participate in the block to polyspermy (By similarity).

Involved in regulation of vitamin K-dependent carboxylation of multiple N-terminal glutamate residues. Seems to inhibit gamma- carboxylase GGCX. Binds 7 calcium ions with a low affinity (By similarity).

Calcium-binding protein that interacts with newly synthesized monoglucosylated glycoproteins in the endoplasmic reticulum. It may act in assisting protein assembly and/or in the retention within the ER of unassembled protein subunits. It seems to play a major role in the quality control apparatus of the ER by the retention of incorrectly folded proteins. Associated with partial T-cell antigen receptor complexes that escape the ER of immature thymocytes, it may function as a signaling complex regulating thymocyte maturation. Additionally it may play a role in receptor-mediated endocytosis at the synapse

Interacts with clathrin light chain A and stimulates clathrin self-assembly and clathrin-mediated endocytosis.

Required for the post-translational delivery of tail-anchored (TA) proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum. Together with GET1/WRB, acts as a membrane receptor for soluble GET3/TRC40, which recognizes and selectively binds the transmembrane domain of TA proteins in the cytosol. Required for the stability of GET1. Stimulates calcium signaling in T cells through its involvement in elevation of intracellular calcium. Essential for the survival of peripheral follicular B cells (By similarity).

Key microtubule-organizing protein that specifically binds the minus-end of non-centrosomal microtubules and regulates their dynamics and organization. Specifically recognizes growing microtubule minus-ends and stabilizes microtubules. Acts on free microtubule minus-ends that are not capped by microtubule-nucleating proteins or other factors and protects microtubule minus-ends from depolymerization. In contrast to CAMSAP2 and CAMSAP3, tracks along the growing tips of minus-end microtubules without significantly affecting the polymerization rate: binds at the very tip of the microtubules minus-end and acts as a minus-end tracking protein (-TIP) that dissociates from microtubules after allowing tubulin incorporation. Through interaction with spectrin may regulate neurite outgrowth.

Key microtubule-organizing protein that specifically binds the minus-end of non-centrosomal microtubules and regulates their dynamics and organization. Specifically recognizes growing microtubule minus- ends and autonomously decorates and stabilizes microtubule lattice formed by microtubule minus-end polymerization. Acts on free microtubule minus-ends that are not capped by microtubule-nucleating proteins or other factors and protects microtubule minus-ends from depolymerization. In addition, it also reduces the velocity of microtubule polymerization. Through the microtubule cytoskeleton, also regulates the organization of cellular organelles including the Golgi and the early endosomes. Essential for the tethering, but not for nucleation of non-centrosomal microtubules at the Golgi: together with Golgi- associated proteins AKAP9 and PDE4DIP, required to tether non- centrosomal minus-end microtubules to the Golgi, an important step for polarized cell movement. Also acts as a regulator of neuronal polarity and development: localizes to non-centrosomal microtubule minus-ends in neurons and stabilizes non-centrosomal microtubules, which is required for neuronal polarity, axon specification and dendritic branch formation. Through the microtubule cytoskeleton, regulates the autophagosome transport.

Key microtubule-organizing protein that specifically binds the minus-end of non-centrosomal microtubules and regulates their dynamics and organization. Specifically recognizes growing microtubule minus-ends and autonomously decorates and stabilizes microtubule lattice formed by microtubule minus-end polymerization. Acts on free microtubule minus-ends that are not capped by microtubule-nucleating proteins or other factors and protects microtubule minus-ends from depolymerization. In addition, it also reduces the velocity of microtubule polymerization. Required for the biogenesis and the maintenance of zonula adherens by anchoring the minus-end of microtubules to zonula adherens and by recruiting the kinesin KIFC3 to those junctional sites. Required for orienting the apical-to-basal polarity of microtubules in epithelial cells: acts by tethering non-centrosomal microtubules to the apical cortex, leading to their longitudinal orientation. Plays a key role in early embryos, which lack centrosomes: accumulates at the microtubule bridges that connect pairs of cells and enables the formation of a non-centrosomal microtubule- organizing center that directs intracellular transport in the early embryo (By similarity). Couples non-centrosomal microtubules with actin: interaction with MACF1 at the minus ends of non-centrosomal microtubules, tethers the microtubules to actin filaments, regulating focal adhesion size and cell migration. Plays a key role in the generation of non-centrosomal microtubules by accumulating in the pericentrosomal region and cooperating with KATNA1 to release non-centrosomal microtubules from the centrosome. Through the microtubule cytoskeleton, also regulates the organization of cellular organelles including the Golgi and the early endosomes. Through interaction with AKAP9, involved in translocation of Golgi vesicles in epithelial cells, where microtubules are mainly non-centrosomal. Plays an important role in motile cilia function by facilitatating proper orientation of basal bodies and formation of central microtubule pairs in motile cilia (By similarity).

Antimicrobial protein that is an integral component of the innate immune system. Binds to bacterial lipopolysaccharides (LPS). Acts via neutrophil N-formyl peptide receptors to enhance the release of CXCL2. Postsecretory processing generates multiple cathelicidin antimicrobial peptides with various lengths which act as a topical antimicrobial defense in sweat on skin. The unprocessed precursor form, cathelicidin antimicrobial peptide, inhibits the growth of Gram-negative E.coli and E.aerogenes with efficiencies comparable to that of the mature peptide LL-37 (in vitro).

Calcium-regulated non-lysosomal thiol-protease which catalyzes limited proteolysis of substrates involved in cytoskeletal remodeling and signal transduction. May play a role in insulin- stimulated glucose uptake.

Calcium-regulated non-lysosomal thiol-protease which catalyzes limited proteolysis of substrates involved in cytoskeletal remodeling and signal transduction

Calcium-regulated non-lysosomal thiol-protease which catalyzes limited proteolysis of substrates involved in cytoskeletal remodeling and signal transduction. Proteolytically cleaves CTBP1 at 'Asn-375', 'Gly-387' and 'His-409'. Cleaves and activates caspase-7 (CASP7).

Calcium-regulated non-lysosomal thiol-protease which catalyzes limited proteolysis of substrates involved in cytoskeletal remodeling and signal transduction. Proteolytically cleaves MYOC at 'Arg-226'. Proteolytically cleaves CPEB3 following neuronal stimulation which abolishes CPEB3 translational repressor activity, leading to translation of CPEB3 target mRNAs (By similarity).

Calcium-regulated non-lysosomal thiol-protease. Proteolytically cleaves CTBP1 at 'His-409'. Mediates, with UTP25, the proteasome-independent degradation of p53/TP53.

Microtubule-stabilizing protein that may be involved in the regulation of microtubule dynamics and cytoskeletal organization. May act as a regulator of RAC1 activity through interaction with ARHGEF2 to control lamellipodial formation and cell mobility. Does not seem to have protease activity as it has lost the active site residues (By similarity).

Calcium-regulated non-lysosomal thiol-protease. Involved in membrane trafficking in the gastric surface mucus cells (pit cells) and may involve the membrane trafficking of mucus cells via interactions with coat protein. Proteolytically cleaves the beta-subunit of coatomer complex (By similarity).

Regulatory subunit of calcineurin, a calcium-dependent, calmodulin stimulated protein phosphatase. Confers calcium sensitivity.

Key assembly factor of SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin ligase complexes that promotes the exchange of the substrate- recognition F-box subunit in SCF complexes, thereby playing a key role in the cellular repertoire of SCF complexes. Acts as a F-box protein exchange factor. The exchange activity of CAND1 is coupled with cycles of neddylation conjugation: in the deneddylated state, cullin-binding CAND1 binds CUL1-RBX1, increasing dissociation of the SCF complex and promoting exchange of the F-box protein. Probably plays a similar role in other cullin-RING E3 ubiquitin ligase complexes.

Probable assembly factor of SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin ligase complexes that promotes the exchange of the substrate- recognition F-box subunit in SCF complexes, thereby playing a key role in the cellular repertoire of SCF complexes.

Calcium-dependent nucleotidase with a preference for UDP. The order of activity with different substrates is UDP > GDP > UTP > GTP. Has very low activity towards ADP and even lower activity towards ATP. Does not hydrolyze AMP and GMP. Involved in proteoglycan synthesis.

Directly regulates filament dynamics and has been implicated in a number of complex developmental and morphological processes, including mRNA localization and the establishment of cell polarity

This is a neutrophil granule-derived antibacterial and monocyte- and fibroblast-specific chemotactic glycoprotein. Binds heparin. The cytotoxic action is limited to many species of Gram- negative bacteria; this specificity may be explained by a strong affinity of the very basic N-terminal half for the negatively charged lipopolysaccharides that are unique to the Gram-negative bacterial outer envelope. It may play a role in mediating recruitment of monocytes in the second wave of inflammation. Has antibacterial activity against the Gram-negative bacterium P.aeruginosa, this activity is inhibited by LPS from P.aeruginosa. Acting alone, it does not have antimicrobial activity against the Gram-negative bacteria A.actinomycetemcomitans ATCC 29532, A.actinomycetemcomitans NCTC 9709, A.actinomycetemcomitans FDC-Y4, H.aphrophilus ATCC 13252, E.corrodens ATCC 23834, C.sputigena ATCC 33123, Capnocytophaga sp ATCC 33124, Capnocytophaga sp ATCC 27872 or E.coli ML-35. Has antibacterial activity against C.sputigena ATCC 33123 when acting synergistically with either elastase or cathepsin G.

Cap-specific adenosine methyltransferase that catalyzes formation of N(6),2'-O-dimethyladenosine cap (m6A(m)) by methylating the adenosine at the second transcribed position of capped mRNAs. Recruited to the early elongation complex of RNA polymerase II (RNAPII) via interaction with POLR2A and mediates formation of m6A(m) co-transcriptionally.

Calcium-sensitive protein which reversibly blocks the barbed ends of actin filaments but does not sever preformed actin filaments. May play an important role in macrophage function. May play a role in regulating cytoplasmic and/or nuclear structures through potential interactions with actin. May bind DNA

Adapter protein involved in neuronal nitric-oxide (NO) synthesis regulation via its association with nNOS/NOS1. The complex formed with NOS1 and synapsins is necessary for specific NO and synapsin functions at a presynaptic level. Mediates an indirect interaction between NOS1 and RASD1 leading to enhance the ability of NOS1 to activate RASD1. Competes with DLG4 for interaction with NOS1, possibly affecting NOS1 activity by regulating the interaction between NOS1 and DLG4 (By similarity). In kidney podocytes, plays a role in podosomes and filopodia formation through CDC42 activation.

May regulate the transport and translation of mRNAs of proteins involved in synaptic plasticity in neurons and cell proliferation and migration in multiple cell types. Binds directly and selectively to MYC and CCND2 RNAs. In neuronal cells, directly binds to several mRNAs associated with RNA granules, including BDNF, CAMK2A, CREB1, MAP2, NTRK2 mRNAs, as well as to GRIN1 and KPNB1 mRNAs, but not to rRNAs.

Calcium-binding protein involved in exocytosis of vesicles filled with neurotransmitters and neuropeptides. Probably acts upstream of fusion in the biogenesis or maintenance of mature secretory vesicles. Regulates catecholamine loading of DCVs. May specifically mediate the Ca(2+)-dependent exocytosis of large dense-core vesicles (DCVs) and other dense-core vesicles by acting as a PtdIns(4,5)P2- binding protein that acts at prefusion step following ATP-dependent priming and participates in DCVs-membrane fusion. However, it may also participate in small clear synaptic vesicles (SVs) exocytosis and it is unclear whether its function is related to Ca(2+) triggering (By similarity).

Calcium-binding protein involved in exocytosis of vesicles filled with neurotransmitters and neuropeptides. Probably acts upstream of fusion in the biogenesis or maintenance of mature secretory vesicles. Regulates neurotrophin release from granule cells leading to regulate cell differentiation and survival during cerebellar development. May specifically mediate the Ca(2+)-dependent exocytosis of large dense-core vesicles (DCVs) and other dense-core vesicles (By similarity).

F-actin-capping proteins bind in a Ca(2+)-independent manner to the fast growing ends of actin filaments (barbed end) thereby blocking the exchange of subunits at these ends. Unlike other capping proteins (such as gelsolin and severin), these proteins do not sever actin filaments. Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization.

Scaffold protein that plays an important role in mediating the activation of NF-kappa-B via BCL10 or EGFR.

Adapter protein that plays a key role in adaptive immune response by transducing the activation of NF-kappa-B downstream of T- cell receptor (TCR) and B-cell receptor (BCR) engagement. Transduces signals downstream TCR or BCR activation via the formation of a multiprotein complex together with BCL10 and MALT1 that induces NF-kappa-B and MAP kinase p38 (MAPK11, MAPK12, MAPK13 and/or MAPK14) pathways. Upon activation in response to TCR or BCR triggering, CARD11 homooligomerizes to form a nucleating helical template that recruits BCL10 via CARD-CARD interaction, thereby promoting polymerization of BCL10 and subsequent recruitment of MALT1: this leads to I-kappa-B kinase (IKK) phosphorylation and degradation, and release of NF-kappa-B proteins for nuclear translocation. Its binding to DPP4 induces T-cell proliferation and NF-kappa-B activation in a T-cell receptor/CD3-dependent manner. Promotes linear ubiquitination of BCL10 by promoting the targeting of BCL10 to RNF31/HOIP. Stimulates the phosphorylation of BCL10. Also activates the TORC1 signaling pathway.

Acts as a scaffolding protein that can activate the inflammatory transcription factor NF-kappa-B and p38/JNK MAP kinase signaling pathways. Forms a signaling complex with BCL10 and MALT1, and activates MALT1 proteolytic activity and inflammatory gene expression. MALT1 is indispensable for CARD14-induced activation of NF-kappa-B and p38/JNK MAP kinases. May play a role in signaling mediated by TRAF2, TRAF3 and TRAF6 and protects cells against apoptosis.

Caspase inhibitor. Acts as a regulator of procaspase-1/CASP1 activation implicated in the regulation of the proteolytic maturation of pro-interleukin-1 beta (IL1B) and its release during inflammation. Inhibits the release of IL1B in response to LPS in monocytes. Also induces NF-kappa-B activation during the pro-inflammatory cytokine response. Also able to inhibit CASP1-mediated neuronal cell death, TNF- alpha, hypoxia-, UV-, and staurosporine-mediated cell death but not ER stress-mediated cell death. Acts by preventing activation of caspases CASP1 and CASP4, possibly by preventing the interaction between CASP1 and RIPK2.

Inhibits generation of IL-1-beta by interacting with caspase- 1 and preventing its association with RIP2. Down-regulates the release of IL1B.

Plays a role in inhibiting the effects of BCL10-induced activation of NF-kappa-B. May inhibit the phosphorylation of BCL10 in a CARD-dependent manner.

Inflammasome sensor, which mediates inflammasome activation in response to various pathogen-associated signals, leading to subsequent pyroptosis of CD4(+) T-cells and macrophages. Inflammasomes are supramolecular complexes that assemble in the cytosol in response to pathogens and other damage-associated signals and play critical roles in innate immunity and inflammation. Acts as a recognition receptor (PRR): recognizes specific pathogens and other damage-associated signals, such as HIV-1 protease activity or Val-boroPro inhibitor, and mediates CARD8 inflammasome activation. In response to pathogen-associated signals, the N-terminal part of CARD8 is degraded by the proteasome, releasing the cleaved C-terminal part of the protein (Caspase recruitment domain-containing protein 8, C- terminus), which polymerizes to initiate the formation of the inflammasome complex: the CARD8 inflammasome directly recruits pro- caspase-1 (proCASP1) independently of PYCARD/ASC and promotes caspase-1 (CASP1) activation, which subsequently cleaves and activates inflammatory cytokines IL1B and IL18 and gasdermin-D (GSDMD), leading to pyroptosis. Ability to sense HIV-1 protease activity leads to the clearance of latent HIV-1 in patient CD4(+) T-cells after viral reactivation; in contrast, HIV-1 can evade CARD8-sensing when its protease remains inactive in infected cells prior to viral budding. Also acts as a negative regulator of the NLRP3 inflammasome. May also act as an inhibitor of NF- kappa-B activation.

Adapter protein that plays a key role in innate immune response against fungi by forming signaling complexes downstream of C- type lectin receptors. CARD9- mediated signals are essential for antifungal immunity against a subset of fungi from the phylum Ascomycota. Transduces signals in myeloid cells downstream of C-type lectin receptors CLEC7A (dectin- 1), CLEC6A (dectin-2) and CLEC4E (Mincle), which detect pathogen- associated molecular pattern metabolites (PAMPs), such as fungal carbohydrates, and trigger CARD9 activation (By similarity). Upon activation, CARD9 homooligomerizes to form a nucleating helical template that recruits BCL10 via CARD-CARD interaction, thereby promoting polymerization of BCL10 and subsequent recruitment of MALT1: this leads to activation of NF-kappa-B and MAP kinase p38 (MAPK11, MAPK12, MAPK13 and/or MAPK14) pathways which stimulate expression of genes encoding pro-inflammatory cytokines and chemokines. CARD9 signaling in antigen-presenting cells links innate sensing of fungi to the activation of adaptive immunity and provides a cytokine milieu that induces the development and subsequent of interleukin 17-producing T helper (Th17) cells. Also involved in activation of myeloid cells via classical ITAM- associated receptors and TLR: required for TLR-mediated activation of MAPK, while it is not required for TLR-induced activation of NF-kappa-B (By similarity). CARD9 can also be engaged independently of BCL10: forms a complex with RASGRF1 downstream of C-type lectin receptors, which recruits and activates HRAS, leading to ERK activation and the production of cytokines (By similarity). Acts as an important regulator of the intestinal commensal fungi (mycobiota) component of the gut microbiota. Plays an essential role in antifungal immunity against dissemination of gut fungi: acts by promoting induction of antifungal IgG antibodies response in CX3CR1(+) macrophages to confer protection against disseminated C.albicans or C.auris infection. Also mediates immunity against other pathogens, such as certain bacteria, viruses and parasites; CARD9 signaling is however redundant with other innate immune responses (By similarity). In response to L.monocytogenes infection, required for the production of inflammatory cytokines activated by intracellular peptidoglycan: acts by connecting NOD2 recognition of peptidoglycan to downstream activation of MAP kinases (MAPK) without activating NF- kappa-B (By similarity).

Regulates DNA damage response in a dose-dependent manner through a number of signaling pathways involved in cell proliferation, apoptosis and senescence.

Cell membrane-cytoskeleton-associated protein that plays a role in the regulation of actin polymerization at the barbed end of actin filaments. Prevents F-actin heterodimeric capping protein (CP) activity at the leading edges of migrating cells, and hence generates uncapped barbed ends and enhances actin polymerization, however, seems unable to nucleate filaments. Plays a role in lamellipodial protrusion formations and cell migration.

Cell membrane-cytoskeleton-associated protein that plays a role in the regulation of actin polymerization at the barbed end of actin filaments. Prevents F-actin heterodimeric capping protein (CP) activity at the leading edges of migrating cells, and hence generates uncapped barbed ends and enhances actin polymerization. Plays a role in cell protrusion formations; involved in cell polarity, lamellipodial assembly, membrane ruffling and macropinosome formations. Involved as well in cell migration and invadopodia formation during wound healing. Required for CD28-mediated stimulation of NF-kappa-B signaling, involved in naive T cells activation, maturation into T memory cells, and differentiation into T helper and T regulatory cells.

Methylates (mono- and asymmetric dimethylation) the guanidino nitrogens of arginyl residues in several proteins involved in DNA packaging, transcription regulation, pre-mRNA splicing, and mRNA stability. Recruited to promoters upon gene activation together with histone acetyltransferases from EP300/P300 and p160 families, methylates histone H3 at 'Arg-17' (H3R17me), forming mainly asymmetric dimethylarginine (H3R17me2a), leading to activates transcription via chromatin remodeling. During nuclear hormone receptor activation and TCF7L2/TCF4 activation, acts synergically with EP300/P300 and either one of the p160 histone acetyltransferases NCOA1/SRC1, NCOA2/GRIP1 and NCOA3/ACTR or CTNNB1/beta-catenin to activate transcription (By similarity). During myogenic transcriptional activation, acts together with NCOA3/ACTR as a coactivator for MEF2C (By similarity). During monocyte inflammatory stimulation, acts together with EP300/P300 as a coactivator for NF-kappa-B (By similarity). Acts as coactivator for PPARG, promotes adipocyte differentiation and the accumulation of brown fat tissue (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of pre-mRNA alternative splicing by methylation of splicing factors (By similarity). Also seems to be involved in p53/TP53 transcriptional activation (By similarity). Methylates EP300/P300, both at 'Arg-2142', which may loosen its interaction with NCOA2/GRIP1, and at 'Arg-580' and 'Arg-604' in the KIX domain, which impairs its interaction with CREB and inhibits CREB-dependent transcriptional activation. Also methylates arginine residues in RNA-binding proteins PABPC1, ELAVL1 and ELAV4, which may affect their mRNA- stabilizing properties and the half-life of their target mRNAs (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional coactivator of ACACA/acetyl-CoA carboxylase by enriching H3R17 methylation at its promoter, thereby positively regulating fatty acid synthesis (By similarity). Independently of its methyltransferase activity, involved in replication fork progression: promotes PARP1 recruitment to replication forks, leading to poly-ADP-ribosylation of chromatin at replication forks and reduced fork speed.

N-methyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of anserine (beta-alanyl-N(Pi)-methyl-L-histidine) from carnosine. Anserine, a methylated derivative of carnosine (beta-alanyl-L-histidine), is an abundant constituent of vertebrate skeletal muscles. Also methylates other L-histidine-containing di- and tripeptides such as Gly-Gly-His, Gly-His and homocarnosine (GABA-His).

Acts as a transcriptional activator that mediates the calcium- and neuron-selective induction of BDNF exon III transcription. Binds to the consensus calcium-response element CaRE1 5'-CTATTTCGAG-3' sequence.

Satiety factor closely associated with the actions of leptin and neuropeptide Y; this anorectic peptide inhibits both normal and starvation-induced feeding and completely blocks the feeding response induced by neuropeptide Y and regulated by leptin in the hypothalamus. It promotes neuronal development and survival in vitro.

Important role in the capacity of milk to transport calcium phosphate

Important role in determination of the surface properties of the casein micelles

Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Core component of the splicing-dependent multiprotein exon junction complex (EJC) deposited at splice junctions on mRNAs. The EJC is a dynamic structure consisting of core proteins and several peripheral nuclear and cytoplasmic associated factors that join the complex only transiently either during EJC assembly or during subsequent mRNA metabolism. The EJC marks the position of the exon-exon junction in the mature mRNA for the gene expression machinery and the core components remain bound to spliced mRNAs throughout all stages of mRNA metabolism thereby influencing downstream processes including nuclear mRNA export, subcellular mRNA localization, translation efficiency and nonsense-mediated mRNA decay (NMD). Stimulates the ATPase and RNA-helicase activities of EIF4A3. Plays a role in the stress response by participating in cytoplasmic stress granules assembly and by favoring cell recovery following stress. Component of the dendritic ribonucleoprotein particles (RNPs) in hippocampal neurons. May play a role in mRNA transport. Binds spliced mRNA in sequence-independent manner, 20-24 nucleotides upstream of mRNA exon-exon junctions. Binds poly(G) and poly(U) RNA homomer.

O-acetyltransferase that catalyzes 9-O-acetylation of sialic acids. Sialic acids are sugars at the reducing end of glycoproteins and glycolipids, and are involved in various processes such as cell-cell interactions, host-pathogen recognition.

Kappa-casein stabilizes micelle formation, preventing casein precipitation in milk

Scaffolding protein which plays a central coordinating role for tyrosine-kinase-based signaling related to cell adhesion. As a focal adhesion protein, plays a role in embryonic fibroblast migration (By similarity). May play an important role in integrin beta-1 or B cell antigen receptor (BCR) mediated signaling in B- and T-cells. Integrin beta-1 stimulation leads to recruitment of various proteins including CRKL and SHPTP2 to the tyrosine phosphorylated form. Promotes adhesion and migration of lymphocytes; as a result required for the correct migration of lymphocytes to the spleen and other secondary lymphoid organs. Plays a role in the organization of T-cell F- actin cortical cytoskeleton and the centralization of T-cell receptor microclusters at the immunological synapse (By similarity). Negatively regulates cilia outgrowth in polarized cysts (By similarity). Modulates cilia disassembly via activation of AURKA-mediated phosphorylation of HDAC6 and subsequent deacetylation of alpha-tubulin. Positively regulates RANKL-induced osteoclastogenesis (By similarity). Required for the maintenance of hippocampal dendritic spines in the dentate gyrus and CA1 regions, thereby involved in spatial learning and memory (By similarity).

Thiol protease involved in a variety of inflammatory processes by proteolytically cleaving other proteins, such as the precursors of the inflammatory cytokines interleukin-1 beta (IL1B) and interleukin 18 (IL18) as well as the pyroptosis inducer Gasdermin-D (GSDMD), into active mature peptides. Plays a key role in cell immunity as an inflammatory response initiator: once activated through formation of an inflammasome complex, it initiates a pro-inflammatory response through the cleavage of the two inflammatory cytokines IL1B and IL18, releasing the mature cytokines which are involved in a variety of inflammatory processes. Cleaves a tetrapeptide after an Asp residue at position P1. Also initiates pyroptosis, a programmed lytic cell death pathway, through cleavage of GSDMD. In contrast to cleavage of interleukins IL1B and IL1B, recognition and cleavage of GSDMD is not strictly dependent on the consensus cleavage site but depends on an exosite interface on CASP1 that recognizes and binds the Gasdermin-D, C-terminal (GSDMD-CT) part. Cleaves and activates CASP7 in response to bacterial infection, promoting plasma membrane repair. Upon inflammasome activation, during DNA virus infection but not RNA virus challenge, controls antiviral immunity through the cleavage of CGAS, rendering it inactive. In apoptotic cells, cleaves SPHK2 which is released from cells and remains enzymatically active extracellularly.

Involved in the activation cascade of caspases responsible for apoptosis execution. Might function by either activating some proteins required for cell death or inactivating proteins necessary for cell survival. Associates with PIDD1 and CRADD to form the PIDDosome, a complex that activates CASP2 and triggers apoptosis in response to genotoxic stress.

Thiol protease that acts as a major effector caspase involved in the execution phase of apoptosis. Following cleavage and activation by initiator caspases (CASP8, CASP9 and/or CASP10), mediates execution of apoptosis by catalyzing cleavage of many proteins. At the onset of apoptosis, it proteolytically cleaves poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase PARP1 at a '216-Asp-|-Gly-217' bond. Cleaves and activates sterol regulatory element binding proteins (SREBPs) between the basic helix-loop-helix leucine zipper domain and the membrane attachment domain (By similarity). Cleaves and activates caspase-6, -7 and -9. Involved in the cleavage of huntingtin. Triggers cell adhesion in sympathetic neurons through RET cleavage. Cleaves and inhibits serine/threonine-protein kinase AKT1 in response to oxidative stress. Acts as an inhibitor of type I interferon production during virus-induced apoptosis by mediating cleavage of antiviral proteins CGAS, IRF3 and MAVS, thereby preventing cytokine overproduction. Also involved in pyroptosis by mediating cleavage and activation of gasdermin-E (GSDME). Cleaves XRCC4 and phospholipid scramblase proteins XKR4, XKR8 and XKR9, leading to promote phosphatidylserine exposure on apoptotic cell surface.

Inflammatory caspase that acts as an essential effector of the NLRP3 and NLRP6 inflammasomes by mediating lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-induced pyroptosis. Thiol protease that cleaves a tetrapeptide after an Asp residue at position P1: catalyzes cleavage of CGAS, GSDMD and IL18. Required for innate immunity to cytosolic, but not vacuolar, bacteria (By similarity). Plays a key role in NLRP3-dependent CASP1 activation and IL1B and IL18 secretion in response to non-canonical activators, such as UVB radiation, cholera enterotoxin subunit B and cytosolic LPS. Activated by direct binding to LPS without the need of an upstream sensor. Involved in NLRP6 inflammasome-dependent activation in response to lipoteichoic acid (LTA), a cell-wall component of Gram-positive bacteria, which leads to CASP1 activation and IL1B and IL18 secretion. Independently of NLRP3 inflammasome and CASP1, promotes pyroptosis, through GSDMD cleavage and activation, followed by IL1A, IL18 and HMGB1 release in response to non-canonical inflammasome activators. Plays a crucial role in the restriction of Salmonella typhimurium replication in colonic epithelial cells during infection: in later stages of the infection, LPS from cytosolic Salmonella triggers CASP4 activation, which catalyzes cleavage of GSDMD, resulting in pyroptosis of infected cells and their extrusion into the gut lumen, as well as in IL18 secretion. Cleavage of GSDMD is not strictly dependent on the consensus cleavage site but depends on an exosite interface on CASP4 that recognizes and binds the Gasdermin- D, C-terminal (GSDMD-CT) part. Pyroptosis limits bacterial replication, while cytokine secretion promotes the recruitment and activation of immune cells and triggers mucosal inflammation. Involved in LPS-induced IL6 secretion; this activity may not require caspase enzymatic activity. Involved in cell death induced by endoplasmic reticulum stress and by treatment with cytotoxic APP peptides found in Alzheimer's patient brains. Catalyzes cleavage and maturation of IL18. In contrast, it does not directly process IL1B. During non-canonical inflammasome activation, cuts CGAS and may play a role in the regulation of antiviral innate immune activation.

Thiol protease that acts as a mediator of programmed cell death. Initiates pyroptosis, a programmed lytic cell death pathway through cleavage of Gasdermin-D (GSDMD): cleavage releases the N-terminal gasdermin moiety (Gasdermin- D, N-terminal) that binds to membranes and forms pores, triggering pyroptosis. During non-canonical inflammasome activation, cuts CGAS and may play a role in the regulation of antiviral innate immune activation.

Cysteine protease that plays essential roles in programmed cell death, axonal degeneration, development and innate immunity. Acts as a non- canonical executioner caspase during apoptosis: localizes in the nucleus and cleaves the nuclear structural protein NUMA1 and lamin A/LMNA thereby inducing nuclear shrinkage and fragmentation. Lamin-A/LMNA cleavage is required for chromatin condensation and nuclear disassembly during apoptotic execution. Acts as a regulator of liver damage by promoting hepatocyte apoptosis: in absence of phosphorylation by AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), catalyzes cleavage of BID, leading to cytochrome c release, thereby participating in nonalcoholic steatohepatitis. Cleaves PARK7/DJ-1 in cells undergoing apoptosis (By similarity). Involved in intrinsic apoptosis by mediating cleavage of RIPK1. Furthermore, cleaves many transcription factors such as NF-kappa-B and cAMP response element-binding protein/CREBBP. Cleaves phospholipid scramblase proteins XKR4 and XKR9 (By similarity). In addition to apoptosis, involved in different forms of programmed cell death. Plays an essential role in defense against viruses by acting as a central mediator of the ZBP1-mediated pyroptosis, apoptosis, and necroptosis (PANoptosis), independently of its cysteine protease activity. PANoptosis is a unique inflammatory programmed cell death, which provides a molecular scaffold that allows the interactions and activation of machinery required for inflammasome/pyroptosis, apoptosis and necroptosis. Mechanistically, interacts with RIPK3 and enhances the interaction between RIPK3 and ZBP1, leading to ZBP1-mediated inflammasome activation and cell death. Plays an essential role in axon degeneration during axon pruning which is the remodeling of axons during neurogenesis but not apoptosis (By similarity). Regulates B-cell programs both during early development and after antigen stimulation (By similarity).

Thiol protease involved in different programmed cell death processes, such as apoptosis, pyroptosis or granzyme-mediated programmed cell death, by proteolytically cleaving target proteins. Has a marked preference for Asp-Glu-Val-Asp (DEVD) consensus sequences, with some plasticity for alternate non-canonical sequences. Its involvement in the different programmed cell death processes is probably determined by upstream proteases that activate CASP7 (By similarity). Acts as an effector caspase involved in the execution phase of apoptosis: following cleavage and activation by initiator caspases (CASP8, CASP9 and/or CASP10), mediates execution of apoptosis by catalyzing cleavage of proteins, such as CLSPN, PARP1, PTGES3 and YY1. Compared to CASP3, acts as a minor executioner caspase and cleaves a limited set of target proteins. Acts as a key regulator of the inflammatory response in response to bacterial infection by catalyzing cleavage and activation of the sphingomyelin phosphodiesterase SMPD1 in the extracellular milieu, thereby promoting membrane repair. Regulates pyroptosis in intestinal epithelial cells: cleaved and activated by CASP1 in response to S.typhimurium infection, promoting its secretion to the extracellular milieu, where it catalyzes activation of SMPD1, generating ceramides that repair membranes and counteract the action of gasdermin-D (GSDMD) pores (By similarity). Regulates granzyme-mediated programmed cell death in hepatocytes: cleaved and activated by granzyme B (GZMB) in response to bacterial infection, promoting its secretion to the extracellular milieu, where it catalyzes activation of SMPD1, generating ceramides that repair membranes and counteract the action of perforin (PRF1) pores (By similarity). Following cleavage by CASP1 in response to inflammasome activation, catalyzes processing and inactivation of PARP1, alleviating the transcription repressor activity of PARP1. Acts as an inhibitor of type I interferon production during virus-induced apoptosis by mediating cleavage of antiviral proteins CGAS, IRF3 and MAVS, thereby preventing cytokine overproduction (By similarity). Cleaves and activates sterol regulatory element binding proteins (SREBPs). Cleaves phospholipid scramblase proteins XKR4, XKR8 and XKR9 (By similarity). In case of infection, catalyzes cleavage of Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus protein ORF57, thereby preventing expression of viral lytic genes.

Thiol protease that plays a key role in programmed cell death by acting as a molecular switch for apoptosis, necroptosis and pyroptosis, and is required to prevent tissue damage during embryonic development and adulthood (By similarity). Initiator protease that induces extrinsic apoptosis by mediating cleavage and activation of effector caspases responsible for the TNFRSF6/FAS mediated and TNFRSF1A induced cell death. Cleaves and activates effector caspases CASP3, CASP4, CASP6, CASP7, CASP9 and CASP10. Binding to the adapter molecule FADD recruits it to either receptor TNFRSF6/FAS mediated or TNFRSF1A. The resulting aggregate called death-inducing signaling complex (DISC) performs CASP8 proteolytic activation. The active dimeric enzyme is then liberated from the DISC and free to activate downstream apoptotic proteases. Proteolytic fragments of the N-terminal propeptide (termed CAP3, CAP5 and CAP6) are likely retained in the DISC. In addition to extrinsic apoptosis, also acts as a negative regulator of necroptosis: acts by cleaving RIPK1 at 'Asp-324', which is crucial to inhibit RIPK1 kinase activity, limiting TNF-induced apoptosis, necroptosis and inflammatory response. Also able to initiate pyroptosis by mediating cleavage and activation of gasdermin-D (GSDMD): GSDMD cleavage promoting release of the N-terminal moiety (Gasdermin-D, N-terminal) that binds to membranes and forms pores, triggering pyroptosis (By similarity). Initiates pyroptosis following inactivation of MAP3K7/TAK1 (By similarity). Also acts as a regulator of innate immunity by mediating cleavage and inactivation of N4BP1 downstream of TLR3 or TLR4, thereby promoting cytokine production (By similarity). May participate in the Granzyme B (GZMB) cell death pathways. Cleaves PARP1 and PARP2.

Involved in the activation cascade of caspases responsible for apoptosis execution. Binding of caspase-9 to Apaf-1 leads to activation of the protease which then cleaves and activates effector caspases caspase-3 (CASP3) or caspase-7 (CASP7). Promotes DNA damage- induced apoptosis in a ABL1/c-Abl-dependent manner. Proteolytically cleaves poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP).

Involved in the activation cascade of caspases responsible for apoptosis execution. Recruited to both Fas- and TNFR-1 receptors in a FADD dependent manner. May participate in the granzyme B apoptotic pathways. Cleaves and activates effector caspases CASP3, CASP4, CASP6, CASP7, CASP8 and CASP9. Hydrolyzes the small- molecule substrates, Tyr- Val-Ala-Asp-|-AMC and Asp-Glu-Val-Asp-|-AMC.

Non-apoptotic caspase involved in epidermal differentiation. Is the predominant caspase in epidermal stratum corneum. Seems to play a role in keratinocyte differentiation and is required for cornification. Regulates maturation of the epidermis by proteolytically processing filaggrin (By similarity). In vitro has a preference for the substrate [WY]-X-X-D motif and is active on the synthetic caspase substrate WEHD-ACF. Involved in processing of prosaposin in the epidermis (By similarity). May be involved in retinal pigment epithelium cell barrier function. Involved in DNA degradation in differentiated keratinocytes probably by cleaving DFFA/ICAD leading to liberation of DFFB/CAD.

Calsequestrin is a high-capacity, moderate affinity, calcium- binding protein and thus acts as an internal calcium store in muscle. Calcium ions are bound by clusters of acidic residues at the protein surface, often at the interface between subunits. Can bind around 80 Ca(2+) ions. Regulates the release of lumenal Ca(2+) via the calcium release channel RYR1; this plays an important role in triggering muscle contraction. Negatively regulates store-operated Ca(2+) entry (SOCE) activity.

Calsequestrin is a high-capacity, moderate affinity, calcium- binding protein and thus acts as an internal calcium store in muscle. Calcium ions are bound by clusters of acidic residues at the protein surface, especially at the interface between subunits. Can bind around 60 Ca(2+) ions. Regulates the release of lumenal Ca(2+) via the calcium release channel RYR2; this plays an important role in triggering muscle contraction. Plays a role in excitation-contraction coupling in the heart and in regulating the rate of heart beats.

G-protein-coupled receptor that senses changes in the extracellular concentration of calcium ions and plays a key role in maintaining calcium homeostasis. Senses fluctuations in the circulating calcium concentration and modulates the production of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in parathyroid glands (By similarity). The activity of this receptor is mediated by a G-protein that activates a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. The G-protein-coupled receptor activity is activated by a co-agonist mechanism: aromatic amino acids, such as Trp or Phe, act concertedly with divalent cations, such as calcium or magnesium, to achieve full receptor activation.

Docking protein that plays a role in tyrosine kinase-based signaling related to cell adhesion and cell spreading. Regulates PTK2/FAK1 activity, focal adhesion integrity, and cell spreading.

Functions as an intracellular arginine sensor within the amino acid-sensing branch of the TORC1 signaling pathway. As a homodimer or a heterodimer with CASTOR2, binds and inhibits the GATOR subcomplex GATOR2 and thereby mTORC1. Binding of arginine to CASTOR1 allosterically disrupts the interaction of CASTOR1-containing dimers with GATOR2 which can in turn activate mTORC1 and the TORC1 signaling pathway.

Functions as a negative regulator of the TORC1 signaling pathway through the GATOR complex. As part of homodimers or heterodimers with CASTOR1, directly binds and inhibits the GATOR subcomplex GATOR2 and thereby mTORC1. Does not directly bind arginine, but binding of arginine to CASTOR1 disrupts the interaction of CASTOR2- containing heterodimers with GATOR2 which can in turn activate mTORC1 and the TORC1 signaling pathway.

Transcriptional activator. Involved in vascular assembly and morphogenesis through direct transcriptional regulation of EGFL7.

Negative regulator of centrosome duplication. Constrains centriole number by modulating the degradation of the centrosome-duplication-associated protein SASS6 in an acetylation-dependent manner. SIRT1 deacetylates CENATAC in G1 phase, allowing for SASS6 accumulation on the centrosome and subsequent procentriole assembly. The CENATAC acetylation level is restored in mitosis by NAT10, promoting SASS6 proteasome degradation by facilitating SASS6 binding to APC/C E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex/FZR1.

Catalyzes the degradation of hydrogen peroxide (H(2)O(2)) generated by peroxisomal oxidases to water and oxygen, thereby protecting cells from the toxic effects of hydrogen peroxide. Promotes growth of cells including T-cells, B-cells, myeloid leukemia cells, melanoma cells, mastocytoma cells and normal and transformed fibroblast cells.

Thiol protease which is believed to participate in intracellular degradation and turnover of proteins. Cleaves matrix extracellular phosphoglycoprotein MEPE. Involved in the solubilization of cross-linked TG/thyroglobulin in the thyroid follicle lumen (By similarity). Has also been implicated in tumor invasion and metastasis.

Thiol protease. Has dipeptidylpeptidase activity. Active against a broad range of dipeptide substrates composed of both polar and hydrophobic amino acids. Proline cannot occupy the P1 position and arginine cannot occupy the P2 position of the substrate. Can act as both an exopeptidase and endopeptidase. Activates serine proteases such as elastase, cathepsin G and granzymes A and B. Can also activate neuraminidase and factor XIII.

Acid protease active in intracellular protein breakdown. Plays a role in APP processing following cleavage and activation by ADAM30 which leads to APP degradation. Involved in the pathogenesis of several diseases such as breast cancer and possibly Alzheimer disease.

May have a role in immune function. Probably involved in the processing of antigenic peptides during MHC class II-mediated antigen presentation. May play a role in activation-induced lymphocyte depletion in the thymus, and in neuronal degeneration and glial cell activation in the brain.

Thiol protease which is believed to participate in intracellular degradation and turnover of proteins. Has also been implicated in tumor invasion and metastasis

Serine protease with trypsin- and chymotrypsin-like specificity. Also displays antibacterial activity against Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria independent of its protease activity. Prefers Phe and Tyr residues in the P1 position of substrates but also cleaves efficiently after Trp and Leu. Shows a preference for negatively charged amino acids in the P2' position and for aliphatic amino acids both upstream and downstream of the cleavage site. Required for recruitment and activation of platelets which is mediated by the F2RL3/PAR4 platelet receptor. Binds reversibly to and stimulates B cells and CD4(+) and CD8(+) T cells. Also binds reversibly to natural killer (NK) cells and enhances NK cell cytotoxicity through its protease activity. Cleaves complement C3. Cleaves vimentin (By similarity). Cleaves thrombin receptor F2R/PAR1 and acts as either an agonist or an inhibitor, depending on the F2R cleavage site. Cleavage of F2R at '41-Arg-|- Ser-42' results in receptor activation while cleavage at '55-Phe-|-Trp- 56' results in inhibition of receptor activation. Cleaves the synovial mucin-type protein PRG4/lubricin. Cleaves and activates IL36G which promotes expression of chemokines CXCL1 and CXLC8 in keratinocytes. Cleaves IL33 into mature forms which have greater activity than the unprocessed form. Cleaves coagulation factor F8 to produce a partially activated form. Also cleaves and activates coagulation factor F10. Cleaves leukocyte cell surface protein SPN/CD43 to releases its extracellular domain and trigger its intramembrane proteolysis by gamma-secretase, releasing the CD43 cytoplasmic tail chain (CD43-ct) which translocates to the nucleus. Cleaves CCL5/RANTES to produce RANTES(4-68) lacking the N-terminal three amino acids which exhibits reduced chemotactic and antiviral activities. During apoptosis, cleaves SMARCA2/BRM to produce a 160 kDa cleavage product which localizes to the cytosol. Cleaves myelin basic protein MBP in B cell lysosomes at '224-Phe-|-Lys-225' and '248-Phe-|-Ser-249', degrading the major immunogenic MBP epitope and preventing the activation of MBP-specific autoreactive T cells. Cleaves annexin ANXA1 and antimicrobial peptide CAMP to produce peptides which act on neutrophil N-formyl peptide receptors to enhance the release of CXCL2. Acts as a ligand for the N-formyl peptide receptor FPR1, enhancing phagocyte chemotaxis. Has antibacterial activity against the Gram-negative bacteria N.gonorrhoeae and P.aeruginosa. Likely to act against N.gonorrhoeae by interacting with N.gonorrhoeae penA/PBP2. Exhibits potent antimicrobial activity against the Gram-positive bacterium L.monocytogenes. Has antibacterial activity against the Gram-positive bacterium S.aureus and degrades S.aureus biofilms, allowing polymorphonuclear leukocytes to penetrate the biofilm and phagocytose bacteria. Has antibacterial activity against M.tuberculosis. Mediates CASP4 activation induced by the Td92 surface protein of the periodontal pathogen T.denticola, causing production and secretion of IL1A and leading to pyroptosis of gingival fibroblasts.

Plays a role in pre-mRNA splicing by facilitating excision of a subset of introns. Required for the splicing of CDCA5/Sororin, a regulator of sister chromatid cohesion. Involved in the regulation of innate immune response. Acts as negative regulator of Toll-like receptor, interferon-regulatory factor (IRF) and canonical NF-kappa-B signaling pathways. Contributes to the regulation of transcriptional activation of NF-kappa-B target genes in response to endogenous pro-inflammatory stimuli.

Plays a role in primary ciliogenesis by modulating actin polymerization.

Thiol protease involved in osteoclastic bone resorption and may participate partially in the disorder of bone remodeling. Displays potent endoprotease activity against fibrinogen at acid pH. May play an important role in extracellular matrix degradation. Involved in the release of thyroid hormone thyroxine (T4) by limited proteolysis of TG/thyroglobulin in the thyroid follicle lumen.

Thiol protease important for the overall degradation of proteins in lysosomes (Probable). Plays a critical for normal cellular functions such as general protein turnover, antigen processing and bone remodeling. Involved in the solubilization of cross-linked TG/thyroglobulin and in the subsequent release of thyroid hormone thyroxine (T4) by limited proteolysis of TG/thyroglobulin in the thyroid follicle lumen (By similarity). In neuroendocrine chromaffin cells secretory vesicles, catalyzes the prohormone proenkephalin processing to the active enkephalin peptide neurotransmitter (By similarity). In thymus, regulates CD4(+) T cell positive selection by generating the major histocompatibility complex class II (MHCII) bound peptide ligands presented by cortical thymic epithelial cells. Also mediates invariant chain processing in cortical thymic epithelial cells (By similarity). Major elastin-degrading enzyme at neutral pH. Accumulates as a mature and active enzyme in the extracellular space of antigen presenting cells (APCs) to regulate degradation of the extracellular matrix in the course of inflammation (By similarity). Secreted form generates endostatin from COL18A1. Critical for cardiac morphology and function. Plays an important role in hair follicle morphogenesis and cycling, as well as epidermal differentiation (By similarity). Required for maximal stimulation of steroidogenesis by TIMP1 (By similarity).

Cysteine protease. May have an important role in corneal physiology.

Proteolytic enzyme possibly involved in normal cellular protein degradation and turnover

Thiol protease. Key protease responsible for the removal of the invariant chain from MHC class II molecules and MHC class II antigen presentation. The bond-specificity of this proteinase is in part similar to the specificities of cathepsin L.

May have a specific function in the mechanism or regulation of T-cell cytolytic activity

Exhibits carboxy-monopeptidase as well as carboxy-dipeptidase activity. Capable of producing kinin potentiating peptides (By similarity).

May act as a scaffolding protein within caveolar membranes. Forms a stable heterooligomeric complex with CAV2 that targets to lipid rafts and drives caveolae formation. Mediates the recruitment of CAVIN proteins (CAVIN1/2/3/4) to the caveolae. Interacts directly with G-protein alpha subunits and can functionally regulate their activity (By similarity). Involved in the costimulatory signal essential for T-cell receptor (TCR)-mediated T-cell activation. Its binding to DPP4 induces T-cell proliferation and NF-kappa-B activation in a T-cell receptor/CD3-dependent manner. Recruits CTNNB1 to caveolar membranes and may regulate CTNNB1-mediated signaling through the Wnt pathway (By similarity). Negatively regulates TGFB1-mediated activation of SMAD2/3 by mediating the internalization of TGFBR1 from membrane rafts leading to its subsequent degradation.

May act as a scaffolding protein within caveolar membranes. Interacts directly with G-protein alpha subunits and can functionally regulate their activity. Acts as an accessory protein in conjunction with CAV1 in targeting to lipid rafts and driving caveolae formation. The Ser-36 phosphorylated form has a role in modulating mitosis in endothelial cells. Positive regulator of cellular mitogenesis of the MAPK signaling pathway. Required for the insulin-stimulated nuclear translocation and activation of MAPK1 and STAT3, and the subsequent regulation of cell cycle progression (By similarity).

May act as a scaffolding protein within caveolar membranes. Interacts directly with G-protein alpha subunits and can functionally regulate their activity. May also regulate voltage-gated potassium channels. Plays a role in the sarcolemma repair mechanism of both skeletal muscle and cardiomyocytes that permits rapid resealing of membranes disrupted by mechanical stress (By similarity). Mediates the recruitment of CAVIN2 and CAVIN3 proteins to the caveolae.

Plays an important role in caveolae formation and organization. Essential for the formation of caveolae in all tissues. Core component of the CAVIN complex which is essential for recruitment of the complex to the caveolae in presence of calveolin-1 (CAV1). Essential for normal oligomerization of CAV1. Promotes ribosomal transcriptional activity in response to metabolic challenges in the adipocytes and plays an important role in the formation of the ribosomal transcriptional loop. Dissociates transcription complexes paused by DNA-bound TTF1, thereby releasing both RNA polymerase I and pre-RNA from the template (By similarity). The caveolae biogenesis pathway is required for the secretion of proteins such as GASK1A (By similarity).

Plays an important role in caveolar biogenesis and morphology. Regulates caveolae morphology by inducing membrane curvature within caveolae. Plays a role in caveola formation in a tissue-specific manner. Required for the formation of caveolae in the lung and fat endothelia but not in the heart endothelia. Negatively regulates the size or stability of CAVIN complexes in the lung endothelial cells. May play a role in targeting PRKCA to caveolae (By similarity).

Regulates the traffic and/or budding of caveolae. Plays a role in caveola formation in a tissue- specific manner. Required for the formation of caveolae in smooth muscle but not in the lung and heart endothelial cells. Regulates the equilibrium between cell surface-associated and cell surface- dissociated caveolae by promoting the rapid release of caveolae from the cell surface. Plays a role in the regulation of the circadian clock. Modulates the period length and phase of circadian gene expression and also regulates expression and interaction of the core clock components PER1/2 and CRY1/2 (By similarity).

Modulates the morphology of formed caveolae in cardiomyocytes, but is not required for caveolar formation. Facilitates the recruitment of MAPK1/3 to caveolae within cardiomyocytes and regulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptor-induced hypertrophic responses in cardiomyocytes through MAPK1/3 activation. Contributes to proper membrane localization and stabilization of caveolin-3 (CAV3) in cardiomyocytes (By similarity). Induces RHOA activation and activates NPPA transcription and myofibrillar organization through the Rho/ROCK signaling pathway.

Calcium-binding protein. May play a role in cellular signaling events (Potential).

F-actin-capping proteins bind in a Ca(2+)-independent manner to the fast growing ends of actin filaments (barbed end) thereby blocking the exchange of subunits at these ends. Unlike other capping proteins (such as gelsolin and severin), these proteins do not sever actin filaments. May play a role in the formation of epithelial cell junctions.

F-actin-capping proteins bind in a Ca(2+)-independent manner to the fast growing ends of actin filaments (barbed end) thereby blocking the exchange of subunits at these ends. Unlike other capping proteins (such as gelsolin and severin), these proteins do not sever actin filaments

F-actin-capping proteins bind in a Ca(2+)-independent manner to the fast growing ends of actin filaments (barbed end) thereby blocking the exchange of subunits at these ends. Unlike other capping proteins (such as gelsolin and severin), these proteins do not sever actin filaments. May play a role in the morphogenesis of spermatid (By similarity).

Component of a complex that binds and activates STK11/LKB1. In the complex, required to stabilize the interaction between CAB39/MO25 (CAB39/MO25alpha or CAB39L/MO25beta) and STK11/LKB1 (By similarity).

Acts as a positive regulator of ciliary hedgehog signaling (By similarity). Probable regulator of ciliogenesis involved in limb morphogenesis. In cooperation with CBY1 it is involved in the recruitment and fusion of endosomal vesicles at distal appendages during early stages of ciliogenesis. Plays an important role in the mitochondrial function and is essential for maintaining mitochondrial morphology and inner membrane ultrastructure. In vitro, can generate membrane curvature through preferential interaction with negatively charged phospholipids such as phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate and cardiolipin and hence orchestrate cristae shape.

Negatively regulates voltage-gated calcium channels by preventing the interaction between their alpha and beta subunits. Thereby, negatively regulates calcium channels activity at the plasma membrane and indirectly inhibits calcium-regulated exocytosis.

Major transport protein for glucocorticoids and progestins in the blood of almost all vertebrate species.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from specific E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes, and transfers it to substrates, generally promoting their degradation by the proteasome. Negatively regulates TCR (T-cell receptor), BCR (B-cell receptor) and FCER1 (high affinity immunoglobulin epsilon receptor) signal transduction pathways. In naive T-cells, inhibits VAV1 activation upon TCR engagement and imposes a requirement for CD28 costimulation for proliferation and IL-2 production. Also acts by promoting PIK3R1/p85 ubiquitination, which impairs its recruitment to the TCR and subsequent activation. In activated T-cells, inhibits PLCG1 activation and calcium mobilization upon restimulation and promotes anergy. In B-cells, acts by ubiquitinating SYK and promoting its proteasomal degradation. Slightly promotes SRC ubiquitination. May be involved in EGFR ubiquitination and internalization. May be functionally coupled with the E2 ubiquitin-protein ligase UB2D3. In association with CBL, required for proper feedback inhibition of ciliary platelet-derived growth factor receptor-alpha (PDGFRA) signaling pathway via ubiquitination and internalization of PDGFRA (By similarity).

Acts as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase, which accepts ubiquitin from specific E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes, and then transfers it to substrates promoting their degradation by the proteasome. Functionally coupled with the E2 ubiquitin-protein ligases UB2D1, UB2D2 and UB2D3. Regulator of EGFR mediated signal transduction; upon EGF activation, ubiquitinates EGFR. Isoform 1, but not isoform 2, inhibits EGF stimulated MAPK1 activation. Promotes ubiquitination of SRC phosphorylated at 'Tyr-419'. In collaboration with CD2AP may act as regulatory checkpoint for Ret signaling by modulating the rate of RET degradation after ligand activation; CD2AP converts it from an inhibitor to a promoter of RET degradation; the function limits the potency of GDNF on neuronal survival.

E3 ubiquitin ligase catalyzing the covalent attachment of ubiquitin moieties onto substrate proteins. May operate on tyrosine-phosphorylated SRC substrates.

Required for synapse integrity and synaptic plasticity. During cerebellar synapse formation, essential for the matching and maintenance of pre- and post-synaptic elements at parallel fiber- Purkinje cell synapses, the establishment of the proper pattern of climbing fiber-Purkinje cell innervation, and induction of long-term depression at parallel fiber-Purkinje cell synapses. Plays a role as a synaptic organizer that acts bidirectionally on both pre- and post- synaptic components. On the one hand induces accumulation of synaptic vesicles in the pre-synaptic part by binding with NRXN1 and in other hand induces clustering of GRID2 and its associated proteins at the post-synaptic site through association of GRID2. NRXN1-CBLN1-GRID2 complex directly induces parallel fiber protrusions that encapsulate spines of Purkinje cells leading to accumulation of GRID2 and synaptic vesicles. Required for CBLN3 export from the endoplasmic reticulum and secretion (By similarity). NRXN1-CBLN1-GRID2 complex mediates the D- Serine-dependent long term depression signals and AMPA receptor endocytosis. Essential for long-term maintenance but not establishment of excitatory synapses (By similarity). Inhibits the formation and function of inhibitory GABAergic synapses in cerebellar Purkinje cells (By similarity).

Acts as a synaptic organizer in specific subsets of neurons in the brain (By similarity). Essential for long-term maintenance but not establishment of excitatory synapses (By similarity).

Acts as a synaptic organizer in specific subsets of neurons in the brain (By similarity). Essential for the formation and maintenance of inhibitory GABAergic synapses (By similarity). Promotes the development of dendrite-targeting inhibitory GABAergic synapses made by somatostatin-positive interneurons (By similarity). May contribute to the function of ventral medial habenula region of the brain implicated in the regulation of anxiety-related behaviors (By similarity). May play a role in CBLN3 export from the endoplasmic reticulum and secretion (By similarity).

Adapter protein that functions as a negative regulator of many signaling pathways that are triggered by activation of cell surface receptors. Acts as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase, which accepts ubiquitin from specific E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes, and then transfers it to substrates promoting their degradation by the proteasome. Ubiquitinates SPRY2. Ubiquitinates EGFR. Recognizes activated receptor tyrosine kinases, including KIT, FLT1, FGFR1, FGFR2, PDGFRA, PDGFRB, CSF1R, EPHA8 and KDR and terminates signaling. Recognizes membrane-bound HCK, SRC and other kinases of the SRC family and mediates their ubiquitination and degradation. Participates in signal transduction in hematopoietic cells. Plays an important role in the regulation of osteoblast differentiation and apoptosis. Essential for osteoclastic bone resorption. The 'Tyr-731' phosphorylated form induces the activation and recruitment of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase to the cell membrane in a signaling pathway that is critical for osteoclast function. May be functionally coupled with the E2 ubiquitin- protein ligase UB2D3. In association with CBLB, required for proper feedback inhibition of ciliary platelet-derived growth factor receptor- alpha (PDGFRA) signaling pathway via ubiquitination and internalization of PDGFRA (By similarity).

Carboxypeptidase that catalyzes the release of a C-terminal amino acid, but has little or no action with -Asp, -Glu, -Arg, -Lys or -Pro. Catalyzes the conversion of leukotriene C4 to leukotriene F4 via the hydrolysis of an amide bond (By similarity).

Metalloprotease that could be involved in the histone hyperacetylation pathway. Releases a C-terminal amino acid, with preference for -Phe, -Leu, -Ile, -Met, -Tyr and -Val.

May be involved in the proteolytic inactivation of enkephalins and neurotensin in some brain areas. May convert inactive angiotensin I into the biologically active angiotensin II. Releases a C-terminal amino acid, with preference for large hydrophobic C-terminal amino acids and shows only very weak activity toward small amino acids and histidine.

Cleaves C-terminal arginine or lysine residues from biologically active peptides such as kinins or anaphylatoxins in the circulation thereby regulating their activities. Down-regulates fibrinolysis by removing C-terminal lysine residues from fibrin that has already been partially degraded by plasmin.

Metallocarboxypeptidase that mediates protein deglutamylation of tubulin and non-tubulin target proteins. Catalyzes the removal of polyglutamate side chains present on the gamma-carboxyl group of glutamate residues within the C-terminal tail of alpha- and beta- tubulin. Specifically cleaves tubulin long-side-chains, while it is not able to remove the branching point glutamate. Also catalyzes the removal of polyglutamate residues from the carboxy-terminus of alpha-tubulin as well as non-tubulin proteins such as MYLK. Involved in KLF4 deglutamylation which promotes KLF4 proteasome-mediated degradation, thereby negatively regulating cell pluripotency maintenance and embryogenesis.

Metallocarboxypeptidase that mediates deglutamylation of tubulin and non-tubulin target proteins. Catalyzes the removal of polyglutamate side chains present on the gamma-carboxyl group of glutamate residues within the C-terminal tail of tubulin protein. Specifically cleaves tubulin long-side-chains, while it is not able to remove the branching point glutamate. Also catalyzes the removal of polyglutamate residues from the carboxy-terminus of non-tubulin proteins such as MYLK.

Metallocarboxypeptidase that mediates deglutamylation of tubulin and non-tubulin target proteins. Catalyzes the removal of polyglutamate side chains present on the gamma-carboxyl group of glutamate residues within the C-terminal tail of tubulin protein. Specifically cleaves tubulin long-side-chains, while it is not able to remove the branching point glutamate. Also catalyzes the removal of polyglutamate residues from the carboxy-terminus of non-tubulin proteins such as MYLK. May catalyze the hydrolysis of aspartate from the carboxy-terminus of target proteins. Does not show detyrosinase or deglycylase activities from the carboxy-terminus of target proteins.

Metallocarboxypeptidase that mediates deglutamylation of tubulin and non-tubulin target proteins. Catalyzes the removal of polyglutamate side chains present on the gamma-carboxyl group of glutamate residues within the C-terminal tail of alpha- and beta- tubulin. Cleaves alpha- and gamma-linked polyglutamate tubulin side- chain, as well as the branching point glutamate. Also catalyzes the removal of alpha-linked glutamate residues from the carboxy-terminus of alpha-tubulin. Mediates deglutamylation of nucleotidyltransferase CGAS, leading to CGAS antiviral defense response activation.

Metallocarboxypeptidase that mediates protein deglutamylation of tubulin and non-tubulin target proteins. Catalyzes the removal of polyglutamate side chains present on the gamma-carboxyl group of glutamate residues within the C-terminal tail of tubulin protein. Specifically cleaves tubulin long-side-chains, while it is not able to remove the branching point glutamate. Also catalyzes the removal of polyglutamate residues from the carboxy-terminus of non-tubulin proteins such as MYLK. Mediates the deglutamylation of nucleotidyltransferase CGAS, leading to CGAS antiviral defense response activation (By similarity). Involved in KLF4 deglutamylation which promotes KLF4 proteasome-mediated degradation, thereby negatively regulating cell pluripotency maintenance and embryogenesis.

Sorting receptor that directs prohormones to the regulated secretory pathway. Acts also as a prohormone processing enzyme in neuro/endocrine cells, removing dibasic residues from the C-terminal end of peptide hormone precursors after initial endoprotease cleavage.

Specifically removes C-terminal basic residues (Arg or Lys) from peptides and proteins. It is believed to play important roles in the control of peptide hormone and growth factor activity at the cell surface, and in the membrane-localized degradation of extracellular proteins.

Protects the body from potent vasoactive and inflammatory peptides containing C-terminal Arg or Lys (such as kinins or anaphylatoxins) which are released into the circulation

Carboxypeptidase which preferentially cleaves C-terminal acidic residues from peptides and proteins. Can also cleave C-terminal hydrophobic amino acids, with a preference for small residues over large residues.

Carboxypeptidase that may play an important role in the hydrolysis of circulating peptides. Catalyzes the hydrolysis of dipeptides with unsubstituted terminals into amino acids. May play a role in the liberation of thyroxine hormone from its thyroglobulin (Tg) precursor

Cleaves substrates with C-terminal arginine residues. Probably modulates the Wnt signaling pathway, by cleaving some undefined protein. May play a role in cleavage during prohormone processing.

Acetylates histones, giving a specific tag for transcriptional activation. Also acetylates non- histone proteins, like DDX21, FBL, IRF2, MAFG, NCOA3, POLR1E/PAF53 and FOXO1. Binds specifically to phosphorylated CREB and enhances its transcriptional activity toward cAMP-responsive genes. Acts as a coactivator of ALX1. Acts as a circadian transcriptional coactivator which enhances the activity of the circadian transcriptional activators: NPAS2-BMAL1 and CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimers. Acetylates PCNA; acetylation promotes removal of chromatin-bound PCNA and its degradation during nucleotide excision repair (NER). Acetylates POLR1E/PAF53, leading to decreased association of RNA polymerase I with the rDNA promoter region and coding region. Acetylates DDX21, thereby inhibiting DDX21 helicase activity. Acetylates FBL, preventing methylation of 'Gln-105' of histone H2A (H2AQ104me). Functions as a transcriptional coactivator for SMAD4 in the TGF-beta signaling pathway.

NADPH-dependent reductase with broad substrate specificity. Catalyzes the reduction of a wide variety of carbonyl compounds including quinones, prostaglandins, menadione, plus various xenobiotics. Catalyzes the reduction of the antitumor anthracyclines doxorubicin and daunorubicin to the cardiotoxic compounds doxorubicinol and daunorubicinol. Can convert prostaglandin E to prostaglandin F2-alpha (By similarity). Can bind glutathione, which explains its higher affinity for glutathione- conjugated substrates. Catalyzes the reduction of S-nitrosoglutathione. In addition, participates in the glucocorticoid metabolism by catalyzing the NADPH-dependent cortisol/corticosterone into 20beta-dihydrocortisol (20b-DHF) or 20beta-corticosterone (20b-DHB), which are weak agonists of NR3C1 and NR3C2 in adipose tissue.

Catalyzes the NADPH-dependent reduction of carbonyl compounds to their corresponding alcohols. Has low NADPH- dependent oxidoreductase activity. Acts on several orthoquinones, acts as well on non-quinone compounds, such as isatin or on the anticancer drug oracin. Best substrates for CBR3 is 1,2- naphthoquinone, hence could play a role in protection against cytotoxicity of exogenous quinones. Exerts activity toward ortho-quinones but not paraquinones. No endogenous substrate for CBR3 except isatin has been identified.

Component of the heterotetramer complex KAR (3-ketoacyl-[acyl carrier protein] reductase or 3-ketoacyl-[ACP] reductase) that forms part of the mitochondrial fatty acid synthase (mtFAS). Beta-subunit of the KAR heterotetramer complex, responsible for the 3-ketoacyl-ACP reductase activity of the mtFAS, reduces 3-oxoacyl-[ACP] to (3R)- hydroxyacyl-[ACP] in a NADPH-dependent manner with no chain length preference, thereby participating in mitochondrial fatty acid biosynthesis. The homotetramer has NADPH-dependent quinone reductase activity (in vitro), hence could play a role in protection against cytotoxicity of exogenous quinones. As a heterotetramer, it can also reduce 9,10- phenanthrenequinone, 1,4-benzoquinone and various other o-quinones and p-quinones (in vitro).

Hydro-lyase catalyzing the first step of the transsulfuration pathway, where the hydroxyl group of L-serine is displaced by L- homocysteine in a beta-replacement reaction to form L-cystathionine, the precursor of L-cysteine. This catabolic route allows the elimination of L-methionine and the toxic metabolite L-homocysteine. Also involved in the production of hydrogen sulfide, a gasotransmitter with signaling and cytoprotective effects on neurons (By similarity).

Component of heterochromatin. Recognizes and binds histone H3 tails methylated at 'Lys-9', leading to epigenetic repression. Interaction with lamin B receptor (LBR) can contribute to the association of the heterochromatin with the inner nuclear membrane.

Component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1 complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones; it mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119', rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility. Binds to histone H3 trimethylated at 'Lys-9' (H3K9me3) or at 'Lys-27' (H3K27me3) (By similarity). Plays a role in the lineage differentiation of the germ layers in embryonic development (By similarity). Involved in sexual development, acting as activator of NR5A1 expression.

Seems to be involved in transcriptional silencing in heterochromatin-like complexes. Recognizes and binds histone H3 tails methylated at 'Lys-9', leading to epigenetic repression. May contribute to the association of the heterochromatin with the inner nuclear membrane through its interaction with lamin B receptor (LBR). Involved in the formation of functional kinetochore through interaction with MIS12 complex proteins. Contributes to the conversion of local chromatin to a heterochromatin-like repressive state through H3 'Lys-9' trimethylation, mediates the recruitment of the methyltransferases SUV39H1 and/or SUV39H2 by the PER complex to the E-box elements of the circadian target genes such as PER2 itself or PER1. Mediates the recruitment of NIPBL to sites of DNA damage at double-strand breaks (DSBs).

E3 SUMO-protein ligase which facilitates SUMO1 conjugation by UBE2I. Involved in the sumoylation of HNRNPK, a p53/TP53 transcriptional coactivator, hence indirectly regulates p53/TP53 transcriptional activation resulting in p21/CDKN1A expression. Monosumoylates ZNF131.

Component of heterochromatin that recognizes and binds histone H3 tails methylated at 'Lys-9' (H3K9me), leading to epigenetic repression. In contrast, it is excluded from chromatin when 'Tyr-41' of histone H3 is phosphorylated (H3Y41ph). Can interact with lamin-B receptor (LBR). This interaction can contribute to the association of the heterochromatin with the inner nuclear membrane. Involved in the formation of functional kinetochore through interaction with MIS12 complex proteins.

Component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1 complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones; it mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119', rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility. Possibly contributes to the target selectivity of the PRC1 complex by binding specific regions of chromatin. Recruitment to chromatin might occur in an H3K27me3- independent fashion (By similarity). May have a PRC1-independent function in embryonic stem cells (By similarity).

Component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1 complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones; it mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119', rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility. Promotes histone H3 trimethylation at 'Lys-9' (H3K9me3). Binds to trimethylated lysine residues in histones, and possibly also other proteins. Regulator of cellular lifespan by maintaining the repression of CDKN2A, but not by inducing telomerase activity.

Component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1 complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones; it mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119', rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility.

Inhibits the Wnt/Wingless pathway by binding to CTNNB1/beta- catenin and inhibiting beta-catenin-mediated transcriptional activation through competition with TCF/LEF transcription factors. Has also been shown to play a role in regulating the intracellular trafficking of polycystin-2/PKD2 and possibly of other intracellular proteins. Promotes adipocyte and cardiomyocyte differentiation.

[Isoform 2]: Secreted protein may play a role in transcription regulation via the MAPK3/MAPK1 pathway through an unidentified receptor on the plasma membrane

Promotes the degradation of p53/TP53 protein and inhibits its transactivity.

Component of centriolar satellites contributing to primary cilium formation.

Accessory component of the proton-transporting vacuolar (V)- ATPase protein pump involved in intracellular iron homeostasis. In aerobic conditions, required for intracellular iron homeostasis, thus triggering the activity of Fe(2+) prolyl hydroxylase (PHD) enzymes, and leading to HIF1A hydroxylation and subsequent proteasomal degradation. Necessary for endolysosomal acidification and lysosomal degradation. May be involved in Golgi homeostasis.

Facilitates DNA repair, cell cycle progression, and cell proliferation through its interaction with CIAO2B.

Centriolar protein required for centriole subdistal appendage assembly and microtubule anchoring in interphase cells. Together with CCDC68, cooperate with subdistal appendage components ODF2, NIN and CEP170 for hierarchical subdistal appendage assembly. Recruits NIN and CEP170 to centrosomes. Also required for neurite growth. Localizes CYTH2 to vesicles to allow its transport along neurites, and subsequent ARF6 activation and neurite growth.

In extracellular secreted form, promotes proliferation and activation of CD8(+) T cells, suggesting a cytokine-like function. Enhances cytotoxic anti-tumor activity of CD8(+) T cells. May inhibit ERK and JNK signaling activity. May suppress cell migration and invasion activity, via its effects on ERK and JNK signaling. Has a critical role in the regulation of osteogenesis and bone development.

May play a role in acrosome formation in spermatogenesis and in fertilization.

Plays a critical role in radial migration and centrosomal function.

Dual-specificity phosphatase. Required for centrosome separation and productive cytokinesis during cell division. Dephosphorylates SIRT2 around early anaphase. May dephosphorylate the APC subunit FZR1/CDH1, thereby promoting APC-FZR1 dependent degradation of mitotic cyclins and subsequent exit from mitosis. Required for normal hearing.

Dual-specificity phosphatase involved in DNA damage response. Essential regulator of the G2 DNA damage checkpoint: following DNA damage, translocates to the nucleus and dephosphorylates FZR1/CDH1, a key activator of the anaphase promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C). Dephosphorylates SIRT2 around early anaphase. Dephosphorylation of FZR1/CDH1 activates the APC/C, leading to the ubiquitination of PLK1, preventing entry into mitosis. Preferentially dephosphorylates proteins modified by proline-directed kinases.

Dual-specificity phosphatase. Preferentially dephosphorylates proteins modified by proline-directed kinases (By similarity).

Plays a role in Golgi-associated microtubules organization and stabilization.

Microtubule-binding protein that localizes to the microtubular manchette of elongating spermatids.

Involved in ciliogenesis. Regulates cilia length through its interaction with MAPKAP1/SIN1 but independently of mTORC2 complex. Modulates mTORC2 complex assembly and function, possibly enhances AKT1 phosphorylation. Does not seem to modulate assembly and function of mTORC1 complex.

Chemokine that induces chemotaxis of cells expressing CCR5 or CCR1. Inhibits HIV replication in peripheral blood monocytes that express CCR5.

Accessory component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of aminophospholipids from the outer to the inner leaflet of various membranes and ensures the maintenance of asymmetric distribution of phospholipids. Phospholipid translocation seems also to be implicated in vesicle formation and in uptake of lipid signaling molecules. The beta subunit may assist in binding of the phospholipid substrate. Required for the proper folding, assembly and ER to Golgi exit of the ATP8A2:TMEM30A flippase complex. ATP8A2:TMEM30A may be involved in regulation of neurite outgrowth, and, reconstituted to liposomes, predomiminantly transports phosphatidylserine (PS) and to a lesser extent phosphatidylethanolamine (PE). The ATP8A1:TMEM30A flippase complex seems to play a role in regulation of cell migration probably involving flippase-mediated translocation of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) at the plasma membrane. Required for the formation of the ATP8A2, ATP8B1 and ATP8B2 P-type ATPAse intermediate phosphoenzymes. Involved in uptake of platelet-activating factor (PAF), synthetic drug alkylphospholipid edelfosine, and, probably in association with ATP8B1, of perifosine. Also mediates the export of alpha subunits ATP8A1, ATP8B1, ATP8B2, ATP8B4, ATP10A, ATP10B, ATP10D, ATP11A, ATP11B and ATP11C from the ER to other membrane localizations.

Accessory component of a P4-ATPase flippase complex which catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP coupled to the transport of aminophospholipids from the outer to the inner leaflet of various membranes and ensures the maintenance of asymmetric distribution of phospholipids. Phospholipid translocation seems also to be implicated in vesicle formation and in uptake of lipid signaling molecules. The beta subunit may assist in binding of the phospholipid substrate (Probable). Can mediate the export of alpha subunits ATP8A1, ATP8B1, ATP8B2 and ATP8B4 from the ER to the plasma membrane.

May play a role in cell-cell adhesion and epithelium development through its interaction with proteins of the beta-catenin family.

Functions as a transcriptional repressor. May inhibit the activity of CTNNB1 in a TP53-dependent manner and thus regulate cell growth. May function in adipocyte differentiation, negatively regulating mitotic clonal expansion (By similarity). Plays a role in cell-cell adhesion and epithelium development through its interaction with proteins of the beta-catenin family (By similarity).

May play a role in cell-cell adhesion and epithelium development through its interaction with proteins of the beta-catenin family (Probable). May play an important role in cortical development, especially in the maintenance of radial glia (By similarity).

Acts as a positive regulator of T-cell maturation and inflammatory function. Required for several functions of T-cells, in both the CD4(+) and the CD8(+) compartments and this includes expression of cell surface markers of activation, proliferation, and cytokine production in response to specific or non-specific stimulation (By similarity). Enhances NK cell cytotoxicity by positively regulating polarization of microtubule-organizing center (MTOC) to cytotoxic synapse, lytic granule transport along microtubules, and dynein- mediated clustering to MTOC. Interacts with HSPA5 and stabilizes the interaction between HSPA5 and ERN1, leading to suppression of ERN1-induced JNK activation and endoplasmic reticulum stress-induced apoptosis.

Associates with components of the Mediator and p160 coactivator complexes that play a role as intermediaries transducing regulatory signals from upstream transcriptional activator proteins to basal transcription machinery at the core promoter. Recruited to endogenous nuclear receptor target genes in response to the appropriate hormone. Also functions as a p53 coactivator. May thus play an important role in transcriptional regulation (By similarity). May be involved in apoptosis signaling in the presence of the reinoid CD437. Apoptosis induction involves sequestration of 14-3-3 protein(s) and mediated altered expression of multiple cell cycle regulatory genes including MYC, CCNB1 and CDKN1A. Plays a role in cell cycle progression and/or cell proliferation. In association with CALCOCO1 enhances GATA1- and MED1-mediated transcriptional activation from the gamma-globin promoter during erythroid differentiation of K562 erythroleukemia cells. Can act as a both a coactivator and corepressor of AR-mediated transcription. Contributes to chromatin looping and AR transcription complex assembly by stabilizing AR-GATA2 association on chromatin and facilitating MED1 and RNA polymerase II recruitment to AR-binding sites. May play an important role in the growth and tumorigenesis of prostate cancer cells.

Core component of the DBIRD complex, a multiprotein complex that acts at the interface between core mRNP particles and RNA polymerase II (RNAPII) and integrates transcript elongation with the regulation of alternative splicing: the DBIRD complex affects local transcript elongation rates and alternative splicing of a large set of exons embedded in (A + T)-rich DNA regions. Inhibits SIRT1 deacetylase activity leading to increasing levels of p53/TP53 acetylation and p53-mediated apoptosis. Inhibits SUV39H1 methyltransferase activity. Mediates ligand-dependent transcriptional activation by nuclear hormone receptors. Plays a critical role in maintaining genomic stability and cellular integrity following UV-induced genotoxic stress. Regulates the circadian expression of the core clock components NR1D1 and BMAL1. Enhances the transcriptional repressor activity of NR1D1 through stabilization of NR1D1 protein levels by preventing its ubiquitination and subsequent degradation. Represses the ligand-dependent transcriptional activation function of ESR2. Acts as a regulator of PCK1 expression and gluconeogenesis by a mechanism that involves, at least in part, both NR1D1 and SIRT1. Negatively regulates the deacetylase activity of HDAC3 and can alter its subcellular localization. Positively regulates the beta-catenin pathway (canonical Wnt signaling pathway) and is required for MCC-mediated repression of the beta-catenin pathway. Represses ligand-dependent transcriptional activation function of NR1H2 and NR1H3 and inhibits the interaction of SIRT1 with NR1H3. Plays an important role in tumor suppression through p53/TP53 regulation; stabilizes p53/TP53 by affecting its interaction with ubiquitin ligase MDM2. Represses the transcriptional activator activity of BRCA1. Inhibits SIRT1 in a CHEK2 and PSEM3-dependent manner and inhibits the activity of CHEK2 in vitro.

Required for lymphangioblast budding and angiogenic sprouting from venous endothelium during embryogenesis.

Required for primary cilia formation and promotes the localization of the ciliopathy protein BBS4 to both centriolar satellites and cilia.

Involved in regulation of NF-kappa-B signaling. Promotes ubiquitination of I-kappa-B-kinase subunit IKBKB and its subsequent proteasomal degradation leading to NF-kappa-B activation; the function may involve association with COMMD8 and a CUL1-dependent E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. May down-regulate NF-kappa-B activity via association with COMMD1 and involving a CUL2-dependent E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. Regulates the cellular localization of COMM domain-containing proteins, such as COMMD1 and COMMD10. Component of the CCC complex, which is involved in the regulation of endosomal recycling of surface proteins, including integrins, signaling receptor and channels. The CCC complex associates with SNX17, retriever and WASH complexes to prevent lysosomal degradation and promote cell surface recycling of numerous cargos such as integrins ITGA5:ITGB1. Plays a role in copper ion homeostasis. Involved in copper-dependent ATP7A trafficking between the trans-Golgi network and vesicles in the cell periphery; the function is proposed to depend on its association within the CCC complex and cooperation with the WASH complex on early endosomes.

Transmembrane receptor that senses neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) and triggers the ILK-PARVB pathway to enhance cell motility. NETs are mainly composed of DNA fibers and are released by neutrophils to bind pathogens during inflammation. Formation of NETs is also associated with cancer metastasis, NET-DNA acting as a chemotactic factor to attract cancer cells. Specifically binds NETs on its extracellular region, in particular the 8-OHdG-enriched DNA present in NETs, and recruits ILK, initiating the ILK-PARVB cascade to induce cytoskeleton rearrangement and directional migration of cells. In the context of cancer, promotes cancer metastasis by sensing NETs and promoting migration of tumor cells.

Has a role in ciliogenesis (By similarity). Required for proper cephalic and left/right axis development.

Required for assembly of dynein regulatory complex (DRC) and inner dynein arm (IDA) complexes, which are responsible for ciliary beat regulation, thereby playing a central role in motility in cilia and flagella. Probably acts together with CCDC40 to form a molecular ruler that determines the 96 nanometer (nm) repeat length and arrangements of components in cilia and flagella (By similarity). Not required for outer dynein arm complexes assembly.

Required for assembly of dynein regulatory complex (DRC) and inner dynein arm (IDA) complexes, which are responsible for ciliary beat regulation, thereby playing a central role in motility in cilia and flagella. Probably acts together with CCDC39 to form a molecular ruler that determines the 96 nanometer (nm) repeat length and arrangements of components in cilia and flagella (By similarity). Not required for outer dynein arm complexes assembly. Required for axonemal recruitment of CCDC39.

Component of the PAT complex, an endoplasmic reticulum (ER)- resident membrane multiprotein complex that facilitates multi-pass membrane proteins insertion into membranes. The PAT complex acts as an intramembrane chaperone by directly interacting with nascent transmembrane domains (TMDs), releasing its substrates upon correct folding, and is needed for optimal biogenesis of multi-pass membrane proteins. WDR83OS/Asterix is the substrate- interacting subunit of the PAT complex, whereas CCDC47 is required to maintain the stability of WDR83OS/Asterix. The PAT complex favors the binding to TMDs with exposed hydrophilic amino acids within the lipid bilayer and provides a membrane-embedded partially hydrophilic environment in which the first transmembrane domain binds. Component of a ribosome-associated ER translocon complex involved in multi-pass membrane protein transport into the ER membrane and biogenesis. Involved in the regulation of calcium ion homeostasis in the ER. Required for proper protein degradation via the ERAD (ER-associated degradation) pathway. Has an essential role in the maintenance of ER organization during embryogenesis (By similarity).

Microtubule-binding centrosomal protein required for centriole cohesion, independently of the centrosome-associated protein/CEP250 and rootletin/CROCC linker. In interphase, required for anchoring microtubule at the mother centriole subdistal appendages and for centrosome positioning. During mitosis, may be involved in spindle assembly and chromatin alignment by regulating the organization of spindle microtubules into a symmetrical structure. Has been proposed to play a role in CEP170 recruitment to centrosomes. However, this function could not be confirmed. Plays a non- essential role in ciliogenesis.

Nuclear receptor coactivator that can enhance preferentially estrogen receptors ESR1 and ESR2 transactivation. Modulates also progesterone/PGR, glucocorticoid/NR3C1 and androgen/AR receptors transactivation, although at lower level; little effect on vitamin D receptor/VDR. Required for normal spermiogenesis. It probably plays a role in acrosome formation (By similarity).

Plays a role in spermiogenesis. Involved in the elongation of flagella and the formation of sperm heads.

Microtubule-binding protein required for ciliogenesis. May function in ciliogenesis by mediating the transport of proteins like BBS4 to the cilium, but also through the organization of the centriolar satellites. Plays a role in retina morphogenesis and/or homeostasis (By similarity).

Centriolar protein required for centriole subdistal appendage assembly and microtubule anchoring in interphase cells. Together with CCDC120, cooperate with subdistal appendage components ODF2, NIN and CEP170 for hierarchical subdistal appendage assembly.

May act as a scaffold to regulate the recruitment and assembly of spindle midzone components. Required for the localization of AURKB and PLK1 to the spindle midzone.

Plays a role in spermatogenesis, where it is important for normal sperm head morphology. Also required for the acrosome reaction and thus normal male fertility.

Involved in the regulation of membrane traffic through the trans-Golgi network (TGN). Functions in close cooperation with the GGAs in the sorting of hydrolases to lysosomes.

Interferon-stimulated protein that plays a role in innate immunity. Strongly inhibits ebolavirus transcription and replication. Forms a complex with viral RNA-bound nucleocapsid NP and thereby prevents the transport of NP to the cell surface.

Component of the CCC complex, which is involved in the regulation of endosomal recycling of surface proteins, including integrins, signaling receptor and channels. The CCC complex associates with SNX17, retriever and WASH complexes to prevent lysosomal degradation and promote cell surface recycling of numerous cargos such as integrins ITGA5:ITGB1. Involved in copper-dependent ATP7A trafficking between the trans-Golgi network and vesicles in the cell periphery; the function is proposed to depend on its association within the CCC complex and cooperation with the WASH complex on early endosomes and is dependent on its interaction with WASHC2C.

May negatively regulate cell cycle progression. May act at least in part via inhibition of the cyclin-D1/CDK4 complex, thereby preventing phosphorylation of RB1 and blocking E2F-dependent transcription.

Negatively regulates TNF-alpha-induced pro-inflammatory response in endothelial cells (ECs) via inhibition of TNF-alpha-induced NF-kappaB activation in ECs. Positively regulates lipid accumulation in adipose cells (By similarity).

Core component of the 3M complex, a complex required to regulate microtubule dynamics and genome integrity. It is unclear how the 3M complex regulates microtubules, it could act by controlling the level of a microtubule stabilizer. Required for localization of CUL7 to the centrosome.

Probable component of the exon junction complex (EJC), a multiprotein complex that associates immediately upstream of the exon- exon junction on mRNAs and serves as a positional landmark for the intron exon structure of genes and directs post-transcriptional processes in the cytoplasm such as mRNA export, nonsense-mediated mRNA decay (NMD) or translation.

Regulatory subunit of the voltage-gated calcium channel that gives rise to L-type calcium currents in skeletal muscle. Regulates channel inactivation kinetics.

Regulates the trafficking and gating properties of AMPA- selective glutamate receptors (AMPARs). Promotes their targeting to the cell membrane and synapses and modulates their gating properties by slowing their rates of activation, deactivation and desensitization. Does not show subunit-specific AMPA receptor regulation and regulates all AMPAR subunits. Thought to stabilize the calcium channel in an inactivated (closed) state.

Regulates the trafficking to the somatodendritic compartment and gating properties of AMPA-selective glutamate receptors (AMPARs). Promotes their targeting to the cell membrane and synapses and modulates their gating properties by slowing their rates of activation, deactivation and desensitization. Does not show subunit-specific AMPA receptor regulation and regulates all AMPAR subunits. Thought to stabilize the calcium channel in an inactivated (closed) state.

Regulates the activity of L-type calcium channels that contain CACNA1C as pore-forming subunit. Regulates the trafficking and gating properties of AMPA-selective glutamate receptors (AMPARs), including GRIA1 and GRIA4. Promotes their targeting to the cell membrane and synapses and modulates their gating properties by slowing their rates of activation, deactivation and desensitization and by mediating their resensitization.

Regulates the gating properties of AMPA-selective glutamate receptors (AMPARs). Modulates their gating properties by accelerating their rates of activation, deactivation and desensitization. Displays subunit-specific AMPA receptor regulation. Shows specificity for GRIA1, GRIA4 and the long isoform of GRIA2. Thought to stabilize the calcium channel in an inactivated (closed) state (By similarity).

Regulates the activity of L-type calcium channels that contain CACNA1C as pore-forming subunit.

Regulates the activity of L-type calcium channels that contain CACNA1C as pore-forming subunit. Regulates the trafficking and gating properties of AMPA-selective glutamate receptors (AMPARs). Promotes their targeting to the cell membrane and synapses and modulates their gating properties by slowing their rates of activation, deactivation and desensitization and by mediating their resensitization. Displays subunit-specific AMPA receptor regulation. Shows specificity only for GRIA1 and GRIA2.

Regulates the activity of L-type calcium channels that contain CACNA1C as pore-forming subunit (By similarity). Regulates the trafficking and gating properties of AMPA-selective glutamate receptors (AMPARs). Promotes their targeting to the cell membrane and synapses and modulates their gating properties by slowing their rates of activation, deactivation and desensitization and by mediating their resensitization. Does not show subunit-specific AMPA receptor regulation and regulates all AMPAR subunits.

Thought to stabilize the calcium channel in an inactivated (closed) state. Modulates calcium current when coexpressed with CACNA1G (By similarity).

May be a regulator of keratinocyte proliferation or differentiation

Lyase that catalyzes the covalent linking of the heme group to the cytochrome C apoprotein to produce the mature functional cytochrome.

Receptor for cholecystokinin. Mediates pancreatic growth and enzyme secretion, smooth muscle contraction of the gall bladder and stomach. Has a 1000-fold higher affinity for CCK rather than for gastrin. It modulates feeding and dopamine-induced behavior in the central and peripheral nervous system. This receptor mediates its action by association with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system

This peptide hormone induces gall bladder contraction and the release of pancreatic enzymes in the gut. Its function in the brain is not clear. Binding to CCK-A receptors stimulates amylase release from the pancreas, binding to CCK-B receptors stimulates gastric acid secretion.

In response to the presence of allergens, this protein directly promotes the accumulation of eosinophils, a prominent feature of allergic inflammatory reactions. Binds to CCR3.

Chemotactic factor that attracts monocytes, lymphocytes, basophils and eosinophils, but not neutrophils. Signals through CCR2B and CCR3 receptors. Plays a role in the accumulation of leukocytes at both sides of allergic and non-allergic inflammation. May be involved in the recruitment of monocytes into the arterial wall during the disease process of atherosclerosis. May play a role in the monocyte attraction in tissues chronically exposed to exogenous pathogens

Has weak activities on human monocytes and acts via receptors that also recognize MIP-1 alpha. It induces intracellular Ca(2+) changes and enzyme release, but no chemotaxis, at concentrations of 100-1,000 nM, and is inactive on T-lymphocytes, neutrophils, and eosinophil leukocytes. Enhances the proliferation of CD34 myeloid progenitor cells. The processed form HCC-1(9-74) is a chemotactic factor that attracts monocytes, eosinophils, and T-cells and is a ligand for CCR1, CCR3 and CCR5.

Chemotactic factor that attracts T-cells and monocytes, but not neutrophils, eosinophils, or B-cells. Acts mainly via CC chemokine receptor CCR1. Also binds to CCR3. CCL15(22-92), CCL15(25-92) and CCL15(29-92) are more potent chemoattractants than the small-inducible cytokine A15.

Shows chemotactic activity for lymphocytes and monocytes but not neutrophils. Also shows potent myelosuppressive activity, suppresses proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. Recombinant SCYA16 shows chemotactic activity for monocytes and THP-1 monocytes, but not for resting lymphocytes and neutrophils. Induces a calcium flux in THP-1 cells that were desensitized by prior expression to RANTES

Chemotactic factor for T-lymphocytes but not monocytes or granulocytes. May play a role in T-cell development in thymus and in trafficking and activation of mature T-cells. Binds to CCR4.

Chemotactic factor that attracts lymphocytes but not monocytes or granulocytes. May be involved in B-cell migration into B- cell follicles in lymph nodes. Attracts naive T-lymphocytes toward dendritic cells and activated macrophages in lymph nodes, has chemotactic activity for naive T-cells, CD4+ and CD8+ T-cells and thus may play a role in both humoral and cell-mediated immunity responses.

May play a role not only in inflammatory and immunological responses but also in normal lymphocyte recirculation and homing. May play an important role in trafficking of T-cells in thymus, and T-cell and B-cell migration to secondary lymphoid organs. Binds to chemokine receptor CCR7. Recombinant CCL19 shows potent chemotactic activity for T-cells and B-cells but not for granulocytes and monocytes. Binds to atypical chemokine receptor ACKR4 and mediates the recruitment of beta- arrestin (ARRB1/2) to ACKR4.

Cytokine that is chemotactic for monocytes but not for neutrophils. Binds to CCR8.

Acts as a ligand for C-C chemokine receptor CCR6. Signals through binding and activation of CCR6 and induces a strong chemotactic response and mobilization of intracellular calcium ions. The ligand- receptor pair CCL20-CCR6 is responsible for the chemotaxis of dendritic cells (DC), effector/memory T-cells and B-cells and plays an important role at skin and mucosal surfaces under homeostatic and inflammatory conditions, as well as in pathology, including cancer and various autoimmune diseases. CCL20 acts as a chemotactic factor that attracts lymphocytes and, slightly, neutrophils, but not monocytes. Involved in the recruitment of both the pro-inflammatory IL17 producing helper T-cells (Th17) and the regulatory T-cells (Treg) to sites of inflammation. Required for optimal migration of thymic natural regulatory T cells (nTregs) and DN1 early thymocyte progenitor cells (By similarity). C- terminal processed forms have been shown to be equally chemotactically active for leukocytes. Positively regulates sperm motility and chemotaxis via its binding to CCR6 which triggers Ca2+ mobilization in the sperm which is important for its motility. Inhibits proliferation of myeloid progenitors in colony formation assays. May be involved in formation and function of the mucosal lymphoid tissues by attracting lymphocytes and dendritic cells towards epithelial cells (By similarity). Possesses antibacterial activity towards E.coli ATCC 25922 and S.aureus ATCC 29213.

Inhibits hemopoiesis and stimulates chemotaxis. Chemotactic in vitro for thymocytes and activated T-cells, but not for B-cells, macrophages, or neutrophils. Shows preferential activity towards naive T-cells. May play a role in mediating homing of lymphocytes to secondary lymphoid organs. Binds to atypical chemokine receptor ACKR4 and mediates the recruitment of beta-arrestin (ARRB1/2) to ACKR4

May play a role in the trafficking of activated/effector T- lymphocytes to inflammatory sites and other aspects of activated T- lymphocyte physiology. Chemotactic for monocytes, dendritic cells and natural killer cells. Mild chemoattractant for primary activated T- lymphocytes and a potent chemoattractant for chronically activated T- lymphocytes but has no chemoattractant activity for neutrophils, eosinophils, and resting T-lymphocytes. Binds to CCR4. Processed forms MDC(3-69), MDC(5-69) and MDC(7-69) seem not be active

Shows chemotactic activity for monocytes, resting T- lymphocytes, and neutrophils, but not for activated lymphocytes. Inhibits proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells in colony formation assays. This protein can bind heparin. Binds CCR1. CCL23(19-99), CCL23(22-99), CCL23(27-99), CCL23(30-99) are more potent chemoattractants than the small-inducible cytokine A23.

Chemotactic for resting T-lymphocytes, and eosinophils. Has lower chemotactic activity for neutrophils but none for monocytes and activated lymphocytes. Is a strong suppressor of colony formation by a multipotential hematopoietic progenitor cell line. Binds to CCR3.

Potentially involved in T-cell development. Recombinant protein shows chemotactic activity on thymocytes, macrophages, THP-1 cells, and dendritics cells but is inactive on peripheral blood lymphocytes and neutrophils. Binds to CCR9. Isoform 2 is an antagonist of isoform 1. Binds to atypical chemokine receptor ACKR4 and mediates the recruitment of beta-arrestin (ARRB1/2) to ACKR4

Chemoattractant for eosinophils and basophils. Acts as a ligand for C-C chemokine receptor CCR3 which triggers Ca(2+) mobilization in eosinophils. Also acts as a ligand for CX3C chemokine receptor CX3CR1, inducing cell chemotaxis.

Chemotactic factor that attracts skin-associated memory T- lymphocytes. May play a role in mediating homing of lymphocytes to cutaneous sites. Binds to CCR10

Chemotactic activity for resting CD4, CD8 T-cells and eosinophils. Binds to CCR3 and CCR10 and induces calcium mobilization in a dose-dependent manner

Acts as a ligand for C-C chemokine receptor CCR2. Signals through binding and activation of CCR2 and induces a strong chemotactic response and mobilization of intracellular calcium ions. Exhibits a chemotactic activity for monocytes and basophils but not neutrophils or eosinophils. May be involved in the recruitment of monocytes into the arterial wall during the disease process of atherosclerosis.

Monokine with inflammatory and chemokinetic properties. Binds to CCR1, CCR4 and CCR5. One of the major HIV-suppressive factors produced by CD8+ T-cells. Recombinant MIP-1-alpha induces a dose- dependent inhibition of different strains of HIV-1, HIV-2, and simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV).

Monokine with inflammatory and chemokinetic properties. Binds to CCR5. One of the major HIV-suppressive factors produced by CD8+ T- cells. Recombinant MIP-1-beta induces a dose-dependent inhibition of different strains of HIV-1, HIV-2, and simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV). The processed form MIP-1-beta(3-69) retains the abilities to induce down-modulation of surface expression of the chemokine receptor CCR5 and to inhibit the CCR5-mediated entry of HIV-1 in T-cells. MIP-1- beta(3-69) is also a ligand for CCR1 and CCR2 isoform B.

Chemotactic factor that attracts monocytes and eosinophils, but not neutrophils. Augments monocyte anti-tumor activity. Also induces the release of gelatinase B. This protein can bind heparin. Binds to CCR1, CCR2 and CCR3

Chemotactic factor that attracts monocytes, lymphocytes, basophils and eosinophils. May play a role in neoplasia and inflammatory host responses. This protein can bind heparin. The processed form MCP-2(6-76) does not show monocyte chemotactic activity, but inhibits the chemotactic effect most predominantly of CCL7, and also of CCL2 and CCL5 and CCL8.

Component of the CCM signaling pathway which is a crucial regulator of heart and vessel formation and integrity. May act through the stabilization of endothelial cell junctions (By similarity). May function as a scaffold protein for MAP2K3-MAP3K3 signaling. Seems to play a major role in the modulation of MAP3K3-dependent p38 activation induced by hyperosmotic shock (By similarity).

Promotes cell proliferation, chemotaxis, angiogenesis and cell adhesion. Appears to play a role in wound healing by up- regulating, in skin fibroblasts, the expression of a number of genes involved in angiogenesis, inflammation and matrix remodeling including VEGA-A, VEGA-C, MMP1, MMP3, TIMP1, uPA, PAI-1 and integrins alpha-3 and alpha-5. CCN1-mediated gene regulation is dependent on heparin-binding. Down-regulates the expression of alpha-1 and alpha-2 subunits of collagen type-1. Promotes cell adhesion and adhesive signaling through integrin alpha-6/beta-1, cell migration through integrin alpha-v/beta-5 and cell proliferation through integrin alpha-v/beta-3.

Major connective tissue mitoattractant secreted by vascular endothelial cells. Promotes proliferation and differentiation of chondrocytes. Mediates heparin- and divalent cation-dependent cell adhesion in many cell types including fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, endothelial and epithelial cells. Enhances fibroblast growth factor- induced DNA synthesis.

Immediate-early protein playing a role in various cellular processes including proliferation, adhesion, migration, differentiation and survival. Acts by binding to integrins or membrane receptors such as NOTCH1. Essential regulator of hematopoietic stem and progenitor cell function. Inhibits myogenic differentiation through the activation of Notch-signaling pathway. Inhibits vascular smooth muscle cells proliferation by increasing expression of cell-cycle regulators such as CDKN2B or CDKN1A independently of TGFB1 signaling. Ligand of integrins ITGAV:ITGB3 and ITGA5:ITGB1, acts directly upon endothelial cells to stimulate pro-angiogenic activities and induces angiogenesis. In endothelial cells, supports cell adhesion, induces directed cell migration (chemotaxis) and promotes cell survival. Also plays a role in cutaneous wound healing acting as integrin receptor ligand. Supports skin fibroblast adhesion through ITGA5:ITGB1 and ITGA6:ITGB1 and induces fibroblast chemotaxis through ITGAV:ITGB5. Seems to enhance bFGF-induced DNA synthesis in fibroblasts. Involved in bone regeneration as a negative regulator (By similarity). Enhances the articular chondrocytic phenotype, whereas it repressed the one representing endochondral ossification. Impairs pancreatic beta-cell function, inhibits beta-cell proliferation and insulin secretion (By similarity). Plays a role as negative regulator of endothelial pro-inflammatory activation reducing monocyte adhesion, its anti-inflammatory effects occur secondary to the inhibition of NF-kappaB signaling pathway. Contributes to the control and coordination of inflammatory processes in atherosclerosis (By similarity). Attenuates inflammatory pain through regulation of IL1B- and TNF-induced MMP9, MMP2 and CCL2 expression. Inhibits MMP9 expression through ITGB1 engagement.

Downstream regulator in the Wnt/Frizzled-signaling pathway. Associated with cell survival. Attenuates p53-mediated apoptosis in response to DNA damage through activation of AKT kinase. Up-regulates the anti-apoptotic Bcl-X(L) protein. Adheres to skin and melanoma fibroblasts. In vitro binding to skin fibroblasts occurs through the proteoglycans, decorin and biglycan.

May play an important role in modulating bone turnover. Promotes the adhesion of osteoblast cells and inhibits the binding of fibrinogen to integrin receptors. In addition, inhibits osteocalcin production

Plays a role in mitochondrial electron transport and mitochondrial respiration. Through its regulation of the mitochondrial function may play a role in normal postnatal skeletal growth and cartilage homeostasis.

May be involved in the control of the cell cycle at the G1/S (start) and G2/M (mitosis) transitions. May primarily function in the control of the germline meiotic cell cycle and additionally in the control of mitotic cell cycle in some somatic cells.

Cyclin which controls both the G1/S and the G2/M transition phases of the cell cycle. Functions through the formation of specific serine/threonine protein kinase holoenzyme complexes with the cyclin- dependent protein kinases CDK1 or CDK2. The cyclin subunit confers the substrate specificity of these complexes and differentially interacts with and activates CDK1 and CDK2 throughout the cell cycle.

Essential for the control of the cell cycle at the G2/M (mitosis) transition.

Essential for the control of the cell cycle at the G2/M (mitosis) transition

Cyclins are positive regulatory subunits of the cyclin- dependent kinases (CDKs), and thereby play an essential role in the control of the cell cycle, notably via their destruction during cell division. Its tissue specificity suggest that it may be required during early meiotic prophase I.

Component of the Mediator complex, a coactivator involved in regulated gene transcription of nearly all RNA polymerase II-dependent genes. Mediator functions as a bridge to convey information from gene- specific regulatory proteins to the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Mediator is recruited to promoters by direct interactions with regulatory proteins and serves as a scaffold for the assembly of a functional preinitiation complex with RNA polymerase II and the general transcription factors. Binds to and activates cyclin- dependent kinase CDK8 that phosphorylates the CTD (C-terminal domain) of the large subunit of RNA polymerase II (RNAp II), which may inhibit the formation of a transcription initiation complex.

Regulatory component of the cyclin D1-CDK4 (DC) complex that phosphorylates and inhibits members of the retinoblastoma (RB) protein family including RB1 and regulates the cell-cycle during G(1)/S transition. Phosphorylation of RB1 allows dissociation of the transcription factor E2F from the RB/E2F complex and the subsequent transcription of E2F target genes which are responsible for the progression through the G(1) phase. Hypophosphorylates RB1 in early G(1) phase. Cyclin D-CDK4 complexes are major integrators of various mitogenenic and antimitogenic signals. Also a substrate for SMAD3, phosphorylating SMAD3 in a cell-cycle-dependent manner and repressing its transcriptional activity. Component of the ternary complex, cyclin D1/CDK4/CDKN1B, required for nuclear translocation and activity of the cyclin D-CDK4 complex. Exhibits transcriptional corepressor activity with INSM1 on the NEUROD1 and INS promoters in a cell cycle-independent manner.

Regulatory component of the cyclin D2-CDK4 (DC) complex that phosphorylates and inhibits members of the retinoblastoma (RB) protein family including RB1 and regulates the cell-cycle during G(1)/S transition. Phosphorylation of RB1 allows dissociation of the transcription factor E2F from the RB/E2F complex and the subsequent transcription of E2F target genes which are responsible for the progression through the G(1) phase. Hypophosphorylates RB1 in early G(1) phase. Cyclin D-CDK4 complexes are major integrators of various mitogenenic and antimitogenic signals.

Regulatory component of the cyclin D3-CDK4 (DC) complex that phosphorylates and inhibits members of the retinoblastoma (RB) protein family including RB1 and regulates the cell-cycle during G(1)/S transition. Phosphorylation of RB1 allows dissociation of the transcription factor E2F from the RB/E2F complex and the subsequent transcription of E2F target genes which are responsible for the progression through the G(1) phase. Hypophosphorylates RB1 in early G(1) phase. Cyclin D- CDK4 complexes are major integrators of various mitogenenic and antimitogenic signals. Component of the ternary complex, cyclin D3/CDK4/CDKN1B, required for nuclear translocation and activity of the cyclin D-CDK4 complex. Shows transcriptional coactivator activity with ATF5 independently of CDK4.

Essential for the control of the cell cycle at the G1/S (start) transition.

Essential for the control of the cell cycle at the late G1 and early S phase

Substrate recognition component of a SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. The SCF(CCNF) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex is an integral component of the ubiquitin proteasome system (UPS) and links proteasome degradation to the cell cycle. Mediates the substrate recognition and the proteasomal degradation of various target proteins involved in the regulation of cell cycle progression and in the maintenance of genome stability. Mediates the ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of CP110 during G2 phase, thereby acting as an inhibitor of centrosome reduplication. In G2, mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of ribonucleotide reductase RRM2, thereby maintaining a balanced pool of dNTPs and genome integrity. In G2, mediates the ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of CDC6, thereby suppressing DNA re-replication and preventing genome instability. Involved in the ubiquitination and degradation of the substrate adapter CDH1 of the anaphase-promoting complex (APC/C), thereby acting as an antagonist of APC/C in regulating G1 progression and S phase entry. May play a role in the G2 cell cycle checkpoint control after DNA damage, possibly by promoting the ubiquitination of MYBL2/BMYB.

May play a role in growth regulation. Is associated with G2/M phase arrest in response to DNA damage. May be an intermediate by which p53 mediates its role as an inhibitor of cellular proliferation (By similarity).

May play a role in growth regulation and in negative regulation of cell cycle progression

Regulates CDK7, the catalytic subunit of the CDK-activating kinase (CAK) enzymatic complex. CAK activates the cyclin-associated kinases CDK1, CDK2, CDK4 and CDK6 by threonine phosphorylation. CAK complexed to the core-TFIIH basal transcription factor activates RNA polymerase II by serine phosphorylation of the repetitive C-terminal domain (CTD) of its large subunit (POLR2A), allowing its escape from the promoter and elongation of the transcripts. Involved in cell cycle control and in RNA transcription by RNA polymerase II. Its expression and activity are constant throughout the cell cycle.

Regulatory subunit of cyclin-dependent kinases that mediates activation of target kinases. Plays a role in transcriptional regulation via its role in regulating the phosphorylation of the C- terminal domain (CTD) of the large subunit of RNA polymerase II (POLR2A).

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing. Functions in association with cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). Inhibited by the CDK-specific inhibitor CDKN1A/p21. May play a role in the regulation of RNA polymerase II (pol II). May be a candidate proto- oncogene in head and neck squamous cell carcinomas (HNSCC).

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing. May induce cell death, possibly by acting on the transcription and RNA processing of apoptosis-related factors.

Specifically required for generation of multiciliated cells, possibly by promoting a cell cycle state compatible with centriole amplification and maturation. Acts downstream of MCIDAS to promote mother centriole amplification and maturation in preparation for apical docking.

Seems to be involved in the regulation of proliferation and migration.

Regulatory subunit of the cyclin-dependent kinase pair (CDK9/cyclin-T1) complex, also called positive transcription elongation factor B (P-TEFb), which facilitates the transition from abortive to productive elongation by phosphorylating the CTD (C-terminal domain) of the large subunit of RNA polymerase II (RNA Pol II). Required to activate the protein kinase activity of CDK9: acts by mediating formation of liquid-liquid phase separation (LLPS) that enhances binding of P-TEFb to the CTD of RNA Pol II.

Regulatory subunit of the cyclin-dependent kinase pair (CDK9/cyclin T) complex, also called positive transcription elongation factor B (P-TEFB), which is proposed to facilitate the transition from abortive to production elongation by phosphorylating the CTD (carboxy- terminal domain) of the large subunit of RNA polymerase II (RNAP II). The activity of this complex is regulated by binding with 7SK snRNA. Plays a role during muscle differentiation; P-TEFB complex interacts with MYOD1; this tripartite complex promotes the transcriptional activity of MYOD1 through its CDK9-mediated phosphorylation and binds the chromatin of promoters and enhancers of muscle-specific genes; this event correlates with hyperphosphorylation of the CTD domain of RNA pol II (By similarity). In addition, enhances MYOD1-dependent transcription through interaction with PKN1. Involved in early embryo development (By similarity).

Positive regulatory subunit of the cyclin-dependent kinases CDK14/PFTK1 and CDK16. Acts as a cell-cycle regulator of Wnt signaling pathway during G2/M phase by recruiting CDK14/PFTK1 to the plasma membrane and promoting phosphorylation of LRP6, leading to the activation of the Wnt signaling pathway. Recruits CDK16 to the plasma membrane. Isoform 3 might play a role in the activation of MYC-mediated transcription.

Acts as an assembly platform for Rho protein signaling complexes. Limits guanine nucleotide exchange activity of MCF2L toward RHOA, which results in an inhibition of both its transcriptional activation ability and its transforming activity. Does not inhibit activity of MCF2L toward CDC42, or activity of MCF2 toward either RHOA or CDC42 (By similarity). May be involved in cell cycle regulation.

Receptor for chemokines SCYA27 and SCYA28. Subsequently transduces a signal by increasing the intracellular calcium ions level and stimulates chemotaxis in a pre-B cell line

Receptor for a C-C type chemokine. Binds to MIP-1-alpha, MIP- 1-delta, RANTES, and MCP-3 and, less efficiently, to MIP-1-beta or MCP- 1 and subsequently transduces a signal by increasing the intracellular calcium ions level. Responsible for affecting stem cell proliferation

Key functional receptor for CCL2 but can also bind CCL7 and CCL12. Its binding with CCL2 on monocytes and macrophages mediates chemotaxis and migration induction through the activation of the PI3K cascade, the small G protein Rac and lamellipodium protrusion (Probable). Also acts as a receptor for the beta-defensin DEFB106A/DEFB106B. Regulates the expression of T-cell inflammatory cytokines and T-cell differentiation, promoting the differentiation of T-cells into T-helper 17 cells (Th17) during inflammation (By similarity). Facilitates the export of mature thymocytes by enhancing directional movement of thymocytes to sphingosine-1-phosphate stimulation and up-regulation of S1P1R expression; signals through the JAK-STAT pathway to regulate FOXO1 activity leading to an increased expression of S1P1R (By similarity). Plays an important role in mediating peripheral nerve injury-induced neuropathic pain (By similarity). Increases NMDA-mediated synaptic transmission in both dopamine D1 and D2 receptor-containing neurons, which may be caused by MAPK/ERK-dependent phosphorylation of GRIN2B/NMDAR2B (By similarity). Mediates the recruitment of macrophages and monocytes to the injury site following brain injury (By similarity).

Receptor for C-C type chemokine. Binds and responds to a variety of chemokines, including CCL11, CCL26, CCL7, CCL13, RANTES(CCL5) and CCL15. Subsequently transduces a signal by increasing the intracellular calcium ions level. In addition acts as a possible functional receptor for NARS1.

High affinity receptor for the C-C type chemokines CCL17/TARC, CCL22/MDC and CKLF isoform 1/CKLF1. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G(i) proteins which activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. Can function as a chemoattractant homing receptor on circulating memory lymphocytes and as a coreceptor for some primary HIV-2 isolates. In the CNS, could mediate hippocampal-neuron survival.

Receptor for a number of inflammatory CC-chemokines including CCL3/MIP-1-alpha, CCL4/MIP-1-beta and RANTES and subsequently transduces a signal by increasing the intracellular calcium ion level. May play a role in the control of granulocytic lineage proliferation or differentiation. Participates in T-lymphocyte migration to the infection site by acting as a chemotactic receptor.

Receptor for the C-C type chemokine CCL20. Binds to CCL20 and subsequently transduces a signal by increasing the intracellular calcium ion levels. Although CCL20 is its major ligand it can also act as a receptor for non-chemokine ligands such as beta-defensins. Binds to defensin DEFB1 leading to increase in intracellular calcium ions and cAMP levels. Its binding to DEFB1 is essential for the function of DEFB1 in regulating sperm motility and bactericidal activity. Binds to defensins DEFB4 and DEFB4A/B and mediates their chemotactic effects. The ligand-receptor pair CCL20-CCR6 is responsible for the chemotaxis of dendritic cells (DC), effector/ memory T-cells and B-cells and plays an important role at skin and mucosal surfaces under homeostatic and inflammatory conditions, as well as in pathology, including cancer and various autoimmune diseases. CCR6-mediated signals are essential for immune responses to microbes in the intestinal mucosa and in the modulation of inflammatory responses initiated by tissue insult and trauma. CCR6 is essential for the recruitment of both the pro-inflammatory IL17 producing helper T-cells (Th17) and the regulatory T-cells (Treg) to sites of inflammation. Required for the normal migration of Th17 cells in Peyers-patches and other related tissue sites of the intestine and plays a role in regulating effector T-cell balance and distribution in inflamed intestine. Plays an important role in the coordination of early thymocyte precursor migration events important for normal subsequent thymocyte precursor development, but is not required for the formation of normal thymic natural regulatory T-cells (nTregs). Required for optimal differentiation of DN2 and DN3 thymocyte precursors. Essential for B-cell localization in the subepithelial dome of Peyers-patches and for efficient B-cell isotype switching to IgA in the Peyers-patches. Essential for appropriate anatomical distribution of memory B-cells in the spleen and for the secondary recall response of memory B-cells (By similarity). Positively regulates sperm motility and chemotaxis via its binding to CCL20.

Receptor for the MIP-3-beta chemokine. Probable mediator of EBV effects on B-lymphocytes or of normal lymphocyte functions

Receptor for the chemokine CCL1/SCYA1/I-309. May regulate monocyte chemotaxis and thymic cell line apoptosis. Alternative coreceptor with CD4 for HIV-1 infection.

Receptor for chemokine SCYA25/TECK. Subsequently transduces a signal by increasing the intracellular calcium ions level.

Receptor for CCL19 and chemerin/RARRES2. Does not appear to be a signaling receptor, but may have a role in modulating chemokine- triggered immune responses by capturing and internalizing CCL19 or by presenting RARRES2 ligand to CMKLR1, a functional signaling receptors. Plays a critical role for the development of Th2 responses

Plays a role in microtubule (MT) stabilization and this stabilization involves the maintenance of NUMA1 at the spindle poles. Colocalizes with polyglutamylated MTs to promote MT stabilization and regulate bipolar spindle formation in mitosis. Binding of CCSAP to centrosomes and the spindle around centrosomes during mitosis inhibits MT depolymerization, thereby stabilizing the mitotic spindle. May play a role in embryonic development. May be required for proper cilia beating (By similarity).

Microtubule-binding protein which might play a role in microtubule bundling.

Acts in concert with MON1A, as a guanine exchange factor (GEF) for RAB7, promotes the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting it from an inactive GDP-bound form into an active GTP-bound form.

Appears to play multiple roles in cell cycle progression, cytokinesis and apoptosis. The p110 isoforms have been suggested to be involved in pre-mRNA splicing, potentially by phosphorylating the splicing protein SFRS7. The p58 isoform may act as a negative regulator of normal cell cycle progression.

Plays multiple roles in cell cycle progression, cytokinesis and apoptosis. Involved in pre-mRNA splicing in a kinase activity- dependent manner. Isoform 7 may act as a negative regulator of normal cell cycle progression.

Coreceptor for bacterial lipopolysaccharide. In concert with LBP, binds to monomeric lipopolysaccharide and delivers it to the LY96/TLR4 complex, thereby mediating the innate immune response to bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS). Acts via MyD88, TIRAP and TRAF6, leading to NF-kappa-B activation, cytokine secretion and the inflammatory response. Acts as a coreceptor for TLR2:TLR6 heterodimer in response to diacylated lipopeptides and for TLR2:TLR1 heterodimer in response to triacylated lipopeptides, these clusters trigger signaling from the cell surface and subsequently are targeted to the Golgi in a lipid-raft dependent pathway. Binds electronegative LDL (LDL(-)) and mediates the cytokine release induced by LDL(-).

Essential for the proper assembly of the glomerular and tubular basement membranes in kidney.

Cell adhesion molecule that mediates both heterotypic cell- cell contacts via its interaction with CD6, as well as homotypic cell- cell contacts. Promotes T-cell activation and proliferation via its interactions with CD6. Contributes to the formation and maturation of the immunological synapse via its interactions with CD6. Mediates homotypic interactions with cells that express ALCAM. Acts as a ligand for the LILRB4 receptor, enhancing LILRB4-mediated inhibition of T cell proliferation. Required for normal hematopoietic stem cell engraftment in the bone marrow. Mediates attachment of dendritic cells onto endothelial cells via homotypic interaction. Inhibits endothelial cell migration and promotes endothelial tube formation via homotypic interactions. Required for normal organization of the lymph vessel network. Required for normal hematopoietic stem cell engraftment in the bone marrow. Plays a role in hematopoiesis; required for normal numbers of hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. Promotes in vitro osteoblast proliferation and differentiation (By similarity). Promotes neurite extension, axon growth and axon guidance; axons grow preferentially on surfaces that contain ALCAM. Mediates outgrowth and pathfinding for retinal ganglion cell axons (By similarity).

May cooperate with MD-1 and TLR4 to mediate the innate immune response to bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) in B-cells. Leads to NF- kappa-B activation. Also involved in the life/death decision of B-cells (By similarity).

Functions as coreceptor for the B-cell antigen receptor complex (BCR) on B-lymphocytes. Decreases the threshold for activation of downstream signaling pathways and for triggering B-cell responses to antigens. Activates signaling pathways that lead to the activation of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase and the mobilization of intracellular Ca(2+) stores. Is not required for early steps during B cell differentiation in the blood marrow. Required for normal differentiation of B-1 cells (By similarity). Required for normal B cell differentiation and proliferation in response to antigen challenges. Required for normal levels of serum immunoglobulins, and for production of high-affinity antibodies in response to antigen challenge.

Antigen-presenting protein that binds self and non-self lipid and glycolipid antigens and presents them to T-cell receptors on natural killer T-cells.

Antigen-presenting protein that binds self and non-self glycolipids and presents them to T-cell receptors on natural killer T- cells.

T-cell surface glycoprotein CD1e, soluble binds diacetylated lipids, including phosphatidyl inositides and diacylated sulfoglycolipids, and is required for the presentation of glycolipid antigens on the cell surface. The membrane-associated form is not active.

Pathogen-recognition receptor expressed on the surface of immature dendritic cells (DCs) and involved in initiation of primary immune response. Thought to mediate the endocytosis of pathogens which are subsequently degraded in lysosomal compartments. The receptor returns to the cell membrane surface and the pathogen-derived antigens are presented to resting T-cells via MHC class II proteins to initiate the adaptive immune response.

B-lymphocyte-specific membrane protein that plays a role in the regulation of cellular calcium influx necessary for the development, differentiation, and activation of B-lymphocytes. Functions as a store-operated calcium (SOC) channel component promoting calcium influx after activation by the B-cell receptor/BCR.

Involved in intercellular adhesion, lymphocyte signaling, cytotoxicity and lymphokine secretion mediated by cytotoxic T- lymphocyte (CTL) and NK cell. Cell surface receptor for NECTIN2. Upon ligand binding, stimulates T-cell proliferation and cytokine production, including that of IL2, IL5, IL10, IL13, and IFNG. Competes with PVRIG for NECTIN2-binding.

Mediates B-cell B-cell interactions. May be involved in the localization of B-cells in lymphoid tissues. Binds sialylated glycoproteins; one of which is CD45. Preferentially binds to alpha-2,6- linked sialic acid. The sialic acid recognition site can be masked by cis interactions with sialic acids on the same cell surface. Upon ligand induced tyrosine phosphorylation in the immune response seems to be involved in regulation of B-cell antigen receptor signaling. Plays a role in positive regulation through interaction with Src family tyrosine kinases and may also act as an inhibitory receptor by recruiting cytoplasmic phosphatases via their SH2 domains that block signal transduction through dephosphorylation of signaling molecules

Heterophilic receptor of the signaling lymphocytic activation molecule (SLAM) family; its ligand is CD48. SLAM receptors triggered by homo- or heterotypic cell-cell interactions are modulating the activation and differentiation of a wide variety of immune cells and thus are involved in the regulation and interconnection of both innate and adaptive immune response. Activities are controlled by presence or absence of small cytoplasmic adapter proteins, SH2D1A/SAP and/or SH2D1B/EAT-2. Acts as activating natural killer (NK) cell receptor. Activating function implicates association with SH2D1A and FYN. Downstreaming signaling involves predominantly VAV1, and, to a lesser degree, INPP5D/SHIP1 and CBL. Signal attenuation in the absence of SH2D1A is proposed to be dependent on INPP5D and to a lesser extent PTPN6/SHP-1 and PTPN11/SHP-2. Stimulates NK cell cytotoxicity, production of IFN-gamma and granule exocytosis. Optimal expansion and activation of NK cells seems to be dependent on the engagement of CD244 with CD48 expressed on neighboring NK cells (By similarity). Acts as costimulator in NK activation by enhancing signals by other NK receptors such as NCR3 and NCR1. At early stages of NK cell differentiation may function as an inhibitory receptor possibly ensuring the self-tolerance of developing NK cells. Involved in the regulation of CD8(+) T-cell proliferation; expression on activated T-cells and binding to CD488 provides costimulatory-like function for neighboring T-cells (By similarity). Inhibits inflammatory responses in dendritic cells (DCs) (By similarity).

May have a pivotal role in cell differentiation of different cell types. Signaling could be triggered by the binding of a lectin- like ligand to the CD24 carbohydrates, and transduced by the release of second messengers derived from the GPI-anchor. Modulates B-cell activation responses. Promotes AG-dependent proliferation of B-cells, and prevents their terminal differentiation into antibody-forming cells. In association with SIGLEC10 may be involved in the selective suppression of the immune response to danger-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) such as HMGB1, HSP70 and HSP90. Plays a role in the control of autoimmunity (By similarity).

May participate in the regulation of T-cell-mediated immune response. May play a protective role in tumor cells by inhibiting natural-killer mediated cell lysis as well as a role of marker for detection of neuroblastoma cells. May be involved in the development of acute and chronic transplant rejection and in the regulation of lymphocytic activity at mucosal surfaces. Could also play a key role in providing the placenta and fetus with a suitable immunological environment throughout pregnancy. Both isoform 1 and isoform 2 appear to be redundant in their ability to modulate CD4 T-cell responses. Isoform 2 is shown to enhance the induction of cytotoxic T-cells and selectively stimulates interferon gamma production in the presence of T-cell receptor signaling.

Receptor for CD70/CD27L. May play a role in survival of activated T-cells. May play a role in apoptosis through association with SIVA1

Involved in T-cell activation, the induction of cell proliferation and cytokine production and promotion of T-cell survival. Enhances the production of IL4 and IL10 in T-cells in conjunction with TCR/CD3 ligation and CD40L costimulation. Isoform 3 enhances CD40L-mediated activation of NF-kappa-B and kinases MAPK8 and PAK2 in T-cells.

Seems to act as an adapter protein between membrane proteins and the actin cytoskeleton. In collaboration with CBLC, modulates the rate of RET turnover and may act as regulatory checkpoint that limits the potency of GDNF on neuronal survival. Controls CBLC function, converting it from an inhibitor to a promoter of RET degradation (By similarity). May play a role in receptor clustering and cytoskeletal polarity in the junction between T-cell and antigen-presenting cell (By similarity). May anchor the podocyte slit diaphragm to the actin cytoskeleton in renal glomerolus. Also required for cytokinesis. Plays a role in epithelial cell junctions formation.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the U5 snRNP complex that is involved in spliceosome assembly.

CD2 interacts with lymphocyte function-associated antigen CD58 (LFA-3) and CD48/BCM1 to mediate adhesion between T-cells and other cell types. CD2 is implicated in the triggering of T-cells, the cytoplasmic domain is implicated in the signaling function

Potential multifunctional C-type lectin receptor that may play roles in endocytosis and phagocytosis as well as in cell adhesion and migration.

Receptor for transcobalamin saturated with cobalamin (TCbl). Plays an important role in cobalamin uptake. Plasma membrane protein that is expressed on follicular dendritic cells (FDC) and mediates interaction with germinal center B cells. Functions as costimulator to promote B cell responses to antigenic stimuli; promotes B cell differentiation and proliferation. Germinal center-B (GC-B) cells differentiate into memory B-cells and plasma cells (PC) through interaction with T-cells and follicular dendritic cells (FDC). CD320 augments the proliferation of PC precursors generated by IL-10.

Sialic-acid-binding immunoglobulin-like lectin (Siglec) that plays a role in mediating cell-cell interactions and in maintaining immune cells in a resting state. Preferentially recognizes and binds alpha-2,3- and more avidly alpha-2,6-linked sialic acid-bearing glycans. Upon engagement of ligands such as C1q or syalylated glycoproteins, two immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motifs (ITIMs) located in CD33 cytoplasmic tail are phosphorylated by Src-like kinases such as LCK. These phosphorylations provide docking sites for the recruitment and activation of protein-tyrosine phosphatases PTPN6/SHP-1 and PTPN11/SHP- 2. In turn, these phosphatases regulate downstream pathways through dephosphorylation of signaling molecules. One of the repressive effect of CD33 on monocyte activation requires phosphoinositide 3-kinase/PI3K.

Possible adhesion molecule with a role in early hematopoiesis by mediating the attachment of stem cells to the bone marrow extracellular matrix or directly to stromal cells. Could act as a scaffold for the attachment of lineage specific glycans, allowing stem cells to bind to lectins expressed by stromal cells or other marrow components. Presents carbohydrate ligands to selectins

Multifunctional glycoprotein that acts as receptor for a broad range of ligands. Ligands can be of proteinaceous nature like thrombospondin, fibronectin, collagen or amyloid-beta as well as of lipidic nature such as oxidized low-density lipoprotein (oxLDL), anionic phospholipids, long-chain fatty acids and bacterial diacylated lipopeptides. They are generally multivalent and can therefore engage multiple receptors simultaneously, the resulting formation of CD36 clusters initiates signal transduction and internalization of receptor- ligand complexes. The dependency on coreceptor signaling is strongly ligand specific. Cellular responses to these ligands are involved in angiogenesis, inflammatory response, fatty acid metabolism, taste and dietary fat processing in the intestine (Probable). Binds long-chain fatty acids and facilitates their transport into cells, thus participating in muscle lipid utilization, adipose energy storage, and gut fat absorption (By similarity). Mechanistically, binding of fatty acids activates downstream kinase LYN, which phosphorylates the palmitoyltransferase ZDHHC5 and inactivates it, resulting in the subsequent depalmitoylation of CD36 and caveolar endocytosis. In the small intestine, plays a role in proximal absorption of dietary fatty acid and cholesterol for optimal chylomicron formation, possibly through the activation of MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2) signaling pathway (By similarity). Involved in oral fat perception and preferences. Detection into the tongue of long- chain fatty acids leads to a rapid and sustained rise in flux and protein content of pancreatobiliary secretions (By similarity). In taste receptor cells, mediates the induction of an increase in intracellular calcium levels by long-chain fatty acids, leading to the activation of the gustatory neurons in the nucleus of the solitary tract (By similarity). Important factor in both ventromedial hypothalamus neuronal sensing of long-chain fatty acid and the regulation of energy and glucose homeostasis (By similarity). Receptor for thrombospondins, THBS1 and THBS2, mediating their antiangiogenic effects (By similarity). As a coreceptor for TLR4:TLR6 heterodimer, promotes inflammation in monocytes/macrophages. Upon ligand binding, such as oxLDL or amyloid-beta 42, interacts with the heterodimer TLR4:TLR6, the complex is internalized and triggers inflammatory response, leading to NF-kappa-B-dependent production of CXCL1, CXCL2 and CCL9 cytokines, via MYD88 signaling pathway, and CCL5 cytokine, via TICAM1 signaling pathway, as well as IL1B secretion, through the priming and activation of the NLRP3 inflammasome (By similarity). Selective and nonredundant sensor of microbial diacylated lipopeptide that signal via TLR2:TLR6 heterodimer, this cluster triggers signaling from the cell surface, leading to the NF- kappa-B-dependent production of TNF, via MYD88 signaling pathway and subsequently is targeted to the Golgi in a lipid-raft dependent pathway (By similarity).

Co-chaperone that binds to numerous proteins and promotes their interaction with Hsp70 and Hsp90.

Synthesizes the second messengers cyclic ADP-ribose and nicotinate-adenine dinucleotide phosphate, the former a second messenger for glucose-induced insulin secretion. Also has cADPr hydrolase activity. Also moonlights as a receptor in cells of the immune system

Part of the TCR-CD3 complex present on T-lymphocyte cell surface that plays an essential role in adaptive immune response. When antigen presenting cells (APCs) activate T-cell receptor (TCR), TCR- mediated signals are transmitted across the cell membrane by the CD3 chains CD3D, CD3E, CD3G and CD3Z. All CD3 chains contain immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motifs (ITAMs) in their cytoplasmic domain. Upon TCR engagement, these motifs become phosphorylated by Src family protein tyrosine kinases LCK and FYN, resulting in the activation of downstream signaling pathways. In addition of this role of signal transduction in T-cell activation, CD3D plays an essential role in thymocyte differentiation. Indeed, participates in correct intracellular TCR-CD3 complex assembly and surface expression. In absence of a functional TCR-CD3 complex, thymocytes are unable to differentiate properly. Interacts with CD4 and CD8 and thus serves to establish a functional link between the TCR and coreceptors CD4 and CD8, which is needed for activation and positive selection of CD4 or CD8 T-cells(PubMed:12215456).

Part of the TCR-CD3 complex present on T-lymphocyte cell surface that plays an essential role in adaptive immune response. When antigen presenting cells (APCs) activate T-cell receptor (TCR), TCR- mediated signals are transmitted across the cell membrane by the CD3 chains CD3D, CD3E, CD3G and CD3Z. All CD3 chains contain immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motifs (ITAMs) in their cytoplasmic domain. Upon TCR engagement, these motifs become phosphorylated by Src family protein tyrosine kinases LCK and FYN, resulting in the activation of downstream signaling pathways. In addition of this role of signal transduction in T-cell activation, CD3E plays an essential role in correct T-cell development. Initiates the TCR-CD3 complex assembly by forming the two heterodimers CD3D/CD3E and CD3G/CD3E. Participates also in internalization and cell surface down- regulation of TCR-CD3 complexes via endocytosis sequences present in CD3E cytosolic region.

Part of the TCR-CD3 complex present on T-lymphocyte cell surface that plays an essential role in adaptive immune response. When antigen presenting cells (APCs) activate T-cell receptor (TCR), TCR- mediated signals are transmitted across the cell membrane by the CD3 chains CD3D, CD3E, CD3G and CD3Z. All CD3 chains contain immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motifs (ITAMs) in their cytoplasmic domain. Upon TCR engagement, these motifs become phosphorylated by Src family protein tyrosine kinases LCK and FYN, resulting in the activation of downstream signaling pathways. In addition to this role of signal transduction in T-cell activation, CD3G plays an essential role in the dynamic regulation of TCR expression at the cell surface. Indeed, constitutive TCR cycling is dependent on the di-leucine-based (diL) receptor-sorting motif present in CD3G.

Part of the TCR-CD3 complex present on T-lymphocyte cell surface that plays an essential role in adaptive immune response. When antigen presenting cells (APCs) activate T-cell receptor (TCR), TCR- mediated signals are transmitted across the cell membrane by the CD3 chains CD3D, CD3E, CD3G and CD3Z. All CD3 chains contain immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motifs (ITAMs) in their cytoplasmic domain. Upon TCR engagement, these motifs become phosphorylated by Src family protein tyrosine kinases LCK and FYN, resulting in the activation of downstream signaling pathways. CD3Z ITAMs phosphorylation creates multiple docking sites for the protein kinase ZAP70 leading to ZAP70 phosphorylation and its conversion into a catalytically active enzyme. Plays an important role in intrathymic T-cell differentiation. Additionally, participates in the activity-dependent synapse formation of retinal ganglion cells (RGCs) in both the retina and dorsal lateral geniculate nucleus (dLGN) (By similarity).

Cytokine that acts as a ligand to CD40/TNFRSF5. Costimulates T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. Its cross-linking on T-cells generates a costimulatory signal which enhances the production of IL4 and IL10 in conjunction with the TCR/CD3 ligation and CD28 costimulation. Induces the activation of NF-kappa-B. Induces the activation of kinases MAPK8 and PAK2 in T-cells. Induces tyrosine phosphorylation of isoform 3 of CD28. Mediates B-cell proliferation in the absence of co-stimulus as well as IgE production in the presence of IL4 (By similarity). Involved in immunoglobulin class switching (By similarity).

Cell-surface receptor that plays a role in cell-cell interactions, cell adhesion and migration, helping them to sense and respond to changes in the tissue microenvironment. Participates thereby in a wide variety of cellular functions including the activation, recirculation and homing of T-lymphocytes, hematopoiesis, inflammation and response to bacterial infection. Engages, through its ectodomain, extracellular matrix components such as hyaluronan/HA, collagen, growth factors, cytokines or proteases and serves as a platform for signal transduction by assembling, via its cytoplasmic domain, protein complexes containing receptor kinases and membrane proteases. Such effectors include PKN2, the RhoGTPases RAC1 and RHOA, Rho-kinases and phospholipase C that coordinate signaling pathways promoting calcium mobilization and actin-mediated cytoskeleton reorganization essential for cell migration and adhesion.

Has a role in both cell adhesion by acting as an adhesion receptor for THBS1 on platelets, and in the modulation of integrins. Plays an important role in memory formation and synaptic plasticity in the hippocampus (By similarity). Receptor for SIRPA, binding to which prevents maturation of immature dendritic cells and inhibits cytokine production by mature dendritic cells. Interaction with SIRPG mediates cell-cell adhesion, enhances superantigen-dependent T-cell-mediated proliferation and costimulates T-cell activation. May play a role in membrane transport and/or integrin dependent signal transduction. May prevent premature elimination of red blood cells. May be involved in membrane permeability changes induced following virus infection.

Glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI)-anchored cell surface glycoprotein that interacts via its N-terminal immunoglobulin domain with cell surface receptors including 2B4/CD244 or CD2 to regulate immune cell function and activation. Participates in T-cell signaling transduction by associating with CD2 and efficiently bringing the Src family protein kinase LCK and LAT to the TCR/CD3 complex. In turn, promotes LCK phosphorylation and subsequent activation. Induces the phosphorylation of the cytoplasmic immunoreceptortyrosine switch motifs (ITSMs) of CD244 initiating a series of signaling events that leads to the generation of the immunological synapse and the directed release of cytolytic granules containing perforin and granzymes by T- lymphocytes and NK-cells.

Integral membrane glycoprotein that plays an essential role in the immune response and serves multiple functions in responses against both external and internal offenses. In T-cells, functions primarily as a coreceptor for MHC class II molecule:peptide complex. The antigens presented by class II peptides are derived from extracellular proteins while class I peptides are derived from cytosolic proteins. Interacts simultaneously with the T-cell receptor (TCR) and the MHC class II presented by antigen presenting cells (APCs). In turn, recruits the Src kinase LCK to the vicinity of the TCR-CD3 complex. LCK then initiates different intracellular signaling pathways by phosphorylating various substrates ultimately leading to lymphokine production, motility, adhesion and activation of T-helper cells. In other cells such as macrophages or NK cells, plays a role in differentiation/activation, cytokine expression and cell migration in a TCR/LCK-independent pathway. Participates in the development of T- helper cells in the thymus and triggers the differentiation of monocytes into functional mature macrophages.

May play a role in carrying and orienting carbohydrate, as well as having a more specific role

Required for efficient formation of myofibers in regenerating muscle at the level of cell fusion. May be involved in growth regulation in hematopoietic cells (By similarity).

Potent inhibitor of the complement membrane attack complex (MAC) action. Acts by binding to the C8 and/or C9 complements of the assembling MAC, thereby preventing incorporation of the multiple copies of C9 required for complete formation of the osmolytic pore. This inhibitor appears to be species-specific. Involved in signal transduction for T-cell activation complexed to a protein tyrosine kinase

Secreted protein that acts as a key regulator of lipid synthesis: mainly expressed by macrophages in lymphoid and inflamed tissues and regulates mechanisms in inflammatory responses, such as infection or atherosclerosis. Able to inhibit lipid droplet size in adipocytes. Following incorporation into mature adipocytes via CD36- mediated endocytosis, associates with cytosolic FASN, inhibiting fatty acid synthase activity and leading to lipolysis, the degradation of triacylglycerols into glycerol and free fatty acids (FFA). CD5L-induced lipolysis occurs with progression of obesity: participates in obesity- associated inflammation following recruitment of inflammatory macrophages into adipose tissues, a cause of insulin resistance and obesity-related metabolic disease. Regulation of intracellular lipids mediated by CD5L has a direct effect on transcription regulation mediated by nuclear receptors ROR-gamma (RORC). Acts as a key regulator of metabolic switch in T-helper Th17 cells. Regulates the expression of pro-inflammatory genes in Th17 cells by altering the lipid content and limiting synthesis of cholesterol ligand of RORC, the master transcription factor of Th17-cell differentiation. CD5L is mainly present in non-pathogenic Th17 cells, where it decreases the content of polyunsaturated fatty acyls (PUFA), affecting two metabolic proteins MSMO1 and CYP51A1, which synthesize ligands of RORC, limiting RORC activity and expression of pro-inflammatory genes. Participates in obesity-associated autoimmunity via its association with IgM, interfering with the binding of IgM to Fcalpha/mu receptor and enhancing the development of long-lived plasma cells that produce high- affinity IgG autoantibodies (By similarity). Also acts as an inhibitor of apoptosis in macrophages: promotes macrophage survival from the apoptotic effects of oxidized lipids in case of atherosclerosis. Involved in early response to microbial infection against various pathogens by acting as a pattern recognition receptor and by promoting autophagy.

p35 is a neuron specific activator of CDK5. The complex p35/CDK5 is required for neurite outgrowth and cortical lamination. Involved in dendritic spine morphogenesis by mediating the EFNA1-EPHA4 signaling. Activator of TPKII. The complex p35/CDK5 participates in the regulation of the circadian clock by modulating the function of CLOCK protein: phosphorylates CLOCK at 'Thr-451' and 'Thr-461' and regulates the transcriptional activity of the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer in association with altered stability and subcellular distribution.

Functions as cell surface receptor for TIMP1 and plays a role in the activation of cellular signaling cascades. Plays a role in the activation of ITGB1 and integrin signaling, leading to the activation of AKT, FAK/PTK2 and MAP kinases. Promotes cell survival, reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton, cell adhesion, spreading and migration, via its role in the activation of AKT and FAK/PTK2. Plays a role in VEGFA signaling via its role in regulating the internalization of KDR/VEGFR2. Plays a role in intracellular vesicular transport processes, and is required for normal trafficking of the PMEL luminal domain that is essential for the development and maturation of melanocytes. Plays a role in the adhesion of leukocytes onto endothelial cells via its role in the regulation of SELP trafficking. May play a role in mast cell degranulation in response to Ms4a2/FceRI stimulation, but not in mast cell degranulation in response to other stimuli.

Could play a role in phagocytic activities of tissue macrophages, both in intracellular lysosomal metabolism and extracellular cell-cell and cell-pathogen interactions. Binds to tissue- and organ-specific lectins or selectins, allowing homing of macrophage subsets to particular sites. Rapid recirculation of CD68 from endosomes and lysosomes to the plasma membrane may allow macrophages to crawl over selectin-bearing substrates or other cells

Involved in lymphocyte proliferation and functions as a signal transmitting receptor in lymphocytes, natural killer (NK) cells, and platelets

Cell adhesion molecule that mediates cell-cell contacts and regulates T-cell responses via its interaction with ALCAM/CD166. Contributes to signaling cascades triggered by activation of the TCR/CD3 complex. Functions as costimulatory molecule; promotes T-cell activation and proliferation. Contributes to the formation and maturation of the immunological synapse. Functions as calcium- dependent pattern receptor that binds and aggregates both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Binds both lipopolysaccharide (LPS) from Gram-negative bacteria and lipoteichoic acid from Gram-positive bacteria. LPS binding leads to the activation of signaling cascades and down-stream MAP kinases. Mediates activation of the inflammatory response and the secretion of pro-inflammatory cytokines in response to LPS.

Cytokine which is the ligand for CD27. The CD70-CD27 pathway plays an important role in the generation and maintenance of T cell immunity, in particular during antiviral responses. Upon CD27 binding, induces the proliferation of costimulated T-cells and enhances the generation of cytolytic T-cells.

Required in cooperation with CD79B for initiation of the signal transduction cascade activated by binding of antigen to the B- cell antigen receptor complex (BCR) which leads to internalization of the complex, trafficking to late endosomes and antigen presentation. Also required for BCR surface expression and for efficient differentiation of pro- and pre-B-cells. Stimulates SYK autophosphorylation and activation. Binds to BLNK, bringing BLNK into proximity with SYK and allowing SYK to phosphorylate BLNK. Also interacts with and increases activity of some Src-family tyrosine kinases. Represses BCR signaling during development of immature B- cells.

Required in cooperation with CD79A for initiation of the signal transduction cascade activated by the B-cell antigen receptor complex (BCR) which leads to internalization of the complex, trafficking to late endosomes and antigen presentation. Enhances phosphorylation of CD79A, possibly by recruiting kinases which phosphorylate CD79A or by recruiting proteins which bind to CD79A and protect it from dephosphorylation.

Involved in the costimulatory signal essential for T- lymphocyte activation. T-cell proliferation and cytokine production is induced by the binding of CD28, binding to CTLA-4 has opposite effects and inhibits T-cell activation.

Structural component of specialized membrane microdomains known as tetraspanin-enriched microdomains (TERMs), which act as platforms for receptor clustering and signaling. Essential for trafficking and compartmentalization of CD19 receptor on the surface of activated B cells. Upon initial encounter with microbial pathogens, enables the assembly of CD19-CR2/CD21 and B cell receptor (BCR) complexes at signaling TERMs, lowering the threshold dose of antigen required to trigger B cell clonal expansion and antibody production. In T cells, facilitates the localization of CD247/CD3 zeta at antigen-induced synapses with B cells, providing for costimulation and polarization toward T helper type 2 phenotype. Present in MHC class II compartments, may also play a role in antigen presentation. Can act both as positive and negative regulator of homotypic or heterotypic cell-cell fusion processes. Positively regulates sperm-egg fusion and may be involved in acrosome reaction (By similarity). In myoblasts, associates with CD9 and PTGFRN and inhibits myotube fusion during muscle regeneration (By similarity). In macrophages, associates with CD9 and beta-1 and beta-2 integrins, and prevents macrophage fusion into multinucleated giant cells specialized in ingesting complement-opsonized large particles. Also prevents the fusion of mononuclear cell progenitors into osteoclasts in charge of bone resorption (By similarity). May regulate the compartmentalization of enzymatic activities. In T cells, defines the subcellular localization of dNTPase SAMHD1 and permits its degradation by the proteasome, thereby controlling intracellular dNTP levels. Also involved in cell adhesion and motility. Positively regulates integrin-mediated adhesion of macrophages, particularly relevant for the inflammatory response in the lung (By similarity).

Associates with CD4 or CD8 and delivers costimulatory signals for the TCR/CD3 pathway

May play a significant role in antigen presentation or the cellular interactions that follow lymphocyte activation

Receptor involved in the costimulatory signal essential for T-lymphocyte proliferation and interleukin-2 production, by binding CD28 or CTLA-4. May play a critical role in the early events of T-cell activation and costimulation of naive T-cells, such as deciding between immunity and anergy that is made by T-cells within 24 hours after activation. Also involved in the regulation of B cells function, plays a role in regulating the level of IgG(1) produced. Upon CD40 engagement, activates NF-kappa-B signaling pathway via phospholipase C and protein kinase C activation (By similarity).

Integral membrane glycoprotein that plays an essential role in the immune response and serves multiple functions in responses against both external and internal offenses. In T-cells, functions primarily as a coreceptor for MHC class I molecule:peptide complex. The antigens presented by class I peptides are derived from cytosolic proteins while class II derived from extracellular proteins. Interacts simultaneously with the T-cell receptor (TCR) and the MHC class I proteins presented by antigen presenting cells (APCs). In turn, recruits the Src kinase LCK to the vicinity of the TCR-CD3 complex. LCK then initiates different intracellular signaling pathways by phosphorylating various substrates ultimately leading to lymphokine production, motility, adhesion and activation of cytotoxic T- lymphocytes (CTLs). This mechanism enables CTLs to recognize and eliminate infected cells and tumor cells. In NK-cells, the presence of CD8A homodimers at the cell surface provides a survival mechanism allowing conjugation and lysis of multiple target cells. CD8A homodimer molecules also promote the survival and differentiation of activated lymphocytes into memory CD8 T-cells.

Identifies cytotoxic/suppressor T-cells that interact with MHC class I bearing targets. CD8 is thought to play a role in the process of T-cell mediated killing (By similarity).

Integral membrane glycoprotein that plays an essential role in the immune response and serves multiple functions in responses against both external and internal offenses. In T-cells, functions primarily as a coreceptor for MHC class I molecule:peptide complex. The antigens presented by class I peptides are derived from cytosolic proteins while class II derived from extracellular proteins. Interacts simultaneously with the T-cell receptor (TCR) and the MHC class I proteins presented by antigen presenting cells (APCs). In turn, recruits the Src kinase LCK to the vicinity of the TCR-CD3 complex. A palmitoylation site in the cytoplasmic tail of CD8B chain contributes to partitioning of CD8 into the plasma membrane lipid rafts where signaling proteins are enriched. Once LCK recruited, it initiates different intracellular signaling pathways by phosphorylating various substrates ultimately leading to lymphokine production, motility, adhesion and activation of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs). Additionally, plays a critical role in thymic selection of CD8+ T- cells.

Involved in T-cell adhesion processes and in spontaneous rosette formation with erythrocytes. Plays a role in a late step of leukocyte extravasation helping leukocytes to overcome the endothelial basement membrane. Acts at the same site as, but independently of, PECAM1. Involved in T-cell adhesion processes (By similarity).

Integral membrane protein associated with integrins, which regulates different processes, such as sperm-egg fusion, platelet activation and aggregation, and cell adhesion. Present at the cell surface of oocytes and plays a key role in sperm-egg fusion, possibly by organizing multiprotein complexes and the morphology of the membrane required for the fusion (By similarity). In myoblasts, associates with CD81 and PTGFRN and inhibits myotube fusion during muscle regeneration (By similarity). In macrophages, associates with CD81 and beta-1 and beta-2 integrins, and prevents macrophage fusion into multinucleated giant cells specialized in ingesting complement-opsonized large particles. Also prevents the fusion between mononuclear cell progenitors into osteoclasts in charge of bone resorption (By similarity). Acts as a receptor for PSG17 (By similarity). Involved in platelet activation and aggregation. Regulates paranodal junction formation (By similarity). Involved in cell adhesion, cell motility and tumor metastasis.

Plays a role in transcriptional regulation as a repressor that inhibits monoamine oxidase A (MAOA) activity and gene expression by binding to the promoter. Plays an important oncogenic role in mediating the full transforming effect of MYC in medulloblastoma cells. Involved in apoptotic signaling pathways; May act downstream of P38- kinase and BCL-2, but upstream of CASP3/caspase-3 as well as CCND1/cyclin D1 and E2F1.

Catalyzes the deamination of cytidine and deoxycytidine into uridine and deoxyuridine, respectively. May play an important role in testicular development and spermatogenesis.

Required for full ubiquitin ligase activity of the anaphase promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C) and may confer substrate specificity upon the complex. Is regulated by MAD2L1: in metaphase the MAD2L1-CDC20-APC/C ternary complex is inactive and in anaphase the CDC20-APC/C binary complex is active in degrading substrates. The CDC20-APC/C complex positively regulates the formation of synaptic vesicle clustering at active zone to the presynaptic membrane in postmitotic neurons. CDC20-APC/C-induced degradation of NEUROD2 induces presynaptic differentiation.

Component of the anaphase promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C), a cell cycle-regulated E3 ubiquitin ligase that controls progression through mitosis and the G1 phase of the cell cycle. The APC/C complex acts by mediating ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of target proteins: it mainly mediates the formation of 'Lys-11'-linked polyubiquitin chains and, to a lower extent, the formation of 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. May recruit the E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes to the complex.

Co-chaperone that binds to numerous kinases and promotes their interaction with the Hsp90 complex, resulting in stabilization and promotion of their activity. Inhibits HSP90AA1 ATPase activity.

Plasma membrane-associated small GTPase which cycles between an active GTP-bound and an inactive GDP-bound state. In active state binds to a variety of effector proteins to regulate cellular responses. Involved in epithelial cell polarization processes. Regulates the bipolar attachment of spindle microtubules to kinetochores before chromosome congression in metaphase. Regulates cell migration. In neurons, plays a role in the extension and maintenance of the formation of filopodia, thin and actin-rich surface projections. Required for DOCK10-mediated spine formation in Purkinje cells and hippocampal neurons. In podocytes, facilitates filopodia and podosomes formation upon DOCK11- activation. Upon activation by CaMKII, modulates dendritic spine structural plasticity by relaying CaMKII transient activation to synapse-specific, long-term signaling (By similarity). Also plays a role in phagocytosis through organization of the F-actin cytoskeleton associated with forming phagocytic cups.

Required for initiation of chromosomal DNA replication. Core component of CDC45-MCM-GINS (CMG) helicase, the molecular machine that unwinds template DNA during replication, and around which the replisome is built.

DNA-binding protein involved in cell cycle control. May act as a transcription activator. Plays role in pre-mRNA splicing as core component of precatalytic, catalytic and postcatalytic spliceosomal complexes. Component of the PRP19-CDC5L complex that forms an integral part of the spliceosome and is required for activating pre-mRNA splicing. The PRP19-CDC5L complex may also play a role in the response to DNA damage (DDR).

Involved in the initiation of DNA replication. Also participates in checkpoint controls that ensure DNA replication is completed before mitosis is initiated

Tumor suppressor probably involved in transcriptional and post-transcriptional control pathways. May be involved in cell cycle progression through the regulation of cyclin D1/PRAD1 expression. Component of the PAF1 complex (PAF1C) which has multiple functions during transcription by RNA polymerase II and is implicated in regulation of development and maintenance of embryonic stem cell pluripotency. PAF1C associates with RNA polymerase II through interaction with POLR2A CTD non-phosphorylated and 'Ser-2'- and 'Ser- 5'-phosphorylated forms and is involved in transcriptional elongation, acting both independently and synergistically with TCEA1 and in cooperation with the DSIF complex and HTATSF1. PAF1C is required for transcription of Hox and Wnt target genes. PAF1C is involved in hematopoiesis and stimulates transcriptional activity of KMT2A/MLL1; it promotes leukemogenesis through association with KMT2A/MLL1-rearranged oncoproteins, such as KMT2A/MLL1-MLLT3/AF9 and KMT2A/MLL1-MLLT1/ENL. PAF1C is involved in histone modifications such as ubiquitination of histone H2B and methylation on histone H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3). PAF1C recruits the RNF20/40 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex and the E2 enzyme UBE2A or UBE2B to chromatin which mediate monoubiquitination of 'Lys-120' of histone H2B (H2BK120ub1); UB2A/B-mediated H2B ubiquitination is proposed to be coupled to transcription. PAF1C is involved in mRNA 3' end formation probably through association with cleavage and poly(A) factors. In case of infection by influenza A strain H3N2, PAF1C associates with viral NS1 protein, thereby regulating gene transcription. Connects PAF1C with the cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor (CPSF) complex and the cleavage stimulation factor (CSTF) complex, and with Wnt signaling. Involved in polyadenylation of mRNA precursors.

Kinase involved in initiation of DNA replication. Phosphorylates critical substrates that regulate the G1/S phase transition and initiation of DNA replication, such as MCM proteins and CLASPIN.

Regulator of chromosome structure during mitosis required for condensin-depleted chromosomes to retain their compact architecture through anaphase. Acts by mediating the recruitment of phopsphatase PP1-gamma subunit (PPP1CC) to chromatin at anaphase and into the following interphase. At anaphase onset, its association with chromatin targets a pool of PPP1CC to dephosphorylate substrates.

F-box-like protein which is required for entry into mitosis. Acts by participating in E3 ligase complexes that mediate the ubiquitination and degradation of WEE1 kinase at G2/M phase (By similarity).

May participate in the regulation of cell proliferation through the E2F/RB pathway. May be involved in molecular regulation of hematopoietic stem cells and progenitor cell lineage commitment and differentiation (By similarity).

Regulator of sister chromatid cohesion in mitosis stabilizing cohesin complex association with chromatin. May antagonize the action of WAPL which stimulates cohesin dissociation from chromatin. Cohesion ensures that chromosome partitioning is accurate in both meiotic and mitotic cells and plays an important role in DNA repair. Required for efficient DNA double-stranded break repair.

Participates in MYC-mediated cell transformation and apoptosis; induces anchorage-independent growth and clonogenicity in lymphoblastoid cells. Insufficient to induce tumorigenicity when overexpressed but contributes to MYC-mediated tumorigenesis. May play a role as transcriptional regulator.

May be involved in cell adhesion and cell matrix association. May play a role in the regulation of anchorage versus migration or proliferation versus differentiation via its phosphorylation. May be a novel marker for leukemia diagnosis and for immature hematopoietic stem cell subsets. Belongs to the tetraspanin web involved in tumor progression and metastasis.

This enzyme scavenges exogenous and endogenous cytidine and 2'-deoxycytidine for UMP synthesis.

Potential calcium-dependent cell-adhesion protein. May be required for the structural integrity of the outer segment (OS) of photoreceptor cells (By similarity).

Intermicrovillar adhesion molecule that forms, via its extracellular domain, calcium-dependent heterophilic complexes with CDHR5 on adjacent microvilli. Thereby, controls the packing of microvilli at the apical membrane of epithelial cells. Through its cytoplasmic domain, interacts with microvillus cytoplasmic proteins to form the intermicrovillar adhesion complex/IMAC. This complex plays a central role in microvilli and epithelial brush border differentiation. May also play a role in cell-cell adhesion and contact inhibition in epithelial cells.

Cadherins are calcium-dependent cell adhesion proteins. They preferentially interact with themselves in a homophilic manner in connecting cells; cadherins may thus contribute to the sorting of heterogeneous cell types (By similarity).

Intermicrovillar adhesion molecule that forms, via its extracellular domain, calcium-dependent heterophilic complexes with CDHR2 on adjacent microvilli. Thereby, controls the packing of microvilli at the apical membrane of epithelial cells. Through its cytoplasmic domain, interacts with microvillus cytoplasmic proteins to form the intermicrovillar adhesion complex/IMAC. This complex plays a central role in microvilli and epithelial brush border differentiation.

Acts as an important p53/TP53-apoptotic effector. Regulates TNF-alpha-mediated apoptosis in a p53/TP53-dependent manner.

Catalyzes the biosynthesis of phosphatidylinositol (PtdIns) as well as PtdIns:inositol exchange reaction. May thus act to reduce an excessive cellular PtdIns content. The exchange activity is due to the reverse reaction of PtdIns synthase and is dependent on CMP, which is tightly bound to the enzyme.

Cyclin-dependent kinase that phosphorylates the transcription factor ETS2 (in vitro) and positively controls its proteasomal degradation (in cells). Involved in the regulation of actin cytoskeleton organization through the phosphorylation of actin dynamics regulators such as PKN2. Is a negative regulator of ciliogenesis through phosphorylation of PKN2 and promotion of RhoA signaling.

Cyclin-dependent kinase that phosphorylates the C-terminal domain (CTD) of the large subunit of RNA polymerase II (POLR2A), thereby acting as a key regulator of transcription elongation. Regulates the expression of genes involved in DNA repair and is required for the maintenance of genomic stability. Preferentially phosphorylates 'Ser-5' in CTD repeats that are already phosphorylated at 'Ser-7', but can also phosphorylate 'Ser-2'. Required for RNA splicing, possibly by phosphorylating SRSF1/SF2. Involved in regulation of MAP kinase activity, possibly leading to affect the response to estrogen inhibitors.

Cyclin-dependent kinase which displays CTD kinase activity and is required for RNA splicing. Has CTD kinase activity by hyperphosphorylating the C-terminal heptapeptide repeat domain (CTD) of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit RPB1, thereby acting as a key regulator of transcription elongation. Required for RNA splicing, probably by phosphorylating SRSF1/SF2. Required during hematopoiesis. In case of infection by HIV-1 virus, interacts with HIV-1 Tat protein acetylated at 'Lys-50' and 'Lys-51', thereby increasing HIV-1 mRNA splicing and promoting the production of the doubly spliced HIV-1 protein Nef.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in the control of the eukaryotic cell cycle, whose activity is controlled by an associated cyclin. Acts as a cell-cycle regulator of Wnt signaling pathway during G2/M phase by mediating the phosphorylation of LRP6 at 'Ser-1490', leading to the activation of the Wnt signaling pathway. Acts as a regulator of cell cycle progression and cell proliferation via its interaction with CCDN3. Phosphorylates RB1 in vitro, however the relevance of such result remains to be confirmed in vivo. May also play a role in meiosis, neuron differentiation and may indirectly act as a negative regulator of insulin-responsive glucose transport.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts like an antiapoptotic protein that counters TRAIL/TNFSF10-induced apoptosis by inducing phosphorylation of BIRC5 at 'Thr-34'.

Protein kinase that plays a role in vesicle-mediated transport processes and exocytosis. Regulates GH1 release by brain neurons. Phosphorylates NSF, and thereby regulates NSF oligomerization. Required for normal spermatogenesis. Regulates neuron differentiation and dendrite development (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of insulin secretion in response to changes in blood glucose levels. Can phosphorylate CCNY at 'Ser-336' (in vitro).

May play a role in terminally differentiated neurons. Has a Ser/Thr-phosphorylating activity for histone H1 (By similarity).

May play a role in signal transduction cascades in terminally differentiated cells

Plays a key role in the control of the eukaryotic cell cycle by modulating the centrosome cycle as well as mitotic onset; promotes G2-M transition, and regulates G1 progress and G1-S transition via association with multiple interphase cyclins. Required in higher cells for entry into S-phase and mitosis. Phosphorylates PARVA/actopaxin, APC, AMPH, APC, BARD1, Bcl-xL/BCL2L1, BRCA2, CALD1, CASP8, CDC7, CDC20, CDC25A, CDC25C, CC2D1A, CENPA, CSNK2 proteins/CKII, FZR1/CDH1, CDK7, CEBPB, CHAMP1, DMD/dystrophin, EEF1 proteins/EF-1, EZH2, KIF11/EG5, EGFR, FANCG, FOS, GFAP, GOLGA2/GM130, GRASP1, UBE2A/hHR6A, HIST1H1 proteins/histone H1, HMGA1, HIVEP3/KRC, KAT5, LMNA, LMNB, LMNC, LBR, LATS1, MAP1B, MAP4, MARCKS, MCM2, MCM4, MKLP1, MYB, NEFH, NFIC, NPC/nuclear pore complex, PITPNM1/NIR2, NPM1, NCL, NUCKS1, NPM1/numatrin, ORC1, PRKAR2A, EEF1E1/p18, EIF3F/p47, p53/TP53, NONO/p54NRB, PAPOLA, PLEC/plectin, RB1, TPPP, UL40/R2, RAB4A, RAP1GAP, RCC1, RPS6KB1/S6K1, KHDRBS1/SAM68, ESPL1, SKI, BIRC5/survivin, STIP1, TEX14, beta-tubulins, MAPT/TAU, NEDD1, VIM/vimentin, TK1, FOXO1, RUNX1/AML1, SAMHD1, SIRT2, CGAS and RUNX2. CDK1/CDC2-cyclin-B controls pronuclear union in interphase fertilized eggs. Essential for early stages of embryonic development. During G2 and early mitosis, CDC25A/B/C-mediated dephosphorylation activates CDK1/cyclin complexes which phosphorylate several substrates that trigger at least centrosome separation, Golgi dynamics, nuclear envelope breakdown and chromosome condensation. Once chromosomes are condensed and aligned at the metaphase plate, CDK1 activity is switched off by WEE1- and PKMYT1-mediated phosphorylation to allow sister chromatid separation, chromosome decondensation, reformation of the nuclear envelope and cytokinesis. Phosphorylates KRT5 during prometaphase and metaphase (By similarity). Inactivated by PKR/EIF2AK2- and WEE1-mediated phosphorylation upon DNA damage to stop cell cycle and genome replication at the G2 checkpoint thus facilitating DNA repair. Reactivated after successful DNA repair through WIP1-dependent signaling leading to CDC25A/B/C-mediated dephosphorylation and restoring cell cycle progression. In proliferating cells, CDK1-mediated FOXO1 phosphorylation at the G2-M phase represses FOXO1 interaction with 14-3-3 proteins and thereby promotes FOXO1 nuclear accumulation and transcription factor activity, leading to cell death of postmitotic neurons. The phosphorylation of beta-tubulins regulates microtubule dynamics during mitosis. NEDD1 phosphorylation promotes PLK1-mediated NEDD1 phosphorylation and subsequent targeting of the gamma-tubulin ring complex (gTuRC) to the centrosome, an important step for spindle formation. In addition, CC2D1A phosphorylation regulates CC2D1A spindle pole localization and association with SCC1/RAD21 and centriole cohesion during mitosis. The phosphorylation of Bcl-xL/BCL2L1 after prolongated G2 arrest upon DNA damage triggers apoptosis. In contrast, CASP8 phosphorylation during mitosis prevents its activation by proteolysis and subsequent apoptosis. This phosphorylation occurs in cancer cell lines, as well as in primary breast tissues and lymphocytes. EZH2 phosphorylation promotes H3K27me3 maintenance and epigenetic gene silencing. CALD1 phosphorylation promotes Schwann cell migration during peripheral nerve regeneration (By similarity). CDK1-cyclin-B complex phosphorylates NCKAP5L and mediates its dissociation from centrosomes during mitosis. Regulates the amplitude of the cyclic expression of the core clock gene BMAL1 by phosphorylating its transcriptional repressor NR1D1, and this phosphorylation is necessary for SCF(FBXW7)-mediated ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of NR1D1. Phosphorylates EML3 at 'Thr-881' which is essential for its interaction with HAUS augmin- like complex and TUBG1. Phosphorylates CGAS during mitosis, leading to its inhibition, thereby preventing CGAS activation by self DNA during mitosis.

Required for high-level Shh responses in the developing neural tube. Together with TBC1D32, controls the structure of the primary cilium by coordinating assembly of the ciliary membrane and axoneme, allowing GLI2 to be properly activated in response to SHH signaling (By similarity). Involved in cell growth. Activates CDK2, a kinase involved in the control of the cell cycle, by phosphorylating residue 'Thr-160'.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in the control of the cell cycle; essential for meiosis, but dispensable for mitosis. Phosphorylates CTNNB1, USP37, p53/TP53, NPM1, CDK7, RB1, BRCA2, MYC, NPAT, EZH2. Triggers duplication of centrosomes and DNA. Acts at the G1-S transition to promote the E2F transcriptional program and the initiation of DNA synthesis, and modulates G2 progression; controls the timing of entry into mitosis/meiosis by controlling the subsequent activation of cyclin B/CDK1 by phosphorylation, and coordinates the activation of cyclin B/CDK1 at the centrosome and in the nucleus. Crucial role in orchestrating a fine balance between cellular proliferation, cell death, and DNA repair in human embryonic stem cells (hESCs). Activity of CDK2 is maximal during S phase and G2; activated by interaction with cyclin E during the early stages of DNA synthesis to permit G1-S transition, and subsequently activated by cyclin A2 (cyclin A1 in germ cells) during the late stages of DNA replication to drive the transition from S phase to mitosis, the G2 phase. EZH2 phosphorylation promotes H3K27me3 maintenance and epigenetic gene silencing. Phosphorylates CABLES1 (By similarity). Cyclin E/CDK2 prevents oxidative stress-mediated Ras-induced senescence by phosphorylating MYC. Involved in G1-S phase DNA damage checkpoint that prevents cells with damaged DNA from initiating mitosis; regulates homologous recombination-dependent repair by phosphorylating BRCA2, this phosphorylation is low in S phase when recombination is active, but increases as cells progress towards mitosis. In response to DNA damage, double-strand break repair by homologous recombination a reduction of CDK2-mediated BRCA2 phosphorylation. Phosphorylation of RB1 disturbs its interaction with E2F1. NPM1 phosphorylation by cyclin E/CDK2 promotes its dissociates from unduplicated centrosomes, thus initiating centrosome duplication. Cyclin E/CDK2-mediated phosphorylation of NPAT at G1-S transition and until prophase stimulates the NPAT-mediated activation of histone gene transcription during S phase. Required for vitamin D-mediated growth inhibition by being itself inactivated. Involved in the nitric oxide- (NO) mediated signaling in a nitrosylation/activation-dependent manner. USP37 is activated by phosphorylation and thus triggers G1-S transition. CTNNB1 phosphorylation regulates insulin internalization. Phosphorylates FOXP3 and negatively regulates its transcriptional activity and protein stability (By similarity). Phosphorylates CDK2AP2. Phosphorylates ERCC6 which is essential for its chromatin remodeling activity at DNA double-strand breaks.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that plays a critical role in the control of the eukaryotic cell cycle; involved in G0-G1 and G1-S cell cycle transitions. Interacts with CCNC/cyclin-C during interphase. Phosphorylates histone H1, ATF1, RB1 and CABLES1. ATF1 phosphorylation triggers ATF1 transactivation and transcriptional activities, and promotes cell proliferation and transformation. CDK3/cyclin-C mediated RB1 phosphorylation is required for G0-G1 transition. Promotes G1-S transition probably by contributing to the activation of E2F1, E2F2 and E2F3 in a RB1-independent manner.

Ser/Thr-kinase component of cyclin D-CDK4 (DC) complexes that phosphorylate and inhibit members of the retinoblastoma (RB) protein family including RB1 and regulate the cell-cycle during G(1)/S transition. Phosphorylation of RB1 allows dissociation of the transcription factor E2F from the RB/E2F complexes and the subsequent transcription of E2F target genes which are responsible for the progression through the G(1) phase. Hypophosphorylates RB1 in early G(1) phase. Cyclin D-CDK4 complexes are major integrators of various mitogenenic and antimitogenic signals. Also phosphorylates SMAD3 in a cell-cycle-dependent manner and represses its transcriptional activity. Component of the ternary complex, cyclin D/CDK4/CDKN1B, required for nuclear translocation and activity of the cyclin D-CDK4 complex.

Proline-directed serine/threonine-protein kinase essential for neuronal cell cycle arrest and differentiation and may be involved in apoptotic cell death in neuronal diseases by triggering abortive cell cycle re-entry. Interacts with D1 and D3-type G1 cyclins. Phosphorylates SRC, NOS3, VIM/vimentin, p35/CDK5R1, MEF2A, SIPA1L1, SH3GLB1, PXN, PAK1, MCAM/MUC18, SEPT5, SYN1, DNM1, AMPH, SYNJ1, CDK16, RAC1, RHOA, CDC42, TONEBP/NFAT5, MAPT/TAU, MAP1B, histone H1, p53/TP53, HDAC1, APEX1, PTK2/FAK1, huntingtin/HTT, ATM, MAP2, NEFH and NEFM. Regulates several neuronal development and physiological processes including neuronal survival, migration and differentiation, axonal and neurite growth, synaptogenesis, oligodendrocyte differentiation, synaptic plasticity and neurotransmission, by phosphorylating key proteins. Negatively regulates the CACNA1B/CAV2.2 -mediated Ca(2+) release probability at hippocampal neuronal soma and synaptic terminals (By similarity). Activated by interaction with CDK5R1 (p35) and CDK5R2 (p39), especially in postmitotic neurons, and promotes CDK5R1 (p35) expression in an autostimulation loop. Phosphorylates many downstream substrates such as Rho and Ras family small GTPases (e.g. PAK1, RAC1, RHOA, CDC42) or microtubule-binding proteins (e.g. MAPT/TAU, MAP2, MAP1B), and modulates actin dynamics to regulate neurite growth and/or spine morphogenesis. Phosphorylates also exocytosis associated proteins such as MCAM/MUC18, SEPT5, SYN1, and CDK16/PCTAIRE1 as well as endocytosis associated proteins such as DNM1, AMPH and SYNJ1 at synaptic terminals. In the mature central nervous system (CNS), regulates neurotransmitter movements by phosphorylating substrates associated with neurotransmitter release and synapse plasticity; synaptic vesicle exocytosis, vesicles fusion with the presynaptic membrane, and endocytosis. Promotes cell survival by activating anti- apoptotic proteins BCL2 and STAT3, and negatively regulating of JNK3/MAPK10 activity. Phosphorylation of p53/TP53 in response to genotoxic and oxidative stresses enhances its stabilization by preventing ubiquitin ligase-mediated proteasomal degradation, and induces transactivation of p53/TP53 target genes, thus regulating apoptosis. Phosphorylation of p35/CDK5R1 enhances its stabilization by preventing calpain-mediated proteolysis producing p25/CDK5R1 and avoiding ubiquitin ligase-mediated proteasomal degradation. During aberrant cell-cycle activity and DNA damage, p25/CDK5 activity elicits cell-cycle activity and double-strand DNA breaks that precedes neuronal death by deregulating HDAC1. DNA damage triggered phosphorylation of huntingtin/HTT in nuclei of neurons protects neurons against polyglutamine expansion as well as DNA damage mediated toxicity. Phosphorylation of PXN reduces its interaction with PTK2/FAK1 in matrix-cell focal adhesions (MCFA) during oligodendrocytes (OLs) differentiation. Negative regulator of Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway. Activator of the GAIT (IFN-gamma-activated inhibitor of translation) pathway, which suppresses expression of a post- transcriptional regulon of proinflammatory genes in myeloid cells; phosphorylates the linker domain of glutamyl-prolyl tRNA synthetase (EPRS) in a IFN-gamma-dependent manner, the initial event in assembly of the GAIT complex. Phosphorylation of SH3GLB1 is required for autophagy induction in starved neurons. Phosphorylation of TONEBP/NFAT5 in response to osmotic stress mediates its rapid nuclear localization. MEF2 is inactivated by phosphorylation in nucleus in response to neurotoxin, thus leading to neuronal apoptosis. APEX1 AP- endodeoxyribonuclease is repressed by phosphorylation, resulting in accumulation of DNA damage and contributing to neuronal death. NOS3 phosphorylation down regulates NOS3-derived nitrite (NO) levels. SRC phosphorylation mediates its ubiquitin-dependent degradation and thus leads to cytoskeletal reorganization. May regulate endothelial cell migration and angiogenesis via the modulation of lamellipodia formation. Involved in dendritic spine morphogenesis by mediating the EFNA1-EPHA4 signaling. The complex p35/CDK5 participates in the regulation of the circadian clock by modulating the function of CLOCK protein: phosphorylates CLOCK at 'Thr-451' and 'Thr-461' and regulates the transcriptional activity of the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer in association with altered stability and subcellular distribution.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in the control of the cell cycle and differentiation; promotes G1/S transition. Phosphorylates pRB/RB1 and NPM1. Interacts with D-type G1 cyclins during interphase at G1 to form a pRB/RB1 kinase and controls the entrance into the cell cycle. Involved in initiation and maintenance of cell cycle exit during cell differentiation; prevents cell proliferation and regulates negatively cell differentiation, but is required for the proliferation of specific cell types (e.g. erythroid and hematopoietic cells). Essential for cell proliferation within the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus and the subventricular zone of the lateral ventricles. Required during thymocyte development. Promotes the production of newborn neurons, probably by modulating G1 length. Promotes, at least in astrocytes, changes in patterns of gene expression, changes in the actin cytoskeleton including loss of stress fibers, and enhanced motility during cell differentiation. Prevents myeloid differentiation by interfering with RUNX1 and reducing its transcription transactivation activity, but promotes proliferation of normal myeloid progenitors. Delays senescence. Promotes the proliferation of beta-cells in pancreatic islets of Langerhans. May play a role in the centrosome organization during the cell cycle phases.

Serine/threonine kinase involved in cell cycle control and in RNA polymerase II-mediated RNA transcription. Cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) are activated by the binding to a cyclin and mediate the progression through the cell cycle. Each different complex controls a specific transition between 2 subsequent phases in the cell cycle. Required for both activation and complex formation of CDK1/cyclin-B during G2-M transition, and for activation of CDK2/cyclins during G1-S transition (but not complex formation). CDK7 is the catalytic subunit of the CDK-activating kinase (CAK) complex. Phosphorylates SPT5/SUPT5H, SF1/NR5A1, POLR2A, p53/TP53, CDK1, CDK2, CDK4, CDK6 and CDK11B/CDK11. CAK activates the cyclin-associated kinases CDK1, CDK2, CDK4 and CDK6 by threonine phosphorylation, thus regulating cell cycle progression. CAK complexed to the core-TFIIH basal transcription factor activates RNA polymerase II by serine phosphorylation of the repetitive C- terminal domain (CTD) of its large subunit (POLR2A), allowing its escape from the promoter and elongation of the transcripts. Phosphorylation of POLR2A in complex with DNA promotes transcription initiation by triggering dissociation from DNA. Its expression and activity are constant throughout the cell cycle. Upon DNA damage, triggers p53/TP53 activation by phosphorylation, but is inactivated in turn by p53/TP53; this feedback loop may lead to an arrest of the cell cycle and of the transcription, helping in cell recovery, or to apoptosis. Required for DNA-bound peptides-mediated transcription and cellular growth inhibition.

Component of the Mediator complex, a coactivator involved in regulated gene transcription of nearly all RNA polymerase II-dependent genes. Mediator functions as a bridge to convey information from gene- specific regulatory proteins to the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Mediator is recruited to promoters by direct interactions with regulatory proteins and serves as a scaffold for the assembly of a functional pre-initiation complex with RNA polymerase II and the general transcription factors. Phosphorylates the CTD (C- terminal domain) of the large subunit of RNA polymerase II (RNAp II), which may inhibit the formation of a transcription initiation complex. Phosphorylates CCNH leading to down-regulation of the TFIIH complex and transcriptional repression. Recruited through interaction with MAML1 to hyperphosphorylate the intracellular domain of NOTCH, leading to its degradation.

Protein kinase involved in the regulation of transcription. Member of the cyclin-dependent kinase pair (CDK9/cyclin-T) complex, also called positive transcription elongation factor b (P-TEFb), which facilitates the transition from abortive to productive elongation by phosphorylating the CTD (C-terminal domain) of the large subunit of RNA polymerase II (RNAP II) POLR2A, SUPT5H and RDBP. This complex is inactive when in the 7SK snRNP complex form. Phosphorylates EP300, MYOD1, RPB1/POLR2A and AR and the negative elongation factors DSIF and NELFE. Regulates cytokine inducible transcription networks by facilitating promoter recognition of target transcription factors (e.g. TNF-inducible RELA/p65 activation and IL-6- inducible STAT3 signaling). Promotes RNA synthesis in genetic programs for cell growth, differentiation and viral pathogenesis. P-TEFb is also involved in cotranscriptional histone modification, mRNA processing and mRNA export. Modulates a complex network of chromatin modifications including histone H2B monoubiquitination (H2Bub1), H3 lysine 4 trimethylation (H3K4me3) and H3K36me3; integrates phosphorylation during transcription with chromatin modifications to control co-transcriptional histone mRNA processing. The CDK9/cyclin-K complex has also a kinase activity towards CTD of RNAP II and can substitute for CDK9/cyclin-T P-TEFb in vitro. Replication stress response protein; the CDK9/cyclin-K complex is required for genome integrity maintenance, by promoting cell cycle recovery from replication arrest and limiting single-stranded DNA amount in response to replication stress, thus reducing the breakdown of stalled replication forks and avoiding DNA damage. In addition, probable function in DNA repair of isoform 2 via interaction with KU70/XRCC6. Promotes cardiac myocyte enlargement. RPB1/POLR2A phosphorylation on 'Ser-2' in CTD activates transcription. AR phosphorylation modulates AR transcription factor promoter selectivity and cell growth. DSIF and NELF phosphorylation promotes transcription by inhibiting their negative effect. The phosphorylation of MYOD1 enhances its transcriptional activity and thus promotes muscle differentiation. Catalyzes phosphorylation of KAT5, promoting KAT5 recruitment to chromatin and histone acetyltransferase activity.

Plays a role in regulating the self-renewal of embryonic stem cells (ESCs) and in maintaining cell survival during terminal differentiation of ESCs. Regulates microtubule organization of metaphase II oocytes (By similarity). Inhibits cell cycle G1/S phase transition by repressing CDK2 expression and activation; represses CDK2 activation by inhibiting its interaction with cyclin E and A.

Catalyzes the methylthiolation of N6- threonylcarbamoyladenosine (t(6)A), leading to the formation of 2- methylthio-N6-threonylcarbamoyladenosine (ms(2)t(6)A) at position 37 in tRNAs that read codons beginning with adenine.

May play a role in cell cycle regulation. Dual specificity CC phosphatase active toward substrates containing either phosphotyrosine or phosphoserine residues. Dephosphorylates CDK2 at 'Thr-160' in a cyclin-dependent manner.

May be involved in p53/TP53 mediated inhibition of cellular proliferation in response to DNA damage. Binds to and inhibits cyclin- dependent kinase activity, preventing phosphorylation of critical cyclin-dependent kinase substrates and blocking cell cycle progression. Functions in the nuclear localization and assembly of cyclin D-CDK4 complex and promotes its kinase activity towards RB1. At higher stoichiometric ratios, inhibits the kinase activity of the cyclin D- CDK4 complex. Inhibits DNA synthesis by DNA polymerase delta by competing with POLD3 for PCNA binding. Plays an important role in controlling cell cycle progression and DNA damage- induced G2 arrest.

Important regulator of cell cycle progression. Inhibits the kinase activity of CDK2 bound to cyclin A, but has little inhibitory activity on CDK2 bound to SPDYA. Involved in G1 arrest. Potent inhibitor of cyclin E- and cyclin A-CDK2 complexes. Forms a complex with cyclin type D-CDK4 complexes and is involved in the assembly, stability, and modulation of CCND1-CDK4 complex activation. Acts either as an inhibitor or an activator of cyclin type D-CDK4 complexes depending on its phosphorylation state and/or stoichometry.

Potent tight-binding inhibitor of several G1 cyclin/CDK complexes (cyclin E-CDK2, cyclin D2-CDK4, and cyclin A-CDK2) and, to lesser extent, of the mitotic cyclin B-CDC2. Negative regulator of cell proliferation. May play a role in maintenance of the non-proliferative state throughout life

Acts as a negative regulator of the proliferation of normal cells by interacting strongly with CDK4 and CDK6. This inhibits their ability to interact with cyclins D and to phosphorylate the retinoblastoma protein.

Interacts strongly with CDK4 and CDK6. Potent inhibitor. Potential effector of TGF-beta induced cell cycle arrest

Interacts strongly with CDK6, weakly with CDK4. Inhibits cell growth and proliferation with a correlated dependence on endogenous retinoblastoma protein RB

Trophic factor for dopamine neurons. Prevents the 6- hydroxydopamine (6-OHDA)-induced degeneration of dopaminergic neurons. When administered after 6-OHDA-lesioning, restores the dopaminergic function and prevents the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra (By similarity).

Catalyzes the oxidation of cysteine to cysteine sulfinic acid with addition of molecular dioxygen.

Component of a cell-surface receptor complex that mediates cell-cell interactions between muscle precursor cells. Promotes differentiation of myogenic cells (By similarity).

Catalyzes the conversion of phosphatidic acid (PA) to CDP- diacylglycerol (CDP-DAG), an essential intermediate in the synthesis of phosphatidylglycerol, cardiolipin and phosphatidylinositol. Exhibits almost no acyl chain preference for PA, showing no discrimination for the sn-1/sn-2 acyl chain composition of PAs. Plays an important role in regulating the growth of lipid droplets which are storage organelles at the center of lipid and energy homeostasis. Positively regulates the differentiation and development of adipocytes (By similarity).

Catalyzes the conversion of phosphatidic acid (PA) to CDP- diacylglycerol (CDP-DAG), an essential intermediate in the synthesis of phosphatidylglycerol, cardiolipin and phosphatidylinositol. Exhibits specificity for the nature of the acyl chains at the sn-1 and sn-2 positions in the substrate, PA and the preferred acyl chain composition is 1-stearoyl-2-arachidonoyl-sn- phosphatidic acid. Plays an important role in regulating the growth and maturation of lipid droplets which are storage organelles at the center of lipid and energy homeostasis.

Required for both DNA replication and mitosis. DNA replication licensing factor, required for pre- replication complex assembly. Cooperates with CDC6 and the origin recognition complex (ORC) during G1 phase of the cell cycle to promote the loading of the mini-chromosome maintenance (MCM) complex onto DNA to generate pre-replication complexes (pre-RC)(PubMed:14672932). Required also for mitosis by promoting stable kinetochore-microtubule attachments. Potential oncogene (By similarity).

Plays a role in transcriptional regulation. Involved in activated KRAS-mediated transcriptional activation of PRKD1 in colorectal cancer (CRC) cells. Binds to the PRKD1 promoter in colorectal cancer (CRC) cells. Could play a role in the terminal differentiation of the intestine. Binds preferentially to methylated DNA.

Transcription factor which regulates the transcription of multiple genes expressed in the intestinal epithelium (By similarity). Binds to the promoter of the intestinal sucrase-isomaltase SI and activates SI transcription (By similarity). Binds to the DNA sequence 5'-ATAAAAACTTAT-3' in the promoter region of VDR and activates VDR transcription (By similarity). Binds to and activates transcription of LPH (By similarity). Activates transcription of CLDN2 and intestinal mucin MUC2 (By similarity). Binds to the 5'-AATTTTTTACAACACCT-3' DNA sequence in the promoter region of CA1 and activates CA1 transcription (By similarity). Important in broad range of functions from early differentiation to maintenance of the intestinal epithelial lining of both the small and large intestine. Binds preferentially to methylated DNA.

Has histone acetyltransferase activity, with a preference for histone H4.

[Isoform 2]: Chromatin reader protein that recognizes and binds histone H3 trimethylated at 'Lys-9', dimethylated at 'Lys-27' and trimethylated at 'Lys-27' (H3K9me3, H3K27me2 and H3K27me3, respectively). Part of multimeric repressive chromatin complexes, where it is required for transmission and restoration of repressive histone marks, thereby preserving the epigenetic landscape. Required for chromatin targeting and maximal enzymatic activity of Polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2); acts as a positive regulator of PRC2 activity by bridging the pre-existing histone H3K27me3 and newly recruited PRC2 on neighboring nucleosomes. Acts as a corepressor for REST by facilitating histone-lysine N-methyltransferase EHMT2 recruitment and H3K9 dimethylation at REST target genes for repression. Involved in X chromosome inactivation in females: recruited to Xist RNA-coated X chromosome and facilitates propagation of H3K9me2 by anchoring EHMT2 (By similarity). Promotes EZH2 accumulation and H3K27me3 methylation at DNA double strand breaks (DSBs), thereby facilitating transcriptional repression at sites of DNA damage and homology-directed repair of DSBs. Required for neuronal migration during brain development by repressing expression of RHOA (By similarity). By repressing the expression of SCN8A, contributes to the inhibition of intrinsic neuronal excitability and epileptogenesis (By similarity). In addition to acting as a chromatin reader, acts as a hydro-lyase. Shows crotonyl-coA hydratase activity by mediating the conversion of crotonyl-CoA ((2E)-butenoyl-CoA) to beta-hydroxybutyryl-CoA (3- hydroxybutanoyl-CoA), thereby acting as a negative regulator of histone crotonylation. Histone crotonylation is required during spermatogenesis; down-regulation of histone crotonylation by CDYL regulates the reactivation of sex chromosome-linked genes in round spermatids and histone replacement in elongating spermatids (By similarity). By regulating histone crotonylation and trimethylation of H3K27, may be involved in stress-induced depression-like behaviors, possibly by regulating VGF expression (By similarity).

Required for ciliogenesis and for structural integrity at the ciliary tip.

Plays a role in the microtubule-dependent coupling of the nucleus and the centrosome. Involved in the processes that regulate centrosome-mediated interkinetic nuclear migration (INM) of neural progenitors and for proper positioning of neurons during brain development. Also implicated in the migration and selfrenewal of neural progenitors. Required for centriole duplication and maturation during mitosis and subsequent ciliogenesis (By similarity). Required for the recruitment of CEP295 to the proximal end of new-born centrioles at the centriolar microtubule wall during early S phase in a PLK4-dependent manner.

Participates in cytokinesis. Necessary for microtubules and mitotic spindle organization. Involved in primary cilium formation.

Necessary for centrosome duplication; the function seems also to involve CEP63, CDK5RAP2 and WDR62 through a stepwise assembled complex at the centrosome that recruits CDK2 required for centriole duplication. Acts as a molecular scaffold facilitating the interaction of PLK4 and CENPJ, 2 molecules involved in centriole formation. Proposed to snatch PLK4 away from PLK4:CEP92 complexes in early G1 daughter centriole and to reposition PLK4 at the outer boundary of a newly forming CEP152 ring structure. Also plays a key role in deuterosome-mediated centriole amplification in multiciliated that can generate more than 100 centrioles (By similarity). Overexpression of CEP152 can drive amplification of centrioles.

Required to promote assembly of the transition zone in primary cilia. Acts by specifically recognizing and binding the axonemal microtubule. Localizes to the distal ends of centrioles before ciliogenesis and directly binds to axonemal microtubule, thereby promoting and restricting transition zone formation specifically at the cilia base. Required to mediate CEP290 association with microtubules.

Plays a role in microtubule organization and/or maintenance for the formation of primary cilia (PC), a microtubule-based structure that protrudes from the surface of epithelial cells. Plays a critical role in G2/M checkpoint and nuclear divisions. A key player in the DNA damage-activated ATR/ATM signaling cascade since it is required for the proper phosphorylation of H2AX, RPA, CHEK2 and CHEK1. Plays a critical role in chromosome segregation, acting as a mediator required for the maintenance of genomic stability through modulation of MDC1, RPA and CHEK1.

Plays a role in microtubule organization. Required for centriole subdistal appendage assembly.

Required for mitotic centrosome maturation and bipolar spindle assembly. Appears to be a major regulator of pericentriolar material (PCM) recruitment, centrosome maturation, and centriole duplication. Centrosome- specific activating scaffold for AURKA and PLK1.

Involved in early and late steps in cilia formation. Its association with CCP110 is required for inhibition of primary cilia formation by CCP110. May play a role in early ciliogenesis in the disappearance of centriolar satellites and in the transition of primary ciliar vesicles (PCVs) to capped ciliary vesicles (CCVs). Required for the centrosomal recruitment of RAB8A and for the targeting of centriole satellite proteins to centrosomes such as of PCM1. Required for the correct localization of ciliary and phototransduction proteins in retinal photoreceptor cells; may play a role in ciliary transport processes (By similarity). Required for efficient recruitment of RAB8A to primary cilium. In the ciliary transition zone is part of the tectonic-like complex which is required for tissue-specific ciliogenesis and may regulate ciliary membrane composition (By similarity). Involved in regulation of the BBSome complex integrity, specifically for presence of BBS2, BBS5 and BBS8/TTC8 in the complex, and in ciliary targeting of selected BBSome cargos. May play a role in controlling entry of the BBSome complex to cilia possibly implicating IQCB1/NPHP5. Activates ATF4-mediated transcription.

Centriole-enriched microtubule-binding protein involved in centriole biogenesis. Essential for the generation of the distal portion of new-born centrioles in a CENPJ- and CEP120-mediated elongation dependent manner during the cell cycle S/G2 phase after formation of the initiating cartwheel structure. Required for the recruitment of centriolar proteins, such as POC1B, POC5 and CEP135, into the distal portion of centrioles. Also required for centriole-to-centrosome conversion during mitotic progression, but is dispensable for cartwheel removal or centriole disengagement. Binds to and stabilizes centriolar microtubule.

Plays an essential role in centriole growth by stabilizing a procentriolar seed composed of at least, SASS6 and CENPJ. Required for anchoring microtubules to the centrosomes and for the integrity of the microtubule network. Recruits PPARA to discrete subcellular compartments and thereby modulates PPARA activity. Required for ciliation.

Centrosomal protein which may be required for microtubule attachment to centrosomes.

Required for proper hearing, plays a role in maintaining the integrity of the tectorial membrane.

Together with the tyrosine-protein kinase SYK, enhances production of the cytokine CXCL8/IL-8 via the NFKB pathway and may thus have a role in the intestinal immune response.

[Isoform 1]: Cell adhesion protein that mediates homophilic cell adhesion in a calcium-independent manner (By similarity). Plays a role as coinhibitory receptor in immune response, insulin action and functions also as an activator during angiogenesis. Its coinhibitory receptor function is phosphorylation- and PTPN6 -dependent, which in turn, suppress signal transduction of associated receptors by dephosphorylation of their downstream effectors. Plays a role in immune response, of T cells, natural killer (NK) and neutrophils. Upon TCR/CD3 complex stimulation, inhibits TCR- mediated cytotoxicity by blocking granule exocytosis by mediating homophilic binding to adjacent cells, allowing interaction with and phosphorylation by LCK and interaction with the TCR/CD3 complex which recruits PTPN6 resulting in dephosphorylation of CD247 and ZAP70. Also inhibits T cell proliferation and cytokine production through inhibition of JNK cascade and plays a crucial role in regulating autoimmunity and anti-tumor immunity by inhibiting T cell through its interaction with HAVCR2. Upon natural killer (NK) cells activation, inhibit KLRK1-mediated cytolysis of CEACAM1-bearing tumor cells by trans-homophilic interactions with CEACAM1 on the target cell and lead to cis-interaction between CEACAM1 and KLRK1, allowing PTPN6 recruitment and then VAV1 dephosphorylation. Upon neutrophils activation negatively regulates IL1B production by recruiting PTPN6 to a SYK-TLR4-CEACAM1 complex, that dephosphorylates SYK, reducing the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) and lysosome disruption, which in turn, reduces the activity of the inflammasome. Down-regulates neutrophil production by acting as a coinhibitory receptor for CSF3R by down-regulating the CSF3R-STAT3 pathway through recruitment of PTPN6 that dephosphorylates CSF3R (By similarity). Also regulates insulin action by promoting INS clearance and regulating lipogenesis in liver through regulating insulin signaling (By similarity). Upon INS stimulation, undergoes phosphorylation by INSR leading to INS clearance by increasing receptor-mediated insulin endocytosis. This inernalization promotes interaction with FASN leading to receptor-mediated insulin degradation and to reduction of FASN activity leading to negative regulation of fatty acid synthesis. INSR-mediated phosphorylation also provokes a down-regulation of cell proliferation through SHC1 interaction resulting in decrease coupling of SHC1 to the MAPK3/ERK1-MAPK1/ERK2 and phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase pathways (By similarity). Functions as activator in angiogenesis by promoting blood vessel remodeling through endothelial cell differentiation and migration and in arteriogenesis by increasing the number of collateral arteries and collateral vessel calibers after ischemia. Also regulates vascular permeability through the VEGFR2 signaling pathway resulting in control of nitric oxide production (By similarity). Down-regulates cell growth in response to EGF through its interaction with SHC1 that mediates interaction with EGFR resulting in decrease coupling of SHC1 to the MAPK3/ERK1- MAPK1/ERK2 pathway (By similarity). Negatively regulates platelet aggregation by decreasing platelet adhesion on type I collagen through the GPVI-FcRgamma complex (By similarity). Inhibits cell migration and cell scattering through interaction with FLNA; interfers with the interaction of FLNA with RALA. Mediates bile acid transport activity in a phosphorylation dependent manner (By similarity). Negatively regulates osteoclastogenesis (By similarity).

Major granulocyte receptor mediating recognition and efficient opsonin-independent phagocytosis of CEACAM-binding microorganisms, including Neissiria, Moxarella and Haemophilus species, thus playing an important role in the clearance of pathogens by the innate immune system. Responsible for RAC1 stimulation in the course of pathogen phagocytosis.

Granulocyte orphan receptor that acts as an trigger efficient phagocytosis of attached particles.

Cell surface glycoprotein that plays a role in cell adhesion, intracellular signaling and tumor progression. Mediates homophilic and heterophilic cell adhesion with other carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecules, such as CEACAM6. Plays a role as an oncogene by promoting tumor progression; induces resistance to anoikis of colorectal carcinoma cells.

Cell surface glycoprotein that plays a role in cell adhesion and tumor progression. Intercellular adhesion occurs in a calcium- and fibronectin-independent manner. Mediates homophilic and heterophilic cell adhesion with other carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecules, such as CEACAM5 and CEACAM8. Heterophilic interaction with CEACAM8 occurs in activated neutrophils. Plays a role in neutrophil adhesion to cytokine-activated endothelial cells. Plays a role as an oncogene by promoting tumor progression; positively regulates cell migration, cell adhesion to endothelial cells and cell invasion. Also involved in the metastatic cascade process by inducing gain resistance to anoikis of pancreatic adenocarcinoma and colorectal carcinoma cells.

Cell surface glycoprotein that plays a role in cell adhesion in a calcium-independent manner. Mediates heterophilic cell adhesion with other carcinoembryonic antigen-related cell adhesion molecules, such as CEACAM6. Heterophilic interaction with CEACAM8 occurs in activated neutrophils.

Transcription factor that coordinates proliferation arrest and the differentiation of myeloid progenitors, adipocytes, hepatocytes, and cells of the lung and the placenta. Binds directly to the consensus DNA sequence 5'-T[TG]NNGNAA[TG]-3' acting as an activator on distinct target genes. During early embryogenesis, plays essential and redundant functions with CEBPB. Essential for the transition from common myeloid progenitors (CMP) to granulocyte/monocyte progenitors (GMP). Critical for the proper development of the liver and the lung (By similarity). Necessary for terminal adipocyte differentiation, is required for postnatal maintenance of systemic energy homeostasis and lipid storage (By similarity). To regulate these different processes at the proper moment and tissue, interplays with other transcription factors and modulators. Down-regulates the expression of genes that maintain cells in an undifferentiated and proliferative state through E2F1 repression, which is critical for its ability to induce adipocyte and granulocyte terminal differentiation. Reciprocally E2F1 blocks adipocyte differentiation by binding to specific promoters and repressing CEBPA binding to its target gene promoters. Proliferation arrest also depends on a functional binding to SWI/SNF complex. In liver, regulates gluconeogenesis and lipogenesis through different mechanisms. To regulate gluconeogenesis, functionally cooperates with FOXO1 binding to IRE-controlled promoters and regulating the expression of target genes such as PCK1 or G6PC1. To modulate lipogenesis, interacts and transcriptionally synergizes with SREBF1 in promoter activation of specific lipogenic target genes such as ACAS2. In adipose tissue, seems to act as FOXO1 coactivator accessing to ADIPOQ promoter through FOXO1 binding sites (By similarity).

Important transcription factor regulating the expression of genes involved in immune and inflammatory responses. Also plays a significant role in adipogenesis, as well as in the gluconeogenic pathway, liver regeneration, and hematopoiesis. The consensus recognition site is 5'-T[TG]NNGNAA[TG]-3'. Its functional capacity is governed by protein interactions and post-translational protein modifications. During early embryogenesis, plays essential and redundant roles with CEBPA. Has a promitotic effect on many cell types such as hepatocytes and adipocytes but has an antiproliferative effect on T-cells by repressing MYC expression, facilitating differentiation along the T-helper 2 lineage. Binds to regulatory regions of several acute-phase and cytokines genes and plays a role in the regulation of acute-phase reaction and inflammation. Also plays a role in intracellular bacteria killing (By similarity). During adipogenesis, is rapidly expressed and, after activation by phosphorylation, induces CEBPA and PPARG, which turn on the series of adipocyte genes that give rise to the adipocyte phenotype. The delayed transactivation of the CEBPA and PPARG genes by CEBPB appears necessary to allow mitotic clonal expansion and thereby progression of terminal differentiation. Essential for female reproduction because of a critical role in ovarian follicle development (By similarity). Restricts osteoclastogenesis: together with NFE2L1; represses expression of DSPP during odontoblast differentiation (By similarity).

Transcription activator that recognizes two different DNA motifs: the CCAAT homology common to many promoters and the enhanced core homology common to many enhancers. Important transcription factor regulating the expression of genes involved in immune and inflammatory responses. Transcriptional activator that enhances IL6 transcription alone and as heterodimer with CEBPB.

Transcriptional activator. C/EBP are DNA- binding proteins that recognize two different motifs: the CCAAT homology common to many promoters and the enhanced core homology common to many enhancers. Required for the promyelocyte-myelocyte transition in myeloid differentiation.

Transcription factor that binds to the promoter and the enhancer regions of target genes. Binds to the enhancer element PRE-I (positive regulatory element-I) of the IL-4 gene. Binds to the promoter and the enhancer of the immunoglobulin heavy chain. Binds to GPE1, a cis-acting element in the G-CSF gene promoter.

Regulatory subunit of the ATP-dependent CERF-1 and CERF-5 ISWI chromatin remodeling complexes, which form ordered nucleosome arrays on chromatin and facilitate access to DNA during DNA-templated processes such as DNA replication, transcription, and repair. The complexes do not have the ability to slide mononucleosomes to the center of a DNA template. The CERF-1 ISWI chromatin remodeling complex has a lower ATP hydrolysis rate than the CERF-5 ISWI chromatin remodeling complex. Plays a role in various processes during development: required during embryogenesis for neural tube closure and inner ear development. In adults, required for spermatogenesis, via the formation of ISWI-type chromatin complexes (By similarity). In histone-modifying complexes, CECR2 recognizes and binds acylated histones: binds histones that are acetylated and/or butyrylated. May also be involved through its interaction with LRPPRC in the integration of cytoskeletal network with vesicular trafficking, nucleocytosolic shuttling, transcription, chromosome remodeling and cytokinesis.

Plays an important role in cardiomyocyte hypertrophy via activation of the calcineurin/NFAT signaling pathway.

Participates in the initial step of the glucosylceramide- based glycosphingolipid/GSL synthetic pathway at the cytosolic surface of the Golgi. Catalyzes the transfer of glucose from UDP-glucose to ceramide to produce glucosylceramide/GlcCer (such as beta-D-glucosyl-(1<->1')-N-acylsphing- 4-enine). GlcCer is the core component of glycosphingolipids/GSLs, amphipathic molecules consisting of a ceramide lipid moiety embedded in the outer leaflet of the membrane, linked to one of hundreds of different externally oriented oligosaccharide structures. Glycosphingolipids are essential components of membrane microdomains that mediate membrane trafficking and signal transduction, implicated in many fundamental cellular processes, including growth, differentiation, migration, morphogenesis, cell-to-cell and cell-to-matrix interactions (By similarity). They are required for instance in the proper development and functioning of the nervous system (By similarity). As an example of their role in signal transduction, they regulate the leptin receptor/LEPR in the leptin-mediated signaling pathway (By similarity). They also play an important role in the establishment of the skin barrier regulating keratinocyte differentiation and the proper assembly of the cornified envelope (By similarity). The biosynthesis of GSLs is also required for the proper intestinal endocytic uptake of nutritional lipids (By similarity). Catalyzes the synthesis of xylosylceramide/XylCer (such as beta-D-xylosyl-(1<->1')-N-acylsphing-4- enine) using UDP-Xyl as xylose donor.

Cell surface hyaluronidase that mediates the initial cleavage of extracellular high-molecular-weight hyaluronan into intermediate- size hyaluronan of approximately 5 kDa fragments. Acts as a regulator of angiogenesis and heart morphogenesis by mediating degradation of extracellular hyaluronan, thereby regulating VEGF signaling (By similarity). Is very specific to hyaluronan; not able to cleave chondroitin sulfate or dermatan sulfate.

Elastase that enhances insulin signaling and might have a physiologic role in cellular glucose metabolism. Circulates in plasma and reduces platelet hyperactivation, triggers both insulin secretion and degradation, and increases insulin sensitivity.

Efficient protease with alanine specificity but only little elastolytic activity

RNA-binding protein involved in the regulation of pre-mRNA alternative splicing. Mediates exon inclusion and/or exclusion in pre- mRNA that are subject to tissue-specific and developmentally regulated alternative splicing. Specifically activates exon 5 inclusion of cardiac isoforms of TNNT2 during heart remodeling at the juvenile to adult transition. Activates the splicing of MAPT/Tau exon 10. Binds to muscle-specific splicing enhancer (MSE) intronic sites flanking the alternative exon 5 of TNNT2 pre-mRNA.

RNA-binding protein implicated in the regulation of pre-mRNA alternative splicing. Mediates exon inclusion and/or exclusion in pre- mRNA that are subject to tissue-specific and developmentally regulated alternative splicing. Specifically activates exon 5 inclusion of cardiac isoforms of TNNT2 during heart remodeling at the juvenile to adult transition. Promotes exclusion of both the smooth muscle (SM) and non-muscle (NM) exons in actinin pre-mRNAs. Activates the splicing of MAPT/Tau exon 10. Binds to muscle-specific splicing enhancer (MSE) intronic sites flanking the alternative exon 5 of TNNT2 pre-mRNA.

RNA-binding protein implicated in the regulation of pre-mRNA alternative splicing. Mediates exon inclusion and/or exclusion in pre- mRNA that are subject to tissue-specific and developmentally regulated alternative splicing. Specifically activates exon 5 inclusion of cardiac isoforms of TNNT2 during heart remodeling at the juvenile to adult transition. Binds to muscle-specific splicing enhancer (MSE) intronic sites flanking the alternative exon 5 of TNNT2 pre-mRNA.

RNA-binding protein implicated in the regulation of pre-mRNA alternative splicing. Mediates exon inclusion and/or exclusion in pre- mRNA that are subject to tissue-specific and developmentally regulated alternative splicing. Specifically activates exon 5 inclusion of TNNT2 in a muscle-specific splicing enhancer (MSE)-dependent manner. Promotes also exon exclusion of INSR pre-mRNA.

Receptor that may have an important role in cell/cell signaling during nervous system formation

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of a wide range of substrates including cholesteryl esters, phospholipids, lysophospholipids, di- and tri-acylglycerols, and fatty acid esters of hydroxy fatty acids (FAHFAs). Preferentially hydrolyzes FAHFAs with the ester bond further away from the carboxylate. Unsaturated FAHFAs are hydrolyzed more quickly than saturated FAHFAs (By similarity). Has an essential role in the complete digestion of dietary lipids and their intestinal absorption, along with the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.

Mediates depolymerization of hyaluronic acid (HA) via the cell membrane-associated clathrin-coated pit endocytic pathway. Binds to hyaluronic acid. Hydrolyzes high molecular weight hyaluronic acid to produce an intermediate-sized product, a process that may occur through rapid vesicle endocytosis and recycling without intracytoplasmic accumulation or digestion in lysosomes. Involved in hyaluronan catabolism in the dermis of the skin and arthritic synovium. Positively regulates epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT), and hence tumor cell growth, invasion and cancer dissemination. In collaboration with HSPA5/BIP, promotes cancer cell migration in a calcium and PKC- dependent manner. May be involved in hearing.

May play a role in development of the periodontium which surrounds and supports the teeth by promoting the differentiation of multi-potent cells from the periodontal ligament into cementoblasts to form the cementum. Binds hydroxyapatite and may promote the biomineralization of the cementum. Also promotes cell proliferation.

Histone H3-like nucleosomal protein that is specifically found in centromeric nucleosomes. Replaces conventional H3 in the nucleosome core of centromeric chromatin that serves as an assembly site for the inner kinetochore. The presence of CENPA subtly modifies the nucleosome structure and the way DNA is wrapped around the nucleosome and gives rise to protruding DNA ends that are less well- ordered and rigid compared to nucleosomes containing histone H3. May serve as an epigenetic mark that propagates centromere identity through replication and cell division. Required for recruitment and assembly of kinetochore proteins, and as a consequence required for progress through mitosis, chromosome segregation and cytokinesis.

Interacts with centromeric heterochromatin in chromosomes and binds to a specific 17 bp subset of alphoid satellite DNA, called the CENP-B box. May organize arrays of centromere satellite DNA into a higher-order structure which then directs centromere formation and kinetochore assembly in mammalian chromosomes (Probable).

Component of the CENPA-NAC (nucleosome-associated) complex, a complex that plays a central role in assembly of kinetochore proteins, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation. The CENPA-NAC complex recruits the CENPA-CAD (nucleosome distal) complex and may be involved in incorporation of newly synthesized CENPA into centromeres. CENPC recruits DNA methylation and DNMT3B to both centromeric and pericentromeric satellite repeats and regulates the histone code in these regions.

Microtubule plus-end-directed kinetochore motor which plays an important role in chromosome congression, microtubule-kinetochore conjugation and spindle assembly checkpoint activation. Drives chromosome congression (alignment of chromosomes at the spindle equator resulting in the formation of the metaphase plate) by mediating the lateral sliding of polar chromosomes along spindle microtubules towards the spindle equator and by aiding the establishment and maintenance of connections between kinetochores and spindle microtubules. The transport of pole-proximal chromosomes towards the spindle equator is favored by microtubule tracks that are detyrosinated. Acts as a processive bi-directional tracker of dynamic microtubule tips; after chromosomes have congressed, continues to play an active role at kinetochores, enhancing their links with dynamic microtubule ends. Suppresses chromosome congression in NDC80-depleted cells and contributes positively to congression only when microtubules are stabilized. Plays an important role in the formation of stable attachments between kinetochores and spindle microtubules The stabilization of kinetochore- microtubule attachment also requires CENPE-dependent localization of other proteins to the kinetochore including BUB1B, MAD1 and MAD2. Plays a role in spindle assembly checkpoint activation (SAC) via its interaction with BUB1B resulting in the activation of its kinase activity, which is important for activating SAC. Necessary for the mitotic checkpoint signal at individual kinetochores to prevent aneuploidy due to single chromosome loss (By similarity).

Required for kinetochore function and chromosome segregation in mitosis. Required for kinetochore localization of dynein, LIS1, NDE1 and NDEL1. Regulates recycling of the plasma membrane by acting as a link between recycling vesicles and the microtubule network though its association with STX4 and SNAP25. Acts as a potential inhibitor of pocket protein-mediated cellular processes during development by regulating the activity of RB proteins during cell division and proliferation. May play a regulatory or permissive role in the normal embryonic cardiomyocyte cell cycle and in promoting continued mitosis in transformed, abnormally dividing neonatal cardiomyocytes. Interaction with RB directs embryonic stem cells toward a cardiac lineage. Involved in the regulation of DNA synthesis and hence cell cycle progression, via its C-terminus. Has a potential role regulating skeletal myogenesis and in cell differentiation in embryogenesis. Involved in dendritic cell regulation of T-cell immunity against chlamydia.

Component of the CENPA-NAC (nucleosome-associated) complex, a complex that plays a central role in assembly of kinetochore proteins, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation. The CENPA-NAC complex recruits the CENPA-CAD (nucleosome distal) complex and may be involved in incorporation of newly synthesized CENPA into centromeres. Required for chromosome congression and efficiently align the chromosomes on a metaphase plate.

Component of the CENPA-CAD (nucleosome distal) complex, a complex recruited to centromeres which is involved in assembly of kinetochore proteins, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation. May be involved in incorporation of newly synthesized CENPA into centromeres via its interaction with the CENPA-NAC complex. Required for the localization of CENPF, MAD1L1 and MAD2 (MAD2L1 or MAD2L2) to kinetochores. Involved in the response of gonadal tissues to follicle- stimulating hormone.

Plays an important role in cell division and centrosome function by participating in centriole duplication. Inhibits microtubule nucleation from the centrosome. Involved in the regulation of slow processive growth of centriolar microtubules. Acts as microtubule plus-end tracking protein that stabilizes centriolar microtubules and inhibits microtubule polymerization and extension from the distal ends of centrioles. Required for centriole elongation and for STIL-mediated centriole amplification. Required for the recruitment of CEP295 to the proximal end of new-born centrioles at the centriolar microtubule wall during early S phase in a PLK4-dependent manner. May be involved in the control of centriolar-microtubule growth by acting as a regulator of tubulin release.

Component of the CENPA-CAD (nucleosome distal) complex, a complex recruited to centromeres which is involved in assembly of kinetochore proteins, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation. May be involved in incorporation of newly synthesized CENPA into centromeres via its interaction with the CENPA-NAC complex. Acts in coordination with KNL1 to recruit the NDC80 complex to the outer kinetochore.

Component of the CENPA-CAD (nucleosome distal) complex, a complex recruited to centromeres which is involved in assembly of kinetochore proteins, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation. May be involved in incorporation of newly synthesized CENPA into centromeres via its interaction with the CENPA-NAC complex.

Component of the CENPA-NAC (nucleosome-associated) complex, a complex that plays a central role in assembly of kinetochore proteins, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation. The CENPA-NAC complex recruits the CENPA-CAD (nucleosome distal) complex and may be involved in incorporation of newly synthesized CENPA into centromeres.

Component of the CENPA-NAC (nucleosome-associated) complex, a complex that plays a central role in assembly of kinetochore proteins, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation. The CENPA-NAC complex recruits the CENPA-CAD (nucleosome distal) complex and may be involved in incorporation of newly synthesized CENPA into centromeres. CENPN is the first protein to bind specifically to CENPA nucleosomes and the direct binding of CENPA nucleosomes by CENPN is required for centromere assembly. Required for chromosome congression and efficiently align the chromosomes on a metaphase plate.

Component of the CENPA-CAD (nucleosome distal) complex, a complex recruited to centromeres which is involved in assembly of kinetochore proteins, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation. May be involved in incorporation of newly synthesized CENPA into centromeres via its interaction with the CENPA-NAC complex. Modulates the kinetochore-bound levels of NDC80 complex.

Component of the CENPA-CAD (nucleosome distal) complex, a complex recruited to centromeres which is involved in assembly of kinetochore proteins, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation. May be involved in incorporation of newly synthesized CENPA into centromeres via its interaction with the CENPA-NAC complex. Plays an important role in chromosome congression and in the recruitment of CENP-O complex (which comprises CENPO, CENPP, CENPQ and CENPU), CENPE and PLK1 to the kinetochores.

Transcription coregulator that can have both coactivator and corepressor functions. Isoform 1, but not other isoforms, is involved in the coactivation of nuclear receptors for retinoid X (RXRs) and thyroid hormone (TRs) in a ligand-dependent fashion. In contrast, it does not coactivate nuclear receptors for retinoic acid, vitamin D, progesterone receptor, nor glucocorticoid. Acts as a coactivator for estrogen receptor alpha. Acts as a transcriptional corepressor via its interaction with the NFKB1 NF-kappa-B subunit, possibly by interfering with the transactivation domain of NFKB1. Induces apoptosis in breast cancer cells, but not in other cancer cells, via a caspase-2 mediated pathway that involves mitochondrial membrane permeabilization but does not require other caspases. May also act as an inhibitor of cyclin A- associated kinase. Also acts a component of the CENPA-CAD (nucleosome distal) complex, a complex recruited to centromeres which is involved in assembly of kinetochore proteins, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation. May be involved in incorporation of newly synthesized CENPA into centromeres via its interaction with the CENPA-NAC complex.

DNA-binding component of the Fanconi anemia (FA) core complex. Required for the normal activation of the FA pathway, leading to monoubiquitination of the FANCI-FANCD2 complex in response to DNA damage, cellular resistance to DNA cross-linking drugs, and prevention of chromosomal breakage. In complex with CENPX (MHF heterodimer), crucial cofactor for FANCM in both binding and ATP-dependent remodeling of DNA. Stabilizes FANCM. In complex with CENPX and FANCM (but not other FANC proteins), rapidly recruited to blocked forks and promotes gene conversion at blocked replication forks. In complex with CENPT, CENPW and CENPX (CENP-T-W-S-X heterotetramer), involved in the formation of a functional kinetochore outer plate, which is essential for kinetochore-microtubule attachment and faithful mitotic progression. As a component of MHF and CENP-T-W-S-X complexes, binds DNA and bends it to form a nucleosome-like structure. DNA- binding function is fulfilled in the presence of CENPX, with the following preference for DNA substates: Holliday junction > double- stranded > splay arm > single-stranded. Does not bind DNA on its own.

Component of the CENPA-NAC (nucleosome-associated) complex, a complex that plays a central role in assembly of kinetochore proteins, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation. The CENPA-NAC complex recruits the CENPA-CAD (nucleosome distal) complex and may be involved in incorporation of newly synthesized CENPA into centromeres. Part of a nucleosome-associated complex that binds specifically to histone H3- containing nucleosomes at the centromere, as opposed to nucleosomes containing CENPA. Component of the heterotetrameric CENP-T-W-S-X complex that binds and supercoils DNA, and plays an important role in kinetochore assembly. CENPT has a fundamental role in kinetochore assembly and function. It is one of the inner kinetochore proteins, with most further proteins binding downstream. Required for normal chromosome organization and normal progress through mitosis.

Component of the CENPA-NAC (nucleosome-associated) complex, a complex that plays a central role in assembly of kinetochore proteins, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation. The CENPA-NAC complex recruits the CENPA-CAD (nucleosome distal) complex and may be involved in incorporation of newly synthesized CENPA into centromeres. Plays an important role in the correct PLK1 localization to the mitotic kinetochores. A scaffold protein responsible for the initial recruitment and maintenance of the kinetochore PLK1 population until its degradation. Involved in transcriptional repression.

Required for distribution of pericentromeric heterochromatin in interphase nuclei and for centromere formation and organization, chromosome alignment and cytokinesis.

Component of the CENPA-NAC (nucleosome-associated) complex, a complex that plays a central role in assembly of kinetochore proteins, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation (By similarity). The CENPA-NAC complex recruits the CENPA-CAD (nucleosome distal) complex and may be involved in incorporation of newly synthesized CENPA into centromeres (By similarity). Part of a nucleosome-associated complex that binds specifically to histone H3-containing nucleosomes at the centromere, as opposed to nucleosomes containing CENPA. Component of the heterotetrameric CENP-T-W-S-X complex that binds and supercoils DNA, and plays an important role in kinetochore assembly. CENPW has a fundamental role in kinetochore assembly and function. It is one of the inner kinetochore proteins, with most further proteins binding downstream. Required for normal chromosome organization and normal progress through mitosis.

DNA-binding component of the Fanconi anemia (FA) core complex. Required for the normal activation of the FA pathway, leading to monoubiquitination of the FANCI-FANCD2 complex in response to DNA damage, cellular resistance to DNA cross-linking drugs, and prevention of chromosomal breakage. In complex with CENPS (MHF heterodimer), crucial cofactor for FANCM in both binding and ATP-dependent remodeling of DNA. Stabilizes FANCM. In complex with CENPS and FANCM (but not other FANC proteins), rapidly recruited to blocked forks and promotes gene conversion at blocked replication forks. In complex with CENPS, CENPT and CENPW (CENP-T-W-S-X heterotetramer), involved in the formation of a functional kinetochore outer plate, which is essential for kinetochore-microtubule attachment and faithful mitotic progression. As a component of MHF and CENP-T-W-S-X complexes, binds DNA and bends it to form a nucleosome-like structure. DNA-binding function is fulfilled in the presence of CENPS, with the following preference for DNA substates: Holliday junction > double-stranded > splay arm > single- stranded. Does not bind DNA on its own.

Required for ciliation. Recruits the RABL2B GTPase to the ciliary base to initiate ciliation. After specifically capturing the activated GTP- bound RABL2B, the CEP19-RABL2B complex binds intraflagellar transport (IFT) complex B from the large pool pre-docked at the base of the cilium and thus triggers its entry into the cilia. Involved in the early steps in cilia formation by recruiting the ciliary vesicles (CVs) to the distal end of the mother centriole where they fuse to initiate cilium assembly. Involved in microtubule (MT) anchoring to the centrosomes.

Involved in the biogenesis of cilia. Required for the recruitment of PLK1 to centrosomes and S phase progression.

Required during ciliogenesis for tubulin glutamylation in cilium. Probably acts by participating in the transport of TTLL6, a tubulin polyglutamylase, between the basal body and the cilium.

Required for anchoring microtubules to the centrosomes. Required for ciliation.

Centriole-enriched microtubule-binding protein involved in centriole biogenesis. In collaboration with CEP295 and POC1B, is required for the centriole-to-centrosome conversion by ensuring the formation of bona fide centriole wall. Functions as a linker component that maintains centrosome cohesion. Associates with CROCC and regulates its stability and localization to the centrosome.

Plays a role in mitotic exit and cytokinesis. Recruits PDCD6IP and TSG101 to midbody during cytokinesis. Required for successful completion of cytokinesis. Not required for microtubule nucleation. Plays a role in the development of the brain and kidney.

Centrosomal protein which may be required for microtubule attachment to centrosomes. May act by forming ring-like structures around microtubules. Mediates nuclear translocation and mitogenic activity of the internalized growth factor FGF2, but that of FGF1.

Required for normal spindle assembly. Plays a key role in mother-centriole-dependent centriole duplication; the function seems also to involve CEP152, CDK5RAP2 and WDR62 through a stepwise assembled complex at the centrosome that recruits CDK2 required for centriole duplication. Reported to be required for centrosomal recruitment of CEP152; however, this function has been questioned. Also recruits CDK1 to centrosomes. Plays a role in DNA damage response. Following DNA damage, such as double-strand breaks (DSBs), is removed from centrosomes; this leads to the inactivation of spindle assembly and delay in mitotic progression.

Involved in maintenance of centrosome cohesion, probably as part of a linker structure which prevents centrosome splitting. Required for localization of CDK5RAP2 to the centrosome during interphase. Contributes to CROCC/rootletin filament formation.

Plays a role in the organization of both preexisting and nascent microtubules in interphase cells. During mitosis, required for the organization and orientation of the mitotic spindle

Involved in the recruitment of key centrosomal proteins to the centrosome. Provides centrosomal microtubule-nucleation activity on the gamma-tubulin ring complexes (gamma-TuRCs) and has critical roles in forming a focused bipolar spindle, which is needed for proper tension generation between sister chromatids. Required for localization of KIZ, AKAP9 and gamma-tubulin ring complexes (gamma-TuRCs). Involved in centriole duplication. Required for CDK5RAP22, CEP152, WDR62 and CEP63 centrosomal localization and promotes the centrosomal localization of CDK2.

Centrosomal protein involved in regulation of centriole duplication. Required to limit centriole duplication to once per cell cycle by preventing centriole reduplication.

May be required for efficient PLK4 centrosomal localization and PLK4-induced overduplication of centrioles. May play a role in cilium biogenesis.

Component of the distal appendage region of the centriole involved in the initiation of primary cilium assembly. May collaborate with IFT20 in the trafficking of ciliary membrane proteins from the Golgi complex to the cilium during the initiation of primary cilium assembly.

Acts as a negative regulator of NEK2 to maintain the centrosome integrity in interphase. Suppresses centrosome disjunction by inhibiting NEK2 kinase activity.

Required for ciliogenesis. Also plays a role in mitochondrial metabolism where it may modulate complex IV activity.

Acts as a key negative regulator of ciliogenesis in collaboration with CCP110 by capping the mother centriole thereby preventing cilia formation. Required for recruitment of CCP110 to the centrosome.

Catalyzes both phosphatidylcholine and phosphatidylethanolamine biosynthesis from CDP-choline and CDP- ethanolamine, respectively. Involved in protein-dependent process of phospholipid transport to distribute phosphatidyl choline to the lumenal surface. Has a higher cholinephosphotransferase activity than ethanolaminephosphotransferase activity.

Cytokine that may play a role in anterior neural induction and somite formation during embryogenesis in part through a BMP- inhibitory mechanism. Can regulate Nodal signaling during gastrulation as well as the formation and patterning of the primitive streak (By similarity).

Catalyzes specifically the phosphorylation of ceramide to form ceramide 1-phosphate. Acts efficiently on natural and analog ceramides (C6, C8, C16 ceramides, and C8-dihydroceramide), to a lesser extent on C2- ceramide and C6-dihydroceramide, but not on other lipids, such as various sphingosines. Shows a greater preference for D-erythro isomer of ceramides. Binds phosphoinositides.

Has no detectable ceramide-kinase activity. Overexpression of CERKL protects cells from apoptosis in oxidative stress conditions.

Ceramide synthase that catalyzes the transfer of the acyl chain from acyl-CoA to a sphingoid base, with high selectivity toward stearoyl-CoA (octadecanoyl-CoA; C18:0-CoA). N-acylates sphinganine and sphingosine bases to form dihydroceramides and ceramides in de novo synthesis and salvage pathways, respectively. Plays a predominant role in skeletal muscle in regulating C18 ceramide and dihydroceramide levels with an impact on whole-body glucose metabolism and insulin sensitivity. Protects from diet-induced obesity by suppressing the uptake of glucose in multiple organs in a FGF21-dependent way (By similarity). Generates C18 ceramides in the brain, playing a critical role in cerebellar development and Purkinje cell function (By similarity). In response to cellular stress mediates mitophagy, a known defense mechanism against cell transformation and aging. Upon mitochondria fission, generates C18 ceramides that anchor lipidated MAP1LC3B/LC3B-II autophagolysosomes to outer mitochondrial membranes to eliminate damaged mitochondria.

Ceramide synthase that catalyzes the transfer of the acyl chain from acyl-CoA to a sphingoid base, with high selectivity toward very-long-chain fatty acyl-CoA (chain length C22-C27). N- acylates sphinganine and sphingosine bases to form dihydroceramides and ceramides in de novo synthesis and salvage pathways, respectively (By similarity). Plays a non-redundant role in the synthesis of ceramides with very-long-chain fatty acids in kidney, liver and brain. Regulates the abundance of myelin-specific sphingolipids galactosylceramide and sulfatide that affects myelin sheath architecture and motor neuron functions (By similarity).

Ceramide synthase that catalyzes the transfer of the acyl chain from acyl-CoA to a sphingoid base, with high selectivity toward very- and ultra-long-chain fatty acyl-CoA (chain length greater than C22). N-acylates sphinganine and sphingosine bases to form dihydroceramides and ceramides in de novo synthesis and salvage pathways, respectively. It is crucial for the synthesis of ultra-long-chain ceramides in the epidermis, to maintain epidermal lipid homeostasis and terminal differentiation.

Ceramide synthase that catalyzes formation of ceramide from sphinganine and acyl-CoA substrates, with high selectivity toward long and very-long chains (C18:0-C22:0) as acyl donor.

Ceramide synthase that catalyzes the transfer of the acyl chain from acyl-CoA to a sphingoid base, with high selectivity toward palmitoyl-CoA (hexadecanoyl-CoA; C16:0-CoA)(PubMed:16951403, PubMed:18541923, PubMed:22144673, PubMed:22661289, PubMed:23530041, PubMed:26887952, PubMed:29632068, PubMed:31916624). Can use other acyl donors, but with less efficiency (By similarity). N-acylates sphinganine and sphingosine bases to form dihydroceramides and ceramides in de novo synthesis and salvage pathways, respectively. Plays a role in de novo ceramide synthesis and surfactant homeostasis in pulmonary epithelia (By similarity).

Ceramide synthase that catalyzes the transfer of the acyl chain from acyl-CoA to a sphingoid base, with high selectivity toward palmitoyl-CoA (hexadecanoyl-CoA; C16:0-CoA). Can use other acyl donors, but with less efficiency (By similarity). N- acylates sphinganine and sphingosine bases to form dihydroceramides and ceramides in de novo synthesis and salvage pathways, respectively. Ceramides generated by CERS6 play a role in inflammatory response (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of metabolism and hepatic lipid accumulation (By similarity). Under high fat diet, palmitoyl- (C16:0-) ceramides generated by CERS6 specifically bind the mitochondrial fission factor MFF, thereby promoting mitochondrial fragmentation and contributing to the development of obesity (By similarity).

Shelters ceramides and diacylglycerol lipids inside its START domain and mediates the intracellular trafficking of ceramides and diacylglycerol lipids in a non-vesicular manner.

Ceruloplasmin is a blue, copper-binding (6-7 atoms per molecule) glycoprotein. It has ferroxidase activity oxidizing Fe(2+) to Fe(3+) without releasing radical oxygen species. It is involved in iron transport across the cell membrane. Provides Cu(2+) ions for the ascorbate-mediated deaminase degradation of the heparan sulfate chains of GPC1. May also play a role in fetal lung development or pulmonary antioxidant defense (By similarity).

Plays a fundamental role in microtubule-organizing center structure and function. Plays a role in sperm cilia formation (By similarity).

Plays a fundamental role in microtubule organizing center structure and function. Required for centriole duplication and correct spindle formation. Has a role in regulating cytokinesis and genome stability via cooperation with CALM1 and CCP110

Plays a fundamental role in microtubule-organizing center structure and function

Involved in the transfer of neutral lipids, including cholesteryl ester and triglyceride, among lipoprotein particles. Allows the net movement of cholesteryl ester from high density lipoproteins/HDL to triglyceride-rich very low density lipoproteins/VLDL, and the equimolar transport of triglyceride from VLDL to HDL. Regulates the reverse cholesterol transport, by which excess cholesterol is removed from peripheral tissues and returned to the liver for elimination.

Exhibits histone deacetylase (HDAC) enhancer properties. May play a role in cell cycle progression and wound repair of bronchial epithelial cells.

Microtubule inner protein (MIP) part of the dynein-decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia axoneme, which is required for motile cilia beating.

May be involved in induction of apoptosis in CD4(+) T-cells, but not CD8(+) T-cells or hepatocytes.

Specifically required during spermatogenesis for flagellum morphogenesis and sperm motility. May be required to suppress the formation of supernumerary axonemes and ensure a correct ultrastructure.

Essential for sperm motility and is involved in the regulation of the beating frequency of motile cilia on the epithelial cells of the respiratory tract (By similarity). Required for the establishment of radial spokes in sperm flagella (By similarity).

Involved in spermatozoa motility. May also regulate cilium motility through its role in the assembly of the axonemal radial spokes (By similarity).

Microtubule inner protein (MIP) part of the dynein-decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia axoneme, which is required for motile cilia beating (By similarity). May play an important role for the maintenance of myelin-axon integrity (By similarity). May affect intracellular Ca(2+) homeostasis.

Plays a role in motile cilium function, possibly by acting on outer dynein arm assembly. Seems to be important for initiation rather than maintenance of cilium motility (By similarity). Required for correct positioning of the cilium at the apical cell surface, suggesting an additional role in the planar cell polarity (PCP) pathway (By similarity). May suppress canonical Wnt signaling activity (By similarity).

Cilium- and flagellum-specific protein that plays a role in axonemal structure organization and motility. May play a role in outer and inner dynein arm assembly.

Plays a role in cilia formation and/or maintenance (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Involved in DNA damage repair.

May be involved in photoreceptor outer segment disk morphogenesis (By similarity).

Required for male fertility through its role in axonemal doublet stabilization which is essential for sperm motility and fertilization.

Cilium- and flagellum-specific protein that plays a role in axonemal structure organization and motility. Involved in the regulation of the size and morphology of cilia. Required for axonemal microtubules polyglutamylation.

Flagellar protein involved in sperm flagellum axoneme organization and function (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of the beating frequency of motile cilia on the epithelial cells of the respiratory tract (By similarity).

Flagellar protein involved in sperm flagellum axoneme organization and function.

Microtubule inner protein (MIP) part of the dynein-decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia axoneme, which is required for motile cilia beating (By similarity). It is an AMP-binding protein that may facilitate dynein ATPase-dependent ciliary and flagellar beating via adenine nucleotide homeostasis. May function as a donor of AMP to AK8 and hence promote ADP production.

As part of the central apparatus of the cilium axoneme plays a role in cilium movement.

Microtubule inner protein (MIP) part of the dynein-decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia axoneme, which is required for motile cilia beating (By similarity). Important for proper ciliary and flagellar beating. May act in cooperation with CFAP45 and axonemal dynein subunit DNAH11. May play a role in cell growth and/or survival.

Microtubule inner protein (MIP) part of the dynein-decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia axoneme, which is required for motile cilia beating (By similarity). May play a role in the beating of primary cilia and thereby be involved in the establishment of organ laterality during embryogenesis.

Has an essential role in the assembly and organization of the sperm flagellar axoneme. Required for the elongation of the primary cilium and sperm flagellar midpiece via modulation of the Notch signaling pathway (By similarity).

May regulate cilium motility through its role in the assembly of the axonemal radial spokes.

Cilium- and flagellum-associated protein. In the olfactory epithelium, regulates the speed of activation and termination of the odor response and thus contributes to the robustness of olfactory transduction pathways (By similarity). Required for sperm flagellum assembly and stability.

May play a role in ciliary/flagellar motility by regulating the assembly and the activity of axonemal inner dynein arm.

Involved in sperm flagellum axonemal organization and function. May regulate cilium motility through its role in the assembly of the axonemal radial spokes (By similarity).

Factor B which is part of the alternate pathway of the complement system is cleaved by factor D into 2 fragments: Ba and Bb. Bb, a serine protease, then combines with complement factor 3b to generate the C3 or C5 convertase. It has also been implicated in proliferation and differentiation of preactivated B-lymphocytes, rapid spreading of peripheral blood monocytes, stimulation of lymphocyte blastogenesis and lysis of erythrocytes. Ba inhibits the proliferation of preactivated B-lymphocytes

Factor D cleaves factor B when the latter is complexed with factor C3b, activating the C3bbb complex, which then becomes the C3 convertase of the alternate pathway. Its function is homologous to that of C1s in the classical pathway

Glycoprotein that plays an essential role in maintaining a well-balanced immune response by modulating complement activation. Acts as a soluble inhibitor of complement, where its binding to self markers such as glycan structures prevents complement activation and amplification on cell surfaces. Accelerates the decay of the complement alternative pathway (AP) C3 convertase C3bBb, thus preventing local formation of more C3b, the central player of the complement amplification loop. As a cofactor of the serine protease factor I, CFH also regulates proteolytic degradation of already-deposited C3b. In addition, mediates several cellular responses through interaction with specific receptors. For example, interacts with CR3/ITGAM receptor and thereby mediates the adhesion of human neutrophils to different pathogens. In turn, these pathogens are phagocytosed and destroyed.

Trypsin-like serine protease that plays an essential role in regulating the immune response by controlling all complement pathways. Inhibits these pathways by cleaving three peptide bonds in the alpha- chain of C3b and two bonds in the alpha-chain of C4b thereby inactivating these proteins. Essential cofactors for these reactions include factor H and C4BP in the fluid phase and membrane cofactor protein/CD46 and CR1 on cell surfaces. The presence of these cofactors on healthy cells allows degradation of deposited C3b by CFI in order to prevent undesired complement activation, while in apoptotic cells or microbes, the absence of such cofactors leads to C3b-mediated complement activation and subsequent opsonization.

NODAL coreceptor involved in the correct establishment of the left-right axis. May play a role in mesoderm and/or neural patterning during gastrulation.

Apoptosis regulator protein which may function as a crucial link between cell survival and cell death pathways in mammalian cells. Acts as an inhibitor of TNFRSF6 mediated apoptosis. A proteolytic fragment (p43) is likely retained in the death-inducing signaling complex (DISC) thereby blocking further recruitment and processing of caspase-8 at the complex. Full length and shorter isoforms have been shown either to induce apoptosis or to reduce TNFRSF-triggered apoptosis. Lacks enzymatic (caspase) activity.

Epithelial ion channel that plays an important role in the regulation of epithelial ion and water transport and fluid homeostasis. Mediates the transport of chloride ions across the cell membrane. Channel activity is coupled to ATP hydrolysis. The ion channel is also permeable to HCO(3)(-); selectivity depends on the extracellular chloride concentration. Exerts its function also by modulating the activity of other ion channels and transporters. Plays an important role in airway fluid homeostasis. Contributes to the regulation of the pH and the ion content of the airway surface fluid layer and thereby plays an important role in defense against pathogens. Modulates the activity of the epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) complex, in part by regulating the cell surface expression of the ENaC complex. Inhibits the activity of the ENaC channel containing subunits SCNN1A, SCNN1B and SCNN1G. Inhibits the activity of the ENaC channel containing subunits SCNN1D, SCNN1B and SCNN1G, but not of the ENaC channel containing subunits SCNN1A, SCNN1B and SCNN1G. May regulate bicarbonate secretion and salvage in epithelial cells by regulating the transporter SLC4A7. Can inhibit the chloride channel activity of ANO1. Plays a role in the chloride and bicarbonate homeostasis during sperm epididymal maturation and capacitation.

Nucleotidyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of cyclic GMP-AMP (2',3'-cGAMP) from ATP and GTP and plays a key role in innate immunity. Catalysis involves both the formation of a 2',5' phosphodiester linkage at the GpA step and the formation of a 3',5' phosphodiester linkage at the ApG step, producing c[G(2',5')pA(3',5')p]. Acts as a key DNA sensor: directly binds double-stranded DNA (dsDNA), inducing the formation of liquid- like droplets in which CGAS is activated, leading to synthesis of 2',3'-cGAMP, a second messenger that binds to and activates STING1, thereby triggering type-I interferon production. Preferentially recognizes and binds curved long dsDNAs of a minimal length of 40 bp. Acts as a key foreign DNA sensor, the presence of double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) in the cytoplasm being a danger signal that triggers the immune responses. Has antiviral activity by sensing the presence of dsDNA from DNA viruses in the cytoplasm. Also acts as an innate immune sensor of infection by retroviruses, such as HIV-2, by detecting the presence of reverse-transcribed DNA in the cytosol. In contrast, HIV-1 is poorly sensed by CGAS, due to its capsid that cloaks viral DNA from CGAS detection. Detection of retroviral reverse-transcribed DNA in the cytosol may be indirect and be mediated via interaction with PQBP1, which directly binds reverse-transcribed retroviral DNA. Also detects the presence of DNA from bacteria, such as M.tuberculosis. 2',3'-cGAMP can be transferred from producing cells to neighboring cells through gap junctions, leading to promote STING1 activation and convey immune response to connecting cells. 2',3'-cGAMP can also be transferred between cells by virtue of packaging within viral particles contributing to IFN- induction in newly infected cells in a cGAS-independent but STING1- dependent manner. Also senses the presence of neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) that are translocated to the cytosol following phagocytosis, leading to synthesis of 2',3'-cGAMP. In addition to foreign DNA, can also be activated by endogenous nuclear or mitochondrial DNA. When self-DNA leaks into the cytosol during cellular stress (such as mitochondrial stress, SARS-CoV-2 infection causing severe COVID-19 disease, DNA damage, mitotic arrest or senescence), or is present in form of cytosolic micronuclei, CGAS is activated leading to a state of sterile inflammation. Acts as a regulator of cellular senescence by binding to cytosolic chromatin fragments that are present in senescent cells, leading to trigger type-I interferon production via STING1 and promote cellular senescence (By similarity). Also involved in the inflammatory response to genome instability and double-stranded DNA breaks: acts by localizing to micronuclei arising from genome instability. Micronuclei, which are frequently found in cancer cells, consist of chromatin surrounded by their own nuclear membrane: following breakdown of the micronuclear envelope, a process associated with chromothripsis, CGAS binds self-DNA exposed to the cytosol, leading to 2',3'-cGAMP synthesis and subsequent activation of STING1 and type-I interferon production. Activated in response to prolonged mitotic arrest, promoting mitotic cell death. In a healthy cell, CGAS is however kept inactive even in cellular events that directly expose it to self-DNA, such as mitosis, when cGAS associates with chromatin directly after nuclear envelope breakdown or remains in the form of postmitotic persistent nuclear cGAS pools bound to chromatin. Nuclear CGAS is inactivated by chromatin via direct interaction with nucleosomes, which block CGAS from DNA binding and thus prevent CGAS-induced autoimmunity. Also acts as a suppressor of DNA repair in response to DNA damage: inhibits homologous recombination repair by interacting with PARP1, the CGAS-PARP1 interaction leading to impede the formation of the PARP1-TIMELESS complex. In addition to DNA, also sense translation stress: in response to translation stress, translocates to the cytosol and associates with collided ribosomes, promoting its activation and triggering type-I interferon production. In contrast to other mammals, human CGAS displays species-specific mechanisms of DNA recognition and produces less 2',3'-cGAMP, allowing a more fine-tuned response to pathogens.

Transfers 1,4-N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) from UDP-GalNAc to the non-reducing end of glucuronic acid (GlcUA). Required for addition of the first GalNAc to the core tetrasaccharide linker and for elongation of chondroitin chains. Important role in chondroitin chain biosynthesis in cartilage formation and subsequent endochondral ossification. Moreover, is involved in the metabolism of aggrecan (By similarity).

Transfers 1,4-N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) from UDP-GalNAc to the non-reducing end of glucuronic acid (GlcUA). Required for addition of the first GalNAc to the core tetrasaccharide linker and for elongation of chondroitin chains.

Beta subunit of the human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). hCG is a complex glycoprotein composed of two glycosylated subunits alpha and beta which are non-covalently associated. The alpha subunit is identical to those in the pituitary gonadotropin hormones (LH, FSH and TSH). The beta subunits are distinct in each of the hormones and confer receptor and biological specificity. Has an essential role in pregnancy and maternal adaptation. Stimulates the ovaries to synthesize the steroids that are essential for the maintenance of pregnancy.

Beta subunit of the human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). hCG is a complex glycoprotein composed of two glycosylated subunits alpha and beta which are non-covalently associated. The alpha subunit is identical to those in the pituitary gonadotropin hormones (LH, FSH and TSH). The beta subunits are distinct in each of the hormones and confer receptor and biological specificity. Has an essential role for pregnancy and maternal adaptation. Stimulates the ovaries to synthesize the steroids that are essential for the maintenance of pregnancy.

Binds to nonmethylated 5'-d(CGG)(n)-3' trinucleotide repeats in the FMR1 promoter. May play a role in regulating FMR1 promoter.

Catalyzes the last step in the trans-sulfuration pathway from L-methionine to L-cysteine in a pyridoxal-5'-phosphate (PLP)-dependent manner, which consists on cleaving the L,L-cystathionine molecule into L-cysteine, ammonia and 2-oxobutanoate. Part of the L- cysteine derived from the trans-sulfuration pathway is utilized for biosynthesis of the ubiquitous antioxidant glutathione. Besides its role in the conversion of L- cystathionine into L-cysteine, it utilizes L-cysteine and L- homocysteine as substrates (at much lower rates than L,L-cystathionine) to produce the endogenous gaseous signaling molecule hydrogen sulfide (H2S). In vitro, it converts two L-cysteine molecules into lanthionine and H2S, also two L-homocysteine molecules to homolanthionine and H2S, which can be particularly relevant under conditions of severe hyperhomocysteinemia (which is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and Alzheimer's disease). Lanthionine and homolanthionine are structural homologs of L,L-cystathionine that differ by the absence or presence of an extra methylene group, respectively. Acts as a cysteine-protein sulfhydrase by mediating sulfhydration of target proteins: sulfhydration consists of converting -SH groups into -SSH on specific cysteine residues of target proteins such as GAPDH, PTPN1 and NF-kappa-B subunit RELA, thereby regulating their function. By generating the gasotransmitter H2S, it participates in a number of physiological processes such as vasodilation, bone protection, and inflammation (Probable). Plays an essential role in myogenesis by contributing to the biogenesis of H2S in skeletal muscle tissue (By similarity). Can also accept homoserine as substrate (By similarity). Catalyzes the elimination of selenocystathionine (which can be derived from the diet) to yield selenocysteine, ammonia and 2-oxobutanoate (By similarity).

May be involved in anchoring the apical junctional complex, especially tight junctions, to actin-based cytoskeletons.

Mediates cell-cell adhesion in a calcium-dependent manner (By similarity). Able to inhibit growth in several cell lines.

Catalyzes the transfer of galactose to ceramide, a key enzymatic step in the biosynthesis of galactocerebrosides, which are abundant sphingolipids of the myelin membrane of the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system. Galactosylates both hydroxy- and non-hydroxy fatty acid-containing ceramides and diglycerides (By similarity).

Co-chaperonin implicated in mitochondrial protein import and macromolecular assembly. Together with Hsp60, facilitates the correct folding of imported proteins. May also prevent misfolding and promote the refolding and proper assembly of unfolded polypeptides generated under stress conditions in the mitochondrial matrix. The functional units of these chaperonins consist of heptameric rings of the large subunit Hsp60, which function as a back-to-back double ring. In a cyclic reaction, Hsp60 ring complexes bind one unfolded substrate protein per ring, followed by the binding of ATP and association with 2 heptameric rings of the co-chaperonin Hsp10. This leads to sequestration of the substrate protein in the inner cavity of Hsp60 where, for a certain period of time, it can fold undisturbed by other cell components. Synchronous hydrolysis of ATP in all Hsp60 subunits results in the dissociation of the chaperonin rings and the release of ADP and the folded substrate protein (Probable).

Catalyzes the formation of 25-hydroxycholesterol from cholesterol, leading to repress cholesterol biosynthetic enzymes. Plays a key role in cell positioning and movement in lymphoid tissues: 25-hydroxycholesterol is an intermediate in biosynthesis of 7-alpha,25-dihydroxycholesterol (7-alpha,25-OHC), an oxysterol that acts as a ligand for the G protein-coupled receptor GPR183/EBI2, a chemotactic receptor for a number of lymphoid cells (By similarity). May play an important role in regulating lipid metabolism by synthesizing a corepressor that blocks sterol regulatory element binding protein (SREBP) processing. As an interferon- stimulated gene, has broad antiviral activities against a wide range of enveloped viruses, such as vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV) and SARS coronavirus-2 (SARS-CoV-2). Its product, 25-hydroxycholesterol, activates the ER-localized enzyme ACAT to induce internalization of accessible cholesterol on the plasma membrane and restricts SARS-CoV-2 S protein-mediated fusion which inhibits virus replication. In testis, production of 25- hydroxycholesterol by macrophages plays a role in Leydig cell differentiation (By similarity).

Carbohydrate-binding lectin with a preference for chitin. Has no chitinase activity. May play a role in tissue remodeling and in the capacity of cells to respond to and cope with changes in their environment. Plays a role in T-helper cell type 2 (Th2) inflammatory response and IL-13-induced inflammation, regulating allergen sensitization, inflammatory cell apoptosis, dendritic cell accumulation and M2 macrophage differentiation. Facilitates invasion of pathogenic enteric bacteria into colonic mucosa and lymphoid organs. Mediates activation of AKT1 signaling pathway and subsequent IL8 production in colonic epithelial cells. Regulates antibacterial responses in lung by contributing to macrophage bacterial killing, controlling bacterial dissemination and augmenting host tolerance. Also regulates hyperoxia- induced injury, inflammation and epithelial apoptosis in lung.

Lectin that binds chitooligosaccharides and other glycans with high affinity, but not heparin. Has no chitinase activity.

Chaperonin implicated in mitochondrial protein import and macromolecular assembly. Together with Hsp10, facilitates the correct folding of imported proteins. May also prevent misfolding and promote the refolding and proper assembly of unfolded polypeptides generated under stress conditions in the mitochondrial matrix. The functional units of these chaperonins consist of heptameric rings of the large subunit Hsp60, which function as a back- to-back double ring. In a cyclic reaction, Hsp60 ring complexes bind one unfolded substrate protein per ring, followed by the binding of ATP and association with 2 heptameric rings of the co-chaperonin Hsp10. This leads to sequestration of the substrate protein in the inner cavity of Hsp60 where, for a certain period of time, it can fold undisturbed by other cell components. Synchronous hydrolysis of ATP in all Hsp60 subunits results in the dissociation of the chaperonin rings and the release of ADP and the folded substrate protein (Probable).

Catalyzes the cleavage of glutathione into 5-oxo-L-proline and a Cys-Gly dipeptide. Acts specifically on glutathione, but not on other gamma-glutamyl peptides. Glutathione depletion is an important factor for apoptosis initiation and execution. Acts as a pro-apoptotic component of the unfolded protein response pathway by mediating the pro-apoptotic effects of the ATF4-ATF3-DDIT3/CHOP cascade. Negative regulator of Notch signaling pathway involved in embryonic neurogenesis: acts by inhibiting Notch cleavage by furin, maintaining Notch in an immature inactive form, thereby promoting neurogenesis in embryos.

Catalyzes the cleavage of glutathione into 5-oxo-L-proline and a Cys-Gly dipeptide. Acts specifically on glutathione, but not on other gamma-glutamyl peptides.

Potential negative modulator of chondrocyte differentiation. Inhibits collagen fibrillogenesis in vitro. May influence chondrocyte's differentiation by acting on its cellular collagenous microenvironment.

Promotes attachment of chondrocytes, fibroblasts, and osteoblasts. This binding is mediated (at least for chondrocytes and fibroblasts) by the integrin alpha(2)beta(1). May play an important role in the regulation of chondrocyte growth and proliferation (By similarity).

Required for proper alignment of chromosomes at metaphase and their accurate segregation during mitosis. Involved in the maintenance of spindle microtubules attachment to the kinetochore during sister chromatid biorientation. May recruit CENPE and CENPF to the kinetochore.

May be involved in the maintenance of mitochondrial organization and mitochondrial cristae structure.

Transcription factor. Binds to the oxygen responsive element of COX4I2 and activates its transcription under hypoxia conditions (4% oxygen), as well as normoxia conditions (20% oxygen).

ATP-dependent chromatin remodeler that mediates chromatin- remodeling following DNA damage. Recruited to DNA damage sites through interaction with poly-ADP-ribose: specifically recognizes and binds histones that are poly-ADP-ribosylated on serine residues in response to DNA damage. Poly-ADP-ribose-binding activates the ATP-dependent chromatin remodeler activity, thereby regulating chromatin during DNA repair. Catalyzes nucleosome sliding away from DNA breaks in an ATP-dependent manner. Chromatin remodeling activity promotes PARP2 removal from chromatin.

ATP-dependent chromatin-remodeling factor which functions as substrate recognition component of the transcription regulatory histone acetylation (HAT) complex SAGA. Regulates polymerase II transcription. Also required for efficient transcription by RNA polymerase I, and more specifically the polymerase I transcription termination step. Regulates negatively DNA replication. Not only involved in transcription-related chromatin-remodeling, but also required to maintain a specific chromatin configuration across the genome. Is also associated with histone deacetylase (HDAC) activity (By similarity). Required for the bridging of SNF2, the FACT complex, the PAF complex as well as the U2 snRNP complex to H3K4me3. Functions to modulate the efficiency of pre- mRNA splicing in part through physical bridging of spliceosomal components to H3K4me3. Required for maintaining open chromatin and pluripotency in embryonic stem cells (By similarity).

DNA-binding helicase that specifically binds to the promoter of target genes, leading to chromatin remodeling, possibly by promoting deposition of histone H3.3. Involved in myogenesis via interaction with MYOD1: binds to myogenic gene regulatory sequences and mediates incorporation of histone H3.3 prior to the onset of myogenic gene expression, promoting their expression (By similarity).

Component of the histone deacetylase NuRD complex which participates in the remodeling of chromatin by deacetylating histones. Involved in transcriptional repressiobn as part of the NuRD complex. Required for anchoring centrosomal pericentrin in both interphase and mitosis, for spindle organization and centrosome integrity.

Component of the histone deacetylase NuRD complex which participates in the remodeling of chromatin by deacetylating histones.

Chromatin-remodeling protein that binds DNA through histones and regulates gene transcription. May specifically recognize and bind trimethylated 'Lys-27' (H3K27me3) and non-methylated 'Lys-4' of histone H3. Plays a role in the development of the nervous system by activating the expression of genes promoting neuron terminal differentiation. In parallel, it may also positively regulate the trimethylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-27' thereby specifically repressing genes that promote the differentiation into non-neuronal cell lineages. Tumor suppressor, it regulates the expression of genes involved in cell proliferation and differentiation. Downstream activated genes may include CDKN2A that positively regulates the p53/TP53 pathway, which in turn, prevents cell proliferation. In spermatogenesis, it probably regulates histone hyperacetylation and the replacement of histones by transition proteins in chromatin, a crucial step in the condensation of spermatid chromatin and the production of functional spermatozoa.

DNA-dependent ATPase that plays a role in chromatin remodeling. Regulates transcription by disrupting nucleosomes in a largely non-sliding manner which strongly increases the accessibility of chromatin. Activates transcription of specific genes in response to oxidative stress through interaction with NFE2L2.

Probable transcription regulator. Maybe involved in the in 45S precursor rRNA production.

DNA helicase that acts as a chromatin remodeling factor and regulates transcription. Acts as a transcription repressor by remodeling chromatin structure and recruiting histone H1 to target genes. Suppresses p53/TP53-mediated apoptosis by recruiting histone H1 and preventing p53/TP53 transactivation activity. Acts as a negative regulator of Wnt signaling pathway by regulating beta-catenin (CTNNB1) activity. Negatively regulates CTNNB1-targeted gene expression by being recruited specifically to the promoter regions of several CTNNB1 responsive genes. Involved in both enhancer blocking and epigenetic remodeling at chromatin boundary via its interaction with CTCF. Acts as a suppressor of STAT3 activity by suppressing the LIF-induced STAT3 transcriptional activity. Also acts as a transcription activator via its interaction with ZNF143 by participating in efficient U6 RNA polymerase III transcription.

Acts as a transcriptional coactivator for PPARA and possibly other nuclear receptors. Proposed to be a ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling protein. Has DNA-dependent ATPase activity and binds to A/T- rich DNA. Associates with A/T-rich regulatory regions in promoters of genes that participate in the differentiation of progenitors during osteogenesis (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that functions in the antephase checkpoint by actively delaying passage into mitosis in response to microtubule poisons. Acts in early prophase before chromosome condensation, when the centrosome move apart from each other along the periphery of the nucleus. Probably involved in signaling the presence of mitotic stress caused by microtubule poisons by mediating the 'Lys- 48'-linked ubiquitination of target proteins, leading to their degradation by the proteasome. Promotes the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of AURKA and PLK1. Probably acts as a tumor suppressor, possibly by mediating the polyubiquitination of HDAC1, leading to its degradation. May also promote the formation of 'Lys-63'- linked polyubiquitin chains and functions with the specific ubiquitin- conjugating UBC13-MMS2 (UBE2N-UBE2V2) heterodimer. Substrates that are polyubiquitinated at 'Lys-63' are usually not targeted for degradation, but are rather involved in signaling cellular stress.

Degrades chitin and chitotriose. May participate in the defense against nematodes, fungi and other pathogens. Plays a role in T-helper cell type 2 (Th2) immune response. Contributes to the response to IL-13 and inflammation in response to IL-13. Stimulates chemokine production by pulmonary epithelial cells. Protects lung epithelial cells against apoptosis and promotes phosphorylation of AKT1. Its function in the inflammatory response and in protecting cells against apoptosis is inhibited by allosamidin, suggesting that the function of this protein depends on carbohydrate binding.

Saccharide- and LPS-binding protein with possible roles in pathogen sensing and endotoxin neutralization. Ligand-binding specificity relates to the length of the oligosaccharides, with preference for chitotetraose (in vitro).

GTPase-activating protein for p21-rac and a phorbol ester receptor. Involved in the assembly of neuronal locomotor circuits as a direct effector of EPHA4 in axon guidance

GTPase-activating protein for p21-rac. Insufficient expression of beta-2 chimaerin is expected to lead to higher Rac activity and could therefore play a role in the progression from low- grade to high-grade tumors

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which targets misfolded chaperone substrates towards proteasomal degradation. Collaborates with ATXN3 in the degradation of misfolded chaperone substrates: ATXN3 restricting the length of ubiquitin chain attached to STUB1/CHIP substrates and preventing further chain extension. Ubiquitinates NOS1 in concert with Hsp70 and Hsp40. Modulates the activity of several chaperone complexes, including Hsp70, Hsc70 and Hsp90. Mediates transfer of non-canonical short ubiquitin chains to HSPA8 that have no effect on HSPA8 degradation. Mediates polyubiquitination of DNA polymerase beta (POLB) at 'Lys-41', 'Lys-61' and 'Lys-81', thereby playing a role in base-excision repair: catalyzes polyubiquitination by amplifying the HUWE1/ARF-BP1-dependent monoubiquitination and leading to POLB-degradation by the proteasome. Mediates polyubiquitination of CYP3A4. Ubiquitinates EPHA2 and may regulate the receptor stability and activity through proteasomal degradation. Acts as a co-chaperone for HSPA1A and HSPA1B chaperone proteins and promotes ubiquitin-mediated protein degradation. Negatively regulates the suppressive function of regulatory T-cells (Treg) during inflammation by mediating the ubiquitination and degradation of FOXP3 in a HSPA1A/B-dependent manner. Catalyzes monoubiquitination of SIRT6, preventing its degradation by the proteasome. Likely mediates polyubiquitination and down-regulates plasma membrane expression of PD- L1/CD274, an immune inhibitory ligand critical for immune tolerance to self and antitumor immunity. Negatively regulates TGF-beta signaling by modulating the basal level of SMAD3 via ubiquitin-mediated degradation. May regulate myosin assembly in striated muscles together with UBE4B and VCP/p97 by targeting myosin chaperone UNC45B for proteasomal degradation. Mediates ubiquitination of RIPK3 leading to its subsequent proteasome-dependent degradation.

Degrades chitin, chitotriose and chitobiose. May participate in the defense against nematodes and other pathogens. Isoform 3 has no enzymatic activity.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase which is required for checkpoint-mediated cell cycle arrest and activation of DNA repair in response to the presence of DNA damage or unreplicated DNA. May also negatively regulate cell cycle progression during unperturbed cell cycles. This regulation is achieved by a number of mechanisms that together help to preserve the integrity of the genome. Recognizes the substrate consensus sequence [R-X-X- S/T]. Binds to and phosphorylates CDC25A, CDC25B and CDC25C. Phosphorylation of CDC25A at 'Ser-178' and 'Thr-507' and phosphorylation of CDC25C at 'Ser-216' creates binding sites for 14-3-3 proteins which inhibit CDC25A and CDC25C. Phosphorylation of CDC25A at 'Ser- 76', 'Ser-124', 'Ser-178', 'Ser-279' and 'Ser-293' promotes proteolysis of CDC25A. Phosphorylation of CDC25A at 'Ser-76' primes the protein for subsequent phosphorylation at 'Ser-79', 'Ser-82' and 'Ser-88' by NEK11, which is required for polyubiquitination and degradation of CDCD25A. Inhibition of CDC25 leads to increased inhibitory tyrosine phosphorylation of CDK-cyclin complexes and blocks cell cycle progression. Also phosphorylates NEK6. Binds to and phosphorylates RAD51 at 'Thr-309', which promotes the release of RAD51 from BRCA2 and enhances the association of RAD51 with chromatin, thereby promoting DNA repair by homologous recombination. Phosphorylates multiple sites within the C-terminus of TP53, which promotes activation of TP53 by acetylation and promotes cell cycle arrest and suppression of cellular proliferation. Also promotes repair of DNA cross-links through phosphorylation of FANCE. Binds to and phosphorylates TLK1 at 'Ser-743', which prevents the TLK1-dependent phosphorylation of the chromatin assembly factor ASF1A. This may enhance chromatin assembly both in the presence or absence of DNA damage. May also play a role in replication fork maintenance through regulation of PCNA. May regulate the transcription of genes that regulate cell-cycle progression through the phosphorylation of histones (By similarity). Phosphorylates histone H3.1 (to form H3T11ph), which leads to epigenetic inhibition of a subset of genes (By similarity). May also phosphorylate RB1 to promote its interaction with the E2F family of transcription factors and subsequent cell cycle arrest. Phosphorylates SPRTN, promoting SPRTN recruitment to chromatin. Reduces replication stress and activates the G2/M checkpoint, by phosphorylating and inactivating PABIR1/FAM122A and promoting the serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A-mediated dephosphorylation and stabilization of WEE1 levels and activity.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase which is required for checkpoint-mediated cell cycle arrest, activation of DNA repair and apoptosis in response to the presence of DNA double-strand breaks. May also negatively regulate cell cycle progression during unperturbed cell cycles. Following activation, phosphorylates numerous effectors preferentially at the consensus sequence [L-X-R-X-X-S/T]. Regulates cell cycle checkpoint arrest through phosphorylation of CDC25A, CDC25B and CDC25C, inhibiting their activity. Inhibition of CDC25 phosphatase activity leads to increased inhibitory tyrosine phosphorylation of CDK- cyclin complexes and blocks cell cycle progression. May also phosphorylate NEK6 which is involved in G2/M cell cycle arrest. Regulates DNA repair through phosphorylation of BRCA2, enhancing the association of RAD51 with chromatin which promotes DNA repair by homologous recombination. Also stimulates the transcription of genes involved in DNA repair (including BRCA2) through the phosphorylation and activation of the transcription factor FOXM1. Regulates apoptosis through the phosphorylation of p53/TP53, MDM4 and PML. Phosphorylation of p53/TP53 at 'Ser-20' by CHEK2 may alleviate inhibition by MDM2, leading to accumulation of active p53/TP53. Phosphorylation of MDM4 may also reduce degradation of p53/TP53. Also controls the transcription of pro-apoptotic genes through phosphorylation of the transcription factor E2F1. Tumor suppressor, it may also have a DNA damage-independent function in mitotic spindle assembly by phosphorylating BRCA1. Its absence may be a cause of the chromosomal instability observed in some cancer cells. Promotes the CCAR2-SIRT1 association and is required for CCAR2-mediated SIRT1 inhibition.

Plays a key role in phospholipid biosynthesis by catalyzing the phosphorylation of free choline to phosphocholine, the first step in phosphatidylcholine biosynthesis. Also phosphorylates ethanolamine, thereby contributing to phosphatidylethanolamine biosynthesis. Has higher activity with choline. May contribute to tumor cell growth.

Has a key role in phospholipid metabolism, and catalyzes the first step of phosphatidylethanolamine and phosphatidylcholine biosynthesis.

Esterase with broad substrate specificity. Contributes to the inactivation of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Can degrade neurotoxic organophosphate esters.

Probable peripherally associated component of the endosomal sorting required for transport complex III (ESCRT-III) which is involved in multivesicular bodies (MVBs) formation and sorting of endosomal cargo proteins into MVBs. MVBs contain intraluminal vesicles (ILVs) that are generated by invagination and scission from the limiting membrane of the endosome and mostly are delivered to lysosomes enabling degradation of membrane proteins, such as stimulated growth factor receptors, lysosomal enzymes and lipids. The MVB pathway appears to require the sequential function of ESCRT-O, -I,-II and -III complexes. ESCRT-III proteins mostly dissociate from the invaginating membrane before the ILV is released. The ESCRT machinery also functions in topologically equivalent membrane fission events, such as the terminal stages of cytokinesis and the budding of enveloped viruses (HIV-1 and other lentiviruses). ESCRT-III proteins are believed to mediate the necessary vesicle extrusion and/or membrane fission activities, possibly in conjunction with the AAA ATPase VPS4. Involved in cytokinesis. Involved in recruiting VPS4A and/or VPS4B to the midbody of dividing cells. May also be involved in chromosome condensation. Targets the Polycomb group (PcG) protein BMI1/PCGF4 to regions of condensed chromatin. May play a role in stable cell cycle progression and in PcG gene silencing.

Probable peripherally associated component of the endosomal sorting required for transport complex III (ESCRT-III) which is involved in multivesicular bodies (MVBs) formation and sorting of endosomal cargo proteins into MVBs. MVBs contain intraluminal vesicles (ILVs) that are generated by invagination and scission from the limiting membrane of the endosome and mostly are delivered to lysosomes enabling degradation of membrane proteins, such as stimulated growth factor receptors, lysosomal enzymes and lipids. The MVB pathway appears to require the sequential function of ESCRT-O, -I,-II and -III complexes. ESCRT-III proteins mostly dissociate from the invaginating membrane before the ILV is released. The ESCRT machinery also functions in topologically equivalent membrane fission events, such as the terminal stages of cytokinesis and the budding of enveloped viruses (HIV-1 and other lentiviruses). ESCRT-III proteins are believed to mediate the necessary vesicle extrusion and/or membrane fission activities, possibly in conjunction with the AAA ATPase VPS4. Involved in cytokinesis. Involved in recruiting VPS4A and/or VPS4B and SPAST to the midbody of dividing cells. Involved in HIV-1 p6- and p9-dependent virus release.

Probable core component of the endosomal sorting required for transport complex III (ESCRT-III) which is involved in multivesicular bodies (MVBs) formation and sorting of endosomal cargo proteins into MVBs. MVBs contain intraluminal vesicles (ILVs) that are generated by invagination and scission from the limiting membrane of the endosome and mostly are delivered to lysosomes enabling degradation of membrane proteins, such as stimulated growth factor receptors, lysosomal enzymes and lipids. The MVB pathway appears to require the sequential function of ESCRT-O, -I,-II and -III complexes. ESCRT-III proteins mostly dissociate from the invaginating membrane before the ILV is released. The ESCRT machinery also functions in topologically equivalent membrane fission events, such as the terminal stages of cytokinesis. Together with SPAST, the ESCRT-III complex promotes nuclear envelope sealing and mitotic spindle disassembly during late anaphase. Recruited to the reforming nuclear envelope (NE) during anaphase by LEMD2. ESCRT-III proteins are believed to mediate the necessary vesicle extrusion and/or membrane fission activities, possibly in conjunction with the AAA ATPase VPS4.

Probable core component of the endosomal sorting required for transport complex III (ESCRT-III) which is involved in multivesicular bodies (MVBs) formation and sorting of endosomal cargo proteins into MVBs. MVBs contain intraluminal vesicles (ILVs) that are generated by invagination and scission from the limiting membrane of the endosome and mostly are delivered to lysosomes enabling degradation of membrane proteins, such as stimulated growth factor receptors, lysosomal enzymes and lipids. The MVB pathway appears to require the sequential function of ESCRT-O, -I,-II and -III complexes. ESCRT-III proteins mostly dissociate from the invaginating membrane before the ILV is released. The ESCRT machinery also functions in topologically equivalent membrane fission events, such as the terminal stages of cytokinesis and the budding of enveloped viruses (HIV-1 and other lentiviruses). ESCRT-III proteins are believed to mediate the necessary vesicle extrusion and/or membrane fission activities, possibly in conjunction with the AAA ATPase VPS4

Probable core component of the endosomal sorting required for transport complex III (ESCRT-III) which is involved in multivesicular bodies (MVBs) formation and sorting of endosomal cargo proteins into MVBs. MVBs contain intraluminal vesicles (ILVs) that are generated by invagination and scission from the limiting membrane of the endosome and mostly are delivered to lysosomes enabling degradation of membrane proteins, such as stimulated growth factor receptors, lysosomal enzymes and lipids. The MVB pathway appears to require the sequential function of ESCRT-O, -I,-II and -III complexes. ESCRT-III proteins mostly dissociate from the invaginating membrane before the ILV is released. The ESCRT machinery also functions in topologically equivalent membrane fission events, such as the terminal stages of cytokinesis and the budding of enveloped viruses (HIV-1 and other lentiviruses). ESCRT-III proteins are believed to mediate the necessary vesicle extrusion and/or membrane fission activities, possibly in conjunction with the AAA ATPase VPS4. When overexpressed, membrane-assembled circular arrays of CHMP4A filaments can promote or stabilize negative curvature and outward budding. Via its interaction with PDCD6IP involved in HIV-1 p6- and p9-dependent virus release. CHMP4A/B/C are required for the exosomal release of SDCBP, CD63 and syndecan.

Probable core component of the endosomal sorting required for transport complex III (ESCRT-III) which is involved in multivesicular bodies (MVBs) formation and sorting of endosomal cargo proteins into MVBs. MVBs contain intraluminal vesicles (ILVs) that are generated by invagination and scission from the limiting membrane of the endosome and mostly are delivered to lysosomes enabling degradation of membrane proteins, such as stimulated growth factor receptors, lysosomal enzymes and lipids. The MVB pathway appears to require the sequential function of ESCRT-O, -I,-II and -III complexes. ESCRT-III proteins mostly dissociate from the invaginating membrane before the ILV is released. The ESCRT machinery also functions in topologically equivalent membrane fission events, such as the terminal stages of cytokinesis. Together with SPAST, the ESCRT-III complex promotes nuclear envelope sealing and mitotic spindle disassembly during late anaphase. Plays a role in the endosomal sorting pathway. ESCRT-III proteins are believed to mediate the necessary vesicle extrusion and/or membrane fission activities, possibly in conjunction with the AAA ATPase VPS4. When overexpressed, membrane-assembled circular arrays of CHMP4B filaments can promote or stabilize negative curvature and outward budding. CHMP4A/B/C are required for the exosomal release of SDCBP, CD63 and syndecan.

Probable core component of the endosomal sorting required for transport complex III (ESCRT-III) which is involved in multivesicular bodies (MVBs) formation and sorting of endosomal cargo proteins into MVBs. MVBs contain intraluminal vesicles (ILVs) that are generated by invagination and scission from the limiting membrane of the endosome and mostly are delivered to lysosomes enabling degradation of membrane proteins, such as stimulated growth factor receptors, lysosomal enzymes and lipids. The MVB pathway appears to require the sequential function of ESCRT-O, -I,-II and -III complexes. ESCRT-III proteins mostly dissociate from the invaginating membrane before the ILV is released. The ESCRT machinery also functions in topologically equivalent membrane fission events, such as the terminal stages of cytokinesis and the budding of enveloped viruses (HIV-1 and other lentiviruses). Key component of the cytokinesis checkpoint, a process required to delay abscission to prevent both premature resolution of intercellular chromosome bridges and accumulation of DNA damage: upon phosphorylation by AURKB, together with ZFYVE19/ANCHR, retains abscission-competent VPS4 (VPS4A and/or VPS4B) at the midbody ring until abscission checkpoint signaling is terminated at late cytokinesis. Deactivation of AURKB results in dephosphorylation of CHMP4C followed by its dissociation from ANCHR and VPS4 and subsequent abscission. ESCRT-III proteins are believed to mediate the necessary vesicle extrusion and/or membrane fission activities, possibly in conjunction with the AAA ATPase VPS4. Involved in HIV-1 p6- and p9-dependent virus release. CHMP4A/B/C are required for the exosomal release of SDCBP, CD63 and syndecan.

Probable core component of the endosomal sorting required for transport complex III (ESCRT-III) which is involved in multivesicular bodies (MVBs) formation and sorting of endosomal cargo proteins into MVBs. MVBs contain intraluminal vesicles (ILVs) that are generated by invagination and scission from the limiting membrane of the endosome and mostly are delivered to lysosomes enabling degradation of membrane proteins, such as stimulated growth factor receptors, lysosomal enzymes and lipids. The MVB pathway appears to require the sequential function of ESCRT-O, -I,-II and -III complexes. ESCRT-III proteins mostly dissociate from the invaginating membrane before the ILV is released. The ESCRT machinery also functions in topologically equivalent membrane fission events, such as the terminal stages of cytokinesis and the budding of enveloped viruses (HIV-1 and other lentiviruses). ESCRT-III proteins are believed to mediate the necessary vesicle extrusion and/or membrane fission activities, possibly in conjunction with the AAA ATPase VPS4. Selectively binds to phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate PtdIns(3,5)P2 and PtdIns(3,4)P2 in preference to other phosphoinositides tested. Involved in late stages of cytokinesis. Plays a role in endosomal sorting/trafficking of EGF receptor. Isoform 2 prevents stress-mediated cell death and accumulation of reactive oxygen species when expressed in yeast cells.

Probable peripherally associated component of the endosomal sorting required for transport complex III (ESCRT-III) which is involved in multivesicular bodies (MVBs) formation and sorting of endosomal cargo proteins into MVBs. MVBs contain intraluminal vesicles (ILVs) that are generated by invagination and scission from the limiting membrane of the endosome and mostly are delivered to lysosomes enabling degradation of membrane proteins, such as stimulated growth factor receptors, lysosomal enzymes and lipids. The MVB pathway appears to require the sequential function of ESCRT-O, -I,-II and -III complexes. ESCRT-III proteins mostly dissociate from the invaginating membrane before the ILV is released. The ESCRT machinery also functions in topologically equivalent membrane fission events, such as the terminal stages of cytokinesis and the budding of enveloped viruses (HIV-1 and other lentiviruses). ESCRT-III proteins are believed to mediate the necessary vesicle extrusion and/or membrane fission activities, possibly in conjunction with the AAA ATPase VPS4. Involved in HIV-1 p6- and p9-dependent virus release.

Probable core component of the endosomal sorting required for transport complex III (ESCRT-III) which is involved in multivesicular bodies (MVBs) formation and sorting of endosomal cargo proteins into MVBs. MVBs contain intraluminal vesicles (ILVs) that are generated by invagination and scission from the limiting membrane of the endosome and mostly are delivered to lysosomes enabling degradation of membrane proteins, such as stimulated growth factor receptors, lysosomal enzymes and lipids. The MVB pathway appears to require the sequential function of ESCRT-O, -I,-II and -III complexes. ESCRT-III proteins mostly dissociate from the invaginating membrane before the ILV is released. The ESCRT machinery also functions in topologically equivalent membrane fission events, such as the terminal stages of cytokinesis and the budding of enveloped viruses (HIV-1 and other lentiviruses). ESCRT-III proteins are believed to mediate the necessary vesicle extrusion and/or membrane fission activities, possibly in conjunction with the AAA ATPase VPS4. In the ESCRT-III complex, it probably serves as an acceptor for the ESCRT-II complex on endosomal membranes

ESCRT-III-like protein required to recruit the ESCRT-III complex to the nuclear envelope (NE) during late anaphase. Together with SPAST, the ESCRT-III complex promotes NE sealing and mitotic spindle disassembly during late anaphase. Recruited to the reforming NE during anaphase by LEMD2. Plays a role in the endosomal sorting pathway.

May play a role in the development of the nervous system such as in neurite outgrowth and elongation. May be involved in motor axon growth and guidance.

Calcium-binding protein involved in different processes such as regulation of vesicular trafficking, plasma membrane Na(+)/H(+) exchanger and gene transcription. Involved in the constitutive exocytic membrane traffic. Mediates the association between microtubules and membrane-bound organelles of the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus and is also required for the targeting and fusion of transcytotic vesicles (TCV) with the plasma membrane. Functions as an integral cofactor in cell pH regulation by controlling plasma membrane- type Na(+)/H(+) exchange activity. Affects the pH sensitivity of SLC9A1/NHE1 by increasing its sensitivity at acidic pH. Required for the stabilization and localization of SLC9A1/NHE1 at the plasma membrane. Inhibits serum- and GTPase-stimulated Na(+)/H(+) exchange. Plays a role as an inhibitor of ribosomal RNA transcription by repressing the nucleolar UBF1 transcriptional activity. May sequester UBF1 in the nucleoplasm and limit its translocation to the nucleolus. Associates to the ribosomal gene promoter. Acts as a negative regulator of the calcineurin/NFAT signaling pathway. Inhibits NFAT nuclear translocation and transcriptional activity by suppressing the calcium- dependent calcineurin phosphatase activity. Also negatively regulates the kinase activity of the apoptosis-induced kinase STK17B. Inhibits both STK17B auto- and substrate-phosphorylations in a calcium-dependent manner.

Functions as an integral cofactor in cell pH regulation by controlling plasma membrane-type Na(+)/H(+) exchange activity. Binds to and activates SLC9A1/NHE1 in a serum-independent manner, thus increasing pH and protecting cells from serum deprivation-induced death. Also plays a role in the regulation of cell proliferation and tumor growth by increasing the phosphatase activity of PPP3CA in a calcium-dependent manner. Activator of the calcineurin/NFAT signaling pathway. Involved in the cytoplasmic translocation of the transcription factor NFATC3 to the nucleus.

Functions as an integral cofactor in cell pH regulation by controlling plasma membrane-type Na(+)/H(+) exchange activity. Promotes the maturation, transport, cell surface stability and exchange activity of SLC9A1/NHE1 at the plasma membrane. Promotes the induction of hematopoietic stem cell differentiation toward megakaryocytic lineage. Essential for the coupling of ERK cascade activation with the expression of ETS family genes in megakaryocytic differentiation. Also involved in granulocytic differentiation in a ERK-dependent manner. Inhibits the phosphatase activity of calcineurin.

Transfers glucuronic acid (GlcUA) from UDP-GlcUA to N- acetylgalactosamine residues on the non-reducing end of the elongating chondroitin polymer. Has no N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase activity.

Catalyzes phosphatidylcholine biosynthesis from CDP-choline. It thereby plays a central role in the formation and maintenance of vesicular membranes.

Forms a complex with DNA polymerase epsilon subunit POLE3 and binds naked DNA, which is then incorporated into chromatin, aided by the nucleosome remodeling activity of ISWI/SNF2H and ACF1. Does not enhance nucleosome sliding activity of the ACF-5 ISWI chromatin remodeling complex.

Regulates centrosome duplication, probably by inhibiting the kinase activity of ROCK2. Proposed to act as co- chaperone for HSP90. May play a role in the regulation of NOD1 via a HSP90 chaperone complex. In vitro, has intrinsic chaperone activity. This function may be achieved by inhibiting association of ROCK2 with NPM1. Plays a role in ensuring the localization of the tyrosine kinase receptor EGFR to the plasma membrane, and thus ensures the subsequent regulation of EGFR activity and EGF-induced actin cytoskeleton remodeling. Involved in stress response. Prevents tumorigenesis.

Dorsalizing factor. Key developmental protein that dorsalizes early vertebrate embryonic tissues by binding to ventralizing TGF-beta family bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs) and sequestering them in latent complexes (By similarity).

Binds mRNA and regulates the stability of target mRNA. Binds single-stranded DNA (in vitro).

Has both beta-1,3-glucuronic acid and beta-1,4-N- acetylgalactosamine transferase activity. Transfers glucuronic acid (GlcUA) from UDP-GlcUA and N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) from UDP- GalNAc to the non-reducing end of the elongating chondroitin polymer. Involved in the negative control of osteogenesis likely through the modulation of NOTCH signaling.

Has both beta-1,3-glucuronic acid and beta-1,4-N- acetylgalactosamine transferase activity. Transfers glucuronic acid (GlcUA) from UDP-GlcUA and N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) from UDP- GalNAc to the non-reducing end of the elongating chondroitin polymer. Seems to act as a specific activating factor for CHSY1 in chondroitin polymerization.

Has both beta-1,3-glucuronic acid and beta-1,4-N- acetylgalactosamine transferase activity. Transfers glucuronic acid (GlcUA) from UDP-GlcUA and N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) from UDP- GalNAc to the non-reducing end of the elongating chondroitin polymer. Specific activity is much reduced compared to CHSY1.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the transfer of sulfate to position 6 of internal galactose (Gal) residues of keratan. Cooperates with B4GALT4 and B3GNT7 glycosyltransferases and CHST6 sulfotransferase to construct and elongate disulfated disaccharide unit [->3(6- sulfoGalbeta)1->4(6-sulfoGlcNAcbeta)1->] within keratan sulfate polymer. Has a preference for sulfating keratan sulfate, but it also transfers sulfate to the unsulfated polymer. Involved in biosynthesis of phosphacan, a major keratan sulfate proteoglycan in the developing brain (By similarity). Involved in biosynthesis of 6-sulfoGalbeta- containing O-linked glycans in high endothelial venules of lymph nodes. May act in a synergistic manner with CHST4 to generate sialyl 6',6- disulfo Lewis X motif, a recognition determinant for immune cell receptors implicated in leukocyte trafficking. Catalyzes sulfation of N-acetyllactosamine (LacNAc) oligosaccharides with highest efficiency for sialylated LacNAc structures.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the transfer of sulfate to position 6 of non-reducing N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) residues within keratan-like structures on N-linked glycans and within mucin-associated glycans that can ultimately serve as SELL ligands. SELL ligands are present in high endothelial cells (HEVs) and play a central role in lymphocyte homing at sites of inflammation. Participates in biosynthesis of the SELL ligand sialyl 6-sulfo Lewis X and in lymphocyte homing to Peyer patches. Has no activity toward O-linked sugars. Its substrate specificity may be influenced by its subcellular location. Sulfates GlcNAc residues at terminal, non-reducing ends of oligosaccharide chains.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the transfer of sulfate to position 6 of the N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) residue of chondroitin. Chondroitin sulfate constitutes the predominant proteoglycan present in cartilage and is distributed on the surfaces of many cells and extracellular matrices. Catalyzes with a lower efficiency the sulfation of Gal residues of keratan sulfate, another glycosaminoglycan. Can also catalyze the sulfation of the Gal residues in sialyl N-acetyllactosamine (sialyl LacNAc) oligosaccharides (By similarity). May play a role in the maintenance of naive T-lymphocytes in the spleen (By similarity).

Sulfotransferase involved in SELL/L-selectin ligand biosynthesis pathway. Catalyzes the transfer of the sulfate group from 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) onto the hydroxyl group at C-6 position of the non-reducing N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) residue within O-linked mucin-type glycans. Contributes to generate sialyl 6- sulfo Lewis X determinant (also known as MECA-79 epitope) for SELL recognition, a prerequisite for continuous lymphocyte homing into peripheral lymph nodes and antigen immune surveillance. Transfers the sulfate group primarily on core 2 GlcNAcbeta1-6(Galbeta1- 3)GalNAcalphaSer/Thr and extended core 1 GlcNAcbeta1-3Galbeta1- 3GalNAcalphaSer/Thr based O-linked glycans on CD34 and GLYCAM1 peripheral node addressins (PNAds) expressed on the lumenal side of high endothelial venules (HEVs). The recognition of PNAds by SELL initiates a multistep process comprising tethering and rolling of blood lymphocytes on HEVs against the blood flow, followed by chemokine signaling, integrin-mediated lymphocyte adhesion onto endothelial cells and lymphocyte transendothelial migration. Modulates rolling velocity and differential T and B lymphocyte recruitment into peripheral lymph nodes, with a major role in B lymphocyte homing. Might be redundant in sulfation of MADCAM1 and lymphocyte trafficking to mesenteric lymph nodes (By similarity). Can also sulfonate core 3 GlcNAcbeta1-3GalNAc-R based glycans as well as GlcNAcbeta1-3Galbeta1- Glc, GlcNAcbeta1-6ManOMe and GlcNAcbeta1-2Man oligosaccharides, which might be ectopically expressed during tumorigenesis.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the transfer of sulfate to position 6 of non-reducing N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) residues and O- linked sugars of mucin-type acceptors. Acts on the non-reducing terminal GlcNAc of short carbohydrate substrates. However, it does not transfer sulfate to longer carbohydrate substrates that have poly-N- acetyllactosamine structures. Has no activity toward keratan. Not involved in generating HEV-expressed ligands for SELL. Its substrate specificity may be influenced by its subcellular location.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the transfer of sulfate to position 6 of non-reducing N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) residues of keratan. Cooperates with B4GALT4 galactosyltransferase and B3GNT7 N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase to construct and elongate the sulfated disaccharide unit [->3Galbeta1->4(6-sulfoGlcNAcbeta)1->] within keratan sulfate polymer. Involved in biosynthesis of keratan sulfate in cornea, with an impact on proteoglycan fibril organization and corneal transparency. Involved in sulfation of endothelial mucins such as GLYCAM1.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the transfer of sulfate to position 6 of non-reducing N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) residues. Preferentially acts on mannose-linked GlcNAc. Also able to catalyze the transfer of sulfate to position 6 of the N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) residue of chondroitin. Also acts on core 2 mucin-type oligosaccharide and N-acetyllactosamine oligomer with a lower efficiency. Has weak or no activity toward keratan sulfate and oligosaccharides containing the Galbeta1-4GlcNAc. Catalyzes 6-O-sulfation of beta-benzyl GlcNAc but not alpha- or beta-benzyl GalNAc.

Catalyzes the transfer of sulfate to position 4 of non- reducing N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) residues in both N-glycans and O-glycans. Required for biosynthesis of glycoprotein hormones lutropin and thyrotropin, by mediating sulfation of their carbohydrate structures. Only active against terminal GalNAcbeta1,GalNAcbeta. Not active toward chondroitin.

Catalyzes the transfer of sulfate to position 4 of non- reducing N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) residues in both N-glycans and O-glycans. Participates in biosynthesis of glycoprotein hormones lutropin and thyrotropin, by mediating sulfation of their carbohydrate structures. Has a higher activity toward carbonic anhydrase VI than toward lutropin. Only active against terminal GalNAcbeta1,GalNAcbeta. Isoform 2, but not isoform 1, is active toward chondroitin

Catalyzes the transfer of sulfate from 3'-phosphoadenylyl sulfate (PAPS) to position 3 of terminal glucuronic acid of both protein- and lipid-linked oligosaccharides. Participates in biosynthesis of HNK-1 carbohydrate structure 3-O-sulfo-beta-D-GlcA- (1->3)-beta-D-Gal-(1->4)-D-GlcNAc-R, a sulfated glucuronyl-lactosaminyl residue carried by many neural recognition molecules, which is involved in cell interactions during ontogenetic development and in synaptic plasticity in the adult. May be indirectly involved in synapse plasticity of the hippocampus, via its role in HNK-1 biosynthesis. Sulfates terminal glucuronyl residue of the laminin globular (LG)-domain binding epitope on DAG1/alpha-dystroglycan and prevents further polymerization by LARGE1 glycosyltransferase. Likely defines the chain length of LG epitope, confering binding specificity to extracellular matrix components. Plays a role in down-regulating the steroid hormones. Sulfates glucuronidated estrogens and androgens with an impact in hormone cycle and fertility. Has a preference for glucuronyl moiety at the 3-hydroxyl group of a sterol ring rather than the 17-hydroxyl group, showing high catalytic efficiency for 17beta-estradiol 3-O-(beta-D-glucuronate) and dehydroepiandrosterone 3-O-(beta-D-glucuronate) hormones.

Catalyzes the transfer of sulfate to position 4 of the N- acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) residue of chondroitin. Chondroitin sulfate constitutes the predominant proteoglycan present in cartilage and is distributed on the surfaces of many cells and extracellular matrices. Can also sulfate Gal residues in desulfated dermatan sulfate. Preferentially sulfates in GlcA->GalNAc unit than in IdoA->GalNAc unit. Does not form 4, 6-di-O-sulfated GalNAc when chondroitin sulfate C is used as an acceptor

Catalyzes the transfer of sulfate to position 4 of the N- acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) residue of chondroitin and desulfated dermatan sulfate. Chondroitin sulfate constitutes the predominant proteoglycan present in cartilage and is distributed on the surfaces of many cells and extracellular matrices. Activity toward partially desulfated dermatan sulfate is however lower. Does not form 4, 6-di-O- sulfated GalNAc when chondroitin sulfate C is used as an acceptor

Catalyzes the transfer of sulfate to position 4 of the N- acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) residue of chondroitin. Chondroitin sulfate constitutes the predominant proteoglycan present in cartilage and is distributed on the surfaces of many cells and extracellular matrices. Transfers sulfate to the C4 hydroxyl of beta1,4-linked GalNAc that is substituted with a beta-linked glucuronic acid at the C-3 hydroxyl. No activity toward dermatan

Catalyzes the transfer of sulfate to position 4 of the N- acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) residue of dermatan sulfate. Plays a pivotal role in the formation of 4-0-sulfated IdoA blocks in dermatan sulfate. Transfers sulfate to the C-4 hydroxyl of beta1,4-linked GalNAc that is substituted with an alpha-linked iduronic acid (IdoUA) at the C-3 hydroxyl. Transfers sulfate more efficiently to GalNAc residues in -IdoUA-GalNAc-IdoUA- than in -GlcUA-GalNAc-GlcUA-sequences. Has preference for partially desulfated dermatan sulfate. Addition of sulfate to GalNAc may occur immediately after epimerization of GlcUA to IdoUA. Appears to have an important role in the formation of the cerebellar neural network during postnatal brain development.

Sulfotransferase that transfers sulfate from 3'- phosphoadenosine 5'-phosphosulfate (PAPS) to the C-6 hydroxyl group of the GalNAc 4-sulfate residue of chondroitin sulfate A and forms chondroitin sulfate E containing GlcA-GalNAc(4,6-SO(4)) repeating units. It also transfers sulfate to a unique non-reducing terminal sequence, GalNAc(4SO4)-GlcA(2SO4)-GalNAc(6SO4), to yield a highly sulfated structure similar to the structure found in thrombomodulin chondroitin sulfate. May also act as a B-cell receptor involved in BCR ligation-mediated early activation that mediate regulatory signals key to B-cell development and/or regulation of B-cell-specific RAG expression; however such results are unclear in vivo.

Plays an important role in the ligand-dependent activation of estrogen receptor target genes. May play a role in the silencing of fetal globin genes. Recruits the 5FMC complex to ZNF148, leading to desumoylation of ZNF148 and subsequent transactivation of ZNF148 target genes (By similarity). Plays an important role in the tumorigenicity of glioblastoma cells. Binds to 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC) and associates with the methylosome complex containing PRMT1, PRMT5, MEP50 and ERH. The CHTOP- methylosome complex associated with 5hmC is recruited to selective sites on the chromosome, where it methylates H4R3 and activates the transcription of genes involved in glioblastomagenesis.

Transcriptional activator that mediates FGF signaling during neural development (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of cell movement (By similarity).

Component of the C9orf72-SMCR8 complex, a complex that has guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) activity and regulates autophagy. In the complex, C9orf72 and SMCR8 probably constitute the catalytic subunits that promote the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP-bound RAB8A and RAB39B into their active GTP-bound form, thereby promoting autophagosome maturation. The C9orf72-SMCR8 complex also acts as a regulator of autophagy initiation by interacting with the ULK1/ATG1 kinase complex and modulating its protein kinase activity. As part of the C9orf72-SMCR8 complex, stimulates RAB8A and RAB11A GTPase activity in vitro. Positively regulates initiation of autophagy by regulating the RAB1A-dependent trafficking of the ULK1/ATG1 kinase complex to the phagophore which leads to autophagosome formation. Acts as a regulator of mTORC1 signaling by promoting phosphorylation of mTORC1 substrates. Plays a role in endosomal trafficking. May be involved in regulating the maturation of phagosomes to lysosomes (By similarity). Promotes the lysosomal localization and lysosome-mediated degradation of CARM1 which leads to inhibition of starvation-induced lipid metabolism (By similarity). Regulates actin dynamics in motor neurons by inhibiting the GTP-binding activity of ARF6, leading to ARF6 inactivation. This reduces the activity of the LIMK1 and LIMK2 kinases which are responsible for phosphorylation and inactivation of cofilin, leading to CFL1/cofilin activation. Positively regulates axon extension and axon growth cone size in spinal motor neurons. Required for SMCR8 protein expression and localization at pre- and post-synaptic compartments in the forebrain, also regulates protein abundance of RAB3A and GRIA1/GLUR1 in post- synaptic compartments in the forebrain and hippocampus (By similarity). Plays a role within the hematopoietic system in restricting inflammation and the development of autoimmunity (By similarity).

Required for association of the centrosomes with the poles of the bipolar mitotic spindle during metaphase. Also involved in chromosome alignment. May promote centrosome maturation probably by recruiting A-kinase anchor protein AKAP9 to centrosomes in early mitosis. Binds specifically to miRNA MIR145 hairpin, regulates MIR145 expression at a postranscriptional level.

Component of the cytosolic iron-sulfur protein assembly (CIA) complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates the incorporation of iron-sulfur cluster into extramitochondrial Fe/S proteins. As a CIA complex component and in collaboration with CIAO1 specifically matures ACO1 and stabilizes IREB2, connecting cytosolic iron-sulfur protein maturation with cellular iron regulation. May play a role in chromosome segregation through establishment of sister chromatid cohesion. May induce apoptosis in collaboration with APAF1.

Component of the cytosolic iron-sulfur protein assembly (CIA) complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates the incorporation of iron-sulfur cluster into extramitochondrial Fe/S proteins. As a CIA complex component and in collaboration with CIAO1 and MMS19, binds to and facilitates the assembly of most cytosolic-nuclear Fe/S proteins. As part of the mitotic spindle-associated MMXD complex it plays a role in chromosome segregation, probably by facilitating iron-sulfur cluster assembly into ERCC2/XPD. Together with MMS19, facilitates the transfer of Fe-S clusters to the motor protein KIF4A, which ensures proper localization of KIF4A to mitotic machinery components to promote the progression of mitosis.

As part of the MCIA complex, involved in the assembly of the mitochondrial complex I.

Key component of the cytosolic iron-sulfur protein assembly (CIA) complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates the incorporation of iron-sulfur cluster into extramitochondrial Fe/S proteins. As a CIA complex component, interacts specifically with CIAO2A or CIAO2B and MMS19 to assist different branches of iron-sulfur protein assembly, depending of its interactors. The complex CIAO1:CIAO2B:MMS19 binds to and facilitates the assembly of most cytosolic-nuclear Fe/S proteins. CIAO1:CIAO2A specifically matures ACO1 and stabilizes IREB2. Seems to specifically modulate the transactivation activity of WT1. As part of the mitotic spindle-associated MMXD complex it may play a role in chromosome segregation.

Component of the cytosolic iron-sulfur protein assembly (CIA) complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates the incorporation of iron-sulfur cluster into extramitochondrial Fe/S proteins. Seems to negatively regulate the level of HIF1A expression, although this effect could be indirect.

Transcriptional repressor which forms a negative regulatory component of the circadian clock and acts independently of the circadian transcriptional repressors: CRY1, CRY2 and BHLHE41. In a histone deacetylase-dependent manner represses the transcriptional activator activity of the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer. Abrogates the interaction of BMAL1 with the transcriptional coactivator CREBBP and can repress the histone acetyl-transferase activity of the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer, reducing histone acetylation of its target genes. Rhythmically binds the E-box elements (5'-CACGTG-3') on circadian gene promoters and its occupancy shows circadian oscillation antiphasic to BMAL1. Interacts with the glucocorticoid receptor (NR3C1) and contributes to the repressive function in the glucocorticoid response (By similarity).

Calcium-binding protein that plays a role in the regulation of numerous cellular processes, such as cell differentiation, cell division, cell proliferation, cell migration, thrombosis, angiogenesis, cardiac hypertrophy and apoptosis. Involved in bone marrow megakaryocyte differentiation by negatively regulating thrombopoietin- mediated signaling pathway. Participates in the endomitotic cell cycle of megakaryocyte, a form of mitosis in which both karyokinesis and cytokinesis are interrupted. Plays a role in integrin signaling by negatively regulating alpha-IIb/beta3 activation in thrombin-stimulated megakaryocytes preventing platelet aggregation. Up-regulates PTK2/FAK1 activity, and is also needed for the recruitment of PTK2/FAK1 to focal adhesions; it thus appears to play an important role in focal adhesion formation. Positively regulates cell migration on fibronectin in a CDC42-dependent manner, the effect being negatively regulated by PAK1. Functions as a negative regulator of stress activated MAP kinase (MAPK) signaling pathways. Down-regulates inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate receptor-dependent calcium signaling. Involved in sphingosine kinase SPHK1 translocation to the plasma membrane in a N-myristoylation- dependent manner preventing TNF-alpha-induced apoptosis. Regulates serine/threonine-protein kinase PLK3 activity for proper completion of cell division progression. Plays a role in microtubule (MT) dynamics during neuronal development; disrupts the MT depolymerization activity of STMN2 attenuating NGF-induced neurite outgrowth and the MT reorganization at the edge of lamellipodia. Promotes cardiomyocyte hypertrophy via activation of the calcineurin/NFAT signaling pathway. Stimulates calcineurin PPP3R1 activity by mediating its anchoring to the sarcolemma. In ischemia-induced (pathological or adaptive) angiogenesis, stimulates endothelial cell proliferation, migration and microvessel formation by activating the PAK1 and ERK1/ERK2 signaling pathway. Promotes also cancer cell survival and proliferation. May regulate cell cycle and differentiation of spermatogenic germ cells, and/or differentiation of supporting Sertoli cells

Calcium- and integrin-binding protein that plays a role in intracellular calcium homeostasis (By similarity). Acts as a auxiliary subunit of the sensory mechanoelectrical transduction (MET) channel in hair cells (By similarity). Essential for mechanoelectrical transduction (MET) currents in auditory hair cells and thereby required for hearing (By similarity). Regulates the function of hair cell mechanotransduction by controlling the distribution of transmembrane channel-like proteins TMC1 and TMC2, and by regulating the function of the MET channels in hair cells (By similarity). Required for the maintenance of auditory hair cell stereocilia bundle morphology and function and for hair-cell survival in the cochlea (By similarity). Critical for proper photoreceptor cell maintenance and function (By similarity). Plays a role in intracellular calcium homeostasis by decreasing ATP-induced calcium release.

Acts a an auxiliary subunit of the sensory mechanoelectrical transduction (MET) channel in hair cells (By similarity). Plays a role in regulating hair cell MET channel localization and function (By similarity).

Acts as a CEBPB coactivator in mammary epithelial cells to control the expression of a subset of CEBPB downstream target genes, including ID2, IGF1, PRLR, SOCS1, SOCS3, XDH, but not casein. By interacting with CEBPB, strengthens the association of CEBPB with the XDH promoter, increases histone acetylation and dissociates HDAC1 from the promoter (By similarity). Binds to lipid droplets and regulates their enlargement, thereby restricting lipolysis and favoring storage. At focal contact sites between lipid droplets, promotes directional net neutral lipid transfer from the smaller to larger lipid droplets. The transfer direction may be driven by the internal pressure difference between the contacting lipid droplet pair and occurs at a lower rate than that promoted by CIDEC. When overexpressed, induces apoptosis. The physiological significance of its role in apoptosis is unclear.

Binds to lipid droplets and regulates their enlargement, thereby restricting lipolysis and favoring storage. At focal contact sites between lipid droplets, promotes directional net neutral lipid transfer from the smaller to larger lipid droplets. The transfer direction may be driven by the internal pressure difference between the contacting lipid droplet pair. Its role in neutral lipid transfer and lipid droplet enlargement is activated by the interaction with PLIN1. May act as a CEBPB coactivator in the white adipose tissue to control the expression of a subset of CEBPB downstream target genes, including SOCS1, SOCS3, TGFB1, TGFBR1, ID2 and XDH. When overexpressed in preadipocytes, induces apoptosis or increases cell susceptibility to apoptosis induced by serum deprivation or TGFB treatment. As mature adipocytes, that express high CIDEC levels, are quite resistant to apoptotic stimuli, the physiological significance of its role in apoptosis is unclear. May play a role in the modulation of the response to osmotic stress by preventing NFAT5 to translocate into the nucleus and activate its target genes expression.

E3 ubiquitin ligase that catalyzes 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of target protein, enhancing protein-protein interaction and cell signaling. Transfers ubiquitin from E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme UBE2V1-UBE2N to substrate protein. Essential adapter molecule in IL17A-mediated signaling. Upon IL17A stimulation, interacts with IL17RA and IL17RC receptor chains through SEFIR domains and catalyzes 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of TRAF6, leading to TRAF6-mediated activation of NF-kappa-B and MAPkinase pathways.

Required for ciliogenesis. Phosphorylates KIF3A (By similarity). Involved in the control of ciliary length. Regulates the ciliary localization of SHH pathway components as well as the localization of IFT components at ciliary tips (By similarity). May play a key role in the development of multiple organ systems and particularly in cardiac development (By similarity). Regulates intraflagellar transport (IFT) speed and negatively regulates cilium length in a cAMP and mTORC1 signaling- dependent manner and this regulation requires its kinase activity (By similarity).

Probably plays a role in cartilage scaffolding. May act by antagonizing TGF-beta1 (TGFB1) and IGF1 functions. Has the ability to suppress IGF1-induced proliferation and sulfated proteoglycan synthesis, and inhibits ligand-induced IGF1R autophosphorylation. May inhibit TGFB1-mediated induction of cartilage matrix genes via its interaction with TGFB1. Overexpression may lead to impair chondrocyte growth and matrix repair and indirectly promote inorganic pyrophosphate (PPi) supersaturation in aging and osteoarthritis cartilage.

Probably plays a role in the formation and regulation of the tight junction (TJ) paracellular permeability barrier

Component of the DNA replication complex, which interacts with two kinases, CDK2 and CDC7, thereby providing a functional and physical link between CDK2 and CDC7 during firing of the origins of replication. Regulates ATR-mediated checkpoint signaling in response to DNA damage. Also involved in the cytoplasmic maturation steps of pre-60S ribosomal particles by promoting the release of shuttling protein RSL24D1/RLP24 from the pre-ribosomal particles. Promotes maturation of pre-60S ribosome together with SPATA5, SPATA5L1 and C1orf109.

Ubiquitin E3 ligase that acts as a limiting factor for crossing-over during meiosis: required during zygonema to limit the colocalization of RNF212 with MutS-gamma-associated recombination sites and thereby establish early differentiation of crossover and non- crossover sites. Later, it is directed by MutL-gamma to stably accumulate at designated crossover sites. Probably promotes the dissociation of RNF212 and MutS-gamma to allow the progression of recombination and the implementation of the final steps of crossing over (By similarity). Modulates cyclin-B levels and participates in the regulation of cell cycle progression through the G2 phase. Overexpression causes delayed entry into mitosis.

Oncoprotein that inhibits PP2A and stabilizes MYC in human malignancies. Promotes anchorage-independent cell growth and tumor formation.

Required for translocation of GLUT4 to the plasma membrane in response to insulin signaling (By similarity). Required to coordinate membrane tubulation with reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton during endocytosis. Binds to lipids such as phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate and phosphatidylserine and promotes membrane invagination and the formation of tubules. Also promotes CDC42-induced actin polymerization by recruiting WASL/N-WASP which in turn activates the Arp2/3 complex. Actin polymerization may promote the fission of membrane tubules to form endocytic vesicles. Required for the formation of podosomes, actin-rich adhesion structures specific to monocyte- derived cells. May be required for the lysosomal retention of FASLG/FASL.

Transcriptional repressor which may act as a negative- feedback regulator of CLOCK-BMAL1 transcriptional activity in the circadian-clock mechanism. May stimulate BMAL1-dependent phosphorylation of CLOCK. However, the physiogical relevance of these observations is unsure, since experiments in an animal model showed that CIPC is not critially required for basic circadian clock.

May modulate splice site selection during alternative splicing of pre-mRNAs (By similarity). Regulates transcription and acts as corepressor for RBPJ. Recruits RBPJ to the Sin3-histone deacetylase complex (HDAC). Required for RBPJ-mediated repression of transcription.

Putative metalloproteinase that plays a role in left-right patterning process.

Plays a key role in regulating maximal capacity for electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation (By similarity). May be involved in Fe-S cluster shuttling and/or in redox reactions.

Regulator of autophagy that contributes to antagonize BECN1- mediated cellular autophagy at the endoplasmic reticulum. Participates in the interaction of BCL2 with BECN1 and is required for BCL2-mediated depression of endoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+) stores during autophagy. Contributes to BIK-initiated autophagy, while it is not involved in BIK-dependent activation of caspases. Involved in life span control, probably via its function as regulator of autophagy.

Can transfer its iron-sulfur clusters to the apoferrodoxins FDX1 and FDX2. Contributes to mitochondrial iron homeostasis and in maintaining normal levels of free iron and reactive oxygen species, and thereby contributes to normal mitochondrial function.

SOCS family proteins form part of a classical negative feedback system that regulates cytokine signal transduction. CIS is involved in the negative regulation of cytokines that signal through the JAK-STAT5 pathway such as erythropoietin, prolactin and interleukin 3 (IL3) receptor. Inhibits STAT5 trans-activation by suppressing its tyrosine phosphorylation. May be a substrate-recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin BC-CUL2/5-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins (By similarity).

Transcriptional coactivator of the p300/CBP-mediated transcription complex. Enhances SMAD-mediated transcription by strengthening the functional link between the DNA-binding SMAD transcription factors and the p300/CBP transcription coactivator complex. Stimulates estrogen-dependent transactivation activity mediated by estrogen receptors signaling; stabilizes the interaction of estrogen receptor ESR1 and histone acetyltransferase EP300. Positively regulates TGF-beta signaling through its association with the SMAD/p300/CBP-mediated transcriptional coactivator complex. Induces transcription from estrogen-responsive promoters and protection against cell death. Potentiates EGR2-mediated transcriptional activation activity from the ERBB2 promoter. Acts as an inhibitor of osteoblastic mineralization through a cAMP-dependent parathyroid hormone receptor signaling. May play a role in pigmentation of melanocytes. Associates with chromatin to the estrogen-responsive TGF-alpha promoter region in a estrogen-dependent manner.

Transcriptional coactivator of the p300/CBP-mediated transcription complex. Acts as a bridge, linking TFAP2 transcription factors and the p300/CBP transcriptional coactivator complex in order to stimulate TFAP2-mediated transcriptional activation. Positively regulates TGF-beta signaling through its association with the SMAD/p300/CBP-mediated transcriptional coactivator complex. Stimulates the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors PPARA transcriptional activity. Enhances estrogen-dependent transactivation mediated by estrogen receptors. Acts also as a transcriptional corepressor; interferes with the binding of the transcription factors HIF1A or STAT2 and the p300/CBP transcriptional coactivator complex. Participates in sex determination and early gonad development by stimulating transcription activation of SRY. Plays a role in controlling left-right patterning during embryogenesis; potentiates transcriptional activation of NODAL-mediated gene transcription in the left lateral plate mesoderm (LPM). Plays an essential role in differentiation of the adrenal cortex from the adrenogonadal primordium (AGP); stimulates WT1-mediated transcription activation thereby up-regulating the nuclear hormone receptor NR5A1 promoter activity. Associates with chromatin to the PITX2 P1 promoter region.

Acts as transcriptional coactivator for TFAP2/AP-2. Enhances estrogen-dependent transactivation mediated by estrogen receptors. May function as an inhibitor of transactivation by HIF1A by disrupting HIF1A interaction with CREBBP. May be involved in regulation of gene expression during development and differentiation of blood cells, endothelial cells and mammary epithelial cells.

Exhibits ester hydrolase activity on the substrate p- nitrophenyl acetate.

Potent and specific inhibitor of CaM-kinase II (CAMK2) (By similarity). Plays a role in the maintenance of long-term retrieval- induced memory in response to contextual fear (By similarity). Modulates blood pressure and vascular reactivity via regulation of CAMK2 activity in addition to regulation of left ventricular mass (By similarity). Mediates the NLRP3 inflammasome in cardiomyocytes via acting as an inhibitor of the MAPK14/p38 and MAPK8/JNK pathways, thereby regulating ventricular remodeling and cardiac rhythm post- myocardial infarction (By similarity). Negatively effects insulin sensitivity and promotes lipid formation in adipose tissues independent of CAMK2 signaling (By similarity).

Potent and specific cellular inhibitor of CaM-kinase II (CAMK2). Traps Ca(2+)/calmodulin on CAMK2 (By similarity).

Methylthiotransferase that catalyzes the conversion of N6- (dimethylallyl)adenosine (i(6)A) to 2-methylthio-N6- (dimethylallyl)adenosine (ms(2)i(6)A) at position 37 (adjacent to the 3'-end of the anticodon) of four mitochondrial DNA-encoded tRNAs (Ser(UCN), Phe, Tyr and Trp). Essential for efficient and highly accurate protein translation by the ribosome. Specifically inhibits CDK5 activation by CDK5R1. Essential for efficient mitochondrial protein synthesis and respiratory chain; shows pathological consequences in mitochondrial disease.

Potential regulator of CDK5 activity via its interaction with CDK5R1. Negative regulator of centriole disengagement (licensing) which maintains centriole engagement and cohesion. Involved in regulation of mitotic spindle orientation (By similarity). Plays a role in the spindle checkpoint activation by acting as a transcriptional regulator of both BUBR1 and MAD2 promoter. Together with EB1/MAPRE1, may promote microtubule polymerization, bundle formation, growth and dynamics at the plus ends. Regulates centrosomal maturation by recruitment of the gamma-tubulin ring complex (gamma-TuRC) onto centrosomes. In complex with PDE4DIP isoform 13/MMG8/SMYLE, MAPRE1 and AKAP9, contributes to microtubules nucleation and extension from the centrosome to the cell periphery. Required for the recruitment of AKAP9 to centrosomes. Plays a role in neurogenesis (By similarity).

Substrate adapter for ufmylation, the covalent attachment of the ubiquitin-like modifier UFM1 to substrate proteins, in response to endoplasmic reticulum stress. Negatively regulates NF-kappa-B-mediated gene transcription through the control of RELA phosphorylation. Probable tumor suppressor initially identified as a CDK5R1 interactor controlling cell proliferation. Also regulates mitotic G2/M transition checkpoint and mitotic G2 DNA damage checkpoint. Through its interaction with CDKN2A/ARF and MDM2 may induce MDM2-dependent p53/TP53 ubiquitination, stabilization and activation in the nucleus, thereby promoting G1 cell cycle arrest and inhibition of cell proliferation. May also play a role in the rupture of the nuclear envelope during apoptosis. May regulate MAPK14 activity by regulating its dephosphorylation by PPM1D/WIP1. Required for liver development (By similarity).

Possesses microtubule stabilizing properties. Involved in regulating aneuploidy, cell cycling, and cell death in a p53/TP53- dependent manner (By similarity).

Mediates the anchoring of the endoplasmic reticulum to microtubules.

Binds to the plus end of microtubules and regulates microtubule dynamics and microtubule organization. Acts as processive microtubule polymerase. Promotes cytoplasmic microtubule nucleation and elongation. Plays a major role in organizing spindle poles. In spindle formation protects kinetochore microtubules from depolymerization by KIF2C and has an essential role in centrosomal microtubule assembly independently of KIF2C activity. Contributes to centrosome integrity. Acts as component of the TACC3/ch-TOG/clathrin complex proposed to contribute to stabilization of kinetochore fibers of the mitotic spindle by acting as inter-microtubule bridge. The TACC3/ch- TOG/clathrin complex is required for the maintenance of kinetochore fiber tension. Enhances the strength of NDC80 complex-mediated kinetochore-tip microtubule attachments.

Acts as a backup for CMTM6 to regulate plasma membrane expression of PD-L1/CD274, an immune inhibitory ligand critical for immune tolerance to self and antitumor immunity. May protect PD- L1/CD274 from being polyubiquitinated and targeted for degradation.

Master regulator of recycling and plasma membrane expression of PD-L1/CD274, an immune inhibitory ligand critical for immune tolerance to self and antitumor immunity. Associates with both constitutive and IFNG-induced PD-L1/CD274 at recycling endosomes, where it protects PD-L1/CD274 from being targeted for lysosomal degradation, likely by preventing its STUB1-mediated ubiquitination. May stabilize PD-L1/CD274 expression on antigen presenting cells and potentiates inhibitory signaling by PDCD1/CD279, its receptor on T-cells, ultimately triggering T-cell anergy.

May play an important role in inflammation and regeneration of skeletal muscle. Essential for embryonic development (By similarity).

Microtubule-associated protein required for mitotic spindle formation and cell-cycle progression in neural progenitor cells.

Binds to the catalytic subunit of the cyclin dependent kinases and is essential for their biological function

Cell surface receptor that modulates signaling cascades and mediates tyrosine phosphorylation of target MAP kinases.

Inhibitory receptor postulated to negatively regulate immune and non-immune functions. Upon phosphorylation, recruits SH2 domain-containing PTPN6 and PTPN11 phosphatases to its ITIM motif and antagonizes activation signals. Although it inhibits KLRK1/NKG2D- mediated signaling, it does not bind known ligands of KLRK1/NKG2D and therefore is not its inhibitory counterpart. May limit activation of myeloid cell subsets in response to infection or tissue inflammation. May protect target cells against natural killer cell-mediated lysis. May negatively regulate cell cycle and differentiation of melanocytes via inactivation of STAT3.

Regulator of mitophagy through the upstream regulation of the RNF41/NRDP1-PRKN pathway. Mitophagy is a selective form of autophagy necessary for mitochondrial quality control. The RNF41/NRDP1-PRKN pathway regulates autophagosome-lysosome fusion during late mitophagy. May protect RNF41/NRDP1 from proteosomal degradation, RNF41/NRDP1 which regulates proteosomal degradation of PRKN. Plays a key role in beta cells functions by regulating mitophagy/autophagy and mitochondrial health.

Cell surface receptor which may be involved in carbohydrate- mediated communication between cells in the germinal center. Binds glycans with terminal alpha-linked mannose or fucose residues.

Binds polysaccharides in a Ca(2+)-independent manner with a preferentially binding to fucoidan, beta-glucans and galactans.

Binds polysaccharidesin a Ca(2+)-independent manner with a preferentially binding to fucoidan, beta-glucans and galactans.

Chemotactic for lymphocytes and monocytes. Is a ligand for CCR1, CCR3 and CCR5. Is an inhibitor of HIV-1-infection. The processed form LD78-beta(3-70) shows a 20-fold to 30-fold higher chemotactic activity and is a very potent inhibitor of HIV-1-infection. LD78- beta(3-70) is also a ligand for CCR1, CCR3 and CCR5.

Catalyzes the reversible synthesis of acetylcholine (ACh) from acetyl CoA and choline at cholinergic synapses.

Promotes osteogenesis by stimulating the differentiation of mesenchymal progenitors into mature osteoblasts. Important for repair and maintenance of adult bone (By similarity).

C-type lectin-like receptor that functions as a platelet receptor for the lymphatic endothelial marker, PDPN. After ligand activation, signals via sequential activation of SRC and SYK tyrosine kinases leading to activation of PLCG2.

Plays a role in modulating the extent of T-cell expansion. Enhances the expansion of TCR-stimulated T-cells by increasing their survival through enhanced expression of anti-apoptotic proteins. May modulate the capacity of T-cells to home to lymph nodes through SELL. Facilitates dedicated immune recognition of keratinocytes via interaction with its receptor KLRF2 by stimulating natural killer cell mediated cytotoxicity.

Receptor for KLRB1 that protects target cells against natural killer cell-mediated lysis. Inhibits osteoclast formation. Inhibits bone resorption. Modulates the release of interferon-gamma. Binds high molecular weight sulfated glycosaminoglycans.

C-type lectin receptor that binds carbohydrates mannose and fucose but also weakly interacts with N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) in a Ca(2+)-dependent manner. Involved in regulating immune reactivity. Once triggered by antigen, it is internalized by clathrin-dependent endocytosis and delivers its antigenic cargo into the antigen presentation pathway resulting in cross-priming of CD8(+) T cells. This cross-presentation and cross-priming are enhanced by TLR7 and TLR8 agonists with increased expansion of the CD8(+) T cells, high production of IFNG and TNF with reduced levels of IL4, IL5 and IL13. In plasmacytoid dendritic cells, inhibits TLR9-mediated IFNA and TNF production. May be involved via its ITIM motif (immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motifs) in the inhibition of B-cell-receptor-mediated calcium mobilization and protein tyrosine phosphorylation.

Lectin-type cell surface receptor which may play a role in antigen capturing by dendritic cells. Specifically recognizes non-sialylated galactose- terminated biantennary glycans containing the trisaccharide epitope Gal(beta1-3/4)GlcNAc(beta1-2)Man. Binds to serum IgG. Efficiently targets ligand into antigen-processing and peptide-loading compartments for presentation to T-cells. May mediate potent inhibition of induction of IFN-alpha/beta expression in plasmacytoid dendritic cells. May act as a signaling receptor that activates protein-tyrosine kinases and mobilizes intracellular calcium.

Calcium-dependent lectin that acts as a pattern recognition receptor (PRR) of the innate immune system: recognizes damage- associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) of bacteria and fungi. The PAMPs include alpha-mannans on C.albicans hypheas and mycobacterial trehalose 6,6'-dimycolate (TDM). Interacts with signaling adapter Fc receptor gamma chain/FCER1G, likely via CLEC4E, to form a functional complex in myeloid cells (By similarity). Binding of mycobacterial TDM or C.albicans alpha-mannans to this receptor complex leads to phosphorylation of the immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif (ITAM) of FCER1G, triggering activation of SYK, CARD9 and NF-kappa-B, consequently driving maturation of antigen-presenting cells and shaping antigen-specific priming of T-cells toward effector T-helper 1 and T- helper 17 cell subtypes. The heterodimer formed with CLEC6A is active against fungal infection. Functions as an endocytic receptor. May be involved in antigen uptake at the site of infection, either for clearance of the antigen, or for processing and further presentation to T-cells.

Calcium-dependent lectin that acts as a pattern recognition receptor (PRR) of the innate immune system: recognizes damage- associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) of abnormal self and pathogen- associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) of bacteria and fungi. The PAMPs notably include mycobacterial trehalose 6,6'-dimycolate (TDM), a cell wall glycolipid with potent adjuvant immunomodulatory functions. Interacts with signaling adapter Fc receptor gamma chain/FCER1G to form a functional complex in myeloid cells (By similarity). Binding of mycobacterial trehalose 6,6'-dimycolate (TDM) to this receptor complex leads to phosphorylation of the immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif (ITAM) of FCER1G, triggering activation of SYK, CARD9 and NF-kappa-B, consequently driving maturation of antigen-presenting cells and shaping antigen-specific priming of T- cells toward effector T-helper 1 and T-helper 17 cell subtypes (By similarity). Also recognizes alpha-mannose residues on pathogenic fungi of the genus Malassezia and mediates macrophage activation (By similarity). Through recognition of DAMPs released upon nonhomeostatic cell death, enables immune sensing of damaged self and promotes inflammatory cell infiltration into the damaged tissue (By similarity).

Receptor with an affinity for galactose and fucose. Could be involved in endocytosis (By similarity).

Binds mannose, N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) and fucose, but not galactose, in a Ca(2+)-dependent manner, in vitro.

Calcium-dependent lectin displaying mannose-binding specificity. Induces the formation of Birbeck granules (BGs); is a potent regulator of membrane superimposition and zippering. Binds to sulfated as well as mannosylated glycans, keratan sulfate (KS) and beta-glucans. Facilitates uptake of antigens and is involved in the routing and/or processing of antigen for presentation to T cells. Major receptor on primary Langerhans cells for Candida species, Saccharomyces species, and Malassezia furfur. Protects against human immunodeficiency virus-1 (HIV-1) infection. Binds to high-mannose structures present on the envelope glycoprotein which is followed by subsequent targeting of the virus to the Birbeck granules leading to its rapid degradation.

Probable pathogen-recognition receptor involved in peripheral immune surveillance in liver. May mediate the endocytosis of pathogens which are subsequently degraded in lysosomal compartments. Is a receptor for ICAM3, probably by binding to mannose-like carbohydrates.

Functions as a positive regulator of osteoclastogenesis (By similarity). Cell surface receptor that signals via TYROBP. Regulates inflammatory responses (By similarity).

Calcium-dependent lectin that acts as a pattern recognition receptor (PRR) of the innate immune system: specifically recognizes and binds alpha-mannans on C.albicans hypheas. Binding of C.albicans alpha-mannans to this receptor complex leads to phosphorylation of the immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif (ITAM) of FCER1G, triggering activation of SYK, CARD9 and NF-kappa-B, consequently driving maturation of antigen-presenting cells and shaping antigen-specific priming of T-cells toward effector T-helper 1 and T-helper 17 cell subtypes (By similarity). Recognizes also, in a mannose-dependent manner, allergens from house dust mite and fungi, by promoting cysteinyl leukotriene production (By similarity). Recognizes soluble elements from the eggs of Shistosoma mansoni altering adaptive immune responses (By similarity).

Lectin that functions as pattern recognizing receptor (PRR) specific for beta-1,3-linked and beta-1,6-linked glucans, which constitute cell wall constituents from pathogenic bacteria and fungi. Necessary for the TLR2-mediated inflammatory response and activation of NF-kappa-B: upon beta-glucan binding, recruits SYK via its ITAM motif and promotes a signaling cascade that activates some CARD domain-BCL10-MALT1 (CBM) signalosomes, leading to the activation of NF-kappa-B and MAP kinase p38 (MAPK11, MAPK12, MAPK13 and/or MAPK14) pathways which stimulate expression of genes encoding pro-inflammatory cytokines and chemokines (By similarity). Enhances cytokine production in macrophages and dendritic cells (By similarity). Mediates production of reactive oxygen species in the cell (By similarity). Mediates phagocytosis of C.albicans conidia. Binds T-cells in a way that does not involve their surface glycans and plays a role in T-cell activation. Stimulates T-cell proliferation. Induces phosphorylation of SCIMP after binding beta-glucans (By similarity).

Functions as an endocytic receptor on a small subset of myeloid cells specialized for the uptake and processing of material from dead cells. Recognizes filamentous form of actin in association with particular actin-binding domains of cytoskeletal proteins, including spectrin, exposed when cell membranes are damaged, and mediate the cross-presentation of dead-cell associated antigens in a Syk-dependent manner.

May be involved in mediating calcium-activated chloride conductance. May play critical roles in goblet cell metaplasia, mucus hypersecretion, cystic fibrosis and AHR. May be involved in the regulation of mucus production and/or secretion by goblet cells. Involved in the regulation of tissue inflammation in the innate immune response. May play a role as a tumor suppressor. Induces MUC5AC.

Plays a role in modulating chloride current across the plasma membrane in a calcium-dependent manner, and cell adhesion. Involved in basal cell adhesion and/or stratification of squamous epithelia. May act as a tumor suppressor in breast and colorectal cancer. Plays a key role for cell adhesion in the beginning stages of lung metastasis via the binding to ITGB4.

May be involved in mediating calcium-activated chloride conductance

Clathrin is the major protein of the polyhedral coat of coated pits and vesicles. Acts as component of the TACC3/ch- TOG/clathrin complex proposed to contribute to stabilization of kinetochore fibers of the mitotic spindle by acting as inter- microtubule bridge.

Clathrin is the major protein of the polyhedral coat of coated pits and vesicles

Seems to act as a chloride ion channel. Plays a role in retina development.

In complex with CRLF1, forms a heterodimeric neurotropic cytokine that plays a crucial role during neuronal development (Probable). Also stimulates B-cells. Binds to and activates the ILST/gp130 receptor.

Voltage-gated chloride channel. Chloride channels have several functions including the regulation of cell volume; membrane potential stabilization, signal transduction and transepithelial transport. May be important in urinary concentrating mechanisms

Voltage-gated chloride channel. Chloride channels have several functions including the regulation of cell volume; membrane potential stabilization, signal transduction and transepithelial transport. May be important in urinary concentrating mechanisms.

Voltage-gated chloride channel. Plays an important role in membrane repolarization in skeletal muscle cells after muscle contraction. The CLC channel family contains both chloride channels and proton-coupled anion transporters that exchange chloride or another anion for protons (Probable). The absence of conserved gating glutamate residues is typical for family members that function as channels (Probable).

Voltage-gated chloride channel. Chloride channels have several functions including the regulation of cell volume, membrane potential stabilization, signal transduction and transepithelial transport. Involved in the regulation of aldosterone production. The opening of CLCN2 channels at hyperpolarized membrane potentials in the glomerulosa causes cell membrane depolarization, activation of voltage- gated Ca2+ channels and increased expression of aldosterone synthase, the rate-limiting enzyme for aldosterone biosynthesis.

[Isoform 1]: Strongly outwardly rectifying, electrogenic H(+)/Cl(-)exchanger which mediates the exchange of chloride ions against protons (By similarity). The CLC channel family contains both chloride channels and proton-coupled anion transporters that exchange chloride or another anion for protons. The presence of conserved gating glutamate residues is typical for family members that function as antiporters.

Strongly outwardly rectifying, electrogenic H(+)/Cl(-)exchanger which mediates the exchange of chloride ions against protons. The CLC channel family contains both chloride channels and proton-coupled anion transporters that exchange chloride or another anion for protons. The presence of conserved gating glutamate residues is typical for family members that function as antiporters.

Proton-coupled chloride transporter. Functions as antiport system and exchanges chloride ions against protons. Important for normal acidification of the endosome lumen. May play an important role in renal tubular function. The CLC channel family contains both chloride channels and proton-coupled anion transporters that exchange chloride or another anion for protons. The absence of conserved gating glutamate residues is typical for family members that function as channels (Probable).

Voltage-gated channel mediating the exchange of chloride ions against protons. Functions as antiporter and contributes to the acidification of the late endosome lumen. The CLC channel family contains both chloride channels and proton-coupled anion transporters that exchange chloride or another anion for protons. The presence of conserved gating glutamate residues is typical for family members that function as antiporters.

Slowly voltage-gated channel mediating the exchange of chloride ions against protons. Functions as antiporter and contributes to the acidification of the lysosome lumen and may be involved in maintaining lysosomal pH. The CLC channel family contains both chloride channels and proton-coupled anion transporters that exchange chloride or another anion for protons (By similarity). The presence of conserved gating glutamate residues is typical for family members that function as antiporters (By similarity).

Plays a major role in tight junction-specific obliteration of the intercellular space, through calcium-independent cell-adhesion activity. Involved in the regulation of paracellular epithelia permeability to ions in multiple organs. It acts as a paracellular ion channel probably forming permselective pores; isoform 1 appears to create pores preferentially permeable to cations and isoform 2 for anions. In sweat glands and in the thick ascending limb (TAL) of Henle's loop in kidney, it controls paracellular sodium permeability which is essential for proper sweat production and renal function.

Plays a major role in tight junction-specific obliteration of the intercellular space, through calcium-independent cell-adhesion activity.

Claudins function as major constituents of the tight junction complexes that regulate the permeability of epithelia. While some claudin family members function as impermeable barriers, others mediate the permeability to ions and small molecules. Often, several claudin family members are coexpressed and interact with each other, and this determines the overall permeability. CLDN15 forms tight junctions that mediate the paracellular transport of small monovalent cations along a concentration gradient, due to selective permeability for Na(+), Li(+) and K(+) ions, but selects against Cl(-) ions. Plays an important role in paracellular Na(+) transport in the intestine and in Na(+) homeostasis. Required for normal Na(+)-dependent intestinal nutrient uptake.

Plays a major role in tight junction-specific obliteration of the intercellular space, through calcium-independent cell-adhesion activity. Involved in paracellular magnesium reabsorption. Required for a selective paracellular conductance. May form, alone or in partnership with other constituents, an intercellular pore permitting paracellular passage of magnesium and calcium ions down their electrochemical gradients. Alternatively, it could be a sensor of magnesium concentration that could alter paracellular permeability mediated by other factors

Channel-forming tight junction protein with selectivity for anions, including chloride and bicarbonate, and for solutes smaller than 9 Angstrom in diameter. In the kidney proximal tubule, may be involved in quantitative reabsorption of filtered anions. Does not affect water permeability.

Claudins function as major constituents of the tight junction complexes that regulate the permeability of epithelia. While some claudin family members play essential roles in the formation of impermeable barriers, others mediate the permeability to ions and small molecules. Often, several claudin family members are coexpressed and interact with each other, and this determines the overall permeability. CLDN1 is required to prevent the paracellular diffusion of small molecules through tight junctions in the epidermis and is required for the normal barrier function of the skin. Required for normal water homeostasis and to prevent excessive water loss through the skin, probably via an indirect effect on the expression levels of other proteins, since CLDN1 itself seems to be dispensable for water barrier formation in keratinocyte tight junctions.

Channel-forming tight junction protein that mediates paracellular chloride transport in the kidney. Plays a critical role in the paracellular reabsorption of filtered chloride in the kidney collecting ducts. Claudins play a major role in tight junction-specific obliteration of the intercellular space, through calcium-independent cell-adhesion activity.

Plays a major role in tight junction-specific obliteration of the intercellular space.

Tight-junction protein required for paracellular chloride transport in the kidney. Mediates recruitment of CLDN4 to tight junction in the kidney. Claudins play a major role in tight junction- specific obliteration of the intercellular space, through calcium- independent cell-adhesion activity.

Functions during spermatogenesis as a chaperone for a range of client proteins that are important for sperm adhesion onto the egg zona pellucida and for subsequent penetration of the zona pellucida. Required for normal sperm migration from the uterus into the oviduct. Required for normal male fertility. Binds calcium ions (By similarity).

Clathrin is the major protein of the polyhedral coat of coated pits and vesicles. Two different adapter protein complexes link the clathrin lattice either to the plasma membrane or to the trans- Golgi network. Acts as component of the TACC3/ch-TOG/clathrin complex proposed to contribute to stabilization of kinetochore fibers of the mitotic spindle by acting as inter-microtubule bridge. The TACC3/ch-TOG/clathrin complex is required for the maintenance of kinetochore fiber tension. Plays a role in early autophagosome formation.

Clathrin is the major protein of the polyhedral coat of coated pits and vesicles. Two different adapter protein complexes link the clathrin lattice either to the plasma membrane or to the trans- Golgi network (By similarity).

Can insert into membranes and form chloride ion channels. Channel activity depends on the pH. Membrane insertion seems to be redox-regulated and may occur only under oxydizing conditions. Involved in regulation of the cell cycle.

Can insert into membranes and form chloride ion channels. Channel activity depends on the pH. Membrane insertion seems to be redox-regulated and may occur only under oxydizing conditions. Modulates the activity of RYR2 and inhibits calcium influx.

Can insert into membranes and form chloride ion channels. May participate in cellular growth control.

Can insert into membranes and form poorly selective ion channels that may also transport chloride ions. Channel activity depends on the pH. Membrane insertion seems to be redox-regulated and may occur only under oxydizing conditions. Promotes cell-surface expression of HRH3. Has alternate cellular functions like a potential role in angiogenesis or in maintaining apical-basolateral membrane polarity during mitosis and cytokinesis. Could also promote endothelial cell proliferation and regulate endothelial morphogenesis (tubulogenesis).

Required for normal hearing. It is necessary for the formation of stereocilia in the inner ear and normal development of the organ of Corti (By similarity). Can insert into membranes and form poorly selective ion channels that may also transport chloride ions. May play a role in the regulation of transepithelial ion absorption and secretion. Is required for the development and/or maintenance of the proper glomerular endothelial cell and podocyte architecture. Plays a role in formation of the lens suture in the eye, which is important for normal optical properties of the lens (By similarity).

May insert into membranes and form chloride ion channels. May play a critical role in water-secreting cells, possibly through the regulation of chloride ion transport (By similarity).

Binds to the plus end of microtubules and regulates the dynamics of the microtubule cytoskeleton. Promotes microtubule growth and microtubule bundling. Links cytoplasmic vesicles to microtubules and thereby plays an important role in intracellular vesicle trafficking. Plays a role macropinocytosis and endosome trafficking.

Seems to link microtubules to dendritic lamellar body (DLB), a membranous organelle predominantly present in bulbous dendritic appendages of neurons linked by dendrodendritic gap junctions. May operate in the control of brain-specific organelle translocations (By similarity).

Functions as a cytoplasmic linker protein. Involved in TGN- endosome dynamics. May modulate the cellular compartmentalization of AKT kinase family and promote its cell membrane localization, thereby playing a role in glucose transport in adipocytes.

Dual specificity kinase acting on both serine/threonine and tyrosine-containing substrates. Phosphorylates serine- and arginine- rich (SR) proteins of the spliceosomal complex and may be a constituent of a network of regulatory mechanisms that enable SR proteins to control RNA splicing. Phosphorylates: SRSF1, SRSF3 and PTPN1. Regulates the alternative splicing of tissue factor (F3) pre-mRNA in endothelial cells and adenovirus E1A pre-mRNA.

Dual specificity kinase acting on both serine/threonine and tyrosine-containing substrates. Phosphorylates serine- and arginine- rich (SR) proteins of the spliceosomal complex. May be a constituent of a network of regulatory mechanisms that enable SR proteins to control RNA splicing and can cause redistribution of SR proteins from speckles to a diffuse nucleoplasmic distribution. Acts as a suppressor of hepatic gluconeogenesis and glucose output by repressing PPARGC1A transcriptional activity on gluconeogenic genes via its phosphorylation. Phosphorylates PPP2R5B thereby stimulating the assembly of PP2A phosphatase with the PPP2R5B-AKT1 complex leading to dephosphorylation of AKT1. Phosphorylates: PTPN1, SRSF1 and SRSF3. Regulates the alternative splicing of tissue factor (F3) pre-mRNA in endothelial cells. Phosphorylates PAGE4 at several serine and threonine residues and this phosphorylation attenuates the ability of PAGE4 to potentiate the transcriptional activator activity of JUN.

Dual specificity kinase acting on both serine/threonine and tyrosine-containing substrates. Phosphorylates serine- and arginine- rich (SR) proteins of the spliceosomal complex. May be a constituent of a network of regulatory mechanisms that enable SR proteins to control RNA splicing and can cause redistribution of SR proteins from speckles to a diffuse nucleoplasmic distribution. Phosphorylates SRSF1 and SRSF3. Regulates the alternative splicing of tissue factor (F3) pre- mRNA in endothelial cells.

Dual specificity kinase acting on both serine/threonine and tyrosine-containing substrates. Phosphorylates serine- and arginine- rich (SR) proteins of the spliceosomal complex and may be a constituent of a network of regulatory mechanisms that enable SR proteins to control RNA splicing. Phosphorylates SRSF1 and SRSF3. Required for the regulation of alternative splicing of MAPT/TAU. Regulates the alternative splicing of tissue factor (F3) pre-mRNA in endothelial cells.

Acts as an inhibitory receptor for myeloid cells and mast cells. Positively regulates the phagocytosis of apoptotic cells (efferocytosis) via phosphatidylserine (PS) recognition; recognizes and binds PS as a ligand which is expressed on the surface of apoptotic cells. Plays an important role in the maintenance of immune homeostasis, by promoting macrophage-mediated efferocytosis and by inhibiting dendritic cell-mediated efferocytosis (By similarity). Negatively regulates Fc epsilon receptor-dependent mast cell activation and allergic responses via binding to ceramide and sphingomyelin which act as ligands. May act as a coreceptor for interleukin 4 (IL-4). Associates with and regulates IL-4 receptor alpha-mediated responses by augmenting IL-4- and IL-13-induced signaling (By similarity). Negatively regulates the Toll-like receptor (TLR) signaling mediated by MYD88 and TRIF through activation of PTPN6/SHP-1 and PTPN11/SHP-2. Inhibits osteoclast formation. Induces macrophage cell death upon engagement (By similarity).

Acts as an activating immune receptor through its interaction with ITAM-bearing adapter TYROBP, and also independently by recruitment of GRB2.

Inhibitory receptor which may contribute to the down- regulation of cytolytic activity in natural killer (NK) cells, and to the down-regulation of mast cell degranulation. Negatively regulates the Toll-like receptor (TLR) signaling mediated by MYD88 but not TRIF through activation of PTPN6.

Receptor which may mediate L-selectin-dependent lymphocyte rollings. Binds SELL in a calcium dependent manner. Binds lymphocyte (By similarity).

May be involved in the cell-cell adhesion. May play a role in adipocyte differentiation and development of obesity. Is required for normal small intestine development.

Mediates microtubule-dependent, anterograde transport connecting the Golgi network, endosomes, autophagosomes, lysosomes and plasma membrane, and participates in several cellular processes such as regulation of lysosomal pH, lysosome protein degradation, receptor- mediated endocytosis, autophagy, transport of proteins and lipids from the TGN, apoptosis and synaptic transmission. Facilitates the proteins transport from trans-Golgi network (TGN)-to other membrane compartments such as transport of microdomain-associated proteins to the plasma membrane, IGF2R transport to the lysosome where it regulates the CTSD release leading to regulation of CTSD maturation and thereby APP intracellular processing. Moreover regulates CTSD activity in response to osmotic stress. Also binds galactosylceramide and transports it from the trans Golgi to the rafts, which may have immediate and downstream effects on cell survival by modulating ceramide synthesis. At the plasma membrane, regulates actin-dependent events including filopodia formation, cell migration, and pinocytosis through ARF1-CDC42 pathway and also the cytoskeleton organization through interaction with MYH10 and fodrin leading to the regulation of the plasma membrane association of Na+, K+ ATPase complex. Regulates synaptic transmission in the amygdala, hippocampus, and cerebellum through regulation of synaptic vesicles density and their proximity to active zones leading to modulation of short-term plasticity and age-dependent anxious behavior, learning and memory (By similarity). Regulates autophagic vacuoles (AVs) maturation by modulating the trafficking between endocytic and autophagolysosomal/lysosomal compartments, which involves vesicle fusion leading to regulation of degradation process (By similarity). Participates also in cellular homeostasis of compounds such as, water, ions, amino acids, proteins and lipids in several tissue namely in brain and kidney through regulation of their transport and synthesis.

Plays a role in influencing the retrograde trafficking of lysosomal sorting receptors SORT1 and IGF2R from the endosomes to the trans-Golgi network by controlling the recruitment of retromer complex to the endosomal membrane. Regulates the localization and activation of RAB7A which is required to recruit the retromer complex to the endosomal membrane.

Could play a role in cell proliferation during neuronal differentiation and in protection against cell death.

An adapter protein which plays a role in the regulation of immunoreceptor signaling, including PLC-gamma-mediated B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling and FC-epsilon R1-mediated mast cell degranulation (By similarity). Together with FGR, it acts as a negative regulator of natural killer cell-activating receptors and inhibits interferon-gamma production (By similarity). Acts as a positive regulator of both T-cell receptor and natural killer T (NKT) cell receptor signaling in CD4-positive NKT cells (By similarity). Together with MAP4K1, it enhances CD3-triggered activation of T-cells and subsequent IL2 production (By similarity). May be involved in tumor necrosis factor induced cell death by promoting reactive oxidative species generation, and MLKL oligomerization, ultimately leading to necrosis (By similarity). Involved in phosphorylation of LAT (By similarity). May be involved in high affinity immunoglobulin epsilon receptor signaling in mast cells (By similarity).

Transcriptional activator which forms a core component of the circadian clock. The circadian clock, an internal time-keeping system, regulates various physiological processes through the generation of approximately 24 hour circadian rhythms in gene expression, which are translated into rhythms in metabolism and behavior. It is derived from the Latin roots 'circa' (about) and 'diem' (day) and acts as an important regulator of a wide array of physiological functions including metabolism, sleep, body temperature, blood pressure, endocrine, immune, cardiovascular, and renal function. Consists of two major components: the central clock, residing in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the brain, and the peripheral clocks that are present in nearly every tissue and organ system. Both the central and peripheral clocks can be reset by environmental cues, also known as Zeitgebers (German for 'timegivers'). The predominant Zeitgeber for the central clock is light, which is sensed by retina and signals directly to the SCN. The central clock entrains the peripheral clocks through neuronal and hormonal signals, body temperature and feeding-related cues, aligning all clocks with the external light/dark cycle. Circadian rhythms allow an organism to achieve temporal homeostasis with its environment at the molecular level by regulating gene expression to create a peak of protein expression once every 24 hours to control when a particular physiological process is most active with respect to the solar day. Transcription and translation of core clock components (CLOCK, NPAS2, BMAL1, BMAL2, PER1, PER2, PER3, CRY1 and CRY2) plays a critical role in rhythm generation, whereas delays imposed by post- translational modifications (PTMs) are important for determining the period (tau) of the rhythms (tau refers to the period of a rhythm and is the length, in time, of one complete cycle). A diurnal rhythm is synchronized with the day/night cycle, while the ultradian and infradian rhythms have a period shorter and longer than 24 hours, respectively. Disruptions in the circadian rhythms contribute to the pathology of cardiovascular diseases, cancer, metabolic syndromes and aging. A transcription/translation feedback loop (TTFL) forms the core of the molecular circadian clock mechanism. Transcription factors, CLOCK or NPAS2 and BMAL1 or BMAL2, form the positive limb of the feedback loop, act in the form of a heterodimer and activate the transcription of core clock genes and clock-controlled genes (involved in key metabolic processes), harboring E-box elements (5'-CACGTG-3') within their promoters. The core clock genes: PER1/2/3 and CRY1/2 which are transcriptional repressors form the negative limb of the feedback loop and interact with the CLOCK|NPAS2-BMAL1|BMAL2 heterodimer inhibiting its activity and thereby negatively regulating their own expression. This heterodimer also activates nuclear receptors NR1D1/2 and RORA/B/G, which form a second feedback loop and which activate and repress BMAL1 transcription, respectively. Regulates the circadian expression of ICAM1, VCAM1, CCL2, THPO and MPL and also acts as an enhancer of the transactivation potential of NF-kappaB. Plays an important role in the homeostatic regulation of sleep. The CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer regulates the circadian expression of SERPINE1/PAI1, VWF, B3, CCRN4L/NOC, NAMPT, DBP, MYOD1, PPARGC1A, PPARGC1B, SIRT1, GYS2, F7, NGFR, GNRHR, BHLHE40/DEC1, ATF4, MTA1, KLF10 and also genes implicated in glucose and lipid metabolism. Promotes rhythmic chromatin opening, regulating the DNA accessibility of other transcription factors. The CLOCK-BMAL2 heterodimer activates the transcription of SERPINE1/PAI1 and BHLHE40/DEC1. The preferred binding motif for the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer is 5'-CACGTGA-3', which contains a flanking Ala residue in addition to the canonical 6-nucleotide E-box sequence. CLOCK specifically binds to the half-site 5'-CAC-3', while BMAL1 binds to the half-site 5'-GTGA-3'. The CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer also recognizes the non-canonical E-box motifs 5'-AACGTGA-3' and 5'-CATGTGA-3'. CLOCK has an intrinsic acetyltransferase activity, which enables circadian chromatin remodeling by acetylating histones and nonhistone proteins, including its own partner BMAL1. Represses glucocorticoid receptor NR3C1/GR- induced transcriptional activity by reducing the association of NR3C1/GR to glucocorticoid response elements (GREs) via the acetylation of multiple lysine residues located in its hinge region. The acetyltransferase activity of CLOCK is as important as its transcription activity in circadian control. Acetylates metabolic enzymes IMPDH2 and NDUFA9 in a circadian manner. Facilitated by BMAL1, rhythmically interacts and acetylates argininosuccinate synthase 1 (ASS1) leading to enzymatic inhibition of ASS1 as well as the circadian oscillation of arginine biosynthesis and subsequent ureagenesis. Drives the circadian rhythm of blood pressure through transcriptional activation of ATP1B1 (By similarity).

Scramblase that mediates the translocation of glucosaminylphosphatidylinositol (alpha-D-GlcN-(1-6)-(1,2-diacyl-sn- glycero-3-phospho)-1D-myo-inositol, GlcN-PI) across the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane, from the cytosolic leaflet to the luminal leaflet of the ER membrane, where it participates in the biosynthesis of glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI). GPI is a lipid glycoconjugate involved in post-translational modification of proteins. Can also translocate 1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero-3- phospho-(1D-myo-inositol) (phosphatidylinositol or PI), as well as several other phospholipids (1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine, 1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphoethanolamine), and N- acetylglucosaminylphosphatidylinositol (GlcNAc-PI) in vitro.

Polynucleotide kinase that can phosphorylate the 5'-hydroxyl groups of double-stranded RNA (dsRNA), single-stranded RNA (ssRNA), double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) and double-stranded DNA:RNA hybrids. dsRNA is phosphorylated more efficiently than dsDNA, and the RNA component of a DNA:RNA hybrid is phosphorylated more efficiently than the DNA component. Plays a key role in both tRNA splicing and mRNA 3'-end formation. Component of the tRNA splicing endonuclease complex: phosphorylates the 5'-terminus of the tRNA 3'-exon during tRNA splicing; this phosphorylation event is a prerequisite for the subsequent ligation of the two exon halves and the production of a mature tRNA. Its role in tRNA splicing and maturation is required for cerebellar development. Component of the pre-mRNA cleavage complex II (CF-II), which seems to be required for mRNA 3'-end formation. Also phosphorylates the 5'-terminus of exogenously introduced short interfering RNAs (siRNAs), which is a necessary prerequisite for their incorporation into the RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC). However, endogenous siRNAs and microRNAs (miRNAs) that are produced by the cleavage of dsRNA precursors by DICER1 already contain a 5'-phosphate group, so this protein may be dispensible for normal RNA-mediated gene silencing.

Functions as a regulatory ATPase and participates in secretion/protein trafficking process. Involved in mitochondrial- mediated antiviral innate immunity, activates RIG-I-mediated signal transduction and production of IFNB1 and pro-inflammatory cytokine IL6. Has ATP-dependent protein disaggregase activity and is required to maintain the solubility of key mitochondrial proteins. Plays a role in granulocyte differentiation.

Protease component of the Clp complex that cleaves peptides and various proteins in an ATP-dependent process. Has low peptidase activity in the absence of CLPX. The Clp complex can degrade CSN1S1, CSN2 and CSN3, as well as synthetic peptides (in vitro) and may be responsible for a fairly general and central housekeeping function rather than for the degradation of specific substrates. Cleaves PINK1 in the mitochondrion.

Involved in GABAergic but not glutamatergic transmission. Binds and traps GABAA receptors in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Modulates postsynaptic GABAergic transmission, and therefore inhibitory neurotransmission, by reducing the plasma membrane expression of these receptors. Altered GABAergic signaling is one among many causes of cleft palate (By similarity). Might function as a lipid scramblase, translocating lipids in membranes from one leaflet to the other one (By similarity). Required for efficient glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI) inositol deacylation in the ER, which is a crucial step to switch GPI- anchored proteins (GPI-APs) from protein folding to transport states. May play a role in T-cell development (By similarity).

ATP-dependent specificity component of the Clp protease complex. Hydrolyzes ATP. Targets specific substrates for degradation by the Clp complex. Can perform chaperone functions in the absence of CLPP. Enhances the DNA-binding activity of TFAM and is required for maintaining a normal mitochondrial nucleoid structure. ATP-dependent unfoldase that stimulates the incorporation of the pyridoxal phosphate cofactor into 5-aminolevulinate synthase, thereby activating 5- aminolevulinate (ALA) synthesis, the first step in heme biosynthesis. Important for efficient erythropoiesis through up- regulation of heme biosynthesis.

May have a role in the excitatory ribbon synapse junctions between hair cells and cochlear ganglion cells and presumably also in analogous synapses within the retina.

Plays a key role to hearing function. Required for normal organization and maintenance of the stereocilia bundle and for mechano- electrical transduction.

Required for checkpoint mediated cell cycle arrest in response to inhibition of DNA replication or to DNA damage induced by both ionizing and UV irradiation. Adapter protein which binds to BRCA1 and the checkpoint kinase CHEK1 and facilitates the ATR-dependent phosphorylation of both proteins. Also required to maintain normal rates of replication fork progression during unperturbed DNA replication. Binds directly to DNA, with particular affinity for branched or forked molecules and interacts with multiple protein components of the replisome such as the MCM2-7 complex and TIMELESS. Important for initiation of DNA replication, recruits kinase CDC7 to phosphorylate MCM2-7 components.

Receptor for cysteinyl leukotrienes mediating bronchoconstriction of individuals with and without asthma. Stimulation by LTD4 results in the contraction and proliferation of smooth muscle, edema, eosinophil migration and damage to the mucus layer in the lung. This response is mediated via a G-protein that activates a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. The rank order of affinities for the leukotrienes is LTD4 >> LTE4 = LTC4 >> LTB4

Receptor for cysteinyl leukotrienes. The response is mediated via a G-protein that activates a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. Stimulation by BAY u9773, a partial agonist, induces specific contractions of pulmonary veins and might also have an indirect role in the relaxation of the pulmonary vascular endothelium. The rank order of affinities for the leukotrienes is LTC4 = LTD4 >> LTE4

Plays an important role in amino acid transport by acting as binding partner of amino acid transporters SLC6A18 and SLC6A19, regulating their trafficking on the cell surface and their amino acid transporter activity (By similarity). May also play a role in trafficking of amino acid transporters SLC3A1 and SLC7A9 to the renal cortical cell membrane (By similarity). Regulator of SNARE complex function. Stimulator of beta cell replication.

Required for cilia biogenesis. Appears to function within the multiple intraflagellar transport complex B (IFT-B). Key regulator of hedgehog signaling.

[Isoform 1]: Functions as extracellular chaperone that prevents aggregation of non native proteins. Prevents stress-induced aggregation of blood plasma proteins. Inhibits formation of amyloid fibrils by APP, APOC2, B2M, CALCA, CSN3, SNCA and aggregation-prone LYZ variants (in vitro). Does not require ATP. Maintains partially unfolded proteins in a state appropriate for subsequent refolding by other chaperones, such as HSPA8/HSC70. Does not refold proteins by itself. Binding to cell surface receptors triggers internalization of the chaperone-client complex and subsequent lysosomal or proteasomal degradation. Protects cells against apoptosis and against cytolysis by complement. Intracellular forms interact with ubiquitin and SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes and promote the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Promotes proteasomal degradation of COMMD1 and IKBKB. Modulates NF-kappa-B transcriptional activity. A mitochondrial form suppresses BAX- dependent release of cytochrome c into the cytoplasm and inhibit apoptosis. Plays a role in the regulation of cell proliferation. An intracellular form suppresses stress-induced apoptosis by stabilizing mitochondrial membrane integrity through interaction with HSPA5. Secreted form does not affect caspase or BAX-mediated intrinsic apoptosis and TNF-induced NF-kappa-B-activity. Secreted form act as an important modulator during neuronal differentiation through interaction with STMN3 (By similarity). Plays a role in the clearance of immune complexes that arise during cell injury (By similarity).

Required for normal morphology of late endosomes and/or lysosomes in neurons (By similarity). Binds phosphatidylinositol 3,5- bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,5)P2).

Component of the outer dynein arm-docking complex (ODA-DC) that mediates outer dynein arms (ODA) binding onto the doublet microtubule. Seems to regulate the assembly of both ODAs and their axonemal docking complex onto ciliary microtubules (By similarity). Regulates ciliary and flagellar motility and is required for cilia- driven determination of body laterality (By similarity).

Mitochondrial citramalyl-CoA lyase indirectly involved in the vitamin B12 metabolism. Converts citramalyl-CoA into acetyl-CoA and pyruvate in the C5-dicarboxylate catabolism pathway. The C5-dicarboxylate catabolism pathway is required to detoxify itaconate, a vitamin B12-poisoning metabolite. Also acts as a malate synthase in vitro, converting glyoxylate and acetyl-CoA to malate. Also displays malyl-CoA thioesterase activity. Also acts as a beta-methylmalate synthase in vitro, by mediating conversion of glyoxylate and propionyl-CoA to beta-methylmalate. Also has very weak citramalate synthase activity in vitro.

Major secreted protease of mast cells with suspected roles in vasoactive peptide generation, extracellular matrix degradation, and regulation of gland secretion

Cysteine hydrolase. Can convert the prodrug olmesartan medoxomil into its pharmacologically active metabolite olmerstatan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, in liver and intestine. May also activate beta-lactam antibiotics faropenem medoxomil and lenampicillin.

[Pancreastatin]: Strongly inhibits glucose induced insulin release from the pancreas

Plays a role in T-cell signaling pathway. Isoform 2 may play a role in T-helper 2 (Th2) signaling pathway and seems to represent the first proximal signaling protein that links T-cell receptor-mediated signal to the activation of c-Maf Th2 specific factor.

Receptor for the chemoattractant adipokine chemerin/RARRES2 and for the omega-3 fatty acid derived molecule resolvin E1. Interaction with RARRES2 initiates activation of G proteins G(i)/G(o) and beta-arrestin pathways inducing cellular responses via second messenger pathways such as intracellular calcium mobilization, phosphorylation of MAP kinases MAPK1/MAPK3 (ERK1/2), TYRO3, MAPK14/P38MAPK and PI3K leading to multifunctional effects, like, reduction of immune responses, enhancing of adipogenesis and angionesis PubMed:27716822. Resolvin E1 down-regulates cytokine production in macrophages by reducing the activation of MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2) and NF- kappa-B. Positively regulates adipogenesis and adipocyte metabolism.

Receptor for chemoattractant adipokine chemerin/RARRES2 suggesting a role for this receptor in the regulation of inflammation and energy homesotasis. Signals mainly via beta-arrestin pathway. Binding of RARRES2 activates weakly G proteins, calcium mobilization and MAPK1/MAPK3 (ERK1/2) phosphorylation too. Acts also as a receptor for TAFA1, mediates its effects on neuronal stem-cell proliferation and differentiation via the activation of ROCK/ERK and ROCK/STAT3 signaling pathway (By similarity).

May participate in dUTP and dCTP synthesis in mitochondria. Is able to phosphorylate dUMP, dCMP, CMP, UMP and monophosphates of the pyrimidine nucleoside analogs ddC, dFdC, araC, BVDU and FdUrd with ATP as phosphate donor. Efficacy is highest for dUMP followed by dCMP; CMP and UMP are poor substrates. May be involved in mtDNA depletion caused by long term treatment with ddC or other pyrimidine analogs. Also displays broad nucleoside diphosphate kinase activity.

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that mediates mRNA cap1 2'-O-ribose methylation to the 5'-cap structure of mRNAs. Methylates the ribose of the first nucleotide of a m(7)GpppG- capped mRNA and small nuclear RNA (snRNA) to produce m(7)GpppRm (cap1). Displays a preference for cap0 transcripts. Cap1 modification is linked to higher levels of translation. May be involved in the interferon response pathway.

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that mediates mRNA cap2 2'-O-ribose methylation to the 5'-cap structure of mRNAs. Methylates the ribose of the second nucleotide of a m(7)GpppG- capped mRNA and small nuclear RNA (snRNA) (cap0) to produce m(7)GpppRmpNm (cap2). Recognizes a guanosine cap on RNA independently of its N(7) methylation status. Display cap2 methylation on both cap0 and cap1. Displays a preference for cap1 RNAs.

May serve as an anchoring protein that mediates the subcellular compartmentation of protein kinase A (PKA) via binding to PRKAR2A (By similarity). May function as a repressor of calcineurin- mediated transcriptional activity. May attenuate calcineurin ability to induce slow-fiber gene program in muscle and may negatively modulate skeletal muscle regeneration (By similarity). Plays a role in the assembly of ryanodine receptor (RYR2) clusters in striated muscle (By similarity).

Catalyzes the formation of 2'-nucleotide products from 2',3'- cyclic substrates (By similarity). May participate in RNA metabolism in the myelinating cell, CNP is the third most abundant protein in central nervous system myelin (By similarity).

Essential for male fertility. Plays an important role in spermatogenesis and regulates sperm motility by controlling the development of the flagellar bending of sperm.

Prevents the interaction between CTNNB1 and TCF family members, and acts as negative regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway.

Single-stranded DNA-binding protein that preferentially binds to the sterol regulatory element (SRE) sequence 5'-GTGCGGTG-3', and thereby mediates transcriptional repression. Has a role as transactivator of the Myc promoter (By similarity). Binds single-stranded RNA in a sequence-specific manner (By similarity).

Participates in processes of transmission and amplification of the visual signal. cGMP-PDEs are the effector molecules in G- protein-mediated phototransduction in vertebrate rods and cones

Regulatory subunit of the condensin complex, a complex required for conversion of interphase chromatin into mitotic-like condense chromosomes. The condensin complex probably introduces positive supercoils into relaxed DNA in the presence of type I topoisomerases and converts nicked DNA into positive knotted forms in the presence of type II topoisomerases. May target the condensin complex to DNA via its C-terminal domain. May promote the resolution of double-strand DNA catenanes (intertwines) between sister chromatids. Condensin-mediated compaction likely increases tension in catenated sister chromatids, providing directionality for type II topoisomerase-mediated strand exchanges toward chromatid decatenation. Required for decatenation of non-centromeric ultrafine DNA bridges during anaphase. Early in neurogenesis, may play an essential role to ensure accurate mitotic chromosome condensation in neuron stem cells, ultimately affecting neuron pool and cortex size.

Regulatory subunit of the condensin complex, a complex required for conversion of interphase chromatin into mitotic-like condense chromosomes. The condensin complex probably introduces positive supercoils into relaxed DNA in the presence of type I topoisomerases and converts nicked DNA into positive knotted forms in the presence of type II topoisomerases. Early in neurogenesis, may play an essential role to ensure accurate mitotic chromosome condensation in neuron stem cells, ultimately affecting neuron pool and cortex size.

Regulatory subunit of the condensin complex, a complex required for conversion of interphase chromatin into mitotic-like condense chromosomes. The condensin complex probably introduces positive supercoils into relaxed DNA in the presence of type I topoisomerases and converts nicked DNA into positive knotted forms in the presence of type II topoisomerases.

Regulatory subunit of the condensin-2 complex, a complex which establishes mitotic chromosome architecture and is involved in physical rigidity of the chromatid axis. May promote the resolution of double-strand DNA catenanes (intertwines) between sister chromatids. Condensin-mediated compaction likely increases tension in catenated sister chromatids, providing directionality for type II topoisomerase-mediated strand exchanges toward chromatid decatenation. Specifically required for decatenation of centromeric ultrafine DNA bridges during anaphase. Early in neurogenesis, may play an essential role to ensure accurate mitotic chromosome condensation in neuron stem cells, ultimately affecting neuron pool and cortex size.

Regulatory subunit of the condensin-2 complex, a complex which establishes mitotic chromosome architecture and is involved in physical rigidity of the chromatid axis.

Regulatory subunit of the condensin-2 complex, a complex that seems to provide chromosomes with an additional level of organization and rigidity and in establishing mitotic chromosome architecture. May promote the resolution of double-strand DNA catenanes (intertwines) between sister chromatids. Condensin-mediated compaction likely increases tension in catenated sister chromatids, providing directionality for type II topoisomerase-mediated strand exchanges toward chromatid decatenation. Required for decatenation of chromatin bridges at anaphase. Early in neurogenesis, may play an essential role to ensure accurate mitotic chromosome condensation in neuron stem cells, ultimately affecting neuron pool and cortex size (By similarity). Seems to have lineage-specific role in T-cell development.

Catalyzes the peptide bond hydrolysis in Xaa-His dipeptides, displaying the highest activity toward carnosine (beta-alanyl-L- histidine) and anserine (beta-alanyl-3-methyl-histidine).

Catalyzes the peptide bond hydrolysis in dipeptides, displaying a non-redundant activity toward threonyl dipeptides (By similarity). Mediates threonyl dipeptide catabolism in a tissue- specific way (By similarity). Has high dipeptidase activity toward cysteinylglycine, an intermediate metabolite in glutathione metabolism. Metabolizes N-lactoyl-amino acids, both through hydrolysis to form lactic acid and amino acids, as well as through their formation by reverse proteolysis. Plays a role in the regulation of cell cycle arrest and apoptosis.

Serine/threonine protein phosphatase forming with CNEP1R1 an active phosphatase complex that dephosphorylates and may activate LPIN1 and LPIN2. LPIN1 and LPIN2 are phosphatidate phosphatases that catalyze the conversion of phosphatidic acid to diacylglycerol and control the metabolism of fatty acids at different levels. May indirectly modulate the lipid composition of nuclear and/or endoplasmic reticulum membranes and be required for proper nuclear membrane morphology and/or dynamics. May also indirectly regulate the production of lipid droplets and triacylglycerol. May antagonize BMP signaling.

Part of the insoluble cornified cell envelope (CE) of stratified squamous epithelia.

Subunit of the rod cyclic GMP-gated cation channel, which is involved in the final stage of the phototransduction pathway. When light hits rod photoreceptors, cGMP concentrations decrease causing rapid closure of CNGA1/CNGB1 channels and, therefore, hyperpolarization of the membrane potential.

Odorant signal transduction is probably mediated by a G- protein coupled cascade using cAMP as second messenger. The olfactory channel can be shown to be activated by cyclic nucleotides which leads to a depolarization of olfactory sensory neurons

Visual signal transduction is mediated by a G-protein coupled cascade using cGMP as second messenger. This protein can be activated by cyclic GMP which leads to an opening of the cation channel and thereby causing a depolarization of cone photoreceptors. Induced a flickering channel gating, weakened the outward rectification in the presence of extracellular calcium, increased sensitivity for L-cis diltiazem and enhanced the cAMP efficacy of the channel when coexpressed with CNGB3 (By similarity). Essential for the generation of light-evoked electrical responses in the red-, green- and blue sensitive cones.

Second messenger, cAMP, causes the opening of cation- selective cyclic nucleotide-gated (CNG) channels and depolarization of the neuron (olfactory sensory neurons, OSNs). CNGA4 is the modulatory subunit of this channel which is known to play a central role in the transduction of odorant signals and subsequent adaptation. By accelerating the calcium-mediated negative feedback in olfactory signaling it allows rapid adaptation to odor stimulation and extends its range of odor detection (By similarity).

Subunit of cyclic nucleotide-gated (CNG) channels, nonselective cation channels, which play important roles in both visual and olfactory signal transduction. When associated with CNGA1, it is involved in the regulation of ion flow into the rod photoreceptor outer segment (ROS), in response to light-induced alteration of the levels of intracellular cGMP

Visual signal transduction is mediated by a G-protein coupled cascade using cGMP as second messenger. This protein can be activated by cGMP which leads to an opening of the cation channel and thereby causing a depolarization of rod photoreceptors. Induced a flickering channel gating, weakened the outward rectification in the presence of extracellular calcium, increased sensitivity for L-cis diltiazem and enhanced the cAMP efficiency of the channel when coexpressed with CNGA3 (By similarity). Essential for the generation of light-evoked electrical responses in the red-, green- and blue sensitive cones.

Involved in the selective transport and maturation of TGF- alpha family proteins.

Regulates the trafficking and gating properties of AMPA- selective glutamate receptors (AMPARs). Promotes their targeting to the cell membrane and synapses and modulates their gating properties by regulating their rates of activation, deactivation and desensitization. Blocks CACNG8-mediated resensitization of AMPA receptors.

Regulates the trafficking and gating properties of AMPA- selective glutamate receptors (AMPARs). Promotes their targeting to the cell membrane and synapses and modulates their gating properties by regulating their rates of activation, deactivation and desensitization.

Involved in G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) trafficking from the endoplasmic reticulum to the cell surface; it promotes the exit of GPCRs from the early secretory pathway, likely through interaction with the COPII machinery.

May function as an adapter protein or regulator of Ras signaling pathways

May function as an adapter protein or regulator of Ras signaling pathways.

Involved in transepithelial sodium transport. Regulates aldosterone-induced and epithelial sodium channel (ENaC)-mediated sodium transport through regulation of ENaC cell surface expression. Acts as a scaffold protein coordinating the assembly of an ENaC- regulatory complex (ERC).

Bifunctional growth regulator that stimulates the growth of cultured chondrocytes in the presence of basic fibroblast growth factor (FGF) but inhibits the growth of cultured vascular endothelial cells. May contribute to the rapid growth of cartilage and vascular invasion prior to the replacement of cartilage by bone during endochondral bone development. Inhibits in vitro tube formation and mobilization of endothelial cells. Plays a role as antiangiogenic factor in cardiac valves to suppress neovascularization.

Thin filament-associated protein that is implicated in the regulation and modulation of smooth muscle contraction. It is capable of binding to actin, calmodulin and tropomyosin. The interaction of calponin with actin inhibits the actomyosin Mg-ATPase activity (By similarity).

Thin filament-associated protein that is implicated in the regulation and modulation of smooth muscle contraction. It is capable of binding to actin, calmodulin and tropomyosin. The interaction of calponin with actin inhibits the actomyosin Mg-ATPase activity

Divalent metal cation transporter. Mediates transport of divalent metal cations in an order of Mg(2+) > Co(2+) > Mn(2+) > Sr(2+) > Ba(2+) > Cu(2+) > Fe(2+) (By similarity).

Probable metal transporter. The interaction with the metal ion chaperone COX11 suggests that it may play a role in sensory neuron functions (By similarity). May play a role in biomineralization and retinal function.

Component of the CCR4-NOT complex which is one of the major cellular mRNA deadenylases and is linked to various cellular processes including bulk mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational repression during translational initiation and general transcription regulation. Additional complex functions may be a consequence of its influence on mRNA expression. Is not required for association of CNOT7 to the CCR4-NOT complex.

Component of the CCR4-NOT complex which is one of the major cellular mRNA deadenylases and is linked to various cellular processes including bulk mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational repression during translational initiation and general transcription regulation. Additional complex functions may be a consequence of its influence on mRNA expression. Is required for the association of CNOT10 with the CCR4-NOT complex. Seems not to be required for complex deadenylase function

Has 3'-5' poly(A) exoribonuclease activity for synthetic poly(A) RNA substrate. Catalytic component of the CCR4-NOT complex which is one of the major cellular mRNA deadenylases and is linked to various cellular processes including bulk mRNA degradation, miRNA- mediated repression, translational repression during translational initiation and general transcription regulation. Additional complex functions may be a consequence of its influence on mRNA expression. May be involved in the deadenylation-dependent degradation of mRNAs through the 3'-UTR AU-rich element-mediated mechanism. Involved in deadenylation-dependent degradation of CDKN1B mRNA. Its mRNA deadenylase activity can be inhibited by TOB1. Mediates cell proliferation and cell survival and prevents cellular senescence.

Scaffolding component of the CCR4-NOT complex which is one of the major cellular mRNA deadenylases and is linked to various cellular processes including bulk mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational repression during translational initiation and general transcription regulation. Additional complex functions may be a consequence of its influence on mRNA expression. Its scaffolding function implies its interaction with the catalytic complex module and diverse RNA-binding proteins mediating the complex recruitment to selected mRNA 3'UTRs. Involved in degradation of AU-rich element (ARE)- containing mRNAs probably via association with ZFP36. Mediates the recruitment of the CCR4-NOT complex to miRNA targets and to the RISC complex via association with TNRC6A, TNRC6B or TNRC6C. Acts as a transcriptional repressor. Represses the ligand-dependent transcriptional activation by nuclear receptors. Involved in the maintenance of embryonic stem (ES) cell identity.

Component of the CCR4-NOT complex which is one of the major cellular mRNA deadenylases and is linked to various cellular processes including bulk mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational repression during translational initiation and general transcription regulation. Additional complex functions may be a consequence of its influence on mRNA expression. Required for the CCR4- NOT complex structural integrity. Can repress transcription and may link the CCR4-NOT complex to transcriptional regulation; the repressive function may specifically involve the N-Cor repressor complex containing HDAC3, NCOR1 and NCOR2. Involved in the maintenance of embryonic stem (ES) cell identity.

Component of the CCR4-NOT complex which is one of the major cellular mRNA deadenylases and is linked to various cellular processes including bulk mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational repression during translational initiation and general transcription regulation. Additional complex functions may be a consequence of its influence on mRNA expression. May be involved in metabolic regulation; may be involved in recruitment of the CCR4-NOT complex to deadenylation target mRNAs involved in energy metabolism. Involved in mitotic progression and regulation of the spindle assembly checkpoint by regulating the stability of MAD1L1 mRNA. Can repress transcription and may link the CCR4-NOT complex to transcriptional regulation; the repressive function may involve histone deacetylases. Involved in the maintenance of embryonic stem (ES) cell identity.

Has E3 ubiquitin ligase activity, promoting ubiquitination and degradation of target proteins. Involved in activation of the JAK/STAT pathway. Catalyzes ubiquitination of methylated RBM15. Plays a role in quality control of translation of mitochondrial outer membrane-localized mRNA. As part of the PINK1-regulated signaling, upon mitochondria damage, ubiquitinates ABCE1 and thereby recruits autophagy receptors to the mitochondrial outer membrane to initiate mitophagy.

Poly(A) nuclease with 3'-5' RNase activity. Catalytic component of the CCR4-NOT complex which is one of the major cellular mRNA deadenylases and is linked to various cellular processes including bulk mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational repression during translational initiation and general transcription regulation. Additional complex functions may be a consequence of its influence on mRNA expression. Involved in mRNA decay mediated by the major-protein-coding determinant of instability (mCRD) of the FOS gene in the cytoplasm. In the presence of ZNF335, enhances ligand-dependent transcriptional activity of nuclear hormone receptors, including RARA. The increase of ligand-dependent ESR1-mediated transcription is much smaller, if any. Mediates cell proliferation and cell survival and prevents cellular senescence.

Has 3'-5' poly(A) exoribonuclease activity for synthetic poly(A) RNA substrate. Its function seems to be partially redundant with that of CNOT8. Catalytic component of the CCR4-NOT complex which is one of the major cellular mRNA deadenylases and is linked to various cellular processes including bulk mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational repression during translational initiation and general transcription regulation. During miRNA-mediated repression the complex seems also to act as translational repressor during translational initiation. Additional complex functions may be a consequence of its influence on mRNA expression. Associates with members of the BTG family such as TOB1 and BTG2 and is required for their anti-proliferative activity.

Has 3'-5' poly(A) exoribonuclease activity for synthetic poly(A) RNA substrate. Its function seems to be partially redundant with that of CNOT7. Catalytic component of the CCR4-NOT complex which is linked to various cellular processes including bulk mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational repression during translational initiation and general transcription regulation. During miRNA-mediated repression the complex seems also to act as translational repressor during translational initiation. Additional complex functions may be a consequence of its influence on mRNA expression. Associates with members of the BTG family such as TOB1 and BTG2 and is required for their anti-proliferative activity.

Component of the CCR4-NOT complex which is one of the major cellular mRNA deadenylases and is linked to various cellular processes including bulk mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational repression during translational initiation and general transcription regulation. Additional complex functions may be a consequence of its influence on mRNA expression. Involved in down- regulation of MYB- and JUN-dependent transcription. May play a role in cell differentiation (By similarity). Can bind oligonucleotides, such as poly-G, poly-C or poly-T (in vitro), but the physiological relevance of this is not certain. Does not bind poly-A. Enhances ligand-dependent transcriptional activity of nuclear hormone receptors, including RARA, expect ESR1-mediated transcription that is not only slightly increased, if at all.

Positive regulator of neurite outgrowth by stabilizing myosin regulatory light chain (MRLC). It prevents MIR-mediated MRLC ubiquitination and its subsequent proteasomal degradation

Toll-like receptor (TLR)-specific co-chaperone for HSP90B1. Required for proper TLR folding, except that of TLR3, and hence controls TLR exit from the endoplasmic reticulum. Consequently, required for both innate and adaptive immune responses (By similarity).

Plays a role in the regulation of the cell surface expression of TLR4.

G-protein coupled receptor for endogenous cannabinoids (eCBs), including N-arachidonoylethanolamide (also called anandamide or AEA) and 2-arachidonoylglycerol (2-AG), as well as phytocannabinoids, such as delta(9)-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC). Mediates many cannabinoid-induced effects, acting, among others, on food intake, memory loss, gastrointestinal motility, catalepsy, ambulatory activity, anxiety, chronic pain. Signaling typically involves reduction in cyclic AMP. In the hypothalamus, may have a dual effect on mitochondrial respiration depending upon the agonist dose and possibly upon the cell type. Increases respiration at low doses, while decreases respiration at high doses. At high doses, CNR1 signal transduction involves G-protein alpha-i protein activation and subsequent inhibition of mitochondrial soluble adenylate cyclase, decrease in cyclic AMP concentration, inhibition of protein kinase A (PKA)-dependent phosphorylation of specific subunits of the mitochondrial electron transport system, including NDUFS2. In the hypothalamus, inhibits leptin-induced reactive oxygen species (ROS) formation and mediates cannabinoid-induced increase in SREBF1 and FASN gene expression. In response to cannabinoids, drives the release of orexigenic beta-endorphin, but not that of melanocyte-stimulating hormone alpha/alpha-MSH, from hypothalamic POMC neurons, hence promoting food intake. In the hippocampus, regulates cellular respiration and energy production in response to cannabinoids. Involved in cannabinoid-dependent depolarization-induced suppression of inhibition (DSI), a process in which depolarization of CA1 postsynaptic pyramidal neurons mobilizes eCBs, which retrogradely activate presynaptic CB1 receptors, transiently decreasing GABAergic inhibitory neurotransmission. Also reduces excitatory synaptic transmission (By similarity). In superior cervical ganglions and cerebral vascular smooth muscle cells, inhibits voltage-gated Ca(2+) channels in a constitutive, as well as agonist- dependent manner. In cerebral vascular smooth muscle cells, cannabinoid-induced inhibition of voltage-gated Ca(2+) channels leads to vasodilation and decreased vascular tone (By similarity). Induces leptin production in adipocytes and reduces LRP2-mediated leptin clearance in the kidney, hence participating in hyperleptinemia. In adipose tissue, CNR1 signaling leads to increased expression of SREBF1, ACACA and FASN genes (By similarity). In the liver, activation by endocannabinoids leads to increased de novo lipogenesis and reduced fatty acid catabolism, associated with increased expression of SREBF1/SREBP-1, GCK, ACACA, ACACB and FASN genes. May also affect de novo cholesterol synthesis and HDL-cholesteryl ether uptake. Peripherally modulates energy metabolism (By similarity). In high carbohydrate diet-induced obesity, may decrease the expression of mitochondrial dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase/DLD in striated muscles, as well as that of selected glucose/ pyruvate metabolic enzymes, hence affecting energy expenditure through mitochondrial metabolism (By similarity). In response to cannabinoid anandamide, elicits a pro- inflammatory response in macrophages, which involves NLRP3 inflammasome activation and IL1B and IL18 secretion (By similarity). In macrophages infiltrating pancreatic islets, this process may participate in the progression of type-2 diabetes and associated loss of pancreatic beta- cells.

Heterotrimeric G protein-coupled receptor for endocannabinoid 2-arachidonoylglycerol mediating inhibition of adenylate cyclase. May function in inflammatory response, nociceptive transmission and bone homeostasis.

[Isoform 1]: Suppresses cannabinoid receptor CNR1-mediated tonic inhibition of voltage-gated calcium channels.

Plays a role in the different steps of crossover formation during meiotic recombination. Participates in the crossover differentiation step of crossover-specific recombination intermediates through its interaction with PRR19. In addition, stimulates crossover formation through the interactions with RFC3 and RFC4 and simultaneously regulates cell-cycle progression through interactions with CDC34 and subsequent ubiquitination of WEE1. May also participates in an active deselection process that destabilizes or removes excess pre-CO intermediates.

Binds to CNTF. The alpha subunit provides the receptor specificity. Receptor for heterodimeric neurotropic cytokine composed of CLCF1/CLC and CRLF1/CLF-1. Acts as a receptor for the neuroprotective peptide humanin as part of a complex with IL6ST/GP130 and IL27RA/WSX1.

CNTF is a survival factor for various neuronal cell types. Seems to prevent the degeneration of motor axons after axotomy

Required for centrosome cohesion and recruitment of CEP68 to centrosomes.

Contactins mediate cell surface interactions during nervous system development. Involved in the formation of paranodal axo-glial junctions in myelinated peripheral nerves and in the signaling between axons and myelinating glial cells via its association with CNTNAP1. Participates in oligodendrocytes generation by acting as a ligand of NOTCH1. Its association with NOTCH1 promotes NOTCH1 activation through the released notch intracellular domain (NICD) and subsequent translocation to the nucleus. Interaction with TNR induces a repulsion of neurons and an inhibition of neurite outgrowth (By similarity).

In conjunction with another transmembrane protein, CNTNAP2, contributes to the organization of axonal domains at nodes of Ranvier by maintaining voltage-gated potassium channels at the juxtaparanodal region. May be involved in cell adhesion.

Contactins mediate cell surface interactions during nervous system development. Has some neurite outgrowth-promoting activity (By similarity).

Contactins mediate cell surface interactions during nervous system development. Has some neurite outgrowth-promoting activity. May be involved in synaptogenesis

Contactins mediate cell surface interactions during nervous system development. Has some neurite outgrowth-promoting activity in the cerebral cortical neurons but not in hippocampal neurons. Probably involved in neuronal activity in the auditory system (By similarity).

Contactins mediate cell surface interactions during nervous system development. Participates in oligodendrocytes generation by acting as a ligand of NOTCH1. Its association with NOTCH1 promotes NOTCH1 activation through the released notch intracellular domain (NICD) and subsequent translocation to the nucleus. Involved in motor coordination (By similarity).

Required, with CNTNAP2, for radial and longitudinal organization of myelinated axons. Plays a role in the formation of functional distinct domains critical for saltatory conduction of nerve impulses in myelinated nerve fibers. Demarcates the paranodal region of the axo-glial junction. In association with contactin involved in the signaling between axons and myelinating glial cells.

Required for gap junction formation (Probable). Required, with CNTNAP1, for radial and longitudinal organization of myelinated axons. Plays a role in the formation of functional distinct domains critical for saltatory conduction of nerve impulses in myelinated nerve fibers. Demarcates the juxtaparanodal region of the axo-glial junction.

Presynaptic protein involved in both dopaminergic synaptic transmission and GABAergic system, thereby participating in the structural maturation of inhibitory interneuron synapses. Involved in the dopaminergic synaptic transmission by attenuating dopamine release through a presynaptic mechanism. Also participates in the GABAergic system (By similarity).

Required for centriole duplication. Inhibition of centriole duplication leading to defects in cytokinesis.

Involved in cell cycle progression and cytokinesis. During the late steps of cytokinesis, anchors exocyst and SNARE complexes at the midbody, thereby allowing secretory vesicle-mediated abscission.

Type I collagen is a member of group I collagen (fibrillar forming collagen)

Type II collagen is specific for cartilaginous tissues. It is essential for the normal embryonic development of the skeleton, for linear growth and for the ability of cartilage to resist compressive forces

Component C2 which is part of the classical pathway of the complement system is cleaved by activated factor C1 into two fragments: C2b and C2a. C2a, a serine protease, then combines with complement factor C4b to generate the C3 or C5 convertase

Collagen type III occurs in most soft connective tissues along with type I collagen. Involved in regulation of cortical development. Is the major ligand of ADGRG1 in the developing brain and binding to ADGRG1 inhibits neuronal migration and activates the RhoA pathway by coupling ADGRG1 to GNA13 and possibly GNA12

C3 plays a central role in the activation of the complement system. Its processing by C3 convertase is the central reaction in both classical and alternative complement pathways. After activation C3b can bind covalently, via its reactive thioester, to cell surface carbohydrates or immune aggregates

Type IV collagen is the major structural component of glomerular basement membranes (GBM), forming a 'chicken-wire' meshwork together with laminins, proteoglycans and entactin/nidogen.

Type IV collagen is the major structural component of glomerular basement membranes (GBM), forming a 'chicken-wire' meshwork together with laminins, proteoglycans and entactin/nidogen

Non-enzymatic component of C3 and C5 convertases and thus essential for the propagation of the classical complement pathway. Covalently binds to immunoglobulins and immune complexes and enhances the solubilization of immune aggregates and the clearance of IC through CR1 on erythrocytes. C4A isotype is responsible for effective binding to form amide bonds with immune aggregates or protein antigens, while C4B isotype catalyzes the transacylation of the thioester carbonyl group to form ester bonds with carbohydrate antigens

Non-enzymatic component of the C3 and C5 convertases and thus essential for the propagation of the classical complement pathway. Covalently binds to immunoglobulins and immune complexes and enhances the solubilization of immune aggregates and the clearance of IC through CR1 on erythrocytes. C4A isotype is responsible for effective binding to form amide bonds with immune aggregates or protein antigens, while C4B isotype catalyzes the transacylation of the thioester carbonyl group to form ester bonds with carbohydrate antigens

Type V collagen is a member of group I collagen (fibrillar forming collagen). It is a minor connective tissue component of nearly ubiquitous distribution. Type V collagen binds to DNA, heparan sulfate, thrombospondin, heparin, and insulin

Type V collagen is a member of group I collagen (fibrillar forming collagen). It is a minor connective tissue component of nearly ubiquitous distribution. Type V collagen binds to DNA, heparan sulfate, thrombospondin, heparin, and insulin. Type V collagen is a key determinant in the assembly of tissue-specific matrices (By similarity).

Activation of C5 by a C5 convertase initiates the spontaneous assembly of the late complement components, C5-C9, into the membrane attack complex. C5b has a transient binding site for C6. The C5b-C6 complex is the foundation upon which the lytic complex is assembled

Constituent of the membrane attack complex (MAC) that plays a key role in the innate and adaptive immune response by forming pores in the plasma membrane of target cells

Stratified squamous epithelial basement membrane protein that forms anchoring fibrils which may contribute to epithelial basement membrane organization and adherence by interacting with extracellular matrix (ECM) proteins such as type IV collagen

Constituent of the membrane attack complex (MAC) that plays a key role in the innate and adaptive immune response by forming pores in the plasma membrane of target cells. C7 serves as a membrane anchor

Macromolecular component of the subendothelium. Major component of the Descemet's membrane (basement membrane) of corneal endothelial cells. Also a component of the endothelia of blood vessels. Necessary for migration and proliferation of vascular smooth muscle cells and thus, has a potential role in the maintenance of vessel wall integrity and structure, in particular in atherogenesis.

Macromolecular component of the subendothelium. Major component of the Descemet's membrane (basement membrane) of corneal endothelial cells. Also a component of the endothelia of blood vessels. Necessary for migration and proliferation of vascular smooth muscle cells and thus, has a potential role in the maintenance of vessel wall integrity and structure, in particular in atherogenesis (By similarity).

Constituent of the membrane attack complex (MAC) that plays a key role in the innate and adaptive immune response by forming pores in the plasma membrane of target cells. C8A inserts into the target membrane, but does not form pores by itself.

C8 is a constituent of the membrane attack complex. C8 binds to the C5B-7 complex, forming the C5B-8 complex. C5-B8 binds C9 and acts as a catalyst in the polymerization of C9. The gamma subunit seems to be able to bind retinol

Structural component of hyaline cartilage and vitreous of the eye

Constituent of the membrane attack complex (MAC) that plays a key role in the innate and adaptive immune response by forming pores in the plasma membrane of target cells. C9 is the pore-forming subunit of the MAC.

Component of the MITRAC (mitochondrial translation regulation assembly intermediate of cytochrome c oxidase complex) complex, that regulates cytochrome c oxidase assembly. MITRAC complexes regulate both translation of mitochondrial encoded components and assembly of nuclear-encoded components imported in mitochondrion. Required for assembly of mitochondrial respiratory chain complex I and complex IV. As part of the MCIA complex, required for efficient assembly of the mitochondrial complex I.

Core component of the MITRAC (mitochondrial translation regulation assembly intermediate of cytochrome c oxidase complex) complex, that regulates cytochrome c oxidase assembly. MITRAC complexes regulate both translation of mitochondrial encoded components and assembly of nuclear-encoded components imported in mitochondrion. Required for efficient translation of MT-CO1 and mitochondrial respiratory chain complex IV assembly.

Involved in an early step of the mitochondrial complex IV assembly process.

Involved in the maturation of the mitochondrial respiratory chain complex IV subunit MT-CO2/COX2. Thereby, may regulate early steps of complex IV assembly. Mitochondrial respiratory chain complex IV or cytochrome c oxidase is the component of the respiratory chain that catalyzes the transfer of electrons from intermembrane space cytochrome c to molecular oxygen in the matrix and as a consequence contributes to the proton gradient involved in mitochondrial ATP synthesis. May also be required for efficient formation of respiratory supercomplexes comprised of complexes III and IV.

Required for assembly of mitochondrial respiratory chain complex I and complex IV.

Type X collagen is a product of hypertrophic chondrocytes and has been localized to presumptive mineralization zones of hyaline cartilage

Catalyzes the decarboxylation of the cysteine moiety of 4- phosphopantothenoylcysteine to form 4'-phosphopantotheine and this reaction forms part of the biosynthesis of coenzyme A.

Bifunctional enzyme that catalyzes the fourth and fifth sequential steps of CoA biosynthetic pathway. The fourth reaction is catalyzed by the phosphopantetheine adenylyltransferase, coded by the coaD domain; the fifth reaction is catalyzed by the dephospho-CoA kinase, coded by the coaE domain. May act as a point of CoA biosynthesis regulation.

May play an important role in fibrillogenesis by controlling lateral growth of collagen II fibrils

Plays an important role in the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton. Regulates neuron morphogenesis and increases branching of axons and dendrites. Regulates dendrite branching in Purkinje cells (By similarity). Binds to and sequesters actin monomers (G actin). Nucleates actin polymerization by assembling three actin monomers in cross-filament orientation and thereby promotes growth of actin filaments at the barbed end. Can also mediate actin depolymerization at barbed ends and severing of actin filaments. Promotes formation of cell ruffles.

Type XII collagen interacts with type I collagen-containing fibrils, the COL1 domain could be associated with the surface of the fibrils, and the COL2 and NC3 domains may be localized in the perifibrillar matrix.

Plays a role in the control of cell shape and motility in the trabecular meshwork.

Key pioneer transcription factor of B-cell specification and commitment. Recognizes variations of the palindromic sequence 5'-ATTCCCNNGGGAATT-3'. Operates in a transcription factor network to activate B-cell-specific genes and repress genes associated with alternative cell fates. For instance, positively regulates many B- cell specific genes including BCR or CD40 while repressing genes that direct cells into alternative lineages, including GATA3 and TCF7 for the T-cell lineage. In addition to its role during lymphopoiesis, controls the thermogenic gene program in adipocytes during development and in response to environmental cold (By similarity).

Transcription factor that, in osteoblasts, activates the decoy receptor for RANKL, TNFRSF11B, which in turn regulates osteoclast differentiation. Acts in synergy with the Wnt-responsive LEF1/CTNNB1 pathway. Recognizes variations of the palindromic sequence 5'- ATTCCCNNGGGAATT-3' (By similarity).

Transcription factor. Binds to specific sequence motif 5'-CCCNNG[GA]G-3' in regulatory elements of putative target immunoregulatory genes such as NKG7, GZMA, and TBX21. Positively modulates transcription of NKG7. May play a role in regulating FAS/CD95-mediated apoptosis in cytotoxic NK cells and T-cells, probably downstream of interleukin IL2 signaling.

Plays an adhesive role by integrating collagen bundles. It is probably associated with the surface of interstitial collagen fibrils via COL1. The COL2 domain may then serve as a rigid arm which sticks out from the fibril and protrudes the large N-terminal globular domain into the extracellular space, where it might interact with other matrix molecules or cell surface receptors (By similarity).

Binds to F-actin and exhibits pH-sensitive F-actin depolymerizing activity. In conjunction with the subcortical maternal complex (SCMC), plays an essential role for zygotes to progress beyond the first embryonic cell divisions via regulation of actin dynamics. Required for the centralization of the mitotic spindle and symmetric division of zygotes (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization in epithelial cells. Required for the up-regulation of atypical chemokine receptor ACKR2 from endosomal compartment to cell membrane, increasing its efficiency in chemokine uptake and degradation. Required for neural tube morphogenesis and neural crest cell migration (By similarity).

Controls reversibly actin polymerization and depolymerization in a pH-sensitive manner. Its F-actin depolymerization activity is regulated by association with CSPR3. It has the ability to bind G- and F-actin in a 1:1 ratio of cofilin to actin. It is the major component of intranuclear and cytoplasmic actin rods. Required for muscle maintenance. May play a role during the exchange of alpha-actin forms during the early postnatal remodeling of the sarcomere (By similarity).

Structural protein that stabilizes microvessels and muscle cells, both in heart and in skeletal muscle.

Involved in mediating cell attachment and inducing integrin- mediated cellular reactions, such as cell spreading and alterations in cell morphology.

May play a role in the integrity of hemidesmosome and the attachment of basal keratinocytes to the underlying basement membrane

Probably plays a major role in determining the retinal structure as well as in the closure of the neural tube.

Component of nuclear coiled bodies, also known as Cajal bodies or CBs, which are involved in the modification and assembly of nucleoplasmic snRNPs.

May act as a cross-bridge between fibrils and other extracellular matrix molecules. Involved in skeletal myogenesis in the developing esophagus. May play a role in organization of the pericellular matrix or the sphinteric smooth muscle.

Lectin that binds to various sugars: galactose > mannose = fucose > N-acetylglucosamine > N-acetylgalactosamine. Acts as a chemoattractant, probably involved in the regulation of cell migration.

Lectin that plays a role in innate immunity, apoptosis and embryogenesis. Calcium-dependent lectin that binds self and non-self glycoproteins presenting high mannose oligosaccharides with at least one terminal alpha-1,2-linked mannose epitope. Primarily recognizes the terminal disaccharide of the glycan. Also recognizes a subset of fucosylated glycans and lipopolysaccharides. Plays a role in innate immunity through its ability to bind non-self sugars presented by microorganisms and to activate the complement through the recruitment of MAPS1. Also plays a role in apoptosis through its ability to bind in a calcium-independent manner the DNA present at the surface of apoptotic cells and to activate the complement in response to this binding (Probable). Finally, plays a role in development, probably serving as a guidance cue during the migration of neural crest cells and other cell types during embryogenesis.

Scavenger receptor that displays several functions associated with host defense. Promotes binding and phagocytosis of Gram-positive, Gram-negative bacteria and yeast. Mediates the recognition, internalization and degradation of oxidatively modified low density lipoprotein (oxLDL) by vascular endothelial cells. Binds to several carbohydrates including Gal-type ligands, D-galactose, L- and D-fucose, GalNAc, T and Tn antigens in a calcium-dependent manner and internalizes specifically GalNAc in nurse-like cells. Binds also to sialyl Lewis X or a trisaccharide and asialo-orosomucoid (ASOR). May also play a role in the clearance of amyloid-beta in Alzheimer disease.

[Corticotropin]: Stimulates the adrenal glands to release cortisol

Anchors the catalytic subunits of asymmetric AChE to the synaptic basal lamina

Colipase is a cofactor of pancreatic lipase. It allows the lipase to anchor itself to the lipid-water interface. Without colipase the enzyme is washed off by bile salts, which have an inhibitory effect on the lipase.

Acts as a cell adhesion ligand for skin epithelial cells and fibroblasts

Proposed scaffold protein that is implicated in diverse physiological processes and whose function may be in part linked to its ability to regulate ubiquitination of specific cellular proteins. Can modulate activity of cullin-RING E3 ubiquitin ligase (CRL) complexes by displacing CAND1; in vitro promotes CRL E3 activity and dissociates CAND1 from CUL1 and CUL2. Promotes ubiquitination of NF-kappa-B subunit RELA and its subsequent proteasomal degradation. Down-regulates NF-kappa-B activity. Involved in the regulation of membrane expression and ubiquitination of SLC12A2. Modulates Na(+) transport in epithelial cells by regulation of apical cell surface expression of amiloride-sensitive sodium channel (ENaC) subunits and by promoting their ubiquitination presumably involving NEDD4L. Promotes the localization of SCNN1D to recycling endosomes. Promotes CFTR cell surface expression through regulation of its ubiquitination. Down-regulates SOD1 activity by interfering with its homodimerization. Plays a role in copper ion homeostasis. Involved in copper-dependent ATP7A trafficking between the trans-Golgi network and vesicles in the cell periphery; the function is proposed to depend on its association within the CCC complex and cooperation with the WASH complex on early endosomes. Can bind one copper ion per monomer. May function to facilitate biliary copper excretion within hepatocytes. Binds to phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2). Involved in the regulation of HIF1A-mediated transcription; competes with ARNT/Hif-1- beta for binding to HIF1A resulting in decreased DNA binding and impaired transcriptional activation by HIF-1. Negatively regulates neuroblastoma G1/S phase cell cycle progression and cell proliferation by stimulating ubiquitination of NF-kappa-B subunit RELA and NF-kappa-B degradation in a FAM107A- and actin- dependent manner.

May modulate activity of cullin-RING E3 ubiquitin ligase (CRL) complexes. May down-regulate activation of NF- kappa-B.

May modulate activity of cullin-RING E3 ubiquitin ligase (CRL) complexes. May down-regulate activation of NF- kappa-B. Modulates Na(+) transport in epithelial cells by regulation of apical cell surface expression of amiloride- sensitive sodium channel (ENaC) subunits.

May modulate activity of cullin-RING E3 ubiquitin ligase (CRL) complexes. Down-regulates activation of NF- kappa-B.

May modulate activity of cullin-RING E3 ubiquitin ligase (CRL) complexes. Negatively regulates cell proliferation. Negatively regulates cell cycle G2/M phase transition probably by transactivating p21/CDKN1A through the p53/TP53-independent signaling pathway. Involved in kidney proximal tubule morphogenesis (By similarity). Down-regulates activation of NF-kappa-B.

May modulate activity of cullin-RING E3 ubiquitin ligase (CRL) complexes. Down-regulates activation of NF- kappa-B. Inhibits TNF-induced NFKB1 activation.

May modulate activity of cullin-RING E3 ubiquitin ligase (CRL) complexes. Associates with the NF-kappa-B complex and suppresses its transcriptional activity.

Plays a role in the structural integrity of cartilage via its interaction with other extracellular matrix proteins such as the collagens and fibronectin. Can mediate the interaction of chondrocytes with the cartilage extracellular matrix through interaction with cell surface integrin receptors. Could play a role in the pathogenesis of osteoarthritis. Potent suppressor of apoptosis in both primary chondrocytes and transformed cells. Suppresses apoptosis by blocking the activation of caspase-3 and by inducing the IAP family of survival proteins (BIRC3, BIRC2, BIRC5 and XIAP). Essential for maintaining a vascular smooth muscle cells (VSMCs) contractile/differentiated phenotype under physiological and pathological stimuli. Maintains this phenotype of VSMCs by interacting with ITGA7 (By similarity).

Catalyzes the O-methylation, and thereby the inactivation, of catecholamine neurotransmitters and catechol hormones. Also shortens the biological half-lives of certain neuroactive drugs, like L-DOPA, alpha-methyl DOPA and isoproterenol.

May participate in regulating type I collagen fibrillogenesis at specific anatomical locations during fetal development.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. E3 ubiquitin ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Involved in JUN ubiquitination and degradation. Directly involved in p53 (TP53) ubiquitination and degradation, thereby abolishing p53-dependent transcription and apoptosis. Ubiquitinates p53 independently of MDM2 or RCHY1. Probably mediates E3 ubiquitin ligase activity by functioning as the essential RING domain subunit of larger E3 complexes. In contrast, it does not constitute the catalytic RING subunit in the DCX DET1-COP1 complex that negatively regulates JUN, the ubiquitin ligase activity being mediated by RBX1. Involved in 14-3-3 protein sigma/SFN ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation, leading to AKT activation and promotion of cell survival. Ubiquitinates MTA1 leading to its proteasomal degradation. Upon binding to TRIB1, ubiquitinates CEBPA, which lacks a canonical COP1-binding motif (Probable).

Inhibits fibrillization of amyloid-beta peptide during the elongation phase. Has also been shown to assemble amyloid fibrils into protease-resistant aggregates. Binds heparin.

The coatomer is a cytosolic protein complex that binds to dilysine motifs and reversibly associates with Golgi non-clathrin- coated vesicles, which further mediate biosynthetic protein transport from the ER, via the Golgi up to the trans Golgi network. Coatomer complex is required for budding from Golgi membranes, and is essential for the retrograde Golgi-to-ER transport of dilysine-tagged proteins. In mammals, the coatomer can only be recruited by membranes associated to ADP-ribosylation factors (ARFs), which are small GTP-binding proteins; the complex also influences the Golgi structural integrity, as well as the processing, activity, and endocytic recycling of LDL receptors (By similarity).

The coatomer is a cytosolic protein complex that binds to dilysine motifs and reversibly associates with Golgi non-clathrin- coated vesicles, which further mediate biosynthetic protein transport from the ER, via the Golgi up to the trans Golgi network. Coatomer complex is required for budding from Golgi membranes, and is essential for the retrograde Golgi-to-ER transport of dilysine-tagged proteins. In mammals, the coatomer can only be recruited by membranes associated to ADP-ribosylation factors (ARFs), which are small GTP-binding proteins; the complex also influences the Golgi structural integrity, as well as the processing, activity, and endocytic recycling of LDL receptors. Plays a functional role in facilitating the transport of kappa-type opioid receptor mRNAs into axons and enhances translation of these proteins. Required for limiting lipid storage in lipid droplets. Involved in lipid homeostasis by regulating the presence of perilipin family members PLIN2 and PLIN3 at the lipid droplet surface and promoting the association of adipocyte surface triglyceride lipase (PNPLA2) with the lipid droplet to mediate lipolysis (By similarity). Involved in the Golgi disassembly and reassembly processes during cell cycle. Involved in autophagy by playing a role in early endosome function. Plays a role in organellar compartmentalization of secretory compartments including endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-Golgi intermediate compartment (ERGIC), Golgi, trans-Golgi network (TGN) and recycling endosomes, and in biosynthetic transport of CAV1. Promotes degradation of Nef cellular targets CD4 and MHC class I antigens by facilitating their trafficking to degradative compartments.

Component of the coatomer, a cytosolic protein complex that binds to dilysine motifs and reversibly associates with Golgi non- clathrin-coated vesicles, which further mediate biosynthetic protein transport from the ER, via the Golgi up to the trans Golgi network. The coatomer complex is required for budding from Golgi membranes, and is essential for the retrograde Golgi-to-ER transport of dilysine-tagged proteins. In mammals, the coatomer can only be recruited by membranes associated to ADP-ribosylation factors (ARFs), which are small GTP- binding proteins; the complex also influences the Golgi structural integrity, as well as the processing, activity, and endocytic recycling of LDL receptors (By similarity).

The coatomer is a cytosolic protein complex that binds to dilysine motifs and reversibly associates with Golgi non-clathrin- coated vesicles, which further mediate biosynthetic protein transport from the ER, via the Golgi up to the trans Golgi network. The coatomer complex is required for budding from Golgi membranes, and is essential for the retrograde Golgi-to-ER transport of dilysine-tagged proteins. In mammals, the coatomer can only be recruited by membranes associated with ADP-ribosylation factors (ARFs), which are small GTP-binding proteins; the complex also influences the Golgi structural integrity, as well as the processing, activity, and endocytic recycling of LDL receptors (By similarity).

The coatomer is a cytosolic protein complex that binds to dilysine motifs and reversibly associates with Golgi non-clathrin- coated vesicles, which further mediate biosynthetic protein transport from the ER, via the Golgi up to the trans Golgi network. Coatomer complex is required for budding from Golgi membranes, and is essential for the retrograde Golgi-to-ER transport of dilysine-tagged proteins. In mammals, the coatomer can only be recruited by membranes associated to ADP-ribosylation factors (ARFs), which are small GTP-binding proteins; the complex also influences the Golgi structural integrity, as well as the processing, activity, and endocytic recycling of LDL receptors. Required for limiting lipid storage in lipid droplets. Involved in lipid homeostasis by regulating the presence of perilipin family members PLIN2 and PLIN3 at the lipid droplet surface and promoting the association of adipocyte triglyceride lipase (PNPLA2) with the lipid droplet surface to mediate lipolysis (By similarity).

Histone-binding protein required for histone H4 methyltransferase activity of PRMT5. Specifically required for histone H4 'Arg-3' methylation mediated by PRMT5, but not histone H3 'Arg-8' methylation, suggesting that it modulates the substrate specificity of PRMT5. Specifically interacts with the N-terminus of histone H4 but not with histone H3, suggesting that it acts by promoting the association between histone H4 and PRMT5. Involved in CCNE1 promoter repression. Plays a role in muscle cell differentiation by modulating the recruitment of PRMT5 to the promoter of genes involved in the coordination between cell cycle exit and muscle differentiation (By similarity).

High-affinity, saturable copper transporter involved in dietary copper uptake.

The coatomer is a cytosolic protein complex that binds to dilysine motifs and reversibly associates with Golgi non-clathrin- coated vesicles, which further mediate biosynthetic protein transport from the ER, via the Golgi up to the trans Golgi network. Coatomer complex is required for budding from Golgi membranes, and is essential for the retrograde Golgi-to-ER transport of dilysine-tagged proteins (By similarity). The zeta subunit may be involved in regulating the coat assembly and, hence, the rate of biosynthetic protein transport due to its association-dissociation properties with the coatomer complex (By similarity).

The coatomer is a cytosolic protein complex that binds to dilysine motifs and reversibly associates with Golgi non-clathrin- coated vesicles, which further mediate biosynthetic protein transport from the ER, via the Golgi up to the trans Golgi network. Coatomer complex is required for budding from Golgi membranes, and is essential for the retrograde Golgi-to-ER transport of dilysine-tagged proteins. The zeta subunit may be involved in regulating the coat assembly and, hence, the rate of biosynthetic protein transport due to its association-dissociation properties with the coatomer complex.

Mediates the second step in the final reaction sequence of coenzyme Q (CoQ) biosynthesis. Catalyzes the prenylation of para- hydroxybenzoate (PHB) with an all-trans polyprenyl donor (such as all- trans-decaprenyl diphosphate). The length of the polyprenyl side chain varies depending on the species, in humans, the side chain is comprised of 10 isoprenyls (decaprenyl) producing CoQ10 (also known as ubiquinone), whereas rodents predominantly generate CoQ9. However, this specificity is not complete, human tissues have low amounts of CoQ9 and rodent organs contain some CoQ10. Plays a central role in the biosynthesis of CoQ10. CoQ10 is a vital molecule that transports electrons from mitochondrial respiratory chain complexes. CoQs also function as cofactors for uncoupling protein and play a role as regulators of the extracellularly-induced ceramide-dependent apoptotic pathway. Regulates mitochondrial permeability transition pore (mPTP) opening and ROS production (pivotal events in cell death) in a tissue specific manner (By similarity).

O-methyltransferase that catalyzes the 2 O-methylation steps in the ubiquinone biosynthetic pathway.

Component of the coenzyme Q biosynthetic pathway. May play a role in organizing a multi-subunit COQ enzyme complex required for coenzyme Q biosynthesis. Required for steady-state levels of other COQ polypeptides.

Methyltransferase required for the conversion of 2- polyprenyl-6-methoxy-1,4-benzoquinol (DDMQH2) to 2-polyprenyl-3-methyl- 6-methoxy-1,4-benzoquinol (DMQH2).

FAD-dependent monooxygenase required for the C5-ring hydroxylation during ubiquinone biosynthesis. Catalyzes the hydroxylation of 3-hexaprenyl-4-hydroxybenzoic acid (HHB) to 3- hexaprenyl-4,5-dihydroxybenzoic acid (DHHB). The electrons required for the hydroxylation reaction may be funneled indirectly from NADPH via a ferredoxin/ferredoxin reductase system to COQ6 (By similarity). Is able to perform the deamination reaction at C4 of 3-hexaprenyl-4-amino-5- hydroxybenzoic acid (HHAB) to produce DHHB when expressed in yeast cells lacking COQ9, even if utilization of para-aminobenzoic acid (pABA) involving C4-deamination seems not to occur in bacteria, plants and mammals, where only C5 hydroxylation of HHB has been shown.

Catalyzes the hydroxylation of 2-polyprenyl-3-methyl-6- methoxy-1,4-benzoquinol (DMQH2) during ubiquinone biosynthesis (By similarity). Has also a structural role in the COQ enzyme complex, stabilizing other COQ polypeptides (By similarity). Involved in lifespan determination in a ubiquinone-independent manner (By similarity). Plays a role in modulating mitochondrial stress responses, acting in the nucleus, perhaps via regulating gene expression, independent of its characterized mitochondrial function in ubiquinone biosynthesis.

Atypical kinase involved in the biosynthesis of coenzyme Q, also named ubiquinone, an essential lipid-soluble electron transporter for aerobic cellular respiration. Its substrate specificity is unclear: does not show any protein kinase activity. Probably acts as a small molecule kinase, possibly a lipid kinase that phosphorylates a prenyl lipid in the ubiquinone biosynthesis pathway, as suggested by its ability to bind coenzyme Q lipid intermediates. Shows an unusual selectivity for binding ADP over ATP.

Atypical kinase involved in the biosynthesis of coenzyme Q, also named ubiquinone, an essential lipid-soluble electron transporter for aerobic cellular respiration. Its substrate specificity is unclear: does not show any protein kinase activity. Probably acts as a small molecule kinase, possibly a lipid kinase that phosphorylates a prenyl lipid in the ubiquinone biosynthesis pathway. Required for podocyte migration.

Lipid-binding protein involved in the biosynthesis of coenzyme Q, also named ubiquinone, an essential lipid-soluble electron transporter for aerobic cellular respiration. Binds a phospholipid of at least 10 carbons in each acyl group. May be required to present its bound-lipid to COQ7.

May be a crucial component of the cytoskeleton of highly motile cells, functioning both in the invagination of large pieces of plasma membrane, as well as in forming protrusions of the plasma membrane involved in cell locomotion. In mycobacteria-infected cells, its retention on the phagosomal membrane prevents fusion between phagosomes and lysosomes.

Regulates leading edge dynamics and cell motility in fibroblasts. May be involved in cytokinesis and signal transduction (By similarity).

Plays a role in directed cell migration by regulating the activation and subcellular location of RAC1. Increases the presence of activated RAC1 at the leading edge of migrating cells. Required for normal organization of the cytoskeleton, including the actin cytoskeleton, microtubules and the vimentin intermediate filaments (By similarity). Plays a role in endoplasmic reticulum- associated endosome fission: localizes to endosome membrane tubules and promotes recruitment of TMCC1, leading to recruitment of the endoplasmic reticulum to endosome tubules for fission. Endosome membrane fission of early and late endosomes is essential to separate regions destined for lysosomal degradation from carriers to be recycled to the plasma membrane. Required for normal cell proliferation, cell migration, and normal formation of lamellipodia (By similarity). Required for normal distribution of mitochondria within cells (By similarity).

May play a role in the reorganization of neuronal actin structure

Plays a role during the calcification of cartilage and the transition of cartilage to bone.

Serine-type endopeptidase involved in atrial natriuretic peptide (NPPA) and brain natriuretic peptide (NPPB) processing. Converts through proteolytic cleavage the non-functional propeptides NPPA and NPPB into their active hormones, ANP and BNP(1-32) respectively, thereby regulating blood pressure in the heart and promoting natriuresis, diuresis and vasodilation. Proteolytic cleavage of pro-NPPA also plays a role in female pregnancy by promoting trophoblast invasion and spiral artery remodeling in uterus. Also acts as a regulator of sodium reabsorption in kidney (By similarity).

F-actin regulator involved in anterograde Golgi to endosome transport: upon ubiquitination via 'Lys-33'-linked ubiquitin chains by the BCR(KLHL20) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex, interacts with EPS15 and localizes to the trans-Golgi network, where it promotes actin polymerization, thereby facilitating post-Golgi trafficking. May play a role in the maintenance of the Golgi apparatus morphology.

Binds to all human somatostatin receptor (SSTR) subtypes. It also inhibits cAMP production induced by forskolin through SSTRs

Coup (chicken ovalbumin upstream promoter) transcription factor binds to the ovalbumin promoter and, in conjunction with another protein (S300-II) stimulates initiation of transcription. Binds to both direct repeats and palindromes of the 5'-AGGTCA-3' motif. Represses transcriptional activity of LHCG.

Ligand-activated transcription factor. Activated by high concentrations of 9-cis-retinoic acid and all-trans-retinoic acid, but not by dexamethasone, cortisol or progesterone (in vitro). Regulation of the apolipoprotein A-I gene transcription. Binds to DNA site A. May be required to establish ovary identity during early gonad development.

Binds to F-actin in a calcium-independent manner. Has no direct effect on actin depolymerization. Acts as a chaperone for ALOX5 (5LO), influencing both its stability and activity in leukotrienes synthesis.

Exerts its effect at some terminal stage of cytochrome c oxidase synthesis, probably by being involved in the insertion of the copper B into subunit I.

Core component of the MITRAC (mitochondrial translation regulation assembly intermediate of cytochrome c oxidase complex) complex, that regulates cytochrome c oxidase assembly. Requires for coordination of the early steps of cytochrome c oxidase assembly with the synthesis of MT-CO1.

Required for the assembly of the mitochondrial respiratory chain complex IV (CIV), also known as cytochrome c oxidase. Promotes the insertion of copper into the active site of cytochrome c oxidase subunit II (MT-CO2/COX2). Interacts specifically with newly synthesized MT-CO2/COX and its copper center- forming metallochaperones SCO1, SCO2 and COA6. Probably facilitates MT-CO2/COX2 association with the MITRAC assembly intermediate containing MT-CO1/COX1, thereby participating in merging the MT-CO1/COX1 and MT-CO2/COX2 assembly lines.

Copper metallochaperone essential for the assembly of the mitochondrial respiratory chain complex IV (CIV), also known as cytochrome c oxidase. Binds two copper ions and delivers them to the metallochaperone SCO1 which transports the copper ions to the Cu(A) site on the cytochrome c oxidase subunit II (MT-CO2/COX2).

Required for the transduction of an SCO1-dependent redox signal from the mitochondrion to ATP7A to regulate cellular copper homeostasis. May be required for the assembly of mitochondrial cytochrome c oxidase (By similarity).

Essential for the assembly of the mitochondrial respiratory chain complex IV (CIV), also known as cytochrome c oxidase. Acts as a chaperone in the early steps of cytochrome c oxidase subunit II (MT-CO2/COX2) maturation, stabilizing the newly synthesized protein and presenting it to metallochaperones SCO1/2 which in turn facilitates the incorporation of the mature MT-CO2/COX2 into the assembling CIV holoenzyme.

Component of the cytochrome c oxidase, the last enzyme in the mitochondrial electron transport chain which drives oxidative phosphorylation. The respiratory chain contains 3 multisubunit complexes succinate dehydrogenase (complex II, CII), ubiquinol- cytochrome c oxidoreductase (cytochrome b-c1 complex, complex III, CIII) and cytochrome c oxidase (complex IV, CIV), that cooperate to transfer electrons derived from NADH and succinate to molecular oxygen, creating an electrochemical gradient over the inner membrane that drives transmembrane transport and the ATP synthase. Cytochrome c oxidase is the component of the respiratory chain that catalyzes the reduction of oxygen to water. Electrons originating from reduced cytochrome c in the intermembrane space (IMS) are transferred via the dinuclear copper A center (CU(A)) of subunit 2 and heme A of subunit 1 to the active site in subunit 1, a binuclear center (BNC) formed by heme A3 and copper B (CU(B)). The BNC reduces molecular oxygen to 2 water molecules using 4 electrons from cytochrome c in the IMS and 4 protons from the mitochondrial matrix.

Component of the cytochrome c oxidase, the last enzyme in the mitochondrial electron transport chain which drives oxidative phosphorylation. The respiratory chain contains 3 multisubunit complexes succinate dehydrogenase (complex II, CII), ubiquinol- cytochrome c oxidoreductase (cytochrome b-c1 complex, complex III, CIII) and cytochrome c oxidase (complex IV, CIV), that cooperate to transfer electrons derived from NADH and succinate to molecular oxygen, creating an electrochemical gradient over the inner membrane that drives transmembrane transport and the ATP synthase. Cytochrome c oxidase is the component of the respiratory chain that catalyzes the reduction of oxygen to water. Electrons originating from reduced cytochrome c in the intermembrane space (IMS) are transferred via the dinuclear copper A center (CU(A)) of subunit 2 and heme A of subunit 1 to the active site in subunit 1, a binuclear center (BNC) formed by heme A3 and copper B (CU(B)). The BNC reduces molecular oxygen to 2 water molecules using 4 electrons from cytochrome c in the IMS and 4 protons from the mitochondrial matrix (By similarity). Plays a role in proper central nervous system (CNS) development in vertebrates.

Involved in the regulation of oxidative phosphorylation and energy metabolism (By similarity). Necessary for the assembly of mitochondrial respiratory supercomplex (By similarity).

Component of the MITRAC (mitochondrial translation regulation assembly intermediate of cytochrome c oxidase complex) complex, that regulates cytochrome c oxidase assembly.

Necessary for centrosome duplication at different stages of procentriole formation. Acts as a key negative regulator of ciliogenesis in collaboration with CEP97 by capping the mother centriole thereby preventing cilia formation. Also involved in promoting ciliogenesis. May play a role in the assembly of the mother centriole subdistal appendages (SDA) thereby effecting the fusion of recycling endosomes to basal bodies during cilia formation (By similarity). Required for correct spindle formation and has a role in regulating cytokinesis and genome stability via cooperation with CALM1 and CETN2.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase that catalyzes the side-chain hydroxylation and cleavage of cholesterol to pregnenolone, the precursor of most steroid hormones. Catalyzes three sequential oxidation reactions of cholesterol, namely the hydroxylation at C22 followed with the hydroxylation at C20 to yield 20R,22R- hydroxycholesterol that is further cleaved between C20 and C22 to yield the C21-steroid pregnenolone and 4-methylpentanal. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate and reducing the second into a water molecule. Two electrons are provided by NADPH via a two-protein mitochondrial transfer system comprising flavoprotein FDXR (adrenodoxin/ferredoxin reductase) and nonheme iron-sulfur protein FDX1 or FDX2 (adrenodoxin/ferredoxin).

Component of centriolar satellites contributing to the building of a complex and dynamic network required to regulate cilia/flagellum formation. In proliferating cells, MIB1-mediated ubiquitination induces its sequestration within centriolar satellites, precluding untimely cilia formation initiation. In contrast, during normal and ultraviolet or heat shock cellular stress-induced ciliogenesis, its non-ubiquitinated form is rapidly displaced from centriolar satellites and recruited to centrosome/basal bodies in a microtubule- and p38 MAPK-dependent manner. Acts also as a negative regulator of BBSome ciliary trafficking. Plays a role in sperm flagellar formation; may be involved in the regulation of intraflagellar transport (IFT) and/or intramanchette (IMT) trafficking, which are important for axoneme extension and/or cargo delivery to the nascent sperm tail (By similarity). Required for optimal cell proliferation and cell cycle progression; may play a role in the regulation of genome stability in non-ciliogenic cells. Involved in centriole duplication (By similarity). Required for CEP152, WDR62 and CEP63 centrosomal localization and promotes the centrosomal localization of CDK2. Essential for maintaining proper centriolar satellite integrity.

Centrosomal protein involved in centriole biogenesis. Acts as a scaffolding protein during early centriole biogenesis. Required for the targeting of centriole satellite proteins to centrosomes such as of PCM1, SSX2IP and CEP290 and recruitment of WRAP73 to centrioles. Also required for centriole-centriole cohesion during interphase by acting as a platform protein for CEP250 at the centriole. Required for the recruitment of CEP295 to the proximal end of new-born centrioles at the centriolar microtubule wall during early S phase in a PLK4-dependent manner.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in corticoid and androgen biosynthesis. Catalyzes 17-alpha hydroxylation of C21 steroids, which is common for both pathways. A second oxidative step, required only for androgen synthesis, involves an acyl-carbon cleavage. The 17-alpha hydroxy intermediates, as part of adrenal glucocorticoids biosynthesis pathway, are precursors of cortisol (Probable). Hydroxylates steroid hormones, pregnenolone and progesterone to form 17-alpha hydroxy metabolites, followed by the cleavage of the C17-C20 bond to form C19 steroids, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) and androstenedione. Has 16-alpha hydroxylase activity. Catalyzes 16-alpha hydroxylation of 17-alpha hydroxy pregnenolone, followed by the cleavage of the C17-C20 bond to form 16-alpha-hydroxy DHEA. Also 16-alpha hydroxylates androgens, relevant for estriol synthesis. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase that catalyzes the conversion of C19 androgens, androst-4-ene-3,17-dione (androstenedione) and testosterone to the C18 estrogens, estrone and estradiol, respectively. Catalyzes three successive oxidations of C19 androgens: two conventional oxidations at C19 yielding 19-hydroxy and 19-oxo/19-aldehyde derivatives, followed by a third oxidative aromatization step that involves C1-beta hydrogen abstraction combined with cleavage of the C10-C19 bond to yield a phenolic A ring and formic acid. Alternatively, the third oxidative reaction yields a 19-norsteroid and formic acid. Converts dihydrotestosterone to delta1,10-dehydro 19- nordihydrotestosterone and may play a role in homeostasis of this potent androgen. Also displays 2-hydroxylase activity toward estrone. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of various endogenous substrates, including fatty acids, steroid hormones and vitamins. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds. Exhibits high catalytic activity for the formation of hydroxyestrogens from estrone (E1) and 17beta-estradiol (E2), namely 2-hydroxy E1 and E2, as well as D-ring hydroxylated E1 and E2 at the C15-alpha and C16- alpha positions. Displays different regioselectivities for polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) hydroxylation. Catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of certain PUFA. Converts arachidonic acid toward epoxyeicosatrienoic acid (EET) regioisomers, 8,9-, 11,12-, and 14,15-EET, that function as lipid mediators in the vascular system. Displays an absolute stereoselectivity in the epoxidation of eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) producing the 17(R),18(S) enantiomer. May play an important role in all-trans retinoic acid biosynthesis in extrahepatic tissues. Catalyzes two successive oxidative transformation of all-trans retinol to all-trans retinal and then to the active form all-trans retinoic acid. May also participate in eicosanoids metabolism by converting hydroperoxide species into oxo metabolites (lipoxygenase-like reaction, NADPH-independent).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of various endogenous substrates, including fatty acids, steroid hormones and vitamins. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds. Exhibits high catalytic activity for the formation of hydroxyestrogens from estrone (E1) and 17beta- estradiol (E2), namely 2-hydroxy E1 and E2. Metabolizes cholesterol toward 25-hydroxycholesterol, a physiological regulator of cellular cholesterol homeostasis. May act as a major enzyme for all-trans retinoic acid biosynthesis in the liver. Catalyzes two successive oxidative transformation of all-trans retinol to all-trans retinal and then to the active form all-trans retinoic acid. Primarily catalyzes stereoselective epoxidation of the last double bond of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA), displaying a strong preference for the (R,S) stereoisomer. Catalyzes bisallylic hydroxylation and omega-1 hydroxylation of PUFA. May also participate in eicosanoids metabolism by converting hydroperoxide species into oxo metabolites (lipoxygenase-like reaction, NADPH- independent). Plays a role in the oxidative metabolism of xenobiotics. Catalyzes the N-hydroxylation of heterocyclic amines and the O-deethylation of phenacetin. Metabolizes caffeine via N3-demethylation (Probable).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of various endogenous substrates, including fatty acids, steroid hormones and vitamins. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase). Exhibits catalytic activity for the formation of hydroxyestrogens from estrone (E1) and 17beta-estradiol (E2), namely 2- and 4-hydroxy E1 and E2. Displays a predominant hydroxylase activity toward E2 at the C-4 position. Metabolizes testosterone and progesterone to B or D ring hydroxylated metabolites. May act as a major enzyme for all-trans retinoic acid biosynthesis in extrahepatic tissues. Catalyzes two successive oxidative transformation of all-trans retinol to all-trans retinal and then to the active form all-trans retinoic acid. Catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of certain PUFA. Converts arachidonic acid toward epoxyeicosatrienoic acid (EpETrE) regioisomers, 8,9-, 11,12-, and 14,15- EpETrE, that function as lipid mediators in the vascular system. Additionally, displays dehydratase activity toward oxygenated eicosanoids hydroperoxyeicosatetraenoates (HpETEs). This activity is independent of cytochrome P450 reductase, NADPH, and O2. Also involved in the oxidative metabolism of xenobiotics, particularly converting polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons and heterocyclic aryl amines procarcinogens to DNA-damaging products. Plays an important role in retinal vascular development. Under hyperoxic O2 conditions, promotes retinal angiogenesis and capillary morphogenesis, likely by metabolizing the oxygenated products generated during the oxidative stress. Also, contributes to oxidative homeostasis and ultrastructural organization and function of trabecular meshwork tissue through modulation of POSTN expression (By similarity).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase with a key role in vitamin D catabolism and calcium homeostasis. Via C24- and C23-oxidation pathways, catalyzes the inactivation of both the vitamin D precursor calcidiol (25-hydroxyvitamin D(3)) and the active hormone calcitriol (1-alpha,25-dihydroxyvitamin D(3)). With initial hydroxylation at C-24 (via C24-oxidation pathway), performs a sequential 6-step oxidation of calcitriol leading to the formation of the biliary metabolite calcitroic acid. With initial hydroxylation at C-23 (via C23-oxidation pathway), catalyzes sequential oxidation of calcidiol leading to the formation of 25(OH)D3-26,23-lactone as end product. Preferentially hydroxylates at C-25 other vitamin D active metabolites, such as CYP11A1-derived secosteroids 20S- hydroxycholecalciferol and 20S,23-dihydroxycholecalciferol. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via FDXR/adrenodoxin reductase and FDX1/adrenodoxin.

May be involved in ciliogenesis. Probably plays an important role in centrosome cohesion during interphase. Recruits CCDC102B to the proximal ends of centrioles.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of all-trans retinoic acid (atRA), a signaling molecule that binds to retinoic acid receptors and regulates gene transcription. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH- ferrihemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon hydrogen bonds of atRA primarily at C-4 and C-18. Has no activity toward 9-cis and 13-cis retinoic acid stereoisomers. May play a role in the oxidative metabolism of xenobiotics such as tazarotenic acid.

Involved in the metabolism of retinoic acid (RA), rendering this classical morphogen inactive through oxidation. Involved in the specific inactivation of all-trans- retinoic acid (all-trans-RA), with a preference for the following substrates: all-trans-RA > 9-cis-RA > 13-cis-RA. Generates several hydroxylated forms of RA, including 4-OH-RA, 4-oxo-RA, and 18-OH-RA. Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon hydrogen bonds of atRA primarily at C-4. Essential for postnatal survival (By similarity). Plays a central role in germ cell development: acts by degrading RA in the developing testis, preventing STRA8 expression, thereby leading to delay of meiosis (By similarity). Required for the maintenance of the undifferentiated state of male germ cells during embryonic development in Sertoli cells, inducing arrest in G0 phase of the cell cycle and preventing meiotic entry (By similarity). Plays a role in skeletal development, both at the level of patterning and in the ossification of bone and the establishment of some synovial joints.

Plays a role in retinoic acid metabolism. Acts on retinoids, including all-trans-retinoic acid (RA) and its stereoisomer 9-cis-RA (preferred substrate)

Cytochrome P450 monooxygenase that catalyzes regio- and stereospecific hydroxylation of cholesterol and its derivatives. Hydroxylates (with R stereochemistry) the terminal methyl group of cholesterol side-chain in a three step reaction to yield at first a C26 alcohol, then a C26 aldehyde and finally a C26 acid. Regulates cholesterol homeostasis by catalyzing the conversion of excess cholesterol to bile acids via both the 'neutral' (classic) and the 'acid' (alternative) pathways. May also regulate cholesterol homeostasis via generation of active oxysterols, which act as ligands for NR1H2 and NR1H3 nuclear receptors, modulating the transcription of genes involved in lipid metabolism. Plays a role in cholestanol metabolism in the cerebellum. Similarly to cholesterol, hydroxylates cholestanol and may facilitate sterol diffusion through the blood-brain barrier to the systemic circulation for further degradation. Also hydroxylates retinal 7- ketocholesterol, a noxious oxysterol with pro-inflammatory and pro- apoptotic effects, and may play a role in its elimination from the retinal pigment epithelium. May play a redundant role in vitamin D biosynthesis. Catalyzes 25-hydroxylation of vitamin D3 that is required for its conversion to a functionally active form.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in vitamin D metabolism and in calcium and phosphorus homeostasis. Catalyzes the rate-limiting step in the activation of vitamin D in the kidney, namely the hydroxylation of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3/calcidiol at the C1alpha- position to form the hormonally active form of vitamin D3, 1alpha,25- dihydroxyvitamin D3/calcitriol that acts via the vitamin D receptor (VDR). Has 1alpha-hydroxylase activity on vitamin D intermediates of the CYP24A1-mediated inactivation pathway. Converts 24R,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3/secalciferol to 1-alpha,24,25-trihydroxyvitamin D3, an active ligand of VDR. Also active on 25-hydroxyvitamin D2. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via FDXR/adrenodoxin reductase and FDX1/adrenodoxin.

Exhibits a high coumarin 7-hydroxylase activity. Can act in the hydroxylation of the anti-cancer drugs cyclophosphamide and ifosphamide. Competent in the metabolic activation of aflatoxin B1. Constitutes the major nicotine C-oxidase. Acts as a 1,4-cineole 2-exo- monooxygenase. Possesses low phenacetin O-deethylation activity.

Cytochromes P450 are a group of heme-thiolate monooxygenases. In liver microsomes, this enzyme is involved in an NADPH-dependent electron transport pathway. It oxidizes a variety of structurally unrelated compounds, including steroids, fatty acids, and xenobiotics

Exhibits a coumarin 7-hydroxylase activity. Active in the metabolic activation of hexamethylphosphoramide, N,N-dimethylaniline, 2'-methoxyacetophenone, N-nitrosomethylphenylamine, and the tobacco- specific carcinogen, 4-(methylnitrosamino)-1-(3-pyridyl)-1-butanone. Possesses phenacetin O-deethylation activity.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of endocannabinoids and steroids. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH-- hemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of arachidonoylethanolamide (anandamide) to 8,9-, 11,12-, and 14,15- epoxyeicosatrienoic acid ethanolamides (EpETrE-EAs), potentially modulating endocannabinoid system signaling. Hydroxylates steroid hormones, including testosterone at C-16 and estrogens at C-2. Plays a role in the oxidative metabolism of xenobiotics, including plant lipids and drugs. Acts as a 1,4-cineole 2-exo- monooxygenase.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of various endogenous substrates, including fatty acids, steroid hormones and vitamins. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase). Primarily catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) with a preference for the last double bond. Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds. Metabolizes all trans-retinoic acid toward its 4-hydroxylated form. Displays 16-alpha hydroxylase activity toward estrogen steroid hormones, 17beta-estradiol (E2) and estrone (E1). Plays a role in the oxidative metabolism of xenobiotics. It is the principal enzyme responsible for the metabolism of the anti-cancer drug paclitaxel (taxol).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of various endogenous substrates, including fatty acids and steroids. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds. Metabolizes cholesterol toward 25-hydroxycholesterol, a physiological regulator of cellular cholesterol homeostasis. Exhibits low catalytic activity for the formation of catechol estrogens from 17beta- estradiol (E2) and estrone (E1), namely 2-hydroxy E1 and E2. Catalyzes bisallylic hydroxylation and hydroxylation with double-bond migration of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA). Also metabolizes plant monoterpenes such as limonene. Oxygenates (R)- and (S)-limonene to produce carveol and perillyl alcohol. Contributes to the wide pharmacokinetics variability of the metabolism of drugs such as S- warfarin, diclofenac, phenytoin, tolbutamide and losartan.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in retinoid metabolism. Hydroxylates all trans-retinoic acid (atRA) to 4- hydroxyretinoate and may modulate atRA signaling and clearance. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH- ferrihemoprotein reductase).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds. Hydroxylates PUFA specifically at the omega-1 position. Catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of PUFA. Also metabolizes plant monoterpenes such as limonene. Oxygenates (R)- and (S)-limonene to produce carveol and perillyl alcohol. Responsible for the metabolism of a number of therapeutic agents such as the anticonvulsant drug S-mephenytoin, omeprazole, proguanil, certain barbiturates, diazepam, propranolol, citalopram and imipramine. Hydroxylates fenbendazole at the 4' position.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of fatty acids, steroids and retinoids. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA). Metabolizes endocannabinoid arachidonoylethanolamide (anandamide) to 20-hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid ethanolamide (20-HETE-EA) and 8,9-, 11,12-, and 14,15-epoxyeicosatrienoic acid ethanolamides (EpETrE-EAs), potentially modulating endocannabinoid system signaling. Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds. Metabolizes cholesterol toward 25- hydroxycholesterol, a physiological regulator of cellular cholesterol homeostasis. Catalyzes the oxidative transformations of all-trans retinol to all-trans retinal, a precursor for the active form all-trans-retinoic acid. Also involved in the oxidative metabolism of drugs such as antiarrhythmics, adrenoceptor antagonists, and tricyclic antidepressants.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of fatty acids. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds. Hydroxylates fatty acids specifically at the omega-1 position displaying the highest catalytic activity for saturated fatty acids. May be involved in the oxidative metabolism of xenobiotics (Probable).

May be involved in the metabolism of various pneumotoxicants including naphthalene. Is able to dealkylate ethoxycoumarin, propoxycoumarin, and pentoxyresorufin but possesses no activity toward ethoxyresorufin and only trace dearylation activity toward benzyloxyresorufin. Bioactivates 3-methylindole (3MI) by dehydrogenation to the putative electrophile 3-methylene-indolenine.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) in the cardiovascular system. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of PUFA. Converts arachidonic acid to four regioisomeric epoxyeicosatrienoic acids (EpETrE), likely playing a major role in the epoxidation of endogenous cardiac arachidonic acid pools. In endothelial cells, participates in eicosanoids metabolism by converting hydroperoxide species into hydroxy epoxy metabolites. In combination with 15- lipoxygenase metabolizes arachidonic acid and converts hydroperoxyicosatetraenoates (HpETEs) into hydroxy epoxy eicosatrienoates (HEETs), which are precursors of vasodilatory trihydroxyicosatrienoic acids (THETAs). This hydroperoxide isomerase activity is NADPH- and O2-independent. Catalyzes the monooxygenation of a various xenobiotics, such as danazol, amiodarone, terfenadine, astemizole, thioridazine, tamoxifen, cyclosporin A and nabumetone. Catalyzes hydroxylation of the anthelmintics albendazole and fenbendazole. Catalyzes the sulfoxidation of fenbedazole.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in activation of vitamin D precursors. Catalyzes hydroxylation at C-25 of both forms of vitamin D, vitamin D(2) and D(3) (calciol). Can metabolize vitamin D analogs/prodrugs 1alpha-hydroxyvitamin D(2) (doxercalciferol) and 1alpha-hydroxyvitamin D(3) (alfacalcidol) forming 25-hydroxy derivatives. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of retinoids and eicosanoids. In epidermis, may contribute to the oxidative metabolism of all-trans- retinoic acid. For this activity, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase). Additionally, displays peroxidase and isomerase activities toward various oxygenated eicosanoids such as prostaglandin H2 (PGH2) and hydroperoxyeicosatetraenoates (HPETEs). Independently of cytochrome P450 reductase, NADPH, and O2, catalyzes the breakdown of PGH2 to hydroxyheptadecatrienoic acid (HHT) and malondialdehyde (MDA), which is known to act as a mediator of DNA damage.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of arachidonic acid and its conjugates. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH- ferrihemoprotein reductase). Acts as an omega and omega-1 hydroxylase for arachidonic acid and possibly for other long chain fatty acids. May modulate the arachidonic acid signaling pathway and play a role in other fatty acid signaling processes. May down-regulate the biological activities of N-arachidonoyl-serotonin, an endocannabinoid that has anti-nociceptive effects through inhibition of fatty acid amide hydrolase FAAH, TRPV1 receptor and T-type calcium channels. Catalyzes C-2 oxidation of the indole ring of N-arachidonoyl-serotonin forming a less active product 2-oxo-N-arachidonoyl-serotonin.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase that may play a role in retinoid and phospholipid metabolism. Catalyzes the hydroxylation of saturated carbon hydrogen bonds. Hydroxylates all trans-retinoic acid (atRA) to 4- hydroxyretinoate and may regulate atRA clearance. Other retinoids such as all-trans retinol and all-trans retinal are potential endogenous substrates. Catalyzes both epoxidation of double bonds and hydroxylation of carbon hydrogen bonds of the fatty acyl chain of 1-acylphospholipids/2-lysophospholipids. Can metabolize various lysophospholipids classes including lysophosphatidylcholines (LPCs), lysophosphatidylinositols (LPIs), lysophosphatidylserines (LPSs), lysophosphatidylglycerols (LPGs), lysophosphatidylethanolamines (LPEs) and lysophosphatidic acids (LPAs). Has low or no activity toward 2-acylphospholipids/1-lysophospholipids, diacylphospholipids and free fatty acids. May play a role in tumorigenesis by activating procarcinogens such as aflatoxin B1, polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon dihydrodiols and aromatic amines. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in neural cholesterol clearance through bile acid synthesis. Catalyzes 7-alpha hydroxylation of (24S)- hydroxycholesterol, a neural oxysterol that is metabolized to bile acids in the liver. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of sterols, steroid hormones, retinoids and fatty acids. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds. Exhibits high catalytic activity for the formation of hydroxyestrogens from estrone (E1) and 17beta- estradiol (E2), namely 2-hydroxy E1 and E2, as well as D-ring hydroxylated E1 and E2 at the C-16 position. Plays a role in the metabolism of androgens, particularly in oxidative deactivation of testosterone. Metabolizes testosterone to less biologically active 2beta- and 6beta- hydroxytestosterones. Contributes to the formation of hydroxycholesterols (oxysterols), particularly A-ring hydroxylated cholesterol at the C- 4beta position, and side chain hydroxylated cholesterol at the C-25 position, likely contributing to cholesterol degradation and bile acid biosynthesis. Catalyzes bisallylic hydroxylation of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA). Catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of PUFA with a preference for the last double bond. Metabolizes endocannabinoid arachidonoylethanolamide (anandamide) to 8,9-, 11,12-, and 14,15- epoxyeicosatrienoic acid ethanolamides (EpETrE-EAs), potentially modulating endocannabinoid system signaling. Plays a role in the metabolism of retinoids. Displays high catalytic activity for oxidation of all-trans-retinol to all-trans-retinal, a rate- limiting step for the biosynthesis of all-trans-retinoic acid (atRA). Further metabolizes atRA toward 4-hydroxyretinoate and may play a role in hepatic atRA clearance. Responsible for oxidative metabolism of xenobiotics. Acts as a 2-exo- monooxygenase for plant lipid 1,8-cineole (eucalyptol). Metabolizes the majority of the administered drugs. Catalyzes sulfoxidation of the anthelmintics albendazole and fenbendazole. Hydroxylates antimalarial drug quinine. Acts as a 1,4-cineole 2-exo-monooxygenase. Also involved in vitamin D catabolism and calcium homeostasis. Catalyzes the inactivation of the active hormone calcitriol (1-alpha,25-dihydroxyvitamin D(3)).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of steroid hormones and vitamins. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH--hemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds. Exhibits high catalytic activity for the formation of catechol estrogens from 17beta- estradiol (E2) and estrone (E1), namely 2-hydroxy E1 and E2. Catalyzes 6beta-hydroxylation of the steroid hormones testosterone, progesterone, and androstenedione. Catalyzes the oxidative conversion of all-trans- retinol to all-trans-retinal, a rate-limiting step for the biosynthesis of all-trans-retinoic acid (atRA). Further metabolizes all trans-retinoic acid (atRA) to 4-hydroxyretinoate and may play a role in hepatic atRA clearance. Also involved in the oxidative metabolism of xenobiotics, including calcium channel blocking drug nifedipine and immunosuppressive drug cyclosporine.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of steroid hormones and vitamins during embryogenesis. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (NADPH-- hemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds. Metabolizes 3beta- hydroxyandrost-5-en-17-one (dehydroepiandrosterone, DHEA), a precursor in the biosynthesis of androgen and estrogen steroid hormones. Exhibits high catalytic activity for the formation of hydroxyestrogens from estrone (E1), particularly D- ring hydroxylated estrone at the C16-alpha position. Mainly hydroxylates all trans-retinoic acid (atRA) to 4-hydroxyretinoate and may play a role in atRA clearance during fetal development. Also involved in the oxidative metabolism of xenobiotics including anticonvulsants.

P450 monooxygenase that plays a major role in cholesterol homeostasis in the brain. Primarily catalyzes the hydroxylation (with S stereochemistry) at C-24 of cholesterol side chain, triggering cholesterol diffusion out of neurons and its further degradation. By promoting constant cholesterol elimination in neurons, may activate the mevalonate pathway and coordinate the synthesis of new cholesterol and nonsterol isoprenoids involved in synaptic activity and learning (By similarity). Further hydroxylates cholesterol derivatives and hormone steroids on both the ring and side chain of these molecules, converting them into active oxysterols involved in lipid signaling and biosynthesis. Acts as an epoxidase converting cholesta-5,24-dien-3beta-ol/desmosterol into (24S),25-epoxycholesterol, an abundant lipid ligand of nuclear NR1H2 and NR1H3 receptors shown to promote neurogenesis in developing brain. May also catalyze the oxidative metabolism of xenobiotics, such as clotrimazole.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of fatty acids and their oxygenated derivatives (oxylipins). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes predominantly the oxidation of the terminal carbon (omega-oxidation) of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids, the catalytic efficiency decreasing in the following order: dodecanoic > tetradecanoic > (9Z)-octadecenoic > (9Z,12Z)-octadecadienoic > hexadecanoic acid. Acts as a major omega-hydroxylase for dodecanoic (lauric) acid in liver. Participates in omega-hydroxylation of (5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)-eicosatetraenoic acid (arachidonate) to 20- hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid (20-HETE), a signaling molecule acting both as vasoconstrictive and natriuretic with overall effect on arterial blood pressure. Can also catalyze the oxidation of the penultimate carbon (omega-1 oxidation) of fatty acids with lower efficiency. May contribute to the degradation of saturated very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs) such as docosanoic acid, by catalyzing successive omega-oxidations to the corresponding dicarboxylic acid, thereby initiating chain shortening. Omega- hydroxylates (9R,10S)-epoxy-octadecanoate stereoisomer. Plays a minor role in omega-oxidation of long-chain 3-hydroxy fatty acids. Has little activity toward prostaglandins A1 and E1.

Catalyzes the omega- and (omega-1)-hydroxylation of various fatty acids such as laurate and palmitate. Shows no activity towards arachidonic acid and prostaglandin A1. Lacks functional activity in the kidney and does not contribute to renal 20-hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid (20-HETE) biosynthesis.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of various endogenous substrates, including fatty acids, eicosanoids and vitamins. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes predominantly the oxidation of the terminal carbon (omega-oxidation) of long- and very long-chain fatty acids. Displays high omega-hydroxylase activity toward polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs). Participates in the conversion of arachidonic acid to omega-hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid (20-HETE), a signaling molecule acting both as vasoconstrictive and natriuretic with overall effect on arterial blood pressure. Plays a role in the oxidative inactivation of eicosanoids, including both pro-inflammatory and anti- inflammatory mediators such as leukotriene B4 (LTB4), lipoxin A4 (LXA4), and several HETEs. Catalyzes omega-hydroxylation of 3-hydroxy fatty acids. Converts monoepoxides of linoleic acid leukotoxin and isoleukotoxin to omega-hydroxylated metabolites. Contributes to the degradation of very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs) by catalyzing successive omega-oxidations and chain shortening. Plays an important role in vitamin metabolism by chain shortening. Catalyzes omega- hydroxylation of the phytyl chain of tocopherols (forms of vitamin E), with preference for gamma-tocopherols over alpha-tocopherols, thus promoting retention of alpha-tocopherols in tissues. Omega-hydroxylates and inactivates phylloquinone (vitamin K1), and menaquinone-4 (MK-4, a form of vitamin K2), both acting as cofactors in blood coagulation.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of various endogenous substrates, including fatty acids and their oxygenated derivatives (oxylipins). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase). May play a role in inactivation of pro- inflammatory and anti-inflammatory oxylipins during the resolution of inflammation.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of endogenous polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) and their oxygenated derivatives (oxylipins). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon hydrogen bonds, with preference for omega-1 and omega-2 positions. Hydroxylates (5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)-eicosatetraenoic acid (arachidonate) predominantly at omega-2 position to form (18R)- hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid (18R-HETE). Exhibits omega-1 hydroxylase activity toward prostaglandin (PG) H1, PGH2 and PGI2. Catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of PUFAs, including docosahexaenoic and docosapentaenoic acids. Shows little activity against PGD2, PGE1, PGE2, PGF2alpha, and leukotriene B4.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of various endogenous substrates, including fatty acids and their oxygenated derivatives (oxylipins). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes with high efficiency the oxidation of the terminal carbon (omega-oxidation) of 3-hydroxy fatty acids, such as 3-hydroxyhexadecanoic and 3-hydroxyoctadecanoic acids, likely participating in the biosynthesis of long-chain 3- hydroxydicarboxylic acids. Omega- hydroxylates and inactivates phylloquinone (vitamin K1), and menaquinone-4 (MK-4, a form of vitamin K2), both acting as cofactors in blood coagulation. Metabolizes with low efficiciency fatty acids, including (5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)-eicosatetraenoic acid (arachidonate) and its oxygenated metabolite 8-hydroxyeicosatetraenoic acid (8-HETE). Catalyzes N- and O- demethylation of drugs such as erythromycin, benzphetamine, ethylmorphine, chlorpromazine, imipramine and verapamil.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of endogenous polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon hydrogen bonds, with preference for omega-2 position. Metabolizes (5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)- eicosatetraenoic acid (arachidonate) toward 18-hydroxy arachidonate. Catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of PUFAs such as docosapentaenoic and docosahexaenoic acids. Has low omega-hydroxylase activity toward leukotriene B4 and arachidonate. Involved in the metabolism of xenobiotics. Catalyzes the hydroxylation of the antihistamine drug ebastine.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in epidermal ceramide biosynthesis. Hydroxylates the terminal carbon (omega- hydroxylation) of ultra-long-chain fatty acyls (C28-C36) prior to ceramide synthesis. Contributes to the synthesis of three classes of omega-hydroxy-ultra-long chain fatty acylceramides having sphingosine, 6-hydroxysphingosine and phytosphingosine bases, all major lipid components that underlie the permeability barrier of the stratum corneum. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in fatty acid metabolism in the eye. Catalyzes the omega-hydroxylation of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) docosahexaenoate (DHA) and its precursor eicosapentaenoate (EPA), and may contribute to the homeostasis of these retinal PUFAs. Omega hydroxylates saturated fatty acids such as laurate, myristate and palmitate, the catalytic efficiency decreasing in the following order: myristate > laurate > palmitate (C14>C12>C16). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH- ferrihemoprotein reductase).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase that selectively catalyzes the epoxidation of the last double bond of the arachidonoyl moiety of anandamide, potentially modulating endocannabinoid signaling. Has no hydroxylase activity toward various fatty acids, steroids and prostaglandins. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase that catalyzes the in-chain oxidation of fatty acids. Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon-hydrogen bonds. Hydroxylates lauric and myristic acids predominantly at the omega-4 and omega-2 positions, respectively. Catalyzes the epoxidation of double bonds of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA). Displays an absolute stereoselectivity in the epoxidation of arachidonic acid producing the 14(S),15(R)-epoxyeicosatrienoic acid (EET) enantiomer. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in sterol biosynthesis. Catalyzes 14-alpha demethylation of lanosterol and 24,25- dihydrolanosterol likely through sequential oxidative conversion of 14- alpha methyl group to hydroxymethyl, then to carboxylaldehyde, followed by the formation of the delta 14,15 double bond in the sterol core and concomitant release of formic acid. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH- ferrihemoprotein reductase).

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of endogenous cholesterol and its oxygenated derivatives (oxysterols). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase). Functions as a critical regulatory enzyme of bile acid biosynthesis and cholesterol homeostasis. Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon hydrogen bond at 7-alpha position of cholesterol, a rate-limiting step in cholesterol catabolism and bile acid biosynthesis. 7-alpha hydroxylates several oxysterols, including 4beta-hydroxycholesterol and 24- hydroxycholesterol. Catalyzes the oxidation of the 7,8 double bond of 7-dehydrocholesterol and lathosterol with direct and predominant formation of the 7-keto derivatives.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in the metabolism of endogenous oxysterols and steroid hormones, including neurosteroids. Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH-ferrihemoprotein reductase). Catalyzes the hydroxylation of carbon hydrogen bonds of steroids with a preference for 7-alpha position. Usually metabolizes steroids carrying a hydroxy group at position 3, functioning as a 3- hydroxy steroid 7-alpha hydroxylase. Hydroxylates oxysterols, including 25-hydroxycholesterol and (25R)-cholest-5-ene- 3beta,26-diol toward 7-alpha hydroxy derivatives, which may be transported to the liver and converted to bile acids. Via its product 7-alpha,25-dihydroxycholesterol, a ligand for the chemotactic G protein-coupled receptor GPR183/EBI2, regulates B cell migration in germinal centers of lymphoid organs, thus guiding efficient maturation of plasma B cells and overall antigen- specific humoral immune response (By similarity). 7-alpha hydroxylates neurosteroids, including 3beta-hydroxyandrost-5-en-17-one (dehydroepiandrosterone) and pregnenolone, both involved in hippocampus-associated memory and learning. Metabolizes androstanoids toward 6- or 7-alpha hydroxy derivatives.

A cytochrome P450 monooxygenase involved in primary bile acid biosynthesis. Catalyzes the 12alpha-hydroxylation of 7alpha-hydroxy-4- cholesten-3-one, an intermediate metabolite in cholic acid biosynthesis. Controls biliary balance of cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid, ultimately regulating the intestinal absorption of dietary lipids (By similarity). Mechanistically, uses molecular oxygen inserting one oxygen atom into a substrate, and reducing the second into a water molecule, with two electrons provided by NADPH via cytochrome P450 reductase (CPR; NADPH--hemoprotein reductase) (By similarity).

May play a role in translational regulation of stored mRNAs in transcriptionally inactive haploid spermatids. Binds to poly(U) RNA oligomers (By similarity). Required for cell cycle progression, specifically for the transition from metaphase to anaphase.

Sequence-specific RNA-binding protein which acts as a translational repressor in the basal unstimulated state but, following neuronal stimulation, acts as a translational activator (By similarity). In contrast to CPEB1, does not bind to the cytoplasmic polyadenylation element (CPE), a uridine-rich sequence element within the mRNA 3'-UTR, but binds to a U-rich loop within a stem-loop structure (By similarity). Required for the consolidation and maintenance of hippocampal-based long term memory (By similarity). In the basal state, binds to the mRNA 3'-UTR of the glutamate receptors GRIA2/GLUR2 mRNA and negatively regulates their translation (By similarity). Also represses the translation of DLG4, GRIN1, GRIN2A and GRIN2B (By similarity). When activated, acts as a translational activator of GRIA1 and GRIA2 (By similarity). In the basal state, suppresses SUMO2 translation but activates it following neuronal stimulation (By similarity). Binds to the 3'-UTR of TRPV1 mRNA and represses TRPV1 translation which is required to maintain normal thermoception (By similarity). Binds actin mRNA, leading to actin translational repression in the basal state and to translational activation following neuronal stimulation (By similarity). Negatively regulates target mRNA levels by binding to TOB1 which recruits CNOT7/CAF1 to a ternary complex and this leads to target mRNA deadenylation and decay. In addition to its role in translation, binds to and inhibits the transcriptional activation activity of STAT5B without affecting its dimerization or DNA-binding activity. This, in turn, represses transcription of the STAT5B target gene EGFR which has been shown to play a role in enhancing learning and memory performance. In contrast to CPEB1, CPEB2 and CPEB4, not required for cell cycle progression.

Sequence-specific RNA-binding protein that binds to the cytoplasmic polyadenylation element (CPE), an uridine-rich sequence element (consensus sequence 5'-UUUUUAU-3') within the mRNA 3'-UTR. RNA binding results in a clear conformational change analogous to the Venus fly trap mechanism. Regulates activation of unfolded protein response (UPR) in the process of adaptation to ER stress in liver, by maintaining translation of CPE- regulated mRNAs in conditions in which global protein synthesis is inhibited (By similarity). Required for cell cycle progression, specifically for cytokinesis and chromosomal segregation. Plays a role as an oncogene promoting tumor growth and progression by positively regulating translation of t-plasminogen activator/PLAT. Stimulates proliferation of melanocytes. In contrast to CPEB1 and CPEB3, does not play role in synaptic plasticity, learning and memory (By similarity).

Component of the cytosolic iron-sulfur (Fe-S) protein assembly (CIA) machinery required for the maturation of extramitochondrial Fe-S proteins. Part of an electron transfer chain functioning in an early step of cytosolic Fe-S biogenesis, facilitating the de novo assembly of a [4Fe-4S] cluster on the scaffold complex NUBP1-NUBP2. Electrons are transferred to CIAPIN1 from NADPH via the FAD- and FMN-containing protein NDOR1. NDOR1-CIAPIN1 are also required for the assembly of the diferric tyrosyl radical cofactor of ribonucleotide reductase (RNR), probably by providing electrons for reduction during radical cofactor maturation in the catalytic small subunit (By similarity). Has anti-apoptotic effects in the cell. Involved in negative control of cell death upon cytokine withdrawal. Promotes development of hematopoietic cells (By similarity).

Potential effector of the planar cell polarity signaling pathway. Plays a role in targeted membrane trafficking most probably at the level of vesicle fusion with membranes. Involved in cilium biogenesis by regulating the transport of cargo proteins to the basal body and to the apical tips of cilia. More generally involved in exocytosis in secretory cells (By similarity).

Positively regulates a late step in exocytosis of various cytoplasmic vesicles, such as synaptic vesicles and other secretory vesicles. Organizes the SNAREs into a cross-linked zigzag topology that, when interposed between the vesicle and plasma membranes, is incompatible with fusion, thereby preventing SNAREs from releasing neurotransmitters until an action potential arrives at the synapse. Also involved in glucose-induced secretion of insulin by pancreatic beta-cells. Essential for motor behavior.

Negatively regulates the formation of synaptic vesicle clustering at active zone to the presynaptic membrane in postmitotic neurons. Positively regulates a late step in exocytosis of various cytoplasmic vesicles, such as synaptic vesicles and other secretory vesicles. Also involved in mast cell exocytosis (By similarity).

Complexin that regulates SNARE protein complex-mediated synaptic vesicle fusion (By similarity). Required for the maintenance of synaptic ultrastructure in the adult retina (By similarity). Positively regulates synaptic transmission through synaptic vesicle availability and exocytosis of neurotransmitters at photoreceptor ribbon synapses in the retina (By similarity). Suppresses tonic photoreceptor activity and baseline 'noise' by suppression of Ca(2+) vesicle tonic release and the facilitation of evoked synchronous and asynchronous Ca(2+) vesicle release (By similarity).

The 83 kDa subunit binds and stabilizes the catalytic subunit at 37 degrees Celsius and keeps it in circulation. Under some circumstances it may be an allosteric modifier of the catalytic subunit

Calcium-dependent phospholipid-binding protein that plays a role in calcium-mediated intracellular processes. Involved in the TNF-alpha receptor signaling pathway in a calcium- dependent manner. Exhibits calcium-dependent phospholipid binding properties. Plays a role in neuronal progenitor cell differentiation; induces neurite outgrowth via a AKT-dependent signaling cascade and calcium- independent manner. May recruit target proteins to the cell membrane in a calcium-dependent manner. May function in membrane trafficking. Involved in TNF-alpha-induced NF-kappa-B transcriptional repression by inducing endoprotease processing of the transcription factor NF-kappa-B p65/RELA subunit. Also induces endoprotease processing of NF-kappa-B p50/NFKB1, p52/NFKB2, RELB and REL.

Calcium-dependent phospholipid-binding protein that plays a role in calcium-mediated intracellular processes. Exhibits calcium- dependent cell membrane binding properties.

Calcium-dependent phospholipid-binding protein that plays a role in ERBB2-mediated tumor cell migration in response to growth factor heregulin stimulation.

Probable calcium-dependent phospholipid-binding protein that may play a role in calcium-mediated intracellular processes.

Probable calcium-dependent phospholipid-binding protein that may play a role in calcium-mediated intracellular processes (By similarity). Plays a role in dendrite formation by melanocytes.

Calcium-dependent phospholipid-binding protein that plays a role in calcium-mediated intracellular processes. Binds phospholipid membranes in a calcium-dependent manner (By similarity). Plays a role in dendrite formation by melanocytes.

Calcium-dependent phospholipid-binding protein that may play a role in calcium-mediated intracellular processes.

Regulatory subunit of the calcium-regulated non-lysosomal thiol-protease which catalyzes limited proteolysis of substrates involved in cytoskeletal remodeling and signal transduction. Essential for embryonic development (By similarity).

Calcium-regulated non-lysosomal thiol-protease which catalyzes limited proteolysis of substrates involved in cytoskeletal remodeling and signal transduction. This small subunit may act as a tissue-specific chaperone of the large subunit, possibly by helping it fold into its correct conformation for activity

Protein phosphatase that dephosphorylates AKT family kinase specifically at 'Ser-473', blocking cell cycle progression and promoting cell apoptosis. May play an inhibitory role in glucose uptake by adipocytes.

Component of the cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor (CPSF) complex that plays a key role in pre-mRNA 3'-end formation, recognizing the AAUAAA signal sequence and interacting with poly(A) polymerase and other factors to bring about cleavage and poly(A) addition. This subunit is involved in the RNA recognition step of the polyadenylation reaction. May play a role in eye morphogenesis and the development of retinal ganglion cell projections to the midbrain (By similarity).

Component of the cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor (CPSF) complex that play a key role in pre-mRNA 3'-end formation, recognizing the AAUAAA signal sequence and interacting with poly(A) polymerase and other factors to bring about cleavage and poly(A) addition. Involved in the histone 3' end pre-mRNA processing.

Component of the cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor (CPSF) complex that plays a key role in pre-mRNA 3'-end formation, recognizing the AAUAAA signal sequence and interacting with poly(A) polymerase and other factors to bring about cleavage and poly(A) addition. Has endonuclease activity, and functions as mRNA 3'- end-processing endonuclease. Also involved in the histone 3'-end pre-mRNA processing. U7 snRNP- dependent protein that induces both the 3'-endoribonucleolytic cleavage of histone pre-mRNAs and acts as a 5' to 3' exonuclease for degrading the subsequent downstream cleavage product (DCP) of mature histone mRNAs. Cleavage occurs after the 5'-ACCCA-3' sequence in the histone pre-mRNA leaving a 3'hydroxyl group on the upstream fragment containing the stem loop (SL) and 5' phosphate on the downstream cleavage product (DCP) starting with CU nucleotides. The U7-dependent 5' to 3' exonuclease activity is processive and degrades the DCP RNA substrate even after complete removal of the U7-binding site. Binds to the downstream cleavage product (DCP) of histone pre-mRNAs and the cleaved DCP RNA substrate in a U7 snRNP dependent manner. Required for entering/progressing through S-phase of the cell cycle. Required for the selective processing of microRNAs (miRNAs) during embryonic stem cell differentiation via its interaction with ISY1 (By similarity). Required for the biogenesis of all miRNAs from the pri-miR-17-92 primary transcript except miR-92a (By similarity). Only required for the biogenesis of miR-290 and miR-96 from the pri-miR-290-295 and pri-miR-96-183 primary transcripts, respectively (By similarity).

Component of the cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor (CPSF) complex that play a key role in pre-mRNA 3'-end formation, recognizing the AAUAAA signal sequence and interacting with poly(A) polymerase and other factors to bring about cleavage and poly(A) addition. CPSF4 binds RNA polymers with a preference for poly(U).

Component of the cleavage factor Im (CFIm) complex that functions as an activator of the pre-mRNA 3'-end cleavage and polyadenylation processing required for the maturation of pre-mRNA into functional mRNAs. CFIm contributes to the recruitment of multiprotein complexes on specific sequences on the pre-mRNA 3'-end, so called cleavage and polyadenylation signals (pA signals). Most pre-mRNAs contain multiple pA signals, resulting in alternative cleavage and polyadenylation (APA) producing mRNAs with variable 3'-end formation. The CFIm complex acts as a key regulator of cleavage and polyadenylation site choice during APA through its binding to 5'-UGUA-3' elements localized in the 3'- untranslated region (UTR) for a huge number of pre-mRNAs. NUDT21/CPSF5 activates indirectly the mRNA 3'-processing machinery by recruiting CPSF6 and/or CPSF7. Binds to 5'-UGUA-3' elements localized upstream of pA signals that act as enhancers of pre-mRNA 3'- end processing. The homodimer mediates simultaneous sequence-specific recognition of two 5'-UGUA-3' elements within the pre-mRNA. Plays a role in somatic cell fate transitions and pluripotency by regulating widespread changes in gene expression through an APA-dependent function (By similarity). Binds to chromatin (By similarity). Binds to, but does not hydrolyze mono- and di-adenosine nucleotides.

Component of the cleavage factor Im (CFIm) complex that functions as an activator of the pre-mRNA 3'-end cleavage and polyadenylation processing required for the maturation of pre-mRNA into functional mRNAs. CFIm contributes to the recruitment of multiprotein complexes on specific sequences on the pre-mRNA 3'-end, so called cleavage and polyadenylation signals (pA signals). Most pre-mRNAs contain multiple pA signals, resulting in alternative cleavage and polyadenylation (APA) producing mRNAs with variable 3'-end formation. The CFIm complex acts as a key regulator of cleavage and polyadenylation site choice during APA through its binding to 5'- UGUA-3' elements localized in the 3'-untranslated region (UTR) for a huge number of pre-mRNAs. CPSF6 enhances NUDT21/CPSF5 binding to 5'-UGUA-3' elements localized upstream of pA signals and promotes RNA looping, and hence activates directly the mRNA 3'-processing machinery. Plays a role in mRNA export.

Component of the cleavage factor Im (CFIm) complex that functions as an activator of the pre-mRNA 3'-end cleavage and polyadenylation processing required for the maturation of pre-mRNA into functional mRNAs. CFIm contributes to the recruitment of multiprotein complexes on specific sequences on the pre-mRNA 3'-end, so called cleavage and polyadenylation signals (pA signals). Most pre-mRNAs contain multiple pA signals, resulting in alternative cleavage and polyadenylation (APA) producing mRNAs with variable 3'-end formation. The CFIm complex acts as a key regulator of cleavage and polyadenylation site choice during APA through its binding to 5'-UGUA-3' elements localized in the 3'- untranslated region (UTR) for a huge number of pre-mRNAs. CPSF7 activates directly the mRNA 3'-processing machinery. Binds to pA signals in RNA substrates.

Involved in the urea cycle of ureotelic animals where the enzyme plays an important role in removing excess ammonia from the cell

Catalyzes the transfer of the acyl group of long-chain fatty acid-CoA conjugates onto carnitine, an essential step for the mitochondrial uptake of long-chain fatty acids and their subsequent beta-oxidation in the mitochondrion. Plays an important role in hepatic triglyceride metabolism (By similarity).

Involved in the intramitochondrial synthesis of acylcarnitines from accumulated acyl-CoA metabolites. Reconverts acylcarnitines back into the respective acyl-CoA esters that can then undergo beta-oxidation, an essential step for the mitochondrial uptake of long-chain fatty acids and their subsequent beta-oxidation in the mitochondrion. Active with medium (C8- C12) and long-chain (C14-C18) acyl-CoA esters.

Mediates the intracellular transfer of ceramide-1-phosphate (C1P) between organelle membranes and the cell membrane. Required for normal structure of the Golgi stacks. Can bind phosphoceramides with a variety of aliphatic chains, but has a preference for lipids with saturated C16:0 or monounsaturated C18:1 aliphatic chains, and is inefficient with phosphoceramides containing lignoceryl (C24:0). Plays a role in the regulation of the cellular levels of ceramide-1- phosphate, and thereby contributes to the regulation of phospholipase PLA2G4A activity and the release of arachidonic acid. Has no activity with galactosylceramide, lactosylceramide, sphingomyelin, phosphatidylcholine, phosphatidic acid and ceramide. C1P transfer is stimulated by phosphatidylserine in C1P source vesicles. Regulates autophagy, inflammasome mediated IL1B and IL18 processing, and pyroptosis, but not apoptosis.

May be involved in the digestion of phagocytosed particles in the lysosome, participation in an inflammatory protease cascade, and trimming of peptides for antigen presentation

May be involved in cell-cell interactions. No carboxypeptidase activity was found yet (By similarity).

Stress-induced phosphorylation of CAPZIP may regulate the ability of F-actin-capping protein to remodel actin filament assembly.

Required for the function of coenzyme Q in the respiratory chain. May serve as a chaperone or may be involved in the transport of Q6 from its site of synthesis to the catalytic sites of the respiratory complexes (Probable).

Required for the function of coenzyme Q in the respiratory chain. May serve as a chaperone or may be involved in the transport of Q6 from its site of synthesis to the catalytic sites of the respiratory complexes (By similarity).

AMPK substrate important for exercise capacity and skeletal muscle function. Required for normal contraction-induced signaling.

Receptor for complement C3, for the Epstein-Barr virus on human B-cells and T-cells and for HNRNPU. Participates in B lymphocytes activation.

Transcription factor involved in unfolded protein response (UPR). Binds the DNA consensus sequence 5'-GTGXGCXGC-3'. In the absence of endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress, inserted into ER membranes, with N-terminal DNA-binding and transcription activation domains oriented toward the cytosolic face of the membrane. In response to ER stress, transported to the Golgi, where it is cleaved in a site-specific manner by resident proteases S1P/MBTPS1 and S2P/MBTPS2. The released N-terminal cytosolic domain is translocated to the nucleus to effect transcription of specific target genes. Plays a critical role in bone formation through the transcription of COL1A1, and possibly COL1A2, and the secretion of bone matrix proteins. Directly binds to the UPR element (UPRE)-like sequence in an osteoblast-specific COL1A1 promoter region and induces its transcription. Does not regulate COL1A1 in other tissues, such as skin (By similarity). Required to protect astrocytes from ER stress-induced cell death. In astrocytes, binds to the cAMP response element (CRE) of the BiP/HSPA5 promoter and participate in its transcriptional activation (By similarity). Required for TGFB1 to activate genes involved in the assembly of collagen extracellular matrix.

Transcription factor involved in unfolded protein response (UPR). In the absence of endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress, inserted into ER membranes, with N-terminal DNA-binding and transcription activation domains oriented toward the cytosolic face of the membrane. In response to ER stress, transported to the Golgi, where it is cleaved in a site-specific manner by resident proteases S1P/MBTPS1 and S2P/MBTPS2. The released N-terminal cytosolic domain is translocated to the nucleus to effect transcription of specific target genes. Plays a critical role in chondrogenesis by activating the transcription of SEC23A, which promotes the transport and secretion of cartilage matrix proteins, and possibly that of ER biogenesis-related genes (By similarity). In a neuroblastoma cell line, protects cells from ER stress-induced death. In vitro activates transcription of target genes via direct binding to the CRE site.

Transcription factor that may act during endoplasmic reticulum stress by activating unfolded protein response target genes. Activated in response to cAMP stimulation. In vitro, binds to the cAMP response element (CRE) and box-B element. Activates transcription through box-B element. Activates transcription through CRE (By similarity). May function synergistically with ATF6. In acute inflammatory response, may activate expression of acute phase response (APR) genes. May be involved in growth suppression. Regulates FGF21 transcription (By similarity). Plays a crucial role in the regulation of triglyceride metabolism and is required for the maintenance of normal plasma triglyceride concentrations.

Transcriptional activator that may play a role in the unfolded protein response. Binds to the UPR element (UPRE) but not to CRE element. Preferentially binds DNA with to the consensus sequence 5'-T[GT]ACGT[GA][GT]-3' and has transcriptional activation activity from UPRE. Binds to NF-kappa-B site and has transcriptional activation activity from NF-kappa-B-containing regulatory elements (By similarity).

Involved in epithelial cell integrity by acting on the maintenance of the actin cytoskeleton. Positively regulates the actin polymerization, by inhibiting the interaction of actin-capping proteins with actin.

Adapter protein that associates with PIDD1 and the caspase CASP2 to form the PIDDosome, a complex that activates CASP2 and triggers apoptosis. Also recruits CASP2 to the TNFR-1 signaling complex through its interaction with RIPK1 and TRADD and may play a role in the tumor necrosis factor-mediated signaling pathway.

Crystallins are the dominant structural components of the vertebrate eye lens

[Isoform vlAKAP]: Anchoring protein that mediates the subcellular compartmentation of protein kinase A (PKA).

Probable regulator of CREB1 transcriptional activity which is involved in adipose cells differentiation. May also play a regulatory role in the cell cycle. Identification in a chromosomal region frequently deleted in various cancers suggests that it might act as a tumor suppressor.

Substrate recognition component of a DCX (DDB1-CUL4-X-box) E3 protein ligase complex that mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins, such as MEIS2 or ILF2. Normal degradation of key regulatory proteins is required for normal limb outgrowth and expression of the fibroblast growth factor FGF8. Maintains presynaptic glutamate release and consequently cognitive functions, such as memory and learning, by negatively regulating large-conductance calcium-activated potassium (BK) channels in excitatory neurons. Likely to function by regulating the assembly and neuronal surface expression of BK channels via its interaction with KCNT1. May also be involved in regulating anxiety-like behaviors via a BK channel-independent mechanism (By similarity).

Candidate for the putative colorectal tumor suppressor gene located at 5q21. Suppresses cell proliferation and the Wnt/b-catenin pathway in colorectal cancer cells. Inhibits DNA binding of b- catenin/TCF/LEF transcription factors. Involved in cell migration independently of RAC1, CDC42 and p21-activated kinase (PAK) activation. Represses the beta-catenin pathway (canonical Wnt signaling pathway) in a CCAR2- dependent manner by sequestering CCAR2 to the cytoplasm, thereby impairing its ability to inhibit SIRT1 which is involved in the deacetylation and negative regulation of beta-catenin (CTNB1) transcriptional activity.

Antagonizes the function of BMP4 by binding to it and preventing its interaction with receptors. Alters the fate commitment of neural stem cells from gliogenesis to neurogenesis. Contributes to neuronal differentiation of neural stem cells in the brain by preventing the adoption of a glial fate. May play a crucial role in dorsoventral axis formation. May play a role in embryonic bone formation (By similarity). May also play an important role in regulating retinal angiogenesis through modulation of BMP4 actions in endothelial cells. Plays a role during anterior segment eye development.

May inhibit BMPs activity by blocking their interaction with their receptors. Has a negative regulator effect on the cartilage formation/regeneration from immature mesenchymal cells, by preventing or reducing the rate of matrix accumulation (By similarity). Implicated in tumor angiogenesis. May play a role during myoblast and osteoblast differentiation, and maturation.

Phosphorylation-dependent transcription factor that stimulates transcription upon binding to the DNA cAMP response element (CRE), a sequence present in many viral and cellular promoters. Transcription activation is enhanced by the TORC coactivators which act independently of Ser-119 phosphorylation. Involved in different cellular processes including the synchronization of circadian rhythmicity and the differentiation of adipose cells

Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-bound sequence-specific transcription factor that directly binds DNA and activates transcription. Plays a role in the unfolded protein response (UPR), promoting cell survival versus ER stress-induced apoptotic cell death. Also involved in cell proliferation, migration and differentiation, tumor suppression and inflammatory gene expression. Acts as a positive regulator of LKN- 1/CCL15-induced chemotaxis signaling of leukocyte cell migration. Associates with chromatin to the HERPUD1 promoter. Also induces transcriptional activation of chemokine receptors.

May contribute to the transcriptional control of cell growth and differentiation. Antagonizes transcriptional activation and cellular transformation by the adenovirus E1A protein. The transcriptional control activity of cell growth requires interaction with IGF2R.

Protein disulfide isomerase (By similarity). Promotes the localization of acetylcholine receptors (AChRs) to the plasma membrane (By similarity).

Protein disulfide isomerase (By similarity). Might play a role in the unfolded protein response (By similarity). May regulate transport of alpha4-beta2 neuronal acetylcholine receptor.

Transcriptional regulator that binds the cAMP response element (CRE), a sequence present in many viral and cellular promoters. Isoforms are either transcriptional activators or repressors. Plays a role in spermatogenesis and is involved in spermatid maturation.

Acts as a negative regulator of the endoplasmic reticulum stress response or unfolded protein response (UPR). Represses the transcriptional activity of CREB3 during the UPR. Recruits CREB3 into nuclear foci.

Transcriptional activator which is required for calcium- dependent dendritic growth and branching in cortical neurons. Recruits CREB-binding protein (CREBBP) to nuclear bodies. Component of the CREST-BRG1 complex, a multiprotein complex that regulates promoter activation by orchestrating a calcium-dependent release of a repressor complex and a recruitment of an activator complex. In resting neurons, transcription of the c-FOS promoter is inhibited by BRG1-dependent recruitment of a phospho-RB1-HDAC1 repressor complex. Upon calcium influx, RB1 is dephosphorylated by calcineurin, which leads to release of the repressor complex. At the same time, there is increased recruitment of CREBBP to the promoter by a CREST-dependent mechanism, which leads to transcriptional activation. The CREST-BRG1 complex also binds to the NR2B promoter, and activity-dependent induction of NR2B expression involves a release of HDAC1 and recruitment of CREBBP (By similarity).

G-protein coupled receptor for CRH (corticotropin-releasing factor) and UCN (urocortin). Has high affinity for CRH and UCN. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and down-stream effectors, such as adenylate cyclase. Promotes the activation of adenylate cyclase, leading to increased intracellular cAMP levels. Inhibits the activity of the calcium channel CACNA1H. Required for normal embryonic development of the adrenal gland and for normal hormonal responses to stress. Plays a role in the response to anxiogenic stimuli.

G-protein coupled receptor for CRH (corticotropin-releasing factor), UCN (urocortin), UCN2 and UCN3. Has high affinity for UCN. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and down-stream effectors, such as adenylate cyclase. Promotes the activation of adenylate cyclase, leading to increased intracellular cAMP levels

Hormone regulating the release of corticotropin from pituitary gland (By similarity). Induces NLRP6 in intestinal epithelial cells, hence may influence gut microbiota profile (By similarity).

Binds CRF and inactivates it. May prevent inappropriate pituitary-adrenal stimulation in pregnancy

May play a role in CNS development by interacting with growth factors implicated in motor neuron differentiation and survival. May play a role in capillary formation and maintenance during angiogenesis. Modulates BMP activity by affecting its processing and delivery to the cell surface.

Seems to have a role in zinc absorption and may function as an intracellular zinc transport protein

Involved in the cytoskeletal anchoring of DLG4 in excitatory synapses.

May regulate some ion channels' activity and therebye regulate calcium fluxes during sperm capacitation.

Involved in cell branching and adhesion mediated by BCAR1- CRK-RAPGEF1 signaling and activation of RAP1.

In complex with CLCF1, forms a heterodimeric neurotropic cytokine that plays a crucial role during neuronal development (Probable). May also play a regulatory role in the immune system.

Receptor for thymic stromal lymphopoietin (TSLP). Forms a functional complex with TSLP and IL7R which is capable of stimulating cell proliferation through activation of STAT3 and STAT5. Also activates JAK2 (By similarity). Implicated in the development of the hematopoietic system.

May play a role in the negative regulation of cell cycle progression.

Catalyzes the synthesis of cardiolipin (CL) (diphosphatidylglycerol) by specifically transferring a phosphatidyl group from CDP-diacylglycerol to phosphatidylglycerol (PG). CL is a key phospholipid in mitochondrial membranes and plays important roles in maintaining the functional integrity and dynamics of mitochondria under both optimal and stress conditions.

Promotes cell proliferation, G1/S cell cycle progression and induces expression of the cell cycle regulator CCND1. Regulates proliferation induced by pro-inflammatory cytokine response via activation of NFKB1 and PI3K/AKT signaling pathways.

Catalyzes the synthesis of carnosine and homocarnosine. Carnosine is synthesized more efficiently than homocarnosine.

Major structural component of the ciliary rootlet, a cytoskeletal-like structure in ciliated cells which originates from the basal body at the proximal end of a cilium and extends proximally toward the cell nucleus (By similarity). Furthermore, is required for the correct positioning of the cilium basal body relative to the cell nucleus, to allow for ciliogenesis. Contributes to centrosome cohesion before mitosis.

Displays several functions associated with host defense: it promotes agglutination, bacterial capsular swelling, phagocytosis and complement fixation through its calcium-dependent binding to phosphorylcholine. Can interact with DNA and histones and may scavenge nuclear material released from damaged circulating cells

Mediates heterophilic cell-cell adhesion which regulates the activation, differentiation and tissue retention of various T-cell subsets (By similarity). Interaction with CADM1 promotes natural killer (NK) cell cytotoxicity and IFNG/interferon-gamma secretion by CD8+ T- cells in vitro as well as NK cell-mediated rejection of tumors expressing CADM1 in vivo. Regulates CD8+ T-cell proliferation in response to T-cell receptor (TCR) activation (By similarity). Appears to be dispensable for CD8+ T-cell-mediated cytotoxicity (By similarity). Interaction with SCRIB promotes the late phase of cellular polarization of a subset of CD4+ T-cells, which in turn regulates TCR-mediated proliferation and IFNG, IL17 and IL22 production (By similarity). By interacting with CADM1 on CD8+ dendritic cells, regulates the retention of activated CD8+ T-cells within the draining lymph node (By similarity). Required for the intestinal retention of intraepithelial CD4+ CD8+ T-cells and, to a lesser extent, intraepithelial and lamina propria CD8+ T-cells and CD4+ T-cells (By similarity). Interaction with CADM1 promotes the adhesion to gut- associated CD103+ dendritic cells, which may facilitate the expression of gut-homing and adhesion molecules on T-cells and the conversion of CD4+ T-cells into CD4+ CD8+ T-cells (By similarity).

Necessary for efficient 3-hydroxylation of fibrillar collagen prolyl residues.

Transcriptional coactivator for CREB1 which activates transcription through both consensus and variant cAMP response element (CRE) sites. Acts as a coactivator, in the SIK/TORC signaling pathway, being active when dephosphorylated and acts independently of CREB1 'Ser-133' phosphorylation. Enhances the interaction of CREB1 with TAF4. Regulates the expression of specific CREB-activated genes such as the steroidogenic gene, StAR. Potent coactivator of PGC1alpha and inducer of mitochondrial biogenesis in muscle cells. In the hippocampus, involved in late-phase long-term potentiation (L-LTP) maintenance at the Schaffer collateral-CA1 synapses. May be required for dendritic growth of developing cortical neurons (By similarity). In concert with SIK1, regulates the light-induced entrainment of the circadian clock. In response to light stimulus, coactivates the CREB-mediated transcription of PER1 which plays an important role in the photic entrainment of the circadian clock.

Transcriptional coactivator for CREB1 which activates transcription through both consensus and variant cAMP response element (CRE) sites. Acts as a coactivator, in the SIK/TORC signaling pathway, being active when dephosphorylated and acts independently of CREB1 'Ser-133' phosphorylation. Enhances the interaction of CREB1 with TAF4. Regulates gluconeogenesis as a component of the LKB1/AMPK/TORC2 signaling pathway. Regulates the expression of specific genes such as the steroidogenic gene, StAR. Potent coactivator of PPARGC1A and inducer of mitochondrial biogenesis in muscle cells. Also coactivator for TAX activation of the human T-cell leukemia virus type 1 (HTLV-1) long terminal repeats (LTR).

Transcriptional coactivator for CREB1 which activates transcription through both consensus and variant cAMP response element (CRE) sites. Acts as a coactivator, in the SIK/TORC signaling pathway, being active when dephosphorylated and acts independently of CREB1 'Ser-133' phosphorylation. Enhances the interaction of CREB1 with TAF4. Regulates the expression of specific CREB-activated genes such as the steroidogenic gene, StAR. Potent coactivator of PPARGC1A and inducer of mitochondrial biogenesis in muscle cells. Also coactivator for TAX activation of the human T-cell leukemia virus type 1 (HTLV-1) long terminal repeats (LTR).

Plays a role in photoreceptor morphogenesis in the retina (By similarity). May maintain cell polarization and adhesion (By similarity).

Apical polarity protein that plays a central role during the epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT) at gastrulation, when newly specified mesodermal cells move inside the embryo (By similarity). Acts by promoting cell ingression, the process by which cells leave the epithelial epiblast and move inside the embryo to form a new tissue layer (By similarity). The anisotropic distribution of CRB2 and MYH10/myosin-IIB at cell edges define which cells will ingress: cells with high apical CRB2 are probably extruded from the epiblast by neighboring cells with high levels of apical MYH10/myosin-IIB (By similarity). Plays a role in the maintenance of retinal neuroepithelium organization, structural integrity, adhesion, photoreceptor polarity and retinal photoreceptor layer thickness (By similarity). May play a role in determining the length of cone photoreceptor outer segments and proliferation of late-born progenitor cells (By similarity). Also required for maintenance of the apical polarity complex during development of the cortex (By similarity). Inhibits gamma-secretase- dependent cleavage of APP and secretion of amyloid-beta peptide 40 and amyloid-beta peptide 42, and thereby inhibits gamma-secretase-dependent Notch transcription.

Involved in the establishment of cell polarity in mammalian epithelial cells. Regulates the morphogenesis of tight junctions. Involved in promoting phosphorylation and cytoplasmic retention of transcriptional coactivators YAP1 and WWTR1/TAZ which leads to suppression of TGFB1-dependent transcription of target genes such as CCN2/CTGF, SERPINE1/PAI1, SNAI1/SNAIL1 and SMAD7 (By similarity).

Transcription factor that binds and transactivates the sequence 5'-TAATC[CA]-3' which is found upstream of several photoreceptor-specific genes, including the opsin genes. Acts synergistically with other transcription factors, such as NRL, RORB and RAX, to regulate photoreceptor cell-specific gene transcription. Essential for the maintenance of mammalian photoreceptors.

Transcriptional repressor which forms a core component of the circadian clock. The circadian clock, an internal time-keeping system, regulates various physiological processes through the generation of approximately 24 hour circadian rhythms in gene expression, which are translated into rhythms in metabolism and behavior. It is derived from the Latin roots 'circa' (about) and 'diem' (day) and acts as an important regulator of a wide array of physiological functions including metabolism, sleep, body temperature, blood pressure, endocrine, immune, cardiovascular, and renal function. Consists of two major components: the central clock, residing in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the brain, and the peripheral clocks that are present in nearly every tissue and organ system. Both the central and peripheral clocks can be reset by environmental cues, also known as Zeitgebers (German for 'timegivers'). The predominant Zeitgeber for the central clock is light, which is sensed by retina and signals directly to the SCN. The central clock entrains the peripheral clocks through neuronal and hormonal signals, body temperature and feeding-related cues, aligning all clocks with the external light/dark cycle. Circadian rhythms allow an organism to achieve temporal homeostasis with its environment at the molecular level by regulating gene expression to create a peak of protein expression once every 24 hours to control when a particular physiological process is most active with respect to the solar day. Transcription and translation of core clock components (CLOCK, NPAS2, BMAL1, BMAL2, PER1, PER2, PER3, CRY1 and CRY2) plays a critical role in rhythm generation, whereas delays imposed by post- translational modifications (PTMs) are important for determining the period (tau) of the rhythms (tau refers to the period of a rhythm and is the length, in time, of one complete cycle). A diurnal rhythm is synchronized with the day/night cycle, while the ultradian and infradian rhythms have a period shorter and longer than 24 hours, respectively. Disruptions in the circadian rhythms contribute to the pathology of cardiovascular diseases, cancer, metabolic syndromes and aging. A transcription/translation feedback loop (TTFL) forms the core of the molecular circadian clock mechanism. Transcription factors, CLOCK or NPAS2 and BMAL1 or BMAL2, form the positive limb of the feedback loop, act in the form of a heterodimer and activate the transcription of core clock genes and clock-controlled genes (involved in key metabolic processes), harboring E-box elements (5'-CACGTG-3') within their promoters. The core clock genes: PER1/2/3 and CRY1/2 which are transcriptional repressors form the negative limb of the feedback loop and interact with the CLOCK|NPAS2-BMAL1|BMAL2 heterodimer inhibiting its activity and thereby negatively regulating their own expression. This heterodimer also activates nuclear receptors NR1D1/2 and RORA/B/G, which form a second feedback loop and which activate and repress BMAL1 transcription, respectively. CRY1 and CRY2 have redundant functions but also differential and selective contributions at least in defining the pace of the SCN circadian clock and its circadian transcriptional outputs. More potent transcriptional repressor in cerebellum and liver than CRY2, though more effective in lengthening the period of the SCN oscillator. On its side, CRY2 seems to play a critical role in tuning SCN circadian period by opposing the action of CRY1. With CRY2, is dispensable for circadian rhythm generation but necessary for the development of intercellular networks for rhythm synchrony. Capable of translocating circadian clock core proteins such as PER proteins to the nucleus. Interacts with CLOCK-BMAL1 independently of PER proteins and is found at CLOCK-BMAL1-bound sites, suggesting that CRY may act as a molecular gatekeeper to maintain CLOCK-BMAL1 in a poised and repressed state until the proper time for transcriptional activation. Represses the CLOCK-BMAL1 induced transcription of BHLHE40/DEC1. Represses the CLOCK-BMAL1 induced transcription of ATF4, MTA1, KLF10 and NAMPT (By similarity). May repress circadian target genes expression in collaboration with HDAC1 and HDAC2 through histone deacetylation. Mediates the clock-control activation of ATR and modulates ATR-mediated DNA damage checkpoint. In liver, mediates circadian regulation of cAMP signaling and gluconeogenesis by binding to membrane-coupled G proteins and blocking glucagon-mediated increases in intracellular cAMP concentrations and CREB1 phosphorylation. Inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis by decreasing nuclear FOXO1 levels that down-regulates gluconeogenic gene expression (By similarity). Besides its role in the maintenance of the circadian clock, is also involved in the regulation of other processes. Represses glucocorticoid receptor NR3C1/GR-induced transcriptional activity by binding to glucocorticoid response elements (GREs). Plays a key role in glucose and lipid metabolism modulation, in part, through the transcriptional regulation of genes involved in these pathways, such as LEP or ACSL4 (By similarity). Represses PPARD and its target genes in the skeletal muscle and limits exercise capacity (By similarity). Plays an essential role in the generation of circadian rhythms in the retina (By similarity). Represses the transcriptional activity of NR1I2 (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor which forms a core component of the circadian clock. The circadian clock, an internal time-keeping system, regulates various physiological processes through the generation of approximately 24 hour circadian rhythms in gene expression, which are translated into rhythms in metabolism and behavior. It is derived from the Latin roots 'circa' (about) and 'diem' (day) and acts as an important regulator of a wide array of physiological functions including metabolism, sleep, body temperature, blood pressure, endocrine, immune, cardiovascular, and renal function. Consists of two major components: the central clock, residing in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the brain, and the peripheral clocks that are present in nearly every tissue and organ system. Both the central and peripheral clocks can be reset by environmental cues, also known as Zeitgebers (German for 'timegivers'). The predominant Zeitgeber for the central clock is light, which is sensed by retina and signals directly to the SCN. The central clock entrains the peripheral clocks through neuronal and hormonal signals, body temperature and feeding-related cues, aligning all clocks with the external light/dark cycle. Circadian rhythms allow an organism to achieve temporal homeostasis with its environment at the molecular level by regulating gene expression to create a peak of protein expression once every 24 hours to control when a particular physiological process is most active with respect to the solar day. Transcription and translation of core clock components (CLOCK, NPAS2, BMAL1, BMAL2, PER1, PER2, PER3, CRY1 and CRY2) plays a critical role in rhythm generation, whereas delays imposed by post- translational modifications (PTMs) are important for determining the period (tau) of the rhythms (tau refers to the period of a rhythm and is the length, in time, of one complete cycle). A diurnal rhythm is synchronized with the day/night cycle, while the ultradian and infradian rhythms have a period shorter and longer than 24 hours, respectively. Disruptions in the circadian rhythms contribute to the pathology of cardiovascular diseases, cancer, metabolic syndromes and aging. A transcription/translation feedback loop (TTFL) forms the core of the molecular circadian clock mechanism. Transcription factors, CLOCK or NPAS2 and BMAL1 or BMAL2, form the positive limb of the feedback loop, act in the form of a heterodimer and activate the transcription of core clock genes and clock-controlled genes (involved in key metabolic processes), harboring E-box elements (5'-CACGTG-3') within their promoters. The core clock genes: PER1/2/3 and CRY1/2 which are transcriptional repressors form the negative limb of the feedback loop and interact with the CLOCK|NPAS2-BMAL1|BMAL2 heterodimer inhibiting its activity and thereby negatively regulating their own expression. This heterodimer also activates nuclear receptors NR1D1/2 and RORA/B/G, which form a second feedback loop and which activate and repress BMAL1 transcription, respectively. CRY1 and CRY2 have redundant functions but also differential and selective contributions at least in defining the pace of the SCN circadian clock and its circadian transcriptional outputs. Less potent transcriptional repressor in cerebellum and liver than CRY1, though less effective in lengthening the period of the SCN oscillator. Seems to play a critical role in tuning SCN circadian period by opposing the action of CRY1. With CRY1, dispensable for circadian rhythm generation but necessary for the development of intercellular networks for rhythm synchrony. May mediate circadian regulation of cAMP signaling and gluconeogenesis by blocking glucagon-mediated increases in intracellular cAMP concentrations and in CREB1 phosphorylation. Besides its role in the maintenance of the circadian clock, is also involved in the regulation of other processes. Plays a key role in glucose and lipid metabolism modulation, in part, through the transcriptional regulation of genes involved in these pathways, such as LEP or ACSL4. Represses glucocorticoid receptor NR3C1/GR-induced transcriptional activity by binding to glucocorticoid response elements (GREs). Represses the CLOCK-BMAL1 induced transcription of BHLHE40/DEC1. Represses the CLOCK-BMAL1 induced transcription of NAMPT (By similarity). Represses PPARD and its target genes in the skeletal muscle and limits exercise capacity (By similarity). Represses the transcriptional activity of NR1I2 (By similarity).

Contributes to the transparency and refractive index of the lens. In its oxidized form (absence of intramolecular disulfide bond), acts as a chaperone, preventing aggregation of various proteins under a wide range of stress conditions. Required for the correct formation of lens intermediate filaments as part of a complex composed of BFSP1, BFSP2 and CRYAA.

May contribute to the transparency and refractive index of the lens. Has chaperone-like activity, preventing aggregation of various proteins under a wide range of stress conditions. In lens epithelial cells, stabilizes the ATP6V1A protein, preventing its degradation by the proteasome (By similarity).

Has high L-gulonate 3-dehydrogenase activity. It also exhibits low dehydrogenase activity toward L-3-hydroxybutyrate (HBA) and L-threonate.

Specifically catalyzes the reduction of imine bonds in brain substrates that may include cystathionine ketimine (CysK) and lanthionine ketimine (LK). Binds thyroid hormone which is a strong reversible inhibitor. Presumably involved in the regulation of the free intracellular concentration of triiodothyronine and access to its nuclear receptors.

Catalyzes the decarboxylation of L-aspartate, 3-sulfino-L- alanine (cysteine sulfinic acid), and L-cysteate to beta-alanine, hypotaurine and taurine, respectively. The preferred substrate is 3- sulfino-L-alanine. Does not exhibit any decarboxylation activity toward glutamate.

Acts as an osmosensitive calcium-permeable cation channel. Required for the functional integrity of the kidney glomerular filtration barrier (By similarity).

Acts as an osmosensitive calcium-permeable cation channel. Mechanosensitive ion channel that converts mechanical stimuli into a flow of ion.

Acts as an osmosensitive calcium-permeable cation channel (By similarity). Mechanosensitive ion channel that converts mechanical stimuli into a flow of ion (By similarity).

RNA-binding factor which binds specifically to the very 3'- UTR ends of both histone H1 and H3.3 mRNAs, encompassing the polyadenylation signal. Might play a central role in the negative regulation of histone variant synthesis in the developing brain (By similarity).

RNA-binding protein involved in translationally coupled mRNA turnover. Implicated with other RNA- binding proteins in the cytoplasmic deadenylation/translational and decay interplay of the FOS mRNA mediated by the major coding-region determinant of instability (mCRD) domain. Required for efficient formation of stress granules.

Calcium-dependent transcriptional repressor that binds to the DRE element of genes including PDYN and FOS. Affinity for DNA is reduced upon binding to calcium and enhanced by binding to magnesium. Seems to be involved in nociception (By similarity).

Tyrosine-protein kinase that acts as cell-surface receptor for CSF1 and IL34 and plays an essential role in the regulation of survival, proliferation and differentiation of hematopoietic precursor cells, especially mononuclear phagocytes, such as macrophages and monocytes. Promotes the release of pro-inflammatory chemokines in response to IL34 and CSF1, and thereby plays an important role in innate immunity and in inflammatory processes. Plays an important role in the regulation of osteoclast proliferation and differentiation, the regulation of bone resorption, and is required for normal bone and tooth development. Required for normal male and female fertility, and for normal development of milk ducts and acinar structures in the mammary gland during pregnancy. Promotes reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton, regulates formation of membrane ruffles, cell adhesion and cell migration, and promotes cancer cell invasion. Activates several signaling pathways in response to ligand binding, including the ERK1/2 and the JNK pathway. Phosphorylates PIK3R1, PLCG2, GRB2, SLA2 and CBL. Activation of PLCG2 leads to the production of the cellular signaling molecules diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate, that then lead to the activation of protein kinase C family members, especially PRKCD. Phosphorylation of PIK3R1, the regulatory subunit of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase, leads to activation of the AKT1 signaling pathway. Activated CSF1R also mediates activation of the MAP kinases MAPK1/ERK2 and/or MAPK3/ERK1, and of the SRC family kinases SRC, FYN and YES1. Activated CSF1R transmits signals both via proteins that directly interact with phosphorylated tyrosine residues in its intracellular domain, or via adapter proteins, such as GRB2. Promotes activation of STAT family members STAT3, STAT5A and/or STAT5B. Promotes tyrosine phosphorylation of SHC1 and INPP5D/SHIP-1. Receptor signaling is down-regulated by protein phosphatases, such as INPP5D/SHIP-1, that dephosphorylate the receptor and its downstream effectors, and by rapid internalization of the activated receptor. In the central nervous system, may play a role in the development of microglia macrophages.

Cytokine that plays an essential role in the regulation of survival, proliferation and differentiation of hematopoietic precursor cells, especially mononuclear phagocytes, such as macrophages and monocytes. Promotes the release of pro-inflammatory chemokines, and thereby plays an important role in innate immunity and in inflammatory processes. Plays an important role in the regulation of osteoclast proliferation and differentiation, the regulation of bone resorption, and is required for normal bone development. Required for normal male and female fertility. Promotes reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton, regulates formation of membrane ruffles, cell adhesion and cell migration. Plays a role in lipoprotein clearance.

Low affinity receptor for granulocyte-macrophage colony- stimulating factor. Transduces a signal that results in the proliferation, differentiation, and functional activation of hematopoietic cells

Cytokine that stimulates the growth and differentiation of hematopoietic precursor cells from various lineages, including granulocytes, macrophages, eosinophils and erythrocytes.

Receptor for granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (CSF3), essential for granulocytic maturation. Plays a crucial role in the proliferation, differientation and survival of cells along the neutrophilic lineage. In addition it may function in some adhesion or recognition events at the cell surface.

Granulocyte/macrophage colony-stimulating factors are cytokines that act in hematopoiesis by controlling the production, differentiation, and function of 2 related white cell populations of the blood, the granulocytes and the monocytes-macrophages. This CSF induces granulocytes

Produced only during pregnancy and is involved in stimulating lactation, fetal growth and metabolism. Does not interact with GHR but only activates PRLR through zinc-induced dimerization.

May be a novel gestational hormone required to compensate for absence of other members of the GH/CS cluster during gestation.

Catalytic subunit of a constitutively active serine/threonine-protein kinase complex that phosphorylates a large number of substrates containing acidic residues C-terminal to the phosphorylated serine or threonine. Regulates numerous cellular processes, such as cell cycle progression, apoptosis and transcription, as well as viral infection. May act as a regulatory node which integrates and coordinates numerous signals leading to an appropriate cellular response. During mitosis, functions as a component of the p53/TP53-dependent spindle assembly checkpoint (SAC) that maintains cyclin-B-CDK1 activity and G2 arrest in response to spindle damage. Also required for p53/TP53-mediated apoptosis, phosphorylating 'Ser-392' of p53/TP53 following UV irradiation. Can also negatively regulate apoptosis. Phosphorylates the caspases CASP9 and CASP2 and the apoptotic regulator NOL3. Phosphorylation protects CASP9 from cleavage and activation by CASP8, and inhibits the dimerization of CASP2 and activation of CASP8. Phosphorylates YY1, protecting YY1 from cleavage by CASP7 during apoptosis. Regulates transcription by direct phosphorylation of RNA polymerases I, II, III and IV. Also phosphorylates and regulates numerous transcription factors including NF-kappa-B, STAT1, CREB1, IRF1, IRF2, ATF1, ATF4, SRF, MAX, JUN, FOS, MYC and MYB. Phosphorylates Hsp90 and its co-chaperones FKBP4 and CDC37, which is essential for chaperone function. Mediates sequential phosphorylation of FNIP1, promoting its gradual interaction with Hsp90, leading to activate both kinase and non-kinase client proteins of Hsp90. Regulates Wnt signaling by phosphorylating CTNNB1 and the transcription factor LEF1. Acts as an ectokinase that phosphorylates several extracellular proteins. During viral infection, phosphorylates various proteins involved in the viral life cycles of EBV, HSV, HBV, HCV, HIV, CMV and HPV. Phosphorylates PML at 'Ser-565' and primes it for ubiquitin-mediated degradation. Plays an important role in the circadian clock function by phosphorylating BMAL1 at 'Ser-90' which is pivotal for its interaction with CLOCK and which controls CLOCK nuclear entry (By similarity). Phosphorylates CCAR2 at 'Thr-454' in gastric carcinoma tissue.

Catalytic subunit of a constitutively active serine/threonine-protein kinase complex that phosphorylates a large number of substrates containing acidic residues C-terminal to the phosphorylated serine or threonine. Regulates numerous cellular processes, such as cell cycle progression, apoptosis and transcription, as well as viral infection. May act as a regulatory node which integrates and coordinates numerous signals leading to an appropriate cellular response. During mitosis, functions as a component of the p53/TP53-dependent spindle assembly checkpoint (SAC) that maintains cyclin-B-CDK1 activity and G2 arrest in response to spindle damage. Also required for p53/TP53-mediated apoptosis, phosphorylating 'Ser- 392' of p53/TP53 following UV irradiation. Can also negatively regulate apoptosis. Phosphorylates the caspases CASP9 and CASP2 and the apoptotic regulator NOL3. Phosphorylation protects CASP9 from cleavage and activation by CASP8, and inhibits the dimerization of CASP2 and activation of CASP8. Regulates transcription by direct phosphorylation of RNA polymerases I, II, III and IV. Also phosphorylates and regulates numerous transcription factors including NF-kappa-B, STAT1, CREB1, IRF1, IRF2, ATF1, SRF, MAX, JUN, FOS, MYC and MYB. Phosphorylates Hsp90 and its co-chaperones FKBP4 and CDC37, which is essential for chaperone function. Regulates Wnt signaling by phosphorylating CTNNB1 and the transcription factor LEF1. Acts as an ectokinase that phosphorylates several extracellular proteins. During viral infection, phosphorylates various proteins involved in the viral life cycles of EBV, HSV, HBV, HCV, HIV, CMV and HPV.

Probable catalytic subunit of a constitutively active serine/threonine-protein kinase complex that phosphorylates a large number of substrates containing acidic residues C-terminal to the phosphorylated serine or threonine. Amplification-dependent oncogene; promotes cell proliferation and tumorigenesis by down-regulating expression of the tumor suppressor protein, PML. May play a role in the pathogenesis of the lung cancer development and progression.

Regulatory subunit of casein kinase II/CK2. As part of the kinase complex regulates the basal catalytic activity of the alpha subunit a constitutively active serine/threonine-protein kinase that phosphorylates a large number of substrates containing acidic residues C-terminal to the phosphorylated serine or threonine. Participates in Wnt signaling (By similarity).

May link the scaffolding protein CASK to downstream intracellular effectors.

Protein-lysine methyltransferase that selectively trimethylates citrate synthase (CS) in mitochondria. Seems to conduct trimethylation in a highly distributive manner rather than in a processive manner, and thus introduces a single methyl group per binding event.

Multidomain scaffolding Mg(2+)-independent protein kinase that catalyzes the phosphotransfer from ATP to proteins such as NRXN1, and plays a role in synaptic transmembrane protein anchoring and ion channel trafficking. Contributes to neural development and regulation of gene expression via interaction with the transcription factor TBR1. Binds to cell-surface proteins, including amyloid precursor protein, neurexins and syndecans. May mediate a link between the extracellular matrix and the actin cytoskeleton via its interaction with syndecan and with the actin/spectrin-binding protein 4.1. Component of the LIN-10-LIN-2-LIN-7 complex, which associates with the motor protein KIF17 to transport vesicles containing N-methyl-D- aspartate (NMDA) receptor subunit NR2B along microtubules (By similarity).

Non-receptor tyrosine-protein kinase that plays an important role in the regulation of cell growth, differentiation, migration and immune response. Phosphorylates tyrosine residues located in the C- terminal tails of Src-family kinases (SFKs) including LCK, SRC, HCK, FYN, LYN, CSK or YES1. Upon tail phosphorylation, Src-family members engage in intramolecular interactions between the phosphotyrosine tail and the SH2 domain that result in an inactive conformation. To inhibit SFKs, CSK is recruited to the plasma membrane via binding to transmembrane proteins or adapter proteins located near the plasma membrane. Suppresses signaling by various surface receptors, including T-cell receptor (TCR) and B-cell receptor (BCR) by phosphorylating and maintaining inactive several positive effectors such as FYN or LCK.

Essential component of the COP9 signalosome complex (CSN), a complex involved in various cellular and developmental processes. The CSN complex is an essential regulator of the ubiquitin (Ubl) conjugation pathway by mediating the deneddylation of the cullin subunits of SCF-type E3 ligase complexes, leading to decrease the Ubl ligase activity of SCF-type complexes such as SCF, CSA or DDB2. The complex is also involved in phosphorylation of p53/TP53, c-jun/JUN, IkappaBalpha/NFKBIA, ITPK1 and IRF8/ICSBP, possibly via its association with CK2 and PKD kinases. CSN-dependent phosphorylation of TP53 and JUN promotes and protects degradation by the Ubl system, respectively. Suppresses G-protein- and mitogen-activated protein kinase-mediated signal transduction.

Essential component of the COP9 signalosome complex (CSN), a complex involved in various cellular and developmental processes. The CSN complex is an essential regulator of the ubiquitin (Ubl) conjugation pathway by mediating the deneddylation of the cullin subunits of SCF-type E3 ligase complexes, leading to decrease the Ubl ligase activity of SCF-type complexes such as SCF, CSA or DDB2. The complex is also involved in phosphorylation of p53/TP53, c-jun/JUN, IkappaBalpha/NFKBIA, ITPK1 and IRF8/ICSBP, possibly via its association with CK2 and PKD kinases. CSN-dependent phosphorylation of TP53 and JUN promotes and protects degradation by the Ubl system, respectively. Involved in early stage of neuronal differentiation via its interaction with NIF3L1.

Component of the COP9 signalosome complex (CSN), a complex involved in various cellular and developmental processes. The CSN complex is an essential regulator of the ubiquitin (Ubl) conjugation pathway by mediating the deneddylation of the cullin subunits of SCF- type E3 ligase complexes, leading to decrease the Ubl ligase activity of SCF-type complexes such as SCF, CSA or DDB2. The complex is also involved in phosphorylation of p53/TP53, c-jun/JUN, IkappaBalpha/NFKBIA, ITPK1 and IRF8/ICSBP, possibly via its association with CK2 and PKD kinases. CSN-dependent phosphorylation of TP53 and JUN promotes and protects degradation by the Ubl system, respectively.

Component of the COP9 signalosome complex (CSN), a complex involved in various cellular and developmental processes. The CSN complex is an essential regulator of the ubiquitin (Ubl) conjugation pathway by mediating the deneddylation of the cullin subunits of SCF- type E3 ligase complexes, leading to decrease the Ubl ligase activity of SCF-type complexes such as SCF, CSA or DDB2. Also involved in the deneddylation of non-cullin subunits such as STON2. The complex is also involved in phosphorylation of p53/TP53, c-jun/JUN, IkappaBalpha/NFKBIA, ITPK1, IRF8/ICSBP and SNAPIN, possibly via its association with CK2 and PKD kinases. CSN-dependent phosphorylation of TP53 and JUN promotes and protects degradation by the Ubl system, respectively.

Probable protease subunit of the COP9 signalosome complex (CSN), a complex involved in various cellular and developmental processes. The CSN complex is an essential regulator of the ubiquitin (Ubl) conjugation pathway by mediating the deneddylation of the cullin subunits of the SCF-type E3 ligase complexes, leading to decrease the Ubl ligase activity of SCF-type complexes such as SCF, CSA or DDB2. The complex is also involved in phosphorylation of p53/TP53, c-jun/JUN, IkappaBalpha/NFKBIA, ITPK1 and IRF8, possibly via its association with CK2 and PKD kinases. CSN-dependent phosphorylation of TP53 and JUN promotes and protects degradation by the Ubl system, respectively. In the complex, it probably acts as the catalytic center that mediates the cleavage of Nedd8 from cullins. It however has no metalloprotease activity by itself and requires the other subunits of the CSN complex. Interacts directly with a large number of proteins that are regulated by the CSN complex, confirming a key role in the complex. Promotes the proteasomal degradation of BRSK2.

Component of the COP9 signalosome complex (CSN), a complex involved in various cellular and developmental processes. The CSN complex is an essential regulator of the ubiquitin (Ubl) conjugation pathway by mediating the deneddylation of the cullin subunits of SCF- type E3 ligase complexes, leading to decrease the Ubl ligase activity of SCF-type complexes such as SCF, CSA or DDB2. The complex is also involved in phosphorylation of p53/TP53, c-jun/JUN, IkappaBalpha/NFKBIA, ITPK1 and IRF8, possibly via its association with CK2 and PKD kinases. CSN-dependent phosphorylation of TP53 and JUN promotes and protects degradation by the Ubl system, respectively. Has some glucocorticoid receptor-responsive activity. Stabilizes COP1 through reducing COP1 auto-ubiquitination and decelerating COP1 turnover rate, hence regulates the ubiquitination of COP1 targets.

Component of the COP9 signalosome complex (CSN), a complex involved in various cellular and developmental processes. The CSN complex is an essential regulator of the ubiquitin (Ubl) conjugation pathway by mediating the deneddylation of the cullin subunits of SCF- type E3 ligase complexes, leading to decrease the Ubl ligase activity of SCF-type complexes such as SCF, CSA or DDB2. The complex is also involved in phosphorylation of p53/TP53, JUN, I-kappa-B-alpha/NFKBIA, ITPK1 and IRF8/ICSBP, possibly via its association with CK2 and PKD kinases. CSN-dependent phosphorylation of TP53 and JUN promotes and protects degradation by the Ubl system, respectively.

[Isoform 1]: Component of the COP9 signalosome complex (CSN), a complex involved in various cellular and developmental processes. The CSN complex is an essential regulator of the ubiquitin (Ubl) conjugation pathway by mediating the deneddylation of the cullin subunits of SCF-type E3 ligase complexes, leading to decrease the Ubl ligase activity of SCF-type complexes such as SCF, CSA or DDB2. The complex is also involved in phosphorylation of p53/TP53, c-jun/JUN, IkappaBalpha/NFKBIA, ITPK1 and IRF8/ICSBP, possibly via its association with CK2 and PKD kinases. CSN-dependent phosphorylation of TP53 and JUN promotes and protects degradation by the Ubl system, respectively. Plays a role in cell proliferation.

May play a role in intercellular signaling and in connecting cells with the extracellular matrix. May take part in the regulation of cell motility, growth and differentiation. Binds hyaluronic acid

Proteoglycan playing a role in cell proliferation and migration which stimulates endothelial cells motility during microvascular morphogenesis. May also inhibit neurite outgrowth and growth cone collapse during axon regeneration. Cell surface receptor for collagen alpha 2(VI) which may confer cells ability to migrate on that substrate. Binds through its extracellular N-terminus growth factors, extracellular matrix proteases modulating their activity. May regulate MPP16-dependent degradation and invasion of type I collagen participating in melanoma cells invasion properties. May modulate the plasminogen system by enhancing plasminogen activation and inhibiting angiostatin. Functions also as a signal transducing protein by binding through its cytoplasmic C-terminus scaffolding and signaling proteins. May promote retraction fiber formation and cell polarization through Rho GTPase activation. May stimulate alpha-4, beta-1 integrin-mediated adhesion and spreading by recruiting and activating a signaling cascade through CDC42, ACK1 and BCAR1. May activate FAK and ERK1/ERK2 signaling cascades.

May function as a growth and differentiation factor involved in neuritogenesis. May induce ERBB3 activation.

Binds to the consensus sequence 5'-AGAGTG-3' and has transcriptional activator activity (By similarity). May have a tumor- suppressor function. May play a role in apoptosis.

Binds to the consensus sequence 5'-AGAGTG-3' and has transcriptional activator activity (By similarity). May play a role in apoptosis.

Binds to the consensus sequence 5'-AGAGTG-3' and has transcriptional activator activity. Plays a role in apoptosis (By similarity).

Drastically down-regulated in response to PDGF-BB or cell injury, that promote smooth muscle cell proliferation and dedifferentiation. Seems to play a role in the development of the embryonic vascular system

Positive regulator of myogenesis. Acts as cofactor for myogenic bHLH transcription factors such as MYOD1, and probably MYOG and MYF6. Enhances the DNA-binding activity of the MYOD1:TCF3 isoform E47 complex and may promote formation of a functional MYOD1:TCF3 isoform E47:MEF2A complex involved in myogenesis (By similarity). Plays a crucial and specific role in the organization of cytosolic structures in cardiomyocytes. Could play a role in mechanical stretch sensing. May be a scaffold protein that promotes the assembly of interacting proteins at Z-line structures. It is essential for calcineurin anchorage to the Z line. Required for stress-induced calcineurin-NFAT activation (By similarity). The role in regulation of cytoskeleton dynamics by association with CFL2 is reported conflictingly: Shown to enhance CFL2-mediated F-actin depolymerization dependent on the CSRP3:CFL2 molecular ratio, and also shown to reduce the ability of CLF1 and CFL2 to enhance actin depolymerization. Proposed to contribute to the maintenance of muscle cell integrity through an actin-based mechanism. Can directly bind to actin filaments, cross-link actin filaments into bundles without polarity selectivity and protect them from dilution- and cofilin- mediated depolymerization; the function seems to involve its self- association. In vitro can inhibit PKC/PRKCA activity. Proposed to be involved in cardiac stress signaling by down-regulating excessive PKC/PRKCA signaling (By similarity).

Has antibacterial activity against the Gram-negative bacteria E.coli. May play a role in sperm maturation and fertilization.

Performs a specialized role during sperm development and maturation

May be involved in testis development (By similarity). May play a role in hematopoietic differentiation or inflammation. Has immunomodulatory and antimicrobial functions against Francisella tularensis, a Gram-negative bacteria.

One of the multiple factors required for polyadenylation and 3'-end cleavage of mammalian pre-mRNAs. May be responsible for the interaction of CSTF with other factors to form a stable complex on the pre-mRNA.

One of the multiple factors required for polyadenylation and 3'-end cleavage of mammalian pre-mRNAs. This subunit is directly involved in the binding to pre-mRNAs (By similarity).

One of the multiple factors required for polyadenylation and 3'-end cleavage of mammalian pre-mRNAs

May play a significant role in AAUAAA-independent mRNA polyadenylation in germ cells. Directly involved in the binding to pre- mRNAs (By similarity).

Induces KLC1 association with vesicles and functions as a cargo in axonal anterograde transport. Complex formation with APBA2 and APP, stabilizes APP metabolism and enhances APBA2-mediated suppression of beta-APP40 secretion, due to the retardation of intracellular APP maturation. In complex with APBA2 and C99, a C-terminal APP fragment, abolishes C99 interaction with PSEN1 and thus APP C99 cleavage by gamma-secretase, most probably through stabilization of the direct interaction between APBA2 and APP. The intracellular fragment AlcICD suppresses APBB1-dependent transactivation stimulated by APP C-terminal intracellular fragment (AICD), most probably by competing with AICD for APBB1-binding. May modulate calcium-mediated postsynaptic signals (By similarity).

May modulate calcium-mediated postsynaptic signals. Complex formation with APBA2 and APP, stabilizes APP metabolism and enhances APBA2-mediated suppression of beta-APP40 secretion, due to the retardation of intracellular APP maturation.

Plays a role in the regulation of Wnt signaling pathway during early development.

Regulator of the tubulin polyglutamylase complex (TPGC) that controls cytoskeletal organization, nuclear shape, and cilium disassembly by balancing microtubule and actin assembly. Regulates the assembly and stability of the TPGC and thereby modulates polyglutamylation of the microtubule, which antagonizes MAP4 binding.

Regulates lamellipodial actin dynamics in a CTTN-dependent manner.

Component of the PRP19-CDC5L complex that forms an integral part of the spliceosome and is required for activating pre-mRNA splicing. Participates in AID/AICDA-mediated somatic hypermutation (SHM) and class-switch recombination (CSR), 2 processes resulting in the production of high-affinity, mutated isotype-switched antibodies.

Corepressor targeting diverse transcription regulators such as GLIS2 or BCL6. Has dehydrogenase activity. Involved in controlling the equilibrium between tubular and stacked structures in the Golgi complex. Functions in brown adipose tissue (BAT) differentiation.

Corepressor targeting diverse transcription regulators. Functions in brown adipose tissue (BAT) differentiation (By similarity).

Component of the CST complex proposed to act as a specialized replication factor promoting DNA replication under conditions of replication stress or natural replication barriers such as the telomere duplex. The CST complex binds single-stranded DNA with high affinity in a sequence-independent manner, while isolated subunits bind DNA with low affinity by themselves. Initially the CST complex has been proposed to protect telomeres from DNA degradation. However, the CST complex has been shown to be involved in several aspects of telomere replication. The CST complex inhibits telomerase and is involved in telomere length homeostasis; it is proposed to bind to newly telomerase-synthesized 3' overhangs and to terminate telomerase action implicating the association with the ACD:POT1 complex thus interfering with its telomerase stimulation activity. The CST complex is also proposed to be involved in fill-in synthesis of the telomeric C-strand probably implicating recruitment and activation of DNA polymerase alpha. The CST complex facilitates recovery from many forms of exogenous DNA damage; seems to be involved in the re-initiation of DNA replication at repaired forks and/or dormant origins. Involved in telomere maintenance. Involved in genome stability. May be in involved in telomeric C-strand fill-in during late S/G2 phase (By similarity).

Testis-specific DNA binding protein responsible for insulator function, nuclear architecture and transcriptional control, which probably acts by recruiting epigenetic chromatin modifiers. Plays a key role in gene imprinting in male germline, by participating in the establishment of differential methylation at the IGF2/H19 imprinted control region (ICR). Directly binds the unmethylated H19 ICR and recruits the PRMT7 methyltransferase, leading to methylate histone H4 'Arg-3' to form H4R3sme2. This probably leads to recruit de novo DNA methyltransferases at these sites (By similarity). Seems to act as tumor suppressor. In association with DNMT1 and DNMT3B, involved in activation of BAG1 gene expression by binding to its promoter. Required for dimethylation of H3 lysine 4 (H3K4me2) of MYC and BRCA1 promoters.

Chromatin binding factor that binds to DNA sequence specific sites. Involved in transcriptional regulation by binding to chromatin insulators and preventing interaction between promoter and nearby enhancers and silencers. Acts as transcriptional repressor binding to promoters of vertebrate MYC gene and BAG1 gene. Also binds to the PLK and PIM1 promoters. Acts as a transcriptional activator of APP. Regulates APOA1/C3/A4/A5 gene cluster and controls MHC class II gene expression. Plays an essential role in oocyte and preimplantation embryo development by activating or repressing transcription. Seems to act as tumor suppressor. Plays a critical role in the epigenetic regulation. Participates in the allele-specific gene expression at the imprinted IGF2/H19 gene locus. On the maternal allele, binding within the H19 imprinting control region (ICR) mediates maternally inherited higher-order chromatin conformation to restrict enhancer access to IGF2. Plays a critical role in gene silencing over considerable distances in the genome. Preferentially interacts with unmethylated DNA, preventing spreading of CpG methylation and maintaining methylation-free zones. Inversely, binding to target sites is prevented by CpG methylation. Plays an important role in chromatin remodeling. Can dimerize when it is bound to different DNA sequences, mediating long-range chromatin looping. Mediates interchromosomal association between IGF2/H19 and WSB1/NF1 and may direct distant DNA segments to a common transcription factory. Causes local loss of histone acetylation and gain of histone methylation in the beta-globin locus, without affecting transcription. When bound to chromatin, it provides an anchor point for nucleosomes positioning. Seems to be essential for homologous X-chromosome pairing. May participate with Tsix in establishing a regulatable epigenetic switch for X chromosome inactivation. May play a role in preventing the propagation of stable methylation at the escape genes from X- inactivation. Involved in sister chromatid cohesion. Associates with both centromeres and chromosomal arms during metaphase and required for cohesin localization to CTCF sites. Regulates asynchronous replication of IGF2/H19. Plays a role in the recruitment of CENPE to the pericentromeric/centromeric regions of the chromosome during mitosis.

Processively dephosphorylates 'Ser-2' and 'Ser-5' of the heptad repeats YSPTSPS in the C-terminal domain of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit. This promotes the activity of RNA polymerase II. Plays a role in the exit from mitosis by dephosphorylating crucial mitotic substrates (USP44, CDC20 and WEE1) that are required for M- phase-promoting factor (MPF)/CDK1 inactivation.

Preferentially catalyzes the dephosphorylation of 'Ser-5' within the tandem 7 residue repeats in the C-terminal domain (CTD) of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit POLR2A. Negatively regulates RNA polymerase II transcription, possibly by controlling the transition from initiation/capping to processive transcript elongation. Recruited by REST to neuronal genes that contain RE-1 elements, leading to neuronal gene silencing in non-neuronal cells.

Preferentially catalyzes the dephosphorylation of 'Ser-5' within the tandem 7 residue repeats in the C-terminal domain (CTD) of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit POLR2A. Negatively regulates RNA polymerase II transcription, possibly by controlling the transition from initiation/capping to processive transcript elongation. Recruited by REST to neuronal genes that contain RE-1 elements, leading to neuronal gene silencing in non-neuronal cells. May contribute to the development of sarcomas.

Recruited by REST to neuronal genes that contain RE-1 elements, leading to neuronal gene silencing in non-neuronal cells (By similarity). Preferentially catalyzes the dephosphorylation of 'Ser-5' within the tandem 7 residue repeats in the C-terminal domain (CTD) of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit POLR2A. Negatively regulates RNA polymerase II transcription, possibly by controlling the transition from initiation/capping to processive transcript elongation.

Chromosome cohesion factor involved in sister chromatid cohesion and fidelity of chromosome transmission. Component of one of the cell nuclear antigen loader complexes, CTF18-replication factor C (CTF18-RFC), which consists of CTF18, CTF8, DCC1, RFC2, RFC3, RFC4 and RFC5. The CTF18-RFC complex binds to single-stranded and primed DNAs and has weak ATPase activity that is stimulated by the presence of primed DNA, replication protein A (RPA) and by proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA). The CTF18-RFC complex catalyzes the ATP- dependent loading of PCNA onto primed and gapped DNA. Interacts with and stimulates DNA polymerase POLH. During DNA repair synthesis, involved in loading DNA polymerase POLE at the sites of local damage.

Induces cardiac myocyte hypertrophy in vitro. Binds to and activates the ILST/gp130 receptor

Chromosome cohesion factor involved in sister chromatid cohesion and fidelity of chromosome transmission. Component of one of the cell nuclear antigen loader complexes, CTF18-replication factor C (CTF18-RFC), which consists of CTF18, CTF8, DSCC1, RFC2, RFC3, RFC4 and RFC5. The CTF18-RFC complex binds to single-stranded and primed DNAs and has weak ATPase activity that is stimulated the presence of primed DNA, replication protein A (RPA) and proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA). The CTF18-RFC complex catalyzes the ATP-dependent loading of PCNA onto primed and gapped DNA. It also interacts with and stimulates POLH, which is suggestive of a protein network that coordinates DNA repair, recombination and chromosome cohesion reactions with replication fork progression.

Specifically required for the pioneer round of mRNA translation mediated by the cap-binding complex (CBC), that takes place during or right after mRNA export via the nuclear pore complex (NPC). Acts via its interaction with the NCBP1/CBP80 component of the CBC complex and recruits the 40S small subunit of the ribosome via eIF3. In contrast, it is not involved in steady state translation, that takes place when the CBC complex is replaced by cytoplasmic cap-binding protein eIF4E. Also required for nonsense-mediated mRNA decay (NMD), the pioneer round of mRNA translation mediated by the cap-binding complex playing a central role in nonsense-mediated mRNA decay (NMD).

Endonuclease that cooperates with the MRE11-RAD50-NBN (MRN) complex in DNA-end resection, the first step of double-strand break (DSB) repair through the homologous recombination (HR) pathway. HR is restricted to S and G2 phases of the cell cycle and preferentially repairs DSBs resulting from replication fork collapse. Key determinant of DSB repair pathway choice, as it commits cells to HR by preventing classical non-homologous end-joining (NHEJ). Functions downstream of the MRN complex and ATM, promotes ATR activation and its recruitment to DSBs in the S/G2 phase facilitating the generation of ssDNA. Component of the BRCA1-RBBP8 complex that regulates CHEK1 activation and controls cell cycle G2/M checkpoints on DNA damage. During immunoglobulin heavy chain class-switch recombination, promotes microhomology-mediated alternative end joining (A-NHEJ) and plays an essential role in chromosomal translocations (By similarity).

Choline transporter. Involved in membrane synthesis and myelin production.

Isoform 1, but not isoform 3, exhibits some choline transporter activity.

Choline transporter that plays a role in the choline- acetylcholine system and is required to the efferent innervation of hair cells in the olivocochlear bundle for the maintenance of physiological function of outer hair cells and the protection of hair cells from acoustic injury (By similarity). Also described as a thiamine pyrophosphate transporter in colon, may mediate the absorption of microbiota- generated thiamine pyrophosphate and contribute to host thiamine (vitamin B1) homeostasis.

Inhibitory receptor acting as a major negative regulator of T-cell responses. The affinity of CTLA4 for its natural B7 family ligands, CD80 and CD86, is considerably stronger than the affinity of their cognate stimulatory coreceptor CD28.

Associates with the cytoplasmic domain of a variety of cadherins. The association of catenins to cadherins produces a complex which is linked to the actin filament network, and which seems to be of primary importance for cadherins cell-adhesion properties. Can associate with both E- and N-cadherins. Originally believed to be a stable component of E-cadherin/catenin adhesion complexes and to mediate the linkage of cadherins to the actin cytoskeleton at adherens junctions. In contrast, cortical actin was found to be much more dynamic than E-cadherin/catenin complexes and CTNNA1 was shown not to bind to F-actin when assembled in the complex suggesting a different linkage between actin and adherens junctions components. The homodimeric form may regulate actin filament assembly and inhibit actin branching by competing with the Arp2/3 complex for binding to actin filaments. Involved in the regulation of WWTR1/TAZ, YAP1 and TGFB1- dependent SMAD2 and SMAD3 nuclear accumulation (By similarity). May play a crucial role in cell differentiation.

May function as a linker between cadherin adhesion receptors and the cytoskeleton to regulate cell-cell adhesion and differentiation in the nervous system (By similarity). Required for proper regulation of cortical neuronal migration and neurite growth. It acts as negative regulator of Arp2/3 complex activity and Arp2/3- mediated actin polymerization. It thereby suppresses excessive actin branching which would impair neurite growth and stability. Regulates morphological plasticity of synapses and cerebellar and hippocampal lamination during development. Functions in the control of startle modulation (By similarity).

May be involved in formation of stretch-resistant cell-cell adhesion complexes.

Key downstream component of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway. In the absence of Wnt, forms a complex with AXIN1, AXIN2, APC, CSNK1A1 and GSK3B that promotes phosphorylation on N- terminal Ser and Thr residues and ubiquitination of CTNNB1 via BTRC and its subsequent degradation by the proteasome. In the presence of Wnt ligand, CTNNB1 is not ubiquitinated and accumulates in the nucleus, where it acts as a coactivator for transcription factors of the TCF/LEF family, leading to activate Wnt responsive genes. Involved in the regulation of cell adhesion, as component of an E-cadherin:catenin adhesion complex (By similarity). Acts as a negative regulator of centrosome cohesion. Involved in the CDK2/PTPN6/CTNNB1/CEACAM1 pathway of insulin internalization. Blocks anoikis of malignant kidney and intestinal epithelial cells and promotes their anchorage-independent growth by down-regulating DAPK2. Disrupts PML function and PML- NB formation by inhibiting RANBP2-mediated sumoylation of PML. Promotes neurogenesis by maintaining sympathetic neuroblasts within the cell cycle (By similarity). Involved in chondrocyte differentiation via interaction with SOX9: SOX9-binding competes with the binding sites of TCF/LEF within CTNNB1, thereby inhibiting the Wnt signaling (By similarity).

Key regulator of cell-cell adhesion that associates with and regulates the cell adhesion properties of both C-, E- and N-cadherins, being critical for their surface stability. Beside cell-cell adhesion, regulates gene transcription through several transcription factors including ZBTB33/Kaiso2 and GLIS2, and the activity of Rho family GTPases and downstream cytoskeletal dynamics. Implicated both in cell transformation by SRC and in ligand-induced receptor signaling through the EGF, PDGF, CSF-1 and ERBB2 receptors.

Has a critical role in neuronal development, particularly in the formation and/or maintenance of dendritic spines and synapses. Involved in the regulation of Wnt signaling. It probably acts on beta-catenin turnover, facilitating beta-catenin interaction with GSK3B, phosphorylation, ubiquitination and degradation (By similarity). Functions as a transcriptional activator when bound to ZBTB33 (By similarity). May be involved in neuronal cell adhesion and tissue morphogenesis and integrity by regulating adhesion molecules.

May modulate the Rho pathway signaling by providing a scaffold for the Lbc Rho guanine nucleotide exchange factor (ARHGEF1)

Cystine/H(+) symporter that mediates export of cystine, the oxidized dimer of cysteine, from lysosomes. Plays an important role in melanin synthesis by catalyzing cystine export from melanosomes, possibly by inhibiting pheomelanin synthesis. In addition to cystine export, also acts as a positive regulator of mTORC1 signaling in kidney proximal tubular cells, via interactions with components of the v- ATPase and Ragulator complexes (By similarity). Also involved in small GTPase-regulated vesicle trafficking and lysosomal localization of LAMP2A, independently of cystine transporter activity (By similarity).

High-affinity, low capacity permease involved in the transport of the cationic amino acids (arginine, lysine and ornithine) in non-hepatic tissues.

Functions as permease involved in the transport of the cationic amino acids (arginine, lysine and ornithine); the affinity for its substrates differs between isoforms created by alternative splicing. May play a role in classical or alternative activation of macrophages via its role in arginine transport (By similarity).

Uniporter that mediates the uptake of cationic L-amino acids such as L-arginine, L-lysine and L-ornithine. The transport is sodium ions- and pH-independent, moderately trans- stimulated and is mediated by passive diffusion.

Involved in the transport of the cationic amino acids (arginine, lysine and ornithine)

Component of the PAF1 complex (PAF1C) which has multiple functions during transcription by RNA polymerase II and is implicated in regulation of development and maintenance of embryonic stem cell pluripotency. PAF1C associates with RNA polymerase II through interaction with POLR2A CTD non-phosphorylated and 'Ser-2'- and 'Ser- 5'-phosphorylated forms and is involved in transcriptional elongation, acting both independently and synergistically with TCEA1 and in cooperation with the DSIF complex and HTATSF1. PAF1C is required for transcription of Hox and Wnt target genes. PAF1C is involved in hematopoiesis and stimulates transcriptional activity of KMT2A/MLL1; it promotes leukemogenesis through association with KMT2A/MLL1-rearranged oncoproteins, such as KMT2A/MLL1-MLLT3/AF9 and KMT2A/MLL1-MLLT1/ENL. PAF1C is involved in histone modifications such as ubiquitination of histone H2B and methylation on histone H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3). PAF1C recruits the RNF20/40 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex and the E2 enzyme UBE2A or UBE2B to chromatin which mediate monoubiquitination of 'Lys-120' of histone H2B (H2BK120ub1); UB2A/B-mediated H2B ubiquitination is proposed to be coupled to transcription. PAF1C is involved in mRNA 3' end formation probably through association with cleavage and poly(A) factors. In case of infection by influenza A strain H3N2, PAF1C associates with viral NS1 protein, thereby regulating gene transcription. Required for mono- and trimethylation on histone H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3) and dimethylation on histone H3 'Lys-79' (H3K4me3). Required for Hox gene transcription. Required for the trimethylation of histone H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3) on genes involved in stem cell pluripotency; this function is synergistic with CXXC1 indicative for an involvement of the SET1 complex. Involved in transcriptional regulation of IL6-responsive genes and in JAK-STAT pathway; may regulate DNA-association of STAT3 (By similarity).

Regulates activation and degradation of trypsinogens and procarboxypeptidases by targeting specific cleavage sites within their zymogen precursors. Has chymotrypsin-type protease activity and hypocalcemic activity.

Plays a role in cytokinesis. Required for KIF14 localization to the central spindle and midbody. Putative RHO/RAC effector that binds to the GTP-bound forms of RHO and RAC1. It probably binds p21 with a tighter specificity in vivo. Displays serine/threonine protein kinase activity. Plays an important role in the regulation of cytokinesis and the development of the central nervous system. Phosphorylates MYL9/MLC2.

Voltage-gated calcium channel that plays a central role in calcium-dependent physiological responses essential for successful fertilization, such as sperm hyperactivation, acrosome reaction and chemotaxis towards the oocyte.

Auxiliary component of the CatSper complex, a complex involved in sperm cell hyperactivation. Sperm cell hyperactivation is needed for sperm motility which is essential late in the preparation of sperm for fertilization.

Auxiliary component of the CatSper complex, a complex involved in sperm cell hyperactivation. Sperm cell hyperactivation is needed for sperm motility which is essential late in the preparation of sperm for fertilization. Required for CATSPER1 stability before intraflagellar transport and/or incorporation of the CatSper complex channel into the flagellar membrane.

Auxiliary component of the CatSper complex, a complex involved in sperm cell hyperactivation. Sperm cell hyperactivation is needed for sperm motility which is essential late in the preparation of sperm for fertilization. Required for CatSper complex targeting and trafficking into the quadrilinear nanodomains. Targets the preassembled CatSper complexes to elongating flagella, where it links the channel- carrying vesicles and motor proteins.

Auxiliary component of the CatSper complex, a complex involved in sperm cell hyperactivation. Sperm cell hyperactivation is needed for sperm motility which is essential late in the preparation of sperm for fertilization. Required for a distribution of the CatSper complex in linear quadrilateral nanodomains along the flagellum, maximizing fertilization inside the mammalian female reproductive tract. Together with EFCAB9, associates with the CatSper channel pore and is required for the two-row structure of each single CatSper channel.

Regulates the dendritic spine distribution of CTTN/cortactin in hippocampal neurons, thus controls dendritic spinogenesis and dendritic spine maintenance.

Plays a central role in 2-thiolation of mcm(5)S(2)U at tRNA wobble positions of tRNA(Lys), tRNA(Glu) and tRNA(Gln). Directly binds tRNAs and probably acts by catalyzing adenylation of tRNAs, an intermediate required for 2-thiolation. It is unclear whether it acts as a sulfurtransferase that transfers sulfur from thiocarboxylated URM1 onto the uridine of tRNAs at wobble position.

Plays a central role in 2-thiolation of mcm(5)S(2)U at tRNA wobble positions of tRNA(Lys), tRNA(Glu) and tRNA(Gln). May act by forming a heterodimer with CTU1/ATPBD3 that ligates sulfur from thiocarboxylated URM1 onto the uridine of tRNAs at wobble position.

May mediate extracellular or intracellular signaling of cortical neurons during forebrain development.

Endocytic receptor which plays a role in lipoprotein, vitamin and iron metabolism by facilitating their uptake. Acts together with LRP2 to mediate endocytosis of high-density lipoproteins, GC, hemoglobin, ALB, TF and SCGB1A1. Acts together with AMN to mediate endocytosis of the CBLIF-cobalamin complex. Binds to ALB, MB, Kappa and lambda- light chains, TF, hemoglobin, GC, SCGB1A1, APOA1, high density lipoprotein, and the CBLIF-cobalamin complex. Ligand binding requires calcium. Serves as important transporter in several absorptive epithelia, including intestine, renal proximal tubules and embryonic yolk sac. May play an important role in the development of the peri-implantation embryo through internalization of APOA1 and cholesterol. Binds to LGALS3 at the maternal-fetal interface.

Down-regulates ESR1 protein levels through the ubiquitination-proteasome pathway, regardless of the presence of 17 beta-estradiol. Also involved in 17 beta-estradiol-induced ESR1 degradation. Controls PGR protein levels through a similar mechanism.

Core component of multiple cullin-RING-based SCF (SKP1-CUL1- F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes, which mediate the ubiquitination of proteins involved in cell cycle progression, signal transduction and transcription. SCF complexes and ARIH1 collaborate in tandem to mediate ubiquitination of target proteins. In the SCF complex, serves as a rigid scaffold that organizes the SKP1- F-box protein and RBX1 subunits. May contribute to catalysis through positioning of the substrate and the ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme. The E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity of the complex is dependent on the neddylation of the cullin subunit and exchange of the substrate recognition component is mediated by TIP120A/CAND1. The functional specificity of the SCF complex depends on the F-box protein as substrate recognition component. SCF(BTRC) and SCF(FBXW11) direct ubiquitination of CTNNB1 and participate in Wnt signaling. SCF(FBXW11) directs ubiquitination of phosphorylated NFKBIA. SCF(BTRC) directs ubiquitination of NFKBIB, NFKBIE, ATF4, SMAD3, SMAD4, CDC25A, FBXO5 and probably NFKB2. SCF(BTRC) and/or SCF(FBXW11) direct ubiquitination of CEP68. SCF(SKP2) directs ubiquitination of phosphorylated CDKN1B/p27kip and is involved in regulation of G1/S transition. SCF(SKP2) directs ubiquitination of ORC1, CDT1, RBL2, ELF4, CDKN1A, RAG2, FOXO1A, and probably MYC and TAL1. SCF(FBXW7) directs ubiquitination of CCNE1, NOTCH1 released notch intracellular domain (NICD), and probably PSEN1. SCF(FBXW2) directs ubiquitination of GCM1. SCF(FBXO32) directs ubiquitination of MYOD1. SCF(FBXO7) directs ubiquitination of BIRC2 and DLGAP5. SCF(FBXO33) directs ubiquitination of YBX1. SCF(FBXO1) directs ubiquitination of BCL6 and DTL but does not seem to direct ubiquitination of TP53. SCF(BTRC) mediates the ubiquitination of NFKBIA at 'Lys-21' and 'Lys- 22'; the degradation frees the associated NFKB1-RELA dimer to translocate into the nucleus and to activate transcription. SCF(CCNF) directs ubiquitination of CCP110. SCF(FBXL3) and SCF(FBXL21) direct ubiquitination of CRY1 and CRY2. SCF(FBXO9) directs ubiquitination of TTI1 and TELO2. SCF(FBXO10) directs ubiquitination of BCL2.

Core component of multiple cullin-RING-based ECS (ElonginB/C- CUL2/5-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes, which mediate the ubiquitination of target proteins. CUL2 may serve as a rigid scaffold in the complex and may contribute to catalysis through positioning of the substrate and the ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme. The E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity of the complex is dependent on the neddylation of the cullin subunit and is inhibited by the association of the deneddylated cullin subunit with TIP120A/CAND1. The functional specificity of the ECS complex depends on the substrate recognition component. ECS(VHL) mediates the ubiquitination of hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF). A number of ECS complexes (containing either KLHDC2, KLHDC3, KLHDC10, APPBP2, FEM1A, FEM1B or FEM1C as substrate-recognition component) are part of the DesCEND (destruction via C-end degrons) pathway, which recognizes a C-degron located at the extreme C terminus of target proteins, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. ECS complexes and ARIH1 collaborate in tandem to mediate ubiquitination of target proteins. ECS(LRR1) ubiquitinates MCM7 and promotes CMG replisome disassembly by VCP and chromatin extraction during S- phase (By similarity).

Core component of multiple cullin-RING-based BCR (BTB-CUL3- RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes which mediate the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. BCR complexes and ARIH1 collaborate in tandem to mediate ubiquitination of target proteins. As a scaffold protein may contribute to catalysis through positioning of the substrate and the ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme. The E3 ubiquitin- protein ligase activity of the complex is dependent on the neddylation of the cullin subunit and is inhibited by the association of the deneddylated cullin subunit with TIP120A/CAND1. The functional specificity of the BCR complex depends on the BTB domain-containing protein as the substrate recognition component. BCR(KLHL42) is involved in ubiquitination of KATNA1. BCR(SPOP) is involved in ubiquitination of BMI1/PCGF4, BRMS1, MACROH2A1 and DAXX, GLI2 and GLI3. Can also form a cullin-RING-based BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex containing homodimeric SPOPL or the heterodimer formed by SPOP and SPOPL; these complexes have lower ubiquitin ligase activity. BCR(KLHL9-KLHL13) controls the dynamic behavior of AURKB on mitotic chromosomes and thereby coordinates faithful mitotic progression and completion of cytokinesis. BCR(KLHL12) is involved in ER-Golgi transport by regulating the size of COPII coats, thereby playing a key role in collagen export, which is required for embryonic stem (ES) cells division: BCR(KLHL12) acts by mediating monoubiquitination of SEC31 (SEC31A or SEC31B). BCR(KLHL3) acts as a regulator of ion transport in the distal nephron; by mediating ubiquitination of WNK4. The BCR(KLHL20) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex is involved in interferon response and anterograde Golgi to endosome transport: it mediates both ubiquitination leading to degradation and 'Lys-33'-linked ubiquitination. The BCR(KLHL21) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex regulates localization of the chromosomal passenger complex (CPC) from chromosomes to the spindle midzone in anaphase and mediates the ubiquitination of AURKB. The BCR(KLHL22) ubiquitin ligase complex mediates monoubiquitination of PLK1, leading to PLK1 dissociation from phosphoreceptor proteins and subsequent removal from kinetochores, allowing silencing of the spindle assembly checkpoint (SAC) and chromosome segregation. The BCR(KLHL22) ubiquitin ligase complex is also responsible for the amino acid-stimulated 'Lys-48' polyubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of DEPDC5. Through the degradation of DEPDC5, releases the GATOR1 complex-mediated inhibition of the TORC1 pathway. The BCR(KLHL25) ubiquitin ligase complex is involved in translational homeostasis by mediating ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of hypophosphorylated EIF4EBP1 (4E-BP1). The BCR(KLHL25) ubiquitin ligase complex is also involved in lipid synthesis by mediating ubiquitination and degradation of ACLY. The BCR(KBTBD8) complex acts by mediating monoubiquitination of NOLC1 and TCOF1, leading to remodel the translational program of differentiating cells in favor of neural crest specification. Involved in ubiquitination of cyclin E and of cyclin D1 (in vitro) thus involved in regulation of G1/S transition. Involved in the ubiquitination of KEAP1, ENC1 and KLHL41. In concert with ATF2 and RBX1, promotes degradation of KAT5 thereby attenuating its ability to acetylate and activate ATM. The BCR(KCTD17) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex mediates ubiquitination and degradation of TCHP, a down- regulator of cilium assembly, thereby inducing ciliogenesis. The BCR(KLHL24) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex mediates ubiquitination of KRT14, controls KRT14 levels during keratinocytes differentiation, and is essential for skin integrity. The BCR(KLHL18) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex mediates the ubiquitination of AURKA leading to its activation at the centrosome which is required for initiating mitotic entry. The BCR(KEAP1) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex acts as a key sensor of oxidative and electrophilic stress by mediating ubiquitination and degradation of NFE2L2/NRF2, a transcription factor regulating expression of many cytoprotective genes. As part of the CUL3(KBTBD6/7) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex functions mediates 'Lys-48' ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of TIAM1. By controlling the ubiquitination of that RAC1 guanine exchange factors (GEF), regulates RAC1 signal transduction and downstream biological processes including the organization of the cytoskeleton, cell migration and cell proliferation.

Core component of multiple cullin-RING-based E3 ubiquitin- protein ligase complexes which mediate the ubiquitination of target proteins. As a scaffold protein may contribute to catalysis through positioning of the substrate and the ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme. The E3 ubiquitin- protein ligase activity of the complex is dependent on the neddylation of the cullin subunit and is inhibited by the association of the deneddylated cullin subunit with TIP120A/CAND1. The functional specificity of the E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex depends on the variable substrate recognition component. DCX(DET1-COP1) directs ubiquitination of JUN. DCX(DDB2) directs ubiquitination of XPC. DCX(DDB2) ubiquitinates histones H3-H4 and is required for efficient histone deposition during replication-coupled (H3.1) and replication-independent (H3.3) nucleosome assembly, probably by facilitating the transfer of H3 from ASF1A/ASF1B to other chaperones involved in histone deposition. DCX(DTL) plays a role in PCNA-dependent polyubiquitination of CDT1 and MDM2-dependent ubiquitination of p53/TP53 in response to radiation-induced DNA damage and during DNA replication. DCX(DTL) directs autoubiquitination of DTL. In association with DDB1 and SKP2 probably is involved in ubiquitination of CDKN1B/p27kip. Is involved in ubiquitination of HOXA9. The DDB1-CUL4A- DTL E3 ligase complex regulates the circadian clock function by mediating the ubiquitination and degradation of CRY1. A number of DCX complexes (containing either TRPC4AP or DCAF12 as substrate-recognition component) are part of the DesCEND (destruction via C-end degrons) pathway, which recognizes a C-degron located at the extreme C terminus of target proteins, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. The DCX(AMBRA1) complex is a master regulator of the transition from G1 to S cell phase by mediating ubiquitination of phosphorylated cyclin-D (CCND1, CCND2 and CCND3). The DCX(AMBRA1) complex also acts as a regulator of Cul5-RING (CRL5) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes by mediating ubiquitination and degradation of Elongin-C (ELOC) component of CRL5 complexes. With CUL4B, contributes to ribosome biogenesis.

Core component of multiple cullin-RING-based E3 ubiquitin- protein ligase complexes which mediate the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. The functional specificity of the E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex depends on the variable substrate recognition subunit. CUL4B may act within the complex as a scaffold protein, contributing to catalysis through positioning of the substrate and the ubiquitin- conjugating enzyme. Plays a role as part of the E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex in polyubiquitination of CDT1, histone H2A, histone H3 and histone H4 in response to radiation-induced DNA damage. Targeted to UV damaged chromatin by DDB2 and may be important for DNA repair and DNA replication. A number of DCX complexes (containing either TRPC4AP or DCAF12 as substrate-recognition component) are part of the DesCEND (destruction via C-end degrons) pathway, which recognizes a C-degron located at the extreme C terminus of target proteins, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. The DCX(AMBRA1) complex is a master regulator of the transition from G1 to S cell phase by mediating ubiquitination of phosphorylated cyclin-D (CCND1, CCND2 and CCND3). The DCX(AMBRA1) complex also acts as a regulator of Cul5-RING (CRL5) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes by mediating ubiquitination and degradation of Elongin-C (ELOC) component of CRL5 complexes. Required for ubiquitination of cyclin E (CCNE1 or CCNE2), and consequently, normal G1 cell cycle progression. Regulates the mammalian target-of- rapamycin (mTOR) pathway involved in control of cell growth, size and metabolism. Specific CUL4B regulation of the mTORC1- mediated pathway is dependent upon 26S proteasome function and requires interaction between CUL4B and MLST8. With CUL4A, contributes to ribosome biogenesis.

Core component of multiple SCF-like ECS (Elongin-Cullin 2/5- SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes, which mediate the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. As a scaffold protein may contribute to catalysis through positioning of the substrate and the ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme. The functional specificity of the E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex depends on the variable substrate recognition component. ECS(SOCS1) seems to direct ubiquitination of JAK2. ECS(KLHDC1) complex is part of the DesCEND (destruction via C-end degrons) pathway and mediates ubiquitination and degradation of truncated SELENOS selenoprotein produced by failed UGA/Sec decoding, which ends with a glycine. As part of a multisubunit complex composed of elongin BC complex (ELOB and ELOC), elongin A/ELOA, RBX1 and CUL5; polyubiquitinates monoubiquitinated POLR2A. May form a cell surface vasopressin receptor.

Core component of the 3M and Cul7-RING(FBXW8) complexes, which mediates the ubiquitination of target proteins. Core component of the 3M complex, a complex required to regulate microtubule dynamics and genome integrity. It is unclear how the 3M complex regulates microtubules, it could act by controlling the level of a microtubule stabilizer. Interaction with CUL9 is required to inhibit CUL9 activity and ubiquitination of BIRC5. Core component of a Cul7-RING ubiquitin-protein ligase with FBXW8, which mediates ubiquitination and consequent degradation of target proteins such as GORASP1, IRS1 and MAP4K1/HPK1. Ubiquitination of GORASP1 regulates Golgi morphogenesis and dendrite patterning in brain. Mediates ubiquitination and degradation of IRS1 in a mTOR-dependent manner: the Cul7-RING(FBXW8) complex recognizes and binds IRS1 previously phosphorylated by S6 kinase (RPS6KB1 or RPS6KB2). The Cul7-RING(FBXW8) complex also mediates ubiquitination of MAP4K1/HPK1: recognizes and binds autophosphorylated MAP4K1/HPK1, leading to its degradation, thereby affecting cell proliferation and differentiation. Acts as a regulator in trophoblast cell epithelial-mesenchymal transition and placental development. Does not promote polyubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of p53/TP53. While the Cul7-RING(FBXW8) and the 3M complexes are associated and involved in common processes, CUL7 and the Cul7-RING(FBXW8) complex may be have additional functions.

Core component of a Cul9-RING ubiquitin-protein ligase complex, a complex that mediates ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of BIRC5 and is required to maintain microtubule dynamics and genome integrity. Acts downstream of the 3M complex, which inhibits CUL9 activity, leading to prevent ubiquitination of BIRC5. Cytoplasmic anchor protein in p53/TP53-associated protein complex. Regulates the subcellular localization of p53/TP53 and subsequent function.

May form part of a complex of membrane proteins attached to acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

May play a role in copper homeostasis. Can bind one Cu(1+) per subunit.

Transcription factor involved in the control of neuronal differentiation in the brain. Regulates dendrite development and branching, and dendritic spine formation in cortical layers II-III. Also involved in the control of synaptogenesis. In addition, it has probably a broad role in mammalian development as a repressor of developmentally regulated gene expression. May act by preventing binding of positively-activing CCAAT factors to promoters. Component of nf-munr repressor; binds to the matrix attachment regions (MARs) (5' and 3') of the immunoglobulin heavy chain enhancer. Represses T-cell receptor (TCR) beta enhancer function by binding to MARbeta, an ATC- rich DNA sequence located upstream of the TCR beta enhancer. Binds to the TH enhancer; may require the basic helix-loop-helix protein TCF4 as a coactivator.

Transcription factor involved in the control of neuronal proliferation and differentiation in the brain. Regulates dendrite development and branching, dendritic spine formation, and synaptogenesis in cortical layers II-III. Binds to DNA in a sequence- specific manner.

Localized to zymogen granules, where it functions in trypsinogen activation (By similarity). May indirectly regulate cell motility, cell-cell and cell/extracellular matrix interactions.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Component of the PRP19-CDC5L complex that forms an integral part of the spliceosome and is required for activating pre-mRNA splicing.

Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Promotes exon-junction complex (EJC) assembly. Hinders EIF4A3 from non-specifically binding RNA and escorts it to the splicing machinery to promote EJC assembly on mature mRNAs. Through its role in EJC assembly, required for nonsense-mediated mRNA decay.

As part of the spliceosome, plays a role in pre-mRNA splicing. Probable inactive PPIase with no peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase activity.

Receptor for the C-X3-C chemokine fractalkine (CX3CL1) present on many early leukocyte cells; CX3CR1-CX3CL1 signaling exerts distinct functions in different tissue compartments, such as immune response, inflammation, cell adhesion and chemotaxis. CX3CR1-CX3CL1 signaling mediates cell migratory functions (By similarity). Responsible for the recruitment of natural killer (NK) cells to inflamed tissues (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of inflammation process leading to atherogenesis by mediating macrophage and monocyte recruitment to inflamed atherosclerotic plaques, promoting cell survival (By similarity). Involved in airway inflammation by promoting interleukin 2-producing T helper (Th2) cell survival in inflamed lung (By similarity). Involved in the migration of circulating monocytes to non-inflamed tissues, where they differentiate into macrophages and dendritic cells (By similarity). Acts as a negative regulator of angiogenesis, probably by promoting macrophage chemotaxis. Plays a key role in brain microglia by regulating inflammatory response in the central nervous system (CNS) and regulating synapse maturation (By similarity). Required to restrain the microglial inflammatory response in the CNS and the resulting parenchymal damage in response to pathological stimuli (By similarity). Involved in brain development by participating in synaptic pruning, a natural process during which brain microglia eliminates extra synapses during postnatal development (By similarity). Synaptic pruning by microglia is required to promote the maturation of circuit connectivity during brain development (By similarity). Acts as an important regulator of the gut microbiota by controlling immunity to intestinal bacteria and fungi (By similarity). Expressed in lamina propria dendritic cells in the small intestine, which form transepithelial dendrites capable of taking up bacteria in order to provide defense against pathogenic bacteria (By similarity). Required to initiate innate and adaptive immune responses against dissemination of commensal fungi (mycobiota) component of the gut: expressed in mononuclear phagocytes (MNPs) and acts by promoting induction of antifungal IgG antibodies response to confer protection against disseminated C.albicans or C.auris infection. Also acts as a receptor for C-C motif chemokine CCL26, inducing cell chemotaxis.

Component of the cytochrome c oxidase, the last enzyme in the mitochondrial electron transport chain which drives oxidative phosphorylation. The respiratory chain contains 3 multisubunit complexes succinate dehydrogenase (complex II, CII), ubiquinol- cytochrome c oxidoreductase (cytochrome b-c1 complex, complex III, CIII) and cytochrome c oxidase (complex IV, CIV), that cooperate to transfer electrons derived from NADH and succinate to molecular oxygen, creating an electrochemical gradient over the inner membrane that drives transmembrane transport and the ATP synthase. Cytochrome c oxidase is the component of the respiratory chain that catalyzes the reduction of oxygen to water. Electrons originating from reduced cytochrome c in the intermembrane space (IMS) are transferred via the dinuclear copper A center (CU(A)) of subunit 2 and heme A of subunit 1 to the active site in subunit 1, a binuclear center (BNC) formed by heme A3 and copper B (CU(B)). The BNC reduces molecular oxygen to 2 water molecules unsing 4 electrons from cytochrome c in the IMS and 4 protons from the mitochondrial matrix.

Component of the cytochrome c oxidase, the last enzyme in the mitochondrial electron transport chain which drives oxidative phosphorylation. The respiratory chain contains 3 multisubunit complexes succinate dehydrogenase (complex II, CII), ubiquinol- cytochrome c oxidoreductase (cytochrome b-c1 complex, complex III, CIII) and cytochrome c oxidase (complex IV, CIV), that cooperate to transfer electrons derived from NADH and succinate to molecular oxygen, creating an electrochemical gradient over the inner membrane that drives transmembrane transport and the ATP synthase. Cytochrome c oxidase is the component of the respiratory chain that catalyzes the reduction of oxygen to water. Electrons originating from reduced cytochrome c in the intermembrane space (IMS) are transferred via the dinuclear copper A center (CU(A)) of subunit 2 and heme A of subunit 1 to the active site in subunit 1, a binuclear center (BNC) formed by heme A3 and copper B (CU(B)). The BNC reduces molecular oxygen to 2 water molecules unsing 4 electrons from cytochrome c in the IMS and 4 protons from the mitochondrial matrix. Plays a role in the assembly and stabilization of complex IV.

One gap junction consists of a cluster of closely packed pairs of transmembrane channels, the connexons, through which materials of low MW diffuse from one cell to a neighboring cell. Involved in tracer coupling between horizontal cells of the retina. May play a role in the regulation of horizontal cell patterning (By similarity).

Gap junction protein that acts as a regulator of bladder capacity. A gap junction consists of a cluster of closely packed pairs of transmembrane channels, the connexons, through which materials of low MW diffuse from one cell to a neighboring cell. May play a critical role in the physiology of hearing by participating in the recycling of potassium to the cochlear endolymph. Negative regulator of bladder functional capacity: acts by enhancing intercellular electrical and chemical transmission, thus sensitizing bladder muscles to cholinergic neural stimuli and causing them to contract (By similarity). May play a role in cell growth inhibition through the regulation of NOV expression and localization. Plays an essential role in gap junction communication in the ventricles (By similarity).

Structural component of lens fiber gap junctions. Gap junctions are dodecameric channels that connect the cytoplasm of adjoining cells (By similarity). They are formed by the docking of two hexameric hemichannels, one from each cell membrane. Small molecules and ions diffuse from one cell to a neighboring cell via the central pore.

One gap junction consists of a cluster of closely packed pairs of transmembrane channels, the connexons, through which materials of low MW diffuse from one cell to a neighboring cell

Structural component of eye lens gap junctions. Gap junctions are dodecameric channels that connect the cytoplasm of adjoining cells. They are formed by the docking of two hexameric hemichannels, one from each cell membrane (By similarity). Small molecules and ions diffuse from one cell to a neighboring cell via the central pore.

One gap junction consists of a cluster of closely packed pairs of transmembrane channels, the connexons, through which materials of low MW diffuse from one cell to a neighboring cell.

Component of the epithelial apical junction complex that may function as a homophilic cell adhesion molecule and is essential for tight junction integrity. Also involved in transepithelial migration of leukocytes through adhesive interactions with JAML a transmembrane protein of the plasma membrane of leukocytes. The interaction between both receptors also mediates the activation of gamma-delta T-cells, a subpopulation of T-cells residing in epithelia and involved in tissue homeostasis and repair. Upon epithelial CXADR-binding, JAML induces downstream cell signaling events in gamma-delta T-cells through PI3- kinase and MAP kinases. It results in proliferation and production of cytokines and growth factors by T-cells that in turn stimulate epithelial tissues repair.

Structural component of gap junctions. Gap junctions are dodecameric channels that connect the cytoplasm of adjoining cells. They are formed by the docking of two hexameric hemichannels, one from each cell membrane. Small molecules and ions diffuse from one cell to a neighboring cell via the central pore.

Structural component of gap junctions (By similarity). Gap junctions are dodecameric channels that connect the cytoplasm of adjoining cells. They are formed by the docking of two hexameric hemichannels, one from each cell membrane (By similarity). Small molecules and ions diffuse from one cell to a neighboring cell via the central pore (By similarity).

Produced by activated monocytes and neutrophils and expressed at sites of inflammation. Hematoregulatory chemokine, which, in vitro, suppresses hematopoietic progenitor cell proliferation. GRO-beta(5-73) shows a highly enhanced hematopoietic activity.

Ligand for CXCR2 (By similarity). Has chemotactic activity for neutrophils. May play a role in inflammation and exert its effects on endothelial cells in an autocrine fashion. In vitro, the processed form GRO-gamma(5-73) shows a fivefold higher chemotactic activity for neutrophilic granulocytes.

Involved in neutrophil activation. In vitro, ENA-78(8-78) and ENA-78(9-78) show a threefold higher chemotactic activity for neutrophil granulocytes.

Chemotactic for neutrophil granulocytes. Signals through binding and activation of its receptors (CXCR1 and CXCR2). In addition to its chemotactic and angiogenic properties, it has strong antibacterial activity against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria (90-fold-higher when compared to CXCL5 and CXCL7).

LA-PF4 stimulates DNA synthesis, mitosis, glycolysis, intracellular cAMP accumulation, prostaglandin E2 secretion, and synthesis of hyaluronic acid and sulfated glycosaminoglycan. It also stimulates the formation and secretion of plasminogen activator by human synovial cells. NAP-2 is a ligand for CXCR1 and CXCR2, and NAP-2, NAP-2(73), NAP-2(74), NAP-2(1-66), and most potent NAP-2(1-63) are chemoattractants and activators for neutrophils. TC-1 and TC-2 are antibacterial proteins, in vitro released from activated platelet alpha-granules. CTAP-III(1-81) is more potent than CTAP-III desensitize chemokine-induced neutrophil activation.

Cytokine that affects the growth, movement, or activation state of cells that participate in immune and inflammatory response. Chemotactic for activated T-cells. Binds to CXCR3

Receptor to interleukin-8, which is a powerful neutrophils chemotactic factor. Binding of IL-8 to the receptor causes activation of neutrophils. This response is mediated via a G- protein that activates a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system.

Receptor for interleukin-8 which is a powerful neutrophil chemotactic factor. Binding of IL-8 to the receptor causes activation of neutrophils. This response is mediated via a G- protein that activates a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. Binds to IL-8 with high affinity. Also binds with high affinity to CXCL3, GRO/MGSA and NAP-2.

[Isoform 1]: Receptor for the C-X-C chemokine CXCL9, CXCL10 and CXCL11 and mediates the proliferation, survival and angiogenic activity of human mesangial cells (HMC) through a heterotrimeric G- protein signaling pathway. Binds to CCL21. Probably promotes cell chemotaxis response.

Receptor for the C-X-C chemokine CXCL12/SDF-1 that transduces a signal by increasing intracellular calcium ion levels and enhancing MAPK1/MAPK3 activation. Involved in the AKT signaling cascade. Plays a role in regulation of cell migration, e.g. during wound healing. Acts as a receptor for extracellular ubiquitin; leading to enhanced intracellular calcium ions and reduced cellular cAMP levels. Binds bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) et mediates LPS-induced inflammatory response, including TNF secretion by monocytes. Involved in hematopoiesis and in cardiac ventricular septum formation. Also plays an essential role in vascularization of the gastrointestinal tract, probably by regulating vascular branching and/or remodeling processes in endothelial cells. Involved in cerebellar development. In the CNS, could mediate hippocampal-neuron survival (By similarity).

Cytokine receptor that binds to B-lymphocyte chemoattractant (BLC). Involved in B-cell migration into B-cell follicles of spleen and Peyer patches but not into those of mesenteric or peripheral lymph nodes. May have a regulatory function in Burkitt lymphoma (BL) lymphomagenesis and/or B-cell differentiation

Receptor for the C-X-C chemokine CXCL16. Used as a coreceptor by SIVs and by strains of HIV-2 and m-tropic HIV-1

Mediates calcium-independent ATP release, suggesting activity as a hemichannel. Does not form functional gap junctions.

One gap junction consists of a cluster of closely packed pairs of transmembrane channels, the connexons, through which materials of low MW diffuse from one cell to a neighboring cell. May play a role in myelination in central and peripheral nervous systems.

Pro-inflammatory cytokine that is involved in a wide variety of processes such as chemotaxis, differentiation, and activation of peripheral immune cells, regulation of cell growth, apoptosis and modulation of angiostatic effects. Plays thereby an important role during viral infections by stimulating the activation and migration of immune cells to the infected sites (By similarity). Mechanistically, binding of CXCL10 to the CXCR3 receptor activates G protein-mediated signaling and results in downstream activation of phospholipase C-dependent pathway, an increase in intracellular calcium production and actin reorganization. In turn, recruitment of activated Th1 lymphocytes occurs at sites of inflammation. Activation of the CXCL10/CXCR3 axis also plays an important role in neurons in response to brain injury for activating microglia, the resident macrophage population of the central nervous system, and directing them to the lesion site. This recruitment is an essential element for neuronal reorganization (By similarity).

Chemotactic for interleukin-activated T-cells but not unstimulated T-cells, neutrophils or monocytes. Induces calcium release in activated T-cells. Binds to CXCR3. May play an important role in CNS diseases which involve T-cell recruitment. May play a role in skin immune responses

Chemotactic for B-lymphocytes but not for T-lymphocytes, monocytes and neutrophils. Does not induce calcium release in B- lymphocytes. Binds to BLR1/CXCR5

Acts as a scavenger receptor on macrophages, which specifically binds to OxLDL (oxidized low density lipoprotein), suggesting that it may be involved in pathophysiology such as atherogenesis (By similarity). Induces a strong chemotactic response. Induces calcium mobilization. Binds to CXCR6/Bonzo.

Chemokine that acts as chemoattractant for monocytes, macrophages and dendritic cells. Plays a role in angiogenesis and possibly in the development of tumors. Acts as an anti-inflammatory in the stomach. May play a role in the innate defense against infections. Activates the C-X-C chemokine receptor GPR35 to induce a rapid and transient rise in the level of intracellular calcium ions.

Transcriptional activator that exhibits a unique DNA binding specificity for CpG unmethylated motifs with a preference for CpGG.

May indirectly participate in activation of the NF-kappa-B and MAPK pathways. Acts as a mediator of BMP4-mediated modulation of canonical Wnt signaling activity in neural stem cells (By similarity). Required for DNA damage-induced ATM phosphorylation, p53 activation and cell cycle arrest. Involved in myelopoiesis. Transcription factor. Binds to the oxygen responsive element of COX4I2 and represses its transcription under hypoxia conditions (4% oxygen), as well as normoxia conditions (20% oxygen). May repress COX4I2 transactivation induced by CHCHD2 and RBPJ. Binds preferentially to DNA containing cytidine-phosphate-guanosine (CpG) dinucleotides over CpH (H=A, T, and C), hemimethylated-CpG and hemimethylated-hydroxymethyl-CpG.

Component of the ubiquinol-cytochrome c oxidoreductase, a multisubunit transmembrane complex that is part of the mitochondrial electron transport chain which drives oxidative phosphorylation. The respiratory chain contains 3 multisubunit complexes succinate dehydrogenase (complex II, CII), ubiquinol-cytochrome c oxidoreductase (cytochrome b-c1 complex, complex III, CIII) and cytochrome c oxidase (complex IV, CIV), that cooperate to transfer electrons derived from NADH and succinate to molecular oxygen, creating an electrochemical gradient over the inner membrane that drives transmembrane transport and the ATP synthase. The cytochrome b-c1 complex catalyzes electron transfer from ubiquinol to cytochrome c, linking this redox reaction to translocation of protons across the mitochondrial inner membrane, with protons being carried across the membrane as hydrogens on the quinol. In the process called Q cycle, 2 protons are consumed from the matrix, 4 protons are released into the intermembrane space and 2 electrons are passed to cytochrome c. Cytochrome c1 is a catalytic core subunit containing a c-type heme. It transfers electrons from the [2Fe-2S] iron-sulfur cluster of the Rieske protein to cytochrome c.

Critical component of the membrane-bound oxidase of phagocytes that generates superoxide. Associates with NOX3 to form a functional NADPH oxidase constitutively generating superoxide.

Critical component of the membrane-bound oxidase of phagocytes that generates superoxide. It is the terminal component of a respiratory chain that transfers single electrons from cytoplasmic NADPH across the plasma membrane to molecular oxygen on the exterior. Also functions as a voltage-gated proton channel that mediates the H(+) currents of resting phagocytes. It participates in the regulation of cellular pH and is blocked by zinc

Transmembrane reductase that uses ascorbate as an electron donor in the cytoplasm and transfers electrons across membranes to reduce monodehydro-L-ascorbate radical in the lumen of secretory vesicles. It is therefore involved the regeneration and homeostasis within secretory vesicles of ascorbate which in turn provides reducing equivalents needed to support the activity of intravesicular enzymes.

Transmembrane reductase that uses ascorbate as an electron donor in the cytoplasm and transfers electrons across membranes to reduce iron cations Fe(3+) into Fe(2+) in the lumen of the late endosome and lysosome. Reduced iron can then be extruded from the late endosome and lysosome to the cytoplasm by divalent metal-specific transporters. It is therefore most probably involved in endosomal and lysosomal cellular iron homeostasis.

Cytochrome b5 is a membrane-bound hemoprotein functioning as an electron carrier for several membrane-bound oxygenases.

Cytochrome b5 is a membrane-bound hemoprotein functioning as an electron carrier for several membrane-bound oxygenases

Functions as a chaperone necessary for a stable expression of the CYBA and CYBB subunits of the cytochrome b-245 heterodimer. Controls the phagocyte respiratory burst and is essential for innate immunity (By similarity).

May be involved in calcium-dependent ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Probably serves as a molecular bridge in ubiquitin E3 complexes. Participates in the ubiquitin-mediated degradation of beta-catenin (CTNNB1).

Plasma membrane reductase that uses cytoplasmic ascorbate as an electron donor to reduce extracellular Fe(3+) into Fe(2+). Probably functions in dietary iron absorption at the brush border of duodenal enterocytes by producing Fe(2+), the divalent form of iron that can be transported into enterocytes. It is also able to reduce extracellular monodehydro- L-ascorbate and may be involved in extracellular ascorbate regeneration by erythrocytes in blood. May also act as a ferrireductase in airway epithelial cells (Probable). May also function as a cupric transmembrane reductase (By similarity).

Electron carrier protein. The oxidized form of the cytochrome c heme group can accept an electron from the heme group of the cytochrome c1 subunit of cytochrome reductase. Cytochrome c then transfers this electron to the cytochrome oxidase complex, the final protein carrier in the mitochondrial electron-transport chain

Component of the CYFIP1-EIF4E-FMR1 complex which binds to the mRNA cap and mediates translational repression. In the CYFIP1-EIF4E- FMR1 complex this subunit is an adapter between EIF4E and FMR1. Promotes the translation repression activity of FMR1 in brain probably by mediating its association with EIF4E and mRNA (By similarity). Regulates formation of membrane ruffles and lamellipodia. Plays a role in axon outgrowth. Binds to F-actin but not to RNA. Part of the WAVE complex that regulates actin filament reorganization via its interaction with the Arp2/3 complex. Actin remodeling activity is regulated by RAC1. Regulator of epithelial morphogenesis. As component of the WAVE1 complex, required for BDNF-NTRK2 endocytic trafficking and signaling from early endosomes (By similarity). May act as an invasion suppressor in cancers.

Involved in T-cell adhesion and p53/TP53-dependent induction of apoptosis. Does not bind RNA. As component of the WAVE1 complex, required for BDNF-NTRK2 endocytic trafficking and signaling from early endosomes (By similarity).

May have a protective function during conditions of oxidative stress. May be involved in intracellular oxygen storage or transfer

Promotes guanine-nucleotide exchange on ARF1, ARF5 and ARF6. Promotes the activation of ARF factors through replacement of GDP with GTP. Plays an important role in membrane trafficking, during junctional remodeling and epithelial polarization, through regulation of ARF6 activity.

Acts as a guanine-nucleotide exchange factor (GEF). Promotes guanine-nucleotide exchange on ARF1, ARF3 and ARF6. Activates ARF factors through replacement of GDP with GTP (By similarity). The cell membrane form, in association with ARL4 proteins, recruits ARF6 to the plasma membrane. Involved in neurite growth (By similarity).

Promotes guanine-nucleotide exchange on ARF1 and ARF6. Promotes the activation of ARF factors through replacement of GDP with GTP. Plays a role in the epithelial polarization (By similarity).

Promotes guanine-nucleotide exchange on ARF1 and ARF5. Promotes the activation of ARF factors through replacement of GDP with GTP.

Possible architectural role during spermatogenesis. May be involved in spermatid differentiation

Deubiquitinase that specifically cleaves 'Lys-63'- and linear 'Met-1'-linked polyubiquitin chains and is involved in NF-kappa-B activation and TNF-alpha-induced necroptosis. Negatively regulates NF-kappa-B activation by deubiquitinating upstream signaling factors. Contributes to the regulation of cell survival, proliferation and differentiation via its effects on NF-kappa-B activation. Negative regulator of Wnt signaling. Inhibits HDAC6 and thereby promotes acetylation of alpha-tubulin and stabilization of microtubules. Plays a role in the regulation of microtubule dynamics, and thereby contributes to the regulation of cell proliferation, cell polarization, cell migration, and angiogenesis. Required for normal cell cycle progress and normal cytokinesis. Inhibits nuclear translocation of NF-kappa-B. Plays a role in the regulation of inflammation and the innate immune response, via its effects on NF- kappa-B activation. Dispensable for the maturation of intrathymic natural killer cells, but required for the continued survival of immature natural killer cells (By similarity). Negatively regulates TNFRSF11A signaling and osteoclastogenesis (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of ciliogenesis, allowing ciliary basal bodies to migrate and dock to the plasma membrane; this process does not depend on NF-kappa-B activation (By similarity). Ability to remove linear ('Met-1'-linked) polyubiquitin chains regulates innate immunity and TNF-alpha-induced necroptosis: recruited to the LUBAC complex via interaction with SPATA2 and restricts linear polyubiquitin formation on target proteins. Regulates innate immunity by restricting linear polyubiquitin formation on RIPK2 in response to NOD2 stimulation. Involved in TNF-alpha-induced necroptosis by removing linear ('Met-1'-linked) polyubiquitin chains from RIPK1, thereby regulating the kinase activity of RIPK1 (By similarity). Negatively regulates intestinal inflammation by removing 'Lys-63' linked polyubiquitin chain of NLRP6, thereby reducing the interaction between NLRP6 and PYCARD/ASC and formation of the NLRP6 inflammasome (By similarity). Removes 'Lys-63' linked polyubiquitin chain of MAP3K7, which inhibits phosphorylation and blocks downstream activation of the JNK-p38 kinase cascades.

Cell-cycle-specific regulator of classical non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) of DNA double-strand break (DSB) repair, which can act both as an activator or inhibitor of NHEJ, depending on the cell cycle phase. Acts as a regulator of DNA repair pathway choice by specifically inhibiting classical NHEJ during the S and G2 phases, thereby promoting error-free repair by homologous recombination during cell cycle phases when sister chromatids are present. Preferentially protects single-stranded overhangs at break sites by inhibiting classical NHEJ, thereby creating a local environment that favors homologous recombination. Acts via interaction with XRCC5/Ku80 and XRCC6/Ku70. In contrast, acts as an activator of NHEJ during G1 phase of the cell cycle: promotes classical NHEJ in G1 phase cells via multivalent interactions that increase the affinity of DNA damage response proteins for DSB-associated chromatin. Also involved in immunoglobulin V(D)J recombination (By similarity). May also act as an indirect regulator of proteasome (By similarity).

May negatively regulate RAC1 signaling and RAC1-driven cytoskeletal remodeling (Probable). May regulate chemotaxis, cell migration and epithelial polarization by controlling the polarity, plasticity, duration and extent of protrusions (Probable).

Negatively regulates RAC1 signaling and RAC1-driven cytoskeletal remodeling. Regulates chemotaxis, cell migration and epithelial polarization by controlling the polarity, plasticity, duration and extent of protrusions. Limits Rac1 mediated activation of the Scar/WAVE complex, focuses protrusion signals and regulates pseudopod complexity by inhibiting Scar/WAVE- induced actin polymerization. Protects against Salmonella bacterial infection. Attenuates processes such as macropinocytosis, phagocytosis and cell migration and restrict sopE- mediated bacterial entry. Restricts also infection mediated by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Listeria monocytogenes (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of mitochondrial dynamics and oxidative stress.

This is an intracellular thiol proteinase inhibitor. Has an important role in desmosome-mediated cell-cell adhesion in the lower levels of the epidermis.

This is an intracellular thiol proteinase inhibitor. Tightly binding reversible inhibitor of cathepsins L, H and B

As an inhibitor of cysteine proteinases, this protein is thought to serve an important physiological role as a local regulator of this enzyme activity

Cysteine proteinase inhibitor that possibly plays a protective role against proteinases present in the oral cavity. The order of preference for inhibition is cathepsin S > cathepsin H > cathepsin L > cathepsin B.

Inhibits papain and cathepsin L but with affinities lower than other cystatins. May play a role in immune regulation through inhibition of a unique target in the hematopoietic system

By its binding to cytohesin-1 (CYTH1), it modifies activation of ARFs by CYTH1 and its precise function may be to sequester CYTH1 in the cytoplasm

High affinity inhibitor for cathepsin L, cathepsin L2 (cathepsin V), and legumain. Involved in the regulation of epidermal cornification, and hair follicle morphogenesis and maintenance.

Human saliva appears to contain several cysteine proteinase inhibitors that are immunologically related to cystatin S but that differ in their specificity due to amino acid sequence differences. Cystatin SN, with a pI of 7.5, is a much better inhibitor of papain and dipeptidyl peptidase I than is cystatin S, although both inhibit ficin equally well

Involved in cytokinesis and spindle organization. May play a role in actin cytoskeleton organization and microtubule stabilization and hence required for proper cell adhesion and migration.

This protein strongly inhibits papain and ficin, partially inhibits stem bromelain and bovine cathepsin C, but does not inhibit porcine cathepsin B or clostripain. Papain is inhibited non- competitively

Exhibits antimicrobial activity against Gram-positive bacteria S.aureus and S.pyogenes, Gram-negative bacteria P.aeruginosa and E.coli and the yeast C.albicans. Kills multiresistant S.aureus and vancomycin-resistant E.faecium. No significant hemolytic activity was observed.

Has antimicrobial activity. Synergistic effects with lysozyme and DEFB103.

Has antibacterial activity. Acts as a ligand for C-C chemokine receptor CCR2.

Antimicrobial host-defense peptide. Has an antiplasmodial activity.

Has antibacterial activity (Probable). Upon stimulation with lipoteichoic acid, promotes cytokines and chemokines production and secretion.

Probable C-mannosyltransferase that mediates C-mannosylation of tryptophan residues on target proteins.

Catalyzes the oxidation of D-2-hydroxyglutarate (D-2-HG) to alpha-ketoglutarate. Also catalyzes the oxidation of other D-2-hydroxyacids, such as D-malate (D-MAL) and D-lactate (D-LAC). Exhibits high activities towards D-2-HG and D-MAL but a very weak activity towards D-LAC.

Key assembly factor specifically required for the stability of axonemal dynein heavy chains in cytoplasm.

Involved in dynein arm assembly, is important for expression and transporting outer dynein arm (ODA) proteins from the cytoplasm to the cilia. Acts as a crucial component in the formation and motility of spermatozoal flagella.

Cilium-specific protein required for the stability of the ciliary architecture. Plays a role in cytoplasmic preassembly of dynein arms. Involved in regulation of microtubule-based cilia and actin-based brush border microvilli.

Required for the assembly of axonemal inner and outer dynein arms. Involved in preassembly of dyneins into complexes before their transport into cilia.

Axonemal dynein assembly factor required for ciliary motility. Involved in neuronal migration during development of the cerebral neocortex. May regulate the stability and proteasomal degradation of the estrogen receptors that play an important role in neuronal differentiation, survival and plasticity.

Cytoplasmic protein involved in the delivery of the dynein machinery to the motile cilium. It is required for the assembly of the axonemal dynein inner and outer arms, two structures attached to the peripheral outer doublet A microtubule of the axoneme, that play a crucial role in cilium motility.

In cyliated cells, dynein axonemal particle-specific protein required for deployment of ODA to the axoneme. Interacts with outer dynein arm (ODA) subunits.

Binds to disheveled (Dvl) and Rho, and mediates Wnt-induced Dvl-Rho complex formation. May play a role as a scaffolding protein to recruit Rho-GDP and Rho-GEF, thereby enhancing Rho-GTP formation. Can direct nucleation and elongation of new actin filaments. Involved in building functional cilia. Involved in the organization of the subapical actin network in multiciliated epithelial cells (By similarity). Together with DAAM2, required for myocardial maturation and sarcomere assembly (By similarity).

Key regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway, which is required for various processes during development, such as dorsal patterning, determination of left/right symmetry or myelination in the central nervous system. Acts downstream of Wnt ligands and upstream of beta- catenin (CTNNB1). Required for canonical Wnt signaling pathway during patterning in the dorsal spinal cord by promoting the aggregation of Disheveled (Dvl) complexes, thereby clustering and formation of Wnt receptor signalosomes and potentiating Wnt activity. During dorsal patterning of the spinal cord, inhibits oligodendrocytes differentiation via interaction with PIP5K1A. Also regulates non- canonical Wnt signaling pathway. Acts downstream of PITX2 in the developing gut and is required for left/right asymmetry within dorsal mesentery: affects mesenchymal condensation by lengthening cadherin- based junctions through WNT5A and non-canonical Wnt signaling, inducing polarized condensation in the left dorsal mesentery necessary to initiate gut rotation. Together with DAAM1, required for myocardial maturation and sarcomere assembly. Is a regulator of actin nucleation and elongation, filopodia formation and podocyte migration.

Adapter molecule functioning in neural development. May regulate SIAH1 activity.

Functions as a scaffold protein implicated in the regulation of a large spectrum of both general and specialized signaling pathways. Involved in several processes such as innate immune response, inflammation and cell growth inhibition, apoptosis, cell survival, angiogenesis, cell migration and maturation. Also plays a role in cell cycle checkpoint control; reduces G1 phase cyclin levels resulting in G0/G1 cell cycle arrest. Mediates signal transduction by receptor- mediated inflammatory signals, such as the tumor necrosis factor (TNF), interferon (IFN) or lipopolysaccharide (LPS). Modulates the balance between phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K)-AKT-mediated cell survival and apoptosis stimulated kinase (MAP3K5)-JNK signaling pathways; sequesters both AKT1 and MAP3K5 and counterbalances the activity of each kinase by modulating their phosphorylation status in response to pro-inflammatory stimuli. Acts as a regulator of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) unfolded protein response (UPR) pathway; specifically involved in transduction of the ER stress-response to the JNK cascade through ERN1. Mediates TNF-alpha-induced apoptosis activation by facilitating dissociation of inhibitor 14-3-3 from MAP3K5; recruits the PP2A phosphatase complex which dephosphorylates MAP3K5 on 'Ser-966', leading to the dissociation of 13-3-3 proteins and activation of the MAP3K5-JNK signaling pathway in endothelial cells. Mediates also TNF/TRAF2-induced MAP3K5-JNK activation, while it inhibits CHUK-NF- kappa-B signaling. Acts a negative regulator in the IFN-gamma-mediated JAK-STAT signaling cascade by inhibiting smooth muscle cell (VSMCs) proliferation and intimal expansion, and thus, prevents graft arteriosclerosis (GA). Acts as a GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for the ADP ribosylation factor 6 (ARF6) and Ras. Promotes hydrolysis of the ARF6-bound GTP and thus, negatively regulates phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2)-dependent TLR4-TIRAP-MyD88 and NF-kappa-B signaling pathways in endothelial cells in response to lipopolysaccharides (LPS). Binds specifically to phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns4P) and phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns3P). In response to vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGFA), acts as a negative regulator of the VEGFR2-PI3K-mediated angiogenic signaling pathway by inhibiting endothelial cell migration and tube formation. In the developing brain, promotes both the transition from the multipolar to the bipolar stage and the radial migration of cortical neurons from the ventricular zone toward the superficial layer of the neocortex in a glial-dependent locomotion process. Probable downstream effector of the Reelin signaling pathway; promotes Purkinje cell (PC) dendrites development and formation of cerebellar synapses. Functions also as a tumor suppressor protein in prostate cancer progression; prevents cell proliferation and epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT) through activation of the glycogen synthase kinase-3 beta (GSK3B)-induced beta- catenin and inhibition of PI3K-AKT and Ras-MAPK survival downstream signaling cascades, respectively.

Adapter protein that functions as clathrin-associated sorting protein (CLASP) required for clathrin-mediated endocytosis of selected cargo proteins. Can bind and assemble clathrin, and binds simultaneously to phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2) and cargos containing non-phosphorylated NPXY internalization motifs, such as the LDL receptor, to recruit them to clathrin-coated pits. Can function in clathrin-mediated endocytosis independently of the AP-2 complex. Involved in endocytosis of integrin beta-1; this function seems to redundant with the AP-2 complex and seems to require DAB2 binding to endocytosis accessory EH domain-containing proteins such as EPS15, EPS15L1 and ITSN1. Involved in endocytosis of cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator/CFTR. Involved in endocytosis of megalin/LRP2 lipoprotein receptor during embryonal development. Required for recycling of the TGF-beta receptor. Involved in CFTR trafficking to the late endosome. Involved in several receptor-mediated signaling pathways. Involved in TGF-beta receptor signaling and facilitates phosphorylation of the signal transducer SMAD2. Mediates TFG-beta-stimulated JNK activation. May inhibit the canoniocal Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway by stabilizing the beta-catenin destruction complex through a competing association with axin preventing its dephosphorylation through protein phosphatase 1 (PP1). Sequesters LRP6 towards clathrin-mediated endocytosis, leading to inhibition of Wnt/beta-catenin signaling. May activate non-canonical Wnt signaling. In cell surface growth factor/Ras signaling pathways proposed to inhibit ERK activation by interrupting the binding of GRB2 to SOS1 and to inhibit SRC by preventing its activating phosphorylation at 'Tyr-419'. Proposed to be involved in modulation of androgen receptor (AR) signaling mediated by SRC activation; seems to compete with AR for interaction with SRC. Plays a role in the CSF-1 signal transduction pathway. Plays a role in cellular differentiation. Involved in cell positioning and formation of visceral endoderm (VE) during embryogenesis and proposed to be required in the VE to respond to Nodal signaling coming from the epiblast. Required for the epithelial to mesenchymal transition, a process necessary for proper embryonic development. May be involved in myeloid cell differentiation and can induce macrophage adhesion and spreading. May act as a tumor suppressor.

Transcription factor that is involved in regulation of organogenesis. Seems to be a regulator of SIX1, SIX6 and probably SIX5. Corepression of precursor cell proliferation in myoblasts by SIX1 is switched to coactivation through recruitment of EYA3 to the SIX1-DACH1 complex. Transcriptional activation seems also to involve association of CREBBP. Seems to act as a corepressor of SIX6 in regulating proliferation by directly repressing cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors, including the p27Kip1 promoter (By similarity). Inhibits TGF-beta signaling through interaction with SMAD4 and NCOR1. Binds to chromatin DNA via its DACHbox-N domain (By similarity).

Transcription factor that is involved in regulation of organogenesis. Seems to be a regulator for SIX1 and SIX6. Seems to act as a corepressor of SIX6 in regulating proliferation by directly repressing cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors, including the p27Kip1 promoter. Is recruited with SIX6 to the p27Kip1 promoter in embryonal retina. SIX6 corepression seems also to involve NCOR1, TBL1, HDAC1 and HDAC3. May be involved together with PAX3, SIX1, and EYA2 in regulation of myogenesis. In the developing somite, expression of DACH2 and PAX3 is regulated by the overlying ectoderm, and DACH2 and PAX3 positively regulate each other's expression (By similarity). Probably binds to DNA via its DACHbox-N domain.

Involved in regulation of intracellular signaling pathways during development. Specifically thought to play a role in canonical and/or non-canonical Wnt signaling pathways through interaction with DSH (Dishevelled) family proteins. The activation/inhibition of Wnt signaling may depend on the phosphorylation status. Proposed to regulate the degradation of CTNNB1/beta-catenin, thereby modulating the transcriptional activation of target genes of the Wnt signaling pathway. Its function in stabilizing CTNNB1 may involve inhibition of GSK3B activity. Promotes the membrane localization of CTNNB1. The cytoplasmic form can induce DVL2 degradation via a lysosome-dependent mechanism; the function is inhibited by PKA-induced binding to 14-3-3 proteins, such as YWHAB. Seems to be involved in morphogenesis at the primitive streak by regulating VANGL2 and DVL2; the function seems to be independent of canonical Wnt signaling and rather involves the non- canonical Wnt/planar cell polarity (PCP) pathway (By similarity). The nuclear form may prevent the formation of LEF1:CTNNB1 complex and recruit HDAC1 to LEF1 at target gene promoters to repress transcription thus antagonizing Wnt signaling. May be involved in positive regulation of fat cell differentiation. During neuronal differentiation may be involved in excitatory synapse organization, and dendrite formation and establishment of spines.

Involved in regulation of intracellular signaling pathways during development. Negatively regulates the Nodal signaling pathway, possibly by promoting the lysosomal degradation of Nodal receptors, such as TGFBR1. May be involved in control of the morphogenetic behavior of kidney ureteric bud cells by keeping cells epithelial and restraining their mesenchymal character. May play an inhibitory role in the re-epithelialization of skin wounds by attenuating TGF-beta signaling (By similarity).

May be involved in regulation of intracellular signaling pathways during development. Specifically thought to play a role in canonical and/or non-canonical Wnt signaling pathways through interaction with DSH (Dishevelled) family proteins.

Subunit of the oligosaccharyl transferase (OST) complex that catalyzes the initial transfer of a defined glycan (Glc(3)Man(9)GlcNAc(2) in eukaryotes) from the lipid carrier dolichol- pyrophosphate to an asparagine residue within an Asn-X-Ser/Thr consensus motif in nascent polypeptide chains, the first step in protein N-glycosylation. N- glycosylation occurs cotranslationally and the complex associates with the Sec61 complex at the channel-forming translocon complex that mediates protein translocation across the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). All subunits are required for a maximal enzyme activity (By similarity). Required for the assembly of both SST3A- and SS3B- containing OST complexes. Loss of the DAD1 protein triggers apoptosis.

This protein recognizes C4b and C3b fragments that condense with cell-surface hydroxyl or amino groups when nascent C4b and C3b are locally generated during C4 and c3 activation. Interaction of daf with cell-associated C4b and C3b polypeptides interferes with their ability to catalyze the conversion of C2 and factor B to enzymatically active C2a and Bb and thereby prevents the formation of C4b2a and C3bBb, the amplification convertases of the complement cascade. Inhibits complement activation by destabilizing and preventing the formation of C3 and C5 convertases, which prevents complement damage.

The dystroglycan complex is involved in a number of processes including laminin and basement membrane assembly, sarcolemmal stability, cell survival, peripheral nerve myelination, nodal structure, cell migration, and epithelial polarization

Involved in tRNA methylation. Facilitates the recognition and targeting of tRNA(Arg)(CCU) and tRNA(Arg)(UCU) substrates for N(3)- methylcytidine modification by METTL2A and METTL2B.

Seems to play a role in the correct specification of the left-right axis. May antagonize NODAL and BMP4 signaling. Cystine knot- containing proteins play important roles during development, organogenesis, tissue growth and differentiation (By similarity).

Negative regulator of autophagy. Involved in mediating interferon-gamma-induced cell death.

Calcium/calmodulin-dependent serine/threonine kinase involved in multiple cellular signaling pathways that trigger cell survival, apoptosis, and autophagy. Regulates both type I apoptotic and type II autophagic cell deaths signal, depending on the cellular setting. The former is caspase-dependent, while the latter is caspase-independent and is characterized by the accumulation of autophagic vesicles. Phosphorylates PIN1 resulting in inhibition of its catalytic activity, nuclear localization, and cellular function. Phosphorylates TPM1, enhancing stress fiber formation in endothelial cells. Phosphorylates STX1A and significantly decreases its binding to STXBP1. Phosphorylates PRKD1 and regulates JNK signaling by binding and activating PRKD1 under oxidative stress. Phosphorylates BECN1, reducing its interaction with BCL2 and BCL2L1 and promoting the induction of autophagy. Phosphorylates TSC2, disrupting the TSC1-TSC2 complex and stimulating mTORC1 activity in a growth factor-dependent pathway. Phosphorylates RPS6, MYL9 and DAPK3. Acts as a signaling amplifier of NMDA receptors at extrasynaptic sites for mediating brain damage in stroke. Cerebral ischemia recruits DAPK1 into the NMDA receptor complex and it phosphorylates GRINB at Ser-1303 inducing injurious Ca(2+) influx through NMDA receptor channels, resulting in an irreversible neuronal death. Required together with DAPK3 for phosphorylation of RPL13A upon interferon-gamma activation which is causing RPL13A involvement in transcript-selective translation inhibition

Calcium/calmodulin-dependent serine/threonine kinase involved in multiple cellular signaling pathways that trigger cell survival, apoptosis, and autophagy. Regulates both type I apoptotic and type II autophagic cell death signals, depending on the cellular setting. The former is caspase-dependent, while the latter is caspase-independent and is characterized by the accumulation of autophagic vesicles. Acts as a mediator of anoikis and a suppressor of beta-catenin-dependent anchorage-independent growth of malignant epithelial cells. May play a role in granulocytic maturation. Regulates granulocytic motility by controlling cell spreading and polarization.

Serine/threonine kinase which is involved in the regulation of apoptosis, autophagy, transcription, translation and actin cytoskeleton reorganization. Involved in the regulation of smooth muscle contraction. Regulates both type I (caspase-dependent) apoptotic and type II (caspase-independent) autophagic cell deaths signal, depending on the cellular setting. Involved in regulation of starvation-induced autophagy. Regulates myosin phosphorylation in both smooth muscle and non-muscle cells. In smooth muscle, regulates myosin either directly by phosphorylating MYL12B and MYL9 or through inhibition of smooth muscle myosin phosphatase (SMPP1M) via phosphorylation of PPP1R12A; the inhibition of SMPP1M functions to enhance muscle responsiveness to Ca(2+) and promote a contractile state. Phosphorylates MYL12B in non-muscle cells leading to reorganization of actin cytoskeleton. Isoform 2 can phosphorylate myosin, PPP1R12A and MYL12B. Overexpression leads to condensation of actin stress fibers into thick bundles. Involved in actin filament focal adhesion dynamics. The function in both reorganization of actin cytoskeleton and focal adhesion dissolution is modulated by RhoD. Positively regulates canonical Wnt/beta-catenin signaling through interaction with NLK and TCF7L2. Phosphorylates RPL13A on 'Ser-77' upon interferon-gamma activation which is causing RPL13A release from the ribosome, RPL13A association with the GAIT complex and its subsequent involvement in transcript-selective translation inhibition. Enhances transcription from AR-responsive promoters in a hormone- and kinase- dependent manner. Involved in regulation of cell cycle progression and cell proliferation. May be a tumor suppressor.

May play a role in the early stages of epithelial differentiation or in apoptosis.

Required for activation of guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G-proteins) during non-canonical Wnt signaling. Binds to ligand-activated Wnt receptor FZD7, displacing DVL1 from the FZD7 receptor and leading to inhibition of canonical Wnt signaling. Acts as a non-receptor guanine nucleotide exchange factor by also binding to guanine nucleotide-binding protein G(i) alpha (Gi-alpha) subunits, leading to their activation. Binding to Gi-alpha subunits displaces the beta and gamma subunits from the heterotrimeric G-protein complex, triggering non-canonical Wnt responses such as activation of RAC1 and PI3K-AKT signaling. Promotes apical constriction of cells via ARHGEF18.

May act as a B-cell-associated adapter that regulates B-cell antigen receptor (BCR)-signaling downstream of PI3K.

Transcription corepressor known to repress transcriptional potential of several sumoylated transcription factors. Down-regulates basal and activated transcription. Its transcription repressor activity is modulated by recruiting it to subnuclear compartments like the nucleolus or PML/POD/ND10 nuclear bodies through interactions with MCSR1 and PML, respectively. Seems to regulate transcription in PML/POD/ND10 nuclear bodies together with PML and may influence TNFRSF6-dependent apoptosis thereby. Inhibits transcriptional activation of PAX3 and ETS1 through direct protein-protein interactions. Modulates PAX5 activity; the function seems to involve CREBBP. Acts as an adapter protein in a MDM2-DAXX-USP7 complex by regulating the RING-finger E3 ligase MDM2 ubiquitination activity. Under non-stress condition, in association with the deubiquitinating USP7, prevents MDM2 self-ubiquitination and enhances the intrinsic E3 ligase activity of MDM2 towards TP53, thereby promoting TP53 ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation. Upon DNA damage, its association with MDM2 and USP7 is disrupted, resulting in increased MDM2 autoubiquitination and consequently, MDM2 degradation, which leads to TP53 stabilization. Acts as histone chaperone that facilitates deposition of histone H3.3. Acts as targeting component of the chromatin remodeling complex ATRX:DAXX which has ATP-dependent DNA translocase activity and catalyzes the replication-independent deposition of histone H3.3 in pericentric DNA repeats outside S-phase and telomeres, and the in vitro remodeling of H3.3-containing nucleosomes. Does not affect the ATPase activity of ATRX but alleviates its transcription repression activity. Upon neuronal activation associates with regulatory elements of selected immediate early genes where it promotes deposition of histone H3.3 which may be linked to transcriptional induction of these genes. Required for the recruitment of histone H3.3:H4 dimers to PML-nuclear bodies (PML-NBs); the process is independent of ATRX and facilitated by ASF1A; PML-NBs are suggested to function as regulatory sites for the incorporation of newly synthesized histone H3.3 into chromatin. In case of overexpression of centromeric histone variant CENPA (as found in various tumors) is involved in its mislocalization to chromosomes; the ectopic localization involves a heterotypic tetramer containing CENPA, and histones H3.3 and H4 and decreases binding of CTCF to chromatin. Proposed to mediate activation of the JNK pathway and apoptosis via MAP3K5 in response to signaling from TNFRSF6 and TGFBR2. Interaction with HSPB1/HSP27 may prevent interaction with TNFRSF6 and MAP3K5 and block DAXX-mediated apoptosis. In contrast, in lymphoid cells JNC activation and TNFRSF6-mediated apoptosis may not involve DAXX. Shows restriction activity towards human cytomegalovirus (HCMV). Plays a role as a positive regulator of the heat shock transcription factor HSF1 activity during the stress protein response.

RNA-binding protein that plays an essential role in spermatogenesis. May act by binding to the 3'-UTR of mRNAs and regulating their translation. Promotes germ-cell progression to meiosis and formation of haploid germ cells.

RNA-binding protein that plays an essential role in spermatogenesis. May act by binding to the 3'-UTR of mRNAs and regulating their translation

RNA-binding protein, which is essential for gametogenesis in both males and females. Plays a central role during spermatogenesis. Acts by binding to the 3'-UTR of mRNA, specifically recognizing GUU triplets, and thereby regulating the translation of key transcripts (By similarity).

RNA-binding protein, which may be required during spermatogenesis

In unstressed cells, promotes SIAH1-mediated polyubiquitination and degradation of the serine/threonine-protein kinase HIPK2, probably by acting as a loading factor that potentiates complex formation between HIPK2 and ubiquitin ligase SIAH1. In response to DNA damage, localizes to the nucleus following phosphorylation by HIPK2 and modulates the expression of a subset of TP53/p53 target genes by binding to TP53 at target gene promoters. This limits the expression of a number of cell death-mediating TP53 target genes, reducing DNA damage-induced cell death. Enhances the binding of transcription factor TCF7L2/TCF4, a Wnt signaling pathway effector, to the promoters of target genes (By similarity). Plays a role in stress granule formation.

Has a salt-sensitive antimicrobial activity against Gram- negative bacteria, including E.coli, Gram-positive, including S.aureus, and fungi, including C.albicans. Binds to and neutralizes bacterial lipopolysaccharides (LPS), abolishing TNF production by macrophages challenged with LPS. Rescues the LPS-induced reduction of sperm motility in vitro and may protect from LPS-induced lethality.

Host defense peptide that exhibits antimicrobial activity against both Gram-negative bacteria, such as E.coli and S.typhimurium, and Gram-positive bacteria, such as S.aureus and B.subtilis. Inhibits cell adhesion of E.coli on intestinal epithelial enterocytes. Causes rapid permeabilization of both the outer and inner membrane of E.coli, leading to morphological alterations on the bacterial surface. Binds to bacterial lipopolysaccharides (LPS) with high affinity, and may thereby be involved in immunoregulation through LPS neutralization. May contribute to epididymal innate immunity and protect the sperm against attack by microorganisms.

Highly glycosylated atypical beta-defensin involved in several aspects of sperm function. Facilitates sperm transport in the female reproductive tract and contributes to sperm protection against immunodetection; both functions are probably implicating the negative surface charge provided by its O-linked oligosaccharides in the sperm glycocalyx. Involved in binding of sperm to oviductal epithelial cells to form a sperm reservoir until ovulation. Release from the sperm surface during capacitation and ovaluation by an elevation of oviductal fluid pH is unmasking other surface components and allows sperm to penetrate the cumulus matrix and bind to the zona pellucida of the oocyte (By similarity). In vitro has antimicrobial activity and may inhibit LPS-mediated inflammation.

Host defense peptide that exhibits antibacterial and antifungal activity. Exhibits antimicrobial activity against E.coli, S.aureus and C.albicans (in vitro). Has high lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-binding affinity, and may thereby be involved in immunoregulation through LPS neutralization.

Regulatory subunit for CDC7 which activates its kinase activity thereby playing a central role in DNA replication and cell proliferation. Required for progression of S phase. The complex CDC7- DBF4A selectively phosphorylates MCM2 subunit at 'Ser-40' and 'Ser-53' and then is involved in regulating the initiation of DNA replication during cell cycle.

Regulatory subunit for CDC7 which activates its kinase activity thereby playing a central role in DNA replication and cell proliferation. Required for progression of S and M phases. The complex CDC7-DBF4B selectively phosphorylates MCM2 subunit at 'Ser-40' and then is involved in regulating the initiation of DNA replication during cell cycle.

Promotes apoptosis by activating caspases in the cytochrome c/Apaf-1/caspase-9 pathway. Acts by opposing the inhibitory activity of inhibitor of apoptosis proteins (IAP). Inhibits the activity of BIRC6/bruce by inhibiting its binding to caspases. Isoform 3 attenuates the stability and apoptosis-inhibiting activity of XIAP/BIRC4 by promoting XIAP/BIRC4 ubiquitination and degradation through the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway. Isoform 3 also disrupts XIAP/BIRC4 interacting with processed caspase-9 and promotes caspase-3 activation. Isoform 1 is defective in the capacity to down-regulate the XIAP/BIRC4 abundance.

May modulate the activity of casein kinase-1. Inhibits CSNK1D autophosphorylation (in vitro).

Adapter protein that binds F-actin and DNM1, and thereby plays a role in receptor-mediated endocytosis. Plays a role in the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton, formation of cell projections, such as neurites, in neuron morphogenesis and synapse formation via its interaction with WASL and COBL. Does not bind G-actin and promote actin polymerization by itself. Required for the formation of organized podosome rosettes (By similarity). May act as a common effector of antigen receptor-signaling pathways in leukocytes. Acts as a key component of the immunological synapse that regulates T-cell activation by bridging TCRs and the actin cytoskeleton to gene activation and endocytic processes.

This transcriptional activator recognizes and binds to the sequence 5'-RTTAYGTAAY-3' found in the promoter of genes such as albumin, CYP2A4 and CYP2A5. It is not essential for circadian rhythm generation, but modulates important clock output genes. May be a direct target for regulation by the circadian pacemaker component clock. May affect circadian period and sleep regulation

Cleaves the 2'-5' phosphodiester linkage at the branch point of excised lariat intron RNA and converts them into linear molecules that can be subsequently degraded, thereby facilitating ribonucleotide turnover. Linked to its role in pre- mRNA processing mechanism, may also participate in retrovirus replication via an RNA lariat intermediate in cDNA synthesis and have an antiviral cell-intrinsic defense function in the brainstem.

Could have a role in patterning the central nervous system during embryogenesis. Has a key role in regulating the distinct phenotypic features that distinguish two major classes of ventral interneurons, V0 and V1 neurons. Regulates the transcription factor profile, neurotransmitter phenotype, intraspinal migratory path and axonal trajectory of V0 neurons, features that differentiate them from an adjacent set of V1 neurons (By similarity).

Acts as one of several non-catalytic accessory components of the cytoplasmic dynein 1 complex that are thought to be involved in linking dynein to cargos and to adapter proteins that regulate dynein function. Cytoplasmic dynein 1 acts as a motor for the intracellular retrograde motility of vesicles and organelles along microtubules. The intermediate chains mediate the binding of dynein to dynactin via its 150 kDa component (p150-glued) DCTN1. May play a role in mediating the interaction of cytoplasmic dynein with membranous organelles and kinetochores

Acts as one of several non-catalytic accessory components of the cytoplasmic dynein 1 complex that are thought to be involved in linking dynein to cargos and to adapter proteins that regulate dynein function. Cytoplasmic dynein 1 acts as a motor for the intracellular retrograde motility of vesicles and organelles along microtubules. The intermediate chains mediate the binding of dynein to dynactin via its 150 kDa component (p150-glued) DCTN1 (By similarity). Involved in membrane-transport, such as Golgi apparatus, late endosomes and lysosomes (By similarity).

Acts as one of several non-catalytic accessory components of the cytoplasmic dynein 1 complex that are thought to be involved in linking dynein to cargos and to adapter proteins that regulate dynein function. Cytoplasmic dynein 1 acts as a motor for the intracellular retrograde motility of vesicles and organelles along microtubules. May play a role in binding dynein to membranous organelles or chromosomes. Probably involved in the microtubule-dependent transport of pericentrin. Is required for progress through the spindle assembly checkpoint. The phosphorylated form appears to be involved in the selective removal of MAD1L1 and MAD1L2 but not BUB1B from kinetochores.

Acts as one of several non-catalytic accessory components of the cytoplasmic dynein 1 complex that are thought to be involved in linking dynein to cargos and to adapter proteins that regulate dynein function. Cytoplasmic dynein 1 acts as a motor for the intracellular retrograde motility of vesicles and organelles along microtubules. May play a role in binding dynein to membranous organelles or chromosomes

Acts as one of several non-catalytic accessory components of the cytoplasmic dynein 2 complex (dynein-2 complex), a motor protein complex that drives the movement of cargos along microtubules within cilia and flagella in concert with the intraflagellar transport (IFT) system. DYNC2I1 plays a major role in retrograde ciliary protein trafficking in cilia and flagella. Requires also to maintain a functional transition zone.

Acts as one of several non-catalytic accessory components of the cytoplasmic dynein 2 complex (dynein-2 complex), a motor protein complex that drives the movement of cargos along microtubules within cilia and flagella in concert with the intraflagellar transport (IFT) system. DYNC2I2 plays a major role in retrograde ciliary protein trafficking and in ciliogenesis. Required also to maintain a functional transition zone.

Acts as one of several non-catalytic accessory components of the cytoplasmic dynein 2 complex (dynein-2 complex), a motor protein complex that drives the movement of cargos along microtubules within cilia and flagella in concert with the intraflagellar transport (IFT) system, facilitating the assembly of these organelles. Involved in the regulation of ciliary length.

May function as a substrate receptor for CUL4-DDB1 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex.

Substrate-recognition component of a DCX (DDB1-CUL4-X-box) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex of the DesCEND (destruction via C-end degrons) pathway, which recognizes a C-degron located at the extreme C terminus of target proteins, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. The C- degron recognized by the DesCEND pathway is usually a motif of less than ten residues and can be present in full-length proteins, truncated proteins or proteolytically cleaved forms. The DCX(DCAF12) complex specifically recognizes proteins with a diglutamate (Glu-Glu) at the C-terminus, such as MAGEA3, MAGEA6 and CCT5, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. Ubiquitination of MAGEA3, MAGEA6 by DCX(DCAF12) complex is required for starvation-induced autophagy.

Possible role in ribosomal RNA processing (By similarity). May function as a substrate receptor for CUL4-DDB1 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex.

Substrate-recognition component of the DCX(DCAF15) complex, a cullin-4-RING E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that mediates ubiquitination and degradation of target proteins. The DCX(DCAF15) complex acts as a regulator of the natural killer (NK) cells effector functions, possibly by mediating ubiquitination and degradation of cohesin subunits SMC1A and SMC3. May play a role in the activation of antigen- presenting cells (APC) and their interaction with NK cells.

Functions as a substrate recognition component for CUL4-DDB1 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex, which mediates ubiquitination and proteasome-dependent degradation of nuclear proteins.

Acts both as a substrate recognition component of E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes and as an atypical serine/threonine- protein kinase, playing key roles in various processes such as cell cycle, telomerase regulation and histone modification. Probable substrate-specific adapter of a DCX (DDB1-CUL4-X-box) E3 ubiquitin- protein ligase complex, named CUL4A-RBX1-DDB1-DCAF1/VPRBP complex, which mediates ubiquitination and proteasome-dependent degradation of proteins such as NF2. Involved in the turnover of methylated proteins: recognizes and binds methylated proteins via its chromo domain, leading to ubiquitination of target proteins by the RBX1-DDB1-DCAF1/VPRBP complex. The CUL4A-RBX1-DDB1-DCAF1/VPRBP complex is also involved in B-cell development: DCAF1 is recruited by RAG1 to ubiquitinate proteins, leading to limit error-prone repair during V(D)J recombination. Also part of the EDVP complex, an E3 ligase complex that mediates ubiquitination of proteins such as TERT, leading to TERT degradation and telomerase inhibition. Also acts as an atypical serine/threonine-protein kinase that specifically mediates phosphorylation of 'Thr-120' of histone H2A (H2AT120ph) in a nucleosomal context, thereby repressing transcription. H2AT120ph is present in the regulatory region of many tumor suppresor genes, down- regulates their transcription and is present at high level in a number of tumors. Involved in JNK-mediated apoptosis during cell competition process via its interaction with LLGL1 and LLGL2.

Ligand-dependent coactivator of nuclear receptors. Enhance transcriptional activity of the nuclear receptors NR3C1 and AR. May function as a substrate receptor for CUL4-DDB1 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex.

Involved in craniofacial development. Acts upstream of the EDN1 pathway and is required for formation of the upper jaw equivalent, the palatoquadrate. The activity required for EDN1 pathway function differs between the first and second arches (By similarity). Associates with DIAPH1 and controls GLI1 transcriptional activity. Could be involved in normal and disease skin development. May function as a substrate receptor for CUL4-DDB1 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex.

Essential for biosynthesis of the polyamines spermidine and spermine. Promotes maintenance and self-renewal of embryonic stem cells, by maintaining spermine levels.

Loads PCNA onto primed templates regulating velocity, spacing and restart activity of replication forks. May couple DNA replication to sister chromatid cohesion through regulation of the acetylation of the cohesin subunit SMC3.

Receptor for netrin required for axon guidance. Mediates axon attraction of neuronal growth cones in the developing nervous system upon ligand binding. Its association with UNC5 proteins may trigger signaling for axon repulsion. It also acts as a dependence receptor required for apoptosis induction when not associated with netrin ligand. Implicated as a tumor suppressor gene.

Protein that plays a role in the inhibition of canonical Wnt signaling pathway. May be involved in neuronal migration during development of the cerebral neocortex (By similarity). Involved in the control of ciliogenesis and ciliary length.

[DCD-1]: Found in sweat, has an antimicrobial activity during early bacterial colonization. The secreted peptide assembles into homohexameric complexes that can associate with and also insert into pathogen membranes. Once inserted in bacteria membranes forms anion channels probably altering the transmembrane potential essential for bacterial survival. Highly effective against E.coli, E.faecalis, S.aureus and C.albicans. Optimal pH and salt concentration resemble the conditions in sweat. Also exhibits proteolytic activity, cleaving on the C-terminal side of Arg and, to a lesser extent, Lys residues.

Catalyzes the synthesis of the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) with pyridoxal 5'-phosphate as cofactor.

Phosphorylates the deoxyribonucleosides deoxycytidine, deoxyguanosine and deoxyadenosine. Has broad substrate specificity, and does not display selectivity based on the chirality of the substrate. It is also an essential enzyme for the phosphorylation of numerous nucleoside analogs widely employed as antiviral and chemotherapeutic agents.

Probable kinase that may be involved in a calcium-signaling pathway controlling neuronal migration in the developing brain. May also participate in functions of the mature nervous system

Protein kinase with a significantly reduced C(a2+)/CAM affinity and dependence compared to other members of the CaMK family. May play a role in the down-regulation of CRE-dependent gene activation probably by phosphorylation of the CREB coactivator CRTC2/TORC2 and the resulting retention of TORC2 in the cytoplasm (By similarity).

Catalyzes the conversion of malonyl-CoA to acetyl-CoA. In the fatty acid biosynthesis MCD selectively removes malonyl-CoA and thus assures that methyl-malonyl-CoA is the only chain elongating substrate for fatty acid synthase and that fatty acids with multiple methyl side chains are produced. In peroxisomes it may be involved in degrading intraperoxisomal malonyl-CoA, which is generated by the peroxisomal beta-oxidation of odd chain-length dicarboxylic fatty acids. Plays a role in the metabolic balance between glucose and lipid oxidation in muscle independent of alterations in insulin signaling. May play a role in controlling the extent of ischemic injury by promoting glucose oxidation.

Part of an E3 ubiquitin ligase complex for neddylation. Promotes neddylation of cullin components of E3 cullin-RING ubiquitin ligase complexes. Acts by binding to cullin-RBX1 complexes in the cytoplasm and promoting their nuclear translocation, enhancing recruitment of E2-NEDD8 (UBE2M-NEDD8) thioester to the complex, and optimizing the orientation of proteins in the complex to allow efficient transfer of NEDD8 from the E2 to the cullin substrates. Involved in the release of inhibitory effets of CAND1 on cullin-RING ligase E3 complex assembly and activity. Acts also as an oncogene facilitating malignant transformation and carcinogenic progression (By similarity).

Contributes to the neddylation of all cullins by transferring NEDD8 from N-terminally acetylated NEDD8-conjugating E2s enzyme to different cullin C-terminal domain-RBX complexes and plays an essential role in the regulation of SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type complexes activity.

Contributes to the neddylation of all cullins by transferring NEDD8 from N-terminally acetylated NEDD8-conjugating E2s enzyme to different cullin C-terminal domain-RBX complexes and may play a role in the cell cycle progression by regulating the SCF ubiquitin E3 ligase complex, after UV damage. At the cell membrane, can promote and as well inhibit cullins neddylation.

Contributes to the neddylation of all cullins by transferring NEDD8 from N-terminally acetylated NEDD8-conjugating E2s enzyme to different cullin C-terminal domain-RBX complexes which are necessary for the activation of cullin-RING E3 ubiquitin ligases (CRLs).

Contributes to the neddylation of all cullins by transferring NEDD8 from N-terminally acetylated NEDD8-conjugating E2s enzyme to different cullin C-terminal domain-RBX complexes which is necessary for the activation of cullin-RING E3 ubiquitin ligases (CRLs). May play a role in DNA damage response and may participate in cell proliferation and anchorage-independent cell growth.

Binds with and transactivates the corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) promoter.

Catalyzes the first and rate-limiting step of polyamine biosynthesis that converts ornithine into putrescine, which is the precursor for the polyamines, spermidine and spermine. Polyamines are essential for cell proliferation and are implicated in cellular processes, ranging from DNA replication to apoptosis.

Necessary for the degradation of mRNAs, both in normal mRNA turnover and in nonsense-mediated mRNA decay. Removes the 7-methyl guanine cap structure from mRNA molecules, yielding a 5'- phosphorylated mRNA fragment and 7m-GDP. Contributes to the transactivation of target genes after stimulation by TGFB1. Essential for embryonic development.

May play a role in the degradation of mRNAs, both in normal mRNA turnover and in nonsense-mediated mRNA decay. May remove the 7- methyl guanine cap structure from mRNA molecules, yielding a 5'- phosphorylated mRNA fragment and 7m-GDP (By similarity).

Decapping metalloenzyme that catalyzes the cleavage of the cap structure on mRNAs. Removes the 7-methyl guanine cap structure from mRNA molecules, yielding a 5'-phosphorylated mRNA fragment and 7m-GDP. Necessary for the degradation of mRNAs, both in normal mRNA turnover and in nonsense-mediated mRNA decay. Plays a role in replication-dependent histone mRNA degradation. Has higher activity towards mRNAs that lack a poly(A) tail. Has no activity towards a cap structure lacking an RNA moiety. The presence of a N(6)-methyladenosine methylation at the second transcribed position of mRNAs (N(6),2'-O- dimethyladenosine cap; m6A(m)) provides resistance to DCP2-mediated decapping. Blocks autophagy in nutrient-rich conditions by repressing the expression of ATG-related genes through degradation of their transcripts.

Decapping scavenger enzyme that catalyzes the cleavage of a residual cap structure following the degradation of mRNAs by the 3'->5' exosome-mediated mRNA decay pathway. Hydrolyzes cap analog structures like 7-methylguanosine nucleoside triphosphate (m7GpppG) with up to 10 nucleotide substrates (small capped oligoribonucleotides) and specifically releases 5'-phosphorylated RNA fragments and 7- methylguanosine monophosphate (m7GMP). Cleaves cap analog structures like tri-methyl guanosine nucleoside triphosphate (m3(2,2,7)GpppG) with very poor efficiency. Does not hydrolyze unmethylated cap analog (GpppG) and shows no decapping activity on intact m7GpppG-capped mRNA molecules longer than 25 nucleotides. Does not hydrolyze 7- methylguanosine diphosphate (m7GDP) to m7GMP. May also play a role in the 5'->3 mRNA decay pathway; m7GDP, the downstream product released by the 5'->3' mRNA mediated decapping activity, may be also converted by DCPS to m7GMP. Binds to m7GpppG and strongly to m7GDP. Plays a role in first intron splicing of pre-mRNAs. Inhibits activation-induced cell death.

May be required for DNA interstrand cross-link repair. Also required for checkpoint mediated cell cycle arrest in early prophase in response to mitotic spindle poisons. Possesses beta-lactamase activity, catalyzing the hydrolysis of penicillin G and nitrocefin. Exhibits no activity towards other beta-lactam antibiotic classes including cephalosporins (cefotaxime) and carbapenems (imipenem).

5'-3' exonuclease that plays a central role in telomere maintenance and protection during S-phase. Participates in the protection of telomeres against non-homologous end-joining (NHEJ)- mediated repair, thereby ensuring that telomeres do not fuse. Plays a key role in telomeric loop (T loop) formation by being recruited by TERF2 at the leading end telomeres and by processing leading-end telomeres immediately after their replication via its exonuclease activity: generates 3' single-stranded overhang at the leading end telomeres avoiding blunt leading-end telomeres that are vulnerable to end-joining reactions and expose the telomere end in a manner that activates the DNA repair pathways. Together with TERF2, required to protect telomeres from replicative damage during replication by controlling the amount of DNA topoisomerase (TOP1, TOP2A and TOP2B) needed for telomere replication during fork passage and prevent aberrant telomere topology. Also involved in response to DNA damage: plays a role in response to DNA interstrand cross-links (ICLs) by facilitating double-strand break formation. In case of spindle stress, involved in prophase checkpoint. Possesses beta-lactamase activity, catalyzing the hydrolysis of penicillin G and nitrocefin. Exhibits no activity towards other beta-lactam antibiotic classes including cephalosporins (cefotaxime) and carbapenems (imipenem).

Nuclease involved in DNA non-homologous end joining (NHEJ); required for double-strand break repair and V(D)J recombination. Required for V(D)J recombination, the process by which exons encoding the antigen-binding domains of immunoglobulins and T-cell receptor proteins are assembled from individual V, (D), and J gene segments. V(D)J recombination is initiated by the lymphoid specific RAG endonuclease complex, which generates site specific DNA double strand breaks (DSBs). These DSBs present two types of DNA end structures: hairpin sealed coding ends and phosphorylated blunt signal ends. These ends are independently repaired by the non homologous end joining (NHEJ) pathway to form coding and signal joints respectively. This protein exhibits single-strand specific 5'-3' exonuclease activity in isolation and acquires endonucleolytic activity on 5' and 3' hairpins and overhangs when in a complex with PRKDC. The latter activity is required specifically for the resolution of closed hairpins prior to the formation of the coding joint. Also required for the repair of complex DSBs induced by ionizing radiation, which require substantial end-processing prior to religation by NHEJ.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which mediates 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitination of STAT2 and induces its proteosomal degradation thereby negatively regulating type-I-interferon signaling. Essential sperm cell-surface protein required for sperm-egg fusion and fertilization (By similarity).

Essential sperm cell-surface protein required for sperm-egg fusion and fertilization.

Probable cell surface receptor that plays several roles in cellular fusion, cell differentiation, bone and immune homeostasis. Plays a role in TNFSF11-mediated osteoclastogenesis. Cooperates with OCSTAMP in modulating cell-cell fusion in both osteoclasts and foreign body giant cells (FBGCs). Participates in osteoclast bone resorption. Involved in inducing the expression of tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase in osteoclast precursors. Plays a role in haematopoietic stem cell differentiation of bone marrow cells toward the myeloid lineage. Inhibits the development of neutrophilic granulocytes. Plays also a role in the regulation of dendritic cell (DC) antigen presentation activity by controlling phagocytic activity. Involved in the maintenance of immune self-tolerance and avoidance of autoimmune reactions

Plays a key role in dynein-mediated retrograde transport of vesicles and organelles along microtubules by recruiting and tethering dynein to microtubules. Binds to both dynein and microtubules providing a link between specific cargos, microtubules and dynein. Essential for targeting dynein to microtubule plus ends, recruiting dynein to membranous cargos and enhancing dynein processivity (the ability to move along a microtubule for a long distance without falling off the track). Can also act as a brake to slow the dynein motor during motility along the microtubule. Can regulate microtubule stability by promoting microtubule formation, nucleation and polymerization and by inhibiting microtubule catastrophe in neurons. Inhibits microtubule catastrophe by binding both to microtubules and to tubulin, leading to enhanced microtubule stability along the axon. Plays a role in metaphase spindle orientation. Plays a role in centriole cohesion and subdistal appendage organization and function. Its recruitment to the centriole in a KIF3A-dependent manner is essential for the maintenance of centriole cohesion and the formation of subdistal appendage. Also required for microtubule anchoring at the mother centriole. Plays a role in primary cilia formation.

Modulates cytoplasmic dynein binding to an organelle, and plays a role in prometaphase chromosome alignment and spindle organization during mitosis. Involved in anchoring microtubules to centrosomes. May play a role in synapse formation during brain development

Together with dynein may be involved in spindle assembly and cytokinesis.

Could have a dual role in dynein targeting and in ACTR1A/Arp1 subunit of dynactin pointed-end capping. Could be involved in ACTR1A pointed-end binding and in additional roles in linking dynein and dynactin to the cortical cytoskeleton

Hydrolyzes deoxynucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs) to the corresponding nucleoside monophosphates. Has a strong preference for dCTP and its analogs including 5-iodo-dCTP and 5-methyl-dCTP for which it may even have a higher efficiency. May protect DNA or RNA against the incorporation of these genotoxic nucleotide analogs through their catabolism.

Catalyzes the sequential decarboxylation of the four acetate side chains of uroporphyrinogen to form coproporphyrinogen and participates in the fifth step in the heme biosynthetic pathway. Isomer I or isomer III of uroporphyrinogen may serve as substrate, but only coproporphyrinogen III can ultimately be converted to heme. In vitro also decarboxylates pentacarboxylate porphyrinogen I.

Catalyzes the NADPH-dependent reduction of several pentoses, tetroses, trioses, alpha-dicarbonyl compounds and L-xylulose. Participates in the uronate cycle of glucose metabolism. May play a role in the water absorption and cellular osmoregulation in the proximal renal tubules by producing xylitol, an osmolyte, thereby preventing osmolytic stress from occurring in the renal tubules

ATP-dependent RNA helicase involved in mRNA export from the nucleus. Rather than unwinding RNA duplexes, DDX19 functions as a remodeler of ribonucleoprotein particles, whereby proteins bound to nuclear mRNA are dissociated and replaced by cytoplasmic mRNA binding proteins.

ATP-dependent RNA helicase involved in mRNA export from the nucleus. Rather than unwinding RNA duplexes, DDX19B functions as a remodeler of ribonucleoprotein particles, whereby proteins bound to nuclear mRNA are dissociated and replaced by cytoplasmic mRNA binding proteins.

Functions as a component of numerous distinct DCX (DDB1-CUL4- X-box) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes which mediate the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. In the DCX complexes, acts as a scaffolding subunit required to stabilize the complex.

Hydrolyzes N(G),N(G)-dimethyl-L-arginine (ADMA) and N(G)- monomethyl-L-arginine (MMA) which act as inhibitors of NOS. Has therefore a role in the regulation of nitric oxide generation

Hydrolyzes N(G),N(G)-dimethyl-L-arginine (ADMA) and N(G)- monomethyl-L-arginine (MMA) which act as inhibitors of NOS. Has therefore a role in the regulation of nitric oxide generation.

Protein, which is both involved in DNA repair and protein ubiquitination, as part of the UV-DDB complex and DCX (DDB1-CUL4-X-box) complexes, respectively. Core component of the UV-DDB complex (UV-damaged DNA-binding protein complex), a complex that recognizes UV- induced DNA damage and recruit proteins of the nucleotide excision repair pathway (the NER pathway) to initiate DNA repair. The UV-DDB complex preferentially binds to cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers (CPD), 6-4 photoproducts (6-4 PP), apurinic sites and short mismatches. Also functions as a component of numerous distinct DCX (DDB1-CUL4-X-box) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes which mediate the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. The functional specificity of the DCX E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex is determined by the variable substrate recognition component recruited by DDB1. DCX(DDB2) (also known as DDB1-CUL4-ROC1, CUL4-DDB-ROC1 and CUL4-DDB-RBX1) may ubiquitinate histone H2A, histone H3 and histone H4 at sites of UV- induced DNA damage. The ubiquitination of histones may facilitate their removal from the nucleosome and promote subsequent DNA repair. DCX(DDB2) also ubiquitinates XPC, which may enhance DNA-binding by XPC and promote NER. DCX(DTL) plays a role in PCNA- dependent polyubiquitination of CDT1 and MDM2-dependent ubiquitination of TP53 in response to radiation-induced DNA damage and during DNA replication. DCX(ERCC8) (the CSA complex) plays a role in transcription-coupled repair (TCR). The DDB1- CUL4A-DTL E3 ligase complex regulates the circadian clock function by mediating the ubiquitination and degradation of CRY1. DDB1-mediated CRY1 degradation promotes FOXO1 protein stability and FOXO1-mediated gluconeogenesis in the liver (By similarity).

Protein, which is both involved in DNA repair and protein ubiquitination, as part of the UV-DDB complex and DCX (DDB1-CUL4-X-box) complexes, respectively. Core component of the UV-DDB complex (UV-damaged DNA-binding protein complex), a complex that recognizes UV-induced DNA damage and recruit proteins of the nucleotide excision repair pathway (the NER pathway) to initiate DNA repair. The UV-DDB complex preferentially binds to cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers (CPD), 6-4 photoproducts (6-4 PP), apurinic sites and short mismatches. Also functions as the substrate recognition module for the DCX (DDB2-CUL4-X-box) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex DDB2-CUL4-ROC1 (also known as CUL4-DDB-ROC1 and CUL4- DDB-RBX1). The DDB2-CUL4-ROC1 complex may ubiquitinate histone H2A, histone H3 and histone H4 at sites of UV- induced DNA damage. The ubiquitination of histones may facilitate their removal from the nucleosome and promote subsequent DNA repair. The DDB2-CUL4-ROC1 complex also ubiquitinates XPC, which may enhance DNA-binding by XPC and promote NER. The DDB2-CUL4-ROC1 complex also ubiquitinates KAT7/HBO1 in response to DNA damage, leading to its degradation: recognizes KAT7/HBO1 following phosphorylation by ATR.

Catalyzes the decarboxylation of L-3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA) to dopamine and L-5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin.

Phospholipase A1 (PLA1) that hydrolyzes ester bonds at the sn-1 position of glycerophospholipids producing a free fatty acid and a lysophospholipid. Prefers phosphatidate (1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphate, PA) as substrate in vitro, but can efficiently hydrolyze phosphatidylinositol (1,2-diacyl- sn-glycero-3-phospho-(1D-myo-inositol), PI), as well as a range of other glycerophospholipid substrates such as phosphatidylcholine (1,2- diacyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine, PC), phosphatidylethanolamine (1,2- diacyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphoethanolamine, PE), phosphatidylserine (1,2- diacyl-sn-glycero-3-phospho-L-serine, PS) and phosphatidylglycerol (1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero-3-phospho-(1'-sn-glycerol), PG) (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of the endogenous content of polyunsaturated PI and PS lipids in the nervous system. Changes in these lipids extend to downstream metabolic products like PI phosphates PIP and PIP2, which play fundamental roles in cell biology (By similarity). Regulates mitochondrial morphology. These dynamic changes may be due to PA hydrolysis at the mitochondrial surface. May play a regulatory role in spermatogenesis or sperm function.

Phospholipase that hydrolyzes preferentially phosphatidic acid, including 1,2-dioleoyl-sn-phosphatidic acid, and phosphatidylethanolamine. Specifically binds to phosphatidylinositol 3- phosphate (PI(3)P), phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PI(4)P), phosphatidylinositol 5-phosphate (PI(5)P) and possibly phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PI(4,5)P2). May be involved in the maintenance of the endoplasmic reticulum and/or Golgi structures. May regulate the transport between Golgi apparatus and plasma membrane.

Probable aspartic protease (Probable). Seems to act as a proteasomal shuttle which links the proteasome and replication fork proteins like RTF2 (Probable). Required, with DDI2, for cellular survival following replication stress. Together or redudantly with DDI2, removes RTF2 from stalled forks to allow cell cycle progression after replication stress and maintains genome integrity.

Aspartic protease that mediates the cleavage of NFE2L1/NRF1 at 'Leu-104', thereby promoting release of NFE2L1/NRF1 from the endoplasmic reticulum membrane. Ubiquitination of NFE2L1/NRF1 is a prerequisite for cleavage, suggesting that DDI2 specifically recognizes and binds ubiquitinated NFE2L1/NRF1. Seems to act as a proteasomal shuttle which links the proteasome and replication fork proteins like RTF2 (Probable). Required, with DDI1, for cellular survival following replication stress. Together or redudantly with DDI1, removes RTF2 from stalled forks to allow cell cycle progression after replication stress and maintains genome integrity.

May be an anti-apoptotic protein involved in DNA repair or cell survival.

Multifunctional transcription factor in endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress response. Plays an essential role in the response to a wide variety of cell stresses and induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis in response to ER stress. Plays a dual role both as an inhibitor of CCAAT/enhancer-binding protein (C/EBP) function and as an activator of other genes (By similarity). Acts as a dominant-negative regulator of C/EBP-induced transcription: dimerizes with members of the C/EBP family, impairs their association with C/EBP binding sites in the promoter regions, and inhibits the expression of C/EBP regulated genes (By similarity). Positively regulates the transcription of TRIB3, IL6, IL8, IL23, TNFRSF10B/DR5, PPP1R15A/GADD34, BBC3/PUMA, BCL2L11/BIM and ERO1L. Negatively regulates; expression of BCL2 and MYOD1, ATF4-dependent transcriptional activation of asparagine synthetase (ASNS), CEBPA-dependent transcriptional activation of hepcidin (HAMP) and CEBPB-mediated expression of peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPARG). Together with ATF4, mediates ER- mediated cell death by promoting expression of genes involved in cellular amino acid metabolic processes, mRNA translation and the unfolded protein response (UPR) in response to ER stress (By similarity). Inhibits the canonical Wnt signaling pathway by binding to TCF7L2/TCF4, impairing its DNA-binding properties and repressing its transcriptional activity. Plays a regulatory role in the inflammatory response through the induction of caspase-11 (CASP4/CASP11) which induces the activation of caspase-1 (CASP1) and both these caspases increase the activation of pro-IL1B to mature IL1B which is involved in the inflammatory response (By similarity). Acts as a major regulator of postnatal neovascularization through regulation of endothelial nitric oxide synthase (NOS3)-related signaling (By similarity).

Regulates cell growth, proliferation and survival via inhibition of the activity of the mammalian target of rapamycin complex 1 (mTORC1). Inhibition of mTORC1 is mediated by a pathway that involves DDIT4/REDD1, AKT1, the TSC1-TSC2 complex and the GTPase RHEB. Plays an important role in responses to cellular energy levels and cellular stress, including responses to hypoxia and DNA damage. Regulates p53/TP53-mediated apoptosis in response to DNA damage via its effect on mTORC1 activity. Its role in the response to hypoxia depends on the cell type; it mediates mTORC1 inhibition in fibroblasts and thymocytes, but not in hepatocytes (By similarity). Required for mTORC1-mediated defense against viral protein synthesis and virus replication (By similarity). Inhibits neuronal differentiation and neurite outgrowth mediated by NGF via its effect on mTORC1 activity. Required for normal neuron migration during embryonic brain development. Plays a role in neuronal cell death.

Tyrosine kinase that functions as cell surface receptor for fibrillar collagen and regulates cell attachment to the extracellular matrix, remodeling of the extracellular matrix, cell migration, differentiation, survival and cell proliferation. Collagen binding triggers a signaling pathway that involves SRC and leads to the activation of MAP kinases. Regulates remodeling of the extracellular matrix by up-regulation of the matrix metalloproteinases MMP2, MMP7 and MMP9, and thereby facilitates cell migration and wound healing. Required for normal blastocyst implantation during pregnancy, for normal mammary gland differentiation and normal lactation. Required for normal ear morphology and normal hearing (By similarity). Promotes smooth muscle cell migration, and thereby contributes to arterial wound healing. Also plays a role in tumor cell invasion. Phosphorylates PTPN11.

Tyrosine kinase involved in the regulation of tissues remodeling. It functions as cell surface receptor for fibrillar collagen and regulates cell differentiation, remodeling of the extracellular matrix, cell migration and cell proliferation. Required for normal bone development. Regulates osteoblast differentiation and chondrocyte maturation via a signaling pathway that involves MAP kinases and leads to the activation of the transcription factor RUNX2. Regulates remodeling of the extracellular matrix by up- regulation of the collagenases MMP1, MMP2 and MMP13, and thereby facilitates cell migration and tumor cell invasion. Promotes fibroblast migration and proliferation, and thereby contributes to cutaneous wound healing.

Substrate adapter for ufmylation, the covalent attachment of the ubiquitin-like modifier UFM1 to substrate proteins, which plays a key role in reticulophagy (also called ER-phagy). In response to endoplasmic reticulum stress, promotes recruitment of the E3 UFM1-protein ligase UFL1 to the endoplasmic reticulum membrane: in turn, UFL1 mediates ufmylation of proteins such as RPN1 and RPL26/uL24, promoting reticulophagy of endoplasmic reticulum sheets. Ufmylation-dependent reticulophagy inhibits the unfolded protein response (UPR) by regulating ERN1/IRE1-alpha stability. Ufmylation in response to endoplasmic reticulum stress is essential for processes such as hematopoiesis or inflammatory response (By similarity). Required for TRIP4 ufmylation, thereby regulating nuclear receptors-mediated. transcription. May play a role in NF-kappa-B-mediated transcription through regulation of the phosphorylation and the degradation of NFKBIA, the inhibitor of NF-kappa-B. Plays a role in cartilage development through SOX9, inhibiting the ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation of this transcriptional regulator.

Inhibits cell growth by regulating the TOR signaling pathway upstream of the TSC1-TSC2 complex and downstream of AKT1.

DNA-dependent ATPase and ATP-dependent DNA helicase that participates in various functions in genomic stability, including DNA replication, DNA repair and heterochromatin organization as well as in ribosomal RNA synthesis. Its double-stranded DNA helicase activity requires either a minimal 5'-single-stranded tail length of approximately 15 nt (flap substrates) or 10 nt length single- stranded gapped DNA substrates of a partial duplex DNA structure for helicase loading and translocation along DNA in a 5' to 3' direction. The helicase activity is capable of displacing duplex regions up to 100 bp, which can be extended up to 500 bp by the replication protein A (RPA) or the cohesion CTF18-replication factor C (Ctf18-RFC) complex activities. Shows also ATPase- and helicase activities on substrates that mimic key DNA intermediates of replication, repair and homologous recombination reactions, including forked duplex, anti-parallel G-quadruplex and three-stranded D-loop DNA molecules. Plays a role in DNA double-strand break (DSB) repair at the DNA replication fork during DNA replication recovery from DNA damage. Recruited with TIMELESS factor upon DNA-replication stress response at DNA replication fork to preserve replication fork progression, and hence ensure DNA replication fidelity. Cooperates also with TIMELESS factor during DNA replication to regulate proper sister chromatid cohesion and mitotic chromosome segregation. Stimulates 5'- single-stranded DNA flap endonuclease activity of FEN1 in an ATP- and helicase-independent manner; and hence it may contribute in Okazaki fragment processing at DNA replication fork during lagging strand DNA synthesis. Its ability to function at DNA replication fork is modulated by its binding to long non-coding RNA (lncRNA) cohesion regulator non-coding RNA DDX11-AS1/CONCR, which is able to increase both DDX11 ATPase activity and binding to DNA replicating regions. Also plays a role in heterochromatin organization. Involved in rRNA transcription activation through binding to active hypomethylated rDNA gene loci by recruiting UBTF and the RNA polymerase Pol I transcriptional machinery. Plays a role in embryonic development and prevention of aneuploidy (By similarity). Involved in melanoma cell proliferation and survival. Associates with chromatin at DNA replication fork regions. Binds to single- and double-stranded DNAs.

As an RNA helicase, unwinds RNA and alters RNA structures through ATP binding and hydrolysis. Involved in multiple cellular processes, including pre-mRNA splicing, alternative splicing, ribosomal RNA processing and miRNA processing, as well as transcription regulation. Regulates the alternative splicing of exons exhibiting specific features. For instance, promotes the inclusion of AC-rich alternative exons in CD44 transcripts. This function requires the RNA helicase activity. Affects NFAT5 and histone macro- H2A.1/MACROH2A1 alternative splicing in a CDK9-dependent manner. In NFAT5, promotes the introduction of alternative exon 4, which contains 2 stop codons and may target NFAT5 exon 4-containing transcripts to nonsense-mediated mRNA decay, leading to the down-regulation of NFAT5 protein. Affects splicing of mediators of steroid hormone signaling pathway, including kinases that phosphorylates ESR1, such as CDK2, MAPK1 and GSK3B, and transcriptional regulators, such as CREBBP, MED1, NCOR1 and NCOR2. By affecting GSK3B splicing, participates in ESR1 and AR stabilization. In myoblasts and epithelial cells, cooperates with HNRNPH1 to control the splicing of specific subsets of exons. In addition to binding mature mRNAs, also interacts with certain pri-microRNAs, including MIR663/miR-663a, MIR99B/miR-99b, and MIR6087/miR-6087. Binds pri- microRNAs on the 3' segment flanking the stem loop via the 5'- [ACG]CAUC[ACU]-3' consensus sequence. Required for the production of subsets of microRNAs, including MIR21 and MIR125B1. May be involved not only in microRNA primary transcript processing, but also stabilization (By similarity). Participates in MYC down-regulation at high cell density through the production of MYC-targeting microRNAs. Along with DDX5, may be involved in the processing of the 32S intermediate into the mature 28S ribosomal RNA. Promoter-specific transcription regulator, functioning as a coactivator or corepressor depending on the context of the promoter and the transcriptional complex in which it exists. Enhances NFAT5 transcriptional activity. Synergizes with TP53 in the activation of the MDM2 promoter; this activity requires acetylation on lysine residues. May also coactivate MDM2 transcription through a TP53-independent pathway. Coactivates MMP7 transcription. Along with CTNNB1, coactivates MYC, JUN, FOSL1 and cyclin D1/CCND1 transcription. Alone or in combination with DDX5 and/or SRA1 non-coding RNA, plays a critical role in promoting the assembly of proteins required for the formation of the transcription initiation complex and chromatin remodeling leading to coactivation of MYOD1-dependent transcription. This helicase-independent activity is required for skeletal muscle cells to properly differentiate into myotubes. During epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition, coregulates SMAD-dependent transcriptional activity, directly controlling key effectors of differentiation, including miRNAs which in turn directly repress its expression. Plays a role in estrogen and testosterone signaling pathway at several levels. Mediates the use of alternative promoters in estrogen-responsive genes and regulates transcription and splicing of a large number of steroid hormone target genes. Contrary to splicing regulation activity, transcriptional coregulation of the estrogen receptor ESR1 is helicase-independent. Plays a role in innate immunity. Specifically restricts bunyavirus infection, including Rift Valley fever virus (RVFV) or La Crosse virus (LACV), but not vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV), in an interferon- and DROSHA- independent manner. Binds to RVFV RNA, likely via structured viral RNA elements. Promotes mRNA degradation mediated by the antiviral zinc-finger protein ZC3HAV1, in an ATPase-dependent manner.

Acts as an ATP-dependent RNA helicase, able to unwind both RNA-RNA and RNA-DNA duplexes. Possesses 5' single-stranded RNA overhang nuclease activity. Possesses ATPase activity on various RNA, but not DNA polynucleotides. May play a role in RNA clearance at DNA double- strand breaks (DSBs), thereby facilitating the template-guided repair of transcriptionally active regions of the genome. Together with RELA, acts as a coactivator to enhance NF-kappa-B-mediated transcriptional activation. Acts as a positive transcriptional regulator of cyclin CCND2 expression. Binds to the cyclin CCND2 promoter region. Associates with chromatin at the NF-kappa-B promoter region via association with RELA. Binds to poly(A) RNA. May be involved in 3'-end cleavage and polyadenylation of pre-mRNAs. Component of the tRNA-splicing ligase complex required to facilitate the enzymatic turnover of catalytic subunit RTCB: together with archease (ZBTB8OS), acts by facilitating the guanylylation of RTCB, a key intermediate step in tRNA ligation. Component of a multi-helicase-TICAM1 complex that acts as a cytoplasmic sensor of viral double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) and plays a role in the activation of a cascade of antiviral responses including the induction of pro-inflammatory cytokines via the adapter molecule TICAM1. Specifically binds (via helicase ATP-binding domain) on both short and long poly(I:C) dsRNA (By similarity).

The SMN complex catalyzes the assembly of small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs), the building blocks of the spliceosome, and thereby plays an important role in the splicing of cellular pre- mRNAs. Most spliceosomal snRNPs contain a common set of Sm proteins SNRPB, SNRPD1, SNRPD2, SNRPD3, SNRPE, SNRPF and SNRPG that assemble in a heptameric protein ring on the Sm site of the small nuclear RNA to form the core snRNP (Sm core). In the cytosol, the Sm proteins SNRPD1, SNRPD2, SNRPE, SNRPF and SNRPG are trapped in an inactive 6S pICln-Sm complex by the chaperone CLNS1A that controls the assembly of the core snRNP. To assemble core snRNPs, the SMN complex accepts the trapped 5Sm proteins from CLNS1A forming an intermediate. Binding of snRNA inside 5Sm triggers eviction of the SMN complex, thereby allowing binding of SNRPD3 and SNRPB to complete assembly of the core snRNP. May also play a role in the metabolism of small nucleolar ribonucleoprotein (snoRNPs).

RNA helicase that acts as a sensor of the transcriptional status of both RNA polymerase (Pol) I and II: promotes ribosomal RNA (rRNA) processing and transcription from polymerase II (Pol II). Binds various RNAs, such as rRNAs, snoRNAs, 7SK and, at lower extent, mRNAs. In the nucleolus, localizes to rDNA locus, where it directly binds rRNAs and snoRNAs, and promotes rRNA transcription, processing and modification. Required for rRNA 2'-O-methylation, possibly by promoting the recruitment of late-acting snoRNAs SNORD56 and SNORD58 with pre- ribosomal complexes. In the nucleoplasm, binds 7SK RNA and is recruited to the promoters of Pol II- transcribed genes: acts by facilitating the release of P-TEFb from inhibitory 7SK snRNP in a manner that is dependent on its helicase activity, thereby promoting transcription of its target genes. Functions as cofactor for JUN-activated transcription: required for phosphorylation of JUN at 'Ser-77'. Can unwind double-stranded RNA (helicase) and can fold or introduce a secondary structure to a single- stranded RNA (foldase). Together with SIRT7, required to prevent R-loop-associated DNA damage and transcription-associated genomic instability: deacetylation by SIRT7 activates the helicase activity, thereby overcoming R-loop-mediated stalling of RNA polymerases. Involved in rRNA processing. May bind to specific miRNA hairpins. Component of a multi-helicase-TICAM1 complex that acts as a cytoplasmic sensor of viral double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) and plays a role in the activation of a cascade of antiviral responses including the induction of pro-inflammatory cytokines via the adapter molecule TICAM1 (By similarity).

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing and its phosphorylated form (by SRPK2) is required for spliceosomal B complex formation. Independently of its spliceosome formation function, required for the suppression of incorrect R-loops formed during transcription; R-loops are composed of a DNA:RNA hybrid and the associated non-template single-stranded DNA.

ATP-dependent RNA helicase. Required for mRNA export and translation regulation during spermatid development (By similarity).

Plays an essential role in facilitating the proper assembly of the mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit and its helicase activity is essential for this function. May be involved in RNA processing or transport. Has RNA and Mg(2+)- dependent ATPase activity.

Probable ATP-dependent RNA helicase (By similarity). Plays a role in ribosome biogenesis and TP53/p53 regulation through its interaction with NPM1.

Multifunctional ATP-dependent RNA helicase. The ATPase activity can be stimulated by various ribo-and deoxynucleic acids indicative for a relaxed substrate specificity. In vitro can unwind partially double-stranded DNA with a preference for 5'-single-stranded DNA overhangs. Binds RNA G- quadruplex (rG4s) structures, including those located in the 5'-UTR of NRAS mRNA. Involved in many cellular processes, which do not necessarily require its ATPase/helicase catalytic activities (Probable). Involved in transcription regulation. Positively regulates CDKN1A/WAF1/CIP1 transcription in an SP1-dependent manner, hence inhibits cell growth. This function requires its ATPase, but not helicase activity. CDKN1A up-regulation may be cell-type specific. Binds CDH1/E-cadherin promoter and represses its transcription. Potentiates HNF4A-mediated MTTP transcriptional activation; this function requires ATPase, but not helicase activity. Facilitates HNF4A acetylation, possibly catalyzed by CREBBP/EP300, thereby increasing the DNA-binding affinity of HNF4 to its response element. In addition, disrupts the interaction between HNF4 and SHP that forms inactive heterodimers and enhances the formation of active HNF4 homodimers. By promoting HNF4A-induced MTTP expression, may play a role in lipid homeostasis. May positively regulate TP53 transcription. Associates with mRNPs, predominantly with spliced mRNAs carrying an exon junction complex (EJC). Involved in the regulation of translation initiation. Not involved in the general process of translation, but promotes efficient translation of selected complex mRNAs, containing highly structured 5'-untranslated regions (UTR). This function depends on helicase activity. Might facilitate translation by resolving secondary structures of 5'-UTRs during ribosome scanning. Alternatively, may act prior to 43S ribosomal scanning and promote 43S pre-initiation complex entry to mRNAs exhibiting specific RNA motifs, by performing local remodeling of transcript structures located close to the cap moiety. Independently of its ATPase activity, promotes the assembly of functional 80S ribosomes and disassembles from ribosomes prior to the translation elongation process. Positively regulates the translation of cyclin E1/CCNE1 mRNA and consequently promotes G1/S-phase transition during the cell cycle. May activate TP53 translation. Required for endoplasmic reticulum stress-induced ATF4 mRNA translation. Independently of its ATPase/helicase activity, enhances IRES-mediated translation; this activity requires interaction with EIF4E. Independently of its ATPase/helicase activity, has also been shown specifically repress cap- dependent translation, possibly by acting on translation initiation factor EIF4E. Involved in innate immunity, acting as a viral RNA sensor. Binds viral RNAs and promotes the production of type I interferon (IFN-alpha and IFN-beta). Potentiate MAVS/RIGI-mediated induction of IFNB in early stages of infection. Enhances IFNB1 expression via IRF3/IRF7 pathway and participates in NFKB activation in the presence of MAVS and TBK1. Involved in TBK1 and IKBKE-dependent IRF3 activation leading to IFNB induction, acts as a scaffolding adapter that links IKBKE and IRF3 and coordinates their activation. Involved in the TLR7/TLR8 signaling pathway leading to type I interferon induction, including IFNA4 production. In this context, acts as an upstream regulator of IRF7 activation by MAP3K14/NIK and CHUK/IKKA. Stimulates CHUK autophosphorylation and activation following physiological activation of the TLR7 and TLR8 pathways, leading to MAP3K14/CHUK-mediated activatory phosphorylation of IRF7. Also stimulates MAP3K14/CHUK-dependent NF-kappa-B signaling. Negatively regulates TNF-induced IL6 and IL8 expression, via the NF-kappa-B pathway. May act by interacting with RELA/p65 and trapping it in the cytoplasm. May also bind IFNB promoter; the function is independent of IRF3. Involved in both stress and inflammatory responses (By similarity). Independently of its ATPase/helicase activity, required for efficient stress granule assembly through its interaction with EIF4E, hence promotes survival in stressed cells. Independently of its helicase activity, regulates NLRP3 inflammasome assembly through interaction with NLRP3 and hence promotes cell death by pyroptosis during inflammation. This function is independent of helicase activity (By similarity). Therefore DDX3X availability may be used to interpret stress signals and choose between pro-survival stress granules and pyroptotic NLRP3 inflammasomes and serve as a live-or-die checkpoint in stressed cells (By similarity). In association with GSK3A/B, negatively regulates extrinsic apoptotic signaling pathway via death domain receptors, including TNFRSF10B, slowing down the rate of CASP3 activation following death receptor stimulation. Cleavage by caspases may inactivate DDX3X and relieve the inhibition. Independently of its ATPase/helicase activity, allosteric activator of CSNK1E. Stimulates CSNK1E-mediated phosphorylation of DVL2, thereby involved in the positive regulation of Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway. Also activates CSNK1A1 and CSNK1D in vitro, but it is uncertain if these targets are physiologically relevant. ATPase and casein kinase-activating functions are mutually exclusive. May be involved in mitotic chromosome segregation.

Probable ATP-dependent RNA helicase. During immune response, may enhance IFNB1 expression via IRF3/IRF7 pathway (By similarity).

Probable ATP-dependent RNA helicase. Is required during post- transcriptional gene expression. May be involved in pre-mRNA splicing.

ATP-dependent RNA helicase. Binds to partially double- stranded RNAs (dsRNAs) in order to unwind RNA secondary structures. Unwinding is promoted in the presence of single-strand binding proteins. Mediates also RNA duplex formation thereby displacing the single-strand RNA binding protein. ATP and ADP modulate its activity: ATP binding and hydrolysis by DDX42 triggers RNA strand separation, whereas the ADP-bound form of the protein triggers annealing of complementary RNA strands. Involved in the survival of cells by interacting with TP53BP2 and thereby counteracting the apoptosis- stimulating activity of TP53BP2. Relocalizes TP53BP2 to the cytoplasm.

Required for efficient ribosome biogenesis (By similarity). May have a role in mRNA splicing. Involved in apoptosis.

ATP-dependent RNA helicase required during spermatogenesis. Required to repress transposable elements and preventing their mobilization, which is essential for the germline integrity (By similarity). Acts via the piRNA metabolic process, which mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and governs the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons (By similarity). Involved in the secondary piRNAs metabolic process, the production of piRNAs in fetal male germ cells through a ping-pong amplification cycle (By similarity). Required for PIWIL2 slicing- triggered piRNA biogenesis: helicase activity enables utilization of one of the slice cleavage fragments generated by PIWIL2 and processing these pre-piRNAs into piRNAs (By similarity).

ATP-binding RNA helicase involved in the biogenesis of 60S ribosomal subunits.

Required for efficient ribosome biogenesis (By similarity). May control cell cycle progression by regulating translation of mRNAs that contain a terminal oligo pyrimidine (TOP) motif in their 5' UTRs, such as GTPBP4 (By similarity).

Has RNA-dependent ATPase activity. Represses the transcriptional activity of nuclear receptors.

Nucleolar RNA helicase that plays a role in various biological processes including innate immunity, ribosome biogenesis or nucleolus organization. Plays an essential role in maintaining nucleolar integrity in planarian stem cells. Maintains embryonic stem cells proliferation by conventional regulation of ribosome assembly and interaction with OCT4 and POU5F1 complex (By similarity). Regulates antiviral innate immunity by inhibiting the virus-triggered signaling nuclear translocation of IRF3. Mechanistically, acts by disrupting the interaction between IRF3 and importin IPO5. May play a role in later stages of the processing of the pre-ribosomal particles leading to mature 60S ribosomal subunits. Has intrinsic ATPase activity.

Involved in the alternative regulation of pre-mRNA splicing; its RNA helicase activity is necessary for increasing tau exon 10 inclusion and occurs in a RBM4-dependent manner. Binds to the tau pre- mRNA in the stem-loop region downstream of exon 10. The rate of ATP hydrolysis is highly stimulated by single-stranded RNA. Involved in transcriptional regulation; the function is independent of the RNA helicase activity. Transcriptional coactivator for androgen receptor AR but probably not ESR1. Synergizes with DDX17 and SRA1 RNA to activate MYOD1 transcriptional activity and involved in skeletal muscle differentiation. Transcriptional coactivator for p53/TP53 and involved in p53/TP53 transcriptional response to DNA damage and p53/TP53- dependent apoptosis. Transcriptional coactivator for RUNX2 and involved in regulation of osteoblast differentiation. Acts as transcriptional repressor in a promoter-specific manner; the function probably involves association with histone deacetylases, such as HDAC1. As component of a large PER complex is involved in the inhibition of 3' transcriptional termination of circadian target genes such as PER1 and NR1D1 and the control of the circadian rhythms.

Positively regulates RIGI- and IFIH1/MDA5-dependent type I interferon and interferon inducible gene expression in response to viral infection. Binds ssRNA, dsRNA and dsDNA and can promote the binding of RIGI to dsRNA. Exhibits antiviral activity against hepatitis C virus and vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV).

Essential for the formation of P-bodies, cytosolic membrane- less ribonucleoprotein granules involved in RNA metabolism through the coordinated storage of mRNAs encoding regulatory functions. Plays a role in P- bodies to coordinate the storage of translationally inactive mRNAs in the cytoplasm and prevent their degradation. In the process of mRNA degradation, plays a role in mRNA decapping. Blocks autophagy in nutrient-rich conditions by repressing the expression of ATG-related genes through degradation of their transcripts.

Transcription factor that binds to sequence with multiple copies of 5'-TTC[CG]G-3' present in its own promoter and that of the HNRPA2B1 gene. Down-regulates transcription of these genes. Binds to the retinoic acid response element (RARE) 5'-AGGGTTCACCGAAAGTTCA-3'. Activates the proenkephalin gene independently of promoter binding, probably through protein-protein interaction. When secreted, behaves as an inhibitor of cell proliferation, by arresting cells in the G0 or G1 phase. Required for neural tube closure and skeletal patterning. Regulates epithelial cell proliferation and side-branching in the mammary gland. Controls the expression of peripheral tissue antigens in pancreatic lymph nodes. Isoform 1 displays greater transcriptional activity than isoform 4. Isoform 4 may inhibit transcriptional activity of isoform 1 by interacting with isoform 1 and retaining it in the cytoplasm. Transcriptional activator of EIF4G3.

Auxiliary enzyme of beta-oxidation. Participates in the degradation of unsaturated fatty enoyl-CoA esters having double bonds in both even- and odd-numbered positions in peroxisome. Catalyzes the NADP-dependent reduction of 2,4-dienoyl-CoA to yield trans-3-enoyl-CoA. Has activity towards short and medium chain 2,4-dienoyl-CoAs, but also towards 2,4,7,10,13,16,19-docosaheptaenoyl-CoA, suggesting that it does not constitute a rate limiting step in the peroxisomal degradation of docosahexaenoic acid.

Auxiliary enzyme of beta-oxidation. It participates in the metabolism of unsaturated fatty enoyl-CoA esters having double bonds in both even- and odd-numbered positions in mitochondria. Catalyzes the NADP-dependent reduction of 2,4-dienoyl-CoA to yield trans-3-enoyl-CoA.

May play a critical role in death receptor-induced apoptosis and may target CASP8 and CASP10 to the nucleus. May regulate degradation of intermediate filaments during apoptosis. May play a role in the general transcription machinery in the nucleus and might be an important regulator of the activity of GTF3C3

A scaffold protein that directs CASP3 to certain substrates and facilitates their ordered degradation during apoptosis. May also play a role in mediating CASP3 cleavage of KRT18. Regulates degradation of intermediate filaments during apoptosis. May play a role in the general transcription machinery in the nucleus and might be an important regulator of the activity of GTF3C3. Inhibits DNA transcription in vitro (By similarity).

Effector molecule of the innate immune system that acts via antibiotic-like properties against a broad array of infectious agents including bacteria, fungi, and viruses or by promoting the activation and maturation of some APCs. Interacts with the essential precursor of cell wall synthesis lipid II to inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis. Inhibits adenovirus infection via inhibition of viral disassembly at the vertex region, thereby restricting the release of internal capsid protein pVI, which is required for endosomal membrane penetration during cell entry. In addition, interaction with adenovirus capsid leads to the redirection of viral particles to TLR4 thereby promoting a NLRP3-mediated inflammasome response and interleukin 1-beta (IL-1beta) release. Induces the production of proinflammatory cytokines including type I interferon (IFN) in plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDCs) by triggering the degradation of NFKBIA and nuclear translocation of IRF1, both of which are required for activation of pDCs.

Effector molecule of the innate immune system that acts via antibiotic-like properties against a broad array of infectious agents including bacteria, fungi, and viruses. Possesses the ability to neutralize bacterial toxins such as B. anthracis lethal factor, Clostridium difficile cytotoxin B as well as leukocidin produced by Staphylococcus aureus. Blocks also herpes simplex virus infection by interacting with envelope glycoprotein B and thus preventing its binding to heparan sulfate, the receptor for attachment.

Host-defense peptide that has antimicrobial activity against Gram-negative bacteria, and to a lesser extent also against Gram- positive bacteria and fungi. Exhibits antimicrobial activity against Gram-negative E.coli and E.aerogenes and Gram-positive S.faecalis, S.aureus and B.cereus and the yeast C.albicans (in vitro). Interacts with pathogenic surface proteins and toxins, such as HIV-1 surface protein gp120 and B.anthracis anthrax lethal factor lef. Protects blood cells against infection with HIV-1 (in vitro). Inhibits enzymatic activity of B.anthracis lef/anthrax lethal factor (in vitro). Inhibits corticotropin (ACTH)-stimulated corticosterone production (in vitro).

Host-defense peptide that maintains sterility in the urogenital system. Has antimicrobial activity against a wide range of bacteria, including Gram-negative E.coli, P.aeruginosa and S.typhimurium, and Gram-positive E.aerogenes, S.aureus, B.cereus, E.faecium and L.monocytogenes. Confers resistance to intestinal infection by S.typhimurium. Exhibits antimicrobial activity against enteric commensal bacteria such as B.adolescentis, L.acidophilus, B.breve, L.fermentum, B.longum and S.thermophilus. Binds to bacterial membranes and causes membrane disintegration. Induces the secretion of the chemokine IL-8 by intestinal epithelial cells. Binds to B.antracis lef/lethal factor, a major virulence factor from B.anthracis, and neutralizes its enzymatic activity.

Host-defense peptide that contributes to intestinal innate immunity and mediates homeostasis at mucosal surfaces by forming higher-order oligomers that capture bacteria and prevent microbial invasion of the epithelium. After binding to bacterial surface proteins, undergoes ordered self-assembly to form fibril-like nanonets that surround and entangle bacteria and thereby prevent bacterial invasion across the epithelial barrier. Entangles and agglutinates Gram-negative bacteria, such as E.coli, S.typhimurium and Y.enterocolitica, and Gram-positive bacteria such as L.monocytogenes, thereby protecting the intestine against invasion by enteric bacterial pathogens. Blocks adhesion of C.albicans to intestinal epithelial cells and thereby suppresses fungal invasion of epithelial cells and biofilm formation. Under reducing conditions and in an acidic environment similar to the intestinal milieu, exhibits inhibitory activity against anaerobic bacteria such as B.adolescentis, L.acidophilus and B.breve, as well as B.longum and S.thermophilus, possibly by leading to alterations in bacterial cell envelope structures. The disulfide- linked oxidized form exhibits negligible antimicrobial activity against Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria, as compared to the enteric defensin DEFA5.

Has bactericidal activity. May act as a ligand for C-C chemokine receptor CCR6. Positively regulates the sperm motility and bactericidal activity in a CCR6-dependent manner. Binds to CCR6 and triggers Ca2+ mobilization in the sperm which is important for its motility.

Phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate-dependent guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) which plays a role in the activation of Rho GTPases RAC1, RhoA and CDC42. Can regulate cell morphology in cooperation with activated RAC1 (By similarity). Involved in immune homeostasis by ensuring proper trafficking and availability of T-cell regulator CTLA-4 at T-cell surface. Plays a role in Th2 (T helper cells) development and/or activation, perhaps by interfering with ZAP70 signaling (By similarity).

Positively regulates lysosome peripheral distribution and ruffled border formation in osteoclasts. Involved in bone resorption.

Removes the formyl group from the N-terminal Met of newly synthesized proteins.

Has sphingolipid-delta-4-desaturase activity. Converts D- erythro-sphinganine to D-erythro-sphingosine (E-sphing-4-enine). Catalyzes the equilibrium isomerization of retinols (By similarity).

Bifunctional enzyme which acts as both a sphingolipid delta(4)-desaturase and a sphingolipid C4-monooxygenase.

[DAP3-binding cell death enhancer 1]: Key activator of the integrated stress response (ISR) following mitochondrial stress. In response to mitochondrial stress, cleaved by the protease OMA1, generating the DAP3-binding cell death enhancer 1 short form (DELE1(S) or S-DELE1), which translocates to the cytosol and activates EIF2AK1/HRI to trigger the ISR. Essential for the induction of death receptor-mediated apoptosis through the regulation of caspase activation.

Membrane-cytoskeleton-associated protein with F-actin-binding activity that induces F-actin bundles formation and stabilization. Its F-actin-bundling activity is reversibly regulated upon its phosphorylation by the cAMP-dependent protein kinase A (PKA). Binds to the erythrocyte membrane glucose transporter-1 SLC2A1/GLUT1, and hence stabilizes and attaches the spectrin-actin network to the erythrocytic plasma membrane. Plays a role in maintaining the functional integrity of PKA-activated erythrocyte shape and the membrane mechanical properties. Also plays a role as a modulator of actin dynamics in fibroblasts; acts as a negative regulator of the RhoA activation pathway. In platelets, functions as a regulator of internal calcium mobilization across the dense tubular system that affects platelet granule secretion pathways and aggregation. Also required for the formation of a diverse set of cell protrusions, such as filopodia and lamellipodia, necessary for platelet cell spreading, motility and migration. Acts as a tumor suppressor and inhibits malignant cell transformation.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) regulating homeostasis of late endocytic pathway, including endosomal positioning, maturation and secretion, possibly through activating Rab proteins such as RAB27A and RAB27B. Seems to promote the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP-bound RAB27A and RAB27B into their active GTP- bound form.

Probable guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF). May promote the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP-bound small GTPases into their active GTP-bound form (Probable). May play a role in neuritogenesis, as well as in neuronal recovery and/or restructuring in the hippocampus following transient cerebral ischemia (By similarity).

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RAB35 that acts as a regulator of T-cell receptor (TCR) internalization in TH2 cells. Acts by promoting the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP- bound RAB35 into its active GTP-bound form. Plays a role in clathrin-mediated endocytosis. Controls cytokine production in TH2 lymphocytes by controlling the rate of TCR internalization and routing to endosomes: acts by mediating clathrin-mediated endocytosis of TCR via its interaction with the adapter protein complex 2 (AP-2) and GEF activity. Dysregulation leads to impaired TCR down-modulation and recycling, affecting cytokine production in TH2 cells.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) which may activate RAB8A, RAB13 and RAB35. Promotes the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP-bound Rab proteins into their active GTP-bound form.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) which may activate RAB9A and RAB9B. Promotes the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP-bound Rab proteins into their active GTP-bound form. May play a role in late endosomes back to trans-Golgi network/TGN transport.

[Isoform 1]: May be involved in cytoskeletal organization and tumorogenicity. Seems to be involved in a signaling transduction pathway leading to activation of MAPK1/ERK2. Plays a role in EGFR trafficking from recycling endosomes back to the cell membrane.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) which may activate RAB9A and RAB9B. Promotes the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP-bound Rab proteins into their active GTP-bound form.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) which may activate RAB10. Promotes the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP- bound Rab proteins into their active GTP-bound form.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) activating RAB10. Promotes the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP-bound RAB10 into its active GTP-bound form. Thereby, stimulates SLC2A4/GLUT4 glucose transporter-enriched vesicles delivery to the plasma membrane in response to insulin.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) which may activate RAB6A and RAB39A and/or RAB39B. Promotes the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP-bound Rab proteins into their active GTP-bound form. Involved in the negative regulation of neurite outgrowth (By similarity).

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) which may activate RAB39A and/or RAB39B. Promotes the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP-bound Rab proteins into their active GTP-bound form.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RAB14. Component of an endocytic recycling pathway that is required for the control of ADAM10 transport, shedding of N-cadherin/CDH2 by ADAM9 or ADAM10 and regulation of cell-cell junctions. Required for RAB14 recruitment to recycling endosomes.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RAB14. Also has some, lesser GEF activity towards RAB35.

Promotes apoptosis of kidney glomerular podocytes. Podocytes are highly specialized cells essential to the ultrafiltration of blood, resulting in the extraction of urine and the retention of protein (By similarity).

May be involved in the translation of target mRNAs by scanning and recognition of the initiation codon. Involved in translation initiation; promotes recruitmnet of aminoacetyled initiator tRNA to P site of 40S ribosomes. Can promote release of deacylated tRNA and mRNA from recycled 40S subunits following ABCE1-mediated dissociation of post-termination ribosomal complexes into subunits. Plays a role in the modulation of the translational profile of a subset of cancer-related mRNAs when recruited to the translational initiation complex by the oncogene MCTS1.

Catalyzes a reversible aldol reaction between acetaldehyde and D-glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to generate 2-deoxy-D-ribose 5- phosphate. Participates in stress granule (SG) assembly. May allow ATP production from extracellular deoxyinosine in conditions of energy deprivation.

May be involved in transcriptional regulation as a transcriptional corepressor. The DEPDC1A-ZNF224 complex may play a critical role in bladder carcinogenesis by repressing the transcription of the A20 gene, leading to transport of NF-KB protein into the nucleus, resulting in suppression of apoptosis of bladder cancer cells.

As a component of the GATOR1 complex functions as an inhibitor of the amino acid-sensing branch of the TORC1 pathway. The GATOR1 complex strongly increases GTP hydrolysis by RRAGA and RRAGB within RRAGC-containing heterodimers, thereby deactivating RRAGs, releasing mTORC1 from lysosomal surface and inhibiting mTORC1 signaling. The GATOR1 complex is negatively regulated by GATOR2 the other GATOR subcomplex in this amino acid-sensing branch of the TORC1 pathway.

Acts as a critical modulator of FOXO3-induced autophagy via increased cellular ROS.

Functional component of endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) for misfolded lumenal proteins. Forms homotetramers which encircle a large channel traversing the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane. This allows the retrotranslocation of misfolded proteins from the ER into the cytosol where they are ubiquitinated and degraded by the proteasome. The channel has a lateral gate within the membrane which provides direct access to membrane proteins with no need to reenter the ER lumen first. May mediate the interaction between VCP and the misfolded protein. Also involved in endoplasmic reticulum stress-induced pre-emptive quality control, a mechanism that selectively attenuates the translocation of newly synthesized proteins into the endoplasmic reticulum and reroutes them to the cytosol for proteasomal degradation. By controlling the steady-state expression of the IGF1R receptor, indirectly regulates the insulin-like growth factor receptor signaling pathway.

Functional component of endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) for misfolded lumenal glycoproteins, but not that of misfolded nonglycoproteins. May act by forming a channel that allows the retrotranslocation of misfolded glycoproteins into the cytosol where they are ubiquitinated and degraded by the proteasome. May mediate the interaction between VCP and misfolded glycoproteins. May also be involved in endoplasmic reticulum stress-induced pre-emptive quality control, a mechanism that selectively attenuates the translocation of newly synthesized proteins into the endoplasmic reticulum and reroutes them to the cytosol for proteasomal degradation.

Functional component of endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) for misfolded lumenal glycoproteins, but not that of misfolded nonglycoproteins. May act by forming a channel that allows the retrotranslocation of misfolded glycoproteins into the cytosol where they are ubiquitinated and degraded by the proteasome. May mediate the interaction between VCP and the misfolded glycoproteins. May be involved in endoplasmic reticulum stress-induced pre-emptive quality control, a mechanism that selectively attenuates the translocation of newly synthesized proteins into the endoplasmic reticulum and reroutes them to the cytosol for proteasomal degradation.

Seems to mediate adhesion by cell surface integrin binding. May serve as a communication link between the dermal fibroblast cell surface and its extracellular matrix environment. Enhances TGFB1 activity. Inhibits cell proliferation. Accelerates collagen fibril formation, and stabilizes collagen fibrils against low-temperature dissociation (By similarity).

Potential tumor suppressor. Inhibits prostate tumor cell growth, when overexpressed.

Protease which deconjugates SUMO1, SUMO2 and SUMO3 from some substrate proteins. Has isopeptidase but not SUMO-processing activity (By similarity). Desumoylates ZBTB46 (By similarity). Collaborates with UBQLN4 in the export of ubiquitinated proteins from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.

Has deubiquitinating activity towards 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'- linked polyubiquitin chains. Deubiquitinates 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination of RPS7 leading to its stabilization.

Muscle-specific type III intermediate filament essential for proper muscular structure and function. Plays a crucial role in maintaining the structure of sarcomeres, inter-connecting the Z-disks and forming the myofibrils, linking them not only to the sarcolemmal cytoskeleton, but also to the nucleus and mitochondria, thus providing strength for the muscle fiber during activity. In adult striated muscle they form a fibrous network connecting myofibrils to each other and to the plasma membrane from the periphery of the Z- line structures. May act as a sarcomeric microtubule-anchoring protein: specifically associates with detyrosinated tubulin-alpha chains, leading to buckled microtubules and mechanical resistance to contraction. Contributes to the transcriptional regulation of the NKX2-5 gene in cardiac progenitor cells during a short period of cardiomyogenesis and in cardiac side population stem cells in the adult. Plays a role in maintaining an optimal conformation of nebulette (NEB) on heart muscle sarcomeres to bind and recruit cardiac alpha-actin (By similarity).

Major high molecular weight protein of desmosomes. Regulates profibrotic gene expression in cardiomyocytes via activation of the MAPK14/p38 MAPK signaling cascade and increase in TGFB1 protein abundance (By similarity).

Actin-depolymerizing protein. Severs actin filaments (F- actin) and binds to actin monomers (G-actin). Acts in a pH-independent manner.

Component of the E3 ubiquitin ligase DCX DET1-COP1 complex, which is required for ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of target proteins. The complex is involved in JUN ubiquitination and degradation.

Key structural component of the deuterosome, a structure that promotes de novo centriole amplification in multiciliated cells. Deuterosome-mediated centriole amplification occurs in terminally differentiated multiciliated cells and can generate more than 100 centrioles. Probably sufficient for the specification and formation of the deuterosome inner core. Interacts with CEP152 and recruits PLK4 to activate centriole biogenesis (By similarity).

Exhibits antimicrobial activity against Gram-negative bacteria and Gram-positive bacteria, with highest activity against Gram-negative bacteria. Antimicrobial activity against P.aruginosa seems to be salt-sensitive and is reduced with high salt concentrations greater than 25 mM. Also exhibits antimicrobial activity against the yeast C.albicans. Permeabilizes C.albicans cell membranes via targeting plasma membrane lipid phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2), thereby leading to cell fragmentation and cell death. Acts as a ligand for C- C chemokine receptor CCR6. Binds to CCR6 and induces chemotactic activity of CCR6-expressing cells, such as immature dendritic cells and memory T cells.

Nuclease that induces DNA fragmentation and chromatin condensation during apoptosis. Degrades naked DNA and induces apoptotic morphology

Diglyceride acyltransferase that uses fatty acyl-CoA as substrate. Particularly active with oleate as a substrate. Has no wax synthase activity to produce wax esters. Able to use 1-monoalkylglycerol (1-MAkG) as an acyl acceptor for the synthesis of monoalkyl-monoacylglycerol (MAMAG).

Catalyzes the terminal and only committed step in triacylglycerol synthesis by using diacylglycerol and fatty acyl CoA as substrates. Highly expressed in epithelial cells of the small intestine and its activity is essential for the absorption of dietary fats. In liver, plays a role in esterifying exogenous fatty acids to glycerol, and is required to synthesize fat for storage. Also present in female mammary glands, where it produces fat in the milk (By similarity). May be involved in VLDL (very low density lipoprotein) assembly. In contrast to DGAT2 it is not essential for survival (By similarity). Functions as the major acyl-CoA retinol acyltransferase (ARAT) in the skin, where it acts to maintain retinoid homeostasis and prevent retinoid toxicity leading to skin and hair disorders. Exhibits additional acyltransferase activities, includin acyl CoA:monoacylglycerol acyltransferase (MGAT), wax monoester and wax diester synthases (By similarity). Also able to use 1-monoalkylglycerol (1-MAkG) as an acyl acceptor for the synthesis of monoalkyl-monoacylglycerol (MAMAG).

Essential acyltransferase that catalyzes the terminal and only committed step in triacylglycerol synthesis by using diacylglycerol and fatty acyl CoA as substrates. Required for synthesis and storage of intracellular triglycerides. Probably plays a central role in cytosolic lipid accumulation. In liver, is primarily responsible for incorporating endogenously synthesized fatty acids into triglycerides (By similarity). Functions also as an acyl-CoA retinol acyltransferase (ARAT) (By similarity). Also able to use 1- monoalkylglycerol (1-MAkG) as an acyl acceptor for the synthesis of monoalkyl-monoacylglycerol (MAMAG).

May play a role in neural crest cell migration into the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches

Component of the microprocessor complex that acts as a RNA- and heme-binding protein that is involved in the initial step of microRNA (miRNA) biogenesis. Component of the microprocessor complex that is required to process primary miRNA transcripts (pri-miRNAs) to release precursor miRNA (pre-miRNA) in the nucleus. Within the microprocessor complex, DGCR8 function as a molecular anchor necessary for the recognition of pri-miRNA at dsRNA-ssRNA junction and directs DROSHA to cleave 11 bp away form the junction to release hairpin-shaped pre-miRNAs that are subsequently cut by the cytoplasmic DICER to generate mature miRNAs. The heme- bound DGCR8 dimer binds pri-miRNAs as a cooperative trimer (of dimers) and is active in triggering pri-miRNA cleavage, whereas the heme-free DGCR8 monomer binds pri-miRNAs as a dimer and is much less active. Both double-stranded and single-stranded regions of a pri-miRNA are required for its binding. Specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)-containing pri-miRNAs, a modification required for pri-miRNAs processing. Involved in the silencing of embryonic stem cell self-renewal (By similarity).

Diacylglycerol kinase that converts diacylglycerol/DAG into phosphatidic acid/phosphatidate/PA and regulates the respective levels of these two bioactive lipids. Thereby, acts as a central switch between the signaling pathways activated by these second messengers with different cellular targets and opposite effects in numerous biological processes. Also plays an important role in the biosynthesis of complex lipids (Probable). Can also phosphorylate 1-alkyl-2- acylglycerol in vitro as efficiently as diacylglycerol provided it contains an arachidonoyl group. Also involved in the production of alkyl-lysophosphatidic acid, another bioactive lipid, through the phosphorylation of 1-alkyl-2-acetyl glycerol.

Diacylglycerol kinase that converts diacylglycerol/DAG into phosphatidic acid/phosphatidate/PA and regulates the respective levels of these two bioactive lipids. Thereby, acts as a central switch between the signaling pathways activated by these second messengers with different cellular targets and opposite effects in numerous biological processes (Probable). By controlling the levels of diacylglycerol, regulates for instance the PKC and EGF receptor signaling pathways and plays a crucial role during development (By similarity). May also regulate clathrin-dependent endocytosis.

Membrane-bound diacylglycerol kinase that converts diacylglycerol/DAG into phosphatidic acid/phosphatidate/PA and regulates the respective levels of these two bioactive lipids. Thereby, acts as a central switch between the signaling pathways activated by these second messengers with different cellular targets and opposite effects in numerous biological processes. Also plays an important role in the biosynthesis of complex lipids. Displays specificity for diacylglycerol substrates with an arachidonoyl acyl chain at the sn-2 position, with the highest activity toward 1-octadecanoyl-2- (5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z-eicosatetraenoyl)-sn-glycerol the main diacylglycerol intermediate within the phosphatidylinositol turnover cycle. Can also phosphorylate diacylglycerol substrates with a linoleoyl acyl chain at the sn-2 position but much less efficiently.

Diacylglycerol kinase that converts diacylglycerol/DAG into phosphatidic acid/phosphatidate/PA and regulates the respective levels of these two bioactive lipids. Thereby, acts as a central switch between the signaling pathways activated by these second messengers with different cellular targets and opposite effects in numerous biological processes (By similarity). Has no apparent specificity with regard to the acyl compositions of diacylglycerol. Specifically expressed in the cerebellum where it controls the level of diacylglycerol which in turn regulates the activity of protein kinase C gamma. Through protein kinase C gamma, indirectly regulates the dendritic development of Purkinje cells, cerebellar long term depression and ultimately cerebellar motor coordination (By similarity).

Diacylglycerol kinase that converts diacylglycerol/DAG into phosphatidic acid/phosphatidate/PA and regulates the respective levels of these two bioactive lipids. Thereby, acts as a central switch between the signaling pathways activated by these second messengers with different cellular targets and opposite effects in numerous biological processes (Probable). Plays a key role in promoting cell growth. Activates the Ras/B-Raf/C-Raf/MEK/ERK signaling pathway induced by EGF. Regulates the recruitment of RAF1 and BRAF from cytoplasm to membranes and their heterodimerization.

Diacylglycerol kinase that converts diacylglycerol/DAG into phosphatidic acid/phosphatidate/PA and regulates the respective levels of these two bioactive lipids. Thereby, acts as a central switch between the signaling pathways activated by these second messengers with different cellular targets and opposite effects in numerous biological processes (Probable).

Diacylglycerol kinase that converts diacylglycerol/DAG into phosphatidic acid/phosphatidate/PA and regulates the respective levels of these two bioactive lipids. Thereby, acts as a central switch between the signaling pathways activated by these second messengers with different cellular targets and opposite effects in numerous biological processes. Within the adrenocorticotropic hormone signaling pathway, produces phosphatidic acid which in turn activates NR5A1 and subsequent steroidogenic gene transcription. Also functions downstream of the nerve growth factor signaling pathway being specifically activated in the nucleus by the growth factor (By similarity). Through its diacylglycerol activity also regulates synaptic vesicle endocytosis.

Diacylglycerol kinase that converts diacylglycerol/DAG into phosphatidic acid/phosphatidate/PA and regulates the respective levels of these two bioactive lipids. Thereby, acts as a central switch between the signaling pathways activated by these second messengers with different cellular targets and opposite effects in numerous biological processes. Also plays an important role in the biosynthesis of complex lipids (Probable). Does not exhibit an acyl chain-dependent substrate specificity among diacylglycerol species. Can also phosphorylate 1-alkyl-2-acylglycerol in vitro but less efficiently and with a preference for alkylacylglycerols containing an arachidonoyl group. The biological processes it is involved in include T cell activation since it negatively regulates T-cell receptor signaling which is in part mediated by diacylglycerol (By similarity). By generating phosphatidic acid, stimulates PIP5KIA activity which regulates actin polymerization. Through the same mechanism could also positively regulate insulin-induced translocation of SLC2A4 to the cell membrane (By similarity).

Serine hydrolase that hydrolyzes arachidonic acid-esterified diacylglycerols (DAGs) to produce the principal endocannabinoid, 2- arachidonoylglycerol (2-AG). Preferentially hydrolyzes sn-1 fatty acids from diacylglycerols (DAG) that contain arachidonic acid (AA) esterified at the sn-2 position to biosynthesize 2-AG. Has negligible activity against other lipids including monoacylglycerols and phospholipids. Plays a key role in regulating 2-AG signaling in the central nervous system (CNS). Regulates 2-AG involved in retrograde suppression at central synapses. Supports axonal growth during development and adult neurogenesis. Plays a role for eCB signaling in the physiological regulation of anxiety and depressive behaviors. Regulates also neuroinflammatory responses in the brain, in particular, LPS-induced microglial activation (By similarity).

Lipase that catalyzes the hydrolysis of arachidonic acid (AA)-esterified diacylglycerols (DAGs) to produce the principal endocannabinoid, 2-arachidonoylglycerol (2-AG) which can be further cleaved by downstream enzymes to release arachidonic acid (AA) for cyclooxygenase (COX)-mediated eicosanoid production. Preferentially hydrolyzes DAGs at the sn-1 position in a calcium- dependent manner and has negligible activity against other lipids including monoacylglycerols and phospholipids. Plays a key role in the regulation of 2-AG and AA pools utilized by COX1/2 to generate lipid mediators of macrophage and microglia inflammatory responses. Functions also as a polyunsaturated fatty acids-specific triacylglycerol lipase in macrophages. Plays an important role to support the metabolic and signaling demands of macrophages (By similarity).

Phosphorylates deoxyguanosine and deoxyadenosine in the mitochondrial matrix, with the highest efficiency for deoxyguanosine. In non-replicating cells, where cytosolic dNTP synthesis is down-regulated, mtDNA synthesis depends solely on DGUOK and TK2. Phosphorylates certain nucleoside analogs (By similarity). Widely used as target of antiviral and chemotherapeutic agents.

Can convert androstan-3-alpha,17-beta-diol (3-alpha-diol) to androsterone in vitro, suggesting that it may participate in androgen metabolism during steroidogenesis. May act by metabolizing compounds that stimulate steroid synthesis and/or by generating metabolites that inhibit it. Has no activity toward DHEA (dehydroepiandrosterone), or A- dione (4-androste-3,17-dione), and only a slight activity toward testosterone to A-dione. Tumor-associated antigen in cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

Catalyzes the second of the four reactions of the long-chain fatty acids elongation cycle. This endoplasmic reticulum-bound enzymatic process, allows the addition of two carbons to the chain of long- and very long-chain fatty acids/VLCFAs per cycle. This enzyme has a 3-ketoacyl-CoA reductase activity, reducing 3-ketoacyl-CoA to 3- hydroxyacyl-CoA, within each cycle of fatty acid elongation. Thereby, it may participate in the production of VLCFAs of different chain lengths that are involved in multiple biological processes as precursors of membrane lipids and lipid mediators. May also catalyze the transformation of estrone (E1) into estradiol (E2) and play a role in estrogen formation.

Has NAD-dependent 17-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity. Converts oestradiol to oestrone. The physiological substrate is not known. Acts on oestradiol and 5-androstene-3-beta,17-beta-diol (in vitro).

Favors the reduction of estrogens and androgens. Converts estrone (E1) to a more potent estrogen, 17beta-estradiol (E2). Also has 20-alpha-HSD activity. Uses preferentially NADH.

Catalyzes the NAD-dependent oxidation of the highly active 17beta-hydroxysteroids, such as estradiol (E2), testosterone (T), and dihydrotestosterone (DHT), to their less active forms and thus regulates the biological potency of these steroids. Oxidizes estradiol to estrone, testosterone to androstenedione, and dihydrotestosterone to 5alpha-androstan-3,17-dione. Also has 20-alpha-HSD activity.

Catalyzes the conversion of 17-oxosteroids to 17beta- hydroxysteroids. Favors the reduction of androstenedione to testosterone. Testosterone is the key androgen driving male development and function. Uses NADPH while the two other EDH17B enzymes use NADH. Androgens such as epiandrosterone, dehydroepiandrosterone, androsterone and androstanedione are accepted as substrates and reduced at C-17. Can reduce 11-ketoandrostenedione as well as 11beta- hydroxyandrostenedione at C-17 to the respective testosterone forms.

Bifunctional enzyme acting on the peroxisomal beta-oxidation pathway for fatty acids. Catalyzes the formation of 3-ketoacyl-CoA intermediates from straight-chain, 2-methyl-branched-chain fatty acids bile acid intermediates. With EHHADH, catalyzes the hydration of trans- 2-enoyl-CoA and the dehydrogenation of 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA, but with opposite chiral specificity.

Bifunctional enzyme involved in steroid-hormone metabolism and cholesterol biosynthesis. Catalyzes the NADP(H)-dependent reduction of estrogens and androgens and regulates the biological potency of these steroids. Converts estrone (E1) to a more potent estrogen, 17beta-estradiol (E2). Converts dihydrotestosterone (DHT) to its inactive form 5a-androstane-3b,17b- diol. Converts moderately progesterone to 3beta-hydroxypregn-4-ene-20-one, leading to its inactivation. Additionally, participates in the post-squalene cholesterol biosynthesis, as a 3- ketosteroid reductase.

Required for the solubility and assembly of the heterotetramer 3-ketoacyl-[acyl carrier protein] (ACP) reductase functional complex (KAR or KAR1) that forms part of the mitochondrial fatty acid synthase (mtFAS). Alpha-subunit of the KAR complex that acts as a scaffold protein required for the stability of carbonyl reductase type-4 (CBR4, beta-subunit of the KAR complex) and for its 3-ketoacyl- ACP reductase activity, thereby participating in mitochondrial fatty acid biosynthesis. Catalyzes the NAD-dependent conversion of (3R)-3- hydroxyacyl-CoA into 3-ketoacyl-CoA (3-oxoacyl-CoA) with no chain length preference; this enzymatic activity is not needed for the KAR function. Prefers (3R)-3-hydroxyacyl-CoA over (3S)-3-hydroxyacyl-CoA and displays enzymatic activity only in the presence of NAD(+). Cooperates with enoyl-CoA hydratase 1 in mitochondria, together they constitute an alternative route to the auxiliary enzyme pathways for the breakdown of Z-PUFA (cis polyunsaturated fatty acid) enoyl-esters (Probable). NAD-dependent 17-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase with highest activity towards estradiol (17beta-estradiol or E2). Has very low activity towards testosterone and dihydrotestosterone (17beta-hydroxy-5alpha-androstan-3-one). Primarily an oxidative enzyme, it can switch to a reductive mode determined in the appropriate physiologic milieu and catalyze the reduction of estrone (E1) to form biologically active 17beta-estradiol.

Catalyzes the reduction of the delta-24 double bond of sterol intermediates during cholesterol biosynthesis. In addition to its cholesterol-synthesizing activity, can protect cells from oxidative stress by reducing caspase 3 activity during apoptosis induced by oxidative stress. Also protects against amyloid-beta peptide-induced apoptosis.

7-dehydrocholesterol reductase of the cholesterol biosynthetic pathway reducing the C7-C8 double bond of cholesta-5,7- dien-3beta-ol (7-dehydrocholesterol/7-DHC) and cholesta-5,7,24-trien- 3beta-ol, two intermediates in that pathway.

With NUS1, forms the dehydrodolichyl diphosphate synthase (DDS) complex, an essential component of the dolichol monophosphate (Dol-P) biosynthetic machinery. Both subunits contribute to enzymatic activity, i.e. condensation of multiple copies of isopentenyl pyrophosphate (IPP) to farnesyl pyrophosphate (FPP) to produce dehydrodolichyl diphosphate (Dedol-PP), a precursor of dolichol phosphate which is utilized as a sugar carrier in protein glycosylation in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Synthesizes long-chain polyprenols, mostly of C95 and C100 chain length. Regulates the glycosylation and stability of nascent NPC2, thereby promoting trafficking of LDL-derived cholesterol.

Mitochondrial glutamate dehydrogenase that catalyzes the conversion of L-glutamate into alpha-ketoglutarate. Plays a key role in glutamine anaplerosis by producing alpha-ketoglutarate, an important intermediate in the tricarboxylic acid cycle. Plays a role in insulin homeostasis. May be involved in learning and memory reactions by increasing the turnover of the excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate (By similarity).

Important for recycling the chief excitatory neurotransmitter, glutamate, during neurotransmission

[Desert hedgehog protein]: The C-terminal part of the desert hedgehog protein precursor displays an autoproteolysis and a cholesterol transferase activity (By similarity). Both activities result in the cleavage of the full-length protein into two parts (N- product and C-product) followed by the covalent attachment of a cholesterol moiety to the C-terminal of the newly generated N-product (By similarity). Both activities occur in the reticulum endoplasmic (By similarity). Functions in cell-cell mediated juxtacrine signaling. Promotes endothelium integrity. Binds to PTCH1 receptor, which functions in association with smoothened (SMO), to activate the transcription of target genes in endothelial cells. In Schwann cells, controls the development of the peripheral nerve sheath and the transition of mesenchymal cells to form the epithelium-like structure of the perineurial tube (By similarity).

Controls the reversible conversion of biologically active glucocorticoids such as cortisone to cortisol, and 11- dehydrocorticosterone to corticosterone in the presence of NADP(H). Participates in the corticosteroid receptor-mediated anti-inflammatory response, as well as metabolic and homeostatic processes. Plays a role in the secretion of aqueous humor in the eye, maintaining a normotensive, intraocular environment. Bidirectional in vitro, predominantly functions as a reductase in vivo, thereby increasing the concentration of active glucocorticoids. It has broad substrate specificity, besides glucocorticoids, it accepts other steroid and sterol substrates. Interconverts 7-oxo- and 7-hydroxy-neurosteroids such as 7- oxopregnenolone and 7beta-hydroxypregnenolone, 7- oxodehydroepiandrosterone (3beta-hydroxy-5-androstene-7,17-dione) and 7beta-hydroxydehydroepiandrosterone (3beta,7beta-dihydroxyandrost-5-en- 17-one), among others. Catalyzes the stereo-specific conversion of the major dietary oxysterol, 7-ketocholesterol (7- oxocholesterol), into the more polar 7-beta-hydroxycholesterol metabolite. 7-oxocholesterol is one of the most important oxysterols, it participates in several events such as induction of apoptosis, accumulation in atherosclerotic lesions, lipid peroxidation, and induction of foam cell formation. Mediates the 7-oxo reduction of 7-oxolithocholate mainly to chenodeoxycholate, and to a lesser extent to ursodeoxycholate, both in its free form and when conjugated to glycine or taurine, providing a link between glucocorticoid activation and bile acid metabolism. Catalyzes the synthesis of 7-beta- 25-dihydroxycholesterol from 7-oxo-25-hydroxycholesterol in vitro, which acts as ligand for the G-protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) Epstein- Barr virus-induced gene 2 (EBI2) and may thereby regulate immune cell migration.

Catalyzes the conversion of biologically active 11beta- hydroxyglucocorticoids (11beta-hydroxysteroid) such as cortisol, to inactive 11-ketoglucocorticoids (11-oxosteroid) such as cortisone, in the presence of NAD(+). Functions as a dehydrogenase (oxidase), thereby decreasing the concentration of active glucocorticoids, thus protecting the nonselective mineralocorticoid receptor from occupation by glucocorticoids. Plays an important role in maintaining glucocorticoids balance during preimplantation and protects the fetus from excessive maternal corticosterone exposure (By similarity). Catalyzes the oxidation of 11beta-hydroxytestosterone (11beta,17beta-dihydroxyandrost-4-ene-3-one) to 11-ketotestosterone (17beta-hydroxyandrost-4-ene-3,11-dione), a major bioactive androgen. Catalyzes the conversion of 11beta-hydroxyandrostenedione (11beta-hydroxyandrost- 4-ene-3,17-dione) to 11-ketoandrostenedione (androst-4-ene-3,11,17- trione), which can be further metabolized to 11-ketotestosterone. Converts 7-beta-25-dihydroxycholesterol to 7-oxo-25- hydroxycholesterol in vitro. 7-beta-25- dihydroxycholesterol (not 7-oxo-25-hydroxycholesterol) acts as ligand for the G-protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) Epstein-Barr virus-induced gene 2 (EBI2) and may thereby regulate immune cell migration. May protect ovulating oocytes and fertilizing spermatozoa from the adverse effects of cortisol (By similarity).

Catalyzes the conversion of quinonoid dihydrobiopterin into tetrahydrobiopterin.

Catalyzes the conversion of the 17-keto group of estrone, 4- and 5-androstenes and 5-alpha-androstanes into their 17-beta- hydroxyl metabolites and the conversion of the 3-keto group of 3-, 3,17- and 3,20- diketosteroids into their 3-hydroxyl metabolites. Exhibits reductive 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity toward 5-beta-androstanes, 5-beta-pregnanes, 4-pregnenes and bile acids. May also reduce endogenous and exogenous alpha-dicarbonyl compounds and xenobiotic alicyclic ketones.

NADPH-dependent oxidoreductase which catalyzes the reduction of steroids (estrone, androstene-3,17-dione and cortisone) as well as prostaglandin E1, isatin and xenobiotics in vitro. May have a role in steroid and/or xenobiotic metabolism.

NADPH-dependent oxidoreductase which catalyzes the reduction of dicarbonyl compounds. Displays reductase activity in vitro with 3,4- hexanedione, 2,3-heptanedione and 1-phenyl-1,2-propanedione as substrates. May function as a dicarbonyl reductase in the enzymatic inactivation of reactive carbonyls involved in covalent modification of cellular components. Also displays a minor hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity toward bile acids such as ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA) and isoursodeoxycholic acid (isoUDCA), which makes it unlikely to control hormone levels. Doesn't show any activity in vitro with retinoids and sugars as substrates. Attenuates MDM2-mediated p53/TP53 degradation, leading to p53/TP53 stabilization and increased transcription activity, resulting in the accumulation of MDM2 and CDKN1A/p21. Reduces proliferation, migration and invasion of cancer cells and well as the production of ROS in cancer.

Catalyzes the reduction of all-trans-retinal to all-trans- retinol in the presence of NADPH.

NADPH-dependent oxidoreductase which catalyzes the reduction of a variety of compounds bearing carbonyl groups including ketosteroids, alpha-dicarbonyl compounds, aldehydes, aromatic ketones and quinones. Reduces 3-ketosteroids and benzil into 3beta-hydroxysteroids and R-benzoin, respectively, in contrast to the stereoselectivity of non-primate DHRS4s which produce 3alpha-hydroxysteroids and S-benzoin. Diplays low activity toward all-trans-retinal and no activity toward 9-cis-retinal as compared to non-primate mammals. In the reverse reaction, catalyze the NAD-dependent oxidation of 3beta- hydroxysteroids and alcohol, but with much lower efficiency. Involved in the metabolism of 3beta-hydroxysteroids, isatin and xenobiotic carbonyl compounds.

NAD(H)-dependent dehydrogenase/reductase with a preference for cyclic substrates (By similarity). Catalyzes stereoselective conversion of 4-oxo-L-proline to cis-4-hydroxy-L- proline, likely a detoxification mechanism for ketoprolines. Mediates the formation of 2,5-dihydroxybenzoate (2,5-DHBA), a siderophore that chelates free cytoplasmic iron and associates with LCN2, thereby regulating iron transport and homeostasis while protecting cells against free radical-induced oxidative stress. The iron-siderophore complex is imported into mitochondria, providing an iron source for mitochondrial metabolic processes in particular heme synthesis (By similarity). May act as a 3-hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase.

NADPH-dependent oxidoreductase which catalyzes the reduction of a variety of compounds bearing carbonyl groups including steroids, retinoids and xenobiotics. Catalyzes the reduction/inactivation of 5alpha-dihydrotestosterone to 3alpha-androstanediol, with a possible role in the modulation of androgen receptor function. Involved in the reduction of all-trans-retinal to all-trans-retinol. Converts cortisone to 20beta- dihydrocortisone in vitro, although the physiological relevance of this activity is questionable. Reduces exogenous compounds such as quinones (1,2-naphtoquinone, 9,10-phenantrenequinone and benzoquinone) and other xenobiotics (alpha-diketones) in vitro, suggesting a role in the biotransformation of xenobiotics with carbonyl group. A dehydrogenase activity has not been detected so far. May play a role as tumor suppressor.

3-alpha-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase that converts 3-alpha- tetrahydroprogesterone (allopregnanolone) to dihydroxyprogesterone and 3-alpha-androstanediol to dihydroxyprogesterone. Also plays a role in the biosynthesis of retinoic acid from retinaldehyde. Can utilize both NADH and NADPH.

Involved in the positive regulation of starvation-induced autophagy.

Membrane-anchoring subunit of succinate dehydrogenase (SDH) that is involved in complex II of the mitochondrial electron transport chain and is responsible for transferring electrons from succinate to ubiquinone (coenzyme Q).

Polyol dehydrogenase that catalyzes the reversible NAD(+)- dependent oxidation of various sugar alcohols. Is mostly active with D- sorbitol (D-glucitol), L-threitol, xylitol and ribitol as substrates, leading to the C2-oxidized products D-fructose, L-erythrulose, D- xylulose, and D-ribulose, respectively. Is a key enzyme in the polyol pathway that interconverts glucose and fructose via sorbitol, which constitutes an important alternate route for glucose metabolism. The polyol pathway is believed to be involved in the etiology of diabetic complications, such as diabetic neuropathy and retinopathy, induced by hyperglycemia. May play a role in sperm motility by using sorbitol as an alternative energy source for sperm motility. May have a more general function in the metabolism of secondary alcohols since it also catalyzes the stereospecific oxidation of (2R,3R)-2,3-butanediol. To a lesser extent, can also oxidize L-arabinitol, galactitol and D-mannitol and glycerol in vitro. Oxidizes neither ethanol nor other primary alcohols. Cannot use NADP(+) as the electron acceptor.

2-oxoadipate dehydrogenase (E1a) component of the 2- oxoadipate dehydrogenase complex (OADHC). Participates in the first step, rate limiting for the overall conversion of 2-oxoadipate (alpha-ketoadipate) to glutaryl-CoA and CO(2) catalyzed by the whole OADHC. Catalyzes the irreversible decarboxylation of 2-oxoadipate via the thiamine diphosphate (ThDP) cofactor and subsequent transfer of the decarboxylated acyl intermediate on an oxidized dihydrolipoyl group that is covalently amidated to the E2 enzyme (dihydrolipoyllysine- residue succinyltransferase or DLST) (Probable). Can catalyze the decarboxylation of 2-oxoglutarate in vitro, but at a much lower rate than 2-oxoadipate. Responsible for the last step of L-lysine, L-hydroxylysine and L- tryptophan catabolism with the common product being 2-oxoadipate (Probable).

RNA helicase involved in mRNA processing and antiviral innate immunity. Pre-mRNA processing factor involved in disassembly of spliceosomes after the release of mature mRNA. In cooperation with TFIP11 seem to be involved in the transition of the U2, U5 and U6 snRNP-containing IL complex to the snRNP-free IS complex leading to efficient debranching and turnover of excised introns. Plays a key role in antiviral innate immunity by promoting both MAVS-dependent signaling and NLRP6 inflammasome. Acts as an RNA virus sensor: recognizes and binds viral double stranded RNA (dsRNA) and activates the MAVS-dependent signaling to produce interferon-beta and interferon lambda-3 (IFNL3). Involved in intestinal antiviral innate immunity together with NLRP6: recognizes and binds viral dsRNA and promotes activation of the NLRP6 inflammasome in intestinal epithelial cells to restrict infection by enteric viruses. The NLRP6 inflammasome acts by promoting maturation and secretion of IL18 in the extracellular milieu. Also involved in antibacterial innate immunity by promoting Wnt-induced antimicrobial protein expression in Paneth cells (By similarity).

Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Contributes to pre-mRNA splicing after spliceosome formation and prior to the first transesterification reaction.

ATP-binding RNA helicase involved in translation initiation. Part of the 43S pre-initiation complex that is required for efficient initiation on mRNAs of higher eukaryotes with structured 5'-UTRs by promoting efficient NTPase-dependent 48S complex formation. Specifically binds to the 40S ribosome near the mRNA entrance. Does not possess a processive helicase activity.

RNA-dependent helicase. Plays an important role in the assembly of the mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit. Required for optimal function of the zinc-finger antiviral protein ZC3HAV1 (By similarity). Associates with mitochondrial DNA. Involved in nervous system development and differentiation through its involvement in the up- regulation of a number of genes which are required for neurogenesis, including GSC, NCAM1, neurogenin, and NEUROD (By similarity).

Implicated in nucleolar organization, ribosome biogenesis, protein synthesis and cytoplasmic dsRNA sensing (By similarity). Stimulates RNA polymerase I transcription of the 47S precursor rRNA. Associates with ribosomal DNA (rDNA) loci where it is involved in POLR1A recruitment. In the cytoplasm, promotes elongation-competent 80S ribosome assembly at the late stage of mRNA translation initiation. Senses cytosolic dsRNA mediating NLRP3 inflammasome formation in macrophages and type I interferon production in myeloid dendritic cells. Required for NLRP3 activation induced by viral dsRNA and bacterial RNA. In dendritic cells, required for induction of type I interferon production induced by cytoplasmic dsRNA via the activation of MAPK and NF-kappa-B signaling pathways (By similarity).

Probable ATP-binding RNA helicase required for nonsense- mediated decay (NMD) degradation of mRNA transcripts containing premature stop codons. Promotes the phosphorylation of UPF1 along with its interaction with key NMD pathway proteins UPF2 and EIF4A3. Interaction with the RUVBL1-RUVBL2 complex results in loss of nucleotide binding ability and ATP hydrolysis of the complex. Negatively regulates the nucleotide binding ability and ATP hydrolysis of the RUVBL1-RUVBL2 complex via induction of N-terminus conformation changes of the RUVBL2 subunits.

Multifunctional ATP-dependent helicase that unwinds G- quadruplex (G4) structures. Plays a role in many biological processes such as genomic integrity, gene expression regulations and as a sensor to initiate antiviral responses. G4 structures correspond to helical structures containing guanine tetrads (By similarity). Binds with high affinity to and unwinds G4 structures that are formed in nucleic acids (G4-ADN and G4-RNA). Plays a role in genomic integrity. Converts the G4-RNA structure present in telomerase RNA template component (TREC) into a double-stranded RNA to promote P1 helix formation that acts as a template boundary ensuring accurate reverse transcription. Plays a role in transcriptional regulation. Resolves G4-DNA structures in promoters of genes, such as YY1, KIT/c-kit and ALPL and positively regulates their expression. Plays a role in post-transcriptional regulation. Unwinds a G4-RNA structure located in the 3'-UTR polyadenylation site of the pre- mRNA TP53 and stimulates TP53 pre-mRNA 3'-end processing in response to ultraviolet (UV)-induced DNA damage. Binds to the precursor-microRNA-134 (pre-miR-134) terminal loop and regulates its transport into the synapto-dendritic compartment (By similarity). Involved in the pre-miR-134-dependent inhibition of target gene expression and the control of dendritic spine size (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of cytoplasmic mRNA translation and mRNA stability. Binds to both G4-RNA structures and alternative non-quadruplex-forming sequence within the 3'-UTR of the PITX1 mRNA regulating negatively PITX1 protein expression. Binds to both G4-RNA structure in the 5'-UTR and AU- rich elements (AREs) localized in the 3'-UTR of NKX2-5 mRNA to either stimulate protein translation or induce mRNA decay in an ELAVL1- dependent manner, respectively. Binds also to ARE sequences present in several mRNAs mediating exosome-mediated 3'-5' mRNA degradation. Involved in cytoplasmic urokinase-type plasminogen activator (uPA) mRNA decay. Component of a multi-helicase-TICAM1 complex that acts as a cytoplasmic sensor of viral double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) and plays a role in the activation of a cascade of antiviral responses including the induction of pro-inflammatory cytokines via the adapter molecule TICAM1 (By similarity). Required for early embryonic development and hematopoiesis. Involved in the regulation of cardioblast differentiation and proliferation during heart development. Involved in spermatogonia differentiation. May play a role in ossification (By similarity).

ATP-binding RNA helicase that plays a role in maturation of the small ribosomal subunit in ribosome biogenesis. Required for the release of the U3 snoRNP from pre-ribosomal particles. Plays a role in early testis development. Probably also plays a role in brain development.

Acts as a regulator of RIGI and IFIH1/MDA5 mediated antiviral signaling. Cannot initiate antiviral signaling as it lacks the CARD domain required for activating MAVS/IPS1-dependent signaling events. Can have both negative and positive regulatory functions related to RIGI and IFIH1/MDA5 signaling and this role in regulating signaling may be complex and could probably depend on characteristics of the infecting virus or target cells, or both. Its inhibitory action on RIG- I signaling may involve the following mechanisms: competition with RIGI for binding to the viral RNA, binding to RIGI and inhibiting its dimerization and interaction with MAVS/IPS1, competing with IKBKE in its binding to MAVS/IPS1 thereby inhibiting activation of interferon regulatory factor 3 (IRF3). Its positive regulatory role may involve unwinding or stripping nucleoproteins of viral RNA thereby facilitating their recognition by RIGI and IFIH1/MDA5. Involved in the innate immune response to various RNA viruses and some DNA viruses such as poxviruses and coronavirus SARS-CoV-2, and also to the bacterial pathogen Listeria monocytogenes. Can bind both ssRNA and dsRNA, with a higher affinity for dsRNA. Shows a preference to 5'-triphosphorylated RNA, although it can recognize RNA lacking a 5'-triphosphate.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Facilitates nuclear export of spliced mRNA by releasing the RNA from the spliceosome.

Multifunctional ATP-dependent nucleic acid helicase that unwinds DNA and RNA in a 3' to 5' direction and that plays important roles in many processes, such as DNA replication, transcriptional activation, post-transcriptional RNA regulation, mRNA translation and RNA-mediated gene silencing. Requires a 3'-single-stranded tail as entry site for acid nuclei unwinding activities as well as the binding and hydrolyzing of any of the four ribo- or deoxyribo- nucleotide triphosphates (NTPs). Unwinds numerous nucleic acid substrates such as double-stranded (ds) DNA and RNA, DNA:RNA hybrids, DNA and RNA forks composed of either partially complementary DNA duplexes or DNA:RNA hybrids, respectively, and also DNA and RNA displacement loops (D- and R-loops), triplex-helical DNA (H-DNA) structure and DNA and RNA-based G-quadruplexes. Binds dsDNA, single-stranded DNA (ssDNA), dsRNA, ssRNA and poly(A)-containing RNA. Binds also to circular dsDNA or dsRNA of either linear and/or circular forms and stimulates the relaxation of supercoiled DNAs catalyzed by topoisomerase TOP2A. Plays a role in DNA replication at origins of replication and cell cycle progression. Plays a role as a transcriptional coactivator acting as a bridging factor between polymerase II holoenzyme and transcription factors or cofactors, such as BRCA1, CREBBP, RELA and SMN1. Binds to the CDKN2A promoter. Plays several roles in post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression. In cooperation with NUP98, promotes pre-mRNA alternative splicing activities of a subset of genes. As component of a large PER complex, is involved in the negative regulation of 3' transcriptional termination of circadian target genes such as PER1 and NR1D1 and the control of the circadian rhythms (By similarity). Acts also as a nuclear resolvase that is able to bind and neutralize harmful massive secondary double-stranded RNA structures formed by inverted-repeat Alu retrotransposon elements that are inserted and transcribed as parts of genes during the process of gene transposition. Involved in the positive regulation of nuclear export of constitutive transport element (CTE)-containing unspliced mRNA. Component of the coding region determinant (CRD)-mediated complex that promotes cytoplasmic MYC mRNA stability. Plays a role in mRNA translation. Positively regulates translation of selected mRNAs through its binding to post-transcriptional control element (PCE) in the 5'-untranslated region (UTR). Involved with LARP6 in the translation stimulation of type I collagen mRNAs for CO1A1 and CO1A2 through binding of a specific stem-loop structure in their 5'-UTRs. Stimulates LIN28A- dependent mRNA translation probably by facilitating ribonucleoprotein remodeling during the process of translation. Plays also a role as a small interfering (siRNA)-loading factor involved in the RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC) loading complex (RLC) assembly, and hence functions in the RISC-mediated gene silencing process. Binds preferentially to short double- stranded RNA, such as those produced during rotavirus intestinal infection. This interaction may mediate NLRP9 inflammasome activation and trigger inflammatory response, including IL18 release and pyroptosis. Finally, mediates the attachment of heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoproteins (hnRNPs) to actin filaments in the nucleus.

Catalyzes the NAD-dependent oxidative cleavage of spermidine and the subsequent transfer of the butylamine moiety of spermidine to the epsilon-amino group of a critical lysine residue of the eIF-5A precursor protein to form the intermediate deoxyhypusine residue. This is the first step of the post-translational modification of that lysine into an unusual amino acid residue named hypusine. Hypusination is unique to mature eIF-5A factor and is essential for its function.

Putative cytoplasm-specific catalytic component of the RNA exosome complex which has 3'->5' exoribonuclease activity and participates in a multitude of cellular RNA processing and degradation events. In the cytoplasm, the RNA exosome complex is involved in general mRNA turnover and specifically degrades inherently unstable mRNAs containing AU-rich elements (AREs) within their 3' untranslated regions, and in RNA surveillance pathways, preventing translation of aberrant mRNAs. It seems to be involved in degradation of histone mRNA.

3'-5'-exoribonuclease that specifically recognizes RNAs polyuridylated at their 3' end and mediates their degradation. Component of an exosome-independent RNA degradation pathway that mediates degradation of both mRNAs and miRNAs that have been polyuridylated by a terminal uridylyltransferase, such as ZCCHC11/TUT4. Mediates degradation of cytoplasmic mRNAs that have been deadenylated and subsequently uridylated at their 3'. Mediates degradation of uridylated pre-let-7 miRNAs, contributing to the maintenance of embryonic stem (ES) cells. Essential for correct mitosis, and negatively regulates cell proliferation.

Involved in the degradation of asparagine-linked glycoproteins. Hydrolyze of N-acetyl-beta-D-glucosamine (1-4)N- acetylglucosamine chitobiose core from the reducing end of the bond, it requires prior cleavage by glycosylasparaginase

Actin nucleation and elongation factor required for the assembly of F-actin structures, such as actin cables and stress fibers (By similarity). Binds to the barbed end of the actin filament and slows down actin polymerization and depolymerization (By similarity). Required for cytokinesis, and transcriptional activation of the serum response factor (By similarity). DFR proteins couple Rho and Src tyrosine kinase during signaling and the regulation of actin dynamics (By similarity). Functions as a scaffold protein for MAPRE1 and APC to stabilize microtubules and promote cell migration (By similarity). Has neurite outgrowth promoting activity. Acts in a Rho-dependent manner to recruit PFY1 to the membrane (By similarity). In hear cells, it may play a role in the regulation of actin polymerization in hair cells. The MEMO1-RHOA- DIAPH1 signaling pathway plays an important role in ERBB2-dependent stabilization of microtubules at the cell cortex. It controls the localization of APC and CLASP2 to the cell membrane, via the regulation of GSK3B activity. In turn, membrane-bound APC allows the localization of the MACF1 to the cell membrane, which is required for microtubule capture and stabilization. Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Required in the control of cell shape. Plays a role in brain development. Also acts as an actin nucleation and elongation factor in the nucleus by promoting nuclear actin polymerization inside the nucleus to drive serum-dependent SRF-MRTFA activity (By similarity).

Could be involved in oogenesis. Involved in the regulation of endosome dynamics. Implicated in a novel signal transduction pathway, in which isoform 3 and CSK are sequentially activated by RHOD to regulate the motility of early endosomes through interactions with the actin cytoskeleton.

Actin nucleation and elongation factor required for the assembly of F-actin structures, such as actin cables and stress fibers. Required for cytokinesis, stress fiber formation and transcriptional activation of the serum response factor. Binds to GTP-bound form of Rho and to profilin: acts in a Rho-dependent manner to recruit profilin to the membrane, where it promotes actin polymerization. DFR proteins couple Rho and Src tyrosine kinase during signaling and the regulation of actin dynamics. Also acts as an actin nucleation and elongation factor in the nucleus by promoting nuclear actin polymerization inside the nucleus to drive serum-dependent SRF-MRTFA activity.

Double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) endoribonuclease playing a central role in short dsRNA-mediated post-transcriptional gene silencing. Cleaves naturally occurring long dsRNAs and short hairpin pre-microRNAs (miRNA) into fragments of twenty-one to twenty-three nucleotides with 3' overhang of two nucleotides, producing respectively short interfering RNAs (siRNA) and mature microRNAs. SiRNAs and miRNAs serve as guide to direct the RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC) to complementary RNAs to degrade them or prevent their translation. Gene silencing mediated by siRNAs, also called RNA interference, controls the elimination of transcripts from mobile and repetitive DNA elements of the genome but also the degradation of exogenous RNA of viral origin for instance. The miRNA pathway on the other side is a mean to specifically regulate the expression of target genes.

Catalyzes the electroneutral exchange or flux of physiologically important metabolites such as dicarboxylates (malonate, malate, succinate), inorganic sulfur-containing anions, and phosphate, across mitochondrial inner membrane. Plays an important role in gluconeogenesis, fatty acid metabolism, urea synthesis, and sulfur metabolism, particularly in liver, by supplying the substrates for the different metabolic processes. Regulates fatty acid release from adipocytes, and contributes to systemic insulin sensitivity (By similarity).

Putative transcription factor, weakly pro-apoptotic when overexpressed (By similarity). Tumor suppressor. Required for early embryonic stem cell development.

May play a role in cardiomyocyte proliferation through paracrine signaling and activation of the PPI3K-AKT-CDK7 signaling cascade.

Specifically dimethylates two adjacent adenosines in the loop of a conserved hairpin near the 3'-end of 18S rRNA in the 40S particle. Involved in the pre-rRNA processing steps leading to small-subunit rRNA production independently of its RNA-modifying catalytic activity.

Catalyzes the de novo synthesis of acetyl-CoA in vitro (By similarity). Promotes acetylation of CTTN, possibly by providing the acetyl donor, ensuring correct dendritic spine morphology and synaptic transmission (By similarity). Binds to follistatin-related protein FSTL1 and may act as a cell surface receptor for FSTL1, contributing to AKT activation and subsequent FSTL1-induced survival and function of endothelial cells and cardiac myocytes.

Negatively regulates axonal outgrowth and is essential for normal synaptic transmission. Not required for regulation of axon polarity. Promotes acetylation of alpha-tubulin.

Displays low GTPase activity and exists predominantly in the GTP-bound form.

Involved in the regulation of multiple aspects of embryonic and adult neurogenesis. Required for neural progenitor proliferation in the ventrical/subventrical zone during embryonic brain development and in the adult dentate gyrus of the hippocampus (By similarity). Participates in the Wnt-mediated neural progenitor proliferation as a positive regulator by modulating GSK3B activity and CTNNB1 abundance. Plays a role as a modulator of the AKT-mTOR signaling pathway controlling the tempo of the process of newborn neurons integration during adult neurogenesis, including neuron positioning, dendritic development and synapse formation (By similarity). Inhibits the activation of AKT-mTOR signaling upon interaction with CCDC88A (By similarity). Regulates the migration of early-born granule cell precursors toward the dentate gyrus during the hippocampal development. Inhibits ATF4 transcription factor activity in neurons by disrupting ATF4 dimerization and DNA-binding (By similarity). Plays a role, together with PCNT, in the microtubule network formation.

Functions in hedgehog (Hh) signaling. Regulates the release and extracellular accumulation of cholesterol-modified hedgehog proteins and is hence required for effective production of the Hh signal (By similarity). Synergizes with SCUBE2 to cause an increase in SHH secretion.

Plays a role in neuronal proliferation and differentiation. Plays a role in the accumulation of cellular cholesterol (By similarity). Involved in intracellular lipid droplet formation. May contribute to cholesterol homeostasis in neuronal cells (By similarity).

Positive effector of the Wnt signaling pathway; activates WNT3A signaling via DVL2. Regulates JNK activation by AXIN1 and DVL2.

As a co-chaperone for HSPA5 it is required for proper folding, trafficking or degradation of proteins. Binds directly to both unfolded proteins that are substrates for ERAD and nascent unfolded peptide chains, but dissociates from the HSPA5-unfolded protein complex before folding is completed. May help recruiting HSPA5 and other chaperones to the substrate. Stimulates HSPA5 ATPase activity. It is necessary for maturation and correct trafficking of PKD1.

Acts as a co-chaperone with HSPA8/Hsc70; required to promote protein folding and trafficking, prevent aggregation of client proteins, and promote unfolded proteins to endoplasmic reticulum- associated degradation (ERAD) pathway. Acts by determining HSPA8/Hsc70's ATPase and polypeptide-binding activities. Can also act independently of HSPA8/Hsc70: together with DNAJB14, acts as a chaperone that promotes maturation of potassium channels KCND2 and KCNH2 by stabilizing nascent channel subunits and assembling them into tetramers. While stabilization of nascent channel proteins is dependent on HSPA8/Hsc70, the process of oligomerization of channel subunits is independent of HSPA8/Hsc70. When overexpressed, forms membranous structures together with DNAJB14 and HSPA8/Hsc70 within the nucleus; the role of these structures, named DJANGOs, is still unclear.

Plays a role in the formation of the central complex of ciliary and flagellar axonemes.

Acts as a co-chaperone with HSPA8/Hsc70; required to promote protein folding and trafficking, prevent aggregation of client proteins, and promote unfolded proteins to endoplasmic reticulum- associated degradation (ERAD) pathway. Acts by determining HSPA8/Hsc70's ATPase and polypeptide-binding activities. Can also act independently of HSPA8/Hsc70: together with DNAJB12, acts as a chaperone that promotes maturation of potassium channels KCND2 and KCNH2 by stabilizing nascent channel subunits and assembling them into tetramers. While stabilization of nascent channel proteins is dependent on HSPA8/Hsc70, the process of oligomerization of channel subunits is independent of HSPA8/Hsc70. When overexpressed, forms membranous structures together with DNAJB12 and HSPA8/Hsc70 within the nucleus; the role of these structures, named DJANGOs, is still unclear.

Endoplasmic reticulum disulfide reductase involved both in the correct folding of proteins and degradation of misfolded proteins. Required for efficient folding of proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum by catalyzing the removal of non-native disulfide bonds formed during the folding of proteins, such as LDLR. Also involved in endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) by reducing incorrect disulfide bonds in misfolded glycoproteins recognized by EDEM1. Interaction with HSPA5 is required its activity, not for the disulfide reductase activity, but to facilitate the release of DNAJC10 from its substrate. Promotes apoptotic signaling pathway in response to endoplasmic reticulum stress.

[Isoform 1]: Required for mitochondrial inner membrane organization. Seems to function through its association with the MICOS complex and the mitochondrial outer membrane sorting assembly machinery (SAM) complex.

Involved in membrane trafficking through early endosomes, such as the early endosome to recycling endosome transport implicated in the recycling of transferrin and the early endosome to late endosome transport implicated in degradation of EGF and EGFR. Involved in the regulation of endosomal membrane tubulation and regulates th dynamics of SNX1 on the endosomal membrane; via association with WASHC2 may link the WASH complex to the retromer SNX-BAR subcomplex.

Regulates the export of target proteins, such as DRD1, from the endoplasmic reticulum to the cell surface.

Negative regulator of the mitochondrial respiratory chain. Prevents mitochondrial hyperpolarization state and restricts mitochondrial generation of ATP (By similarity). Acts as an import component of the TIM23 translocase complex. Stimulates the ATPase activity of HSPA9.

May negatively affect PAX8-induced thyroglobulin/TG transcription.

May act as a co-chaperone for HSP70. May play a role in ribosomal RNA (rRNA) biogenesis, possibly in the maturation of the 60S subunit. Binds the precursor 45S rRNA.

Stimulates the ATPase activity of several Hsp70-type chaperones. This ability is enhanced by iron-binding. The iron-bound form is redox-active and can function as electron carrier. Plays a role in the diphthamide biosynthesis, a post-translational modification of histidine which occurs in translation elongation factor 2 (EEF2) which can be ADP-ribosylated by diphtheria toxin and by Pseudomonas exotoxin A (Eta).

GTPase which can activate the MEK/ERK pathway and induce cell transformation when overexpressed. May act as a nuclear scaffold for MAPK1, probably by association with MAPK1 nuclear export signal leading to enhanced ERK1/ERK2 signaling.

Mitochondrial protein enriched in neurons that acts as a regulator of mitochondrial respiration (By similarity). Associates with the ATP synthase complex and facilitates ATP synthesis (By similarity). May be a chaperone protein involved in the turnover of the subunits of mitochondrial complex I N-module. It facilitates the degradation of N- module subunits damaged by oxidative stress, and contributes to complex I functional efficiency.

[Isoform 1]: Catalytic subunit of H/ACA small nucleolar ribonucleoprotein (H/ACA snoRNP) complex, which catalyzes pseudouridylation of rRNA. This involves the isomerization of uridine such that the ribose is subsequently attached to C5, instead of the normal N1. Each rRNA can contain up to 100 pseudouridine ('psi') residues, which may serve to stabilize the conformation of rRNAs. Required for ribosome biogenesis and telomere maintenance. Also required for correct processing or intranuclear trafficking of TERC, the RNA component of the telomerase reverse transcriptase (TERT) holoenzyme.

Antagonizes canonical Wnt signaling by inhibiting LRP5/6 interaction with Wnt and by forming a ternary complex with the transmembrane protein KREMEN that promotes internalization of LRP5/6. DKKs play an important role in vertebrate development, where they locally inhibit Wnt regulated processes such as antero-posterior axial patterning, limb development, somitogenesis and eye formation. In the adult, Dkks are implicated in bone formation and bone disease, cancer and Alzheimer disease. Inhibits the pro-apoptotic function of KREMEN1 in a Wnt-independent manner, and has anti-apoptotic activity (By similarity).

Antagonizes canonical Wnt signaling by inhibiting LRP5/6 interaction with Wnt and by forming a ternary complex with the transmembrane protein KREMEN that promotes internalization of LRP5/6. DKKs play an important role in vertebrate development, where they locally inhibit Wnt regulated processes such as antero-posterior axial patterning, limb development, somitogenesis and eye formation. In the adult, Dkks are implicated in bone formation and bone disease, cancer and Alzheimer disease (By similarity).

Involved in fertilization by facilitating sperm penetration of the zona pellucida. May promote spermatocyte apoptosis, thereby limiting sperm production. In adults, may reduce testosterone synthesis in Leydig cells. Is not essential either for development or fertility.

Lipoamide dehydrogenase is a component of the glycine cleavage system as well as an E3 component of three alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase complexes (pyruvate-, alpha-ketoglutarate-, and branched- chain amino acid-dehydrogenase complex). The 2-oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex is mainly active in the mitochondrion. A fraction of the 2- oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex also localizes in the nucleus and is required for lysine succinylation of histones: associates with KAT2A on chromatin and provides succinyl-CoA to histone succinyltransferase KAT2A. In monomeric form may have additional moonlighting function as serine protease. Involved in the hyperactivation of spermatazoa during capacitation and in the spermatazoal acrosome reaction (By similarity).

Essential for spermatogenesis and male fertility (By similarity). May play an important role in sperm head and tail formation (By similarity). May act as a tumor suppressor by inhibiting cell proliferation.

Essential multidomain scaffolding protein required for normal development (By similarity). Recruits channels, receptors and signaling molecules to discrete plasma membrane domains in polarized cells. May play a role in adherens junction assembly, signal transduction, cell proliferation, synaptogenesis and lymphocyte activation. Regulates the excitability of cardiac myocytes by modulating the functional expression of Kv4 channels. Functional regulator of Kv1.5 channel. During long-term depression in hippocampal neurons, it recruits ADAM10 to the plasma membrane.

Required for perception of chronic pain through NMDA receptor signaling. Regulates surface expression of NMDA receptors in dorsal horn neurons of the spinal cord. Interacts with the cytoplasmic tail of NMDA receptor subunits as well as inward rectifying potassium channels. Involved in regulation of synaptic stability at cholinergic synapses. Part of the postsynaptic protein scaffold of excitatory synapses (By similarity).

Required for learning most likely through its role in synaptic plasticity following NMDA receptor signaling

Postsynaptic scaffolding protein that plays a critical role in synaptogenesis and synaptic plasticity by providing a platform for the postsynaptic clustering of crucial synaptic proteins. Interacts with the cytoplasmic tail of NMDA receptor subunits and shaker-type potassium channels. Required for synaptic plasticity associated with NMDA receptor signaling. Overexpression or depletion of DLG4 changes the ratio of excitatory to inhibitory synapses in hippocampal neurons. May reduce the amplitude of ASIC3 acid-evoked currents by retaining the channel intracellularly. May regulate the intracellular trafficking of ADR1B. Also regulates AMPA-type glutamate receptor (AMPAR) immobilization at postsynaptic density keeping the channels in an activated state in the presence of glutamate and preventing synaptic depression (By similarity). Under basal conditions, cooperates with FYN to stabilize palmitoyltransferase ZDHHC5 at the synaptic membrane through FYN-mediated phosphorylation of ZDHHC5 and its subsequent inhibition of association with endocytic proteins.

Acts as a regulator of the Hippo signaling pathway. Negatively regulates the Hippo signaling pathway by mediating the interaction of MARK3 with STK3/4, bringing them together to promote MARK3-dependent hyperphosphorylation and inactivation of STK3 kinase activity toward LATS1. Positively regulates the Hippo signaling pathway by mediating the interaction of SCRIB with STK4/MST1 and LATS1 which is important for the activation of the Hippo signaling pathway. Involved in regulating cell proliferation, maintenance of epithelial polarity, epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT), cell migration and invasion. Plays an important role in dendritic spine formation and synaptogenesis in cortical neurons; regulates synaptogenesis by enhancing the cell surface localization of N-cadherin. Acts as a positive regulator of hedgehog (Hh) signaling pathway. Plays a critical role in the early point of the SMO activity cycle by interacting with SMO at the ciliary base to induce the accumulation of KIF7 and GLI2 at the ciliary tip for GLI2 activation (By similarity).

May play a role in the molecular organization of synapses and neuronal cell signaling. Could be an adapter protein linking ion channel to the subsynaptic cytoskeleton. May induce enrichment of PSD- 95/SAP90 at the plasma membrane

Potential cell cycle regulator that may play a role in carcinogenesis of cancer cells. Mitotic phosphoprotein regulated by the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway. Key regulator of adherens junction integrity and differentiation that may be involved in CDH1-mediated adhesion and signaling in epithelial cells.

Transmembrane ligand protein of NOTCH1, NOTCH2 and NOTCH3 receptors that binds the extracellular domain (ECD) of Notch receptor in a cis and trans fashion manner. Following transinteraction, ligand cells produce mechanical force that depends of a clathrin-mediated endocytosis, requiring ligand ubiquitination, EPN1 interaction, and actin polymerisation; these events promote Notch receptor extracellular domain (NECD) transendocytosis and triggers Notch signaling through induction of cleavage, hyperphosphorylation, and nuclear accumulation of the intracellular domain of Notch receptors (NICD) (By similarity). Is required for embryonic development and maintenance of adult stem cells in many different tissues and immune systeme; the DLL1-induced Notch signaling is mediated through an intercellular communication that regulates cell lineage, cell specification, cell patterning and morphogenesis through effects on differentiation and proliferation. Plays a role in brain development at different level, namely by regulating neuronal differentiation of neural precursor cells via cell-cell interaction, most likely through the lateral inhibitory system in an endogenous level dependent-manner. During neocortex development, Dll1-Notch signaling transmission is mediated by dynamic interactions between intermediate neurogenic progenitors and radial glia; the cell-cell interactions are mediated via dynamic and transient elongation processes, likely to reactivate/maintain Notch activity in neighboring progenitors, and coordinate progenitor cell division and differentiation across radial and zonal boundaries. During cerebellar development, regulates Bergmann glial monolayer formation and its morphological maturation through a Notch signaling pathway. At the retina and spinal cord level, regulates neurogenesis by preventing the premature differentiation of neural progenitors and also by maintaining progenitors in spinal cord through Notch signaling pathway. Also controls neurogenesis of the neural tube in a progenitor domain- specific fashion along the dorsoventral axis. Maintains quiescence of neural stem cells and plays a role as a fate determinant that segregates asymmetrically to one daughter cell during neural stem cells mitosis, resulting in neuronal differentiation in Dll1-inheriting cell. Plays a role in immune systeme development, namely the development of all T-cells and marginal zone (MZ) B-cells (By similarity). Blocks the differentiation of progenitor cells into the B-cell lineage while promoting the emergence of a population of cells with the characteristics of a T-cell/NK-cell precursor. Also plays a role during muscle development. During early development, inhibits myoblasts differentiation from the medial dermomyotomal lip and later regulates progenitor cell differentiation. Directly modulates cell adhesion and basal lamina formation in satellite cells through Notch signaling. Maintains myogenic progenitors pool by suppressing differentiation through down-regulation of MYOD1 and is required for satellite cell homing and PAX7 expression. During craniofacial and trunk myogenesis suppresses differentiation of cranial mesoderm-derived and somite-derived muscle via MYOD1 regulation but in cranial mesoderm- derived progenitors, is neither required for satellite cell homing nor for PAX7 expression. Also plays a role during pancreatic cell development. During type B pancreatic cell development, may be involved in the initiation of proximodistal patterning in the early pancreatic epithelium. Stimulates multipotent pancreatic progenitor cells proliferation and pancreatic growth by maintaining HES1 expression and PTF1A protein levels. During fetal stages of development, is required to maintain arterial identity and the responsiveness of arterial endothelial cells for VEGFA through regulation of KDR activation and NRP1 expression. Controls sprouting angiogenesis and subsequent vertical branch formation througth regulation on tip cell differentiation. Negatively regulates goblet cell differentiation in intestine and controls secretory fat commitment through lateral inhibition in small intestine. Plays a role during inner ear development; negatively regulates auditory hair cell differentiation. Plays a role during nephron development through Notch signaling pathway. Regulates growth, blood pressure and energy homeostasis (By similarity).

Inhibits primary neurogenesis. May be required to divert neurons along a specific differentiation pathway. Plays a role in the formation of somite boundaries during segmentation of the paraxial mesoderm (By similarity).

Involved in the Notch signaling pathway as Notch ligand. Activates NOTCH1 and NOTCH4. Involved in angiogenesis; negatively regulates endothelial cell proliferation and migration and angiogenic sprouting. Essential for retinal progenitor proliferation. Required for suppressing rod fates in late retinal progenitors as well as for proper generation of other retinal cell types (By similarity). During spinal cord neurogenesis, inhibits V2a interneuron fate.

Heterotetrameric enzyme that catalyzes the condensation of farnesyl diphosphate (FPP), which acts as a primer, and isopentenyl diphosphate (IPP) to produce prenyl diphosphates of varying chain lengths and participates in the determination of the side chain of ubiquinone. Supplies nona and decaprenyl diphosphate, the precursors for the side chain of the isoprenoid quinones ubiquinone-9 (Q9) and ubiquinone-10 (Q10) respectively. The enzyme adds isopentenyl diphosphate molecules sequentially to farnesyl diphosphate with trans stereochemistry. May play a role during cerebellar development (By similarity). May regulate mitochondrial respiratory chain function (By similarity).

Acts as one of several non-catalytic accessory components of the cytoplasmic dynein 1 complex that are thought to be involved in linking dynein to cargos and to adapter proteins that regulate dynein function. Cytoplasmic dynein 1 acts as a motor for the intracellular retrograde motility of vesicles and organelles along microtubules

Plays a role as a transcriptional activator or repressor. Inhibits several cytokine signaling pathways, such as TGFB1, activin-A/INHBA and BMP4 by interfering with the transcriptional stimulatory activity of transcription factors, such as MSX2, FAST2, SMAD2 and SMAD3 during hematopoietic cell differentiation. Plays a role in terminal differentiation of interneurons, such as amacrine and bipolar cells in the developing retina (By similarity). Likely to play a regulatory role in the development of the ventral forebrain (By similarity). May play a role in craniofacial patterning and morphogenesis and may be involved in the early development of diencephalic subdivisions (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional activator. Plays a role in terminal differentiation of interneurons, such as amacrine and bipolar cells in the developing retina. Likely to play a regulatory role in the development of the ventral forebrain. May play a role in craniofacial patterning and morphogenesis.

Likely to play a regulatory role in the development of the ventral forebrain. May play a role in craniofacial patterning and morphogenesis

May play a role in determining the production of hemoglobin S. May act as a repressor. During embryonic development, plays a role in palatogenesis.

Transcriptional factor involved in bone development. Acts as an immediate early BMP-responsive transcriptional activator essential for osteoblast differentiation. Stimulates ALPL promoter activity in a RUNX2-independent manner during osteoblast differentiation. Stimulates SP7 promoter activity during osteoblast differentiation. Promotes cell proliferation by up-regulating MYC promoter activity. Involved as a positive regulator of both chondrogenesis and chondrocyte hypertrophy in the endochondral skeleton. Binds to the homeodomain-response element of the ALPL and SP7 promoter. Binds to the MYC promoter. Requires the 5'-TAATTA-3' consensus sequence for DNA-binding.

Required for the assembly of the mitochondrial NADH:ubiquinone oxidoreductase complex (complex I). Involved in the assembly of the distal region of complex I.

Involved in transcription repression and activation. Its interaction with HDAC2 may provide a mechanism for histone deacetylation in heterochromatin following replication of DNA at late firing origins. Can also repress transcription independently of histone deacetylase activity. May specifically potentiate DAXX-mediated repression of glucocorticoid receptor-dependent transcription. Component of the NuA4 histone acetyltransferase (HAT) complex which is involved in transcriptional activation of select genes principally by acetylation of nucleosomal histones H4 and H2A. This modification may both alter nucleosome - DNA interactions and promote interaction of the modified histones with other proteins which positively regulate transcription. This complex may be required for the activation of transcriptional programs associated with oncogene and proto-oncogene mediated growth induction, tumor suppressor mediated growth arrest and replicative senescence, apoptosis, and DNA repair. NuA4 may also play a direct role in DNA repair when recruited to sites of DNA damage. Participates in the nuclear localization of URI1 and increases its transcriptional corepressor activity.

Plays a critical role in catalyzing the release of class II- associated invariant chain peptide (CLIP) from newly synthesized MHC class II molecules and freeing the peptide binding site for acquisition of antigenic peptides. In B-cells, the interaction between HLA-DM and MHC class II molecules is regulated by HLA-DO.

May be considered as a candidate tumor suppressor gene for brain, lung, esophageal, gastric, and colorectal cancers. May play roles in mucosal defense system, cellular immune defense and epithelial differentiation. May play a role as an opsonin receptor for SFTPD and SPAR in macrophage tissues throughout the body, including epithelial cells lining the gastrointestinal tract. May play a role in liver regeneration. May be an important factor in fate decision and differentiation of transit-amplifying ductular (oval) cells within the hepatic lineage. Required for terminal differentiation of columnar epithelial cells during early embryogenesis. May function as a binding protein in saliva for the regulation of taste sensation. Binds to HIV-1 envelope protein and has been shown to both inhibit and facilitate viral transmission. Displays a broad calcium-dependent binding spectrum against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, suggesting a role in defense against bacterial pathogens. Binds to a range of poly- sulfated and poly-phosphorylated ligands which may explain its broad bacterial-binding specificity. Inhibits cytoinvasion of S.enterica. Associates with the actin cytoskeleton and is involved in its remodeling during regulated exocytosis. Interacts with pancreatic zymogens in a pH-dependent manner and may act as a Golgi cargo receptor in the regulated secretory pathway of the pancreatic acinar cell.

Functions as a transcriptional repressor. May repress OTX2- mediated transactivation by forming a heterodimer with OTX2 on the P3C (5'-TAATCCGATTA-3') sequence. Required for brain development (By similarity).

Participates in meiotic recombination, specifically in homologous strand assimilation, which is required for the resolution of meiotic double-strand breaks.

May have a dual function during osteoblast differentiation. In the nucleus of undifferentiated osteoblasts, unphosphorylated form acts as a transcriptional component for activation of osteoblast- specific genes like osteocalcin. During the osteoblast to osteocyte transition phase it is phosphorylated and exported into the extracellular matrix, where it regulates nucleation of hydroxyapatite.

Non-receptor serine/threonine protein kinase which is necessary for the maintenance of skeletal muscle structure and function. May play a role in myocyte differentiation and survival by regulating the integrity of the nuclear envelope and the expression of muscle-specific genes. May also phosphorylate PPP1R12A and inhibit the myosin phosphatase activity to regulate myosin phosphorylation. Also critical to the modulation of cardiac contractility and to the maintenance of proper cardiac conduction activity probably through the regulation of cellular calcium homeostasis. Phosphorylates PLN, a regulator of calcium pumps and may regulate sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium uptake in myocytes. May also phosphorylate FXYD1/PLM which is able to induce chloride currents. May also play a role in synaptic plasticity.

Transcription factor that plays a key role in male sex determination and differentiation by controlling testis development and male germ cell proliferation. Plays a central role in spermatogonia by inhibiting meiosis in undifferentiated spermatogonia and promoting mitosis, leading to spermatogonial development and allowing abundant and continuous production of sperm. Acts both as a transcription repressor and activator: prevents meiosis by restricting retinoic acid (RA)-dependent transcription and repressing STRA8 expression and promotes spermatogonial development by activating spermatogonial differentiation genes, such as SOHLH1. Also plays a key role in postnatal sex maintenance by maintaining testis determination and preventing feminization: represses transcription of female promoting genes such as FOXL2 and activates male-specific genes. May act as a tumor suppressor. May also play a minor role in oogenesis (By similarity).

Transcriptional activator that directly regulates early activation of the myogenic determination gene MYF5 by binding in a sequence-specific manner to the early epaxial enhancer element of it. Involved in somitogenesis during embryogenesis and somite development and differentiation into sclerotome and dermomyotome. Required for the initiation and/or maintenance of proper organization of the sclerotome, dermomyotome and myotome (By similarity).

Probable transcription factor that plays a role in configuring the spinal circuits controlling stride in vertebrates. Involved in neuronal specification within specific subdivision of spinal cord neurons and in the development of a coordinated locomotor network controlling limb movements. May regulate transcription during sexual development (By similarity).

Transcriptional activator which activates the CDKN2A/ARF locus in response to Ras-Raf signaling, thereby promoting p53/TP53- dependent growth arrest (By similarity). Binds to the consensus sequence 5'-CCCG[GT]ATGT-3' (By similarity). Isoform 1 may cooperate with MYB to activate transcription of the ANPEP gene. Isoform 2 may antagonize transcriptional activation by isoform 1.

Key enzyme involved in DNA replication and DNA repair in nucleus and mitochondrion. Involved in Okazaki fragments processing by cleaving long flaps that escape FEN1: flaps that are longer than 27 nucleotides are coated by replication protein A complex (RPA), leading to recruit DNA2 which cleaves the flap until it is too short to bind RPA and becomes a substrate for FEN1. Also involved in 5'-end resection of DNA during double-strand break (DSB) repair: recruited by BLM and mediates the cleavage of 5'-ssDNA, while the 3'-ssDNA cleavage is prevented by the presence of RPA. Also involved in DNA replication checkpoint independently of Okazaki fragments processing. Possesses different enzymatic activities, such as single-stranded DNA (ssDNA)- dependent ATPase, 5'-3' helicase and endonuclease activities. While the ATPase and endonuclease activities are well-defined and play a key role in Okazaki fragments processing and DSB repair, the 5'-3' DNA helicase activity is subject to debate. According to various reports, the helicase activity is weak and its function remains largely unclear. Helicase activity may promote the motion of DNA2 on the flap, helping the nuclease function.

Acts as a negative regulator of cell migration, invasion, and metastasis downstream of p53/TP53, through inhibition of Arp2/3 complex-mediated actin polymerization. Via its association with the multisubunit axonemal dynein complex, is potentially involved in the regulation of cilia function (By similarity). May play a role in osteogenesis of dental tissue-derived mesenchymal stem cells (By similarity).

Plays a critical role in the assembly of axonemal dynein complex, thereby playing a role in ciliary motility.

Part of the multisubunit axonemal ATPase complexes that generate the force for cilia motility and govern beat frequency (By similarity). Component of the outer arm dynein (ODA). May be involved in a mechanosensory feedback mechanism controlling ODA activity based on external conformational cues by tethering the outer arm dynein heavy chain (DNAH5) to the microtubule within the axoneme (By similarity). Important for ciliary function in the airways and for the function of the cilia that produce the nodal flow essential for the determination of the left-right asymmetry.

Force generating protein of respiratory cilia. Produces force towards the minus ends of microtubules. Dynein has ATPase activity (By similarity).

Serum endocuclease secreted into body fluids by a wide variety of exocrine and endocrine organs. Expressed by non-hematopoietic tissues and preferentially cleaves protein-free DNA (By similarity). Among other functions, seems to be involved in cell death by apoptosis. Binds specifically to G-actin and blocks actin polymerization (By similarity). Together with DNASE1L3, plays a key role in degrading neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) (By similarity). NETs are mainly composed of DNA fibers and are released by neutrophils to bind pathogens during inflammation (By similarity). Degradation of intravascular NETs by DNASE1 and DNASE1L3 is required to prevent formation of clots that obstruct blood vessels and cause organ damage following inflammation (By similarity).

RNA-binding factor that positively regulates gene expression by prohibiting miRNA-mediated gene suppression. Relieves miRNA repression in germline cells (By similarity). Prohibits the function of several miRNAs by blocking the accessibility of target mRNAs. Sequence- specific RNA-binding factor that binds specifically to U-rich regions (URRs) in the 3' untranslated region (3'-UTR) of several mRNAs. Does not bind to miRNAs. May play a role during primordial germ cell (PGC) survival (By similarity). However, does not seem to be essential for PGC migration (By similarity).

Activator of the NOTCH1 pathway. May mediate neuron-glia interaction during astrocytogenesis (By similarity).

Essential for the normal assembly and function of sperm flagella axonemes.

Co-chaperone for HSPA8/Hsc70. Stimulates ATP hydrolysis, but not the folding of unfolded proteins mediated by HSPA1A (in vitro). Plays a role in protein transport into mitochondria via its role as co-chaperone. Functions as co- chaperone for HSPA1B and negatively regulates the translocation of BAX from the cytosol to mitochondria in response to cellular stress, thereby protecting cells against apoptosis. Promotes apoptosis in response to cellular stress mediated by exposure to anisomycin or UV.

Co-chaperone of Hsc70. Stimulates ATP hydrolysis and the folding of unfolded proteins mediated by HSPA1A/B (in vitro).

Modulates apoptotic signal transduction or effector structures within the mitochondrial matrix. Affect cytochrome C release from the mitochondria and caspase 3 activation, but not caspase 8 activation. Isoform 1 increases apoptosis triggered by both TNF and the DNA-damaging agent mytomycin C; in sharp contrast, isoform 2 suppresses apoptosis. Can modulate IFN-gamma-mediated transcriptional activity. Isoform 2 may play a role in neuromuscular junction development as an effector of the MUSK signaling pathway

Interacts with HSP70 and can stimulate its ATPase activity. Stimulates the association between HSC70 and HIP. Negatively regulates heat shock-induced HSF1 transcriptional activity during the attenuation and recovery phase period of the heat shock response. Stimulates ATP hydrolysis and the folding of unfolded proteins mediated by HSPA1A/B (in vitro).

Functions as a co-chaperone, regulating the substrate binding and activating the ATPase activity of chaperones of the HSP70/heat shock protein 70 family. In parallel, also contributes to the ubiquitin-dependent proteasomal degradation of misfolded proteins. Thereby, may regulate the aggregation and promote the functional recovery of misfolded proteins like HTT, MC4R, PRKN, RHO and SOD1 and be crucial for many biological processes. Isoform 1 which is localized to the endoplasmic reticulum membranes may specifically function in ER-associated protein degradation of misfolded proteins.

Probable chaperone. Stimulates ATP hydrolysis and the folding of unfolded proteins mediated by HSPA1A/B (in vitro).

Has a stimulatory effect on the ATPase activity of HSP70 in a dose-dependent and time-dependent manner and hence acts as a co- chaperone of HSP70. Plays an indispensable role in the organization of KRT8/KRT18 filaments. Acts as an endogenous molecular chaperone for neuronal proteins including huntingtin. Suppresses aggregation and toxicity of polyglutamine- containing, aggregation-prone proteins. Also reduces cellular toxicity and caspase-3 activity.

Efficient suppressor of aggregation and toxicity of disease- associated polyglutamine proteins.

Co-chaperone for Hsp70 protein HSPA5/BiP that acts as a key repressor of the ERN1/IRE1-mediated unfolded protein response (UPR) (By similarity). J domain-containing co-chaperones stimulate the ATPase activity of Hsp70 proteins and are required for efficient substrate recognition by Hsp70 proteins. In the unstressed endoplasmic reticulum, interacts with the luminal region of ERN1/IRE1 and selectively recruits HSPA5/BiP: HSPA5/BiP disrupts the dimerization of the active ERN1/IRE1 luminal region, thereby inactivating ERN1/IRE1 (By similarity). Also involved in endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) of misfolded proteins. Required for survival of B- cell progenitors and normal antibody production (By similarity).

Acts both as a chaperone in the cytosol and as a chromatin regulator in the nucleus. When cytosolic, acts as a molecular chaperone: component of the ribosome-associated complex (RAC), a complex involved in folding or maintaining nascent polypeptides in a folding-competent state. In the RAC complex, stimulates the ATPase activity of the ribosome-associated pool of Hsp70-type chaperones HSPA14 that bind to the nascent polypeptide chain. When nuclear, mediates the switching from polycomb-repressed genes to an active state: specifically recruited at histone H2A ubiquitinated at 'Lys-119' (H2AK119ub), and promotes the displacement of the polycomb PRC1 complex from chromatin, thereby facilitating transcription activation.

Involved in the unfolded protein response (UPR) during endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress. Acts as a negative regulator of the EIF2AK4/GCN2 kinase activity by preventing the phosphorylation of eIF- 2-alpha at 'Ser-52' and hence attenuating general protein synthesis under ER stress, hypothermic and amino acid starving stress conditions (By similarity). Co-chaperone of HSPA8/HSC70, it stimulates its ATPase activity. May inhibit both the autophosphorylation of EIF2AK2/PKR and the ability of EIF2AK2 to catalyze phosphorylation of the EIF2A. May inhibit EIF2AK3/PERK activity.

Acts as a general chaperone in regulated exocytosis (By similarity). Acts as a co-chaperone for the SNARE protein SNAP-25 (By similarity). Involved in the calcium-mediated control of a late stage of exocytosis (By similarity). May have an important role in presynaptic function. May be involved in calcium-dependent neurotransmitter release at nerve endings (By similarity).

Acts as co-chaperone regulating the molecular chaperones HSP70 and HSP90 in folding of steroid receptors, such as the glucocorticoid receptor and the progesterone receptor. Proposed to act as a recycling chaperone by facilitating the return of chaperone substrates to early stages of chaperoning if further folding is required. In vitro, induces ATP-independent dissociation of HSP90 but not of HSP70 from the chaperone-substrate complexes. Recruits NR1I3 to the cytoplasm (By similarity).

Suppresses polyglutamine (polyQ) aggregation of ATXN3 in neuronal cells.

Acts as a dual histone chaperone and heat shock co-chaperone. As a histone chaperone, forms a co-chaperone complex with MCM2 and histone H3-H4 heterodimers; and may thereby assist MCM2 in histone H3-H4 heterodimer recognition and facilitate the assembly of histones into nucleosomes. May also act as a histone co-chaperone together with TONSL. May recruit histone chaperones ASF1A, NASP and SPT2 to histone H3-H4 heterodimers. Also plays a role as co-chaperone of the HSP70 family of molecular chaperone proteins, such as HSPA1A, HSPA1B and HSPA8. As a co-chaperone, may play a role in the recruitment of HSP70-type molecular chaperone machinery to histone H3-H4 substrates, thereby maintaining the histone structural integrity. Exhibits activity to assemble histones onto DNA in vitro.

DNA ligase that seals nicks in double-stranded during DNA repair. Also involved in DNA replication and DNA recombination.

Isoform 3 functions as heterodimer with DNA-repair protein XRCC1 in the nucleus and can correct defective DNA strand-break repair and sister chromatid exchange following treatment with ionizing radiation and alkylating agents. Isoform 1 is targeted to mitochondria, where it functions as DNA ligase in mitochondrial base-excision DNA repair.

DNA ligase involved in DNA non-homologous end joining (NHEJ); required for double-strand break (DSB) repair and V(D)J recombination. Catalyzes the NHEJ ligation step of the broken DNA during DSB repair by resealing the DNA breaks after the gap filling is completed. Joins single-strand breaks in a double-stranded polydeoxynucleotide in an ATP-dependent reaction. LIG4 is mechanistically flexible: it can ligate nicks as well as compatible DNA overhangs alone, while in the presence of XRCC4, it can ligate ends with 2-nucleotides (nt) microhomology and 1-nt gaps. Forms a subcomplex with XRCC4; the LIG4-XRCC4 subcomplex is responsible for the NHEJ ligation step and XRCC4 enhances the joining activity of LIG4. Binding of the LIG4-XRCC4 complex to DNA ends is dependent on the assembly of the DNA-dependent protein kinase complex DNA-PK to these DNA ends. LIG4 regulates nuclear localization of XRCC4.

May function as a co-chaperone towards HSPA9/mortalin which, by itself, is prone to self-aggregation.

Functions in mitochondrial and peroxisomal division. Mediates membrane fission through oligomerization into membrane-associated tubular structures that wrap around the scission site to constrict and sever the mitochondrial membrane through a GTP hydrolysis-dependent mechanism. The specific recruitment at scission sites is mediated by membrane receptors like MFF, MIEF1 and MIEF2 for mitochondrial membranes. While the recruitment by the membrane receptors is GTP-dependent, the following hydrolysis of GTP induces the dissociation from the receptors and allows DNM1L filaments to curl into closed rings that are probably sufficient to sever a double membrane. Acts downstream of PINK1 to promote mitochondrial fission in a PRKN-dependent manner. Plays an important role in mitochondrial fission during mitosis. Through its function in mitochondrial division, ensures the survival of at least some types of postmitotic neurons, including Purkinje cells, by suppressing oxidative damage (By similarity). Required for normal brain development, including that of cerebellum. Facilitates developmentally regulated apoptosis during neural tube formation (By similarity). Required for a normal rate of cytochrome c release and caspase activation during apoptosis; this requirement may depend upon the cell type and the physiological apoptotic cues (By similarity). Required for formation of endocytic vesicles. Proposed to regulate synaptic vesicle membrane dynamics through association with BCL2L1 isoform Bcl-X(L) which stimulates its GTPase activity in synaptic vesicles; the function may require its recruitment by MFF to clathrin-containing vesicles. Required for programmed necrosis execution. Rhythmic control of its activity following phosphorylation at Ser-637 is essential for the circadian control of mitochondrial ATP production.

Required for genome-wide de novo methylation and is essential for the establishment of DNA methylation patterns during development. DNA methylation is coordinated with methylation of histones. It modifies DNA in a non-processive manner and also methylates non-CpG sites. May preferentially methylate DNA linker between 2 nucleosomal cores and is inhibited by histone H1 (By similarity). Plays a role in paternal and maternal imprinting (By similarity). Required for methylation of most imprinted loci in germ cells (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional corepressor for ZBTB18 (By similarity). Recruited to trimethylated 'Lys-36' of histone H3 (H3K36me3) sites (By similarity). Can actively repress transcription through the recruitment of HDAC activity (By similarity). Also has weak auto-methylation activity on Cys-710 in absence of DNA (By similarity).

Required for genome-wide de novo methylation and is essential for the establishment of DNA methylation patterns during development. DNA methylation is coordinated with methylation of histones. May preferentially methylates nucleosomal DNA within the nucleosome core region. May function as transcriptional co-repressor by associating with CBX4 and independently of DNA methylation. Seems to be involved in gene silencing (By similarity). In association with DNMT1 and via the recruitment of CTCFL/BORIS, involved in activation of BAG1 gene expression by modulating dimethylation of promoter histone H3 at H3K4 and H3K9. Isoforms 4 and 5 are probably not functional due to the deletion of two conserved methyltransferase motifs. Functions as a transcriptional corepressor by associating with ZHX1. Required for DUX4 silencing in somatic cells.

Catalytically inactive regulatory factor of DNA methyltransferases that can either promote or inhibit DNA methylation depending on the context (By similarity). Essential for the function of DNMT3A and DNMT3B: activates DNMT3A and DNMT3B by binding to their catalytic domain. Acts by accelerating the binding of DNA and S-adenosyl-L-methionine (AdoMet) to the methyltransferases and dissociates from the complex after DNA binding to the methyltransferases. Recognizes unmethylated histone H3 lysine 4 (H3K4me0) and induces de novo DNA methylation by recruitment or activation of DNMT3. Plays a key role in embryonic stem cells and germ cells (By similarity). In germ cells, required for the methylation of imprinted loci together with DNMT3A (By similarity). In male germ cells, specifically required to methylate retrotransposons, preventing their mobilization (By similarity). Plays a key role in embryonic stem cells (ESCs) by acting both as an positive and negative regulator of DNA methylation (By similarity). While it promotes DNA methylation of housekeeping genes together with DNMT3A and DNMT3B, it also acts as an inhibitor of DNA methylation at the promoter of bivalent genes (By similarity). Interacts with the EZH2 component of the PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex, preventing interaction of DNMT3A and DNMT3B with the PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex, leading to maintain low methylation levels at the promoters of bivalent genes (By similarity). Promotes differentiation of ESCs into primordial germ cells by inhibiting DNA methylation at the promoter of RHOX5, thereby activating its expression (By similarity).

Plays a critical role as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for CDC42 in several intracellular processes associated with the actin and microtubule cytoskeleton. Regulates the structure of apical junctions through F-actin organization in epithelial cells. Participates in the normal lumenogenesis of epithelial cell cysts by regulating spindle orientation. Plays a role in ciliogenesis (By similarity). May play a role in membrane trafficking between the cell surface and the Golgi (By similarity).

Methylates CpG residues. Preferentially methylates hemimethylated DNA. Associates with DNA replication sites in S phase maintaining the methylation pattern in the newly synthesized strand, that is essential for epigenetic inheritance. Associates with chromatin during G2 and M phases to maintain DNA methylation independently of replication. It is responsible for maintaining methylation patterns established in development. DNA methylation is coordinated with methylation of histones. Mediates transcriptional repression by direct binding to HDAC2. In association with DNMT3B and via the recruitment of CTCFL/BORIS, involved in activation of BAG1 gene expression by modulating dimethylation of promoter histone H3 at H3K4 and H3K9. Probably forms a corepressor complex required for activated KRAS- mediated promoter hypermethylation and transcriptional silencing of tumor suppressor genes (TSGs) or other tumor-related genes in colorectal cancer (CRC) cells. Also required to maintain a transcriptionally repressive state of genes in undifferentiated embryonic stem cells (ESCs). Associates at promoter regions of tumor suppressor genes (TSGs) leading to their gene silencing. Promotes tumor growth.

Aminopeptidase with specificity towards an acidic amino acid at the N-terminus. Likely to play an important role in intracellular protein and peptide metabolism.

Catalyzes the cleavage of the N-glycosidic bond of deoxyribonucleoside 5'-monophosphates to yield deoxyribose 5-phosphate and a purine or pyrimidine base. Deoxyribonucleoside 5'-monophosphates containing purine bases are preferred to those containing pyrimidine bases.

Hydrolyzes DNA under acidic conditions with a preference for double-stranded DNA. Plays a major role in the clearance of nucleic acids generated through apoptosis, hence preventing autoinflammation. Necessary for proper fetal development and for definitive erythropoiesis in fetal liver and bone marrow, where it degrades nuclear DNA expelled from erythroid precursor cells.

Hydrolyzes DNA under acidic conditions. Does not require divalent cations for activity. Participates in the degradation of nuclear DNA during lens cell differentiation.

Divalent cation-dependent acid DNA endonuclease involved in the breakdown of the nucleus during corneocyte formation of epidermal keratinocytes. May play an immune role by eliminating harmful DNA released into the extracellular environment by damaged epidermal cells.

Has DNA hydrolytic activity. Is capable of both single- and double-stranded DNA cleavage, producing DNA fragments with 3'-OH ends (By similarity). Can cleave chromatin to nucleosomal units and cleaves nucleosomal and liposome-coated DNA. Acts in internucleosomal DNA fragmentation (INDF) during apoptosis and necrosis. The role in apoptosis includes myogenic and neuronal differentiation, and BCR-mediated clonal deletion of self-reactive B cells (By similarity). Is active on chromatin in apoptotic cell-derived membrane-coated microparticles and thus suppresses anti-DNA autoimmunity. Together with DNASE1, plays a key role in degrading neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) (By similarity). NETs are mainly composed of DNA fibers and are released by neutrophils to bind pathogens during inflammation (By similarity). Degradation of intravascular NETs by DNASE1 and DNASE1L3 is required to prevent formation of clots that obstruct blood vessels and cause organ damage following inflammation (By similarity).

Important modulator in the HLA class II restricted antigen presentation pathway by interaction with the HLA-DM molecule in B- cells. Modifies peptide exchange activity of HLA-DM

Guanine nucleotide-exchange factor (GEF) that activates CDC42 and RAC1 by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP. Essential for dendritic spine morphogenesis in Purkinje cells and in hippocampal neurons, via a CDC42-mediated pathway. Sustains B-cell lymphopoiesis in secondary lymphoid tissues and regulates FCER2/CD23 expression.

Guanine nucleotide-exchange factor (GEF) that activates CDC42 by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP. Required for marginal zone (MZ) B-cell development, is associated with early bone marrow B-cell development, MZ B-cell formation, MZ B-cell number and marginal metallophilic macrophages morphology. Facilitates filopodia formation through the activation of CDC42.

Calcium sensor which most probably regulates fusion of vesicles with membranes. Binds calcium and phospholipids. May be involved in calcium dependent neurotransmitter release through the interaction with UNC13A. May be involved in calcium-dependent spontaneous release of neurotransmitter in absence of action potentials in neuronal cells. Regulates Ca(2+)-dependent secretory lysosome exocytosis in mast cells.

Calcium sensor which positively regulates SNARE-dependent fusion of vesicles with membranes. Binds phospholipids in a calcium- dependent manner and may act at the priming stage of fusion by modifying membrane curvature to stimulate fusion. Involved in calcium- triggered exocytosis in chromaffin cells and calcium-dependent spontaneous release of neurotransmitter in absence of action potentials in neuronal cells. Involved both in glucose-stimulated insulin secretion in pancreatic cells and insulin-dependent GLUT4 transport to the plasma membrane in adipocytes (By similarity).

Involved in cytoskeletal rearrangements required for lymphocyte migration in response of chemokines. Activates RAC1 and RAC2, but not CDC42, by functioning as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF), which exchanges bound GDP for free GTP. May also participate in IL2 transcriptional activation via the activation of RAC2.

Potential guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF). GEF proteins activate some small GTPases by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP. Its interaction with presenilin proteins as well as its ability to stimulate Tau/MAPT phosphorylation suggest that it may be involved in Alzheimer disease. Ectopic expression in nerve cells decreases the secretion of amyloid-beta APBA1 protein and lowers the rate of cell- substratum adhesion, suggesting that it may affect the function of some small GTPase involved in the regulation of actin cytoskeleton or cell adhesion receptors (By similarity).

Functions as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) that promotes the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP-bound small GTPases into their active GTP-bound form. Involved in regulation of adherens junction between cells. Plays a role in cell migration.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for Rho and Rac. GEF proteins activate small GTPases by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP (By similarity). Along with DOCK1, mediates CRK/CRKL regulation of epithelial and endothelial cell spreading and migration on type IV collagen.

Acts as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for CDC42 and RAC1 small GTPases. Through its activation of CDC42 and RAC1, may regulate neurite outgrowth (By similarity).

Functions as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF), which activates Rac1 and Rac3 Rho small GTPases by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP. Does not have a GEF activity for CDC42. Required for STMN1 'Ser-15' phosphorylation during axon formation and consequently for neuronal polarization. As part of the DISP complex, may regulate the association of septins with actin and thereby regulate the actin cytoskeleton. Has a role in pigmentation (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of cortical neurogenesis through the control of radial glial cells (RGCs) proliferation versus differentiation; negatively regulates the basal- to-apical interkinetic nuclear migration of RGCs by antagonizing the microtubule growth-promoting function of TACC3 (By similarity).

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) which specifically activates small GTPase CDC42 by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP. During immune responses, required for interstitial dendritic cell (DC) migration by locally activating CDC42 at the leading edge membrane of DC (By similarity). Required for CD4(+) T-cell migration in response to chemokine stimulation by promoting CDC42 activation at T cell leading edge membrane. Is involved in NK cell cytotoxicity by controlling polarization of microtubule-organizing center (MTOC), and possibly regulating CCDC88B-mediated lytic granule transport to MTOC during cell killing.

Catalyzes the hydroxylation of the N(6)-(4-aminobutyl)-L- lysine intermediate produced by deoxyhypusine synthase/DHPS on a critical lysine of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 5A/eIF- 5A. This is the second step of the post-translational modification of that lysine into an unusual amino acid residue named hypusine. Hypusination is unique to mature eIF-5A factor and is essential for its function (By similarity).

DOK proteins are enzymatically inert adaptor or scaffolding proteins. They provide a docking platform for the assembly of multimolecular signaling complexes. DOK1 appears to be a negative regulator of the insulin signaling pathway. Modulates integrin activation by competing with talin for the same binding site on ITGB3.

DOK proteins are enzymatically inert adaptor or scaffolding proteins. They provide a docking platform for the assembly of multimolecular signaling complexes. DOK2 may modulate the cellular proliferation induced by IL-4, as well as IL-2 and IL-3. May be involved in modulating Bcr-Abl signaling. Attenuates EGF-stimulated MAP kinase activation (By similarity).

DOK proteins are enzymatically inert adaptor or scaffolding proteins. They provide a docking platform for the assembly of multimolecular signaling complexes. DOK4 functions in RET-mediated neurite outgrowth and plays a positive role in activation of the MAP kinase pathway (By similarity). Putative link with downstream effectors of RET in neuronal differentiation. May be involved in the regulation of the immune response induced by T-cells.

DOK proteins are enzymatically inert adaptor or scaffolding proteins. They provide a docking platform for the assembly of multimolecular signaling complexes. DOK5 functions in RET-mediated neurite outgrowth and plays a positive role in activation of the MAP kinase pathway. Putative link with downstream effectors of RET in neuronal differentiation

DOK proteins are enzymatically inert adaptor or scaffolding proteins. They provide a docking platform for the assembly of multimolecular signaling complexes. DOK6 promotes Ret-mediated neurite growth. May have a role in brain development and/or maintenance.

Probable muscle-intrinsic activator of MUSK that plays an essential role in neuromuscular synaptogenesis. Acts in aneural activation of MUSK and subsequent acetylcholine receptor (AchR) clustering in myotubes. Induces autophosphorylation of MUSK.

Catalyzes CTP-mediated phosphorylation of dolichol, the terminal step in de novo dolichyl monophosphate (Dol-P) biosynthesis. Dol-P is a lipid carrier essential for the synthesis of N-linked and O-linked oligosaccharides and for GPI anchors.

Replisome component that maintains genome stability by protecting stalled or damaged replication forks. After the induction of replication stress, required for the stabilization of stalled replication forks, the efficient activation of the intra-S-phase and G/2M cell-cycle checkpoints and the maintenance of genome stability.

May be involved in protein traffic between late Golgi and early endosomes.

May play a role in regulating membrane trafficking of cargo proteins. Together with ATP9A and MON2, regulates SNX3 retromer- mediated endosomal sorting of WLS away from lysosomal degradation.

Tautomerization of D-dopachrome with decarboxylation to give 5,6-dihydroxyindole (DHI).

Required for efficient N-glycosylation. Necessary for maintaining optimal levels of dolichol-linked oligosaccharides. Hydrolyzes dolichyl pyrophosphate at a very high rate and dolichyl monophosphate at a much lower rate. Does not act on phosphatidate (By similarity).

Histone methyltransferase. Methylates 'Lys-79' of histone H3. Nucleosomes are preferred as substrate compared to free histones. Binds to DNA.

May be required for the maturation and the transport from the endoplasmic reticulum to the plasma membrane of functional DUOX1.

Required for the maturation and the transport from the endoplasmic reticulum to the plasma membrane of functional DUOX2. May play a role in thyroid hormone synthesis.

Multifunctional adapter protein that binds to various membrane receptors, nuclear factors and signaling proteins to regulate many processes, such as cell proliferation, immune response, endosomal trafficking and cell metabolism. Regulates signaling pathway leading to cell proliferation through interaction with RAB5A and subunits of the NuRD/MeCP1 complex. Functions as a positive regulator of innate immune response via activation of AKT1 signaling pathway by forming a complex with APPL1 and PIK3R1 (By similarity). Inhibits Fc-gamma receptor-mediated phagocytosis through PI3K/Akt signaling in macrophages (By similarity). Regulates TLR4 signaling in activated macrophages (By similarity). Involved in trafficking of the TGFBR1 from the endosomes to the nucleus via microtubules in a TRAF6-dependent manner. Plays a role in cell metabolism by regulating adiponecting and insulin signaling pathways. Required for fibroblast migration through HGF cell signaling (By similarity). Positive regulator of beta-catenin/TCF-dependent transcription through direct interaction with RUVBL2/reptin resulting in the relief of RUVBL2-mediated repression of beta-catenin/TCF target genes by modulating the interactions within the beta-catenin-reptin- HDAC complex.

Multifunctional adapter protein that binds to various membrane receptors, nuclear factors and signaling proteins to regulate many processes, such as cell proliferation, immune response, endosomal trafficking and cell metabolism. Regulates signaling pathway leading to cell proliferation through interaction with RAB5A and subunits of the NuRD/MeCP1 complex. Plays a role in immune response by modulating phagocytosis, inflammatory and innate immune responses. In macrophages, enhances Fc-gamma receptor-mediated phagocytosis through interaction with RAB31 leading to activation of PI3K/Akt signaling. In response to LPS, modulates inflammatory responses by playing a key role on the regulation of TLR4 signaling and in the nuclear translocation of RELA/NF-kappa-B p65 and the secretion of pro- and anti-inflammatory cytokines. Also functions as a negative regulator of innate immune response via inhibition of AKT1 signaling pathway by forming a complex with APPL1 and PIK3R1 (By similarity). Plays a role in endosomal trafficking of TGFBR1 from the endosomes to the nucleus. Plays a role in cell metabolism by regulating adiponecting ans insulin signaling pathways and adaptative thermogenesis (By similarity). In muscle, negatively regulates adiponectin-simulated glucose uptake and fatty acid oxidation by inhibiting adiponectin signaling pathway through APPL1 sequestration thereby antagonizing APPL1 action (By similarity). In muscles, negativeliy regulates insulin-induced plasma membrane recruitment of GLUT4 and glucose uptake through interaction with TBC1D1. Plays a role in cold and diet-induced adaptive thermogenesis by activating ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH) neurons throught AMPK inhibition which enhances sympathetic outflow to subcutaneous white adipose tissue (sWAT), sWAT beiging and cold tolerance (By similarity). Also plays a role in other signaling pathways namely Wnt/beta-catenin, HGF and glucocorticoid receptor signaling (By similarity). Positive regulator of beta-catenin/TCF-dependent transcription through direct interaction with RUVBL2/reptin resulting in the relief of RUVBL2-mediated repression of beta-catenin/TCF target genes by modulating the interactions within the beta-catenin-reptin-HDAC complex. May affect adult neurogenesis in hippocampus and olfactory system via regulating the sensitivity of glucocorticoid receptor. Required for fibroblast migration through HGF cell signaling (By similarity).

Binds peptides derived from antigens that access the endocytic route of antigen presenting cells (APC) and presents them on the cell surface for recognition by the CD4 T-cells. The peptide binding cleft accommodates peptides of 10-30 residues. The peptides presented by MHC class II molecules are generated mostly by degradation of proteins that access the endocytic route, where they are processed by lysosomal proteases and other hydrolases. Exogenous antigens that have been endocytosed by the APC are thus readily available for presentation via MHC II molecules, and for this reason this antigen presentation pathway is usually referred to as exogenous. As membrane proteins on their way to degradation in lysosomes as part of their normal turn-over are also contained in the endosomal/lysosomal compartments, exogenous antigens must compete with those derived from endogenous components. Autophagy is also a source of endogenous peptides, autophagosomes constitutively fuse with MHC class II loading compartments. In addition to APCs, other cells of the gastrointestinal tract, such as epithelial cells, express MHC class II molecules and CD74 and act as APCs, which is an unusual trait of the GI tract. To produce a MHC class II molecule that presents an antigen, three MHC class II molecules (heterodimers of an alpha and a beta chain) associate with a CD74 trimer in the ER to form a heterononamer. Soon after the entry of this complex into the endosomal/lysosomal system where antigen processing occurs, CD74 undergoes a sequential degradation by various proteases, including CTSS and CTSL, leaving a small fragment termed CLIP (class-II-associated invariant chain peptide). The removal of CLIP is facilitated by HLA-DM via direct binding to the alpha-beta-CLIP complex so that CLIP is released. HLA-DM stabilizes MHC class II molecules until primary high affinity antigenic peptides are bound. The MHC II molecule bound to a peptide is then transported to the cell membrane surface. In B-cells, the interaction between HLA-DM and MHC class II molecules is regulated by HLA-DO. Primary dendritic cells (DCs) also to express HLA-DO. Lysosomal microenvironment has been implicated in the regulation of antigen loading into MHC II molecules, increased acidification produces increased proteolysis and efficient peptide loading

Hydrolyzes a wide range of dipeptides including the conversion of leukotriene D4 to leukotriene E4. Hydrolyzes cystinyl- bis-glycine (cys-bis-gly) formed during glutathione degradation. Possesses also beta lactamase activity and can hydrolyze the beta-lactam antibiotic imipenem.

Dipeptidase that hydrolyzes leukotriene D4 (LTD4) into leukotriene E4 (LTE4). Hydrolyzes cystinyl-bis- glycine.

Lacks dipeptidase activity and is unable to hydrolyze cystinyl-bis-glycine, leukotriene D4 and the beta-lactam antibiotic imipenem. The absence of activity may be due to the inability of asparagine (instead of aspartate found in DPEP1/2) at position 359 to function as the acid/base catalyst and activate the nucleophilic water/hydroxide. A tyrosine (instead of histidine) at position 269 reduces affinity for the beta zinc and may cause substrate steric hindrance.

May have an important role in developing neurons by participating in regulation of cell survival, possibly as a neurospecific transcription factor. Belongs to the neuron-specific chromatin remodeling complex (nBAF complex). During neural development a switch from a stem/progenitor to a postmitotic chromatin remodeling mechanism occurs as neurons exit the cell cycle and become committed to their adult state. The transition from proliferating neural stem/progenitor cells to postmitotic neurons requires a switch in subunit composition of the npBAF and nBAF complexes. As neural progenitors exit mitosis and differentiate into neurons, npBAF complexes which contain ACTL6A/BAF53A and PHF10/BAF45A, are exchanged for homologous alternative ACTL6B/BAF53B and DPF1/BAF45B or DPF3/BAF45C subunits in neuron-specific complexes (nBAF). The npBAF complex is essential for the self-renewal/proliferative capacity of the multipotent neural stem cells. The nBAF complex along with CREST plays a role regulating the activity of genes essential for dendrite growth (By similarity).

Belongs to the neuron-specific chromatin remodeling complex (nBAF complex). During neural development a switch from a stem/progenitor to a post-mitotic chromatin remodeling mechanism occurs as neurons exit the cell cycle and become committed to their adult state. The transition from proliferating neural stem/progenitor cells to post-mitotic neurons requires a switch in subunit composition of the npBAF and nBAF complexes. As neural progenitors exit mitosis and differentiate into neurons, npBAF complexes which contain ACTL6A/BAF53A and PHF10/BAF45A, are exchanged for homologous alternative ACTL6B/BAF53B and DPF1/BAF45B or DPF3/BAF45C subunits in neuron- specific complexes (nBAF). The npBAF complex is essential for the self- renewal/proliferative capacity of the multipotent neural stem cells. The nBAF complex along with CREST plays a role regulating the activity of genes essential for dendrite growth (By similarity). Muscle-specific component of the BAF complex, a multiprotein complex involved in transcriptional activation and repression of select genes by chromatin remodeling (alteration of DNA-nucleosome topology). Specifically binds acetylated lysines on histone 3 and 4 (H3K14ac, H3K9ac, H4K5ac, H4K8ac, H4K12ac, H4K16ac). In the complex, it acts as a tissue-specific anchor between histone acetylations and methylations and chromatin remodeling. It thereby probably plays an essential role in heart and skeletal muscle development.

Required for the first step of diphthamide biosynthesis, a post-translational modification of histidine which occurs in elongation factor 2. DPH1 and DPH2 transfer a 3-amino-3- carboxypropyl (ACP) group from S-adenosyl-L-methionine (SAM) to a histidine residue, the reaction is assisted by a reduction system comprising DPH3 and a NADH-dependent reductase (By similarity). Facilitates the reduction of the catalytic iron-sulfur cluster found in the DPH1 subunit (By similarity).

Required for the first step of diphthamide biosynthesis, a post-translational modification of histidine which occurs in elongation factor 2. DPH1 and DPH2 transfer a 3-amino-3-carboxypropyl (ACP) group from S-adenosyl-L-methionine (SAM) to a histidine residue, the reaction is assisted by a reduction system comprising DPH3 and a NADH-dependent reductase. Acts as an electron donor to reduce the Fe-S cluster in DPH1-DPH2 keeping the [4Fe-4S] clusters in the active and reduced state. Restores iron to DPH1-DPH2 iron-sulfur clusters which have degraded from [4Fe-4S] to [3Fe-4S] by donating an iron atom to reform [4Fe-4S] clusters, in a manner dependent on the presence of elongation factor 2 and SAM. Associates with the elongator complex and is required for tRNA Wobble base modifications mediated by the elongator complex. The elongator complex is required for multiple tRNA modifications, including mcm5U (5-methoxycarbonylmethyl uridine), mcm5s 2U (5- methoxycarbonylmethyl-2-thiouridine), and ncm5U (5-carbamoylmethyl uridine).

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that catalyzes four methylations of the modified target histidine residue in translation elongation factor 2 (EF-2), to form an intermediate called diphthine methyl ester. The four successive methylation reactions represent the second step of diphthamide biosynthesis.

Amidase that may catalyze the last step of diphthamide biosynthesis using ammonium and ATP. Diphthamide biosynthesis consists in the conversion of an L-histidine residue in the translation elongation factor (EEF2) to diphthamide (By similarity).

Catalyzes the demethylation of diphthine methyl ester to form diphthine, an intermediate diphthamide biosynthesis, a post- translational modification of histidine which occurs in translation elongation factor 2 (EEF2) which can be ADP-ribosylated by diphtheria toxin and by Pseudomonas exotoxin A (Eta).

Transfers mannose from GDP-mannose to dolichol monophosphate to form dolichol phosphate mannose (Dol-P-Man) which is the mannosyl donor in pathways leading to N-glycosylation, glycosyl phosphatidylinositol membrane anchoring, and O-mannosylation of proteins; catalytic subunit of the dolichol-phosphate mannose (DPM) synthase complex.

Regulates the biosynthesis of dolichol phosphate-mannose. Regulatory subunit of the dolichol-phosphate mannose (DPM) synthase complex; essential for the ER localization and stable expression of DPM1. Part of the glycosylphosphatidylinositol-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase (GPI-GnT) complex that catalyzes the transfer of N-acetylglucosamine from UDP-N- acetylglucosamine to phosphatidylinositol and participates in the first step of GPI biosynthesis. May act by regulating the GPI-GNT complex.

Stabilizer subunit of the dolichol-phosphate mannose (DPM) synthase complex; tethers catalytic subunit DPM1 to the endoplasmic reticulum.

Accessory subunit of the DNA polymerase alpha complex (also known as the alpha DNA polymerase-primase complex) which plays an essential role in the initiation of DNA synthesis. During the S phase of the cell cycle, the DNA polymerase alpha complex (composed of a catalytic subunit POLA1, an accessory subunit POLA2 and two primase subunits, the catalytic subunit PRIM1 and the regulatory subunit PRIM2) is recruited to DNA at the replicative forks via direct interactions with MCM10 and WDHD1 (By similarity). The primase subunit of the polymerase alpha complex initiates DNA synthesis by oligomerising short RNA primers on both leading and lagging strands (By similarity). These primers are initially extended by the polymerase alpha catalytic subunit and subsequently transferred to polymerase delta and polymerase epsilon for processive synthesis on the lagging and leading strand, respectively (By similarity).

As the catalytic component of the trimeric (Pol-delta3 complex) and tetrameric DNA polymerase delta complexes (Pol-delta4 complex), plays a crucial role in high fidelity genome replication, including in lagging strand synthesis, and repair. Exhibits both DNA polymerase and 3'- to 5'-exonuclease activities. Requires the presence of accessory proteins POLD2, POLD3 and POLD4 for full activity. Depending upon the absence (Pol-delta3) or the presence of POLD4 (Pol-delta4), displays differences in catalytic activity. Most notably, expresses higher proofreading activity in the context of Pol- delta3 compared with that of Pol-delta4. Although both Pol-delta3 and Pol-delta4 process Okazaki fragments in vitro, Pol-delta3 may be better suited to fulfill this task, exhibiting near-absence of strand displacement activity compared to Pol-delta4 and stalling on encounter with the 5'-blocking oligonucleotides. Pol-delta3 idling process may avoid the formation of a gap, while maintaining a nick that can be readily ligated. Along with DNA polymerase kappa, DNA polymerase delta carries out approximately half of nucleotide excision repair (NER) synthesis following UV irradiation. Under conditions of DNA replication stress, in the presence of POLD3 and POLD4, may catalyze the repair of broken replication forks through break-induced replication (BIR). Involved in the translesion synthesis (TLS) of templates carrying O6-methylguanine, 8oxoG or abasic sites.

Accessory component of both the DNA polymerase delta complex and the DNA polymerase zeta complex. As a component of the trimeric and tetrameric DNA polymerase delta complexes (Pol-delta3 and Pol-delta4, respectively), plays a role in high fidelity genome replication, including in lagging strand synthesis, and repair. Pol-delta3 and Pol- delta4 are characterized by the absence or the presence of POLD4. They exhibit differences in catalytic activity. Most notably, Pol-delta3 shows higher proofreading activity than Pol-delta4. Although both Pol-delta3 and Pol-delta4 process Okazaki fragments in vitro, Pol-delta3 may also be better suited to fulfill this task, exhibiting near-absence of strand displacement activity compared to Pol-delta4 and stalling on encounter with the 5'- blocking oligonucleotides. Pol-delta3 idling process may avoid the formation of a gap, while maintaining a nick that can be readily ligated. Along with DNA polymerase kappa, DNA polymerase delta carries out approximately half of nucleotide excision repair (NER) synthesis following UV irradiation. Under conditions of DNA replication stress, required for the repair of broken replication forks through break-induced replication (BIR). Involved in the translesion synthesis (TLS) of templates carrying O6-methylguanine or abasic sites performed by Pol- delta4, independently of DNA polymerase zeta (REV3L) or eta (POLH). Facilitates abasic site bypass by DNA polymerase delta by promoting extension from the nucleotide inserted opposite the lesion. Also involved in TLS as a component of the DNA polymerase zeta complex. Along with POLD3, dramatically increases the efficiency and processivity of DNA synthesis of the DNA polymerase zeta complex compared to the minimal zeta complex, consisting of only REV3L and REV7.

Accessory component of both the DNA polymerase delta complex and the DNA polymerase zeta complex. As a component of the trimeric and tetrameric DNA polymerase delta complexes (Pol-delta3 and Pol-delta4, respectively), plays a role in high fidelity genome replication, including in lagging strand synthesis, and repair. Required for optimal Pol-delta activity. Stabilizes the Pol-delta complex and plays a major role in Pol-delta stimulation by PCNA. Pol-delta3 and Pol-delta4 are characterized by the absence or the presence of POLD4. They exhibit differences in catalytic activity. Most notably, Pol-delta3 shows higher proofreading activity than Pol-delta4. Although both Pol-delta3 and Pol-delta4 process Okazaki fragments in vitro, Pol-delta3 may also be better suited to fulfill this task, exhibiting near-absence of strand displacement activity compared to Pol-delta4 and stalling on encounter with the 5'- blocking oligonucleotides. Pol-delta3 idling process may avoid the formation of a gap, while maintaining a nick that can be readily ligated. Along with DNA polymerase kappa, DNA polymerase delta carries out approximately half of nucleotide excision repair (NER) synthesis following UV irradiation. In this context, POLD3, along with PCNA and RFC1-replication factor C complex, is required to recruit POLD1, the catalytic subunit of the polymerase delta complex, to DNA damage sites. Under conditions of DNA replication stress, required for the repair of broken replication forks through break-induced replication (BIR). Involved in the translesion synthesis (TLS) of templates carrying O6-methylguanine or abasic sites performed by Pol- delta4, independently of DNA polymerase zeta (REV3L) or eta (POLH). Facilitates abasic site bypass by DNA polymerase delta by promoting extension from the nucleotide inserted opposite the lesion. Also involved in TLS, as a component of the tetrametric DNA polymerase zeta complex. Along with POLD2, dramatically increases the efficiency and processivity of DNA synthesis of the DNA polymerase zeta complex compared to the minimal zeta complex, consisting of only REV3L and REV7.

As a component of the tetrameric DNA polymerase delta complex (Pol-delta4), plays a role in high fidelity genome replication and repair. Within this complex, increases the rate of DNA synthesis and decreases fidelity by regulating POLD1 polymerase and proofreading 3' to 5' exonuclease activity. Pol-delta4 participates in Okazaki fragment processing, through both the short flap pathway, as well as a nick translation system. Under conditions of DNA replication stress, required for the repair of broken replication forks through break-induced replication (BIR), a mechanism that may induce segmental genomic duplications of up to 200 kb. Involved in Pol-delta4 translesion synthesis (TLS) of templates carrying O6-methylguanine or abasic sites. Its degradation in response to DNA damage is required for the inhibition of fork progression and cell survival.

Catalytic component of the DNA polymerase epsilon complex. Participates in chromosomal DNA replication (By similarity). Required during synthesis of the leading DNA strands at the replication fork, binds at/or near replication origins and moves along DNA with the replication fork (By similarity). Has 3'-5' proofreading exonuclease activity that corrects errors arising during DNA replication (By similarity). Involved in DNA synthesis during DNA repair. Along with DNA polymerase POLD1 and DNA polymerase POLK, has a role in excision repair (NER) synthesis following UV irradiation.

Accessory component of the DNA polymerase epsilon complex. Participates in DNA repair and in chromosomal DNA replication (By similarity).

Accessory component of the DNA polymerase epsilon complex. Participates in DNA repair and in chromosomal DNA replication (By similarity). Forms a complex with CHRAC1 and binds naked DNA, which is then incorporated into chromatin, aided by the nucleosome-remodeling activity of ISWI/SNF2H and ACF1. Does not enhance nucleosome sliding activity of the ACF-5 ISWI chromatin remodeling complex.

Involved in the replication of mitochondrial DNA. Associates with mitochondrial DNA

Mitochondrial polymerase processivity subunit. It regulates the polymerase and exonuclease activities promoting processive DNA synthesis. Binds to ss-DNA.

Repair polymerase that plays a key role in base-excision repair. Has 5'-deoxyribose-5-phosphate lyase (dRP lyase) activity that removes the 5' sugar phosphate and also acts as a DNA polymerase that adds one nucleotide to the 3' end of the arising single-nucleotide gap. Conducts 'gap-filling' DNA synthesis in a stepwise distributive fashion rather than in a processive fashion as for other DNA polymerases.

DNA polymerase that functions in several pathways of DNA repair. Involved in base excision repair (BER) responsible for repair of lesions that give rise to abasic (AP) sites in DNA. Also contributes to DNA double- strand break repair by non-homologous end joining and homologous recombination. Has both template-dependent and template-independent (terminal transferase) DNA polymerase activities. Has also a 5'-deoxyribose-5-phosphate lyase (dRP lyase) activity.

Gap-filling polymerase involved in repair of DNA double- strand breaks by non-homologous end joining (NHEJ). Participates in immunoglobulin (Ig) light chain gene rearrangement in V(D)J recombination.

DNA polymerase with very low fidelity that catalyzes considerable misincorporation by inserting dTTP opposite a G template, and dGTP opposite a T template. Is the least accurate of the DNA polymerase A family (i.e. POLG, POLN and POLQ). Can perform accurate translesion DNA synthesis (TLS) past a 5S-thymine glycol. Can perform efficient strand displacement past a nick or a gap and gives rise to an amount of product similar to that on non-damaged template. Has no exonuclease activity. Error-prone DNA polymerase that preferentially misincorporates dT regardless of template sequence. May play a role in TLS during interstrand cross-link (ICL) repair. May be involved in TLS when genomic replication is blocked by extremely large major groove DNA lesions. May function in the bypass of some DNA-protein and DNA-DNA cross-links. May have a role in cellular tolerance to DNA cross-linking agents. Involved in the repair of DNA cross-links and double-strand break (DSB) resistance. Participates in FANCD2-mediated repair. Forms a complex with HELQ helicase that participates in homologous recombination (HR) repair and is essential for cellular protection against DNA cross-links.

DNA polymerase that promotes microhomology-mediated end- joining (MMEJ), an alternative non-homologous end-joining (NHEJ) machinery triggered in response to double-strand breaks in DNA. MMEJ is an error-prone repair pathway that produces deletions of sequences from the strand being repaired and promotes genomic rearrangements, such as telomere fusions, some of them leading to cellular transformation. POLQ acts as an inhibitor of homology-recombination repair (HR) pathway by limiting RAD51 accumulation at resected ends. POLQ-mediated MMEJ may be required to promote the survival of cells with a compromised HR repair pathway, thereby preventing genomic havoc by resolving unrepaired lesions (By similarity). The polymerase acts by binding directly the 2 ends of resected double-strand breaks, allowing microhomologous sequences in the overhangs to form base pairs. It then extends each strand from the base-paired region using the opposing overhang as a template. Requires partially resected DNA containing 2 to 6 base pairs of microhomology to perform MMEJ. The polymerase activity is highly promiscuous: unlike most polymerases, promotes extension of ssDNA and partial ssDNA (pssDNA) substrates. Also exhibits low-fidelity DNA synthesis, translesion synthesis and lyase activity, and it is implicated in interstrand- cross-link repair, base excision repair and DNA end-joining. Involved in somatic hypermutation of immunoglobulin genes, a process that requires the activity of DNA polymerases to ultimately introduce mutations at both A/T and C/G base pairs (By similarity).

Promotes cell surface expression of the potassium channel KCND2. Modulates the activity and gating characteristics of the potassium channel KCND2. Has no dipeptidyl aminopeptidase activity.

Plays an important role in the degradation of some oligopeptides.

Cleaves and degrades bioactive peptides, including angiotensin, Leu-enkephalin and Met-enkephalin. Also cleaves Arg-Arg-beta-naphthylamide (in vitro).

Cell surface glycoprotein receptor involved in the costimulatory signal essential for T-cell receptor (TCR)-mediated T- cell activation. Acts as a positive regulator of T-cell coactivation, by binding at least ADA, CAV1, IGF2R, and PTPRC. Its binding to CAV1 and CARD11 induces T-cell proliferation and NF-kappa-B activation in a T-cell receptor/CD3-dependent manner. Its interaction with ADA also regulates lymphocyte-epithelial cell adhesion. In association with FAP is involved in the pericellular proteolysis of the extracellular matrix (ECM), the migration and invasion of endothelial cells into the ECM. May be involved in the promotion of lymphatic endothelial cells adhesion, migration and tube formation. When overexpressed, enhanced cell proliferation, a process inhibited by GPC3. Acts also as a serine exopeptidase with a dipeptidyl peptidase activity that regulates various physiological processes by cleaving peptides in the circulation, including many chemokines, mitogenic growth factors, neuropeptides and peptide hormones such as brain natriuretic peptide 32. Removes N-terminal dipeptides sequentially from polypeptides having unsubstituted N-termini provided that the penultimate residue is proline.

Dipeptidyl peptidase that cleaves off N-terminal dipeptides from proteins having a Pro or Ala residue at position 2. Acts as a key inhibitor of caspase-1-dependent monocyte and macrophage pyroptosis in resting cells by preventing activation of NLRP1 and CARD8. Sequesters the cleaved C-terminal part of NLRP1 and CARD8, which respectively constitute the active part of the NLRP1 and CARD8 inflammasomes, in a ternary complex, thereby preventing their oligomerization and activation. The dipeptidyl peptidase activity is required to suppress NLRP1 and CARD8; however, neither NLRP1 nor CARD8 are bona fide substrates of DPP8, suggesting the existence of substrate(s) required for NLRP1 and CARD8 inhibition (By similarity).

Dipeptidyl peptidase that cleaves off N-terminal dipeptides from proteins having a Pro or Ala residue at position 2. Acts as a key inhibitor of caspase- 1-dependent monocyte and macrophage pyroptosis in resting cells by preventing activation of NLRP1 and CARD8. Sequesters the cleaved C-terminal part of NLRP1 and CARD8, which respectively constitute the active part of the NLRP1 and CARD8 inflammasomes, in a ternary complex, thereby preventing their oligomerization and activation. The dipeptidyl peptidase activity is required to suppress NLRP1 and CARD8; however, neither NLRP1 nor CARD8 are bona fide substrates of DPP9, suggesting the existence of substrate(s) required for NLRP1 and CARD8 inhibition.

Binds to target gene promoters, including NKX2-5 and SYCE1, but not GATA4, and may be involved in the maintenance of the active epigenetic status of these genes.

Primordial germ cell (PGCs)-specific protein involved in epigenetic chromatin reprogramming in the zygote following fertilization. In zygotes, DNA demethylation occurs selectively in the paternal pronucleus before the first cell division, while the adjacent maternal pronucleus and certain paternally-imprinted loci are protected from this process. Participates in protection of DNA methylation in the maternal pronucleus by preventing conversion of 5mC to 5hmC: specifically recognizes and binds histone H3 dimethylated at 'Lys-9' (H3K9me2) on maternal genome, and protects maternal genome from TET3- mediated conversion to 5hmC and subsequent DNA demethylation. Does not bind paternal chromatin, which is mainly packed into protamine and does not contain much H3K9me2 mark. Also protects imprinted loci that are marked with H3K9me2 in mature sperm from DNA demethylation in early embryogenesis. May be important for the totipotent/pluripotent states continuing through preimplantation development. Also involved in chromatin condensation in oocytogenesis (By similarity).

May be involved in the maintenance of active epigenetic status of target genes. May inhibit differentiation of embryonic cells into a primitive ectoderm lineage.

Involved in the maintenance of embryonic stem (ES) cell pluripotency. Dispensable for self-renewal of pluripotent ES cells and establishment of germ cells. Associates with specific target mRNAs (By similarity).

Heterotetrameric enzyme that catalyzes the condensation of farnesyl diphosphate (FPP), which acts as a primer, and isopentenyl diphosphate (IPP) to produce prenyl diphosphates of varying chain lengths and participates in the determination of the side chain of ubiquinone. Supplies nona and decaprenyl diphosphate, the precursors for the side chain of the isoprenoid quinones ubiquinone-9 (Q9)and ubiquinone-10 (Q10) respectively. The enzyme adds isopentenyl diphosphate molecules sequentially to farnesyl diphosphate with trans stereochemistry.

Negative regulator of the mTORC1 and mTORC2 signaling pathways. Inhibits the kinase activity of both complexes.

As part of the MLL1/MLL complex, involved in the methylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-4', particularly trimethylation. Histone H3 'Lys- 4' methylation represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation. May play some role in histone H3 acetylation. In a teratocarcinoma cell, plays a crucial role in retinoic acid-induced differentiation along the neural lineage, regulating gene induction and H3 'Lys-4' methylation at key developmental loci. May also play an indirect or direct role in endosomal transport.

Involved in pyrimidine base degradation. Catalyzes the reduction of uracil and thymine. Also involved the degradation of the chemotherapeutic drug 5-fluorouracil.

Necessary for signaling by class 3 semaphorins and subsequent remodeling of the cytoskeleton. Plays a role in axon guidance. During the axon guidance process, acts downstream of SEMA3A to promote FLNA dissociation from F-actin which results in the rearrangement of the actin cytoskeleton and the collapse of the growth cone. Involved in invasive growth and cell migration. May participate in cytokinesis.

Necessary for signaling by class 3 semaphorins and subsequent remodeling of the cytoskeleton. Plays a role in axon guidance, neuronal growth cone collapse and cell migration (By similarity).

Catalyzes the second step of the reductive pyrimidine degradation, the reversible hydrolytic ring opening of dihydropyrimidines. Can catalyze the ring opening of 5,6-dihydrouracil to N-carbamyl-alanine and of 5,6-dihydrothymine to N-carbamyl-amino isobutyrate

Binds peptides derived from antigens that access the endocytic route of antigen presenting cells (APC) and presents them on the cell surface for recognition by the CD4 T-cells. The peptide binding cleft accommodates peptides of 10-30 residues. The peptides presented by MHC class II molecules are generated mostly by degradation of proteins that access the endocytic route, where they are processed by lysosomal proteases and other hydrolases. Exogenous antigens that have been endocytosed by the APC are thus readily available for presentation via MHC II molecules, and for this reason this antigen presentation pathway is usually referred to as exogenous. As membrane proteins on their way to degradation in lysosomes as part of their normal turn-over are also contained in the endosomal/lysosomal compartments, exogenous antigens must compete with those derived from endogenous components. Autophagy is also a source of endogenous peptides, autophagosomes constitutively fuse with MHC class II loading compartments. In addition to APCs, other cells of the gastrointestinal tract, such as epithelial cells, express MHC class II molecules and CD74 and act as APCs, which is an unusual trait of the GI tract. To produce a MHC class II molecule that presents an antigen, three MHC class II molecules (heterodimers of an alpha and a beta chain) associate with a CD74 trimer in the ER to form a heterononamer. Soon after the entry of this complex into the endosomal/lysosomal system where antigen processing occurs, CD74 undergoes a sequential degradation by various proteases, including CTSS and CTSL, leaving a small fragment termed CLIP (class-II-associated invariant chain peptide). The removal of CLIP is facilitated by HLA-DM via direct binding to the alpha-beta-CLIP complex so that CLIP is released. HLA-DM stabilizes MHC class II molecules until primary high affinity antigenic peptides are bound. The MHC II molecule bound to a peptide is then transported to the cell membrane surface. In B-cells, the interaction between HLA-DM and MHC class II molecules is regulated by HLA-DO. Primary dendritic cells (DCs) also to express HLA-DO. Lysosomal microenvironment has been implicated in the regulation of antigen loading into MHC II molecules, increased acidification produces increased proteolysis and efficient peptide loading.

Displays weak conversion of all-trans-retinal to all-trans- retinol in the presence of NADH. Has apparently no steroid dehydrogenase activity.

Lysosomal modulator of autophagy that plays a central role in p53/TP53-mediated apoptosis. Not involved in p73/TP73-mediated autophagy.

Plays a role in the initiation of autophagy. In the retina, might be involved in the process of photoreceptor cells renewal and recycling to preserve visual function. Induces apoptotic cell death when coexpressed with DRAM1.

Chemorepulsive axon guidance protein required for the development of spinal cord and forebrain commissures. Acts as a chemorepulsive guidance protein for commissural axons during development. Able to inhibit or repel neurite outgrowth from dorsal spinal cord. Inhibits the stabilization of cytosolic beta-catenin (CTNNB1) via its interaction with LRP6, thereby acting as an antagonist of Wnt signaling pathway.

An alpha chain of antigen-presenting major histocompatibility complex class II (MHCII) molecule. In complex with the beta chain HLA- DRB, displays antigenic peptides on professional antigen presenting cells (APCs) for recognition by alpha-beta T cell receptor (TCR) on HLA-DR-restricted CD4-positive T cells. This guides antigen-specific T- helper effector functions, both antibody-mediated immune response and macrophage activation, to ultimately eliminate the infectious agents and transformed cells. Typically presents extracellular peptide antigens of 10 to 30 amino acids that arise from proteolysis of endocytosed antigens in lysosomes. In the tumor microenvironment, presents antigenic peptides that are primarily generated in tumor-resident APCs likely via phagocytosis of apoptotic tumor cells or macropinocytosis of secreted tumor proteins. Presents peptides derived from intracellular proteins that are trapped in autolysosomes after macroautophagy, a mechanism especially relevant for T cell selection in the thymus and central immune tolerance. The selection of the immunodominant epitopes follows two processing modes: 'bind first, cut/trim later' for pathogen-derived antigenic peptides and 'cut first, bind later' for autoantigens/self- peptides. The anchor residue at position 1 of the peptide N-terminus, usually a large hydrophobic residue, is essential for high affinity interaction with MHCII molecules.

A beta chain of antigen-presenting major histocompatibility complex class II (MHCII) molecule. In complex with the alpha chain HLA- DRA, displays antigenic peptides on professional antigen presenting cells (APCs) for recognition by alpha-beta T cell receptor (TCR) on HLA-DRB1-restricted CD4-positive T cells. This guides antigen-specific T-helper effector functions, both antibody-mediated immune response and macrophage activation, to ultimately eliminate the infectious agents and transformed cells. Typically presents extracellular peptide antigens of 10 to 30 amino acids that arise from proteolysis of endocytosed antigens in lysosomes. In the tumor microenvironment, presents antigenic peptides that are primarily generated in tumor- resident APCs likely via phagocytosis of apoptotic tumor cells or macropinocytosis of secreted tumor proteins. Presents peptides derived from intracellular proteins that are trapped in autolysosomes after macroautophagy, a mechanism especially relevant for T cell selection in the thymus and central immune tolerance. The selection of the immunodominant epitopes follows two processing modes: 'bind first, cut/trim later' for pathogen-derived antigenic peptides and 'cut first, bind later' for autoantigens/self-peptides. The anchor residue at position 1 of the peptide N-terminus, usually a large hydrophobic residue, is essential for high affinity interaction with MHCII molecules.

Component of the nexin-dynein regulatory complex (N-DRC), a key regulator of ciliary/flagellar motility which maintains the alignment and integrity of the distal axoneme and regulates microtubule sliding in motile axonemes.

Component of the nexin-dynein regulatory complex (N-DRC) a key regulator of ciliary/flagellar motility which maintains the alignment and integrity of the distal axoneme and regulates microtubule sliding in motile axonemes (By similarity). Plays a critical role in the assembly of N-DRC and also stabilizes the assembly of multiple inner dynein arms and radial spokes. Coassembles with CCDC65/DRC2 to form a central scaffold needed for assembly of the N-DRC and its attachment to the outer doublet microtubules.

Component of the nexin-dynein regulatory complex (N-DRC), a key regulator of ciliary/flagellar motility which maintains the alignment and integrity of the distal axoneme and regulates microtubule sliding in motile axonemes (By similarity). Plays a critical role in the assembly of N-DRC and also stabilizes the assembly of multiple inner dynein arms and radial spokes. Coassembles with DRC1 to form a central scaffold needed for assembly of the N-DRC and its attachment to the outer doublet microtubules.

Component of the nexin-dynein regulatory complex (N-DRC) a key regulator of ciliary/flagellar motility which maintains the alignment and integrity of the distal axoneme and regulates microtubule sliding in motile axonemes.

Component of the nexin-dynein regulatory complex (N-DRC), a key regulator of ciliary/flagellar motility which maintains the alignment and integrity of the distal axoneme and regulates microtubule sliding in motile axonemes. Plays an important role in the assembly of the N-DRC linker (By similarity). Plays dual roles at both the primary (or non-motile) cilia to regulate hedgehog signaling and in motile cilia to coordinate cilia movement. Required for proper motile cilia functioning. Positively regulates ciliary smoothened (SMO)-dependent Hedgehog (Hh) signaling pathway by facilitating the trafficking of SMO into the cilium and the stimulation of SMO activity in a GRK2-dependent manner (By similarity).

Component of the nexin-dynein regulatory complex (N-DRC) a key regulator of ciliary/flagellar motility which maintains the alignment and integrity of the distal axoneme and regulates microtubule sliding in motile axonemes. May play a role in the assembly of N-DRC. May be required for sperm motility.

Component of the nexin-dynein regulatory complex (N-DRC) a key regulator of ciliary/flagellar motility which maintains the alignment and integrity of the distal axoneme and regulates microtubule sliding in motile axonemes (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of flagellar motility (By similarity). Essential for male fertility, sperm head morphogenesis and sperm flagellum formation (By similarity).

Component of the nexin-dynein regulatory complex (N-DRC), a key regulator of ciliary/flagellar motility which maintains the alignment and integrity of the distal axoneme and regulates microtubule sliding in motile axonemes. Binds calmodulin when cellular Ca(2+) levels are low and thereby contributes to the regulation of calcium and calmodulin-dependent protein kinase IV (CAMK4) activity; contributes to the regulation of CAMK4 signaling cascades. Required for normal axoneme assembly in sperm flagella, normal sperm tail formation and for male fertility.

Dopamine receptor whose activity is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase

Dopamine receptor whose activity is mediated by G proteins which inhibit adenylyl cyclase. Positively regulates postnatal regression of retinal hyaloid vessels via suppression of VEGFR2/KDR activity, downstream of OPN5 (By similarity).

Dopamine receptor whose activity is mediated by G proteins which inhibit adenylyl cyclase. Promotes cell proliferation.

Dopamine receptor responsible for neuronal signaling in the mesolimbic system of the brain, an area of the brain that regulates emotion and complex behavior. Activated by dopamine, but also by epinephrine and norepinephrine, and by numerous synthetic agonists and drugs. Agonist binding triggers signaling via G proteins that inhibit adenylyl cyclase. Modulates the circadian rhythm of contrast sensitivity by regulating the rhythmic expression of NPAS2 in the retinal ganglion cells (By similarity).

Dopamine receptor whose activity is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase.

Actin cytoskeleton-organizing protein that plays a role in the formation of cell projections. Required for actin polymerization at immunological synapses (IS) and for the recruitment of the chemokine receptor CXCR4 to IS. Plays a role in dendritic spine morphogenesis and organization, including the localization of the dopamine receptor DRD1 to the dendritic spines (By similarity). Involved in memory-related synaptic plasticity in the hippocampus (By similarity).

Catalyzes the conversion of GTP to GDP through hydrolysis of the gamma-phosphate bond in GTP. Appears to have an intrinsic GTPase activity that is stimulated by ZC3H15/DFRP1 binding likely by increasing the affinity for the potassium ions. When hydroxylated at C-3 of 'Lys-22' by JMJD7, may bind to RNA and play a role in translation. Binds to microtubules and promotes microtubule polymerization and stability that are required for mitotic spindle assembly during prophase to anaphase transition. GTPase activity is not necessary for these microtubule-related functions.

Catalyzes the conversion of GTP to GDP through hydrolysis of the gamma-phosphate bond in GTP. When hydroxylated at C-3 of 'Lys-21' by JMJD7, may bind to RNA and play a role in translation.

Transcription factor required for the formation of correct projections from nociceptive sensory neurons to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord and normal perception of pain.

Required for normal myelination and for normal organization of the cytoplasm and the formation of Cajal bands in myelinating Schwann cells. Required for normal PRX location at appositions between the abaxonal surface of the myelin sheath and the Schwann cell plasma membrane. Possibly involved in membrane-cytoskeleton interactions of the central nervous system.

NADH-dependent oxidoreductase which catalyzes the oxidation of all-trans-retinol to all-trans-retinal. Plays a role in the regulation of cardiac and skeletal muscle metabolic functions. Maintains Ca(2+) intracellular homeostasis by repressing Ca(2+) release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) in myotubes, possibly through local alternations in NAD/NADH or retinol/retinal. Also plays a role in Ca(2+) homeostasis by controlling Ca(2+) overload in the cytosol and the SR in myotubes. Involved in glucose uptake into skeletal muscles and muscle performance by activating PI3K and mTORC2-mediated AKT1 phosphorylation signaling pathways, possibly through the action of its downstream catalytic product all-trans-retinoic acid.

Component of intercellular desmosome junctions. Involved in the interaction of plaque proteins and intermediate filaments mediating cell-cell adhesion. May contribute to epidermal cell positioning (stratification) by mediating differential adhesiveness between cells that express different isoforms. Linked to the keratinization of epithelial tissues

Component of intercellular desmosome junctions. Involved in the interaction of plaque proteins and intermediate filaments mediating cell-cell adhesion. May contribute to epidermal cell positioning (stratification) by mediating differential adhesiveness between cells that express different isoforms

Cell adhesion molecule that plays a role in neuronal self- avoidance. Promotes repulsion between specific neuronal processes of either the same cell or the same subtype of cells. Mediates within retinal amacrine and ganglion cell subtypes both isoneuronal self- avoidance for creating an orderly dendritic arborization and heteroneuronal self-avoidance to maintain the mosaic spacing between amacrine and ganglion cell bodies. Receptor for netrin required for axon guidance independently of and in collaboration with the receptor DCC. Might also collaborate with UNC5C in NTN1- mediated axon repulsion independently of DCC (By similarity). In spinal cord development plays a role in guiding commissural axons projection and pathfinding across the ventral midline to reach the floor plate upon ligand binding. Mediates intracellular signaling by stimulating the activation of MAPK8 and MAP kinase p38. Adhesion molecule that promotes lamina-specific synaptic connections in the retina: expressed in specific subsets of interneurons and retinal ganglion cells (RGCs) and promotes synaptic connectivity via homophilic interactions (By similarity).

Cell adhesion molecule that plays a role in neuronal self- avoidance. Promotes repulsion between specific neuronal processes of either the same cell or the same subtype of cells. Promotes both isoneuronal self-avoidance for creating an orderly neurite arborization in retinal rod bipolar cells and heteroneuronal self-avoidance to maintain mosaic spacing between AII amacrine cells (By similarity). Adhesion molecule that promotes lamina-specific synaptic connections in the retina: expressed in specific subsets of interneurons and retinal ganglion cells (RGCs) and promotes synaptic connectivity via homophilic interactions (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional corepressor. Negative regulator of the transcriptional activity of TBX1. Plays a role in the development of the pharyngeal apparatus and derivatives (By similarity).

Converts D-glucuronic acid to L-iduronic acid (IdoUA) residues. Plays an important role in the biosynthesis of the glycosaminoglycan/mucopolysaccharide dermatan sulfate.

Component of intercellular desmosome junctions. Involved in the interaction of plaque proteins and intermediate filaments mediating cell-cell adhesion

Component of intercellular desmosome junctions. Involved in the interaction of plaque proteins and intermediate filaments mediating cell-cell adhesion. Coordinates the transition from proliferation to differentiation in hair follicle keratinocytes (By similarity).

Part of the MIS12 complex which is required for normal chromosome alignment and segregation and kinetochore formation during mitosis.

DSP may be an important factor in dentinogenesis. DPP may bind high amount of calcium and facilitate initial mineralization of dentin matrix collagen as well as regulate the size and shape of the crystals

Catalyzes the hydrolytic deamination of adenosine to inosine in double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) referred to as A-to-I RNA editing. This may affect gene expression and function in a number of ways that include mRNA translation by changing codons and hence the amino acid sequence of proteins since the translational machinery read the inosine as a guanosine; pre-mRNA splicing by altering splice site recognition sequences; RNA stability by changing sequences involved in nuclease recognition; genetic stability in the case of RNA virus genomes by changing sequences during viral RNA replication; and RNA structure- dependent activities such as microRNA production or targeting or protein-RNA interactions. Can edit both viral and cellular RNAs and can edit RNAs at multiple sites (hyper-editing) or at specific sites (site- specific editing). Its cellular RNA substrates include: bladder cancer- associated protein (BLCAP), neurotransmitter receptors for glutamate (GRIA2) and serotonin (HTR2C) and GABA receptor (GABRA3). Site-specific RNA editing of transcripts encoding these proteins results in amino acid substitutions which consequently alters their functional activities. Exhibits low-level editing at the GRIA2 Q/R site, but edits efficiently at the R/G site and HOTSPOT1. Its viral RNA substrates include: hepatitis C virus (HCV), vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV), measles virus (MV), hepatitis delta virus (HDV), and human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1). Exhibits either a proviral (HDV, MV, VSV and HIV-1) or an antiviral effect (HCV) and this can be editing-dependent (HDV and HCV), editing-independent (VSV and MV) or both (HIV-1). Impairs HCV replication via RNA editing at multiple sites. Enhances the replication of MV, VSV and HIV-1 through an editing-independent mechanism via suppression of EIF2AK2/PKR activation and function. Stimulates both the release and infectivity of HIV-1 viral particles by an editing-dependent mechanism where it associates with viral RNAs and edits adenosines in the 5'UTR and the Rev and Tat coding sequence. Can enhance viral replication of HDV via A-to-I editing at a site designated as amber/W, thereby changing an UAG amber stop codon to an UIG tryptophan (W) codon that permits synthesis of the large delta antigen (L-HDAg) which has a key role in the assembly of viral particles. However, high levels of ADAR1 inhibit HDV replication.

Component of the BLOC-1 complex, a complex that is required for normal biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles (LRO), such as platelet dense granules and melanosomes. In concert with the AP-3 complex, the BLOC-1 complex is required to target membrane protein cargos into vesicles assembled at cell bodies for delivery into neurites and nerve terminals. The BLOC-1 complex, in association with SNARE proteins, is also proposed to be involved in neurite extension. Associates with the BLOC-2 complex to facilitate the transport of TYRP1 independent of AP-3 function. Plays a role in synaptic vesicle trafficking and in neurotransmitter release. Plays a role in the regulation of cell surface exposure of DRD2. May play a role in actin cytoskeleton reorganization and neurite outgrowth. May modulate MAPK8 phosphorylation. Appears to promote neuronal transmission and viability through regulating the expression of SNAP25 and SYN1, modulating PI3- kinase-Akt signaling and influencing glutamatergic release. Regulates the expression of SYN1 through binding to its promoter. Modulates prefrontal cortical activity via the dopamine/D2 pathway.

Possible ATPase involved in DNA replication, may facilitate loading of CDC45 onto pre-replication complexes.

Deacylates mischarged D-aminoacyl-tRNAs (By similarity). Also deacylates mischarged glycyl-tRNA(Ala), protecting cells against glycine mischarging by AlaRS (By similarity). Probably acts by rejecting L-amino acids from its binding site rather than specific recognition of D-amino acids (By similarity). Catalyzes the hydrolysis of D-tyrosyl-tRNA(Tyr), has no activity on correctly charged L-tyrosyl- tRNA(Tyr) (By similarity). By recycling D-aminoacyl-tRNA to D-amino acids and free tRNA molecules, this enzyme counteracts the toxicity associated with the formation of D-aminoacyl-tRNA entities in vivo and helps enforce protein L-homochirality. In contrast to DTD1, deacylates L-Ala mischarged on tRNA(Thr)(G4.U69) by alanine-tRNA ligase AARS. Can deacylate L-Ala due to a relaxed specificity for substrate chirality caused by the trans conformation of the Gly-Pro motif in the active site. Also hydrolyzes correctly charged, achiral, glycyl-tRNA(Gly) in vitro, although in vivo EEF1A1/EF-Tu may protect cognate achiral glycyl-tRNA(Gly) from DTD2- mediated deacetylation (By similarity).

Substrate-specific adapter of a DCX (DDB1-CUL4-X-box) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex required for cell cycle control, DNA damage response and translesion DNA synthesis. The DCX(DTL) complex, also named CRL4(CDT2) complex, mediates the polyubiquitination and subsequent degradation of CDT1, CDKN1A/p21(CIP1), FBH1, KMT5A and SDE2. CDT1 degradation in response to DNA damage is necessary to ensure proper cell cycle regulation of DNA replication. CDKN1A/p21(CIP1) degradation during S phase or following UV irradiation is essential to control replication licensing. KMT5A degradation is also important for a proper regulation of mechanisms such as TGF-beta signaling, cell cycle progression, DNA repair and cell migration. Most substrates require their interaction with PCNA for their polyubiquitination: substrates interact with PCNA via their PIP-box, and those containing the 'K+4' motif in the PIP box, recruit the DCX(DTL) complex, leading to their degradation. In undamaged proliferating cells, the DCX(DTL) complex also promotes the 'Lys-164' monoubiquitination of PCNA, thereby being involved in PCNA- dependent translesion DNA synthesis. The DDB1-CUL4A-DTL E3 ligase complex regulates the circadian clock function by mediating the ubiquitination and degradation of CRY1.

May be involved in the formation and stability of synapses as well as being involved in the clustering of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

Scaffolding protein that assembles DMD and SNTA1 molecules to the basal membrane of kidney cells and liver sinusoids (By similarity). May function as a repressor of the SYN1 promoter through the binding of repressor element-1 (RE-1), in turn regulates SYN1 expression and may be involved in cell proliferation regulation during the early phase of neural differentiation. May be required for proper maturation and function of a subset of inhibitory synapses (By similarity).

Catalyzes the formation of 3-(3-amino-3-carboxypropyl)uridine (acp3U) at position 20 in the D-loop of several cytoplasmic tRNAs (acp3U(20)).

Catalyzes the formation of 3-(3-amino-3-carboxypropyl)uridine (acp3U) at position 20a in the D-loop of several cytoplasmic tRNAs (acp3U(20a)). Also has a weak activity to form acp3U at position 20 in the D-loop of tRNAs (acp3U(20)).

Functions as a ubiquitin ligase protein in vivo, mediating ubiquitination and promoting degradation of MEKK1, suggesting that it may regulate the Notch pathway via some ubiquitin ligase activity (By similarity). Regulator of Notch signaling, a signaling pathway involved in cell-cell communications that regulates a broad spectrum of cell- fate determinations. Mainly acts as a positive regulator of Notch, but it also acts as a negative regulator, depending on the developmental and cell context. Mediates the antineural activity of Notch, possibly by inhibiting the transcriptional activation mediated by MATCH1. Involved in neurogenesis, lymphogenesis and myogenesis, and may also be involved in MZB (Marginal zone B) cell differentiation. Promotes B-cell development at the expense of T-cell development, suggesting that it can antagonize NOTCH1.

Regulator of Notch signaling, a signaling pathway involved in cell-cell communications that regulates a broad spectrum of cell-fate determinations. Probably acts both as a positive and negative regulator of Notch, depending on the developmental and cell context. Mediates the antineural activity of Notch, possibly by inhibiting the transcriptional activation mediated by MATCH1. Functions as a ubiquitin ligase protein in vitro, suggesting that it may regulate the Notch pathway via some ubiquitin ligase activity

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which, in association with ADP- ribosyltransferase PARP9, plays a role in DNA damage repair and in interferon-mediated antiviral responses. Monoubiquitinates several histones, including histone H2A, H2B, H3 and H4. In response to DNA damage, mediates monoubiquitination of 'Lys-91' of histone H4 (H4K91ub1). The exact role of H4K91ub1 in DNA damage response is still unclear but it may function as a licensing signal for additional histone H4 post-translational modifications such as H4 'Lys-20' methylation (H4K20me). PARP1-dependent PARP9-DTX3L- mediated ubiquitination promotes the rapid and specific recruitment of 53BP1/TP53BP1, UIMC1/RAP80, and BRCA1 to DNA damage sites. By monoubiquitinating histone H2B H2BC9/H2BJ and thereby promoting chromatin remodeling, positively regulates STAT1- dependent interferon-stimulated gene transcription and thus STAT1- mediated control of viral replication. Independently of its catalytic activity, promotes the sorting of chemokine receptor CXCR4 from early endosome to lysosome following CXCL12 stimulation by reducing E3 ligase ITCH activity and thus ITCH-mediated ubiquitination of endosomal sorting complex required for transport ESCRT-0 components HGS and STAM. In addition, required for the recruitment of HGS and STAM to early endosomes. In association with PARP9, plays a role in antiviral responses by mediating 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitination of encephalomyocarditis virus (EMCV) and human rhinovirus (HRV) C3 proteases and thus promoting their proteosomal-mediated degradation.

Regulator of Notch signaling, a signaling pathway involved in cell-cell communications that regulates a broad spectrum of cell-fate determinations. Probably acts both as a positive and negative regulator of Notch, depending on the developmental and cell context (By similarity). Functions as an ubiquitin ligase protein in vitro, suggesting that it may regulate the Notch pathway via some ubiquitin ligase activity.

Regulator of Notch signaling, a signaling pathway involved in cell-cell communications that regulates a broad spectrum of cell-fate determinations (By similarity). Functions as a ubiquitin ligase protein in vivo, mediating 'Lys48'-linked polyubiquitination and promoting degradation of TBK1, targeting to TBK1 requires interaction with NLRP4.

Generates hydrogen peroxide which is required for the activity of thyroid peroxidase/TPO and lactoperoxidase/LPO. Plays a role in thyroid hormones synthesis and lactoperoxidase-mediated antimicrobial defense at the surface of mucosa. May have its own peroxidase activity through its N-terminal peroxidase-like domain.

Protein phosphatase involved in the inactivation of MAP kinases. Has a specificity for the MAPK11/MAPK12/MAPK13/MAPK14 subfamily. It preferably dephosphorylates p38.

Possesses RNA 5'-triphosphatase and diphosphatase activities, but displays a poor protein-tyrosine phosphatase activity. In addition, has phosphatase activity with ATP, ADP and O-methylfluorescein phosphate (in vitro). Binds to RNA. May participate in nuclear mRNA metabolism.

Dual specificity phosphatase; can dephosphorylate both phosphotyrosine and phosphoserine or phosphothreonine residues. Can dephosphorylate glucokinase (in vitro) (By similarity). Has phosphatase activity with the synthetic substrate 6,8-difluoro-4-methylumbelliferyl phosphate and other in vitro substrates.

Involved in the inactivation of MAP kinases. Dephosphorylates ERK, JNK and p38 MAP-kinases

Dual specificity protein phosphatase involved in the inactivation of MAP kinases. Dephosphorylates MAPK10 bound to ARRB2.

Can dephosphorylate single and diphosphorylated synthetic MAPK peptides, with preference for the phosphotyrosine and diphosphorylated forms over phosphothreonine. In vitro, dephosphorylates p-nitrophenyl phosphate (pNPP).

Has a dual specificity toward Ser/Thr and Tyr-containing proteins.

Catalyzes the synthesis of dihydrouridine, a modified base found in the D-loop of most tRNAs.

Dual specificity phosphatase that dephosphorylates MAP kinase MAPK1/ERK2 on both 'Thr-183' and 'Tyr-185', regulating its activity during the meiotic cell cycle.

Can dephosphorylate single and diphosphorylated synthetic MAPK peptides, with preference for the phosphotyrosine and diphosphorylated forms over phosphothreonine

Protein phosphatase that mediates dephosphorylation of proteins phosphorylated on Tyr and Ser/Thr residues. In vitro, it can dephosphorylate p44-ERK1 (MAPK3) but not p54 SAPK-beta (MAPK10) in vitro. Able to enhance activation of JNK and p38 (MAPK14).

Inactivates MAPK1 and MAPK3 which leads to dephosphorylation of heat shock factor protein 4 and a reduction in its DNA-binding activity. Inhibits MAP kinase p38 by dephosphorylating it and inhibits p38-mediated apoptosis in anaplastic thyroid cancer cells. Can also induce activation of MAP kinase p38 and c-Jun N-terminal kinase (JNK).

Has phosphatase activity with the synthetic substrate 6,8- difluoro-4-methylumbelliferyl phosphate (in vitro). Has almost no detectable activity with phosphotyrosine, even less activity with phosphothreonine and displays complete lack of activity with phosphoserine. The poor activity with phosphotyrosine may be due to steric hindrance by bulky amino acid sidechains that obstruct access to the active site.

Dual specificity phosphatase able to dephosphorylate phosphotyrosine, phosphoserine and phosphothreonine residues within the same substrate, with a preference for phosphotyrosine as a substrate. Involved in the modulation of intracellular signaling cascades. In skeletal muscle regulates systemic glucose homeostasis by activating, AMPK, an energy sensor protein kinase (By similarity). Affects MAP kinase signaling though modulation of the MAPK1/2 cascade in skeletal muscle promoting muscle cell differentiation, development and atrophy (By similarity).

Dihydrouridine synthase. Catalyzes the NADPH-dependent synthesis of dihydrouridine, a modified base found in the D-loop of most tRNAs. Negatively regulates the activation of EIF2AK2/PKR.

Dephosphorylates both phosphorylated Thr and Tyr residues in MAPK1, and dephosphorylation of phosphotyrosine is slightly faster than that of phosphothreonine. Can dephosphorylate MAPK1 (By similarity).

Catalyzes the synthesis of dihydrouridine, a modified base, in various RNAs, such as tRNAs, mRNAs and some long non-coding RNAs (lncRNAs). Mainly modifies the uridine in position 47 (U47) in the D-loop of most cytoplasmic tRNAs. Also able to mediate the formation of dihydrouridine in some mRNAs, thereby regulating their translation.

Shows activity both for tyrosine-protein phosphate and serine-protein phosphate, but displays a strong preference toward phosphotyrosines. Specifically dephosphorylates and inactivates ERK1 and ERK2.

Regulates mitogenic signal transduction by dephosphorylating both Thr and Tyr residues on MAP kinases ERK1 and ERK2.

Dual specificity protein phosphatase; active with phosphotyrosine, phosphoserine and phosphothreonine residues. The highest relative activity is toward ERK1.

Inactivates MAP kinases. Has a specificity for the ERK family. Plays an important role in alleviating chronic postoperative pain. Necessary for the normal dephosphorylation of the long-lasting phosphorylated forms of spinal MAPK1/3 and MAP kinase p38 induced by peripheral surgery, which drives the resolution of acute postoperative allodynia (By similarity). Also important for dephosphorylation of MAPK1/3 in local wound tissue, which further contributes to resolution of acute pain (By similarity). Promotes cell differentiation by regulating MAPK1/MAPK3 activity and regulating the expression of AP1 transcription factors.

Dual specificity protein phosphatase. Shows high activity towards MAPK1/ERK2. Also has lower activity towards MAPK14 and MAPK8. In arrested oocytes, plays a role in meiotic resumption (By similarity). Promotes nuclear envelope breakdown and activation of the CDK1/Cyclin-B complex in oocytes, probably by dephosphorylating and inactivating the conventional protein kinase C (cPKC) isozyme PRKCB (By similarity). May also inactivate PRKCA and/or PRKCG (By similarity). Also important in oocytes for normal chromosome alignment on the metaphase plate and progression to anaphase, where it might regulate activity of the spindle-assembly checkpoint (SAC) complex (By similarity).

Has phosphatase activity with synthetic phosphatase substrates and negatively regulates mitogen-activated protein kinase activity, presumably by catalysing their dephosphorylation. Expected to display protein phosphatase activity toward phosphotyrosine, phosphoserine and phosphothreonine residues.

Acts as a positive regulator of ERK phosphorylation downstream of fibroblast growth factor-receptor activation. Involved in the regulation of both caspase-dependent apoptosis and caspase-independent cell death. In the skin, it plays a predominant role in suppressing caspase-dependent apoptosis in response to UV stress in a range of dermal cell types.

Catalyzes the cleavage of 2'-deoxyuridine 5'-triphosphate (dUTP) into 2'-deoxyuridine 5'-monophosphate (dUMP) and inorganic pyrophosphate and through its action efficiently prevents uracil misincorporation into DNA and at the same time provides dUMP, the substrate for de novo thymidylate biosynthesis. Inhibits peroxisome proliferator- activated receptor (PPAR) activity by binding of its N-terminal to PPAR, preventing the latter's dimerization with retinoid X receptor (By similarity). Essential for embryonic development (By similarity).

[Isoform 1]: Transcription factor that is selectively and transiently expressed in cleavage-stage embryos. Binds to double-stranded DNA elements with the consensus sequence 5'- TAATCTAATCA-3'. Binds to chromatin containing histone H3 acetylated at 'Lys-27' (H3K27ac) and promotes deacetylation of H3K27ac. In parallel, binds to chromatin that lacks histone H3 acetylation at 'Lys-27' (H3K27ac) and recruits EP300 and CREBBP to promote acetylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-27' at new sites. Involved in transcriptional regulation of numerous genes, primarily as transcriptional activator, but mediates also repression of a set of target genes. Promotes expression of ZSCAN4 and KDM4E, two proteins with essential roles during early embryogenesis. Heterologous expression in cultured embryonic stem cells mediates also transcription of HERVL retrotransposons and transcripts derived from ACRO1 and HSATII satellite repeats. May activate expression of PITX1. May regulate microRNA (miRNA) expression. Inappropriate expression can inhibit myogenesis and promote apoptosis.

Participates in Wnt signaling by binding to the cytoplasmic C-terminus of frizzled family members and transducing the Wnt signal to down-stream effectors. Plays a role both in canonical and non-canonical Wnt signaling. Plays a role in the signal transduction pathways mediated by multiple Wnt genes. Required for LEF1 activation upon WNT1 and WNT3A signaling. DVL1 and PAK1 form a ternary complex with MUSK which is important for MUSK-dependent regulation of AChR clustering during the formation of the neuromuscular junction (NMJ)

Plays a role in the signal transduction pathways mediated by multiple Wnt genes. Participates both in canonical and non-canonical Wnt signaling by binding to the cytoplasmic C-terminus of frizzled family members and transducing the Wnt signal to down-stream effectors. Promotes internalization and degradation of frizzled proteins upon Wnt signaling.

Involved in the signal transduction pathway mediated by multiple Wnt genes.

Enhances the activity of ATP2A1/SERCA1 ATPase in sarcoplasmic reticulum by displacing ATP2A1/SERCA1 inhibitors, thereby acting as a key regulator of skeletal muscle activity. Does not directly stimulate SERCA pump activity. Enhances sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+) uptake and myocyte contractility by displacing the SERCA inhibitory peptides sarcolipin (SLN), phospholamban (PLN) and myoregulin (MRLN).

[Isoform 1]: Involved in pre-mRNA splicing. Required for the export of mRNA out of the nucleus.

Involved in nuclear export of spliced and unspliced mRNA. Assembling component of the TREX complex which is thought to couple mRNA transcription, processing and nuclear export, and specifically associates with spliced mRNA and not with unspliced pre-mRNA. TREX is recruited to spliced mRNAs by a transcription-independent mechanism, binds to mRNA upstream of the exon-junction complex (EJC) and is recruited in a splicing- and cap-dependent manner to a region near the 5' end of the mRNA where it functions in mRNA export to the cytoplasm via the TAP/NFX1 pathway. May undergo several rounds of ATP hydrolysis during assembly of TREX to drive subsequent loading of components such as ALYREF/THOC and CHTOP onto mRNA. Also associates with pre-mRNA independent of ALYREF/THOC4 and the THO complex. Involved in the nuclear export of intronless mRNA; the ATP-bound form is proposed to recruit export adapter ALYREF/THOC4 to intronless mRNA; its ATPase activity is cooperatively stimulated by RNA and ALYREF/THOC4 and ATP hydrolysis is thought to trigger the dissociation from RNA to allow the association of ALYREF/THOC4 and the NXF1-NXT1 heterodimer. Involved in transcription elongation and genome stability.

Decapping enzyme for NAD-capped RNAs: specifically hydrolyzes the nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) cap from a subset of RNAs by removing the entire NAD moiety from the 5'-end of an NAD-capped RNA. The NAD-cap is present at the 5'-end of some RNAs and snoRNAs. In contrast to the canonical 5'-end N7 methylguanosine (m7G) cap, the NAD cap promotes mRNA decay. Preferentially acts on NAD-capped transcripts in response to environmental stress. Also acts as a non- canonical decapping enzyme that removes the entire cap structure of m7G capped or incompletely capped RNAs and mediates their subsequent degradation (By similarity). Specifically degrades pre-mRNAs with a defective 5'-end m7G cap and is part of a pre-mRNA capping quality control (By similarity). Has decapping activity toward incomplete 5'- end m7G cap mRNAs such as unmethylated 5'-end-capped RNA (cap0), while it has no activity toward 2'-O-ribose methylated m7G cap (cap1). In contrast to canonical decapping enzymes DCP2 and NUDT16, which cleave the cap within the triphosphate linkage, the decapping activity releases the entire cap structure GpppN and a 5'-end monophosphate RNA (By similarity). Also has 5'-3' exoribonuclease activities: The 5'-end monophosphate RNA is then degraded by the 5'-3' exoribonuclease activity, enabling this enzyme to decap and degrade incompletely capped mRNAs. Also possesses RNA 5'- pyrophosphohydrolase activity by hydrolyzing the 5'-end triphosphate to release pyrophosphates (By similarity). Exhibits decapping activity towards FAD-capped RNAs. Exhibits decapping activity towards dpCoA-capped RNAs in vitro (By similarity).

Force generating protein of respiratory cilia. Produces force towards the minus ends of microtubules. Dynein has ATPase activity; the force-producing power stroke is thought to occur on release of ADP

Force generating protein component of the outer dynein arms (ODAs) in the sperm flagellum. Produces force towards the minus ends of microtubules. Dynein has ATPase activity; the force-producing power stroke is thought to occur on release of ADP (Probable). Plays a major role in sperm motility, implicated in sperm flagellar assembly and beating.

Force generating protein of cilia required for sperm flagellum motility. Produces force towards the minus ends of microtubules. Dynein has ATPase activity; the force-producing power stroke is thought to occur on release of ADP. Required in spermatozoa for the formation of the inner dynein arms and biogenesis of the axoneme.

As part of the axonemal inner dynein arm complex plays a central role in ciliary beat. Expressed in sperm flagellum, it is required for sperm motility. Dyneins are microtubule-based molecular motors possessing ATPase activities that can convert the chemical energy of ATP into relative sliding between adjacent microtubule doublets to generate ciliary bending.

Force generating protein of respiratory cilia. Produces force towards the minus ends of microtubules. Dynein has ATPase activity; the force-producing power stroke is thought to occur on release of ADP. Required for structural and functional integrity of the cilia of ependymal cells lining the brain ventricles

Force generating protein of respiratory cilia. Produces force towards the minus ends of microtubules. Dynein has ATPase activity; the force-producing power stroke is thought to occur on release of ADP (By similarity).

Force generating protein required for cilia beating in respiratory epithelia. Produces force towards the minus ends of microtubules. Dynein has ATPase activity; the force-producing power stroke is thought to occur on release of ADP.

Cytoplasmic dynein 1 acts as a motor for the intracellular retrograde motility of vesicles and organelles along microtubules. Dynein has ATPase activity; the force-producing power stroke is thought to occur on release of ADP. Plays a role in mitotic spindle assembly and metaphase plate congression.

May function as a motor for intraflagellar retrograde transport. Functions in cilia biogenesis. May play a role in transport between endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi or organization of the Golgi in cells (By similarity).

Acts as one of several non-catalytic accessory components of the cytoplasmic dynein 1 complex that are thought to be involved in linking dynein to cargos and to adapter proteins that regulate dynein function. Cytoplasmic dynein 1 acts as a motor for the intracellular retrograde motility of vesicles and organelles along microtubules. May play a role in changing or maintaining the spatial distribution of cytoskeletal structures

Acts as one of several non-catalytic accessory components of the cytoplasmic dynein 1 complex that are thought to be involved in linking dynein to cargos and to adapter proteins that regulate dynein function. Cytoplasmic dynein 1 acts as a motor for the intracellular retrograde motility of vesicles and organelles along microtubules. May play a role in changing or maintaining the spatial distribution of cytoskeletal structures (By similarity).

Acts as one of several non-catalytic accessory components of the cytoplasmic dynein 1 complex that are thought to be involved in linking dynein to cargos and to adapter proteins that regulate dynein function. Cytoplasmic dynein 1 acts as a motor for the intracellular retrograde motility of vesicles and organelles along microtubules. Binds to transport cargos and is involved in apical cargo transport such as rhodopsin-bearing vesicles in polarized epithelia. May also be a accessory component of axonemal dynein

May be an accessory component of axonemal dynein and cytoplasmic dynein 1. Candidate for involvement in male sterility (By similarity).

Acts as one of several non-catalytic accessory components of the cytoplasmic dynein 1 complex that are thought to be involved in linking dynein to cargos and to adapter proteins that regulate dynein function. Cytoplasmic dynein 1 acts as a motor for the intracellular retrograde motility of vesicles and organelles along microtubules. Probably binds BUB3 as part of transport cargo. Required for the efficient progression through mitosis (By similarity).

Microtubule-associated force-producing protein involved in producing microtubule bundles and able to bind and hydrolyze GTP. Most probably involved in vesicular trafficking processes. Involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis

Microtubule-associated force-producing protein involved in producing microtubule bundles and able to bind and hydrolyze GTP. Plays a role in the regulation of neuron morphology, axon growth and formation of neuronal growth cones (By similarity). Plays an important role in vesicular trafficking processes, in particular endocytosis. Involved in cytokinesis. Regulates maturation of apoptotic cell corpse-containing phagosomes by recruiting PIK3C3 to the phagosome membrane (By similarity).

Microtubule-associated force-producing protein involved in producing microtubule bundles and able to bind and hydrolyze GTP. Most probably involved in vesicular trafficking processes, in particular endocytosis (By similarity).

Dual-specificity kinase which possesses both serine/threonine and tyrosine kinase activities. Exhibits a substrate preference for proline at position P+1 and arginine at position P-3. Plays an important role in double- strand breaks (DSBs) repair following DNA damage. Mechanistically, phosphorylates RNF169 and increases its ability to block accumulation of TP53BP1 at the DSB sites thereby promoting homologous recombination repair (HRR). Also acts as a positive regulator of transcription by acting as a CTD kinase that mediates phosphorylation of the CTD (C-terminal domain) of the large subunit of RNA polymerase II (RNAP II) POLR2A. May play a role in a signaling pathway regulating nuclear functions of cell proliferation. Modulates alternative splicing by phosphorylating the splice factor SRSF6 (By similarity). Has pro-survival function and negatively regulates the apoptotic process (By similarity). Promotes cell survival upon genotoxic stress through phosphorylation of SIRT1 (By similarity). This in turn inhibits p53/TP53 activity and apoptosis (By similarity). Phosphorylates SEPTIN4, SEPTIN5 and SF3B1 at 'Thr-434' (By similarity).

Dual-specificity kinase which possesses both serine/threonine and tyrosine kinase activities. Plays an essential role in ribosomal DNA (rDNA) double-strand break repair and rDNA copy number maintenance. During DNA damage, mediates transcription silencing in part via phosphorylating and enforcing DSB accumulation of the histone methyltransferase EHMT2. Enhances the transcriptional activity of TCF1/HNF1A and FOXO1. Inhibits epithelial cell migration. Mediates colon carcinoma cell survival in mitogen-poor environments. Inhibits the SHH and WNT1 pathways, thereby enhancing adipogenesis. In addition, promotes expression of the gluconeogenic enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase catalytic subunit 1 (G6PC1).

Key enzyme in folate metabolism. Contributes to the de novo mitochondrial thymidylate biosynthesis pathway. Required to prevent uracil accumulation in mtDNA. Binds its own mRNA and that of DHFR.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in the regulation of the mitotic cell cycle, cell proliferation, apoptosis, organization of the cytoskeleton and neurite outgrowth. Functions in part via its role in ubiquitin-dependent proteasomal protein degradation. Functions downstream of ATM and phosphorylates p53/TP53 at 'Ser-46', and thereby contributes to the induction of apoptosis in response to DNA damage. Phosphorylates NFATC1, and thereby inhibits its accumulation in the nucleus and its transcription factor activity. Phosphorylates EIF2B5 at 'Ser-544', enabling its subsequent phosphorylation and inhibition by GSK3B. Likewise, phosphorylation of NFATC1, CRMP2/DPYSL2 and CRMP4/DPYSL3 promotes their subsequent phosphorylation by GSK3B. May play a general role in the priming of GSK3 substrates. Inactivates GYS1 by phosphorylation at 'Ser-641', and potentially also a second phosphorylation site, thus regulating glycogen synthesis. Mediates EDVP E3 ligase complex formation and is required for the phosphorylation and subsequent degradation of KATNA1. Phosphorylates TERT at 'Ser-457', promoting TERT ubiquitination by the EDVP complex. Phosphorylates SIAH2, and thereby increases its ubiquitin ligase activity. Promotes the proteasomal degradation of MYC and JUN, and thereby regulates progress through the mitotic cell cycle and cell proliferation. Promotes proteasomal degradation of GLI2 and GLI3, and thereby plays a role in smoothened and sonic hedgehog signaling. Plays a role in cytoskeleton organization and neurite outgrowth via its phosphorylation of DCX and DPYSL2. Phosphorylates CRMP2/DPYSL2, CRMP4/DPYSL3, DCX, EIF2B5, EIF4EBP1, GLI2, GLI3, GYS1, JUN, MDM2, MYC, NFATC1, p53/TP53, TAU/MAPT and KATNA1. Can phosphorylate histone H1, histone H3 and histone H2B (in vitro). Can phosphorylate CARHSP1 (in vitro).

Dual-specificity protein kinase that promotes disassembly of several types of membraneless organelles during mitosis, such as stress granules, nuclear speckles and pericentriolar material. Dual-specificity tyrosine-regulated kinases (DYRKs) autophosphorylate a critical tyrosine residue in their activation loop and phosphorylate their substrate on serine and threonine residues. Acts as a central dissolvase of membraneless organelles during the G2-to-M transition, after the nuclear-envelope breakdown: acts by mediating phosphorylation of multiple serine and threonine residues in unstructured domains of proteins, such as SRRM1 and PCM1. Does not mediate disassembly of all membraneless organelles: disassembly of P-body and nucleolus is not regulated by DYRK3. Dissolution of membraneless organelles at the onset of mitosis is also required to release mitotic regulators, such as ZNF207, from liquid-unmixed organelles where they are sequestered and keep them dissolved during mitosis. Regulates mTORC1 by mediating the dissolution of stress granules: during stressful conditions, DYRK3 partitions from the cytosol to the stress granule, together with mTORC1 components, which prevents mTORC1 signaling. When stress signals are gone, the kinase activity of DYRK3 is required for the dissolution of stress granule and mTORC1 relocation to the cytosol: acts by mediating the phosphorylation of the mTORC1 inhibitor AKT1S1, allowing full reactivation of mTORC1 signaling. Also acts as a negative regulator of EPO-dependent erythropoiesis: may place an upper limit on red cell production during stress erythropoiesis. Inhibits cell death due to cytokine withdrawal in hematopoietic progenitor cells. Promotes cell survival upon genotoxic stress through phosphorylation of SIRT1: this in turn inhibits p53/TP53 activity and apoptosis.

Key enzyme in folate metabolism. Contributes to the de novo mitochondrial thymidylate biosynthesis pathway. Catalyzes an essential reaction for de novo glycine and purine synthesis, and for DNA precursor synthesis. Binds its own mRNA and that of DHFR2.

Key calcium ion sensor involved in the Ca(2+)-triggered synaptic vesicle-plasma membrane fusion. Plays a role in the sarcolemma repair mechanism of both skeletal muscle and cardiomyocytes that permits rapid resealing of membranes disrupted by mechanical stress (By similarity).

Cytoskeletal linker protein. Acts as an integrator of intermediate filaments, actin and microtubule cytoskeleton networks. Required for anchoring either intermediate filaments to the actin cytoskeleton in neural and muscle cells or keratin-containing intermediate filaments to hemidesmosomes in epithelial cells. The proteins may self-aggregate to form filaments or a two-dimensional mesh. Regulates the organization and stability of the microtubule network of sensory neurons to allow axonal transport. Mediates docking of the dynein/dynactin motor complex to vesicle cargos for retrograde axonal transport through its interaction with TMEM108 and DCTN1 (By similarity).

Acts as one of several non-catalytic accessory components of the cytoplasmic dynein 2 complex (dynein-2 complex), a motor protein complex that drives the movement of cargos along microtubules within cilia and flagella in concert with the intraflagellar transport (IFT) system. Required for proper retrograde ciliary transport.

Involved in primary cilium formation. Probably acts as a transition zone protein required for localization of PKD1/PC1 and PKD2/PC2 to the ciliary membrane.

Molecular adapter that recruits protein complexes required for cilium assembly and function to the cilium basal body. At the exit of mitosis, localizes to the basal body and ciliary base of the forming primary cilium where it recruits and activates RAB8A to direct vesicle-mediated transport of proteins to the cilium (By similarity). Also recruits the BBSome, a complex involved in cilium biogenesis, by bridging it to PCM1 at the centriolar satellites of the cilium. It is also required for the recruitment to the cilium basal body of the intraflagellar transport (IFT) machinery as well as the ciliary appendage proteins CEP164 and NINEIN (By similarity). Functions as a regulator of Hedgehog signaling both through its role in cilium assembly but also probably through its ability to retain GLI3 within the cytoplasm (By similarity). It is involved in spermatogenesis through its role in organization of the basal body and assembly of the sperm flagellum. Also indirectly involved in heart development through its function in ciliogenesis.

E3 Ubiquitin ligase proteins mediate ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. E3 ubiquitin ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Able to specifically bind RNA.

Metabolic-stress sensing protein kinase that phosphorylates the alpha subunit of eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 (EIF2S1/eIF-2-alpha) in response to various stress conditions. Key activator of the integrated stress response (ISR) required for adaptation to various stress, such as heme deficiency, oxidative stress, osmotic shock, mitochondrial dysfunction and heat shock. EIF2S1/eIF-2-alpha phosphorylation in response to stress converts EIF2S1/eIF-2-alpha in a global protein synthesis inhibitor, leading to a global attenuation of cap-dependent translation, while concomitantly initiating the preferential translation of ISR-specific mRNAs, such as the transcriptional activator ATF4, and hence allowing ATF4-mediated reprogramming. Acts as a key sensor of heme-deficiency: in normal conditions, binds hemin via a cysteine thiolate and histidine nitrogenous coordination, leading to inhibit the protein kinase activity (By similarity). This binding occurs with moderate affinity, allowing it to sense the heme concentration within the cell: heme depletion relieves inhibition and stimulates kinase activity, activating the ISR (By similarity). Thanks to this unique heme-sensing capacity, plays a crucial role to shut off protein synthesis during acute heme-deficient conditions (By similarity). In red blood cells (RBCs), controls hemoglobin synthesis ensuring a coordinated regulation of the synthesis of its heme and globin moieties (By similarity). It thereby plays an essential protective role for RBC survival in anemias of iron deficiency (By similarity). Also activates the ISR in response to mitochondrial dysfunction: HRI/EIF2AK1 protein kinase activity is activated upon binding to the processed form of DELE1 (S-DELE1), thereby promoting the ATF4-mediated reprogramming.

IFN-induced dsRNA-dependent serine/threonine-protein kinase that phosphorylates the alpha subunit of eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 (EIF2S1/eIF-2-alpha) and plays a key role in the innate immune response to viral infection. Inhibits viral replication via the integrated stress response (ISR): EIF2S1/eIF-2- alpha phosphorylation in response to viral infection converts EIF2S1/eIF-2-alpha in a global protein synthesis inhibitor, resulting to a shutdown of cellular and viral protein synthesis, while concomitantly initiating the preferential translation of ISR-specific mRNAs, such as the transcriptional activator ATF4. Exerts its antiviral activity on a wide range of DNA and RNA viruses including hepatitis C virus (HCV), hepatitis B virus (HBV), measles virus (MV) and herpes simplex virus 1 (HHV-1). Also involved in the regulation of signal transduction, apoptosis, cell proliferation and differentiation: phosphorylates other substrates including p53/TP53, PPP2R5A, DHX9, ILF3, IRS1 and the HHV-1 viral protein US11. In addition to serine/threonine- protein kinase activity, also has tyrosine-protein kinase activity and phosphorylates CDK1 at 'Tyr-4' upon DNA damage, facilitating its ubiquitination and proteosomal degradation. Either as an adapter protein and/or via its kinase activity, can regulate various signaling pathways (p38 MAP kinase, NF-kappa-B and insulin signaling pathways) and transcription factors (JUN, STAT1, STAT3, IRF1, ATF3) involved in the expression of genes encoding pro-inflammatory cytokines and IFNs. Activates the NF-kappa-B pathway via interaction with IKBKB and TRAF family of proteins and activates the p38 MAP kinase pathway via interaction with MAP2K6. Can act as both a positive and negative regulator of the insulin signaling pathway (ISP). Negatively regulates ISP by inducing the inhibitory phosphorylation of insulin receptor substrate 1 (IRS1) at 'Ser-312' and positively regulates ISP via phosphorylation of PPP2R5A which activates FOXO1, which in turn up-regulates the expression of insulin receptor substrate 2 (IRS2). Can regulate NLRP3 inflammasome assembly and the activation of NLRP3, NLRP1, AIM2 and NLRC4 inflammasomes. Plays a role in the regulation of the cytoskeleton by binding to gelsolin (GSN), sequestering the protein in an inactive conformation away from actin (By similarity).

Metabolic-stress sensing protein kinase that phosphorylates the alpha subunit of eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 (EIF2S1/eIF-2-alpha) in response to various stress conditions. Key activator of the integrated stress response (ISR) required for adaptation to various stress, such as unfolded protein response (UPR) and low amino acid availability (By similarity). EIF2S1/eIF-2-alpha phosphorylation in response to stress converts EIF2S1/eIF-2-alpha in a global protein synthesis inhibitor, leading to a global attenuation of cap-dependent translation, while concomitantly initiating the preferential translation of ISR-specific mRNAs, such as the transcriptional activators ATF4 and QRICH1, and hence allowing ATF4- and QRICH1-mediated reprogramming. Serves as a critical effector of unfolded protein response (UPR)-induced G1 growth arrest due to the loss of cyclin-D1 (CCND1). Involved in control of mitochondrial morphology and function (By similarity).

Metabolic-stress sensing protein kinase that phosphorylates the alpha subunit of eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 (EIF2S1/eIF-2-alpha) in response to low amino acid availability. Plays a role as an activator of the integrated stress response (ISR) required for adaptation to amino acid starvation (By similarity). EIF2S1/eIF-2-alpha phosphorylation in response to stress converts EIF2S1/eIF-2-alpha into a global protein synthesis inhibitor, leading to a global attenuation of cap-dependent translation, and thus to a reduced overall utilization of amino acids, while concomitantly initiating the preferential translation of ISR- specific mRNAs, such as the transcriptional activator ATF4, and hence allowing ATF4-mediated reprogramming of amino acid biosynthetic gene expression to alleviate nutrient depletion. Binds uncharged tRNAs (By similarity). Required for the translational induction of protein kinase PRKCH following amino acid starvation (By similarity). Involved in cell cycle arrest by promoting cyclin D1 mRNA translation repression after the unfolded protein response pathway (UPR) activation or cell cycle inhibitor CDKN1A/p21 mRNA translation activation in response to amino acid deprivation. Plays a role in the consolidation of synaptic plasticity, learning as well as formation of long-term memory (By similarity). Plays a role in neurite outgrowth inhibition (By similarity). Plays a proapoptotic role in response to glucose deprivation (By similarity). Promotes global cellular protein synthesis repression in response to UV irradiation independently of the stress-activated protein kinase/c-Jun N-terminal kinase (SAPK/JNK) and p38 MAPK signaling pathways (By similarity). Plays a role in the antiviral response against alphavirus infection; impairs early viral mRNA translation of the incoming genomic virus RNA, thus preventing alphavirus replication (By similarity).

Transcription activator that binds DNA cooperatively with DP proteins through the E2 recognition site, 5'-TTTC[CG]CGC-3' found in the promoter region of a number of genes whose products are involved in cell cycle regulation or in DNA replication. The DRTF1/E2F complex functions in the control of cell-cycle progression from G1 to S phase. E2F1 binds preferentially RB1 in a cell-cycle dependent manner. It can mediate both cell proliferation and TP53/p53- dependent apoptosis. Blocks adipocyte differentiation by binding to specific promoters repressing CEBPA binding to its target gene promoters. Directly activates transcription of PEG10. Positively regulates transcription of RRP1B.

Transcription activator that binds DNA cooperatively with DP proteins through the E2 recognition site, 5'-TTTC[CG]CGC-3' found in the promoter region of a number of genes whose products are involved in cell cycle regulation or in DNA replication. The DRTF1/E2F complex functions in the control of cell-cycle progression from g1 to s phase. E2F2 binds specifically to RB1 in a cell-cycle dependent manner

Transcription activator that binds DNA cooperatively with DP proteins through the E2 recognition site, 5'-TTTC[CG]CGC-3' found in the promoter region of a number of genes whose products are involved in cell cycle regulation or in DNA replication. The DRTF1/E2F complex functions in the control of cell-cycle progression from G1 to S phase. E2F3 binds specifically to RB1 in a cell-cycle dependent manner. Inhibits adipogenesis, probably through the repression of CEBPA binding to its target gene promoters (By similarity).

Transcription activator that binds DNA cooperatively with DP proteins through the E2 recognition site, 5'-TTTC[CG]CGC-3' found in the promoter region of a number of genes whose products are involved in cell cycle regulation or in DNA replication. The DRTF1/E2F complex functions in the control of cell-cycle progression from G1 to S phase. E2F4 binds with high affinity to RBL1 and RBL2. In some instances can also bind RB1. Specifically required for multiciliate cell differentiation: together with MCIDAS and E2F5, binds and activate genes required for centriole biogenesis.

Transcriptional activator that binds to E2F sites, these sites are present in the promoter of many genes whose products are involved in cell proliferation. May mediate growth factor-initiated signal transduction. It is likely involved in the early responses of resting cells to growth factor stimulation. Specifically required for multiciliate cell differentiation: together with MCIDAS and E2F5, binds and activate genes required for centriole biogenesis.

Inhibitor of E2F-dependent transcription. Binds DNA cooperatively with DP proteins through the E2 recognition site, 5'-TTTC[CG]CGC-3'. Has a preference for the 5'-TTTCCCGC-3' E2F recognition site. E2F6 lacks the transcriptional activation and pocket protein binding domains. Appears to regulate a subset of E2F-dependent genes whose products are required for entry into the cell cycle but not for normal cell cycle progression. Represses expression of some meiosis-specific genes, including SLC25A31/ANT4 (By similarity). May silence expression via the recruitment of a chromatin remodeling complex containing histone H3-K9 methyltransferase activity. Overexpression delays the exit of cells from the S-phase.

Atypical E2F transcription factor that participates in various processes such as angiogenesis, polyploidization of specialized cells and DNA damage response. Mainly acts as a transcription repressor that binds DNA independently of DP proteins and specifically recognizes the E2 recognition site 5'-TTTC[CG]CGC-3'. Directly represses transcription of classical E2F transcription factors such as E2F1. Acts as a regulator of S-phase by recognizing and binding the E2-related site 5'-TTCCCGCC-3' and mediating repression of G1/S-regulated genes. Plays a key role in polyploidization of cells in placenta and liver by regulating the endocycle, probably by repressing genes promoting cytokinesis and antagonizing action of classical E2F proteins (E2F1, E2F2 and/or E2F3). Required for placental development by promoting polyploidization of trophoblast giant cells. Also involved in DNA damage response: up-regulated by p53/TP53 following genotoxic stress and acts as a downstream effector of p53/TP53-dependent repression by mediating repression of indirect p53/TP53 target genes involved in DNA replication. Acts as a promoter of sprouting angiogenesis, possibly by acting as a transcription activator: associates with HIF1A, recognizes and binds the VEGFA promoter, which is different from canonical E2 recognition site, and activates expression of the VEGFA gene. Acts as a negative regulator of keratinocyte differentiation.

Atypical E2F transcription factor that participates in various processes such as angiogenesis and polyploidization of specialized cells. Mainly acts as a transcription repressor that binds DNA independently of DP proteins and specifically recognizes the E2 recognition site 5'-TTTC[CG]CGC-3'. Directly represses transcription of classical E2F transcription factors such as E2F1: component of a feedback loop in S phase by repressing the expression of E2F1, thereby preventing p53/TP53-dependent apoptosis. Plays a key role in polyploidization of cells in placenta and liver by regulating the endocycle, probably by repressing genes promoting cytokinesis and antagonizing action of classical E2F proteins (E2F1, E2F2 and/or E2F3). Required for placental development by promoting polyploidization of trophoblast giant cells. Acts as a promoter of sprouting angiogenesis, possibly by acting as a transcription activator: associates with HIF1A, recognizes and binds the VEGFA promoter, which is different from canonical E2 recognition site, and activates expression of the VEGFA gene.

May function to confer stability and plasticity to neuronal membrane via multiple interactions, including the spectrin-actin-based cytoskeleton, integral membrane channels and membrane-associated guanylate kinases

Required for dynein-dynactin complex and NUMA1 recruitment at the mitotic cell cortex during anaphase.

Tumor suppressor that inhibits cell proliferation and promotes apoptosis. Modulates the activity of protein arginine N- methyltransferases, including PRMT3 and PRMT5.

Plays a role in the formation and organization of tight junctions during the establishment of polarity in epithelial cells.

Up-regulates the activity of the Rho guanine nucleotide exchange factor ARHGEF18 (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of the circumferential actomyosin belt in epithelial cells. Promotes cellular adhesion, migration and motility in vitro and may play a role in wound healing. May have a role in mediating cytoskeletal changes associated with steroid- induced cell differentiation.

May function as a transcriptional repressor. May also function as a ubiquitin ligase mediating ubiquitination of chromatin- associated TP53. Functions in cell survival and proliferation through control of the cell cycle. Functions in the p53 and pRB tumor suppressor pathways and regulates the cyclin CCNA2 transcription

Sodium-dependent, high-affinity amino acid transporter that mediates the uptake of L-glutamate and also L-aspartate and D-aspartate. Functions as a symporter that transports one amino acid molecule together with two or three Na(+) ions and one proton, in parallel with the counter-transport of one K(+) ion. Mediates Cl(-) flux that is not coupled to amino acid transport; this avoids the accumulation of negative charges due to aspartate and Na(+) symport. Plays a redundant role in the rapid removal of released glutamate from the synaptic cleft, which is essential for terminating the postsynaptic action of glutamate (By similarity).

Sodium-dependent, high-affinity amino acid transporter that mediates the uptake of L-glutamate and also L-aspartate and D-aspartate. Functions as a symporter that transports one amino acid molecule together with two or three Na(+) ions and one proton, in parallel with the counter-transport of one K(+) ion. Mediates Cl(-) flux that is not coupled to amino acid transport; this avoids the accumulation of negative charges due to aspartate and Na(+) symport. Essential for the rapid removal of released glutamate from the synaptic cleft, and for terminating the postsynaptic action of glutamate (By similarity).

Sodium-dependent, high-affinity amino acid transporter that mediates the uptake of L-glutamate and also L-aspartate and D-aspartate. Can also transport L-cysteine. Functions as a symporter that transports one amino acid molecule together with two or three Na(+) ions and one proton, in parallel with the counter-transport of one K(+) ion. Mediates Cl(-) flux that is not coupled to amino acid transport; this avoids the accumulation of negative charges due to aspartate and Na(+) symport. Plays an important role in L- glutamate and L-aspartate reabsorption in renal tubuli. Plays a redundant role in the rapid removal of released glutamate from the synaptic cleft, which is essential for terminating the postsynaptic action of glutamate (By similarity). Contributes to glutathione biosynthesis and protection against oxidative stress via its role in L-glutamate and L-cysteine transport (By similarity). Negatively regulated by ARL6IP5 (By similarity).

Sodium-dependent, high-affinity amino acid transporter that mediates the uptake of L-glutamate and also L-aspartate and D-aspartate. Functions as a symporter that transports one amino acid molecule together with two or three Na(+) ions and one proton, in parallel with the counter-transport of one K(+) ion. Mediates Cl(-) flux that is not coupled to amino acid transport; this avoids the accumulation of negative charges due to aspartate and Na(+) symport. Plays a redundant role in the rapid removal of released glutamate from the synaptic cleft, which is essential for terminating the postsynaptic action of glutamate (Probable).

Sodium-dependent, high-affinity amino acid transporter that mediates the uptake of L-glutamate and also L-aspartate and D- aspartate. Functions as a symporter that transports one amino acid molecule together with two or three Na(+) ions and one proton, in parallel with the counter-transport of one K(+) ion. Acts primarily as an inhibitory glutamate-gated chloride channel being a major inhibitory presynaptic receptor at mammalian rod bipolar cell axon terminals. Glutamate binding gates a large Cl(-) conductance that mediates inhibition, affecting visual processing in the retina (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional transactivator of ELL and ELL2 elongation activities.

Acts as a transcriptional transactivator of TCEA1 elongation activity (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional transactivator of ELL and ELL2 elongation activities. Potent inducer of apoptosis in prostatic and non-prostatic cell lines. Inhibits prostate tumor growth in vivo.

Component of the NuA4 histone acetyltransferase complex which is involved in transcriptional activation of select genes principally by acetylation of nucleosomal histone H4 and H2A. This modification may both alter nucleosome - DNA interactions and promote interaction of the modified histones with other proteins which positively regulate transcription. Component of HBO1 complexes, which specifically mediate acetylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-14' (H3K14ac), and have reduced activity toward histone H4. Component of the MOZ/MORF complex which has a histone H3 acetyltransferase activity.

May play an important role in the fine-tuning of both major E2F1 activities, the regulation of the cell-cycle and the induction of apoptosis. Promotes S-phase entry, and inhibits p14(ARP) expression.

May act as an RNA-binding protein. Highly homologous to the bornavirus nucleocapsid N protein that binds viral RNA and oligomerizes (By similarity).

May act as an RNA-binding protein. The C-terminal region is highly homologous to the bornavirus nucleocapsid N protein that binds viral RNA and oligomerizes. The viral protein also possesses a nuclear import and a nuclear export signal. These 2 signals seem absent in EBLN-2 supporting an unrelated function in Human

Does not possess sterol isomerase activity and does not bind sigma ligands.

Catalyzes the conversion of Delta(8)-sterols to their corresponding Delta(7)-isomers.

Regulator of p53/TP53 stability and function. Inhibits MDM2- mediated degradation of p53/TP53 possibly by cooperating in part with TXNIP. May be involved transcriptional regulation. In vitro has intrinsic transactivation activity enhanced by EP300. May be a transcriptional activator required for the expression of glycolytic genes. Involved in regulation of cell cycle progression. Proposed to disrupt Rb-E2F binding leading to transcriptional activation of E2F proteins. The cell cycle -regulating function may depend on its RUVBL1-mediated association with the R2TP complex. May play a role in regulation of pre-mRNA splicing.

Converts big endothelin-1 to endothelin-1. Also involved in the processing of various neuroendocrine peptides, including neurotensin, angiotensin I, substance P, proenkephalin-derived peptides, and prodynorphin-derived peptides. May play a role in amyloid-beta processing (By similarity).

May contribute to the degradation of peptide hormones and be involved in the inactivation of neuronal peptides

Isomerization of 3-trans,5-cis-dienoyl-CoA to 2-trans,4- trans-dienoyl-CoA.

Mitochondrial trifunctional enzyme catalyzes the last three of the four reactions of the mitochondrial beta-oxidation pathway. The mitochondrial beta-oxidation pathway is the major energy-producing process in tissues and is performed through four consecutive reactions breaking down fatty acids into acetyl-CoA. Among the enzymes involved in this pathway, the trifunctional enzyme exhibits specificity for long-chain fatty acids. Mitochondrial trifunctional enzyme is a heterotetrameric complex composed of two proteins, the trifunctional enzyme subunit alpha/HADHA described here carries the 2,3-enoyl-CoA hydratase and the 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase activities while the trifunctional enzyme subunit beta/HADHB bears the 3-ketoacyl-CoA thiolase activity. Independently of the subunit beta, the trifunctional enzyme subunit alpha/HADHA also has a monolysocardiolipin acyltransferase activity. It acylates monolysocardiolipin into cardiolipin, a major mitochondrial membrane phospholipid which plays a key role in apoptosis and supports mitochondrial respiratory chain complexes in the generation of ATP. Allows the acylation of monolysocardiolipin with different acyl-CoA substrates including oleoyl-CoA for which it displays the highest activity.

Mitochondrial trifunctional enzyme catalyzes the last three of the four reactions of the mitochondrial beta-oxidation pathway. The mitochondrial beta-oxidation pathway is the major energy-producing process in tissues and is performed through four consecutive reactions breaking down fatty acids into acetyl-CoA. Among the enzymes involved in this pathway, the trifunctional enzyme exhibits specificity for long- chain fatty acids. Mitochondrial trifunctional enzyme is a heterotetrameric complex composed of two proteins, the trifunctional enzyme subunit alpha/HADHA carries the 2,3-enoyl-CoA hydratase and the 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase activities, while the trifunctional enzyme subunit beta/HADHB described here bears the 3- ketoacyl-CoA thiolase activity.

Decarboxylates ethylmalonyl-CoA, a potentially toxic metabolite, to form butyryl-CoA, suggesting it might be involved in metabolite proofreading. Also has methylmalonyl-CoA decarboxylase activity at lower level (By similarity).

May play a role in fatty acid biosynthesis and insulin sensitivity.

Converts unsaturated trans-2-enoyl-CoA species ((2E)-enoyl- CoA) to the corresponding (3S)-3hydroxyacyl-CoA species through addition of a water molecule to the double bond. Catalyzes the hydration of medium- and short-chained fatty enoyl-CoA thioesters from 4 carbons long (C4) up to C16. Has high substrate specificity for crotonyl-CoA ((2E)-butenoyl-CoA) and moderate specificity for acryloyl-CoA, 3- methylcrotonyl-CoA (3-methyl-(2E)-butenoyl-CoA) and methacrylyl-CoA ((2E)-2-methylpropenoyl-CoA). Can bind tiglyl-CoA (2- methylcrotonoyl-CoA), but hydrates only a small amount of this substrate. Plays a key role in the beta-oxidation spiral of short- and medium-chain fatty acid oxidation. At a lower rate than the hydratase reaction, catalyzes the isomerase reaction of trans-3-enoyl-CoA species (such as (3E)-hexenoyl-CoA) to trans-2-enoyl-CoA species (such as (2E)- hexenoyl-CoA), which are subsequently hydrated to 3(S)-3-hydroxyacyl- CoA species (such as (3S)-hydroxyhexanoyl-CoA) (By similarity).

Peroxisomal trifunctional enzyme possessing 2-enoyl-CoA hydratase, 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase, and delta 3, delta 2-enoyl- CoA isomerase activities. Catalyzes two of the four reactions of the long chain fatty acids peroxisomal beta-oxidation pathway (By similarity). Can also use branched-chain fatty acids such as 2-methyl- 2E-butenoyl-CoA as a substrate, which is hydrated into (2S,3S)-3- hydroxy-2-methylbutanoyl-CoA (By similarity). Optimal isomerase for 2,5 double bonds into 3,5 form isomerization in a range of enoyl-CoA species (Probable). Also able to isomerize both 3-cis and 3-trans double bonds into the 2-trans form in a range of enoyl-CoA species (By similarity). With HSD17B4, catalyzes the hydration of trans-2-enoyl-CoA and the dehydrogenation of 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA, but with opposite chiral specificity. Regulates the amount of medium-chain dicarboxylic fatty acids which are essential regulators of all fatty acid oxidation pathways (By similarity). Also involved in the degradation of long-chain dicarboxylic acids through peroxisomal beta- oxidation.

Able to isomerize both 3-cis and 3-trans double bonds into the 2-trans form in a range of enoyl-CoA species.

Able to isomerize both 3-cis and 3-trans double bonds into the 2-trans form in a range of enoyl-CoA species. Has a preference for 3-trans substrates.

Involved in endochondral bone formation as negative regulator of bone mineralization. Stimulates the proliferation of endothelial cells and promotes angiogenesis. Inhibits MMP9 proteolytic activity.

Cytotoxin and helminthotoxin with low-efficiency ribonuclease activity. Possesses a wide variety of biological activities. Exhibits antibacterial activity, including cytoplasmic membrane depolarization of preferentially Gram-negative, but also Gram-positive strains. Promotes E.coli outer membrane detachment, alteration of the overall cell shape and partial loss of cell content.

Regulates endothelial chemotaxis and tube formation. Has a role in angiogenesis and apoptosis via modulation of the actin cytoskeleton and facilitation of proteasomal degradation of the apoptosis inhibitors BIRC3/IAP1 and BIRC2/IAP2.

Adapter protein of the Toll-like and IL-1 receptor signaling pathway that is involved in the activation of NF-kappa-B via MAP3K1 and activation of IRF3/IRF7 pathways. Promotes proteolytic activation of MAP3K1. Involved in the BMP signaling pathway. Required for normal embryonic development (By similarity).

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) that catalyzes the exchange of GDP for GTP. Promotes guanine nucleotide exchange on the Rho family members of small GTPases, like RHOA, RHOC, RAC1 and CDC42. Required for signal transduction pathways involved in the regulation of cytokinesis. Component of the centralspindlin complex that serves as a microtubule-dependent and Rho-mediated signaling required for the myosin contractile ring formation during the cell cycle cytokinesis. Regulates the translocation of RHOA from the central spindle to the equatorial region. Plays a role in the control of mitotic spindle assembly; regulates the activation of CDC42 in metaphase for the process of spindle fibers attachment to kinetochores before chromosome congression. Involved in the regulation of epithelial cell polarity; participates in the formation of epithelial tight junctions in a polarity complex PARD3-PARD6-protein kinase PRKCQ-dependent manner. Plays a role in the regulation of neurite outgrowth. Inhibits phenobarbital (PB)-induced NR1I3 nuclear translocation. Stimulates the activity of RAC1 through its association with the oncogenic PARD6A- PRKCI complex in cancer cells, thereby acting to coordinately drive tumor cell proliferation and invasion. Also stimulates genotoxic stress-induced RHOB activity in breast cancer cells leading to their cell death.

Adapter protein that interacts with EDAR DEATH domain and couples the receptor to EDA signaling pathway during morphogenesis of ectodermal organs. Mediates the activation of NF-kappa-B.

Receptor for EDA isoform A1, but not for EDA isoform A2. Mediates the activation of NF-kappa-B and JNK. May promote caspase- independent cell death

Cytokine which is involved in epithelial-mesenchymal signaling during morphogenesis of ectodermal organs. Functions as a ligand activating the DEATH-domain containing receptors EDAR and EDA2R. May also play a role in cell adhesion (By similarity).

Binds single-stranded RNA. Involved in the process of mRNA degradation and in the positive regulation of mRNA decapping. May play a role in spermiogenesis and oogenesis.

In the process of mRNA degradation, seems to play a role in mRNA decapping. Component of a complex containing DCP2 and DCP1A which functions in decapping of ARE-containing mRNAs. Promotes complex formation between DCP1A and DCP2. Enhances the catalytic activity of DCP2 (in vitro).

Extracts misfolded glycoproteins, but not glycoproteins undergoing productive folding, from the calnexin cycle. It is directly involved in endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) and targets misfolded glycoproteins for degradation in an N-glycan- independent manner, probably by forming a complex with SEL1L. It has low mannosidase activity, catalyzing mannose trimming from Man8GlcNAc2 to Man7GlcNAc2.

Involved in the endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) pathway that targets misfolded glycoproteins for degradation in an N-glycan-dependent manner. May initiate ERAD by promoting the first mannose trimming step of ERAD substrates, from Man9GlcNAc2 to Man8GlcNAc2. Seems to recognize and bind to exposed hydrophobic regions in target proteins (By similarity).

Involved in endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD). Accelerates the glycoprotein ERAD by proteasomes, by catalyzing mannose trimming from Man8GlcNAc2 to Man7GlcNAc2 in the N-glycans. May also participate in mannose trimming from all glycoproteins and not just misfolded ones targeted to ERAD. May have alpha 1,2-mannosidase activity (By similarity).

Transcriptional coactivator stimulating NR5A1 and ligand- dependent NR1H3/LXRA and PPARG transcriptional activities. Enhances the DNA-binding activity of ATF1, ATF2, CREB1 and NR5A1. Regulates nitric oxid synthase activity probably by sequestering calmodulin in the cytoplasm. May function in endothelial cells differentiation, hormone- induced cardiomyocytes hypertrophy and lipid metabolism.

Promotes adhesion of endothelial cells through interaction with the alpha-v/beta-3 integrin receptor. Inhibits formation of vascular-like structures. May be involved in regulation of vascular morphogenesis of remodeling in embryonic development

Endothelins are endothelium-derived vasoconstrictor peptides (By similarity). Probable ligand for G-protein coupled receptors EDNRA and EDNRB which activates PTK2B, BCAR1, BCAR3 and, GTPases RAP1 and RHOA cascade in glomerular mesangial cells. Also binds the DEAR/FBXW7-AS1 receptor.

Receptor for endothelin-1. Mediates its action by association with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. The rank order of binding affinities for ET-A is: ET1 > ET2 >> ET3

Non-specific receptor for endothelin 1, 2, and 3. Mediates its action by association with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system.

Transcription factor involved in erythroid differentiation. Involved in transcriptional activation of the globin gene.

Binds phospholipid vesicles containing phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate and participates in endosomal trafficking

Polycomb group (PcG) protein. Component of the PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex, which methylates 'Lys-9' and 'Lys-27' of histone H3, leading to transcriptional repression of the affected target gene. Also recognizes 'Lys-26' trimethylated histone H1 with the effect of inhibiting PRC2 complex methyltransferase activity on nucleosomal histone H3 'Lys-27', whereas H3 'Lys-27' recognition has the opposite effect, enabling the propagation of this repressive mark. The PRC2/EED- EZH2 complex may also serve as a recruiting platform for DNA methyltransferases, thereby linking two epigenetic repression systems. Genes repressed by the PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex include HOXC8, HOXA9, MYT1 and CDKN2A.

This protein promotes the GTP-dependent binding of aminoacyl- tRNA to the A-site of ribosomes during protein biosynthesis. Plays a role in the positive regulation of IFNG transcription in T-helper 1 cells as part of an IFNG promoter-binding complex with TXK and PARP1.

This protein promotes the GTP-dependent binding of aminoacyl- tRNA to the A-site of ribosomes during protein biosynthesis

EF-1-beta and EF-1-delta stimulate the exchange of GDP bound to EF-1-alpha to GTP

[Isoform 1]: EF-1-beta and EF-1-delta stimulate the exchange of GDP bound to EF-1-alpha to GTP, regenerating EF-1-alpha for another round of transfer of aminoacyl-tRNAs to the ribosome

Probably plays a role in anchoring the complex to other cellular components

Catalyzes the trimethylation of eukaryotic elongation factor 2 (EEF2) on 'Lys-525'.

Threonine kinase that regulates protein synthesis by controlling the rate of peptide chain elongation. Upon activation by a variety of upstream kinases including AMPK or TRPM7, phosphorylates the elongation factor EEF2 at a single site, renders it unable to bind ribosomes and thus inactive. In turn, the rate of protein synthesis is reduced.

Catalyzes the GTP-dependent ribosomal translocation step during translation elongation. During this step, the ribosome changes from the pre-translocational (PRE) to the post-translocational (POST) state as the newly formed A-site-bound peptidyl-tRNA and P-site-bound deacylated tRNA move to the P and E sites, respectively. Catalyzes the coordinated movement of the two tRNA molecules, the mRNA and conformational changes in the ribosome

[Isoform 1]: Ca(2+)-binding protein that plays a key role in store-operated Ca(2+) entry (SOCE) in T-cells by regulating CRAC channel activation. Acts as a cytoplasmic calcium-sensor that facilitates the clustering of ORAI1 and STIM1 at the junctional regions between the plasma membrane and the endoplasmic reticulum upon low Ca(2+) concentration. It thereby regulates CRAC channel activation, including translocation and clustering of ORAI1 and STIM1. Upon increase of cytoplasmic Ca(2+) resulting from opening of CRAC channels, dissociates from ORAI1 and STIM1, thereby destabilizing the ORAI1-STIM1 complex.

Negatively regulates the androgen receptor by recruiting histone deacetylase complex, and protein DJ-1 antagonizes this inhibition by abrogation of this complex. Microtubule inner protein (MIP) part of the dynein-decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia axoneme, which is required for motile cilia beating (Probable).

Component of the EvC complex that positively regulates ciliary Hedgehog (Hh) signaling. Required for the localization of the EVC2:EVC subcomplex at the base of primary cilia.

Auxiliary component of the CatSper complex, a complex involved in sperm cell hyperactivation. pH-dependent Ca(2+) sensor required to activate the CatSper channel. Sperm cell hyperactivation is needed for sperm motility which is essential late in the preparation of sperm for fertilization. Associates with the CatSper complex via direct interaction with CATSPERZ, and senses intracellular Ca(2+). Together with CATSPERZ, associates with the CatSper channel pore and is required for the two-row structure of each single CatSper channel.

Mitochondrial GTPase that catalyzes the GTP-dependent ribosomal translocation step during translation elongation. During this step, the ribosome changes from the pre-translocational (PRE) to the post-translocational (POST) state as the newly formed A-site-bound peptidyl-tRNA and P-site-bound deacylated tRNA move to the P and E sites, respectively. Catalyzes the coordinated movement of the two tRNA molecules, the mRNA and conformational changes in the ribosome. Does not mediate the disassembly of ribosomes from messenger RNA at the termination of mitochondrial protein biosynthesis.

Cytosolic sensor for calcium, modulates the interaction of STIM1 and ORAI1 upon store depletion and the activation of store- operated Ca(2+) entry (SOCE) and NFAT translocation from cytosol to nucleus. Microtubule inner protein (MIP) part of the dynein-decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia axoneme, which is required for motile cilia beating (By similarity).

Microtubule-associated protein which regulates cell division and neuronal migration during cortical development. Necessary for mitotic spindle organization. Necessary for radial and tangential cell migration during brain development, possibly acting as a regulator of cell morphology and process formation during migration. May enhance calcium influx through CACNA1E and stimulate programmed cell death. Microtubule inner protein (MIP) part of the dynein- decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia axoneme, which is required for motile cilia beating (By similarity).

Acts as a calcium sensor for mitochondrial flash (mitoflash) activation, an event characterized by stochastic bursts of superoxide production. May play a role in neuronal differentiation (By similarity).

May regulate B-cell receptor (BCR)-induced immature and primary B-cell apoptosis. Plays a role as negative regulator of the canonical NF-kappa-B-activating branch. Controls spontaneous apoptosis through the regulation of BCL2L1 abundance.

Involved in the biogenesis of the 60S ribosomal subunit and translational activation of ribosomes. Together with SBDS, triggers the GTP-dependent release of EIF6 from 60S pre-ribosomes in the cytoplasm, thereby activating ribosomes for translation competence by allowing 80S ribosome assembly and facilitating EIF6 recycling to the nucleus, where it is required for 60S rRNA processing and nuclear export. Has low intrinsic GTPase activity. GTPase activity is increased by contact with 60S ribosome subunits.

Protein N-lysine methyltransferase that selectively catalyzes the trimethylation of EEF1A at 'Lys-79'.

Protein-lysine methyltransferase that selectively catalyzes the trimethylation of EEF1A at 'Lys-318'.

Protein-lysine methyltransferase that selectively mono-, di- and trimethylates 'Lys-165' of the translation elongation factors EEF1A1 and EEF1A2 in an aminoacyl-tRNA and GTP-dependent manner. EEF1A1 methylation by EEF1AKMT3 is dynamic as well as inducible by stress conditions, such as ER-stress, and plays a regulatory role on mRNA translation.

Protein-lysine methyltransferase that efficiently catalyzes three successive methylations on 'Lys-36' in eukaryotic translation elongation factor 1 alpha (EEF1A1 or EEF1A2).

Cell surface GPI-bound ligand for Eph receptors, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases which are crucial for migration, repulsion and adhesion during neuronal, vascular and epithelial development. Binds promiscuously Eph receptors residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. Plays an important role in angiogenesis and tumor neovascularization. The recruitment of VAV2, VAV3 and PI3-kinase p85 subunit by phosphorylated EPHA2 is critical for EFNA1-induced RAC1 GTPase activation and vascular endothelial cell migration and assembly. Exerts anti-oncogenic effects in tumor cells through activation and down- regulation of EPHA2. Activates EPHA2 by inducing tyrosine phosphorylation which leads to its internalization and degradation. Acts as a negative regulator in the tumorigenesis of gliomas by down- regulating EPHA2 and FAK. Can evoke collapse of embryonic neuronal growth cone and regulates dendritic spine morphogenesis.

Cell surface GPI-bound ligand for Eph receptors, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases which are crucial for migration, repulsion and adhesion during neuronal, vascular and epithelial development. Binds promiscuously Eph receptors residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. The signaling pathway downstream of the receptor is referred to as forward signaling while the signaling pathway downstream of the ephrin ligand is referred to as reverse signaling. With the EPHA2 receptor may play a role in bone remodeling through regulation of osteoclastogenesis and osteoblastogenesis (By similarity).

Cell surface GPI-bound ligand for Eph receptors, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases which are crucial for migration, repulsion and adhesion during neuronal, vascular and epithelial development. Binds promiscuously Eph receptors residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. The signaling pathway downstream of the receptor is referred to as forward signaling while the signaling pathway downstream of the ephrin ligand is referred to as reverse signaling (By similarity).

Cell surface GPI-bound ligand for Eph receptors, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases which are crucial for migration, repulsion and adhesion during neuronal, vascular and epithelial development. Binds promiscuously Eph receptors residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. May play a role in the interaction between activated B-lymphocytes and dendritic cells in tonsils

Cell surface GPI-bound ligand for Eph receptors, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases which are crucial for migration, repulsion and adhesion during neuronal, vascular and epithelial development. Binds promiscuously Eph receptors residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. The signaling pathway downstream of the receptor is referred to as forward signaling while the signaling pathway downstream of the ephrin ligand is referred to as reverse signaling. Induces compartmentalized signaling within a caveolae-like membrane microdomain when bound to the extracellular domain of its cognate receptor. This signaling event requires the activity of the Fyn tyrosine kinase. Activates the EPHA3 receptor to regulate cell-cell adhesion and cytoskeletal organization. With the receptor EPHA2 may regulate lens fiber cells shape and interactions and be important for lens transparency maintenance. May function actively to stimulate axon fasciculation. The interaction of EFNA5 with EPHA5 also mediates communication between pancreatic islet cells to regulate glucose-stimulated insulin secretion. Cognate/functional ligand for EPHA7, their interaction regulates brain development modulating cell-cell adhesion and repulsion.

Cell surface transmembrane ligand for Eph receptors, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases which are crucial for migration, repulsion and adhesion during neuronal, vascular and epithelial development. Binding to Eph receptors residing on adjacent cells leads to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. Shows high affinity for the receptor tyrosine kinase EPHB1/ELK. Can also bind EPHB2 and EPHB3. Binds to, and induces collapse of, commissural axons/growth cones in vitro (By similarity). May play a role in constraining the orientation of longitudinally projecting axons (By similarity).

Cell surface transmembrane ligand for Eph receptors, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases which are crucial for migration, repulsion and adhesion during neuronal, vascular and epithelial development. Binds promiscuously Eph receptors residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. The signaling pathway downstream of the receptor is referred to as forward signaling while the signaling pathway downstream of the ephrin ligand is referred to as reverse signaling. Binds to receptor tyrosine kinase including EPHA4, EPHA3 and EPHB4. Together with EPHB4 plays a central role in heart morphogenesis and angiogenesis through regulation of cell adhesion and cell migration. EPHB4-mediated forward signaling controls cellular repulsion and segregation from EFNB2-expressing cells. May play a role in constraining the orientation of longitudinally projecting axons.

Cell surface transmembrane ligand for Eph receptors, a family of receptor tyrosine kinases which are crucial for migration, repulsion and adhesion during neuronal, vascular and epithelial development. Binds promiscuously Eph receptors residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. The signaling pathway downstream of the receptor is referred to as forward signaling while the signaling pathway downstream of the ephrin ligand is referred to as reverse signaling. May play a pivotal role in forebrain function. Binds to, and induce the collapse of, commissural axons/growth cones in vitro. May play a role in constraining the orientation of longitudinally projecting axons (By similarity).

Dual methyltransferase that catalyzes methylation of elongation factor 1-alpha (EEF1A1 and EEF1A2) at two different positions, and is therefore involved in the regulation of mRNA translation. Via its C-terminus, methylates EEF1A1 and EEF1A2 at the N-terminal residue 'Gly-2'. Via its N-terminus dimethylates EEF1A1 and EEF1A2 at residue 'Lys-55'. Has no activity towards core histones H2A, H2B, H3 and H4. Negatively regulates cell proliferation at G1/S transition via transcriptional suppression of cell cycle regulatory genes such as CDK4 and CDK6.

Component of a complex required to localize phosphatidylinositol 4-kinase (PI4K) to the plasma membrane. The complex acts as a regulator of phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns(4)P) synthesis (Probable). In the complex, EFR3A probably acts as the membrane-anchoring component. Also involved in responsiveness to G-protein-coupled receptors; it is however unclear whether this role is direct or indirect.

Component of a complex required to localize phosphatidylinositol 4-kinase (PI4K) to the plasma membrane. The complex acts as a regulator of phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns(4)P) synthesis (Probable). In the complex, EFR3B probably acts as the membrane-anchoring component. Also involved in responsiveness to G-protein-coupled receptors; it is however unclear whether this role is direct or indirect.

Docking protein which plays a central coordinating role for tyrosine-kinase-based signaling related to cell adhesion. May serve as an activator of SRC and a downstream effector. Interacts with the SH3 domain of FYN and with CRK, SRC, and YES (By similarity).

Associates with the EF-Tu.GDP complex and induces the exchange of GDP to GTP. It remains bound to the aminoacyl-tRNA.EF- Tu.GTP complex up to the GTP hydrolysis stage on the ribosome.

Promotes the GTP-dependent binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A-site of ribosomes during protein biosynthesis. Also plays a role in the regulation of autophagy and innate immunity. Recruits ATG5-ATG12 and NLRX1 at mitochondria and serves as a checkpoint of the RIGI-MAVS pathway. In turn, inhibits RLR-mediated type I interferon while promoting autophagy.

May bind integrin alpha-8/beta-1 and play a role in hair follicle morphogenesis. Promotes matrix assembly (By similarity).

Regulates vascular tubulogenesis in vivo. Inhibits platelet- derived growth factor (PDGF)-BB-induced smooth muscle cell migration and promotes endothelial cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix and angiogenesis.

Involved in both the retinal photoreceptor ribbon synapse formation and physiological functions of visual perception. Necessary for proper bipolar dendritic tip apposition to the photoreceptor ribbon synapse. Promotes matrix assembly and cell adhesiveness (By similarity).

Receptor tyrosine kinase binding ligands of the EGF family and activating several signaling cascades to convert extracellular cues into appropriate cellular responses. Known ligands include EGF, TGFA/TGF-alpha, AREG, epigen/EPGN, BTC/betacellulin, epiregulin/EREG and HBEGF/heparin- binding EGF. Ligand binding triggers receptor homo- and/or heterodimerization and autophosphorylation on key cytoplasmic residues. The phosphorylated receptor recruits adapter proteins like GRB2 which in turn activates complex downstream signaling cascades. Activates at least 4 major downstream signaling cascades including the RAS-RAF-MEK-ERK, PI3 kinase-AKT, PLCgamma-PKC and STATs modules. May also activate the NF-kappa-B signaling cascade. Also directly phosphorylates other proteins like RGS16, activating its GTPase activity and probably coupling the EGF receptor signaling to the G protein-coupled receptor signaling. Also phosphorylates MUC1 and increases its interaction with SRC and CTNNB1/beta-catenin. Positively regulates cell migration via interaction with CCDC88A/GIV which retains EGFR at the cell membrane following ligand stimulation, promoting EGFR signaling which triggers cell migration. Plays a role in enhancing learning and memory performance (By similarity).

EGF stimulates the growth of various epidermal and epithelial tissues in vivo and in vitro and of some fibroblasts in cell culture. Magnesiotropic hormone that stimulates magnesium reabsorption in the renal distal convoluted tubule via engagement of EGFR and activation of the magnesium channel TRPM6. Can induce neurite outgrowth in motoneurons of the pond snail Lymnaea stagnalis in vitro.

Cellular oxygen sensor that catalyzes, under normoxic conditions, the post-translational formation of 4-hydroxyproline in hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF) alpha proteins. Hydroxylates a specific proline found in each of the oxygen-dependent degradation (ODD) domains (N-terminal, NODD, and C-terminal, CODD) of HIF1A. Also hydroxylates HIF2A. Has a preference for the CODD site for both HIF1A and HIF1B. Hydroxylated HIFs are then targeted for proteasomal degradation via the von Hippel-Lindau ubiquitination complex. Under hypoxic conditions, the hydroxylation reaction is attenuated allowing HIFs to escape degradation resulting in their translocation to the nucleus, heterodimerization with HIF1B, and increased expression of hypoxy- inducible genes. EGLN1 is the most important isozyme under normoxia and, through regulating the stability of HIF1, involved in various hypoxia-influenced processes such as angiogenesis in retinal and cardiac functionality. Target proteins are preferentially recognized via a LXXLAP motif.

Prolyl hydroxylase that mediates hydroxylation of proline residues in target proteins, such as ATF4, IKBKB, CEP192 and HIF1A. Target proteins are preferentially recognized via a LXXLAP motif. Cellular oxygen sensor that catalyzes, under normoxic conditions, the post-translational formation of 4-hydroxyproline in hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF) alpha proteins. Hydroxylates a specific proline found in each of the oxygen-dependent degradation (ODD) domains (N-terminal, NODD, and C-terminal, CODD) of HIF1A. Also hydroxylates HIF2A. Has a preference for the CODD site for both HIF1A and HIF2A. Hydroxylated HIFs are then targeted for proteasomal degradation via the von Hippel-Lindau ubiquitination complex. Under hypoxic conditions, the hydroxylation reaction is attenuated allowing HIFs to escape degradation resulting in their translocation to the nucleus, heterodimerization with HIF1B, and increased expression of hypoxy- inducible genes. EGLN2 is involved in regulating hypoxia tolerance and apoptosis in cardiac and skeletal muscle. Also regulates susceptibility to normoxic oxidative neuronal death. Links oxygen sensing to cell cycle and primary cilia formation by hydroxylating the critical centrosome component CEP192 which promotes its ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation. Hydroxylates IKBKB, mediating NF-kappa-B activation in hypoxic conditions. Also mediates hydroxylation of ATF4, leading to decreased protein stability of ATF4 (By similarity).

Prolyl hydroxylase that mediates hydroxylation of proline residues in target proteins, such as PKM, TELO2, ATF4 and HIF1A. Target proteins are preferentially recognized via a LXXLAP motif. Cellular oxygen sensor that catalyzes, under normoxic conditions, the post-translational formation of 4- hydroxyproline in hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF) alpha proteins. Hydroxylates a specific proline found in each of the oxygen-dependent degradation (ODD) domains (N- terminal, NODD, and C-terminal, CODD) of HIF1A. Also hydroxylates HIF2A. Has a preference for the CODD site for both HIF1A and HIF2A. Hydroxylation on the NODD site by EGLN3 appears to require prior hydroxylation on the CODD site. Hydroxylated HIFs are then targeted for proteasomal degradation via the von Hippel-Lindau ubiquitination complex. Under hypoxic conditions, the hydroxylation reaction is attenuated allowing HIFs to escape degradation resulting in their translocation to the nucleus, heterodimerization with HIF1B, and increased expression of hypoxy- inducible genes. ELGN3 is the most important isozyme in limiting physiological activation of HIFs (particularly HIF2A) in hypoxia. Also hydroxylates PKM in hypoxia, limiting glycolysis. Under normoxia, hydroxylates and regulates the stability of ADRB2. Regulator of cardiomyocyte and neuronal apoptosis. In cardiomyocytes, inhibits the anti-apoptotic effect of BCL2 by disrupting the BAX-BCL2 complex. In neurons, has a NGF-induced proapoptotic effect, probably through regulating CASP3 activity. Also essential for hypoxic regulation of neutrophilic inflammation. Plays a crucial role in DNA damage response (DDR) by hydroxylating TELO2, promoting its interaction with ATR which is required for activation of the ATR/CHK1/p53 pathway. Also mediates hydroxylation of ATF4, leading to decreased protein stability of ATF4 (Probable).

Vascular endothelium glycoprotein that plays an important role in the regulation of angiogenesis. Required for normal structure and integrity of adult vasculature. Regulates the migration of vascular endothelial cells. Required for normal extraembryonic angiogenesis and for embryonic heart development (By similarity). May regulate endothelial cell shape changes in response to blood flow, which drive vascular remodeling and establishment of normal vascular morphology during angiogenesis (By similarity). May play a critical role in the binding of endothelial cells to integrins and/or other RGD receptors. Acts as TGF-beta coreceptor and is involved in the TGF-beta/BMP signaling cascade that ultimately leads to the activation of SMAD transcription factors. Required for GDF2/BMP9 signaling through SMAD1 in endothelial cells and modulates TGFB1 signaling through SMAD3.

Transcriptional regulator. Recognizes and binds to the DNA sequence 5'-GCG(T/G)GGGCG-3'(EGR-site) in the promoter region of target genes (By similarity). Binds double-stranded target DNA, irrespective of the cytosine methylation status. Regulates the transcription of numerous target genes, and thereby plays an important role in regulating the response to growth factors, DNA damage, and ischemia. Plays a role in the regulation of cell survival, proliferation and cell death. Activates expression of p53/TP53 and TGFB1, and thereby helps prevent tumor formation. Required for normal progress through mitosis and normal proliferation of hepatocytes after partial hepatectomy. Mediates responses to ischemia and hypoxia; regulates the expression of proteins such as IL1B and CXCL2 that are involved in inflammatory processes and development of tissue damage after ischemia. Regulates biosynthesis of luteinizing hormone (LHB) in the pituitary (By similarity). Regulates the amplitude of the expression rhythms of clock genes: BMAL1, PER2 and NR1D1 in the liver via the activation of PER1 (clock repressor) transcription. Regulates the rhythmic expression of core-clock gene BMAL1 in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) (By similarity).

Sequence-specific DNA-binding transcription factor. Plays a role in hindbrain segmentation by regulating the expression of a subset of homeobox containing genes and in Schwann cell myelination by regulating the expression of genes involved in the formation and maintenance of myelin (By similarity). Binds to two EGR2- consensus sites EGR2A (5'-CTGTAGGAG-3') and EGR2B (5'-ATGTAGGTG-3') in the HOXB3 enhancer and promotes HOXB3 transcriptional activation (By similarity). Binds to specific DNA sites located in the promoter region of HOXA4, HOXB2 and ERBB2 (By similarity). Regulates hindbrain segmentation by controlling the expression of Hox genes, such as HOXA4, HOXB3 and HOXB2, and thereby specifying odd and even rhombomeres (By similarity). Promotes the expression of HOXB3 in the rhombomere r5 in the hindbrain (By similarity). Regulates myelination in the peripheral nervous system after birth, possibly by regulating the expression of myelin proteins, such as MPZ, and by promoting the differentiation of Schwann cells (By similarity). Involved in the development of the jaw openener musculature, probably by playing a role in its innervation through trigeminal motor neurons (By similarity). May play a role in adipogenesis, possibly by regulating the expression of CEBPB (By similarity).

Probable transcription factor involved in muscle spindle development

May act as Rab effector protein and play a role in vesicle trafficking.

May play a role in actin reorganization. Links clathrin- mediated endocytosis to the actin cytoskeleton. May act as Rab effector protein and play a role in vesicle trafficking. Required for perinuclear sorting and insulin- regulated recycling of SLC2A4/GLUT4 in adipocytes (By similarity).

ATP- and membrane-binding protein that controls membrane reorganization/tubulation upon ATP hydrolysis. In vitro causes vesiculation of endocytic membranes. Acts in early endocytic membrane fusion and membrane trafficking of recycling endosomes. Recruited to endosomal membranes upon nerve growth factor stimulation, indirectly regulates neurite outgrowth (By similarity). Plays a role in myoblast fusion (By similarity). Involved in the unidirectional retrograde dendritic transport of endocytosed BACE1 and in efficient sorting of BACE1 to axons implicating a function in neuronal APP processing (By similarity). Plays a role in the formation of the ciliary vesicle (CV), an early step in cilium biogenesis. Proposed to be required for the fusion of distal appendage vesicles (DAVs) to form the CV by recruiting SNARE complex component SNAP29. Is required for recruitment of transition zone proteins CEP290, RPGRIP1L, TMEM67 and B9D2, and of IFT20 following DAV reorganization before Rab8-dependent ciliary membrane extension. Required for the loss of CCP110 form the mother centriole essential for the maturation of the basal body during ciliogenesis.

ATP- and membrane-binding protein that controls membrane reorganization/tubulation upon ATP hydrolysis (By similarity). Plays a role in membrane trafficking between the plasma membrane and endosomes. Important for the internalization of GLUT4. Required for fusion of myoblasts to skeletal muscle myotubes. Required for normal translocation of FER1L5 to the plasma membrane (By similarity). Regulates the equilibrium between cell surface-associated and cell surface-dissociated caveolae by constraining caveolae at the cell membrane.

ATP- and membrane-binding protein that controls membrane reorganization/tubulation upon ATP hydrolysis. In vitro causes tubulation of endocytic membranes. Binding to phosphatidic acid induces its membrane tubulation activity (By similarity). Plays a role in endocytic transport. Involved in early endosome to recycling endosome compartment (ERC), retrograde early endosome to Golgi, and endosome to plasma membrane (rapid recycling) protein transport. Involved in the regulation of Golgi maintenance and morphology. Involved in the recycling of internalized D1 dopamine receptor. Plays a role in cardiac protein trafficking probably implicating ANK2. Involved in the ventricular membrane targeting of SLC8A1 and CACNA1C and probably the atrial membrane localization of CACNA1GG and CACNA1H implicated in the regulation of atrial myocyte excitability and cardiac conduction (By similarity). In conjunction with EHD4 may be involved in endocytic trafficking of KDR/VEGFR2 implicated in control of glomerular function (By similarity). Involved in the rapid recycling of integrin beta-3 implicated in cell adhesion maintenance. Involved in the unidirectional retrograde dendritic transport of endocytosed BACE1 and in efficient sorting of BACE1 to axons implicating a function in neuronal APP processing (By similarity). Plays a role in the formation of the ciliary vesicle, an early step in cilium biogenesis; possibly sharing redundant functions with EHD1.

ATP- and membrane-binding protein that probably controls membrane reorganization/tubulation upon ATP hydrolysis. Plays a role in early endosomal transport.

Transcriptional activator that may play a role in regulating epithelial cell differentiation and proliferation. May act as a repressor for a specific subset of ETS/AP-1-responsive genes and as a modulator of the nuclear response to mitogen-activated protein kinase signaling cascades. Binds to DNA sequences containing the consensus nucleotide core sequence GGAA. Involved in regulation of TNFRSF10B/DR5 expression through Ets-binding sequences on the TNFRSF10B/DR5 promoter. May contribute to development and carcinogenesis by acting as a tumor suppressor gene or anti-oncogene.

Histone methyltransferase that specifically mono- and dimethylates 'Lys-9' of histone H3 (H3K9me1 and H3K9me2, respectively) in euchromatin. H3K9me represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression by recruiting HP1 proteins to methylated histones. Also weakly methylates 'Lys-27' of histone H3 (H3K27me). Also required for DNA methylation, the histone methyltransferase activity is not required for DNA methylation, suggesting that these 2 activities function independently. Probably targeted to histone H3 by different DNA-binding proteins like E2F6, MGA, MAX and/or DP1. During G0 phase, it probably contributes to silencing of MYC- and E2F-responsive genes, suggesting a role in G0/G1 transition in cell cycle. In addition to the histone methyltransferase activity, also methylates non-histone proteins: mediates dimethylation of 'Lys-373' of p53/TP53. Represses the expression of mitochondrial function-related genes, perhaps by occupying their promoter regions, working in concert with probable chromatin reader BAZ2B (By similarity).

Histone methyltransferase that specifically mono- and dimethylates 'Lys-9' of histone H3 (H3K9me1 and H3K9me2, respectively) in euchromatin. H3K9me represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression by recruiting HP1 proteins to methylated histones. Also mediates monomethylation of 'Lys-56' of histone H3 (H3K56me1) in G1 phase, leading to promote interaction between histone H3 and PCNA and regulating DNA replication. Also weakly methylates 'Lys-27' of histone H3 (H3K27me). Also required for DNA methylation, the histone methyltransferase activity is not required for DNA methylation, suggesting that these 2 activities function independently. Probably targeted to histone H3 by different DNA-binding proteins like E2F6, MGA, MAX and/or DP1. May also methylate histone H1. In addition to the histone methyltransferase activity, also methylates non-histone proteins: mediates dimethylation of 'Lys-373' of p53/TP53. Also methylates CDYL, WIZ, ACIN1, DNMT1, HDAC1, ERCC6, KLF12 and itself.

Acts as a negative growth regulator via p53-mediated apoptosis pathway. Regulates formation of degradative autolysosomes during autophagy (By similarity).

Catalyzes the exchange of eukaryotic initiation factor 2- bound GDP for GTP

Interacts with RB1 and EP300 and acts as a repressor of MYOD1 transactivation. Inhibits EP300 and CBP histone acetyltransferase activity. May be involved in coupling cell cycle exit to the transcriptional activation of genes required for cellular differentiation. May act as a candidate coinhibitory factor for NR0B2 that can be directly linked to transcription inhibitory mechanisms.

Acts as a repressor of MYOD-dependent transcription, glucocorticoid receptor-dependent transcription, and muscle differentiation.

Interacts with EP300 and acts as a repressor of MYOD- dependent transcription and muscle differentiation. Inhibits EP300 histone acetyltransferase activity. Acts as a repressor of TGFB/SMAD transcriptional responses. May act as a repressor of the TGFB/SMAD3- dependent signaling by selectively blocking formation of TGFB-induced SMAD3-SMAD4 complex.

Tissue-specific component of the SMC5-SMC6 complex, a complex involved in repair of DNA double-strand breaks by homologous recombination. The complex may promote sister chromatid homologous recombination by recruiting the SMC1-SMC3 cohesin complex to double- strand breaks. The complex is required for telomere maintenance via recombination and mediates sumoylation of shelterin complex (telosome) components.

Plays a role into cellular response to oxidative stress. Decreases cell proliferation.

Necessary for scanning and involved in initiation site selection. Promotes the assembly of 48S ribosomal complexes at the authentic initiation codon of a conventional capped mRNA

Functions in the early steps of protein synthesis of a small number of specific mRNAs. Acts by directing the binding of methionyl- tRNAi to 40S ribosomal subunits. In contrast to the eIF-2 complex, it binds methionyl-tRNAi to 40S subunits in a codon-dependent manner, whereas the eIF-2 complex binds methionyl-tRNAi to 40S subunits in a GTP-dependent manner.

Translation initiation factor that is able to deliver tRNA to the P-site of the eukaryotic ribosome in a GTP-independent manner. The binding of Met-tRNA(I) occurs after the AUG codon finds its position in the P-site of 40S ribosomes, the situation that takes place during initiation complex formation on some specific RNAs. Its activity in tRNA binding with 40S subunits does not require the presence of the aminoacyl moiety. Possesses the unique ability to deliver non-Met (elongator) tRNAs into the P-site of the 40S subunit. In addition to its role in initiation, can promote release of deacylated tRNA and mRNA from recycled 40S subunits following ABCE1-mediated dissociation of post-termination ribosomal complexes into subunits.

RNA-binding component of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 (eIF-3) complex, which is required for several steps in the initiation of protein synthesis. The eIF-3 complex associates with the 40S ribosome and facilitates the recruitment of eIF-1, eIF-1A, eIF-2:GTP:methionyl- tRNAi and eIF-5 to form the 43S pre-initiation complex (43S PIC). The eIF-3 complex stimulates mRNA recruitment to the 43S PIC and scanning of the mRNA for AUG recognition. The eIF-3 complex is also required for disassembly and recycling of post-termination ribosomal complexes and subsequently prevents premature joining of the 40S and 60S ribosomal subunits prior to initiation. The eIF-3 complex specifically targets and initiates translation of a subset of mRNAs involved in cell proliferation, including cell cycling, differentiation and apoptosis, and uses different modes of RNA stem- loop binding to exert either translational activation or repression.

RNA-binding component of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 (eIF-3) complex, which is required for several steps in the initiation of protein synthesis. The eIF-3 complex associates with the 40S ribosome and facilitates the recruitment of eIF-1, eIF-1A, eIF-2:GTP:methionyl-tRNAi and eIF-5 to form the 43S pre- initiation complex (43S PIC). The eIF-3 complex stimulates mRNA recruitment to the 43S PIC and scanning of the mRNA for AUG recognition. The eIF-3 complex is also required for disassembly and recycling of post-termination ribosomal complexes and subsequently prevents premature joining of the 40S and 60S ribosomal subunits prior to initiation. The eIF-3 complex specifically targets and initiates translation of a subset of mRNAs involved in cell proliferation, including cell cycling, differentiation and apoptosis, and uses different modes of RNA stem-loop binding to exert either translational activation or repression.

Component of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 (eIF-3) complex, which is required for several steps in the initiation of protein synthesis. The eIF-3 complex associates with the 40S ribosome and facilitates the recruitment of eIF-1, eIF-1A, eIF-2:GTP:methionyl- tRNAi and eIF-5 to form the 43S pre-initiation complex (43S PIC). The eIF-3 complex stimulates mRNA recruitment to the 43S PIC and scanning of the mRNA for AUG recognition. The eIF-3 complex is also required for disassembly and recycling of post-termination ribosomal complexes and subsequently prevents premature joining of the 40S and 60S ribosomal subunits prior to initiation. The eIF-3 complex specifically targets and initiates translation of a subset of mRNAs involved in cell proliferation, including cell cycling, differentiation and apoptosis, and uses different modes of RNA stem-loop binding to exert either translational activation or repression.

mRNA cap-binding component of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 (eIF-3) complex, a complex required for several steps in the initiation of protein synthesis of a specialized repertoire of mRNAs. The eIF-3 complex associates with the 40S ribosome and facilitates the recruitment of eIF-1, eIF-1A, eIF-2:GTP:methionyl-tRNAi and eIF-5 to form the 43S pre-initiation complex (43S PIC). The eIF-3 complex stimulates mRNA recruitment to the 43S PIC and scanning of the mRNA for AUG recognition. The eIF-3 complex is also required for disassembly and recycling of post-termination ribosomal complexes and subsequently prevents premature joining of the 40S and 60S ribosomal subunits prior to initiation. The eIF-3 complex specifically targets and initiates translation of a subset of mRNAs involved in cell proliferation, including cell cycling, differentiation and apoptosis, and uses different modes of RNA stem-loop binding to exert either translational activation or repression. In the eIF-3 complex, EIF3D specifically recognizes and binds the 7-methylguanosine cap of a subset of mRNAs.

Component of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 (eIF-3) complex, which is required for several steps in the initiation of protein synthesis. The eIF-3 complex associates with the 40S ribosome and facilitates the recruitment of eIF-1, eIF-1A, eIF-2:GTP:methionyl- tRNAi and eIF-5 to form the 43S pre-initiation complex (43S PIC). The eIF-3 complex stimulates mRNA recruitment to the 43S PIC and scanning of the mRNA for AUG recognition. The eIF-3 complex is also required for disassembly and recycling of post-termination ribosomal complexes and subsequently prevents premature joining of the 40S and 60S ribosomal subunits prior to initiation. The eIF-3 complex specifically targets and initiates translation of a subset of mRNAs involved in cell proliferation, including cell cycling, differentiation and apoptosis, and uses different modes of RNA stem-loop binding to exert either translational activation or repression. Required for nonsense-mediated mRNA decay (NMD); may act in conjunction with UPF2 to divert mRNAs from translation to the NMD pathway. May interact with MCM7 and EPAS1 and regulate the proteasome-mediated degradation of these proteins.

RNA-binding component of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 (eIF-3) complex, which is required for several steps in the initiation of protein synthesis. The eIF-3 complex associates with the 40S ribosome and facilitates the recruitment of eIF-1, eIF-1A, eIF- 2:GTP:methionyl-tRNAi and eIF-5 to form the 43S pre-initiation complex (43S PIC). The eIF-3 complex stimulates mRNA recruitment to the 43S PIC and scanning of the mRNA for AUG recognition. The eIF-3 complex is also required for disassembly and recycling of post-termination ribosomal complexes and subsequently prevents premature joining of the 40S and 60S ribosomal subunits prior to initiation. The eIF-3 complex specifically targets and initiates translation of a subset of mRNAs involved in cell proliferation, including cell cycling, differentiation and apoptosis, and uses different modes of RNA stem- loop binding to exert either translational activation or repression. This subunit can bind 18S rRNA.

Component of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 (eIF-3) complex, which is required for several steps in the initiation of protein synthesis. The eIF-3 complex associates with the 40S ribosome and facilitates the recruitment of eIF-1, eIF-1A, eIF-2:GTP:methionyl-tRNAi and eIF-5 to form the 43S pre-initiation complex (43S PIC). The eIF-3 complex stimulates mRNA recruitment to the 43S PIC and scanning of the mRNA for AUG recognition. The eIF-3 complex is also required for disassembly and recycling of post-termination ribosomal complexes and subsequently prevents premature joining of the 40S and 60S ribosomal subunits prior to initiation. The eIF-3 complex specifically targets and initiates translation of a subset of mRNAs involved in cell proliferation, including cell cycling, differentiation and apoptosis, and uses different modes of RNA stem-loop binding to exert either translational activation or repression.

Component of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 (eIF-3) complex, which is required for several steps in the initiation of protein synthesis. The eIF-3 complex associates with the 40S ribosome and facilitates the recruitment of eIF-1, eIF-1A, eIF- 2:GTP:methionyl-tRNAi and eIF-5 to form the 43S pre-initiation complex (43S PIC). The eIF-3 complex stimulates mRNA recruitment to the 43S PIC and scanning of the mRNA for AUG recognition. The eIF-3 complex is also required for disassembly and recycling of post-termination ribosomal complexes and subsequently prevents premature joining of the 40S and 60S ribosomal subunits prior to initiation. The eIF-3 complex specifically targets and initiates translation of a subset of mRNAs involved in cell proliferation, including cell cycling, differentiation and apoptosis, and uses different modes of RNA stem-loop binding to exert either translational activation or repression.

Acts as a component of endosomal retrieval machinery that is involved in protein transport from early endosomes to either recycling endosomes or the trans-Golgi network. Mediates the recruitment of Golgi-associated retrograde protein (GARP) complex to the trans-Golgi network and controls early endosome-to-Golgi transport of internalized protein(PubMed:27440922). Promotes the recycling of internalized transferrin receptor (TFRC) to the plasma membrane through interaction with endosome-associated recycling protein (EARP) complex. Controls proper insulin distribution and secretion, and retention of cargo in mature dense core vesicles (By similarity). Required for the stability of the endosome-associated retrograde protein (EARP) complex subunits and for proper localization and association of EARP with membranes (By similarity).

Highly specific for ethanolamine phosphorylation. Does not have choline kinase activity (By similarity).

Neutrophil and pancreatic elastase-specific inhibitor of skin. It may prevent elastase-mediated tissue proteolysis. Has been shown to inhibit the alpha-4-beta-2/CHRNA2-CHRNB2 nicotinic acetylcholine receptor and to produce a weak inhibition on Kv11.1/KCNH2/ERG1 and on the transient receptor potential cation channel subfamily V member 1 (TRPV1).

May protect cells from cell death by inducing cytosolic vacuolization and up-regulating the autophagy pathway. May play a role in apoptosis and cell proliferation through its interaction with HSPA5.

Functions as a regulator of the BMP signaling pathway and may be involved in epidermal differentiation.

RNA-binding protein that binds to the 3'-UTR region of mRNAs and increases their stability. Involved in embryonic stem cell (ESC) differentiation: preferentially binds mRNAs that are not methylated by N6-methyladenosine (m6A), stabilizing them, promoting ESC differentiation (By similarity). Has also been shown to be capable of binding to m6A-containing mRNAs and contributes to MYC stability by binding to m6A-containing MYC mRNAs. Binds to poly-U elements and AU-rich elements (AREs) in the 3'-UTR of target mRNAs. Binds avidly to the AU-rich element in FOS and IL3/interleukin-3 mRNAs. In the case of the FOS AU-rich element, binds to a core element of 27 nucleotides that contain AUUUA, AUUUUA, and AUUUUUA motifs. Binds preferentially to the 5'-UUUU[AG]UUU-3' motif in vitro. With ZNF385A, binds the 3'-UTR of p53/TP53 mRNA to control their nuclear export induced by CDKN2A. Hence, may regulate p53/TP53 expression and mediate in part the CDKN2A anti-proliferative activity. May also bind with ZNF385A the CCNB1 mRNA (By similarity). Increases the stability of the leptin mRNA harboring an AU-rich element (ARE) in its 3' UTR.

RNA-binding protein that binds to the 3' untranslated region (3'UTR) of target mRNAs (By similarity). Seems to recognize a GAAA motif (By similarity). Can bind to its own 3'UTR, the FOS 3'UTR and the ID 3'UTR (By similarity).

RNA-binding protein that binds to AU-rich element (ARE) sequences of target mRNAs, including VEGF mRNA. May also bind poly-A tracts via RRM 3 (By similarity). May be involved in neuronal differentiation and maintenance (By similarity). Plays a role in the stabilization of GAP43 mRNA and in spatial learning (By similarity).

RNA-binding protein that is involved in the post- transcriptional regulation of mRNAs. Plays a role in the regulation of mRNA stability, alternative splicing and translation. Binds to AU-rich element (ARE) sequences in the 3' untranslated region (UTR) of target mRNAs, including GAP43, VEGF, FOS, CDKN1A and ACHE mRNA. Many of the target mRNAs are coding for RNA-binding proteins, transcription factors and proteins involved in RNA processing and/or neuronal development and function (By similarity). By binding to the mRNA 3'UTR, decreases mRNA deadenylation and thereby contributes to the stabilization of mRNA molecules and their protection from decay. Also binds to the polyadenylated (poly(A)) tail in the 3'UTR of mRNA, thereby increasing its affinity for mRNA binding. Mainly plays a role in neuron-specific RNA processing by stabilization of mRNAs such as GAP43, ACHE and mRNAs of other neuronal proteins, thereby contributing to the differentiation of neural progenitor cells, nervous system development, learning and memory mechanisms. Involved in the negative regulation of the proliferative activity of neuronal stem cells and in the positive regulation of neuronal differentiation of neural progenitor cells (By similarity). Promotes neuronal differentiation of neural stem/progenitor cells in the adult subventricular zone of the hippocampus by binding to and stabilizing SATB1 mRNA (By similarity). Binds and stabilizes MSI1 mRNA in neural stem cells (By similarity). Exhibits increased binding to ACHE mRNA during neuronal differentiation, thereby stabilizing ACHE mRNA and enhancing its expression. Protects CDKN1A mRNA from decay by binding to its 3'-UTR (By similarity). May bind to APP and BACE1 mRNAS and the BACE1AS lncRNA and enhance their stabilization. Plays a role in neurite outgrowth and in the establishment and maturation of dendritic arbors, thereby contributing to neocortical and hippocampal circuitry function (By similarity). Stabilizes GAP43 mRNA and protects it from decay during postembryonic development in the brain. By promoting the stabilization of GAP43 mRNA, plays a role in NGF-mediated neurite outgrowth (By similarity). Binds to BDNF long 3'UTR mRNA, thereby leading to its stabilization and increased dendritic translation after activation of PKC (By similarity). By increasing translation of BDNF after nerve injury, may contribute to nerve regeneration (By similarity). Acts as a stabilizing factor by binding to the 3'UTR of NOVA1 mRNA, thereby increasing its translation and enhancing its functional activity in neuron-specific splicing. Stimulates translation of mRNA in a poly(A)- and cap-dependent manner, possibly by associating with the EIF4F cap-binding complex (By similarity). May also negatively regulate translation by binding to the 5'UTR of Ins2 mRNA, thereby repressing its translation (By similarity). Upon glucose stimulation, Ins2 mRNA is released from ELAVL4 and translational inhibition is abolished (By similarity). Also plays a role in the regulation of alternative splicing. May regulate alternative splicing of CALCA pre-mRNA into Calcitonin and Calcitonin gene-related peptide 1 (CGRP) by competing with splicing regulator TIAR for binding to U-rich intronic sequences of CALCA pre- mRNA.

Endogenous ligand for the apelin receptor (APLNR). Hormone required for mesendodermal differentiation, blood vessels formation and heart morphogenesis during early development and for adult cardiovascular homeostasis. Drives internalization of APLNR. Acts as a motogen by promoting mesendodermal cell migration during gastrulation by binding and activating APLNR. Acts as an early embryonic regulator of cellular movement with a role in migration and development of cardiac progenitor cells. May act as a chemoattractant for the activation of angioblast migration toward the embryonic midline, i.e. the position of the future vessel formation, during vasculogenesis. Positively regulates sinus venosus (SV)-derived endothelial cells migration into the developing heart to promote coronary blood vessel sprouting. Plays a role in placental vascular development; promotes placental trophoblast invasion and spiral artery remodeling in the uterus. Involved in the regulation of maternal cardiovascular homeostasis to prevent gestational hypertension and for potent cardioprotective functions during heart failure. Mediates myocardial contractility in an ERK1/2-dependent manner (By similarity).

Transcription factor that activates the LYN and BLK promoters. Appears to be required for the T-cell-receptor-mediated trans activation of HIV-2 gene expression. Binds specifically to two purine-rich motifs in the HIV-2 enhancer.

Isoform 1 transcriptionally activates the LYN and BLK promoters and acts synergistically with RUNX1 to transactivate the BLK promoter

Transcriptional activator that binds and transactivates ETS sequences containing the consensus nucleotide core sequence GGA[AT]. Acts synergistically with POU2F3 to transactivate the SPRR2A promoter and with RUNX1 to transactivate the ANGPT1 promoter. Also transactivates collagenase, CCL20, CLND7, FLG, KRT8, NOS2, PTGS2, SPRR2B, TGFBR2 and TGM3 promoters. Represses KRT4 promoter activity. Involved in mediating vascular inflammation. May play an important role in epithelial cell differentiation and tumorigenesis. May be a critical downstream effector of the ERBB2 signaling pathway. May be associated with mammary gland development and involution. Plays an important role in the regulation of transcription with TATA-less promoters in preimplantation embryos, which is essential in preimplantation development (By similarity).

Transcriptional activator that binds to DNA sequences containing the consensus 5'-WGGA-3'. Transactivates promoters of the hematopoietic growth factor genes CSF2, IL3, IL8, and of the bovine lysozyme gene. Acts synergistically with RUNX1 to transactivate the IL3 promoter (By similarity). Transactivates the PRF1 promoter in natural killer (NK) cells and CD8+ T cells. Plays a role in the development and function of NK and NK T-cells and in innate immunity. Controls the proliferation and homing of CD8+ T-cells via the Kruppel-like factors KLF4 and KLF2 (By similarity). Controls cell senescence in a p53-dependent manner. Can also promote cellular transformation through inhibition of the p16 pathway. Is a transcriptional regulator of inflammation, controlling T-helper 17 (Th17) cells and macrophage inflammatory responses. Required for sustained transcription of anti-inflammatory genes, including IL1RN. Is a negative regulator of pro- inflammatory cytokines expression including IL17A, IL1B, IL6, TNFA and CXCL1. Down-regulates expression of TREM1, a cell surface receptor involved in the amplification of inflammatory responses (By similarity).

Transcriptionally activator that may play a role in regulating the later stages of keratinocytes terminal differentiation.

Postsynaptic protein that regulates circuit dynamics in the central nervous system by modulating the temporal dynamics of interneuron recruitment. Specifically present in excitatory synapses onto oriens-lacunosum molecular (OLM) interneurons and acts as a regulator of presynaptic release probability to direct the formation of highly facilitating pyramidal-OLM synapses (By similarity). Inhibits phosphatase activity of protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) complexes.

Transcription factor that binds to purine-rich DNA sequences. Forms a ternary complex with SRF and the ETS and SRF motifs of the serum response element (SRE) on the promoter region of immediate early genes such as FOS and IER2. Induces target gene transcription upon JNK- signaling pathway stimulation (By similarity).

May be a negative regulator of transcription, but can activate transcription when coexpressed with Ras, Src or Mos. Forms a ternary complex with the serum response factor and the ETS and SRF motifs of the Fos serum response element

Involved in both transcriptional activation and repression. Interaction with SIRT7 leads to recruitment and stabilization of SIRT7 at promoters, followed by deacetylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-18' (H3K18Ac) and subsequent transcription repression. Forms a ternary complex with the serum response factor (SRF). Requires DNA-bound SRF for ternary complex formation and makes extensive DNA contacts to the 5'side of SRF, but does not bind DNA autonomously.

Elongation factor component of the super elongation complex (SEC), a complex required to increase the catalytic rate of RNA polymerase II transcription by suppressing transient pausing by the polymerase at multiple sites along the DNA. Component of the little elongation complex (LEC), a complex required to regulate small nuclear RNA (snRNA) gene transcription by RNA polymerase II and III. Plays a role in immunoglobulin secretion in plasma cells: directs efficient alternative mRNA processing, influencing both proximal poly(A) site choice and exon skipping, as well as immunoglobulin heavy chain (IgH) alternative processing. Probably acts by regulating histone modifications accompanying transition from membrane-specific to secretory IgH mRNA expression.

Enhancer-binding elongation factor that specifically binds enhancers in embryonic stem cells (ES cells), marks them, and is required for their future activation during stem cell specification. Does not only bind to enhancer regions of active genes, but also marks the enhancers that are in a poised or inactive state in ES cells and is required for establishing proper RNA polymerase II occupancy at developmentally regulated genes in a cohesin-dependent manner. Probably required for priming developmentally regulated genes for later recruitment of the super elongation complex (SEC), for transcriptional activation during differentiation. Required for recruitment of P-TEFb within SEC during differentiation. Probably preloaded on germ cell chromatin, suggesting that it may prime gene activation by marking enhancers as early as in the germ cells. Promoting epithelial- mesenchymal transition (EMT) (By similarity). Elongation factor component of the super elongation complex (SEC), a complex required to increase the catalytic rate of RNA polymerase II transcription by suppressing transient pausing by the polymerase at multiple sites along the DNA. Component of the little elongation complex (LEC), a complex required to regulate small nuclear RNA (snRNA) gene transcription by RNA polymerase II and III.

Elongation factor component of the super elongation complex (SEC), a complex required to increase the catalytic rate of RNA polymerase II transcription by suppressing transient pausing by the polymerase at multiple sites along the DNA. Elongation factor component of the little elongation complex (LEC), a complex required to regulate small nuclear RNA (snRNA) gene transcription by RNA polymerase II and III. Specifically required for stimulating the elongation step of RNA polymerase II- and III-dependent snRNA gene transcription. ELL also plays an early role before its assembly into in the SEC complex by stabilizing RNA polymerase II recruitment/initiation and entry into the pause site. Required to stabilize the pre-initiation complex and early elongation.

Acts as a GTPase-activating protein (GAP) toward guanine nucleotide exchange factors like ARL2, ARL3, ARF1 and ARF6, but not for GTPases outside the Arf family.

Acts as a GTPase-activating protein (GAP) toward guanine nucleotide exchange factors like ARL2, ARL3, ARF1 and ARF6, but not for GTPases outside the Arf family. Regulates IFN-related antiviral responses.

Acts as a GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for ARL2 with low specific activity.

Involved in cytoskeletal rearrangements required for phagocytosis of apoptotic cells and cell motility. Acts in association with DOCK1 and CRK. Was initially proposed to be required in complex with DOCK1 to activate Rac Rho small GTPases. May enhance the guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) activity of DOCK1.

Involved in cytoskeletal rearrangements required for phagocytosis of apoptotic cells and cell motility. Acts in association with DOCK1 and CRK. Was initially proposed to be required in complex with DOCK1 to activate Rac Rho small GTPases. May enhance the guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) activity of DOCK1 (By similarity).

Modifies the functions of natural killer cells, monocytes and granulocytes. Inhibits C5a-dependent neutrophil enzyme release and chemotaxis. Capable of killing E.coli but not S.aureus in vitro; digests outer membrane protein A (ompA) in E.coli and K.pneumoniae.

Major structural protein of tissues such as aorta and nuchal ligament, which must expand rapidly and recover completely. Molecular determinant of the late arterial morphogenesis, stabilizing arterial structure by regulating proliferation and organization of vascular smooth muscle (By similarity).

SIII, also known as elongin, is a general transcription elongation factor that increases the RNA polymerase II transcription elongation past template-encoded arresting sites. Subunit A is transcriptionally active and its transcription activity is strongly enhanced by binding to the dimeric complex of the SIII regulatory subunits B and C (elongin BC complex).

SIII, also known as elongin, is a general transcription elongation factor that increases the RNA polymerase II transcription elongation past template-encoded arresting sites. Subunit A2 is transcriptionally active but its transcription activity is not enhanced by binding to the dimeric complex of the SIII regulatory subunits B and C (elongin BC complex).

SIII, also known as elongin, is a general transcription elongation factor that increases the RNA polymerase II transcription elongation past template-encoded arresting sites. Subunit A is transcriptionally active and its transcription activity is strongly enhanced by binding to the dimeric complex of the SIII regulatory subunits B and C (elongin BC complex). In embryonic stem cells, the elongin BC complex is recruited by EPOP to Polycomb group (PcG) target genes in order generate genomic region that display both active and repressive chromatin properties, an important feature of pluripotent stem cells (By similarity).

Transcription elongation factor implicated in the maintenance of proper chromatin structure in actively transcribed regions.

Catalyzes the first and rate-limiting reaction of the four reactions that constitute the long-chain fatty acids elongation cycle. This endoplasmic reticulum-bound enzymatic process allows the addition of 2 carbons to the chain of long- and very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs) per cycle. Condensing enzyme that exhibits activity toward saturated and monounsaturated acyl-CoA substrates, with the highest activity towards C22:0 acyl-CoA. May participate in the production of both saturated and monounsaturated VLCFAs of different chain lengths that are involved in multiple biological processes as precursors of membrane lipids and lipid mediators. Important for saturated C24:0 and monounsaturated C24:1 sphingolipid synthesis. Indirectly inhibits RPE65 via production of VLCFAs.

Catalyzes the first and rate-limiting reaction of the four reactions that constitute the long-chain fatty acids elongation cycle. This endoplasmic reticulum-bound enzymatic process allows the addition of 2 carbons to the chain of long- and very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs) per cycle. Condensing enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of polyunsaturated very long chain fatty acid (C20- and C22-PUFA), acting specifically toward polyunsaturated acyl-CoA with the higher activity toward C20:4(n-6) acyl-CoA. May participate in the production of polyunsaturated VLCFAs of different chain lengths that are involved in multiple biological processes as precursors of membrane lipids and lipid mediators.

Catalyzes the first and rate-limiting reaction of the four reactions that constitute the long-chain fatty acids elongation cycle. This endoplasmic reticulum-bound enzymatic process allows the addition of 2 carbons to the chain of long- and very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs) per cycle. Condensing enzyme that exhibits activity toward saturated and unsaturated acyl-CoA substrates with higher activity toward C18 acyl-CoAs, especially C18:0 acyl-CoAs. May participate in the production of saturated and monounsaturated VLCFAs of different chain lengths that are involved in multiple biological processes as precursors of membrane lipids and lipid mediators.

Catalyzes the first and rate-limiting reaction of the four reactions that constitute the long-chain fatty acids elongation cycle. This endoplasmic reticulum-bound enzymatic process allows the addition of 2 carbons to the chain of long- and very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs) per cycle. Condensing enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of very long chain saturated (VLC-SFA) and polyunsaturated (PUFA) fatty acids that are involved in multiple biological processes as precursors of membrane lipids and lipid mediators. May play a critical role in early brain and skin development.

Catalyzes the first and rate-limiting reaction of the four reactions that constitute the long-chain fatty acids elongation cycle. This endoplasmic reticulum-bound enzymatic process allows the addition of 2 carbons to the chain of long- and very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs) per cycle. Condensing enzyme that acts specifically toward polyunsaturated acyl-CoA with the higher activity toward C18:3(n-6) acyl-CoA. May participate in the production of monounsaturated and of polyunsaturated VLCFAs of different chain lengths that are involved in multiple biological processes as precursors of membrane lipids and lipid mediators (By similarity). In conditions where the essential linoleic and alpha linoleic fatty acids are lacking it is also involved in the synthesis of Mead acid from oleic acid (By similarity).

Catalyzes the first and rate-limiting reaction of the four reactions that constitute the long-chain fatty acids elongation cycle. This endoplasmic reticulum-bound enzymatic process allows the addition of 2 carbons to the chain of long- and very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs) per cycle. Condensing enzyme that elongates fatty acids with 12, 14 and 16 carbons with higher activity toward C16:0 acyl-CoAs. Catalyzes the synthesis of unsaturated C16 long chain fatty acids and, to a lesser extent, C18:0 and those with low desaturation degree. May participate in the production of saturated and monounsaturated VLCFAs of different chain lengths that are involved in multiple biological processes as precursors of membrane lipids and lipid mediators.

Catalyzes the first and rate-limiting reaction of the four reactions that constitute the long-chain fatty acids elongation cycle. This endoplasmic reticulum-bound enzymatic process allows the addition of 2 carbons to the chain of long- and very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs) per cycle. Condensing enzyme with higher activity toward C18 acyl-CoAs, especially C18:3(n-3) acyl-CoAs and C18:3(n-6)-CoAs. Also active toward C20:4-, C18:0-, C18:1-, C18:2- and C16:0-CoAs, and weakly toward C20:0-CoA. Little or no activity toward C22:0-, C24:0-, or C26:0-CoAs. May participate in the production of saturated and polyunsaturated VLCFAs of different chain lengths that are involved in multiple biological processes as precursors of membrane lipids and lipid mediators.

Component of the elongator complex which is required for multiple tRNA modifications, including mcm5U (5-methoxycarbonylmethyl uridine), mcm5s2U (5-methoxycarbonylmethyl-2-thiouridine), and ncm5U (5-carbamoylmethyl uridine). The elongator complex catalyzes the formation of carboxymethyluridine in the wobble base at position 34 in tRNAs. Regulates the migration and branching of projection neurons in the developing cerebral cortex, through a process depending on alpha-tubulin acetylation (By similarity). ELP1 binds to tRNA, mediating interaction of the elongator complex with tRNA (By similarity). May act as a scaffold protein that assembles active IKK-MAP3K14 complexes (IKKA, IKKB and MAP3K14/NIK).

Component of the elongator complex which is required for multiple tRNA modifications, including mcm5U (5-methoxycarbonylmethyl uridine), mcm5s2U (5-methoxycarbonylmethyl-2-thiouridine), and ncm5U (5-carbamoylmethyl uridine). The elongator complex catalyzes the formation of carboxymethyluridine in the wobble base at position 34 in tRNAs.

Catalytic tRNA acetyltransferase subunit of the elongator complex which is required for multiple tRNA modifications, including mcm5U (5-methoxycarbonylmethyl uridine), mcm5s2U (5- methoxycarbonylmethyl-2-thiouridine), and ncm5U (5-carbamoylmethyl uridine). In the elongator complex, acts as a tRNA uridine(34) acetyltransferase by mediating formation of carboxymethyluridine in the wobble base at position 34 in tRNAs (By similarity). May also act as a protein lysine acetyltransferase by mediating acetylation of target proteins; such activity is however unclear in vivo and recent evidences suggest that ELP3 primarily acts as a tRNA acetyltransferase. Involved in neurogenesis: regulates the migration and branching of projection neurons in the developing cerebral cortex, through a process depending on alpha-tubulin acetylation. Required for acetylation of GJA1 in the developing cerebral cortex (By similarity).

Component of the elongator complex which is required for multiple tRNA modifications, including mcm5U (5-methoxycarbonylmethyl uridine), mcm5s2U (5-methoxycarbonylmethyl-2-thiouridine), and ncm5U (5-carbamoylmethyl uridine). The elongator complex catalyzes formation of carboxymethyluridine in the wobble base at position 34 in tRNAs. Involved in cell migration (By similarity).

Required for the assembly of a functional nuclear pore complex (NPC) on the surface of chromosomes as nuclei form at the end of mitosis. May initiate NPC assembly by binding to chromatin and recruiting the Nup107-160 subcomplex of the NPC. Also required for the localization of the Nup107-160 subcomplex of the NPC to the kinetochore during mitosis and for the completion of cytokinesis.

Essential regulator of neutrophil polarity. Regulates neutrophil polarization by regulating AKT1 phosphorylation through a mechanism that is independent of PIK3CG activity (By similarity).

Modulates the assembly and organization of the microtubule cytoskeleton, and probably plays a role in regulating the orientation of the mitotic spindle and the orientation of the plane of cell division. Required for normal proliferation of neuronal progenitor cells in the developing brain and for normal brain development. Does not affect neuron migration per se.

Tubulin binding protein that inhibits microtubule nucleation and growth, resulting in shorter microtubules.

Regulates mitotic spindle assembly, microtubule (MT)- kinetochore attachment and chromosome separation via recruitment of HAUS augmin-like complex and TUBG1 to the existing MTs and promoting MT-based MT nucleation. Required for proper alignnment of chromosomes during metaphase.

Essential for the formation and stability of microtubules (MTs). Required for the organization of the mitotic spindle and for the proper attachment of kinetochores to MTs. Promotes the recruitment of NUDC to the mitotic spindle for mitotic progression.

May modify the assembly dynamics of microtubules, such that microtubules are slightly longer, but more dynamic.

May play a role in neuronal migration during embryonic development.

Plays a role in the outgrowth of motoneurons and in the formation of neuromuscular junctions. Following muscle denervation, promotes nerve terminal sprouting and the formation of additional acetylcholine receptor clusters at synaptic sites without affecting terminal Schwann cell number or morphology. Delays the retraction of terminal sprouts following re-innervation of denervated endplates. May play a role in targeting the monocarboxylate transporters SLC16A1 and SLC16A7 to the cell membrane (By similarity).

Part of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane protein complex (EMC) that enables the energy-independent insertion into endoplasmic reticulum membranes of newly synthesized membrane proteins. Preferentially accommodates proteins with transmembrane domains that are weakly hydrophobic or contain destabilizing features such as charged and aromatic residues. Involved in the cotranslational insertion of multi-pass membrane proteins in which stop-transfer membrane-anchor sequences become ER membrane spanning helices. It is also required for the post-translational insertion of tail-anchored/TA proteins in endoplasmic reticulum membranes. By mediating the proper cotranslational insertion of N-terminal transmembrane domains in an N-exo topology, with translocated N- terminus in the lumen of the ER, controls the topology of multi-pass membrane proteins like the G protein-coupled receptors. By regulating the insertion of various proteins in membranes, it is indirectly involved in many cellular processes (Probable). Promotes angiogenesis and tissue repair in the heart after myocardial infarction. Stimulates cardiac endothelial cell migration and outgrowth via the activation of p38 MAPK, PAK and MAPK2 signaling pathways.

Part of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane protein complex (EMC) that enables the energy-independent insertion into endoplasmic reticulum membranes of newly synthesized membrane proteins. Preferentially accommodates proteins with transmembrane domains that are weakly hydrophobic or contain destabilizing features such as charged and aromatic residues. Involved in the cotranslational insertion of multi-pass membrane proteins in which stop-transfer membrane-anchor sequences become ER membrane spanning helices. It is also required for the post-translational insertion of tail-anchored/TA proteins in endoplasmic reticulum membranes. By mediating the proper cotranslational insertion of N-terminal transmembrane domains in an N-exo topology, with translocated N- terminus in the lumen of the ER, controls the topology of multi-pass membrane proteins like the G protein-coupled receptors. By regulating the insertion of various proteins in membranes, it is indirectly involved in many cellular processes (Probable).

Part of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane protein complex (EMC) that enables the energy-independent insertion into endoplasmic reticulum membranes of newly synthesized membrane proteins. Preferentially accommodates proteins with transmembrane domains that are weakly hydrophobic or contain destabilizing features such as charged and aromatic residues. Involved in the cotranslational insertion of multi-pass membrane proteins in which stop-transfer membrane-anchor sequences become ER membrane spanning helices. It is also required for the post-translational insertion of tail-anchored/TA proteins in endoplasmic reticulum membranes. By mediating the proper cotranslational insertion of N-terminal transmembrane domains in an N-exo topology, with translocated N- terminus in the lumen of the ER, controls the topology of multi-pass membrane proteins like the G protein-coupled receptors. By regulating the insertion of various proteins in membranes, it is indirectly involved in many cellular processes (By similarity). May be involved in Mg(2+) transport (By similarity).

Part of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane protein complex (EMC) that enables the energy-independent insertion into endoplasmic reticulum membranes of newly synthesized membrane proteins. Preferentially accommodates proteins with transmembrane domains that are weakly hydrophobic or contain destabilizing features such as charged and aromatic residues. Involved in the cotranslational insertion of multi- pass membrane proteins in which stop-transfer membrane-anchor sequences become ER membrane spanning helices. It is also required for the post-translational insertion of tail- anchored/TA proteins in endoplasmic reticulum membranes. By mediating the proper cotranslational insertion of N-terminal transmembrane domains in an N- exo topology, with translocated N-terminus in the lumen of the ER, controls the topology of multi-pass membrane proteins like the G protein-coupled receptors. By regulating the insertion of various proteins in membranes, it is indirectly involved in many cellular processes (Probable).

Stabilizes and promotes the formation of a nuclear actin cortical network. Stimulates actin polymerization in vitro by binding and stabilizing the pointed end of growing filaments. Inhibits beta- catenin activity by preventing its accumulation in the nucleus. Acts by influencing the nuclear accumulation of beta-catenin through a CRM1- dependent export pathway. Links centrosomes to the nuclear envelope via a microtubule association. Required for proper localization of non- farnesylated prelamin-A/C. Together with NEMP1, contributes to nuclear envelope stiffness in germ cells. EMD and BAF are cooperative cofactors of HIV-1 infection. Association of EMD with the viral DNA requires the presence of BAF and viral integrase. The association of viral DNA with chromatin requires the presence of BAF and EMD.

Interacts with MUS81 to form a DNA structure-specific endonuclease with substrate preference for branched DNA structures with a 5'-end at the branch nick. Typical substrates include 3'-flap structures, replication forks and nicked Holliday junctions. May be required in mitosis for the processing of stalled or collapsed replication forks.

Interacts with MUS81 to form a DNA structure-specific endonuclease which cleaves substrates such as 3'-flap structures.

May be responsible for anchoring smooth muscle cells to elastic fibers, and may be involved not only in the formation of the elastic fiber, but also in the processes that regulate vessel assembly. Has cell adhesive capacity

Functions as a key regulator of cell membrane composition by regulating protein surface expression. Also, plays a role in regulation of processes including cell migration, cell proliferation, cell contraction and cell adhesion. Regulates transepithelial migration of neutrophils into the alveolar lumen, potentially via mediation of cell surface expression of adhesion markers and lipid raft formation (By similarity). Negatively regulates caveolae formation by reducing CAV1 expression and CAV1 amount by increasing lysosomal degradation. Facilitates surface trafficking and formation of lipid rafts bearing GPI-anchor proteins (By similarity). Regulates surface expression of MHC1 and ICAM1 proteins increasing susceptibility to T-cell mediated cytotoxicity (By similarity). Regulates the plasma membrane expression of the integrin heterodimers ITGA6-ITGB1, ITGA5- ITGB3 and ITGA5-ITGB1 resulting in modulation of cell-matrix adhesion. Also regulates many processes through PTK2. Regulates blood vessel endothelial cell migration and angiogenesis by regulating VEGF protein expression through PTK2 activation. Regulates cell migration and cell contraction through PTK2 and SRC activation. Regulates focal adhesion density, F-actin conformation and cell adhesion capacity through interaction with PTK2. Positively regulates cell proliferation. Plays a role during cell death and cell blebbing. Promotes angiogenesis and vasculogenesis through induction of VEGFA via a HIF1A- dependent pathway. Also plays a role in embryo implantation by regulating surface trafficking of integrin heterodimer ITGA5-ITGB3. Plays a role in placental angiogenesis and uterine natural killer cell regulation at the maternal-fetal placental interface, however not required in the maternal tissues for a viable pregnancy (By similarity). Involved in the early stages of embryogenic development and cardiogenesis, potentially via regulation of epithelial-mesenchymal transition timing (By similarity). May play a role in glomerular filtration (By similarity).

Probably involved in cell proliferation and cell-cell interactions

Essential regulatory subunit of the mitochondrial calcium uniporter complex (uniplex), a complex that mediates calcium uptake into mitochondria. Required to bridge the calcium-sensing proteins MICU1 and MICU2 with the calcium-conducting subunit MCU. Plays a central role in regulating the uniplex complex response to intracellular calcium signaling. Acts by mediating activation of MCU and retention of MICU1 to the MCU pore, in order to ensure tight regulation of the uniplex complex and appropriate responses to intracellular calcium signaling.

Regulator which is able to repress transcription, possibly via its interaction with a multiprotein chromatin remodeling complex that modifies the chromatin. Its interaction with BRCA2 suggests that it may play a central role in the DNA repair function of BRCA2. Mediates ligand-dependent transcriptional activation by nuclear hormone receptors.

Transcription factor, which in cooperation with EMX2, acts to generate the boundary between the roof and archipallium in the developing brain. May function in combinations with OTX1/2 to specify cell fates in the developing central nervous system

Ena/VASP proteins are actin-associated proteins involved in a range of processes dependent on cytoskeleton remodeling and cell polarity such as axon guidance and lamellipodial and filopodial dynamics in migrating cells. ENAH induces the formation of F-actin rich outgrowths in fibroblasts. Acts synergistically with BAIAP2-alpha and downstream of NTN1 to promote filipodia formation (By similarity).

Involved in the mineralization and structural organization of enamel. Involved in the extension of enamel during the secretory stage of dental enamel formation.

Endoglycosidase that releases N-glycans from glycoproteins by cleaving the beta-1,4-glycosidic bond in the N,N'-diacetylchitobiose core. Involved in the processing of free oligosaccharides in the cytosol.

Actin-binding protein involved in the regulation of neuronal process formation and in differentiation of neural crest cells. Down- regulates transcription factor NF2L2/NRF2 by decreasing the rate of protein synthesis and not via a ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation mechanism.

May act as a DNase and a RNase. Plays a role in the modulation of innate immune signaling through the cGAS-STING pathway by interacting with RNF26.

Endoribonuclease that cleaves single-stranded RNAs at 5' of uridylates and releases a product with a 2',3'-cyclic phosphate at the 3'-end. The UU and GU sites are more efficiently cleaved than CU and AU sites.

[Isoform 1]: Endoribonuclease that specifically cleaves inosine-containing RNAs: cleaves RNA at the second phosphodiester bond 3' to inosine. Active against both single-stranded and double-stranded RNAs. Has strong preference for single-stranded RNAs (ssRNAs) toward double-stranded RNAs (dsRNAs). Cleaves mRNAs and tRNAs containing inosine. Also able to cleave structure-specific dsRNA substrates containing the specific sites 5'- IIUI-3' and 5'-UIUU-3'. Inosine is present in a number of RNAs following editing; the function of inosine- specific endoribonuclease is still unclear: it could either play a regulatory role in edited RNAs, or be involved in antiviral response by removing the hyperedited long viral dsRNA genome that has undergone A- to-I editing (Probable). Binds branched DNA structures.

Involved in the regulation of glucose homeostasis and lipid metabolism.

Microtubule-binding protein which regulates microtubule organization and stability. Promotes the stability of astral microtubules and facilitates the proper orientation of the mitotic spindle. This allows the oriented division of basal keratinocytes and contributes to epidermal stratification (By similarity). Required for the assembly of both primary and motile cilia. Destabilizes the interaction between CCP110 and CEP97 by competing with CEP97 for binding to CCP110 which promotes the removal of CCP110 and CEP97 from the mother centriole and allows the initiation of ciliogenesis.

Adapter that functions to localize a calcium-sensitive signal transduction machinery in sperm to a calcium-permeable ion channel (By similarity). Microtubule inner protein (MIP) part of the dynein- decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia axoneme, which is required for motile cilia beating (By similarity).

Chromatin reader component of the super elongation complex (SEC), a complex required to increase the catalytic rate of RNA polymerase II transcription by suppressing transient pausing by the polymerase at multiple sites along the DNA. Specifically recognizes and binds acetylated and crotonylated histones, with a preference for histones that are crotonylated. Has a slightly higher affinity for binding histone H3 crotonylated at 'Lys-27' (H3K27cr) than 'Lys-20' (H3K9cr20).

Glycolytic enzyme the catalyzes the conversion of 2- phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate. In addition to glycolysis, involved in various processes such as growth control, hypoxia tolerance and allergic responses. May also function in the intravascular and pericellular fibrinolytic system due to its ability to serve as a receptor and activator of plasminogen on the cell surface of several cell-types such as leukocytes and neurons. Stimulates immunoglobulin production.

Glycolytic enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of 2- phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate. Appears to have a function in striated muscle development and regeneration.

Plays a role in the catabolism of L-fucose, a sugar that is part of the carbohydrates that are attached to cellular glycoproteins. Catalyzes the dehydration of L-fuconate to 2-keto-3-deoxy-L-fuconate by the abstraction of the 2-proton to generate an enediolate intermediate that is stabilized by the magnesium ion.

Has neurotrophic and neuroprotective properties on a broad spectrum of central nervous system (CNS) neurons. Binds, in a calcium- dependent manner, to cultured neocortical neurons and promotes cell survival (By similarity).

Bifunctional enzyme that catalyzes the enolization of 2,3- diketo-5-methylthiopentyl-1-phosphate (DK-MTP-1-P) into the intermediate 2-hydroxy-3-keto-5-methylthiopentenyl-1-phosphate (HK- MTPenyl-1-P), which is then dephosphorylated to form the acireductone 1,2-dihydroxy-3-keto-5-methylthiopentene (DHK-MTPene).

Probably acts as a terminal oxidase of plasma electron transport from cytosolic NAD(P)H via hydroquinones to acceptors at the cell surface. Hydroquinone oxidase activity alternates with a protein disulfide-thiol interchange/oxidoreductase activity which may control physical membrane displacements associated with vesicle budding or cell enlargement. The activities oscillate with a period length of 24 minutes and play a role in control of the ultradian cellular biological clock.

May be involved in cell growth. Probably acts as a terminal oxidase of plasma electron transport from cytosolic NAD(P)H via hydroquinones to acceptors at the cell surface. Hydroquinone oxidase activity alternates with a protein disulfide-thiol interchange/oxidoreductase activity which may control physical membrane displacements associated with vesicle budding or cell enlargement. The activities oscillate with a period length of 22 minutes and play a role in control of the ultradian cellular biological clock.

Molecular chaperone that functions in the processing and transport of secreted proteins (By similarity). When associated with CNPY3, required for proper folding of Toll-like receptors (By similarity). Functions in endoplasmic reticulum associated degradation (ERAD). Has ATPase activity (By similarity). May participate in the unfolding of cytosolic leaderless cargos (lacking the secretion signal sequence) such as the interleukin 1/IL-1 to facilitate their translocation into the ERGIC (endoplasmic reticulum- Golgi intermediate compartment) and secretion; the translocation process is mediated by the cargo receptor TMED10.

Nucleotide pyrophosphatase that generates diphosphate (PPi) and functions in bone mineralization and soft tissue calcification by regulating pyrophosphate levels (By similarity). PPi inhibits bone mineralization and soft tissue calcification by binding to nascent hydroxyapatite crystals, thereby preventing further growth of these crystals. Preferentially hydrolyzes ATP, but can also hydrolyze other nucleoside 5' triphosphates such as GTP, CTP and UTP to their corresponding monophosphates with release of pyrophosphate, as well as diadenosine polyphosphates, and also 3',5'-cAMP to AMP. May also be involved in the regulation of the availability of nucleotide sugars in the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi, and the regulation of purinergic signaling. Inhibits ectopic joint calcification and maintains articular chondrocytes by repressing hedgehog signaling; it is however unclear whether hedgehog inhibition is direct or indirect (By similarity). Appears to modulate insulin sensitivity and function. Also involved in melanogenesis. Also able to hydrolyze 2',3'-cGAMP (cyclic GMP-AMP), a second messenger that activates TMEM173/STING and triggers type-I interferon production. 2',3'-cGAMP degradation takes place in the lumen or extracellular space, and not in the cytosol where it is produced; the role of 2',3'-cGAMP hydrolysis is therefore unclear. Not able to hydrolyze the 2',3'-cGAMP linkage isomer 3'-3'-cGAMP.

Hydrolyzes lysophospholipids to produce the signaling molecule lysophosphatidic acid (LPA) in extracellular fluids (PubMed:15769751, PubMed:26371182, PubMed:27754931, PubMed:14500380, PubMed:12354767,). Major substrate is lysophosphatidylcholine. Can also act on sphingosylphosphorylcholine producing sphingosine-1-phosphate, a modulator of cell motility. Can hydrolyze, in vitro, bis-pNPP, to some extent pNP-TMP, and barely ATP. Involved in several motility-related processes such as angiogenesis and neurite outgrowth. Acts as an angiogenic factor by stimulating migration of smooth muscle cells and microtubule formation. Stimulates migration of melanoma cells, probably via a pertussis toxin-sensitive G protein. May have a role in induction of parturition. Possible involvement in cell proliferation and adipose tissue development (Probable). Tumor cell motility-stimulating factor. Required for LPA production in activated platelets, cleaves the sn-1 lysophospholipids to generate sn-1 lysophosphatidic acids containing predominantly 18:2 and 20:4 fatty acids. Shows a preference for the sn-1 to the sn-2 isomer of 1-O-alkyl-sn-glycero-3- phosphocholine (lyso-PAF).

Hydrolase that metabolizes extracellular nucleotides, including ATP, GTP, UTP and CTP. Limits mast cell and basophil responses during inflammation and during the chronic phases of allergic responses by eliminating the extracellular ATP that functions as signaling molecule and activates basophils and mast cells and induces the release of inflammatory cytokines. Metabolizes extracellular ATP in the lumen of the small intestine, and thereby prevents ATP-induced apoptosis of intestinal plasmacytoid dendritic cells (By similarity). Has also alkaline phosphodiesterase activity.

Hydrolyzes extracellular Ap3A into AMP and ADP, and Ap4A into AMP and ATP. Ap3A and Ap4A are diadenosine polyphosphates thought to induce proliferation of vascular smooth muscle cells. Acts as a procoagulant, mediating platelet aggregation at the site of nascent thrombus via release of ADP from Ap3A and activation of ADP receptors.

Can hydrolyze NAD but cannot hydrolyze nucleotide di- and triphosphates. Lacks lysopholipase D activity. May play a role in neuronal cell communication.

Choline-specific glycerophosphodiesterase that hydrolyzes glycerophosphocholine (GPC) and lysophosphatidylcholine (LPC) and contributes to supplying choline to the cells. Has a preference for LPC with short (12:0 and 14:0) or polyunsaturated (18:2 and 20:4) fatty acids. In vitro, hydrolyzes only choline-containing lysophospholipids, such as sphingosylphosphorylcholine (SPC), platelet- activating factor (PAF) and lysoPAF, but not other lysophospholipids (By similarity).

Choline-specific phosphodiesterase that hydrolyzes sphingomyelin releasing the ceramide and phosphocholine and therefore is involved in sphingomyelin digestion, ceramide formation, and fatty acid (FA) absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. Has also phospholipase C activity and can also cleave phosphocholine from palmitoyl lyso-phosphatidylcholine and platelet-activating factor (PAF) leading to its inactivation. Does not have nucleotide pyrophosphatase activity. May promote cholesterol absorption by affecting the levels of sphingomyelin derived from either diet or endogenous sources, in the intestinal lumen (By similarity).

Retroviral envelope proteins mediate receptor recognition and membrane fusion during early infection. Endogenous envelope proteins may have kept, lost or modified their original function during evolution. This endogenous envelope protein has lost its fusogenic properties. It can inhibit cell growth through decrease expression of cyclin B1 and increased expression of p21 in vitro.

Protein phosphatase inhibitor that specifically inhibits protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) during mitosis. When phosphorylated at Ser-67 during mitosis, specifically interacts with PPP2R2D (PR55-delta) and inhibits its activity, leading to inactivation of PP2A, an essential condition to keep cyclin-B1-CDK1 activity high during M phase (By similarity). Also acts as a stimulator of insulin secretion by interacting with sulfonylurea receptor (ABCC8), thereby preventing sulfonylurea from binding to its receptor and reducing K(ATP) channel currents.

Responsible for initiating activation of pancreatic proteolytic proenzymes (trypsin, chymotrypsin and carboxypeptidase A). It catalyzes the conversion of trypsinogen to trypsin which in turn activates other proenzymes including chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidases, and proelastases

In the nervous system, could hydrolyze ATP and other nucleotides to regulate purinergic neurotransmission. Could also be implicated in the prevention of platelet aggregation by hydrolyzing platelet-activating ADP to AMP. Hydrolyzes ATP and ADP equally well.

In the nervous system, could hydrolyze ATP and other nucleotides to regulate purinergic neurotransmission. Hydrolyzes ADP only to a marginal extent. The order of activity with different substrates is ATP > GTP > CTP = ITP > UTP >> ADP = UDP

[Isoform 1]: Catalyzes the hydrolysis of nucleoside triphosphates and diphosphates in a calcium- or magnesium-dependent manner, with a preference for pyrimidines. Preferentially hydrolyzes UTP and TTP. AMP, ADP, ATP and UMP are not substrates. Preferentially activated by Ca(2+) over Mg(2+).

Hydrolyzes nucleoside diphosphates with a preference for GDP, IDP and UDP compared to ADP and CDP. In the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum, hydrolyzes UDP that acts as an end-product feedback inhibitor of the UDP-Glc:glycoprotein glucosyltransferases. UMP can be transported back by an UDP-sugar antiporter to the cytosol where it is consumed to regenerate UDP- glucose. Therefore, it positively regulates protein reglucosylation by clearing UDP from the ER lumen and by promoting the regeneration of UDP-glucose. Protein reglucosylation is essential to proper glycoprotein folding and quality control in the ER (By similarity).

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of nucleoside triphosphates and diphosphates in a calcium- or magnesium-dependent manner. Has a strong preference for nucleoside diphosphates, preferentially hydrolyzes GDP, IDP, and UDP, with slower hydrolysis of CDP, ITP, GTP, CTP, ADP, and UTP and virtually no hydrolysis of ATP. The membrane bound form might support glycosylation reactions in the Golgi apparatus and, when released from cells, might catalyze the hydrolysis of extracellular nucleotides.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of nucleoside triphosphates and diphosphates in a calcium- or magnesium-dependent manner. Preferentially hydrolyzes nucleoside 5'-triphosphates, with substrate preference for UTP > GTP > CTP. Hydrolyzes ATP and nucleoside diphosphates only to a minor extent.

Canalicular ectonucleoside NTPDase responsible for the main hepatic NTPDase activity. Ectonucleoside NTPDases catalyze the hydrolysis of gamma- and beta-phosphate residues of nucleotides, playing a central role in concentration of extracellular nucleotides. Has activity toward ATP, ADP, UTP and UDP, but not toward AMP.

Endosome-associated protein that plays a role in membrane receptor sorting, cytokinesis and ciliogenesis. Involved in the endosome-to-plasma membrane trafficking and recycling of SNX27-retromer-dependent cargo proteins, such as GLUT1. Involved in the regulation of cytokinesis; the function may involve PTPN13 and GIT1. Plays a role in the formation of cilia. Involved in cargo protein localization, such as PKD2, at primary cilia. Involved in the presentation of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) receptor TNFRSF1A on the cell surface, and hence in the modulation of the TNF-induced apoptosis (By similarity).

Involved in mRNA export coupled transcription activation by association with both the TREX-2 and the SAGA complexes. The transcription regulatory histone acetylation (HAT) complex SAGA is a multiprotein complex that activates transcription by remodeling chromatin and mediating histone acetylation and deubiquitination. Within the SAGA complex, participates in a subcomplex that specifically deubiquitinates both histones H2A and H2B. The SAGA complex is recruited to specific gene promoters by activators such as MYC, where it is required for transcription. Required for nuclear receptor- mediated transactivation. As a component of the TREX-2 complex, involved in the export of mRNAs to the cytoplasm through the nuclear pores.

Catalyzes the transfer of a single N-acetylglucosamine from UDP-GlcNAc to a serine or threonine residue in extracellular proteins resulting in their modification with a beta-linked N-acetylglucosamine (O-GlcNAc). Specifically glycosylates the Thr residue located between the fifth and sixth conserved cysteines of folded EGF-like domains.

May play a role in cell protection during the inflammatory response. In epithelial cells, negatively regulates IL6 production and apoptosis through the regulation of MT2A expression.

Functions as a transcriptional activator playing a crucial role during development. Functions in trophoblast differentiation and later in gastrulation, regulating both mesoderm delamination and endoderm specification. Plays a role in brain development being required for the specification and the proliferation of the intermediate progenitor cells and their progeny in the cerebral cortex. Also involved in the differentiation of CD8+ T-cells during immune response regulating the expression of lytic effector genes.

Seems to be a constitutive component of clathrin-coated pits that is required for receptor-mediated endocytosis. Involved in endocytosis of integrin beta-1 (ITGB1) and transferrin receptor (TFR); internalization of ITGB1 as DAB2-dependent cargo but not TFR seems to require association with DAB2.

Functions as histone acetyltransferase and regulates transcription via chromatin remodeling. Acetylates all four core histones in nucleosomes. Histone acetylation gives an epigenetic tag for transcriptional activation. Mediates cAMP-gene regulation by binding specifically to phosphorylated CREB protein. Mediates acetylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-122' (H3K122ac), a modification that localizes at the surface of the histone octamer and stimulates transcription, possibly by promoting nucleosome instability. Mediates acetylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-27' (H3K27ac). Also functions as acetyltransferase for non-histone targets, such as ALX1, HDAC1, PRMT1 or SIRT2. Acetylates 'Lys- 131' of ALX1 and acts as its coactivator. Acetylates SIRT2 and is proposed to indirectly increase the transcriptional activity of p53/TP53 through acetylation and subsequent attenuation of SIRT2 deacetylase function. Following DNA damage, forms a stress-responsive p53/TP53 coactivator complex with JMY which mediates p53/TP53 acetylation, thereby increasing p53/TP53-dependent transcription and apoptosis. Promotes chromatin acetylation in heat shock responsive HSP genes during the heat shock response (HSR), thereby stimulating HSR transcription. Acetylates HDAC1 leading to its inactivation and modulation of transcription. Acetylates 'Lys-247' of EGR2 (By similarity). Acts as a TFAP2A-mediated transcriptional coactivator in presence of CITED2. Plays a role as a coactivator of NEUROD1-dependent transcription of the secretin and p21 genes and controls terminal differentiation of cells in the intestinal epithelium. Promotes cardiac myocyte enlargement. Can also mediate transcriptional repression. Acetylates FOXO1 and enhances its transcriptional activity. Acetylates BCL6 wich disrupts its ability to recruit histone deacetylases and hinders its transcriptional repressor activity. Participates in CLOCK or NPAS2-regulated rhythmic gene transcription; exhibits a circadian association with CLOCK or NPAS2, correlating with increase in PER1/2 mRNA and histone H3 acetylation on the PER1/2 promoter. Acetylates MTA1 at 'Lys-626' which is essential for its transcriptional coactivator activity. Acetylates XBP1 isoform 2; acetylation increases protein stability of XBP1 isoform 2 and enhances its transcriptional activity. Acetylates PCNA; acetylation promotes removal of chromatin-bound PCNA and its degradation during nucleotide excision repair (NER). Acetylates MEF2D. Acetylates and stabilizes ZBTB7B protein by antagonizing ubiquitin conjugation and degradation, this mechanism may be involved in CD4/CD8 lineage differentiation. Acetylates GABPB1, impairing GABPB1 heterotetramerization and activity (By similarity). Acetylates PCK1 and promotes PCK1 anaplerotic activity. Acetylates RXRA and RXRG. Acetylates isoform M2 of PKM (PKM2), promoting its homodimerization and conversion into a protein kinase. In addition to protein acetyltransferase, can use different acyl-CoA substrates, such as (2E)-butenoyl-CoA (crotonyl- CoA), butanoyl-CoA (butyryl-CoA), 2-hydroxyisobutanoyl-CoA (2- hydroxyisobutyryl-CoA), lactoyl-CoA or propanoyl-CoA (propionyl-CoA), and is able to mediate protein crotonylation, butyrylation, 2- hydroxyisobutyrylation, lactylation or propionylation, respectively. Acts as a histone crotonyltransferase; crotonylation marks active promoters and enhancers and confers resistance to transcriptional repressors. Histone crotonyltransferase activity is dependent on the concentration of (2E)-butenoyl-CoA (crotonyl-CoA) substrate and such activity is weak when (2E)-butenoyl-CoA (crotonyl- CoA) concentration is low. Also acts as a histone butyryltransferase; butyrylation marks active promoters. Catalyzes histone lactylation in macrophages by using lactoyl-CoA directly derived from endogenous or exogenous lactate, leading to stimulates gene transcription. Acts as a protein-lysine 2-hydroxyisobutyryltransferase; regulates glycolysis by mediating 2-hydroxyisobutyrylation of glycolytic enzymes. Functions as a transcriptional coactivator for SMAD4 in the TGF-beta signaling pathway.

Component of the NuA4 histone acetyltransferase complex which is involved in transcriptional activation of select genes principally by acetylation of nucleosomal histones H4 and H2A. This modification may both alter nucleosome - DNA interactions and promote interaction of the modified histones with other proteins which positively regulate transcription. May be required for transcriptional activation of E2F1 and MYC target genes during cellular proliferation. The NuA4 complex ATPase and helicase activities seem to be, at least in part, contributed by the association of RUVBL1 and RUVBL2 with EP400. May regulate ZNF42 transcription activity. Component of a SWR1-like complex that specifically mediates the removal of histone H2A.Z/H2AZ1 from the nucleosome.

Transcription factor involved in the induction of oxygen regulated genes. Heterodimerizes with ARNT; heterodimer binds to core DNA sequence 5'-TACGTG-3' within the hypoxia response element (HRE) of target gene promoters (By similarity). Regulates the vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) expression and seems to be implicated in the development of blood vessels and the tubular system of lung. May also play a role in the formation of the endothelium that gives rise to the blood brain barrier. Potent activator of the Tie-2 tyrosine kinase expression. Activation requires recruitment of transcriptional coactivators such as CREBBP and probably EP300. Interaction with redox regulatory protein APEX1 seems to activate CTAD (By similarity).

Protein 4.1 is a major structural element of the erythrocyte membrane skeleton. It plays a key role in regulating membrane physical properties of mechanical stability and deformability by stabilizing spectrin-actin interaction. Recruits DLG1 to membranes. Required for dynein-dynactin complex and NUMA1 recruitment at the mitotic cell cortex during anaphase.

Probably plays an important role in the regulation of erythrocyte shape and mechanical properties

Component of the NuA4 histone acetyltransferase (HAT) complex, a multiprotein complex involved in transcriptional activation of select genes principally by acetylation of nucleosomal histones H4 and H2A. The NuA4 complex plays a direct role in repair of DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) by promoting homologous recombination (HR). The NuA4 complex is also required for spermatid development by promoting acetylation of histones: histone acetylation is required for histone replacement during the transition from round to elongating spermatids (By similarity). In the NuA4 complex, EPC1 is required to recruit MBTD1 into the complex.

May act as a physical homophilic interaction molecule between intestinal epithelial cells (IECs) and intraepithelial lymphocytes (IELs) at the mucosal epithelium for providing immunological barrier as a first line of defense against mucosal infection. Plays a role in embryonic stem cells proliferation and differentiation. Up-regulates the expression of FABP5, MYC and cyclins A and E.

Binds activated protein C. Enhances protein C activation by the thrombin-thrombomodulin complex; plays a role in the protein C pathway controlling blood coagulation

Involved in autophagy. May play a role in a late step of autophagy, such as clearance of autophagosomal cargo. Plays a key role in innate and adaptive immune response triggered by unmethylated cytidine-phosphate-guanosine (CpG) dinucleotides from pathogens, and mediated by the nucleotide-sensing receptor TLR9. It is necessary for the translocation of CpG dinucleotides from early endosomes to late endosomes and lysosomes, where TLR9 is located.

Promotes the growth of epithelial cells. May stimulate the phosphorylation of EGFR and mitogen-activated protein kinases.

Receptor tyrosine kinase which binds promiscuously membrane- bound ephrin-A family ligands residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. The signaling pathway downstream of the receptor is referred to as forward signaling while the signaling pathway downstream of the ephrin ligand is referred to as reverse signaling. Binds with a low affinity EFNA3 and EFNA4 and with a high affinity to EFNA1 which most probably constitutes its cognate/functional ligand. Upon activation by EFNA1 induces cell attachment to the extracellular matrix inhibiting cell spreading and motility through regulation of ILK and downstream RHOA and RAC. Also plays a role in angiogenesis and regulates cell proliferation. May play a role in apoptosis.

Receptor tyrosine kinase which binds promiscuously membrane- bound ephrin-A family ligands residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. The signaling pathway downstream of the receptor is referred to as forward signaling while the signaling pathway downstream of the ephrin ligand is referred to as reverse signaling. Activated by the ligand ephrin- A1/EFNA1 regulates migration, integrin-mediated adhesion, proliferation and differentiation of cells. Regulates cell adhesion and differentiation through DSG1/desmoglein-1 and inhibition of the ERK1/ERK2 (MAPK3/MAPK1, respectively) signaling pathway. May also participate in UV radiation-induced apoptosis and have a ligand- independent stimulatory effect on chemotactic cell migration. During development, may function in distinctive aspects of pattern formation and subsequently in development of several fetal tissues. Involved for instance in angiogenesis, in early hindbrain development and epithelial proliferation and branching morphogenesis during mammary gland development. Engaged by the ligand ephrin-A5/EFNA5 may regulate lens fiber cells shape and interactions and be important for lens transparency development and maintenance. With ephrin-A2/EFNA2 may play a role in bone remodeling through regulation of osteoclastogenesis and osteoblastogenesis.

Receptor tyrosine kinase which binds promiscuously membrane- bound ephrin family ligands residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. The signaling pathway downstream of the receptor is referred to as forward signaling while the signaling pathway downstream of the ephrin ligand is referred to as reverse signaling. Highly promiscuous for ephrin-A ligands it binds preferentially EFNA5. Upon activation by EFNA5 regulates cell-cell adhesion, cytoskeletal organization and cell migration. Plays a role in cardiac cells migration and differentiation and regulates the formation of the atrioventricular canal and septum during development probably through activation by EFNA1. Involved in the retinotectal mapping of neurons. May also control the segregation but not the guidance of motor and sensory axons during neuromuscular circuit development.

Receptor tyrosine kinase which binds membrane-bound ephrin family ligands residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. The signaling pathway downstream of the receptor is referred to as forward signaling while the signaling pathway downstream of the ephrin ligand is referred to as reverse signaling. Highly promiscuous, it has the unique property among Eph receptors to bind and to be physiologically activated by both GPI- anchored ephrin-A and transmembrane ephrin-B ligands including EFNA1 and EFNB3. Upon activation by ephrin ligands, modulates cell morphology and integrin-dependent cell adhesion through regulation of the Rac, Rap and Rho GTPases activity. Plays an important role in the development of the nervous system controlling different steps of axonal guidance including the establishment of the corticospinal projections. May also control the segregation of motor and sensory axons during neuromuscular circuit development. In addition to its role in axonal guidance plays a role in synaptic plasticity. Activated by EFNA1 phosphorylates CDK5 at 'Tyr-15' which in turn phosphorylates NGEF regulating RHOA and dendritic spine morphogenesis. In the nervous system, also plays a role in repair after injury preventing axonal regeneration and in angiogenesis playing a role in central nervous system vascular formation. Additionally, its promiscuity makes it available to participate in a variety of cell-cell signaling regulating for instance the development of the thymic epithelium. During development of the cochlear organ of Corti, regulates pillar cell separation by forming a ternary complex with ADAM10 and CADH1 which facilitates the cleavage of CADH1 by ADAM10 and disruption of adherens junctions (By similarity).

Receptor tyrosine kinase which binds promiscuously GPI- anchored ephrin-A family ligands residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. The signaling pathway downstream of the receptor is referred to as forward signaling while the signaling pathway downstream of the ephrin ligand is referred to as reverse signaling. Among GPI-anchored ephrin-A ligands, EFNA5 is a cognate/functional ligand for EPHA7 and their interaction regulates brain development modulating cell-cell adhesion and repulsion. Has a repellent activity on axons and is for instance involved in the guidance of corticothalamic axons and in the proper topographic mapping of retinal axons to the colliculus. May also regulate brain development through a caspase(CASP3)-dependent proapoptotic activity. Forward signaling may result in activation of components of the ERK signaling pathway including MAP2K1, MAP2K2, MAPK1 and MAPK3 which are phosphorylated upon activation of EPHA7.

Receptor tyrosine kinase which binds promiscuously GPI- anchored ephrin-A family ligands residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. The signaling pathway downstream of the receptor is referred to as forward signaling while the signaling pathway downstream of the ephrin ligand is referred to as reverse signaling. The GPI-anchored ephrin-A EFNA2, EFNA3, and EFNA5 are able to activate EPHA8 through phosphorylation. With EFNA5 may regulate integrin-mediated cell adhesion and migration on fibronectin substrate but also neurite outgrowth. During development of the nervous system also plays a role in axon guidance. Downstream effectors of the EPHA8 signaling pathway include FYN which promotes cell adhesion upon activation by EPHA8 and the MAP kinases in the stimulation of neurite outgrowth (By similarity).

Receptor for members of the ephrin-A family. Binds to EFNA3, EFNA4 and EFNA5.

Receptor tyrosine kinase which binds promiscuously transmembrane ephrin-B family ligands residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. The signaling pathway downstream of the receptor is referred to as forward signaling while the signaling pathway downstream of the ephrin ligand is referred to as reverse signaling. Cognate/functional ephrin ligands for this receptor include EFNB1, EFNB2 and EFNB3. During nervous system development, regulates retinal axon guidance redirecting ipsilaterally ventrotemporal retinal ganglion cells axons at the optic chiasm midline. This probably requires repulsive interaction with EFNB2. In the adult nervous system together with EFNB3, regulates chemotaxis, proliferation and polarity of the hippocampus neural progenitors. In addition to its role in axon guidance also plays an important redundant role with other ephrin-B receptors in development and maturation of dendritic spines and synapse formation. May also regulate angiogenesis. More generally, may play a role in targeted cell migration and adhesion. Upon activation by EFNB1 and probably other ephrin-B ligands activates the MAPK/ERK and the JNK signaling cascades to regulate cell migration and adhesion respectively. Involved in the maintenance of the pool of satellite cells (muscle stem cells) by promoting their self-renewal and reducing their activation and differentiation (By similarity).

Receptor tyrosine kinase which binds promiscuously transmembrane ephrin-B family ligands residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. The signaling pathway downstream of the receptor is referred to as forward signaling while the signaling pathway downstream of the ephrin ligand is referred to as reverse signaling. Functions in axon guidance during development. Involved in the guidance of commissural axons, that form a major interhemispheric connection between the 2 temporal lobes of the cerebral cortex. Also involved in guidance of contralateral inner ear efferent growth cones at the midline and of retinal ganglion cell axons to the optic disk. In addition to axon guidance, also regulates dendritic spines development and maturation and stimulates the formation of excitatory synapses. Upon activation by EFNB1, abolishes the ARHGEF15-mediated negative regulation on excitatory synapse formation. Controls other aspects of development including angiogenesis, palate development and in inner ear development through regulation of endolymph production. Forward and reverse signaling through the EFNB2/EPHB2 complex regulate movement and adhesion of cells that tubularize the urethra and septate the cloaca. May function as a tumor suppressor. May be involved in the regulation of platelet activation and blood coagulation.

Receptor tyrosine kinase which binds promiscuously transmembrane ephrin-B family ligands residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. The signaling pathway downstream of the receptor is referred to as forward signaling while the signaling pathway downstream of the ephrin ligand is referred to as reverse signaling. Generally has an overlapping and redundant function with EPHB2. Like EPHB2, functions in axon guidance during development regulating for instance the neurons forming the corpus callosum and the anterior commissure, 2 major interhemispheric connections between the temporal lobes of the cerebral cortex. In addition to its role in axon guidance also plays an important redundant role with other ephrin-B receptors in development and maturation of dendritic spines and the formation of excitatory synapses. Controls other aspects of development through regulation of cell migration and positioning. This includes angiogenesis, palate development and thymic epithelium development for instance. Forward and reverse signaling through the EFNB2/EPHB3 complex also regulate migration and adhesion of cells that tubularize the urethra and septate the cloaca. Finally, plays an important role in intestinal epithelium differentiation segregating progenitor from differentiated cells in the crypt.

Receptor tyrosine kinase which binds promiscuously transmembrane ephrin-B family ligands residing on adjacent cells, leading to contact-dependent bidirectional signaling into neighboring cells. The signaling pathway downstream of the receptor is referred to as forward signaling while the signaling pathway downstream of the ephrin ligand is referred to as reverse signaling. Together with its cognate ligand/functional ligand EFNB2 it is involved in the regulation of cell adhesion and migration, and plays a central role in heart morphogenesis, angiogenesis and blood vessel remodeling and permeability. EPHB4-mediated forward signaling controls cellular repulsion and segregation from EFNB2-expressing cells.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of epoxide-containing fatty acids. Active in vitro against epoxyeicosatrienoic acids (EETs) including 8,9- EET, 9,10-EET, 11,12-EET and 14,15-EET and leukotoxin.

Cytoskeletal linker protein that connects to intermediate filaments and controls their reorganization in response to stress. In response to mechanical stress like wound healing, is associated with the machinery for cellular motility by slowing down keratinocyte migration and proliferation and accelerating keratin bundling in proliferating keratinocytes thus contributing to tissue architecture. However in wound healing in corneal epithelium also positively regulates cell differentiation and proliferation and negatively regulates migration thereby controlling corneal epithelium morphogenesis and integrity. In response to cellular stress, plays a role in keratin filament reorganization, probably by protecting keratin filaments against disruption. During liver and pancreas injuries, plays a protective role by chaperoning disease- induced intermediate filament reorganization (By similarity).

Plays an important role in preventing glycogen hyperphosphorylation and the formation of insoluble aggregates, via its activity as glycogen phosphatase, and by promoting the ubiquitination of proteins involved in glycogen metabolism via its interaction with the E3 ubiquitin ligase NHLRC1/malin. Shows strong phosphatase activity towards complex carbohydrates in vitro, avoiding glycogen hyperphosphorylation which is associated with reduced branching and formation of insoluble aggregates. Dephosphorylates phosphotyrosine and synthetic substrates, such as para- nitrophenylphosphate (pNPP), and has low activity with phosphoserine and phosphothreonine substrates (in vitro). Has been shown to dephosphorylate MAPT (By similarity). Forms a complex with NHLRC1/malin and HSP70, which suppresses the cellular toxicity of misfolded proteins by promoting their degradation through the ubiquitin-proteasome system (UPS). Acts as a scaffold protein to facilitate PPP1R3C/PTG ubiquitination by NHLRC1/malin. Also promotes proteasome-independent protein degradation through the macroautophagy pathway.

Binds to membranes enriched in phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2). Modifies membrane curvature and facilitates the formation of clathrin-coated invaginations (By similarity). Regulates receptor-mediated endocytosis.

Plays a role in the formation of clathrin-coated invaginations and endocytosis.

Binds to membranes enriched in phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2). May have a role in transport via clathrin-coated vesicles from the trans-Golgi network to endosomes. Stimulates clathrin assembly.

Scaffold protein that serves as a bridging partner between the PRC2/EZH2 complex and the elongin BC complex: required to fine-tune the transcriptional status of Polycomb group (PcG) target genes in embryonic stem cells (ESCs). Plays a key role in genomic regions that display both active and repressive chromatin properties in pluripotent stem cells by sustaining low level expression at PcG target genes: acts by recruiting the elongin BC complex, thereby restricting excessive activity of the PRC2/EZH2 complex. Interaction with USP7 promotes deubiquitination of H2B at promoter sites. Acts as a regulator of neuronal differentiation.

Receptor for erythropoietin. Mediates erythropoietin-induced erythroblast proliferation and differentiation. Upon EPO stimulation, EPOR dimerizes triggering the JAK2/STAT5 signaling cascade. In some cell types, can also activate STAT1 and STAT3. May also activate the LYN tyrosine kinase

Hormone involved in the regulation of erythrocyte proliferation and differentiation and the maintenance of a physiological level of circulating erythrocyte mass. Binds to EPOR leading to EPOR dimerization and JAK2 activation thereby activating specific downstream effectors, including STAT1 and STAT3.

Serine protease inhibitor that plays an essential role in male reproduction and fertility. Modulates the hydrolysis of SEMG1 by KLK3/PSA (a serine protease), provides antimicrobial protection for spermatozoa in the ejaculate coagulum, and binds SEMG1 thereby inhibiting sperm motility.

Involved in cell growth regulation. May be involved in the regulation of mitogenic signals and control of cell proliferation. Involved in the internalization of ligand-inducible receptors of the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) type, in particular EGFR. Plays a role in the assembly of clathrin-coated pits (CCPs). Acts as a clathrin adapter required for post-Golgi trafficking. Seems to be involved in CCPs maturation including invagination or budding. Involved in endocytosis of integrin beta-1 (ITGB1) and transferrin receptor (TFR); internalization of ITGB1 as DAB2-dependent cargo but not TFR seems to require association with DAB2.

Signaling adapter that controls various cellular protrusions by regulating actin cytoskeleton dynamics and architecture. Depending on its association with other signal transducers, can regulate different processes. Together with SOS1 and ABI1, forms a trimeric complex that participates in transduction of signals from Ras to Rac by activating the Rac-specific guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) activity. Acts as a direct regulator of actin dynamics by binding actin filaments and has both barbed-end actin filament capping and actin bundling activities depending on the context. Displays barbed-end actin capping activity when associated with ABI1, thereby regulating actin- based motility process: capping activity is auto-inhibited and inhibition is relieved upon ABI1 interaction. Also shows actin bundling activity when associated with BAIAP2, enhancing BAIAP2-dependent membrane extensions and promoting filopodial protrusions. Involved in the regulation of processes such as axonal filopodia growth, stereocilia length, dendritic cell migration and cancer cell migration and invasion. Acts as a regulator of axonal filopodia formation in neurons: in the absence of neurotrophic factors, negatively regulates axonal filopodia formation via actin-capping activity. In contrast, it is phosphorylated in the presence of BDNF leading to inhibition of its actin-capping activity and stimulation of filopodia formation. Component of a complex with WHRN and MYO15A that localizes at stereocilia tips and is required for elongation of the stereocilia actin core. Indirectly involved in cell cycle progression; its degradation following ubiquitination being required during G2 phase to promote cell shape changes.

Ethanolaminephosphotransferase that catalyzes the transfer of phosphoethanolamine/PE from CDP-ethanolamine to lipid acceptors, the final step in the synthesis of PE via the 'Kennedy' pathway. PE is the second most abundant phospholipid of membranes in mammals and is involved in various membrane-related cellular processes. The enzyme is critical for the synthesis of several PE species and could also catalyze the synthesis of ether-linked phospholipids like plasmanyl- and plasmenyl-PE which could explain it is required for proper myelination and neurodevelopment.

May have a role in bone formation and also in establishing the ordered structure of cartilage through matrix organization

Acrosomal membrane-anchored protein involved in the process of fertilization and in acrosome biogenesis.

Probable GTPase that plays a role in the mitochondrial ribosomal small subunit assembly. Specifically binds the 12S mitochondrial rRNA (12S mt-rRNA) to a 33 nucleotide section delineating the 3' terminal stem-loop region. May act as a chaperone that protects the 12S mt-rRNA on the 28S mitoribosomal subunit during ribosomal small subunit assembly.

Aminopeptidase that plays a central role in peptide trimming, a step required for the generation of most HLA class I-binding peptides. Peptide trimming is essential to customize longer precursor peptides to fit them to the correct length required for presentation on MHC class I molecules. Strongly prefers substrates 9-16 residues long. Rapidly degrades 13-mer to a 9-mer and then stops. Preferentially hydrolyzes the residue Leu and peptides with a hydrophobic C-terminus, while it has weak activity toward peptides with charged C-terminus. May play a role in the inactivation of peptide hormones. May be involved in the regulation of blood pressure through the inactivation of angiotensin II and/or the generation of bradykinin in the kidney.

Aminopeptidase that plays a central role in peptide trimming, a step required for the generation of most HLA class I-binding peptides. Peptide trimming is essential to customize longer precursor peptides to fit them to the correct length required for presentation on MHC class I molecules. Preferentially hydrolyzes the basic residues Arg and Lys.

Protein tyrosine kinase that is part of several cell surface receptor complexes, but that apparently needs a coreceptor for ligand binding. Essential component of a neuregulin-receptor complex, although neuregulins do not interact with it alone. GP30 is a potential ligand for this receptor. Regulates outgrowth and stabilization of peripheral microtubules (MTs). Upon ERBB2 activation, the MEMO1-RHOA-DIAPH1 signaling pathway elicits the phosphorylation and thus the inhibition of GSK3B at cell membrane. This prevents the phosphorylation of APC and CLASP2, allowing its association with the cell membrane. In turn, membrane-bound APC allows the localization of MACF1 to the cell membrane, which is required for microtubule capture and stabilization.

Tyrosine-protein kinase that plays an essential role as cell surface receptor for neuregulins. Binds to neuregulin-1 (NRG1) and is activated by it; ligand-binding increases phosphorylation on tyrosine residues and promotes its association with the p85 subunit of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase. May also be activated by CSPG5. Involved in the regulation of myeloid cell differentiation.

Tyrosine-protein kinase that plays an essential role as cell surface receptor for neuregulins and EGF family members and regulates development of the heart, the central nervous system and the mammary gland, gene transcription, cell proliferation, differentiation, migration and apoptosis. Required for normal cardiac muscle differentiation during embryonic development, and for postnatal cardiomyocyte proliferation. Required for normal development of the embryonic central nervous system, especially for normal neural crest cell migration and normal axon guidance. Required for mammary gland differentiation, induction of milk proteins and lactation. Acts as cell-surface receptor for the neuregulins NRG1, NRG2, NRG3 and NRG4 and the EGF family members BTC, EREG and HBEGF. Ligand binding triggers receptor dimerization and autophosphorylation at specific tyrosine residues that then serve as binding sites for scaffold proteins and effectors. Ligand specificity and signaling is modulated by alternative splicing, proteolytic processing, and by the formation of heterodimers with other ERBB family members, thereby creating multiple combinations of intracellular phosphotyrosines that trigger ligand- and context- specific cellular responses. Mediates phosphorylation of SHC1 and activation of the MAP kinases MAPK1/ERK2 and MAPK3/ERK1. Isoform JM-A CYT-1 and isoform JM-B CYT-1 phosphorylate PIK3R1, leading to the activation of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase and AKT1 and protect cells against apoptosis. Isoform JM-A CYT-1 and isoform JM-B CYT-1 mediate reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and promote cell migration in response to NRG1. Isoform JM-A CYT-2 and isoform JM-B CYT-2 lack the phosphotyrosine that mediates interaction with PIK3R1, and hence do not phosphorylate PIK3R1, do not protect cells against apoptosis, and do not promote reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and cell migration. Proteolytic processing of isoform JM-A CYT-1 and isoform JM- A CYT-2 gives rise to the corresponding soluble intracellular domains (4ICD) that translocate to the nucleus, promote nuclear import of STAT5A, activation of STAT5A, mammary epithelium differentiation, cell proliferation and activation of gene expression. The ERBB4 soluble intracellular domains (4ICD) colocalize with STAT5A at the CSN2 promoter to regulate transcription of milk proteins during lactation. The ERBB4 soluble intracellular domains can also translocate to mitochondria and promote apoptosis.

Acts as an adapter for the receptor ERBB2, in epithelia. By binding the unphosphorylated 'Tyr-1248' of receptor ERBB2, it may contribute to stabilize this unphosphorylated state. Inhibits NOD2-dependent NF-kappa-B signaling and pro-inflammatory cytokine secretion.

Thought to be involved in the organization of the cytomatrix at the nerve terminals active zone (CAZ) which regulates neurotransmitter release. Seems to act together with BSN. May recruit liprin-alpha proteins to the CAZ

DNA helicase that acts as a tension sensor that associates with catenated DNA which is stretched under tension until it is resolved during anaphase. Functions as ATP-dependent DNA translocase. Can promote Holliday junction branch migration (in vitro).

[Isoform 1]: Non-catalytic component of a structure-specific DNA repair endonuclease responsible for the 5'-incision during DNA repair. Responsible, in conjunction with SLX4, for the first step in the repair of interstrand cross-links (ICL). Participates in the processing of anaphase bridge-generating DNA structures, which consist in incompletely processed DNA lesions arising during S or G2 phase, and can result in cytokinesis failure. Also required for homology-directed repair (HDR) of DNA double-strand breaks, in conjunction with SLX4.

ATP-dependent 5'-3' DNA helicase, component of the general transcription and DNA repair factor IIH (TFIIH) core complex, which is involved in general and transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair (NER) of damaged DNA and, when complexed to CAK, in RNA transcription by RNA polymerase II. In NER, TFIIH acts by opening DNA around the lesion to allow the excision of the damaged oligonucleotide and its replacement by a new DNA fragment. The ATP-dependent helicase activity of XPD/ERCC2 is required for DNA opening. In transcription, TFIIH has an essential role in transcription initiation. When the pre- initiation complex (PIC) has been established, TFIIH is required for promoter opening and promoter escape. Phosphorylation of the C-terminal tail (CTD) of the largest subunit of RNA polymerase II by the kinase module CAK controls the initiation of transcription. XPD/ERCC2 acts by forming a bridge between CAK and the core-TFIIH complex. Involved in the regulation of vitamin-D receptor activity. As part of the mitotic spindle-associated MMXD complex it plays a role in chromosome segregation. Might have a role in aging process and could play a causative role in the generation of skin cancers.

ATP-dependent 3'-5' DNA helicase, component of the general transcription and DNA repair factor IIH (TFIIH) core complex, which is involved in general and transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair (NER) of damaged DNA and, when complexed to CAK, in RNA transcription by RNA polymerase II. In NER, TFIIH acts by opening DNA around the lesion to allow the excision of the damaged oligonucleotide and its replacement by a new DNA fragment. The ATPase activity of XPB/ERCC3, but not its helicase activity, is required for DNA opening. In transcription, TFIIH has an essential role in transcription initiation. When the pre-initiation complex (PIC) has been established, TFIIH is required for promoter opening and promoter escape. The ATP-dependent helicase activity of XPB/ERCC3 is required for promoter opening and promoter escape. Phosphorylation of the C-terminal tail (CTD) of the largest subunit of RNA polymerase II by the kinase module CAK controls the initiation of transcription.

Single-stranded structure-specific DNA endonuclease involved in DNA excision repair. Makes the 3'incision in DNA nucleotide excision repair (NER). Binds and bends DNA repair bubble substrate and breaks base stacking at the single- strand/double-strand DNA junction of the DNA bubble. Plays a role in base excision repair (BER) by promoting the binding of DNA glycosylase NTHL1 to its substrate and increasing NTHL1 catalytic activity that removes oxidized pyrimidines from DNA. Involved in transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair (TCR) which allows RNA polymerase II-blocking lesions to be rapidly removed from the transcribed strand of active genes. Functions during the initial step of TCR in cooperation with ERCC6/CSB to recognized stalled RNA polymerase II. Also, stimulates ERCC6/CSB binding to the DNA repair bubble and ERCC6/CSB ATPase activity. Required for DNA replication fork maintenance and preservation of genomic stability. Involved in homologous recombination repair (HRR) induced by DNA replication stress by recruiting RAD51, BRCA2, and PALB2 to the damaged DNA site. During HRR, binds to the replication fork with high specificity and stabilizes it. Also, acts upstream of HRR, to promote the release of BRCA1 from DNA.

Essential factor involved in transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair which allows RNA polymerase II-blocking lesions to be rapidly removed from the transcribed strand of active genes. Upon DNA-binding, it locally modifies DNA conformation by wrapping the DNA around itself, thereby modifying the interface between stalled RNA polymerase II and DNA. It is required for transcription-coupled repair complex formation. It recruits the CSA complex (DCX(ERCC8) complex), nucleotide excision repair proteins and EP300 to the sites of RNA polymerase II-blocking lesions. Plays an important role in regulating the choice of the DNA double- strand breaks (DSBs) repair pathway and G2/M checkpoint activation; DNA-dependent ATPase activity is essential for this function. Regulates the DNA repair pathway choice by inhibiting non-homologous end joining (NHEJ), thereby promoting the homologous recombination (HR)-mediated repair of DSBs during the S/G2 phases of the cell cycle. Mediates the activation of the ATM- and CHEK2-dependent DNA damage responses thus preventing premature entry of cells into mitosis following the induction of DNA DSBs. Acts as a chromatin remodeler at DSBs; DNA- dependent ATPase-dependent activity is essential for this function. Remodels chromatin by evicting histones from chromatin flanking DSBs, limiting RIF1 accumulation at DSBs thereby promoting BRCA1-mediated HR. Required for stable recruitment of ELOA and CUL5 to DNA damage sites. Involved in UV-induced translocation of ERCC8 to the nuclear matrix. Essential for neuronal differentiation and neuritogenesis; regulates transcription and chromatin remodeling activities required during neurogenesis.

Substrate-recognition component of the CSA complex, a DCX (DDB1-CUL4-X-box) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex, involved in transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair. The CSA complex (DCX(ERCC8) complex) promotes the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of ERCC6 in a UV-dependent manner; ERCC6 degradation is essential for the recovery of RNA synthesis after transcription-coupled repair. It is required for the recruitment of XAB2, HMGN1 and TCEA1/TFIIS to a transcription-coupled repair complex which removes RNA polymerase II-blocking lesions from the transcribed strand of active genes. Plays a role in DNA single-strand and double- strand breaks (DSSBs) repair; involved in repair of DSSBs by non- homologous end joining (NHEJ).

Receptor for the C-terminal sequence motif K-D-E-L that is present on endoplasmic reticulum resident proteins and that mediates their recycling from the Golgi back to the endoplasmic reticulum.

Membrane receptor that binds the K-D-E-L sequence motif in the C-terminal part of endoplasmic reticulum resident proteins and maintains their localization in that compartment by participating to their vesicle-mediated recycling back from the Golgi. Binding is pH dependent, and is optimal at pH 5-5.4 (By similarity).

Ligand of the EGF receptor/EGFR and ERBB4. Stimulates EGFR and ERBB4 tyrosine phosphorylation. Contributes to inflammation, wound healing, tissue repair, and oocyte maturation by regulating angiogenesis and vascular remodeling and by stimulating cell proliferation.

Functions as an activator of the E3 ubiquitin protein ligase ITCH in the ubiquitination of the CXCL12-activated CXCR4 receptor. Thereby, triggers CXCR4 endocytosis and desensitization, negatively regulating the CXCL12/CXCR4 signaling pathway.

Directs the termination of nascent peptide synthesis (translation) in response to the termination codons UAA, UAG and UGA. Component of the transient SURF complex which recruits UPF1 to stalled ribosomes in the context of nonsense-mediated decay (NMD) of mRNAs containing premature stop codons. Required for SHFL-mediated translation termination which inhibits programmed ribosomal frameshifting (-1PRF) of mRNA from viruses and cellular genes.

Involved in translation termination in response to the termination codons UAA, UAG and UGA (By similarity). Stimulates the activity of ETF1 (By similarity). Involved in regulation of mammalian cell growth. Component of the transient SURF complex which recruits UPF1 to stalled ribosomes in the context of nonsense- mediated decay (NMD) of mRNAs containing premature stop codons. Required for SHFL-mediated translation termination which inhibits programmed ribosomal frameshifting (-1PRF) of mRNA from viruses and cellular genes.

Involved in translation termination in response to the termination codons UAA, UAG and UGA. May play a role as a potent stimulator of the release factor activity of ETF1. Exhibits GTPase activity, which is ribosome- and ETF1-dependent. May play a role in cell cycle progression. Component of the transient SURF complex which recruits UPF1 to stalled ribosomes in the context of nonsense-mediated decay (NMD) of mRNAs containing premature stop codons.

Iron-regulatory hormone that acts as an erythroid regulator after hemorrhage: produced by erythroblasts following blood loss and mediates suppression of hepcidin (HAMP) expression in the liver, thereby promoting increased iron absorption and mobilization from stores. Promotes lipid uptake into adipocytes and hepatocytes via transcriptional up-regulation of genes involved in fatty acid uptake.

Potent transcriptional repressor that binds to the H1 element of the Ets2 promoter. May regulate other genes involved in cellular proliferation. Required for extraembryonic ectoderm differentiation, ectoplacental cone cavity closure, and chorioallantoic attachment (By similarity). May be important for regulating trophoblast stem cell differentiation (By similarity).

Catalyzes the stereospecific oxidation of squalene to (S)- 2,3-epoxysqualene, and is considered to be a rate-limiting enzyme in steroid biosynthesis.

Catalyzes the reduction of the C14-unsaturated bond of lanosterol, as part of the metabolic pathway leading to cholesterol biosynthesis.

Possible role in transport between endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi.

Possible role in transport between endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi. Positively regulates trafficking of the secretory proteins SERPINA1/alpha1-antitrypsin and HP/haptoglobin.

Transcriptional regulator. May participate in transcriptional regulation through the recruitment of SETDB1 histone methyltransferase and subsequent modification of local chromatin structure

RNA exonuclease that binds to the 3'-end of histone mRNAs and degrades them, suggesting that it plays an essential role in histone mRNA decay after replication. A 2' and 3'-hydroxyl groups at the last nucleotide of the histone 3'-end is required for efficient degradation of RNA substrates. Also able to degrade the 3'-overhangs of short interfering RNAs (siRNAs) in vitro, suggesting a possible role as regulator of RNA interference (RNAi). Requires for binding the 5'- ACCCA-3' sequence present in stem-loop structure. Able to bind other mRNAs. Required for 5.8S rRNA 3'-end processing. Also binds to 5.8s ribosomal RNA. Binds with high affinity to the stem-loop structure of replication-dependent histone pre-mRNAs.

Probable lectin that binds selectively to improperly folded lumenal proteins. May function in endoplasmic reticulum quality control and endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) of both non- glycosylated proteins and glycoproteins.

Component of the ERLIN1/ERLIN2 complex which mediates the endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) of inositol 1,4,5- trisphosphate receptors (IP3Rs). Involved in regulation of cellular cholesterol homeostasis by regulation the SREBP signaling pathway. Binds cholesterol and may promote ER retention of the SCAP-SREBF complex.

Component of the ERLIN1/ERLIN2 complex which mediates the endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) of inositol 1,4,5- trisphosphate receptors (IP3Rs) such as ITPR1. Promotes sterol-accelerated ERAD of HMGCR probably implicating an AMFR/gp78-containing ubiquitin ligase complex. Involved in regulation of cellular cholesterol homeostasis by regulation the SREBP signaling pathway. May promote ER retention of the SCAP-SREBF complex.

Possible role as a cell-adhesion or receptor molecule of erythroid cells

Plays a role in cytoskeletal rearrangements during the late wrapping and/or compaction phases of myelinogenesis as well as in maintenance and stability of myelin sheath in the adult. May play an important role in late-stage oligodendroglia maturation, myelin/Ranvier node formation during CNS development, and in the maintenance and plasticity of related structures in the mature CNS (By similarity).

Within the ovary, required for the organization of somatic cells and oocytes into discrete follicular structures.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase and endoribonuclease that acts as a key sensor for the endoplasmic reticulum unfolded protein response (UPR). In unstressed cells, the endoplasmic reticulum luminal domain is maintained in its inactive monomeric state by binding to the endoplasmic reticulum chaperone HSPA5/BiP. Accumulation of misfolded proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum causes release of HSPA5/BiP, allowing the luminal domain to homodimerize, promoting autophosphorylation of the kinase domain and subsequent activation of the endoribonuclease activity. The endoribonuclease activity is specific for XBP1 mRNA and excises 26 nucleotides from XBP1 mRNA. The resulting spliced transcript of XBP1 encodes a transcriptional activator protein that up-regulates expression of UPR target genes. Acts as an upstream signal for ER stress-induced GORASP2-mediated unconventional (ER/Golgi-independent) trafficking of CFTR to cell membrane by modulating the expression and localization of SEC16A.

Induces translational repression through 28S ribosomal RNA cleavage in response to ER stress. Pro-apoptotic. Appears to play no role in the unfolded-protein response, unlike closely related proteins.

Oxidoreductase involved in disulfide bond formation in the endoplasmic reticulum. Efficiently reoxidizes P4HB/PDI, the enzyme catalyzing protein disulfide formation, in order to allow P4HB to sustain additional rounds of disulfide formation. Following P4HB reoxidation, passes its electrons to molecular oxygen via FAD, leading to the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) in the cell. Required for the proper folding of immunoglobulins. Plays an important role in ER stress-induced, CHOP-dependent apoptosis by activating the inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate receptor IP3R1. Involved in the release of the unfolded cholera toxin from reduced P4HB/PDI in case of infection by V.cholerae, thereby playing a role in retrotranslocation of the toxin.

Oxidoreductase involved in disulfide bond formation in the endoplasmic reticulum. Efficiently reoxidizes P4HB/PDI, the enzyme catalyzing protein disulfide formation, in order to allow P4HB to sustain additional rounds of disulfide formation. Other protein disulfide isomerase family members can also be reoxidized, but at lower rates compared to P4HB, including PDIA2 (50% of P4HB reoxidation rate), as well as PDIA3, PDIA4, PDIA6 and NXNDC12 (<10%). Following P4HB reoxidation, passes its electrons to molecular oxygen via FAD, leading to the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) in the cell. May be involved in oxidative proinsulin folding in pancreatic cells, hence may play a role in glucose homeostasis.

Specifically binds unfolded proteins and may recruit protein disulfide isomerase PDIA3 to unfolded substrates. Binds protein substrates via a hydrophobic pocket in the C-terminal domain. May play a role in the unfolded stress response.

Does not seem to be a disulfide isomerase. Plays an important role in the processing of secretory proteins within the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), possibly by participating in the folding of proteins in the ER

Mediates thiol-dependent retention in the early secretory pathway, forming mixed disulfides with substrate proteins through its conserved CRFS motif. Inhibits the calcium channel activity of ITPR1. May have a role in the control of oxidative protein folding in the endoplasmic reticulum. Required to retain ERO1A and ERO1B in the endoplasmic reticulum.

Involved in repair of DNA damage following UV irradiation, acting either in the absence of ERCC6 or synergistically with ERCC6. Involved in the regulation of gene expression. In the absence of ERCC6, induces the expression of genes characteristic of interferon-like antiviral responses. This response is almost completely suppressed in the presence of ERCC6. In the presence of ERCC6, regulates the expression of genes involved in metabolism regulation, including IGFBP5 and IGFBP7. In vitro binds to PGBD3-related transposable elements, called MER85s; these non-autonomous 140 bp elements are characterized by the presence of PGBD3 terminal inverted repeats and the absence of internal transposase ORF.

Binds to an ERR-alpha response element (ERRE) containing a single consensus half-site, 5'-TNAAGGTCA-3'. Can bind to the medium- chain acyl coenzyme A dehydrogenase (MCAD) response element NRRE-1 and may act as an important regulator of MCAD promoter. Binds to the C1 region of the lactoferrin gene promoter. Requires dimerization and the coactivator, PGC-1A, for full activity. The ERRalpha/PGC1alpha complex is a regulator of energy metabolism. Induces the expression of PERM1 in the skeletal muscle.

Orphan receptor that acts as transcription activator in the absence of bound ligand. Binds specifically to an estrogen response element and activates reporter genes controlled by estrogen response elements (By similarity). Induces the expression of PERM1 in the skeletal muscle.

Negative regulator of EGFR signaling in skin morphogenesis. Acts as a negative regulator for several EGFR family members, including ERBB2, ERBB3 and ERBB4. Inhibits EGFR catalytic activity by interfering with its dimerization. Inhibits autophosphorylation of EGFR, ERBB2 and ERBB4. Important for normal keratinocyte proliferation and differentiation. Plays a role in modulating the response to steroid hormones in the uterus. Required for normal response to progesterone in the uterus and for fertility. Mediates epithelial estrogen responses in the uterus by regulating ESR1 levels and activation. Important for regulation of endometrium cell proliferation. Important for normal prenatal and perinatal lung development (By similarity).

Stimulates guanine exchange activity of SOS1. May play a role in membrane ruffling and remodeling of the actin cytoskeleton.

Stimulates guanine exchange activity of SOS1. May play a role in membrane ruffling and remodeling of the actin cytoskeleton. In the cochlea, is required for stereocilia maintenance in adult hair cells (By similarity).

Can mediate aggregation most likely through a homophilic molecular interaction.

Acetyltransferase required for the establishment of sister chromatid cohesion. Couples the processes of cohesion and DNA replication to ensure that only sister chromatids become paired together. In contrast to the structural cohesins, the deposition and establishment factors are required only during S phase. Acts by mediating the acetylation of cohesin component SMC3.

Acetyltransferase required for the establishment of sister chromatid cohesion. Couples the processes of cohesion and DNA replication to ensure that only sister chromatids become paired together. In contrast to the structural cohesins, the deposition and establishment factors are required only during the S phase. Acetylates the cohesin component SMC3.

May constitute a novel regulatory system for basal transcription. Negatively regulates ABT1 (By similarity).

Plays a role in M1 macrophage polarization and is required for the proper regulation of gene expression during M1 versus M2 macrophage differentiation (By similarity). Might play a role in RELA/p65 and STAT1 phosphorylation and nuclear localization upon activation of macrophages (By similarity).

Involved in angiogenesis; promotes angiogenic sprouting. May have potent implications in lung endothelial cell-leukocyte interactions.

Binds to spermatozoa upon ejaculation and may play a role in sperm capacitation. Has phosphorylcholine-binding activity (By similarity).

Caspase-like protease, which plays a central role in the chromosome segregation by cleaving the SCC1/RAD21 subunit of the cohesin complex at the onset of anaphase. During most of the cell cycle, it is inactivated by different mechanisms.

Binds to but does not cross-link actin. Required for the formation and maintenance of inner ear hair cell stereocilia and staircase formation. Essential for normal hearing.

Multifunctional actin-bundling protein. Plays a major role in regulating the organization, dimension, dynamics and signaling capacities of the actin filament-rich microvilli in the mechanosensory and chemosensory cells. Required for the assembly and stabilization of the stereociliary parallel actin bundles. Plays a crucial role in the formation and maintenance of inner ear hair cell stereocilia (By similarity). Involved in the elongation of actin in stereocilia. In extrastriolar hair cells, required for targeting MYO3B to stereocilia tips, and for regulation of stereocilia diameter and staircase formation.

Nuclear hormone receptor. The steroid hormones and their receptors are involved in the regulation of eukaryotic gene expression and affect cellular proliferation and differentiation in target tissues. Ligand-dependent nuclear transactivation involves either direct homodimer binding to a palindromic estrogen response element (ERE) sequence or association with other DNA-binding transcription factors, such as AP-1/c-Jun, c-Fos, ATF-2, Sp1 and Sp3, to mediate ERE- independent signaling. Ligand binding induces a conformational change allowing subsequent or combinatorial association with multiprotein coactivator complexes through LXXLL motifs of their respective components. Mutual transrepression occurs between the estrogen receptor (ER) and NF-kappa-B in a cell-type specific manner. Decreases NF-kappa- B DNA-binding activity and inhibits NF-kappa-B-mediated transcription from the IL6 promoter and displace RELA/p65 and associated coregulators from the promoter. Recruited to the NF-kappa-B response element of the CCL2 and IL8 promoters and can displace CREBBP. Present with NF-kappa-B components RELA/p65 and NFKB1/p50 on ERE sequences. Can also act synergistically with NF-kappa-B to activate transcription involving respective recruitment adjacent response elements; the function involves CREBBP. Can activate the transcriptional activity of TFF1. Also mediates membrane-initiated estrogen signaling involving various kinase cascades. Essential for MTA1-mediated transcriptional regulation of BRCA1 and BCAS3.

Nuclear hormone receptor. Binds estrogens with an affinity similar to that of ESR1/ER-alpha, and activates expression of reporter genes containing estrogen response elements (ERE) in an estrogen- dependent manner.

mRNA splicing factor that regulates the formation of epithelial cell-specific isoforms. Specifically regulates the expression of FGFR2-IIIb, an epithelial cell-specific isoform of FGFR2. Also regulates the splicing of CD44, CTNND1, ENAH, 3 transcripts that undergo changes in splicing during the epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT). Acts by directly binding specific sequences in mRNAs. Binds the GU-rich sequence motifs in the ISE/ISS-3, a cis-element regulatory region present in the mRNA of FGFR2. Regulates splicing and expression of genes involved in inner ear development, auditory hair cell differentiation, and cell fate specification in the cochlear epithelium (By similarity).

mRNA splicing factor that regulates the formation of epithelial cell-specific isoforms. Specifically regulates the expression of FGFR2-IIIb, an epithelial cell-specific isoform of FGFR2. Also regulates the splicing of CD44, CTNND1, ENAH, 3 transcripts that undergo changes in splicing during the epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT). Acts by directly binding specific sequences in mRNAs. Binds the GU-rich sequence motifs in the ISE/ISS-3, a cis-element regulatory region present in the mRNA of FGFR2.

Component of the telomerase ribonucleoprotein (RNP) complex that is essential for the replication of chromosome termini. May have a general role in telomere regulation. Promotes in vitro the ability of TERT to elongate telomeres. Overexpression induces telomere uncapping, chromosomal end-to-end fusions (telomeric DNA persists at the fusion points) and did not perturb TRF2 telomeric localization. Binds to the single-stranded 5'-(GTGTGG)(4)GTGT-3' telomeric DNA, but not to a telomerase RNA template component (TER).

Involved in the detoxification of xenobiotics and in the activation of ester and amide prodrugs. Hydrolyzes aromatic and aliphatic esters, but has no catalytic activity toward amides or a fatty acyl-CoA ester. Hydrolyzes the methyl ester group of cocaine to form benzoylecgonine. Catalyzes the transesterification of cocaine to form cocaethylene. Displays fatty acid ethyl ester synthase activity, catalyzing the ethyl esterification of oleic acid to ethyloleate. Converts monoacylglycerides to free fatty acids and glycerol. Hydrolyzes of 2-arachidonoylglycerol and prostaglandins. Hydrolyzes cellular cholesteryl esters to free cholesterols and promotes reverse cholesterol transport (RCT) by facilitating both the initial and final steps in the process. First of all, allows free cholesterol efflux from macrophages to extracellular cholesterol acceptors and secondly, releases free cholesterol from lipoprotein-delivered cholesteryl esters in the liver for bile acid synthesis or direct secretion into the bile.

Involved in the detoxification of xenobiotics and in the activation of ester and amide prodrugs. Shows high catalytic efficiency for hydrolysis of cocaine, 4-methylumbelliferyl acetate, heroin and 6-monoacetylmorphine. Hydrolyzes aspirin, substrates with large alcohol group and small acyl group and endogenous lipids such as triacylglycerol. Converts monoacylglycerides to free fatty acids and glycerol. Hydrolyzes of 2- arachidonoylglycerol and prostaglandins.

Involved in the detoxification of xenobiotics and in the activation of ester and amide prodrugs. Shows low catalytic efficiency for hydrolysis of CPT-11 (7-ethyl-10-[4-(1-piperidino)-1-piperidino]- carbonyloxycamptothecin), a prodrug for camptothecin used in cancer therapeutics

Involved in the detoxification of xenobiotics and in the activation of ester and amide prodrugs.

Serine hydrolase involved in the detoxification of formaldehyde.

May coordinately regulate cell cycle progression and transcription during spermatogenesis. Inhibits degradation of polyubiquitinated cyclin A and cyclin B1 and thereby arrests the cell cycle at early M phase. ESXR1-N acts as a transcriptional repressor. Binds to the sequence 5'-TAATGTTATTA-3' which is present within the first intron of the KRAS gene and inhibits its expression. ESXR1-C has the ability to inhibit cyclin turnover.

Binds glycerophospholipids in a barrel-like domain and may play a role in cellular lipid transport (By similarity). Binds calcium (via the C2 domains) and translocates to sites of contact between the endoplasmic reticulum and the cell membrane in response to increased cytosolic calcium levels. Helps tether the endoplasmic reticulum to the cell membrane and promotes the formation of appositions between the endoplasmic reticulum and the cell membrane.

Binds glycerophospholipids in a barrel-like domain and may play a role in cellular lipid transport (By similarity). Tethers the endoplasmic reticulum to the cell membrane and promotes the formation of appositions between the endoplasmic reticulum and the cell membrane.

Replication stress response protein that accumulates at DNA damage sites and promotes replication fork progression and integrity. Recruited to stalled replication forks via interaction with the RPA complex and directly stimulates ATR kinase activity independently of TOPBP1. Probably only regulates a subset of ATR targets.

Heterodimeric electron transfer flavoprotein that accepts electrons from several mitochondrial dehydrogenases, including acyl-CoA dehydrogenases, glutaryl-CoA and sarcosine dehydrogenase. It transfers the electrons to the main mitochondrial respiratory chain via ETF-ubiquinone oxidoreductase (ETF dehydrogenase). Required for normal mitochondrial fatty acid oxidation and normal amino acid metabolism.

Heterodimeric electron transfer flavoprotein that accepts electrons from several mitochondrial dehydrogenases, including acyl-CoA dehydrogenases, glutaryl-CoA and sarcosine dehydrogenase. It transfers the electrons to the main mitochondrial respiratory chain via ETF- ubiquinone oxidoreductase (Probable). Required for normal mitochondrial fatty acid oxidation and normal amino acid metabolism. ETFB binds an AMP molecule that probably has a purely structural role.

Acts as a regulator of the electron transfer flavoprotein by promoting the removal of flavin from the ETF holoenzyme (composed of ETFA and ETFB).

Sulfur dioxygenase that plays an essential role in hydrogen sulfide catabolism in the mitochondrial matrix. Hydrogen sulfide (H(2)S) is first oxidized by SQRDL, giving rise to cysteine persulfide residues. ETHE1 consumes molecular oxygen to catalyze the oxidation of the persulfide, once it has been transferred to a thiophilic acceptor, such as glutathione (R-SSH). Plays an important role in metabolic homeostasis in mitochondria by metabolizing hydrogen sulfide and preventing the accumulation of supraphysiological H(2)S levels that have toxic effects, due to the inhibition of cytochrome c oxidase. First described as a protein that can shuttle between the nucleus and the cytoplasm and suppress p53-induced apoptosis by sequestering the transcription factor RELA/NFKB3 in the cytoplasm and preventing its accumulation in the nucleus.

Protein-lysine methyltransferase that selectively trimethylates the flavoprotein ETFB in mitochondria. Thereby, may negatively regulate the function of ETFB in electron transfer from Acyl-CoA dehydrogenases to the main respiratory chain.

Transcription factor. Directly controls the expression of cytokine and chemokine genes in a wide variety of different cellular contexts. May control the differentiation, survival and proliferation of lymphoid cells. May also regulate angiogenesis through regulation of expression of genes controlling endothelial cell migration and invasion.

Transcription factor activating transcription. Binds specifically the DNA GGAA/T core motif (Ets-binding site or EBS) in gene promoters and stimulates transcription.

Transcriptional activator that binds to DNA sequences containing the consensus pentanucleotide 5'-CGGA[AT]-3'. Required for olfactory dopaminergic neuron differentiation; may directly activate expression of tyrosine hydroxylase (TH) (By similarity).

Binds to DNA sequences containing the consensus pentanucleotide 5'-CGGA[AT]-3'.

Transcriptional repressor that contribute to growth arrest during terminal macrophage differentiation by repressing target genes involved in Ras-dependent proliferation. Represses MMP1 promoter activity.

Transcriptional activator. May play a role in keratinocyte differentiation.

Binds to DNA sequences containing the consensus nucleotide core sequence 5'-GGAA.-3'.

Transcriptional repressor; binds to the DNA sequence 5'- CCGGAAGT-3'. Plays a role in hematopoiesis and malignant transformation.

Transcriptional repressor; binds to the DNA sequence 5'- CCGGAAGT-3'. Isoform A does not seem to have a repressor activity. Isoform C does not seem to have a repressor activity

Plays a role in cortical progenitor cell proliferation and differentiation. Promotes dendritic spine development of post-migratory cortical projection neurons by modulating the beta-catenin signaling pathway.

Acts as a regulator of programmed cell death, mediating both autophagy and apoptosis.

Component of the EvC complex that positively regulates ciliary Hedgehog (Hh) signaling. Involved in endochondral growth and skeletal development.

May complex with itself or/and other proteins within the membrane, to function as part of a cell-surface receptor

Required for granulocyte differentiation and functionality of hematopoietic progenitor cells through the control of cell cycle progression and survival of hematopoietic progenitor cells.

Functions as a GTPase-activating protein (GAP) with a broad specificity.

Ena/VASP proteins are actin-associated proteins involved in a range of processes dependent on cytoskeleton remodeling and cell polarity such as axon guidance and lamellipodial and filopodial dynamics in migrating cells. EVL enhances actin nucleation and polymerization

Component of the cornified envelope of keratinocytes. May link the cornified envelope to desmosomes and intermediate filaments

Might normally function as a transcriptional repressor. EWS- fusion-proteins (EFPS) may play a role in the tumorigenic process. They may disturb gene expression by mimicking, or interfering with the normal function of CTD-POLII within the transcription initiation complex. They may also contribute to an aberrant activation of the fusion protein target genes

As part of the exocyst, may play a role in regulated exocytosis of insulin granules.

Component of the exocyst complex involved in the docking of exocytic vesicles with fusion sites on the plasma membrane

RNA-binding component of the PET complex, a multiprotein complex required for the processing of piRNAs during spermatogenesis. The piRNA metabolic process mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and governs the methylation and subsequent repression of transposable elements, preventing their mobilization, which is essential for the germline integrity (By similarity). The PET complex is required during the secondary piRNAs metabolic process for the PIWIL2 slicing-triggered loading of PIWIL4 piRNAs. In the PET complex, EXD1 probably acts as an RNA adapter. EXD1 is an inactive exonuclease (By similarity).

Exonuclease that has both 3'-5' exoribonuclease and exodeoxyribonuclease activities, depending on the divalent metal cation used as cofactor. In presence of Mg(2+), only shows 3'-5' exoribonuclease activity, while it shows both exoribonuclease and exodeoxyribonuclease activities in presence of Mn(2+). Acts as an exoribonuclease in mitochondrion, possibly by regulating ATP production and mitochondrial translation. Also involved in the response to DNA damage. Acts as 3'- 5' exodeoxyribonuclease for double-strand breaks resection and efficient homologous recombination. Plays a key role in controlling the initial steps of chromosomal break repair, it is recruited to chromatin in a damage-dependent manner and functionally interacts with the MRN complex to accelerate resection through its 3'-5' exonuclease activity, which efficiently processes double-stranded DNA substrates containing nicks. Also involved in response to replicative stress: recruited to stalled forks and is required to stabilize and restart stalled replication forks by restraining excessive fork regression, thereby suppressing their degradation.

5'->3' double-stranded DNA exonuclease which may also possess a cryptic 3'->5' double-stranded DNA exonuclease activity. Functions in DNA mismatch repair (MMR) to excise mismatch-containing DNA tracts directed by strand breaks located either 5' or 3' to the mismatch. Also exhibits endonuclease activity against 5'-overhanging flap structures similar to those generated by displacement synthesis when DNA polymerase encounters the 5'-end of a downstream Okazaki fragment. Required for somatic hypermutation (SHM) and class switch recombination (CSR) of immunoglobulin genes. Essential for male and female meiosis.

Single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) bidirectional exonuclease involved in DNA repair. Probably involved in DNA repair following ultraviolet (UV) irradiation and interstrand cross-links (ICLs) damage. Has both 5'-3' and 3'-5' exonuclease activities with a strong preference for 5'-ends. Acts as a sliding exonuclease that loads at ssDNA ends and then slides along the ssDNA prior to cutting; however the sliding and the 3'-5' exonuclease activities are abolished upon binding to the replication protein A (RPA) complex that enforces 5'- directionality activity.

Component of the exocyst complex involved in the docking of exocytic vesicles with fusion sites on the plasma membrane.

Component of the exocyst complex involved in the docking of exocytic vesicles with fusion sites on the plasma membrane. Together with RAB11A, RAB3IP, RAB8A, PARD3, PRKCI, ANXA2, CDC42 and DNMBP promotes transcytosis of PODXL to the apical membrane initiation sites (AMIS), apical surface formation and lumenogenesis (By similarity).

Component of the exocyst complex involved in the docking of exocytic vesicles with fusion sites on the plasma membrane. In adipocytes, plays a crucial role in targeting SLC2A4 vesicle to the plasma membrane in response to insulin, perhaps directing the vesicle to the precise site of fusion (By similarity). It is required for neuron survival and plays an essential role in cortical development (By similarity).

Endo/exonuclease with nicking activity towards supercoiled DNA, a preference for single-stranded DNA and 5'-3' exonuclease activity.

Non-catalytic component of the RNA exosome complex which has 3'->5' exoribonuclease activity and participates in a multitude of cellular RNA processing and degradation events. In the nucleus, the RNA exosome complex is involved in proper maturation of stable RNA species such as rRNA, snRNA and snoRNA, in the elimination of RNA processing by-products and non-coding 'pervasive' transcripts, such as antisense RNA species and promoter-upstream transcripts (PROMPTs), and of mRNAs with processing defects, thereby limiting or excluding their export to the cytoplasm. The RNA exosome may be involved in Ig class switch recombination (CSR) and/or Ig variable region somatic hypermutation (SHM) by targeting AICDA deamination activity to transcribed dsDNA substrates. In the cytoplasm, the RNA exosome complex is involved in general mRNA turnover and specifically degrades inherently unstable mRNAs containing AU-rich elements (AREs) within their 3' untranslated regions, and in RNA surveillance pathways, preventing translation of aberrant mRNAs. It seems to be involved in degradation of histone mRNA. The catalytic inactive RNA exosome core complex of 9 subunits (Exo-9) is proposed to play a pivotal role in the binding and presentation of RNA for ribonucleolysis, and to serve as a scaffold for the association with catalytic subunits and accessory proteins or complexes. EXOSC1 as peripheral part of the Exo-9 complex stabilizes the hexameric ring of RNase PH-domain subunits through contacts with EXOSC6 and EXOSC8

Non-catalytic component of the RNA exosome complex which has 3'->5' exoribonuclease activity and participates in a multitude of cellular RNA processing and degradation events. In the nucleus, the RNA exosome complex is involved in proper maturation of stable RNA species such as rRNA, snRNA and snoRNA, in the elimination of RNA processing by-products and non-coding 'pervasive' transcripts, such as antisense RNA species and promoter-upstream transcripts (PROMPTs), and of mRNAs with processing defects, thereby limiting or excluding their export to the cytoplasm. The RNA exosome may be involved in Ig class switch recombination (CSR) and/or Ig variable region somatic hypermutation (SHM) by targeting AICDA deamination activity to transcribed dsDNA substrates. In the cytoplasm, the RNA exosome complex is involved in general mRNA turnover and specifically degrades inherently unstable mRNAs containing AU-rich elements (AREs) within their 3' untranslated regions, and in RNA surveillance pathways, preventing translation of aberrant mRNAs. It seems to be involved in degradation of histone mRNA. The catalytic inactive RNA exosome core complex of 9 subunits (Exo-9) is proposed to play a pivotal role in the binding and presentation of RNA for ribonucleolysis, and to serve as a scaffold for the association with catalytic subunits and accessory proteins or complexes. EXOSC2 as peripheral part of the Exo-9 complex stabilizes the hexameric ring of RNase PH-domain subunits through contacts with EXOSC4 and EXOSC7.

Non-catalytic component of the RNA exosome complex which has 3'->5' exoribonuclease activity and participates in a multitude of cellular RNA processing and degradation events. In the nucleus, the RNA exosome complex is involved in proper maturation of stable RNA species such as rRNA, snRNA and snoRNA, in the elimination of RNA processing by-products and non-coding 'pervasive' transcripts, such as antisense RNA species and promoter-upstream transcripts (PROMPTs), and of mRNAs with processing defects, thereby limiting or excluding their export to the cytoplasm. The RNA exosome may be involved in Ig class switch recombination (CSR) and/or Ig variable region somatic hypermutation (SHM) by targeting AICDA deamination activity to transcribed dsDNA substrates. In the cytoplasm, the RNA exosome complex is involved in general mRNA turnover and specifically degrades inherently unstable mRNAs containing AU-rich elements (AREs) within their 3' untranslated regions, and in RNA surveillance pathways, preventing translation of aberrant mRNAs. It seems to be involved in degradation of histone mRNA. The catalytic inactive RNA exosome core complex of 9 subunits (Exo-9) is proposed to play a pivotal role in the binding and presentation of RNA for ribonucleolysis, and to serve as a scaffold for the association with catalytic subunits and accessory proteins or complexes. EXOSC3 as peripheral part of the Exo-9 complex stabilizes the hexameric ring of RNase PH-domain subunits through contacts with EXOSC9 and EXOSC5.

Non-catalytic component of the RNA exosome complex which has 3'->5' exoribonuclease activity and participates in a multitude of cellular RNA processing and degradation events. In the nucleus, the RNA exosome complex is involved in proper maturation of stable RNA species such as rRNA, snRNA and snoRNA, in the elimination of RNA processing by-products and non-coding 'pervasive' transcripts, such as antisense RNA species and promoter-upstream transcripts (PROMPTs), and of mRNAs with processing defects, thereby limiting or excluding their export to the cytoplasm. The RNA exosome may be involved in Ig class switch recombination (CSR) and/or Ig variable region somatic hypermutation (SHM) by targeting AICDA deamination activity to transcribed dsDNA substrates. In the cytoplasm, the RNA exosome complex is involved in general mRNA turnover and specifically degrades inherently unstable mRNAs containing AU-rich elements (AREs) within their 3' untranslated regions, and in RNA surveillance pathways, preventing translation of aberrant mRNAs. It seems to be involved in degradation of histone mRNA. The catalytic inactive RNA exosome core complex of 9 subunits (Exo-9) is proposed to play a pivotal role in the binding and presentation of RNA for ribonucleolysis, and to serve as a scaffold for the association with catalytic subunits and accessory proteins or complexes. EXOSC4 binds to ARE-containing RNAs.

Non-catalytic component of the RNA exosome complex which has 3'->5' exoribonuclease activity and participates in a multitude of cellular RNA processing and degradation events. In the nucleus, the RNA exosome complex is involved in proper maturation of stable RNA species such as rRNA, snRNA and snoRNA, in the elimination of RNA processing by-products and non-coding 'pervasive' transcripts, such as antisense RNA species and promoter-upstream transcripts (PROMPTs), and of mRNAs with processing defects, thereby limiting or excluding their export to the cytoplasm. The RNA exosome may be involved in Ig class switch recombination (CSR) and/or Ig variable region somatic hypermutation (SHM) by targeting AICDA deamination activity to transcribed dsDNA substrates. In the cytoplasm, the RNA exosome complex is involved in general mRNA turnover and specifically degrades inherently unstable mRNAs containing AU-rich elements (AREs) within their 3' untranslated regions, and in RNA surveillance pathways, preventing translation of aberrant mRNAs. It seems to be involved in degradation of histone mRNA. The catalytic inactive RNA exosome core complex of 9 subunits (Exo-9) is proposed to play a pivotal role in the binding and presentation of RNA for ribonucleolysis, and to serve as a scaffold for the association with catalytic subunits and accessory proteins or complexes.

Non-catalytic component of the RNA exosome complex which has 3'->5' exoribonuclease activity and participates in a multitude of cellular RNA processing and degradation events. In the nucleus, the RNA exosome complex is involved in proper maturation of stable RNA species such as rRNA, snRNA and snoRNA, in the elimination of RNA processing by-products and non-coding 'pervasive' transcripts, such as antisense RNA species and promoter-upstream transcripts (PROMPTs), and of mRNAs with processing defects, thereby limiting or excluding their export to the cytoplasm. The RNA exosome may be involved in Ig class switch recombination (CSR) and/or Ig variable region somatic hypermutation (SHM) by targeting AICDA deamination activity to transcribed dsDNA substrates. In the cytoplasm, the RNA exosome complex is involved in general mRNA turnover and specifically degrades inherently unstable mRNAs containing AU-rich elements (AREs) within their 3' untranslated regions, and in RNA surveillance pathways, preventing translation of aberrant mRNAs. It seems to be involved in degradation of histone mRNA. The catalytic inactive RNA exosome core complex of 9 subunits (Exo-9) is proposed to play a pivotal role in the binding and presentation of RNA for ribonucleolysis, and to serve as a scaffold for the association with catalytic subunits and accessory proteins or complexes

Non-catalytic component of the RNA exosome complex which has 3'->5' exoribonuclease activity and participates in a multitude of cellular RNA processing and degradation events. In the nucleus, the RNA exosome complex is involved in proper maturation of stable RNA species such as rRNA, snRNA and snoRNA, in the elimination of RNA processing by-products and non-coding 'pervasive' transcripts, such as antisense RNA species and promoter-upstream transcripts (PROMPTs), and of mRNAs with processing defects, thereby limiting or excluding their export to the cytoplasm. The RNA exosome may be involved in Ig class switch recombination (CSR) and/or Ig variable region somatic hypermutation (SHM) by targeting AICDA deamination activity to transcribed dsDNA substrates. In the cytoplasm, the RNA exosome complex is involved in general mRNA turnover and specifically degrades inherently unstable mRNAs containing AU-rich elements (AREs) within their 3' untranslated regions, and in RNA surveillance pathways, preventing translation of aberrant mRNAs. It seems to be involved in degradation of histone mRNA. The catalytic inactive RNA exosome core complex of 9 subunits (Exo-9) is proposed to play a pivotal role in the binding and presentation of RNA for ribonucleolysis, and to serve as a scaffold for the association with catalytic subunits and accessory proteins or complexes. EXOSC8 binds to ARE-containing RNAs.

Non-catalytic component of the RNA exosome complex which has 3'->5' exoribonuclease activity and participates in a multitude of cellular RNA processing and degradation events. In the nucleus, the RNA exosome complex is involved in proper maturation of stable RNA species such as rRNA, snRNA and snoRNA, in the elimination of RNA processing by-products and non-coding 'pervasive' transcripts, such as antisense RNA species and promoter-upstream transcripts (PROMPTs), and of mRNAs with processing defects, thereby limiting or excluding their export to the cytoplasm. The RNA exosome may be involved in Ig class switch recombination (CSR) and/or Ig variable region somatic hypermutation (SHM) by targeting AICDA deamination activity to transcribed dsDNA substrates. In the cytoplasm, the RNA exosome complex is involved in general mRNA turnover and specifically degrades inherently unstable mRNAs containing AU-rich elements (AREs) within their 3' untranslated regions, and in RNA surveillance pathways, preventing translation of aberrant mRNAs. It seems to be involved in degradation of histone mRNA. The catalytic inactive RNA exosome core complex of 9 subunits (Exo-9) is proposed to play a pivotal role in the binding and presentation of RNA for ribonucleolysis, and to serve as a scaffold for the association with catalytic subunits and accessory proteins or complexes. EXOSC9 binds to ARE-containing RNAs.

Putative catalytic component of the RNA exosome complex which has 3'->5' exoribonuclease activity and participates in a multitude of cellular RNA processing and degradation events. In the nucleus, the RNA exosome complex is involved in proper maturation of stable RNA species such as rRNA, snRNA and snoRNA, in the elimination of RNA processing by-products and non-coding 'pervasive' transcripts, such as antisense RNA species and promoter-upstream transcripts (PROMPTs), and of mRNAs with processing defects, thereby limiting or excluding their export to the cytoplasm. The RNA exosome may be involved in Ig class switch recombination (CSR) and/or Ig variable region somatic hypermutation (SHM) by targeting AICDA deamination activity to transcribed dsDNA substrates. In the cytoplasm, the RNA exosome complex is involved in general mRNA turnover and specifically degrades inherently unstable mRNAs containing AU-rich elements (AREs) within their 3' untranslated regions, and in RNA surveillance pathways, preventing translation of aberrant mRNAs. It seems to be involved in degradation of histone mRNA. EXOSC10 has 3'-5' exonuclease activity (By similarity). EXOSC10 is required for nucleolar localization of C1D and probably mediates the association of MTREX, C1D and MPHOSPH6 with the RNA exosome involved in the maturation of 5.8S rRNA.

May act as Rab effector protein and play a role in vesicle trafficking

Glycosyltransferase required for the biosynthesis of heparan- sulfate. The EXT1/EXT2 complex possesses substantially higher glycosyltransferase activity than EXT1 or EXT2 alone. Appears to be a tumor suppressor. Required for the exosomal release of SDCBP, CD63 and syndecan.

Glycosyltransferase required for the biosynthesis of heparan- sulfate and responsible for the alternating addition of beta-1-4-linked glucuronic acid (GlcA) and alpha-1-4-linked N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) units to nascent heparan sulfate chains.

Glycosyltransferase which regulates the biosynthesis of heparan sulfate (HS). Important for both skeletal development and hematopoiesis, through the formation of HS proteoglycans (HSPGs). Required for the function of REG3A in regulating keratinocyte proliferation and differentiation.

Functions both as protein phosphatase and as transcriptional coactivator for SIX1, and probably also for SIX2, SIX4 and SIX5 (By similarity). Tyrosine phosphatase that dephosphorylates 'Tyr-142' of histone H2AX (H2AXY142ph) and promotes efficient DNA repair via the recruitment of DNA repair complexes containing MDC1. 'Tyr-142' phosphorylation of histone H2AX plays a central role in DNA repair and acts as a mark that distinguishes between apoptotic and repair responses to genotoxic stress. Its function as histone phosphatase may contribute to its function in transcription regulation during organogenesis (By similarity). Has also phosphatase activity with proteins phosphorylated on Ser and Thr residues (in vitro) (By similarity). Required for normal embryonic development of the craniofacial and trunk skeleton, kidneys and ears (By similarity). Together with SIX1, it plays an important role in hypaxial muscle development; in this it is functionally redundant with EYA2 (By similarity).

Functions both as protein phosphatase and as transcriptional coactivator for SIX1, and probably also for SIX2, SIX4 and SIX5. Tyrosine phosphatase that dephosphorylates 'Tyr-142' of histone H2AX (H2AXY142ph) and promotes efficient DNA repair via the recruitment of DNA repair complexes containing MDC1. 'Tyr-142' phosphorylation of histone H2AX plays a central role in DNA repair and acts as a mark that distinguishes between apoptotic and repair responses to genotoxic stress. Its function as histone phosphatase may contribute to its function in transcription regulation during organogenesis. Plays an important role in hypaxial muscle development together with SIX1 and DACH2; in this it is functionally redundant with EYA1.

Tyrosine phosphatase that specifically dephosphorylates 'Tyr- 142' of histone H2AX (H2AXY142ph). 'Tyr-142' phosphorylation of histone H2AX plays a central role in DNA repair and acts as a mark that distinguishes between apoptotic and repair responses to genotoxic stress. Promotes efficient DNA repair by dephosphorylating H2AX, promoting the recruitment of DNA repair complexes containing MDC1. Its function as histone phosphatase probably explains its role in transcription regulation during organogenesis. Coactivates SIX1, and seems to coactivate SIX2, SIX4 and SIX5. The repression of precursor cell proliferation in myoblasts by SIX1 is switched to activation through recruitment of EYA3 to the SIX1- DACH1 complex and seems to be dependent on EYA3 phosphatase activity (By similarity). May be involved in development of the eye.

Tyrosine phosphatase that specifically dephosphorylates 'Tyr- 142' of histone H2AX (H2AXY142ph). 'Tyr-142' phosphorylation of histone H2AX plays a central role in DNA repair and acts as a mark that distinguishes between apoptotic and repair responses to genotoxic stress. Promotes efficient DNA repair by dephosphorylating H2AX, promoting the recruitment of DNA repair complexes containing MDC1. Its function as histone phosphatase probably explains its role in transcription regulation during organogenesis. May be involved in development of the eye (By similarity).

Required to maintain the integrity of photoreceptor cells. Specifically required for normal morphology of the photoreceptor ciliary pocket, and might thus facilitate protein trafficking between the photoreceptor inner and outer segments via the transition zone (By similarity).

Polycomb group (PcG) protein. Catalytic subunit of the PRC2/EED-EZH1 complex, which methylates 'Lys-27' of histone H3, leading to transcriptional repression of the affected target gene. Able to mono-, di- and trimethylate 'Lys-27' of histone H3 to form H3K27me1, H3K27me2 and H3K27me3, respectively. Required for embryonic stem cell derivation and self-renewal, suggesting that it is involved in safeguarding embryonic stem cell identity. Compared to EZH2-containing complexes, it is less abundant in embryonic stem cells, has weak methyltransferase activity and plays a less critical role in forming H3K27me3, which is required for embryonic stem cell identity and proper differentiation.

Polycomb group (PcG) protein. Catalytic subunit of the PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex, which methylates 'Lys-9' (H3K9me) and 'Lys-27' (H3K27me) of histone H3, leading to transcriptional repression of the affected target gene. Able to mono-, di- and trimethylate 'Lys-27' of histone H3 to form H3K27me1, H3K27me2 and H3K27me3, respectively. Displays a preference for substrates with less methylation, loses activity when progressively more methyl groups are incorporated into H3K27, H3K27me0 > H3K27me1 > H3K27me2. Compared to EZH1-containing complexes, it is more abundant in embryonic stem cells and plays a major role in forming H3K27me3, which is required for embryonic stem cell identity and proper differentiation. The PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex may also serve as a recruiting platform for DNA methyltransferases, thereby linking two epigenetic repression systems. Genes repressed by the PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex include HOXC8, HOXA9, MYT1, CDKN2A and retinoic acid target genes. EZH2 can also methylate non-histone proteins such as the transcription factor GATA4 and the nuclear receptor RORA. Regulates the circadian clock via histone methylation at the promoter of the circadian genes. Essential for the CRY1/2-mediated repression of the transcriptional activation of PER1/2 by the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer; involved in the di and trimethylation of 'Lys-27' of histone H3 on PER1/2 promoters which is necessary for the CRY1/2 proteins to inhibit transcription.

Inhibits PRC2/EED-EZH1 and PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex function by inhibiting EZH1/EZH2 methyltransferase activity, thereby causing down- regulation of histone H3 trimethylation on 'Lys-27' (H3K27me3). Probably inhibits methyltransferase activity by limiting the stimulatory effect of cofactors such as AEBP2 and JARID2. Inhibits H3K27me3 deposition during spermatogenesis and oogenesis (By similarity).

Probably involved in connections of major cytoskeletal structures to the plasma membrane. In epithelial cells, required for the formation of microvilli and membrane ruffles on the apical pole. Along with PLEKHG6, required for normal macropinocytosis.

Stress-inducible actin-binding protein that plays a role in synaptic and cognitive functions by modulating actin filamentous (F- actin) dynamics. Mediates polymerization of globular actin to F-actin. Also binds to, stabilizes and bundles F-actin. Involved in synaptic function by regulating neurite outgrowth in an actin-dependent manner and for the acquisition of hippocampus-dependent cognitive function, such as learning and long-term memory (By similarity). Plays a role in the actin and microtubule cytoskeleton organization; negatively regulates focal adhesion (FA) assembly promoting malignant glial cell migration in an actin-, microtubule- and MAP1A-dependent manner. Also involved in neuroblastoma G1/S phase cell cycle progression and cell proliferation inhibition by stimulating ubiquitination of NF-kappa-B subunit RELA and NF-kappa-B degradation in a COMMD1- and actin-dependent manner. May play a role in tumor development.

One HIP oligomer binds the ATPase domains of at least two HSC70 molecules dependent on activation of the HSC70 ATPase by HSP40. Stabilizes the ADP state of HSC70 that has a high affinity for substrate protein. Through its own chaperone activity, it may contribute to the interaction of HSC70 with various target proteins (By similarity).

May play a role in microtubule organization. May play a role in cell spreading and cell migration of epithelial cells; the function may involve the AKT1 signaling pathway.

Single-stranded DNA-binding serine protease that mediates the proteolytic cleavage of covalent DNA-protein cross-links (DPCs) during DNA synthesis, thereby playing a key role in maintaining genomic integrity. DPCs are highly toxic DNA lesions that interfere with essential chromatin transactions, such as replication and transcription, and which are induced by reactive agents, such as UV light or formaldehyde. Protects replication fork from stalling by removing DPCs, such as covalently trapped topoisomerase 1 (TOP1) adducts on DNA lesion, or poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase 1 (PARP1)- DNA complexes trapped by PARP inhibitors. Required for PCNA loading on replication sites. Promotes S- phase entry and DNA synthesis.

May participate in mRNA transport in the cytoplasm (By similarity). Critical component of the oxidative stress-induced survival signaling. Activates src family kinases and acts as a scaffolding protein enabling src family kinases to phosphorylate and activate PI3-kinase. Binds RNA and promotes the secretion of IGF-II. May play a pivotal role in the progression of scirrhous-type gastric cancer by supporting cancer cell survival in environments with various oxidative stresses.

Functions as a transactivator of PPARG and ESR1. Functions in adipogenesis through PPARG activation (By similarity).

Factor XIII is activated by thrombin and calcium ion to a transglutaminase that catalyzes the formation of gamma-glutamyl- epsilon-lysine cross-links between fibrin chains, thus stabilizing the fibrin clot. Also cross-link alpha-2-plasmin inhibitor, or fibronectin, to the alpha chains of fibrin.

The B chain of factor XIII is not catalytically active, but is thought to stabilize the A subunits and regulate the rate of transglutaminase formation by thrombin.

Involved in the localization of proteins to the cilium and cilium assembly. Indirectly regulates the signaling functions of the cilium, being required for normal SHH/smoothened signaling and proper development.

Proposed to be involved in regulation of apoptosis; the exact mechanism may differ between cell types/tissues. May be involved in hypoxia-induced cell death of transformed cells implicating cytochrome C release and caspase activation (such as CASP9) and inducing mitochondrial permeability transition. May be involved in hypoxia-induced cell death of neuronal cells probably by promoting release of AIFM1 from mitochondria to cytoplasm and its translocation to the nucleus; however, the involvement of caspases has been reported conflictingly (By similarity).

In cancer context, protects cells from induced-DNA damage and apoptosis. Acts, at least in part, through PI3K/AKT/NFKB signaling pathway and by preventing POLB degradation. Decreases POLB ubiquitation and stabilizes its protein levels.

Inhibitor of neuronal axonal outgrowth. Acts as a negative regulator of CDC42 and STAT3 and a positive regulator of STMN2. Positive regulator of CDC27.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to fructose 6-phosphate in the presence of divalent cations, acting as a rate-limiting enzyme in gluconeogenesis. Plays a role in regulating glucose sensing and insulin secretion of pancreatic beta-cells. Appears to modulate glycerol gluconeogenesis in liver. Important regulator of appetite and adiposity; increased expression of the protein in liver after nutrient excess increases circulating satiety hormones and reduces appetite-stimulating neuropeptides and thus seems to provide a feedback mechanism to limit weight gain.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to fructose 6-phosphate in the presence of divalent cations and probably participates in glycogen synthesis from carbohydrate precursors, such as lactate.

Acts as a nuclear transcription factor that positively regulates the expression of heat shock genes. Binds to heat shock promoter elements (HSE).

Involved in the regulation of the cytoskeletal dynamics, plays a role in actin stress fiber formation.

Plays a role in the regulation of alternative splicing, by interacting with AGO2 and CHD7. Seems to be required for stabilizing protein-protein interactions at the chromatin-spliceosome interface. May have hydrolase activity.

May play a role in the structure and strength of both muscle and bone.

Plays a role in erythroid differentiation. Involved in cell proliferation and tumor cell growth suppression. Involved in the metabolic reprogramming of cancer cells in a PDK4-dependent manner.

Catalyzes both the synthesis and degradation of fructose 2,6- bisphosphate.

As component of the WDR11 complex acts together with TBC1D23 to facilitate the golgin-mediated capture of vesicles generated using AP-1.

Factor Xa is a vitamin K-dependent glycoprotein that converts prothrombin to thrombin in the presence of factor Va, calcium and phospholipid during blood clotting

Factor XI triggers the middle phase of the intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation by activating factor IX

Factor XII is a serum glycoprotein that participates in the initiation of blood coagulation, fibrinolysis, and the generation of bradykinin and angiotensin. Prekallikrein is cleaved by factor XII to form kallikrein, which then cleaves factor XII first to alpha-factor XIIa and then trypsin cleaves it to beta-factor XIIa. Alpha-factor XIIa activates factor XI to factor XIa.

Pseudokinase that acts as an allosteric activator of the Golgi serine/threonine protein kinase FAM20C and is involved in biomineralization of teeth. Forms a complex with FAM20C and increases the ability of FAM20C to phosphorylate the proteins that form the 'matrix' that guides the deposition of the enamel minerals.

Golgi serine/threonine protein kinase that phosphorylates secretory pathway proteins within Ser-x-Glu/pSer motifs and plays a key role in biomineralization of bones and teeth. Constitutes the main protein kinase for extracellular proteins, generating the majority of the extracellular phosphoproteome. Mainly phosphorylates proteins within the Ser-x-Glu/pSer motif, but also displays a broader substrate specificity. Phosphorylates ERO1A, enhancing its activity which is required to maintain endoplasmic reticulum redox homeostasis and for oxidative protein folding. During endoplasmic reticulum stress, phosphorylates P4HB/PDIA1 which induces a functional switch, causing P4HB to change from an oxidoreductase to a molecular chaperone. This is critical to maintain ER proteostasis and reduce cell death under ER stress. Phosphorylation of P4HB also promotes its interaction with ERN1, leading to reduced activity of ERN1, a key sensor for the endoplasmic reticulum unfolded protein response. Required for osteoblast differentiation and mineralization. Phosphorylates casein as well as a number of proteins involved in biomineralization such as AMELX, AMTN, ENAM and SPP1/OPN. In addition to its role in biomineralization, also plays a role in lipid homeostasis, wound healing and cell migration and adhesion.

Catalyzes the hydroxylation of free fatty acids at the C-2 position to produce 2-hydroxy fatty acids, which are building blocks of sphingolipids and glycosphingolipids common in neural tissue and epidermis. FA2H is stereospecific for the production of (R)-2- hydroxy fatty acids. Plays an essential role in the synthesis of galactosphingolipids of the myelin sheath (By similarity). Responsible for the synthesis of sphingolipids and glycosphingolipids involved in the formation of epidermal lamellar bodies critical for skin permeability barrier. Participates in the synthesis of glycosphingolipids and a fraction of type II wax diesters in sebaceous gland, specifically regulating hair follicle homeostasis (By similarity). Involved in the synthesis of sphingolipids of plasma membrane rafts, controlling lipid raft mobility and trafficking of raft-associated proteins (By similarity).

Isoform 1, but not isoform 2 or isoform 3, may induce G2 arrest and apoptosis. May also increase cell sensitivity to apoptotic stimuli.

Promotes histone methylation by localizing the arginine methyltransferase PRMT5 to chromatin.

May play an important role in neural development; the dorsomedial roof of the third ventricle.

Acts as a regulator of Wnt signaling pathway by regulating beta-catenin (CTNNB1) nuclear localization.

Central regulator of hemostasis. It serves as a critical cofactor for the prothrombinase activity of factor Xa that results in the activation of prothrombin to thrombin

May play a role in the regulation of cellular reactive oxygen species metabolism. May participate in cell growth regulation.

Initiates the extrinsic pathway of blood coagulation. Serine protease that circulates in the blood in a zymogen form. Factor VII is converted to factor VIIa by factor Xa, factor XIIa, factor IXa, or thrombin by minor proteolysis. In the presence of tissue factor and calcium ions, factor VIIa then converts factor X to factor Xa by limited proteolysis. Factor VIIa will also convert factor IX to factor IXa in the presence of tissue factor and calcium

Probable proto-oncogene that functions in the epidermal growth factor receptor/EGFR signaling pathway. Activates both RAS/MAPK and PI3K/AKT/TOR signaling cascades downstream of EGFR. Required for the RAS/MAPK signaling cascade activation upon EGFR stimulation, it also activates both signaling cascades independently of EGFR activation.

Probable proto-oncogene that functions in the epidermal growth factor receptor/EGFR signaling pathway. May activate both the EGFR itself and downstream RAS/MAPK and PI3K/AKT/TOR signaling cascades.

Through the degradation of FBXW7, may act indirectly on the expression and downstream signaling of MTOR, JUN and MYC. May play also a role in cell proliferation through activation of the ERK1/ERK2 signaling cascade. May also be important for proper chromosome congression and alignment during mitosis through its interaction with KIF22.

May play a major role in the structural organization and calcification of developing enamel. May play a role in keratin cytoskeleton disassembly by recruiting CSNK1A1 to keratin filaments. Thereby, it may regulate epithelial cell migration.

Plays a role in the assembly of the HRD1 complex, a complex involved in the ubiquitin-proteasome-dependent process of ER-associated degradation (ERAD).

Factor VIII, along with calcium and phospholipid, acts as a cofactor for F9/factor IXa when it converts F10/factor X to the activated form, factor Xa

Positively stimulates PRMT1-induced protein arginine methylation. Involved in skeletal homeostasis (By similarity). Positively regulates lysosome peripheral distribution and ruffled border formation in osteoclasts (By similarity).

Positively stimulates PRMT1-induced protein arginine dimethylated arginine methylation.

Factor IX is a vitamin K-dependent plasma protein that participates in the intrinsic pathway of blood coagulation by converting factor X to its active form in the presence of Ca(2+) ions, phospholipids, and factor VIIIa.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of endogenous amidated lipids like the sleep-inducing lipid oleamide ((9Z)-octadecenamide), the endocannabinoid anandamide (N-(5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z-eicosatetraenoyl)- ethanolamine), as well as other fatty amides, to their corresponding fatty acids, thereby regulating the signaling functions of these molecules. Hydrolyzes polyunsaturated substrate anandamide preferentially as compared to monounsaturated substrates. It can also catalyze the hydrolysis of the endocannabinoid 2-arachidonoylglycerol (2-(5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z- eicosatetraenoyl)-glycerol). FAAH cooperates with PM20D1 in the hydrolysis of amino acid-conjugated fatty acids such as N-fatty acyl glycine and N-fatty acyl-L-serine, thereby acting as a physiological regulator of specific subsets of intracellular, but not of extracellular, N-fatty acyl amino acids (By similarity).

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of endogenous amidated lipids like the sleep-inducing lipid oleamide ((9Z)-octadecenamide), the endocannabinoid anandamide (N-(5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z-eicosatetraenoyl)- ethanolamine), as well as other fatty amides, to their corresponding fatty acids, thereby regulating the signaling functions of these molecules. Hydrolyzes monounsaturated substrate anandamide preferentially as compared to polyunsaturated substrates.

Catalyzes the transfer of a malonyl moiety from malonyl-CoA to the free thiol group of the phosphopantetheine arm of the mitochondrial ACP protein (NDUFAB1). This suggests the existence of the biosynthesis of fatty acids in mitochondria.

Lipid transport protein in adipocytes. Binds both long chain fatty acids and retinoic acid. Delivers long-chain fatty acids and retinoic acid to their cognate receptors in the nucleus.

Intracellular carrier for long-chain fatty acids and related active lipids, such as endocannabinoids, that regulate the metabolism and actions of the ligands they bind. In addition to the cytosolic transport, selectively delivers specific fatty acids from the cytosol to the nucleus, wherein they activate nuclear receptors. Delivers retinoic acid to the nuclear receptor peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor delta; which promotes proliferation and survival. May also serve as a synaptic carrier of endocannabinoid at central synapses and thus controls retrograde endocannabinoid signaling. Modulates inflammation by regulating PTGES induction via NF-kappa-B activation, and prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) biosynthesis during inflammation (By similarity). May be involved in keratinocyte differentiation.

Binds to bile acids and is involved in enterohepatic bile acid metabolism. Required for efficient apical to basolateral transport of conjugated bile acids in ileal enterocytes (By similarity). In vitro binds to bile acids in the order: deoxycholic acid > cholic acid > chenodeoxycholic acid and respective BA conjugation modifies affinities in the order taurine-conjugated > glycine-conjugated > unconjugated bile acids. Stimulates gastric acid and pepsinogen secretion (By similarity).

B-FABP could be involved in the transport of a so far unknown hydrophobic ligand with potential morphogenic activity during CNS development. It is required for the establishment of the radial glial fiber system in developing brain, a system that is necessary for the migration of immature neurons to establish cortical layers (By similarity).

FABPs are thought to play a role in the intracellular transport of long-chain fatty acids and their acyl-CoA esters

FABPs are thought to play a role in the intracellular transport of long-chain fatty acids and their acyl-CoA esters. FABP2 is probably involved in triglyceride-rich lipoprotein synthesis. Binds saturated long-chain fatty acids with a high affinity, but binds with a lower affinity to unsaturated long-chain fatty acids. FABP2 may also help maintain energy homeostasis by functioning as a lipid sensor

Plays a role in lipoprotein-mediated cholesterol uptake in hepatocytes. Binds cholesterol. Binds free fatty acids and their coenzyme A derivatives, bilirubin, and some other small molecules in the cytoplasm. May be involved in intracellular lipid transport (By similarity).

Required for maintenance of chromosomal stability. Promotes accurate and efficient pairing of homologs during meiosis. Involved in the repair of DNA double-strand breaks, both by homologous recombination and single-strand annealing. May participate in S phase and G2 phase checkpoint activation upon DNA damage. Plays a role in preventing breakage and loss of missegregating chromatin at the end of cell division, particularly after replication stress. Required for the targeting, or stabilization, of BLM to non-centromeric abnormal structures induced by replicative stress. Promotes BRCA2/FANCD1 loading onto damaged chromatin. May also be involved in B-cell immunoglobulin isotype switching.

Transmembrane metalloprotease whose catalytic activity is critical for processing lamin A/LMNA on the inner nuclear membrane and clearing clogged translocons on the endoplasmic reticulum. Proteolytically removes the C- terminal three residues of farnesylated proteins. Plays also an antiviral role independently of its protease activity by restricting enveloped RNA and DNA viruses, including influenza A, Zika, Ebola, Sindbis, vesicular stomatitis, cowpox, and vaccinia. Mechanistically, controls IFITM antiviral pathway to hinder viruses from breaching the endosomal barrier by modulating membrane fluidity.

Proteolytically removes the C-terminal three residues of farnesylated and geranylated proteins. Seems to be able to process K- Ras, N-Ras, H-Ras, RAP1B and G-gamma-1.

Catalyzes the reduction of saturated and unsaturated C16 or C18 fatty acyl-CoA to fatty alcohols. It plays an essential role in the production of ether lipids/plasmalogens which synthesis requires fatty alcohols. In parallel, it is also required for wax monoesters production since fatty alcohols also constitute a substrate for their synthesis (By similarity).

Catalyzes the reduction of saturated but not unsaturated C16 or C18 fatty acyl-CoA to fatty alcohols. A lower activity can be observed with shorter fatty acyl-CoA substrates. It may play a role in the production of ether lipids/plasmalogens and wax monoesters which synthesis requires fatty alcohols as substrates (By similarity).

Catalyzes the adenylation of flavin mononucleotide (FMN) to form flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) coenzyme.

Apoptotic adaptor molecule that recruits caspase-8 or caspase-10 to the activated Fas (CD95) or TNFR-1 receptors. The resulting aggregate called the death-inducing signaling complex (DISC) performs caspase-8 proteolytic activation. Active caspase-8 initiates the subsequent cascade of caspases mediating apoptosis. Involved in interferon- mediated antiviral immune response, playing a role in the positive regulation of interferon signaling.

Involved in the biosynthesis of highly unsaturated fatty acids (HUFA) from the essential polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) linoleic acid (LA) (18:2n-6) and alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) (18:3n-3) precursors, acting as a fatty acyl-coenzyme A (CoA) desaturase that introduces a cis double bond at carbon 6 of the fatty acyl chain. Catalyzes the first and rate limiting step in this pathway which is the desaturation of LA (18:2n-6) and ALA (18:3n-3) into gamma-linoleate (GLA) (18:3n-6) and stearidonate (18:4n-3), respectively. Subsequently, in the biosynthetic pathway of HUFA n- 3 series, it desaturates tetracosapentaenoate (24:5n-3) to tetracosahexaenoate (24:6n-3), which is then converted to docosahexaenoate (DHA)(22:6n-3), an important lipid for nervous system function (By similarity). Desaturates hexadecanate (palmitate) to produce 6Z-hexadecenoate (sapienate), a fatty acid unique to humans and major component of human sebum, that has been implicated in the development of acne and may have potent antibacterial activity. It can also desaturate (11E)-octadecenoate (trans- vaccenoate, the predominant trans fatty acid in human milk) at carbon 6 generating (6Z,11E)-octadecadienoate (By similarity). In addition to Delta-6 activity, this enzyme exhibits Delta-8 activity with slight biases toward n-3 fatty acyl-CoA substrates (By similarity).

Mammals have different sphingoid bases that differ in their length and/or pattern of desaturation and hydroxyl groups. The predominant sphingoid base in mammalian ceramides is sphing-4-enine (sphingosine or SPH) which has a trans desaturation at carbon 4. FADS3 is a ceramide desaturase that introduces a cis double bond between carbon 14 and carbon 15 of the SPH-containing ceramides, producing sphinga-4,14-dienine-containing ceramides (SPD ceramides). SPD ceramides occur widely in mammalian tissues and cells. Due to their unusual structure containing a cis double bond, SPD ceramides may have an opposite, negative role in lipid microdomain formation relative to conventional ceramides. FADS3 also acts as a methyl- end fatty acyl coenzyme A (CoA) desaturase that introduces a cis double bond between the preexisting double bond and the terminal methyl group of the fatty acyl chain. Desaturates (11E)-octadecenoate (trans- vaccenoate, the predominant trans fatty acid in human milk) at carbon 13 to generate (11E,13Z)-octadecadienoate (also known as conjugated linoleic acid 11E,13Z-CLA).

Ubiquitin-binding protein. Required for the progression of DNA replication forks by targeting DNA replication licensing factor CDT1 for degradation. Potentiates but cannot initiate FAS-induced apoptosis (By similarity).

Plays an important role in endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) that mediates ubiquitin-dependent degradation of misfolded endoplasmic reticulum proteins. By controlling the steady-state expression of the IGF1R receptor, indirectly regulates the insulin-like growth factor receptor signaling pathway. Involved in inhibition of lipid droplet degradation by binding to phospholipase PNPL2 and inhibiting its activity by promoting dissociation of PNPL2 from its endogenous activator, ABHD5 which inhibits the rate of triacylglycerol hydrolysis.

Probable mitochondrial acylpyruvase which is able to hydrolyze acetylpyruvate and fumarylpyruvate in vitro. Also has oxaloacetate decarboxylase activity.

Plays a role as an inducible effector molecule that mediates Fas resistance produced by surface Ig engagement in B cells.

May play a role in the immune system processes. Protects cells from FAS-, TNF alpha- and FADD-induced apoptosis without increasing expression of the inhibitors of apoptosis BCL2 and BCLXL. Seems to activate an inhibitory pathway that prevents CASP8 activation following FAS stimulation, rather than blocking apoptotic signals downstream. May inhibit FAS-induced apoptosis by preventing CASP8 processing through CFLAR up-regulation.

Non-receptor protein-tyrosine kinase that regulates reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton, cell polarization, cell migration, adhesion, spreading and bone remodeling. Plays a role in the regulation of the humoral immune response, and is required for normal levels of marginal B-cells in the spleen and normal migration of splenic B-cells. Required for normal macrophage polarization and migration towards sites of inflammation. Regulates cytoskeleton rearrangement and cell spreading in T-cells, and contributes to the regulation of T-cell responses. Promotes osteoclastic bone resorption; this requires both PTK2B/PYK2 and SRC. May inhibit differentiation and activity of osteoprogenitor cells. Functions in signaling downstream of integrin and collagen receptors, immune receptors, G-protein coupled receptors (GPCR), cytokine, chemokine and growth factor receptors, and mediates responses to cellular stress. Forms multisubunit signaling complexes with SRC and SRC family members upon activation; this leads to the phosphorylation of additional tyrosine residues, creating binding sites for scaffold proteins, effectors and substrates. Regulates numerous signaling pathways. Promotes activation of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase and of the AKT1 signaling cascade. Promotes activation of NOS3. Regulates production of the cellular messenger cGMP. Promotes activation of the MAP kinase signaling cascade, including activation of MAPK1/ERK2, MAPK3/ERK1 and MAPK8/JNK1. Promotes activation of Rho family GTPases, such as RHOA and RAC1. Recruits the ubiquitin ligase MDM2 to P53/TP53 in the nucleus, and thereby regulates P53/TP53 activity, P53/TP53 ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation. Acts as a scaffold, binding to both PDPK1 and SRC, thereby allowing SRC to phosphorylate PDPK1 at 'Tyr-9, 'Tyr-373', and 'Tyr-376'. Promotes phosphorylation of NMDA receptors by SRC family members, and thereby contributes to the regulation of NMDA receptor ion channel activity and intracellular Ca(2+) levels. May also regulate potassium ion transport by phosphorylation of potassium channel subunits. Phosphorylates SRC; this increases SRC kinase activity. Phosphorylates ASAP1, NPHP1, KCNA2 and SHC1. Promotes phosphorylation of ASAP2, RHOU and PXN; this requires both SRC and PTK2/PYK2.

Involved in the down-regulation of mitochondrial MT-ND3 mRNA levels which leads to decreased respiratory complex I abundance and activity.

Plays an important role in assembly of the mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit. As a component of a functional protein-RNA module, consisting of RCC1L, NGRN, RPUSD3, RPUSD4, TRUB2, FASTKD2 and 16S mitochondrial ribosomal RNA (16S mt- rRNA), controls 16S mt-rRNA abundance and is required for intra- mitochondrial translation. May play a role in mitochondrial apoptosis.

Required for normal mitochondrial respiration. Increases steady-state levels and half-lives of a subset of mature mitochondrial mRNAs MT-ND2, MT-ND3, MT-CYTB, MT-CO2, and MT-ATP8/6. Promotes MT-CO1 mRNA translation and increases mitochondrial complex IV assembly and activity.

Plays a role in processing of mitochondrial RNA precursors and in stabilization of a subset of mature mitochondrial RNA species, such as MT-CO1, MT-CO2, MT-CYB, MT-CO3, MT-ND3, MT-ND5 and MT-ATP8/6. May play a role in cell cycle progression.

Plays an important role in the processing of non-canonical mitochondrial mRNA precursors.

Induces apoptosis of alpha and beta cells in a dose- and time-dependent manner.

May be involved in retinal laminar formation. Promotes epithelial to mesenchymal transition

Nuclease required for the repair of DNA interstrand cross- links (ICL) recruited at sites of DNA damage by monoubiquitinated FANCD2. Specifically involved in repair of ICL-induced DNA breaks by being required for efficient homologous recombination, probably in the resolution of homologous recombination intermediates. Not involved in DNA double-strand breaks resection. Acts as a 5'-3' exonuclease that anchors at a cut end of DNA and cleaves DNA successively at every third nucleotide, allowing to excise an ICL from one strand through flanking incisions. Probably keeps excising with 3'-flap annealing until it reaches and unhooks the ICL. Acts at sites that have a 5'-terminal phosphate anchor at a nick or a 1- or 2-nucleotide flap and is augmented by a 3' flap. Also has endonuclease activity toward 5'-flaps.

DNA repair protein that may operate in a postreplication repair or a cell cycle checkpoint function. May be involved in interstrand DNA cross-link repair and in the maintenance of normal chromosome stability

DNA repair protein that may operate in a postreplication repair or a cell cycle checkpoint function. May be implicated in interstrand DNA cross-link repair and in the maintenance of normal chromosome stability. Upon IFNG induction, may facilitate STAT1 activation by recruiting STAT1 to IFNGR1.

As part of the Fanconi anemia (FA) complex functions in DNA cross-links repair. Required for the nuclear accumulation of FANCC and provides a critical bridge between the FA complex and FANCD2.

DNA repair protein that may operate in a postreplication repair or a cell cycle checkpoint function. May be implicated in interstrand DNA cross-link repair and in the maintenance of normal chromosome stability (By similarity).

DNA repair protein that may operate in a postreplication repair or a cell cycle checkpoint function. May be implicated in interstrand DNA cross-link repair and in the maintenance of normal chromosome stability. Candidate tumor suppressor gene

Plays an essential role in the repair of DNA double-strand breaks by homologous recombination and in the repair of interstrand DNA cross-links (ICLs) by promoting FANCD2 monoubiquitination by FANCL and participating in recruitment to DNA repair sites. Required for maintenance of chromosomal stability. Specifically binds branched DNA: binds both single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) and double-stranded DNA (dsDNA). Participates in S phase and G2 phase checkpoint activation upon DNA damage.

DNA-dependent ATPase and 5' to 3' DNA helicase required for the maintenance of chromosomal stability. Acts late in the Fanconi anemia pathway, after FANCD2 ubiquitination. Involved in the repair of DNA double-strand breaks by homologous recombination in a manner that depends on its association with BRCA1.

Ubiquitin ligase protein that mediates monoubiquitination of FANCD2 in the presence of UBE2T, a key step in the DNA damage pathway. Also mediates monoubiquitination of FANCI. May stimulate the ubiquitin release from UBE2W. May be required for proper primordial germ cell proliferation in the embryonic stage, whereas it is probably not needed for spermatogonial proliferation after birth.

DNA-dependent ATPase component of the Fanconi anemia (FA) core complex. Required for the normal activation of the FA pathway, leading to monoubiquitination of the FANCI-FANCD2 complex in response to DNA damage, cellular resistance to DNA cross- linking drugs, and prevention of chromosomal breakage. In complex with CENPS and CENPX, binds double-stranded DNA (dsDNA), fork- structured DNA (fsDNA) and Holliday junction substrates. Its ATP-dependent DNA branch migration activity can process branched DNA structures such as a movable replication fork. This activity is strongly stimulated in the presence of CENPS and CENPX. In complex with FAAP24, efficiently binds to single-strand DNA (ssDNA), splayed-arm DNA, and 3'-flap substrates. In vitro, on its own, strongly binds ssDNA oligomers and weakly fsDNA, but does not bind to dsDNA.

Through the activation of JUN and AP-1-mediated transcription, may regulate apoptosis.

Couples the p55 TNF-receptor (TNF-R55 / TNFR1) to neutral sphingomyelinase (N-SMASE). Specifically binds to the N-smase activation domain of TNF-R55. May regulate ceramide production by N- SMASE

Component of the Fanconi anemia (FA) complex required to recruit the FA complex to DNA interstrand cross-links (ICLs) and promote ICLs repair. Following DNA damage recognizes and binds 'Lys- 63'-linked ubiquitin generated by RNF8 at ICLs and recruits other components of the FA complex. Promotes translesion synthesis via interaction with REV1.

Plays a role in DNA repair through recruitment of the FA core complex to damaged DNA. Regulates FANCD2 monoubiquitination upon DNA damage. Induces chromosomal instability as well as hypersensitivity to DNA cross-linking agents, when repressed. Targets FANCM/FAAP24 complex to the DNA, preferentially to single strand DNA.

Functions as guanine nucleotide exchange factor for RAC1. May play a role in semaphorin signaling. Plays a role in the assembly and disassembly of dendritic filopodia, the formation of dendritic spines, regulation of dendrite length and ultimately the formation of synapses (By similarity).

Functions as guanine nucleotide exchange factor that activates RAC1. May have relatively low activity. Plays a role in the response to class 3 semaphorins and remodeling of the actin cytoskeleton. Plays a role in TNFSF11-mediated osteoclast differentiation, especially in podosome rearrangement and reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton. Regulates the activation of ITGB3, integrin signaling and cell adhesion (By similarity).

Phosphorylates the splicing regulator TIA1, thereby promoting the inclusion of FAS exon 6, which leads to an mRNA encoding a pro- apoptotic form of the receptor.

Fatty acid synthetase is a multifunctional enzyme that catalyzes the de novo biosynthesis of long-chain saturated fatty acids starting from acetyl-CoA and malonyl-CoA in the presence of NADPH. This multifunctional protein contains 7 catalytic activities and a site for the binding of the prosthetic group 4'-phosphopantetheine of the acyl carrier protein ([ACP]) domain.

[Protocadherin Fat 1]: Plays an essential role for cellular polarization, directed cell migration and modulating cell-cell contact.

Involved in the regulation of cell migration. May be involved in mediating the organization of the parallel fibers of granule cells during cerebellar development (By similarity).

May play a role in the interactions between neurites derived from specific subsets of neurons during development.

Involved in the regulation of endoplasmic reticulum (ER)- mitochondria coupling. Negatively regulates the ER-mitochondria distance and Ca(2+) transfer from ER to mitochondria possibly implicating it in the regulation of apoptosis. May collaborate with RNF183 to restrain BIK protein levels thus regulating apoptotic signaling.

Acetyl group-binding receptor which shows a high-affinity and calcium-dependent binding to acetylated structures such as chitin, some N-acetylated carbohydrates, and amino acids, but not to their non- acetylated counterparts. Can facilitate the endocytosis of acetylated components.

Keratin-binding protein required for epithelial cell polarization. Involved in apical junction complex (AJC) assembly via its interaction with PARD3. Required for ciliogenesis.

3'-5' DNA helicase and substrate-recognition component of the SCF(FBH1) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex that plays a key role in response to stalled/damaged replication forks. Involved in genome maintenance by acting as an anti- recombinogenic helicase and preventing extensive strand exchange during homologous recombination: promotes RAD51 filament dissolution from stalled forks, thereby inhibiting homologous recombination and preventing excessive recombination. Also promotes cell death and DNA double-strand breakage in response to replication stress: together with MUS81, promotes the endonucleolytic DNA cleavage following prolonged replication stress via its helicase activity, possibly to eliminate cells with excessive replication stress. Plays a major role in remodeling of stalled DNA forks by catalyzing fork regression, in which the fork reverses and the two nascent DNA strands anneal. In addition to the helicase activity, also acts as the substrate- recognition component of the SCF(FBH1) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex, a complex that mediates ubiquitination of RAD51, leading to regulate RAD51 subcellular location.

Serves as an anchoring site for cell-ECM adhesion proteins and filamin-containing actin filaments. Is implicated in cell shape modulation (spreading) and motility. May participate in the regulation of filamin-mediated cross-linking and stabilization of actin filaments. May also regulate the assembly of filamin-containing signaling complexes that control actin assembly. Promotes dissociation of FLNA from ITGB3 and ITGB7. Promotes activation of integrins and regulates integrin-mediated cell-cell adhesion.

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that has the ability to methylate both RNAs and proteins. Involved in pre-rRNA processing by catalyzing the site-specific 2'-hydroxyl methylation of ribose moieties in pre-ribosomal RNA. Also acts as a protein methyltransferase by mediating methylation of glutamine residues (By similarity).

Incorporated into fibronectin-containing matrix fibers. May play a role in cell adhesion and migration along protein fibers within the extracellular matrix (ECM). Could be important for certain developmental processes and contribute to the supramolecular organization of ECM architecture, in particular to those of basement membranes. Has been implicated in a role in cellular transformation and tumor invasion, it appears to be a tumor suppressor. May play a role in haemostasis and thrombosis owing to its ability to bind fibrinogen and incorporate into clots. Could play a significant role in modulating the neurotrophic activities of APP, particularly soluble APP.

Its binding to fibronectin and some other ligands is calcium dependent. May act as an adapter that mediates the interaction between FBN1 and ELN.

Binds EGFR, the EGF receptor, inducing EGFR autophosphorylation and the activation of downstream signaling pathways. May play a role in cell adhesion and migration. May function as a negative regulator of chondrocyte differentiation. In the olfactory epithelium, it may regulate glial cell migration, differentiation and the ability of glial cells to support neuronal neurite outgrowth.

Plays a crucial role in elastic fiber formation in tissue, and in the formation of ultrastructural connections between elastic laminae and smooth muscle cells in the aorta, therefore participates in terminal differentiation and maturation of smooth muscle cell (SMC) and in the mechanical properties and wall integrity maintenance of the aorta. In addition, is involved in the control of collagen fibril assembly in tissue throught proteolytic activation of LOX leading to cross- linking of collagen and elastin (By similarity). Also promotes ELN coacervation and participates in the deposition of ELN coacervates on to microfibrils but also regulates ELN cross- linking through LOX interaction. Moreover adheres to the cells through heparin binding in a calcium-dependent manner and regulates vascularlar smooth muscle cells proliferation through angiotensin signaling.

Essential for elastic fiber formation, is involved in the assembly of continuous elastin (ELN) polymer and promotes the interaction of microfibrils and ELN. Stabilizes and organizes elastic fibers in the skin, lung and vasculature (By similarity). Promotes adhesion of endothelial cells through interaction of integrins and the RGD motif. Vascular ligand for integrin receptors which may play a role in vascular development and remodeling. May act as an adapter that mediates the interaction between FBN1 and ELN.

An adhesion molecule that interacts with extracellular matrix molecules in developing teeth and may play important roles in differentiation and maintenance of odontoblasts as well as in dentin formation.

[Fibrillin-1]: Structural component of the 10-12 nm diameter microfibrils of the extracellular matrix, which conveys both structural and regulatory properties to load-bearing connective tissues. Fibrillin-1-containing microfibrils provide long-term force bearing structural support. In tissues such as the lung, blood vessels and skin, microfibrils form the periphery of the elastic fiber, acting as a scaffold for the deposition of elastin. In addition, microfibrils can occur as elastin-independent networks in tissues such as the ciliary zonule, tendon, cornea and glomerulus where they provide tensile strength and have anchoring roles. Fibrillin-1 also plays a key role in tissue homeostasis through specific interactions with growth factors, such as the bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs), growth and differentiation factors (GDFs) and latent transforming growth factor-beta-binding proteins (LTBPs), cell-surface integrins and other extracellular matrix protein and proteoglycan components. Regulates osteoblast maturation by controlling TGF- beta bioavailability and calibrating TGF-beta and BMP levels, respectively (By similarity). Negatively regulates osteoclastogenesis by binding and sequestering an osteoclast differentiation and activation factor TNFSF11. This leads to disruption of TNFSF11-induced Ca(2+) signaling and impairment of TNFSF11-mediated nuclear translocation and activation of transcription factor NFATC1 which regulates genes important for osteoclast differentiation and function. Mediates cell adhesion via its binding to cell surface receptors integrins ITGAV:ITGB3 and ITGA5:ITGB1. Binds heparin and this interaction has an important role in the assembly of microfibrils.

[Fibrillin-2]: Fibrillins are structural components of 10-12 nm extracellular calcium-binding microfibrils, which occur either in association with elastin or in elastin-free bundles. Fibrillin-2- containing microfibrils regulate the early process of elastic fiber assembly. Regulates osteoblast maturation by controlling TGF-beta bioavailability and calibrating TGF-beta and BMP levels, respectively.

[Fibrillin-3]: Fibrillins are structural components of 10-12 nm extracellular calcium-binding microfibrils, which occur either in association with elastin or in elastin-free bundles. Fibrillin- containing microfibrils provide long-term force bearing structural support.

Required to coordinate membrane tubulation with reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton during endocytosis. May bind to lipids such as phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate and phosphatidylserine and promote membrane invagination and the formation of tubules. Also promotes CDC42-induced actin polymerization by activating the WASL/N-WASP-WASPIP/WIP complex, the predominant form of WASL/N-WASP in cells. Actin polymerization may promote the fission of membrane tubules to form endocytic vesicles. Essential for autophagy of intracellular bacterial pathogens.

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that has the ability to methylate both RNAs and proteins. Involved in pre-rRNA processing by catalyzing the site-specific 2'-hydroxyl methylation of ribose moieties in pre-ribosomal RNA. Site specificity is provided by a guide RNA that base pairs with the substrate (By similarity). Methylation occurs at a characteristic distance from the sequence involved in base pairing with the guide RNA (By similarity). Probably catalyzes 2'-O-methylation of U6 snRNAs in box C/D RNP complexes. U6 snRNA 2'-O-methylation is required for mRNA splicing fidelity. Also acts as a protein methyltransferase by mediating methylation of 'Gln-105' of histone H2A (H2AQ104me), a modification that impairs binding of the FACT complex and is specifically present at 35S ribosomal DNA locus.

Component of E3 ubiquitin ligase complexes. Required for normal neuromuscular synaptogenesis, axon pathfinding and neuronal migration (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of neurotransmission at mature neurons (By similarity). May control synaptic activity by controlling UNC13A via ubiquitin dependent pathway (By similarity). Specifically recognizes TP73, promoting its ubiquitination and degradation.

Probable substrate-recognition component of a SCF (SKP1-CUL1- F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Overexpression is leading to degradation of CBX5 and CBX1.

Substrate-recognition component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex.

Substrate recognition component of a SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Recognizes and binds to phosphorylated target proteins. SCF(BTRC) mediates the ubiquitination of CTNNB1 and participates in Wnt signaling. SCF(BTRC) mediates the ubiquitination of phosphorylated NFKB1, ATF4, CDC25A, DLG1, FBXO5, PER1, SMAD3, SMAD4, SNAI1 and probably NFKB2. SCF(BTRC) mediates the ubiquitination of NFKBIA, NFKBIB and NFKBIE; the degradation frees the associated NFKB1 to translocate into the nucleus and to activate transcription. Ubiquitination of NFKBIA occurs at 'Lys-21' and 'Lys-22'. SCF(BTRC) mediates the ubiquitination of CEP68; this is required for centriole separation during mitosis. SCF(BTRC) mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of nuclear NFE2L1 (By similarity). Has an essential role in the control of the clock-dependent transcription via degradation of phosphorylated PER1 and PER2. May be involved in ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation through a DBB1- CUL4 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Required for activation of NFKB- mediated transcription by IL1B, MAP3K14, MAP3K1, IKBKB and TNF. Required for proteolytic processing of GLI3. Mediates ubiquitination of REST, thereby leading to its proteasomal degradation. SCF(BTRC) mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of KLF4; thereby negatively regulating cell pluripotency maintenance and embryogenesis (By similarity).

Substrate-recognition component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. The SCF(FBXO10) complex mediates ubiquitination and degradation of BCL2, an antiapoptotic protein, thereby playing a role in apoptosis by controlling the stability of BCL2.

Substrate recognition component of a SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins, such as DTL/CDT2, BCL6 and PRDM1/BLIMP1. The SCF(FBXO11) complex mediates ubiquitination and degradation of BCL6, thereby playing a role in the germinal center B-cells terminal differentiation toward memory B-cells and plasma cells. The SCF(FBXO11) complex also mediates ubiquitination and degradation of DTL, an important step for the regulation of TGF-beta signaling, cell migration and the timing of the cell-cycle progression and exit. Binds to and neddylates phosphorylated p53/TP53, inhibiting its transcriptional activity. SCF(FBXO11) does not seem to direct ubiquitination of p53/TP53.

Probably recognizes and binds to some phosphorylated proteins and promotes their ubiquitination and degradation

Substrate-recognition component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. Able to recognize and bind denatured glycoproteins, which are modified with complex-type oligosaccharides. Also recognizes sulfated glycans. Does not bind high- mannose glycoproteins

Substrate-recognition component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. Promotes the proteasome- dependent degradation of key sarcomeric proteins, such as alpha-actinin (ACTN2) and filamin-C (FLNC), essential for maintenance of normal contractile function.

Substrate-recognition component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. May play a role in accumulation of expanded polyglutamine (polyQ) protein huntingtin (HTT) (By similarity).

Substrate-recognition component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. Able to recognize and bind denatured glycoproteins, which are modified with complex-type oligosaccharides.

Probably recognizes and binds to some phosphorylated proteins and promotes their ubiquitination and degradation.

Substrate recognition component of a SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Involved in the endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation pathway (ERAD) for misfolded lumenal proteins by recognizing and binding sugar chains on unfolded glycoproteins that are retrotranslocated into the cytosol and promoting their ubiquitination and subsequent degradation. Prevents formation of cytosolic aggregates of unfolded glycoproteins that have been retrotranslocated into the cytosol. Able to recognize and bind denatured glycoproteins, preferentially those of the high-mannose type (By similarity).

Substrate-recognition component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. Required for muscle atrophy following denervation.

Component of some SCF (SKP1-cullin-F-box) protein ligase complex that plays a central role in G1 arrest following DNA damage. Specifically recognizes phosphorylated cyclin-D1 (CCND1), promoting its ubiquitination and degradation by the proteasome, resulting in G1 arrest. May act as a tumor suppressor.

Substrate recognition component of a SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Probably recognizes and binds to phosphorylated target proteins during skeletal muscle atrophy. Recognizes TERF1.

Substrate recognition component of a SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Probably recognizes and binds to phosphorylated target proteins. Recognizes YBX1 (By similarity).

Substrate recognition component of a SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of PDCD1/PD-1, thereby regulating T-cells-mediated immunity. Required for anti-tumor activity of T-cells by promoting the degradation of PDCD1/PD-1; the PDCD1-mediated inhibitory pathway being exploited by tumors to attenuate anti-tumor immunity and facilitate tumor survival. May indirectly stimulate the activity of transcription factor KLF7, a regulator of neuronal differentiation, without promoting KLF7 ubiquitination (By similarity).

Substrate recognition component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. Mediates the ubiquitination of HIPK2 and probably that of EP300, leading to rapid degradation by the proteasome. In the presence of PML, HIPK2 ubiquitination still occurs, but degradation is prevented. PML, HIPK2 and FBXO3 may act synergically to activate p53/TP53-dependent transactivation.

Probable substrate-recognition component of the SCF (SKP1- CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex that may function in myogenesis.

Substrate-recognition component of some SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. Specifically recognizes p53/TP53, promoting its ubiquitination and degradation.

Required to establish and maintain the arrest of oocytes at the second meiotic metaphase until fertilization. Acts by inhibiting the anaphase-promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C) ubiquitin ligase. Probably recognizes and binds to some phosphorylated proteins and promotes their ubiquitination and degradation. Plays a vital role in modulating the ubiquitilation of CCNB1 and CDK1 during gametogenesis.

Substrate-recognition component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex

Substrate recognition component of a SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Promotes ubiquitination of CCND1 and its subsequent proteasomal degradation. Recognizes TERF1 and promotes its ubiquitination together with UBE2D1.

Regulator of APC activity during mitotic and meiotic cell cycle. During mitotic cell cycle plays a role as both substrate and inhibitor of APC-FZR1 complex. During G1 phase, plays a role as substrate of APC-FZR1 complex E3 ligase. Then switches as an inhibitor of APC-FZR1 complex during S and G2 leading to cell-cycle commitment. As APC inhibitor, prevents the degradation of APC substrates at multiple levels: by interacting with APC and blocking access of APC substrates to the D-box coreceptor, formed by FZR1 and ANAPC10; by suppressing ubiquitin ligation and chain elongation by APC by preventing the UBE2C and UBE2S activities. Plays a role in genome integrity preservation by coordinating DNA replication with mitosis through APC inhibition in interphase to stabilize CCNA2 and GMNN in order to promote mitosis and prevent rereplication and DNA damage-induced cellular senescence. During oocyte maturation, plays a role in meiosis through inactivation of APC-FZR1 complex. Inhibits APC through RPS6KA2 interaction that increases FBXO5 affiniy for CDC20 leading to the metaphase arrest of the second meiotic division before fertilization (By similarity). Controls entry into the first meiotic division through inactivation of APC-FZR1 complex (By similarity). Promotes migration and osteogenic differentiation of mesenchymal stem cells.

Substrate-recognition component of some SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complexes. Involved in endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation pathway (ERAD) for misfolded lumenal proteins by recognizing and binding sugar chains on unfolded glycoproteins that are retrotranslocated into the cytosol and promoting their ubiquitination and subsequent degradation. Able to recognize and bind denatured glycoproteins, which are modified with not only high- mannose but also complex-type oligosaccharides. Also recognizes sulfated glycans. Also involved in DNA damage response by specifically recognizing activated CHEK1 (phosphorylated on 'Ser-345'), promoting its ubiquitination and degradation. Ubiquitination of CHEK1 is required to insure that activated CHEK1 does not accumulate as cells progress through S phase, or when replication forks encounter transient impediments during normal DNA replication.

Substrate recognition component of a SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Recognizes BIRC2 and DLGAP5. Plays a role downstream of PINK1 in the clearance of damaged mitochondria via selective autophagy (mitophagy) by targeting PRKN to dysfunctional depolarized mitochondria. Promotes MFN1 ubiquitination.

May promote guanine-nucleotide exchange on an ARF. Promotes the activation of ARF through replacement of GDP with GTP (Potential).

Substrate recognition component of a SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of TTI1 and TELO2 in a CK2-dependent manner, thereby directly regulating mTOR signaling. SCF(FBXO9) recognizes and binds mTORC1-bound TTI1 and TELO2 when they are phosphorylated by CK2 following growth factor deprivation, leading to their degradation. In contrast, the SCF(FBXO9) does not mediate ubiquitination of TTI1 and TELO2 when they are part of the mTORC2 complex. As a consequence, mTORC1 is inactivated to restrain cell growth and protein translation, while mTORC2 is activated due to the relief of feedback inhibition by mTORC1.

Calcium-activated substrate recognition component of the SCF (SKP1-cullin-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex, SCF(FBXL2), which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Unlike many F-box proteins, FBXL2 does not seem to target phosphodegron within its substrates but rather calmodulin-binding motifs and is thereby antagonized by calmodulin. This is the case for the cyclins CCND2 and CCND3 which polyubiquitination and subsequent degradation are inhibited by calmodulin. Through CCND2 and CCND3 degradation induces cell-cycle arrest in G(0). SCF(FBXL2) also mediates PIK3R2 ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation thereby regulating phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase signaling and autophagy. PCYT1A monoubiquitination by SCF(FBXL2) and subsequent degradation regulates synthesis of phosphatidylcholine, which is utilized for formation of membranes and of pulmonary surfactant (By similarity).

Substrate-recognition component of the SCF(FBXL3) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex involved in circadian rhythm function. Plays a key role in the maintenance of both the speed and the robustness of the circadian clock oscillation. The SCF(FBXL3) complex mainly acts in the nucleus and mediates ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of CRY1 and CRY2. Activity of the SCF(FBXL3) complex is counteracted by the SCF(FBXL21) complex.

Component of some SCF (SKP1-cullin-F-box) protein ligase complex that plays a central role in iron homeostasis by promoting the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of IREB2/IRP2. Upon high iron and oxygen level, it specifically recognizes and binds IREB2/IRP2, promoting its ubiquitination and degradation by the proteasome. Promotes ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of DCTN1/p150-glued.

Substrate recognition component of a SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex. During mitosis, it mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of AURKA, causing mitotic arrest (By similarity). It also regulates mitochondrial function by mediating the ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of the apoptosis inhibitor BIRC5.

Substrate recognition component of both SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) and DCX (DDB1-CUL4-X-box) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes. Substrate recognition component of the SCF(FBXW5) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of SASS6 during S phase, leading to prevent centriole reduplication. The SCF(FBXW5) complex also mediates ubiquitination and degradation of actin-regulator EPS8 during G2 phase, leading to the transient degradation of EPS8 and subsequent cell shape changes required to allow mitotic progression. Substrate-specific adapter of the DCX(FBXW5) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the polyubiquitination and subsequent degradation of TSC2. May also act as a negative regulator of MAP3K7/TAK1 signaling in the interleukin-1B (IL1B) signaling pathway.

Substrate recognition component of a SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Recognizes and binds phosphorylated sites/phosphodegrons within target proteins and thereafter brings them to the SCF complex for ubiquitination. Identified substrates include cyclin-E (CCNE1 or CCNE2), DISC1, JUN, MYC, NOTCH1 released notch intracellular domain (NICD), NFE2L1, NOTCH2, MCL1, RICTOR, and probably PSEN1. Acts as a negative regulator of JNK signaling by binding to phosphorylated JUN and promoting its ubiquitination and subsequent degradation. Involved in bone homeostasis and negative regulation of osteoclast differentiation. Regulates the amplitude of the cyclic expression of hepatic core clock genes and genes involved in lipid and glucose metabolism via ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of their transcriptional repressor NR1D1; CDK1-dependent phosphorylation of NR1D1 is necessary for SCF(FBXW7)-mediated ubiquitination. Also able to promote 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination in response to DNA damage. The SCF(FBXW7) complex facilitates double-strand break repair following phosphorylation by ATM: phosphorylation promotes localization to sites of double-strand breaks and 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of phosphorylated XRCC4, enhancing DNA non-homologous end joining.

Substrate-recognition component of a Cul7-RING ubiquitin- protein ligase complex, which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. The Cul7- RING(FBXW8) complex mediates ubiquitination and consequent degradation of GORASP1, acting as a component of the ubiquitin ligase pathway that regulates Golgi morphogenesis and dendrite patterning in brain. Mediates ubiquitination and degradation of IRS1 in a mTOR-dependent manner: the Cul7-RING(FBXW8) complex recognizes and binds IRS1 previously phosphorylated by S6 kinase (RPS6KB1 or RPS6KB2). The Cul7-RING(FBXW8) complex also mediates ubiquitination of MAP4K1/HPK1: recognizes and binds autophosphorylated MAP4K1/HPK1, leading to its degradation, thereby affecting cell proliferation and differentiation. Associated component of the 3M complex, suggesting that it mediates some of 3M complex functions.

Binds to the Fc region of immunoglobulins alpha. Mediates several functions including cytokine production.

Low-affinity receptor for immunoglobulin E (IgE) and CR2/CD21. Has essential roles in the regulation of IgE production and in the differentiation of B-cells (it is a B-cell-specific antigen)

Binds to the Fc region of immunoglobulins epsilon. High affinity receptor. Responsible for initiating the allergic response. Binding of allergen to receptor-bound IgE leads to cell activation and the release of mediators (such as histamine) responsible for the manifestations of allergy. The same receptor also induces the secretion of important lymphokines

High affinity receptor that binds to the Fc region of immunoglobulins epsilon. Aggregation of FCER1 by multivalent antigens is required for the full mast cell response, including the release of preformed mediators (such as histamine) by degranulation and de novo production of lipid mediators and cytokines. Also mediates the secretion of important lymphokines. Binding of allergen to receptor- bound IgE leads to cell activation and the release of mediators responsible for the manifestations of allergy

Adapter protein containing an immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif (ITAM) that transduces activation signals from various immunoreceptors. As a component of the high-affinity immunoglobulin E (IgE) receptor, mediates allergic inflammatory signaling in mast cells. As a constitutive component of interleukin-3 receptor complex, selectively mediates interleukin 4/IL4 production by basophils, priming T-cells toward effector T-helper 2 subset. Associates with pattern recognition receptors CLEC4D and CLEC4E to form a functional signaling complex in myeloid cells. Binding of mycobacterial trehalose 6,6'- dimycolate (TDM) to this receptor complex leads to phosphorylation of ITAM, triggering activation of SYK, CARD9 and NF-kappa-B, consequently driving maturation of antigen-presenting cells and shaping antigen- specific priming of T-cells toward effector T-helper 1 and T-helper 17 cell subtypes. May function cooperatively with other activating receptors. Functionally linked to integrin beta-2/ITGB2-mediated neutrophil activation. Also involved in integrin alpha-2/ITGA2-mediated platelet activation.

Essential protein involved in pre-rRNA processing and 40S ribosomal subunit assembly.

Binds to the Fc region of immunoglobulins gamma. Low affinity receptor. By binding to IgG it initiates cellular responses against pathogens and soluble antigens. Promotes phagocytosis of opsonized antigens.

Receptor for the Fc region of complexed or aggregated immunoglobulins gamma. Low affinity receptor. Involved in a variety of effector and regulatory functions such as phagocytosis of immune complexes and modulation of antibody production by B-cells. Binding to this receptor results in down-modulation of previous state of cell activation triggered via antigen receptors on B-cells (BCR), T-cells (TCR) or via another Fc receptor. Isoform IIB1 fails to mediate endocytosis or phagocytosis. Isoform IIB2 does not trigger phagocytosis

Receptor for the invariable Fc fragment of immunoglobulin gamma (IgG). Optimally activated upon binding of clustered antigen-IgG complexes displayed on cell surfaces, triggers lysis of antibody-coated cells, a process known as antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). Does not bind free monomeric IgG, thus avoiding inappropriate effector cell activation in the absence of antigenic trigger. Mediates IgG effector functions on natural killer (NK) cells. Binds antigen-IgG complexes generated upon infection and triggers NK cell-dependent cytokine production and degranulation to limit viral load and propagation. Involved in the generation of memory- like adaptive NK cells capable to produce high amounts of IFNG and to efficiently eliminate virus-infected cells via ADCC. Regulates NK cell survival and proliferation, in particular by preventing NK cell progenitor apoptosis. Fc-binding subunit that associates with CD247 and/or FCER1G adapters to form functional signaling complexes. Following the engagement of antigen-IgG complexes, triggers phosphorylation of immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif (ITAM)-containing adapters with subsequent activation of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase signaling and sustained elevation of intracellular calcium that ultimately drive NK cell activation. The ITAM-dependent signaling coupled to receptor phosphorylation by PKC mediates robust intracellular calcium flux that leads to production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, whereas in the absence of receptor phosphorylation it mainly activates phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase signaling leading to cell degranulation. Costimulates NK cells and trigger lysis of target cells independently of IgG binding. Mediates the antitumor activities of therapeutic antibodies. Upon ligation on monocytes triggers TNFA-dependent ADCC of IgG-coated tumor cells. Mediates enhanced ADCC in response to afucosylated IgGs.

High affinity receptor for the Fc region of immunoglobulins gamma. Functions in both innate and adaptive immune responses. Mediates IgG effector functions on monocytes triggering antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) of virus-infected cells.

Cell surface receptor that transfers passive humoral immunity from the mother to the newborn. Binds to the Fc region of monomeric immunoglobulin gamma and mediates its selective uptake from milk. IgG in the milk is bound at the apical surface of the intestinal epithelium. The resultant FcRn-IgG complexes are transcytosed across the intestinal epithelium and IgG is released from FcRn into blood or tissue fluids. Throughout life, contributes to effective humoral immunity by recycling IgG and extending its half-life in the circulation. Mechanistically, monomeric IgG binding to FcRn in acidic endosomes of endothelial and hematopoietic cells recycles IgG to the cell surface where it is released into the circulation. In addition of IgG, regulates homeostasis of the other most abundant circulating protein albumin/ALB.

Functions in an early step of clathrin-mediated endocytosis. Has both a membrane binding/bending activity and the ability to recruit proteins essential to the formation of functional clathrin-coated pits. May regulate Bmp signaling by regulating clathrin-mediated endocytosis of Bmp receptors. Involved in the regulation of T-cell poliferation and activation. Affects TCR clustering upon receptor triggering and modulates its internalisation, playing a role in TCR-dependent T-cell activation.

Functions in an early step of clathrin-mediated endocytosis. Has both a membrane binding/bending activity and the ability to recruit proteins essential to the formation of functional clathrin-coated pits. Has a lipid-binding activity with a preference for membranes enriched in phosphatidylserine and phosphoinositides (Pi(4,5) biphosphate) like the plasma membrane. Its membrane-bending activity might be important for the subsequent action of clathrin and adaptors in the formation of clathrin-coated vesicles. Involved in adaptor protein complex AP-2- dependent endocytosis of the transferrin receptor, it also functions in the AP-2-independent endocytosis of the LDL receptor.

Catalyzes the two-step NADP-dependent conversion of GDP-4- dehydro-6-deoxy-D-mannose to GDP-fucose, involving an epimerase and a reductase reaction.

Extracellular lectin functioning as a pattern-recognition receptor in innate immunity. Binds the sugar moieties of pathogen- associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) displayed on microbes and activates the lectin pathway of the complement system. May also activate monocytes through a G protein-coupled receptor, FFAR2, inducing the secretion of interleukin-8/IL-8. Binds preferentially to 9-O-acetylated 2-6-linked sialic acid derivatives and to various glycans containing sialic acid engaged in a 2-3 linkage.

May function in innate immunity through activation of the lectin complement pathway. Calcium-dependent and GlcNAc-binding lectin. Enhances phagocytosis of S.typhimurium by neutrophils, suggesting an opsonic effect via the collagen region.

May function in innate immunity through activation of the lectin complement pathway. Calcium-dependent and GlcNAc-binding lectin. Has affinity with GalNAc, GlcNAc, D-fucose, as mono/oligosaccharide and lipopolysaccharides from S.typhimurium and S.minnesota.

May function as an activating coreceptor in B-cells. May function in B-cells activation and differentiation.

May have an regulatory role in normal and neoplastic B cell development.

Promotes TLR9-induced B-cell proliferation, activation and survival but inhibits antibody production and suppresses plasma cell differentiation. Enhances activation of NF-kappa-B and MAPK signaling pathways in TLR9 stimulated B-cells. Has inhibitory potentional on B-cell receptor (BCR)-mediated signaling, possibly through association with SH2 domain-containing phosphatases. Inhibits cell tyrosine phosphorylation, calcium mobilization and activation- induced cell death induced through BCR signaling. Regulatory T-cells expressing FCRL3 exhibit a memory phenotype, are relatively nonresponsive to antigenic stimulation in presence of IL2 and have reduced capacity to suppress the proliferation of effector T- cells.

May function as an inhibitor of the B-cell receptor signaling. May function in the B-cell-mediated immune response.

May be involved in B-cell development and differentiation in peripheral lymphoid organs and may be useful markers of B-cell stages. May have an immunoregulatory role in marginal zone B-cells.

Acts as a MHC class II receptor. When stimulated on its own, does not play a role in cytokine production or the release of cytotoxic granules by NK cells and cytotoxic CD8(+) T cells. Does not act as an Fc receptor.

May be implicated in B-cell differentiation and lymphomagenesis.

Adapter protein that plays a role in endocytosis via clathrin-coated pits. Contributes to the internalization of cell surface receptors, such as integrin ITGB1 and transferrin receptor. Promotes endocytosis of EGFR in cancer cells, and thereby contributes to the down-regulation of EGFR signaling. Recruited to clathrin-coated pits during a mid-to- late stage of assembly, where it is required for normal progress from U-shaped intermediate stage pits to terminal, omega-shaped pits. Binds to membranes enriched in phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate or phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate. When bound to membranes, promotes actin polymerization via its interaction with WAS and/or WASL which leads to the activation of the Arp2/3 complex. Does not promote actin polymerisation in the absence of membranes.

Takes part in the salvage pathway for reutilization of fucose from the degradation of oligosaccharides.

Catalyzes the condensation of 2 farnesyl pyrophosphate (FPP) moieties to form squalene. Proceeds in two distinct steps. In the first half-reaction, two molecules of FPP react to form the stable presqualene diphosphate intermediate (PSQPP), with concomitant release of a proton and a molecule of inorganic diphosphate. In the second half-reaction, PSQPP undergoes heterolysis, isomerization, and reduction with NADPH or NADH to form squalene. It is the first committed enzyme of the sterol biosynthesis pathway.

Can bind to the surface of B-lymphoma cells, but not T- lymphoma cells, consistent with a function as a secreted mediator acting upon B-cells

Electron donor, of the core iron-sulfur cluster (ISC) assembly complex, that acts to reduce the persulfide into sulfide during [2Fe-2S] clusters assembly on the scaffolding protein ISCU. The core iron-sulfur cluster (ISC) assembly complex is involved in the de novo synthesis of a [2Fe-2S] cluster, the first step of the mitochondrial iron-sulfur protein biogenesis. This process is initiated by the cysteine desulfurase complex (NFS1:LYRM4:NDUFAB1) that produces persulfide which is delivered on the scaffold protein ISCU in a FXN-dependent manner. Then this complex is stabilized by FDX2 which provides reducing equivalents to accomplish the [2Fe-2S] cluster assembly. Finally, the [2Fe-2S] cluster is transferred from ISCU to chaperone proteins, including HSCB, HSPA9 and GLRX5 (By similarity).

Substrate-recognition component of a Cul2-RING (CRL2) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex of the DesCEND (destruction via C-end degrons) pathway, which recognizes a C-degron located at the extreme C terminus of target proteins, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. The C- degron recognized by the DesCEND pathway is usually a motif of less than ten residues and can be present in full-length proteins, truncated proteins or proteolytically cleaved forms. The CRL2(FEM1A) complex specifically recognizes proteins with an arginine at the C-terminus: recognizes and binds proteins ending with -Lys/Arg-Xaa-Arg and -Lys/Arg-Xaa-Xaa-Arg C- degrons, such as SIL1 or OR51B2, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. Promotes ubiquitination and degradation of SLBP. Involved in PGE2-EP4- mediated inhibition of inflammation of macrophages via interaction with NFKB1 and PTGER4 (By similarity). Promotes inflammation in brain microglia through MAP2K4/MKK4-mediated signaling (By similarity).

Substrate-recognition component of a Cul2-RING (CRL2) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex of the DesCEND (destruction via C-end degrons) pathway, which recognizes a C-degron located at the extreme C terminus of target proteins, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. The C- degron recognized by the DesCEND pathway is usually a motif of less than ten residues and can be present in full-length proteins, truncated proteins or proteolytically cleaved forms. The CRL2(FEM1B) complex specifically recognizes proteins ending with -Gly-Leu-Asp-Arg, such as CDK5R1, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. Also acts as a regulator of the reductive stress response by mediating ubiquitination of reduced FNIP1: in response to reductive stress, the CRL2(FEM1B) complex specifically recognizes a conserved Cys degron in FNIP1 when this degron is reduced, leading to FNIP1 degradation and subsequent activation of mitochondria to recalibrate reactive oxygen species (ROS) (By similarity). Promotes ubiquitination of GLI1, suppressing GLI1 transcriptional activator activity. Promotes ubiquitination and degradation of ANKRD37 (By similarity). Promotes ubiquitination and degradation of SLBP. Involved in apoptosis by acting as a death receptor-associated protein that mediates apoptosis. Also involved in glucose homeostasis in pancreatic islet (By similarity). May also act as an adapter/mediator in replication stress- induced signaling that leads to the activation of CHEK1.

Substrate-recognition component of a Cul2-RING (CRL2) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex of the DesCEND (destruction via C-end degrons) pathway, which recognizes a C-degron located at the extreme C terminus of target proteins, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. The C-degron recognized by the DesCEND pathway is usually a motif of less than ten residues and can be present in full- length proteins, truncated proteins or proteolytically cleaved forms. The CRL2(FEM1C) complex specifically recognizes proteins with an arginine at the C-terminus: recognizes and binds proteins ending with -Lys/Arg-Xaa-Arg and -Lys/Arg-Xaa-Xaa-Arg C-degrons, such as SIL1 or OR51B2, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. The CRL2(FEM1C) complex mediates ubiquitination and degradation of truncated MSRB1/SEPX1 selenoproteins produced by failed UGA/Sec decoding. Promotes ubiquitination and degradation of SLBP.

Structure-specific nuclease with 5'-flap endonuclease and 5'- 3' exonuclease activities involved in DNA replication and repair. During DNA replication, cleaves the 5'-overhanging flap structure that is generated by displacement synthesis when DNA polymerase encounters the 5'-end of a downstream Okazaki fragment. It enters the flap from the 5'-end and then tracks to cleave the flap base, leaving a nick for ligation. Also involved in the long patch base excision repair (LP-BER) pathway, by cleaving within the apurinic/apyrimidinic (AP) site- terminated flap. Acts as a genome stabilization factor that prevents flaps from equilibrating into structures that lead to duplications and deletions. Also possesses 5'-3' exonuclease activity on nicked or gapped double-stranded DNA, and exhibits RNase H activity. Also involved in replication and repair of rDNA and in repairing mitochondrial DNA.

Transcription factor that binds to the E-box and functions as inhibitor of transcription. DNA binding requires dimerization with an E protein. Inhibits transcription activation by ASCL1/MASH1 by sequestering E proteins (By similarity).

Involved in cell adhesion. Contributes to integrin activation. When coexpressed with talin, potentiates activation of ITGA2B. Required for normal keratinocyte proliferation. Required for normal polarization of basal keratinocytes in skin, and for normal cell shape. Required for normal adhesion of keratinocytes to fibronectin and laminin, and for normal keratinocyte migration to wound sites. May mediate TGF-beta 1 signaling in tumor progression.

Scaffolding protein that enhances integrin activation mediated by TLN1 and/or TLN2, but activates integrins only weakly by itself. Binds to membranes enriched in phosphoinositides. Enhances integrin-mediated cell adhesion onto the extracellular matrix and cell spreading; this requires both its ability to interact with integrins and with phospholipid membranes. Required for the assembly of focal adhesions. Participates in the connection between extracellular matrix adhesion sites and the actin cytoskeleton and also in the orchestration of actin assembly and cell shape modulation. Recruits FBLIM1 to focal adhesions. Plays a role in the TGFB1 and integrin signaling pathways. Stabilizes active CTNNB1 and plays a role in the regulation of transcription mediated by CTNNB1 and TCF7L2/TCF4 and in Wnt signaling.

Tyrosine-protein kinase that acts downstream of cell surface receptors for growth factors and plays a role in the regulation of the actin cytoskeleton, microtubule assembly, lamellipodia formation, cell adhesion, cell migration and chemotaxis. Acts downstream of EGFR, KIT, PDGFRA and PDGFRB. Acts downstream of EGFR to promote activation of NF- kappa-B and cell proliferation. May play a role in the regulation of the mitotic cell cycle. Plays a role in the insulin receptor signaling pathway and in activation of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase. Acts downstream of the activated FCER1 receptor and plays a role in FCER1 (high affinity immunoglobulin epsilon receptor)-mediated signaling in mast cells. Plays a role in the regulation of mast cell degranulation. Plays a role in leukocyte recruitment and diapedesis in response to bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS). Plays a role in synapse organization, trafficking of synaptic vesicles, the generation of excitatory postsynaptic currents and neuron-neuron synaptic transmission. Plays a role in neuronal cell death after brain damage. Phosphorylates CTTN, CTNND1, PTK2/FAK1, GAB1, PECAM1 and PTPN11. May phosphorylate JUP and PTPN1. Can phosphorylate STAT3, but the biological relevance of this depends on cell type and stimulus.

Tyrosine-protein kinase that acts downstream of cell surface receptors and plays a role in the regulation of the actin cytoskeleton, microtubule assembly, cell attachment and cell spreading. Plays a role in FCER1 (high affinity immunoglobulin epsilon receptor)-mediated signaling in mast cells. Acts down-stream of the activated FCER1 receptor and the mast/stem cell growth factor receptor KIT. Plays a role in the regulation of mast cell degranulation. Plays a role in the regulation of cell differentiation and promotes neurite outgrowth in response to NGF signaling. Plays a role in cell scattering and cell migration in response to HGF-induced activation of EZR. Phosphorylates BCR and down-regulates BCR kinase activity. Phosphorylates HCLS1/HS1, PECAM1, STAT3 and TRIM28.

Binds copper, nickel, and fatty acids as well as, and bilirubin less well than, serum albumin. Only a small percentage (less than 2%) of the human AFP shows estrogen-binding properties

Promotes endocytosis, possesses opsonic properties and influences the mineral phase of bone. Shows affinity for calcium and barium ions

Protease inhibitor required for egg fertilization. Required to prevent premature zona pellucida hardening before fertilization, probably by inhibiting the protease activity of ASTL, a protease that mediates the cleavage of ZP2 and triggers zona pellucida hardening (By similarity).

Functions as a transcriptional regulator. According to PubMed:12761502, it functions as a transcriptional repressor. Functions in the differentiation and the maintenance of the central serotonergic neurons. May play a role in cell growth.

May be involved in axonal outgrowth as component of the network of molecules that regulate cellular morphology and axon guidance machinery. Able to restore partial locomotion and axonal fasciculation to C.elegans unc-76 mutants in germline transformation experiments. May participate in the transport of mitochondria and other cargos along microtubules.

Transcription repressor. Involved in the axonal projection and proper termination of olfactory sensory neurons (OSN). Plays a role in rostro-caudal patterning of the diencephalon and in prethalamic formation. Expression is required in OSN to cell-autonomously regulate OSN axon projections. Regulates non-cell-autonomously the layer formation of the olfactory bulb development and the interneurons. May be required for correct rostral migration of the interneuron progenitors (By similarity).

Transcription repressor. Required for the specification of corticospinal motor neurons and other subcerebral projection neurons. May play a role in layer and neuronal subtype-specific patterning of subcortical projections and axonal fasciculation. Controls the development of dendritic arborization and spines of large layer V pyramidal neurons. May be involved in innate immunity (By similarity).

G-protein coupled receptor for medium and long chain saturated and unsaturated fatty acids that plays an important role in glucose homeostasis. Fatty acid binding increases glucose-stimulated insulin secretion, and may also enhance the secretion of glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1). May also play a role in bone homeostasis; receptor signaling activates pathways that inhibit osteoclast differentiation (By similarity). Ligand binding leads to a conformation change that triggers signaling via G-proteins that activate phospholipase C, leading to an increase of the intracellular calcium concentration. Seems to act through a G(q) and G(i)-mediated pathway. Mediates the anti-inflammatory effects of omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) via inhibition of NLRP3 inflammasome activation.

G protein-coupled receptor that is activated by a major product of dietary fiber digestion, the short chain fatty acids (SCFAs), and that plays a role in the regulation of whole-body energy homeostasis and in intestinal immunity. In omnivorous mammals, the short chain fatty acids acetate, propionate and butyrate are produced primarily by the gut microbiome that metabolizes dietary fibers. SCFAs serve as a source of energy but also act as signaling molecules. That G protein-coupled receptor is probably coupled to the pertussis toxin- sensitive, G(i/o)-alpha family of G proteins but also to the Gq family. Its activation results in the formation of inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate, the mobilization of intracellular calcium, the phosphorylation of the MAPK3/ERK1 and MAPK1/ERK2 kinases and the inhibition of intracellular cAMP accumulation. May play a role in glucose homeostasis by regulating the secretion of GLP-1, in response to short-chain fatty acids accumulating in the intestine. May also regulate the production of LEP/Leptin, a hormone acting on the central nervous system to inhibit food intake. Finally, may also regulate whole-body energy homeostasis through adipogenesis regulating both differentiation and lipid storage of adipocytes. In parallel to its role in energy homeostasis, may also mediate the activation of the inflammatory and immune responses by SCFA in the intestine, regulating the rapid production of chemokines and cytokines. May also play a role in the resolution of the inflammatory response and control chemotaxis in neutrophils. In addition to SCFAs, may also be activated by the extracellular lectin FCN1 in a process leading to activation of monocytes and inducing the secretion of interleukin-8/IL-8 in response to the presence of microbes. Among SCFAs, the fatty acids containing less than 6 carbons, the most potent activators are probably acetate, propionate and butyrate. Exhibits a SCFA- independent constitutive G protein-coupled receptor activity.

G protein-coupled receptor that is activated by a major product of dietary fiber digestion, the short chain fatty acids (SCFAs), and that plays a role in the regulation of whole-body energy homeostasis and in intestinal immunity. In omnivorous mammals, the short chain fatty acids acetate, propionate and butyrate are produced primarily by the gut microbiome that metabolizes dietary fibers. SCFAs serve as a source of energy but also act as signaling molecules. That G protein-coupled receptor is probably coupled to the pertussis toxin- sensitive, G(i/o)-alpha family of G proteins. Its activation results in the formation of inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate, the mobilization of intracellular calcium, the phosphorylation of the MAPK3/ERK1 and MAPK1/ERK2 kinases and the inhibition of intracellular cAMP accumulation. Activated by SCFAs and by beta- hydroxybutyrate, a ketone body produced by the liver upon starvation, it inhibits N-type calcium channels and modulates the activity of sympathetic neurons through a signaling cascade involving the beta and gamma subunits of its coupled G protein, phospholipase C and MAP kinases. Thereby, it may regulate energy expenditure through the control of the sympathetic nervous system that controls for instance heart rate. Upon activation by SCFAs accumulating in the intestine, it may also signal to the brain via neural circuits which in turn would regulate intestinal gluconeogenesis. May also control the production of hormones involved in whole-body energy homeostasis. May for instance, regulate blood pressure through renin secretion. May also regulate secretion of the PYY peptide by enteroendocrine cells and control gut motility, intestinal transit rate, and the harvesting of energy from SCFAs produced by gut microbiota. May also indirectly regulate the production of LEP/Leptin, a hormone acting on the CNS to inhibit food intake, in response to the presence of short-chain fatty acids in the intestine. Finally, may also play a role in glucose homeostasis. Besides its role in energy homeostasis, may play a role in intestinal immunity. May mediate the activation of the inflammatory and immune response by SCFAs in the gut, regulating the rapid production of chemokines and cytokines by intestinal epithelial cells. Among SCFAs, the fatty acids containing less than 6 carbons, the most potent activators are probably propionate, butyrate and pentanoate while acetate is a poor activator.

[Isoform 2]: G-protein-coupled receptor for long-chain fatty acids (LCFAs) with a major role in adipogenesis, energy metabolism and inflammation. Signals via G-protein and beta-arrestin pathways. LCFAs sensing initiates activation of phosphoinositidase C-linked G proteins GNAQ and GNA11 (G(q)/G(11)), inducing a variety of cellular responses via second messenger pathways such as intracellular calcium mobilization, modulation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production, and mitogen-activated protein kinases (MAPKs). After LCFAs binding, associates with beta-arrestin ARRB2 that acts as an adapter protein coupling the receptor to specific downstream signaling pathways, as well as mediating receptor endocytosis. In response to dietary fats, plays an important role in the regulation of adipocyte proliferation and differentiation (By similarity). Acts as a receptor for omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) at primary cilium of perivascular preadipocytes, initiating an adipogenic program via cAMP and CTCF-dependent chromatin remodeling that ultimately results in transcriptional activation of adipogenic genes and cell cycle entry (By similarity). Induces differentiation of brown adipocytes probably via autocrine and endocrine functions of FGF21 hormone (By similarity). Activates brown adipocytes by initiating intracellular calcium signaling that leads to mitochondrial depolarization and fission, and overall increased mitochondrial respiration (By similarity). Consequently stimulates fatty acid uptake and oxidation in mitochondria together with UCP1-mediated thermogenic respiration, eventually reducing fat mass (By similarity). Regulates bi-potential differentiation of bone marrow mesenchymal stem cells toward osteoblasts or adipocytes likely by up-regulating distinct integrins (By similarity). In response to dietary fats regulates hormone secretion and appetite (By similarity). Stimulates GIP and GLP1 secretion from enteroendocrine cells as well as GCG secretion in pancreatic alpha cells, thereby playing a role in the regulation of blood glucose levels (By similarity). Negatively regulates glucose- induced SST secretion in pancreatic delta cells (By similarity). Mediates LCFAs inhibition of GHRL secretion, an appetite-controlling hormone (By similarity). In taste buds, contributes to sensing of dietary fatty acids by the gustatory system (By similarity). During the inflammatory response, promotes anti-inflammatory M2 macrophage differentiation in adipose tissue (By similarity). Mediates the anti- inflammatory effects of omega-3 PUFAs via inhibition of NLRP3 inflammasome activation. In this pathway, interacts with adapter protein ARRB2 and inhibits the priming step triggered by Toll-like receptors (TLRs) at the level of TAK1 and TAB1 (By similarity). Further inhibits the activation step when ARRB2 directly associates with NLRP3, leading to inhibition of pro-inflammatory cytokine release. Mediates LCFAs anti-apoptotic effects (By similarity).

Activates CDC42, a member of the Ras-like family of Rho- and Rac proteins, by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP. Plays a role in regulating the actin cytoskeleton and cell shape.

Activates CDC42, a member of the Ras-like family of Rho- and Rac proteins, by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP. Activates JNK1 via CDC42 but not RAC1. Binds to phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate, phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate, phosphatidylinositol 5- monophosphate, phosphatidylinositol 4-monophosphate and phosphatidylinositol 3-monophosphate (By similarity).

Promotes the formation of filopodia. May activate CDC42, a member of the Ras-like family of Rho- and Rac proteins, by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP. Plays a role in regulating the actin cytoskeleton and cell shape (By similarity).

Activates CDC42, a member of the Ras-like family of Rho- and Rac proteins, by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP. Mediates VEGF- induced CDC42 activation. May regulate proangiogenic action of VEGF in vascular endothelial cells, including network formation, directional movement and proliferation. May play a role in regulating the actin cytoskeleton and cell shape.

May activate CDC42, a member of the Ras-like family of Rho- and Rac proteins, by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP. May play a role in regulating the actin cytoskeleton and cell shape (By similarity).

Plays an important role in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation and cell differentiation. Required for normal branching morphogenesis. May play a role in wound healing.

Involved in nervous system development and function. Involved in the positive regulation of voltage-gated sodium channel activity. Promotes neuronal excitability by elevating the voltage dependence of neuronal sodium channel SCN8A fast inactivation.

Microtubule-binding protein which directly binds tubulin and is involved in both polymerization and stabilization of microtubules (By similarity). Through its action on microtubules, may participate in the refinement of axons by negatively regulating axonal and leading processes branching (By similarity). Plays a crucial role in neuron polarization and migration in the cerebral cortex and the hippocampus (By similarity). Regulates voltage-gated sodium channels transport and function. May also play a role in MAPK signaling (By similarity). Required for the development of axonal initial segment-targeting inhibitory GABAergic synapses made by chandelier neurons (By similarity).

Plays an important role in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation and cell differentiation, and is required for normal cardiomyocyte proliferation and heart development.

Plays an important role in the regulation of embryonic development and as signaling molecule in the induction and patterning of the embryonic brain. Required for normal brain development.

Plays an important role in the regulation of cell proliferation, cell differentiation and cell migration. Required for normal ossification and bone development. Stimulates hepatic and intestinal proliferation.

Involved in the suppression of bile acid biosynthesis through down-regulation of CYP7A1 expression, following positive regulation of the JNK and ERK1/2 cascades. Stimulates glucose uptake in adipocytes. Activity requires the presence of KLB and FGFR4.

Plays an important role in the regulation of cell survival, cell division, angiogenesis, cell differentiation and cell migration. Functions as potent mitogen in vitro. Acts as a ligand for FGFR1 and integrins. Binds to FGFR1 in the presence of heparin leading to FGFR1 dimerization and activation via sequential autophosphorylation on tyrosine residues which act as docking sites for interacting proteins, leading to the activation of several signaling cascades. Binds to integrin ITGAV:ITGB3. Its binding to integrin, subsequent ternary complex formation with integrin and FGFR1, and the recruitment of PTPN11 to the complex are essential for FGF1 signaling. Induces the phosphorylation and activation of FGFR1, FRS2, MAPK3/ERK1, MAPK1/ERK2 and AKT1. Can induce angiogenesis.

Neurotrophic factor that regulates central nervous development and function.

Stimulates glucose uptake in differentiated adipocytes via the induction of glucose transporter SLC2A1/GLUT1 expression (but not SLC2A4/GLUT4 expression). Activity requires the presence of KLB. Regulates systemic glucose homeostasis and insulin sensitivity.

Plays a role in the fasting response, glucose homeostasis, lipolysis and lipogenesis. Can stimulate cell proliferation (in vitro). May be involved in hair development.

Regulator of phosphate homeostasis. Inhibits renal tubular phosphate transport by reducing SLC34A1 levels. Up-regulates EGR1 expression in the presence of KL (By similarity). Acts directly on the parathyroid to decrease PTH secretion (By similarity). Regulator of vitamin-D metabolism. Negatively regulates osteoblast differentiation and matrix mineralization.

Acts as a ligand for FGFR1, FGFR2, FGFR3 and FGFR4. Also acts as an integrin ligand which is required for FGF2 signaling. Binds to integrin ITGAV:ITGB3. Plays an important role in the regulation of cell survival, cell division, cell differentiation and cell migration. Functions as a potent mitogen in vitro. Can induce angiogenesis. Mediates phosphorylation of ERK1/2 and thereby promotes retinal lens fiber differentiation.

Plays an important role in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation, and cell differentiation. Required for normal ear development.

Plays an important role in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation, and cell differentiation. Required for normal limb and cardiac valve development during embryogenesis.

Plays an important role in the regulation of cell proliferation and cell differentiation. Required for normal regulation of the hair growth cycle. Functions as an inhibitor of hair elongation by promoting progression from anagen, the growth phase of the hair follicle, into catagen the apoptosis-induced regression phase (By similarity).

Plays an important role in the regulation of cell proliferation, cell differentiation, angiogenesis and myogenesis, and is required for normal muscle regeneration.

Plays an important role in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation and cell differentiation. Required for normal branching morphogenesis. Growth factor active on keratinocytes. Possible major paracrine effector of normal epithelial cell proliferation.

Plays an important role in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation, cell differentiation and cell migration. Required for normal brain, eye, ear and limb development during embryogenesis. Required for normal development of the gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) neuronal system. Plays a role in neurite outgrowth in hippocampal cells.

Plays an important role in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation, cell differentiation and cell migration. May have a role in glial cell growth and differentiation during development, gliosis during repair and regeneration of brain tissue after damage, differentiation and survival of neuronal cells, and growth stimulation of glial tumors.

Acts as a carrier protein that release fibroblast-binding factors (FGFs) from the extracellular matrix (EM) storage and thus enhance the mitogenic activity of FGFs. Enhances FGF2 signaling during tissue repair, angiogenesis and in tumor growth.

Heparin-binding protein which binds to FGF2, prevents binding of FGF2 to heparin and probably inhibits immobilization of FGF2 on extracellular matrix glycosaminoglycans, allowing its release and subsequent activation of FGFR signaling which leads to increased vascular permeability.

Tyrosine-protein kinase that acts as cell-surface receptor for fibroblast growth factors and plays an essential role in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation, differentiation and migration. Required for normal mesoderm patterning and correct axial organization during embryonic development, normal skeletogenesis and normal development of the gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) neuronal system. Phosphorylates PLCG1, FRS2, GAB1 and SHB. Ligand binding leads to the activation of several signaling cascades. Activation of PLCG1 leads to the production of the cellular signaling molecules diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate. Phosphorylation of FRS2 triggers recruitment of GRB2, GAB1, PIK3R1 and SOS1, and mediates activation of RAS, MAPK1/ERK2, MAPK3/ERK1 and the MAP kinase signaling pathway, as well as of the AKT1 signaling pathway. Promotes phosphorylation of SHC1, STAT1 and PTPN11/SHP2. In the nucleus, enhances RPS6KA1 and CREB1 activity and contributes to the regulation of transcription. FGFR1 signaling is down-regulated by IL17RD/SEF, and by FGFR1 ubiquitination, internalization and degradation.

Tyrosine-protein kinase that acts as cell-surface receptor for fibroblast growth factors and plays an essential role in the regulation of cell proliferation, differentiation, migration and apoptosis, and in the regulation of embryonic development. Required for normal embryonic patterning, trophoblast function, limb bud development, lung morphogenesis, osteogenesis and skin development. Plays an essential role in the regulation of osteoblast differentiation, proliferation and apoptosis, and is required for normal skeleton development. Promotes cell proliferation in keratinocytes and immature osteoblasts, but promotes apoptosis in differentiated osteoblasts. Phosphorylates PLCG1, FRS2 and PAK4. Ligand binding leads to the activation of several signaling cascades. Activation of PLCG1 leads to the production of the cellular signaling molecules diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate. Phosphorylation of FRS2 triggers recruitment of GRB2, GAB1, PIK3R1 and SOS1, and mediates activation of RAS, MAPK1/ERK2, MAPK3/ERK1 and the MAP kinase signaling pathway, as well as of the AKT1 signaling pathway. FGFR2 signaling is down-regulated by ubiquitination, internalization and degradation. Mutations that lead to constitutive kinase activation or impair normal FGFR2 maturation, internalization and degradation lead to aberrant signaling. Over-expressed FGFR2 promotes activation of STAT1.

Tyrosine-protein kinase that acts as cell-surface receptor for fibroblast growth factors and plays an essential role in the regulation of cell proliferation, differentiation and apoptosis. Plays an essential role in the regulation of chondrocyte differentiation, proliferation and apoptosis, and is required for normal skeleton development. Regulates both osteogenesis and postnatal bone mineralization by osteoblasts. Promotes apoptosis in chondrocytes, but can also promote cancer cell proliferation. Required for normal development of the inner ear. Phosphorylates PLCG1, CBL and FRS2. Ligand binding leads to the activation of several signaling cascades. Activation of PLCG1 leads to the production of the cellular signaling molecules diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate. Phosphorylation of FRS2 triggers recruitment of GRB2, GAB1, PIK3R1 and SOS1, and mediates activation of RAS, MAPK1/ERK2, MAPK3/ERK1 and the MAP kinase signaling pathway, as well as of the AKT1 signaling pathway. Plays a role in the regulation of vitamin D metabolism. Mutations that lead to constitutive kinase activation or impair normal FGFR3 maturation, internalization and degradation lead to aberrant signaling. Over-expressed or constitutively activated FGFR3 promotes activation of PTPN11/SHP2, STAT1, STAT5A and STAT5B. Secreted isoform 3 retains its capacity to bind FGF1 and FGF2 and hence may interfere with FGF signaling.

Tyrosine-protein kinase that acts as cell-surface receptor for fibroblast growth factors and plays a role in the regulation of cell proliferation, differentiation and migration, and in regulation of lipid metabolism, bile acid biosynthesis, glucose uptake, vitamin D metabolism and phosphate homeostasis. Required for normal down- regulation of the expression of CYP7A1, the rate-limiting enzyme in bile acid synthesis, in response to FGF19. Phosphorylates PLCG1 and FRS2. Ligand binding leads to the activation of several signaling cascades. Activation of PLCG1 leads to the production of the cellular signaling molecules diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate. Phosphorylation of FRS2 triggers recruitment of GRB2, GAB1, PIK3R1 and SOS1, and mediates activation of RAS, MAPK1/ERK2, MAPK3/ERK1 and the MAP kinase signaling pathway, as well as of the AKT1 signaling pathway. Promotes SRC-dependent phosphorylation of the matrix protease MMP14 and its lysosomal degradation. FGFR4 signaling is down-regulated by receptor internalization and degradation; MMP14 promotes internalization and degradation of FGFR4. Mutations that lead to constitutive kinase activation or impair normal FGFR4 inactivation lead to aberrant signaling.

Catalyzes ATP-dependent phosphorylation of D-ribulose at C-5 to form D-ribulose 5-phosphate. Postulated to function in a metabolite repair mechanism by preventing toxic accumulation of free D-ribulose formed by non-specific phosphatase activities. Alternatively, may play a role in regulating D-ribulose 5-phosphate recycling in the pentose phosphate pathway. Can phosphorylate ribitol with low efficiency.

Immune suppressive molecule that inhibits antigen-specific T- cell activation by acting as a major ligand of LAG3. Responsible for LAG3 T-cell inhibitory function. Binds LAG3 independently from MHC class II (MHC-II). Secreted by, and promotes growth of, hepatocytes.

May play a role in physiologic lymphocyte functions at mucosal sites

Non-receptor tyrosine-protein kinase that transmits signals from cell surface receptors devoid of kinase activity and contributes to the regulation of immune responses, including neutrophil, monocyte, macrophage and mast cell functions, cytoskeleton remodeling in response to extracellular stimuli, phagocytosis, cell adhesion and migration. Promotes mast cell degranulation, release of inflammatory cytokines and IgE-mediated anaphylaxis. Acts downstream of receptors that bind the Fc region of immunoglobulins, such as MS4A2/FCER1B, FCGR2A and/or FCGR2B. Acts downstream of ITGB1 and ITGB2, and regulates actin cytoskeleton reorganization, cell spreading and adhesion. Depending on the context, activates or inhibits cellular responses. Functions as negative regulator of ITGB2 signaling, phagocytosis and SYK activity in monocytes. Required for normal ITGB1 and ITGB2 signaling, normal cell spreading and adhesion in neutrophils and macrophages. Functions as positive regulator of cell migration and regulates cytoskeleton reorganization via RAC1 activation. Phosphorylates SYK (in vitro) and promotes SYK-dependent activation of AKT1 and MAP kinase signaling. Phosphorylates PLD2 in antigen-stimulated mast cells, leading to PLD2 activation and the production of the signaling molecules lysophosphatidic acid and diacylglycerol. Promotes activation of PIK3R1. Phosphorylates FASLG, and thereby regulates its ubiquitination and subsequent internalization. Phosphorylates ABL1. Promotes phosphorylation of CBL, CTTN, PIK3R1, PTK2/FAK1, PTK2B/PYK2 and VAV2. Phosphorylates HCLS1 that has already been phosphorylated by SYK, but not unphosphorylated HCLS1. Together with CLNK, it acts as a negative regulator of natural killer cell-activating receptors and inhibits interferon-gamma production (By similarity).

Microtubule-associated formin which regulates both actin and microtubule dynamics. Induces microtubule acetylation and stabilization and actin stress fiber formation. Regulates Golgi ribbon formation. Required for normal cilia assembly. Early in cilia assembly, may assist in the maturation and positioning of the centrosome/basal body, and once cilia assembly has initiated, may also promote cilia elongation by inhibiting disassembly.

Probable component of the FTS/Hook/FHIP complex (FHF complex). FHF complex promotes the distribution of AP-4 complex to the perinuclear area of the cell.

Component of the FTS/Hook/FHIP complex (FHF complex). The FHF complex may function to promote vesicle trafficking and/or fusion via the homotypic vesicular protein sorting complex (the HOPS complex). FHF complex promotes the distribution of AP-4 complex to the perinuclear area of the cell.

Able to activate MAPK/ERK and TGFB signaling pathways. May regulate the activity of genes involved in intestinal barrier function and immunoprotective inflammation (By similarity). May play a role in cell proliferation.

Possesses dinucleoside triphosphate hydrolase activity. Cleaves P(1)-P(3)-bis(5'-adenosyl) triphosphate (Ap3A) to yield AMP and ADP. Can also hydrolyze P(1)-P(4)-bis(5'-adenosyl) tetraphosphate (Ap4A), but has extremely low activity with ATP. Exhibits adenylylsulfatase activity, hydrolyzing adenosine 5'-phosphosulfate to yield AMP and sulfate. Exhibits adenosine 5'-monophosphoramidase activity, hydrolyzing purine nucleotide phosphoramidates with a single phosphate group such as adenosine 5'monophosphoramidate (AMP-NH2) to yield AMP and NH2. Exhibits adenylylsulfate-ammonia adenylyltransferase, catalyzing the ammonolysis of adenosine 5'- phosphosulfate resulting in the formation of adenosine 5'- phosphoramidate. Also catalyzes the ammonolysis of adenosine 5-phosphorofluoridate and diadenosine triphosphate. Modulates transcriptional activation by CTNNB1 and thereby contributes to regulate the expression of genes essential for cell proliferation and survival, such as CCND1 and BIRC5. Plays a role in the induction of apoptosis via SRC and AKT1 signaling pathways. Inhibits MDM2-mediated proteasomal degradation of p53/TP53 and thereby plays a role in p53/TP53-mediated apoptosis. Induction of apoptosis depends on the ability of FHIT to bind P(1)-P(3)-bis(5'-adenosyl) triphosphate or related compounds, but does not require its catalytic activity, it may in part come from the mitochondrial form, which sensitizes the low-affinity Ca(2+) transporters, enhancing mitochondrial calcium uptake. Functions as tumor suppressor (By similarity).

May function as a molecular transmitter linking various signaling pathways to transcriptional regulation. Negatively regulates the transcriptional repressor E4F1 and may function in cell growth. Inhibits the transcriptional activity of FOXO1 and its apoptotic function by enhancing the interaction of FOXO1 with SIRT1 and FOXO1 deacetylation. Negatively regulates the calcineurin/NFAT signaling pathway in cardiomyocytes.

Recruited by SOX15 to FOXK1 promoters where it acts as a transcriptional coactivator of FOXK1.

May be involved in the regulation of spermatogenesis. Stimulates CREM transcriptional activity in a phosphorylation- independent manner.

Required for the assembly of F-actin structures, such as stress fibers. Depends on the Rho-ROCK cascade for its activity. Contributes to the coordination of microtubules with actin fibers and plays a role in cell elongation. Acts synergistically with ROCK1 to promote SRC-dependent non-apoptotic plasma membrane blebbing.

Actin-organizing protein that may cause stress fiber formation together with cell elongation (By similarity). Isoform 4 may play a role in actin filament polymerization in cardiomyocytes.

Involved in complement regulation. The dimerized forms have avidity for tissue-bound complement fragments and efficiently compete with the physiological complement inhibitor CFH. Can associate with lipoproteins and may play a role in lipid metabolism.

Involved in complement regulation. Can associate with lipoproteins and may play a role in lipid metabolism

Involved in complement regulation. The dimerized forms have avidity for tissue-bound complement fragments and efficiently compete with the physiological complement inhibitor CFH.

Cleaved by the protease thrombin to yield monomers which, together with fibrinogen beta (FGB) and fibrinogen gamma (FGG), polymerize to form an insoluble fibrin matrix. Fibrin has a major function in hemostasis as one of the primary components of blood clots. In addition, functions during the early stages of wound repair to stabilize the lesion and guide cell migration during re- epithelialization. Was originally thought to be essential for platelet aggregation, based on in vitro studies using anticoagulated blood. However, subsequent studies have shown that it is not absolutely required for thrombus formation in vivo. Enhances expression of SELP in activated platelets via an ITGB3-dependent pathway. Maternal fibrinogen is essential for successful pregnancy. Fibrin deposition is also associated with infection, where it protects against IFNG-mediated hemorrhage. May also facilitate the immune response via both innate and T-cell mediated pathways.

Cleaved by the protease thrombin to yield monomers which, together with fibrinogen alpha (FGA) and fibrinogen gamma (FGG), polymerize to form an insoluble fibrin matrix. Fibrin has a major function in hemostasis as one of the primary components of blood clots. In addition, functions during the early stages of wound repair to stabilize the lesion and guide cell migration during re- epithelialization. Was originally thought to be essential for platelet aggregation, based on in vitro studies using anticoagulated blood. However subsequent studies have shown that it is not absolutely required for thrombus formation in vivo. Enhances expression of SELP in activated platelets. Maternal fibrinogen is essential for successful pregnancy. Fibrin deposition is also associated with infection, where it protects against IFNG-mediated hemorrhage. May also facilitate the antibacterial immune response via both innate and T-cell mediated pathways.

Together with fibrinogen alpha (FGA) and fibrinogen beta (FGB), polymerizes to form an insoluble fibrin matrix. Has a major function in hemostasis as one of the primary components of blood clots. In addition, functions during the early stages of wound repair to stabilize the lesion and guide cell migration during re- epithelialization. Was originally thought to be essential for platelet aggregation, based on in vitro studies using anticoagulated blood. However, subsequent studies have shown that it is not absolutely required for thrombus formation in vivo. Enhances expression of SELP in activated platelets via an ITGB3-dependent pathway. Maternal fibrinogen is essential for successful pregnancy. Fibrin deposition is also associated with infection, where it protects against IFNG-mediated hemorrhage. May also facilitate the antibacterial immune response via both innate and T-cell mediated pathways.

May be involved in mitogenic function of FGF1. May mediate with IER2 FGF-signaling in the establishment of laterality in the embryo (By similarity).

Protein that can both mediate the addition of adenosine 5'- monophosphate (AMP) to specific residues of target proteins (AMPylation), and the removal of the same modification from target proteins (de-AMPylation), depending on the context (By similarity). The side chain of Glu-231 determines which of the two opposing activities (AMPylase or de-AMPylase) will take place (By similarity). Acts as a key regulator of the ERN1/IRE1-mediated unfolded protein response (UPR) by mediating AMPylation or de-AMPylation of HSPA5/BiP. In unstressed cells, acts as an adenylyltransferase by mediating AMPylation of HSPA5/BiP at 'Thr-518', thereby inactivating it (By similarity). In response to endoplasmic reticulum stress, acts as a phosphodiesterase by mediating removal of ATP (de-AMPylation) from HSPA5/BiP at 'Thr-518', leading to restore HSPA5/BiP activity (By similarity). Although it is able to AMPylate RhoA, Rac and Cdc42 Rho GTPases in vitro, Rho GTPases do not constitute physiological substrates.

Dual specificity phosphatase component of the PI(3,5)P2 regulatory complex which regulates both the synthesis and turnover of phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,5)P2). Catalyzes the dephosphorylation of phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,5)P2) to form phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate. Has serine-protein phosphatase activity acting on PIKfyve to stimulate its lipid kinase activity, its catalytically activity being required for maximal PI(3,5)P2 production. In vitro, hydrolyzes all three D5-phosphorylated polyphosphoinositide and although displaying preferences for PtdIns(3,5)P2, it is capable of hydrolyzing PtdIns(3,4,5)P3 and PtdIns(4,5)P2, at least in vitro.

Involved in DNA double-strand break (DBS) repair via homologous recombination (HR). Recruited at DSB sites independently of BRCA2, RAD51 and RAD51 paralogs in a H2AX-dependent manner. May regulate osteoblast proliferation and differentiation. May play a role in the control of male meiosis dynamic (By similarity).

Germline specific transcription factor implicated in postnatal oocyte-specific gene expression. Plays a key regulatory role in the expression of multiple oocyte-specific genes, including those that initiate folliculogenesis and those that encode the zona pellucida (ZP1, ZP2 and ZP3) required for fertilization and early embryonic survival. Essential for oocytes to survive and form primordial follicles. The persistence of FIGLA in adult females suggests that it may regulate additional pathways that are essential for normal ovarian development. Binds to the E-box (5'-CANNTG-3') of the ZPs (ZP1, ZP2, ZP3) promoters.

ATP-dependent microtubule severing protein. Severs microtubules along their length and depolymerizes their ends, primarily the minus-end, that may lead to the suppression of microtubule growth from and attachment to centrosomes. Microtubule severing may promote rapid reorganization of cellular microtubule arrays and the release of microtubules from the centrosome following nucleation. Microtubule release from the mitotic spindle poles may allow depolymerization of the microtubule end proximal to the spindle pole, leading to poleward microtubule flux and poleward motion of chromosome.

Essential for normal cell-cell adhesion in the cornified cell layers. Important for proper integrity and mechanical strength of the stratum corneum of the epidermis.

Aggregates keratin intermediate filaments and promotes disulfide-bond formation among the intermediate filaments during terminal differentiation of mammalian epidermis

Fibronectins bind cell surfaces and various compounds including collagen, fibrin, heparin, DNA, and actin. Fibronectins are involved in cell adhesion, cell motility, opsonization, wound healing, and maintenance of cell shape. Involved in osteoblast compaction through the fibronectin fibrillogenesis cell-mediated matrix assembly process, essential for osteoblast mineralization (By similarity). Participates in the regulation of type I collagen deposition by osteoblasts (By similarity). Acts as a ligand for the LILRB4 receptor, inhibiting FCGR1A/CD64-mediated monocyte activation.

Component of the cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor (CPSF) complex that plays a key role in pre-mRNA 3'-end formation, recognizing the AAUAAA signal sequence and interacting with poly(A) polymerase and other factors to bring about cleavage and poly(A) addition. FIP1L1 contributes to poly(A) site recognition and stimulates poly(A) addition. Binds to U-rich RNA sequence elements surrounding the poly(A) site. May act to tether poly(A) polymerase to the CPSF complex.

Involved in the fragmentation of the mitochondrial network and its perinuclear clustering. Plays a minor role in the recruitment and association of the fission mediator dynamin-related protein 1 (DNM1L) to the mitochondrial surface and mitochondrial fission. Can induce cytochrome c release from the mitochondrion to the cytosol, ultimately leading to apoptosis. Also mediates peroxisomal fission.

Plays an important role in the formation of lipid droplets (LDs) which are storage organelles at the center of lipid and energy homeostasis (By similarity). Directly binds to diacylglycerol (DAGs) and triacylglycerol (By similarity).

Fatty acyl-coenzyme A (CoA) diphosphatase that hydrolyzes fatty acyl-CoA to yield acyl-4'-phosphopantetheine and adenosine 3',5'- bisphosphate (By similarity). Preferentially hydrolyzes unsaturated long-chain acyl-CoA substrates such as oleoyl- CoA/(9Z)-octadecenoyl-CoA and arachidonoyl-CoA/(5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)- eicosatetraenoyl-CoA in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) lumen (By similarity). This catalytic activity is required for maintaining ER structure and for lipid droplets (LDs) biogenesis, which are lipid storage organelles involved in maintaining lipid and energy homeostasis (By similarity). Directly binds to diacylglycerol (DAGs) and triacylglycerol, which is also important for LD biogenesis (By similarity). May support directional budding of nacent LDs from the ER into the cytosol by reducing DAG levels at sites of LD formation (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization (By similarity).

May be a transcriptional repressor of NRL function in photoreceptors. Does not repress CRX-mediated transactivation (By similarity).

PPIases accelerate the folding of proteins during protein synthesis

PPIase which accelerates the folding of proteins during protein synthesis. Has a preference for substrates containing 4- hydroxylproline modifications, including type III collagen. May also target type VI and type X collagens.

May be involved in the cytoskeletal organization of neuronal growth cones. Seems to be inactive as a PPIase (By similarity). Involved in the transport of early endosomes at the level of transition between microfilament-based and microtubule-based movement.

Keeps in an inactive conformation TGFBR1, the TGF-beta type I serine/threonine kinase receptor, preventing TGF-beta receptor activation in absence of ligand. Recruits SMAD7 to ACVR1B which prevents the association of SMAD2 and SMAD3 with the activin receptor complex, thereby blocking the activin signal. May modulate the RYR1 calcium channel activity. PPIases accelerate the folding of proteins. It catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in oligopeptides.

Has the potential to contribute to the immunosuppressive and toxic effects of FK506 and rapamycin. PPIases accelerate the folding of proteins. It catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in oligopeptides.

PPIases accelerate the folding of proteins. It catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in oligopeptides

FK506- and rapamycin-binding proteins (FKBPs) constitute a family of receptors for the two immunosuppressants which inhibit T-cell proliferation by arresting two distinct cytoplasmic signal transmission pathways. PPIases accelerate the folding of proteins

Immunophilin protein with PPIase and co-chaperone activities. Component of steroid receptors heterocomplexes through interaction with heat-shock protein 90 (HSP90). May play a role in the intracellular trafficking of heterooligomeric forms of steroid hormone receptors between cytoplasm and nuclear compartments. The isomerase activity controls neuronal growth cones via regulation of TRPC1 channel opening. Acts also as a regulator of microtubule dynamics by inhibiting MAPT/TAU ability to promote microtubule assembly. May have a protective role against oxidative stress in mitochondria.

Immunophilin protein with PPIase and co-chaperone activities. Component of unligated steroid receptors heterocomplexes through interaction with heat-shock protein 90 (HSP90). Plays a role in the intracellular trafficking of heterooligomeric forms of steroid hormone receptors maintaining the complex into the cytoplasm when unliganded. Acts as a regulator of Akt/AKT1 activity by promoting the interaction between Akt/AKT1 and PHLPP1, thereby enhancing dephosphorylation and subsequent activation of Akt/AKT1. Interacts with IKBKE and IKBKB which facilitates IKK complex assembly leading to increased IKBKE and IKBKB kinase activity, NF-kappaB activation, and IFN production.

Co-chaperone required during spermatogenesis to repress transposable elements and prevent their mobilization, which is essential for the germline integrity. Acts via the piRNA metabolic process, which mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and govern the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons. Acts as a co-chaperone via its interaction with HSP90 and is required for the piRNA amplification process, the secondary piRNA biogenesis. May be required together with HSP90 in removal of 16 nucleotide ping-pong by- products from Piwi complexes, possibly facilitating turnover of Piwi complexes (By similarity).

Constitutively inactive PPiase, which becomes active when bound to calmodulin and calcium. Seems to act as a chaperone for BCL2, targets it to the mitochondria and modulates its phosphorylation state. The BCL2/FKBP8/calmodulin/calcium complex probably interferes with the binding of BCL2 to its targets. The active form of FKBP8 may therefore play a role in the regulation of apoptosis. Involved in the inhibition of viral infection by influenza A viruses (IAV).

May be involved in response to X-ray. Regulates p21 protein stability by binding to Hsp90 and p21.

Catalyzes the transfer of a ribitol 5-phosphate from CDP-L- ribitol to the ribitol 5-phosphate previously attached by FKTN/fukutin to the phosphorylated O-mannosyl trisaccharide (N-acetylgalactosamine- beta-3-N-acetylglucosamine-beta-4-(phosphate-6-)mannose), a carbohydrate structure present in alpha-dystroglycan (DAG1). This constitutes the second step in the formation of the ribose 5- phosphate tandem repeat which links the phosphorylated O-mannosyl trisaccharide to the ligand binding moiety composed of repeats of 3- xylosyl-alpha-1,3-glucuronic acid-beta-1.

Catalyzes the transfer of a ribitol-phosphate from CDP- ribitol to the distal N-acetylgalactosamine of the phosphorylated O- mannosyl trisaccharide (N-acetylgalactosamine-beta-3-N- acetylglucosamine-beta-4-(phosphate-6-)mannose), a carbohydrate structure present in alpha-dystroglycan (DAG1). This constitutes the first step in the formation of the ribitol 5-phosphate tandem repeat which links the phosphorylated O-mannosyl trisaccharide to the ligand binding moiety composed of repeats of 3-xylosyl-alpha-1,3-glucuronic acid-beta-1. Required for normal location of POMGNT1 in Golgi membranes, and for normal POMGNT1 activity. May interact with and reinforce a large complex encompassing the outside and inside of muscle membranes. Could be involved in brain development (Probable).

Associated component of the WMM complex, a complex that mediates N6-methyladenosine (m6A) methylation of RNAs, a modification that plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing and RNA processing. Required for accumulation of METTL3 and METTL14 to nuclear speckle. Acts as a mRNA splicing regulator. Regulates G2/M cell-cycle transition by binding to the 3' UTR of CCNA2, which enhances its stability. Impairs WT1 DNA-binding ability and inhibits expression of WT1 target genes.

Multi-functional protein, involved in both the cellular response to amino acid availability and in the regulation of glycolysis. GTPase-activating protein that plays a key role in the cellular response to amino acid availability through regulation of the mTORC1 signaling cascade controlling the MiT/TFE factors TFEB and TFE3. Regulates glycolysis by binding to lactate dehydrogenase LDHA, acting as an uncompetitive inhibitor. Activates mTORC1 by acting as a GTPase-activating protein: specifically stimulates GTP hydrolysis by RRAGC/RagC or RRAGD/RagD, promoting the conversion to the GDP-bound state of RRAGC/RagC or RRAGD/RagD, and thereby activating the kinase activity of mTORC1. The GTPase-activating activity is inhibited during starvation and activated in presence of nutrients. Acts as a key component for mTORC1-dependent control of the MiT/TFE factors TFEB and TFE3, while it is not involved in mTORC1-dependent phosphorylation of canonical RPS6KB1/S6K1 and EIF4EBP1/4E-BP1. In low-amino acid conditions, the lysosomal folliculin complex (LFC) is formed on the membrane of lysosomes, which inhibits the GTPase-activating activity of FLCN, inactivates mTORC1 and maximizes nuclear translocation of TFEB and TFE3. Upon amino acid restimulation, RRAGA/RagA (or RRAGB/RagB) nucleotide exchange promotes disassembly of the LFC complex and liberates the GTPase-activating activity of FLCN, leading to activation of mTORC1 and subsequent cytoplasmic retention of TFEB and TFE3. Indirectly acts as a positive regulator of Wnt signaling by promoting mTOR-dependent cytoplasmic retention of MiT/TFE factor TFE3. Required for the exit of hematopoietic stem cell from pluripotency by promoting mTOR-dependent cytoplasmic retention of TFE3, thereby increasing Wnt signaling. Acts as an inhibitor of browning of adipose tissue by regulating mTOR- dependent cytoplasmic retention of TFE3 (By similarity). Involved in the control of embryonic stem cells differentiation; together with LAMTOR1 it is necessary to recruit and activate RRAGC/RagC and RRAGD/RagD at the lysosomes, and to induce exit of embryonic stem cells from pluripotency via non-canonical, mTOR-independent TFE3 inactivation (By similarity). In response to flow stress, regulates STK11/LKB1 accumulation and mTORC1 activation through primary cilia: may act by recruiting STK11/LKB1 to primary cilia for activation of AMPK resided at basal bodies, causing mTORC1 down-regulation. Together with FNIP1 and/or FNIP2, regulates autophagy: following phosphorylation by ULK1, interacts with GABARAP and promotes autophagy. Required for starvation-induced perinuclear clustering of lysosomes by promoting association of RILP with its effector RAB34.

Sequence-specific transcriptional activator. Recognizes the DNA sequence 5'- C[CA]GGAAGT-3'.

May play a role as coactivator in transcriptional activation by hormone-activated nuclear receptors (NR) and acts in cooperation with NCOA2 and CARM1. Involved in estrogen hormone signaling. Involved in early embryonic development (By similarity). May play a role in regulation of cytoskeletal rearrangements involved in cytokinesis and cell migration, by inhibiting Rac1-dependent paxillin phosphorylation.

By acting through a filamin-A/F-actin axis, it controls the start of neocortical cell migration from the ventricular zone. May be able to induce the degradation of filamin-A.

Promotes orthogonal branching of actin filaments and links actin filaments to membrane glycoproteins. Anchors various transmembrane proteins to the actin cytoskeleton and serves as a scaffold for a wide range of cytoplasmic signaling proteins. Interaction with FLNB may allow neuroblast migration from the ventricular zone into the cortical plate. Tethers cell surface- localized furin, modulates its rate of internalization and directs its intracellular trafficking (By similarity). Involved in ciliogenesis. Plays a role in cell-cell contacts and adherens junctions during the development of blood vessels, heart and brain organs. Plays a role in platelets morphology through interaction with SYK that regulates ITAM- and ITAM-like-containing receptor signaling, resulting in by platelet cytoskeleton organization maintenance (By similarity). During the axon guidance process, required for growth cone collapse induced by SEMA3A-mediated stimulation of neurons.

Connects cell membrane constituents to the actin cytoskeleton. May promote orthogonal branching of actin filaments and links actin filaments to membrane glycoproteins. Anchors various transmembrane proteins to the actin cytoskeleton. Interaction with FLNA may allow neuroblast migration from the ventricular zone into the cortical plate. Various interactions and localizations of isoforms affect myotube morphology and myogenesis. Isoform 6 accelerates muscle differentiation in vitro

Muscle-specific filamin, which plays a central role in sarcomere assembly and organization. Critical for normal myogenesis, it probably functions as a large actin-cross-linking protein with structural functions at the Z lines in muscle cells. May be involved in reorganizing the actin cytoskeleton in response to signaling events (By similarity).

May act as a scaffolding protein within caveolar membranes, functionally participating in formation of caveolae or caveolae-like vesicles

May act as a scaffolding protein within caveolar membranes, functionally participating in formation of caveolae or caveolae-like vesicles. May be involved in epidermal cell adhesion and epidermal structure and function

Functions in cell-cell adhesion, cell migration and axon guidance. Mediates cell-cell adhesion via its interactions with ADGRL3 and probably also other latrophilins that are expressed at the surface of adjacent cells. May play a role in the migration of cortical neurons during brain development via its interaction with UNC5D. Mediates axon growth cone collapse and plays a repulsive role in neuron guidance via its interaction with UNC5D, and possibly also other UNC-5 family members. Plays a role in fibroblast growth factor-mediated signaling cascades. Required for normal organization of the cardiac basement membrane during embryogenesis, and for normal embryonic epicardium and heart morphogenesis.

Functions in cell-cell adhesion, cell migration and axon guidance, exerting an attractive or repulsive role depending on its interaction partners. Plays a role in the spatial organization of brain neurons. Plays a role in vascular development in the retina (By similarity). Plays a role in cell-cell adhesion via its interaction with ADGRL3 and probably also other latrophilins that are expressed at the surface of adjacent cells. Interaction with the intracellular domain of ROBO1 mediates axon attraction towards cells expressing NTN1. Mediates axon growth cone collapse and plays a repulsive role in neuron guidance via its interaction with UNC5B, and possibly also other UNC-5 family members (By similarity). Promotes neurite outgrowth (in vitro). Mediates cell-cell contacts that promote an increase both in neurite number and in neurite length. Plays a role in the regulation of the density of glutamaergic synapses. Plays a role in fibroblast growth factor-mediated signaling cascades. Required for normal morphogenesis during embryonic development, but not for normal embryonic patterning. Required for normal ventral closure, headfold fusion and definitive endoderm migration during embryonic development. Required for the formation of a normal basement membrane and the maintenance of a normal anterior visceral endoderm during embryonic development (By similarity).

Stimulates the proliferation of early hematopoietic cells by activating FLT3. Synergizes well with a number of other colony stimulating factors and interleukins

Tyrosine-protein kinase that acts as cell-surface receptor for the cytokine FLT3LG and regulates differentiation, proliferation and survival of hematopoietic progenitor cells and of dendritic cells. Promotes phosphorylation of SHC1 and AKT1, and activation of the downstream effector MTOR. Promotes activation of RAS signaling and phosphorylation of downstream kinases, including MAPK1/ERK2 and/or MAPK3/ERK1. Promotes phosphorylation of FES, FER, PTPN6/SHP, PTPN11/SHP-2, PLCG1, and STAT5A and/or STAT5B. Activation of wild-type FLT3 causes only marginal activation of STAT5A or STAT5B. Mutations that cause constitutive kinase activity promote cell proliferation and resistance to apoptosis via the activation of multiple signaling pathways.

Acts as a regulator of cilium basal body docking and positioning in mono- and multiciliated cells. Regulates basal body docking and cilia formation in multiciliated lung cells. Regulates kinocilium positioning and stereocilia bundle morphogenesis in the inner ear.

[Isoform 1]: Heme transporter that exports cytoplasmic heme. It can also export coproporphyrin and protoporphyrin IX, which are both intermediate products in the heme biosynthetic pathway. Does not export bilirubin. Heme export depends on the presence of HPX and is required to maintain intracellular free heme balance, protecting cells from heme toxicity. Heme export provides protection from heme or ferrous iron toxicities in liver, brain, sensory neurons and during erythtopoiesis, a process in which heme synthesis intensifies. Causes susceptibility to FeLV-C in vitro.

Acts as an importer of heme. Also acts as a transporter for a calcium-chelator complex, important for growth and calcium metabolism.

Plays a role in the assembly/stability of the mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or Complex V).

Plays a role in the formation of adherens junction and the polymerization of linear actin cables.

Actin-binding protein that is involved in actin cytoskeleton assembly and reorganization. Acts as an actin nucleation factor and promotes assembly of actin filaments together with SPIRE1 and SPIRE2. Involved in intracellular vesicle transport along actin fibers, providing a novel link between actin cytoskeleton dynamics and intracellular transport (By similarity). Required for asymmetric spindle positioning, asymmetric oocyte division and polar body extrusion during female germ cell meiosis (By similarity). Plays a role in responses to DNA damage, cellular stress and hypoxia by protecting CDKN1A against degradation, and thereby plays a role in stress-induced cell cycle arrest. Also acts in the nucleus: together with SPIRE1 and SPIRE2, promotes assembly of nuclear actin filaments in response to DNA damage in order to facilitate movement of chromatin and repair factors after DNA damage. Protects cells against apoptosis by protecting CDKN1A against degradation.

May play a role in the control of cell motility and survival of macrophages (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Required in the cortical actin filament dynamics and cell shape.

Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Required in the cortical actin filament dynamics.

Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Required in the control of cell shape and migration. Required for developmental angiogenesis (By similarity). In this process, required for microtubule reorganization and for efficient endothelial cell elongation. In quiescent endothelial cells, triggers rearrangement of the actin cytoskeleton, but does not alter microtubule alignement.

Broad spectrum monooxygenase that catalyzes the oxygenation of a wide variety of nitrogen- and sulfur-containing compounds including xenobiotics. Catalyzes the S-oxygenation of hypotaurine to produce taurine, an organic osmolyte involved in cell volume regulation as well as a variety of cytoprotective and developmental processes. In vitro, catalyzes the N- oxygenation of trimethylamine (TMA) to produce trimethylamine N-oxide (TMAO) and could therefore participate to the detoxification of this compound that is generated by the action of gut microbiota from dietary precursors such as choline, choline containing compounds, betaine or L- carnitine (By similarity).

Catalyzes the oxidative metabolism of numerous xenobiotics, including mainly therapeutic drugs and insecticides that contain a soft nucleophile, most commonly nitrogen and sulfur and participates to their bioactivation. Specifically catalyzes S-oxygenation of sulfur derived compounds such as thioureas-derived compounds, thioetherorganophosphates to their sulfenic acid. In vitro, catalyzes S-oxygenation of the second-line antitubercular drugs thiacetazone (TAZ) and ethionamide (ETA), forming a sulfinic acid and a carbodiimide via a postulated sulfenic acid intermediate. Also catalyzes S- oxygenation of the thioether-containing organophosphate insecticides, phorate and disulfoton.

Essential hepatic enzyme that catalyzes the oxygenation of a wide variety of nitrogen- and sulfur-containing compounds including drugs as well as dietary compounds. Plays an important role in the metabolism of trimethylamine (TMA), via the production of trimethylamine N-oxide (TMAO) metabolite. TMA is generated by the action of gut microbiota using dietary precursors such as choline, choline containing compounds, betaine or L-carnitine. By regulating TMAO concentration, FMO3 directly impacts both platelet responsiveness and rate of thrombus formation.

This protein is involved in the oxidative metabolism of a variety of xenobiotics such as drugs and pesticides

Acts as Baeyer-Villiger monooxygenase on a broad range of substrates. Catalyzes the insertion of an oxygen atom into a carbon- carbon bond adjacent to a carbonyl, which converts ketones to esters. Active on diverse carbonyl compounds, whereas soft nucleophiles are mostly non- or poorly reactive. In contrast with other forms of FMO it is non- or poorly active on 'classical' substrates such as drugs, pesticides, and dietary components containing soft nucleophilic heteroatoms (Probable). Able to oxidize drug molecules bearing a carbonyl group on an aliphatic chain, such as nabumetone and pentoxifylline. Also, in the absence of substrates, shows slow but yet significant NADPH oxidase activity. Acts as a positive modulator of cholesterol biosynthesis as well as glucose homeostasis, promoting metabolic aging via pleiotropic effects (By similarity).

Affects the rate of fibrils formation. May have a primary role in collagen fibrillogenesis (By similarity).

Multifunctional polyribosome-associated RNA-binding protein that plays a central role in neuronal development and synaptic plasticity through the regulation of alternative mRNA splicing, mRNA stability, mRNA dendritic transport and postsynaptic local protein synthesis of a subset of mRNAs. Plays a role in the alternative splicing of its own mRNA. Plays a role in mRNA nuclear export (By similarity). Together with export factor NXF2, is involved in the regulation of the NXF1 mRNA stability in neurons (By similarity). Stabilizes the scaffolding postsynaptic density protein DLG4/PSD-95 and the myelin basic protein (MBP) mRNAs in hippocampal neurons and glial cells, respectively; this stabilization is further increased in response to metabotropic glutamate receptor (mGluR) stimulation (By similarity). Plays a role in selective delivery of a subset of dendritic mRNAs to synaptic sites in response to mGluR activation in a kinesin-dependent manner (By similarity). Plays a role as a repressor of mRNA translation during the transport of dendritic mRNAs to postsynaptic dendritic spines. Component of the CYFIP1-EIF4E-FMR1 complex which blocks cap-dependent mRNA translation initiation (By similarity). Represses mRNA translation by stalling ribosomal translocation during elongation (By similarity). Reports are contradictory with regards to its ability to mediate translation inhibition of MBP mRNA in oligodendrocytes. Also involved in the recruitment of the RNA helicase MOV10 to a subset of mRNAs and hence regulates microRNA (miRNA)-mediated translational repression by AGO2. Facilitates the assembly of miRNAs on specific target mRNAs. Also plays a role as an activator of mRNA translation of a subset of dendritic mRNAs at synapses. In response to mGluR stimulation, FMR1-target mRNAs are rapidly derepressed, allowing for local translation at synapses (By similarity). Binds to a large subset of dendritic mRNAs that encode a myriad of proteins involved in pre- and postsynaptic functions. Binds to 5'-ACU[GU]-3' and/or 5'-[AU]GGA-3' RNA consensus sequences within mRNA targets, mainly at coding sequence (CDS) and 3'-untranslated region (UTR) and less frequently at 5'-UTR. Binds to intramolecular G-quadruplex structures in the 5'- or 3'-UTRs of mRNA targets. Binds to G-quadruplex structures in the 3'-UTR of its own mRNA. Binds also to RNA ligands harboring a kissing complex (kc) structure; this binding may mediate the association of FMR1 with polyribosomes. Binds mRNAs containing U-rich target sequences. Binds to a triple stem-loop RNA structure, called Sod1 stem loop interacting with FMRP (SoSLIP), in the 5'-UTR region of superoxide dismutase SOD1 mRNA. Binds to the dendritic, small non-coding brain cytoplasmic RNA 1 (BC1); which may increase the association of the CYFIP1-EIF4E-FMR1 complex to FMR1 target mRNAs at synapses (By similarity). Associates with export factor NXF1 mRNA-containing ribonucleoprotein particles (mRNPs) in a NXF2-dependent manner (By similarity). Binds to a subset of miRNAs in the brain. May associate with nascent transcripts in a nuclear protein NXF1-dependent manner. In vitro, binds to RNA homomer; preferentially on poly(G) and to a lesser extent on poly(U), but not on poly(A) or poly(C). Moreover, plays a role in the modulation of the sodium-activated potassium channel KCNT1 gating activity. Negatively regulates the voltage- dependent calcium channel current density in soma and presynaptic terminals of dorsal root ganglion (DRG) neurons, and hence regulates synaptic vesicle exocytosis (By similarity). Modulates the voltage- dependent calcium channel CACNA1B expression at the plasma membrane by targeting the channels for proteosomal degradation (By similarity). Plays a role in regulation of MAP1B-dependent microtubule dynamics during neuronal development (By similarity). Recently, has been shown to play a translation-independent role in the modulation of presynaptic action potential (AP) duration and neurotransmitter release via large- conductance calcium-activated potassium (BK) channels in hippocampal and cortical excitatory neurons. Finally, FMR1 may be involved in the control of DNA damage response (DDR) mechanisms through the regulation of ATR-dependent signaling pathways such as histone H2AX/H2A.x and BRCA1 phosphorylations.

Methionyl-tRNA formyltransferase that formylates methionyl- tRNA in mitochondria and is crucial for translation initiation.

Fructosamine-3-kinase involved in protein deglycation by mediating phosphorylation of fructoselysine residues on glycated proteins, to generate fructoselysine-3 phosphate. Fructoselysine-3 phosphate adducts are unstable and decompose under physiological conditions. Involved in intracellular deglycation in erythrocytes. Involved in the response to oxidative stress by mediating deglycation of NFE2L2/NRF2, glycation impairing NFE2L2/NRF2 function (By similarity). Also able to phosphorylate psicosamines and ribulosamines.

May act as a link between RND2 signaling and regulation of the actin cytoskeleton (By similarity). Required to coordinate membrane tubulation with reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton during the late stage of clathrin-mediated endocytosis. Binds to lipids such as phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate and phosphatidylserine and promotes membrane invagination and the formation of tubules. Also enhances actin polymerization via the recruitment of WASL/N-WASP, which in turn activates the Arp2/3 complex. Actin polymerization may promote the fission of membrane tubules to form endocytic vesicles. May be required for the lysosomal retention of FASLG/FASL.

Acts as an anti-inflammatory factor in the intestine and colon. Binds to and acts on macrophages to down-regulate pro- inflammatory gene expression. Affects key macrophage functions, including phagocytosis, by down-regulating many key pathways for macrophage activation, partly via by STAT3 activation and signaling. May be required to dampen the immunological response in colitis.

[Irisin]: Contrary to mouse, may not be involved in the beneficial effects of muscular exercise, nor in the induction of browning of human white adipose tissue.

Binding partner of the GTPase-activating protein FLCN: involved in the cellular response to amino acid availability by regulating the mTORC1 signaling cascade controlling the MiT/TFE factors TFEB and TFE3. In low-amino acid conditions, component of the lysosomal folliculin complex (LFC) on the membrane of lysosomes, which inhibits the GTPase- activating activity of FLCN, thereby inactivating mTORC1 and promoting nuclear translocation of TFEB and TFE3 (By similarity). Upon amino acid restimulation, disassembly of the LFC complex liberates the GTPase- activating activity of FLCN, leading to activation of mTORC1 and subsequent cytoplasmic retention of TFEB and TFE3 (By similarity). Required to promote FLCN recruitment to lysosomes and interaction with Rag GTPases. Together with FLCN, regulates autophagy: following phosphorylation by ULK1, interacts with GABARAP and promotes autophagy. In addition to its role in mTORC1 signaling, also acts as a co-chaperone of HSP90AA1/Hsp90: following gradual phosphorylation by CK2, inhibits the ATPase activity of HSP90AA1/Hsp90, leading to activate both kinase and non-kinase client proteins of HSP90AA1/Hsp90. Acts as a scaffold to load client protein FLCN onto HSP90AA1/Hsp90. Competes with the activating co-chaperone AHSA1 for binding to HSP90AA1, thereby providing a reciprocal regulatory mechanism for chaperoning of client proteins. Also acts as a core component of the reductive stress response by inhibiting activation of mitochondria in normal conditions: in response to reductive stress, the conserved Cys degron is reduced, leading to recognition and polyubiquitylation by the CRL2(FEM1B) complex, followed by proteasomal (By similarity). Required for B-cell development.

Binding partner of the GTPase-activating protein FLCN: involved in the cellular response to amino acid availability by regulating the mTORC1 signaling cascade controlling the MiT/TFE factors TFEB and TFE3. In low-amino acid conditions, component of the lysosomal folliculin complex (LFC) on the membrane of lysosomes, which inhibits the GTPase-activating activity of FLCN, thereby inactivating mTORC1 and promoting nuclear translocation of TFEB and TFE3. Upon amino acid restimulation, disassembly of the LFC complex liberates the GTPase-activating activity of FLCN, leading to activation of mTORC1 and subsequent cytoplasmic retention of TFEB and TFE3. Together with FLCN, regulates autophagy: following phosphorylation by ULK1, interacts with GABARAP and promotes autophagy. In addition to its role in mTORC1 signaling, also acts as a co-chaperone of HSP90AA1/Hsp90: inhibits the ATPase activity of HSP90AA1/Hsp90, leading to activate both kinase and non-kinase client proteins of HSP90AA1/Hsp90. Acts as a scaffold to load client protein FLCN onto HSP90AA1/Hsp90. Competes with the activating co-chaperone AHSA1 for binding to HSP90AA1, thereby providing a reciprocal regulatory mechanism for chaperoning of client proteins. May play a role in the signal transduction pathway of apoptosis induced by O6-methylguanine-mispaired lesions (By similarity).

Essential subunit of both the farnesyltransferase and the geranylgeranyltransferase complex. Contributes to the transfer of a farnesyl or geranylgeranyl moiety from farnesyl or geranylgeranyl diphosphate to a cysteine at the fourth position from the C-terminus of several proteins having the C-terminal sequence Cys-aliphatic- aliphatic-X. May positively regulate neuromuscular junction development downstream of MUSK via its function in RAC1 prenylation and activation.

Essential subunit of the farnesyltransferase complex. Catalyzes the transfer of a farnesyl moiety from farnesyl diphosphate to a cysteine at the fourth position from the C-terminus of several proteins having the C-terminal sequence Cys-aliphatic-aliphatic-X.

Transcription regulator that plays an essential role in erythroid and megakaryocytic cell differentiation. Essential cofactor that acts via the formation of a heterodimer with transcription factors of the GATA family GATA1, GATA2 and GATA3. Such heterodimer can both activate or repress transcriptional activity, depending on the cell and promoter context. The heterodimer formed with GATA proteins is essential to activate expression of genes such as NFE2, ITGA2B, alpha- and beta-globin, while it represses expression of KLF1. May be involved in regulation of some genes in gonads. May also be involved in cardiac development, in a non-redundant way with ZFPM2/FOG2 (By similarity).

Transcription regulator that plays a central role in heart morphogenesis and development of coronary vessels from epicardium, by regulating genes that are essential during cardiogenesis. Essential cofactor that acts via the formation of a heterodimer with transcription factors of the GATA family GATA4, GATA5 and GATA6. Such heterodimer can both activate or repress transcriptional activity, depending on the cell and promoter context. Also required in gonadal differentiation, possibly be regulating expression of SRY. Probably acts a corepressor of NR2F2 (By similarity).

Catalyzes conversion of folates to polyglutamate derivatives allowing concentration of folate compounds in the cell and the intracellular retention of these cofactors, which are important substrates for most of the folate-dependent enzymes that are involved in one-carbon transfer reactions involved in purine, pyrimidine and amino acid synthesis. Unsubstituted reduced folates are the preferred substrates. Metabolizes methotrexate (MTX) to polyglutamates.

Has both folate hydrolase and N-acetylated-alpha-linked- acidic dipeptidase (NAALADase) activity. Has a preference for tri- alpha-glutamate peptides. In the intestine, required for the uptake of folate. In the brain, modulates excitatory neurotransmission through the hydrolysis of the neuropeptide, N-aceylaspartylglutamate (NAAG), thereby releasing glutamate. Involved in prostate tumor progression

Binds to folate and reduced folic acid derivatives and mediates delivery of 5-methyltetrahydrofolate and folate analogs into the interior of cells. Has high affinity for folate and folic acid analogs at neutral pH. Exposure to slightly acidic pH after receptor endocytosis triggers a conformation change that strongly reduces its affinity for folates and mediates their release. Required for normal embryonic development and normal cell proliferation (By similarity).

Binds to folate and reduced folic acid derivatives and mediates delivery of 5-methyltetrahydrofolate and folate analogs into the interior of cells. Has high affinity for folate and folic acid analogs at neutral pH. Exposure to slightly acidic pH after receptor endocytosis triggers a conformation change that strongly reduces its affinity for folates and mediates their release.

Binds to folate and reduced folic acid derivatives and mediates delivery of 5-methyltetrahydrofolate to the interior of cells. Isoform Short does not bind folate

Heterodimerizes with proteins of the JUN family to form an AP-1 transcription factor complex, thereby enhancing their DNA binding activity to gene promoters containing an AP-1 consensus sequence 5'- TGA[GC]TCA-3' and enhancing their transcriptional activity. As part of the AP-1 complex, facilitates enhancer selection together with cell-type-specific transcription factors by collaboratively binding to nucleosomal enhancers and recruiting the SWI/SNF (BAF) chromatin remodeling complex to establish accessible chromatin (By similarity). Together with JUN, plays a role in activation-induced cell death of T cells by binding to the AP-1 promoter site of FASLG/CD95L, and inducing its transcription in response to activation of the TCR/CD3 signaling pathway. Exhibits transactivation activity in vitro (By similarity). Involved in the display of nurturing behavior towards newborns (By similarity). May play a role in neurogenesis in the hippocampus and in learning and memory-related tasks by regulating the expression of various genes involved in neurogenesis, depression and epilepsy (By similarity). Implicated in behavioral responses related to morphine reward and spatial memory (By similarity).

Controls osteoclast survival and size (By similarity). As a dimer with JUN, activates LIF transcription (By similarity). Activates CEBPB transcription in PGE2-activated osteoblasts (By similarity).

Nuclear phosphoprotein which forms a tight but non-covalently linked complex with the JUN/AP-1 transcription factor. In the heterodimer, FOS and JUN/AP-1 basic regions each seems to interact with symmetrical DNA half sites. On TGF-beta activation, forms a multimeric SMAD3/SMAD4/JUN/FOS complex at the AP1/SMAD-binding site to regulate TGF-beta-mediated signaling. Has a critical function in regulating the development of cells destined to form and maintain the skeleton. It is thought to have an important role in signal transduction, cell proliferation and differentiation. In growing cells, activates phospholipid synthesis, possibly by activating CDS1 and PI4K2A. This activity requires Tyr-dephosphorylation and association with the endoplasmic reticulum.

Transcription factor that is involved in embryonic development, establishment of tissue-specific gene expression and regulation of gene expression in differentiated tissues. Is thought to act as a 'pioneer' factor opening the compacted chromatin for other proteins through interactions with nucleosomal core histones and thereby replacing linker histones at target enhancer and/or promoter sites. Binds DNA with the consensus sequence 5'- [AC]A[AT]T[AG]TT[GT][AG][CT]T[CT]-3' (By similarity). Proposed to play a role in translating the epigenetic signatures into cell type-specific enhancer-driven transcriptional programs. Its differential recruitment to chromatin is dependent on distribution of histone H3 methylated at 'Lys-5' (H3K4me2) in estrogen-regulated genes. Involved in the development of multiple endoderm-derived organ systems such as liver, pancreas, lung and prostate; FOXA1 and FOXA2 seem to have at least in part redundant roles (By similarity). Modulates the transcriptional activity of nuclear hormone receptors. Is involved in ESR1-mediated transcription; required for ESR1 binding to the NKX2-1 promoter in breast cancer cells; binds to the RPRM promoter and is required for the estrogen-induced repression of RPRM. Involved in regulation of apoptosis by inhibiting the expression of BCL2. Involved in cell cycle regulation by activating expression of CDKN1B, alone or in conjunction with BRCA1. Originally described as a transcription activator for a number of liver genes such as AFP, albumin, tyrosine aminotransferase, PEPCK, etc. Interacts with the cis-acting regulatory regions of these genes. Involved in glucose homeostasis.

Transcription factor that is involved in embryonic development, establishment of tissue-specific gene expression and regulation of gene expression in differentiated tissues. Is thought to act as a 'pioneer' factor opening the compacted chromatin for other proteins through interactions with nucleosomal core histones and thereby replacing linker histones at target enhancer and/or promoter sites. Binds DNA with the consensus sequence 5'- [AC]A[AT]T[AG]TT[GT][AG][CT]T[CT]-3' (By similarity). In embryonic development is required for notochord formation. Involved in the development of multiple endoderm-derived organ systems such as the liver, pancreas and lungs; FOXA1 and FOXA2 seem to have at least in part redundant roles. Originally described as a transcription activator for a number of liver genes such as AFP, albumin, tyrosine aminotransferase, PEPCK, etc. Interacts with the cis-acting regulatory regions of these genes. Involved in glucose homeostasis; regulates the expression of genes important for glucose sensing in pancreatic beta- cells and glucose homeostasis. Involved in regulation of fat metabolism. Binds to fibrinogen beta promoter and is involved in IL6- induced fibrinogen beta transcriptional activation.

Transcription factor that is thought to act as a 'pioneer' factor opening the compacted chromatin for other proteins through interactions with nucleosomal core histones and thereby replacing linker histones at target enhancer and/or promoter sites (By similarity). Originally described as a transcription activator for a number of liver genes such as AFP, albumin, tyrosine aminotransferase, PEPCK, etc. Interacts with the cis-acting regulatory regions of these genes. Involved in glucose homeostasis; binds to and activates transcription from the G6PC1 promoter. Binds to the CYP3A4 promoter and activates its transcription in cooperation with CEBPA. Binds to the CYP3A7 promoter together with members of the CTF/NF-I family. Involved in regulation of neuronal-specific transcription. May be involved in regulation of spermatogenesis.

DNA-binding transcriptional factor that plays a role in a broad range of cellular and developmental processes such as eye, bones, cardiovascular, kidney and skin development. Acts either as a transcriptional activator or repressor. Binds to the consensus binding site 5'- [G/C][A/T]AAA[T/C]AA[A/C]-3' in promoter of target genes. Upon DNA-binding, promotes DNA bending. Acts as a transcriptional coactivator. Stimulates Indian hedgehog (Ihh)-induced target gene expression mediated by the transcription factor GLI2, and hence regulates endochondral ossification (By similarity). Acts also as a transcriptional coregulator by increasing DNA-binding capacity of GLI2 in breast cancer cells. Regulates FOXO1 through binding to a conserved element, 5'-GTAAACAAA-3' in its promoter region, implicating FOXC1 as an important regulator of cell viability and resistance to oxidative stress in the eye. Cooperates with transcription factor FOXC2 in regulating expression of genes that maintain podocyte integrity (By similarity). Promotes cell growth inhibition by stopping the cell cycle in the G1 phase through TGFB1- mediated signals. Involved in epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT) induction by increasing cell proliferation, migration and invasion. Involved in chemokine CXCL12-induced endothelial cell migration through the control of CXCR4 expression (By similarity). Plays a role in the gene regulatory network essential for epidermal keratinocyte terminal differentiation. Essential developmental transcriptional factor required for mesoderm-derived tissues, such as the somites, skin, bone and cartilage. Positively regulates CXCL12 and stem cell factor expression in bone marrow mesenchymal progenitor cells, and hence plays a role in the development and maintenance of mesenchymal niches for haematopoietic stem and progenitor cells (HSPC). Plays a role in corneal transparency by preventing both blood vessel and lymphatic vessel growth during embryonic development in a VEGF-dependent manner. Involved in chemokine CXCL12-induced endothelial cell migration through the control of CXCR4 expression (By similarity). May function as a tumor suppressor.

Transcriptional activator. Might be involved in the formation of special mesenchymal tissues.

Transcription factor involved in regulation of gene expression in a variety of processes, including formation of positional identity in the developing retina, regionalization of the optic chiasm, morphogenesis of the kidney, and neuralization of ectodermal cells (By similarity). Involved in transcriptional activation of PGF and C3 genes.

Probable transcription factor involved in embryogenesis and somatogenesis.

Binds to the consensus sequence 5'-A[AT]T[AG]TTTGTTT-3' and acts as a transcriptional repressor. Also acts as a transcriptional activator. Promotes development of neural crest cells from neural tube progenitors. Restricts neural progenitor cells to the neural crest lineage while suppressing interneuron differentiation. Required for maintenance of pluripotent cells in the pre-implantation and peri- implantation stages of embryogenesis.

Transcription factor that binds consensus sites on a variety of gene promoters and activate their transcription. Involved in proper palate formation, most probably through the expression of MSX1 and TGFB3 genes which are direct targets of this transcription factor. Also implicated in thyroid gland morphogenesis. May indirectly play a role in cell growth and migration through the regulation of WNT5A expression.

Transcription factor that controls lens epithelial cell growth through regulation of proliferation, apoptosis and cell cycle. During lens development, controls the ratio of the lens fiber cells to the cells of the anterior lens epithelium by regulating the rate of proliferation and differentiation (By similarity). Controls lens vesicle closure and subsequent separation of the lens vesicle from ectoderm (By similarity). Controls the expression of DNAJB1 in a pathway that is crucial for the development of the anterior segment of the eye.

Probable transcription activator for a number of lung- specific genes

Probable transcription activator for a number of lung- specific genes. Mediates up-regulation of the E3 ligase IRF2BPL and drives ubiquitination and degradation of CTNNB1.

Transcription repression factor which plays an important role in the establishment of the regional subdivision of the developing brain and in the development of the telencephalon.

Transcriptional activator. Recognizes and binds to the DNA sequence 5'-TGT[GT][GT]ATT-3'. Required for induction of the goosecoid (GSC) promoter by TGF-beta or activin signaling. Forms a transcriptionally active complex containing FOXH1/SMAD2/SMAD4 on a site on the GSC promoter called TARE (TGF-beta/activin response element).

Transcriptional activator required for the development of normal hearing, sense of balance and kidney function. Required for the expression of SLC26A4/PDS, JAG1 and COCH in a subset of epithelial cells and the development of the endolymphatic system in the inner ear. Also required for the expression of SLC4A1/AE1, SLC4A9/AE4, ATP6V1B1 and the differentiation of intercalated cells in the epithelium of distal renal tubules (By similarity).

Transcription factor specifically required for the formation of motile cilia. Acts by activating transcription of genes that mediate assembly of motile cilia, such as CFAP157. Binds the DNA consensus sequences 5'-HWDTGTTTGTTTA-3' or 5'-KTTTGTTGTTKTW-3' (where H is not G, W is A or T, D is not C, and K is G or T). Activates the transcription of a variety of ciliary proteins in the developing brain and lung.

[Isoform FOXJ2.L]: Transcriptional activator. Able to bind to two different type of DNA binding sites. More effective than isoform FOXJ2.S in transcriptional activation. Plays an important role in spermatogenesis, especially in spermatocyte meiosis (By similarity).

Transcriptional activator of MEF2C involved in the regulation of adult muscle fiber type identity and skeletal muscle regeneration (By similarity). Plays an important role in spermatogenesis (By similarity). Required for the survival of spermatogonia and participates in spermatocyte meiosis (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator involved in different processes such as glucose metabolism, aerobic glycolysis, muscle cell differentiation and autophagy (By similarity). Recognizes and binds the forkhead DNA sequence motif (5'-GTAAACA-3') and can both act as a transcription activator or repressor, depending on the context. Together with FOXK2, acts as a key regulator of metabolic reprogramming towards aerobic glycolysis, a process in which glucose is converted to lactate in the presence of oxygen (By similarity). Acts by promoting expression of enzymes for glycolysis (such as hexokinase-2 (HK2), phosphofructokinase, pyruvate kinase (PKLR) and lactate dehydrogenase), while suppressing further oxidation of pyruvate in the mitochondria by up-regulating pyruvate dehydrogenase kinases PDK1 and PDK4 (By similarity). Probably plays a role in gluconeogenesis during overnight fasting, when lactate from white adipose tissue and muscle is the main substrate (By similarity). Involved in mTORC1-mediated metabolic reprogramming: in response to mTORC1 signaling, translocates into the nucleus and regulates the expression of genes associated with glycolysis and downstream anabolic pathways, such as HIF1A, thereby regulating glucose metabolism (By similarity). Together with FOXK2, acts as a negative regulator of autophagy in skeletal muscle: in response to starvation, enters the nucleus, binds the promoters of autophagy genes and represses their expression, preventing proteolysis of skeletal muscle proteins (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional regulator of the myogenic progenitor cell population in skeletal muscle (By similarity). Binds to the upstream enhancer region (CCAC box) of myoglobin (MB) gene, regulating the myogenic progenitor cell population (By similarity). Promotes muscle progenitor cell proliferation by repressing the transcriptional activity of FOXO4, thereby inhibiting myogenic differentiation (By similarity). Involved in remodeling processes of adult muscles that occur in response to physiological stimuli (By similarity). Required to correct temporal orchestration of molecular and cellular events necessary for muscle repair (By similarity). Represses myogenic differentiation by inhibiting MEFC activity (By similarity). Positively regulates Wnt/beta-catenin signaling by translocating DVL into the nucleus. Reduces virus replication, probably by binding the interferon stimulated response element (ISRE) to promote antiviral gene expression.

Transcriptional regulator involved in different processes such as glucose metabolism, aerobic glycolysis and autophagy (By similarity). Recognizes and binds the forkhead DNA sequence motif (5'- GTAAACA-3') and can both act as a transcription activator or repressor, depending on the context. Together with FOXK1, acts as a key regulator of metabolic reprogramming towards aerobic glycolysis, a process in which glucose is converted to lactate in the presence of oxygen (By similarity). Acts by promoting expression of enzymes for glycolysis (such as hexokinase-2 (HK2), phosphofructokinase, pyruvate kinase (PKLR) and lactate dehydrogenase), while suppressing further oxidation of pyruvate in the mitochondria by up-regulating pyruvate dehydrogenase kinases PDK1 and PDK4 (By similarity). Probably plays a role in gluconeogenesis during overnight fasting, when lactate from white adipose tissue and muscle is the main substrate (By similarity). Together with FOXK1, acts as a negative regulator of autophagy in skeletal muscle: in response to starvation, enters the nucleus, binds the promoters of autophagy genes and represses their expression, preventing proteolysis of skeletal muscle proteins (By similarity). In addition to the 5'-GTAAACA-3' DNA motif, also binds the 5'-TGANTCA-3' palindromic DNA motif, and co-associates with JUN/AP-1 to activate transcription. Also able to bind to a minimal DNA heteroduplex containing a G/T-mismatch with 5'- TRT[G/T]NB-3' sequence. Binds to NFAT-like motifs (purine-rich) in the IL2 promoter. Positively regulates WNT/beta-catenin signaling by translocating DVL proteins into the nucleus. Also binds to HIV-1 long terminal repeat. May be involved in both positive and negative regulation of important viral and cellular promoter elements.

Transcription factor required for proper proliferation and differentiation in the gastrointestinal epithelium. Target gene of the hedgehog (Hh) signaling pathway via GLI2 and GLI3 transcription factors (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator. Critical factor essential for ovary differentiation and maintenance, and repression of the genetic program for somatic testis determination. Prevents trans- differentiation of ovary to testis through transcriptional repression of the Sertoli cell-promoting gene SOX9 (By similarity). Has apoptotic activity in ovarian cells. Suppresses ESR1-mediated transcription of PTGS2/COX2 stimulated by tamoxifen (By similarity). Is a regulator of CYP19 expression (By similarity). Participates in SMAD3-dependent transcription of FST via the intronic SMAD-binding element (By similarity). Is a transcriptional repressor of STAR. Activates SIRT1 transcription under cellular stress conditions. Activates transcription of OSR2.

Transcription factor regulating the expression of cell cycle genes essential for DNA replication and mitosis. Plays a role in the control of cell proliferation. Also plays a role in DNA break repair, participating in the DNA damage checkpoint response. Promotes transcription of PHB2.

Transcriptional regulator which regulates the development, differentiation, and function of thymic epithelial cells (TECs) both in the prenatal and postnatal thymus. Acts as a master regulator of the TECs lineage development and is required from the onset of differentiation in progenitor TECs in the developing fetus to the final differentiation steps through which TECs mature to acquire their full functionality. Regulates, either directly or indirectly the expression of a variety of genes that mediate diverse aspects of thymus development and function, including MHC Class II, DLL4, CCL25, CTSL, CD40 and PAX1. Regulates the differentiation of the immature TECs into functional cortical TECs (cTECs) and medullary TECs (mTECs). Essential for maintenance of mTECs population in the postnatal thymus. Involved in the morphogenesis and maintenance of the three-dimensional thymic microstructure which is necessary for a fully functional thymus. Plays an important role in the maintenance of hematopoiesis and particularly T lineage progenitors within the bone marrow niche with age. Essential for the vascularization of the thymus anlage. Promotes the terminal differentiation of epithelial cells in the epidermis and hair follicles, partly by negatively regulating the activity of protein kinase C (By similarity). Plays a crucial role in the early prenatal stages of T-cell ontogeny.

Acts as a transcriptional repressor. May be involved in DNA damage-inducible cell cycle arrests (checkpoints).

Transcription factor essential for neural and some non-neural tissues development, such as retina and lung respectively. Binds to an 11-bp consensus sequence containing the invariant tetranucleotide 5'- ACGC-3'. During development of the central nervous system, is required to specify the amacrine and horizontal cell fates from multipotent retinal progenitors while suppressing the alternative photoreceptor cell fates through activating DLL4-NOTCH signaling. Also acts synergistically with ASCL1/MASH1 to activate DLL4-NOTCH signaling and drive commitment of p2 progenitors to the V2b interneuron fates during spinal cord neurogenesis. In development of non-neural tissues, plays an essential role in the specification of the atrioventricular canal and is indirectly required for patterning the distal airway during lung development (By similarity).

Transcription factor that is the main target of insulin signaling and regulates metabolic homeostasis in response to oxidative stress. Binds to the insulin response element (IRE) with consensus sequence 5'-TT[G/A]TTTTG-3' and the related Daf-16 family binding element (DBE) with consensus sequence 5'-TT[G/A]TTTAC-3'. Activity suppressed by insulin. Main regulator of redox balance and osteoblast numbers and controls bone mass (By similarity). Orchestrates the endocrine function of the skeleton in regulating glucose metabolism (By similarity). Also acts as a key regulator of chondrogenic commitment of skeletal progenitor cells in response to lipid availability: when lipids levels are low, translocates to the nucleus and promotes expression of SOX9, which induces chondrogenic commitment and suppresses fatty acid oxidation (By similarity). Acts synergistically with ATF4 to suppress osteocalcin/BGLAP activity, increasing glucose levels and triggering glucose intolerance and insulin insensitivity (By similarity). Also suppresses the transcriptional activity of RUNX2, an upstream activator of osteocalcin/BGLAP (By similarity). Acts as an inhibitor of glucose sensing in pancreatic beta cells by acting as a transcription repressor and suppressing expression of PDX1 (By similarity). In hepatocytes, promotes gluconeogenesis by acting together with PPARGC1A and CEBPA to activate the expression of genes such as IGFBP1, G6PC1 and PCK1 (By similarity). Also promotes gluconeogenesis by directly promoting expression of PPARGC1A and G6PC1. Important regulator of cell death acting downstream of CDK1, PKB/AKT1 and STK4/MST1. Promotes neural cell death. Mediates insulin action on adipose tissue (By similarity). Regulates the expression of adipogenic genes such as PPARG during preadipocyte differentiation and, adipocyte size and adipose tissue-specific gene expression in response to excessive calorie intake (By similarity). Regulates the transcriptional activity of GADD45A and repair of nitric oxide-damaged DNA in beta-cells (By similarity). Required for the autophagic cell death induction in response to starvation or oxidative stress in a transcription-independent manner. Mediates the function of MLIP in cardiomyocytes hypertrophy and cardiac remodeling (By similarity). Regulates endothelial cell (EC) viability and apoptosis in a PPIA/CYPA-dependent manner via transcription of CCL2 and BCL2L11 which are involved in EC chemotaxis and apoptosis.

Transcriptional activator that recognizes and binds to the DNA sequence 5'-[AG]TAAA[TC]A-3' and regulates different processes, such as apoptosis and autophagy. Acts as a positive regulator of autophagy in skeletal muscle: in starved cells, enters the nucleus following dephosphorylation and binds the promoters of autophagy genes, such as GABARAP1L, MAP1LC3B and ATG12, thereby activating their expression, resulting in proteolysis of skeletal muscle proteins (By similarity). Triggers apoptosis in the absence of survival factors, including neuronal cell death upon oxidative stress. Participates in post-transcriptional regulation of MYC: following phosphorylation by MAPKAPK5, promotes induction of miR- 34b and miR-34c expression, 2 post-transcriptional regulators of MYC that bind to the 3'UTR of MYC transcript and prevent its translation. In response to metabolic stress, translocates into the mitochondria where it promotes mtDNA transcription. In response to metabolic stress, translocates into the mitochondria where it promotes mtDNA transcription. Also acts as a key regulator of chondrogenic commitment of skeletal progenitor cells in response to lipid availability: when lipids levels are low, translocates to the nucleus and promotes expression of SOX9, which induces chondrogenic commitment and suppresses fatty acid oxidation (By similarity). Also acts as a key regulator of regulatory T-cells (Treg) differentiation by activating expression of FOXP3.

Transcription factor involved in the regulation of the insulin signaling pathway. Binds to insulin-response elements (IREs) and can activate transcription of IGFBP1. Down-regulates expression of HIF1A and suppresses hypoxia-induced transcriptional activation of HIF1A-modulated genes. Also involved in negative regulation of the cell cycle. Involved in increased proteasome activity in embryonic stem cells (ESCs) by activating expression of PSMD11 in ESCs, leading to enhanced assembly of the 26S proteasome, followed by higher proteasome activity.

Transcriptional repressor. Can act with CTBP1 to synergistically repress transcription but CTPBP1 is not essential (By similarity). Plays an important role in the specification and differentiation of lung epithelium. Acts cooperatively with FOXP4 to regulate lung secretory epithelial cell fate and regeneration by restricting the goblet cell lineage program; the function may involve regulation of AGR2. Essential transcriptional regulator of B-cell development. Involved in regulation of cardiac muscle cell proliferation. Involved in the columnar organization of spinal motor neurons. Promotes the formation of the lateral motor neuron column (LMC) and the preganglionic motor column (PGC) and is required for respective appropriate motor axon projections. The segment-appropriate generation of spinal cord motor columns requires cooperation with other Hox proteins. Can regulate PITX3 promoter activity; may promote midbrain identity in embryonic stem cell-derived dopamine neurons by regulating PITX3. Negatively regulates the differentiation of T follicular helper cells T(FH)s. Involved in maintenance of hair follicle stem cell quiescence; the function probably involves regulation of FGF18 (By similarity). Represses transcription of various pro-apoptotic genes and cooperates with NF- kappa B-signaling in promoting B-cell expansion by inhibition of caspase-dependent apoptosis. Binds to CSF1R promoter elements and is involved in regulation of monocyte differentiation and macrophage functions; repression of CSF1R in monocytes seems to involve NCOR2 as corepressor. Involved in endothelial cell proliferation, tube formation and migration indicative for a role in angiogenesis; the role in neovascularization seems to implicate suppression of SEMA5B. Can negatively regulate androgen receptor signaling. Acts as a transcriptional activator of the FBXL7 promoter; this activity is regulated by AURKA.

Transcriptional repressor that may play a role in the specification and differentiation of lung epithelium. May also play a role in developing neural, gastrointestinal and cardiovascular tissues. Can act with CTBP1 to synergistically repress transcription but CTPBP1 is not essential. Plays a role in synapse formation by regulating SRPX2 levels. Involved in neural mechanisms mediating the development of speech and language

Transcriptional regulator which is crucial for the development and inhibitory function of regulatory T-cells (Treg). Plays an essential role in maintaining homeostasis of the immune system by allowing the acquisition of full suppressive function and stability of the Treg lineage, and by directly modulating the expansion and function of conventional T-cells. Can act either as a transcriptional repressor or a transcriptional activator depending on its interactions with other transcription factors, histone acetylases and deacetylases. The suppressive activity of Treg involves the coordinate activation of many genes, including CTLA4 and TNFRSF18 by FOXP3 along with repression of genes encoding cytokines such as interleukin-2 (IL2) and interferon-gamma (IFNG). Inhibits cytokine production and T-cell effector function by repressing the activity of two key transcription factors, RELA and NFATC2. Mediates transcriptional repression of IL2 via its association with histone acetylase KAT5 and histone deacetylase HDAC7. Can activate the expression of TNFRSF18, IL2RA and CTLA4 and repress the expression of IL2 and IFNG via its association with transcription factor RUNX1. Inhibits the differentiation of IL17 producing helper T-cells (Th17) by antagonizing RORC function, leading to down-regulation of IL17 expression, favoring Treg development. Inhibits the transcriptional activator activity of RORA. Can repress the expression of IL2 and IFNG via its association with transcription factor IKZF4 (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor that represses lung-specific expression.

Transcription factor which acts as both an activator and a repressor. Activates transcription of a number of genes including the heat shock chaperones HSPA1A and HSPA6 and the antioxidant NADPH-dependent reductase DHRS2 which are involved in protection against oxidative stress. Required for normal brain development (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor that suppresses transcription from the FASLG, FOXO3 and FOXO4 promoters. May have a role in the organization of the testicular vasculature (By similarity).

Plays a role in Fanconi anemia-associated DNA damage response network. Regulates FANCD2 monoubiquitination and the stability of the FA core complex. Induces chromosomal instability as well as hypersensitivity to DNA cross-linking agents, when repressed.

Key enzyme in isoprenoid biosynthesis which catalyzes the formation of farnesyl diphosphate (FPP), a precursor for several classes of essential metabolites including sterols, dolichols, carotenoids, and ubiquinones. FPP also serves as substrate for protein farnesylation and geranylgeranylation. Catalyzes the sequential condensation of isopentenyl pyrophosphate with the allylic pyrophosphates, dimethylallyl pyrophosphate, and then with the resultant geranylpyrophosphate to the ultimate product farnesyl pyrophosphate

High affinity receptor for N-formyl-methionyl peptides (fMLP), which are powerful neutrophil chemotactic factors. Binding of fMLP to the receptor stimulates intracellular calcium mobilization and superoxide anion release. This response is mediated via a G-protein that activates a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. Receptor for TAFA4, mediates its effects on chemoattracting macrophages, promoting phagocytosis and increasing ROS release. Receptor for cathepsin CTSG, leading to increased phagocyte chemotaxis.

Low affinity receptor for N-formyl-methionyl peptides, which are powerful neutrophil chemotactic factors. Binding of FMLP to the receptor causes activation of neutrophils. This response is mediated via a G-protein that activates a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. The activation of LXA4R could result in an anti- inflammatory outcome counteracting the actions of pro-inflammatory signals such as LTB4 (leukotriene B4). Receptor for the chemokine-like protein FAM19A5, mediating FAM19A5-stimulated macrophage chemotaxis and the inhibitory effect on TNFSF11/RANKL- induced osteoclast differentiation (By similarity). Acts as a receptor for humanin.

Low affinity receptor for N-formyl-methionyl peptides, which are powerful neutrophils chemotactic factors. Binding of FMLP to the receptor causes activation of neutrophils. This response is mediated via a G-protein that activates a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. Acts as a receptor for humanin.

Inhibits the binding of prostaglandin F2-alpha (PGF2-alpha) to its specific FP receptor, by decreasing the receptor number rather than the affinity constant. Functional coupling with the prostaglandin F2-alpha receptor seems to occur (By similarity). In myoblasts, associates with tetraspanins CD9 and CD81 to prevent myotube fusion during muscle regeneration (By similarity).

Plays a role in myoblast fusion; probable mediator of endocytic recycling for membrane trafficking events during myotube formation.

Involved in extracellular matrix organization (By similarity). Required for the regulation of epidermal-basement membrane adhesion responsible for proper organogenesis during embryonic development (By similarity). Involved in brain organization and function (By similarity).

Positively regulates the Wnt signaling pathway by stabilizing beta-catenin through the association with GSK-3. May play a role in tumor progression and collaborate with PIM1 and MYC in lymphomagenesis.

Positively regulates the Wnt signaling pathway by stabilizing beta-catenin through the association with GSK-3

[Frataxin mature form]: Functions as an activator of persulfide transfer to the scaffoding protein ISCU as component of the core iron-sulfur cluster (ISC) assembly complex and participates to the [2Fe-2S] cluster assembly. Accelerates sulfur transfer from NFS1 persulfide intermediate to ISCU and to small thiols such as L-cysteine and glutathione leading to persulfuration of these thiols and ultimately sulfide release. Binds ferrous ion and is released from FXN upon the addition of both L-cysteine and reduced FDX2 during [2Fe-2S] cluster assembly. The core iron-sulfur cluster (ISC) assembly complex is involved in the de novo synthesis of a [2Fe-2S] cluster, the first step of the mitochondrial iron-sulfur protein biogenesis. This process is initiated by the cysteine desulfurase complex (NFS1:LYRM4:NDUFAB1) that produces persulfide which is delivered on the scaffold protein ISCU in a FXN-dependent manner. Then this complex is stabilized by FDX2 which provides reducing equivalents to accomplish the [2Fe-2S] cluster assembly. Finally, the [2Fe-2S] cluster is transferred from ISCU to chaperone proteins, including HSCB, HSPA9 and GLRX5 (By similarity). May play a role in the protection against iron- catalyzed oxidative stress through its ability to catalyze the oxidation of Fe(2+) to Fe(3+); the oligomeric form but not the monomeric form has in vitro ferroxidase activity. May be able to store large amounts of iron in the form of a ferrihydrite mineral by oligomerization; however, the physiological relevance is unsure as reports are conflicting and the function has only been shown using heterologous overexpression systems. May function as an iron chaperone protein that protects the aconitase [4Fe-4S]2+ cluster from disassembly and promotes enzyme reactivation. May play a role as a high affinity iron binding partner for FECH that is capable of both delivering iron to ferrochelatase and mediating the terminal step in mitochondrial heme biosynthesis.

Extracellular matrix protein that plays a role in epidermal differentiation and is required for epidermal adhesion during embryonic development.

Extracellular matrix protein required for maintenance of the integrity of the skin epithelium and for maintenance of renal epithelia. Required for epidermal adhesion. Involved in the development of eyelids and the anterior segment of the eyeballs.

Extracellular matrix protein which may play a role in cell adhesion.

Key regulator for male fertility expressed transiently in round spermatids where it recruits IZUMO1 at the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane and coordinates the oolemmal binding multimeric complex (IZUMO1 complex) assembly. Upon complete assembly of the IZUMO1 complex, its ER retention is released, facilitating IZUMO1 complex export to the acrosome. Through the interaction with SPPL2C, inhibits its intramembrane protease activity directly accessing the catalytic center of an I-CLiP.

Binds to mRNA in a sequence-independent manner. May play a role in regulation of pre-mRNA splicing or in the assembly of rRNA into ribosomal subunits. May be involved in mRNA transport. May be involved in epigenetic regulation of muscle differentiation through regulation of activity of the histone-lysine N-methyltransferase KMT5B.

Stores iron in a soluble, non-toxic, readily available form. Important for iron homeostasis. Has ferroxidase activity. Iron is taken up in the ferrous form and deposited as ferric hydroxides after oxidation. Also plays a role in delivery of iron to cells. Mediates iron uptake in capsule cells of the developing kidney (By similarity).

Stores iron in a soluble, non-toxic, readily available form. Important for iron homeostasis. Iron is taken up in the ferrous form and deposited as ferric hydroxides after oxidation. Also plays a role in delivery of iron to cells. Mediates iron uptake in capsule cells of the developing kidney (By similarity).

Probable effector of the planar cell polarity signaling pathway which regulates the septin cytoskeleton in both ciliogenesis and collective cell movements. Together with FUZ and WDPCP proposed to function as core component of the CPLANE (ciliogenesis and planar polarity effectors) complex involved in the recruitment of peripheral IFT-A proteins to basal bodies (By similarity).

Non-receptor tyrosine-protein kinase that negatively regulates cell proliferation. Positively regulates PTEN protein stability through phosphorylation of PTEN on 'Tyr-336', which in turn prevents its ubiquitination and degradation, possibly by reducing its binding to NEDD4. May function as a tumor suppressor.

Scaffolding protein that regulates epithelial cell polarity by connecting ARF6 activation with the PAR3 complex (By similarity). Plays a redundant role with FRMD4B in epithelial polarization (By similarity). May regulate MAPT secretion by activating ARF6-signaling.

Member of GRP1 signaling complexes that are acutely recruited to plasma membrane ruffles in response to insulin receptor signaling. May function as a scaffolding protein that regulates epithelial cell polarity by connecting ARF6 activation with the PAR3 complex. Plays a redundant role with FRMD4A in epithelial polarization.

Putative tumor suppressor gene that may be implicated in the origin and progression of lung cancer.

May be involved in regulation of cell migration. May regulate cell-matrix interactions via its interaction with ITGB5 and modifying ITGB5 cytoplasmic tail interactions such as with FERMT2 and TLN1. May regulate ROCK1 kinase activity possibly involved in regulation of actin stress fiber formation

Plays a role in neurite development, may be through the activation of the GTPase RAC1. Plays a role in the control of eye movement and gaze stability.

Promotes the cell surface stability of iRhom1/RHBDF1 and iRhom2/RHBDF2 and prevents their degradation via the endolysosomal pathway. By acting on iRhoms, involved in ADAM17-mediated shedding of TNF, amphiregulin/AREG, HBEGF and TGFA from the cell surface. Negatively regulates Wnt signaling, possibly by antagonizing the recruitment of AXIN1 to LRP6.

Stabilizes membrane-bound GPSM1, and thereby promotes its interaction with GNAI1.

May play a role in the regulation of tight junction formation. Binds phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4)P2).

Ferric-chelate reductases reduce Fe(3+) to Fe(2+) before its transport from the endosome to the cytoplasm.

Adapter protein that links activated FGR and NGF receptors to downstream signaling pathways. Plays an important role in the activation of MAP kinases and in the phosphorylation of PIK3R1, the regulatory subunit of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase, in response to ligand-mediated activation of FGFR1. Modulates signaling via SHC1 by competing for a common binding site on NTRK1.

Adapter protein that links FGF and NGF receptors to downstream signaling pathways. Involved in the activation of MAP kinases. Down-regulates ERK2 signaling by interfering with the phosphorylation and nuclear translocation of ERK2.

Plays a key role in maintaining the integrity of polarized cell extensions during morphogenesis, regulates the actin cytoskeleton and plays a key role in patterning sensory neuron dendritic fields by promoting avoidance between homologous dendrites as well as by limiting dendritic branching (By similarity). May function as a transcriptional activator.

Plays a crucial role in the structural integrity of mitotic centrosomes and in the maintenance of spindle bipolarity by promoting PLK1 activity at the spindle poles in early mitosis. May function as a scaffold promoting the interaction between AURKA and PLK1, thereby enhancing AURKA-mediated PLK1 phosphorylation.

Transcriptional repressor that down-regulates the expression of the fibrinogen gamma chain. Represses transcription of GSK3B gene promoter via its interaction with APBA1.

May be involved in the later stages of fibrous sheath biogenesis and spermatozoa capacitation. Inhibits ROPN1 and ROPN1L SUMOylation. Binds calcium.

Actin-binding protein that contains 2 major actin binding sites. Organizes filamentous actin into parallel bundles. Plays a role in the organization of actin filament bundles and the formation of microspikes, membrane ruffles, and stress fibers. Important for the formation of a diverse set of cell protrusions, such as filopodia, and for cell motility and migration. Mediates reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and axon growth cone collapse in response to NGF.

Acts as an actin bundling protein. May play a pivotal role in photoreceptor cell-specific events, such as disk morphogenesis

Together with the alpha chain CGA constitutes follitropin, the follicle-stimulating hormone, and provides its biological specificity to the hormone heterodimer. Binds FSHR, a G protein-coupled receptor, on target cells to activate downstream signaling pathways. Follitropin is involved in follicle development and spermatogenesis in reproductive organs.

A NAD(P)H-dependent oxidoreductase that acts as a key inhibitor of ferroptosis. At the plasma membrane, catalyzes reduction of coenzyme Q/ubiquinone-10 to ubiquinol-10, a lipophilic radical-trapping antioxidant that prevents lipid oxidative damage and consequently ferroptosis. Acts in parallel to GPX4 to suppress phospholipid peroxidation and ferroptosis. This anti-ferroptotic function is independent of cellular glutathione levels. Also acts as a potent radical-trapping antioxidant by mediating warfarin-resistant vitamin K reduction in the canonical vitamin K cycle: catalyzes NAD(P)H-dependent reduction of vitamin K (phylloquinone, menaquinone-4 and menadione) to hydroquinone forms. Hydroquinones act as potent radical-trapping antioxidants inhibitor of phospholipid peroxidation and ferroptosis. May play a role in mitochondrial stress signaling. Upon oxidative stress, associates with the lipid peroxidation end product 4-hydroxy-2-nonenal (HNE) forming a lipid adduct devoid of oxidoreductase activity, which then translocates from mitochondria into the nucleus triggering DNA damage and cell death. Capable of DNA binding in a non-sequence specific way.

Secreted glycoprotein that is involved in various physiological processes, such as angiogenesis, regulation of the immune response, cell proliferation and differentiation. Plays a role in the development of the central nervous system, skeletal system, lungs, and ureter (By similarity). Promotes endothelial cell survival, migration and differentiation into network structures in an AKT-dependent manner. Also promotes survival of cardiac myocytes (By similarity). Initiates various signaling cascades by activating different receptors on the cell surface such as DIP2A, TLR4 or BMP receptors.

Isoform 1 or the secreted form is a binding and antagonizing protein for members of the TGF-beta family, such us activin, BMP2 and MSTN. Inhibits activin A-, activin B-, BMP2- and MSDT-induced cellular signaling; more effective on activin A than on activin B. Involved in bone formation; inhibits osteoclast differentiationc. Involved in hematopoiesis; involved in differentiation of hemopoietic progenitor cells, increases hematopoietic cell adhesion to fibronectin and seems to contribute to the adhesion of hematopoietic precursor cells to the bone marrow stroma. Isoform 2 or the nuclear form is probably involved in transcriptional regulation via interaction with MLLT10.

Binds directly to activin and functions as an activin antagonist. Specific inhibitor of the biosynthesis and secretion of pituitary follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

Folate-dependent enzyme, that displays both transferase and deaminase activity. Serves to channel one-carbon units from formiminoglutamate to the folate pool.

Catalyzes the oxidation of ferrous iron(II) to ferric iron(III) and stores iron in a soluble, non-toxic, readily available form. Important for iron homeostasis. Iron is taken up in the ferrous form and deposited as ferric hydroxides after oxidation.

Negatively regulates signaling through the G-protein coupled thromboxane A2 receptor (TBXA2R). May be involved in mechanisms like programmed cell death, craniofacial development, patterning of the limbs, and formation of the left-right axis (By similarity). Involved in the organization of apical junctions; the function is proposed to implicate a NPHP1-4-8 module. Does not seem to be strictly required for ciliogenesis. Involved in establishment of planar cell polarity such as in cochlear sensory epithelium and is proposed to implicate stabilization of disheveled proteins (By similarity). Involved in regulation of proteasomal activity at the primary cilium probably implicating association with PSDM2 (By similarity).

RNA demethylase that mediates oxidative demethylation of different RNA species, such as mRNAs, tRNAs and snRNAs, and acts as a regulator of fat mass, adipogenesis and energy homeostasis. Specifically demethylates N(6)- methyladenosine (m6A) RNA, the most prevalent internal modification of messenger RNA (mRNA) in higher eukaryotes. M6A demethylation by FTO affects mRNA expression and stability. Also able to demethylate m6A in U6 small nuclear RNA (snRNA). Mediates demethylation of N(6),2'-O- dimethyladenosine cap (m6A(m)), by demethylating the N(6)- methyladenosine at the second transcribed position of mRNAs and U6 snRNA. Demethylation of m6A(m) in the 5'-cap by FTO affects mRNA stability by promoting susceptibility to decapping. Also acts as a tRNA demethylase by removing N(1)-methyladenine from various tRNAs. Has no activity towards 1-methylguanine. Has no detectable activity towards double-stranded DNA. Also able to repair alkylated DNA and RNA by oxidative demethylation: demethylates single-stranded RNA containing 3-methyluracil, single- stranded DNA containing 3-methylthymine and has low demethylase activity towards single-stranded DNA containing 1-methyladenine or 3- methylcytosine. Ability to repair alkylated DNA and RNA is however unsure in vivo. Involved in the regulation of fat mass, adipogenesis and body weight, thereby contributing to the regulation of body size and body fat accumulation. Involved in the regulation of thermogenesis and the control of adipocyte differentiation into brown or white fat cells. Regulates activity of the dopaminergic midbrain circuitry via its ability to demethylate m6A in mRNAs (By similarity). Plays an oncogenic role in a number of acute myeloid leukemias by enhancing leukemic oncogene-mediated cell transformation: acts by mediating m6A demethylation of target transcripts such as MYC, CEBPA, ASB2 and RARA, leading to promote their expression.

Regulates MYC expression by binding to a single-stranded far- upstream element (FUSE) upstream of the MYC promoter. May act both as activator and repressor of transcription.

May interact with single-stranded DNA from the far-upstream element (FUSE). May activate gene expression

Involved in the interconversion between alpha- and beta-L- fucoses. L-Fucose (6-deoxy-L-galactose) exists as alpha-L-fucose (29.5%) and beta-L-fucose (70.5%), the beta-form is metabolized through the salvage pathway. GDP-L-fucose formed either by the de novo or salvage pathways is transported into the endoplasmic reticulum, where it serves as a substrate for N- and O-glycosylations by fucosyltransferases. Fucosylated structures expressed on cell surfaces or secreted in biological fluids are believed to play a critical role in cell-cell adhesion and recognition processes.

Alpha-L-fucosidase is responsible for hydrolyzing the alpha- 1,6-linked fucose joined to the reducing-end N-acetylglucosamine of the carbohydrate moieties of glycoproteins

Alpha-L-fucosidase is responsible for hydrolyzing the alpha- 1,6-linked fucose joined to the reducing-end N-acetylglucosamine of the carbohydrate moieties of glycoproteins.

Antiporter specific for GDP-l-fucose and depending on the concomitant reverse transport of GMP. Involved in GDP-fucose import from the cytoplasm into the Golgi lumen.

Catalyzes the reversible stereospecific interconversion of fumarate to L-malate. Experiments in other species have demonstrated that specific isoforms of this protein act in defined pathways and favor one direction over the other (Probable).

Acts as an activator of hypoxia-induced mitophagy, an important mechanism for mitochondrial quality control.

Binds directly and specifically 1,2-Diacyl-sn-glycero-3- phospho-(1'-myo-inositol-3',4',5'-bisphosphate) (PIP3) leading to the recruitment of PIP3 to mitochondria and may play a role in the regulation of the platelet activation via AKT/GSK3B/cGMP signaling pathways. May act as transcription factor that regulates SREBP1 (isoform SREBP-1C) expression in order to modulate triglyceride (TG) homeostasis in hepatocytes.

Ubiquitous endoprotease within constitutive secretory pathways capable of cleavage at the RX(K/R)R consensus motif. Mediates processing of TGFB1, an essential step in TGF-beta-1 activation. Converts through proteolytic cleavage the non-functional Brain natriuretic factor prohormone into its active hormone BNP(1-32). By mediating processing of accessory subunit ATP6AP1/Ac45 of the V-ATPase, regulates the acidification of dense-core secretory granules in islets of Langerhans cells (By similarity).

DNA/RNA-binding protein that plays a role in various cellular processes such as transcription regulation, RNA splicing, RNA transport, DNA repair and damage response. Binds to nascent pre-mRNAs and acts as a molecular mediator between RNA polymerase II and U1 small nuclear ribonucleoprotein thereby coupling transcription and splicing. Binds also its own pre- mRNA and autoregulates its expression; this autoregulation mechanism is mediated by non-sense-mediated decay. Plays a role in DNA repair mechanisms by promoting D-loop formation and homologous recombination during DNA double-strand break repair. In neuronal cells, plays crucial roles in dendritic spine formation and stability, RNA transport, mRNA stability and synaptic homeostasis (By similarity).

Predominantly fucosylates the innermost N-acetyl glucosamine (GlcNAc) residue in biantennary N-glycan acceptors. Postulated to generate core alpha(1->3)-fucose epitope within the chitobiose unit of biantennary N-glycans, providing for a recognition signal to reorient aberrantly folded glycoproteins for degradation. Involved in biosynthesis of Lewis X-carrying biantennary N-glycans that regulate neuron stem cell self-renewal during brain development (By similarity).

[Isoform 1]: Has minor fucosyltransferase activity toward biantennary N-glycan acceptors. Does not fucosylate GlcNAc residue within type 2 lactosamine unit.

Catalyzes the transfer of L-fucose, from a guanosine diphosphate-beta-L-fucose, to the terminal galactose residue of glycoconjugates through an alpha(1,2) linkage leading to H antigen synthesis that is an intermediate substrate in the synthesis of ABO blood group antigens. H antigen is essential for maturation of the glomerular layer of the main olfactory bulb, in cell migration and early cell-cell contacts during tumor associated angiogenesis. Preferentially fucosylates soluble lactose and to a lesser extent fucosylates glycolipids gangliosides GA1 and GM1a (By similarity).

Catalyzes the transfer of L-fucose, from a guanosine diphosphate-beta-L-fucose, to the terminal galactose on both O- and N- linked glycans chains of cell surface glycoproteins and glycolipids and the resulting epitope regulates several processes such as cell-cell interaction including host-microbe interaction, cell surface expression and cell proliferation. Preferentially fucosylates gangliosides GA1 and GM1 in the antrum, cecum and colon and in the female reproductive organs (By similarity). Fucosylated host glycoproteins or glycolipids mediate interaction with intestinal microbiota influencing its composition. Creates a soluble precursor oligosaccharide FuC-alpha ((1,2)Galbeta-) called the H antigen which is an essential substrate for the final step in the soluble ABO blood group antigen synthesis pathway.

[Isoform Short]: Catalyzes alpha(1->3) linkage of fucosyl moiety transferred from GDP-beta-L-fucose to N-acetyl glucosamine (GlcNAc) within type 2 lactosamine (LacNAc, Gal-beta(1->4)GlcNAc) glycan attached to N- or O-linked glycoproteins. Robustly fucosylates nonsialylated distal LacNAc unit of the polylactosamine chain to form Lewis X antigen (CD15), a glycan determinant known to mediate important cellular functions in development and immunity. Fucosylates with lower efficiency sialylated LacNAc acceptors to form sialyl Lewis X and 6- sulfo sialyl Lewis X determinants that serve as recognition epitopes for C-type lectins. Together with FUT7 contributes to SELE, SELL and SELP selectin ligand biosynthesis and selectin-dependent lymphocyte homing, leukocyte migration and blood leukocyte homeostasis (By similarity). In a cell type specific manner, may also fucosylate the internal LacNAc unit of the polylactosamine chain to form VIM-2 antigen that serves as recognition epitope for SELE.

[Isoform 1]: Catalyzes the transfer of L-fucose, from a guanosine diphosphate-beta-L-fucose, to the N-acetyl glucosamine (GlcNAc) of a distal alpha2,3 sialylated lactosamine unit of a glycoprotein- or a glycolipid-linked sialopolylactosamines chain or of a distal or internal lactosamine unit of a neutral glycoprotein- or a glycolipid-linked polylactosamines chain through an alpha-1,3 glycosidic linkage and participates in surface expression of the sialyl Lewis X (sLe(x)), Lewis X (Le(x)) and non sialylated VIM2 determinants. Moreover transfers fucose to H-type 2 (Fucalpha1-2Galbeta1-4GlcNAc) chain acceptor substrates and participates in difucosylated sialyl Lewis x determinants. Also fucosylates a polylactosamine substrate having a 6 sulfate modification at the GlcNAc moiety and gives rise to sialyl and non-sialyl 6-sulfo lewis X. Does not have activity towards type 1 ((Galbeta1-3GlcNAc)) and H-type 1 chain (Fucalpha1-2Galbeta1-3GlcNAc) acceptors substrates.

Catalyzes the transfer of L-fucose, from a guanosine diphosphate-beta-L-fucose, to the N-acetyl glucosamine (GlcNAc) of a distal alpha2,3 sialylated lactosamine unit of a glycoprotein or a glycolipid-linked sialopolylactosamines chain through an alpha-1,3 glycosidic linkage and participates in the final fucosylation step in the biosynthesis of the sialyl Lewis X (sLe(x)), a carbohydrate involved in cell and matrix adhesion during leukocyte trafficking and fertilization. In vitro, also synthesizes sialyl-dimeric-Lex structures, from VIM-2 structures and both di-fucosylated and trifucosylated structures from mono-fucosylated precursors. However does not catalyze alpha 1-3 fucosylation when an internal alpha 1-3 fucosylation is present in polylactosamine chain and the fucosylation rate of the internal GlcNAc residues is reduced once fucose has been added to the distal GlcNAc. Also catalyzes the transfer of a fucose from GDP-beta-fucose to the 6-sulfated a(2,3)sialylated substrate to produce 6-sulfo sLex mediating significant L-selectin- dependent cell adhesion. Through sialyl-Lewis(x) biosynthesis, can control SELE- and SELP-mediated cell adhesion with leukocytes and allows leukocytes tethering and rolling along the endothelial tissue thereby enabling the leukocytes to accumulate at a site of inflammation. May enhance embryo implantation through sialyl Lewis X (sLeX)-mediated adhesion of embryo cells to endometrium. May affect insulin signaling by up-regulating the phosphorylation and expression of some signaling molecules involved in the insulin-signaling pathway through SLe(x) which is present on the glycans of the INSRR alpha subunit.

Catalyzes the addition of fucose in alpha 1-6 linkage to the first GlcNAc residue, next to the peptide chains in N-glycans.

Catalyzes the transfer of L-fucose, from a guanosine diphosphate-beta-L-fucose, to the N-acetyl glucosamine (GlcNAc) of a distal lactosamine unit of a glycoprotein or a glycolipid-linked polylactosamine chains through an alpha-1,3 glycosidic linkage and participates in particular to the Lewis x (Lex)/CD15 epitope biosynthesis in neurons which allows cell differentiation, cell adhesion, and initiation of neurite outgrowth. Also fucosylates di-, tri- and tetraantennary N-glycans linked to glycoproteins and the inner lactosamine unit of the alpha2,3-sialylated polylactosamine resulting in sLex (CD15s) epitope synthesis. Furthermore, it is capable of synthesizing Lewis a (Lea), although to a lesser extent than Lex and Lewis y (Ley) and to confer SELE-dependent, but not SELL- and SELP-selectin-dependent, cell rolling and adhesion by enhancing Lex and sLex synthesis. May also fucosylate the internal LacNAc unit of the polylactosamine chain to form VIM-2 antigen that serves as recognition epitope for SELE.

Probable planar cell polarity effector involved in cilium biogenesis. May regulate protein and membrane transport to the cilium. Proposed to function as core component of the CPLANE (ciliogenesis and planar polarity effectors) complex involved in the recruitment of peripheral IFT-A proteins to basal bodies. May regulate the morphogenesis of hair follicles which depends on functional primary cilia (By similarity).

Transcription cofactor. Negatively regulates transcription activation by catenin beta-1 CTNNB1, perhaps acting by competing with TCF4 for CTNNB1 binding. May play a role in DNA-damage response signaling. Binds specifically to DNA sequences at peri-centromeric chromatin loci.

Promotes megakaryocyte differentiation by enhancing ERK phosphorylation and up-regulating RUNX1 expression.

Substrate-recognition component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. Mediates the polyubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of CAMK1 leading to disruption of cyclin D1/CDK4 complex assembly which results in G1 cell cycle arrest in lung epithelia.

Substrate-recognition component of some SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes. The SCF(FBXL14) complex acts by mediating ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of SNAI1.

Substrate recognition component of a SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of SMURF1, thereby acting as a positive regulator of the BMP signaling pathway. Required for dorsal/ventral pattern formation and bone mass maintenance. Also mediates ubiquitination of SMURF2 and WWP2.

Substrate-recognition component of the SCF(FBXL17) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex, a key component of a quality control pathway required to ensure functional dimerization of BTB domain-containing proteins (dimerization quality control, DQC). FBXL17 specifically recognizes and binds a conserved degron of non-consecutive residues present at the interface of BTB dimers of aberrant composition: aberrant BTB dimer are then ubiquitinated by the SCF(FBXL17) complex and degraded by the proteasome. The ability of the SCF(FBXL17) complex to eliminate compromised BTB dimers is required for the differentiation and survival of neural crest and neuronal cells (By similarity). The SCF(FBXL17) complex mediates ubiquitination and degradation of BACH1. The SCF(FBXL17) complex is also involved in the regulation of the hedgehog/smoothened (Hh) signaling pathway by mediating the ubiquitination and degradation of SUFU, allowing the release of GLI1 from SUFU for proper Hh signal transduction. The SCF(FBXL17) complex mediates ubiquitination and degradation of PRMT1 (By similarity).

Substrate-recognition component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. Role in neural transmission (By similarity).

RNA-binding protein required for embryonic and postnatal development of muscle tissue. May regulate intracellular transport and local translation of certain mRNAs (By similarity).

Required for the assembly of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I). Involved in mid-late stages of complex I assembly.

Probable flavoprotein which may function in endoplasmic reticulum associated degradation (ERAD). May bind non-native proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum and target them to the ubiquitination machinery for subsequent degradation.

Associates with and regulates the activity of the sodium/potassium-transporting ATPase (NKA) which transports Na(+) out of the cell and K(+) into the cell. Reduces glutathionylation of the NKA beta-1 subunit ATP1B1, thus reversing glutathionylation-mediated inhibition of ATP1B1. Induces a hyperpolarization-activated chloride current when expressed in Xenopus oocytes.

Involved in down-regulation of E-cadherin which results in reduced cell adhesion. Promotes metastasis.

Acts as an adapter protein of the FYN and LCP2 signaling cascades in T-cells (By similarity). May play a role in linking T-cell signaling to remodeling of the actin cytoskeleton. Modulates the expression of IL2 (By similarity). Involved in platelet activation (By similarity). Prevents the degradation of SKAP1 and SKAP2. May be involved in high affinity immunoglobulin epsilon receptor signaling in mast cells (By similarity).

Adapter protein that plays a role in T-cell receptor (TCR)- mediated activation of signaling pathways. Required for T-cell activation and integrin-mediated T-cell adhesion in response to TCR stimulation.

Non-receptor tyrosine-protein kinase that plays a role in many biological processes including regulation of cell growth and survival, cell adhesion, integrin-mediated signaling, cytoskeletal remodeling, cell motility, immune response and axon guidance. Inactive FYN is phosphorylated on its C-terminal tail within the catalytic domain. Following activation by PKA, the protein subsequently associates with PTK2/FAK1, allowing PTK2/FAK1 phosphorylation, activation and targeting to focal adhesions. Involved in the regulation of cell adhesion and motility through phosphorylation of CTNNB1 (beta- catenin) and CTNND1 (delta-catenin). Regulates cytoskeletal remodeling by phosphorylating several proteins including the actin regulator WAS and the microtubule-associated proteins MAP2 and MAPT. Promotes cell survival by phosphorylating AGAP2/PIKE-A and preventing its apoptotic cleavage. Participates in signal transduction pathways that regulate the integrity of the glomerular slit diaphragm (an essential part of the glomerular filter of the kidney) by phosphorylating several slit diaphragm components including NPHS1, KIRREL1 and TRPC6. Plays a role in neural processes by phosphorylating DPYSL2, a multifunctional adapter protein within the central nervous system, ARHGAP32, a regulator for Rho family GTPases implicated in various neural functions, and SNCA, a small pre-synaptic protein. Participates in the downstream signaling pathways that lead to T-cell differentiation and proliferation following T-cell receptor (TCR) stimulation. Phosphorylates PTK2B/PYK2 in response to T-cell receptor activation. Also participates in negative feedback regulation of TCR signaling through phosphorylation of PAG1, thereby promoting interaction between PAG1 and CSK and recruitment of CSK to lipid rafts. CSK maintains LCK and FYN in an inactive form. Promotes CD28-induced phosphorylation of VAV1. In mast cells, phosphorylates CLNK after activation of immunoglobulin epsilon receptor signaling (By similarity).

Dual specificity kinase implicated in myriad essential cellular processes such as maintenance of endomembrane homeostasis, and endocytic-vacuolar pathway, lysosomal trafficking, nuclear transport, stress- or hormone-induced signaling and cell cycle progression. The PI(3,5)P2 regulatory complex regulates both the synthesis and turnover of phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,5)P2). Sole enzyme to catalyze the phosphorylation of phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate on the fifth hydroxyl of the myo- inositol ring, to form (PtdIns(3,5)P2). Also catalyzes the phosphorylation of phosphatidylinositol on the fifth hydroxyl of the myo-inositol ring, to form phosphatidylinositol 5- phosphate (PtdIns(5)P). Has serine-protein kinase activity and is able to autophosphorylate and transphosphorylate. Autophosphorylation inhibits its own phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate 5-kinase activity, stimulates FIG4 lipid phosphatase activity and down- regulates lipid product formation. Involved in key endosome operations such as fission and fusion in the course of endosomal cargo transport. Required for the maturation of early into late endosomes, phagosomes and lysosomes. Regulates vacuole maturation and nutrient recovery following engulfment of macromolecules, initiates the redistribution of accumulated lysosomal contents back into the endosome network. Critical regulator of the morphology, degradative activity, and protein turnover of the endolysosomal system in macrophages and platelets (By similarity). In neutrophils, critical to perform chemotaxis, generate ROS, and undertake phagosome fusion with lysosomes. Plays a key role in the processing and presentation of antigens by major histocompatibility complex class II (MHC class II) mediated by CTSS. Regulates melanosome biogenesis by controlling the delivery of proteins from the endosomal compartment to the melanosome. Essential for systemic glucose homeostasis, mediates insulin-induced signals for endosome/actin remodeling in the course of GLUT4 translocation/glucose uptake activation (By similarity). Supports microtubule-based endosome- to-trans-Golgi network cargo transport, through association with SPAG9 and RABEPK (By similarity). Mediates EGFR trafficking to the nucleus.

Receptor for Wnt proteins. Functions in the canonical Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway (By similarity). The canonical Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway leads to the activation of disheveled proteins, inhibition of GSK-3 kinase, nuclear accumulation of beta-catenin and activation of Wnt target genes. A second signaling pathway involving PKC and calcium fluxes has been seen for some family members, but it is not yet clear if it represents a distinct pathway or if it can be integrated in the canonical pathway, as PKC seems to be required for Wnt-mediated inactivation of GSK-3 kinase. Both pathways seem to involve interactions with G-proteins. May be involved in transduction and intercellular transmission of polarity information during tissue morphogenesis and/or in differentiated tissues (Probable).

Receptor for Wnt proteins. Activated by WNT3A, WNT3, WNT1 and to a lesser extent WNT2, but apparently not by WNT4, WNT5A, WNT5B, WNT6, WNT7A or WNT7B. Contradictory results showing activation by WNT7B have been described for mouse (By similarity). Functions in the canonical Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway. The canonical Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway leads to the activation of disheveled proteins, inhibition of GSK-3 kinase, nuclear accumulation of beta-catenin and activation of Wnt target genes. A second signaling pathway involving PKC and calcium fluxes has been seen for some family members, but it is not yet clear if it represents a distinct pathway or if it can be integrated in the canonical pathway, as PKC seems to be required for Wnt-mediated inactivation of GSK-3 kinase. Both pathways seem to involve interactions with G-proteins. May be involved in transduction and intercellular transmission of polarity information during tissue morphogenesis and/or in differentiated tissues (Probable).

Receptor for Wnt proteins. Most of frizzled receptors are coupled to the beta-catenin canonical signaling pathway, which leads to the activation of disheveled proteins, inhibition of GSK-3 kinase, nuclear accumulation of beta-catenin and activation of Wnt target genes. A second signaling pathway involving PKC and calcium fluxes has been seen for some family members, but it is not yet clear if it represents a distinct pathway or if it can be integrated in the canonical pathway, as PKC seems to be required for Wnt-mediated inactivation of GSK-3 kinase. Both pathways seem to involve interactions with G-proteins. May be involved in transduction and intercellular transmission of polarity information during tissue morphogenesis and/or in differentiated tissues.

Receptor for Wnt proteins. Most of frizzled receptors are coupled to the beta-catenin canonical signaling pathway, which leads to the activation of disheveled proteins, inhibition of GSK-3 kinase, nuclear accumulation of beta-catenin and activation of Wnt target genes. A second signaling pathway involving PKC and calcium fluxes has been seen for some family members, but it is not yet clear if it represents a distinct pathway or if it can be integrated in the canonical pathway, as PKC seems to be required for Wnt-mediated inactivation of GSK-3 kinase. Both pathways seem to involve interactions with G-proteins. Activation by Wnt5A stimulates PKC activity via a G-protein-dependent mechanism. Involved in transduction and intercellular transmission of polarity information during tissue morphogenesis and/or in differentiated tissues. Plays a role in controlling early axon growth and guidance processes necessary for the formation of a subset of central and peripheral major fiber tracts. Required for the development of major fiber tracts in the central nervous system, including: the anterior commissure, the corpus callosum, the thalamocortical, corticothalamic and nigrostriatal tracts, the corticospinal tract, the fasciculus retroflexus, the mammillothalamic tract, the medial lemniscus, and ascending fiber tracts from the spinal cord to the brain. In the peripheral nervous system, controls axon growth in distinct populations of cranial and spinal motor neurons, including the facial branchimotor nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, the phrenic nerve, and motor nerves innervating dorsal limbs. Involved in the migration of cranial neural crest cells. May also be implicated in the transmission of sensory information from the trunk and limbs to the brain. Controls commissural sensory axons guidance after midline crossing along the anterior-posterior axis in the developing spinal cord in a Wnt-dependent signaling pathway. Together with FZD6, is involved in the neural tube closure and plays a role in the regulation of the establishment of planar cell polarity (PCP), particularly in the orientation of asymmetric bundles of stereocilia on the apical faces of a subset of auditory and vestibular sensory cells located in the inner ear. Promotes neurogenesis by maintaining sympathetic neuroblasts within the cell cycle in a beta- catenin-dependent manner (By similarity).

Receptor for Wnt proteins. Most frizzled receptors are coupled to the beta-catenin (CTNNB1) canonical signaling pathway, which leads to the activation of disheveled proteins, inhibition of GSK-3 kinase, nuclear accumulation of beta-catenin (CTNNB1) and activation of Wnt target genes. Plays a critical role in retinal vascularization by acting as a receptor for Wnt proteins and norrin (NDP) (By similarity). In retina, it can be activated by Wnt protein-binding and also by Wnt-independent signaling via binding of norrin (NDP), promoting in both cases beta-catenin (CTNNB1) accumulation and stimulation of LEF/TCF-mediated transcriptional programs (By similarity). A second signaling pathway involving PKC and calcium fluxes has been seen for some family members, but it is not yet clear if it represents a distinct pathway or if it can be integrated in the canonical pathway, as PKC seems to be required for Wnt-mediated inactivation of GSK-3 kinase. Both pathways seem to involve interactions with G-proteins. May be involved in transduction and intercellular transmission of polarity information during tissue morphogenesis and/or in differentiated tissues.

Receptor for Wnt proteins. Can activate WNT2, WNT10B, WNT5A, but not WNT2B or WNT4 (in vitro); the in vivo situation may be different since not all of these are known to be coexpressed (By similarity). In neurons, activation of WNT7A promotes formation of synapses. Functions in the canonical Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway. The canonical Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway leads to the activation of disheveled proteins, inhibition of GSK-3 kinase, nuclear accumulation of beta-catenin and activation of Wnt target genes (By similarity). A second signaling pathway involving PKC and calcium fluxes has been seen for some family members, but it is not yet clear if it represents a distinct pathway or if it can be integrated in the canonical pathway, as PKC seems to be required for Wnt-mediated inactivation of GSK-3 kinase. Both pathways seem to involve interactions with G-proteins. May be involved in transduction and intercellular transmission of polarity information during tissue morphogenesis and/or in differentiated tissues (Probable). Plays a role in yolk sac angiogenesis and in placental vascularization (By similarity).

Receptor for Wnt proteins. Most of frizzled receptors are coupled to the beta-catenin canonical signaling pathway, which leads to the activation of disheveled proteins, inhibition of GSK-3 kinase, nuclear accumulation of beta-catenin and activation of Wnt target genes. A second signaling pathway involving PKC and calcium fluxes has been seen for some family members, but it is not yet clear if it represents a distinct pathway or if it can be integrated in the canonical pathway, as PKC seems to be required for Wnt-mediated inactivation of GSK-3 kinase. Both pathways seem to involve interactions with G-proteins. May be involved in transduction and intercellular transmission of polarity information during tissue morphogenesis and/or in differentiated tissues. Together with FZD3, is involved in the neural tube closure and plays a role in the regulation of the establishment of planar cell polarity (PCP), particularly in the orientation of asymmetric bundles of stereocilia on the apical faces of a subset of auditory and vestibular sensory cells located in the inner ear (By similarity).

Receptor for Wnt proteins. Most frizzled receptors are coupled to the beta-catenin canonical signaling pathway, which leads to the activation of disheveled proteins, inhibition of GSK-3 kinase, nuclear accumulation of beta-catenin and activation of Wnt target genes. A second signaling pathway involving PKC and calcium fluxes has been seen for some family members, but it is not yet clear if it represents a distinct pathway or if it can be integrated in the canonical pathway, as PKC seems to be required for Wnt-mediated inactivation of GSK-3 kinase. Both pathways seem to involve interactions with G-proteins. Activation by WNT8 induces expression of beta-catenin target genes (By similarity). Following ligand activation, binds to CCDC88C/DAPLE which displaces DVL1 from FZD7 and leads to inhibition of canonical Wnt signaling, activation of G-proteins by CCDC88C and triggering of non-canonical Wnt responses. May be involved in transduction and intercellular transmission of polarity information during tissue morphogenesis and/or in differentiated tissues.

Receptor for Wnt proteins. Component of the Wnt-Fzd-LRP5-LRP6 complex that triggers beta-catenin signaling through inducing aggregation of receptor-ligand complexes into ribosome-sized signalosomes. The beta-catenin canonical signaling pathway leads to the activation of disheveled proteins, inhibition of GSK-3 kinase, nuclear accumulation of beta-catenin and activation of Wnt target genes. A second signaling pathway involving PKC and calcium fluxes has been seen for some family members, but it is not yet clear if it represents a distinct pathway or if it can be integrated in the canonical pathway, as PKC seems to be required for Wnt-mediated inactivation of GSK-3 kinase. Both pathways seem to involve interactions with G-proteins. May be involved in transduction and intercellular transmission of polarity information during tissue morphogenesis and/or in differentiated tissues. Coreceptor along with RYK of Wnt proteins, such as WNT1.

Receptor for WNT2 that is coupled to the beta-catenin canonical signaling pathway, which leads to the activation of disheveled proteins, inhibition of GSK-3 kinase, nuclear accumulation of beta-catenin and activation of Wnt target genes (By similarity). Plays a role in neuromuscular junction (NMJ) assembly by negatively regulating the clustering of acetylcholine receptors (AChR) through the beta-catenin canonical signaling pathway (By similarity). May play a role in neural progenitor cells (NPCs) viability through the beta- catenin canonical signaling pathway by negatively regulating cell cycle arrest leading to inhibition of neuron apoptotic process. During hippocampal development, regulates neuroblast proliferation and apoptotic cell death. Controls bone formation through non canonical Wnt signaling mediated via ISG15. Positively regulates bone regeneration through non canonical Wnt signaling (By similarity).

Substrate-specific adapter for the anaphase promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex. Associates with the APC/C in late mitosis, in replacement of CDC20, and activates the APC/C during anaphase and telophase. The APC/C remains active in degrading substrates to ensure that positive regulators of the cell cycle do not accumulate prematurely. At the G1/S transition FZR1 is phosphorylated, leading to its dissociation from the APC/C. Following DNA damage, it is required for the G2 DNA damage checkpoint: its dephosphorylation and reassociation with the APC/C leads to the ubiquitination of PLK1, preventing entry into mitosis. Acts as an adapter for APC/C to target the DNA-end resection factor RBBP8/CtIP for ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation. Through the regulation of RBBP8/CtIP protein turnover, may play a role in DNA damage response, favoring DNA double-strand repair through error-prone non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) over error-free, RBBP8-mediated homologous recombination (HR).

Promotes apoptosis by binding to BCL2, hence preventing the formation of protective BCL2-BAX heterodimers.

Lysosomal integral membrane protein that may regulate MTORC1 complex translocation to lysosomes. May play a role in autophagy.

Lysosomal integral membrane protein that regulates the localization and activity of mTORC1, a signaling complex promoting cell growth in response to growth factors, energy levels, and amino acids. Interacts with Rag GTPases and increases the lysosomial localization and activity of Rag GTPases and thereby regulates mTORC1 translocation and activity in lysosome. Involved in the regulation of lysosomal morphology and autophagy.

Lysosomal integral membrane protein that may regulate MTORC1 complex translocation to lysosomes.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Essential in early embryonic development to prevent apoptotic death.

G-protein coupled receptor. Has been shown to bind the neuroprotective and glioprotective factor prosaposin (PSAP), leading to endocytosis followed by an ERK phosphorylation cascade. However, other studies have shown that prosaposin does not increase activity. It has been suggested that GPR37L1 is a constitutively active receptor which signals through the guanine nucleotide-binding protein G(s) subunit alpha. Participates in the regulation of postnatal cerebellar development by modulating the Shh pathway (By similarity). Regulates baseline blood pressure in females and protects against cardiovascular stress in males (By similarity). Mediates inhibition of astrocyte glutamate transporters and reduction in neuronal N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor activity (By similarity).

ATP- and magnesium-dependent helicase that plays an essential role in innate immunity. Participates in the DNA- triggered cGAS/STING pathway by promoting the DNA binding and activation of CGAS. Enhances also RIGI-induced type I interferon production probably by helping RIGI at sensing pathogenic RNA. In addition, plays an essential role in stress granule formation. Unwinds preferentially partial DNA and RNA duplexes having a 17 bp annealed portion and either a hanging 3' tail or hanging tails at both 5'- and 3'-ends. Unwinds DNA/DNA, RNA/DNA, and RNA/RNA substrates with comparable efficiency. Acts unidirectionally by moving in the 5' to 3' direction along the bound single-stranded DNA. Phosphorylation-dependent sequence-specific endoribonuclease in vitro. Cleaves exclusively between cytosine and adenine and cleaves MYC mRNA preferentially at the 3'-UTR.

Scaffold protein that plays an essential role in cytoplasmic stress granule formation which acts as a platform for antiviral signaling.

May play an important role in regulating the switch between different pathways for energy production during spermiogenesis and in the spermatozoon. Required for sperm motility and male fertility (By similarity).

Has both glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase and nitrosylase activities, thereby playing a role in glycolysis and nuclear functions, respectively. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase is a key enzyme in glycolysis that catalyzes the first step of the pathway by converting D- glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) into 3-phospho-D-glyceroyl phosphate. Modulates the organization and assembly of the cytoskeleton (By similarity). Facilitates the CHP1- dependent microtubule and membrane associations through its ability to stimulate the binding of CHP1 to microtubules (By similarity). Component of the GAIT (gamma interferon-activated inhibitor of translation) complex which mediates interferon-gamma-induced transcript-selective translation inhibition in inflammation processes. Upon interferon-gamma treatment assembles into the GAIT complex which binds to stem loop-containing GAIT elements in the 3'-UTR of diverse inflammatory mRNAs (such as ceruplasmin) and suppresses their translation. Also plays a role in innate immunity by promoting TNF-induced NF-kappa-B activation and type I interferon production, via interaction with TRAF2 and TRAF3, respectively. Participates in nuclear events including transcription, RNA transport, DNA replication and apoptosis (By similarity). Nuclear functions are probably due to the nitrosylase activity that mediates cysteine S-nitrosylation of nuclear target proteins such as SIRT1, HDAC2 and PRKDC (By similarity).

Catalyzes the transfer of a sulfate group to position 3 of non-reducing beta-galactosyl residues in glycerolipids and sphingolipids, therefore participates in the biosynthesis of sulfoglycolipids. Catalyzes the synthesis of galactosylceramide sulfate (sulfatide), a major lipid component of the myelin sheath and of monogalactosylalkylacylglycerol sulfate (seminolipid), present in spermatocytes. Seems to prefer beta-glycosides at the non-reducing termini of sugar chains attached to a lipid moiety. Also acts on lactosylceramide, galactosyl 1-alkyl-2-sn-glycerol and galactosyl diacylglycerol (in vitro).

Transfers a sulfate group to the hydroxyl group at C3 of non- reducing beta-galactosyl residues. Acts both on type 1 (Gal-beta-1,3- GlcNAc) and type 2 (Gal-beta-1,4-GlcNAc) chains with similar efficiency

Transfers a sulfate to position 3 of non-reducing beta- galactosyl residues in N-glycans and core2-branched O-glycans. Has high activity towards Gal-beta-1,4-GlcNAc, Gal-beta-1,4(Fuc-alpha-1,3)GlcNAc and lower activity towards Gal-beta-1,3(Fuc-alpha-1,4)GlcNAc.

Catalyzes the transfer of sulfate to beta-1,3-linked galactose residues in O-linked glycoproteins. Good substrates include asialofetuin, Gal-beta-1,3-GalNAc and Gal-beta-1,3 (GlcNAc-beta- 1,6)GalNAc.

Acts as a negative regulator of G1 to S cell cycle phase progression by inhibiting cyclin-dependent kinases. Inhibitory effects are additive with GADD45 proteins but occurs also in the absence of GADD45 proteins. Acts as a repressor of the orphan nuclear receptor NR4A1 by inhibiting AB domain-mediated transcriptional activity. May be involved in the hormone-mediated regulation of NR4A1 transcriptional activity. May play a role in mitochondrial protein synthesis

Inhibitory receptor that acts as a critical regulator of hematopoietic lineage differentiation, megakaryocyte function and platelet production. Inhibits platelet aggregation and activation by agonists such as ADP and collagen-related peptide. This regulation of megakaryocate function as well as platelet production ann activation is done through the inhibition (via the 2 ITIM motifs) of the receptors CLEC1B and GP6:FcRgamma signaling. Appears to operate in a calcium-independent manner.

Hydrolyzes glucose-6-phosphate to glucose in the endoplasmic reticulum. Forms with the glucose-6-phosphate transporter (SLC37A4/G6PT) the complex responsible for glucose production in the terminal step of glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. Hence, it is the key enzyme in homeostatic regulation of blood glucose levels.

May hydrolyze glucose-6-phosphate to glucose in the endoplasmic reticulum. May be responsible for glucose production through glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis (By similarity).

Hydrolyzes glucose-6-phosphate to glucose in the endoplasmic reticulum. May form with the glucose-6-phosphate transporter (SLC37A4/G6PT) a ubiquitously expressed complex responsible for glucose production through glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. Probably required for normal neutrophil function.

Catalyzes the rate-limiting step of the oxidative pentose- phosphate pathway, which represents a route for the dissimilation of carbohydrates besides glycolysis. The main function of this enzyme is to provide reducing power (NADPH) and pentose phosphates for fatty acid and nucleic acid synthesis.

Bifunctional enzyme localized in the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum that catalyzes the first two steps of the oxidative branch of the pentose phosphate pathway/shunt, an alternative to glycolysis and a major source of reducing power and metabolic intermediates for biosynthetic processes (By similarity). Has a hexose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase activity, with broad substrate specificity compared to glucose-6-phosphate 1-dehydrogenase/G6PD, and catalyzes the first step of the pentose phosphate pathway. In addition, acts as a 6-phosphogluconolactonase and catalyzes the second step of the pentose phosphate pathway (By similarity). May have a dehydrogenase activity for alternative substrates including glucosamine 6-phosphate and glucose 6-sulfate (By similarity). The main function of this enzyme is to provide reducing equivalents such as NADPH to maintain the adequate levels of reductive cofactors in the oxidizing environment of the endoplasmic reticulum. By producing NADPH that is needed by reductases of the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum like corticosteroid 11-beta-dehydrogenase isozyme 1/HSD11B1, indirectly regulates their activity.

In the cytoplasm, catalyzes the conversion of glucose-6- phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate, the second step in glycolysis, and the reverse reaction during gluconeogenesis. Besides it's role as a glycolytic enzyme, also acts as a secreted cytokine: acts as an angiogenic factor (AMF) that stimulates endothelial cell motility. Acts as a neurotrophic factor, neuroleukin, for spinal and sensory neurons. It is secreted by lectin-stimulated T-cells and induces immunoglobulin secretion.

Inorganic phosphate and glucose-6-phosphate antiporter. May transport cytoplasmic glucose-6-phosphate into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum and translocate inorganic phosphate into the opposite direction. Independent of a lumenal glucose-6-phosphatase. May not play a role in homeostatic regulation of blood glucose levels.

Involved in the cross-linking of microtubules and microfilaments. Regulates microtubule dynamics and stability by interacting with microtubule plus-end tracking proteins, such as MAPRE1, to regulate microtubule growth along actin stress fibers. Enhances ADORA2- mediated adenylyl cyclase activation by acting as a scaffold to recruit trimeric G-protein complexes to ADORA2A (By similarity). Regulates ciliary orientation and performance in cells located in the airway.

Cytoskeletal linker protein. May promote and stabilize the formation of the actin and microtubule network.

In T-cells, functions as a regulator of p38 MAPKs by inhibiting p88 phosphorylation and activity (By similarity). Might affect PCNA interaction with some CDK (cell division protein kinase) complexes; stimulates DNA excision repair in vitro and inhibits entry of cells into S phase.

Involved in the regulation of growth and apoptosis. Mediates activation of stress-responsive MTK1/MEKK4 MAPKKK

Adapter protein that plays a role in intracellular signaling cascades triggered by activated receptor-type kinases. Plays a role in FGFR1 signaling. Probably involved in signaling by the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) and the insulin receptor (INSR). Involved in the MET/HGF-signaling pathway.

Adapter protein which acts downstream of several membrane receptors including cytokine, antigen, hormone, cell matrix and growth factor receptors to regulate multiple signaling pathways. Regulates osteoclast differentiation mediating the TNFRSF11A/RANK signaling. In allergic response, it plays a role in mast cells activation and degranulation through PI-3-kinase regulation. Also involved in the regulation of cell proliferation and hematopoiesis.

Transcription factor capable of interacting with purine rich repeats (GA repeats). Acts as a a master regulator of nuclear-encoded mitochondrial genes (By similarity).

May function as transcription factor capable of interacting with purine rich repeats (GA repeats).

Transcription factor capable of interacting with purine rich repeats (GA repeats). Necessary for the expression of the Adenovirus E4 gene

Component of a heterodimeric G-protein coupled receptor for GABA, formed by GABBR1 and GABBR2. Within the heterodimeric GABA receptor, only GABBR1 seems to bind agonists, while GABBR2 mediates coupling to G proteins. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors, such as adenylate cyclase. Signaling inhibits adenylate cyclase, stimulates phospholipase A2, activates potassium channels, inactivates voltage-dependent calcium-channels and modulates inositol phospholipid hydrolysis. Calcium is required for high affinity binding to GABA (By similarity). Plays a critical role in the fine- tuning of inhibitory synaptic transmission. Pre- synaptic GABA receptor inhibits neurotransmitter release by down- regulating high-voltage activated calcium channels, whereas postsynaptic GABA receptor decreases neuronal excitability by activating a prominent inwardly rectifying potassium (Kir) conductance that underlies the late inhibitory postsynaptic potentials. Not only implicated in synaptic inhibition but also in hippocampal long-term potentiation, slow wave sleep, muscle relaxation and antinociception (Probable). Activated by (-)-baclofen, cgp27492 and blocked by phaclofen.

Component of a heterodimeric G-protein coupled receptor for GABA, formed by GABBR1 and GABBR2. Within the heterodimeric GABA receptor, only GABBR1 seems to bind agonists, while GABBR2 mediates coupling to G proteins. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors, such as adenylate cyclase. Signaling inhibits adenylate cyclase, stimulates phospholipase A2, activates potassium channels, inactivates voltage-dependent calcium-channels and modulates inositol phospholipid hydrolysis. Plays a critical role in the fine-tuning of inhibitory synaptic transmission. Pre-synaptic GABA receptor inhibits neurotransmitter release by down-regulating high-voltage activated calcium channels, whereas postsynaptic GABA receptor decreases neuronal excitability by activating a prominent inwardly rectifying potassium (Kir) conductance that underlies the late inhibitory postsynaptic potentials. Not only implicated in synaptic inhibition but also in hippocampal long-term potentiation, slow wave sleep, muscle relaxation and antinociception (Probable).

Catalyzes the conversion of gamma-aminobutyrate and L-beta- aminoisobutyrate to succinate semialdehyde and methylmalonate semialdehyde, respectively. Can also convert delta-aminovalerate and beta-alanine (By similarity).

May catalyze the decarboxylation of L-aspartate, 3-sulfino-L- alanine (cysteine sulfinic acid), and L-cysteate to beta-alanine, hypotaurine and taurine, respectively. Does not exhibit any decarboxylation activity toward glutamate.

Antigen, recognized on melanoma by autologous cytolytic T- lymphocytes.

Associates with cyclin G and CDK5. Seems to act as an auxilin homolog that is involved in the uncoating of clathrin-coated vesicles by Hsc70 in non-neuronal cells. Expression oscillates slightly during the cell cycle, peaking at G1.

Endocrine hormone of the central and peripheral nervous systems that binds and activates the G protein-coupled receptors GALR1, GALR2, and GALR3. This small neuropeptide may regulate diverse physiologic functions including contraction of smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract, growth hormone and insulin release and adrenal secretion.

Hydrolyzes the galactose ester bonds of glycolipids such as galactosylceramide and galactosylsphingosine. Enzyme with very low activity responsible for the lysosomal catabolism of galactosylceramide, a major lipid in myelin, kidney and epithelial cells of small intestine and colon.

Catalyzes two distinct but analogous reactions: the reversible epimerization of UDP-glucose to UDP-galactose and the reversible epimerization of UDP-N-acetylglucosamine to UDP-N- acetylgalactosamine. The reaction with UDP-Gal plays a critical role in the Leloir pathway of galactose catabolism in which galactose is converted to the glycolytic intermediate glucose 6-phosphate. It contributes to the catabolism of dietary galactose and enables the endogenous biosynthesis of both UDP-Gal and UDP-GalNAc when exogenous sources are limited. Both UDP-sugar interconversions are important in the synthesis of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

Catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate from ATP to alpha-D- galactose and participates in the first committed step in the catabolism of galactose.

Acts on GalNAc. Also acts as a galactokinase when galactose is present at high concentrations. May be involved in a salvage pathway for the reutilization of free GalNAc derived from the degradation of complex carbohydrates.

Mutarotase that catalyzes the interconversion of beta-D- galactose and alpha-D-galactose during galactose metabolism. Beta-D-galactose is metabolized in the liver into glucose 1-phosphate, the primary metabolic fuel, by the action of four enzymes that constitute the Leloir pathway: GALM, GALK1 (galactokinase), GALT (galactose-1-phosphate uridylyltransferase) and GALE (UDP-galactose-4'-epimerase). Involved in the maintenance of the equilibrium between the beta- and alpha-anomers of galactose, therefore ensuring a sufficient supply of the alpha-anomer for GALK1. Also active on D-glucose although shows a preference for galactose over glucose.

[Isoform 1]: Hypothalamic neuropeptide which binds to the G- protein-coupled galanin receptors (GALR1, GALR2 and GALR3). Involved in a large number of putative physiological functions in CNS homeostatic processes, including the regulation of gonadotropin-releasing hormone secretion

Receptor for the hormone galanin. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins that inhibit adenylate cyclase activity.

Receptor for the hormone galanin and GALP. Receptor for the hormone spexin-1. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins that activate the phospholipase C/protein kinase C pathway (via G(q)) and that inhibit adenylyl cyclase (via G(i)).

Receptor for the hormone galanin. Receptor for the hormone spexin-1.

Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor. Has a broad spectrum of substrates such as apomucin-, MUC5AC-, MUC1- and MUC2-derived peptides.

Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor. Has a broad spectrum of substrates for peptides such as EA2, Muc5AC, Muc1a, Muc1b. Probably involved in O-linked glycosylation of the immunoglobulin A1 (IgA1) hinge region. Involved in O-linked glycosylation of APOC-III, ANGPTL3 and PLTP. It participates in the regulation of HDL-C metabolism.

Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor. Has activity toward HIV envelope glycoprotein gp120, EA2, MUC2, MUC1A and MUC5AC. Probably glycosylates fibronectin in vivo. Glycosylates FGF23.

Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor. Has a highest activity toward Muc7, EA2 and Muc2, with a lowest activity than GALNT2. Glycosylates 'Thr-57' of SELPLG.

Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor. Has activity toward EA2 peptide substrate, but has a weak activity toward Muc2 or Muc1b substrates (By similarity).

Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor. May participate in synthesis of oncofetal fibronectin. Has activity toward MUC1A, MUC2, EA2 and fibronectin peptides. Glycosylates FGF23.

Glycopeptide transferase involved in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, which catalyzes the transfer of an N-acetyl-D- galactosamine residue to an already glycosylated peptide. In contrast to other proteins of the family, it does not act as a peptide transferase that transfers GalNAc onto serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor, but instead requires the prior addition of a GalNAc on a peptide before adding additional GalNAc moieties. Some peptide transferase activity is however not excluded, considering that its appropriate peptide substrate may remain unidentified.

Probably catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D- galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor.

Converts guanidinoacetate to creatine, using S- adenosylmethionine as the methyl donor. Important in nervous system development.

Catalytic subunit of glucosidase II that cleaves sequentially the 2 innermost alpha-1,3-linked glucose residues from the Glc(2)Man(9)GlcNAc(2) oligosaccharide precursor of immature glycoproteins. Required for PKD1/Polycystin-1 and PKD2/Polycystin-2 maturation and localization to the cell surface and cilia.

[Isoform GANP]: As a component of the TREX-2 complex, involved in the export of mRNAs to the cytoplasm through the nuclear pores. Through the acetylation of histones, affects the assembly of nucleosomes at immunoglobulin variable region genes and promotes the recruitment and positioning of transcription complex to favor DNA cytosine deaminase AICDA/AID targeting, hence promoting somatic hypermutations.

Probable cytoskeletal component that directly or indirectly plays an important role in neurofilament architecture. May act as a substrate-specific adapter of an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Controls degradation of TBCB. Controls degradation of MAP1B and MAP1S, and is critical for neuronal maintenance and survival.

Acts both as a GTPase-activating protein (GAP) and a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF), and participates in various processes such as endocytosis, insulin receptor internalization or LC2A4/GLUT4 trafficking. Acts as a GEF for the Ras-related protein RAB31 by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP, leading to regulate LC2A4/GLUT4 trafficking. In the absence of insulin, it maintains RAB31 in an active state and promotes a futile cycle between LC2A4/GLUT4 storage vesicles and early endosomes, retaining LC2A4/GLUT4 inside the cells. Upon insulin stimulation, it is translocated to the plasma membrane, releasing LC2A4/GLUT4 from intracellular storage vesicles. Also involved in EGFR trafficking and degradation, possibly by promoting EGFR ubiquitination and subsequent degradation by the proteasome. Has GEF activity for Rab5 and GAP activity for Ras.

Negatively regulates B-cell proliferation following stimulation through the B-cell receptor. May play an important role in maintenance of marginal zone (MZ) B-cells (By similarity).

RAB2B effector protein required for accurate acrosome formation and normal male fertility.

RAB2B effector protein required for accurate acrosome formation and normal male fertility. In complex with RAB2A/RAB2B, seems to suppress excessive vesicle trafficking during acrosome formation.

Required for ribosome biogenesis and telomere maintenance. Part of the H/ACA small nucleolar ribonucleoprotein (H/ACA snoRNP) complex, which catalyzes pseudouridylation of rRNA. This involves the isomerization of uridine such that the ribose is subsequently attached to C5, instead of the normal N1. Each rRNA can contain up to 100 pseudouridine ('psi') residues, which may serve to stabilize the conformation of rRNAs. May also be required for correct processing or intranuclear trafficking of TERC, the RNA component of the telomerase reverse transcriptase (TERT) holoenzyme.

RAB2B effector protein required for the compacted Golgi morphology, probably through interaction with small GTPase RAB2B.

RAB2B effector protein which promotes cytosolic DNA-induced innate immune responses. Regulates IFN responses against DNA viruses by regulating the CGAS-STING signaling axis.

[Isoform 1]: Acts as an adapter protein that plays a role in intracellular signaling cascades triggered either by the cell surface activated epidermal growth factor receptor and/or cytoplasmic protein tyrosine kinases. Promotes activation of the MAPK/ERK signaling pathway. Plays a role in the regulation of cell proliferation.

Probable adapter protein that may provide a link between cell surface epidermal growth factor receptor and the MAPK/ERK signaling pathway.

Catalyzes the ATP-dependent ligation of glycine to the 3'-end of its cognate tRNA, via the formation of an aminoacyl-adenylate intermediate (Gly-AMP). Also produces diadenosine tetraphosphate (Ap4A), a universal pleiotropic signaling molecule needed for cell regulation pathways, by direct condensation of 2 ATPs. Thereby, may play a special role in Ap4A homeostasis.

Specific growth arrest protein involved in growth suppression. Blocks entry to S phase. Prevents cycling of normal and transformed cells.

May play a role in apoptosis by acting as a cell death substrate for caspases. Is cleaved during apoptosis and the cleaved form induces dramatic rearrangements of the actin cytoskeleton and potent changes in the shape of the affected cells. May be involved in the membrane ruffling process (By similarity).

Ligand for tyrosine-protein kinase receptors AXL, TYRO3 and MER whose signaling is implicated in cell growth and survival, cell adhesion and cell migration. GAS6/AXL signaling plays a role in various processes such as endothelial cell survival during acidification by preventing apoptosis, optimal cytokine signaling during human natural killer cell development, hepatic regeneration, gonadotropin-releasing hormone neuron survival and migration, platelet activation, or regulation of thrombotic responses.

May play a role in promoting maturation and morphological differentiation of cerebellar neurons

Modulates lysosomal sorting and functional down-regulation of a variety of G-protein coupled receptors. Targets receptors for degradation in lysosomes via its interaction with BECN2.

May play a role in regulation of a variety of G-protein coupled receptors.

Survival and differentiation promoting protein that plays a role in the regulation of neurosynaptogenesis. Induces phosphatase PP2A activity which results in APP dephosphorylation and inhibits BACE1- mediated processing of APP.

Receptor for gastrin and cholecystokinin. The CCK-B receptors occur throughout the central nervous system where they modulate anxiety, analgesia, arousal, and neuroleptic activity. This receptor mediates its action by association with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system

Gastrin stimulates the stomach mucosa to produce and secrete hydrochloric acid and the pancreas to secrete its digestive enzymes. It also stimulates smooth muscle contraction and increases blood circulation and water secretion in the stomach and intestine

Transcriptional activator or repressor which probably serves as a general switch factor for erythroid development. It binds to DNA sites with the consensus sequence 5'-[AT]GATA[AG]-3' within regulatory regions of globin genes and of other genes expressed in erythroid cells. Activates the transcription of genes involved in erythroid differentiation of K562 erythroleukemia cells, including HBB, HBG1/2, ALAS2 and HMBS.

Transcriptional activator which regulates endothelin-1 gene expression in endothelial cells. Binds to the consensus sequence 5'- AGATAG-3'

Transcriptional activator which binds to the enhancer of the T-cell receptor alpha and delta genes. Binds to the consensus sequence 5'-AGATAG-3'. Required for the T-helper 2 (Th2) differentiation process following immune and inflammatory responses. Positively regulates ASB2 expression (By similarity).

Transcriptional activator that binds to the consensus sequence 5'-AGATAG-3' and plays a key role in cardiac development and function. In cooperation with TBX5, it binds to cardiac super-enhancers and promotes cardiomyocyte gene expression, while it down-regulates endocardial and endothelial gene expression. Involved in bone morphogenetic protein (BMP)-mediated induction of cardiac-specific gene expression. Binds to BMP response element (BMPRE) DNA sequences within cardiac activating regions (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional activator of ANF in cooperation with NKX2-5 (By similarity). Promotes cardiac myocyte enlargement. Required during testicular development. May play a role in sphingolipid signaling by regulating the expression of sphingosine-1- phosphate degrading enzyme, sphingosine-1-phosphate lyase.

Transcription factor required during cardiovascular development. Plays an important role in the transcriptional program(s) that underlies smooth muscle cell diversity (By similarity). Binds to the functionally important CEF-1 nuclear protein binding site in the cardiac-specific slow/cardiac troponin C transcriptional enhancer.

Transcriptional activator. Regulates SEMA3C and PLXNA2. Involved in gene regulation specifically in the gastric epithelium. May regulate genes that protect epithelial cells from bacterial infection. Involved in bone morphogenetic protein (BMP)-mediated cardiac-specific gene expression (By similarity). Binds to BMP response element (BMPRE) DNA sequences within cardiac activating regions (By similarity). In human skin, controls several physiological processes contributing to homeostasis of the upper pilosebaceous unit. Triggers ductal and sebaceous differentiation as well as limits cell proliferation and lipid production to prevent hyperseborrhoea. Mediates the effects of retinoic acid on sebocyte proliferation, differentiation and lipid production. Also contributes to immune regulation of sebocytes and antimicrobial responses by modulating the expression of anti- inflammatory genes such as IL10 and pro-inflammatory genes such as IL6, TLR2, TLR4, and IFNG. Activates TGFB1 signaling which controls the interfollicular epidermis fate.

Allows the formation of correctly charged Gln-tRNA(Gln) through the transamidation of misacylated Glu-tRNA(Gln) in the mitochondria. The reaction takes place in the presence of glutamine and ATP through an activated gamma-phospho-Glu-tRNA(Gln).

Component of some chromatin complex recruited to chromatin sites methylated 'Lys-4' of histone H3 (H3K4me), with a preference for trimethylated form (H3K4me3).

Catalyzes the biosynthesis of guanidinoacetate, the immediate precursor of creatine. Creatine plays a vital role in energy metabolism in muscle tissues. May play a role in embryonic and central nervous system development. May be involved in the response to heart failure by elevating local creatine synthesis.

Glucosylceramidase that catalyzes, within the lysosomal compartment, the hydrolysis of glucosylceramides/GlcCers (such as beta- D-glucosyl-(1<->1')-N-acylsphing-4-enine) into free ceramides (such as N-acylsphing-4-enine) and glucose. Plays a central role in the degradation of complex lipids and the turnover of cellular membranes. Through the production of ceramides, participates in the PKC-activated salvage pathway of ceramide formation. Catalyzes the glucosylation of cholesterol, through a transglucosylation reaction where glucose is transferred from GlcCer to cholesterol. GlcCer containing mono-unsaturated fatty acids (such as beta-D- glucosyl-N-(9Z-octadecenoyl)-sphing-4-enine) are preferred as glucose donors for cholesterol glucosylation when compared with GlcCer containing same chain length of saturated fatty acids (such as beta-D- glucosyl-N-octadecanoyl-sphing-4-enine). Under specific conditions, may alternatively catalyze the reverse reaction, transferring glucose from cholesteryl 3-beta-D-glucoside to ceramide (Probable). Can also hydrolyze cholesteryl 3-beta-D- glucoside producing glucose and cholesterol. Catalyzes the hydrolysis of galactosylceramides/GalCers (such as beta-D-galactosyl-(1<->1')-N- acylsphing-4-enine), as well as the transfer of galactose between GalCers and cholesterol in vitro, but with lower activity than with GlcCers. Contrary to GlcCer and GalCer, xylosylceramide/XylCer (such as beta-D-xyosyl-(1<->1')-N-acylsphing-4- enine) is not a good substrate for hydrolysis, however it is a good xylose donor for transxylosylation activity to form cholesteryl 3-beta- D-xyloside.

Non-lysosomal glucosylceramidase that catalyzes the hydrolysis of glucosylceramides/GlcCers (such as beta-D-glucosyl- (1<->1')-N-acylsphing-4-enine) to free glucose and ceramides (such as N-acylsphing-4-enine). GlcCers are membrane glycosphingolipids that have a wide intracellular distribution (By similarity). They are the main precursors of more complex glycosphingolipids that play a role in cellular growth, differentiation, adhesion, signaling, cytoskeletal dynamics and membrane properties (By similarity). Involved in the transglucosylation of cholesterol, transfers glucose from GlcCer to cholesterol, thereby modifying its water solubility and biological properties. Under specific conditions, may catalyze the reverse reaction, transferring glucose from cholesteryl-3-beta-D- glucoside to ceramide (such as N-acylsphing-4-enine) (Probable). May play a role in the metabolism of bile acids. Able to hydrolyze bile acid 3-O- glucosides as well as to produce bile acid-glucose conjugates thanks to a bile acid glucosyl transferase activity. Catalyzes the hydrolysis of galactosylceramides/GalCers (such as beta-D-galactosyl-(1<->1')-N- acylsphing-4-enine), as well as the galactosyl transfer between GalCers and cholesterol in vitro with lower activity compared with their activity against GlcCers.

Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) are involved as a modulator or transducer in various transmembrane signaling systems. The beta and gamma chains are required for the GTPase activity, for replacement of GDP by GTP, and for G protein-effector interaction

Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) are involved as a modulator or transducer in various transmembrane signaling systems. The beta and gamma chains are required for the GTPase activity, for replacement of GDP by GTP, and for G protein-effector interaction. Interacts with beta-1 and beta-2, but not with beta-3

Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) are involved as a modulator or transducer in various transmembrane signaling systems. The beta and gamma chains are required for the GTPase activity, for replacement of GDP by GTP, and for G protein-effector interaction (By similarity).

Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) are involved as a modulator or transducer in various transmembrane signaling systems. The beta and gamma chains are required for the GTPase activity, for replacement of GDP by GTP, and for G protein-effector interaction.

Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) are involved as a modulator or transducer in various transmembrane signaling systems. The beta and gamma chains are required for the GTPase activity, for replacement of GDP by GTP, and for G protein-effector interaction. Plays a role in the regulation of adenylyl cyclase signaling in certain regions of the brain. Plays a role in the formation or stabilzation of a G protein heterotrimer (G(olf) subunit alpha-beta-gamma-7) that is required for adenylyl cyclase activity in the striatum (By similarity).

Has lost the ability to synthesize Forssman glycolipid antigen (FORS1/FG). Might have acquired an alternative function in glycosphingolipid metabolism, but it remains to be established. It appears to have drifted more slowly than confirmed pseudogenes in the glycosyltransferase 6 family, suggesting that it has remained under evolutionary pressure.

Hydrolyzes GTP to GMP in 2 consecutive cleavage reactions (By similarity). Confers protection to several pathogens, including the bacterial pathogens Listeria monocytogenes and Mycobacterium bovis BCG as well as the protozoan pathogen Toxoplasma gondii (By similarity). Promotes IFN-gamma-mediated host defense against bacterial infections by regulating bacteriolytic peptide generation via its interaction with ubiquitin-binding protein SQSTM1, which delivers monoubiquitylated proteins to autolysosomes for the generation of bacteriolytic peptides (By similarity). Exhibits antiviral activity against influenza virus.

Hydrolyzes GTP to GMP in 2 consecutive cleavage reactions, but the major reaction product is GDP. Exhibits antiviral activity against influenza virus. Promotes oxidative killing and delivers antimicrobial peptides to autophagolysosomes, providing broad host protection against different pathogen classes (By similarity). Confers protection to the protozoan pathogen Toxoplasma gondii (By similarity).

Binds GTP, GDP and GMP. Hydrolyzes GTP very efficiently; GDP rather than GMP is the major reaction product. Plays a role in erythroid differentiation (By similarity).

As an activator of NLRP3 inflammasome assembly, plays a role in innate immunity and inflammation. Promotes selective NLRP3 inflammasome assembly in response to microbial and soluble, but not crystalline, agents. Hydrolyzes GTP, but in contrast to other family members, does not produce GMP.

Hydrolyzes GTP to GMP in 2 consecutive cleavage reactions (By similarity). Confers protection to several pathogens, including the bacterial pathogens Listeria monocytogenes and Mycobacterium bovis BCG as well as the protozoan pathogen Toxoplasma gondii (By similarity).

Hydrolyzes GTP to GMP in two consecutive cleavage reactions and predominantly uses GTP and not GDP or GMP as the substrate (By similarity). Confers protection to several pathogens, including the bacterial pathogens Listeria monocytogenes and Mycobacterium bovis BCG as well as the protozoan pathogen Toxoplasma gondii (By similarity). Promotes IFN-gamma-mediated host defense against bacterial infections by regulating oxidative responses and bacteriolytic peptide generation (By similarity). May help to assemble NADPH oxidase on phagosomal membranes by acting as a bridging protein between NADPH oxidase cytosolic subunits NCF2-NCF4 and the membrane subunits CYBA-CYBB (By similarity). Participates along with GBP1 in trafficking monoubiquinated protein cargo to autolysosomes for generating ubiquitin-derived antimicrobial peptides (By similarity). Required for disruption of the parasitophorous vacuole formed following T.gondii infection and subsequent killing of the parasite (By similarity). Facilitates influenza A virus replication by inhibiting the activation of NF-kappaB and JAK-STAT signaling pathways and the expression of type I, type III interferons and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

Ligand-gated chloride channel which is a component of the heteropentameric receptor for GABA, the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. Plays an important role in the formation of functional inhibitory GABAergic synapses in addition to mediating synaptic inhibition as a GABA-gated ion channel. The gamma2 subunit is necessary but not sufficient for a rapid formation of active synaptic contacts and the synaptogenic effect of this subunit is influenced by the type of alpha and beta subunits present in the receptor pentamer (By similarity). The alpha1/beta2/gamma2 receptor and the alpha1/beta3/gamma2 receptor exhibit synaptogenic activity. GABRA1-mediated plasticity in the orbitofrontal cortex regulates context-dependent action selection (By similarity). Functions also as histamine receptor and mediates cellular responses to histamine (By similarity).

Ligand-gated chloride channel which is a component of the heteropentameric receptor for GABA, the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. Plays an important role in the formation of functional inhibitory GABAergic synapses in addition to mediating synaptic inhibition as a GABA-gated ion channel. The gamma2 subunit is necessary but not sufficient for a rapid formation of active synaptic contacts and the synaptogenic effect of this subunit is influenced by the type of alpha and beta subunits present in the receptor pentamer (By similarity). The alpha2/beta2/gamma2 receptor exhibits synaptogenic activity whereas the alpha2/beta3/gamma2 receptor shows very little or no synaptogenic activity (By similarity).

GABA, the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the vertebrate brain, mediates neuronal inhibition by binding to the GABA/benzodiazepine receptor and opening an integral chloride channel

Ligand-gated chloride channel subunit which is a component of the heteropentameric receptor for GABA, the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. May be involved in GABA-A receptor assembly, and GABA-A receptor immobilization and accumulation by gephyrin at the synapse.

Ubiquitin-like modifier that plays a role in intracellular transport of GABA(A) receptors and its interaction with the cytoskeleton. Involved in autophagy: while LC3s are involved in elongation of the phagophore membrane, the GABARAP/GATE-16 subfamily is essential for a later stage in autophagosome maturation. Through its interaction with the reticulophagy receptor TEX264, participates in the remodeling of subdomains of the endoplasmic reticulum into autophagosomes upon nutrient stress, which then fuse with lysosomes for endoplasmic reticulum turnover. Also required for the local activation of the CUL3(KBTBD6/7) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex, regulating ubiquitination and degradation of TIAM1, a guanyl-nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) that activates RAC1 and downstream signal transduction. Thereby, regulates different biological processes including the organization of the cytoskeleton, cell migration and proliferation. Involved in apoptosis.

Component of the heteropentameric receptor for GABA, the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the vertebrate brain. Functions also as histamine receptor and mediates cellular responses to histamine. Functions as receptor for diazepines and various anesthetics, such as pentobarbital; these are bound at a separate allosteric effector binding site. Functions as ligand-gated chloride channel.

Ligand-gated chloride channel which is a component of the heteropentameric receptor for GABA, the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. Plays an important role in the formation of functional inhibitory GABAergic synapses in addition to mediating synaptic inhibition as a GABA-gated ion channel. The gamma2 subunit is necessary but not sufficient for a rapid formation of active synaptic contacts and the synaptogenic effect of this subunit is influenced by the type of alpha and beta subunits present in the receptor pentamer (By similarity). The alpha1/beta2/gamma2 receptor and the alpha2/beta2/gamma2 receptor exhibit synaptogenic activity. Functions also as histamine receptor and mediates cellular responses to histamine (By similarity).

Ligand-gated chloride channel which is a component of the heteropentameric receptor for GABA, the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. Plays an important role in the formation of functional inhibitory GABAergic synapses in addition to mediating synaptic inhibition as a GABA-gated ion channel. The gamma2 subunit is necessary but not sufficient for a rapid formation of active synaptic contacts and the synaptogenic effect of this subunit is influenced by the type of alpha and beta subunits present in the receptor pentamer (By similarity). The alpha1/beta3/gamma2 receptor exhibits synaptogenic activity. The alpha2/beta3/gamma2 receptor shows very little or no synaptogenic activity (By similarity). Functions also as histamine receptor and mediates cellular responses to histamine. Plays an important role in somatosensation and in the production of antinociception (By similarity).

Ligand-gated chloride channel which is a component of the heteropentameric receptor for GABA, the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. Plays an important role in the formation of functional inhibitory GABAergic synapses in addition to mediating synaptic inhibition as a GABA-gated ion channel. The gamma2 subunit is necessary but not sufficient for a rapid formation of active synaptic contacts and the synaptogenic effect of this subunit is influenced by the type of alpha and beta subunits present in the receptor pentamer (By similarity). The alpha1/beta2/gamma2 receptor and the alpha1/beta3/gamma2 receptor exhibit synaptogenic activity. The alpha2/beta2/gamma2 receptor exhibits synatogenic activity whereas the alpha2/beta3/gamma2 receptor shows very little or no synaptogenic activity (By similarity). Functions also as histamine receptor and mediates cellular responses to histamine (By similarity).

Ubiquitin-like modifier that increases cell-surface expression of kappa-type opioid receptor through facilitating anterograde intracellular trafficking of the receptor. Involved in formation of autophagosomal vacuoles. While LC3s are involved in elongation of the phagophore membrane, the GABARAP/GATE-16 subfamily is essential for a later stage in autophagosome maturation. Through its interaction with the reticulophagy receptor TEX264, participates in the remodeling of subdomains of the endoplasmic reticulum into autophagosomes upon nutrient stress, which then fuse with lysosomes for endoplasmic reticulum turnover.

Ubiquitin-like modifier involved in intra-Golgi traffic (By similarity). Modulates intra-Golgi transport through coupling between NSF activity and SNAREs activation (By similarity). It first stimulates the ATPase activity of NSF which in turn stimulates the association with GOSR1 (By similarity). Involved in autophagy. Plays a role in mitophagy which contributes to regulate mitochondrial quantity and quality by eliminating the mitochondria to a basal level to fulfill cellular energy requirements and preventing excess ROS production. Whereas LC3s are involved in elongation of the phagophore membrane, the GABARAP/GATE-16 subfamily is essential for a later stage in autophagosome maturation.

GABA, the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the vertebrate brain, mediates neuronal inhibition by binding to the GABA/benzodiazepine receptor and opening an integral chloride channel. In the uterus, the function of the receptor appears to be related to tissue contractility. The binding of this pI subunit with other GABA(A) receptor subunits alters the sensitivity of recombinant receptors to modulatory agents such as pregnanolone

GABA, the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the vertebrate brain, mediates neuronal inhibition by binding to the GABA/benzodiazepine receptor and opening an integral chloride channel. Rho-1 GABA receptor could play a role in retinal neurotransmission

GABA, the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the vertebrate brain, mediates neuronal inhibition by binding to the GABA/benzodiazepine receptor and opening an integral chloride channel. Rho-2 GABA receptor could play a role in retinal neurotransmission

GABA, the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the vertebrate brain, mediates neuronal inhibition by binding to the GABA/benzodiazepine receptor and opening an integral chloride channel.

May act as a transcription factor for cell pluripotency and differentiation in the embryo

Golgin which probably tethers transport vesicles to the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and regulates vesicular transport between the endosomes and the Golgi. As a RAB9A effector it is involved in recycling of the mannose 6-phosphate receptor from the late endosomes to the TGN. May also play a role in transport between the recycling endosomes and the Golgi. Required for maintenance of the Golgi structure, it is involved in the biogenesis of noncentrosomal, Golgi- associated microtubules through recruitment of CLASP1 and CLASP2.

Catalyzes the oxidative decarboxylation of glutaryl-CoA to crotonyl-CoA and CO(2) in the degradative pathway of L-lysine, L- hydroxylysine, and L-tryptophan metabolism. It uses electron transfer flavoprotein as its electron acceptor. Isoform Short is inactive.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing through regulating spliceosome C complex formation. May play a role during late- stage splicing events and turnover of excised introns.

Positively regulates nitric oxide synthesis in umbilical vein endothelial cells (HUVECs). May be involved in dopamine synthesis. May modify pain sensitivity and persistence. Isoform GCH-1 is the functional enzyme, the potential function of the enzymatically inactive isoforms remains unknown.

Transcription factor involved in the control of expression of placental growth factor (PGF) and other placenta-specific genes. Binds to the trophoblast-specific element 2 (TSE2) of the aromatase gene enhancer. Binds to the SYDE1 promoter. Has a central role in mediating the differentiation of trophoblast cells along both the villous and extravillous pathways in placental development.

Transcription factor that binds specific sequences on gene promoters and activate their transcription. Through the regulation of gene transcription, may play a role in parathyroid gland development.

Acts as a positive activator of the EIF2AK4/GCN2 protein kinase activity in response to amino acid starvation. Forms a complex with EIF2AK4/GCN2 on translating ribosomes; during this process, GCN1 seems to act as a chaperone to facilitate delivery of uncharged tRNAs that enter the A site of ribosomes to the tRNA-binding domain of EIF2AK4/GCN2, and hence stimulating EIF2AK4/GCN2 kinase activity. Participates in the repression of global protein synthesis and in gene- specific mRNA translation activation, such as the transcriptional activator ATF4, by promoting the EIF2AK4/GCN2-mediated phosphorylation of eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 (eIF-2-alpha/EIF2S1) on 'Ser-52', and hence allowing ATF4-mediated reprogramming of amino acid biosynthetic gene expression to alleviate nutrient depletion.

May play a role in DNA-protein cross-links (DPCs) clearance through a SUMO-dependent recruitment to sites of DPCs, ensuring the genomic stability by protecting germ cells and early embryos from various sources of damage. Can resolve the topoisomerase II (TOP2A) DPCs (By similarity).

Glycosyltransferase that catalyzes the transfer of an N- acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) moiety in beta1-6 linkage from UDP-GlcNAc onto mucin-type core 1 O-glycan to form the branched mucin-type core 2 O-glycan. The catalysis is metal ion- independent and occurs with inversion of the anomeric configuration of sugar donor (By similarity). Selectively involved in synthesis of mucin-type core 2 O-glycans that serve as scaffolds for the display of selectin ligand sialyl Lewis X epitope by myeloid cells, with an impact on homeostasis and recruitment to inflammatory sites (By similarity). Can also act on glycolipid substrates. Transfers GlcNAc moiety to GalGb4Cer globosides in a reaction step to the synthesis of stage- specific embryonic antigen 1 (SSEA-1) determinant (By similarity). Can use Galbeta1-3GalNAcalpha1- and Galbeta1-3GalNAcbeta1- oligosaccharide derivatives as acceptor substrates (By similarity).

Glycosyltransferase that can synthesize all known mucin beta 6 N-acetylglucosaminides. Mediates core 2 and core 4 O-glycan branching, 2 important steps in mucin-type biosynthesis. Has also I- branching enzyme activity by converting linear into branched poly-N- acetyllactosaminoglycans, leading to introduce the blood group I antigen during embryonic development.

Glycosyltransferase that mediates core 2 O-glycan branching, an important step in mucin-type biosynthesis. Does not have core 4 O- glycan or I-branching enzyme activity.

Gamma-tubulin complex is necessary for microtubule nucleation at the centrosome. Plays a role in neuronal migration.

Gamma-tubulin complex is necessary for microtubule nucleation at the centrosome

Involved in the maintenance of Golgi structure by interacting with giantin, affecting protein transport between the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi. Involved in hormone-induced steroid biosynthesis in testicular Leydig cells (By similarity). Recruits PI4KB to the Golgi apparatus membrane; enhances the enzyme activity of PI4KB activity via its membrane recruitment thereby increasing the local concentration of the substrate in the vicinity of the kinase.

Gamma-tubulin complex is necessary for microtubule nucleation at the centrosome.

Receptor for glucocorticoids (GC). Has a dual mode of action: as a transcription factor that binds to glucocorticoid response elements (GRE), both for nuclear and mitochondrial DNA, and as a modulator of other transcription factors. Affects inflammatory responses, cellular proliferation and differentiation in target tissues. Involved in chromatin remodeling. Plays a role in rapid mRNA degradation by binding to the 5' UTR of target mRNAs and interacting with PNRC2 in a ligand- dependent manner which recruits the RNA helicase UPF1 and the mRNA- decapping enzyme DCP1A, leading to RNA decay. Could act as a coactivator for STAT5-dependent transcription upon growth hormone (GH) stimulation and could reveal an essential role of hepatic GR in the control of body growth (By similarity).

Involved in the negative regulation of lymphocyte motility. It mediates the migration-inhibitory effects of IL6. Serves as a positive regulator of the RhoA signaling pathway. Enhancement of RhoA activation results in inhibition of lymphocyte and lymphoma cell motility by activation of its downstream effector ROCK. Is a regulator of B-cell receptor signaling, that acts through SYK kinase activation.

The glycine cleavage system catalyzes the degradation of glycine. The H protein (GCSH) shuttles the methylamine group of glycine from the P protein (GLDC) to the T protein (GCST).

The glycine cleavage system catalyzes the degradation of glycine. The P protein (GLDC) binds the alpha-amino group of glycine through its pyridoxal phosphate cofactor; CO(2) is released and the remaining methylamine moiety is then transferred to the lipoamide cofactor of the H protein (GCSH).

The glycine cleavage system catalyzes the degradation of glycine.

Mediates responses to nitric oxide (NO) by catalyzing the biosynthesis of the signaling molecule cGMP.

Regulates the mitochondrial network by promoting mitochondrial fission.

Required for the accumulation of coenzyme A in the mitochondrial matrix.

Hydrolyzes the phosphodiester bond of glycerophosphodiesters such as glycerophosphoinositol (GroPIns) and glycerophosphoethanolamine (GroPEth), to yield a glycerol phosphate and an alcohol (By similarity). Hydrolyzes glycerophospho-N-acylethanolamines to N- acylethanolamines in the brain and participates in bioactive N- acylethanolamine biosynthesis such as anandamide (an endocannabinoid), N-palmitoylethanolamine (an anti-inflammatory), and N- oleoylethanolamine (an anorexic). In addition, has a lysophospholipase D activity by hydrolyzing N-acyl-lysoplasmenylethanolamine (N-acyl- lysoPlsEt) to N-acylethanolamine. However lysophospholipase D activity is lower than glycerophosphodiester phosphodiesterase activity (By similarity). Has little or no activity towards glycerophosphocholine (By similarity).

Multifunctional enzyme acting as 1,4-alpha-D-glucan:1,4- alpha-D-glucan 4-alpha-D-glycosyltransferase and amylo-1,6-glucosidase in glycogen degradation

Growth factor involved in osteogenesis and adipogenesis. Plays an inhibitory role in the process of osteoblast differentiation via SMAD2/3 pathway. Plays an inhibitory role in the process of adipogenesis.

Secreted signal that acts globally to regulate anterior/posterior axial patterning during development. May play critical roles in patterning both mesodermal and neural tissues (By similarity). It is required for proper vertebral patterning and orofacial development. Signals through activin receptors type-2, ACVR2A and ACVR2B, and activin receptors type-1, ACVR1B, ACVR1C and TGFBR1 leading to the phosphorylation of SMAD2 and SMAD3.

Regulates food intake, energy expenditure and body weight in response to metabolic and toxin-induced stresses. Binds to its receptor, GFRAL, and activates GFRAL- expressing neurons localized in the area postrema and nucleus tractus solitarius of the brainstem. It then triggers the activation of neurons localized within the parabrachial nucleus and central amygdala, which constitutes part of the 'emergency circuit' that shapes feeding responses to stressful conditions. On hepatocytes, inhibits growth hormone signaling (By similarity).

May mediate cell differentiation events during embryonic development

Potent circulating inhibitor of angiogenesis. Signals through the type I activin receptor ACVRL1 but not other Alks. Signaling through SMAD1 in endothelial cells requires TGF-beta coreceptor endoglin/ENG.

Growth factor involved in early embryonic development and adipose-tissue homeostasis. During embryogenesis controls formation of anterior visceral endoderm and mesoderm and the establishment of anterior-posterior identity through a receptor complex comprising the receptor ACVR1B and the coreceptor TDGF1/Cripto (By similarity). Regulates adipose-tissue homeostasis and energy balance under nutrient overload in part by signaling through the receptor complex based on ACVR1C and TDGF1/Cripto.

Growth factor involved in bone and cartilage formation. During cartilage development regulates differentiation of chondrogenic tissue through two pathways. Firstly, positively regulates differentiation of chondrogenic tissue through its binding of high affinity with BMPR1B and of less affinity with BMPR1A, leading to induction of SMAD1-SMAD5-SMAD8 complex phosphorylation and then SMAD protein signaling transduction. Secondly, negatively regulates chondrogenic differentiation through its interaction with NOG. Required to prevent excessive muscle loss upon denervation. This function requires SMAD4 and is mediated by phosphorylated SMAD1/5/8 (By similarity). Binds bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) and mediates LPS-induced inflammatory response, including TNF secretion by monocytes.

Growth factor that controls proliferation and cellular differentiation in the retina and bone formation. Plays a key role in regulating apoptosis during retinal development. Establishes dorsal- ventral positional information in the retina and controls the formation of the retinotectal map. Required for normal formation of bones and joints in the limbs, skull, digits and axial skeleton. Plays a key role in establishing boundaries between skeletal elements during development. Regulation of GDF6 expression seems to be a mechanism for evolving species-specific changes in skeletal structures. Seems to positively regulate differentiation of chondrogenic tissue through the growth factor receptors subunits BMPR1A, BMPR1B, BMPR2 and ACVR2A, leading to the activation of SMAD1- SMAD5-SMAD8 complex. The regulation of chondrogenic differentiation is inhibited by NOG. Also involved in the induction of adipogenesis from mesenchymal stem cells. This mechanism acts through the growth factor receptors subunits BMPR1A, BMPR2 and ACVR2A and the activation of SMAD1-SMAD5-SMAD8 complex and MAPK14/p38 (By similarity).

May play an active role in the motor area of the primate neocortex.

Acts specifically as a negative regulator of skeletal muscle growth.

Required for ovarian folliculogenesis. Promotes primordial follicle development. Stimulates granulosa cell proliferation. Promotes cell transition from G0/G1 to S and G2/M phases, through an increase of CCND1 and CCNE1 expression, and RB1 phosphorylation. It regulates STAR expression and cAMP-dependent progesterone release in granulosa and thecal cells. Attenuates the suppressive effects of activin A on STAR expression and progesterone production by increasing the expression of inhibin B. It suppresses FST and FSTL3 production in granulosa-lutein cells.

Regulates the GDP/GTP exchange reaction of most Rab proteins by inhibiting the dissociation of GDP from them, and the subsequent binding of GTP to them. Promotes the dissociation of GDP-bound Rab proteins from the membrane and inhibits their activation. Promotes the dissociation of RAB1A, RAB3A, RAB5A and RAB10 from membranes.

GDP-dissociation inhibitor preventing the GDP to GTP exchange of most Rab proteins. By keeping these small GTPases in their inactive GDP-bound form regulates intracellular membrane trafficking. Negatively regulates protein transport to the cilium and ciliogenesis through the inhibition of RAB8A.

Controls Rho proteins homeostasis. Regulates the GDP/GTP exchange reaction of the Rho proteins by inhibiting the dissociation of GDP from them, and the subsequent binding of GTP to them. Retains Rho proteins such as CDC42, RAC1 and RHOA in an inactive cytosolic pool, regulating their stability and protecting them from degradation. Actively involved in the recycling and distribution of activated Rho GTPases in the cell, mediates extraction from membranes of both inactive and activated molecules due its exceptionally high affinity for prenylated forms. Through the modulation of Rho proteins, may play a role in cell motility regulation. In glioma cells, inhibits cell migration and invasion by mediating the signals of SEMA5A and PLXNB3 that lead to inactivation of RAC1.

Regulates the GDP/GTP exchange reaction of the Rho proteins by inhibiting the dissociation of GDP from them, and the subsequent binding of GTP to them. Regulates reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton mediated by Rho family members.

Inhibits GDP/GTP exchange reaction of RhoB. Interacts specifically with the GDP- and GTP-bound forms of post-translationally processed Rhob and Rhog proteins, both of which show a growth-regulated expression in mammalian cells. Stimulates the release of the GDP-bound but not the GTP-bound RhoB protein. Also inhibits the GDP/GTP exchange of RhoB but shows less ability to inhibit the dissociation of prebound GTP

Neurotrophic factor that enhances survival and morphological differentiation of dopaminergic neurons and increases their high- affinity dopamine uptake.

Serine protease inhibitor with activity toward thrombin, trypsin, and urokinase. Promotes neurite extension by inhibiting thrombin. Binds heparin

Hydrolyzes lysoglycerophospholipids to produce lysophosphatidic acid (LPA) and the corresponding amines. Shows a preference for 1-O-alkyl- sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine (lyso-PAF), lysophosphatidylethanolamine (lyso-PE) and lysophosphatidylcholine (lyso-PC). May be involved in bioactive N-acylethanolamine biosynthesis from both N-acyl-lysoplasmenylethanolamin (N-acyl- lysoPlsEt) and N-acyl-lysophosphatidylethanolamin (N-acyl-lysoPE). In addition, hydrolyzes glycerophospho-N-acylethanolamine to N-acylethanolamine. Does not display glycerophosphodiester phosphodiesterase activity, since it cannot hydrolyze either glycerophosphoinositol or glycerophosphocholine (By similarity).

Has glycerophosphoinositol inositolphosphodiesterase activity and specifically hydrolyzes glycerophosphoinositol, with no activity for other substrates such as glycerophosphoinositol 4-phosphate, glycerophosphocholine, glycerophosphoethanolamine, and glycerophosphoserine. Accelerates the program of osteoblast differentiation and growth. May play a role in remodeling of the actin cytoskeleton (By similarity).

Hydrolyzes lysoglycerophospholipids to produce lysophosphatidic acid (LPA) and the corresponding amines. Shows a preference for 1-O-alkyl-sn-glycero-3- phosphocholine (lyso-PAF), lysophosphatidylcholine (lyso-PC) and N- acylethanolamine lysophospholipids. Does not display glycerophosphodiester phosphodiesterase activity, since it cannot hydrolyze either glycerophosphoinositol or glycerophosphocholine.

Glycerophosphodiester phosphodiesterase that promotes neurite formation and drives spinal motor neuron differentiation (By similarity). Mediates the cleavage of glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI) anchor of target proteins: removes the GPI-anchor of RECK, leading to release RECK from the plasma membrane (By similarity). May contribute to the osmotic regulation of cellular glycerophosphocholine (By similarity).

Specific and highly efficient GDP-D-glucose phosphorylase regulating the levels of GDP-D-glucose in cells.

Acts as a GEF (guanine nucleotide exchange factor) for the Rho family of small GTP-binding proteins (G proteins) that stimulates the dissociation of GDP to enable subsequent binding of GTP. Additionally, appears to chaperone the processing and/or trafficking of small GTPases containing a C-terminal polybasic region independently of GEF activity. Targets include RAP1A/RAP1B, RHOA, RHOB, RHOC, RAC1 and KRAS. Regulates mitochondrial dynamics by controlling RHOT function to promote mitochondrial fission during high calcium conditions. Able to promote the Ca(2+) release from the endoplasmic reticulum via both inositol trisphosphate (Ins3P) and ryanodine sensitive receptors leading to a enhanced mitochondrial Ca(2+) uptake.

Calcium-regulated, actin-modulating protein that binds to the plus (or barbed) ends of actin monomers or filaments, preventing monomer exchange (end-blocking or capping). It can promote the assembly of monomers into filaments (nucleation) as well as sever filaments already formed. Plays a role in ciliogenesis.

Regulator of DNA replication. Promotes initiation of chromosomal DNA replication by mediating TOPBP1- and CDK2-dependent recruitment of CDC45L onto replication origins (By similarity).

The SMN complex catalyzes the assembly of small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs), the building blocks of the spliceosome, and thereby plays an important role in the splicing of cellular pre- mRNAs. Most spliceosomal snRNPs contain a common set of Sm proteins SNRPB, SNRPD1, SNRPD2, SNRPD3, SNRPE, SNRPF and SNRPG that assemble in a heptameric protein ring on the Sm site of the small nuclear RNA to form the core snRNP (Sm core). In the cytosol, the Sm proteins SNRPD1, SNRPD2, SNRPE, SNRPF and SNRPG (5Sm) are trapped in an inactive 6S pICln-Sm complex by the chaperone CLNS1A that controls the assembly of the core snRNP. To assemble core snRNPs, the SMN complex accepts the trapped 5Sm proteins from CLNS1A. Binding of snRNA inside 5Sm ultimately triggers eviction of the SMN complex, thereby allowing binding of SNRPD3 and SNRPB to complete assembly of the core snRNP. Within the SMN complex, GEMIN2 constrains the conformation of 5Sm, thereby promoting 5Sm binding to snRNA containing the snRNP code (a nonameric Sm site and a 3'-adjacent stem-loop), thus preventing progression of assembly until a cognate substrate is bound.

The SMN complex catalyzes the assembly of small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs), the building blocks of the spliceosome, and thereby plays an important role in the splicing of cellular pre- mRNAs. Most spliceosomal snRNPs contain a common set of Sm proteins SNRPB, SNRPD1, SNRPD2, SNRPD3, SNRPE, SNRPF and SNRPG that assemble in a heptameric protein ring on the Sm site of the small nuclear RNA to form the core snRNP (Sm core). In the cytosol, the Sm proteins SNRPD1, SNRPD2, SNRPE, SNRPF and SNRPG are trapped in an inactive 6S pICln-Sm complex by the chaperone CLNS1A that controls the assembly of the core snRNP. To assemble core snRNPs, the SMN complex accepts the trapped 5Sm proteins from CLNS1A forming an intermediate. Binding of snRNA inside 5Sm triggers eviction of the SMN complex, thereby allowing binding of SNRPD3 and SNRPB to complete assembly of the core snRNP.

The SMN complex catalyzes the assembly of small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs), the building blocks of the spliceosome, and thereby plays an important role in the splicing of cellular pre- mRNAs. Most spliceosomal snRNPs contain a common set of Sm proteins SNRPB, SNRPD1, SNRPD2, SNRPD3, SNRPE, SNRPF and SNRPG that assemble in a heptameric protein ring on the Sm site of the small nuclear RNA to form the core snRNP (Sm core). In the cytosol, the Sm proteins SNRPD1, SNRPD2, SNRPE, SNRPF and SNRPG are trapped in an inactive 6S pICln-Sm complex by the chaperone CLNS1A that controls the assembly of the core snRNP. To assemble core snRNPs, the SMN complex accepts the trapped 5Sm proteins from CLNS1A forming an intermediate. Binding of snRNA inside 5Sm ultimately triggers eviction of the SMN complex, thereby allowing binding of SNRPD3 and SNRPB to complete assembly of the core snRNP. Within the SMN complex, GEMIN5 recognizes and delivers the small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs) to the SMN complex. Binds to the 7-methylguanosine cap of RNA molecules (PubMed:19750007, PubMed:27834343, PubMed:27881600, PubMed:27881601, Ref.27). Binds to the 3'-UTR of SMN1 mRNA and regulates its translation; does not affect mRNA stability. May play a role in the regulation of protein synthesis via its interaction with ribosomes.

Inhibits DNA replication by preventing the incorporation of MCM complex into pre-replication complex (pre-RC). It is degraded during the mitotic phase of the cell cycle. Its destruction at the metaphase- anaphase transition permits replication in the succeeding cell cycle. Inhibits histone acetyltransferase activity of KAT7/HBO1 in a CDT1-dependent manner, inhibiting histone H4 acetylation and DNA replication licensing. Inhibits the transcriptional activity of a subset of Hox proteins, enrolling them in cell proliferative control.

Could be a regulatory protein, possibly participating in receptor-mediated signal transduction at the plasma membrane. Has guanine nucleotide-binding activity but undetectable intrinsic GTPase activity

Endonuclease which resolves Holliday junctions (HJs) by the introduction of symmetrically related cuts across the junction point, to produce nicked duplex products in which the nicks can be readily ligated. Four-way DNA intermediates, also known as Holliday junctions, are formed during homologous recombination and DNA repair, and their resolution is necessary for proper chromosome segregation. Cleaves HJs by a nick and counter- nick mechanism involving dual coordinated incisions that lead to the formation of ligatable nicked duplex products. Cleavage of the first strand is rate limiting, while second strand cleavage is rapid. Largely monomeric, dimerizes on the HJ and the first nick occurs upon dimerization at the junction. Efficiently cleaves both single and double HJs contained within large recombination intermediates. Exhibits a weak sequence preference for incision between two G residues that reside in a T-rich region of DNA. Has also endonuclease activity on 5'-flap and replication fork (RF) DNA substrates.

Microtubule-associated protein involved in membrane protein- cytoskeleton interactions. It is thought to anchor the inhibitory glycine receptor (GLYR) to subsynaptic microtubules (By similarity). Acts as a major instructive molecule at inhibitory synapses, where it also clusters GABA type A receptors.

Required for the post-translational delivery of tail-anchored (TA) proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Together with CAMLG/GET2, acts as a membrane receptor for soluble GET3/TRC40, which recognizes and selectively binds the transmembrane domain of TA proteins in the cytosol. Required to ensure correct topology and ER insertion of CAMLG.

ATPase required for the post-translational delivery of tail- anchored (TA) proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum. Recognizes and selectively binds the transmembrane domain of TA proteins in the cytosol. This complex then targets to the endoplasmic reticulum by membrane-bound receptors GET1/WRB and CAMLG/GET2, where the tail- anchored protein is released for insertion. This process is regulated by ATP binding and hydrolysis. ATP binding drives the homodimer towards the closed dimer state, facilitating recognition of newly synthesized TA membrane proteins. ATP hydrolysis is required for insertion. Subsequently, the homodimer reverts towards the open dimer state, lowering its affinity for the GET1-CAMLG receptor, and returning it to the cytosol to initiate a new round of targeting. May be involved in insulin signaling.

As part of a cytosolic protein quality control complex, the BAG6/BAT3 complex, maintains misfolded and hydrophobic patches- containing proteins in a soluble state and participates in their proper delivery to the endoplasmic reticulum or alternatively can promote their sorting to the proteasome where they undergo degradation. The BAG6/BAT3 complex is involved in the post-translational delivery of tail-anchored/type II transmembrane proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum membrane. Recruited to ribosomes, it interacts with the transmembrane region of newly synthesized tail-anchored proteins and together with SGTA and ASNA1 mediates their delivery to the endoplasmic reticulum. Client proteins that cannot be properly delivered to the endoplasmic reticulum are ubiquitinated and sorted to the proteasome. Similarly, the BAG6/BAT3 complex also functions as a sorting platform for proteins of the secretory pathway that are mislocalized to the cytosol either delivering them to the proteasome for degradation or to the endoplasmic reticulum. The BAG6/BAT3 complex also plays a role in the endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD), a quality control mechanism that eliminates unwanted proteins of the endoplasmic reticulum through their retrotranslocation to the cytosol and their targeting to the proteasome. It maintains these retrotranslocated proteins in an unfolded yet soluble state condition in the cytosol to ensure their proper delivery to the proteasome.

GFAP, a class-III intermediate filament, is a cell-specific marker that, during the development of the central nervous system, distinguishes astrocytes from other glial cells

Essential proto-oncogenic transcriptional regulator necessary for development and differentiation of erythroid and megakaryocytic lineages. Component of a RCOR-GFI-KDM1A-HDAC complex that suppresses, via histone deacetylase (HDAC) recruitment, a number of genes implicated in multilineage blood cell development and controls hematopoietic differentiation. Transcriptional repressor or activator depending on both promoter and cell type context; represses promoter activity of SOCS1 and SOCS3 and thus, may regulate cytokine signaling pathways. Cooperates with GATA1 to repress target gene transcription, such as the apoptosis regulator BCL2L1; GFI1B silencing in leukemic cell lines markedly increase apoptosis rate. Inhibits down-regulation of MYC and MYB as well as the cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor CDKN1A/P21WAF1 in IL6-treated myelomonocytic cells. Represses expression of GATA3 in T-cell lymphomas and inhibits GATA1-mediated transcription; as GATA1 also mediates erythroid GFI1B transcription, both GATA1 and GFI1B participate in a feedback regulatory pathway controlling the expression of GFI1B gene in erythroid cells. Suppresses GATA1-mediated stimulation of GFI1B promoter through protein interaction. Binds to gamma-satellite DNA and to its own promoter, auto-repressing its own expression. Alters histone methylation by recruiting histone methyltransferase to target genes promoters. Plays a role in heterochromatin formation.

Transcription repressor essential for hematopoiesis. Functions in a cell-context and development-specific manner. Binds to 5'-TAAATCAC[AT]GCA-3' in the promoter region of a large number of genes. Component of several complexes, including the EHMT2-GFI1-HDAC1, AJUBA-GFI1-HDAC1 and RCOR-GFI-KDM1A-HDAC complexes, that suppress, via histone deacetylase (HDAC) recruitment, a number of genes implicated in multilineage blood cell development. Regulates neutrophil differentiation, promotes proliferation of lymphoid cells, and is required for granulocyte development. Inhibits SPI1 transcriptional activity at macrophage-specific genes, repressing macrophage differentiation of myeloid progenitor cells and promoting granulocyte commitment (By similarity). Mediates, together with U2AF1L4, the alternative splicing of CD45 and controls T-cell receptor signaling. Regulates the endotoxin-mediated Toll-like receptor (TLR) inflammatory response by antagonizing RELA. Cooperates with CBFA2T2 to regulate ITGB1-dependent neurite growth. Controls cell-cycle progression by repressing CDKNIA/p21 transcription in response to TGFB1 via recruitment of GFI1 by ZBTB17 to the CDKNIA/p21 and CDKNIB promoters. Required for the maintenance of inner ear hair cells.

Controls the flux of glucose into the hexosamine pathway. Most likely involved in regulating the availability of precursors for N- and O-linked glycosylation of proteins. Regulates the circadian expression of clock genes BMAL1 and CRY1 (By similarity). Has a role in fine tuning the metabolic fluctuations of cytosolic UDP-GlcNAc and its effects on hyaluronan synthesis that occur during tissue remodeling.

Controls the flux of glucose into the hexosamine pathway. Most likely involved in regulating the availability of precursors for N- and O-linked glycosylation of proteins

Receptor for GDNF. Mediates the GDNF-induced autophosphorylation and activation of the RET receptor (By similarity).

Receptor for neurturin. Mediates the NRTN-induced autophosphorylation and activation of the RET receptor. Also able to mediate GDNF signaling through the RET tyrosine kinase receptor

Receptor for the glial cell line-derived neurotrophic factor, ARTN (artemin). Mediates the artemin-induced autophosphorylation and activation of the RET receptor tyrosine kinase.

Receptor for persephin. Mediates the GDNF-induced autophosphorylation and activation of the RET receptor. May be important in C-cell development and, in the postnatal development of the adrenal medulla

Brainstem-restricted receptor for GDF15 which regulates food intake, energy expenditure and body weight in response to metabolic and toxin-induced stresses. Upon interaction with its ligand, GDF15, interacts with RET and induces cellular signaling through activation of MAPK- and AKT- signaling pathways.

Mediates tetrahydrobiopterin inhibition of GTP cyclohydrolase 1. This inhibition is reversed by L-phenylalanine.

Required for proper function of the olfactory system. May be involved in establishing the acuity of olfactory sensory signaling (By similarity).

Plays a role in protein sorting and trafficking between the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and endosomes. Mediates the ARF-dependent recruitment of clathrin to the TGN and binds ubiquitinated proteins and membrane cargo molecules with a cytosolic acidic cluster-dileucine (DXXLL) motif. Mediates export of the GPCR receptor ADRA2B to the cell surface. Required for targeting PKD1:PKD2 complex from the trans-Golgi network to the cilium membrane (By similarity). Regulates retrograde transport of proteins such as phosphorylated form of BACE1 from endosomes to the trans-Golgi network.

Plays a role in protein sorting and trafficking between the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and endosomes. Mediates the ARF-dependent recruitment of clathrin to the TGN and binds ubiquitinated proteins and membrane cargo molecules with a cytosolic acidic cluster-dileucine (DXXLL) motif. Mediates export of the GPCR receptor ADRA2B to the cell surface. Regulates retrograde transport of phosphorylated form of BACE1 from endosomes to the trans- Golgi network.

Plays a role in protein sorting and trafficking between the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and endosomes. Mediates the ARF-dependent recruitment of clathrin to the TGN and binds ubiquitinated proteins and membrane cargo molecules with a cytosolic acidic cluster-dileucine (DXXLL) motif. Mediates export of the GPCR receptor ADRA2B to the cell surface. nvolved in BACE1 transport and sorting as well as regulation of BACE1 protein levels. Regulates retrograde transport of BACE1 from endosomes to the trans-Golgi network via interaction through the VHS motif and dependent of BACE1 phosphorylation. Modulates BACE1 protein levels independently of the interaction between VHS domain and DXXLL motif through recognition of ubiquitination. Key player in a novel DXXLL-mediated endosomal sorting machinery to the recycling pathway that targets NTRK1 to the plasma membrane (By similarity).

Contributes to degradation of proteins cross-linked by transglutaminases by degrading the cross-link between a lysine and a glutamic acid residue. Catalyzes the formation of 5-oxo-L-proline from L-gamma-glutamyl-L-epsilon-lysine. Inactive with L-gamma-glutamyl- alpha-amino acid substrates such as L-gamma-glutamyl-L-alpha-cysteine and L-gamma-glutamyl-L-alpha-alanine.

Catalyzes the formation of 5-oxoproline from gamma-glutamyl dipeptides and may play a significant role in glutathione homeostasis. Induces release of cytochrome c from mitochondria with resultant induction of apoptosis.

Hydrolyzes the polyglutamate sidechains of pteroylpolyglutamates. Progressively removes gamma-glutamyl residues from pteroylpoly-gamma-glutamate to yield pteroyl-alpha-glutamate (folic acid) and free glutamate. May play an important role in the bioavailability of dietary pteroylpolyglutamates and in the metabolism of pteroylpolyglutamates and antifolates.

Catalyzes the trans-addition of the three molecules of IPP onto DMAPP to form geranylgeranyl pyrophosphate, an important precursor of carotenoids and geranylated proteins.

Cleaves the gamma-glutamyl bond of extracellular glutathione (gamma-Glu-Cys-Gly), glutathione conjugates (such as maresin conjugate (13R)-S-glutathionyl-(14S)-hydroxy-(4Z,7Z,9E,11E,16Z,19Z)- docosahexaenoate, MCTR1) and other gamma-glutamyl compounds (such as leukotriene C4, LTC4). The metabolism of glutathione by GGT1 releases free glutamate and the dipeptide cysteinyl-glycine, which is hydrolyzed to cysteine and glycine by dipeptidases. In the presence of high concentrations of dipeptides and some amino acids, can also catalyze a transpeptidation reaction, transferring the gamma-glutamyl moiety to an acceptor amino acid to form a new gamma-glutamyl compound. Contributes to cysteine homeostasis, glutathione homeostasis and in the conversion of the leukotriene LTC4 to LTD4.

Cleaves the gamma-glutamyl peptide bond of glutathione and glutathione-S-conjugate such as leukotriene C4. Does not cleaves gamma-glutamyl compounds such as gamma-glutamyl leucine. May also catalyze a transpeptidation reaction in addition to the hydrolysis reaction, transferring the gamma-glutamyl moiety to an acceptor amino acid to form a new gamma-glutamyl compound. Acts as a negative regulator of geranylgeranyl glutathione bioactivity by cleaving off its gamma-glutamyl group, playing a role in adaptive immune responses.

Hydrolyzes and transfers gamma-glutamyl moieties from glutathione and other gamma-glutamyl compounds to acceptors.

May act cooperatively with GRB10 to regulate tyrosine kinase receptor signaling. May increase IGF1 receptor phosphorylation under IGF1 stimulation as well as phosphorylation of IRS1 and SHC1 (By similarity).

Key component of the 4EHP-GYF2 complex, a multiprotein complex that acts as a repressor of translation initiation. In the 4EHP-GYF2 complex, acts as a factor that bridges EIF4E2 to ZFP36/TTP, linking translation repression with mRNA decay. Also recruits and bridges the association of the 4EHP complex with the decapping effector protein DDX6, which is required for the ZFP36/TTP-mediated down-regulation of AU-rich mRNA. May act cooperatively with GRB10 to regulate tyrosine kinase receptor signaling, including IGF1 and insulin receptors.

Mitochondrial glutamate/H(+) symporter. Responsible for the transport of glutamate from the cytosol into the mitochondrial matrix with the concomitant import of a proton. Plays a role in the control of glucose-stimulated insulin secretion (By similarity).

Responsible for the transport of glutamate from the cytosol into the mitochondrial matrix with the concomitant import of a proton (symport system).

Required for the mitochondrial tubular network and cristae organization. Involved in apoptotic release of cytochrome c.

Receptor for GRF, coupled to G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase. Stimulates somatotroph cell growth, growth hormone gene transcription and growth hormone secretion

[Ghrelin-27]: Ghrelin is the ligand for growth hormone secretagogue receptor type 1 (GHSR). Induces the release of growth hormone from the pituitary. Has an appetite-stimulating effect, induces adiposity and stimulates gastric acid secretion. Involved in growth regulation.

Receptor for pituitary gland growth hormone involved in regulating postnatal body growth. On ligand binding, couples to the JAK2/STAT5 pathway (By similarity).

Receptor for ghrelin, coupled to G-alpha-11 proteins. Stimulates growth hormone secretion. Binds also other growth hormone releasing peptides (GHRP) (e.g. Met-enkephalin and GHRP-6) as well as non-peptide, low molecular weight secretagogues (e.g. L-692,429, MK- 0677, adenosine).

Substrate-recognition subunit of the CTLH E3 ubiquitin- protein ligase complex that selectively accepts ubiquitin from UBE2H and mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of the transcription factor HBP1 (Probable). Binds proteins and peptides with a Pro/N-degron consisting of an unmodified N-terminal Pro followed by a small residue, and has the highest affinity for the peptide Pro-Gly-Leu-Trp. Binds peptides with an N-terminal sequence of the type Pro-[Ala,Gly]- [Leu,Met,Gln,Ser,Tyr]-[Glu,Gly,His,Ser,Val,Trp,Tyr]. Does not bind peptides with an acetylated N-terminal Pro residue.

Core component of the CTLH E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that selectively accepts ubiquitin from UBE2H and mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of the transcription factor HBP1. Acts as a positive regulator of Wnt signaling pathway by promoting beta-catenin (CTNNB1) nuclear accumulation.

Lysosomal thiol reductase that can reduce protein disulfide bonds. May facilitate the complete unfolding of proteins destined for lysosomal degradation. Plays an important role in antigen processing. Facilitates the generation of MHC class II-restricted epitodes from disulfide bond-containing antigen by the endocytic reduction of disulfide bonds (By similarity). Facilitates also MHC class I- restricted recognition of exogenous antigens containing disulfide bonds by CD8+ T-cells or crosspresentation (By similarity).

May regulate lymphocyte survival. Required for normal levels of mature T-lymphocytes and mature B-cells (By similarity).

The heterodimer formed by GIMAP2 and GIMAP7 has GTPase activity. In contrast, GIMAP2 has no GTPase activity by itself.

During thymocyte development, may play a role in the regulation of apoptosis (By similarity). GTPase which exhibits a higher affinity for GDP than for GTP.

Plays a role in T lymphocyte development and the optimal generation of CD4/CD8 double-positive thymocytes (By similarity). Inhibitor of GSK3A, possibly by sequestering GSK3A in cytoplasmic vesicles and impairing its translocation to the nucleus. Consequently, impairs GSK3A-dependent transcriptional program and regulation of the DNA damage response occurring during T cells proliferation. Required for the survival of peripheral T cells, natural killer (NK) and NK T-cell development and the maintenance of normal liver function (By similarity). May promote the survival of mature T lymphocytes upon cytokine withdrawal (By similarity). May regulate Ca(2+) homeostasis by modulating lysosomal Ca(2+) stores, preventing its accumulation in the absence of T cell activation (By similarity). May play a role in mitochondrial DNA segregation in hematopoietic tissues (By similarity). Is a regulator of liver endothelial cell homeostasis (By similarity).

The dimer has GTPase activity; the active site contains residues from both subunits.

Exerts an anti-apoptotic effect in the immune system and is involved in responses to infections.

Required for postnatal maturation of the hair bundle and long-term survival of hair cells and spiral ganglion.

This is a receptor for GIP. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase

Potent stimulator of insulin secretion and relatively poor inhibitor of gastric acid secretion

GTPase-activating protein for ADP ribosylation factor family members, including ARF1. Multidomain scaffold protein that interacts with numerous proteins and therefore participates in many cellular functions, including receptor internalization, focal adhesion remodeling, and signaling by both G protein-coupled receptors and tyrosine kinase receptors (By similarity). Through PAK1 activation, positively regulates microtubule nucleation during interphase. Plays a role in the regulation of cytokinesis; for this function, may act in a pathway also involving ENTR1 and PTPN13. May promote cell motility both by regulating focal complex dynamics and by local activation of RAC1. May act as scaffold for MAPK1/3 signal transduction in focal adhesions. Recruits MAPK1/3/ERK1/2 to focal adhesions after EGF stimulation via a Src-dependent pathway, hence stimulating cell migration. Plays a role in brain development and function. Involved in the regulation of spine density and synaptic plasticity that is required for processes involved in learning (By similarity). Plays an important role in dendritic spine morphogenesis and synapse formation. In hippocampal neurons, recruits guanine nucleotide exchange factors (GEFs), such as ARHGEF7/beta-PIX, to the synaptic membrane. These in turn locally activate RAC1, which is an essential step for spine morphogenesis and synapse formation. May contribute to the organization of presynaptic active zones through oligomerization and formation of a Piccolo/PCLO-based protein network, which includes ARHGEF7/beta-PIX and FAK1 (By similarity). In neurons, through its interaction with liprin-alpha family members, may be required for AMPA receptor (GRIA2/3) proper targeting to the cell membrane (By similarity). In complex with GABA(A) receptors and ARHGEF7, plays a crucial role in regulating GABA(A) receptor synaptic stability, maintaining GPHN/gephyrin scaffolds and hence GABAergic inhibitory synaptic transmission, by locally coordinating RAC1 and PAK1 downstream effector activity, leading to F-actin stabilization. May also be important for RAC1 downstream signaling pathway through PAK3 and regulation of neuronal inhibitory transmission at presynaptic input (By similarity). Required for successful bone regeneration during fracture healing (By similarity). The function in intramembranous ossification may, at least partly, exerted by macrophages in which GIT1 is a key negative regulator of redox homeostasis, IL1B production, and glycolysis, acting through the ERK1/2/NRF2/NFE2L2 axis (By similarity). May play a role in angiogenesis during fracture healing (By similarity). In this process, may regulate activation of the canonical NF-kappa-B signal in bone mesenchymal stem cells by enhancing the interaction between NEMO and 'Lys-63'-ubiquitinated RIPK1/RIP1, eventually leading to enhanced production of VEGFA and others angiogenic factors. Essential for VEGF signaling through the activation of phospholipase C-gamma and ERK1/2, hence may control endothelial cell proliferation and angiogenesis.

GTPase-activating protein for ADP ribosylation factor family members, including ARF1.

Regulates insulin-dependent IRS1 tyrosine phosphorylation in adipocytes by modulating the availability of IRS1 to IR tyrosine kinase. Its association with IRS1 is required for insulin-induced translocation of SLC2A4 to the cell membrane. Involved in TNF-induced impairment of insulin-dependent IRS1 tyrosine phosphorylation.

Has mitogenic activity and may be involved in maintaining the integrity of the gastric mucosal epithelium.

Converts D-glucuronic acid residues adjacent to N-sulfate sugar residues to L-iduronic acid residues, both in maturing heparan sulfate (HS) and heparin chains. This is important for further modifications that determine the specificity of interactions between these glycosaminoglycans and proteins.

Regulates and initiates biosynthesis of N-acetylneuraminic acid (NeuAc), a precursor of sialic acids. Plays an essential role in early development (By similarity). Required for normal sialylation in hematopoietic cells. Sialylation is implicated in cell adhesion, signal transduction, tumorigenicity and metastatic behavior of malignant cells.

Cytoplasmic poly(A) RNA polymerase that adds successive AMP monomers to the 3'-end of specific RNAs, forming a poly(A) tail. In contrast to the canonical nuclear poly(A) RNA polymerase, it only adds poly(A) to selected cytoplasmic mRNAs. Does not play a role in replication-dependent histone mRNA degradation. Adds a single nucleotide to the 3' end of specific miRNAs, monoadenylation stabilizes and prolongs the activity of some but not all miRNAs.

Ligand for NRCAM and NFASC/neurofascin that plays a role in the formation and maintenance of the nodes of Ranvier on myelinated axons. Mediates interaction between Schwann cell microvilli and axons via its interactions with NRCAM and NFASC. Nodes of Ranvier contain clustered sodium channels that are crucial for the saltatory propagation of action potentials along myelinated axons. During development, nodes of Ranvier are formed by the fusion of two heminodes. Required for normal clustering of sodium channels at heminodes; not required for the formation of mature nodes with normal sodium channel clusters. Required, together with NRCAM, for maintaining NFASC and sodium channel clusters at mature nodes of Ranvier.

Required for the export of mRNAs containing poly(A) tails from the nucleus into the cytoplasm. May be involved in the terminal step of the mRNA transport through the nuclear pore complex (NPC).

Required for normal glycogen accumulation. The alpha 1-6 branches of glycogen play an important role in increasing the solubility of the molecule (Probable).

Shared alpha chain of the active heterodimeric glycoprotein hormones thyrotropin/thyroid stimulating hormone/TSH, lutropin/luteinizing hormone/LH, follitropin/follicle stimulating hormone/FSH and choriogonadotropin/CG. These hormones bind specific receptors on target cells that in turn activate downstream signaling pathways.

Acts as a transcriptional activator. Binds to the DNA consensus sequence 5'-GACCACCCA-3'. Regulates the transcription of specific genes during normal development. Plays a role in craniofacial development and digital development, as well as development of the central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract. Mediates SHH signaling. Plays a role in cell proliferation and differentiation via its role in SHH signaling.

Has a dual function as a transcriptional activator and a repressor of the sonic hedgehog (Shh) pathway, and plays a role in limb development. The full-length GLI3 form (GLI3FL) after phosphorylation and nuclear translocation, acts as an activator (GLI3A) while GLI3R, its C-terminally truncated form, acts as a repressor. A proper balance between the GLI3 activator and the repressor GLI3R, rather than the repressor gradient itself or the activator/repressor ratio gradient, specifies limb digit number and identity. In concert with TRPS1, plays a role in regulating the size of the zone of distal chondrocytes, in restricting the zone of PTHLH expression in distal cells and in activating chondrocyte proliferation. Binds to the minimal GLI- consensus sequence 5'-GGGTGGTC-3'.

Can act either as a transcriptional repressor or as a transcriptional activator, depending on the cell context. Acts as a repressor of the Hedgehog signaling pathway (By similarity). Represses the Hedgehog-dependent expression of Wnt4 (By similarity). Necessary to maintain the differentiated epithelial phenotype in renal cells through the inhibition of SNAI1, which itself induces the epithelial-to- mesenchymal transition (By similarity). Represses transcriptional activation mediated by CTNNB1 in the Wnt signaling pathway. May act by recruiting the corepressors CTBP1 and HDAC3. May be involved in neuron differentiation (By similarity).

Acts as both a repressor and activator of transcription. Binds to the consensus sequence 5'-GACCACCCAC-3' (By similarity).

[Isoform 1]: Regulatory component of cullin-RING-based SCF (SKP1-Cullin-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes. Inhibits E3 ubiquitin ligase activity by binding to RBX1 (via RING domain) and inhibiting its interaction with the E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme CDC34. Inhibits RBX1-mediated neddylation of CUL1. Required for normal stability and normal cellular levels of key components of SCF ubiquitin ligase complexes, including FBXW7, RBX1, CUL1, CUL2, CUL3, CUL4A, and thereby contributes to the regulation of CCNE1 and MYC levels (By similarity). Essential for normal development of the vasculature. Contributes to the regulation of RPS6KB1 phosphorylation.

Required to protect lysosomal transporter MFSD1 from lysosomal proteolysis and for MFSD1 lysosomal localization.

Glutamine synthetase that catalyzes the ATP-dependent conversion of glutamate and ammonia to glutamine. Its role depends on tissue localization: in the brain, it regulates the levels of toxic ammonia and converts neurotoxic glutamate to harmless glutamine, whereas in the liver, it is one of the enzymes responsible for the removal of ammonia (By similarity). Essential for proliferation of fetal skin fibroblasts. Independently of its glutamine synthetase activity, required for endothelial cell migration during vascular development: acts by regulating membrane localization and activation of the GTPase RHOJ, possibly by promoting RHOJ palmitoylation. May act as a palmitoyltransferase for RHOJ: able to autopalmitoylate and then transfer the palmitoyl group to RHOJ. Plays a role in ribosomal 40S subunit biogenesis.

Thiolesterase that catalyzes the hydrolysis of S-D-lactoyl- glutathione to form glutathione and D-lactic acid.

G-protein coupled receptor for glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP- 1). Ligand binding triggers activation of a signaling cascade that leads to the activation of adenylyl cyclase and increased intracellular cAMP levels. Plays a role in regulating insulin secretion in response to GLP-1 (By similarity).

This is a receptor for glucagon-like peptide 2. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase

Phosphatidylinositol-4-phosphate-binding protein that may antagonize the action of GOLPH3 which is required for the process of vesicle budding at the Golgi and anterograde transport to the plasma membrane.

This protein is a minor sialoglycoprotein in erythrocyte membranes

This protein is a minor sialoglycoprotein in human erythrocyte membranes. The blood group Gerbich antigens and receptors for Plasmodium falciparum merozoites are most likely located within the extracellular domain. Glycophorin-C plays an important role in regulating the stability of red cells

This protein is a minor sialoglycoprotein in human erythrocyte membranes

Key enzyme in the regulation of glycerol uptake and metabolism. Essential for male fertility and sperm mitochondrial sheath formation (By similarity). Required for proper arrangement of crescent- like mitochondria to form the mitochondrial sheath during spermatogenesis (By similarity). Can induce mitochondrial clustering through interactions with PLD6 and up-regulation of phosphatidic acid synthesis in the mitochondria.

Glycine receptors are ligand-gated chloride channels. Channel opening is triggered by extracellular glycine. Channel opening is also triggered by taurine and beta- alanine. Channel characteristics depend on the subunit composition; heteropentameric channels are activated by lower glycine levels and display faster desensitization. Plays an important role in the down-regulation of neuronal excitability. Contributes to the generation of inhibitory postsynaptic currents. Channel activity is potentiated by ethanol. Potentiation of channel activity by intoxicating levels of ethanol contribute to the sedative effects of ethanol (By similarity).

Glycine receptors are ligand-gated chloride channels. Channel opening is triggered by extracellular glycine. Channel opening is also triggered by taurine and beta-alanine. Plays a role in synaptic plasticity (By similarity). Contributes to the generation of inhibitory postsynaptic currents, and is involved in the down-regulation of neuronal excitability. Plays a role in cellular responses to ethanol.

Glycine receptors are ligand-gated chloride channels. Channel opening is triggered by extracellular glycine. Channel characteristics depend on the subunit composition; heteropentameric channels display faster channel closure (By similarity). Plays an important role in the down-regulation of neuronal excitability (By similarity). Contributes to the generation of inhibitory postsynaptic currents (By similarity). Contributes to increased pain perception in response to increased prostaglandin E2 levels (By similarity). Plays a role in cellular responses to ethanol (By similarity).

Glycine receptors are ligand-gated chloride channels. GLRB does not form ligand-gated ion channels by itself, but is part of heteromeric ligand-gated chloride channels. Channel opening is triggered by extracellular glycine. Heteropentameric channels composed of GLRB and GLRA1 are activated by lower glycine levels than homopentameric GLRA1. Plays an important role in the down-regulation of neuronal excitability. Contributes to the generation of inhibitory postsynaptic currents.

Has a glutathione-disulfide oxidoreductase activity in the presence of NADPH and glutathione reductase. Reduces low molecular weight disulfides and proteins

Glutathione-dependent oxidoreductase that facilitates the maintenance of mitochondrial redox homeostasis upon induction of apoptosis by oxidative stress. Involved in response to hydrogen peroxide and regulation of apoptosis caused by oxidative stress. Acts as a very efficient catalyst of monothiol reactions because of its high affinity for protein glutathione-mixed disulfides. Can receive electrons not only from glutathione (GSH), but also from thioredoxin reductase supporting both monothiol and dithiol reactions. Efficiently catalyzes both glutathionylation and deglutathionylation of mitochondrial complex I, which in turn regulates the superoxide production by the complex. Overexpression decreases the susceptibility to apoptosis and prevents loss of cardiolipin and cytochrome c release.

Together with BOLA2, acts as a cytosolic iron-sulfur (Fe-S) cluster assembly factor that facilitates [2Fe-2S] cluster insertion into a subset of cytosolic proteins. Acts as a critical negative regulator of cardiac hypertrophy and a positive inotropic regulator (By similarity). Required for hemoglobin maturation. Does not possess any thyoredoxin activity since it lacks the conserved motif that is essential for catalytic activity.

Monothiol glutaredoxin involved in mitochondrial iron-sulfur (Fe/S) cluster transfer. Receives 2Fe/2S clusters from scaffold protein ISCU and mediates their transfer to apoproteins, to the 4Fe/FS cluster biosynthesis machinery, or export from mitochondrion. Required for normal regulation of hemoglobin synthesis by the iron- sulfur protein ACO1.

G-protein coupled receptor for glucagon that plays a central role in the regulation of blood glucose levels and glucose homeostasis. Regulates the rate of hepatic glucose production by promoting glycogen hydrolysis and gluconeogenesis. Plays an important role in mediating the responses to fasting. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors, such as adenylate cyclase. Promotes activation of adenylate cyclase. Besides, plays a role in signaling via a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system.

Catalyzes the first reaction in the primary pathway for the renal catabolism of glutamine. Plays a role in maintaining acid-base homeostasis. Regulates the levels of the neurotransmitter glutamate, the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain.

Plays an important role in the regulation of glutamine catabolism. Promotes mitochondrial respiration and increases ATP generation in cells by catalyzing the synthesis of glutamate and alpha- ketoglutarate. Increases cellular anti-oxidant function via NADH and glutathione production. May play a role in preventing tumor proliferation.

Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor. Has activity toward Muc5Ac and EA2 peptide substrates

Polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase that catalyzes the initiation of protein O-linked glycosylation and is involved in left/right asymmetry by mediating O-glycosylation of NOTCH1. O- glycosylation of NOTCH1 promotes activation of NOTCH1, modulating the balance between motile and immotile (sensory) cilia at the left-right organiser (LRO). Polypeptide N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferases catalyze the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor. Displays the same enzyme activity toward MUC1, MUC4, and EA2 than GALNT1. Not involved in glycosylation of erythropoietin (EPO).

Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor. Has activity toward non-glycosylated peptides such as Muc5AC, Muc1a and EA2, and no detectable activity with Muc2 and Muc7. Displays enzymatic activity toward the Gal-NAc-Muc5AC glycopeptide, but no detectable activity to mono-GalNAc-glycosylated Muc1a, Muc2, Muc7 and EA2. May play an important role in the initial step of mucin-type oligosaccharide biosynthesis in digestive organs

Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine (GalNAc) residue from UDP-GalNAc to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor. Generates GalNAc-O-Ser/Thr structure also known as Tn antigen, which itself is immunogenic but also serves as a precursor for the synthesis of different mucin-type O- glycan core structures. Contributes to the synthesis of O-linked glycans on mucins and proteoglycans of the central nervous system. May promote neurogenesis through glycosylation and stabilization of PDPN (By similarity).

Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor. Displays activity toward mucin-derived peptide substrates such as Muc2, Muc5AC, Muc7, and Muc13 (-58). May be involved in O-glycosylation in kidney

Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor. Although it displays a much weaker activity toward all substrates tested compared to GALNT2, it is able to transfer up to seven GalNAc residues to the Muc5AC peptide, suggesting that it can fill vicinal Thr/Ser residues in cooperation with other GALNT proteins. Prefers Muc1a as substrate.

Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor.

May catalyze the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine residue to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor.

Catalyzes the initial reaction in O-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis, the transfer of an N-acetyl-D-galactosamine (GalNAc) residue from UDP-GalNAc to a serine or threonine residue on the protein receptor.

Probable inactive glycosyltransferase required during spermatid development. May participate in protein loading into the acrosomes and accumulation of ubiquitin-proteasome systems around the head-tail coupling apparatus region

Accelerates the intermembrane transfer of various glycolipids. Catalyzes the transfer of various glycosphingolipids between membranes but does not catalyze the transfer of phospholipids. May be involved in the intracellular translocation of glucosylceramides.

D-glutamate cyclase that converts D-glutamate to 5-oxo-D- proline.

[Glucagon]: Plays a key role in glucose metabolism and homeostasis. Regulates blood glucose by increasing gluconeogenesis and decreasing glycolysis. A counterregulatory hormone of insulin, raises plasma glucose levels in response to insulin-induced hypoglycemia. Plays an important role in initiating and maintaining hyperglycemic conditions in diabetes.

Insulin-regulated facilitative glucose transporter, which plays a key role in removal of glucose from circulation. Response to insulin is regulated by its intracellular localization: in the absence of insulin, it is efficiently retained intracellularly within storage compartments in muscle and fat cells. Upon insulin stimulation, translocates from these compartments to the cell surface where it transports glucose from the extracellular milieu into the cell.

Mitochondrial acyltransferase which transfers an acyl group to the N-terminus of glycine and glutamine, although much less efficiently. Can conjugate numerous substrates to form a variety of N- acylglycines, with a preference for benzoyl-CoA over phenylacetyl-CoA as acyl donors. Thereby detoxify xenobiotics, such as benzoic acid or salicylic acid, and endogenous organic acids, such as isovaleric acid.

Self-glucosylates, via an inter-subunit mechanism, to form an oligosaccharide primer that serves as substrate for glycogen synthase.

Acyltransferase which transfers an acyl group to the N- terminus of glutamine. Can use phenylacetyl-CoA as an acyl donor.

Mitochondrial acyltransferase which transfers the acyl group to the N-terminus of glycine. Conjugates numerous substrates, such as arachidonoyl-CoA and saturated medium and long-chain acyl-CoAs ranging from chain-length C8:0-CoA to C18:0-CoA, to form a variety of N-acylglycines. Shows a preference for monounsaturated fatty acid oleoyl-CoA (C18:1-CoA) as an acyl donor. Does not exhibit any activity toward C22:6-CoA and chenodeoxycholoyl- CoA, nor toward serine or alanine.

Catalyzes the conjugation of long-chain fatty acyl-CoA thioester and glycine to produce long-chain N-(fatty acyl)glycine, an intermediate in the primary fatty acid amide biosynthetic pathway.

Putative acyltransferase which transfers an acyl group to the N-terminus of glutamine. Can use phenylacetyl-CoA as an acyl donor.

Catalyzes the cleavage of serine to glycine accompanied with the production of 5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate, an essential intermediate for purine biosynthesis (PubMed:24075985, PubMed:29364879, PubMed:33015733 PubMed:25619277, PubMed:33015733). Serine provides the major source of folate one-carbon in cells by catalyzing the transfer of one carbon from serine to tetrahydrofolate. Contributes to the de novo mitochondrial thymidylate biosynthesis pathway via its role in glycine and tetrahydrofolate metabolism: thymidylate biosynthesis is required to prevent uracil accumulation in mtDNA. Also required for mitochondrial translation by producing 5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate; 5,10- methylenetetrahydrofolate providing methyl donors to produce the taurinomethyluridine base at the wobble position of some mitochondrial tRNAs. Associates with mitochondrial DNA. In addition to its role in mitochondria, also plays a role in the deubiquitination of target proteins as component of the BRISC complex: required for IFNAR1 deubiquitination by the BRISC complex.

Cytokine-like nuclear factor with chromatin gene reader activity involved in chromatin modification and regulation of gene expression. Acts as a nucleosome- destabilizing factor that is recruited to genes during transcriptional activation. Recognizes and binds histone H3 without a preference for specific epigenetic markers and also binds DNA. Interacts with KDM1B and promotes its histone demethylase activity by facilitating the capture of H3 tails, they form a multifunctional enzyme complex that modifies transcribed chromatin and facilitates Pol II transcription through nucleosomes. Stimulates the acetylation of 'Lys-56' of nucleosomal histone H3 (H3K56ac) by EP300. With GATA4, co-binds a defined set of heart development genes and coregulates their expression during cardiomyocyte differentiation. Regulates p38 MAP kinase activity by mediating stress activation of MAPK14/p38alpha and specifically regulating MAPK14 signaling. Indirectly promotes phosphorylation of MAPK14 and activation of ATF2. The phosphorylation of MAPK14 requires upstream activity of MAP2K4 and MAP2K6.

Possible function in spermatogenesis. Enhances the degradation of MDM2 and increases the amount of p53 probably by modulating the nucleocytoplasmic transport (By similarity).

Possible function in spermatogenesis. Probable substrate- specific adapter of an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins.

Catalyzes the conversion of GDP-D-mannose to GDP-4-dehydro-6- deoxy-D-mannose.

Trans-acting factor that binds to glucocorticoid modulatory elements (GME) present in the TAT (tyrosine aminotransferase) promoter and increases sensitivity to low concentrations of glucocorticoids. Binds also to the transferrin receptor promoter. Essential auxiliary factor for the replication of parvoviruses

This protein causes differentiation of brain cells, stimulation of neural regeneration, and inhibition of proliferation of tumor cells

May play a role in the apoptotic pathway or cell-cycle regulation induced by p53/TP53 after DNA damage

May serve as a regulatory subunit and allow allosteric feedback inhibition of GMPPB by GDP-mannose.

Catalyzes the formation of GDP-mannose, an essential precursor of glycan moieties of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

Catalyzes the irreversible NADPH-dependent deamination of GMP to IMP. It functions in the conversion of nucleobase, nucleoside and nucleotide derivatives of G to A nucleotides, and in maintaining the intracellular balance of A and G nucleotides.

Catalyzes the irreversible NADPH-dependent deamination of GMP to IMP. It functions in the conversion of nucleobase, nucleoside and nucleotide derivatives of G to A nucleotides, and in maintaining the intracellular balance of A and G nucleotides. Plays a role in modulating cellular differentiation.

Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) are involved as modulators or transducers in various transmembrane signaling systems. Acts as an activator of phospholipase C. Transduces FFAR4 signaling in response to long-chain fatty acids (LCFAs). Together with GNAQ, required for heart development (By similarity).

Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) are involved as modulators or transducers in various transmembrane signaling systems. Activates effector molecule RhoA by binding and activating RhoGEFs (ARHGEF12/LARG). GNA12-dependent Rho signaling subsequently regulates transcription factor AP-1 (activating protein-1) (By similarity). GNA12-dependent Rho signaling also regulates protein phosphatese 2A activation causing dephosphorylation of its target proteins. Promotes tumor cell invasion and metastasis by activating RhoA/ROCK signaling pathway and up-regulating pro-inflammatory cytokine production. Inhibits CDH1-mediated cell adhesion in process independent from Rho activation. Together with NAPA promotes CDH5 localization to plasma membrane. May play a role in the control of cell migration through the TOR signaling cascade.

Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) are involved as modulators or transducers in various transmembrane signaling systems. Activates effector molecule RhoA by binding and activating RhoGEFs (ARHGEF1/p115RhoGEF, ARHGEF11/PDZ-RhoGEF and ARHGEF12/LARG). GNA13-dependent Rho signaling subsequently regulates transcription factor AP-1 (activating protein-1) (By similarity). Promotes tumor cell invasion and metastasis by activating RhoA/ROCK signaling pathway. Inhibits CDH1-mediated cell adhesion in process independent from Rho activation.

Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) are involved as modulators or transducers in various transmembrane signaling systems

Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) function as transducers downstream of G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) in numerous signaling cascades. The alpha chain contains the guanine nucleotide binding site and alternates between an active, GTP-bound state and an inactive, GDP-bound state. Signaling by an activated GPCR promotes GDP release and GTP binding. The alpha subunit has a low GTPase activity that converts bound GTP to GDP, thereby terminating the signal. Both GDP release and GTP hydrolysis are modulated by numerous regulatory proteins. Signaling is mediated via effector proteins, such as adenylate cyclase. Inhibits adenylate cyclase activity, leading to decreased intracellular cAMP levels (By similarity). The inactive GDP-bound form prevents the association of RGS14 with centrosomes and is required for the translocation of RGS14 from the cytoplasm to the plasma membrane. Required for normal cytokinesis during mitosis. Required for cortical dynein-dynactin complex recruitment during metaphase.

Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) are involved as modulators or transducers in various transmembrane signaling systems. The G(i) proteins are involved in hormonal regulation of adenylate cyclase: they inhibit the cyclase in response to beta- adrenergic stimuli. May play a role in cell division.

Heterotrimeric guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) function as transducers downstream of G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) in numerous signaling cascades. The alpha chain contains the guanine nucleotide binding site and alternates between an active, GTP-bound state and an inactive, GDP-bound state. Signaling by an activated GPCR promotes GDP release and GTP binding. The alpha subunit has a low GTPase activity that converts bound GTP to GDP, thereby terminating the signal. Both GDP release and GTP hydrolysis are modulated by numerous regulatory proteins. Signaling is mediated via effector proteins, such as adenylate cyclase. Inhibits adenylate cyclase activity, leading to decreased intracellular cAMP levels. Stimulates the activity of receptor-regulated K(+) channels. The active GTP-bound form prevents the association of RGS14 with centrosomes and is required for the translocation of RGS14 from the cytoplasm to the plasma membrane. May play a role in cell division.

Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) are involved as modulators or transducers in various transmembrane signaling systems. G(olf) alpha mediates signal transduction within the olfactory neuroepithelium and the basal ganglia. May be involved in some aspect of visual transduction, and in mediating the effect of one or more hormones/neurotransmitters

Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) are involved as modulators or transducers in various transmembrane signaling systems. The G(o) protein function is not clear. Stimulated by RGS14

Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) are involved as modulators or transducers in various transmembrane signaling systems. Required for platelet activation. Regulates B-cell selection and survival and is required to prevent B-cell-dependent autoimmunity. Regulates chemotaxis of BM-derived neutrophils and dendritic cells (in vitro) (By similarity). Transduces FFAR4 signaling in response to long- chain fatty acids (LCFAs). Together with GNA11, required for heart development (By similarity).

Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) function as transducers in numerous signaling pathways controlled by G protein- coupled receptors (GPCRs). Signaling involves the activation of adenylyl cyclases, resulting in increased levels of the signaling molecule cAMP. GNAS functions downstream of several GPCRs, including beta-adrenergic receptors. Stimulates the Ras signaling pathway via RAPGEF2.

Functions as signal transducer for the rod photoreceptor RHO. Required for normal RHO-mediated light perception by the retina. Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) function as transducers downstream of G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs), such as the photoreceptor RHO. The alpha chain contains the guanine nucleotide binding site and alternates between an active, GTP- bound state and an inactive, GDP-bound state. Activated RHO promotes GDP release and GTP binding. Signaling is mediated via downstream effector proteins, such as cGMP-phosphodiesterase (By similarity).

Guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) are involved as modulators or transducers in various transmembrane signaling systems. Transducin is an amplifier and one of the transducers of a visual impulse that performs the coupling between rhodopsin and cGMP- phosphodiesterase

Guanine nucleotide-binding protein (G protein) alpha subunit playing a prominent role in bitter and sweet taste transduction as well as in umami (monosodium glutamate, monopotassium glutamate, and inosine monophosphate) taste transduction. Transduction by this alpha subunit involves coupling of specific cell-surface receptors with a cGMP- phosphodiesterase; Activation of phosphodiesterase lowers intracellular levels of cAMP and cGMP which may open a cyclic nucleotide-suppressible cation channel leading to influx of calcium, ultimately leading to release of neurotransmitter. Indeed, denatonium and strychnine induce transient reduction in cAMP and cGMP in taste tissue, whereas this decrease is inhibited by GNAT3 antibody. Gustducin heterotrimer transduces response to bitter and sweet compounds via regulation of phosphodiesterase for alpha subunit, as well as via activation of phospholipase C for beta and gamma subunits, with ultimate increase inositol trisphosphate and increase of intracellular Calcium. GNAT3 can functionally couple to taste receptors to transmit intracellular signal: receptor heterodimer TAS1R2/TAS1R3 senses sweetness and TAS1R1/TAS1R3 transduces umami taste, whereas the T2R family GPCRs act as bitter sensors. Functions also as lumenal sugar sensors in the gut to control the expression of the Na+-glucose transporter SGLT1 in response to dietaty sugar, as well as the secretion of Glucagon-like peptide-1, GLP-1 and glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide, GIP. Thus, may modulate the gut capacity to absorb sugars, with implications in malabsorption syndromes and diet-related disorders including diabetes and obesity.

Enhances GTPase-activating protein (GAP) activity of regulator of G protein signaling (RGS) proteins, hence involved in the termination of the signaling initiated by the G protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) by accelerating the GTP hydrolysis on the G-alpha subunits, thereby promoting their inactivation (Probable). Increases RGS9 GTPase-activating protein (GAP) activity, hence contributes to the deactivation of G protein signaling initiated by D(2) dopamine receptors. May play an important role in neuronal signaling, including in the parasympathetic, but not sympathetic, control of heart rate (By similarity).

Functions as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) activating either RalA or RalB GTPases and plays an important role in intracellular transport. Interacts and acts as an effector molecule for R-Ras, H-Ras, K-Ras, and Rap (By similarity). During bacterial clearance, recognizes 'Lys-33'-linked polyubiquitinated TRAF3 and subsequently mediates assembly of the exocyst complex.

Possible regulatory or functional link with the histocompatibility cluster

Stabilizes TERF1 telomeric association by preventing TERF1 recruitment by PML. Stabilizes TERF1 protein by preventing its ubiquitination and hence proteasomal degradation. Does so by interfering with TERF1-binding to FBXO4 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Required for cell proliferation. By stabilizing TRF1 protein during mitosis, promotes metaphase-to-anaphase transition. Stabilizes MDM2 protein by preventing its ubiquitination, and hence proteasomal degradation. By acting on MDM2, may affect TP53 activity. Required for normal processing of ribosomal pre-rRNA. Binds GTP.

May be required to maintain the proliferative capacity of stem cells. Stabilizes MDM2 by preventing its ubiquitination, and hence proteasomal degradation (By similarity).

Antimicrobial protein that kills intracellular pathogens. Active against a broad range of microbes, including Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, fungi, and parasites. Kills Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Catalyzes the methylation of glycine by using S- adenosylmethionine (AdoMet) to form N-methylglycine (sarcosine) with the concomitant production of S-adenosylhomocysteine (AdoHcy), a reaction regulated by the binding of 5-methyltetrahydrofolate. Plays an important role in the regulation of methyl group metabolism by regulating the ratio between S-adenosyl-L-methionine and S-adenosyl-L- homocysteine.

Dihydroxyacetonephosphate acyltransferase involved in plasmalogen biosynthesis.

Catalyzes the reversible conversion of alpha-D-glucosamine 6- phosphate (GlcN-6P) into beta-D-fructose 6-phosphate (Fru-6P) and ammonium ion, a regulatory reaction step in de novo uridine diphosphate-N-acetyl-alpha-D-glucosamine (UDP-GlcNAc) biosynthesis via hexosamine pathway. Deamination is coupled to aldo-keto isomerization mediating the metabolic flux from UDP-GlcNAc toward Fru-6P. At high ammonium level can drive amination and isomerization of Fru-6P toward hexosamines and UDP-GlcNAc synthesis. Has a role in fine tuning the metabolic fluctuations of cytosolic UDP-GlcNAc and their effects on hyaluronan synthesis that occur during tissue remodeling. Seems to trigger calcium oscillations in mammalian eggs. These oscillations serve as the essential trigger for egg activation and early development of the embryo (By similarity).

Catalyzes the reversible conversion of alpha-D-glucosamine 6- phosphate (GlcN-6P) into beta-D-fructose 6-phosphate (Fru-6P) and ammonium ion, a regulatory reaction step in de novo uridine diphosphate-N-acetyl-alpha-D-glucosamine (UDP-GlcNAc) biosynthesis via hexosamine pathway. Deamination is coupled to aldo-keto isomerization mediating the metabolic flux from UDP-GlcNAc toward Fru-6P. At high ammonium level can drive amination and isomerization of Fru-6P toward hexosamines and UDP-GlcNAc synthesis. Has a role in fine tuning the metabolic fluctuations of cytosolic UDP-GlcNAc and their effects on hyaluronan synthesis that occur during tissue remodeling.

Catalyzes the formation of mannose 6-phosphate (M6P) markers on high mannose type oligosaccharides in the Golgi apparatus. M6P residues are required to bind to the M6P receptors (MPR), which mediate the vesicular transport of lysosomal enzymes to the endosomal/prelysosomal compartment.

Non-catalytic subunit of the N-acetylglucosamine-1- phosphotransferase complex, an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of mannose 6-phosphate (M6P) markers on high mannose type oligosaccharides in the Golgi apparatus. Binds and presents the high mannose glycans of the acceptor to the catalytic alpha and beta subunits (GNPTAB). Enhances the rate of N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphate transfer to the oligosaccharides of acid hydrolase acceptors.

Receptor for gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) that mediates the action of GnRH to stimulate the secretion of the gonadotropic hormones luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). This receptor mediates its action by association with G- proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. Isoform 2 may act as an inhibitor of GnRH-R signaling

Branching enzyme that converts linear into branched poly-N- acetyllactosaminoglycans. Introduces the blood group I antigen during embryonic development. It is closely associated with the development and maturation of erythroid cells.

Required for normal Golgi structure and for protein transport from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) through the Golgi apparatus to the cell surface.

Play a role in cell adhesion by regulating the plasma membrane localization of the palmitoyltransferase ZDHHC5. May be involved in protein transport from Golgi to cell surface.

Involved in vesicular trafficking at the Golgi apparatus level. Involved in endosome-to-Golgi trafficking.

Peripheral membrane component of the cis-Golgi stack that acts as a membrane skeleton that maintains the structure of the Golgi apparatus, and as a vesicle thether that facilitates vesicle fusion to the Golgi membrane (Probable). Required for normal protein transport from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus and the cell membrane (By similarity). Together with p115/USO1 and STX5, involved in vesicle tethering and fusion at the cis-Golgi membrane to maintain the stacked and inter-connected structure of the Golgi apparatus. Plays a central role in mitotic Golgi disassembly: phosphorylation at Ser-37 by CDK1 at the onset of mitosis inhibits the interaction with p115/USO1, preventing tethering of COPI vesicles and thereby inhibiting transport through the Golgi apparatus during mitosis (By similarity). Also plays a key role in spindle pole assembly and centrosome organization. Promotes the mitotic spindle pole assembly by activating the spindle assembly factor TPX2 to nucleate microtubules around the Golgi and capture them to couple mitotic membranes to the spindle: upon phosphorylation at the onset of mitosis, GOLGA2 interacts with importin-alpha via the nuclear localization signal region, leading to recruit importin-alpha to the Golgi membranes and liberate the spindle assembly factor TPX2 from importin-alpha. TPX2 then activates AURKA kinase and stimulates local microtubule nucleation. Upon filament assembly, nascent microtubules are further captured by GOLGA2, thus linking Golgi membranes to the spindle. Regulates the meiotic spindle pole assembly, probably via the same mechanism (By similarity). Also regulates the centrosome organization. Also required for the Golgi ribbon formation and glycosylation of membrane and secretory proteins.

Golgi auto-antigen; probably involved in maintaining Golgi structure

Involved in vesicular trafficking at the Golgi apparatus level. May play a role in delivery of transport vesicles containing GPI-linked proteins from the trans-Golgi network through its interaction with MACF1. Involved in endosome-to-Golgi trafficking.

Involved in maintaining Golgi structure. Stimulates the formation of Golgi stacks and ribbons. Involved in intra-Golgi retrograde transport.

May be involved in protein transport from Golgi to cell surface. The ZDHHC9-GOLGA7 complex is a palmitoyltransferase specific for HRAS and NRAS.

May participate in forming intercisternal cross-bridges of the Golgi complex

Plays a role in endosome to Golgi protein trafficking; mediates protein transport along the late endosome-bypass pathway from the early endosome to the Golgi.

May have a role during the programmed cell death of hematopoietic cells (By similarity). Acts as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase.

Phosphatidylinositol-4-phosphate-binding protein that links Golgi membranes to the cytoskeleton and may participate in the tensile force required for vesicle budding from the Golgi. Thereby, may play a role in Golgi membrane trafficking and could indirectly give its flattened shape to the Golgi apparatus. May also bind to the coatomer to regulate Golgi membrane trafficking. May play a role in anterograde transport from the Golgi to the plasma membrane and regulate secretion. Has also been involved in the control of the localization of Golgi enzymes through interaction with their cytoplasmic part. May play an indirect role in cell migration. Has also been involved in the modulation of mTOR signaling. May also be involved in the regulation of mitochondrial lipids biosynthesis.

Stimulates the secretion of gonadotropins; it stimulates the secretion of both luteinizing and follicle-stimulating hormones

Has transcriptional repressor activity, probably as part of a complex with YY1, SIN3A and HDAC1. Required for B cell lymphopoiesis.

Component of the EKC/KEOPS complex that is required for the formation of a threonylcarbamoyl group on adenosine at position 37 (t(6)A37) in tRNAs that read codons beginning with adenine. The complex is probably involved in the transfer of the threonylcarbamoyl moiety of threonylcarbamoyl-AMP (TC-AMP) to the N6 group of A37. GON7 plays a supporting role to the catalytic subunit OSGEP in the complex.

Plays a role in intracellular protein trafficking and degradation. May regulate CFTR chloride currents and acid-induced ASIC3 currents by modulating cell surface expression of both channels (By similarity). May also regulate the intracellular trafficking of the ADR1B receptor. May play a role in autophagy (By similarity). Together with MARCHF2 mediates the ubiquitination and lysosomal degradation of CFTR. Overexpression results in CFTR intracellular retention and lysosomaldegradation in the lysosomes.

Key structural protein of the Golgi apparatus. The membrane cisternae of the Golgi apparatus adhere to each other to form stacks, which are aligned side by side to form the Golgi ribbon. Acting in concert with GORASP2/GRASP55, is required for the formation and maintenance of the Golgi ribbon, and may be dispensable for the formation of stacks. However, other studies suggest that GORASP1 plays an important role in assembly and membrane stacking of the cisternae, and in the reassembly of Golgi stacks after breakdown during mitosis (By similarity). Caspase-mediated cleavage of GORASP1 is required for fragmentation of the Golgi during apoptosis (By similarity). Also mediates, via its interaction with GOLGA2/GM130, the docking of transport vesicles with the Golgi membranes. Mediates ER stress-induced unconventional (ER/Golgi-independent) trafficking of core-glycosylated CFTR to cell membrane.

Key structural protein of the Golgi apparatus. The membrane cisternae of the Golgi apparatus adhere to each other to form stacks, which are aligned side by side to form the Golgi ribbon. Acting in concert with GORASP1/GRASP65, is required for the formation and maintenance of the Golgi ribbon, and may be dispensable for the formation of stacks. However, other studies suggest that GORASP2 plays a role in the assembly and membrane stacking of the Golgi cisternae, and in the process by which Golgi stacks reform after breakdown during mitosis and meiosis. May regulate the intracellular transport and presentation of a defined set of transmembrane proteins, such as transmembrane TGFA. Required for normal acrosome formation during spermiogenesis and normal male fertility, probably by promoting colocalization of JAM2 and JAM3 at contact sites between germ cells and Sertoli cells (By similarity). Mediates ER stress-induced unconventional (ER/Golgi-independent) trafficking of core-glycosylated CFTR to cell membrane.

Involved in transport of proteins from the cis/medial-Golgi to the trans-Golgi network.

May be involved in fusion of ER-derived transport vesicles with the Golgi complex.

May be involved in fusion of ER-derived transport vesicles with the Golgi complex

Has been proposed to act as a receptor for neuronostatin, a peptide derived from the somatostatin/SST precursor. Involved in blood sugar regulation through the induction of glucagon in response to low glucose (By similarity).

May play a role in intracellular immune modulation by activating NF-kappaB response and attenuating Toll-like-receptor response.

Receptor for the endogenous fatty-acid ethanolamide oleoylethanolamide (OEA) and lysophosphatidylcholine (LPC). Functions as a glucose-dependent insulinotropic receptor. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylate cyclase. Seems to act through a G(s) mediated pathway.

May be a receptor for oxidized free fatty acids derived from linoleic and arachidonic acids such as 9-hydroxyoctadecadienoic acid (9-HODE). Activates a G alpha protein, most likely G alpha(q). May be involved in apoptosis. Functions at the G2/M checkpoint to delay mitosis. May function as a sensor that monitors the oxidative states and mediates appropriate cellular responses such as secretion of paracrine signals and attenuation of proliferation. May mediate ths accumulation of intracellular inositol phosphates at acidic pH through proton-sensing activity.

Orphan receptor. Has spontaneous activity for beta-arrestin recruitment. Shows a reciprocal regulatory interaction with the melatonin receptor MTNR1B most likely through receptor heteromerization.

Orphan receptor. Seems to act through a G(q/11)-mediated pathway

Receptor for tyrosine, L-DOPA and dopamine. After binding to L-DOPA, stimulates Ca(2+) influx into the cytoplasm, increases secretion of the neurotrophic factor SERPINF1 and relocalizes beta arrestin at the plasma membrane; this ligand-dependent signaling occurs through a G(q)-mediated pathway in melanocytic cells. Its activity is mediated by G proteins which activate the phosphoinositide signaling pathway. Also plays a role as an intracellular G protein-coupled receptor involved in melanosome biogenesis, organization and transport.

Orphan receptor that promotes neuronal differentiation of radial glial progenitors (RGPs). The activity of this receptor is mediated by a G(q)-protein that activates a phosphatidylinositol- calcium second messenger.

Highly cationic protein that has multiple functions. Acts as a chemotactic factor that mediates lymphocytes recruitment to epithelia through binding and activation of the G-protein coupled receptor GPR15. May be a tumor suppressor; together with SUSD2 has a growth inhibitory effect on colon cancer cells which includes G1 cell cycle arrest. May regulate keratinocyte proliferation. In addition, through activation of Mas-related G protein-coupled receptors (MRGPRs) contributes to pruritogenesis by activating itch-selective sensory neurons and mast cells degranulation.

Key negative regulator of Shh signaling, which promotes the processing of GLI3 into GLI3R during neural tube development. Recruited by TULP3 and the IFT-A complex to primary cilia and acts as a regulator of the PKA-dependent basal repression machinery in Shh signaling by increasing cAMP levels, leading to promote the PKA-dependent processing of GLI3 into GLI3R and repress the Shh signaling. In presence of SHH, it is removed from primary cilia and is internalized into recycling endosomes, preventing its activity and allowing activation of the Shh signaling. Its ligand is unknown (By similarity).

G-protein coupled receptor for Big LEN, a 16-amino acid neuropeptide produced from the precursor protein, proSAAS (encoded by PCSK1N). Acts through a G(i)-alpha-mediated pathway in response to Big LEN. Big LEN-GPR171 system plays an important role in regulating feeding and metabolism. Also plays a role in modulating fear and anxiety-like behaviors in the basolateral amygdala. Big LEN-GPR171 modulates the mu-type opioid receptor signaling and antinociception (By similarity). Acts as a negative regulator T cell function.

Is a receptor for the SMIM20 derived peptides Phoenixin-14 and Phoenixin-20 (By similarity). It mediates the Phoenixin-14 and Phoenixin-20 augmentation of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GNRH) signaling in the hypothalamus and pituitary gland (By similarity). In the ovary, it mediates the effects of Phoenixin-14 and Phoenixin-20 induced granulosa cell proliferation during follicular growth.

Orphan receptor involved in normal circadian rhythm behavior. Acts through the G-protein subclass G(z)-alpha and has an agonist- independent basal activity to repress cAMP production.

G-protein coupled receptor expressed in lymphocytes that acts as a chemotactic receptor for B-cells, T-cells, splenic dendritic cells, monocytes/macrophages and astrocytes (By similarity). Receptor for oxysterol 7-alpha,25-dihydroxycholesterol (7-alpha,25-OHC) and other related oxysterols. Mediates cell positioning and movement of a number of cells by binding the 7-alpha,25-OHC ligand that forms a chemotactic gradient (By similarity). Binding of 7-alpha,25-OHC mediates the correct localization of B-cells during humoral immune responses (By similarity). Guides B-cell movement along the B-cell zone-T-cell zone boundary and later to interfollicular and outer follicular regions (By similarity). Its specific expression during B-cell maturation helps position B-cells appropriately for mounting T-dependent antibody responses (By similarity). Collaborates with CXCR5 to mediate B-cell migration; probably by forming a heterodimer with CXCR5 that affects the interaction between of CXCL13 and CXCR5. Also acts as a chemotactic receptor for some T-cells upon binding to 7- alpha,25-OHC ligand (By similarity). Promotes follicular helper T (Tfh) cells differentiation by positioning activated T-cells at the follicle- T-zone interface, promoting contact of newly activated CD4 T-cells with activated dendritic cells and exposing them to Tfh-cell-promoting inducible costimulator (ICOS) ligand (By similarity). Expression in splenic dendritic cells is required for their homeostasis, localization and ability to induce B- and T-cell responses: GPR183 acts as a chemotactic receptor in dendritic cells that mediates the accumulation of CD4(+) dendritic cells in bridging channels (By similarity). Regulates migration of astrocytes and is involved in communication between astrocytes and macrophages. Promotes osteoclast precursor migration to bone surfaces (By similarity). Signals constitutively through G(i)-alpha, but not G(s)-alpha or G(q)- alpha. Signals constitutively also via MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2) (By similarity).

GP-Ib, a surface membrane protein of platelets, participates in the formation of platelet plugs by binding to the A1 domain of vWF, which is already bound to the subendothelium

Gp-Ib, a surface membrane protein of platelets, participates in the formation of platelet plugs by binding to von Willebrand factor, which is already bound to the subendothelium

Functions as an intestinal M-cell transcytotic receptor specific for type-I-piliated bacteria that participates in the mucosal immune response toward these bacteria. At the apical membrane of M- cells it binds fimH, a protein of the bacteria type I pilus tip. Internalizes bound bacteria, like E.coli and S.typhimurium, from the lumen of the intestine and delivers them, through M-cells, to the underlying organized lymphoid follicles where they are captured by antigen-presenting dendritic cells to elicit a mucosal immune response.

Essential for GPI-anchoring of precursor proteins but not for GPI synthesis. Acts before or during formation of the carbonyl intermediate.

Esterifies acyl-group from acyl-ACP to the sn-1 position of glycerol-3-phosphate, an essential step in glycerolipids biosynthesis such as triglycerides, phosphatidic acids and lysophosphatidic acids.

Transfers an acyl-group from acyl-ACP to the sn-1 position of glycerol-3-phosphate producing a lysophosphatidic acid (LPA), an essential step for the triacylglycerol (TAG) and glycerophospholipids. In vitro also transfers an acyl-group from acyl-ACP to the LPA producing a phosphatidic acid (PA). Prefers arachidonoyl-CoA as the acyl donor. Required for primary processing step during piRNA biosynthesis. Molecular mechanisms by which it promotes piRNA biosynthesis are unclear and do not involve its acyltransferase activity.

Converts glycerol-3-phosphate to 1-acyl-sn-glycerol-3- phosphate (lysophosphatidic acid or LPA) by incorporating an acyl moiety at the sn-1 position of the glycerol backbone. Also converts LPA into 1,2-diacyl-sn-glycerol-3-phosphate (phosphatidic acid or PA) by incorporating an acyl moiety at the sn-2 position of the glycerol backbone. Protects cells against lipotoxicity.

Converts glycerol-3-phosphate to 1-acyl-sn-glycerol-3- phosphate (lysophosphatidic acid or LPA) by incorporating an acyl moiety at the sn-1 position of the glycerol backbone. Active against both saturated and unsaturated long-chain fatty acyl- CoAs. Protects cells against lipotoxicity.

Receptor for bile acid. Bile acid-binding induces its internalization, activation of extracellular signal-regulated kinase and intracellular cAMP production. May be involved in the suppression of macrophage functions by bile acids.

Functions as a GC-rich promoter-specific transactivating transcription factor.

Cell surface proteoglycan that bears heparan sulfate. Binds, via the heparan sulfate side chains, alpha-4 (V) collagen and participates in Schwann cell myelination (By similarity). May act as a catalyst in increasing the rate of conversion of prion protein PRPN(C) to PRNP(Sc) via associating (via the heparan sulfate side chains) with both forms of PRPN, targeting them to lipid rafts and facilitating their interaction. Required for proper skeletal muscle differentiation by sequestering FGF2 in lipid rafts preventing its binding to receptors (FGFRs) and inhibiting the FGF-mediated signaling.

Cell surface proteoglycan that bears heparan sulfate. May fulfill a function related to the motile behaviors of developing neurons (By similarity).

Cell surface proteoglycan that bears heparan sulfate. Negatively regulates the hedgehog signaling pathway when attached via the GPI-anchor to the cell surface by competing with the hedgehog receptor PTC1 for binding to hedgehog proteins (By similarity). Binding to the hedgehog protein SHH triggers internalization of the complex by endocytosis and its subsequent lysosomal degradation (By similarity). Positively regulates the canonical Wnt signaling pathway by binding to the Wnt receptor Frizzled and stimulating the binding of the Frizzled receptor to Wnt ligands. Positively regulates the non- canonical Wnt signaling pathway (By similarity). Binds to CD81 which decreases the availability of free CD81 for binding to the transcriptional repressor HHEX, resulting in nuclear translocation of HHEX and transcriptional repression (By similarity). Inhibits the dipeptidyl peptidase activity of DPP4. Plays a role in limb patterning and skeletal development by controlling the cellular response to BMP4 (By similarity). Modulates the effects of growth factors BMP2, BMP7 and FGF7 on renal branching morphogenesis (By similarity). Required for coronary vascular development (By similarity). Plays a role in regulating cell movements during gastrulation (By similarity).

Cell surface proteoglycan that bears heparan sulfate. May be involved in the development of kidney tubules and of the central nervous system (By similarity).

Unknown. This retinoic acid-inducible G-protein coupled receptor provide evidence for a possible interaction between retinoid and G-protein signaling pathways

This retinoic acid-inducible G-protein coupled receptor provide evidence for a possible interaction between retinoid and G- protein signaling pathways.

Receptor activated by amino acids with a preference for basic amino acids such as L-Lys, L-Arg and L-ornithine but also by small and polar amino acids. The L-alpha amino acids respond is augmented by divalent cations Ca(2+) and Mg(2+). Activated by extracellular calcium and osteocalcin. Seems to act through a G(q)/G(11) and G(i)-coupled pathway. Mediates the non-genomic effects of androgens in multiple tissue. May coordinate nutritional and hormonal anabolic signals through the sensing of extracellular amino acids, osteocalcin, divalent ions and its responsiveness to anabolic steroids.

Cell surface proteoglycan that bears heparan sulfate. Putative cell surface coreceptor for growth factors, extracellular matrix proteins, proteases and anti-proteases (By similarity). Enhances migration and invasion of cancer cells through WNT5A signaling.

May be involved in the negative regulation of skeletal muscle differentiation, independently of its glycerophosphocholine phosphodiesterase activity.

Plays a role in regulating cardiac sodium current; decreased enzymatic activity with resulting increased levels of glycerol 3- phosphate activating the DPD1L-dependent SCN5A phosphorylation pathway, may ultimately lead to decreased sodium current; cardiac sodium current may also be reduced due to alterations of NAD(H) balance induced by DPD1L.

Calcium-responsive mitochondrial glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase which seems to be a key component of the pancreatic beta- cell glucose-sensing device.

G-protein coupled estrogen receptor that binds to 17-beta- estradiol (E2) with high affinity, leading to rapid and transient activation of numerous intracellular signaling pathways. Stimulates cAMP production, calcium mobilization and tyrosine kinase Src inducing the release of heparin-bound epidermal growth factor (HB-EGF) and subsequent transactivation of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), activating downstream signaling pathways such as PI3K/Akt and ERK/MAPK. Mediates pleiotropic functions among others in the cardiovascular, endocrine, reproductive, immune and central nervous systems. Has a role in cardioprotection by reducing cardiac hypertrophy and perivascular fibrosis in a RAMP3-dependent manner. Regulates arterial blood pressure by stimulating vasodilation and reducing vascular smooth muscle and microvascular endothelial cell proliferation. Plays a role in blood glucose homeostasis contributing to the insulin secretion response by pancreatic beta cells. Triggers mitochondrial apoptosis during pachytene spermatocyte differentiation. Stimulates uterine epithelial cell proliferation. Enhances uterine contractility in response to oxytocin. Contributes to thymic atrophy by inducing apoptosis. Attenuates TNF-mediated endothelial expression of leukocyte adhesion molecules. Promotes neuritogenesis in developing hippocampal neurons. Plays a role in acute neuroprotection against NMDA-induced excitotoxic neuronal death. Increases firing activity and intracellular calcium oscillations in luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) neurons. Inhibits early osteoblast proliferation at growth plate during skeletal development. Inhibits mature adipocyte differentiation and lipid accumulation. Involved in the recruitment of beta-arrestin 2 ARRB2 at the plasma membrane in epithelial cells. Functions also as a receptor for aldosterone mediating rapid regulation of vascular contractibility through the PI3K/ERK signaling pathway. Involved in cancer progression regulation. Stimulates cancer-associated fibroblast (CAF) proliferation by a rapid genomic response through the EGFR/ERK transduction pathway. Associated with EGFR, may act as a transcription factor activating growth regulatory genes (c-fos, cyclin D1). Promotes integrin alpha-5/beta-1 and fibronectin (FN) matrix assembly in breast cancer cells.

Functions as a heterodimeric glycoprotein hormone with GPHB5 able to bind and activate the thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor (TSHR), leading to increased cAMP production. Plays a central role in controlling thyroid cell metabolism.

Functions as a heterodimeric glycoprotein hormone with GPHA2 able to bind and activate the thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor (TSHR), leading to increased cAMP production. Plays a central role in controlling thyroid cell metabolism.

Voltage dependent anion channel required for acidification and functions of the Golgi apparatus that may function in counter-ion conductance. Plays a role in lymphocyte development, probably by acting as a RABL3 effector in hematopoietic cells (By similarity).

Mediates GPI anchoring in the endoplasmic reticulum, by replacing a protein's C-terminal GPI attachment signal peptide with a pre-assembled GPI. During this transamidation reaction, the GPI transamidase forms a carbonyl intermediate with the substrate protein

The GPIb-V-IX complex functions as the vWF receptor and mediates vWF-dependent platelet adhesion to blood vessels. The adhesion of platelets to injured vascular surfaces in the arterial circulation is a critical initiating event in hemostasis. GP-IX may provide for membrane insertion and orientation of GP-Ib

Involved in neuronal differentiation, including differentiation and migration of neuronal stem cells. Plays a role in neuronal plasticity and is involved in neurite and filopodia outgrowth, filopodia motility and probably synapse formation. GPM6A-induced filopodia formation involves mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) and Src signaling pathways. May be involved in neuronal NGF-dependent Ca(2+) influx. May be involved in regulation of endocytosis and intracellular trafficking of G-protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs); enhances internalization and recycling of mu-type opioid receptor.

May be involved in neural development. Involved in regulation of osteoblast function and bone formation. Involved in matrix vesicle release by osteoblasts; this function seems to involve maintenance of the actin cytoskeleton. May be involved in cellular trafficking of SERT and thereby in regulation of serotonin uptake.

Small GTPase required for proper nuclear import of RNA polymerase II (RNAPII). May act at an RNAP assembly step prior to nuclear import. Forms an interface between the RNA polymerase II enzyme and chaperone/scaffolding proteins, suggesting that it is required to connect RNA polymerase II to regulators of protein complex formation. May be involved in nuclear localization of XPA.

Small GTPase required for proper localization of RNA polymerase II and III (RNAPII and RNAPIII). May act at an RNAP assembly step prior to nuclear import.

Small GTPase required for proper localization of RNA polymerase II (RNAPII). May act at an RNAP assembly step prior to nuclear import.

Promotes neurite outgrowth and blocks myelin inhibition in neurons (By similarity). Receptor with constitutive G(s) signaling activity that stimulates cyclic AMP production.

Probable chemokine receptor. Alternative coreceptor with CD4 for HIV-1 infection

Dual specificity receptor for uracil nucleotides and cysteinyl leukotrienes (CysLTs). Signals through G(i) and inhibition of adenylyl cyclase. May mediate brain damage by nucleotides and CysLTs following ischemia.

Receptor for endocannabinoid N-arachidonyl glycine (NAGly). However, conflicting results about the role of NAGly as an agonist are reported. Can also be activated by plant-derived and synthetic cannabinoid agonists. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which inhibit adenylyl cyclase. May contribute to regulation of the immune system. Is required for normal homeostasis of CD8+ subsets of intraepithelial lymphocytes (IELs) (CD8alphaalpha and CD8alphabeta IELs)in small intstine by supporting preferential migration of CD8alphaalpha T-cells to intraepithelial compartment over lamina propria compartment, and by mediating their reconstitution into small intestine after bone marrow transplant (By similarity). Plays a role in hypotensive responses, mediating reduction in intraocular and blood pressure (By similarity). Mediates NAGly-induced process of reorganization of actin filaments and induction of acrosomal exocytosis.

Orphan receptor with constitutive G(i) signaling activity that activate cyclic AMP.

Orphan G-protein coupled receptor. Seems to act through a G(i)/G(o) mediated pathway. May be involved in ciliogenesis (By similarity).

Orphan receptor. Displays a significant level of constitutive activity. Its effect is mediated by G(s)-alpha protein that stimulate adenylate cyclase, resulting in an elevation of intracellular cAMP.

Orphan receptor. Possible candidate for amine-like G-protein coupled receptor

High-affinity receptor for 12-(S)-hydroxy-5,8,10,14- eicosatetraenoic acid (12-S-HETE), with much lower affinities for other HETE isomers. 12-S-HETE is a eicosanoid, a 12-lipoxygenase (ALOX12) metabolite of arachidonic acid, involved in many physiologic and pathologic processes. 12-S-HETE-binding leads to activation of ERK1/2 (MAPK3/MAPK1), MEK, and NF-kappa-B pathways leading to cell growth. Plays a crucial role for proliferation, survival and macropinocytosis of KRAS- dependent cancer cells by mediating the translocation of KRAS from the endoplasmic reticulum to the plasma membrane (PM) and its association with the PM. Contributes to enhanced immune responses by inducing dendrite protrusion of small intestinal CX3CR1(+) phagocytes for the uptake of luminal antigens (By similarity). Acts also as a key receptor for 12-(S)-HETE-mediated liver ischemia reperfusion injury.

Acts as a receptor for kynurenic acid, an intermediate in the tryptophan metabolic pathway. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G-proteins that elicit calcium mobilization and inositol phosphate production through G(qi/o) proteins.

Receptor for the neuroprotective and glioprotective factor prosaposin. Ligand binding induces endocytosis, followed by an ERK phosphorylation cascade.

Zn(2+) acts as an agonist. This receptor mediates its action by association with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol- calcium second messenger system. Its effect is mediated mainly through G(q)-alpha and G(12)/G(13) proteins. Involved in regulation of body weight, gastrointestinal mobility, hormone secretion and cell death (By similarity).

Orphan receptor with constitutive G(s) signaling activity that activate cyclic AMP. Has a potential role in modulating a number of brain functions, including behavioral responses to stress (By similarity), amyloid-beta peptide generation in neurons and neurite outgrowth (By similarity). Maintains also meiotic arrest in oocytes (By similarity).

Probable G protein-coupled receptor that may be activated by a major product of dietary fiber digestion, the short chain fatty acids (SCFAs), and that may play a role in the regulation of whole-body energy homeostasis and/or in intestinal immunity.

Proton-sensing G-protein coupled receptor couples to multiple intracellular signaling pathways, including GNAS/cAMP, GNAQ/phospholipase C (PLC), and GNA12/GNA13/Rho pathways. Acidosis-induced GPR4 activation increases paracellular gap formation and permeability of vascular endothelial cells through the GNA12/GNA13/Rho GTPase signaling pathway. In the brain may mediate central respiratory sensitivity to CO(2)H(+) (By similarity).

Gs-coupled receptor activated by antipsychotics reserpine leading to an increase in intracellular cAMP and its internalization. May play a role in locomotor activity through modulation of dopamine, NMDA and ADORA2A-induced locomotor activity. These behavioral changes are accompanied by modulation of the dopamine receptor signaling pathway in striatum. Modulates HTT level via cAMP-dependent but PKA independent mechanisms throught activation of RAB39B that translocates HTT to the endoplasmic reticulum, thus avoiding proteasome degradation.

May be involved in hyperalgesia associated with inflammatory and neuropathic pain (By similarity). Receptor for L-alpha- lysophosphatidylinositol (LPI). LPI induces Ca(2+) release from intracellular stores via the heterotrimeric G protein GNA13 and RHOA. Putative cannabinoid receptor. May play a role in bone physiology by regulating osteoclast number and function.

Orphan G-protein coupled receptor. Constitutively activates the G(s)-alpha/cAMP signaling pathway. Shows a reciprocal regulatory interaction with the melatonin receptor MTNR1B most likely through receptor heteromerization. May be involved in the regulation of food intake and body weight (By similarity).

Orphan G-protein coupled receptor. Constitutively activates the G(q/11)/inositol phosphate and the G(s)-alpha/cAMP signaling pathways. Has spontaneous activity for beta-arrestin recruitment. Shows a reciprocal modulation of signaling functions with the melatonin receptor MTNR1B most likely through receptor heteromerization.

Orphan receptor with constitutive G(s) signaling activity that activate cyclic AMP. Promotes neurite outgrowth and blocks myelin inhibition in neurons (By similarity).

G protein-coupled receptor that is activated by the chemokine CCL5/RANTES. Probably coupled to heterotrimeric Gq proteins, it stimulates inositol trisphosphate production and calcium mobilization upon activation. Together with CCL5/RANTES, may play a role in neuron survival through activation of a downstream signaling pathway involving the PI3, Akt and MAP kinases. CCL5/RANTES may also regulate insulin secretion by pancreatic islet cells through activation of this receptor.

G-protein coupled receptor for PEN, a neuropeptide produced from the precursor protein, proSAAS (encoded by PCSK1N). Acts through a G(i)- and G(q)-alpha-alpha-mediated pathway in response to PEN. Plays a role in food intake and body weight regulation. May contribute to the regulation of anxiety-related behaviors (By similarity).

Receptor for medium-chain free fatty acid (FFA) with carbon chain lengths of C9 to C14. Capric acid (C10:0), undecanoic acid (C11:0) and lauric acid (C12:0) are the most potent agonists. Not activated by short-chain and long-chain saturated and unsaturated FFAs. Activation by medium-chain free fatty acid is coupled to a pertussis toxin sensitive G(i/o) protein pathway. May have important roles in processes from fatty acid metabolism to regulation of the immune system.

Receptor for lysophosphatidic acid (LPA). Necessary for p53/TP53-dependent survival in response to DNA damage.

Probable G-protein coupled receptor implicated in a large repertoire of behavioral responses that engage motor activities, spatial learning, and emotional processing. May play a role in the regulation of cognitive and motor function.

Required for optimal fertilization at the stage of sperm- oocyte fusion, plays a role in optimizing acrosome function, the translocation of IZUMO1 during the acrosome reaction and the fertilization process. Component of epididymosomes, one type of membranous microvesicules which mediate the transfer of lipids and proteins to spermatozoa plasma membrane during epididymal maturation. Also component of the CD9-positive microvesicules found in the cauda region.

Key regulator of inflammation, lipid metabolism and mitochondrion homeostasis that acts by inhibiting the activity of the ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme UBE2N/Ubc13, thereby inhibiting 'Lys-63'- linked ubiquitination (By similarity). In the nucleus, can both acts as a corepressor and coactivator of transcription, depending on the context. Acts as a transcription coactivator in adipocytes by promoting the recruitment of PPARG to promoters: acts by inhibiting the activity of the ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme UBE2N/Ubc13, leading to stabilization of KDM4A and subsequent histone H3 'Lys-9' (H3K9) demethylation (By similarity). Promotes cholesterol efflux by acting as a transcription coactivator. Acts as a regulator of B-cell development by inhibiting UBE2N/Ubc13, thereby restricting the activation of Toll-like receptors (TLRs) and B-cell antigen receptors (BCRs) signaling pathways (By similarity). Acts as a key mediator of mitochondrial stress response: in response to mitochondrial depolarization, relocates from the mitochondria to the nucleus following desumoylation and specifically promotes expression of nuclear-encoded mitochondrial genes. Promotes transcription of nuclear-encoded mitochondrial genes by inhibiting UBE2N/Ubc13. Can also act as a corepressor as part of the N-Cor repressor complex by repressing active PPARG. Plays an anti-inflammatory role in macrophages and is required for insulin sensitivity by acting as a corepressor (By similarity). Plays an anti-inflammatory role during the hepatic acute phase response by interacting with sumoylated NR1H2 and NR5A2 proteins, thereby preventing N-Cor corepressor complex dissociation. In the cytosol, also plays a non- transcriptional role by regulating insulin signaling and pro- inflammatory pathways (By similarity). In the cytoplasm, acts as a negative regulator of inflammation by inhibiting the pro-inflammatory TNF-alpha pathway; acts by repressing UBE2N/Ubc13 activity (By similarity). In the cytoplasm of adipocytes, restricts the activation of insulin signaling via inhibition of UBE2N/Ubc13-mediated ubiquitination of AKT (By similarity). Able to suppress G-protein- and mitogen-activated protein kinase-mediated signal transduction. Acts as a tumor-suppressor in liposarcoma.

Plays an important role in mitotic spindle pole organization via its interaction with NUMA1. Required for cortical dynein-dynactin complex recruitment during metaphase. Plays a role in metaphase spindle orientation. Also plays an important role in asymmetric cell divisions. Has guanine nucleotide dissociation inhibitor (GDI) activity towards G(i) alpha proteins, such as GNAI1 and GNAI3, and thereby regulates their activity (By similarity).

Interacts with subunit of G(i) alpha proteins and regulates the activation of G(i) alpha proteins.

Involved in transcriptional regulation. It is able to activate transcription from the CXCR4 promoter and therefore it might control neural crest cell migration involved in ocular and craniofacial development. Is a negative regulator of immune antiviral response, acting via down-regulation of RIG-I-like receptors signaling and inhibition of type I interferon production. The control mechanism involves interaction with mitochondrial MAVS and inhibition of MAVS assembly with downstream proteins implicated in antiviral response, such as TBK1 and TRAF6.

Catalyzes the initial step of dolichol-linked oligosaccharide biosynthesis in N-linked protein glycosylation pathway: transfers GlcNAc-1-P from UDP-GlcNAc onto the carrier lipid dolichyl phosphate (P-dolichol), yielding GlcNAc-P-P-dolichol.

Collagen receptor involved in collagen-induced platelet adhesion and activation. Plays a key role in platelet procoagulant activity and subsequent thrombin and fibrin formation. This procoagulant function may contribute to arterial and venous thrombus formation. The signaling pathway involves the FcR gamma-chain, the Src kinases (likely FYN or LYN) and SYK, the adapter protein LAT and leads to the activation of PLCG2.

The GPIb-V-IX complex functions as the vWF receptor and mediates vWF-dependent platelet adhesion to blood vessels. The adhesion of platelets to injured vascular surfaces in the arterial circulation is a critical initiating event in hemostasis

Protects the hemoglobin in erythrocytes from oxidative breakdown. In platelets, plays a crucial role of glutathione peroxidase in the arachidonic acid metabolism.

Could play a major role in protecting mammals from the toxicity of ingested organic hydroperoxides. Tert- butyl hydroperoxide, cumene hydroperoxide and linoleic acid hydroperoxide but not phosphatidycholine hydroperoxide, can act as acceptors.

Protects cells and enzymes from oxidative damage, by catalyzing the reduction of hydrogen peroxide, lipid peroxides and organic hydroperoxide, by glutathione.

Essential antioxidant peroxidase that directly reduces phospholipid hydroperoxide even if they are incorporated in membranes and lipoproteins (By similarity). Can also reduce fatty acid hydroperoxide, cholesterol hydroperoxide and thymine hydroperoxide (By similarity). Plays a key role in protecting cells from oxidative damage by preventing membrane lipid peroxidation (By similarity). Required to prevent cells from ferroptosis, a non-apoptotic cell death resulting from an iron-dependent accumulation of lipid reactive oxygen species. The presence of selenocysteine (Sec) versus Cys at the active site is essential for life: it provides resistance to overoxidation and prevents cells against ferroptosis (By similarity). The presence of Sec at the active site is also essential for the survival of a specific type of parvalbumin-positive interneurons, thereby preventing against fatal epileptic seizures (By similarity). May be required to protect cells from the toxicity of ingested lipid hydroperoxides (By similarity). Required for normal sperm development and male fertility (By similarity). Essential for maturation and survival of photoreceptor cells (By similarity). Plays a role in a primary T-cell response to viral and parasitic infection by protecting T-cells from ferroptosis and by supporting T-cell expansion (By similarity). Plays a role of glutathione peroxidase in platelets in the arachidonic acid metabolism. Reduces hydroperoxy ester lipids formed by a 15-lipoxygenase that may play a role as down- regulator of the cellular 15-lipoxygenase pathway (By similarity).

Protects cells and enzymes from oxidative damage, by catalyzing the reduction of hydrogen peroxide, lipid peroxides and organic hydroperoxide, by glutathione. May constitute a glutathione peroxidase-like protective system against peroxide damage in sperm membrane lipids

It protects esophageal epithelia from hydrogen peroxide- induced oxidative stress. It suppresses acidic bile acid-induced reactive oxigen species (ROS) and protects against oxidative DNA damage and double-strand breaks.

Abundant protease in the cytosolic granules of cytotoxic T- cells and NK-cells which activates caspase-independent pyroptosis when delivered into the target cell through the immunological synapse. It cleaves after Lys or Arg. Once delivered into the target cell, acts by catalyzing cleavage of gasdermin-B (GSDMB), releasing the pore-forming moiety of GSDMB, thereby triggering pyroptosis and target cell death. Cleaves APEX1 after 'Lys-31' and destroys its oxidative repair activity. Cleaves the nucleosome assembly protein SET after 'Lys-189', which disrupts its nucleosome assembly activity and allows the SET complex to translocate into the nucleus to nick and degrade the DNA.

Abundant protease in the cytosolic granules of cytotoxic T- cells and NK-cells which activates caspase-independent pyroptosis when delivered into the target cell through the immunological synapse. It cleaves after Asp. Once delivered into the target cell, acts by catalyzing cleavage of gasdermin-E (GSDME), releasing the pore- forming moiety of GSDME, thereby triggering pyroptosis and target cell death. Seems to be linked to an activation cascade of caspases (aspartate-specific cysteine proteases) responsible for apoptosis execution. Cleaves caspase-3, -9 and -10 (CASP3, CASP9 and CASP10, respectively) to give rise to active enzymes mediating apoptosis. Cleaves and activates CASP7 in response to bacterial infection, promoting plasma membrane repair (By similarity).

Cytotoxic chymotrypsin-like serine protease with preference for bulky and aromatic residues at the P1 position and acidic residues at the P3' and P4' sites. Probably necessary for target cell lysis in cell-mediated immune responses. Participates in the antiviral response via direct cleavage of several proteins essential for viral replication.

Plays a role as a mediator of E2F1-induced apoptosis in the absence of p53/TP53. Plays a role as a mediator of E2F1-induced apoptosis in the absence of p53/TP53. Inhibits TLR9 response to nucelic acids and regulates TLR9-mediated innate immune response (By similarity).

Cleaves peptide substrates after methionine, leucine, and norleucine. Physiological substrates include EZR, alpha-tubulins and the apoptosis inhibitor BIRC5/Survivin. Promotes caspase activation and subsequent apoptosis of target cells.

Calcium-binding protein that may play a role in the adhesion of neutrophils to fibronectin. May play a role in the formation of focal adhesions

Regulates the endosomal recycling back to the neuronal plasma membrane, possibly by connecting early and late recycling endosomal domains and promoting segregation of recycling endosomes from early endosomal membranes. Involved in the localization of recycling endosomes to dendritic spines, thereby playing a role in the maintenance of dendritic spine morphology. Required for the activity- induced AMPA receptor recycling to dendrite membranes and for long-term potentiation and synaptic plasticity (By similarity).

Interacts with SLP-76 to regulate NF-AT activation. Binds to tyrosine-phosphorylated shc

Couples signals from receptor and cytoplasmic tyrosine kinases to the Ras signaling pathway. Plays a role in the inner ear and in hearing.

Plays a role in intracellular trafficking and contributes to the macromolecular organization of group 1 metabotropic glutamate receptors (mGluRs) at synapses.

Adapter protein which modulates coupling of a number of cell surface receptor kinases with specific signaling pathways. Binds to, and suppress signals from, activated receptors tyrosine kinases, including the insulin (INSR) and insulin-like growth factor (IGF1R) receptors. The inhibitory effect can be achieved by 2 mechanisms: interference with the signaling pathway and increased receptor degradation. Delays and reduces AKT1 phosphorylation in response to insulin stimulation. Blocks association between INSR and IRS1 and IRS2 and prevents insulin-stimulated IRS1 and IRS2 tyrosine phosphorylation. Recruits NEDD4 to IGF1R, leading to IGF1R ubiquitination, increased internalization and degradation by both the proteasomal and lysosomal pathways. May play a role in mediating insulin-stimulated ubiquitination of INSR, leading to proteasomal degradation. Negatively regulates Wnt signaling by interacting with LRP6 intracellular portion and interfering with the binding of AXIN1 to LRP6. Positive regulator of the KDR/VEGFR-2 signaling pathway. May inhibit NEDD4-mediated degradation of KDR/VEGFR-2.

Adapter protein which modulates coupling of cell surface receptor kinases with specific signaling pathways. Binds to, and suppresses signals from, the activated insulin receptor (INSR). Potent inhibitor of insulin-stimulated MAPK3 phosphorylation. Plays a critical role regulating PDPK1 membrane translocation in response to insulin stimulation and serves as an adapter protein to recruit PDPK1 to activated insulin receptor, thus promoting PKB/AKT1 phosphorylation and transduction of the insulin signal.

Plays a major role in early metanephros and genital development.

Adapter protein that provides a critical link between cell surface growth factor receptors and the Ras signaling pathway.

Adapter protein that interacts with the cytoplasmic domain of numerous receptor kinases and modulates down-stream signaling. Promotes activation of down-stream protein kinases, including STAT3, AKT1, MAPK1 and/or MAPK3. Promotes activation of HRAS. Plays a role in signal transduction in response to EGF. Plays a role in the regulation of cell proliferation and cell migration. Plays a role in the assembly and stability of RNA stress granules. Binds to the 5'UTR of target mRNA molecules and represses translation of target mRNA species, when not phosphorylated. Phosphorylation impairs RNA binding and promotes stress granule disassembly during recovery after cellular stress (By similarity).

May play a role in actin filament architecture in developing stereocilia of sensory cells.

Could play a role in maintaining cochlear stereocilia bundles that are involved in sound detection.

Postsynaptic scaffolding protein at the parallel fiber- Purkinje cell synapse, where it may serve to link GRID2 with actin cytoskeleton and various signaling molecules.

Bifunctional modulator of guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins). Acts as a non-receptor guanine nucleotide exchange factor which binds to and activates guanine nucleotide-binding protein G(i) alpha subunits. Also acts as a guanine nucleotide dissociation inhibitor for guanine nucleotide- binding protein G(s) subunit alpha GNAS. Essential for cell migration. Interacts in complex with G(i) alpha subunits with the EGFR receptor, retaining EGFR at the cell membrane following ligand stimulation and promoting EGFR signaling which triggers cell migration. Binding to Gi-alpha subunits displaces the beta and gamma subunits from the heterotrimeric G-protein complex which enhances phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K)-dependent phosphorylation and kinase activity of AKT1/PKB. Phosphorylation of AKT1/PKB induces the phosphorylation of downstream effectors GSK3 and FOXO1/FKHR, and regulates DNA replication and cell proliferation (By similarity). Binds in its tyrosine-phosphorylated form to the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) regulatory subunit PIK3R1 which enables recruitment of PIK3R1 to the EGFR receptor, enhancing PI3K activity and cell migration. Plays a role as a key modulator of the AKT-mTOR signaling pathway, controlling the tempo of the process of newborn neuron integration during adult neurogenesis, including correct neuron positioning, dendritic development and synapse formation (By similarity). Inhibition of G(s) subunit alpha GNAS leads to reduced cellular levels of cAMP and suppression of cell proliferation. Essential for the integrity of the actin cytoskeleton. Required for formation of actin stress fibers and lamellipodia. May be involved in membrane sorting in the early endosome. Plays a role in ciliogenesis and cilium morphology and positioning and this may partly be through regulation of the localization of scaffolding protein CROCC/Rootletin.

May play a role in estrogen-stimulated cell proliferation. Acts as a regulator of hormone-dependent cancer growth in breast and prostate cancers

Cytokine that may play an important role during carcinogenesis and metanephric kidney organogenesis, as a BMP antagonist required for early limb outgrowth and patterning in maintaining the FGF4-SHH feedback loop. Down-regulates the BMP4 signaling in a dose-dependent manner (By similarity). Antagonist of BMP2; inhibits BMP2-mediated differentiation of osteoblasts (in vitro). Acts as inhibitor of monocyte chemotaxis. Can inhibit the growth or viability of normal cells but not transformed cells when is overexpressed (By similarity).

Cytokine that inhibits the activity of BMP2 and BMP4 in a dose-dependent manner, and thereby modulates signaling by BMP family members. Contributes to the regulation of embryonic morphogenesis via BMP family members. Antagonizes BMP4-induced suppression of progesterone production in granulosa cells.

Transcription factor involved in epithelial development. Binds directly to the consensus DNA sequence 5'-AACCGGTT-3'. Important regulator of DSG1 in the context of hair anchorage and epidermal differentiation, participates in the maintenance of the skin barrier. There is no genetic interaction with GRHL3, no functional cooperativity due to diverse target gene selectivity during epithelia development (By similarity).

Transcription factor playing an important role in primary neurulation and in epithelial development. Binds directly to the consensus DNA sequence 5'- AACCGGTT-3' acting as an activator and repressor on distinct target genes (By similarity). During embryogenesis, plays unique and cooperative roles with GRHL3 in establishing distinct zones of primary neurulation. Essential for closure 3 (rostral end of the forebrain), functions cooperatively with GRHL3 in closure 2 (forebrain/midbrain boundary) and posterior neuropore closure (By similarity). Regulates epithelial morphogenesis acting as a target gene-associated transcriptional activator of apical junctional complex components. Up- regulates of CLDN3 and CLDN4, as well as of RAB25, which increases the CLDN4 protein and its localization at tight junctions (By similarity). Comprises an essential component of the transcriptional machinery that establishes appropriate expression levels of CLDN4 and CDH1 in different types of epithelia. Exhibits functional redundancy with GRHL3 in epidermal morphogenetic events and epidermal wound repair (By similarity). In lung, forms a regulatory loop with NKX2-1 that coordinates lung epithelial cell morphogenesis and differentiation (By similarity). In keratinocytes, plays a role in telomerase activation during cellular proliferation, regulates TERT expression by binding to TERT promoter region and inhibiting DNA methylation at the 5'-CpG island, possibly by interfering with DNMT1 enzyme activity. In addition, impairs keratinocyte differentiation and epidermal function by inhibiting the expression of genes clustered at the epidermal differentiation complex (EDC) as well as GRHL1 and GRHL3 through epigenetic mechanisms.

Transcription factor playing important roles in primary neurulation and in the differentiation of stratified epithelia of both ectodermal and endodermal origin (By similarity). Binds directly to the consensus DNA sequence 5'-AACCGGTT-3' acting as an activator and repressor on distinct target genes. xhibits functional redundancy with GRHL2 in epidermal morphogenetic events and epidermal wound repair (By similarity). Exhibits functional redundancy with GRHL2 in epidermal morphogenetic events and epidermal wound repair but is essential to form the epidermal barrier with TGM3 as critical direct target gene among others. Despite being dispensable during normal epidermal homeostasis in the adulthood, is again required for barrier repair after immune-mediated epidermal damage, regulates distinct gene batteries in embryonic epidermal differentiation and adult epidermal barrier reformation after injury. Plays unique and cooperative roles with GRHL2 in establishing distinct zones of primary neurulation. Essential for spinal closure, functions cooperatively with GRHL2 in closure 2 (forebrain/midbrain boundary) and posterior neuropore closure (By similarity). Also required for proper development of the oral periderm. No genetic interaction with GRHL3, no functional cooperativity due to diverse target gene selectivity.

Enzyme with hydroxy-pyruvate reductase, glyoxylate reductase and D-glycerate dehydrogenase enzymatic activities. Reduces hydroxypyruvate to D-glycerate, glyoxylate to glycolate, oxidizes D- glycerate to hydroxypyruvate.

Ionotropic glutamate receptor. L-glutamate acts as an excitatory neurotransmitter at many synapses in the central nervous system. Binding of the excitatory neurotransmitter L-glutamate induces a conformation change, leading to the opening of the cation channel, and thereby converts the chemical signal to an electrical impulse. The receptor then desensitizes rapidly and enters a transient inactive state, characterized by the presence of bound agonist. In the presence of CACNG4 or CACNG7 or CACNG8, shows resensitization which is characterized by a delayed accumulation of current flux upon continued application of glutamate.

Receptor for glutamate that functions as ligand-gated ion channel in the central nervous system. It plays an important role in excitatory synaptic transmission. L-glutamate acts as an excitatory neurotransmitter at many synapses in the central nervous system. Binding of the excitatory neurotransmitter L-glutamate induces a conformation change, leading to the opening of the cation channel, and thereby converts the chemical signal to an electrical impulse. The receptor then desensitizes rapidly and enters a transient inactive state, characterized by the presence of bound agonist. In the presence of CACNG4 or CACNG7 or CACNG8, shows resensitization which is characterized by a delayed accumulation of current flux upon continued application of glutamate. Through complex formation with NSG1, GRIP1 and STX12 controls the intracellular fate of AMPAR and the endosomal sorting of the GRIA2 subunit toward recycling and membrane targeting (By similarity).

Receptor for glutamate that functions as ligand-gated ion channel in the central nervous system and plays an important role in excitatory synaptic transmission. L-glutamate acts as an excitatory neurotransmitter at many synapses in the central nervous system. Binding of the excitatory neurotransmitter L-glutamate induces a conformation change, leading to the opening of the cation channel, and thereby converts the chemical signal to an electrical impulse. The receptor then desensitizes rapidly and enters a transient inactive state, characterized by the presence of bound agonist. In the presence of CACNG4 or CACNG7 or CACNG8, shows resensitization which is characterized by a delayed accumulation of current flux upon continued application of glutamate.

Receptor for glutamate. L-glutamate acts as an excitatory neurotransmitter at many synapses in the central nervous system. The postsynaptic actions of Glu are mediated by a variety of receptors that are named according to their selective agonists

Receptor for glutamate. L-glutamate acts as an excitatory neurotransmitter at many synapses in the central nervous system. The postsynaptic actions of Glu are mediated by a variety of receptors that are named according to their selective agonists. Promotes synaptogenesis and mediates the D-Serine-dependent long term depression signals and AMPA receptor endocytosis of cerebellar parallel fiber- Purkinje cell (PF-PC) synapses through the beta-NRX1-CBLN1-GRID2 triad complex.

Ionotropic glutamate receptor. L-glutamate acts as an excitatory neurotransmitter at many synapses in the central nervous system. Binding of the excitatory neurotransmitter L-glutamate induces a conformation change, leading to the opening of the cation channel, and thereby converts the chemical signal to an electrical impulse. The receptor then desensitizes rapidly and enters a transient inactive state, characterized by the presence of bound agonist. Modulates cell surface expression of NETO2 (By similarity).

Receptor for glutamate that functions as ligand-gated ion channel in the central nervous system and plays an important role in excitatory synaptic transmission. L-glutamate acts as an excitatory neurotransmitter at many synapses in the central nervous system. The postsynaptic actions of Glu are mediated by a variety of receptors that are named according to their selective agonists. This receptor binds domoate > kainate >> L-glutamate = quisqualate >> AMPA = NMDA

Receptor for glutamate. L-glutamate acts as an excitatory neurotransmitter at many synapses in the central nervous system. The postsynaptic actions of Glu are mediated by a variety of receptors that are named according to their selective agonists. This receptor binds kainate > quisqualate > domoate > L-glutamate >> AMPA >> NMDA = 1S,3R- ACPD

May play a role as a localized scaffold for the assembly of a multiprotein signaling complex and as mediator of the trafficking of its binding partners at specific subcellular location in neurons. Through complex formation with NSG1, GRIA2 and STX12 controls the intracellular fate of AMPAR and the endosomal sorting of the GRIA2 subunit toward recycling and membrane targeting (By similarity).

May play a role as a localized scaffold for the assembly of a multiprotein signaling complex and as mediator of the trafficking of its binding partners at specific subcellular location in neurons.

Retina-specific kinase involved in the signal turnoff via phosphorylation of rhodopsin (RHO), the G protein- coupled receptor that initiates the phototransduction cascade. This rapid desensitization is essential for scotopic vision and permits rapid adaptation to changes in illumination (By similarity). May play a role in the maintenance of the outer nuclear layer in the retina (By similarity).

Specifically phosphorylates the activated forms of G protein- coupled receptors. GRK4-alpha can phosphorylate rhodopsin and its activity is inhibited by calmodulin; the other three isoforms do not phosphorylate rhodopsin and do not interact with calmodulin. GRK4-alpha and GRK4-gamma phosphorylate DRD3. Phosphorylates ADRB2.

Serine/threonine kinase that phosphorylates preferentially the activated forms of a variety of G-protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs). Such receptor phosphorylation initiates beta-arrestin-mediated receptor desensitization, internalization, and signaling events leading to their down-regulation. Phosphorylates a variety of GPCRs, including adrenergic receptors, muscarinic acetylcholine receptors (more specifically Gi-coupled M2/M4 subtypes), dopamine receptors and opioid receptors. In addition to GPCRs, also phosphorylates various substrates: Hsc70-interacting protein/ST13, TP53/p53, HDAC5, and arrestin-1/ARRB1. Phosphorylation of ARRB1 by GRK5 inhibits G-protein independent MAPK1/MAPK3 signaling downstream of 5HT4-receptors. Phosphorylation of HDAC5, a repressor of myocyte enhancer factor 2 (MEF2) leading to nuclear export of HDAC5 and allowing MEF2-mediated transcription. Phosphorylation of TP53/p53, a crucial tumor suppressor, inhibits TP53/p53-mediated apoptosis. Phosphorylation of ST13 regulates internalization of the chemokine receptor. Phosphorylates rhodopsin (RHO) (in vitro) and a non G-protein-coupled receptor, LRP6 during Wnt signaling (in vitro).

Specifically phosphorylates the activated forms of G protein- coupled receptors. Such receptor phosphorylation initiates beta- arrestin-mediated receptor desensitization, internalization, and signaling events leading to their desensitization. Seems to be involved in the desensitization of D2-like dopamine receptors in striatum and chemokine receptor CXCR4 which is critical for CXCL12-induced cell chemotaxis (By similarity). Phosphorylates rhodopsin (RHO) (in vitro) and a non G-protein-coupled receptor: LRP6 during Wnt signaling (in vitro).

Retina-specific kinase involved in the shutoff of the photoresponse and adaptation to changing light conditions via cone opsin phosphorylation, including rhodopsin (RHO).

Isoform 1 appears to be a stable component of the Pol II(G) complex form of RNA polymerase II (Pol II). Pol II synthesizes mRNA precursors and many functional non-coding RNAs and is the central component of the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Isoform 1 may play a role in the Mediator complex-dependent regulation of transcription activation. Isoform 1 acts in vitro as a negative regulator of transcriptional activation; this repression is relieved by the Mediator complex, which restores Pol II(G) activator-dependent transcription to a level equivalent to that of Pol II.

G-protein coupled receptor for glutamate. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors. Signaling activates a phosphatidylinositol- calcium second messenger system. May participate in the central action of glutamate in the CNS, such as long-term potentiation in the hippocampus and long-term depression in the cerebellum. May function in the light response in the retina (By similarity).

Participates in the organization of endoplasmic reticulum- plasma membrane contact sites (EPCS) with pleiotropic functions including STIM1 recruitment and calcium homeostasis. Constitutive tether that co-localize with ESYT2/3 tethers at endoplasmic reticulum- plasma membrane contact sites in a phosphatidylinositol lipid-dependent manner. Pre-marks the subset of phosphtidylinositol 4,5-biphosphate (PI(4,5)P2)-enriched EPCS destined for the store operated calcium entry pathway (SOCE).

G-protein coupled receptor for glutamate. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors, such as adenylate cyclase. Signaling inhibits adenylate cyclase activity. May mediate suppression of neurotransmission or may be involved in synaptogenesis or synaptic stabilization.

G-protein coupled receptor for glutamate. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors. Signaling inhibits adenylate cyclase activity.

G-protein coupled receptor for glutamate. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors. Signaling activates a phosphatidylinositol- calcium second messenger system and generates a calcium-activated chloride current. Plays an important role in the regulation of synaptic plasticity and the modulation of the neural network activity.

G-protein coupled receptor for glutamate. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors, such as adenylate cyclase. Signaling inhibits adenylate cyclase activity (By similarity). Signaling stimulates TRPM1 channel activity and Ca(2+) uptake. Required for normal vision.

G-protein coupled receptor activated by glutamate that regulates axon outgrowth through the MAPK-cAMP-PKA signaling pathway during neuronal development. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide- binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of downstream effectors, such as adenylate cyclase that it inhibits.

G-protein coupled receptor for glutamate. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors, such as adenylate cyclase. Signaling inhibits adenylate cyclase activity.

Secreted protein that acts as a key regulator of lysosomal function and as a growth factor involved in inflammation, wound healing and cell proliferation. Regulates protein trafficking to lysosomes and, also the activity of lysosomal enzymes. Facilitates also the acidification of lysosomes, causing degradation of mature CTSD by CTSB. In addition, functions as wound-related growth factor that acts directly on dermal fibroblasts and endothelial cells to promote division, migration and the formation of capillary-like tubule structures (By similarity). Also promotes epithelial cell proliferation by blocking TNF-mediated neutrophil activation preventing release of oxidants and proteases. Moreover, modulates inflammation in neurons by preserving neurons survival, axonal outgrowth and neuronal integrity.

Has chemotactic activity for neutrophils. May play a role in inflammation and exerts its effects on endothelial cells in an autocrine fashion. In vitro, the processed forms GRO-alpha(4-73), GRO- alpha(5-73) and GRO-alpha(6-73) show a 30-fold higher chemotactic activity.

Functions as a calcium- and diacylglycerol (DAG)-regulated nucleotide exchange factor specifically activating Ras through the exchange of bound GDP for GTP. Activates the Erk/MAP kinase cascade. Regulates T-cell/B-cell development, homeostasis and differentiation by coupling T-lymphocyte/B-lymphocyte antigen receptors to Ras. Regulates NK cell cytotoxicity and ITAM-dependent cytokine production by activation of Ras-mediated ERK and JNK pathways. Functions in mast cell degranulation and cytokine secretion, regulating FcERI-evoked allergic responses. May also function in differentiation of other cell types.

Functions as a calcium- and DAG-regulated nucleotide exchange factor specifically activating Rap through the exchange of bound GDP for GTP. May also activate other GTPases such as RRAS, RRAS2, NRAS, KRAS but not HRAS. Functions in aggregation of platelets and adhesion of T-lymphocytes and neutrophils probably through inside-out integrin activation. May function in the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor M1/CHRM1 signaling pathway.

Functions as a cation- and diacylglycerol (DAG)-regulated nucleotide exchange factor activating Ras through the exchange of bound GDP for GTP. May function in mast cells differentiation.

Chaperone protein which plays an important role in mitochondrial iron-sulfur cluster (ISC) biogenesis. Interacts with and stabilizes ISC cluster assembly proteins FXN, NFU1, NFS1 and ISCU. Regulates erythropoiesis via stabilization of ISC assembly. May play a role in the control of cell proliferation and cellular aging (By similarity).

Essential component of the PAM complex, a complex required for the translocation of transit peptide-containing proteins from the inner membrane into the mitochondrial matrix in an ATP-dependent manner (By similarity). Seems to control the nucleotide-dependent binding of mitochondrial HSP70 to substrate proteins.

Essential component of the PAM complex, a complex required for the translocation of transit peptide-containing proteins from the inner membrane into the mitochondrial matrix in an ATP-dependent manner. Seems to control the nucleotide-dependent binding of mitochondrial HSP70 to substrate proteins. Stimulates ATPase activity of mt-HSP70. May also serve to modulate the interconversion of oligomeric (inactive) and monomeric (active) forms of mt-HSP70 (By similarity).

Receptor for gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP). Signals via association with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system, resulting in Akt phosphorylation. Contributes to the regulation of food intake. Contributes to the perception of prurient stimuli and transmission of itch signals in the spinal cord that promote scratching behavior, but does not play a role in the perception of pain. Contributes primarily to nonhistaminergic itch sensation. In one study, shown to act in the amygdala as part of an inhibitory network which inhibits memory specifically related to learned fear (By similarity). In another study, shown to contribute to disinhibition of glutamatergic cells in the auditory cortex via signaling on vasoactive intestinal peptide- expressing cells which leads to enhanced auditory fear memories (By similarity). Contributes to the induction of sighing through signaling in the pre-Botzinger complex, a cluster of several thousand neurons in the ventrolateral medulla responsible for inspiration during respiratory activity (By similarity).

Stimulates the release of gastrin and other gastrointestinal hormones (By similarity). Contributes to the perception of prurient stimuli and to the transmission of itch signals in the spinal cord that promote scratching behavior (By similarity). Contributes primarily to nonhistaminergic itch sensation (By similarity). In one study, shown to act in the amygdala as part of an inhibitory network which inhibits memory specifically related to learned fear (By similarity). In another study, shown to act on vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)-expressing cells in the auditory cortex, most likely via extrasynaptic diffusion from local and long-range sources, to mediate disinhibition of glutamatergic cells via VIP cell-specific GRPR signaling which leads to enhanced auditory fear memories (By similarity). Contributes to the regulation of food intake (By similarity). Inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels but enhances voltage-gated potassium channels in hippocampal neurons (By similarity). Induces sighing by acting directly on the pre-Botzinger complex, a cluster of several thousand neurons in the ventrolateral medulla responsible for inspiration during respiratory activity (By similarity).

Acts as an effector of RAC1. Associates with CCR4-NOT complex which is one of the major cellular mRNA deadenylases and is linked to various cellular processes including bulk mRNA degradation, miRNA-mediated repression, translational repression during translational initiation and general transcription regulation. May also play a role in miRNA silencing machinery.

Regulator of post-transcriptional mitochondrial gene expression, required for assembly of the mitochondrial ribosome and for recruitment of mRNA and lncRNA. Binds RNAs containing the 14 base G- rich element. Preferentially binds RNAs transcribed from three contiguous genes on the light strand of mtDNA, the ND6 mRNA, and the long non-coding RNAs for MT-CYB and MT-ND5, each of which contains multiple consensus binding sequences. Involved in the degradosome-mediated decay of non- coding mitochondrial transcripts (MT-ncRNA) and tRNA-like molecules. Acts by unwinding G-quadruplex RNA structures in MT- ncRNA, thus facilitating their degradation by the degradosome. G-quadruplexes (G4) are non-canonical 4 stranded structures formed by transcripts from the light strand of mtDNA.

May act as a GTPase-activating protein for Rab family protein(s)

Histone binding-protein that regulates chromatin dynamics and minichromosome maintenance (MCM) loading at replication origins, possibly by promoting chromatin openness.

Regulator of gamma-secretase activity, which specifically activates the production of amyloid-beta protein (amyloid-beta protein 40 and amyloid-beta protein 42), without affecting the cleavage of other gamma-secretase targets such has Notch. The gamma-secretase complex is an endoprotease complex that catalyzes the intramembrane cleavage of integral membrane proteins such as Notch receptors and APP (amyloid-beta precursor protein). Specifically promotes the gamma- cleavage of APP CTF-alpha (also named APP-CTF) by the gamma-secretase complex to generate amyloid-beta, while it reduces the epsilon-cleavage of APP CTF-alpha, leading to a low production of AICD.

May have a role in development. May regulate its own transcription. May bind the bicoid consensus sequence TAATCC

Regulates chordin (CHRD). May play a role in spatial programing within discrete embryonic fields or lineage compartments during organogenesis. In concert with NKX3-2, plays a role in defining the structural components of the middle ear; required for the development of the entire tympanic ring (By similarity). Probably involved in the regulatory networks that define neural crest cell fate specification and determine mesoderm cell lineages in mammals.

[Gasdermin-A]: This form constitutes the precursor of the pore-forming protein and acts as a sensor of infection: upon infection by S.pyogenes, specifically cleaved by S.pyogenes effector protein SpeB in epithelial cells, releasing the N-terminal moiety (Gasdermin-A, N- terminal) that binds to membranes and forms pores, triggering pyroptosis.

[Gasdermin-B]: Precursor of a pore-forming protein that acts as a downstream mediator of granzyme-mediated cell death. This form constitutes the precursor of the pore- forming protein: upon cleavage, the released N-terminal moiety (Gasdermin-B, N-terminal) binds to membranes and forms pores, triggering pyroptosis.

[Gasdermin-C]: This form constitutes the precursor of the pore-forming protein: upon cleavage, the released N-terminal moiety (Gasdermin-C, N-terminal) binds to membranes and forms pores, triggering cell death.

[Gasdermin-D]: Precursor of a pore-forming protein that plays a key role in host defense against pathogen infection and danger signals. This form constitutes the precursor of the pore-forming protein: upon cleavage, the released N-terminal moiety (Gasdermin-D, N-terminal) binds to membranes and forms pores, triggering pyroptosis.

[Gasdermin-E]: Precursor of a pore-forming protein that converts non-inflammatory apoptosis to pyroptosis. This form constitutes the precursor of the pore-forming protein: upon cleavage, the released N-terminal moiety (Gasdermin-E, N-terminal) binds to membranes and forms pores, triggering pyroptosis.

As a component of the inner core of AMPAR complex, modifies AMPA receptor (AMPAR) gating.

Catalyzes the ATP-dependent ligation of L-glutamate and L- cysteine and participates in the first and rate-limiting step in glutathione biosynthesis.

Catalyzes the production of glutathione from gamma- glutamylcysteine and glycine in an ATP-dependent manner. Glutathione (gamma- glutamylcysteinylglycine, GSH) is the most abundant intracellular thiol in living aerobic cells and is required for numerous processes including the protection of cells against oxidative damage, amino acid transport, the detoxification of foreign compounds, the maintenance of protein sulfhydryl groups in a reduced state and acts as a cofactor for a number of enzymes. Participates in ophthalmate biosynthesis in hepatocytes (By similarity).

Constitutively active protein kinase that acts as a negative regulator in the hormonal control of glucose homeostasis, Wnt signaling and regulation of transcription factors and microtubules, by phosphorylating and inactivating glycogen synthase (GYS1 or GYS2), CTNNB1/beta-catenin, APC and AXIN1. Requires primed phosphorylation of the majority of its substrates. Contributes to insulin regulation of glycogen synthesis by phosphorylating and inhibiting GYS1 activity and hence glycogen synthesis. Regulates glycogen metabolism in liver, but not in muscle (By similarity). May also mediate the development of insulin resistance by regulating activation of transcription factors. In Wnt signaling, regulates the level and transcriptional activity of nuclear CTNNB1/beta-catenin. Facilitates amyloid precursor protein (APP) processing and the generation of APP-derived amyloid plaques found in Alzheimer disease. May be involved in the regulation of replication in pancreatic beta-cells (By similarity). Is necessary for the establishment of neuronal polarity and axon outgrowth (By similarity). Through phosphorylation of the anti-apoptotic protein MCL1, may control cell apoptosis in response to growth factors deprivation (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of autophagy by mediating phosphorylation of KAT5/TIP60 under starvation conditions which activates KAT5/TIP60 acetyltransferase activity and promotes acetylation of key autophagy regulators, such as ULK1 and RUBCNL/Pacer. Negatively regulates extrinsic apoptotic signaling pathway via death domain receptors. Promotes the formation of an anti- apoptotic complex, made of DDX3X, BRIC2 and GSK3B, at death receptors, including TNFRSF10B. The anti-apoptotic function is most effective with weak apoptotic signals and can be overcome by stronger stimulation (By similarity). Phosphorylates mTORC2 complex component RICTOR at 'Thr- 1695' which facilitates FBXW7-mediated ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of RICTOR.

Constitutively active protein kinase that acts as a negative regulator in the hormonal control of glucose homeostasis, Wnt signaling and regulation of transcription factors and microtubules, by phosphorylating and inactivating glycogen synthase (GYS1 or GYS2), EIF2B, CTNNB1/beta-catenin, APC, AXIN1, DPYSL2/CRMP2, JUN, NFATC1/NFATC, MAPT/TAU and MACF1. Requires primed phosphorylation of the majority of its substrates. In skeletal muscle, contributes to insulin regulation of glycogen synthesis by phosphorylating and inhibiting GYS1 activity and hence glycogen synthesis. May also mediate the development of insulin resistance by regulating activation of transcription factors. Regulates protein synthesis by controlling the activity of initiation factor 2B (EIF2BE/EIF2B5) in the same manner as glycogen synthase. In Wnt signaling, GSK3B forms a multimeric complex with APC, AXIN1 and CTNNB1/beta-catenin and phosphorylates the N-terminus of CTNNB1 leading to its degradation mediated by ubiquitin/proteasomes. Phosphorylates JUN at sites proximal to its DNA-binding domain, thereby reducing its affinity for DNA. Phosphorylates NFATC1/NFATC on conserved serine residues promoting NFATC1/NFATC nuclear export, shutting off NFATC1/NFATC gene regulation, and thereby opposing the action of calcineurin. Phosphorylates MAPT/TAU on 'Thr-548', decreasing significantly MAPT/TAU ability to bind and stabilize microtubules. MAPT/TAU is the principal component of neurofibrillary tangles in Alzheimer disease. Plays an important role in ERBB2-dependent stabilization of microtubules at the cell cortex. Phosphorylates MACF1, inhibiting its binding to microtubules which is critical for its role in bulge stem cell migration and skin wound repair (By similarity). Probably regulates NF-kappa-B (NFKB1) at the transcriptional level and is required for the NF-kappa-B-mediated anti- apoptotic response to TNF-alpha (TNF/TNFA) (By similarity). Negatively regulates replication in pancreatic beta-cells, resulting in apoptosis, loss of beta-cells and diabetes (By similarity). Through phosphorylation of the anti-apoptotic protein MCL1, may control cell apoptosis in response to growth factors deprivation (By similarity). Phosphorylates MUC1 in breast cancer cells, decreasing the interaction of MUC1 with CTNNB1/beta-catenin. Is necessary for the establishment of neuronal polarity and axon outgrowth. Phosphorylates MARK2, leading to inhibition of its activity (By similarity). Phosphorylates SIK1 at 'Thr-182', leading to sustainment of its activity. Phosphorylates ZC3HAV1 which enhances its antiviral activity. Phosphorylates SNAI1, leading to its BTRC-triggered ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation. Phosphorylates SFPQ at 'Thr-687' upon T-cell activation. Phosphorylates NR1D1 st 'Ser-55' and 'Ser-59' and stabilizes it by protecting it from proteasomal degradation. Regulates the circadian clock via phosphorylation of the major clock components including BMAL1, CLOCK and PER2. Phosphorylates CLOCK AT 'Ser-427' and targets it for proteasomal degradation. Phosphorylates BMAL1 at 'Ser-17' and 'Ser-21' and primes it for ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation. Phosphorylates OGT at 'Ser-3' or 'Ser-4' which positively regulates its activity. Phosphorylates MYCN in neuroblastoma cells which may promote its degradation. Regulates the circadian rhythmicity of hippocampal long-term potentiation and BMAL1 and PER2 expression (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of autophagy by mediating phosphorylation of KAT5/TIP60 under starvation conditions, activating KAT5/TIP60 acetyltransferase activity and promoting acetylation of key autophagy regulators, such as ULK1 and RUBCNL/Pacer. Negatively regulates extrinsic apoptotic signaling pathway via death domain receptors. Promotes the formation of an anti-apoptotic complex, made of DDX3X, BRIC2 and GSK3B, at death receptors, including TNFRSF10B. The anti-apoptotic function is most effective with weak apoptotic signals and can be overcome by stronger stimulation. Phosphorylates E2F1, promoting the interaction between E2F1 and USP11, stabilizing E2F1 and promoting its activity. Phosphorylates mTORC2 complex component RICTOR at 'Thr-1695' which facilitates FBXW7-mediated ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of RICTOR.

A-kinase anchoring protein for GSK3B and PKA that regulates or facilitates their kinase activity towards their targets. The ternary complex enhances Wnt-induced signaling by facilitating the GSK3B- and PKA-induced phosphorylation of beta-catenin leading to beta-catenin degradation and stabilization respectively. Upon cAMP activation, the ternary complex contributes to neuroprotection against oxidative stress-induced apoptosis by facilitating the PKA-induced phosphorylation of DML1 and PKA-induced inactivation of GSK3B. During neurite outgrowth promotes neuron proliferation; while increases beta-catenin-induced transcriptional activity through GSK3B kinase activity inhibition, reduces N-cadherin level to promote cell cycle progression.

Binds fibroblast growth factor and E-selectin (cell-adhesion lectin on endothelial cells mediating the binding of neutrophils).

Glutathione S-transferase that catalyzes the nucleophilic attack of the sulfur atom of glutathione on the electrophilic groups of a wide range of exogenous and endogenous compounds (Probable). Involved in the formation of glutathione conjugates of both prostaglandin A2 (PGA2) and prostaglandin J2 (PGJ2). It also catalyzes the isomerization of D5-androstene-3,17-dione (AD) into D4-androstene- 3,17-dione and may therefore play an important role in hormone biosynthesis. Through its glutathione-dependent peroxidase activity toward the fatty acid hydroperoxide (13S)- hydroperoxy-(9Z,11E)-octadecadienoate/13-HPODE it is also involved in the metabolism of oxidized linoleic acid.

Catalyzes the conjugation of glutathione to a large variety of electrophilic compounds.

Conjugation of reduced glutathione to a wide number of exogenous and endogenous hydrophobic electrophiles. Catalyzes isomerization reactions that contribute to the biosynthesis of steroid hormones. Efficiently catalyze obligatory double-bond isomerizations of delta(5)-androstene-3,17-dione and delta(5)-pregnene-3,20-dione, precursors to testosterone and progesterone, respectively. Has substantial activity toward aflatoxin B1-8,9-epoxide (By similarity).

Conjugation of reduced glutathione to a wide number of exogenous and endogenous hydrophobic electrophiles. This isozyme has a high catalytic efficiency with 4-hydroxyalkenals such as 4- hydroxynonenal (4-HNE).

Glutathione S-transferase that catalyzes the conjugation of glutathione to exogenous and endogenous compounds. Significant glutathione conjugating activity is found only with the model substrate, 1-chloro-2,4-dinitrobenzene (CDNB).

Conjugation of reduced glutathione to a wide number of exogenous and endogenous hydrophobic electrophiles. Involved in the formation of glutathione conjugates of both prostaglandin A2 (PGA2) and prostaglandin J2 (PGJ2). Participates in the formation of novel hepoxilin regioisomers.

Conjugation of reduced glutathione to a wide number of exogenous and endogenous hydrophobic electrophiles. Participates in the formation of novel hepoxilin regioisomers.

Conjugation of reduced glutathione to a wide number of exogenous and endogenous hydrophobic electrophiles. May govern uptake and detoxification of both endogenous compounds and xenobiotics at the testis and brain blood barriers.

Conjugation of reduced glutathione to a wide number of exogenous and endogenous hydrophobic electrophiles. Catalyzes the conjugation of leukotriene A4 with reduced glutathione (GSH) to form leukotriene C4. Can also catalyzes the transfer of a glutathionyl group from glutathione (GSH) to 13(S),14(S)-epoxy-docosahexaenoic acid to form maresin conjugate in tissue regeneration 1 (MCTR1), a bioactive lipid mediator that possess potent anti-inflammatory and proresolving actions.

Conjugation of reduced glutathione to a wide number of exogenous and endogenous hydrophobic electrophiles.

Exhibits glutathione-dependent thiol transferase and dehydroascorbate reductase activities. Has S-(phenacyl)glutathione reductase activity. Has also glutathione S-transferase activity. Participates in the biotransformation of inorganic arsenic and reduces monomethylarsonic acid (MMA) and dimethylarsonic acid.

Exhibits glutathione-dependent thiol transferase activity. Has high dehydroascorbate reductase activity and may contribute to the recycling of ascorbic acid. Participates in the biotransformation of inorganic arsenic and reduces monomethylarsonic acid (MMA).

Conjugation of reduced glutathione to a wide number of exogenous and endogenous hydrophobic electrophiles. Involved in the formation of glutathione conjugates of both prostaglandin A2 (PGA2) and prostaglandin J2 (PGJ2). Participates in the formation of novel hepoxilin regioisomers. Regulates negatively CDK5 activity via p25/p35 translocation to prevent neurodegeneration.

Conjugation of reduced glutathione to a wide number of exogenous and endogenous hydrophobic electrophiles. Has a sulfatase activity.

Probable transcription factor that binds to the DNA sequence 5'-GC[TA][AC]ATTA[GA]-3'. Activates the transcription of the GHRH gene. Plays an important role in pituitary development

Transcription factor that binds 5'-CNAATTAG-3' DNA sequence and regulates the expression of numerous genes including genes important for brain development. During telencephalic development, causes ventralization of pallial progenitors and, depending on the developmental stage, specifies different neuronal fates. At early stages, necessary and sufficient to correctly specify the ventral lateral ganglionic eminence (LGE) and its major derivatives, the striatal projection neurons. At later stages, may specify LGE progenitors toward dorsal LGE fates, including olfactory bulb interneurons (By similarity).

Beta-galactosyltransferase that transfers beta-galactose to hydroxylysine residues of type I collagen. By acting on collagen glycosylation, facilitates the formation of collagen triple helix. Also involved in the biosynthesis of collagen type IV.

Beta-galactosyltransferase that transfers beta-galactose to hydroxylysine residues of collagen.

Probable cell adhesion protein involved in leukocyte transmigration across the blood-brain barrier. Does not express any beta-galactosyltransferase activity in vitro.

May be a transcription regulator involved in cell-cycle progression and skeletal muscle differentiation. May repress GTF2I transcriptional functions, by preventing its nuclear residency, or by inhibiting its transcriptional activation. May contribute to slow- twitch fiber type specificity during myogenesis and in regenerating muscles. Binds troponin I slow-muscle fiber enhancer (USE B1). Binds specifically and with high affinity to the EFG sequences derived from the early enhancer of HOXC8 (By similarity).

Interacts with the basal transcription machinery by coordinating the formation of a multiprotein complex at the C-FOS promoter, and linking specific signal responsive activator complexes. Promotes the formation of stable high-order complexes of SRF and PHOX1 and interacts cooperatively with PHOX1 to promote serum-inducible transcription of a reporter gene deriven by the C-FOS serum response element (SRE). Acts as a coregulator for USF1 by binding independently two promoter elements, a pyrimidine-rich initiator (Inr) and an upstream E-box. Required for the formation of functional ARID3A DNA- binding complexes and for activation of immunoglobulin heavy-chain transcription upon B-lymphocyte activation.

Promotes degradation of target mRNA species. Plays a role in the regulation of circadian mRNA stability. Binds GTP and has GTPase activity (By similarity).

GTPase involved in the 5-carboxymethylaminomethyl modification (mnm(5)s(2)U34) of the wobble uridine base in mitochondrial tRNAs.

Involved in the biogenesis of the 60S ribosomal subunit. Acts as TP53 repressor, preventing TP53 stabilization and cell cycle arrest.

May be involved in the ribosome maturation process. Complements an ObgE(CgtA) function in E.coli ribosome maturation. Plays a role of GTPase in vitro. When missing, disorganization of the nucleolar architecture is observed.

Facilitative glucose transporter required for the development of the cardiovascular system.

Hexose transporter that can mediate the transport of glucose and dehydroascorbate across the cell membrane.

Facilitative glucose transporter, which is responsible for constitutive or basal glucose uptake. Has a very broad substrate specificity; can transport a wide range of aldoses including both pentoses and hexoses. Most important energy carrier of the brain: present at the blood-brain barrier and assures the energy-independent, facilitative transport of glucose into the brain. In association with BSG and NXNL1, promotes retinal cone survival by increasing glucose uptake into photoreceptors (By similarity).

Facilitative hexose transporter that mediates the transport of glucose, fructose and galactose. Likely mediates the bidirectional transfer of glucose across the plasma membrane of hepatocytes and is responsible for uptake of glucose by the beta cells; may comprise part of the glucose-sensing mechanism of the beta cell. May also participate with the Na(+)/glucose cotransporter in the transcellular transport of glucose in the small intestine and kidney. Also able to mediate the transport of dehydroascorbate.

Facilitative glucose transporter that can also mediate the uptake of various other monosaccharides across the cell membrane. Mediates the uptake of glucose, 2- deoxyglucose, galactose, mannose, xylose and fucose, and probably also dehydroascorbate. Does not mediate fructose transport.

Functions as a fructose transporter that has only low activity with other monosaccharides. Can mediate the uptake of 2-deoxyglucose, but with low efficiency. Essential for fructose uptake in the small intestine (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of salt uptake and blood pressure in response to dietary fructose (By similarity). Required for the development of high blood pressure in response to high dietary fructose intake (By similarity).

Probable sugar transporter that acts as a regulator of glycolysis in macrophages (Probable). Does not transport glucose.

Probable sugar transporter. Even if its physiological substrate is subject to discussion, it is able to transport glucose and fructose. Does not transport galactose, 2-deoxy-d-glucose and xylose.

Insulin-regulated facilitative hexose transporter that mediates the transport of glucose and fructose. Also able to mediate the transport of dehydroascorbate.

High-capacity urate transporter, which may play a role in the urate reabsorption by proximal tubules. May have a residual high-affinity, low-capacity glucose and fructose transporter activity. Transports urate at rates 45- to 60-fold faster than glucose. Does not transport galactose. May mediate small uptake of adenine but not of other nucleobases.

May be involved in p53-induced cell cycle arrest in G2/M phase by interfering with microtubule rearrangements that are required to enter mitosis. Overexpression delays G2/M phase progression

Required for spermatogenesis and is involved in the suppression of retrotransposon transcription in male germ cells.

Catalyzes the conversion of xanthine monophosphate (XMP) to GMP in the presence of glutamine and ATP through an adenyl-XMP intermediate.

Catalyzes the hydrolytic deamination of guanine, producing xanthine and ammonia.

Stimulates retinal guanylyl cyclase when free calcium ions concentration is low and inhibits guanylyl cyclase when free calcium ions concentration is elevated. This Ca(2+)-sensitive regulation of retinal guanylyl cyclase is a key event in recovery of the dark state of rod photoreceptors following light exposure (By similarity). May be involved in cone photoreceptor light response and recovery of response in bright light (By similarity).

Stimulates two retinal guanylyl cyclases (GCs) GUCY2D and GUCY2F when free calcium ions concentration is low, and inhibits GUCY2D and GUCY2F when free calcium ions concentration is elevated (By similarity). This Ca(2+)-sensitive regulation of GCs is a key event in recovery of the dark state of rod photoreceptors following light exposure (By similarity). May be involved in cone photoreceptor response and recovery of response in bright light (By similarity).

Stimulates guanylyl cyclase 1 (GC1) and GC2 when free calcium ions concentration is low and inhibits guanylyl cyclases when free calcium ions concentration is elevated. This Ca(2+)-sensitive regulation of guanylyl cyclase (GC) is a key event in recovery of the dark state of rod photoreceptors following light exposure

Endogenous activator of intestinal guanylate cyclase. It stimulates this enzyme through the same receptor binding region as the heat-stable enterotoxins

Endogenous activator of intestinal guanylate cyclase. It stimulates this enzyme through the same receptor binding region as the heat-stable enterotoxins. May be a potent physiological regulator of intestinal fluid and electrolyte transport. May be an autocrine/paracrine regulator of intestinal salt and water transport

Guanylyl cyclase that catalyzes synthesis of cyclic GMP (cGMP) from GTP. Receptor for the E.coli heat-stable enterotoxin; E.coli enterotoxin markedly stimulates the accumulation of cGMP in mammalian cells expressing GUCY2C. Also activated by the endogenous peptides guanylin and uroguanylin.

Catalyzes the synthesis of cyclic GMP (cGMP) in rods and cones of photoreceptors. Plays an essential role in phototransduction, by mediating cGMP replenishment. May also participate in the trafficking of membrane-asociated proteins to the photoreceptor outer segment membrane (By similarity).

Responsible for the synthesis of cyclic GMP (cGMP) in rods and cones of photoreceptors. Plays an essential role in phototransduction, by mediating cGMP replenishment (By similarity). May also participate in the trafficking of membrane-asociated proteins to the photoreceptor outer segment membrane (By similarity).

Promotes mitochondrial protein synthesis. May act as a fidelity factor of the translation reaction, by catalyzing a one-codon backward translocation of tRNAs on improperly translocated ribosomes. Binds to mitochondrial ribosomes in a GTP-dependent manner.

May function as an adapter protein. Required for efficient phagocytosis of apoptotic cells. Modulates cellular glycosphingolipid and cholesterol transport. May play a role in the internalization and endosomal trafficking of various LRP1 ligands, such as PSAP. Increases cellular levels of GTP-bound ARF6.

Serine/threonine kinase that plays a key role in M phase by acting as a regulator of mitosis entry and maintenance. Acts by promoting the inactivation of protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) during M phase: does not directly inhibit PP2A but acts by mediating phosphorylation and subsequent activation of ARPP19 and ENSA at 'Ser- 62' and 'Ser-67', respectively. ARPP19 and ENSA are phosphatase inhibitors that specifically inhibit the PPP2R2D (PR55-delta) subunit of PP2A. Inactivation of PP2A during M phase is essential to keep cyclin-B1-CDK1 activity high. Following DNA damage, it is also involved in checkpoint recovery by being inhibited. Phosphorylates histone protein in vitro; however such activity is unsure in vivo. May be involved in megakaryocyte differentiation.

Glycosyltransferase which elongates the O-linked glucose attached to EGF-like repeats in the extracellular domain of Notch proteins by catalyzing the addition of xylose.

Transfers the glycosyl residue from UDP-Glc to the non- reducing end of alpha-1,4-glucan.

Transfers the glycosyl residue from UDP-Glc to the non- reducing end of alpha-1,4-glucan

Transcriptional repressor that binds the GZF1 responsive element (GRE) (consensus: 5'-TGCGCN[TG][CA]TATA-3'). May be regulating VSX2/HOX10 expression.

Histones H1 are necessary for the condensation of nucleosome chains into higher-order structures. The histones H1.0 are found in cells that are in terminal stages of differentiation or that have low rates of cell division

Histone H1 protein binds to linker DNA between nucleosomes forming the macromolecular structure known as the chromatin fiber. Histones H1 are necessary for the condensation of nucleosome chains into higher-order structured fibers. Acts also as a regulator of individual gene transcription through chromatin remodeling, nucleosome spacing and DNA methylation (By similarity).

NAD-dependent oxidoreductase with broad substrate specificity that shows both oxidative and reductive activity (in vitro). Has 17- beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity towards various steroids (in vitro). Converts 5-alpha-androstan-3-alpha,17-beta-diol to androsterone and estradiol to estrone (in vitro). Has 3-alpha-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity towards androsterone (in vitro). Has retinol dehydrogenase activity towards all-trans-retinol (in vitro). Can convert androsterone to epi-androsterone. Androsterone is first oxidized to 5-alpha-androstane-3,17-dione and then reduced to epi- andosterone. Can act on both C-19 and C-21 3-alpha-hydroxysteroids.

May play a key role in the control of gene expression during oogenesis and early embryogenesis, presumably through the perturbation of chromatin structure. Essential for meiotic maturation of germinal vesicle-stage oocytes. The somatic type linker histone H1c is rapidly replaced by H1oo in a donor nucleus transplanted into an oocyte. The greater mobility of H1oo as compared to H1c may contribute to this rapid replacement and increased instability of the embryonic chromatin structure. The rapid replacement of H1c with H1oo may play an important role in nuclear remodeling (By similarity).

Essential for normal spermatogenesis and male fertility. Required for proper cell restructuring and DNA condensation during the elongation phase of spermiogenesis. Involved in the histone-protamine transition of sperm chromatin and the subsequent production of functional sperm. Binds both double-stranded and single- stranded DNA, ATP and protamine-1.

Testis-specific histone H1 that forms less compacted chromatin compared to other H1 histone subtypes. Formation of more relaxed chromatin may be required to promote chromatin architecture required for proper chromosome regulation during meiosis, such as homologous recombination. Histones H1 act as linkers that bind to nucleosomes and compact polynucleosomes into a higher-order chromatin configuration (Probable).

Histones H1 are necessary for the condensation of nucleosome chains into higher-order structures

Core component of nucleosome. Nucleosomes wrap and compact DNA into chromatin, limiting DNA accessibility to the cellular machineries which require DNA as a template. Histones thereby play a central role in transcription regulation, DNA repair, DNA replication and chromosomal stability. DNA accessibility is regulated via a complex set of post-translational modifications of histones, also called histone code, and nucleosome remodeling

Atypical histone H2A which can replace conventional H2A in some nucleosomes and is associated with active transcription and mRNA processing. Nucleosomes wrap and compact DNA into chromatin, limiting DNA accessibility to the cellular machineries which require DNA as a template. Histones thereby play a central role in transcription regulation, DNA repair, DNA replication and chromosomal stability. Nucleosomes containing this histone are less rigid and organize less DNA than canonical nucleosomes in vivo. They are enriched in actively transcribed genes and associate with the elongating form of RNA polymerase. They associate with spliceosome components and are required for mRNA splicing.

Atypical histone H2A which can replace conventional H2A in some nucleosomes and is associated with active transcription and mRNA processing. Nucleosomes wrap and compact DNA into chromatin, limiting DNA accessibility to the cellular machineries which require DNA as a template. Histones thereby play a central role in transcription regulation, DNA repair, DNA replication and chromosomal stability. Nucleosomes containing this histone are less rigid and organize less DNA than canonical nucleosomes in vivo. They are enriched in actively transcribed genes and associate with the elongating form of RNA polymerase. They associate with spliceosome components and are required for mRNA splicing. May participate in spermatogenesis.

Core component of nucleosome. Nucleosomes wrap and compact DNA into chromatin, limiting DNA accessibility to the cellular machineries which require DNA as a template. Histones thereby play a central role in transcription regulation, DNA repair, DNA replication and chromosomal stability. DNA accessibility is regulated via a complex set of post-translational modifications of histones, also called histone code, and nucleosome remodeling.

Variant histone H2A which replaces conventional H2A in a subset of nucleosomes. Nucleosomes wrap and compact DNA into chromatin, limiting DNA accessibility to the cellular machineries which require DNA as a template. Histones thereby play a central role in transcription regulation, DNA repair, DNA replication and chromosomal stability. DNA accessibility is regulated via a complex set of post- translational modifications of histones, also called histone code, and nucleosome remodeling. May be involved in the formation of constitutive heterochromatin. May be required for chromosome segregation during cell division (By similarity).

Variant histone H2A which replaces conventional H2A in a subset of nucleosomes where it represses transcription. Nucleosomes wrap and compact DNA into chromatin, limiting DNA accessibility to the cellular machineries which require DNA as a template. Histones thereby play a central role in transcription regulation, DNA repair, DNA replication and chromosomal stability. DNA accessibility is regulated via a complex set of post-translational modifications of histones, also called histone code, and nucleosome remodeling. May be involved in stable X chromosome inactivation.

Variant histone H2A which replaces conventional H2A in a subset of nucleosomes. Nucleosomes wrap and compact DNA into chromatin, limiting DNA accessibility to the cellular machineries which require DNA as a template. Histones thereby play a central role in transcription regulation, DNA repair, DNA replication and chromosomal stability. DNA accessibility is regulated via a complex set of post- translational modifications of histones, also called histone code, and nucleosome remodeling. Required for checkpoint-mediated arrest of cell cycle progression in response to low doses of ionizing radiation and for efficient repair of DNA double strand breaks (DSBs) specifically when modified by C-terminal phosphorylation.

Variant histone H2A which replaces conventional H2A in a subset of nucleosomes where it represses transcription. Nucleosomes wrap and compact DNA into chromatin, limiting DNA accessibility to the cellular machineries which require DNA as a template. Histones thereby play a central role in transcription regulation, DNA repair, DNA replication and chromosomal stability. DNA accessibility is regulated via a complex set of post-translational modifications of histones, also called histone code, and nucleosome remodeling. Involved in stable X chromosome inactivation. Inhibits the binding of transcription factors, including NF-kappa-B, and interferes with the activity of remodeling SWI/SNF complexes. Inhibits histone acetylation by EP300 and recruits class I HDACs, which induces a hypoacetylated state of chromatin.

Variant histone H2A which replaces conventional H2A in a subset of nucleosomes. Nucleosomes wrap and compact DNA into chromatin, limiting DNA accessibility to the cellular machineries which require DNA as a template. Histones thereby play a central role in transcription regulation, DNA repair, DNA replication and chromosomal stability. DNA accessibility is regulated via a complex set of post- translational modifications of histones, also called histone code, and nucleosome remodeling. May be involved in the formation of constitutive heterochromatin. May be required for chromosome segregation during cell division.

Variant histone specifically required to direct the transformation of dissociating nucleosomes to protamine in male germ cells (By similarity). Entirely replaces classical histone H2B prior nucleosome to protamine transition and probably acts as a nucleosome dissociating factor that creates a more dynamic chromatin, facilitating the large-scale exchange of histones (By similarity). Core component of nucleosome (By similarity). Nucleosomes wrap and compact DNA into chromatin, limiting DNA accessibility to the cellular machineries which require DNA as a template (By similarity). Histones thereby play a central role in transcription regulation, DNA repair, DNA replication and chromosomal stability (By similarity). DNA accessibility is regulated via a complex set of post-translational modifications of histones, also called histone code, and nucleosome remodeling (By similarity). Also found in fat cells, its function and the presence of post-translational modifications specific to such cells are still unclear.

Atypical histone H2B. Nucleosomes containing it are structurally and dynamically indistinguishable from those containing conventional H2B. However, unlike conventional H2B, does not recruit chromosome condensation factors and does not participate in the assembly of mitotic chromosomes. May be important for telomere function.

Variant histone H3 which replaces conventional H3 in a wide range of nucleosomes in active genes. Constitutes the predominant form of histone H3 in non-dividing cells and is incorporated into chromatin independently of DNA synthesis. Deposited at sites of nucleosomal displacement throughout transcribed genes, suggesting that it represents an epigenetic imprint of transcriptionally active chromatin. Nucleosomes wrap and compact DNA into chromatin, limiting DNA accessibility to the cellular machineries which require DNA as a template. Histones thereby play a central role in transcription regulation, DNA repair, DNA replication and chromosomal stability. DNA accessibility is regulated via a complex set of post-translational modifications of histones, also called histone code, and nucleosome remodeling.

Core component of nucleosome. Nucleosomes wrap and compact DNA into chromatin, limiting DNA accessibility to the cellular machineries which require DNA as a template. Histones thereby play a central role in transcription regulation, DNA repair, DNA replication and chromosomal stability. DNA accessibility is regulated via a complex set of post-translational modifications of histones, also called histone code, and nucleosome remodeling. Hominid-specific H3.5/H3F3C preferentially colocalizes with euchromatin, and it is associated with actively transcribed genes.

Primate-specific variant histone H3, which constitutes a core component of nucleosomes. Histone H3.Y-containing nucleosomes accumulate around transcription start sites and have flexible DNA ends, suggesting that they form relaxed chromatin that allows transcription factor access. Histone H1 binds less efficiently to histone H3.Y-containing nucleosomes. Nucleosomes wrap and compact DNA into chromatin, limiting DNA accessibility to the cellular machineries which require DNA as a template. Histones thereby play a central role in transcription regulation, DNA repair, DNA replication and chromosomal stability. DNA accessibility is regulated via a complex set of post- translational modifications of histones, also called histone code, and nucleosome remodeling (Probable).

Primate-specific variant histone H3, which constitutes a core component of nucleosomes. Nucleosomes wrap and compact DNA into chromatin, limiting DNA accessibility to the cellular machineries which require DNA as a template. Histones thereby play a central role in transcription regulation, DNA repair, DNA replication and chromosomal stability. DNA accessibility is regulated via a complex set of post-translational modifications of histones, also called histone code, and nucleosome remodeling (Probable).

Core component of nucleosome. Nucleosomes wrap and compact DNA into chromatin, limiting DNA accessibility to the cellular machineries which require DNA as a template. Histones thereby play a central role in transcription regulation, DNA repair, DNA replication and chromosomal stability. DNA accessibility is regulated via a complex set of post-translational modifications of histones, also called histone code, and nucleosome remodeling (By similarity).

6-O-sulfation enzyme which catalyzes the transfer of sulfate from 3'-phosphoadenosine 5'-phosphosulfate (PAPS) to position 6 of the N-sulfoglucosamine residue (GlcNS) of heparan sulfate. Critical for normal neuronal development where it may play a role in neuron branching. May also play a role in limb development. May prefer iduronic acid.

6-O-sulfation enzyme which catalyzes the transfer of sulfate from 3'-phosphoadenosine 5'-phosphosulfate (PAPS) to position 6 of the N-sulfoglucosamine residue (GlcNS) of heparan sulfate.

6-O-sulfation enzyme which catalyzes the transfer of sulfate from 3'-phosphoadenosine 5'-phosphosulfate (PAPS) to position 6 of the N-sulfoglucosamine residue (GlcNS) of heparan sulfate

Cleaves the alpha-chain at multiple sites and the beta-chain between 'Lys-53' and 'Lys-54' but not the gamma-chain of fibrinogen and therefore does not initiate the formation of the fibrin clot and does not cause the fibrinolysis directly. It does not cleave (activate) prothrombin and plasminogen but converts the inactive single chain urinary plasminogen activator (pro-urokinase) to the active two chain form. Activates coagulation factor VII. May function as a tumor suppressor negatively regulating cell proliferation and cell migration.

RNA-binding protein that plays a role in the regulation of transcription, pre-mRNA splicing and mRNA translation. Negatively regulates DNA-binding activity of the transcription factor MEF2C in myocardial cells in response to mechanical stress (By similarity). Plays a role in pre-mRNA splicing regulation. Binds (via C-terminus) to poly(U) RNA. Involved in mRNA translation regulation, probably at the initiation step. Seems to play a role in PML-nuclear bodies formation.

[Isoform 1]: Catalyzes the third of the four reactions of the long-chain fatty acids elongation cycle. This endoplasmic reticulum- bound enzymatic process, allows the addition of two carbons to the chain of long- and very long-chain fatty acids/VLCFAs per cycle. This enzyme catalyzes the dehydration of the 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA intermediate into trans-2,3-enoyl-CoA, within each cycle of fatty acid elongation. Thereby, it participates in the production of VLCFAs of different chain lengths that are involved in multiple biological processes as precursors of membrane lipids and lipid mediators.

Catalyzes the third of the very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFA) elongation four-step cycle (condensation, reduction, dehydration, and reduction). This endoplasmic reticulum-elongation process is characterized by the addition of two carbons to the lipid chain through each cycle. This enzyme catalyzes the dehydration of the 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA intermediate into trans-2,3-enoyl-CoA, within each cycle of elongation. Therefore, it participates in the production of various VLCFAs involved in multiple biological processes as precursors of membrane lipids and lipid mediators.

Catalyzes the third of the four reactions of the long-chain fatty acids elongation cycle. This endoplasmic reticulum-bound enzymatic process, allows the addition of two carbons to the chain of long- and very long-chain fatty acids/VLCFAs per cycle. This enzyme catalyzes the dehydration of the 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA intermediate into trans-2,3-enoyl-CoA, within each cycle of fatty acid elongation. Thereby, it participates in the production of VLCFAs of different chain lengths that are involved in multiple biological processes as precursors of membrane lipids and lipid mediators. May be involved in Rac1-signaling pathways leading to the modulation of gene expression. Promotes insulin receptor/INSR autophosphorylation and is involved in INSR internalization.

Catalyzes the third of the four reactions of the long-chain fatty acids elongation cycle. This endoplasmic reticulum-bound enzymatic process, allows the addition of two carbons to the chain of long- and very long-chain fatty acids/VLCFAs per cycle. This enzyme catalyzes the dehydration of the 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA intermediate into trans-2,3-enoyl-CoA, within each cycle of fatty acid elongation. Thereby, it participates in the production of VLCFAs of different chain lengths that are involved in multiple biological processes as precursors of membrane lipids and lipid mediators.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase involved in Golgi membrane fusion and regulation of small GTPases. Acts as a regulator of Golgi membrane dynamics during the cell cycle: recruited to Golgi membrane by Rab proteins and regulates postmitotic Golgi membrane fusion. Acts by mediating ubiquitination during mitotic Golgi disassembly, ubiquitination serving as a signal for Golgi reassembly later, after cell division. Specifically interacts with GTP-bound RAC1, mediating ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of active RAC1, thereby playing a role in host defense against pathogens. May also act as a transcription regulator via its interaction with RARB.

Peroxisomal 2-OH acyl-CoA lyase involved in the cleavage (C1 removal) reaction in the fatty acid alpha-oxydation in a thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)-dependent manner. Involved in the degradation of 3-methyl-branched fatty acids like phytanic acid and the shortening of 2-hydroxy long- chain fatty acids. Plays a significant role in the biosynthesis of heptadecanal in the liver (By similarity).

Endoplasmic reticulum 2-OH acyl-CoA lyase involved in the cleavage (C1 removal) reaction in the fatty acid alpha-oxydation in a thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)-dependent manner. Involved in the phytosphingosine degradation pathway.

Histone demethylase that specifically demethylates both mono- and dimethylated 'Lys-9' of histone H3. May act as a transcription regulator controlling hair biology (via targeting of collagens), neural activity, and cell cycle.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination of several tyrosine-phosphorylated Src substrates, including CDH1, CTTN and DOK1 (By similarity). Targets CDH1 for endocytosis and degradation (By similarity). Associated component of the WMM complex, a complex that mediates N6-methyladenosine (m6A) methylation of RNAs, a modification that plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing and RNA processing. Its function in the WMM complex is unknown.

Transcription factor that plays an essential role in both trophoblast giant cell differentiation and in cardiac morphogenesis (By similarity). Binds the DNA sequence 5'-NRTCTG-3' (non-canonical E-box) (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional repressor of SOX15 (By similarity). In the adult, could be required for ongoing expression of cardiac-specific genes.

Essential for cardiac morphogenesis, particularly for the formation of the right ventricle and of the aortic arch arteries. Required for vascular development and regulation of angiogenesis, possibly through a VEGF signaling pathway. Also plays an important role in limb development, particularly in the establishment of anterior- posterior polarization, acting as an upstream regulator of sonic hedgehog (SHH) induction in the limb bud. Is involved in the development of branchial arches, which give rise to unique structures in the head and neck. Binds DNA on E-box consensus sequence 5'-CANNTG- 3' (By similarity).

Broad substrate specificity (S)-2-hydroxy-acid oxidase that preferentially oxidizes glycolate. The glyoxylate produced by the oxidation of glycolate can then be utilized by alanine-glyoxylate aminotransferase for the peroxisomal synthesis of glycine; this pathway appears to be an important step for the detoxification of glyoxylate which, if allowed to accumulate, may be metabolized to oxalate with formation of kidney stones. Can also catalyze the oxidation of glyoxylate, and long chain hydroxyacids such as 2-hydroxyhexadecanoate and 2-hydroxyoctanoate, albeit with much lower catalytic efficiency. Active in vitro with the artificial electron acceptor 2,6-dichlorophenolindophenol (DCIP), but O2 is believed to be the physiological electron acceptor, leading to the production of H2O2. Is not active on L-lactate and 2-hydroxybutanoate.

Oxidase that catalyzes the oxidation of medium and long chain hydroxyacids such as 2-hydroxyhexadecanoate and 2-hydroxyoctanoate, to the correspondong 2-oxoacids. Its role in the oxidation of 2-hydroxy fatty acids may contribute to the general pathway of fatty acid alpha-oxidation (Probable). Active in vitro with the artificial electron acceptor 2,6-dichlorophenolindophenol (DCIP), but O2 is believed to be the physiological electron acceptor, leading to the production of H2O2. Is not active on glycolate, glyoxylate, L- lactate and 2-hydroxybutanoate.

Originally identified as neuronal protein that specifically associates with HTT/huntingtin and the binding is enhanced by an expanded polyglutamine repeat within HTT possibly affecting HAP1 interaction properties. Both HTT and HAP1 are involved in intracellular trafficking and HAP1 is proposed to link HTT to motor proteins and/or transport cargos. Seems to play a role in vesicular transport within neurons and axons such as from early endosomes to late endocytic compartments and to promote neurite outgrowth. The vesicular transport function via association with microtubule-dependent transporters can be attenuated by association with mutant HTT. Involved in the axonal transport of BDNF and its activity-dependent secretion; the function seems to involve HTT, DCTN1 and a complex with SORT1. Involved in APP trafficking and seems to facilitate APP anterograde transport and membrane insertion thereby possibly reducing processing into amyloid beta. Involved in delivery of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA(A)) receptors to synapses; the function is dependent on kinesin motor protein KIF5 and is disrupted by HTT with expanded polyglutamine repeat. Involved in regulation of autophagosome motility by promoting efficient retrograde axonal transport. Seems to be involved in regulation of membrane receptor recycling and degradation, and respective signal transduction, including GABA(A) receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, EGFR, IP3 receptor and androgen receptor. Among others suggested to be involved in control of feeding behavior (involving hypothalamic GABA(A) receptors), cerebellar and brainstem development (involving AHI1 and NTRK1/TrkA), postnatal neurogenesis (involving hypothalamic NTRK2/TrkB), and ITPR1/InsP3R1-mediated Ca(2+) release (involving HTT and possibly the effect of mutant HTT). Via association with DCTN1/dynactin p150-glued and HTT/huntingtin involved in cytoplasmic retention of REST in neurons. May be involved in ciliogenesis. Involved in regulation of exocytosis. Seems to be involved in formation of cytoplasmic inclusion bodies (STBs). In case of anomalous expression of TBP, can sequester a subset of TBP into STBs; sequestration is enhanced by an expanded polyglutamine repeat within TBP. HAP1-containing STBs have been proposed to play a protective role against neurodegeneration in Huntigton disease (HD) and spinocerebellar ataxia 17 (SCA17).

Enhances PDGFA-stimulated cell growth in fibroblasts, but inhibits the mitogenic effect of PDGFB.

RAB5A effector molecule that is involved in vesicular trafficking of early endosomes. Mediates the recruitment of HTT by RAB5A onto early endosomes. The HTT- F8A1/F8A2/F8A3-RAB5A complex stimulates early endosomal interaction with actin filaments and inhibits interaction with microtubules, leading to the reduction of endosome motility.

Acts as a central player within a network of stress response pathways promoting cellular adaptability. The E3 ligase HUWE1 assists HAPSTR1 in controlling stress signaling and in turn, HUWE1 feeds back to promote the degradation of HAPSTR1. HAPSTR1 represents a central coordination mechanism for stress response programs. Functions as a negative regulator of TP53/P53 in the cellular response to telomere erosion and probably also DNA damage. May attenuate p53/TP53 activation through the E3 ubiquitin ligase HUWE1.

Transposase-derived protein that may have nuclease activity (Potential). Does not have transposase activity.

Catalyzes the ATP-dependent ligation of histidine to the 3'- end of its cognate tRNA, via the formation of an aminoacyl-adenylate intermediate (His-AMP). Plays a role in axon guidance.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that phosphorylates histone H3 at 'Thr-3' (H3T3ph) during mitosis. May act through H3T3ph to both position and modulate activation of AURKB and other components of the chromosomal passenger complex (CPC) at centromeres to ensure proper chromatid cohesion, metaphase alignment and normal progression through the cell cycle.

Histone acetyltransferase that plays a role in different biological processes including cell cycle progression, glucose metabolism, histone production or DNA damage repair. Coordinates histone production and acetylation via H4 promoter binding. Acetylates histone H4 at 'Lys-5' (H4K5ac) and 'Lys-12' (H4K12ac) and, to a lesser extent, histone H2A at 'Lys-5' (H2AK5ac). Drives H4 production by chromatin binding to support chromatin replication and acetylation. Since transcription of H4 genes is tightly coupled to S-phase, plays an important role in S-phase entry and progression. Promotes homologous recombination in DNA repair by facilitating histone turnover and incorporation of acetylated H3.3 at sites of double-strand breaks. In addition, acetylates other substrates such as chromatin-related proteins. Acetylates also RSAD2 which mediates the interaction of ubiquitin ligase UBE4A with RSAD2 leading to RSAD2 ubiquitination and subsequent degradation.

Contributes to mitotic spindle assembly, maintenance of centrosome integrity and completion of cytokinesis as part of the HAUS augmin-like complex.

Contributes to mitotic spindle assembly, maintenance of centrosome integrity and completion of cytokinesis as part of the HAUS augmin-like complex. Promotes the nucleation of microtubules from the spindle through recruitment of NEDD1 and gamma-tubulin.

Phosphatidylserine receptor that plays an important functional role in regulatory B-cells homeostasis including generation, expansion and suppressor functions (By similarity). As P- selectin/SELPLG ligand, plays a specialized role in activated but not naive T-cell trafficking during inflammatory responses. Controls thereby T-cell accumulation in the inflamed central nervous system (CNS) and the induction of autoimmune disease. Regulates also expression of various anti- inflammatory cytokines and co-inhibitory ligands including IL10 (By similarity). Acts as regulator of T-cell proliferation (By similarity). May play a role in kidney injury and repair.

Cell surface receptor implicated in modulating innate and adaptive immune responses. Generally accepted to have an inhibiting function. Reports on stimulating functions suggest that the activity may be influenced by the cellular context and/or the respective ligand. Regulates macrophage activation. Inhibits T-helper type 1 lymphocyte (Th1)-mediated auto- and alloimmune responses and promotes immunological tolerance. In CD8+ cells attenuates TCR-induced signaling, specifically by blocking NF-kappaB and NFAT promoter activities resulting in the loss of IL-2 secretion. The function may implicate its association with LCK proposed to impair phosphorylation of TCR subunits, and/or LGALS9-dependent recruitment of PTPRC to the immunological synapse. In contrast, shown to activate TCR-induced signaling in T-cells probably implicating ZAP70, LCP2, LCK and FYN (By similarity). Expressed on Treg cells can inhibit Th17 cell responses. Receptor for LGALS9. Binding to LGALS9 is believed to result in suppression of T-cell responses; the resulting apoptosis of antigen- specific cells may implicate HAVCR2 phosphorylation and disruption of its association with BAG6. Binding to LGALS9 is proposed to be involved in innate immune response to intracellular pathogens. Expressed on Th1 cells interacts with LGALS9 expressed on Mycobacterium tuberculosis- infected macrophages to stimulate antibactericidal activity including IL-1 beta secretion and to restrict intracellular bacterial growth (By similarity). However, the function as receptor for LGALS9 has been challenged. Also reported to enhance CD8+ T-cell responses to an acute infection such as by Listeria monocytogenes (By similarity). Receptor for phosphatidylserine (PtSer); PtSer-binding is calcium-dependent. May recognize PtSer on apoptotic cells leading to their phagocytosis. Mediates the engulfment of apoptotic cells by dendritic cells. Expressed on T-cells, promotes conjugation but not engulfment of apoptotic cells. Expressed on dendritic cells (DCs) positively regulates innate immune response and in synergy with Toll- like receptors promotes secretion of TNF-alpha. In tumor-imfiltrating DCs suppresses nucleic acid-mediated innate immune repsonse by interaction with HMGB1 and interfering with nucleic acid-sensing and trafficking of nucleid acids to endosomes (By similarity). Expressed on natural killer (NK) cells acts as a coreceptor to enhance IFN-gamma production in response to LGALS9. In contrast, shown to suppress NK cell-mediated cytotoxicity. Negatively regulates NK cell function in LPS-induced endotoxic shock (By similarity).

Recruits the Arp2/3 complex to the cell cortex and regulates reorganization of the cortical actin cytoskeleton via its interaction with KCNC3 and the Arp2/3 complex. Slows down the rate of inactivation of KCNC3 channels. Promotes GNA13-mediated cell migration. Involved in the clathrin-mediated endocytosis pathway. May be involved in internalization of ABC transporters such as ABCB11. May inhibit CASP9 and CASP3. Promotes cell survival. May regulate intracellular calcium pools.

The zeta chain is an alpha-type chain of mammalian embryonic hemoglobin

Involved in oxygen transport from the lung to the various peripheral tissues

Involved in oxygen transport from the lung to the various peripheral tissues.

Growth factor that mediates its effects via EGFR, ERBB2 and ERBB4. Required for normal cardiac valve formation and normal heart function. Promotes smooth muscle cell proliferation. May be involved in macrophage-mediated cellular proliferation. It is mitogenic for fibroblasts, but not endothelial cells. It is able to bind EGF receptor/EGFR with higher affinity than EGF itself and is a far more potent mitogen for smooth muscle cells than EGF. Also acts as a diphtheria toxin receptor

The epsilon chain is a beta-type chain of early mammalian embryonic hemoglobin

Gamma chains make up the fetal hemoglobin F, in combination with alpha chains.

Transcriptional repressor that binds to the promoter region of target genes. Plays a role in the regulation of the cell cycle and of the Wnt pathway. Binds preferentially to the sequence 5'- TTCATTCATTCA-3'. Binding to the histone H1.0 promoter is enhanced by interaction with RB1. Disrupts the interaction between DNA and TCF4.

Cotranslational quality control factor involved in the No-Go Decay (NGD) pathway. In the presence of ABCE1 and PELO, is required for 48S complex formation from 80S ribosomes and dissociation of vacant 80S ribosomes. Together with PELO and in presence of ABCE1, recognizes stalled ribosomes and promotes dissociation of elongation complexes assembled on non-stop mRNAs; this triggers endonucleolytic cleavage of the mRNA, a mechanism to release non-functional ribosomes and to degrade damaged mRNAs as part of the No-Go Decay (NGD) pathway.

Acts as a receptor for L-lactate and mediates its anti- lipolytic effect through a G(i)-protein-mediated pathway.

Acts as a high affinity receptor for both nicotinic acid (also known as niacin) and (D)-beta-hydroxybutyrate and mediates increased adiponectin secretion and decreased lipolysis through G(i)- protein-mediated inhibition of adenylyl cyclase. This pharmacological effect requires nicotinic acid doses that are much higher than those provided by a normal diet. Mediates nicotinic acid-induced apoptosis in mature neutrophils. Receptor activation by nicotinic acid results in reduced cAMP levels which may affect activity of cAMP-dependent protein kinase A and phosphorylation of target proteins, leading to neutrophil apoptosis. The rank order of potency for the displacement of nicotinic acid binding is 5-methyl pyrazole-3-carboxylic acid = pyridine-3-acetic acid > acifran > 5-methyl nicotinic acid = acipimox >> nicotinuric acid = nicotinamide.

Receptor for 3-OH-octanoid acid mediates a negative feedback regulation of adipocyte lipolysis to counteract prolipolytic influences under conditions of physiological or pathological increases in beta- oxidation rates. Acts as a low affinity receptor for nicotinic acid. This pharmacological effect requires nicotinic acid doses that are much higher than those provided by a normal diet.

Mitochondrial dehydrogenase involved in pathways of fatty acid, branched-chain amino acid and steroid metabolism. Acts as (S)-3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase in mitochondrial fatty acid beta-oxidation, a major degradation pathway of fatty acids. Catalyzes the third step in the beta-oxidation cycle, namely the reversible conversion of (S)-3-hydroxyacyl-CoA to 3-ketoacyl-CoA. Preferentially accepts straight medium- and short-chain acyl-CoA substrates with highest efficiency for (3S)-hydroxybutanoyl-CoA. Acts as 3-hydroxy-2-methylbutyryl-CoA dehydrogenase in branched-chain amino acid catabolic pathway. Catalyzes the oxidation of 3-hydroxy-2- methylbutanoyl-CoA into 2-methyl-3-oxobutanoyl-CoA, a step in isoleucine degradation pathway. Has hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity toward steroid hormones and bile acids. Catalyzes the oxidation of 3alpha-, 17beta-, 20beta- and 21-hydroxysteroids and 7alpha- and 7beta-hydroxy bile acids. Oxidizes allopregnanolone/brexanolone at the 3alpha-hydroxyl group, which is known to be critical for the activation of gamma-aminobutyric acid receptors (GABAARs) chloride channel. Has phospholipase C-like activity toward cardiolipin and its oxidized species. Likely oxidizes the 2'-hydroxyl in the head group of cardiolipin to form a ketone intermediate that undergoes nucleophilic attack by water and fragments into diacylglycerol, dihydroxyacetone and orthophosphate. Has higher affinity for cardiolipin with oxidized fatty acids and may degrade these species during the oxidative stress response to protect cells from apoptosis. By interacting with intracellular amyloid-beta, it may contribute to the neuronal dysfunction associated with Alzheimer disease (AD). Essential for structural and functional integrity of mitochondria.

Mitochondrial fatty acid beta-oxidation enzyme that catalyzes the third step of the beta-oxidation cycle for medium and short-chain 3-hydroxy fatty acyl-CoAs (C4 to C10). Plays a role in the control of insulin secretion by inhibiting the activation of glutamate dehydrogenase 1 (GLUD1), an enzyme that has an important role in regulating amino acid-induced insulin secretion (By similarity).

Transcriptional coregulator (By similarity). Involved in control of the cell cycle. Also antagonizes transactivation by ZBTB17 and GABP2; represses ZBTB17 activation of the p15(INK4b) promoter and inhibits its ability to recruit p300. Coactivator for EGR2 and GABP2. Tethers the chromatin modifying Set1/Ash2 histone H3 'Lys-4' methyltransferase (H3K4me) and Sin3 histone deacetylase (HDAC) complexes (involved in the activation and repression of transcription, respectively) together. Component of a THAP1/THAP3-HCFC1-OGT complex that is required for the regulation of the transcriptional activity of RRM1. As part of the NSL complex it may be involved in acetylation of nucleosomal histone H4 on several lysine residues. Recruits KMT2E/MLL5 to E2F1 responsive promoters promoting transcriptional activation and thereby facilitates G1 to S phase transition. Modulates expression of homeobox protein PDX1, perhaps acting in concert with transcription factor E2F1, thereby regulating pancreatic beta-cell growth and glucose-stimulated insulin secretion (By similarity). May negatively modulate transcriptional activity of FOXO3 (By similarity).

Non-receptor tyrosine-protein kinase found in hematopoietic cells that transmits signals from cell surface receptors and plays an important role in the regulation of innate immune responses, including neutrophil, monocyte, macrophage and mast cell functions, phagocytosis, cell survival and proliferation, cell adhesion and migration. Acts downstream of receptors that bind the Fc region of immunoglobulins, such as FCGR1A and FCGR2A, but also CSF3R, PLAUR, the receptors for IFNG, IL2, IL6 and IL8, and integrins, such as ITGB1 and ITGB2. During the phagocytic process, mediates mobilization of secretory lysosomes, degranulation, and activation of NADPH oxidase to bring about the respiratory burst. Plays a role in the release of inflammatory molecules. Promotes reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and actin polymerization, formation of podosomes and cell protrusions. Inhibits TP73-mediated transcription activation and TP73-mediated apoptosis. Phosphorylates CBL in response to activation of immunoglobulin gamma Fc region receptors. Phosphorylates ADAM15, BCR, ELMO1, FCGR2A, GAB1, GAB2, RAPGEF1, STAT5B, TP73, VAV1 and WAS.

Substrate of the antigen receptor-coupled tyrosine kinase. Plays a role in antigen receptor signaling for both clonal expansion and deletion in lymphoid cells. May also be involved in the regulation of gene expression

Hyperpolarization-activated ion channel exhibiting weak selectivity for potassium over sodium ions. Contributes to the native pacemaker currents in heart (If) and in neurons (Ih). May mediate responses to sour stimuli.

Hyperpolarization-activated ion channel exhibiting weak selectivity for potassium over sodium ions. Contributes to the native pacemaker currents in heart (If) and in neurons (Ih). Can also transport ammonium in the distal nephron. Produces a large instantaneous current. Modulated by intracellular chloride ions and pH; acidic pH shifts the activation to more negative voltages (By similarity).

Hyperpolarization-activated potassium channel. May also facilitate the permeation of sodium ions.

Hyperpolarization-activated ion channel with very slow activation and inactivation exhibiting weak selectivity for potassium over sodium ions. Contributes to the native pacemaker currents in heart (If) that regulate the rhythm of heart beat. May contribute to the native pacemaker currents in neurons (Ih). May mediate responses to sour stimuli.

Transmembrane adapter protein which associates with KLRK1 to form an activation receptor KLRK1-HCST in lymphoid and myeloid cells; this receptor plays a major role in triggering cytotoxicity against target cells expressing cell surface ligands such as MHC class I chain- related MICA and MICB, and UL16-binding proteins (ULBPs); these ligands are up-regulated by stress conditions and pathological state such as viral infection and tumor transformation. Functions as docking site for PI3-kinase PIK3R1 and GRB2. Interaction of ULBPs with KLRK1-HCST triggers calcium mobilization and activation of the PIK3R1, MAP2K/ERK, and JAK2/STAT5 signaling pathways. Both PIK3R1 and GRB2 are required for full KLRK1-HCST-mediated activation and ultimate killing of target cells. In NK cells, KLRK1-HCST signaling directly induces cytotoxicity and enhances cytokine production initiated via DAP12/TYROBP-associated receptors. In T-cells, it provides primarily costimulation for TCR- induced signals. KLRK1-HCST receptor plays a role in immune surveillance against tumors and is required for cytolysis of tumors cells; indeed, melanoma cells that do not express KLRK1 ligands escape from immune surveillance mediated by NK cells.

Polyamine deacetylase (PDAC), which acts preferentially on N(8)-acetylspermidine, and also on acetylcadaverine and acetylputrescine. Exhibits attenuated catalytic activity toward N(1),N(8)-diacetylspermidine and very low activity, if any, toward N(1)-acetylspermidine. Histone deacetylase activity has been observed in vitro. Has also been shown to be involved in MSH2 deacetylation. The physiological relevance of protein/histone deacetylase activity is unclear and could be very weak. May play a role in the promotion of late stages of autophagy, possibly autophagosome- lysosome fusion and/or lysosomal exocytosis in neuroblastoma cells. May play a role in homologous recombination. May promote DNA mismatch repair.

Responsible for the deacetylation of lysine residues on the N-terminal part of the core histones (H2A, H2B, H3 and H4). Histone deacetylation gives a tag for epigenetic repression and plays an important role in transcriptional regulation, cell cycle progression and developmental events. Histone deacetylases act via the formation of large multiprotein complexes.

Histone deacetylase that catalyzes the deacetylation of lysine residues on the N-terminal part of the core histones (H2A, H2B, H3 and H4). Histone deacetylation gives a tag for epigenetic repression and plays an important role in transcriptional regulation, cell cycle progression and developmental events. Histone deacetylases act via the formation of large multiprotein complexes. Also functions as deacetylase for non-histone targets, such as NR1D2, RELA, SP1, SP3 and TSHZ3. Deacetylates SP proteins, SP1 and SP3, and regulates their function. Component of the BRG1-RB1-HDAC1 complex, which negatively regulates the CREST-mediated transcription in resting neurons. Upon calcium stimulation, HDAC1 is released from the complex and CREBBP is recruited, which facilitates transcriptional activation. Deacetylates TSHZ3 and regulates its transcriptional repressor activity. Deacetylates 'Lys-310' in RELA and thereby inhibits the transcriptional activity of NF-kappa-B. Deacetylates NR1D2 and abrogates the effect of KAT5-mediated relieving of NR1D2 transcription repression activity. Component of a RCOR/GFI/KDM1A/HDAC complex that suppresses, via histone deacetylase (HDAC) recruitment, a number of genes implicated in multilineage blood cell development (By similarity). Involved in CIART-mediated transcriptional repression of the circadian transcriptional activator: CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer (By similarity). Required for the transcriptional repression of circadian target genes, such as PER1, mediated by the large PER complex or CRY1 through histone deacetylation (By similarity). In addition to protein deacetylase activity, also has protein-lysine deacylase activity: acts as a protein decrotonylase by mediating decrotonylation ((2E)-butenoyl) of histones.

Histone deacetylase that catalyzes the deacetylation of lysine residues on the N-terminal part of the core histones (H2A, H2B, H3 and H4). Histone deacetylation gives a tag for epigenetic repression and plays an important role in transcriptional regulation, cell cycle progression and developmental events (By similarity). Histone deacetylases act via the formation of large multiprotein complexes (By similarity). Forms transcriptional repressor complexes by associating with MAD, SIN3, YY1 and N-COR. Component of a RCOR/GFI/KDM1A/HDAC complex that suppresses, via histone deacetylase (HDAC) recruitment, a number of genes implicated in multilineage blood cell development (By similarity). Also deacetylates non-histone targets: deacetylates TSHZ3, thereby regulating its transcriptional repressor activity. May be involved in the transcriptional repression of circadian target genes, such as PER1, mediated by CRY1 through histone deacetylation (By similarity). Involved in MTA1-mediated transcriptional corepression of TFF1 and CDKN1A. In addition to protein deacetylase activity, also acts as protein-lysine deacylase by recognizing other acyl groups: catalyzes removal of (2E)- butenoyl (crotonyl) and 2-hydroxyisobutanoyl (2-hydroxyisobutyryl) acyl groups from lysine residues, leading to protein decrotonylation and de- 2-hydroxyisobutyrylation, respectively.

Histone deacetylase that catalyzes the deacetylation of lysine residues on the N-terminal part of the core histones (H2A, H2B, H3 and H4), and some other non-histone substrates. Histone deacetylation gives a tag for epigenetic repression and plays an important role in transcriptional regulation, cell cycle progression and developmental events. Histone deacetylases act via the formation of large multiprotein complexes. Participates in the BCL6 transcriptional repressor activity by deacetylating the H3 'Lys-27' (H3K27) on enhancer elements, antagonizing EP300 acetyltransferase activity and repressing proximal gene expression. Acts as a molecular chaperone for shuttling phosphorylated NR2C1 to PML bodies for sumoylation (By similarity). Contributes, together with XBP1 isoform 1, to the activation of NFE2L2-mediated HMOX1 transcription factor gene expression in a PI(3)K/mTORC2/Akt-dependent signaling pathway leading to endothelial cell (EC) survival under disturbed flow/oxidative stress. Regulates both the transcriptional activation and repression phases of the circadian clock in a deacetylase activity- independent manner (By similarity). During the activation phase, promotes the accumulation of ubiquitinated BMAL1 at the E-boxes and during the repression phase, blocks FBXL3-mediated CRY1/2 ubiquitination and promotes the interaction of CRY1 and BMAL1 (By similarity). The NCOR1-HDAC3 complex regulates the circadian expression of the core clock gene BMAL1 and the genes involved in lipid metabolism in the liver (By similarity). Also functions as deacetylase for non- histone targets, such as KAT5, MEF2D, MAPK14 and RARA. Serves as a corepressor of RARA, mediating its deacetylation and repression, leading to inhibition of RARE DNA element binding. In association with RARA, plays a role in the repression of microRNA-10a and thereby in the inflammatory response. In addition to protein deacetylase activity, also acts as protein-lysine deacylase by recognizing other acyl groups: catalyzes removal of (2E)-butenoyl (crotonyl) and 2-hydroxyisobutanoyl (2-hydroxyisobutyryl) acyl groups from lysine residues, leading to protein decrotonylation and de-2- hydroxyisobutyrylation, respectively. Catalyzes decrotonylation of MAPRE1/EB1.

Responsible for the deacetylation of lysine residues on the N-terminal part of the core histones (H2A, H2B, H3 and H4). Histone deacetylation gives a tag for epigenetic repression and plays an important role in transcriptional regulation, cell cycle progression and developmental events. Histone deacetylases act via the formation of large multiprotein complexes. Involved in muscle maturation by repressing transcription of myocyte enhancer MEF2C. During muscle differentiation, it shuttles into the cytoplasm, allowing the expression of myocyte enhancer factors. Involved in the MTA1-mediated epigenetic regulation of ESR1 expression in breast cancer. Serves as a corepressor of RARA and causes its deacetylation. In association with RARA, plays a role in the repression of microRNA-10a and thereby in the inflammatory response.

Responsible for the deacetylation of lysine residues on the N-terminal part of the core histones (H2A, H2B, H3 and H4). Histone deacetylation gives a tag for epigenetic repression and plays an important role in transcriptional regulation, cell cycle progression and developmental events. Histone deacetylases act via the formation of large multiprotein complexes. In addition to histones, deacetylates other proteins: plays a central role in microtubule-dependent cell motility by mediating deacetylation of tubulin. Required for cilia disassembly; via deacetylation of alpha-tubulin. Promotes deacetylation of CTTN, leading to actin polymerization, promotion of autophagosome-lysosome fusion and completion of autophagy. Involved in the MTA1-mediated epigenetic regulation of ESR1 expression in breast cancer. In addition to its protein deacetylase activity, plays a key role in the degradation of misfolded proteins: when misfolded proteins are too abundant to be degraded by the chaperone refolding system and the ubiquitin-proteasome, mediates the transport of misfolded proteins to a cytoplasmic juxtanuclear structure called aggresome. Probably acts as an adapter that recognizes polyubiquitinated misfolded proteins and target them to the aggresome, facilitating their clearance by autophagy.

Responsible for the deacetylation of lysine residues on the N-terminal part of the core histones (H2A, H2B, H3 and H4). Histone deacetylation gives a tag for epigenetic repression and plays an important role in transcriptional regulation, cell cycle progression and developmental events. Histone deacetylases act via the formation of large multiprotein complexes. Involved in muscle maturation by repressing transcription of myocyte enhancer factors such as MEF2A, MEF2B and MEF2C. During muscle differentiation, it shuttles into the cytoplasm, allowing the expression of myocyte enhancer factors (By similarity). May be involved in Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) latency, possibly by repressing the viral BZLF1 gene. Positively regulates the transcriptional repressor activity of FOXP3. Serves as a corepressor of RARA, causing its deacetylation and inhibition of RARE DNA element binding. In association with RARA, plays a role in the repression of microRNA-10a and thereby in the inflammatory response.

Histone deacetylase that catalyzes the deacetylation of lysine residues on the N-terminal part of the core histones (H2A, H2B, H3 and H4). Histone deacetylation gives a tag for epigenetic repression and plays an important role in transcriptional regulation, cell cycle progression and developmental events. Histone deacetylases act via the formation of large multiprotein complexes. Also involved in the deacetylation of cohesin complex protein SMC3 regulating release of cohesin complexes from chromatin. May play a role in smooth muscle cell contractility. In addition to protein deacetylase activity, also has protein-lysine deacylase activity: acts as a protein decrotonylase by mediating decrotonylation ((2E)-butenoyl) of histones.

Responsible for the deacetylation of lysine residues on the N-terminal part of the core histones (H2A, H2B, H3 and H4). Histone deacetylation gives a tag for epigenetic repression and plays an important role in transcriptional regulation, cell cycle progression and developmental events. Represses MEF2-dependent transcription.

Mediates the transport of lipoprotein lipase LPL from the basolateral to the apical surface of endothelial cells in capillaries (By similarity). Anchors LPL on the surface of endothelial cells in the lumen of blood capillaries (By similarity). Protects LPL against loss of activity, and against ANGPTL4-mediated unfolding. Thereby, plays an important role in lipolytic processing of chylomicrons by LPL, triglyceride metabolism and lipid homeostasis. Binds chylomicrons and phospholipid particles that contain APOA5. Binds high-density lipoprotein (HDL) and plays a role in the uptake of lipids from HDL (By similarity).

May play an important role in some human cancers. May be part of the regulatory mechanism in the development of epithelial tube networks such as the circulatory system and lungs.

Catalyzes the dephosphorylation of the nucleoside 5'- monophosphates deoxyadenosine monophosphate (dAMP), deoxycytidine monophosphate (dCMP), deoxyguanosine monophosphate (dGMP) and deoxythymidine monophosphate (dTMP).

[Isoform 1]: Acts as a transcriptional repressor. Has mitogenic activity for fibroblasts. Heparin-binding protein.

Acts as an epigenetic regulator of myogenesis in cooperation with DPF3a (isoform 2 of DPF3/BAF45C). Associates with the BAF complex via its interaction with DPF3a and HDGFL2-DPF3a activate myogenic genes by increasing chromatin accessibility through recruitment of SMARCA4/BRG1/BAF190A (ATPase subunit of the BAF complex) to myogenic gene promoters. Promotes the repair of DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) through the homologous recombination pathway by facilitating the recruitment of the DNA endonuclease RBBP8 to the DSBs. Preferentially binds to chromatin regions marked by H3K9me3, H3K27me3 and H3K36me2. Involved in cellular growth control, through the regulation of cyclin D1 expression.

Enhances DNA synthesis and may play a role in cell proliferation.

Dephosphorylates pseudouridine 5'-phosphate, a potential intermediate in rRNA degradation. Pseudouridine is then excreted intact in urine.

[Huntingtin]: May play a role in microtubule-mediated transport or vesicle function

Ribosome biogenesis factor. Involved in nucleolar processing of pre-18S ribosomal RNA. Required for optimal pre-ribosomal RNA transcription by RNA polymerase I.

May bind free porphyrinogens that may be present in the cell and thus facilitate removal of these potentially toxic compound. Binds with a high affinity to one molecule of heme or porphyrins. It binds metalloporphyrins, free porphyrins and N-methylprotoporphyrin with similar affinities.

Can promote mitochondrial permeability transition and facilitate necrotic cell death under different types of stress conditions.

Required during prometaphase for centrosome maturation. Following poly-ADP-ribosylation (PARsylation) by TNKS, translocates from the Golgi apparatus to mitotic centrosomes and plays a key role in the formation of robust microtubules for prompt movement of chromosomes: anchors AKAP9/CG-NAP, a scaffold protein of the gamma- tubulin ring complex and promotes centrosome maturation.

Involved in regulating cell motility and cell-matrix interactions. May inhibit cell growth through suppression of cell proliferation.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Mediates 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of HSP90AA1 which leads to its intracellular localization and reduced secretion (By similarity). Negatively regulating HSP90AA1 secretion in cranial mesenchyme cells may impair their emigration and may be essential for the correct development of the cranial neural folds and neural tube closure (By similarity). Catalyzes ubiquitination and degradation of ZNF622, an assembly factor for the ribosomal 60S subunit, in hematopoietic cells, thereby promoting hematopoietic stem cell renewal.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates.

E3 ubiquitin ligases accepts ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin- conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Mediates ubiquitination of TRIOBP and its subsequent proteasomal degradation, thus facilitating cell cycle progression by regulating the turn-over of TRIOBP. Mediates also ubiquitination of STX8 (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of DVL1. Also targets the mutant SOD1 protein involved in familial amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (FALS). Forms cytotoxic aggregates with DVL1, SSR3 and mutant SOD1 that lead to motor neuron death in FALS.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination of TP73. Acts to stabilize TP73 and enhance activation of transcription by TP73. Involved in the regulation of mitotic metaphase/anaphase transition.

Receptor component of the CCM signaling pathway which is a crucial regulator of heart and vessel formation and integrity. May act through the stabilization of endothelial cell junctions.

5'-3' DNA helicase involved in DNA damage response by acting as an inhibitor of DNA end resection. Recruitment to single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) following DNA damage leads to inhibit the nucleases catalyzing resection, such as EXO1, BLM and DNA2, possibly via the 5'-3' ssDNA translocase activity of HELB. As cells approach S phase, DNA end resection is promoted by the nuclear export of HELB following phosphorylation. Acts independently of TP53BP1. Unwinds duplex DNA with 5'-3' polarity. Has single-strand DNA-dependent ATPase and DNA helicase activities. Prefers ATP and dATP as substrates. During S phase, may facilitate cellular recovery from replication stress.

Plays an essential role in normal development and survival. Involved in regulation of the expansion or survival of lymphoid cells. Required for de novo or maintenance DNA methylation. May control silencing of the imprinted CDKN1C gene through DNA methylation. May play a role in formation and organization of heterochromatin, implying a functional role in the regulation of transcription and mitosis (By similarity).

Single-stranded 3'-5' DNA helicase that plays a key role in homology-driven double-strand break (DSB) repair. Involved in different DSB repair mechanisms that are guided by annealing of extensive stretches of complementary bases at break ends, such as microhomology-mediated end- joining (MMEJ), single-strand annealing (SSA) or synthesis-dependent strand annealing (SDSA). Possesses both DNA unwinding and annealing activities. Forms a complex with RAD51, stimulating HELQ DNA helicase activity and ability to unwing DNA. Efficiently unwinds substrates containing 3' overhangs or a D-loop. In contrast, interaction with the replication protein A (RPA/RP-A) complex inhibits DNA unwinding by HELQ but strongly stimulates DNA strand annealing. Triggers displacement of RPA from single-stranded DNA to facilitate annealing of complementary sequences.

Transcriptional repressor which binds preferentially to the canonical E box sequence 5'-CACGCG-3'.

Helicase that acts as a transcriptional coactivator for a number of nuclear receptors including PPARA, PPARG, THRA, THRB and RXRA.

May act as a helicase that plays a role in RNA metabolism in multiple tissues and organs within the developing embryo

Catalyzes the pyridoxal 5'-phosphate (PLP)-dependent condensation of succinyl-CoA and glycine to form aminolevulinic acid (ALA), with CoA and CO2 as by-products. Contributes significantly to heme formation during erythropoiesis.

Catalyzes the pyridoxal 5'-phosphate (PLP)-dependent condensation of succinyl-CoA and glycine to form aminolevulinic acid (ALA), with CoA and CO2 as by-products.

Catalyzes an early step in the biosynthesis of tetrapyrroles. Binds two molecules of 5-aminolevulinate per subunit, each at a distinct site, and catalyzes their condensation to form porphobilinogen.

As part of the heme biosynthetic pathway, catalyzes the sequential polymerization of four molecules of porphobilinogen to form hydroxymethylbilane, also known as preuroporphyrinogen. Catalysis begins with the assembly of the dipyrromethane cofactor by the apoenzyme from two molecules of porphobilinogen or from preuroporphyrinogen. The covalently linked cofactor acts as a primer, around which the tetrapyrrole product is assembled. In the last step of catalysis, the product, preuroporphyrinogen, is released, leaving the cofactor bound to the holodeaminase intact.

Catalyzes cyclization of the linear tetrapyrrole, hydroxymethylbilane, to the macrocyclic uroporphyrinogen III, the branch point for the various sub-pathways leading to the wide diversity of porphyrins. Porphyrins act as cofactors for a multitude of enzymes that perform a variety of processes within the cell such as methionine synthesis (vitamin B12) or oxygen transport (heme)

Catalyzes the aerobic oxidative decarboxylation of propionate groups of rings A and B of coproporphyrinogen-III to yield the vinyl groups in protoporphyrinogen-IX and participates to the sixth step in the heme biosynthetic pathway.

Regulates the proliferation and differentiation of hematopoietic cells. Overexpression block the TPA-induced megakaryocytic differentiation in the K562 cell model. May also prevent cell apoptosis through the activation of the nuclear factor-kappa B (NF-kB).

N5-glutamine methyltransferase responsible for the methylation of the glutamine residue in the universally conserved GGQ motif of the mitochondrial translation release factor MTRF1L.

Binds heme and transports it to the liver for breakdown and iron recovery, after which the free hemopexin returns to the circulation

May serve as DNA-binding protein and may be involved in the control of cell-type determination, possibly within the developing nervous system

Transcription factor which binds the E box motif 5'- CA[TC][AG]TG-3'. Involved in regulating energy expenditure, body mass, voluntary physical activity, mating behavior and reproductive longevity, acting through the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Acts as a transcriptional activator of target genes, including NDN, PCSK1, MC4R (By similarity). Is also a transcriptional activator of KISS1. May act centrally to regulate function of both white and brown adipose tissue. Together with NHLH1, required to maintain migration and survival of cells in the anterior extramural migration stream (aes), which forms the precerebellar nuclei. Also, in concert with NHLH1, may determine fate of gonadotropin releasing hormone-1 (GnRH-1) neurons.

Methyltransferase that adds a 2'-O-methyl group at the 3'-end of piRNAs, a class of 24 to 30 nucleotide RNAs that are generated by a Dicer-independent mechanism and are primarily derived from transposons and other repeated sequence elements. This probably protects the 3'-end of piRNAs from uridylation activity and subsequent degradation. Stabilization of piRNAs is essential for gametogenesis.

Thrombin inhibitor activated by the glycosaminoglycans, heparin or dermatan sulfate. In the presence of the latter, HC-II becomes the predominant thrombin inhibitor in place of antithrombin III (AT-III). Also inhibits chymotrypsin, but in a glycosaminoglycan- independent manner.

Liver-produced hormone that constitutes the main circulating regulator of iron absorption and distribution across tissues. Acts by promoting endocytosis and degradation of ferroportin/SLC40A1, leading to the retention of iron in iron-exporting cells and decreased flow of iron into plasma. Controls the major flows of iron into plasma: absorption of dietary iron in the intestine, recycling of iron by macrophages, which phagocytose old erythrocytes and other cells, and mobilization of stored iron from hepatocytes.

May function as a ferroxidase for ferrous (II) to ferric ion (III) conversion and may be involved in copper transport and homeostasis. Implicated in iron homeostasis and may mediate iron efflux associated to ferroportin 1

Serine protease that cleaves extracellular substrates, and contributes to the proteolytic processing of growth factors, such as HGF and MST1/HGFL. Plays a role in cell growth and maintenance of cell morphology. Plays a role in the proteolytic processing of ACE2. Mediates the proteolytic cleavage of urinary UMOD that is required for UMOD polymerization.

Involved in membrane trafficking via some guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) activity and its ability to bind clathrin. Acts as a GEF for Arf and Rab, by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP. Binds phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate, which is required for GEF activity. May also act as a E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that regulates ubiquitin- dependent retention of repair proteins on damaged chromosomes. Recruited to sites of DNA damage in response to ionizing radiation (IR) and facilitates the assembly of UBE2N and RNF8 promoting DNA damage- induced formation of 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin chains. Acts as a mediator of binding specificity between UBE2N and RNF8. Involved in the maintenance of RNF168 levels. E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that promotes the ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of XPA which influences the circadian oscillation of DNA excision repair activity. By controlling the steady-state expression of the IGF1R receptor, indirectly regulates the insulin-like growth factor receptor signaling pathway.

Probable E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase involved in either protein trafficking or in the distribution of cellular structures. Required for spermatozoon maturation and fertility, and for the removal of the cytoplasmic droplet of the spermatozoon. E3 ubiquitin-protein ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfer it to targeted substrates.

Major E3 ligase for ISG15 conjugation. Acts as a positive regulator of innate antiviral response in cells induced by interferon. Functions as part of the ISGylation machinery that recognizes target proteins in a broad and relatively non-specific manner. Catalyzes ISGylation of IRF3 which results in sustained activation, it attenuates IRF3-PIN1 interaction, which antagonizes IRF3 ubiquitination and degradation, and boosts the antiviral response. Catalyzes ISGylation of influenza A viral NS1 which attenuates virulence; ISGylated NS1 fails to form homodimers and thus to interact with its RNA targets. Catalyzes ISGylation of papillomavirus type 16 L1 protein which results in dominant-negative effect on virus infectivity. Physically associated with polyribosomes, broadly modifies newly synthesized proteins in a cotranslational manner. In an interferon-stimulated cell, newly translated viral proteins are primary targets of ISG15.

Component of the endoplasmic reticulum quality control (ERQC) system also called ER-associated degradation (ERAD) involved in ubiquitin-dependent degradation of misfolded endoplasmic reticulum proteins. Could enhance presenilin- mediated amyloid-beta protein 40 generation. Binds to ubiquilins and this interaction is required for efficient degradation of CD3D via the ERAD pathway.

Could be involved in the unfolded protein response (UPR) pathway.

Transcriptional repressor of genes that require a bHLH protein for their transcription. May act as a negative regulator of myogenesis by inhibiting the functions of MYOD1 and ASH1. Binds DNA on N-box motifs: 5'-CACNAG-3' with high affinity and on E-box motifs: 5'- CANNTG-3' with low affinity (By similarity). May play a role in a functional FA core complex response to DNA cross-link damage, being required for the stability and nuclear localization of FA core complex proteins, as well as for FANCD2 monoubiquitination in response to DNA damage.

Transcriptional repressor of genes that require a bHLH protein for their transcription.

Transcriptional repressor. Binds DNA on N-box motifs: 5'- CACNAG-3' (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor of genes that require a bHLH protein for their transcription. Plays an important role as neurogenesis negative regulator (By similarity).

Does not bind DNA itself but suppresses both HES1-mediated N box-dependent transcriptional repression and binding of HES1 to E box sequences. Also suppresses HES1-mediated inhibition of the heterodimer formed by ASCL1/MASH1 and TCF3/E47, allowing ASCL1 and TCF3 to up- regulate transcription in its presence. Promotes cell differentiation (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor. Represses transcription from both N box- and E box-containing promoters. May with HES1, cooperatively regulate somite formation in the presomitic mesoderm (PSM). May function as a segmentation clock, which is essential for coordinated somite segmentation (By similarity).

Required for the normal development of the forebrain, eyes and other anterior structures such as the olfactory placodes and pituitary gland. Possible transcriptional repressor. Binds to the palindromic PIII sequence, 5'-AGCTTGAGTCTAATTGAATTAACTGTAC-3'. HESX1 and PROP1 bind as heterodimers on this palindromic site, and, in vitro, HESX1 can antagonize PROP1 activation.

Hydrolyzes the non-reducing end N-acetyl-D-hexosamine and/or sulfated N-acetyl-D-hexosamine of glycoconjugates, such as the oligosaccharide moieties from proteins and neutral glycolipids, or from certain mucopolysaccharides. The isozyme S is as active as the isozyme A on the anionic bis-sulfated glycans, the chondroitin-6- sulfate trisaccharide (C6S-3), and the dermatan sulfate pentasaccharide, and the sulfated glycosphingolipid SM2. The isozyme B does not hydrolyze each of these substrates, however hydrolyzes efficiently neutral oligosaccharide. Only the isozyme A is responsible for the degradation of GM2 gangliosides in the presence of GM2A.

Hydrolyzes the non-reducing end N-acetyl-D-hexosamine and/or sulfated N-acetyl-D-hexosamine of glycoconjugates, such as the oligosaccharide moieties from proteins and neutral glycolipids, or from certain mucopolysaccharides. The isozyme B does not hydrolyze each of these substrates, however hydrolyzes efficiently neutral oligosaccharide. Only the isozyme A is responsible for the degradation of GM2 gangliosides in the presence of GM2A. During fertilization is responsible, at least in part, for the zona block to polyspermy. Present in the cortical granules of non-activated oocytes, is exocytosed during the cortical reaction in response to oocyte activation and inactivates the sperm galactosyltransferase-binding site, accounting for the block in sperm binding to the zona pellucida (By similarity).

Has hexosaminidase activity. Responsible for the cleavage of the monosaccharides N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) and N- acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) from cellular substrates. Has a preference for galactosaminide over glucosaminide substrates.

Transcriptional regulator which functions as a general RNA polymerase II transcription inhibitor. Core component of the 7SK RNP complex: in cooperation with 7SK snRNA sequesters P-TEFb in a large inactive 7SK snRNP complex preventing RNA polymerase II phosphorylation and subsequent transcriptional elongation. May also regulate NF-kappa-B, ESR1, NR3C1 and CIITA-dependent transcriptional activity. Plays a role in the regulation of DNA virus-mediated innate immune response by assembling into the HDP-RNP complex, a complex that serves as a platform for IRF3 phosphorylation and subsequent innate immune response activation through the cGAS-STING pathway.

Transcriptional regulator which functions as a general RNA polymerase II transcription inhibitor. Core component of the 7SK RNP complex: in cooperation with 7SK snRNA sequesters P-TEFb in a large inactive 7SK snRNP complex preventing RNA polymerase II phosphorylation and subsequent transcriptional elongation.

Transcriptional repressor which binds preferentially to the canonical E box sequence 5'-CACGTG-3'. Downstream effector of Notch signaling required for cardiovascular development. Specifically required for the Notch-induced endocardial epithelial to mesenchymal transition, which is itself criticial for cardiac valve and septum development. May be required in conjunction with HEY2 to specify arterial cell fate or identity. Promotes maintenance of neuronal precursor cells and glial versus neuronal fate specification. Represses transcription by the cardiac transcriptional activators GATA4 and GATA6 and by the neuronal bHLH factors ASCL1/MASH1 and NEUROD4/MATH3. Involved in the regulation of liver cancer cells self-renewal.

Downstream effector of Notch signaling which may be required for cardiovascular development. Transcriptional repressor which binds preferentially to the canonical E box sequence 5'-CACGTG-3'. Represses transcription by the cardiac transcriptional activators GATA4 and GATA6.

Downstream effector of Notch signaling which may be required for cardiovascular development (By similarity). Transcriptional repressor which binds preferentially to the canonical E box sequence 5'-CACGTG-3' (By similarity). Represses transcription by the cardiac transcriptional activators GATA4 and GATA6.

Binds to transferrin receptor (TFR) and reduces its affinity for iron-loaded transferrin.

Required for crossover formation and complete synapsis of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

Plays a critical role in MHC class II antigen processing by stabilizing peptide-free class II alpha/beta heterodimers in a complex soon after their synthesis and directing transport of the complex from the endoplasmic reticulum to the endosomal/lysosomal system where the antigen processing and binding of antigenic peptides to MHC class II takes place. Serves as cell surface receptor for the cytokine MIF

Catalyzes the conversion of homogentisate to maleylacetoacetate.

Activates hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) by converting it from a single chain to a heterodimeric form

Potent mitogen for mature parenchymal hepatocyte cells, seems to be a hepatotrophic factor, and acts as a growth factor for a broad spectrum of tissues and cell types. Activating ligand for the receptor tyrosine kinase MET by binding to it and promoting its dimerization.

Lysosomal acetyltransferase that acetylates the non-reducing terminal alpha-glucosamine residue of intralysosomal heparin or heparan sulfate, converting it into a substrate for luminal alpha-N-acetyl glucosaminidase.

Involved in intracellular signal transduction mediated by cytokines and growth factors. When associated with STAM, it suppresses DNA signaling upon stimulation by IL-2 and GM-CSF. Could be a direct effector of PI3-kinase in vesicular pathway via early endosomes and may regulate trafficking to early and late endosomes by recruiting clathrin. May concentrate ubiquitinated receptors within clathrin- coated regions. Involved in down-regulation of receptor tyrosine kinase via multivesicular body (MVBs) when complexed with STAM (ESCRT-0 complex). The ESCRT-0 complex binds ubiquitin and acts as sorting machinery that recognizes ubiquitinated receptors and transfers them to further sequential lysosomal sorting/trafficking processes. May contribute to the efficient recruitment of SMADs to the activin receptor complex. Involved in receptor recycling via its association with the CART complex, a multiprotein complex required for efficient transferrin receptor recycling but not for EGFR degradation

Negatively regulates N-terminal palmitoylation of SHH by HHAT/SKN.

Palmitoyl acyltransferase that catalyzes N-terminal palmitoylation of SHH; which is required for SHH signaling. It also catalyzes N-terminal palmitoylation of DHH. Promotes the transfer of palmitoyl-CoA from the cytoplasmic to the luminal side of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane, where SHH palmitoylation occurs. It is an essential factor for proper embryonic development and testicular organogenesis.

Recognizes the DNA sequence 5'-ATTAA-3' (By similarity). Transcriptional repressor (By similarity). Activator of WNT-mediated transcription in conjunction with CTNNB1. Establishes anterior identity at two levels; acts early to enhance canonical WNT- signaling by repressing expression of TLE4, and acts later to inhibit NODAL-signaling by directly targeting NODAL (By similarity). May play a role in hematopoietic differentiation.

Modulates hedgehog signaling in several cell types including brain and lung through direct interaction with members of the hedgehog family.

Through interaction with TMIGD2, costimulates T-cells in the context of TCR-mediated activation. Enhances T-cell proliferation and cytokine production via an AKT-dependent signaling cascade.

Hydrolyzes 3-hydroxyisobutyryl-CoA (HIBYL-CoA), a saline catabolite. Has high activity toward isobutyryl-CoA. Could be an isobutyryl-CoA dehydrogenase that functions in valine catabolism. Also hydrolyzes 3-hydroxypropanoyl-CoA.

Transcriptional repressor. Recognizes and binds to the consensus sequence '5- [CG]NG[CG]GGGCA[CA]CC-3'. May act as a tumor suppressor. Involved in development of head, face, limbs and ventral body wall (By similarity). Involved in down- regulation of SIRT1 and thereby is involved in regulation of p53/TP53- dependent apoptotic DNA-damage responses. The specific target gene promoter association seems to be depend on corepressors, such as CTBP1 or CTBP2 and MTA1. In cooperation with MTA1 (indicative for an association with the NuRD complex) represses transcription from CCND1/cyclin-D1 and CDKN1C/p57Kip2 specifically in quiescent cells. Involved in regulation of the Wnt signaling pathway probably by association with TCF7L2 and preventing TCF7L2 and CTNNB1 association with promoters of TCF-responsive genes. Seems to repress transcription from E2F1 and ATOH1 which involves ARID1A, indicative for the participation of a distinct SWI/SNF-type chromatin-remodeling complex. Probably represses transcription of ACKR3, FGFBP1 and EFNA1.

May play an important role in the development of cancers in a broad range of tissues.

Functions as a master transcriptional regulator of the adaptive response to hypoxia. Under hypoxic conditions, activates the transcription of over 40 genes, including erythropoietin, glucose transporters, glycolytic enzymes, vascular endothelial growth factor, HILPDA, and other genes whose protein products increase oxygen delivery or facilitate metabolic adaptation to hypoxia. Plays an essential role in embryonic vascularization, tumor angiogenesis and pathophysiology of ischemic disease. Heterodimerizes with ARNT; heterodimer binds to core DNA sequence 5'-TACGTG-3' within the hypoxia response element (HRE) of target gene promoters (By similarity). Activation requires recruitment of transcriptional coactivators such as CREBBP and EP300. Activity is enhanced by interaction with NCOA1 and/or NCOA2. Interaction with redox regulatory protein APEX1 seems to activate CTAD and potentiates activation by NCOA1 and CREBBP. Involved in the axonal distribution and transport of mitochondria in neurons during hypoxia.

Hydroxylates HIF-1 alpha at 'Asn-803' in the C-terminal transactivation domain (CAD). Functions as an oxygen sensor and, under normoxic conditions, the hydroxylation prevents interaction of HIF-1 with transcriptional coactivators including Cbp/p300-interacting transactivator. Involved in transcriptional repression through interaction with HIF1A, VHL and histone deacetylases. Hydroxylates specific Asn residues within ankyrin repeat domains (ARD) of NFKB1, NFKBIA, NOTCH1, ASB4, PPP1R12A and several other ARD-containing proteins. Also hydroxylates Asp and His residues within ARDs of ANK1 and TNKS2, respectively. Negatively regulates NOTCH1 activity, accelerating myogenic differentiation. Positively regulates ASB4 activity, promoting vascular differentiation.

Acts as a transcriptional regulator in adaptive response to low oxygen tension. Acts as a regulator of hypoxia-inducible gene expression. Functions as an inhibitor of angiogenesis in hypoxic cells of the cornea. Plays a role in the development of the cardiorespiratory system. May also be involved in apoptosis (By similarity).

Proposed subunit of cytochrome c oxidase (COX, complex IV), which is the terminal component of the mitochondrial respiratory chain that catalyzes the reduction of oxygen to water. May play a role in the assembly of respiratory supercomplexes.

Proposed subunit of cytochrome c oxidase (COX, complex IV), which is the terminal component of the mitochondrial respiratory chain that catalyzes the reduction of oxygen to water. May be involved in cytochrome c oxidase activity. May play a role in the assembly of respiratory supercomplexes.

Acts as a specific nuclear import carrier for HSP70 proteins following heat-shock stress: acts by mediating the nucleoporin- dependent translocation of ATP-bound HSP70 proteins into the nucleus. HSP70 proteins import is required to protect cells from heat shock damages. Does not translocate ADP-bound HSP70 proteins into the nucleus.

Transcriptional repressor that binds to the consensus sequence 5'-CGGACGTT-3' and to the RB1 promoter. Transcriptional activator that promotes histone H4 gene transcription at the G1/S phase transition in conjunction with NPAT. Also activates transcription of the ATM and PRKDC genes. Autoregulates its expression by associating with its own promoter.

Exhibits adenosine 5'-monophosphoramidase activity, hydrolyzing purine nucleotide phosphoramidates with a single phosphate group such as adenosine 5'monophosphoramidate (AMP-NH2) to yield AMP and NH2. Hydrolyzes adenosine 5'monophosphomorpholidate (AMP-morpholidate) and guanosine 5'monophosphomorpholidate (GMP-morpholidate). Hydrolyzes lysyl-AMP (AMP-N-epsilon-(N-alpha-acetyl lysine methyl ester)) generated by lysine tRNA ligase, as well as Met- AMP, His-AMP and Asp-AMP, lysyl-GMP (GMP-N-epsilon-(N-alpha-acetyl lysine methyl ester)) and AMP-N-alanine methyl ester. Hydrolyzes 3-indolepropionic acyl- adenylate, tryptamine adenosine phosphoramidate monoester and other fluorogenic purine nucleoside tryptamine phosphoramidates in vitro. Can also convert adenosine 5'-O- phosphorothioate and guanosine 5'-O-phosphorothioate to the corresponding nucleoside 5'-O-phosphates with concomitant release of hydrogen sulfide. In addition, functions as scaffolding protein that modulates transcriptional activation by the LEF1/TCF1-CTNNB1 complex and by the complex formed with MITF and CTNNB1. Modulates p53/TP53 levels and p53/TP53-mediated apoptosis. Modulates proteasomal degradation of target proteins by the SCF (SKP2-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex. Also exhibits SUMO- specific isopeptidase activity, deconjugating SUMO1 from RGS17. Deconjugates SUMO1 from RANGAP1 (By similarity).

Exhibits adenosine 5'-monophosphoramidase activity, hydrolyzing purine nucleotide phosphoramidates with a single phosphate group such as adenosine 5'monophosphoramidate (AMP-NH2) to yield AMP and NH2. Hydrolyzes adenosine 5'-O- p-nitrophenylphosphoramidate (AMP-pNA). Hydrolyzes fluorogenic purine nucleoside tryptamine phosphoramidates in vitro. May be involved in steroid biosynthesis. May play a role in apoptosis.

Exhibits adenosine 5'-monophosphoramidase activity, hydrolyzing purine nucleotide phosphoramidates with a single phosphate group such as adenosine 5'monophosphoramidate (AMP-NH2) to yield AMP and NH2. Hydrolyzes lysyl-AMP (AMP-N-epsilon-(N- alpha-acetyl lysine methyl ester)) generated by lysine tRNA ligase. Hydrolyzes 3-indolepropionic acyl-adenylate and fluorogenic purine nucleoside tryptamine phosphoramidates in vitro.

Component of clathrin-coated pits and vesicles, that may link the endocytic machinery to the actin cytoskeleton. Binds 3- phosphoinositides (via ENTH domain). May act through the ENTH domain to promote cell survival by stabilizing receptor tyrosine kinases following ligand-induced endocytosis.

Plays a role in clathrin-mediated endocytosis and trafficking. Involved in regulating AMPA receptor trafficking in the central nervous system in an NMDA-dependent manner (By similarity). Regulates presynaptic nerve terminal activity (By similarity). Enhances androgen receptor (AR)- mediated transcription. May act as a proapoptotic protein that induces cell death by acting through the intrinsic apoptosis pathway. Binds 3-phosphoinositides (via ENTH domain). May act through the ENTH domain to promote cell survival by stabilizing receptor tyrosine kinases following ligand-induced endocytosis. May play a functional role in the cell filament networks. May be required for differentiation, proliferation, and/or survival of somatic and germline progenitors.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in transcription regulation and TNF-mediated cellular apoptosis. Plays a role as a corepressor for homeodomain transcription factors. Phosphorylates DAXX and MYB. Phosphorylates DAXX in response to stress, and mediates its translocation from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. Inactivates MYB transcription factor activity by phosphorylation. Prevents MAP3K5-JNK activation in the absence of TNF. TNF triggers its translocation to the cytoplasm in response to stress stimuli, thus activating nuclear MAP3K5-JNK by derepression and promoting apoptosis. May be involved in anti-oxidative stress responses. Involved in the regulation of eye size, lens formation and retinal lamination during late embryogenesis. Promotes angiogenesis and to be involved in erythroid differentiation. May be involved in malignant squamous cell tumor formation. Phosphorylates PAGE4 at 'Thr-51' which is critical for the ability of PAGE4 to potentiate the transcriptional activator activity of JUN.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in transcription regulation, p53/TP53-mediated cellular apoptosis and regulation of the cell cycle. Acts as a corepressor of several transcription factors, including SMAD1 and POU4F1/Brn3a and probably NK homeodomain transcription factors. Phosphorylates PDX1, ATF1, PML, p53/TP53, CREB1, CTBP1, CBX4, RUNX1, EP300, CTNNB1, HMGA1, ZBTB4 and DAZAP2. Inhibits cell growth and promotes apoptosis through the activation of p53/TP53 both at the transcription level and at the protein level (by phosphorylation and indirect acetylation). The phosphorylation of p53/TP53 may be mediated by a p53/TP53-HIPK2-AXIN1 complex. Involved in the response to hypoxia by acting as a transcriptional co-suppressor of HIF1A. Mediates transcriptional activation of TP73. In response to TGFB, cooperates with DAXX to activate JNK. Negative regulator through phosphorylation and subsequent proteasomal degradation of CTNNB1 and the antiapoptotic factor CTBP1. In the Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway acts as an intermediate kinase between MAP3K7/TAK1 and NLK to promote the proteasomal degradation of MYB. Phosphorylates CBX4 upon DNA damage and promotes its E3 SUMO-protein ligase activity. Activates CREB1 and ATF1 transcription factors by phosphorylation in response to genotoxic stress. In response to DNA damage, stabilizes PML by phosphorylation. PML, HIPK2 and FBXO3 may act synergically to activate p53/TP53-dependent transactivation. Promotes angiogenesis, and is involved in erythroid differentiation, especially during fetal liver erythropoiesis. Phosphorylation of RUNX1 and EP300 stimulates EP300 transcription regulation activity. Triggers ZBTB4 protein degradation in response to DNA damage. In response to DNA damage, phosphorylates DAZAP2 which localizes DAZAP2 to the nucleus, reduces interaction of DAZAP2 with HIPK2 and prevents DAZAP2-dependent ubiquitination of HIPK2 by E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase SIAH1 and subsequent proteasomal degradation. Modulates HMGA1 DNA-binding affinity. In response to high glucose, triggers phosphorylation-mediated subnuclear localization shifting of PDX1. Involved in the regulation of eye size, lens formation and retinal lamination during late embryogenesis.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in transcription regulation, apoptosis and steroidogenic gene expression. Phosphorylates JUN and RUNX2. Seems to negatively regulate apoptosis by promoting FADD phosphorylation. Enhances androgen receptor-mediated transcription. May act as a transcriptional corepressor for NK homeodomain transcription factors. The phosphorylation of NR5A1 activates SF1 leading to increased steroidogenic gene expression upon cAMP signaling pathway stimulation. In osteoblasts, supports transcription activation: phosphorylates RUNX2 that synergizes with SPEN/MINT to enhance FGFR2- mediated activation of the osteocalcin FGF-responsive element (OCFRE).

Protein kinase that phosphorylates human TP53 at Ser-9, and thus induces TP53 repression of BIRC5 promoter (By similarity). May act as a corepressor of transcription factors (Potential).

Cooperates with ASF1A to promote replication-independent chromatin assembly. Required for the periodic repression of histone gene transcription during the cell cycle. Required for the formation of senescence-associated heterochromatin foci (SAHF) and efficient senescence-associated cell cycle exit.

May play a role in chromatin function and histone metabolism via its interaction with HIRA and histones.

Histatins are salivary proteins that are considered to be major precursors of the protective proteinaceous structure on tooth surfaces (enamel pellicle). In addition, histatins exhibit antibacterial and antifungal activities

Histatins are salivary proteins that are considered to be major precursors of the protective proteinaceous structure on tooth surfaces (enamel pellicle). In addition, histatins exhibit antibacterial and antifungal activities. His3-(20-43)-peptide (histatin-5) is especially effective against C.albicans and C.neoformans, and inhibits Lys-gingipain and Arg-gingipain (rgpB) from P.gingivalis. In addition, His3-(20-43)-peptide is a potent inhibitor of metalloproteinases MMP2 and MMP9.

Centromeric protein that plays a central role in the incorporation and maintenance of histone H3-like variant CENPA at centromeres. Acts as a specific chaperone for CENPA and is required for the incorporation of newly synthesized CENPA molecules into nucleosomes at replicated centromeres. Prevents CENPA-H4 tetramerization and prevents premature DNA binding by the CENPA-H4 tetramer. Directly binds Holliday junctions.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of hexose to hexose 6- phosphate, although at very low level compared to other hexokinases. Has low glucose phosphorylating activity compared to other hexokinases. Involved in glucose homeostasis and hepatic lipid accumulation. Required to maintain whole-body glucose homeostasis during pregnancy; however additional evidences are required to confirm this role (By similarity).

Antigen-presenting major histocompatibility complex class I (MHCI) molecule. In complex with B2M/beta 2 microglobulin displays primarily viral and tumor-derived peptides on antigen-presenting cells for recognition by alpha-beta T cell receptor (TCR) on HLA-A-restricted CD8-positive T cells, guiding antigen-specific T cell immune response to eliminate infected or transformed cells. May also present self-peptides derived from the signal sequence of secreted or membrane proteins, although T cells specific for these peptides are usually inactivated to prevent autoreactivity. Both the peptide and the MHC molecule are recognized by TCR, the peptide is responsible for the fine specificity of antigen recognition and MHC residues account for the MHC restriction of T cells. Typically presents intracellular peptide antigens of 8 to 13 amino acids that arise from cytosolic proteolysis via IFNG-induced immunoproteasome or via endopeptidase IDE/insulin-degrading enzyme. Can bind different peptides containing allele- specific binding motifs, which are mainly defined by anchor residues at position 2 and 9.

Antigen-presenting major histocompatibility complex class I (MHCI) molecule. In complex with B2M/beta 2 microglobulin displays primarily viral and tumor-derived peptides on antigen-presenting cells for recognition by alpha-beta T cell receptor (TCR) on HLA-B-restricted CD8-positive T cells, guiding antigen-specific T cell immune response to eliminate infected or transformed cells. May also present self-peptides derived from the signal sequence of secreted or membrane proteins, although T cells specific for these peptides are usually inactivated to prevent autoreactivity. Both the peptide and the MHC molecule are recognized by TCR, the peptide is responsible for the fine specificity of antigen recognition and MHC residues account for the MHC restriction of T cells. Typically presents intracellular peptide antigens of 8 to 13 amino acids that arise from cytosolic proteolysis via constitutive proteasome and IFNG-induced immunoproteasome. Can bind different peptides containing allele-specific binding motifs, which are mainly defined by anchor residues at position 2 and 9.

Antigen-presenting major histocompatibility complex class I (MHCI) molecule with an important role in reproduction and antiviral immunity. In complex with B2M/beta 2 microglobulin displays a restricted repertoire of self and viral peptides and acts as a dominant ligand for inhibitory and activating killer immunoglobulin receptors (KIRs) expressed on NK cells. In an allogeneic setting, such as during pregnancy, mediates interaction of extravillous trophoblasts with KIR on uterine NK cells and regulate trophoblast invasion necessary for placentation and overall fetal growth. During viral infection, may present viral peptides with low affinity for KIRs, impeding KIR-mediated inhibition through peptide antagonism and favoring lysis of infected cells. Presents a restricted repertoire of viral peptides on antigen-presenting cells for recognition by alpha-beta T cell receptor (TCR) on HLA-C-restricted CD8-positive T cells, guiding antigen-specific T cell immune response to eliminate infected cells, particularly in chronic viral infection settings such as HIV-1 or CMV infection. Both the peptide and the MHC molecule are recognized by TCR, the peptide is responsible for the fine specificity of antigen recognition and MHC residues account for the MHC restriction of T cells (By similarity). Typically presents intracellular peptide antigens of 9 amino acids that arise from cytosolic proteolysis via proteasome. Can bind different peptides containing allele-specific binding motifs, which are mainly defined by anchor residues at position 2 and 9. Preferentially displays peptides having a restricted repertoire of hydrophobic or aromatic amino acids (Phe, Ile, Leu, Met, Val and Tyr) at the C-terminal anchor.

Non-classical major histocompatibility class Ib molecule involved in immune self-nonself discrimination. In complex with B2M/beta-2-microglobulin binds nonamer self-peptides derived from the signal sequence of classical MHC class Ia molecules (VL9 peptides). Peptide-bound HLA- E-B2M heterotrimeric complex primarily functions as a ligand for natural killer (NK) cell inhibitory receptor KLRD1-KLRC1, enabling NK cells to monitor the expression of other MHC class I molecules in healthy cells and to tolerate self. Upon cellular stress, preferentially binds signal sequence-derived peptides from stress-induced chaperones and is no longer recognized by NK cell inhibitory receptor KLRD1-KLRC1, resulting in impaired protection from NK cells. Binds signal sequence-derived peptides from non-classical MHC class Ib HLA-G molecules and acts as a ligand for NK cell activating receptor KLRD1- KLRC2, likely playing a role in the generation and effector functions of adaptive NK cells and in maternal-fetal tolerance during pregnancy. Besides self-peptides, can also bind and present pathogen-derived peptides conformationally similar to VL9 peptides to alpha-beta T cell receptor (TCR) on unconventional CD8+ cytotoxic T cells, ultimately triggering antimicrobial immune response.

Non-classical major histocompatibility class Ib molecule postulated to play a role in immune surveillance, immune tolerance and inflammation. Functions in two forms, as a heterotrimeric complex with B2M/beta-2 microglobulin and a peptide (peptide-bound HLA-F-B2M) and as an open conformer (OC) devoid of peptide and B2M (peptide-free OC). In complex with B2M, presents non-canonical self-peptides carrying post- translational modifications, particularly phosphorylated self-peptides. Peptide-bound HLA-F-B2M acts as a ligand for LILRB1 inhibitory receptor, a major player in maternal-fetal tolerance. Peptide-free OC acts as a ligand for KIR3DS1 and KIR3DL2 receptors. Upon interaction with activating KIR3DS1 receptor on NK cells, triggers NK cell degranulation and anti-viral cytokine production. Through interaction with KIR3DL2 receptor, inhibits NK and T cell effector functions. May interact with other MHC class I OCs to cross-present exogenous viral, tumor or minor histompatibility antigens to cytotoxic CD8+ T cells, triggering effector and memory responses. May play a role in inflammatory responses in the peripheral nervous system. Through interaction with KIR3DL2, may protect motor neurons from astrocyte- induced toxicity.

[Isoform 1]: Non-classical major histocompatibility class Ib molecule involved in immune regulatory processes at the maternal-fetal interface. In complex with B2M/beta-2 microglobulin binds a limited repertoire of nonamer self-peptides derived from intracellular proteins including histones and ribosomal proteins. Peptide-bound HLA-G-B2M complex acts as a ligand for inhibitory/activating KIR2DL4, LILRB1 and LILRB2 receptors on uterine immune cells to promote fetal development while maintaining maternal- fetal tolerance. Upon interaction with KIR2DL4 and LILRB1 receptors on decidual NK cells, it triggers NK cell senescence-associated secretory phenotype as a molecular switch to promote vascular remodeling and fetal growth in early pregnancy. Through interaction with KIR2DL4 receptor on decidual macrophages induces pro-inflammatory cytokine production mainly associated with tissue remodeling. Through interaction with LILRB2 receptor triggers differentiation of type 1 regulatory T cells and myeloid-derived suppressor cells, both of which actively maintain maternal-fetal tolerance. May play a role in balancing tolerance and antiviral-immunity at maternal-fetal interface by keeping in check the effector functions of NK, CD8+ T cells and B cells. Reprograms B cells toward an immune suppressive phenotype via LILRB1. May induce immune activation/suppression via intercellular membrane transfer (trogocytosis), likely enabling interaction with KIR2DL4, which resides mostly in endosomes. Through interaction with the inhibitory receptor CD160 on endothelial cells may control angiogenesis in immune privileged sites.

Increases intracellular lipid accumulation. Stimulates expression of cytokines including IL6, MIF and VEGFA. Enhances cell growth and proliferation.

Has both helicase and E3 ubiquitin ligase activities. Possesses intrinsic ATP-dependent nucleosome-remodeling activity; This activity may be required for transcriptional activation or repression of specific target promoters (By similarity). These may include the SERPINE1 and HIV-1 promoters and the SV40 enhancer, to which this protein can bind directly. Plays a role in error-free postreplication repair (PRR) of damaged DNA and maintains genomic stability through acting as a ubiquitin ligase for 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of chromatin-bound PCNA.

Transcription factor required for TBX21/T-bet-dependent maturation of Th1 cells as well as maintenance of Th1-specific gene expression. Involved in embryogenesis and hematopoiesis (By similarity).

Catalyzes intramembrane proteolysis of some signal peptides after they have been cleaved from a preprotein, resulting in the release of the fragment from the ER membrane into the cytoplasm. Required to generate lymphocyte cell surface (HLA-E) epitopes derived from MHC class I signal peptides. May be necessary for the removal of the signal peptide that remains attached to the hepatitis C virus core protein after the initial proteolytic processing of the polyprotein. Involved in the intramembrane cleavage of the integral membrane protein PSEN1. Cleaves the integral membrane protein XBP1 isoform 1 in a DERL1/RNF139-dependent manner. May play a role in graft rejection (By similarity).

Plays a role in neuronal differentiation as chromatin- associated protein. Acts as inhibitor of HMG20B. Overcomes the repressive effects of the neuronal silencer REST and induces the activation of neuronal-specific genes. Involved in the recruitment of the histone methyltransferase KMT2A/MLL1 and consequent increased methylation of histone H3 lysine 4 (By similarity).

Required for correct progression through G2 phase of the cell cycle and entry into mitosis. Required for RCOR1/CoREST mediated repression of neuronal specific gene promoters

Binds directly to 5'-TTAGGG-3' repeats in telomeric DNA. Associates with the telomerase complex at sites of active telomere processing and positively regulates telomere elongation. Important for TERT binding to chromatin, indicating a role in recruitment of the telomerase complex to telomeres (By similarity). Also plays a role in the alternative lengthening of telomeres (ALT) pathway in telomerase-negative cells where it promotes formation and/or maintenance of ALT-associated promyelocytic leukemia bodies (APBs). Enhances formation of telomere C-circles in ALT cells, suggesting a possible role in telomere recombination. Might also be involved in the DNA damage response at telomeres.

Sensor of abasic sites in single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) required to preserve genome integrity by promoting error-free repair of abasic sites. Acts as an enzyme that recognizes and binds abasic sites in ssDNA at replication forks and chemically modifies the lesion by forming a covalent cross-link with DNA: forms a stable thiazolidine linkage between a ring-opened abasic site and the alpha-amino and sulfhydryl substituents of its N-terminal catalytic cysteine residue. The HMCES DNA-protein cross-link is then degraded by the proteasome. Promotes error-free repair of abasic sites by acting as a 'suicide' enzyme that is degraded, thereby protecting abasic sites from translesion synthesis (TLS) polymerases and endonucleases that are error-prone and would generate mutations and double-strand breaks. Has preference for ssDNA, but can also accommodate double-stranded DNA with 3' or 5' overhang (dsDNA), and dsDNA-ssDNA 3' junction. Also involved in class switch recombination (CSR) in B-cells independently of the formation of a DNA- protein cross-link: acts by binding and protecting ssDNA overhangs to promote DNA double-strand break repair through the microhomology- mediated alternative-end-joining (Alt-EJ) pathway (By similarity). Acts as a protease: mediates autocatalytic processing of its N-terminal methionine in order to expose the catalytic cysteine (By similarity).

Involved in transforming growth factor beta-mediated rearrangement of the podocyte cytoskeleton which includes reduction of F-actin fibers and broadening, flattening and elongation of podocytes. Plays a role in basement membrane organization (By similarity). May promote cleavage furrow maturation during cytokinesis in preimplantation embryos (By similarity). May play a role in the architecture of adhesive and flexible epithelial cell junctions (By similarity). May play a role during myocardial remodeling by imparting an effect on cardiac fibroblast migration (By similarity).

Catalyzes the condensation of acetyl-CoA with acetoacetyl-CoA to form HMG-CoA, which is converted by HMG-CoA reductase (HMGCR) into mevalonate, a precursor for cholesterol synthesis.

Catalyzes the first irreversible step in ketogenesis, condensing acetyl-CoA to acetoacetyl-CoA to form HMG-CoA, which is converted by HMG-CoA reductase (HMGCR) into mevalonate.

Catalyzes the conversion of (3S)-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) to mevalonic acid, the rate-limiting step in the synthesis of cholesterol and other isoprenoids, thus plays a critical role in cellular cholesterol homeostasis. HMGCR is the main target of statins, a class of cholesterol-lowering drugs.

Required for proper formation of the apical ectodermal ridge and correct dorsal-ventral patterning in the limb.

HMG-I/Y bind preferentially to the minor groove of A+T rich regions in double-stranded DNA. It is suggested that these proteins could function in nucleosome phasing and in the 3'-end processing of mRNA transcripts. They are also involved in the transcription regulation of genes containing, or in close proximity to A+T-rich regions

Functions as a transcriptional regulator. Functions in cell cycle regulation through CCNA2. Plays an important role in chromosome condensation during the meiotic G2/M transition of spermatocytes. Plays a role in postnatal myogenesis, is involved in satellite cell activation (By similarity). Positively regulates IGF2 expression through PLAG1 and in a PLAG1-independent manner.

Multifunctional redox sensitive protein with various roles in different cellular compartments. In the nucleus is one of the major chromatin-associated non-histone proteins and acts as a DNA chaperone involved in replication, transcription, chromatin remodeling, V(D)J recombination, DNA repair and genome stability. Proposed to be an universal biosensor for nucleic acids. Promotes host inflammatory response to sterile and infectious signals and is involved in the coordination and integration of innate and adaptive immune responses. In the cytoplasm functions as sensor and/or chaperone for immunogenic nucleic acids implicating the activation of TLR9-mediated immune responses, and mediates autophagy. Acts as danger associated molecular pattern (DAMP) molecule that amplifies immune responses during tissue injury. Released to the extracellular environment can bind DNA, nucleosomes, IL-1 beta, CXCL12, AGER isoform 2/sRAGE, lipopolysaccharide (LPS) and lipoteichoic acid (LTA), and activates cells through engagement of multiple surface receptors. In the extracellular compartment fully reduced HMGB1 (released by necrosis) acts as a chemokine, disulfide HMGB1 (actively secreted) as a cytokine, and sulfonyl HMGB1 (released from apoptotic cells) promotes immunological tolerance. Has proangiogdenic activity (By similarity). May be involved in platelet activation (By similarity). Binds to phosphatidylserine and phosphatidylethanolamide (By similarity). Bound to RAGE mediates signaling for neuronal outgrowth (By similarity). May play a role in accumulation of expanded polyglutamine (polyQ) proteins such as huntingtin (HTT) or TBP.

Multifunctional protein with various roles in different cellular compartments. May act in a redox sensitive manner. In the nucleus is an abundant chromatin-associated non-histone protein involved in transcription, chromatin remodeling and V(D)J recombination and probably other processes. Binds DNA with a preference to non- canonical DNA structures such as single-stranded DNA. Can bent DNA and enhance DNA flexibility by looping thus providing a mechanism to promote activities on various gene promoters by enhancing transcription factor binding and/or bringing distant regulatory sequences into close proximity. Involved in V(D)J recombination by acting as a cofactor of the RAG complex: acts by stimulating cleavage and RAG protein binding at the 23 bp spacer of conserved recombination signal sequences (RSS) (By similarity). Proposed to be involved in the innate immune response to nucleic acids by acting as a promiscuous immunogenic DNA/RNA sensor which cooperates with subsequent discriminative sensing by specific pattern recognition receptors (By similarity). In the extracellular compartment acts as a chemokine. Promotes proliferation and migration of endothelial cells implicating AGER/RAGE. Has antimicrobial activity in gastrointestinal epithelial tissues. Involved in inflammatory response to antigenic stimulus coupled with pro- inflammatory activity (By similarity). Involved in modulation of neurogenesis probably by regulation of neural stem proliferation (By similarity). Involved in articular cartilage surface maintenance implicating LEF1 and the Wnt/beta-catenin pathway (By similarity).

Multifunctional protein with various roles in different cellular compartments. May act in a redox sensitive manner. Associates with chromatin and binds DNA with a preference for non-canonical DNA structures such as single-stranded DNA. Can bend DNA and enhance DNA flexibility by looping thus providing a mechanism to promote activities on various gene promoters (By similarity). Proposed to be involved in the innate immune response to nucleic acids by acting as a cytoplasmic promiscuous immunogenic DNA/RNA sensor (By similarity). Negatively regulates B-cell and myeloid cell differentiation. In hematopoietic stem cells may regulate the balance between self-renewal and differentiation. Involved in negative regulation of canonical Wnt signaling (By similarity).

Non-mitochondrial 3-hydroxymethyl-3-methylglutaryl-CoA lyase that catalyzes a cation-dependent cleavage of (S)-3-hydroxy-3- methylglutaryl-CoA into acetyl-CoA and acetoacetate, a key step in ketogenesis, the products of which support energy production in nonhepatic animal tissues.

Mitochondrial 3-hydroxymethyl-3-methylglutaryl-CoA lyase that catalyzes a cation-dependent cleavage of (S)-3-hydroxy-3- methylglutaryl-CoA into acetyl-CoA and acetoacetate, a key step in ketogenesis. Terminal step in leucine catabolism. Ketone bodies (beta- hydroxybutyrate, acetoacetate and acetone) are essential as an alternative source of energy to glucose, as lipid precursors and as regulators of metabolism.

Binds to the inner side of the nucleosomal DNA thus altering the interaction between the DNA and the histone octamer. May be involved in the process which maintains transcribable genes in a unique chromatin conformation. Inhibits the phosphorylation of nucleosomal histones H3 and H2A by RPS6KA5/MSK1 and RPS6KA3/RSK2 (By similarity).

Binds to the inner side of the nucleosomal DNA thus altering the interaction between the DNA and the histone octamer. May be involved in the process which maintains transcribable genes in a unique chromatin conformation (By similarity).

Preferentially binds to euchromatin and modulates cellular transcription by counteracting linker histone-mediated chromatin compaction.

Negatively regulates Wnt/beta-catenin signaling during development.

Contains a GTPase activator for the Rho-type GTPases (RhoGAP) domain that would be able to negatively regulate the actin cytoskeleton as well as cell spreading. However, also contains N-terminally a BAR- domin which is able to play an autoinhibitory effect on this RhoGAP activity.

Precursor of the histocomplatibility antigen HB-1. More generally, minor histocomplatibility antigens (mHags) refer to immunogenic peptide which, when complexed with MHC, can generate an immune response after recognition by specific T-cells. The peptides are derived from polymorphic intracellular proteins, which are cleaved by normal pathways of antigen processing. The binding of these peptides to MHC class I or class II molecules and its expression on the cell surface can stimulate T-cell responses and thereby trigger graft rejection or graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) after hematopoietic stem cell transplantation from HLA-identical sibling donor. GVHD is a frequent complication after bone marrow transplantation (BMT), due to mismatch of minor histocomplatibility antigen in HLA-matched sibling marrow transplants. HB-1 is presented on the cell surface by MHC class I HLA-B44. This complex specifically elicits donor-cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) reactivity in B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (B- ALL) after treatment by HLA-identical allogenic bone marrow transplantation (BMT). It induces cell recognition and lysis by CTL. However, HB-1 restricted expression in B-ALL cells and not in normal tissues may allow a specific CTL reactivity against B-ALL without the risk of evoking graft-versus-host disease.

Receptor for hyaluronic acid (HA) (By similarity). Involved in cell motility (By similarity). When hyaluronan binds to HMMR, the phosphorylation of a number of proteins, including PTK2/FAK1 occurs. May also be involved in cellular transformation and metastasis formation, and in regulating extracellular-regulated kinase (ERK) activity. May act as a regulator of adipogenisis (By similarity).

[Heme oxygenase 1]: Catalyzes the oxidative cleavage of heme at the alpha-methene bridge carbon, released as carbon monoxide (CO), to generate biliverdin IXalpha, while releasing the central heme iron chelate as ferrous iron. Affords protection against programmed cell death and this cytoprotective effect relies on its ability to catabolize free heme and prevent it from sensitizing cells to undergo apoptosis.

[Heme oxygenase 2]: Catalyzes the oxidative cleavage of heme at the alpha-methene bridge carbon, released as carbon monoxide (CO), to generate biliverdin IXalpha, while releasing the central heme iron chelate as ferrous iron.

Antigen-presenting molecule specialized in displaying microbial pyrimidine-based metabolites to alpha-beta T cell receptors (TCR) on innate-type mucosal-associated invariant T (MAIT) cells. In complex with B2M preferentially presents riboflavin-derived metabolites to semi-invariant TRAV1-2 TCRs on MAIT cells, guiding immune surveillance of the microbial metabolome at mucosal epithelial barriers. Signature pyrimidine-based microbial antigens are generated via non-enzymatic condensation of metabolite intermediates of the riboflavin pathway with by-products arising from other metabolic pathways such as glycolysis. Typical potent antigenic metabolites are 5-(2-oxoethylideneamino)-6-D-ribitylaminouracil (5-OE-RU) and 5-(2- oxopropylideneamino)-6-D-ribitylaminouracil (5-OP-RU), products of condensation of 5-amino-6-D-ribityaminouracil (5-A-RU) with glyoxal or methylglyoxal by-products, respectively. May present microbial antigens to various TRAV1-2-negative MAIT cell subsets, providing for unique recognition of diverse microbes, including pathogens that do not synthesize riboflavin. Upon antigen recognition, elicits rapid innate-type MAIT cell activation to eliminate pathogenic microbes by directly killing infected cells. During T cell development, drives thymic selection and post-thymic terminal differentiation of MAIT cells in a process dependent on commensal microflora (By similarity). Acts as an immune sensor of cancer cell metabolome. May present a tumor-specific or -associated metabolite essential for cancer cell survival to a pan-cancer TCR consisting of TRAV38.2-DV8*TRAJ31 alpha chain paired with a TRBV25.1*TRBJ2.3 beta chain on a non-MAIT CD8- positive T cell clone (MC.7.G5), triggering T cell-mediated killing of a wide range of cancer cell types.

DNA-binding protein that binds to the 5'-CAAG-3' core sequence. May function as a transcriptional repressor. Seems to act as a transcriptional antagonist of NKX2-5. May play an important role in the development of craniofacial structures such as the eye and ear.

Transcription factor involved in specification of neuronal cell types and which is required for inner ear and hypothalamus development.

Transcription factor involved in specification of neuronal cell types and which is required for inner ear and hypothalamus development. Binds to the 5'-CAAGTG-3' core sequence. Controls semicircular canal formation in the inner ear. Also required for hypothalamic/pituitary axis of the CNS (By similarity).

Transcription factor that binds to the inverted palindrome 5'-GTTAATNATTAAC-3'. Binds to the FPC element in the cAMP regulatory unit of the PLAU gene (By similarity). Transcriptional activity is increased by coactivator PCBD1.

Transcriptional regulator which controls the expression of hepatic genes during the transition of endodermal cells to hepatic progenitor cells, facilitating the recruitment of RNA pol II to the promoters of target genes. Activates the transcription of CYP2C38 (By similarity). Represses the CLOCK-BMAL1 transcriptional activity and is essential for circadian rhythm maintenance and period regulation in the liver and colon cells.

Transcriptional activator. Binds the consensus sequence 5'- DHWATTGAYTWWD-3' on a variety of gene promoters such as those of HNF3B and TTR. Important for liver genes transcription

Inactivates histamine by N-methylation. Plays an important role in degrading histamine and in regulating the airway response to histamine.

May play a role in nucleosome assembly by neutralizing basic proteins such as A and B core hnRNPs.

Acts as a transcriptional regulator. Promotes transcription repression. Promotes transcription activation in differentiated myotubes (By similarity). Binds to double- and single-stranded DNA sequences. Binds to the transcription suppressor CATR sequence of the COX5B promoter (By similarity). Binds with high affinity to RNA molecules that contain AU-rich elements (AREs) found within the 3'-UTR of many proto-oncogenes and cytokine mRNAs. Binds both to nuclear and cytoplasmic poly(A) mRNAs. Binds to poly(G) and poly(A), but not to poly(U) or poly(C) RNA homopolymers. Binds to the 5'-ACUAGC-3' RNA consensus sequence.

This protein is a component of the heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein (hnRNP) complexes which provide the substrate for the processing events that pre-mRNAs undergo before becoming functional, translatable mRNAs in the cytoplasm. Mediates pre-mRNA alternative splicing regulation. Inhibits, together with CUGBP1, insulin receptor (IR) pre-mRNA exon 11 inclusion in myoblast. Binds to the IR RNA. Binds poly(RG).

This protein is a component of the heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein (hnRNP) complexes which provide the substrate for the processing events that pre-mRNAs undergo before becoming functional, translatable mRNAs in the cytoplasm. Binds poly(RG)

Involved in the splicing process and participates in early heat shock-induced splicing arrest. Due to their great structural variations the different isoforms may possess different functions in the splicing reaction

Acts as a basic transcriptional regulator. Represses basic transcription driven by several virus and cellular promoters. When associated with BRD7, activates transcription of glucocorticoid- responsive promoter in the absence of ligand-stimulation. Also plays a role in mRNA processing and transport. Binds avidly to poly(G) and poly(C) RNA homopolymers in vitro.

RNA-binding protein that functions as regulator of alternative splicing for multiple target mRNAs, including PTPRC/CD45 and STAT5A. Required for alternative splicing of PTPRC.

Binds pre-mRNA and nucleates the assembly of 40S hnRNP particles. Interacts with poly-U tracts in the 3'-UTR or 5'-UTR of mRNA and modulates the stability and the level of translation of bound mRNA molecules. Single HNRNPC tetramers bind 230-240 nucleotides. Trimers of HNRNPC tetramers bind 700 nucleotides. May play a role in the early steps of spliceosome assembly and pre-mRNA splicing. N6-methyladenosine (m6A) has been shown to alter the local structure in mRNAs and long non-coding RNAs (lncRNAs) via a mechanism named 'm(6)A-switch', facilitating binding of HNRNPC, leading to regulation of mRNA splicing.

Binds with high affinity to RNA molecules that contain AU- rich elements (AREs) found within the 3'-UTR of many proto-oncogenes and cytokine mRNAs. Also binds to double- and single-stranded DNA sequences in a specific manner and functions a transcription factor. Each of the RNA-binding domains specifically can bind solely to a single-stranded non-monotonous 5'-UUAG-3' sequence and also weaker to the single-stranded 5'-TTAGGG-3' telomeric DNA repeat. Binds RNA oligonucleotides with 5'-UUAGGG-3' repeats more tightly than the telomeric single-stranded DNA 5'-TTAGGG-3' repeats. Binding of RRM1 to DNA inhibits the formation of DNA quadruplex structure which may play a role in telomere elongation. May be involved in translationally coupled mRNA turnover. Implicated with other RNA-binding proteins in the cytoplasmic deadenylation/translational and decay interplay of the FOS mRNA mediated by the major coding-region determinant of instability (mCRD) domain. May play a role in the regulation of the rhythmic expression of circadian clock core genes. Directly binds to the 3'UTR of CRY1 mRNA and induces CRY1 rhythmic translation. May also be involved in the regulation of PER2 translation.

Component of the heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein (hnRNP) complexes which provide the substrate for the processing events that pre-mRNAs undergo before becoming functional, translatable mRNAs in the cytoplasm. Plays a role in the regulation of alternative splicing events. Binds G-rich sequences in pre-mRNAs and keeps target RNA in an unfolded state.

One of the major pre-mRNA-binding proteins. Binds tenaciously to poly(C) sequences. Likely to play a role in the nuclear metabolism of hnRNAs, particularly for pre-mRNAs that contain cytidine-rich sequences. Can also bind poly(C) single-stranded DNA. Plays an important role in p53/TP53 response to DNA damage, acting at the level of both transcription activation and repression. When sumoylated, acts as a transcriptional coactivator of p53/TP53, playing a role in p21/CDKN1A and 14-3-3 sigma/SFN induction (By similarity). As far as transcription repression is concerned, acts by interacting with long intergenic RNA p21 (lincRNA-p21), a non-coding RNA induced by p53/TP53. This interaction is necessary for the induction of apoptosis, but not cell cycle arrest. As part of a ribonucleoprotein complex composed at least of ZNF827, HNRNPL and the circular RNA circZNF827 that nucleates the complex on chromatin, may negatively regulate the transcription of genes involved in neuronal differentiation.

Splicing factor binding to exonic or intronic sites and acting as either an activator or repressor of exon inclusion. Exhibits a binding preference for CA-rich elements. Component of the heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein (hnRNP) complexes and associated with most nascent transcripts. Associates, together with APEX1, to the negative calcium responsive element (nCaRE) B2 of the APEX2 promoter. As part of a ribonucleoprotein complex composed at least of ZNF827, HNRNPK and the circular RNA circZNF827 that nucleates the complex on chromatin, may negatively regulate the transcription of genes involved in neuronal differentiation.

Pre-mRNA binding protein in vivo, binds avidly to poly(G) and poly(U) RNA homopolymers in vitro. Involved in splicing. Acts as a receptor for carcinoembryonic antigen in Kupffer cells, may initiate a series of signaling events leading to tyrosine phosphorylation of proteins and induction of IL-1 alpha, IL-6, IL-10 and tumor necrosis factor alpha cytokines

Heterogenous nuclear ribonucleoprotein (hnRNP) implicated in mRNA processing mechanisms. Component of the CRD-mediated complex that promotes MYC mRNA stability. Isoform 1, isoform 2 and isoform 3 are associated in vitro with pre-mRNA, splicing intermediates and mature mRNA protein complexes. Isoform 1 binds to apoB mRNA AU-rich sequences. Isoform 1 is part of the APOB mRNA editosome complex and may modulate the postranscriptional C to U RNA-editing of the APOB mRNA through either by binding to A1CF (APOBEC1 complementation factor), to APOBEC1 or to RNA itself. May be involved in translationally coupled mRNA turnover. Implicated with other RNA-binding proteins in the cytoplasmic deadenylation/translational and decay interplay of the FOS mRNA mediated by the major coding-region determinant of instability (mCRD) domain. Interacts in vitro preferentially with poly(A) and poly(U) RNA sequences. Isoform 3 may be involved in cytoplasmic vesicle-based mRNA transport through interaction with synaptotagmins. Component of the GAIT (gamma interferon-activated inhibitor of translation) complex which mediates interferon-gamma-induced transcript-selective translation inhibition in inflammation processes. Upon interferon-gamma activation assembles into the GAIT complex which binds to stem loop- containing GAIT elements in the 3'-UTR of diverse inflammatory mRNAs (such as ceruplasmin) and suppresses their translation; seems not to be essential for GAIT complex function.

Component of ribonucleosomes, which are complexes of at least 20 other different heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoproteins (hnRNP). hnRNP play an important role in processing of precursor mRNA in the nucleus

DNA- and RNA-binding protein involved in several cellular processes such as nuclear chromatin organization, telomere-length regulation, transcription, mRNA alternative splicing and stability, Xist-mediated transcriptional silencing and mitotic cell progression. Plays a role in the regulation of interphase large-scale gene-rich chromatin organization through chromatin-associated RNAs (caRNAs) in a transcription-dependent manner, and thereby maintains genomic stability. Required for the localization of the long non-coding Xist RNA on the inactive chromosome X (Xi) and the subsequent initiation and maintenance of X-linked transcriptional gene silencing during X-inactivation (By similarity). Plays a role as a RNA polymerase II (Pol II) holoenzyme transcription regulator. Promotes transcription initiation by direct association with the core-TFIIH basal transcription factor complex for the assembly of a functional pre-initiation complex with Pol II in a actin-dependent manner. Blocks Pol II transcription elongation activity by inhibiting the C- terminal domain (CTD) phosphorylation of Pol II and dissociates from Pol II pre-initiation complex prior to productive transcription elongation. Positively regulates CBX5-induced transcriptional gene silencing and retention of CBX5 in the nucleus. Negatively regulates glucocorticoid-mediated transcriptional activation. Key regulator of transcription initiation and elongation in embryonic stem cells upon leukemia inhibitory factor (LIF) signaling (By similarity). Involved in the long non-coding RNA H19-mediated Pol II transcriptional repression. Participates in the circadian regulation of the core clock component BMAL1 transcription (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of telomere length. Plays a role as a global pre-mRNA alternative splicing modulator by regulating U2 small nuclear ribonucleoprotein (snRNP) biogenesis. Plays a role in mRNA stability. Component of the CRD-mediated complex that promotes MYC mRNA stabilization. Enhances the expression of specific genes, such as tumor necrosis factor TNFA, by regulating mRNA stability, possibly through binding to the 3'-untranslated region (UTR). Plays a role in mitotic cell cycle regulation. Involved in the formation of stable mitotic spindle microtubules (MTs) attachment to kinetochore, spindle organization and chromosome congression. Phosphorylation at Ser-59 by PLK1 is required for chromosome alignement and segregation and progression through mitosis. Contributes also to the targeting of AURKA to mitotic spindle MTs. Binds to double- and single-stranded DNA and RNA, poly(A), poly(C) and poly(G) oligoribonucleotides. Binds to chromatin-associated RNAs (caRNAs). Associates with chromatin to scaffold/matrix attachment region (S/MAR) elements in a chromatin-associated RNAs (caRNAs)-dependent manner. Binds to the Xist RNA. Binds the long non-coding H19 RNA. Binds to SMN1/2 pre-mRNAs at G/U-rich regions. Binds to small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs). Binds to the 3'-UTR of TNFA mRNA. Binds (via RNA-binding RGG-box region) to the long non-coding Xist RNA; this binding is direct and bridges the Xist RNA and the inactive chromosome X (Xi) (By similarity). Also negatively regulates embryonic stem cell differentiation upon LIF signaling (By similarity). Required for embryonic development (By similarity). Binds to brown fat long non- coding RNA 1 (Blnc1); facilitates the recruitment of Blnc1 by ZBTB7B required to drive brown and beige fat development and thermogenesis (By similarity).

Required for motile ciliogenesis and flagellar genesis by mediating the maturation of the glycolytic enzyme ENO4.

Catalyzes the final step in the metabolic pathway of hydroxyproline.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase, which accepts ubiquitin from specific E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes, such as UBE2L3/UBCM4, and then transfers it to substrates. Functions as an E3 ligase for oxidized IREB2 and both heme and oxygen are necessary for IREB2 ubiquitination. Promotes ubiquitination of TAB2 and IRF3 and their degradation by the proteasome. Component of the LUBAC complex which conjugates linear ('Met-1'-linked) polyubiquitin chains to substrates and plays a key role in NF-kappa-B activation and regulation of inflammation. LUBAC conjugates linear polyubiquitin to IKBKG and RIPK1 and is involved in activation of the canonical NF-kappa-B and the JNK signaling pathways. Linear ubiquitination mediated by the LUBAC complex interferes with TNF-induced cell death and thereby prevents inflammation. LUBAC is recruited to the TNF-R1 signaling complex (TNF-RSC) following polyubiquitination of TNF-RSC components by BIRC2 and/or BIRC3 and to conjugate linear polyubiquitin to IKBKG and possibly other components contributing to the stability of the complex. The LUBAC complex is also involved in innate immunity by conjugating linear polyubiquitin chains at the surface of bacteria invading the cytosol to form the ubiquitin coat surrounding bacteria. LUBAC is not able to initiate formation of the bacterial ubiquitin coat, and can only promote formation of linear polyubiquitins on pre-existing ubiquitin. The bacterial ubiquitin coat acts as an 'eat-me' signal for xenophagy and promotes NF-kappa-B activation. Together with OTULIN, the LUBAC complex regulates the canonical Wnt signaling during angiogenesis. Binds polyubiquitin of different linkage types.

Postsynaptic density scaffolding protein. Binds and cross- links cytoplasmic regions of GRM1, GRM5, ITPR1, DNM3, RYR1, RYR2, SHANK1 and SHANK3. By physically linking GRM1 and GRM5 with ER- associated ITPR1 receptors, it aids the coupling of surface receptors to intracellular calcium release. May also couple GRM1 to PI3 kinase through its interaction with AGAP2. Isoform 1 regulates the trafficking and surface expression of GRM5. Isoform 3 acts as a natural dominant negative, in dynamic competition with constitutively expressed isoform 1 to regulate synaptic metabotropic glutamate function. Isoform 3, may be involved in the structural changes that occur at synapses during long-lasting neuronal plasticity and development. Forms a high-order complex with SHANK1, which in turn is necessary for the structural and functional integrity of dendritic spines (By similarity). Negatively regulates T cell activation by inhibiting the calcineurin-NFAT pathway. Acts by competing with calcineurin/PPP3CA for NFAT protein binding, hence preventing NFAT activation by PPP3CA.

Postsynaptic density scaffolding protein. Binds and cross- links cytoplasmic regions of GRM1, GRM5, ITPR1, DNM3, RYR1, RYR2, SHANK1 and SHANK3. By physically linking GRM1 and GRM5 with ER- associated ITPR1 receptors, it aids the coupling of surface receptors to intracellular calcium release. May also couple GRM1 to PI3 kinase through its interaction with AGAP2. Isoforms can be differently regulated and may play an important role in maintaining the plasticity at glutamatergic synapses. Required for normal hearing. Negatively regulates T cell activation by inhibiting the calcineurin-NFAT pathway. Acts by competing with calcineurin/PPP3CA for NFAT protein binding, hence preventing NFAT activation by PPP3CA.

Postsynaptic density scaffolding protein. Binds and cross- links cytoplasmic regions of GRM1, GRM5, ITPR1, DNM3, RYR1, RYR2, SHANK1 and SHANK3. By physically linking GRM1 and GRM5 with ER- associated ITPR1 receptors, it aids the coupling of surface receptors to intracellular calcium release. Isoforms can be differently regulated and may play an important role in maintaining the plasticity at glutamatergic synapses. Negatively regulates T cell activation by inhibiting the calcineurin-NFAT pathway. Acts by competing with calcineurin/PPP3CA for NFAT protein binding, hence preventing NFAT activation by PPP3CA.

Component of the FTS/Hook/FHIP complex (FHF complex). The FHF complex may function to promote vesicle trafficking and/or fusion via the homotypic vesicular protein sorting complex (the HOPS complex). FHF complex promotes the distribution of AP-4 complex to the perinuclear area of the cell. Required for spermatid differentiation. Probably involved in the positioning of the microtubules of the manchette and the flagellum in relation to the membrane skeleton (By similarity).

Component of the FTS/Hook/FHIP complex (FHF complex). The FHF complex may function to promote vesicle trafficking and/or fusion via the homotypic vesicular protein sorting complex (the HOPS complex). Contributes to the establishment and maintenance of centrosome function. May function in the positioning or formation of aggresomes, which are pericentriolar accumulations of misfolded proteins, proteasomes and chaperones. FHF complex promotes the distribution of AP-4 complex to the perinuclear area of the cell.

Probably serves as a target for the spiC protein from Salmonella typhimurium, which inactivates it, leading to a strong alteration in cellular trafficking (By similarity). Component of the FTS/Hook/FHIP complex (FHF complex). The FHF complex may function to promote vesicle trafficking and/or fusion via the homotypic vesicular protein sorting complex (the HOPS complex). May regulate clearance of endocytosed receptors such as MSR1. Participates in defining the architecture and localization of the Golgi complex. Acts as an adapter protein linking the dynein motor complex to various cargos and converts dynein from a non-processive to a highly processive motor in the presence of dynactin. Facilitates the interaction between dynein and dynactin and activates dynein processivity (the ability to move along a microtubule for a long distance without falling off the track). FHF complex promotes the distribution of AP-4 complex to the perinuclear area of the cell.

Plays an important role in meiotic recombination. Stimulates DMC1-mediated strand exchange required for pairing homologous chromosomes during meiosis. The complex PSMC3IP/MND1 binds DNA, stimulates the recombinase activity of DMC1 as well as DMC1 D-loop formation from double-strand DNA. This complex stabilizes presynaptic RAD51 and DMC1 filaments formed on single strand DNA to capture double- strand DNA. This complex stimulates both synaptic and presynaptic critical steps in RAD51 and DMC1-promoted homologous pairing. May inhibit HIV-1 viral protein TAT activity and modulate the activity of proteasomes through association with PSMC3. Acts as a tissue specific coactivator of hormone-dependent transcription mediated by nuclear receptors.

Atypical homeodomain protein which does not bind DNA and is required to modulate cardiac growth and development. Acts via its interaction with SRF, thereby modulating the expression of SRF- dependent cardiac-specific genes and cardiac development. Prevents SRF- dependent transcription either by inhibiting SRF binding to DNA or by recruiting histone deacetylase (HDAC) proteins that prevent transcription by SRF. Overexpression causes cardiac hypertrophy (By similarity). May act as a tumor suppressor. Acts as a co-chaperone for HSPA1A and HSPA1B chaperone proteins and assists in chaperone-mediated protein refolding.

Plays a key role in meiotic progression. Regulates 3 different functions during meiosis: ensures that sufficient numbers of processed DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) are available for successful homology search by increasing the steady-state numbers of single- stranded DSB ends. Promotes synaptonemal-complex formation independently of its role in homology search. Plays a key role in the male mid-pachytene checkpoint and the female meiotic prophase checkpoint: required for efficient build-up of ATR activity on unsynapsed chromosome regions, a process believed to form the basis of meiotic silencing of unsynapsed chromatin (MSUC) and meiotic prophase quality control in both sexes.

Essential for synapsis surveillance during meiotic prophase via the recruitment of ATR activity. Plays a key role in the male mid- pachytene checkpoint and the female meiotic prophase checkpoint: required for efficient build-up of ATR activity on unsynapsed chromosome regions, a process believed to form the basis of meiotic silencing of unsynapsed chromatin (MSUC) and meiotic prophase quality control in both sexes. Required for the DNA double-strand break- independent, BRCA1-dependent activation of ATR on the sex chromosomes that is essential for normal sex body formation (By similarity).

Catalyzes the cofactor-independent reversible oxidation of gamma-hydroxybutyrate (GHB) to succinic semialdehyde (SSA) coupled to reduction of 2-ketoglutarate (2-KG) to D-2-hydroxyglutarate (D-2-HG). D,L-3-hydroxyisobutyrate and L-3-hydroxybutyrate (L-3-OHB) are also substrates for HOT with 10-fold lower activities.

Component of heterochromatin that maintains heterochromatin integrity during G1/S progression and regulates the duration of G1 phase to critically influence cell proliferative capacity. Mediates chromatin condensation during hypoxia, leading to increased tumor cell viability, radio-resistance, chemo- resistance and self-renewal(PubMed:25100860).

Inhibits HSPA1A chaperone activity by changing the conformation of the ATP-binding domain of HSPA1A and interfering with ATP binding. Interferes with ubiquitination mediated by STUB1 and inhibits chaperone-assisted degradation of immature CFTR.

Calcium-binding protein that may play a role in the regulation of voltage-dependent calcium channels. May also play a role in cyclic-nucleotide-mediated signaling through the regulation of adenylate and guanylate cyclases (By similarity).

May be involved in the calcium-dependent regulation of rhodopsin phosphorylation

May be involved in the calcium-dependent regulation of rhodopsin phosphorylation.

Cofactor for serine ADP-ribosylation that confers serine specificity on PARP1 and PARP2 and plays a key role in DNA damage response. Initiates the repair of double-strand DNA breaks: recruited to DNA damage sites by PARP1 and PARP2 and switches the amino acid specificity of PARP1 and PARP2 from aspartate or glutamate to serine residues, licensing serine ADP-ribosylation of target proteins. Serine ADP- ribosylation of target proteins, such as histones, promotes decompaction of chromatin and the recruitment of repair factors leading to the reparation of DNA strand breaks. Serine ADP- ribosylation of proteins constitutes the primary form of ADP- ribosylation of proteins in response to DNA damage. HPF1 acts by completing the active site of PARP1 and PARP2: forms a composite active site composed of residues from HPF1 and PARP1 or PARP2. While HPF1 promotes the initiation of serine ADP-ribosylation, it restricts the polymerase activity of PARP1 and PARP2 in order to limit the length of poly-ADP-ribose chains. HPF1 also promotes tyrosine ADP-ribosylation, probably by conferring tyrosine specificity on PARP1.

Bifunctional enzyme which catalyzes both the conversion of PGH2 to PGD2, a prostaglandin involved in smooth muscle contraction/relaxation and a potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation, and the conjugation of glutathione with a wide range of aryl halides and organic isothiocyanates. Also exhibits low glutathione-peroxidase activity towards cumene hydroperoxide.

Is a copper-binding glycoprotein with ferroxidase activity. It oxidizes Fe(2+) to Fe(3+) without releasing radical oxygen species. May be involved in the regulation of intracellular iron content.

Regulates HCFC1 activity by modulating its subcellular localization. Overexpression of HCFC1R1 leads to accumulation of HCFC1 in the cytoplasm. HCFC1R1-mediated export may provide the pool of cytoplasmic HCFC1 required for import of virion-derived VP16 into the nucleus.

Stabilizes the aggregates of proteoglycan monomers with hyaluronic acid in the extracellular cartilage matrix

Mediates a firm binding of versican V2 to hyaluronic acid. May play a pivotal role in the formation of the hyaluronan-associated matrix in the central nervous system (CNS) which facilitates neuronal conduction and general structural stabilization. Binds to hyaluronic acid (By similarity).

Essential for the proper localization of brevican (BCAN), mainly as a perineuronal nets (PNNs)-type deposition in the brainstem and cerebellum thereby playing a key role in the formation and structural organization of PNNs (By similarity). Contributes to the formation and transmission of inhibitory GABAergic synapses between Purkinje cells and deep cerebellar nuclei neurons (By similarity).

Converts guanine to guanosine monophosphate, and hypoxanthine to inosine monophosphate. Transfers the 5-phosphoribosyl group from 5- phosphoribosylpyrophosphate onto the purine. Plays a central role in the generation of purine nucleotides through the purine salvage pathway

Component of the BLOC-3 complex, a complex that acts as a guanine exchange factor (GEF) for RAB32 and RAB38, promotes the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting them from an inactive GDP-bound form into an active GTP-bound form. The BLOC-3 complex plays an important role in the control of melanin production and melanosome biogenesis and promotes the membrane localization of RAB32 and RAB38.

Involved in early stages of melanosome biogenesis and maturation.

May regulate the synthesis and function of lysosomes and of highly specialized organelles, such as melanosomes and platelet dense granules. Regulates intracellular vesicular trafficking in fibroblasts. May be involved in the regulation of general functions of integrins.

May regulate the synthesis and function of lysosomes and of highly specialized organelles, such as melanosomes and platelet dense granules. Acts as cargo adapter for the dynein- dynactin motor complex to mediate the transport of lysosomes from the cell periphery to the perinuclear region. Facilitates retrograde lysosomal trafficking by linking the motor complex to lysosomes, and perinuclear positioning of lysosomes is crucial for the delivery of endocytic cargos to lysosomes, for lysosome maturation and functioning.

Binds heparin and heparan sulfate with high affinity, but lacks heparanase activity. Inhibits HPSE, possibly by competing for its substrates (in vitro).

Endoglycosidase that cleaves heparan sulfate proteoglycans (HSPGs) into heparan sulfate side chains and core proteoglycans. Participates in extracellular matrix (ECM) degradation and remodeling. Selectively cleaves the linkage between a glucuronic acid unit and an N-sulfo glucosamine unit carrying either a 3-O-sulfo or a 6-O-sulfo group. Can also cleave the linkage between a glucuronic acid unit and an N-sulfo glucosamine unit carrying a 2-O-sulfo group, but not linkages between a glucuronic acid unit and a 2-O-sulfated iduronic acid moiety. It is essentially inactive at neutral pH but becomes active under acidic conditions such as during tumor invasion and in inflammatory processes. Facilitates cell migration associated with metastasis, wound healing and inflammation. Enhances shedding of syndecans, and increases endothelial invasion and angiogenesis in myelomas. Acts as procoagulant by increasing the generation of activation factor X in the presence of tissue factor and activation factor VII. Increases cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix (ECM), independent of its enzymatic activity. Induces AKT1/PKB phosphorylation via lipid rafts increasing cell mobility and invasion. Heparin increases this AKT1/PKB activation. Regulates osteogenesis. Enhances angiogenesis through up-regulation of SRC-mediated activation of VEGF. Implicated in hair follicle inner root sheath differentiation and hair homeostasis.

Primate-specific plasma protein associated with apolipoprotein L-I (apoL-I)-containing high-density lipoprotein (HDL). This HDL particle, termed trypanosome lytic factor-1 (TLF-1), mediates human innate immune protection against many species of African trypanosomes. Binds hemoglobin with high affinity and may contribute to the clearance of cell-free hemoglobin to allow hepatic recycling of heme iron.

As a result of hemolysis, hemoglobin is found to accumulate in the kidney and is secreted in the urine. Haptoglobin captures, and combines with free plasma hemoglobin to allow hepatic recycling of heme iron and to prevent kidney damage. Haptoglobin also acts as an antioxidant, has antibacterial activity, and plays a role in modulating many aspects of the acute phase response. Hemoglobin/haptoglobin complexes are rapidly cleared by the macrophage CD163 scavenger receptor expressed on the surface of liver Kupfer cells through an endocytic lysosomal degradation pathway.

Heme transporter that regulates intracellular heme availability through the endosomal or lysosomal compartment.

Plasma glycoprotein that binds a number of ligands such as heme, heparin, heparan sulfate, thrombospondin, plasminogen, and divalent metal ions. Binds heparin and heparin/glycosaminoglycans in a zinc-dependent manner. Binds heparan sulfate on the surface of liver, lung, kidney and heart endothelial cells. Binds to N-sulfated polysaccharide chains on the surface of liver endothelial cells. Inhibits rosette formation. Acts as an adapter protein and is implicated in regulating many processes such as immune complex and pathogen clearance, cell chemotaxis, cell adhesion, angiogenesis, coagulation and fibrinolysis. Mediates clearance of necrotic cells through enhancing the phagocytosis of necrotic cells in a heparan sulfate-dependent pathway. This process can be regulated by the presence of certain HRG ligands such as heparin and zinc ions. Binds to IgG subclasses of immunoglobins containing kappa and lambda light chains with different affinities regulating their clearance and inhibiting the formation of insoluble immune complexes. Tethers plasminogen to the cell surface. Binds T-cells and alters the cell morphology. Modulates angiogenesis by blocking the CD6-mediated antiangiongenic effect of thrombospondins, THBS1 and THBS2. Acts as a regulator of the vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) signaling pathway; inhibits endothelial cell motility by reducing VEGF-induced complex formation between PXN/paxillin and ILK/integrin-linked protein kinase and by promoting inhibition of VEGF-induced tyrosine phosphorylation of focal adhesion kinases and alpha-actinins in endothelial cells. Also plays a role in the regulation of tumor angiogenesis and tumor immune surveillance. Normalizes tumor vessels and promotes antitumor immunity by polarizing tumor-associated macrophages, leading to decreased tumor growth and metastasis.

In peripheral tissues, the H1 subclass of histamine receptors mediates the contraction of smooth muscles, increase in capillary permeability due to contraction of terminal venules, and catecholamine release from adrenal medulla, as well as mediating neurotransmission in the central nervous system

The H3 subclass of histamine receptors could mediate the histamine signals in CNS and peripheral nervous system. Signals through the inhibition of adenylate cyclase and displays high constitutive activity (spontaneous activity in the absence of agonist). Agonist stimulation of isoform 3 neither modified adenylate cyclase activity nor induced intracellular calcium mobilization

The H4 subclass of histamine receptors could mediate the histamine signals in peripheral tissues. Displays a significant level of constitutive activity (spontaneous activity in the absence of agonist).

DNA-binding protein involved in homologous recombination that acts by recruiting the MCM8-MCM9 helicase complex to sites of DNA damage to promote DNA repair synthesis.

May function as an inhibitory translational control element that can negatively regulate protein translation of HR gene.

Acts as a nucleotide-exchange factor (NEF) for chaperone proteins HSPA1A and HSPA1B, promoting the release of ADP from HSPA1A/B thereby triggering client/substrate protein release. Prevents the aggregation of denatured proteins in cells under severe stress, on which the ATP levels decrease markedly. Inhibits HSPA8/HSC70 ATPase and chaperone activities (By similarity).

Adapter protein for SORL1, but not SORT1. Delays SORL1 internalization and affects SORL1 subcellular localization.

Catalyzes the transfer of sulfate to the C2-position of selected hexuronic acid residues within the maturing heparan sulfate (HS). 2-O-sulfation within HS, particularly of iduronate residues, is essential for HS to participate in a variety of high-affinity ligand- binding interactions and signaling processes. Mediates 2-O-sulfation of both L-iduronyl and D-glucuronyl residues (By similarity).

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) to catalyze the transfer of a sulfo group to position 3 of glucosamine residues in heparan. Catalyzes the rate limiting step in the biosynthesis of heparan sulfate (HSact). This modification is a crucial step in the biosynthesis of anticoagulant heparan sulfate as it completes the structure of the antithrombin pentasaccharide binding site.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) to catalyze the transfer of a sulfo group to an N-unsubstituted glucosamine linked to a 2-O-sulfo iduronic acid unit on heparan sulfate. Catalyzes the O-sulfation of glucosamine in GlcA2S- GlcNS. Unlike HS3ST1/3-OST-1, does not convert non- anticoagulant heparan sulfate to anticoagulant heparan sulfate.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) to catalyze the transfer of a sulfo group to an N-unsubstituted glucosamine linked to a 2-O-sulfo iduronic acid unit on heparan sulfate. Unlike 3-OST-1, does not convert non-anticoagulant heparan sulfate to anticoagulant heparan sulfate (By similarity).

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) to catalyze the transfer of a sulfo group to position 3 of glucosamine residues in heparan. Catalyzes the rate limiting step in the biosynthesis of heparan sulfate (HSact). This modification is a crucial step in the biosynthesis of anticoagulant heparan sulfate as it completes the structure of the antithrombin pentasaccharide binding site. Also generates GlcUA-GlcNS or IdoUA-GlcNS and IdoUA2S-GlcNH2. The substrate-specific O-sulfation generates an enzyme-modified heparan sulfate which acts as a binding receptor to Herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1) and permits its entry.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) to catalyze the transfer of a sulfo group to heparan sulfate. The substrate-specific O-sulfation generates an enzyme-modified heparan sulfate which acts as a binding receptor to Herpes Simplex Virus-1 (HSV-1) and permits its entry. Unlike 3-OST-1, does not convert non- anticoagulant heparan sulfate to anticoagulant heparan sulfate.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) to catalyze the transfer of a sulfo group to an N-unsubstituted glucosamine linked to a 2-O-sulfo iduronic acid unit on heparan sulfate. Catalyzes the O-sulfation of glucosamine in IdoUA2S-GlcNS and also in IdoUA2S-GlcNH2. The substrate-specific O-sulfation generates an enzyme-modified heparan sulfate which acts as a binding receptor to Herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1) and permits its entry. Unlike HS3ST1/3-OST-1, does not convert non-anticoagulant heparan sulfate to anticoagulant heparan sulfate.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) to catalyze the transfer of a sulfo group to an N-unsubstituted glucosamine linked to a 2-O-sulfo iduronic acid unit on heparan sulfate. Catalyzes the O-sulfation of glucosamine in IdoUA2S-GlcNS and also in IdoUA2S-GlcNH2. The substrate-specific O-sulfation generates an enzyme-modified heparan sulfate which acts as a binding receptor to Herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1) and permits its entry. Unlike HS3ST1/3-OST-1, does not convert non- anticoagulant heparan sulfate to anticoagulant heparan sulfate.

Molecular chaperone implicated in a wide variety of cellular processes, including protection of the proteome from stress, folding and transport of newly synthesized polypeptides, activation of proteolysis of misfolded proteins and the formation and dissociation of protein complexes. Plays a pivotal role in the protein quality control system, ensuring the correct folding of proteins, the re-folding of misfolded proteins and controlling the targeting of proteins for subsequent degradation. This is achieved through cycles of ATP binding, ATP hydrolysis and ADP release, mediated by co-chaperones. The co- chaperones have been shown to not only regulate different steps of the ATPase cycle, but they also have an individual specificity such that one co-chaperone may promote folding of a substrate while another may promote degradation. The affinity for polypeptides is regulated by its nucleotide bound state. In the ATP-bound form, it has a low affinity for substrate proteins. However, upon hydrolysis of the ATP to ADP, it undergoes a conformational change that increases its affinity for substrate proteins. It goes through repeated cycles of ATP hydrolysis and nucleotide exchange, which permits cycles of substrate binding and release. The co-chaperones are of three types: J-domain co-chaperones such as HSP40s (stimulate ATPase hydrolysis by HSP70), the nucleotide exchange factors (NEF) such as BAG1/2/3 (facilitate conversion of HSP70 from the ADP-bound to the ATP-bound state thereby promoting substrate release), and the TPR domain chaperones such as HOPX and STUB1. Maintains protein homeostasis during cellular stress through two opposing mechanisms: protein refolding and degradation. Its acetylation/deacetylation state determines whether it functions in protein refolding or protein degradation by controlling the competitive binding of co-chaperones HOPX and STUB1. During the early stress response, the acetylated form binds to HOPX which assists in chaperone-mediated protein refolding, thereafter, it is deacetylated and binds to ubiquitin ligase STUB1 that promotes ubiquitin-mediated protein degradation. Regulates centrosome integrity during mitosis, and is required for the maintenance of a functional mitotic centrosome that supports the assembly of a bipolar mitotic spindle. Enhances STUB1-mediated SMAD3 ubiquitination and degradation and facilitates STUB1-mediated inhibition of TGF-beta signaling. Essential for STUB1-mediated ubiquitination and degradation of FOXP3 in regulatory T-cells (Treg) during inflammation. Negatively regulates heat shock-induced HSF1 transcriptional activity during the attenuation and recovery phase period of the heat shock response. Involved in the clearance of misfolded PRDM1/Blimp-1 proteins. Sequesters them in the cytoplasm and promotes their association with SYNV1/HRD1, leading to proteasomal degradation.

Molecular chaperone implicated in a wide variety of cellular processes, including protection of the proteome from stress, folding and transport of newly synthesized polypeptides, activation of proteolysis of misfolded proteins and the formation and dissociation of protein complexes. Plays a pivotal role in the protein quality control system, ensuring the correct folding of proteins, the re-folding of misfolded proteins and controlling the targeting of proteins for subsequent degradation. This is achieved through cycles of ATP binding, ATP hydrolysis and ADP release, mediated by co-chaperones. The co- chaperones have been shown to not only regulate different steps of the ATPase cycle, but they also have an individual specificity such that one co-chaperone may promote folding of a substrate while another may promote degradation. The affinity for polypeptides is regulated by its nucleotide bound state. In the ATP-bound form, it has a low affinity for substrate proteins. However, upon hydrolysis of the ATP to ADP, it undergoes a conformational change that increases its affinity for substrate proteins. It goes through repeated cycles of ATP hydrolysis and nucleotide exchange, which permits cycles of substrate binding and release. The co-chaperones are of three types: J-domain co-chaperones such as HSP40s (stimulate ATPase hydrolysis by HSP70), the nucleotide exchange factors (NEF) such as BAG1/2/3 (facilitate conversion of HSP70 from the ADP-bound to the ATP-bound state thereby promoting substrate release), and the TPR domain chaperones such as HOPX and STUB1. Maintains protein homeostasis during cellular stress through two opposing mechanisms: protein refolding and degradation. Its acetylation/deacetylation state determines whether it functions in protein refolding or protein degradation by controlling the competitive binding of co-chaperones HOPX and STUB1. During the early stress response, the acetylated form binds to HOPX which assists in chaperone-mediated protein refolding, thereafter, it is deacetylated and binds to ubiquitin ligase STUB1 that promotes ubiquitin-mediated protein degradation. Regulates centrosome integrity during mitosis, and is required for the maintenance of a functional mitotic centrosome that supports the assembly of a bipolar mitotic spindle. Enhances STUB1-mediated SMAD3 ubiquitination and degradation and facilitates STUB1-mediated inhibition of TGF-beta signaling. Essential for STUB1-mediated ubiquitination and degradation of FOXP3 in regulatory T-cells (Treg) during inflammation.

Molecular chaperone implicated in a wide variety of cellular processes, including protection of the proteome from stress, folding and transport of newly synthesized polypeptides, activation of proteolysis of misfolded proteins and the formation and dissociation of protein complexes. Plays a pivotal role in the protein quality control system, ensuring the correct folding of proteins, the re-folding of misfolded proteins and controlling the targeting of proteins for subsequent degradation. This is achieved through cycles of ATP binding, ATP hydrolysis and ADP release, mediated by co-chaperones. The affinity for polypeptides is regulated by its nucleotide bound state. In the ATP-bound form, it has a low affinity for substrate proteins. However, upon hydrolysis of the ATP to ADP, it undergoes a conformational change that increases its affinity for substrate proteins. It goes through repeated cycles of ATP hydrolysis and nucleotide exchange, which permits cycles of substrate binding and release. Positive regulator of PRKN translocation to damaged mitochondria.

Possesses chaperone activity in vitro where it inhibits aggregation of citrate synthase.

Molecular chaperone that promotes the maturation, structural maintenance and proper regulation of specific target proteins involved for instance in cell cycle control and signal transduction. Undergoes a functional cycle that is linked to its ATPase activity which is essential for its chaperone activity. This cycle probably induces conformational changes in the client proteins, thereby causing their activation. Interacts dynamically with various co-chaperones that modulate its substrate recognition, ATPase cycle and chaperone function. Engages with a range of client protein classes via its interaction with various co-chaperone proteins or complexes, that act as adapters, simultaneously able to interact with the specific client and the central chaperone itself. Recruitment of ATP and co-chaperone followed by client protein forms a functional chaperone. After the completion of the chaperoning process, properly folded client protein and co- chaperone leave HSP90 in an ADP-bound partially open conformation and finally, ADP is released from HSP90 which acquires an open conformation for the next cycle. Plays a critical role in mitochondrial import, delivers preproteins to the mitochondrial import receptor TOMM70. Apart from its chaperone activity, it also plays a role in the regulation of the transcription machinery. HSP90 and its co-chaperones modulate transcription at least at three different levels. In the first place, they alter the steady-state levels of certain transcription factors in response to various physiological cues(PubMed:25973397). Second, they modulate the activity of certain epigenetic modifiers, such as histone deacetylases or DNA methyl transferases, and thereby respond to the change in the environment. Third, they participate in the eviction of histones from the promoter region of certain genes and thereby turn on gene expression. Binds bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) and mediates LPS-induced inflammatory response, including TNF secretion by monocytes. Antagonizes STUB1-mediated inhibition of TGF-beta signaling via inhibition of STUB1-mediated SMAD3 ubiquitination and degradation. Mediates the association of TOMM70 with IRF3 or TBK1 in mitochondrial outer membrane which promotes host antiviral response.

Molecular chaperone that promotes the maturation, structural maintenance and proper regulation of specific target proteins involved for instance in cell cycle control and signal transduction. Undergoes a functional cycle linked to its ATPase activity. This cycle probably induces conformational changes in the client proteins, thereby causing their activation. Interacts dynamically with various co-chaperones that modulate its substrate recognition, ATPase cycle and chaperone function. Engages with a range of client protein classes via its interaction with various co-chaperone proteins or complexes, that act as adapters, simultaneously able to interact with the specific client and the central chaperone itself. Recruitment of ATP and co-chaperone followed by client protein forms a functional chaperone. After the completion of the chaperoning process, properly folded client protein and co-chaperone leave HSP90 in an ADP-bound partially open conformation and finally, ADP is released from HSP90 which acquires an open conformation for the next cycle. Apart from its chaperone activity, it also plays a role in the regulation of the transcription machinery. HSP90 and its co-chaperones modulate transcription at least at three different levels. They first alter the steady-state levels of certain transcription factors in response to various physiological cues. Second, they modulate the activity of certain epigenetic modifiers, such as histone deacetylases or DNA methyl transferases, and thereby respond to the change in the environment. Third, they participate in the eviction of histones from the promoter region of certain genes and thereby turn on gene expression. Antagonizes STUB1- mediated inhibition of TGF-beta signaling via inhibition of STUB1- mediated SMAD3 ubiquitination and degradation. Promotes cell differentiation by chaperoning BIRC2 and thereby protecting from auto-ubiquitination and degradation by the proteasomal machinery. Main chaperone involved in the phosphorylation/activation of the STAT1 by chaperoning both JAK2 and PRKCE under heat shock and in turn, activates its own transcription. Involved in the translocation into ERGIC (endoplasmic reticulum-Golgi intermediate compartment) of leaderless cargos (lacking the secretion signal sequence) such as the interleukin 1/IL-1; the translocation process is mediated by the cargo receptor TMED10.

Negative regulator of the heat shock response. Negatively affects HSF1 DNA-binding activity. May have a role in the suppression of the activation of the stress response during the aging process

[Iron-sulfur cluster co-chaperone protein HscB, mitochondrial]: Acts as a co-chaperone in iron-sulfur cluster assembly in mitochondria. Required for incorporation of iron- sulfur clusters into SDHB, the iron-sulfur protein subunit of succinate dehydrogenase that is involved in complex II of the mitochondrial electron transport chain. Recruited to SDHB by interaction with SDHAF1 which first binds SDHB and then recruits the iron-sulfur transfer complex formed by HSC20, HSPA9 and ISCU through direct binding to HSC20. Plays an essential role in hematopoiesis (By similarity).

Functions as a stress-inducible and DNA-binding transcription factor that plays a central role in the transcriptional activation of the heat shock response (HSR), leading to the expression of a large class of molecular chaperones, heat shock proteins (HSPs), that protect cells from cellular insult damage. In unstressed cells, is present in a HSP90-containing multichaperone complex that maintains it in a non-DNA-binding inactivated monomeric form. Upon exposure to heat and other stress stimuli, undergoes homotrimerization and activates HSP gene transcription through binding to site-specific heat shock elements (HSEs) present in the promoter regions of HSP genes. Upon heat shock stress, forms a chromatin-associated complex with TTC5/STRAP and p300/EP300 to stimulate HSR transcription, therefore increasing cell survival. Activation is reversible, and during the attenuation and recovery phase period of the HSR, returns to its unactivated form. Binds to inverted 5'-NGAAN-3' pentamer DNA sequences. Binds to chromatin at heat shock gene promoters. Activates transcription of transcription factor FOXR1 which in turn activates transcription of the heat shock chaperones HSPA1A and HSPA6 and the antioxidant NADPH-dependent reductase DHRS2. Also serves several other functions independently of its transcriptional activity. Involved in the repression of Ras-induced transcriptional activation of the c-fos gene in heat-stressed cells. Positively regulates pre-mRNA 3'-end processing and polyadenylation of HSP70 mRNA upon heat-stressed cells in a symplekin (SYMPK)-dependent manner. Plays a role in nuclear export of stress- induced HSP70 mRNA. Plays a role in the regulation of mitotic progression. Also plays a role as a negative regulator of non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) repair activity in a DNA damage-dependent manner. Involved in stress-induced cancer cell proliferation in a IER5-dependent manner.

Meiotic recombination factor component of recombination bridges involved in meiotic double-strand break repair. Modulates the localization of recombinases DMC1:RAD51 to meiotic double-strand break (DSB) sites through the interaction with BRCA2 and its recruitment during meiotic recombination (By similarity). Indispensable for the DSB repair, homologous synapsis, and crossover formation that are needed for progression past metaphase I, is essential for spermatogenesis and male fertility (By similarity). Required for proper recombinase recruitment in female meiosis (By similarity). Inhibits BNC1 transcriptional activity during spermatogenesis, probably by sequestering it in the cytoplasm (By similarity). May be involved in modulating HSF2 activation in testis.

DNA-binding protein that specifically binds heat shock promoter elements (HSE) and activates transcription. In higher eukaryotes, HSF is unable to bind to the HSE unless the cells are heat shocked

Heat-shock transcription factor that specifically binds heat shock promoter elements (HSE). Required for denucleation and organelle rupture and degradation that occur during eye lens terminal differentiation, when fiber cells that compose the lens degrade all membrane-bound organelles in order to provide lens with transparency to allow the passage of light (By similarity). In this process, may regulate denucleation of lens fiber cells in part by activating DNASE2B transcription (By similarity). May be involved in DNA repair through the transcriptional regulation of RAD51. May up-regulate p53/TP53 protein in eye lens fiber cells, possibly through protein stabilization. In the eye lens, controls the expression of alpha-crystallin B chain/CRYAB and consequently may be involved in the regulation of lysosomal acidification (By similarity).

May be a modulator of the apoptotic response through its ability to affect mitochondrial stability (By similarity). Adapter protein involved in tyrosine kinase and CD28 signaling. Seems to affect CD28-mediated activation of the RE/AP element of the interleukin-2 promoter.

Protamines substitute for histones in the chromatin of sperm during the haploid phase of spermatogenesis. They compact sperm DNA into a highly condensed, stable and inactive complex

Molecular chaperone implicated in a wide variety of cellular processes, including protection of the proteome from stress, folding and transport of newly synthesized polypeptides, activation of proteolysis of misfolded proteins and the formation and dissociation of protein complexes. Plays a pivotal role in the protein quality control system, ensuring the correct folding of proteins, the re-folding of misfolded proteins and controlling the targeting of proteins for subsequent degradation. This is achieved through cycles of ATP binding, ATP hydrolysis and ADP release, mediated by co-chaperones. The affinity for polypeptides is regulated by its nucleotide bound state. In the ATP-bound form, it has a low affinity for substrate proteins. However, upon hydrolysis of the ATP to ADP, it undergoes a conformational change that increases its affinity for substrate proteins. It goes through repeated cycles of ATP hydrolysis and nucleotide exchange, which permits cycles of substrate binding and release. Plays a role in spermatogenesis. In association with SHCBP1L may participate in the maintenance of spindle integrity during meiosis in male germ cells (By similarity).

Molecular chaperone implicated in a wide variety of cellular processes, including protection of the proteome from stress, folding and transport of newly synthesized polypeptides, activation of proteolysis of misfolded proteins and the formation and dissociation of protein complexes. Plays a pivotal role in the protein quality control system, ensuring the correct folding of proteins, the re-folding of misfolded proteins and controlling the targeting of proteins for subsequent degradation. This is achieved through cycles of ATP binding, ATP hydrolysis and ADP release, mediated by co-chaperones. The affinity for polypeptides is regulated by its nucleotide bound state. In the ATP-bound form, it has a low affinity for substrate proteins. However, upon hydrolysis of the ATP to ADP, it undergoes a conformational change that increases its affinity for substrate proteins. It goes through repeated cycles of ATP hydrolysis and nucleotide exchange, which permits cycles of substrate binding and release.

Molecular chaperone implicated in a wide variety of cellular processes, including protection of the proteome from stress, folding and transport of newly synthesized polypeptides, activation of proteolysis of misfolded proteins and the formation and dissociation of protein complexes. Plays a pivotal role in the protein quality control system, ensuring the correct folding of proteins, the re-folding of misfolded proteins and controlling the targeting of proteins for subsequent degradation. This is achieved through cycles of ATP binding, ATP hydrolysis and ADP release, mediated by co-chaperones. The co-chaperones have been shown to not only regulate different steps of the ATPase cycle of HSP70, but they also have an individual specificity such that one co-chaperone may promote folding of a substrate while another may promote degradation. The affinity of HSP70 for polypeptides is regulated by its nucleotide bound state. In the ATP-bound form, it has a low affinity for substrate proteins. However, upon hydrolysis of the ATP to ADP, it undergoes a conformational change that increases its affinity for substrate proteins. HSP70 goes through repeated cycles of ATP hydrolysis and nucleotide exchange, which permits cycles of substrate binding and release. The HSP70-associated co-chaperones are of three types: J- domain co-chaperones HSP40s (stimulate ATPase hydrolysis by HSP70), the nucleotide exchange factors (NEF) such as BAG1/2/3 (facilitate conversion of HSP70 from the ADP-bound to the ATP-bound state thereby promoting substrate release), and the TPR domain chaperones such as HOPX and STUB1. Plays a critical role in mitochondrial import, delivers preproteins to the mitochondrial import receptor TOMM70. Acts as a repressor of transcriptional activation. Inhibits the transcriptional coactivator activity of CITED1 on Smad- mediated transcription. Component of the PRP19-CDC5L complex that forms an integral part of the spliceosome and is required for activating pre- mRNA splicing. May have a scaffolding role in the spliceosome assembly as it contacts all other components of the core complex. Binds bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) and mediates LPS-induced inflammatory response, including TNF secretion by monocytes. Participates in the ER-associated degradation (ERAD) quality control pathway in conjunction with J domain-containing co-chaperones and the E3 ligase STUB1. Interacts with VGF-derived peptide TLQP-21.

Component of the ribosome-associated complex (RAC), a complex involved in folding or maintaining nascent polypeptides in a folding- competent state. In the RAC complex, binds to the nascent polypeptide chain, while DNAJC2 stimulates its ATPase activity.

Small heat shock protein which functions as a molecular chaperone probably maintaining denatured proteins in a folding- competent state. Plays a role in stress resistance and actin organization. Through its molecular chaperone activity may regulate numerous biological processes including the phosphorylation and the axonal transport of neurofilament proteins.

Small heat shock protein which functions as a molecular chaperone probably maintaining denatured proteins in a folding- competent state. Seems to have versatile functions in various biological processes. Plays a role in regulating muscle function such as smooth muscle vasorelaxation and cardiac myocyte contractility. May regulate myocardial angiogenesis implicating KDR. Overexpression mediates cardioprotection and angiogenesis after induced damage. Stabilizes monomeric YWHAZ thereby supporting YWHAZ chaperone-like activity.

Oxidoreductase required for tumor suppression. NADPH-bound form inhibits nuclear import by competing with nuclear import substrates for binding to a subset of nuclear transport receptors. May act as a redox sensor linked to transcription through regulation of nuclear import. Isoform 1 is a metastasis suppressor with proapoptotic as well as antiangiogenic properties. Isoform 2 has an antiapoptotic effect.

Mitochondrial 3-hydroxyacyl-thioester dehydratase, which may be involved in fatty acid biosynthesis.

Transcriptional regulator. Involved in the initiation of neuronal differentiation. Activates transcription by binding to the E box (5'-CANNTG-3') (By similarity). May be involved in the functional network that regulates the development of the GnRH axis.

Serine protease with a variety of targets, including extracellular matrix proteins such as fibronectin. HTRA1-generated fibronectin fragments further induce synovial cells to up-regulate MMP1 and MMP3 production. May also degrade proteoglycans, such as aggrecan, decorin and fibromodulin. Through cleavage of proteoglycans, may release soluble FGF-glycosaminoglycan complexes that promote the range and intensity of FGF signals in the extracellular space. Regulates the availability of insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) by cleaving IGF- binding proteins. Inhibits signaling mediated by TGF-beta family members. This activity requires the integrity of the catalytic site, although it is unclear whether TGF-beta proteins are themselves degraded. By acting on TGF-beta signaling, may regulate many physiological processes, including retinal angiogenesis and neuronal survival and maturation during development. Intracellularly, degrades TSC2, leading to the activation of TSC2 downstream targets.

Serine protease that shows proteolytic activity against a non-specific substrate beta-casein. Promotes or induces cell death either by direct binding to and inhibition of BIRC proteins (also called inhibitor of apoptosis proteins, IAPs), leading to an increase in caspase activity, or by a BIRC inhibition-independent, caspase- independent and serine protease activity-dependent mechanism. Cleaves THAP5 and promotes its degradation during apoptosis. Isoform 2 seems to be proteolytically inactive.

Serine protease that cleaves beta-casein/CSN2 as well as several extracellular matrix (ECM) proteoglycans such as decorin/DCN, biglycan/BGN and fibronectin/FN1. Inhibits signaling mediated by TGF- beta family proteins possibly indirectly by degradation of these ECM proteoglycans (By similarity). May act as a tumor suppressor. Negatively regulates, in vitro, trophoblast invasion during placental development and may be involved in the development of the placenta in vivo. May also have a role in ovarian development, granulosa cell differentiation and luteinization.

Functions as a general transcription factor playing a role in the process of transcriptional elongation. May mediate the reciprocal stimulatory effect of splicing on transcriptional elongation. In case of infection by HIV-1, it is up-regulated by the HIV-1 proteins NEF and gp120, acts as a cofactor required for the Tat-enhanced transcription of the virus.

Plays a role in the trafficking of mitochondria along microtubules. Regulates the kinesin-mediated axonal transport of mitochondria to nerve terminals along microtubules during hypoxia. Participates in the translocation of TRAK2/GRIF1 from the cytoplasm to the mitochondrion. Also plays a role in steroidogenesis through maintenance of mitochondrial abundance and morphology (By similarity). Plays an inhibitory role during neocortex development by regulating mitochondrial morphology, distribution and motility in neocortical neurons (By similarity).

Component of the 9-1-1 cell-cycle checkpoint response complex that plays a major role in DNA repair. The 9-1-1 complex is recruited to DNA lesion upon damage by the RAD17-replication factor C (RFC) clamp loader complex. Acts then as a sliding clamp platform on DNA for several proteins involved in long-patch base excision repair (LP-BER). The 9-1-1 complex stimulates DNA polymerase beta (POLB) activity by increasing its affinity for the 3'-OH end of the primer-template and stabilizes POLB to those sites where LP-BER proceeds; endonuclease FEN1 cleavage activity on substrates with double, nick, or gap flaps of distinct sequences and lengths; and DNA ligase I (LIG1) on long-patch base excision repair substrates. The 9-1-1 complex is necessary for the recruitment of RHNO1 to sites of double-stranded breaks (DSB) occurring during the S phase.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Regulates apoptosis by catalyzing the polyubiquitination and degradation of MCL1. Mediates monoubiquitination of DNA polymerase beta (POLB) at 'Lys-41', 'Lys-61' and 'Lys-81', thereby playing a role in base-excision repair. Also ubiquitinates the p53/TP53 tumor suppressor and core histones including H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4. Ubiquitinates MFN2 to negatively regulate mitochondrial fusion in response to decreased stearoylation of TFRC. Ubiquitination of MFN2 also takes place following induction of mitophagy; AMBRA1 acts as a cofactor for HUWE1-mediated ubiquitination. Regulates neural differentiation and proliferation by catalyzing the polyubiquitination and degradation of MYCN. May regulate abundance of CDC6 after DNA damage by polyubiquitinating and targeting CDC6 to degradation. Mediates polyubiquitination of isoform 2 of PA2G4. Acts in concert with MYCBP2 to regulate the circadian clock gene expression by promoting the lithium-induced ubiquination and degradation of NR1D1. Binds to an upstream initiator-like sequence in the preprodynorphin gene (By similarity). Mediates HAPSTR1 degradation, but is also a required cofactor in the pathway by which HAPSTR1 governs stress signaling.

Mediates the voltage-dependent proton permeability of excitable membranes. Forms a proton-selective channel through which protons may pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. Proton efflux, accompanied by membrane depolarization, facilitates acute production of reactive oxygen species in phagocytosis.

Sequence-specific transcription factor which is part of a developmental regulatory system that provides cells with specific positional identities on the anterior-posterior axis. Binds to the DNA sequence 5'-AA[AT]TTTTATTAC-3'

Sequence-specific transcription factor which is part of a developmental regulatory system that provides cells with specific positional identities on the anterior-posterior axis

Sequence-specific, AT-rich binding transcription factor which is part of a developmental regulatory system that provides cells with specific positional identities on the anterior-posterior axis

Sequence-specific transcription factor which is part of a developmental regulatory system that provides cells with specific positional identities on the anterior-posterior axis. Binds to sites in the 5'-flanking sequence of its coding region with various affinities. The consensus sequences of the high and low affinity binding sites are 5'-TAATGA[CG]-3' and 5'-CTAATTTT-3'

Sequence-specific transcription factor which is part of a developmental regulatory system that provides cells with specific positional identities on the anterior-posterior axis. Also binds to its own promoter. Binds specifically to the motif 5'-CYYNATTA[TG]Y-3'

Sequence-specific transcription factor which is part of a developmental regulatory system that provides cells with specific positional identities on the anterior-posterior axis. Required for induction of E-selectin and VCAM-1, on the endothelial cells surface at sites of inflammation.

Sequence-specific transcription factor which is part of a developmental regulatory system that provides cells with specific positional identities on the anterior-posterior axis. Binds preferentially to methylated DNA.

Sequence-specific transcription factor which is part of a developmental regulatory system that provides cells with specific positional identities on the anterior-posterior axis. Acts on the anterior body structures

Sequence-specific transcription factor which is part of a developmental regulatory system that provides cells with specific positional identities on the anterior-posterior axis.

Sequence-specific transcription factor which is part of a developmental regulatory system that provides cells with specific positional identities on the anterior-posterior axis. Binds to a promoter element of the lactase-phlorizin hydrolase gene

Transcription factor which plays a role in hair follicle differentiation. Regulates FOXQ1 expression and that of other hair- specific genes (By similarity).

Sequence-specific transcription factor that binds gene promoters and activates their transcription. Part of a developmental regulatory system that provides cells with specific positional identities on the anterior-posterior axis (By similarity).

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of various hexoses, such as D- glucose, D-glucosamine, D-fructose, D-mannose and 2-deoxy-D-glucose, to hexose 6-phosphate (D-glucose 6-phosphate, D-glucosamine 6-phosphate, D-fructose 6-phosphate, D-mannose 6-phosphate and 2-deoxy-D-glucose 6- phosphate, respectively). Does not phosphorylate N-acetyl-D-glucosamine. Mediates the initial step of glycolysis by catalyzing phosphorylation of D-glucose to D-glucose 6-phosphate (By similarity). Involved in innate immunity and inflammation by acting as a pattern recognition receptor for bacterial peptidoglycan. When released in the cytosol, N-acetyl-D-glucosamine component of bacterial peptidoglycan inhibits the hexokinase activity of HK1 and causes its dissociation from mitochondrial outer membrane, thereby activating the NLRP3 inflammasome.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of hexose, such as D-glucose and D-fructose, to hexose 6-phosphate (D-glucose 6-phosphate and D- fructose 6-phosphate, respectively). Mediates the initial step of glycolysis by catalyzing phosphorylation of D-glucose to D-glucose 6-phosphate. Plays a key role in maintaining the integrity of the outer mitochondrial membrane by preventing the release of apoptogenic molecules from the intermembrane space and subsequent apoptosis.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of hexose, such as D-glucose and D-fructose, to hexose 6-phosphate (D-glucose 6-phosphate and D- fructose 6-phosphate, respectively). Mediates the initial step of glycolysis by catalyzing phosphorylation of D-glucose to D-glucose 6-phosphate.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of hexose, such as D-glucose, D-fructose and D-mannose, to hexose 6-phosphate (D-glucose 6-phosphate, D-fructose 6-phosphate and D-mannose 6-phosphate, respectively). Compared to other hexokinases, has a weak affinity for D-glucose, and is effective only when glucose is abundant (By similarity). Mainly expressed in pancreatic beta cells and the liver and constitutes a rate-limiting step in glucose metabolism in these tissues. Since insulin secretion parallels glucose metabolism and the low glucose affinity of GCK ensures that it can change its enzymatic activity within the physiological range of glucose concentrations, GCK acts as a glucose sensor in the pancreatic beta cell (By similarity). In pancreas, plays an important role in modulating insulin secretion (By similarity). In liver, helps to facilitate the uptake and conversion of glucose by acting as an insulin-sensitive determinant of hepatic glucose usage (By similarity). Required to provide D-glucose 6-phosphate for the synthesis of glycogen. Mediates the initial step of glycolysis by catalyzing phosphorylation of D-glucose to D-glucose 6-phosphate.

May have a role in promoting tumor progression. May block the TGFB1-enhanced cell growth.

Hydrolyzes high molecular weight hyaluronic acid to produce an intermediate-sized product which is further hydrolyzed by sperm hyaluronidase to give small oligosaccharides. Displays very low levels of activity. Associates with and negatively regulates MST1R.

Facilitates sperm penetration into the layer of cumulus cells surrounding the egg by digesting hyaluronic acid. Involved in induction of the acrosome reaction in the sperm. Involved in follicular atresia, the breakdown of immature ovarian follicles that are not selected to ovulate. Induces ovarian granulosa cell apoptosis, possibly via apoptotic signaling pathway involving CASP8 and CASP3 activation, and poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) cleavage. Has no hyaluronidase activity in embryonic fibroblasts in vitro. Has no hyaluronidase activity in granulosa cells in vitro.

Endo-hyaluronidase that degrades hyaluronan to smaller oligosaccharide fragments. Has also chondroitin sulfate hydrolase activity, The best substrate being the galactosaminidic linkage in the sequence of a trisulfated tetrasaccharide.

Involved in sperm-egg adhesion. Upon fertilization sperm must first penetrate a layer of cumulus cells that surrounds the egg before reaching the zona pellucida. The cumulus cells are embedded in a matrix containing hyaluronic acid which is formed prior to ovulation. This protein aids in penetrating the layer of cumulus cells by digesting hyaluronic acid.

Catalyzes the addition of GlcNAc or GlcUA monosaccharides to the nascent hyaluronan polymer (Probable). Therefore, it is essential to hyaluronan synthesis a major component of most extracellular matrices that has a structural role in tissues architectures and regulates cell adhesion, migration and differentiation. This is one of three isoenzymes responsible for cellular hyaluronan synthesis and it is particularly responsible for the synthesis of high molecular mass hyaluronan (By similarity).

Catalyzes the addition of GlcNAc or GlcUA monosaccharides to the nascent hyaluronan polymer. Therefore, it is essential to hyaluronan synthesis a major component of most extracellular matrices that has a structural role in tissues architectures and regulates cell adhesion, migration and differentiation. This is one of three isoenzymes responsible for cellular hyaluronan synthesis.

Component of a complex required to localize phosphatidylinositol 4-kinase (PI4K) to the plasma membrane. The complex acts as a regulator of phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns(4)P) synthesis. HYCC1 plays a key role in oligodendrocytes formation, a cell type with expanded plasma membrane that requires generation of PtdIns(4)P. Its role in oligodendrocytes formation probably explains its importance in myelination of the central and peripheral nervous system. May also have a role in the beta- catenin/Lef signaling pathway (Probable).

Biotransformation enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of arene and aliphatic epoxides to less reactive and more water soluble dihydrodiols by the trans addition of water (By similarity). Plays a role in the metabolism of endogenous lipids such as epoxide-containing fatty acids. Metabolizes the abundant endocannabinoid 2-arachidonoylglycerol (2-AG) to free arachidonic acid (AA) and glycerol.

Bifunctional enzyme. The C-terminal domain has epoxide hydrolase activity and acts on epoxides (alkene oxides, oxiranes) and arene oxides. Plays a role in xenobiotic metabolism by degrading potentially toxic epoxides (By similarity). Also determines steady- state levels of physiological mediators.

Catalyzes the reversible isomerization between hydroxypyruvate and 2-hydroxy-3-oxopropanoate (also termed tartronate semialdehyde).

Catalyzes the GTP-dependent phosphorylation of 5-hydroxy-L- lysine.

Has a pivotal role in cytoprotective cellular mechanisms triggered by oxygen deprivation. May play a role as a molecular chaperone and participate in protein folding.

Component of several N-terminal acetyltransferase complexes. Inhibits the N- terminal acetylation activity of the N-terminal acetyltransferase NAA10-NAA15 complex (also called the NatA complex). Has chaperone-like activity preventing polyglutamine (polyQ) aggregation of HTT in neuronal cells probably while associated with the NatA complex. May play a role in the NatA complex-mediated N-terminal acetylation of PCNP.

Cell surface receptor for the cytokine IL10 that participates in IL10-mediated anti-inflammatory functions, limiting excessive tissue disruption caused by inflammation. Upon binding to IL10, induces a conformational change in IL10RB, allowing IL10RB to bind IL10 as well. In turn, the heterotetrameric assembly complex, composed of two subunits of IL10RA and IL10RB, activates the kinases JAK1 and TYK2 that are constitutively associated with IL10RA and IL10RB respectively. These kinases then phosphorylate specific tyrosine residues in the intracellular domain in IL10RA leading to the recruitment and subsequent phosphorylation of STAT3. Once phosphorylated, STAT3 homodimerizes, translocates to the nucleus and activates the expression of anti-inflammatory genes. In addition, IL10RA-mediated activation of STAT3 inhibits starvation-induced autophagy.

Shared cell surface receptor required for the activation of five class 2 cytokines: IL10, IL22, IL26, IL28, and IFNL1. The IFNLR1/IL10RB dimer is a receptor for the cytokine ligands IFNL2 and IFNL3 and mediates their antiviral activity. The ligand/receptor complex stimulate the activation of the JAK/STAT signaling pathway leading to the expression of IFN-stimulated genes (ISG), which contribute to the antiviral state.

Receptor for interleukin-11 (IL11). The receptor systems for IL6, LIF, OSM, CNTF, IL11 and CT1 can utilize IL6ST for initiating signal transmission. The IL11/IL11RA/IL6ST complex may be involved in the control of proliferation and/or differentiation of skeletogenic progenitor or other mesenchymal cells (Probable). Essential for the normal development of craniofacial bones and teeth. Restricts suture fusion and tooth number.

Functions as an interleukin receptor which binds interleukin- 12 with low affinity and is involved in IL12 transduction. Associated with IL12RB2 it forms a functional, high affinity receptor for IL12. Associates also with IL23R to form the interleukin-23 receptor which functions in IL23 signal transduction probably through activation of the Jak-Stat signaling cascade.

Receptor for interleukin-12. This subunit is the signaling component coupling to the JAK2/STAT4 pathway. Promotes the proliferation of T-cells as well as NK cells. Induces the promotion of T-cells towards the Th1 phenotype by strongly enhancing IFN-gamma production

Binds with low affinity to interleukin-13 (IL13). Together with IL4RA can form a functional receptor for IL13. Also serves as an alternate accessory protein to the common cytokine receptor gamma chain for interleukin-4 (IL4) signaling, but cannot replace the function of IL2RG in allowing enhanced interleukin-2 (IL2) binding activity

Binds as a monomer with high affinity to interleukin-13 (IL13), but not to interleukin-4 (IL4).

High-affinity receptor for interleukin-15. Can signal both in cis and trans where IL15R from one subset of cells presents IL15 to neighboring IL2RG-expressing cells (By similarity). In neutrophils, binds and activates kinase SYK in response to IL15 stimulation. In neutrophils, required for IL15- induced phagocytosis in a SYK-dependent manner. Expression of different isoforms may alter or interfere with signal transduction.

Receptor for IL17A and IL17F, major effector cytokines of innate and adaptive immune system involved in antimicrobial host defense and maintenance of tissue integrity. Receptor for IL17A. Receptor for IL17F. Binds to IL17A with higher affinity than to IL17F. Binds IL17A and IL17F homodimers as part of a heterodimeric complex with IL17RC. Also binds heterodimers formed by IL17A and IL17F as part of a heterodimeric complex with IL17RC. Cytokine binding triggers homotypic interaction of IL17RA and IL17RC chains with TRAF3IP2 adapter, leading to TRAF6-mediated activation of NF-kappa-B and MAPkinase pathways, ultimately resulting in transcriptional activation of cytokines, chemokines, antimicrobial peptides and matrix metalloproteinases, with potential strong immune inflammation. Involved in antimicrobial host defense primarily promoting neutrophil activation and recruitment at infection sites to destroy extracellular bacteria and fungi (By similarity). In secondary lymphoid organs, contributes to germinal center formation by regulating the chemotactic response of B cells to CXCL12 and CXCL13, enhancing retention of B cells within the germinal centers, B cell somatic hypermutation rate and selection toward plasma cells (By similarity). Plays a role in the maintenance of the integrity of epithelial barriers during homeostasis and pathogen infection. Stimulates the production of antimicrobial beta-defensins DEFB1, DEFB103A, and DEFB104A by mucosal epithelial cells, limiting the entry of microbes through the epithelial barriers (By similarity). Involved in antiviral host defense through various mechanisms. Enhances immunity against West Nile virus by promoting T cell cytotoxicity. Contributes to Influenza virus clearance by driving the differentiation of B-1a B cells, providing for production of virus-specific IgM antibodies at first line of host defense (By similarity). Receptor for IL17C as part of a heterodimeric complex with IL17RE.

Receptor for the pro-inflammatory cytokines IL17B and IL17E. May play a role in controlling the growth and/or differentiation of hematopoietic cells.

Receptor for IL17A and IL17F, major effector cytokines of innate and adaptive immune system involved in antimicrobial host defense and maintenance of tissue integrity (By similarity). Receptor for IL17A and IL17F, major effector cytokines of innate and adaptive immune system involved in antimicrobial host defense and maintenance of tissue integrity. Receptor for IL17A and IL17F homodimers as part of a heterodimeric complex with IL17RA. Receptor for the heterodimer formed by IL17A and IL17B as part of a heterodimeric complex with IL17RA. Has also been shown to be the cognate receptor for IL17F and to bind IL17A with high affinity without the need for IL17RA. Upon binding of IL17F homodimer triggers downstream activation of TRAF6 and NF-kappa-B signaling pathway. Induces transcriptional activation of IL33, a potent cytokine that stimulates group 2 innate lymphoid cells and adaptive T-helper 2 cells involved in pulmonary allergic response to fungi (By similarity). Promotes sympathetic innervation of peripheral organs by coordinating the communication between gamma-delta T cells and parenchymal cells. Stimulates sympathetic innervation of thermogenic adipose tissue by driving TGFB1 expression (By similarity). Binding of IL17A-IL17F to IL17RA-IL17RC heterodimeric receptor complex triggers homotypic interaction of IL17RA and IL17RC chains with TRAF3IP2 adapter through SEFIR domains. This leads to downstream TRAF6-mediated activation of NF-kappa-B and MAPkinase pathways ultimately resulting in transcriptional activation of cytokines, chemokines, antimicrobial peptides and matrix metalloproteinases, with potential strong immune inflammation. Primarily induces neutrophil activation and recruitment at infection and inflammatory sites (By similarity). Stimulates the production of antimicrobial beta-defensins DEFB1, DEFB103A, and DEFB104A by mucosal epithelial cells, limiting the entry of microbes through the epithelial barriers (By similarity).

Feedback inhibitor of fibroblast growth factor mediated Ras- MAPK signaling and ERK activation. Regulates the nuclear ERK signaling pathway by spatially blocking nuclear translocation of activated ERK without inhibiting cytoplasmic phosphorylation of ERK. Mediates JNK activation and may be involved in apoptosis (By similarity). May inhibit FGF-induced FGFR1 tyrosine phosphorylation (By similarity). Might have a role in the early stages of fate specification of GnRH-secreting neurons (By similarity). Inhibits TGFB-induced epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition in lens epithelial cells (By similarity).

Specific functional receptor for IL17C. May be signaling through the NF-kappa-B and MAPK pathways. May require TRAF3IP2 /ACT1 for signaling. May be a crucial regulator in innate immunity to bacterial pathogens. Isoform 2 and isoform 4 may be either cytoplasmic inactive or dominant active forms. Isoform 3 and isoform 5 may act as soluble decoy receptors.

Isoform A binds to IL-18 and inhibits its activity. Functions as an inhibitor of the early TH1 cytokine response.

Within the IL18 receptor complex, does not mediate IL18- binding, but involved in IL18-dependent signal transduction, leading to NF-kappa-B and JNK activation. May play a role in IL18-mediated IFNG synthesis from T-helper 1 (Th1) cells (Probable).

3'-> 5'-exoribonuclease involved in ribosome biogenesis in the processing of the 12S pre-rRNA. Displays a strong specificity for a 3'-end containing a free hydroxyl group.

The IL20RA/IL20RB dimer is a receptor for IL19, IL20 and IL24. The IL20RA/IL10RB dimer is a receptor for IL26

The IL20RA/IL20RB dimer is a receptor for IL19, IL20 and IL24. The IL22RA1/IL20RB dimer is a receptor for IL20 and IL24

Component of the receptor for IL20, IL22 and IL24. Component of IL22 receptor formed by IL22RA1 and IL10RB enabling IL22 signaling via JAK/STAT pathways. IL22 also induces activation of MAPK1/MAPK3 and Akt kinases pathways. Component of one of the receptor for IL20 and IL24 formed by IL22RA1 and IL20RB also signaling through STATs activation. Mediates IL24 antiangiogenic activity as well as IL24 inhibitory effect on endothelial cell tube formation and differentiation.

Isoform 2 is a receptor for IL22. Binds to IL22, prevents interaction with the functional IL-22R complex and blocks the activity of IL22 (in vitro). May play an important role as an IL22 antagonist in the regulation of inflammatory responses

Catalyzes the first and rate limiting step of the catabolism of the essential amino acid tryptophan along the kynurenine pathway. Involved in the peripheral immune tolerance, contributing to maintain homeostasis by preventing autoimmunity or immunopathology that would result from uncontrolled and overreacting immune responses. Tryptophan shortage inhibits T lymphocytes division and accumulation of tryptophan catabolites induces T-cell apoptosis and differentiation of regulatory T-cells. Acts as a suppressor of anti-tumor immunity. Limits the growth of intracellular pathogens by depriving tryptophan. Protects the fetus from maternal immune rejection.

Catalyzes the first and rate limiting step of the catabolism of the essential amino acid tryptophan along the kynurenine pathway. Involved in immune regulation. May not play a significant role in tryptophan-related tumoral resistance.

Plays a role in the apoptotic process and has a pro-apoptotic activity.

Receptor for IL27. Requires IL6ST/GP130 to mediate signal transduction in response to IL27. This signaling system acts through STAT3 and STAT1. Acts as a receptor for the neuroprotective peptide humanin as part of a complex with IL6ST/GP130 and CNTFR. Involved in the regulation of Th1-type immune responses. Also appears to be involved in innate defense mechanisms.

Acts as a transcriptional corepressor in a IRF2-dependent manner; this repression is not mediated by histone deacetylase activities. May act as an E3 ligase towards JDP2, enhancing its polyubiquitination. Represses ATF2-dependent transcriptional activation.

Acts as a transcriptional corepressor in a IRF2-dependent manner; this repression is not mediated by histone deacetylase activities. Represses the NFAT1-dependent transactivation of NFAT-responsive promoters. Acts as a coactivator of VEGFA expression in cardiac and skeletal muscles. Plays a role in immature B-cell differentiation.

Probable E3 ubiquitin protein ligase involved in the proteasome-mediated ubiquitin-dependent degradation of target proteins. Through the degradation of CTNNB1, functions downstream of FOXF2 to negatively regulate the Wnt signaling pathway. Probably plays a role in the development of the central nervous system and in neuronal maintenance (Probable). Also acts as a transcriptional regulator of genes controlling female reproductive function. May play a role in gene transcription by transactivating GNRH1 promoter and repressing PENK promoter (By similarity).

Inhibits the activity of interleukin-36 (IL36A,IL36B and IL36G) by binding to receptor IL1RL2 and preventing its association with the coreceptor IL1RAP for signaling. Part of the IL-36 signaling system that is thought to be present in epithelial barriers and to take part in local inflammatory response; similar to the IL-1 system with which it shares the coreceptor. Proposed to play a role in skin inflammation. May be involved in the innate immune response to fungal pathogens, such as Aspergillus fumigatus. May activate an anti- inflammatory signaling pathway by recruiting SIGIRR.

Recognizes and binds the 7-methylguanosine-containing mRNA cap during an early step in the initiation of protein synthesis and facilitates ribosome binding by inducing the unwinding of the mRNAs secondary structure.

Phosphatase that specifically hydrolyzes the 5-phosphate of inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate to inositol 1,4-bisphosphate, and inositol 1,3,4,5-tetrasphosphate to inositol 1,3,4-trisphosphate. Plays a crucial role in the survival of cerebellar Purkinje cells (By similarity).

Hydrolyzes phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PtIns(4,5)P2) and the signaling molecule phosphatidylinositol 1,4,5- trisphosphate (PtIns(1,4,5)P3), and thereby modulates cellular signaling events.

Selectively inhibits insulin-stimulated glucose utilization and glycogen deposition in muscle, while not affecting adipocyte glucose metabolism

Regulator that plays a central role in regulation of apoptosis and transcription via its interaction with NF-kappa-B and p53/TP53 proteins. Blocks transcription of HIV-1 virus by inhibiting the action of both NF-kappa-B and SP1. Also inhibits p53/TP53 function, possibly by preventing the association between p53/TP53 and ASPP1 or ASPP2, and therefore suppressing the subsequent activation of apoptosis.

IGF-binding proteins prolong the half-life of the IGFs and have been shown to either inhibit or stimulate the growth promoting effects of the IGFs on cell culture. They alter the interaction of IGFs with their cell surface receptors. Promotes cell migration.

Inhibits IGF-mediated growth and developmental rates. IGF- binding proteins prolong the half-life of the IGFs and have been shown to either inhibit or stimulate the growth promoting effects of the IGFs on cell culture. They alter the interaction of IGFs with their cell surface receptors.

IGF-binding proteins prolong the half-life of the IGFs and have been shown to either inhibit or stimulate the growth promoting effects of the IGFs on cell culture. They alter the interaction of IGFs with their cell surface receptors. Also exhibits IGF-independent antiproliferative and apoptotic effects mediated by its receptor TMEM219/IGFBP-3R. Inhibits the positive effect of humanin on insulin sensitivity. Promotes testicular germ cell apoptosis.

IGF-binding proteins prolong the half-life of the IGFs and have been shown to either inhibit or stimulate the growth promoting effects of the IGFs on cell culture. They alter the interaction of IGFs with their cell surface receptors

IGF-binding proteins prolong the half-life of the IGFs and have been shown to either inhibit or stimulate the growth promoting effects of the IGFs on cell culture. They alter the interaction of IGFs with their cell surface receptors. Activates the MAPK signaling pathway and induces cell migration.

Binds IGF-I and IGF-II with a relatively low affinity. Stimulates prostacyclin (PGI2) production. Stimulates cell adhesion.

IGF-binding proteins prolong the half-life of IGFs and have been shown to either inhibit or stimulate the growth promoting effects of the IGFs in cell culture. They alter the interaction of IGFs with their cell surface receptors (By similarity). May be a putative tumor suppressor protein.

Acts as an inhibitor of BTK tyrosine kinase activity, thereby playing a role in B-cell development. Down-regulates BTK kinase activity, leading to interference with BTK-mediated calcium mobilization and NF-kappa-B-driven transcription.

Activation of the C1 complex is under control of the C1- inhibitor. It forms a proteolytically inactive stoichiometric complex with the C1r or C1s proteases. May play a potentially crucial role in regulating important physiological pathways including complement activation, blood coagulation, fibrinolysis and the generation of kinins. Very efficient inhibitor of FXIIa. Inhibits chymotrypsin and kallikrein.

Specific inhibition of calpain (calcium-dependent cysteine protease). Plays a key role in postmortem tenderization of meat and have been proposed to be involved in muscle protein degradation in living tissue

ICAM proteins are ligands for the leukocyte adhesion protein LFA-1 (integrin alpha-L/beta-2). During leukocyte trans-endothelial migration, ICAM1 engagement promotes the assembly of endothelial apical cups through ARHGEF26/SGEF and RHOG activation.

ICAM proteins are ligands for the leukocyte adhesion protein LFA-1 (integrin alpha-L/beta-2). ICAM2 may play a role in lymphocyte recirculation by blocking LFA-1-dependent cell adhesion. It mediates adhesive interactions important for antigen-specific immune response, NK-cell mediated clearance, lymphocyte recirculation, and other cellular interactions important for immune response and surveillance

ICAM proteins are ligands for the leukocyte adhesion protein LFA-1 (integrin alpha-L/beta-2). ICAM3 is also a ligand for integrin alpha-D/beta-2. In association with integrin alpha- L/beta-2, contributes to apoptotic neutrophil phagocytosis by macrophages.

ICAM proteins are ligands for the leukocyte adhesion protein LFA-1 (integrin alpha-L/beta-2). ICAM4 is also a ligand for alpha- 4/beta-1 and alpha-V integrins.

ICAM proteins are ligands for the leukocyte adhesion protein LFA-1 (integrin alpha-L/beta-2)

Component of the little elongation complex (LEC), a complex required to regulate small nuclear RNA (snRNA) gene transcription by RNA polymerase II and III. Specifically acts as a scaffold protein that promotes the LEC complex formation and recruitment and RNA polymerase II occupancy at snRNA genes in subnuclear bodies.

Component of the little elongation complex (LEC), a complex required to regulate small nuclear RNA (snRNA) gene transcription by RNA polymerase II and III.

Enhances the promotion of guanine-nucleotide exchange by PSCD2 on ARF6 in a concentration-dependent manner.

Involved in both the assembly of spliceosomal snRNPs and the methylation of Sm proteins. Chaperone that regulates the assembly of spliceosomal U1, U2, U4 and U5 small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs), the building blocks of the spliceosome, and thereby plays an important role in the splicing of cellular pre- mRNAs. Most spliceosomal snRNPs contain a common set of Sm proteins SNRPB, SNRPD1, SNRPD2, SNRPD3, SNRPE, SNRPF and SNRPG that assemble in a heptameric protein ring on the Sm site of the small nuclear RNA to form the core snRNP (Sm core). In the cytosol, the Sm proteins SNRPD1, SNRPD2, SNRPE, SNRPF and SNRPG are trapped in an inactive 6S pICln-Sm complex by the chaperone CLNS1A that controls the assembly of the core snRNP. Dissociation by the SMN complex of CLNS1A from the trapped Sm proteins and their transfer to an SMN-Sm complex triggers the assembly of core snRNPs and their transport to the nucleus.

Catalyzes the post-translational methylation of isoprenylated C-terminal cysteine residues.

Ligand for the T-cell-specific cell surface receptor ICOS. Acts as a costimulatory signal for T-cell proliferation and cytokine secretion; induces also B-cell proliferation and differentiation into plasma cells. Could play an important role in mediating local tissue responses to inflammatory conditions, as well as in modulating the secondary immune response by co-stimulating memory T-cell function (By similarity).

Enhances all basic T-cell responses to a foreign antigen, namely proliferation, secretion of lymphokines, up-regulation of molecules that mediate cell-cell interaction, and effective help for antibody secretion by B-cells. Essential both for efficient interaction between T and B-cells and for normal antibody responses to T-cell dependent antigens. Does not up-regulate the production of interleukin- 2, but superinduces the synthesis of interleukin-10. Prevents the apoptosis of pre-activated T-cells. Plays a critical role in CD40- mediated class switching of immunoglobin isotypes (By similarity).

Essential peptidyl-tRNA hydrolase component of the mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit. Acts as a codon-independent translation release factor that has lost all stop codon specificity and directs the termination of translation in mitochondrion, possibly in case of abortive elongation. May be involved in the hydrolysis of peptidyl-tRNAs that have been prematurely terminated and thus in the recycling of stalled mitochondrial ribosomes.

Transcriptional regulator (lacking a basic DNA binding domain) which negatively regulates the basic helix-loop-helix (bHLH) transcription factors by forming heterodimers and inhibiting their DNA binding and transcriptional activity. Implicated in regulating a variety of cellular processes, including cellular growth, senescence, differentiation, apoptosis, angiogenesis, and neoplastic transformation. Inhibits skeletal muscle and cardiac myocyte differentiation. Regulates the circadian clock by repressing the transcriptional activator activity of the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator (lacking a basic DNA binding domain) which negatively regulates the basic helix-loop-helix (bHLH) transcription factors by forming heterodimers and inhibiting their DNA binding and transcriptional activity. Implicated in regulating a variety of cellular processes, including cellular growth, senescence, differentiation, apoptosis, angiogenesis, and neoplastic transformation. Inhibits skeletal muscle and cardiac myocyte differentiation. Regulates the circadian clock by repressing the transcriptional activator activity of the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer. Restricts the CLOCK and BMAL1 localization to the cytoplasm. Plays a role in both the input and output pathways of the circadian clock: in the input component, is involved in modulating the magnitude of photic entrainment and in the output component, contributes to the regulation of a variety of liver clock-controlled genes involved in lipid metabolism.

Transcriptional regulator (lacking a basic DNA binding domain) which negatively regulates the basic helix-loop-helix (bHLH) transcription factors by forming heterodimers and inhibiting their DNA binding and transcriptional activity. Implicated in regulating a variety of cellular processes, including cellular growth, senescence, differentiation, apoptosis, angiogenesis, and neoplastic transformation. Involved in myogenesis by inhibiting skeletal muscle and cardiac myocyte differentiation and promoting muscle precursor cells proliferation. Inhibits the binding of E2A-containing protein complexes to muscle creatine kinase E-box enhancer. Regulates the circadian clock by repressing the transcriptional activator activity of the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer.

Transcriptional regulator (lacking a basic DNA binding domain) which negatively regulates the basic helix-loop-helix (bHLH) transcription factors by forming heterodimers and inhibiting their DNA binding and transcriptional activity. Implicated in regulating a variety of cellular processes, including cellular growth, senescence, differentiation, apoptosis, angiogenesis, and neoplastic transformation (By similarity).

Putative adhesion receptor, that could be involved in cell- cell or cell-matrix interactions required for normal cell differentiation and migration

Plays a role in the cellular breakdown of insulin, APP peptides, IAPP peptides, natriuretic peptides, glucagon, bradykinin, kallidin, and other peptides, and thereby plays a role in intercellular peptide signaling. Substrate binding induces important conformation changes, making it possible to bind and degrade larger substrates, such as insulin. Contributes to the regulation of peptide hormone signaling cascades and regulation of blood glucose homeostasis via its role in the degradation of insulin, glucagon and IAPP (By similarity). Plays a role in the degradation and clearance of APP-derived amyloidogenic peptides that are secreted by neurons and microglia (Probable). Degrades the natriuretic peptides ANP, BNP and CNP, inactivating their ability to raise intracellular cGMP. Also degrades an aberrant frameshifted 40-residue form of NPPA (fsNPPA) which is associated with familial atrial fibrillation in heterozygous patients. Involved in antigen processing. Produces both the N terminus and the C terminus of MAGEA3-derived antigenic peptide (EVDPIGHLY) that is presented to cytotoxic T lymphocytes by MHC class I.

Catalytic subunit of the enzyme which catalyzes the decarboxylation of isocitrate (ICT) into alpha-ketoglutarate. The heterodimer composed of the alpha (IDH3A) and beta (IDH3B) subunits and the heterodimer composed of the alpha (IDH3A) and gamma (IDH3G) subunits, have considerable basal activity but the full activity of the heterotetramer (containing two subunits of IDH3A, one of IDH3B and one of IDH3G) requires the assembly and cooperative function of both heterodimers.

Plays a structural role to facilitate the assembly and ensure the full activity of the enzyme catalyzing the decarboxylation of isocitrate (ICT) into alpha-ketoglutarate. The heterodimer composed of the alpha (IDH3A) and beta (IDH3B) subunits and the heterodimer composed of the alpha (IDH3A) and gamma (IDH3G) subunits, have considerable basal activity but the full activity of the heterotetramer (containing two subunits of IDH3A, one of IDH3B and one of IDH3G) requires the assembly and cooperative function of both heterodimers.

Regulatory subunit which plays a role in the allosteric regulation of the enzyme catalyzing the decarboxylation of isocitrate (ICT) into alpha-ketoglutarate. The heterodimer composed of the alpha (IDH3A) and beta (IDH3B) subunits and the heterodimer composed of the alpha (IDH3A) and gamma (IDH3G) subunits, have considerable basal activity but the full activity of the heterotetramer (containing two subunits of IDH3A, one of IDH3B and one of IDH3G) requires the assembly and cooperative function of both heterodimers.

Catalyzes the NADP(+)-dependent oxidative decarboxylation of isocitrate (D-threo-isocitrate) to 2-ketoglutarate (2-oxoglutarate), which is required by other enzymes such as the phytanoyl-CoA dioxygenase. Plays a critical role in the generation of NADPH, an important cofactor in many biosynthesis pathways. May act as a corneal epithelial crystallin and may be involved in maintaining corneal epithelial transparency (By similarity).

Plays a role in intermediary metabolism and energy production. It may tightly associate or interact with the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.

Catalyzes the 1,3-allylic rearrangement of the homoallylic substrate isopentenyl (IPP) to its highly electrophilic allylic isomer, dimethylallyl diphosphate (DMAPP).

Lysosomal enzyme involved in the degradation pathway of dermatan sulfate and heparan sulfate.

DNA-binding protein that seems to act as a transcription factor. Involved in the regulation of neuronal differentiation, acts upon JNK-signaling pathway activation and plays a role in neurite outgrowth in hippocampal cells (By similarity). May mediate with FIBP FGF-signaling in the establishment of laterality in the embryo (By similarity). Promotes cell motility, seems to stimulate tumor metastasis.

Plays a role as a transcription factor. Mediates positive transcriptional regulation of several chaperone genes during the heat shock response in a HSF1- dependent manner. Mediates negative transcriptional regulation of CDC25B expression. Plays a role in the dephosphorylation of the heat shock factor HSF1 and ribosomal protein S6 kinase (S6K) by the protein phosphatase PP2A. Involved in the regulation of cell proliferation and resistance to thermal stress. Involved in the cell cycle checkpoint and survival in response to ionizing radiation. Associates with chromatin to the CDC25B promoter.

May play a role in the ERK signaling pathway by inhibiting the dephosphorylation of ERK by phosphatase PP2A-PPP2R5C holoenzyme. Acts also as an ERK downstream effector mediating survival. As a member of the NUPR1/RELB/IER3 survival pathway, may provide pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma with remarkable resistance to cell stress, such as starvation or gemcitabine treatment.

As a component of the IFT complex A (IFT-A), a complex required for retrograde ciliary transport and entry into cilia of G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs), it is required in ciliogenesis and ciliary protein trafficking. Involved in cilia formation during neuronal patterning. Acts as a negative regulator of Shh signaling. Required to recruit TULP3 to primary cilia (By similarity).

Component of the IFT complex A (IFT-A), a complex required for retrograde ciliary transport and entry into cilia of G protein- coupled receptors (GPCRs). Plays a pivotal role in proper development and function of ciliated cells through its role in ciliogenesis and/or cilium maintenance. Required for the development and maintenance of the outer segments of rod and cone photoreceptor cells. Plays a role in maintenance and the delivery of opsin to the outer segment of photoreceptor cells (By similarity).

Binds double-stranded DNA. Binds preferentially to supercoiled DNA and cruciform DNA structures. Seems to be involved in transcriptional regulation. May function as a transcriptional repressor. Could have a role in the regulation of hematopoietic differentiation through activation of unknown target genes. Controls cellular proliferation by modulating the functions of cell cycle regulatory factors including p53/TP53 and the retinoblastoma protein. May be involved in TP53-mediated transcriptional activation by enhancing TP53 sequence-specific DNA binding and modulating TP53 phosphorylation status. Seems to be involved in energy-level-dependent activation of the ATM/ AMPK/TP53 pathway coupled to regulation of autophagy. May be involved in regulation of TP53-mediated cell death also involving BRCA1. May be involved in the senescence of prostate epithelial cells. Involved in innate immune response by recognizing viral dsDNA in the cytosol and probably in the nucleus. After binding to viral DNA in the cytoplasm recruits TMEM173/STING and mediates the induction of IFN-beta. Has anti-inflammatory activity and inhibits the activation of the AIM2 inflammasome, probably via association with AIM2. Proposed to bind viral DNA in the nucleus, such as of Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus, and to induce the formation of nuclear caspase-1-activating inflammasome formation via association with PYCARD. Inhibits replication of herpesviruses such as human cytomegalovirus (HCMV) probably by interfering with promoter recruitment of members of the Sp1 family of transcription factors. Necessary to activate the IRF3 signaling cascade during human herpes simplex virus 1 (HHV-1) infection and promotes the assembly of heterochromatin on herpesviral DNA and inhibition of viral immediate- early gene expression and replication. Involved in the MTA1-mediated epigenetic regulation of ESR1 expression in breast cancer.

Required for the maintenance and formation of cilia. Plays an indirect role in hedgehog (Hh) signaling, cilia being required for all activity of the hedgehog pathway (By similarity).

Seems to be required for maximal rate of protein biosynthesis. Enhances ribosome dissociation into subunits and stabilizes the binding of the initiator Met-tRNA(I) to 40 S ribosomal subunits

Seems to be required for maximal rate of protein biosynthesis. Enhances ribosome dissociation into subunits and stabilizes the binding of the initiator Met-tRNA(I) to 40 S ribosomal subunits (By similarity).

Functions in the early steps of protein synthesis by forming a ternary complex with GTP and initiator tRNA. This complex binds to a 40S ribosomal subunit, followed by mRNA binding to form a 43S pre-initiation complex. Junction of the 60S ribosomal subunit to form the 80S initiation complex is preceded by hydrolysis of the GTP bound to eIF-2 and release of an eIF-2-GDP binary complex. In order for eIF-2 to recycle and catalyze another round of initiation, the GDP bound to eIF-2 must exchange with GTP by way of a reaction catalyzed by eIF-2B. EIF2S1/eIF-2-alpha is a key component of the integrated stress response (ISR), required for adaptation to various stress: phosphorylation by metabolic-stress sensing protein kinases (EIF2AK1/HRI, EIF2AK2/PKR, EIF2AK3/PERK and EIF2AK4/GCN2) in response to stress converts EIF2S1/eIF-2-alpha in a global protein synthesis inhibitor, leading to an attenuation of cap-dependent translation, while concomitantly initiating the preferential translation of ISR-specific mRNAs, such as the transcriptional activators ATF4 and QRICH1, and hence allowing ATF4- and QRICH1-mediated reprogramming.

RNA-binding factor that recruits target transcripts to cytoplasmic protein-RNA complexes (mRNPs). This transcript 'caging' into mRNPs allows mRNA transport and transient storage. It also modulates the rate and location at which target transcripts encounter the translational apparatus and shields them from endonuclease attacks or microRNA-mediated degradation. Preferentially binds to N6- methyladenosine (m6A)-containing mRNAs and increases their stability. Plays a direct role in the transport and translation of transcripts required for axonal regeneration in adult sensory neurons (By similarity). Regulates localized beta-actin/ACTB mRNA translation, a crucial process for cell polarity, cell migration and neurite outgrowth. Co-transcriptionally associates with the ACTB mRNA in the nucleus. This binding involves a conserved 54-nucleotide element in the ACTB mRNA 3'-UTR, known as the 'zipcode'. The RNP thus formed is exported to the cytoplasm, binds to a motor protein and is transported along the cytoskeleton to the cell periphery. During transport, prevents ACTB mRNA from being translated into protein. When the RNP complex reaches its destination near the plasma membrane, IGF2BP1 is phosphorylated. This releases the mRNA, allowing ribosomal 40S and 60S subunits to assemble and initiate ACTB protein synthesis. Monomeric ACTB then assembles into the subcortical actin cytoskeleton (By similarity). During neuronal development, key regulator of neurite outgrowth, growth cone guidance and neuronal cell migration, presumably through the spatiotemporal fine tuning of protein synthesis, such as that of ACTB (By similarity). May regulate mRNA transport to activated synapses (By similarity). Binds to and stabilizes ABCB1/MDR-1 mRNA (By similarity). During interstinal wound repair, interacts with and stabilizes PTGS2 transcript. PTGS2 mRNA stabilization may be crucial for colonic mucosal wound healing (By similarity). Binds to the 3'-UTR of IGF2 mRNA by a mechanism of cooperative and sequential dimerization and regulates IGF2 mRNA subcellular localization and translation. Binds to MYC mRNA, in the coding region instability determinant (CRD) of the open reading frame (ORF), hence preventing MYC cleavage by endonucleases and possibly microRNA targeting to MYC-CRD. Binding to MYC mRNA is enhanced by m6A-modification of the CRD. Binds to the 3'-UTR of CD44 mRNA and stabilizes it, hence promotes cell adhesion and invadopodia formation in cancer cells. Binds to the oncofetal H19 transcript and to the neuron-specific TAU mRNA and regulates their localizations. Binds to and stabilizes BTRC/FBW1A mRNA. Binds to the adenine-rich autoregulatory sequence (ARS) located in PABPC1 mRNA and represses its translation. PABPC1 mRNA-binding is stimulated by PABPC1 protein. Prevents BTRC/FBW1A mRNA degradation by disrupting microRNA- dependent interaction with AGO2. Promotes the directed movement of tumor-derived cells by fine-tuning intracellular signaling networks. Binds to MAPK4 3'-UTR and inhibits its translation. Interacts with PTEN transcript open reading frame (ORF) and prevents mRNA decay. This combined action on MAPK4 (down-regulation) and PTEN (up-regulation) antagonizes HSPB1 phosphorylation, consequently it prevents G-actin sequestration by phosphorylated HSPB1, allowing F-actin polymerization. Hence enhances the velocity of cell migration and stimulates directed cell migration by PTEN-modulated polarization. Interacts with Hepatitis C virus (HCV) 5'-UTR and 3'-UTR and specifically enhances translation at the HCV IRES, but not 5'-cap-dependent translation, possibly by recruiting eIF3. Interacts with HIV-1 GAG protein and blocks the formation of infectious HIV-1 particles. Reduces HIV-1 assembly by inhibiting viral RNA packaging, as well as assembly and processing of GAG protein on cellular membranes. During cellular stress, such as oxidative stress or heat shock, stabilizes target mRNAs that are recruited to stress granules, including CD44, IGF2, MAPK4, MYC, PTEN, RAPGEF2 and RPS6KA5 transcripts.

RNA-binding factor that recruits target transcripts to cytoplasmic protein-RNA complexes (mRNPs). This transcript 'caging' into mRNPs allows mRNA transport and transient storage. It also modulates the rate and location at which target transcripts encounter the translational apparatus and shields them from endonuclease attacks or microRNA-mediated degradation (By similarity). Preferentially binds to N6-methyladenosine (m6A)-containing mRNAs and increases their stability. Binds to the 5'-UTR of the insulin-like growth factor 2 (IGF2) mRNAs. Binding is isoform- specific. Binds to beta-actin/ACTB and MYC transcripts. Increases MYC mRNA stability by binding to the coding region instability determinant (CRD) and binding is enhanced by m6A-modification of the CRD.

RNA-binding factor that may recruit target transcripts to cytoplasmic protein-RNA complexes (mRNPs). This transcript 'caging' into mRNPs allows mRNA transport and transient storage. It also modulates the rate and location at which target transcripts encounter the translational apparatus and shields them from endonuclease attacks or microRNA-mediated degradation. Preferentially binds to N6- methyladenosine (m6A)-containing mRNAs and increases their stability. Binds to the 3'-UTR of CD44 mRNA and stabilizes it, hence promotes cell adhesion and invadopodia formation in cancer cells. Binds to beta-actin/ACTB and MYC transcripts. Increases MYC mRNA stability by binding to the coding region instability determinant (CRD) and binding is enhanced by m6A-modification of the CRD. Binds to the 5'-UTR of the insulin-like growth factor 2 (IGF2) mRNAs.

eIF-2 functions in the early steps of protein synthesis by forming a ternary complex with GTP and initiator tRNA. This complex binds to a 40S ribosomal subunit, followed by mRNA binding to form a 43S preinitiation complex. Junction of the 60S ribosomal subunit to form the 80S initiation complex is preceded by hydrolysis of the GTP bound to eIF-2 and release of an eIF-2-GDP binary complex. In order for eIF-2 to recycle and catalyze another round of initiation, the GDP bound to eIF-2 must exchange with GTP by way of a reaction catalyzed by eIF-2B

As a subunit of eukaryotic initiation factor 2 (eIF-2), involved in the early steps of protein synthesis. In the presence of GTP, eIF-2 forms a ternary complex with initiator tRNA Met-tRNAi and then recruits the 40S ribosomal complex and initiation factors eIF-1, eIF-1A and eIF-3 to form the 43S pre-initiation complex (43S PIC), a step that determines the rate of protein translation. The 43S PIC binds to mRNA and scans downstream to the initiation codon, where it forms a 48S initiation complex by codon-anticodon base pairing. This leads to the displacement of eIF-1 to allow GTPase-activating protein (GAP) eIF- 5-mediated hydrolysis of eIF2-bound GTP. Hydrolysis of GTP and release of Pi, which makes GTP hydrolysis irreversible, causes the release of the eIF-2-GDP binary complex from the 40S subunit, an event that is essential for the subsequent joining of the 60S ribosomal subunit to form an elongation-competent 80S ribosome. In order for eIF-2 to recycle and catalyze another round of initiation, the GDP bound to eIF- 2 must be exchanged with GTP by way of a reaction catalyzed by GDP-GTP exchange factor (GEF) eIF-2B (By similarity). Along with its paralog on chromosome Y, may contribute to spermatogenesis up to the round spermatid stage (By similarity).

One of the essential components for the initiation of protein synthesis. Protects formylmethionyl-tRNA from spontaneous hydrolysis and promotes its binding to the 30S ribosomal subunits. Also involved in the hydrolysis of GTP during the formation of the 70S ribosomal complex

Plays a role in translation initiation. Translational GTPase that catalyzes the joining of the 40S and 60S subunits to form the 80S initiation complex with the initiator methionine-tRNA in the P-site base paired to the start codon. GTP binding and hydrolysis induces conformational changes in the enzyme that renders it active for productive interactions with the ribosome. The release of the enzyme after formation of the initiation complex is a prerequisite to form elongation-competent ribosomes.

IF-3 binds to the 28S ribosomal subunit and shifts the equilibrum between 55S ribosomes and their 39S and 28S subunits in favor of the free subunits, thus enhancing the availability of 28S subunits on which protein synthesis initiation begins.

Type I interferon-stimulated gene (ISG) that plays a critical role in antiviral and antibacterial activity. During bacterial infection, promotes macrophage differentiation and facilitates inflammatory cytokine secretion. Plays a role in the control of respiratory syncytial virus/RSV infection, reducing the ability of the virus to replicate. Exhibits a low antiviral activity against hepatitis C virus. Acts also as a feedback regulator of IFN responses by negatively regulating IKBKB and IKBKE kinase activities through interaction with FKBP5.

ATP-dependent RNA helicase which is a subunit of the eIF4F complex involved in cap recognition and is required for mRNA binding to ribosome. In the current model of translation initiation, eIF4A unwinds RNA secondary structures in the 5'-UTR of mRNAs which is necessary to allow efficient binding of the small ribosomal subunit, and subsequent scanning for the initiator codon.

ATP-dependent RNA helicase which is a subunit of the eIF4F complex involved in cap recognition and is required for mRNA binding to ribosome. In the current model of translation initiation, eIF4A unwinds RNA secondary structures in the 5'-UTR of mRNAs which is necessary to allow efficient binding of the small ribosomal subunit, and subsequent scanning for the initiator codon

ATP-dependent RNA helicase. Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Core component of the splicing-dependent multiprotein exon junction complex (EJC) deposited at splice junctions on mRNAs. The EJC is a dynamic structure consisting of core proteins and several peripheral nuclear and cytoplasmic associated factors that join the complex only transiently either during EJC assembly or during subsequent mRNA metabolism. The EJC marks the position of the exon-exon junction in the mature mRNA for the gene expression machinery and the core components remain bound to spliced mRNAs throughout all stages of mRNA metabolism thereby influencing downstream processes including nuclear mRNA export, subcellular mRNA localization, translation efficiency and nonsense- mediated mRNA decay (NMD). Its RNA-dependent ATPase and RNA-helicase activities are induced by CASC3, but abolished in presence of the MAGOH-RBM8A heterodimer, thereby trapping the ATP-bound EJC core onto spliced mRNA in a stable conformation. The inhibition of ATPase activity by the MAGOH-RBM8A heterodimer increases the RNA-binding affinity of the EJC. Involved in translational enhancement of spliced mRNAs after formation of the 80S ribosome complex. Binds spliced mRNA in sequence-independent manner, 20-24 nucleotides upstream of mRNA exon-exon junctions. Shows higher affinity for single-stranded RNA in an ATP-bound core EJC complex than after the ATP is hydrolyzed. Involved in the splicing modulation of BCL2L1/Bcl-X (and probably other apoptotic genes); specifically inhibits formation of proapoptotic isoforms such as Bcl-X(S); the function is different from the established EJC assembly. Involved in craniofacial development.

Required for the binding of mRNA to ribosomes. Functions in close association with EIF4-F and EIF4-A. Binds near the 5'-terminal cap of mRNA in presence of EIF-4F and ATP. Promotes the ATPase activity and the ATP-dependent RNA unwinding activity of both EIF4-A and EIF4-F

Recognizes and binds the 7-methylguanosine-containing mRNA cap during an early step in the initiation. Acts as a repressor of translation initiation. In contrast to EIF4E, it is unable to bind eIF4G (EIF4G1, EIF4G2 or EIF4G3), suggesting that it acts by competing with EIF4E and block assembly of eIF4F at the cap (By similarity). In P-bodies, component of a complex that promotes miRNA- mediated translational repression.

Recognizes and binds the 7-methylguanosine-containing mRNA cap during an early step in the initiation of protein synthesis. May act as an inhibitor of EIF4E1 activity (By similarity).

Recognizes and binds the 7-methylguanosine-containing mRNA cap during an early step in the initiation of protein synthesis and facilitates ribosome binding by inducing the unwinding of the mRNAs secondary structures. In addition to its role in translation initiation, also acts as a regulator of translation and stability in the cytoplasm. Component of the CYFIP1-EIF4E-FMR1 complex which binds to the mRNA cap and mediates translational repression: in the complex, EIF4E mediates the binding to the mRNA cap (By similarity). Component of a multiprotein complex that sequesters and represses translation of proneurogenic factors during neurogenesis (By similarity). In P-bodies, component of a complex that mediates the storage of translationally inactive mRNAs in the cytoplasm and prevents their degradation. May play an important role in spermatogenesis through translational regulation of stage-specific mRNAs during germ cell development (By similarity).

Component of the protein complex eIF4F, which is involved in the recognition of the mRNA cap, ATP-dependent unwinding of 5'-terminal secondary structure and recruitment of mRNA to the ribosome. As a member of the eIF4F complex, required for endoplasmic reticulum stress- induced ATF4 mRNA translation.

Appears to play a role in the switch from cap-dependent to IRES-mediated translation during mitosis, apoptosis and viral infection. Cleaved by some caspases and viral proteases.

Probable component of the protein complex eIF4F, which is involved in the recognition of the mRNA cap, ATP-dependent unwinding of 5'-terminal secondary structure and recruitment of mRNA to the ribosome. Thought to be a functional homolog of EIF4G1.

Stimulates the RNA helicase activity of EIF4A in the translation initiation complex. Binds weakly mRNA.

mRNA-binding protein involved in translation elongation. Has an important function at the level of mRNA turnover, probably acting downstream of decapping. Critical for the efficient synthesis of peptide bonds between consecutive proline residues. Can resolve ribosomal stalling caused by consecutive prolines during translation. Involved in actin dynamics and cell cycle progression, mRNA decay and probably in a pathway involved in stress response and maintenance of cell wall integrity. With syntenin SDCBP, functions as a regulator of p53/TP53 and p53/TP53-dependent apoptosis. Regulates also TNF-alpha-mediated apoptosis. Mediates effects of polyamines on neuronal process extension and survival. May play an important role in brain development and function, and in skeletal muscle stem cell differentiation (By similarity). Also described as a cellular cofactor of human T-cell leukemia virus type I (HTLV-1) Rex protein and of human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1) Rev protein, essential for mRNA export of retroviral transcripts.

mRNA-binding protein involved in translation elongation. Has an important function at the level of mRNA turnover, probably acting downstream of decapping. Critical for the efficient synthesis of peptide bonds between consecutive proline residues. Can resolve ribosomal stalling caused by consecutive prolines during translation (By similarity). Involved in actin dynamics and cell cycle progression, mRNA decay and probably in a pathway involved in stress response and maintenance of cell wall integrity. Functions as a regulator of apoptosis. Mediates effects of polyamines on neuronal process extension and survival. May play an important role in brain development and function, and in skeletal muscle stem cell differentiation (By similarity).

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of GTP bound to the 40S ribosomal initiation complex (40S.mRNA.Met-tRNA[F].eIF-2.GTP) with the subsequent joining of a 60S ribosomal subunit resulting in the release of eIF-2 and the guanine nucleotide. The subsequent joining of a 60S ribosomal subunit results in the formation of a functional 80S initiation complex (80S.mRNA.Met-tRNA[F])

Binds to the 60S ribosomal subunit and prevents its association with the 40S ribosomal subunit to form the 80S initiation complex in the cytoplasm. Behaves as a stimulatory translation initiation factor downstream insulin/growth factors. Is also involved in ribosome biogenesis. Associates with pre-60S subunits in the nucleus and is involved in its nuclear export. Cytoplasmic release of TIF6 from 60S subunits and nuclear relocalization is promoted by a RACK1 (RACK1)- dependent protein kinase C activity. In tissues responsive to insulin, controls fatty acid synthesis and glycolysis by exerting translational control of adipogenic transcription factors such as CEBPB, CEBPD and ATF4 that have G/C rich or uORF in their 5'UTR. Required for ROS-dependent megakaryocyte maturation and platelets formation, controls the expression of mitochondrial respiratory chain genes involved in reactive oxygen species (ROS) synthesis (By similarity). Involved in miRNA-mediated gene silencing by the RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC). Required for both miRNA-mediated translational repression and miRNA-mediated cleavage of complementary mRNAs by RISC. Modulates cell cycle progression and global translation of pre-B cells, its activation seems to be rate-limiting in tumorigenesis and tumor growth (By similarity).

Plays a role in apoptosis, negatively regulating the intrinsinc apoptotic signaling pathway and TNFSF10-induced apoptosis. However, it has also been shown to have a pro-apoptotic activity. Has an antiviral activity towards hepatitis C virus/HCV by inhibiting the EGFR signaling pathway, which activation is required for entry of the virus into cells.

Innate immune receptor which acts as a cytoplasmic sensor of viral nucleic acids and plays a major role in sensing viral infection and in the activation of a cascade of antiviral responses including the induction of type I interferons and pro-inflammatory cytokines. Its ligands include mRNA lacking 2'-O-methylation at their 5' cap and long-dsRNA (>1 kb in length). Upon ligand binding it associates with mitochondria antiviral signaling protein (MAVS/IPS1) which activates the IKK-related kinases: TBK1 and IKBKE which phosphorylate interferon regulatory factors: IRF3 and IRF7 which in turn activate transcription of antiviral immunological genes, including interferons (IFNs); IFN-alpha and IFN-beta. Responsible for detecting the Picornaviridae family members such as encephalomyocarditis virus (EMCV), mengo encephalomyocarditis virus (ENMG), and rhinovirus. Detects coronavirus SARS-CoV-2. Can also detect other viruses such as dengue virus (DENV), west Nile virus (WNV), and reovirus. Also involved in antiviral signaling in response to viruses containing a dsDNA genome, such as vaccinia virus. Plays an important role in amplifying innate immune signaling through recognition of RNA metabolites that are produced during virus infection by ribonuclease L (RNase L). May play an important role in enhancing natural killer cell function and may be involved in growth inhibition and apoptosis in several tumor cell lines.

Interferon-induced antiviral RNA-binding protein that specifically binds single-stranded RNA bearing a 5'-triphosphate group (PPP-RNA), thereby acting as a sensor of viral single-stranded RNAs and inhibiting expression of viral messenger RNAs. Single-stranded PPP- RNAs, which lack 2'-O-methylation of the 5' cap and bear a 5'- triphosphate group instead, are specific from viruses, providing a molecular signature to distinguish between self and non-self mRNAs by the host during viral infection. Directly binds PPP-RNA in a non- sequence-specific manner. Viruses evolved several ways to evade this restriction system such as encoding their own 2'-O-methylase for their mRNAs or by stealing host cap containing the 2'-O-methylation (cap snatching mechanism). Exhibits antiviral activity against several viruses including human papilloma and hepatitis C viruses.

IFN-induced antiviral protein which inhibits expression of viral messenger RNAs lacking 2'-O-methylation of the 5' cap. The ribose 2'-O-methylation would provide a molecular signature to distinguish between self and non-self mRNAs by the host during viral infection. Viruses evolved several ways to evade this restriction system such as encoding their own 2'-O-methylase for their mRNAs or by stealing host cap containing the 2'-O-methylation (cap snatching mechanism). Binds AU-rich viral RNAs, with or without 5' triphosphorylation, RNA-binding is required for antiviral activity. Can promote apoptosis.

IFN-induced antiviral protein which acts as an inhibitor of cellular as well as viral processes, cell migration, proliferation, signaling, and viral replication. Enhances MAVS-mediated host antiviral responses by serving as an adapter bridging TBK1 to MAVS which leads to the activation of TBK1 and phosphorylation of IRF3 and phosphorylated IRF3 translocates into nucleus to promote antiviral gene transcription. Exhibits an antiproliferative activity via the up-regulation of cell cycle negative regulators CDKN1A/p21 and CDKN1B/p27. Normally, CDKN1B/p27 turnover is regulated by COPS5, which binds CDKN1B/p27 in the nucleus and exports it to the cytoplasm for ubiquitin-dependent degradation. IFIT3 sequesters COPS5 in the cytoplasm, thereby increasing nuclear CDKN1B/p27 protein levels. Up-regulates CDKN1A/p21 by down-regulating MYC, a repressor of CDKN1A/p21. Can negatively regulate the apoptotic effects of IFIT2.

Interferon-induced RNA-binding protein involved in the human innate immune response. Has a broad and adaptable RNA structure recognition important for RNA recognition specificity in antiviral defense. Binds precursor and processed tRNAs as well as poly-U-tailed tRNA fragments. Specifically binds single-stranded RNA bearing a 5'-triphosphate group (PPP-RNA), thereby acting as a sensor of viral single-stranded RNAs. Single-stranded PPP-RNAs, which lack 2'-O-methylation of the 5' cap and bear a 5'-triphosphate group instead, are specific from viruses, providing a molecular signature to distinguish between self and non- self mRNAs by the host during viral infection. Directly binds PPP-RNA in a non-sequence-specific manner. Also recognizes and selectively binds AT-rich dsDNA. Additionally, as a mediator in innate immunity, regulates positively IKK-NFKB signaling by sinergizing the recruitment of IKK to MAP3K7.

Major mediator of the tumor suppressor activity of IFN in breast cancer cells. Promotes ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of MDM2, which leads to p53/TP53 stabilization. Promotes ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of HDAC1, which in turn enhances maspin expression, and impairs invasive activity of cancer cells.

IFN-induced antiviral protein which inhibits the entry of viruses to the host cell cytoplasm, permitting endocytosis, but preventing subsequent viral fusion and release of viral contents into the cytosol. Active against multiple viruses, including influenza A virus, SARS coronaviruses (SARS-CoV and SARS-CoV-2), Marburg virus (MARV), Ebola virus (EBOV), Dengue virus (DNV), West Nile virus (WNV), human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1) and hepatitis C virus (HCV). Can inhibit: influenza virus hemagglutinin protein-mediated viral entry, MARV and EBOV GP1,2- mediated viral entry and SARS-CoV and SARS-CoV-2 S protein-mediated viral entry. Also implicated in cell adhesion and control of cell growth and migration. Inhibits SARS-CoV-2 S protein- mediated syncytia formation. Plays a key role in the antiproliferative action of IFN-gamma either by inhibiting the ERK activation or by arresting cell growth in G1 phase in a p53-dependent manner. Acts as a positive regulator of osteoblast differentiation. In hepatocytes, IFITM proteins act in a coordinated manner to restrict HCV infection by targeting the endocytosed HCV virion for lysosomal degradation. IFITM2 and IFITM3 display anti-HCV activity that may complement the anti-HCV activity of IFITM1 by inhibiting the late stages of HCV entry, possibly in a coordinated manner by trapping the virion in the endosomal pathway and targeting it for degradation at the lysosome.

IFN-induced antiviral protein which inhibits the entry of viruses to the host cell cytoplasm, permitting endocytosis, but preventing subsequent viral fusion and release of viral contents into the cytosol. Active against multiple viruses, including influenza A virus, SARS coronaviruses (SARS-CoV and SARS-CoV-2), Marburg virus (MARV), Ebola virus (EBOV), Dengue virus (DNV), West Nile virus (WNV), human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV- 1), hepatitis C virus (HCV) and vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV). Can inhibit: influenza virus hemagglutinin protein-mediated viral entry, MARV and EBOV GP1,2-mediated viral entry, SARS-CoV and SARS-CoV- 2 S protein-mediated viral entry and VSV G protein-mediated viral entry. Induces cell cycle arrest and mediates apoptosis by caspase activation and in p53-independent manner. In hepatocytes, IFITM proteins act in a coordinated manner to restrict HCV infection by targeting the endocytosed HCV virion for lysosomal degradation. IFITM2 and IFITM3 display anti-HCV activity that may complement the anti-HCV activity of IFITM1 by inhibiting the late stages of HCV entry, possibly in a coordinated manner by trapping the virion in the endosomal pathway and targeting it for degradation at the lysosome.

IFN-induced antiviral protein which disrupts intracellular cholesterol homeostasis. Inhibits the entry of viruses to the host cell cytoplasm by preventing viral fusion with cholesterol depleted endosomes. May inactivate new enveloped viruses which buds out of the infected cell, by letting them go out with a cholesterol depleted membrane. Active against multiple viruses, including influenza A virus, SARS coronaviruses (SARS-CoV and SARS-CoV-2), Marburg virus (MARV), Ebola virus (EBOV), Dengue virus (DNV), West Nile virus (WNV), human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1), hepatitis C virus (HCV) and vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV). Can inhibit: influenza virus hemagglutinin protein- mediated viral entry, MARV and EBOV GP1,2-mediated viral entry, SARS- CoV and SARS-CoV-2 S protein-mediated viral entry and VSV G protein- mediated viral entry. Plays a critical role in the structural stability and function of vacuolar ATPase (v-ATPase). Establishes physical contact with the v-ATPase of endosomes which is critical for proper clathrin localization and is also required for the function of the v-ATPase to lower the pH in phagocytic endosomes thus establishing an antiviral state. In hepatocytes, IFITM proteins act in a coordinated manner to restrict HCV infection by targeting the endocytosed HCV virion for lysosomal degradation. IFITM2 and IFITM3 display anti-HCV activity that may complement the anti-HCV activity of IFITM1 by inhibiting the late stages of HCV entry, possibly in a coordinated manner by trapping the virion in the endosomal pathway and targeting it for degradation at the lysosome. Exerts opposing activities on SARS-CoV-2, including amphipathicity-dependent restriction of virus at endosomes and amphipathicity-independent enhancement of infection at the plasma membrane.

Produced by macrophages, IFN-alpha have antiviral activities. Interferon stimulates the production of two enzymes: a protein kinase and an oligoadenylate synthetase

Produced by macrophages, IFN-alpha have antiviral activities. Interferon stimulates the production of two enzymes: a protein kinase and an oligoadenylate synthetase.

Type I interferon cytokine that plays a key role in the innate immune response to infection, developing tumors and other inflammatory stimuli. Signals via binding to high-affinity (IFNAR2) and low-affinity (IFNAR1) heterodimeric receptor, activating the canonical Jak-STAT signaling pathway resulting in transcriptional activation or repression of interferon-regulated genes that encode the effectors of the interferon response, such as antiviral proteins, regulators of cell proliferation and differentiation, and immunoregulatory proteins. Signals mostly via binding to a IFNAR1-IFNAR2 heterodimeric receptor, but can also function with IFNAR1 alone and independently of Jak-STAT pathways (By similarity). Elicits a wide variety of responses, including antiviral and antibacterial activities, and can regulate the development of B-cells, myelopoiesis and lipopolysaccharide (LPS)- inducible production of tumor necrosis factor (By similarity). Plays a role in neuronal homeostasis by regulating dopamine turnover and protecting dopaminergic neurons: acts by promoting neuronal autophagy and alpha-synuclein clearance, thereby preventing dopaminergic neuron loss (By similarity). IFNB1 is more potent than interferon-alpha (IFN- alpha) in inducing the apoptotic and antiproliferative pathways required for control of tumor cell growth (By similarity).

Type I interferon required for maintaining basal levels of IFN-regulated genes, including 2'-5'-oligoadenylate synthetase, IRF7 and ISG15, in the female reproductive tract. Directly mediates protection against viral and bacterial genital infections (By similarity).

Type II interferon produced by immune cells such as T-cells and NK cells that plays crucial roles in antimicrobial, antiviral, and antitumor responses by activating effector immune cells and enhancing antigen presentation. Primarily signals through the JAK-STAT pathway after interaction with its receptor IFNGR1 to affect gene regulation. Upon IFNG binding, IFNGR1 intracellular domain opens out to allow association of downstream signaling components JAK2, JAK1 and STAT1, leading to STAT1 activation, nuclear translocation and transcription of IFNG-regulated genes. Many of the induced genes are transcription factors such as IRF1 that are able to further drive regulation of a next wave of transcription. Plays a role in class I antigen presentation pathway by inducing a replacement of catalytic proteasome subunits with immunoproteasome subunits. In turn, increases the quantity, quality, and repertoire of peptides for class I MHC loading. Increases the efficiency of peptide generation also by inducing the expression of activator PA28 that associates with the proteasome and alters its proteolytic cleavage preference. Up-regulates as well MHC II complexes on the cell surface by promoting expression of several key molecules such as cathepsins B/CTSB, H/CTSH, and L/CTSL. Participates in the regulation of hematopoietic stem cells during development and under homeostatic conditions by affecting their development, quiescence, and differentiation (By similarity).

May play a role in the regulation of immune cell function. Cytokine that imparts cellular protection against viral infection in a species-specific manner. Activates the interferon-stimulated response element signaling pathway. It is able to directly modulate cytokine release from monocytes and dendritic cells. Binds heparin.

Cytokine with antiviral, antitumour and immunomodulatory activities. Plays a critical role in the antiviral host defense, predominantly in the epithelial tissues. Acts as a ligand for the heterodimeric class II cytokine receptor composed of IL10RB and IFNLR1, and receptor engagement leads to the activation of the JAK/STAT signaling pathway resulting in the expression of IFN-stimulated genes (ISG), which mediate the antiviral state. Has a restricted receptor distribution and therefore restricted targets: is primarily active in epithelial cells and this cell type-selective action is because of the epithelial cell-specific expression of its receptor IFNLR1. Exerts an immunomodulatory effect by up-regulating MHC class I antigen expression

Cytokine with antiviral, antitumour and immunomodulatory activities. Plays a critical role in the antiviral host defense, predominantly in the epithelial tissues. Acts as a ligand for the heterodimeric class II cytokine receptor composed of IL10RB and IFNLR1, and receptor engagement leads to the activation of the JAK/STAT signaling pathway resulting in the expression of IFN-stimulated genes (ISG), which mediate the antiviral state. Has a restricted receptor distribution and therefore restricted targets: is primarily active in epithelial cells and this cell type-selective action is because of the epithelial cell-specific expression of its receptor IFNLR1. Seems not to be essential for early virus-activated host defense in vaginal infection, but plays an important role in Toll-like receptor (TLR)- induced antiviral defense. Plays a significant role in the antiviral immune defense in the intestinal epithelium. Exerts an immunomodulatory effect by up-regulating MHC class I antigen expression.

Could play a role in regulating gene activity in the proliferative and/or differentiative pathways induced by NGF. May be an autocrine factor that attenuates or amplifies the initial ligand- induced signal (By similarity).

Part of intraflagellar transport (IFT) particles involved in ciliary process assembly. May play a role in the trafficking of ciliary membrane proteins from the Golgi complex to the cilium. Regulates the platelet-derived growth factor receptor-alpha (PDGFRA) signaling pathway. Required for protein stability of E3 ubiquitin ligases CBL and CBLB that mediate ubiquitination and internalization of PDGFRA for proper feedback inhibition of PDGFRA signaling. Essential for male fertility. Plays an important role in spermatogenesis, particularly spermiogenesis, when germ cells form flagella. May play a role in the transport of flagellar proteins ODF2 and SPAG16 to build sperm flagella and in the removal of redundant sperm cytoplasm (By similarity). Also involved in autophagy since it is required for trafficking of ATG16L and the expansion of the autophagic compartment (By similarity).

Small GTPase-like component of the intraflagellar transport (IFT) complex B.

Component of the IFT complex B required for sonic hedgehog/SHH signaling. May mediate transport of SHH components: required for the export of SMO and PTCH1 receptors out of the cilium and the accumulation of GLI2 at the ciliary tip in response to activation of the SHH pathway, suggesting it is involved in the dynamic transport of SHH signaling molecules within the cilium. Not required for ciliary assembly. Its role in intraflagellar transport is mainly seen in tissues rich in ciliated cells such as kidney and testis. Essential for male fertility, spermiogenesis and sperm flagella formation. Plays a role in the early development of the kidney. May be involved in the regulation of ureteric bud initiation (By similarity).

Small GTPase-like component of the intraflagellar transport (IFT) complex B that promotes the exit of the BBSome complex from cilia via its interaction with ARL6. Not involved in entry of the BBSome complex into cilium. Prevents aggregation of GTP-free ARL6. Required for hedgehog signaling. Forms a subcomplex within the IFT complex B with IFT25. Its role in intraflagellar transport is mainly seen in tissues rich in ciliated cells such as kidney and testis. Essential for male fertility, spermiogenesis and sperm flagella formation. Plays a role in the early development of the kidney. May be involved in the regulation of ureteric bud initiation (By similarity).

As a component of IFT complex A (IFT-A), a complex required for retrograde ciliary transport and entry into cilia of G protein- coupled receptors (GPCRs), it is involved in ciliogenesis. Involved in retrograde ciliary transport along microtubules from the ciliary tip to the base.

Forms part of a complex involved in intraflagellar transport (IFT), the bi-directional movement of particles required for the assembly, maintenance and functioning of primary cilia. May play a role in chondrocyte maturation and skeletogenesis (By similarity).

Involved in ciliogenesis as part of a complex involved in intraflagellar transport (IFT), the bi-directional movement of particles required for the assembly, maintenance and functioning of primary cilia. Required for the anterograde transport of IFT88.

Component of the intraflagellar transport (IFT) complex B required for transport of proteins in the motile cilium. Required for transport of specific ciliary cargo proteins related to motility, while it is neither required for IFT complex B assembly or motion nor for cilium assembly. Required for efficient coupling between the accumulation of GLI2 and GLI3 at the ciliary tips and their dissociation from the negative regulator SUFU. Plays a key role in maintaining the integrity of the IFT complex B and the proper ciliary localization of the IFT complex B components. Not required for IFT complex A ciliary localization or function. Essential for maintaining proper microtubule organization within the ciliary axoneme.

Required for the formation of cilia. Plays an indirect role in sonic hedgehog signaling, cilia being required for all activity of the hedgehog pathway (By similarity). Has pro-apoptotic function via its interaction with HIP1, leading to recruit caspase-8 (CASP8) and trigger apoptosis. Has the ability to bind DNA sequence motif 5'- AAAGACATG-3' present in the promoter of caspase genes such as CASP1, CASP8 and CASP10, suggesting that it may act as a transcription regulator; however the relevance of such function remains unclear.

Component of the intraflagellar transport (IFT) complex B: together with IFT81, forms a tubulin-binding module that specifically mediates transport of tubulin within the cilium. Binds beta-tubulin via its basic region. Required for ciliogenesis. Essential for flagellogenesis during spermatogenesis.

Component of the intraflagellar transport (IFT) complex B, which is essential for the development and maintenance of motile and sensory cilia.

Component of the intraflagellar transport (IFT) complex B: together with IFT74, forms a tubulin-binding module that specifically mediates transport of tubulin within the cilium. Binds tubulin via its CH (calponin-homology)-like region. Required for ciliogenesis. Required for proper regulation of SHH signaling. Plays an important role during spermatogenesis by modulating the assembly and elongation of the sperm flagella (By similarity).

Positively regulates primary cilium biogenesis. Also involved in autophagy since it is required for trafficking of ATG16L and the expansion of the autophagic compartment.

Seems to play a role in ciliary BBSome localization, maybe through interaction with IFT-A complex.

Promotes absorption of the essential vitamin cobalamin (Cbl) in the ileum. After interaction with CUBN, the CBLIF-cobalamin complex is internalized via receptor-mediated endocytosis

Associated to surface IgM-receptor; may be involved in signal transduction. Involved in regulation of the catalytic activity of the phosphatases PP2A, PP4 and PP6 by protecting their partially folded catalytic subunits from degradative polyubiquitination until they associate with regulatory subunits.

Receptor tyrosine kinase which mediates actions of insulin- like growth factor 1 (IGF1). Binds IGF1 with high affinity and IGF2 and insulin (INS) with a lower affinity. The activated IGF1R is involved in cell growth and survival control. IGF1R is crucial for tumor transformation and survival of malignant cell. Ligand binding activates the receptor kinase, leading to receptor autophosphorylation, and tyrosines phosphorylation of multiple substrates, that function as signaling adapter proteins including, the insulin-receptor substrates (IRS1/2), Shc and 14-3-3 proteins. Phosphorylation of IRSs proteins lead to the activation of two main signaling pathways: the PI3K-AKT/PKB pathway and the Ras-MAPK pathway. The result of activating the MAPK pathway is increased cellular proliferation, whereas activating the PI3K pathway inhibits apoptosis and stimulates protein synthesis. Phosphorylated IRS1 can activate the 85 kDa regulatory subunit of PI3K (PIK3R1), leading to activation of several downstream substrates, including protein AKT/PKB. AKT phosphorylation, in turn, enhances protein synthesis through mTOR activation and triggers the antiapoptotic effects of IGFIR through phosphorylation and inactivation of BAD. In parallel to PI3K-driven signaling, recruitment of Grb2/SOS by phosphorylated IRS1 or Shc leads to recruitment of Ras and activation of the ras-MAPK pathway. In addition to these two main signaling pathways IGF1R signals also through the Janus kinase/signal transducer and activator of transcription pathway (JAK/STAT). Phosphorylation of JAK proteins can lead to phosphorylation/activation of signal transducers and activators of transcription (STAT) proteins. In particular activation of STAT3, may be essential for the transforming activity of IGF1R. The JAK/STAT pathway activates gene transcription and may be responsible for the transforming activity. JNK kinases can also be activated by the IGF1R. IGF1 exerts inhibiting activities on JNK activation via phosphorylation and inhibition of MAP3K5/ASK1, which is able to directly associate with the IGF1R

The insulin-like growth factors, isolated from plasma, are structurally and functionally related to insulin but have a much higher growth-promoting activity. May be a physiological regulator of [1-14C]- 2-deoxy-D-glucose (2DG) transport and glycogen synthesis in osteoblasts. Stimulates glucose transport in bone-derived osteoblastic (PyMS) cells and is effective at much lower concentrations than insulin, not only regarding glycogen and DNA synthesis but also with regard to enhancing glucose uptake. May play a role in synapse maturation. Ca(2+)-dependent exocytosis of IGF1 is required for sensory perception of smell in the olfactory bulb (By similarity). Acts as a ligand for IGF1R. Binds to the alpha subunit of IGF1R, leading to the activation of the intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity which autophosphorylates tyrosine residues in the beta subunit thus initiatiating a cascade of down-stream signaling events leading to activation of the PI3K-AKT/PKB and the Ras-MAPK pathways. Binds to integrins ITGAV:ITGB3 and ITGA6:ITGB4. Its binding to integrins and subsequent ternary complex formation with integrins and IGFR1 are essential for IGF1 signaling. Induces the phosphorylation and activation of IGFR1, MAPK3/ERK1, MAPK1/ERK2 and AKT1.

The insulin-like growth factors possess growth-promoting activity (By similarity). Major fetal growth hormone in mammals. Plays a key role in regulating fetoplacental development. IGF2 is influenced by placental lactogen. Also involved in tissue differentiation. In adults, involved in glucose metabolism in adipose tissue, skeletal muscle and liver (Probable). Acts as a ligand for integrin which is required for IGF2 signaling. Positively regulates myogenic transcription factor MYOD1 function by facilitating the recruitment of transcriptional coactivators, thereby controlling muscle terminal differentiation (By similarity). Inhibits myoblast differentiation and modulates metabolism via increasing the mitochondrial respiration rate (By similarity).

Probable cell membrane receptor for the IGF-like family proteins. Binds IGFL1 and IGFL3 with a higher affinity. May also bind IGFL2.

Serves to link two monomer units of either IgM or IgA. In the case of IgM, the J chain-joined dimer is a nucleating unit for the IgM pentamer, and in the case of IgA it induces dimers and/or larger polymers. It also helps to bind these immunoglobulins to secretory component.

Involved in the control of early migration of neurons expressing gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GNRH neurons) (By similarity). May be involved in the maintenance of osteochondroprogenitor cells pool (By similarity).

Functions as a cell adhesion molecule through homophilic interaction. Stimulates cell growth.

Involved in synaptic inhibition in the brain. Selectively regulates inhibitory presynaptic differentiation through interacting with presynaptic NRXN2.

Seems to be a coreceptor in inhibin signaling, but seems not to be a high-affinity inhibin receptor. Antagonizes activin A signaling in the presence or absence of inhibin B (By similarity). Necessary to mediate a specific antagonistic effect of inhibin B on activin- stimulated transcription.

Plays a role as inhibitor of T-cells proliferation induced by CD3. Inhibits expression of IL2RA on activated T-cells and secretion of IL2. Inhibits tyrosine kinases that are required for IL2 production and cellular proliferation. Inhibits phospholipase C-gamma-1/PLCG1 phosphorylation and subsequent CD3-induced changes in intracellular free calcium. Prevents nuclear translocation of nuclear factor of activated T-cell to the nucleus. Plays a role in the inhibition of T- cell proliferation via IL10 secretion by cutaneous dendritic cells. May be a marker of CD4(+) CD56(+) leukemic tumor cells.

Provides, together with MAGI1, an adhesion machinery at tight junctions, which may regulate the permeability of kidney glomerulus and small intestinal epithelial cells. Mediates calcium-independent homophilic cell adhesion. In testis, it may function as a cell adhesion molecule rather than a tight-junction protein. It may participate in the adhesion between spermatogonia-spermatogonia, spermatogonia-Sertoli cells, and Sertoli cells-Sertoli cells (By similarity).

May play a key role in diverse functions ascribed to CD81 and CD9 such as oocytes fertilization or hepatitis C virus function. May regulate proliferation and differentiation of keratinocytes. May be a negative regulator of cell motility: suppresses T-cell mobility coordinately with CD81, associates with CD82 to suppress prostate cancer cell migration, regulates epidermoid cell reaggregation and motility on laminin-5 with CD9 and CD81 as key linkers. May also play a role on integrin-dependent morphology and motility functions. May participate in the regulation of neurite outgrowth and maintenance of the neural network in the adult brain.

[Indian hedgehog protein]: The C-terminal part of the indian hedgehog protein precursor displays an autoproteolysis and a cholesterol transferase activity (By similarity). Both activities result in the cleavage of the full-length protein into two parts followed by the covalent attachment of a cholesterol moiety to the C- terminal of the newly generated N-product (By similarity). Both activities occur in the reticulum endoplasmic (By similarity). Plays a role in hedgehog paracrine signaling. Associated with the very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) particles to function as a circulating morphogen for endothelial cell integrity maintenance.

Required for DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) formation in unsynapsed regions during meiotic recombination. Probably acts by forming a complex with MEI4 and REC114, which activates DSBs formation in unsynapsed regions, an essential step to ensure completion of synapsis. Not required for HORMAD1 functions in pairing-independent synaptonemal complex formation, ATR recruitment to unsynapsed axes, meiotic silencing of unsynapsed chromatin (MSUC) or meiotic surveillance.

Inhibits the activity of dimeric NF-kappa-B/REL complexes by trapping REL dimers in the cytoplasm through masking of their nuclear localization signals. On cellular stimulation by immune and pro- inflammatory responses, becomes phosphorylated promoting ubiquitination and degradation, enabling the dimeric RELA to translocate to the nucleus and activate transcription.

Inhibits NF-kappa-B by complexing with and trapping it in the cytoplasm. However, the unphosphorylated form resynthesized after cell stimulation is able to bind NF-kappa-B allowing its transport to the nucleus and protecting it to further NFKBIA-dependent inactivation. Association with inhibitor kappa B-interacting NKIRAS1 and NKIRAS2 prevent its phosphorylation rendering it more resistant to degradation, explaining its slower degradation

Involved in the regulation of innate immune response. Acts as negative regulator of Toll-like receptor and interferon-regulatory factor (IRF) signaling pathways. Contributes to the negative regulation of transcriptional activation of NF-kappa-B target genes in response to endogenous proinflammatory stimuli.

Component of the IRAK1-dependent TNFRSF1A signaling pathway that leads to NF-kappa-B activation and is required for cell survival. Acts by enhancing RELA transcriptional activity (By similarity).

Involved in regulation of NF-kappa-B transcription factor complexes. Inhibits NF-kappa-B activity without affecting its nuclear translocation upon stimulation. Inhibits DNA-binding of RELA and NFKB1/p50, and of the NF-kappa-B p65-p50 heterodimer and the NF-kappa-B p50-p50 homodimer. Seems also to activate NF-kappa-B-mediated transcription. In vitro, upon association with NFKB1/p50 has transcriptional activation activity and, together with NFKB1/p50 and RELA, is recruited to LCN2 promoters. Promotes transcription of LCN2 and DEFB4. Is recruited to IL-6 promoters and activates IL-6 but decreases TNF-alpha production in response to LPS (By similarity). Seems to be involved in the induction of inflammatory genes activated through TLR/IL-1 receptor signaling (By similarity). Involved in the induction of T helper 17 cells (Th17) differentiation upon recognition of antigen by T cell antigen receptor (TCR) (By similarity).

Serine kinase that plays an essential role in the NF-kappa-B signaling pathway which is activated by multiple stimuli such as inflammatory cytokines, bacterial or viral products, DNA damages or other cellular stresses. Acts as part of the canonical IKK complex in the conventional pathway of NF-kappa-B activation and phosphorylates inhibitors of NF-kappa-B on serine residues. These modifications allow polyubiquitination of the inhibitors and subsequent degradation by the proteasome. In turn, free NF- kappa-B is translocated into the nucleus and activates the transcription of hundreds of genes involved in immune response, growth control, or protection against apoptosis. Negatively regulates the pathway by phosphorylating the scaffold protein TAXBP1 and thus promoting the assembly of the A20/TNFAIP3 ubiquitin-editing complex (composed of A20/TNFAIP3, TAX1BP1, and the E3 ligases ITCH and RNF11). Therefore, CHUK plays a key role in the negative feedback of NF-kappa-B canonical signaling to limit inflammatory gene activation. As part of the non-canonical pathway of NF-kappa-B activation, the MAP3K14-activated CHUK/IKKA homodimer phosphorylates NFKB2/p100 associated with RelB, inducing its proteolytic processing to NFKB2/p52 and the formation of NF-kappa-B RelB-p52 complexes. In turn, these complexes regulate genes encoding molecules involved in B-cell survival and lymphoid organogenesis. Participates also in the negative feedback of the non-canonical NF- kappa-B signaling pathway by phosphorylating and destabilizing MAP3K14/NIK. Within the nucleus, phosphorylates CREBBP and consequently increases both its transcriptional and histone acetyltransferase activities. Modulates chromatin accessibility at NF- kappa-B-responsive promoters by phosphorylating histones H3 at 'Ser-10' that are subsequently acetylated at 'Lys-14' by CREBBP. Additionally, phosphorylates the CREBBP-interacting protein NCOA3. Also phosphorylates FOXO3 and may regulate this pro- apoptotic transcription factor. Phosphorylates RIPK1 at 'Ser-25' which represses its kinase activity and consequently prevents TNF-mediated RIPK1-dependent cell death (By similarity). Phosphorylates AMBRA1 following mitophagy induction, promoting AMBRA1 interaction with ATG8 family proteins and its mitophagic activity.

Serine kinase that plays an essential role in the NF-kappa-B signaling pathway which is activated by multiple stimuli such as inflammatory cytokines, bacterial or viral products, DNA damages or other cellular stresses. Acts as part of the canonical IKK complex in the conventional pathway of NF-kappa-B activation. Phosphorylates inhibitors of NF-kappa-B on 2 critical serine residues. These modifications allow polyubiquitination of the inhibitors and subsequent degradation by the proteasome. In turn, free NF-kappa-B is translocated into the nucleus and activates the transcription of hundreds of genes involved in immune response, growth control, or protection against apoptosis. In addition to the NF-kappa-B inhibitors, phosphorylates several other components of the signaling pathway including NEMO/IKBKG, NF-kappa-B subunits RELA and NFKB1, as well as IKK-related kinases TBK1 and IKBKE. IKK-related kinase phosphorylations may prevent the overproduction of inflammatory mediators since they exert a negative regulation on canonical IKKs. Phosphorylates FOXO3, mediating the TNF- dependent inactivation of this pro-apoptotic transcription factor. Also phosphorylates other substrates including NCOA3, BCL10 and IRS1. Within the nucleus, acts as an adapter protein for NFKBIA degradation in UV-induced NF-kappa-B activation. Phosphorylates RIPK1 at 'Ser-25' which represses its kinase activity and consequently prevents TNF-mediated RIPK1-dependent cell death (By similarity). Phosphorylates the C- terminus of IRF5, stimulating IRF5 homodimerization and translocation into the nucleus.

Serine/threonine kinase that plays an essential role in regulating inflammatory responses to viral infection, through the activation of the type I IFN, NF-kappa-B and STAT signaling. Also involved in TNFA and inflammatory cytokines, like Interleukin-1, signaling. Following activation of viral RNA sensors, such as RIG-I- like receptors, associates with DDX3X and phosphorylates interferon regulatory factors (IRFs), IRF3 and IRF7, as well as DDX3X. This activity allows subsequent homodimerization and nuclear translocation of the IRF3 leading to transcriptional activation of pro-inflammatory and antiviral genes including IFNB. In order to establish such an antiviral state, IKBKE forms several different complexes whose composition depends on the type of cell and cellular stimuli. Thus, several scaffolding molecules including IPS1/MAVS, TANK, AZI2/NAP1 or TBKBP1/SINTBAD can be recruited to the IKBKE-containing-complexes. Activated by polyubiquitination in response to TNFA and interleukin-1, regulates the NF-kappa-B signaling pathway through, at least, the phosphorylation of CYLD. Phosphorylates inhibitors of NF-kappa-B thus leading to the dissociation of the inhibitor/NF-kappa-B complex and ultimately the degradation of the inhibitor. In addition, is also required for the induction of a subset of ISGs which displays antiviral activity, may be through the phosphorylation of STAT1 at 'Ser-708'. Phosphorylation of STAT1 at 'Ser-708' seems also to promote the assembly and DNA binding of ISGF3 (STAT1:STAT2:IRF9) complexes compared to GAF (STAT1:STAT1) complexes, in this way regulating the balance between type I and type II IFN responses. Protects cells against DNA damage-induced cell death. Also plays an important role in energy balance regulation by sustaining a state of chronic, low-grade inflammation in obesity, wich leads to a negative impact on insulin sensitivity. Phosphorylates AKT1.

Transcription regulator of hematopoietic cell differentiation. Binds gamma-satellite DNA. Plays a role in the development of lymphocytes, B- and T-cells. Binds and activates the enhancer (delta-A element) of the CD3-delta gene. Repressor of the TDT (fikzfterminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase) gene during thymocyte differentiation. Regulates transcription through association with both HDAC-dependent and HDAC-independent complexes. Targets the 2 chromatin-remodeling complexes, NuRD and BAF (SWI/SNF), in a single complex (PYR complex), to the beta-globin locus in adult erythrocytes. Increases normal apoptosis in adult erythroid cells. Confers early temporal competence to retinal progenitor cells (RPCs) (By similarity). Function is isoform-specific and is modulated by dominant-negative inactive isoforms.

Transcription factor that plays an important role in the regulation of lymphocyte differentiation. Plays an essential role in regulation of B-cell differentiation, proliferation and maturation to an effector state. Involved in regulating BCL2 expression and controlling apoptosis in T-cells in an IL2-dependent manner.

DNA-binding protein that binds to the 5'GGGAATRCC-3' Ikaros- binding sequence. Transcriptional repressor. Interacts with SPI1 and MITF to repress transcription of the CTSK and ACP5 promoters via recruitment of corepressors SIN3A and CTBP2. May be involved in the development of central and peripheral nervous systems. Essential for the inhibitory function of regulatory T-cells (Treg). Mediates FOXP3- mediated gene silencing in regulatory T-cells (Treg) via recruitment of corepressor CTBP1 (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor that binds the core 5'GNNTGTNG-3' DNA consensus sequence. Involved in megakaryocyte differentiation.

Major immune regulatory cytokine that acts on many cells of the immune system where it has profound anti-inflammatory functions, limiting excessive tissue disruption caused by inflammation. Mechanistically, IL10 binds to its heterotetrameric receptor comprising IL10RA and IL10RB leading to JAK1 and STAT2-mediated phosphorylation of STAT3. In turn, STAT3 translocates to the nucleus where it drives expression of anti-inflammatory mediators. Targets antigen-presenting cells (APCs) such as macrophages and monocytes and inhibits their release of pro- inflammatory cytokines including granulocyte-macrophage colony- stimulating factor /GM-CSF, granulocyte colony-stimulating factor/G- CSF, IL-1 alpha, IL-1 beta, IL-6, IL-8 and TNF-alpha. Interferes also with antigen presentation by reducing the expression of MHC-class II and co- stimulatory molecules, thereby inhibiting their ability to induce T cell activation. In addition, controls the inflammatory response of macrophages by reprogramming essential metabolic pathways including mTOR signaling (By similarity).

Cytokine that stimulates the proliferation of hematopoietic stem cells and megakaryocyte progenitor cells and induces megakaryocyte maturation resulting in increased platelet production. Also promotes the proliferation of hepatocytes in response to liver damage. Binding to its receptor formed by IL6ST and IL11RA activates a signaling cascade that promotes cell proliferation. Signaling leads to the activation of intracellular protein kinases and the phosphorylation of STAT3. The interaction with the membrane-bound IL11RA and IL6ST stimulates 'classic signaling', whereas the binding of IL11 and soluble IL11RA to IL6ST stimulates 'trans-signaling'.

Cytokine that can act as a growth factor for activated T and NK cells, enhance the lytic activity of NK/lymphokine-activated killer cells, and stimulate the production of IFN-gamma by resting PBMC.

Cytokine that plays important roles in allergic inflammation and immune response to parasite infection. Synergizes with IL2 in regulating interferon-gamma synthesis. Stimulates B-cell proliferation, and activation of eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. Plays an important role in controlling IL33 activity by modulating the production of transmembrane and soluble forms of interleukin-1 receptor-like 1/IL1RL1 (By similarity). Displays the capacity to antagonize Th1-driven proinflammatory immune response and downregulates synthesis of many proinflammatory cytokines including IL1, IL6, IL10, IL12 and TNF-alpha through a mechanism that partially involves suppression of NF-kappa-B (By similarity). Functions also on nonhematopoietic cells, including endothelial cells where it induces vascular cell adhesion protein 1/VCAM1, which is important in the recruitment of eosinophils. Exerts its biological effects through its receptors which comprises the IL4R chain and the IL13RA1 chain, to activate JAK1 and TYK2, leading to the activation of STAT6. Aside from IL13RA1, another receptor IL13RA2 acts as a high affinity decoy for IL13 and mediates internalization and depletion of extracellular IL13.

Cytokine that plays a major role in the development of inflammatory and protective immune responses to microbial invaders and parasites by modulating immune cells of both the innate and adaptive immune systems. Stimulates the proliferation of natural killer cells, T-cells and B-cells and promotes the secretion of several cytokines. In monocytes, induces the production of IL8 and monocyte chemotactic protein 1/CCL2, two chemokines that attract neutrophils and monocytes respectively to sites of infection. Unlike most cytokines, which are secreted in soluble form, IL15 is expressed in association with its high affinity IL15RA on the surface of IL15-producing cells and delivers signals to target cells that express IL2RB and IL2RG receptor subunits. Binding to its receptor triggers the phosphorylation of JAK1 and JAK3 and the recruitment and subsequent phosphorylation of signal transducer and activator of transcription-3/STAT3 and STAT5. In mast cells, induces the rapid tyrosine phosphorylation of STAT6 and thereby controls mast cell survival and release of cytokines such as IL4 (By similarity).

Interleukin-16 stimulates a migratory response in CD4+ lymphocytes, monocytes, and eosinophils. Primes CD4+ T-cells for IL-2 and IL-15 responsiveness. Also induces T-lymphocyte expression of interleukin 2 receptor. Ligand for CD4

Stimulates the release of tumor necrosis factor alpha and IL- 1-beta from the monocytic cell line THP-1

Cytokine that plays a crucial role in innate immunity of the epithelium, including to intestinal bacterial pathogens, in an autocrine manner. Stimulates the production of antibacterial peptides and pro-inflammatory molecules for host defense by signaling through the NF-kappa-B and MAPK pathways. Acts synergically with IL22 in inducing the expression of antibacterial peptides, including S100A8, S100A9, REG3A and REG3G. Synergy is also observed with TNF and IL1B in inducing DEFB2 from keratinocytes. Depending on the type of insult, may have both protective and pathogenic properties, either by maintaining epithelial homeostasis after an inflammatory challenge or by promoting inflammatory phenotype. Enhanced IL17C/IL17RE signaling may also lead to greater susceptibility to autoimmune diseases.

Induces expression of IL6, CXCL8/IL8, and CSF2/GM-CSF from endothelial cells.

Effector cytokine of innate and adaptive immune system involved in antimicrobial host defense and maintenance of tissue integrity. IL17A-IL17F signals via IL17RA-IL17RC heterodimeric receptor complex, triggering homotypic interaction of IL17RA and IL17RC chains with TRAF3IP2 adapter through SEFIR domains. This leads to downstream TRAF6-mediated activation of NF-kappa-B and MAPkinase pathways ultimately resulting in transcriptional activation of cytokines, chemokines, antimicrobial peptides and matrix metalloproteinases, with potential strong immune inflammation. IL17A-IL17F is primarily involved in host defense against extracellular bacteria and fungi by inducing neutrophilic inflammation (By similarity). As signature effector cytokine of T-helper 17 cells (Th17), primarily induces neutrophil activation and recruitment at infection and inflammatory sites (By similarity). Stimulates the production of antimicrobial beta-defensins DEFB1, DEFB103A, and DEFB104A by mucosal epithelial cells, limiting the entry of microbes through the epithelial barriers (By similarity). IL17F homodimer can signal via IL17RC homodimeric receptor complex, triggering downstream activation of TRAF6 and NF-kappa-B signaling pathway. Via IL17RC induces transcriptional activation of IL33, a potent cytokine that stimulates group 2 innate lymphoid cells and adaptive T-helper 2 cells involved in pulmonary allergic response to fungi. Likely via IL17RC, promotes sympathetic innervation of peripheral organs by coordinating the communication between gamma-delta T cells and parenchymal cells. Stimulates sympathetic innervation of thermogenic adipose tissue by driving TGFB1 expression (By similarity). Regulates the composition of intestinal microbiota and immune tolerance by inducing antimicrobial proteins that specifically control the growth of commensal Firmicutes and Bacteroidetes (By similarity).

Effector cytokine of innate and adaptive immune system involved in antimicrobial host defense and maintenance of tissue integrity. Signals via IL17RA-IL17RC heterodimeric receptor complex, triggering homotypic interaction of IL17RA and IL17RC chains with TRAF3IP2 adapter. This leads to downstream TRAF6-mediated activation of NF-kappa-B and MAPkinase pathways ultimately resulting in transcriptional activation of cytokines, chemokines, antimicrobial peptides and matrix metalloproteinases, with potential strong immune inflammation. Plays an important role in connecting T cell-mediated adaptive immunity and acute inflammatory response to destroy extracellular bacteria and fungi. As a signature effector cytokine of T-helper 17 cells (Th17), primarily induces neutrophil activation and recruitment at infection and inflammatory sites (By similarity). In airway epithelium, mediates neutrophil chemotaxis via induction of CXCL1 and CXCL5 chemokines (By similarity). In secondary lymphoid organs, contributes to germinal center formation by regulating the chemotactic response of B cells to CXCL12 and CXCL13, enhancing retention of B cells within the germinal centers, B cell somatic hypermutation rate and selection toward plasma cells (By similarity). Effector cytokine of a subset of gamma-delta T cells that functions as part of an inflammatory circuit downstream IL1B, TLR2 and IL23A-IL12B to promote neutrophil recruitment for efficient bacterial clearance (By similarity). Effector cytokine of innate immune cells including invariant natural killer cell (iNKT) and group 3 innate lymphoid cells that mediate initial neutrophilic inflammation (By similarity). Involved in the maintenance of the integrity of epithelial barriers during homeostasis and pathogen infection. Upon acute injury, has a direct role in epithelial barrier formation by regulating OCLN localization and tight junction biogenesis (By similarity). As part of the mucosal immune response induced by commensal bacteria, enhances host's ability to resist pathogenic bacterial and fungal infections by promoting neutrophil recruitment and antimicrobial peptides release (By similarity). In synergy with IL17F, mediates the production of antimicrobial beta-defensins DEFB1, DEFB103A, and DEFB104A by mucosal epithelial cells, limiting the entry of microbes through the epithelial barriers (By similarity). Involved in antiviral host defense through various mechanisms (By similarity). Enhances immunity against West Nile virus by promoting T cell cytotoxicity (By similarity). May play a beneficial role in influenza A virus (H5N1) infection by enhancing B cell recruitment and immune response in the lung (By similarity). Contributes to influenza A virus (H1N1) clearance by driving the differentiation of B-1a B cells, providing for production of virus- specific IgM antibodies at first line of host defense (By similarity).

Within the IL18 receptor complex, responsible for the binding of the pro-inflammatory cytokine IL18, but not IL1A nor IL1B. Involved in IL18-mediated IFNG synthesis from T-helper 1 (Th1) cells. Contributes to IL18-induced cytokine production, either independently of SLC12A3, or as a complex with SLC12A3 (By similarity).

Pro-inflammatory cytokine primarily involved in epithelial barrier repair, polarized T-helper 1 (Th1) cell and natural killer (NK) cell immune responses. Upon binding to IL18R1 and IL18RAP, forms a signaling ternary complex which activates NF-kappa-B, triggering synthesis of inflammatory mediators. Synergizes with IL12/interleukin-12 to induce IFNG synthesis from T-helper 1 (Th1) cells and natural killer (NK) cells. Involved in transduction of inflammation downstream of pyroptosis: its mature form is specifically released in the extracellular milieu by passing through the gasdermin-D (GSDMD) pore.

Cytokine that functions as an anti-inflammatory and proangiogenic factor. Polarizes adaptive immunity to an anti-inflammatory phenotype through induction of T-helper 2 responses by both down-regulation of IFN-gamma and up-regulation of IL4 and IL13. Produced by osteocytes, stimulates granulopoiesis and neutrophil formation (By similarity). Exerts its biological effect through a receptor complex consisting of a heterodimer of IL20RA and IL20RB. In turn, activates the Janus kinase (JAK) and signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT) pathway, and importantly, STAT3.

Coreceptor for IL1RL2 in the IL-36 signaling system (By similarity). Coreceptor with IL1R1 in the IL-1 signaling system. Associates with IL1R1 bound to IL1B to form the high affinity interleukin-1 receptor complex which mediates interleukin-1-dependent activation of NF-kappa-B and other pathways. Signaling involves the recruitment of adapter molecules such as TOLLIP, MYD88, and IRAK1 or IRAK2 via the respective TIR domains of the receptor/coreceptor subunits. Recruits TOLLIP to the signaling complex. Does not bind to interleukin-1 alone; binding of IL1RN to IL1R1, prevents its association with IL1R1 to form a signaling complex. The cellular response is modulated through a non-signaling association with the membrane IL1R2 decoy receptor. Coreceptor for IL1RL1 in the IL-33 signaling system. Can bidirectionally induce pre- and postsynaptic differentiation of neurons by trans-synaptically binding to PTPRD (By similarity). May play a role in IL1B-mediated costimulation of IFNG production from T-helper 1 (Th1) cells (Probable).

Cytokine constitutively present intracellularly in nearly all resting non-hematopoietic cells that plays an important role in inflammation and bridges the innate and adaptive immune systems. After binding to its receptor IL1R1 together with its accessory protein IL1RAP, forms the high affinity interleukin-1 receptor complex (PubMed:2950091,PubMed:17507369). Signaling involves the recruitment of adapter molecules such as MYD88, IRAK1 or IRAK4. In turn, mediates the activation of NF-kappa-B and the three MAPK pathways p38, p42/p44 and JNK pathways. Within the cell, acts as an alarmin and cell death results in its liberation in the extracellular space after disruption of the cell membrane to induce inflammation and alert the host to injury or damage. In addition to its role as a danger signal, which occurs when the cytokine is passively released by cell necrosis, directly senses DNA damage and acts as signal for genotoxic stress without loss of cell integrity.

Potent pro-inflammatory cytokine. Initially discovered as the major endogenous pyrogen, induces prostaglandin synthesis, neutrophil influx and activation, T-cell activation and cytokine production, B-cell activation and antibody production, and fibroblast proliferation and collagen production. Promotes Th17 differentiation of T-cells. Synergizes with IL12/interleukin-12 to induce IFNG synthesis from T-helper 1 (Th1) cells. Plays a role in angiogenesis by inducing VEGF production synergistically with TNF and IL6. Involved in transduction of inflammation downstream of pyroptosis: its mature form is specifically released in the extracellular milieu by passing through the gasdermin-D (GSDMD) pore. Acts as a sensor of S.pyogenes infection in skin: cleaved and activated by pyogenes SpeB protease, leading to an inflammatory response that prevents bacterial growth during invasive skin infection.

Cytokine with immunomodulatory activity. Alone, does not induce cytokine production, but reduces IL22 and IL17A production by T- cells in response to heat-killed Candida albicans. Reduces IL36G- induced production of IL8 by peripheral blood mononuclear cells. Increases IL6 production by dendritic cells stimulated by bacterial lipopolysaccharides (LPS). Ligand for IL-36R/IL1RL2.

Receptor for IL1A, IL1B and IL1RN. After binding to interleukin-1 associates with the coreceptor IL1RAP to form the high affinity interleukin-1 receptor complex which mediates interleukin-1-dependent activation of NF-kappa-B, MAPK and other pathways. Signaling involves the recruitment of adapter molecules such as TOLLIP, MYD88, and IRAK1 or IRAK2 via the respective TIR domains of the receptor/coreceptor subunits. Binds ligands with comparable affinity and binding of antagonist IL1RN prevents association with IL1RAP to form a signaling complex. Involved in IL1B-mediated costimulation of IFNG production from T-helper 1 (Th1) cells.

Non-signaling receptor for IL1A, IL1B and IL1RN. Reduces IL1B activities. Serves as a decoy receptor by competitive binding to IL1B and preventing its binding to IL1R1. Also modulates cellular response through non-signaling association with IL1RAP after binding to IL1B. IL1R2 (membrane and secreted forms) preferentially binds IL1B and poorly IL1A and IL1RN. The secreted IL1R2 recruits secreted IL1RAP with high affinity; this complex formation may be the dominant mechanism for neutralization of IL1B by secreted/soluble receptors.

Anti-inflammatory antagonist of interleukin-1 family of proinflammatory cytokines such as interleukin-1beta/IL1B and interleukin-1alpha/IL1A. Protects from immune dysregulation and uncontrolled systemic inflammation triggered by IL1 for a range of innate stimulatory agents such as pathogens.

Pro-inflammatory and angiogenic cytokine mainly secreted by monocytes and skin keratinocytes that plays crucial roles in immune responses, regulation of inflammatory responses, hemopoiesis, as well as epidermal cell and keratinocyte differentiation. Enhances tissue remodeling and wound-healing activities and restores the homeostasis of epithelial layers during infection and inflammatory responses to maintain tissue integrity. Affects multiple actin-mediated functions in activated neutrophils leading to inhibition of phagocytosis, granule exocytosis, and migration. Exert its effects via the type I IL-20 receptor complex consisting of IL20RA and IL20RB. Alternatively, can mediate its activity through a second receptor complex called type II IL-20 receptor complex composed of IL22RA1 and IL20RB. Acts as an arteriogenic and vascular remodeling factory by activating a range of signaling processes including phosphorylations of JAK2 and STAT5 as well as activation of the serine and threonine kinases AKT and ERK1/2 (By similarity). Alternatively, can activate STAT3 phosphorylation and transcriptional activity in a JAK2, ERK1/2 and p38 MAPK-dependent manner in keratinocytes.

Cytokine with immunoregulatory activity. May promote the transition between innate and adaptive immunity. Induces the production of IgG(1) and IgG(3) in B-cells (By similarity). Implicated in the generation and maintenance of T follicular helper (Tfh) cells and the formation of germinal-centers. Together with IL6, control the early generation of Tfh cells and are critical for an effective antibody response to acute viral infection (By similarity). May play a role in proliferation and maturation of natural killer (NK) cells in synergy with IL15. May regulate proliferation of mature B- and T-cells in response to activating stimuli. In synergy with IL15 and IL18 stimulates interferon gamma production in T-cells and NK cells. During T-cell mediated immune response may inhibit dendritic cells (DC) activation and maturation (By similarity).

Cytokine that plays a critical role in modulating tissue responses during inflammation. Plays an essential role in the regeneration of epithelial cells to maintain barrier function after injury and for the prevention of further tissue damage. Unlike most of the cytokines, has no effect on immune cells. Signals through a heterodimeric receptor composed of two subunits, the specific receptor IL22RA1 which is present on non-immune cells in many organs and the shared subunit IL10RB. Ligation of IL22RA1 with IL22 induces activation of the tyrosine kinases JAK1 and TYK2, which in turn activates STAT3. In turn, promotes cell survival and proliferation through STAT3, ERK1/2 and PI3K/AKT pathways.

Associates with IL12B to form the pro-inflammatory cytokine IL-23 that plays different roles in innate and adaptive immunity. Released by antigen-presenting cells such as dendritic cells or macrophages, binds to a heterodimeric receptor complex composed of IL12RB1 and IL23R to activate JAK2 and TYK2 which then phosphorylate the receptor to form a docking site leading to the phosphorylation of STAT3 and STAT4. This process leads to activation of several pathways including p38 MAPK or NF-kappa-B and promotes the production of pro- inflammatory cytokines such as interleukin-17A/IL17A. In turn, participates in the early and effective intracellular bacterial clearance. Promotes the expansion and survival of T-helper 17 cells, a CD4-positive helper T-cell subset that produces IL-17, as well as other IL-17-producing cells.

Associates with IL12RB1 to form the interleukin-23 receptor. Binds IL23 and mediates T-cells, NK cells and possibly certain macrophage/myeloid cells stimulation probably through activation of the Jak-Stat signaling cascade. IL23 functions in innate and adaptive immunity and may participate in acute response to infection in peripheral tissues. IL23 may be responsible for autoimmune inflammatory diseases and be important for tumorigenesis.

Multifunctional cytokine mainly produced by T-cells that plays a regulatory role in immune response, tissue homeostasis, host defense, and oncogenesis. Possesses antiviral functions and induces the type I intereferon response during influenza infection. Signals through two receptor complexes IL20RA/IL20RB or IL20RB/IL22RA1. In turn, stimulates the JAK1-STAT3 and MAPK pathways and promotes the secretion of pro-inflammatory mediators including IL8 and MMP1. Intracellularly, maintains endoplasmic reticulum homeostasis by restricting the eIF2alpha-CHOP pathway- mediated stress signal (By similarity). In addition, acts as a quality control mechanism for the ubiquitin proteasome system by alerting the cell to proteasome dysfunction through activation of PKR/EIF2AK2 (By similarity).

May play a role in local mechanisms of mucosal immunity and seems to have a pro-inflammatory function. May play a role in inflammatory bowel disease. Activates STAT1 and STAT3, MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2), JUN and AKT. Induces expression of SOCS3, TNF-alpha and IL-8, secretion of IL-8 and IL-10 and surface expression of ICAM1. Decreases proliferation of intestinal epithelial cells. Is inhibited by heparin.

Associates with EBI3 to form the IL-27 interleukin, a heterodimeric cytokine which functions in innate immunity. IL-27 has pro- and anti-inflammatory properties, that can regulate T-helper cell development, suppress T-cell proliferation, stimulate cytotoxic T-cell activity, induce isotype switching in B-cells, and that has diverse effects on innate immune cells. Among its target cells are CD4 T-helper cells which can differentiate in type 1 effector cells (TH1), type 2 effector cells (TH2) and IL17 producing helper T-cells (TH17). It drives rapid clonal expansion of naive but not memory CD4 T-cells. It also strongly synergizes with IL-12 to trigger interferon-gamma/IFN- gamma production of naive CD4 T-cells, binds to the cytokine receptor WSX-1/TCCR which appears to be required but not sufficient for IL-27- mediated signal transduction. IL-27 potentiate the early phase of TH1 response and suppress TH2 and TH17 differentiation. It induces the differentiation of TH1 cells via two distinct pathways, p38 MAPK/TBX21- and ICAM1/ITGAL/ERK-dependent pathways. It also induces STAT1, STAT3, STAT4 and STAT5 phosphorylation and activates TBX21/T-Bet via STAT1 with resulting IL12RB2 up-regulation, an event crucial to TH1 cell commitment. It suppresses the expression of GATA3, the inhibitor TH1 cells development. In CD8 T-cells, it activates STATs as well as GZMB. IL-27 reveals to be a potent inhibitor of TH17 cell development and of IL-17 production. Indeed IL27 alone is also able to inhibit the production of IL17 by CD4 and CD8 T-cells. While IL-27 suppressed the development of pro-inflammatory Th17 cells via STAT1, it inhibits the development of anti-inflammatory inducible regulatory T-cells, iTreg, independently of STAT1. IL-27 has also an effect on cytokine production, it suppresses pro-inflammatory cytokine production such as IL2, IL4, IL5 and IL6 and activates suppressors of cytokine signaling such as SOCS1 and SOCS3. Apart from suppression of cytokine production, IL-27 also antagonizes the effects of some cytokines such as IL6 through direct effects on T-cells. Another important role of IL-27 is its antitumor activity as well as its antiangiogenic activity with activation of production of antiangiogenic chemokines such as IP- 10/CXCL10 and MIG/CXCL9. In vein endothelial cells, it induces IRF1/interferon regulatory factor 1 and increase the expression of MHC class II transactivator/CIITA with resulting up-regulation of major histocompatibility complex class II. IL-27 also demonstrates antiviral activity with inhibitory properties on HIV-1 replication.

Associates with IL27 to form the IL-27 interleukin, a heterodimeric cytokine which functions in innate immunity. IL-27 has pro- and anti-inflammatory properties, that can regulate T-helper cell development, suppress T-cell proliferation, stimulate cytotoxic T-cell activity, induce isotype switching in B-cells, and that has diverse effects on innate immune cells. Among its target cells are CD4 T-helper cells which can differentiate in type 1 effector cells (TH1), type 2 effector cells (TH2) and IL17 producing helper T-cells (TH17). It drives rapid clonal expansion of naive but not memory CD4 T-cells. It also strongly synergizes with IL-12 to trigger interferon-gamma/IFN- gamma production of naive CD4 T-cells, binds to the cytokine receptor WSX-1/TCCR. Another important role of IL-27 is its antitumor activity as well as its antiangiogenic activity with activation of production of antiangiogenic chemokines.

Receptor for interleukin-2. The receptor is involved in the regulation of immune tolerance by controlling regulatory T cells (TREGs) activity. TREGs suppress the activation and expansion of autoreactive T-cells.

Receptor for interleukin-2. This beta subunit is involved in receptor mediated endocytosis and transduces the mitogenic signals of IL2. Probably in association with IL15RA, involved in the stimulation of neutrophil phagocytosis by IL15.

Common subunit for the receptors for a variety of interleukins. Probably in association with IL15RA, involved in the stimulation of neutrophil phagocytosis by IL15.

Cytokine produced by activated CD4-positive helper T-cells and to a lesser extend activated CD8-positive T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells that plays pivotal roles in the immune response and tolerance. Binds to a receptor complex composed of either the high-affinity trimeric IL-2R (IL2RA/CD25, IL2RB/CD122 and IL2RG/CD132) or the low-affinity dimeric IL-2R (IL2RB and IL2RG). Interaction with the receptor leads to oligomerization and conformation changes in the IL-2R subunits resulting in downstream signaling starting with phosphorylation of JAK1 and JAK3. In turn, JAK1 and JAK3 phosphorylate the receptor to form a docking site leading to the phosphorylation of several substrates including STAT5. This process leads to activation of several pathways including STAT, phosphoinositide-3- kinase/PI3K and mitogen-activated protein kinase/MAPK pathways. Functions as a T-cell growth factor and can increase NK-cell cytolytic activity as well. Promotes strong proliferation of activated B-cells and subsequently immunoglobulin production. Plays a pivotal role in regulating the adaptive immune system by controlling the survival and proliferation of regulatory T-cells, which are required for the maintenance of immune tolerance. Moreover, participates in the differentiation and homeostasis of effector T-cell subsets, including Th1, Th2, Th17 as well as memory CD8-positive T-cells.

Associates with OSMR to form the interleukin-31 receptor which activates STAT3 and to a lower extent STAT1 and STAT5. May function in skin immunity. Mediates IL31-induced itch, probably in a manner dependent on cation channels TRPA1 and TRPV1 (By similarity). Positively regulates numbers and cycling status of immature subsets of myeloid progenitor cells in bone marrow in vivo and enhances myeloid progenitor cell survival in vitro (By similarity).

Activates STAT3 and possibly STAT1 and STAT5 through the IL31 heterodimeric receptor composed of IL31RA and OSMR. May function in skin immunity. Enhances myeloid progenitor cell survival in vitro (By similarity). Induces RETNLA and serum amyloid A protein expression in macrophages (By similarity).

Cytokine that may play a role in innate and adaptive immune responses. It induces various cytokines such as TNFA/TNF-alpha and IL8. It activates typical cytokine signal pathways of NF-kappa-B and p38 MAPK.

Cytokine that binds to and signals through the IL1RL1/ST2 receptor which in turn activates NF-kappa-B and MAPK signaling pathways in target cells. Involved in the maturation of Th2 cells inducing the secretion of T-helper type 2-associated cytokines. Also involved in activation of mast cells, basophils, eosinophils and natural killer cells. Acts as a chemoattractant for Th2 cells, and may function as an 'alarmin', that amplifies immune responses during tissue injury.

Cytokine that promotes the proliferation, survival and differentiation of monocytes and macrophages. Promotes the release of pro-inflammatory chemokines, and thereby plays an important role in innate immunity and in inflammatory processes. Plays an important role in the regulation of osteoclast proliferation and differentiation, and in the regulation of bone resorption. Signaling via CSF1R and its downstream effectors stimulates phosphorylation of MAPK1/ERK2 AND MAPK3/ERK1.

Cytokine that binds to and signals through the IL1RL2/IL-36R receptor which in turn activates NF-kappa-B and MAPK signaling pathways in target cells linked to a pro-inflammatory response. Part of the IL- 36 signaling system that is thought to be present in epithelial barriers and to take part in local inflammatory response; similar to the IL-1 system with which it shares the coreceptor IL1RAP. Seems to be involved in skin inflammatory response by acting on keratinocytes, dendritic cells and indirectly on T-cells to drive tissue infiltration, cell maturation and cell proliferation. In cultured keratinocytes induces the expression of macrophage, T-cell, and neutrophil chemokines, such as CCL3, CCL4, CCL5, CCL2, CCL17, CCL22, CL20, CCL5, CCL2, CCL17, CCL22, CXCL8, CCL20 and CXCL1, and the production of pro- inflammatory cytokines such as TNF-alpha, IL-8 and IL-6. In cultured monocytes up-regulates expression of IL-1A, IL-1B and IL-6. In myeloid dendritic cells involved in cell maturation by up-regulating surface expression of CD83, CD86 and HLA-DR. In monocyte-derived dendritic cells facilitates dendritic cell maturation and drives T-cell proliferation. May play a role in pro-inflammatory effects in the lung.

Cytokine that binds to and signals through the IL1RL2/IL-36R receptor which in turn activates NF-kappa-B and MAPK signaling pathways in target cells linked to a pro-inflammatory response. Part of the IL- 36 signaling system that is thought to be present in epithelial barriers and to take part in local inflammatory response; similar to the IL-1 system with which it shares the coreceptor IL1RAP. Stimulates production of interleukin-6 and interleukin-8 in synovial fibrobasts, articular chondrocytes and mature adipocytes. Induces expression of a number of antimicrobial peptides including beta-defensins 4 and 103 as well as a number of matrix metalloproteases. Seems to be involved in skin inflammatory response by acting on keratinocytes, dendritic cells and indirectly on T-cells to drive tissue infiltration, cell maturation and cell proliferation. In cultured keratinocytes induces the expression of macrophage, T-cell, and neutrophil chemokines, such as CCL3, CCL4, CCL5, CCL2, CCL17, CCL22, CL20, CCL5, CCL2, CCL17, CCL22, CXCL8, CCL20 and CXCL1, and the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines such as TNF-alpha, IL-8 and IL-6.

Cytokine that binds to and signals through the IL1RL2/IL-36R receptor which in turn activates NF-kappa-B and MAPK signaling pathways in target cells. Part of the IL-36 signaling system that is thought to be present in epithelial barriers and to take part in local inflammatory response; similar to the IL-1 system with which it shares the coreceptor IL1RAP. Seems to be involved in skin inflammatory response by acting on keratinocytes, dendritic cells and indirectly on T-cells to drive tissue infiltration, cell maturation and cell proliferation. In cultured keratinocytes induces the expression of macrophage, T-cell, and neutrophil chemokines, such as CCL3, CCL4, CCL5, CCL2, CCL17, CCL22, CL20, CCL5, CCL2, CCL17, CCL22, CXCL8, CCL20 and CXCL1; also stimulates its own expression and that of the prototypic cutaneous pro-inflammatory parameters TNF-alpha, S100A7/psoriasin and inducible NOS. May play a role in pro-inflammatory responses during particular neutrophilic airway inflammation: activates mitogen-activated protein kinases and NF-kappa B in primary lung fibroblasts, and stimulates the expression of IL-8 and CXCL3 and Th17 chemokine CCL20 in lung fibroblasts. May be involved in the innate immune response to fungal pathogens, such as Aspergillus fumigatus.

Immune regulatory cytokine that acts as a suppressor of innate inflammatory and immune responses involved in curbing excessive inflammation. Signaling can occur via two mechanisms, intracellularly through nuclear translocation with SMAD3 and extracellularly after secretion and binding to its receptor composed of IL18R1 and IL18RAP. Suppresses, or reduces, pro-inflammatory cytokine production, including IL1A and IL6, as well as CCL12, CSF1, CSF2, CXCL13, IL1B, IL23A and IL1RN, but spares anti-inflammatory cytokines. Inhibits dendritic cell activation.

Cell surface receptor for IL3 expressed on hematopoietic progenitor cells, monocytes and B-lymphocytes that controls the production and differentiation of hematopoietic progenitor cells into lineage-restricted cells. Ligand stimulation rapidly induces hetrodimerization with IL3RB, phosphorylation and enzyme activity of effector proteins such as JAK2 and PI3K that play a role in signaling cell proliferation and differentiation. Activation of JAK2 leads to STAT5-mediated transcriptional program (By similarity).

Cell surface receptor that plays a role in immune response and controls the production and differentiation of hematopoietic progenitor cells into lineage-restricted cells. Acts by forming an heterodimeric receptor through interaction with different partners such as IL3RA, IL5RA or CSF2RA. In turn, participates in various signaling pathways including interleukin-3, interleukin-5 and granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor/CSF2 pathways. In unstimulated conditions, interacts constitutively with JAK1 and ligand binding leads to JAK1 stimulation and subsequent activation of the JAK- STAT pathway.

Cytokine secreted predominantly by activated T-lymphocytes as well as mast cells and osteoblastic cells that controls the production and differentiation of hematopoietic progenitor cells into lineage- restricted cells. Stimulates also mature basophils, eosinophils, and monocytes to become functionally activated. In addition, plays an important role in neural cell proliferation and survival. Participates as well in bone homeostasis and inhibits osteoclast differentiation by preventing NF-kappa-B nuclear translocation and activation. Mechanistically, exerts its biological effects through a receptor composed of IL3RA subunit and a signal transducing subunit IL3RB. Receptor stimulation results in the rapid activation of JAK2 kinase activity leading to STAT5-mediated transcriptional program (By similarity). Alternatively, contributes to cell survival under oxidative stress in non- hematopoietic systems by activating pathways mediated by PI3K/AKT and ERK.

Probable B cell-associated cytokine that plays a role in the regulation of humoral immune responses. Involved in lymphocyte B cell development and immunoglobulin/IgA production.

Receptor for both interleukin 4 and interleukin 13. Couples to the JAK1/2/3-STAT6 pathway. The IL4 response is involved in promoting Th2 differentiation. The IL4/IL13 responses are involved in regulating IgE production and, chemokine and mucus production at sites of allergic inflammation. In certain cell types, can signal through activation of insulin receptor substrates, IRS1/IRS2.

Cytokine secreted primarily by mast cells, T-cells, eosinophils, and basophils that plays a role in regulating antibody production, hematopoiesis and inflammation, and the development of effector T-cell responses. Induces the expression of class II MHC molecules on resting B-cells. Enhances both secretion and cell surface expression of IgE and IgG1. Regulates also the expression of the low affinity Fc receptor for IgE (CD23) on both lymphocytes and monocytes. Positively regulates IL31RA expression in macrophages. Stimulates autophagy in dendritic cells by interfering with mTORC1 signaling and through the induction of RUFY4. In addition, plays a critical role in higher functions of the normal brain, such as memory and learning (By similarity). Upon binding to IL4, IL4R receptor dimerizes either with the common IL2R gamma chain/IL2RG to produce the type 1 signaling complex, located mainly on hematopoietic cells, or with the IL13RA1 to produce the type 2 complex, which is expressed also on nonhematopoietic cells. Engagement of both types of receptors initiates JAK3 and to a lower extend JAK1 phosphorylation leading to activation of the signal transducer and activator of transcription 6/STAT6.

Cell surface receptor that plays an important role in the survival, differentiation, and chemotaxis of eosinophils. Acts by forming an heterodimeric receptor with CSF2RB subunit and subsequently binding to interleukin-5. In unstimulated conditions, interacts constitutively with JAK2. Heterodimeric receptor activation leads to JAK2 stimulation and subsequent activation of the JAK-STAT pathway.

Homodimeric cytokine expressed predominantly by T-lymphocytes and NK cells that plays an important role in the survival, differentiation, and chemotaxis of eosinophils. Acts also on activated and resting B-cells to induce immunoglobulin production, growth, and differentiation (By similarity). Mechanistically, exerts its biological effects through a receptor composed of IL5RA subunit and the cytokine receptor common subunit beta/CSF2RB. Binding to the receptor leads to activation of various kinases including LYN, SYK and JAK2 and thereby propagates signals through the RAS-MAPK and JAK-STAT5 pathways respectively.

Part of the receptor for interleukin 6. Binds to IL6 with low affinity, but does not transduce a signal. Signal activation necessitate an association with IL6ST. Activation leads to the regulation of the immune response, acute-phase reactions and hematopoiesis. The interaction with membrane-bound IL6R and IL6ST stimulates 'classic signaling', the restricted expression of the IL6R limits classic IL6 signaling to only a few tissues such as the liver and some cells of the immune system. Whereas the binding of IL6 and soluble IL6R to IL6ST stimulates 'trans- signaling'. Alternatively, 'cluster signaling' occurs when membrane- bound IL6:IL6R complexes on transmitter cells activate IL6ST receptors on neighboring receiver cells (Probable).

Signal-transducing molecule. The receptor systems for IL6, LIF, OSM, CNTF, IL11, CTF1 and BSF3 can utilize IL6ST for initiating signal transmission. Binding of IL6 to IL6R induces IL6ST homodimerization and formation of a high-affinity receptor complex, which activates the intracellular JAK-MAPK and JAK-STAT3 signaling pathways. That causes phosphorylation of IL6ST tyrosine residues which in turn activates STAT3. In parallel, the IL6 signaling pathway induces the expression of two cytokine receptor signaling inhibitors, SOCS1 and SOCS3, which inhibit JAK and terminate the activity of the IL6 signaling pathway as a negative feedback loop (By similarity). Also activates the yes- associated protein 1 (YAP) and NOTCH pathways to control inflammation- induced epithelial regeneration, independently of STAT3 (By similarity). Acts as a receptor for the neuroprotective peptide humanin as part of a complex with IL27RA/WSX1 and CNTFR. Mediates signals which regulate immune response, hematopoiesis, pain control and bone metabolism (By similarity). Has a role in embryonic development (By similarity). Essential for survival of motor and sensory neurons and for differentiation of astrocytes (By similarity). Required for expression of TRPA1 in nociceptive neurons (By similarity). Required for the maintenance of PTH1R expression in the osteoblast lineage and for the stimulation of PTH-induced osteoblast differentiation (By similarity). Required for normal trabecular bone mass and cortical bone composition (By similarity).

Cytokine with a wide variety of biological functions in immunity, tissue regeneration, and metabolism. Binds to IL6R, then the complex associates to the signaling subunit IL6ST/gp130 to trigger the intracellular IL6-signaling pathway (Probable). The interaction with the membrane-bound IL6R and IL6ST stimulates 'classic signaling', whereas the binding of IL6 and soluble IL6R to IL6ST stimulates 'trans- signaling'. Alternatively, 'cluster signaling' occurs when membrane- bound IL6:IL6R complexes on transmitter cells activate IL6ST receptors on neighboring receiver cells (Probable).

Receptor for interleukin-7. Also acts as a receptor for thymic stromal lymphopoietin (TSLP)

Hematopoietic cytokine that plays an essential role in the development, expansion, and survival of naive and memory T-cells and B- cells thereby regulating the number of mature lymphocytes and maintaining lymphoid homeostasis. Mechanistically, exerts its biological effects through a receptor composed of IL7RA subunit and the cytokine receptor common subunit gamma/CSF2RG. Binding to the receptor leads to activation of various kinases including JAK1 or JAK3 depending on the cell type and subsequently propagation of signals through activation of several downstream signaling pathways including the PI3K/Akt/mTOR or the JAK-STAT5.

Chemotactic factor that mediates inflammatory response by attracting neutrophils, basophils, and T-cells to clear pathogens and protect the host from infection. Also plays an important role in neutrophil activation. Released in response to an inflammatory stimulus, exerts its effect by binding to the G-protein-coupled receptors CXCR1 and CXCR2, primarily found in neutrophils, monocytes and endothelial cells. G-protein heterotrimer (alpha, beta, gamma subunits) constitutively binds to CXCR1/CXCR2 receptor and activation by IL8 leads to beta and gamma subunits release from Galpha (GNAI2 in neutrophils) and activation of several downstream signaling pathways including PI3K and MAPK pathways.

Plays an important role in the immune response against parasites by acting as a receptor of IL9.

Multifunctional cytokine secreted mainly by T-helper 2 lymphocytes and also mast cells or NKT cells that plays important roles in the immune response against parasites. Affects intestinal epithelial permeability and adaptive immunity. In addition, induces the differentiation of specific T-cell subsets such as IL-17 producing helper T-cells (TH17) and also proliferation and differentiation of mast cells. Mechanistically, exerts its biological effects through a receptor composed of IL9R subunit and a signal transducing subunit IL2RG. Receptor stimulation results in the rapid activation of JAK1 and JAK3 kinase activities leading to STAT1, STAT3 and STAT5-mediated transcriptional programs. Induction of differentiation genes seems to be mediated by STAT1 alone, while protection of cells from apoptosis depends on STAT3 and STAT5.

Maintains epithelial barrier function by recruiting MARVELD2/tricellulin to tricellular tight junctions (tTJs). Crucial for normal hearing by maintaining the structural and functional integrity of tTJs, which are critical for the survival of auditory neurosensory HCs. Mediates fatty acids and lipoproteins-stimulated CCK/cholecystokinin secretion in the small intestine. In the inner ear, may regulate alternative pre-mRNA splicing via binding to TRA2A, TRA2B and SRSF1 (By similarity).

May be involved in ER stress pathways with effects on lipid homeostasis and insulin secretion. With ILDR1 and LSR, involved in the maintain of the epithelial barrier function through the recruitment of MARVELD2/tricellulin to tricellular tight junctions (By similarity). Also functions as a B7-like protein family member expressed on immune cells and inflamed tissue and with T-cell inhibitory activity. In the inner ear, may regulate alternative pre-mRNA splicing via binding to TRA2A, TRA2B and SRSF1 (By similarity).

Neutrophil serine protease inhibitor that plays an essential role in the regulation of the innate immune response, inflammation and cellular homeostasis. Acts primarily to protect the cell from proteases released in the cytoplasm during stress or infection. These proteases are important in killing microbes but when released from granules, these potent enzymes also destroy host proteins and contribute to mortality. Regulates the activity of the neutrophil proteases elastase, cathepsin G, proteinase-3, chymase, chymotrypsin, and kallikrein-3. Acts also as a potent intracellular inhibitor of GZMH by directly blocking its proteolytic activity. During inflammation, limits the activity of inflammatory caspases CASP1, CASP4 and CASP5 by suppressing their caspase-recruitment domain (CARD) oligomerization and enzymatic activation. When secreted, promotes the proliferation of beta-cells via its protease inhibitory function.

Chromatin-interacting protein that forms a stable heterodimer with interleukin enhancer-binding factor 3/ILF3 and plays a role in several biological processes including transcription, innate immunity or cell growth. Essential for the efficient reshuttling of ILF3 (isoform 1 and isoform 2) into the nucleus. Together with ILF3, forms an RNA-binding complex that is required for mitotic progression and cytokinesis by regulating the expression of a cluster of mitotic genes. Mechanistically, competes with STAU1/STAU2-mediated mRNA decay. Also plays a role in the inhibition of various viruses including Japanese encephalitis virus or enterovirus 71.

RNA-binding protein that plays an essential role in the biogenesis of circular RNAs (circRNAs) which are produced by back- splicing circularization of pre-mRNAs. Within the nucleus, promotes circRNAs processing by stabilizing the regulatory elements residing in the flanking introns of the circularized exons. Plays thereby a role in the back-splicing of a subset of circRNAs. As a consequence, participates in a wide range of transcriptional and post- transcriptional processes. Binds to poly-U elements and AU-rich elements (AREs) in the 3'-UTR of target mRNAs. Upon viral infection, ILF3 accumulates in the cytoplasm and participates in the innate antiviral response. Mechanistically, ILF3 becomes phosphorylated and activated by the double-stranded RNA-activated protein kinase/PKR which releases ILF3 from cellular mature circRNAs. In turn, unbound ILF3 molecules are able to interact with and thus inhibit viral mRNAs.

Protein phosphatase that may play a role in regulation of cell cycle progression via dephosphorylation of its substrates whose appropriate phosphorylation states might be crucial for cell proliferation. Selectively associates with integrin linked kinase (ILK), to modulate cell adhesion and growth factor signaling. Inhibits the ILK-GSK3B signaling axis and may play an important role in inhibiting oncogenic transformation.

Receptor-proximal protein kinase regulating integrin-mediated signal transduction. May act as a mediator of inside-out integrin signaling. Focal adhesion protein part of the complex ILK-PINCH. This complex is considered to be one of the convergence points of integrin- and growth factor-signaling pathway. Could be implicated in mediating cell architecture, adhesion to integrin substrates and anchorage-dependent growth in epithelial cells. Regulates cell motility by forming a complex with PARVB. Phosphorylates beta-1 and beta-3 integrin subunit on serine and threonine residues, but also AKT1 and GSK3B.

Receptor for interleukin-33 (IL-33); signaling requires association of the coreceptor IL1RAP. Its stimulation recruits MYD88, IRAK1, IRAK4, and TRAF6, followed by phosphorylation of MAPK3/ERK1 and/or MAPK1/ERK2, MAPK14, and MAPK8. Possibly involved in helper T- cell function.

Receptor for interleukin-36 (IL36A, IL36B and IL36G). After binding to interleukin-36 associates with the coreceptor IL1RAP to form the interleukin-36 receptor complex which mediates interleukin-36- dependent activation of NF-kappa-B, MAPK and other pathways (By similarity). The IL-36 signaling system is thought to be present in epithelial barriers and to take part in local inflammatory response; it is similar to the IL-1 system. Seems to be involved in skin inflammatory response by induction of the IL-23/IL-17/IL-22 pathway.

Negative regulator of innate antiviral response. Blocks IRF3- dependent cytokine production such as IFNA, IFNB and TNF. Interacts with IRF3 and inhibits IRF3 recruitment to type I IFN promoter sequences while also reducing nuclear levels of the coactivators EP300 and CREBBP.

Functions in nuclear protein import as an adapter protein for nuclear receptor KPNB1. Binds specifically and directly to substrates containing either a simple or bipartite NLS motif. Docking of the importin/substrate complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) is mediated by KPNB1 through binding to nucleoporin FxFG repeats and the complex is subsequently translocated through the pore by an energy requiring, Ran-dependent mechanism. At the nucleoplasmic side of the NPC, Ran binds to importin-beta and the three components separate and importin-alpha and -beta are re-exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where GTP hydrolysis releases Ran from importin. The directionality of nuclear import is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus

Functions in nuclear protein import as an adapter protein for nuclear receptor KPNB1. Binds specifically and directly to substrates containing either a simple or bipartite NLS motif. Docking of the importin/substrate complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) is mediated by KPNB1 through binding to nucleoporin FxFG repeats and the complex is subsequently translocated through the pore by an energy requiring, Ran-dependent mechanism. At the nucleoplasmic side of the NPC, Ran binds to importin-beta and the three components separate and importin-alpha and -beta are re-exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where GTP hydrolysis releases Ran from importin. The directionality of nuclear import is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus. In vitro, mediates the nuclear import of human cytomegalovirus UL84 by recognizing a non-classical NLS. In vitro, mediates the nuclear import of human cytomegalovirus UL84 by recognizing a non-classical NLS

Functions in nuclear protein import as an adapter protein for nuclear receptor KPNB1. Binds specifically and directly to substrates containing either a simple or bipartite NLS motif. Docking of the importin/substrate complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) is mediated by KPNB1 through binding to nucleoporin FxFG repeats and the complex is subsequently translocated through the pore by an energy requiring, Ran-dependent mechanism. At the nucleoplasmic side of the NPC, Ran binds to importin-beta and the three components separate and importin-alpha and -beta are re-exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where GTP hydrolysis releases Ran from importin. The directionality of nuclear import is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus. In vitro, mediates the nuclear import of human cytomegalovirus UL84 by recognizing a non-classical NLS. Recognizes NLSs of influenza A virus nucleoprotein probably through ARM repeats 7-9

Functions in nuclear protein import as an adapter protein for nuclear receptor KPNB1. Binds specifically and directly to substrates containing either a simple or bipartite NLS motif. Docking of the importin/substrate complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) is mediated by KPNB1 through binding to nucleoporin FxFG repeats and the complex is subsequently translocated through the pore by an energy requiring, Ran-dependent mechanism. At the nucleoplasmic side of the NPC, Ran binds to importin-beta and the three components separate and importin-alpha and -beta are re-exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where GTP hydrolysis releases Ran from importin. The directionality of nuclear import is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus. In vitro, mediates the nuclear import of human cytomegalovirus UL84 by recognizing a non-classical NLS

Functions in nuclear protein import as an adapter protein for nuclear receptor KPNB1. Binds specifically and directly to substrates containing either a simple or bipartite NLS motif. Docking of the importin/substrate complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) is mediated by KPNB1 through binding to nucleoporin FxFG repeats and the complex is subsequently translocated through the pore by an energy requiring, Ran-dependent mechanism. At the nucleoplasmic side of the NPC, Ran binds to importin-beta and the three components separate and importin-alpha and -beta are re-exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where GTP hydrolysis releases Ran from importin. The directionality of nuclear import is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus. Mediates nuclear import of STAT1 homodimers and STAT1/STAT2 heterodimers by recognizing non-classical NLSs of STAT1 and STAT2 through ARM repeats 8-9. Recognizes influenza A virus nucleoprotein through ARM repeat 7-9 In vitro, mediates the nuclear import of human cytomegalovirus UL84 by recognizing a non-classical NLS

Functions in nuclear protein import as an adapter protein for nuclear receptor KPNB1. Binds specifically and directly to substrates containing either a simple or bipartite NLS motif. Docking of the importin/substrate complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) is mediated by KPNB1 through binding to nucleoporin FxFG repeats and the complex is subsequently translocated through the pore by an energy requiring, Ran-dependent mechanism. At the nucleoplasmic side of the NPC, Ran binds to importin-beta and the three components separate and importin-alpha and -beta are re-exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where GTP hydrolysis releases Ran from importin. The directionality of nuclear import is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus.

Functions in nuclear protein import, either in association with an adapter protein, like an importin-alpha subunit, which binds to nuclear localization signals (NLS) in cargo substrates, or by acting as autonomous nuclear transport receptor. Acting autonomously, serves itself as NLS receptor. Docking of the importin/substrate complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) is mediated by KPNB1 through binding to nucleoporin FxFG repeats and the complex is subsequently translocated through the pore by an energy requiring, Ran-dependent mechanism. At the nucleoplasmic side of the NPC, Ran binds to importin-beta and the three components separate and importin-alpha and -beta are re-exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where GTP hydrolysis releases Ran from importin. The directionality of nuclear import is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus. Mediates autonomously the nuclear import of ribosomal proteins RPL23A, RPS7 and RPL5. In association with IPO7, mediates the nuclear import of H1 histone. In vitro, mediates nuclear import of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 histones. In case of HIV-1 infection, binds and mediates the nuclear import of HIV-1 Rev. Imports SNAI1 and PRKCI into the nucleus.

Catalyzes the conversion of inosine 5'-phosphate (IMP) to xanthosine 5'-phosphate (XMP), the first committed and rate-limiting step in the de novo synthesis of guanine nucleotides, and therefore plays an important role in the regulation of cell growth. Could also have a single-stranded nucleic acid-binding activity and could play a role in RNA and/or DNA metabolism. It may also have a role in the development of malignancy and the growth progression of some tumors

Catalyzes the conversion of inosine 5'-phosphate (IMP) to xanthosine 5'-phosphate (XMP), the first committed and rate-limiting step in the de novo synthesis of guanine nucleotides, and therefore plays an important role in the regulation of cell growth. Could also have a single-stranded nucleic acid-binding activity and could play a role in RNA and/or DNA metabolism. It may also have a role in the development of malignancy and the growth progression of some tumors.

Catalyzes the removal of transit peptides required for the targeting of proteins from the mitochondrial matrix, across the inner membrane, into the inter-membrane space. Known to process the nuclear encoded protein DIABLO.

Component of the 60-80S U3 small nucleolar ribonucleoprotein (U3 snoRNP). Required for the early cleavages during pre-18S ribosomal RNA processing.

Responsible for the provision of inositol required for synthesis of phosphatidylinositol and polyphosphoinositides and has been implicated as the pharmacological target for lithium action in brain. Has broad substrate specificity and can use myo-inositol monophosphates, myo-inositol 1,3-diphosphate, myo-inositol 1,4- diphosphate, scyllo-inositol-phosphate, D-galactose 1-phosphate, glucose-1-phosphate, glucose-6-phosphate, fructose-1-phosphate, beta- glycerophosphate, and 2'-AMP as substrates.

Can use myo-inositol monophosphates, scylloinositol 1,4- diphosphate, glucose-1-phosphate, beta-glycerophosphate, and 2'-AMP as substrates. Has been implicated as the pharmacological target for lithium Li(+) action in brain.

Exhibits 3'-nucleotidase activity toward adenosine 3',5'- bisphosphate (PAP), namely hydrolyzes adenosine 3',5'-bisphosphate into adenosine 5'-monophosphate (AMP) and a phosphate. May play a role in the formation of skeletal elements derived through endochondral ossification, possibly by clearing adenosine 3',5'-bisphosphate produced by Golgi sulfotransferases during glycosaminoglycan sulfation. Has no activity toward 3'-phosphoadenosine 5'-phosphosulfate (PAPS) or inositol phosphate (IP) substrates including I(1)P, I(1,4)P2, I(1,3,4)P3, I(1,4,5)P3 and I(1,3,4,5)P4.

Translational regulator that ensures constant high levels of translation upon a variety of stress conditions, such as amino acid starvation, UV-C irradiation, proteasome inhibitor treatment and glucose deprivation. Plays a role as a negative regulator of the EIF2AK4/GCN2 kinase activity; impairs GCN1-mediated EIF2AK4/GCN2 activation, and hence EIF2AK4/GCN2-mediated eIF-2-alpha phosphorylation and subsequent down-regulation of protein synthesis. May be required to regulate translation in specific neuronal cells under amino acid starvation conditions by preventing GCN2 activation and therefore ATF4 synthesis. Through its inhibitory action on EIF2AK4/GCN2, plays a role in differentiation of neuronal cells by stimulating neurite outgrowth.

Chondroitin sulfate-, heparin- and hyaluronan-binding protein (By similarity). May serve to form a basic macromolecular scaffold comprising the insoluble interphotoreceptor matrix.

Chondroitin sulfate- and hyaluronan-binding proteoglycan involved in the organization of interphotoreceptor matrix; may participate in the maturation and maintenance of the light-sensitive photoreceptor outer segment. Binds heparin.

Acts as a signaling pathway regulator involved in innate immune system response. In response to interferon IFN-alpha, associates in a complex with signaling pathway regulator NMI to regulate immune response; the complex formation prevents proteasome-mediated degradation of IFI35 and correlates with IFI35 dephosphorylation. In complex with NMI, inhibits virus-triggered type I interferon/IFN-beta production. In complex with NMI, negatively regulates nuclear factor NF-kappa-B signaling by inhibiting the nuclear translocation, activation and transcription of the NF-kappa-B subunit p65/RELA, resulting in the inhibition of endothelial cell proliferation, migration and re-endothelialization of injured arteries. Beside its role as an intracellular signaling pathway regulator, also functions extracellularly as damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) to promote inflammation when actively released by macrophage to the extracellular space during cell injury and pathogen invasion. Macrophage-secreted IFI35 activates NF-kappa-B signaling in adjacent macrophages through Toll- like receptor 4/TLR4 activation, thereby inducing NF-kappa-B translocation from the cytoplasm into the nucleus which promotes the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines.

Induces growth and cell cycle arrests at the G1 phase of the cell cycle.

Proposed core component of the chromatin remodeling INO80 complex which is involved in transcriptional regulation, DNA replication and probably DNA repair

Putative regulatory component of the chromatin remodeling INO80 complex which is involved in transcriptional regulation, DNA replication and probably DNA repair

Together with IFNAR2, forms the heterodimeric receptor for type I interferons (including interferons alpha, beta, epsilon, omega and kappa). Type I interferon binding activates the JAK-STAT signaling cascade, resulting in transcriptional activation or repression of interferon- regulated genes that encode the effectors of the interferon response. Mechanistically, type I interferon-binding brings the IFNAR1 and IFNAR2 subunits into close proximity with one another, driving their associated Janus kinases (JAKs) (TYK2 bound to IFNAR1 and JAK1 bound to IFNAR2) to cross-phosphorylate one another. The activated kinases phosphorylate specific tyrosine residues on the intracellular domains of IFNAR1 and IFNAR2, forming docking sites for the STAT transcription factors. STAT proteins are then phosphorylated by the JAKs, promoting their translocation into the nucleus to regulate expression of interferon-regulated genes. Can also act independently of IFNAR2: form an active IFNB1 receptor by itself and activate a signaling cascade that does not involve activation of the JAK-STAT pathway (By similarity).

Together with IFNAR1, forms the heterodimeric receptor for type I interferons (including interferons alpha, beta, epsilon, omega and kappa). Type I interferon binding activates the JAK-STAT signaling cascade, resulting in transcriptional activation or repression of interferon- regulated genes that encode the effectors of the interferon response. Mechanistically, type I interferon-binding brings the IFNAR1 and IFNAR2 subunits into close proximity with one another, driving their associated Janus kinases (JAKs) (TYK2 bound to IFNAR1 and JAK1 bound to IFNAR2) to cross-phosphorylate one another. The activated kinases phosphorylate specific tyrosine residues on the intracellular domains of IFNAR1 and IFNAR2, forming docking sites for the STAT transcription factors (STAT1, STAT2 and STAT). STAT proteins are then phosphorylated by the JAKs, promoting their translocation into the nucleus to regulate expression of interferon-regulated genes.

Expressed in peripheral macrophages and intestinal myeloid- derived cells, is required for optimal PRR (pattern recognition receptor)-induced signaling, cytokine secretion, and bacterial clearance. Upon stimulation of a broad range of PRRs (pattern recognition receptor) such as NOD2 or TLR2, TLR3, TLR4, TLR5, TLR7 and TLR9, associates with YWHAQ/14-3-3T, which in turn leads to the recruitment and activation of MAP kinases and NF-kappa-B signaling complexes that amplifies PRR-induced downstream signals and cytokine secretion. In the intestine, regulates adherens junction stability by regulating the degradation of CYTH1 and CYTH2, probably acting as substrate cofactor for SCF E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes. Stabilizes adherens junctions by limiting CYTH1- dependent ARF6 activation.

Binds to CDK2-bound cyclins and inhibits the kinase activity of CDK2; binding to cyclins is critical for its function as CDK inhibitor. Inhibits cell growth and cell proliferation and may play a role in cell cycle control (By similarity). Required for ING5-mediated regulation of S-phase progression, enhancement of Fas-induced apoptosis and inhibition of cell growth (By similarity).

Component of the chromosomal passenger complex (CPC), a complex that acts as a key regulator of mitosis. The CPC complex has essential functions at the centromere in ensuring correct chromosome alignment and segregation and is required for chromatin-induced microtubule stabilization and spindle assembly. Acts as a scaffold regulating CPC localization and activity. The C-terminus associates with AURKB or AURKC, the N-terminus associated with BIRC5/survivin and CDCA8/borealin tethers the CPC to the inner centromere, and the microtubule binding activity within the central SAH domain directs AURKB/C toward substrates near microtubules. The flexibility of the SAH domain is proposed to allow AURKB/C to follow substrates on dynamic microtubules while ensuring CPC docking to static chromatin (By similarity). Activates AURKB and AURKC. Required for localization of CBX5 to mitotic centromeres. Controls the kinetochore localization of BUB1.

Severs actin filaments and accelerates their polymerization and depolymerization.

Cooperates with p53/TP53 in the negative regulatory pathway of cell growth by modulating p53-dependent transcriptional activation. Implicated as a tumor suppressor gene.

Seems to be involved in p53/TP53 activation and p53/TP53- dependent apoptotic pathways, probably by enhancing acetylation of p53/TP53. Component of a mSin3A-like corepressor complex, which is probably involved in deacetylation of nucleosomal histones. ING2 activity seems to be modulated by binding to phosphoinositides (PtdInsPs).

Component of the NuA4 histone acetyltransferase (HAT) complex which is involved in transcriptional activation of select genes principally by acetylation of nucleosomal histones H4 and H2A. This modification may both alter nucleosome - DNA interactions and promote interaction of the modified histones with other proteins which positively regulate transcription. This complex may be required for the activation of transcriptional programs associated with oncogene and proto-oncogene mediated growth induction, tumor suppressor mediated growth arrest and replicative senescence, apoptosis, and DNA repair. NuA4 may also play a direct role in DNA repair when directly recruited to sites of DNA damage. Component of a SWR1-like complex that specifically mediates the removal of histone H2A.Z/H2AZ1 from the nucleosome.

Component of HBO1 complexes, which specifically mediate acetylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-14' (H3K14ac), and have reduced activity toward histone H4. Through chromatin acetylation it may function in DNA replication. May inhibit tumor progression by modulating the transcriptional output of signaling pathways which regulate cell proliferation. Can suppress brain tumor angiogenesis through transcriptional repression of RELA/NFKB3 target genes when complexed with RELA. May also specifically suppress loss of contact inhibition elicited by activated oncogenes such as MYC. Represses hypoxia inducible factor's (HIF) activity by interacting with HIF prolyl hydroxylase 2 (EGLN1). Can enhance apoptosis induced by serum starvation in mammary epithelial cell line HC11 (By similarity).

Component of the HBO1 complex, which specifically mediates acetylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-14' (H3K14ac) and, to a lower extent, acetylation of histone H4. Component of the MOZ/MORF complex which has a histone H3 acetyltransferase activity. Through chromatin acetylation it may regulate DNA replication and may function as a transcriptional coactivator. Inhibits cell growth, induces a delay in S-phase progression and enhances Fas-induced apoptosis in an INCA1-dependent manner.

Receptor subunit for interferon gamma/INFG that plays crucial roles in antimicrobial, antiviral, and antitumor responses by activating effector immune cells and enhancing antigen presentation. Associates with transmembrane accessory factor IFNGR2 to form a functional receptor. Upon ligand binding, the intracellular domain of IFNGR1 opens out to allow association of downstream signaling components JAK1 and JAK2. In turn, activated JAK1 phosphorylates IFNGR1 to form a docking site for STAT1. Subsequent phosphorylation of STAT1 leads to dimerization, translocation to the nucleus, and stimulation of target gene transcription. STAT3 can also be activated in a similar manner although activation seems weaker. IFNGR1 intracellular domain phosphorylation also provides a docking site for SOCS1 that regulates the JAK-STAT pathway by competing with STAT1 binding to IFNGR1 (By similarity).

Associates with IFNGR1 to form a receptor for the cytokine interferon gamma (IFNG) (PubMed:8124716, PubMed:7673114,PubMed:7615558). Ligand binding stimulates activation of the JAK/STAT signaling pathway. Required for signal transduction in contrast to other receptor subunit responsible for ligand binding.

Inhibins and activins inhibit and activate, respectively, the secretion of follitropin by the pituitary gland. Inhibins/activins are involved in regulating a number of diverse functions such as hypothalamic and pituitary hormone secretion, gonadal hormone secretion, germ cell development and maturation, erythroid differentiation, insulin secretion, nerve cell survival, embryonic axial development or bone growth, depending on their subunit composition. Inhibins appear to oppose the functions of activins

Inhibitor of the serine/threonine-protein kinase PAK4. Acts by binding PAK4 in a substrate-like manner, inhibiting the protein kinase activity.

The IFNLR1/IL10RB dimer is a receptor for the cytokine ligands IFNL2 and IFNL3 and mediates their antiviral activity. The ligand/receptor complex stimulate the activation of the JAK/STAT signaling pathway leading to the expression of IFN-stimulated genes (ISG), which contribute to the antiviral state. Determines the cell type specificity of the lambda interferon action. Shows a more restricted pattern of expression in the epithelial tissues thereby limiting responses to lambda interferons primarily to epithelial cells of the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and reproductive tracts. Seems not to be essential for early virus-activated host defense in vaginal infection, but plays an important role in Toll-like receptor (TLR)- induced antiviral defense. Plays a significant role in the antiviral immune defense in the intestinal epithelium.

Functions as thioether S-methyltransferase and is active with a variety of thioethers and the corresponding selenium and tellurium compounds, including 3-methylthiopropionaldehyde, dimethyl selenide, dimethyl telluride, 2-methylthioethylamine, 2-methylthioethanol, methyl-n-propyl sulfide and diethyl sulfide. Plays an important role in the detoxification of selenium compounds (By similarity). Catalyzes the N-methylation of tryptamine and structurally related compounds.

Key enzyme in myo-inositol biosynthesis pathway that catalyzes the conversion of glucose 6-phosphate to 1-myo-inositol 1- phosphate in a NAD-dependent manner. Rate-limiting enzyme in the synthesis of all inositol-containing compounds.

ATPase component of the chromatin remodeling INO80 complex which is involved in transcriptional regulation, DNA replication and DNA repair. Binds DNA. As part of the INO80 complex, remodels chromatin by shifting nucleosomes. Regulates transcription upon recruitment by YY1 to YY1-activated genes, where it acts as an essential coactivator. Involved in UV- damage excision DNA repair. The contribution to DNA double-strand break repair appears to be largely indirect through transcriptional regulation. Involved in DNA replication. Required for microtubule assembly during mitosis thereby regulating chromosome segregation cycle.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of the 4-position phosphate of phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4)P2). Catalyzes also inositol 1,3,4-trisphosphate and inositol 1,4-bisphosphate (By similarity). Antagonizes the PI3K-AKT/PKB signaling pathway by dephosphorylating phosphoinositides and thereby modulating cell cycle progression and cell survival (By similarity). May protect neurons from excitotoxic cell death by regulating the synaptic localization of cell surface N-methyl-D- aspartate-type glutamate receptors (NMDARs) and NMDAR-mediated excitatory postsynaptic current (By similarity).

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of the 4-position phosphate of phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate, inositol 1,3,4-trisphosphate and inositol 3,4-trisphosphate. Plays a role in the late stages of macropinocytosis by dephosphorylating phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate in membrane ruffles. The lipid phosphatase activity is critical for tumor suppressor function. Antagonizes the PI3K-AKT/PKB signaling pathway by dephosphorylating phosphoinositides and thereby modulating cell cycle progression and cell survival.

Phosphatidylinositol (PtdIns) phosphatase that specifically hydrolyzes the 5-phosphate of phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4,5)P3), phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2) and phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,5)P2) (By similarity). Specific for lipid substrates, inactive towards water soluble inositol phosphates. Plays an essential role in the primary cilium by controlling ciliary growth and phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) signaling and stability (By similarity).

Inositol 5-phosphatase which acts on inositol 1,4,5- trisphosphate, inositol 1,3,4,5-tetrakisphosphate, phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate and phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate. Has 6-fold higher affinity for phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate than for inositol 1,4,5- trisphosphate. Negatively regulates assembly of the actin cytoskeleton. Controls insulin-dependent glucose uptake among inositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate phosphatases; therefore, is the specific regulator for insulin signaling in skeletal muscle (By similarity).

Mg(2+)-dependent phosphatase that catalyzes the hydrolysis of the 1-position phosphate from inositol 1,4-bisphosphate and inositol 1,3,4-trisphosphate and participates in inositol phosphate metabolism.

May function as an adapter linking the Par3 complex to the GPSM1/GPSM2 complex. Involved in spindle orientation during mitosis. May regulate cell proliferation and differentiation in the developing nervous system. May play a role in the asymmetric division of fibroblasts and participate in the process of stratification of the squamous epithelium (By similarity).

Oxysterol-binding protein that mediates feedback control of cholesterol synthesis by controlling both endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi transport of SCAP and degradation of HMGCR. Acts as a negative regulator of cholesterol biosynthesis by mediating the retention of the SCAP-SREBP complex in the endoplasmic reticulum, thereby blocking the processing of sterol regulatory element-binding proteins (SREBPs) SREBF1/SREBP1 and SREBF2/SREBP2. Binds oxysterol, including 25-hydroxycholesterol, regulating interaction with SCAP and retention of the SCAP-SREBP complex in the endoplasmic reticulum. In presence of oxysterol, interacts with SCAP, retaining the SCAP-SREBP complex in the endoplasmic reticulum, thereby preventing SCAP from escorting SREBF1/SREBP1 and SREBF2/SREBP2 to the Golgi. Sterol deprivation or phosphorylation by PCK1 reduce oxysterol-binding, disrupting the interaction between INSIG1 and SCAP, thereby promoting Golgi transport of the SCAP-SREBP complex, followed by processing and nuclear translocation of SREBF1/SREBP1 and SREBF2/SREBP2. Also regulates cholesterol synthesis by regulating degradation of HMGCR: initiates the sterol-mediated ubiquitin-mediated endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) of HMGCR via recruitment of the reductase to the ubiquitin ligases AMFR/gp78 and/or RNF139. Also regulates degradation of SOAT2/ACAT2 when the lipid levels are low: initiates the ubiquitin-mediated degradation of SOAT2/ACAT2 via recruitment of the ubiquitin ligases AMFR/gp78.

Oxysterol-binding protein that mediates feedback control of cholesterol synthesis by controlling both endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi transport of SCAP and degradation of HMGCR. Acts as a negative regulator of cholesterol biosynthesis by mediating the retention of the SCAP-SREBP complex in the endoplasmic reticulum, thereby blocking the processing of sterol regulatory element-binding proteins (SREBPs) SREBF1/SREBP1 and SREBF2/SREBP2. Binds oxysterol, including 22- hydroxycholesterol, 24-hydroxycholesterol, 25-hydroxycholesterol and 27-hydroxycholesterol, regulating interaction with SCAP and retention of the SCAP-SREBP complex in the endoplasmic reticulum. In presence of oxysterol, interacts with SCAP, retaining the SCAP-SREBP complex in the endoplasmic reticulum, thereby preventing SCAP from escorting SREBF1/SREBP1 and SREBF2/SREBP2 to the Golgi. Sterol deprivation or phosphorylation by PCK1 reduce oxysterol-binding, disrupting the interaction between INSIG2 and SCAP, thereby promoting Golgi transport of the SCAP-SREBP complex, followed by processing and nuclear translocation of SREBF1/SREBP1 and SREBF2/SREBP2. Also regulates cholesterol synthesis by regulating degradation of HMGCR: initiates the sterol-mediated ubiquitin-mediated endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) of HMGCR via recruitment of the reductase to the ubiquitin ligase RNF139.

Seems to play a role in testicular function. May be a trophic hormone with a role in testicular descent in fetal life. Is a ligand for LGR8 receptor

May play an important role in trophoblast development and in the regulation of bone formation

May have a role in gut contractility or in thymic development and regulation. Activates RXFP4 with high potency and appears to be the endogenous ligand for this receptor

Sequence-specific DNA-binding transcriptional regulator that plays a key role in neurogenesis and neuroendocrine cell differentiation during embryonic and/or fetal development. Binds to the consensus sequence 5'-[TG][TC][TC][TT][GA]GGG[CG]A-3' in target promoters. Acts as a transcriptional repressor of NEUROD1 and INS expression via its interaction with cyclin CCND1 in a cell cycle- independent manner. Negatively regulates skeletal muscle-specific gene expression in endocrine cells of the pituitary by inhibiting the Notch signaling pathway. Represses target gene transcription by recruiting chromatin-modifying factors, such as HDAC1, HDAC2, HDAC3, KDM1A and RCOR1 histone deacetylases. Binds to its own promoter, suggesting autoregulation as a self-control feedback mechanism. Competes with histone H3 for the same binding site on the histone demethylase complex formed by KDM1A and RCOR1, and thereby inhibits demethylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-4'. Promotes the generation and expansion of neuronal basal progenitor cells in the developing neocortex. Involved in the differentiation of endocrine cells of the developing anterior pituitary gland, of the pancreas and intestine, and of sympatho-adrenal cells in the peripheral nervous system. Promotes cell cycle signaling arrest and inhibition of cellular proliferation.

May function as a growth suppressor or tumor suppressor in liver cells and in certain neurons.

Receptor with tyrosine-protein kinase activity. Functions as a pH sensing receptor which is activated by increased extracellular pH. Activates an intracellular signaling pathway that involves IRS1 and AKT1/PKB.

Receptor tyrosine kinase which mediates the pleiotropic actions of insulin. Binding of insulin leads to phosphorylation of several intracellular substrates, including, insulin receptor substrates (IRS1, 2, 3, 4), SHC, GAB1, CBL and other signaling intermediates. Each of these phosphorylated proteins serve as docking proteins for other signaling proteins that contain Src-homology-2 domains (SH2 domain) that specifically recognize different phosphotyrosine residues, including the p85 regulatory subunit of PI3K and SHP2. Phosphorylation of IRSs proteins lead to the activation of two main signaling pathways: the PI3K-AKT/PKB pathway, which is responsible for most of the metabolic actions of insulin, and the Ras- MAPK pathway, which regulates expression of some genes and cooperates with the PI3K pathway to control cell growth and differentiation. Binding of the SH2 domains of PI3K to phosphotyrosines on IRS1 leads to the activation of PI3K and the generation of phosphatidylinositol-(3, 4, 5)-triphosphate (PIP3), a lipid second messenger, which activates several PIP3-dependent serine/threonine kinases, such as PDPK1 and subsequently AKT/PKB. The net effect of this pathway is to produce a translocation of the glucose transporter SLC2A4/GLUT4 from cytoplasmic vesicles to the cell membrane to facilitate glucose transport. Moreover, upon insulin stimulation, activated AKT/PKB is responsible for: anti-apoptotic effect of insulin by inducing phosphorylation of BAD; regulates the expression of gluconeogenic and lipogenic enzymes by controlling the activity of the winged helix or forkhead (FOX) class of transcription factors. Another pathway regulated by PI3K-AKT/PKB activation is mTORC1 signaling pathway which regulates cell growth and metabolism and integrates signals from insulin. AKT mediates insulin- stimulated protein synthesis by phosphorylating TSC2 thereby activating mTORC1 pathway. The Ras/RAF/MAP2K/MAPK pathway is mainly involved in mediating cell growth, survival and cellular differentiation of insulin. Phosphorylated IRS1 recruits GRB2/SOS complex, which triggers the activation of the Ras/RAF/MAP2K/MAPK pathway. In addition to binding insulin, the insulin receptor can bind insulin-like growth factors (IGFI and IGFII). Isoform Short has a higher affinity for IGFII binding. When present in a hybrid receptor with IGF1R, binds IGF1. PubMed:12138094 shows that hybrid receptors composed of IGF1R and INSR isoform Long are activated with a high affinity by IGF1, with low affinity by IGF2 and not significantly activated by insulin, and that hybrid receptors composed of IGF1R and INSR isoform Short are activated by IGF1, IGF2 and insulin. In contrast, PubMed:16831875 shows that hybrid receptors composed of IGF1R and INSR isoform Long and hybrid receptors composed of IGF1R and INSR isoform Short have similar binding characteristics, both bind IGF1 and have a low affinity for insulin. In adipocytes, inhibits lipolysis (By similarity).

Component of the protein machinery at the inhibitory synapses, probably acting as a scaffold. Inhibitory synapses dampen neuronal activity through postsynaptic hyperpolarization. This synaptic inhibition is fundamental for the functioning of the central nervous system, shaping and orchestrating the flow of information through neuronal networks to generate a precise neural code.

Insulin decreases blood glucose concentration. It increases cell permeability to monosaccharides, amino acids and fatty acids. It accelerates glycolysis, the pentose phosphate cycle, and glycogen synthesis in liver

Component of the Integrator (INT) complex, a complex involved in the small nuclear RNAs (snRNA) U1 and U2 transcription and in their 3'-box-dependent processing. The Integrator complex is associated with the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II largest subunit (POLR2A) and is recruited to the U1 and U2 snRNAs genes (Probable). May be not involved in the recruitment of cytoplasmic dynein to the nuclear envelope by different components of the INT complex.

Catalytic component of the Integrator (INT) complex, a complex involved in the small nuclear RNAs (snRNA) U1 and U2 transcription and in their 3'-box-dependent processing. The Integrator complex is associated with the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II largest subunit (POLR2A) and is recruited to the U1 and U2 snRNAs genes. Mediates the snRNAs 3' cleavage. Mediates recruitment of cytoplasmic dynein to the nuclear envelope, probably as component of the INT complex.

Component of the Integrator complex, a complex involved in the small nuclear RNAs (snRNA) U1 and U2 transcription and in their 3'- box-dependent processing. The Integrator complex is associated with the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II largest subunit (POLR2A) and is recruited to the U1 and U2 snRNAs genes. Mediates recruitment of cytoplasmic dynein to the nuclear envelope, probably as component of the INT complex.

Crucial regulator of the mitotic cell cycle and development. At prophase, required for dynein anchoring to the nuclear envelope important for proper centrosome-nucleus coupling. At G2/M phase, may be required for proper spindle formation and execution of cytokinesis. Probable component of the Integrator (INT) complex, a complex involved in the small nuclear RNAs (snRNA) U1 and U2 transcription and in their 3'-box-dependent processing.

Probable component of the Integrator (INT) complex, a complex involved in the small nuclear RNAs (snRNA) U1 and U2 transcription and in their 3'-box-dependent processing.

Component of the Integrator (INT) complex, a complex involved in the small nuclear RNAs (snRNA) U1 and U2 transcription and in their 3'-box-dependent processing. The Integrator complex is associated with the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II largest subunit (POLR2A) and is recruited to the U1 and U2 snRNAs genes (Probable). Mediates recruitment of cytoplasmic dynein to the nuclear envelope, probably as component of the INT complex.

Component of the Integrator (INT) complex. The Integrator complex is involved in the small nuclear RNAs (snRNA) U1 and U2 transcription and in their 3'-box-dependent processing. The Integrator complex is associated with the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II largest subunit (POLR2A) and is recruited to the U1 and U2 snRNAs genes (Probable). Mediates recruitment of cytoplasmic dynein to the nuclear envelope, probably as component of the INT complex.

Component of the Integrator (INT) complex, a complex involved in the small nuclear RNAs (snRNA) U1 and U2 transcription and in their 3'-box-dependent processing. The Integrator complex is associated with the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II largest subunit (POLR2A) and is recruited to the U1 and U2 snRNAs genes (Probable). Mediates recruitment of cytoplasmic dynein to the nuclear envelope, probably as component of the INT complex. May have a tumor suppressor role; an ectopic expression suppressing tumor cell growth.

Component of the Integrator (INT) complex, a complex involved in the small nuclear RNAs (snRNA) U1 and U2 transcription and in their 3'-box-dependent processing. The Integrator complex is associated with the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II largest subunit (POLR2A) and is recruited to the U1 and U2 snRNAs genes (Probable). Plays a role in DNA damage response (DDR) signaling during the S phase. May be not involved in the recruitment of cytoplasmic dynein to the nuclear envelope by different components of the INT complex.

Component of the Integrator complex, a complex involved in the small nuclear RNAs (snRNA) U1 and U2 transcription and in their 3'- box-dependent processing. The Integrator complex is associated with the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II largest subunit (POLR2A) and is recruited to the U1 and U2 snRNAs genes.

Plays a key role in ciliogenesis and embryonic development. Regulator of cilia formation by controlling the organization of the apical actin cytoskeleton and the positioning of the basal bodies at the apical cell surface, which in turn is essential for the normal orientation of elongating ciliary microtubules. Plays a key role in definition of cell polarity via its role in ciliogenesis but not via conversion extension. Has an indirect effect on hedgehog signaling (By similarity). Proposed to function as core component of the CPLANE (ciliogenesis and planar polarity effectors) complex involved in the recruitment of peripheral IFT-A proteins to basal bodies.

Part of the insoluble cornified cell envelope (CE) of stratified squamous epithelia

Required for normal renal development and establishment of left-right axis. Probably acts as a molecular switch between different Wnt signaling pathways. Inhibits the canonical Wnt pathway by targeting cytoplasmic disheveled (DVL1) for degradation by the ubiquitin- proteasome. This suggests that it is required in renal development to oppose the repression of terminal differentiation of tubular epithelial cells by Wnt signaling. Involved in the organization of apical junctions in kidney cells together with NPHP1, NPHP4 and RPGRIP1L/NPHP8 (By similarity). Does not seem to be strictly required for ciliogenesis (By similarity).

Responsible for the deiodination of T4 (3,5,3',5'- tetraiodothyronine) into T3 (3,5,3'-triiodothyronine) and of T3 into T2 (3,3'-diiodothyronine). Plays a role in providing a source of plasma T3 by deiodination of T4 in peripheral tissues such as liver and kidney.

Responsible for the deiodination of T4 (3,5,3',5'- tetraiodothyronine) into T3 (3,5,3'-triiodothyronine). Essential for providing the brain with appropriate levels of T3 during the critical period of development

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of 1D-myo-inositol 1,4,5- trisphosphate (InsP3) into 1D-myo-inositol 1,3,4,5-tetrakisphosphate and participates to the regulation of calcium homeostasis.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of 1D-myo-inositol 1,4,5- trisphosphate (InsP3) into 1D-myo-inositol 1,3,4,5-tetrakisphosphate and participates to the regulation of calcium homeostasis. Can phosphorylate inositol 2,4,5- triphosphate to inositol 2,4,5,6-tetraphosphate (By similarity).

Converts inositol hexakisphosphate (InsP6) to diphosphoinositol pentakisphosphate (InsP7/PP-InsP5). Converts 1,3,4,5,6-pentakisphosphate (InsP5) to PP-InsP4

Converts inositol hexakisphosphate (InsP6) to diphosphoinositol pentakisphosphate (InsP7/PP-InsP5).

Converts inositol hexakisphosphate (InsP6) to diphosphoinositol pentakisphosphate (InsP7/PP-InsP5). Converts 1,3,4,5,6-pentakisphosphate (InsP5) to PP-InsP4.

Extremely potent competitive inhibitor of cAMP-dependent protein kinase activity, this protein interacts with the catalytic subunit of the enzyme after the cAMP-induced dissociation of its regulatory chains

Extremely potent competitive inhibitor of cAMP-dependent protein kinase activity, this protein interacts with the catalytic subunit of the enzyme after the cAMP-induced dissociation of its regulatory chains.

Inositol phosphate kinase with a broad substrate specificity. Phosphorylates inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (Ins(1,4,5)P3) first to inositol 1,3,4,5-tetrakisphosphate and then to inositol 1,3,4,5,6-pentakisphosphate (Ins(1,3,4,5,6)P5). Phosphorylates inositol 1,3,4,6-tetrakisphosphate (Ins(1,3,4,6)P4). Phosphorylates glycero-3-phospho-1D-myo-inositol 4,5-bisphosphate to glycero-3-phospho-1D-myo-inositol 3,4,5- trisphosphate. Plays an important role in MLKL-mediated necroptosis via its role in the biosynthesis of inositol pentakisphosphate (InsP5) and inositol hexakisphosphate (InsP6). Binding of these highly phosphorylated inositol phosphates to MLKL mediates the release of an N-terminal auto-inhibitory region, leading to activation of the kinase. Essential for activated phospho- MLKL to oligomerize and localize to the cell membrane during necroptosis. Required for normal embryonic development, probably via its role in the biosynthesis of inositol 1,3,4,5,6-pentakisphosphate (Ins(1,3,4,5,6)P5) and inositol hexakisphosphate (InsP6) (By similarity).

Functions in nuclear protein import as nuclear transport receptor. Serves as receptor for nuclear localization signals (NLS) in cargo substrates. Is thought to mediate docking of the importin/substrate complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) through binding to nucleoporin and the complex is subsequently translocated through the pore by an energy requiring, Ran-dependent mechanism. At the nucleoplasmic side of the NPC, Ran binds to the importin, the importin/substrate complex dissociates and importin is re-exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where GTP hydrolysis releases Ran. The directionality of nuclear import is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus (By similarity). Mediates the nuclear import of UBE2E3, and of RPL12 (By similarity).

Functions in nuclear protein import as nuclear transport receptor. Serves as receptor for nuclear localization signals (NLS) in cargo substrates. Is thought to mediate docking of the importin/substrate complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) through binding to nucleoporin and the complex is subsequently translocated through the pore by an energy requiring, Ran-dependent mechanism. At the nucleoplasmic side of the NPC, Ran binds to the importin, the importin/substrate complex dissociates and importin is re-exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where GTP hydrolysis releases Ran. The directionality of nuclear import is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus (By similarity). Mediates the nuclear import of UBC9, the RBM8A/MAGOH complex, PAX6 and probably other members of the paired homeobox family. Also mediates nuclear export of eIF-1A, and the cytoplasmic release of eIF-1A is triggered by the loading of import substrates onto IPO13.

Nuclear transport receptor that mediates nuclear import of proteins, such as histones, RPS3A, TNP2 and VDR. Serves as receptor for nuclear localization signals (NLS) in cargo substrates. Is thought to mediate docking of the importin/substrate complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) through binding to nucleoporin and the complex is subsequently translocated through the pore by an energy requiring, Ran-dependent mechanism. At the nucleoplasmic side of the NPC, Ran binds to the importin, the importin/substrate complex dissociates and importin is re-exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where GTP hydrolysis releases Ran. The directionality of nuclear import is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus. Mediates the nuclear import of the histone H3-H4 dimer when in complex with ASF1 (ASF1A or ASF1B). Mediates the ligand- independent nuclear import of vitamin D receptor (VDR). In vitro, mediates the nuclear import of human cytomegalovirus UL84 by recognizing a non-classical NLS.

Functions in nuclear protein import as nuclear transport receptor. Serves as receptor for nuclear localization signals (NLS) in cargo substrates. Is thought to mediate docking of the importin/substrate complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) through binding to nucleoporin and the complex is subsequently translocated through the pore by an energy requiring, Ran-dependent mechanism. At the nucleoplasmic side of the NPC, Ran binds to the importin, the importin/substrate complex dissociates and importin is re-exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where GTP hydrolysis releases Ran. The directionality of nuclear import is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus (By similarity). Mediates the nuclear import of ribosomal proteins RPL23A, RPS7 and RPL5. In vitro, mediates nuclear import of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 histones. Binds to CPEB3 and mediates its nuclear import following neuronal stimulation (By similarity). In case of HIV-1 infection, binds and mediates the nuclear import of HIV-1 Rev.

Functions in nuclear protein import, either by acting as autonomous nuclear transport receptor or as an adapter-like protein in association with the importin-beta subunit KPNB1. Acting autonomously, is thought to serve itself as receptor for nuclear localization signals (NLS) and to promote translocation of import substrates through the nuclear pore complex (NPC) by an energy requiring, Ran-dependent mechanism. At the nucleoplasmic side of the NPC, Ran binds to importin, the importin/substrate complex dissociates and importin is re-exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where GTP hydrolysis releases Ran. The directionality of nuclear import is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus. Mediates autonomously the nuclear import of ribosomal proteins RPL23A, RPS7 and RPL5. In association with KPNB1 mediates the nuclear import of H1 histone and the Ran-binding site of IPO7 is not required but synergizes with that of KPNB1 in importin/substrate complex dissociation. In vitro, mediates nuclear import of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 histones.

Involved in nuclear protein import, either by acting as autonomous nuclear transport receptor or as an adapter-like protein in association with the importin-beta subunit KPNB1. Acting autonomously, may serve as receptor for nuclear localization signals (NLS) and promote translocation of import substrates through the nuclear pore complex (NPC) by an energy requiring, Ran-dependent mechanism. At the nucleoplasmic side of the NPC, Ran binds to importin, the importin/substrate complex dissociates and importin is re-exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where GTP hydrolysis releases Ran. The directionality of nuclear import is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus. In vitro mediates the nuclear import of the signal recognition particle protein SRP19. May also be involved in cytoplasm-to-nucleus shuttling of a broad spectrum of other cargos, including Argonaute- microRNAs complexes, the JUN protein, RELA/NF-kappa-B p65 subunit, the translation initiation factor EIF4E and a set of receptor-activated mothers against decapentaplegic homolog (SMAD) transcription factors that play a critical role downstream of the large family of transforming growth factor beta and bone morphogenetic protein (BMP) cytokines (Probable).

Nuclear transport receptor that mediates nuclear import of proteins, such as histones, proteasome and actin. Serves as receptor for nuclear localization signals (NLS) in cargo substrates. Is thought to mediate docking of the importin/substrate complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) through binding to nucleoporin and the complex is subsequently translocated through the pore by an energy requiring, Ran-dependent mechanism. At the nucleoplasmic side of the NPC, Ran binds to the importin, the importin/substrate complex dissociates and importin is re-exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where GTP hydrolysis releases Ran. The directionality of nuclear import is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus. Mediates the import of pre-assembled proteasomes into the nucleus; AKIRIN2 acts as a molecular bridge between IPO9 and the proteasome complex. Mediates the nuclear import of histones H2A, H2B, H4 and H4. In addition to nuclear import, also acts as a chaperone for histones by preventing inappropriate non-nucleosomal interactions. Mediates the nuclear import of actin (By similarity).

Functions as a protein phosphatase inhibitor. It inhibits activity of the catalytic subunit of PP1 and weakly inhibits the activity of myosin-associated phosphates.

Phosphorylates Ins(1,3,4,5,6)P5 at position 2 to form Ins(1,2,3,4,5,6)P6 (InsP6 or phytate). InsP6 is involved in many processes such as mRNA export, non-homologous end-joining, endocytosis, ion channel regulation. It also protects cells from TNF-alpha-induced apoptosis.

Enhances Ca(2+)-mediated inhibition of inositol 1,4,5- triphosphate receptor (ITPR) Ca(2+) release.

Heparin-dependent serine protease inhibitor acting in body fluids and secretions. Inactivates serine proteases by binding irreversibly to their serine activation site. Involved in the regulation of intravascular and extravascular proteolytic activities. Plays hemostatic roles in the blood plasma. Acts as a procoagulant and pro-inflammatory factor by inhibiting the anticoagulant activated protein C factor as well as the generation of activated protein C factor by the thrombin/thrombomodulin complex. Acts as an anticoagulant factor by inhibiting blood coagulation factors like prothrombin, factor XI, factor Xa, plasma kallikrein and fibrinolytic enzymes such as tissue- and urinary-type plasminogen activators. In seminal plasma, inactivates several serine proteases implicated in the reproductive system. Inhibits the serpin acrosin; indirectly protects component of the male genital tract from being degraded by excessive released acrosin. Inhibits tissue- and urinary-type plasminogen activator, prostate-specific antigen and kallikrein activities; has a control on the sperm motility and fertilization. Inhibits the activated protein C- catalyzed degradation of SEMG1 and SEMG2; regulates the degradation of semenogelin during the process of transfer of spermatozoa from the male reproductive tract into the female tract. In urine, inhibits urinary- type plasminogen activator and kallikrein activities. Inactivates membrane-anchored serine proteases activities such as MPRSS7 and TMPRSS11E. Inhibits urinary-type plasminogen activator-dependent tumor cell invasion and metastasis. May also play a non-inhibitory role in seminal plasma and urine as a hydrophobic hormone carrier by its binding to retinoic acid.

Hydrolyzes inorganic pyrophosphate. This activity is essential for correct regulation of mitochondrial membrane potential, and mitochondrial organization and function.

Involved in ciliogenesis. The function in an early step in cilia formation depends on its association with CEP290/NPHP6. Involved in regulation of the BBSome complex integrity, specifically for presence of BBS2 and BBS5 in the complex, and in ciliary targeting of selected BBSome cargos. May play a role in controlling entry of the BBSome complex to cilia possibly implicating CEP290/NPHP6.

Component of the EvC complex that positively regulates ciliary Hedgehog (Hh) signaling (By similarity). Required for proper limb morphogenesis.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor for ARF1 and ARF6. Guanine nucleotide exchange factor activity is enhanced by lipid binding. Accelerates GTP binding by ARFs of all three classes. Guanine nucleotide exchange protein for ARF6, mediating internalization of beta-1 integrin. Involved in neuronal development (Probable). In neurons, plays a role in the control of vesicle formation by endocytoc cargo. Upon long term depression, interacts with GRIA2 and mediates the activation of ARF6 to internalize synaptic AMPAR receptors (By similarity).

Is a guanine nucleotide exchange factor for the ARF GTP- binding proteins.

Plays a crucial role in regulating the dynamics and assembly of the actin cytoskeleton. Binds to activated CDC42 but does not stimulate its GTPase activity. It associates with calmodulin. Could serve as an assembly scaffold for the organization of a multimolecular complex that would interface incoming signals to the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton at the plasma membrane. May promote neurite outgrowth. May play a possible role in cell cycle regulation by contributing to cell cycle progression after DNA replication arrest.

Binds to activated CDC42 and RAC1 but does not seem to stimulate their GTPase activity. Associates with calmodulin

Regulator of endoplasmic reticulum secretion that acts as a key determinant of brain size. Required for secretion of extracellular matrix proteins. Required for correct brain development by depositing sufficient extracellular matrix proteins for tissue integrity and the proliferation of neural progenitors. Acts as a regulator of the unfolded protein response (UPR) (By similarity).

Plays a role as NO/PRKG1-dependent regulator of IP3-induced calcium release; its phosphorylation by PRKG1 inhibits bradykinin and IP3-induced calcium release from intracellular stores. Recruits PRKG1 to the endoplasmic reticulum and may mediate the assembly of PRKG1 and ITPR1 in a macrocomplex. Involved in PRKG1 signaling cascade leading to inhibition of platelet activation and aggregation. Mediates also NO- dependent inhibition of calcium signaling in gastrointestinal smooth muscle contributing to NO-dependent relaxation.

Plays a role in the delivery of peptides to major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules; this occurs in a transporter associated with antigen processing (TAP)-independent manner. May play a role in taste signal transduction via ITPR3. May play a role during fertilization in pronucleus congression and fusion. Plays a role in maintaining nuclear shape, maybe as a component of the LINC complex and through interaction with microtubules.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that plays a critical role in initiating innate immune response against foreign pathogens. Involved in Toll-like receptor (TLR) and IL-1R signaling pathways. Is rapidly recruited by MYD88 to the receptor-signaling complex upon TLR activation. Association with MYD88 leads to IRAK1 phosphorylation by IRAK4 and subsequent autophosphorylation and kinase activation. Phosphorylates E3 ubiquitin ligases Pellino proteins (PELI1, PELI2 and PELI3) to promote pellino-mediated polyubiquitination of IRAK1. Then, the ubiquitin-binding domain of IKBKG/NEMO binds to polyubiquitinated IRAK1 bringing together the IRAK1-MAP3K7/TAK1-TRAF6 complex and the NEMO-IKKA-IKKB complex. In turn, MAP3K7/TAK1 activates IKKs (CHUK/IKKA and IKBKB/IKKB) leading to NF-kappa-B nuclear translocation and activation. Alternatively, phosphorylates TIRAP to promote its ubiquitination and subsequent degradation. Phosphorylates the interferon regulatory factor 7 (IRF7) to induce its activation and translocation to the nucleus, resulting in transcriptional activation of type I IFN genes, which drive the cell in an antiviral state. When sumoylated, translocates to the nucleus and phosphorylates STAT3.

Binds to the IL-1 type I receptor following IL-1 engagement, triggering intracellular signaling cascades leading to transcriptional up-regulation and mRNA stabilization.

Putative inactive protein kinase which regulates signaling downstream of immune receptors including IL1R and Toll-like receptors. Inhibits dissociation of IRAK1 and IRAK4 from the Toll-like receptor signaling complex by either inhibiting the phosphorylation of IRAK1 and IRAK4 or stabilizing the receptor complex (By similarity). Upon IL33-induced lung inflammation, positively regulates expression of IL6, CSF3, CXCL2 and CCL5 mRNAs in dendritic cells.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that plays a critical role in initiating innate immune response against foreign pathogens. Involved in Toll-like receptor (TLR) and IL-1R signaling pathways. Is rapidly recruited by MYD88 to the receptor- signaling complex upon TLR activation to form the Myddosome together with IRAK2. Phosphorylates initially IRAK1, thus stimulating the kinase activity and intensive autophosphorylation of IRAK1. Phosphorylates E3 ubiquitin ligases Pellino proteins (PELI1, PELI2 and PELI3) to promote pellino-mediated polyubiquitination of IRAK1. Then, the ubiquitin- binding domain of IKBKG/NEMO binds to polyubiquitinated IRAK1 bringing together the IRAK1-MAP3K7/TAK1-TRAF6 complex and the NEMO-IKKA-IKKB complex. In turn, MAP3K7/TAK1 activates IKKs (CHUK/IKKA and IKBKB/IKKB) leading to NF-kappa-B nuclear translocation and activation. Alternatively, phosphorylates TIRAP to promote its ubiquitination and subsequent degradation. Phosphorylates NCF1 and regulates NADPH oxidase activation after LPS stimulation suggesting a similar mechanism during microbial infections.

RNA-binding protein that binds to iron-responsive elements (IRES), which are stem-loop structures found in the 5'-UTR of ferritin, and delta aminolevulinic acid synthase mRNAs, and in the 3'-UTR of transferrin receptor mRNA. Binding to the IRE element in ferritin results in the repression of its mRNA translation. Binding of the protein to the transferrin receptor mRNA inhibits the degradation of this otherwise rapidly degraded mRNA.

Transcriptional regulator which displays a remarkable functional diversity in the regulation of cellular responses. Regulates transcription of IFN and IFN-inducible genes, host response to viral and bacterial infections, regulation of many genes expressed during hematopoiesis, inflammation, immune responses and cell proliferation and differentiation, regulation of the cell cycle and induction of growth arrest and programmed cell death following DNA damage. Stimulates both innate and acquired immune responses through the activation of specific target genes and can act as a transcriptional activator and repressor regulating target genes by binding to an interferon-stimulated response element (ISRE) in their promoters. Competes with the transcriptional repressor ZBED2 for binding to a common consensus sequence in gene promoters. Its target genes for transcriptional activation activity include: genes involved in anti-viral response, such as IFN-alpha/beta, RIGI, TNFSF10/TRAIL, ZBP1, OAS1/2, PIAS1/GBP, EIF2AK2/PKR and RSAD2/viperin; antibacterial response, such as NOS2/INOS; anti-proliferative response, such as p53/TP53, LOX and CDKN1A; apoptosis, such as BBC3/PUMA, CASP1, CASP7 and CASP8; immune response, such as IL7, IL12A/B and IL15, PTGS2/COX2 and CYBB; DNA damage responses and DNA repair, such as POLQ/POLH; MHC class I expression, such as TAP1, PSMB9/LMP2, PSME1/PA28A, PSME2/PA28B and B2M and MHC class II expression, such as CIITA; metabolic enzymes, such as ACOD1/IRG1. Represses genes involved in anti-proliferative response, such as BIRC5/survivin, CCNB1, CCNE1, CDK1, CDK2 and CDK4 and in immune response, such as FOXP3, IL4, ANXA2 and TLR4. Stimulates p53/TP53-dependent transcription through enhanced recruitment of EP300 leading to increased acetylation of p53/TP53. Plays an important role in immune response directly affecting NK maturation and activity, macrophage production of IL12, Th1 development and maturation of CD8+ T-cells. Also implicated in the differentiation and maturation of dendritic cells and in the suppression of regulatory T (Treg) cells development. Acts as a tumor suppressor and plays a role not only in antagonism of tumor cell growth but also in stimulating an immune response against tumor cells.

Specifically binds to the upstream regulatory region of type I IFN and IFN-inducible MHC class I genes (the interferon consensus sequence (ICS)) and represses those genes. Also acts as an activator for several genes including H4 and IL7. Constitutively binds to the ISRE promoter to activate IL7. Involved in cell cycle regulation through binding the site II (HiNF-M) promoter region of H4 and activating transcription during cell growth. Antagonizes IRF1 transcriptional activation.

Key transcriptional regulator of type I interferon (IFN)- dependent immune responses which plays a critical role in the innate immune response against DNA and RNA viruses. Regulates the transcription of type I IFN genes (IFN-alpha and IFN- beta) and IFN-stimulated genes (ISG) by binding to an interferon- stimulated response element (ISRE) in their promoters. Acts as a more potent activator of the IFN-beta (IFNB) gene than the IFN-alpha (IFNA) gene and plays a critical role in both the early and late phases of the IFNA/B gene induction. Found in an inactive form in the cytoplasm of uninfected cells and following viral infection, double- stranded RNA (dsRNA), or toll-like receptor (TLR) signaling, is phosphorylated by IKBKE and TBK1 kinases. This induces a conformational change, leading to its dimerization and nuclear localization and association with CREB binding protein (CREBBP) to form dsRNA-activated factor 1 (DRAF1), a complex which activates the transcription of the type I IFN and ISG genes. Can activate distinct gene expression programs in macrophages and can induce significant apoptosis in primary macrophages. In response to Sendai virus infection, is recruited by TOMM70:HSP90AA1 to mitochondrion and forms an apoptosis complex TOMM70:HSP90AA1:IRF3:BAX inducing apoptosis. Key transcription factor regulating the IFN response during SARS-CoV-2 infection.

Transcriptional activator. Binds to the interferon-stimulated response element (ISRE) of the MHC class I promoter. Binds the immunoglobulin lambda light chain enhancer, together with PU.1. Probably plays a role in ISRE-targeted signal transduction mechanisms specific to lymphoid cells. Involved in CD8(+) dendritic cell differentiation by forming a complex with the BATF-JUNB heterodimer in immune cells, leading to recognition of AICE sequence (5'-TGAnTCA/GAAA- 3'), an immune-specific regulatory element, followed by cooperative binding of BATF and IRF4 and activation of genes (By similarity).

Transcription factor that plays a critical role in innate immunity by activating expression of type I interferon (IFN) IFNA and INFB and inflammatory cytokines downstream of endolysosomal toll-like receptors TLR7, TLR8 and TLR9. Regulates the transcription of type I IFN genes (IFN-alpha and IFN-beta) and IFN- stimulated genes (ISG) by binding to an interferon-stimulated response element (ISRE) in their promoters (By similarity). Can efficiently activate both the IFN-beta (IFNB) and the IFN-alpha (IFNA) genes and mediate their induction downstream of the TLR-activated, MyD88- dependent pathway (By similarity). Key transcription factor regulating the IFN response during SARS-CoV-2 infection.

Probable DNA-binding transcriptional activator. Key determinant of the keratinocyte proliferation-differentiation switch involved in appropriate epidermal development (By similarity). Plays a role in regulating mammary epithelial cell proliferation (By similarity). May regulate WDR65 transcription (By similarity).

Key transcriptional regulator of type I interferon (IFN)- dependent immune responses and plays a critical role in the innate immune response against DNA and RNA viruses. Regulates the transcription of type I IFN genes (IFN-alpha and IFN- beta) and IFN-stimulated genes (ISG) by binding to an interferon- stimulated response element (ISRE) in their promoters. Can efficiently activate both the IFN-beta (IFNB) and the IFN-alpha (IFNA) genes and mediate their induction via both the virus-activated, MyD88-independent pathway and the TLR-activated, MyD88-dependent pathway. Induces transcription of ubiquitin hydrolase USP25 mRNA in response to lipopolysaccharide (LPS) or viral infection in a type I IFN-dependent manner (By similarity). Required during both the early and late phases of the IFN gene induction but is more critical for the late than for the early phase. Exists in an inactive form in the cytoplasm of uninfected cells and following viral infection, double-stranded RNA (dsRNA), or toll-like receptor (TLR) signaling, becomes phosphorylated by IKBKE and TBK1 kinases. This induces a conformational change, leading to its dimerization and nuclear localization where along with other coactivators it can activate transcription of the type I IFN and ISG genes. Can also play a role in regulating adaptive immune responses by inducing PSMB9/LMP2 expression, either directly or through induction of IRF1. Binds to the Q promoter (Qp) of EBV nuclear antigen 1 a (EBNA1) and may play a role in the regulation of EBV latency. Can activate distinct gene expression programs in macrophages and regulate the anti-tumor properties of primary macrophages (By similarity).

Transcription factor that specifically binds to the upstream regulatory region of type I interferon (IFN) and IFN-inducible MHC class I genes (the interferon consensus sequence (ICS)). Can both act as a transcriptional activator or repressor (By similarity). Plays a negative regulatory role in cells of the immune system (By similarity). Involved in CD8(+) dendritic cell differentiation by forming a complex with the BATF-JUNB heterodimer in immune cells, leading to recognition of AICE sequence (5'-TGAnTCA/GAAA- 3'), an immune-specific regulatory element, followed by cooperative binding of BATF and IRF8 and activation of genes (By similarity). Required for the development of plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDCs), which produce most of the type I IFN in response to viral infection (By similarity). Positively regulates macroautophagy in dendritic cells.

Transcription factor that plays an essential role in anti- viral immunity. It mediates signaling by type I IFNs (IFN-alpha and IFN-beta). Following type I IFN binding to cell surface receptors, Jak kinases (TYK2 and JAK1) are activated, leading to tyrosine phosphorylation of STAT1 and STAT2. IRF9/ISGF3G associates with the phosphorylated STAT1:STAT2 dimer to form a complex termed ISGF3 transcription factor, that enters the nucleus. ISGF3 binds to the IFN stimulated response element (ISRE) to activate the transcription of interferon stimulated genes, which drive the cell in an antiviral state.

Cis-aconitate decarboxylase that catalyzes production of itaconate and is involved in the inhibition of the inflammatory response. Acts as a negative regulator of the Toll-like receptors (TLRs)-mediated inflammatory innate response by stimulating the tumor necrosis factor alpha-induced protein TNFAIP3 expression via reactive oxygen species (ROS) in LPS-tolerized macrophages. Involved in antimicrobial response of innate immune cells; ACOD1-mediated itaconic acid production contributes to the antimicrobial activity of macrophages by generating itaconate, leading to alkylation of proteins, such as TFEB. Involved in antiviral response following infection by flavivirus in neurons: ACOD1-mediated itaconate production inhibits the activity of succinate dehydrogenase, generating a metabolic state in neurons that suppresses replication of viral genomes (By similarity). Plays a role in the embryo implantation (By similarity).

Putative GTPase which is required for clearance of acute protozoan and bacterial infections. Functions in innate immune response probably through regulation of autophagy. May regulate pro-inflammatory cytokine production and prevent endotoxemia upon infection. May also play a role in macrophages adhesion and motility (By similarity).

May regulate secretion and presynaptic differentiation through inhibition of the activity of N-type voltage-gated calcium channel. May activate the MAP kinase JNK. Plays a role in neurite outgrowth (By similarity). During dendritic spine formation can bidirectionally induce pre- and post-synaptic differentiation of neurons by trans-synaptically binding to PTPRD (By similarity).

May mediate the control of various cellular processes by insulin. When phosphorylated by the insulin receptor binds specifically to various cellular proteins containing SH2 domains such as phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase p85 subunit or GRB2. Activates phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase when bound to the regulatory p85 subunit (By similarity).

May mediate the control of various cellular processes by insulin

Transcription factor involved in SHH-dependent neural patterning. Together with NKX2-2 and NKX6-1 acts to restrict the generation of motor neurons to the appropriate region of the neural tube. Belongs to the class I proteins of neuronal progenitor factors, which are repressed by SHH signals. Involved in the transcriptional repression of MNX1 in non-motor neuron cells. Acts as a regulator of energy metabolism.

Likely to be an important mediator of ventricular differentiation during cardiac development

Establishes the cardiac repolarization gradient by its repressive actions on the KCND2 potassium-channel gene. Required for retinal cone bipolar cell differentiation. May regulate contrast adaptation in the retina and control specific aspects of visual function in circuits of the mammalian retina (By similarity). Could be involved in the regulation of both the cell cycle and apoptosis in prostate cancer cells. Involved in craniofacial and gonadal development. Modulates the migration of progenitor cell populations in branchial arches and gonads by repressing CXCL12.

Involved in the maturation of mitochondrial 4Fe-4S proteins functioning late in the iron-sulfur cluster assembly pathway. Probably involved in the binding of an intermediate of Fe/S cluster assembly.

Involved in the maturation of mitochondrial 4Fe-4S proteins functioning late in the iron-sulfur cluster assembly pathway. May be involved in the binding of an intermediate of Fe/S cluster assembly.

[Isoform 1]: Mitochondrial scaffold protein, of the core iron-sulfur cluster (ISC) assembly complex, that provides the structural architecture on which the [2Fe-2S] clusters are assembled. The core iron-sulfur cluster (ISC) assembly complex is involved in the de novo synthesis of a [2Fe-2S] cluster, the first step of the mitochondrial iron-sulfur protein biogenesis. This process is initiated by the cysteine desulfurase complex (NFS1:LYRM4:NDUFAB1) that produces persulfide which is delivered on the scaffold protein ISCU in a FXN-dependent manner. Then this complex is stabilized by FDX2 which provides reducing equivalents to accomplish the [2Fe-2S] cluster assembly. Finally, the [2Fe-2S] cluster is transferred from ISCU to chaperone proteins, including HSCB, HSPA9 and GLRX5 (Probable). Exists as two slow interchanging conformational states, a structured (S) and disordered (D) form. May modulate NFS1 desulfurase activity in a zinc-dependent manner. Modulates the interaction between FXN and the cysteine desulfurase complex.

Ubiquitin-like protein which plays a key role in the innate immune response to viral infection either via its conjugation to a target protein (ISGylation) or via its action as a free or unconjugated protein. ISGylation involves a cascade of enzymatic reactions involving E1, E2, and E3 enzymes which catalyze the conjugation of ISG15 to a lysine residue in the target protein. Its target proteins include IFIT1, MX1/MxA, PPM1B, UBE2L6, UBA7, CHMP5, CHMP2A, CHMP4B and CHMP6. Isgylation of the viral sensor IFIH1/MDA5 promotes IFIH1/MDA5 oligomerization and triggers activation of innate immunity against a range of viruses, including coronaviruses, flaviviruses and picornaviruses. Can also isgylate: EIF2AK2/PKR which results in its activation, RIGI which inhibits its function in antiviral signaling response, EIF4E2 which enhances its cap structure- binding activity and translation-inhibition activity, UBE2N and UBE2E1 which negatively regulates their activity, IRF3 which inhibits its ubiquitination and degradation and FLNB which prevents its ability to interact with the upstream activators of the JNK cascade thereby inhibiting IFNA-induced JNK signaling. Exhibits antiviral activity towards both DNA and RNA viruses, including influenza A, HIV-1 and Ebola virus. Restricts HIV-1 and ebola virus via disruption of viral budding. Inhibits the ubiquitination of HIV-1 Gag and host TSG101 and disrupts their interaction, thereby preventing assembly and release of virions from infected cells. Inhibits Ebola virus budding mediated by the VP40 protein by disrupting ubiquitin ligase activity of NEDD4 and its ability to ubiquitinate VP40. ISGylates influenza A virus NS1 protein which causes a loss of function of the protein and the inhibition of virus replication. The secreted form of ISG15 can: induce natural killer cell proliferation, act as a chemotactic factor for neutrophils and act as a IFN-gamma-inducing cytokine playing an essential role in antimycobacterial immunity. The secreted form acts through the integrin ITGAL/ITGB2 receptor to initiate activation of SRC family tyrosine kinases including LYN, HCK and FGR which leads to secretion of IFNG and IL10; the interaction is mediated by ITGAL.

Interferon-induced antiviral exoribonuclease that acts on single-stranded RNA and also has minor activity towards single-stranded DNA. Exhibits antiviral activity against RNA viruses including hepatitis C virus (HCV), hepatitis A virus (HAV) and yellow fever virus (YFV) in an exonuclease-dependent manner. May also play additional roles in the maturation of snRNAs and rRNAs, and in ribosome biogenesis.

May be a serine protease inhibitor (By similarity). Essential for sperm maturation and fertility. Inhibits sperm acrosome reaction, protecting sperm from premature reaction (By similarity).

Serine protease inhibitor which exhibits anti-trypsin activity. In the pancreas, protects against trypsin- catalyzed premature activation of zymogens (By similarity).

Serine protease inhibitor, probably important for the anti- inflammatory and/or antimicrobial protection of mucous epithelia. Contribute to the integrity and protective barrier function of the skin by regulating the activity of defense-activating and desquamation- involved proteases. Inhibits KLK5, it's major target, in a pH-dependent manner. Inhibits KLK7, KLK14 CASP14, and trypsin.

Serine protease inhibitor selective for kallikreins. Efficiently inhibits KLK4, KLK5, KLK6, KLK7, KLK12, KLK13 and KLK14. Doesn't inhibit KLK8.

Serine protease inhibitor which specifically inhibits KLK5. May contribute to the regulation of the desquamation process in skin by inhibiting KLK5.

DNA-binding transcriptional activator. Recognizes and binds to the consensus octamer binding site 5'-ATAATTAA-3' in promoter of target genes. Plays a fundamental role in the gene regulatory network essential for retinal ganglion cell (RGC) differentiation. Cooperates with the transcription factor POU4F2 to achieve maximal levels of expression of RGC target genes and RGC fate specification in the developing retina. Involved in the specification of motor neurons in cooperation with LHX3 and LDB1 (By similarity). Binds to insulin gene enhancer sequences (By similarity). Essential for heart development. Marker of one progenitor cell population that give rise to the outflow tract, right ventricle, a subset of left ventricular cells, and a large number of atrial cells as well, its function is required for these progenitors to contribute to the heart. Controls the expression of FGF and BMP growth factors in this cell population and is required for proliferation and survival of cells within pharyngeal foregut endoderm and adjacent splanchnic mesoderm as well as for migration of cardiac progenitors into the heart (By similarity).

Transcriptional factor that defines subclasses of motoneurons that segregate into columns in the spinal cord and select distinct axon pathways.

Cytidylyltransferase required for protein O-linked mannosylation. Catalyzes the formation of CDP-ribitol nucleotide sugar from D-ribitol 5-phosphate. CDP-ribitol is a substrate of FKTN during the biosynthesis of the phosphorylated O- mannosyl trisaccharide (N-acetylgalactosamine-beta-3-N- acetylglucosamine-beta-4-(phosphate-6-)mannose), a carbohydrate structure present in alpha-dystroglycan (DAG1), which is required for binding laminin G-like domain-containing extracellular proteins with high affinity. Shows activity toward other pentose phosphate sugars and mediates formation of CDP-ribulose or CDP-ribose using CTP and ribulose-5- phosphate or ribose-5-phosphate, respectively. Not Involved in dolichol production.

ESCRT-III-like protein involved in cytokinesis, nuclear envelope reassembly and endosomal tubulation. Is required for efficient abscission during cytokinesis. Involved in recruiting VPS4A and/or VPS4B to the midbody of dividing cells. During late anaphase, involved in nuclear envelope reassembly and mitotic spindle disassembly together with the ESCRT-III complex: IST1 acts by mediating the recruitment of SPAST to the nuclear membrane, leading to microtubule severing. Recruited to the reforming nuclear envelope (NE) during anaphase by LEMD2. Regulates early endosomal tubulation together with the ESCRT-III complex by mediating the recruitment of SPAST.

Transcription factor that regulates gene expression in intestine. May participate in vitamin A metabolism most likely by regulating BCO1 expression in the intestine (By similarity).

Component of the spliceosome C complex required for the selective processing of microRNAs during embryonic stem cell differentiation (By similarity). Required for the biogenesis of all miRNAs from the pri-miR-17-92 primary transcript except miR-92a (By similarity). Only required for the biogenesis of miR-290 and miR-96 from the pri-miR-290-295 and pri-miR-96-183 primary transcripts, respectively (By similarity). Required during the transition of embryonic stem cells (ESCs) from the naive to primed state (By similarity). By enhancing miRNA biogenesis, promotes exit of ESCs from the naive state to an intermediate state of poised pluripotency, which precedes transition to the primed state (By similarity). Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome.

Integrin alpha-1/beta-1 is a receptor for laminin and collagen. It recognizes the proline-hydroxylated sequence G-F-P-G-E-R in collagen. Involved in anchorage-dependent, negative regulation of EGF-stimulated cell growth.

Integrin alpha-IIb/beta-3 is a receptor for fibronectin, fibrinogen, plasminogen, prothrombin, thrombospondin and vitronectin. It recognizes the sequence R-G-D in a wide array of ligands. It recognizes the sequence H-H-L-G-G-G-A-K-Q-A-G-D-V in fibrinogen gamma chain. Following activation integrin alpha-IIb/beta-3 brings about platelet/platelet interaction through binding of soluble fibrinogen. This step leads to rapid platelet aggregation which physically plugs ruptured endothelial cell surface

Integrin alpha-2/beta-1 is a receptor for laminin, collagen, collagen C-propeptides, fibronectin and E-cadherin. It recognizes the proline-hydroxylated sequence G-F-P-G-E-R in collagen. It is responsible for adhesion of platelets and other cells to collagens, modulation of collagen and collagenase gene expression, force generation and organization of newly synthesized extracellular matrix

Integrin alpha-3/beta-1 is a receptor for fibronectin, laminin, collagen, epiligrin, thrombospondin and CSPG4. Integrin alpha- 3/beta-1 provides a docking site for FAP (seprase) at invadopodia plasma membranes in a collagen-dependent manner and hence may participate in the adhesion, formation of invadopodia and matrix degradation processes, promoting cell invasion. Alpha-3/beta-1 may mediate with LGALS3 the stimulation by CSPG4 of endothelial cells migration.

Integrins alpha-4/beta-1 (VLA-4) and alpha-4/beta-7 are receptors for fibronectin. They recognize one or more domains within the alternatively spliced CS-1 and CS-5 regions of fibronectin. They are also receptors for VCAM1. Integrin alpha-4/beta-1 recognizes the sequence Q-I-D-S in VCAM1. Integrin alpha-4/beta-7 is also a receptor for MADCAM1. It recognizes the sequence L-D-T in MADCAM1. On activated endothelial cells integrin VLA-4 triggers homotypic aggregation for most VLA-4-positive leukocyte cell lines. It may also participate in cytolytic T-cell interactions with target cells. ITGA4:ITGB1 binds to fractalkine (CX3CL1) and may act as its coreceptor in CX3CR1-dependent fractalkine signaling. ITGA4:ITGB1 binds to PLA2G2A via a site (site 2) which is distinct from the classical ligand-binding site (site 1) and this induces integrin conformational changes and enhanced ligand binding to site 1.

Integrin alpha-5/beta-1 (ITGA5:ITGB1) is a receptor for fibronectin and fibrinogen. It recognizes the sequence R-G-D in its ligands. ITGA5:ITGB1 binds to PLA2G2A via a site (site 2) which is distinct from the classical ligand-binding site (site 1) and this induces integrin conformational changes and enhanced ligand binding to site 1. ITGA5:ITGB1 acts as a receptor for fibrillin-1 (FBN1) and mediates R-G-D-dependent cell adhesion to FBN1. ITGA5:ITGB1 is a receptor for IL1B and binding is essential for IL1B signaling. ITGA5:ITGB3 is a receptor for soluble CD40LG and is required for CD40/CD40LG signaling.

Integrin alpha-6/beta-1 (ITGA6:ITGB1) is a receptor for laminin on platelets (By similarity). Integrin alpha-6/beta-1 (ITGA6:ITGB1) is present in oocytes and is involved in sperm-egg fusion (By similarity). Integrin alpha-6/beta-4 (ITGA6:ITGB4) is a receptor for laminin in epithelial cells and it plays a critical structural role in the hemidesmosome (By similarity). ITGA6:ITGB4 binds to NRG1 (via EGF domain) and this binding is essential for NRG1-ERBB signaling. ITGA6:ITGB4 binds to IGF1 and this binding is essential for IGF1 signaling. ITGA6:ITGB4 binds to IGF2 and this binding is essential for IGF2 signaling.

Integrin alpha-7/beta-1 is the primary laminin receptor on skeletal myoblasts and adult myofibers. During myogenic differentiation, it may induce changes in the shape and mobility of myoblasts, and facilitate their localization at laminin-rich sites of secondary fiber formation. It is involved in the maintenance of the myofibers cytoarchitecture as well as for their anchorage, viability and functional integrity. Isoform Alpha-7X2B and isoform Alpha-7X1B promote myoblast migration on laminin 1 and laminin 2/4, but isoform Alpha-7X1B is less active on laminin 1 (In vitro). Acts as Schwann cell receptor for laminin-2. Acts as a receptor of COMP and mediates its effect on vascular smooth muscle cells (VSMCs) maturation (By similarity). Required to promote contractile phenotype acquisition in differentiated airway smooth muscle (ASM) cells.

Integrin alpha-8/beta-1 functions in the genesis of kidney and probably of other organs by regulating the recruitment of mesenchymal cells into epithelial structures. It recognizes the sequence R-G-D in a wide array of ligands including TNC, FN1, SPP1 TGFB1, TGFB3 and VTN. NPNT is probably its functional ligand in kidney genesis. Neuronal receptor for TNC it mediates cell-cell interactions and regulates neurite outgrowth of sensory and motor neurons.

Integrin alpha-9/beta-1 (ITGA9:ITGB1) is a receptor for VCAM1, cytotactin and osteopontin. It recognizes the sequence A-E-I-D- G-I-E-L in cytotactin.

Integrin alpha-D/beta-2 is a receptor for ICAM3 and VCAM1. May play a role in the atherosclerotic process such as clearing lipoproteins from plaques and in phagocytosis of blood-borne pathogens, particulate matter, and senescent erythrocytes from the blood

Integrin alpha-E/beta-7 is a receptor for E-cadherin. It mediates adhesion of intra-epithelial T-lymphocytes to epithelial cell monolayers

Integrin ITGAL/ITGB2 is a receptor for ICAM1, ICAM2, ICAM3 and ICAM4. Integrin ITGAL/ITGB2 is a receptor for F11R. Integrin ITGAL/ITGB2 is a receptor for the secreted form of ubiquitin-like protein ISG15; the interaction is mediated by ITGAL. Involved in a variety of immune phenomena including leukocyte-endothelial cell interaction, cytotoxic T-cell mediated killing, and antibody dependent killing by granulocytes and monocytes. Contributes to natural killer cell cytotoxicity. Involved in leukocyte adhesion and transmigration of leukocytes including T-cells and neutrophils. Required for generation of common lymphoid progenitor cells in bone marrow, indicating a role in lymphopoiesis (By similarity). Integrin ITGAL/ITGB2 in association with ICAM3, contributes to apoptotic neutrophil phagocytosis by macrophages.

Integrin ITGAM/ITGB2 is implicated in various adhesive interactions of monocytes, macrophages and granulocytes as well as in mediating the uptake of complement-coated particles and pathogens. It is identical with CR-3, the receptor for the iC3b fragment of the third complement component. It probably recognizes the R-G-D peptide in C3b. Integrin ITGAM/ITGB2 is also a receptor for fibrinogen, factor X and ICAM1. It recognizes P1 and P2 peptides of fibrinogen gamma chain. Regulates neutrophil migration. In association with beta subunit ITGB2/CD18, required for CD177-PRTN3-mediated activation of TNF primed neutrophils. May regulate phagocytosis-induced apoptosis in extravasated neutrophils (By similarity). May play a role in mast cell development (By similarity). Required with TYROBP/DAP12 in microglia to control production of microglial superoxide ions which promote the neuronal apoptosis that occurs during brain development (By similarity).

The alpha-V (ITGAV) integrins are receptors for vitronectin, cytotactin, fibronectin, fibrinogen, laminin, matrix metalloproteinase- 2, osteopontin, osteomodulin, prothrombin, thrombospondin and vWF. They recognize the sequence R-G-D in a wide array of ligands. ITGAV:ITGB3 binds to fractalkine (CX3CL1) and may act as its coreceptor in CX3CR1- dependent fractalkine signaling. ITGAV:ITGB3 binds to NRG1 (via EGF domain) and this binding is essential for NRG1-ERBB signaling. ITGAV:ITGB3 binds to FGF1 and this binding is essential for FGF1 signaling. ITGAV:ITGB3 binds to FGF2 and this binding is essential for FGF2 signaling. ITGAV:ITGB3 binds to IGF1 and this binding is essential for IGF1 signaling. ITGAV:ITGB3 binds to IGF2 and this binding is essential for IGF2 signaling. ITGAV:ITGB3 binds to IL1B and this binding is essential for IL1B signaling. ITGAV:ITGB3 binds to PLA2G2A via a site (site 2) which is distinct from the classical ligand-binding site (site 1) and this induces integrin conformational changes and enhanced ligand binding to site 1. ITGAV:ITGB3 and ITGAV:ITGB6 act as receptors for fibrillin-1 (FBN1) and mediate R-G-D-dependent cell adhesion to FBN1. Integrin alpha-V/beta-6 or alpha- V/beta-8 (ITGAV:ITGB6 or ITGAV:ITGB8) mediates R-G-D-dependent release of transforming growth factor beta-1 (TGF-beta-1) from regulatory Latency-associated peptide (LAP), thereby playing a key role in TGF- beta-1 activation. ITGAV:ITGB3 acts as a receptor for CD40LG.

Integrin alpha-X/beta-2 is a receptor for fibrinogen. It recognizes the sequence G-P-R in fibrinogen. It mediates cell-cell interaction during inflammatory responses. It is especially important in monocyte adhesion and chemotaxis

Integrins alpha-1/beta-1, alpha-2/beta-1, alpha-10/beta-1 and alpha-11/beta-1 are receptors for collagen. Integrins alpha-1/beta-1 and alpha-2/beta-2 recognize the proline-hydroxylated sequence G-F-P-G- E-R in collagen. Integrins alpha-2/beta-1, alpha-3/beta-1, alpha- 4/beta-1, alpha-5/beta-1, alpha-8/beta-1, alpha-10/beta-1, alpha- 11/beta-1 and alpha-V/beta-1 are receptors for fibronectin. Alpha- 4/beta-1 recognizes one or more domains within the alternatively spliced CS-1 and CS-5 regions of fibronectin. Integrin alpha-5/beta-1 is a receptor for fibrinogen. Integrin alpha-1/beta-1, alpha-2/beta-1, alpha-6/beta-1 and alpha-7/beta-1 are receptors for lamimin. Integrin alpha-6/beta-1 (ITGA6:ITGB1) is present in oocytes and is involved in sperm-egg fusion (By similarity). Integrin alpha-4/beta-1 is a receptor for VCAM1. It recognizes the sequence Q-I-D-S in VCAM1. Integrin alpha- 9/beta-1 is a receptor for VCAM1, cytotactin and osteopontin. It recognizes the sequence A-E-I-D-G-I-E-L in cytotactin. Integrin alpha- 3/beta-1 is a receptor for epiligrin, thrombospondin and CSPG4. Alpha- 3/beta-1 may mediate with LGALS3 the stimulation by CSPG4 of endothelial cells migration. Integrin alpha-V/beta-1 is a receptor for vitronectin. Beta-1 integrins recognize the sequence R-G-D in a wide array of ligands. When associated with alpha-7 integrin, regulates cell adhesion and laminin matrix deposition. Involved in promoting endothelial cell motility and angiogenesis. Involved in osteoblast compaction through the fibronectin fibrillogenesis cell-mediated matrix assembly process and the formation of mineralized bone nodules. May be involved in up-regulation of the activity of kinases such as PKC via binding to KRT1. Together with KRT1 and RACK1, serves as a platform for SRC activation or inactivation. Plays a mechanistic adhesive role during telophase, required for the successful completion of cytokinesis. Integrin alpha-3/beta-1 provides a docking site for FAP (seprase) at invadopodia plasma membranes in a collagen-dependent manner and hence may participate in the adhesion, formation of invadopodia and matrix degradation processes, promoting cell invasion. ITGA4:ITGB1 binds to fractalkine (CX3CL1) and may act as its coreceptor in CX3CR1-dependent fractalkine signaling. ITGA4:ITGB1 and ITGA5:ITGB1 bind to PLA2G2A via a site (site 2) which is distinct from the classical ligand-binding site (site 1) and this induces integrin conformational changes and enhanced ligand binding to site 1. ITGA5:ITGB1 acts as a receptor for fibrillin-1 (FBN1) and mediates R-G- D-dependent cell adhesion to FBN1. ITGA5:ITGB1 is a receptor for IL1B and binding is essential for IL1B signaling. ITGA5:ITGB3 is a receptor for soluble CD40LG and is required for CD40/CD40LG signaling. Plays an important role in myoblast differentiation and fusion during skeletal myogenesis (By similarity).

Integrin alpha-V/beta-3 (ITGAV:ITGB3) is a receptor for cytotactin, fibronectin, laminin, matrix metalloproteinase-2, osteopontin, osteomodulin, prothrombin, thrombospondin, vitronectin and von Willebrand factor. Integrin alpha-IIb/beta-3 (ITGA2B:ITGB3) is a receptor for fibronectin, fibrinogen, plasminogen, prothrombin, thrombospondin and vitronectin. Integrins alpha-IIb/beta-3 and alpha- V/beta-3 recognize the sequence R-G-D in a wide array of ligands. Integrin alpha-IIb/beta-3 recognizes the sequence H-H-L-G-G-G-A-K-Q-A- G-D-V in fibrinogen gamma chain. Following activation integrin alpha- IIb/beta-3 brings about platelet/platelet interaction through binding of soluble fibrinogen. This step leads to rapid platelet aggregation which physically plugs ruptured endothelial surface. Fibrinogen binding enhances SELP expression in activated platelets (By similarity). ITGAV:ITGB3 binds to fractalkine (CX3CL1) and acts as its coreceptor in CX3CR1-dependent fractalkine signaling. ITGAV:ITGB3 binds to NRG1 (via EGF domain) and this binding is essential for NRG1-ERBB signaling. ITGAV:ITGB3 binds to FGF1 and this binding is essential for FGF1 signaling. ITGAV:ITGB3 binds to FGF2 and this binding is essential for FGF2 signaling. ITGAV:ITGB3 binds to IGF1 and this binding is essential for IGF1 signaling. ITGAV:ITGB3 binds to IGF2 and this binding is essential for IGF2 signaling. ITGAV:ITGB3 binds to IL1B and this binding is essential for IL1B signaling. ITGAV:ITGB3 binds to PLA2G2A via a site (site 2) which is distinct from the classical ligand-binding site (site 1) and this induces integrin conformational changes and enhanced ligand binding to site 1. ITGAV:ITGB3 acts as a receptor for fibrillin-1 (FBN1) and mediates R-G-D-dependent cell adhesion to FBN1. In brain, plays a role in synaptic transmission and plasticity. Involved in the regulation of the serotonin neurotransmission, is required to localize to specific compartments within the synapse the serotonin receptor SLC6A4 and for an appropriate reuptake of serotonin. Controls excitatory synaptic strength by regulating GRIA2-containing AMPAR endocytosis, which affects AMPAR abundance and composition (By similarity). ITGAV:ITGB3 act as a receptor for CD40LG.

Integrin alpha-6/beta-4 is a receptor for laminin. Plays a critical structural role in the hemidesmosome of epithelial cells. Is required for the regulation of keratinocyte polarity and motility. ITGA6:ITGB4 binds to NRG1 (via EGF domain) and this binding is essential for NRG1-ERBB signaling. ITGA6:ITGB4 binds to IGF1 and this binding is essential for IGF1 signaling. ITGA6:ITGB4 binds to IGF2 and this binding is essential for IGF2 signaling.

Integrin alpha-V/beta-5 (ITGAV:ITGB5) is a receptor for fibronectin. It recognizes the sequence R-G-D in its ligand

Integrin alpha-V:beta-6 (ITGAV:ITGB6) is a receptor for fibronectin and cytotactin. It recognizes the sequence R-G-D in its ligands. Internalization of integrin alpha-V/beta-6 via clathrin-mediated endocytosis promotes carcinoma cell invasion. ITGAV:ITGB6 acts as a receptor for fibrillin-1 (FBN1) and mediates R-G-D-dependent cell adhesion to FBN1. Integrin alpha-V:beta-6 (ITGAV:ITGB6) mediates R-G- D-dependent release of transforming growth factor beta-1 (TGF-beta-1) from regulatory Latency-associated peptide (LAP), thereby playing a key role in TGF-beta-1 activation.

Integrin alpha-4/beta-7 (Peyer patches-specific homing receptor LPAM-1) is an adhesion molecule that mediates lymphocyte migration and homing to gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT). Integrin alpha-4/beta-7 interacts with the cell surface adhesion molecules MADCAM1 which is normally expressed by the vascular endothelium of the gastrointestinal tract. Interacts also with VCAM1 and fibronectin, an extracellular matrix component. It recognizes one or more domains within the alternatively spliced CS-1 region of fibronectin. Interactions involves the tripeptide L-D-T in MADCAM1, and L-D-V in fibronectin. Binds to HIV-1 gp120, thereby allowing the virus to enter GALT, which is thought to be the major trigger of AIDS disease. Interaction would involve a tripeptide L-D-I in HIV-1 gp120. Integrin alpha-E/beta-7 (HML-1) is a receptor for E-cadherin

Integrin alpha-V:beta-8 (ITGAV:ITGB8) is a receptor for fibronectin. It recognizes the sequence R-G-D in its ligands. Integrin alpha-V:beta-6 (ITGAV:ITGB6) mediates R-G-D-dependent release of transforming growth factor beta-1 (TGF-beta-1) from regulatory Latency-associated peptide (LAP), thereby playing a key role in TGF-beta-1 activation on the surface of activated regulatory T-cells (Tregs) (Probable). Required during vasculogenesis (By similarity).

Key regulator of the integrin-mediated cell-matrix interaction signaling by binding to the ITGB1 cytoplasmic tail and preventing the activation of integrin alpha-5/beta-1 (heterodimer of ITGA5 and ITGB1) by talin or FERMT1. Plays a role in cell proliferation, differentiation, spreading, adhesion and migration in the context of mineralization and bone development and angiogenesis. Stimulates cellular proliferation in a fibronectin-dependent manner. Involved in the regulation of beta-1 integrin-containing focal adhesion (FA) site dynamics by controlling its assembly rate during cell adhesion; inhibits beta-1 integrin clustering within FA by directly competing with talin TLN1, and hence stimulates osteoblast spreading and migration in a fibronectin- and/or collagen-dependent manner. Acts as a guanine nucleotide dissociation inhibitor (GDI) by regulating Rho family GTPases during integrin-mediated cell matrix adhesion; reduces the level of active GTP-bound form of both CDC42 and RAC1 GTPases upon cell adhesion to fibronectin. Stimulates the release of active CDC42 from the membranes to maintain it in an inactive cytoplasmic pool. Participates in the translocation of the Rho-associated protein kinase ROCK1 to membrane ruffles at cell leading edges of the cell membrane, leading to an increase of myoblast cell migration on laminin. Plays a role in bone mineralization at a late stage of osteoblast differentiation; modulates the dynamic formation of focal adhesions into fibrillar adhesions, which are adhesive structures responsible for fibronectin deposition and fibrillogenesis. Plays a role in blood vessel development; acts as a negative regulator of angiogenesis by attenuating endothelial cell proliferation and migration, lumen formation and sprouting angiogenesis by promoting AKT phosphorylation and inhibiting ERK1/2 phosphorylation through activation of the Notch signaling pathway. Promotes transcriptional activity of the MYC promoter.

May play a role during maturation and/or organization of muscles cells

Acts as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Catalyzes 'Lys-29'-, 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin conjugation. Involved in the control of inflammatory signaling pathways. Essential component of a ubiquitin-editing protein complex, comprising also TNFAIP3, TAX1BP1 and RNF11, that ensures the transient nature of inflammatory signaling pathways. Promotes the association of the complex after TNF stimulation. Once the complex is formed, TNFAIP3 deubiquitinates 'Lys-63' polyubiquitin chains on RIPK1 and catalyzes the formation of 'Lys-48'-polyubiquitin chains. This leads to RIPK1 proteasomal degradation and consequently termination of the TNF- or LPS-mediated activation of NFKB1. Ubiquitinates RIPK2 by 'Lys-63'-linked conjugation and influences NOD2-dependent signal transduction pathways. Regulates the transcriptional activity of several transcription factors, and probably plays an important role in the regulation of immune response. Ubiquitinates NFE2 by 'Lys-63' linkages and is implicated in the control of the development of hematopoietic lineages. Mediates JUN ubiquitination and degradation (By similarity). Mediates JUNB ubiquitination and degradation. Critical regulator of type 2 helper T (Th2) cell cytokine production by inducing JUNB ubiquitination and degradation (By similarity). Involved in the negative regulation of MAVS-dependent cellular antiviral responses. Ubiquitinates MAVS through 'Lys-48'-linked conjugation resulting in MAVS proteasomal degradation. Following ligand stimulation, regulates sorting of Wnt receptor FZD4 to the degradative endocytic pathway probably by modulating PI42KA activity. Ubiquitinates PI4K2A and negatively regulates its catalytic activity. Ubiquitinates chemokine receptor CXCR4 and regulates sorting of CXCR4 to the degradative endocytic pathway following ligand stimulation by ubiquitinating endosomal sorting complex required for transport ESCRT-0 components HGS and STAM. Targets DTX1 for lysosomal degradation and controls NOTCH1 degradation, in the absence of ligand, through 'Lys-29'-linked polyubiquitination. Ubiquitinates SNX9. Ubiquitinates MAP3K7 through 'Lys-48'-linked conjugation (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of apoptosis and reactive oxygen species levels through the ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of TXNIP. Mediates the antiapoptotic activity of epidermal growth factor through the ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of p15 BID. Ubiquitinates BRAT1 and this ubiquitination is enhanced in the presence of NDFIP1. Inhibits the replication of influenza A virus (IAV) via ubiquitination of IAV matrix protein 1 (M1) through 'Lys-48'-linked conjugation resulting in M1 proteasomal degradation. Ubiquitinates NEDD9/HEF1, resulting in proteosomal degradation of NEDD9/HEF1.

Transcription factor that binds to the immunoglobulin enhancer Mu-E5/KE5-motif. Involved in the initiation of neuronal differentiation. Activates transcription by binding to the E box (5'- CANNTG-3'). Binds to the E-box present in the somatostatin receptor 2 initiator element (SSTR2-INR) to activate transcription (By similarity). Preferentially binds to either 5'-ACANNTGT-3' or 5'- CCANNTGG-3'.

As part of the KICSTOR complex functions in the amino acid- sensing branch of the TORC1 signaling pathway. Recruits, in an amino acid-independent manner, the GATOR1 complex to the lysosomal membranes and allows its interaction with GATOR2 and the RAG GTPases. Functions upstream of the RAG GTPases and is required to negatively regulate mTORC1 signaling in absence of amino acids. In absence of the KICSTOR complex mTORC1 is constitutively localized to the lysosome and activated. The KICSTOR complex is also probably involved in the regulation of mTORC1 by glucose.

May act as a carrier of hyaluronan in serum or as a binding protein between hyaluronan and other matrix protein, including those on cell surfaces in tissues to regulate the localization, synthesis and degradation of hyaluronan which are essential to cells undergoing biological processes

Type II acute-phase protein (APP) involved in inflammatory responses to trauma. May also play a role in liver development or regeneration.

Tyrosine kinase that plays an essential role in regulation of the adaptive immune response. Regulates the development, function and differentiation of conventional T-cells and nonconventional NKT-cells. When antigen presenting cells (APC) activate T-cell receptor (TCR), a series of phosphorylation lead to the recruitment of ITK to the cell membrane, in the vicinity of the stimulated TCR receptor, where it is phosphorylated by LCK. Phosphorylation leads to ITK autophosphorylation and full activation. Once activated, phosphorylates PLCG1, leading to the activation of this lipase and subsequent cleavage of its substrates. In turn, the endoplasmic reticulum releases calcium in the cytoplasm and the nuclear activator of activated T-cells (NFAT) translocates into the nucleus to perform its transcriptional duty. Phosphorylates 2 essential adapter proteins: the linker for activation of T-cells/LAT protein and LCP2. Then, a large number of signaling molecules such as VAV1 are recruited and ultimately lead to lymphokine production, T-cell proliferation and differentiation. Required for TCR-mediated calcium response in gamma-delta T-cells, may also be involved in the modulation of the transcriptomic signature in the Vgamma2-positive subset of immature gamma-delta T-cells (By similarity). Phosphorylates TBX21 at 'Tyr-530' and mediates its interaction with GATA3 (By similarity).

Lectin that specifically recognizes microbial carbohydrate chains in a calcium-dependent manner. Binds to microbial glycans that contain a terminal acyclic 1,2-diol moiety, including beta-linked D-galactofuranose (beta- Galf), D-phosphoglycerol-modified glycans, D-glycero-D-talo-oct-2- ulosonic acid (KO) and 3-deoxy-D-manno-oct-2-ulosonic acid (KDO). Binds to glycans from Gram-positive and Gram- negative bacteria, including K.pneumoniae, S.pneumoniae, Y.pestis, P.mirabilis and P.vulgaris. Does not bind human glycans. Probably plays a role in the defense system against microorganisms (Probable). May function as adipokine that has no effect on basal glucose uptake but enhances insulin-stimulated glucose uptake in adipocytes. Increases AKT phosphorylation in the absence and presence of insulin. May interact with lactoferrin/LTF and increase its uptake, and may thereby play a role in iron absorption.

Plays a regulatory role in the processing of the amyloid-beta A4 precursor protein (APP) and acts as an inhibitor of the amyloid-beta peptide aggregation and fibrils deposition. Plays a role in the induction of neurite outgrowth. Functions as a protease inhibitor by blocking access of secretases to APP cleavage sites

Negative regulator of amyloid-beta peptide production. May inhibit the processing of APP by blocking its access to alpha- and beta-secretase. Binding to the beta-secretase-cleaved APP C-terminal fragment is negligible, suggesting that ITM2C is a poor gamma-secretase cleavage inhibitor. May play a role in TNF-induced cell death and neuronal differentiation (By similarity).

Pyrophosphatase that hydrolyzes the non-canonical purine nucleotides inosine triphosphate (ITP), deoxyinosine triphosphate (dITP) as well as 2'-deoxy-N-6-hydroxylaminopurine triphosphate (dHAPTP) and xanthosine 5'-triphosphate (XTP) to their respective monophosphate derivatives. The enzyme does not distinguish between the deoxy- and ribose forms. Probably excludes non-canonical purines from RNA and DNA precursor pools, thus preventing their incorporation into RNA and DNA and avoiding chromosomal lesions.

Kinase that can phosphorylate various inositol polyphosphate such as Ins(3,4,5,6)P4 or Ins(1,3,4)P3. Phosphorylates Ins(3,4,5,6)P4 at position 1 to form Ins(1,3,4,5,6)P5. This reaction is thought to have regulatory importance, since Ins(3,4,5,6)P4 is an inhibitor of plasma membrane Ca(2+)-activated Cl(-) channels, while Ins(1,3,4,5,6)P5 is not. Also phosphorylates Ins(1,3,4)P3 on O-5 and O-6 to form Ins(1,3,4,6)P4, an essential molecule in the hexakisphosphate (InsP6) pathway. Also acts as an inositol polyphosphate phosphatase that dephosphorylates Ins(1,3,4,5)P4 and Ins(1,3,4,6)P4 to Ins(1,3,4)P3, and Ins(1,3,4,5,6)P5 to Ins(3,4,5,6)P4. May also act as an isomerase that interconverts the inositol tetrakisphosphate isomers Ins(1,3,4,5)P4 and Ins(1,3,4,6)P4 in the presence of ADP and magnesium. Probably acts as the rate-limiting enzyme of the InsP6 pathway. Modifies TNF-alpha-induced apoptosis by interfering with the activation of TNFRSF1A-associated death domain. Plays an important role in MLKL-mediated necroptosis. Produces highly phosphorylated inositol phosphates such as inositolhexakisphosphate (InsP6) which bind to MLKL mediating the release of an N-terminal auto-inhibitory region leading to its activation. Essential for activated phospho-MLKL to oligomerize and localize to the cell membrane during necroptosis.

Intracellular channel that mediates calcium release from the endoplasmic reticulum following stimulation by inositol 1,4,5- trisphosphate. Involved in the regulation of epithelial secretion of electrolytes and fluid through the interaction with AHCYL1 (By similarity). Plays a role in ER stress-induced apoptosis. Cytoplasmic calcium released from the ER triggers apoptosis by the activation of CaM kinase II, eventually leading to the activation of downstream apoptosis pathways (By similarity).

Receptor for inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate, a second messenger that mediates the release of intracellular calcium. This release is regulated by cAMP both dependently and independently of PKA (By similarity).

Receptor for inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate, a second messenger that mediates the release of intracellular calcium

Adapter protein that provides a link between the endocytic membrane traffic and the actin assembly machinery. Acts as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for CDC42, and thereby stimulates actin nucleation mediated by WASL and the ARP2/3 complex. Plays a role in the assembly and maturation of clathrin-coated vesicles (By similarity). Recruits FCHSD2 to clathrin-coated pits. Involved in endocytosis of activated EGFR, and probably also other growth factor receptors (By similarity). Involved in endocytosis of integrin beta-1 (ITGB1) and transferrin receptor (TFR); internalization of ITGB1 as DAB2-dependent cargo but not TFR may involve association with DAB2. Promotes ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of EGFR, and thereby contributes to the down-regulation of EGFR-dependent signaling pathways. In chromaffin cells, required for normal exocytosis of catecholamines. Required for rapid replenishment of release-ready synaptic vesicles at presynaptic active zones (By similarity). Inhibits ARHGAP31 activity toward RAC1.

Adapter protein that may provide indirect link between the endocytic membrane traffic and the actin assembly machinery. May regulate the formation of clathrin-coated vesicles (CCPs). Seems to be involved in CCPs maturation including invagination or budding. Involved in endocytosis of integrin beta-1 (ITGB1) and transferrin receptor (TFR). Plays a role in dendrite formation by melanocytes.

Transcription factor which plays a key role in defining the composition of the RNA polymerase II (RNAPII) elongation complex and in modulating the production of mature mRNA transcripts. Acts as an assembly factor to recruit various factors to the RNAPII elongation complex and is recruited to the complex via binding to the transcription elongation factor SUPT6H bound to the C-terminal domain (CTD) of the RNAPII subunit RPB1 (POLR2A). The SUPT6H:IWS1:CTD complex recruits mRNA export factors (ALYREF/THOC4, EXOSC10) as well as histone modifying enzymes (such as SETD2) to ensure proper mRNA splicing, efficient mRNA export and elongation-coupled H3K36 methylation, a signature chromatin mark of active transcription.

Catalyzes the dehalogenation of halotyrosines such as 3- bromo-L-tyrosine, 3-chloro-L-tyrosine, 3-iodo-L-tyrosine and 3,5- diiodo-L-tyrosine. During thyroid hormone biosynthesis, facilitates iodide salvage by catalysing the oxidative NADPH-dependent deiodination of the halogenated by-products of thyroid hormone production, monoiodotyrosine (L-MIT) and diiodotyrosine (L-DIT). The scavanged iodide can then reenter the hormone- producing pathways. Acts more efficiently on 3-iodo-L-tyrosine than 3,5-diiodo-L-tyrosine.

Essential sperm cell-surface protein required for fertilization by acting as a ligand for IZUMO1R/JUNO receptor on egg. The IZUMO1:IZUMO1R/JUNO interaction is a necessary adhesion event between sperm and egg that is required for fertilization but is not sufficient for cell fusion. The ligand-receptor interaction probably does not act as a membrane 'fusogen'.

Scaffold subunit of some HBO1 complexes, which have a histone H4 acetyltransferase activity. Plays a key role in HBO1 complex by directing KAT7/HBO1 specificity towards histone H4 acetylation (H4K5ac, H4K8ac and H4K12ac), regulating DNA replication initiation, regulating DNA replication initiation. May also promote acetylation of nucleosomal histone H4 by KAT5. Promotes apoptosis. May act as a renal tumor suppressor. Negatively regulates canonical Wnt signaling; at least in part, cooperates with NPHP4 in this function.

Scaffold subunit of some HBO1 complexes, which have a histone H4 acetyltransferase activity.

Ligand for multiple Notch receptors and involved in the mediation of Notch signaling. May be involved in cell-fate decisions during hematopoiesis. Seems to be involved in early and late stages of mammalian cardiovascular development. Inhibits myoblast differentiation (By similarity). Enhances fibroblast growth factor-induced angiogenesis (in vitro).

Putative Notch ligand involved in the mediation of Notch signaling. Involved in limb development (By similarity).

Endoplasmic reticulum transmembrane protein involved in vesicle-mediated transport, which is required for neutrophil function. Required for vesicle-mediated transport; it is however unclear whether it is involved in early secretory pathway or intracellular protein transport. Acts as a regulator of neutrophil function, probably via its role in vesicle-mediated transport: required for defense against fungal pathogens and for granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) signaling pathway; possibly by regulating glycosylation and/or targeting of proteins contributing to the viability and migration of neutrophils.

Tyrosine kinase of the non-receptor type, involved in the IFN-alpha/beta/gamma signal pathway. Kinase partner for the interleukin (IL)-2 receptor as well as interleukin (IL)-10 receptor. Kinase partner for the type I interferon receptor IFNAR2. In response to interferon-binding to IFNAR1-IFNAR2 heterodimer, phosphorylates and activates its binding partner IFNAR2, creating docking sites for STAT proteins. Directly phosphorylates STAT proteins but also activates STAT signaling through the transactivation of other JAK kinases associated with signaling receptors.

Non-receptor tyrosine kinase involved in various processes such as cell growth, development, differentiation or histone modifications. Mediates essential signaling events in both innate and adaptive immunity. In the cytoplasm, plays a pivotal role in signal transduction via its association with type I receptors such as growth hormone (GHR), prolactin (PRLR), leptin (LEPR), erythropoietin (EPOR), thrombopoietin (THPO); or type II receptors including IFN-alpha, IFN- beta, IFN-gamma and multiple interleukins. Following ligand-binding to cell surface receptors, phosphorylates specific tyrosine residues on the cytoplasmic tails of the receptor, creating docking sites for STATs proteins. Subsequently, phosphorylates the STATs proteins once they are recruited to the receptor. Phosphorylated STATs then form homodimer or heterodimers and translocate to the nucleus to activate gene transcription. For example, cell stimulation with erythropoietin (EPO) during erythropoiesis leads to JAK2 autophosphorylation, activation, and its association with erythropoietin receptor (EPOR) that becomes phosphorylated in its cytoplasmic domain. Then, STAT5 (STAT5A or STAT5B) is recruited, phosphorylated and activated by JAK2. Once activated, dimerized STAT5 translocates into the nucleus and promotes the transcription of several essential genes involved in the modulation of erythropoiesis. Part of a signaling cascade that is activated by increased cellular retinol and that leads to the activation of STAT5 (STAT5A or STAT5B). In addition, JAK2 mediates angiotensin-2-induced ARHGEF1 phosphorylation. Plays a role in cell cycle by phosphorylating CDKN1B. Cooperates with TEC through reciprocal phosphorylation to mediate cytokine-driven activation of FOS transcription. In the nucleus, plays a key role in chromatin by specifically mediating phosphorylation of 'Tyr-41' of histone H3 (H3Y41ph), a specific tag that promotes exclusion of CBX5 (HP1 alpha) from chromatin.

Non-receptor tyrosine kinase involved in various processes such as cell growth, development, or differentiation. Mediates essential signaling events in both innate and adaptive immunity and plays a crucial role in hematopoiesis during T-cells development. In the cytoplasm, plays a pivotal role in signal transduction via its association with type I receptors sharing the common subunit gamma such as IL2R, IL4R, IL7R, IL9R, IL15R and IL21R. Following ligand binding to cell surface receptors, phosphorylates specific tyrosine residues on the cytoplasmic tails of the receptor, creating docking sites for STATs proteins. Subsequently, phosphorylates the STATs proteins once they are recruited to the receptor. Phosphorylated STATs then form homodimer or heterodimers and translocate to the nucleus to activate gene transcription. For example, upon IL2R activation by IL2, JAK1 and JAK3 molecules bind to IL2R beta (IL2RB) and gamma chain (IL2RG) subunits inducing the tyrosine phosphorylation of both receptor subunits on their cytoplasmic domain. Then, STAT5A and STAT5B are recruited, phosphorylated and activated by JAK1 and JAK3. Once activated, dimerized STAT5 translocates to the nucleus and promotes the transcription of specific target genes in a cytokine-specific fashion.

Seems to play a role in epithelial tight junction formation. Appears early in primordial forms of cell junctions and recruits PARD3. The association of the PARD6-PARD3 complex may prevent the interaction of PARD3 with JAM1, thereby preventing tight junction assembly (By similarity). Plays a role in regulating monocyte transmigration involved in integrity of epithelial barrier (By similarity). Ligand for integrin alpha-L/beta-2 involved in memory T- cell and neutrophil transmigration. Involved in platelet activation.

Junctional adhesion protein that mediates heterotypic cell- cell interactions with its cognate receptor JAM3 to regulate different cellular processes. Plays a role in homing and mobilization of hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells within the bone marrow. At the surface of bone marrow stromal cells, it contributes to the retention of the hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells expressing JAM3. Plays a central role in leukocytes extravasation by facilitating not only transmigration but also tethering and rolling of leukocytes along the endothelium. Tethering and rolling of leukocytes are dependent on the binding by JAM2 of the integrin alpha-4/beta-1. Plays a role in spermatogenesis where JAM2 and JAM3, which are respectively expressed by Sertoli and germ cells, mediate an interaction between both cell types and play an essential role in the anchorage of germ cells onto Sertoli cells and the assembly of cell polarity complexes during spermatid differentiation (By similarity). Also functions as an inhibitory somatodendritic cue that prevents the myelination of non-axonal parts of neurons (By similarity). During myogenesis, it is involved in myocyte fusion (By similarity). May also play a role in angiogenesis (By similarity).

Junctional adhesion protein that mediates heterotypic cell- cell interactions with its cognate receptor JAM2 to regulate different cellular processes. Plays a role in homing and mobilization of hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells within the bone marrow. At the surface of bone marrow stromal cells, it contributes to the retention of the hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells expressing JAM3. Plays a central role in leukocytes extravasation by facilitating transmigration through the endothelium (By similarity). Plays a role in spermatogenesis where JAM2 and JAM3, which are respectively expressed by Sertoli and germ cells, mediate an interaction between both cell types and play an essential role in the anchorage of germ cells onto Sertoli cells and the assembly of cell polarity complexes during spermatid differentiation (By similarity). Also functions as a counter- receptor for ITGAM, mediating leukocyte-platelet interactions and is involved in the regulation of transepithelial migration of polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMN). Plays a role in angiogenesis. Plays a role in the regulation of cell migration (Probable). During myogenesis, it is involved in myocyte fusion (By similarity).

Transmembrane protein of the plasma membrane of leukocytes that control their migration and activation through interaction with CXADR, a plasma membrane receptor found on adjacent epithelial and endothelial cells. The interaction between both receptors mediates the activation of gamma-delta T-cells, a subpopulation of T-cells residing in epithelia and involved in tissue homeostasis and repair. Upon epithelial CXADR-binding, JAML induces downstream cell signaling events in gamma-delta T-cells through PI3-kinase and MAP kinases. It results in proliferation and production of cytokines and growth factors by T- cells that in turn stimulate epithelial tissues repair. It also controls the transmigration of leukocytes within epithelial and endothelial tissues through adhesive interactions with epithelial and endothelial CXADR.

Regulator of histone methyltransferase complexes that plays an essential role in embryonic development, including heart and liver development, neural tube fusion process and hematopoiesis. Acts as an accessory subunit for the core PRC2 (Polycomb repressive complex 2) complex, which mediates histone H3K27 (H3K27me3) trimethylation on chromatin. Binds DNA and mediates the recruitment of the PRC2 complex to target genes in embryonic stem cells, thereby playing a key role in stem cell differentiation and normal embryonic development. In cardiac cells, it is required to repress expression of cyclin-D1 (CCND1) by activating methylation of 'Lys-9' of histone H3 (H3K9me) by the GLP1/EHMT1 and G9a/EHMT2 histone methyltransferases (By similarity). Also acts as a transcriptional repressor of ANF via its interaction with GATA4 and NKX2-5 (By similarity). Participates in the negative regulation of cell proliferation signaling (By similarity). Does not have histone demethylase activity (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional corepressor of orphan nuclear receptor NR2C2. Inhibits expression of the gluconeogenesis enzyme PCK2 through inhibition of NR2C2 activity (By similarity). Also involved in transcriptional activation of NAMPT by promoting expression of PPARA and PPARD (By similarity). Plays a role in lipid metabolism by suppressing lipogenesis, increasing lipolysis and decreasing lipid accumulation in adipose tissue (By similarity). Plays a role in glucose homeostasis by improving glucose metabolism and insulin sensitivity (By similarity).

Component of the AP-1 transcription factor that represses transactivation mediated by the Jun family of proteins. Involved in a variety of transcriptional responses associated with AP-1 such as UV- induced apoptosis, cell differentiation, tumorigenesis and antitumogeneris. Can also function as a repressor by recruiting histone deacetylase 3/HDAC3 to the promoter region of JUN. May control transcription via direct regulation of the modification of histones and the assembly of chromatin.

Probable histone demethylase that specifically demethylates 'Lys-9' of histone H3, thereby playing a central role in histone code. Demethylation of Lys residue generates formaldehyde and succinate. May be involved in hormone-dependent transcriptional activation, by participating in recruitment to androgen-receptor target genes (By similarity).

Required for the normal development of cilia in brain ependymal cells lining the ventricular surfaces.

The JNK-interacting protein (JIP) group of scaffold proteins selectively mediates JNK signaling by aggregating specific components of the MAPK cascade to form a functional JNK signaling module. Required for JNK activation in response to excitotoxic stress. Cytoplasmic MAPK8IP1 causes inhibition of JNK-regulated activity by retaining JNK in the cytoplasm and inhibiting JNK phosphorylation of c-Jun. May also participate in ApoER2-specific reelin signaling. Directly, or indirectly, regulates GLUT2 gene expression and beta-cell function. Appears to have a role in cell signaling in mature and developing nerve terminals. May function as a regulator of vesicle transport, through interactions with the JNK-signaling components and motor proteins. Functions as an anti-apoptotic protein and whose level seems to influence the beta-cell death or survival response. Acts as a scaffold protein that coordinates with SH3RF1 in organizing different components of the JNK pathway, including RAC1 or RAC2, MAP3K11/MLK3 or MAP3K7/TAK1, MAP2K7/MKK7, MAPK8/JNK1 and/or MAPK9/JNK2 into a functional multiprotein complex to ensure the effective activation of the JNK signaling pathway. Regulates the activation of MAPK8/JNK1 and differentiation of CD8(+) T-cells.

The JNK-interacting protein (JIP) group of scaffold proteins selectively mediates JNK signaling by aggregating specific components of the MAPK cascade to form a functional JNK signaling module. JIP2 inhibits IL1 beta-induced apoptosis in insulin-secreting cells. May function as a regulator of vesicle transport, through interactions with the JNK-signaling components and motor proteins (By similarity).

The JNK-interacting protein (JIP) group of scaffold proteins selectively mediates JNK signaling by aggregating specific components of the MAPK cascade to form a functional JNK signaling module. Regulates lysosomal positioning by acting as an adapter protein which links PIP4P1-positive lysosomes to the dynein- dynactin complex. Assists PIKFYVE selective functionality in microtubule-based endosome-to-TGN trafficking (By similarity).

May be a regulator of the duration of MAPK8 activity in response to various stress stimuli. Facilitates degradation of misfolded endoplasmic reticulum (ER) luminal proteins through the recruitment of components of the proteasome and endoplasmic reticulum- associated degradation (ERAD) system (By similarity).

Associates with microtubules and may play a role in the microtubule-dependent transport of the GABA-B receptor. May play a role in JAK1 signaling and regulate microtubule cytoskeleton rearrangements.

Dioxygenase that can both act as a arginine demethylase and a lysyl-hydroxylase. Acts as a lysyl-hydroxylase that catalyzes 5-hydroxylation on specific lysine residues of target proteins such as U2AF2/U2AF65 and LUC7L2. Regulates RNA splicing by mediating 5-hydroxylation of U2AF2/U2AF65, affecting the pre-mRNA splicing activity of U2AF2/U2AF65. Hydroxylates its own N-terminus, which is required for homooligomerization. In addition to peptidyl-lysine 5-dioxygenase activity, may act as an RNA hydroxylase, as suggested by its ability to bind single strand RNA. Also acts as an arginine demethylase which preferentially demethylates asymmetric dimethylation. Demethylates histone H3 at 'Arg-2' (H3R2me) and histone H4 at 'Arg-3' (H4R3me), including mono-, symmetric di- and asymmetric dimethylated forms, thereby playing a role in histone code. However, histone arginine demethylation may not constitute the primary activity in vivo. In collaboration with BRD4, interacts with the positive transcription elongation factor b (P-TEFb) complex in its active form to regulate polymerase II promoter-proximal pause release for transcriptional activation of a large cohort of genes. On distal enhancers, so called anti-pause enhancers, demethylates both histone H4R3me2 and the methyl cap of 7SKsnRNA leading to the dismissal of the 7SKsnRNA:HEXIM1 inhibitor complex. After removal of repressive marks, the complex BRD4:JMJD6 attract and retain the P-TEFb complex on chromatin, leading to its activation, promoter-proximal polymerase II pause release, and transcriptional activation. Demethylates other arginine methylated- proteins such as ESR1. Has no histone lysine demethylase activity. Required for differentiation of multiple organs during embryogenesis. Acts as a key regulator of hematopoietic differentiation: required for angiogenic sprouting by regulating the pre-mRNA splicing activity of U2AF2/U2AF65 (By similarity). Seems to be necessary for the regulation of macrophage cytokine responses.

Bifunctional enzyme that acts both as an endopeptidase and 2- oxoglutarate-dependent monooxygenase. Endopeptidase that cleaves histones N-terminal tails at the carboxyl side of methylated arginine or lysine residues, to generate 'tailless nucleosomes', which may trigger transcription elongation. Preferentially recognizes and cleaves monomethylated and dimethylated arginine residues of histones H2, H3 and H4. After initial cleavage, continues to digest histones tails via its aminopeptidase activity. Additionally, may play a role in protein biosynthesis by modifying the translation machinery. Acts as Fe(2+) and 2- oxoglutarate-dependent monooxygenase, catalyzing (S)-stereospecific hydroxylation at C-3 of 'Lys-22' of DRG1 and 'Lys-21' of DRG2 translation factors (TRAFAC), promoting their interaction with ribonucleic acids (RNA).

Functions as a positive regulator of TNF-induced NF-kappa-B signaling. Regulates angiogenesis and cellular metabolism through interaction with PKM.

Acts both as a nuclear p53/TP53-cofactor and a cytoplasmic regulator of actin dynamics depending on conditions. In nucleus, acts as a cofactor that increases p53/TP53 response via its interaction with p300/EP300. Increases p53/TP53-dependent transcription and apoptosis, suggesting an important role in p53/TP53 stress response such as DNA damage. In cytoplasm, acts as a nucleation-promoting factor for both branched and unbranched actin filaments. Activates the Arp2/3 complex to induce branched actin filament networks. Also catalyzes actin polymerization in the absence of Arp2/3, creating unbranched filaments. Contributes to cell motility by controlling actin dynamics. May promote the rapid formation of a branched actin network by first nucleating new mother filaments and then activating Arp2/3 to branch off these filaments. Upon nutrient stress, directly recruited by MAP1LC3B to the phagophore membrane surfaces to promote actin assembly during autophagy. The p53/TP53-cofactor and actin activator activities are regulated via its subcellular location (By similarity).

Deubiquitinates monoubiquitinated probes (in vitro). When ubiquitinated, cleaves 'Lys-63'-linked and 'Lys-48'-linked poly- ubiquitin chains (in vitro), hence may act as a deubiquitinating enzyme. May increase macropinocytosis and suppress clathrin- and caveolae-mediated endocytosis. May enhance membrane dynamics and cell motility independently of its catalytic activity.

Cleaves 'Lys-63'-linked poly-ubiquitin chains, and with lesser efficiency 'Lys-48'-linked poly-ubiquitin chains (in vitro). May act as a deubiquitinating enzyme.

Junctophilins contribute to the formation of junctional membrane complexes (JMCs) which link the plasma membrane with the endoplasmic or sarcoplasmic reticulum in excitable cells. Provides a structural foundation for functional cross-talk between the cell surface and intracellular calcium release channels. JPH1 contributes to the construction of the skeletal muscle triad by linking the t-tubule (transverse-tubule) and SR (sarcoplasmic reticulum) membranes

[Junctophilin-2]: Membrane-binding protein that provides a structural bridge between the plasma membrane and the sarcoplasmic reticulum and is required for normal excitation-contraction coupling in cardiomyocytes. Provides a structural foundation for functional cross-talk between the cell surface and intracellular Ca(2+) release channels by maintaining the 12-15 nm gap between the sarcolemma and the sarcoplasmic reticulum membranes in the cardiac dyads (By similarity). Necessary for proper intracellular Ca(2+) signaling in cardiac myocytes via its involvement in ryanodine receptor-mediated calcium ion release (By similarity). Contributes to the construction of skeletal muscle triad junctions (By similarity).

Junctophilins contribute to the formation of junctional membrane complexes (JMCs) which link the plasma membrane with the endoplasmic or sarcoplasmic reticulum in excitable cells. Provides a structural foundation for functional cross-talk between the cell surface and intracellular calcium release channels. JPH3 is brain- specific and appears to have an active role in certain neurons involved in motor coordination and memory

Junctophilins contribute to the formation of junctional membrane complexes (JMCs) which link the plasma membrane with the endoplasmic or sarcoplasmic reticulum in excitable cells. Provides a structural foundation for functional cross-talk between the cell surface and intracellular calcium release channels. JPH4 is brain- specific and appears to have an active role in certain neurons involved in motor coordination and memory (By similarity).

Involved in skeletal muscle excitation/contraction coupling (EC), probably acting as a regulator of the voltage-sensitive calcium channel CACNA1S. EC is a physiological process whereby an electrical signal (depolarization of the plasma membrane) is converted into a chemical signal, a calcium gradient, by the opening of ryanodine receptor calcium release channels. May regulate CACNA1S membrane targeting and activity.

Required for normal cytokinesis during mitosis. Plays a role in the regulation of cell proliferation. May be a component of the chromosomal passenger complex (CPC), a complex that acts as a key regulator of mitosis. The CPC complex has essential functions at the centromere in ensuring correct chromosome alignment and segregation and is required for chromatin-induced microtubule stabilization and spindle assembly. Increases AURKB activity. Inhibits apoptosis induced by TGFB1 (By similarity). Overexpression induces swelling of mitochondria and reduces mitochondrial membrane potential (By similarity).

Transcription factor involved in regulating gene activity following the primary growth factor response. Binds to the DNA sequence 5'-TGA[GC]TCA-3'. Heterodimerizes with proteins of the FOS family to form an AP-1 transcription complex, thereby enhancing its DNA binding activity to an AP-1 consensus sequence and its transcriptional activity (By similarity).

Transcription factor binding AP-1 sites. Heterodimerizes with proteins of the FOS family to form an AP-1 transcription factor complex, thereby enhancing their DNA binding activity to an AP-1 consensus sequence 3'-TGA[GC]TCA-5' and enhancing their transcriptional activity.

Receptor for IZUMO1 present at the cell surface of oocytes (oolemma), which is essential for species-specific gamete recognition and fertilization. The IZUMO1:IZUMO1R/JUNO interaction is a necessary adhesion event between sperm and egg that is required for fertilization but is not sufficient for cell fusion. The ligand-receptor interaction probably does not act as a membrane 'fusogen'. Does not bind folate.

Transcription factor that recognizes and binds to the AP-1 consensus motif 5'-TGA[GC]TCA-3'. Heterodimerizes with proteins of the FOS family to form an AP-1 transcription complex, thereby enhancing its DNA binding activity to the AP-1 consensus sequence 5'-TGA[GC]TCA-3' and enhancing its transcriptional activity (By similarity). Together with FOSB, plays a role in activation-induced cell death of T cells by binding to the AP-1 promoter site of FASLG/CD95L, and inducing its transcription in response to activation of the TCR/CD3 signaling pathway. Promotes activity of NR5A1 when phosphorylated by HIPK3 leading to increased steroidogenic gene expression upon cAMP signaling pathway stimulation. Involved in activated KRAS-mediated transcriptional activation of USP28 in colorectal cancer (CRC) cells. Binds to the USP28 promoter in colorectal cancer (CRC) cells.

Modulates negatively AKT-mediated GSK3B signaling. Induces CTNNB1 'Ser-33' phosphorylation and degradation through the suppression of the inhibitory 'Ser-9' phosphorylation of GSK3B, which represses the function of the APC:CTNNB1:GSK3B complex and the interaction with CDH1/E-cadherin in adherent junctions. Plays a role in the regulation of cell cycle and cell adhesion. Has an inhibitory role on AR-signaling pathway through the induction of receptor proteosomal degradation.

Nicotinic acid adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NAADP) binding protein required for NAADP-evoked intracellular calcium release. Confers NAADP-sensitivity to the two pore channels (TPCs) complex. Enables NAADP to activate Ca(2+) release from the endoplasmic reticulum through ryanodine receptors.

Involved in neuronal migration during development of the cerebral neocortex. May function in a cell autonomous and a non-cell autonomous manner and play a role in appropriate adhesion between migrating neurons and radial glial fibers. May also regulate growth and differentiation of dendrites.

Competes with SMC1 for binding to SMC3. May affect the availability of SMC3 to engage in the formation of multimeric protein complexes.

E3 SUMO-protein ligase; facilitates UBE2I/UBC9-mediated SUMO2 modification of target proteins

Plays a role in the establishment of the epidermal barrier on plantar skin (By similarity). Involved in the maintenance of cell layer development and keratin filament bundles in suprabasal cells of the epithelium (By similarity).

Involved in corneal epithelium organization, integrity and corneal keratin expression.

Type 1 keratin (Probable). Maintains postnatal tongue mucosal cell homeostasis and tissue organization in response to mechanical stress, potentially via regulation of the G1/S phase cyclins CCNE1 and CCNE2 (By similarity).

The nonhelical tail domain is involved in promoting KRT5- KRT14 filaments to self-organize into large bundles and enhances the mechanical properties involved in resilience of keratin intermediate filaments in vitro.

Epidermis-specific type I keratin that plays a key role in skin. Acts as a regulator of innate immunity in response to skin barrier breach: required for some inflammatory checkpoint for the skin barrier maintenance.

Type I keratin involved in the formation and maintenance of various skin appendages, specifically in determining shape and orientation of hair (By similarity). Required for the correct growth of hair follicles, in particular for the persistence of the anagen (growth) state (By similarity). Modulates the function of TNF-alpha in the specific context of hair cycling. Regulates protein synthesis and epithelial cell growth through binding to the adapter protein SFN and by stimulating Akt/mTOR pathway (By similarity). Involved in tissue repair. May be a marker of basal cell differentiation in complex epithelia and therefore indicative of a certain type of epithelial 'stem cells'. Acts as a promoter of epithelial proliferation by acting a regulator of immune response in skin: promotes Th1/Th17-dominated immune environment contributing to the development of basaloid skin tumors (By similarity). May act as an autoantigen in the immunopathogenesis of psoriasis, with certain peptide regions being a major target for autoreactive T-cells and hence causing their proliferation.

Involved in the uptake of thrombin-antithrombin complexes by hepatic cells (By similarity). When phosphorylated, plays a role in filament reorganization. Involved in the delivery of mutated CFTR to the plasma membrane. Together with KRT8, is involved in interleukin-6 (IL-6)-mediated barrier protection.

Involved in the organization of myofibers. Together with KRT8, helps to link the contractile apparatus to dystrophin at the costameres of striated muscle.

Plays a significant role in maintaining keratin filament organization in intestinal epithelia. When phosphorylated, plays a role in the secretion of mucin in the small intestine (By similarity).

Essential for the proper assembly of type I and type II keratin protein complexes and formation of keratin intermediate filaments in the inner root sheath (irs) (By similarity). Plays a role in the cytoskeleton organization.

Essential for the proper assembly of type I and type II keratin protein complexes and formation of keratin intermediate filaments in the inner root sheath (irs).

Essential for the proper assembly of types I and II keratin protein complexes and the formation of keratin intermediate filaments in the inner root sheath (irs).

May serve an important special function either in the mature palmar and plantar skin tissue or in the morphogenetic program of the formation of these tissues. Plays a role in keratin filament assembly.

Probably contributes to terminal cornification. Associated with keratinocyte activation, proliferation and keratinization. Required for maintenance of corneocytes and keratin filaments in suprabasal keratinocytes in the epidermis of the ear, potentially via moderation of expression and localization of keratins and their partner proteins (By similarity). Plays a role in the establishment of the epidermal barrier on plantar skin (By similarity).

May regulate the activity of kinases such as PKC and SRC via binding to integrin beta-1 (ITB1) and the receptor of activated protein C kinase 1 (RACK1). In complex with C1QBP is a high affinity receptor for kininogen-1/HMWK.

Required for the formation of keratin intermediate filaments in the basal epidermis and maintenance of the skin barrier in response to mechanical stress (By similarity). Regulates the recruitment of Langerhans cells to the epidermis, potentially by modulation of the abundance of macrophage chemotactic cytokines, macrophage inflammatory cytokines and CTNND1 localization in keratinocytes (By similarity).

Epidermis-specific type I keratin involved in wound healing. Involved in the activation of follicular keratinocytes after wounding, while it does not play a major role in keratinocyte proliferation or migration. Participates in the regulation of epithelial migration by inhibiting the activity of SRC during wound repair.

Plays a central role in hair formation. Essential component of keratin intermediate filaments in the inner root sheath (IRS) of the hair follicle.

Has a role in hair formation. Specific component of keratin intermediate filaments in the inner root sheath (IRS) of the hair follicle (Probable).

Plays a central role in hair and nail formation. Essential component of keratin intermediate filaments in the companion layer of the hair follicle

Blocks interferon-dependent interphase and stimulates DNA synthesis in cells. Involved in the translational regulation of the human papillomavirus type 16 E7 mRNA (HPV16 E7).

Together with KRT19, helps to link the contractile apparatus to dystrophin at the costameres of striated muscle.

Catalyzes the reversible transfer of the terminal phosphate group between ATP and AMP. Exhibits nucleoside diphosphate kinase activity, catalyzing the production of ATP, CTP, GTP, UTP, dATP, dCTP, dGTP and dTTP from the corresponding diphosphate substrates with either ATP or GTP as phosphate donor. Also catalyzes at a very low rate the synthesis of thiamine triphosphate (ThTP) from thiamine diphosphate (ThDP) and ADP (By similarity).

Catalyzes the reversible transfer of the terminal phosphate group between ATP and AMP. Plays an important role in cellular energy homeostasis and in adenine nucleotide metabolism. Adenylate kinase activity is critical for regulation of the phosphate utilization and the AMP de novo biosynthesis pathways. Plays a key role in hematopoiesis.

Involved in maintaining the homeostasis of cellular nucleotides by catalyzing the interconversion of nucleoside phosphates. Has GTP:AMP phosphotransferase and ITP:AMP phosphotransferase activities.

Involved in maintaining the homeostasis of cellular nucleotides by catalyzing the interconversion of nucleoside phosphates. Efficiently phosphorylates AMP and dAMP using ATP as phosphate donor, but phosphorylates only AMP when using GTP as phosphate donor. Also displays broad nucleoside diphosphate kinase activity. Plays a role in controlling cellular ATP levels by regulating phosphorylation and activation of the energy sensor protein kinase AMPK. Plays a protective role in the cellular response to oxidative stress.

Nucleoside monophosphate (NMP) kinase that catalyzes the reversible transfer of the terminal phosphate group between nucleoside triphosphates and monophosphates. Active on AMP and dAMP with ATP as a donor. When GTP is used as phosphate donor, the enzyme phosphorylates AMP, CMP, and to a small extent dCMP. Also displays broad nucleoside diphosphate kinase activity.

Broad-specificity nucleoside monophosphate (NMP) kinase that catalyzes the reversible transfer of the terminal phosphate group between nucleoside triphosphates and monophosphates. AMP and dAMP are the preferred substrates, but CMP and dCMP are also good substrates. IMP is phosphorylated to a much lesser extent. All nucleoside triphosphates ATP, GTP, UTP, CTP, dATP, dCTP, dGTP, and TTP are accepted as phosphate donors. CTP is the best phosphate donor, followed by UTP, ATP, GTP and dCTP. May have a role in nuclear energy homeostasis. Has also ATPase activity. May be involved in regulation of Cajal body (CB) formation.

Nucleoside monophosphate (NMP) kinase that catalyzes the reversible transfer of the terminal phosphate group between nucleoside triphosphates and monophosphates. Has highest activity toward AMP, and weaker activity toward dAMP, CMP and dCMP. Also displays broad nucleoside diphosphate kinase activity. Involved in maintaining ciliary structure and function.

Nucleoside monophosphate (NMP) kinase that catalyzes the reversible transfer of the terminal phosphate group between nucleoside triphosphates and monophosphates. Has highest activity toward AMP, and weaker activity toward dAMP, CMP and dCMP. Also displays broad nucleoside diphosphate kinase activity.

Involved in maintaining the homeostasis of cellular nucleotides by catalyzing the interconversion of nucleoside phosphates. Has both nucleoside monophosphate and diphosphate kinase activities. Catalyzes the phosphorylation of AMP, dAMP, CMP and dCMP with ATP as phosphate donor and of CMP with GTP as phosphate donor. Also catalyzes the production of ATP, CTP, GTP, UTP, dATP, dCTP, dGTP and TTP from the corresponding diphosphate substrates with either ATP or GTP as phosphate donor. Shows substrate preference of CDP > UDP > ADP > GDP > TDP.

Inhibits human amidolytic and kininogenase activities of tissue kallikrein. Inhibition is achieved by formation of an equimolar, heat- and SDS-stable complex between the inhibitor and the enzyme, and generation of a small C-terminal fragment of the inhibitor due to cleavage at the reactive site by tissue kallikrein.

Transcriptional regulator with bimodal DNA-binding specificity. Binds to methylated CpG dinucleotides in the consensus sequence 5'-CGCG-3' and also binds to the non-methylated consensus sequence 5'-CTGCNA-3' also known as the consensus kaiso binding site (KBS). Recruits the N-CoR repressor complex to promote histone deacetylation and the formation of repressive chromatin structures in target gene promoters. May contribute to the repression of target genes of the Wnt signaling pathway. May also activate transcription of a subset of target genes by the recruitment of CTNND2. Represses expression of MMP7 in conjunction with transcriptional corepressors CBFA2T3, CBFA2T2 and RUNX1T1.

Has a dual branch-promoting and guidance activity, which may play an important role in the patterning of mitral and tufted cell collaterals to the olfactory cortex (By similarity). Chemoattractant for fetal olfactory epithelial cells.

Involved in the control of cytoskeleton formation by regulating actin polymerization. Inhibits actin fiber formation and cell migration. Inhibits RhoA activity; the function involves phosphorylation through PI3K/Akt signaling and may depend on the competitive interaction with 14-3-3 adapter proteins to sequester them from active complexes. Inhibits the formation of lamellipodia but not of filopodia; the function may depend on the competitive interaction with BAIAP2 to block its association with activated RAC1. Inhibits fibronectin-mediated cell spreading; the function is partially mediated by BAIAP2. Inhibits neurite outgrowth. Involved in the establishment and persistence of cell polarity during directed cell movement in wound healing. In the nucleus, is involved in beta-catenin-dependent activation of transcription. Potential tumor suppressor for renal cell carcinoma. Regulates Rac signaling pathways.

Involved in transcription regulation by sequestering in the cytoplasm nuclear receptor coactivators such as NCOA1, NCOA2 and NCOA3. Involved in regulation of caspase-independent apoptosis by sequestering the proapoptotic factor AIFM1 in mitochondria. Pro-apoptotic stimuli can induce its proteasomal degradation allowing the translocation of AIFM1 to the nucleus to induce apoptosis. Involved in the negative control of vitamin D receptor signaling pathway. Involved in actin stress fibers formation through its interaction with ARHGDIA and the regulation of the Rho signaling pathway. May thereby play a role in cell adhesion and migration, regulating for instance podocytes migration during development of the kidney. Through the Rho signaling pathway may also regulate cell proliferation (By similarity).

May be involved in the control of cytoskeleton formation by regulating actin polymerization

May be involved in the control of cytoskeleton formation by regulating actin polymerization.

As part of the NSL complex it is involved in acetylation of nucleosomal histone H4 on several lysine residues and therefore may be involved in the regulation of transcription.

Regulatory subunit of the cAMP-dependent protein kinases involved in cAMP signaling in cells.

Regulatory subunit of the cAMP-dependent protein kinases involved in cAMP signaling in cells. Type II regulatory chains mediate membrane association by binding to anchoring proteins, including the MAP2 kinase

Phosphorylates a large number of substrates in the cytoplasm and the nucleus. Phosphorylates CDC25B, ABL1, NFKB1, CLDN3, PSMC5/RPT6, PJA2, RYR2, RORA, SOX9 and VASP. Regulates the abundance of compartmentalized pools of its regulatory subunits through phosphorylation of PJA2 which binds and ubiquitinates these subunits, leading to their subsequent proteolysis. RORA is activated by phosphorylation. Required for glucose- mediated adipogenic differentiation increase and osteogenic differentiation inhibition from osteoblasts. Involved in chondrogenesis by mediating phosphorylation of SOX9 (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of platelets in response to thrombin and collagen; maintains circulating platelets in a resting state by phosphorylating proteins in numerous platelet inhibitory pathways when in complex with NF-kappa-B (NFKB1 and NFKB2) and I-kappa-B-alpha (NFKBIA), but thrombin and collagen disrupt these complexes and free active PRKACA stimulates platelets and leads to platelet aggregation by phosphorylating VASP. Prevents the antiproliferative and anti-invasive effects of alpha- difluoromethylornithine in breast cancer cells when activated. RYR2 channel activity is potentiated by phosphorylation in presence of luminal Ca(2+), leading to reduced amplitude and increased frequency of store overload-induced Ca(2+) release (SOICR) characterized by an increased rate of Ca(2+) release and propagation velocity of spontaneous Ca(2+) waves, despite reduced wave amplitude and resting cytosolic Ca(2+). PSMC5/RPT6 activation by phosphorylation stimulates proteasome. Negatively regulates tight junctions (TJs) in ovarian cancer cells via CLDN3 phosphorylation. NFKB1 phosphorylation promotes NF-kappa-B p50-p50 DNA binding. Involved in embryonic development by down-regulating the Hedgehog (Hh) signaling pathway that determines embryo pattern formation and morphogenesis most probably through the regulation of OFD1 in ciliogenesis. Prevents meiosis resumption in prophase-arrested oocytes via CDC25B inactivation by phosphorylation (By similarity). May also regulate rapid eye movement (REM) sleep in the pedunculopontine tegmental (PPT) (By similarity). Phosphorylates APOBEC3G and AICDA. Phosphorylates HSF1; this phosphorylation promotes HSF1 nuclear localization and transcriptional activity upon heat shock.

Mediates cAMP-dependent signaling triggered by receptor binding to GPCRs. PKA activation regulates diverse cellular processes such as cell proliferation, the cell cycle, differentiation and regulation of microtubule dynamics, chromatin condensation and decondensation, nuclear envelope disassembly and reassembly, as well as regulation of intracellular transport mechanisms and ion flux. Regulates the abundance of compartmentalized pools of its regulatory subunits through phosphorylation of PJA2 which binds and ubiquitinates these subunits, leading to their subsequent proteolysis. Phosphorylates GPKOW which regulates its ability to bind RNA.

Phosphorylates a large number of substrates in the cytoplasm and the nucleus

As a component of the LINC (LInker of Nucleoskeleton and Cytoskeleton) complex, involved in the connection between the nuclear lamina and the cytoskeleton. The nucleocytoplasmic interactions established by the LINC complex play an important role in the transmission of mechanical forces across the nuclear envelope and in nuclear movement and positioning. Required for telomere attachment to nuclear envelope in the prophase of meiosis and for rapid telomere prophase movements implicating a SUN1/2:KASH5 LINC complex in which SUN1 and SUN2 seem to act at least partial redundantly. Required for homolog pairing during meiotic prophase in spermatocytes and probably oocytes. Essential for male and female gametogenesis. Recruits cytoplasmic dynein to telomere attachment sites at the nuclear envelope in spermatocytes. In oocytes is involved in meiotic resumption and spindle formation.

Catalyzes the irreversible transamination of the L-tryptophan metabolite L-kynurenine to form kynurenic acid (KA), an intermediate in the tryptophan catabolic pathway which is also a broad spectrum antagonist of the three ionotropic excitatory amino acid receptors among others. Also metabolizes the cysteine conjugates of certain halogenated alkenes and alkanes to form reactive metabolites. Catalyzes the beta-elimination of S-conjugates and Se-conjugates of L-(seleno)cysteine, resulting in the cleavage of the C-S or C-Se bond.

Protein lysine acyltransferase that can act as a acetyltransferase, glutaryltransferase or succinyltransferase, depending on the context. Acts as a histone lysine succinyltransferase: catalyzes succinylation of histone H3 on 'Lys-79' (H3K79succ), with a maximum frequency around the transcription start sites of genes. Succinylation of histones gives a specific tag for epigenetic transcription activation. Association with the 2-oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, which provides succinyl-CoA, is required for histone succinylation. In different complexes, functions either as an acetyltransferase (HAT) or as a succinyltransferase: in the SAGA and ATAC complexes, acts as a histone acetyltransferase. Has significant histone acetyltransferase activity with core histones, but not with nucleosome core particles. Acetylation of histones gives a specific tag for epigenetic transcription activation. Recruited by the XPC complex at promoters, where it specifically mediates acetylation of histone variant H2A.Z.1/H2A.Z, thereby promoting expression of target genes. Involved in long-term memory consolidation and synaptic plasticity: acts by promoting expression of a hippocampal gene expression network linked to neuroactive receptor signaling (By similarity). Acts as a positive regulator of T-cell activation: upon TCR stimulation, recruited to the IL2 promoter following interaction with NFATC2 and catalyzes acetylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-9' (H3K9ac), leading to promote IL2 expression (By similarity). Required for growth and differentiation of craniofacial cartilage and bone by regulating acetylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-9' (H3K9ac) (By similarity). Regulates embryonic stem cell (ESC) pluripotency and differentiation (By similarity). Also acetylates non- histone proteins, such as CEBPB, PPARGC1A, PLK4 and TBX5. Involved in heart and limb development by mediating acetylation of TBX5, acetylation regulating nucleocytoplasmic shuttling of TBX5. Acts as a negative regulator of centrosome amplification by mediating acetylation of PLK4. Acts as a negative regulator of gluconeogenesis by mediating acetylation and subsequent inactivation of PPARGC1A. Also acts as a histone glutaryltransferase: catalyzes glutarylation of histone H4 on 'Lys-91' (H4K91glu), a mark that destabilizes nucleosomes by promoting dissociation of the H2A-H2B dimers from nucleosomes.

Functions as a histone acetyltransferase (HAT) to promote transcriptional activation. Has significant histone acetyltransferase activity with core histones (H3 and H4), and also with nucleosome core particles. Also acetylates non- histone proteins, such as ACLY, MAPRE1/EB1, PLK4, RRP9/U3-55K and TBX5. Inhibits cell-cycle progression and counteracts the mitogenic activity of the adenoviral oncoprotein E1A. Acts as a circadian transcriptional coactivator which enhances the activity of the circadian transcriptional activators: NPAS2-BMAL1 and CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimers. Involved in heart and limb development by mediating acetylation of TBX5, acetylation regulating nucleocytoplasmic shuttling of TBX5. Acts as a negative regulator of centrosome amplification by mediating acetylation of PLK4. Acetylates RRP9/U3-55K, a core subunit of the U3 snoRNP complex, impairing pre-rRNA processing. Acetylates MAPRE1/EB1, promoting dynamic kinetochore-microtubule interactions in early mitosis. Also acetylates spermidine.

Catalyzes the irreversible transamination of the L-tryptophan metabolite L-kynurenine to form kynurenic acid (KA), an intermediate in the tryptophan catabolic pathway which is also a broad spectrum antagonist of the three ionotropic excitatory amino acid receptors among others. May catalyze the beta-elimination of S-conjugates and Se- conjugates of L-(seleno)cysteine, resulting in the cleavage of the C-S or C-Se bond. Has transaminase activity towards L-kynurenine, tryptophan, phenylalanine, serine, cysteine, methionine, histidine, glutamine and asparagine with glyoxylate as an amino group acceptor (in vitro). Has lower activity with 2-oxoglutarate as amino group acceptor (in vitro).

Catalytic subunit of the NuA4 histone acetyltransferase complex, a multiprotein complex involved in transcriptional activation of select genes principally by acetylation of nucleosomal histones H2A and H4. Histone acetylation alters nucleosome-DNA interactions and promotes interaction of the modified histones with other proteins which positively regulate transcription. The NuA4 histone acetyltransferase complex is required for the activation of transcriptional programs associated with proto-oncogene mediated growth induction, tumor suppressor mediated growth arrest and replicative senescence, apoptosis, and DNA repair. The NuA4 complex plays a direct role in repair of DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) by promoting homologous recombination (HR): the complex inhibits TP53BP1 binding to chromatin via MBTD1, which recognizes and binds histone H4 trimethylated at 'Lys-20' (H4K20me), and KAT5 that catalyzes acetylation of 'Lys-15' of histone H2A (H2AK15ac), thereby blocking the ubiquitination mark required for TP53BP1 localization at DNA breaks. Also involved in DSB repair by mediating acetylation of 'Lys-5' of histone H2AX (H2AXK5ac), promoting NBN/NBS1 assembly at the sites of DNA damage. The NuA4 complex plays a key role in hematopoietic stem cell maintenance and is required to maintain acetylated H2A.Z/H2AZ1 at MYC target genes (By similarity). The NuA4 complex is also required for spermatid development by promoting acetylation of histones: histone hyperacetylation is required for histone replacement during the transition from round to elongating spermatids (By similarity). Component of a SWR1-like complex that specifically mediates the removal of histone H2A.Z/H2AZ1 from the nucleosome. Also acetylates non-histone proteins, such as BMAL1, ATM, AURKB, CHKA, CGAS, ERCC4/XPF, LPIN1, NDC80/HEC1, NR1D2, RAN, SOX4, FOXP3, ULK1 and RUBCNL/Pacer. Directly acetylates and activates ATM. Promotes nucleotide excision repair (NER) by mediating acetylation of ERCC4/XPF, thereby promoting formation of the ERCC4-ERCC1 complex. Relieves NR1D2-mediated inhibition of APOC3 expression by acetylating NR1D2. Acts as a regulator of regulatory T-cells (Treg) by catalyzing FOXP3 acetylation, thereby promoting FOXP3 transcriptional repressor activity. Involved in skeletal myoblast differentiation by mediating acetylation of SOX4. Catalyzes acetylation of APBB1/FE65, increasing its transcription activator activity. Promotes transcription elongation during the activation phase of the circadian cycle by catalyzing acetylation of BMAL1, promoting elongation of circadian transcripts (By similarity). Together with GSK3 (GSK3A or GSK3B), acts as a regulator of autophagy: phosphorylated at Ser-86 by GSK3 under starvation conditions, leading to activate acetyltransferase activity and promote acetylation of key autophagy regulators, such as ULK1 and RUBCNL/Pacer. Acts as a regulator of the cGAS-STING innate antiviral response by catalyzing acetylation the N-terminus of CGAS, thereby promoting CGAS DNA-binding and activation. Also regulates lipid metabolism by mediating acetylation of CHKA or LPIN1. Promotes lipolysis of lipid droplets following glucose deprivation by mediating acetylation of isoform 1 of CHKA, thereby promoting monomerization of CHKA and its conversion into a tyrosine-protein kinase. Acts as a regulator of fatty-acid-induced triacylglycerol synthesis by catalyzing acetylation of LPIN1, thereby promoting the synthesis of diacylglycerol. In addition to protein acetyltransferase, can use different acyl-CoA substrates, such as (2E)-butenoyl-CoA (crotonyl-CoA) and 2-hydroxyisobutanoyl-CoA (2-hydroxyisobutyryl-CoA), and is able to mediate protein crotonylation and 2-hydroxyisobutyrylation, respectively. Acts as a key regulator of chromosome segregation and kinetochore-microtubule attachment during mitosis by mediating acetylation or crotonylation of target proteins. Catalyzes acetylation of AURKB at kinetochores, increasing AURKB activity and promoting accurate chromosome segregation in mitosis. Acetylates RAN during mitosis, promoting microtubule assembly at mitotic chromosomes. Acetylates NDC80/HEC1 during mitosis, promoting robust kinetochore- microtubule attachment. Catalyzes crotonylation of MAPRE1/EB1, thereby ensuring accurate spindle positioning in mitosis.

Histone acetyltransferase that acetylates lysine residues in histone H3 and histone H4 (in vitro). Component of the MOZ/MORF complex which has a histone H3 acetyltransferase activity. May act as a transcriptional coactivator for RUNX1 and RUNX2. Acetylates p53/TP53 at 'Lys-120' and 'Lys-382' and controls its transcriptional activity via association with PML.

Histone acetyltransferase which may be involved in both positive and negative regulation of transcription. Required for RUNX2- dependent transcriptional activation. May be involved in cerebral cortex development. Component of the MOZ/MORF complex which has a histone H3 acetyltransferase activity.

Catalytic subunit of histone acetyltransferase HBO1 complexes, which specifically mediate acetylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-14' (H3K14ac), thereby regulating various processes, such as gene transcription, protein ubiquitination, immune regulation, stem cell pluripotent and self-renewal maintenance and embryonic development. Some complexes also catalyze acetylation of histone H4 at 'Lys-5', 'Lys-8' and 'Lys-12' (H4K5ac, H4K8ac and H4K12ac, respectively), regulating DNA replication initiation, regulating DNA replication initiation. Specificity of the HBO1 complexes is determined by the scaffold subunit: complexes containing BRPF scaffold (BRPF1, BRD1/BRPF2 or BRPF3) direct KAT7/HBO1 specificity towards H3K14ac, while complexes containing JADE (JADE1, JADE2 and JADE3) scaffold direct KAT7/HBO1 specificity towards histone H4. H3K14ac promotes transcriptional elongation by facilitating the processivity of RNA polymerase II. Acts as a key regulator of hematopoiesis by forming a complex with BRD1/BRPF2, directing KAT7/HBO1 specificity towards H3K14ac and promoting erythroid differentiation. H3K14ac is also required for T-cell development (By similarity). KAT7/HBO1-mediated acetylation facilitates two consecutive steps, licensing and activation, in DNA replication initiation: H3K14ac facilitates the activation of replication origins, and histone H4 acetylation (H4K5ac, H4K8ac and H4K12ac) facilitates chromatin loading of MCM complexes, promoting DNA replication licensing. Acts as a positive regulator of centromeric CENPA assembly: recruited to centromeres and mediates histone acetylation, thereby preventing centromere inactivation mediated by SUV39H1, possibly by increasing histone turnover/exchange. Involved in nucleotide excision repair: phosphorylation by ATR in response to ultraviolet irradiation promotes its localization to DNA damage sites, where it mediates histone acetylation to facilitate recruitment of XPC at the damaged DNA sites. Acts as an inhibitor of NF-kappa-B independently of its histone acetyltransferase activity.

Histone acetyltransferase which may be involved in transcriptional activation. May influence the function of ATM. As part of the MSL complex it is involved in acetylation of nucleosomal histone H4 producing specifically H4K16ac. As part of the NSL complex it may be involved in acetylation of nucleosomal histone H4 on several lysine residues. That activity is less specific than the one of the MSL complex. Can also acetylate TP53/p53 at 'Lys-120'.

May influence the stability of microtubules (MT), possibly through interaction with the MT-severing katanin complex.

Regulates microtubule dynamics in Sertoli cells, a process that is essential for spermiogenesis and male fertility. Severs microtubules in an ATP-dependent manner, promoting rapid reorganization of cellular microtubule arrays (By similarity). Has microtubule- severing activity in vitro.

Severs microtubules in vitro in an ATP-dependent manner. This activity may promote rapid reorganization of cellular microtubule arrays.

Involved in the proliferation of osteoblasts during bone formation and bone regeneration. Promotes matrix assembly (By similarity).

Component of the cornified envelope of keratinocytes. May be involved in the interplay between adherens junctions and desmosomes. The function in the nucleus is not known.

Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) dependent enzyme, which catalyzes the cleavage of 2-amino-3-oxobutanoate to glycine and acetyl-CoA.

Required for organization of axonal microtubules, and axonal outgrowth and maintenance during peripheral and central nervous system development.

Atypical Ras-like protein that acts as a potent regulator of NF-kappa-B activity by preventing the degradation of NF-kappa-B inhibitor beta (NFKBIB) by most signals, explaining why NFKBIB is more resistant to degradation. May act by blocking phosphorylation of NFKBIB and mediating cytoplasmic retention of p65/RELA NF-kappa-B subunit. It is unclear whether it acts as a GTPase. Both GTP- and GDP-bound forms block phosphorylation of NFKBIB.

Atypical Ras-like protein that acts as a potent regulator of NF-kappa-B activity by preventing the degradation of NF-kappa-B inhibitor beta (NFKBIB) by most signals, explaining why NFKBIB is more resistant to degradation. May act by blocking phosphorylation of NFKBIB and nuclear localization of p65/RELA NF-kappa-B subunit. It is unclear whether it acts as a GTPase. Both GTP- and GDP-bound forms block phosphorylation of NFKBIB (By similarity).

As part of the CUL3(KBTBD6/7) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex functions as a substrate adapter for the RAC1 guanine exchange factor (GEF) TIAM1, mediating its 'Lys-48' ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation. By controlling this ubiquitination, regulates RAC1 signal transduction and downstream biological processes including the organization of the cytoskeleton, cell migration and cell proliferation. Ubiquitination of TIAM1 requires the membrane-associated protein GABARAP which may restrict locally the activity of the complex.

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex that acts as a regulator of neural crest specification. The BCR(KBTBD8) complex acts by mediating monoubiquitination of NOLC1 and TCOF1: monoubiquitination promotes the formation of a NOLC1-TCOF1 complex that acts as a platform to connect RNA polymerase I with enzymes responsible for ribosomal processing and modification, leading to remodel the translational program of differentiating cells in favor of neural crest specification.

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex.

Casein kinases are operationally defined by their preferential utilization of acidic proteins such as caseins as substrates. It can phosphorylate a large number of proteins. Participates in Wnt signaling (By similarity).

Casein kinases are operationally defined by their preferential utilization of acidic proteins such as caseins as substrates. It can phosphorylate a large number of proteins. Participates in Wnt signaling. Phosphorylates CTNNB1 at 'Ser-45'. May phosphorylate PER1 and PER2. May play a role in segregating chromosomes during mitosis. May play a role in keratin cytoskeleton disassembly and thereby, it may regulate epithelial cell migration.

Essential serine/threonine-protein kinase that regulates diverse cellular growth and survival processes including Wnt signaling, DNA repair and circadian rhythms. It can phosphorylate a large number of proteins. Casein kinases are operationally defined by their preferential utilization of acidic proteins such as caseins as substrates. Phosphorylates connexin-43/GJA1, MAP1A, SNAPIN, MAPT/TAU, TOP2A, DCK, HIF1A, EIF6, p53/TP53, DVL2, DVL3, ESR1, AIB1/NCOA3, DNMT1, PKD2, YAP1, PER1 and PER2. Central component of the circadian clock. In balance with PP1, determines the circadian period length through the regulation of the speed and rhythmicity of PER1 and PER2 phosphorylation. Controls PER1 and PER2 nuclear transport and degradation. YAP1 phosphorylation promotes its SCF(beta-TRCP) E3 ubiquitin ligase-mediated ubiquitination and subsequent degradation. DNMT1 phosphorylation reduces its DNA-binding activity. Phosphorylation of ESR1 and AIB1/NCOA3 stimulates their activity and coactivation. Phosphorylation of DVL2 and DVL3 regulates WNT3A signaling pathway that controls neurite outgrowth. Phosphorylates NEDD9/HEF1 (By similarity). EIF6 phosphorylation promotes its nuclear export. Triggers down- regulation of dopamine receptors in the forebrain. Activates DCK in vitro by phosphorylation. TOP2A phosphorylation favors DNA cleavable complex formation. May regulate the formation of the mitotic spindle apparatus in extravillous trophoblast. Modulates connexin-43/GJA1 gap junction assembly by phosphorylation. Probably involved in lymphocyte physiology. Regulates fast synaptic transmission mediated by glutamate.

Casein kinases are operationally defined by their preferential utilization of acidic proteins such as caseins as substrates (Probable). Participates in Wnt signaling. Phosphorylates DVL1. Phosphorylates DVL2. Phosphorylates NEDD9/HEF1 (By similarity). Central component of the circadian clock. In balance with PP1, determines the circadian period length, through the regulation of the speed and rhythmicity of PER1 and PER2 phosphorylation. Controls PER1 and PER2 nuclear transport and degradation (By similarity). Inhibits cytokine-induced granuloytic differentiation.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase. Casein kinases are operationally defined by their preferential utilization of acidic proteins such as caseins as substrates. It can phosphorylate a large number of proteins. Participates in Wnt signaling. Regulates fast synaptic transmission mediated by glutamate (By similarity). Phosphorylates CLSPN.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase. Casein kinases are operationally defined by their preferential utilization of acidic proteins such as caseins as substrates. It can phosphorylate a large number of proteins. Participates in Wnt signaling. Phosphorylates COL4A3BP/CERT, MTA1 and SMAD3. Involved in brain development and vesicular trafficking and neurotransmitter releasing from small synaptic vesicles. Regulates fast synaptic transmission mediated by glutamate. SMAD3 phosphorylation promotes its ligand-dependent ubiquitination and subsequent proteasome degradation, thus inhibiting SMAD3-mediated TGF-beta responses. Hyperphosphorylation of the serine- repeat motif of COL4A3BP/CERT leads to its inactivation by dissociation from the Golgi complex, thus down-regulating ER-to-Golgi transport of ceramide and sphingomyelin synthesis. Triggers PER1 proteasomal degradation probably through phosphorylation.

Mediates voltage-dependent potassium ion permeability of excitable membranes. Assuming opened or closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane, the protein forms a potassium-selective channel through which potassium ions may pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. The channel activity is up-regulated by cAMP.

Cytoplasmic potassium channel subunit that modulates the characteristics of the channel-forming alpha-subunits (PubMed:7499366, PubMed:7603988, PubMed:17156368,PubMed:17540341, PubMed:19713757). Modulates action potentials via its effect on the pore-forming alpha subunits (By similarity). Promotes expression of the pore-forming alpha subunits at the cell membrane, and thereby increases channel activity (By similarity). Mediates closure of delayed rectifier potassium channels by physically obstructing the pore via its N-terminal domain and increases the speed of channel closure for other family members. Promotes the closure of KCNA1, KCNA2 and KCNA5 channels. Accelerates KCNA4 channel closure. Accelerates the closure of heteromeric channels formed by KCNA1 and KCNA4. Accelerates the closure of heteromeric channels formed by KCNA2, KCNA5 and KCNA6 (By similarity). Isoform KvB1.2 has no effect on KCNA1, KCNA2 or KCNB1. Enhances KCNB1 and KCNB2 channel activity (By similarity). Binds NADPH; this is required for efficient down- regulation of potassium channel activity. Has NADPH- dependent aldoketoreductase activity (By similarity). Oxidation of the bound NADPH strongly decreases N-type inactivation of potassium channel activity (By similarity).

Cytoplasmic potassium channel subunit that modulates the characteristics of the channel-forming alpha-subunits. Contributes to the regulation of nerve signaling, and prevents neuronal hyperexcitability (By similarity). Promotes expression of the pore-forming alpha subunits at the cell membrane, and thereby increases channel activity (By similarity). Promotes potassium channel closure via a mechanism that does not involve physical obstruction of the channel pore. Promotes KCNA4 channel closure. Modulates the functional properties of KCNA5 (By similarity). Enhances KCNB2 channel activity (By similarity). Binds NADPH and has NADPH- dependent aldoketoreductase activity (By similarity). Has broad substrate specificity and can catalyze the reduction of methylglyoxal, 9,10-phenanthrenequinone, prostaglandin J2, 4-nitrobenzaldehyde, 4- nitroacetophenone and 4-oxo-trans-2-nonenal (in vitro) (By similarity).

Accessory potassium channel protein which modulates the activity of the pore-forming alpha subunit. Alters the functional properties of Kv1.5.

Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase that operates in the calcium-triggered CaMKK-CaMK1 signaling cascade and, upon calcium influx, regulates transcription activators activity, cell cycle, hormone production, cell differentiation, actin filament organization and neurite outgrowth. Recognizes the substrate consensus sequence [MVLIF]-x-R-x(2)-[ST]-x(3)-[MVLIF]. Regulates axonal extension and growth cone motility in hippocampal and cerebellar nerve cells. Upon NMDA receptor-mediated Ca(2+) elevation, promotes dendritic growth in hippocampal neurons and is essential in synapses for full long-term potentiation (LTP) and ERK2-dependent translational activation. Downstream of NMDA receptors, promotes the formation of spines and synapses in hippocampal neurons by phosphorylating ARHGEF7/BETAPIX on 'Ser-694', which results in the enhancement of ARHGEF7 activity and activation of RAC1. Promotes neuronal differentiation and neurite outgrowth by activation and phosphorylation of MARK2 on 'Ser-91', 'Ser- 92', 'Ser-93' and 'Ser-294'. Promotes nuclear export of HDAC5 and binding to 14-3-3 by phosphorylation of 'Ser-259' and 'Ser-498' in the regulation of muscle cell differentiation. Regulates NUMB-mediated endocytosis by phosphorylation of NUMB on 'Ser-276' and 'Ser-295'. Involved in the regulation of basal and estrogen-stimulated migration of medulloblastoma cells through ARHGEF7/BETAPIX phosphorylation (By similarity). Is required for proper activation of cyclin-D1/CDK4 complex during G1 progression in diploid fibroblasts. Plays a role in K(+) and ANG2-mediated regulation of the aldosterone synthase (CYP11B2) to produce aldosterone in the adrenal cortex. Phosphorylates EIF4G3/eIF4GII. In vitro phosphorylates CREB1, ATF1, CFTR, MYL9 and SYN1/synapsin I.

Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase belonging to a proposed calcium-triggered signaling cascade. In vitro phosphorylates CREB1 and SYN1/synapsin I. Phosphorylates and activates CAMK1 (By similarity).

Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase that operates in the calcium-triggered CaMKK-CaMK1 signaling cascade and, upon calcium influx, activates CREB-dependent gene transcription, regulates calcium- mediated granulocyte function and respiratory burst and promotes basal dendritic growth of hippocampal neurons. In neutrophil cells, required for cytokine-induced proliferative responses and activation of the respiratory burst. Activates the transcription factor CREB1 in hippocampal neuron nuclei. May play a role in apoptosis of erythroleukemia cells. In vitro, phosphorylates transcription factor CREM isoform Beta.

Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase belonging to a proposed calcium-triggered signaling cascade. In vitro phosphorylates transcription factor CREB1 (By similarity).

Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase that functions autonomously after Ca(2+)/calmodulin-binding and autophosphorylation, and is involved in various processes, such as synaptic plasticity, neurotransmitter release and long-term potentiation. Member of the NMDAR signaling complex in excitatory synapses, it regulates NMDAR-dependent potentiation of the AMPAR and therefore excitatory synaptic transmission (By similarity). Regulates dendritic spine development. Also regulates the migration of developing neurons. Phosphorylates the transcription factor FOXO3 to activate its transcriptional activity. Phosphorylates the transcription factor ETS1 in response to calcium signaling, thereby decreasing ETS1 affinity for DNA (By similarity). In response to interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma) stimulation, catalyzes phosphorylation of STAT1, stimulating the JAK- STAT signaling pathway. In response to interferon- beta (IFN-beta) stimulation, stimulates the JAK-STAT signaling pathway. Acts as a negative regulator of 2- arachidonoylglycerol (2-AG)-mediated synaptic signaling via modulation of DAGLA activity (By similarity).

Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase that functions autonomously after Ca(2+)/calmodulin-binding and autophosphorylation, and is involved in dendritic spine and synapse formation, neuronal plasticity and regulation of sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+) transport in skeletal muscle. In neurons, plays an essential structural role in the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton during plasticity by binding and bundling actin filaments in a kinase- independent manner. This structural function is required for correct targeting of CaMK2A, which acts downstream of NMDAR to promote dendritic spine and synapse formation and maintain synaptic plasticity which enables long-term potentiation (LTP) and hippocampus-dependent learning. In developing hippocampal neurons, promotes arborization of the dendritic tree and in mature neurons, promotes dendritic remodeling. Also regulates the migration of developing neurons. Participates in the modulation of skeletal muscle function in response to exercise. In slow-twitch muscles, is involved in regulation of sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) Ca(2+) transport and in fast-twitch muscle participates in the control of Ca(2+) release from the SR through phosphorylation of triadin, a ryanodine receptor-coupling factor, and phospholamban (PLN/PLB), an endogenous inhibitor of SERCA2A/ATP2A2. In response to interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma) stimulation, catalyzes phosphorylation of STAT1, stimulating the JAK-STAT signaling pathway (By similarity). Phosphorylates reticulophagy regulator RETREG1 at 'Ser-151' under endoplasmic reticulum stress conditions which enhances RETREG1 oligomerization and its membrane scission and reticulophagy activity.

Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase that operates in the calcium-triggered CaMKK-CaMK4 signaling cascade and regulates, mainly by phosphorylation, the activity of several transcription activators, such as CREB1, MEF2D, JUN and RORA, which play pivotal roles in immune response, inflammation, and memory consolidation. In the thymus, regulates the CD4(+)/CD8(+) double positive thymocytes selection threshold during T-cell ontogeny. In CD4 memory T-cells, is required to link T-cell antigen receptor (TCR) signaling to the production of IL2, IFNG and IL4 (through the regulation of CREB and MEF2). Regulates the differentiation and survival phases of osteoclasts and dendritic cells (DCs). Mediates DCs survival by linking TLR4 and the regulation of temporal expression of BCL2. Phosphorylates the transcription activator CREB1 on 'Ser-133' in hippocampal neuron nuclei and contribute to memory consolidation and long term potentiation (LTP) in the hippocampus. Can activate the MAP kinases MAPK1/ERK2, MAPK8/JNK1 and MAPK14/p38 and stimulate transcription through the phosphorylation of ELK1 and ATF2. Can also phosphorylate in vitro CREBBP, PRM2, MEF2A and STMN1/OP18.

Plays a role as a marker and a regulator of neuronal differentiation; Up-regulated by a variety of neurogenic signals, such as retinoic acid, epidermal growth factor/EGF and NGFB/nerve growth factor. Induces apoptosis, growth arrest and the expression of cyclin- dependent kinase inhibitor CDKN1B. Plays a role as a tumor repressor and inhibits cell growth and tumorigenicity of medulloblastoma (MDB). Acts as probable substrate-specific adapter for a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex towards HDAC1. Functions as antagonist of the Hedgehog pathway on cell proliferation and differentiation by affecting the nuclear transfer of transcription factor GLI1, thus maintaining cerebellar granule cells in undifferentiated state, this effect probably occurs via HDAC1 down- regulation, keeping GLI1 acetylated and inactive. When knock-down, Hedgehog antagonism is impaired and proliferation of granule cells is sustained. Activates the caspase cascade.

Auxiliary subunit of GABA-B receptors that determine the pharmacology and kinetics of the receptor response. Increases agonist potency and markedly alter the G-protein signaling of the receptors by accelerating onset and promoting desensitization (By similarity).

During embryonic development, interferes with neural crest formation (By similarity). Inhibits AP2 transcriptional activity by interaction with its activation domain.

Is a positive regulator of ciliogenesis, playing a crucial role in the initial steps of axoneme extension. It acts as a substrate- adapter for CUL3-RING ubiquitin ligase complexes which mediate the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of TCHP, a protein involved in ciliogenesis down-regulation. May be involved in endoplasmic reticulum calcium ion homeostasis.

Probable substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex mediating the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Promotes the ubiquitination of HDAC1. Can function as antagonist of the Hedgehog pathway by affecting the nuclear transfer of transcription factor GLI1; the function probably occurs via HDAC1 down-regulation, keeping GLI1 acetylated and inactive. Inhibits cell growth and tumorigenicity of medulloblastoma (MDB).

Regulatory subunit of Kv4/D (Shal)-type voltage-gated rapidly inactivating A-type potassium channels. Regulates channel density, inactivation kinetics and rate of recovery from inactivation in a calcium-dependent and isoform-specific manner. In vitro, modulates KCND1/Kv4.1 and KCND2/Kv4.2 currents. Increases the presence of KCND2 at the cell surface.

Regulatory subunit of Kv4/D (Shal)-type voltage-gated rapidly inactivating A-type potassium channels. Modulates channel density, inactivation kinetics and rate of recovery from inactivation in a calcium-dependent and isoform-specific manner. In vitro, modulates KCND2/Kv4.2 and KCND3/Kv4.3 currents. Involved in KCND2 and KCND3 trafficking to the cell surface. May be required for the expression of I(To) currents in the heart (By similarity).

Regulatory subunit of Kv4/D (Shal)-type voltage-gated rapidly inactivating A-type potassium channels. Modulates KCND2 channel density, inactivation kinetics and rate of recovery from inactivation in a calcium-dependent and isoform-specific manner. Modulates KCND3/Kv4.3 currents. Isoform 4 does not increase KCND2 expression at the cell membrane. Isoform 4 retains KCND3 in the endoplasmic reticulum and negatively regulates its expression at the cell membrane.

May be responsible for potassium buffering action of glial cells in the brain. Inward rectifier potassium channels are characterized by a greater tendency to allow potassium to flow into the cell rather than out of it. Their voltage dependence is regulated by the concentration of extracellular potassium; as external potassium is raised, the voltage range of the channel opening shifts to more positive voltages. The inward rectification is mainly due to the blockage of outward current by internal magnesium. Can be blocked by extracellular barium and cesium (By similarity). In the kidney, together with KCNJ16, mediates basolateral K(+) recycling in distal tubules; this process is critical for Na(+) reabsorption at the tubules.

This receptor is controlled by G proteins. Inward rectifier potassium channels are characterized by a greater tendency to allow potassium to flow into the cell rather than out of it. Their voltage dependence is regulated by the concentration of extracellular potassium; as external potassium is raised, the voltage range of the channel opening shifts to more positive voltages. The inward rectification is mainly due to the blockage of outward current by internal magnesium. Can be blocked by extracellular barium (By similarity). Subunit of ATP-sensitive potassium channels (KATP). Can form cardiac and smooth muscle-type KATP channels with ABCC9. KCNJ11 forms the channel pore while ABCC9 is required for activation and regulation.

Inward rectifying potassium channel that is activated by phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate and that probably participates in controlling the resting membrane potential in electrically excitable cells. Probably participates in establishing action potential waveform and excitability of neuronal and muscle tissues. Inward rectifier potassium channels are characterized by a greater tendency to allow potassium to flow into the cell rather than out of it. Their voltage dependence is regulated by the concentration of extracellular potassium; as external potassium is raised, the voltage range of the channel opening shifts to more positive voltages. The inward rectification is mainly due to the blockage of outward current by internal magnesium.

Inward rectifier potassium channels are characterized by a greater tendency to allow potassium to flow into the cell rather than out of it. Their voltage dependence is regulated by the concentration of extracellular potassium; as external potassium is raised, the voltage range of the channel opening shifts to more positive voltages. The inward rectification is mainly due to the blockage of outward current by internal magnesium. KCNJ13 has a very low single channel conductance, low sensitivity to block by external barium and cesium, and no dependence of its inward rectification properties on the internal blocking particle magnesium

Inward rectifier potassium channels are characterized by a greater tendency to allow potassium to flow into the cell rather than out of it. Their voltage dependence is regulated by the concentration of extracellular potassium; as external potassium is raised, the voltage range of the channel opening shifts to more positive voltages. The inward rectification is mainly due to the blockage of outward current by internal magnesium. KCNJ14 gives rise to low-conductance channels with a low affinity to the channel blockers Barium and Cesium (By similarity).

Inward rectifier potassium channels are characterized by a greater tendency to allow potassium to flow into the cell rather than out of it. Their voltage dependence is regulated by the concentration of extracellular potassium; as external potassium is raised, the voltage range of the channel opening shifts to more positive voltages. The inward rectification is mainly due to the blockage of outward current by internal magnesium

Inward rectifier potassium channels are characterized by a greater tendency to allow potassium to flow into the cell rather than out of it. Their voltage dependence is regulated by the concentration of extracellular potassium; as external potassium is raised, the voltage range of the channel opening shifts to more positive voltages. The inward rectification is mainly due to the blockage of outward current by internal magnesium. KCNJ16 may be involved in the regulation of fluid and pH balance. In the kidney, together with KCNJ10, mediates basolateral K(+) recycling in distal tubules; this process is critical for Na(+) reabsorption at the tubules.

Inward rectifier potassium channels are characterized by a greater tendency to allow potassium to flow into the cell rather than out of it. Their voltage dependence is regulated by the concentration of extracellular potassium; as external potassium is raised, the voltage range of the channel opening shifts to more positive voltages. The inward rectification is mainly due to the blockage of outward current by internal magnesium.

Potassium channel activated by both membrane depolarization or increase in cytosolic Ca(2+) that mediates export of K(+). It is also activated by the concentration of cytosolic Mg(2+). Its activation dampens the excitatory events that elevate the cytosolic Ca(2+) concentration and/or depolarize the cell membrane. It therefore contributes to repolarization of the membrane potential. Plays a key role in controlling excitability in a number of systems, such as regulation of the contraction of smooth muscle, the tuning of hair cells in the cochlea, regulation of transmitter release, and innate immunity. In smooth muscles, its activation by high level of Ca(2+), caused by ryanodine receptors in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, regulates the membrane potential. In cochlea cells, its number and kinetic properties partly determine the characteristic frequency of each hair cell and thereby helps to establish a tonotopic map. Kinetics of KCNMA1 channels are determined by alternative splicing, phosphorylation status and its combination with modulating beta subunits. Highly sensitive to both iberiotoxin (IbTx) and charybdotoxin (CTX).

Regulatory subunit of the calcium activated potassium KCNMA1 (maxiK) channel. Modulates the calcium sensitivity and gating kinetics of KCNMA1, thereby contributing to KCNMA1 channel diversity. Increases the apparent Ca(2+)/voltage sensitivity of the KCNMA1 channel. It also modifies KCNMA1 channel kinetics and alters its pharmacological properties. It slows down the activation and the deactivation kinetics of the channel. Acts as a negative regulator of smooth muscle contraction by enhancing the calcium sensitivity to KCNMA1. Its presence is also a requirement for internal binding of the KCNMA1 channel opener dehydrosoyasaponin I (DHS-1) triterpene glycoside and for external binding of the agonist hormone 17-beta-estradiol (E2). Increases the binding activity of charybdotoxin (CTX) toxin to KCNMA1 peptide blocker by increasing the CTX association rate and decreasing the dissociation rate

Regulatory subunit of the calcium activated potassium KCNMA1 (maxiK) channel. Modulates the calcium sensitivity and gating kinetics of KCNMA1, thereby contributing to KCNMA1 channel diversity. Acts as a negative regulator that confers rapid and complete inactivation of KCNMA1 channel complex. May participate in KCNMA1 inactivation in chromaffin cells of the adrenal gland or in hippocampal CA1 neurons.

Regulatory subunit of the calcium activated potassium KCNMA1 (maxiK) channel. Modulates the calcium sensitivity and gating kinetics of KCNMA1, thereby contributing to KCNMA1 channel diversity. Alters the functional properties of the current expressed by the KCNMA1 channel. Isoform 2, isoform 3 and isoform 4 partially inactivate the current of KCNBMA. Isoform 4 induces a fast and incomplete inactivation of KCNMA1 channel that is detectable only at large depolarizations. In contrast, isoform 1 does not induce detectable inactivation of KCNMA1. Two or more subunits of KCNMB3 are required to block the KCNMA1 tetramer.

Regulatory subunit of the calcium activated potassium KCNMA1 (maxiK) channel. Modulates the calcium sensitivity and gating kinetics of KCNMA1, thereby contributing to KCNMA1 channel diversity. Decreases the gating kinetics and calcium sensitivity of the KCNMA1 channel, but with fast deactivation kinetics. May decrease KCNMA1 channel openings at low calcium concentrations but increases channel openings at high calcium concentrations. Makes KCNMA1 channel resistant to 100 nM charybdotoxin (CTX) toxin concentrations.

Has intrinsic E3 ubiquitin ligase activity and promotes ubiquitination.

Voltage-gated potassium channel that mediates transmembrane potassium transport in excitable membranes, primarily in the brain and the central nervous system, but also in the kidney. Contributes to the regulation of the membrane potential and nerve signaling, and prevents neuronal hyperexcitability. Forms tetrameric potassium-selective channels through which potassium ions pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. The channel alternates between opened and closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane. Can form functional homotetrameric channels and heterotetrameric channels that contain variable proportions of KCNA1, KCNA2, KCNA4, KCNA5, KCNA6, KCNA7, and possibly other family members as well; channel properties depend on the type of alpha subunits that are part of the channel. Channel properties are modulated by cytoplasmic beta subunits that regulate the subcellular location of the alpha subunits and promote rapid inactivation of delayed rectifier potassium channels. In vivo, membranes probably contain a mixture of heteromeric potassium channel complexes, making it difficult to assign currents observed in intact tissues to any particular potassium channel family member. Homotetrameric KCNA1 forms a delayed-rectifier potassium channel that opens in response to membrane depolarization, followed by slow spontaneous channel closure. In contrast, a heterotetrameric channel formed by KCNA1 and KCNA4 shows rapid inactivation. Regulates neuronal excitability in hippocampus, especially in mossy fibers and medial perforant path axons, preventing neuronal hyperexcitability. Response to toxins that are selective for KCNA1, respectively for KCNA2, suggests that heteromeric potassium channels composed of both KCNA1 and KCNA2 play a role in pacemaking and regulate the output of deep cerebellar nuclear neurons (By similarity). May function as down-stream effector for G protein-coupled receptors and inhibit GABAergic inputs to basolateral amygdala neurons (By similarity). May contribute to the regulation of neurotransmitter release, such as gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) release (By similarity). Plays a role in regulating the generation of action potentials and preventing hyperexcitability in myelinated axons of the vagus nerve, and thereby contributes to the regulation of heart contraction (By similarity). Required for normal neuromuscular responses. Regulates the frequency of neuronal action potential firing in response to mechanical stimuli, and plays a role in the perception of pain caused by mechanical stimuli, but does not play a role in the perception of pain due to heat stimuli (By similarity). Required for normal responses to auditory stimuli and precise location of sound sources, but not for sound perception (By similarity). The use of toxins that block specific channels suggest that it contributes to the regulation of the axonal release of the neurotransmitter dopamine (By similarity). Required for normal postnatal brain development and normal proliferation of neuronal precursor cells in the brain (By similarity). Plays a role in the reabsorption of Mg(2+) in the distal convoluted tubules in the kidney and in magnesium ion homeostasis, probably via its effect on the membrane potential.

Voltage-gated potassium channel that mediates transmembrane potassium transport in excitable membranes, primarily in the brain and the central nervous system, but also in the cardiovascular system. Prevents aberrant action potential firing and regulates neuronal output. Forms tetrameric potassium-selective channels through which potassium ions pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. The channel alternates between opened and closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane. Can form functional homotetrameric channels and heterotetrameric channels that contain variable proportions of KCNA1, KCNA2, KCNA4, KCNA5, KCNA6, KCNA7, and possibly other family members as well; channel properties depend on the type of alpha subunits that are part of the channel. Channel properties are modulated by cytoplasmic beta subunits that regulate the subcellular location of the alpha subunits and promote rapid inactivation of delayed rectifier potassium channels. In vivo, membranes probably contain a mixture of heteromeric potassium channel complexes, making it difficult to assign currents observed in intact tissues to any particular potassium channel family member. Homotetrameric KCNA2 forms a delayed-rectifier potassium channel that opens in response to membrane depolarization, followed by slow spontaneous channel closure. In contrast, a heteromultimer formed by KCNA2 and KCNA4 shows rapid inactivation. Regulates neuronal excitability and plays a role as pacemaker in the regulation of neuronal action potentials (By similarity). KCNA2- containing channels play a presynaptic role and prevent hyperexcitability and aberrant action potential firing (By similarity). Response to toxins that are selective for KCNA2-containing potassium channels suggests that in Purkinje cells, dendritic subthreshold KCNA2- containing potassium channels prevent random spontaneous calcium spikes, suppressing dendritic hyperexcitability without hindering the generation of somatic action potentials, and thereby play an important role in motor coordination (By similarity). Plays a role in the induction of long-term potentiation of neuron excitability in the CA3 layer of the hippocampus (By similarity). May function as down-stream effector for G protein-coupled receptors and inhibit GABAergic inputs to basolateral amygdala neurons (By similarity). May contribute to the regulation of neurotransmitter release, such as gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) (By similarity). Contributes to the regulation of the axonal release of the neurotransmitter dopamine (By similarity). Reduced KCNA2 expression plays a role in the perception of neuropathic pain after peripheral nerve injury, but not acute pain (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of the time spent in non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep (By similarity).

Mediates the voltage-dependent potassium ion permeability of excitable membranes. Assuming opened or closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane, the protein forms a potassium-selective channel through which potassium ions may pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient

Voltage-gated potassium channel that mediates transmembrane potassium transport in excitable membranes. Forms tetrameric potassium- selective channels through which potassium ions pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. The channel alternates between opened and closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane. Can form functional homotetrameric channels and heterotetrameric channels that contain variable proportions of KCNA1, KCNA2, KCNA4, KCNA5, and possibly other family members as well; channel properties depend on the type of alpha subunits that are part of the channel. Channel properties are modulated by cytoplasmic beta subunits that regulate the subcellular location of the alpha subunits and promote rapid inactivation. In vivo, membranes probably contain a mixture of heteromeric potassium channel complexes, making it difficult to assign currents observed in intact tissues to any particular potassium channel family member. Homotetrameric KCNA4 forms a potassium channel that opens in response to membrane depolarization, followed by rapid spontaneous channel closure. Likewise, a heterotetrameric channel formed by KCNA1 and KCNA4 shows rapid inactivation.

Voltage-gated potassium channel that mediates transmembrane potassium transport in excitable membranes. Forms tetrameric potassium- selective channels through which potassium ions pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. The channel alternates between opened and closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane. Can form functional homotetrameric channels and heterotetrameric channels that contain variable proportions of KCNA1, KCNA2, KCNA4, KCNA5, and possibly other family members as well; channel properties depend on the type of alpha subunits that are part of the channel. Channel properties are modulated by cytoplasmic beta subunits that regulate the subcellular location of the alpha subunits and promote rapid inactivation. Homotetrameric channels display rapid activation and slow inactivation. May play a role in regulating the secretion of insulin in normal pancreatic islets. Isoform 2 exhibits a voltage-dependent recovery from inactivation and an excessive cumulative inactivation.

Voltage-gated potassium channel that mediates transmembrane potassium transport in excitable membranes. Forms tetrameric potassium- selective channels through which potassium ions pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. The channel alternates between opened and closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane. Can form functional homotetrameric channels and heterotetrameric channels that contain variable proportions of KCNA1, KCNA2, KCNA4, KCNA6, and possibly other family members as well; channel properties depend on the type of alpha subunits that are part of the channel (By similarity). Channel properties are modulated by cytoplasmic beta subunits that regulate the subcellular location of the alpha subunits and promote rapid inactivation (By similarity). Homotetrameric channels display rapid activation and slow inactivation.

Mediates the voltage-dependent potassium ion permeability of excitable membranes. Assuming opened or closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane, the protein forms a potassium-selective channel through which potassium ions may pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient (By similarity).

Voltage-gated potassium channel that mediates transmembrane potassium transport in excitable membranes, primarily in the brain, but also in the pancreas and cardiovascular system. Contributes to the regulation of the action potential (AP) repolarization, duration and frequency of repetitive AP firing in neurons, muscle cells and endocrine cells and plays a role in homeostatic attenuation of electrical excitability throughout the brain. Plays also a role in the regulation of exocytosis independently of its electrical function (By similarity). Forms tetrameric potassium- selective channels through which potassium ions pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. The channel alternates between opened and closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane. Homotetrameric channels mediate a delayed-rectifier voltage-dependent outward potassium current that display rapid activation and slow inactivation in response to membrane depolarization. Can form functional homotetrameric and heterotetrameric channels that contain variable proportions of KCNB2; channel properties depend on the type of alpha subunits that are part of the channel (By similarity). Can also form functional heterotetrameric channels with other alpha subunits that are non-conducting when expressed alone, such as KCNF1, KCNG1, KCNG3, KCNG4, KCNH1, KCNH2, KCNS1, KCNS2, KCNS3 and KCNV1, creating a functionally diverse range of channel complexes. Heterotetrameric channel activity formed with KCNS3 show increased current amplitude with the threshold for action potential activation shifted towards more negative values in hypoxic- treated pulmonary artery smooth muscle cells (By similarity). Channel properties are also modulated by cytoplasmic ancillary beta subunits such as AMIGO1, KCNE1, KCNE2 and KCNE3, slowing activation and inactivation rate of the delayed rectifier potassium channels (By similarity). In vivo, membranes probably contain a mixture of heteromeric potassium channel complexes, making it difficult to assign currents observed in intact tissues to any particular potassium channel family member. Major contributor to the slowly inactivating delayed- rectifier voltage-gated potassium current in neurons of the central nervous system, sympathetic ganglion neurons, neuroendocrine cells, pancreatic beta cells, cardiomyocytes and smooth muscle cells. Mediates the major part of the somatodendritic delayed-rectifier potassium current in hippocampal and cortical pyramidal neurons and sympathetic superior cervical ganglion (CGC) neurons that acts to slow down periods of firing, especially during high frequency stimulation. Plays a role in the induction of long-term potentiation (LTP) of neuron excitability in the CA3 layer of the hippocampus (By similarity). Contributes to the regulation of glucose-induced action potential amplitude and duration in pancreatic beta cells, hence limiting calcium influx and insulin secretion. Plays a role in the regulation of resting membrane potential and contraction in hypoxia-treated pulmonary artery smooth muscle cells. May contribute to the regulation of the duration of both the action potential of cardiomyocytes and the heart ventricular repolarization QT interval. Contributes to the pronounced pro-apoptotic potassium current surge during neuronal apoptotic cell death in response to oxidative injury. May confer neuroprotection in response to hypoxia/ischemic insults by suppressing pyramidal neurons hyperexcitability in hippocampal and cortical regions (By similarity). Promotes trafficking of KCNG3, KCNH1 and KCNH2 to the cell surface membrane, presumably by forming heterotetrameric channels with these subunits. Plays a role in the calcium-dependent recruitment and release of fusion-competent vesicles from the soma of neurons, neuroendocrine and glucose-induced pancreatic beta cells by binding key components of the fusion machinery in a pore-independent manner (By similarity).

Voltage-gated potassium channel that mediates transmembrane potassium transport in excitable membranes, primarily in the brain and smooth muscle cells. Channels open or close in response to the voltage difference across the membrane, letting potassium ions pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. Homotetrameric channels mediate a delayed-rectifier voltage-dependent outward potassium current that display rapid activation and slow inactivation in response to membrane depolarization. Can form functional homotetrameric and heterotetrameric channels that contain variable proportions of KCNB1; channel properties depend on the type of alpha subunits that are part of the channel. Can also form functional heterotetrameric channels with other alpha subunits that are non-conducting when expressed alone, such as KCNS1 and KCNS2, creating a functionally diverse range of channel complexes. In vivo, membranes probably contain a mixture of heteromeric potassium channel complexes, making it difficult to assign currents observed in intact tissues to any particular potassium channel family member. Contributes to the delayed-rectifier voltage-gated potassium current in cortical pyramidal neurons and smooth muscle cells.

Voltage-gated potassium channel that plays an important role in the rapid repolarization of fast-firing brain neurons. The channel opens in response to the voltage difference across the membrane, forming a potassium-selective channel through which potassium ions pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. Can form functional homotetrameric channels and heterotetrameric channels that contain variable proportions of KCNC2, and possibly other family members as well. Contributes to fire sustained trains of very brief action potentials at high frequency in pallidal neurons.

Voltage-gated potassium channel that mediates transmembrane potassium transport in excitable membranes, primarily in the brain. Contributes to the regulation of the fast action potential repolarization and in sustained high-frequency firing in neurons of the central nervous system. Homotetramer channels mediate delayed-rectifier voltage-dependent potassium currents that activate rapidly at high- threshold voltages and inactivate slowly. Forms tetrameric channels through which potassium ions pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. The channel alternates between opened and closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane. Can form functional homotetrameric and heterotetrameric channels that contain variable proportions of KCNC1, and possibly other family members as well; channel properties depend on the type of alpha subunits that are part of the channel. Channel properties may be modulated either by the association with ancillary subunits, such as KCNE1, KCNE2 or KCNE3 or indirectly by nitric oxide (NO) through a cGMP- and PKG-mediated signaling cascade, slowing channel activation and deactivation of delayed rectifier potassium channels (By similarity). Contributes to fire sustained trains of very brief action potentials at high frequency in retinal ganglion cells, thalamocortical and suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) neurons and in hippocampal and neocortical interneurons. Sustained maximal action potential firing frequency in inhibitory hippocampal interneurons is negatively modulated by histamine H2 receptor activation in a cAMP- and protein kinase (PKA) phosphorylation- dependent manner. Plays a role in maintaining the fidelity of synaptic transmission in neocortical GABAergic interneurons by generating action potential (AP) repolarization at nerve terminals, thus reducing spike- evoked calcium influx and GABA neurotransmitter release. Required for long-range synchronization of gamma oscillations over distance in the neocortex. Contributes to the modulation of the circadian rhythm of spontaneous action potential firing in suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) neurons in a light-dependent manner (By similarity).

Voltage-gated potassium channel that plays an important role in the rapid repolarization of fast-firing brain neurons. The channel opens in response to the voltage difference across the membrane, forming a potassium-selective channel through which potassium ions pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. The channel displays rapid activation and inactivation kinetics. It plays a role in the regulation of the frequency, shape and duration of action potentials in Purkinje cells. Required for normal survival of cerebellar neurons, probably via its role in regulating the duration and frequency of action potentials that in turn regulate the activity of voltage-gated Ca(2+) channels and cellular Ca(2+) homeostasis (By similarity). Required for normal motor function. Plays a role in the reorganization of the cortical actin cytoskeleton and the formation of actin veil structures in neuronal growth cones via its interaction with HAX1 and the Arp2/3 complex.

This protein mediates the voltage-dependent potassium ion permeability of excitable membranes. Assuming opened or closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane, the protein forms a potassium-selective channel through which potassium ions may pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient

Pore-forming (alpha) subunit of voltage-gated rapidly inactivating A-type potassium channels. May contribute to I(To) current in heart and I(Sa) current in neurons. Channel properties are modulated by interactions with other alpha subunits and with regulatory subunits

Voltage-gated potassium channel that mediates transmembrane potassium transport in excitable membranes, primarily in the brain. Mediates the major part of the dendritic A-type current I(SA) in brain neurons (By similarity). This current is activated at membrane potentials that are below the threshold for action potentials. It regulates neuronal excitability, prolongs the latency before the first spike in a series of action potentials, regulates the frequency of repetitive action potential firing, shortens the duration of action potentials and regulates the back-propagation of action potentials from the neuronal cell body to the dendrites. Contributes to the regulation of the circadian rhythm of action potential firing in suprachiasmatic nucleus neurons, which regulates the circadian rhythm of locomotor activity (By similarity). Functions downstream of the metabotropic glutamate receptor GRM5 and plays a role in neuronal excitability and in nociception mediated by activation of GRM5 (By similarity). Mediates the transient outward current I(to) in rodent heart left ventricle apex cells, but not in human heart, where this current is mediated by another family member. Forms tetrameric potassium-selective channels through which potassium ions pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. The channel alternates between opened and closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane. Can form functional homotetrameric channels and heterotetrameric channels that contain variable proportions of KCND2 and KCND3; channel properties depend on the type of pore-forming alpha subunits that are part of the channel. In vivo, membranes probably contain a mixture of heteromeric potassium channel complexes. Interaction with specific isoforms of the regulatory subunits KCNIP1, KCNIP2, KCNIP3 or KCNIP4 strongly increases expression at the cell surface and thereby increases channel activity; it modulates the kinetics of channel activation and inactivation, shifts the threshold for channel activation to more negative voltage values, shifts the threshold for inactivation to less negative voltages and accelerates recovery after inactivation. Likewise, interaction with DPP6 or DPP10 promotes expression at the cell membrane and regulates both channel characteristics and activity (By similarity).

Pore-forming (alpha) subunit of voltage-gated rapidly inactivating A-type potassium channels. May contribute to I(To) current in heart and I(Sa) current in neurons. Channel properties are modulated by interactions with other alpha subunits and with regulatory subunits.

Ancillary protein that assembles as a beta subunit with a voltage-gated potassium channel complex of pore-forming alpha subunits. Modulates the gating kinetics and enhances stability of the channel complex. Assembled with KCNB1 modulates the gating characteristics of the delayed rectifier voltage-dependent potassium channel KCNB1. Assembled with KCNQ1/KVLQT1 is proposed to form the slowly activating delayed rectifier cardiac potassium (IKs) channel. The outward current reaches its steady state only after 50 seconds. Assembled with KCNH2/HERG may modulate the rapidly activating component of the delayed rectifying potassium current in heart (IKr).

Ancillary protein that assembles as a beta subunit with a voltage-gated potassium channel complex of pore-forming alpha subunits. Modulates the gating kinetics and enhances stability of the channel complex. Assembled with KCNB1 modulates the gating characteristics of the delayed rectifier voltage-dependent potassium channel KCNB1. Associated with KCNH2/HERG is proposed to form the rapidly activating component of the delayed rectifying potassium current in heart (IKr). May associate with KCNQ2 and/or KCNQ3 and modulate the native M-type current. May associate with HCN1 and HCN2 and increase potassium current. Interacts with KCNQ1; forms a heterooligomer complex leading to currents with an apparently instantaneous activation, a rapid deactivation process and a linear current-voltage relationship and decreases the amplitude of the outward current.

Ancillary protein that assembles as a beta subunit with a voltage-gated potassium channel complex of pore-forming alpha subunits. Modulates the gating kinetics and enhances stability of the channel complex. Assembled with KCNB1 modulates the gating characteristics of the delayed rectifier voltage-dependent potassium channel KCNB1. Associated with KCNC4/Kv3.4 is proposed to form the subthreshold voltage-gated potassium channel in skeletal muscle and to establish the resting membrane potential (RMP) in muscle cells. Associated with KCNQ1/KCLQT1 may form the intestinal cAMP-stimulated potassium channel involved in chloride secretion that produces a current with nearly instantaneous activation with a linear current- voltage relationship.

Ancillary protein that assembles as a beta subunit with a voltage-gated potassium channel complex of pore-forming alpha subunits. Modulates the gating kinetics and enhances stability of the channel complex. May associate with KCNQ1/KVLTQ1 and inhibit potassium current

Potassium channel ancillary subunit that is essential for generation of some native K(+) currents by virtue of formation of heteromeric ion channel complex with voltage-gated potassium (Kv) channel pore-forming alpha subunits. Functions as an inhibitory beta- subunit of the repolarizing cardiac potassium ion channel KCNQ1.

Potassium channel subunit that does not form functional channels by itself. Can form functional heterotetrameric channels with KCNB1; modulates the delayed rectifier voltage-gated potassium channel activation and deactivation rates of KCNB1.

Potassium channel subunit. Modulates channel activity by shifting the threshold and the half-maximal activation to more negative values

Potassium channel subunit that does not form functional channels by itself. Can form functional heterotetrameric channels with KCNB1; this promotes a reduction in the rate of activation and inactivation of the delayed rectifier voltage- gated potassium channel KCNB1.

Pore-forming (alpha) subunit of a voltage-gated delayed rectifier potassium channel. Channel properties are modulated by subunit assembly. Mediates IK(NI) current in myoblasts. Involved in the regulation of cell proliferation and differentiation, in particular adipogenic and osteogenic differentiation in bone marrow-derived mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs).

Pore-forming (alpha) subunit of voltage-gated inwardly rectifying potassium channel. Channel properties are modulated by cAMP and subunit assembly. Mediates the rapidly activating component of the delayed rectifying potassium current in heart (IKr).

Pore-forming (alpha) subunit of voltage-gated potassium channel. Elicits an outward current with fast inactivation. Channel properties may be modulated by cAMP and subunit assembly

Pore-forming (alpha) subunit of voltage-gated potassium channel. Elicits an outward current, but shows no inactivation. Channel properties may be modulated by cAMP and subunit assembly

Pore-forming (alpha) subunit of voltage-gated potassium channel. Elicits a non-inactivating outward rectifying current. Channel properties may be modulated by cAMP and subunit assembly

Pore-forming (alpha) subunit of voltage-gated potassium channel. Channel properties may be modulated by cAMP and subunit assembly

Pore-forming (alpha) subunit of voltage-gated potassium channel. Elicits a slowly activating, outward rectifying current. Channel properties may be modulated by cAMP and subunit assembly

In the kidney, probably plays a major role in potassium homeostasis. Inward rectifier potassium channels are characterized by a greater tendency to allow potassium to flow into the cell rather than out of it. Their voltage dependence is regulated by the concentration of extracellular potassium; as external potassium is raised, the voltage range of the channel opening shifts to more positive voltages. The inward rectification is mainly due to the blockage of outward current by internal magnesium. This channel is activated by internal ATP and can be blocked by external barium.

Probably participates in establishing action potential waveform and excitability of neuronal and muscle tissues. Inward rectifier potassium channels are characterized by a greater tendency to allow potassium to flow into the cell rather than out of it. Their voltage dependence is regulated by the concentration of extracellular potassium; as external potassium is raised, the voltage range of the channel opening shifts to more positive voltages. The inward rectification is mainly due to the blockage of outward current by internal magnesium. Can be blocked by extracellular barium or cesium

This potassium channel is controlled by G proteins. Inward rectifier potassium channels are characterized by a greater tendency to allow potassium to flow into the cell rather than out of it. Their voltage dependence is regulated by the concentration of extracellular potassium; as external potassium is raised, the voltage range of the channel opening shifts to more positive voltages. The inward rectification is mainly due to the blockage of outward current by internal magnesium. This receptor plays a crucial role in regulating the heartbeat

Inward rectifier potassium channels are characterized by a greater tendency to allow potassium to flow into the cell rather than out of it. Their voltage dependence is regulated by the concentration of extracellular potassium; as external potassium is raised, the voltage range of the channel opening shifts to more positive voltages. The inward rectification is mainly due to the blockage of outward current by internal magnesium. Can be blocked by extracellular barium and cesium (By similarity).

This potassium channel is controlled by G proteins. Inward rectifier potassium channels are characterized by a greater tendency to allow potassium to flow into the cell rather than out of it. Their voltage dependence is regulated by the concentration of extracellular potassium; as external potassium is raised, the voltage range of the channel opening shifts to more positive voltages. The inward rectification is mainly due to the blockage of outward current by internal magnesium. Can be blocked by external barium.

This potassium channel may be involved in the regulation of insulin secretion by glucose and/or neurotransmitters acting through G- protein-coupled receptors. Inward rectifier potassium channels are characterized by a greater tendency to allow potassium to flow into the cell rather than out of it. Their voltage dependence is regulated by the concentration of extracellular potassium; as external potassium is raised, the voltage range of the channel opening shifts to more positive voltages. The inward rectification is mainly due to the blockage of outward current by internal magnesium

This potassium channel is controlled by G proteins. Inward rectifier potassium channels are characterized by a greater tendency to allow potassium to flow into the cell rather than out of it. Their voltage dependence is regulated by the concentration of extracellular potassium; as external potassium is raised, the voltage range of the channel opening shifts to more positive voltages. The inward rectification is mainly due to the blockage of outward current by internal magnesium. Can be blocked by external barium (By similarity).

This receptor is controlled by G proteins. Inward rectifier potassium channels are characterized by a greater tendency to allow potassium to flow into the cell rather than out of it. Their voltage dependence is regulated by the concentration of extracellular potassium; as external potassium is raised, the voltage range of the channel opening shifts to more positive voltages. The inward rectification is mainly due to the blockage of outward current by internal magnesium (By similarity).

Ion channel that contributes to passive transmembrane potassium transport and to the regulation of the resting membrane potential in brain astrocytes, but also in kidney and in other tissues. Forms dimeric channels through which potassium ions pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. The channel is selective for K(+) ions at physiological potassium concentrations and at neutral pH, but becomes permeable to Na(+) at subphysiological K(+) levels and upon acidification of the extracellular medium. The homodimer has very low potassium channel activity, when expressed in heterologous systems, and can function as weakly inward rectifying potassium channel. Channel activity is modulated by activation of serotonin receptors (By similarity). Heterodimeric channels containing KCNK1 and KCNK2 have much higher activity, and may represent the predominant form in astrocytes (By similarity). Heterodimeric channels containing KCNK1 and KCNK3 or KCNK9 have much higher activity. Heterodimeric channels formed by KCNK1 and KCNK9 may contribute to halothane-sensitive currents. Mediates outward rectifying potassium currents in dentate gyrus granule cells and contributes to the regulation of their resting membrane potential (By similarity). Contributes to the regulation of action potential firing in dentate gyrus granule cells and down-regulates their intrinsic excitability (By similarity). In astrocytes, the heterodimer formed by KCNK1 and KCNK2 is required for rapid glutamate release in response to activation of G- protein coupled receptors, such as F2R and CNR1 (By similarity). Required for normal ion and water transport in the kidney (By similarity). Contributes to the regulation of the resting membrane potential of pancreatic beta cells (By similarity). The low channel activity of homodimeric KCNK1 may be due to sumoylation. The low channel activity may be due to rapid internalization from the cell membrane and retention in recycling endosomes.

Ion channel that contributes to passive transmembrane potassium transport. Reversibly converts between a voltage-insensitive potassium leak channel and a voltage-dependent outward rectifying potassium channel in a phosphorylation-dependent manner. In astrocytes, forms mostly heterodimeric potassium channels with KCNK1, with only a minor proportion of functional channels containing homodimeric KCNK2. In astrocytes, the heterodimer formed by KCNK1 and KCNK2 is required for rapid glutamate release in response to activation of G-protein coupled receptors, such as F2R and CNR1 (By similarity).

pH-dependent, voltage-insensitive, background potassium channel protein. Rectification direction results from potassium ion concentration on either side of the membrane. Acts as an outward rectifier when external potassium concentration is low. When external potassium concentration is high, current is inward.

Voltage-insensitive potassium channel. Channel opening is triggered by mechanical forces that deform the membrane. Channel opening is triggered by raising the intracellular pH to basic levels (By similarity). The channel is inactive at 24 degrees Celsius (in vitro); raising the temperature to 37 degrees Celsius increases the frequency of channel opening, with a further increase in channel activity when the temperature is raised to 42 degrees Celsius (By similarity). Plays a role in the perception of pain caused by heat (By similarity). Plays a role in the sensory perception of pain caused by pressure (By similarity).

pH-dependent, outwardly rectifying potassium channel. Outward rectification is lost at high external K(+) concentrations.

Exhibits outward rectification in a physiological K(+) gradient and mild inward rectification in symmetrical K(+) conditions

Probable potassium channel subunit. No channel activity observed in vitro as protein remains in the endoplasmic reticulum. May need to associate with an as yet unknown partner in order to reach the plasma membrane

pH-dependent, voltage-insensitive, background potassium channel protein.

Outward rectifying potassium channel. Produces rapidly activating and non-inactivating outward rectifier K(+) currents. Activated by arachidonic acid and other naturally occurring unsaturated free fatty acids

Probable potassium channel subunit. No channel activity observed in heterologous systems. May need to associate with another protein to form a functional channel (By similarity).

Potassium channel displaying weak inward rectification in symmetrical K(+) solution.

Probable potassium channel subunit. No channel activity observed in heterologous systems. May need to associate with another protein to form a functional channel

Outward rectifying potassium channel. Produces rapidly activating and non-inactivating outward rectifier K(+) currents

Outward rectifying potassium channel. Produces rapidly activating outward rectifier K(+) currents. May function as background potassium channel that sets the resting membrane potential. Channel activity is directly activated by calcium signal. Activated by the G(q)-protein coupled receptor pathway. The calcium signal robustly activates the channel via calcineurin, whereas the anchoring of 14-3- 3/YWHAH interferes with the return of the current to the resting state after activation. Inhibited also by arachidonic acid and other naturally occurring unsaturated free fatty acids. Channel activity is also enhanced by volatile anesthetics, such as isoflurane. Appears to be the primary target of hydroxy-alpha-sanshool, an ingredient of Schezuan pepper. May be involved in the somatosensory function with special respect to pain sensation (By similarity).

Forms a voltage-independent potassium channel activated by intracellular calcium. Activation is followed by membrane hyperpolarization (By similarity). Thought to regulate neuronal excitability by contributing to the slow component of synaptic afterhyperpolarization (By similarity).

Forms a voltage-independent potassium channel that is activated by intracellular calcium. Activation is followed by membrane hyperpolarization which promotes calcium influx. Required for maximal calcium influx and proliferation during the reactivation of naive T-cells. Plays a role in the late stages of EGF-induced macropinocytosis.

Potassium channel that plays an important role in a number of tissues, including heart, inner ear, stomach and colon. Associates with KCNE beta subunits that modulates current kinetics. Induces a voltage-dependent current by rapidly activating and slowly deactivating potassium-selective outward current. Promotes also a delayed voltage activated potassium current showing outward rectification characteristic (By similarity). During beta-adrenergic receptor stimulation participates in cardiac repolarization by associating with KCNE1 to form the I(Ks) cardiac potassium current that increases the amplitude and slows down the activation kinetics of outward potassium current I(Ks) (By similarity). Muscarinic agonist oxotremorine-M strongly suppresses KCNQ1/KCNE1 current. When associated with KCNE3, forms the potassium channel that is important for cyclic AMP-stimulated intestinal secretion of chloride ions. This interaction with KCNE3 is reduced by 17beta-estradiol, resulting in the reduction of currents (By similarity). During conditions of increased substrate load, maintains the driving force for proximal tubular and intestinal sodium ions absorption, gastric acid secretion, and cAMP- induced jejunal chloride ions secretion (By similarity). Allows the provision of potassium ions to the luminal membrane of the secretory canaliculus in the resting state as well as during stimulated acid secretion (By similarity). When associated with KCNE2, forms a heterooligomer complex leading to currents with an apparently instantaneous activation, a rapid deactivation process and a linear current-voltage relationship and decreases the amplitude of the outward current. When associated with KCNE4, inhibits voltage-gated potassium channel activity. When associated with KCNE5, this complex only conducts current upon strong and continued depolarization. Also forms a heterotetramer with KCNQ5; has a voltage-gated potassium channel activity. Binds with phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate.

Associates with KCNQ3 to form a potassium channel with essentially identical properties to the channel underlying the native M-current, a slowly activating and deactivating potassium conductance which plays a critical role in determining the subthreshold electrical excitability of neurons as well as the responsiveness to synaptic inputs. Therefore, it is important in the regulation of neuronal excitability. KCNQ2/KCNQ3 current is blocked by linopirdine and XE991, and activated by the anticonvulsant retigabine. As the native M-channel, the potassium channel composed of KCNQ2 and KCNQ3 is also suppressed by activation of the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor CHRM1.

Associates with KCNQ2 or KCNQ5 to form a potassium channel with essentially identical properties to the channel underlying the native M-current, a slowly activating and deactivating potassium conductance which plays a critical role in determining the subthreshold electrical excitability of neurons as well as the responsiveness to synaptic inputs. Therefore, it is important in the regulation of neuronal excitability.

Probably important in the regulation of neuronal excitability. May underlie a potassium current involved in regulating the excitability of sensory cells of the cochlea. KCNQ4 channels are blocked by linopirdin, XE991 and bepridil, whereas clofilium is without significant effect. Muscarinic agonist oxotremorine-M strongly suppress KCNQ4 current in CHO cells in which cloned KCNQ4 channels were coexpressed with M1 muscarinic receptors

Associates with KCNQ3 to form a potassium channel which contributes to M-type current, a slowly activating and deactivating potassium conductance which plays a critical role in determining the subthreshold electrical excitability of neurons. Therefore, it is important in the regulation of neuronal excitability. May contribute, with other potassium channels, to the molecular diversity of a heterogeneous population of M-channels, varying in kinetic and pharmacological properties, which underlie this physiologically important current. Insensitive to tetraethylammonium, but inhibited by barium, linopirdine and XE991. Activated by niflumic acid and the anticonvulsant retigabine. As the native M-channel, the potassium channel composed of KCNQ3 and KCNQ5 is also suppressed by activation of the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor CHRM1.

Inhibits potassium fluxes in cells. May regulate Kv1 family channel proteins by retaining a fraction of channels in endomembranes.

Potassium channel subunit that does not form functional channels by itself. Can form functional heterotetrameric channels with KCNB1 and KCNB2; modulates the delayed rectifier voltage-gated potassium channel activation and deactivation rates of KCNB1 and KCNB2.

Potassium channel subunit that does not form functional channels by itself. Can form functional heterotetrameric channels with KCNB1; modulates the delayed rectifier voltage-gated potassium channel activation and deactivation rates of KCNB1. Heterotetrameric channel activity formed with KCNB1 show increased current amplitude with the threshold for action potential activation shifted towards more negative values in hypoxic-treated pulmonary artery smooth muscle cells (By similarity).

Outwardly rectifying potassium channel subunit that may coassemble with other Slo-type channel subunits. Activated by high intracellular sodium or chloride levels. Activated upon stimulation of G-protein coupled receptors, such as CHRM1 and GRIA1. May be regulated by calcium in the absence of sodium ions (in vitro) (By similarity).

Outward rectifying potassium channel. Produces rapidly activating outward rectifier K(+) currents. Activated by high intracellular sodium and chloride levels. Channel activity is inhibited by ATP and by inhalation anesthetics, such as isoflurane (By similarity). Inhibited upon stimulation of G-protein coupled receptors, such as CHRM1 and GRM1.

Testis-specific potassium channel activated by both intracellular pH and membrane voltage that mediates export of K(+). May represent the primary spermatozoan K(+) current. In contrast to KCNMA1/SLO1, it is not activated by Ca(2+) or Mg(2+). Critical for fertility. May play an important role in sperm osmoregulation required for the acquisition of normal morphology and motility when faced with osmotic challenges, such as those experienced after mixing with seminal fluid and entry into the vagina.

Potassium channel subunit that does not form functional channels by itself. Modulates KCNB1 and KCNB2 channel activity by shifting the threshold for inactivation to more negative values and by slowing the rate of inactivation. Can down-regulate the channel activity of KCNB1, KCNB2, KCNC4 and KCND1, possibly by trapping them in intracellular membranes.

Reversibly catalyzes the transfer of phosphate between ATP and various phosphogens (e.g. creatine phosphate). Creatine kinase isoenzymes play a central role in energy transduction in tissues with large, fluctuating energy demands, such as skeletal muscle, heart, brain and spermatozoa (Probable). Acts as a key regulator of adaptive thermogenesis as part of the futile creatine cycle: localizes to the mitochondria of thermogenic fat cells and acts by mediating phosphorylation of creatine to initiate a futile cycle of creatine phosphorylation and dephosphorylation (By similarity). During the futile creatine cycle, creatine and N-phosphocreatine are in a futile cycle, which dissipates the high energy charge of N- phosphocreatine as heat without performing any mechanical or chemical work (By similarity).

Reversibly catalyzes the transfer of phosphate between ATP and various phosphogens (e.g. creatine phosphate). Creatine kinase isoenzymes play a central role in energy transduction in tissues with large, fluctuating energy demands, such as skeletal muscle, heart, brain and spermatozoa.

Reversibly catalyzes the transfer of phosphate between ATP and various phosphogens (e.g. creatine phosphate). Creatine kinase isoenzymes play a central role in energy transduction in tissues with large, fluctuating energy demands, such as skeletal muscle, heart, brain and spermatozoa

Accessory subunit of potassium/sodium hyperpolarization- activated cyclic nucleotide-gated channel 3 (HCN3) up-regulating its cell-surface expression and current density without affecting its voltage dependence and kinetics.

Its interaction with CUL3 suggests that it may act as a substrate adapter in some E3 ligase complex. Does not affect the function of Kv channel Kv2.1/KCNB1, Kv1.2/KCNA2, Kv4.2/KCND2 and Kv3.4/KCNC4.

Probable substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex mediating the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Promotes the ubiquitination of HDAC1; the function seems to depend on KCTD11:KCTD6 oligomerization. Can function as antagonist of the Hedgehog pathway by affecting the nuclear transfer of transcription factor GLI1; the function probably occurs via HDAC1 down-regulation, keeping GLI1 acetylated and inactive. Inhibits cell growth and tumorigenicity of medulloblastoma (MDB). Involved in regulating protein levels of ANK1 isoform Mu17 probably implicating CUL3-dependent proteasomal degradation.

May be involved in the control of excitability of cortical neurons.

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex, which mediates the ubiquitination of target proteins, leading to their degradation by the proteasome.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of pyrimidine nucleoside monophosphates at the expense of ATP. Plays an important role in de novo pyrimidine nucleotide biosynthesis. Has preference for UMP and CMP as phosphate acceptors. Also displays broad nucleoside diphosphate kinase activity.

Plays a role in the regulation of the epidermis formation during early development. Required both as an inhibitor of basal cell proliferation and a promoter of differentiation of basal progenitor cell progeny (By similarity).

Promotes a prolonged MAP-kinase signaling by neurotrophins through activation of a Rap1-dependent mechanism. Provides a docking site for the CRKL-C3G complex, resulting in Rap1-dependent sustained ERK activation. May play an important role in regulating postsynaptic signal transduction through the syntrophin-mediated localization of receptor tyrosine kinases such as EPHA4. In cooperation with SNTA1 can enhance EPHA4-induced JAK/STAT activation. Plays a role in nerve growth factor (NGF)-induced recruitment of RAPGEF2 to late endosomes and neurite outgrowth. May play a role in neurotrophin- and ephrin-mediated neuronal outgrowth and in axon guidance during neural development and in neuronal regeneration (By similarity). Modulates stress-induced apoptosis of melanoma cells via regulation of the MEK/ERK signaling pathway.

Histone demethylase that can demethylate both 'Lys-4' (H3K4me) and 'Lys-9' (H3K9me) of histone H3, thereby acting as a coactivator or a corepressor, depending on the context. Acts by oxidizing the substrate by FAD to generate the corresponding imine that is subsequently hydrolyzed. Acts as a corepressor by mediating demethylation of H3K4me, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation. Demethylates both mono- (H3K4me1) and di-methylated (H3K4me2) H3K4me. May play a role in the repression of neuronal genes. Alone, it is unable to demethylate H3K4me on nucleosomes and requires the presence of RCOR1/CoREST to achieve such activity. Also acts as a coactivator of androgen receptor (AR)-dependent transcription, by being recruited to AR target genes and mediating demethylation of H3K9me, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression. The presence of PRKCB in AR-containing complexes, which mediates phosphorylation of 'Thr-6' of histone H3 (H3T6ph), a specific tag that prevents demethylation H3K4me, prevents H3K4me demethylase activity of KDM1A. Demethylates di-methylated 'Lys-370' of p53/TP53 which prevents interaction of p53/TP53 with TP53BP1 and represses p53/TP53-mediated transcriptional activation. Demethylates and stabilizes the DNA methylase DNMT1. Required for gastrulation during embryogenesis. Component of a RCOR/GFI/KDM1A/HDAC complex that suppresses, via histone deacetylase (HDAC) recruitment, a number of genes implicated in multilineage blood cell development. Effector of SNAI1-mediated transcription repression of E-cadherin/CDH1, CDN7 and KRT8. Required for the maintenance of the silenced state of the SNAI1 target genes E-cadherin/CDH1 and CDN7.

Histone demethylase that demethylates 'Lys-4' of histone H3, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation, thereby acting as a corepressor. Required for de novo DNA methylation of a subset of imprinted genes during oogenesis. Acts by oxidizing the substrate by FAD to generate the corresponding imine that is subsequently hydrolyzed. Demethylates both mono- and di-methylated 'Lys-4' of histone H3. Has no effect on tri-methylated 'Lys-4', mono-, di- or tri-methylated 'Lys-9', mono-, di- or tri-methylated 'Lys-27', mono-, di- or tri-methylated 'Lys-36' of histone H3, or on mono-, di- or tri-methylated 'Lys-20' of histone H4. Alone, it is unable to demethylate H3K4me on nucleosomes and requires the presence of GLYR1 to achieve such activity, they form a multifunctional enzyme complex that modifies transcribed chromatin and facilitates Pol II transcription through nucleosomes.

Histone demethylase that specifically demethylates 'Lys-36' of histone H3, thereby playing a central role in histone code. Preferentially demethylates dimethylated H3 'Lys-36' residue while it has weak or no activity for mono- and tri-methylated H3 'Lys-36'. May also recognize and bind to some phosphorylated proteins and promote their ubiquitination and degradation. Required to maintain the heterochromatic state. Associates with centromeres and represses transcription of small non-coding RNAs that are encoded by the clusters of satellite repeats at the centromere. Required to sustain centromeric integrity and genomic stability, particularly during mitosis. Regulates circadian gene expression by repressing the transcriptional activator activity of CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer and RORA in a catalytically- independent manner.

Histone demethylase that demethylates 'Lys-4' and 'Lys-36' of histone H3, thereby playing a central role in histone code. Preferentially demethylates trimethylated H3 'Lys-4' and dimethylated H3 'Lys-36' residue while it has weak or no activity for mono- and tri-methylated H3 'Lys-36'. Preferentially binds the transcribed region of ribosomal RNA and represses the transcription of ribosomal RNA genes which inhibits cell growth and proliferation. May also serve as a substrate-recognition component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein)-type E3 ubiquitin ligase complex (Probable).

Histone demethylase that specifically demethylates 'Lys-9' of histone H3, thereby playing a central role in histone code. Preferentially demethylates mono- and dimethylated H3 'Lys-9' residue, with a preference for dimethylated residue, while it has weak or no activity on trimethylated H3 'Lys-9'. Demethylation of Lys residue generates formaldehyde and succinate. Involved in hormone-dependent transcriptional activation, by participating in recruitment to androgen-receptor target genes, resulting in H3 'Lys-9' demethylation and transcriptional activation. Involved in spermatogenesis by regulating expression of target genes such as PRM1 and TNP1 which are required for packaging and condensation of sperm chromatin. Involved in obesity resistance through regulation of metabolic genes such as PPARA and UCP1.

Histone demethylase that specifically demethylates 'Lys-9' of histone H3, thereby playing a central role in histone code. Demethylation of Lys residue generates formaldehyde and succinate. May have tumor suppressor activity.

Histone demethylase that specifically demethylates 'Lys-9' and 'Lys-36' residues of histone H3, thereby playing a central role in histone code. Does not demethylate histone H3 'Lys- 4', H3 'Lys-27' nor H4 'Lys-20'. Demethylates trimethylated H3 'Lys-9' and H3 'Lys-36' residue, while it has no activity on mono- and dimethylated residues. Demethylation of Lys residue generates formaldehyde and succinate. Participates in transcriptional repression of ASCL2 and E2F-responsive promoters via the recruitment of histone deacetylases and NCOR1, respectively.

Histone demethylase that specifically demethylates 'Lys-9' and 'Lys-36' residues of histone H3, thereby playing a central role in histone code. Does not demethylate histone H3 'Lys-4', H3 'Lys-27' nor H4 'Lys-20'. Demethylates trimethylated H3 'Lys-9' and H3 'Lys-36' residue, while it has no activity on mono- and dimethylated residues. Demethylation of Lys residue generates formaldehyde and succinate.

Histone demethylase that specifically demethylates 'Lys-9' of histone H3, thereby playing a central role in histone code. Does not demethylate histone H3 'Lys-4', H3 'Lys-27', H3 'Lys-36' nor H4 'Lys- 20'. Demethylates both di- and trimethylated H3 'Lys-9' residue, while it has no activity on monomethylated residues. Demethylation of Lys residue generates formaldehyde and succinate.

Histone demethylase that specifically demethylates 'Lys-9' of histone H3, thereby playing a central role in histone code.

Histone demethylase that specifically demethylates 'Lys-4' of histone H3, thereby playing a central role in histone code. Does not demethylate histone H3 'Lys-9', H3 'Lys-27', H3 'Lys-36', H3 'Lys-79' or H4 'Lys-20'. Demethylates trimethylated and dimethylated but not monomethylated H3 'Lys-4'. Regulates specific gene transcription through DNA-binding on 5'-CCGCCC-3' motif. May stimulate transcription mediated by nuclear receptors. Involved in transcriptional regulation of Hox proteins during cell differentiation. May participate in transcriptional repression of cytokines such as CXCL12. Plays a role in the regulation of the circadian rhythm and in maintaining the normal periodicity of the circadian clock. In a histone demethylase-independent manner, acts as a coactivator of the CLOCK-BMAL1-mediated transcriptional activation of PER1/2 and other clock-controlled genes and increases histone acetylation at PER1/2 promoters by inhibiting the activity of HDAC1 (By similarity). Seems to act as a transcriptional corepressor for some genes such as MT1F and to favor the proliferation of cancer cells.

Histone demethylase that demethylates 'Lys-4' of histone H3, thereby playing a central role in histone code. Does not demethylate histone H3 'Lys-9' or H3 'Lys-27'. Demethylates trimethylated, dimethylated and monomethylated H3 'Lys-4'. Acts as a transcriptional corepressor for FOXG1B and PAX9. Favors the proliferation of breast cancer cells by repressing tumor suppressor genes such as BRCA1 and HOXA5. In contrast, may act as a tumor suppressor for melanoma. Represses the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer-mediated transcriptional activation of the core clock component PER2 (By similarity).

Histone demethylase that specifically demethylates 'Lys-4' of histone H3, thereby playing a central role in histone code. Does not demethylate histone H3 'Lys-9', H3 'Lys- 27', H3 'Lys-36', H3 'Lys-79' or H4 'Lys-20'. Demethylates trimethylated and dimethylated but not monomethylated H3 'Lys-4'. Participates in transcriptional repression of neuronal genes by recruiting histone deacetylases and REST at neuron-restrictive silencer elements. Represses the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer-mediated transcriptional activation of the core clock component PER2 (By similarity).

Histone demethylase that specifically demethylates 'Lys-4' of histone H3, thereby playing a central role in histone code. Does not demethylate histone H3 'Lys-9', H3 'Lys-27', H3 'Lys-36', H3 'Lys-79' or H4 'Lys-20'. Demethylates trimethylated and dimethylated but not monomethylated H3 'Lys-4'. May play a role in spermatogenesis. Involved in transcriptional repression of diverse metastasis-associated genes; in this function seems to cooperate with ZMYND8. Suppresses prostate cancer cell invasion. Regulates androgen receptor (AR) transcriptional activity by demethylating H3K4me3 active transcription marks.

Histone demethylase that specifically demethylates 'Lys-27' of histone H3, thereby playing a central role in histone code. Demethylates trimethylated and dimethylated H3 'Lys-27'. Plays a central role in regulation of posterior development, by regulating HOX gene expression. Involved in inflammatory response by participating in macrophage differentiation in case of inflammation by regulating gene expression and macrophage differentiation. Plays a demethylase-independent role in chromatin remodeling to regulate T-box family member-dependent gene expression by acting as a link between T-box factors and the SMARCA4- containing SWI/SNF remodeling complex (By similarity).

Histone demethylase required for brain development. Specifically demethylates dimethylated 'Lys-9', 'Lys-27' and 'Lys-36' (H3K9me2, H3K27me2, H3K36me2, respectively) of histone H3 and monomethylated histone H4 'Lys-20' residue (H4K20Me1), thereby playing a central role in histone code. Specifically binds trimethylated 'Lys-4' of histone H3 (H3K4me3), affecting histone demethylase specificity: in presence of H3K4me3, it has no demethylase activity toward H3K9me2, while it has high activity toward H3K27me2. Demethylates H3K9me2 in absence of H3K4me3. Has activity toward H4K20Me1 only when nucleosome is used as a substrate and when not histone octamer is used as substrate.

Bifunctional enzyme that acts both as an endopeptidase and 2- oxoglutarate-dependent monooxygenase. Endopeptidase that cleaves histones N-terminal tails at the carboxyl side of methylated arginine or lysine residues, to generate 'tailless nucleosomes', which may trigger transcription elongation. Preferentially recognizes and cleaves monomethylated and dimethylated arginine residues of histones H2, H3 and H4. After initial cleavage, continues to digest histones tails via its aminopeptidase activity. Upon DNA damage, cleaves the N-terminal tail of histone H3 at monomethylated lysine residues, preferably at monomethylated 'Lys-9' (H3K9me1). The histone variant H3F3A is the major target for cleavage. Additionnally, acts as Fe(2+) and 2-oxoglutarate- dependent monooxygenase, catalyzing (R)-stereospecific hydroxylation at C-3 of 'Arg-137' of RPS6 and 'Arg-141' of RCCD1, but the biological significance of this activity remains to be established. Regulates mitosis through different mechanisms: Plays a role in transcriptional repression of satellite repeats, possibly by regulating H3K36 methylation levels in centromeric regions together with RCCD1. Possibly together with RCCD1, is involved in proper mitotic spindle organization and chromosome segregation. Negatively regulates cell cycle repressor CDKN1A/p21, which controls G1/S phase transition. Required for G2/M phase cell cycle progression. Regulates expression of CCNA1/cyclin-A1, leading to cancer cell proliferation. Also, plays a role in regulating alpha-tubulin acetylation and cytoskeletal microtubule stability involved in epithelial to mesenchymal transition. Regulates the circadian gene expression in the liver (By similarity). Represses the transcriptional activator activity of the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer in a catalytically-independent manner. Negatively regulates the protein stability and function of CRY1; required for AMPK-FBXL3-induced CRY1 degradation.

Catalyzes the reduction of 3-ketodihydrosphingosine (KDS) to dihydrosphingosine (DHS).

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex that regulates the response to oxidative stress by targeting NFE2L2/NRF2 for ubiquitination. KEAP1 acts as a key sensor of oxidative and electrophilic stress: in normal conditions, the BCR(KEAP1) complex mediates ubiquitination and degradation of NFE2L2/NRF2, a transcription factor regulating expression of many cytoprotective genes. In response to oxidative stress, different electrophile metabolites trigger non-enzymatic covalent modifications of highly reactive cysteine residues in KEAP1, leading to inactivate the ubiquitin ligase activity of the BCR(KEAP1) complex, promoting NFE2L2/NRF2 nuclear accumulation and expression of phase II detoxifying enzymes. In response to selective autophagy, KEAP1 is sequestered in inclusion bodies following its interaction with SQSTM1/p62, leading to inactivation of the BCR(KEAP1) complex and activation of NFE2L2/NRF2. The BCR(KEAP1) complex also mediates ubiquitination of SQSTM1/p62, increasing SQSTM1/p62 sequestering activity and degradation. The BCR(KEAP1) complex also targets BPTF and PGAM5 for ubiquitination and degradation by the proteasome.

Zinc endopeptidase with endothelin-3-converting enzyme activity. Cleaves EDN1, EDN2 and EDN3, with a marked preference for EDN3.

May be important in developing and maintaining corneal transparency and for the structure of the stromal matrix.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of N-formyl-L-kynurenine to L- kynurenine, the second step in the kynurenine pathway of tryptophan degradation. Kynurenine may be further oxidized to nicotinic acid, NAD(H) and NADP(H). Required for elimination of toxic metabolites.

May be necessary to recruit DLD/E3 to the mitochondrial 2- oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex (OGDC) core composed of OGDH/E1- DLST/E2, hence stabilizes the complex.

Serine/threonine protein kinase that acts as key mediator of the nitric oxide (NO)/cGMP signaling pathway. GMP binding activates PRKG1, which phosphorylates serines and threonines on many cellular proteins. Numerous protein targets for PRKG1 phosphorylation are implicated in modulating cellular calcium, but the contribution of each of these targets may vary substantially among cell types. Proteins that are phosphorylated by PRKG1 regulate platelet activation and adhesion, smooth muscle contraction, cardiac function, gene expression, feedback of the NO-signaling pathway, and other processes involved in several aspects of the CNS like axon guidance, hippocampal and cerebellar learning, circadian rhythm and nociception. Smooth muscle relaxation is mediated through lowering of intracellular free calcium, by desensitization of contractile proteins to calcium, and by decrease in the contractile state of smooth muscle or in platelet activation. Regulates intracellular calcium levels via several pathways: phosphorylates IRAG1 and inhibits IP3-induced Ca(2+) release from intracellular stores, phosphorylation of KCNMA1 (BKCa) channels decreases intracellular Ca(2+) levels, which leads to increased opening of this channel. PRKG1 phosphorylates the canonical transient receptor potential channel (TRPC) family which inactivates the associated inward calcium current. Another mode of action of NO/cGMP/PKGI signaling involves PKGI-mediated inactivation of the Ras homolog gene family member A (RhoA). Phosphorylation of RHOA by PRKG1 blocks the action of this protein in myriad processes: regulation of RHOA translocation; decreasing contraction; controlling vesicle trafficking, reduction of myosin light chain phosphorylation resulting in vasorelaxation. Activation of PRKG1 by NO signaling alters also gene expression in a number of tissues. In smooth muscle cells, increased cGMP and PRKG1 activity influence expression of smooth muscle-specific contractile proteins, levels of proteins in the NO/cGMP signaling pathway, down- regulation of the matrix proteins osteopontin and thrombospondin-1 to limit smooth muscle cell migration and phenotype. Regulates vasodilator-stimulated phosphoprotein (VASP) functions in platelets and smooth muscle.

Crucial regulator of intestinal secretion and bone growth. Phosphorylates and activates CFTR on the plasma membrane. Plays a key role in intestinal secretion by regulating cGMP-dependent translocation of CFTR in jejunum. Acts downstream of NMDAR to activate the plasma membrane accumulation of GRIA1/GLUR1 in synapse and increase synaptic plasticity. Phosphorylates GRIA1/GLUR1 at Ser-863 (By similarity). Acts as regulator of gene expression and activator of the extracellular signal-regulated kinases MAPK3/ERK1 and MAPK1/ERK2 in mechanically stimulated osteoblasts. Under fluid shear stress, mediates ERK activation and subsequent induction of FOS, FOSL1/FRA1, FOSL2/FRA2 and FOSB that play a key role in the osteoblast anabolic response to mechanical stimulation (By similarity).

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of GMP to GDP. Essential enzyme for recycling GMP and indirectly, cyclic GMP (cGMP). Involved in the cGMP metabolism in photoreceptors (By similarity). It may also have a role in the survival and growth progression of some tumors. In addition to its physiological role, GUK1 is essential for convert prodrugs used for the treatment of cancers and viral infections into their pharmacologically active metabolites, most notably acyclovir, ganciclovir, and 6-thioguanine and its closely related analog 6-mercaptopurine.

As part of the OOEP-KHDC3 scaffold, recruits BLM and TRIM25 to DNA replication forks, thereby promoting the ubiquitination of BLM by TRIM25, enhancing BLM retainment at replication forks and therefore promoting stalled replication fork restart (By similarity). Regulates homologous recombination-mediated DNA repair via recruitment of RAD51 to sites of DNA double-strand breaks, and sustainment of PARP1 activity, which in turn modulates downstream ATM or ATR activation. Activation of ATM or ATR in response to DNA double- strand breaks may be cell-type specific (By similarity). Its role in DNA double-strand break repair is independent of its role in restarting stalled replication forks (By similarity). As a member of the subcortical maternal complex (SCMC), plays an essential role for zygotes to progress beyond the first embryonic cell divisions via regulation of actin dynamics (By similarity). Required for maintenance of euploidy during cleavage-stage embryogenesis (By similarity). Required for the formation of F-actin cytoplasmic lattices in oocytes which in turn are responsible for symmetric division of zygotes via the regulation of mitotic spindle formation and positioning (By similarity). Ensures proper spindle assembly by regulating the localization of AURKA via RHOA signaling and of PLK1 via a RHOA- independent process (By similarity). Required for the localization of MAD2L1 to kinetochores to enable spindle assembly checkpoint function (By similarity). Promotes neural stem cell neurogenesis and neuronal differentiation in the hippocampus (By similarity). May regulate normal development of learning, memory and anxiety (By similarity). Capable of binding RNA (By similarity).

RNA-binding protein involved in pre-mRNA splicing. Interacts with the PRP19C/Prp19 complex/NTC/Nineteen complex which is part of the spliceosome. Involved in regulating splice site selection. Binds preferentially RNA with A/C rich sequences and poly-C stretches.

Recruited and tyrosine phosphorylated by several receptor systems, for example the T-cell, leptin and insulin receptors. Once phosphorylated, functions as an adapter protein in signal transduction cascades by binding to SH2 and SH3 domain-containing proteins. Role in G2-M progression in the cell cycle. Represses CBP-dependent transcriptional activation apparently by competing with other nuclear factors for binding to CBP. Also acts as a putative regulator of mRNA stability and/or translation rates and mediates mRNA nuclear export. Positively regulates the association of constitutive transport element (CTE)-containing mRNA with large polyribosomes and translation initiation. According to some authors, is not involved in the nucleocytoplasmic export of unspliced (CTE)-containing RNA species according to. RNA-binding protein that plays a role in the regulation of alternative splicing and influences mRNA splice site selection and exon inclusion. Binds to RNA containing 5'-[AU]UAA- 3' as a bipartite motif spaced by more than 15 nucleotides. Binds poly(A). Can regulate CD44 alternative splicing in a Ras pathway- dependent manner (By similarity). In cooperation with HNRNPA1 modulates alternative splicing of BCL2L1 by promoting splicing toward isoform Bcl-X(S), and of SMN1. Can regulate alternative splicing of NRXN1 and NRXN3 in the laminin G-like domain 6 containing the evolutionary conserved neurexin alternative spliced segment 4 (AS4) involved in neurexin selective targeting to postsynaptic partners. In a neuronal activity-dependent manner cooperates synergistically with KHDRBS2/SLIM-1 in regulation of NRXN1 exon skipping at AS4. The cooperation with KHDRBS2/SLIM-1 is antagonistic for regulation of NXRN3 alternative splicing at AS4 (By similarity).

RNA-binding protein that plays a role in the regulation of alternative splicing and influences mRNA splice site selection and exon inclusion. Binds both poly(A) and poly(U) homopolymers. Phosphorylation by PTK6 inhibits its RNA-binding ability (By similarity). Induces an increased concentration-dependent incorporation of exon in CD44 pre- mRNA by direct binding to purine-rich exonic enhancer. Can regulate alternative splicing of NRXN1 in the laminin G-like domain 6 containing the evolutionary conserved neurexin alternative spliced segment 4 (AS4) involved in neurexin selective targeting to postsynaptic partners. Regulates cell-type specific alternative splicing of NRXN1 at AS4 and acts synergystically with SAM68 in exon skipping. In contrast acts antagonistically with SAM68 in NRXN3 exon skipping at AS4. Its phosphorylation by FYN inhibits its ability to regulate splice site selection. May function as an adapter protein for Src kinases during mitosis.

RNA-binding protein that plays a role in the regulation of alternative splicing and influences mRNA splice site selection and exon inclusion. Binds preferentially to the 5'-[AU]UAAA-3' motif in vitro. Binds optimally to RNA containing 5'-[AU]UAA-3' as a bipartite motif spaced by more than 15 nucleotides. Binds poly(A). RNA-binding abilities are down-regulated by tyrosine kinase PTK6. Involved in splice site selection of vascular endothelial growth factor. In vitro regulates CD44 alternative splicing by direct binding to purine-rich exonic enhancer (By similarity). Can regulate alternative splicing of neurexins NRXN1-3 in the laminin G-like domain 6 containing the evolutionary conserved neurexin alternative spliced segment 4 (AS4) involved in neurexin selective targeting to postsynaptic partners such as neuroligins and LRRTM family members. Targeted, cell-type specific splicing regulation of NRXN1 at AS4 is involved in neuronal glutamatergic synapse function and plasticity (By similarity). May regulate expression of KHDRBS2/SLIM-1 in defined brain neuron populations by modifying its alternative splicing (By similarity). Can bind FABP9 mRNA (By similarity). May play a role as a negative regulator of cell growth. Inhibits cell proliferation.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of the ketose sugar fructose to fructose-1-phosphate.

Plus end-directed microtubule-dependent motor protein involved in intracellular transport and regulating various processes such as mannose-6-phosphate receptor (M6PR) transport to the plasma membrane, endosomal sorting during melanosome biogenesis and cytokinesis. Mediates the transport of M6PR-containing vesicles from trans-Golgi network to the plasma membrane via direct interaction with the AP-1 complex. During melanosome maturation, required for delivering melanogenic enzymes from recycling endosomes to nascent melanosomes by creating peripheral recycling endosomal subdomains in melanocytes. Also required for the abcission step in cytokinesis: mediates translocation of ZFYVE26, and possibly TTC19, to the midbody during cytokinesis.

Involved in reorganization of the cortical cytoskeleton. Regulates axon formation by promoting the formation of extra axons. May be functionally important for the intracellular trafficking of MAGUKs and associated protein complexes.

Plus end-directed microtubule-dependent motor protein involved in endosome transport and receptor recycling and degradation. Regulates the plus end motility of early endosomes and the balance between recycling and degradation of receptors such as EGF receptor (EGFR) and FGF receptor (FGFR). Regulates the Golgi to endosome transport of FGFR-containing vesicles during early development, a key process for developing basement membrane and epiblast and primitive endoderm lineages during early postimplantation development.

Microtubule-depolymerizing kinesin which plays a role in chromosome congression by reducing the amplitude of preanaphase oscillations and slowing poleward movement during anaphase, thus suppressing chromosome movements. May stabilize the CENPE-BUB1B complex at the kinetochores during early mitosis and maintains CENPE levels at kinetochores during chromosome congression.

In complex with KIF2C, constitutes the major microtubule plus-end depolymerizing activity in mitotic cells. Its major role may be to transport KIF2C and/or MAPRE1 along microtubules.

Mitotic kinesin required for chromosome passenger complex (CPC)-mediated cytokinesis. Following phosphorylation by PLK1, involved in recruitment of PLK1 to the central spindle. Interacts with guanosine triphosphate (GTP)-bound forms of RAB6A and RAB6B. May act as a motor required for the retrograde RAB6 regulated transport of Golgi membranes and associated vesicles along microtubules. Has a microtubule plus end- directed motility.

Plus-end-directed motor enzyme that is required for completion of cytokinesis. Required for proper midbody organization and abscission in polarized cortical stem cells. Plays a role in the regulation of neuronal polarization by mediating the transport of specific cargos. Participates in the mobilization of SHTN1 and in the accumulation of PIP3 in the growth cone of primary hippocampal neurons in a tubulin and actin-dependent manner. In the developing telencephalon, cooperates with SHTN1 to promote both the transition from the multipolar to the bipolar stage and the radial migration of cortical neurons from the ventricular zone toward the superficial layer of the neocortex. Involved in cerebral cortex growth (By similarity). Acts as an oncogene for promoting bladder cancer cells proliferation, apoptosis inhibition and carcinogenic progression.

Microtubule-binding motor protein probably involved in neuronal axonal transport. In vitro, has a plus-end directed motor activity.

Plus-end directed microtubule-dependent motor protein which displays processive activity. Is involved in regulation of microtubule dynamics, synapse function and neuronal morphology, including dendritic tree branching and spine formation. Plays a role in lerning and memory. Involved in delivery of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA(A)) receptor to cell surface.

Atypical kinesin that plays a key role in enteric neuron development. Acts by repressing a cell growth signaling pathway in the enteric nervous system development, possibly via its interaction with GRB2 that prevents GRB2-binding to SHC, thereby attenating the GDNF-Ret signaling. Binds to microtubules but lacks microtubule-based motility due to the absence of ATPase activity (By similarity).

Essential for embryonic kidney development. Plays an important role in the compact adhesion between mesenchymal cells adjacent to the ureteric buds, possibly by interacting with MYH10. This could lead to the establishment of the basolateral integrity of the mesenchyme and the polarized expression of ITGA8, which maintains the GDNF expression required for further ureteric bud attraction. Although it seems to lack ATPase activity it is constitutively associated with microtubules (By similarity).

Receptor on natural killer (NK) cells for HLA-C alleles (HLA- Cw1, HLA-Cw3 and HLA-Cw7). Inhibits the activity of NK cells thus preventing cell lysis

Receptor for non-classical major histocompatibility class Ib HLA-G molecules. Recognizes HLA-G in complex with B2M/beta-2 microglobulin and a nonamer self-peptide (peptide-bound HLA-G-B2M). In decidual NK cells, binds peptide-bound HLA-G-B2M complex and triggers NK cell senescence-associated secretory phenotype as a molecular switch to promote vascular remodeling and fetal growth in early pregnancy. May play a role in balancing tolerance and antiviral-immunity at maternal-fetal interface by keeping in check the effector functions of NK, CD8+ T cells and B cells. Upon interaction with peptide-bound HLA-G-B2M, initiates signaling from the endosomal compartment leading to downstream activation of PRKDC-XRCC5 and AKT1, and ultimately triggering NF-kappa-B-dependent pro-inflammatory response.

Receptor on natural killer (NK) cells and T cells for MHC class I molecules. Upon binding of peptide-free HLA-F open conformer, negatively regulates NK and T cell effector functions. Acts as a receptor on astrocytes for HLA-F. Through interaction with HLA-F, may protect motor neurons from astrocyte-induced toxicity.

Required to maintain individual mitotic chromosomes dispersed in the cytoplasm following nuclear envelope disassembly. Associates with the surface of the mitotic chromosome, the perichromosomal layer, and covers a substantial fraction of the chromosome surface. Prevents chromosomes from collapsing into a single chromatin mass by forming a steric and electrostatic charge barrier: the protein has a high net electrical charge and acts as a surfactant, dispersing chromosomes and enabling independent chromosome motility. Binds DNA, with a preference for supercoiled DNA and AT-rich DNA. Does not contribute to the internal structure of mitotic chromosomes (By similarity). May play a role in chromatin organization. It is however unclear whether it plays a direct role in chromatin organization or whether it is an indirect consequence of its function in maintaining mitotic chromosomes dispersed (Probable).

Probable regulator of the Hippo/SWH (Sav/Wts/Hpo) signaling pathway, a signaling pathway that plays a pivotal role in tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis. Along with NF2 can synergistically induce the phosphorylation of LATS1 and LATS2 and can probably function in the regulation of the Hippo/SWH (Sav/Wts/Hpo) signaling pathway. Acts as a transcriptional coactivator of ESR1 which plays an essential role in DYNLL1-mediated ESR1 transactivation. Regulates collagen-stimulated activation of the ERK/MAPK cascade. Modulates directional migration of podocytes. Acts as a substrate for PRKCZ. Plays a role in cognition and memory performance.

Motor protein required for establishing a bipolar spindle during mitosis. Required in non-mitotic cells for transport of secretory proteins from the Golgi complex to the cell surface.

Microtubule motor protein that binds to microtubules with high affinity through each tubulin heterodimer and has an ATPase activity (By similarity). Plays a role in many processes like cell division, cytokinesis and also in cell proliferation and apoptosis. During cytokinesis, targets to central spindle and midbody through its interaction with PRC1 and CIT respectively. Regulates cell growth through regulation of cell cycle progression and cytokinesis. During cell cycle progression acts through SCF-dependent proteasomal ubiquitin-dependent protein catabolic process which controls CDKN1B degradation, resulting in positive regulation of cyclins, including CCNE1, CCND1 and CCNB1. During late neurogenesis, regulates the cerebellar, cerebral cortex and olfactory bulb development through regulation of apoptosis, cell proliferation and cell division (By similarity). Also is required for chromosome congression and alignment during mitotic cell cycle process. Regulates cell spreading, focal adhesion dynamics, and cell migration through its interaction with RADIL resulting in regulation of RAP1A-mediated inside-out integrin activation by tethering RADIL on microtubules.

Plus-end directed kinesin-like motor enzyme involved in mitotic spindle assembly.

Dendrite-specific motor protein which, in association with the Apba1-containing complex (LIN-10-LIN-2-LIN-7 complex), transports vesicles containing N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor subunit NR2B along microtubules.

Plus end-directed microtubule-dependent motor protein that regulates the length of motile cilia by mediating depolymerization of microtubules at ciliary tips.

Motor for anterograde axonal transport of synaptic vesicle precursors. Also required for neuronal dense core vesicles (DCVs) transport to the dendritic spines and axons. The interaction calcium-dependent with CALM1 increases vesicle motility and interaction with the scaffolding proteins PPFIA2 and TANC2 recruits DCVs to synaptic sites.

Motor for anterograde transport of mitochondria. Has a microtubule plus end-directed motility. Isoform 2 is required for induction of neuronal apoptosis.

Motor required for the retrograde transport of Golgi vesicles to the endoplasmic reticulum. Has a microtubule plus end-directed motility.

Kinesin family member that is involved in spindle formation and the movements of chromosomes during mitosis and meiosis. Binds to microtubules and to DNA (By similarity). Plays a role in congression of laterally attached chromosomes in NDC80-depleted cells.

Microtubule-dependent motor protein that acts as a negative regulator of ciliogenesis by mediating recruitment of CCP110 to mother centriole in cycling cells, leading to restrict nucleation of cilia at centrioles. Mediates depolymerization of microtubules of centriolar origin, possibly to suppress aberrant cilia formation. Following activation by NEK2 involved in disassembly of primary cilium during G2/M phase but does not disassemble fully formed ciliary axonemes. As cilium assembly and disassembly is proposed to coexist in a dynamic equilibrium may suppress nascent cilium assembly and, potentially, ciliar re-assembly in cells that have already disassembled their cilia ensuring the completion of cilium removal in the later stages of the cell cycle. Plays an important role in recruiting MPHOSPH9, a negative regulator of cilia formation to the distal end of mother centriole.

Minus-end microtubule-dependent motor protein (By similarity). Acts as a negative regulator of centrosome separation required to prevent premature centrosome separation during interphase. Required to maintain a centered nucleus to ensure that the spindle is stably oriented at the onset of mitosis. May also act as a negative regulator of amino acid starvation-induced autophagy.

Plus end-directed microtubule-dependent motor required for normal brain development. May regulate microtubule dynamics during axonal growth. Required for normal progression through mitosis. Required for normal congress of chromosomes at the metaphase plate. Required for normal spindle dynamics during mitosis. Promotes spindle turnover. Implicated in formation of bipolar mitotic spindles. Has microtubule depolymerization activity.

Plus end-directed microtubule-dependent motor required for spindle assembly and chromosome movement. Has microtubule depolymerization activity. Plays a role in chromosome congression.

In complex with KIF18B, constitutes the major microtubule plus-end depolymerizing activity in mitotic cells. Regulates the turnover of microtubules at the kinetochore and functions in chromosome segregation during mitosis. Plays a role in chromosome congression and is required for the lateral to end- on conversion of the chromosome-microtubule attachment.

Microtubule-based molecular motor that transport intracellular cargos, such as vesicles, organelles and protein complexes. Uses ATP hydrolysis to generate force to bind and move along the microtubule (By similarity). Plays a role in cilia formation. Involved in photoreceptor integrity and opsin trafficking in rod photoreceptors. Transports vesicles containing N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor subunit GRIN2A into neuronal dendrites (By similarity).

Microtubule-based anterograde translocator for membranous organelles.

Iron-sulfur (Fe-S) cluster binding motor protein that has a role in chromosome segregation during mitosis. Translocates PRC1 to the plus ends of interdigitating spindle microtubules during the metaphase to anaphase transition, an essential step for the formation of an organized central spindle midzone and midbody and for successful cytokinesis. May play a role in mitotic chromosomal positioning and bipolar spindle stabilization (By similarity).

Iron-sulfur (Fe-S) cluster binding motor protein that has a role in chromosome segregation during mitosis (By similarity). Translocates PRC1 to the plus ends of interdigitating spindle microtubules during the metaphase to anaphase transition, an essential step for the formation of an organized central spindle midzone and midbody and for successful cytokinesis (By similarity). May play a role in mitotic chromosomal positioning and bipolar spindle stabilization (By similarity).

Microtubule-dependent motor required for slow axonal transport of neurofilament proteins (NFH, NFM and NFL). Can induce formation of neurite-like membrane protrusions in non-neuronal cells in a ZFYVE27-dependent manner. The ZFYVE27-KIF5A complex contributes to the vesicular transport of VAPA, VAPB, SURF4, RAB11A, RAB11B and RTN3 proteins in neurons. Required for anterograde axonal transportation of MAPK8IP3/JIP3 which is essential for MAPK8IP3/JIP3 function in axon elongation.

Microtubule-associated force-producing protein that may play a role in organelle transport. Has ATPase activity (By similarity). Involved in synaptic transmission. Mediates dendritic trafficking of mRNAs (By similarity). Required for anterograde axonal transportation of MAPK8IP3/JIP3 which is essential for MAPK8IP3/JIP3 function in axon elongation (By similarity).

Essential for hedgehog signaling regulation: acts as both a negative and positive regulator of sonic hedgehog (Shh) and Indian hedgehog (Ihh) pathways, acting downstream of SMO, through both SUFU- dependent and -independent mechanisms. Involved in the regulation of microtubular dynamics. Required for proper organization of the ciliary tip and control of ciliary localization of SUFU-GLI2 complexes (By similarity). Required for localization of GLI3 to cilia in response to Shh. Negatively regulates Shh signaling by preventing inappropriate activation of the transcriptional activator GLI2 in the absence of ligand. Positively regulates Shh signaling by preventing the processing of the transcription factor GLI3 into its repressor form. In keratinocytes, promotes the dissociation of SUFU- GLI2 complexes, GLI2 nuclear translocation and Shh signaling activation (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of epidermal differentiation and chondrocyte development (By similarity).

Essential for normal male fertility and for progressive motility of spermatozoa.

Involved in tethering the chromosomes to the spindle pole and in chromosome movement. Binds to the tail domain of the KIF3A/KIF3B heterodimer to form a heterotrimeric KIF3 complex and may regulate the membrane binding of this complex (By similarity).

Minus end-directed microtubule-dependent motor required for bipolar spindle formation. May contribute to movement of early endocytic vesicles (By similarity). Regulates cilium formation and structure (By similarity).

Minus-end microtubule-dependent motor protein. Involved in apically targeted transport (By similarity). Required for zonula adherens maintenance.

DNA-binding protein involved in S phase checkpoint control- coupled apoptosis by mediating p53/TP53-induced apoptosis. Has the ability to inhibit DNA synthesis and S phase arrest coupled to apoptosis. Has affinity to both double- and single-stranded DNA.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of mevalonate to mevalonate 5- phosphate, a key step in isoprenoid and cholesterol biosynthesis.

Involved in DNA replication and the cellular response to DNA damage. May participate in DNA replication factories and create a bridge between DNA replication and repair mediated by high molecular weight complexes. May play a role in illegitimate recombination and regulation of gene expression. May participate in mRNA processing. Binds, in vitro, to double-stranded DNA. Also shown to bind preferentially to curved DNA in vitro and in vivo (By similarity). Binds via its C-terminal domain to RNA in vitro.

Microtubule-dependent motor required for normal distribution of mitochondria and lysosomes. Can induce formation of neurite-like membrane protrusions in non-neuronal cells in a ZFYVE27-dependent manner (By similarity). Regulates centrosome and nuclear positioning during mitotic entry. During the G2 phase of the cell cycle in a BICD2- dependent manner, antagonizes dynein function and drives the separation of nuclei and centrosomes. Required for anterograde axonal transportation of MAPK8IP3/JIP3 which is essential for MAPK8IP3/JIP3 function in axon elongation (By similarity). Through binding with PLEKHM2 and ARL8B, directs lysosome movement toward microtubule plus ends (Probable). Involved in NK cell-mediated cytotoxicity. Drives the polarization of cytolytic granules and microtubule-organizing centers (MTOCs) toward the immune synapse between effector NK lymphocytes and target cells.

Required for proper function of the glomerular filtration barrier. It is involved in the maintenance of a stable podocyte architecture with interdigitating foot processes connected by specialized cell-cell junctions, known as the slit diaphragm. It is a signaling protein that needs the presence of TEC kinases to fully trans-activate the transcription factor AP-1 (By similarity).

Synaptic adhesion molecule required for the formation of target-specific synapses. Required for formation of target-specific synapses at hippocampal mossy fiber synapses. Required for formation of mossy fiber filopodia, the synaptic structures connecting dentate granule and GABA neurons. Probably acts as a homophilic adhesion molecule that promotes trans-cellular interactions and stabilize mossy fiber filipodia contact and subsequent synapse formation. Required for the coalescence of vomeronasal sensory neuron axons. May be involved in the hematopoietic supportive capacity of stroma cells; the secreted extracellular domain is directly responsible for supporting hematopoietic stem cells.

Metastasis suppressor protein in malignant melanomas and in some breast cancers. May regulate events downstream of cell-matrix adhesion, perhaps involving cytoskeletal reorganization. Generates a C- terminally amidated peptide, metastin which functions as the endogenous ligand of the G-protein coupled receptor GPR54. Activation of the receptor inhibits cell proliferation and cell migration, key characteristics of tumor metastasis. Kp-10 is a decapeptide derived from the primary translation product, isolated in conditioned medium of first trimester trophoblast. Kp-10, but not other kisspeptins, increased intracellular Ca(2+) levels in isolated first trimester trophoblasts. Kp-10 is a paracrine/endocrine regulator in fine-tuning trophoblast invasion generated by the trophoblast itself. The receptor is also essential for normal gonadotropin-released hormone physiology and for puberty. The hypothalamic KiSS1/GPR54 system is a pivotal factor in central regulation of the gonadotropic axis at puberty and in adulthood.

Receptor for metastin (kisspeptin-54 or kp-54), a C- terminally amidated peptide of KiSS1. KiSS1 is a metastasis suppressor protein that suppresses metastases in malignant melanomas and in some breast carcinomas without affecting tumorigenicity. The metastasis suppressor properties may be mediated in part by cell cycle arrest and induction of apoptosis in malignant cells. The receptor is essential for normal gonadotropin-released hormone physiology and for puberty. The hypothalamic KiSS1/KISS1R system is a pivotal factor in central regulation of the gonadotropic axis at puberty and in adulthood. The receptor is also probably involved in the regulation and fine-tuning of trophoblast invasion generated by the trophoblast itself. Analysis of the transduction pathways activated by the receptor identifies coupling to phospholipase C and intracellular calcium release through pertussis toxin-insensitive G(q) proteins.

Cell-cycle-regulated enzyme of importance in nucleotide metabolism. Catalyzes the first enzymatic step in the salvage pathway converting thymidine into thymidine monophosphate. Transcriptional regulation limits expression to the S phase of the cell cycle and transient expression coincides with the oscillation in the intracellular dTTP concentration (Probable). Also important for the activation of anticancer and antiviral nucleoside analog prodrugs such as 1-b-d-arabinofuranosylcytosine (AraC) and 3c- azido-3c-deoxythymidine (AZT).

Phosphorylates thymidine, deoxycytidine, and deoxyuridine in the mitochondrial matrix. In non- replicating cells, where cytosolic dNTP synthesis is down-regulated, mtDNA synthesis depends solely on TK2 and DGUOK. Widely used as target of antiviral and chemotherapeutic agents.

Tyrosine-protein kinase that acts as cell-surface receptor for the cytokine KITLG/SCF and plays an essential role in the regulation of cell survival and proliferation, hematopoiesis, stem cell maintenance, gametogenesis, mast cell development, migration and function, and in melanogenesis. In response to KITLG/SCF binding, KIT can activate several signaling pathways. Phosphorylates PIK3R1, PLCG1, SH2B2/APS and CBL. Activates the AKT1 signaling pathway by phosphorylation of PIK3R1, the regulatory subunit of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase. Activated KIT also transmits signals via GRB2 and activation of RAS, RAF1 and the MAP kinases MAPK1/ERK2 and/or MAPK3/ERK1. Promotes activation of STAT family members STAT1, STAT3, STAT5A and STAT5B. Activation of PLCG1 leads to the production of the cellular signaling molecules diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5- trisphosphate. KIT signaling is modulated by protein phosphatases, and by rapid internalization and degradation of the receptor. Activated KIT promotes phosphorylation of the protein phosphatases PTPN6/SHP-1 and PTPRU, and of the transcription factors STAT1, STAT3, STAT5A and STAT5B. Promotes phosphorylation of PIK3R1, CBL, CRK (isoform Crk-II), LYN, MAPK1/ERK2 and/or MAPK3/ERK1, PLCG1, SRC and SHC1.

Centrosomal protein required for establishing a robust mitotic centrosome architecture that can endure the forces that converge on the centrosomes during spindle formation. Required for stabilizing the expanded pericentriolar material around the centriole.

Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase that belongs to a proposed calcium-triggered signaling cascade involved in a number of cellular processes. Phosphorylates CAMK1, CAMK1D, CAMK1G and CAMK4. Involved in regulating cell apoptosis. Promotes cell survival by phosphorylating AKT1/PKB that inhibits pro-apoptotic BAD/Bcl2- antagonist of cell death.

Calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase belonging to a proposed calcium-triggered signaling cascade involved in a number of cellular processes. Isoform 1, isoform 2 and isoform 3 phosphorylate CAMK1 and CAMK4. Isoform 3 phosphorylates CAMK1D. Isoform 4, isoform 5 and isoform 6 lacking part of the calmodulin-binding domain are inactive. Efficiently phosphorylates 5'-AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) trimer, including that consisting of PRKAA1, PRKAB1 and PRKAG1. This phosphorylation is stimulated in response to Ca(2+) signals (By similarity). Seems to be involved in hippocampal activation of CREB1 (By similarity). May play a role in neurite growth. Isoform 3 may promote neurite elongation, while isoform 1 may promoter neurite branching.

Kinesin is a microtubule-associated force-producing protein that may play a role in organelle transport. The light chain may function in coupling of cargo to the heavy chain or in the modulation of its ATPase activity

Kinesin is a microtubule-associated force-producing protein that plays a role in organelle transport. The light chain functions in coupling of cargo to the heavy chain or in the modulation of its ATPase activity (Probable). Through binding with PLEKHM2 and ARL8B, recruits kinesin-1 to lysosomes and hence direct lysosomes movement toward microtubule plus ends.

Kinesin is a microtubule-associated force-producing protein that may play a role in organelle transport. Plays a role during spermiogenesis in the development of the sperm tail midpiece and in the normal function of spermatozoa (By similarity). May play a role in the formation of the mitochondrial sheath formation in the developing spermatid midpiece (By similarity).

Kinesin is a microtubule-associated force-producing protein that may play a role in organelle transport. The light chain may function in coupling of cargo to the heavy chain or in the modulation of its ATPase activity (By similarity).

Substrate-recognition component of a Cul2-RING (CRL2) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex of the DesCEND (destruction via C-end degrons) pathway, which recognizes a C-degron located at the extreme C terminus of target proteins, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. The C-degron recognized by the DesCEND pathway is usually a motif of less than ten residues and can be present in full-length proteins, truncated proteins or proteolytically cleaved forms. The CRL2(KLHDC10) complex specifically recognizes proteins with a proline-glycine (Pro-Gly) at the C-terminus, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. Participates in the oxidative stress-induced cell death through MAP3K5 activation. Inhibits PPP5C phosphatase activity on MAP3K5. Acts as a regulator of necroptosis (By similarity).

Involved in pinching off the separated nuclei at the cleavage furrow and in cytokinesis. Required for mitotic integrity and maintenance of chromosomal stability. Protects cells against mitotic errors, centrosomal amplification, micronucleus formation and aneuploidy. Plays a key role of midbody function involving abscission of the daughter cells during cytokinesis and appropriate chromosomal and nuclear segregation into the daughter cells.

Substrate-recognition component of a Cul5-RING (CRL5) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex of the DesCEND (destruction via C-end degrons) pathway, which recognizes a C-degron located at the extreme C terminus of target proteins, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. The C-degron recognized by the DesCEND pathway is usually a motif of less than ten residues and can be present in full-length proteins, truncated proteins or proteolytically cleaved forms. The CRL5(KLHDC1) complex mediates ubiquitination and degradation of truncated SELENOS selenoprotein produced by failed UGA/Sec decoding, which ends with a glycine.

Substrate-recognition component of a Cul2-RING (CRL2) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex of the DesCEND (destruction via C-end degrons) pathway, which recognizes a C-degron located at the extreme C terminus of target proteins, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. The C- degron recognized by the DesCEND pathway is usually a motif of less than ten residues and can be present in full-length proteins, truncated proteins or proteolytically cleaved forms. The CRL2(KLHDC2) complex specifically recognizes proteins with a diglycine (Gly-Gly) at the C- terminus, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. The CRL2(KLHDC2) complex mediates ubiquitination and degradation of truncated SELENOK and SELENOS selenoproteins produced by failed UGA/Sec decoding, which end with a diglycine. The CRL2(KLHDC2) complex also recognizes proteolytically cleaved proteins ending with Gly-Gly, such as the N-terminal fragment of USP1, leading to their degradation. May also act as an indirect repressor of CREB3-mediated transcription by interfering with CREB3-DNA-binding.

Substrate-recognition component of a Cul2-RING (CRL2) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex of the DesCEND (destruction via C-end degrons) pathway, which recognizes a C-degron located at the extreme C terminus of target proteins, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. The C-degron recognized by the DesCEND pathway is usually a motif of less than ten residues and can be present in full-length proteins, truncated proteins or proteolytically cleaved forms. The CRL2(KLHDC3) complex specifically recognizes proteins with a glycine (Gly) at the C-terminus, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation: recognizes the C-terminal -Arg-(Xaa)n-Arg-Gly, -Arg- (Xaa)n-Lys-Gly, and -Arg-(Xaa)n-Gln-Gly degrons. The CRL2(KLHDC3) complex mediates ubiquitination and degradation of truncated SELENOV and SEPHS2 selenoproteins produced by failed UGA/Sec decoding, which end with a glycine. May be involved in meiotic recombination process.

Transcriptional repressor which binds to the consensus sequence 5'-GGTGTG-3'. Plays a role in the regulation of the circadian clock; binds to the GC box sequence in the promoter of the core clock component ARTNL/BMAL1 and represses its transcriptional activity. Regulates the circadian expression of genes involved in lipogenesis, gluconeogenesis, and glycolysis in the liver. Represses the expression of PCK2, a rate-limiting step enzyme of gluconeogenesis (By similarity). May play a role in the cell cycle regulation.

Transcription factor. Activates the epsilon- and gamma-globin gene promoters and, to a much lower degree, the beta-globin gene and represses promoters containing SP1-like binding inhibiting cell growth. Represses transcription of SMAD7 which enhances TGF-beta signaling (By similarity). Induces apoptosis (By similarity).

Represses transcription by binding to the BTE site, a GC-rich DNA element, in competition with the activator SP1. It also represses transcription by interacting with the corepressor Sin3A and HDAC1. Activates RANTES expression in T-cells.

Transcriptional regulator that binds to the GA element of the CLCNKA promoter. Binds to the KCNIP2 promoter and regulates KCNIP2 circadian expression in the heart (By similarity). Is a repressor of CCN2 expression, involved in the control of cardiac fibrosis. It is also involved in the control of cardiac hypertrophy acting through the inhibition of MEF2A and GATA4 (By similarity). Involved in podocyte differentiation (By similarity). Inhibits MYOCD activity. Is a negative regulator of TP53 acetylation. Inhibits NF-kappa-B activation through repression of EP300-dependent RELA acetylation.

Transcription factor that binds GC and GT boxes and displaces Sp1 and Sp3 from these sequences. Modulates dopaminergic transmission in the brain (By similarity).

Transcription repressor that binds to the promoter of target genes and prevents their expression. Acts as a negative regulator of epithelial-mesenchymal transition and metastasis in breast cancer. Specifically binds the 5'-CACCC-3' sequence in the promoter of ID1, a key metastasis regulator in breast cancer, and repress its expression. May be a germ cell-specific transcription factor that plays important roles in spermatid differentiation and oocyte development (By similarity).

Transcription regulator of erythrocyte development that probably serves as a general switch factor during erythropoiesis. Is a dual regulator of fetal-to-adult globin switching. Binds to the CACCC box in the beta-globin gene promoter and acts as a preferential activator of this gene. Furthermore, it binds to the BCL11A promoter and activates expression of BCL11A, which in turn represses the HBG1 and HBG2 genes. This dual activity ensures that, in most adults, fetal hemoglobin levels are low. Able to activate CD44 and AQP1 promoters. When sumoylated, acts as a transcriptional repressor by promoting interaction with CDH2/MI2beta and also represses megakaryocytic differentiation.

Transcription factor that binds to the CACCC box in the promoter of target genes such as HBB/beta globin or NOV and activates their transcription. Might be involved in transcriptional regulation by modulating the binding of the RARA nuclear receptor to RARE DNA elements.

Binds to the CACCC box of erythroid cell-expressed genes. May play a role in hematopoiesis (By similarity).

Transcription factor; can act both as activator and as repressor. Binds the 5'-CACCC-3' core sequence. Binds to the promoter region of its own gene and can activate its own transcription. Regulates the expression of key transcription factors during embryonic development. Plays an important role in maintaining embryonic stem cells, and in preventing their differentiation. Required for establishing the barrier function of the skin and for postnatal maturation and maintenance of the ocular surface. Involved in the differentiation of epithelial cells and may also function in skeletal and kidney development. Contributes to the down-regulation of p53/TP53 transcription.

Transcription factor that binds to GC box promoter elements. Activates the transcription of these genes

Transcriptional activator (By similarity). Binds a GC box motif. Could play a role in B-cell growth and development.

Transcriptional factor. Plays a critical role in neuronal morphogenesis and survival of sensory neurons (By similarity). Represses the corneal epithelium differentiation. Acts also as a metabolic regulator, by modulating insulin sensitivity in pancreatic beta cells and skeletal muscle cells. Inhibits transcriptional inducers of adipogenesis and has a repressive role in the expression of several adipokines, including leptin.

Transcriptional repressor and activator. Binds to CACCC-boxes promoter elements. Also binds the GT-box of cyclin D1 promoter and mediates cell cycle progression at G(1) phase as a downstream target of focal adhesion kinase (FAK).

Transcription factor that binds to GC box promoter elements. Selectively activates mRNA synthesis from genes containing tandem repeats of GC boxes but represses genes with a single GC box. Acts as an epidermal circadian transcription factor regulating keratinocyte proliferation.

May be a substrate-specific adapter of a CUL3-based E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins during spermatogenesis

Component of a cullin-RING-based BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that mediates the ubiquitination of target proteins, leading most often to their proteasomal degradation.

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex that acts as a negative regulator of Wnt signaling pathway and ER-Golgi transport. The BCR(KLHL12) complex is involved in ER-Golgi transport by regulating the size of COPII coats, thereby playing a key role in collagen export, which is required for embryonic stem (ES) cells division: BCR(KLHL12) acts by mediating monoubiquitination of SEC31 (SEC31A or SEC31B). The BCR(KLHL12) complex is also involved in neural crest specification: in response to cytosolic calcium increase, interacts with the heterodimer formed with PEF1 and PDCD6/ALG-2, leading to bridge together the BCR(KLHL12) complex and SEC31 (SEC31A or SEC31B), promoting monoubiquitination of SEC31 and subsequent collagen export. As part of the BCR(KLHL12) complex, also acts as a negative regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway by mediating ubiquitination and subsequent proteolysis of DVL3. The BCR(KLHL12) complex also mediates polyubiquitination of DRD4 and PEF1, without leading to degradation of these proteins.

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex required for mitotic progression and cytokinesis. The BCR(KLHL9-KLHL13) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex mediates the ubiquitination of AURKB and controls the dynamic behavior of AURKB on mitotic chromosomes and thereby coordinates faithful mitotic progression and completion of cytokinesis.

Substrate-specific adapter for CUL3 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex. Acts as an adapter for CUL3 to target the serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) subunit PPP2R5B for ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation, thus promoting exchange with other regulatory subunits. Acts as an adapter for CUL3 to target the DNA-end resection factor RBBP8/CtIP for ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation. Through the regulation of RBBP8/CtIP protein turnover, plays a key role in DNA damage response, favoring DNA double-strand repair through error-prone non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) over error-free, RBBP8-mediated homologous recombination (HR).

Substrate-recognition component of some cullin-RING-based BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes. The BCR(KLHL17) complex mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of GLUR6. May play a role in the actin-based neuronal function (By similarity).

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex required for mitotic progression and cytokinesis. The BCR(KLHL18) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex mediates the ubiquitination of AURKA leading to its activation at the centrosome which is required for initiating mitotic entry. Regulates light-and dark-dependent alpha-transducin localization changes in rod photoreceptors through UNC119 ubiquitination and degradation (By similarity). Preferentially ubiquitinates the unphosphorylated form of UNC119 over the phosphorylated form (By similarity). In the presence of UNC119, under dark-adapted conditions alpha-transducin mislocalizes from the outer segment to the inner part of rod photoreceptors which leads to decreased photoreceptor damage caused by light (By similarity).

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex involved in interferon response and anterograde Golgi to endosome transport. The BCR(KLHL20) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex mediates the ubiquitination of DAPK1, leading to its degradation by the proteasome, thereby acting as a negative regulator of apoptosis. The BCR(KLHL20) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex also specifically mediates 'Lys-33'-linked ubiquitination. Involved in anterograde Golgi to endosome transport by mediating 'Lys-33'-linked ubiquitination of CORO7, promoting interaction between CORO7 and EPS15, thereby facilitating actin polymerization and post-Golgi trafficking. Also acts as a regulator of endothelial migration during angiogenesis by controlling the activation of Rho GTPases. The BCR(KLHL20) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex acts as a regulator of neurite outgrowth by mediating ubiquitination and degradation of PDZ-RhoGEF/ARHGEF11. In case of tumor, the BCR(KLHL20) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex is involved in tumor hypoxia: following hypoxia, the BCR(KLHL20)complex mediates ubiquitination and degradation of PML, potentiating HIF-1 signaling and cancer progression.

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex required for efficient chromosome alignment and cytokinesis. The BCR(KLHL21) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex regulates localization of the chromosomal passenger complex (CPC) from chromosomes to the spindle midzone in anaphase and mediates the ubiquitination of AURKB. Ubiquitination of AURKB by BCR(KLHL21) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex may not lead to its degradation by the proteasome.

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex required for chromosome alignment and localization of PLK1 at kinetochores. The BCR(KLHL22) ubiquitin ligase complex mediates monoubiquitination of PLK1, leading to PLK1 dissociation from phosphoreceptor proteins and subsequent removal from kinetochores, allowing silencing of the spindle assembly checkpoint (SAC) and chromosome segregation. Monoubiquitination of PLK1 does not lead to PLK1 degradation. The BCR(KLHL22) ubiquitin ligase complex is also responsible for the amino acid-stimulated 'Lys-48' polyubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of DEPDC5. Through the degradation of DEPDC5, releases the GATOR1 complex-mediated inhibition of the TORC1 pathway. It is therefore an amino acid-dependent activator within the amino acid-sensing branch of the TORC1 pathway, indirectly regulating different cellular processes including cell growth and autophagy.

Necessary to maintain the balance between intermediate filament stability and degradation, a process that is essential for skin integrity. As part of the BCR(KLHL24) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex, mediates ubiquitination of KRT14 and controls its levels during keratinocytes differentiation. Specifically reduces kainate receptor-mediated currents in hippocampal neurons, most probably by modulating channel properties (By similarity).

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex involved in various processes, such as translation homeostasis and lipid synthesis. The BCR(KLHL25) ubiquitin ligase complex acts by mediating ubiquitination of hypophosphorylated EIF4EBP1 (4E-BP1): ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of hypophosphorylated EIF4EBP1 (4E-BP1) probably serves as a homeostatic mechanism to maintain translation and prevent eIF4E inhibition when eIF4E levels are low. The BCR(KLHL25) complex does not target EIF4EBP1 (4E-BP1) when it is hyperphosphorylated or associated with eIF4E. The BCR(KLHL25) complex also acts as a regulator of lipid synthesis by mediating ubiquitination and degradation of ACLY, thereby inhibiting lipid synthesis. BCR(KLHL25)-mediated degradation of ACLY promotes fatty acid oxidation and is required for differentiation of inducible regulatory T (iTreg) cells.

Transcriptional repressor in MAPK/JNK signaling pathway to regulate cellular functions. Overexpression inhibits the transcriptional activities of both the TPA-response element (TRE) and serum response element (SRE).

Probable substrate-specific adapter of an E3 ubiquitin- protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins.

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex that acts as a key regulator of skeletal muscle development. The BCR(KLHL40) complex acts by mediating ubiquitination and degradation of TFDP1, thereby regulating the activity of the E2F:DP transcription factor complex (By similarity). Promotes stabilization of LMOD3 by acting as a negative regulator of LMOD3 ubiquitination; the molecular process by which it negatively regulates ubiquitination of LMOD3 is however unclear (By similarity).

Involved in skeletal muscle development and differentiation. Regulates proliferation and differentiation of myoblasts and plays a role in myofibril assembly by promoting lateral fusion of adjacent thin fibrils into mature, wide myofibrils. Required for pseudopod elongation in transformed cells.

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex required for mitotic progression and cytokinesis. The BCR(KLHL42) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of KATNA1. Involved in microtubule dynamics throughout mitosis.

May play a role in organizing the actin cytoskeleton of the brain cells

Component of a cullin-RING-based BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that mediates the ubiquitination of target proteins, such as NPTXR, leading most often to their proteasomal degradation (By similarity). Responsible for degradative ubiquitination of the WNK kinases WNK1, WNK3 and WNK4. Plays a role in the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton. Promotes growth of cell projections in oligodendrocyte precursors.

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex that acts as a regulator of ion transport in the distal nephron. The BCR(KLHL3) complex acts by mediating ubiquitination of WNK4, an inhibitor of potassium channel KCNJ1, leading to WNK4 degradation. The BCR(KLHL3) complex also mediates ubiquitination and degradation of CLDN8, a tight- junction protein required for paracellular chloride transport in the kidney (By similarity).

Involved in B-lymphocyte antigen receptor signaling and germinal center formation.

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex. The BCR(KLHL7) complex acts by mediating ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of substrate proteins. Probably mediates 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitination.

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex required for The BCR(KLHL8) ubiquitin ligase complex mediates ubiquitination and degradation of RAPSN.

Has a tumor-suppressor role for NES1 in breast and prostate cancer

Possible multifunctional protease. Efficiently cleaves 'bz- Phe-Arg-4-methylcoumaryl-7-amide', a kallikrein substrate, and weakly cleaves other substrates for kallikrein and trypsin. Cleaves synthetic peptides after arginine but not lysine residues.

Glandular kallikreins cleave Met-Lys and Arg-Ser bonds in kininogen to release Lys-bradykinin

Hydrolyzes semenogelin-1 thus leading to the liquefaction of the seminal coagulum

Serine protease which exhibits a preference for Arg over Lys in the substrate P1 position and for Ser or Pro in the P2 position. Shows activity against amyloid precursor protein, myelin basic protein, gelatin, casein and extracellular matrix proteins such as fibronectin, laminin, vitronectin and collagen. Degrades alpha-synuclein and prevents its polymerization, indicating that it may be involved in the pathogenesis of Parkinson disease and other synucleinopathies. May be involved in regulation of axon outgrowth following spinal cord injury. Tumor cells treated with a neutralizing KLK6 antibody migrate less than control cells, suggesting a role in invasion and metastasis.

May catalyze the degradation of intercellular cohesive structures in the cornified layer of the skin in the continuous shedding of cells from the skin surface. Specific for amino acid residues with aromatic side chains in the P1 position. Cleaves insulin A chain at '14-Tyr-|-Gln-15' and insulin B chain at '6-Leu-|-Cys-7', '16-Tyr-|-Leu-17', '25-Phe-|-Tyr-26' and '26-Tyr-|-Thr-27'. Could play a role in the activation of precursors to inflammatory cytokines.

Serine protease which is capable of degrading a number of proteins such as casein, fibrinogen, kininogen, fibronectin and collagen type IV. Also cleaves L1CAM in response to increased neural activity. Induces neurite outgrowth and fasciculation of cultured hippocampal neurons. Plays a role in the formation and maturation of orphan and small synaptic boutons in the Schaffer-collateral pathway, regulates Schaffer-collateral long-term potentiation in the hippocampus and is required for memory acquisition and synaptic plasticity. Involved in skin desquamation and keratinocyte proliferation. Plays a role in the secondary phase of pathogenesis following spinal cord injury.

The enzyme cleaves Lys-Arg and Arg-Ser bonds. It activates, in a reciprocal reaction, factor XII after its binding to a negatively charged surface. It also releases bradykinin from HMW kininogen and may also play a role in the renin-angiotensin system by converting prorenin into renin

Contributes to the transcriptional repression of cholesterol 7-alpha-hydroxylase (CYP7A1), the rate-limiting enzyme in bile acid synthesis. Probably inactive as a glycosidase. Increases the ability of FGFR1 and FGFR4 to bind FGF21 (By similarity).

May have weak glycosidase activity towards glucuronylated steroids. However, it lacks essential active site Glu residues at positions 239 and 872, suggesting it may be inactive as a glycosidase in vivo. May be involved in the regulation of calcium and phosphorus homeostasis by inhibiting the synthesis of active vitamin D (By similarity). Essential factor for the specific interaction between FGF23 and FGFR1 (By similarity).

Plays an inhibitory role on natural killer (NK) cells cytotoxicity. Activation results in specific acid sphingomyelinase/SMPD1 stimulation with subsequent marked elevation of intracellular ceramide. Activation also leads to AKT1/PKB and RPS6KA1/RSK1 kinases stimulation as well as markedly enhanced T-cell proliferation induced by anti-CD3. Acts as a lectin that binds to the terminal carbohydrate Gal-alpha(1,3)Gal epitope as well as to the N- acetyllactosamine epitope. Binds also to CLEC2D/LLT1 as a ligand and inhibits NK cell-mediated cytotoxicity as well as interferon-gamma secretion in target cells.

Immune receptor involved in self-nonself discrimination. In complex with KLRC1 or KLRC2 on cytotoxic and regulatory lymphocyte subsets, recognizes non-classical major histocompatibility (MHC) class Ib molecule HLA-E loaded with self-peptides derived from the signal sequence of classical MHC class Ia and non-classical MHC class Ib molecules. Enables cytotoxic cells to monitor the expression of MHC class I molecules in healthy cells and to tolerate self. Primarily functions as a ligand binding subunit as it lacks the capacity to signal.

Involved in the natural killer (NK)-mediated cytolysis of PHA-induced lymphoblasts

C-type lectin-like receptor involved in natural killer cell mediated cytotoxicity and cytokine secretion in keratinocytes via its interaction with CLEC2A.

Plays an inhibitory role on natural killer (NK) cells and T- cell functions upon binding to their non-MHC ligands. May mediate missing self recognition by binding to a highly conserved site on classical cadherins, enabling it to monitor expression of E- cadherin/CDH1, N-cadherin/CDH2 and R-cadherin/CDH4 on target cells.

Catalyzes the hydroxylation of L-kynurenine (L-Kyn) to form 3-hydroxy-L-kynurenine (L-3OHKyn). Required for synthesis of quinolinic acid, a neurotoxic NMDA receptor antagonist and potential endogenous inhibitor of NMDA receptor signaling in axonal targeting, synaptogenesis and apoptosis during brain development. Quinolinic acid may also affect NMDA receptor signaling in pancreatic beta cells, osteoblasts, myocardial cells, and the gastrointestinal tract (Probable).

Histone methyltransferase that plays an essential role in early development and hematopoiesis. Catalytic subunit of the MLL1/MLL complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates both methylation of 'Lys- 4' of histone H3 (H3K4me) complex and acetylation of 'Lys-16' of histone H4 (H4K16ac). Catalyzes methyl group transfer from S-adenosyl-L-methionine to the epsilon-amino group of 'Lys-4' of histone H3 (H3K4) via a non-processive mechanism. Part of chromatin remodeling machinery predominantly forms H3K4me1 and H3K4me2 methylation marks at active chromatin sites where transcription and DNA repair take place. Has weak methyltransferase activity by itself, and requires other component of the MLL1/MLL complex to obtain full methyltransferase activity. Has no activity toward histone H3 phosphorylated on 'Thr-3', less activity toward H3 dimethylated on 'Arg-8' or 'Lys-9', while it has higher activity toward H3 acetylated on 'Lys-9'. Binds to unmethylated CpG elements in the promoter of target genes and helps maintain them in the nonmethylated state. Required for transcriptional activation of HOXA9. Promotes PPP1R15A- induced apoptosis. Plays a critical role in the control of circadian gene expression and is essential for the transcriptional activation mediated by the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer (By similarity). Establishes a permissive chromatin state for circadian transcription by mediating a rhythmic methylation of 'Lys-4' of histone H3 (H3K4me) and this histone modification directs the circadian acetylation at H3K9 and H3K14 allowing the recruitment of CLOCK-BMAL1 to chromatin (By similarity). Also has auto-methylation activity on Cys-3882 in absence of histone H3 substrate.

Histone methyltransferase that catalyzes methyl group transfer from S-adenosyl-L-methionine to the epsilon-amino group of 'Lys-4' of histone H3 (H3K4) via a non-processive mechanism. Part of chromatin remodeling machinery predominantly forms H3K4me1 and H3K4me2 methylation marks at active chromatin sites where transcription and DNA repair take place. Likely plays a redundant role with KMT2C in enriching H3K4me1 marks on primed and active enhancer elements. Plays a central role in beta-globin locus transcription regulation by being recruited by NFE2. Plays an important role in controlling bulk H3K4me during oocyte growth and preimplantation development (By similarity). Required during the transcriptionally active period of oocyte growth for the establishment and/or maintenance of bulk H3K4 trimethylation (H3K4me3), global transcriptional silencing that preceeds resumption of meiosis, oocyte survival and normal zygotic genome activation (By similarity).

Histone methyltransferase that catalyzes methyl group transfer from S-adenosyl-L-methionine to the epsilon-amino group of 'Lys-4' of histone H3 (H3K4). Part of chromatin remodeling machinery predominantly forms H3K4me1 methylation marks at active chromatin sites where transcription and DNA repair take place. Likely plays a redundant role with KMT2D in enriching H3K4me1 mark on primed and active enhancer elements.

Histone methyltransferase that catalyzes methyl group transfer from S-adenosyl-L-methionine to the epsilon-amino group of 'Lys-4' of histone H3 (H3K4). Part of chromatin remodeling machinery predominantly forms H3K4me1 methylation marks at active chromatin sites where transcription and DNA repair take place. Acts as a coactivator for estrogen receptor by being recruited by ESR1, thereby activating transcription.

Associates with chromatin regions downstream of transcriptional start sites of active genes and thus regulates gene transcription. Chromatin interaction is mediated via the binding to tri-methylated histone H3 at 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3). Key regulator of hematopoiesis involved in terminal myeloid differentiation and in the regulation of hematopoietic stem cell (HSCs) self-renewal by a mechanism that involves DNA methylation (By similarity). Also acts as an important cell cycle regulator, participating in cell cycle regulatory network machinery at multiple cell cycle stages including G1/S transition, S phase progression and mitotic entry. Recruited to E2F1 responsive promoters by HCFC1 where it stimulates tri-methylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-4' and transcriptional activation and thereby facilitates G1 to S phase transition. During myoblast differentiation, required to suppress inappropriate expression of S-phase-promoting genes and maintain expression of determination genes in quiescent cells (By similarity).

Protein-lysine N-methyltransferase that monomethylates both histones and non-histone proteins. Specifically monomethylates 'Lys-20' of histone H4 (H4K20me1). H4K20me1 is enriched during mitosis and represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression. Mainly functions in euchromatin regions, thereby playing a central role in the silencing of euchromatic genes. Required for cell proliferation, probably by contributing to the maintenance of proper higher-order structure of DNA during mitosis. Involved in chromosome condensation and proper cytokinesis. Nucleosomes are preferred as substrate compared to free histones. Mediates monomethylation of p53/TP53 at 'Lys-382', leading to repress p53/TP53-target genes. Plays a negative role in TGF- beta response regulation and a positive role in cell migration.

Histone methyltransferase that specifically methylates monomethylated 'Lys-20' (H4K20me1) and dimethylated 'Lys-20' (H4K20me2) of histone H4 to produce respectively dimethylated 'Lys-20' (H4K20me2) and trimethylated 'Lys-20' (H4K20me3) and thus regulates transcription and maintenance of genome integrity. In vitro also methylates unmodified 'Lys-20' (H4K20me0) of histone H4 and nucleosomes. H4 'Lys-20' trimethylation represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression. Mainly functions in pericentric heterochromatin regions, thereby playing a central role in the establishment of constitutive heterochromatin in these regions. KMT5B is targeted to histone H3 via its interaction with RB1 family proteins (RB1, RBL1 and RBL2) (By similarity). Plays a role in myogenesis by regulating the expression of target genes, such as EID3. Facilitates TP53BP1 foci formation upon DNA damage and proficient non-homologous end-joining (NHEJ)-directed DNA repair by catalyzing the di- and trimethylation of 'Lys-20' of histone H4. May play a role in class switch reconbination by catalyzing the di- and trimethylation of 'Lys- 20' of histone H4 (By similarity).

Histone methyltransferase that specifically methylates monomethylated 'Lys-20' (H4K20me1) and dimethylated 'Lys-20' (H4K20me2) of histone H4 to produce respectively dimethylated 'Lys-20' (H4K20me2) and trimethylated 'Lys-20' (H4K20me3) and thus regulates transcription and maintenance of genome integrity. In vitro also methylates unmodified 'Lys-20' (H4K20me0) of histone H4 and nucleosomes. H4 'Lys-20' trimethylation represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression. Mainly functions in pericentric heterochromatin regions, thereby playing a central role in the establishment of constitutive heterochromatin in these regions. KMT5C is targeted to histone H3 via its interaction with RB1 family proteins (RB1, RBL1 and RBL2) (By similarity). Facilitates TP53BP1 foci formation upon DNA damage and proficient non-homologous end-joining (NHEJ)-directed DNA repair by catalyzing the di- and trimethylation of 'Lys-20' of histone H4. May play a role in class switch reconbination by catalyzing the di- and trimethylation of 'Lys-20' of histone H4 (By similarity).

May play a role in stabilizing dense microtubular networks or in vesicular trafficking.

RAS-Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) that controls the negative regulation of neuronal dendrite growth by mediating a signaling pathway linking RAS and MAP2 (By similarity). May be involved in cellular senescence.

Kininogens are inhibitors of thiol proteases. HMW-kininogen plays an important role in blood coagulation by helping to position optimally prekallikrein and factor XI next to factor XII; HMW-kininogen inhibits the thrombin- and plasmin-induced aggregation of thrombocytes. LMW-kininogen inhibits the aggregation of thrombocytes. LMW-kininogen is in contrast to HMW-kininogen not involved in blood clotting

Performs two crucial functions during mitosis: it is essential for spindle-assembly checkpoint signaling and for correct chromosome alignment. Required for attachment of the kinetochores to the spindle microtubules. Directly links BUB1 and BUB1B to kinetochores. Part of the MIS12 complex, which may be fundamental for kinetochore formation and proper chromosome segregation during mitosis. Acts in coordination with CENPK to recruit the NDC80 complex to the outer kinetochore.

Essential component of the mitotic checkpoint, which prevents cells from prematurely exiting mitosis. Required for the assembly of the dynein-dynactin and MAD1-MAD2 complexes onto kinetochores. Its function related to the spindle assembly machinery is proposed to depend on its association in the mitotic RZZ complex.

Phosphorylase b kinase catalyzes the phosphorylation of serine in certain substrates, including troponin I. The alpha chain may bind calmodulin

Phosphorylase b kinase catalyzes the phosphorylation of serine in certain substrates, including troponin I. The beta chain acts as a regulatory unit and modulates the activity of the holoenzyme in response to phosphorylation

Calcium-activated, phospholipid- and diacylglycerol (DAG)- dependent serine/threonine-protein kinase that is involved in positive and negative regulation of cell proliferation, apoptosis, differentiation, migration and adhesion, tumorigenesis, cardiac hypertrophy, angiogenesis, platelet function and inflammation, by directly phosphorylating targets such as RAF1, BCL2, CSPG4, TNNT2/CTNT, or activating signaling cascade involving MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2) and RAP1GAP. Involved in cell proliferation and cell growth arrest by positive and negative regulation of the cell cycle. Can promote cell growth by phosphorylating and activating RAF1, which mediates the activation of the MAPK/ERK signaling cascade, and/or by up-regulating CDKN1A, which facilitates active cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) complex formation in glioma cells. In intestinal cells stimulated by the phorbol ester PMA, can trigger a cell cycle arrest program which is associated with the accumulation of the hyper-phosphorylated growth-suppressive form of RB1 and induction of the CDK inhibitors CDKN1A and CDKN1B. Exhibits anti- apoptotic function in glioma cells and protects them from apoptosis by suppressing the p53/TP53-mediated activation of IGFBP3, and in leukemia cells mediates anti-apoptotic action by phosphorylating BCL2. During macrophage differentiation induced by macrophage colony-stimulating factor (CSF1), is translocated to the nucleus and is associated with macrophage development. After wounding, translocates from focal contacts to lamellipodia and participates in the modulation of desmosomal adhesion. Plays a role in cell motility by phosphorylating CSPG4, which induces association of CSPG4 with extensive lamellipodia at the cell periphery and polarization of the cell accompanied by increases in cell motility. During chemokine-induced CD4(+) T cell migration, phosphorylates CDC42-guanine exchange factor DOCK8 resulting in its dissociation from LRCH1 and the activation of GTPase CDC42. Is highly expressed in a number of cancer cells where it can act as a tumor promoter and is implicated in malignant phenotypes of several tumors such as gliomas and breast cancers. Negatively regulates myocardial contractility and positively regulates angiogenesis, platelet aggregation and thrombus formation in arteries. Mediates hypertrophic growth of neonatal cardiomyocytes, in part through a MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2)-dependent signaling pathway, and upon PMA treatment, is required to induce cardiomyocyte hypertrophy up to heart failure and death, by increasing protein synthesis, protein-DNA ratio and cell surface area. Regulates cardiomyocyte function by phosphorylating cardiac troponin T (TNNT2/CTNT), which induces significant reduction in actomyosin ATPase activity, myofilament calcium sensitivity and myocardial contractility. In angiogenesis, is required for full endothelial cell migration, adhesion to vitronectin (VTN), and vascular endothelial growth factor A (VEGFA)-dependent regulation of kinase activation and vascular tube formation. Involved in the stabilization of VEGFA mRNA at post-transcriptional level and mediates VEGFA-induced cell proliferation. In the regulation of calcium-induced platelet aggregation, mediates signals from the CD36/GP4 receptor for granule release, and activates the integrin heterodimer ITGA2B-ITGB3 through the RAP1GAP pathway for adhesion. During response to lipopolysaccharides (LPS), may regulate selective LPS-induced macrophage functions involved in host defense and inflammation. But in some inflammatory responses, may negatively regulate NF-kappa-B-induced genes, through IL1A-dependent induction of NF-kappa-B inhibitor alpha (NFKBIA/IKBA). Upon stimulation with 12-O- tetradecanoylphorbol-13-acetate (TPA), phosphorylates EIF4G1, which modulates EIF4G1 binding to MKNK1 and may be involved in the regulation of EIF4E phosphorylation. Phosphorylates KIT, leading to inhibition of KIT activity. Phosphorylates ATF2 which promotes cooperation between ATF2 and JUN, activating transcription. Phosphorylates SOCS2 at 'Ser- 52' facilitating its ubiquitination and proteosomal degradation (By similarity).

Calcium-activated, phospholipid- and diacylglycerol (DAG)- dependent serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in various cellular processes such as regulation of the B-cell receptor (BCR) signalosome, oxidative stress-induced apoptosis, androgen receptor-dependent transcription regulation, insulin signaling and endothelial cells proliferation. Plays a key role in B-cell activation by regulating BCR- induced NF-kappa-B activation. Mediates the activation of the canonical NF-kappa-B pathway (NFKB1) by direct phosphorylation of CARD11/CARMA1 at 'Ser-559', 'Ser-644' and 'Ser-652'. Phosphorylation induces CARD11/CARMA1 association with lipid rafts and recruitment of the BCL10-MALT1 complex as well as MAP3K7/TAK1, which then activates IKK complex, resulting in nuclear translocation and activation of NFKB1. Plays a direct role in the negative feedback regulation of the BCR signaling, by down-modulating BTK function via direct phosphorylation of BTK at 'Ser-180', which results in the alteration of BTK plasma membrane localization and in turn inhibition of BTK activity. Involved in apoptosis following oxidative damage: in case of oxidative conditions, specifically phosphorylates 'Ser-36' of isoform p66Shc of SHC1, leading to mitochondrial accumulation of p66Shc, where p66Shc acts as a reactive oxygen species producer. Acts as a coactivator of androgen receptor (AR)-dependent transcription, by being recruited to AR target genes and specifically mediating phosphorylation of 'Thr-6' of histone H3 (H3T6ph), a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation that prevents demethylation of histone H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me) by LSD1/KDM1A. In insulin signaling, may function downstream of IRS1 in muscle cells and mediate insulin-dependent DNA synthesis through the RAF1-MAPK/ERK signaling cascade. Participates in the regulation of glucose transport in adipocytes by negatively modulating the insulin-stimulated translocation of the glucose transporter SLC2A4/GLUT4. Phosphorylates SLC2A1/GLUT1, promoting glucose uptake by SLC2A1/GLUT1. Under high glucose in pancreatic beta-cells, is probably involved in the inhibition of the insulin gene transcription, via regulation of MYC expression. In endothelial cells, activation of PRKCB induces increased phosphorylation of RB1, increased VEGFA-induced cell proliferation, and inhibits PI3K/AKT-dependent nitric oxide synthase (NOS3/eNOS) regulation by insulin, which causes endothelial dysfunction. Also involved in triglyceride homeostasis (By similarity). Phosphorylates ATF2 which promotes cooperation between ATF2 and JUN, activating transcription.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that converts transient diacylglycerol (DAG) signals into prolonged physiological effects downstream of PKC, and is involved in the regulation of MAPK8/JNK1 and Ras signaling, Golgi membrane integrity and trafficking, cell survival through NF-kappa-B activation, cell migration, cell differentiation by mediating HDAC7 nuclear export, cell proliferation via MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2) signaling, and plays a role in cardiac hypertrophy, VEGFA-induced angiogenesis, genotoxic-induced apoptosis and flagellin-stimulated inflammatory response. Phosphorylates the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) on dual threonine residues, which leads to the suppression of epidermal growth factor (EGF)-induced MAPK8/JNK1 activation and subsequent JUN phosphorylation. Phosphorylates RIN1, inducing RIN1 binding to 14-3-3 proteins YWHAB, YWHAE and YWHAZ and increased competition with RAF1 for binding to GTP-bound form of Ras proteins (NRAS, HRAS and KRAS). Acts downstream of the heterotrimeric G-protein beta/gamma-subunit complex to maintain the structural integrity of the Golgi membranes, and is required for protein transport along the secretory pathway. In the trans-Golgi network (TGN), regulates the fission of transport vesicles that are on their way to the plasma membrane. May act by activating the lipid kinase phosphatidylinositol 4-kinase beta (PI4KB) at the TGN for the local synthesis of phosphorylated inositol lipids, which induces a sequential production of DAG, phosphatidic acid (PA) and lyso-PA (LPA) that are necessary for membrane fission and generation of specific transport carriers to the cell surface. Under oxidative stress, is phosphorylated at Tyr-463 via SRC-ABL1 and contributes to cell survival by activating IKK complex and subsequent nuclear translocation and activation of NFKB1. Involved in cell migration by regulating integrin alpha-5/beta-3 recycling and promoting its recruitment in newly forming focal adhesion. In osteoblast differentiation, mediates the bone morphogenetic protein 2 (BMP2)-induced nuclear export of HDAC7, which results in the inhibition of HDAC7 transcriptional repression of RUNX2. In neurons, plays an important role in neuronal polarity by regulating the biogenesis of TGN-derived dendritic vesicles, and is involved in the maintenance of dendritic arborization and Golgi structure in hippocampal cells. May potentiate mitogenesis induced by the neuropeptide bombesin or vasopressin by mediating an increase in the duration of MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2) signaling, which leads to accumulation of immediate-early gene products including FOS that stimulate cell cycle progression. Plays an important role in the proliferative response induced by low calcium in keratinocytes, through sustained activation of MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2) pathway. Downstream of novel PKC signaling, plays a role in cardiac hypertrophy by phosphorylating HDAC5, which in turn triggers XPO1/CRM1-dependent nuclear export of HDAC5, MEF2A transcriptional activation and induction of downstream target genes that promote myocyte hypertrophy and pathological cardiac remodeling. Mediates cardiac troponin I (TNNI3) phosphorylation at the PKA sites, which results in reduced myofilament calcium sensitivity, and accelerated crossbridge cycling kinetics. The PRKD1-HDAC5 pathway is also involved in angiogenesis by mediating VEGFA-induced specific subset of gene expression, cell migration, and tube formation. In response to VEGFA, is necessary and required for HDAC7 phosphorylation which induces HDAC7 nuclear export and endothelial cell proliferation and migration. During apoptosis induced by cytarabine and other genotoxic agents, PRKD1 is cleaved by caspase-3 at Asp-378, resulting in activation of its kinase function and increased sensitivity of cells to the cytotoxic effects of genotoxic agents. In epithelial cells, is required for transducing flagellin-stimulated inflammatory responses by binding and phosphorylating TLR5, which contributes to MAPK14/p38 activation and production of inflammatory cytokines. May play a role in inflammatory response by mediating activation of NF-kappa-B. May be involved in pain transmission by directly modulating TRPV1 receptor. Plays a role in activated KRAS-mediated stabilization of ZNF304 in colorectal cancer (CRC) cells. Regulates nuclear translocation of transcription factor TFEB in macrophages upon live S.enterica infection (By similarity).

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that converts transient diacylglycerol (DAG) signals into prolonged physiological effects downstream of PKC, and is involved in the regulation of cell proliferation via MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2) signaling, oxidative stress-induced NF-kappa-B activation, inhibition of HDAC7 transcriptional repression, signaling downstream of T-cell antigen receptor (TCR) and cytokine production, and plays a role in Golgi membrane trafficking, angiogenesis, secretory granule release and cell adhesion. May potentiate mitogenesis induced by the neuropeptide bombesin by mediating an increase in the duration of MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2) signaling, which leads to accumulation of immediate-early gene products including FOS that stimulate cell cycle progression (By similarity). In response to oxidative stress, is phosphorylated at Tyr-438 and Tyr-717 by ABL1, which leads to the activation of PRKD2 without increasing its catalytic activity, and mediates activation of NF-kappa-B. In response to the activation of the gastrin receptor CCKBR, is phosphorylated at Ser-244 by CSNK1D and CSNK1E, translocates to the nucleus, phosphorylates HDAC7, leading to nuclear export of HDAC7 and inhibition of HDAC7 transcriptional repression of NR4A1/NUR77. Upon TCR stimulation, is activated independently of ZAP70, translocates from the cytoplasm to the nucleus and is required for interleukin-2 (IL2) promoter up-regulation. During adaptive immune responses, is required in peripheral T- lymphocytes for the production of the effector cytokines IL2 and IFNG after TCR engagement and for optimal induction of antibody responses to antigens (By similarity). In epithelial cells stimulated with lysophosphatidic acid (LPA), is activated through a PKC-dependent pathway and mediates LPA-stimulated interleukin-8 (IL8) secretion via a NF-kappa-B-dependent pathway. During TCR-induced T- cell activation, interacts with and is activated by the tyrosine kinase LCK, which results in the activation of the NFAT transcription factors. In the trans-Golgi network (TGN), regulates the fission of transport vesicles that are on their way to the plasma membrane and in polarized cells is involved in the transport of proteins from the TGN to the basolateral membrane. Plays an important role in endothelial cell proliferation and migration prior to angiogenesis, partly through modulation of the expression of KDR/VEGFR2 and FGFR1, two key growth factor receptors involved in angiogenesis. In secretory pathway, is required for the release of chromogranin-A (CHGA)-containing secretory granules from the TGN. Downstream of PRKCA, plays important roles in angiotensin-2-induced monocyte adhesion to endothelial cells. Plays a regulatory role in angiogenesis and tumor growth by phosphorylating a downstream mediator CIB1 isoform 2, resulting in vascular endothelial growth factor A (VEGFA) secretion.

Converts transient diacylglycerol (DAG) signals into prolonged physiological effects, downstream of PKC. Involved in resistance to oxidative stress (By similarity).

Calcium-independent, phospholipid- and diacylglycerol (DAG)- dependent serine/threonine-protein kinase that plays contrasting roles in cell death and cell survival by functioning as a pro-apoptotic protein during DNA damage-induced apoptosis, but acting as an anti- apoptotic protein during cytokine receptor-initiated cell death, is involved in tumor suppression as well as survival of several cancers, is required for oxygen radical production by NADPH oxidase and acts as positive or negative regulator in platelet functional responses. Negatively regulates B cell proliferation and also has an important function in self-antigen induced B cell tolerance induction (By similarity). Upon DNA damage, activates the promoter of the death-promoting transcription factor BCLAF1/Btf to trigger BCLAF1-mediated p53/TP53 gene transcription and apoptosis. In response to oxidative stress, interact with and activate CHUK/IKKA in the nucleus, causing the phosphorylation of p53/TP53. In the case of ER stress or DNA damage-induced apoptosis, can form a complex with the tyrosine-protein kinase ABL1 which trigger apoptosis independently of p53/TP53. In cytosol can trigger apoptosis by activating MAPK11 or MAPK14, inhibiting AKT1 and decreasing the level of X-linked inhibitor of apoptosis protein (XIAP), whereas in nucleus induces apoptosis via the activation of MAPK8 or MAPK9. Upon ionizing radiation treatment, is required for the activation of the apoptosis regulators BAX and BAK, which trigger the mitochondrial cell death pathway. Can phosphorylate MCL1 and target it for degradation which is sufficient to trigger for BAX activation and apoptosis. Is required for the control of cell cycle progression both at G1/S and G2/M phases. Mediates phorbol 12-myristate 13-acetate (PMA)-induced inhibition of cell cycle progression at G1/S phase by up-regulating the CDK inhibitor CDKN1A/p21 and inhibiting the cyclin CCNA2 promoter activity. In response to UV irradiation can phosphorylate CDK1, which is important for the G2/M DNA damage checkpoint activation (By similarity). Can protect glioma cells from the apoptosis induced by TNFSF10/TRAIL, probably by inducing increased phosphorylation and subsequent activation of AKT1. Is highly expressed in a number of cancer cells and promotes cell survival and resistance against chemotherapeutic drugs by inducing cyclin D1 (CCND1) and hyperphosphorylation of RB1, and via several pro-survival pathways, including NF-kappa-B, AKT1 and MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2). Involved in antifungal immunity by mediating phosphorylation and activation of CARD9 downstream of C-type lectin receptors activation, promoting interaction between CARD9 and BCL10, followed by activation of NF- kappa-B and MAP kinase p38 pathways (By similarity). Can also act as tumor suppressor upon mitogenic stimulation with PMA or TPA. In N- formyl-methionyl-leucyl-phenylalanine (fMLP)-treated cells, is required for NCF1 (p47-phox) phosphorylation and activation of NADPH oxidase activity, and regulates TNF-elicited superoxide anion production in neutrophils, by direct phosphorylation and activation of NCF1 or indirectly through MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2) signaling pathways. May also play a role in the regulation of NADPH oxidase activity in eosinophil after stimulation with IL5, leukotriene B4 or PMA. In collagen-induced platelet aggregation, acts a negative regulator of filopodia formation and actin polymerization by interacting with and negatively regulating VASP phosphorylation. Downstream of PAR1, PAR4 and CD36/GP4 receptors, regulates differentially platelet dense granule secretion; acts as a positive regulator in PAR-mediated granule secretion, whereas it negatively regulates CD36/GP4-mediated granule release. Phosphorylates MUC1 in the C-terminal and regulates the interaction between MUC1 and beta-catenin. The catalytic subunit phosphorylates 14-3-3 proteins (YWHAB, YWHAZ and YWHAH) in a sphingosine-dependent fashion (By similarity). Phosphorylates ELAVL1 in response to angiotensin-2 treatment. Phosphorylates mitochondrial phospholipid scramblase 3 (PLSCR3), resulting in increased cardiolipin expression on the mitochondrial outer membrane which facilitates apoptosis. Phosphorylates SMPD1 which induces SMPD1 secretion.

Calcium-independent, phospholipid- and diacylglycerol (DAG)- dependent serine/threonine-protein kinase that plays essential roles in the regulation of multiple cellular processes linked to cytoskeletal proteins, such as cell adhesion, motility, migration and cell cycle, functions in neuron growth and ion channel regulation, and is involved in immune response, cancer cell invasion and regulation of apoptosis. Mediates cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix via integrin- dependent signaling, by mediating angiotensin-2-induced activation of integrin beta-1 (ITGB1) in cardiac fibroblasts. Phosphorylates MARCKS, which phosphorylates and activates PTK2/FAK, leading to the spread of cardiomyocytes. Involved in the control of the directional transport of ITGB1 in mesenchymal cells by phosphorylating vimentin (VIM), an intermediate filament (IF) protein. In epithelial cells, associates with and phosphorylates keratin-8 (KRT8), which induces targeting of desmoplakin at desmosomes and regulates cell-cell contact. Phosphorylates IQGAP1, which binds to CDC42, mediating epithelial cell- cell detachment prior to migration. In HeLa cells, contributes to hepatocyte growth factor (HGF)-induced cell migration, and in human corneal epithelial cells, plays a critical role in wound healing after activation by HGF. During cytokinesis, forms a complex with YWHAB, which is crucial for daughter cell separation, and facilitates abscission by a mechanism which may implicate the regulation of RHOA. In cardiac myocytes, regulates myofilament function and excitation coupling at the Z-lines, where it is indirectly associated with F-actin via interaction with COPB1. During endothelin-induced cardiomyocyte hypertrophy, mediates activation of PTK2/FAK, which is critical for cardiomyocyte survival and regulation of sarcomere length. Plays a role in the pathogenesis of dilated cardiomyopathy via persistent phosphorylation of troponin I (TNNI3). Involved in nerve growth factor (NFG)-induced neurite outgrowth and neuron morphological change independently of its kinase activity, by inhibition of RHOA pathway, activation of CDC42 and cytoskeletal rearrangement. May be involved in presynaptic facilitation by mediating phorbol ester-induced synaptic potentiation. Phosphorylates gamma-aminobutyric acid receptor subunit gamma-2 (GABRG2), which reduces the response of GABA receptors to ethanol and benzodiazepines and may mediate acute tolerance to the intoxicating effects of ethanol. Upon PMA treatment, phosphorylates the capsaicin- and heat-activated cation channel TRPV1, which is required for bradykinin-induced sensitization of the heat response in nociceptive neurons. Is able to form a complex with PDLIM5 and N-type calcium channel, and may enhance channel activities and potentiates fast synaptic transmission by phosphorylating the pore-forming alpha subunit CACNA1B (CaV2.2). In prostate cancer cells, interacts with and phosphorylates STAT3, which increases DNA-binding and transcriptional activity of STAT3 and seems to be essential for prostate cancer cell invasion. Downstream of TLR4, plays an important role in the lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-induced immune response by phosphorylating and activating TICAM2/TRAM, which in turn activates the transcription factor IRF3 and subsequent cytokines production. In differentiating erythroid progenitors, is regulated by EPO and controls the protection against the TNFSF10/TRAIL-mediated apoptosis, via BCL2. May be involved in the regulation of the insulin-induced phosphorylation and activation of AKT1. Phosphorylates NLRP5/MATER and may thereby modulate AKT pathway activation in cumulus cells.

Calcium-activated, phospholipid- and diacylglycerol (DAG)- dependent serine/threonine-protein kinase that plays diverse roles in neuronal cells and eye tissues, such as regulation of the neuronal receptors GRIA4/GLUR4 and GRIN1/NMDAR1, modulation of receptors and neuronal functions related to sensitivity to opiates, pain and alcohol, mediation of synaptic function and cell survival after ischemia, and inhibition of gap junction activity after oxidative stress. Binds and phosphorylates GRIA4/GLUR4 glutamate receptor and regulates its function by increasing plasma membrane-associated GRIA4 expression. In primary cerebellar neurons treated with the agonist 3,5- dihyidroxyphenylglycine, functions downstream of the metabotropic glutamate receptor GRM5/MGLUR5 and phosphorylates GRIN1/NMDAR1 receptor which plays a key role in synaptic plasticity, synaptogenesis, excitotoxicity, memory acquisition and learning. May be involved in the regulation of hippocampal long-term potentiation (LTP), but may be not necessary for the process of synaptic plasticity. May be involved in desensitization of mu-type opioid receptor-mediated G-protein activation in the spinal cord, and may be critical for the development and/or maintenance of morphine-induced reinforcing effects in the limbic forebrain. May modulate the functionality of mu-type-opioid receptors by participating in a signaling pathway which leads to the phosphorylation and degradation of opioid receptors. May also contributes to chronic morphine-induced changes in nociceptive processing. Plays a role in neuropathic pain mechanisms and contributes to the maintenance of the allodynia pain produced by peripheral inflammation. Plays an important role in initial sensitivity and tolerance to ethanol, by mediating the behavioral effects of ethanol as well as the effects of this drug on the GABA(A) receptors. During and after cerebral ischemia modulate neurotransmission and cell survival in synaptic membranes, and is involved in insulin-induced inhibition of necrosis, an important mechanism for minimizing ischemic injury. Required for the elimination of multiple climbing fibers during innervation of Purkinje cells in developing cerebellum. Is activated in lens epithelial cells upon hydrogen peroxide treatment, and phosphorylates connexin-43 (GJA1/CX43), resulting in disassembly of GJA1 gap junction plaques and inhibition of gap junction activity which could provide a protective effect against oxidative stress (By similarity). Phosphorylates p53/TP53 and promotes p53/TP53-dependent apoptosis in response to DNA damage. Involved in the phase resetting of the cerebral cortex circadian clock during temporally restricted feeding. Stabilizes the core clock component BMAL1 by interfering with its ubiquitination, thus suppressing its degradation, resulting in phase resetting of the cerebral cortex clock (By similarity).

Calcium- and diacylglycerol-independent serine/ threonine- protein kinase that plays a general protective role against apoptotic stimuli, is involved in NF-kappa-B activation, cell survival, differentiation and polarity, and contributes to the regulation of microtubule dynamics in the early secretory pathway. Is necessary for BCR-ABL oncogene-mediated resistance to apoptotic drug in leukemia cells, protecting leukemia cells against drug-induced apoptosis. In cultured neurons, prevents amyloid beta protein-induced apoptosis by interrupting cell death process at a very early step. In glioblastoma cells, may function downstream of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI(3)K) and PDPK1 in the promotion of cell survival by phosphorylating and inhibiting the pro-apoptotic factor BAD. Can form a protein complex in non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) cells with PARD6A and ECT2 and regulate ECT2 oncogenic activity by phosphorylation, which in turn promotes transformed growth and invasion. In response to nerve growth factor (NGF), acts downstream of SRC to phosphorylate and activate IRAK1, allowing the subsequent activation of NF-kappa-B and neuronal cell survival. Functions in the organization of the apical domain in epithelial cells by phosphorylating EZR. This step is crucial for activation and normal distribution of EZR at the early stages of intestinal epithelial cell differentiation. Forms a protein complex with LLGL1 and PARD6B independently of PARD3 to regulate epithelial cell polarity. Plays a role in microtubule dynamics in the early secretory pathway through interaction with RAB2A and GAPDH and recruitment to vesicular tubular clusters (VTCs). In human coronary artery endothelial cells (HCAEC), is activated by saturated fatty acids and mediates lipid-induced apoptosis. Involved in early synaptic long term potentiation phase in CA1 hippocampal cells and short term memory formation (By similarity).

Calcium-independent, phospholipid- and diacylglycerol (DAG)- dependent serine/threonine-protein kinase that is involved in the regulation of cell differentiation in keratinocytes and pre-B cell receptor, mediates regulation of epithelial tight junction integrity and foam cell formation, and is required for glioblastoma proliferation and apoptosis prevention in MCF-7 cells. In keratinocytes, binds and activates the tyrosine kinase FYN, which in turn blocks epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) signaling and leads to keratinocyte growth arrest and differentiation. Associates with the cyclin CCNE1- CDK2-CDKN1B complex and inhibits CDK2 kinase activity, leading to RB1 dephosphorylation and thereby G1 arrest in keratinocytes. In association with RALA activates actin depolymerization, which is necessary for keratinocyte differentiation. In the pre-B cell receptor signaling, functions downstream of BLNK by up-regulating IRF4, which in turn activates L chain gene rearrangement. Regulates epithelial tight junctions (TJs) by phosphorylating occludin (OCLN) on threonine residues, which is necessary for the assembly and maintenance of TJs. In association with PLD2 and via TLR4 signaling, is involved in lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-induced RGS2 down-regulation and foam cell formation. Upon PMA stimulation, mediates glioblastoma cell proliferation by activating the mTOR pathway, the PI3K/AKT pathway and the ERK1-dependent phosphorylation of ELK1. Involved in the protection of glioblastoma cells from irradiation-induced apoptosis by preventing caspase-9 activation. In camptothecin-treated MCF-7 cells, regulates NF-kappa-B upstream signaling by activating IKBKB, and confers protection against DNA damage-induced apoptosis. Promotes oncogenic functions of ATF2 in the nucleus while blocking its apoptotic function at mitochondria. Phosphorylates ATF2 which promotes its nuclear retention and transcriptional activity and negatively regulates its mitochondrial localization.

Calcium-independent, phospholipid- and diacylglycerol (DAG)- dependent serine/threonine-protein kinase that mediates non-redundant functions in T-cell receptor (TCR) signaling, including T-cells activation, proliferation, differentiation and survival, by mediating activation of multiple transcription factors such as NF-kappa-B, JUN, NFATC1 and NFATC2. In TCR-CD3/CD28-co-stimulated T-cells, is required for the activation of NF-kappa-B and JUN, which in turn are essential for IL2 production, and participates in the calcium-dependent NFATC1 and NFATC2 transactivation. Mediates the activation of the canonical NF-kappa-B pathway (NFKB1) by direct phosphorylation of CARD11 on several serine residues, inducing CARD11 association with lipid rafts and recruitment of the BCL10-MALT1 complex, which then activates IKK complex, resulting in nuclear translocation and activation of NFKB1. May also play an indirect role in activation of the non-canonical NF- kappa-B (NFKB2) pathway. In the signaling pathway leading to JUN activation, acts by phosphorylating the mediator STK39/SPAK and may not act through MAP kinases signaling. Plays a critical role in TCR/CD28- induced NFATC1 and NFATC2 transactivation by participating in the regulation of reduced inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate generation and intracellular calcium mobilization. After costimulation of T-cells through CD28 can phosphorylate CBLB and is required for the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of CBLB, which is a prerequisite for the activation of TCR. During T-cells differentiation, plays an important role in the development of T-helper 2 (Th2) cells following immune and inflammatory responses, and, in the development of inflammatory autoimmune diseases, is necessary for the activation of IL17-producing Th17 cells. May play a minor role in Th1 response. Upon TCR stimulation, mediates T-cell protective survival signal by phosphorylating BAD, thus protecting T-cells from BAD-induced apoptosis, and by up-regulating BCL-X(L)/BCL2L1 levels through NF- kappa-B and JUN pathways. In platelets, regulates signal transduction downstream of the ITGA2B, CD36/GP4, F2R/PAR1 and F2RL3/PAR4 receptors, playing a positive role in 'outside-in' signaling and granule secretion signal transduction. May relay signals from the activated ITGA2B receptor by regulating the uncoupling of WASP and WIPF1, thereby permitting the regulation of actin filament nucleation and branching activity of the Arp2/3 complex. May mediate inhibitory effects of free fatty acids on insulin signaling by phosphorylating IRS1, which in turn blocks IRS1 tyrosine phosphorylation and downstream activation of the PI3K/AKT pathway. Phosphorylates MSN (moesin) in the presence of phosphatidylglycerol or phosphatidylinositol. Phosphorylates PDPK1 at 'Ser-504' and 'Ser-532' and negatively regulates its ability to phosphorylate PKB/AKT1. Phosphorylates CCDC88A/GIV and inhibits its guanine nucleotide exchange factor activity.

Calcium- and diacylglycerol-independent serine/threonine- protein kinase that functions in phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) pathway and mitogen-activated protein (MAP) kinase cascade, and is involved in NF-kappa-B activation, mitogenic signaling, cell proliferation, cell polarity, inflammatory response and maintenance of long-term potentiation (LTP). Upon lipopolysaccharide (LPS) treatment in macrophages, or following mitogenic stimuli, functions downstream of PI3K to activate MAP2K1/MEK1-MAPK1/ERK2 signaling cascade independently of RAF1 activation. Required for insulin-dependent activation of AKT3, but may function as an adapter rather than a direct activator. Upon insulin treatment may act as a downstream effector of PI3K and contribute to the activation of translocation of the glucose transporter SLC2A4/GLUT4 and subsequent glucose transport in adipocytes. In EGF-induced cells, binds and activates MAP2K5/MEK5- MAPK7/ERK5 independently of its kinase activity and can activate JUN promoter through MEF2C. Through binding with SQSTM1/p62, functions in interleukin-1 signaling and activation of NF-kappa-B with the specific adapters RIPK1 and TRAF6. Participates in TNF-dependent transactivation of NF-kappa-B by phosphorylating and activating IKBKB kinase, which in turn leads to the degradation of NF-kappa-B inhibitors. In migrating astrocytes, forms a cytoplasmic complex with PARD6A and is recruited by CDC42 to function in the establishment of cell polarity along with the microtubule motor and dynein. In association with FEZ1, stimulates neuronal differentiation in PC12 cells. In the inflammatory response, is required for the T-helper 2 (Th2) differentiation process, including interleukin production, efficient activation of JAK1 and the subsequent phosphorylation and nuclear translocation of STAT6. May be involved in development of allergic airway inflammation (asthma), a process dependent on Th2 immune response. In the NF-kappa-B-mediated inflammatory response, can relieve SETD6-dependent repression of NF- kappa-B target genes by phosphorylating the RELA subunit at 'Ser-311'. Phosphorylates VAMP2 in vitro.

Seems to play a negative regulatory role in 5-phosphoribose 1-diphosphate synthesis

May be a SFC-associated serine kinase (splicing factor compartment-associated serine kinase) with a role in intranuclear SR protein (non-snRNP splicing factors containing a serine/arginine-rich domain) trafficking and pre-mRNA processing.

Catalyzes the final rate-limiting step of glycolysis by mediating the transfer of a phosphoryl group from phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) to ADP, generating ATP. The ratio between the highly active tetrameric form and nearly inactive dimeric form determines whether glucose carbons are channeled to biosynthetic processes or used for glycolytic ATP production. The transition between the 2 forms contributes to the control of glycolysis and is important for tumor cell proliferation and survival.

Pyruvate kinase that catalyzes the conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate with the synthesis of ATP, and which plays a key role in glycolysis.

In the hair cortex, hair keratin intermediate filaments are embedded in an interfilamentous matrix, consisting of hair keratin- associated proteins (KRTAP), which are essential for the formation of a rigid and resistant hair shaft through their extensive disulfide bond cross-linking with abundant cysteine residues of hair keratins. The matrix proteins include the high-sulfur and high-glycine-tyrosine keratins

In the hair cortex, hair keratin intermediate filaments are embedded in an interfilamentous matrix, consisting of hair keratin- associated proteins (KRTAP), which are essential for the formation of a rigid and resistant hair shaft through their extensive disulfide bond cross-linking with abundant cysteine residues of hair keratins. The matrix proteins include the high-sulfur and high-glycine-tyrosine keratins (By similarity).

In the hair cortex, hair keratin intermediate filaments are embedded in an interfilamentous matrix, consisting of hair keratin- associated proteins (KRTAP), which are essential for the formation of a rigid and resistant hair shaft through their extensive disulfide bond cross-linking with abundant cysteine residues of hair keratins. The matrix proteins include the high-sulfur and high-glycine-tyrosine keratins.

In the hair cortex, hair keratin intermediate filaments are embedded in an interfilamentous matrix, consisting of hair keratin- associated protein (KRTAP), which are essential for the formation of a rigid and resistant hair shaft through their extensive disulfide bond cross-linking with abundant cysteine residues of hair keratins. The matrix proteins include the high-sulfur and high-glycine-tyrosine keratins

Receptor for Dickkopf proteins. Cooperates with DKK1/2 to inhibit Wnt/beta-catenin signaling by promoting the endocytosis of Wnt receptors LRP5 and LRP6. In the absence of DKK1, potentiates Wnt-beta- catenin signaling by maintaining LRP5 or LRP6 at the cell membrane. Can trigger apoptosis in a Wnt-independent manner and this apoptotic activity is inhibited upon binding of the ligand DKK1. Plays a role in limb development; attenuates Wnt signaling in the developing limb to allow normal limb patterning and can also negatively regulate bone formation. Modulates cell fate decisions in the developing cochlea with an inhibitory role in hair cell fate specification.

Receptor for Dickkopf proteins. Cooperates with DKK1/2 to inhibit Wnt/beta-catenin signaling by promoting the endocytosis of Wnt receptors LRP5 and LRP6. Plays a role in limb development; attenuates Wnt signaling in the developing limb to allow normal limb patterning and can also negatively regulate bone formation.

Component of the CCM signaling pathway which is a crucial regulator of heart and vessel formation and integrity (By similarity). Negative regulator of angiogenesis. Inhibits endothelial proliferation, apoptosis, migration, lumen formation and sprouting angiogenesis in primary endothelial cells. Promotes AKT phosphorylation in a NOTCH- dependent and independent manner, and inhibits ERK1/2 phosphorylation indirectly through activation of the DELTA-NOTCH cascade. Acts in concert with CDH5 to establish and maintain correct endothelial cell polarity and vascular lumen and these effects are mediated by recruitment and activation of the Par polarity complex and RAP1B. Required for the localization of phosphorylated PRKCZ, PARD3, TIAM1 and RAP1B to the cell junction, and cell junction stabilization. Plays a role in integrin signaling via its interaction with ITGB1BP1; this prevents the interaction between ITGB1 and ITGB1BP1. Microtubule- associated protein that binds to phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2)-containing membranes in a GTP-bound RAP1-dependent manner. Plays an important role in the maintenance of the intracellular reactive oxygen species (ROS) homeostasis to prevent oxidative cellular damage. Regulates the homeostasis of intracellular ROS through an antioxidant pathway involving FOXO1 and SOD2. Facilitates the down-regulation of cyclin-D1 (CCND1) levels required for cell transition from proliferative growth to quiescence by preventing the accumulation of intracellular ROS through the modulation of FOXO1 and SOD2 levels. May play a role in the regulation of macroautophagy through the down- regulation of the mTOR pathway.

Required for 40S ribosome biogenesis. Involved in nucleolar processing of pre-18S ribosomal RNA and ribosome assembly (By similarity).

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts downstream of ERK (MAPK1/ERK2 and MAPK3/ERK1) signaling and mediates mitogenic and stress-induced activation of the transcription factors CREB1, ETV1/ER81 and NR4A1/NUR77, regulates translation through RPS6 and EIF4B phosphorylation, and mediates cellular proliferation, survival, and differentiation by modulating mTOR signaling and repressing pro- apoptotic function of BAD and DAPK1. In fibroblast, is required for EGF-stimulated phosphorylation of CREB1, which results in the subsequent transcriptional activation of several immediate-early genes. In response to mitogenic stimulation (EGF and PMA), phosphorylates and activates NR4A1/NUR77 and ETV1/ER81 transcription factors and the cofactor CREBBP. Upon insulin-derived signal, acts indirectly on the transcription regulation of several genes by phosphorylating GSK3B at 'Ser-9' and inhibiting its activity. Phosphorylates RPS6 in response to serum or EGF via an mTOR-independent mechanism and promotes translation initiation by facilitating assembly of the pre-initiation complex. In response to insulin, phosphorylates EIF4B, enhancing EIF4B affinity for the EIF3 complex and stimulating cap-dependent translation. Is involved in the mTOR nutrient-sensing pathway by directly phosphorylating TSC2 at 'Ser-1798', which potently inhibits TSC2 ability to suppress mTOR signaling, and mediates phosphorylation of RPTOR, which regulates mTORC1 activity and may promote rapamycin-sensitive signaling independently of the PI3K/AKT pathway. Mediates cell survival by phosphorylating the pro-apoptotic proteins BAD and DAPK1 and suppressing their pro-apoptotic function. Promotes the survival of hepatic stellate cells by phosphorylating CEBPB in response to the hepatotoxin carbon tetrachloride (CCl4). Mediates induction of hepatocyte prolifration by TGFA through phosphorylation of CEBPB (By similarity). Is involved in cell cycle regulation by phosphorylating the CDK inhibitor CDKN1B, which promotes CDKN1B association with 14-3-3 proteins and prevents its translocation to the nucleus and inhibition of G1 progression. Phosphorylates EPHA2 at 'Ser-897', the RPS6KA-EPHA2 signaling pathway controls cell migration. In response to mTORC1 activation, phosphorylates EIF4B at 'Ser-406' and 'Ser-422' which stimulates bicarbonate cotransporter SLC4A7 mRNA translation, increasing SLC4A7 protein abundance and function.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts downstream of ERK (MAPK1/ERK2 and MAPK3/ERK1) signaling and mediates mitogenic and stress-induced activation of transcription factors, regulates translation, and mediates cellular proliferation, survival, and differentiation. May function as tumor suppressor in epithelial ovarian cancer cells.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts downstream of ERK (MAPK1/ERK2 and MAPK3/ERK1) signaling and mediates mitogenic and stress-induced activation of the transcription factors CREB1, ETV1/ER81 and NR4A1/NUR77, regulates translation through RPS6 and EIF4B phosphorylation, and mediates cellular proliferation, survival, and differentiation by modulating mTOR signaling and repressing pro- apoptotic function of BAD and DAPK1. In fibroblast, is required for EGF- stimulated phosphorylation of CREB1 and histone H3 at 'Ser-10', which results in the subsequent transcriptional activation of several immediate-early genes. In response to mitogenic stimulation (EGF and PMA), phosphorylates and activates NR4A1/NUR77 and ETV1/ER81 transcription factors and the cofactor CREBBP. Upon insulin-derived signal, acts indirectly on the transcription regulation of several genes by phosphorylating GSK3B at 'Ser-9' and inhibiting its activity. Phosphorylates RPS6 in response to serum or EGF via an mTOR-independent mechanism and promotes translation initiation by facilitating assembly of the preinitiation complex. In response to insulin, phosphorylates EIF4B, enhancing EIF4B affinity for the EIF3 complex and stimulating cap-dependent translation. Is involved in the mTOR nutrient-sensing pathway by directly phosphorylating TSC2 at 'Ser-1798', which potently inhibits TSC2 ability to suppress mTOR signaling, and mediates phosphorylation of RPTOR, which regulates mTORC1 activity and may promote rapamycin- sensitive signaling independently of the PI3K/AKT pathway. Mediates cell survival by phosphorylating the pro- apoptotic proteins BAD and DAPK1 and suppressing their pro-apoptotic function. Promotes the survival of hepatic stellate cells by phosphorylating CEBPB in response to the hepatotoxin carbon tetrachloride (CCl4). Is involved in cell cycle regulation by phosphorylating the CDK inhibitor CDKN1B, which promotes CDKN1B association with 14-3-3 proteins and prevents its translocation to the nucleus and inhibition of G1 progression (By similarity). In LPS-stimulated dendritic cells, is involved in TLR4- induced macropinocytosis, and in myeloma cells, acts as effector of FGFR3-mediated transformation signaling, after direct phosphorylation at Tyr-529 by FGFR3 (By similarity). Negatively regulates EGF-induced MAPK1/3 phosphorylation via phosphorylation of SOS1 (By similarity). Phosphorylates SOS1 at 'Ser-1134' and 'Ser-1161' that create YWHAB and YWHAE binding sites and which contribute to the negative regulation of MAPK1/3 phosphorylation (By similarity). Phosphorylates EPHA2 at 'Ser- 897', the RPS6KA-EPHA2 signaling pathway controls cell migration. Acts as a regulator of osteoblast differentiation by mediating phosphorylation of ATF4, thereby promoting ATF4 transactivation activity (By similarity).

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that is required for the mitogen or stress-induced phosphorylation of the transcription factors CREB1 and ATF1 and for the regulation of the transcription factor RELA, and that contributes to gene activation by histone phosphorylation and functions in the regulation of inflammatory genes. Phosphorylates CREB1 and ATF1 in response to mitogenic or stress stimuli such as UV-C irradiation, epidermal growth factor (EGF) and anisomycin. Plays an essential role in the control of RELA transcriptional activity in response to TNF. Phosphorylates 'Ser-10' of histone H3 in response to mitogenics, stress stimuli and EGF, which results in the transcriptional activation of several immediate early genes, including proto-oncogenes c-fos/FOS and c-jun/JUN. May also phosphorylate 'Ser- 28' of histone H3. Mediates the mitogen- and stress-induced phosphorylation of high mobility group protein 1 (HMGN1/HMG14). In lipopolysaccharide-stimulated primary macrophages, acts downstream of the Toll-like receptor TLR4 to limit the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines. Functions probably by inducing transcription of the MAP kinase phosphatase DUSP1 and the anti-inflammatory cytokine interleukin 10 (IL10), via CREB1 and ATF1 transcription factors.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that is required for the mitogen or stress-induced phosphorylation of the transcription factors CREB1 and ATF1 and for the regulation of the transcription factors RELA, STAT3 and ETV1/ER81, and that contributes to gene activation by histone phosphorylation and functions in the regulation of inflammatory genes. Phosphorylates CREB1 and ATF1 in response to mitogenic or stress stimuli such as UV-C irradiation, epidermal growth factor (EGF) and anisomycin. Plays an essential role in the control of RELA transcriptional activity in response to TNF and upon glucocorticoid, associates in the cytoplasm with the glucocorticoid receptor NR3C1 and contributes to RELA inhibition and repression of inflammatory gene expression. In skeletal myoblasts is required for phosphorylation of RELA at 'Ser-276' during oxidative stress. In erythropoietin-stimulated cells, is necessary for the 'Ser-727' phosphorylation of STAT3 and regulation of its transcriptional potential. Phosphorylates ETV1/ER81 at 'Ser-191' and 'Ser-216', and thereby regulates its ability to stimulate transcription, which may be important during development and breast tumor formation. Directly represses transcription via phosphorylation of 'Ser-1' of histone H2A. Phosphorylates 'Ser-10' of histone H3 in response to mitogenics, stress stimuli and EGF, which results in the transcriptional activation of several immediate early genes, including proto-oncogenes c-fos/FOS and c-jun/JUN. May also phosphorylate 'Ser-28' of histone H3. Mediates the mitogen- and stress-induced phosphorylation of high mobility group protein 1 (HMGN1/HMG14). In lipopolysaccharide-stimulated primary macrophages, acts downstream of the Toll-like receptor TLR4 to limit the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines (By similarity). Functions probably by inducing transcription of the MAP kinase phosphatase DUSP1 and the anti-inflammatory cytokine interleukin 10 (IL10), via CREB1 and ATF1 transcription factors (By similarity). Plays a role in neuronal cell death by mediating the downstream effects of excitotoxic injury (By similarity). Phosphorylates TRIM7 at 'Ser-107' in response to growth factor signaling via the MEK/ERK pathway, thereby stimulating its ubiquitin ligase activity.

Constitutively active serine/threonine-protein kinase that exhibits growth-factor-independent kinase activity and that may participate in p53/TP53-dependent cell growth arrest signaling and play an inhibitory role during embryogenesis.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts downstream of mTOR signaling in response to growth factors and nutrients to promote cell proliferation, cell growth and cell cycle progression. Regulates protein synthesis through phosphorylation of EIF4B, RPS6 and EEF2K, and contributes to cell survival by repressing the pro-apoptotic function of BAD. Under conditions of nutrient depletion, the inactive form associates with the EIF3 translation initiation complex. Upon mitogenic stimulation, phosphorylation by the mammalian target of rapamycin complex 1 (mTORC1) leads to dissociation from the EIF3 complex and activation. The active form then phosphorylates and activates several substrates in the pre-initiation complex, including the EIF2B complex and the cap-binding complex component EIF4B. Also controls translation initiation by phosphorylating a negative regulator of EIF4A, PDCD4, targeting it for ubiquitination and subsequent proteolysis. Promotes initiation of the pioneer round of protein synthesis by phosphorylating POLDIP3/SKAR. In response to IGF1, activates translation elongation by phosphorylating EEF2 kinase (EEF2K), which leads to its inhibition and thus activation of EEF2. Also plays a role in feedback regulation of mTORC2 by mTORC1 by phosphorylating RICTOR, resulting in the inhibition of mTORC2 and AKT1 signaling. Mediates cell survival by phosphorylating the pro-apoptotic protein BAD and suppressing its pro-apoptotic function. Phosphorylates mitochondrial URI1 leading to dissociation of a URI1-PPP1CC complex. The free mitochondrial PPP1CC can then dephosphorylate RPS6KB1 at Thr-412, which is proposed to be a negative feedback mechanism for the RPS6KB1 anti-apoptotic function. Mediates TNF-alpha-induced insulin resistance by phosphorylating IRS1 at multiple serine residues, resulting in accelerated degradation of IRS1. In cells lacking functional TSC1-2 complex, constitutively phosphorylates and inhibits GSK3B. May be involved in cytoskeletal rearrangement through binding to neurabin. Phosphorylates and activates the pyrimidine biosynthesis enzyme CAD, downstream of MTOR. Following activation by mTORC1, phosphorylates EPRS and thereby plays a key role in fatty acid uptake by adipocytes and also most probably in interferon-gamma-induced translation inhibition.

Phosphorylates specifically ribosomal protein S6. Seems to act downstream of mTOR signaling in response to growth factors and nutrients to promote cell proliferation, cell growth and cell cycle progression in an alternative pathway regulated by MEAK7.

May be involved in transmitting sphingosine-1 phosphate (SPP)-mediated signaling into the cell. Plays a role in the recruitment of PRDX3 to early endosomes.

Location-regulated scaffold connecting MEK to RAF. Has very low protein kinase activity and can phosphorylate MAP2K1 at several Ser and Thr residues with very low efficiency (in vitro). Acts as MAP2K1/MEK1-dependent allosteric activator of BRAF; upon binding to MAP2K1/MEK1, dimerizes with BRAF and promotes BRAF-mediated phosphorylation of MAP2K1/MEK1. Interaction with BRAF enhances KSR2-mediated phosphorylation of MAP2K1 (in vitro). Blocks MAP3K8 kinase activity and MAP3K8-mediated signaling. Acts as a negative regulator of MAP3K3-mediated activation of ERK, JNK and NF- kappa-B pathways, inhibiting MAP3K3-mediated interleukin-8 production.

Non-receptor tyrosine kinase which mediates signal transduction downstream of a variety of transmembrane receptors including classical immunoreceptors like the B-cell receptor (BCR). Regulates several biological processes including innate and adaptive immunity, cell adhesion, osteoclast maturation, platelet activation and vascular development. Assembles into signaling complexes with activated receptors at the plasma membrane via interaction between its SH2 domains and the receptor tyrosine- phosphorylated ITAM domains. The association with the receptor can also be indirect and mediated by adapter proteins containing ITAM or partial hemITAM domains. The phosphorylation of the ITAM domains is generally mediated by SRC subfamily kinases upon engagement of the receptor. More rarely signal transduction via SYK could be ITAM-independent. Direct downstream effectors phosphorylated by SYK include VAV1, PLCG1, PI-3- kinase, LCP2 and BLNK. Initially identified as essential in B-cell receptor (BCR) signaling, it is necessary for the maturation of B-cells most probably at the pro-B to pre-B transition. Activated upon BCR engagement, it phosphorylates and activates BLNK an adapter linking the activated BCR to downstream signaling adapters and effectors. It also phosphorylates and activates PLCG1 and the PKC signaling pathway. It also phosphorylates BTK and regulates its activity in B-cell antigen receptor (BCR)-coupled signaling. In addition to its function downstream of BCR also plays a role in T-cell receptor signaling. Plays also a crucial role in the innate immune response to fungal, bacterial and viral pathogens. It is for instance activated by the membrane lectin CLEC7A. Upon stimulation by fungal proteins, CLEC7A together with SYK activates immune cells inducing the production of ROS. Also activates the inflammasome and NF-kappa-B-mediated transcription of chemokines and cytokines in presence of pathogens. Regulates neutrophil degranulation and phagocytosis through activation of the MAPK signaling cascade (By similarity). Required for the stimulation of neutrophil phagocytosis by IL15. Also mediates the activation of dendritic cells by cell necrosis stimuli. Also involved in mast cells activation. Involved in interleukin-3/IL3-mediated signaling pathway in basophils (By similarity). Also functions downstream of receptors mediating cell adhesion. Relays for instance, integrin-mediated neutrophils and macrophages activation and P-selectin receptor/SELPG- mediated recruitment of leukocytes to inflammatory loci. Also plays a role in non-immune processes. It is for instance involved in vascular development where it may regulate blood and lymphatic vascular separation. It is also required for osteoclast development and function. Functions in the activation of platelets by collagen, mediating PLCG2 phosphorylation and activation. May be coupled to the collagen receptor by the ITAM domain-containing FCER1G. Also activated by the membrane lectin CLEC1B that is required for activation of platelets by PDPN/podoplanin. Involved in platelet adhesion being activated by ITGB3 engaged by fibrinogen. Together with CEACAM20, enhances production of the cytokine CXCL8/IL-8 via the NFKB pathway and may thus have a role in the intestinal immune response (By similarity).

Ketosamine-3-kinase involved in protein deglycation by mediating phosphorylation of ribuloselysine and psicoselysine on glycated proteins, to generate ribuloselysine-3 phosphate and psicoselysine-3 phosphate, respectively. Ribuloselysine-3 phosphate and psicoselysine-3 phosphate adducts are unstable and decompose under physiological conditions. Not able to phosphorylate fructoselysine.

Subunit of the oligosaccharyl transferase (OST) complex that catalyzes the initial transfer of a defined glycan (Glc(3)Man(9)GlcNAc(2) in eukaryotes) from the lipid carrier dolichol- pyrophosphate to an asparagine residue within an Asn-X-Ser/Thr consensus motif in nascent polypeptide chains, the first step in protein N-glycosylation. N-glycosylation occurs cotranslationally and the complex associates with the Sec61 complex at the channel-forming translocon complex that mediates protein translocation across the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). All subunits are required for a maximal enzyme activity. May be involved in N-glycosylation of APP (amyloid-beta precursor protein). Can modulate gamma-secretase cleavage of APP by enhancing endoprotelysis of PSEN1.

Regulates microtubule-severing activity of KATNAL1 in a concentration-dependent manner in vitro.

May act as a soluble regulator of keratinocyte differentiation. May play an important role in embryonic skin morphogenesis.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of thymidine monophosphate (dTMP) to thymidine diphosphate (dTDP), the immediate precursor for the DNA building block dTTP, with ATP as the preferred phosphoryl donor in the presence of Mg(2+).

Receptor for kinesin thus involved in kinesin-driven vesicle motility. Accumulates in integrin-based adhesion complexes (IAC) upon integrin aggregation by fibronectin

Catalytic subunit of a complex which severs microtubules in an ATP-dependent manner. Microtubule severing may promote rapid reorganization of cellular microtubule arrays and the release of microtubules from the centrosome following nucleation. Microtubule release from the mitotic spindle poles may allow depolymerization of the microtubule end proximal to the spindle pole, leading to poleward microtubule flux and poleward motion of chromosome. Microtubule release within the cell body of neurons may be required for their transport into neuronal processes by microtubule-dependent motor proteins. This transport is required for axonal growth.

Participates in a complex which severs microtubules in an ATP-dependent manner. May act to target the enzymatic subunit of this complex to sites of action such as the centrosome. Microtubule severing may promote rapid reorganization of cellular microtubule arrays and the release of microtubules from the centrosome following nucleation. Microtubule release from the mitotic spindle poles may allow depolymerization of the microtubule end proximal to the spindle pole, leading to poleward microtubule flux and poleward motion of chromosome. Microtubule release within the cell body of neurons may be required for their transport into neuronal processes by microtubule-dependent motor proteins. This transport is required for axonal growth.

Required for cytoplasmic pre-assembly of axonemal dyneins, thereby playing a central role in motility in cilia and flagella. Involved in pre-assembly of dynein arm complexes in the cytoplasm before intraflagellar transport loads them for the ciliary compartment.

As part of the BORC complex may play a role in lysosomes movement and localization at the cell periphery. Associated with the cytosolic face of lysosomes, the BORC complex may recruit ARL8B and couple lysosomes to microtubule plus-end-directed kinesin motor. May be involved in the biogenesis of lysosome- related organelles such as melanosomes (By similarity).

Catalyzes the cleavage of L-kynurenine (L-Kyn) and L-3- hydroxykynurenine (L-3OHKyn) into anthranilic acid (AA) and 3- hydroxyanthranilic acid (3-OHAA), respectively. Has a preference for the L-3-hydroxy form. Also has cysteine-conjugate-beta-lyase activity.

Probable cytoskeleton-associated protease required for normal muscle growth. Involved in function, maturation and stabilization of the neuromuscular junction. May act by cleaving muscle-specific proteins such as FLNC (By similarity).

Neural cell adhesion molecule involved in the dynamics of cell adhesion and in the generation of transmembrane signals at tyrosine kinase receptors. During brain development, critical in multiple processes, including neuronal migration, axonal growth and fasciculation, and synaptogenesis. In the mature brain, plays a role in the dynamics of neuronal structure and function, including synaptic plasticity.

Cortical cytoskeleton protein found in a complex involved in maintaining cell polarity and epithelial integrity. Involved in the regulation of mitotic spindle orientation, proliferation, differentiation and tissue organization of neuroepithelial cells. Involved in axonogenesis through RAB10 activation thereby regulating vesicular membrane trafficking toward the axonal plasma membrane.

Part of a complex with GPSM2/LGN, PRKCI/aPKC and PARD6B/Par- 6, which may ensure the correct organization and orientation of bipolar spindles for normal cell division. This complex plays roles in the initial phase of the establishment of epithelial cell polarity.

Amino acid transporter that specifically mediates the pH- dependent export of the cationic amino acids arginine, histidine and lysine from lysosomes.

Endoribonuclease; cleaves preferentially 3' to purine- pyrimidine dinucleotide motifs in single-stranded RNA. The cleavage product contains a free 3' -OH group. Has no activity with double- stranded RNA or DNA. Required for normal mitochondrial function and cell viability.

Purine nucleoside enzyme that catalyzes the phosphorolysis of adenosine, guanosine and inosine nucleosides, yielding D-ribose 1- phosphate and the respective free bases, adenine, guanine and hypoxanthine. Also catalyzes the phosphorolysis of S- methyl-5'-thioadenosine into adenine and S-methyl-5-thio-alpha-D-ribose 1-phosphate. Also has adenosine deaminase activity. Acts as a regulator of innate immunity in macrophages by modulating the purine nucleotide metabolism, thereby regulating the metabolic function and bioenergetic state of macrophages. Enables a purine nucleotide cycle between adenosine and inosine monophosphate and adenylosuccinate that prevents cytoplasmic acidification and balances the cytoplasmic-mitochondrial redox interface. The purine nucleotide cycle consumes aspartate and releases fumarate in a manner involving fatty acid oxidation and ATP-citrate lyase activity. Participates in pattern recognition receptor (PRR)-induced cytokines in macrophages: associates with the NOD2-signaling complex and promotes optimal NOD2-induced signaling, cytokine secretion and bacterial clearance. Localizes to the endoplasmic reticulum upon PRR stimulation of macrophages and associates with endoplasmic reticulum-stress sensors, promoting the endoplasmic reticulum unfolded protein response (UPR). Does not show laccase activity.

Mitochondrial serine protease that acts as a regulator of mitochondrial lipid metabolism. Acts by decreasing protein levels of PISD, a mitochondrial enzyme that converts phosphatidylserine (PtdSer) to phosphatidylethanolamine (PtdEtn), thereby affecting mitochondrial lipid metabolism. It is unclear whether it acts directly by mediating proteolysis of PISD or by mediating proteolysis of another lipid metabolism protein. Acts as a tumor suppressor that has the ability to inhibit proliferation of multiple types of breast cancer cells: probably by promoting decreased levels of PISD, thereby affecting mitochondrial lipid metabolism.

Anchoring filament protein which is a component of the basement membrane zone.

Lymphocyte activation gene 3 protein: Inhibitory receptor on antigen activated T-cells. Delivers inhibitory signals upon binding to ligands, such as FGL1 (By similarity). FGL1 constitutes a major ligand of LAG3 and is responsible for LAG3 T-cell inhibitory function (By similarity). Following TCR engagement, LAG3 associates with CD3-TCR in the immunological synapse and directly inhibits T-cell activation (By similarity). May inhibit antigen-specific T-cell activation in synergy with PDCD1/PD-1, possibly by acting as a coreceptor for PDCD1/PD-1 (By similarity). Negatively regulates the proliferation, activation, effector function and homeostasis of both CD8(+) and CD4(+) T-cells. Also mediates immune tolerance: constitutively expressed on a subset of regulatory T-cells (Tregs) and contributes to their suppressive function (By similarity). Also acts as a negative regulator of plasmacytoid dendritic cell (pDCs) activation (By similarity). Binds MHC class II (MHC-II); the precise role of MHC-II-binding is however unclear.

Component of the EKC/KEOPS complex that is required for the formation of a threonylcarbamoyl group on adenosine at position 37 (t(6)A37) in tRNAs that read codons beginning with adenine. The complex is probably involved in the transfer of the threonylcarbamoyl moiety of threonylcarbamoyl-AMP (TC-AMP) to the N6 group of A37. LAGE3 functions as a dimerization module for the complex.

Functions as an inhibitory receptor that plays a constitutive negative regulatory role on cytolytic function of natural killer (NK) cells, B-cells and T-cells. Activation by Tyr phosphorylation results in recruitment and activation of the phosphatases PTPN6 and PTPN11. It also reduces the increase of intracellular calcium evoked by B-cell receptor ligation. May also play its inhibitory role independently of SH2-containing phosphatases. Modulates cytokine production in CD4+ T- cells, down-regulating IL2 and IFNG production while inducing secretion of transforming growth factor beta. Down-regulates also IgG and IgE production in B-cells as well as IL8, IL10 and TNF secretion. Inhibits proliferation and induces apoptosis in myeloid leukemia cell lines as well as prevents nuclear translocation of NF-kappa-B p65 subunit/RELA and phosphorylation of I-kappa-B alpha/CHUK in these cells. Inhibits the differentiation of peripheral blood precursors towards dendritic cells.

Regulatory subunit of lactose synthase, changes the substrate specificity of galactosyltransferase in the mammary gland making glucose a good acceptor substrate for this enzyme. This enables LS to synthesize lactose, the major carbohydrate component of milk. In other tissues, galactosyltransferase transfers galactose onto the N- acetylglucosamine of the oligosaccharide chains in glycoproteins

Binding to cells via a high affinity receptor, laminin is thought to mediate the attachment, migration and organization of cells into tissues during embryonic development by interacting with other extracellular matrix components

Binding to cells via a high affinity receptor, laminin is thought to mediate the attachment, migration and organization of cells into tissues during embryonic development by interacting with other extracellular matrix components. Involved in the organization of the laminar architecture of cerebral cortex. It is probably required for the integrity of the basement membrane/glia limitans that serves as an anchor point for the endfeet of radial glial cells and as a physical barrier to migrating neurons. Radial glial cells play a central role in cerebral cortical development, where they act both as the proliferative unit of the cerebral cortex and a scaffold for neurons migrating toward the pial surface.

Binding to cells via a high affinity receptor, laminin is thought to mediate the attachment, migration and organization of cells into tissues during embryonic development by interacting with other extracellular matrix components. Ladsin exerts cell-scattering activity toward a wide variety of cells, including epithelial, endothelial, and fibroblastic cells.

Lysosomal membrane glycoprotein which plays an important role in lysosome biogenesis, autophagy, and cholesterol homeostasis (By similarity). Also plays an important role in NK-cells cytotoxicity. Mechanistically, participates in cytotoxic granule movement to the cell surface and perforin trafficking to the lytic granule. In addition, protects NK-cells from degranulation-associated damage induced by their own cytotoxic granule content. Presents carbohydrate ligands to selectins. Also implicated in tumor cell metastasis.

Plays an important role in chaperone-mediated autophagy, a process that mediates lysosomal degradation of proteins in response to various stresses and as part of the normal turnover of proteins with a long biological half-live. Functions by binding target proteins, such as GAPDH and MLLT11, and targeting them for lysosomal degradation. Plays a role in lysosomal protein degradation in response to starvation (By similarity). Required for the fusion of autophagosomes with lysosomes during autophagy. Cells that lack LAMP2 express normal levels of VAMP8, but fail to accumulate STX17 on autophagosomes, which is the most likely explanation for the lack of fusion between autophagosomes and lysosomes. Required for normal degradation of the contents of autophagosomes. Required for efficient MHCII-mediated presentation of exogenous antigens via its function in lysosomal protein degradation; antigenic peptides generated by proteases in the endosomal/lysosomal compartment are captured by nascent MHCII subunits. Is not required for efficient MHCII-mediated presentation of endogenous antigens.

Lysosomal membrane glycoprotein which plays a role in the unfolded protein response (UPR) that contributes to protein degradation and cell survival during proteasomal dysfunction. Plays a role in the process of fusion of the lysosome with the autophagosome, thereby modulating the autophagic process. Promotes hepatocellular lipogenesis through activation of the PI3K/Akt pathway. May also play a role in dendritic cell function and in adaptive immunity.

Plays a role in short-term synaptic plasticity in a subset of GABAergic neurons in the brain.

Functions as glutathione transferase. Catalyzes conjugation of the glutathione (GSH) to artificial substrates 1-chloro-2,4- dinitrobenzene (CDNB) and p-nitrophenyl acetate. Mitigates neuronal oxidative stress during normal postnatal development and in response to oxidative stresses probably through GSH antioxidant defense mechanism (By similarity). May play a role in EPS8 signaling. Binds glutathione.

Necessary for abscisic acid (ABA) binding on the cell membrane and activation of the ABA signaling pathway in granulocytes.

May help direct the assembly of the nuclear lamina and thereby help maintain the structural organization of the nuclear envelope. Possible receptor for attachment of lamin filaments to the inner nuclear membrane. May be involved in the control of initiation of DNA replication through its interaction with NAKAP95

May function in the transport of nucleosides and/or nucleoside derivatives between the cytosol and the lumen of an intracellular membrane-bound compartment.

Required for optimal lysosomal function. Blocks EGF-stimulated EGFR intraluminal sorting and degradation. Conversely by binding with the phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate, regulates its PIP5K1C interaction, inhibits HGS ubiquitination and relieves LAPTM4B inhibition of EGFR degradation. Recruits SLC3A2 and SLC7A5 (the Leu transporter) to the lysosome, promoting entry of leucine and other essential amino acid (EAA) into the lysosome, stimulating activation of proton-transporting vacuolar (V)-ATPase protein pump (V-ATPase) and hence mTORC1 activation. Plays a role as negative regulator of TGFB1 production in regulatory T cells. Binds ceramide and facilitates its exit from late endosome in order to control cell death pathways.

May have a special functional role during embryogenesis and in adult hematopoietic cells.

Bifunctional glycosyltransferase with both alpha-1,3- xylosyltransferase and beta-1,3-glucuronyltransferase activities involved in the maturation of alpha-dystroglycan (DAG1) by glycosylation leading to DAG1 binding to laminin G-like domain- containing extracellular proteins with high affinity. Elongates the glucuronyl-beta-1,4- xylose-beta disaccharide primer structure initiated by B4GAT1 by adding repeating units [-3-Xylose-alpha-1,3-GlcA-beta-1-] to produce a heteropolysaccharide. Requires the phosphorylation of core M3 (O-mannosyl trisaccharide) by POMK to elongate the glucuronyl-beta-1,4-xylose-beta disaccharide primer. Plays a key role in skeletal muscle function and regeneration (By similarity).

Bifunctional glycosyltransferase with both alpha-1,3- xylosyltransferase and beta-1,3-glucuronyltransferase activities involved in the maturation of alpha-dystroglycan (DAG1) by glycosylation leading to DAG1 binding to laminin G-like domain- containing extracellular proteins with high affinity and in a phosphorylated-O-mannosyl trisaccharide dependent manner. Elongates the glucuronyl-beta-1,4-xylose-beta disaccharide primer structure by adding repeating units [-3-Xylose-alpha-1,3-GlcA-beta-1-] to produce a heteropolysaccharide (By similarity). Supports the maturation of DAG1 more effectively than LARGE1. In addition, can modify both heparan sulfate (HS)- and chondroitin/dermatan sulfate (CS/DS)- proteoglycans (PGs), namely GPC4, with a glycosaminoglycan (GAG)-like polysaccharide composed of xylose and glucuronic acid to confer laminin binding (By similarity).

Regulator of cell size that promotes cell size increase independently of mTOR and Hippo signaling pathways. Acts by stimulating the translation of specific mRNAs, including those encoding proteins affecting mitochondrial functions. Increases mitochondrial mass and respiration.

RNA-binding protein that regulates the translation of specific target mRNA species downstream of the mTORC1 complex, in function of growth signals and nutrient availability. Interacts on the one hand with the 3' poly-A tails that are present in all mRNA molecules, and on the other hand with the 7-methylguanosine cap structure of mRNAs containing a 5' terminal oligopyrimidine (5'TOP) motif, which is present in mRNAs encoding ribosomal proteins and several components of the translation machinery. The interaction with the 5' end of mRNAs containing a 5'TOP motif leads to translational repression by preventing the binding of EIF4G1. When mTORC1 is activated, LARP1 is phosphorylated and dissociates from the 5' untranslated region (UTR) of mRNA. Does not prevent binding of EIF4G1 to mRNAs that lack a 5'TOP motif. Interacts with the free 40S ribosome subunit and with ribosomes, both monosomes and polysomes. Under normal nutrient availability, interacts primarily with the 3' untranslated region (UTR) of mRNAs encoding ribosomal proteins and increases protein synthesis. Associates with actively translating ribosomes and stimulates translation of mRNAs containing a 5'TOP motif, thereby regulating protein synthesis, and as a consequence, cell growth and proliferation. Stabilizes mRNAs species with a 5'TOP motif, which is required to prevent apoptosis.

RNA binding protein that binds to the poly-A tract of mRNA molecules. Associates with the 40S ribosomal subunit and with polysomes. Plays a role in the regulation of mRNA translation. Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization.

Regulates the coordinated translation of type I collagen alpha-1 and alpha-2 mRNAs, CO1A1 and CO1A2. Stabilizes mRNAs through high-affinity binding of a stem-loop structure in their 5' UTR. This regulation requires VIM and MYH10 filaments, and the helicase DHX9.

RNA-binding protein that specifically binds distinct small nuclear RNA (snRNAs) and regulates their processing and function. Specifically binds the 7SK snRNA (7SK RNA) and acts as a core component of the 7SK ribonucleoprotein (RNP) complex, thereby acting as a negative regulator of transcription elongation by RNA polymerase II. The 7SK RNP complex sequesters the positive transcription elongation factor b (P-TEFb) in a large inactive 7SK RNP complex preventing RNA polymerase II phosphorylation and subsequent transcriptional elongation. The 7SK RNP complex also promotes snRNA gene transcription by RNA polymerase II via interaction with the little elongation complex (LEC). LARP7 specifically binds to the highly conserved 3'-terminal U-rich stretch of 7SK RNA; on stimulation, remains associated with 7SK RNA, whereas P-TEFb is released from the complex. LARP7 also acts as a regulator of mRNA splicing fidelity by promoting U6 snRNA processing. Specifically binds U6 snRNAs and associates with a subset of box C/D RNP complexes: promotes U6 snRNA 2'-O-methylation by facilitating U6 snRNA loading into box C/D RNP complexes. U6 snRNA 2'-O-methylation is required for mRNA splicing fidelity. Binds U6 snRNAs with a 5'- CAGGG-3' sequence motif. U6 snRNA processing is required for spermatogenesis (By similarity).

Involved in the biogenesis of the 60S ribosomal subunit. Required for maturation of the 28S rRNA. Functions as a component of the Five Friends of Methylated CHTOP (5FMC) complex; the 5FMC complex is recruited to ZNF148 by methylated CHTOP, leading to desumoylation of ZNF148 and subsequent transactivation of ZNF148 target genes.

Plays an important role in the regulation of dynamic actin- based, cytoskeletal activities. Agonist-dependent changes in LASP1 phosphorylation may also serve to regulate actin-associated ion transport activities, not only in the parietal cell but also in certain other F-actin-rich secretory epithelial cell types (By similarity).

The heterodimer with SLC3A2 functions as sodium-independent, high-affinity transporter that mediates uptake of large neutral amino acids such as phenylalanine, tyrosine, leucine, histidine, methionine, tryptophan, valine, isoleucine and alanine. The heterodimer with SLC3A2 mediates the uptake of L-DOPA (By similarity). Functions as an amino acid exchanger. May play a role in the transport of L-DOPA across the blood-brain barrier (By similarity). May act as the major transporter of tyrosine in fibroblasts (Probable). May mediate blood-to-retina L- leucine transport across the inner blood-retinal barrier (By similarity).Can mediate the transport of thyroid hormones diiodothyronine (T2), triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) across the cell membrane. When associated with LAPTM4B, the heterodimer formed by SLC3A2 and SLC7A5 is recruited to lysosomes to promote leucine uptake into these organelles, and thereby mediates mTORC1 activation. Involved in the uptake of toxic methylmercury (MeHg) when administered as the L-cysteine or D,L- homocysteine complexes. Involved in the cellular activity of small molecular weight nitrosothiols, via the stereoselective transport of L-nitrosocysteine (L-CNSO) across the membrane.

Sodium-independent, high-affinity transport of small and large neutral amino acids such as alanine, serine, threonine, cysteine, phenylalanine, tyrosine, leucine, arginine and tryptophan, when associated with SLC3A2/4F2hc. Acts as an amino acid exchanger. Has higher affinity for L-phenylalanine than LAT1 but lower affinity for glutamine and serine. L-alanine is transported at physiological concentrations. Plays a role in basolateral (re)absorption of neutral amino acids. Involved in the uptake of methylmercury (MeHg) when administered as the L-cysteine or D,L-homocysteine complexes, and hence plays a role in metal ion homeostasis and toxicity. Involved in the cellular activity of small molecular weight nitrosothiols, via the stereoselective transport of L-nitrosocysteine (L-CNSO) across the transmembrane. Plays an essential role in the reabsorption of neutral amino acids from the epithelial cells to the bloodstream in the kidney.

Uniport that mediates the transport of neutral amino acids such as L-leucine, L-isoleucine, L-valine, and L-phenylalanine. The transport activity is sodium ions-independent, electroneutral and mediated by a facilitated diffusion.

Uniporter that mediates the transport of the stereospecific L-phenylalanine, L-methionine and L-branched-chain amino acids, between the extracellular space and the cytoplasm and may control the transepithelial (re)absorption of neutral amino acid in kidney and small intestine. The transport activity is mediated through facilitated diffusion and is sodium ions-, chloride ions- and pH-independent.

Negative regulator of YAP1 in the Hippo signaling pathway that plays a pivotal role in organ size control and tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis. The core of this pathway is composed of a kinase cascade wherein STK3/MST2 and STK4/MST1, in complex with its regulatory protein SAV1, phosphorylates and activates LATS1/2 in complex with its regulatory protein MOB1, which in turn phosphorylates and inactivates YAP1 oncoprotein and WWTR1/TAZ. Phosphorylation of YAP1 by LATS1 inhibits its translocation into the nucleus to regulate cellular genes important for cell proliferation, cell death, and cell migration. Acts as a tumor suppressor which plays a critical role in maintenance of ploidy through its actions in both mitotic progression and the G1 tetraploidy checkpoint. Negatively regulates G2/M transition by down-regulating CDK1 kinase activity. Involved in the control of p53 expression. Affects cytokinesis by regulating actin polymerization through negative modulation of LIMK1. May also play a role in endocrine function. Plays a role in mammary gland epithelial cell differentiation, both through the Hippo signaling pathway and the intracellular estrogen receptor signaling pathway by promoting the degradation of ESR1.

Negative regulator of YAP1 in the Hippo signaling pathway that plays a pivotal role in organ size control and tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis. The core of this pathway is composed of a kinase cascade wherein STK3/MST2 and STK4/MST1, in complex with its regulatory protein SAV1, phosphorylates and activates LATS1/2 in complex with its regulatory protein MOB1, which in turn phosphorylates and inactivates YAP1 oncoprotein and WWTR1/TAZ. Phosphorylation of YAP1 by LATS2 inhibits its translocation into the nucleus to regulate cellular genes important for cell proliferation, cell death, and cell migration. Acts as a tumor suppressor which plays a critical role in centrosome duplication, maintenance of mitotic fidelity and genomic stability. Negatively regulates G1/S transition by down-regulating cyclin E/CDK2 kinase activity. Negative regulator of the androgen receptor. Phosphorylates SNAI1 in the nucleus leading to its nuclear retention and stabilization, which enhances its epithelial-mesenchymal transition and tumor cell invasion/migration activities. This tumor-promoting activity is independent of its effects upon YAP1 or WWTR1/TAZ.

Required for TCR (T-cell antigen receptor)- and pre-TCR- mediated signaling, both in mature T-cells and during their development. Involved in FCGR3 (low affinity immunoglobulin gamma Fc region receptor III)-mediated signaling in natural killer cells and FCER1 (high affinity immunoglobulin epsilon receptor)-mediated signaling in mast cells. Couples activation of these receptors and their associated kinases with distal intracellular events such as mobilization of intracellular calcium stores, PKC activation, MAPK activation or cytoskeletal reorganization through the recruitment of PLCG1, GRB2, GRAP2, and other signaling molecules.

Negatively regulates TCR (T-cell antigen receptor)-mediated signaling in T-cells and BCR (B-cell antigen receptor)-mediated signaling in B-cells.

Binds to the 3' poly(U) terminus of nascent RNA polymerase III transcripts, protecting them from exonuclease digestion and facilitating their folding and maturation. In case of Coxsackievirus B3 infection, binds to the viral internal ribosome entry site (IRES) and stimulates the IRES- mediated translation.

Transcriptional activator which may act in mitogen-activated protein kinase signaling pathway.

Component of the EvC complex that positively regulates ciliary Hedgehog (Hh) signaling. Plays a critical role in bone formation and skeletal development. May be involved in early embryonic morphogenesis.

Plays a role in the innate immune response. Binds to the lipid A moiety of bacterial lipopolysaccharides (LPS), a glycolipid present in the outer membrane of all Gram-negative bacteria. Acts as an affinity enhancer for CD14, facilitating its association with LPS. Promotes the release of cytokines in response to bacterial lipopolysaccharide.

Catalyzes the reduction of the C14-unsaturated bond of lanosterol, as part of the metabolic pathway leading to cholesterol biosynthesis. Plays a critical role in myeloid cell cholesterol biosynthesis which is essential to both myeloid cell growth and functional maturation (By similarity). Mediates the activation of NADPH oxidases, perhaps by maintaining critical levels of cholesterol required for membrane lipid raft formation during neutrophil differentiation (By similarity). Anchors the lamina and the heterochromatin to the inner nuclear membrane.

Transcription factor required for the development of GABAergic interneurons in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord and migration and further development of hypaxial muscle precursor cells for limb muscles, diaphragm and hypoglossal cord.

Binds cAMP regulatory element DNA sequence. May play a role in RNA splicing.

Involved in intraflagellar protein (IFT) transport in photoreceptor cilia.

Release of an N-terminal amino acid, cleaves before cysteine, leucine as well as other amino acids. Degrades peptide hormones such as oxytocin, vasopressin and angiotensin III, and plays a role in maintaining homeostasis during pregnancy. May be involved in the inactivation of neuronal peptides in the brain. Cleaves Met-enkephalin and dynorphin. Binds angiotensin IV and may be the angiotensin IV receptor in the brain.

Central enzyme in the extracellular metabolism of plasma lipoproteins. Synthesized mainly in the liver and secreted into plasma where it converts cholesterol and phosphatidylcholines (lecithins) to cholesteryl esters and lysophosphatidylcholines on the surface of high and low density lipoproteins (HDLs and LDLs). The cholesterol ester is then transported back to the liver. Has a preference for plasma 16:0-18:2 or 18:O-18:2 phosphatidylcholines. Also produced in the brain by primary astrocytes, and esterifies free cholesterol on nascent APOE-containing lipoproteins secreted from glia and influences cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) APOE- and APOA1 levels. Together with APOE and the cholesterol transporter ABCA1, plays a key role in the maturation of glial-derived, nascent lipoproteins. Required for remodeling high- density lipoprotein particles into their spherical forms. Catalyzes the hydrolysis of 1-O-alkyl-2-acetyl-sn- glycero-3-phosphocholine (platelet-activating factor or PAF) to 1-O- alkyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine (lyso-PAF). Also catalyzes the transfer of the acetate group from PAF to 1-hexadecanoyl- sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine forming lyso-PAF. Catalyzes the esterification of (24S)-hydroxycholesterol (24(S)OH-C), also known as cerebrosterol to produce 24(S)OH-C monoesters.

A structural component of the cornified envelope of the stratum corneum involved in innate cutaneous host defense (Probable). Possesses defensin-like antimicrobial activity against a broad spectrum of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, both aerobic and anaerobic species. Upon inflammation, may regulate skin barrier repair by shaping cutaneous microbiota composition and immune response to bacterial antigens.

Sperm protein required for fusion of sperm with the egg membrane during fertilization.

Non-receptor tyrosine-protein kinase that plays an essential role in the selection and maturation of developing T-cells in the thymus and in the function of mature T-cells. Plays a key role in T- cell antigen receptor (TCR)-linked signal transduction pathways. Constitutively associated with the cytoplasmic portions of the CD4 and CD8 surface receptors. Association of the TCR with a peptide antigen- bound MHC complex facilitates the interaction of CD4 and CD8 with MHC class II and class I molecules, respectively, thereby recruiting the associated LCK protein to the vicinity of the TCR/CD3 complex. LCK then phosphorylates tyrosine residues within the immunoreceptor tyrosine- based activation motifs (ITAM) of the cytoplasmic tails of the TCR- gamma chains and CD3 subunits, initiating the TCR/CD3 signaling pathway. Once stimulated, the TCR recruits the tyrosine kinase ZAP70, that becomes phosphorylated and activated by LCK. Following this, a large number of signaling molecules are recruited, ultimately leading to lymphokine production. LCK also contributes to signaling by other receptor molecules. Associates directly with the cytoplasmic tail of CD2, which leads to hyperphosphorylation and activation of LCK. Also plays a role in the IL2 receptor-linked signaling pathway that controls the T-cell proliferative response. Binding of IL2 to its receptor results in increased activity of LCK. Is expressed at all stages of thymocyte development and is required for the regulation of maturation events that are governed by both pre-TCR and mature alpha beta TCR. Phosphorylates other substrates including RUNX3, PTK2B/PYK2, the microtubule-associated protein MAPT, RHOH or TYROBP. Interacts with FYB2.

Exhibits acyl-CoA:lysocardiolipin acyltransferase (ALCAT) activity; catalyzes the reacylation of lyso-cardiolipin to cardiolipin (CL), a key step in CL remodeling (By similarity). Recognizes both monolysocardiolipin and dilysocardiolipin as substrates with a preference for linoleoyl-CoA and oleoyl-CoA as acyl donors (By similarity). Also exhibits 1-acyl-sn-glycerol-3-phosphate acyltransferase activity (AGPAT) activity; converts 1-acyl-sn-glycerol- 3- phosphate (lysophosphatidic acid or LPA) into 1,2-diacyl-sn- glycerol-3- phosphate (phosphatidic acid or PA) by incorporating an acyl moiety at the sn-2 position of the glycerol backbone. Possesses both lysophosphatidylinositol acyltransferase (LPIAT) and lysophosphatidylglycerol acyltransferase (LPGAT) activities. Required for establishment of the hematopoietic and endothelial lineages (By similarity).

Methylates the carboxyl group of the C-terminal leucine residue of protein phosphatase 2A catalytic subunits to form alpha- leucine ester residues.

May play a role in male fertility. May act as a retinoid carrier protein within the epididymis

Binds all-trans retinoic acid and may act as a retinoid carrier protein within the epididymis. May play a role in male fertility (By similarity).

Could play a role in taste reception. Could be necessary for the concentration and delivery of sapid molecules in the gustatory system. Can bind various ligands, with chemical structures ranging from lipids and retinoids to the macrocyclic antibiotic rifampicin and even to microbial siderophores. Exhibits an extremely wide ligand pocket

May act as transcription activator that binds DNA elements with the sequence 5'-CCCTATCGATCGATCTCTACCT-3' (By similarity). Repressor of ligand-dependent transcription activation by target nuclear receptors. Repressor of ligand-dependent transcription activation by ESR1, ESR2, NR3C1, PGR, RARA, RARB, RARG, RXRA and VDR.

Plays a role in formation of the lens suture in the eye, which is important for normal optical properties of the lens.

Plays an important role in the formation of lipid droplets (LD) which are storage organelles at the center of lipid and energy homeostasis. In association with BSCL2/seipin, defines the sites of LD formation in the endoplasmic reticulum.

Probable serine lipid hydrolase associated with lipid droplets. Appears to lack cholesterol esterase activity. Appears to lack triglyceride lipase activity. Highly expressed in macrophage-rich areas in atherosclerotic lesions, suggesting that it could promote cholesterol ester turnover in macrophages.

Binds to the LIM domain of a wide variety of LIM domain- containing transcription factors. May regulate the transcriptional activity of LIM-containing proteins by determining specific partner interactions. Plays a role in the development of interneurons and motor neurons in cooperation with LHX3 and ISL1. Acts synergistically with LHX1/LIM1 in axis formation and activation of gene expression. Acts with LMO2 in the regulation of red blood cell development, maintaining erythroid precursors in an immature state.

Transcription cofactor. Binds to the LIM domain of a wide variety of LIM domain-containing transcription factors.

May function as an adapter in striated muscle to couple protein kinase C-mediated signaling via its LIM domains to the cytoskeleton.

Catalyzes the interconversion of L-lactate and pyruvate with nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide NAD(+) as a coenzyme. Significantly increases the transcriptional activity of JUN, when overexpressed.

Interconverts simultaneously and stereospecifically pyruvate and lactate with concomitant interconversion of NADH and NAD(+).

Binds LDL, the major cholesterol-carrying lipoprotein of plasma, and transports it into cells by endocytosis. In order to be internalized, the receptor-ligand complexes must first cluster into clathrin-coated pits.

May have an important role in the development and/or progression of some cancers

Has a neutrophil chemotactic activity. Also a positive regulator of chondrocyte proliferation. Does not show metalloendopeptidase activity.

Transcription factor that binds DNA in a sequence-specific manner. Participates in the Wnt signaling pathway (By similarity). Activates transcription of target genes in the presence of CTNNB1 and EP300 (By similarity). PIAG antagonizes both Wnt-dependent and Wnt-independent activation by LEF1 (By similarity). TLE1, TLE2, TLE3 and TLE4 repress transactivation mediated by LEF1 and CTNNB1. Regulates T-cell receptor alpha enhancer function. Required for IL17A expressing gamma-delta T-cell maturation and development, via binding to regulator loci of BLK to modulate expression (By similarity). May play a role in hair cell differentiation and follicle morphogenesis (By similarity).

Regulates immune responses through the recognition of cell- surface glycans. Essential for the anergy and suppressive function of CD25-positive regulatory T-cells (Treg).

Binds lactose with high affinity. Strong inducer of T-cell apoptosis.

Lectin that binds beta-galactoside and a wide array of complex carbohydrates. Plays a role in regulating apoptosis, cell proliferation and cell differentiation. Inhibits CD45 protein phosphatase activity and therefore the dephosphorylation of Lyn kinase. Strong inducer of T-cell apoptosis.

This protein binds beta-galactoside. Its physiological function is not yet known

Galactose-specific lectin which binds IgE. May mediate with the alpha-3, beta-1 integrin the stimulation by CSPG4 of endothelial cells migration. Together with DMBT1, required for terminal differentiation of columnar epithelial cells during early embryogenesis (By similarity). In the nucleus: acts as a pre-mRNA splicing factor. Involved in acute inflammatory responses including neutrophil activation and adhesion, chemoattraction of monocytes macrophages, opsonization of apoptotic neutrophils, and activation of mast cells. Together with TRIM16, coordinates the recognition of membrane damage with mobilization of the core autophagy regulators ATG16L1 and BECN1 in response to damaged endomembranes.

Galectin that binds lactose and a related range of sugars. May be involved in the assembly of adherens junctions

Could be involved in cell-cell and/or cell-matrix interactions necessary for normal growth control. Pro-apoptotic protein that functions intracellularly upstream of JNK activation and cytochrome c release.

Beta-galactoside-binding lectin that acts as a sensor of membrane damage caused by infection and restricts the proliferation of infecting pathogens by targeting them for autophagy. Detects membrane rupture by binding beta-galactoside ligands located on the lumenal side of the endosome membrane; these ligands becoming exposed to the cytoplasm following rupture. Restricts infection by initiating autophagy via interaction with CALCOCO2/NDP52. Required to restrict infection of bacterial invasion such as S.typhimurium. Also required to restrict infection of Picornaviridae viruses. Has a marked preference for 3'-O-sialylated and 3'-O-sulfated glycans.

Binds galactosides. Has high affinity for the Forssman pentasaccharide. Ligand for HAVCR2/TIM3. Binding to HAVCR2 induces T-helper type 1 lymphocyte (Th1) death. Also stimulates bactericidal activity in infected macrophages by causing macrophage activation and IL1B secretion which restricts intracellular bacterial growth (By similarity). Ligand for P4HB; the interaction retains P4HB at the cell surface of Th2 T-helper cells, increasing disulfide reductase activity at the plasma membrane, altering the plasma membrane redox state and enhancing cell migration. Ligand for CD44; the interaction enhances binding of SMAD3 to the FOXP3 promoter, leading to up-regulation of FOXP3 expression and increased induced regulatory T (iTreg) cell stability and suppressive function (By similarity). Promotes ability of mesenchymal stromal cells to suppress T-cell proliferation. Expands regulatory T-cells and induces cytotoxic T-cell apoptosis following virus infection. Activates ERK1/2 phosphorylation inducing cytokine (IL-6, IL-8, IL-12) and chemokine (CCL2) production in mast and dendritic cells. Inhibits degranulation and induces apoptosis of mast cells. Induces maturation and migration of dendritic cells. Inhibits natural killer (NK) cell function. Can transform NK cell phenotype from peripheral to decidual during pregnancy. Astrocyte derived galectin-9 enhances microglial TNF production (By similarity). May play a role in thymocyte-epithelial interactions relevant to the biology of the thymus. May provide the molecular basis for urate flux across cell membranes, allowing urate that is formed during purine metabolism to efflux from cells and serving as an electrogenic transporter that plays an important role in renal and gastrointestinal urate excretion (By similarity). Highly selective to the anion urate (By similarity).

Nuclear lamina-associated inner nuclear membrane protein that is involved in nuclear structure organization, maintenance of nuclear envelope integrity and nuclear envelope reformation after mitosis. Plays a role as transmembrane adapter for the endosomal sorting complexes required for transport (ESCRT), and is thereby involved in ESCRT-mediated nuclear envelope reformation. Promotes ESCRT-mediated nuclear envelope closure by recruiting CHMP7 and downstream ESCRT-III proteins IST1/CHMP8 and CHMP2A to the reforming NE during anaphase. During nuclear reassembly, condenses into a liquid-like coating around microtubule spindles and coassembles with CHMP7 to form a macromolecular O-ring seal at the confluence between membranes, chromatin, and the spindle to facilitate early nuclear sealing. Required for embryonic development and involved in regulation of several signaling pathways such as MAPK and AKT (By similarity). Required for myoblast differentiation involving regulation of ERK signaling (By similarity).

Component of the PAF1 complex (PAF1C) which has multiple functions during transcription by RNA polymerase II and is implicated in regulation of development and maintenance of embryonic stem cell pluripotency. PAF1C associates with RNA polymerase II through interaction with POLR2A CTD non-phosphorylated and 'Ser-2'- and 'Ser- 5'-phosphorylated forms and is involved in transcriptional elongation, acting both independently and synergistically with TCEA1 and in cooperation with the DSIF complex and HTATSF1. PAF1C is required for transcription of Hox and Wnt target genes. PAF1C is involved in hematopoiesis and stimulates transcriptional activity of KMT2A/MLL1; it promotes leukemogenesis through association with KMT2A/MLL1-rearranged oncoproteins, such as KMT2A/MLL1-MLLT3/AF9 and KMT2A/MLL1-MLLT1/ENL. PAF1C is involved in histone modifications such as ubiquitination of histone H2B and methylation on histone H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3). PAF1C recruits the RNF20/40 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex and the E2 enzyme UBE2A or UBE2B to chromatin which mediate monoubiquitination of 'Lys-120' of histone H2B (H2BK120ub1); UB2A/B-mediated H2B ubiquitination is proposed to be coupled to transcription. PAF1C is involved in mRNA 3' end formation probably through association with cleavage and poly(A) factors. In case of infection by influenza A strain H3N2, PAF1C associates with viral NS1 protein, thereby regulating gene transcription. Involved in polyadenylation of mRNA precursors. Connects PAF1C to Wnt signaling.

Receptor for hormone LEP/leptin (Probable). On ligand binding, mediates LEP central and peripheral effects through the activation of different signaling pathways such as JAK2/STAT3 and MAPK cascade/FOS. In the hypothalamus, LEP acts as an appetite- regulating factor that induces a decrease in food intake and an increase in energy consumption by inducing anorexinogenic factors and suppressing orexigenic neuropeptides, also regulates bone mass and secretion of hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal hormones (By similarity). In the periphery, increases basal metabolism, influences reproductive function, regulates pancreatic beta-cell function and insulin secretion, is pro-angiogenic and affects innate and adaptive immunity. Control of energy homeostasis and melanocortin production (stimulation of POMC and full repression of AgRP transcription) is mediated by STAT3 signaling, whereas distinct signals regulate NPY and the control of fertility, growth and glucose homeostasis. Involved in the regulation of counter-regulatory response to hypoglycemia by inhibiting neurons of the parabrachial nucleus. Has a specific effect on T lymphocyte responses, differentially regulating the proliferation of naive and memory T -ells. Leptin increases Th1 and suppresses Th2 cytokine production (By similarity).

Key player in the regulation of energy balance and body weight control. Once released into the circulation, has central and peripheral effects by binding LEPR, found in many tissues, which results in the activation of several major signaling pathways. In the hypothalamus, acts as an appetite-regulating factor that induces a decrease in food intake and an increase in energy consumption by inducing anorexinogenic factors and suppressing orexigenic neuropeptides, also regulates bone mass and secretion of hypothalamo- pituitary-adrenal hormones. In the periphery, increases basal metabolism, influences reproductive function, regulates pancreatic beta-cell function and insulin secretion, is pro-angiogenic for endothelial cell and affects innate and adaptive immunity (By similarity). In the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus, activates by depolarization POMC neurons inducing FOS and SOCS3 expression to release anorexigenic peptides and inhibits by hyperpolarization NPY neurons inducing SOCS3 with a consequent reduction on release of orexigenic peptides (By similarity). In addition to its known satiety inducing effect, has a modulatory role in nutrient absorption. In the intestine, reduces glucose absorption by enterocytes by activating PKC and leading to a sequential activation of p38, PI3K and ERK signaling pathways which exerts an inhibitory effect on glucose absorption. Acts as a growth factor on certain tissues, through the activation of different signaling pathways increases expression of genes involved in cell cycle regulation such as CCND1, via JAK2-STAT3 pathway, or VEGFA, via MAPK1/3 and PI3K-AKT1 pathways (By similarity). May also play an apoptotic role via JAK2-STAT3 pathway and up-regulation of BIRC5 expression. Pro-angiogenic, has mitogenic activity on vascular endothelial cells and plays a role in matrix remodeling by regulating the expression of matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) and tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases (TIMPs). In innate immunity, modulates the activity and function of neutrophils by increasing chemotaxis and the secretion of oxygen radicals. Increases phagocytosis by macrophages and enhances secretion of pro-inflammatory mediators. Increases cytotoxic ability of NK cells. Plays a pro-inflammatory role, in synergy with IL1B, by inducing NOS2 wich promotes the production of IL6, IL8 and Prostaglandin E2, through a signaling pathway that involves JAK2, PI3K, MAP2K1/MEK1 and MAPK14/p38. In adaptive immunity, promotes the switch of memory T-cells towards T helper-1 cell immune responses (By similarity). Increases CD4(+)CD25(-) T-cell proliferation and reduces autophagy during TCR (T-cell receptor) stimulation, through MTOR signaling pathway activation and BCL2 up-regulation.

Negatively regulates growth hormone (GH) receptor cell surface expression in liver. May play a role in liver resistance to GH during periods of reduced nutrient availability.

Mitochondrial proton/calcium antiporter that mediates proton- dependent calcium efflux from mitochondrion. Crucial for the maintenance of mitochondrial tubular networks and for the assembly of the supercomplexes of the respiratory chain. Required for the maintenance of the tubular shape and cristae organization. In contrast to SLC8B1/NCLX, does not constitute the major factor for mitochondrial calcium extrusion.

Predominant cell surface sialoprotein of leukocytes which regulates multiple T-cell functions, including T-cell activation, proliferation, differentiation, trafficking and migration. Positively regulates T-cell trafficking to lymph-nodes via its association with ERM proteins (EZR, RDX and MSN) (By similarity). Negatively regulates Th2 cell differentiation and predisposes the differentiation of T-cells towards a Th1 lineage commitment. Promotes the expression of IFN-gamma by T-cells during T-cell receptor (TCR) activation of naive cells and induces the expression of IFN-gamma by CD4(+) T-cells and to a lesser extent by CD8(+) T-cells. Plays a role in preparing T-cells for cytokine sensing and differentiation into effector cells by inducing the expression of cytokine receptors IFNGR and IL4R, promoting IFNGR and IL4R signaling and by mediating the clustering of IFNGR with TCR. Acts as a major E-selectin ligand responsible for Th17 cell rolling on activated vasculature and recruitment during inflammation. Mediates Th17 cells, but not Th1 cells, adhesion to E- selectin. Acts as a T-cell counter-receptor for SIGLEC1 (By similarity).

[Isoform 1]: Paired-like homeobox transcription factor involved in embryogenesis. May act as a regulator of embryo genome activation. Binds to a 36 bp DNA elements containing a 5'-TAATCC-3' sequence motif, referred to as EEA motif (EGA-enriched Alu-motif), present in the promoters of target genes activated in early embryos.

Ligand of the T-lymphocyte CD2 glycoprotein. This interaction is important in mediating thymocyte interactions with thymic epithelial cells, antigen-independent and -dependent interactions of T-lymphocytes with target cells and antigen-presenting cells and the T-lymphocyte rosetting with erythrocytes. In addition, the LFA-3/CD2 interaction may prime response by both the CD2+ and LFA-3+ cells

Antiapoptotic protein which protects cells uniquely from Fas- induced apoptosis. Regulates Fas-mediated apoptosis in neurons by interfering with caspase-8 activation. May play a role in cerebellar development by affecting cerebellar size, internal granular layer (IGL) thickness, and Purkinje cell (PC) development.

Negatively regulates aortic matrix metalloproteinase-9 (MMP9) production and may play a protective role in vascular remodeling

Anti-apoptotic protein which can inhibit apoptosis induced by intrinsic and extrinsic apoptotic stimuli. Can modulate both capacitative Ca2+ entry and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3)-mediated Ca2+ release.

Glycosyltransferase that initiates the elongation of O-linked fucose residues attached to EGF-like repeats in the extracellular domain of Notch molecules. Modulates NOTCH1 activity by modifying O- fucose residues at specific EGF-like domains resulting in inhibition of NOTCH1 activation by JAG1 and enhancement of NOTCH1 activation by DLL1 via an increase in its binding to DLL1 (By similarity). Decreases the binding of JAG1 to NOTCH2 but not that of DLL1. Essential mediator of somite segmentation and patterning (By similarity).

Required for left-right axis determination as a regulator of LEFTY2 and NODAL

Required for left-right (L-R) asymmetry determination of organ systems in mammals. May play a role in endometrial bleeding

Promotes integrin-mediated cell adhesion. May stimulate host defense against viruses and tumor cells.

Lysophospholipid acyltransferase involved in fatty acyl chain remodeling of glycerophospholipids in the endoplasmic reticulum membrane (By similarity). Selectively catalyzes the transfer and esterification of saturated long-chain fatty acids from acyl-CoA to the sn-1 position of 1-lyso-2-acyl phosphatidylethanolamines (1-lyso-PE, LPE), with a preference for stearoyl CoA over palmitoyl CoA as acyl donor. Acts in concert with an unknown phospholipase A1 to convert palmitate phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) species into stearate ones. Provides substrates to the PE methylation pathway, controlling stearate/palmitate composition of PE and phosphatidylcholine (PC) species with an overall impact on de novo hepatic lipid synthesis, body fat content and life span (By similarity). Can acylate lysophosphatidylglycerols (LPG) using various saturated fatty acyl-CoAs as acyl donors. Can also acylate monoacylglycerols with a preference for 2-monoacylglycerols over 1-monoacylglycerols (By similarity). Has no activity toward lysophosphatidic acids (LPA) and lysophosphatidylcholines (LPC) (By similarity).

Regulates voltage-gated potassium channels assembled from KCNA1, KCNA4 and KCNAB1. It slows down channel inactivation by precluding channel closure mediated by the KCNAB1 subunit. Ligand for ADAM22 that positively regulates synaptic transmission mediated by AMPA-type glutamate receptors (By similarity). Plays a role in suppressing the production of MMP1/3 through the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase/ERK pathway. May play a role in the control of neuroblastoma cell survival.

Required for the development of soma-targeting inhibitory GABAergic synapses made by parvalbumin-positive basket cells.

Component of Schwann cell signaling pathway(s) that controls axon segregation and myelin formation (By similarity).

Has a strict specificity for hydrolysis of asparaginyl bonds. Can also cleave aspartyl bonds slowly, especially under acidic conditions. Required for normal lysosomal protein degradation in renal proximal tubules. Required for normal degradation of internalized EGFR. Plays a role in the regulation of cell proliferation via its role in EGFR degradation (By similarity). May be involved in the processing of proteins for MHC class II antigen presentation in the lysosomal/endosomal system.

Receptor for R-spondins that potentiates the canonical Wnt signaling pathway and is involved in the formation of various organs. Upon binding to R-spondins (RSPO1, RSPO2, RSPO3 or RSPO4), associates with phosphorylated LRP6 and frizzled receptors that are activated by extracellular Wnt receptors, triggering the canonical Wnt signaling pathway to increase expression of target genes. In contrast to classical G-protein coupled receptors, does not activate heterotrimeric G-proteins to transduce the signal. Its function as activator of the Wnt signaling pathway is required for the development of various organs, including liver, kidney, intestine, bone, reproductive tract and eye. May also act as a receptor for norrin (NDP), such results however require additional confirmation in vivo. Required during spermatogenesis to activate the Wnt signaling pathway in peritubular myoid cells. Required for the maintenance of intestinal stem cells and Paneth cell differentiation in postnatal intestinal crypts. Acts as a regulator of bone formation and remodeling. Involved in kidney development; required for maintaining the ureteric bud in an undifferentiated state. Involved in the development of the anterior segment of the eye. Required during erythropoiesis. Also acts as a negative regulator of innate immunity by inhibiting TLR2/TLR4 associated pattern-recognition and pro-inflammatory cytokine production. Plays an important role in regulating the circadian rhythms of plasma lipids, partially through regulating the rhythmic expression of MTTP (By similarity). Required for proper development of GnRH neurons (gonadotropin-releasing hormone expressing neurons) that control the release of reproductive hormones from the pituitary gland (By similarity).

Receptor for R-spondins that potentiates the canonical Wnt signaling pathway and acts as a stem cell marker of the intestinal epithelium and the hair follicle. Upon binding to R-spondins (RSPO1, RSPO2, RSPO3 or RSPO4), associates with phosphorylated LRP6 and frizzled receptors that are activated by extracellular Wnt receptors, triggering the canonical Wnt signaling pathway to increase expression of target genes. In contrast to classical G-protein coupled receptors, does not activate heterotrimeric G-proteins to transduce the signal. Involved in the development and/or maintenance of the adult intestinal stem cells during postembryonic development.

Receptor for R-spondins that potentiates the canonical Wnt signaling pathway and acts as a marker of multipotent stem cells in the epidermis. Upon binding to R-spondins (RSPO1, RSPO2, RSPO3 or RSPO4), associates with phosphorylated LRP6 and frizzled receptors that are activated by extracellular Wnt receptors, triggering the canonical Wnt signaling pathway to increase expression of target genes. In contrast to classical G-protein coupled receptors, does not activate heterotrimeric G-proteins to transduce the signal. May act as a tumor suppressor.

May act as a component of the cytoskeleton or as a chaperone for the reorganization of intermediate filament proteins during terminal differentiation in the lens. Does not seem to have enzymatic activity (By similarity).

Catalyzes the conversion of hemimercaptal, formed from methylglyoxal and glutathione, to S-lactoylglutathione. Involved in the regulation of TNF-induced transcriptional activity of NF-kappa-B. Required for normal osteoclastogenesis (By similarity).

Plays a role in female and male fertility. Involved in distal reproductive tract development.

Plays a role in the regulation of inhibitory synapse formation and function by being involved in maintening gamma- aminobutyric acid receptors (GABAARs) clustering and their associated scaffold proteins at inhibitory synaptic sites. Acts in concert with NLGN2 to recruit or stabilize GABAARs.

In the inner ear, may be a component of the hair cell's mechanotransduction machinery that functionally couples PCDH15 to the transduction channel. Regulates transducer channel conductance and is required for fast channel adaptation (By similarity).

Phosphatase that hydrolyzes imidodiphosphate, 3- phosphohistidine and 6-phospholysine. Has broad substrate specificity and can also hydrolyze inorganic diphosphate, but with lower efficiency (By similarity).

Potential transcription factor. May play a role in early mesoderm formation and later in lateral mesoderm differentiation and neurogenesis.

Acts as a transcriptional activator. Stimulates the promoter of the alpha-glycoprotein gene. Transcriptional regulatory protein involved in the control of cell differentiation in developing lymphoid and neural cell types (By similarity).

Transcription factor. Recognizes and binds to the consensus sequence motif 5'-AATTAATTA-3' in the regulatory elements of target genes, such as glycoprotein hormones alpha chain CGA and visual system homeobox CHX10, positively modulating transcription; transcription can be co-activated by LDB2. Synergistically enhances transcription from the prolactin promoter in cooperation with POU1F1/Pit-1 (By similarity). Required for the establishment of the specialized cells of the pituitary gland and the nervous system. Involved in the development of interneurons and motor neurons in cooperation with LDB1 and ISL1 (By similarity).

May play a critical role in the development of respiratory control mechanisms and in the normal growth and maturation of the lung. Binds preferentially to methylated DNA.

Plays an essential role in the regulation of neuronal differentiation and migration during development of the central nervous system

Probable transcription factor required for the expression of a subset of genes involved in interneurons migration and development. Functions in the specification of cortical interneuron subtypes and in the migration of GABAergic interneuron precursors from the subpallium to the cerebral cortex (By similarity).

Transcription factor involved in differentiation of certain neurons and mesenchymal cells.

Catalyzes the radical-mediated insertion of two sulfur atoms into the C-6 and C-8 positions of the octanoyl moiety bound to the lipoyl domains of lipoate-dependent enzymes, thereby converting the octanoylated domains into lipoylated derivatives.

Catalyzes the deacylation of triacylglyceryl and cholesteryl ester core lipids of endocytosed low density lipoproteins to generate free fatty acids and cholesterol.

Signal-transducing molecule. May have a common pathway with IL6ST. The soluble form inhibits the biological activity of LIF by blocking its binding to receptors on target cells

LIF has the capacity to induce terminal differentiation in leukemic cells. Its activities include the induction of hematopoietic differentiation in normal and myeloid leukemia cells, the induction of neuronal cell differentiation, and the stimulation of acute-phase protein synthesis in hepatocytes

Functional component of the Nogo receptor signaling complex (RTN4R/NGFR) in RhoA activation responsible for some inhibition of axonal regeneration by myelin-associated factors. Is also an important negative regulator of oligodentrocyte differentiation and axonal myelination. Acts in conjunction with RTN4 and RTN4R in regulating neuronal precursor cell motility during cortical development (By similarity).

Actin-binding protein involved in actin cytoskeleton regulation and dynamics. Increases the number and size of actin stress fibers and inhibits membrane ruffling. Inhibits actin filament depolymerization. Bundles actin filaments, delays filament nucleation and reduces formation of branched filaments. Plays a role in cholesterol homeostasis. Influences plasma cholesterol levels through regulation of intestinal cholesterol absorption. May act as a scaffold protein by regulating NPC1L1 transportation, an essential protein for cholesterol absorption, to the plasma membrane by recruiting MYO5B to NPC1L1, and thus facilitates cholesterol uptake (By similarity).

Adapter or scaffold protein which participates in the assembly of numerous protein complexes and is involved in several cellular processes such as cell fate determination, cytoskeletal organization, repression of gene transcription, cell-cell adhesion, cell differentiation, proliferation and migration. Positively regulates microRNA (miRNA)-mediated gene silencing and is essential for P-body formation and integrity. Acts as a hypoxic regulator by bridging an association between the prolyl hydroxylases and VHL enabling efficient degradation of HIF1A. Acts as a transcriptional corepressor for SNAI1- and SNAI2/SLUG-dependent repression of E-cadherin transcription. Negatively regulates the Hippo signaling pathway and antagonizes phosphorylation of YAP1. Inhibits E2F-mediated transcription, and suppresses the expression of the majority of genes with E2F1-responsive elements. Regulates osteoblast development, function, differentiation and stress osteoclastogenesis. Enhances the ability of TRAF6 to activate adapter protein complex 1 (AP-1) and negatively regulates the canonical Wnt receptor signaling pathway in osteoblasts. May act as a tumor suppressor by inhibiting cell proliferation.

Acts as an activator of the protein-kinase ILK, thereby regulating cell motility.

Involved in BCR (B-cell antigen receptor)-mediated signaling in B-cells and TCR (T-cell antigen receptor)-mediated T-cell signaling in T-cells. In absence of TCR signaling, may be involved in CD4- mediated inhibition of T-cell activation. Couples activation of these receptors and their associated kinases with distal intracellular events such as calcium mobilization or MAPK activation through the recruitment of PLCG2, GRB2, GRAP2, and other signaling molecules.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that plays an essential role in the regulation of actin filament dynamics. Acts downstream of several Rho family GTPase signal transduction pathways. Activated by upstream kinases including ROCK1, PAK1 and PAK4, which phosphorylate LIMK1 on a threonine residue located in its activation loop. LIMK1 subsequently phosphorylates and inactivates the actin binding/depolymerizing factors cofilin-1/CFL1, cofilin-2/CFL2 and destrin/DSTN, thereby preventing the cleavage of filamentous actin (F-actin), and stabilizing the actin cytoskeleton. In this way LIMK1 regulates several actin-dependent biological processes including cell motility, cell cycle progression, and differentiation. Phosphorylates TPPP on serine residues, thereby promoting microtubule disassembly. Stimulates axonal outgrowth and may be involved in brain development.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that plays an essential role in the regulation of actin filament dynamics. Acts downstream of several Rho family GTPase signal transduction pathways. Involved in astral microtubule organization and mitotic spindle orientation during early stages of mitosis by mediating phosphorylation of TPPP. Displays serine/threonine-specific phosphorylation of myelin basic protein and histone (MBP) in vitro. Suppresses ciliogenesis via multiple pathways; phosphorylation of CFL1, suppression of directional trafficking of ciliary vesicles to the ciliary base, and by facilitating YAP1 nuclear localization where it acts as a transcriptional corepressor of the TEAD4 target genes AURKA and PLK1.

Adapter protein in a cytoplasmic complex linking beta- integrins to the actin cytoskeleton, bridges the complex to cell surface receptor tyrosine kinases and growth factor receptors. Involved in the regulation of cell survival, cell proliferation and cell differentiation

Adapter protein in a cytoplasmic complex linking beta- integrins to the actin cytoskeleton, bridges the complex to cell surface receptor tyrosine kinases and growth factor receptors. Plays a role in modulating cell spreading and migration.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that cooperates with the microRNAs (miRNAs) machinery and promotes embryonic stem cells proliferation and maintenance (Probable). Binds to miRNAs and associates with AGO2, participating in post-transcriptional repression of transcripts such as CDKN1A (By similarity). In addition, participates in post-transcriptional mRNA repression in a miRNA independent mechanism. Facilitates the G1-S transition to promote rapid embryonic stem cell self-renewal by repressing CDKN1A expression. Required to maintain proliferation and prevent premature differentiation of neural progenitor cells during early neural development: positively regulates FGF signaling by controlling the stability of SHCBP1 (By similarity). Specific regulator of miRNA biogenesis. Binds to miRNA MIR29A hairpin and postranscriptionally modulates MIR29A levels, which indirectly regulates TET proteins expression.

Component of the DREAM complex, a multiprotein complex that can both act as a transcription activator or repressor depending on the context. In G0 phase, the complex binds to more than 800 promoters and is required for repression of E2F target genes. In S phase, the complex selectively binds to the promoters of G2/M genes whose products are required for mitosis and participates in their cell cycle dependent activation. In the complex, acts as a DNA-binding protein that binds the promoter of CDK1 in a sequence- specific manner. Specifically recognizes the consensus motif 5'-TTYRAA-3' in target DNA.

Plays a role in establishing and maintaining the asymmetric distribution of channels and receptors at the plasma membrane of polarized cells. Forms membrane-associated multiprotein complexes that may regulate delivery and recycling of proteins to the correct membrane domains. The tripartite complex composed of LIN7 (LIN7A, LIN7B or LIN7C), CASK and APBA1 associates with the motor protein KIF17 to transport vesicles containing N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor subunit NR2B along microtubules (By similarity). This complex may have the potential to couple synaptic vesicle exocytosis to cell adhesion in brain. Ensures the proper localization of GRIN2B (subunit 2B of the NMDA receptor) to neuronal postsynaptic density and may function in localizing synaptic vesicles at synapses where it is recruited by beta- catenin and cadherin. Required to localize Kir2 channels, GABA transporter (SLC6A12) and EGFR/ERBB1, ERBB2, ERBB3 and ERBB4 to the basolateral membrane of epithelial cells.

Plays a role in establishing and maintaining the asymmetric distribution of channels and receptors at the plasma membrane of polarized cells. Forms membrane-associated multiprotein complexes that may regulate delivery and recycling of proteins to the correct membrane domains. The tripartite complex composed of LIN7 (LIN7A, LIN7B or LIN7C), CASK and APBA1 associates with the motor protein KIF17 to transport vesicles containing N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor subunit NR2B along microtubules (By similarity). This complex may have the potential to couple synaptic vesicle exocytosis to cell adhesion in brain. Ensures the proper localization of GRIN2B (subunit 2B of the NMDA receptor) to neuronal postsynaptic density and may function in localizing synaptic vesicles at synapses where it is recruited by beta- catenin and cadherin. Required to localize Kir2 channels, GABA transporter (SLC6A12) and EGFR/ERBB1, ERBB2, ERBB3 and ERBB4 to the basolateral membrane of epithelial cells. May increase the amplitude of ASIC3 acid-evoked currents by stabilizing the channel at the cell surface (By similarity).

Acts as a tumor suppressor. Inhibits DNA synthesis. Its ability to inhibit oncogenic transformation is mediated through its association with RB1. Plays a role in the expression of genes required for the G1/S transition.

May regulate the disassembly of focal adhesions. May localize receptor-like tyrosine phosphatases type 2A at specific sites on the plasma membrane, possibly regulating their interaction with the extracellular environment and their association with substrates.

Alters PTPRF cellular localization and induces PTPRF clustering. May regulate the disassembly of focal adhesions. May localize receptor-like tyrosine phosphatases type 2A at specific sites on the plasma membrane, possibly regulating their interaction with the extracellular environment and their association with substrates. In neuronal cells, is a scaffolding protein in the dendritic spines which acts as immobile postsynaptic post able to recruit KIF1A-driven dense core vesicles to dendritic spines.

May regulate the disassembly of focal adhesions. May localize receptor-like tyrosine phosphatases type 2A at specific sites on the plasma membrane, possibly regulating their interaction with the extracellular environment and their association with substrates (By similarity).

May regulate the disassembly of focal adhesions. Did not bind receptor-like tyrosine phosphatases type 2A.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of triglycerides and phospholipids present in circulating plasma lipoproteins, including chylomicrons, intermediate density lipoproteins (IDL), low density lipoproteins (LDL) of large size and high density lipoproteins (HDL), releasing free fatty acids (FFA) and smaller lipoprotein particles. Also exhibits lysophospholipase activity (By similarity). Can hydrolyze both neutral lipid and phospholipid substrates but shows a greater binding affinity for neutral lipid substrates than phospholipid substrates (By similarity). In native LDL, preferentially hydrolyzes the phosphatidylcholine species containing polyunsaturated fatty acids at sn-2 position.

Exerts both phospholipase and triglyceride lipase activities. More active as a phospholipase than a triglyceride lipase. Hydrolyzes triglycerides, both with short-chain fatty acyl groups (tributyrin) and long-chain fatty acyl groups (triolein) with similar levels of activity toward both types of substrates. Hydrolyzes high density lipoproteins (HDL) more efficiently than other lipoproteins.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of triacylglycerols to yield free fatty acids, diacylglycerol, monoacylglycerol, and glycerol. Shows a preferential hydrolysis at the sn-3 position of triacylglycerol.

Hydrolyzes specifically phosphatidic acid (PA) to produce 2- acyl lysophosphatidic acid (LPA; a potent bioactive lipid mediator) and fatty acid. Does not hydrolyze other phospholipids, like phosphatidylserine (PS), phosphatidylcholine (PC) and phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) or triacylglycerol (TG).

Plays a highly specific role in the last step of keratinocyte differentiation. May have an essential function in lipid metabolism of the most differentiated epidermal layers.

Key enzyme in triglyceride metabolism. Catalyzes the hydrolysis of triglycerides from circulating chylomicrons and very low density lipoproteins (VLDL), and thereby plays an important role in lipid clearance from the blood stream, lipid utilization and storage. Although it has both phospholipase and triglyceride lipase activities it is primarily a triglyceride lipase with low but detectable phospholipase activity. Mediates margination of triglyceride-rich lipoprotein particles in capillaries. Recruited to its site of action on the luminal surface of vascular endothelium by binding to GPIHBP1 and cell surface heparan sulfate proteoglycans.

Plays an important role in fat metabolism. It preferentially splits the esters of long-chain fatty acids at positions 1 and 3, producing mainly 2-monoacylglycerol and free fatty acids, and shows considerably higher activity against insoluble emulsified substrates than against soluble ones.

May function as inhibitor of dietary triglyceride digestion. Lacks detectable lipase activity towards triglycerides, diglycerides, phosphatidylcholine, galactolipids or cholesterol esters (in vitro) (By similarity).

Lipase with broad substrate specificity, catalyzing the hydrolysis of triacylglycerols (TAGs), diacylglycerols (DAGs), monoacylglycerols (MAGs), cholesteryl esters and retinyl esters. Shows a preferential hydrolysis of DAGs over TAGs and MAGs and preferentially hydrolyzes the fatty acid (FA) esters at the sn-3 position of the glycerol backbone in DAGs. Preferentially hydrolyzes FA esters at the sn-1 and sn-2 positions of the glycerol backbone in TAGs (By similarity). Catalyzes the hydrolysis of 2-arachidonoylglycerol, an endocannabinoid and of 2-acetyl monoalkylglycerol ether, the penultimate precursor of the pathway for de novo synthesis of platelet-activating factor (By similarity). In adipose tissue and heart, it primarily hydrolyzes stored triglycerides to free fatty acids, while in steroidogenic tissues, it principally converts cholesteryl esters to free cholesterol for steroid hormone production (By similarity).

Catalyzes the transfer of endogenously produced octanoic acid from octanoyl-acyl-carrier-protein onto the lipoyl domains of lipoate- dependent enzymes, which catalyze essential redox reactions. Lipoyl-ACP can also act as a substrate although octanoyl-ACP is likely to be the physiological substrate (By similarity).

Catalyzes the transfer of the lipoyl group from lipoyl-AMP to the specific lysine residue of lipoyl domains of lipoate-dependent enzymes.

Part of the innate immune responses against microbial infection. Specifically recognizes a set of N-terminally truncated immunoglobulins that are produced via cleavage by proteases from a range of pathogenic bacteria and fungi, including L.pneumophila, M.hyorhinis, S.pneumoniae, S.aureus and C.albicans. Recognizes epitopes that are in part in the variable region of the immunoglobulin light chains, but requires also the constant region for signaling. Binds to a subset of cleaved IgM, IgG3 and IgG4 molecules, but does not bind cleaved IgA1. Binding of N-terminally truncated immunoglobulins mediates activation of neutrophils. In monocytes, activation leads to the release of CSF2, CF3, IL6, CXCL8 and CCL3 and down-regulates responses to bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS), possibly via down-regulation of TLR4 expression and reduced signaling via TLR4. In eosinophils, activation by ligand binding leads to the release of RNASE2, IL4 and leukotriene C4. Does not bind class I MHC antigens.

Functions coreceptor to limit the innate immune responses to viral infections; signaling occurs via FCER1G. Down-regulates the production of IFNA1, IFNA2, IFNA4, IFNB1 and TNF by plasmacytoid dendritic cells that have been exposed to influenza virus or cytidine-phosphate-guanosine (CpG) dinucleotides, indicating it functions as negative regulator of TLR7 and TLR9 signaling cascades. Down-regulates interferon production in response to interaction with BST2 on HIV-1 infected cells. Activates a signaling cascade in complex with FCER1G that results in phosphorylation of Src family and Syk kinases and thereby triggers mobilization of intracellular Ca(2+). Does not interfere with the differentiation of plasmacytoid dendritic cells into antigen-presenting cells.

May play a role in triggering innate immune responses. Does not seem to play a role for any class I MHC antigen recognition.

Receptor for class I MHC antigens. Recognizes a broad spectrum of HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C, HLA-G and HLA-F alleles. Involved in the down-regulation of the immune response and the development of tolerance. Recognizes HLA-G in complex with B2M/beta-2 microglobulin and a nonamer self-peptide (peptide-bound HLA-G-B2M) triggering differentiation of type 1 regulatory T cells and myeloid-derived suppressor cells, both of which actively maintain maternal-fetal tolerance. Competes with CD8A for binding to class I MHC antigens. Inhibits FCGR1A-mediated phosphorylation of cellular proteins and mobilization of intracellular calcium ions.

Regulatory subunit (beta subunit) of the cytosolic type I platelet-activating factor (PAF) acetylhydrolase (PAF-AH (I)), an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolyze of the acetyl group at the sn-2 position of PAF and its analogs and participates in PAF inactivation. Regulates the PAF-AH (I) activity in a catalytic dimer composition- dependent manner (By similarity). Required for proper activation of Rho GTPases and actin polymerization at the leading edge of locomoting cerebellar neurons and postmigratory hippocampal neurons in response to calcium influx triggered via NMDA receptors (By similarity). Positively regulates the activity of the minus-end directed microtubule motor protein dynein. May enhance dynein-mediated microtubule sliding by targeting dynein to the microtubule plus end. Required for several dynein- and microtubule-dependent processes such as the maintenance of Golgi integrity, the peripheral transport of microtubule fragments and the coupling of the nucleus and centrosome. Required during brain development for the proliferation of neuronal precursors and the migration of newly formed neurons from the ventricular/subventricular zone toward the cortical plate. Neuronal migration involves a process called nucleokinesis, whereby migrating cells extend an anterior process into which the nucleus subsequently translocates. During nucleokinesis dynein at the nuclear surface may translocate the nucleus towards the centrosome by exerting force on centrosomal microtubules. May also play a role in other forms of cell locomotion including the migration of fibroblasts during wound healing. Required for dynein recruitment to microtubule plus ends and BICD2-bound cargos. May modulate the Reelin pathway through interaction of the PAF-AH (I) catalytic dimer with VLDLR (By similarity).

Plays a role in endosomal protein trafficking and in targeting proteins for lysosomal degradation. Plays a role in targeting endocytosed EGFR and ERGG3 for lysosomal degradation, and thereby helps down-regulate downstream signaling cascades. Helps recruit the ESCRT complex components TSG101, HGS and STAM to cytoplasmic membranes. Probably plays a role in regulating protein degradation via its interaction with NEDD4. May also contribute to the regulation of gene expression in the nucleus. Binds DNA (in vitro) and may play a synergistic role with STAT6 in the nucleus in regulating the expression of various cytokines. May regulate the expression of numerous cytokines, such as TNF, CCL2, CCL5, CXCL1, IL1A and IL10.

Bifunctional zinc metalloenzyme that comprises both epoxide hydrolase (EH) and aminopeptidase activities. Acts as an epoxide hydrolase to catalyze the conversion of LTA4 to the pro-inflammatory mediator leukotriene B4 (LTB4). Has also aminopeptidase activity, with high affinity for N-terminal arginines of various synthetic tripeptides. In addition to its pro-inflammatory EH activity, may also counteract inflammation by its aminopeptidase activity, which inactivates by cleavage another neutrophil attractant, the tripeptide Pro-Gly-Pro (PGP), a bioactive fragment of collagen generated by the action of matrix metalloproteinase-9 (MMP9) and prolylendopeptidase (PREPL). Involved also in the biosynthesis of resolvin E1 and 18S-resolvin E1 from eicosapentaenoic acid, two lipid mediators that show potent anti- inflammatory and pro-resolving actions.

In hippocampal neurons, regulates dendritic and spine growth and synaptic transmission.

Substrate recognition subunit of an ECS (Elongin BC-CUL2/5- SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. ECS(LRR1) ubiquitinates MCM7 and promotes CMG replisome disassembly by VCP and chromatin extraction during S- phase (By similarity). May negatively regulate the 4-1BB-mediated signaling cascades which result in the activation of NK-kappaB and JNK1.

May be involved in the regulation of export from the endoplasmic reticulum of a subset of glycoproteins. May function as a regulator of ERGIC-53.

Mannose-specific lectin. May recognize sugar residues of glycoproteins, glycolipids, or glycosylphosphatidyl inositol anchors and may be involved in the sorting or recycling of proteins, lipids, or both. The LMAN1-MCFD2 complex forms a specific cargo receptor for the ER-to-Golgi transport of selected proteins.

Plays a role as an intracellular lectin in the early secretory pathway. Interacts with N-acetyl-D-galactosamine and high- mannose type glycans and may also bind to O-linked glycans. Involved in the transport and sorting of glycoproteins carrying high mannose-type glycans (By similarity).

Lysosomal membrane chaperone required to export cobalamin (vitamin B12) from the lysosome to the cytosol, allowing its conversion to cofactors. Targets ABCD4 transporter from the endoplasmic reticulum to the lysosome. Then forms a complex with lysosomal ABCD4 and cytoplasmic MMACHC to transport cobalamin across the lysosomal membrane. Acts as an adapter protein which plays an important role in mediating and regulating the internalization of the insulin receptor (INSR) (By similarity). Involved in clathrin-mediated endocytosis of INSR via its interaction with adapter protein complex 2 (By similarity). Essential for the initiation of gastrulation and early formation of mesoderm structures during embryogenesis (By similarity).

Recruited to ligand-activated beta-2 adrenergic receptor/ADRB2, it negatively regulates the adrenergic receptor signaling pathway. May also regulate other G-protein coupled receptors including type-1 angiotensin II receptor/AGTR1 (Probable).

Putative Polycomb group (PcG) protein. PcG proteins maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of genes, probably via a modification of chromatin, rendering it heritably changed in its expressibility. Its association with a chromatin-remodeling complex suggests that it may contribute to prevent expression of genes that trigger the cell into mitosis. Binds to monomethylated and dimethylated 'Lys-20' on histone H4. Binds histone H3 peptides that are monomethylated or dimethylated on 'Lys-4', 'Lys-9' or 'Lys-27'.

Putative Polycomb group (PcG) protein. PcG proteins maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of genes, probably via a modification of chromatin, rendering it heritably changed in its expressibility. Required for normal maturation of myeloid progenitor cells (By similarity).

Plays an essential role in lymphocyte development by negatively regulating the canonical Wnt signaling pathway (By similarity). In association with UBAC2 and E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase AMFR, promotes the ubiquitin-mediated degradation of CTNNB1 and Wnt receptors FZD6 and LRP6 (By similarity). LMBR1L stabilizes the beta- catenin destruction complex that is required for regulating CTNNB1 levels (By similarity). Acts as a LCN1 receptor and can mediate its endocytosis.

Transcriptional cofactor that restricts GATA6 function by inhibiting DNA-binding, resulting in repression of GATA6 transcriptional activation of downstream target genes. Represses GATA6- mediated trans activation of lung- and cardiac tissue-specific promoters. Inhibits DNA-binding by GATA4 and GATA1 to the cTNC promoter (By similarity). Plays a critical role in the development of cardiac hypertrophy via activation of calcineurin/nuclear factor of activated T-cells signaling pathway.

Involved in the maturation of specific proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum. Required for maturation and transport of active lipoprotein lipase (LPL) through the secretory pathway. Each LMF1 molecule chaperones 50 or more molecules of LPL.

Involved in the maturation of specific proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum. May be required for maturation and transport of active lipoprotein lipase (LPL) through the secretory pathway (By similarity).

Present in the thicker 16-17 nm junctions of mammalian lens fiber cells, where it may contribute to cell junctional organization. Acts as a receptor for calmodulin. May play an important role in both lens development and cataractogenesis

Lamins are components of the nuclear lamina, a fibrous layer on the nucleoplasmic side of the inner nuclear membrane, which is thought to provide a framework for the nuclear envelope and may also interact with chromatin. Lamin A and C are present in equal amounts in the lamina of mammals. Recruited by DNA repair proteins XRCC4 and IFFO1 to the DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) to prevent chromosome translocation by immobilizing broken DNA ends. Plays an important role in nuclear assembly, chromatin organization, nuclear membrane and telomere dynamics. Required for normal development of peripheral nervous system and skeletal muscle and for muscle satellite cell proliferation. Required for osteoblastogenesis and bone formation. Also prevents fat infiltration of muscle and bone marrow, helping to maintain the volume and strength of skeletal muscle and bone. Required for cardiac homeostasis.

Lamins are components of the nuclear lamina, a fibrous layer on the nucleoplasmic side of the inner nuclear membrane, which is thought to provide a framework for the nuclear envelope and may also interact with chromatin.

Transcription cofactor. Plays a role in establishing motor neuron identity, in concert with MNX1, acting, at least in part, to disrupt LDB1-LHX3 complexes thereby negatively modulating interneuron genes in motor neurons.

Required for proper contractility of visceral smooth muscle cells. Mediates nucleation of actin filaments.

Mediates nucleation of actin filaments and thereby promotes actin polymerization. Plays a role in the regulation of actin filament length (By similarity). Required for normal sarcomere organization in the heart, and for normal heart function.

Essential for the organization of sarcomeric actin thin filaments in skeletal muscle. Increases the rate of actin polymerization.

Protein kinase which phosphorylates ESR1 (in vitro) and protects it against proteasomal degradation. May also regulate ESR1 levels indirectly via a PKC-AKT-FOXO3 pathway where it decreases the activity of PKC and the phosphorylation of AKT, thereby increasing binding of transcriptional activator FOXO3 to the ESR1 promoter and increasing ESR1 transcription. Involved in endocytic trafficking of N-methyl-D-aspartate receptors (NMDAR) in neurons (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional activator by binding to an A/T-rich sequence, the FLAT element, in the insulin gene promoter. Required for development of the roof plate and, in turn, for specification of dorsal cell fates in the CNS and developing vertebrae (By similarity).

Transcription factor involved in the regulation of podocyte- expressed genes. Essential for the specification of dorsal limb fate at both the zeugopodal and autopodal levels.

RNA-binding protein that inhibits processing of pre-let-7 miRNAs and regulates translation of mRNAs that control developmental timing, pluripotency and metabolism. Seems to recognize a common structural G-quartet (G4) feature in its miRNA and mRNA targets (Probable). 'Translational enhancer' that drives specific mRNAs to polysomes and increases the efficiency of protein synthesis. Its association with the translational machinery and target mRNAs results in an increased number of initiation events per molecule of mRNA and, indirectly, in mRNA stabilization. Binds IGF2 mRNA, MYOD1 mRNA, ARBP/36B4 ribosomal protein mRNA and its own mRNA. Essential for skeletal muscle differentiation program through the translational up- regulation of IGF2 expression. Suppressor of microRNA (miRNA) biogenesis, including that of let-7, miR107, miR-143 and miR-200c. Specifically binds the miRNA precursors (pre-miRNAs), recognizing an 5'-GGAG-3' motif found in pre-miRNA terminal loop, and recruits TUT4 and TUT7 uridylyltransferases. This results in the terminal uridylation of target pre-miRNAs. Uridylated pre-miRNAs fail to be processed by Dicer and undergo degradation. The repression of let-7 expression is required for normal development and contributes to maintain the pluripotent state by preventing let-7-mediated differentiation of embryonic stem cells. Localized to the periendoplasmic reticulum area, binds to a large number of spliced mRNAs and inhibits the translation of mRNAs destined for the ER, reducing the synthesis of transmembrane proteins, ER or Golgi lumen proteins, and secretory proteins. Binds to and enhances the translation of mRNAs for several metabolic enzymes, such as PFKP, PDHA1 or SDHA, increasing glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation. Which, with the let-7 repression may enhance tissue repair in adult tissue (By similarity).

Suppressor of microRNA (miRNA) biogenesis, including that of let-7 and possibly of miR107, miR-143 and miR-200c. Binds primary let-7 transcripts (pri-let-7), including pri-let-7g and pri-let-7a-1, and sequester them in the nucleolus, away from the microprocessor complex, hence preventing their processing into mature miRNA. Does not act on pri-miR21. The repression of let-7 expression is required for normal development and contributes to maintain the pluripotent state of embryonic stem cells by preventing let-7-mediated differentiation. When overexpressed, recruits ZCCHC11/TUT4 uridylyltransferase to pre-let-7 transcripts, leading to their terminal uridylation and degradation. This activity might not be relevant in vivo, as LIN28B-mediated inhibition of let-7 miRNA maturation appears to be ZCCHC11-independent. Interaction with target pre-miRNAs occurs via an 5'- GGAG-3' motif in the pre-miRNA terminal loop. Mediates MYC-induced let- 7 repression (By similarity). When overexpressed, isoform 1 stimulates growth of the breast adenocarcinoma cell line MCF-7. Isoform 2 has no effect on cell growth.

Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-shaping membrane protein that plays a role in determining ER morphology. Involved in the stabilization of nascent three-way ER tubular junctions within the ER network. May also play a role as a curvature-stabilizing protein within the three-way ER tubular junction network. May be involved in limb development (By similarity). Is involved in central nervous system development.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of NUMB. E3 ubiquitin ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Mediates ubiquitination of isoform p66 and isoform p72 of NUMB, but not that of isoform p71 or isoform p65.

ATP-dependent serine protease that mediates the selective degradation of misfolded, unassembled or oxidatively damaged polypeptides as well as certain short-lived regulatory proteins in the mitochondrial matrix. May also have a chaperone function in the assembly of inner membrane protein complexes. Participates in the regulation of mitochondrial gene expression and in the maintenance of the integrity of the mitochondrial genome. Binds to mitochondrial promoters and RNA in a single-stranded, site-specific, and strand- specific manner. May regulate mitochondrial DNA replication and/or gene expression using site-specific, single-stranded DNA binding to target the degradation of regulatory proteins binding to adjacent sites in mitochondrial promoters. Endogenous substrates include mitochondrial steroidogenic acute regulatory (StAR) protein, helicase Twinkle (TWNK) and the large ribosomal subunit protein bL32m. bL32m is protected from degradation by LONP1 when it is bound to a nucleic acid (RNA), but TWNK is not.

ATP-dependent serine protease that mediates the selective degradation of misfolded and unassembled polypeptides in the peroxisomal matrix. Necessary for type 2 peroxisome targeting signal (PTS2)-containing protein processing and facilitates peroxisome matrix protein import (By similarity). May indirectly regulate peroxisomal fatty acid beta-oxidation through degradation of the self-processed forms of TYSND1.

Catalyzes the regio and stereo-specific incorporation of molecular oxygen into free and esterified polyunsaturated fatty acids generating lipid hydroperoxides that can be further reduced to the corresponding hydroxy species. Mainly converts arachidonate ((5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)-eicosatetraenoate) to the specific bioactive lipid (12S)-hydroperoxyeicosatetraenoate/(12S)-HPETE. Through the production of bioactive lipids like (12S)- HPETE it regulates different biological processes including platelet activation. It can also catalyze the epoxidation of double bonds of polyunsaturated fatty acids such as (14S)-hydroperoxy-docosahexaenoate/(14S)-HPDHA resulting in the formation of (13S,14S)-epoxy-DHA. Furthermore, it may participate in the sequential oxidations of DHA ((4Z,7Z,10Z,13Z,16Z,19Z)-docosahexaenoate) to generate specialized pro- resolving mediators (SPMs) like resolvin D5 ((7S,17S)-diHPDHA) and (7S,14S)-diHPDHA, that actively down-regulate the immune response and have anti-aggregation properties with platelets. An additional function involves a multistep process by which it transforms leukotriene A4/LTA4 into the bioactive lipids lipoxin A4/LXA4 and lipoxin B4/LXB4, both are vasoactive and LXA4 may regulate neutrophil function via occupancy of specific recognition sites. Can also peroxidize linoleate ((9Z,12Z)-octadecadienoate) to (13S)- hydroperoxyoctadecadienoate/ (13S-HPODE) (By similarity). Due to its role in regulating both the expression of the vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF, an angiogenic factor involved in the survival and metastasis of solid tumors) and the expression of integrin beta-1 (known to affect tumor cell migration and proliferation), it can be regarded as protumorigenic. Important for cell survival, as it may play a role not only in proliferation but also in the prevention of apoptosis in vascular smooth muscle cells.

Non-heme iron-containing dioxygenase that catalyzes the stereo-specific peroxidation of free and esterified polyunsaturated fatty acids generating a spectrum of bioactive lipid mediators. It inserts peroxyl groups at C12 or C15 of arachidonate ((5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)-eicosatetraenoate) producing both 12-hydroperoxyeicosatetraenoate/12-HPETE and 15- hydroperoxyeicosatetraenoate/15-HPETE. It may then act on 12-HPETE to produce hepoxilins, which may show pro-inflammatory properties (By similarity). Can also peroxidize linoleate ((9Z,12Z)-octadecadienoate) to 13-hydroperoxyoctadecadienoate/13-HPODE. May participate in the sequential oxidations of DHA ((4Z,7Z,10Z,13Z,16Z,19Z)-docosahexaenoate) to generate specialized pro- resolving mediators (SPMs)like resolvin D5 ((7S,17S)-diHPDHA) and (7S,14S)-diHPDHA, that actively down-regulate the immune response and have anti-aggregation properties with platelets. Can convert epoxy fatty acids to hydroperoxy-epoxides derivatives followed by an intramolecular nucleophilic substitution leading to the formation of monocyclic endoperoxides. Plays an important role during the maintenance of self-tolerance by peroxidizing membrane-bound phosphatidylethanolamine which can then signal the sorting process for clearance of apoptotic cells during inflammation and prevent an autoimmune response. In addition to its role in the immune and inflammatory responses, this enzyme may play a role in epithelial wound healing in the cornea through production of lipoxin A4 (LXA(4)) and docosahexaenoic acid-derived neuroprotectin D1 (NPD1; 10R,17S-HDHA), both lipid autacoids exhibit anti-inflammatory and neuroprotective properties. Furthermore, it may regulate actin polymerization which is crucial for several biological processes such as the phagocytosis of apoptotic cells. It is also implicated in the generation of endogenous ligands for peroxisome proliferator activated receptor (PPAR-gamma), hence modulating macrophage development and function. It may also exert a negative effect on skeletal development by regulating bone mass through this pathway. As well as participates in ER stress and downstream inflammation in adipocytes, pancreatic islets, and liver (By similarity). Finally, it is also involved in the cellular response to IL13/interleukin-13.

Catalyzes the oxygenation of arachidonate ((5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)- eicosatetraenoate) to 5-hydroperoxyeicosatetraenoate (5-HPETE) followed by the dehydration to 5,6- epoxyeicosatetraenoate (Leukotriene A4/LTA4), the first two steps in the biosynthesis of leukotrienes, which are potent mediators of inflammation. Also catalyzes the oxygenation of arachidonate into 8- hydroperoxyicosatetraenoate (8-HPETE) and 12- hydroperoxyicosatetraenoate (12-HPETE). Displays lipoxin synthase activity being able to convert (15S)-HETE into a conjugate tetraene. Although arachidonate is the preferred substrate, this enzyme can also metabolize oxidized fatty acids derived from arachidonate such as (15S)-HETE, eicosapentaenoate (EPA) such as (18R)- and (18S)-HEPE or docosahexaenoate (DHA) which lead to the formation of specialized pro-resolving mediators (SPM) lipoxin and resolvins E and D respectively, therefore it participates in anti-inflammatory responses. Oxidation of DHA directly inhibits endothelial cell proliferation and sprouting angiogenesis via peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPARgamma) (By similarity). It does not catalyze the oxygenation of linoleic acid and does not convert (5S)-HETE to lipoxin isomers. In addition to inflammatory processes, it participates in dendritic cell migration, wound healing through an antioxidant mechanism based on heme oxygenase-1 (HO-1) regulation expression, monocyte adhesion to the endothelium via ITGAM expression on monocytes (By similarity). Moreover, it helps establish an adaptive humoral immunity by regulating primary resting B cells and follicular helper T cells and participates in the CD40-induced production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) after CD40 ligation in B cells through interaction with PIK3R1 that bridges ALOX5 with CD40. May also play a role in glucose homeostasis, regulation of insulin secretion and palmitic acid-induced insulin resistance via AMPK (By similarity). Can regulate bone mineralization and fat cell differentiation increases in induced pluripotent stem cells (By similarity).

Non-heme iron-containing lipoxygenase which is atypical in that it displays a prominent hydroperoxide isomerase activity and a reduced lipoxygenases activity. The hydroperoxide isomerase activity catalyzes the isomerization of hydroperoxides, derived from arachidonic and linoleic acid by ALOX12B, into hepoxilin-type epoxyalcohols and ketones. In presence of oxygen, oxygenates polyunsaturated fatty acids, including arachidonic acid, to produce fatty acid hydroperoxides. In the skin, acts downstream of ALOX12B on the linoleate moiety of esterified omega-hydroxyacyl-sphingosine (EOS) ceramides to produce an epoxy-ketone derivative, a crucial step in the conjugation of omega-hydroxyceramide to membrane proteins. Therefore plays a crucial role in the synthesis of corneocytes lipid envelope and the establishment of the skin barrier to water loss. In parallel, it may have a signaling function in barrier formation through the production of hepoxilins metabolites. Also plays a role in adipocyte differentiation through hepoxilin A3 and hepoxilin B3 production which in turn activate PPARG (By similarity). Through the production of hepoxilins in the spinal cord, it may regulate inflammatory tactile allodynia (By similarity).

Mediates the post-translational oxidative deamination of lysine residues on target proteins leading to the formation of deaminated lysine (allysine). Acts as a transcription corepressor and specifically mediates deamination of trimethylated 'Lys-4' of histone H3 (H3K4me3), a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation. Shows no activity against histone H3 when it is trimethylated on 'Lys-9' (H3K9me3) or 'Lys-27' (H3K27me3) or when 'Lys-4' is monomethylated (H3K4me1) or dimethylated (H3K4me2). Also mediates deamination of methylated TAF10, a member of the transcription factor IID (TFIID) complex, which induces release of TAF10 from promoters, leading to inhibition of TFIID-dependent transcription. LOXL2-mediated deamination of TAF10 results in transcriptional repression of genes required for embryonic stem cell pluripotency including POU5F1/OCT4, NANOG, KLF4 and SOX2 (By similarity). Involved in epithelial to mesenchymal transition (EMT) via interaction with SNAI1 and participates in repression of E-cadherin CDH1, probably by mediating deamination of histone H3. During EMT, involved with SNAI1 in negatively regulating pericentromeric heterochromatin transcription. SNAI1 recruits LOXL2 to pericentromeric regions to oxidize histone H3 and repress transcription which leads to release of heterochromatin component CBX5/HP1A, enabling chromatin reorganization and acquisition of mesenchymal traits. Interacts with the endoplasmic reticulum protein HSPA5 which activates the IRE1-XBP1 pathway of the unfolded protein response, leading to expression of several transcription factors involved in EMT and subsequent EMT induction. Involved in E-cadherin repression following hypoxia, a hallmark of EMT believed to amplify tumor aggressiveness, suggesting that it may play a role in tumor progression. When secreted into the extracellular matrix, promotes cross-linking of extracellular matrix proteins by mediating oxidative deamination of peptidyl lysine residues in precursors to fibrous collagen and elastin. Acts as a regulator of sprouting angiogenesis, probably via collagen IV scaffolding. Acts as a regulator of chondrocyte differentiation, probably by regulating expression of factors that control chondrocyte differentiation (By similarity).

Protein-lysine 6-oxidase that mediates the oxidation of peptidyl lysine residues to allysine in target proteins. Catalyzes the post-translational oxidative deamination of peptidyl lysine residues in precursors of elastin and different types of collagens, a prerequisite in the formation of cross-links between collagens and elastin. Required for somite boundary formation by catalyzing oxidation of fibronectin (FN1), enhancing integrin signaling in myofibers and their adhesion to the myotendinous junction (MTJ) (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of inflammatory response by inhibiting differentiation of naive CD4(+) T-cells into T-helper Th17 or regulatory T-cells (Treg): acts by interacting with STAT3 in the nucleus and catalyzing both deacetylation and oxidation of lysine residues on STAT3, leading to disrupt STAT3 dimerization and inhibit STAT3 transcription activity. Oxidation of lysine residues to allysine on STAT3 preferentially takes place on lysine residues that are acetylated. Also able to catalyze deacetylation of lysine residues on STAT3.

May modulate the formation of a collagenous extracellular matrix

Receptor for lysophosphatidic acid (LPA). Plays a role in the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton, cell migration, differentiation and proliferation, and thereby contributes to the responses to tissue damage and infectious agents. Activates downstream signaling cascades via the G(i)/G(o), G(12)/G(13), and G(q) families of heteromeric G proteins. Signaling inhibits adenylyl cyclase activity and decreases cellular cAMP levels. Signaling triggers an increase of cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels. Activates RALA; this leads to the activation of phospholipase C (PLC) and the formation of inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate. Signaling mediates activation of down-stream MAP kinases (By similarity). Contributes to the regulation of cell shape. Promotes Rho-dependent reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton in neuronal cells and neurite retraction. Promotes the activation of Rho and the formation of actin stress fibers. Promotes formation of lamellipodia at the leading edge of migrating cells via activation of RAC1 (By similarity). Through its function as lysophosphatidic acid receptor, plays a role in chemotaxis and cell migration, including responses to injury and wounding. Plays a role in triggering inflammation in response to bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) via its interaction with CD14. Promotes cell proliferation in response to lysophosphatidic acid. Required for normal skeleton development. May play a role in osteoblast differentiation. Required for normal brain development. Required for normal proliferation, survival and maturation of newly formed neurons in the adult dentate gyrus. Plays a role in pain perception and in the initiation of neuropathic pain (By similarity).

Receptor for lysophosphatidic acid (LPA), a mediator of diverse cellular activities. Seems to be coupled to the G(i)/G(o), G(12)/G(13), and G(q) families of heteromeric G proteins. Plays a key role in phospholipase C-beta (PLC-beta) signaling pathway. Stimulates phospholipase C (PLC) activity in a manner that is independent of RALA activation.

Receptor for lysophosphatidic acid (LPA), a mediator of diverse cellular activities. May play a role in the development of ovarian cancer. Seems to be coupled to the G(i)/G(o) and G(q) families of heteromeric G proteins

Receptor for lysophosphatidic acid (LPA), a mediator of diverse cellular activities. Transduces a signal by increasing the intracellular calcium ions and by stimulating adenylyl cyclase activity. The rank order of potency for agonists of this receptor is 1- oleoyl- > 1-stearoyl- > 1-palmitoyl- > 1-myristoyl- > 1-alkyl- > 1- alkenyl-LPA.

Receptor for lysophosphatidic acid (LPA), a mediator of diverse cellular activities

Binds to oleoyl-L-alpha-lysophosphatidic acid (LPA). Intracellular cAMP is involved in the receptor activation. Important for the maintenance of hair growth and texture.

Displays acyl-CoA-dependent lysophospholipid acyltransferase activity with a subset of lysophospholipids as substrates; converts lysophosphatidylethanolamine to phosphatidylethanolamine, lysophosphatidylcholine to phosphatidycholine, 1-alkenyl- lysophatidylethanolamine to 1-alkenyl-phosphatidylethanolamine, lysophosphatidylglycerol and alkyl-lysophosphatidylcholine to phosphatidylglycerol and alkyl-phosphatidylcholine, respectively. In contrast, has no lysophosphatidylinositol, glycerol-3-phosphate, diacylglycerol or lysophosphatidic acid acyltransferase activity. Prefers long chain acyl-CoAs (C16, C18) as acyl donors.

Likely acts as a modulator of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs) activity. In vitro acts on nAChRs in a subtype- and stoichiometry-dependent manner. Modulates specifically alpha-3(3):beta-4(2) nAChRs by enhancing the sensitivity to ACh, decreasing ACh-induced maximal current response and increasing the rate of desensitization to ACh; has no effect on alpha-7 homomeric nAChRs; modulates alpha-3(2):alpha- 5:beta-4(2) nAChRs in the context of CHRNA5/alpha-5 variant Asn-398 but not its wild-type sequence. However, according to another report in vitro it can weakly inhibits alpha-7 nAChRs.

Broad specificity glycosidase of the intestinal brush border membrane that hydrolyzes lactose, the main sugar in mammalian milk, to produce D-glucose and D-galactose. The mature protein is composed of two domains that catalyze the hydrolysis of beta-glucopyranosides and beta-galactopyranosides, with a preference for hydrophilic aglycones (in lactose and cellobiose) for one domain and hydrophobic aglycones (in phlorizin and glycosylceramides) for the other.

Acts as a magnesium-dependent phosphatidate phosphatase enzyme which catalyzes the conversion of phosphatidic acid to diacylglycerol during triglyceride, phosphatidylcholine and phosphatidylethanolamine biosynthesis and therefore controls the metabolism of fatty acids at different levels. Is involved in adipocyte differentiation (By similarity). Acts also as nuclear transcriptional coactivator for PPARGC1A/PPARA regulatory pathway to modulate lipid metabolism gene expression (By similarity). Recruited at the mitochondrion outer membrane and is involved in mitochondrial fission by converting phosphatidic acid to diacylglycerol (By similarity).

Acts as a magnesium-dependent phosphatidate phosphatase enzyme which catalyzes the conversion of phosphatidic acid to diacylglycerol during triglyceride, phosphatidylcholine and phosphatidylethanolamine biosynthesis in the reticulum endoplasmic membrane. Plays important roles in controlling the metabolism of fatty acids at different levels. Acts also as a nuclear transcriptional coactivator for PPARGC1A to modulate lipid metabolism.

Magnesium-dependent phosphatidate phosphatase enzyme which catalyzes the conversion of phosphatidic acid to diacylglycerol during triglyceride, phosphatidylcholine and phosphatidylethanolamine biosynthesis therefore regulates fatty acid metabolism.

Exhibits lysophospholipase, transacylase, PAF acetylhydrolase and asparaginase activities (By similarity). Can catalyze three types of transacylation reactions: (1) acyl transfer from 1-acyl-sn-glycero- 3-phosphocholine (1-acyl-GPC) to the sn-1(3) positions of glycerol and 2-acylglycerol (sn-1 to -1(3) transfer), (2) acyl transfer from 1-acyl- GPC to the sn-2 positions of 1-acyl-GPC, 1-acyl-sn-glycero-3- phosphoethanolamine (1-acyl-GPE), and other lysophospholipids (sn-1 to -2 transfer) and (3) acyl transfer from 2-acyl-GPC to the sn-1 position of 2-acyl-GPC and 2-acyl-GPE (sn-2 to -1 transfer) (By similarity). Mediates the synthesis of 1-arachidonoyl species of phospholipids by transferring the arachidonoyl residue from 2-arachidonoyl lysophospholipid to the sn-1 position of 2-acyl lysophospholipid (By similarity).

May play a role in RNA metabolism in both nuclei and mitochondria. In the nucleus binds to HNRPA1-associated poly(A) mRNAs and is part of nmRNP complexes at late stages of mRNA maturation which are possibly associated with nuclear mRNA export. May bind mature mRNA in the nucleus outer membrane. In mitochondria binds to poly(A) mRNA. Plays a role in translation or stability of mitochondrially encoded cytochrome c oxidase (COX) subunits. May be involved in transcription regulation. Cooperates with PPARGC1A to regulate certain mitochondrially encoded genes and gluconeogenic genes and may regulate docking of PPARGC1A to transcription factors. Seems to be involved in the transcription regulation of the multidrug-related genes MDR1 and MVP. Part of a nuclear factor that binds to the invMED1 element of MDR1 and MVP gene promoters. Binds single-stranded DNA (By similarity).

May play a structural role at sites of cell adhesion in maintaining cell shape and motility. In addition to these structural functions, it may also be implicated in signaling events and activation of gene transcription. May be involved in signal transduction from cell adhesion sites to the nucleus allowing successful integration of signals arising from soluble factors and cell-cell adhesion sites. Also suggested to serve as a scaffold protein upon which distinct protein complexes are assembled in the cytoplasm and in the nucleus.

Transcriptional coactivator for androgen receptor (AR) and serum response factor (SRF). Contributes to the regulation of cell adhesion, spreading and cell migration and acts as a negative regulator in integrin-mediated cell adhesion events. Suppresses the integrin- induced tyrosine phosphorylation of paxillin (PXN). May play a critical role as an adapter protein in the formation of the adhesion zone in osteoclasts. Negatively regulates B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) signaling.

Negatively regulates TGF-beta-induced signaling; in cooperation with SKI prevents the translocation of SMAD2 from the nucleus to the cytoplasm in response to TGF-beta. Acts as an adapter that mediates the specific recognition of LIMK1 by CDC42BPA and CDC42BPB in the lamellipodia. LRAP25-mediated CDC42BPA/CDC42BPB targeting to LIMK1 and the lamellipodium results in LIMK1 activation and the subsequent phosphorylation of CFL1 which is important for lamellipodial F-actin regulation.

May influence APP processing, resulting in a decrease in sAPP-alpha production and increased amyloidogenic P3 peptide production. May regulate ITCH and NEDD4 E3 ligase activity and degradation.

Functions as a negative regulator of TGF-beta signaling and thereby probably plays a role in cell proliferation, differentiation, apoptosis, motility, extracellular matrix production and immunosuppression. In the canonical TGF-beta pathway, ZFYVE9/SARA recruits the intracellular signal transducer and transcriptional modulators SMAD2 and SMAD3 to the TGF-beta receptor. Phosphorylated by the receptor, SMAD2 and SMAD3 then form a heteromeric complex with SMAD4 that translocates to the nucleus to regulate transcription. Through interaction with SMAD2 and SMAD3, LDLRAD4 may compete with ZFYVE9 and SMAD4 and prevent propagation of the intracellular signal.

Transfers the acyl group from the sn-1 position of phosphatidylcholine to all-trans retinol, producing all-trans retinyl esters. Retinyl esters are storage forms of vitamin A (Probable). LRAT plays a critical role in vision (Probable). It provides the all-trans retinyl ester substrates for the isomerohydrolase which processes the esters into 11-cis-retinol in the retinal pigment epithelium; due to a membrane-associated alcohol dehydrogenase, 11 cis-retinol is oxidized and converted into 11-cis- retinaldehyde which is the chromophore for rhodopsin and the cone photopigments (Probable). Required for the survival of cone photoreceptors and correct rod photoreceptor cell morphology (By similarity).

May play important roles in cardiac development and/or cardiac function.

Negatively regulates Toll-like receptor-mediated NF-kappa-B signaling by disrupting IKK core complex formation through interaction with IKBKB.

Involved in bone homeostasis. Acts as a negative regulator of RANKL-induced osteoclast precursor differentiation from bone marrow precursors (By similarity).

May be involved in the regulation of spermatogenesis and sperm maturation.

Pathogen-recognition receptor which mediates the activation of TRAF2- and TRAF6 NF-kappa-B signaling pathways and induces the expression of pro-inflammatory cytokines. In kidney, prevents infection by uropathogenic bacteria by inducing the production of cytokines, chemokines and antimicrobial substances. In gut, involved in host-microbiota interactions, plays a critical role in promoting the recruitment of immune cells and intestinal inflammation (By similarity).

Plays a role in the inhibition of RLR-mediated type I interferon signaling pathway by targeting RIGI for autophagic degradation. Interacts specifically with ISG15-associated RIGI to promote interaction between RIGI and the autophagic cargo receptor p62/SQSTM1 to mediate RIGI degradation via selective autophagy. Also plays a role in the inhibition of NF-kappa-B signaling pathway and inflammatory response by promoting the degradation of p65/RELA.

Auxiliary protein of the large-conductance, voltage and calcium-activated potassium channel (BK alpha). Required for the conversion of BK alpha channels from a high-voltage to a low-voltage activated channel type in non-excitable cells. These are characterized by negative membrane voltages and constant low levels of calcium.

Key regulator of transforming growth factor beta (TGFB1, TGFB2 and TGFB3) that controls TGF-beta activation by maintaining it in a latent state during storage in extracellular space. Associates specifically via disulfide bonds with the Latency-associated peptide (LAP), which is the regulatory chain of TGF-beta, and regulates integrin-dependent activation of TGF-beta. Able to outcompete LTBP1 for binding to LAP regulatory chain of TGF-beta. Controls activation of TGF-beta-1 (TGFB1) on the surface of activated regulatory T-cells (Tregs). Required for epithelial fusion during palate development by regulating activation of TGF-beta-3 (TGFB3) (By similarity).

Key regulator of transforming growth factor beta-1 (TGFB1) specifically required for microglia function in the nervous system (By similarity). Required for activation of latent TGF-beta-1 in macrophages and microglia: associates specifically via disulfide bonds with the Latency-associated peptide (LAP), which is the regulatory chain of TGFB1, and regulates integrin-dependent activation of TGF- beta-1 (By similarity). TGF-beta-1 activation mediated by LRRC33/NRROS is highly localized: there is little spreading of TGF-beta-1 activated from one microglial cell to neighboring microglia, suggesting the existence of localized and selective activation of TGF-beta-1 by LRRC33/NRROS (By similarity). Indirectly plays a role in Toll-like receptor (TLR) signaling: ability to inhibit TLR-mediated NF-kappa-B activation and cytokine production is probably a consequence of its role in TGF-beta-1 signaling.

Highly expressed in stem cells where it may be involved in regulation of pluripotency. In embryonic stem cells (ESCs), important for normal expression of the pluripotency regulators POU5F1/OCT4 and KLF4. Also important for expression of the ectodermal marker gene NES and the endodermal marker gene GATA4. Promotes stem cell proliferation in vitro.

Auxiliary protein of the large-conductance, voltage and calcium-activated potassium channel (BK alpha). Modulates gating properties by producing a marked shift in the BK channel's voltage dependence of activation in the hyperpolarizing direction, and in the absence of calcium.

Component of the sarcomeric M-band which plays a role in myocyte response to biomechanical stress. May regulate expression of other M-band proteins via an SRF-dependent pathway. Important for normal contractile function in heart.

Probable substrate recognition component of an ECS (Elongin BC-CUL2/5-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins.

Component of the proteinaceous fiber-like linker between two centrioles, required for centrosome cohesion.

Subunit of the tubulin polyglutamylase complex (TPGC). The complex mediates cilia and flagella polyglutamylation which is essential for their biogenesis and motility.

Synaptic adhesion protein. Regulates the formation of excitatory synapses. The trans-synaptic adhesion between LRRC4B and PTPRF regulates the formation of excitatory synapses in a bidirectional manner (By similarity).

Auxiliary protein of the large-conductance, voltage and calcium-activated potassium channel (BK alpha). Modulates gating properties by producing a marked shift in the BK channel's voltage dependence of activation in the hyperpolarizing direction, and in the absence of calcium. KCNU1 channel auxiliary protein. May modulate KCNU1 gating properties.

Required for nuclear import of FGF1, but not that of FGF2. Might regulate nuclear import of exogenous FGF1 by facilitating interaction with the nuclear import machinery and by transporting cytosolic FGF1 to, and possibly through, the nuclear pores.

Essential component of the volume-regulated anion channel (VRAC, also named VSOAC channel), an anion channel required to maintain a constant cell volume in response to extracellular or intracellular osmotic changes. The VRAC channel conducts iodide better than chloride and can also conduct organic osmolytes like taurine. Mediates efflux of amino acids, such as aspartate and glutamate, in response to osmotic stress. LRRC8A and LRRC8D are required for the uptake of the drug cisplatin. In complex with LRRC8C or LRRC8E, acts as a transporter of immunoreactive cyclic dinucleotide GMP-AMP (2'-3'-cGAMP), an immune messenger produced in response to DNA virus in the cytosol: mediates both import and export of 2'-3'-cGAMP, thereby promoting transfer of 2'-3'-cGAMP to bystander cells. In contrast, complexes containing LRRC8D inhibit transport of 2'-3'-cGAMP. Required for in vivo channel activity, together with at least one other family member (LRRC8B, LRRC8C, LRRC8D or LRRC8E); channel characteristics depend on the precise subunit composition. Can form functional channels by itself (in vitro). Involved in B-cell development: required for the pro-B cell to pre-B cell transition. Also required for T-cell development (By similarity). Required for myoblast differentiation: VRAC activity promotes membrane hyperpolarization and regulates insulin-stimulated glucose metabolism and oxygen consumption (By similarity). Also acts as a regulator of glucose-sensing in pancreatic beta cells: VRAC currents, generated in response to hypotonicity- or glucose-induced beta cell swelling, depolarize cells, thereby causing electrical excitation, leading to increase glucose sensitivity and insulin secretion. Also plays a role in lysosome homeostasis by forming functional lysosomal VRAC channels in response to low cytoplasmic ionic strength condition: lysosomal VRAC channels are necessary for the formation of large lysosome-derived vacuoles, which store and then expel excess water to maintain cytosolic water homeostasis.

Non-essential component of the volume-regulated anion channel (VRAC, also named VSOAC channel), an anion channel required to maintain a constant cell volume in response to extracellular or intracellular osmotic changes. The VRAC channel conducts iodide better than chloride and can also conduct organic osmolytes like taurine. Channel activity requires LRRC8A plus at least one other family member (LRRC8B, LRRC8C, LRRC8D or LRRC8E); channel characteristics depend on the precise subunit composition.

Non-essential component of the volume-regulated anion channel (VRAC, also named VSOAC channel), an anion channel required to maintain a constant cell volume in response to extracellular or intracellular osmotic changes. The VRAC channel conducts iodide better than chloride and can also conduct organic osmolytes like taurine. Plays a redundant role in the efflux of amino acids, such as aspartate and glutamate, in response to osmotic stress. The VRAC channel also mediates transport of immunoreactive cyclic dinucleotide GMP-AMP (2'-3'-cGAMP), an immune messenger produced in response to DNA virus in the cytosol. Channel activity requires LRRC8A plus at least one other family member (LRRC8B, LRRC8C, LRRC8D or LRRC8E); channel characteristics depend on the precise subunit composition.

Non-essential component of the volume-regulated anion channel (VRAC, also named VSOAC channel), an anion channel required to maintain a constant cell volume in response to extracellular or intracellular osmotic changes. The VRAC channel conducts iodide better than chloride and can also conduct organic osmolytes like taurine. Plays a redundant role in the efflux of amino acids, such as aspartate, in response to osmotic stress. LRRC8A and LRRC8D are required for the uptake of the drug cisplatin. Channel activity requires LRRC8A plus at least one other family member (LRRC8B, LRRC8C, LRRC8D or LRRC8E); channel characteristics depend on the precise subunit composition. Also acts as a regulator of glucose- sensing in pancreatic beta cells: VRAC currents, generated in response to hypotonicity- or glucose-induced beta cell swelling, depolarize cells, thereby causing electrical excitation, leading to increase glucose sensitivity and insulin secretion (By similarity). VRAC channels containing LRRC8D inhibit transport of immunoreactive cyclic dinucleotide GMP-AMP (2'-3'-cGAMP), an immune messenger produced in response to DNA virus in the cytosol. Mediates the import of the antibiotic blasticidin-S into the cell.

Non-essential component of the volume-regulated anion channel (VRAC, also named VSOAC channel), an anion channel required to maintain a constant cell volume in response to extracellular or intracellular osmotic changes. The VRAC channel conducts iodide better than chloride and can also conduct organic osmolytes like taurine. Mediates efflux of amino acids, such as aspartate, in response to osmotic stress. The VRAC channel also mediates transport of immunoreactive cyclic dinucleotide GMP-AMP (2'- 3'-cGAMP), an immune messenger produced in response to DNA virus in the cytosol. Channel activity requires LRRC8A plus at least one other family member (LRRC8B, LRRC8C, LRRC8D or LRRC8E); channel characteristics depend on the precise subunit composition. Also plays a role in lysosome homeostasis by forming functional lysosomal VRAC channels in response to low cytoplasmic ionic strength condition: lysosomal VRAC channels are necessary for the formation of large lysosome-derived vacuoles, which store and then expel excess water to maintain cytosolic water homeostasis.

Required for the organization of the mitotic spindle. Maintains the structural integrity of centrosomes during mitosis.

Acts as a negative regulator of GTPase CDC42 by sequestering CDC42-guanine exchange factor DOCK8. Probably by preventing CDC42 activation, negatively regulates CD4(+) T-cell migration.

As part of the DISP complex, may regulate the association of septins with actin and thereby regulate the actin cytoskeleton.

Promotes neurite outgrowth in hippocampal neurons. Involved in the regulation and maintenance of excitatory synapses. Induces the clustering of excitatory postsynaptic proteins, including DLG4, DLGAP1, GRIA1 and GRIN1 (By similarity).

Promotes neurite outgrowth in hippocampal neurons. Enhances the cell surface expression of 2 NMDA receptor subunits GRIN1 and GRIN2A. May play a role in redistributing DLG4 to the cell periphery (By similarity).

Cell adhesion molecule that mediates homophilic cell-cell adhesion in a Ca(2+)-independent manner. Promotes neurite outgrowth in hippocampal neurons (By similarity).

Promotes neurite outgrowth in hippocampal neurons. May play a role in redistributing DLG4 to the cell periphery (By similarity).

Cell adhesion molecule that mediates homophilic cell-cell adhesion in a Ca(2+)-independent manner. Promotes neurite outgrowth in hippocampal neurons.

Involved in multiple aspects of sperm assembly including acrosome attachment, shaping of the sperm head and in the early aspects of axoneme development. Not essential for primary cilium biogenesis.

Together with SMCHD1, involved in chromosome X inactivation in females by promoting the compaction of heterochromatin. Also able to repress the ligand-induced transcriptional activity of retinoic acid receptor alpha (RARA), possibly through direct recruitment of histone deacetylases. Also required for silencing of the DUX4 locus in somatic cells.

Acts as a feedback negative regulator of signaling by receptor tyrosine kinases, through a mechanism that involves enhancement of receptor ubiquitination and accelerated intracellular degradation.

May play a role in craniofacial and inner ear morphogenesis during embryonic development. May act within the otic vesicle epithelium to control formation of the lateral semicircular canal in the inner ear, possibly by restricting the expression of NTN1 (By similarity).

Plays a role in the synapse formation and synaptic transmission between cone photoreceptor cells and retinal bipolar cells (By similarity). Required for normal transmission of a light-evoked stimulus from the cone photoreceptor cells to the ON-bipolar cells and ON-ganglion cells in the inner retina. Required in retinal ON-bipolar cells for normal localization of the cation channel TRPM1 at dendrite tips (By similarity). Seems to play a specific role in synaptic contacts made by ON-bipolar cells with cone photoreceptor pedicles (By similarity). May also have a role in cone synapse formation (By similarity). Might facilitate FGFR1 exit from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi. Could be a regulator of the FGFRs.

Probable receptor, which is involved in the internalization of lipophilic molecules and/or signal transduction. May be involved in the uptake of lipoprotein APOE in liver (By similarity).

Probable receptor, which may be involved in the internalization of lipophilic molecules and/or signal transduction. May act as a tumor suppressor.

Potential cell surface proteins that bind and internalize ligands in the process of receptor-mediated endocytosis

Endocytic receptor involved in endocytosis and in phagocytosis of apoptotic cells. Required for early embryonic development (By similarity). Involved in cellular lipid homeostasis. Involved in the plasma clearance of chylomicron remnants and activated LRPAP1 (alpha 2-macroglobulin), as well as the local metabolism of complexes between plasminogen activators and their endogenous inhibitors. Acts as an LRPAP1 alpha-2- macroglobulin receptor. Acts as TAU/MAPT receptor and controls the endocytosis of TAU/MAPT as well as its subsequent spread. May modulate cellular events, such as APP metabolism, kinase-dependent intracellular signaling, neuronal calcium signaling as well as neurotransmission.

Multiligand endocytic receptor (By similarity). Acts together with CUBN to mediate endocytosis of high-density lipoproteins (By similarity). Mediates receptor-mediated uptake of polybasic drugs such as aprotinin, aminoglycosides and polymyxin B (By similarity). In the kidney, mediates the tubular uptake and clearance of leptin (By similarity). Also mediates transport of leptin across the blood-brain barrier through endocytosis at the choroid plexus epithelium (By similarity). Endocytosis of leptin in neuronal cells is required for hypothalamic leptin signaling and leptin-mediated regulation of feeding and body weight (By similarity). Mediates endocytosis and subsequent lysosomal degradation of CST3 in kidney proximal tubule cells (By similarity). Mediates renal uptake of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 in complex with the vitamin D3 transporter GC/DBP (By similarity). Mediates renal uptake of metallothionein-bound heavy metals. Together with CUBN, mediates renal reabsorption of myoglobin (By similarity). Mediates renal uptake and subsequent lysosomal degradation of APOM (By similarity). Plays a role in kidney selenium homeostasis by mediating renal endocytosis of selenoprotein SEPP1 (By similarity). Mediates renal uptake of the antiapoptotic protein BIRC5/survivin which may be important for functional integrity of the kidney. Mediates renal uptake of matrix metalloproteinase MMP2 in complex with metalloproteinase inhibitor TIMP1 (By similarity). Mediates endocytosis of Sonic hedgehog protein N-product (ShhN), the active product of SHH (By similarity). Also mediates ShhN transcytosis (By similarity). In the embryonic neuroepithelium, mediates endocytic uptake and degradation of BMP4, is required for correct SHH localization in the ventral neural tube and plays a role in patterning of the ventral telencephalon (By similarity). Required at the onset of neurulation to sequester SHH on the apical surface of neuroepithelial cells of the rostral diencephalon ventral midline and to control PTCH1- dependent uptake and intracellular trafficking of SHH (By similarity). During neurulation, required in neuroepithelial cells for uptake of folate bound to the folate receptor FOLR1 which is necessary for neural tube closure (By similarity). In the adult brain, negatively regulates BMP signaling in the subependymal zone which enables neurogenesis to proceed (By similarity). In astrocytes, mediates endocytosis of ALB which is required for the synthesis of the neurotrophic factor oleic acid (By similarity). Involved in neurite branching (By similarity). During optic nerve development, required for SHH-mediated migration and proliferation of oligodendrocyte precursor cells (By similarity). Mediates endocytic uptake and clearance of SHH in the retinal margin which protects retinal progenitor cells from mitogenic stimuli and keeps them quiescent (By similarity). Plays a role in reproductive organ development by mediating uptake in reproductive tissues of androgen and estrogen bound to the sex hormone binding protein SHBG (By similarity). Mediates endocytosis of angiotensin-2 (By similarity). Also mediates endocytosis of angiotensis 1-7 (By similarity). Binds to the complex composed of beta-amyloid protein 40 and CLU/APOJ and mediates its endocytosis and lysosomal degradation (By similarity). Required for embryonic heart development (By similarity). Required for normal hearing, possibly through interaction with estrogen in the inner ear (By similarity).

Probable receptor, which may be involved in the internalization of lipophilic molecules and/or signal transduction. Its precise role is however unclear, since it does not bind to very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) or to LRPAP1 in vitro

Mediates SOST-dependent inhibition of bone formation. Functions as a specific facilitator of SOST-mediated inhibition of Wnt signaling. Plays a key role in the formation and the maintenance of the neuromuscular junction (NMJ), the synapse between motor neuron and skeletal muscle. Directly binds AGRIN and recruits it to the MUSK signaling complex. Mediates the AGRIN-induced phosphorylation of MUSK, the kinase of the complex. The activation of MUSK in myotubes induces the formation of NMJ by regulating different processes including the transcription of specific genes and the clustering of AChR in the postsynaptic membrane. Alternatively, may be involved in the negative regulation of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway, being able to antagonize the LRP6-mediated activation of this pathway. More generally, has been proposed to function as a cell surface endocytic receptor binding and internalizing extracellular ligands for degradation by lysosomes. May play an essential role in the process of digit differentiation (By similarity).

Acts as a coreceptor with members of the frizzled family of seven-transmembrane spanning receptors to transduce signal by Wnt proteins. Activates the canonical Wnt signaling pathway that controls cell fate determination and self-renewal during embryonic development and adult tissue regeneration. In particular, may play an important role in the development of the posterior patterning of the epiblast during gastrulation (By similarity). During bone development, regulates osteoblast proliferation and differentiation thus determining bone mass. Mechanistically, the formation of the signaling complex between Wnt ligand, frizzled receptor and LRP5 coreceptor promotes the recruitment of AXIN1 to LRP5, stabilizing beta-catenin/CTNNB1 and activating TCF/LEF-mediated transcriptional programs. Acts as a coreceptor for non-Wnt proteins, such as norrin/NDP. Binding of norrin/NDP to frizzled 4/FZD4- LRP5 receptor complex triggers beta-catenin/CTNNB1-dependent signaling known to be required for retinal vascular development. Plays a role in controlling postnatal vascular regression in retina via macrophage-induced endothelial cell apoptosis (By similarity).

Component of the Wnt-Fzd-LRP5-LRP6 complex that triggers beta-catenin signaling through inducing aggregation of receptor-ligand complexes into ribosome-sized signalsomes. Cell-surface coreceptor of Wnt/beta-catenin signaling, which plays a pivotal role in bone formation. The Wnt-induced Fzd/LRP6 coreceptor complex recruits DVL1 polymers to the plasma membrane which, in turn, recruits the AXIN1/GSK3B-complex to the cell surface promoting the formation of signalsomes and inhibiting AXIN1/GSK3-mediated phosphorylation and destruction of beta-catenin. Required for posterior patterning of the epiblast during gastrulation (By similarity).

Cell surface receptor for Reelin (RELN) and apolipoprotein E (apoE)-containing ligands. LRP8 participates in transmitting the extracellular Reelin signal to intracellular signaling processes, by binding to DAB1 on its cytoplasmic tail. Reelin acts via both the VLDL receptor (VLDLR) and LRP8 to regulate DAB1 tyrosine phosphorylation and microtubule function in neurons. LRP8 has higher affinity for Reelin than VLDLR. LRP8 is thus a key component of the Reelin pathway which governs neuronal layering of the forebrain during embryonic brain development. Binds the endoplasmic reticulum resident receptor-associated protein (RAP). Binds dimers of beta 2-glycoprotein I and may be involved in the suppression of platelet aggregation in the vasculature. Highly expressed in the initial segment of the epididymis, where it affects the functional expression of clusterin and phospholipid hydroperoxide glutathione peroxidase (PHGPx), two proteins required for sperm maturation. May also function as an endocytic receptor. Not required for endocytic uptake of SEPP1 in the kidney which is mediated by LRP2 (By similarity). Together with its ligand, apolipoprotein E (apoE), may indirectly play a role in the suppression of the innate immune response by controlling the survival of myeloid- derived suppressor cells (By similarity).

Renders cells highly sensitive to the activation by cytokines and lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

Synaptic adhesion protein. Regulates the formation of exitatory synapses through the recruitment of pre-and-postsynaptic proteins. Organize the lamina/pathway-specific differentiation of dendrites. Plays an important role for auditory synaptic responses. Involved in the suppression of glioma (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor which preferentially binds to the GC-rich consensus sequence (5'-AGCCCCCGGCG-3') and may regulate expression of TNF, EGFR and PDGFA. May control smooth muscle cells proliferation following artery injury through PDGFA repression. May also bind double-stranded RNA. Positively regulates Toll-like receptor (TLR) signaling in response to agonist probably by competing with the negative FLII regulator for MYD88-binding.

May function as activator of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway, in association with DVL3, upstream of CTNNB1/beta-catenin. Positively regulates Toll-like receptor (TLR) signaling in response to agonist probably by competing with the negative FLII regulator for MYD88-binding.

Plays a role in the negative regulation of bone mass, acting through the maturation of osteoclasts.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase which phosphorylates a broad range of proteins involved in multiple processes such as neuronal plasticity, autophagy, and vesicle trafficking. Is a key regulator of RAB GTPases by regulating the GTP/GDP exchange and interaction partners of RABs through phosphorylation. Phosphorylates RAB3A, RAB3B, RAB3C, RAB3D, RAB5A, RAB5B, RAB5C, RAB8A, RAB8B, RAB10, RAB12, RAB35, and RAB43. Regulates the RAB3IP-catalyzed GDP/GTP exchange for RAB8A through the phosphorylation of 'Thr-72' on RAB8A. Inhibits the interaction between RAB8A and GDI1 and/or GDI2 by phosphorylating 'Thr- 72' on RAB8A. Regulates primary ciliogenesis through phosphorylation of RAB8A and RAB10, which promotes SHH signaling in the brain. Together with RAB29, plays a role in the retrograde trafficking pathway for recycling proteins, such as mannose-6-phosphate receptor (M6PR), between lysosomes and the Golgi apparatus in a retromer-dependent manner. Regulates neuronal process morphology in the intact central nervous system (CNS). Plays a role in synaptic vesicle trafficking. Plays an important role in recruiting SEC16A to endoplasmic reticulum exit sites (ERES) and in regulating ER to Golgi vesicle-mediated transport and ERES organization. Positively regulates autophagy through a calcium-dependent activation of the CaMKK/AMPK signaling pathway. The process involves activation of nicotinic acid adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NAADP) receptors, increase in lysosomal pH, and calcium release from lysosomes. Phosphorylates PRDX3. By phosphorylating APP on 'Thr-743', which promotes the production and the nuclear translocation of the APP intracellular domain (AICD), regulates dopaminergic neuron apoptosis. Independent of its kinase activity, inhibits the proteosomal degradation of MAPT, thus promoting MAPT oligomerization and secretion. In addition, has GTPase activity via its Roc domain which regulates LRRK2 kinase activity.

May play an important role in hippocampus-dependent long- lasting memory.

Exhibits strong synaptogenic activity, restricted to excitatory presynaptic differentiation, acting at both pre- and postsynaptic level.

Involved in the development and maintenance of excitatory synapse in the vertebrate nervous system. Regulates surface expression of AMPA receptors and instructs the development of functional glutamate release sites. Acts as a ligand for the presynaptic receptors NRXN1-A and NRXN1-B (By similarity).

Exhibits a limited synaptogenic activity in vitro, restricted to excitatory presynaptic differentiation (By similarity). May play a role in the development and maintenance of the vertebrate nervous system.

May play a role in the development and maintenance of the vertebrate nervous system. Exhibits strong synaptogenic activity, restricted to excitatory presynaptic differentiation (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates monoubiquitination of TSG101 at multiple sites, leading to inactivate the ability of TSG101 to sort endocytic (EGF receptors) and exocytic (HIV-1 viral proteins) cargos. Bacterial recognition protein that defends the cytoplasm from invasive pathogens. Localizes to several intracellular bacterial pathogens and generates the bacteria-associated ubiquitin signal leading to autophagy-mediated intracellular bacteria degradation (xenophagy).

Required for G1/S transition. Recruits and stabilizes the origin recognition complex (ORC) onto chromatin during G1 to establish pre-replication complex (preRC) and to heterochromatic sites in post- replicated cells. Binds a combination of DNA and histone methylation repressive marks on heterochromatin. Binds histone H3 and H4 trimethylation marks H3K9me3, H3K27me3 and H4K20me3 in a cooperative manner with DNA methylation. Required for silencing of major satellite repeats. May be important ORC2, ORC3 and ORC4 stability.

Essential for formation of P-bodies, cytoplasmic structures that provide storage sites for translationally inactive mRNAs and protect them from degradation. Acts as a repressor of mRNA translation. May play a role in mitotic spindle assembly.

Required for oocyte meiotic maturation. May be involved in the storage of translationally inactive mRNAs and protect them from degradation (By similarity). Plays a role in control of mRNA translation (By similarity).

Mediates selective neuronal growth and axon targeting. Contributes to the guidance of developing axons and remodeling of mature circuits in the limbic system. Essential for normal growth of the hippocampal mossy fiber projection (By similarity).

GTPase required for the XPO1/CRM1-mediated nuclear export of the 60S ribosomal subunit. Probably acts by mediating the release of NMD3 from the 60S ribosomal subunit after export into the cytoplasm (Probable).

Promotes spermatogenesis and ovulation by stimulating the testes and ovaries to synthesize steroids

Receptor for lutropin-choriogonadotropic hormone. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylate cyclase.

Appears to function in the U7 snRNP complex that is involved in histone 3'-end processing. Increases U7 snRNA levels but not histone 3'-end pre-mRNA processing activity, when overexpressed. Required for cell cycle progression from G1 to S phases. Binds specifically to U7 snRNA. Binds to the downstream cleavage product (DCP) of histone pre- mRNA in a U7 snRNP dependent manner.

Component of the U7 snRNP complex that is involved in the histone 3'-end pre-mRNA processing. Increases U7 snRNA levels but not histone 3'-end pre- mRNA processing activity, when overexpressed. Required for cell cycle progression from G1 to S phases (By similarity). Binds specifically to the Sm-binding site of U7 snRNA.

Nicotinic acid adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NAADP) binding protein. Confers NAADP sensitivity to the two pore channel complex (TPCs) by acting as TPC accessory protein necessary for NAADP-evoked Ca(2+) release.

Plays a role in the degradation of histone mRNAs, the only eukaryotic mRNAs that are not polyadenylated. Probably also part of an LSm subunits-containing complex involved in the general process of mRNA degradation (By similarity).

Plays role in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the U4/U6-U5 tri-snRNP complex that is involved in spliceosome assembly, and as component of the precatalytic spliceosome (spliceosome B complex). The heptameric LSM2-8 complex binds specifically to the 3'-terminal U-tract of U6 snRNA.

Plays role in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the U4/U6-U5 tri-snRNP complex that is involved in spliceosome assembly, and as component of the precatalytic spliceosome (spliceosome B complex). The heptameric LSM2-8 complex binds specifically to the 3'-terminal U-tract of U6 snRNA. Component of LSm protein complexes, which are involved in RNA processing and may function in a chaperone-like manner, facilitating the efficient association of RNA processing factors with their substrates. Component of the cytoplasmic LSM1-LSM7 complex, which is thought to be involved in mRNA degradation by activating the decapping step in the 5'-to-3' mRNA decay pathway (Probable).

Auxillary component of the N-terminal acetyltransferase C (NatC) complex which catalyzes acetylation of N-terminal methionine residues.

May play a role in mediating neutrophil activation and chemotaxis.

Key enzyme in the cholesterol biosynthesis pathway. Catalyzes the cyclization of (S)-2,3 oxidosqualene to lanosterol, a reaction that forms the sterol nucleus. Through the production of lanosterol may regulate lens protein aggregation and increase transparency.

Possible role in modulating immune responses. Induces morphological changes including production of filopodia and microspikes when overexpressed in a variety of cell types and may be involved in dendritic cell maturation. Isoform 1 and isoform 2 have an inhibitory effect on lymphocyte proliferation.

Negative regulator of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) signaling. Acts by promoting EGFR degradation in endosomes when not monoubiquitinated.

Subunit of both mTORC1 and mTORC2, which regulates cell growth and survival in response to nutrient and hormonal signals. mTORC1 is activated in response to growth factors or amino acids. Growth factor-stimulated mTORC1 activation involves a AKT1-mediated phosphorylation of TSC1-TSC2, which leads to the activation of the RHEB GTPase that potently activates the protein kinase activity of mTORC1. Amino acid-signaling to mTORC1 requires its relocalization to the lysosomes mediated by the Ragulator complex and the Rag GTPases. Activated mTORC1 up-regulates protein synthesis by phosphorylating key regulators of mRNA translation and ribosome synthesis. mTORC1 phosphorylates EIF4EBP1 and releases it from inhibiting the elongation initiation factor 4E (eiF4E). mTORC1 phosphorylates and activates S6K1 at 'Thr-389', which then promotes protein synthesis by phosphorylating PDCD4 and targeting it for degradation. Within mTORC1, LST8 interacts directly with MTOR and enhances its kinase activity. In nutrient-poor conditions, stabilizes the MTOR-RPTOR interaction and favors RPTOR- mediated inhibition of MTOR activity. mTORC2 is also activated by growth factors, but seems to be nutrient-insensitive. mTORC2 seems to function upstream of Rho GTPases to regulate the actin cytoskeleton, probably by activating one or more Rho-type guanine nucleotide exchange factors. mTORC2 promotes the serum-induced formation of stress-fibers or F-actin. mTORC2 plays a critical role in AKT1 'Ser-473' phosphorylation, which may facilitate the phosphorylation of the activation loop of AKT1 on 'Thr-308' by PDK1 which is a prerequisite for full activation. mTORC2 regulates the phosphorylation of SGK1 at 'Ser-422'. mTORC2 also modulates the phosphorylation of PRKCA on 'Ser- 657'.

Receptor for extracellular ATP > UTP and ADP. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. May be the cardiac P2Y receptor involved in the regulation of cardiac muscle contraction through modulation of L-type calcium currents. Is a receptor for leukotriene B4, a potent chemoattractant involved in inflammation and immune response

Low-affinity receptor for leukotrienes including leukotriene B4. Mediates chemotaxis of granulocytes and macrophages. The response is mediated via G-proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. The rank order of affinities for the leukotrienes is LTB4 > 12-epi-LTB4 > LTB5 > LTB3

Key regulator of transforming growth factor beta (TGFB1, TGFB2 and TGFB3) that controls TGF-beta activation by maintaining it in a latent state during storage in extracellular space. Associates specifically via disulfide bonds with the Latency-associated peptide (LAP), which is the regulatory chain of TGF-beta, and regulates integrin-dependent activation of TGF-beta. Outcompeted by LRRC32/GARP for binding to LAP regulatory chain of TGF-beta.

May play an integral structural role in elastic-fiber architectural organization and/or assembly.

Key regulator of transforming growth factor beta (TGFB1, TGFB2 and TGFB3) that controls TGF-beta activation by maintaining it in a latent state during storage in extracellular space. Associates specifically via disulfide bonds with the Latency-associated peptide (LAP), which is the regulatory chain of TGF-beta, and regulates integrin-dependent activation of TGF-beta.

Catalyzes the conjugation of leukotriene A4 with reduced glutathione (GSH) to form leukotriene C4 with high specificity. Can also catalyze the transfer of a glutathionyl group from glutathione (GSH) to 13(S),14(S)-epoxy-docosahexaenoic acid to form maresin conjugate in tissue regeneration 1 (MCTR1), a bioactive lipid mediator that possess potent anti-inflammatory and proresolving actions.

Receptor with a tyrosine-protein kinase activity. Following activation by ALKAL1 or ALKAL2 ligands at the cell surface, transduces an extracellular signal into an intracellular response. Ligand-binding to the extracellular domain induces tyrosine kinase activation, leading to activation of the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) pathway. Phosphorylates almost exclusively at the first tyrosine of the Y-x-x-x- Y-Y motif (By similarity). The exact function of this protein is not known; studies with chimeric proteins demonstrate its ability to promote growth and specifically neurite outgrowth, and cell survival. Involved in regulation of the secretory pathway involving endoplasmic reticulum (ER) export sites (ERESs) and ER to Golgi transport.

Involved in tumorigenesis and may function as a negative regulator of the p53/TP53. May play an essential role for mitochondrial structure and function, and thermogenesis of brown adipocytes (By similarity). May regulate phagocytosis and inflammatory responses to lipopolysaccharide in macrophages.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Component of the ribosome quality control complex (RQC), a ribosome-associated complex that mediates ubiquitination and extraction of incompletely synthesized nascent chains for proteasomal degradation. Ubiquitination leads to VCP/p97 recruitment for extraction and degradation of the incomplete translation product (By similarity).

The complex LTO1:YAE1 functions as a target specific adapter that probably recruits apo-ABCE1 to the cytosolic iron-sulfur protein assembly (CIA) complex machinery. May be required for biogenesis of the large ribosomal subunit and initiation of translation. May play a role in the regulation of proline metabolism and ROS production.

As part of the Ragulator complex it is involved in amino acid sensing and activation of mTORC1, a signaling complex promoting cell growth in response to growth factors, energy levels, and amino acids. Activated by amino acids through a mechanism involving the lysosomal V- ATPase, the Ragulator functions as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor activating the small GTPases Rag. Activated Ragulator and Rag GTPases function as a scaffold recruiting mTORC1 to lysosomes where it is in turn activated. LAMTOR1 is directly responsible for anchoring the Ragulator complex to membranes. Also required for late endosomes/lysosomes biogenesis it may regulate both the recycling of receptors through endosomes and the MAPK signaling pathway through recruitment of some of its components to late endosomes. May be involved in cholesterol homeostasis regulating LDL uptake and cholesterol release from late endosomes/lysosomes. May also play a role in RHOA activation. Involved in the control of embryonic stem cells differentiation; together with FLCN it is necessary to recruit and activate RRAGC/RagC and RRAGD/RagD at the lysosomes, and to induce exit of embryonic stem cells from pluripotency via non-canonical, mTOR- independent TFE3 inactivation (By similarity).

As part of the Ragulator complex it is involved in amino acid sensing and activation of mTORC1, a signaling complex promoting cell growth in response to growth factors, energy levels, and amino acids. Activated by amino acids through a mechanism involving the lysosomal V- ATPase, the Ragulator functions as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor activating the small GTPases Rag. Activated Ragulator and Rag GTPases function as a scaffold recruiting mTORC1 to lysosomes where it is in turn activated. Adapter protein that enhances the efficiency of the MAP kinase cascade facilitating the activation of MAPK2.

As part of the Ragulator complex it is involved in amino acid sensing and activation of mTORC1, a signaling complex promoting cell growth in response to growth factors, energy levels, and amino acids. Activated by amino acids through a mechanism involving the lysosomal V- ATPase, the Ragulator functions as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor activating the small GTPases Rag. Activated Ragulator and Rag GTPases function as a scaffold recruiting mTORC1 to lysosomes where it is in turn activated.

As part of the Ragulator complex it is involved in amino acid sensing and activation of mTORC1, a signaling complex promoting cell growth in response to growth factors, energy levels, and amino acids. Activated by amino acids through a mechanism involving the lysosomal V- ATPase, the Ragulator functions as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor activating the small GTPases Rag. Activated Ragulator and Rag GTPases function as a scaffold recruiting mTORC1 to lysosomes where it is in turn activated. When complexed to BIRC5, interferes with apoptosome assembly, preventing recruitment of pro-caspase-9 to oligomerized APAF1, thereby selectively suppressing apoptosis initiated via the mitochondrial/cytochrome c pathway. Down-regulates hepatitis B virus (HBV) replication.

Acts as an activator of the canonical NF-kappa-B pathway and drive the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines. Promotes the antigen (Ag)-presenting and priming function of dendritic cells via the canonical NF-kappa-B pathway. In concert with MYO18A and CDC42BPA/CDC42BPB, is involved in modulating lamellar actomyosin retrograde flow that is crucial to cell protrusion and migration. Activates CDC42BPA/CDC42BPB and targets it to actomyosin through its interaction with MYO18A, leading to MYL9/MLC2 phosphorylation and MYH9/MYH10-dependent actomyosin assembly in the lamella (By similarity).

Export adapter involved in mRNA nuclear export in cancer cells. Binds and enhances the RNA-binding activity of the nuclear RNA export factor NXF1. Can restore mRNA export function in cells compromised by loss of mRNA export adapters.

Catalyzes the regio and stereo-specific incorporation of a single molecule of dioxygen into free and esterified polyunsaturated fatty acids generating lipid hydroperoxides that can be further reduced to the corresponding hydroxy species. In the skin, acts upstream of ALOXE3 on the lineolate moiety of esterified omega-hydroxyacyl-sphingosine (EOS) ceramides to produce an epoxy-ketone derivative, a crucial step in the conjugation of omega-hydroxyceramide to membrane proteins. Therefore plays a crucial role in the synthesis of corneocytes lipid envelope and the establishment of the skin barrier to water loss. May also play a role in the regulation of the expression of airway mucins.

[Isoform A]: Non-heme iron-containing dioxygenase that catalyzes the stereo-specific peroxidation of free and esterified polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) generating a spectrum of bioactive lipid mediators (Probable). It inserts peroxyl groups at C15 of arachidonate ((5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)-eicosatetraenoate) producing (15S)-hydroperoxyeicosatetraenoate/(15S)-HPETE (Probable). Also peroxidizes linoleate ((9Z,12Z)-octadecadienoate) to 13- hydroperoxyoctadecadienoate/13-HPODE (Probable). Oxygenates arachidonyl derivatives such as 2- arachidonoylglycerol (2-AG) leading to the production and extracellular release of 15-hydroxyeicosatetraenoyl glycerol (15-HETE-G) that acts as a peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor alpha agonist. Has the ability to efficiently class-switch ALOX5 pro-inflammatory mediators into anti- inflammatory intermediates. Participates in the sequential oxidations of DHA ((4Z,7Z,10Z,13Z,16Z,19Z)-docosahexaenoate) to generate specialized pro-resolving mediators (SPMs) resolvin D5 ((7S,17S)-diHPDHA), which can actively down-regulate the immune response and have anti-aggregation properties with platelets. In addition to free PUFAs hydrolyzed from phospholipids, it directly oxidizes PUFAs esterified to membrane-bound phospholipids. Has no detectable 8S-lipoxygenase activity on arachidonate but reacts with (8S)-HPETE to produce (8S,15S)-diHPETE (Probable). May regulate progression through the cell cycle and cell proliferation. May also regulate cytokine secretion by macrophages and therefore play a role in the immune response. May also regulate macrophage differentiation into proatherogenic foam cells.

Hardly reversible, non-competitive, and potent inhibitor of CPA1, CPA2 and CPA4. May play a role in inflammation.

May play a role in the downstream signal transduction pathways involving GRB2 and GRB7.

May act as a specification marker at earliest stage specification of lymphocytes between B- and T-cell development. Marks the earliest stage of B-cell specification

GPI-anchored cell surface protein that regulates T- lymphocytes proliferation, differentiation, and activation. Regulates the T-cell receptor (TCR) signaling by interacting with component CD3Z/CD247 at the plasma membrane, leading to CD3Z/CD247 phosphorylation modulation (By similarity). Restricts the entry of human coronaviruses, including SARS-CoV, MERS-CoV and SARS-CoV-2, by interfering with spike protein-mediated membrane fusion. Also plays an essential role in placenta formation by acting as the main receptor for syncytin-A (SynA). Therefore, participates in the normal fusion of syncytiotrophoblast layer I (SynT- I) and in the proper morphogenesis of both fetal and maternal vasculatures within the placenta. May also act as a modulator of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs) activity (By similarity).

Believed to act as a modulator of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs) activity. In vitro inhibits alpha-3:beta-4- containing nAChRs maximum response. May play a role in the intracellular trafficking of alpha-7-containing nAChRs and may inhibit their expression at the cell surface. Seems to inhibit alpha-7/CHRNA7 signaling in hippocampal neurons.

Required for sperm migration into the oviduct and male fertility by controlling binding of sperm to zona pellucida (By similarity). May play a role in cell growth.

Acts as an endocytic receptor to direct captured antigens from the extracellular space to a specialized antigen-processing compartment (By similarity). Causes reduced proliferation of B- lymphocytes.

May cooperate with CD180 and TLR4 to mediate the innate immune response to bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) and cytokine production. Important for efficient CD180 cell surface expression (By similarity).

Binds bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS). Cooperates with TLR4 in the innate immune response to bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS), and with TLR2 in the response to cell wall components from Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Enhances TLR4-dependent activation of NF-kappa-B. Cells expressing both LY96 and TLR4, but not TLR4 alone, respond to LPS.

Self-ligand receptor of the signaling lymphocytic activation molecule (SLAM) family. SLAM receptors triggered by homo- or heterotypic cell-cell interactions are modulating the activation and differentiation of a wide variety of immune cells and thus are involved in the regulation and interconnection of both innate and adaptive immune response. Activities are controlled by presence or absence of small cytoplasmic adapter proteins, SH2D1A/SAP and/or SH2D1B/EAT-2. May participate in adhesion reactions between T lymphocytes and accessory cells by homophilic interaction. Promotes T-cell differentiation into a helper T-cell Th17 phenotype leading to increased IL-17 secretion; the costimulatory activity requires SH2D1A. Promotes recruitment of RORC to the IL-17 promoter. May be involved in the maintenance of peripheral cell tolerance by serving as a negative regulator of the immune response. May disable autoantibody responses and inhibit IFN-gamma secretion by CD4(+) T-cells. May negatively regulate the size of thymic innate CD8(+) T-cells and the development of invariant natural killer T (iNKT) cells (By similarity).

Essential for the degradation of glycogen in lysosomes. Has highest activity on alpha-1,4-linked glycosidic linkages, but can also hydrolyze alpha-1,6-linked glucans.

Calcium-dependent lectin that mediates cell adhesion by binding to glycoproteins on neighboring cells. Mediates the adherence of lymphocytes to endothelial cells of high endothelial venules in peripheral lymph nodes. Promotes initial tethering and rolling of leukocytes in endothelia.

Cell-surface glycoprotein having a role in immunoadhesion. Mediates in the adhesion of blood neutrophils in cytokine-activated endothelium through interaction with SELPLG/PSGL1. May have a role in capillary morphogenesis.

Ca(2+)-dependent receptor for myeloid cells that binds to carbohydrates on neutrophils and monocytes. Mediates the interaction of activated endothelial cells or platelets with leukocytes. The ligand recognized is sialyl-Lewis X. Mediates rapid rolling of leukocyte rolling over vascular surfaces during the initial steps in inflammation through interaction with SELPLG.

Plays a role in the maintenance of the appropriate processing of 47S/45S pre-rRNA to 32S/30S pre-rRNAs and their subsequent processing to produce 18S and 28S rRNAs. Also acts at the level of transcription regulation. Along with PRMT5, binds the gamma-globin (HBG1/HBG2) promoter and represses its expression. In neuroblastoma cells, may also repress the expression of oxidative stress genes, including CHAC1, HMOX1, SLC7A11, ULBP1 and SNORD41 that encodes a small nucleolar RNA. Preferentially binds to a DNA motif containing 5'-GGTTAT-3'. Negatively regulates the antiviral innate immune response by targeting IRF3 and impairing its DNA-binding activity. In addition, inhibits NF-kappa-B-mediated expression of pro-inflammatory cytokines. Stimulates phagocytosis of photoreceptor outer segments by retinal pigment epithelial cells (By similarity). Prevents nucleolin/NCL self-cleavage, maintaining a normal steady-state level of NCL protein in undifferentiated embryonic stem cells (ESCs), which in turn is essential for ESC self-renewal (By similarity).

May act as a potent antibacterial protein that may play a role in the innate immunity.

Acts in different tissues through interaction to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs). The proposed role as modulator of nAChR activity seems to be dependent on the nAChR subtype and stoichiometry, and to involve an effect on nAChR trafficking and its cell surface expression, and on single channel properties of the nAChR inserted in the plasma membrane. Modulates functional properties of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs) to prevent excessive excitation, and hence neurodegeneration. Enhances desensitization by increasing both the rate and extent of desensitization of alpha-4:beta-2-containing nAChRs and slowing recovery from desensitization. Promotes large amplitude ACh-evoked currents through alpha-4:beta-2 nAChRs. Is involved in regulation of the nAChR pentameric assembly in the endoplasmic reticulum. Shifts stoichiometry from high sensitivity alpha-4(2):beta-2(3) to low sensitivity alpha-4(3):beta-2(2) nAChR (By similarity). In vitro modulates alpha-3:beta-4-containing nAChRs. Reduces cell surface expression of (alpha-3:beta-4)(2):beta-4 and (alpha-3:beta-4)(2):alpha- 5 nAChRs suggesting an interaction with nAChR alpha-3(-):(+)beta-4 subunit interfaces and an allosteric mode. Corresponding single channel effects characterized by decreased unitary conductance, altered burst proportions and enhanced desensitization/inactivation seem to depend on nAChR alpha:alpha subunit interfaces and are greater in (alpha-3:beta- 2)(2):alpha-3 when compared to (alpha-3:beta-2)(2):alpha-5 nAChRs. Prevents plasticity in the primary visual cortex late in life (By similarity).

Non-receptor tyrosine-protein kinase that transmits signals from cell surface receptors and plays an important role in the regulation of innate and adaptive immune responses, hematopoiesis, responses to growth factors and cytokines, integrin signaling, but also responses to DNA damage and genotoxic agents. Functions primarily as negative regulator, but can also function as activator, depending on the context. Required for the initiation of the B-cell response, but also for its down-regulation and termination. Plays an important role in the regulation of B-cell differentiation, proliferation, survival and apoptosis, and is important for immune self-tolerance. Acts downstream of several immune receptors, including the B-cell receptor, CD79A, CD79B, CD5, CD19, CD22, FCER1, FCGR2, FCGR1A, TLR2 and TLR4. Plays a role in the inflammatory response to bacterial lipopolysaccharide. Mediates the responses to cytokines and growth factors in hematopoietic progenitors, platelets, erythrocytes, and in mature myeloid cells, such as dendritic cells, neutrophils and eosinophils. Acts downstream of EPOR, KIT, MPL, the chemokine receptor CXCR4, as well as the receptors for IL3, IL5 and CSF2. Plays an important role in integrin signaling. Regulates cell proliferation, survival, differentiation, migration, adhesion, degranulation, and cytokine release. Down-regulates signaling pathways by phosphorylation of immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motifs (ITIM), that then serve as binding sites for phosphatases, such as PTPN6/SHP-1, PTPN11/SHP-2 and INPP5D/SHIP-1, that modulate signaling by dephosphorylation of kinases and their substrates. Phosphorylates LIME1 in response to CD22 activation. Phosphorylates BTK, CBL, CD5, CD19, CD72, CD79A, CD79B, CSF2RB, DOK1, HCLS1, LILRB3/PIR-B, MS4A2/FCER1B, SYK and TEC. Promotes phosphorylation of SIRPA, PTPN6/SHP-1, PTPN11/SHP-2 and INPP5D/SHIP-1. Mediates phosphorylation of the BCR-ABL fusion protein. Required for rapid phosphorylation of FER in response to FCER1 activation. Mediates KIT phosphorylation. Acts as an effector of EPOR (erythropoietin receptor) in controlling KIT expression and may play a role in erythroid differentiation during the switch between proliferation and maturation. Depending on the context, activates or inhibits several signaling cascades. Regulates phosphatidylinositol 3- kinase activity and AKT1 activation. Regulates activation of the MAP kinase signaling cascade, including activation of MAP2K1/MEK1, MAPK1/ERK2, MAPK3/ERK1, MAPK8/JNK1 and MAPK9/JNK2. Mediates activation of STAT5A and/or STAT5B. Phosphorylates LPXN on 'Tyr-72'. Kinase activity facilitates TLR4-TLR6 heterodimerization and signal initiation. Phosphorylates SCIMP on 'Tyr-107'; this enhances binding of SCIMP to TLR4, promoting the phosphorylation of TLR4, and a selective cytokine response to lipopolysaccharide in macrophages (By similarity). Phosphorylates CLNK (By similarity). Phosphorylates BCAR1/CAS and NEDD9/HEF1.

Responsible for the post-translational oxidative deamination of peptidyl lysine residues in precursors to fibrous collagen and elastin. Regulator of Ras expression. May play a role in tumor suppression. Plays a role in the aortic wall architecture (By similarity).

Acts as a acyl-protein thioesterase. Hydrolyzes fatty acids from S-acylated cysteine residues in proteins such as trimeric G alpha proteins or HRAS. Has depalmitoylating activity toward KCNMA1. Could also depalmitoylate ADRB2. Acts as a lysophospholipase and hydrolyzes lysophosphatidylcholine (lyso-PC). Also hydrolyzes lysophosphatidylethanolamine (lyso-PE), lysophosphatidylinositol (lyso- PI) and lysophosphatidylserine (lyso-PS) (By similarity). Has much higher thioesterase activity than lysophospholipase activity. Contributes to the production of lysophosphatidic acid (LPA) during blood coagulation by recognizing and cleaving plasma phospholipids to generate lysophospholipids which in turn act as substrates for ENPP2 to produce LPA.

Acts as a acyl-protein thioesterase hydrolyzing fatty acids from S-acylated cysteine residues in proteins such as trimeric G alpha proteins, GAP43, ZDHHC6 or HRAS. Deacylates GAP43. Mediates depalmitoylation of ZDHHC6. Has lysophospholipase activity. Hydrolyzes prostaglandin glycerol esters (PG-Gs) in the following order prostaglandin D2-glycerol ester (PGD2-G) > prostaglandin E2 glycerol ester (PGE2-G) > prostaglandin F2-alpha-glycerol ester (PGF2-alpha-G). Hydrolyzes 1-arachidonoylglycerol but not 2- arachidonoylglycerol or arachidonoylethanolamide.

Believed to act as a modulator of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs) activity. In vitro increases receptor desensitization and decreases affinity for ACh of alpha-4:beta-2- containing nAChRs. May play a role in the intracellular trafficking of alpha-4:beta-2 and alpha-7-containing nAChRs and may inhibit their expression at the cell surface. May be involved in the control of anxiety.

Supports cell migration. May be involved in urothelial cell- matrix interactions. May be involved in tumor progression.

Acts as a modulator of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs) function in the brain. Inhibits nicotine-induced Ca(2+) influx through nAChRs. In vitro, specifically inhibits alpha-3:beta-4 and alpha-7 nAChR currents in an allosteric manner. Acts as a positive regulator of Wnt/beta-catenin signaling (By similarity).

Secreted protein specifically required to prevent invasion of Gram-negative bacteria in the inner mucus layer of the colon epithelium, a portion of the large intestine which is free of commensal microbiota. Prevents invasion of flagellated microbiota by binding to the flagellum of bacteria, such as P.mirabilis, thereby inhibiting bacterial motility in the intestinal lumen. Segregation of intestinal bacteria and epithelial cells in the colon is required to preserve intestinal homeostasis.

Has depalmitoylating activity toward KCNMA1. Does not exhibit phospholipase nor triacylglycerol lipase activity, able to hydrolyze only short chain substrates due to its shallow active site.

Down-regulates SLC1A2/EAAT2 promoter activity when expressed ectopically. Activates the nuclear factor kappa-B (NF-kappa-B) transcription factor. Promotes anchorage-independent growth of immortalized melanocytes and astrocytes which is a key component in tumor cell expansion. Promotes lung metastasis and also has an effect on bone and brain metastasis, possibly by enhancing the seeding of tumor cells to the target organ endothelium. Induces chemoresistance.

May promote cell proliferation and inhibition of apoptosis of preadipocytes.

Stabilizing factor, of the core iron-sulfur cluster (ISC) assembly complex, that regulates, in association with NDUFAB1, the stability and the cysteine desulfurase activity of NFS1 and participates in the [2Fe-2S] clusters assembly on the scaffolding protein ISCU. The core iron-sulfur cluster (ISC) assembly complex is involved in the de novo synthesis of a [2Fe-2S] cluster, the first step of the mitochondrial iron-sulfur protein biogenesis. This process is initiated by the cysteine desulfurase complex (NFS1:LYRM4:NDUFAB1) that produces persulfide which is delivered on the scaffold protein ISCU in a FXN-dependent manner. Then this complex is stabilized by FDX2 which provides reducing equivalents to accomplish the [2Fe-2S] cluster assembly. Finally, the [2Fe-2S] cluster is transferred from ISCU to chaperone proteins, including HSCB, HSPA9 and GLRX5 (By similarity). May also participates in the iron-sulfur protein biogenesis in the cytoplasm through its interaction with the cytoplasmic form of NFS1.

Assembly factor required for Rieske Fe-S protein UQCRFS1 incorporation into the cytochrome b-c1 (CIII) complex. Functions as a chaperone, binding to this subunit within the mitochondrial matrix and stabilizing it prior to its translocation and insertion into the late CIII dimeric intermediate within the mitochondrial inner membrane.

Lysozymes have primarily a bacteriolytic function; those in tissues and body fluids are associated with the monocyte-macrophage system and enhance the activity of immunoagents

Required for mannose-6-phosphate-dependent trafficking of lysosomal enzymes. LYSET bridges GlcNAc-1-phosphate transferase (GNPTAB), to the membrane- bound transcription factor site-1 protease (MBTPS1), thus allowing proteolytic activation of the GNPTAB. GNPTAB is involved in the regulation of M6P-dependent Golgi-to-lysosome trafficking of lysosomal enzymes. LYSET is thus an essential factor for maturation and delivery of lysosomal hydrolases.

Adapter protein that regulates and/or fission of intracellular vesicles such as lysosomes. Might regulate trafficking of effectors involved in exocytosis. In cytotoxic T-cells and natural killer (NK) cells, has role in the regulation of size, number and exocytosis of lytic granules. In macrophages and dendritic cells, regulates phagosome maturation by controlling the conversion of early phagosomal compartments into late phagosomes (By similarity). In macrophages and dendritic cells, specifically involved in TLR3- and TLR4-induced production of pro-inflammatory cytokines by regulating the endosomal TLR3- TICAM1/TRIF and TLR4- TICAM1/TRIF signaling pathways.

Ligand-specific transporter trafficking between intracellular organelles (TGN) and the plasma membrane. Plays a role in autocrine regulation of cell growth mediated by growth regulators containing cell surface retention sequence binding (CRS). May act as a hyaluronan (HA) transporter, either mediating its uptake for catabolism within lymphatic endothelial cells themselves, or its transport into the lumen of afferent lymphatic vessels for subsequent re-uptake and degradation in lymph nodes. Binds to pericelluar hyaluronan matrices deposited on the surface of leukocytes and facilitates cell adhesion and migration through lymphatic endothelium.

May be involved in fertilization (By similarity). Has no detectable bacteriolytic and lysozyme activities in vitro (By similarity).

May be involved sperm-egg plasma membrane adhesion and fusion during fertilization. Exhibits bacteriolytic activity in vitro against Micrococcus luteus and Staphylococcus aureus. Shows weak bacteriolytic activity against Gram-positive bacteria at physiological pH. Bacteriolytic activity is pH-dependent, with a maximum at around pH 5.6.

Regulates ciliary localization of the BBSome complex. Together with the BBSome complex, controls SMO ciliary trafficking and contributes to the sonic hedgehog (SHH) pathway regulation. May play a role in neurite outgrowth. May have tumor suppressor function.

Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that mediates ubiquitination of Ras (K-Ras/KRAS, N-Ras/NRAS and H-Ras/HRAS). Is a negative regulator of RAS-MAPK signaling that acts by controlling Ras levels and decreasing Ras association with membranes.

Involved in the regulation of cell growth. May stabilize the active CDC2-cyclin B1 complex and thereby contribute to the regulation of the cell cycle and the prevention of uncontrolled cell proliferation. May act as a tumor suppressor.

Negative regulator of katanin-mediated microtubule severing and release from the centrosome. Required for central spindle formation and the completion of cytokinesis. May negatively regulate axonal outgrowth by preventing the formation of microtubule bundles that are necessary for transport within the elongating axon. Negative regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway. Represses beta-catenin-mediated transcriptional activation by promoting the nuclear exclusion of beta- catenin.

May be involved in promoting the maturation of dendritic spines, probably via regulating SIPA1L1 levels at the postsynaptic density of synapses.

ATP-dependent RNA helicase required during spermatogenesis to repress transposable elements and prevent their mobilization, which is essential for germline integrity. Acts via the piRNA metabolic process, which mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and governs the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons. Involved in the primary piRNA metabolic process. Specifically binds to piRNA precursors and promotes the generation of intermediate piRNA processing fragments that are subsequently loaded to Piwi proteins. Acts via its ATP-dependent RNA helicase activity: displays 5'-3' RNA unwinding activity and probably mediates unwinding and funneling of single- stranded piRNA precursor transcripts to the endonuclease that catalyzes the first cleavage step of piRNA processing to generate piRNA intermediate fragments that are subsequently loaded to Piwi proteins.

Required for the assembly and stability of the mitochondrial ribosome. Is a positive regulator of mitochondrial protein synthesis.

Required for recruitment of CENPA to centromeres and normal chromosome segregation during mitosis.

Metallothioneins have a high content of cysteine residues that bind various heavy metals; these proteins are transcriptionally regulated by both heavy metals and glucocorticoids.

Plays a role in the regulation of lipogenesis in liver. Up- regulates ACACA enzyme activity. Required for efficient lipid biosynthesis, including triacylglycerol, diacylglycerol and phospholipid. Involved in stabilization of microtubules (By similarity).

Probable nucleotidyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of cyclic dinucleotide second messenger in response to some unknown stimulus.

Catalyzes the demethylation of N,N-dimethylglycine to sarcosine. Also has activity with sarcosine in vitro.

Catalyzes the transport of 2-oxoglutarate (alpha- oxoglutarate) across the inner mitochondrial membrane in an electroneutral exchange for malate. Can also exchange 2-oxoglutarate for other dicarboxylic acids such as malonate, succinate, maleate and oxaloacetate, although with lower affinity. Contributes to several metabolic processes, including the malate-aspartate shuttle, the oxoglutarate/isocitrate shuttle, in gluconeogenesis from lactate, and in nitrogen metabolism (By similarity). Maintains mitochondrial fusion and fission events, and the organization and morphology of cristae. Involved in the regulation of apoptosis (By similarity). Helps protect from cytotoxic-induced apoptosis by modulating glutathione levels in mitochondria (By similarity).

Activates the JUN N-terminal pathway. Required for serum- stimulated cell proliferation and for mitogen and cytokine activation of MAPK14 (p38), MAPK3 (ERK) and MAPK8 (JNK1) through phosphorylation and activation of MAP2K4/MKK4 and MAP2K7/MKK7. Plays a role in mitogen- stimulated phosphorylation and activation of BRAF, but does not phosphorylate BRAF directly. Influences microtubule organization during the cell cycle.

Part of a non-canonical MAPK signaling pathway. Activated by APOE, enhances the AP-1-mediated transcription of APP, via a MAP kinase signal transduction pathway composed of MAP2K7 and MAPK1/ERK2 and MAPK3/ERK1. May be an activator of the JNK/SAPK pathway.

Activates the JUN N-terminal pathway through activation of the MAP kinase kinase MAP2K7. Acts synergistically with PRDX3 to regulate the activation of NF-kappa-B in the cytosol. This activation is kinase-dependent and involves activating the IKK complex, the IKBKB- containing complex that phosphorylates inhibitors of NF-kappa-B.

Lymphotoxin beta-activated kinase which seems to be exclusively involved in the activation of NF-kappa-B and its transcriptional activity. Promotes proteolytic processing of NFKB2/P100, which leads to activation of NF-kappa-B via the non- canonical pathway. Could act in a receptor-selective manner.

May function in a signal transduction pathway that is activated by various cell stresses and leads to apoptosis.

Component of a protein kinase signal transduction cascade. Activates the ERK and JNK kinase pathways by phosphorylation of MAP2K1 and MAP2K4. May phosphorylate the MAPK8/JNK1 kinase. Activates CHUK and IKBKB, the central protein kinases of the NF-kappa-B pathway.

Stress-activated component of a protein kinase signal transduction cascade that promotes programmed cell death in response to various stress, such as ribosomal stress, osmotic shock and ionizing radiation. Acts by catalyzing phosphorylation of MAP kinase kinases, leading to activation of the JNK (MAPK8/JNK1, MAPK9/JNK2 and/or MAPK10/JNK3) and MAP kinase p38 (MAPK11, MAPK12, MAPK13 and/or MAPK14) pathways. Activates JNK through phosphorylation of MAP2K4/MKK4 and MAP2K7/MKK7, and MAP kinase p38 gamma (MAPK12) via phosphorylation of MAP2K3/MKK3 and MAP2K6/MKK6. Involved in stress associated with adrenergic stimulation: contributes to cardiac decompensation during periods of acute cardiac stress. May be involved in regulation of S and G2 cell cycle checkpoint by mediating phosphorylation of CHEK2.

Negative regulator of TLR4 signaling. Does not activate JNK1/MAPK8 pathway, p38/MAPK14, nor ERK2/MAPK1 pathways.

Component of a protein kinase signal transduction cascade. Regulates the JNK and ERK5 pathways by phosphorylating and activating MAP2K5 and MAP2K7 (By similarity). Plays a role in caveolae kiss-and- run dynamics.

Component of a protein kinase signal transduction cascade. Mediates activation of the NF-kappa-B, AP1 and DDIT3 transcriptional regulators.

Component of a protein kinase signal transduction cascade. Activates the CSBP2, P38 and JNK MAPK pathways, but not the ERK pathway. Specifically phosphorylates and activates MAP2K4 and MAP2K6.

Serine/threonine kinase which acts as an essential component of the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. Plays an important role in the cascades of cellular responses evoked by changes in the environment. Mediates signaling for determination of cell fate such as differentiation and survival. Plays a crucial role in the apoptosis signal transduction pathway through mitochondria-dependent caspase activation. MAP3K5/ASK1 is required for the innate immune response, which is essential for host defense against a wide range of pathogens. Mediates signal transduction of various stressors like oxidative stress as well as by receptor-mediated inflammatory signals, such as the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) or lipopolysaccharide (LPS). Once activated, acts as an upstream activator of the MKK/JNK signal transduction cascade and the p38 MAPK signal transduction cascade through the phosphorylation and activation of several MAP kinase kinases like MAP2K4/SEK1, MAP2K3/MKK3, MAP2K6/MKK6 and MAP2K7/MKK7. These MAP2Ks in turn activate p38 MAPKs and c-jun N-terminal kinases (JNKs). Both p38 MAPK and JNKs control the transcription factors activator protein-1 (AP-1).

Component of a protein kinase signal transduction cascade. Activates the JNK, but not ERK or p38 kinase pathways.

Serine/threonine kinase which acts as an essential component of the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. Plays an important role in the cascades of cellular responses evoked by changes in the environment. Mediates signal transduction of TRAF6, various cytokines including interleukin-1 (IL-1), transforming growth factor-beta (TGFB), TGFB-related factors like BMP2 and BMP4, toll-like receptors (TLR), tumor necrosis factor receptor CD40 and B-cell receptor (BCR). Ceramides are also able to activate MAP3K7/TAK1. Once activated, acts as an upstream activator of the MKK/JNK signal transduction cascade and the p38 MAPK signal transduction cascade through the phosphorylation and activation of several MAP kinase kinases like MAP2K1/MEK1, MAP2K3/MKK3, MAP2K6/MKK6 and MAP2K7/MKK7. These MAP2Ks in turn activate p38 MAPKs, c-jun N-terminal kinases (JNKs) and I-kappa-B kinase complex (IKK). Both p38 MAPK and JNK pathways control the transcription factors activator protein-1 (AP-1), while nuclear factor-kappa B is activated by IKK. MAP3K7 activates also IKBKB and MAPK8/JNK1 in response to TRAF6 signaling and mediates BMP2-induced apoptosis. In osmotic stress signaling, plays a major role in the activation of MAPK8/JNK1, but not that of NF-kappa-B. Promotes TRIM5 capsid-specific restriction activity. Phosphorylates RIPK1 at 'Ser-321' which positively regulates RIPK1 interaction with RIPK3 to promote necroptosis but negatively regulates RIPK1 kinase activity and its interaction with FADD to mediate apoptosis (By similarity).

Required for lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-induced, TLR4-mediated activation of the MAPK/ERK pathway in macrophages, thus being critical for production of the pro-inflammatory cytokine TNF-alpha (TNF) during immune responses. Involved in the regulation of T-helper cell differentiation and IFNG expression in T-cells. Involved in mediating host resistance to bacterial infection through negative regulation of type I interferon (IFN) production. In vitro, activates MAPK/ERK pathway in response to IL1 in an IRAK1-independent manner, leading to up-regulation of IL8 and CCL4. Transduces CD40 and TNFRSF1A signals that activate ERK in B-cells and macrophages, and thus may play a role in the regulation of immunoglobulin production. May also play a role in the transduction of TNF signals that activate JNK and NF-kappa-B in some cell types. In adipocytes, activates MAPK/ERK pathway in an IKBKB- dependent manner in response to IL1B and TNF, but not insulin, leading to induction of lipolysis. Plays a role in the cell cycle. Isoform 1 shows some transforming activity, although it is much weaker than that of the activated oncogenic variant.

Serine/threonine kinase which acts as an essential component of the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. Plays an important role in the cascades of cellular responses evoked by changes in the environment. Once activated, acts as an upstream activator of the MKK/JNK signal transduction cascade through the phosphorylation of MAP2K4/MKK4 and MAP2K7/MKK7 which in turn activate the JNKs. The MKK/JNK signaling pathway regulates stress response via activator protein-1 (JUN) and GATA4 transcription factors. Also plays a role in mitochondrial death signaling pathway, including the release cytochrome c, leading to apoptosis.

May be involved in signal transduction as a component of a multimeric receptor complex

May be involved in signal transduction as a component of a multimeric receptor complex.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase, which may play a role in the response to environmental stress. Appears to act upstream of the JUN N-terminal pathway. May play a role in hematopoietic lineage decisions and growth regulation. Able to autophosphorylate. Together with CLNK, it enhances CD3-triggered activation of T-cells and subsequent IL2 production (By similarity).

Serine/threonine-protein kinase which acts as an essential component of the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. Acts as a MAPK kinase kinase kinase (MAP4K) and is an upstream activator of the stress-activated protein kinase/c-Jun N-terminal kinase (SAP/JNK) signaling pathway and to a lesser extent of the p38 MAPKs signaling pathway. Required for the efficient activation of JNKs by TRAF6- dependent stimuli, including pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) such as polyinosine-polycytidine (poly(IC)), lipopolysaccharides (LPS), lipid A, peptidoglycan (PGN), or bacterial flagellin. To a lesser degree, IL-1 and engagement of CD40 also stimulate MAP4K2-mediated JNKs activation. The requirement for MAP4K2/GCK is most pronounced for LPS signaling, and extends to LPS stimulation of c-Jun phosphorylation and induction of IL-8. Enhances MAP3K1 oligomerization, which may relieve N-terminal mediated MAP3K1 autoinhibition and lead to activation following autophosphorylation. Mediates also the SAP/JNK signaling pathway and the p38 MAPKs signaling pathway through activation of the MAP3Ks MAP3K10/MLK2 and MAP3K11/MLK3. May play a role in the regulation of vesicle targeting or fusion. regulation of vesicle targeting or fusion.

May play a role in the response to environmental stress. Appears to act upstream of the JUN N-terminal pathway.

Involved in the maturation of Asn-linked oligosaccharides. Progressively trim alpha-1,2-linked mannose residues from Man(9)GlcNAc(2) to produce Man(5)GlcNAc(2)

Involved in glycoprotein quality control targeting of misfolded glycoproteins for degradation. It primarily trims a single alpha-1,2-linked mannose residue from Man(9)GlcNAc(2) to produce Man(8)GlcNAc(2), but at high enzyme concentrations, as found in the ER quality control compartment (ERQC), it further trims the carbohydrates to Man(5-6)GlcNAc(2).

Involved in the maturation of Asn-linked oligosaccharides. Trim alpha-1,2-linked mannose residues from Man(9)GlcNAc(2) to produce first Man(8)GlcNAc(2) then Man(6)GlcNAc and a small amount of Man(5)GlcNAc

Catalyzes the first committed step in the biosynthesis of complex N-glycans. It controls conversion of high mannose to complex N- glycans; the final hydrolytic step in the N-glycan maturation pathway.

Catalyzes the first committed step in the biosynthesis of complex N-glycans. It controls conversion of high mannose to complex N- glycans; the final hydrolytic step in the N-glycan maturation pathway

Necessary for the catabolism of N-linked carbohydrates released during glycoprotein turnover. Cleaves all known types of alpha-mannosidic linkages

Cleaves alpha 1,2-, alpha 1,3-, and alpha 1,6-linked mannose residues on cytoplasmatic free oligosaccharides generated by N- glycoprotein degradation pathways.

Negative regulator of NOD2 function. It down-regulates NOD2- induced processes such as activation of NF-kappa-B signaling, IL8 secretion and antibacterial response. Involved in JNK signaling pathway (By similarity).

Tyrosine carboxypeptidase that removes the C-terminal tyrosine residue of alpha-tubulin, thereby regulating microtubule dynamics and function. Also able to remove the C- terminal phenylalanine residue of alpha-tubulin TUBA8. Recognizes adjacent tubulin dimers along the same protofilament.

Acts as a transcription activator for MET and as a key regulator of HGF-MET signaling. Promotes cell motility, proliferation and hepatocyte growth factor (HGF)-dependent scattering in vitro and tumor growth and metastasis in vivo.

Removes ADP-ribose from aspartate and glutamate residues in proteins bearing a single ADP-ribose moiety. Inactive towards proteins bearing poly-ADP-ribose. Deacetylates O-acetyl-ADP ribose, a signaling molecule generated by the deacetylation of acetylated lysine residues in histones and other proteins. Plays a role in estrogen signaling. Binds to androgen receptor (AR) and amplifies the transactivation function of AR in response to androgen. May play an important role in carcinogenesis and/or progression of hormone-dependent cancers by feed-forward mechanism that activates ESR1 transactivation. Could be an ESR1 coactivator, providing a positive feedback regulatory loop for ESR1 signal transduction. Could be involved in invasive growth by down-regulating CDH1 in endometrial cancer cells. Enhances ESR1-mediated transcription activity.

Removes ADP-ribose from aspartate and glutamate residues in proteins bearing a single ADP-ribose moiety. Inactive towards proteins bearing poly-ADP-ribose. Deacetylates O-acetyl-ADP ribose, a signaling molecule generated by the deacetylation of acetylated lysine residues in histones and other proteins.

Regulates the macrophage function, by enhancing the resolution of inflammation and wound repair functions mediated by M2 macrophages. The regulation of macrophage function is, due at least in part, to its ability to inhibit glycolysis. May also play a role in trafficking of proteins via its interaction with UNC119 and UNC119B cargo adapters: may help the release of UNC119 and UNC119B cargo or the recycling of UNC119 and UNC119B. May play a role in ciliary membrane localization via its interaction with UNC119B and protein transport into photoreceptor cells.

Component of a transcriptional repressor complex together with MAX. In complex with MAX binds to the core DNA sequence 5'-CAC[GA]TG-3'. Antagonizes MYC transcriptional activity by competing with MYC for MAX binding. Binds to the TERT promoter and represses telomerase expression, possibly by interfering with MYC binding.

Transcriptional repressor. Binds with MAX to form a sequence- specific DNA-binding protein complex which recognizes the core sequence 5'-CAC[GA]TG-3'. Antagonizes MYC transcriptional activity by competing for MAX and suppresses MYC dependent cell transformation (By similarity).

Cell adhesion leukocyte receptor expressed by mucosal venules, helps to direct lymphocyte traffic into mucosal tissues including the Peyer patches and the intestinal lamina propria. It can bind both integrin alpha-4/beta-7 and L-selectin, regulating both the passage and retention of leukocytes. Isoform 2, lacking the mucin-like domain, may be specialized in supporting integrin alpha-4/beta-7- dependent adhesion strengthening, independent of L-selectin binding

Core component of the CTLH E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that selectively accepts ubiquitin from UBE2H and mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of the transcription factor HBP1. MAEA and RMND5A are both required for catalytic activity of the CTLH E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex. MAEA is required for normal cell proliferation. The CTLH E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex is not required for the degradation of enzymes involved in gluconeogenesis, such as FBP1. Plays a role in erythroblast enucleation during erythrocyte maturation and in the development of mature macrophages (By similarity). Mediates the attachment of erythroid cell to mature macrophages; this MAEA-mediated contact inhibits erythroid cell apoptosis. Participates in erythroblastic island formation, which is the functional unit of definitive erythropoiesis. Associates with F-actin to regulate actin distribution in erythroblasts and macrophages (By similarity). May contribute to nuclear architecture and cells division events (Probable).

Plays a central role during spermatogenesis by repressing transposable elements and preventing their mobilization, which is essential for the germline integrity. Acts via the piRNA metabolic process, which mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and governs the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons. Its association with piP-bodies suggests a participation in the secondary piRNAs metabolic process. Required for the localization of germ-cell factors to the meiotic nuage (By similarity).

Plays a role in the repression of RNA polymerase III-mediated transcription in response to changing nutritional, environmental and cellular stress conditions to balance the production of highly abundant tRNAs, 5S rRNA, and other small non-coding RNAs with cell growth and maintenance. Also plays a key role in cell fate determination by promoting mesorderm induction and adipocyte differentiation (By similarity). Mechanistically, associates with the RNA polymerase III clamp and thereby impairs its recruitment to the complex made of the promoter DNA, TBP and the initiation factor TFIIIB. When nutrients are available and mTOR kinase is active, MAF1 is hyperphosphorylated and RNA polymerase III is engaged in transcription. Stress-induced MAF1 dephosphorylation results in nuclear localization, increased targeting of gene-bound RNA polymerase III and a decrease in the transcriptional readout. Additionally, may also regulate RNA polymerase I and RNA polymerase II- dependent transcription through its ability to regulate expression of the central initiation factor TBP.

Transcription factor that activates insulin gene expression. Acts synergistically with NEUROD1/BETA2 and PDX1. Binds the insulin enhancer C1/RIPE3b element. Binds to consensus TRE-type MARE 5'-TGCTGACTCAGCA-3' DNA sequence.

Acts as a transcriptional activator or repressor. Plays a pivotal role in regulating lineage-specific hematopoiesis by repressing ETS1-mediated transcription of erythroid- specific genes in myeloid cells. Required for monocytic, macrophage, osteoclast, podocyte and islet beta cell differentiation. Involved in renal tubule survival and F4/80 maturation. Activates the insulin and glucagon promoters. Together with PAX6, transactivates weakly the glucagon gene promoter through the G1 element. SUMO modification controls its transcriptional activity and ability to specify macrophage fate. Binds element G1 on the glucagon promoter (By similarity). Involved either as an oncogene or as a tumor suppressor, depending on the cell context. Required for the transcriptional activation of HOXB3 in the rhombomere r5 in the hindbrain (By similarity).

Since they lack a putative transactivation domain, the small Mafs behave as transcriptional repressors when they dimerize among themselves. However, they seem to serve as transcriptional activators by dimerizing with other (usually larger) basic-zipper proteins, such as NFE2L1/NRF1, and recruiting them to specific DNA-binding sites. Interacts with the upstream promoter region of the oxytocin receptor gene. May be a transcriptional enhancer in the up-regulation of the oxytocin receptor gene at parturition.

Since they lack a putative transactivation domain, the small Mafs behave as transcriptional repressors when they dimerize among themselves. However, they seem to serve as transcriptional activators by dimerizing with other (usually larger) basic-zipper proteins, such as NFE2, NFE2L1 and NFE2L2, and recruiting them to specific DNA-binding sites. Small Maf proteins heterodimerize with Fos and may act as competitive repressors of the NFE2L2 transcription factor. Transcription factor, component of erythroid- specific transcription factor NFE2L2. Activates globin gene expression when associated with NFE2L2. May be involved in signal transduction of extracellular H(+) (By similarity).

Since they lack a putative transactivation domain, the small Mafs behave as transcriptional repressors when they dimerize among themselves. However, they act as transcriptional activators by dimerizing with other (usually larger) basic-zipper proteins, such as NFE2, NFE2L1/NRF1, NFE2L2/NRF2 and NFE2L3/NRF3, and recruiting them to specific DNA-binding sites. Small Maf proteins heterodimerize with Fos and may act as competitive repressors of the NF-E2 transcription factor.

Acts as a transcriptional activator or repressor. Involved in embryonic lens fiber cell development. Recruits the transcriptional coactivators CREBBP and/or EP300 to crystallin promoters leading to up- regulation of crystallin gene during lens fiber cell differentiation. Activates the expression of IL4 in T helper 2 (Th2) cells. Increases T- cell susceptibility to apoptosis by interacting with MYB and decreasing BCL2 expression. Together with PAX6, transactivates strongly the glucagon gene promoter through the G1 element. Activates transcription of the CD13 proximal promoter in endothelial cells. Represses transcription of the CD13 promoter in early stages of myelopoiesis by affecting the ETS1 and MYB cooperative interaction. Involved in the initial chondrocyte terminal differentiation and the disappearance of hypertrophic chondrocytes during endochondral bone development. Binds to the sequence 5'-[GT]G[GC]N[GT]NCTCAGNN-3' in the L7 promoter. Binds to the T-MARE (Maf response element) sites of lens-specific alpha- and beta-crystallin gene promoters. Binds element G1 on the glucagon promoter. Binds an AT-rich region adjacent to the TGC motif (atypical Maf response element) in the CD13 proximal promoter in endothelial cells (By similarity). When overexpressed, represses anti-oxidant response element (ARE)-mediated transcription. Involved either as an oncogene or as a tumor suppressor, depending on the cell context. Binds to the ARE sites of detoxifying enzyme gene promoters.

May be involved in transcriptional regulation through interaction with SNW1 and recruiting histone deactelyase HDAC1. May inhibit notch intracellular domain (NICD) transactivation. May play a role in embryonal development and tumor transformation or aspects of tumor progression. Antigen recognized on a melanoma by autologous cytolytic T-lymphocytes.

Reduces p53/TP53 transactivation function through recruitment of HDAC3 to p53/TP53 transcription sites. Also represses p73/TP73 activity. Proposed to enhance ubiquitin ligase activity of RING-type zinc finger-containing E3 ubiquitin-protein ligases. In vitro enhances ubiquitin ligase activity of TRIM28 and stimulates p53/TP53 ubiquitination by TRIM28 potentially in presence of Ubl-conjugating enzyme UBE2H. Proposed to act through recruitment and/or stabilization of the Ubl-conjugating enzyme (E2) at the E3:substrate complex. May play a role in embryonal development and tumor transformation or aspects of tumor progression. In vitro promotes cell viability in melanoma cell lines. Antigen recognized on a melanoma by autologous cytolytic T-lymphocytes. Negatively regulates acetylation and sumoylation of PML and represses PML-induced p53/TP53 acetylation and activation.

Activator of ubiquitin ligase activity of RING-type zinc finger-containing E3 ubiquitin-protein ligases that acts as a as repressor of autophagy. May enhance ubiquitin ligase activity of TRIM28 and stimulate p53/TP53 ubiquitination by TRIM28. Proposed to act through recruitment and/or stabilization of the Ubl-conjugating enzyme (E2) at the E3:substrate complex. May play a role in embryonal development and tumor transformation or aspects of tumor progression. In vitro promotes cell viability in melanoma cell lines. Antigen recognized on a melanoma by autologous cytolytic T-lymphocytes.

Regulates cell proliferation through the inhibition of cell cycle arrest at the G1 phase. Also negatively regulates p53-mediated apoptosis.

Activator of ubiquitin ligase activity of RING-type zinc finger-containing E3 ubiquitin-protein ligases that acts as a as repressor of autophagy. May enhance ubiquitin ligase activity of TRIM28 and stimulate p53/TP53 ubiquitination by TRIM28. Proposed to act through recruitment and/or stabilization of the Ubl-conjugating enzyme (E2) at the E3:substrate complex. May play a role in tumor transformation or aspects of tumor progression. In vitro promotes cell viability in melanoma cell lines.

Not known, though may play a role in embryonal development and tumor transformation or aspects of tumor progression

Acts as androgen receptor coregulator that increases androgen receptor activity by modulating the receptors interdomain interaction. May play a role in embryonal development and tumor transformation or aspects of tumor progression.

Not known, though may play a role tumor transformation or progression. In vitro promotes cell viability in melanoma cell lines.

May enhance ubiquitin ligase activity of RING-type zinc finger-containing E3 ubiquitin-protein ligases. Proposed to act through recruitment and/or stabilization of the Ubl-conjugating enzyme (E2) at the E3:substrate complex.

Proposed to enhance ubiquitin ligase activity of RING-type zinc finger-containing E3 ubiquitin-protein ligases. In vitro enhances ubiquitin ligase activity of TRIM28 and stimulates p53/TP53 ubiquitination in presence of Ubl-conjugating enzyme UBE2H leading to p53/TP53 degradation. Proposed to act through recruitment and/or stabilization of the Ubl-conjugating enzymes (E2) at the E3:substrate complex.

Involved in the apoptotic response after nerve growth factor (NGF) binding in neuronal cells. Inhibits cell cycle progression, and facilitates NGFR-mediated apoptosis. May act as a regulator of the function of DLX family members. May enhance ubiquitin ligase activity of RING-type zinc finger-containing E3 ubiquitin-protein ligases. Proposed to act through recruitment and/or stabilization of the Ubl- conjugating enzyme (E2) at the E3:substrate complex. Plays a role in the circadian rhythm regulation. May act as RORA co-regulator, modulating the expression of core clock genes such as BMAL1 and NFIL3, induced, or NR1D1, repressed.

Regulates the expression, localization to the plasma membrane and function of the sodium chloride cotransporters SLC12A1 and SLC12A3, two key components of salt reabsorption in the distal renal tubule.

Enhances ubiquitin ligase activity of RING-type zinc finger- containing E3 ubiquitin ligases. Proposed to act through recruitment and/or stabilization of the E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme at the E3:substrate complex. MAGEF1-NSMCE1 ubiquitin ligase complex promotes proteasomal degradation of MMS19, a key component of the cytosolic iron-sulfur protein assembly (CIA) machinery. Down-regulation of MMS19 impairs the activity of several DNA repair and metabolism enzymes such as ERCC2/XPD, FANCJ, RTEL1 and POLD1 that require iron-sulfur clusters as cofactors. May negatively regulate genome integrity by inhibiting homologous recombination-mediated double-strand break DNA repair.

May play a role as scaffolding protein at cell-cell junctions. May regulate acid-induced ASIC3 currents by modulating its expression at the cell surface (By similarity).

Seems to act as a scaffold molecule at synaptic junctions by assembling neurotransmitter receptors and cell adhesion proteins (By similarity). Plays a role in nerve growth factor (NGF)-induced recruitment of RAPGEF2 to late endosomes and neurite outgrowth (By similarity). May play a role in regulating activin-mediated signaling in neuronal cells (By similarity). Enhances the ability of PTEN to suppress AKT1 activation. Plays a role in receptor- mediated clathrin-dependent endocytosis which is required for ciliogenesis (By similarity).

Acts as a scaffolding protein at cell-cell junctions, thereby regulating various cellular and signaling processes. Cooperates with PTEN to modulate the kinase activity of AKT1. Its interaction with PTPRB and tyrosine phosphorylated proteins suggests that it may link receptor tyrosine phosphatase with its substrates at the plasma membrane. In polarized epithelial cells, involved in efficient trafficking of TGFA to the cell surface. Regulates the ability of LPAR2 to activate ERK and RhoA pathways. Regulates the JNK signaling cascade via its interaction with FZD4 and VANGL2.

Probably enhances ubiquitin ligase activity of RING-type zinc finger-containing E3 ubiquitin-protein ligases, possibly through recruitment and/or stabilization of the Ubl-conjugating enzyme (E2) at the E3:substrate complex. Acts as a regulator of retrograde transport via its interaction with VPS35. Recruited to retromer-containing endosomes and promotes the formation of 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains at 'Lys-220' of WASHC1 together with TRIM27, leading to promote endosomal F-actin assembly. Regulates the circadian clock by repressing the transcriptional activator activity of the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer. Significantly promotes the cytoplasmic accumulation of CLOCK (By similarity).

Accessory component of the STT3B-containing form of the N- oligosaccharyl transferase (OST) complex which catalyzes the transfer of a high mannose oligosaccharide from a lipid-linked oligosaccharide donor to an asparagine residue within an Asn-X-Ser/Thr consensus motif in nascent polypeptide chains. Involved in N- glycosylation of STT3B-dependent substrates. Specifically required for the glycosylation of a subset of acceptor sites that are near cysteine residues; in this function seems to act redundantly with TUSC3. In its oxidized form proposed to form transient mixed disulfides with a glycoprotein substrate to facilitate access of STT3B to the unmodified acceptor site. Has also oxidoreductase- independent functions in the STT3B-containing OST complex possibly involving substrate recognition.

Adhesion molecule that mediates interactions between myelinating cells and neurons by binding to neuronal sialic acid- containing gangliosides and to the glycoproteins RTN4R and RTN4RL2 (By similarity). Not required for initial myelination, but seems to play a role in the maintenance of normal axon myelination. Protects motoneurons against apoptosis, also after injury; protection against apoptosis is probably mediated via interaction with neuronal RTN4R and RTN4RL2. Required to prevent degeneration of myelinated axons in adults; this probably depends on binding to gangliosides on the axon cell membrane (By similarity). Negative regulator of neurite outgrowth; in dorsal root ganglion neurons the inhibition is mediated primarily via binding to neuronal RTN4R or RTN4RL2 and to a lesser degree via binding to neuronal gangliosides. In cerebellar granule cells the inhibition is mediated primarily via binding to neuronal gangliosides. In sensory neurons, inhibition of neurite extension depends only partially on RTN4R, RTN4RL2 and gangliosides. Inhibits axon longitudinal growth (By similarity). Inhibits axon outgrowth by binding to RTN4R (By similarity). Preferentially binds to alpha-2,3-linked sialic acid. Binds ganglioside Gt1b (By similarity).

Promotes sorting of SMDT1/EMRE in mitochondria by ensuring its maturation. Interacts with the transit peptide region of SMDT1/EMRE precursor protein in the mitochondrial matrix, leading to protect it against protein degradation by YME1L1, thereby ensuring SMDT1/EMRE maturation by the mitochondrial processing peptidase (PMPCA and PMPCB).

Meiosis-specific telomere-associated protein involved in meiotic telomere attachment to the nucleus inner membrane, a crucial step for homologous pairing and synapsis. Component of the MAJIN-TERB1- TERB2 complex, which promotes telomere cap exchange by mediating attachment of telomeric DNA to the inner nuclear membrane and replacement of the protective cap of telomeric chromosomes: in early meiosis, the MAJIN-TERB1-TERB2 complex associates with telomeric DNA and the shelterin/telosome complex. During prophase, the complex matures and promotes release of the shelterin/telosome complex from telomeric DNA. In the complex, MAJIN acts as the anchoring subunit to the nucleus inner membrane. MAJIN shows DNA-binding activity, possibly for the stabilization of telomere attachment on the nucleus inner membrane.

Essential for the regulation of ciliary length and required for the long-term survival of photoreceptors (By similarity). Phosphorylates FZR1 in a cell cycle-dependent manner. Plays a role in the transcriptional coactivation of AR. Could play an important function in spermatogenesis. May play a role in chromosomal stability in prostate cancer cells.

Member of the machinery of polarized transport. Required for the indirect transcytotic route at the step of the egress of the transcytosing cargo from perinuclear endosomes in order for it to travel to the apical surface via a raft-dependent pathway.

Microtubule-associated protein that exhibits cell cycle- dependent localization and can inhibit cell proliferation and migration.

Plays a role in the formation of tricellular tight junctions and of epithelial barriers (By similarity). Required for normal hearing via its role in the separation of the endolymphatic and perilymphatic spaces of the organ of Corti in the inner ear, and for normal survival of hair cells in the organ of Corti.

As a component of tight junctions, plays a role in paracellular ion conductivity.

Enhances production and/or transport of FGF19 and thus has a role in regulation of bile acid synthesis.

Protease that enhances BCL10-induced activation: acts via formation of CBM complexes that channel adaptive and innate immune signaling downstream of CARD domain-containing proteins (CARD9, CARD11 and CARD14) to activate NF-kappa-B and MAP kinase p38 pathways which stimulate expression of genes encoding pro-inflammatory cytokines and chemokines. Mediates BCL10 cleavage: MALT1-dependent BCL10 cleavage plays an important role in T-cell antigen receptor-induced integrin adhesion. Involved in the induction of T helper 17 cells (Th17) differentiation. Cleaves RC3H1 and ZC3H12A in response to T-cell receptor (TCR) stimulation which releases their cooperatively repressed targets to promote Th17 cell differentiation (By similarity). Also mediates cleavage of N4BP1 in T-cells following TCR-mediated activation, leading to N4BP1 inactivation. May also have ubiquitin ligase activity: binds to TRAF6, inducing TRAF6 oligomerization and activation of its ligase activity.

Could be an important component in vesicular trafficking cycling between the Golgi complex and the apical plasma membrane. Could be involved in myelin biogenesis and/or myelin function

Transactivates the HES3 promoter independently of NOTCH proteins. HES3 is a non-canonical NOTCH target gene which lacks binding sites for RBPJ.

Acts as a transcriptional coactivator for NOTCH proteins. Has been shown to amplify NOTCH-induced transcription of HES1. Enhances phosphorylation and proteolytic turnover of the NOTCH intracellular domain in the nucleus through interaction with CDK8. Binds to CREBBP/CBP which promotes nucleosome acetylation at NOTCH enhancers and activates transcription. Induces phosphorylation and localization of CREBBP to nuclear foci. Plays a role in hematopoietic development by regulating NOTCH-mediated lymphoid cell fate decisions.

Acts as a transcriptional coactivator for NOTCH proteins. Has been shown to amplify NOTCH-induced transcription of HES1. Potentiates activation by NOTCH3 and NOTCH4 more efficiently than MAML1 or MAML3.

Acts as a transcriptional coactivator for NOTCH proteins. Has been shown to amplify NOTCH-induced transcription of HES1.

Can function as a specific repressor of TGF-beta, activin, and BMP signaling through its interaction with the R-SMAD proteins. Antagonizes TGF-beta-induced cell proliferation arrest.

Exoglycosidase that cleaves the single beta-linked mannose residue from the non-reducing end of all N-linked glycoprotein oligosaccharides.

Selectively promotes the survival of dopaminergic neurons of the ventral mid-brain. Modulates GABAergic transmission to the dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra (By similarity). Enhances spontaneous, as well as evoked, GABAergic inhibitory postsynaptic currents in dopaminergic neurons (By similarity). Inhibits cell proliferation and endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress-induced cell death. Retained in the ER/sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) through association with the endoplasmic reticulum chaperone protein HSPA5 under normal conditions. Up-regulated and secreted by the ER/SR in response to ER stress and hypoxia. Following secretion by the ER/SR, directly binds to 3-O-sulfogalactosylceramide, a lipid sulfatide in the outer cell membrane of target cells. Sulfatide binding promotes its cellular uptake by endocytosis, and is required for its role in alleviating ER stress and cell toxicity under hypoxic and ER stress conditions.

NAD-dependent mitochondrial malic enzyme that catalyzes the oxidative decarboxylation of malate to pyruvate.

Catalyzes the oxidative decarboxylation of (S)-malate in the presence of NADP(+) and divalent metal ions, and decarboxylation of oxaloacetate.

Microtubule-associated protein (MAP) that plays a role in the regulation of cell division; promotes microtubule stability and participates in the organization of the spindle midzone and normal progress of cytokinesis.

Cotranslationally removes the N-terminal methionine from nascent proteins. The N-terminal methionine is often cleaved when the second residue in the primary sequence is small and uncharged (Met- Ala-, Cys, Gly, Pro, Ser, Thr, or Val). Required for normal progression through the cell cycle.

Removes the N-terminal methionine from nascent proteins. The N-terminal methionine is often cleaved when the second residue in the primary sequence is small and uncharged (Met-Ala-, Cys, Gly, Pro, Ser, Thr, or Val). Requires deformylation of the N(alpha)-formylated initiator methionine before it can be hydrolyzed (By similarity). May play a role in colon tumorigenesis.

Structural protein involved in the filamentous cross-bridging between microtubules and other skeletal elements

Facilitates tyrosination of alpha-tubulin in neuronal microtubules (By similarity). Phosphorylated MAP1B is required for proper microtubule dynamics and plays a role in the cytoskeletal changes that accompany neuronal differentiation and neurite extension. Possibly MAP1B binds to at least two tubulin subunits in the polymer, and this bridging of subunits might be involved in nucleating microtubule polymerization and in stabilizing microtubules. Acts as a positive cofactor in DAPK1-mediated autophagic vesicle formation and membrane blebbing.

Microtubule-associated protein that mediates aggregation of mitochondria resulting in cell death and genomic destruction (MAGD). Plays a role in anchoring the microtubule organizing center to the centrosomes. Binds to DNA. Plays a role in apoptosis. Involved in the formation of microtubule bundles (By similarity).

Cotranslationally removes the N-terminal methionine from nascent proteins. The N-terminal methionine is often cleaved when the second residue in the primary sequence is small and uncharged (Met- Ala-, Cys, Gly, Pro, Ser, Thr, or Val). The catalytic activity of human METAP2 toward Met-Val peptides is consistently two orders of magnitude higher than that of METAP1, suggesting that it is responsible for processing proteins containing N-terminal Met-Val and Met-Thr sequences in vivo

Involved in microtubule stabilization in many cell types, including neuronal cells (By similarity). Specifically has microtubule cold stabilizing activity (By similarity). Involved in dendrite morphogenesis and maintenance by regulating lysosomal trafficking via its interaction with TMEM106B. Regulates KIF5A- mediated axonal cargo transport (By similarity). Regulates axonal growth during neuron polarization (By similarity).

Microtubule-stabilizing protein that may play an important role during reorganization of microtubules during polarization and differentiation of epithelial cells. Associates with microtubules in a dynamic manner. May play a role in the formation of intercellular contacts. Colocalization with TRPV4 results in the redistribution of TRPV4 toward the membrane and may link cytoskeletal microfilaments.

Involved in organization of the bipolar mitotic spindle. Required for bipolar spindle assembly, mitosis progression and cytokinesis. May act by stabilizing interphase microtubules.

Stress-activated serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in cytokine production, endocytosis, reorganization of the cytoskeleton, cell migration, cell cycle control, chromatin remodeling, DNA damage response and transcriptional regulation. Following stress, it is phosphorylated and activated by MAP kinase p38-alpha/MAPK14, leading to phosphorylation of substrates. Phosphorylates serine in the peptide sequence, Hyd-X-R-X(2)-S, where Hyd is a large hydrophobic residue. Phosphorylates ALOX5, CDC25B, CDC25C, CEP131, ELAVL1, HNRNPA0, HSP27/HSPB1, KRT18, KRT20, LIMK1, LSP1, PABPC1, PARN, PDE4A, RCSD1, RPS6KA3, TAB3 and TTP/ZFP36. Phosphorylates HSF1; leading to the interaction with HSP90 proteins and inhibiting HSF1 homotrimerization, DNA-binding and transactivation activities. Mediates phosphorylation of HSP27/HSPB1 in response to stress, leading to the dissociation of HSP27/HSPB1 from large small heat-shock protein (sHsps) oligomers and impairment of their chaperone activities and ability to protect against oxidative stress effectively. Involved in inflammatory response by regulating tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and IL6 production post-transcriptionally: acts by phosphorylating AU-rich elements (AREs)-binding proteins ELAVL1, HNRNPA0, PABPC1 and TTP/ZFP36, leading to the regulation of the stability and translation of TNF and IL6 mRNAs. Phosphorylation of TTP/ZFP36, a major post-transcriptional regulator of TNF, promotes its binding to 14-3-3 proteins and reduces its ARE mRNA affinity, leading to inhibition of dependent degradation of ARE-containing transcripts. Phosphorylates CEP131 in response to cellular stress induced by ultraviolet irradiation which promotes binding of CEP131 to 14-3-3 proteins and inhibits formation of novel centriolar satellites. Also involved in late G2/M checkpoint following DNA damage through a process of post- transcriptional mRNA stabilization: following DNA damage, relocalizes from nucleus to cytoplasm and phosphorylates HNRNPA0 and PARN, leading to stabilization of GADD45A mRNA. Involved in toll-like receptor signaling pathway (TLR) in dendritic cells: required for acute TLR- induced macropinocytosis by phosphorylating and activating RPS6KA3.

Stress-activated serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in cytokines production, endocytosis, cell migration, chromatin remodeling and transcriptional regulation. Following stress, it is phosphorylated and activated by MAP kinase p38-alpha/MAPK14, leading to phosphorylation of substrates. Phosphorylates serine in the peptide sequence, Hyd-X-R-X(2)-S, where Hyd is a large hydrophobic residue. MAPKAPK2 and MAPKAPK3, share the same function and substrate specificity, but MAPKAPK3 kinase activity and level in protein expression are lower compared to MAPKAPK2. Phosphorylates HSP27/HSPB1, KRT18, KRT20, RCSD1, RPS6KA3, TAB3 and TTP/ZFP36. Mediates phosphorylation of HSP27/HSPB1 in response to stress, leading to dissociate HSP27/HSPB1 from large small heat-shock protein (sHsps) oligomers and impair their chaperone activities and ability to protect against oxidative stress effectively. Involved in inflammatory response by regulating tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and IL6 production post- transcriptionally: acts by phosphorylating AU-rich elements (AREs)- binding proteins, such as TTP/ZFP36, leading to regulate the stability and translation of TNF and IL6 mRNAs. Phosphorylation of TTP/ZFP36, a major post-transcriptional regulator of TNF, promotes its binding to 14-3-3 proteins and reduces its ARE mRNA affinity leading to inhibition of dependent degradation of ARE-containing transcript. Involved in toll-like receptor signaling pathway (TLR) in dendritic cells: required for acute TLR-induced macropinocytosis by phosphorylating and activating RPS6KA3. Also acts as a modulator of Polycomb-mediated repression.

Tumor suppressor serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in mTORC1 signaling and post-transcriptional regulation. Phosphorylates FOXO3, ERK3/MAPK6, ERK4/MAPK4, HSP27/HSPB1, p53/TP53 and RHEB. Acts as a tumor suppressor by mediating Ras-induced senescence and phosphorylating p53/TP53. Involved in post-transcriptional regulation of MYC by mediating phosphorylation of FOXO3: phosphorylation of FOXO3 leads to promote nuclear localization of FOXO3, enabling expression of miR-34b and miR-34c, 2 post-transcriptional regulators of MYC that bind to the 3'UTR of MYC transcript and prevent MYC translation. Acts as a negative regulator of mTORC1 signaling by mediating phosphorylation and inhibition of RHEB. Part of the atypical MAPK signaling via its interaction with ERK3/MAPK6 or ERK4/MAPK4: the precise role of the complex formed with ERK3/MAPK6 or ERK4/MAPK4 is still unclear, but the complex follows a complex set of phosphorylation events: upon interaction with atypical MAPK (ERK3/MAPK6 or ERK4/MAPK4), ERK3/MAPK6 (or ERK4/MAPK4) is phosphorylated and then mediates phosphorylation and activation of MAPKAPK5, which in turn phosphorylates ERK3/MAPK6 (or ERK4/MAPK4). Mediates phosphorylation of HSP27/HSPB1 in response to PKA/PRKACA stimulation, inducing F-actin rearrangement.

Involved in melanosome biogenesis by ensuring the stability of GPR143. Plays a vital role in the expression, stability, trafficking, and processing of melanocyte protein PMEL, which is critical to the formation of stage II melanosomes.

Catalyzes the reduction of N-oxygenated molecules, acting as a counterpart of cytochrome P450 and flavin-containing monooxygenases in metabolic cycles. As a component of prodrug-converting system, reduces a multitude of N-hydroxylated prodrugs particularly amidoximes, leading to increased drug bioavailability. May be involved in mitochondrial N(omega)-hydroxy-L-arginine (NOHA) reduction, regulating endogenous nitric oxide levels and biosynthesis. Postulated to cleave the N-OH bond of N-hydroxylated substrates in concert with electron transfer from NADH to cytochrome b5 reductase then to cytochrome b5, the ultimate electron donor that primes the active site for substrate reduction.

Pattern recognition receptor (PRR) which binds Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Also plays a role in binding of unopsonized particles by alveolar macrophages (By similarity). Binds to the secretoglobin SCGB3A2.

MARCKS is the most prominent cellular substrate for protein kinase C. This protein binds calmodulin, actin, and synapsin. MARCKS is a filamentous (F) actin cross-linking protein

Plus-end tracking protein (+TIP) that binds to the plus-end of microtubules and regulates the dynamics of the microtubule cytoskeleton. Promotes cytoplasmic microtubule nucleation and elongation. Involved in mitotic spindle positioning by stabilizing microtubules and promoting dynamic connection between astral microtubules and the cortex during mitotic chromosome segregation. Also acts as a regulator of minus-end microtubule organization: interacts with the complex formed by AKAP9 and PDE4DIP, leading to recruit CAMSAP2 to the Golgi apparatus, thereby tethering non-centrosomal minus-end microtubules to the Golgi, an important step for polarized cell movement. Promotes elongation of CAMSAP2-decorated microtubule stretches on the minus-end of microtubules. Acts as a regulator of autophagosome transport via interaction with CAMSAP2. May play a role in cell migration (By similarity).

May be involved in microtubule polymerization, and spindle function by stabilizing microtubules and anchoring them at centrosomes. May play a role in cell migration (By similarity).

Plus-end tracking protein (+TIP) that binds to the plus-end of microtubules and regulates the dynamics of the microtubule cytoskeleton. Promotes microtubule growth. May be involved in spindle function by stabilizing microtubules and anchoring them at centrosomes. Also acts as a regulator of minus- end microtubule organization: interacts with the complex formed by AKAP9 and PDE4DIP, leading to recruit CAMSAP2 to the Golgi apparatus, thereby tethering non-centrosomal minus-end microtubules to the Golgi, an important step for polarized cell movement. Promotes elongation of CAMSAP2-decorated microtubule stretches on the minus-end of microtubules.

Essential regulator of oogenesis required for female meiotic progression to repress transposable elements and preventing their mobilization, which is essential for the germline integrity. Probably acts via some RNA metabolic process, equivalent to the piRNA system in males, which mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of RNAs and governs the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons. Also required to protect from DNA double-strand breaks (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that may mediate ubiquitination of TFRC and CD86, and promote their subsequent endocytosis and sorting to lysosomes via multivesicular bodies. E3 ubiquitin ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfer the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Together with GOPC/CAL mediates the ubiquitination and lysosomal degradation of CFTR. Ubiquitinates and therefore mediates the degradation of DLG1. Regulates the intracellular trafficking and secretion of alpha1-antitrypsin/SERPINA1 and HP/haptoglobin via ubiquitination and degradation of the cargo receptor ERGIC3. Negatively regulates the antiviral and antibacterial immune response by repression of the NF-kB and type 1 IFN signaling pathways, via MARCHF2-mediated K48-linked polyubiquitination of IKBKG/NEMO, resulting in its proteosomal degradation. May be involved in endosomal trafficking through interaction with STX6.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which may be involved in endosomal trafficking. E3 ubiquitin ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfer the ubiquitin to targeted substrates.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that may mediate ubiquitination of MHC-I and CD4, and promote their subsequent endocytosis and sorting to lysosomes via multivesicular bodies. E3 ubiquitin ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfer the ubiquitin to targeted substrates.

Mitochondrial E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that plays a crucial role in the control of mitochondrial morphology by acting as a positive regulator of mitochondrial fission. May play a role in the prevention of cell senescence acting as a regulator of mitochondrial quality control. Promotes ubiquitination of FIS1, DNM1L and MFN1.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that promotes 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitination of target proteins, leading to their proteasomal degradation. Promotes ubiquitination of DIO2, leading to its degradation. Promotes ubiquitination of SQLE, leading to its degradation. E3 ubiquitin ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfer the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. May cooperate with UBE2G1.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which may specifically enhance the E2 activity of HIP2. E3 ubiquitin ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfer the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. May be involved in T-cell proliferation by regulating LIF secretion (By similarity). May play a role in lysosome homeostasis.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination of CD86 and MHC class II proteins, such as HLA-DR alpha and beta, and promotes their subsequent endocytosis and sorting to lysosomes via multivesicular bodies. May also promote ubiquitination and endocytosis of TFRC and FAS.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that may mediate ubiquitination of MHC-I, CD4 and ICAM1, and promote their subsequent endocytosis and sorting to lysosomes via multivesicular bodies. E3 ubiquitin ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfer the ubiquitin to targeted substrates.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase (Probable). E3 ubiquitin ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfer the ubiquitin to targeted substrates.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates polyubiquitination of CD4. E3 ubiquitin ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin- conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfer the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. May play a role in ubuquitin-dependent protein sorting in developmenting spermatids.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase. Involved in cell polarity and microtubule dynamics regulation. Phosphorylates DCX, MAP2 and MAP4. Phosphorylates the microtubule-associated protein MAPT/TAU. Involved in cell polarity by phosphorylating the microtubule-associated proteins MAP2, MAP4 and MAPT/TAU at KXGS motifs, causing detachment from microtubules, and their disassembly. Involved in the regulation of neuronal migration through its dual activities in regulating cellular polarity and microtubule dynamics, possibly by phosphorylating and regulating DCX. Also acts as a positive regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway, probably by mediating phosphorylation of dishevelled proteins (DVL1, DVL2 and/or DVL3).

Serine/threonine-protein kinase. Involved in cell polarity and microtubule dynamics regulation. Phosphorylates CRTC2/TORC2, DCX, HDAC7, KIF13B, MAP2, MAP4 and RAB11FIP2. Phosphorylates the microtubule-associated protein MAPT/TAU. Plays a key role in cell polarity by phosphorylating the microtubule-associated proteins MAP2, MAP4 and MAPT/TAU at KXGS motifs, causing detachment from microtubules, and their disassembly. Regulates epithelial cell polarity by phosphorylating RAB11FIP2. Involved in the regulation of neuronal migration through its dual activities in regulating cellular polarity and microtubule dynamics, possibly by phosphorylating and regulating DCX. Regulates axogenesis by phosphorylating KIF13B, promoting interaction between KIF13B and 14-3-3 and inhibiting microtubule-dependent accumulation of KIF13B. Also required for neurite outgrowth and establishment of neuronal polarity. Regulates localization and activity of some histone deacetylases by mediating phosphorylation of HDAC7, promoting subsequent interaction between HDAC7 and 14-3-3 and export from the nucleus. Also acts as a positive regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway, probably by mediating phosphorylation of dishevelled proteins (DVL1, DVL2 and/or DVL3). Modulates the developmental decision to build a columnar versus a hepatic epithelial cell apparently by promoting a switch from a direct to a transcytotic mode of apical protein delivery. Essential for the asymmetric development of membrane domains of polarized epithelial cells.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase. Involved in the specific phosphorylation of microtubule-associated proteins for MAP2 and MAP4. Phosphorylates the microtubule-associated protein MAPT/TAU. Phosphorylates CDC25C on 'Ser-216'. Regulates localization and activity of some histone deacetylases by mediating phosphorylation of HDAC7, promoting subsequent interaction between HDAC7 and 14-3-3 and export from the nucleus. Negatively regulates the Hippo signaling pathway and antagonizes the phosphorylation of LATS1. Cooperates with DLG5 to inhibit the kinase activity of STK3/MST2 toward LATS1. Phosphorylates PKP2 and KSR1.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase. Phosphorylates the microtubule-associated protein MAPT/TAU. Also phosphorylates the microtubule-associated proteins MAP2 and MAP4. Involved in regulation of the microtubule network, causing reorganization of microtubules into bundles. Required for the initiation of axoneme extension during cilium assembly. Regulates the centrosomal location of ODF2 and phosphorylates ODF2 in vitro. Plays a role in cell cycle progression, specifically in the G1/S checkpoint. Reduces neuronal cell survival. Plays a role in energy homeostasis by regulating satiety and metabolic rate (By similarity). Promotes adipogenesis by activating JNK1 and inhibiting the p38MAPK pathway, and triggers apoptosis by activating the JNK1 pathway (By similarity). Phosphorylates mTORC1 complex member RPTOR and acts as a negative regulator of the mTORC1 complex, probably due to disruption of the interaction between phosphorylated RPTOR and the RRAGA/RRAGC heterodimer which is required for mTORC1 activation.

Functions in the lectin pathway of complement, which performs a key role in innate immunity by recognizing pathogens through patterns of sugar moieties and neutralizing them. The lectin pathway is triggered upon binding of mannan-binding lectin (MBL) and ficolins to sugar moieties which leads to activation of the associated proteases MASP1 and MASP2. Functions as an endopeptidase and may activate MASP2 or C2 or directly activate C3 the key component of complement reaction. Isoform 2 may have an inhibitory effect on the activation of the lectin pathway of complement or may cleave IGFBP5. Also plays a role in development.

Serum protease that plays an important role in the activation of the complement system via mannose-binding lectin. After activation by auto-catalytic cleavage it cleaves C2 and C4, leading to their activation and to the formation of C3 convertase.

Microtubule-associated protein essential for correct brain development. Appears to link the dystrophin/utrophin network with microtubule filaments via the syntrophins. Phosphorylation of DMD or UTRN may modulate their affinities for associated proteins (By similarity).

Appears to link the dystrophin/utrophin network with microtubule filaments via the syntrophins. Phosphorylation of DMD or UTRN may modulate their affinities for associated proteins. Functions in a multi-protein complex in spermatid maturation. Regulates lipopolysaccharide-induced IL-12 synthesis in macrophages by forming a complex with TRAF6, resulting in the inhibition of TRAF6 NF-kappa-B activation (By similarity).

Transcriptional coactivator. Stimulates the transcriptional activity of MEF2C. Stimulates MYOD1 activity in part via MEF2, resulting in an enhancement of skeletal muscle differentiation (By similarity).

Required for normal mitochondrial ribosome function and mitochondrial translation. May play a role in ribosome biogenesis by preventing premature association of the 28S and 39S ribosomal subunits (Probable). Interacts with mitochondrial ribosomal protein L14 (MRPL14), probably blocking formation of intersubunit bridge B8, preventing association of the 28S and 39S ribosomal subunits (Probable). Addition to isolated mitochondrial ribosomal subunits partially inhibits translation, probably by interfering with the association of the 28S and 39S ribosomal subunits and the formation of functional ribosomes (Probable). May also participate in the assembly and/or regulation of the stability of the large subunit of the mitochondrial ribosome. May function as a ribosomal silencing factor (Probable).

Receptor for angiotensin 1-7 (By similarity). Acts specifically as a functional antagonist of AGTR1 (angiotensin-2 type 1 receptor), although it up-regulates AGTR1 receptor levels. Positive regulation of AGTR1 levels occurs through activation of the G-proteins GNA11 and GNAQ, and stimulation of the protein kinase C signaling cascade. The antagonist effect on AGTR1 function is probably due to AGTR1 being physically altered by MAS1.

Stabilizes the cyclin H-CDK7 complex to form a functional CDK-activating kinase (CAK) enzymatic complex. CAK activates the cyclin-associated kinases CDK1, CDK2, CDK4 and CDK6 by threonine phosphorylation. CAK complexed to the core-TFIIH basal transcription factor activates RNA polymerase II by serine phosphorylation of the repetitive C-terminal domain (CTD) of its large subunit (POLR2A), allowing its escape from the promoter and elongation of the transcripts. Involved in cell cycle control and in RNA transcription by RNA polymerase II.

Regulatory subunit of S-adenosylmethionine synthetase 2, an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of S-adenosylmethionine from methionine and ATP. Regulates MAT2A catalytic activity by changing its kinetic properties, increasing its affinity for L-methionine. Can bind NADP (in vitro).

Could play a significant role in the signal transduction of hematopoietic cells. May regulate tyrosine kinase activity of SRC- family members in brain by specifically phosphorylating their C- terminal regulatory tyrosine residue which acts as a negative regulatory site. It may play an inhibitory role in the control of T- cell proliferation.

Cartilage matrix protein is a major component of the extracellular matrix of non-articular cartilage. It binds to collagen

Major component of the extracellular matrix of cartilage and may play a role in the formation of extracellular filamentous networks

May play a role in transcription or may interact with other nuclear matrix proteins to form the internal fibrogranular network. In association with the SFPQ-NONO heteromer may play a role in nuclear retention of defective RNAs. Plays a role in the regulation of DNA virus-mediated innate immune response by assembling into the HDP-RNP complex, a complex that serves as a platform for IRF3 phosphorylation and subsequent innate immune response activation through the cGAS-STING pathway. Binds to N6-methyladenosine (m6A)-containing mRNAs and contributes to MYC stability by binding to m6A-containing MYC mRNAs. May bind to specific miRNA hairpins.

Required for innate immune defense against viruses. Acts downstream of DHX33, RIGI and IFIH1/MDA5, which detect intracellular dsRNA produced during viral replication, to coordinate pathways leading to the activation of NF-kappa-B, IRF3 and IRF7, and to the subsequent induction of antiviral cytokines such as IFNB and RANTES (CCL5). Peroxisomal and mitochondrial MAVS act sequentially to create an antiviral cellular state. Upon viral infection, peroxisomal MAVS induces the rapid interferon-independent expression of defense factors that provide short-term protection, whereas mitochondrial MAVS activates an interferon-dependent signaling pathway with delayed kinetics, which amplifies and stabilizes the antiviral response. May activate the same pathways following detection of extracellular dsRNA by TLR3. May protect cells from apoptosis.

Transcription regulator. Forms a sequence-specific DNA- binding protein complex with MYC or MAD which recognizes the core sequence 5'-CAC[GA]TG-3'. The MYC:MAX complex is a transcriptional activator, whereas the MAD:MAX complex is a repressor. May repress transcription via the recruitment of a chromatin remodeling complex containing H3 'Lys-9' histone methyltransferase activity. Represses MYC transcriptional activity from E-box elements.

Transcriptional regulator, potentially with dual roles in transcription initiation and termination.

Component of the ESCRT-I complex, a regulator of vesicular trafficking process. Required for the sorting of endocytic ubiquitinated cargos into multivesicular bodies. May be involved in the ligand-mediated internalization and down-regulation of EGF receptor.

Component of the ESCRT-I complex, a regulator of vesicular trafficking process. Required for the sorting of endocytic ubiquitinated cargos into multivesicular bodies

Putative nucleotidyltransferase required for several aspects of embryonic development including normal development of the eye. It is unclear whether it displays nucleotidyltransferase activity in vivo. Binds single-stranded RNA (ssRNA).

Required for several aspects of embryonic development including normal development of the eye.

May activate or repress transcription via interactions with sequence specific DNA-binding proteins (By similarity). Repression may be mediated at least in part by histone deacetylase activity (HDAC activity) (By similarity). Acts as a corepressor and in concert with CRY1, represses the transcription of the core circadian clock component PER2 (By similarity). Preferentially binds to dimethylated histone H3 'Lys-9' (H3K9me2) on the PER2 promoter (By similarity). Has a role in rRNA biogenesis together with PWP1.

Transcriptional repressor that binds CpG islands in promoters where the DNA is methylated at position 5 of cytosine within CpG dinucleotides. Binding is abolished by the presence of 7-mG that is produced by DNA damage by methylmethanesulfonate (MMS). Acts as transcriptional repressor and plays a role in gene silencing by recruiting ATF7IP, which in turn recruits factors such as the histone methyltransferase SETDB1. Probably forms a complex with SETDB1 and ATF7IP that represses transcription and couples DNA methylation and histone 'Lys-9' trimethylation. Isoform 1 and isoform 2 can also repress transcription from unmethylated promoters.

Binds CpG islands in promoters where the DNA is methylated at position 5 of cytosine within CpG dinucleotides. Binds hemimethylated DNA as well. Recruits histone deacetylases and DNA methyltransferases. Acts as transcriptional repressor and plays a role in gene silencing. Functions as a scaffold protein, targeting GATAD2A and GATAD2B to chromatin to promote repression. May enhance the activation of some unmethylated cAMP-responsive promoters.

Acts as transcriptional repressor and plays a role in gene silencing. Does not bind to DNA by itself. Binds to DNA with a preference for sites containing methylated CpG dinucleotides (in vitro). Binds to a lesser degree DNA containing unmethylated CpG dinucleotides. Recruits histone deacetylases and DNA methyltransferases.

Mismatch-specific DNA N-glycosylase involved in DNA repair. Has thymine glycosylase activity and is specific for G:T mismatches within methylated and unmethylated CpG sites. Can also remove uracil or 5-fluorouracil in G:U mismatches. Has no lyase activity. Was first identified as methyl-CpG-binding protein.

Binds to heterochromatin. Does not interact with either methylated or unmethylated DNA (in vitro)

Inhibits the MAP3K12 activity to induce the activation of the JNK/SAPK pathway. Component of the ATAC complex, a complex with histone acetyltransferase activity on histones H3 and H4.

Calcium-dependent lectin involved in innate immune defense. Binds mannose, fucose and N-acetylglucosamine on different microorganisms and activates the lectin complement pathway. Binds to late apoptotic cells, as well as to apoptotic blebs and to necrotic cells, but not to early apoptotic cells, facilitating their uptake by macrophages. May bind DNA. Upon SARS coronavirus-2/SARS-CoV-2 infection, activates the complement lectin pathway which leads to the inhibition SARS-CoV-2 infection and a reduction of the induced inflammatory response.

Endoribonuclease that catalyzes the hydrolysis of histone- coding pre-mRNA 3'-end. Involved in histone pre-mRNA processing during the S-phase of the cell cycle, which is required for entering/progressing through S-phase. Cleaves histone pre-mRNA at a major and a minor cleavage site after the 5'-ACCCA-3' and the 5'-ACCCACA-3' sequence, respectively, and located downstream of the stem-loop. May require the presence of the HDE element located at the histone pre-RNA 3'-end to avoid non-specific cleavage.

Acyl-CoA thioesterases are a group of enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of acyl-CoAs to the free fatty acid and coenzyme A (CoASH), providing the potential to regulate intracellular levels of acyl-CoAs, free fatty acids and CoASH. Has an acyl- CoA thioesterase activity towards the long chain fatty acyl-CoA thioester palmitoyl-CoA (hexadecanoyl-CoA; C16:0-CoA). Displays a substrate preference for fatty acyl-CoAs with chain-lengths C12-C18. Possesses beta-lactamase activity, catalyzing the hydrolysis of penicillin G and nitrocefin. Exhibits no activity towards other beta-lactam antibiotic classes including cephalosporins (cefotaxime) and carbapenems (imipenem).

Mediates pre-mRNA alternative splicing regulation. Acts either as activator or repressor of splicing on specific pre-mRNA targets. Inhibits cardiac troponin-T (TNNT2) pre-mRNA exon inclusion but induces insulin receptor (IR) pre-mRNA exon inclusion in muscle. Antagonizes the alternative splicing activity pattern of CELF proteins. Regulates the TNNT2 exon 5 skipping through competition with U2AF2. Inhibits the formation of the spliceosome A complex on intron 4 of TNNT2 pre-mRNA. Binds to the stem-loop structure within the polypyrimidine tract of TNNT2 intron 4 during spliceosome assembly. Binds to the 5'-YGCU(U/G)Y-3'consensus sequence. Binds to the IR RNA. Binds to expanded CUG repeat RNA, which folds into a hairpin structure containing GC base pairs and bulged, unpaired U residues.

Mediates pre-mRNA alternative splicing regulation. Acts either as activator or repressor of splicing on specific pre-mRNA targets. Inhibits cardiac troponin-T (TNNT2) pre-mRNA exon inclusion but induces insulin receptor (IR) pre-mRNA exon inclusion in muscle. Antagonizes the alternative splicing activity pattern of CELF proteins. May play a role in myotonic dystrophy pathophysiology (DM). Could inhibit terminal muscle differentiation, acting at approximately the time of myogenin induction.

Acyltransferase which catalyzes the transfert of an acyl group from an acyl-CoA towards a lysophospholipid producing a phospholipid and participates in the reacylation step of the phospholipid remodeling pathway also known as the Lands cycle. Acts on lysophosphatidylserine (1-acyl-2-hydroxy-sn- glycero-3-phospho-L-serine or LPS) and lysophosphatidylethanolamine (1- acyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphoethanolamine or LPE), and to a lesser extend lysophosphatidylcholine. Prefers oleoyl-CoA as the acyl donor and 1-oleoyl-LPE as acceptor. May play a role in neurite outgrowth during neuronal differentiation (By similarity).

Acyltransferase which catalyzes the transfert of an acyl group from an acyl-CoA to a lysophospholipid leading to the production of a phospholipid and participates in the reacylation step of the phospholipid remodeling pathway also known as the Lands cycle. Catalyzes preferentially the acylation of lysophosphatidylethanolamine (1-acyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphoethanolamine or LPE) and lysophosphatidic acid (LPA) and to a lesser extend lysophosphatidylcholine (LPC) and lysophosphatidylserine (LPS). Prefers oleoyl-CoA as the acyl donor. May be involved in chondrocyte differentiation (By similarity).

Catalyzes ghrelin acylation at 'Ser-3' using preferentially octanoyl-CoA, hexanoyl-CoA and decanoyl-CoA as acyl-CoA donors leading to ghrelin activity. In vitro uses also acyl-CoA donors of different lengths from short-chain (C2) to long-chain fatty acids (C16) knowing that acyl-CoA donors from butanoyl-CoA (C4) to dodecanoyl-CoA (C12) are more efficient compared to longer acyl-CoA donors, such as myristoyl- CoA (C14) and palmitoyl-CoA (C16) that are not efficient.

Lysophospholipid O-acyltransferase (LPLAT) that catalyzes the reacylation step of the phospholipid remodeling process also known as the Lands cycle. Catalyzes transfer of the fatty acyl chain from fatty acyl-CoA to 1- acyl lysophospholipid to form various classes of phospholipids. Converts 1-acyl lysophosphatidylcholine (LPC) into phosphatidylcholine (PC) (LPCAT activity), 1-acyl lysophosphatidylserine (LPS) into phosphatidylserine (PS) (LPSAT activity) and 1-acyl lysophosphatidylethanolamine (LPE) into phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) (LPEAT activity). Favors polyunsaturated fatty acyl-CoAs as acyl donors compared to saturated fatty acyl-CoAs. Has higher activity for LPC acyl acceptors compared to LPEs and LPSs. Can also transfer the fatty acyl chain from fatty acyl-CoA to 1-O-alkyl lysophospholipid or 1-O-alkenyl lysophospholipid with lower efficiency (By similarity). Acts as a major LPC O-acyltransferase in liver and intestine. As a component of the liver X receptor/NR1H3 or NR1H2 signaling pathway, mainly catalyzes the incorporation of arachidonate into PCs of endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membranes, increasing membrane dynamics and enabling triacylglycerols transfer to nascent very low- density lipoprotein (VLDL) particles. Promotes processing of sterol regulatory protein SREBF1 in hepatocytes, likely by facilitating the translocation of SREBF1-SCAP complex from ER to the Golgi apparatus (By similarity). Participates in mechanisms by which the liver X receptor/NR1H3 or NR1H2 signaling pathway counteracts lipid-induced ER stress response and inflammation. Down-regulates hepatic inflammation by limiting arachidonic acid availability for synthesis of inflammatory eicosanoids, such as prostaglandins (By similarity). In enterocytes, acts as a component of a gut-brain feedback loop that coordinates dietary lipid absorption and food intake. Regulates the abundance of PCs containing linoleate and arachidonate in enterocyte membranes, enabling passive diffusion of fatty acids and cholesterol across the membrane for efficient chylomicron assembly (By similarity). In the intestinal crypt, acts as a component of dietary-responsive phospholipid-cholesterol axis, regulating the biosynthesis of cholesterol and its mitogenic effects on intestinal stem cells (By similarity).

Acyltransferase which catalyzes the transfert of an acyl group from an acyl-CoA to a lysophosphatidylinositol (1- acylglycerophosphatidylinositol or LPI) leading to the production of a phosphatidylinositol (1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphoinositol or PI) and participates in the reacylation step of the phospholipid remodeling pathway also known as the Lands cycle. Prefers arachidonoyl-CoA as the acyl donor, thus contributing to the regulation of free levels arachidonic acid in cell. In liver, participates in the regulation of triglyceride metabolism through the phosphatidylinositol acyl-chain remodeling regulation.

Myosin-binding protein which plays a role in cardiac function. Seems to regulate conduction in the atria and ventricular conduction systems.

The classic group of MBP isoforms (isoform 4-isoform 14) are with PLP the most abundant protein components of the myelin membrane in the CNS. They have a role in both its formation and stabilization. The smaller isoforms might have an important role in remyelination of denuded axons in multiple sclerosis. The non-classic group of MBP isoforms (isoform 1-isoform 3/Golli-MBPs) may preferentially have a role in the early developing brain long before myelination, maybe as components of transcriptional complexes, and may also be involved in signaling pathways in T-cells and neural cells. Differential splicing events combined with optional post-translational modifications give a wide spectrum of isomers, with each of them potentially having a specialized function. Induces T-cell proliferation.

May have a role in the ERAD pathway required for clearance of misfolded proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Promotes survival of motor neurons, probably by protecting against ER stress.

Chromatin reader component of the NuA4 histone acetyltransferase complex, a multiprotein complex involved in transcriptional activation of select genes principally by acetylation of nucleosomal histones H4 and H2A. The NuA4 complex plays a direct role in repair of DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) by promoting homologous recombination (HR). MBTD1 specifically recognizes and binds monomethylated and dimethylated 'Lys-20' on histone H4 (H4K20me1 and H4K20me2, respectively). In the NuA4 complex, MBTD1 promotes recruitment of the complex to H4K20me marks by competing with TP53BP1 for binding to H4K20me. Following recruitment to H4K20me at DNA breaks, the NuA4 complex catalyzes acetylation of 'Lys-15' on histone H2A (H2AK15), blocking the ubiquitination mark required for TP53BP1 localization at DNA breaks, thereby promoting homologous recombination (HR).

Serine protease that cleaves after hydrophobic or small residues, provided that Arg or Lys is in position P4: known substrates include SREBF1/SREBP1, SREBF2/SREBP2, BDNF, GNPTAB, ATF6, ATF6B and FAM20C. Cleaves substrates after Arg-Ser-Val-Leu (SREBP2), Arg-His-Leu-Leu (ATF6), Arg-Gly-Leu-Thr (BDNF) and its own propeptide after Arg-Arg-Leu-Leu. Catalyzes the first step in the proteolytic activation of the sterol regulatory element-binding proteins (SREBPs) SREBF1/SREBP1 and SREBF2/SREBP2. Also mediates the first step in the proteolytic activation of the cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-6 (ATF6 and ATF6B). Mediates the protein cleavage of GNPTAB into subunit alpha and beta, thereby participating in biogenesis of lysosomes. Cleaves the propeptide from FAM20C which is required for FAM20C secretion from the Golgi apparatus membrane and for enhancement of FAM20C kinase activity, promoting osteoblast differentiation and biomineralization. Involved in the regulation of M6P-dependent Golgi-to-lysosome trafficking of lysosomal enzymes. It is required for the activation of CREB3L2/BBF2H7, a transcriptional activator of MIA3/TANGO and other genes controlling mega vesicle formation. Therefore, it plays a key role in the regulation of mega vesicle-mediated collagen trafficking.

Zinc metalloprotease that mediates intramembrane proteolysis of proteins such as ATF6, ATF6B, SREBF1/SREBP1 and SREBF2/SREBP2. Catalyzes the second step in the proteolytic activation of the sterol regulatory element-binding proteins (SREBPs) SREBF1/SREBP1 and SREBF2/SREBP2: cleaves SREBPs within the first transmembrane segment, thereby releasing the N- terminal segment with a portion of the transmembrane segment attached. Mature N-terminal SREBP fragments shuttle to the nucleus and activate gene transcription. Also mediates the second step in the proteolytic activation of the cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-6 (ATF6 and ATF6B). Involved in intramembrane proteolysis during bone formation.

Receptor for MSH (alpha, beta and gamma) and ACTH. This receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylate cyclase. Required for expression of anticipatory patterns of activity and wakefulness during periods of limited nutrient availability and for the normal regulation of circadian clock activity in the brain.

Receptor specific to the heptapeptide core common to adrenocorticotropic hormone and alpha-, beta-, and gamma-MSH. Plays a central role in energy homeostasis and somatic growth. This receptor is mediated by G proteins that stimulate adenylate cyclase (cAMP).

Receptor for MSH (alpha, beta and gamma) and ACTH. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylate cyclase. This receptor is a possible mediator of the immunomodulation properties of melanocortins

Recruiter that couples transcriptional factors to general transcription apparatus and thereby modulates transcription regulation and chromatin formation. Can both act as an activator or a repressor depending on the context. Required for HUSH-mediated heterochromatin formation and gene silencing. Mediates MBD1-dependent transcriptional repression, probably by recruiting complexes containing SETDB1. Stabilizes SETDB1, is required to stimulate histone methyltransferase activity of SETDB1 and facilitates the conversion of dimethylated to trimethylated H3 'Lys-9' (H3K9me3). The complex formed with MBD1 and SETDB1 represses transcription and couples DNA methylation and histone H3 'Lys-9' trimethylation (H3K9me3). Facilitates telomerase TERT and TERC gene expression by SP1 in cancer cells.

Recruiter that couples transcriptional factors to general transcription apparatus and thereby modulates transcription regulation and chromatin formation. Can both act as an activator or a repressor depending on the context. Mediates MBD1-dependent transcriptional repression, probably by recruiting complexes containing SETDB1. The complex formed with MBD1 and SETDB1 represses transcription and probably couples DNA methylation and histone H3 'Lys-9' trimethylation (H3K9me3) activity (Probable).

Mediates the electroneutral exchange of acylcarnitines (O- acyl-(R)-carnitine or L-acylcarnitine) of different acyl chain lengths (ranging from O-acetyl-(R)-carnitine to long-chain O-acyl-(R)- carnitines) with free carnitine ((R)-carnitine or L-carnitine) across the mitochondrial inner membrane, via a ping-pong mechanism (Probable). Key player in the mitochondrial oxidation pathway, it translocates the fatty acids in the form of acylcarnitines into the mitochondrial matrix, where the carnitine palmitoyltransferase 2 (CPT-2) activates them to undergo fatty acid beta-oxidation (Probable). Catalyzes the unidirectional transport (uniport) of carnitine at lower rates than the antiport (exchange).

Biotin-attachment subunit of the 3-methylcrotonyl-CoA carboxylase, an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of 3- methylcrotonyl-CoA to 3-methylglutaconyl-CoA, a critical step for leucine and isovaleric acid catabolism.

Carboxyltransferase subunit of the 3-methylcrotonyl-CoA carboxylase, an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of 3- methylcrotonyl-CoA to 3-methylglutaconyl-CoA, a critical step for leucine and isovaleric acid catabolism.

Bifunctional mRNA-capping enzyme exhibiting RNA 5'- triphosphate monophosphatase activity in the N-terminal part and mRNA guanylyltransferase activity in the C-terminal part. Catalyzes the first two steps of cap formation: by removing the gamma-phosphate from the 5'-triphosphate end of nascent mRNA to yield a diphosphate end, and by transferring the GMP moiety of GTP to the 5'-diphosphate terminus of RNA via a covalent enzyme-GMP reaction intermediate.

Methylmalonyl-CoA epimerase involved in propionyl-CoA metabolism.

Catalytic subunit of the mRNA-capping methyltransferase RNMT:RAMAC complex that methylates the N7 position of the added guanosine to the 5'-cap structure of mRNAs. Binds RNA containing 5'-terminal GpppC.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor that catalyzes guanine nucleotide exchange on RHOA and CDC42, and thereby contributes to the regulation of RHOA and CDC42 signaling pathways (By similarity). Seems to lack activity with RAC1. Becomes activated and highly tumorigenic by truncation of the N-terminus (By similarity). Isoform 5 activates CDC42.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) that modulates the Rho family of GTPases. Promotes the conversion of some member of the Rho family GTPase from the GDP-bound to the GTP-bound form. Isoform 1 exhibits no activity toward RHOA, RAC1 or CDC42. Isoform 2 exhibits decreased GEF activity toward CDC42. Isoform 3 exhibits a weak but significant activity toward RAC1 and CDC42. Isoform 4 exhibits significant activity toward RHOA and CDC42. The truncated DBL oncogene is active toward RHOA, RAC1 and CDC42

The MCFD2-LMAN1 complex forms a specific cargo receptor for the ER-to-Golgi transport of selected proteins. Plays a role in the secretion of coagulation factors.

Receptor for melanin-concentrating hormone, coupled to both G proteins that inhibit adenylyl cyclase and G proteins that activate phosphoinositide hydrolysis.

Receptor for melanin-concentrating hormone, coupled to G proteins that activate phosphoinositide hydrolysis

MCH may act as a neurotransmitter or neuromodulator in a broad array of neuronal functions directed toward the regulation of goal-directed behavior, such as food intake, and general arousal. May also have a role in spermatocyte differentiation

Transcription regulator specifically required for multiciliate cell differentiation. Acts in a multiprotein complex containing E2F4 and E2F5 that binds and activates genes required for centriole biogenesis. Required for the deuterosome- mediated acentriolar pathway. Plays a role in mitotic cell cycle progression by promoting cell cycle exit. Modulates GMNN activity by reducing its affinity for CDT1.

Involved in the regulation of apoptosis versus cell survival, and in the maintenance of viability but not of proliferation. Mediates its effects by interactions with a number of other regulators of apoptosis. Isoform 1 inhibits apoptosis. Isoform 2 promotes apoptosis.

Nonselective cation channel probably playing a role in the regulation of membrane trafficking events and of metal homeostasis. Proposed to play a major role in Ca(2+) release from late endosome and lysosome vesicles to the cytoplasm, which is important for many lysosome-dependent cellular events, including the fusion and trafficking of these organelles, exocytosis and autophagy. Required for efficient uptake of large particles in macrophages in which Ca(2+) release from the lysosomes triggers lysosomal exocytosis. May also play a role in phagosome-lysosome fusion (By similarity). Involved in lactosylceramide trafficking indicative for a role in the regulation of late endocytic membrane fusion/fission events. By mediating lysosomal Ca(2+) release is involved in regulation of mTORC1 signaling and in mTOR/TFEB-dependent lysosomal adaptation to environmental cues such as nutrient levels. Seems to act as lysosomal active oxygen species (ROS) sensor involved in ROS- induced TFEB activation and autophagy. Functions as a Fe(2+) permeable channel in late endosomes and lysosomes. Proposed to play a role in zinc homeostasis probably implicating its association with TMEM163 In adaptive immunity, TRPML2 and TRPML1 may play redundant roles in the function of the specialized lysosomes of B cells (By similarity).

Nonselective cation channel probably playing a role in the regulation of membrane trafficking events. Acts as Ca(2+)-permeable cation channel with inwardly rectifying activity. May activate ARF6 and be involved in the trafficking of GPI-anchored cargo proteins to the cell surface via the ARF6- regulated recycling pathway. May play a role in immune processes. In adaptive immunity, TRPML2 and TRPML1 may play redundant roles in the function of the specialized lysosomes of B cells (By similarity). In the innate immune response, may play a role in the regulation of chemokine secretion and macrophage migration (By similarity). Through a possible and probably tissue-specific heteromerization with MCOLN1 may be at least in part involved in many lysosome-dependent cellular events.

Nonselective ligand-gated cation channel probably playing a role in the regulation of membrane trafficking events. Acts as Ca(2+)- permeable cation channel with inwardly rectifying activity. Mediates release of Ca(2+) from endosomes to the cytoplasm, contributes to endosomal acidification and is involved in the regulation of membrane trafficking and fusion in the endosomal pathway. Does not seem to act as mechanosensory transduction channel in inner ear sensory hair cells. Proposed to play a critical role at the cochlear stereocilia ankle-link region during hair-bundle growth (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of autophagy. Through association with GABARAPL2 may be involved in autophagosome formation possibly providing Ca(2+) for the fusion process (By similarity). Through a possible and probably tissue- specific heteromerization with MCOLN1 may be at least in part involved in many lysosome-dependent cellular events. Possible heteromeric ion channel assemblies with TRPV5 show pharmacological similarity with TRPML3.

Acts as a replication initiation factor that brings together the MCM2-7 helicase and the DNA polymerase alpha/primase complex in order to initiate DNA replication. Additionally, plays a role in preventing DNA damage during replication. Key effector of the RBBP6 and ZBTB38-mediated regulation of DNA-replication and common fragile sites stability; acts as a direct target of transcriptional repression by ZBTB38.

Acts as component of the MCM2-7 complex (MCM complex) which is the replicative helicase essential for 'once per cell cycle' DNA replication initiation and elongation in eukaryotic cells. Core component of CDC45-MCM-GINS (CMG) helicase, the molecular machine that unwinds template DNA during replication, and around which the replisome is built. The active ATPase sites in the MCM2-7 ring are formed through the interaction surfaces of two neighboring subunits such that a critical structure of a conserved arginine finger motif is provided in trans relative to the ATP-binding site of the Walker A box of the adjacent subunit. The six ATPase active sites, however, are likely to contribute differentially to the complex helicase activity. Required for the entry in S phase and for cell division. Plays a role in terminally differentiated hair cells development of the cochlea and induces cells apoptosis.

Acts as component of the MCM2-7 complex (MCM complex) which is the replicative helicase essential for 'once per cell cycle' DNA replication initiation and elongation in eukaryotic cells. Core component of CDC45-MCM-GINS (CMG) helicase, the molecular machine that unwinds template DNA during replication, and around which the replisome is built. The active ATPase sites in the MCM2-7 ring are formed through the interaction surfaces of two neighboring subunits such that a critical structure of a conserved arginine finger motif is provided in trans relative to the ATP-binding site of the Walker A box of the adjacent subunit. The six ATPase active sites, however, are likely to contribute differentially to the complex helicase activity. Required for the entry in S phase and for cell division (Probable).

Acts as component of the MCM2-7 complex (MCM complex) which is the replicative helicase essential for 'once per cell cycle' DNA replication initiation and elongation in eukaryotic cells. Core component of CDC45-MCM-GINS (CMG) helicase, the molecular machine that unwinds template DNA during replication, and around which the replisome is built. The active ATPase sites in the MCM2-7 ring are formed through the interaction surfaces of two neighboring subunits such that a critical structure of a conserved arginine finger motif is provided in trans relative to the ATP-binding site of the Walker A box of the adjacent subunit. The six ATPase active sites, however, are likely to contribute differentially to the complex helicase activity.

Acts as component of the MCM2-7 complex (MCM complex) which is the replicative helicase essential for 'once per cell cycle' DNA replication initiation and elongation in eukaryotic cells. Core component of CDC45-MCM-GINS (CMG) helicase, the molecular machine that unwinds template DNA during replication, and around which the replisome is built. The active ATPase sites in the MCM2- 7 ring are formed through the interaction surfaces of two neighboring subunits such that a critical structure of a conserved arginine finger motif is provided in trans relative to the ATP-binding site of the Walker A box of the adjacent subunit. The six ATPase active sites, however, are likely to contribute differentially to the complex helicase activity.

Acts as component of the MCM2-7 complex (MCM complex) which is the replicative helicase essential for 'once per cell cycle' DNA replication initiation and elongation in eukaryotic cells. Core component of CDC45-MCM-GINS (CMG) helicase, the molecular machine that unwinds template DNA during replication, and around which the replisome is built. The active ATPase sites in the MCM2-7 ring are formed through the interaction surfaces of two neighboring subunits such that a critical structure of a conserved arginine finger motif is provided in trans relative to the ATP-binding site of the Walker A box of the adjacent subunit. The six ATPase active sites, however, are likely to contribute differentially to the complex helicase activity. Required for S-phase checkpoint activation upon UV-induced damage.

Component of the MCM8-MCM9 complex, a complex involved in the repair of double-stranded DNA breaks (DBSs) and DNA interstrand cross- links (ICLs) by homologous recombination (HR). Required for DNA resection by the MRE11-RAD50-NBN/NBS1 (MRN) complex by recruiting the MRN complex to the repair site and by promoting the complex nuclease activity. Probably by regulating the localization of the MNR complex, indirectly regulates the recruitment of downstream effector RAD51 to DNA damage sites including DBSs and ICLs. The MCM8-MCM9 complex is dispensable for DNA replication and S phase progression. However, may play a non-essential for DNA replication: may be involved in the activation of the prereplicative complex (pre-RC) during G(1) phase by recruiting CDC6 to the origin recognition complex (ORC). Probably by regulating HR, plays a key role during gametogenesis (By similarity). Stabilizes MCM9 protein.

Component of the MCM8-MCM9 complex, a complex involved in the repair of double-stranded DNA breaks (DBSs) and DNA interstrand cross- links (ICLs) by homologous recombination (HR). Required for DNA resection by the MRE11-RAD50-NBN/NBS1 (MRN) complex by recruiting the MRN complex to the repair site and by promoting the complex nuclease activity. Probably by regulating the localization of the MRN complex, indirectly regulates the recruitment of downstream effector RAD51 to DNA damage sites including DBSs and ICLs. Acts as a helicase in DNA mismatch repair (MMR) following DNA replication errors to unwind the mismatch containing DNA strand. In addition, recruits MLH1, a component of the MMR complex, to chromatin. The MCM8-MCM9 complex is dispensable for DNA replication and S phase progression. Probably by regulating HR, plays a key role during gametogenesis (By similarity).

Associated component of the MCM complex that acts as a regulator of DNA replication. Binds to the MCM complex during late S phase and promotes the disassembly of the MCM complex from chromatin, thereby acting as a key regulator of pre-replication complex (pre-RC) unloading from replicated DNA. Can dissociate the MCM complex without addition of ATP; probably acts by destabilizing interactions of each individual subunits of the MCM complex. Required for sister chromatid cohesion.

Plays an important role in meiotic recombination and associated DNA double-strand break repair.

Implicated in chromosome condensation and DNA damage induced cellular responses. May play a role in neurogenesis and regulation of the size of the cerebral cortex.

Acts as a cofactor for complement factor I, a serine protease which protects autologous cells against complement-mediated injury by cleaving C3b and C4b deposited on host tissue. May be involved in the fusion of the spermatozoa with the oocyte during fertilization. Also acts as a costimulatory factor for T-cells which induces the differentiation of CD4+ into T-regulatory 1 cells. T-regulatory 1 cells suppress immune responses by secreting interleukin-10, and therefore are thought to prevent autoimmunity.

The phosphorylation status of MCRIP1 functions as a molecular switch to regulate epithelial-mesenchymal transition. Unphosphorylated MCRIP1 binds to and inhibits the transcriptional corepressor CTBP(s). When phosphorylated by MAPK/ERK, MCRIP1 releases CTBP(s) resulting in transcriptional silencing of the E-cadherin gene and induction of epithelial-mesenchymal transition.

Modulates the transcription repressor activity of DAXX by recruiting it to the nucleolus. As part of the NSL complex it may be involved in acetylation of nucleosomal histone H4 on several lysine residues. Putative regulatory component of the chromatin remodeling INO80 complex which is involved in transcriptional regulation, DNA replication and probably DNA repair. May also be an inhibitor of TERT telomerase activity. Binds to G-quadruplex structures in mRNA. Binds to RNA homomer poly(G) and poly(U).

Receptor for both mineralocorticoids (MC) such as aldosterone and glucocorticoids (GC) such as corticosterone or cortisol. Binds to mineralocorticoid response elements (MRE) and transactivates target genes. The effect of MC is to increase ion and water transport and thus raise extracellular fluid volume and blood pressure and lower potassium levels.

Involved in sperm motility. Its absence is associated with genetic background dependent male infertility. Infertility may be due to reduced sperm motility in the female reproductive tract and inability to penetrate the oocyte zona pellucida (By similarity).

Calcium sensor which is essential for the stabilization of normal baseline neurotransmitter release and for the induction and long-term maintenance of presynaptic homeostatic plasticity.

Anti-oncogene that plays a role in cell cycle regulation; decreases cell doubling time and anchorage-dependent growth; shortens the duration of G1 transit time and G1/S transition. When constitutively expressed, increases CDK4 and CDK6 kinases activity and CCND1/cyclin D1 protein level, as well as G1 cyclin/CDK complex formation. Involved in translation initiation; promotes recruitment of aminoacetyled initiator tRNA to P site of 40S ribosomes. Can promote release of deacylated tRNA and mRNA from recycled 40S subunits following ABCE1-mediated dissociation of post-termination ribosomal complexes into subunits. Plays a role as translation enhancer; recruits the density-regulated protein/DENR and binds to the cap complex of the 5'-terminus of mRNAs, subsequently altering the mRNA translation profile; up-regulates protein levels of BCL2L2, TFDP1, MRE11, CCND1 and E2F1, while mRNA levels remains constant. Hyperactivates DNA damage signaling pathway; increased gamma-irradiation-induced phosphorylation of histone H2AX, and induces damage foci formation. Increases the overall number of chromosomal abnormalities such as larger chromosomes formation and multiple chromosomal fusions when overexpressed in gamma- irradiated cells. May play a role in promoting lymphoid tumor development: lymphoid cell lines overexpressing MCTS1 exhibit increased growth rates and display increased protection against apoptosis. May contribute to the pathogenesis and progression of breast cancer via promotion of angiogenesis through the decline of inhibitory THBS1/thrombospondin-1, and inhibition of apoptosis. Involved in the process of proteasome degradation to down-regulate Tumor suppressor p53/TP53 in breast cancer cell; Positively regulates phosphorylation of MAPK1 and MAPK3. Involved in translation initiation; promotes aminoacetyled initiator tRNA to P site of 40S ribosomes. Can promote release of deacylated tRNA and mRNA from recycled 40S subunits following ABCE1-mediated dissociation of post-termination ribosomal complexes into subunits.

Negatively regulates the activity of MCU, the mitochondrial inner membrane calcium uniporter, and thereby modulates calcium uptake into the mitochondrion. Does not form functional calcium channels by itself. Mitochondrial calcium homeostasis plays key roles in cellular physiology and regulates cell bioenergetics, cytoplasmic calcium signals and activation of cell death pathways.

Key regulator of mitochondrial calcium uniporter (MCU) required for calcium entry into mitochondrion. Plays a direct role in uniporter-mediated calcium uptake via a direct interaction with MCU. Probably involved in the assembly of the membrane components of the uniporter complex (uniplex).

Mitochondrial inner membrane calcium uniporter that mediates calcium uptake into mitochondria. Constitutes the pore-forming and calcium-conducting subunit of the uniporter complex (uniplex). Activity is regulated by MICU1 and MICU2. At low Ca(2+) levels MCU activity is down-regulated by MICU1 and MICU2; at higher Ca(2+) levels MICU1 increases MCU activity. Mitochondrial calcium homeostasis plays key roles in cellular physiology and regulates cell bioenergetics, cytoplasmic calcium signals and activation of cell death pathways. Involved in buffering the amplitude of systolic calcium rises in cardiomyocytes. While dispensable for baseline homeostatic cardiac function, acts as a key regulator of short-term mitochondrial calcium loading underlying a 'fight-or-flight' response during acute stress: acts by mediating a rapid increase of mitochondrial calcium in pacemaker cells. participates in mitochondrial permeability transition during ischemia- reperfusion injury (By similarity). Regulates glucose-dependent insulin secretion in pancreatic beta-cells by regulating mitochondrial calcium uptake. Mitochondrial calcium uptake in skeletal muscle cells is involved in muscle size in adults (By similarity). Regulates synaptic vesicle endocytosis kinetics in central nerve terminal (By similarity). Involved in antigen processing and presentation (By similarity).

Component of the Mediator complex, a coactivator involved in the regulated transcription of nearly all RNA polymerase II-dependent genes. Mediator functions as a bridge to convey information from gene- specific regulatory proteins to the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Mediator is recruited to promoters by direct interactions with regulatory proteins and serves as a scaffold for the assembly of a functional preinitiation complex with RNA polymerase II and the general transcription factors. This subunit may specifically regulate transcription of targets of the Wnt signaling pathway and SHH signaling pathway

Component of the spindle-assembly checkpoint that prevents the onset of anaphase until all chromosomes are properly aligned at the metaphase plate. Forms a heterotetrameric complex with the closed conformation form of MAD2L1 (C-MAD2) at unattached kinetochores during prometaphase, recruits an open conformation of MAD2L1 (O-MAD2) and promotes the conversion of O-MAD2 to C-MAD2, which ensures mitotic checkpoint signaling.

May function to silence the spindle checkpoint and allow mitosis to proceed through anaphase by binding MAD2L1 after it has become dissociated from the MAD2L1-CDC20 complex.

Component of the spindle-assembly checkpoint that prevents the onset of anaphase until all chromosomes are properly aligned at the metaphase plate. In the closed conformation (C-MAD2) forms a heterotetrameric complex with MAD1L1 at unattached kinetochores during prometaphase, the complex recruits open conformation molecules of MAD2L1 (O-MAD2) and then promotes the conversion of O-MAD2 to C-MAD2. Required for the execution of the mitotic checkpoint which monitors the process of kinetochore-spindle attachment and inhibits the activity of the anaphase promoting complex by sequestering CDC20 until all chromosomes are aligned at the metaphase plate.

Adapter protein able to interact with different proteins and involved in different biological processes. Mediates the interaction between the error-prone DNA polymerase zeta catalytic subunit REV3L and the inserter polymerase REV1, thereby mediating the second polymerase switching in translesion DNA synthesis. Translesion DNA synthesis releases the replication blockade of replicative polymerases, stalled in presence of DNA lesions. Component of the shieldin complex, which plays an important role in repair of DNA double-stranded breaks (DSBs). During G1 and S phase of the cell cycle, the complex functions downstream of TP53BP1 to promote non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) and suppress DNA end resection. Mediates various NHEJ-dependent processes including immunoglobulin class-switch recombination, and fusion of unprotected telomeres. May also regulate another aspect of cellular response to DNA damage through regulation of the JNK-mediated phosphorylation and activation of the transcriptional activator ELK1. Inhibits the FZR1- and probably CDC20-mediated activation of the anaphase promoting complex APC thereby regulating progression through the cell cycle. Regulates TCF7L2-mediated gene transcription and may play a role in epithelial-mesenchymal transdifferentiation.

Required for checkpoint mediated cell cycle arrest in response to DNA damage within both the S phase and G2/M phases of the cell cycle. May serve as a scaffold for the recruitment of DNA repair and signal transduction proteins to discrete foci of DNA damage marked by 'Ser-139' phosphorylation of histone H2AX. Also required for downstream events subsequent to the recruitment of these proteins. These include phosphorylation and activation of the ATM, CHEK1 and CHEK2 kinases, and stabilization of TP53 and apoptosis. ATM and CHEK2 may also be activated independently by a parallel pathway mediated by TP53BP1.

Acts as a transcriptional activator or repressor. Inhibits the transcriptional activation of Zic family proteins ZIC1, ZIC2 and ZIC3. Retains nuclear Zic proteins ZIC1, ZIC2 and ZIC3 in the cytoplasm. Modulates the expression from both cellular and viral promoters. Down-regulates Tat-dependent transcription of the human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1) LTR by interacting with HIV-1 Tat and Rev and impairing their nuclear import, probably by rendering the NLS domains inaccessible to importin-beta. Also stimulates activation of human T-cell leukemia virus type I (HTLV-I) LTR. Binds to the axin complex, resulting in an increase in the level of free beta-catenin. Affects axin regulation of the WNT and JNK signaling pathways.

Inhibits the transactivation activity of the Myod family of myogenic factors and represses myogenesis. Acts by associating with Myod family members and retaining them in the cytoplasm by masking their nuclear localization signals. Can also interfere with the DNA- binding activity of Myod family members. Plays an important role in trophoblast and chondrogenic differentiation. Regulates the transcriptional activity of TCF7L1/TCF3 by interacting directly with TCF7L1/TCF3 and preventing it from binding DNA. Binds to the axin complex, resulting in an increase in the level of free beta-catenin. Affects axin regulation of the WNT and JNK signaling pathways (By similarity).

Required for radial migration of cortical neurons in the superficial layer of the neocortex (By similarity). Plays a role in the formation or maintenance of inhibitory synapses. May function by inhibiting the activity of NLGN2.

Catalyzes the reduction of aromatic alpha-keto acids in the presence of NADH. Plays essential roles in the malate-aspartate shuttle and the tricarboxylic acid cycle, important in mitochondrial NADH supply for oxidative phosphorylation.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination of p53/TP53, leading to its degradation by the proteasome. Inhibits p53/TP53- and p73/TP73-mediated cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by binding its transcriptional activation domain. Also acts as a ubiquitin ligase E3 toward itself and ARRB1. Permits the nuclear export of p53/TP53. Promotes proteasome-dependent ubiquitin-independent degradation of retinoblastoma RB1 protein. Inhibits DAXX-mediated apoptosis by inducing its ubiquitination and degradation. Component of the TRIM28/KAP1-MDM2-p53/TP53 complex involved in stabilizing p53/TP53. Also a component of the TRIM28/KAP1-ERBB4-MDM2 complex which links growth factor and DNA damage response pathways. Mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasome degradation of DYRK2 in nucleus. Ubiquitinates IGF1R and SNAI1 and promotes them to proteasomal degradation. Ubiquitinates DCX, leading to DCX degradation and reduction of the dendritic spine density of olfactory bulb granule cells (By similarity). Ubiquitinates DLG4, leading to proteasomal degradation of DLG4 which is required for AMPA receptor endocytosis (By similarity). Negatively regulates NDUFS1, leading to decreased mitochondrial respiration, marked oxidative stress, and commitment to the mitochondrial pathway of apoptosis. Binds NDUFS1 leading to its cytosolic retention rather than mitochondrial localization resulting in decreased supercomplex assembly (interactions between complex I and complex III), decreased complex I activity, ROS production, and apoptosis.

Along with MDM2, contributes to TP53 regulation. Inhibits p53/TP53- and TP73/p73-mediated cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by binding its transcriptional activation domain. Inhibits degradation of MDM2. Can reverse MDM2-targeted degradation of TP53 while maintaining suppression of TP53 transactivation and apoptotic functions.

Nuclear chaperone required for maturation and nuclear export of pre-60S ribosome subunits. Functions at successive maturation steps to remove ribosomal factors at critical transition points, first driving the exit of early pre-60S particles from the nucleolus and then driving late pre-60S particles from the nucleus (By similarity). At an early stage in 60S maturation, mediates the dissociation of the PeBoW complex (PES1-BOP1-WDR12) from early pre-60S particles, rendering them competent for export from the nucleolus to the nucleoplasm (By similarity). Subsequently recruited to the nucleoplasmic particles through interaction with SUMO-conjugated PELP1 complex. This binding is only possible if the 5S RNP at the central protuberance has undergone the rotation to complete its maturation (By similarity).

Translocates drugs and phospholipids across the membrane. Catalyzes the flop of phospholipids from the cytoplasmic to the exoplasmic leaflet of the apical membrane. Participates mainly to the flop of phosphatidylcholine, phosphatidylethanolamine, beta-D- glucosylceramides and sphingomyelins. Energy-dependent efflux pump responsible for decreased drug accumulation in multidrug- resistant cells.

[Isoform 1]: Energy-dependent phospholipid efflux translocator that acts as a positive regulator of biliary lipid secretion. Functions as a floppase that translocates specifically phosphatidylcholine (PC) from the inner to the outer leaflet of the canalicular membrane bilayer into the canaliculi of hepatocytes. Translocation of PC makes the biliary phospholipids available for extraction into the canaliculi lumen by bile salt mixed micelles and therefore protects the biliary tree from the detergent activity of bile salts. Plays a role in the recruitment of phosphatidylcholine (PC), phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) and sphingomyelin (SM) molecules to nonraft membranes and to further enrichment of SM and cholesterol in raft membranes in hepatocytes. Required for proper phospholipid bile formation (By similarity). Indirectly involved in cholesterol efflux activity from hepatocytes into the canalicular lumen in the presence of bile salts in an ATP-dependent manner. Promotes biliary phospholipid secretion as canaliculi-containing vesicles from the canalicular plasma membrane. In cooperation with ATP8B1, functions to protect hepatocytes from the deleterious detergent activity of bile salts. Does not confer multidrug resistance (By similarity).

May play an important role in spermatogenesis and/or testis development

Activates an alternative mTOR signaling through RPS6KB2 activation and EIF4EBP1 repression to regulate cell proliferation and migration. Recruits MTOR at the lysosome, essential for MTOR signaling at the lysosome.

[Isoform 1]: Functions as a transcriptional regulator binding to DNA sequences in the promoter region of target genes and regulating positively or negatively their expression. Oncogene which plays a role in development, cell proliferation and differentiation. May also play a role in apoptosis through regulation of the JNK and TGF-beta signaling. Involved in hematopoiesis.

Chromosomal protein that binds to methylated DNA. It can bind specifically to a single methyl-CpG pair. It is not influenced by sequences flanking the methyl-CpGs. Mediates transcriptional repression through interaction with histone deacetylase and the corepressor SIN3A. Binds both 5-methylcytosine (5mC) and 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC)- containing DNA, with a preference for 5-methylcytosine (5mC).

Catalyzes the NADPH-dependent reduction of trans-2-enoyl thioesters in mitochondrial fatty acid synthesis (fatty acid synthesis type II). Fatty acid chain elongation in mitochondria uses acyl carrier protein (ACP) as an acyl group carrier, but the enzyme accepts both ACP and CoA thioesters as substrates in vitro. Displays a preference for medium-chain over short- and long-chain substrates. May provide the octanoyl chain used for lipoic acid biosynthesis, regulating protein lipoylation and mitochondrial respiratory activity particularly in Purkinje cells (By similarity).

Component of the Mediator complex, a coactivator involved in the regulated transcription of nearly all RNA polymerase II-dependent genes. Mediator functions as a bridge to convey information from gene- specific regulatory proteins to the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Mediator is recruited to promoters by direct interactions with regulatory proteins and serves as a scaffold for the assembly of a functional preinitiation complex with RNA polymerase II and the general transcription factors

Component of the Mediator complex, a coactivator involved in the regulated transcription of nearly all RNA polymerase II-dependent genes. Mediator functions as a bridge to convey information from gene- specific regulatory proteins to the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Mediator is recruited to promoters by direct interactions with regulatory proteins and serves as a scaffold for the assembly of a functional pre-initiation complex with RNA polymerase II and the general transcription factors. This subunit may specifically regulate transcription of targets of the Wnt signaling pathway and SHH signaling pathway.

Component of the Mediator complex, a coactivator involved in the regulated transcription of nearly all RNA polymerase II-dependent genes. Mediator functions as a bridge to convey information from gene- specific regulatory proteins to the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Mediator is recruited to promoters by direct interactions with regulatory proteins and serves as a scaffold for the assembly of a functional preinitiation complex with RNA polymerase II and the general transcription factors.

Component of the Mediator complex, a coactivator involved in the regulated transcription of nearly all RNA polymerase II-dependent genes. Mediator functions as a bridge to convey information from gene- specific regulatory proteins to the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Mediator is recruited to promoters by direct interactions with regulatory proteins and serves as a scaffold for the assembly of a functional preinitiation complex with RNA polymerase II and the general transcription factors. Required for cholesterol- dependent gene regulation. Positively regulates the Nodal signaling pathway.

Component of the Mediator complex, a coactivator involved in the regulated transcription of nearly all RNA polymerase II-dependent genes. Mediator functions as a bridge to convey information from gene- specific regulatory proteins to the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Mediator is recruited to promoters by direct interactions with regulatory proteins and serves as a scaffold for the assembly of a functional preinitiation complex with RNA polymerase II and the general transcription factors. Acts as a coactivator for GATA1- mediated transcriptional activation during erythroid differentiation of K562 erythroleukemia cells.

Required for transcriptional activation subsequent to the assembly of the pre-initiation complex (By similarity). Component of the Mediator complex, a coactivator involved in the regulated transcription of nearly all RNA polymerase II-dependent genes. Mediator functions as a bridge to convey information from gene-specific regulatory proteins to the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Mediator is recruited to promoters by direct interactions with regulatory proteins and serves as a scaffold for the assembly of a functional pre-initiation complex with RNA polymerase II and the general transcription factors. Required for transcriptional activation by adenovirus E1A protein. Required for ELK1-dependent transcriptional activation in response to activated Ras signaling.

Component of the Mediator complex, a coactivator involved in the regulated transcription of nearly all RNA polymerase II-dependent genes. Mediator functions as a bridge to convey information from gene- specific regulatory proteins to the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Mediator is recruited to promoters by direct interactions with regulatory proteins and serves as a scaffold for the assembly of a functional preinitiation complex with RNA polymerase II and the general transcription factors. Required for RARA/RXRA-mediated transcription.

Component of the Mediator complex, a coactivator involved in the regulated transcription of nearly all RNA polymerase II-dependent genes. Mediator functions as a bridge to convey information from gene- specific regulatory proteins to the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Mediator is recruited to promoters by direct interactions with regulatory proteins and serves as a scaffold for the assembly of a functional pre-initiation complex with RNA polymerase II and the general transcription factors

Component of the Mediator complex, a coactivator involved in the regulated transcription of nearly all RNA polymerase II-dependent genes. Mediator functions as a bridge to convey information from gene- specific regulatory proteins to the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Mediator is recruited to promoters by direct interactions with regulatory proteins and serves as a scaffold for the assembly of a functional preinitiation complex with RNA polymerase II and the general transcription factors. May be part of a complex containing NF2/merlin that participates in cellular signaling to the actin cytoskeleton downstream of tyrosine kinase signaling pathways.

Component of the Mediator complex, a coactivator involved in the regulated transcription of nearly all RNA polymerase II-dependent genes. Mediator functions as a bridge to convey information from gene- specific regulatory proteins to the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Mediator is recruited to promoters by direct interactions with regulatory proteins and serves as a scaffold for the assembly of a functional preinitiation complex with RNA polymerase II and the general transcription factors. May play a role as a target recruitment subunit in E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes and thus in ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins

Involved in processes that promote adipocyte differentiation, lipid accumulation, and glucose uptake in mature adipocytes.

Transcriptional activator which binds specifically to the MEF2 element, 5'-YTA[AT](4)TAR-3', found in numerous muscle-specific genes. Also involved in the activation of numerous growth factor- and stress-induced genes. Mediates cellular functions not only in skeletal and cardiac muscle development, but also in neuronal differentiation and survival. Plays diverse roles in the control of cell growth, survival and apoptosis via p38 MAPK signaling in muscle-specific and/or growth factor-related transcription. In cerebellar granule neurons, phosphorylated and sumoylated MEF2A represses transcription of NUR77 promoting synaptic differentiation. Associates with chromatin to the ZNF16 promoter.

Transcriptional activator which binds specifically to the MEF2 element, 5'-YTA[AT](4)TAR-3', found in numerous muscle-specific genes. Activates transcription via this element. May be involved in muscle-specific and/or growth factor-related transcription

Transcription activator which binds specifically to the MEF2 element present in the regulatory regions of many muscle-specific genes. Controls cardiac morphogenesis and myogenesis, and is also involved in vascular development. Enhances transcriptional activation mediated by SOX18. Plays an essential role in hippocampal-dependent learning and memory by suppressing the number of excitatory synapses and thus regulating basal and evoked synaptic transmission. Crucial for normal neuronal development, distribution, and electrical activity in the neocortex. Necessary for proper development of megakaryocytes and platelets and for bone marrow B-lymphopoiesis. Required for B-cell survival and proliferation in response to BCR stimulation, efficient IgG1 antibody responses to T-cell-dependent antigens and for normal induction of germinal center B-cells. May also be involved in neurogenesis and in the development of cortical architecture (By similarity). Isoforms that lack the repressor domain are more active than isoform 1.

Transcriptional activator which binds specifically to the MEF2 element, 5'-YTA[AT](4)TAR-3', found in numerous muscle-specific, growth factor- and stress-induced genes. Mediates cellular functions not only in skeletal and cardiac muscle development, but also in neuronal differentiation and survival. Plays diverse roles in the control of cell growth, survival and apoptosis via p38 MAPK signaling in muscle-specific and/or growth factor-related transcription. Plays a critical role in the regulation of neuronal apoptosis (By similarity).

Involved in the regulation of innate immunity and the inflammatory response in response to IFNG/IFN-gamma. Organizes autophagic machinery by serving as a platform for the assembly of ULK1, Beclin 1/BECN1, ATG16L1, and ATG8 family members and recognizes specific autophagy targets, thus coordinating target recognition with assembly of the autophagic apparatus and initiation of autophagy. Acts as an autophagy receptor for the degradation of several inflammasome components, including CASP1, NLRP1 and NLRP3, hence preventing excessive IL1B- and IL18-mediated inflammation. However, it can also have a positive effect in the inflammatory pathway, acting as an innate immune sensor that triggers PYCARD/ASC specks formation, caspase-1 activation, and IL1B and IL18 production. Together with AIM2, also acts as a mediator of pyroptosis, necroptosis and apoptosis (PANoptosis), an integral part of host defense against pathogens, in response to bacterial infection (By similarity). It is required for PSTPIP1-induced PYCARD/ASC oligomerization and inflammasome formation. Recruits PSTPIP1 to inflammasomes, and is required for PSTPIP1 oligomerization.

Membrane receptor involved in phagocytosis by macrophages and astrocytes of apoptotic cells. Receptor for C1q, an eat-me signal, that binds phosphatidylserine expressed on the surface of apoptotic cells. Cooperates with ABCA1 within the process of engulfment. Promotes the formation of large intracellular vacuoles and may be responsible for the uptake of amyloid-beta peptides. Necessary for astrocyte-dependent apoptotic neuron clearance in the developing cerebellum. Plays role in muscle cell proliferation, adhesion and motility. Is also an essential factor in the regulation of myogenesis. Controls the balance between skeletal muscle satellite cells proliferation and differentiation through regulation of the notch signaling pathway (PubMed:28498977, Ref.14). May also function in the mosaic spacing of specific neuron subtypes in the retina through homotypic retinal neuron repulsion. Mosaics provide a mechanism to distribute each cell type evenly across the retina, ensuring that all parts of the visual field have access to a full set of processing elements.

Required for normal meiotic chromosome synapsis. May be involved in the formation of meiotic double-strand breaks (DSBs) in spermatocytes (By similarity).

Required for DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) formation in unsynapsed regions during meiotic recombination. Probably acts by forming a complex with IHO1 and REC114, which activates DSBs formation in unsynapsed regions, an essential step to ensure completion of synapsis.

Key regulator of kinetochore function during meiosis I: required both for mono-orientation of kinetochores on sister chromosomes and protection of centromeric cohesin from separase- mediated cleavage. Acts by facilitating kinetochore mono-orientation during meiosis I, when kinetochores on sister chromosomes face the same direction and are thus captured and pulled by spindle fibers from the same pole. Also required to prevent cleavage of cohesin at centromeres during meiosis I, possibly by acting as a regulator of the shugoshin- dependent protection pathway. Acts in collaboration with PLK1: required for PLK1 enrichment to kinetochores. Not required during meiosis II or mitosis.

Single-stranded DNA-binding protein required for homologous recombination in meiosis I. Required for double strand breaks (DSBs) repair and crossover formation and promotion of faithful and complete synapsis. Not required for the initial loading of recombinases but required to maintain a proper number of RAD51 and DMC1 foci after the zygotene stage. May act by ensuring the stabilization of recombinases, which is required for successful homology search and meiotic recombination. Displays Single-stranded DNA 3'-5' exonuclease activity in vitro.

Is required for meiosis completion in both male and female germ cells. Confers stability to numerous meiotic mRNAs in gonads allowing proper initiation and progression into meiosis prophase I. The function may involve YTHDC2 and is independent of induction by retinoic acid (RA). Maintains an extended meiotic prophase I by properly promoting the transition from a mitotic to a meiotic cell cycle program by binding transcripts through its interaction with YTHDC2 that regulate the mitotic cell cycle.

Gatekeeper of meiotic initiation in both male and female germ cells. In complex with STRA8, directly activates the transcription of a subset of critical meiotic genes playing a central role in cell-cycle switching from mitosis to meiosis. Temporal expression of MEIOSIN is required for meiotic entry decision.

Acts as a transcriptional regulator of PAX6. Acts as a transcriptional activator of PF4 in complex with PBX1 or PBX2. Required for hematopoiesis, megakaryocyte lineage development and vascular patterning. May function as a cofactor for HOXA7 and HOXA9 in the induction of myeloid leukemias.

Involved in transcriptional regulation. Binds to HOX or PBX proteins to form dimers, or to a DNA-bound dimer of PBX and HOX proteins and thought to have a role in stabilization of the homeoprotein-DNA complex. Isoform 3 is required for the activity of a PDX1:PBX1b:MEIS2b complex in pancreatic acinar cells involved in the transcriptional activation of the ELA1 enhancer; the complex binds to the enhancer B element and cooperates with the transcription factor 1 complex (PTF1) bound to the enhancer A element; MEIS2 is not involved in complex DNA-binding. Probably in complex with PBX1, is involved in transcriptional regulation by KLF4. Isoform 3 and isoform 4 can bind to a EPHA8 promoter sequence containing the DNA motif 5'-CGGTCA-3'; in cooperation with a PBX protein (such as PBX2) is proposed to be involved in the transcriptional activation of EPHA8 in the developing midbrain. May be involved in regulation of myeloid differentiation. Can bind to the DNA sequence 5'-TGACAG-3'in the activator ACT sequence of the D(1A) dopamine receptor (DRD1) promoter and activate DRD1 transcription; isoform 5 cannot activate DRD1 transcription.

Transcriptional regulator which directly modulates PDPK1 expression, thus promoting survival of pancreatic beta-cells. Also regulates expression of NDFIP1, BNIP3, and CCNG1.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in various processes such as cell cycle regulation, self-renewal of stem cells, apoptosis and splicing regulation. Has a broad substrate specificity; phosphorylates BCL2L14, CDC25B, MAP3K5/ASK1 and ZNF622. Acts as an activator of apoptosis by phosphorylating and activating MAP3K5/ASK1. Acts as a regulator of cell cycle, notably by mediating phosphorylation of CDC25B, promoting localization of CDC25B to the centrosome and the spindle poles during mitosis. Plays a key role in cell proliferation and carcinogenesis. Required for proliferation of embryonic and postnatal multipotent neural progenitors. Phosphorylates and inhibits BCL2L14, possibly leading to affect mammary carcinogenesis by mediating inhibition of the pro-apoptotic function of BCL2L14. Also involved in the inhibition of spliceosome assembly during mitosis by phosphorylating ZNF622, thereby contributing to its redirection to the nucleus. May also play a role in primitive hematopoiesis.

Rab effector protein involved in melanosome transport. Serves as link between melanosome-bound RAB27A and the motor protein MYO5A.

Interacts with TGF-beta receptor type-1 (TGFBR1) and inhibits dissociation of activated SMAD2 from TGFBR1, impeding its nuclear accumulation and resulting in impaired TGF-beta signaling. May also affect FOXO, Hippo and Wnt signaling.

May control cell migration by relaying extracellular chemotactic signals to the microtubule cytoskeleton. Mediator of ERBB2 signaling. The MEMO1-RHOA-DIAPH1 signaling pathway plays an important role in ERBB2-dependent stabilization of microtubules at the cell cortex. It controls the localization of APC and CLASP2 to the cell membrane, via the regulation of GSK3B activity. In turn, membrane-bound APC allows the localization of the MACF1 to the cell membrane, which is required for microtubule capture and stabilization. Is required for breast carcinoma cell migration.

Essential component of a MLL/SET1 histone methyltransferase (HMT) complex, a complex that specifically methylates 'Lys-4' of histone H3 (H3K4). Functions as a transcriptional regulator. Binds to the TERT promoter and represses telomerase expression. Plays a role in TGFB1-mediated inhibition of cell-proliferation, possibly regulating SMAD3 transcriptional activity. Represses JUND-mediated transcriptional activation on AP1 sites, as well as that mediated by NFKB subunit RELA. Positively regulates HOXC8 and HOXC6 gene expression. May be involved in normal hematopoiesis through the activation of HOXA9 expression (By similarity). May be involved in DNA repair.

Involved in control of cellular proliferation. Onconcogenic modifier contributing to the tumor suppressor function of DNMT3B.

Mesodermal transcription factor that plays a key role in somitogenesis and is specifically required for sclerotome development. Required for maintenance of the sclerotome polarity and formation of the cranio-cervical joints. Binds specifically to the promoter of target genes and regulates their expression. Activates expression of NKX3-2 in the sclerotome. Activates expression of CDKN1A and CDKN2A in endothelial cells, acting as a regulator of vascular cell proliferation. While it activates CDKN1A in a DNA-dependent manner, it activates CDKN2A in a DNA-independent manner. Required for hematopoietic stem cell (HSCs) induction via its role in somitogenesis: specification of HSCs occurs via the deployment of a specific endothelial precursor population, which arises within a sub-compartment of the somite named endotome.

Mesodermal transcription factor that plays a key role in somitogenesis and somitogenesis and limb muscle differentiation (By similarity). Required during limb development for normal appendicular muscle formation and for the normal regulation of myogenic genes (By similarity). May have a regulatory role when quiescent vascular smooth muscle cells reenter the cell cycle (By similarity). Also acts as a negative regulator of angiogenesis. Activates expression of CDKN1A and CDKN2A in endothelial cells, acting as a regulator of vascular cell proliferation. While it activates CDKN1A in a DNA- dependent manner, it activates CDKN2A in a DNA-independent manner. Together with TCF15, regulates transcription in heart endothelial cells to regulate fatty acid transport across heart endothelial cells (By similarity).

Membrane metallopeptidase that sheds many membrane-bound proteins. Exhibits a strong preference for acidic amino acids at the P1' position. Known substrates include: FGF19, VGFA, IL1B, IL18, procollagen I and III, E-cadherin, KLK7, gastrin, ADAM10, tenascin-C. The presence of several pro-inflammatory cytokine among substrates implicate MEP1B in inflammation. It is also involved in tissue remodeling due to its capability to degrade extracellular matrix components.

Non-catalytic component of the methylosome complex, composed of PRMT5, WDR77 and CLNS1A, which modifies specific arginines to dimethylarginines in several spliceosomal Sm proteins and histones. This modification targets Sm proteins to the survival of motor neurons (SMN) complex for assembly into small nuclear ribonucleoprotein core particles. Might play a role in transcription regulation. The methylosome complex also methylates the Piwi proteins (PIWIL1, PIWIL2 and PIWIL4), methylation of Piwi proteins being required for the interaction with Tudor domain-containing proteins and subsequent localization to the meiotic nuage.

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that adds a methylphosphate cap at the 5'-end of 7SK snRNA (7SK RNA), leading to stabilize it. Also has a non-enzymatic function as part of the 7SK RNP complex: the 7SK RNP complex sequesters the positive transcription elongation factor b (P-TEFb) in a large inactive 7SK RNP complex preventing RNA polymerase II phosphorylation and subsequent transcriptional elongation. The 7SK RNP complex also promotes snRNA gene transcription by RNA polymerase II via interaction with the little elongation complex (LEC). In the 7SK RNP complex, MEPCE is required to stabilize 7SK RNA and facilitate the assembly of 7SK RNP complex. MEPCE has a non-enzymatic function in the 7SK RNP complex; interaction with LARP7 within the 7SK RNP complex occluding its catalytic center.

Promotes renal phosphate excretion and inhibits intestinal phosphate absorption. Promotes bone mineralization by osteoblasts and cartilage mineralization by chondrocytes. Regulates the mineralization of the extracellular matrix of the craniofacial complex, such as teeth, bone and cartilage (By similarity). Promotes dental pulp stem cell proliferation and differentiation.

Endogenous envelope proteins originate from retroviral envelope proteins, which mediate receptor recognition and membrane fusion during early infection. Endogenous envelope proteins may have kept, lost or modified their original function during evolution.

Probable regulator of the Hippo/SWH (Sav/Wts/Hpo) signaling pathway, a signaling pathway that plays a pivotal role in tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis. Along with WWC1 can synergistically induce the phosphorylation of LATS1 and LATS2 and can probably function in the regulation of the Hippo/SWH (Sav/Wts/Hpo) signaling pathway. May act as a membrane stabilizing protein. May inhibit PI3 kinase by binding to AGAP2 and impairing its stimulating activity. Suppresses cell proliferation and tumorigenesis by inhibiting the CUL4A-RBX1-DDB1-VprBP/DCAF1 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex.

Receptor tyrosine kinase that transduces signals from the extracellular matrix into the cytoplasm by binding to several ligands including LGALS3, TUB, TULP1 or GAS6. Regulates many physiological processes including cell survival, migration, differentiation, and phagocytosis of apoptotic cells (efferocytosis). Ligand binding at the cell surface induces autophosphorylation of MERTK on its intracellular domain that provides docking sites for downstream signaling molecules. Following activation by ligand, interacts with GRB2 or PLCG2 and induces phosphorylation of MAPK1, MAPK2, FAK/PTK2 or RAC1. MERTK signaling plays a role in various processes such as macrophage clearance of apoptotic cells, platelet aggregation, cytoskeleton reorganization and engulfment. Functions in the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) as a regulator of rod outer segments fragments phagocytosis. Also plays an important role in inhibition of Toll-like receptors (TLRs)-mediated innate immune response by activating STAT1, which selectively induces production of suppressors of cytokine signaling SOCS1 and SOCS3.

Chaperone specifically assisting the folding of beta- propeller/EGF modules within the family of low-density lipoprotein receptors (LDLRs). Acts as a modulator of the Wnt pathway through chaperoning the coreceptors of the canonical Wnt pathway, LRP5 and LRP6, to the plasma membrane. Essential for specification of embryonic polarity and mesoderm induction. Plays an essential role in neuromuscular junction (NMJ) formation by promoting cell-surface expression of LRP4 (By similarity). May regulate phagocytosis of apoptotic retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) cells (By similarity).

Transcription factor. Plays a role in the epithelialization of somitic mesoderm and in the development of cardiac mesoderm. Defines the rostrocaudal patterning of the somites by participating in distinct Notch pathways (By similarity).

Transcription factor with important role in somitogenesis. Defines the rostrocaudal patterning of the somite by participating in distinct Notch pathways. Regulates also the FGF signaling pathway. Specifies the rostral half of the somites. Generates rostro-caudal polarity of somites by down-regulating in the presumptive rostral domain DLL1, a Notch ligand. Participates in the segment border formation by activating in the anterior presomitic mesoderm LFNG, a negative regulator of DLL1-Notch signaling. Acts as a strong suppressor of Notch activity. Together with MESP1 is involved in the epithelialization of somitic mesoderm and in the development of cardiac mesoderm

The METTL3-METTL14 heterodimer forms a N6-methyltransferase complex that methylates adenosine residues at the N(6) position of some mRNAs and regulates the circadian clock, differentiation of embryonic stem cells and cortical neurogenesis. In the heterodimer formed with METTL3, METTL14 constitutes the RNA-binding scaffold that recognizes the substrate rather than the catalytic core. N6-methyladenosine (m6A), which takes place at the 5'-[AG]GAC-3' consensus sites of some mRNAs, plays a role in mRNA stability and processing. M6A acts as a key regulator of mRNA stability by promoting mRNA destabilization and degradation (By similarity). In embryonic stem cells (ESCs), m6A methylation of mRNAs encoding key naive pluripotency- promoting transcripts results in transcript destabilization (By similarity). M6A regulates spermatogonial differentiation and meiosis and is essential for male fertility and spermatogenesis (By similarity). M6A also regulates cortical neurogenesis: m6A methylation of transcripts related to transcription factors, neural stem cells, the cell cycle and neuronal differentiation during brain development promotes their destabilization and decay, promoting differentiation of radial glial cells (By similarity).

N4-methylcytidine (m4C) methyltransferase responsible for the methylation of position C839 in mitochondrial 12S rRNA. Involved in the stabilization of 12S rRNA folding, therefore facilitating the assembly of the mitochondrial small ribosomal subunits.

RNA N6-methyltransferase that methylates adenosine residues at the N(6) position of a subset of RNAs and is involved in S-adenosyl- L-methionine homeostasis by regulating expression of MAT2A transcripts. Able to N6-methylate a subset of mRNAs and U6 small nuclear RNAs (U6 snRNAs). In contrast to the METTL3- METTL14 heterodimer, only able to methylate a limited number of RNAs: requires both a 5'UACAGAGAA-3' nonamer sequence and a specific RNA structure. Plays a key role in S-adenosyl-L-methionine homeostasis by mediating N6- methylation of MAT2A mRNAs, altering splicing of MAT2A transcripts: in presence of S-adenosyl-L-methionine, binds the 3'-UTR region of MAT2A mRNA and specifically N6-methylates the first hairpin of MAT2A mRNA, preventing recognition of their 3'-splice site by U2AF1/U2AF35, thereby inhibiting splicing and protein production of S-adenosylmethionine synthase. In S-adenosyl-L- methionine-limiting conditions, binds the 3'-UTR region of MAT2A mRNA but stalls due to the lack of a methyl donor, preventing N6-methylation and promoting expression of MAT2A. In addition to mRNAs, also able to mediate N6-methylation of U6 small nuclear RNA (U6 snRNA): specifically N6-methylates adenine in position 43 of U6 snRNAs. Also able to bind various lncRNAs, such as 7SK snRNA (7SK RNA) or 7SL RNA. Specifically binds the 3'-end of the MALAT1 long non-coding RNA.

Probable S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent RNA methyltransferase required to stabilize the mitochondrial small ribosomal subunit (mt-SSU). Required for protein translation in mitochondria.

Protein-L-histidine N-tele-methyltransferase that specifically monomethylates RPL3, thereby regulating translation elongation. Histidine methylation of RPL3 regulates translation elongation by slowing ribosome traversal on tyrosine codons: slower elongation provides enough time for proper folding of synthesized proteins and prevents cellular aggregation of tyrosine-rich proteins.

Protein N-lysine methyltransferase. Trimethylates KIN at Lys- 135 (in vitro).

Histone methyltransferase that dimethylates histone H3 at 'Arg-17', forming asymmetric dimethylarginine (H3R17me2a), leading to activate transcription via chromatin remodeling (By similarity). Maternal factor involved in epigenetic chromatin reprogramming of the paternal genome in the zygote: mediates H3R17me2a, promoting histone H3.3 incorporation in the male pronucleus, leading to TET3 recruitment and subsequent DNA demethylation (By similarity).

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that mediates N(3)-methylcytidine modification of residue 32 of the tRNA anticodon loop of tRNA(Thr)(UGU) and tRNA(Arg)(CCU). N(3)-methylcytidine methylation by METTL2A requires the N6-threonylcarbamoylation of tRNA (t6A37) by the EKC/KEOPS complex as prerequisite.

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that mediates N(3)-methylcytidine modification of residue 32 of the tRNA anticodon loop of tRNA(Thr)(UGU) and tRNA(Arg)(CCU).

Thiol S-methyltransferase that catalyzes the transfer of a methyl group from S-adenosyl-l-methionine to hydrogen sulfide and other thiol compounds including dithiothreitol, 7alpha-thiospironolactone, L- penicillamine, and captopril.

Catalyzes the transfer of a methyl group from methylcob(III)alamin (MeCbl) to homocysteine, yielding enzyme-bound cob(I)alamin and methionine in the cytosol. MeCbl is an active form of cobalamin (vitamin B12) used as a cofactor for methionine biosynthesis. Cob(I)alamin form is regenerated to MeCbl by a transfer of a methyl group from 5-methyltetrahydrofolate. The processing of cobalamin in the cytosol occurs in a multiprotein complex composed of at least MMACHC, MMADHC, MTRR (methionine synthase reductase) and MTR which may contribute to shuttle safely and efficiently cobalamin towards MTR in order to produce methionine.

Catalyzes the formation of S-adenosylmethionine from methionine and ATP. The reaction comprises two steps that are both catalyzed by the same enzyme: formation of S-adenosylmethionine (AdoMet) and triphosphate, and subsequent hydrolysis of the triphosphate.

N(6)-adenine-specific methyltransferase that can methylate both RNAs and DNA. Acts as a N(6)- adenine-specific RNA methyltransferase by catalyzing formation of N6,2'-O-dimethyladenosine (m6A(m)) on internal positions of U2 small nuclear RNA (snRNA): methylates the 6th position of adenine residues with a pre-deposited 2'-O-methylation. Internal m6A(m) methylation of snRNAs regulates RNA splicing. Also able to act as a N(6)-adenine-specific DNA methyltransferase by mediating methylation of DNA on the 6th position of adenine (N(6)- methyladenosine). The existence of N(6)- methyladenosine (m6A) on DNA is however unclear in mammals, and additional evidences are required to confirm the role of the N(6)- adenine-specific DNA methyltransferase activity of METTL4 in vivo. Acts as a regulator of mitochondrial transcript levels and mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) copy number by mediating mtDNA N(6)-methylation: m6A on mtDNA reduces transcription by repressing TFAM DNA-binding and bending. N(6)-methyladenosine deposition by METTL4 regulates Polycomb silencing by triggering ubiquitination and degradation of sensor proteins ASXL1 and MPND, leading to inactivation of the PR-DUB complex and subsequent preservation of Polycomb silencing (By similarity).

Catalytic subunit of a heterodimer with TRMT112, which specifically methylates the 6th position of adenine in position 1832 of 18S rRNA. N6-methylation of adenine(1832) in 18S rRNA resides in the decoding center of 18S rRNA and is required for translation and embryonic stem cells (ESCs) pluripotency and differentiation.

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that mediates N(3)-methylcytidine modification of residue 32 of the tRNA anticodon loop of tRNA(Ser), including tRNA(Ser)(UGA) and tRNA(Ser)(GCU). Interaction with SARS1/SerRS is required for N(3)- methylcytidine methylation.

Protein-histidine N-methyltransferase that specifically catalyzes 1-methylhistidine (pros-methylhistidine) methylation of target proteins. Mediates methylation of proteins with a His-x-His (HxH) motif (where 'x' is preferably a small amino acid). Catalyzes methylation of target proteins such as S100A9, NDUFB3, SLC39A5, SLC39A7, ARMC6 and DNAJB12; 1-methylhistidine modification may affect the binding of zinc and other metals to its target proteins. Constitutes the main methyltransferase for the 1- methylhistidine modification in cell.

Hormone induced following exercise or cold exposure that promotes energy expenditure. Induced either in the skeletal muscle after exercise or in adipose tissue following cold exposure and is present in the circulation. Able to stimulate energy expenditure associated with the browning of the white fat depots and improves glucose tolerance. Does not promote an increase in a thermogenic gene program via direct action on adipocytes, but acts by stimulating several immune cell subtypes to enter the adipose tissue and activate their prothermogenic actions. Stimulates an eosinophil-dependent increase in IL4 expression and promotes alternative activation of adipose tissue macrophages, which are required for the increased expression of the thermogenic and anti-inflammatory gene programs in fat. Required for some cold-induced thermogenic responses, suggesting a role in metabolic adaptations to cold temperatures (By similarity).

Involved in both glial cell differentiation and axonal network formation during neurogenesis. Promotes astrocyte differentiation and transforms cerebellar astrocytes into radial glia. Also induces axonal extension in small and intermediate neurons of sensory ganglia by activating nearby satellite glia (By similarity).

Receptor tyrosine kinase that transduces signals from the extracellular matrix into the cytoplasm by binding to hepatocyte growth factor/HGF ligand. Regulates many physiological processes including proliferation, scattering, morphogenesis and survival. Ligand binding at the cell surface induces autophosphorylation of MET on its intracellular domain that provides docking sites for downstream signaling molecules. Following activation by ligand, interacts with the PI3-kinase subunit PIK3R1, PLCG1, SRC, GRB2, STAT3 or the adapter GAB1. Recruitment of these downstream effectors by MET leads to the activation of several signaling cascades including the RAS-ERK, PI3 kinase-AKT, or PLCgamma-PKC. The RAS-ERK activation is associated with the morphogenetic effects while PI3K/AKT coordinates prosurvival effects. During embryonic development, MET signaling plays a role in gastrulation, development and migration of muscles and neuronal precursors, angiogenesis and kidney formation. In adults, participates in wound healing as well as organ regeneration and tissue remodeling. Promotes also differentiation and proliferation of hematopoietic cells. May regulate cortical bone osteogenesis (By similarity).

RNA binding protein, may be involved in post-transcriptional regulatory mechanisms

RNA-binding protein. May be involved in post-transcriptional regulatory mechanisms

E3 ubiquitin ligase responsible for the post-transcriptional regulation of common HLA-A allotypes. Binds to the 3' UTR of HLA-A2 mRNA, and regulates its levels by promoting mRNA decay. RNA binding is sufficient to prevent translation, but ubiquitin ligase activity is required for mRNA degradation.

RNA binding protein, may be involved in post-transcriptional regulatory mechanisms.

May participate in the nuclear signaling of EGFR and MAPK1/ERK2. May a have a role in metastasis.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the spliceosome.

Could be involved in calcium-dependent cell adhesion or intercellular interactions. May contribute to the elastic fiber assembly and/or maintenance.

May play a role in hematopoiesis. In the cardiovascular system, could regulate growth factors or participate in cell signaling in maintaining large vessel integrity (By similarity). Component of the elastin-associated microfibrils.

Plays a role in mitochondrial and peroxisomal fission. Promotes the recruitment and association of the fission mediator dynamin-related protein 1 (DNM1L) to the mitochondrial surface. May be involved in regulation of synaptic vesicle membrane dynamics by recruitment of DNM1L to clathrin-containing vesicles.

Plays an important role in the maintenance of intestinal epithelial homeostasis and the promotion of mucosal healing. Promotes VEGF-dependent neovascularization (By similarity). Contributes to phagocytic removal of apoptotic cells in many tissues. Specific ligand for the alpha-v/beta-3 and alpha-v/beta-5 receptors. Also binds to phosphatidylserine-enriched cell surfaces in a receptor-independent manner. Zona pellucida-binding protein which may play a role in gamete interaction.

Probable GTP-binding protein. Functions in innate immunity and more specifically the inflammatory response as a regulator of the Toll-like receptor TLR2 and TLR4 signaling pathways. Negatively regulates the part of the TLR4 signaling pathway that leads to the activation of the transcription factor AP-1. By retaining the phosphatase complex PP2A into the cytoplasm, prevents the dephosphorylation of the AP-1 subunit JUN which is required for proper activation of the transcription factor. Both inhibits and activates the TLR2-dependent signaling pathway. Positively regulates the TLR2 signaling pathway to activate specifically the downstream p38 and JNK MAP kinases and promote the polarization of macrophages toward the pro-inflammatory M1 phenotype. It may also play a role in the regulation of inflammation induced by high glucose through the PKB/AKT signaling pathway. Also involved in erythrocyte differentiation through activation of the ERK1/ERK2 signaling pathway.

Acts as an inhibitor of mitochondrial fission. Interacts with MFF and prevents DNM1L recruitment to mitochondria, promoting a more fused mitochondrial network.

Mitochondrial outer membrane GTPase that mediates mitochondrial clustering and fusion. Membrane clustering requires GTPase activity. It may involve a major rearrangement of the coiled coil domains. Mitochondria are highly dynamic organelles, and their morphology is determined by the equilibrium between mitochondrial fusion and fission events. Overexpression induces the formation of mitochondrial networks (in vitro). Has low GTPase activity.

Mitochondrial outer membrane GTPase that mediates mitochondrial clustering and fusion. Mitochondria are highly dynamic organelles, and their morphology is determined by the equilibrium between mitochondrial fusion and fission events. Overexpression induces the formation of mitochondrial networks. Membrane clustering requires GTPase activity and may involve a major rearrangement of the coiled coil domains (Probable). Plays a central role in mitochondrial metabolism and may be associated with obesity and/or apoptosis processes (By similarity). Plays an important role in the regulation of vascular smooth muscle cell proliferation (By similarity). Involved in the clearance of damaged mitochondria via selective autophagy (mitophagy). Is required for PRKN recruitment to dysfunctional mitochondria. Involved in the control of unfolded protein response (UPR) upon ER stress including activation of apoptosis and autophagy during ER stress (By similarity). Acts as an upstream regulator of EIF2AK3 and suppresses EIF2AK3 activation under basal conditions (By similarity).

Glycosyltransferase that initiates the elongation of O-linked fucose residues attached to EGF-like repeats in the extracellular domain of Notch molecules. Modulates NOTCH1 activity by modifying O-fucose residues at specific EGF-like domains resulting in inhibition of NOTCH1 activation by JAG1 and enhancement of NOTCH1 activation by DLL1 via an increase in its binding to DLL1 (By similarity).

Mitochondrial iron transporter that specifically mediates iron uptake in developing erythroid cells, thereby playing an essential role in heme biosynthesis.

Mitochondrial iron transporter that mediates iron uptake. Probably required for heme synthesis of hemoproteins and Fe-S cluster assembly in non-erythroid cells.

Confers cellular resistance to apoptosis induced by the non- steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs indomethacin and diclofenac. May act as an efflux pump.

Transporter that mediates the import of cysteine into melanosomes, thereby regulating skin pigmentation. In melanosomes, cysteine import is required both for normal levels of cystine, the oxidized dimer of cysteine, and provide cysteine for the production of the cysteinyldopas used in pheomelanin synthesis, thereby regulating skin pigmentation. Also catalyzes import of cysteine into lysosomes in non-pigmented cells.

Lipid transporter that specifically mediates export of sphingosine-1-phosphate in red blood cells and platelets. Sphingosine-1-phosphate is a signaling sphingolipid and its export from red blood cells into in the plasma is required for red blood cell morphology (By similarity). Sphingosine-1-phosphate export from platelets is required for platelet aggregation and thrombus formation (By similarity). Mediates the export of different sphingosine-1-phosphate (S1P) species, including S1P(d18:0) (sphinganine 1-phosphate), S1P (d18:1) (sphing-4-enine 1-phosphate) and S1P (d18:2) (sphinga-4E,14Z-dienine-1-phosphate) (Probable). Release of sphingosine-1-phosphate is facilitated by a proton gradient (By similarity). In contrast, cations, such as sodium, are not required to drive sphingosine-1-phosphate transport (Probable). In addition to export, also able to mediate S1P import (By similarity). Does not transport lysophosphatidylcholine (LPC) (Probable).

May function as a sodium-dependent glucose transporter. Potential channels for urea in the inner medulla of kidney.

Lysosomal transporter which is essential for liver homeostasis. Required to maintain stability and lysosomal localization of GLMP.

Mediates high-affinity intracellular uptake of the rare oligo-element molybdenum.

May be a carrier that transport small solutes by using chemiosmotic ion gradients.

Transports folate across the inner membranes of mitochondria. Can also transport FAD across the mitochondrial inner membrane.

Initiates complex N-linked carbohydrate formation. Essential for the conversion of high-mannose to hybrid and complex N-glycans.

Plays an essential role in protein N-glycosylation. Catalyzes the transfer of N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) onto the free terminal mannose moiety in the core structure of the nascent N-linked glycan chain, giving rise to the second branch in complex glycans.

It is involved in the regulation of the biosynthesis and biological function of glycoprotein oligosaccharides. Catalyzes the addition of N-acetylglucosamine in beta 1-4 linkage to the beta-linked mannose of the trimannosyl core of N-linked sugar chains, called bisecting N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc). It is one of the most important enzymes involved in the regulation of the biosynthesis of glycoprotein oligosaccharides. The addition of this bisecting GlcNAc residue alters not only the composition, but also the conformation of the N-glycan. The introduction of the bisecting GlcNAc residue results in the suppression of further processing and elongation of N-glycans, precluding the formation of beta-1,6 GlcNAc branching, catalyzed by MGAT5 since it is unable to use the bisected oligosaccharide as a substrate. Addition of bisecting N-acetylglucosamine to CDH1/E-cadherin modulates CDH1 cell membrane location. Inhibits NeuAc-alpha-2,3-Gal-beta-1,4- GlcNAc- formation which modulates sialylation levels and plays a role in cell migration regulation. In brain, addition of bisecting N-acetylglucosamine to BACE1 blocks its lysosomal targeting in response to oxidative stress and further degradation which increases its location to early endosome and the APP cleavage (By similarity).

Alpha-(1,4) exo-glucosidase involved in breakdown of dietary starch oligosaccharides in small intestine. Cleaves the non-reducing alpha-(1,4)-linked glucose residue in linear dextrins with retention of anomeric center stereochemistry. Mainly hydrolyzes short length oligomaltoses having two to seven glucose residues. Can cleave alpha-(1,2), alpha-(1,3) and alpha-(1,6) glycosidic linkages with lower efficiency, whereas beta glycosidic linkages are usually not hydrolyzed.

Magnesium-dependent phosphatase which may act as a tyrosine phosphatase.

Metal-dependent single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) exonuclease involved in mitochondrial genome maintenance. Has preference for 5'-3' exonuclease activity but is also capable of endoduclease activity on linear substrates. Necessary for maintenance of proper 7S DNA levels. Probably involved in mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) repair, possibly via the processing of displaced DNA containing Okazaki fragments during RNA- primed DNA synthesis on the lagging strand or via processing of DNA flaps during long-patch base excision repair. Specifically binds 5- hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC)-containing DNA in stem cells.

Involved in the cellular defense against the biological effects of O6-methylguanine (O6-MeG) and O4-methylthymine (O4-MeT) in DNA. Repairs the methylated nucleobase in DNA by stoichiometrically transferring the methyl group to a cysteine residue in the enzyme. This is a suicide reaction: the enzyme is irreversibly inactivated

Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Plays a redundant role with MAGOH in the exon junction complex and in the nonsense-mediated decay (NMD) pathway.

Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Plays a redundant role with MAGOHB as core component of the exon junction complex (EJC) and in the nonsense- mediated decay (NMD) pathway. The EJC is a dynamic structure consisting of core proteins and several peripheral nuclear and cytoplasmic associated factors that join the complex only transiently either during EJC assembly or during subsequent mRNA metabolism. The EJC marks the position of the exon-exon junction in the mature mRNA for the gene expression machinery and the core components remain bound to spliced mRNAs throughout all stages of mRNA metabolism thereby influencing downstream processes including nuclear mRNA export, subcellular mRNA localization, translation efficiency and nonsense- mediated mRNA decay (NMD). The MAGOH-RBM8A heterodimer inhibits the ATPase activity of EIF4A3, thereby trapping the ATP-bound EJC core onto spliced mRNA in a stable conformation. The MAGOH-RBM8A heterodimer interacts with the EJC key regulator PYM1 leading to EJC disassembly in the cytoplasm and translation enhancement of EJC-bearing spliced mRNAs by recruiting them to the ribosomal 48S preinitiation complex. Involved in the splicing modulation of BCL2L1/Bcl-X (and probably other apoptotic genes); specifically inhibits formation of proapoptotic isoforms such as Bcl-X(S); the function is different from the established EJC assembly.

Associates with the organic matrix of bone and cartilage. Thought to act as an inhibitor of bone formation

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Mediates monoubiquitination at multiple sites of TSG101 in the presence of UBE2D1, but not of UBE2G1, nor UBE2H. Plays a role in the regulation of endosome-to-lysosome trafficking. Impairs MC1R- and MC4R-signaling by competing with GNAS- binding to MCRs and inhibiting agonist-induced cAMP production. Does not inhibit ADRB2-signaling. Does not promote MC1R ubiquitination. Acts also as a negative regulator of hedgehog signaling (By similarity).

Catalyzes several different glutathione-dependent reactions. Catalyzes the glutathione-dependent reduction of lipid hydroperoxides, such as 5-HPETE. Has glutathione transferase activity, toward xenobiotic electrophiles, such as 1-chloro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene (CDNB). Catalyzes also the conjugation of leukotriene A4 with reduced glutathione to form leukotriene C4 (LTC4). Involved in oxidative DNA damage induced by ER stress and anticancer agents by activating LTC4 biosynthetic machinery in nonimmune cells.

Catalyzes oxydation of hydroxy-fatty acids. Also catalyzes the conjugation of a reduced glutathione to leukotriene A4 in vitro. May participate in the lipid metabolism.

Glycosyltransferase that catalyze the transfer of GlcNAc from UDP-GlcNAc to the GlcNAcbeta1-2Manalpha1-3 arm of the core structure of N-linked glycans through a beta1-4 linkage and participates in the production of tri- and tetra-antennary N-linked sugar chains. Involved in glucose transport by mediating SLC2A2/GLUT2 glycosylation, thereby controlling cell-surface expression of SLC2A2 in pancreatic beta cells (By similarity).

Glycosyltransferase that catalyze the transfer of GlcNAc from UDP-GlcNAc to the GlcNAcbeta1-2Manalpha1-3 arm of the core structure of N-linked glycans through a beta1-4 linkage and participates in the production of tri- and tetra-antennary N-linked sugar chains. Prefers complex-type N-glycans over hybrid-types. Has lower affinities for donors or acceptors than MGAT4A, suggesting that, under physiological conditions, it is not the main contributor in N-glycan biosynthesis.

Glycosyltransferase that participates in the transfer of N- acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) to the core mannose residues of N-linked glycans. Catalyzes the formation of the GlcNAcbeta1-4 branch on the GlcNAcbeta1-2Manalpha1-3 arm of the core structure of N-linked glycans. Essential for the production of tri- and tetra-antennary N-linked sugar chains (By similarity). Does not catalyze the transfer of GlcNAc to the Manalpha1-6 arm to form GlcNAcBeta1-4Manalpha1-6 linkage ('GnT-VI' activity).

May play a role in male spermatogenesis. In vitro acts as inhibitor of MGAT1 activity causing cell surface proteins to carry mainly high mannose N-glycans. The function is mediated by its lumenal domain and occurs specifically in the Golgi. A catalytic glucosyltransferase activity is not detected. May be involved in regulation of Sertoli-germ cell interactions during specific stages of spermatogenesis.

Catalyzes the addition of N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) in beta 1-6 linkage to the alpha-linked mannose of biantennary N-linked oligosaccharides. Catalyzes an important step in the biosynthesis of branched, complex-type N-glycans, such as those found on EGFR, TGFR (TGF-beta receptor) and CDH2. Via its role in the biosynthesis of complex N-glycans, plays an important role in the activation of cellular signaling pathways, reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton, cell-cell adhesion and cell migration. MGAT5-dependent EGFR N-glycosylation enhances the interaction between EGFR and LGALS3 and thereby prevents rapid EGFR endocytosis and prolongs EGFR signaling. Required for efficient interaction between TGFB1 and its receptor. Enhances activation of intracellular signaling pathways by several types of growth factors, including FGF2, PDGF, IGF, TGFB1 and EGF. MGAT5-dependent CDH2 N-glycosylation inhibits CDH2-mediated homotypic cell-cell adhesion and contributes to the regulation of downstream signaling pathways. Promotes cell migration. Contributes to the regulation of the inflammatory response. MGAT5-dependent TCR N- glycosylation enhances the interaction between TCR and LGALS3, limits agonist-induced TCR clustering, and thereby dampens TCR-mediated responses to antigens. Required for normal leukocyte evasation and accumulation at sites of inflammation (By similarity). Inhibits attachment of monocytes to the vascular endothelium and subsequent monocyte diapedesis.

Glycosyltransferase that acts on alpha-linked mannose of N- glycans and O-mannosyl glycans. Catalyzes the transfer of N- acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc) to the beta 1-6 linkage of the mannose residue of GlcNAc-beta1,2-Man-alpha on both the alpha1,3- and alpha1,6- linked mannose arms in the core structure of N-glycan. Also acts on the GlcNAc-beta1,2-Man-alpha1-Ser/Thr moiety, forming a 2,6-branched structure in brain O-mannosyl glycan. Plays an active role in modulating integrin and laminin-dependent adhesion and migration of neuronal cells via its activity in the O-mannosyl glycan pathway.

Functions in replication-dependent translation of histone mRNAs which differ from other eukaryotic mRNAs in that they do not end with a poly-A tail but a stem-loop. May participate in circularizing those mRNAs specifically enhancing their translation.

Plays a role in the transport of cargos that are too large to fit into COPII-coated vesicles and require specific mechanisms to be incorporated into membrane-bound carriers and exported from the endoplasmic reticulum. Plays a role in the secretion of lipoproteins, pre-chylomicrons and pre-VLDLs, by participating in their export from the endoplasmic reticulum. Thereby, may play a role in cholesterol and triglyceride homeostasis (By similarity). Required for collagen VII (COL7A1) secretion by loading COL7A1 into transport carriers and recruiting PREB/SEC12 at the endoplasmic reticulum exit sites.

Central component of a redox-sensitive mitochondrial intermembrane space import machinery which is required for the biogenesis of respiratory chain complexes. Functions as chaperone and catalyzes the formation of disulfide bonds in substrate proteins, such as COX17, COX19, MICU1 and COA7. Required for the import and folding of small cysteine-containing proteins (small Tim) in the mitochondrial intermembrane space (IMS). Required for the import of COA7 in the IMS. Precursor proteins to be imported into the IMS are translocated in their reduced form into the mitochondria. The oxidized form of CHCHD4/MIA40 forms a transient intermolecular disulfide bridge with the reduced precursor protein, resulting in oxidation of the precursor protein that now contains an intramolecular disulfide bond and is able to undergo folding in the IMS. Reduced CHCHD4/MIA40 is then reoxidized by GFER/ERV1 via a disulfide relay system. Mediates formation of disulfide bond in MICU1 in the IMS, promoting formation of the MICU1-MICU2 heterodimer that regulates mitochondrial calcium uptake.

Elicits growth inhibition on melanoma cells in vitro as well as some other neuroectodermal tumors, including gliomas

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination of Delta receptors, which act as ligands of Notch proteins. Positively regulates the Delta-mediated Notch signaling by ubiquitinating the intracellular domain of Delta, leading to endocytosis of Delta receptors. Probably mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of DAPK1, thereby antagonizing anti-apoptotic effects of DAPK1 to promote TNF-induced apoptosis (By similarity). Involved in ubiquitination of centriolar satellite CEP131, CEP290 and PCM1 proteins and hence inhibits primary cilium formation in proliferating cells. Mediates 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of TBK1, which probably participates in kinase activation.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination of Delta receptors, which act as ligands of Notch proteins. Positively regulates the Delta-mediated Notch signaling by ubiquitinating the intracellular domain of Delta, leading to endocytosis of Delta receptors.

Component of the MICOS complex, a large protein complex of the mitochondrial inner membrane that plays crucial roles in the maintenance of crista junctions, inner membrane architecture, and formation of contact sites to the outer membrane.

Component of the MICOS complex, a large protein complex of the mitochondrial inner membrane that plays crucial roles in the maintenance of crista junctions, inner membrane architecture, and formation of contact sites to the outer membrane. Constituent of mature MICOS complex, it is required for the formation of cristae junction (CJ) and maintenance of cristae morphology. Required for the incorporation of MICOS10/MIC10 into the MICOS complex.

Component of the MICOS complex, a large protein complex of the mitochondrial inner membrane that plays crucial roles in the maintenance of crista junctions, inner membrane architecture, and formation of contact sites to the outer membrane. Has also been shown to function as a transcription factor which binds to the BAG1 promoter and represses BAG1 transcription. Plays an important role in the maintenance of the MICOS complex stability and the mitochondrial cristae morphology.

Component of the MICOS complex, a large protein complex of the mitochondrial inner membrane that plays crucial roles in the maintenance of crista junctions, inner membrane architecture, and formation of contact sites to the outer membrane. Plays a crucial role in crista junction formation and mitochondrial function. Can promote cardiac lipotoxicity by enhancing mitochondrial respiration and fatty acid metabolism in cardiac myoblasts. Promotes cholesterol efflux from macrophage cells. Detected in HDL, LDL and VLDL. Secreted by a microsomal triglyceride transfer protein (MTTP)-dependent mechanism, probably as a VLDL-associated protein that is subsequently transferred to HDL.

Component of the MICOS complex, a large protein complex of the mitochondrial inner membrane that plays crucial roles in the maintenance of crista junctions, inner membrane architecture, and formation of contact sites to the outer membrane. Specifically binds to cardiolipin (in vitro) but not to the precursor lipid phosphatidylglycerol. Plays a crucial role in crista junction formation and mitochondrial function,.

Component of the MICOS complex, a large protein complex of the mitochondrial inner membrane that plays crucial roles in the maintenance of crista junctions, inner membrane architecture, and formation of contact sites to the outer membrane. Plays an important role in the maintenance of the MICOS complex stability and the mitochondrial cristae morphology.

Monooxygenase that promotes depolymerization of F-actin by mediating oxidation of specific methionine residues on actin to form methionine-sulfoxide, resulting in actin filament disassembly and preventing repolymerization. In the absence of actin, it also functions as a NADPH oxidase producing H(2)O(2). Acts as a cytoskeletal regulator that connects NEDD9 to intermediate filaments. Also acts as a negative regulator of apoptosis via its interaction with STK38 and STK38L; acts by antagonizing STK38 and STK38L activation by MST1/STK4. Involved in regulation of lamina-specific connectivity in the nervous system such as the development of lamina-restricted hippocampal connections. Through redox regulation of the actin cytoskeleton controls the intracellular distribution of secretory vesicles containing L1/neurofascin/NgCAM family proteins in neurons, thereby regulating their cell surface levels (By similarity). May act as Rab effector protein and play a role in vesicle trafficking.

Methionine monooxygenase that promotes depolymerization of F- actin by mediating oxidation of residues 'Met-44' and 'Met-47' on actin to form methionine-sulfoxide, resulting in actin filament disassembly and preventing repolymerization. Regulates the disassembly of branched actin networks also by oxidizing ARP3B-containing ARP2/3 complexes leading to ARP3B dissociation from the network. Acts as a key regulator of the SRF signaling pathway elicited by nerve growth factor and serum: mediates oxidation and subsequent depolymerization of nuclear actin, leading to increase MKL1/MRTF-A presence in the nucleus and promote SRF:MKL1/MRTF- A-dependent gene transcription. Does not activate SRF:MKL1/MRTF-A through RhoA.

Monooxygenase that promotes depolymerization of F-actin by mediating oxidation of specific methionine residues on actin to form methionine-sulfoxide, resulting in actin filament disassembly and preventing repolymerization. In the absence of actin, it also functions as a NADPH oxidase producing H(2)O(2). Seems to act as Rab effector protein and plays a role in vesicle trafficking. Involved in exocytic vesicles tethering and fusion: the monooxygenase activity is required for this process and implicates RAB8A associated with exocytotic vesicles. Required for cytokinesis. Contributes to stabilization and/or maturation of the intercellular bridge independently of its monooxygenase activity. Promotes recruitment of Rab8 and ERC1 to the intercellular bridge, and together these proteins are proposed to function in timely abscission.

Seems to have no role in antigen presentation. Acts as a stress-induced self-antigen that is recognized by gamma delta T cells. Ligand for the KLRK1/NKG2D receptor. Binding to KLRK1 leads to cell lysis.

Key regulator of mitochondrial calcium uniporter (MCU) that senses calcium level via its EF-hand domains. MICU1 and MICU2 form a disulfide-linked heterodimer that stimulates and inhibits MCU activity, depending on the concentration of calcium. MICU1 acts both as an activator or inhibitor of mitochondrial calcium uptake. Acts as a gatekeeper of MCU at low concentration of calcium, preventing channel opening. Enhances MCU opening at high calcium concentration, allowing a rapid response of mitochondria to calcium signals generated in the cytoplasm. Regulates glucose- dependent insulin secretion in pancreatic beta-cells by regulating mitochondrial calcium uptake. Induces T-helper 1- mediated autoreactivity, which is accompanied by the release of IFNG.

Key regulator of mitochondrial calcium uniporter (MCU) required to limit calcium uptake by MCU when cytoplasmic calcium is low. MICU1 and MICU2 form a disulfide-linked heterodimer that stimulate and inhibit MCU activity, depending on the concentration of calcium. MICU2 acts as a gatekeeper of MCU that senses calcium level via its EF- hand domains: prevents channel opening at resting calcium, avoiding energy dissipation and cell-death triggering.

Mitochondrial outer membrane protein involved in the regulation of mitochondrial organization. It is required for mitochondrial fission and promotes the recruitment and association of the fission mediator dynamin-related protein 1 (DNM1L) to the mitochondrial surface independently of the mitochondrial fission FIS1 and MFF proteins. Regulates DNM1L GTPase activity.

Mitochondrial outer membrane protein which regulates mitochondrial fission. Promotes the recruitment and association of the fission mediator dynamin-related protein 1 (DNM1L) to the mitochondrial surface independently of the mitochondrial fission FIS1 and MFF proteins. Regulates DNM1L GTPase activity and DNM1L oligomerization. Binds ADP and can also bind GDP, although with lower affinity. Does not bind CDP, UDP, ATP, AMP or GTP. Inhibits DNM1L GTPase activity in the absence of bound ADP. Requires ADP to stimulate DNM1L GTPase activity and the assembly of DNM1L into long, oligomeric tubules with a spiral pattern, as opposed to the ring-like DNM1L oligomers observed in the absence of bound ADP. Does not require ADP for its function in recruiting DNM1L.

Key regulator of mitochondrial quality that mediates the repairing or degradation of unhealthy mitochondria in response to mitochondrial damage. Mediator of mitochondrial protein catabolic process (also named MALM) by mediating the degradation of damaged proteins inside mitochondria by promoting the accumulation in the mitochondrial matrix of hydrolases that are characteristic of the lysosomal lumen. Also involved in mitochondrion degradation of damaged mitochondria by promoting the formation of vacuole-like structures (named MIV), which engulf and degrade unhealthy mitochondria by accumulating lysosomes. The physical interaction of SPATA18/MIEAP, BNIP3 and BNIP3L/NIX at the mitochondrial outer membrane regulates the opening of a pore in the mitochondrial double membrane in order to mediate the translocation of lysosomal proteins from the cytoplasm to the mitochondrial matrix.

Increases cell migration by inducing filopodia formation at the leading edge of migrating cells. Plays a role in regulation of apoptosis, possibly through control of CASP3. May be involved in a redox-related process.

Transcriptional repressor regulating the expression of a number of genes including SP1 target genes. Probably functions through recruitment of HDAC1 a histone deacetylase involved in chromatin silencing.

Pro-inflammatory cytokine involved in the innate immune response to bacterial pathogens. The expression of MIF at sites of inflammation suggests a role as mediator in regulating the function of macrophages in host defense. Counteracts the anti-inflammatory activity of glucocorticoids. Has phenylpyruvate tautomerase and dopachrome tautomerase activity (in vitro), but the physiological substrate is not known. It is not clear whether the tautomerase activity has any physiological relevance, and whether it is important for cytokine activity.

Regulator of mitochondrial fusion: acts by forming homo- and heterodimers at the mitochondrial outer membrane and facilitating the formation of PLD6/MitoPLD dimers. May act by regulating phospholipid metabolism via PLD6/MitoPLD.

Inhibits glioma cells invasion and down-regulates adhesion- and motility-associated genes such as NFKB2 and ICAM1. Exhibits opposing effects to IGFBP2 on cell invasion.

Probable lipid-binding protein with higher affinity for phosphatidic acid, a lipid enriched in recycling endosome membranes. On endosome membranes, may act as a downstream effector of Rab proteins recruiting cytosolic proteins to regulate membrane tubulation. May be involved in a late step of receptor-mediated endocytosis regulating for instance endocytosed-EGF receptor trafficking. Alternatively, may regulate slow endocytic recycling of endocytosed proteins back to the plasma membrane. May indirectly play a role in neurite outgrowth.

Effector of small Rab GTPases which is involved in junctional complexes assembly through the regulation of cell adhesion molecules transport to the plasma membrane and actin cytoskeleton reorganization. Regulates the endocytic recycling of occludins, claudins and E-cadherin to the plasma membrane and may thereby regulate the establishment of tight junctions and adherens junctions. In parallel, may regulate actin cytoskeleton reorganization directly through interaction with F-actin or indirectly through actinins and filamins. Most probably involved in the processes of epithelial cell differentiation, cell spreading and neurite outgrowth (By similarity).

Immunoglobulin-like receptor which plays an inhibitory role in degranulation of mast cells. Negatively regulates IgE-mediated mast cell activation and suppresses the type I immediate hypersensitivity reaction (By similarity).

Induces bone formation in conjunction with TGF-beta-1 or TGF- beta-2

Serine/threonine kinase which acts as a negative regulator of Ras-related Rap2-mediated signal transduction to control neuronal structure and AMPA receptor trafficking. Required for normal synaptic density, dendrite complexity, as well as surface AMPA receptor expression in hippocampal neurons. Can activate the JNK and MAPK14/p38 pathways and mediates stimulation of the stress-activated protein kinase MAPK14/p38 MAPK downstream of the Raf/ERK pathway. Phosphorylates: TANC1 upon stimulation by RAP2A, MBP and SMAD1. Has an essential function in negative selection of thymocytes, perhaps by coupling NCK1 to activation of JNK1

Acts as a phosphoinositide 5- and phosphoinositide 6- phosphatase and regulates cellular levels of inositol pentakisphosphate (InsP5) and inositol hexakisphosphate (InsP6). Also acts as a 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate 3-phosphatase, by mediating the dephosphorylation of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG) to produce phospho-D-glycerate without formation of 3-phosphoglycerate. May play a role in bone development (endochondral ossification). May play a role in the transition of chondrocytes from proliferation to hypertrophy (By similarity). Through the regulation of intracellular inositol polyphosphates, may control intracellular cation homeostasis, including that of calcium and iron, hence affecting free cation availability required for neural cell signaling.

May serve as a nuclear matrix platform that organizes and integrates transcriptional responses. In osteoblasts, supports transcription activation: synergizes with RUNX2 to enhance FGFR2- mediated activation of the osteocalcin FGF-responsive element (OCFRE) (By similarity). Has also been shown to be an essential corepressor protein, which probably regulates different key pathways such as the Notch pathway. Negative regulator of the Notch pathway via its interaction with RBPSUH, which prevents the association between NOTCH1 and RBPSUH, and therefore suppresses the transactivation activity of Notch signaling. Blocks the differentiation of precursor B-cells into marginal zone B-cells. Probably represses transcription via the recruitment of large complexes containing histone deacetylase proteins. May bind both to DNA and RNA.

Hydrolase that can specifically remove 'Lys-48'-linked conjugated ubiquitin from proteins. Has exodeubiquitinase activity and has a preference for long polyubiquitin chains. May play a regulatory role at the level of protein turnover.

Hydrolase that can remove 'Lys-48'-linked conjugated ubiquitin from proteins. Binds to polyubiquitin chains of different linkage types, including 'Lys-6', 'Lys-11', 'Lys- 29', 'Lys-33', 'Lys-48' and 'Lys-63'. May play a regulatory role at the level of protein turnover.

Hydrolase that can remove 'Lys-48'-linked conjugated ubiquitin from proteins.

Probable hydrolase that can remove 'Lys-48'-linked conjugated ubiquitin from proteins.

As a component of the GATOR subcomplex GATOR2, functions within the amino acid-sensing branch of the TORC1 signaling pathway. Indirectly activates mTORC1 and the TORC1 signaling pathway through the inhibition of the GATOR1 subcomplex. It is negatively regulated by the upstream amino acid sensors SESN2 and CASTOR1.

Cleaves proteins, imported into the mitochondrion, to their mature size

Plays an inhibitory role on IL13 signaling by binding to IL13RA1. Involved in suppression of IL13-induced STAT6 phosphorylation, transcriptional activity and DNA-binding. Recruits TRAF3 and DISC1 to the microtubules. Involved in kidney development and epithelial morphogenesis. Involved in the regulation of microtubule cytoskeleton organization. Is a negative regulator of microtubule stability, acting through the control of MAP4 levels. Involved in ciliogenesis (By similarity).

Water channel. Channel activity is down- regulated by CALM when cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels are increased. May be responsible for regulating the osmolarity of the lens. Interactions between homotetramers from adjoining membranes may stabilize cell junctions in the eye lens core (By similarity). Plays a role in cell- to-cell adhesion and facilitates gap junction coupling.

Mitochondrial GTPase involved in mitochondrial trafficking. Probably involved in control of anterograde transport of mitochondria and their subcellular distribution. Promotes mitochondrial fission during high calcium conditions.

Mitochondrial GTPase involved in mitochondrial trafficking. Probably involved in control of anterograde transport of mitochondria and their subcellular distribution.

Part of the MIS12 complex which is required for normal chromosome alignment and segregation and for kinetochore formation during mitosis. Essential for proper kinetochore microtubule attachments.

Plays a role in mitotic spindle orientation and mitotic progression. Regulates the distribution of dynactin at the cell cortex in a PLK1-dependent manner, thus stabilizing cortical and astral microtubule attachments required for proper mitotic spindle positioning. May link microtubules to the actin cytospkeleton and focal adhesions. May be required for directed cell migration and centrosome orientation. May also be necessary for proper stacking of the Golgi apparatus.

Plays an important role in several reproductive functions. Induces Muellerian duct regression during male fetal sexual differentiation. Also plays a role in Leydig cell differentiation and function (By similarity). In female acts as a negative regulator of the primordial to primary follicle transition and decreases FSH sensitivity of growing follicles. AMH signals by binding to a specific type- II receptor, AMHR2, that heterodimerizes with type-I receptors (ACVR1 and BMPR1A), and recruiting SMAD proteins that are translocated to the nucleus to regulate target gene expression.

Required for efficient abscission at the end of cytokinesis, together with components of the ESCRT-III complex.

Transcription factor that regulates the expression of genes with essential roles in cell differentiation, proliferation and survival. Binds to M-boxes (5'-TCATGTG-3') and symmetrical DNA sequences (E-boxes) (5'-CACGTG-3') found in the promoters of target genes, such as BCL2 and tyrosinase (TYR). Plays an important role in melanocyte development by regulating the expression of tyrosinase (TYR) and tyrosinase-related protein 1 (TYRP1). Plays a critical role in the differentiation of various cell types, such as neural crest-derived melanocytes, mast cells, osteoclasts and optic cup-derived retinal pigment epithelium.

Mitochondrial potassium channel located in the mitochondrial inner membrane. Together with ABCB8/MITOSUR, forms a protein complex localized in the mitochondria that mediates ATP- dependent potassium currents across the inner membrane (that is, mitoK(ATP) channel). May contribute to the homeostatic control of cellular metabolism under stress conditions by regulating the mitochondrial matrix volume.

ATP-binding subunit of the mitochondrial potassium channel located in the mitochondrial inner membrane. Together with CCDC51/MITOK, forms a protein complex localized in the mitochondria that mediates ATP-dependent potassium currents across the inner membrane (that is, mitoK(ATP) channel). Plays a role in mitochondrial iron transport. Required for maintenance of normal cardiac function, possibly by influencing mitochondrial iron export and regulating the maturation of cytosolic iron sulfur cluster-containing enzymes (By similarity).

Transcription factor that play a central role in proper axial mesendoderm morphogenesis and endoderm formation. Required for efficient differentiation of cells from the primitive streak stage to blood, by acting early in the recruitment and/or expansion of mesodermal progenitors to the hemangioblastic and hematopoietic lineages. Also involved in the morphogenesis of the heart and the gut during embryogenesis. Acts as a negative regulator of brachyury expression (By similarity).

Serine/threonine kinase which acts as an essential component of the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. MAPK1/ERK2 and MAPK3/ERK1 are the 2 MAPKs which play an important role in the MAPK/ERK cascade. They participate also in a signaling cascade initiated by activated KIT and KITLG/SCF. Depending on the cellular context, the MAPK/ERK cascade mediates diverse biological functions such as cell growth, adhesion, survival and differentiation through the regulation of transcription, translation, cytoskeletal rearrangements. The MAPK/ERK cascade also plays a role in initiation and regulation of meiosis, mitosis, and postmitotic functions in differentiated cells by phosphorylating a number of transcription factors. About 160 substrates have already been discovered for ERKs. Many of these substrates are localized in the nucleus, and seem to participate in the regulation of transcription upon stimulation. However, other substrates are found in the cytosol as well as in other cellular organelles, and those are responsible for processes such as translation, mitosis and apoptosis. Moreover, the MAPK/ERK cascade is also involved in the regulation of the endosomal dynamics, including lysosome processing and endosome cycling through the perinuclear recycling compartment (PNRC); as well as in the fragmentation of the Golgi apparatus during mitosis. The substrates include transcription factors (such as ATF2, BCL6, ELK1, ERF, FOS, HSF4 or SPZ1), cytoskeletal elements (such as CANX, CTTN, GJA1, MAP2, MAPT, PXN, SORBS3 or STMN1), regulators of apoptosis (such as BAD, BTG2, CASP9, DAPK1, IER3, MCL1 or PPARG), regulators of translation (such as EIF4EBP1) and a variety of other signaling-related molecules (like ARHGEF2, DCC, FRS2 or GRB10). Protein kinases (such as RAF1, RPS6KA1/RSK1, RPS6KA3/RSK2, RPS6KA2/RSK3, RPS6KA6/RSK4, SYK, MKNK1/MNK1, MKNK2/MNK2, RPS6KA5/MSK1, RPS6KA4/MSK2, MAPKAPK3 or MAPKAPK5) and phosphatases (such as DUSP1, DUSP4, DUSP6 or DUSP16) are other substrates which enable the propagation the MAPK/ERK signal to additional cytosolic and nuclear targets, thereby extending the specificity of the cascade. Mediates phosphorylation of TPR in response to EGF stimulation. May play a role in the spindle assembly checkpoint. Phosphorylates PML and promotes its interaction with PIN1, leading to PML degradation. Phosphorylates CDK2AP2 (By similarity).

Serine/threonine kinase which acts as an essential component of the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. MAPK1/ERK2 and MAPK3/ERK1 are the 2 MAPKs which play an important role in the MAPK/ERK cascade. They participate also in a signaling cascade initiated by activated KIT and KITLG/SCF. Depending on the cellular context, the MAPK/ERK cascade mediates diverse biological functions such as cell growth, adhesion, survival and differentiation through the regulation of transcription, translation, cytoskeletal rearrangements. The MAPK/ERK cascade also plays a role in initiation and regulation of meiosis, mitosis, and postmitotic functions in differentiated cells by phosphorylating a number of transcription factors. About 160 substrates have already been discovered for ERKs. Many of these substrates are localized in the nucleus, and seem to participate in the regulation of transcription upon stimulation. However, other substrates are found in the cytosol as well as in other cellular organelles, and those are responsible for processes such as translation, mitosis and apoptosis. Moreover, the MAPK/ERK cascade is also involved in the regulation of the endosomal dynamics, including lysosome processing and endosome cycling through the perinuclear recycling compartment (PNRC); as well as in the fragmentation of the Golgi apparatus during mitosis. The substrates include transcription factors (such as ATF2, BCL6, ELK1, ERF, FOS, HSF4 or SPZ1), cytoskeletal elements (such as CANX, CTTN, GJA1, MAP2, MAPT, PXN, SORBS3 or STMN1), regulators of apoptosis (such as BAD, BTG2, CASP9, DAPK1, IER3, MCL1 or PPARG), regulators of translation (such as EIF4EBP1) and a variety of other signaling-related molecules (like ARHGEF2, FRS2 or GRB10). Protein kinases (such as RAF1, RPS6KA1/RSK1, RPS6KA3/RSK2, RPS6KA2/RSK3, RPS6KA6/RSK4, SYK, MKNK1/MNK1, MKNK2/MNK2, RPS6KA5/MSK1, RPS6KA4/MSK2, MAPKAPK3 or MAPKAPK5) and phosphatases (such as DUSP1, DUSP4, DUSP6 or DUSP16) are other substrates which enable the propagation the MAPK/ERK signal to additional cytosolic and nuclear targets, thereby extending the specificity of the cascade.

Atypical MAPK protein. Phosphorylates microtubule-associated protein 2 (MAP2) and MAPKAPK5. The precise role of the complex formed with MAPKAPK5 is still unclear, but the complex follows a complex set of phosphorylation events: upon interaction with atypical MAPKAPK5, ERK4/MAPK4 is phosphorylated at Ser-186 and then mediates phosphorylation and activation of MAPKAPK5, which in turn phosphorylates ERK4/MAPK4. May promote entry in the cell cycle (By similarity).

Atypical MAPK protein. Phosphorylates microtubule-associated protein 2 (MAP2) and MAPKAPK5. The precise role of the complex formed with MAPKAPK5 is still unclear, but the complex follows a complex set of phosphorylation events: upon interaction with atypical MAPKAPK5, ERK3/MAPK6 is phosphorylated at Ser-189 and then mediates phosphorylation and activation of MAPKAPK5, which in turn phosphorylates ERK3/MAPK6. May promote entry in the cell cycle (By similarity).

Plays a role in various cellular processes such as proliferation, differentiation and cell survival. The upstream activator of MAPK7 is the MAPK kinase MAP2K5. Upon activation, it translocates to the nucleus and phosphorylates various downstream targets including MEF2C. EGF activates MAPK7 through a Ras-independent and MAP2K5-dependent pathway. May have a role in muscle cell differentiation. May be important for endothelial function and maintenance of blood vessel integrity. MAP2K5 and MAPK7 interact specifically with one another and not with MEK1/ERK1 or MEK2/ERK2 pathways. Phosphorylates SGK1 at Ser-78 and this is required for growth factor-induced cell cycle progression. Involved in the regulation of p53/TP53 by disrupting the PML-MDM2 interaction.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in various processes such as cell proliferation, differentiation, migration, transformation and programmed cell death. Extracellular stimuli such as pro- inflammatory cytokines or physical stress stimulate the stress- activated protein kinase/c-Jun N-terminal kinase (SAP/JNK) signaling pathway. In this cascade, two dual specificity kinases MAP2K4/MKK4 and MAP2K7/MKK7 phosphorylate and activate MAPK8/JNK1. In turn, MAPK8/JNK1 phosphorylates a number of transcription factors, primarily components of AP-1 such as JUN, JDP2 and ATF2 and thus regulates AP-1 transcriptional activity. Phosphorylates the replication licensing factor CDT1, inhibiting the interaction between CDT1 and the histone H4 acetylase HBO1 to replication origins. Loss of this interaction abrogates the acetylation required for replication initiation. Promotes stressed cell apoptosis by phosphorylating key regulatory factors including p53/TP53 and Yes-associates protein YAP1. In T-cells, MAPK8 and MAPK9 are required for polarized differentiation of T-helper cells into Th1 cells. Contributes to the survival of erythroid cells by phosphorylating the antagonist of cell death BAD upon EPO stimulation. Mediates starvation-induced BCL2 phosphorylation, BCL2 dissociation from BECN1, and thus activation of autophagy. Phosphorylates STMN2 and hence regulates microtubule dynamics, controlling neurite elongation in cortical neurons (By similarity). In the developing brain, through its cytoplasmic activity on STMN2, negatively regulates the rate of exit from multipolar stage and of radial migration from the ventricular zone (By similarity). Phosphorylates several other substrates including heat shock factor protein 4 (HSF4), the deacetylase SIRT1, ELK1, or the E3 ligase ITCH. Phosphorylates the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer and plays a role in the regulation of the circadian clock. Phosphorylates the heat shock transcription factor HSF1, suppressing HSF1-induced transcriptional activity. Phosphorylates POU5F1, which results in the inhibition of POU5F1's transcriptional activity and enhances its proteosomal degradation (By similarity). Phosphorylates JUND and this phosphorylation is inhibited in the presence of MEN1. In neurons, phosphorylates SYT4 which captures neuronal dense core vesicles at synapses (By similarity). Phosphorylates EIF4ENIF1/4-ET in response to oxidative stress, promoting P-body assembly. Phosphorylates SIRT6 in response to oxidative stress, stimulating its mono-ADP- ribosyltransferase activity.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in various processes such as cell proliferation, differentiation, migration, transformation and programmed cell death. Extracellular stimuli such as pro- inflammatory cytokines or physical stress stimulate the stress- activated protein kinase/c-Jun N-terminal kinase (SAP/JNK) signaling pathway. In this cascade, two dual specificity kinases MAP2K4/MKK4 and MAP2K7/MKK7 phosphorylate and activate MAPK9/JNK2. In turn, MAPK9/JNK2 phosphorylates a number of transcription factors, primarily components of AP-1 such as JUN and ATF2 and thus regulates AP-1 transcriptional activity. In response to oxidative or ribotoxic stresses, inhibits rRNA synthesis by phosphorylating and inactivating the RNA polymerase 1- specific transcription initiation factor RRN3. Promotes stressed cell apoptosis by phosphorylating key regulatory factors including TP53 and YAP1. In T-cells, MAPK8 and MAPK9 are required for polarized differentiation of T-helper cells into Th1 cells. Upon T-cell receptor (TCR) stimulation, is activated by CARMA1, BCL10, MAP2K7 and MAP3K7/TAK1 to regulate JUN protein levels. Plays an important role in the osmotic stress-induced epithelial tight-junctions disruption. When activated, promotes beta-catenin/CTNNB1 degradation and inhibits the canonical Wnt signaling pathway. Participates also in neurite growth in spiral ganglion neurons. Phosphorylates the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer and plays a role in the regulation of the circadian clock. Phosphorylates POU5F1, which results in the inhibition of POU5F1's transcriptional activity and enhances its proteosomal degradation (By similarity).

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in various processes such as neuronal proliferation, differentiation, migration and programmed cell death. Extracellular stimuli such as pro-inflammatory cytokines or physical stress stimulate the stress-activated protein kinase/c-Jun N-terminal kinase (SAP/JNK) signaling pathway. In this cascade, two dual specificity kinases MAP2K4/MKK4 and MAP2K7/MKK7 phosphorylate and activate MAPK10/JNK3. In turn, MAPK10/JNK3 phosphorylates a number of transcription factors, primarily components of AP-1 such as JUN and ATF2 and thus regulates AP-1 transcriptional activity. Plays regulatory roles in the signaling pathways during neuronal apoptosis. Phosphorylates the neuronal microtubule regulator STMN2. Acts in the regulation of the amyloid-beta precursor protein/APP signaling during neuronal differentiation by phosphorylating APP. Participates also in neurite growth in spiral ganglion neurons. Phosphorylates the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer and plays a role in the photic regulation of the circadian clock. Phosphorylates JUND and this phosphorylation is inhibited in the presence of MEN1.

Serine/threonine kinase which acts as an essential component of the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. MAPK11 is one of the four p38 MAPKs which play an important role in the cascades of cellular responses evoked by extracellular stimuli such as pro-inflammatory cytokines or physical stress leading to direct activation of transcription factors. Accordingly, p38 MAPKs phosphorylate a broad range of proteins and it has been estimated that they may have approximately 200 to 300 substrates each. MAPK11 functions are mostly redundant with those of MAPK14. Some of the targets are downstream kinases which are activated through phosphorylation and further phosphorylate additional targets. RPS6KA5/MSK1 and RPS6KA4/MSK2 can directly phosphorylate and activate transcription factors such as CREB1, ATF1, the NF-kappa-B isoform RELA/NFKB3, STAT1 and STAT3, but can also phosphorylate histone H3 and the nucleosomal protein HMGN1. RPS6KA5/MSK1 and RPS6KA4/MSK2 play important roles in the rapid induction of immediate- early genes in response to stress or mitogenic stimuli, either by inducing chromatin remodeling or by recruiting the transcription machinery. On the other hand, two other kinase targets, MAPKAPK2/MK2 and MAPKAPK3/MK3, participate in the control of gene expression mostly at the post-transcriptional level, by phosphorylating ZFP36 (tristetraprolin) and ELAVL1, and by regulating EEF2K, which is important for the elongation of mRNA during translation. MKNK1/MNK1 and MKNK2/MNK2, two other kinases activated by p38 MAPKs, regulate protein synthesis by phosphorylating the initiation factor EIF4E2. In the cytoplasm, the p38 MAPK pathway is an important regulator of protein turnover. For example, CFLAR is an inhibitor of TNF-induced apoptosis whose proteasome-mediated degradation is regulated by p38 MAPK phosphorylation. Ectodomain shedding of transmembrane proteins is regulated by p38 MAPKs as well. In response to inflammatory stimuli, p38 MAPKs phosphorylate the membrane-associated metalloprotease ADAM17. Such phosphorylation is required for ADAM17-mediated ectodomain shedding of TGF-alpha family ligands, which results in the activation of EGFR signaling and cell proliferation. Additional examples of p38 MAPK substrates are the FGFR1. FGFR1 can be translocated from the extracellular space into the cytosol and nucleus of target cells, and regulates processes such as rRNA synthesis and cell growth. FGFR1 translocation requires p38 MAPK activation. In the nucleus, many transcription factors are phosphorylated and activated by p38 MAPKs in response to different stimuli. Classical examples include ATF1, ATF2, ATF6, ELK1, PTPRH, DDIT3, TP53/p53 and MEF2C and MEF2A. The p38 MAPKs are emerging as important modulators of gene expression by regulating chromatin modifiers and remodelers. The promoters of several genes involved in the inflammatory response, such as IL6, IL8 and IL12B, display a p38 MAPK-dependent enrichment of histone H3 phosphorylation on 'Ser-10' (H3S10ph) in LPS-stimulated myeloid cells. This phosphorylation enhances the accessibility of the cryptic NF- kappa-B-binding sites marking promoters for increased NF-kappa-B recruitment. Phosphorylates NLRP1 downstream of MAP3K20/ZAK in response to UV-B irradiation and ribosome collisions, promoting activation of the NLRP1 inflammasome and pyroptosis.

Serine/threonine kinase which acts as an essential component of the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. MAPK12 is one of the four p38 MAPKs which play an important role in the cascades of cellular responses evoked by extracellular stimuli such as pro-inflammatory cytokines or physical stress leading to direct activation of transcription factors such as ELK1 and ATF2. Accordingly, p38 MAPKs phosphorylate a broad range of proteins and it has been estimated that they may have approximately 200 to 300 substrates each. Some of the targets are downstream kinases such as MAPKAPK2, which are activated through phosphorylation and further phosphorylate additional targets. Plays a role in myoblast differentiation and also in the down- regulation of cyclin D1 in response to hypoxia in adrenal cells suggesting MAPK12 may inhibit cell proliferation while promoting differentiation. Phosphorylates DLG1. Following osmotic shock, MAPK12 in the cell nucleus increases its association with nuclear DLG1, thereby causing dissociation of DLG1-SFPQ complexes. This function is independent of its catalytic activity and could affect mRNA processing and/or gene transcription to aid cell adaptation to osmolarity changes in the environment. Regulates UV-induced checkpoint signaling and repair of UV-induced DNA damage and G2 arrest after gamma-radiation exposure. MAPK12 is involved in the regulation of SLC2A1 expression and basal glucose uptake in L6 myotubes; and negatively regulates SLC2A4 expression and contraction-mediated glucose uptake in adult skeletal muscle. C-Jun (JUN) phosphorylation is stimulated by MAPK14 and inhibited by MAPK12, leading to a distinct AP-1 regulation. MAPK12 is required for the normal kinetochore localization of PLK1, prevents chromosomal instability and supports mitotic cell viability. MAPK12- signaling is also positively regulating the expansion of transient amplifying myogenic precursor cells during muscle growth and regeneration.

Serine/threonine kinase which acts as an essential component of the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. MAPK13 is one of the four p38 MAPKs which play an important role in the cascades of cellular responses evoked by extracellular stimuli such as pro-inflammatory cytokines or physical stress leading to direct activation of transcription factors such as ELK1 and ATF2. Accordingly, p38 MAPKs phosphorylate a broad range of proteins and it has been estimated that they may have approximately 200 to 300 substrates each. MAPK13 is one of the less studied p38 MAPK isoforms. Some of the targets are downstream kinases such as MAPKAPK2, which are activated through phosphorylation and further phosphorylate additional targets. Plays a role in the regulation of protein translation by phosphorylating and inactivating EEF2K. Involved in cytoskeletal remodeling through phosphorylation of MAPT and STMN1. Mediates UV irradiation induced up- regulation of the gene expression of CXCL14. Plays an important role in the regulation of epidermal keratinocyte differentiation, apoptosis and skin tumor development. Phosphorylates the transcriptional activator MYB in response to stress which leads to rapid MYB degradation via a proteasome-dependent pathway. MAPK13 also phosphorylates and down- regulates PRKD1 during regulation of insulin secretion in pancreatic beta cells.

Serine/threonine kinase which acts as an essential component of the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. MAPK14 is one of the four p38 MAPKs which play an important role in the cascades of cellular responses evoked by extracellular stimuli such as pro-inflammatory cytokines or physical stress leading to direct activation of transcription factors. Accordingly, p38 MAPKs phosphorylate a broad range of proteins and it has been estimated that they may have approximately 200 to 300 substrates each. Some of the targets are downstream kinases which are activated through phosphorylation and further phosphorylate additional targets. RPS6KA5/MSK1 and RPS6KA4/MSK2 can directly phosphorylate and activate transcription factors such as CREB1, ATF1, the NF-kappa-B isoform RELA/NFKB3, STAT1 and STAT3, but can also phosphorylate histone H3 and the nucleosomal protein HMGN1. RPS6KA5/MSK1 and RPS6KA4/MSK2 play important roles in the rapid induction of immediate-early genes in response to stress or mitogenic stimuli, either by inducing chromatin remodeling or by recruiting the transcription machinery. On the other hand, two other kinase targets, MAPKAPK2/MK2 and MAPKAPK3/MK3, participate in the control of gene expression mostly at the post-transcriptional level, by phosphorylating ZFP36 (tristetraprolin) and ELAVL1, and by regulating EEF2K, which is important for the elongation of mRNA during translation. MKNK1/MNK1 and MKNK2/MNK2, two other kinases activated by p38 MAPKs, regulate protein synthesis by phosphorylating the initiation factor EIF4E2. MAPK14 interacts also with casein kinase II, leading to its activation through autophosphorylation and further phosphorylation of TP53/p53. In the cytoplasm, the p38 MAPK pathway is an important regulator of protein turnover. For example, CFLAR is an inhibitor of TNF-induced apoptosis whose proteasome-mediated degradation is regulated by p38 MAPK phosphorylation. In a similar way, MAPK14 phosphorylates the ubiquitin ligase SIAH2, regulating its activity towards EGLN3. MAPK14 may also inhibit the lysosomal degradation pathway of autophagy by interfering with the intracellular trafficking of the transmembrane protein ATG9. Another function of MAPK14 is to regulate the endocytosis of membrane receptors by different mechanisms that impinge on the small GTPase RAB5A. In addition, clathrin-mediated EGFR internalization induced by inflammatory cytokines and UV irradiation depends on MAPK14-mediated phosphorylation of EGFR itself as well as of RAB5A effectors. Ectodomain shedding of transmembrane proteins is regulated by p38 MAPKs as well. In response to inflammatory stimuli, p38 MAPKs phosphorylate the membrane- associated metalloprotease ADAM17. Such phosphorylation is required for ADAM17-mediated ectodomain shedding of TGF-alpha family ligands, which results in the activation of EGFR signaling and cell proliferation. Another p38 MAPK substrate is FGFR1. FGFR1 can be translocated from the extracellular space into the cytosol and nucleus of target cells, and regulates processes such as rRNA synthesis and cell growth. FGFR1 translocation requires p38 MAPK activation. In the nucleus, many transcription factors are phosphorylated and activated by p38 MAPKs in response to different stimuli. Classical examples include ATF1, ATF2, ATF6, ELK1, PTPRH, DDIT3, TP53/p53 and MEF2C and MEF2A. The p38 MAPKs are emerging as important modulators of gene expression by regulating chromatin modifiers and remodelers. The promoters of several genes involved in the inflammatory response, such as IL6, IL8 and IL12B, display a p38 MAPK-dependent enrichment of histone H3 phosphorylation on 'Ser-10' (H3S10ph) in LPS-stimulated myeloid cells. This phosphorylation enhances the accessibility of the cryptic NF-kappa-B-binding sites marking promoters for increased NF- kappa-B recruitment. Phosphorylates CDC25B and CDC25C which is required for binding to 14-3-3 proteins and leads to initiation of a G2 delay after ultraviolet radiation. Phosphorylates TIAR following DNA damage, releasing TIAR from GADD45A mRNA and preventing mRNA degradation. The p38 MAPKs may also have kinase- independent roles, which are thought to be due to the binding to targets in the absence of phosphorylation. Protein O-Glc-N-acylation catalyzed by the OGT is regulated by MAPK14, and, although OGT does not seem to be phosphorylated by MAPK14, their interaction increases upon MAPK14 activation induced by glucose deprivation. This interaction may regulate OGT activity by recruiting it to specific targets such as neurofilament H, stimulating its O-Glc-N-acylation. Required in mid- fetal development for the growth of embryo-derived blood vessels in the labyrinth layer of the placenta. Also plays an essential role in developmental and stress-induced erythropoiesis, through regulation of EPO gene expression. Isoform MXI2 activation is stimulated by mitogens and oxidative stress and only poorly phosphorylates ELK1 and ATF2. Isoform EXIP may play a role in the early onset of apoptosis. Phosphorylates S100A9 at 'Thr-113'. Phosphorylates NLRP1 downstream of MAP3K20/ZAK in response to UV-B irradiation and ribosome collisions, promoting activation of the NLRP1 inflammasome and pyroptosis.

Atypical MAPK protein that regulates several process such as autophagy, ciliogenesis, protein trafficking/secretion and genome integrity, in a kinase activity-dependent manner. Controls both, basal and starvation-induced autophagy throught its interaction with GABARAP, MAP1LC3B and GABARAPL1 leading to autophagosome formation, SQSTM1 degradation and reduced MAP1LC3B inhibitory phosphorylation. Regulates primary cilium formation and the localization of ciliary proteins involved in cilium structure, transport, and signaling. Prevents the relocation of the sugar-adding enzymes from the Golgi to the endoplasmic reticulum, thereby restricting the production of sugar- coated proteins. Upon amino-acid starvation, mediates transitional endoplasmic reticulum site disassembly and inhibition of secretion. Binds to chromatin leading to MAPK15 activation and interaction with PCNA, that which protects genomic integrity by inhibiting MDM2-mediated degradation of PCNA. Regulates DA transporter (DAT) activity and protein expression via activation of RhoA. In response to H(2)O(2) treatment phosphorylates ELAVL1, thus preventing it from binding to the PDCD4 3'UTR and rendering the PDCD4 mRNA accessible to miR-21 and leading to its degradation and loss of protein expression. Also functions in a kinase activity-independent manner as a negative regulator of growth (By similarity). Phosphorylates in vitro FOS and MBP. During oocyte maturation, plays a key role in the microtubule organization and meiotic cell cycle progression in oocytes, fertilized eggs, and early embryos (By similarity). Interacts with ESRRA promoting its re-localization from the nucleus to the cytoplasm and then prevents its transcriptional activity.

Probable molecular chaperone that assists the folding of proteins upon ATP hydrolysis. Plays a role in the assembly of BBSome, a complex involved in ciliogenesis regulating transports vesicles to the cilia. May play a role in protein processing in limb, cardiac and reproductive system development. May play a role in cytokinesis.

Component of the CTLH E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that selectively accepts ubiquitin from UBE2H and mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of the transcription factor HBP1. Required for internalization of the GABA receptor GABRA1 from the cell membrane via endosomes and subsequent GABRA1 degradation (By similarity). Acts as a mediator of cell spreading and cytoskeletal responses to the extracellular matrix component THBS1.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that phosphorylates SFPQ/PSF, HNRNPA1 and EIF4E. May play a role in the response to environmental stress and cytokines. Appears to regulate translation by phosphorylating EIF4E, thus increasing the affinity of this protein for the 7-methylguanosine-containing mRNA cap. Required for mediating PP2A- inhibition-induced EIF4E phosphorylation. Triggers EIF4E shuttling from cytoplasm to nucleus. Isoform 1 displays a high basal kinase activity, but isoform 2 exhibits a very low kinase activity. Acts as a mediator of the suppressive effects of IFNgamma on hematopoiesis. Negative regulator for signals that control generation of arsenic trioxide As(2)O(3)-dependent apoptosis and anti-leukemic responses. Involved in anti-apoptotic signaling in response to serum withdrawal.

E3 ubiquitin ligase catalyzing the covalent attachment of ubiquitin moieties onto substrate proteins. These substrates include FILIP1, p53/TP53, CDKN1A and TERT. Keeps cells alive by suppressing p53/TP53 under normal conditions, but stimulates apoptosis by repressing CDKN1A under stress conditions. Acts as a negative regulator of telomerase. Has negative and positive effects on RNA polymerase II- dependent transcription.

E3 ubiquitin ligase catalyzing the covalent attachment of ubiquitin moieties onto substrate proteins (By similarity). Promotes the polyubiquitination and proteasome-dependent degradation of RELA/p65, thereby suppressing RELA-mediated NF-kappaB transactivation and negatively regulating inflammatory responses (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of spermiation and in male fertility (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin ligase catalyzing the covalent attachment of ubiquitin moieties onto substrate proteins.

Component of the tectonic-like complex, a complex localized at the transition zone of primary cilia and acting as a barrier that prevents diffusion of transmembrane proteins between the cilia and plasma membranes. Involved in centrosome migration to the apical cell surface during early ciliogenesis. Required for ciliary structure and function, including a role in regulating length and appropriate number through modulating centrosome duplication. Required for cell branching morphology.

Required for ciliary structure and function. Part of the tectonic-like complex which is required for tissue-specific ciliogenesis and may regulate ciliary membrane composition (By similarity). Involved in centrosome migration to the apical cell surface during early ciliogenesis. Involved in the regulation of cilia length and appropriate number through the control of centrosome duplication. Is a key regulator of stereociliary bundle orientation (By similarity). Required for epithelial cell branching morphology. Essential for endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) of surfactant protein C (SFTPC). Involved in the negative regulation of canonical Wnt signaling, and activation of the non-canonical cascade mediated by WNT5A and ROR2.

Secreted protein that functions as cytokine and growth factor and mediates its signal through cell-surface proteoglycan and non- proteoglycan receptors. Binds cell-surface proteoglycan receptors via their chondroitin sulfate (CS) groups. Thereby regulates many processes like inflammatory response, cell proliferation, cell adhesion, cell growth, cell survival, tissue regeneration, cell differentiation and cell migration. Participates in inflammatory processes by exerting two different activities. Firstly, mediates neutrophils and macrophages recruitment to the sites of inflammation both by direct action by cooperating namely with ITGB2 via LRP1 and by inducing chemokine expression. This inflammation can be accompanied by epithelial cell survival and smooth muscle cell migration after renal and vessel damage, respectively. Secondly, suppresses the development of tolerogenic dendric cells thereby inhibiting the differentiation of regulatory T cells and also promote T cell expansion through NFAT signaling and Th1 cell differentiation. Promotes tissue regeneration after injury or trauma. After heart damage negatively regulates the recruitment of inflammatory cells and mediates cell survival through activation of anti-apoptotic signaling pathways via MAPKs and AKT pathways through the activation of angiogenesis (By similarity). Also facilitates liver regeneration as well as bone repair by recruiting macrophage at trauma site and by promoting cartilage development by facilitating chondrocyte differentiation (By similarity). Plays a role in brain by promoting neural precursor cells survival and growth through interaction with heparan sulfate proteoglycans (By similarity). Binds PTPRZ1 and promotes neuronal migration and embryonic neurons survival. Binds SDC3 or GPC2 and mediates neurite outgrowth and cell adhesion. Binds chondroitin sulfate E and heparin leading to inhibition of neuronal cell adhesion induced by binding with GPC2. Binds CSPG5 and promotes elongation of oligodendroglial precursor-like cells (By similarity). Also binds ITGA6:ITGB1 complex; this interaction mediates MDK-induced neurite outgrowth. Binds LRP1; promotes neuronal survival. Binds ITGA4:ITGB1 complex; this interaction mediates MDK-induced osteoblast cells migration through PXN phosphorylation. Binds anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) which induces ALK activation and subsequent phosphorylation of the insulin receptor substrate (IRS1), followed by the activation of mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) and PI3-kinase, and the induction of cell proliferation. Promotes epithelial to mesenchymal transition through interaction with NOTCH2. During arteriogenesis, plays a role in vascular endothelial cell proliferation by inducing VEGFA expression and release which in turn induces nitric oxide synthase expression. Moreover activates vasodilation through nitric oxide synthase activation (By similarity). Negatively regulates bone formation in response to mechanical load by inhibiting Wnt/beta- catenin signaling in osteoblasts (By similarity). In addition plays a role in hippocampal development, working memory, auditory response, early fetal adrenal gland development and the female reproductive system (By similarity).

Myosin regulatory subunit that plays an important role in regulation of both smooth muscle and nonmuscle cell contractile activity via its phosphorylation. Implicated in cytokinesis, receptor capping, and cell locomotion (By similarity).

Myosin regulatory subunit that plays an important role in regulation of both smooth muscle and nonmuscle cell contractile activity via its phosphorylation. Phosphorylation triggers actin polymerization in vascular smooth muscle. Implicated in cytokinesis, receptor capping, and cell locomotion.

Regulates the response of astrocytes to hypo-osmosis by promoting calcium influx.

Carbohydrate-binding protein with a strong ligand preference for Glc2-N-glycan. May play a role in the early steps of protein N- glycosylation (By similarity).

Heterodimerizes with PMS2 to form MutL alpha, a component of the post-replicative DNA mismatch repair system (MMR). DNA repair is initiated by MutS alpha (MSH2-MSH6) or MutS beta (MSH2-MSH3) binding to a dsDNA mismatch, then MutL alpha is recruited to the heteroduplex. Assembly of the MutL-MutS-heteroduplex ternary complex in presence of RFC and PCNA is sufficient to activate endonuclease activity of PMS2. It introduces single-strand breaks near the mismatch and thus generates new entry points for the exonuclease EXO1 to degrade the strand containing the mismatch. DNA methylation would prevent cleavage and therefore assure that only the newly mutated DNA strand is going to be corrected. MutL alpha (MLH1-PMS2) interacts physically with the clamp loader subunits of DNA polymerase III, suggesting that it may play a role to recruit the DNA polymerase III to the site of the MMR. Also implicated in DNA damage signaling, a process which induces cell cycle arrest and can lead to apoptosis in case of major DNA damages. Heterodimerizes with MLH3 to form MutL gamma which plays a role in meiosis.

Required for precocious cardiac adaptation to stress through integrated regulation of the AKT/mTOR pathways and FOXO1. Regulates cardiac homeostasis and plays an important role in protection against cardiac hypertrophy. Acts as a transcriptional cofactor, represses transactivator activity of ISL1 and MYOCD.

Pseudokinase that plays a key role in TNF-induced necroptosis, a programmed cell death process. Does not have protein kinase activity. Activated following phosphorylation by RIPK3, leading to homotrimerization, localization to the plasma membrane and execution of programmed necrosis characterized by calcium influx and plasma membrane damage. In addition to TNF-induced necroptosis, necroptosis can also take place in the nucleus in response to orthomyxoviruses infection: following activation by ZBP1, MLKL is phosphorylated by RIPK3 in the nucleus, triggering disruption of the nuclear envelope and leakage of cellular DNA into the cytosol.following ZBP1 activation, which senses double-stranded Z-RNA structures, nuclear RIPK3 catalyzes phosphorylation and activation of MLKL, promoting disruption of the nuclear envelope and leakage of cellular DNA into the cytosol (By similarity). Binds to highly phosphorylated inositol phosphates such as inositolhexakisphosphate (InsP6) which is essential for its necroptotic function.

Inhibits the activity of ATP2A1/SERCA1 ATPase in sarcoplasmic reticulum by decreasing the apparent affinity of the ATPase for Ca(2+), thereby acting as a key regulator of skeletal muscle activity. Its high expression in adult skeletal muscle, suggests that it constitutes the predominant regulator of ATP2A1/SERCA1 in adult skeletal muscle.

Ubiquitin-like modifier involved in formation of autophagosomal vacuoles (autophagosomes). While LC3s are involved in elongation of the phagophore membrane, the GABARAP/GATE-16 subfamily is essential for a later stage in autophagosome maturation. Through its interaction with the reticulophagy receptor TEX264, participates in the remodeling of subdomains of the endoplasmic reticulum into autophagosomes upon nutrient stress, which then fuse with lysosomes for endoplasmic reticulum turnover.

Ubiquitin-like modifier involved in formation of autophagosomal vacuoles (autophagosomes). Plays a role in mitophagy which contributes to regulate mitochondrial quantity and quality by eliminating the mitochondria to a basal level to fulfill cellular energy requirements and preventing excess ROS production. In response to cellular stress and upon mitochondria fission, binds C-18 ceramides and anchors autophagolysosomes to outer mitochondrial membranes to eliminate damaged mitochondria. While LC3s are involved in elongation of the phagophore membrane, the GABARAP/GATE-16 subfamily is essential for a later stage in autophagosome maturation. Promotes primary ciliogenesis by removing OFD1 from centriolar satellites via the autophagic pathway. Through its interaction with the reticulophagy receptor TEX264, participates in the remodeling of subdomains of the endoplasmic reticulum into autophagosomes upon nutrient stress, which then fuse with lysosomes for endoplasmic reticulum turnover. Upon nutrient stress, directly recruits cofactor JMY to the phagophore membrane surfaces and promotes JMY's actin nucleation activity and autophagosome biogenesis during autophagy.

Ubiquitin-like modifier that plays a crucial role in antibacterial autophagy (xenophagy) through the selective binding of CALCOCO2. Recruits all ATG8 family members to infecting bacteria such as S.typhimurium. May also play a role in aggrephagy, the macroautophagic degradation of ubiquitinated and aggregated proteins.

Contractile protein that plays a role in heart development and function. Following phosphorylation, plays a role in cross-bridge cycling kinetics and cardiac muscle contraction by increasing myosin lever arm stiffness and promoting myosin head diffusion; as a consequence of the increase in maximum contraction force and calcium sensitivity of contraction force. These events altogether slow down myosin kinetics and prolong duty cycle resulting in accumulated myosins being cooperatively recruited to actin binding sites to sustain thin filament activation as a means to fine-tune myofilament calcium sensitivity to force (By similarity). During cardiogenesis plays an early role in cardiac contractility by promoting cardiac myofibril assembly (By similarity).

Binds DNA as a heterodimer with MLX and activates transcription. Binds to the canonical E box sequence 5'-CACGTG-3'. Plays a role in transcriptional activation of glycolytic target genes. Involved in glucose-responsive gene regulation.

Transcriptional repressor. Binds to the canonical and non- canonical E box sequences 5'-CACGTG-3' (By similarity).

Transcription regulator. Forms a sequence-specific DNA- binding protein complex with MAD1, MAD4, MNT, WBSCR14 and MLXIP which recognizes the core sequence 5'-CACGTG-3'. The TCFL4-MAD1, TCFL4-MAD4, TCFL4-WBSCR14 complexes are transcriptional repressors. Plays a role in transcriptional activation of glycolytic target genes. Involved in glucose-responsive gene regulation.

GTPase, binds and hydrolyzes GTP. Involved in intracellular vitamin B12 metabolism, mediates the transport of cobalamin (Cbl) into mitochondria for the final steps of adenosylcobalamin (AdoCbl) synthesis. Functions as a G-protein chaperone that assists AdoCbl cofactor delivery from MMAB to the methylmalonyl-CoA mutase (MMUT). Plays a dual role as both a protectase and a reactivase for MMUT. Protects MMUT from progressive inactivation by oxidation by decreasing the rate of the formation of the oxidized inactive cofactor hydroxocobalamin (OH2Cbl). Additionally acts a reactivase by promoting the replacement of OH2Cbl by the active cofactor AdoCbl, restoring the activity of MMUT in the presence and hydrolysis of GTP.

Converts cob(I)alamin to adenosylcobalamin (adenosylcob(III)alamin), a coenzyme for methylmalonyl-CoA mutase, therefore participates in the final step of the vitamin B12 conversion. Generates adenosylcobalamin (AdoCbl) and directly delivers the cofactor to MUT in a transfer that is stimulated by ATP- binding to MMAB and gated by MMAA (Probable).

Cobalamin (vitamin B12) cytosolic chaperone that catalyzes the reductive decyanation of cyanocob(III)alamin (cyanocobalamin, CNCbl) to yield cob(II)alamin and cyanide, using FAD or FMN as cofactors and NADPH as cosubstrate. Cyanocobalamin constitutes the inactive form of vitamin B12 introduced from the diet, and is converted into the active cofactors methylcobalamin (MeCbl) involved in methionine biosynthesis, and 5'-deoxyadenosylcobalamin (AdoCbl) involved in the TCA cycle. Forms a complex with the lysosomal transporter ABCD4 and its chaperone LMBRD1, to transport cobalamin across the lysosomal membrane into the cytosol. The processing of cobalamin in the cytosol occurs in a multiprotein complex composed of at least MMACHC, MMADHC, MTRR (methionine synthase reductase) and MTR (methionine synthase) which may contribute to shuttle safely and efficiently cobalamin towards MTR in order to produce methionine. Also acts as a glutathione transferase by catalyzing the dealkylation of the alkylcob(III)alamins MeCbl and AdoCbl, using the thiolate of glutathione for nucleophilic displacement to generate cob(I)alamin and the corresponding glutathione thioether. The conversion of incoming MeCbl or AdoCbl into a common intermediate cob(I)alamin is necessary to meet the cellular needs for both cofactors. Cysteine and homocysteine cannot substitute for glutathione in this reaction.

Involved in cobalamin metabolism and trafficking. Plays a role in regulating the biosynthesis and the proportion of two coenzymes, methylcob(III)alamin (MeCbl) and 5'-deoxyadenosylcobalamin (AdoCbl) (PubMed:18385497,PubMed:23415655, PubMed:24722857). Promotes oxidation of cob(II)alamin bound to MMACHC. The processing of cobalamin in the cytosol occurs in a multiprotein complex composed of at least MMACHC, MMADHC, MTRR (methionine synthase reductase) and MTR (methionine synthase) which may contribute to shuttle safely and efficiently cobalamin towards MTR in order to produce methionine.

Metalloprotease involved in sperm function, possibly by modulating the processes of fertilization and early embryonic development. Degrades a broad variety of small peptides with a preference for peptides shorter than 3 kDa containing neutral bulky aliphatic or aromatic amino acid residues. Shares the same substrate specificity with MME and cleaves peptides at the same amide bond (By similarity).

Can degrade fibronectin, gelatins of type I, III, IV, and V; weakly collagens III, IV, and V. Activates procollagenase

May play an important role in the progression of epithelial malignancies

May be involved in tissue injury and remodeling. Has significant elastolytic activity. Can accept large and small amino acids at the P1' site, but has a preference for leucine. Aromatic or hydrophobic residues are preferred at the P1 site, with small hydrophobic residues (preferably alanine) occupying P3

Plays a role in the degradation of extracellular matrix proteins including fibrillar collagen, fibronectin, TNC and ACAN. Cleaves triple helical collagens, including type I, type II and type III collagen, but has the highest activity with soluble type II collagen. Can also degrade collagen type IV, type XIV and type X. May also function by activating or degrading key regulatory proteins, such as TGFB1 and CCN2. Plays a role in wound healing, tissue remodeling, cartilage degradation, bone development, bone mineralization and ossification. Required for normal embryonic bone development and ossification. Plays a role in the healing of bone fractures via endochondral ossification. Plays a role in wound healing, probably by a mechanism that involves proteolytic activation of TGFB1 and degradation of CCN2. Plays a role in keratinocyte migration during wound healing. May play a role in cell migration and in tumor cell invasion.

Endopeptidase that degrades various components of the extracellular matrix such as collagen. Activates progelatinase A. Essential for pericellular collagenolysis and modeling of skeletal and extraskeletal connective tissues during development (By similarity). May be involved in actin cytoskeleton reorganization by cleaving PTK7. Acts as a positive regulator of cell growth and migration via activation of MMP15. Involved in the formation of the fibrovascular tissues in association with pro-MMP2. Cleaves ADGRB1 to release vasculostatin-40 which inhibits angiogenesis.

Endopeptidase that degrades various components of the extracellular matrix. May activate progelatinase A.

Endopeptidase that degrades various components of the extracellular matrix, such as collagen type III and fibronectin. Activates progelatinase A. Involved in the matrix remodeling of blood vessels. Isoform short cleaves fibronectin and also collagen type III, but at lower rate. It has no effect on type I, II, IV and V collagen. However, upon interaction with CSPG4, it may be involved in degradation and invasion of type I collagen by melanoma cells.

Endopeptidase that degrades various components of the extracellular matrix, such as fibrin. May be involved in the activation of membrane-bound precursors of growth factors or inflammatory mediators, such as tumor necrosis factor-alpha. May also be involved in tumoral process. Cleaves pro-TNF-alpha at the '74-Ala-|-Gln-75' site. Not obvious if able to proteolytically activate progelatinase A. Does not hydrolyze collagen types I, II, III, IV and V, gelatin, fibronectin, laminin, decorin nor alpha1-antitrypsin

Endopeptidase that degrades various components of the extracellular matrix, such as aggrecan and cartilage oligomeric matrix protein (comp), during development, haemostasis and pathological conditions (arthritic disease). May also play a role in neovascularization or angiogenesis. Hydrolyzes collagen type IV, laminin, nidogen, nascin-C isoform, fibronectin, and type I gelatin.

Cleaves collagens of types I, II, and III at one site in the helical domain. Also cleaves collagens of types VII and X. In case of HIV infection, interacts and cleaves the secreted viral Tat protein, leading to a decrease in neuronal Tat's mediated neurotoxicity.

Degrades amelogenin, the major protein component of the enamel matrix and two of the macromolecules characterizing the cartilage extracellular matrix: aggrecan and the cartilage oligomeric matrix protein (COMP). May play a central role in tooth enamel formation. Cleaves aggrecan at the '360-Asn-|-Phe-361' site.

Plays a specialized role in the generation of left-right asymmetry during embryogenesis. May act as a negative regulator of the NOTCH-signaling pathway. Cleaves alpha-1-antitrypsin.

Protease. May regulate the surface expression of some potassium channels by retaining them in the endoplasmic reticulum (By similarity).

Metalloprotease that mediates cleavage of N-cadherin (CDH2) and acts as a regulator of neuro-immune interactions and neural stem cell quiescence. Involved in cell-cell interactions between nociceptive neurites and mast cells, possibly by mediating cleavage of CDH2, thereby acting as a mediator of peripheral thermal nociception and inflammatory hyperalgesia. Key regulator of neural stem cells quiescence by mediating cleavage of CDH2, affecting CDH2-mediated anchorage of neural stem cells to ependymocytes in the adult subependymal zone, leading to modulate their quiescence. May play a role in axonal growth. Able to activate progelatinase A. May also be a proteoglycanase involved in degradation of proteoglycans, such as dermatan sulfate and chondroitin sulfate proteoglycans. Cleaves partially fibronectin, but not collagen type I, nor laminin (By similarity).

May hydrolyze collagen type IV, fibronectin, fibrinogen, beta-casein, type I gelatin and alpha-1 proteinase inhibitor. Is also able to activate progelatinase B

Matrix metalloproteinases degrade protein components of the extracellular matrix such as fibronectin, laminin, gelatins and/or collagens.

Can degrade casein. Could play a role in tissues homeostasis and repair

Ubiquitinous metalloproteinase that is involved in diverse functions such as remodeling of the vasculature, angiogenesis, tissue repair, tumor invasion, inflammation, and atherosclerotic plaque rupture. As well as degrading extracellular matrix proteins, can also act on several nonmatrix proteins such as big endothelial 1 and beta- type CGRP promoting vasoconstriction. Also cleaves KISS at a Gly-|-Leu bond. Appears to have a role in myocardial cell death pathways. Contributes to myocardial oxidative stress by regulating the activity of GSK3beta. Cleaves GSK3beta in vitro. Involved in the formation of the fibrovascular tissues in association with MMP14

Metalloproteinase with a rather broad substrate specificity that can degrade fibronectin, laminin, gelatins of type I, III, IV, and V; collagens III, IV, X, and IX, and cartilage proteoglycans. Activates different molecules including growth factors, plasminogen or other matrix metalloproteinases such as MMP9. Once released into the extracellular matrix (ECM), the inactive pro-enzyme is activated by the plasmin cascade signaling pathway. Acts also intracellularly. For example, in dopaminergic neurons, gets activated by the serine protease HTRA2 upon stress and plays a pivotal role in DA neuronal degeneration by mediating microglial activation and alpha- synuclein/SNCA cleavage. In addition, plays a role in immune response and possesses antiviral activity against various viruses such as vesicular stomatitis virus, influenza A virus (H1N1) and human herpes virus 1. Mechanistically, translocates from the cytoplasm into the cell nucleus upon virus infection to influence NF-kappa-B activities.

Degrades casein, gelatins of types I, III, IV, and V, and fibronectin. Activates procollagenase.

Matrix metalloproteinase that plays an essential role in local proteolysis of the extracellular matrix and in leukocyte migration. Could play a role in bone osteoclastic resorption (By similarity). Cleaves KiSS1 at a Gly-|-Leu bond. Cleaves NINJ1 to generate the Secreted ninjurin-1 form. Cleaves type IV and type V collagen into large C-terminal three quarter fragments and shorter N- terminal one quarter fragments. Degrades fibronectin but not laminin or Pz-peptide.

Carrier protein for platelet (but not plasma) factor V/Va. Plays a role in the storage and stabilization of factor V in platelets. Upon release following platelet activation, may limit platelet and plasma factor Va-dependent thrombin generation. Ligand for integrin alpha-IIb/beta-3 and integrin alpha-V/beta-3 on activated platelets, and may function as an extracellular matrix or adhesive protein.

Inhibits endothelial cells motility and acts as a negative regulator of angiogenesis; it down-regulates KDR activation by binding VEGFA.

Key component of the cytosolic iron-sulfur protein assembly (CIA) complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates the incorporation of iron-sulfur cluster into apoproteins specifically involved in DNA metabolism and genomic integrity. In the CIA complex, MMS19 acts as an adapter between early-acting CIA components and a subset of cellular target iron-sulfur proteins such as ERCC2/XPD, FANCJ and RTEL1, thereby playing a key role in nucleotide excision repair (NER), homologous recombination-mediated double-strand break DNA repair, DNA replication and RNA polymerase II (POL II) transcription. As part of the mitotic spindle-associated MMXD complex, plays a role in chromosome segregation, probably by facilitating iron-sulfur (Fe-S) cluster assembly into ERCC2/XPD. Together with CIAO2, facilitates the transfer of Fe-S clusters to the motor protein KIF4A, which ensures proper localization of KIF4A to mitotic machinery components to promote the progression of mitosis. Indirectly acts as a transcriptional coactivator of estrogen receptor (ER), via its role in iron-sulfur insertion into some component of the TFIIH-machinery.

Component of the MMS22L-TONSL complex, a complex that promotes homologous recombination-mediated repair of double-strand breaks (DSBs) at stalled or collapsed replication forks. The MMS22L-TONSL complex is required to maintain genome integrity during DNA replication. It mediates the assembly of RAD51 filaments on single-stranded DNA (ssDNA): the MMS22L-TONSL complex is recruited to DSBs following histone replacement by histone chaperones and eviction of the replication protein A complex (RPA/RP-A) from DSBs. Following recruitment to DSBs, the TONSL-MMS22L complex promotes recruitment of RAD51 filaments and subsequent homologous recombination. Within the complex, MMS22L acts by binding ssDNA.

Plays a role in valine and pyrimidine metabolism. Binds fatty acyl-CoA

Transcriptional activator which specifically regulates expression of TBX22 in the posterior region of the developing palate. Required during later stages of palate development for growth and medial fusion of the palatal shelves. Promotes maturation and normal function of calvarial osteoblasts, including expression of the osteoclastogenic cytokine TNFSF11/RANKL. Necessary for normal development of the membranous bones of the skull (By similarity). May play a role in tumor suppression (Probable).

Intrinsically disordered protein which may negatively regulate mTOR signaling pathway by stabilizing the mTOR complex component DEPTOR. Negatively regulates angiogenesis. Negatively regulates cell growth. Negatively regulates neurite outgrowth in hippocampal neurons (By similarity).

Required for proper homologous chromosome pairing and efficient cross-over and intragenic recombination during meiosis (By similarity). Stimulates both DMC1- and RAD51-mediated homologous strand assimilation, which is required for the resolution of meiotic double- strand breaks.

May act as a transcriptional activator/repressor in the myeloid lineage. Plays a role in the granulocyte/monocyte cell-specific response to interferon. Stimulates the DNA binding of the transcriptional repressor protein YY1

May play a role in the control of meiotic division and germ cell differentiation through regulation of pairing and recombination during meiosis. Required for sperm flagella assembly (By similarity). May play a role in the assembly and function of the outer dynein arm- docking complex (ODA-DC). ODA-DC mediates outer dynein arms (ODA) binding onto the axonemal doublet microtubules.

Binds DNA as a heterodimer with MAX and represses transcription. Binds to the canonical E box sequence 5'-CACGTG-3' and, with higher affinity, to 5'-CACGCG-3'

Transcription factor (By similarity). Recognizes and binds to the regulatory elements of target genes, such as visual system homeobox CHX10, negatively modulating transcription (By similarity). Plays a role in establishing motor neuron identity, in concert with LIM domain transcription factor LMO4 (By similarity). Involved in negatively modulating transcription of interneuron genes in motor neurons, acting, at least in part, by blocking regulatory sequence interactions of the ISL1-LHX3 complex (By similarity). Involved in pancreas development and function; may play a role in pancreatic cell fate specification (By similarity).

Inhibitory receptor for the CD200/OX2 cell surface glycoprotein. Limits inflammation by inhibiting the expression of pro- inflammatory molecules including TNF-alpha, interferons, and inducible nitric oxide synthase (iNOS) in response to selected stimuli. Also binds to HHV-8 K14 viral CD200 homolog with identical affinity and kinetics as the host CD200.

Component of the NuA4 histone acetyltransferase (HAT) complex which is involved in transcriptional activation of select genes principally by acetylation of nucleosomal histones H4 and H2A. This modification may both alter nucleosome - DNA interactions and promote interaction of the modified histones with other proteins which positively regulate transcription. This complex may be required for the activation of transcriptional programs associated with oncogene and proto-oncogene mediated growth induction, tumor suppressor mediated growth arrest and replicative senescence, apoptosis, and DNA repair. The NuA4 complex ATPase and helicase activities seem to be, at least in part, contributed by the association of RUVBL1 and RUVBL2 with EP400. NuA4 may also play a direct role in DNA repair when directly recruited to sites of DNA damage. Also a component of the mSin3A complex which acts to repress transcription by deacetylation of nucleosomal histones. Required for homologous recombination repair (HRR) and resistance to mitomycin C (MMC). Involved in the localization of PALB2, BRCA2 and RAD51, but not BRCA1, to DNA-damage foci.

Component of the NuA4 histone acetyltransferase complex which is involved in transcriptional activation of select genes principally by acetylation of nucleosomal histone H4 and H2A. This modification may both alter nucleosome - DNA interactions and promote interaction of the modified histones with other proteins which positively regulate transcription. This complex may be required for the activation of transcriptional programs associated with oncogene and proto-oncogene mediated growth induction, tumor suppressor mediated growth arrest and replicative senescence, apoptosis, and DNA repair. The NuA4 complex ATPase and helicase activities seem to be, at least in part, contributed by the association of RUVBL1 and RUVBL2 with EP400. NuA4 may also play a direct role in DNA repair when directly recruited to sites of DNA damage. Also a component of the MSIN3A complex which acts to repress transcription by deacetylation of nucleosomal histones

Retrotransposon-derived protein that forms virion-like capsids (By similarity). Acts as an effector of BAX during apoptosis: enriched at outer mitochondria membrane and associates with BAX upon induction of apoptosis, facilitating BAX-dependent mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization and apoptosis. Required for death receptor-dependent apoptosis. When associated with RASSF1, promotes BAX conformational change and translocation to mitochondrial membranes in response to TNF and TNFSF10 stimulation. Also promotes autophagy: promotes phagophore closure via association with ATG8 proteins. Acts as an inhibitor of the NFE2L2/NRF2 pathway via interaction with SQSTM1: interaction promotes dissociation of SQSTM1 inclusion bodies that sequester KEAP1, relieving inactivation of the BCR(KEAP1) complex.

Activator of LATS1/2 in the Hippo signaling pathway which plays a pivotal role in organ size control and tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis. The core of this pathway is composed of a kinase cascade wherein STK3/MST2 and STK4/MST1, in complex with its regulatory protein SAV1, phosphorylates and activates LATS1/2 in complex with its regulatory protein MOB1, which in turn phosphorylates and inactivates YAP1 oncoprotein and WWTR1/TAZ. Phosphorylation of YAP1 by LATS1/2 inhibits its translocation into the nucleus to regulate cellular genes important for cell proliferation, cell death, and cell migration. Stimulates the kinase activity of STK38 and STK38L. Acts cooperatively with STK3/MST2 to activate STK38.

Activator of LATS1/2 in the Hippo signaling pathway which plays a pivotal role in organ size control and tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis. The core of this pathway is composed of a kinase cascade wherein STK3/MST2 and STK4/MST1, in complex with its regulatory protein SAV1, phosphorylates and activates LATS1/2 in complex with its regulatory protein MOB1, which in turn phosphorylates and inactivates YAP1 oncoprotein and WWTR1/TAZ. Phosphorylation of YAP1 by LATS1/2 inhibits its translocation into the nucleus to regulate cellular genes important for cell proliferation, cell death, and cell migration. Stimulates the kinase activity of STK38L.

Stimulates the autophosphorylation and kinase activity of STK38 and STK38L.

Modulates LATS1 expression in the Hippo signaling pathway which plays a pivotal role in organ size control and tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis.

May play a role in compacting or stabilizing the myelin sheath, possibly by binding the negatively charged acidic phospholipids of the cytoplasmic membrane.

Acts as a sulfur carrier required for molybdopterin biosynthesis. Component of the molybdopterin synthase complex that catalyzes the conversion of precursor Z into molybdopterin by mediating the incorporation of 2 sulfur atoms into precursor Z to generate a dithiolene group. In the complex, serves as sulfur donor by being thiocarboxylated (-COSH) at its C-terminus by MOCS3. After interaction with MOCS2B, the sulfur is then transferred to precursor Z to form molybdopterin.

Catalytic subunit of the molybdopterin synthase complex, a complex that catalyzes the conversion of precursor Z into molybdopterin. Acts by mediating the incorporation of 2 sulfur atoms from thiocarboxylated MOCS2A into precursor Z to generate a dithiolene group.

Sulfurates the molybdenum cofactor. Sulfation of molybdenum is essential for xanthine dehydrogenase (XDH) and aldehyde oxidase (ADO) enzymes in which molybdenum cofactor is liganded by 1 oxygen and 1 sulfur atom in active form. In vitro, the C-terminal domain is able to reduce N-hydroxylated prodrugs, such as benzamidoxime.

Isoform MOCS1A and isoform MOCS1B probably form a complex that catalyzes the conversion of 5'-GTP to cyclic pyranopterin monophosphate (cPMP). MOCS1A catalyzes the cyclization of GTP to (8S)- 3',8-cyclo-7,8-dihydroguanosine 5'-triphosphate and MOCS1B catalyzes the subsequent conversion of (8S)-3',8-cyclo-7,8-dihydroguanosine 5'- triphosphate to cPMP.

Plays a central role in 2-thiolation of mcm(5)S(2)U at tRNA wobble positions of cytosolic tRNA(Lys), tRNA(Glu) and tRNA(Gln). Also essential during biosynthesis of the molybdenum cofactor. Acts by mediating the C-terminal thiocarboxylation of sulfur carriers URM1 and MOCS2A. Its N-terminus first activates URM1 and MOCS2A as acyl- adenylates (-COAMP), then the persulfide sulfur on the catalytic cysteine is transferred to URM1 and MOCS2A to form thiocarboxylation (- COSH) of their C-terminus. The reaction probably involves hydrogen sulfide that is generated from the persulfide intermediate and that acts as nucleophile towards URM1 and MOCS2A. Subsequently, a transient disulfide bond is formed. Does not use thiosulfate as sulfur donor; NFS1 probably acting as a sulfur donor for thiocarboxylation reactions.

Catalyzes the transfer of a dimethylallyl group onto the adenine at position 37 of both cytosolic and mitochondrial tRNAs, leading to the formation of N6-(dimethylallyl)adenosine (i6A37). Mediates modification of a limited subset of tRNAs: tRNA(Ser)(AGA), tRNA(Ser)(CGA), tRNA(Ser)(UGA), as well as partial modification of the selenocysteine tRNA(Ser)(UCA). TRIT1 is therefore required for selenoprotein expression.

Ezrin-radixin-moesin (ERM) family protein that connects the actin cytoskeleton to the plasma membrane and thereby regulates the structure and function of specific domains of the cell cortex. Tethers actin filaments by oscillating between a resting and an activated state providing transient interactions between moesin and the actin cytoskeleton. Once phosphorylated on its C-terminal threonine, moesin is activated leading to interaction with F-actin and cytoskeletal rearrangement. These rearrangements regulate many cellular processes, including cell shape determination, membrane transport, and signal transduction. The role of moesin is particularly important in immunity acting on both T and B-cells homeostasis and self-tolerance, regulating lymphocyte egress from lymphoid organs. Modulates phagolysosomal biogenesis in macrophages (By similarity). Participates also in immunologic synapse formation.

May regulate the intracellular trafficking of RAN. Promotes guanine nucleotide release from RAN and inhibits binding of new GTP by preventing the binding of the RAN guanine nucleotide exchange factor RCC1. Regulates the levels of GTP-bound RAN in the nucleus, and thereby plays a role in the regulation of RAN-dependent mitotic spindle dynamics. Enhances the expression of SCN5A at the cell membrane in cardiomyocytes.

Cleaves the distal alpha 1,2-linked glucose residue from the Glc(3)Man(9)GlcNAc(2) oligosaccharide precursor in a highly specific manner

Catalyzes the formation of diacylglycerol from 2- monoacylglycerol and fatty acyl-CoA. Probably not involved in absorption of dietary fat in the small intestine.

Catalyzes the formation of diacylglycerol from 2- monoacylglycerol and fatty acyl-CoA. Has a preference toward monoacylglycerols containing unsaturated fatty acids in an order of C18:3 > C18:2 > C18:1 > C18:0. Plays a central role in absorption of dietary fat in the small intestine by catalyzing the resynthesis of triacylglycerol in enterocytes. May play a role in diet-induced obesity. Also able to use 1-monoalkylglycerol (1-MAkG) as an acyl acceptor for the synthesis of monoalkyl-monoacylglycerol (MAMAG).

Catalyzes the formation of diacylglycerol from 2- monoacylglycerol and fatty acyl-CoA. Also able to catalyze the terminal step in triacylglycerol synthesis by using diacylglycerol and fatty acyl-CoA as substrates. Has a preference toward palmitoyl-CoA and oleoyl-CoA. May be involved in absorption of dietary fat in the small intestine by catalyzing the resynthesis of triacylglycerol in enterocytes. Also able to use 1-monoalkylglycerol (1-MAkG) as an acyl acceptor for the synthesis of monoalkyl-monoacylglycerol (MAMAG).

Mediates homophilic cell-cell adhesion (By similarity). Minor component of the myelin sheath. May be involved in completion and/or maintenance of the myelin sheath and in cell-cell communication.

Able to phosphorylate several exogenous substrates and to undergo autophosphorylation. Negatively regulates cilium length in a cAMP and mTORC1 signaling-dependent manner.

Plays an important role in membrane trafficking through the secretory apparatus. Not involved in endocytic trafficking to lysosomes (By similarity). Acts in concert with CCZ1, as a guanine exchange factor (GEF) for RAB7, promotes the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting it from an inactive GDP-bound form into an active GTP-bound form.

Plays a role in regulating membrane trafficking of cargo proteins. Together with ATP9A and DOP1B, regulates SNX3 retromer- mediated endosomal sorting of WLS away from lysosomal degradation.

Involved in centriole duplication. Positively regulates CEP63 centrosomal localization. Required for WDR62 centrosomal localization and promotes the centrosomal localization of CDK2. May play a role in cilium assembly.

Required for spermatogenesis (By similarity). Essential for de novo DNA methylation and silencing of transposable elements in the male embryonic germ cells (By similarity).

Essential for epigenetic silencing by the HUSH (human silencing hub) complex. Recruited by HUSH to target site in heterochromatin, the ATPase activity and homodimerization are critical for HUSH-mediated silencing (PubMed:28581500, PubMed:29440755,PubMed:32693025). Represses germ cell-related genes and L1 retrotransposons in collaboration with SETDB1 and the HUSH complex, the silencing is dependent of repressive epigenetic modifications, such as H3K9me3 mark. Silencing events often occur within introns of transcriptionally active genes, and lead to the down-regulation of host gene expression. During DNA damage response, regulates chromatin remodeling through ATP hydrolysis. Upon DNA damage, is phosphorylated by PAK1, both colocalize to chromatin and induce H2AX expression. ATPase activity is required and dependent of phosphorylation by PAK1 and presence of DNA. Recruits histone deacetylases, such as HDAC4, to promoter regions, causing local histone H3 deacetylation and transcriptional repression of genes such as CA9. Exhibits a cytosolic function in lipogenesis, adipogenic differentiation, and lipid homeostasis by increasing the activity of ACLY, possibly preventing its dephosphorylation.

Nuclear matrix protein which forms MORC3-NBs (nuclear bodies) via an ATP-dependent mechanism and plays a role in innate immunity by restricting different viruses through modulation of the IFN response. Mechanistically, possesses a primary antiviral function through a MORC3-regulated element that activates IFNB1, and this function is guarded by a secondary IFN- repressing function. Sumoylated MORC3-NBs associates with PML-NBs and recruits TP53 and SP100, thus regulating TP53 activity. Binds RNA in vitro. Histone methylation reader which binds to non- methylated (H3K4me0), monomethylated (H3K4me1), dimethylated (H3K4me2) and trimethylated (H3K4me3) 'Lys-4' on histone H3. The order of binding preference is H3K4me3 > H3K4me2 > H3K4me1 > H3K4me0.

Histone methylation reader which binds to non-methylated (H3K4me0), monomethylated (H3K4me1), dimethylated (H3K4me2) and trimethylated (H3K4me3) 'Lys-4' on histone H3. The order of binding preference is H3K4me3 > H3K4me2 > H3K4me1 > H3K4me0.

Plays a role in promoting axonal degeneration following neuronal injury by toxic insult or trauma.

Acts as a negative regulator of hedgehog signaling probably by promoting internalization and subsequent degradation of smoothened protein (SMO) present in the ciliary membrane. Plays a role in sonic hedgehog (SHH)-induced spinal neural progenitor cells differentiation.

Sodium- and proton-independent thyroid hormones and aromatic acids transporter. Mediates both uptake and efflux of 3,5,3'-triiodothyronine (T3) and 3,5,3',5'-tetraiodothyronine (T4) with high affinity, suggesting a role in the homeostasis of thyroid hormone levels. Responsible for low affinity bidirectional transport of the aromatic amino acids, such as phenylalanine, tyrosine, tryptophan and L-3,4- dihydroxyphenylalanine (L-dopa). Plays an important role in homeostasis of aromatic amino acids (By similarity).

Functions as a transporter for creatine and as well for its precursor guanidinoacetate. Transport of creatine and GAA is independent of resting membrane potential and extracellular Na(+), Cl(-), or pH. Contributes to the process of creatine biosynthesis and distribution.

Proton-linked monocarboxylate transporter. May catalyze the transport of monocarboxylates across the plasma membrane.

Bidirectional proton-coupled monocarboxylate transporter. Catalyzes the rapid transport across the plasma membrane of many monocarboxylates such as lactate, pyruvate, acetate and the ketone bodies acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate, and thus contributes to the maintenance of intracellular pH. The transport direction is determined by the proton motive force and the concentration gradient of the substrate monocarboxylate. MCT1 is a major lactate exporter (By similarity). Plays a role in cellular responses to a high-fat diet by modulating the cellular levels of lactate and pyruvate that contribute to the regulation of central metabolic pathways and insulin secretion, with concomitant effects on plasma insulin levels and blood glucose homeostasis (By similarity). Facilitates the protonated monocarboxylate form of succinate export, that its transient protonation upon muscle cell acidification in exercising muscle and ischemic heart. Functions via alternate outward- and inward-open conformation states. Protonation and deprotonation of 309-Asp is essential for the conformational transition.

Proton-coupled monocarboxylate symporter. Catalyzes the rapid transport across the plasma membrane of monocarboxylates such as L- lactate, pyruvate and ketone bodies, acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate and acetate. Dimerization is functionally required and both subunits work cooperatively in transporting substrate.

Probable retinal pigment epithelium (RPE)-specific proton- coupled L-lactate transporter (By similarity). May facilitate transport of lactate and H(+) out of the retina and could therefore play a role in pH and ion homeostasis of the outer retina (By similarity).

Proton-dependent transporter of monocarboxylates such as L- lactate and pyruvate. Plays a predominant role in L-lactate efflux from highly glycolytic cells (By similarity).

Proton-linked monocarboxylate transporter. Catalyzes the rapid transport across the plasma membrane of many monocarboxylates such as lactate, pyruvate, branched-chain oxo acids derived from leucine, valine and isoleucine, and the ketone bodies acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate and acetate (By similarity).

Specific thyroid hormone transmembrane transporter, that mediates both uptake and efflux of thyroid hormones across the cell membrane independently of pH or a Na(+) gradient. Major substrates are the iodothyronines T3 and T4 and to a lesser extent rT3 and 3,3- diiodothyronine (3,3'-T2). Acts as an important mediator of thyroid hormone transport, especially T3, through the blood-brain barrier (Probable).

Plays an important role in the regulation of interdigestive gastrointestinal motility and indirectly causes rhythmic contraction of duodenal and colonic smooth muscle

5' to 3' RNA helicase that is involved in a number of cellular roles ranging from mRNA metabolism and translation, modulation of viral infectivity, inhibition of retrotransposition, or regulation of synaptic transmission. Plays an important role in innate antiviral immunity by promoting type I interferon production. Mechanistically, specifically uses IKKepsilon/IKBKE as the mediator kinase for IRF3 activation. Blocks HIV-1 virus replication at a post-entry step. Counteracts HIV-1 Vif-mediated degradation of APOBEC3G through its helicase activity by interfering with the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway. Inhibits also hepatitis B virus/HBV replication by interacting with HBV RNA and thereby inhibiting the early step of viral reverse transcription. Contributes to UPF1 mRNA target degradation by translocation along 3' UTRs. Required for microRNA (miRNA)-mediated gene silencing by the RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC). Required for both miRNA-mediated translational repression and miRNA-mediated cleavage of complementary mRNAs by RISC. In cooperation with FMR1, regulates miRNA-mediated translational repression by AGO2. Restricts retrotransposition of long interspersed element-1 (LINE-1) in cooperation with TUT4 and TUT7 counteracting the RNA chaperonne activity of L1RE1. Facilitates LINE-1 uridylation by TUT4 and TUT7. Required for embryonic viability and for normal central nervous system development and function. Plays two critical roles in early brain development: suppresses retroelements in the nucleus by directly inhibiting cDNA synthesis, while regulates cytoskeletal mRNAs to influence neurite outgrowth in the cytosol (By similarity). May function as a messenger ribonucleoprotein (mRNP) clearance factor.

Isoform 1 participates in reactive oxygen species metabolism by up- or down-regulation of the genes of antioxidant enzymes.

Dual specificity protein kinase which acts as an essential component of the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. Binding of extracellular ligands such as growth factors, cytokines and hormones to their cell-surface receptors activates RAS and this initiates RAF1 activation. RAF1 then further activates the dual-specificity protein kinases MAP2K1/MEK1 and MAP2K2/MEK2. Both MAP2K1/MEK1 and MAP2K2/MEK2 function specifically in the MAPK/ERK cascade, and catalyze the concomitant phosphorylation of a threonine and a tyrosine residue in a Thr-Glu-Tyr sequence located in the extracellular signal-regulated kinases MAPK3/ERK1 and MAPK1/ERK2, leading to their activation and further transduction of the signal within the MAPK/ERK cascade. Activates BRAF in a KSR1 or KSR2-dependent manner; by binding to KSR1 or KSR2 releases the inhibitory intramolecular interaction between KSR1 or KSR2 protein kinase and N-terminal domains which promotes KSR1 or KSR2-BRAF dimerization and BRAF activation. Depending on the cellular context, this pathway mediates diverse biological functions such as cell growth, adhesion, survival and differentiation, predominantly through the regulation of transcription, metabolism and cytoskeletal rearrangements. One target of the MAPK/ERK cascade is peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPARG), a nuclear receptor that promotes differentiation and apoptosis. MAP2K1/MEK1 has been shown to export PPARG from the nucleus. The MAPK/ERK cascade is also involved in the regulation of endosomal dynamics, including lysosome processing and endosome cycling through the perinuclear recycling compartment (PNRC), as well as in the fragmentation of the Golgi apparatus during mitosis.

Catalyzes the concomitant phosphorylation of a threonine and a tyrosine residue in a Thr-Glu-Tyr sequence located in MAP kinases. Activates the ERK1 and ERK2 MAP kinases (By similarity). Activates BRAF in a KSR1 or KSR2-dependent manner; by binding to KSR1 or KSR2 releases the inhibitory intramolecular interaction between KSR1 or KSR2 protein kinase and N-terminal domains which promotes KSR1 or KSR2-BRAF dimerization and BRAF activation.

Dual specificity kinase. Is activated by cytokines and environmental stress in vivo. Catalyzes the concomitant phosphorylation of a threonine and a tyrosine residue in the MAP kinase p38. Part of a signaling cascade that begins with the activation of the adrenergic receptor ADRA1B and leads to the activation of MAPK14.

Dual specificity protein kinase which acts as an essential component of the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. Essential component of the stress-activated protein kinase/c-Jun N-terminal kinase (SAP/JNK) signaling pathway. With MAP2K7/MKK7, is the one of the only known kinase to directly activate the stress-activated protein kinase/c-Jun N-terminal kinases MAPK8/JNK1, MAPK9/JNK2 and MAPK10/JNK3. MAP2K4/MKK4 and MAP2K7/MKK7 both activate the JNKs by phosphorylation, but they differ in their preference for the phosphorylation site in the Thr-Pro-Tyr motif. MAP2K4 shows preference for phosphorylation of the Tyr residue and MAP2K7/MKK7 for the Thr residue. The phosphorylation of the Thr residue by MAP2K7/MKK7 seems to be the prerequisite for JNK activation at least in response to pro-inflammatory cytokines, while other stimuli activate both MAP2K4/MKK4 and MAP2K7/MKK7 which synergistically phosphorylate JNKs. MAP2K4 is required for maintaining peripheral lymphoid homeostasis. The MKK/JNK signaling pathway is also involved in mitochondrial death signaling pathway, including the release cytochrome c, leading to apoptosis. Whereas MAP2K7/MKK7 exclusively activates JNKs, MAP2K4/MKK4 additionally activates the p38 MAPKs MAPK11, MAPK12, MAPK13 and MAPK14.

Acts as a scaffold for the formation of a ternary MAP3K2/MAP3K3-MAP3K5-MAPK7 signaling complex. Activation of this pathway appears to play a critical role in protecting cells from stress-induced apoptosis, neuronal survival and cardiac development and angiogenesis.

Dual specificity protein kinase which acts as an essential component of the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. With MAP3K3/MKK3, catalyzes the concomitant phosphorylation of a threonine and a tyrosine residue in the MAP kinases p38 MAPK11, MAPK12, MAPK13 and MAPK14 and plays an important role in the regulation of cellular responses to cytokines and all kinds of stresses. Especially, MAP2K3/MKK3 and MAP2K6/MKK6 are both essential for the activation of MAPK11 and MAPK13 induced by environmental stress, whereas MAP2K6/MKK6 is the major MAPK11 activator in response to TNF. MAP2K6/MKK6 also phosphorylates and activates PAK6. The p38 MAP kinase signal transduction pathway leads to direct activation of transcription factors. Nuclear targets of p38 MAP kinase include the transcription factors ATF2 and ELK1. Within the p38 MAPK signal transduction pathway, MAP3K6/MKK6 mediates phosphorylation of STAT4 through MAPK14 activation, and is therefore required for STAT4 activation and STAT4- regulated gene expression in response to IL-12 stimulation. The pathway is also crucial for IL-6-induced SOCS3 expression and down-regulation of IL-6-mediated gene induction; and for IFNG-dependent gene transcription. Has a role in osteoclast differentiation through NF- kappa-B transactivation by TNFSF11, and in endochondral ossification and since SOX9 is another likely downstream target of the p38 MAPK pathway. MAP2K6/MKK6 mediates apoptotic cell death in thymocytes. Acts also as a regulator for melanocytes dendricity, through the modulation of Rho family GTPases.

Dual specificity protein kinase which acts as an essential component of the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. Essential component of the stress-activated protein kinase/c-Jun N-terminal kinase (SAP/JNK) signaling pathway. With MAP2K4/MKK4, is the one of the only known kinase to directly activate the stress-activated protein kinase/c-Jun N-terminal kinases MAPK8/JNK1, MAPK9/JNK2 and MAPK10/JNK3. MAP2K4/MKK4 and MAP2K7/MKK7 both activate the JNKs by phosphorylation, but they differ in their preference for the phosphorylation site in the Thr-Pro-Tyr motif. MAP2K4/MKK4 shows preference for phosphorylation of the Tyr residue and MAP2K7/MKK7 for the Thr residue. The monophosphorylation of JNKs on the Thr residue is sufficient to increase JNK activity indicating that MAP2K7/MKK7 is important to trigger JNK activity, while the additional phosphorylation of the Tyr residue by MAP2K4/MKK4 ensures optimal JNK activation. Has a specific role in JNK signal transduction pathway activated by pro-inflammatory cytokines. The MKK/JNK signaling pathway is also involved in mitochondrial death signaling pathway, including the release cytochrome c, leading to apoptosis. Part of a non-canonical MAPK signaling pathway, composed of the upstream MAP3K12 kinase and downstream MAP kinases MAPK1/ERK2 and MAPK3/ERK1, that enhances the AP-1-mediated transcription of APP in response to APOE.

Ubiquitin-like modifier involved in formation of autophagosomal vacuoles (autophagosomes). Plays a role in mitophagy which contributes to regulate mitochondrial quantity and quality by eliminating the mitochondria to a basal level to fulfill cellular energy requirements and preventing excess ROS production. In response to cellular stress and upon mitochondria fission, binds C-18 ceramides and anchors autophagolysosomes to outer mitochondrial membranes to eliminate damaged mitochondria. While LC3s are involved in elongation of the phagophore membrane, the GABARAP/GATE-16 subfamily is essential for a later stage in autophagosome maturation.

Transport of phosphate groups from the cytosol to the mitochondrial matrix. Phosphate is cotransported with H(+). May play a role regulation of the mitochondrial permeability transition pore (mPTP)

Member of the NMDAR signaling complex that may play a role in control of AMPAR potentiation and synaptic plasticity in excitatory synapses. Promotes clustering of HT2RC at the cell surface (By similarity).

Plays a key role in the innate immune response following bacterial infection by inserting into the bacterial surface to form pores (By similarity). By breaching the surface of phagocytosed bacteria, allows antimicrobial effectors to enter the bacterial periplasmic space and degrade bacterial proteins such as superoxide dismutase sodC which contributes to bacterial virulence (By similarity). Shows antibacterial activity against a wide spectrum of Gram-positive, Gram-negative and acid-fast bacteria. Reduces the viability of the intracytosolic pathogen L.monocytogenes by inhibiting acidification of the phagocytic vacuole of host cells which restricts bacterial translocation from the vacuole to the cytosol (By similarity). Required for the antibacterial activity of reactive oxygen species and nitric oxide (By similarity).

RNA-binding protein that associates with the RNA exosome complex. Involved in the 3'-processing of the 7S pre-RNA to the mature 5.8S rRNA and play a role in recruiting the RNA exosome complex to pre- rRNA; this function may include C1D.

Tyrosine protein phosphatase which functions as a dosage- dependent inducer of mitotic progression. Directly dephosphorylates CDK1 and stimulates its kinase activity. Also dephosphorylates CDK2 in complex with cyclin E, in vitro

Tyrosine protein phosphatase which functions as a dosage- dependent inducer of mitotic progression. Required for G2/M phases of the cell cycle progression and abscission during cytokinesis in a ECT2- dependent manner. Directly dephosphorylates CDK1 and stimulates its kinase activity. The three isoforms seem to have a different level of activity.

Functions as a dosage-dependent inducer in mitotic control. Tyrosine protein phosphatase required for progression of the cell cycle. When phosphorylated, highly effective in activating G2 cells into prophase. Directly dephosphorylates CDK1 and activates its kinase activity.

Involved in the synthesis of the GDP-mannose and dolichol- phosphate-mannose required for a number of critical mannosyl transfer reactions

May play a role in maintenance of cell cycle integrity by regulating mitosis or cytokinesis.

Component of the 60-80S U3 small nucleolar ribonucleoprotein (U3 snoRNP). Required for the early cleavages during pre-18S ribosomal RNA processing

Acts as an important adapter that promotes epithelial cell polarity and tight junction formation via its interaction with DLG1. Involved in the assembly of protein complexes at sites of cell-cell contact.

Heterochromatin component that specifically recognizes and binds methylated 'Lys-9' of histone H3 (H3K9me) and promotes recruitment of proteins that mediate epigenetic repression. Mediates recruitment of the HUSH complex to H3K9me3 sites: the HUSH complex is recruited to genomic loci rich in H3K9me3 and is required to maintain transcriptional silencing by promoting recruitment of SETDB1, a histone methyltransferase that mediates further deposition of H3K9me3, as well as MORC2. Binds H3K9me and promotes DNA methylation by recruiting DNMT3A to target CpG sites; these can be situated within the coding region of the gene. Mediates down-regulation of CDH1 expression. Also represses L1 retrotransposons in collaboration with MORC2 and, probably, SETDB1, the silencing is dependent of repressive epigenetic modifications, such as H3K9me3 mark. Silencing events often occur within introns of transcriptionally active genes, and lead to the down- regulation of host gene expression. The HUSH complex is also involved in the silencing of unintegrated retroviral DNA by being recruited by ZNF638: some part of the retroviral DNA formed immediately after infection remains unintegrated in the host genome and is transcriptionally repressed.

Negatively regulates cilia formation by recruiting the CP110- CEP97 complex (a negative regulator of ciliogenesis) at the distal end of the mother centriole in ciliary cells. At the beginning of cilia formation, MPHOSPH9 undergoes TTBK2-mediated phosphorylation and degradation via the ubiquitin-proteasome system and removes itself and the CP110-CEP97 complex from the distal end of the mother centriole, which subsequently promotes cilia formation.

Substrate recognition and binding subunit of the essential mitochondrial processing protease (MPP), which cleaves the mitochondrial sequence off newly imported precursors proteins.

Catalytic subunit of the essential mitochondrial processing protease (MPP), which cleaves the mitochondrial sequence off newly imported precursors proteins (Probable). Preferentially, cleaves after an arginine at position P2 (By similarity). Required for PINK1 turnover by coupling PINK1 mitochondrial import and cleavage, which results in subsequent PINK1 proteolysis.

Displays low metallophosphoesterase activity (in vitro). May play a role in the development of the nervous system.

Metallophosphoesterase required for transport of GPI-anchor proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi. Acts in lipid remodeling steps of GPI-anchor maturation by mediating the removal of a side-chain ethanolamine-phosphate (EtNP) from the second Man (Man2) of the GPI intermediate, an essential step for efficient transport of GPI- anchor proteins.

Transport of phosphorylated lysosomal enzymes from the Golgi complex and the cell surface to lysosomes. Lysosomal enzymes bearing phosphomannosyl residues bind specifically to mannose-6-phosphate receptors in the Golgi apparatus and the resulting receptor-ligand complex is transported to an acidic prelyosomal compartment where the low pH mediates the dissociation of the complex

Mediates the transport of phosphorylated lysosomal enzymes from the Golgi complex and the cell surface to lysosomes. Lysosomal enzymes bearing phosphomannosyl residues bind specifically to mannose-6-phosphate receptors in the Golgi apparatus and the resulting receptor-ligand complex is transported to an acidic prelysosomal compartment where the low pH mediates the dissociation of the complex. The receptor is then recycled back to the Golgi for another round of trafficking through its binding to the retromer. This receptor also binds IGF2. Acts as a positive regulator of T-cell coactivation by binding DPP4.

Required for normal utilization of mannose-dolichol phosphate (Dol-P-Man) in the synthesis of N-linked and O-linked oligosaccharides and GPI anchors.

Non-selective channel that modulates the membrane potential under normal conditions and oxidative stress, and is involved in mitochondrial homeostasis. Involved in mitochondrial deoxynucleoside triphosphates (dNTP) pool homeostasis and mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) maintenance. May be involved in the regulation of reactive oxygen species metabolism and the control of oxidative phosphorylation (By similarity).

Cell surface receptor, which is involved in signal transduction processes. Recruits PTPN11/SHP-2 to the cell membrane and is a putative substrate of PTPN11/SHP-2. Is a major receptor for concanavalin-A (ConA) and is involved in cellular signaling induced by ConA, which probably includes Src family tyrosine-protein kinases. Isoform 3 seems to have a dominant negative role; it blocks tyrosine phosphorylation of MPZL1 induced by ConA. Isoform 1, but not isoform 2 and isoform 3, may be involved in regulation of integrin-mediated cell motility.

Modulator of melanocortin receptor 4 (MC4R), a receptor involved in energy homeostasis. Plays a central role in the control of energy homeostasis and body weight regulation by increasing ligand- sensitivity of MC4R and MC4R-mediated generation of cAMP (By similarity). May also act as a negative regulator of MC2R: competes with MRAP for binding to MC2R and impairs the binding of corticotropin (ACTH) to MC2R. May also regulate activity of other melanocortin receptors (MC1R, MC3R and MC5R); however, additional evidence is required in vivo.

Modulator of melanocortin receptors (MC1R, MC2R, MC3R, MC4R and MC5R). Acts by increasing ligand-sensitivity of melanocortin receptors and enhancing generation of cAMP by the receptors. Required both for MC2R trafficking to the cell surface of adrenal cells and for signaling in response to corticotropin (ACTH). May be involved in the intracellular trafficking pathways in adipocyte cells.

Mediates the endocytosis of glycoproteins by macrophages. Binds both sulfated and non-sulfated polysaccharide chains

May play a role as endocytotic lectin receptor displaying calcium-dependent lectin activity. Internalizes glycosylated ligands from the extracellular space for release in an endosomal compartment via clathrin-mediated endocytosis. May be involved in plasminogen activation system controlling the extracellular level of PLAUR/PLAU, and thus may regulate protease activity at the cell surface. May contribute to cellular uptake, remodeling and degradation of extracellular collagen matrices. May play a role during cancer progression as well as in other chronic tissue destructive diseases acting on collagen turnover. May participate in remodeling of extracellular matrix cooperating with the matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs).

Serine/threonine-protein kinase which is an important downstream effector of CDC42 and plays a role in the regulation of cytoskeleton reorganization and cell migration. Regulates actin cytoskeletal reorganization via phosphorylation of PPP1R12C and MYL9/MLC2. In concert with MYO18A and LURAP1, is involved in modulating lamellar actomyosin retrograde flow that is crucial to cell protrusion and migration. Phosphorylates: PPP1R12A, LIMK1 and LIMK2. May play a role in TFRC-mediated iron uptake. In concert with FAM89B/LRAP25 mediates the targeting of LIMK1 to the lamellipodium resulting in its activation and subsequent phosphorylation of CFL1 which is important for lamellipodial F-actin regulation (By similarity). Triggers the formation of an extrusion apical actin ring required for epithelial extrusion of apoptotic cells.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase which is an important downstream effector of CDC42 and plays a role in the regulation of cytoskeleton reorganization and cell migration. Regulates actin cytoskeletal reorganization via phosphorylation of PPP1R12C and MYL9/MLC2. In concert with MYO18A and LURAP1, is involved in modulating lamellar actomyosin retrograde flow that is crucial to cell protrusion and migration. Phosphorylates PPP1R12A. In concert with FAM89B/LRAP25 mediates the targeting of LIMK1 to the lamellipodium resulting in its activation and subsequent phosphorylation of CFL1 which is important for lamellipodial F-actin regulation (By similarity).

May act as a downstream effector of CDC42 in cytoskeletal reorganization. Contributes to the actomyosin contractility required for cell invasion, through the regulation of MYPT1 and thus MLC2 phosphorylation (By similarity).

Component of the MRN complex, which plays a central role in double-strand break (DSB) repair, DNA recombination, maintenance of telomere integrity and meiosis. The complex possesses single-strand endonuclease activity and double-strand- specific 3'-5' exonuclease activity, which are provided by MRE11. RAD50 may be required to bind DNA ends and hold them in close proximity. This could facilitate searches for short or long regions of sequence homology in the recombining DNA templates, and may also stimulate the activity of DNA ligases and/or restrict the nuclease activity of MRE11 to prevent nucleolytic degradation past a given point. The complex may also be required for DNA damage signaling via activation of the ATM kinase. In telomeres the MRN complex may modulate t-loop formation.

Probably functions as cargo-recognition protein that couples cytoplasmic vesicles to the transport machinery. Plays a role in hair pigmentation, a process that involves shedding of melanosome-containing vesicles from melanocytes, followed by phagocytosis of the melanosome- containing vesicles by keratinocytes. Functions on melanosomes as receptor for RILP and the complex formed by RILP and DCTN1, and thereby contributes to retrograde melanosome transport from the cell periphery to the center. Overexpression causes accumulation of late endosomes and/or lysosomes at the microtubule organising center (MTOC) at the center of the cell. Probably binds cholesterol and requires the presence of cholesterol in membranes to function in microtubule- mediated retrograde organelle transport. Binds phosphatidylinositol 3- phosphate, phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate, phosphatidylinositol 5- phosphate and phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate, but not phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate or phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate (By similarity). Required for normal phagosome clearing and normal activation of lysosomal enzymes in lysosomes from retinal pigment epithelium cells. Required for normal degradation of the lipofuscin component N-retinylidene-N- retinylethanolamine (A2E) in the eye. May function in membrane fusion and regulate the biogenesis of disk membranes of photoreceptor rod cells (By similarity).

Mitochondrial RNA-binding protein involved in mitochondrial transcription regulation. Functions as a protective factor to maintain proper mitochondrial RNA level during stress. Acts at the transcription level and its protective function depends on its RNA binding ability. Part of a mitoribosome-associated quality control pathway that prevents aberrant translation by responding to interruptions during elongation. As heterodimer with MTRF, ejects the unfinished nascent chain and peptidyl transfer RNA (tRNA), respectively, from stalled ribosomes. Recruitment of mitoribosome biogenesis factors to these quality control intermediates suggests additional roles for MTRES1 and MTRF during mitoribosome rescue.

Component of the NuA4 histone acetyltransferase (HAT) complex which is involved in transcriptional activation of select genes principally by acetylation of nucleosomal histones H4 and H2A. This modification may both alter nucleosome - DNA interactions and promote interaction of the modified histones with other proteins which positively regulate transcription. This complex may be required for the activation of transcriptional programs associated with oncogene and proto-oncogene mediated growth induction, tumor suppressor mediated growth arrest and replicative senescence, apoptosis, and DNA repair. NuA4 may also play a direct role in DNA repair when recruited to sites of DNA damage

May regulate nociceptor function and/or development, including the sensation or modulation of pain. Functions as a specific membrane receptor for beta-alanine. Beta-alanine at micromolar doses specifically evoked Ca(2+) influx in cells expressing the receptor. Beta-alanine decreases forskolin-stimulated cAMP production in cells expressing the receptor, suggesting that the receptor couples with G- protein G(q) and G(i)

Orphan receptor. May regulate nociceptor function and/or development, including the sensation or modulation of pain

Orphan receptor. May bind to a neuropeptide and may regulate nociceptor function and/or development, including the sensation or modulation of pain (By similarity).

Orphan receptor. May regulate nociceptor function and/or development, including the sensation or modulation of pain (By similarity).

Orphan receptor. Probably involved in the function of nociceptive neurons. May regulate nociceptor function and/or development, including the sensation or modulation of pain. Potently activated by enkephalins including BAM22 (bovine adrenal medulla peptide 22) and BAM (8-22)(PubMed:26582731). BAM22 is the most potent compound and evoked a large and dose-dependent release of intracellular calcium in stably transfected cells. G(alpha)q proteins are involved in the calcium-signaling pathway. Activated by the antimalarial drug, chloroquine. May mediate chloroquine-induced itch, in a histamine- independent manner.

Mast cell-specific receptor for basic secretagogues, i.e. cationic amphiphilic drugs, as well as endo- or exogenous peptides, consisting of a basic head group and a hydrophobic core. Recognizes and binds small molecules containing a cyclized tetrahydroisoquinoline (THIQ), such as non-steroidal neuromuscular blocking drugs (NMBDs), including tubocurarine and atracurium. In response to these compounds, mediates pseudo-allergic reactions characterized by histamine release, inflammation and airway contraction (By similarity). Acts as a receptor for a number of other ligands, including peptides and alkaloids, such as cortistatin-14, proadrenomedullin N-terminal peptides PAMP-12 and, at lower extent, PAMP-20, antibacterial protein LL-37, PMX-53 peptide, beta-defensins, and complanadine A.

Orphan receptor. Probably involved in the function of nociceptive neurons. May regulate nociceptor function and/or development, including the sensation or modulation of pain. Potently activated by enkephalins (By similarity).

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent 2'-O-ribose methyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of 2'-O-methylguanosine at position 1145 (Gm1145) in the 16S mitochondrial large subunit ribosomal RNA (mtLSU rRNA), a universally conserved modification in the peptidyl transferase domain of the mtLSU rRNA.

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent 2'-O-ribose methyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of 2'-O-methyluridine at position 1369 (Um1369) in the 16S mitochondrial large subunit ribosomal RNA (mtLSU rRNA), a universally conserved modification in the peptidyl transferase domain of the mtLSU rRNA.

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent 2'-O-ribose methyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of 2'-O-methylguanosine at position 1370 (Gm1370) in the 16S mitochondrial large subunit ribosomal RNA (mtLSU rRNA), a conserved modification in the peptidyl transferase domain of the mtLSU rRNA.

Plays a role in the cellular response to DNA damage and the maintenance of genome stability through its association with the MRN damage-sensing complex. Promotes chromatin loading and activity of the MRN complex to facilitate subsequent ATM-mediated DNA damage response signaling and DNA repair

Mediates export of organic anions and drugs from the cytoplasm. Mediates ATP-dependent transport of glutathione and glutathione conjugates, leukotriene C4, estradiol-17- beta-o-glucuronide, methotrexate, antiviral drugs and other xenobiotics. Confers resistance to anticancer drugs by decreasing accumulation of drug in cells, and by mediating ATP- and GSH-dependent drug export. Hydrolyzes ATP with low efficiency. Catalyzes the export of sphingosine 1-phosphate from mast cells independently of their degranulation. Participates in inflammatory response by allowing export of leukotriene C4 from leukotriene C4-synthezing cells (By similarity).

ATP-dependent transporter of the ATP-binding cassette (ABC) family that binds and hydrolyzes ATP to enable active transport of various substrates including many drugs, toxicants and endogenous compound across cell membranes. Transports a wide variety of conjugated organic anions such as sulfate-, glucuronide- and glutathione (GSH)- conjugates of endo- and xenobiotics substrates. Mediates hepatobiliary excretion of mono- and bis-glucuronidated bilirubin molecules and therefore play an important role in bilirubin detoxification. Mediates also hepatobiliary excretion of others glucuronide conjugates such as 17beta-estradiol 17- glucosiduronic acid and leukotriene C4. Transports sulfated bile salt such as taurolithocholate sulfate. Transports various anticancer drugs, such as anthracycline, vinca alkaloid and methotrexate and HIV-drugs such as protease inhibitors. Confers resistance to several anti-cancer drugs including cisplatin, doxorubicin, epirubicin, methotrexate, etoposide and vincristine.

ATP-dependent transporter of the ATP-binding cassette (ABC) family that binds and hydrolyzes ATP to enable active transport of various substrates including many drugs, toxicants and endogenous compound across cell membranes. Transports glucuronide conjugates such as bilirubin diglucuronide, estradiol-17-beta-o-glucuronide and GSH conjugates such as leukotriene C4 (LTC4). Transports also various bile salts (taurocholate, glycocholate, taurochenodeoxycholate-3-sulfate, taurolithocholate- 3-sulfate) (By similarity). Does not contribute substantially to bile salt physiology but provides an alternative route for the export of bile acids and glucuronides from cholestatic hepatocytes (By similarity). Can confer resistance to various anticancer drugs, methotrexate, tenoposide and etoposide, by decreasing accumulation of these drugs in cells.

ATP-dependent transporter of the ATP-binding cassette (ABC) family that actively extrudes physiological compounds and xenobiotics from cells. Transports a range of endogenous molecules that have a key role in cellular communication and signaling, including cyclic nucleotides such as cyclic AMP (cAMP) and cyclic GMP (cGMP), bile acids, steroid conjugates, urate, and prostaglandins. Mediates the ATP-dependent efflux of glutathione conjugates such as leukotriene C4 (LTC4) and leukotriene B4 (LTB4) too. The presence of GSH is necessary for the ATP-dependent transport of LTB4, whereas GSH is not required for the transport of LTC4. Mediates the cotransport of bile acids with reduced glutathione (GSH). Transports a wide range of drugs and their metabolites, including anticancer, antiviral and antibiotics molecules. Confers resistance to anticancer agents such as methotrexate.

ATP-dependent transporter of the ATP-binding cassette (ABC) family that actively extrudes physiological compounds, and xenobiotics from cells. Mediates ATP-dependent transport of endogenous metabolites such as cAMP and cGMP, folic acid and N-lactoyl-amino acids (in vitro). Acts also as a general glutamate conjugate and analog transporter that can limit the brain levels of endogenous metabolites, drugs, and toxins. Confers resistance to the antiviral agent PMEA. Able to transport several anticancer drugs including methotrexate, and nucleotide analogs in vitro, however it does with low affinity, thus the exact role of ABCC5 in mediating resistance still needs to be elucidated. Acts as a heme transporter required for the translocation of cytosolic heme to the secretory pathway. May play a role in energy metabolism by regulating the glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) secretion from enteroendocrine cells (By similarity).

[Isoform 1]: ATP-dependent transporter of the ATP-binding cassette (ABC) family that actively extrudes physiological compounds, and xenobiotics from cells. Mediates ATP-dependent transport of glutathione conjugates such as leukotriene-c4 (LTC4) and N- ethylmaleimide S-glutathione (NEM-GS) (in vitro), and an anionic cyclopentapeptide endothelin antagonist, BQ-123. Does not appear to actively transport drugs outside the cell. Confers low levels of cellular resistance to etoposide, teniposide, anthracyclines and cisplatin.

ATP-dependent transporter of the ATP-binding cassette (ABC) family that actively extrudes physiological compounds, and xenobiotics from cells. Lipophilic anion transporter that mediates ATP-dependent transport of glucuronide conjugates such as estradiol-17-beta-o- glucuronide and GSH conjugates such as leukotriene C4 (LTC4). Mediates multidrug resistance (MDR) in cancer cells by preventing the intracellular accumulation of certain antitumor drugs, such as, docetaxel and paclitaxel. Does not transport glycocholic acid, taurocholic acid, MTX, folic acid, cAMP, or cGMP.

ATP-dependent transporter of the ATP-binding cassette (ABC) family that actively extrudes physiological compounds, and xenobiotics from cells. Participates in physiological processes involving bile acids, conjugated steroids and cyclic nucleotides. Stimulates the ATP-dependent uptake of a range of physiological lipophilic anions, including the glutathione S-conjugates leukotriene C4 and dinitrophenyl S-glutathione, steroid sulfates such as dehydroepiandrosterone 3-sulfate (DHEAS) and estrone 3-sulfate, glucuronides such as estradiol 17-beta-D-glucuronide (E(2)17betaG), the monoanionic bile acids glycocholate and taurocholate, and methotrexate. Enhances also the cellular extrusion of cAMP and cGMP. Confers resistance to anticancer drugs, such as 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) and methotrexate. Probably functions to secrete earwax. Required for the secretion of components contributing to axillary odor formation.

Catalytic ribonuclease component of mitochondrial ribonuclease P, a complex composed of TRMT10C/MRPP1, HSD17B10/MRPP2 and PRORP/MRPP3, which cleaves tRNA molecules in their 5'-ends. The presence of TRMT10C/MRPP1, HSD17B10/MRPP2 is required to catalyze tRNA molecules in their 5'-ends.

Controls cell movement by regulating actin cytoskeleton homeostasis and filopodium and lamellipodium formation. When unphosphorylated, induces cell migration (By similarity). When phosphorylated by MAPK8, induces actin bundles formation and stabilization, thereby reducing actin plasticity, hence restricting cell movement, including neuronal migration (By similarity). May be involved in coupling the protein kinase C and calmodulin signal transduction systems (By similarity).

Magnesium transporter that mediates the influx of magnesium into the mitochondrial matrix. Required for normal expression of the mitochondrial respiratory complex I subunits.

Component of the ribosome assembly machinery. Nuclear paralog of the ribosomal protein P0, it binds pre-60S subunits at an early stage of assembly in the nucleolus, and is replaced by P0 in cytoplasmic pre-60S subunits and mature 80S ribosomes.

Acts as a transcriptional coactivator of serum response factor (SRF). Required for skeletal myogenic differentiation.

Has a role in chromatin remodeling and transcriptional regulation. Has a role in X inactivation. Component of the MSL complex which is responsible for the majority of histone H4 acetylation at 'Lys-16' which is implicated in the formation of higher-order chromatin structure. Specifically recognizes histone H4 monomethylated at 'Lys-20' (H4K20Me1) in a DNA-dependent manner and is proposed to be involved in chromosomal targeting of the MSL complex.

Hematopoietic modulator for the G1-S cell cycle transition. Modulates the level of phosphorylation of cyclin-dependent kinase 2 (CDK2) through its direct binding to cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 3 (CDKN3/KAP).

Involved in specifying the paraxial, but not dorsal, mesoderm. May regulate the expression of T-box transcription factors required for mesoderm formation and differentiation (By similarity).

Component of the post-replicative DNA mismatch repair system (MMR). Forms two different heterodimers: MutS alpha (MSH2-MSH6 heterodimer) and MutS beta (MSH2-MSH3 heterodimer) which binds to DNA mismatches thereby initiating DNA repair. When bound, heterodimers bend the DNA helix and shields approximately 20 base pairs. MutS alpha recognizes single base mismatches and dinucleotide insertion-deletion loops (IDL) in the DNA. MutS beta recognizes larger insertion-deletion loops up to 13 nucleotides long. After mismatch binding, MutS alpha or beta forms a ternary complex with the MutL alpha heterodimer, which is thought to be responsible for directing the downstream MMR events, including strand discrimination, excision, and resynthesis. Recruits DNA helicase MCM9 to chromatin which unwinds the mismatch containing DNA strand. ATP binding and hydrolysis play a pivotal role in mismatch repair functions. The ATPase activity associated with MutS alpha regulates binding similar to a molecular switch: mismatched DNA provokes ADP-->ATP exchange, resulting in a discernible conformational transition that converts MutS alpha into a sliding clamp capable of hydrolysis-independent diffusion along the DNA backbone. This transition is crucial for mismatch repair. MutS alpha may also play a role in DNA homologous recombination repair. In melanocytes may modulate both UV-B-induced cell cycle regulation and apoptosis.

Component of the post-replicative DNA mismatch repair system (MMR). Heterodimerizes with MSH2 to form MutS beta which binds to DNA mismatches thereby initiating DNA repair. When bound, the MutS beta heterodimer bends the DNA helix and shields approximately 20 base pairs. MutS beta recognizes large insertion-deletion loops (IDL) up to 13 nucleotides long. After mismatch binding, forms a ternary complex with the MutL alpha heterodimer, which is thought to be responsible for directing the downstream MMR events, including strand discrimination, excision, and resynthesis

Involved in meiotic recombination. Required for reciprocal recombination and proper segregation of homologous chromosomes at meiosis

Involved in DNA mismatch repair and meiotic recombination processes. Facilitates crossovers between homologs during meiosis (By similarity).

Component of the post-replicative DNA mismatch repair system (MMR). Heterodimerizes with MSH2 to form MutS alpha, which binds to DNA mismatches thereby initiating DNA repair. When bound, MutS alpha bends the DNA helix and shields approximately 20 base pairs, and recognizes single base mismatches and dinucleotide insertion-deletion loops (IDL) in the DNA. After mismatch binding, forms a ternary complex with the MutL alpha heterodimer, which is thought to be responsible for directing the downstream MMR events, including strand discrimination, excision, and resynthesis. ATP binding and hydrolysis play a pivotal role in mismatch repair functions. The ATPase activity associated with MutS alpha regulates binding similar to a molecular switch: mismatched DNA provokes ADP-->ATP exchange, resulting in a discernible conformational transition that converts MutS alpha into a sliding clamp capable of hydrolysis-independent diffusion along the DNA backbone. This transition is crucial for mismatch repair. MutS alpha may also play a role in DNA homologous recombination repair. Recruited on chromatin in G1 and early S phase via its PWWP domain that specifically binds trimethylated 'Lys-36' of histone H3 (H3K36me3): early recruitment to chromatin to be replicated allowing a quick identification of mismatch repair to initiate the DNA mismatch repair reaction.

Receptor for MSH (alpha, beta and gamma) and ACTH. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylate cyclase. Mediates melanogenesis, the production of eumelanin (black/brown) and phaeomelanin (red/yellow), via regulation of cAMP signaling in melanocytes.

RNA binding protein that regulates the expression of target mRNAs at the translation level. Regulates expression of the NOTCH1 antagonist NUMB. Binds RNA containing the sequence 5'-GUUAGUUAGUUAGUU- 3' and other sequences containing the pattern 5'-[GA]U(1-3)AGU-3'. May play a role in the proliferation and maintenance of stem cells in the central nervous system (By similarity).

RNA binding protein that regulates the expression of target mRNAs at the translation level. May play a role in the proliferation and maintenance of stem cells in the central nervous system (By similarity).

Component of histone acetyltransferase complex responsible for the majority of histone H4 acetylation at 'Lys-16' (H4K16ac) which is implicated in the formation of higher-order chromatin structure. Greatly enhances MSL2 E3 ubiquitin ligase activity, promoting monoubiquitination of histone H2B at 'Lys-34' (H2BK34Ub). This modification in turn stimulates histone H3 methylation at 'Lys-4' (H3K4me) and 'Lys-79' (H3K79me) and leads to gene activation, including that of HOXA9 and MEIS1. In the MSL complex, acts as a scaffold to tether MSL3 and KAT8 together for enzymatic activity regulation.

Component of histone acetyltransferase complex responsible for the majority of histone H4 acetylation at lysine 16 which is implicated in the formation of higher-order chromatin structure. Acts as an E3 ubiquitin ligase that promotes monoubiquitination of histone H2B at 'Lys-35' (H2BK34Ub), but not that of H2A. This activity is greatly enhanced by heterodimerization with MSL1. H2B ubiquitination in turn stimulates histone H3 methylation at 'Lys-4' (H3K4me) and 'Lys-79' (H3K79me) and leads to gene activation, including that of HOXA9 and MEIS1.

Catalyzes the three-step monooxygenation required for the demethylation of 4,4-dimethyl and 4alpha-methylsterols, which can be subsequently metabolized to cholesterol. Also involved in drug metabolism, as it can metabolize eldecalcitol (ED-71 or 1alpha,25- dihydroxy-2beta-(3-hydroxypropoxy)-cholecalciferol), a second- generation vitamin D analog, into 1alpha,2beta,25-trihydroxy vitamin D3; this reaction occurs via enzymatic hydroxylation and spontaneous O- dehydroxypropylation.

Acts as a ligand for C-C chemokine receptor CCR2. Signals through binding and activation of CCR2 and induces a strong chemotactic response and mobilization of intracellular calcium ions. Exhibits a chemotactic activity for monocytes and lymphocytes but not neutrophils.

Plays a role in differentiation and/or proliferation of mesenchymal stem cells. Proposed to be involved in epithelial-to- mesenchymal transition (EMT). However, another study suggests that it is not required for EMT or stem cell self-renewal and acts during later stages of differentiation.

Endoplasmic reticulum-anchored receptor which modulates interorganelle contacts by interacting with other organelle-bound proteins via their FFAT motif. Might have a more important role in endoplasmic reticulum and endosomes contacts. Promotes migration of primary monocytes and neutrophils, in response to various chemokines.

Has an important function as a repair enzyme for proteins that have been inactivated by oxidation. Catalyzes the reversible oxidation-reduction of methionine sulfoxide in proteins to methionine

Methionine-sulfoxide reductase that specifically reduces methionine (R)-sulfoxide back to methionine. While in many cases, methionine oxidation is the result of random oxidation following oxidative stress, methionine oxidation is also a post-translational modification that takes place on specific residue. Acts as a regulator of actin assembly by reducing methionine (R)-sulfoxide mediated by MICALs (MICAL1, MICAL2 or MICAL3) on actin, thereby promoting filament repolymerization. Plays a role in innate immunity by reducing oxidized actin, leading to actin repolymerization in macrophages.

Methionine-sulfoxide reductase that specifically reduces methionine (R)-sulfoxide back to methionine. While in many cases, methionine oxidation is the result of random oxidation following oxidative stress, methionine oxidation is also a post-translational modification that takes place on specific residue. Upon oxidative stress, may play a role in the preservation of mitochondrial integrity by decreasing the intracellular reactive oxygen species build-up through its scavenging role, hence contributing to cell survival and protein maintenance.

Catalyzes the reduction of free and protein-bound methionine sulfoxide to methionine. Isoform 2 is essential for hearing.

Membrane glycoproteins implicated in the pathologic deposition of cholesterol in arterial walls during atherogenesis. Two types of receptor subunits exist. These receptors mediate the endocytosis of a diverse group of macromolecules, including modified low density lipoproteins (LDL). Isoform III does not internalize acetylated LDL.

Guanine-nucleotide-releasing protein that acts on members of the SEC4/YPT1/RAB subfamily. Stimulates GDP release from both YPT1, RAB3A and RAB10, but is less active on these proteins than on the SEC4 protein. Might play a general role in vesicular transport.

May be involved in the development and regeneration of the musculoskeletal system.

Involved in the regulation of mitochondrial distribution and morphology. Required for mitochondrial fusion and mitochondrial network formation.

Acts as a transcriptional repressor. May play a role in limb- pattern formation. Acts in cranofacial development and specifically in odontogenesis. Expression in the developing nail bed mesenchyme is important for nail plate thickness and integrity.

Acts as a transcriptional regulator in bone development. Represses the ALPL promoter activity and antagonizes the stimulatory effect of DLX5 on ALPL expression during osteoblast differentiation. Probable morphogenetic role. May play a role in limb-pattern formation. In osteoblasts, suppresses transcription driven by the osteocalcin FGF response element (OCFRE). Binds to the homeodomain-response element of the ALPL promoter.

Metallothioneins have a high content of cysteine residues that bind various heavy metals; these proteins are transcriptionally regulated by both heavy metals and glucocorticoids

Metallothioneins have a high content of cysteine residues that bind various heavy metals; these proteins are transcriptionally regulated by both heavy metals and glucocorticoids. May be involved in FAM168A anti-apoptotic signaling.

Protein-lysine methyltransferase that selectively trimethylates residues in heat shock protein 70 (HSP70) family members. Contributes to the in vivo trimethylation of Lys residues in HSPA1 and HSPA8. In vitro methylates 'Lys-561' in HSPA1, 'Lys-564' in HSPA2, 'Lys-585' in HSPA5, 'Lys-563' in HSPA6 and 'Lys-561' in HSPA8.

Protein N-lysine methyltransferase that specifically trimethylates 'Lys-315' of VCP/p97; this modification may decrease VCP ATPase activity.

Binds heavy metals. Contains three zinc and three copper atoms per polypeptide chain and only a negligible amount of cadmium. Inhibits survival and neurite formation of cortical neurons in vitro

Seems to bind zinc and copper. Could play a special role in regulating zinc metabolism during the differentiation of stratified epithelia

Transcriptional coregulator which can act as both a transcriptional corepressor and coactivator. As a part of the histone- deacetylase multiprotein complex (NuRD), regulates transcription of its targets by modifying the acetylation status of the target chromatin and cofactor accessibility to the target DNA. In conjunction with other components of NuRD, acts as a transcriptional corepressor of BRCA1, ESR1, TFF1 and CDKN1A. Acts as a transcriptional coactivator of BCAS3, PAX5 and SUMO2, independent of the NuRD complex. Stimulates the expression of WNT1 by inhibiting the expression of its transcriptional corepressor SIX3. Regulates p53-dependent and -independent DNA repair processes following genotoxic stress. Regulates the stability and function of p53/TP53 by inhibiting its ubiquitination by COP1 and MDM2 thereby regulating the p53-dependent DNA repair. Plays an important role in tumorigenesis, tumor invasion, and metastasis. Involved in the epigenetic regulation of ESR1 expression in breast cancer in a TFAP2C, IFI16 and HDAC4/5/6-dependent manner. Plays a role in the regulation of the circadian clock and is essential for the generation and maintenance of circadian rhythms under constant light and for normal entrainment of behavior to light-dark (LD) cycles. Positively regulates the CLOCK- BMAL1 heterodimer mediated transcriptional activation of its own transcription and the transcription of CRY1. Regulates deacetylation of BMAL1 by regulating SIRT1 expression, resulting in derepressing CRY1- mediated transcription repression. Isoform Short binds to ESR1 and sequesters it in the cytoplasm and enhances its non-genomic responses. With TFCP2L1, promotes establishment and maintenance of pluripotency in embryonic stem cells (ESCs) and inhibits endoderm differentiation (By similarity).

May be involved in the regulation of gene expression as repressor and activator. The repression might be related to covalent modification of histone proteins

Plays a role in maintenance of the normal epithelial architecture through the repression of SNAI1 transcription in a histone deacetylase-dependent manner, and thus the regulation of E-cadherin levels. Contributes to transcriptional repression by BCL6.

The METTL3-METTL14 heterodimer forms a N6-methyltransferase complex that methylates adenosine residues at the N(6) position of some RNAs and regulates various processes such as the circadian clock, differentiation of embryonic and hematopoietic stem cells, cortical neurogenesis, response to DNA damage, differentiation of T-cells and primary miRNA processing. In the heterodimer formed with METTL14, METTL3 constitutes the catalytic core. N6- methyladenosine (m6A), which takes place at the 5'-[AG]GAC-3' consensus sites of some mRNAs, plays a role in mRNA stability, processing, translation efficiency and editing. M6A acts as a key regulator of mRNA stability: methylation is completed upon the release of mRNA into the nucleoplasm and promotes mRNA destabilization and degradation. In embryonic stem cells (ESCs), m6A methylation of mRNAs encoding key naive pluripotency-promoting transcripts results in transcript destabilization, promoting differentiation of ESCs (By similarity). M6A regulates the length of the circadian clock: acts as an early pace-setter in the circadian loop by putting mRNA production on a fast-track for facilitating nuclear processing, thereby providing an early point of control in setting the dynamics of the feedback loop (By similarity). M6A also regulates circadian regulation of hepatic lipid metabolism. M6A regulates spermatogonial differentiation and meiosis and is essential for male fertility and spermatogenesis (By similarity). Also required for oogenesis (By similarity). Involved in the response to DNA damage: in response to ultraviolet irradiation, METTL3 rapidly catalyzes the formation of m6A on poly(A) transcripts at DNA damage sites, leading to the recruitment of POLK to DNA damage sites. M6A is also required for T-cell homeostasis and differentiation: m6A methylation of transcripts of SOCS family members (SOCS1, SOCS3 and CISH) in naive T-cells promotes mRNA destabilization and degradation, promoting T-cell differentiation (By similarity). Inhibits the type I interferon response by mediating m6A methylation of IFNB. M6A also takes place in other RNA molecules, such as primary miRNA (pri- miRNAs). Mediates m6A methylation of Xist RNA, thereby participating in random X inactivation: m6A methylation of Xist leads to target YTHDC1 reader on Xist and promote transcription repression activity of Xist. M6A also regulates cortical neurogenesis: m6A methylation of transcripts related to transcription factors, neural stem cells, the cell cycle and neuronal differentiation during brain development promotes their destabilization and decay, promoting differentiation of radial glial cells (By similarity). METTL3 mediates methylation of pri-miRNAs, marking them for recognition and processing by DGCR8. Acts as a positive regulator of mRNA translation independently of the methyltransferase activity: promotes translation by interacting with the translation initiation machinery in the cytoplasm. Its overexpression in a number of cancer cells suggests that it may participate in cancer cell proliferation by promoting mRNA translation. During human coronorivus SARS-CoV-2 infection, adds m6A modifications in SARS-CoV-2 RNA leading to decreased RIGI binding and subsequently dampening the sensing and activation of innate immune responses.

The exact function of MAP2 is unknown but MAPs may stabilize the microtubules against depolymerization. They also seem to have a stiffening effect on microtubules

Catalyzes the reversible phosphorylation of S-methyl-5'- thioadenosine (MTA) to adenine and 5-methylthioribose-1-phosphate. Involved in the breakdown of MTA, a major by-product of polyamine biosynthesis. Responsible for the first step in the methionine salvage pathway after MTA has been generated from S-adenosylmethionine. Has broad substrate specificity with 6-aminopurine nucleosides as preferred substrates.

Inhibits cell migration in vitro and suppresses the invasive behavior of tumor cells (By similarity). May play a role in MDM2- dependent p53/TP53 homeostasis in unstressed cells. Inhibits autoubiquitination of MDM2, thereby enhancing MDM2 stability. This promotes MDM2-mediated ubiquitination of p53/TP53 and its subsequent degradation.

Potential mitochondrial transporter. May play a role in apoptosis.

Plays important roles in regulating apoptosis, metabolism and mitochondrial dynamics. MTCH2 acts as a receptor for the truncated form of pro-apoptotic BH3-interacting domain death agonist (p15 BID) and has therefore a critical function in apoptosis. Plays a critical role in controlling the quiescence/cycling of hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs). Acts as a regulator of mitochondrial fusion, essential for the naive- to-primed interconversion of embryonic stem cells (ESCs). Acts as a regulator of lipid homeostasis and has a regulatory role in adipocyte differentiation and biology.

Bifunctional mitochondrial folate-interconverting enzyme that has both NAD/NADP-dependent methylenetetrahydrofolate dehydrogenase and methenyltetrahydrofolate cyclohydrolase activities.

Although its dehydrogenase activity is NAD-specific, it can also utilize NADP at a reduced efficiency.

Transcription termination factor. Binds to a 28 bp region within the tRNA(Leu(uur)) gene at a position immediately adjacent to and downstream of the 16S rRNA gene; this region comprises a tridecamer sequence critical for directing accurate termination. Binds DNA along the major grove and promotes DNA bending and partial unwinding. Promotes base flipping. Transcription termination activity appears to be polarized with highest specificity for transcripts initiated on the light strand.

Binds mitochondrial DNA and plays a role in the regulation of transcription of mitochondrial mRNA and rRNA species.

Binds promoter DNA and regulates initiation of transcription. Required for normal mitochondrial transcription and translation, and for normal assembly of mitochondrial respiratory complexes. Required for normal mitochondrial function (By similarity). Maintains 16S rRNA levels and functions in mitochondrial ribosome assembly by regulating the biogenesis of the 39S ribosomal subunit (By similarity).

Regulator of mitochondrial ribosome biogenesis and translation. Binds to mitochondrial ribosomal RNAs 16S, 12S and 7S and targets NSUN4 RNA methyltransferase to the mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit (39S).

Zinc-dependent transcriptional regulator of cellular adaption to conditions of exposure to heavy metals. Binds to metal responsive elements (MRE) in promoters and activates the transcription of metallothionein genes like metallothionein-2/MT2A. Also regulates the expression of metalloproteases in response to intracellular zinc and functions as a catabolic regulator of cartilages (By similarity).

Polycomb group (PcG) protein that specifically binds histone H3 trimethylated at 'Lys-36' (H3K36me3) and recruits the PRC2 complex, thus enhancing PRC2 H3K27me3 methylation activity. Regulates the transcriptional networks during embryonic stem cell self-renewal and differentiation (By similarity). Promotes recruitment of the PRC2 complex to the inactive X chromosome in differentiating XX ES cells and PRC2 recruitment to target genes in undifferentiated ES cells (By similarity). Required to repress Hox genes by enhancing H3K27me3 methylation of the PRC2 complex (By similarity). In some conditions may act as an inhibitor of PRC2 activity: able to activate the CDKN2A gene and promote cellular senescence by suppressing the catalytic activity of the PRC2 complex locally (By similarity). Binds to the metal- regulating-element (MRE) of MT1A gene promoter (By similarity).

Involved in the mitochondrial division probably by regulating membrane fission. Loss-of-function induces the release of cytochrome c, which activates the caspase cascade and leads to apoptosis.

May play a role in mitochondrial aerobic respiration. May also regulate mitochondrial organization and fission (By similarity).

May play a role in mitochondrial aerobic respiration essentially in the testis. Can also promote mitochondrial fission (By similarity).

Transcriptional corepressor which facilitates transcriptional repression via its association with DNA-binding transcription factors and recruitment of other corepressors and histone-modifying enzymes. Can repress the expression of MMP7 in a ZBTB33-dependent manner. Reduces the protein levels and stability of the transcriptinal regulator HIF1A; interacts with EGLN1 and promotes the HIF1A prolyl hydroxylation-dependent ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation pathway. Contributes to inhibition of glycolysis and stimulation of mitochondrial respiration by down-regulating the expression of glycolytic genes including PFKFB3, PFKFB4, PDK1, PFKP, LDHA and HK1 which are direct targets of HIF1A. Regulates the proliferation and the differentiation of erythroid progenitors by repressing the expression of TAL1 target genes (By similarity). Plays a role in granulocyte differentiation.

Plays a role in the regulation of the mitochondrial ribosome assembly and of translational activity. Displays mitochondrial GTPase activity.

Plays a role in the regulation of the mitochondrial ribosome assembly and of translational activity. Displays GTPase activity. Involved in the ribosome maturation process.

Transcriptional corepressor which facilitates transcriptional repression via its association with DNA-binding transcription factors and recruitment of other corepressors and histone-modifying enzymes. Via association with PRDM14 is involved in regulation of embryonic stem cell (ESC) pluripotency. Involved in primordial germ cell (PCG) formation. Stabilizes PRDM14 and OCT4 on chromatin in a homooligomerization- dependent manner (By similarity). Can repress the expression of MMP7 in a ZBTB33-dependent manner. May function as a complex with the chimeric protein RUNX1/AML1-CBFA2T1/MTG8 (AML1-MTG8/ETO fusion protein) which is produced in acute myeloid leukemia with the chromosomal translocation t(8;21). May thus be involved in the repression of AML1-dependent transcription and the induction of G- CSF/CSF3-dependent cell growth. May be a tumor suppressor gene candidate involved in myeloid tumors with the deletion of the 20q11 region. Through heteromerization with CBFA2T3/MTG16 may be involved in regulation of the proliferation and the differentiation of erythroid progenitors by repressing the expression of TAL1 target genes (By similarity). Required for the maintenance of the secretory cell lineage in the small intestine. Can inhibit Notch signaling probably by association with RBPJ and may be involved in GFI1-mediated Paneth cell differentiation (By similarity).

Contributes to tetrahydrofolate metabolism. Helps regulate carbon flow through the folate-dependent one-carbon metabolic network that supplies carbon for the biosynthesis of purines, thymidine and amino acids. Catalyzes the irreversible conversion of 5- formyltetrahydrofolate (5-FTHF) to yield 5,10-methenyltetrahydrofolate.

Catalyzes the conversion of 5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate to 5-methyltetrahydrofolate, a cosubstrate for homocysteine remethylation to methionine. Represents a key regulatory connection between the folate and methionine cycles (Probable).

Essential for normal spermatogenesis and male fertility (By similarity). Required for the completion of meiosis in male germ cells (By similarity).

Positively regulates mitochondrial complex assembly and/or stability (By similarity). Increases mitochondrial membrane potential while decreasing mitochondrial reactive oxygen species. Increases mitochondrial respiration rate. Increased mitochondrial respiratory activity promotes myogenic differentiation which facilitates muscle growth and regeneration (By similarity). Increases mitochondrial calcium retention capacity. Plays a role in maintenance of cellular lipid composition through its interaction with cytochrome b5 reductase CYB5R3 which is required for mitochondrial respiratory complex I activity (By similarity). Interacts with the mitochondrial trifunctional enzyme complex (MTE) and enhances fatty acid beta- oxidation. Not required for MTE formation or stability (By similarity). Modulates triglyceride clearance in adipocytes through its role in regulating fatty acid beta-oxidation and lipolysis.

Lipid phosphatase which dephosphorylates phosphatidylinositol 3-monophosphate (PI3P) and phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate (PI(3,5)P2). Has also been shown to dephosphorylate phosphotyrosine- and phosphoserine-containing peptides. Negatively regulates EGFR degradation through regulation of EGFR trafficking from the late endosome to the lysosome. Plays a role in vacuolar formation and morphology. Regulates desmin intermediate filament assembly and architecture. Plays a role in mitochondrial morphology and positioning. Required for skeletal muscle maintenance but not for myogenesis. In skeletal muscles, stabilizes MTMR12 protein levels.

Phosphatase that acts on lipids with a phosphoinositol headgroup. Has phosphatase activity towards phosphatidylinositol 3- phosphate and phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate. Binds phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate, phosphatidylinositol 5-phosphate, phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate and phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5- trisphosphate (By similarity). Stabilizes SBF2/MTMR13 at the membranes (By similarity). Specifically in peripheral nerves, stabilizes SBF2/MTMR13 protein (By similarity).

Phosphatase that acts on lipids with a phosphoinositol headgroup. Has phosphatase activity towards phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate and phosphatidylinositol 3,5- bisphosphate. May also dephosphorylate proteins phosphorylated on Ser, Thr, and Tyr residues.

Acts as an adapter for the phosphatase MTMR2 to regulate MTMR2 catalytic activity and subcellular location. May function as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) activating RAB28. Promotes the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP-bound Rab proteins into their active GTP-bound form. Inhibits myoblast differentiation in vitro and induces oncogenic transformation in fibroblasts.

Phosphatase that acts on lipids with a phosphoinositol headgroup. Dephosphorylates phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3)P) and phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate (Probable). Binds with high affinity to phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,5)P2) but also to phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3)P), phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns(4)P), and phosphatidylinositol 5-phosphate (PtdIns(5)P), phosphatidic acid and phosphatidylserine. Negatively regulates ER-Golgi protein transport (By similarity). Probably in association with MTMR9, plays a role in the late stages of macropinocytosis by dephosphorylating phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate in membrane ruffles. Acts as a negative regulator of KCNN4/KCa3.1 channel activity in CD4(+) T-cells possibly by decreasing intracellular levels of phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate. Negatively regulates proliferation of reactivated CD4(+) T-cells. In complex with MTMR9, negatively regulates DNA damage-induced apoptosis. The formation of the MTMR6-MTMR9 complex stabilizes both MTMR6 and MTMR9 protein levels.

Phosphatase that specifically dephosphorylates phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3)P) and inositol 1,3- bisphosphate (Ins(1,3)P2).

Phosphatase that acts on lipids with a phosphoinositol headgroup. Has phosphatase activity towards phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate and phosphatidylinositol 3,5- bisphosphate. In complex with MTMR9, negatively regulates autophagy.

Acts as an adapter for myotubularin-related phosphatases. Increases lipid phosphatase MTMR6 catalytic activity, specifically towards phosphatidylinositol 3,5- bisphosphate and MTMR6 binding affinity for phosphorylated phosphatidylinositols. Positively regulates lipid phosphatase MTMR7 catalytic activity (By similarity). Increases MTMR8 catalytic activity towards phosphatidylinositol 3- phosphate. The formation of the MTMR6-MTMR9 complex, stabilizes both MTMR6 and MTMR9 protein levels. Stabilizes MTMR8 protein levels. Plays a role in the late stages of macropinocytosis possibly by regulating MTMR6-mediated dephosphorylation of phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate in membrane ruffles. Negatively regulates autophagy, in part via its association with MTMR8. Negatively regulates DNA damage-induced apoptosis, in part via its association with MTMR6. Does not bind mono-, di- and tri- phosphorylated phosphatidylinositols, phosphatidic acid and phosphatidylserine.

Acts as an adapter for the myotubularin-related phosphatases. Regulates phosphatase MTM1 protein stability and possibly its intracellular location. By stabilizing MTM1 protein levels, required for skeletal muscle maintenance but not for myogenesis (By similarity).

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) which activates RAB21 and possibly RAB28. Promotes the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP-bound Rab proteins into their active GTP-bound form. In response to starvation-induced autophagy, activates RAB21 which in turn binds to and regulates SNARE protein VAMP8 endolysosomal transport required for SNARE-mediated autophagosome-lysosome fusion. Acts as an adapter for the phosphatase MTMR2 (By similarity). Increases MTMR2 catalytic activity towards phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate and to a lesser extent towards phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (By similarity).

Lipid phosphatase which efficiently dephosphorylates phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns3P) and PtdIns(3,5)P2; inactive toward PtdIns4P, PtdIns(3,4)P2, PtdIns(4,5)P2 and PtdIns(3,4,5)P3.

Catalyzes the interconversion of methylthioribose-1-phosphate (MTR-1-P) into methylthioribulose-1-phosphate (MTRu-1-P). Independently from catalytic activity, promotes cell invasion in response to constitutive RhoA activation by promoting FAK tyrosine phosphorylation and stress fiber turnover.

Catalyzes the dehydration of methylthioribulose-1-phosphate (MTRu-1-P) into 2,3-diketo-5-methylthiopentyl-1-phosphate (DK-MTP-1-P). Functions in the methionine salvage pathway, which plays a key role in cancer, apoptosis, microbial proliferation and inflammation. May inhibit the CASP1-related inflammatory response (pyroptosis), the CASP9-dependent apoptotic pathway and the cytochrome c-dependent and APAF1-mediated cell death.

Catalyzes 2 different reactions between oxygen and the acireductone 1,2-dihydroxy-3-keto-5-methylthiopentene (DHK-MTPene) depending upon the metal bound in the active site (By similarity). Fe- containing acireductone dioxygenase (Fe-ARD) produces formate and 2- keto-4-methylthiobutyrate (KMTB), the alpha-ketoacid precursor of methionine in the methionine recycle pathway. Ni- containing acireductone dioxygenase (Ni-ARD) produces methylthiopropionate, carbon monoxide and formate, and does not lie on the methionine recycle pathway (By similarity). Also down-regulates cell migration mediated by MMP14. Necessary for hepatitis C virus replication in an otherwise non-permissive cell line.

Involved in the 5-carboxymethylaminomethyl modification (mnm(5)s(2)U34) of the wobble uridine base in mitochondrial tRNAs.

Serine/threonine protein kinase which is a central regulator of cellular metabolism, growth and survival in response to hormones, growth factors, nutrients, energy and stress signals. MTOR directly or indirectly regulates the phosphorylation of at least 800 proteins. Functions as part of 2 structurally and functionally distinct signaling complexes mTORC1 and mTORC2 (mTOR complex 1 and 2). Activated mTORC1 up-regulates protein synthesis by phosphorylating key regulators of mRNA translation and ribosome synthesis. This includes phosphorylation of EIF4EBP1 and release of its inhibition toward the elongation initiation factor 4E (eiF4E) (By similarity). Moreover, phosphorylates and activates RPS6KB1 and RPS6KB2 that promote protein synthesis by modulating the activity of their downstream targets including ribosomal protein S6, eukaryotic translation initiation factor EIF4B, and the inhibitor of translation initiation PDCD4. This also includes mTORC1 signaling cascade controlling the MiT/TFE factors TFEB and TFE3: in the presence of nutrients, mediates phosphorylation of TFEB and TFE3, promoting their cytosolic retention and inactivation. Upon starvation or lysosomal stress, inhibition of mTORC1 induces dephosphorylation and nuclear translocation of TFEB and TFE3, promoting their transcription factor activity. Stimulates the pyrimidine biosynthesis pathway, both by acute regulation through RPS6KB1-mediated phosphorylation of the biosynthetic enzyme CAD, and delayed regulation, through transcriptional enhancement of the pentose phosphate pathway which produces 5-phosphoribosyl-1- pyrophosphate (PRPP), an allosteric activator of CAD at a later step in synthesis, this function is dependent on the mTORC1 complex. Regulates ribosome synthesis by activating RNA polymerase III-dependent transcription through phosphorylation and inhibition of MAF1 an RNA polymerase III-repressor. In parallel to protein synthesis, also regulates lipid synthesis through SREBF1/SREBP1 and LPIN1 (By similarity). To maintain energy homeostasis mTORC1 may also regulate mitochondrial biogenesis through regulation of PPARGC1A (By similarity). mTORC1 also negatively regulates autophagy through phosphorylation of ULK1 (By similarity). Under nutrient sufficiency, phosphorylates ULK1 at 'Ser- 758', disrupting the interaction with AMPK and preventing activation of ULK1 (By similarity). Also prevents autophagy through phosphorylation of the autophagy inhibitor DAP. Also prevents autophagy by phosphorylating RUBCNL/Pacer under nutrient-rich conditions. Prevents autophagy by mediating phosphorylation of AMBRA1, thereby inhibiting AMBRA1 ability to mediate ubiquitination of ULK1 and interaction between AMBRA1 and PPP2CA. mTORC1 exerts a feedback control on upstream growth factor signaling that includes phosphorylation and activation of GRB10 a INSR-dependent signaling suppressor. Among other potential targets mTORC1 may phosphorylate CLIP1 and regulate microtubules. As part of the mTORC2 complex MTOR may regulate other cellular processes including survival and organization of the cytoskeleton. Plays a critical role in the phosphorylation at 'Ser-473' of AKT1, a pro-survival effector of phosphoinositide 3-kinase, facilitating its activation by PDK1. mTORC2 may regulate the actin cytoskeleton, through phosphorylation of PRKCA, PXN and activation of the Rho-type guanine nucleotide exchange factors RHOA and RAC1A or RAC1B. mTORC2 also regulates the phosphorylation of SGK1 at 'Ser-422'. Regulates osteoclastogenesis by adjusting the expression of CEBPB isoforms (By similarity). Plays an important regulatory role in the circadian clock function; regulates period length and rhythm amplitude of the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) and liver clocks (By similarity). Phosphorylates SQSTM1, promoting interaction between SQSTM1 and KEAP1 and subsequent inactivation of the BCR(KEAP1) complex (By similarity).

Promotes dimerization of NF-kappa-B subunits and regulates NF-kappa-B transcription factor activity (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of the growth of actin filaments. Inhibits the activity of the F-actin-capping protein complex formed by the CAPZA1 and CAPZB heterodimer. Promotes growth of cardiomyocytes, but not cardiomyocyte proliferation. Promotes cardiac muscle hypertrophy.

Catalyzes the transport of triglyceride, cholesteryl ester, and phospholipid between phospholipid surfaces. Required for the assembly and secretion of plasma lipoproteins that contain apolipoprotein B. May be involved in regulating cholesteryl ester biosynthesis in cells that produce lipoproteins (By similarity).

High affinity receptor for melatonin. Likely to mediate the reproductive and circadian actions of melatonin. The activity of this receptor is mediated by pertussis toxin sensitive G proteins that inhibit adenylate cyclase activity

Catalyzes the ATP-dependent unwinding of RNA duplexes with a single-stranded 3' RNA extension. Central subunit of many protein complexes, namely TRAMP-like, nuclear exosome targeting (NEXT) and poly(A) tail exosome targeting (PAXT). NEXT functions as an RNA exosome cofactor that directs a subset of non- coding short-lived RNAs for exosomal degradation. NEXT is involved in surveillance and turnover of aberrant transcripts and non-coding RNAs. PAXT directs a subset of long and polyadenylated poly(A) RNAs for exosomal degradation. The RNA exosome is fundamental for the degradation of RNA in eukaryotic nuclei. Substrate targeting is facilitated by its cofactor ZCCHC8, which links to RNA-binding protein adapters. Associated with the RNA exosome complex and involved in the 3'-processing of the 7S pre-RNA to the mature 5.8S rRNA. May be involved in pre-mRNA splicing. In the context of NEXT complex can also in vitro unwind DNA:RNA heteroduplexes with a 3' poly (A) RNA tracking strand. Can promote unwinding and degradation of structured RNA substrates when associated with the nuclear exosome and its cofactors. Can displace a DNA strand while translocating on RNA to ultimately degrade the RNA within a DNA/RNA heteroduplex. Plays a role in DNA damage response.

Part of a mitoribosome-associated quality control pathway that prevents aberrant translation by responding to interruptions during elongation. As heterodimer with MTRES1, ejects the unfinished nascent chain and peptidyl transfer RNA (tRNA), respectively, from stalled ribosomes. Recruitment of mitoribosome biogenesis factors to these quality control intermediates suggests additional roles for MTRES1 and MTRF during mitoribosome rescue.

Key enzyme in methionine and folate homeostasis responsible for the reactivation of methionine synthase (MTR/MS) activity by catalyzing the reductive methylation of MTR-bound cob(II)alamin. Cobalamin (vitamin B12) forms a complex with MTR to serve as an intermediary in methyl transfer reactions that cycles between MTR-bound methylcob(III)alamin and MTR bound-cob(I)alamin forms, and occasional oxidative escape of the cob(I)alamin intermediate during the catalytic cycle leads to the inactive cob(II)alamin species (Probable). The processing of cobalamin in the cytosol occurs in a multiprotein complex composed of at least MMACHC, MMADHC, MTRR and MTR which may contribute to shuttle safely and efficiently cobalamin towards MTR in order to produce methionine. Also necessary for the utilization of methyl groups from the folate cycle, thereby affecting transgenerational epigenetic inheritance (By similarity). Also acts as a molecular chaperone for methionine synthase by stabilizing apoMTR and incorporating methylcob(III)alamin into apoMTR to form the holoenzyme. Also serves as an aquacob(III)alamin reductase by reducing aquacob(III)alamin to cob(II)alamin; this reduction leads to stimulation of the conversion of apoMTR and aquacob(III)alamin to MTR holoenzyme.

May be related to cancer progression or tumor metastasis in a variety of organ sites, most likely through an interaction with the actin cytoskeleton

Involved in plasma membrane dynamics. Potentiated PDGF- mediated formation of membrane ruffles and lamellipodia in fibroblasts, acting via RAC1 activation. May function in actin bundling.

Catalyzes the 2-thiolation of uridine at the wobble position (U34) of mitochondrial tRNA(Lys), tRNA(Glu) and tRNA(Gln). Required for the formation of 5-taurinomethyl-2-thiouridine (tm5s2U) of mitochondrial tRNA(Lys), tRNA(Glu), and tRNA(Gln) at the wobble position. ATP is required to activate the C2 atom of the wobble base.

Promotes megakaryocyte differentiation by enhancing ERK and JNK signaling as well as up-regulating RUNX1 and FLI1 expression. Represses NF-kappa-B transcriptional activity by inhibiting phosphorylation of RELA at 'Ser-536'. May be involved in early neuronal development (By similarity).

Cooperates with AGTR2 to inhibit ERK2 activation and cell proliferation. May be required for AGTR2 cell surface expression. Together with PTPN6, induces UBE2V2 expression upon angiotensin-II stimulation. Isoform 1 inhibits breast cancer cell proliferation, delays the progression of mitosis by prolonging metaphase and reduces tumor growth.

Binds microtubules. Together with MAPRE1 may target the microtubule depolymerase KIF2C to the plus-end of microtubules. May regulate the dynamics of microtubules at their growing distal tip.

Involved in transport of proteins into the mitochondrion. Essential for embryonic development (By similarity).

Involved in epithelial cell protection, adhesion modulation, and signaling. May be involved in epithelial cell growth regulation. Stimulated by both cytokine TNF-alpha and TGF-beta in intestinal epithelium.

Epithelial and hemopoietic transmembrane mucin that may play a role in cell signaling

Probably plays a role in maintaining homeostasis on mucosal surfaces.

Plays a role in cell adhesion, and in cohesion of the endothelial monolayer at intercellular junctions in vascular tissue. Its expression may allow melanoma cells to interact with cellular elements of the vascular system, thereby enhancing hematogeneous tumor spread. Could be an adhesion molecule active in neural crest cells during embryonic development. Acts as surface receptor that triggers tyrosine phosphorylation of FYN and PTK2/FAK1, and a transient increase in the intracellular calcium concentration.

May regulate MET signaling cascade. Seems to decrease hepatocyte growth factor (HGF)-induced transient MAPK activation. Blocks GRB2 recruitment to MET thus suppressing the GRB2-RAS pathway. Inhibits HGF-induced proliferation of MMP1 and MMP9 expression.

Sialomucin that may play a key role in hematopoiesis by facilitating the adhesion of CD34(+) cells to the stroma and by negatively regulating CD34(+)CD38(lo/-) cell proliferation. Modulates the migration of umbilical cord blood CD133+ cells and this is mediated through the CXCL12/CXCR4 axis. May play an important role in prostate cancer metastasis and the infiltration of bone marrow by cancer cells. Promotes myogenesis by enhancing CXCR4-dependent cell motility. Positively regulates myoblast migration and promotes myoblast fusion into myotubes (By similarity).

Major glycoprotein component of a variety of mucus gels. Thought to provide a protective, lubricating barrier against particles and infectious agents at mucosal surfaces. May be involved in ligand binding and intracellular signaling.

Membrane-bound mucin, a family of highly glycosylated proteins that constitute the major component of the mucus, the slimy and viscous secretion covering epithelial surfaces. These glycoproteins play important roles in the protection of the epithelium and are implicated in epithelial renewal and differentiation. Regulates cellular behavior through both anti- adhesive effects on cell-cell and cell-extracellular matrix interactions and its ability to act as an intramembrane ligand for ERBB2. Plays an important role in proliferation and differentiation of epithelial cells by inducing specific phosphorylation of ERBB2. In polarized epithelial cells, segregates ERBB2 and other ERBB receptors and prevents ERBB2 from acting as a coreceptor. The interaction with ERBB2 leads to enhanced expression of CDKN1B. The formation of a MUC4- ERBB2-ERBB3-NRG1 complex leads to down-regulation of CDKN1B, resulting in repression of apoptosis and stimulation of proliferation. Its ability to promote tumor growth may be mainly due to repression of apoptosis as opposed to proliferation.

Gel-forming glycoprotein of gastric and respiratory tract epithelia that protects the mucosa from infection and chemical damage by binding to inhaled microorganisms and particles that are subsequently removed by the mucociliary system. Interacts with H.pylori in the gastric epithelium, Barrett's esophagus as well as in gastric metaplasia of the duodenum (GMD).

Gel-forming mucin that is thought to contribute to the lubricating and viscoelastic properties of whole saliva and cervical mucus

May provide a mechanism for modulation of the composition of the protective mucus layer related to acid secretion or the presence of bacteria and noxious agents in the lumen. Plays an important role in the cytoprotection of epithelial surfaces and are used as tumor markers in a variety of cancers. May play a role in epithelial organogenesis.

May function in a protective capacity by promoting the clearance of bacteria in the oral cavity and aiding in mastication, speech, and swallowing. Binds P.aeruginosa pili.

Endothelial sialomucin, also called endomucin or mucin-like sialoglycoprotein, which interferes with the assembly of focal adhesion complexes and inhibits interaction between cells and the extracellular matrix

May play a role as marker for the diagnosis of metastatic breast cancer.

Exhibits weak E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity. E3 ubiquitin ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfer the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Can ubiquitinate AKT1 preferentially at 'Lys-284' involving 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination and seems to be involved in regulation of Akt signaling by targeting phosphorylated Akt to proteosomal degradation. Mediates polyubiquitination of cytoplasmic TP53 at 'Lys-24' which targets TP53 for proteasomal degradation, thus reducing TP53 levels in the cytoplasm and mitochondrion. Proposed to preferentially act as a SUMO E3 ligase at physiological concentrations. Plays a role in the control of mitochondrial morphology by promoting mitochondrial fragmentation, and influences mitochondrial localization. Likely to promote mitochondrial fission through negatively regulating the mitochondrial fusion proteins MFN1 and MFN2, acting in a pathway that is parallel to the PRKN/PINK1 regulatory pathway. May also be involved in the sumoylation of the membrane fission protein DNM1L. Inhibits cell growth. When overexpressed, activates JNK through MAP3K7/TAK1 and induces caspase-dependent apoptosis. Involved in the modulation of innate immune defense against viruses by inhibiting RIGI-dependent antiviral response. Can mediate RIGI sumoylation and disrupt its polyubiquitination.

Interacts with EME1 and EME2 to form a DNA structure-specific endonuclease with substrate preference for branched DNA structures with a 5'-end at the branch nick. Typical substrates include 3'-flap structures, replication forks and nicked Holliday junctions. Plays an essential role in mitosis for the processing of stalled or collapsed replication forks.

Transcription repressor capable of inhibiting the transactivation capability of TCF3/E47. May play a role in regulating antigen-dependent B-cell differentiation

Receptor tyrosine kinase which plays a central role in the formation and the maintenance of the neuromuscular junction (NMJ), the synapse between the motor neuron and the skeletal muscle. Recruitment of AGRIN by LRP4 to the MUSK signaling complex induces phosphorylation and activation of MUSK, the kinase of the complex. The activation of MUSK in myotubes regulates the formation of NMJs through the regulation of different processes including the specific expression of genes in subsynaptic nuclei, the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and the clustering of the acetylcholine receptors (AChR) in the postsynaptic membrane. May regulate AChR phosphorylation and clustering through activation of ABL1 and Src family kinases which in turn regulate MUSK. DVL1 and PAK1 that form a ternary complex with MUSK are also important for MUSK-dependent regulation of AChR clustering. May positively regulate Rho family GTPases through FNTA. Mediates the phosphorylation of FNTA which promotes prenylation, recruitment to membranes and activation of RAC1 a regulator of the actin cytoskeleton and of gene expression. Other effectors of the MUSK signaling include DNAJA3 which functions downstream of MUSK. May also play a role within the central nervous system by mediating cholinergic responses, synaptic plasticity and memory formation (By similarity).

Possesses 3'-5' exoribonuclease activity. Required for 3'-end trimming of AGO1-bound miRNAs (By similarity).

Catalyzes the reversible isomerization of methylmalonyl-CoA (MMCoA) (generated from branched-chain amino acid metabolism and degradation of dietary odd chain fatty acids and cholesterol) to succinyl-CoA (3-carboxypropionyl-CoA), a key intermediate of the tricarboxylic acid cycle.

Involved in oxidative DNA damage repair. Initiates repair of A*oxoG to C*G by removing the inappropriately paired adenine base from the DNA backbone. Possesses both adenine and 2-OH-A DNA glycosylase activities.

Catalyzes the ATP dependent decarboxylation of (R)-5- diphosphomevalonate to form isopentenyl diphosphate (IPP). Functions in the mevalonate (MVA) pathway leading to isopentenyl diphosphate (IPP), a key precursor for the biosynthesis of isoprenoids and sterol synthesis.

Required for normal vault structure. Vaults are multi-subunit structures that may act as scaffolds for proteins involved in signal transduction. Vaults may also play a role in nucleo-cytoplasmic transport. Down-regulates IFNG-mediated STAT1 signaling and subsequent activation of JAK. Down-regulates SRC activity and signaling through MAP kinases.

Interferon-induced dynamin-like GTPase with antiviral activity against a wide range of RNA viruses and some DNA viruses. Its target viruses include negative-stranded RNA viruses and HBV through binding and inactivation of their ribonucleocapsid. May also antagonize reoviridae and asfarviridae replication. Inhibits thogoto virus (THOV) replication by preventing the nuclear import of viral nucleocapsids. Inhibits La Crosse virus (LACV) replication by sequestering viral nucleoprotein in perinuclear complexes, preventing genome amplification, budding, and egress. Inhibits influenza A virus (IAV) replication by decreasing or delaying NP synthesis and by blocking endocytic traffic of incoming virus particles. Enhances ER stress- mediated cell death after influenza virus infection. May regulate the calcium channel activity of TRPCs.

Interferon-induced dynamin-like GTPase with potent antiviral activity against human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1). Acts by targeting the viral capsid and affects the nuclear uptake and/or stability of the HIV-1 replication complex and the subsequent chromosomal integration of the proviral DNA. Exhibits antiviral activity also against simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV-mnd). May play a role in regulating nucleocytoplasmic transport and cell-cycle progression.

Transcriptional repressor. MXI1 binds with MAX to form a sequence-specific DNA-binding protein complex which recognizes the core sequence 5'-CAC[GA]TG-3'. MXI1 thus antagonizes MYC transcriptional activity by competing for MAX

In kidney, has anti-inflammatory and anti-fibrotic properties by limiting the induction of chemokines, fibronectin and collagen expression in response to TGB1 and pro-inflammatory stimuli.

Transmembrane protein which can modulate activity of various signaling pathways, probably via binding to integrin ITGAV:ITGB3. Mediates heterophilic cell-cell interactions in vitro (By similarity). Inhibits osteoclastogenesis downstream of TNFSF11/RANKL and CSF1, where it may function by attenuating signaling via integrin ITGB3 and MAP kinase p38 (By similarity). Plays a role in cartilage formation where it promotes proliferation and maturation of growth plate chondrocytes (By similarity). Stimulates formation of primary cilia in chondrocytes (By similarity). Enhances expression of genes involved in the hedgehog signaling pathway in chondrocytes, including the hedgehog signaling molecule IHH; may also promote signaling via the PTHLH/PTHrP pathway (By similarity). Plays a role in angiogenesis where it suppresses migration of endothelial cells and also promotes their apoptosis. Inhibits VEGF-induced activation of AKT and p38 MAP kinase in endothelial cells. Also inhibits VTN (vitronectin)-mediated integrin ITGAV:ITGB3 signaling and activation of PTK2/FAK. May play a role in the maturation and maintenance of the blood-brain barrier (By similarity).

May link Golgi membranes to the cytoskeleton and participate in the tensile force required for vesicle budding from the Golgi. Thereby, may play a role in Golgi membrane trafficking and could indirectly give its flattened shape to the Golgi apparatus. Alternatively, in concert with LURAP1 and CDC42BPA/CDC42BPB, has been involved in modulating lamellar actomyosin retrograde flow that is crucial to cell protrusion and migration. May be involved in the maintenance of the stromal cell architectures required for cell to cell contact (By similarity). Regulates trafficking, expression, and activation of innate immune receptors on macrophages. Plays a role to suppress inflammatory responsiveness of macrophages via a mechanism that modulates CD14 trafficking. Acts as a receptor of surfactant-associated protein A (SFTPA1/SP-A) and plays an important role in internalization and clearance of SFTPA1-opsonized S.aureus by alveolar macrophages. Strongly enhances natural killer cell cytotoxicity.

May be involved in intracellular trafficking of the muscle cell when in the cytoplasm, whereas entering the nucleus, may be involved in the regulation of muscle specific genes. May play a role in the control of tumor development and progression; restored MYO18B expression in lung cancer cells suppresses anchorage-independent growth

Transcription factor that specifically recognizes the sequence 5'-YAAC[GT]G-3'. Acts as a master regulator of male meiosis by promoting expression of piRNAs: activates expression of both piRNA precursor RNAs and expression of protein-coding genes involved in piRNA metabolism (By similarity). The piRNA metabolic process mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and governs the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons, which is essential for the germline integrity (By similarity). Transcriptional activator of SOX30 (By similarity).

Transcription factor involved in the regulation of cell survival, proliferation, and differentiation. Transactivates the expression of the CLU gene.

Binds to myosin; probably involved in interaction with thick myofilaments in the A-band

May play a role in spermatogenesis. May be involved in synaptic processes (By similarity).

Transcriptional activator; DNA-binding protein that specifically recognize the sequence 5'-YAAC[GT]G-3'. Plays an important role in the control of proliferation and differentiation of hematopoietic progenitor cells

Atypical E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which specifically mediates ubiquitination of threonine and serine residues on target proteins, instead of ubiquitinating lysine residues. Shows esterification activity towards both threonine and serine, with a preference for threonine, and acts via two essential catalytic cysteine residues that relay ubiquitin to its substrate via thioester intermediates. Interacts with the E2 enzymes UBE2D1, UBE2D3, UBE2E1 and UBE2L3. Plays a key role in neural development, probably by mediating ubiquitination of threonine residues on target proteins (Probable). Involved in different processes such as regulation of neurite outgrowth, synaptic growth, synaptogenesis and axon degeneration (By similarity). Required for the formation of major central nervous system axon tracts (By similarity). Required for proper axon growth by regulating axon navigation and axon branching: acts by regulating the subcellular location and stability of MAP3K12/DLK (By similarity). Required for proper localization of retinogeniculate projections but not for eye-specific segregation (By similarity). Regulates axon guidance in the olfactory system (By similarity). Involved in Wallerian axon degeneration, an evolutionarily conserved process that drives the loss of damaged axons: acts by promoting destabilization of NMNAT2, probably via ubiquitination of NMNAT2 (By similarity). Catalyzes ubiquitination of threonine and/or serine residues on NMNAT2, consequences of threonine and/or serine ubiquitination are however unknown. Regulates the internalization of TRPV1 in peripheral sensory neurons (By similarity). Mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of TSC2/tuberin. Independently of the E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity, also acts as a guanosine exchange factor (GEF) for RAN in neurons of dorsal root ganglia. May function as a facilitator or regulator of transcriptional activation by MYC. Acts in concert with HUWE1 to regulate the circadian clock gene expression by promoting the lithium-induced ubiquination and degradation of NR1D1.

May control the transcriptional activity of MYC. Stimulates the activation of E box-dependent transcription by MYC

Smooth muscle cells (SM) and cardiac muscle cells-specific transcriptional factor which uses the canonical single or multiple CArG boxes DNA sequence. Acts as a cofactor of serum response factor (SRF) with the potential to modulate SRF-target genes. Plays a crucial role in cardiogenesis, urinary bladder development, and differentiation of the smooth muscle cell lineage (myogenesis) (By similarity).

Positively regulates the transcription of MYCNOS in neuroblastoma cells.

May regulate certain MYC target genes, MYC seems to be a direct upstream transcriptional activator. Does not seem to significantly affect growth cell capacity. Overexpression seems to mediate many of the known phenotypic features associated with MYC, including promotion of apoptosis, alteration of morphology, enhancement of anchorage-independent growth, tumorigenic conversion, promotion of genomic instability, and inhibition of hematopoietic differentiation (By similarity).

H(+)-myo-inositol cotransporter. Can also transport related stereoisomers.

Transcription factor that binds DNA in a non-specific manner, yet also specifically recognizes the core sequence 5'-CAC[GA]TG-3'. Activates the transcription of growth-related genes. Binds to the VEGFA promoter, promoting VEGFA production and subsequent sprouting angiogenesis. Regulator of somatic reprogramming, controls self-renewal of embryonic stem cells (By similarity). Functions with TAF6L to activate target gene expression through RNA polymerase II pause release (By similarity). Positively regulates transcription of HNRNPA1, HNRNPA2 and PTBP1 which in turn regulate splicing of pyruvate kinase PKM by binding repressively to sequences flanking PKM exon 9, inhibiting exon 9 inclusion and resulting in exon 10 inclusion and production of the PKM M2 isoform.

Adapter protein involved in the Toll-like receptor and IL-1 receptor signaling pathway in the innate immune response. Acts via IRAK1, IRAK2, IRF7 and TRAF6, leading to NF-kappa-B activation, cytokine secretion and the inflammatory response. Increases IL-8 transcription. Involved in IL-18-mediated signaling pathway. Activates IRF1 resulting in its rapid migration into the nucleus to mediate an efficient induction of IFN-beta, NOS2/INOS, and IL12A genes. Upon TLR8 activation by GU-rich single-stranded RNA (GU-rich RNA) derived from viruses such as SARS-CoV-2, SARS-CoV and HIV-1, induces IL1B release through NLRP3 inflammasome activation. MyD88-mediated signaling in intestinal epithelial cells is crucial for maintenance of gut homeostasis and controls the expression of the antimicrobial lectin REG3G in the small intestine (By similarity).

Bone marrow-derived monocyte and paracrine-acting protein that promotes cardiac myocyte survival and adaptive angiogenesis for cardiac protection and/or repair after myocardial infarction (MI). Stimulates endothelial cell proliferation through a MAPK1/3-, STAT3- and CCND1-mediated signaling pathway. Inhibits cardiac myocyte apoptosis in a PI3K/AKT-dependent signaling pathway (By similarity). Involved in endothelial cell proliferation and angiogenesis.

Transcriptional activator that promotes transcription of muscle-specific target genes and plays a role in muscle differentiation. Together with MYOG and MYOD1, co-occupies muscle- specific gene promoter core region during myogenesis. Induces fibroblasts to differentiate into myoblasts. Probable sequence specific DNA-binding protein.

Involved in muscle differentiation (myogenic factor). Induces fibroblasts to differentiate into myoblasts. Probable sequence specific DNA-binding protein

3'-5' RNA exonuclease which cleaves in situ on specific transcripts in both nucleus and mitochondrion. Involved in regulating spatially segregated organellar RNA processing, acts as a coordinator of nucleo-mitochondrial crosstalk. In nucleolus, processes pre-ribosomal RNA involved in ribosome assembly and alters cytoplasmic translation. In mitochondrial matrix, processes 3'-termini of the mito-ribosomal and messenger RNAs and controls translation of mitochondrial proteins (Probable).

Serves as a reserve supply of oxygen and facilitates the movement of oxygen within muscles

Cellular myosin that appears to play a role in cytokinesis, cell shape, and specialized functions such as secretion and capping. Involved with LARP6 in the stabilization of type I collagen mRNAs for CO1A1 and CO1A2. During cell spreading, plays an important role in cytoskeleton reorganization, focal contacts formation (in the central part but not the margins of spreading cells), and lamellipodial extension; this function is mechanically antagonized by MYH9.

Fast twitching myosin mediating the high-velocity and low- tension contractions of specific striated muscles.

Cellular myosin that appears to play a role in cytokinesis, cell shape, and specialized functions such as secretion and capping.

Muscle contraction. Required for cytoskeleton organization (By similarity).

Myosins are actin-based motor molecules with ATPase activity essential for muscle contraction. Forms regular bipolar thick filaments that, together with actin thin filaments, constitute the fundamental contractile unit of skeletal and cardiac muscle.

Cellular myosin that appears to play a role in cytokinesis, cell shape, and specialized functions such as secretion and capping. Required for cortical actin clearance prior to oocyte exocytosis (By similarity). Promotes cell motility in conjunction with S100A4. During cell spreading, plays an important role in cytoskeleton reorganization, focal contact formation (in the margins but not the central part of spreading cells), and lamellipodial retraction; this function is mechanically antagonized by MYH10.

Myosin regulatory subunit that plays an essential role to maintain muscle integrity during early development (By similarity). Plays a role in muscle contraction (By similarity).

Non-regulatory myosin light chain required for proper formation and/or maintenance of myofibers, and thus appropriate muscle function.

Myosin regulatory subunit that plays an important role in regulation of both smooth muscle and nonmuscle cell contractile activity via its phosphorylation. Implicated in cytokinesis, receptor capping, and cell locomotion. In myoblasts, may regulate PIEZO1-dependent cortical actomyosin assembly involved in myotube formation (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of myosin regulatory light chain (MRLC), LDLR, VLDLR and LRP8. Activity depends on E2 enzymes of the UBE2D family. Proteasomal degradation of MRLC leads to inhibit neurite outgrowth in presence of NGF by counteracting the stabilization of MRLC by saposin-like protein (CNPY2/MSAP) and reducing CNPY2-stimulated neurite outgrowth. Acts as a sterol-dependent inhibitor of cellular cholesterol uptake by mediating ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of LDLR.

Implicated in the level of global muscle contraction and cardiac function. Phosphorylates a specific serine in the N-terminus of a myosin light chain.

Kinase that phosphorylates MYL2 in vitro. Promotes sarcomere formation in cardiomyocytes and increases cardiomyocyte contractility (By similarity).

Calcium/calmodulin-dependent myosin light chain kinase implicated in smooth muscle contraction via phosphorylation of myosin light chains (MLC). Also regulates actin-myosin interaction through a non-kinase activity. Phosphorylates PTK2B/PYK2 and myosin light-chains. Involved in the inflammatory response (e.g. apoptosis, vascular permeability, leukocyte diapedesis), cell motility and morphology, airway hyperreactivity and other activities relevant to asthma. Required for tonic airway smooth muscle contraction that is necessary for physiological and asthmatic airway resistance. Necessary for gastrointestinal motility. Implicated in the regulation of endothelial as well as vascular permeability, probably via the regulation of cytoskeletal rearrangements. In the nervous system it has been shown to control the growth initiation of astrocytic processes in culture and to participate in transmitter release at synapses formed between cultured sympathetic ganglion cells. Critical participant in signaling sequences that result in fibroblast apoptosis. Plays a role in the regulation of epithelial cell survival. Required for epithelial wound healing, especially during actomyosin ring contraction during purse-string wound closure. Mediates RhoA-dependent membrane blebbing. Triggers TRPC5 channel activity in a calcium-dependent signaling, by inducing its subcellular localization at the plasma membrane. Promotes cell migration (including tumor cells) and tumor metastasis. PTK2B/PYK2 activation by phosphorylation mediates ITGB2 activation and is thus essential to trigger neutrophil transmigration during acute lung injury (ALI). May regulate optic nerve head astrocyte migration. Probably involved in mitotic cytoskeletal regulation. Regulates tight junction probably by modulating ZO-1 exchange in the perijunctional actomyosin ring. Mediates burn-induced microvascular barrier injury; triggers endothelial contraction in the development of microvascular hyperpermeability by phosphorylating MLC. Essential for intestinal barrier dysfunction. Mediates Giardia spp.-mediated reduced epithelial barrier function during giardiasis intestinal infection via reorganization of cytoskeletal F-actin and tight junctional ZO-1. Necessary for hypotonicity-induced Ca(2+) entry and subsequent activation of volume-sensitive organic osmolyte/anion channels (VSOAC) in cervical cancer cells. Responsible for high proliferative ability of breast cancer cells through anti-apoptosis.

Myoblast-specific protein that mediates myoblast fusion, an essential step for the formation of multi-nucleated muscle fibers. Actively participates in the membrane fusion reaction by mediating the mixing of cell membrane lipids (hemifusion) upstream of MYMX. Acts independently of MYMX (By similarity). Involved in skeletal muscle regeneration in response to injury by mediating the fusion of satellite cells, a population of muscle stem cells, with injured myofibers (By similarity). Also involved in skeletal muscle hypertrophy, probably by mediating the fusion of satellite cells with myofibers (By similarity).

Myoblast-specific protein that mediates myoblast fusion, an essential step for the formation of multi-nucleated muscle fibers. Involved in membrane fusion downstream of the lipid mixing step mediated by MYMK (By similarity). Acts by generating membrane stresses via its extracellular C-terminus, leading to drive fusion pore formation. Acts independently of MYMK (By similarity). Involved in skeletal muscle regeneration in response to injury by mediating the fusion of satellite cells, a population of muscle stem cells, with injured myofibers (By similarity).

Myosins are actin-based motor molecules with ATPase activity. Unconventional myosins serve in intracellular movements. MYO10 binds to actin filaments and actin bundles and functions as a plus end-directed motor. Moves with higher velocity and takes larger steps on actin bundles than on single actin filaments. The tail domain binds to membranous compartments containing phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate or integrins, and mediates cargo transport along actin filaments. Regulates cell shape, cell spreading and cell adhesion. Stimulates the formation and elongation of filopodia. In hippocampal neurons it induces the formation of dendritic filopodia by trafficking the actin-remodeling protein VASP to the tips of filopodia, where it promotes actin elongation. Plays a role in formation of the podosome belt in osteoclasts.

Myosins are actin-based motor molecules with ATPase activity. Unconventional myosins serve in intracellular movements. Their highly divergent tails are presumed to bind to membranous compartments, which would be moved relative to actin filaments. Required for the arrangement of stereocilia in mature hair bundles (By similarity).

Actin-based motor molecule with ATPase activity that localizes to the mitochondrion outer membrane. Motor protein that moves towards the plus-end of actin filaments (By similarity). Required for mitochondrial inheritance during mitosis. May be involved in mitochondrial transport or positioning.

Involved in directing the movement of organelles along actin filaments.

Motor protein that may participate in process critical to neuronal development and function such as cell migration, neurite outgrowth and vesicular transport.

Myosins are actin-based motor molecules with ATPase activity. Unconventional myosins serve in intracellular movements. Their highly divergent tails are presumed to bind to membranous compartments, which would be moved relative to actin filaments. Involved in glucose transporter recycling in response to insulin by regulating movement of intracellular GLUT4-containing vesicles to the plasma membrane. Component of the hair cell's (the sensory cells of the inner ear) adaptation-motor complex. Acts as a mediator of adaptation of mechanoelectrical transduction in stereocilia of vestibular hair cells. Binds phosphoinositides and links the actin cytoskeleton to cellular membranes.

Unconventional myosin that functions as actin-based motor protein with ATPase activity (By similarity). Plays a role in endosomal protein trafficking, and especially in the transfer of cargo proteins from early to recycling endosomes (By similarity). Required for normal planar cell polarity in ciliated tracheal cells, for normal rotational polarity of cilia, and for coordinated, unidirectional ciliary movement in the trachea. Required for normal, polarized cilia organization in brain ependymal epithelial cells (By similarity).

Myosins are actin-based motor molecules with ATPase activity. Unconventional myosins serve in intracellular movements. Their highly divergent tails bind to membranous compartments, which are then moved relative to actin filaments. Binds to membranes containing anionic phospholipids via its tail domain. Required for normal morphology of the glomerular basement membrane, normal development of foot processes by kidney podocytes and normal kidney function. In dendritic cells, may control the movement of class II-containing cytoplasmic vesicles along the actin cytoskeleton by connecting them with the actin network via ARL14EP and ARL14.

Myosins are actin-based motor molecules with ATPase activity. Unconventional myosins serve in intracellular movements. Their highly divergent tails are presumed to bind to membranous compartments, which would be moved relative to actin filaments (By similarity).

Unconventional myosin required during immune response for detection of rare antigen-presenting cells by regulating T-cell migration. Unconventional myosins are actin-based motor molecules with ATPase activity and serve in intracellular movements. Acts as a regulator of T-cell migration by generating membrane tension, enforcing cell-intrinsic meandering search, thereby enhancing detection of rare antigens during lymph-node surveillance, enabling pathogen eradication. Also required in B-cells, where it regulates different membrane/cytoskeleton-dependent processes. Involved in Fc-gamma receptor (Fc-gamma-R) phagocytosis.

Probable actin-based motor with a protein kinase activity. Probably plays a role in vision and hearing. Required for normal cochlear hair bundle development and hearing. Plays an important role in the early steps of cochlear hair bundle morphogenesis. Influences the number and lengths of stereocilia to be produced and limits the growth of microvilli within the forming auditory hair bundles thereby contributing to the architecture of the hair bundle, including its staircase pattern. Involved in the elongation of actin in stereocilia tips by transporting the actin regulatory factor ESPN to the plus ends of actin filaments (By similarity).

Probable actin-based motor with a protein kinase activity. Required for normal cochlear hair bundle development and hearing. Plays an important role in the early steps of cochlear hair bundle morphogenesis. Influences the number and lengths of stereocilia to be produced and limits the growth of microvilli within the forming auditory hair bundles thereby contributing to the architecture of the hair bundle, including its staircase pattern. Involved in the elongation of actin in stereocilia tips by transporting the actin regulatory factor ESPN to the plus ends of actin filaments.

Processive actin-based motor that can move in large steps approximating the 36-nm pseudo-repeat of the actin filament. Involved in melanosome transport. Also mediates the transport of vesicles to the plasma membrane. May also be required for some polarization process involved in dendrite formation.

May be involved in vesicular trafficking via its association with the CART complex. The CART complex is necessary for efficient transferrin receptor recycling but not for EGFR degradation. Required in a complex with RAB11A and RAB11FIP2 for the transport of NPC1L1 to the plasma membrane. Together with RAB11A participates in CFTR trafficking to the plasma membrane and TF (transferrin) recycling in nonpolarized cells. Together with RAB11A and RAB8A participates in epithelial cell polarization. Together with RAB25 regulates transcytosis. Required for proper localization of bile salt export pump ABCB11 at the apical/canalicular plasma membrane of hepatocytes.

May be involved in transferrin trafficking. Likely to power actin-based membrane trafficking in many physiologically crucial tissues

Myosins are actin-based motor molecules with ATPase activity (By similarity). Unconventional myosins serve in intracellular movements (By similarity). Myosin 6 is a reverse-direction motor protein that moves towards the minus-end of actin filaments. Has slow rate of actin-activated ADP release due to weak ATP binding (By similarity). Functions in a variety of intracellular processes such as vesicular membrane trafficking and cell migration (By similarity). Required for the structural integrity of the Golgi apparatus via the p53-dependent pro-survival pathway. Appears to be involved in a very early step of clathrin-mediated endocytosis in polarized epithelial cells. Together with TOM1, mediates delivery of endocytic cargo to autophagosomes thereby promoting autophagosome maturation and driving fusion with lysosomes. Links TOM1 with autophagy receptors, such as TAX1BP1; CALCOCO2/NDP52 and OPTN. May act as a regulator of F-actin dynamics (By similarity). As part of the DISP complex, may regulate the association of septins with actin and thereby regulate the actin cytoskeleton. May play a role in transporting DAB2 from the plasma membrane to specific cellular targets (By similarity). May play a role in the extension and network organization of neurites (By similarity). Required for structural integrity of inner ear hair cells (By similarity). Modulates RNA polymerase II-dependent transcription.

Myosins are actin-based motor molecules with ATPase activity. Unconventional myosins serve in intracellular movements. Their highly divergent tails bind to membranous compartments, which are then moved relative to actin filaments. In the retina, plays an important role in the renewal of the outer photoreceptor disks. Plays an important role in the distribution and migration of retinal pigment epithelial (RPE) melanosomes and phagosomes, and in the regulation of opsin transport in retinal photoreceptors. In the inner ear, plays an important role in differentiation, morphogenesis and organization of cochlear hair cell bundles. Involved in hair-cell vesicle trafficking of aminoglycosides, which are known to induce ototoxicity (By similarity). Motor protein that is a part of the functional network formed by USH1C, USH1G, CDH23 and MYO7A that mediates mechanotransduction in cochlear hair cells. Required for normal hearing.

Myosins are actin-based motor molecules with ATPase activity. Unconventional myosins serve in intracellular movements. Regulates Rho by stimulating it's GTPase activity in neurons. Required for the regulation of neurite branching and motor neuron axon guidance (By similarity).

Myosins are actin-based motor molecules with ATPase activity. Unconventional myosins serve in intracellular movements. Binds actin with high affinity both in the absence and presence of ATP and its mechanochemical activity is inhibited by calcium ions. Also acts as a GTPase activator for RHOA. Plays a role in the regulation of cell migration via its role as RHOA GTPase activator. This is regulated by its interaction with the SLIT2 receptor ROBO1; interaction with ROBO1 impairs interaction with RHOA and subsequent activation of RHOA GTPase activity, and thereby leads to increased levels of active, GTP-bound RHOA.

Secreted glycoprotein regulating the activation of different signaling pathways in adjacent cells to control different processes including cell adhesion, cell-matrix adhesion, cytoskeleton organization and cell migration. Promotes substrate adhesion, spreading and formation of focal contacts. Negatively regulates cell-matrix adhesion and stress fiber assembly through Rho protein signal transduction. Modulates the organization of actin cytoskeleton by stimulating the formation of stress fibers through interactions with components of Wnt signaling pathways. Promotes cell migration through activation of PTK2 and the downstream phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase signaling. Plays a role in bone formation and promotes osteoblast differentiation in a dose-dependent manner through mitogen-activated protein kinase signaling. Mediates myelination in the peripheral nervous system through ERBB2/ERBB3 signaling. Plays a role as a regulator of muscle hypertrophy through the components of dystrophin- associated protein complex. Involved in positive regulation of mitochondrial depolarization. Plays a role in neurite outgrowth. May participate in the obstruction of fluid outflow in the trabecular meshwork.

Acts as a transcriptional activator that promotes transcription of muscle-specific target genes and plays a role in muscle differentiation. Together with MYF5 and MYOG, co-occupies muscle-specific gene promoter core region during myogenesis. Induces fibroblasts to differentiate into myoblasts. Interacts with and is inhibited by the twist protein. This interaction probably involves the basic domains of both proteins (By similarity).

Calcium/phospholipid-binding protein that plays a role in the plasmalemma repair mechanism of endothelial cells that permits rapid resealing of membranes disrupted by mechanical stress. Involved in endocytic recycling. Implicated in VEGF signal transduction by regulating the levels of the receptor KDR (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional activator that promotes transcription of muscle-specific target genes and plays a role in muscle differentiation, cell cycle exit and muscle atrophy. Essential for the development of functional embryonic skeletal fiber muscle differentiation. However is dispensable for postnatal skeletal muscle growth; phosphorylation by CAMK2G inhibits its transcriptional activity in respons to muscle activity. Required for the recruitment of the FACT complex to muscle-specific promoter regions, thus promoting gene expression initiation. During terminal myoblast differentiation, plays a role as a strong activator of transcription at loci with an open chromatin structure previously initiated by MYOD1. Together with MYF5 and MYOD1, co-occupies muscle-specific gene promoter core regions during myogenesis. Cooperates also with myocyte-specific enhancer factor MEF2D and BRG1-dependent recruitment of SWI/SNF chromatin- remodeling enzymes to alter chromatin structure at myogenic late gene promoters. Facilitates cell cycle exit during terminal muscle differentiation through the up-regulation of miR-20a expression, which in turn represses genes involved in cell cycle progression. Binds to the E-box containing (E1) promoter region of the miR-20a gene. Plays also a role in preventing reversal of muscle cell differentiation. Contributes to the atrophy-related gene expression in adult denervated muscles. Induces fibroblasts to differentiate into myoblasts (By similarity).

Major component of the vertebrate myofibrillar M band. Binds myosin, titin, and light meromyosin. This binding is dose dependent

May link the intermediate filament cytoskeleton to the M-disk of the myofibrils in striated muscle.

Putative glycosidase. Promotes myogenesis by activating AKT signaling through the maturation and secretion of IGF2.

Myozenins may serve as intracellular binding proteins involved in linking Z-disk proteins such as alpha-actinin, gamma- filamin, TCAP/telethonin, LDB3/ZASP and localizing calcineurin signaling to the sarcomere. Plays an important role in the modulation of calcineurin signaling. May play a role in myofibrillogenesis

Myozenins may serve as intracellular binding proteins involved in linking Z line proteins such as alpha-actinin, gamma- filamin, TCAP/telethonin, LDB3/ZASP and localizing calcineurin signaling to the sarcomere. Plays an important role in the modulation of calcineurin signaling. May play a role in myofibrillogenesis

Is an adhesion molecule necessary for normal myelination in the peripheral nervous system. It mediates adhesion between adjacent myelin wraps and ultimately drives myelin compaction.

May play a role in lipid transport protein in Schwann cells. May bind cholesterol.

Thick filament-associated protein located in the crossbridge region of vertebrate striated muscle a bands. Slow skeletal protein that binds to both myosin and actin. In vitro, binds to native thin filaments and modifies the activity of actin-activated myosin ATPase. May modulate muscle contraction or may play a more structural role.

Thick filament-associated protein located in the crossbridge region of vertebrate striated muscle a bands. In vitro it binds MHC, F- actin and native thin filaments, and modifies the activity of actin- activated myosin ATPase. It may modulate muscle contraction or may play a more structural role

Component of the sarcomere that tethers together nebulin (skeletal muscle) and nebulette (cardiac muscle) to alpha-actinin, at the Z lines.

Transcriptional repressor; DNA-binding protein that specifically recognizes the core sequence 5'-YAAC[GT]G-3'. Dimerization with PFN1 reduces its DNA-binding capacity (By similarity).

This is the major myelin protein from the central nervous system. It plays an important role in the formation or maintenance of the multilamellar structure of myelin

Key regulator of protein phosphatase 1C (PPP1C). Mediates binding to myosin. As part of the PPP1C complex, involved in dephosphorylation of PLK1. Capable of inhibiting HIF1AN-dependent suppression of HIF1A activity.

Regulates myosin phosphatase activity. Augments Ca(2+) sensitivity of the contractile apparatus.

[Myelin regulatory factor]: Constitutes a precursor of the transcription factor. Mediates the autocatalytic cleavage that releases the Myelin regulatory factor, N-terminal component that specifically activates transcription of central nervous system (CNS) myelin genes.

Rab effector protein involved in melanosome transport. Serves as link between melanosome-bound RAB27A and the motor proteins MYO5A and MYO7A. May link RAB27A-containing vesicles to actin filaments. Functions as a protein kinase A-anchoring protein (AKAP). May act as a scaffolding protein that links PKA to components of the exocytosis machinery, thus facilitating exocytosis, including insulin release (By similarity).

Metalloprotease with deubiquitinase activity that plays important regulator roles in hematopoietic stem cell function, blood cell production and immune response. Participates in the normal programming of B-cell responses to antigen after the maturation process (By similarity). Within the cytoplasm, plays critical roles in the repression of innate immunity and autoimmunity. Removes 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitins from TRAF3 and TRAF6 complexes (By similarity). Attenuates NOD2-mediated inflammation and tissue injury by promoting 'Lys-63'-linked deubiquitination of RIPK2 component (By similarity). Suppresses the CGAS-STING1 signaling pathway by cleaving STING1 'Lys- 63'-linked ubiquitin chains. In the nucleus, acts as a hematopoietic transcription regulator derepressing a range of genes essential for normal stem cell differentiation including EBF1 and PAX5 in B-cells, ID2 in NK-cell progenitor or FLT3 in dendritic cell precursors. Deubiquitinates monoubiquitinated histone H2A, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression, leading to dissociation of histone H1 from the nucleosome.

Transcription factor that plays a key role in neuronal differentiation by specifically repressing expression of non-neuronal genes during neuron differentiation. In contrast to other transcription repressors that inhibit specific lineages, mediates repression of multiple differentiation programs. Also represses expression of negative regulators of neurogenesis, such as members of the Notch signaling pathway, including HES1. The combination of three transcription factors, ASCL1, POU3F2/BRN2 and MYT1L, is sufficient to reprogram fibroblasts and other somatic cells into induced neuronal (iN) cells in vitro. Directly binds the 5'-AAGTT-3' core motif present on the promoter of target genes and represses transcription by recruiting a multiprotein complex containing SIN3B. The 5'-AAGTT-3' core motif is absent from the promoter of neural genes.

Binds to the promoter region of genes encoding proteolipid proteins of the central nervous system. May play a role in the development of neurons and oligodendroglia in the CNS. May regulate a critical transition point in oligodendrocyte lineage development by modulating oligodendrocyte progenitor proliferation relative to terminal differentiation and up-regulation of myelin gene transcription.

Plays a role in cellular signaling via Rho-related GTP- binding proteins and subsequent activation of transcription factor SRF (By similarity). Targets TJP1 to cell junctions. In cortical neurons, may play a role in glutaminergic signal transduction through interaction with the NMDA receptor subunit GRIN1 (By similarity).

Associates with immunoglobulin M (IgM) heavy and light chains and promotes IgM assembly and secretion. May exert its effect by acting as a molecular chaperone or as an oxidoreductase as it displays a low level of oxidoreductase activity (By similarity). Isoform 2 may be involved in regulation of apoptosis. Helps to diversify peripheral B- cell functions by regulating Ca(2+) stores, antibody secretion and integrin activation.

Binds to target promoter DNA and functions as transcription regulator. Regulates transcription from the PADI1 and CDH2 promoter. May be one regulator of transcriptional events during hemopoietic development.

Required for gamma-tubulin complex recruitment to the centrosome.

Potent suppressor of cytokine production that acts as a regulator of innate immune signaling and inflammation. Acts as a key negative regulator of select cytokine and chemokine responses elicited by TRIF-independent Toll-like receptors (TLRs), thereby limiting inflammatory cytokine responses to minor insults. In response to more threatening pathogens, cleaved by CASP8 downstream of TLR3 or TLR4, leading to its inactivation, thereby allowing production of inflammatory cytokines (By similarity). Acts as a restriction factor against some viruses, such as HIV-1: restricts HIV-1 replication by binding to HIV-1 mRNAs and mediating their degradation via its ribonuclease activity. Also acts as an inhibitor of the E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase ITCH: acts by interacting with the second WW domain of ITCH, leading to compete with ITCH's substrates and impairing ubiquitination of substrates (By similarity).

Has 5'-polynucleotide kinase and nicking endonuclease activity. May play a role in DNA repair or recombination.

Plays a positive role in the antiviral innate immune signaling pathway. Mechanistically, interacts with MAVS and functions as a positive regulator to promote 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of MAVS and thus strengthens the interaction between MAVS and TRAF2. Also plays a role in axon and dendrite arborization during cranial nerve development. May also be important for neural crest migration and early development of other anterior structures including eye, brain and cranial cartilage (By similarity).

Methyltransferase that can methylate proteins and, to a lower extent, arsenic. Catalytic subunit of a heterodimer with TRMT112, which monomethylates 'Lys-12' of histone H4 (H4K12me1), a modification present at the promoters of numerous genes encoding cell cycle regulators. Catalytic subunit of a heterodimer with TRMT112, which catalyzes N5-methylation of Glu residue of proteins with a Gly-Gln-Xaa-Xaa-Xaa-Arg motif. Methylates ETF1 on 'Gln-185'; ETF1 needs to be complexed to ERF3 in its GTP-bound form to be efficiently methylated. May also play a role in the modulation of arsenic-induced toxicity by mediating the conversion of monomethylarsonous acid (3+) into the less toxic dimethylarsonic acid. It however only plays a limited role in arsenic metabolism compared with AS3MT.

Catalytic subunit of N-terminal acetyltransferase complexes which display alpha (N-terminal) acetyltransferase activity. Acetylates amino termini that are devoid of initiator methionine. The alpha (N-terminal) acetyltransferase activity may be important for vascular, hematopoietic and neuronal growth and development. Without NAA15, displays epsilon (internal) acetyltransferase activity towards HIF1A, thereby promoting its degradation. Represses MYLK kinase activity by acetylation, and thus represses tumor cell migration. Acetylates, and stabilizes TSC2, thereby repressing mTOR activity and suppressing cancer development. Acetylates HSPA1A and HSPA1B at 'Lys-77' which enhances its chaperone activity and leads to preferential binding to co-chaperone HOPX. Acetylates HIST1H4A. Acts as a negative regulator of sister chromatid cohesion during mitosis.

Displays alpha (N-terminal) acetyltransferase activity. Proposed alternative catalytic subunit of the N-terminal acetyltransferase A (NatA) complex.

Auxillary subunit of N-terminal acetyltransferase complexes which display alpha (N-terminal) acetyltransferase (NAT) activity. The NAT activity may be important for vascular, hematopoietic and neuronal growth and development. Required to control retinal neovascularization in adult ocular endothelial cells. In complex with XRCC6 and XRCC5 (Ku80), up-regulates transcription from the osteocalcin promoter.

Auxillary subunit of the N-terminal acetyltransferase A (NatA) complex which displays alpha (N-terminal) acetyltransferase activity

Catalytic subunit of the NatB complex which catalyzes acetylation of the N-terminal methionine residues of peptides beginning with Met-Asp, Met-Glu, Met-Asn and Met-Gln. Proteins with cell cycle functions are overrepresented in the pool of NatB substrates. Required for maintaining the structure and function of actomyosin fibers and for proper cellular migration.

Non-catalytic subunit of the NatB complex which catalyzes acetylation of the N-terminal methionine residues of peptides beginning with Met-Asp, Met-Glu, Met-Asn and Met-Gln. May play a role in normal cell-cycle progression.

Catalytic subunit of the N-terminal acetyltransferase C (NatC) complex. Catalyzes acetylation of the N-terminal methionine residues of peptides beginning with Met-Leu-Ala and Met-Leu-Gly. Necessary for the lysosomal localization and function of ARL8B sugeesting that ARL8B is a NatC substrate.

Auxillary component of the N-terminal acetyltransferase C (NatC) complex which catalyzes acetylation of N-terminal methionine residues. Involved in regulation of apoptosis and proliferation of smooth muscle cells.

N-alpha-acetyltransferase that specifically mediates the acetylation of the N-terminal residues of histones H4 and H2A. In contrast to other N-alpha- acetyltransferase, has a very specific selectivity for histones H4 and H2A N-terminus and specifically recognizes the 'Ser-Gly-Arg-Gly sequence'. Acts as a negative regulator of apoptosis. May play a role in hepatic lipid metabolism (By similarity).

N-alpha-acetyltransferase that acetylates the N-terminus of proteins that retain their initiating methionine. Has a broad substrate specificity: able to acetylate the initiator methionine of most peptides, except for those with a proline in second position. Also displays N-epsilon-acetyltransferase activity by mediating acetylation of the side chain of specific lysines on proteins. Autoacetylates in vivo. The relevance of N-epsilon-acetyltransferase activity is however unclear: able to acetylate H4 in vitro, but this result has not been confirmed in vivo. Component of N-alpha- acetyltransferase complexes containing NAA10 and NAA15, which has N- alpha-acetyltransferase activity. Does not influence the acetyltransferase activity of NAA10. However, it negatively regulates the N-alpha-acetyltransferase activity of the N-terminal acetyltransferase A complex (also called the NatA complex). The multiprotein complexes probably constitute the major contributor for N-terminal acetylation at the ribosome exit tunnel, with NAA10 acetylating all amino termini that are devoid of methionine and NAA50 acetylating other peptides. Required for sister chromatid cohesion during mitosis by promoting binding of CDCA5/sororin to cohesin: may act by counteracting the function of NAA10.

N-alpha-acetyltransferase that specifically mediates the acetylation of N-terminal residues of the transmembrane proteins, with a strong preference for N-termini facing the cytosol. Displays N-terminal acetyltransferase activity towards a range of N- terminal sequences including those starting with Met-Lys, Met-Val, Met- Ala and Met-Met. Required for normal chromosomal segregation during anaphase. May also show histone acetyltransferase activity; such results are however unclear in vivo and would require additional experimental evidences.

N-alpha-acetyltransferase that specifically mediates the acetylation of the acidic amino terminus of processed forms of beta- and gamma-actin (ACTB and ACTG, respectively). N-terminal acetylation of processed beta- and gamma- actin regulates actin filament depolymerization and elongation. In vivo, preferentially displays N-terminal acetyltransferase activity towards acid N-terminal sequences starting with Asp-Asp-Asp and Glu-Glu-Glu. In vitro, shows high activity towards Met-Asp-Glu-Leu and Met-Asp-Asp-Asp. May act as a tumor suppressor.

Degrades bioactive fatty acid amides to their corresponding acids, with the following preference: N-palmitoylethanolamine > N- myristoylethanolamine > N-lauroylethanolamine = N-stearoylethanolamine > N-arachidonoylethanolamine > N-oleoylethanolamine. Also exhibits weak hydrolytic activity against the ceramides N- lauroylsphingosine and N-palmitoylsphingosine.

Acts as a transcriptional repressor for zinc finger transcription factors EGR1 and EGR2.

Acts as a transcriptional repressor for zinc finger transcription factors EGR1 and EGR2. Isoform 2 lacks repression ability (By similarity).

Mediates the exchange of one Ca(2+) ion against three to four Na(+) ions across the cell membrane, and thereby contributes to the regulation of cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels and Ca(2+)-dependent cellular processes. Contributes to Ca(2+) transport during excitation-contraction coupling in muscle. In a first phase, voltage-gated channels mediate the rapid increase of cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels due to release of Ca(2+) stores from the endoplasmic reticulum. SLC8A1 mediates the export of Ca(2+) from the cell during the next phase, so that cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels rapidly return to baseline. Required for normal embryonic heart development and the onset of heart contractions (By similarity).

Mediates the electrogenic exchange of Ca(2+) against Na(+) ions across the cell membrane, and thereby contributes to the regulation of cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels and Ca(2+)-dependent cellular processes. Contributes to cellular Ca(2+) homeostasis in excitable cells. Contributes to the rapid decrease of cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels back to baseline after neuronal activation, and thereby contributes to modulate synaptic plasticity, learning and memory. Plays a role in regulating urinary Ca(2+) and Na(+) excretion.

Mediates the electrogenic exchange of Ca(2+) against Na(+) ions across the cell membrane, and thereby contributes to the regulation of cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels and Ca(2+)-dependent cellular processes. Contributes to cellular Ca(2+) homeostasis in excitable cells, both in muscle and in brain. In a first phase, voltage-gated channels mediate the rapid increase of cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels due to release of Ca(2+) stores from the endoplasmic reticulum. SLC8A3 mediates the export of Ca(2+) from the cell during the next phase, so that cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels rapidly return to baseline. Contributes to Ca(2+) transport during excitation-contraction coupling in muscle. In neurons, contributes to the rapid decrease of cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels back to baseline after neuronal activation, and thereby contributes to modulate synaptic plasticity, learning and memory (By similarity). Required for normal oligodendrocyte differentiation and for normal myelination. Mediates Ca(2+) efflux from mitochondria and contributes to mitochondrial Ca(2+) ion homeostasis (By similarity).

Prevents inappropriate targeting of non-secretory polypeptides to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Binds to nascent polypeptide chains as they emerge from the ribosome and blocks their interaction with the signal recognition particle (SRP), which normally targets nascent secretory peptides to the ER. Also reduces the inherent affinity of ribosomes for protein translocation sites in the ER membrane (M sites) (By similarity).

May prevent inappropriate targeting of non-secretory polypeptides to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). May bind to nascent polypeptide chains as they emerge from the ribosome and block their interaction with the signal recognition particle (SRP), which normally targets nascent secretory peptides to the ER. May also reduce the inherent affinity of ribosomes for protein translocation sites in the ER membrane (M sites) (By similarity).

Cardiac- and muscle-specific transcription factor. May act to regulate the expression of genes involved in the development of myotubes. Plays a critical role in ventricular cardiomyocyte expansion and regulates postnatal skeletal muscle growth and regeneration. Involved in the organized assembly of thick and thin filaments of myofibril sarcomeres (By similarity).

Functions as a transcriptional repressor. Seems to function as a transcriptional corepressor in neuronal cells through recruitment of HDAC3 and HDAC4. Contributes to tumor progression, and tumor cell proliferation and survival. This may be mediated at least in part through repressing transcriptional activity of GADD45GIP1. Required for recruiting the proteasome from the nucleus to the cytoplasm and dendritic spines.

Functions as a transcriptional repressor through its association with the NuRD complex. Recruits the NuRD complex to the promoter of MDM2, leading to the repression of MDM2 transcription and subsequent stability of p53/TP53.

Molecular chaperone which mediates the proper assembly and functional expression of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs) throughout the brain. Essential for the proper folding, assembly, function and surface trafficking of alpha-7 (CHRNA7), alpha-4-beta-2, alpha-3-beta-2 and alpha-3-beta-4 receptors. Stably associates with ribophorin-1 (RPN1) and ribophorin-2 (RPN2) (components of the oligosaccharyl transferase (OST) complex) and with calnexin (CANX), both of which are critical for NACHO-mediated effects on CHRNA7 assembly and function (By similarity). Facilitates the proper folding and assembly of alpha-6-beta-2 and alpha-6-beta-2-beta-3 receptors and acts at early stages of the nAChRs subunit assembly. Promotes the expression of the alpha-4(2):beta-2(3) stoichiometric form over the alpha-4(3):beta-2(2) form.

Catalyzes the final step of the nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) de novo synthesis pathway, the ATP-dependent amidation of deamido-NAD using L-glutamine as a nitrogen source.

RNA-binding protein required for the maturation of box H/ACA snoRNPs complex and ribosome biogenesis. During assembly of the H/ACA snoRNPs complex, it associates with the complex and disappears during maturation of the complex and is replaced by NOLA1/GAR1 to yield mature H/ACA snoRNPs complex. Probably competes with NOLA1/GAR1 for binding with DKC1/NOLA4.

Removes terminal alpha-N-acetylgalactosamine residues from glycolipids and glycopeptides. Required for the breakdown of glycolipids.

Hydrolyzes the N-glycolyl group from N-glycolylglucosamine 6- phosphate (GlcNGc-6-P) in the N-glycolylneuraminic acid (Neu5Gc) degradation pathway. Although human is not able to catalyze formation of Neu5Gc due to the inactive CMAHP enzyme, Neu5Gc is present in food and must be degraded.

Converts endogenous N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc), a major component of complex carbohydrates, from lysosomal degradation or nutritional sources into GlcNAc 6-phosphate. Involved in the N- glycolylneuraminic acid (Neu5Gc) degradation pathway: although human is not able to catalyze formation of Neu5Gc due to the inactive CMAHP enzyme, Neu5Gc is present in food and must be degraded. Also has ManNAc kinase activity.

Catalyzes the second step in the formation of the mannose 6- phosphate targeting signal on lysosomal enzyme oligosaccharides by removing GlcNAc residues from GlcNAc-alpha-P-mannose moieties, which are formed in the first step. Also hydrolyzes UDP-GlcNAc, a sugar donor for Golgi N-acetylglucosaminyltransferases.

Plays a role in the regulation of ureagenesis by producing the essential cofactor N-acetylglutamate (NAG), thus modulating carbamoylphosphate synthase I (CPS1) activity.

Mitochondrial NAD(+) kinase that phosphorylates NAD(+) to yield NADP(+). Can use both ATP or inorganic polyphosphate as the phosphoryl donor. Also has weak NADH kinase activity in vitro; however NADH kinase activity is much weaker than the NAD(+) kinase activity and may not be relevant in vivo.

Inhibits autoprocessing of CASP1, CASP1-dependent IL1B secretion, PYCARD aggregation and PYCARD-mediated apoptosis but not apoptosis induced by FAS or BID. Displays anti- inflammatory activity. Required for immunity against C.albicans infection (By similarity). Involved in the innate immune response by contributing to pro-inflammatory cytokine release in response to invasive bacterial infection. Contributes to T-cell-mediated inflammatory responses in the skin (By similarity). Plays a role in protection against periodontitis through its involvement in induction of IL1A via ERK activation in oral epithelial cells infected with periodontal pathogens. Exhibits both ATPase and GTPase activities.

Plays an essential role as an potent mitigator of inflammation. Primarily expressed in dendritic cells and macrophages, inhibits both canonical and non-canonical NF-kappa-B and ERK activation pathways. Functions as a negative regulator of NOD2 by targeting it to degradation via the proteasome pathway. In turn, promotes bacterial tolerance. Inhibits also the RIGI- mediated immune signaling against RNA viruses by reducing the E3 ubiquitin ligase TRIM25-mediated 'Lys-63'-linked RIGI activation but enhancing the E3 ubiquitin ligase RNF125-mediated 'Lys-48'-linked RIGI degradation. Acts also as a negative regulator of inflammatory response to mitigate obesity and obesity-associated diseases in adipose tissue (By similarity).

Voltage-gated ion channel responsible for the resting Na(+) permeability that controls neuronal excitability. NALCN channel functions as a multi-protein complex, which consists at least of NALCN, NALF1, UNC79 and UNC80. NALCN is the voltage-sensing, pore- forming subunit of the NALCN channel complex. NALCN channel complex is constitutively active and conducts monovalent cations but is blocked by physiological concentrations of extracellular divalent cations. In addition to its role in regulating neuronal excitability, is required for normal respiratory rhythm, systemic osmoregulation by controlling the serum sodium concentration and in the regulation of the intestinal pace-making activity in the interstitial cells of Cajal (By similarity). NALCN channel is also activated by neuropeptides such as neurotensin and substance P (SP) through a SRC family kinases-dependent pathway (By similarity). In addition, NALCN activity is enhanced/modulated by several GPCRs, such as CHRM3 (By similarity).

Has N-acetylated-alpha-linked-acidic dipeptidase (NAALADase) activity. Also exhibits a dipeptidyl-peptidase IV type activity. Inactivates the peptide neurotransmitter N-acetylaspartylglutamate.

Aminopeptidase with broad substrate specificity. Has lower activity with substrates that have Asp or Glu in the P2' position, or Pro in the P3' position. Lacks activity with substrates that have both Pro in the P3' position and Asp or Glu in the P2' position. Lacks carboxypeptidase activity. Lacks dipeptidyl- peptidase IV type activity.

Auxillary component of the NALCN sodium channel complex, a channel that regulates the resting membrane potential and controls neuronal excitability.

Probable component of the NALCN channel complex, a channel that regulates the resting membrane potential and controls neuronal excitability.

Suppresses TNF- and CD40-induced NFKB1 activity at the level of the IKK complex, by inhibiting NFKBIA degradation induced by TNF. When associated with PYCARD, activates CASP1, leading to the secretion of mature pro-inflammatory cytokine IL1B. May be a component of the inflammasome, a protein complex which also includes PYCARD, CARD8 and CASP1 and whose function would be the activation of pro-inflammatory caspases.

May be involved in inflammation and recognition of cytosolic pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) not intercepted by membrane-bound receptors. Acts as a negative regulator of the type I interferon signaling pathway by serving as an adapter to promote DTX4- mediated ubiquitination of activated TBK1, and its subsequent degradation. Suppresses NF-kappaB induction by the cytokines TNFA and IL1B, suggesting that it operates at a point of convergence in these two cytokine signaling pathways.

As a member of the subcortical maternal complex (SCMC), plays an essential role for zygotes to progress beyond the first embryonic cell divisions via regulation of actin dynamics (By similarity). Required for the formation of F-actin cytoplasmic lattices (CPL) in oocytes, which in turn are responsible for symmetric division of zygotes via the regulation of mitotic spindle formation and positioning (By similarity). Required for the localization of cortical granules to the cortex of oocytes, via association with the cortical actin scaffold (By similarity). Required for cortical actin clearance prior to oocyte exocytosis (By similarity). Involved in regulating post-fertilization Ca(2+) release and endoplasmic reticulum (ER) storage via regulation of ER localization (By similarity). May be involved in the localization of mitochondria to the cytoplasm and perinuclear region in oocytes and early stage embryos, independent of its role in CPL formation (By similarity).

Catalyzes the condensation of nicotinamide with 5- phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate to yield nicotinamide mononucleotide, an intermediate in the biosynthesis of NAD. It is the rate limiting component in the mammalian NAD biosynthesis pathway. The secreted form behaves both as a cytokine with immunomodulating properties and an adipokine with anti-diabetic properties, it has no enzymatic activity, partly because of lack of activation by ATP, which has a low level in extracellular space and plasma. Plays a role in the modulation of circadian clock function. NAMPT-dependent oscillatory production of NAD regulates oscillation of clock target gene expression by releasing the core clock component: CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer from NAD-dependent SIRT1- mediated suppression (By similarity).

May act as a translational repressor which regulates translation of specific mRNAs by forming a complex with PUM2 that associates with the 3'-UTR of mRNA targets. Capable of interfering with the proadhesive and anti-invasive functions of E-cadherin. Up-regulates the production of MMP14 to promote tumor cell invasion.

Plays a key role in the sexual differentiation of germ cells by promoting the male fate but suppressing the female fate. Represses the female fate pathways by suppressing meiosis, which in turn results in the promotion of the male fate. Maintains the suppression of meiosis by preventing STRA8 expression, which is required for premeiotic DNA replication, after CYP26B1 is decreased. Regulates the localization of the CCR4-NOT deadenylation complex to P-bodies and plays a role in recruiting the complex to trigger the degradation of mRNAs involved in meiosis. Required for the maintenance of the spermatogonial stem cell population. Not essential for the assembly of P-bodies but is required for the maintenance of their normal state (By similarity).

Plays a role in the maintenance of the undifferentiated state of germ cells regulating the spermatogonia cell cycle and inducing a prolonged transit in G1 phase. Affects cell proliferation probably by repressing translation of specific mRNAs. Maintains the germ cell lineage by suppressing both Bax-dependent and -independent apoptotic pathways. Essential in the early stage embryo to protect the migrating primordial germ cells (PGCs) from apoptosis.

Transcription regulator involved in inner cell mass and embryonic stem (ES) cells proliferation and self-renewal. Imposes pluripotency on ES cells and prevents their differentiation towards extraembryonic endoderm and trophectoderm lineages. Blocks bone morphogenetic protein-induced mesoderm differentiation of ES cells by physically interacting with SMAD1 and interfering with the recruitment of coactivators to the active SMAD transcriptional complexes. Acts as a transcriptional activator or repressor. Binds optimally to the DNA consensus sequence 5'-TAAT[GT][GT]-3' or 5'-[CG][GA][CG]C[GC]ATTAN[GC]- 3'. Binds to the POU5F1/OCT4 promoter. Able to autorepress its expression in differentiating (ES) cells: binds to its own promoter following interaction with ZNF281/ZFP281, leading to recruitment of the NuRD complex and subsequent repression of expression. When overexpressed, promotes cells to enter into S phase and proliferation.

May act as a transcription regulator (By similarity). When overexpressed, promotes entry of cells into S phase and cell proliferation.

D-type phospholipase that hydrolyzes N-acyl- phosphatidylethanolamines (NAPEs) to produce bioactive N- acylethanolamines/fatty acid ethanolamides (NAEs/FAEs) and phosphatidic acid. Cleaves the terminal phosphodiester bond of diacyl- and alkenylacyl-NAPEs, primarily playing a role in the generation of long-chain saturated and monounsaturated NAEs in the brain (By similarity). May control NAPE homeostasis in dopaminergic neuron membranes and regulate neuron survival, partly through RAC1 activation (By similarity). As a regulator of lipid metabolism in the adipose tissue, mediates the crosstalk between adipocytes, gut microbiota and immune cells to control body temperature and weight. In particular, regulates energy homeostasis by promoting cold-induced brown or beige adipocyte differentiation program to generate heat from fatty acids and glucose. Has limited D-type phospholipase activity toward N-acyl lyso-NAPEs (By similarity).

May be involved in processing of pneumocyte surfactant precursors

Required for DNA replication, normal cell cycle progression and cell proliferation. Forms a cytoplasmic complex with HSP90 and H1 linker histones and stimulates HSP90 ATPase activity. NASP and H1 histone are subsequently released from the complex and translocate to the nucleus where the histone is released for binding to DNA.

RNA cytidine acetyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of N(4)-acetylcytidine (ac4C) modification on mRNAs, 18S rRNA and tRNAs. Catalyzes ac4C modification of a broad range of mRNAs, enhancing mRNA stability and translation. mRNA ac4C modification is frequently present within wobble cytidine sites and promotes translation efficiency. Mediates the formation of ac4C at position 1842 in 18S rRNA. May also catalyze the formation of ac4C at position 1337 in 18S rRNA (By similarity). Required for early nucleolar cleavages of precursor rRNA at sites A0, A1 and A2 during 18S rRNA synthesis. Catalyzes the formation of ac4C in serine and leucine tRNAs (By similarity). Requires the tRNA-binding adapter protein THUMPD1 for full tRNA acetyltransferase activity but not for 18S rRNA acetylation. In addition to RNA acetyltransferase activity, also able to acetylate lysine residues of proteins, such as histones, microtubules, p53/TP53 and MDM2, in vitro. The relevance of the protein lysine acetyltransferase activity is however unsure in vivo. Activates telomerase activity by stimulating the transcription of TERT, and may also regulate telomerase function by affecting the balance of telomerase subunit assembly, disassembly, and localization. Involved in the regulation of centrosome duplication by acetylating CENATAC during mitosis, promoting SASS6 proteasome degradation.

Probable N-acetyltransferase. Shows only trace activity toward L-His and no N-acetyltransferase activity toward other amino acids. The physiological substrate of this enzyme is unknown.

Catalyzes the synthesis of N-acetylaspartate acid (NAA) from L-aspartate and acetyl-CoA. Promotes dopamine uptake by regulating TNF-alpha expression (By similarity). Attenuates methamphetamine-induced inhibition of dopamine uptake.

Acetylates the free alpha-amino group of cysteine S- conjugates to form mercapturic acids. This is the final step in a major route for detoxification of a wide variety of reactive electrophiles which starts with their incorporation into glutathione S-conjugates. The glutathione S-conjugates are then further processed into cysteine S-conjugates and finally mercapturic acids which are water soluble and can be readily excreted in urine or bile. Alternatively, may have a lysine N-acetyltransferase activity catalyzing peptidyl-lysine N6-acetylation of various proteins. Thereby, may regulate apoptosis through the acetylation and the regulation of the expression of PROM1. May also regulate amyloid beta-peptide secretion through acetylation of BACE1 and the regulation of its expression in neurons.

N-acetyltransferase that mediates the acetylation of the N- terminal residues of alpha- and beta-tubulin.

Possesses 3' to 5' helicase activity and exonuclease activity. Involved in neuronal development, specifically in the development of different sensory organs.

Plays a role in cell migration. May be involved in neuron regeneration. May regulate IL2 production by T- cells.

NADH-cytochrome b5 reductases are involved in desaturation and elongation of fatty acids, cholesterol biosynthesis, drug metabolism, and, in erythrocyte, methemoglobin reduction.

NADH-cytochrome b5 reductases are involved in desaturation and elongation of fatty acids, cholesterol biosynthesis, drug metabolism, and, in erythrocyte, methemoglobin reduction (By similarity). Responsible for NADH-dependent lucigenin chemiluminescence in spermatozoa by reducing both lucigenin and 2-[4-iodophenyl]-3-[4- nitrophenyl]-5-[2,4-disulfophenyl]-2H tetrazolium monosodium salt (WST- 1).

Catalyzes the reduction of two molecules of cytochrome b5 using NADH as the electron donor.

NADH-cytochrome b5 reductase involved in endoplasmic reticulum stress response pathway. Plays a critical role in protecting pancreatic beta-cells against oxidant stress, possibly by protecting the cell from excess buildup of reactive oxygen species (ROS). Reduces a variety of substrates in vitro, such as cytochrome c, feericyanide and methemoglobin

Involved in Golgi-to-endoplasmic reticulum (ER) retrograde transport; the function is proposed to depend on its association in the NRZ complex which is believed to play a role in SNARE assembly at the ER. Required for normal embryonic development (By similarity). May play a role in the nonsense-mediated decay pathway of mRNAs containing premature stop codons (By similarity).

Promotes dispersal of P-body components and is likely to play a role in the mRNA decapping process.

Probably involved in thrombopoiesis. Plays a role in the development or secretion of alpha-granules, that contain several growth factors important for platelet biogenesis.

Possible candidate as a tumor suppressor gene of neuroblastoma. May play an important role in preventing cells from entering the final stage (G1/S) of the transformation process

Component of the MRE11-RAD50-NBN (MRN complex) which plays a critical role in the cellular response to DNA damage and the maintenance of chromosome integrity. The complex is involved in double- strand break (DSB) repair, DNA recombination, maintenance of telomere integrity, cell cycle checkpoint control and meiosis. The complex possesses single-strand endonuclease activity and double-strand- specific 3'-5' exonuclease activity, which are provided by MRE11. RAD50 may be required to bind DNA ends and hold them in close proximity. NBN modulate the DNA damage signal sensing by recruiting PI3/PI4-kinase family members ATM, ATR, and probably DNA-PKcs to the DNA damage sites and activating their functions. It can also recruit MRE11 and RAD50 to the proximity of DSBs by an interaction with the histone H2AX. NBN also functions in telomere length maintenance by generating the 3' overhang which serves as a primer for telomerase dependent telomere elongation. NBN is a major player in the control of intra-S-phase checkpoint and there is some evidence that NBN is involved in G1 and G2 checkpoints. The roles of NBS1/MRN encompass DNA damage sensor, signal transducer, and effector, which enable cells to maintain DNA integrity and genomic stability. Forms a complex with RBBP8 to link DNA double-strand break sensing to resection. Enhances AKT1 phosphorylation possibly by association with the mTORC2 complex.

Ubiquitin-binding autophagy adapter that participates in different processes including host defense or intracellular homeostasis. Possesses a double function during the selective autophagy by acting as a shuttle bringing ubiquitinated proteins to autophagosomes and also by participating in the formation of protein aggregates. Plays a role in the regulation of the innate immune response by modulating type I interferon production and targeting ubiquitinated IRF3 for autophagic degradation. In response to oxidative stress, promotes an increase in SQSTM1 levels, phosphorylation, and body formation by preventing its autophagic degradation (By similarity). In turn, activates the KEAP1-NRF2/NFE2L2 antioxidant pathway (By similarity). Plays also non-autophagy role by mediating the shuttle of IL-12 to late endosome for subsequent secretion (By similarity).

The association of the DR1/DRAP1 heterodimer with TBP results in a functional repression of both activated and basal transcription of class II genes. This interaction precludes the formation of a transcription-competent complex by inhibiting the association of TFIIA and/or TFIIB with TBP. Can bind to DNA on its own.

The association of the DR1/DRAP1 heterodimer with TBP results in a functional repression of both activated and basal transcription of class II genes. This interaction precludes the formation of a transcription-competent complex by inhibiting the association of TFIIA and/or TFIIB with TBP. Can bind to DNA on its own. Component of the ATAC complex, a complex with histone acetyltransferase activity on histones H3 and H4.

May be involved in the calcium-dependent regulation of rhodopsin phosphorylation. Binds three calcium ions

This protein is a cell adhesion molecule involved in neuron- neuron adhesion, neurite fasciculation, outgrowth of neurites, etc

May play important roles in selective fasciculation and zone- to-zone projection of the primary olfactory axons

May modulate neuronal adhesion and neurite growth during development by binding to neural cell adhesion molecules (NG-CAM and N- CAM). Chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan; binds to hyaluronic acid

Component of the cap-binding complex (CBC), which binds cotranscriptionally to the 5'-cap of pre-mRNAs and is involved in various processes such as pre-mRNA splicing, translation regulation, nonsense-mediated mRNA decay, RNA-mediated gene silencing (RNAi) by microRNAs (miRNAs) and mRNA export. The CBC complex is involved in mRNA export from the nucleus via its interaction with ALYREF/THOC4/ALY, leading to the recruitment of the mRNA export machinery to the 5'-end of mRNA and to mRNA export in a 5' to 3' direction through the nuclear pore. The CBC complex is also involved in mediating U snRNA and intronless mRNAs export from the nucleus. The CBC complex is essential for a pioneer round of mRNA translation, before steady state translation when the CBC complex is replaced by cytoplasmic cap-binding protein eIF4E. The pioneer round of mRNA translation mediated by the CBC complex plays a central role in nonsense-mediated mRNA decay (NMD), NMD only taking place in mRNAs bound to the CBC complex, but not on eIF4E-bound mRNAs. The CBC complex enhances NMD in mRNAs containing at least one exon-junction complex (EJC) via its interaction with UPF1, promoting the interaction between UPF1 and UPF2. The CBC complex is also involved in 'failsafe' NMD, which is independent of the EJC complex, while it does not participate in Staufen-mediated mRNA decay (SMD). During cell proliferation, the CBC complex is also involved in microRNAs (miRNAs) biogenesis via its interaction with SRRT/ARS2 and is required for miRNA-mediated RNA interference. The CBC complex also acts as a negative regulator of PARN, thereby acting as an inhibitor of mRNA deadenylation. In the CBC complex, NCBP1/CBP80 does not bind directly capped RNAs (m7GpppG-capped RNA) but is required to stabilize the movement of the N-terminal loop of NCBP2/CBP20 and lock the CBC into a high affinity cap-binding state with the cap structure. Associates with NCBP3 to form an alternative cap-binding complex (CBC) which plays a key role in mRNA export and is particularly important in cellular stress situations such as virus infections. The conventional CBC with NCBP2 binds both small nuclear RNA (snRNA) and messenger (mRNA) and is involved in their export from the nucleus whereas the alternative CBC with NCBP3 does not bind snRNA and associates only with mRNA thereby playing a role only in mRNA export. NCBP1/CBP80 is required for cell growth and viability.

Component of the cap-binding complex (CBC), which binds co- transcriptionally to the 5' cap of pre-mRNAs and is involved in various processes such as pre-mRNA splicing, translation regulation, nonsense- mediated mRNA decay, RNA-mediated gene silencing (RNAi) by microRNAs (miRNAs) and mRNA export. The CBC complex is involved in mRNA export from the nucleus via its interaction with ALYREF/THOC4/ALY, leading to the recruitment of the mRNA export machinery to the 5' end of mRNA and to mRNA export in a 5' to 3' direction through the nuclear pore. The CBC complex is also involved in mediating U snRNA and intronless mRNAs export from the nucleus. The CBC complex is essential for a pioneer round of mRNA translation, before steady state translation when the CBC complex is replaced by cytoplasmic cap-binding protein eIF4E. The pioneer round of mRNA translation mediated by the CBC complex plays a central role in nonsense-mediated mRNA decay (NMD), NMD only taking place in mRNAs bound to the CBC complex, but not on eIF4E-bound mRNAs. The CBC complex enhances NMD in mRNAs containing at least one exon- junction complex (EJC) via its interaction with UPF1, promoting the interaction between UPF1 and UPF2. The CBC complex is also involved in 'failsafe' NMD, which is independent of the EJC complex, while it does not participate in Staufen-mediated mRNA decay (SMD). During cell proliferation, the CBC complex is also involved in microRNAs (miRNAs) biogenesis via its interaction with SRRT/ARS2, thereby being required for miRNA-mediated RNA interference. The CBC complex also acts as a negative regulator of PARN, thereby acting as an inhibitor of mRNA deadenylation. In the CBC complex, NCBP2/CBP20 recognizes and binds capped RNAs (m7GpppG-capped RNA) but requires NCBP1/CBP80 to stabilize the movement of its N-terminal loop and lock the CBC into a high affinity cap-binding state with the cap structure. The conventional cap-binding complex with NCBP2 binds both small nuclear RNA (snRNA) and messenger (mRNA) and is involved in their export from the nucleus.

Associates with NCBP1/CBP80 to form an alternative cap- binding complex (CBC) which plays a key role in mRNA export. NCBP3 serves as adapter protein linking the capped RNAs (m7GpppG-capped RNA) to NCBP1/CBP80. Unlike the conventional CBC with NCBP2 which binds both small nuclear RNA (snRNA) and messenger (mRNA) and is involved in their export from the nucleus, the alternative CBC with NCBP3 does not bind snRNA and associates only with mRNA thereby playing a role in only mRNA export. The alternative CBC is particularly important in cellular stress situations such as virus infections and the NCBP3 activity is critical to inhibit virus growth.

Probably involved in signal transduction in the nervous system, via increasing cell surface localization of GRM5/mGluR5 and positively regulating its signaling. Required for the spatial learning process. Acts as a negative regulator of Ca(2+)- calmodulin-dependent protein kinase 2 (CaMK2) phosphorylation. May play a role in modulating melanin-concentrating hormone-mediated functions via its interaction with MCHR1 that interferes with G protein-coupled signal transduction. May be involved in bone metabolism. May also be involved in neurite outgrowth (Probable).

Hydrolyzes 2-acetyl monoalkylglycerol ether (1-O-alkyl-2- acetyl-sn-glycerol), the penultimate precursor of the pathway for de novo synthesis of platelet-activating factor. May be responsible for the hydrolysis of cholesterol esters (such as cholesteryl (9Z-octadecenoate)) in macrophages (By similarity). Also involved in organ detoxification by hydrolyzing exogenous organophosphorus compounds (By similarity). May contribute to cancer pathogenesis by promoting tumor cell migration.

NCF2, NCF1, and a membrane bound cytochrome b558 are required for activation of the latent NADPH oxidase (necessary for superoxide production).

Component of the NADPH-oxidase, a multicomponent enzyme system responsible for the oxidative burst in which electrons are transported from NADPH to molecular oxygen, generating reactive oxidant intermediates. It may be important for the assembly and/or activation of the NADPH-oxidase complex.

Extracellular matrix and cell adhesion protein that plays a role in nervous system development and in synaptic plasticity. Both soluble and membranous forms promote neurite outgrowth of cerebellar and hippocampal neurons and suppress neuronal cell death. Plays a role in neuronal positioning of pyramidal neurons and in regulation of both the number of interneurons and the efficacy of GABAergic synapses. May play a role in regulating cell migration in nerve regeneration and cortical development. Potentiates integrin-dependent cell migration towards extracellular matrix proteins. Recruits ANK3 to the plasma membrane (By similarity).

Adapter protein which associates with tyrosine-phosphorylated growth factor receptors, such as KDR and PDGFRB, or their cellular substrates. Maintains low levels of EIF2S1 phosphorylation by promoting its dephosphorylation by PP1. Plays a role in the DNA damage response, not in the detection of the damage by ATM/ATR, but for efficient activation of downstream effectors, such as that of CHEK2. Plays a role in ELK1-dependent transcriptional activation in response to activated Ras signaling. Modulates the activation of EIF2AK2/PKR by dsRNA. May play a role in cell adhesion and migration through interaction with ephrin receptors.

Adapter protein which associates with tyrosine-phosphorylated growth factor receptors or their cellular substrates. Maintains low levels of EIF2S1 phosphorylation by promoting its dephosphorylation by PP1. Plays a role in ELK1-dependent transcriptional activation in response to activated Ras signaling.

Regulates microtubule organization and stabilization. Promotes microtubule growth and bundling formation and stabilizes microtubules by increasing intense acetylation of microtubules. Both tubulin-binding and homodimer formation are required for NCKAP5L-mediated microtubule bundle formation.

Part of the WAVE complex that regulates lamellipodia formation. The WAVE complex regulates actin filament reorganization via its interaction with the Arp2/3 complex. Actin remodeling activity is regulated by RAC1. As component of the WAVE1 complex, required for BDNF-NTRK2 endocytic trafficking and signaling from early endosomes.

Essential hematopoietic-specific regulator of the actin cytoskeleton (Probable). Controls lymphocyte development, activation, proliferation and homeostasis, erythrocyte membrane stability, as well as phagocytosis and migration by neutrophils and macrophages. Component of the WAVE2 complex which signals downstream of RAC to stimulate F-actin polymerization. Required for stabilization and/or translation of the WAVE2 complex proteins in hematopoietic cells (By similarity). Within the WAVE2 complex, enables the cortical actin network to restrain excessive degranulation and granule release by T-cells. Required for efficient T-lymphocyte and neutrophil migration. Exhibits complex cycles of activation and inhibition to generate waves of propagating the assembly with actin. Also involved in mechanisms WAVE-independent to regulate myosin and actin polymerization during neutrophil chemotaxis. In T-cells, required for proper mechanistic target of rapamycin complex 2 (mTORC2)-dependent AKT phosphorylation, cell proliferation and cytokine secretion, including that of IL2 and TNF.

Calcium, potassium:sodium antiporter that transports 1 Ca(2+) and 1 K(+) in exchange for 4 Na(+). Critical component of the visual transduction cascade, controlling the calcium concentration of outer segments during light and darkness. Light causes a rapid lowering of cytosolic free calcium in the outer segment of both retinal rod and cone photoreceptors and the light-induced lowering of calcium is caused by extrusion via this protein which plays a key role in the process of light adaptation.

Calcium, potassium:sodium antiporter that transports 1 Ca(2+) and 1 K(+) in exchange for 4 Na(+). Required for learming and memory by regulating neuronal Ca(2+), which is essential for the development of synaptic plasticity (By similarity).

Calcium, potassium:sodium antiporter that transports 1 Ca(2+) and 1 K(+) in exchange for 4 Na(+).

Calcium, potassium:sodium antiporter that transports 1 Ca(2+) and 1 K(+) in exchange for 4 Na(+). Controls the rapid response termination and proper regulation of adaptation in olfactory sensory neurons (OSNs) which subsequently influences how odor information is encoded and perceived (By similarity). May play a role in calcium transport during amelogenesis.

Calcium, potassium:sodium antiporter that transports 1 Ca(2+) and 1 K(+) to the melanosome in exchange for 4 cytoplasmic Na(+). Involved in pigmentation, possibly by participating in ion transport in melanosomes. Predominant sodium-calcium exchanger in melanocytes.

Component of a ribosome-associated translocon complex involved in multi-pass membrane protein transport into the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane and biogenesis. May antagonize Nodal signaling and subsequent organization of axial structures during mesodermal patterning, via its interaction with NOMO (By similarity).

Mitochondrial sodium/calcium antiporter that mediates sodium- dependent calcium efflux from mitochondrion, by mediating the exchange of 3 sodium ions per 1 calcium ion. Plays a central role in mitochondrial calcium homeostasis by mediating mitochondrial calcium extrusion: calcium efflux is essential for mitochondrial function and cell survival, notably in cardiomyocytes (By similarity). Regulates rates of glucose-dependent insulin secretion in pancreatic beta-cells during the first phase of insulin secretion: acts by mediating efflux of calcium from mitochondrion, thereby affecting cytoplasmic calcium responses. Required for store- operated Ca(2+) entry (SOCE) and Ca(2+) release-activated Ca(2+) (CRAC) channel regulation: sodium transport by SLC8B1 leads to promote calcium-shuttling that modulates mitochondrial redox status, thereby regulating SOCE activity. Involved in B-lymphocyte chemotaxis (By similarity). Able to transport Ca(2+) in exchange of either Li(+) or Na(+), explaining how Li(+) catalyzes Ca(2+) exchange. In contrast to other members of the family its function is independent of K(+).

Nuclear receptor coactivator that directly binds nuclear receptors and stimulates the transcriptional activities in a hormone- dependent fashion. Involved in the coactivation of different nuclear receptors, such as for steroids (PGR, GR and ER), retinoids (RXRs), thyroid hormone (TRs) and prostanoids (PPARs). Also involved in coactivation mediated by STAT3, STAT5A, STAT5B and STAT6 transcription factors. Displays histone acetyltransferase activity toward H3 and H4; the relevance of such activity remains however unclear. Plays a central role in creating multisubunit coactivator complexes that act via remodeling of chromatin, and possibly acts by participating in both chromatin remodeling and recruitment of general transcription factors. Required with NCOA2 to control energy balance between white and brown adipose tissues. Required for mediating steroid hormone response. Isoform 2 has a higher thyroid hormone-dependent transactivation activity than isoform 1 and isoform 3.

Transcriptional coactivator for steroid receptors and nuclear receptors. Coactivator of the steroid binding domain (AF-2) but not of the modulating N-terminal domain (AF-1). Required with NCOA1 to control energy balance between white and brown adipose tissues. Critical regulator of glucose metabolism regulation, acts as RORA coactivator to specifically modulate G6PC1 expression. Involved in the positive regulation of the transcriptional activity of the glucocorticoid receptor NR3C1 by sumoylation enhancer RWDD3. Positively regulates the circadian clock by acting as a transcriptional coactivator for the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer (By similarity).

Nuclear receptor coactivator that directly binds nuclear receptors and stimulates the transcriptional activities in a hormone- dependent fashion. Plays a central role in creating a multisubunit coactivator complex, which probably acts via remodeling of chromatin. Involved in the coactivation of different nuclear receptors, such as for steroids (GR and ER), retinoids (RARs and RXRs), thyroid hormone (TRs), vitamin D3 (VDR) and prostanoids (PPARs). Displays histone acetyltransferase activity. Also involved in the coactivation of the NF-kappa-B pathway via its interaction with the NFKB1 subunit

Enhances the androgen receptor transcriptional activity in prostate cancer cells. Ligand-independent coactivator of the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor (PPAR) gamma.

Nuclear receptor coregulator that can have both coactivator and corepressor functions. Interacts with nuclear receptors for steroids (ESR1 and ESR2) independently of the steroid binding domain (AF-2) of the ESR receptors, and with the orphan nuclear receptor NR1D2. Involved in the coactivation of nuclear steroid receptors (ER) as well as the corepression of MYC in response to 17-beta-estradiol (E2).

Nuclear receptor coactivator that directly binds nuclear receptors and stimulates the transcriptional activities in a hormone- dependent fashion. Coactivates expression in an agonist- and AF2- dependent manner. Involved in the coactivation of different nuclear receptors, such as for steroids (GR and ERs), retinoids (RARs and RXRs), thyroid hormone (TRs), vitamin D3 (VDR) and prostanoids (PPARs). Probably functions as a general coactivator, rather than just a nuclear receptor coactivator. May also be involved in the coactivation of the NF-kappa-B pathway. May coactivate expression via a remodeling of chromatin and its interaction with histone acetyltransferase proteins

Enhances the transcriptional activities of several nuclear receptors. Involved in the coactivation of different nuclear receptors, such as ESR1, THRB, PPARG and RARA.

Mediates transcriptional repression by certain nuclear receptors. Part of a complex which promotes histone deacetylation and the formation of repressive chromatin structures which may impede the access of basal transcription factors. Participates in the transcriptional repressor activity produced by BCL6. Recruited by ZBTB7A to the androgen response elements/ARE on target genes, negatively regulates androgen receptor signaling and androgen-induced cell proliferation. Mediates the NR1D1-dependent repression and circadian regulation of TSHB expression (By similarity). The NCOR1-HDAC3 complex regulates the circadian expression of the core clock gene ARTNL/BMAL1 and the genes involved in lipid metabolism in the liver (By similarity).

Transcriptional corepressor. Mediates the transcriptional repression activity of some nuclear receptors by promoting chromatin condensation, thus preventing access of the basal transcription. Isoform 1 and isoform 4 have different affinities for different nuclear receptors. Involved in the regulation BCL6-dependent of the germinal center (GC) reactions, mainly through the control of the GC B-cells proliferation and survival. Recruited by ZBTB7A to the androgen response elements/ARE on target genes, negatively regulates androgen receptor signaling and androgen-induced cell proliferation.

This enzyme is required for electron transfer from NADP to cytochrome P450 in microsomes. It can also provide electron transfer to heme oxygenase and cytochrome B5.

Neuronal calcium sensor, regulator of G protein-coupled receptor phosphorylation in a calcium dependent manner. Directly regulates GRK1 (RHOK), but not GRK2 to GRK5. Can substitute for calmodulin (By similarity). Stimulates PI4KB kinase activity (By similarity). Involved in long-term synaptic plasticity through its interaction with PICK1 (By similarity). May also play a role in neuron differentiation through inhibition of the activity of N-type voltage- gated calcium channel (By similarity).

Cytotoxicity-activating receptor that may contribute to the increased efficiency of activated natural killer (NK) cells to mediate tumor cell lysis.

Cell membrane receptor of natural killer/NK cells that is activated by binding of extracellular ligands including BAG6 and NCR3LG1. Stimulates NK cells cytotoxicity toward neighboring cells producing these ligands. It controls, for instance, NK cells cytotoxicity against tumor cells. Engagement of NCR3 by BAG6 also promotes myeloid dendritic cells (DC) maturation, both through killing DCs that did not acquire a mature phenotype, and inducing the release by NK cells of TNFA and IFNG which promote DC maturation.

Component of the nuclear pore complex (NPC), which plays a key role in de novo assembly and insertion of NPC in the nuclear envelope. Required for NPC and nuclear envelope assembly, possibly by forming a link between the nuclear envelope membrane and soluble nucleoporins, thereby anchoring the NPC in the membrane.

Acts as a component of the essential kinetochore-associated NDC80 complex, which is required for chromosome segregation and spindle checkpoint activity. Required for kinetochore integrity and the organization of stable microtubule binding sites in the outer plate of the kinetochore. The NDC80 complex synergistically enhances the affinity of the SKA1 complex for microtubules and may allow the NDC80 complex to track depolymerizing microtubules. Plays a role in chromosome congression and is essential for the end-on attachment of the kinetochores to spindle microtubules.

Required for centrosome duplication and formation and function of the mitotic spindle. Essential for the development of the cerebral cortex. May regulate the production of neurons by controlling the orientation of the mitotic spindle during division of cortical neuronal progenitors of the proliferative ventricular zone of the brain. Orientation of the division plane perpendicular to the layers of the cortex gives rise to two proliferative neuronal progenitors whereas parallel orientation of the division plane yields one proliferative neuronal progenitor and a post-mitotic neuron. A premature shift towards a neuronal fate within the progenitor population may result in an overall reduction in the final number of neurons and an increase in the number of neurons in the deeper layers of the cortex.

Required for organization of the cellular microtubule array and microtubule anchoring at the centrosome. May regulate microtubule organization at least in part by targeting the microtubule severing protein KATNA1 to the centrosome. Also positively regulates the activity of the minus-end directed microtubule motor protein dynein. May enhance dynein-mediated microtubule sliding by targeting dynein to the microtubule plus ends. Required for several dynein- and microtubule-dependent processes such as the maintenance of Golgi integrity, the centripetal motion of secretory vesicles and the coupling of the nucleus and centrosome. Also required during brain development for the migration of newly formed neurons from the ventricular/subventricular zone toward the cortical plate. Plays a role, together with DISC1, in the regulation of neurite outgrowth. Required for mitosis in some cell types but appears to be dispensible for mitosis in cortical neuronal progenitors, which instead requires NDE1. Facilitates the polymerization of neurofilaments from the individual subunits NEFH and NEFL. Positively regulates lysosome peripheral distribution and ruffled border formation in osteoclasts (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional activator: mediates transcriptional activation by binding to E box-containing promoter consensus core sequences 5'-CANNTG-3'. Associates with the p300/CBP transcription coactivator complex to stimulate transcription of the secretin gene as well as the gene encoding the cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor CDKN1A. Contributes to the regulation of several cell differentiation pathways, like those that promote the formation of early retinal ganglion cells, inner ear sensory neurons, granule cells forming either the cerebellum or the dentate gyrus cell layer of the hippocampus, endocrine islet cells of the pancreas and enteroendocrine cells of the small intestine. Together with PAX6 or SIX3, is required for the regulation of amacrine cell fate specification. Also required for dendrite morphogenesis and maintenance in the cerebellar cortex. Associates with chromatin to enhancer regulatory elements in genes encoding key transcriptional regulators of neurogenesis (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator implicated in neuronal determination. Mediates calcium-dependent transcription activation by binding to E box-containing promoter. Critical factor essential for the repression of the genetic program for neuronal differentiation; prevents the formation of synaptic vesicle clustering at active zone to the presynaptic membrane in postmitotic neurons. Induces transcription of ZEB1, which in turn represses neuronal differentiation by down- regulating REST expression. Plays a role in the establishment and maturation of thalamocortical connections; involved in the segregation of thalamic afferents into distinct barrel domains within layer VI of the somatosensory cortex. Involved in the development of the cerebellar and hippocampal granular neurons, neurons in the basolateral nucleus of amygdala and the hypothalamic-pituitary axis. Associates with chromatin to the DPYSL3 E box-containing promoter (By similarity).

Probably acts as a transcriptional activator. Mediates neuronal differentiation. Required for the regulation of amacrine cell fate specification in the retina (By similarity).

Activates E box-dependent transcription in collaboration with TCF3/E47. May be a trans-acting factor involved in the development and maintenance of the mammalian nervous system. Transactivates the promoter of its own gene (By similarity).

Major role in the synthesis of nucleoside triphosphates other than ATP. The ATP gamma phosphate is transferred to the NDP beta phosphate via a ping-pong mechanism, using a phosphorylated active-site intermediate. Probably has a role in normal hematopoiesis by inhibition of granulocyte differentiation and induction of apoptosis

Does not seem to have NDK kinase activity. Confers protection from cell death by Bax and alters the cellular levels of several antioxidant enzymes including Gpx5. May play a role in spermiogenesis by increasing the ability of late-stage spermatids to eliminate reactive oxygen species (By similarity).

Major role in the synthesis of nucleoside triphosphates other than ATP. The ATP gamma phosphate is transferred to the NDP beta phosphate via a ping-pong mechanism, using a phosphorylated active-site intermediate. Inhibitor of p53-induced apoptosis

Major role in the synthesis of nucleoside triphosphates other than ATP. The ATP gamma phosphate is transferred to the NDP beta phosphate via a ping-pong mechanism, using a phosphorylated active-site intermediate. Microtubule inner protein (MIP) part of the dynein- decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia axoneme, which is required for motile cilia beating (By similarity).

Major role in the synthesis of nucleoside triphosphates other than ATP. The ATP gamma phosphate is transferred to the NDP beta phosphate via a ping-pong mechanism, using a phosphorylated active-site intermediate. Possesses nucleoside-diphosphate kinase, serine/threonine-specific protein kinase, geranyl and farnesyl pyrophosphate kinase, histidine protein kinase and 3'-5' exonuclease activities. Involved in cell proliferation, differentiation and development, signal transduction, G protein-coupled receptor endocytosis, and gene expression. Required for neural development including neural patterning and cell fate determination. During GZMA- mediated cell death, works in concert with TREX1. NME1 nicks one strand of DNA and TREX1 removes bases from the free 3' end to enhance DNA damage and prevent DNA end reannealing and rapid repair.

Major role in the synthesis of nucleoside triphosphates other than ATP. The ATP gamma phosphate is transferred to the NDP beta phosphate via a ping-pong mechanism, using a phosphorylated active-site intermediate (By similarity). Negatively regulates Rho activity by interacting with AKAP13/LBC. Acts as a transcriptional activator of the MYC gene; binds DNA non-specifically. Binds to both single-stranded guanine- and cytosine-rich strands within the nuclease hypersensitive element (NHE) III(1) region of the MYC gene promoter. Does not bind to duplex NHE III(1). Has G-quadruplex (G4) DNA-binding activity, which is independent of its nucleotide-binding and kinase activity. Binds both folded and unfolded G4 with similar low nanomolar affinities. Stabilizes folded G4s regardless of whether they are prefolded or not. Exhibits histidine protein kinase activity.

Major role in the synthesis of nucleoside triphosphates other than ATP. The ATP gamma phosphate is transferred to the NDP beta phosphate via a ping-pong mechanism, using a phosphorylated active-site intermediate. Through the catalyzed exchange of gamma-phosphate between di- and triphosphonucleosides participates in regulation of intracellular nucleotide homeostasis. Binds to anionic phospholipids, predominantly to cardiolipin; the binding inhibits its phosphotransfer activity. Acts as mitochondria-specific NDK; its association with cardiolipin-containing mitochondrial inner membrane is coupled to respiration suggesting that ADP locally regenerated in the mitochondrion innermembrane space by its activity is directly taken up via ANT ADP/ATP translocase into the matrix space to stimulate respiratory ATP regeneration. Proposed to increase GTP-loading on dynamin-related GTPase OPA1 in mitochondria. In vitro can induce liposome cross-linking suggesting that it can cross-link inner and outer membranes to form contact sites, and promotes intermembrane migration of anionic phosphoplipids. Promotes the redistribution of cardiolipin between the mitochondrial inner membrane and outer membrane which is implicated in pro-apoptotic signaling.

Secretory protein that plays a role in various cellular processes. Acts as a chemorepellent acting on gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) expressing neurons regulating their migration to the hypothalamus. Also promotes neuron migration, growth and survival as well as neurite outgrowth and is involved in the development of the olfactory system. May also act through the regulation of growth factors activity and downstream signaling. Also regulates extracellular matrix assembly and cell adhesiveness (By similarity). Promotes endothelial cell survival, vessel formation and plays an important role in the process of revascularization through NOS3-dependent mechanisms.

NADPH-dependent reductase which is a central component of the cytosolic iron-sulfur (Fe-S) protein assembly (CIA) machinery. Transfers electrons from NADPH via its FAD and FMN prosthetic groups to the [2Fe-2S] cluster of CIAPIN1, another key component of the CIA machinery. In turn, this reduced cluster provides electrons for assembly of cytosolic iron-sulfur cluster proteins. It can also reduce the [2Fe-2S] cluster of CISD1 and activate this protein implicated in Fe/S cluster repair. In vitro can fully activate methionine synthase/MTR in the presence of soluble cytochrome b5/CYB5A.

Activates the canonical Wnt signaling pathway through FZD4 and LRP5 coreceptor. Plays a central role in retinal vascularization by acting as a ligand for FZD4 that signals via stabilizing beta-catenin (CTNNB1) and activating LEF/TCF-mediated transcriptional programs. Acts in concert with TSPAN12 to activate FZD4 independently of the Wnt- dependent activation of FZD4, suggesting the existence of a Wnt- independent signaling that also promote accumulation the beta-catenin (CTNNB1). May be involved in a pathway that regulates neural cell differentiation and proliferation. Possible role in neuroectodermal cell-cell interaction

Stress-responsive protein involved in hormone responses, cell growth, and differentiation. Acts as a tumor suppressor in many cell types. Necessary but not sufficient for p53/TP53-mediated caspase activation and apoptosis. Has a role in cell trafficking, notably of the Schwann cell, and is necessary for the maintenance and development of the peripheral nerve myelin sheath. Required for vesicular recycling of CDH1 and TF. May also function in lipid trafficking. Protects cells from spindle disruption damage. Functions in p53/TP53-dependent mitotic spindle checkpoint. Regulates microtubule dynamics and maintains euploidy.

Contributes to the regulation of the Wnt signaling pathway. Down-regulates CTNNB1-mediated transcriptional activation of target genes, such as CCND1, and may thereby act as tumor suppressor. May be involved in dendritic cell and neuron differentiation.

Contributes to the maintenance of intracerebral BDNF levels within the normal range, which is necessary for the preservation of spatial learning and the resistance to neuronal cell death caused by ischemic stress (By similarity). May enhance growth factor-induced ERK1 and ERK2 phosphorylation, including that induced by PDGF and FGF. May attenuate NGF-promoted ELK1 phosphorylation in a microtubule-dependent manner.

[Isoform 1]: Essential bifunctional enzyme that catalyzes both the N-deacetylation and the N-sulfation of glucosamine (GlcNAc) of the glycosaminoglycan in heparan sulfate. Modifies the GlcNAc-GlcA disaccharide repeating sugar backbone to make N-sulfated heparosan, a prerequisite substrate for later modifications in heparin biosynthesis. Plays a role in determining the extent and pattern of sulfation of heparan sulfate. Participates in biosynthesis of heparan sulfate that can ultimately serve as L-selectin ligands, thereby playing a role in inflammatory response (By similarity). Required for the exosomal release of SDCBP, CD63 and syndecan.

Essential bifunctional enzyme that catalyzes both the N- deacetylation and the N-sulfation of glucosamine (GlcNAc) of the glycosaminoglycan in heparan sulfate. Modifies the GlcNAc-GlcA disaccharide repeating sugar backbone to make N-sulfated heparosan, a prerequisite substrate for later modifications in heparin biosynthesis. Plays a role in determining the extent and pattern of sulfation of heparan sulfate. Required for the exosomal release of SDCBP, CD63 and syndecan.

Essential bifunctional enzyme that catalyzes both the N- deacetylation and the N-sulfation of glucosamine (GlcNAc) of the glycosaminoglycan in heparan sulfate. Modifies the GlcNAc-GlcA disaccharide repeating sugar backbone to make N-sulfated heparosan, a prerequisite substrate for later modifications in heparin biosynthesis. Has high deacetylase activity but low sulfotransferase activity.

Essential bifunctional enzyme that catalyzes both the N- deacetylation and the N-sulfation of glucosamine (GlcNAc) of the glycosaminoglycan in heparan sulfate. Modifies the GlcNAc-GlcA disaccharide repeating sugar backbone to make N-sulfated heparosan, a prerequisite substrate for later modifications in heparin biosynthesis. Has low deacetylase activity but high sulfotransferase activity (By similarity).

Accessory subunit of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I), that is believed not to be involved in catalysis. Complex I functions in the transfer of electrons from NADH to the respiratory chain. The immediate electron acceptor for the enzyme is believed to be ubiquinone.

Component of the cytochrome c oxidase, the last enzyme in the mitochondrial electron transport chain which drives oxidative phosphorylation. The respiratory chain contains 3 multisubunit complexes succinate dehydrogenase (complex II, CII), ubiquinol- cytochrome c oxidoreductase (cytochrome b-c1 complex, complex III, CIII) and cytochrome c oxidase (complex IV, CIV), that cooperate to transfer electrons derived from NADH and succinate to molecular oxygen, creating an electrochemical gradient over the inner membrane that drives transmembrane transport and the ATP synthase. Cytochrome c oxidase is the component of the respiratory chain that catalyzes the reduction of oxygen to water. Electrons originating from reduced cytochrome c in the intermembrane space (IMS) are transferred via the dinuclear copper A center (CU(A)) of subunit 2 and heme A of subunit 1 to the active site in subunit 1, a binuclear center (BNC) formed by heme A3 and copper B (CU(B)). The BNC reduces molecular oxygen to 2 water molecules unsing 4 electrons from cytochrome c in the IMS and 4 protons from the mitochondrial matrix. NDUFA4 is required for complex IV maintenance.

Accessory subunit of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I), that is believed to be not involved in catalysis. Required for proper complex I assembly. Complex I functions in the transfer of electrons from NADH to the respiratory chain. The immediate electron acceptor for the enzyme is believed to be ubiquinone.

Accessory subunit of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I), that is believed not to be involved in catalysis. Required for proper complex I assembly. Complex I functions in the transfer of electrons from NADH to the respiratory chain. The immediate electron acceptor for the enzyme is believed to be ubiquinone.

Accessory subunit of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I), that is believed not to be involved in catalysis. Complex I functions in the transfer of electrons from NADH to the respiratory chain. The immediate electron acceptor for the enzyme is believed to be ubiquinone. Involved in the interferon/all-trans-retinoic acid (IFN/RA) induced cell death. This apoptotic activity is inhibited by interaction with viral IRF1. Prevents the transactivation of STAT3 target genes. May play a role in CARD15-mediated innate mucosal responses and serve to regulate intestinal epithelial cell responses to microbes.

Accessory subunit of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I) that is believed not to be involved in catalysis. Complex I functions in the transfer of electrons from NADH to the respiratory chain. The immediate electron acceptor for the enzyme is believed to be ubiquinone.

Accessory subunit of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I), that is believed to be not involved in catalysis. Complex I functions in the transfer of electrons from NADH to the respiratory chain. The immediate electron acceptor for the enzyme is believed to be ubiquinone.

Accessory subunit that is involved in the functional assembly of the mitochondrial respiratory chain complex I. Complex I has an NADH dehydrogenase activity with ubiquinone as an immediate electron acceptor and mediates the transfer of electrons from NADH to the respiratory chain.

Accessory subunit of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I), that is believed not to be involved in catalysis but required for the complex assembly. Complex I functions in the transfer of electrons from NADH to the respiratory chain. The immediate electron acceptor for the enzyme is believed to be ubiquinone.

Acts as a molecular chaperone for mitochondrial complex I assembly. Complex I functions in the transfer of electrons from NADH to the respiratory chain. The immediate electron acceptor for the enzyme is believed to be ubiquinone.

Essential factor for the assembly of mitochondrial NADH:ubiquinone oxidoreductase complex (complex I).

Involved in the assembly of mitochondrial NADH:ubiquinone oxidoreductase complex (complex I). May be involved in cell proliferation and survival of hormone-dependent tumor cells. May be a regulator of breast tumor cell invasion.

Arginine hydroxylase involved in the assembly of mitochondrial NADH:ubiquinone oxidoreductase complex (complex I, MT- ND1) at early stages. Acts by mediating hydroxylation of 'Arg-111' of NDUFS7. May also have methyltransferase activity (Probable).

Involved in the assembly of mitochondrial NADH:ubiquinone oxidoreductase complex (complex I) at early stages. May play a role in the biogenesis of complex I subunit MT-ND1.

Arginine methyltransferase involved in the assembly or stability of mitochondrial NADH:ubiquinone oxidoreductase complex (complex I). Acts by mediating symmetric dimethylation of 'Arg-118' of NDUFS2 after it assembles into the complex I, stabilizing the early intermediate complex.

Involved in the assembly of mitochondrial NADH:ubiquinone oxidoreductase complex (complex I, MT-ND1). Required to stabilize NDUFAF5.

Core subunit of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I) which catalyzes electron transfer from NADH through the respiratory chain, using ubiquinone as an electron acceptor. Essential for catalysing the entry and efficient transfer of electrons within complex I. Plays a key role in the assembly and stability of complex I and participates in the association of complex I with ubiquinol-cytochrome reductase complex (Complex III) to form supercomplexes.

Core subunit of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I) which catalyzes electron transfer from NADH through the respiratory chain, using ubiquinone as an electron acceptor. Essential for the catalytic activity of complex I. Essential for the assembly of complex I (By similarity). Redox- sensitive, critical component of the oxygen-sensing pathway in the pulmonary vasculature which plays a key role in acute pulmonary oxygen- sensing and hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. Plays an important role in carotid body sensing of hypoxia (By similarity). Essential for glia-like neural stem and progenitor cell proliferation, differentiation and subsequent oligodendrocyte or neuronal maturation (By similarity).

Core subunit of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I) which catalyzes electron transfer from NADH through the respiratory chain, using ubiquinone as an electron acceptor. Essential for the catalytic activity and assembly of complex I.

Core subunit of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I) which catalyzes electron transfer from NADH through the respiratory chain, using ubiquinone as an electron acceptor. Essential for the catalytic activity of complex I.

Core subunit of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I) which catalyzes electron transfer from NADH through the respiratory chain, using ubiquinone as an electron acceptor.

Accessory subunit of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I), that is believed not to be involved in catalysis. Complex I functions in the transfer of electrons from NADH to the respiratory chain. The immediate electron acceptor for the enzyme is believed to be ubiquinone. May be the terminally assembled subunit of Complex I.

Binds to actin filaments (F-actin) and shows cross-linking activity. Binds along the sides of the F-actin. May be involved in neurite formation. Inhibits protein phosphatase 1-alpha activity (By similarity).

Seems to act as a scaffold protein in multiple signaling pathways. Modulates excitatory synaptic transmission and dendritic spine morphology. Binds to actin filaments (F-actin) and shows cross- linking activity. Binds along the sides of the F-actin. May play an important role in linking the actin cytoskeleton to the plasma membrane at the synaptic junction. Believed to target protein phosphatase 1/PP1 to dendritic spines, which are rich in F-actin, and regulates its specificity toward ion channels and other substrates, such as AMPA-type and NMDA-type glutamate receptors. Plays a role in regulation of G- protein coupled receptor signaling, including dopamine D2 receptors and alpha-adrenergic receptors. May establish a signaling complex for dopaminergic neurotransmission through D2 receptors by linking receptors downstream signaling molecules and the actin cytoskeleton. Binds to ADRA1B and RGS2 and mediates regulation of ADRA1B signaling. May confer to Rac signaling specificity by binding to both, RacGEFs and Rac effector proteins. Probably regulates p70 S6 kinase activity by forming a complex with TIAM1 (By similarity). Required for hepatocyte growth factor (HGF)-induced cell migration.

Binds to actin and plays an important role in the assembly of the Z-disk. May functionally link sarcomeric actin to the desmin intermediate filaments in the heart muscle sarcomeres. Isoform 2 might play a role in the assembly of focal adhesion.

This giant muscle protein may be involved in maintaining the structural integrity of sarcomeres and the membrane system associated with the myofibrils. Binds and stabilize F-actin

Involved in the processing of hormone and other protein precursors at sites comprised of pairs of basic amino acid residues. Substrates include POMC, renin, enkephalin, dynorphin, somatostatin, insulin and AGRP.

Involved in the processing of hormone and other protein precursors at sites comprised of pairs of basic amino acid residues. Responsible for the release of glucagon from proglucagon in pancreatic A cells.

May act as a signaling scaffold protein that senses intracellular calcium. Can modulate ligand-induced internalization of ADORA2A and coupling efficiency of mGluR5/GRM5; for both receptors may regulate signaling activity such as promoting MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2) activation.

Inhibits the interaction of APBA2 with amyloid-beta precursor protein (APP), and hence allows formation of amyloid-beta. May enhance the activity of HIF1A and thus promote glycolysis under normoxic conditions; the function requires its ABM domain and may implicate the stabilization of the interaction between HIF1AN and APBA3.

Growth suppressor that facilitates the entry of the cell into cell cycle arrest. Functionally similar to the retinoblastoma protein it binds to and represses the activity of cell-cycle-promoting proteins such as SV40 large T antigen, adenovirus E1A, and the transcription factor E2F. Necdin also interacts with p53 and works in an additive manner to inhibit cell growth. Also functions as a transcription factor and directly binds to specific guanosine-rich DNA sequences (By similarity).

Promotes cell-cell contacts by forming homophilic or heterophilic trans-dimers. Heterophilic interactions have been detected between NECTIN1 and NECTIN3 and between NECTIN1 and NECTIN4. Has some neurite outgrowth-promoting activity.

Modulator of T-cell signaling. Can be either a costimulator of T-cell function, or a coinhibitor, depending on the receptor it binds to. Upon binding to CD226, stimulates T-cell proliferation and cytokine production, including that of IL2, IL5, IL10, IL13, and IFNG. Upon interaction with PVRIG, inhibits T-cell proliferation. These interactions are competitive. Probable cell adhesion protein.

Plays a role in cell-cell adhesion through heterophilic trans-interactions with nectin-like proteins or nectins, such as trans- interaction with NECTIN2 at Sertoli-spermatid junctions. Trans- interaction with PVR induces activation of CDC42 and RAC small G proteins through common signaling molecules such as SRC and RAP1. Also involved in the formation of cell-cell junctions, including adherens junctions and synapses. Induces endocytosis-mediated down-regulation of PVR from the cell surface, resulting in reduction of cell movement and proliferation. Plays a role in the morphology of the ciliary body.

Seems to be involved in cell adhesion through trans- homophilic and -heterophilic interactions, the latter including specifically interactions with NECTIN1. Does not act as receptor for alpha-herpesvirus entry into cells

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates the polyubiquitination of lysine and cysteine residues on target proteins and is thereby implicated in the regulation of various signaling pathways including autophagy, innate immunity or DNA repair. Inhibits TGF-beta signaling by triggering SMAD2 and TGFBR1 ubiquitination and proteasome- dependent degradation. Downregulates autophagy and cell growth by ubiquitinating and reducing cellular ULK1 or ASCT2 levels. Promotes ubiquitination and internalization of various plasma membrane channels such as ENaC, SCN2A/Nav1.2, SCN3A/Nav1.3, SCN5A/Nav1.5, SCN9A/Nav1.7, SCN10A/Nav1.8, KCNA3/Kv1.3, KCNH2, EAAT1, KCNQ2/Kv7.2, KCNQ3/Kv7.3 or CLC5. Promotes ubiquitination and degradation of SGK1 and TNK2. Ubiquitinates BRAT1 and this ubiquitination is enhanced in the presence of NDFIP1. Plays a role in dendrite formation by melanocytes. Involved in the regulation of TOR signaling. Ubiquitinates and regulates protein levels of NTRK1 once this one is activated by NGF. Plays a role in antiviral innate immunity by catalyzing 'Lys-29'-linked cysteine ubiquitination of TRAF3, resulting in enhanced 'Lys-48' and 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of TRAF3.

Required for mitosis progression. Promotes the nucleation of microtubules from the spindle.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Specifically ubiquitinates 'Lys-63' in target proteins. Involved in the pathway leading to the degradation of VEGFR-2/KDFR, independently of its ubiquitin-ligase activity. Monoubiquitinates IGF1R at multiple sites, thus leading to receptor internalization and degradation in lysosomes (By similarity). Ubiquitinates FGFR1, leading to receptor internalization and degradation in lysosomes. Promotes ubiquitination of RAPGEF2. According to PubMed:18562292 the direct link between NEDD4 and PTEN regulation through polyubiquitination described in PubMed:17218260 is questionable. Involved in ubiquitination of ERBB4 intracellular domain E4ICD (By similarity). Part of a signaling complex composed of NEDD4, RAP2A and TNIK which regulates neuronal dendrite extension and arborization during development (By similarity). Ubiquitinates TNK2 and regulates EGF-induced degradation of EGFR and TNF2. Ubiquitinates BRAT1 and this ubiquitination is enhanced in the presence of NDFIP1. Ubiquitinates DAZAP2, leading to its proteasomal degradation. Ubiquitinates POLR2A.

Ubiquitin-like protein which plays an important role in cell cycle control and embryogenesis via its conjugation to a limited number of cellular proteins, such as cullins or p53/TP53. Attachment of NEDD8 to cullins is critical for the recruitment of E2 to the cullin-RING-based E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex, thus facilitating polyubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of cyclins and other regulatory proteins. Attachment of NEDD8 to p53/TP53 inhibits p53/TP53 transcriptional activity. Covalent attachment to its substrates requires prior activation by the E1 complex UBE1C-APPBP1 and linkage to the E2 enzyme UBE2M.

May be involved in cell-adhesion. May function as a trans- neural growth-promoting factor in regenerative axon sprouting in the mammalian brain (By similarity).

Involved in base excision repair of DNA damaged by oxidation or by mutagenic agents. Acts as DNA glycosylase that recognizes and removes damaged bases. Has a preference for oxidized pyrimidines, such as thymine glycol, formamidopyrimidine (Fapy) and 5-hydroxyuracil. Has marginal activity towards 8-oxoguanine. Has AP (apurinic/apyrimidinic) lyase activity and introduces nicks in the DNA strand. Cleaves the DNA backbone by beta-delta elimination to generate a single-strand break at the site of the removed base with both 3'- and 5'-phosphates. Has DNA glycosylase/lyase activity towards mismatched uracil and thymine, in particular in U:C and T:C mismatches. Specifically binds 5- hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC), suggesting that it acts as a specific reader of 5hmC.

Involved in base excision repair of DNA damaged by oxidation or by mutagenic agents. Has DNA glycosylase activity towards 5- hydroxyuracil and other oxidized derivatives of cytosine with a preference for mismatched double-stranded DNA (DNA bubbles). Has low or no DNA glycosylase activity towards thymine glycol, 2-hydroxyadenine, hypoxanthine and 8-oxoguanine. Has AP (apurinic/apyrimidinic) lyase activity and introduces nicks in the DNA strand. Cleaves the DNA backbone by beta-delta elimination to generate a single-strand break at the site of the removed base with both 3'- and 5'-phosphates.

DNA glycosylase which prefers single-stranded DNA (ssDNA), or partially ssDNA structures such as bubble and fork structures, to double-stranded DNA (dsDNA). Mediates interstrand cross-link repair in response to replication stress: acts by mediating DNA glycosylase activity, cleaving one of the two N-glycosyl bonds comprising the interstrand cross-link, which avoids the formation of a double-strand break but generates an abasic site that is bypassed by translesion synthesis polymerases (By similarity). In vitro, displays strong glycosylase activity towards the hydantoin lesions spiroiminodihydantoin (Sp) and guanidinohydantoin (Gh) in both ssDNA and dsDNA; also recognizes FapyA, FapyG, 5-OHU, 5-OHC, 5-OHMH, Tg and 8-oxoA lesions in ssDNA. No activity on 8-oxoG detected. Also shows weak DNA-(apurinic or apyrimidinic site) lyase activity. In vivo, appears to be the primary enzyme involved in removing Sp and Gh from ssDNA in neonatal tissues.

Protein kinase which plays an important role in the G2/M checkpoint response to DNA damage. Controls degradation of CDC25A by directly phosphorylating it on residues whose phosphorylation is required for BTRC-mediated polyubiquitination and degradation.

Phosphorylates serines and threonines, but also appears to possess tyrosine kinase activity. Involved in DNA damage checkpoint control and for proper DNA damage repair. In response to injury that includes DNA damage, NEK1 phosphorylates VDAC1 to limit mitochondrial cell death. May be implicated in the control of meiosis (By similarity). Involved in cilium assembly.

Protein kinase which is involved in the control of centrosome separation and bipolar spindle formation in mitotic cells and chromatin condensation in meiotic cells. Regulates centrosome separation (essential for the formation of bipolar spindles and high-fidelity chromosome separation) by phosphorylating centrosomal proteins such as CROCC, CEP250 and NINL, resulting in their displacement from the centrosomes. Regulates kinetochore microtubule attachment stability in mitosis via phosphorylation of NDC80. Involved in regulation of mitotic checkpoint protein complex via phosphorylation of CDC20 and MAD2L1. Plays an active role in chromatin condensation during the first meiotic division through phosphorylation of HMGA2. Phosphorylates: PPP1CC; SGO1; NECAB3 and NPM1. Essential for localization of MAD2L1 to kinetochore and MAPK1 and NPM1 to the centrosome. Phosphorylates CEP68 and CNTLN directly or indirectly. NEK2-mediated phosphorylation of CEP68 promotes CEP68 dissociation from the centrosome and its degradation at the onset of mitosis. Involved in the regulation of centrosome disjunction. Phosphorylates CCDC102B either directly or indirectly which causes CCDC102B to dissociate from the centrosome and allows for centrosome separation.

Protein kinase which influences neuronal morphogenesis and polarity through effects on microtubules. Regulates microtubule acetylation in neurons. Contributes to prolactin-mediated phosphorylation of PXN and VAV2. Implicated in prolactin-mediated cytoskeletal reorganization and motility of breast cancer cells through mechanisms involving RAC1 activation and phosphorylation of PXN and VAV2.

Protein kinase that seems to act exclusively upon threonine residues (By similarity). Required for normal entry into proliferative arrest after a limited number of cell divisions, also called replicative senescence. Required for normal cell cycle arrest in response to double-stranded DNA damage.

Protein kinase which plays an important role in mitotic cell cycle progression. Required for chromosome segregation at metaphase-anaphase transition, robust mitotic spindle formation and cytokinesis. Phosphorylates ATF4, CIR1, PTN, RAD26L, RBBP6, RPS7, RPS6KB1, TRIP4, STAT3 and histones H1 and H3. Phosphorylates KIF11 to promote mitotic spindle formation. Involved in G2/M phase cell cycle arrest induced by DNA damage. Inhibition of activity results in apoptosis. May contribute to tumorigenesis by suppressing p53/TP53-induced cancer cell senescence. Phosphorylates EML4 at 'Ser-144', promoting its dissociation from microtubules during mitosis which is required for efficient chromosome congression.

Protein kinase which plays an important role in mitotic cell cycle progression. Required for microtubule nucleation activity of the centrosome, robust mitotic spindle formation and cytokinesis. Phosphorylates RPS6KB1 (By similarity). Phosphorylates EML4 at 'Ser-146', promoting its dissociation from microtubules during mitosis which is required for efficient chromosome congression. Essential protein for NLRP3 inflammasome assembly and activation that acts downstream stimuli such as K(+) efflux. Dispensable for the induction of core inflammasome components, but necessary for subsequent formation of the NLRP3:PYCARD complex, and activation of CASP1. Serves as a cellular switch that enforces mutual exclusivity of the inflammasome response and cell division. Exerts its effects on the NLRP3 inflammasome independently of its kinase activity.

Required for renal tubular integrity. May regulate local cytoskeletal structure in kidney tubule epithelial cells. May regulate ciliary biogenesis through targeting of proteins to the cilia (By similarity). Plays a role in organogenesis and is involved in the regulation of the Hippo signaling pathway.

Pleiotropic regulator of mitotic progression, participating in the control of spindle dynamics and chromosome separation. Phosphorylates different histones, myelin basic protein, beta-casein, and BICD2. Phosphorylates histone H3 on serine and threonine residues and beta-casein on serine residues. Important for G1/S transition and S phase progression. Phosphorylates NEK6 and NEK7 and stimulates their activity by releasing the autoinhibitory functions of Tyr-108 and Tyr- 97 respectively.

Essential component of the NELF complex, a complex that negatively regulates the elongation of transcription by RNA polymerase II. The NELF complex, which acts via an association with the DSIF complex and causes transcriptional pausing, is counteracted by the P- TEFb kinase complex.

Essential component of the NELF complex, a complex that negatively regulates the elongation of transcription by RNA polymerase II. The NELF complex, which acts via an association with the DSIF complex and causes transcriptional pausing, is counteracted by the P-TEFb kinase complex. May be able to induce chromatin unfolding. Essential for early embryogenesis; plays an important role in maintaining the undifferentiated state of embryonic stem cells (ESCs) by preventing unscheduled expression of developmental genes (By similarity). Plays a key role in establishing the responsiveness of stem cells to developmental cues; facilitates plasticity and cell fate commitment in ESCs by establishing the appropriate expression level of signaling molecules (By similarity). Supports the transcription of genes involved in energy metabolism in cardiomyocytes; facilitates the association of transcription initiation factors with the promoters of the metabolism- related genes (By similarity).

Essential component of the NELF complex, a complex that negatively regulates the elongation of transcription by RNA polymerase II. The NELF complex, which acts via an association with the DSIF complex and causes transcriptional pausing, is counteracted by the P-TEFb kinase complex.

Essential component of the NELF complex, a complex that negatively regulates the elongation of transcription by RNA polymerase II. The NELF complex, which acts via an association with the DSIF complex and causes transcriptional pausing, is counteracted by the P-TEFb kinase complex. Provides the strongest RNA binding activity of the NELF complex and may initially recruit the NELF complex to RNA.

Plays a role in the control of cell growth and differentiation. Promotes osteoblast cell differentiation and terminal mineralization.

Required for neuron survival through the modulation of MAPK pathways (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of hypothalamic GNRH secretion and the control of puberty (By similarity).

As part of the ribosome quality control complex (RQC), a ribosome-associated complex, mediates the extraction of incompletely synthesized nascent chains from stalled ribosomes as well as their ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation. Thereby, frees ribosomes from the stalled translation complex and prevents the accumulation of nascent polypeptide chains that are potentially toxic for the cell. It is responsible both for selective recognition of stalled 60S subunits by recognizing an exposed, nascent chain-conjugated tRNA moiety and the recruitment of the E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase LTN1 to the ribosome quality control complex. May indirectly play a role in nuclear export.

Regulatory subunit of the IKK core complex which phosphorylates inhibitors of NF-kappa-B thus leading to the dissociation of the inhibitor/NF-kappa-B complex and ultimately the degradation of the inhibitor. Its binding to scaffolding polyubiquitin plays a key role in IKK activation by multiple signaling receptor pathways. Can recognize and bind both 'Lys-63'-linked and linear polyubiquitin upon cell stimulation, with a much higher affinity for linear polyubiquitin. Could be implicated in NF-kappa-B- mediated protection from cytokine toxicity. Essential for viral activation of IRF3. Involved in TLR3- and IFIH1- mediated antiviral innate response; this function requires 'Lys-27'- linked polyubiquitination.

Together with EMD, contributes to nuclear envelope stiffness in germ cells. Required for female fertility (By similarity).

Acts as a neurotrophic factor in postnatal mature neurons enhancing neuronal survival. Promotes cell proliferation and neurogenesis in undifferentiated neural progenitor cells at the embryonic stage and inhibits differentiation of astrocytes (By similarity). Its neurotrophic activity is exerted via MAPK1/ERK2, MAPK3/ERK1 and AKT1/AKT pathways (By similarity). Neurotrophic activity is enhanced by binding to heme (By similarity). Acts also as an anorexigenic neurotrophic factor that contributes to energy balance (By similarity).

Multi-functional cell surface receptor regulating cell adhesion in many diverse developmental processes, including neural tube and mammary gland formation, myogenesis and angiogenesis. Receptor for members of the BMP, netrin, and repulsive guidance molecule (RGM) families. Netrin-Neogenin interactions result in a chemoattractive axon guidance response and cell-cell adhesion, the interaction between NEO1/Neogenin and RGMa and RGMb induces a chemorepulsive response.

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent pseudouridine N(1)- methyltransferase that methylates pseudouridine at position 1248 (Psi1248) in 18S rRNA. Involved the biosynthesis of the hypermodified N1-methyl-N3-(3-amino-3-carboxypropyl) pseudouridine (m1acp3-Psi) conserved in eukaryotic 18S rRNA. Is not able to methylate uridine at this position. Has also an essential role in 40S ribosomal subunit biogenesis independent on its methyltransferase activity, facilitating the incorporation of ribosomal protein S19 during the formation of pre-ribosomes (By similarity).

Forms with the serine/threonine protein phosphatase CTDNEP1 an active complex which dephosphorylates and may activate LPIN1 and LPIN2. LPIN1 and LPIN2 are phosphatidate phosphatases that catalyze the conversion of phosphatidic acid to diacylglycerol and control the metabolism of fatty acids at different levels. May indirectly modulate the lipid composition of nuclear and/or endoplasmic reticulum membranes and be required for proper nuclear membrane morphology and/or dynamics. May also indirectly regulate the production of lipid droplets and triacylglycerol.

May play a role in cortex development as part of the Notch signaling pathway. Downstream of Notch may repress the expression of proneural genes and inhibit neuronal differentiation thereby maintaining neural progenitors. May also play a role in preimplentation embryo development.

Thermolysin-like specificity, but is almost confined on acting on polypeptides of up to 30 amino acids. Biologically important in the destruction of opioid peptides such as Met- and Leu- enkephalins by cleavage of a Gly-Phe bond. Catalyzes cleavage of bradykinin, substance P and neurotensin peptides. Able to cleave angiotensin-1, angiotensin-2 and angiotensin 1-9. Involved in the degradation of atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) and brain natriuretic factor (BNP(1-32)). Displays UV-inducible elastase activity toward skin preelastic and elastic fibers.

Required for brain and eye development. Promotes the disassembly of phosphorylated vimentin intermediate filaments (IF) during mitosis and may play a role in the trafficking and distribution of IF proteins and other cellular factors to daughter cells during progenitor cell division. Required for survival, renewal and mitogen- stimulated proliferation of neural progenitor cells (By similarity).

Netrins control guidance of CNS commissural axons and peripheral motor axons. Its association with either DCC or some UNC5 receptors will lead to axon attraction or repulsion, respectively. Binding to UNC5C might cause dissociation of UNC5C from polymerized TUBB3 in microtubules and thereby lead to increased microtubule dynamics and axon repulsion. Involved in dorsal root ganglion axon projection towards the spinal cord. It also serves as a survival factor via its association with its receptors which prevent the initiation of apoptosis. Involved in tumorigenesis by regulating apoptosis.

Netrins control guidance of CNS commissural axons and peripheral motor axons.

May play an important role in neural, kidney and vascular development. Promotes neurite elongation from olfactory bulb explants.

Plays a role in neurogenesis. Prevents motor neuron cell body migration out of the neural tube.

Involved in the development and/or maintenance of neuronal circuitry. Accessory subunit of the neuronal N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor (NMDAR) critical for maintaining the abundance of GRIN2A- containing NMDARs in the postsynaptic density. Regulates long-term NMDA receptor-dependent synaptic plasticity and cognition, at least in the context of spatial learning and memory (By similarity).

Accessory subunit of neuronal kainate-sensitive glutamate receptors, GRIK2 and GRIK3. Increases kainate-receptor channel activity, slowing the decay kinetics of the receptors, without affecting their expression at the cell surface, and increasing the open probability of the receptor channels. Modulates the agonist sensitivity of kainate receptors. Slows the decay of kainate receptor-mediated excitatory postsynaptic currents (EPSCs), thus directly influencing synaptic transmission (By similarity).

Plays a role in neuronal plasticity and the proteolytic action may subserve structural reorganizations associated with learning and memory operations.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase involved in regulation of the Notch pathway through influencing the stability and activity of several Notch ligands.

Catalyzes the activation of N-acetylneuraminic acid (NeuNAc) to cytidine 5'-monophosphate N-acetylneuraminic acid (CMP-NeuNAc), a substrate required for the addition of sialic acid. Has some activity toward NeuNAc, N-glycolylneuraminic acid (Neu5Gc) or 2-keto-3-deoxy-D- glycero-D-galacto-nononic acid (KDN)

Heme-binding protein which promotes neuronal but not astrocyte differentiation.

Acts as a 'third messenger' substrate of protein kinase C- mediated molecular cascades during synaptic development and remodeling. Binds to calmodulin in the absence of calcium (By similarity).

Plays a role in hippocampal-dependent synaptic plasticity, learning and memory. Involved in the formation of spines and functional synaptic contacts by modulating the translational activity of the cytoplasmic polyadenylation element-binding protein CPEB3. Promotes ubiquitination of CPEB3, and hence induces CPEB3-dependent mRNA translation activation of glutamate receptor GRIA1 and GRIA2. Can function as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase to activate monoubiquitination of JAG1 (in vitro), thereby regulating the Notch pathway. Acts as a tumor suppressor; inhibits malignant cell transformation of medulloblastoma (MB) cells by inhibiting the Notch signaling pathway.

Plays an important role in the process of myofiber differentiation and maturation. Probable substrate-recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin BC-CUL2/5-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex, which mediates the ubiquitination of proteins. Probably contributes to catalysis through recognition and positioning of the substrate and the ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme. During myogenesis, controls the ubiquitination and degradation of the specific pool of CTNNB1/beta-catenin located at the sarcolemma (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that plays a role in various biological processes such as lung development or innate immunity. Seems to utilize UBE2E1. Promotes innate antiviral response by catalyzing 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of IRF7. Inhibits also hepatitis C virus assembly by directly binding to viral E1 envelope glycoprotein to disrupt its interaction with E2.

Promotes CCP110 ubiquitination and proteasome-dependent degradation. By counteracting accumulation of CP110, maintains normal centriolar homeostasis and preventing formation of ectopic microtubular organizing centers.

Hydrolyzes oligopeptides such as neurotensin, bradykinin and dynorphin A (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of cannabinoid signaling pathway by mediating degradation of hemopressin, an antagonist peptide of the cannabinoid receptor CNR1 (By similarity).

This protein is associated with nerve growth. It is a major component of the motile 'growth cones' that form the tips of elongating axons. Plays a role in axonal and dendritic filopodia induction.

Catalyzes the removal of sialic acid (N-acetylneuraminic acid) moieties from glycoproteins and glycolipids. To be active, it is strictly dependent on its presence in the multienzyme complex. Appears to have a preference for alpha 2-3 and alpha 2-6 sialyl linkage.

Exo-alpha-sialidase that catalyzes the hydrolytic cleavage of the terminal sialic acid (N-acetylneuraminic acid, Neu5Ac) of a glycan moiety in the catabolism of glycolipids, glycoproteins and oligosacharides. Recognizes sialyl linkage positions of the glycan moiety as well as the supramolecular organization of the sialoglycoconjugate. Displays preference for alpha- (2->3)-sialylated GD1a and GT1B gangliosides over alpha-(2->8)- sialylated GD1b, in both monomeric forms and micelles. Hydrolyzes monomeric GM1 ganglioside, but has no activity toward the miscellar form. Has lower sialidase activity for glycoproteins such as fetuin and TF/transferrin that carry a mixture of alpha-(2->3) and alpha-(2->6)-sialyl linkages. Cleaves milk oligosaccharide alpha- (2->3)-sialyllactose, but is inactive toward alpha-(2->6)-sialyllactose isomer. Has no activity toward colominic acid, a homomer of alpha- (2->8)-linked Neu5Ac residues.

Exo-alpha-sialidase that catalyzes the hydrolytic cleavage of the terminal sialic acid (N-acetylneuraminic acid, Neu5Ac) of a glycan moiety in the catabolism of glycolipids, glycoproteins and oligosacharides. Displays high catalytic efficiency for gangliosides including alpha-(2->3)-sialylated GD1a and GM3 and alpha-(2->8)- sialylated GD3. Plays a role in the regulation of transmembrane signaling through the modulation of ganglioside content of the lipid bilayer and by direct interaction with signaling receptors, such as EGFR. Desialylates EGFR and activates downstream signaling in proliferating cells. Contributes to clathrin- mediated endocytosis by regulating sorting of endocytosed receptors to early and recycling endosomes.

Exo-alpha-sialidase that catalyzes the hydrolytic cleavage of the terminal sialic acid (N-acetylneuraminic acid, Neu5Ac) of a glycan moiety in the catabolism of glycolipids, glycoproteins and oligosacharides. Efficiently hydrolyzes gangliosides including alpha- (2->3)-sialylated GD1a and GM3 and alpha-(2->8)-sialylated GD3. Hydrolyzes poly- alpha-(2->8)-sialylated neural cell adhesion molecule NCAM1 likely at growth cones, suppressing neurite outgrowth in hippocampal neurons (By similarity). May desialylate sialyl Lewis A and X antigens at the cell surface, down-regulating these glycan epitopes recognized by SELE/E selectin in the initiation of cell adhesion and extravasation. Has sialidase activity toward mucin, fetuin and sialyllactose.

Serine protease inhibitor that inhibits plasminogen activators and plasmin but not thrombin. May be involved in the formation or reorganization of synaptic connections as well as for synaptic plasticity in the adult nervous system. May protect neurons from cell damage by tissue-type plasminogen activator (Probable).

Neurotensin may play an endocrine or paracrine role in the regulation of fat metabolism. It causes contraction of smooth muscle

Involved in neurite outgrowth by regulating cell-cell adhesion via the N-cadherin signaling pathway. May act by regulating expression of protein-coding genes, such as N-cadherins and integrin beta-1 (ITGB1).

Involved in regulating cell migration through association with the actin cytoskeleton. Has an essential role in the maintenance of Z line and sarcomere integrity.

Stimulates the GTPase activity of Ras. NF1 shows greater affinity for Ras GAP, but lower specific activity. May be a regulator of Ras activity.

In T-helper 2 (Th2) cells, regulates the magnitude of NFAT- driven transcription of a specific subset of cytokine genes, including IL3, IL4, IL5 and IL13, but not IL2. Recruits PRMT1 to the IL4 promoter; this leads to enhancement of histone H4 'Arg-3'-methylation and facilitates subsequent histone acetylation at the IL4 locus, thus promotes robust cytokine expression (By similarity). Down-regulates formation of poly-SUMO chains by UBE2I/UBC9 (By similarity).

[Endoplasmic reticulum membrane sensor NFE2L1]: Endoplasmic reticulum membrane sensor that translocates into the nucleus in response to various stresses to act as a transcription factor. Constitutes a precursor of the transcription factor NRF1 (By similarity). Able to detect various cellular stresses, such as cholesterol excess, oxidative stress or proteasome inhibition. In response to stress, it is released from the endoplasmic reticulum membrane following cleavage by the protease DDI2 and translocates into the nucleus to form the transcription factor NRF1 (By similarity). Acts as a key sensor of cholesterol excess: in excess cholesterol conditions, the endoplasmic reticulum membrane form of the protein directly binds cholesterol via its CRAC motif, preventing cleavage and release of the transcription factor NRF1, thereby allowing expression of genes promoting cholesterol removal, such as CD36 (By similarity). Involved in proteasome homeostasis: in response to proteasome inhibition, it is released from the endoplasmic reticulum membrane, translocates to the nucleus and activates expression of genes encoding proteasome subunits.

Transcription factor that plays a key role in the response to oxidative stress: binds to antioxidant response (ARE) elements present in the promoter region of many cytoprotective genes, such as phase 2 detoxifying enzymes, and promotes their expression, thereby neutralizing reactive electrophiles. In normal conditions, ubiquitinated and degraded in the cytoplasm by the BCR(KEAP1) complex. In response to oxidative stress, electrophile metabolites inhibit activity of the BCR(KEAP1) complex, promoting nuclear accumulation of NFE2L2/NRF2, heterodimerization with one of the small Maf proteins and binding to ARE elements of cytoprotective target genes. The NFE2L2/NRF2 pathway is also activated in response to selective autophagy: autophagy promotes interaction between KEAP1 and SQSTM1/p62 and subsequent inactivation of the BCR(KEAP1) complex, leading to NFE2L2/NRF2 nuclear accumulation and expression of cytoprotective genes. May also be involved in the transcriptional activation of genes of the beta-globin cluster by mediating enhancer activity of hypersensitive site 2 of the beta-globin locus control region. Also plays an important role in the regulation of the innate immune response and antiviral cytosolic DNA sensing. It is a critical regulator of the innate immune response and survival during sepsis by maintaining redox homeostasis and restraint of the dysregulation of pro-inflammatory signaling pathways like MyD88-dependent and -independent and TNF-alpha signaling (By similarity). Suppresses macrophage inflammatory response by blocking pro-inflammatory cytokine transcription and the induction of IL6 (By similarity). Binds to the proximity of pro-inflammatory genes in macrophages and inhibits RNA Pol II recruitment. The inhibition is independent of the NRF2-binding motif and reactive oxygen species level (By similarity). Represses antiviral cytosolic DNA sensing by suppressing the expression of the adapter protein STING1 and decreasing responsiveness to STING1 agonists while increasing susceptibility to infection with DNA viruses. Once activated, limits the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines in response to human coronavirus SARS-CoV-2 infection and to virus-derived ligands through a mechanism that involves inhibition of IRF3 dimerization. Also inhibits both SARS-CoV-2 replication, as well as the replication of several other pathogenic viruses including Herpes Simplex Virus-1 and-2, Vaccinia virus, and Zika virus through a type I interferon (IFN)- independent mechanism.

Plays a role in the inducible expression of cytokine genes in T-cells, especially in the induction of the IL-2 or IL-4 gene transcription. Also controls gene expression in embryonic cardiac cells. Could regulate not only the activation and proliferation but also the differentiation and programmed death of T-lymphocytes as well as lymphoid and non-lymphoid cells. Required for osteoclastogenesis and regulates many genes important for osteoclast differentiation and function (By similarity).

Plays a role in the inducible expression of cytokine genes in T-cells, especially in the induction of the IL-2, IL-3, IL-4, TNF-alpha or GM-CSF. Promotes invasive migration through the activation of GPC6 expression and WNT5A signaling pathway.

Acts as a regulator of transcriptional activation. Plays a role in the inducible expression of cytokine genes in T-cells, especially in the induction of the IL-2. Along with NFATC4, involved in embryonic heart development (By similarity).

Ca(2+)-regulated transcription factor that is involved in several processes, including the development and function of the immune, cardiovascular, musculoskeletal, and nervous systems. Involved in T-cell activation, stimulating the transcription of cytokine genes, including that of IL2 and IL4. Along with NFATC3, involved in embryonic heart development. Involved in mitochondrial energy metabolism required for cardiac morphogenesis and function (By similarity). Transactivates many genes involved in the cardiovascular system, including AGTR2, NPPB/BNP (in synergy with GATA4), NPPA/ANP/ANF and MYH7/beta-MHC (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of adult hippocampal neurogenesis. Involved in BDNF-driven pro-survival signaling in hippocampal adult-born neurons. Involved in the formation of long-term spatial memory and long-term potentiation (By similarity). In cochlear nucleus neurons, may play a role in deafferentation-induced apoptosis during the developmental critical period, when auditory neurons depend on afferent input for survival (By similarity). Binds to and activates the BACE1/Beta-secretase 1 promoter, hence may regulate the proteolytic processing of the amyloid precursor protein (APP). Plays a role in adipocyte differentiation. May be involved in myoblast differentiation into myotubes. Binds the consensus DNA sequence 5'-GGAAAAT-3' (Probable). In the presence of CREBBP, activates TNF transcription. Binds to PPARG gene promoter and regulates its activity. Binds to PPARG and REG3G gene promoters (By similarity).

May function in immune system as a receptor which activates via the calcineurin/NFAT-signaling pathway the downstream cytokine gene promoters. Activates the transcription of IL-13 and TNF-alpha promoters. May be involved in the regulation of B-cell, but not T-cell, development. Overexpression activates downstream effectors without ligand binding or antibody cross-linking.

Cell adhesion, ankyrin-binding protein which may be involved in neurite extension, axonal guidance, synaptogenesis, myelination and neuron-glial cell interactions.

Transcription factor involved, among others, in the transcriptional regulation of osmoprotective and inflammatory genes. Binds the DNA consensus sequence 5'- [ACT][AG]TGGAAA[CAT]A[TA][ATC][CA][ATG][GT][GAC][CG][CT]-3'. Mediates the transcriptional response to hypertonicity. Positively regulates the transcription of LCN2 and S100A4 genes; optimal transactivation of these genes requires the presence of DDX5/DDX17. Also involved in the DNA damage response by preventing formation of R-loops; R-loops are composed of a DNA:RNA hybrid and the associated non-template single- stranded DNA.

Component of the NF-E2 complex essential for regulating erythroid and megakaryocytic maturation and differentiation. Binds to the hypersensitive site 2 (HS2) of the beta-globin control region (LCR). This subunit (NFE2) recognizes the TCAT/C sequence of the AP-1- like core palindrome present in a number of erythroid and megakaryocytic gene promoters. Requires MAFK or other small MAF proteins for binding to the NF-E2 motif. May play a role in all aspects of hemoglobin production from globin and heme synthesis to procurement of iron.

Neurofilaments usually contain three intermediate filament proteins: NEFL, NEFM, and NEFH which are involved in the maintenance of neuronal caliber. NEFH has an important function in mature axons that is not subserved by the two smaller NF proteins. May additionally cooperate with the neuronal intermediate filament proteins PRPH and INA to form neuronal filamentous networks (By similarity).

Recognizes and binds the palindromic sequence 5'- TTGGCNNNNNGCCAA-3' present in viral and cellular promoters and in the origin of replication of adenovirus type 2. These proteins are individually capable of activating transcription and replication

Transcriptional activator of GFAP, essential for proper brain development. Recognizes and binds the palindromic sequence 5'-TTGGCNNNNNGCCAA-3' present in viral and cellular promoters and in the origin of replication of adenovirus type 2. These proteins are individually capable of activating transcription and replication.

Acts as a transcriptional regulator that recognizes and binds to the sequence 5'-[GA]TTA[CT]GTAA[CT]-3', a sequence present in many cellular and viral promoters. Represses transcription from promoters with activating transcription factor (ATF) sites. Represses promoter activity in osteoblasts (By similarity). Represses transcriptional activity of PER1 (By similarity). Represses transcriptional activity of PER2 via the B-site on the promoter (By similarity). Activates transcription from the interleukin-3 promoter in T-cells. Competes for the same consensus-binding site with PAR DNA-binding factors (DBP, HLF and TEF) (By similarity). Component of the circadian clock that acts as a negative regulator for the circadian expression of PER2 oscillation in the cell-autonomous core clock (By similarity). Protects pro-B cells from programmed cell death (By similarity). Represses the transcription of CYP2A5 (By similarity). Positively regulates the expression and activity of CES2 by antagonizing the repressive action of NR1D1 on CES2 (By similarity). Required for the development of natural killer cell precursors (By similarity).

Activates HECT domain-containing E3 ubiquitin-protein ligases, including NEDD4 and ITCH, and consequently modulates the stability of their targets. As a result, controls many cellular processes. Prevents chronic T-helper cell-mediated inflammation by activating ITCH and thus controlling JUNB degradation (By similarity). Promotes pancreatic beta cell death through degradation of JUNB and inhibition of the unfolded protein response, leading to reduction of insulin secretion. Restricts the production of pro- inflammatory cytokines in effector Th17 T-cells by promoting ITCH- mediated ubiquitination and degradation of RORC (By similarity). Together with NDFIP2, limits the cytokine signaling and expansion of effector Th2 T-cells by promoting degradation of JAK1, probably by ITCH- and NEDD4L-mediated ubiquitination (By similarity). Regulates peripheral T-cell tolerance to self and foreign antigens, forcing the exit of naive CD4+ T-cells from the cell cycle before they become effector T-cells (By similarity). Negatively regulates RLR-mediated antiviral response by promoting SMURF1-mediated ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of MAVS. Negatively regulates KCNH2 potassium channel activity by decreasing its cell-surface expression and interfering with channel maturation through recruitment of NEDD4L to the Golgi apparatus where it mediates KCNH2 degradation. In cortical neurons, mediates the ubiquitination of the divalent metal transporter SLC11A2/DMT1 by NEDD4L, leading to its down-regulation and protection of the cells from cobalt and iron toxicity. Important for normal development of dendrites and dendritic spines in cortex (By similarity). Enhances the ubiquitination of BRAT1 mediated by: NEDD4, NEDD4L and ITCH and is required for the nuclear localization of ubiquitinated BRAT1. Enhances the ITCH-mediated ubiquitination of MAP3K7 by recruiting E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme UBE2L3 to ITCH (By similarity). Modulates EGFR signaling through multiple pathways. In particular, may regulate the ratio of AKT1-to-MAPK8 signaling in response to EGF, acting on AKT1 probably through PTEN destabilization and on MAPK8 through ITCH-dependent MAP2K4 inactivation. As a result, may control cell growth rate. Inhibits cell proliferation by promoting PTEN nuclear localization and changing its signaling specificity.

Activates HECT domain-containing E3 ubiquitin-protein ligases, including ITCH, NEDD4, NEDD4L, SMURF2, WWP1 and WWP2, and consequently modulates the stability of their targets. As a result, may control many cellular processes. Recruits ITCH, NEDD4 and SMURF2 to endosomal membranes. Negatively regulates KCNH2 potassium channel activity by decreasing its cell-surface expression and interfering with channel maturation through recruitment of NEDD4L to the Golgi apparatus and multivesicular body where it mediates KCNH2 degradation. May modulate EGFR signaling. Together with NDFIP1, limits the cytokine signaling and expansion of effector Th2 T-cells by promoting degradation of JAK1, probably by ITCH- and NEDD4L-mediated ubiquitination (By similarity).

NF-kappa-B is a pleiotropic transcription factor present in almost all cell types and is the endpoint of a series of signal transduction events that are initiated by a vast array of stimuli related to many biological processes such as inflammation, immunity, differentiation, cell growth, tumorigenesis and apoptosis. NF-kappa-B is a homo- or heterodimeric complex formed by the Rel-like domain- containing proteins RELA/p65, RELB, NFKB1/p105, NFKB1/p50, REL and NFKB2/p52 and the heterodimeric p65-p50 complex appears to be most abundant one. The dimers bind at kappa-B sites in the DNA of their target genes and the individual dimers have distinct preferences for different kappa-B sites that they can bind with distinguishable affinity and specificity. Different dimer combinations act as transcriptional activators or repressors, respectively. NF-kappa-B is controlled by various mechanisms of post-translational modification and subcellular compartmentalization as well as by interactions with other cofactors or corepressors. NF-kappa-B complexes are held in the cytoplasm in an inactive state complexed with members of the NF-kappa-B inhibitor (I-kappa-B) family. In a conventional activation pathway, I- kappa-B is phosphorylated by I-kappa-B kinases (IKKs) in response to different activators, subsequently degraded thus liberating the active NF-kappa-B complex which translocates to the nucleus. NF-kappa-B heterodimeric p65-p50 and RelB-p50 complexes are transcriptional activators. The NF-kappa-B p50-p50 homodimer is a transcriptional repressor, but can act as a transcriptional activator when associated with BCL3. NFKB1 appears to have dual functions such as cytoplasmic retention of attached NF-kappa-B proteins by p105 and generation of p50 by a cotranslational processing. The proteasome-mediated process ensures the production of both p50 and p105 and preserves their independent function, although processing of NFKB1/p105 also appears to occur post-translationally. p50 binds to the kappa-B consensus sequence 5'-GGRNNYYCC-3', located in the enhancer region of genes involved in immune response and acute phase reactions. In a complex with MAP3K8, NFKB1/p105 represses MAP3K8-induced MAPK signaling; active MAP3K8 is released by proteasome-dependent degradation of NFKB1/p105.

NF-kappa-B is a pleiotropic transcription factor present in almost all cell types and is the endpoint of a series of signal transduction events that are initiated by a vast array of stimuli related to many biological processes such as inflammation, immunity, differentiation, cell growth, tumorigenesis and apoptosis. NF-kappa-B is a homo- or heterodimeric complex formed by the Rel-like domain- containing proteins RELA/p65, RELB, NFKB1/p105, NFKB1/p50, REL and NFKB2/p52. The dimers bind at kappa-B sites in the DNA of their target genes and the individual dimers have distinct preferences for different kappa-B sites that they can bind with distinguishable affinity and specificity. Different dimer combinations act as transcriptional activators or repressors, respectively. NF-kappa-B is controlled by various mechanisms of post-translational modification and subcellular compartmentalization as well as by interactions with other cofactors or corepressors. NF-kappa-B complexes are held in the cytoplasm in an inactive state complexed with members of the NF-kappa-B inhibitor (I- kappa-B) family. In a conventional activation pathway, I-kappa-B is phosphorylated by I-kappa-B kinases (IKKs) in response to different activators, subsequently degraded thus liberating the active NF-kappa-B complex which translocates to the nucleus. In a non-canonical activation pathway, the MAP3K14-activated CHUK/IKKA homodimer phosphorylates NFKB2/p100 associated with RelB, inducing its proteolytic processing to NFKB2/p52 and the formation of NF-kappa-B RelB-p52 complexes. The NF-kappa-B heterodimeric RelB-p52 complex is a transcriptional activator. The NF-kappa-B p52-p52 homodimer is a transcriptional repressor. NFKB2 appears to have dual functions such as cytoplasmic retention of attached NF-kappa-B proteins by p100 and generation of p52 by a cotranslational processing. The proteasome- mediated process ensures the production of both p52 and p100 and preserves their independent function. p52 binds to the kappa-B consensus sequence 5'-GGRNNYYCC-3', located in the enhancer region of genes involved in immune response and acute phase reactions. p52 and p100 are respectively the minor and major form; the processing of p100 being relatively poor. Isoform p49 is a subunit of the NF-kappa-B protein complex, which stimulates the HIV enhancer in synergy with p65. In concert with RELB, regulates the circadian clock by repressing the transcriptional activator activity of the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer.

Neurofilaments usually contain three intermediate filament proteins: NEFL, NEFM, and NEFH which are involved in the maintenance of neuronal caliber. May additionally cooperate with the neuronal intermediate filament proteins PRPH and INA to form neuronal filamentous networks (By similarity).

[Isoform Mitochondrial]: Cysteine desulfurase, of the core iron-sulfur cluster (ISC) assembly complex, that catalyzes the desulfuration of L-cysteine to L-alanine, as component of the cysteine desulfurase complex, leading to the formation of a cysteine persulfide intermediate at the active site cysteine residue and participates in the [2Fe-2S] clusters assembly on the scaffolding protein ISCU. The persulfide is then transferred on the flexible Cys loop from the catalytic site of NFS1 to the surface of NFS1. After the NFS1-linked persulfide sulfur is transferred to one of the conserved Cys residues of the scaffold, a reaction assisted by FXN (By similarity). The core iron-sulfur cluster (ISC) assembly complex is involved in the de novo synthesis of a [2Fe-2S] cluster, the first step of the mitochondrial iron-sulfur protein biogenesis. This process is initiated by the cysteine desulfurase complex (NFS1:LYRM4:NDUFAB1) that produces persulfide which is delivered on the scaffold protein ISCU in a FXN- dependent manner. Then this complex is stabilized by FDX2 which provides reducing equivalents to accomplish the [2Fe-2S] cluster assembly. Finally, the [2Fe-2S] cluster is transferred from ISCU to chaperone proteins, including HSCB, HSPA9 and GLRX5 (By similarity).

Iron-sulfur cluster scaffold protein which can assemble [4Fe- 4S] clusters and deliver them to target proteins.

Binds to the X-box motif of MHC class II genes and represses their expression. May play an important role in regulating the duration of an inflammatory response by limiting the period in which MHC class II molecules are induced by interferon-gamma. Isoform 3 binds to the X- box motif of TERT promoter and represses its expression. Together with PABPC1 or PABPC4, isoform 1 acts as a coactivator for TERT expression. Mediates E2-dependent ubiquitination.

Component of the sequence-specific heterotrimeric transcription factor (NF-Y) which specifically recognizes a 5'-CCAAT-3' box motif found in the promoters of its target genes. NF-Y can function as both an activator and a repressor, depending on its interacting cofactors. NF-YA positively regulates the transcription of the core clock component BMAL1.

Component of the sequence-specific heterotrimeric transcription factor (NF-Y) which specifically recognizes a 5'-CCAAT-3' box motif found in the promoters of its target genes. NF-Y can function as both an activator and a repressor, depending on its interacting cofactors

Iron-trafficking protein involved in multiple processes such as apoptosis, innate immunity and renal development. Binds iron through association with 2,3-dihydroxybenzoic acid (2,3-DHBA), a siderophore that shares structural similarities with bacterial enterobactin, and delivers or removes iron from the cell, depending on the context. Iron-bound form (holo-24p3) is internalized following binding to the SLC22A17 (24p3R) receptor, leading to release of iron and subsequent increase of intracellular iron concentration. In contrast, association of the iron- free form (apo-24p3) with the SLC22A17 (24p3R) receptor is followed by association with an intracellular siderophore, iron chelation and iron transfer to the extracellular medium, thereby reducing intracellular iron concentration. Involved in apoptosis due to interleukin-3 (IL3) deprivation: iron-loaded form increases intracellular iron concentration without promoting apoptosis, while iron-free form decreases intracellular iron levels, inducing expression of the proapoptotic protein BCL2L11/BIM, resulting in apoptosis (By similarity). Involved in innate immunity; limits bacterial proliferation by sequestering iron bound to microbial siderophores, such as enterobactin. Can also bind siderophores from M.tuberculosis.

With DHDDS, forms the dehydrodolichyl diphosphate synthase (DDS) complex, an essential component of the dolichol monophosphate (Dol-P) biosynthetic machinery. Both subunits contribute to enzymatic activity, i.e. condensation of multiple copies of isopentenyl pyrophosphate (IPP) to farnesyl pyrophosphate (FPP) to produce dehydrodolichyl diphosphate (Dedol-PP), a precursor of dolichol phosphate which is utilized as a sugar carrier in protein glycosylation in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Synthesizes long-chain polyprenols, mostly of C95 and C100 chain length. Regulates the glycosylation and stability of nascent NPC2, thereby promoting trafficking of LDL-derived cholesterol. Acts as a specific receptor for the N-terminus of Nogo-B, a neural and cardiovascular regulator.

Involved in oxygen transport in the brain. Hexacoordinate globin, displaying competitive binding of oxygen or the distal His residue to the iron atom. Not capable of penetrating cell membranes. The deoxygenated form exhibits nitrite reductase activity inhibiting cellular respiration via NO-binding to cytochrome c oxidase. Involved in neuroprotection during oxidative stress. May exert its anti- apoptotic activity by acting to reset the trigger level of mitochondrial cytochrome c release necessary to commit the cells to apoptosis.

Involved in the translational repression of cytoplasmic polyadenylation element (CPE)-containing mRNAs.

Acts as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) which differentially activates the GTPases RHOA, RAC1 and CDC42. Plays a role in axon guidance regulating ephrin-induced growth cone collapse and dendritic spine morphogenesis. Upon activation by ephrin through EPHA4, the GEF activity switches toward RHOA resulting in its activation. Activated RHOA promotes cone retraction at the expense of RAC1- and CDC42-stimulated growth cone extension (By similarity).

Nerve growth factor is important for the development and maintenance of the sympathetic and sensory nervous systems. Extracellular ligand for the NTRK1 and NGFR receptors, activates cellular signaling cascades to regulate neuronal proliferation, differentiation and survival (Probable). The immature NGF precursor (proNGF) functions as ligand for the heterodimeric receptor formed by SORCS2 and NGFR, and activates cellular signaling cascades that lead to inactivation of RAC1 and/or RAC2, reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and neuronal growth cone collapse. In contrast to mature NGF, the precursor form (proNGF) promotes neuronal apoptosis (in vitro) (By similarity). Inhibits metalloproteinase-dependent proteolysis of platelet glycoprotein VI. Binds lysophosphatidylinositol and lysophosphatidylserine between the two chains of the homodimer. The lipid-bound form promotes histamine relase from mast cells, contrary to the lipid-free form (By similarity).

Specifically deglycosylates the denatured form of N-linked glycoproteins in the cytoplasm and assists their proteasome-mediated degradation. Cleaves the beta-aspartyl-glucosamine (GlcNAc) of the glycan and the amide side chain of Asn, converting Asn to Asp. Prefers proteins containing high-mannose over those bearing complex type oligosaccharides. Can recognize misfolded proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum that are exported to the cytosol to be destroyed and deglycosylate them, while it has no activity toward native proteins. Deglycosylation is a prerequisite for subsequent proteasome-mediated degradation of some, but not all, misfolded glycoproteins.

Acts as a transcriptional regulator. Involved in the initiation of neuronal differentiation. Activates transcription by binding to the E box (5'-CANNTG-3'). Associates with chromatin to enhancer regulatory elements in genes encoding key transcriptional regulators of neurogenesis (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator. Involved in neuronal differentiation. Activates transcription by binding to the E box (5'- CANNTG-3')

Acts as a transcriptional regulator. Together with NKX2-2, initiates transcriptional activation of NEUROD1. Involved in neurogenesis. Also required for the specification of a common precursor of the 4 pancreatic endocrine cell types (By similarity).

Plays an essential role in mitochondrial ribosome biogenesis. As a component of a functional protein-RNA module, consisting of RCC1L, NGRN, RPUSD3, RPUSD4, TRUB2, FASTKD2 and 16S mitochondrial ribosomal RNA (16S mt-rRNA), controls 16S mt-rRNA abundance and is required for intra-mitochondrial translation of core subunits of the oxidative phosphorylation system.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Binds to the 5'-stem-loop of U4 snRNA and thereby contributes to spliceosome assembly. The protein undergoes a conformational change upon RNA-binding.

DNA repair protein involved in DNA non-homologous end joining (NHEJ); required for double-strand break (DSB) repair and V(D)J recombination. Plays a key role in NHEJ by promoting the ligation of various mismatched and non-cohesive ends. Together with PAXX, collaborates with DNA polymerase lambda (POLL) to promote joining of non-cohesive DNA ends. May act in concert with XRCC5-XRCC6 (Ku) to stimulate XRCC4-mediated joining of blunt ends and several types of mismatched ends that are non- complementary or partially complementary. Associates with XRCC4 to form alternating helical filaments that bridge DNA and act like a bandage, holding together the broken DNA until it is repaired. The XRCC4-NHEJ1/XLF subcomplex binds to the DNA fragments of a DSB in a highly diffusive manner and robustly bridges two independent DNA molecules, holding the broken DNA fragments in close proximity to one other. The mobility of the bridges ensures that the ends remain accessible for further processing by other repair factors. Binds DNA in a length-dependent manner.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Together with the phosphatase EPM2A/laforin, appears to be involved in the clearance of toxic polyglucosan and protein aggregates via multiple pathways. In complex with EPM2A/laforin and HSP70, suppresses the cellular toxicity of misfolded proteins by promoting their degradation through the ubiquitin-proteasome system (UPS). Ubiquitinates the glycogen-targeting protein phosphatase subunits PPP1R3C/PTG and PPP1R3D in a laforin- dependent manner and targets them for proteasome-dependent degradation, thus decreasing glycogen accumulation. Polyubiquitinates EPM2A/laforin and ubiquitinates AGL and targets them for proteasome-dependent degradation. Also promotes proteasome-independent protein degradation through the macroautophagy pathway.

Scaffold protein that connects plasma membrane proteins with members of the ezrin/moesin/radixin family and thereby helps to link them to the actin cytoskeleton and to regulate their surface expression. Necessary for recycling of internalized ADRB2. Was first known to play a role in the regulation of the activity and subcellular location of SLC9A3. Necessary for cAMP-mediated phosphorylation and inhibition of SLC9A3. May enhance Wnt signaling. May participate in HTR4 targeting to microvilli (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of phosphate reabsorption in the renal proximal tubules. Involved in sperm capacitation. May participate in the regulation of the chloride and bicarbonate homeostasis in spermatozoa.

Scaffold protein that connects plasma membrane proteins with members of the ezrin/moesin/radixin family and thereby helps to link them to the actin cytoskeleton and to regulate their surface expression. Necessary for cAMP-mediated phosphorylation and inhibition of SLC9A3. May also act as scaffold protein in the nucleus.

A scaffold protein that connects plasma membrane proteins and regulatory components, regulating their surface expression in epithelial cells apical domains. May be involved in the coordination of a diverse range of regulatory processes for ion transport and second messenger cascades. In complex with SLC9A3R1, may cluster proteins that are functionally dependent in a mutual fashion and modulate the trafficking and the activity of the associated membrane proteins. May play a role in the cellular mechanisms associated with multidrug resistance through its interaction with ABCC2 and PDZK1IP1. May potentiate the CFTR chloride channel activity. Required for normal cell-surface expression of SCARB1. Plays a role in maintaining normal plasma cholesterol levels via its effects on SCARB1. Plays a role in the normal localization and function of the chloride-anion exchanger SLC26A6 to the plasma membrane in the brush border of the proximal tubule of the kidney. May be involved in the regulation of proximal tubular Na(+)-dependent inorganic phosphate cotransport therefore playing an important role in tubule function (By similarity).

Acts as a regulatory protein that associates with GUCY2C and negatively modulates its heat-stable enterotoxin-mediated activation. Stimulates SLC9A3 activity in the presence of elevated calcium ions.

May function in cell morphology by maintaining the integrity of the circumferential actin ring and controlling lamellipod formation. Involved in the regulation eye, tooth, brain and craniofacial development.

Regulates phosphorylation of a number of proteins involved in translation regulation including EIF2A, EIF4EBP1 and RPS6KB1. May be involved in the endoplasmic reticulum stress response (By similarity).

May play a role in apoptosis suppression. May promote melanoma cell invasion in vitro.

Essential subunit of the gamma-secretase complex, an endoprotease complex that catalyzes the intramembrane cleavage of integral membrane proteins such as Notch receptors and APP (amyloid- beta precursor protein). The gamma-secretase complex plays a role in Notch and Wnt signaling cascades and regulation of downstream processes via its role in processing key regulatory proteins, and by regulating cytosolic CTNNB1 levels.

Sulfated glycoprotein widely distributed in basement membranes and tightly associated with laminin. Also binds to collagen IV and perlecan. It probably has a role in cell-extracellular matrix interactions

Cell adhesion glycoprotein which is widely distributed in basement membranes. Binds to collagens I and IV, to perlecan and to laminin 1. Does not bind fibulins. It probably has a role in cell- extracellular matrix interactions

May function as a transcriptional corepressor through its interaction with COPS2, negatively regulating the expression of genes involved in neuronal differentiation.

[Ninjurin-1]: Homophilic transmembrane adhesion molecule involved in various processes such as inflammation, cell death, axonal growth, cell chemotaxis and angiogenesis. Promotes cell adhesion by mediating homophilic interactions via its extracellular N-terminal adhesion motif (N-NAM). Involved in the progression of the inflammatory stress by promoting cell-to-cell interactions between immune cells and endothelial cells. Involved in leukocyte migration during inflammation by promoting transendothelial migration of macrophages via homotypic binding (By similarity). Promotes the migration of monocytes across the brain endothelium to central nervous system inflammatory lesions. Acts as a regulator of Toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4) signaling triggered by lipopolysaccharide (LPS) during systemic inflammation; directly binds LPS. Acts as a mediator of both programmed and necrotic cell death. Plays a key role in the induction of plasma membrane rupture during programmed and necrotic cell death: oligomerizes in response to death stimuli to mediate plasma membrane rupture (cytolysis), leading to release intracellular molecules named damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) that propagate the inflammatory response. Plays a role in nerve regeneration by promoting maturation of Schwann cells. Acts as a regulator of angiogenesis. Promotes the formation of new vessels by mediating the interaction between capillary pericyte cells and endothelial cells (By similarity). Promotes osteoclasts development by enhancing the survival of prefusion osteoclasts (By similarity). Also involved in striated muscle growth and differentiation (By similarity).

Homophilic cell adhesion molecule that promotes axonal growth. May play a role in nerve regeneration and in the formation and function of other tissues

Involved in the microtubule organization in interphase cells. Overexpression induces the fragmentation of the Golgi, and causes lysosomes to disperse toward the cell periphery; it also interferes with mitotic spindle assembly. May play a role in ovarian carcinogenesis.

Centrosomal protein required in the positioning and anchorage of the microtubule minus-end in epithelial cells. May also act as a centrosome maturation factor. May play a role in microtubule nucleation, by recruiting the gamma-tubulin ring complex to the centrosome. Overexpression does not perturb nucleation or elongation of microtubules but suppresses release of microtubules. Required for centriole organization and microtubule anchoring at the mother centriole.

Required for proper 34S pre-rRNA processing and 60S ribosome subunit assembly.

Acts as a Mg(2+) transporter. Can also transport other divalent cations such as Fe(2+), Sr(2+), Ba(2+), Mn(2+) and Co(2+) but to a much less extent than Mg(2+) (By similarity).

Acts as a Mg(2+) transporter. Can also transport other divalent cations such as Fe(2+), Sr(2+), Ba(2+), Mn(2+), Cu(2+) and Co(2+) but to a much less extent than Mg(2+) (By similarity).

Acts as a Mg(2+) transporter. Can also transport other divalent cations such as Ba(2+), Mn(2+), Sr(2+) and Co(2+) but to a much less extent than Mg(2+) (By similarity). May be a receptor for ligands (trioxilins A3 and B3) from the hepoxilin pathway.

Plays an important role in the loading of the cohesin complex on to DNA. Forms a heterodimeric complex (also known as cohesin loading complex) with MAU2/SCC4 which mediates the loading of the cohesin complex onto chromatin. Plays a role in cohesin loading at sites of DNA damage. Its recruitment to double- strand breaks (DSBs) sites occurs in a CBX3-, RNF8- and RNF168- dependent manner whereas its recruitment to UV irradiation-induced DNA damage sites occurs in a ATM-, ATR-, RNF8- and RNF168-dependent manner. Along with ZNF609, promotes cortical neuron migration during brain development by regulating the transcription of crucial genes in this process. Preferentially binds promoters containing paused RNA polymerase II. Up-regulates the expression of SEMA3A, NRP1, PLXND1 and GABBR2 genes, among others (By similarity).

Acts either as the functional imidazoline-1 receptor (I1R) candidate or as a membrane-associated mediator of the I1R signaling. Binds numerous imidazoline ligands that induces initiation of cell- signaling cascades triggering to cell survival, growth and migration. Its activation by the agonist rilmenidine induces an increase in phosphorylation of mitogen-activated protein kinases MAPK1 and MAPK3 in rostral ventrolateral medulla (RVLM) neurons that exhibited rilmenidine-evoked hypotension (By similarity). Blocking its activation with efaroxan abolished rilmenidine-induced mitogen-activated protein kinase phosphorylation in RVLM neurons (By similarity). Acts as a modulator of Rac-regulated signal transduction pathways (By similarity). Suppresses Rac1-stimulated cell migration by interacting with PAK1 and inhibiting its kinase activity (By similarity). Also blocks Pak-independent Rac signaling by interacting with RAC1 and inhibiting Rac1-stimulated NF-kB response element and cyclin D1 promoter activation (By similarity). Inhibits also LIMK1 kinase activity by reducing LIMK1 'Tyr-508' phosphorylation (By similarity). Inhibits Rac-induced cell migration and invasion in breast and colon epithelial cells (By similarity). Inhibits lamellipodia formation, when overexpressed (By similarity). Plays a role in protection against apoptosis. Involved in association with IRS4 in the enhancement of insulin activation of MAPK1 and MAPK3. When overexpressed, induces a redistribution of cell surface ITGA5 integrin to intracellular endosomal structures.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of the amide bond in N-(4- oxoglutarate)-L-cysteinylglycine (deaminated glutathione), a metabolite repair reaction to dispose of the harmful deaminated glutathione. Plays a role in cell growth and apoptosis: loss of expression promotes cell growth, resistance to DNA damage stress and increased incidence to NMBA-induced tumors. Has tumor suppressor properties that enhances the apoptotic responsiveness in cancer cells; this effect is additive to the tumor suppressor activity of FHIT. It is also a negative regulator of primary T-cells.

Has omega-amidase activity. The role of omega-amidase is to remove potentially toxic intermediates by converting 2-oxoglutaramate and 2-oxosuccinamate to biologically useful 2-oxoglutarate and oxaloacetate, respectively.

As component of the WDR11 complex acts together with TBC1D23 to facilitate the golgin-mediated capture of vesicles generated using AP-1. May have a role in spermatogenesis.

This is a receptor for the tachykinin neuropeptide substance P. It is probably associated with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. The rank order of affinity of this receptor to tachykinins is: substance P > substance K > neuromedin-K

This is a receptor for the tachykinin neuropeptide substance K (neurokinin A). It is associated with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. The rank order of affinity of this receptor to tachykinins is: substance K > neuromedin-K > substance P.

This is a receptor for the tachykinin neuropeptide neuromedin-K (neurokinin B). It is associated with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. The rank order of affinity of this receptor to tachykinins is: neuromedin-K > substance K > substance P

Transcriptional repressor of Notch-mediated signaling. Required for spermatogenesis.

Acts as a transcriptional repressor. Plays a role as a transcriptional corepressor of the Notch-mediated signaling required for T-cell development. Also involved in the TNF and IL-1 induced NF-kappa-B activation. Associates with chromatin at the Notch- regulated SKP2 promoter.

Cell autonomous antagonist of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway. May activate a second Wnt signaling pathway that controls planar cell polarity.

Cell autonomous antagonist of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway. May activate a second Wnt signaling pathway that controls planar cell polarity (By similarity). Required for processing of TGFA and for targeting of TGFA to the basolateral membrane of polarized epithelial cells.

Immune inhibitory receptor involved in self-nonself discrimination. In complex with KLRD1 on cytotoxic and regulatory lymphocyte subsets, recognizes non-classical major histocompatibility (MHC) class Ib molecule HLA-E loaded with self-peptides derived from the signal sequence of classical MHC class Ia molecules. Enables cytotoxic cells to monitor the expression of MHC class I molecules in healthy cells and to tolerate self. Upon HLA-E-peptide binding, transmits intracellular signals through two immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibition motifs (ITIMs) by recruiting INPP5D/SHP-1 and INPPL1/SHP-2 tyrosine phosphatases to ITIMs, and ultimately opposing signals transmitted by activating receptors through dephosphorylation of proximal signaling molecules. Key inhibitory receptor on natural killer (NK) cells that regulates their activation and effector functions. Dominantly counteracts T cell receptor signaling on a subset of memory/effector CD8-positive T cells as part of an antigen- driven response to avoid autoimmunity. On intraepithelial CD8-positive gamma-delta regulatory T cells triggers TGFB1 secretion, which in turn limits the cytotoxic programming of intraepithelial CD8-positive alpha-beta T cells, distinguishing harmless from pathogenic antigens. In HLA-E-rich tumor microenvironment, acts as an immune inhibitory checkpoint and may contribute to progressive loss of effector functions of NK cells and tumor-specific T cells, a state known as cell exhaustion.

Immune activating receptor involved in self-nonself discrimination. In complex with KLRD1 on cytotoxic lymphocyte subsets, recognizes non-classical major histocompatibility (MHC) class Ib HLA-E loaded with signal sequence-derived peptides from non-classical MHC class Ib HLA-G molecules, likely playing a role in the generation and effector functions of adaptive natural killer (NK) cells and in maternal-fetal tolerance during pregnancy. Regulates the effector functions of terminally differentiated cytotoxic lymphocyte subsets, and in particular may play a role in adaptive NK cell response to viral infection. Upon HLA-E-peptide binding, transmits intracellular signals via the adapter protein TYROBP/DAP12, triggering the phosphorylation of proximal signaling molecules and cell activation.

Functions as an activating and costimulatory receptor involved in immunosurveillance upon binding to various cellular stress- inducible ligands displayed at the surface of autologous tumor cells and virus-infected cells. Provides both stimulatory and costimulatory innate immune responses on activated killer (NK) cells, leading to cytotoxic activity. Acts as a costimulatory receptor for T-cell receptor (TCR) in CD8(+) T-cell-mediated adaptive immune responses by amplifying T-cell activation. Stimulates perforin-mediated elimination of ligand-expressing tumor cells. Signaling involves calcium influx, culminating in the expression of TNF-alpha. Participates in NK cell- mediated bone marrow graft rejection. May play a regulatory role in differentiation and survival of NK cells. Binds to ligands belonging to various subfamilies of MHC class I-related glycoproteins including MICA, MICB, RAET1E, RAET1G, RAET1L/ULBP6, ULBP1, ULBP2, ULBP3 (ULBP2>ULBP1>ULBP3) and ULBP4.

Plays a role as a receptor for the recognition of MHC class I HLA-E molecules by NK cells and some cytotoxic T-cells

May play a role as a receptor for the recognition of MHC class I HLA-E molecules by NK cells

Regulates cytotoxic granule exocytosis in effector lymphocytes, thus acting as a critical mediator of inflammation in a broad range of infectious and non-infectious diseases (By similarity). Essential for cytotoxic degranulation of natural killer (NK) cells and CD8(+) T-cells and for the activation of CD4(+) T-cells following infection (By similarity). Plays a critical role in CD8(+) T-cell and NK cell-mediated cytolysis of target cells and contributes to the cytolytic activity via the perforin/granzyme pathway by enhancing exocytosis of LAMP1-carrying lytic granules (By similarity). Contributes to NK cell-mediated control of cancer metastasis (By similarity).

PPIase that catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in oligopeptides and may therefore assist protein folding. Component of a putative tumor-recognition complex involved in the function of NK cells.

May be required for the coordinated crosstalk of factors involved in the maintenance of energy homeostasis, possibly by regulating the transcription of specific factors involved in energy balance.

Transcription factor that binds and activates the promoter of thyroid specific genes such as thyroglobulin, thyroperoxidase, and thyrotropin receptor. Crucial in the maintenance of the thyroid differentiation phenotype. May play a role in lung development and surfactant homeostasis. Forms a regulatory loop with GRHL2 that coordinates lung epithelial cell morphogenesis and differentiation. Activates the transcription of GNRHR and plays a role in enhancing the circadian oscillation of its gene expression. Represses the transcription of the circadian transcriptional repressor NR1D1 (By similarity).

Transcriptional activator involved in the development of insulin-producting beta cells in the endocrine pancreas (By similarity). May also be involved in specifying diencephalic neuromeric boundaries, and in controlling the expression of genes that play a role in axonal guidance. Binds to elements within the NEUROD1 promoter (By similarity).

Transcription factor required for the development of the heart and the spleen. During heart development, acts as a transcriptional activator of NPPA/ANF in cooperation with GATA4 (By similarity). May cooperate with TBX2 to negatively modulate expression of NPPA/ANF in the atrioventricular canal (By similarity). Binds to the core DNA motif of NPPA promoter. Together with PBX1, required for spleen development through a mechanism that involves CDKN2B repression. Positively regulates transcription of genes such as COL3A1 and MMP2, resulting in increased pulmonary endothelial fibrosis in response to hypoxia.

Acts as a transcriptional activator. In conjunction with NKX2-5, may play a role in both pharyngeal and cardiac embryonic development.

Transcription factor, which binds preferentially the consensus sequence 5'-TAAGT[AG]-3' and can behave as a transcriptional repressor. Plays an important role in normal prostate development, regulating proliferation of glandular epithelium and in the formation of ducts in prostate. Acts as a tumor suppressor controlling prostate carcinogenesis, as shown by the ability to inhibit proliferation and invasion activities of PC-3 prostate cancer cells.

Transcriptional repressor that acts as a negative regulator of chondrocyte maturation. PLays a role in distal stomach development; required for proper antral-pyloric morphogenesis and development of antral-type epithelium. In concert with GSC, defines the structural components of the middle ear; required for tympanic ring and gonium development and in the regulation of the width of the malleus (By similarity).

Transcription factor which binds to specific A/T-rich DNA sequences in the promoter regions of a number of genes. Involved in the development of insulin-producing beta cells in the islets of Langerhans at the secondary transition (By similarity). Together with NKX2-2 and IRX3 acts to restrict the generation of motor neurons to the appropriate region of the neural tube. Belongs to the class II proteins of neuronal progenitor factors, which are induced by SHH signals (By similarity).

Transcription factor with repressor activity involved in the regulation of axon-glial interactions at myelin paranodes in oligodendrocytes. Binds to the consensus DNA sequence 5'-(A/T)TTAATGA- 3'. In oligodendrocytes, binds to MBP and PLP1 promoter regions.

Putative transcription factor, which may be involved in patterning of central nervous system and pancreas.

Plays a role in regulating Notch activity. Plays a role in regulating the expression of CDKN1A and several members of the Wnt pathway, probably via its effects on Notch activity. Required during embryogenesis for inner mass cell survival (By similarity).

Transmembrane scaffolding protein involved in cell-cell interactions via its interactions with neurexin family members. Mediates cell-cell interactions both in neurons and in other types of cells, such as Langerhans beta cells. Plays a role in synapse function and synaptic signal transmission, especially via gamma-aminobutyric acid receptors (GABA(A) receptors). Functions by recruiting and clustering synaptic proteins. Promotes clustering of postsynaptic GABRG2 and GPHN. Promotes clustering of postsynaptic LHFPL4 (By similarity). Modulates signaling by inhibitory synapses, and thereby plays a role in controlling the ratio of signaling by excitatory and inhibitory synapses and information processing. Required for normal signal amplitude from inhibitory synapses, but is not essential for normal signal frequency. May promote the initial formation of synapses, but is not essential for this. In vitro, triggers the de novo formation of presynaptic structures. Mediates cell-cell interactions between Langerhans beta cells and modulates insulin secretion (By similarity).

Cell surface protein involved in cell-cell-interactions via its interactions with neurexin family members. Plays a role in synapse function and synaptic signal transmission, and may mediate its effects by clustering other synaptic proteins. May promote the initial formation of synapses, but is not essential for this. May also play a role in glia-glia or glia-neuron interactions in the developing peripheral nervous system (By similarity).

Putative neuronal cell surface protein involved in cell-cell- interactions

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that regulates a number of transcription factors with key roles in cell fate determination. Positive effector of the non-canonical Wnt signaling pathway, acting downstream of WNT5A, MAP3K7/TAK1 and HIPK2. Negative regulator of the canonical Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway. Binds to and phosphorylates TCF7L2/TCF4 and LEF1, promoting the dissociation of the TCF7L2/LEF1/beta-catenin complex from DNA, as well as the ubiquitination and subsequent proteolysis of LEF1. Together these effects inhibit the transcriptional activation of canonical Wnt/beta- catenin target genes. Negative regulator of the Notch signaling pathway. Binds to and phosphorylates NOTCH1, thereby preventing the formation of a transcriptionally active ternary complex of NOTCH1, RBPJ/RBPSUH and MAML1. Negative regulator of the MYB family of transcription factors. Phosphorylation of MYB leads to its subsequent proteolysis while phosphorylation of MYBL1 and MYBL2 inhibits their interaction with the coactivator CREBBP. Other transcription factors may also be inhibited by direct phosphorylation of CREBBP itself. Acts downstream of IL6 and MAP3K7/TAK1 to phosphorylate STAT3, which is in turn required for activation of NLK by MAP3K7/TAK1. Upon IL1B stimulus, cooperates with ATF5 to activate the transactivation activity of C/EBP subfamily members. Phosphorylates ATF5 but also stabilizes ATF5 protein levels in a kinase-independent manner.

Negative regulator of the innate immune response. Attenuates signaling pathways activated by Toll-like receptors (TLRs) and the DNA sensor STING/TMEM173 in response to pathogen-associated molecular patterns, such as intracellular poly(dA:dT), but not poly(I:C), or in response to DNA virus infection, including that of Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV1) (By similarity). May affect TLR4 signaling by acting at the level of TRAF6 ubiquitination, decreasing the activating 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination and leaving unchanged the degradative 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitination. Inhibits the PI3K-AKT-mTOR pathway possibly by directly interacting with the posphatidylinositol 3-kinase regulatory subunit p85 (PIK3R1/PIK3R2) and disrupting the association between PIK3R1/PIK3R2 and the catalytic subunit p110 (PIK3CA/PIK3CB/PIK3CD) and reducing PIK3R1/PIK3R2 activation. Via its regulation of the PI3K-AKT-mTOR pathway, controls cell proliferation, predominantly in intestinal epithelial cells (By similarity). May also affect NOD1- or NOD2-mediated NF-kappa-B activation. Might also affect the inflammatory response by preventing NLRP3 inflammasome formation, CASP1 cleavage and IL1B maturation.

Key component of inflammasomes that indirectly senses specific proteins from pathogenic bacteria and fungi and responds by assembling an inflammasome complex that promotes caspase-1 activation, cytokine production and macrophage pyroptosis. The NLRC4 inflammasome is activated as part of the innate immune response to a range of intracellular bacteria (By similarity).

Probable regulator of the NF-kappa-B and type I interferon signaling pathways. May also regulate the type II interferon signaling pathway. Plays a role in homeostatic control of innate immunity and in antiviral defense mechanisms.

Acts as the sensor component of the NLRP1 inflammasome, which mediates inflammasome activation in response to various pathogen- associated signals, leading to subsequent pyroptosis. Inflammasomes are supramolecular complexes that assemble in the cytosol in response to pathogens and other damage- associated signals and play critical roles in innate immunity and inflammation. Acts as a recognition receptor (PRR): recognizes specific pathogens and other damage-associated signals, such as cleavage by some human enteroviruses and rhinoviruses, double-stranded RNA, UV-B irradiation, or Val-boroPro inhibitor, and mediates the formation of the inflammasome polymeric complex composed of NLRP1, CASP1 and PYCARD/ASC. In response to pathogen-associated signals, the N-terminal part of NLRP1 is degraded by the proteasome, releasing the cleaved C-terminal part of the protein (NACHT, LRR and PYD domains-containing protein 1, C-terminus), which polymerizes and associates with PYCARD/ASC to initiate the formation of the inflammasome complex: the NLRP1 inflammasome recruits pro-caspase-1 (proCASP1) and promotes caspase-1 (CASP1) activation, which subsequently cleaves and activates inflammatory cytokines IL1B and IL18 and gasdermin-D (GSDMD), leading to pyroptosis. In the absence of GSDMD expression, the NLRP1 inflammasome is able to recruit and activate CASP8, leading to activation of gasdermin-E (GSDME). Activation of NLRP1 inflammasome is also required for HMGB1 secretion; the active cytokines and HMGB1 stimulate inflammatory responses. Binds ATP and shows ATPase activity. Plays an important role in antiviral immunity and inflammation in the human airway epithelium. Specifically recognizes a number of pathogen-associated signals: upon infection by human rhinoviruses 14 and 16 (HRV-14 and HRV-16), NLRP1 is cleaved and activated which triggers NLRP1-dependent inflammasome activation and IL18 secretion. Positive-strand RNA viruses, such as Semliki forest virus and long dsRNA activate the NLRP1 inflammasome, triggering IL1B release in a NLRP1-dependent fashion. Acts as a direct sensor for long dsRNA and thus RNA virus infection. May also be activated by muramyl dipeptide (MDP), a fragment of bacterial peptidoglycan, in a NOD2- dependent manner. The NLRP1 inflammasome is also activated in response to UV-B irradiation causing ribosome collisions: ribosome collisions cause phosphorylation and activation of NLRP1 in a MAP3K20-dependent manner, leading to pyroptosis.

Acts as the sensor component of the NLRP6 inflammasome, which mediates inflammasome activation in response to various pathogen- associated signals, leading to maturation and secretion of IL1B and IL18. Inflammasomes are supramolecular complexes that assemble in the cytosol in response to pathogens and other damage-associated signals and play critical roles in innate immunity and inflammation. Acts as a recognition receptor (PRR): recognizes and binds specific pathogens and other damage-associated signals, such as lipoteichoic acid (LTA), a cell-wall component of Gram-positive bacteria, or double stranded RNA (dsRNA). May also recognize and bind lipopolysaccharide (LPS), a major component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria; however, LPS is probably not a major activator of the NLRP6 inflammasome. Following LTA- or dsRNA-binding, NLRP6 undergoes liquid-liquid phase separation (LLPS), enhancing multivalent interactions, an essential step for the formation of the NLRP6 inflammasome polymeric complex. The NLRP6 inflammasome acts by promoting recruitment of effector pro-inflammatory caspases (CASP1 and/or CASP4) that catalyze maturation and secretion of IL1B and IL18 in the extracellular milieu. The NLRP6 inflammasome plays a central role in the maintenance of epithelial integrity and host defense against microbial infections in the intestine. Required to restrict infection against Gram-positive bacteria by recognizing lipoteichoic acid (LTA), leading to recruitment of CASP4 and CASP1, and subsequent maturation and secretion of IL1B and IL18. Involved in intestinal antiviral innate immunity together with DHX15: recognizes and binds viral dsRNA to restrict infection by enteric viruses through the interferon pathway and GSDMD-dependent release of IL18. Required to prevent infection by the apicomplexan parasite Cryptosporidium in enterocytes by promoting GSDMD-dependent release of IL18 (By similarity). The NLRP6 inflammasome may also regulate the gut microbiota composition by acting as a sensor of microbiota-associated metabolites to form a PYCARD/ASC-dependent inflammasome for downstream IL18 release and secretion of antimicrobial peptides (By similarity). Essential for gut mucosal self-renewal and proliferation (By similarity). Regulate mucus secretion in an inflammasome- and autophagy-dependent manner to prevent invasion by enteric bacteria, (By similarity). During systemic bacterial infections, the NLRP6 inflammasome negatively regulates neutrophil recruitment and neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) formation (By similarity). May promote peripheral nerve recovery following injury via an inflammasome-independent mechanism (By similarity).

As the sensor component of the NLRP9 inflammasome, plays a crucial role in innate immunity and inflammation. In response to pathogens, including rotavirus, initiates the formation of the inflammasome polymeric complex, made of NLRP9, PYCARD and CASP1. Recruitment of proCASP1 to the inflammasome promotes its activation and CASP1-catalyzed IL1B and IL18 maturation and release in the extracellular milieu. The active cytokines stimulate inflammatory responses. Inflammasomes can also induce pyroptosis, an inflammatory form of programmed cell death. NLRP9 inflammasome activation may be initiated by DHX9 interaction with viral double-stranded RNA (dsRNA), preferentially to short dsRNA segments.

Participates in antiviral signaling. Acts as a negative regulator of MAVS-mediated antiviral responses, through the inhibition of the virus-induced RLH (RIG-like helicase)-MAVS interaction. Instead, promotes autophagy by interacting with TUFM and subsequently recruiting the autophagy-related proteins ATG5 and ATG12. Regulates also MAVS-dependent NLRP3 inflammasome activation to attenuate apoptosis. Has no inhibitory function on NF-kappa-B signaling pathway, but enhances NF-kappa-B and JUN N-terminal kinase dependent signaling through the production of reactive oxygen species. Regulates viral mediated-inflammation and energy metabolism in a sex-dependent manner (By similarity). In females, prevents uncontrolled inflammation and energy metabolism and thus, may contribute to the sex differences observed in infectious and inflammatory diseases (By similarity).

Sodium-dependent lysophosphatidylcholine (LPC) symporter, which plays an essential role for blood-brain barrier formation and function. Specifically expressed in endothelium of the blood-brain barrier of micro-vessels and transports LPC into the brain (By similarity). Transport of LPC is essential because it constitutes the major mechanism by which docosahexaenoic acid (DHA), an omega-3 fatty acid that is essential for normal brain growth and cognitive function, enters the brain. Transports LPC carrying long-chain fatty acids such LPC oleate and LPC palmitate with a minimum acyl chain length of 14 carbons (By similarity). Does not transport docosahexaenoic acid in unesterified fatty acid (By similarity). Specifically required for blood-brain barrier formation and function, probably by mediating lipid transport (By similarity). Not required for central nervous system vascular morphogenesis (By similarity). Acts as a transporter for tunicamycin, an inhibitor of asparagine-linked glycosylation. In placenta, acts as a receptor for ERVFRD-1/syncytin-2 and is required for trophoblast fusion.

Receptor for neuromedin-B. Contributes to the maintenance of basal sigh rate through signaling in the pre- Botzinger complex, a cluster of several thousand neurons in the ventrolateral medulla responsible for inspiration during respiratory activity (By similarity). Contributes to the induction of sneezing following exposure to chemical irritants or allergens which causes release of NMB by nasal sensory neurons and activation of NMBR- expressing neurons in the sneeze-evoking region of the brainstem (By similarity). These in turn activate neurons of the caudal ventral respiratory group, giving rise to the sneezing response (By similarity). Contributes to induction of acute itch, possibly through its activation on dorsal root ganglion neurons by the NMB peptide (By similarity). Plays a role in the innate immune response to influenza A virus infection by enhancing interferon alpha expression and reducing expression of IL6. Plays a role in CSF1-induced proliferation of osteoclast precursors by contributing to the positive regulation of the expression of the CSF1 receptor CSF1R (By similarity).

Stimulates smooth muscle contraction (By similarity). Induces sighing by acting directly on the pre-Botzinger complex, a cluster of several thousand neurons in the ventrolateral medulla responsible for inspiration during respiratory activity (By similarity). Contributes to the induction of sneezing following exposure to chemical irritants or allergens which causes release of NMB by nasal sensory neurons and activation of NMBR-expressing neurons in the sneeze-evoking region of the brainstem (By similarity). These in turn activate neurons of the caudal ventral respiratory group, giving rise to the sneezing response (By similarity). Contributes to induction of acute itch, possibly through activation of the NMBR receptor on dorsal root ganglion neurons (By similarity). Increases expression of NMBR and steroidogenic mediators STAR, CYP11A1 and HSD3B1 in Leydig cells, induces secretion of testosterone by Leydig cells and also promotes Leydig cell proliferation (By similarity). Plays a role in the innate immune response to influenza A virus infection by enhancing interferon alpha expression and reducing expression of IL6. Plays a role in CSF1-induced proliferation of osteoclast precursors by contributing to the positive regulation of the expression of the CSF1 receptor CSF1R (By similarity).

NMDA receptor subtype of glutamate-gated ion channels with reduced single-channel conductance, low calcium permeability and low voltage-dependent sensitivity to magnesium. Mediated by glycine. During the development of neural circuits, plays a role in the synaptic refinement period, restricting spine maturation and growth. By competing with GIT1 interaction with ARHGEF7/beta-PIX, may reduce GIT1/ARHGEF7-regulated local activation of RAC1, hence affecting signaling and limiting the maturation and growth of inactive synapses. May also play a role in PPP2CB-NMDAR mediated signaling mechanism.

NMDA receptor subtype of glutamate-gated ion channels with reduced single-channel conductance, low calcium permeability and low voltage-dependent sensitivity to magnesium. Mediated by glycine

Acts as an adapter for the XPO1/CRM1-mediated export of the 60S ribosomal subunit.

Component of NMDA receptor complexes that function as heterotetrameric, ligand-gated ion channels with high calcium permeability and voltage-dependent sensitivity to magnesium. Channel activation requires binding of the neurotransmitter glutamate to the epsilon subunit, glycine binding to the zeta subunit, plus membrane depolarization to eliminate channel inhibition by Mg(2+). Sensitivity to glutamate and channel kinetics depend on the subunit composition; channels containing GRIN1 and GRIN2A have lower sensitivity to glutamate and faster deactivation kinetics than channels formed by GRIN1 and GRIN2B. Contributes to the slow phase of excitatory postsynaptic current, long- term synaptic potentiation, and learning (By similarity).

Component of NMDA receptor complexes that function as heterotetrameric, ligand-gated ion channels with high calcium permeability and voltage-dependent sensitivity to magnesium. Channel activation requires binding of the neurotransmitter glutamate to the epsilon subunit, glycine binding to the zeta subunit, plus membrane depolarization to eliminate channel inhibition by Mg(2+). Sensitivity to glutamate and channel kinetics depend on the subunit composition. In concert with DAPK1 at extrasynaptic sites, acts as a central mediator for stroke damage. Its phosphorylation at Ser-1303 by DAPK1 enhances synaptic NMDA receptor channel activity inducing injurious Ca2+ influx through them, resulting in an irreversible neuronal death. Contributes to neural pattern formation in the developing brain. Plays a role in long-term depression (LTD) of hippocampus membrane currents and in synaptic plasticity (By similarity).

Component of NMDA receptor complexes that function as heterotetrameric, ligand-gated ion channels with high calcium permeability and voltage-dependent sensitivity to magnesium. Channel activation requires binding of the neurotransmitter glutamate to the epsilon subunit, glycine binding to the zeta subunit, plus membrane depolarization to eliminate channel inhibition by Mg(2+). Sensitivity to glutamate and channel kinetics depend on the subunit composition (Probable). Plays a role in regulating the balance between excitatory and inhibitory activity of pyramidal neurons in the prefrontal cortex. Contributes to the slow phase of excitatory postsynaptic current, long-term synaptic potentiation, and learning (By similarity).

Component of NMDA receptor complexes that function as heterotetrameric, ligand-gated ion channels with high calcium permeability and voltage-dependent sensitivity to magnesium. Channel activation requires binding of the neurotransmitter glutamate to the epsilon subunit, glycine binding to the zeta subunit, plus membrane depolarization to eliminate channel inhibition by Mg(2+). Sensitivity to glutamate and channel kinetics depend on the subunit composition.

Acts as a signaling pathway regulator involved in innate immune system response. In response to interleukin 2/IL2 and interferon IFN-gamma/IFNG, interacts with signal transducer and activator of transcription/STAT which activate the transcription of downstream genes involved in a multitude of signals for development and homeostasis. Enhances the recruitment of CBP/p300 coactivators to STAT1 and STAT5, resulting in increased STAT1- and STAT5-dependent transcription. In response to interferon IFN-alpha, associates in a complex with signaling pathway regulator IFI35 to regulate immune response; the complex formation prevents proteasome-mediated degradation of IFI35. In complex with IFI35, inhibits virus-triggered type I IFN-beta production when ubiquitinated by ubiquitin-protein ligase TRIM21. In complex with IFI35, negatively regulates nuclear factor NF-kappa-B signaling by inhibiting the nuclear translocation, activation and transcription of NF-kappa-B subunit p65/RELA, resulting in the inhibition of endothelial cell proliferation, migration and re-endothelialization of injured arteries. Negatively regulates virus-triggered type I interferon/IFN production by inducing proteosome-dependent degradation of IRF7, a transcriptional regulator of type I IFN, thereby interfering with cellular antiviral responses (By similarity). Beside its role as an intracellular signaling pathway regulator, also functions extracellularly as damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) to promote inflammation, when actively released by macrophage to the extracellular space during cell injury or pathogen invasion. Macrophage-secreted NMI activates NF-kappa-B signaling in adjacent macrophages through Toll-like receptor 4/TLR4 binding and activation, thereby inducing NF-kappa-B translocation from the cytoplasm into the nucleus which promotes the release of pro- inflammatory cytokines.

Catalyzes the formation of NAD(+) from nicotinamide mononucleotide (NMN) and ATP. Can also use the deamidated form; nicotinic acid mononucleotide (NaMN) as substrate with the same efficiency. Can use triazofurin monophosphate (TrMP) as substrate. Also catalyzes the reverse reaction, i.e. the pyrophosphorolytic cleavage of NAD(+). For the pyrophosphorolytic activity, prefers NAD(+) and NaAD as substrates and degrades NADH, nicotinic acid adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NHD) and nicotinamide guanine dinucleotide (NGD) less effectively. Involved in the synthesis of ATP in the nucleus, together with PARP1, PARG and NUDT5. Nuclear ATP generation is required for extensive chromatin remodeling events that are energy-consuming. Also acts as a cofactor for glutamate and aspartate ADP-ribosylation by directing PARP1 catalytic activity to glutamate and aspartate residues on histones (By similarity). Fails to cleave phosphorylated dinucleotides NADP(+), NADPH and NaADP(+). Protects against axonal degeneration following mechanical or toxic insults (By similarity).

Nicotinamide/nicotinate-nucleotide adenylyltransferase that acts as an axon maintenance factor (By similarity). Axon survival factor required for the maintenance of healthy axons: acts by delaying Wallerian axon degeneration, an evolutionarily conserved process that drives the loss of damaged axons (By similarity). Catalyzes the formation of NAD(+) from nicotinamide mononucleotide (NMN) and ATP. Can also use the deamidated form; nicotinic acid mononucleotide (NaMN) as substrate but with a lower efficiency. Cannot use triazofurin monophosphate (TrMP) as substrate. Also catalyzes the reverse reaction, i.e. the pyrophosphorolytic cleavage of NAD(+). For the pyrophosphorolytic activity prefers NAD(+), NADH and NaAD as substrates and degrades nicotinic acid adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NHD) less effectively. Fails to cleave phosphorylated dinucleotides NADP(+), NADPH and NaADP(+). Also acts as an activator of ADP- ribosylation by supporting the catalytic activity of PARP16 and promoting mono-ADP-ribosylation of ribosomes by PARP16.

Redox sensor protein. Undergoes restructuring and subcellular redistribution in response to changes in intracellular NADPH/NADP(+) levels. At low NADPH concentrations the protein is found mainly as a monomer, and binds argininosuccinate synthase (ASS1), the enzyme involved in nitric oxide synthesis. Association with ASS1 impairs its activity and reduces the production of nitric oxide, which subsecuently prevents apoptosis. Under normal NADPH concentrations, the protein is found as a dimer and hides the binding site for ASS1. The homodimer binds one molecule of NADPH. Has higher affinity for NADPH than for NADP(+). Binding to NADPH is necessary to form a stable dimer.

Implicated in the regulation of circadian rhythms through autocrine and/or paracrine actions.

Adds a myristoyl group to the N-terminal glycine residue of certain cellular and viral proteins. Also able to mediate N-terminal lysine myristoylation of proteins: catalyzes myristoylation of ARF6 on both 'Gly-2' and 'Lys-3'. Lysine myristoylation is required to maintain ARF6 on membranes during the GTPase cycle.

[Neuromedin-U-25]: Ligand for receptors NMUR1 and NMUR2 (By similarity). Stimulates muscle contractions of specific regions of the gastrointestinal tract. In humans, NmU stimulates contractions of the ileum and urinary bladder.

May participate in the maintenance of segment identity in the hindbrain and pituitary development, and maturation or maintenance of the overall structure of the nervous system. May function as a regulatory subunit of ion channels

Catalyzes the N-methylation of nicotinamide using the universal methyl donor S-adenosyl-L-methionine to form N1- methylnicotinamide and S-adenosyl-L-homocysteine, a predominant nicotinamide/vitamin B3 clearance pathway (PubMed:8182091. PubMed:21823666, PubMed:23455543). Plays a central role in regulating cellular methylation potential, by consuming S-adenosyl-L-methionine and limiting its availability for other methyltransferases. Actively mediates genome-wide epigenetic and transcriptional changes through hypomethylation of repressive chromatin marks, such as H3K27me3. In a developmental context, contributes to low levels of the repressive histone marks that characterize pluripotent embryonic stem cell pre-implantation state. Acts as a metabolic regulator primarily on white adipose tissue energy expenditure as well as hepatic gluconeogenesis and cholesterol biosynthesis. In white adipocytes, regulates polyamine flux by consuming S-adenosyl-L-methionine which provides for propylamine group in polyamine biosynthesis, whereas by consuming nicotinamide controls NAD(+) levels through the salvage pathway (By similarity). Via its product N1-methylnicotinamide regulates protein acetylation in hepatocytes, by repressing the ubiquitination and increasing the stability of SIRT1 deacetylase (By similarity). Can also N-methylate other pyridines structurally related to nicotinamide and play a role in xenobiotic detoxification.

Catalyzes the epimerization of the S- and R-forms of NAD(P)HX, a damaged form of NAD(P)H that is a result of enzymatic or heat-dependent hydration. This is a prerequisite for the S-specific NAD(P)H-hydrate dehydratase to allow the repair of both epimers of NAD(P)HX. Accelerates cholesterol efflux from endothelial cells to high-density lipoprotein (HDL) and thereby regulates angiogenesis.

The transhydrogenation between NADH and NADP is coupled to respiration and ATP hydrolysis and functions as a proton pump across the membrane (By similarity). May play a role in reactive oxygen species (ROS) detoxification in the adrenal gland.

Involved in regulation of mitochondrial protein translation and respiration. Plays a role in mitochondria-mediated cell death. May act as a scaffolding protein or stabilizer of respiratory chain supercomplexes. Binds GTP.

May play a role in mRNA degradation (Probable). Endonuclease required for processing of 20S pre-rRNA precursor and biogenesis of 40S ribosomal subunits (By similarity).

Transcription factor which may play a role in oogenesis. Binds preferentially to the DNA sequences 5'-TAATTG-3', 5'-TAGTTG-3' and 5'-TAATTA-3'.

Acts as an inhibitor of histone acetyltransferase activity; prevents acetylation of all core histones by the EP300/p300 histone acetyltransferase at p53/TP53-regulated target promoters in a histone deacetylases (HDAC)-independent manner. Acts as a transcription corepressor of p53/TP53- and TP63-mediated transactivation of the p21/CDKN1A promoter. Involved in the regulation of p53/TP53-dependent apoptosis. Associates together with TP63 isoform TA*-gamma to the p21/CDKN1A promoter.

Phosphatase which catalyzes the conversion of NADP(+) to NAD(+) and of NADPH to NADH. Shows a small preference for NADPH over NADP(+). Represses translation and promotes degradation of target mRNA molecules. Plays an important role in post-transcriptional regulation of metabolic genes under circadian control (By similarity). Exerts a rhythmic post- transcriptional control of genes necessary for metabolic functions including nutrient absorption, glucose/insulin sensitivity, lipid metabolism, adipogenesis, inflammation and osteogenesis (By similarity). Plays an important role in favoring adipogenesis over osteoblastogenesis and acts as a key regulator of the adipogenesis/osteogenesis balance (By similarity). Promotes adipogenesis by facilitating PPARG nuclear translocation which activates its transcriptional activity (By similarity). Regulates circadian expression of NOS2 in the liver and negatively regulates the circadian expression of IGF1 in the bone (By similarity). Critical for proper development of early embryos (By similarity).

Pattern recognition receptor (PRR) that detects bacterial peptidoglycan fragments and other danger signals and thus participates in both innate and adaptive immune responses. Ligand binding triggers oligomerization that facilitates the binding and subsequent activation of the receptor interacting protein-2/RIPK2. RIPK2 subsequently recruits the kinase TAK1 to activate NF-kappa-B and MAPK signaling pathways. Regulates also antiviral response elicited by dsRNA and the expression of RLR pathway members by targeting IFIH1 and TRAF3 to modulate the formation of IFIH1-MAVS and TRAF3-MAVS complexes leading to increased transcription of type I IFNs. Besides recognizing pathogens, participates in surveillance of cellular homeostasis through sensing and binding to the cytosolic metabolite sphingosine-1-phosphate and then initating inflammation process. In addition, plays a role in insulin trafficking in beta cells in a cell-autonomous manner. Mechanistically, upon recognizing cognate ligands, NOD1 and RIPK2 localize to insulin vesicles where they recruit RAB1A to direct insulin trafficking through the cytoplasm (By similarity).

Pattern recognition receptor (PRR) that detects bacterial peptidoglycan fragments and other danger signals and plays an important role in gastrointestinal immunity. Upon stimulation by muramyl dipeptide (MDP), a fragment of bacterial peptidoglycan, binds the proximal adapter receptor-interacting RIPK2, which recruits ubiquitin ligases as XIAP, BIRC2, BIRC3, INAVA and the LUBAC complex, triggering activation of MAP kinases and activation of NF-kappa-B signaling. This in turn leads to the transcriptional activation of hundreds of genes involved in immune response. Required for MDP-induced NLRP1-dependent CASP1 activation and IL1B release in macrophages. Component of an autophagy-mediated antibacterial pathway together with ATG16L1. Also plays a role in sensing single-stranded RNA (ssRNA) from viruses. Interacts with mitochondrial antiviral signaling/MAVS, leading to activation of interferon regulatory factor- 3/IRF3 and expression of type I interferon. Besides recognizing pathogens, participates in surveillance of cellular homeostasis through sensing and binding to the cytosolic metabolite sphingosine-1-phosphate and then initating inflammation process.

Essential for mesoderm formation and axial patterning during embryonic development.

Contributes to the regulation of axonal growth in the embryonic and adult central nervous system by inhibiting interactions between RTN4R and LINGO1. Inhibits RTN4R-mediated axon growth cone collapse (By similarity). May play an important role in regulating the production of neural crest cells by the neural tube (By similarity). May be required for normal responses to olfactory stimuli (By similarity).

Involved in transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta)- induced smooth muscle differentiation. TGF-beta induces expression and translocation of OLFM2 to the nucleus where it binds to SRF, causing its dissociation from the transcriptional repressor HEY2/HERP1 and facilitating binding of SRF to target genes. Plays a role in AMPAR complex organization (By similarity). Is a regulator of vascular smooth-muscle cell (SMC) phenotypic switching, that acts by promoting RUNX2 and inhibiting MYOCD binding to SRF. SMC phenotypic switching is the process through which vascular SMCs undergo transition between a quiescent contractile phenotype and a proliferative synthetic phenotype in response to pathological stimuli. SMC phenotypic plasticity is essential for vascular development and remodeling (By similarity).

GTPase that associates with pre-60S ribosomal subunits in the nucleolus and is required for their nuclear export and maturation. May promote cell proliferation possibly by increasing p53/TP53 protein levels, and consequently those of its downstream product CDKN1A/p21, and decreasing RPL23A protein levels.

Inhibitor of bone morphogenetic proteins (BMP) signaling which is required for growth and patterning of the neural tube and somite. Essential for cartilage morphogenesis and joint formation. Inhibits chondrocyte differentiation through its interaction with GDF5 and, probably, GDF6.

Ribosome biogenesis factor. May be required for both optimal rDNA transcription and small subunit (SSU) pre-rRNA processing at sites A', A0, 1 and 2b.

Plays an essential role in the survival of diffuse-type gastric cancer cells. Acts as a nucleolar anchoring protein for DDX47. May be involved in regulation of gene expression at the post- transcriptional level or in ribosome biogenesis in cancer cells.

Polynucleotide 5'-kinase involved in rRNA processing. The kinase activity is required for the processing of the 32S precursor into 5.8S and 28S rRNAs, more specifically for the generation of the major 5.8S(S) form. In vitro, has both DNA and RNA 5'-kinase activities. Probably binds RNA.

Nucleolar protein that acts as a regulator of RNA polymerase I by connecting RNA polymerase I with enzymes responsible for ribosomal processing and modification. Required for neural crest specification: following monoubiquitination by the BCR(KBTBD8) complex, associates with TCOF1 and acts as a platform to connect RNA polymerase I with enzymes responsible for ribosomal processing and modification, leading to remodel the translational program of differentiating cells in favor of neural crest specification. Involved in nucleologenesis, possibly by playing a role in the maintenance of the fundamental structure of the fibrillar center and dense fibrillar component in the nucleolus. It has intrinsic GTPase and ATPase activities.

Component of a ribosome-associated endoplasmic reticulum (ER) translocon complex involved in multi-pass membrane protein transport into the ER membrane and biogenesis. May antagonize Nodal signaling and subsequent organization of axial structures during mesodermal patterning, via its interaction with NCLN/Nicalin (By similarity).

DNA- and RNA binding protein, involved in several nuclear processes. Binds the conventional octamer sequence in double-stranded DNA. Also binds single- stranded DNA and RNA at a site independent of the duplex site. Involved in pre- mRNA splicing, probably as a heterodimer with SFPQ. Interacts with U5 snRNA, probably by binding to a purine-rich sequence located on the 3' side of U5 snRNA stem 1b. Together with PSPC1, required for the formation of nuclear paraspeckles. The SFPQ-NONO heteromer associated with MATR3 may play a role in nuclear retention of defective RNAs. The SFPQ-NONO heteromer may be involved in DNA unwinding by modulating the function of topoisomerase I/TOP1. The SFPQ-NONO heteromer may be involved in DNA non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) required for double-strand break repair and V(D)J recombination and may stabilize paired DNA ends. In vitro, the complex strongly stimulates DNA end joining, binds directly to the DNA substrates and cooperates with the Ku70/G22P1-Ku80/XRCC5 (Ku) dimer to establish a functional preligation complex. NONO is involved in transcriptional regulation. The SFPQ-NONO-NR5A1 complex binds to the CYP17 promoter and regulates basal and cAMP-dependent transcriptional activity. NONO binds to an enhancer element in long terminal repeats of endogenous intracisternal A particles (IAPs) and activates transcription (By similarity). Regulates the circadian clock by repressing the transcriptional activator activity of the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer (By similarity). Important for the functional organization of GABAergic synapses (By similarity). Plays a specific and important role in the regulation of synaptic RNAs and GPHN/gephyrin scaffold structure, through the regulation of GABRA2 transcript (By similarity). Plays a key role during neuronal differentiation by recruiting TET1 to genomic loci and thereby regulating 5-hydroxymethylcytosine levels (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of DNA virus-mediated innate immune response by assembling into the HDP-RNP complex, a complex that serves as a platform for IRF3 phosphorylation and subsequent innate immune response activation through the cGAS-STING pathway. Promotes activation of the cGAS-STING pathway in response to HIV-2 infection: acts by interacting with HIV-2 Capsid protein p24, thereby promoting detection of viral DNA by CGAS, leading to CGAS-mediated inmmune activation. In contrast, the weak interaction with HIV-1 Capsid protein p24 does not allow activation of the cGAS-STING pathway.

Involved in nucleolar processing of pre-18S ribosomal RNA. Has a role in the nuclear export of 40S pre-ribosomal subunit to the cytoplasm (By similarity).

Involved in ribosomal large subunit assembly. S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that specifically methylates the C(5) position of cytosine 4447 in 28S rRNA (Probable). May play a role in the regulation of the cell cycle and the increased nucleolar activity that is associated with the cell proliferation (Probable).

Nucleolar protein which is involved in the integration of the 5S RNP into the ribosomal large subunit during ribosome biogenesis. In ribosome biogenesis, may also play a role in rRNA transcription. Also functions as a nucleolar sensor that regulates the activation of p53/TP53 in response to ribosome biogenesis perturbation, DNA damage and other stress conditions. DNA damage or perturbation of ribosome biogenesis disrupt the interaction between NOP53 and RPL11 allowing RPL11 transport to the nucleoplasm where it can inhibit MDM2 and allow p53/TP53 activation. It may also positively regulate the function of p53/TP53 in cell cycle arrest and apoptosis through direct interaction, preventing its MDM2-dependent ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation. Originally identified as a tumor suppressor, it may also play a role in cell proliferation and apoptosis by positively regulating the stability of PTEN, thereby antagonizing the PI3K-AKT/PKB signaling pathway. May also inhibit cell proliferation and increase apoptosis through its interaction with NF2. May negatively regulate NPM1 by regulating its nucleoplasmic localization, oligomerization and ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation. Thereby, may prevent NPM1 interaction with MYC and negatively regulate transcription mediated by the MYC-NPM1 complex. May also regulate cellular aerobic respiration. In the cellular response to viral infection, may play a role in the attenuation of interferon-beta through the inhibition of RIGI.

Involved in the early to middle stages of 60S ribosomal subunit biogenesis. Core component of box C/D small nucleolar ribonucleoprotein (snoRNP) particles. Required for the biogenesis of box C/D snoRNAs such U3, U8 and U14 snoRNAs.

Required for 60S ribosomal subunit biogenesis (By similarity). Core component of box C/D small nucleolar ribonucleoprotein (snoRNP) particles. Required for the biogenesis of box C/D snoRNAs such as U3, U8 and U14 snoRNAs.

Client-loading PAQosome/R2TP complex cofactor that selects NOP58 to promote box C/D small nucleolar ribonucleoprotein (snoRNP) assembly. Acts as a bridge between NOP58 and the R2TP complex via RUVBL1:RUVBL2.

Produces nitric oxide (NO) which is a messenger molecule with diverse functions throughout the body. In the brain and peripheral nervous system, NO displays many properties of a neurotransmitter. Probably has nitrosylase activity and mediates cysteine S-nitrosylation of cytoplasmic target proteins such SRR

Produces nitric oxide (NO) which is a messenger molecule with diverse functions throughout the body. In macrophages, NO mediates tumoricidal and bactericidal actions. Also has nitrosylase activity and mediates cysteine S-nitrosylation of cytoplasmic target proteins such PTGS2/COX2 (By similarity). As component of the iNOS-S100A8/9 transnitrosylase complex involved in the selective inflammatory stimulus-dependent S-nitrosylation of GAPDH on 'Cys-247' implicated in regulation of the GAIT complex activity and probably multiple targets including ANXA5, EZR, MSN and VIM. Involved in inflammation, enhances the synthesis of pro-inflammatory mediators such as IL6 and IL8.

Produces nitric oxide (NO) which is implicated in vascular smooth muscle relaxation through a cGMP-mediated signal transduction pathway. NO mediates vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)-induced angiogenesis in coronary vessels and promotes blood clotting through the activation of platelets.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that is essential for proper development of the forebrain, the eye, and the face. Catalyzes monoubiquitination of serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) catalytic subunit PPP2CA/PPP2CB (By similarity). Negatively regulates nitric oxide production by inducing NOS1 and NOS3 translocation to actin cytoskeleton and inhibiting their enzymatic activity.

Multivalent adapter protein which may decrease NOS3 activity by inducing its translocation away from the plasma membrane.

Functions as a receptor for membrane-bound ligands Jagged-1 (JAG1), Jagged-2 (JAG2) and Delta-1 (DLL1) to regulate cell-fate determination. Upon ligand activation through the released notch intracellular domain (NICD) it forms a transcriptional activator complex with RBPJ/RBPSUH and activates genes of the enhancer of split locus. Affects the implementation of differentiation, proliferation and apoptotic programs. Involved in angiogenesis; negatively regulates endothelial cell proliferation and migration and angiogenic sprouting. Involved in the maturation of both CD4(+) and CD8(+) cells in the thymus. Important for follicular differentiation and possibly cell fate selection within the follicle. During cerebellar development, functions as a receptor for neuronal DNER and is involved in the differentiation of Bergmann glia. Represses neuronal and myogenic differentiation. May play an essential role in postimplantation development, probably in some aspect of cell specification and/or differentiation. May be involved in mesoderm development, somite formation and neurogenesis. May enhance HIF1A function by sequestering HIF1AN away from HIF1A. Required for the THBS4 function in regulating protective astrogenesis from the subventricular zone (SVZ) niche after injury. Involved in determination of left/right symmetry by modulating the balance between motile and immotile (sensory) cilia at the left-right organiser (LRO).

Functions as a receptor for membrane-bound ligands Jagged-1 (JAG1), Jagged-2 (JAG2) and Delta-1 (DLL1) to regulate cell-fate determination. Upon ligand activation through the released notch intracellular domain (NICD) it forms a transcriptional activator complex with RBPJ/RBPSUH and activates genes of the enhancer of split locus. Affects the implementation of differentiation, proliferation and apoptotic programs (By similarity). Involved in bone remodeling and homeostasis. In collaboration with RELA/p65 enhances NFATc1 promoter activity and positively regulates RANKL-induced osteoclast differentiation. Positively regulates self-renewal of liver cancer cells.

Functions as a receptor for membrane-bound ligands Jagged1, Jagged2 and Delta1 to regulate cell-fate determination. Upon ligand activation through the released notch intracellular domain (NICD) it forms a transcriptional activator complex with RBPJ/RBPSUH and activates genes of the enhancer of split locus. Affects the implementation of differentiation, proliferation and apoptotic programs (By similarity).

Functions as a receptor for membrane-bound ligands Jagged1, Jagged2 and Delta1 to regulate cell-fate determination. Upon ligand activation through the released notch intracellular domain (NICD) it forms a transcriptional activator complex with RBPJ/RBPSUH and activates genes of the enhancer of split locus. Affects the implementation of differentiation, proliferation and apoptotic programs. May regulate branching morphogenesis in the developing vascular system (By similarity).

Transcription regulator acting downstream of both FOXA2 and Brachyury (T) during notochord development. Required for node morphogenesis. Is essential for cilia formation in the posterior notochord (PNC) and for left-right patterning; acts upstream of FOXJ1 and RFX3 in this process and is required for the expression of various components important for axonemal assembly and function. Plays a role in regulating axial versus paraxial cell fate. Activates the transcription of ciliary proteins C11orf97 homolog, FAM183B and SPACA9 in the embryonic ventral node (By similarity).

Carboxylesterase that acts as a key negative regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway by specifically mediating depalmitoleoylation of WNT proteins. Serine palmitoleoylation of WNT proteins is required for efficient binding to frizzled receptors.

Functions to regulate alternative splicing in neurons by binding pre-mRNA in a sequence-specific manner to activate exon inclusion or exclusion. It binds specifically to the sequences 5'-YCAY- 3' and regulates splicing in only a subset of regulated exons. Binding to an exonic 5'-YCAY-3' cluster changes the protein complexes assembled on pre-mRNA, blocking U1 snRNP binding and exon inclusion, whereas binding to an intronic 5'-YCAY-3' cluster enhances spliceosome assembly and exon inclusion. Binding to 5'-YCAY-3' clusters results in a local and asymmetric action to regulate spliceosome assembly and alternative splicing in neurons. Binding to an exonic 5'-YCAY-3' cluster changed the protein complexes assembled on pre-mRNA, blocking U1 snRNP (small nuclear ribonucleoprotein) binding and exon inclusion, whereas binding to an intronic 5'-YCAY-3' cluster enhanced spliceosome assembly and exon inclusion. With NOVA1, they perform unique biological functions in different brain areas and cell types. Autoregulates its own expression by acting as a splicing repressor. Acts to activate the inclusion of exon E3A in the glycine receptor alpha-2 chain and of exon E9 in gamma-aminobutyric-acid receptor gamma-2 subunit via a distal downstream UCAU-rich intronic splicing enhancer. Acts to regulate a novel glycine receptor alpha-2 chain splice variant (alpha-2N) in developing spinal cord (By similarity).

Functions to regulate alternative splicing in neurons by binding pre-mRNA in a sequence-specific manner to activate exon inclusion or exclusion. It binds specifically to the sequences 5'-YCAY-3' and regulates splicing in only a subset of regulated exons. Binding to an exonic 5'-YCAY-3' cluster changes the protein complexes assembled on pre-mRNA, blocking U1 snRNP binding and exon inclusion, whereas binding to an intronic 5'- YCAY-3' cluster enhances spliceosome assembly and exon inclusion. With NOVA1, they perform unique biological functions in different brain areas and cell types. Uniquely regulates alternative splicing events of a series of axon guidance related genes during cortical development, being essential for central nervous system development by regulating neural networks wiring. Regulates differentially alternative splicing on the same transcripts expressed in different neurons. This includes functional differences in transcripts expressed in cortical and cerebellar excitatory versus inhibitory neurons where is required for, respectively, development of laminar structure and motor coordination and synapse formation. Also the regulation the regulation of intron retention can sequester the trans-acting splicing factor PTBP2, acting as a variable cis-acting scaffolding platform for PTBP2 across various natural conditions (By similarity).

NOH-1S is a voltage-gated proton channel that mediates the H(+) currents of resting phagocytes and other tissues. It participates in the regulation of cellular pH and is blocked by zinc. NOH-1L is a pyridine nucleotide-dependent oxidoreductase that generates superoxide and might conduct H(+) ions as part of its electron transport mechanism, whereas NOH-1S does not contain an electron transport chain

NADPH oxidase which constitutively produces superoxide upon formation of a complex with CYBA/p22phox. Plays a role in the biogenesis of otoconia/otolith, which are crystalline structures of the inner ear involved in the perception of gravity.

Constitutive NADPH oxidase which generates superoxide intracellularly upon formation of a complex with CYBA/p22phox. Regulates signaling cascades probably through phosphatases inhibition. May function as an oxygen sensor regulating the KCNK3/TASK-1 potassium channel and HIF1A activity. May regulate insulin signaling cascade. May play a role in apoptosis, bone resorption and lipolysaccharide-mediated activation of NFKB. May produce superoxide in the nucleus and play a role in regulating gene expression upon cell stimulation. Isoform 3 is not functional. Isoform 5 and isoform 6 display reduced activity

Calcium-dependent NADPH oxidase that generates superoxide. Also functions as a calcium-dependent proton channel and may regulate redox-dependent processes in lymphocytes and spermatozoa. May play a role in cell growth and apoptosis. Isoform v2 and isoform v5 are involved in endothelial generation of reactive oxygen species (ROS), proliferation and angiogenesis and contribute to endothelial response to thrombin.

Functions as an activator of NOX1, a superoxide-producing NADPH oxidase. Functions in the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) which participate in a variety of biological processes including host defense, hormone biosynthesis, oxygen sensing and signal transduction. May also activate CYBB/gp91phox and NOX3.

Constitutively potentiates the superoxide-generating activity of NOX1 and NOX3 and is required for the biogenesis of otoconia/otolith, which are crystalline structures of the inner ear involved in the perception of gravity. Isoform 3 is more potent than isoform 1 in activating NOX3. Together with NOXA1, may also substitute to NCF1/p47phox and NCF2/p67phox in supporting the phagocyte NOX2/gp91phox superoxide-generating activity.

Histone chaperone that plays a role in the nuclear import of H2A-H2B and nucleosome assembly. Participates also in several important DNA repair mechanisms: greatly enhances ERCC6-mediated chromatin remodeling which is essential for transcription-coupled nucleotide excision DNA repair. Stimulates also homologous recombination (HR) by RAD51 and RAD54 which is essential in mitotic DNA double strand break (DSB) repair. Plays a key role in the regulation of embryonic neurogenesis (By similarity). Promotes the proliferation of neural progenitors and inhibits neuronal differentiation during cortical development (By similarity). Regulates neurogenesis via the modulation of RASSF10; regulates RASSF10 expression by promoting SETD1A-mediated H3K4 methylation at the RASSF10 promoter (By similarity).

Acidic protein which may be involved in interactions with other proteins or DNA.

May control regulatory pathways relevant to schizophrenia and to psychotic illness. May play a role in late central nervous system development by modulating EPO expression in response to cellular oxygen level (By similarity). Forms a heterodimer that binds core DNA sequence 5'-TACGTG-3' within the hypoxia response element (HRE) leading to transcriptional repression on its target gene TH (By similarity).

Transcriptional activator which forms a core component of the circadian clock. The circadian clock, an internal time-keeping system, regulates various physiological processes through the generation of approximately 24 hour circadian rhythms in gene expression, which are translated into rhythms in metabolism and behavior. It is derived from the Latin roots 'circa' (about) and 'diem' (day) and acts as an important regulator of a wide array of physiological functions including metabolism, sleep, body temperature, blood pressure, endocrine, immune, cardiovascular, and renal function. Consists of two major components: the central clock, residing in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the brain, and the peripheral clocks that are present in nearly every tissue and organ system. Both the central and peripheral clocks can be reset by environmental cues, also known as Zeitgebers (German for 'timegivers'). The predominant Zeitgeber for the central clock is light, which is sensed by retina and signals directly to the SCN. The central clock entrains the peripheral clocks through neuronal and hormonal signals, body temperature and feeding-related cues, aligning all clocks with the external light/dark cycle. Circadian rhythms allow an organism to achieve temporal homeostasis with its environment at the molecular level by regulating gene expression to create a peak of protein expression once every 24 hours to control when a particular physiological process is most active with respect to the solar day. Transcription and translation of core clock components (CLOCK, NPAS2, BMAL1, BMAL2, PER1, PER2, PER3, CRY1 and CRY2) plays a critical role in rhythm generation, whereas delays imposed by post- translational modifications (PTMs) are important for determining the period (tau) of the rhythms (tau refers to the period of a rhythm and is the length, in time, of one complete cycle). A diurnal rhythm is synchronized with the day/night cycle, while the ultradian and infradian rhythms have a period shorter and longer than 24 hours, respectively. Disruptions in the circadian rhythms contribute to the pathology of cardiovascular diseases, cancer, metabolic syndromes and aging. A transcription/translation feedback loop (TTFL) forms the core of the molecular circadian clock mechanism. Transcription factors, CLOCK or NPAS2 and BMAL1 or BMAL2, form the positive limb of the feedback loop, act in the form of a heterodimer and activate the transcription of core clock genes and clock-controlled genes (involved in key metabolic processes), harboring E-box elements (5'-CACGTG-3') within their promoters. The core clock genes: PER1/2/3 and CRY1/2 which are transcriptional repressors form the negative limb of the feedback loop and interact with the CLOCK|NPAS2-BMAL1|BMAL2 heterodimer inhibiting its activity and thereby negatively regulating their own expression. This heterodimer also activates nuclear receptors NR1D1/2 and RORA/B/G, which form a second feedback loop and which activate and repress BMAL1 transcription, respectively. The NPAS2-BMAL1 heterodimer positively regulates the expression of MAOA, F7 and LDHA and modulates the circadian rhythm of daytime contrast sensitivity by regulating the rhythmic expression of adenylate cyclase type 1 (ADCY1) in the retina. NPAS2 plays an important role in sleep homeostasis and in maintaining circadian behaviors in normal light/dark and feeding conditions and in the effective synchronization of feeding behavior with scheduled food availability. Regulates the gene transcription of key metabolic pathways in the liver and is involved in DNA damage response by regulating several cell cycle and DNA repair genes. Controls the circadian rhythm of NR0B2 expression by binding rhythmically to its promoter (By similarity). Mediates the diurnal variation in the expression of GABARA1 receptor in the brain and contributes to the regulation of anxiety-like behaviors and GABAergic neurotransmission in the ventral striatum (By similarity).

May play a broad role in neurogenesis. May control regulatory pathways relevant to schizophrenia and to psychotic illness (By similarity).

Transcription factor expressed in neurons of the brain that regulates the excitatory-inhibitory balance within neural circuits and is required for contextual memory in the hippocampus (By similarity). Plays a key role in the structural and functional plasticity of neurons (By similarity). Acts as an early-response transcription factor in both excitatory and inhibitory neurons, where it induces distinct but overlapping sets of late-response genes in these two types of neurons, allowing the synapses that form on inhibitory and excitatory neurons to be modified by neuronal activity in a manner specific to their function within a circuit, thereby facilitating appropriate circuit responses to sensory experience (By similarity). In excitatory neurons, activates transcription of BDNF, which in turn controls the number of GABA- releasing synapses that form on excitatory neurons, thereby promoting an increased number of inhibitory synapses on excitatory neurons (By similarity). In inhibitory neurons, regulates a distinct set of target genes that serve to increase excitatory input onto somatostatin neurons, probably resulting in enhanced feedback inhibition within cortical circuits (By similarity). The excitatory and inhibitory balance in neurons affects a number of processes, such as short-term and long-term memory, acquisition of experience, fear memory, response to stress and social behavior (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of dendritic spine development in olfactory bulb granule cells in a sensory-experience-dependent manner by regulating expression of MDM2 (By similarity). Efficient DNA binding requires dimerization with another bHLH protein, such as ARNT, ARNT2 or BMAL1. Can activate the CME (CNS midline enhancer) element.

Required for progression through the G1 and S phases of the cell cycle and for S phase entry. Activates transcription of the histone H2A, histone H2B, histone H3 and histone H4 genes in conjunction with MIZF. Also positively regulates the ATM, MIZF and PRKDC promoters. Transcriptional activation may be accomplished at least in part by the recruitment of the NuA4 histone acetyltransferase (HAT) complex to target gene promoters.

Interacts specifically with a number of opioid ligands. Receptor for neuropeptides B and W, which may be involved in neuroendocrine system regulation, food intake and the organization of other signals. Has a higher affinity for neuropeptide B

Interacts specifically with a number of opioid ligands. Receptor for neuropeptides B and W, which may be involved in neuroendocrine system regulation, food intake and the organization of other signals

May be involved in the regulation of feeding, neuroendocrine system, memory, learning and in the afferent pain pathway.

Intracellular cholesterol transporter which acts in concert with NPC2 and plays an important role in the egress of cholesterol from the endosomal/lysosomal compartment. Unesterified cholesterol that has been released from LDLs in the lumen of the late endosomes/lysosomes is transferred by NPC2 to the cholesterol-binding pocket in the N-terminal domain of NPC1. Cholesterol binds to NPC1 with the hydroxyl group buried in the binding pocket. Binds oxysterol with higher affinity than cholesterol. May play a role in vesicular trafficking in glia, a process that may be crucial for maintaining the structural and functional integrity of nerve terminals (Probable). Inhibits cholesterol-mediated mTORC1 activation throught its interaction with SLC38A9.

Intracellular cholesterol transporter which acts in concert with NPC1 and plays an important role in the egress of cholesterol from the lysosomal compartment. Unesterified cholesterol that has been released from LDLs in the lumen of the late endosomes/lysosomes is transferred by NPC2 to the cholesterol-binding pocket in the N-terminal domain of NPC1. May bind and mobilize cholesterol that is associated with membranes. NPC2 binds cholesterol with a 1:1 stoichiometry. Can bind a variety of sterols, including lathosterol, desmosterol and the plant sterols stigmasterol and beta-sitosterol. The secreted form of NCP2 regulates biliary cholesterol secretion via stimulation of ABCG5/ABCG8-mediated cholesterol transport (By similarity).

Suppresses oncogenic transformation in neural and non-neural cells and down-regulates neural cell proliferation. Might be involved in transcriptional regulation (By similarity).

Receptor for NPAF (A-18-F-amide) and NPFF (F-8-F-amide) neuropeptides, also known as morphine-modulating peptides. Can also be activated by a variety of naturally occurring or synthetic FMRF-amide like ligands. This receptor mediates its action by association with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system

Morphine modulating peptides. Have wide-ranging physiologic effects, including the modulation of morphine-induced analgesia, elevation of arterial blood pressure, and increased somatostatin secretion from the pancreas. Neuropeptide FF potentiates and sensitizes ASIC1 and ASIC3 channels.

Seems to play a role in the development or function of the kidney glomerular filtration barrier. Regulates glomerular vascular permeability. May anchor the podocyte slit diaphragm to the actin cytoskeleton. Plays a role in skeletal muscle formation through regulation of myoblast fusion (By similarity).

Together with BCAR1 it may play a role in the control of epithelial cell polarity (By similarity). Involved in the organization of apical junctions in kidney cells together with NPHP4 and RPGRIP1L/NPHP8 (By similarity). Does not seem to be strictly required for ciliogenesis (By similarity). Seems to help to recruit PTK2B/PYK2 to cell matrix adhesions, thereby initiating phosphorylation of PTK2B/PYK2 and PTK2B/PYK2-dependent signaling (By similarity). May play a role in the regulation of intraflagellar transport (IFT) during cilia assembly. Required for normal retina development (By similarity). In connecting photoreceptor cilia influences the movement of some IFT proteins such as IFT88 and WDR19. Involved in spermatogenesis (By similarity).

Required for normal ciliary development and function. Inhibits disheveled-1-induced canonical Wnt-signaling activity and may also play a role in the control of non-canonical Wnt signaling which regulates planar cell polarity. Probably acts as a molecular switch between different Wnt signaling pathways. Required for proper convergent extension cell movements.

Involved in the organization of apical junctions; the function is proposed to implicate a NPHP1-4-8 module. Does not seem to be strictly required for ciliogenesis. Required for building functional cilia. Involved in the organization of the subapical actin network in multiciliated epithelial cells. Seems to recruit INT to basal bodies of motile cilia which subsequently interacts with actin-modifying proteins such as DAAM1 (By similarity). In cooperation with INVS may down- regulate the canonical Wnt pathway and promote the Wnt-PCP pathway by regulating expression and subcellular location of disheveled proteins. Stabilizes protein levels of JADE1 and promotes its translocation to the nucleus leading to cooperative inhibition of canonical Wnt signaling. Acts as negative regulator of the hippo pathway by association with LATS1 and modifying LATS1-dependent phosphorylation and localization of WWTR1/TAZ.

The ternary complex containing UFD1, VCP and NPLOC4 binds ubiquitinated proteins and is necessary for the export of misfolded proteins from the ER to the cytoplasm, where they are degraded by the proteasome. The NPLOC4-UFD1-VCP complex regulates spindle disassembly at the end of mitosis and is necessary for the formation of a closed nuclear envelope (By similarity). Acts as a negative regulator of type I interferon production via the complex formed with VCP and UFD1, which binds to RIGI and recruits RNF125 to promote ubiquitination and degradation of RIGI.

Catalyzes the cleavage of N-acetylneuraminic acid (sialic acid) to form pyruvate and N-acetylmannosamine via a Schiff base intermediate. It prevents sialic acids from being recycled and returning to the cell surface. Involved in the N-glycolylneuraminic acid (Neu5Gc) degradation pathway. Although human is not able to catalyze formation of Neu5Gc due to the inactive CMAHP enzyme, Neu5Gc is present in food and must be degraded (Probable).

Core histones chaperone involved in chromatin reprogramming, specially during fertilization and early embryonic development. Probably involved in sperm DNA decondensation during fertilization.

Plays a role in the regulation of diverse cellular processes such as ribosome biogenesis, chromatin remodeling or protein chaperoning. Modulates the histone chaperone function and the RNA-binding activity of nucleolar phosphoprotein B23/NPM. Efficiently mediates chromatin remodeling when included in a pentamer containing NPM3 and NPM.

Involved in diverse cellular processes such as ribosome biogenesis, centrosome duplication, protein chaperoning, histone assembly, cell proliferation, and regulation of tumor suppressors p53/TP53 and ARF. Binds ribosome presumably to drive ribosome nuclear export. Associated with nucleolar ribonucleoprotein structures and bind single-stranded nucleic acids. Acts as a chaperonin for the core histones H3, H2B and H4. Stimulates APEX1 endonuclease activity on apurinic/apyrimidinic (AP) double-stranded DNA but inhibits APEX1 endonuclease activity on AP single-stranded RNA. May exert a control of APEX1 endonuclease activity within nucleoli devoted to repair AP on rDNA and the removal of oxidized rRNA molecules. In concert with BRCA2, regulates centrosome duplication. Regulates centriole duplication: phosphorylation by PLK2 is able to trigger centriole replication. Negatively regulates the activation of EIF2AK2/PKR and suppresses apoptosis through inhibition of EIF2AK2/PKR autophosphorylation. Antagonizes the inhibitory effect of ATF5 on cell proliferation and relieves ATF5-induced G2/M blockade. In complex with MYC enhances the transcription of MYC target genes. May act as chaperonin or cotransporter in the nucleolar localization of transcription termination factor TTF1 (By similarity).

Functional ligand of integrin alpha-8/beta-1 in kidney development. Regulates the expression of GDNF with integrin alpha- 8/beta-1 which is essential for kidney development. May also play a role in the development and function of various tissues, regulating cell adhesion, spreading and survival through the binding of several integrins (By similarity).

G-protein coupled receptor for neuropeptide S (NPS). Promotes mobilization of intracellular Ca(2+) stores. Inhibits cell growth in response to NPS binding. Involved in pathogenesis of asthma and other IgE- mediated diseases.

Modulates arousal and anxiety. May play an important anorexigenic role (By similarity). Binds to its receptor NPSR1 with nanomolar affinity to increase intracellular calcium concentrations.

Important for the resorption of phosphate by the kidney. May be involved in actively transporting phosphate into cells via Na(+) cotransport in the renal brush border membrane. Plays a role in urate transport in the kidney.

Involved in actively transporting phosphate into cells via Na(+) cotransport in the renal brush border membrane. The cotransport has a Na(+):Pi stoichiometry of 3:1 and is electrogenic (By similarity).

Involved in actively transporting phosphate into cells via Na(+) cotransport.

Involved in actively transporting phosphate into cells via Na(+) cotransport in the renal brush border membrane. The cotransport has a Na(+):Pi stoichiometry of 2:1 and is electroneutral (By similarity).

May be involved in actively transporting phosphate into cells via Na(+) cotransport.

[Isoform 2]: Transports organic anions in a voltage-driven, multispecific, manner, on the apical side of renal proximal tubule. In particular, participates in the secretion of urate from the cell into the lumen. Urate is the end product of purine metabolism. May have roles in the metabolism and secretion of estrone sulfate, estradiol-17-beta- glucuronide, ochratoxin A, as wells as drugs such as bumetanide.

Probable homophilic and heterophilic cell adhesion molecule involved in long term potentiation at hippocampal excitatory synapses through activation of p38MAPK. May also regulate neurite outgrowth by activating the FGFR1 signaling pathway. May play a role in synaptic plasticity (By similarity). Also acts as a chaperone for ATP2B1; stabilizes ATP2B1 and increases its ATPase activity. Promotes localization of XKR8 at the cell membrane.

May be involved in mediating uptake of synaptic material during synapse remodeling or in mediating the synaptic clustering of AMPA glutamate receptors at a subset of excitatory synapses.

Likely to play role in the modification of cellular properties that underlie long-term plasticity. Binds to agar matrix in a calcium-dependent manner (By similarity).

Neuropeptide RFRP-1 acts as a potent negative regulator of gonadotropin synthesis and secretion. Neuropeptides NPSF and NPVF efficiently inhibit forskolin-induced production of cAMP, but RFRP-2 shows no inhibitory activity. Neuropeptide RFRP-1 induces secretion of prolactin in rats. Neuropeptide NPVF blocks morphine-induced analgesia.

Plays a regulatory role in the organization of neuroendocrine signals accessing the anterior pituitary gland. Stimulates water drinking and food intake. May play a role in the hypothalamic response to stress (By similarity). NPW23 activates GPR7 and GPR8 more efficiently than NPW30.

Receptor for neuropeptide Y and peptide YY. The rank order of affinity of this receptor for pancreatic polypeptides is NPY > [Pro-34] PYY, PYY and [Leu-31, Pro-34] NPY > NPY (2-36) > [Ile-31, Gln-34] PP and PYY (3-36) > PP > NPY free acid

Receptor for neuropeptide Y and peptide YY. The rank order of affinity of this receptor for pancreatic polypeptides is PYY > NPY > PYY (3-36) > NPY (2-36) > [Ile-31, Gln-34] PP > [Leu-31, Pro-34] NPY > PP, [Pro-34] PYY and NPY free acid

Receptor for neuropeptide Y and peptide YY. The rank order of affinity of this receptor for pancreatic polypeptides is PP, PP (2-36) and [Ile-31, Gln-34] PP > [Pro-34] PYY > PYY and [Leu-31, Pro-34] NPY > NPY > PYY (3-36) and NPY (2-36) > PP (13-36) > PP (31-36) > NPY free acid.

Receptor for neuropeptide Y and peptide YY. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins that inhibit adenylate cyclase activity. Seems to be associated with food intake. Could be involved in feeding disorders

NPY is implicated in the control of feeding and in secretion of gonadotrophin-release hormone

Flavin-containing quinone reductase that catalyzes two- electron reduction of quinones to hydroquinones using either NADH or NADPH as electron donors. In a ping-pong kinetic mechanism, the electrons are sequentially transferred from NAD(P)H to flavin cofactor and then from reduced flavin to the quinone, bypassing the formation of semiquinone and reactive oxygen species (By similarity). Regulates cellular redox state primarily through quinone detoxification. Reduces components of plasma membrane redox system such as coenzyme Q and vitamin quinones, producing antioxidant hydroquinone forms. In the process may function as superoxide scavenger to prevent hydroquinone oxidation and facilitate excretion. Alternatively, can activate quinones and their derivatives by generating redox reactive hydroquinones with DNA cross-linking antitumor potential. Acts as a gatekeeper of the core 20S proteasome known to degrade proteins with unstructured regions. Upon oxidative stress, interacts with tumor suppressors TP53 and TP73 in a NADH-dependent way and inhibits their ubiquitin-independent degradation by the 20S proteasome.

The enzyme apparently serves as a quinone reductase in connection with conjugation reactions of hydroquinones involved in detoxification pathways as well as in biosynthetic processes such as the vitamin K-dependent gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues in prothrombin synthesis.

Orphan nuclear receptor. Component of a cascade required for the development of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal-gonadal axis. Acts as a coregulatory protein that inhibits the transcriptional activity of other nuclear receptors through heterodimeric interactions. May also have a role in the development of the embryo and in the maintenance of embryonic stem cell pluripotency (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator that acts as a negative regulator of receptor-dependent signaling pathways (By similarity). Specifically inhibits transactivation of the nuclear receptor with which it interacts (By similarity). Inhibits transcriptional activity of NEUROD1 on E-box-containing promoter by interfering with the coactivation function of the p300/CBP-mediated transcription complex for NEUROD1. Essential component of the liver circadian clock which via its interaction with NR1D1 and RORG regulates NPAS2-mediated hepatic lipid metabolism (By similarity). Regulates the circadian expression of cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes (By similarity). Represses: NR5A2 and HNF4A to down-regulate CYP2C38, NFLI3 to up-regulate CYP2A5, BHLHE41/HNF1A axis to up-regulate CYP1A2, CYP2E1 and CYP3A11, and NR1D1 to up-regulate CYP2B10, CYP4A10 and CYP4A14 (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor which coordinates circadian rhythm and metabolic pathways in a heme-dependent manner. Integral component of the complex transcription machinery that governs circadian rhythmicity and forms a critical negative limb of the circadian clock by directly repressing the expression of core clock components BMAL1, CLOCK and CRY1. Also regulates genes involved in metabolic functions, including lipid and bile acid metabolism, adipogenesis, gluconeogenesis and the macrophage inflammatory response. Acts as a receptor for heme which stimulates its interaction with the NCOR1/HDAC3 corepressor complex, enhancing transcriptional repression. Recognizes two classes of DNA response elements within the promoter of its target genes and can bind to DNA as either monomers or homodimers, depending on the nature of the response element. Binds as a monomer to a response element composed of the consensus half-site motif 5'-[A/G]GGTCA-3' preceded by an A/T-rich 5' sequence (RevRE), or as a homodimer to a direct repeat of the core motif spaced by two nucleotides (RevDR-2). Acts as a potent competitive repressor of ROR alpha (RORA) function and regulates the levels of its ligand heme by repressing the expression of PPARGC1A, a potent inducer of heme synthesis. Regulates lipid metabolism by repressing the expression of APOC3 and by influencing the activity of sterol response element binding proteins (SREBPs); represses INSIG2 which interferes with the proteolytic activation of SREBPs which in turn govern the rhythmic expression of enzymes with key functions in sterol and fatty acid synthesis. Regulates gluconeogenesis via repression of G6PC1 and PEPCK and adipocyte differentiation via repression of PPARG. Regulates glucagon release in pancreatic alpha- cells via the AMPK-NAMPT-SIRT1 pathway and the proliferation, glucose- induced insulin secretion and expression of key lipogenic genes in pancreatic-beta cells. Positively regulates bile acid synthesis by increasing hepatic expression of CYP7A1 via repression of NR0B2 and NFIL3 which are negative regulators of CYP7A1. Modulates skeletal muscle oxidative capacity by regulating mitochondrial biogenesis and autophagy; controls mitochondrial biogenesis and respiration by interfering with the STK11-PRKAA1/2-SIRT1-PPARGC1A signaling pathway. Represses the expression of SERPINE1/PAI1, an important modulator of cardiovascular disease and the expression of inflammatory cytokines and chemokines in macrophages. Represses gene expression at a distance in macrophages by inhibiting the transcription of enhancer-derived RNAs (eRNAs). Plays a role in the circadian regulation of body temperature and negatively regulates thermogenic transcriptional programs in brown adipose tissue (BAT); imposes a circadian oscillation in BAT activity, increasing body temperature when awake and depressing thermogenesis during sleep. In concert with NR2E3, regulates transcriptional networks critical for photoreceptor development and function. In addition to its activity as a repressor, can also act as a transcriptional activator. In the ovarian granulosa cells acts as a transcriptional activator of STAR which plays a role in steroid biosynthesis. In collaboration with SP1, activates GJA1 transcription in a heme-independent manner. Represses the transcription of CYP2B10, CYP4A10 and CYP4A14 (By similarity). Represses the transcription of CES2 (By similarity). Represses and regulates the circadian expression of TSHB in a NCOR1- dependent manner (By similarity). Negatively regulates the protein stability of NR3C1 and influences the time-dependent subcellular distribution of NR3C1, thereby affecting its transcriptional regulatory activity (By similarity). Plays a critical role in the circadian control of neutrophilic inflammation in the lung; under resting, non- stress conditions, acts as a rhythmic repressor to limit inflammatory activity whereas in the presence of inflammatory triggers undergoes ubiquitin-mediated degradation thereby relieving inhibition of the inflammatory response (By similarity). Plays a key role in the circadian regulation of microglial activation and neuroinflammation; suppresses microglial activation through the NF-kappaB pathway in the central nervous system (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of the diurnal rhythms of lipid and protein metabolism in the skeletal muscle via transcriptional repression of genes controlling lipid and amino acid metabolism in the muscle (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor which coordinates circadian rhythm and metabolic pathways in a heme-dependent manner. Integral component of the complex transcription machinery that governs circadian rhythmicity and forms a critical negative limb of the circadian clock by directly repressing the expression of core clock components BMAL1 and CLOCK. Also regulates genes involved in metabolic functions, including lipid metabolism and the inflammatory response. Acts as a receptor for heme which stimulates its interaction with the NCOR1/HDAC3 corepressor complex, enhancing transcriptional repression. Recognizes two classes of DNA response elements within the promoter of its target genes and can bind to DNA as either monomers or homodimers, depending on the nature of the response element. Binds as a monomer to a response element composed of the consensus half-site motif 5'-[A/G]GGTCA-3' preceded by an A/T-rich 5' sequence (RevRE), or as a homodimer to a direct repeat of the core motif spaced by two nuclegotides (RevDR-2). Acts as a potent competitive repressor of ROR alpha (RORA) function and also negatively regulates the expression of NR1D1. Regulates lipid and energy homeostasis in the skeletal muscle via repression of genes involved in lipid metabolism and myogenesis including: CD36, FABP3, FABP4, UCP3, SCD1 and MSTN. Regulates hepatic lipid metabolism via the repression of APOC3. Represses gene expression at a distance in macrophages by inhibiting the transcription of enhancer-derived RNAs (eRNAs). In addition to its activity as a repressor, can also act as a transcriptional activator. Acts as a transcriptional activator of the sterol regulatory element-binding protein 1 (SREBF1) and the inflammatory mediator interleukin-6 (IL6) in the skeletal muscle (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of circadian sleep/wake cycle; essential for maintaining wakefulness during the dark phase or active period (By similarity). Key regulator of skeletal muscle mitochondrial function; negatively regulates the skeletal muscle expression of core clock genes and genes involved in mitochondrial biogenesis, fatty acid beta-oxidation and lipid metabolism (By similarity). May play a role in the circadian control of neutrophilic inflammation in the lung (By similarity).

Nuclear receptor that exhibits a ligand-dependent transcriptional activation activity. Binds preferentially to double-stranded oligonucleotide direct repeats having the consensus half-site sequence 5'-AGGTCA-3' and 4-nt spacing (DR-4). Regulates cholesterol uptake through MYLIP-dependent ubiquitination of LDLR, VLDLR and LRP8; DLDLR and LRP8. Interplays functionally with RORA for the regulation of genes involved in liver metabolism (By similarity). Induces LPCAT3-dependent phospholipid remodeling in endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membranes of hepatocytes, driving SREBF1 processing and lipogenesis (By similarity). Via LPCAT3, triggers the incorporation of arachidonate into phosphatidylcholines of ER membranes, increasing membrane dynamics and enabling triacylglycerols transfer to nascent very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) particles (By similarity). Via LPCAT3 also counteracts lipid-induced ER stress response and inflammation, likely by modulating SRC kinase membrane compartmentalization and limiting the synthesis of lipid inflammatory mediators (By similarity). Plays an anti-inflammatory role during the hepatic acute phase response by acting as a corepressor: inhibits the hepatic acute phase response by preventing dissociation of the N-Cor corepressor complex.

Nuclear receptor that exhibits a ligand-dependent transcriptional activation activity. Interaction with retinoic acid receptor (RXR) shifts RXR from its role as a silent DNA-binding partner to an active ligand-binding subunit in mediating retinoid responses through target genes defined by LXRES (By similarity). LXRES are DR4-type response elements characterized by direct repeats of two similar hexanuclotide half-sites spaced by four nucleotides (By similarity). Plays an important role in the regulation of cholesterol homeostasis, regulating cholesterol uptake through MYLIP-dependent ubiquitination of LDLR, VLDLR and LRP8. Interplays functionally with RORA for the regulation of genes involved in liver metabolism (By similarity). Induces LPCAT3- dependent phospholipid remodeling in endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membranes of hepatocytes, driving SREBF1 processing and lipogenesis (By similarity). Via LPCAT3, triggers the incorporation of arachidonate into phosphatidylcholines of ER membranes, increasing membrane dynamics and enabling triacylglycerols transfer to nascent very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) particles. Via LPCAT3 also counteracts lipid-induced ER stress response and inflammation, likely by modulating SRC kinase membrane compartmentalization and limiting the synthesis of lipid inflammatory mediators (By similarity).

Ligand-activated transcription factor. Receptor for bile acids (BAs) such as chenodeoxycholic acid (CDCA), lithocholic acid, deoxycholic acid (DCA) and allocholic acid (ACA). Plays a essential role in BA homeostasis through the regulation of genes involved in BA synthesis, conjugation and enterohepatic circulation. Also regulates lipid and glucose homeostasis and is involved innate immune response. The FXR-RXR heterodimer binds predominantly to farnesoid X receptor response elements (FXREs) containing two inverted repeats of the consensus sequence 5'-AGGTCA-3' in which the monomers are spaced by 1 nucleotide (IR-1) but also to tandem repeat DR1 sites with lower affinity, and can be activated by either FXR or RXR-specific ligands. It is proposed that monomeric nuclear receptors such as NR5A2/LRH-1 bound to coregulatory nuclear responsive element (NRE) halfsites located in close proximity to FXREs modulate transcriptional activity (By similarity). In the liver activates transcription of the corepressor NR0B2 thereby indirectly inhibiting CYP7A1 and CYP8B1 (involved in BA synthesis) implicating at least in part histone demethylase KDM1A resulting in epigenomic repression, and SLC10A1/NTCP (involved in hepatic uptake of conjugated BAs). Activates transcription of the repressor MAFG (involved in regulation of BA synthesis) (By similarity). Activates transcription of SLC27A5/BACS and BAAT (involved in BA conjugation), ABCB11/BSEP (involved in bile salt export) by directly recruiting histone methyltransferase CARM1, and ABCC2/MRP2 (involved in secretion of conjugated BAs) and ABCB4 (involved in secretion of phosphatidylcholine in the small intestine). Activates transcription of SLC27A5/BACS and BAAT (involved in BA conjugation), ABCB11/BSEP (involved in bile salt export) by directly recruiting histone methyltransferase CARM1, and ABCC2/MRP2 (involved in secretion of conjugated BAs) and ABCB4 (involved in secretion of phosphatidylcholine in the small intestine). In the intestine activates FGF19 expression and secretion leading to hepatic CYP7A1 repression. The function also involves the coordinated induction of hepatic KLB/beta-klotho expression (By similarity). Regulates transcription of liver UGT2B4 and SULT2A1 involved in BA detoxification; binding to the UGT2B4 promoter seems to imply a monomeric transactivation independent of RXRA. Modulates lipid homeostasis by activating liver NR0B2/SHP-mediated repression of SREBF1 (involved in de novo lipogenesis), expression of PLTP (involved in HDL formation), SCARB1 (involved in HDL hepatic uptake), APOE, APOC1, APOC4, PPARA (involved in beta-oxidation of fatty acids), VLDLR and SDC1 (involved in the hepatic uptake of LDL and IDL remnants), and inhibiting expression of MTTP (involved in VLDL assembly. Increases expression of APOC2 (promoting lipoprotein lipase activity implicated in triglyceride clearance). Transrepresses APOA1 involving a monomeric competition with NR2A1 for binding to a DR1 element. Also reduces triglyceride clearance by inhibiting expression of ANGPTL3 and APOC3 (both involved in inhibition of lipoprotein lipase). Involved in glucose homeostasis by modulating hepatic gluconeogenesis through activation of NR0B2/SHP- mediated repression of respective genes. Modulates glycogen synthesis (inducing phosphorylation of glycogen synthase kinase-3) (By similarity). Modulates glucose-stimulated insulin secretion and is involved in insulin resistance. Involved in intestinal innate immunity. Plays a role in protecting the distal small intestine against bacterial overgrowth and preservation of the epithelial barrier (By similarity). Down-regulates inflammatory cytokine expression in several types of immune cells including macrophages and mononuclear cells. Mediates trans- repression of TLR4-induced cytokine expression; the function seems to require its sumoylation and prevents N-CoR nuclear receptor corepressor clearance from target genes such as IL1B and NOS2. Involved in the TLR9-mediated protective mechanism in intestinal inflammation. Plays an anti-inflammatory role in liver inflammation; proposed to inhibit pro-inflammatory (but not antiapoptotic) NF-kappa-B signaling) (By similarity).

Nuclear receptor that binds and is activated by variety of endogenous and xenobiotic compounds. Transcription factor that activates the transcription of multiple genes involved in the metabolism and secretion of potentially harmful xenobiotics, drugs and endogenous compounds. Activated by the antibiotic rifampicin and various plant metabolites, such as hyperforin, guggulipid, colupulone, and isoflavones. Response to specific ligands is species-specific. Activated by naturally occurring steroids, such as pregnenolone and progesterone. Binds to a response element in the promoters of the CYP3A4 and ABCB1/MDR1 genes.

Binds and transactivates the retinoic acid response elements that control expression of the retinoic acid receptor beta 2 and alcohol dehydrogenase 3 genes. Transactivates both the phenobarbital responsive element module of the human CYP2B6 gene and the CYP3A4 xenobiotic response element

Orphan nuclear receptor. Binds the IR7 element in the promoter of its own gene in an autoregulatory negative feedback mechanism. Primarily repressor of a broad range of genes. Binds to hormone response elements (HREs) consisting of two 5'-AGGTCA-3' half site direct repeat consensus sequences. Together with NR2C2, forms the core of the DRED (direct repeat erythroid-definitive) complex that represses embryonic and fetal globin transcription. Also activator of OCT4 gene expression. May be involved in stem cell proliferation and differentiation. Mediator of retinoic acid-regulated preadipocyte proliferation.

Orphan nuclear receptor that can act as a repressor or activator of transcription. An important repressor of nuclear receptor signaling pathways such as retinoic acid receptor, retinoid X, vitamin D3 receptor, thyroid hormone receptor and estrogen receptor pathways. May regulate gene expression during the late phase of spermatogenesis. Together with NR2C1, forms the core of the DRED (direct repeat erythroid-definitive) complex that represses embryonic and fetal globin transcription including that of GATA1. Binds to hormone response elements (HREs) consisting of two 5'-AGGTCA-3' half site direct repeat consensus sequences. Plays a fundamental role in early embryonic development and embryonic stem cells. Required for normal spermatogenesis and cerebellum development. Appears to be important for neurodevelopmentally regulated behavior (By similarity). Activates transcriptional activity of LHCG. Antagonist of PPARA-mediated transactivation.

May act as a repressor of NR2C2-mediated transactivation by suppressing the binding between NR2C2/TR4 and the TR4-response element in target genes.

Orphan receptor that binds DNA as a monomer to hormone response elements (HRE) containing an extended core motif half-site sequence 5'-AAGGTCA-3' in which the 5' flanking nucleotides participate in determining receptor specificity (By similarity). May be required to pattern anterior brain differentiation. Involved in the regulation of retinal development and essential for vision. During retinogenesis, regulates PTEN-Cyclin D expression via binding to the promoter region of PTEN and suppressing its activity (By similarity). May be involved in retinoic acid receptor (RAR) regulation in retinal cells.

Orphan nuclear receptor of retinal photoreceptor cells. Transcriptional factor that is an activator of rod development and repressor of cone development. Binds the promoter region of a number of rod- and cone-specific genes, including rhodopsin, M- and S-opsin and rod-specific phosphodiesterase beta subunit. Enhances rhodopsin expression. Represses M- and S-cone opsin expression.

Transcription factor predominantly involved in transcriptional repression. Binds to promoter/enhancer response elements that contain the imperfect 5'-AGGTCA-3' direct or inverted repeats with various spacings which are also recognized by other nuclear hormone receptors. Involved in modulation of hormonal responses. Represses transcriptional activity of the lutropin- choriogonadotropic hormone receptor/LHCGR gene, the renin/REN gene and the oxytocin-neurophysin/OXT gene. Represses the triiodothyronine- dependent and -independent transcriptional activity of the thyroid hormone receptor gene in a cell type-specific manner. The corepressing function towards thyroid hormone receptor beta/THRB involves at least in part the inhibition of THRB binding to triiodothyronine response elements (TREs) by NR2F6. Inhibits NFATC transcription factor DNA binding and subsequently its transcriptional activity. Acts as transcriptional repressor of IL-17 expression in Th-17 differentiated CD4(+) T cells and may be involved in induction and/or maintenance of peripheral immunological tolerance and autoimmunity. Involved in development of forebrain circadian clock; is required early in the development of the locus coeruleus (LC).

Orphan nuclear receptor. May act concomitantly with NURR1 in regulating the expression of delayed-early genes during liver regeneration. Binds the NGFI-B response element (NBRE) 5'-AAAAGGTCA-3' (By similarity). May inhibit NF-kappa-B transactivation of IL2. Participates in energy homeostasis by sequestrating the kinase STK11 in the nucleus, thereby attenuating cytoplasmic AMPK activation. Plays a role in the vascular response to injury (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator which is important for the differentiation and maintenance of meso-diencephalic dopaminergic (mdDA) neurons during development. It is crucial for expression of a set of genes such as SLC6A3, SLC18A2, TH and DRD2 which are essential for development of mdDA neurons (By similarity).

Transcriptional activator that binds to regulatory elements in promoter regions in a cell- and response element (target)-specific manner. Induces gene expression by binding as monomers to the NR4A1 response element (NBRE) 5'-AAAAGGTCA-3' site and as homodimers to the Nur response element (NurRE) site in the promoter of their regulated target genes (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of proliferation, survival and differentiation of many different cell types and also in metabolism and inflammation. Mediates proliferation of vascular smooth muscle, myeloid progenitor cell and type B pancreatic cells; promotes mitogen-induced vascular smooth muscle cell proliferation through transactivation of SKP2 promoter by binding a NBRE site (By similarity). Upon PDGF stimulation, stimulates vascular smooth muscle cell proliferation by regulating CCND1 and CCND2 expression. In islets, induces type B pancreatic cell proliferation through up-regulation of genes that activate cell cycle, as well as genes that cause degradation of the CDKN1A (By similarity). Negatively regulates myeloid progenitor cell proliferation by repressing RUNX1 in a NBRE site-independent manner. During inner ear, plays a role as a key mediator of the proliferative growth phase of semicircular canal development (By similarity). Mediates also survival of neuron and smooth muscle cells; mediates CREB-induced neuronal survival, and during hippocampus development, plays a critical role in pyramidal cell survival and axonal guidance. Is required for S phase entry of the cell cycle and survival of smooth muscle cells by inducing CCND1, resulting in RB1 phosphorylation. Binds to NBRE motif in CCND1 promoter, resulting in the activation of the promoter and CCND1 transcription (By similarity). Also plays a role in inflammation; upon TNF stimulation, mediates monocyte adhesion by inducing the expression of VCAM1 and ICAM1 by binding to the NBRE consensus site (By similarity). In mast cells activated by Fc-epsilon receptor cross-linking, promotes the synthesis and release of cytokines but impairs events leading to degranulation (By similarity). Also plays a role in metabolism; by modulating feeding behavior; and by playing a role in energy balance by inhibiting the glucocorticoid-induced orexigenic neuropeptides AGRP expression, at least in part by forming a complex with activated NR3C1 on the AGRP- glucocorticoid response element (GRE), and thus weakening the DNA binding activity of NR3C1. Upon catecholamines stimulation, regulates gene expression that controls oxidative metabolism in skeletal muscle (By similarity). Plays a role in glucose transport by regulating translocation of the SLC2A4 glucose transporter to the cell surface. Finally, during gastrulation plays a crucial role in the formation of anterior mesoderm by controlling cell migration. Inhibits adipogenesis (By similarity). Also participates in cardiac hypertrophy by activating PARP1 (By similarity).

Nuclear receptor that acts as a key metabolic sensor by regulating the expression of genes involved in bile acid synthesis, cholesterol homeostasis and triglyceride synthesis. Together with the oxysterol receptors NR1H3/LXR-alpha and NR1H2/LXR-beta, acts as an essential transcriptional regulator of lipid metabolism. Plays an anti- inflammatory role during the hepatic acute phase response by acting as a corepressor: inhibits the hepatic acute phase response by preventing dissociation of the N-Cor corepressor complex. Binds to the sequence element 5'-AACGACCGACCTTGAG-3' of the enhancer II of hepatitis B virus genes, a critical cis-element of their expression and regulation. May be responsible for the liver-specific activity of enhancer II, probably in combination with other hepatocyte transcription factors. Key regulator of cholesterol 7-alpha-hydroxylase gene (CYP7A) expression in liver. May also contribute to the regulation of pancreas-specific genes and play important roles in embryonic development. Activates the transcription of CYP2C38 (By similarity).

Orphan nuclear receptor. Binds to a response element containing the sequence 5'-TCAAGGTCA-3'. May be involved in the regulation of gene expression in germ cell development during gametogenesis (By similarity).

Divalent transition metal (iron and manganese) transporter involved in iron metabolism and host resistance to certain pathogens. Macrophage-specific membrane transport function. Controls natural resistance to infection with intracellular parasites. Pathogen resistance involves sequestration of Fe(2+) and Mn(2+), cofactors of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic catalases and superoxide dismutases, not only to protect the macrophage against its own generation of reactive oxygen species, but to deny the cations to the pathogen for synthesis of its protective enzymes

Important in metal transport, in particular iron. Can also transport manganese, cobalt, cadmium, nickel, vanadium and lead. Involved in apical iron uptake into duodenal enterocytes. Involved in iron transport from acidified endosomes into the cytoplasm of erythroid precursor cells. May play an important role in hepatic iron accumulation and tissue iron distribution. May serve to import iron into the mitochondria.

May be involved in anchoring the terminal actin filaments in the myofibril to the membrane and in transmitting tension from the myofibrils to the extracellular matrix.

Downstream effector of Notch signaling. Involved in the regulation of liver cancer cells self-renewal. Involved in angiogenesis acting downstream of Notch at branch points to regulate vascular density. Proposed to integrate endothelial Notch and Wnt signaling to control stalk cell proliferation and to stablilize new endothelial connections during angiogenesis. During somitogenesis involved in maintenance of proper somite segmentation and proper numbers of somites and vertebrae. Required for proper anterior- posterior somite patterning. Proposed to function in a negative feedback loop to destabilize Notch 1 intracellular domain (NICD) and down-regulate the Notch signal, preventing expansion of the Notch signal into the anterior somite domain (By similarity).

May modulate transcriptional activation by target nuclear receptors. Can act as transcriptional activator (in vitro).

May regulate apoptosis of neural progenitor cells during their differentiation.

May play a role in subcellular trafficking between the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus through interactions with the Rho-type GTPases. Binding to the NS3 protein of dengue virus type 2 appears to subvert this activity into the alteration of the intracellular membrane structure associated with flaviviral replication.

Cell adhesion protein that is required for normal responses to cell-cell contacts in brain and in the peripheral nervous system. Plays a role in neurite outgrowth in response to contactin binding. Plays a role in mediating cell-cell contacts between Schwann cells and axons. Plays a role in the formation and maintenance of the nodes of Ranvier on myelinated axons. Nodes of Ranvier contain clustered sodium channels that are crucial for the saltatory propagation of action potentials along myelinated axons. During development, nodes of Ranvier are formed by the fusion of two heminodes. Required for normal clustering of sodium channels at heminodes; not required for the formation of mature nodes with normal sodium channel clusters. Required, together with GLDN, for maintaining NFASC and sodium channel clusters at mature nodes of Ranvier.

Cleaves peptide substrates on the N-terminus of arginine residues in dibasic pairs. Is a critical activator of BACE1- and ADAM17-mediated pro-neuregulin ectodomain shedding, involved in the positive regulation of axonal maturation and myelination. Required for proper functioning of 2-oxoglutarate dehydrogenase (OGDH) (By similarity).

Protein of the nuclear speckles that regulates RNA degradation and export from the nucleus through its interaction with MTREX an essential factor directing various RNAs to exosomal degradation. Changes the conformation of MTREX, precluding its association with the nuclear exosome and interaction with proteins required for its function in RNA exosomal degradation. Negatively regulates, for instance, the degradation of mRNAs and lncRNAs by inhibiting their MTREX-mediated recruitment to nuclear exosome. By preventing the degradation of RNAs in the nucleus, it promotes their export to the cytoplasm. U5 snRNP-associated RNA splicing factor which is required for efficient splicing of CEP131 pre-mRNA and plays an important role in centrosome maturation, integrity and function during mitosis. Suppresses intron retention in a subset of pre-mRNAs containing short, GC-rich introns with relatively weak 5' and 3' splice sites. Plays a role in DNA damage response.

May have roles in neural function. Ectopic expression augments motility of gliomas. Promotes also axonal regeneration (By similarity). May also have functions in cellular differentiation (By similarity). Induces differentiation of fibroblast into myofibroblast and myofibroblast ameboid migration. Increases retinoic-acid regulation of lipid-droplet biogenesis (By similarity). Down-regulates the expression of TGFB1 and TGFB2 but not of TGFB3 (By similarity). May play a role in the regulation of alveolar generation.

Transcription factor that activates the expression of the EIF2S1 (EIF2-alpha) gene. Links the transcriptional modulation of key metabolic genes to cellular growth and development. Implicated in the control of nuclear genes required for respiration, heme biosynthesis, and mitochondrial DNA transcription and replication

Direct ligand for ERBB3 and ERBB4 tyrosine kinase receptors. Concomitantly recruits ERBB1 and ERBB2 coreceptors, resulting in ligand-stimulated tyrosine phosphorylation and activation of the ERBB receptors. The multiple isoforms perform diverse functions such as inducing growth and differentiation of epithelial, glial, neuronal, and skeletal muscle cells; inducing expression of acetylcholine receptor in synaptic vesicles during the formation of the neuromuscular junction; stimulating lobuloalveolar budding and milk production in the mammary gland and inducing differentiation of mammary tumor cells; stimulating Schwann cell proliferation; implication in the development of the myocardium such as trabeculation of the developing heart. Isoform 10 may play a role in motor and sensory neuron development. Binds to ERBB4. Binds to ERBB3. Acts as a ligand for integrins and binds (via EGF domain) to integrins ITGAV:ITGB3 or ITGA6:ITGB4. Its binding to integrins and subsequent ternary complex formation with integrins and ERRB3 are essential for NRG1-ERBB signaling. Induces the phosphorylation and activation of MAPK3/ERK1, MAPK1/ERK2 and AKT1. Ligand-dependent ERBB4 endocytosis is essential for the NRG1-mediated activation of these kinases in neurons (By similarity).

Direct ligand for ERBB3 and ERBB4 tyrosine kinase receptors. Concomitantly recruits ERBB1 and ERBB2 coreceptors, resulting in ligand-stimulated tyrosine phosphorylation and activation of the ERBB receptors. May also promote the heterodimerization with the EGF receptor

Direct ligand for the ERBB4 tyrosine kinase receptor. Binding results in ligand-stimulated tyrosine phosphorylation and activation of the receptor. Does not bind to the EGF receptor, ERBB2 or ERBB3 receptors. May be a survival factor for oligodendrocytes.

Low affinity ligand for the ERBB4 tyrosine kinase receptor. Concomitantly recruits ERBB1 and ERBB2 coreceptors, resulting in ligand-stimulated tyrosine phosphorylation and activation of the ERBB receptors. Does not bind to the ERBB1, ERBB2 and ERBB3 receptors (By similarity).

Modulates transcriptional activation by steroid receptors such as NR3C1, NR3C2 and ESR1. Also modulates transcriptional repression by nuclear hormone receptors. Positive regulator of the circadian clock gene expression: stimulates transcription of BMAL1, CLOCK and CRY1 by acting as a coactivator for RORA and RORC. Involved in the regulation of ovarian function (By similarity). Plays a role in renal development.

Down-regulates transcriptional activation by nuclear receptors such as NR1F2.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of nicotinamide riboside (NR) and nicotinic acid riboside (NaR) to form nicotinamide mononucleotide (NMN) and nicotinic acid mononucleotide (NaMN). The enzyme also phosphorylates the antitumor drugs tiazofurin and 3-deazaguanosine.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of nicotinamide riboside (NR) and nicotinic acid riboside (NaR) to form nicotinamide mononucleotide (NMN) and nicotinic acid mononucleotide (NaMN). Reduces laminin matrix deposition and cell adhesion to laminin, but not to fibronectin. Involved in the regulation of PXN at the protein level and of PXN tyrosine phosphorylation. May play a role in the regulation of terminal myogenesis.

May phosphorylate cofilin-1 and induce actin polymerization through this process, during the late stages of embryogenesis. Involved in the TNF-alpha-induced signaling pathway (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional activator which regulates the expression of several rod-specific genes, including RHO and PDE6B. Functions also as a transcriptional coactivator, stimulating transcription mediated by the transcription factor CRX and NR2E3. Binds in a sequence-specific manner to the rhodopsin promoter.

Promotes neurite outgrowth and especially branching of neuritic processes in primary hippocampal and cortical cells.

Cell-surface receptor involved in the development of the cardiovascular system, in angiogenesis, in the formation of certain neuronal circuits and in organogenesis outside the nervous system. Mediates the chemorepulsant activity of semaphorins. Recognizes a C-end rule (CendR) motif R/KXXR/K on its ligands which causes cellular internalization and vascular leakage. It binds to semaphorin 3A, the PLGF-2 isoform of PGF, the VEGF165 isoform of VEGFA and VEGFB. Coexpression with KDR results in increased VEGF165 binding to KDR as well as increased chemotaxis. Regulates VEGF-induced angiogenesis. Binding to VEGFA initiates a signaling pathway needed for motor neuron axon guidance and cell body migration, including for the caudal migration of facial motor neurons from rhombomere 4 to rhombomere 6 during embryonic development (By similarity). Regulates mitochondrial iron transport via interaction with ABCB8/MITOSUR.

High affinity receptor for semaphorins 3C, 3F, VEGF-165 and VEGF-145 isoforms of VEGF, and the PLGF-2 isoform of PGF

May play an important role in neural organelle transport, and in transduction of nerve signals or in nerve growth. May play a role in neurite extension. May play a role in memory consolidation (By similarity).

Supports the survival of sympathetic neurons in culture. May regulate the development and maintenance of the CNS. Might control the size of non-neuronal cell population such as haemopoietic cells

Neuronal cell surface protein that may be involved in cell recognition and cell adhesion. May mediate intracellular signaling

Involved in many cell functions, including pre-mRNA splicing, the aryl hydrocarbon receptor (AHR) pathway, F-actin organization and protein ubiquitination. Plays a role in the dynamic organization of the actin skeleton as a stabilizer of actin filaments by association with F-actin through Kelch repeats (By similarity). Protects cells from cell death induced by actin destabilization (By similarity). Functions as modifier of the AHR/Aryl hydrocarbon receptor pathway increasing the concentration of AHR available to activate transcription. In addition, functions as a negative regulator of BCR(KLHL20) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex to prevent ubiquitin-mediated proteolysis of PML and DAPK1, two tumor suppressors. Inhibits pre-mRNA splicing (in vitro).

Involved in the biogenesis of the 60S ribosomal subunit. May play a part in the quality control of pre-60S particles (By similarity).

Histone methyltransferase that dimethylates Lys-36 of histone H3 (H3K36me2). Transcriptional intermediary factor capable of both negatively or positively influencing transcription, depending on the cellular context.

Histone methyltransferase which specifically dimethylates nucleosomal histone H3 at 'Lys-36' (H3K36me2). Also monomethylates nucleosomal histone H3 at 'Lys-36' (H3K36me) in vitro. Does not trimethylate nucleosomal histone H3 at 'Lys-36' (H3K36me3). However, specifically trimethylates histone H3 at 'Lys-36' (H3K36me3) at euchromatic regions in embryonic stem (ES) cells (By similarity). By methylating histone H3 at 'Lys-36', involved in the regulation of gene transcription during various biological processes. In ES cells, associates with developmental transcription factors such as SALL1 and represses inappropriate gene transcription mediated by histone deacetylation (By similarity). During heart development, associates with transcription factor NKX2-5 to repress transcription of NKX2-5 target genes (By similarity). Plays an essential role in adipogenesis, by regulating expression of genes involved in pre-adipocyte differentiation. During T- cell receptor (TCR) and CD28-mediated T-cell activation, promotes the transcription of transcription factor BCL6 which is required for follicular helper T (Tfh) cell differentiation (By similarity). During B-cell development, required for the generation of the B1 lineage (By similarity). During B2 cell activation, may contribute to the control of isotype class switch recombination (CRS), splenic germinal center formation, and the humoral immune response (By similarity). Plays a role in class switch recombination of the immunoglobulin heavy chain (IgH) locus during B-cell activation (By similarity). By regulating the methylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-36' and histone H4 at 'Lys-20' at the IgH locus, involved in TP53BP1 recruitment to the IgH switch region and promotes the transcription of IgA (By similarity).

Histone methyltransferase. Preferentially dimethylates 'Lys- 4' and 'Lys-27' of histone H3 forming H3K2me2 and H3K27me2. H3 'Lys-4' methylation represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation, while 'Lys-27' is a mark for transcriptional repression.

Catalyzes the NAD(P)(+)-dependent oxidative decarboxylation of the C4 methyl groups of 4-alpha-carboxysterols in post-squalene cholesterol biosynthesis (By similarity). Also plays a role in the regulation of the endocytic trafficking of EGFR (By similarity).

RING-type zinc finger-containing E3 ubiquitin ligase that assembles with melanoma antigen protein (MAGE) to catalyze the direct transfer of ubiquitin from E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme to a specific substrate. Within MAGE-RING ubiquitin ligase complex, MAGE stimulates and specifies ubiquitin ligase activity likely through recruitment and/or stabilization of the E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme at the E3:substrate complex. Involved in maintenance of genome integrity, DNA damage response and DNA repair. NSMCE3/MAGEG1 and NSMCE1 ubiquitin ligase are components of SMC5-SMC6 complex and may positively regulate homologous recombination-mediated DNA repair. MAGEF1-NSMCE1 ubiquitin ligase promotes proteasomal degradation of MMS19, a key component of the cytosolic iron-sulfur protein assembly (CIA) machinery. Down-regulation of MMS19 impairs the activity of several DNA repair and metabolism enzymes such as ERCC2/XPD, FANCJ, RTEL1 and POLD1 that require iron-sulfur clusters as cofactors.

E3 SUMO-protein ligase component of the SMC5-SMC6 complex, a complex involved in DNA double-strand break repair by homologous recombination. Is not be required for the stability of the complex. The complex may promote sister chromatid homologous recombination by recruiting the SMC1-SMC3 cohesin complex to double-strand breaks. The complex is required for telomere maintenance via recombination in ALT (alternative lengthening of telomeres) cell lines and mediates sumoylation of shelterin complex (telosome) components which is proposed to lead to shelterin complex disassembly in ALT-associated PML bodies (APBs). Acts as an E3 ligase mediating SUMO attachment to various proteins such as SMC6L1 and TSNAX, the shelterin complex subunits TERF1, TERF2, TINF2 and TERF2IP, RAD51AP1, and maybe the cohesin components RAD21 and STAG2. Required for recruitment of telomeres to PML nuclear bodies. SUMO protein-ligase activity is required for the prevention of DNA damage-induced apoptosis by facilitating DNA repair, and for formation of APBs in ALT cell lines. Required for sister chromatid cohesion during prometaphase and mitotic progression.

Component of the SMC5-SMC6 complex, a complex involved in repair of DNA double-strand breaks by homologous recombination. The complex may promote sister chromatid homologous recombination by recruiting the SMC1-SMC3 cohesin complex to double-strand breaks. The complex is required for telomere maintenance via recombination in ALT (alternative lengthening of telomeres) cell lines and mediates sumoylation of shelterin complex (telosome) components which is proposed to lead to shelterin complex disassembly in ALT-associated PML bodies (APBs). In vitro enhances ubiquitin ligase activity of NSMCE1. Proposed to act through recruitment and/or stabilization of the Ubl-conjugating enzyme (E2) at the E3:substrate complex. May be a growth suppressor that facilitates the entry of the cell into cell cycle arrest (By similarity).

Component of the SMC5-SMC6 complex, a complex involved in DNA double-strand breaks by homologous recombination. The complex may promote sister chromatid homologous recombination by recruiting the SMC1-SMC3 cohesin complex to double-strand breaks. The complex is required for telomere maintenance via recombination in ALT (alternative lengthening of telomeres) cell lines and mediates sumoylation of shelterin complex (telosome) components which is proposed to lead to shelterin complex disassembly in ALT-associated PML bodies (APBs). Is involved in positive regulation of response to DNA damage stimulus.

Reduces the ATPase activity of VCP (By similarity). Necessary for the fragmentation of Golgi stacks during mitosis and for VCP- mediated reassembly of Golgi stacks after mitosis (By similarity). May play a role in VCP-mediated formation of transitional endoplasmic reticulum (tER) (By similarity). Inhibits the activity of CTSL (in vitro). Together with UBXN2B/p37, regulates the centrosomal levels of kinase AURKA/Aurora A during mitotic progression by promoting AURKA removal from centrosomes in prophase. Also, regulates spindle orientation during mitosis.

Required for vesicle-mediated transport. Catalyzes the fusion of transport vesicles within the Golgi cisternae. Is also required for transport from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi stack. Seems to function as a fusion protein required for the delivery of cargo proteins to all compartments of the Golgi stack independent of vesicle origin. Interaction with AMPAR subunit GRIA2 leads to influence GRIA2 membrane cycling (By similarity).

Plays a role in the recycling mechanism in neurons of multiple receptors, including AMPAR, APP and L1CAM and acts at the level of early endosomes to promote sorting of receptors toward a recycling pathway. Regulates sorting and recycling of GRIA2 through interaction with GRIP1 and then contributes to the regulation of synaptic transmission and plasticity by affecting the recycling and targeting of AMPA receptors to the synapse (By similarity). Is required for faithful sorting of L1CAM to axons by facilitating trafficking from somatodendritic early endosome or the recycling endosome (By similarity). In an other hand, induces apoptosis via the activation of CASP3 in response to DNA damage.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of sphingomyelin to form ceramide and phosphocholine. Ceramide mediates numerous cellular functions, such as apoptosis and growth arrest, and is capable of regulating these 2 cellular events independently. Also hydrolyzes sphingosylphosphocholine. Regulates the cell cycle by acting as a growth suppressor in confluent cells. Probably acts as a regulator of postnatal development and participates in bone and dentin mineralization. Binds to anionic phospholipids (APLs) such as phosphatidylserine (PS) and phosphatidic acid (PA) that modulate enzymatic activity and subcellular location. May be involved in IL-1-beta-induced JNK activation in hepatocytes (By similarity). May act as a mediator in transcriptional regulation of NOS2/iNOS via the NF-kappa-B activation under inflammatory conditions (By similarity).

Catalyzes, at least in vitro, the hydrolysis of sphingomyelin to form ceramide and phosphocholine. Also hydrolyzes 1-O-alkyl-2-lyso-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine (lyso-platelet-activating factor) in vivo. Also acts on 1-acyl-2-lyso-sn- glycero-3-phosphocholine (lyso-PC) and sphingosylphosphocholine.

Couples NMDA-sensitive glutamate receptor signaling to the nucleus and triggers long-lasting changes in the cytoarchitecture of dendrites and spine synapse processes. Part of the cAMP response element-binding protein (CREB) shut-off signaling pathway. Stimulates outgrowth of olfactory axons and migration of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) and luteinizing-hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) neuronal cells.

RNA-binding protein that mediates pre-mRNA alternative splicing regulation.

RNA cytosine C(5)-methyltransferase that methylates cytosine to 5-methylcytosine (m5C) in various RNAs, such as tRNAs, mRNAs and some long non-coding RNAs (lncRNAs). Involved in various processes, such as epidermal stem cell differentiation, testis differentiation and maternal to zygotic transition during early development: acts by increasing protein synthesis; cytosine C(5)-methylation promoting tRNA stability and preventing mRNA decay. Methylates cytosine to 5-methylcytosine (m5C) at positions 34 and 48 of intron- containing tRNA(Leu)(CAA) precursors, and at positions 48, 49 and 50 of tRNA(Gly)(GCC) precursors. tRNA methylation is required generation of RNA fragments derived from tRNAs (tRFs). Also mediates C(5)-methylation of mitochondrial tRNAs. Catalyzes cytosine C(5)-methylation of mRNAs, leading to stabilize them and prevent mRNA decay: mRNA stabilization involves YBX1 that specifically recognizes and binds m5C-modified transcripts. Cytosine C(5)-methylation of mRNAs also regulates mRNA export: methylated transcripts are specifically recognized by THOC4/ALYREF, which mediates mRNA nucleo-cytoplasmic shuttling. Also mediates cytosine C(5)-methylation of non-coding RNAs, such as vault RNAs (vtRNAs), promoting their processing into regulatory small RNAs. Cytosine C(5)- methylation of vtRNA VTRNA1.1 promotes its processing into small-vault RNA4 (svRNA4) and regulates epidermal differentiation. May act downstream of Myc to regulate epidermal cell growth and proliferation (By similarity). Required for proper spindle assembly and chromosome segregation, independently of its methyltransferase activity.

Mitochondrial tRNA methyltransferase that mediates methylation of cytosine to 5-methylcytosine (m5C) at position 34 of mt- tRNA(Met). mt- tRNA(Met) methylation at cytosine(34) takes place at the wobble position of the anticodon and initiates the formation of 5- formylcytosine (f(5)c) at this position. mt-tRNA(Met) containing the f(5)c modification at the wobble position enables recognition of the AUA codon in addition to the AUG codon, expanding codon recognition in mitochondrial translation.

Involved in mitochondrial ribosome assembly. 5-methylcytosine rRNA methyltransferase that probably is involved in mitochondrial ribosome small subunit (SSU) maturation by methylation of mitochondrial 12S rRNA; the function is independent of MTERFD2/MTERF4 and assembled mitochondrial ribosome large subunit (LSU). Targeted to LSU by MTERFD2/MTERF4 and probably is involved in a final step in ribosome biogenesis to ensure that SSU and LSU are assembled. In vitro can methylate 16S rRNA of the LSU; the methylation is enhanced by MTERFD/MTERF4.

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that specifically methylates the C(5) position of cytosine 3782 (m5C3782) in 28S rRNA. m5C3782 promotes protein translation without affecting ribosome biogenesis and fidelity. Required for corpus callosum and cerebral cortex development (By similarity).

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that specifically methylates the C5 position of cytosine 72 in tRNA(Thr)(TGT) and tRNA(Cys)(GCA). In vitro also methylates tRNA(Thr)(AGT). Methylation requires, in the acceptor stem region, the presence of the 3'-CCA terminus, the target site C72, the discriminator base U73, and the second and third base pairs (2:71 and 3:70) in the tRNA substrates.

May have S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyl-transferase activity.

Human-specific protein that promotes neural progenitor proliferation and evolutionary expansion of the brain neocortex by regulating the Notch signaling pathway. Able to promote neural progenitor self-renewal, possibly by down-regulating neuronal differentiation genes, thereby delaying the differentiation of neuronal progenitors and leading to an overall final increase in neuronal production. Acts by enhancing the Notch signaling pathway via two different mechanisms that probably work in parallel to reach the same effect. Enhances Notch signaling pathway in a non-cell-autonomous manner via direct interaction with NOTCH2. Also promotes Notch signaling pathway in a cell- autonomous manner through inhibition of cis DLL1-NOTCH2 interactions, which promotes neuronal differentiation (By similarity).

Human-specific protein that promotes neural progenitor proliferation and evolutionary expansion of the brain neocortex by regulating the Notch signaling pathway. Able to promote neural progenitor self-renewal, possibly by down-regulating neuronal differentiation genes, thereby delaying the differentiation of neuronal progenitors and leading to an overall final increase in neuronal production. Acts by enhancing the Notch signaling pathway via two different mechanisms that probably work in parallel to reach the same effect. Enhances Notch signaling pathway in a non-cell-autonomous manner via direct interaction with NOTCH2. Also promotes Notch signaling pathway in a cell-autonomous manner through inhibition of cis DLL1-NOTCH2 interactions, which promotes neuronal differentiation.

Dephosphorylates the 5' and 2'(3')-phosphates of deoxyribonucleotides, with a preference for dUMP and dTMP, intermediate activity towards dGMP, and low activity towards dCMP and dAMP

Dephosphorylates specifically the 5' and 2'(3')-phosphates of uracil and thymine deoxyribonucleotides, and so protects mitochondrial DNA replication from excess dTTP. Has only marginal activity towards dIMP and dGMP.

Involved in FCER1 (high affinity immunoglobulin epsilon receptor)-mediated signaling in mast cells. May also be involved in BCR (B-cell antigen receptor)-mediated signaling in B-cells and FCGR1 (high affinity immunoglobulin gamma Fc receptor I)-mediated signaling in myeloid cells. Couples activation of these receptors and their associated kinases with distal intracellular events through the recruitment of GRB2.

N-terminal asparagine deamidase that mediates deamidation of N-terminal asparagine residues to aspartate. Required for the ubiquitin-dependent turnover of intracellular proteins that initiate with Met-Asn. These proteins are acetylated on the retained initiator methionine and can subsequently be modified by the removal of N-acetyl methionine by acylaminoacid hydrolase (AAH). Conversion of the resulting N-terminal asparagine to aspartate by NTAN1/PNAD renders the protein susceptible to arginylation, polyubiquitination and degradation as specified by the N-end rule. This enzyme does not act on substrates with internal or C-terminal asparagines and does not act on glutamine residues in any position, nor on acetylated N-terminal peptidyl Asn.

Mediates the side-chain deamidation of N-terminal glutamine residues to glutamate, an important step in N-end rule pathway of protein degradation. Conversion of the resulting N-terminal glutamine to glutamate renders the protein susceptible to arginylation, polyubiquitination and degradation as specified by the N-end rule. Does not act on substrates with internal or C-terminal glutamine and does not act on non-glutamine residues in any position. Does not deaminate acetylated N-terminal glutamine. With the exception of proline, all tested second-position residues on substrate peptides do not greatly influence the activity. In contrast, a proline at position 2, virtually abolishes deamidation of N-terminal glutamine.

Plays a critical role in the sodium-dependent reabsorption of bile acids from the lumen of the small intestine. Transports various bile acids, unconjugated or conjugated, such as cholate and taurocholate. Also responsible for bile acid transport in the renal proximal tubules, a salvage mechanism that helps conserve bile acids (Probable). Works collaboratively with the Na(+)-taurocholate cotransporting polypeptide (NTCP), the organic solute transporter (OST), and the bile salt export pump (BSEP), to ensure efficacious biological recycling of bile acids during enterohepatic circulation.

Involved in teeth and skeletal development. Has an essential role in the biosynthesis and trafficking of glycosaminoglycans and glycoproteins, to produce a proper functioning extracellular matrix. Required for extracellular matrix mineralization. Also involved in the regulation of cellular calcium homeostasis. Does not show transport activity towards bile acids or steroid sulfates (including taurocholate, cholate, chenodeoxycholate, estrone-3-sulfate, dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS) and pregnenolone sulfate).

As a major transporter of conjugated bile salts from plasma into the hepatocyte, it plays a key role in the enterohepatic circulation of bile salts necessary for the solubilization and absorption of dietary fat and fat-soluble vitamins. It is strictly dependent on the extracellular presence of sodium. It exhibits broad substrate specificity and transports various bile acids, such as taurocholate, cholate, as well as non-bile acid organic compounds, such as estrone sulfate. Works collaboratively with the ileal transporter (NTCP2), the organic solute transporter (OST), and the bile salt export pump (BSEP), to ensure efficacious biological recycling of bile acids during enterohepatic circulation.

Mediates the import of GDP-bound RAN from the cytoplasm into the nucleus which is essential for the function of RAN in cargo receptor-mediated nucleocytoplasmic transport. Thereby, plays indirectly a more general role in cargo receptor-mediated nucleocytoplasmic transport. Interacts with GDP-bound RAN in the cytosol, recruits it to the nuclear pore complex via its interaction with nucleoporins and promotes its nuclear import.

Seems to promote the survival of visceral and proprioceptive sensory neurons

Target-derived survival factor for peripheral sensory sympathetic neurons

Bifunctional DNA N-glycosylase with associated apurinic/apyrimidinic (AP) lyase function that catalyzes the first step in base excision repair (BER), the primary repair pathway for the repair of oxidative DNA damage. The DNA N-glycosylase activity releases the damaged DNA base from DNA by cleaving the N- glycosidic bond, leaving an AP site. The AP-lyase activity cleaves the phosphodiester bond 3' to the AP site by a beta-elimination. Primarily recognizes and repairs oxidative base damage of pyrimidines. Has also 8-oxo-7,8-dihydroguanine (8-oxoG) DNA glycosylase activity. Acts preferentially on DNA damage opposite guanine residues in DNA. Is able to process lesions in nucleosomes without requiring or inducing nucleosome disruption.

Distributive alpha-N-methyltransferase that methylates the N- terminus of target proteins containing the N-terminal motif [Ala/Gly/Pro/Ser]-Pro-Lys when the initiator Met is cleaved. Specifically catalyzes mono-, di- or tri-methylation of the exposed alpha-amino group of the Ala, Gly or Ser residue in the [Ala/Gly/Ser]- Pro-Lys motif and mono- or di-methylation of Pro in the Pro-Pro-Lys motif. Some of the substrates may be primed by NTMT2-mediated monomethylation. Catalyzes the trimethylation of the N-terminal Gly in CENPA (after removal of Met-1). Responsible for the N-terminal methylation of KLHL31, MYL2, MYL3, RB1, RCC1, RPL23A and SET. Required during mitosis for normal bipolar spindle formation and chromosome segregation via its action on RCC1.

Alpha N-methyltransferase that methylates the N-terminus of target proteins containing the N-terminal motif [Ala/Pro/Ser]-Pro-Lys when the initiator Met is cleaved. Specifically catalyzes monomethylation of exposed alpha-amino group of Ala or Ser residue in the [Ala/Ser]-Pro-Lys motif and Pro in the Pro-Pro-Lys motif. Predominantly functions as a mono- methyltransferase but is also able to di-/tri-methylate the GPKRIA peptide and di-methylate the PPKRIA peptide (in vitro). May activate NTMT1 by priming its substrates for trimethylation.

Involved in controlling patterning and neuronal circuit formation at the laminar, cellular, subcellular and synaptic levels. Promotes neurite outgrowth of both axons and dendrites.

Has nucleotide phosphatase activity towards ATP, GTP, CTP, TTP and UTP. Hydrolyzes nucleoside diphosphates with lower efficiency.

G-protein coupled receptor for the tridecapeptide neurotensin (NTS). Signaling is effected via G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. Signaling leads to the activation of downstream MAP kinases and protects cells against apoptosis.

Receptor for the tridecapeptide neurotensin. It is associated with G proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system

Receptor tyrosine kinase involved in the development and the maturation of the central and peripheral nervous systems through regulation of proliferation, differentiation and survival of sympathetic and nervous neurons. High affinity receptor for NGF which is its primary ligand. Can also bind and be activated by NTF3/neurotrophin- 3. However, NTF3 only supports axonal extension through NTRK1 but has no effect on neuron survival (By similarity). Upon dimeric NGF ligand- binding, undergoes homodimerization, autophosphorylation and activation. Recruits, phosphorylates and/or activates several downstream effectors including SHC1, FRS2, SH2B1, SH2B2 and PLCG1 that regulate distinct overlapping signaling cascades driving cell survival and differentiation. Through SHC1 and FRS2 activates a GRB2-Ras-MAPK cascade that regulates cell differentiation and survival. Through PLCG1 controls NF-Kappa-B activation and the transcription of genes involved in cell survival. Through SHC1 and SH2B1 controls a Ras-PI3 kinase-AKT1 signaling cascade that is also regulating survival. In absence of ligand and activation, may promote cell death, making the survival of neurons dependent on trophic factors.

Receptor tyrosine kinase involved in the development and the maturation of the central and the peripheral nervous systems through regulation of neuron survival, proliferation, migration, differentiation, and synapse formation and plasticity (By similarity). Receptor for BDNF/brain-derived neurotrophic factor and NTF4/neurotrophin-4. Alternatively can also bind NTF3/neurotrophin-3 which is less efficient in activating the receptor but regulates neuron survival through NTRK2. Upon ligand- binding, undergoes homodimerization, autophosphorylation and activation. Recruits, phosphorylates and/or activates several downstream effectors including SHC1, FRS2, SH2B1, SH2B2 and PLCG1 that regulate distinct overlapping signaling cascades. Through SHC1, FRS2, SH2B1, SH2B2 activates the GRB2-Ras-MAPK cascade that regulates for instance neuronal differentiation including neurite outgrowth. Through the same effectors controls the Ras-PI3 kinase-AKT1 signaling cascade that mainly regulates growth and survival. Through PLCG1 and the downstream protein kinase C-regulated pathways controls synaptic plasticity. Thereby, plays a role in learning and memory by regulating both short term synaptic function and long-term potentiation. PLCG1 also leads to NF-Kappa-B activation and the transcription of genes involved in cell survival. Hence, it is able to suppress anoikis, the apoptosis resulting from loss of cell-matrix interactions. May also play a role in neutrophin-dependent calcium signaling in glial cells and mediate communication between neurons and glia.

Receptor tyrosine kinase involved in nervous system and probably heart development. Upon binding of its ligand NTF3/neurotrophin-3, NTRK3 autophosphorylates and activates different signaling pathways, including the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase/AKT and the MAPK pathways, that control cell survival and differentiation.

Plays a role in the nuclear pore complex (NPC) assembly and/or maintenance. Required for the assembly of peripheral proteins into the NPC. May anchor NUP62 to the NPC. Involved in nephrogenesis.

Component of the nuclear pore complex (NPC), a complex required for the trafficking across the nuclear envelope. Functions as a scaffolding element in the nuclear phase of the NPC essential for normal nucleocytoplasmic transport of proteins and mRNAs. Involved in the quality control and retention of unspliced mRNAs in the nucleus; in association with TPR, regulates the nuclear export of unspliced mRNA species bearing constitutive transport element (CTE) in a NXF1- and KHDRBS1-independent manner. Mediates TPR anchoring to the nuclear membrane at NPC. The repeat-containing domain may be involved in anchoring other components of the NPC to the pore membrane. Possible DNA-binding subunit of the nuclear pore complex (NPC).

Essential component of nuclear pore complex. Could be essessential for embryogenesis. Nucleoporins may be involved both in binding and translocating proteins during nucleocytoplasmic transport.

Functions as a component of the nuclear pore complex (NPC). Involved in poly(A)+ RNA transport.

Component of the nuclear pore complex (NPC), a complex required for the trafficking across the nuclear envelope (Probable). Required for proper protein transport into the nucleus.

Plays a role in the nuclear pore complex (NPC) assembly and/or maintenance. May anchor NUP62 and other nucleoporins, but not NUP153 and TPR, to the NPC.

Part of the nuclear pore complex. Has a critical role in nucleocytoplasmic transport. May serve as a docking site in the receptor-mediated import of substrates across the nuclear pore complex.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in various processes such as cell adhesion, regulation of cell ploidy and senescence, cell proliferation and tumor progression. Phosphorylates ATM, CASP6, LATS1, PPP1R12A and p53/TP53. Acts as a regulator of cellular senescence and cellular ploidy by mediating phosphorylation of 'Ser-464' of LATS1, thereby controlling its stability. Controls cell adhesion by regulating activity of the myosin protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) complex. Acts by mediating phosphorylation of PPP1R12A subunit of myosin PP1: phosphorylated PPP1R12A then interacts with 14-3-3, leading to reduced dephosphorylation of myosin MLC2 by myosin PP1. May be involved in DNA damage response: phosphorylates p53/TP53 at 'Ser-15' and 'Ser-392' and is recruited to the CDKN1A/WAF1 promoter to participate in transcription activation by p53/TP53. May also act as a tumor malignancy-associated factor by promoting tumor invasion and metastasis under regulation and phosphorylation by AKT1. Suppresses Fas-induced apoptosis by mediating phosphorylation of CASP6, thereby suppressing the activation of the caspase and the subsequent cleavage of CFLAR. Regulates UV radiation-induced DNA damage response mediated by CDKN1A. In association with STK11, phosphorylates CDKN1A in response to UV radiation and contributes to its degradation which is necessary for optimal DNA repair.

Stress-activated kinase involved in tolerance to glucose starvation. Induces cell-cell detachment by increasing F-actin conversion to G-actin. Expression is induced by CD95 or TNF-alpha, via NF-kappa-B. Protects cells from CD95-mediated apoptosis and is required for the increased motility and invasiveness of CD95-activated tumor cells. Phosphorylates LATS1 and LATS2. Plays a key role in neural tube closure during embryonic development through LATS2 phosphorylation and regulation of the nuclear localization of YAP1 a critical downstream regulatory target in the Hippo signaling pathway.

Specific down-regulator of the NEDD8 conjugation system. Recruits NEDD8, UBD, and their conjugates to the proteasome for degradation. Isoform 1 promotes the degradation of NEDD8 more efficiently than isoform 2.

Component of the cytosolic iron-sulfur (Fe/S) protein assembly (CIA) machinery. Required for maturation of extramitochondrial Fe-S proteins. The NUBP1-NUBP2 heterotetramer forms a Fe-S scaffold complex, mediating the de novo assembly of an Fe-S cluster and its transfer to target apoproteins. Implicated in the regulation of centrosome duplication (By similarity). Negatively regulates cilium formation and structure (By similarity).

Component of the cytosolic iron-sulfur (Fe/S) protein assembly (CIA) machinery. Required for maturation of extramitochondrial Fe-S proteins. The NUBP1-NUBP2 heterotetramer forms a Fe-S scaffold complex, mediating the de novo assembly of an Fe-S cluster and its transfer to target apoproteins. Negatively regulates cilium formation and structure.

Required for the assembly of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I). May deliver of one or more Fe-S clusters to complex I subunits.

Major calcium-binding protein of the Golgi which may have a role in calcium homeostasis (By similarity). Acts as a non-receptor guanine nucleotide exchange factor which binds to and activates alpha subunits of guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) (By similarity).

Calcium-binding protein which may have a role in calcium homeostasis (By similarity). Acts as a non-receptor guanine nucleotide exchange factor which binds to and activates guanine nucleotide-binding protein (G-protein) alpha subunit GNAI3 (By similarity).

Endonuclease that preferentially catalyzes the cleavage of double-stranded 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC)-modified DNA. The 5hmC-modified nucleotide does not increase the binding affinity, but instead increases the efficiency of cutting and specifies the site of cleavage for the modified DNAs (By similarity). Shows significantly higher affinity for four-stranded Holliday junction over duplex and single-stranded DNAs (By similarity). Promotes conservative recombination when the DNA is 5hmC-modified. Promotes autophagy through the suppression of mTOR by its phosphorylation-mediated interaction with YWHAG and its endonuclease activity-mediated DNA damage response. GSK3-beta mediated phosphorylation of ENDOG enhances its interaction with YWHAG, leading to the release of TSC2 and PIK3C3 from YWHAG resulting in mTOR pathway suppression and autophagy initiation. Promotes cleavage of mtDNA in response to oxidative and nitrosative stress, in turn inducing compensatory mtDNA replication.

Chromatin-associated protein involved in DNA repair by promoting homologous recombination (HR). Binds double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) and secondary DNA structures, such as D- loop structures, but with less affinity than RAD51AP1.

Nucleolin is the major nucleolar protein of growing eukaryotic cells. It is found associated with intranucleolar chromatin and pre-ribosomal particles. It induces chromatin decondensation by binding to histone H1. It is thought to play a role in pre-rRNA transcription and ribosome assembly. May play a role in the process of transcriptional elongation. Binds RNA oligonucleotides with 5'-UUAGGG- 3' repeats more tightly than the telomeric single-stranded DNA 5'- TTAGGG-3' repeats.

Cleaves a beta-phosphate from the diphosphate groups in PP- InsP5 (diphosphoinositol pentakisphosphate), suggesting that it may play a role in signal transduction. Also able to catalyze the hydrolysis of dinucleoside oligophosphates, with Ap6A and Ap5A being the preferred substrates. The major reaction products are ADP and p4a from Ap6A and ADP and ATP from Ap5A. Also able to hydrolyze 5- phosphoribose 1-diphosphate.

mRNA decapping enzyme that specifically removes the nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) cap from a subset of mRNAs by hydrolyzing the diphosphate linkage to produce nicotinamide mononucleotide (NMN) and 5' monophosphate mRNA. The NAD-cap is present at the 5'-end of some RNAs; in contrast to the canonical N7 methylguanosine (m7G) cap, the NAD cap promotes mRNA decay. Preferentially acts on NAD- capped transcripts in response to nutrient stress. Also acts on free nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide molecules: hydrolyzes NAD(H) into NMN(H) and AMP, and NADPH into NMNH and 2',5'- ADP. May act to regulate the concentration of peroxisomal nicotinamide nucleotide cofactors required for oxidative metabolism in this organelle. Regulates the levels of circadian clock components PER1, PER2, PER3 and CRY2 in the liver (By similarity).

NAD(P)H pyrophosphatase that hydrolyzes NADH into NMNH and AMP, and NADPH into NMNH and 2',5'-ADP. Has a marked preference for the reduced pyridine nucleotides. Does not show activity toward NAD-capped RNAs; the NAD-cap is an atypical cap present at the 5'-end of some RNAs.

Hydrolyzes UDP-glucose to glucose 1-phosphate and UMP and ADP-ribose to ribose 5-phosphate and AMP. The physiological substrate is probably UDP-glucose. Poor activity on other substrates such as ADP- glucose, CDP-glucose, GDP-glucose and GDP-mannose

May catalyze the hydrolysis of nucleoside triphosphates including dGTP, dTTP, dCTP, their oxidized forms like 8-oxo-dGTP and the prodrug thiopurine derivatives 6-thio-dGTP and 6-thio-GTP. Could also catalyze the hydrolysis of some nucleoside diphosphate derivatives. Hydrolyzes oxidized nucleosides triphosphates like 8-oxo-dGTP in vitro, but the specificity and efficiency towards these substrates are low. Therefore, the potential in vivo sanitizing role of this enzyme, that would consist in removing oxidatively damaged forms of nucleosides to prevent their incorporation into DNA, is unclear. Through the hydrolysis of thioguanosine triphosphates may participate in the catabolism of thiopurine drugs. May also have a role in DNA synthesis and cell cycle progression by stabilizing PCNA. Exhibits decapping activity towards dpCoA-capped RNAs in vitro (By similarity).

RNA-binding and decapping enzyme that catalyzes the cleavage of the cap structure of snoRNAs and mRNAs in a metal-dependent manner. Part of the U8 snoRNP complex that is required for the accumulation of mature 5.8S and 28S rRNA. Has diphosphatase activity and removes m7G and/or m227G caps from U8 snoRNA and leaves a 5'monophosphate on the RNA. Catalyzes also the cleavage of the cap structure on mRNAs. Does not hydrolyze cap analog structures like 7-methylguanosine nucleoside triphosphate (m7GpppG). Also hydrolysis m7G- and m227G U3-capped RNAs but with less efficiencies. Has broad substrate specificity with manganese or cobalt as cofactor and can act on various RNA species. Binds to the U8 snoRNA; metal is not required for RNA-binding. May play a role in the regulation of snoRNAs and mRNAs degradation. Acts also as a phosphatase; hydrolyzes the non-canonical purine nucleotides inosine diphosphate (IDP) and deoxyinosine diphosphate (dITP) as well as guanosine diphosphate (GDP), deoxyguanosine diphosphate (dGDP), xanthine diphosphate (XDP), inosine triphosphate (ITP) and deoxyinosine triphosphate (ITP) to their respective monophosphate derivatives and does not distinguish between the deoxy- and ribose forms. The order of activity with different substrates is IDP > dIDP >> GDP = dGDP > XDP = ITP = dITP. Binds strongly to GTP, ITP and XTP. Participates in the hydrolysis of dIDP/IDP and probably excludes non-canonical purines from RNA and DNA precursor pools, thus preventing their incorporation into RNA and DNA and avoiding chromosomal lesions. Exhibits decapping activity towards NAD-capped RNAs and FAD-capped RNAs. Exhibits decapping activity towards dpCoA-capped RNAs in vitro (By similarity).

Probably mediates the hydrolysis of some nucleoside diphosphate derivatives.

Mediates the hydrolysis of oxidized nucleoside diphosphate derivatives. Hydrolyzes 8-oxo-7,8-dihydroguanine (8-oxo-Gua)-containing deoxyribo- and ribonucleoside diphosphates to the monophosphates. Hydrolyzes 8-oxo-dGDP and 8-oxo-GDP with the same efficiencies. Hydrolyzes also 8-OH-dADP and 2-OH-dADP. Exhibited no or minimal hydrolysis activity against 8-oxo-dGTP, 8-oxo-GTP, dGTP, GTP, dGDP and GDP. Probably removes oxidized guanine nucleotides from both the DNA and RNA precursor pools.

Fatty acyl-coenzyme A (CoA) diphosphatase that hydrolyzes fatty acyl-CoA to yield acyl-4'-phosphopantetheine and adenosine 3',5'- bisphosphate (By similarity). Mediates the hydrolysis of a wide range of CoA esters, including choloyl-CoA and branched-chain fatty-acyl-CoA esters and at low substrate concentrations medium and long-chain fatty- acyl-CoA esters are the primary substrates (By similarity). Highest activity seen with medium-chain acyl-CoA esters and higher rates of activity seen with the unsaturated acyl-CoA esters compared with the saturated esters (By similarity). Exhibits decapping activity towards dpCoA-capped RNAs in vitro (By similarity).

Hydrolyzes UDP-glucose to glucose 1-phosphate and UMP and UDP-galactose to galactose 1-phosphate and UMP. Preferred substrate is UDP-glucose.

Cleaves a beta-phosphate from the diphosphate groups in PP- InsP5 (diphosphoinositol pentakisphosphate), PP-InsP4 and [PP]2-InsP4 (bisdiphosphoinositol tetrakisphosphate), suggesting that it may play a role in signal transduction. Also able to catalyze the hydrolysis of dinucleoside oligophosphate Ap6A, but not Ap5A. The major reaction products are ADP and p4a from Ap6A. Also able to hydrolyze 5- phosphoribose 1-diphosphate. Does not play a role in U8 snoRNA decapping activity. Binds U8 snoRNA.

May regulate the LIS1/dynein pathway by stabilizing LIS1 with Hsp90 chaperone.

Plays a role in neurogenesis and neuronal migration (By similarity). Necessary for correct formation of mitotic spindles and chromosome separation during mitosis. Necessary for cytokinesis and cell proliferation.

Cleaves a beta-phosphate from the diphosphate groups in PP- InsP5 (diphosphoinositol pentakisphosphate) and [PP]2-InsP4 (bisdiphosphoinositol tetrakisphosphate), suggesting that it may play a role in signal transduction. InsP6 (inositol hexakisphosphate) is not a substrate. Acts as a negative regulator of the ERK1/2 pathway (By similarity). Also able to catalyze the hydrolysis of dinucleoside oligophosphates, with diadenosine 5',5'''-P1,P6- hexaphosphate (Ap6A) and diadenosine 5',5'''- P1,P5-pentaphosphate (Ap5A) being the preferred substrates. The major reaction products are ADP and p4a from Ap6A and ADP and ATP from Ap5A. Also able to hydrolyze 5-phosphoribose 1-diphosphate. Acts as a decapping enzyme that modulates the stability of a subset of mRNAs implicated in cell motility.

Cleaves a beta-phosphate from the diphosphate groups in PP- InsP5 (diphosphoinositol pentakisphosphate), PP-InsP4 and [PP]2-InsP4 (bisdiphosphoinositol tetrakisphosphate), suggesting that it may play a role in signal transduction. Can also catalyze the hydrolysis of diadenosine 5',5'''-P1,P6-hexaphosphate (Ap6A) but not diadenosine 5',5'''-P1,P5-pentaphosphate (Ap5A) and the major reaction products are ADP and p4a from Ap6A. Also able to hydrolyze 5-phosphoribose 1-diphosphate. Does not play a role in U8 snoRNA decapping activity (By similarity). Binds U8 snoRNA (By similarity).

Enzyme that can either act as an ADP-sugar pyrophosphatase in absence of diphosphate or catalyze the synthesis of ATP in presence of diphosphate. In absence of diphosphate, hydrolyzes with similar activities various modified nucleoside diphosphates such as ADP-ribose, ADP-mannose, ADP-glucose, 8-oxo-GDP and 8-oxo-dGDP. Can also hydrolyze other nucleotide sugars with low activity. In presence of diphosphate, mediates the synthesis of ATP in the nucleus by catalyzing the conversion of ADP-ribose to ATP and ribose 5-phosphate. Nuclear ATP synthesis takes place when dephosphorylated at Thr-45. Nuclear ATP generation is required for extensive chromatin remodeling events that are energy-consuming. Does not play a role in U8 snoRNA decapping activity (By similarity). Binds U8 snoRNA (By similarity).

Fatty acyl-coenzyme A (CoA) diphosphatase that hydrolyzes fatty acyl-CoA to yield acyl-4'-phosphopantetheine and adenosine 3',5'- bisphosphate (By similarity). Cleaves CoA, CoA esters and oxidized CoA with similar efficiencies (By similarity). Preferentially hydrolyzes medium-chain acyl-CoAs and bile acid-CoAs (By similarity). Has no activity toward NDP-sugars, CDP-alcohols, (deoxy)nucleoside 5'- triphosphates, nucleoside 5'-di or monophosphates, diadenosine polyphosphates, NAD, NADH, NADP, NADPH or thymidine-5'-monophospho-p- nitrophenyl ester (By similarity). May be required to eliminate oxidized CoA from peroxisomes, or regulate CoA and acyl-CoA levels in this organelle in response to metabolic demand (By similarity). Does not play a role in U8 snoRNA decapping activity (By similarity). Binds U8 snoRNA (By similarity). Exhibits decapping activity towards dpCoA- capped RNAs in vitro (By similarity).

Acyl-CoA diphosphatase that mediates the hydrolysis of a wide range of CoA and CoA esters yielding 3',5'-ADP and the corresponding 4'-phosphopantetheine derivative as products (By similarity). Hydrolyzes short- and medium-chain acyl-CoAs, exhibiting the highest activity toward free CoA, hexanoyl-CoA, and octanoyl-CoA and the lowest activity against acetyl-CoA (By similarity). Exhibits decapping activity towards dpCoA-capped RNAs in vitro (By similarity).

Acts as a component of the essential kinetochore-associated NDC80 complex, which is required for chromosome segregation and spindle checkpoint activity. Required for kinetochore integrity and the organization of stable microtubule binding sites in the outer plate of the kinetochore. The NDC80 complex synergistically enhances the affinity of the SKA1 complex for microtubules and may allow the NDC80 complex to track depolymerizing microtubules.

Microtubule (MT)-binding protein that plays a role in the formation and maintenance of the spindle poles and the alignement and the segregation of chromosomes during mitotic cell division. Functions to tether the minus ends of MTs at the spindle poles, which is critical for the establishment and maintenance of the spindle poles. Plays a role in the establishment of the mitotic spindle orientation during metaphase and elongation during anaphase in a dynein-dynactin-dependent manner. In metaphase, part of a ternary complex composed of GPSM2 and G(i) alpha proteins, that regulates the recruitment and anchorage of the dynein-dynactin complex in the mitotic cell cortex regions situated above the two spindle poles, and hence regulates the correct oritentation of the mitotic spindle. During anaphase, mediates the recruitment and accumulation of the dynein-dynactin complex at the cell membrane of the polar cortical region through direct association with phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PI(4,5)P2), and hence participates in the regulation of the spindle elongation and chromosome segregation. Binds also to other polyanionic phosphoinositides, such as phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PIP), lysophosphatidic acid (LPA) and phosphatidylinositol triphosphate (PIP3), in vitro. Also required for proper orientation of the mitotic spindle during asymmetric cell divisions. Plays a role in mitotic MT aster assembly. Involved in anastral spindle assembly. Positively regulates TNKS protein localization to spindle poles in mitosis. Highly abundant component of the nuclear matrix where it may serve a non-mitotic structural role, occupies the majority of the nuclear volume. Required for epidermal differentiation and hair follicle morphogenesis (By similarity).

Plays a role in the process of neurogenesis. Required throughout embryonic neurogenesis to maintain neural progenitor cells, also called radial glial cells (RGCs), by allowing their daughter cells to choose progenitor over neuronal cell fate. Not required for the proliferation of neural progenitor cells before the onset of embryonic neurogenesis. Also required postnatally in the subventricular zone (SVZ) neurogenesis by regulating SVZ neuroblasts survival and ependymal wall integrity. Negative regulator of NF-kappa-B signaling pathway. The inhibition of NF-kappa-B activation is mediated at least in part, by preventing MAP3K7IP2 to interact with polyubiquitin chains of TRAF6 and RIPK1 and by stimulating the 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination and degradation of TRAF6 in cortical neurons.

Regulates clathrin-mediated receptor endocytosis. Plays a role in the process of neurogenesis (By similarity). Required throughout embryonic neurogenesis to maintain neural progenitor cells, also called radial glial cells (RGCs), by allowing their daughter cells to choose progenitor over neuronal cell fate (By similarity). Not required for the proliferation of neural progenitor cells before the onset of neurogenesis. Also involved postnatally in the subventricular zone (SVZ) neurogenesis by regulating SVZ neuroblasts survival and ependymal wall integrity (By similarity). May also mediate local repair of brain ventricular wall damage (By similarity).

Functions as a component of the nuclear pore complex (NPC). NPC components, collectively referred to as nucleoporins (NUPs), can play the role of both NPC structural components and of docking or interaction partners for transiently associated nuclear transport factors. May play a role in the association of MAD1 with the NPC.

Component of the Nup107-160 subcomplex of the nuclear pore complex (NPC). The Nup107-160 subcomplex is required for the assembly of a functional NPC. The Nup107-160 subcomplex is also required for normal kinetochore microtubule attachment, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation.

Required for the export of mRNAs containing poly(A) tails from the nucleus into the cytoplasm.

Component of the nuclear pore complex that has a direct role in nuclear protein import. Actively displaces NLSs from importin-alpha, and facilitates disassembly of the importin- alpha:beta-cargo complex and importin recycling. Interacts with regulatory proteins of cell cycle progression including CDKN1B (By similarity). This interaction is required for correct intracellular transport and degradation of CDKN1B (By similarity).

Component of the nuclear pore complex, a complex required for the trafficking across the nuclear membrane.

Essential component of the nuclear pore complex. The N-terminal is probably involved in nucleocytoplasmic transport. The C-terminal is involved in protein-protein interaction probably via coiled-coil formation, promotes its association with centrosomes and may function in anchorage of p62 to the pore complex. Plays a role in mitotic cell cycle progression by regulating centrosome segregation, centriole maturation and spindle orientation. It might be involved in protein recruitment to the centrosome after nuclear breakdown.

Essential component of the nuclear pore complex (NPC) that seems to be required for NPC assembly and maintenance. As part of the NPC Nup107-160 subcomplex plays a role in RNA export and in tethering NUP96/Nup98 and NUP153 to the nucleus. The Nup107-160 complex seems to be required for spindle assembly during mitosis. NUP85 is required for membrane clustering of CCL2-activated CCR2. Seems to be involved in CCR2-mediated chemotaxis of monocytes and may link activated CCR2 to the phosphatidyl-inositol 3- kinase-Rac-lammellipodium protrusion cascade. Involved in nephrogenesis.

Plays a role in the nuclear pore complex (NPC) assembly and/or maintenance. May anchor nucleoporins, but not NUP153 and TPR, to the NPC. During renal development, regulates podocyte migration and proliferation through SMAD4 signaling.

Plays a role in the nuclear pore complex (NPC) assembly and/or maintenance. NUP98 and NUP96 are involved in the bidirectional transport across the NPC. May anchor NUP153 and TPR to the NPC. In cooperation with DHX9, plays a role in transcription and alternative splicing activation of a subset of genes. Involved in the localization of DHX9 in discrete intranuclear foci (GLFG-body).

Transcription regulator that converts stress signals into a program of gene expression that empowers cells with resistance to the stress induced by a change in their microenvironment. Thereby participates in regulation of many process namely cell-cycle, apoptosis, autophagy and DNA repair responses. Controls cell cycle progression and protects cells from genotoxic stress induced by doxorubicin through the complex formation with TP53 and EP300 that binds CDKN1A promoter leading to transcriptional induction of CDKN1A. Protects pancreatic cancer cells from stress-induced cell death by binding the RELB promoter and activating its transcription, leading to IER3 transactivation. Negatively regulates apoptosis through interaction with PTMA. Inhibits autophagy- induced apoptosis in cardiac cells through FOXO3 interaction, inducing cytoplasmic translocation of FOXO3 thereby preventing the FOXO3 association with the pro-autophagic BNIP3 promoter. Inhibits cell growth and facilitates programmed cell death by apoptosis after adriamycin-induced DNA damage through transactivation of TP53 (By similarity). Regulates methamphetamine-induced apoptosis and autophagy through DDIT3-mediated endoplasmic reticulum stress pathway (By similarity). Participates in DNA repair following gamma-irradiation by facilitating DNA access of the transcription machinery through interaction with MSL1 leading to inhibition of histone H4' Lys-16' acetylation (H4K16ac). Coactivator of PAX2 transcription factor activity, both by recruiting EP300 to increase PAX2 transcription factor activity and by binding PAXIP1 to suppress PAXIP1-induced inhibition on PAX2. Positively regulates cell cycle progression through interaction with COPS5 inducing cytoplasmic translocation of CDKN1B leading to the CDKN1B degradation. Coordinates, through its interaction with EP300, the assiociation of MYOD1, EP300 and DDX5 to the MYOG promoter, leading to inhibition of cell-cycle progression and myogenic differentiation promotion. Negatively regulates beta cell proliferation via inhibition of cell-cycle regulatory genes expression through the suppression of their promoter activities (By similarity). Also required for LHB expression and ovarian maturation (By similarity). Exacerbates CNS inflammation and demyelination upon cuprizone treatment (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional repressor by inhibiting gene expression at the NUPR1 promoter in a p53/TP53-dependent manner in cancer cells. Involved in the G1 cell cycle arrest, and in a decrease in cell viability and cell proliferation. Plays a role as a negative regulator of the protumoral factor NUPR1.

Microtubule-associated protein with the capacity to bundle and stabilize microtubules (By similarity). May associate with chromosomes and promote the organization of mitotic spindle microtubules around them.

Plays a role in the regulation of proliferation. Regulates TERT expression by modulating SP1 binding to TERT promoter binding sites.

Participates in the assembly of the telomerase holoenzyme and effecting of telomerase activity via its interaction with TERT. Involved in both early and late stages of the pre- rRNA processing pathways. Spatiotemporally regulates 60S ribosomal subunit biogenesis in the nucleolus. Catalyzes the release of specific assembly factors, such as WDR74, from pre-60S ribosomal particles through the ATPase activity.

May play a role in the control of androgen receptor (AR) protein steady-state levels.

Involved in the nuclear export of mRNA species bearing retroviral constitutive transport elements (CTE) and in the export of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm (TAP/NFX1 pathway). The NXF1-NXT1 heterodimer is involved in the export of HSP70 mRNA in conjunction with ALYREF/THOC4 and THOC5 components of the TREX complex. ALYREF/THOC4-bound mRNA is thought to be transferred to the NXF1-NXT1 heterodimer for export. Also involved in nuclear export of m6A-containing mRNAs: interaction between SRSF3 and YTHDC1 facilitates m6A-containing mRNA-binding to both SRSF3 and NXF1, promoting mRNA nuclear export.

Involved in the export of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm

Plays an important role in retinal cone photoreceptor survival. In association with glucose transporter SLC16A1/GLUT1 and BSG, promotes retinal cone survival by enhancing aerobic glycolysis and accelerating the entry of glucose into photoreceptors. May play a role in cone cell viability, slowing down cone degeneration, does not seem to play a role in degenerating rods (By similarity).

May be involved in the maintenance of both the function and the viability of sensory neurons, including photoreceptors and olfactory neurons.

Functions as a redox-dependent negative regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway, possibly by preventing ubiquitination of DVL3 by the BCR(KLHL12) complex. May also function as a transcriptional regulator act as a regulator of protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) (By similarity).

May be signaling molecules that resemble neuropeptides and that act by binding to alpha-neurexins and possibly other receptors.

May be signaling molecules that resemble neuropeptides. Ligand for alpha-neurexins (By similarity).

Stimulator of protein export for NES-containing proteins. Also plays a role in the nuclear export of U1 snRNA, tRNA, and mRNA. The NXF1-NXT1 heterodimer is involved in the export of HSP70 mRNA in conjunction with ALYREF/THOC4 and THOC5.

Regulator of protein export for NES-containing proteins. Also plays a role in mRNA nuclear export

Activates PI3K and concomitantly recruits the WAVE1 complex to the close vicinity of PI3K and regulates neuronal morphogenesis.

Odorant receptor (Potential). May be involved in taste perception.

Olfactory receptor. Activated by the synthetic floral odorant, lyral, and by alpha-cedrene, a sesquiterpene constituent of cedarwood oil. Its activation increases intracellular Ca(2+). Acts as a key regulator of myogenesis through its actions on cell migration and adhesion by activating the Ca(2+)-dependent AKT signal transduction pathway (By similarity). Acts also as a regulator of angiogenesis. Moreover, plays a role in the regulation of lipid accumulation in hepatocytes via the cAMP-PKA pathway. May be involved in sperm chemotaxis and motility (By similarity).

Olfactory receptor. Activated by the odorant, beta-ionone, a synthetic terpenoid. The activity of this receptor is probably mediated by G-proteins leading to the elevation of intracellular Ca(2+), cAMP and activation of the protein kinases PKA and MAPK3/MAPK1. Stimulation of OR51E2 by beta-ionone affects melanocyte proliferation, differentiation, and melanogenesis. Activation of OR51E2 by beta-ionone increases proliferation and migration of primary retinal pigment epithelial (RPE) cells. Activated also by the short-chain fatty acids (SCFA) acetate and propionate. In response to SCFA, may positively regulate renin secretion and increase blood pressure. May also be activated by steroid hormones and regulate cell proliferation. Activated by L-lactate in glomus cells (By similarity).

Odorant receptor involved in the detection of muscone, cyclopentadecanone, cyclopentadecanol, and omega-pentadecalactone. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase (Probable).

ADP-ribose glycohydrolase that hydrolyzes ADP-ribose and acts on different substrates, such as proteins ADP-ribosylated on glutamate and O-acetyl-ADP-D-ribose. Specifically acts as a glutamate mono-ADP- ribosylhydrolase by mediating the removal of mono-ADP-ribose attached to glutamate residues on proteins. Does not act on poly-ADP-ribosylated proteins: the poly-ADP-ribose chain of poly-ADP-ribosylated glutamate residues must by hydrolyzed into mono-ADP-ribosylated glutamate by PARG to become a substrate for OARD1. Deacetylates O-acetyl-ADP ribose, a signaling molecule generated by the deacetylation of acetylated lysine residues in histones and other proteins. Catalyzes the deacylation of O-acetyl-ADP-ribose, O-propionyl-ADP-ribose and O- butyryl-ADP-ribose, yielding ADP-ribose plus acetate, propionate and butyrate, respectively.

Interferon-induced, dsRNA-activated antiviral enzyme which plays a critical role in cellular innate antiviral response. In addition, it may also play a role in other cellular processes such as apoptosis, cell growth, differentiation and gene regulation. Synthesizes higher oligomers of 2'-5'-oligoadenylates (2-5A) from ATP which then bind to the inactive monomeric form of ribonuclease L (RNase L) leading to its dimerization and subsequent activation. Activation of RNase L leads to degradation of cellular as well as viral RNA, resulting in the inhibition of protein synthesis, thus terminating viral replication. Can mediate the antiviral effect via the classical RNase L-dependent pathway or an alternative antiviral pathway independent of RNase L. The secreted form displays antiviral effect against vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV), herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2), and encephalomyocarditis virus (EMCV) and stimulates the alternative antiviral pathway independent of RNase L.

Interferon-induced, dsRNA-activated antiviral enzyme which plays a critical role in cellular innate antiviral response. Activated by detection of double stranded RNA (dsRNA): polymerizes higher oligomers of 2'-5'- oligoadenylates (2-5A) from ATP which then bind to the inactive monomeric form of ribonuclease L (RNASEL) leading to its dimerization and subsequent activation. Activation of RNASEL leads to degradation of cellular as well as viral RNA, resulting in the inhibition of protein synthesis, thus terminating viral replication. Can mediate the antiviral effect via the classical RNASEL-dependent pathway or an alternative antiviral pathway independent of RNASEL. In addition, it may also play a role in other cellular processes such as apoptosis, cell growth, differentiation and gene regulation. May act as a negative regulator of lactation, stopping lactation in virally infected mammary gland lobules, thereby preventing transmission of viruses to neonates (By similarity). Non-infected lobules would not be affected, allowing efficient pup feeding during infection (By similarity).

Interferon-induced, dsRNA-activated antiviral enzyme which plays a critical role in cellular innate antiviral response. In addition, it may also play a role in other cellular processes such as apoptosis, cell growth, differentiation and gene regulation. Synthesizes preferentially dimers of 2'-5'-oligoadenylates (2-5A) from ATP which then bind to the inactive monomeric form of ribonuclease L (RNase L) leading to its dimerization and subsequent activation. Activation of RNase L leads to degradation of cellular as well as viral RNA, resulting in the inhibition of protein synthesis, thus terminating viral replication. Can mediate the antiviral effect via the classical RNase L-dependent pathway or an alternative antiviral pathway independent of RNase L. Displays antiviral activity against Chikungunya virus (CHIKV), Dengue virus, Sindbis virus (SINV) and Semliki forest virus (SFV).

Does not have 2'-5'-OAS activity, but can bind double- stranded RNA. Displays antiviral activity against encephalomyocarditis virus (EMCV) and hepatitis C virus (HCV) via an alternative antiviral pathway independent of RNase L.

Catalyzes the reversible interconversion of L-ornithine and 2-oxoglutarate to L-glutamate semialdehyde and L-glutamate.

Transcriptional coactivator that specifically associates with either POU2F1/OCT1 or POU2F2/OCT2. It boosts the POU2F1/OCT1 mediated promoter activity and to a lesser extent, that of POU2F2/OCT2. It recognizes the POU domains of POU2F1/OCT1 and POU2F2/OCT2. It is essential for the response of B-cells to antigens and required for the formation of germinal centers. Regulates IL6 expression in B cells as POU2F2/OCT2 coactivator (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin ligase essential for DNA replication origin activation during S phase. Acts as a replication origin selector which selects the origins to be fired and catalyzes the multi-mono-ubiquitination of a subset of chromatin-bound ORC3 and ORC5 during S-phase.

Probably binds and transports small hydrophobic volatile molecules with a higher affinity for aldehydes and large fatty acids.

Probably binds and transports small hydrophobic volatile molecules

Negatively regulates leptin receptor (LEPR) cell surface expression, and thus decreases response to leptin. Negatively regulates growth hormone (GH) receptor cell surface expression in liver. May play a role in liver resistance to GH during periods of reduced nutrient availability.

Core component of the 3M complex, a complex required to regulate microtubule dynamics and genome integrity. It is unclear how the 3M complex regulates microtubules, it could act by controlling the level of a microtubule stabilizer. Acts as a regulator of the Cul7-RING(FBXW8) ubiquitin-protein ligase, playing a critical role in the ubiquitin ligase pathway that regulates Golgi morphogenesis and dendrite patterning in brain. Required to localize CUL7 to the Golgi apparatus in neurons.

Major protein of the otoconia, a calcium carbonate structure in the saccule and utricle of the ear. Together with OTOL1, acts as a scaffold for otoconia biomineralization: sequesters calcium and forms interconnecting fibrils between otoconia that are incorporated into the calcium crystal structure. Together with OTOL1, modulates calcite crystal morphology and growth kinetics. It is unlikely that this protein has phospholipase A2 activity.

Maintains stem cell potency (By similarity). Increases STAT3 phosphorylation and controls ERK phosphorylation (By similarity). May act as a scaffold, increasing STAT3 recruitment onto endosomes (By similarity). Involved in integrin-mediated cancer cell adhesion and colony formation in ovarian cancer.

Transcriptional coactivator that specifically associates with POU2F3. This complex drives the development of tuft cells, a rare chemosensory cells that coordinate immune and neural functions within mucosal epithelial tissues.

Transcriptional coactivator that specifically associates with POU2F3. This complex drives the development of tuft cells, a rare a rare chemosensory cells that coordinate immune and neural functions within mucosal epithelial tissues.

May play a role in the formation and regulation of the tight junction (TJ) paracellular permeability barrier. It is able to induce adhesion when expressed in cells lacking tight junctions.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of the 5-position phosphate of phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2) and phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4,5)P3), with the greatest catalytic activity towards PtdIns(4,5)P2. Able also to hydrolyze the 5-phosphate of inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate and of inositol 1,3,4,5-tetrakisphosphate. Regulates traffic in the endosomal pathway by regulating the specific pool of phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate that is associated with endosomes. Involved in primary cilia assembly. Acts as a regulator of phagocytosis, hydrolyzing PtdIns(4,5)P2 to promote phagosome closure, through attenuation of PI3K signaling.

Probable cell surface receptor that plays a role in cellular fusion and cell differentiation. Cooperates with DCSTAMP in modulating cell-cell fusion in both osteoclasts and foreign body giant cells (FBGCs). Involved in osteoclast bone resorption. Promotes osteoclast differentiation and may play a role in the multinucleated osteoclast maturation (By similarity).

Beta-oxidation of fatty acids. The highest activity concerns the C6 to C10 chain length substrate. Converts the end product of pristanic acid beta oxidation, 4,8-dimethylnonanoyl-CoA, to its corresponding carnitine ester.

Sodium-ion dependent, high affinity carnitine transporter. Involved in the active cellular uptake of carnitine. Transports one sodium ion with one molecule of carnitine. Also transports organic cations such as tetraethylammonium (TEA) without the involvement of sodium. Relative uptake activity ratio of carnitine to TEA is 11.3. In intestinal epithelia, transports the quorum- sensing pentapeptide CSF (competence and sporulation factor) from Bacillus Subtilis wich induces cytoprotective heat shock proteins contributing to intestinal homeostasis.

Component of the outer dynein arm-docking complex (ODA-DC) that mediates outer dynein arms (ODA) binding onto the doublet microtubule. Involved in mediating assembly of both ODAs and their axonemal docking complex onto ciliary microtubules.

Component of the outer dynein arm-docking complex (ODA-DC) that mediates outer dynein arms (ODA) binding onto the doublet microtubule. Plays an essential role for the assembly of ODA-DC and for the docking of ODA in ciliary axoneme.

Tooth-associated epithelia protein that probably plays a role in odontogenesis, the complex process that results in the initiation and generation of the tooth. May be incorporated in the enamel matrix at the end of mineralization process. Involved in the induction of RHOA activity via interaction with ARHGEF and expression of downstream factors such as ROCK. Plays a role in attachment of the junctional epithelium to the tooth surface.

The branched-chain alpha-keto dehydrogenase complex catalyzes the overall conversion of alpha-keto acids to acyl-CoA and CO(2). It contains multiple copies of three enzymatic components: branched-chain alpha-keto acid decarboxylase (E1), lipoamide acyltransferase (E2) and lipoamide dehydrogenase (E3). Within this complex, the catalytic function of this enzyme is to accept, and to transfer to coenzyme A, acyl groups that are generated by the branched-chain alpha-keto acid decarboxylase component

E1 subunit of the branched-chain alpha-keto dehydrogenase complex that catalyzes both the decarboxylation of the alpha-ketoacid and the subsequent reductive acylation of the lipoyl moiety (another catalytic cofactor) that is covalently bound to E2. The branched-chain alpha-keto dehydrogenase complex catalyzes the overall conversion of alpha-keto acids to acyl-CoA and CO(2). It contains multiple copies of three enzymatic components: branched-chain alpha-keto acid decarboxylase (E1), lipoamide acyltransferase (E2) and lipoamide dehydrogenase (E3).

The branched-chain alpha-keto dehydrogenase complex catalyzes the overall conversion of alpha-keto acids to acyl-CoA and CO(2). It contains multiple copies of three enzymatic components: branched-chain alpha-keto acid decarboxylase (E1), lipoamide acyltransferase (E2) and lipoamide dehydrogenase (E3)

Transports dicarboxylates across the inner membranes of mitochondria by a counter-exchange mechanism. Can transport 2-oxoadipate (2-oxohexanedioate), 2-oxoglutarate, adipate (hexanedioate), glutarate, and to a lesser extent, pimelate (heptanedioate), 2-oxopimelate (2-oxoheptanedioate), 2-aminoadipate (2- aminohexanedioate), oxaloacetate, and citrate. Plays a central role in catabolism of lysine, hydroxylysine, and tryptophan, by transporting common metabolite intermediates (such as 2-oxoadipate) into the mitochondria, where it is converted into acetyl-CoA and can enter the citric acid (TCA) cycle (Probable).

Acts as a suppressor of ciliogenesis, specifically, the initiation of ciliogenesis.

Outer dense fibers are filamentous structures located on the outside of the axoneme in the midpiece and principal piece of the mammalian sperm tail. May help to maintain the passive elastic structures and elastic recoil of the sperm tail

Component of the outer dense fibers (ODF) of spermatozoa. ODF are filamentous structures located on the outside of the axoneme in the midpiece and principal piece of the mammalian sperm tail and may help to maintain the passive elastic structures and elastic recoil of the sperm tail

Seems to be a major component of sperm tail outer dense fibers (ODF). ODFs are filamentous structures located on the outside of the axoneme in the midpiece and principal piece of the mammalian sperm tail and may help to maintain the passive elastic structures and elastic recoil of the sperm tail. May have a modulating influence on sperm motility. Functions as a general scaffold protein that is specifically localized at the distal/subdistal appendages of mother centrioles. Component of the centrosome matrix required for the localization of PLK1 and NIN to the centrosomes. Required for the formation and/or maintenance of normal CETN1 assembly.

Component of the outer dense fibers (ODF) of spermatozoa which could be involved in sperm tail structure, sperm movement and general organization of cellular cytoskeleton.

2-oxoglutarate dehydrogenase (E1o) component of the 2- oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex (OGDHC). Participates in the first step, rate limiting for the overall conversion of 2-oxoglutarate to succinyl-CoA and CO(2) catalyzed by the whole OGDHC. Catalyzes the irreversible decarboxylation of 2-oxoglutarate (alpha-ketoglutarate) via the thiamine diphosphate (ThDP) cofactor and subsequent transfer of the decarboxylated acyl intermediate on an oxidized dihydrolipoyl group that is covalently amidated to the E2 enzyme (dihydrolipoyllysine- residue succinyltransferase or DLST). Plays a key role in the Krebs (citric acid) cycle, which is a common pathway for oxidation of fuel molecules, including carbohydrates, fatty acids, and amino acids. Can catalyze the decarboxylation of 2-oxoadipate in vitro, but at a much lower rate than 2-oxoglutarate. Mainly active in the mitochondrion. A fraction of the 2-oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex also localizes in the nucleus and is required for lysine succinylation of histones: associates with KAT2A on chromatin and provides succinyl-CoA to histone succinyltransferase KAT2A.

Dihydrolipoamide succinyltransferase (E2) component of the 2- oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex. The 2-oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex catalyzes the overall conversion of 2-oxoglutarate to succinyl- CoA and CO(2). The 2-oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex is mainly active in the mitochondrion. A fraction of the 2-oxoglutarate dehydrogenase complex also localizes in the nucleus and is required for lysine succinylation of histones: associates with KAT2A on chromatin and provides succinyl-CoA to histone succinyltransferase KAT2A.

The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex catalyzes the overall conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA and CO(2), and thereby links the glycolytic pathway to the tricarboxylic cycle

The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex catalyzes the overall conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA and CO(2), and thereby links the glycolytic pathway to the tricarboxylic cycle.

Required for anchoring dihydrolipoamide dehydrogenase (E3) to the dihydrolipoamide transacetylase (E2) core of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complexes of eukaryotes. This specific binding is essential for a functional PDH complex

May play a role in the trafficking of a subset of G-protein coupled receptors.

Component of the centrioles controlling mother and daughter centrioles length. Recruits to the centriole IFT88 and centriole distal appendage-specific proteins including CEP164 (By similarity). Involved in the biogenesis of the cilium, a centriole-associated function. The cilium is a cell surface projection found in many vertebrate cells required to transduce signals important for development and tissue homeostasis. Plays an important role in development by regulating Wnt signaling and the specification of the left-right axis. Only OFD1 localized at the centriolar satellites is removed by autophagy, which is an important step in the ciliogenesis regulation (By similarity).

Catalyzes the reaction that attaches fucose through an O- glycosidic linkage to a conserved serine or threonine residue found in the consensus sequence C2-X(4,5)-[S/T]-C3 of EGF domains, where C2 and C3 are the second and third conserved cysteines. Specifically uses GDP- fucose as donor substrate and proper disulfide pairing of the substrate EGF domains is required for fucose transfer. Plays a crucial role in NOTCH signaling. Initial fucosylation of NOTCH by POFUT1 generates a substrate for FRINGE/RFNG, an acetylglucosaminyltransferase that can then extend the fucosylation on the NOTCH EGF repeats. This extended fucosylation is required for optimal ligand binding and canonical NOTCH signaling induced by DLL1 or JAGGED1. Fucosylates AGRN and determines its ability to cluster acetylcholine receptors (AChRs).

Catalyzes the reaction that attaches fucose through an O- glycosidic linkage to a conserved serine or threonine residue in the consensus sequence C1-X-X-S/T-C2 of thrombospondin type I repeats (TSRs) where C1 and C2 are the first and second cysteines of the repeat, respectively. O-fucosylates members of several protein families including the ADAMTS, the thrombospondin (TSP) and spondin families (Probable). Required for the proper secretion of ADAMTS family members such as ADAMTSL1 and ADAMTS13. The O-fucosylation of TSRs is also required for restricting epithelial to mesenchymal transition (EMT), maintaining the correct patterning of mesoderm and localization of the definite endoderm (By similarity).

[Isoform 1]: Cleaves GlcNAc but not GalNAc from O- glycosylated proteins. Can use p-nitrophenyl-beta-GlcNAc and 4- methylumbelliferone-GlcNAc as substrates but not p-nitrophenyl-beta- GalNAc or p-nitrophenyl-alpha-GlcNAc (in vitro). Does not bind acetyl-CoA and does not have histone acetyltransferase activity.

2-oxoglutarate dehydrogenase (E1-like) component of the 2- oxoglutarate dehydrogenase multienzyme complex (OGDHC) which mediates the decarboxylation of alpha-ketoglutarate in the tricarboxylic acid cycle. The OGDHC complex catalyzes the overall conversion of 2- oxoglutarate to succinyl-CoA and CO(2) while reducing NAD(+) to NADH (By similarity). The OGDHC complex is mainly active in the mitochondrion (By similarity). Involved in the inhibition of cell proliferation and in apoptosis.

Prolyl 3-hydroxylase that catalyzes 3-hydroxylation of 'Pro- 62' of small ribosomal subunit uS12 (RPS23), thereby regulating protein translation termination efficiency. Involved in stress granule formation.

Receptor for opioid growth factor (OGF), also known as Met- enkephalin. Seems to be involved in growth regulation

DNA repair enzyme that incises DNA at 8-oxoG residues. Excises 7,8-dihydro-8-oxoguanine and 2,6-diamino-4-hydroxy-5-N- methylformamidopyrimidine (FAPY) from damaged DNA. Has a beta-lyase activity that nicks DNA 3' to the lesion

Proton-sensing receptor involved in pH homeostasis. May represents an osteoblastic pH sensor regulating cell-mediated responses to acidosis in bone. Mediates its action by association with G proteins that stimulates inositol phosphate (IP) production or Ca(2+) mobilization. The receptor is almost silent at pH 7.8 but fully activated at pH 6.8. Also functions as a metastasis suppressor gene in prostate cancer (By similarity).

Catalyzes the transfer of a single N-acetylglucosamine from UDP-GlcNAc to a serine or threonine residue in cytoplasmic and nuclear proteins resulting in their modification with a beta-linked N- acetylglucosamine (O-GlcNAc). Glycosylates a large and diverse number of proteins including histone H2B, AKT1, ATG4B, EZH2, PFKL, KMT2E/MLL5, MAPT/TAU and HCFC1. Can regulate their cellular processes via cross-talk between glycosylation and phosphorylation or by affecting proteolytic processing. Probably by glycosylating KMT2E/MLL5, stabilizes KMT2E/MLL5 by preventing its ubiquitination. Involved in insulin resistance in muscle and adipocyte cells via glycosylating insulin signaling components and inhibiting the 'Thr-308' phosphorylation of AKT1, enhancing IRS1 phosphorylation and attenuating insulin signaling (By similarity). Involved in glycolysis regulation by mediating glycosylation of 6-phosphofructokinase PFKL, inhibiting its activity. Component of a THAP1/THAP3-HCFC1-OGT complex that is required for the regulation of the transcriptional activity of RRM1. Plays a key role in chromatin structure by mediating O-GlcNAcylation of 'Ser-112' of histone H2B: recruited to CpG-rich transcription start sites of active genes via its interaction with TET proteins (TET1, TET2 or TET3). As part of the NSL complex indirectly involved in acetylation of nucleosomal histone H4 on several lysine residues. O- GlcNAcylation of 'Ser-75' of EZH2 increases its stability, and facilitating the formation of H3K27me3 by the PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex. Regulates circadian oscillation of the clock genes and glucose homeostasis in the liver. Stabilizes clock proteins BMAL1 and CLOCK through O-glycosylation, which prevents their ubiquitination and subsequent degradation. Promotes the CLOCK-BMAL1-mediated transcription of genes in the negative loop of the circadian clock such as PER1/2 and CRY1/2. O- glycosylates HCFC1 and regulates its proteolytic processing and transcriptional activity. Regulates mitochondrial motility in neurons by mediating glycosylation of TRAK1 (By similarity). Glycosylates HOXA1 (By similarity). O-glycosylates FNIP1. Promotes autophagy by mediating O-glycosylation of ATG4B.

Hydrolyzes ATP, and can also hydrolyze GTP with lower efficiency. Has lower affinity for GTP.

Secreted scaffold protein that plays an essential role in dorsoventral patterning during early development. Stabilizes axial formation by restricting chordin (CHRD) activity on the dorsal side. Acts by facilitating the association between the tolloid proteases and their substrate chordin (CHRD), leading to enhance chordin (CHRD) degradation (By similarity). May have matrix-related function involved in placental and embryonic development, or play a similar role in other physiological processes.

May promote proliferation of pancreatic cancer cells by favoring the transition from the S to G2/M phase. In myeloid leukemic cell lines, inhibits cell growth and induces cell differentiation and apoptosis. May play a role in the inhibition of EIF4EBP1 phosphorylation/deactivation. Facilitates cell adhesion, most probably through interaction with cell surface lectins and cadherin.

Promotes formation and maturation of oligodendrocytes, especially within the brain. Cooperates with OLIG2 to establish the pMN domain of the embryonic neural tube (By similarity).

Required for oligodendrocyte and motor neuron specification in the spinal cord, as well as for the development of somatic motor neurons in the hindbrain. Functions together with ZNF488 to promote oligodendrocyte differentiation. Cooperates with OLIG1 to establish the pMN domain of the embryonic neural tube. Antagonist of V2 interneuron and of NKX2-2-induced V3 interneuron development.

May determine the distinct specification program of class A neurons in the dorsal part of the spinal cord and suppress specification of class B neurons

Receptor that mediates the recognition, internalization and degradation of oxidatively modified low density lipoprotein (oxLDL) by vascular endothelial cells. OxLDL is a marker of atherosclerosis that induces vascular endothelial cell activation and dysfunction, resulting in pro-inflammatory responses, pro-oxidative conditions and apoptosis. Its association with oxLDL induces the activation of NF-kappa-B through an increased production of intracellular reactive oxygen and a variety of pro-atherogenic cellular responses including a reduction of nitric oxide (NO) release, monocyte adhesion and apoptosis. In addition to binding oxLDL, it acts as a receptor for the HSP70 protein involved in antigen cross-presentation to naive T-cells in dendritic cells, thereby participating in cell-mediated antigen cross-presentation. Also involved in inflammatory process, by acting as a leukocyte-adhesion molecule at the vascular interface in endotoxin-induced inflammation. Also acts as a receptor for advanced glycation end (AGE) products, activated platelets, monocytes, apoptotic cells and both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria.

Metalloprotease that is part of the quality control system in the inner membrane of mitochondria. Activated in response to various mitochondrial stress, leading to the proteolytic cleavage of target proteins, such as OPA1, UQCC3 and DELE1. Following stress conditions that induce loss of mitochondrial membrane potential, mediates cleavage of OPA1 at S1 position, leading to OPA1 inactivation and negative regulation of mitochondrial fusion. Also acts as a regulator of apoptosis: upon BAK and BAX aggregation, mediates cleavage of OPA1, leading to the remodeling of mitochondrial cristae and allowing the release of cytochrome c from mitochondrial cristae. In depolarized mitochondria, may also act as a backup protease for PINK1 by mediating PINK1 cleavage and promoting its subsequent degradation by the proteasome. May also cleave UQCC3 in response to mitochondrial depolarization. Also acts as an activator of the integrated stress response (ISR): in response to mitochondrial stress, mediates cleavage of DELE1 to generate the processed form of DELE1 (S- DELE1), which translocates to the cytosol and activates EIF2AK1/HRI to trigger the ISR. Its role in mitochondrial quality control is essential for regulating lipid metabolism as well as to maintain body temperature and energy expenditure under cold-stress conditions (By similarity). Binds cardiolipin, possibly regulating its protein turnover (By similarity). Required for the stability of the respiratory supercomplexes (By similarity).

May be implicated in biomineralization processes. Has a function in binding of osteoblasts via the alpha(V)beta(3)-integrin (By similarity).

Cell adhesion molecule contributing to the interactive process required for myelination in the central nervous system

May act as a modulator of the olfactory signal-transduction cascade

Growth regulator. Inhibits the proliferation of a number of tumor cell lines. Stimulates proliferation of AIDS-KS cells. It regulates cytokine production, including IL-6, G-CSF and GM-CSF from endothelial cells. Uses both type I OSM receptor (heterodimers composed of LIFR and IL6ST) and type II OSM receptor (heterodimers composed of OSMR and IL6ST). Involved in the maturation of fetal hepatocytes, thereby promoting liver development and regeneration (By similarity).

Has some calmodulin-like activity with respect to enzyme activation and growth regulation. Binds two calcium ions

Transcriptional activator. Activates the transcription of a number of liver genes such as HNF3B

Transcriptional activator. Binds the consensus DNA sequence 5'-DHWATTGAYTWWD-3' on a variety of gene promoters such as those of HNF3B and TTR (By similarity).

As part of the OOEP-KHDC3L scaffold, recruits BLM and TRIM25 to DNA replication forks, thereby promoting the ubiquitination of BLM by TRIM25, enhancing BLM retainment at replication forks and therefore promoting stalled replication fork restart (By similarity). Positively regulates the homologous recombination-mediated DNA double-strand break (DSB) repair pathway by regulating ATM activation and RAD51 recruitment to DSBs in oocytes (By similarity). Thereby contributes to oocyte survival and the resumption and completion of meiosis (By similarity). As a member of the subcortical maternal complex (SCMC), plays an essential role for zygotes to progress beyond the first embryonic cell divisions via regulation of actin dynamics (By similarity). Required for the formation of F-actin cytoplasmic lattices in oocytes which in turn are responsible for symmetric division of zygotes via the regulation of mitotic spindle formation and positioning (By similarity).

Dynamin-related GTPase that is essential for normal mitochondrial morphology by regulating the equilibrium between mitochondrial fusion and mitochondrial fission. Coexpression of isoform 1 with shorter alternative products is required for optimal activity in promoting mitochondrial fusion. Binds lipid membranes enriched in negatively charged phospholipids, such as cardiolipin, and promotes membrane tubulation. The intrinsic GTPase activity is low, and is strongly increased by interaction with lipid membranes. Plays a role in remodeling cristae and the release of cytochrome c during apoptosis (By similarity). Proteolytic processing in response to intrinsic apoptotic signals may lead to disassembly of OPA1 oligomers and release of the caspase activator cytochrome C (CYCS) into the mitochondrial intermembrane space (By similarity). Plays a role in mitochondrial genome maintenance.

Central nervous system-specific myelin protein that increase myelin genes expression during oligodendrocyte differentiation. Promotes oligodendrocyte terminal differentiation.

Binds opioids in the presence of acidic lipids; probably involved in cell contact

Stimulates GTP hydrolysis of members of the Rho family. Its action on RHOA activity and signaling is implicated in growth and stabilization of dendritic spines, and therefore in synaptic function. Critical for the stabilization of AMPA receptors at postsynaptic sites. Critical for the regulation of synaptic vesicle endocytosis at presynaptic terminals. Required for the localization of NR1D1 to dendrites, can suppress its repressor activity and protect it from proteasomal degradation (By similarity).

Catalyzes the cleavage of 5-oxo-L-proline to form L-glutamate coupled to the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and inorganic phosphate

G-protein coupled receptor which selectively activates G proteins via ultraviolet A (UVA) light-mediated activation in the skin. Binds both 11-cis retinal and all-trans retinal. Regulates melanogenesis in melanocytes via inhibition of alpha-MSH-induced MC1R- mediated cAMP signaling, modulation of calcium flux, regulation of CAMK2 phosphorylation, and subsequently phosphorylation of CREB, p38, ERK and MITF in response to blue light. Plays a role in melanocyte survival through regulation of intracellular calcium levels and subsequent BCL2/RAF1 signaling. Additionally regulates apoptosis via cytochrome c release and subsequent activation of the caspase cascade. Required for TYR and DCT blue light-induced complex formation in melanocytes. Involved in keratinocyte differentiation in response to blue-light. Required for the UVA-mediated induction of calcium and mitogen-activated protein kinase signaling resulting in the expression of MMP1, MMP2, MMP3, MMP9 and TIMP1 in dermal fibroblasts. Plays a role in light-mediated glucose uptake, mitochondrial respiration and fatty acid metabolism in brown adipocyte tissues (By similarity). May be involved in photorelaxation of airway smooth muscle cells, via blue-light dependent GPCR signaling pathways (By similarity).

Photoreceptor that binds cis-retinaldehydes. Contributes to pupillar reflex, photoentrainment and other non-image forming responses to light (By similarity). May be involved in the optokinetic visual tracking response (By similarity). May be involved in the regulation of retinal hyaloid vessel growth and regression (By similarity).

G-protein coupled receptor which selectively activates G(i) type G proteins via ultraviolet A (UVA) light-mediated activation in the retina (By similarity). Preferentially binds the chromophore 11-cis retinal and is a bistable protein that displays emission peaks at 380 nm (UVA light) and 470 nm (blue light). Required for the light-response in the inner plexiform layer, and contributes to the regulation of the light-response in the nerve fiber layer, via phosphorylated DAT/SLC6A3 dopamine uptake (By similarity). Involved in local corneal and retinal circadian rhythm photoentrainment via modulation of the UVA light-induced phase-shift of the retina clock (By similarity). Acts as a circadian photoreceptor in the outer ear, via modulation of circadian clock-gene expression in response to violet light during the light-to-dark transition phase and night phase of the circadian cycle (By similarity). Required in the retina to negatively regulate hyaloid vessel regression during postnatal development via light-dependent OPN5-SLC32A1-DRD2-VEGFR2 signaling (By similarity). Involved in the light-dependent regulation of retina and vitreous compartment dopamine levels (By similarity).

G-protein coupled receptor that functions as receptor for endogenous enkephalins and for a subset of other opioids. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors, such as adenylate cyclase. Signaling leads to the inhibition of adenylate cyclase activity. Inhibits neurotransmitter release by reducing calcium ion currents and increasing potassium ion conductance. Plays a role in the perception of pain and in opiate-mediated analgesia. Plays a role in developing analgesic tolerance to morphine.

G-protein coupled opioid receptor that functions as receptor for endogenous alpha-neoendorphins and dynorphins, but has low affinity for beta-endorphins. Also functions as receptor for various synthetic opioids and for the psychoactive diterpene salvinorin A. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors, such as adenylate cyclase. Signaling leads to the inhibition of adenylate cyclase activity. Inhibits neurotransmitter release by reducing calcium ion currents and increasing potassium ion conductance. Plays a role in the perception of pain. Plays a role in mediating reduced physical activity upon treatment with synthetic opioids. Plays a role in the regulation of salivation in response to synthetic opioids. May play a role in arousal and regulation of autonomic and neuroendocrine functions.

Receptor for endogenous opioids such as beta-endorphin and endomorphin. Receptor for natural and synthetic opioids including morphine, heroin, DAMGO, fentanyl, etorphine, buprenorphin and methadone. Also activated by enkephalin peptides, such as Met-enkephalin or Met-enkephalin-Arg-Phe, with higher affinity for Met-enkephalin-Arg-Phe (By similarity). Agonist binding to the receptor induces coupling to an inactive GDP-bound heterotrimeric G-protein complex and subsequent exchange of GDP for GTP in the G- protein alpha subunit leading to dissociation of the G-protein complex with the free GTP-bound G-protein alpha and the G-protein beta-gamma dimer activating downstream cellular effectors. The agonist- and cell type-specific activity is predominantly coupled to pertussis toxin-sensitive G(i) and G(o) G alpha proteins, GNAI1, GNAI2, GNAI3 and GNAO1 isoforms Alpha-1 and Alpha-2, and to a lesser extent to pertussis toxin-insensitive G alpha proteins GNAZ and GNA15. They mediate an array of downstream cellular responses, including inhibition of adenylate cyclase activity and both N-type and L-type calcium channels, activation of inward rectifying potassium channels, mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK), phospholipase C (PLC), phosphoinositide/protein kinase (PKC), phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) and regulation of NF-kappa-B (By similarity). Also couples to adenylate cyclase stimulatory G alpha proteins (By similarity). The selective temporal coupling to G-proteins and subsequent signaling can be regulated by RGSZ proteins, such as RGS9, RGS17 and RGS4 (By similarity). Phosphorylation by members of the GPRK subfamily of Ser/Thr protein kinases and association with beta- arrestins is involved in short-term receptor desensitization (By similarity). Beta-arrestins associate with the GPRK-phosphorylated receptor and uncouple it from the G-protein thus terminating signal transduction (By similarity). The phosphorylated receptor is internalized through endocytosis via clathrin-coated pits which involves beta-arrestins (By similarity). The activation of the ERK pathway occurs either in a G-protein-dependent or a beta-arrestin- dependent manner and is regulated by agonist-specific receptor phosphorylation (By similarity). Acts as a class A G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) which dissociates from beta-arrestin at or near the plasma membrane and undergoes rapid recycling (By similarity). Receptor down-regulation pathways are varying with the agonist and occur dependent or independent of G-protein coupling (By similarity). Endogenous ligands induce rapid desensitization, endocytosis and recycling (By similarity). Heterooligomerization with other GPCRs can modulate agonist binding, signaling and trafficking properties (By similarity).

G-protein coupled opioid receptor that functions as receptor for the endogenous neuropeptide nociceptin. Ligand binding causes a conformation change that triggers signaling via guanine nucleotide- binding proteins (G proteins) and modulates the activity of down-stream effectors. Signaling via G proteins mediates inhibition of adenylate cyclase activity and calcium channel activity. Arrestins modulate signaling via G proteins and mediate the activation of alternative signaling pathways that lead to the activation of MAP kinases. Plays a role in modulating nociception and the perception of pain. Plays a role in the regulation of locomotor activity by the neuropeptide nociceptin.

Visual pigments are the light-absorbing molecules that mediate vision. They consist of an apoprotein, opsin, covalently linked to cis-retinal (Probable). Required for the maintenance of cone outer segment organization in the ventral retina, but not essential for the maintenance of functioning cone photoreceptors (By similarity). Involved in ensuring correct abundance and localization of retinal membrane proteins (By similarity). May increase spectral sensitivity in dim light (By similarity).

Photoreceptor required for image-forming vision at low light intensity. Required for photoreceptor cell viability after birth. Light- induced isomerization of the chromophore 11-cis-retinal to all-trans- retinal triggers a conformational change that activates signaling via G-proteins. Subsequent receptor phosphorylation mediates displacement of the bound G-protein alpha subunit by the arrestin SAG and terminates signaling.

Visual pigments are the light-absorbing molecules that mediate vision. They consist of an apoprotein, opsin, covalently linked to cis-retinal.

Visual pigments are the light-absorbing molecules that mediate vision. They consist of an apoprotein, opsin, covalently linked to cis-retinal

May play a role in rpe physiology either by detecting light directly or by monitoring the concentration of retinoids or other photoreceptor-derived compounds

Plays an important role in the maintenance of the Golgi complex, in membrane trafficking, in exocytosis, through its interaction with myosin VI and Rab8. Links myosin VI to the Golgi complex and plays an important role in Golgi ribbon formation. Plays a role in the activation of innate immune response during viral infection. Mechanistically, recruits TBK1 at the Golgi apparatus, promoting its trans-phosphorylation after RLR or TLR3 stimulation. In turn, activated TBK1 phosphorylates its downstream partner IRF3 to produce IFN-beta/IFNB1. Plays a neuroprotective role in the eye and optic nerve. May act by regulating membrane trafficking and cellular morphogenesis via a complex that contains Rab8 and hungtingtin (HD). Mediates the interaction of Rab8 with the probable GTPase-activating protein TBC1D17 during Rab8-mediated endocytic trafficking, such as that of transferrin receptor (TFRC/TfR); regulates Rab8 recruitment to tubules emanating from the endocytic recycling compartment. Autophagy receptor that interacts directly with both the cargo to become degraded and an autophagy modifier of the MAP1 LC3 family; targets ubiquitin- coated bacteria (xenophagy), such as cytoplasmic Salmonella enterica, and appears to function in the same pathway as SQSTM1 and CALCOCO2/NDP52.

Inhibits angiogenesis in the vitreous humor of the eye, and therefore represses neovascularization (By similarity). Binds collagen fibrils (By similarity). May be involved in collagen fiber organization via regulation of other members of the small leucine-rich repeat proteoglycan superfamily (By similarity).

Odorant receptor which may be involved in sperm chemotaxis. Bourgeonal is a strong chemoattractant for sperm in vitro and is shown to be a strong agonist for OR1D2 in vitro. May also function in olfactory reception.

Olfactory receptor that acts as a receptor of Asprosin hormone at the surface of hepatocytes to promote hepatocyte glucose release. Also binds Asprosin in the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus, thereby stimulating appetite by promoting orexigenic AgRP neuronal activity (By similarity). In testis, Asprosin- binding promotes sperm progressive motility and enhances male fertility (By similarity). The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase, resulting in an elevation of intracellular cAMP (By similarity).

Odorant receptor. Selectively activated by androstenone and the related odorous steroid androstadienone

Ca(2+) release-activated Ca(2+)-like (CRAC-like) channel subunit which mediates Ca(2+) influx and increase in Ca(2+)-selective current by synergy with the Ca(2+) sensor, STIM1.

Component of the origin recognition complex (ORC) that binds origins of replication. DNA-binding is ATP-dependent. The DNA sequences that define origins of replication have not been identified yet. ORC is required to assemble the pre-replication complex necessary to initiate DNA replication

Component of the origin recognition complex (ORC) that binds origins of replication. DNA-binding is ATP-dependent. The specific DNA sequences that define origins of replication have not been identified yet. ORC is required to assemble the pre-replication complex necessary to initiate DNA replication. Binds histone H3 and H4 trimethylation marks H3K9me3, H3K20me3 and H4K27me3. Stabilizes LRWD1, by protecting it from ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation. Also stabilizes ORC3.

Component of the origin recognition complex (ORC) that binds origins of replication. DNA-binding is ATP-dependent. The specific DNA sequences that define origins of replication have not been identified yet. ORC is required to assemble the pre-replication complex necessary to initiate DNA replication. Binds histone H3 and H4 trimethylation marks H3K9me3, H3K27me3 and H4K20me3.

Component of the origin recognition complex (ORC) that binds origins of replication. DNA-binding is ATP-dependent. The specific DNA sequences that define origins of replication have not been identified yet. ORC is required to assemble the pre-replication complex necessary to initiate DNA replication.

Component of the origin recognition complex (ORC) that binds origins of replication. DNA-binding is ATP-dependent. The specific DNA sequences that define origins of replication have not been identified yet. ORC is required to assemble the pre-replication complex necessary to initiate DNA replication. Does not bind histone H3 and H4 trimethylation marks H3K9me3, H3K27me3 and H4K20me3.

Neuropeptides that play a significant role in the regulation of food intake and sleep-wakefulness, possibly by coordinating the complex behavioral and physiologic responses of these complementary homeostatic functions. A broader role in the homeostatic regulation of energy metabolism, autonomic function, hormonal balance and the regulation of body fluids, is also suggested.

Negative regulator of sphingolipid synthesis. May indirectly regulate endoplasmic reticulum-mediated Ca(+2) signaling.

Mitochondrial ornithine-citrulline antiporter (Probable). Catalyzes the exchange between cytosolic ornithine and mitochondrial citrulline plus an H(+), the proton compensates the positive charge of ornithine thus leading to an electroneutral transport. Plays a crucial role in the urea cycle, by connecting the cytosolic and the intramitochondrial reactions of the urea cycle (Probable). Lysine and arginine are also transported by the antiport mechanism (Probable). In addition, catalyzes an electroneutral exchange of ornithine or lysine for H(+), a reaction driven by the pH gradient across the inner membrane (By similarity).

Mitochondrial transporter of the positively charged amino acids ornithine, lysine and arginine, and the neutral amino acid citrulline. In addition, transports the basic amino acids histidine, homoarginine, and asymmetric dimethylarginine (aDMA), but not symmetric DMA, and the D-forms of lysine, arginine, ornithine and histidine. Functions by both counter-exchange and uniport mechanisms.

3'-to-5'exoribonuclease that preferentially degrades DNA and RNA oligonucleotides composed of only two nucleotides. Binds and degrades longer oligonucleotides with a lower affinity. Plays dual roles in mitochondria, scavenging nanoRNAs (small RNA oligonucleotides of <5 nucleotides) that are produced by the degradosome and clearing short RNAs that are generated by RNA processing. Essential for correct initiation of mitochondrial transcription, degrading mitochondrial RNA dinucleotides to prevent RNA-primed transcription at non-canonical sites in the mitochondrial genome. Essential for embryonic development (By similarity).

Lectin which functions in endoplasmic reticulum (ER) quality control and ER-associated degradation (ERAD). May bind terminally misfolded non-glycosylated proteins as well as improperly folded glycoproteins, retain them in the ER, and possibly transfer them to the ubiquitination machinery and promote their degradation. Possible targets include TRPV4.

Probable lipid transporter involved in lipid countertransport between the endoplasmic reticulum and the plasma membrane. Its ability to bind phosphatidylserine, suggests that it specifically exchanges phosphatidylserine with phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PI4P), delivering phosphatidylserine to the plasma membrane in exchange for PI4P (Probable). Plays a role in negative regulation of lipid biosynthesis. Negatively regulates APOB secretion from hepatocytes. Binds cholesterol and acidic phospholipids. Also binds 25- hydroxycholesterol. Binds phosphatidylserine.

Plays a role in regulating ADIPOQ and FABP4 levels in differentiating adipocytes and is also involved in regulation of adipocyte triglyceride storage. Weakly binds 25- hydroxycholesterol.

Binds phospholipids; exhibits strong binding to phosphatidic acid and weak binding to phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (By similarity). Stabilizes GTP-bound RAB7A on late endosomes/lysosomes and alters functional properties of late endocytic compartments via its interaction with RAB7A. Binds 25-hydroxycholesterol and cholesterol.

Intracellular transport protein that binds sterols and phospholipids and mediates lipid transport between intracellular compartments. Increases plasma membrane cholesterol levels and decreases phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate levels in the cell membrane. Binds phosphoinositides, such as phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate. Exhibits strong binding to phosphatidic acid and weak binding to phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate. Binds cholesterol, dehydroergosterol, 22(R)-hydroxycholesterol and 25-hydroxycholesterol (in vitro).

Phosphoinositide-binding protein which associates with both cell and endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membranes. Can bind to the ER membrane protein VAPA and recruit VAPA to plasma membrane sites, thus linking these intracellular compartments. The ORP3-VAPA complex stimulates RRAS signaling which in turn attenuates integrin beta-1 (ITGB1) activation at the cell surface. With VAPA, may regulate ER morphology. Has a role in regulation of the actin cytoskeleton, cell polarity and cell adhesion. Binds to phosphoinositides with preference for PI(3,4)P2 and PI(3,4,5)P3. Also binds 25-hydroxycholesterol and cholesterol.

Lipid transporter involved in lipid countertransport between the endoplasmic reticulum and the plasma membrane: specifically exchanges phosphatidylserine with phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PI4P), delivering phosphatidylserine to the plasma membrane in exchange for PI4P, which is degraded by the SAC1/SACM1L phosphatase in the endoplasmic reticulum. Binds phosphatidylserine and PI4P in a mutually exclusive manner. May cooperate with NPC1 to mediate the exit of cholesterol from endosomes/lysosomes. Binds 25-hydroxycholesterol and cholesterol.

Regulates cellular transport and efflux of cholesterol. Plays a role in phosphatidylinositol-4-phophate (PI4P) turnover at the neuronal membrane (By similarity). Binds via its PH domain PI4P, phosphatidylinositol-4,5-diphosphate, phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-triphosphate, and phosphatidic acid (By similarity). Weakly binds 25-hydroxycholesterol.

Lipid transporter involved in lipid countertransport between the endoplasmic reticulum and the plasma membrane: specifically exchanges phosphatidylserine with phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PI4P), delivering phosphatidylserine to the plasma membrane in exchange for PI4P, which is degraded by the SAC1/SACM1L phosphatase in the endoplasmic reticulum. Binds phosphatidylserine and PI4P in a mutually exclusive manner. Binds oxysterol, 25- hydroxycholesterol and cholesterol.

Lipid transporter involved in lipid countertransport between the Golgi complex and membranes of the endoplasmic reticulum: specifically exchanges sterol with phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PI4P), delivering sterol to the Golgi in exchange for PI4P, which is degraded by the SAC1/SACM1L phosphatase in the endoplasmic reticulum. Binds cholesterol and a range of oxysterols including 25-hydroxycholesterol. Cholesterol binding promotes the formation of a complex with PP2A and a tyrosine phosphatase which dephosphorylates ERK1/2, whereas 25- hydroxycholesterol causes its disassembly. Regulates cholesterol efflux by decreasing ABCA1 stability.

Component of the EKC/KEOPS complex that is required for the formation of a threonylcarbamoyl group on adenosine at position 37 (t(6)A37) in tRNAs that read codons beginning with adenine. The complex is probably involved in the transfer of the threonylcarbamoyl moiety of threonylcarbamoyl-AMP (TC-AMP) to the N6 group of A37. OSGEP likely plays a direct catalytic role in this reaction, but requires other protein(s) of the complex to fulfill this activity.

Regulates the differentiation and proliferation through the regulation of cell death.

Required for the formation of a threonylcarbamoyl group on adenosine at position 37 (t(6)A37) in mitochondrial tRNAs that read codons beginning with adenine. Probably involved in the transfer of the threonylcarbamoyl moiety of threonylcarbamoyl-AMP (TC-AMP) to the N6 group of A37. Involved in mitochondrial genome maintenance.

Associates with IL31RA to form the IL31 receptor. Binds IL31 to activate STAT3 and possibly STAT1 and STAT5. Capable of transducing OSM-specific signaling events.

Transcription factor that plays a role in the regulation of embryonic heart and urogenital development.

Subunit of the oligosaccharyl transferase (OST) complex that catalyzes the initial transfer of a defined glycan (Glc(3)Man(9)GlcNAc(2) in eukaryotes) from the lipid carrier dolichol- pyrophosphate to an asparagine residue within an Asn-X-Ser/Thr consensus motif in nascent polypeptide chains, the first step in protein N-glycosylation. N-glycosylation occurs cotranslationally and the complex associates with the Sec61 complex at the channel-forming translocon complex that mediates protein translocation across the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). All subunits are required for a maximal enzyme activity. Specifically involved in maintaining stability of STT3A-containing OST complexes.

Essential component of the Ost-alpha/Ost-beta complex, a heterodimer that acts as the intestinal basolateral transporter responsible for bile acid export from enterocytes into portal blood. Efficiently transports the major species of bile acids (taurocholate). Taurine conjugates are transported more efficiently across the basolateral membrane than glycine-conjugated bile acids (By similarity). Can also transport steroids such as estrone 3-sulfate and dehydroepiandrosterone 3- sulfate, therefore playing a role in the enterohepatic circulation of sterols. Able to transport eicosanoids such as prostaglandin E2 (By similarity).

Essential component of the Ost-alpha/Ost-beta complex, a heterodimer that acts as the intestinal basolateral transporter responsible for bile acid export from enterocytes into portal blood. Modulates SLC51A glycosylation, membrane trafficking and stability activities. The Ost-alpha/Ost-beta complex efficiently transports the major species of bile acids (taurocholate). Taurine conjugates are transported more efficiently across the basolateral membrane than glycine- conjugated bile acids (By similarity). Can also transport steroids such as estrone 3-sulfate and dehydroepiandrosterone 3-sulfate, therefore playing a role in the enterohepatic circulation of sterols. Able to transport eicosanoids such as prostaglandin E2 (By similarity).

Constitutes 1-2% of the total bone protein. It binds strongly to apatite and calcium

Specific component of the STT3A-containing form of the oligosaccharyl transferase (OST) complex that catalyzes the initial transfer of a defined glycan (Glc(3)Man(9)GlcNAc(2) in eukaryotes) from the lipid carrier dolichol-pyrophosphate to an asparagine residue within an Asn-X-Ser/Thr consensus motif in nascent polypeptide chains, the first step in protein N-glycosylation. N- glycosylation occurs cotranslationally and the complex associates with the Sec61 complex at the channel-forming translocon complex that mediates protein translocation across the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). All subunits are required for a maximal enzyme activity. May be involved in N-glycosylation of APP (amyloid-beta precursor protein). Can modulate gamma-secretase cleavage of APP by enhancing endoprotelysis of PSEN1.

Induces bone resorption, acting probably through a signaling cascade which results in the secretion of factor(s) enhancing osteoclast formation and activity.

Hormone that acts as a regulator of dendritic growth in the developing cerebral cortex in response to sensory experience. Induced in the brain following membrane depolarization and inhibits dendritic branching in neurons of the developing cortex. Probably acts by binding to natriuretic peptide receptor NPR3/NPR-C, thereby preventing binding between NPR3/NPR-C and natriuretic peptides, leading to increase cGMP production (By similarity).

Major non-collagenous bone protein that binds tightly to hydroxyapatite. Appears to form an integral part of the mineralized matrix. Probably important to cell-matrix interaction.

Catalyzes the second step of the urea cycle, the condensation of carbamoyl phosphate with L-ornithine to form L-citrulline. The urea cycle ensures the detoxification of ammonia by converting it to urea for excretion.

Key calcium ion sensor involved in the Ca(2+)-triggered synaptic vesicle-plasma membrane fusion and in the control of neurotransmitter release at these output synapses. Interacts in a calcium-dependent manner to the presynaptic SNARE proteins at ribbon synapses of cochlear inner hair cells (IHCs) to trigger exocytosis of neurotransmitter. Also essential to synaptic exocytosis in immature outer hair cells (OHCs). May also play a role within the recycling of endosomes (By similarity).

Collagen-like protein specifically expressed in the inner ear, which provides an organic scaffold for otoconia, a calcium carbonate structure in the saccule and utricle of the ear. Acts as a scaffold for biomineralization: sequesters calcium and forms interconnecting fibrils between otoconia that are incorporated into the calcium crystal structure. Together with OC90, modulates calcite crystal morphology and growth kinetics.

Proton-selective channel that specifically transports protons into cells. Proton channel activity is only weakly- sensitive to voltage (By similarity). Proton-selective channel activity is probably required in cell types that use changes in intracellular pH for cell signaling or to regulate biochemical or developmental processes. In the vestibular system of the inner ear, required for the formation and function of otoconia, which are calcium carbonate crystals that sense gravity and acceleration (By similarity). Probably acts by maintaining the pH appropriate for formation of otoconia (By similarity). Regulates purinergic control of intracellular calcium in vestibular supporting cells (By similarity). May be involved in sour taste perception in sour taste cells by mediating entry of protons within the cytosol (By similarity). Also involved in energy metabolism, by reducing adipose tissue inflammation and protecting from obesity-induced metabolic dysfunction (By similarity).

Proton-selective channel that specifically transports protons into cells. Proton-selective channel activity is probably required in cell types that use changes in intracellular pH for cell signaling or to regulate biochemical or developmental processes.

May be essential for the survival of the neurosensory epithelium of the inner ear.

Probably involved in the differentiation of hypothalamic neuroendocrine cells

Hydrolase that can remove conjugated ubiquitin from proteins and participates in endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) for misfolded lumenal proteins. May act by triming the ubiquitin chain on the associated substrate to facilitate their threading through the VCP/p97 pore. Ubiquitin moieties on substrates may present a steric impediment to the threading process when the substrate is transferred to the VCP pore and threaded through VCP's axial channel. Mediates deubiquitination of 'Lys-27'-, 'Lys-29'- and 'Lys-33'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Also able to hydrolyze 'Lys-11'-linked ubiquitin chains. Cleaves both polyubiquitin and di-ubiquitin. May play a role in macroautophagy, regulating for instance the clearance of damaged lysosomes. May recruit PLAA, UBXN6 and VCP to damaged lysosome membranes decorated with K48-linked ubiquitin chains and remove these chains allowing autophagosome formation.

Deubiquitinating enzyme that hydrolyzes 'Lys-27'-, 'Lys- 29'- and 'Lys-33'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Also able to hydrolyze 'Lys-11'-linked ubiquitin chains.

[Isoform 1]: Deubiquitinating enzyme that may play a role in the ubiquitin-dependent regulation of protein synthesis, downstream of mTORC1. May associate with the protein synthesis initiation complex and modify its ubiquitination to repress translation. May also repress DNA synthesis and modify different cellular targets thereby regulating cell growth and proliferation. May also play a role in proteasome assembly and function.

Has deubiquitinating activity towards 'Lys-11'-linked polyubiquitin chains.

Negative regulator of the non-canonical NF-kappa-B pathway that acts by mediating deubiquitination of TRAF3, an inhibitor of the NF-kappa-B pathway, thereby acting as a negative regulator of B-cell responses. In response to non-canonical NF-kappa-B stimuli, deubiquitinates 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitin chains of TRAF3, preventing TRAF3 proteolysis and over-activation of non-canonical NF- kappa-B. Negatively regulates mucosal immunity against infections (By similarity). Deubiquitinates ZAP70, and thereby regulates T cell receptor (TCR) signaling that leads to the activation of NF-kappa-B. Plays a role in T cell homeostasis and is required for normal T cell responses, including production of IFNG and IL2 (By similarity). Mediates deubiquitination of EGFR. Has deubiquitinating activity toward 'Lys-11', 'Lys-48' and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Has a much higher catalytic rate with 'Lys-11'-linked polyubiquitin chains (in vitro); however the physiological significance of these data are unsure. Hydrolyzes both linear and branched forms of polyubiquitin.

Hydrolase that can specifically remove 'Lys-48'-linked conjugated ubiquitin from proteins and plays an important regulatory role at the level of protein turnover by preventing degradation. Regulator of T-cell anergy, a phenomenon that occurs when T-cells are rendered unresponsive to antigen rechallenge and no longer respond to their cognate antigen. Acts via its interaction with RNF128/GRAIL, a crucial inductor of CD4 T-cell anergy. Isoform 1 destabilizes RNF128, leading to prevent anergy. In contrast, isoform 2 stabilizes RNF128 and promotes anergy. Surprisingly, it regulates RNF128-mediated ubiquitination, but does not deubiquitinate polyubiquitinated RNF128. Deubiquitinates estrogen receptor alpha (ESR1). Mediates deubiquitination of 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitin chains, but not 'Lys- 63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Not able to cleave di-ubiquitin. Also capable of removing NEDD8 from NEDD8 conjugates, but with a much lower preference compared to 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitin

Hydrolase that can remove conjugated ubiquitin from proteins in vitro and may therefore play an important regulatory role at the level of protein turnover by preventing degradation. Mediates deubiquitination of 'Lys-11'-,'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains, with a preference for 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains.

Deubiquitinating enzyme that specifically hydrolyzes 'Lys- 63'-linked polyubiquitin to monoubiquitin.

Deubiquitinating enzyme that hydrolyzes 'Lys-6'- and 'Lys- 11'-linked polyubiquitin. Also hydrolyzes heterotypic (mixed and branched) and homotypic chains. Important regulator of energy metabolism. Glucose and fatty acids trigger its nuclear translocation by CBP-dependent acetylation. In the nucleus, deubiquitinates and stabilizes the nuclear receptor PPARD regulating the expression of various genes involved in glucose and lipid metabolism and oxidative phosphorylation.

Deubiquitinase which hydrolyzes the isopeptide bond between the ubiquitin C-terminus and the lysine epsilon-amino group of the target protein. May negatively regulate inflammatory and pathogen recognition signaling in innate immune response. Upon phosphorylation at Ser-202 and Ser-204 residues, via IL-1 receptor and Toll-like receptor signaling pathway, specifically deubiquitinates 'Lys-63'-polyubiquitinated MYD88 adapter protein triggering down-regulation of NF-kappa-B-dependent transcription of inflammatory mediators. Independently of the catalytic activity, acts as a scaffold for alternative deubiquitinases to assemble specific deubiquitinase- substrate complexes. Associates with USP7 and USP9X deubiquitinases to stabilize alkylation repair enzyme ALKBH3, thereby promoting the repair of alkylated DNA lesions.

Deubiquitinating enzyme that functions as negative regulator of the innate immune system. Acts via TRAF3 deubiquitination and subsequent suppression of type I interferon (IFN) production. Has peptidase activity towards 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Can also cleave 'Lys-11'-linked ubiquitin chains (in vitro). Controls neuroectodermal differentiation through cleaving 'Lys-48'- linked ubiquitin chains to counteract degradation of select chromatin regulators such as ARID1A, HDAC2 and HCF1.

Deubiquitinase that specifically removes linear ('Met-1'- linked) polyubiquitin chains to substrates and acts as a regulator of angiogenesis and innate immune response. Required during angiogenesis, craniofacial and neuronal development by regulating the canonical Wnt signaling together with the LUBAC complex. Acts as a negative regulator of NF-kappa-B by regulating the activity of the LUBAC complex. OTULIN function is mainly restricted to homeostasis of the LUBAC complex: acts by removing 'Met- 1'-linked autoubiquitination of the LUBAC complex, thereby preventing inactivation of the LUBAC complex. Acts as a key negative regulator of inflammation by restricting spontaneous inflammation and maintaining immune homeostasis. In myeloid cell, required to prevent unwarranted secretion of cytokines leading to inflammation and autoimmunity by restricting linear polyubiquitin formation. Plays a role in innate immune response by restricting linear polyubiquitin formation on LUBAC complex in response to NOD2 stimulation, probably to limit NOD2- dependent pro-inflammatory signaling.

Probably plays a role in the development of the brain and the sense organs. Can bind to the BCD target sequence (BTS): 5'-TCTAATCCC- 3'

Transcription factor probably involved in the development of the brain and the sense organs. Can bind to the bicoid/BCD target sequence (BTS): 5'-TCTAATCCC-3'.

Binds to oocyte zona pellucida in vivo. May play a role in the fertilization process and/or early embryonic development

Putative transcription factor. Involved in hair formation and spermatogenesis. May function in the differentiation and/or maintenance of the urogenital system (By similarity).

Zinc-finger transcription repressor factor. Plays a critical role in maintaining the identity of epithelial lineages by suppressing epithelial-to mesenchymal transition (EMT) mainly through the repression of ZEB1, an EMT inducer (By similarity). Positively regulates neuronal differentiation (By similarity). Suppresses cell cycling and terminal differentiation of keratinocytes by directly repressing MYC and NOTCH1. Important for the correct development of primordial germ cells in embryos (By similarity).

Moderately selective excitatory receptor for orexin-A and, with a lower affinity, for orexin-B neuropeptide. Triggers an increase in cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels in response to orexin-A binding.

Stimulates feeding behavior, metabolic rate and locomotor activity and increases blood pressure. May have orexigenic activity. May promote aldosterone secretion by the adrenal gland (By similarity).

Costimulates T-cell proliferation. May regulate myeloid cell activity in a variety of tissues

Nonselective, high-affinity receptor for both orexin-A and orexin-B neuropeptides. Triggers an increase in cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels in response to orexin-A binding.

Regulates the level of the neuromodulator D-serine in the brain. Has high activity towards D-DOPA and contributes to dopamine synthesis. Could act as a detoxifying agent which removes D-amino acids accumulated during aging. Acts on a variety of D-amino acids with a preference for those having small hydrophobic side chains followed by those bearing polar, aromatic, and basic groups. Does not act on acidic amino acids.

Selectively catalyzes the oxidative deamination of D- aspartate and its N-methylated derivative, N-methyl D-aspartate.

Receptor for eicosanoids and polyunsaturated fatty acids such as 5-oxo-6E,8Z,11Z,14Z-eicosatetraenoic acid (5-OXO-ETE), 5(S)- hydroperoxy-6E,8Z,11Z,14Z-eicosatetraenoic acid (5(S)-HPETE) and arachidonic acid. Seems to be coupled to the G(i)/G(o), families of heteromeric G proteins.

Receptor for alpha-ketoglutarate. Seems to act exclusively through a G(q)-mediated pathway (By similarity).

Secreted L-amino-acid oxidase that acts as a key immunoregulator. Has preference for L-aromatic amino acids: converts phenylalanine (Phe), tyrosine (Tyr) and tryptophan (Trp) to phenylpyruvic acid (PP), hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid (HPP), and indole-3-pyruvic acid (I3P), respectively. Also has weak L-arginine oxidase activity. Acts as a negative regulator of anti-tumor immunity by mediating Trp degradation via an indole pyruvate pathway that activates the transcription factor AHR. IL4I1-mediated Trp catabolism generates I3P, giving rise to indole metabolites (indole-3-acetic acid (IAA) and indole-3-aldehyde (I3A)) and kynurenic acid, which act as ligands for AHR, a ligand-activated transcription factor that plays important roles in immunity and cancer. AHR activation by indoles following IL4I1-mediated Trp degradation enhances tumor progression by promoting cancer cell motility and suppressing adaptive immunity. Also has an immunoregulatory function in some immune cells, probably by mediating Trp degradation and promoting downstream AHR activation: inhibits T-cell activation and proliferation, promotes the differentiation of naive CD4(+) T-cells into FOXP3(+) regulatory T- cells (Treg) and regulates the development and function of B-cells. Also regulates M2 macrophage polarization by inhibiting T-cell activation (By similarity). Also has antibacterial properties by inhibiting growth of Gram negative and Gram positive bacteria through the production of NH4(+) and H2O2.

May play a role in the biosynthesis of lipoic acid as well as longer chain fatty acids required for optimal mitochondrial function.

Phosphorylates RELL1, RELL2 and RELT. Phosphorylates PAK1. Phosphorylates PLSCR1 in the presence of RELT.

Receptor for oxytocin. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system

Essential component of the nuclear pore complex (NPC). The repeat-containing domain may be involved in anchoring components of the pore complex to the pore membrane. When overexpressed in cells induces the formation of cytoplasmic annulate lamellae (AL).

Secreted enzyme that regulates the endogenous N-fatty acyl amino acid (NAAs) tissue and circulating levels by functioning as a bidirectional NAA synthase/hydrolase. It condenses free fatty acids and free amino acids to generate NAAs and bidirectionally catalyzes the reverse hydrolysis reaction. Some of these NAAs stimulate oxidative metabolism via mitochondrial uncoupling, increasing energy expenditure in a UPC1- independent manner. Thereby, this secreted protein may indirectly regulate whole body energy expenditure. PM20D1 circulates in tight association with both low- and high-density (LDL and HDL,respectively) lipoprotein particles (By similarity).

Catalyzes the peptide bond hydrolysis in dipeptides having basic amino acids lysine, ornithine or arginine at C-terminus. Postulated to function in a metabolite repair mechanism by eliminating alternate dipeptide by-products formed during carnosine synthesis.

May regulate MCM3AP phosphorylation through phosphatase recruitment (By similarity). May act as a negative regulator of ABCB1 expression and function through the dephosphorylation of ABCB1 by TFPI2/PPP2R3C complex. May play a role in the activation-induced cell death of B-cells (By similarity).

Ligand-gated ion channel with relatively high calcium permeability. Binding to ATP mediates synaptic transmission between neurons and from neurons to smooth muscle. Seems to be linked to apoptosis, by increasing the intracellular concentration of calcium in the presence of ATP, leading to programmed cell death (By similarity).

Ion channel gated by extracellular ATP involved in a variety of cellular responses, such as excitatory postsynaptic responses in sensory neurons, neuromuscular junctions (NMJ) formation, hearing, perception of taste and peristalsis. In the inner ear, regulates sound transduction and auditory neurotransmission, outer hair cell electromotility, inner ear gap junctions, and K(+) recycling. Mediates synaptic transmission between neurons and from neurons to smooth muscle.

Receptor for ATP that acts as a ligand-gated cation channel. Plays a role in sensory perception. Required for normal perception of pain. Required for normal taste perception (By similarity).

Receptor for extracellularly released ATP acting as a ligand- gated ion channel that plays multiple role in immunity and central nervous system physiology. Plays a key role in initial steps of T-cell activation and Ca(2+) microdomain formation (By similarity). Participates also in basal T-cell activity without TCR/CD3 stimulation (By similarity). Promotes the differentiation and activation of Th17 cells via expression of retinoic acid-related orphan receptor C/RORC. Upon activation, drives microglia motility via the PI3K/Akt pathway (By similarity).

Receptor for ATP that acts as a ligand-gated ion channel. Responsible for ATP-dependent lysis of macrophages through the formation of membrane pores permeable to large molecules. Could function in both fast synaptic transmission and the ATP-mediated lysis of antigen-presenting cells. In the absence of its natural ligand, ATP, functions as a scavenger receptor in the recognition and engulfment of apoptotic cells.

Receptor for extracellular adenine nucleotides such as ADP. In platelets, binding to ADP leads to mobilization of intracellular calcium ions via activation of phospholipase C, a change in platelet shape, and ultimately platelet aggregation.

Receptor for ATP and UTP coupled to G-proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. The affinity range is UTP = ATP > ATP-gamma-S >> 2-methylthio-ATP = ADP

Receptor for UTP and UDP coupled to G-proteins that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. Not activated by ATP or ADP

Receptor for extracellular UDP > UTP > ATP. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system

Receptor for ATP and ADP coupled to G-proteins that activate both phosphatidylinositol-calcium and adenylyl cyclase second messenger systems. Not activated by UTP or UDP

Receptor for ADP and ATP coupled to G-proteins that inhibit the adenylyl cyclase second messenger system. Not activated by UDP and UTP. Required for normal platelet aggregation and blood coagulation.

Receptor for ADP. Coupled to G(i)-proteins. May play a role in hematopoiesis and the immune system.

Receptor for UDP-glucose and other UDP-sugar coupled to G- proteins. Not activated by ATP, ADP, UTP or ATP.

Potential NADPH-dependent oxidoreductase. May be involved in the regulation of neuronal survival, differentiation and axonal outgrowth

Generates phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns3P) and phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4)P2) that act as second messengers. Has a role in several intracellular trafficking events. Functions in insulin signaling and secretion. Required for translocation of the glucose transporter SLC2A4/GLUT4 to the plasma membrane and glucose uptake in response to insulin-mediated RHOQ activation. Regulates insulin secretion through two different mechanisms: involved in glucose-induced insulin secretion downstream of insulin receptor in a pathway that involves AKT1 activation and TBC1D4/AS160 phosphorylation, and participates in the late step of insulin granule exocytosis probably in insulin granule fusion. Synthesizes PtdIns3P in response to insulin signaling. Functions in clathrin-coated endocytic vesicle formation and distribution. Regulates dynamin-independent endocytosis, probably by recruiting EEA1 to internalizing vesicles. In neurosecretory cells synthesizes PtdIns3P on large dense core vesicles. Participates in calcium induced contraction of vascular smooth muscle by regulating myosin light chain (MLC) phosphorylation through a mechanism involving Rho kinase-dependent phosphorylation of the MLCP-regulatory subunit MYPT1. May play a role in the EGF signaling cascade. May be involved in mitosis and UV-induced damage response. Required for maintenance of normal renal structure and function by supporting normal podocyte function. Involved in the regulation of ciliogenesis and trafficking of ciliary components.

Phosphorylates PtdIns and PtdIns4P with a preference for PtdIns. Does not phosphorylate PtdIns(4,5)P2. May be involved in EGF and PDGF signaling cascades.

Basement membrane-associated chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan (CSPG). Has prolyl 3-hydroxylase activity catalyzing the post- translational formation of 3-hydroxyproline in -Xaa-Pro-Gly- sequences in collagens, especially types IV and V. May be involved in the secretory pathway of cells. Has growth suppressive activity in fibroblasts.

Prolyl 3-hydroxylase that catalyzes the post-translational formation of 3-hydroxyproline on collagens. Contributes to proline 3-hydroxylation of collagen COL4A1 and COL1A1 in tendons, the eye sclera and in the eye lens capsule (By similarity). Has high activity with the type IV collagen COL4A1, and lower activity with COL1A1. Catalyzes hydroxylation of the first Pro in Gly-Pro-Hyp sequences where Hyp is 4-hydroxyproline. Has no activity on substrates that lack 4- hydroxyproline in the third position.

Part of a complex composed of PLOD1, P3H3 and P3H4 that catalyzes hydroxylation of lysine residues in collagen alpha chains and is required for normal assembly and cross-linkling of collagen fibrils. Required for normal hydroxylation of lysine residues in type I collagen chains in skin, bone, tendon, aorta and cornea. Required for normal skin stability via its role in hydroxylation of lysine residues in collagen alpha chains and in collagen fibril assembly. Apparently not required for normal prolyl 3-hydroxylation on collagen chains, possibly because it functions redundantly with other prolyl 3-hydroxylases.

Negative regulator of hepatic phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) activity.

The ubiquitous expression and the conservation of the sequence in distant animal species suggest that the gene codes for a protein with housekeeping functions

Catalyzes the post-translational formation of 4- hydroxyproline in -Xaa-Pro-Gly- sequences in collagens and other proteins.

Catalyzes the post-translational formation of 4- hydroxyproline in hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF) alpha proteins. Hydroxylates HIF1A at 'Pro-402' and 'Pro-564'. May function as a cellular oxygen sensor and, under normoxic conditions, may target HIF through the hydroxylation for proteasomal degradation via the von Hippel-Lindau ubiquitination complex.

Membrane-bound phosphatidylinositol-4 kinase (PI4-kinase) that catalyzes the phosphorylation of phosphatidylinositol (PI) to phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PI4P), a lipid that plays important roles in endocytosis, Golgi function, protein sorting and membrane trafficking and is required for prolonged survival of neurons. Besides, phosphorylation of phosphatidylinositol (PI) to phosphatidylinositol 4- phosphate (PI4P) is the first committed step in the generation of phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2), a precursor of the second messenger inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (InsP3).

Together with PI4K2A and the type III PI4Ks (PIK4CA and PIK4CB) it contributes to the overall PI4-kinase activity of the cell. This contribution may be especially significant in plasma membrane, endosomal and Golgi compartments. The phosphorylation of phosphatidylinositol (PI) to PI4P is the first committed step in the generation of phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2), a precursor of the second messenger inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (InsP3). Contributes to the production of InsP3 in stimulated cells and is likely to be involved in the regulation of vesicular trafficking.

Regulatory subunit of serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 4. May regulate the activity of PPP4C at centrosomal microtubule organizing centers. The PPP4C-PPP4R2-PPP4R3A PP4 complex specifically dephosphorylates H2AX phosphorylated on 'Ser-140' (gamma-H2AX) generated during DNA replication and required for DNA DSB repair.

Regulatory subunit of serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 4 (PP4). May regulate the activity of PPP4C at centrosomal microtubule organizing centers

Upstream regulator of interferon-induced serine/threonine protein kinase R (PKR). May block the PKR-inhibitory function of DNAJC3, resulting in restoration of kinase activity and suppression of cell growth

Acts as a tumor suppressor in many tumor types; induces growth arrest or apoptosis depending on the physiological circumstances and cell type. Involved in cell cycle regulation as a trans-activator that acts to negatively regulate cell division by controlling a set of genes required for this process. One of the activated genes is an inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinases. Apoptosis induction seems to be mediated either by stimulation of BAX and FAS antigen expression, or by repression of Bcl-2 expression. Its pro-apoptotic activity is activated via its interaction with PPP1R13B/ASPP1 or TP53BP2/ASPP2. However, this activity is inhibited when the interaction with PPP1R13B/ASPP1 or TP53BP2/ASPP2 is displaced by PPP1R13L/iASPP. In cooperation with mitochondrial PPIF is involved in activating oxidative stress-induced necrosis; the function is largely independent of transcription. Induces the transcription of long intergenic non-coding RNA p21 (lincRNA-p21) and lincRNA-Mkln1. LincRNA-p21 participates in TP53-dependent transcriptional repression leading to apoptosis and seems to have an effect on cell-cycle regulation. Implicated in Notch signaling cross- over. Prevents CDK7 kinase activity when associated to CAK complex in response to DNA damage, thus stopping cell cycle progression. Isoform 2 enhances the transactivation activity of isoform 1 from some but not all TP53-inducible promoters. Isoform 4 suppresses transactivation activity and impairs growth suppression mediated by isoform 1. Isoform 7 inhibits isoform 1-mediated apoptosis. Regulates the circadian clock by repressing CLOCK-BMAL1-mediated transcriptional activation of PER2.

Binds to activated (phosphorylated) protein-tyrosine kinases through its SH2 domain and regulates their kinase activity. During insulin stimulation, it also binds to IRS-1

Housekeeping enzyme that catalyzes the last step in proline biosynthesis. Can utilize both NAD and NADP, but has higher affinity for NAD. Involved in the cellular response to oxidative stress.

Housekeeping enzyme that catalyzes the last step in proline biosynthesis. In some cell types, such as erythrocytes, its primary function may be the generation of NADP(+). Can utilize both NAD and NADP. Has higher affinity for NADP, but higher catalytic efficiency with NADH. Involved in cellular response to oxidative stress.

Enzyme that catalyzes the last step in proline biosynthesis. Proline is synthesized from either glutamate or ornithine; both are converted to pyrroline-5-carboxylate (P5C), and then to proline via pyrroline-5-carboxylate reductases (PYCRs). PYCRL is exclusively linked to the conversion of ornithine to proline.

Bifunctional enzyme that converts glutamate to glutamate 5- semialdehyde, an intermediate in the biosynthesis of proline, ornithine and arginine.

May act as a tumor suppressor. Inhibits tumor cell growth, when overexpressed.

Acts as a sequence specific DNA binding transcriptional activator or repressor. The isoforms contain a varying set of transactivation and auto-regulating transactivation inhibiting domains thus showing an isoform specific activity. Isoform 2 activates RIPK4 transcription. May be required in conjunction with TP73/p73 for initiation of p53/TP53 dependent apoptosis in response to genotoxic insults and the presence of activated oncogenes. Involved in Notch signaling by probably inducing JAG1 and JAG2. Plays a role in the regulation of epithelial morphogenesis. The ratio of DeltaN-type and TA*-type isoforms may govern the maintenance of epithelial stem cell compartments and regulate the initiation of epithelial stratification from the undifferentiated embryonal ectoderm. Required for limb formation from the apical ectodermal ridge. Activates transcription of the p21 promoter.

Transcriptional repressor. Enhances MBD2-mediated repression. Efficient repression requires the presence of GATAD2B.

Transcriptional repressor. Enhances MBD2-mediated repression. Efficient repression requires the presence of GATAD2A. Targets MBD3 to discrete loci in the nucleus. May play a role in synapse development.

Participates in the apoptotic response to DNA damage. Isoforms containing the transactivation domain are pro-apoptotic, isoforms lacking the domain are anti-apoptotic and block the function of p53 and transactivating p73 isoforms. May be a tumor suppressor protein. Is an activator of FOXJ1 expression (By similarity). It is an essential factor for the positive regulation of lung ciliated cell differentiation.

Binds to activated (phosphorylated) protein-Tyr kinases, through its SH2 domain, and acts as an adapter, mediating the association of the p110 catalytic unit to the plasma membrane. Necessary for the insulin-stimulated increase in glucose uptake and glycogen synthesis in insulin-sensitive tissues. Plays an important role in signaling in response to FGFR1, FGFR2, FGFR3, FGFR4, KITLG/SCF, KIT, PDGFRA and PDGFRB. Likewise, plays a role in ITGB2 signaling. Modulates the cellular response to ER stress by promoting nuclear translocation of XBP1 isoform 2 in a ER stress- and/or insulin-dependent manner during metabolic overloading in the liver and hence plays a role in glucose tolerance improvement.

Regulatory subunit of phosphoinositide-3-kinase (PI3K), a kinase that phosphorylates PtdIns(4,5)P2 (Phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate) to generate phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3). PIP3 plays a key role by recruiting PH domain-containing proteins to the membrane, including AKT1 and PDPK1, activating signaling cascades involved in cell growth, survival, proliferation, motility and morphology. Binds to activated (phosphorylated) protein- tyrosine kinases, through its SH2 domain, and acts as an adapter, mediating the association of the p110 catalytic unit to the plasma membrane. Indirectly regulates autophagy. Promotes nuclear translocation of XBP1 isoform 2 in a ER stress- and/or insulin- dependent manner during metabolic overloading in the liver and hence plays a role in glucose tolerance improvement (By similarity).

Alpha2 catalytic subunit of the cytosolic type I platelet- activating factor (PAF) acetylhydrolase (PAF-AH (I)) heterotetrameric enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolyze of the acetyl group at the sn-2 position of PAF and its analogs and modulates the action of PAF. The activity and substrate specificity of PAF-AH (I) are affected by its subunit composition. The alpha2/alpha2 homodimer (PAFAH1B2/PAFAH1B2 homodimer) hydrolyzes PAF and 1-O-alkyl-2-acetyl-sn-glycero-3- phosphorylethanolamine (AAGPE) more efficiently than 1-O-alkyl-2- acetyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphoric acid (AAGPA). In contrast, the alpha1/alpha2 heterodimer(PAFAH1B3/PAFAH1B3 heterodimer) hydrolyzes AAGPA more efficiently than PAF, but has little hydrolytic activity towards AAGPE (By similarity). May play a role in male germ cell meiosis during the late pachytenestage and meiotic divisions as well as early spermiogenesis (By similarity).

Alpha1 catalytic subunit of the cytosolic type I platelet- activating factor (PAF) acetylhydrolase (PAF-AH (I)) heterotetrameric enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolyze of the acetyl group at the sn-2 position of PAF and its analogs and modulates the action of PAF. The activity and substrate specificity of PAF-AH (I) are affected by its subunit composition. Both alpha1/alpha1 homodimer (PAFAH1B3/PAFAH1B3 homodimer) and alpha1/alpha2 heterodimer(PAFAH1B3/PAFAH1B2 heterodimer) hydrolyze 1-O-alkyl-2-acetyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphoric acid (AAGPA) more efficiently than PAF, but they have little hydrolytic activity towards 1-O-alkyl-2-acetyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphorylethanolamine (AAGPE). Plays an important role during the development of brain.

Secretory calcium-dependent phospholipase A2 that primarily targets dietary phospholipids in the intestinal tract. Hydrolyzes the ester bond of the fatty acyl group attached at sn-2 position of phospholipids (phospholipase A2 activity) with preference for phosphatidylethanolamines and phosphatidylglycerols over phosphatidylcholines. May play a role in the biosynthesis of N-acyl ethanolamines that regulate energy metabolism and inflammation in the intestinal tract. Hydrolyzes N-acyl phosphatidylethanolamines to N-acyl lysophosphatidylethanolamines, which are further cleaved by a lysophospholipase D to release N-acyl ethanolamines (By similarity). May act in an autocrine and paracrine manner. Upon binding to the PLA2R1 receptor can regulate podocyte survival and glomerular homeostasis. Has anti-helminth activity in a process regulated by gut microbiota. Upon helminth infection of intestinal epithelia, directly affects phosphatidylethanolamine contents in the membrane of helminth larvae, likely controlling an array of phospholipid-mediated cellular processes such as membrane fusion and cell division while providing for better immune recognition, ultimately reducing larvae integrity and infectivity (By similarity).

Has primarily calcium-dependent phospholipase and lysophospholipase activities, with a major role in membrane lipid remodeling and biosynthesis of lipid mediators of the inflammatory response. Plays an important role in embryo implantation and parturition through its ability to trigger prostanoid production (By similarity). Preferentially hydrolyzes the ester bond of the fatty acyl group attached at sn-2 position of phospholipids (phospholipase A2 activity). Selectively hydrolyzes sn-2 arachidonoyl group from membrane phospholipids, providing the precursor for eicosanoid biosynthesis via the cyclooxygenase pathway. In an alternative pathway of eicosanoid biosynthesis, hydrolyzes sn-2 fatty acyl chain of eicosanoid lysophopholipids to release free bioactive eicosanoids. Hydrolyzes the ester bond of the fatty acyl group attached at sn-1 position of phospholipids (phospholipase A1 activity) only if an ether linkage rather than an ester linkage is present at the sn-2 position. This hydrolysis is not stereospecific. Has calcium-independent phospholipase A2 and lysophospholipase activities in the presence of phosphoinositides. Has O-acyltransferase activity. Catalyzes the transfer of fatty acyl chains from phospholipids to a primary hydroxyl group of glycerol (sn-1 or sn-3), potentially contributing to monoacylglycerol synthesis.

Calcium-dependent phospholipase A1 and A2 and lysophospholipase that may play a role in membrane phospholipid remodeling.

Calcium-independent phospholipase, lysophospholipase and O- acyltransferase involved in phospholipid remodeling with implications in endoplasmic reticulum membrane homeostasis and lipid droplet biogenesis. Preferentially hydrolyzes the ester bond of the fatty acyl group attached at the sn-2 position of phospholipids with choline and ethanolamine head groups, producing lysophospholipids that are used in deacylation-reacylation cycles. Transfers the sn-1 fatty acyl from one lysophospholipid molecule to the sn-2 position of another lysophospholipid to form diacyl, alkylacyl and alkenylacyl glycerophospholipids. Cleaves ester bonds but not alkyl or alkenyl ether bonds at sn-1 position of lysophospholipids. Catalyzes sn-2 fatty acyl transfer from phospholipids to the sn-2 position of 1-O-alkyl or 1-O-alkenyl lysophospholipids with lower efficiency. In response to dietary fatty acids, may play a role in the formation of nascent lipid droplets from the endoplasmic reticulum likely by regulating the phospholipid composition of these organelles.

Calcium-dependent phospholipase A2 that selectively hydrolyzes glycerophospholipids in the sn-2 position. Has a preference for linoleic acid at the sn-2 position.

Has calcium-dependent phospholipase and lysophospholipase activities with a potential role in membrane lipid remodeling and biosynthesis of lipid mediators. Preferentially hydrolyzes the ester bond of the fatty acyl group attached at sn-2 position of phospholipids (phospholipase A2 activity). Selectively hydrolyzes sn-2 arachidonoyl group from membrane phospholipids, providing the precursor for eicosanoid biosynthesis. In myocardial mitochondria, plays a major role in arachidonate release that is metabolically channeled to the formation of cardioprotective eicosanoids, epoxyeicosatrienoates (EETs).

Secretory calcium-dependent phospholipase A2 that primarily targets extracellular phospholipids. Hydrolyzes the ester bond of the fatty acyl group attached at sn-2 position of phospholipids without apparent head group selectivity. Contributes to phospholipid remodeling of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and high-density lipoprotein (HDL) particles. Hydrolyzes LDL phospholipids releasing unsaturated fatty acids that regulate macrophage differentiation toward foam cells. May act in an autocrine and paracrine manner. Secreted by immature mast cells, acts on nearby fibroblasts upstream to PTDGS to synthesize prostaglandin D2 (PGD2), which in turn promotes mast cell maturation and degranulation via PTGDR. Secreted by epididymal epithelium, acts on immature sperm cells within the duct, modulating the degree of unsaturation of the fatty acyl components of phosphatidylcholines required for acrosome assembly and sperm cell motility. Facilitates the replacement of fatty acyl chains in phosphatidylcholines in sperm membranes from omega-6 and omega-9 to omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs). Coupled to lipoxygenase pathway, may process omega-6 PUFAs to generate oxygenated lipid mediators in the male reproductive tract (By similarity). At pericentrosomal preciliary compartment, negatively regulates ciliogenesis likely by regulating endocytotic recycling of ciliary membrane protein. Coupled to cyclooxygenase pathway provides arachidonate to generate prostaglandin E2 (PGE2), a potent immunomodulatory lipid in inflammation and tumorigenesis. At colonic epithelial barrier, preferentially hydrolyzes phospholipids having arachidonate and docosahexaenoate at sn-2 position, contributing to the generation of oxygenated metabolites involved in colonic stem cell homeostasis. Releases C16:0 and C18:0 lysophosphatidylcholine subclasses from neuron plasma membranes and promotes neurite outgrowth and neuron survival.

May play a role in a ERBB3-regulated signal transduction pathway. Seems be involved in growth regulation. Acts a corepressor of the androgen receptor (AR) and is regulated by the ERBB3 ligand neuregulin-1/heregulin (HRG). Inhibits transcription of some E2F1- regulated promoters, probably by recruiting histone acetylase (HAT) activity. Binds RNA. Associates with 28S, 18S and 5.8S mature rRNAs, several rRNA precursors and probably U3 small nucleolar RNA. May be involved in regulation of intermediate and late steps of rRNA processing. May be involved in ribosome assembly. Mediates cap- independent translation of specific viral IRESs (internal ribosomal entry site) (By similarity). Regulates cell proliferation, differentiation, and survival. Isoform 1 suppresses apoptosis whereas isoform 2 promotes cell differentiation (By similarity).

Secretory calcium-dependent phospholipase A2 that primarily targets extracellular phospholipids. Hydrolyzes the ester bond of the fatty acyl group attached at sn-2 position of phospholipids (phospholipase A2 activity), preferentially releasing fatty acyl groups with a low degree of unsaturation such as oleoyl (C18:1) and linoleoyl (C18:2) groups. Hydrolyzes low-density lipoprotein (LDL) phospholipids releasing unsaturated fatty acids that drive macrophage polarization toward an M2 phenotype (By similarity). May act in an autocrine and paracrine manner. Contributes to lipid remodeling of cellular membranes at different subcellular locations and generation of lipid mediators involved in pathogen clearance. Cleaves sn-2 fatty acyl chains of cardiolipin, a major component of the inner membrane of mitochondria and bacterial membranes. Promotes phagocytosis of bacteria in macrophages through production of lysophosphatidylethanolamines. Displays bactericidal activity against Gram-positive bacteria by directly hydrolyzing phospholipids of the bacterial membrane. Promotes phagocytosis and killing of ingested fungi likely through controlling phagosome-lysosome fusion and phagosome maturation (By similarity). Plays a role in biosynthesis of cysteinyl leukotrienes (CysLTs) in myeloid cells. In eosinophils, triggers perinuclear arachidonate release and LTC4 synthesis in a PLA2G4A-independent way. In neutrophils, amplifies CysLTs biosynthesis initiated by PLA2G4A. Promotes immune complex clearance in macrophages via stimulating synthesis of CysLTs, which act through CYSLTR1 to trigger phagocytosis (By similarity). May regulate antigen processing in antigen-presenting cells (By similarity). In pulmonary macrophages regulates IL33 production required for activation of group 2 innate lymphoid cells (By similarity). May play a role in the biosynthesis of N-acyl ethanolamines that regulate energy metabolism. Hydrolyzes N-acyl phosphatidylethanolamines to N-acyl lysophosphatidylethanolamines, which are further cleaved by a lysophospholipase D to release N-acyl ethanolamines.

Secretory calcium-dependent phospholipase A2 that primarily targets extracellular phospholipids with implications in host antimicrobial defense, inflammatory response and tissue regeneration. Hydrolyzes the ester bond of the fatty acyl group attached at sn-2 position of phospholipids (phospholipase A2 activity) with preference for phosphatidylethanolamines and phosphatidylglycerols over phosphatidylcholines. Contributes to lipid remodeling of cellular membranes and generation of lipid mediators involved in pathogen clearance. Displays bactericidal activity against Gram-positive bacteria by directly hydrolyzing phospholipids of the bacterial membrane. Upon sterile inflammation, targets membrane phospholipids of extracellular mitochondria released from activated platelets, generating free unsaturated fatty acids such as arachidonate that is used by neighboring leukocytes to synthesize inflammatory eicosanoids such as leukotrienes. Simultaneously, by compromising mitochondrial membrane integrity, promotes the release in circulation of potent damage-associated molecular pattern molecules that activate the innate immune response. Plays a stem cell regulator role in the intestinal crypt. Within intracellular compartment mediates Paneth cell differentiation and its stem cell supporting functions by inhibiting Wnt signaling pathway in intestinal stem cell (ICS). Secreted in the intestinal lumen upon inflammation, acts in an autocrine way and promotes prostaglandin E2 synthesis that stimulates Wnt signaling pathway in ICS cells and tissue regeneration (By similarity). May play a role in the biosynthesis of N-acyl ethanolamines that regulate energy metabolism and inflammation. Hydrolyzes N-acyl phosphatidylethanolamines to N-acyl lysophosphatidylethanolamines, which are further cleaved by a lysophospholipase D to release N-acyl ethanolamines. Independent of its catalytic activity, acts as a ligand for integrins. Binds to and activates integrins ITGAV:ITGB3, ITGA4:ITGB1 and ITGA5:ITGB1. Binds to a site (site 2) which is distinct from the classical ligand-binding site (site 1) and induces integrin conformational changes and enhanced ligand binding to site 1. Induces cell proliferation in an integrin-dependent manner.

Secretory calcium-dependent phospholipase A2 that primarily targets extracellular lipids, exerting anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive functions. Hydrolyzes the ester bond of the fatty acyl group attached at sn-2 position of phospholipids (phospholipase A2 activity) with preference for phosphatidylethanolamines and phosphatidylglycerols over phosphatidylcholines. In draining lymph nodes, selectively hydrolyzes diacyl and alkenyl forms of phosphatidylethanolamines, releasing omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) such as eicosapentaenoate and docosahexaenoate that are precursors of the anti-inflammatory lipid mediators, resolvins (By similarity). During the resolution phase of acute inflammation drives docosahexaenoate-derived resolvin D1 synthesis, which suppresses dendritic cell activation and T-helper 1 immune response (By similarity). May act in an autocrine and paracrine manner (By similarity). Via a mechanism independent of its catalytic activity, promotes differentiation of regulatory T cells (Tregs) and participates in the maintenance of immune tolerance (By similarity). May contribute to lipid remodeling of cellular membranes and generation of lipid mediators involved in pathogen clearance. Displays bactericidal activity against Gram-positive bacteria by directly hydrolyzing phospholipids of the bacterial membrane (By similarity).

Secretory calcium-dependent phospholipase A2 that primarily targets extracellular phospholipids. Hydrolyzes the ester bond of the fatty acyl group attached at sn-2 position of phospholipids (phospholipase A2 activity), releasing various unsaturated fatty acids including oleoate, linoleoate, arachidonate, docosahexaenoate and lysophosphatidylethanolamines in preference to lysophosphatidylcholines. In response to high-fat diet, hydrolyzes minor lipoprotein phospholipids including phosphatidylserines, phosphatidylinositols and phosphatidylglycerols, altering lipoprotein composition and fat storage in adipose tissue and liver (By similarity). May act in an autocrine and paracrine manner. Contributes to lipid remodeling of cellular membranes and generation of lipid mediators involved in pathogen clearance. Cleaves sn-2 fatty acyl chains of phosphatidylglycerols and phosphatidylethanolamines, which are major components of membrane phospholipids in bacteria. Acts as a hair follicle phospholipase A2. Selectively releases lysophosphatidylethanolamines (LPE) and various unsaturated fatty acids in skin to regulate hair follicle homeostasis (By similarity). May regulate the inflammatory response by releasing arachidonate, a precursor of prostaglandins and leukotrienes. Upon allergen exposure, may participate in allergic inflammatory response by enhancing leukotriene C4 synthesis and degranulation in mast cells (By similarity).

Secretory calcium-dependent phospholipase A2 that primarily targets extracellular phospholipids. Hydrolyzes the ester bond of the fatty acyl group attached at the sn-2 position of phospholipids (phospholipase A2 activity), the catalytic efficiency decreasing in the following order: phosphatidylglycerols > phosphatidylethanolamines > phosphatidylcholines > phosphatidylserines. May play a role in lipid mediator production in inflammatory conditions, by providing arachidonic acid to downstream cyclooxygenases and lipoxygenases (By similarity).

Secretory calcium-dependent phospholipase A2 that primarily targets extracellular phospholipids. Hydrolyzes the ester bond of the fatty acyl group attached at sn-2 position of phospholipids with preference for phosphatidylcholines and phosphatidylglycerols over phosphatidylethanolamines. Preferentially releases sn-2 omega-6 and omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acyl (PUFA) chains over saturated fatty acyls. Contributes to phospholipid remodeling of very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL), low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and high-density lipoprotein (HDL) particles. Hydrolyzes LDL phospholipids releasing unsaturated fatty acids that regulate macrophage differentiation toward foam cells. Efficiently hydrolyzes and inactivates platelet activating factor (PAF), a potent lipid mediator present in oxidized LDL. May act in an autocrine and paracrine manner. Secreted by lung epithelium, targets membrane phospholipids of infiltrating eosinophils, releasing arachidonate and boosting eicosanoid and cysteinyl leukotriene synthesis involved in airway inflammatory response (By similarity). Secreted by gut epithelium, hydrolyzes dietary and biliary phosphatidylcholines in the gastrointestinal lumen (By similarity). Plays a stem cell regulator role in colon epithelium. Within intracellular compartment, mediates Paneth-like cell differentiation and its stem cell supporting functions by inhibiting the Wnt signaling pathway in intestinal stem cell (ISC). Secreted in the intestinal lumen upon inflammation, acts in an autocrine way and promotes prostaglandin E2 synthesis that stimulates Wnt signaling pathway in ISCs and tissue regeneration (By similarity). May participate in hair follicle morphogenesis by regulating phosphatidylethanolamines metabolism at the outermost epithelial layer and facilitating melanin synthesis (By similarity). By releasing lysophosphatidylcholines (LPCs) at sperm acrosome, controls sperm cell capacitation, acrosome reaction and overall fertility (By similarity). May promote neurite outgrowth in neuron fibers involved in nociception (By similarity). Contributes to lipid remodeling of cellular membranes and generation of lipid mediators involved in pathogen clearance. Cleaves sn-2 fatty acyl chains of phosphatidylglycerols and phosphatidylethanolamines, which are major components of membrane phospholipids in bacteria. Displays bactericidal activity against Gram-positive bacteria by directly hydrolyzing phospholipids of the bacterial membrane. In pulmonary epithelium, may contribute to host defense response against adenoviral infection. Prevents adenovirus entry into host cells by hydrolyzing host cell plasma membrane, releasing C16:0 LPCs that inhibit virus-mediated membrane fusion and viral infection. Likely prevents adenoviral entry into the endosomes of host cells. May play a role in maturation and activation of innate immune cells including macrophages, group 2 innate lymphoid cells and mast cells (By similarity).

Inhibits proteasome 26S assembly and proteolytic activity by impairing the association of the 19S regulatory complex with the 20S core. In case of HIV-1 infection, recruited by viral Tat to the HIV-1 promoter, where it promotes the recruitment of 19S regulatory complex through dissociation of the proteasome 26S. This presumably promotes provirus transcription efficiency. Protects SUPT6H from proteasomal degradation.

ATPase that regulates mitochondrial ABC transporters ABCB7, ABCB8/MITOSUR and ABCB10. Regulates mitochondrial ferric concentration and heme biosynthesis and plays a role in the maintenance of mitochondrial homeostasis and cell survival.

Binds the poly(A) tail of mRNA, including that of its own transcript, and regulates processes of mRNA metabolism such as pre-mRNA splicing and mRNA stability. Its function in translational initiation regulation can either be enhanced by PAIP1 or repressed by PAIP2. Can probably bind to cytoplasmic RNA sequences other than poly(A) in vivo. Binds to N6-methyladenosine (m6A)-containing mRNAs and contributes to MYC stability by binding to m6A-containing MYC mRNAs. Involved in translationally coupled mRNA turnover. Implicated with other RNA-binding proteins in the cytoplasmic deadenylation/translational and decay interplay of the FOS mRNA mediated by the major coding-region determinant of instability (mCRD) domain. Involved in regulation of nonsense-mediated decay (NMD) of mRNAs containing premature stop codons; for the recognition of premature termination codons (PTC) and initiation of NMD a competitive interaction between UPF1 and PABPC1 with the ribosome-bound release factors is proposed. By binding to long poly(A) tails, may protect them from uridylation by ZCCHC6/ZCCHC11 and hence contribute to mRNA stability.

Involved in the 3'-end formation of mRNA precursors (pre- mRNA) by the addition of a poly(A) tail of 200-250 nt to the upstream cleavage product (By similarity). Stimulates poly(A) polymerase (PAPOLA) conferring processivity on the poly(A) tail elongation reaction and controls also the poly(A) tail length (By similarity). Increases the affinity of poly(A) polymerase for RNA (By similarity). Is also present at various stages of mRNA metabolism including nucleocytoplasmic trafficking and nonsense-mediated decay (NMD) of mRNA. Cooperates with SKIP to synergistically activate E-box-mediated transcription through MYOD1 and may regulate the expression of muscle- specific genes. Binds to poly(A) and to poly(G) with high affinity (By similarity). May protect the poly(A) tail from degradation (By similarity). Subunit of the trimeric poly(A) tail exosome targeting (PAXT) complex, a complex that directs a subset of long and polyadenylated poly(A) RNAs for exosomal degradation. The RNA exosome is fundamental for the degradation of RNA in eukaryotic nuclei. Substrate targeting is facilitated by its cofactor MTREX, which links to RNA-binding protein adapters.

Binds the poly(A) tail of mRNA. May be involved in cytoplasmic regulatory processes of mRNA metabolism. Binds poly(A) with a slightly lower affinity as compared to PABPC1

Binds the poly(A) tail of mRNA. May be involved in cytoplasmic regulatory processes of mRNA metabolism. Can probably bind to cytoplasmic RNA sequences other than poly(A) in vivo (By similarity).

Binding to its receptor activates G proteins and stimulates adenylate cyclase in pituitary cells. Promotes neuron projection development through the RAPGEF2/Rap1/B-Raf/ERK pathway. In chromaffin cells, induces long-lasting increase of intracellular calcium concentrations and neuroendocrine secretion (By similarity). Involved in the control of glucose homeostasis, induces insulin secretion by pancreatic beta cells (By similarity).

Proton-activated chloride channel that mediates import of chloride ion in response to extracellular acidic pH. Involved in acidosis-induced cell death by mediating chloride influx and subsequent cell swelling.

May play a role in regulating cell adhesion/migration complexes in migrating cells.

Regulator of autophagy that promotes autophagosome maturation by facilitating the biogenesis of phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3)P) in late steps of autophagy. Acts by antagonizing RUBCN, thereby stimulating phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase activity of the PI3K/PI3KC3 complex. Following anchorage to the autophagosomal SNARE STX17, promotes the recruitment of PI3K/PI3KC3 and HOPS complexes to the autophagosome to regulate the fusion specificity of autophagosomes with late endosomes/lysosomes. Binds phosphoinositides phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3)P), 4- phosphate (PtdIns(4)P) and 5-phosphate (PtdIns(5)P). In addition to its role in autophagy, acts as a regulator of lipid and glycogen homeostasis (By similarity). May act as a tumor suppressor (Probable).

Plays a role in the reorganization of the microtubule cytoskeleton via its interaction with MAPT; this decreases microtubule stability and inhibits MAPT-induced microtubule polymerization. Plays a role in cellular transport processes by recruiting DNM1, DNM2 and DNM3 to membranes. Plays a role in the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and in neuron morphogenesis via its interaction with COBL and WASL, and by recruiting COBL to the cell cortex. Plays a role in the regulation of neurite formation, neurite branching and the regulation of neurite length. Required for normal synaptic vesicle endocytosis; this process retrieves previously released neurotransmitters to accommodate multiple cycles of neurotransmission. Required for normal excitatory and inhibitory synaptic transmission (By similarity). Binds to membranes via its F-BAR domain and mediates membrane tubulation.

Regulates the morphogenesis and endocytosis of caveolae (By similarity). Lipid-binding protein that is able to promote the tubulation of the phosphatidic acid-containing membranes it preferentially binds. Plays a role in intracellular vesicle-mediated transport. Involved in the endocytosis of cell-surface receptors like the EGF receptor, contributing to its internalization in the absence of EGF stimulus.

Plays a role in endocytosis and regulates internalization of plasma membrane proteins. Overexpression impairs internalization of SLC2A1/GLUT1 and TRPV4 and increases the levels of SLC2A1/GLUT1 and TRPV4 at the cell membrane. Inhibits the TRPV4 calcium channel activity (By similarity).

Microtubule inner protein (MIP) part of the dynein-decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia axoneme, which is required for motile cilia beating (By similarity). Suppresses cell death induced by accumulation of unfolded Pael receptor (Pael-R, a substrate of Parkin). Facilitates the formation of inclusions consisting of Pael-R, molecular chaperones, protein degradation molecules and itself when proteasome is inhibited. May play an important role in the formation of Lewy bodies and protection of dopaminergic neurons against Parkinson disease.

This is a receptor for PACAP-27 and PACAP-38. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase. May regulate the release of adrenocorticotropin, luteinizing hormone, growth hormone, prolactin, epinephrine, and catecholamine. May play a role in spermatogenesis and sperm motility. Causes smooth muscle relaxation and secretion in the gastrointestinal tract

Coat protein that is involved in the localization of trans- Golgi network (TGN) membrane proteins that contain acidic cluster sorting motifs. Controls the endosome-to-Golgi trafficking of furin and mannose-6-phosphate receptor by connecting the acidic-cluster- containing cytoplasmic domain of these molecules with the adapter- protein complex-1 (AP-1) of endosomal clathrin-coated membrane pits. Involved in HIV-1 nef-mediated removal of MHC-I from the cell surface to the TGN.

Multifunctional sorting protein that controls the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-mitochondria communication, including the apposition of mitochondria with the ER and ER homeostasis. In addition, in response to apoptotic inducer, translocates BIB to mitochondria, which initiates a sequence of events including the formation of mitochondrial truncated BID, the release of cytochrome c, the activation of caspase-3 thereby causing cell death. May also be involved in ion channel trafficking, directing acidic cluster-containing ion channels to distinct subcellular compartments.

Plays a role in the modulation of physical activity and adiposity.

Catalyzes the citrullination/deimination of arginine residues of proteins such as histones, thereby playing a key role in histone code and regulation of stem cell maintenance. Citrullinates histone H1 at 'Arg-54' (to form H1R54ci), histone H3 at 'Arg-2', 'Arg- 8', 'Arg-17' and/or 'Arg-26' (to form H3R2ci, H3R8ci, H3R17ci, H3R26ci, respectively) and histone H4 at 'Arg-3' (to form H4R3ci). Acts as a key regulator of stem cell maintenance by mediating citrullination of histone H1: citrullination of 'Arg-54' of histone H1 (H1R54ci) results in H1 displacement from chromatin and global chromatin decondensation, thereby promoting pluripotency and stem cell maintenance. Promotes profound chromatin decondensation during the innate immune response to infection in neutrophils by mediating formation of H1R54ci. Required for the formation of neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs); NETs are mainly composed of DNA fibers and are released by neutrophils to bind pathogens during inflammation (By similarity). Citrullination of histone H3 prevents their methylation by CARM1 and HRMT1L2/PRMT1 and represses transcription. Citrullinates EP300/P300 at 'Arg- 2142', which favors its interaction with NCOA2/GRIP1.

Catalyzes the deimination of arginine residues of proteins (By similarity). May be involved in cytoskeletal reorganization in the egg and early embryo.

Glycoprotein that regulates critical steps during fertilization and also has immunomonomodulatory effects. Four glycoforms, namely glycodelin-S, -A, -F and -C have been identified in reproductive tissues that differ in glycosylation and biological activity. Glycodelin-A has contraceptive and immunosuppressive activities. Glycodelin-C stimulates binding of spermatozoa to the zona pellucida. Glycodelin-F inhibits spermatozoa-zona pellucida binding and significantly suppresses progesterone-induced acrosome reaction of spermatozoa. Glycodelin-S in seminal plasma maintains the uncapacitated state of human spermatozoa.

PCNA-binding protein that acts as a regulator of DNA repair during DNA replication. Following DNA damage, the interaction with PCNA is disrupted, facilitating the interaction between monoubiquitinated PCNA and the translesion DNA synthesis DNA polymerase eta (POLH) at stalled replisomes, facilitating the bypass of replication-fork- blocking lesions. Also acts as a regulator of centrosome number.

Component of the PAF1 complex (PAF1C) which has multiple functions during transcription by RNA polymerase II and is implicated in regulation of development and maintenance of embryonic stem cell pluripotency. PAF1C associates with RNA polymerase II through interaction with POLR2A CTD non-phosphorylated and 'Ser-2'- and 'Ser- 5'-phosphorylated forms and is involved in transcriptional elongation, acting both independently and synergistically with TCEA1 and in cooperation with the DSIF complex and HTATSF1. PAF1C is required for transcription of Hox and Wnt target genes. PAF1C is involved in hematopoiesis and stimulates transcriptional activity of KMT2A/MLL1; it promotes leukemogenesis through association with KMT2A/MLL1-rearranged oncoproteins, such as KMT2A/MLL1-MLLT3/AF9 and KMT2A/MLL1-MLLT1/ENL. PAF1C is involved in histone modifications such as ubiquitination of histone H2B and methylation on histone H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3). PAF1C recruits the RNF20/40 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex and the E2 enzyme UBE2A or UBE2B to chromatin which mediate monoubiquitination of 'Lys-120' of histone H2B (H2BK120ub1); UB2A/B-mediated H2B ubiquitination is proposed to be coupled to transcription. PAF1C is involved in mRNA 3' end formation probably through association with cleavage and poly(A) factors. In case of infection by influenza A strain H3N2, PAF1C associates with viral NS1 protein, thereby regulating gene transcription. Connects PAF1C with the RNF20/40 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex. Involved in polyadenylation of mRNA precursors. Has oncogenic activity in vivo and in vitro.

Catalyzes the hydrolyze of the acetyl group at the sn-2 position of platelet-activating factor (PAF) and its analogs, leading to their inactivation. Hydrolyzes propionyl and butyroyl moieties approximately half as effectively as PAF (By similarity). Also catalyzes transacetylation of the acetyl group from platelet-activating factor (PAF) to lysoplasmalogen and to sphingosine, producing plasmalogen analogs of PAF and N-acetylsphingosine (C2- ceramide) respectively. Has a marked selectivity for phospholipids with short acyl chains at the sn-2 position (By similarity).

Lipoprotein-associated calcium-independent phospholipase A2 involved in phospholipid catabolism during inflammatory and oxidative stress response. At the lipid- aqueous interface, hydrolyzes the ester bond of fatty acyl group attached at sn-2 position of phospholipids (phospholipase A2 activity). Specifically targets phospholipids with a short-chain fatty acyl group at sn-2 position. Can hydrolyze phospholipids with long fatty acyl chains, only if they carry oxidized functional groups. Hydrolyzes and inactivates platelet-activating factor (PAF, 1-O-alkyl- 2-acetyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine), a potent pro-inflammatory signaling lipid that acts through PTAFR on various innate immune cells. Hydrolyzes oxidatively truncated phospholipids carrying an aldehyde group at omega position, preventing their accumulation in low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles and uncontrolled pro-inflammatory effects. As part of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) particles, can hydrolyze phospholipids having long-chain fatty acyl hydroperoxides at sn-2 position and protect against potential accumulation of these oxylipins in the vascular wall. Catalyzes the release from membrane phospholipids of F2-isoprostanes, lipid biomarkers of cellular oxidative damage.

Has dual calcium-independent phospholipase and O- acyltransferase activities with a potential role in glycerophospholipid homeostasis and remodeling of acyl groups of lipophilic alcohols present in acidic cellular compartments. Catalyzes hydrolysis of the ester bond of the fatty acyl group attached at sn-1 or sn-2 position of phospholipids (phospholipase A1 or A2 activity) and transfer it to the hydroxyl group at the first carbon of lipophilic alcohols (O-acyltransferase activity). Among preferred fatty acyl donors are phosphatidylcholines, phosphatidylethanolamines, phosphatidylglycerols and phosphatidylserines. Favors sn-2 over sn-1 deacylation of unsaturated fatty acyl groups of phosphatidylcholines and phosphatidylethanolamines (By similarity). Among preferred fatty acyl acceptors are natural lipophilic alcohols including short-chain ceramide N-acetyl-sphingosine (C2 ceramide), alkylacylglycerols, monoacylglycerols, and acylethanolamides such as anandamide and oleoylethanolamide. Selectively hydrolyzes the sn-1 fatty acyl group of truncated oxidized phospholipids and may play a role in detoxification of reactive oxidized phospholipids during oxidative stress. Required for normal phospholipid degradation in alveolar macrophages with potential implications in pulmonary surfactant clearance (By similarity). At neutral pH, hydrolyzes the sn-1 fatty acyl group of the lysophosphatidylcholines.

Intrinsically disordered protein that potentiates the transcriptional activator activity of JUN. Protects cells from stress-induced apoptosis by inhibiting reactive oxygen species (ROS) production and via regulation of the MAPK signaling pathway.

Its association with the histone methyltransferase MLL2/MLL3 complex is suggesting a role in epigenetic transcriptional activation. However, in association with PAXIP1/PTIP is proposed to function at least in part independently of the MLL2/MLL3 complex. Proposed to be recruited by PAXIP1 to sites of DNA damage where the PAGR1:PAXIP1 complex is required for cell survival in response to DNA damage independently of the MLL2/MLL3 complex. However, its function in DNA damage has been questioned (By similarity). During immunoglobulin class switching in activated B-cells is involved in transcription regulation of downstream switch regions at the immunoglobulin heavy-chain (Igh) locus independently of the MLL2/MLL3 complex (By similarity). Involved in both estrogen receptor-regulated gene transcription and estrogen-stimulated G1/S cell-cycle transition. Acts as transcriptional cofactor for nuclear hormone receptors. Inhibits the induction properties of several steroid receptors such as NR3C1, AR and PPARG; the mechanism of inhibition appears to be gene-dependent.

Pancreatic hormone is synthesized in pancreatic islets of Langerhans and acts as a regulator of pancreatic and gastrointestinal functions

Catalyzes the 2-hydroxylation of not only racemic phytanoyl- CoA and the isomers of 3-methylhexadecanoyl-CoA, but also a variety of other mono-branched 3-methylacyl-CoA esters (with a chain length of at least seven carbon atoms) and straight-chain acyl-CoA esters (with a chain length longer than four carbon atoms). Does not hydroxylate long and very long straight chain acyl-CoAs or 2- methyl- and 4-methyl-branched acyl-CoAs.

Serine protease inhibitor. Inhibits TMPRSS7. Is a primary inhibitor of tissue-type plasminogen activator (PLAT) and urokinase-type plasminogen activator (PLAU). As PLAT inhibitor, it is required for fibrinolysis down-regulation and is responsible for the controlled degradation of blood clots. As PLAU inhibitor, it is involved in the regulation of cell adhesion and spreading. Acts as a regulator of cell migration, independently of its role as protease inhibitor. It is required for stimulation of keratinocyte migration during cutaneous injury repair. It is involved in cellular and replicative senescence. Plays a role in alveolar type 2 cells senescence in the lung (By similarity). Is involved in the regulation of cementogenic differentiation of periodontal ligament stem cells, and regulates odontoblast differentiation and dentin formation during odontogenesis.

Inhibits translation of capped and polyadenylated mRNAs by displacing PABPC1 from the poly(A) tail.

Inhibits urokinase-type plasminogen activator. The monocyte derived PAI-2 is distinct from the endothelial cell-derived PAI-1

Acts as a coactivator in the regulation of translation initiation of poly(A)-containing mRNAs. Its stimulatory activity on translation is mediated via its action on PABPC1. Competes with PAIP2 for binding to PABPC1. Its association with EIF4A and PABPC1 may potentiate contacts between mRNA termini. May also be involved in translationally coupled mRNA turnover. Implicated with other RNA- binding proteins in the cytoplasmic deadenylation/translational and decay interplay of the FOS mRNA mediated by the major coding-region determinant of instability (mCRD) domain.

Acts as a repressor in the regulation of translation initiation of poly(A)-containing mRNAs. Its inhibitory activity on translation is mediated via its action on PABPC1. Displaces the interaction of PABPC1 with poly(A) RNA and competes with PAIP1 for binding to PABPC1. Its association with PABPC1 results in disruption of the cytoplasmic poly(A) RNP structure organization.

May play a role in the regulation of mRNA stability. Binds to the 3'-most 134 nt of the SERPINE1/PAI1 mRNA, a region which confers cyclic nucleotide regulation of message decay. Seems to play a role in PML-nuclear bodies formation.

Protein kinase involved in intracellular signaling pathways downstream of integrins and receptor-type kinases that plays an important role in cytoskeleton dynamics, in cell adhesion, migration, proliferation, apoptosis, mitosis, and in vesicle-mediated transport processes. Can directly phosphorylate BAD and protects cells against apoptosis. Activated by interaction with CDC42 and RAC1. Functions as GTPase effector that links the Rho-related GTPases CDC42 and RAC1 to the JNK MAP kinase pathway. Phosphorylates and activates MAP2K1, and thereby mediates activation of downstream MAP kinases. Involved in the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton, actin stress fibers and of focal adhesion complexes. Phosphorylates the tubulin chaperone TBCB and thereby plays a role in the regulation of microtubule biogenesis and organization of the tubulin cytoskeleton. Plays a role in the regulation of insulin secretion in response to elevated glucose levels. Part of a ternary complex that contains PAK1, DVL1 and MUSK that is important for MUSK- dependent regulation of AChR clustering during the formation of the neuromuscular junction (NMJ). Activity is inhibited in cells undergoing apoptosis, potentially due to binding of CDC2L1 and CDC2L2. Phosphorylates MYL9/MLC2. Phosphorylates RAF1 at 'Ser-338' and 'Ser- 339' resulting in: activation of RAF1, stimulation of RAF1 translocation to mitochondria, phosphorylation of BAD by RAF1, and RAF1 binding to BCL2. Phosphorylates SNAI1 at 'Ser-246' promoting its transcriptional repressor activity by increasing its accumulation in the nucleus. In podocytes, promotes NR3C2 nuclear localization. Required for atypical chemokine receptor ACKR2-induced phosphorylation of LIMK1 and cofilin (CFL1) and for the up-regulation of ACKR2 from endosomal compartment to cell membrane, increasing its efficiency in chemokine uptake and degradation. In synapses, seems to mediate the regulation of F-actin cluster formation performed by SHANK3, maybe through CFL1 phosphorylation and inactivation. Plays a role in RUFY3- mediated facilitating gastric cancer cells migration and invasion. In response to DNA damage, phosphorylates MORC2 which activates its ATPase activity and facilitates chromatin remodeling. In neurons, plays a crucial role in regulating GABA(A) receptor synaptic stability and hence GABAergic inhibitory synaptic transmission through its role in F-actin stabilization (By similarity). In hippocampal neurons, necessary for the formation of dendritic spines and excitatory synapses; this function is dependent on kinase activity and may be exerted by the regulation of actomyosin contractility through the phosphorylation of myosin II regulatory light chain (MLC) (By similarity). Along with GIT1, positively regulates microtubule nucleation during interphase.

Serine/threonine protein kinase that plays a role in a variety of different signaling pathways including cytoskeleton regulation, cell motility, cell cycle progression, apoptosis or proliferation. Acts as downstream effector of the small GTPases CDC42 and RAC1. Activation by the binding of active CDC42 and RAC1 results in a conformational change and a subsequent autophosphorylation on several serine and/or threonine residues. Full-length PAK2 stimulates cell survival and cell growth. Phosphorylates MAPK4 and MAPK6 and activates the downstream target MAPKAPK5, a regulator of F-actin polymerization and cell migration. Phosphorylates JUN and plays an important role in EGF-induced cell proliferation. Phosphorylates many other substrates including histone H4 to promote assembly of H3.3 and H4 into nucleosomes, BAD, ribosomal protein S6, or MBP. Phosphorylates CASP7, thereby preventing its activity. Additionally, associates with ARHGEF7 and GIT1 to perform kinase-independent functions such as spindle orientation control during mitosis. On the other hand, apoptotic stimuli such as DNA damage lead to caspase-mediated cleavage of PAK2, generating PAK-2p34, an active p34 fragment that translocates to the nucleus and promotes cellular apoptosis involving the JNK signaling pathway. Caspase-activated PAK2 phosphorylates MKNK1 and reduces cellular translation.

Serine/threonine protein kinase that plays a role in a variety of different signaling pathways including cytoskeleton regulation, cell migration, or cell cycle regulation. Plays a role in dendrite spine morphogenesis as well as synapse formation and plasticity. Acts as downstream effector of the small GTPases CDC42 and RAC1. Activation by the binding of active CDC42 and RAC1 results in a conformational change and a subsequent autophosphorylation on several serine and/or threonine residues. Phosphorylates MAPK4 and MAPK6 and activates the downstream target MAPKAPK5, a regulator of F-actin polymerization and cell migration. Additionally, phosphorylates TNNI3/troponin I to modulate calcium sensitivity and relaxation kinetics of thin myofilaments. May also be involved in early neuronal development. In hippocampal neurons, necessary for the formation of dendritic spines and excitatory synapses; this function is dependent on kinase activity and may be exerted by the regulation of actomyosin contractility through the phosphorylation of myosin II regulatory light chain (MLC) (By similarity).

Serine/threonine protein kinase that plays a role in a variety of different signaling pathways including cytoskeleton regulation, cell migration, growth, proliferation or cell survival. Activation by various effectors including growth factor receptors or active CDC42 and RAC1 results in a conformational change and a subsequent autophosphorylation on several serine and/or threonine residues. Phosphorylates and inactivates the protein phosphatase SSH1, leading to increased inhibitory phosphorylation of the actin binding/depolymerizing factor cofilin. Decreased cofilin activity may lead to stabilization of actin filaments. Phosphorylates LIMK1, a kinase that also inhibits the activity of cofilin. Phosphorylates integrin beta5/ITGB5 and thus regulates cell motility. Phosphorylates ARHGEF2 and activates the downstream target RHOA that plays a role in the regulation of assembly of focal adhesions and actin stress fibers. Stimulates cell survival by phosphorylating the BCL2 antagonist of cell death BAD. Alternatively, inhibits apoptosis by preventing caspase-8 binding to death domain receptors in a kinase independent manner. Plays a role in cell-cycle progression by controlling levels of the cell- cycle regulatory protein CDKN1A and by phosphorylating RAN.

Serine/threonine protein kinase that plays a role in a variety of different signaling pathways including cytoskeleton regulation, cell migration, proliferation or cell survival. Activation by various effectors including growth factor receptors or active CDC42 and RAC1 results in a conformational change and a subsequent autophosphorylation on several serine and/or threonine residues. Phosphorylates the proto-oncogene RAF1 and stimulates its kinase activity. Promotes cell survival by phosphorylating the BCL2 antagonist of cell death BAD. Phosphorylates CTNND1, probably to regulate cytoskeletal organization and cell morphology. Keeps microtubules stable through MARK2 inhibition and destabilizes the F-actin network leading to the disappearance of stress fibers and focal adhesions.

Serine/threonine protein kinase that plays a role in the regulation of gene transcription. The kinase activity is induced by various effectors including AR or MAP2K6/MAPKK6. Phosphorylates the DNA-binding domain of androgen receptor/AR and thereby inhibits AR- mediated transcription. Inhibits also ESR1-mediated transcription. May play a role in cytoskeleton regulation by interacting with IQGAP1. May protect cells from apoptosis through phosphorylation of BAD.

PPIases accelerate the folding of proteins. It catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in oligopeptides (By similarity).

PPIases accelerate the folding of proteins. It catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in oligopeptides.

Plays a critical role in homologous recombination repair (HRR) through its ability to recruit BRCA2 and RAD51 to DNA breaks. Strongly stimulates the DNA strand- invasion activity of RAD51, stabilizes the nucleoprotein filament against a disruptive BRC3-BRC4 polypeptide and helps RAD51 to overcome the suppressive effect of replication protein A (RPA). Functionally cooperates with RAD51AP1 in promoting of D-loop formation by RAD51. Serves as the molecular scaffold in the formation of the BRCA1-PALB2-BRCA2 complex which is essential for homologous recombination. Via its WD repeats is proposed to scaffold a HR complex containing RAD51C and BRCA2 which is thought to play a role in HR-mediated DNA repair. Essential partner of BRCA2 that promotes the localization and stability of BRCA2. Also enables its recombinational repair and checkpoint functions of BRCA2. May act by promoting stable association of BRCA2 with nuclear structures, allowing BRCA2 to escape the effects of proteasome-mediated degradation. Binds DNA with high affinity for D loop, which comprises single-stranded, double-stranded and branched DNA structures. May play a role in the extension step after strand invasion at replication-dependent DNA double-strand breaks; together with BRCA2 is involved in both POLH localization at collapsed replication forks and DNA polymerization activity.

Cytoskeletal protein required for organization of normal actin cytoskeleton. Roles in establishing cell morphology, motility, cell adhesion and cell-extracellular matrix interactions in a variety of cell types. May function as a scaffolding molecule with the potential to influence both actin polymerization and the assembly of existing actin filaments into higher-order arrays. Binds to proteins that bind to either monomeric or filamentous actin. Localizes at sites where active actin remodeling takes place, such as lamellipodia and membrane ruffles. Different isoforms may have functional differences. Involved in the control of morphological and cytoskeletal changes associated with dendritic cell maturation. Involved in targeting ACTN to specific subcellular foci.

Involved in plasma membrane dynamics and cell process formation. Isoform 1 and isoform 2 are necessary for axonal and dendritic filopodia induction, for dendritic spine maturation and synapse formation in a palmitoylation-dependent manner.

Plays a role in tight junction biogenesis and in the establishment of cell polarity in epithelial cells. Also involved in adherens junction biogenesis by ensuring correct localization of the exocyst complex protein EXOC4/SEC8 which allows trafficking of adherens junction structural component CDH1 to the cell surface (By similarity). Plays a role through its interaction with CDH5 in vascular lumen formation and endothelial membrane polarity. Required during embryonic and postnatal retinal development (By similarity). Required for the maintenance of cerebellar progenitor cells in an undifferentiated proliferative state, preventing premature differentiation, and is required for cerebellar histogenesis, fissure formation, cerebellar layer organization and cortical development (By similarity). Plays a role in neuronal progenitor cell survival, potentially via promotion of mTOR signaling (By similarity). Plays a role in the radial and longitudinal extension of the myelin sheath in Schwann cells (By similarity). May modulate SC6A1/GAT1-mediated GABA uptake by stabilizing the transporter (By similarity). Plays a role in the T-cell receptor-mediated activation of NF-kappa-B. Required for localization of EZR to the apical membrane of parietal cells and may play a role in the dynamic remodeling of the apical cytoskeleton (By similarity). Required for the normal polarized localization of the vesicular marker STX4 (By similarity). Required for the correct trafficking of the myelin proteins PMP22 and MAG (By similarity). Involved in promoting phosphorylation and cytoplasmic retention of transcriptional coactivators YAP1 and WWTR1/TAZ which leads to suppression of TGFB1-dependent transcription of target genes such as CCN2/CTGF, SERPINE1/PAI1, SNAI1/SNAIL1 and SMAD7 (By similarity).

Catalytic subunit of the poly(A)-nuclease (PAN) deadenylation complex, one of two cytoplasmic mRNA deadenylases involved in general and miRNA-mediated mRNA turnover. PAN specifically shortens poly(A) tails of RNA and the activity is stimulated by poly(A)-binding protein (PABP). PAN deadenylation is followed by rapid degradation of the shortened mRNA tails by the CCR4-NOT complex. Deadenylated mRNAs are then degraded by two alternative mechanisms, namely exosome-mediated 3'-5' exonucleolytic degradation, or deadenlyation-dependent mRNA decaping and subsequent 5'-3' exonucleolytic degradation by XRN1. Also acts as an important regulator of the HIF1A-mediated hypoxic response. Required for HIF1A mRNA stability independent of poly(A) tail length regulation.

Regulatory subunit of the poly(A)-nuclease (PAN) deadenylation complex, one of two cytoplasmic mRNA deadenylases involved in general and miRNA-mediated mRNA turnover. PAN specifically shortens poly(A) tails of RNA and the activity is stimulated by poly(A)-binding protein (PABP). PAN deadenylation is followed by rapid degradation of the shortened mRNA tails by the CCR4-NOT complex. Deadenylated mRNAs are then degraded by two alternative mechanisms, namely exosome-mediated 3'-5' exonucleolytic degradation, or deadenlyation-dependent mRNA decaping and subsequent 5'-3' exonucleolytic degradation by XRN1. PAN3 acts as a positive regulator for PAN activity, recruiting the catalytic subunit PAN2 to mRNA via its interaction with RNA and PABP, and to miRNA targets via its interaction with GW182 family proteins.

[Isoform 1]: Mitochondrial isoform that catalyzes the phosphorylation of pantothenate to generate 4'-phosphopantothenate in the first and rate-determining step of coenzyme A (CoA) synthesis. Required for angiogenic activity of umbilical vein of endothelial cells (HUVEC).

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of pantothenate to generate 4'- phosphopantothenate in the first and rate-determining step of coenzyme A (CoA) synthesis.

Phosphatase which shows a preference for 4'- phosphopantetheine and its oxidatively damaged forms (sulfonate or S- sulfonate), providing strong indirect evidence that the phosphatase activity pre-empts damage in the coenzyme A (CoA) pathway. Hydrolyzing excess 4'-phosphopantetheine could constitute a directed overflow mechanism to prevent its oxidation to the S-sulfonate, sulfonate, or other forms. Hydrolyzing 4'-phosphopantetheine sulfonate or S-sulfonate would forestall their conversion to inactive forms of CoA and acyl carrier protein. May play a role in the physiological regulation of CoA intracellular levels (Probable).

Acts as a transcriptional repressor for CRX-activated photoreceptor gene regulation.

Structural component of the gap junctions and the hemichannels involved in the ATP release and nucleotide permeation. May play a role as a Ca(2+)-leak channel to regulate ER Ca(2+) homeostasis. Plays a critical role in oogenesis.

Flavoenzyme which catalyzes the oxidation of N(1)- acetylspermine to spermidine and is thus involved in the polyamine back-conversion. Can also oxidize N(1)- acetylspermidine to putrescine. Substrate specificity: N(1)- acetylspermine = N(1)-acetylspermidine > N(1),N(12)-diacylspermine >> spermine. Does not oxidize spermidine. Plays an important role in the regulation of polyamine intracellular concentration and has the potential to act as a determinant of cellular sensitivity to the antitumor polyamine analogs.

Polymerase that creates the 3' poly(A) tail of mitochondrial transcripts. Can use all four nucleotides, but has higher activity with ATP and UTP (in vitro). Plays a role in replication-dependent histone mRNA degradation. May be involved in the terminal uridylation of mature histone mRNAs before their degradation is initiated. Might be responsible for the creation of some UAA stop codons which are not encoded in mtDNA.

Polymerase that creates the 3'-poly(A) tail of mRNA's. Also required for the endoribonucleolytic cleavage reaction at some polyadenylation sites. May acquire specificity through interaction with a cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor (CPSF) at its C- terminus.

Responsible for the post-transcriptional adenylation of the 3'-terminal of mRNA precursors and several small RNAs including signal recognition particle (SRP) RNA, nuclear 7SK RNA, U2 small nuclear RNA, and ribosomal 5S RNA.

Metalloproteinase which specifically cleaves IGFBP-4 and IGFBP-5, resulting in release of bound IGF. Cleavage of IGFBP-4 is dramatically enhanced by the presence of IGF, whereas cleavage of IGFBP-5 is slightly inhibited by the presence of IGF.

Metalloproteinase which specifically cleaves insulin-like growth factor binding protein (IGFBP)-5 at the '163-Ser-|-Lys-164' bond. Shows limited proteolysis toward IGFBP-3.

Bifunctional enzyme with both ATP sulfurylase and APS kinase activity, which mediates two steps in the sulfate activation pathway. The first step is the transfer of a sulfate group to ATP to yield adenosine 5'-phosphosulfate (APS), and the second step is the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to APS yielding 3'-phosphoadenylylsulfate (PAPS: activated sulfate donor used by sulfotransferase). In mammals, PAPS is the sole source of sulfate; APS appears to be only an intermediate in the sulfate-activation pathway. Required for normal biosynthesis of sulfated L-selectin ligands in endothelial cells.

Bifunctional enzyme with both ATP sulfurylase and APS kinase activity, which mediates two steps in the sulfate activation pathway. The first step is the transfer of a sulfate group to ATP to yield adenosine 5'-phosphosulfate (APS), and the second step is the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to APS yielding 3'- phosphoadenylylsulfate/PAPS, the activated sulfate donor used by sulfotransferases. In mammals, PAPS is the sole source of sulfate while APS appears to only be an intermediate in the sulfate-activation pathway. Plays indirectly an important role in skeletogenesis during postnatal growth.

Receptor for ADIPOQ, an essential hormone secreted by adipocytes that regulates glucose and lipid metabolism. Required for normal glucose and fat homeostasis and for maintaining a normal body weight. ADIPOQ-binding activates a signaling cascade that leads to increased AMPK activity, and ultimately to increased fatty acid oxidation, increased glucose uptake and decreased gluconeogenesis. Has high affinity for globular adiponectin and low affinity for full-length adiponectin (By similarity).

Receptor for ADIPOQ, an essential hormone secreted by adipocytes that regulates glucose and lipid metabolism. Required for normal body fat and glucose homeostasis. ADIPOQ-binding activates a signaling cascade that leads to increased PPARA activity, and ultimately to increased fatty acid oxidation and glucose uptake. Has intermediate affinity for globular and full-length adiponectin. Required for normal revascularization after chronic ischemia caused by severing of blood vessels (By similarity).

Functions as a spatial regulator of RAF1 kinase by sequestrating it to the Golgi.

Plasma membrane progesterone (P4) receptor coupled to G proteins. Seems to act through a G(i) mediated pathway. May be involved in oocyte maturation.

Plasma membrane progesterone (P4) receptor coupled to G proteins. Seems to act through a G(s) mediated pathway. Involved in neurosteroid inhibition of apoptosis. May be involved in regulating rapid P4 signaling in the nervous system. Also binds dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), pregnanolone, pregnenolone and allopregnanolone.

Plasma membrane progesterone (P4) receptor coupled to G proteins. Seems to act through a G(i) mediated pathway. May be involved in oocyte maturation. Involved in neurosteroid inhibition of apoptosis. Also binds dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), pregnanolone, pregnenolone and allopregnanolone.

Plasma membrane progesterone (P4) receptor coupled to G proteins. Seems to act through a G(i) mediated pathway. May be involved in oocyte maturation (By similarity). Also binds dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), pregnanolone, pregnenolone and allopregnanolone.

Plasma membrane progesterone (P4) receptor coupled to G proteins. Seems to act through a G(s) mediated pathway. May be involved in regulating rapid P4 signaling in the nervous system. Also binds dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), pregnanolone, pregnenolone and allopregnanolone.

Involved in the dynamics of lysosomal membranes associated with microglial activation following brain lesion.

ADP-ribosyltransferase that mediates mono-ADP-ribosylation of glutamate and aspartate residues on target proteins. In contrast to PARP1 and PARP2, it is not able to mediate poly-ADP-ribosylation. Catalyzes mono-ADP-ribosylation of GSK3B, leading to negatively regulate GSK3B kinase activity. Involved in translesion DNA synthesis in response to DNA damage via its interaction with PCNA.

Mono-ADP-ribosyltransferase that mediates mono-ADP- ribosylation of target proteins. Plays a role in nuclear envelope stability and nuclear remodeling during spermiogenesis (By similarity).

Mono-ADP-ribosyltransferase that mediates mono-ADP- ribosylation of target proteins.

ADP-ribosyltransferase that mediates mono-ADP-ribosylation of glutamate residues on target proteins. In contrast to PARP1 and PARP2, it is not able to mediate poly-ADP-ribosylation. Has been shown to catalyze the mono-ADP-ribosylation of STAT1 at 'Glu-657' and 'Glu-705', thus decreasing STAT1 phosphorylation which negatively regulates pro-inflammatory cytokine production in macrophages in response to IFNG stimulation. However, the role of ADP-ribosylation in the prevention of STAT1 phosphorylation has been called into question and it has been suggested that the inhibition of phosphorylation may be the result of sumoylation of STAT1 'Lys-703'. Mono-ADP- ribosylates STAT6; enhancing STAT6-dependent transcription. In macrophages, positively regulates MRC1 expression in response to IL4 stimulation by promoting STAT6 phosphorylation. Mono-ADP-ribosylates PARP9.

Mono-ADP-ribosyltransferase that mediates mono-ADP- ribosylation of target proteins. Acts as a negative regulator of transcription.

Intracellular mono-ADP-ribosyltransferase that plays a role in different processes, such as protein translation and unfolded protein response (UPR), through the mono-ADP-ribosylation of proteins involved in those processes. Acts as an inhibitor of protein translation by catalyzing mono-ADP-ribosylation of ribosomal subunits, such as RPL14 and RPS6, thereby inhibiting polysome assembly and mRNA loading. Mono-ADP-ribosylation of ribosomal subunits is promoted by NMNAT2. Involved in the unfolded protein response (UPR) by ADP-ribosylating and activating EIF2AK3 and ERN1, two important UPR effectors. May also mediate mono-ADP-ribosylation of karyopherin KPNB1 a nuclear import factor. May not modify proteins on arginine or cysteine residues compared to other mono-ADP-ribosyltransferases.

High affinity receptor for activated thrombin coupled to G proteins that stimulate phosphoinositide hydrolysis. May play a role in platelets activation and in vascular development.

Receptor for trypsin and trypsin-like enzymes coupled to G proteins. Its function is mediated through the activation of several signaling pathways including phospholipase C (PLC), intracellular calcium, mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK), I-kappaB kinase/NF-kappaB and Rho. Can also be transactivated by cleaved F2R/PAR1. Involved in modulation of inflammatory responses and regulation of innate and adaptive immunity, and acts as a sensor for proteolytic enzymes generated during infection. Generally is promoting inflammation. Can signal synergistically with TLR4 and probably TLR2 in inflammatory responses and modulates TLR3 signaling. Has a protective role in establishing the endothelial barrier; the activity involves coagulation factor X. Regulates endothelial cell barrier integrity during neutrophil extravasation, probably following proteolytic cleavage by PRTN3. Proposed to have a bronchoprotective role in airway epithelium, but also shown to compromise the airway epithelial barrier by interrupting E-cadherin adhesion. Involved in the regulation of vascular tone; activation results in hypotension presumably mediated by vasodilation. Associates with a subset of G proteins alpha subunits such as GNAQ, GNA11, GNA14, GNA12 and GNA13, but probably not with G(o)-alpha, G(i) subunit alpha-1 and G(i) subunit alpha-2. However, according to PubMed:21627585 can signal through G(i) subunit alpha. Believed to be a class B receptor which internalizes as a complex with arrestin and traffic with it to endosomal vesicles, presumably as desensitized receptor, for extended periods of time. Mediates inhibition of TNF-alpha stimulated JNK phosphorylation via coupling to GNAQ and GNA11; the function involves dissociation of RIPK1 and TRADD from TNFR1. Mediates phosphorylation of nuclear factor NF- kappa-B RELA subunit at 'Ser-536'; the function involves IKBKB and is predominantly independent of G proteins. Involved in cellular migration. Involved in cytoskeletal rearrangement and chemotaxis through beta-arrestin-promoted scaffolds; the function is independent of GNAQ and GNA11 and involves promotion of cofilin dephosphorylation and actin filament severing. Induces redistribution of COPS5 from the plasma membrane to the cytosol and activation of the JNK cascade is mediated by COPS5. Involved in the recruitment of leukocytes to the sites of inflammation and is the major PAR receptor capable of modulating eosinophil function such as pro-inflammatory cytokine secretion, superoxide production and degranulation. During inflammation promotes dendritic cell maturation, trafficking to the lymph nodes and subsequent T-cell activation. Involved in antimicrobial response of innate immune cells; activation enhances phagocytosis of Gram-positive and killing of Gram-negative bacteria. Acts synergistically with interferon-gamma in enhancing antiviral responses. Implicated in a number of acute and chronic inflammatory diseases such as of the joints, lungs, brain, gastrointestinal tract, periodontium, skin, and vascular systems, and in autoimmune disorders.

Putative adapter protein involved in asymmetrical cell division and cell polarization processes. May play a role in the formation of epithelial tight junctions

Receptor for activated thrombin coupled to G proteins that stimulate phosphoinositide hydrolysis.

Receptor for activated thrombin or trypsin coupled to G proteins that stimulate phosphoinositide hydrolysis. May play a role in platelets activation.

Adapter protein involved in asymmetrical cell division and cell polarization processes. Probably involved in the formation of epithelial tight junctions. Association with PARD3 may prevent the interaction of PARD3 with F11R/JAM1, thereby preventing tight junction assembly. The PARD6-PARD3 complex links GTP-bound Rho small GTPases to atypical protein kinase C proteins. Regulates centrosome organization and function. Essential for the centrosomal recruitment of key proteins that control centrosomal microtubule organization.

Adapter protein involved in asymmetrical cell division and cell polarization processes. Probably involved in formation of epithelial tight junctions. Association with PARD3 may prevent the interaction of PARD3 with F11R/JAM1, thereby preventing tight junction assembly. The PARD6-PARD3 complex links GTP-bound Rho small GTPases to atypical protein kinase C proteins

Adapter protein involved in asymmetrical cell division and cell polarization processes. May play a role in the formation of epithelial tight junctions. The PARD6-PARD3 complex links GTP-bound Rho small GTPases to atypical protein kinase C proteins (By similarity).

Adapter protein involved in asymmetrical cell division and cell polarization processes. Seems to play a central role in the formation of epithelial tight junctions. Targets the phosphatase PTEN to cell junctions (By similarity). Involved in Schwann cell peripheral myelination (By similarity). Association with PARD6B may prevent the interaction of PARD3 with F11R/JAM1, thereby preventing tight junction assembly (By similarity). The PARD6-PARD3 complex links GTP-bound Rho small GTPases to atypical protein kinase C proteins. Required for establishment of neuronal polarity and normal axon formation in cultured hippocampal neurons.

Poly(ADP-ribose) glycohydrolase that degrades poly(ADP- ribose) by hydrolyzing the ribose-ribose bonds present in poly(ADP- ribose). PARG acts both as an endo- and exoglycosidase, releasing poly(ADP- ribose) of different length as well as ADP-ribose monomers. It is however unable to cleave the ester bond between the terminal ADP-ribose and ADP-ribosylated residues, leaving proteins that are mono-ADP-ribosylated. Poly(ADP-ribose) is synthesized after DNA damage is only present transiently and is rapidly degraded by PARG. Required to prevent detrimental accumulation of poly(ADP-ribose) upon prolonged replicative stress, while it is not required for recovery from transient replicative stress. Responsible for the prevalence of mono-ADP-ribosylated proteins in cells, thanks to its ability to degrade poly(ADP-ribose) without cleaving the terminal protein-ribose bond. Required for retinoid acid- dependent gene transactivation, probably by removing poly(ADP-ribose) from histone demethylase KDM4D, allowing chromatin derepression at RAR- dependent gene promoters. Involved in the synthesis of ATP in the nucleus, together with PARP1, NMNAT1 and NUDT5. Nuclear ATP generation is required for extensive chromatin remodeling events that are energy-consuming.

Required to suppress inappropriate homologous recombination, thereby playing a central role DNA repair and in the maintenance of genomic stability. Antagonizes homologous recombination by interfering with the formation of the RAD51-DNA homologous recombination structure. Binds single-strand DNA and poly(A) homopolymers. Positively regulate the poly(ADP-ribosyl)ation activity of PARP1; however such function may be indirect.

Multifunctional protein with controversial molecular function which plays an important role in cell protection against oxidative stress and cell death acting as oxidative stress sensor and redox- sensitive chaperone and protease. It is involved in neuroprotective mechanisms like the stabilization of NFE2L2 and PINK1 proteins, male fertility as a positive regulator of androgen signaling pathway as well as cell growth and transformation through, for instance, the modulation of NF-kappa-B signaling pathway. Has been described as a protein and nucleotide deglycase that catalyzes the deglycation of the Maillard adducts formed between amino groups of proteins or nucleotides and reactive carbonyl groups of glyoxals. But this function is rebuted by other works. As a protein deglycase, repairs methylglyoxal- and glyoxal-glycated proteins, and releases repaired proteins and lactate or glycolate, respectively. Deglycates cysteine, arginine and lysine residues in proteins, and thus reactivates these proteins by reversing glycation by glyoxals. Acts on early glycation intermediates (hemithioacetals and aminocarbinols), preventing the formation of advanced glycation endproducts (AGE) that cause irreversible damage. Also functions as a nucleotide deglycase able to repair glycated guanine in the free nucleotide pool (GTP, GDP, GMP, dGTP) and in DNA and RNA. Is thus involved in a major nucleotide repair system named guanine glycation repair (GG repair), dedicated to reversing methylglyoxal and glyoxal damage via nucleotide sanitization and direct nucleic acid repair. Protects histones from adduction by methylglyoxal, controls the levels of methylglyoxal- derived argininine modifications on chromatin. Able to remove the glycations and restore histone 3, histone glycation disrupts both local and global chromatin architecture by altering histone-DNA interactions as well as histone acetylation and ubiquitination levels. Displays a very low glyoxalase activity that may reflect its deglycase activity. Eliminates hydrogen peroxide and protects cells against hydrogen peroxide-induced cell death. Required for correct mitochondrial morphology and function as well as for autophagy of dysfunctional mitochondria. Plays a role in regulating expression or stability of the mitochondrial uncoupling proteins SLC25A14 and SLC25A27 in dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra pars compacta and attenuates the oxidative stress induced by calcium entry into the neurons via L-type channels during pacemaking. Regulates astrocyte inflammatory responses, may modulate lipid rafts-dependent endocytosis in astrocytes and neuronal cells. In pancreatic islets, involved in the maintenance of mitochondrial reactive oxygen species (ROS) levels and glucose homeostasis in an age- and diet dependent manner. Protects pancreatic beta cells from cell death induced by inflammatory and cytotoxic setting (By similarity). Binds to a number of mRNAs containing multiple copies of GG or CC motifs and partially inhibits their translation but dissociates following oxidative stress. Metal-binding protein able to bind copper as well as toxic mercury ions, enhances the cell protection mechanism against induced metal toxicity. In macrophages, interacts with the NADPH oxidase subunit NCF1 to direct NADPH oxidase-dependent ROS production, and protects against sepsis (By similarity).

Required for the control of apoptosis during postnatal growth. Essential for proteolytic processing of an antiapoptotic form of OPA1 which prevents the release of mitochondrial cytochrome c in response to intrinsic apoptotic signals (By similarity). Required for the maturation of PINK1 into its 52kDa mature form after its cleavage by mitochondrial-processing peptidase (MPP). Promotes changes in mitochondria morphology regulated by phosphorylation of P- beta domain. Required for processing of CLPB into a form with higher protein disaggregase activity by removing an autoinhibitory N-terminal peptide.

May regulate TLP1 expression and telomerase activity, thus enabling certain prostatic cells to resist apoptosis.

3'-exoribonuclease that has a preference for poly(A) tails of mRNAs, thereby efficiently degrading poly(A) tails. Exonucleolytic degradation of the poly(A) tail is often the first step in the decay of eukaryotic mRNAs and is also used to silence certain maternal mRNAs translationally during oocyte maturation and early embryonic development. Interacts with both the 3'-end poly(A) tail and the 5'-end cap structure during degradation, the interaction with the cap structure being required for an efficient degradation of poly(A) tails. Involved in nonsense-mediated mRNA decay, a critical process of selective degradation of mRNAs that contain premature stop codons. Also involved in degradation of inherently unstable mRNAs that contain AU- rich elements (AREs) in their 3'-UTR, possibly via its interaction with KHSRP. Probably mediates the removal of poly(A) tails of AREs mRNAs, which constitutes the first step of destabilization. Also able to recognize and trim poly(A) tails of microRNAs such as MIR21 and H/ACA box snoRNAs (small nucleolar RNAs) leading to microRNAs degradation or snoRNA increased stability.

Poly-ADP-ribosyltransferase that mediates poly-ADP- ribosylation of proteins and plays a key role in DNA repair. Mediates glutamate, aspartate, serine, histidine or tyrosine ADP-ribosylation of proteins: the ADP-D-ribosyl group of NAD(+) is transferred to the acceptor carboxyl group of target residues and further ADP-ribosyl groups are transferred to the 2'-position of the terminal adenosine moiety, building up a polymer with an average chain length of 20-30 units. Serine ADP-ribosylation of proteins constitutes the primary form of ADP-ribosylation of proteins in response to DNA damage. Specificity for the different amino acids is conferred by interacting factors, such as HPF1 and NMNAT1. Following interaction with HPF1, catalyzes serine ADP-ribosylation of target proteins; HPF1 confers serine specificity by completing the PARP1 active site. Also catalyzes tyrosine ADP-ribosylation of target proteins following interaction with HPF1. Following interaction with NMNAT1, catalyzes glutamate and aspartate ADP- ribosylation of target proteins; NMNAT1 confers glutamate and aspartate specificity (By similarity). PARP1 initiates the repair of DNA breaks: recognizes and binds DNA breaks within chromatin and recruits HPF1, licensing serine ADP-ribosylation of target proteins, such as histones (H2BS6ADPr and H3S10ADPr), thereby promoting decompaction of chromatin and the recruitment of repair factors leading to the reparation of DNA strand breaks. HPF1 initiates serine ADP-ribosylation but restricts the polymerase activity of PARP1 in order to limit the length of poly- ADP-ribose chains. In addition to base excision repair (BER) pathway, also involved in double-strand breaks (DSBs) repair: together with TIMELESS, accumulates at DNA damage sites and promotes homologous recombination repair by mediating poly-ADP-ribosylation. Mediates the poly-ADP-ribosylation of a number of proteins, including itself, APLF, CHFR and NFAT5. In addition to proteins, also able to ADP-ribosylate DNA: catalyzes ADP-ribosylation of DNA strand break termini containing terminal phosphates and a 2'-OH group in single- and double-stranded DNA, respectively. Required for PARP9 and DTX3L recruitment to DNA damage sites. PARP1-dependent PARP9-DTX3L-mediated ubiquitination promotes the rapid and specific recruitment of 53BP1/TP53BP1, UIMC1/RAP80, and BRCA1 to DNA damage sites. PARP1-mediated DNA repair in neurons plays a role in sleep: senses DNA damage in neurons and promotes sleep, facilitating efficient DNA repair (By similarity). In addition to DNA repair, also involved in other processes, such as transcription regulation, programmed cell death, membrane repair, adipogenesis and innate immunity. Acts as a repressor of transcription: binds to nucleosomes and modulates chromatin structure in a manner similar to histone H1, thereby altering RNA polymerase II. Acts both as a positive and negative regulator of transcription elongation, depending on the context. Acts as a positive regulator of transcription elongation by mediating poly-ADP- ribosylation of NELFE, preventing RNA-binding activity of NELFE and relieving transcription pausing. Acts as a negative regulator of transcription elongation in response to DNA damage by catalyzing poly-ADP-ribosylation of CCNT1, disrupting the phase separation activity of CCNT1 and subsequent activation of CDK9. Involved in replication fork progression following interaction with CARM1: mediates poly-ADP-ribosylation at replication forks, slowing fork progression. Poly-ADP-ribose chains generated by PARP1 also play a role in poly-ADP-ribose-dependent cell death, a process named parthanatos (By similarity). Also acts as a negative regulator of the cGAS-STING pathway. Acts by mediating poly-ADP- ribosylation of CGAS: PARP1 translocates into the cytosol following phosphorylation by PRKDC and catalyzes poly-ADP-ribosylation and inactivation of CGAS. Acts as a negative regulator of adipogenesis: catalyzes poly-ADP-ribosylation of histone H2B on 'Glu- 35' (H2BE35ADPr) following interaction with NMNAT1, inhibiting phosphorylation of H2B at 'Ser-36' (H2BS36ph), thereby blocking expression of pro-adipogenetic genes (By similarity). Involved in the synthesis of ATP in the nucleus, together with NMNAT1, PARG and NUDT5. Nuclear ATP generation is required for extensive chromatin remodeling events that are energy-consuming.

Poly-ADP-ribosyltransferase that mediates poly-ADP- ribosylation of proteins and plays a key role in DNA repair. Mediates glutamate, aspartate or serine ADP- ribosylation of proteins: the ADP-D-ribosyl group of NAD(+) is transferred to the acceptor carboxyl group of target residues and further ADP-ribosyl groups are transferred to the 2'-position of the terminal adenosine moiety, building up a polymer with an average chain length of 20-30 units. Serine ADP-ribosylation of proteins constitutes the primary form of ADP-ribosylation of proteins in response to DNA damage. Mediates glutamate and aspartate ADP-ribosylation of target proteins in absence of HPF1. Following interaction with HPF1, catalyzes serine ADP-ribosylation of target proteins; HPF1 conferring serine specificity by completing the PARP2 active site. PARP2 initiates the repair of double-strand DNA breaks: recognizes and binds DNA breaks within chromatin and recruits HPF1, licensing serine ADP-ribosylation of target proteins, such as histones, thereby promoting decompaction of chromatin and the recruitment of repair factors leading to the reparation of DNA strand breaks. HPF1 initiates serine ADP-ribosylation but restricts the polymerase activity of PARP2 in order to limit the length of poly- ADP-ribose chains. Specifically mediates formation of branched poly-ADP-ribosylation. Branched poly-ADP-ribose chains are specifically recognized by some factors, such as APLF. In addition to proteins, also able to ADP-ribosylate DNA: preferentially acts on 5'-terminal phosphates at DNA strand breaks termini in nicked duplex.

Mono-ADP-ribosyltransferase that mediates mono-ADP- ribosylation of target proteins and plays a key role in the response to DNA damage. Mediates mono-ADP-ribosylation of glutamate, aspartate or lysine residues on target proteins. In contrast to PARP1 and PARP2, it is not able to mediate poly-ADP-ribosylation. Involved in DNA repair by mediating mono-ADP-ribosylation of a limited number of acceptor proteins involved in chromatin architecture and in DNA metabolism, such as histone H2B, XRCC5 and XRCC6. ADP-ribosylation follows DNA damage and appears as an obligatory step in a detection/signaling pathway leading to the reparation of DNA strand breaks. Involved in single-strand break repair by catalyzing mono-ADP-ribosylation of histone H2B on 'Glu-2' (H2BE2ADPr) of nucleosomes containing nicked DNA. Cooperates with the XRCC5-XRCC6 (Ku80-Ku70) heterodimer to limit end-resection thereby promoting accurate NHEJ. Suppresses G-quadruplex (G4) structures in response to DNA damage. Associates with a number of DNA repair factors and is involved in the response to exogenous and endogenous DNA strand breaks. Together with APLF, promotes the retention of the LIG4-XRCC4 complex on chromatin and accelerate DNA ligation during non-homologous end-joining (NHEJ). May link the DNA damage surveillance network to the mitotic fidelity checkpoint. Acts as a negative regulator of immunoglobulin class switch recombination, probably by controlling the level of AICDA /AID on the chromatin (By similarity). In addition to proteins, also able to ADP-ribosylate DNA: mediates DNA mono-ADP- ribosylation of DNA strand break termini via covalent addition of a single ADP-ribose moiety to a 5'- or 3'-terminal phosphate residues in DNA containing multiple strand breaks.

ADP-ribosyltransferase which, in association with E3 ligase DTX3L, plays a role in DNA damage repair and in immune responses including interferon-mediated antiviral defenses. Within the complex, enhances DTX3L E3 ligase activity which is further enhanced by PARP9 binding to poly(ADP-ribose). In association with DTX3L and in presence of E1 and E2 enzymes, mediates NAD(+)-dependent mono-ADP-ribosylation of ubiquitin which prevents ubiquitin conjugation to substrates such as histones. During DNA repair, PARP1 recruits PARP9/BAL1-DTX3L complex to DNA damage sites via PARP9 binding to ribosylated PARP1. Subsequent PARP1- dependent PARP9/BAL1-DTX3L-mediated ubiquitination promotes the rapid and specific recruitment of 53BP1/TP53BP1, UIMC1/RAP80, and BRCA1 to DNA damage sites. In response to DNA damage, PARP9-DTX3L complex is required for efficient non-homologous end joining (NHEJ); the complex function is negatively modulated by PARP9 activity. Dispensable for B-cell receptor (BCR) assembly through V(D)J recombination and class switch recombination (CSR) (By similarity). In macrophages, positively regulates pro- inflammatory cytokines production in response to IFNG stimulation by suppressing PARP14-mediated STAT1 ADP-ribosylation and thus promoting STAT1 phosphorylation. Also suppresses PARP14- mediated STAT6 ADP-ribosylation.

ADP-ribosyltransferase that mediates mono-ADP-ribosylation of glutamate, aspartate and cysteine residues on target proteins. Acts as a negative regulator of AHR by mediating mono-ADP-ribosylation of AHR, leading to inhibit transcription activator activity of AHR.

Plays a role in sarcomere organization and in smooth muscle cell contraction. Required for normal development of the embryonic cardiovascular system, and for normal septation of the heart outflow tract. Plays a role in sprouting angiogenesis and is required for normal adhesion of vascular smooth muscle cells to endothelial cells during blood vessel development (By similarity). Plays a role in the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton, formation of lamellipodia and ciliogenesis. Plays a role in the establishment of cell polarity, cell adhesion, cell spreading, and directed cell migration.

Adapter protein that plays a role in integrin signaling via ILK and in activation of the GTPases CDC42 and RAC1 by guanine exchange factors, such as ARHGEF6. Is involved in the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and formation of lamellipodia. Plays a role in cell adhesion, cell spreading, establishment or maintenance of cell polarity, and cell migration.

Probably plays a role in the regulation of cell adhesion and cytoskeleton organization.

Functions as a suppressor of the biological clock that drives the daily circadian rhythms of cells throughout the body. Acts as a nuclear repressor of the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer-mediated transcriptional activation of the core clock components. Inhibits circadian clock function in cancer cells, when overexpressed.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in energy homeostasis and protein translation. Phosphorylates EEF1A1, GYS1, PDX1 and RPS6. Probably plays a role under changing environmental conditions (oxygen, glucose, nutrition), rather than under standard conditions. Acts as a sensor involved in energy homeostasis: regulates glycogen synthase synthesis by mediating phosphorylation of GYS1, leading to GYS1 inactivation. May be involved in glucose-stimulated insulin production in pancreas and regulation of glucagon secretion by glucose in alpha cells; however such data require additional evidences. May play a role in regulation of protein translation by phosphorylating EEF1A1, leading to increase translation efficiency. May also participate in respiratory regulation.

May modulate the function of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. May enhance sperm motility.

RNA-binding protein involved in deadenylation-dependent decapping of mRNAs, leading to the degradation of mRNAs. Acts as a scaffold protein that connects deadenylation and decapping machinery. Required for cytoplasmic mRNA processing body (P- body) assembly.

Transcriptional regulator that plays a role in many biological processes such as embryogenesis, senescence, T-cell development or neurogenesis. Interacts with the TP53 protein to control genes that are important in proliferation and in the DNA-damage response. Mechanistically, the interaction inhibits the DNA binding and transcriptional activity of TP53/p53. Part of the transcriptional network modulating regulatory T-cell development and controls the generation of the regulatory T-cell pool under homeostatic conditions.

Pro-apoptotic protein capable of selectively inducing apoptosis in cancer cells, sensitizing the cells to diverse apoptotic stimuli and causing regression of tumors in animal models. Induces apoptosis in certain cancer cells by activation of the Fas prodeath pathway and coparallel inhibition of NF-kappa-B transcriptional activity. Inhibits the transcriptional activation and augments the transcriptional repression mediated by WT1. Down-regulates the anti- apoptotic protein BCL2 via its interaction with WT1. Seems also to be a transcriptional repressor by itself. May be directly involved in regulating the amyloid precursor protein (APP) cleavage activity of BACE1.

Transcription factor that may have a role in kidney cell differentiation. Has a critical role in the development of the urogenital tract, the eyes, and the CNS.

Transcription factor that may regulate cell proliferation, migration and apoptosis. Involved in neural development and myogenesis. Transcriptional activator of MITF, acting synergistically with SOX10.

Transcription factor that plays an essential role in commitment of lymphoid progenitors to the B-lymphocyte lineage. Fulfills a dual role by repressing B-lineage inappropriate genes and simultaneously activating B-lineage- specific genes. In turn, regulates cell adhesion and migration, induces V(H)-to-D(H)J(H) recombination, facilitates pre-B-cell receptor signaling and promotes development to the mature B-cell stage. Repression of the cohesin- release factor WAPL causes global changes of the chromosomal architecture in pro-B cells to facilitate the generation of a diverse antibody repertoire.

Transcription factor with important functions in the development of the eye, nose, central nervous system and pancreas. Required for the differentiation of pancreatic islet alpha cells (By similarity). Competes with PAX4 in binding to a common element in the glucagon, insulin and somatostatin promoters. Regulates specification of the ventral neuron subtypes by establishing the correct progenitor domains (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional repressor of NFATC1- mediated gene expression (By similarity).

Transcription factor that is involved in the regulation of muscle stem cells proliferation, playing a role in myogenesis and muscle regeneration.

Transcription factor for the thyroid-specific expression of the genes exclusively expressed in the thyroid cell type, maintaining the functional differentiation of such cells

Transcription factor required for normal development of thymus, parathyroid glands, ultimobranchial bodies, teeth, skeletal elements of skull and larynx as well as distal limbs.

Adapter protein linking the transcription factors PAX3 and PAX7 to the histone methylation machinery and involved in myogenesis. Associates with a histone methyltransferase complex that specifically mediates dimethylation and trimethylation of 'Lys-4' of histone H3. Mediates the recruitment of that complex to the transcription factors PAX3 and PAX7 on chromatin to regulate the expression of genes involved in muscle progenitor cells proliferation including ID3 and CDC20 (By similarity).

Involved in DNA damage response and in transcriptional regulation through histone methyltransferase (HMT) complexes. Plays a role in early development. In DNA damage response is required for cell survival after ionizing radiation. In vitro shown to be involved in the homologous recombination mechanism for the repair of double-strand breaks (DSBs). Its localization to DNA damage foci requires RNF8 and UBE2N. Recruits TP53BP1 to DNA damage foci and, at least in particular repair processes, effective DNA damage response appears to require the association with TP53BP1 phosphorylated by ATM at 'Ser-25'. Together with TP53BP1 regulates ATM association. Proposed to recruit PAGR1 to sites of DNA damage and the PAGR1:PAXIP1 complex is required for cell survival in response to DNA damage; the function is probably independent of MLL-containing histone methyltransferase (HMT) complexes. However, this function has been questioned (By similarity). Promotes ubiquitination of PCNA following UV irradiation and may regulate recruitment of polymerase eta and RAD51 to chromatin after DNA damage. Proposed to be involved in transcriptional regulation by linking MLL-containing histone methyltransferase (HMT) complexes to gene promoters by interacting with promoter-bound transcription factors such as PAX2. Associates with gene promoters that are known to be regulated by KMT2D/MLL2. During immunoglobulin class switching in activated B-cells is involved in trimethylation of histone H3 at 'Lys- 4' and in transcription initiation of downstream switch regions at the immunoglobulin heavy-chain (Igh) locus; this function appears to involve the recruitment of MLL-containing HMT complexes. Conflictingly, its function in transcriptional regulation during immunoglobulin class switching is reported to be independent of the MLL2/MLL3 complex (By similarity).

Non-essential DNA repair protein involved in DNA non- homologous end joining (NHEJ); participates in double-strand break (DSB) repair and V(D)J recombination. May act as a scaffold required for accumulation of the Ku heterodimer, composed of XRCC5/Ku80 and XRCC6/Ku70, at double-strand break sites and promote the assembly and/or stability of the NHEJ machinery. Involved in NHEJ by promoting the ligation of blunt-ended DNA ends. Together with NHEJ1/XLF, collaborates with DNA polymerase lambda (POLL) to promote joining of non-cohesive DNA ends. Constitutes a non-essential component of classical NHEJ: has a complementary but distinct function with NHEJ1/XLF in DNA repair. Able to restrict infection by herpesvirus 1 (HSV-1) via an unknown mechanism.

Regulator of pre-B-cell leukemia transcription factors (BPXs) function. Inhibits the binding of PBX1-HOX complex to DNA and blocks the transcriptional activity of E2A-PBX1. Tethers estrogen receptor- alpha (ESR1) to microtubules and allows them to influence estrogen receptors-alpha signaling.

Acts as an inhibitor of serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) activity. Potentiates ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation of serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A catalytic subunit alpha (PPP2CA). Inhibits PP2A-mediated dephosphorylation of WEE1, promoting ubiquitin- mediated proteolysis of WEE1, thereby releasing G2/M checkpoint.

Transcription factor which binds the DNA sequence 5'- TGATTGAT-3' as part of a heterodimer with HOX proteins such as HOXA1, HOXA5, HOXB7 and HOXB8. Binds to the DNA sequence 5'- TGATTGAC-3' in complex with a nuclear factor which is not a class I HOX protein. Has also been shown to bind the DNA sequence 5'-ATCAATCAA-3' cooperatively with HOXA5, HOXB7, HOXB8, HOXC8 and HOXD4. Acts as a transcriptional activator of PF4 in complex with MEIS1. Also activates transcription of SOX3 in complex with MEIS1 by binding to the 5'- TGATTGAC-3' consensus sequence (By similarity). In natural killer cells, binds to the NFIL3 promoter and acts as a transcriptional activator of NFIL3, promoting natural killer cell development (By similarity). Plays a role in the cAMP-dependent regulation of CYP17A1 gene expression via its cAMP-regulatory sequence (CRS1) (By similarity). Probably in complex with MEIS2, involved in transcriptional regulation by KLF4. Acts as a transcriptional activator of NKX2-5 and a transcriptional repressor of CDKN2B (By similarity). Together with NKX2-5, required for spleen development through a mechanism that involves CDKN2B repression (By similarity).

Transcriptional activator that binds the sequence 5'- ATCAATCAA-3'. Activates transcription of PF4 in complex with MEIS1.

Transcriptional activator that binds the sequence 5'- ATCAATCAA-3'

Plays an essential role for normal photoreceptor cell maintenance and vision.

Exhibits acyltransferase activity. Exhibits acetyltransferase activity (By similarity). Activity is calcium-independent (By similarity). Catalyzes the conversion of lysophosphatidylcholine (1-acyl-sn-glycero-3- phosphocholine or LPC) into phosphatidylcholine (1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero- 3-phosphocholine or PC). Catalyzes the conversion 1-acyl-sn-glycerol-3-phosphate (lysophosphatidic acid or LPA) into 1,2-diacyl-sn-glycerol-3-phosphate (phosphatidic acid or PA) by incorporating an acyl moiety at the sn-2 position of the glycerol backbone (By similarity). Displays a clear preference for saturated fatty acyl-CoAs, and 1-myristoyl or 1-palmitoyl LPC as acyl donors and acceptors, respectively (By similarity). Involved in platelet- activating factor (PAF) biosynthesis by catalyzing the conversion of the PAF precursor, 1-O-alkyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine (lyso-PAF) into 1-O-alkyl-2-acetyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine (PAF) (By similarity). May synthesize phosphatidylcholine in pulmonary surfactant, thereby playing a pivotal role in respiratory physiology (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of lipid droplet number and size.

Exhibits both acyltransferase and acetyltransferase activities. Catalyzes the conversion of lysophosphatidylcholine (1-acyl-sn-glycero- 3-phosphocholine or LPC) into phosphatidylcholine (1,2-diacyl-sn- glycero-3-phosphocholine or PC). Catalyzes the conversion 1-acyl-sn-glycerol-3-phosphate (lysophosphatidic acid or LPA) into 1,2-diacyl-sn-glycerol-3-phosphate (phosphatidic acid or PA) by incorporating an acyl moiety at the sn-2 position of the glycerol backbone. Involved in platelet-activating factor (PAF) biosynthesis by catalyzing the conversion of the PAF precursor, 1-O-alkyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine (lyso-PAF) into 1-O-alkyl-2- acetyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine (PAF). Also converts lyso-PAF to 1-O-alkyl-2-acyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine (PC), a major component of cell membranes and a PAF precursor (By similarity). Under resting conditions, acyltransferase activity is preferred (By similarity). Upon acute inflammatory stimulus, acetyltransferase activity is enhanced and PAF synthesis increases (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of lipid droplet number and size.

Single-stranded nucleic acid binding protein that binds preferentially to oligo dC. Together with PCBP2, required for erythropoiesis, possibly by regulating mRNA splicing (By similarity).

Single-stranded nucleic acid binding protein that binds preferentially to oligo dC. Major cellular poly(rC)-binding protein. Binds also poly(rU). Acts as a negative regulator of antiviral signaling. Negatively regulates cellular antiviral responses mediated by MAVS signaling. It acts as an adapter between MAVS and the E3 ubiquitin ligase ITCH, therefore triggering MAVS ubiquitination and degradation. Negativeley regulates the cGAS-STING pathway via interaction with CGAS, preventing the formation of liquid- like droplets in which CGAS is activated. Together with PCBP1, required for erythropoiesis, possibly by regulating mRNA splicing (By similarity).

Single-stranded nucleic acid binding protein that binds preferentially to oligo dC.

This is one of the 2 subunits of the biotin-dependent propionyl-CoA carboxylase (PCC), a mitochondrial enzyme involved in the catabolism of odd chain fatty acids, branched-chain amino acids isoleucine, threonine, methionine, and valine and other metabolites. Propionyl-CoA carboxylase catalyzes the carboxylation of propionyl-CoA/propanoyl-CoA to D-methylmalonyl- CoA/(S)-methylmalonyl-CoA. Within the holoenzyme, the alpha subunit catalyzes the ATP-dependent carboxylation of the biotin carried by the biotin carboxyl carrier (BCC) domain, while the beta subunit then transfers the carboxyl group from carboxylated biotin to propionyl-CoA (By similarity). Propionyl-CoA carboxylase also significantly acts on butyryl-CoA/butanoyl-CoA, which is converted to ethylmalonyl-CoA/(2S)- ethylmalonyl-CoA at a much lower rate. Other alternative minor substrates include (2E)-butenoyl-CoA/crotonoyl-CoA (By similarity).

This is one of the 2 subunits of the biotin-dependent propionyl-CoA carboxylase (PCC), a mitochondrial enzyme involved in the catabolism of odd chain fatty acids, branched-chain amino acids isoleucine, threonine, methionine, and valine and other metabolites. Propionyl-CoA carboxylase catalyzes the carboxylation of propionyl-CoA/propanoyl-CoA to D-methylmalonyl- CoA/(S)-methylmalonyl-CoA. Within the holoenzyme, the alpha subunit catalyzes the ATP-dependent carboxylation of the biotin carried by the biotin carboxyl carrier (BCC) domain, while the beta subunit then transfers the carboxyl group from carboxylated biotin to propionyl-CoA (By similarity). Propionyl-CoA carboxylase also significantly acts on butyryl-CoA/butanoyl-CoA, which is converted to ethylmalonyl-CoA/(2S)-ethylmalonyl-CoA at a much lower rate. Other alternative minor substrates include (2E)- butenoyl-CoA/crotonoyl-CoA (By similarity).

Cellular adhesion molecule that may play an important role in cell-cell interactions at interendothelial junctions (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of cell migration, probably via increasing cell- cell adhesion. Promotes homotypic calcium-dependent aggregation and adhesion and clusters at intercellular junctions (By similarity). Unable to bind to catenins, weakly associates with the cytoskeleton (By similarity).

Calcium-dependent cell-adhesion protein. Essential for maintenance of normal retinal and cochlear function

Calcium-dependent cell-adhesion protein. Mediates functions in neuroprogenitor cell proliferation and differentiation. In the heart, has a critical role for proper morphogenesis of the mitral valve, acting in the regulation of cell migration involved in valve formation.

Potential calcium-dependent cell-adhesion protein. May be involved in the establishment and maintenance of specific neuronal connections in the brain

Calcium-dependent cell-adhesion protein involved in cells self-recognition and non-self discrimination. Thereby, it is involved in the establishment and maintenance of specific neuronal connections in the brain.

May be involved in cell-cell interaction processes and in cell adhesion

Calcium-dependent cell-adhesion protein (By similarity). May play a role in activity-induced synaptic reorganization underlying long term memory (By similarity). Could be involved in CDH2 internalization through TAOK2/p38 MAPK pathway. In hippocampal neurons, may play a role in the down-regulation of dendritic spines, maybe through its action on CDH2 endocytosis (By similarity).

Proton-coupled folate symporter that mediates folate absorption using an H(+) gradient as a driving force. Involved in the intestinal absorption of folates at the brush-border membrane of the proximal jejunum, and the transport from blood to cerebrospinal fluid across the choroid plexus. Functions at acidic pH via alternate outward- and inward-open conformation states. Protonation of residues in the outward open state primes the protein for transport. Binding of folate promotes breaking of salt bridge network and subsequent closure of the extracellular gate, leading to the inward- open state and release of protons and folate. Also able to transport antifolate drugs, such as methotrexate and pemetrexed, which are established treatments for cancer and autoimmune diseases. Involved in FOLR1-mediated endocytosis by serving as a route of export of folates from acidified endosomes. Also acts as a lower-affinity, pH-independent heme carrier protein and constitutes the main importer of heme in the intestine. Imports heme in the retina and retinal pigment epithelium, in neurons of the hippocampus, in hepatocytes and in the renal epithelial cells. Hence, participates in the trafficking of heme and increases intracellular iron content.

Component of the Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein BCOR complex, a complex required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of some genes, such as BCL6 and the cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor, CDKN1A. Transcriptional repressor that may be targeted to the DNA by BCL6; this transcription repressor activity may be related to PKC signaling pathway. Represses CDKN1A expression by binding to its promoter, and this repression is dependent on the retinoic acid response element (RARE element). Promotes cell cycle progression and enhances cell proliferation as well. May have a positive role in tumor cell growth by down-regulating CDKN1A. Component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1 complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones; it mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119', rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility. Within the PRC1-like complex, regulates RNF2 ubiquitin ligase activity. Regulates the expression of DPPA4 and NANOG in the NT2 embryonic carcinoma cells.

Transcriptional repressor. Binds specifically to the DNA sequence 5'-GACTNGACT-3'. Has tumor suppressor activity. May play a role in control of cell proliferation and/or neural cell development. Regulates proliferation of early T progenitor cells by maintaining expression of HES1. Also plays a role in antero-posterior specification of the axial skeleton and negative regulation of the self-renewal activity of hematopoietic stem cells (By similarity). Component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1 complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones; it mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119', rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility. Within the PRC1-like complex, regulates RNF2 ubiquitin ligase activity.

Component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1 complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones; it mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119', rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility. Within the PRC1-like complex, regulates RNF2 ubiquitin ligase activity. Plays a redundant role with PCGF5 as part of a PRC1- like complex that mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119' on the X chromosome and is required for normal silencing of one copy of the X chromosome in XX females (By similarity).

Component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1 complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones; it mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119', rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility. Within the PRC1-like complex, regulates RNF2 ubiquitin ligase activity. Plays a redundant role with PCGF3 as part of a PRC1-like complex that mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119' on the X chromosome and is required for normal silencing of one copy of the X chromosome in XX females (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor. May modulate the levels of histone H3K4Me3 by activating KDM5D histone demethylase. Component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1 complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones; it mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119', rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility. Within the PRC1-like complex, regulates RNF2 ubiquitin ligase activity.

Plays a key role in chromosome recombination and chromosome structure development during meiosis. Required at early steps in meiotic recombination that leads to non-crossovers pathways. Also needed for efficient completion of homologous synapsis by influencing crossover distribution along the chromosomes affecting both crossovers and non-crossovers pathways. Also required for development of higher- order chromosome structures and is needed for synaptonemal-complex formation. In males, required for efficient synapsis of the sex chromosomes and for sex body formation. Promotes early steps of the DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) repair process upstream of the assembly of RAD51 complexes. Required for depletion of HORMAD1 and HORMAD2 from synapsed chromosomes (By similarity). Plays a role in mitotic spindle assembly checkpoint (SAC) activation.

Required for B-cell survival through the regulation of the expression of cell-cycle checkpoint MAD2L1 protein during B cell differentiation (By similarity). As a component of the TREX-2 complex, involved in the export of mRNAs to the cytoplasm through the nuclear pores. Binds and stabilizes BRCA2 and is thus involved in the control of R-loop-associated DNA damage and transcription-associated genomic instability. Blocks the activity of the SRCAP chromatin remodeling complex by interacting with SRCAP complex member ZNHIT1 and inhibiting its interaction with the complex (By similarity). This prevents the deposition of histone variant H2AZ1/H2A.Z at the nucleosomes of key lymphoid fate regulator genes which suppresses their expression and restricts lymphoid lineage commitment (By similarity).

Cytosolic phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase that catalyzes the reversible decarboxylation and phosphorylation of oxaloacetate (OAA) and acts as the rate-limiting enzyme in gluconeogenesis. Regulates cataplerosis and anaplerosis, the processes that control the levels of metabolic intermediates in the citric acid cycle. At low glucose levels, it catalyzes the cataplerotic conversion of oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP), the rate-limiting step in the metabolic pathway that produces glucose from lactate and other precursors derived from the citric acid cycle. At high glucose levels, it catalyzes the anaplerotic conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to oxaloacetate. Acts as a regulator of formation and maintenance of memory CD8(+) T-cells: up- regulated in these cells, where it generates phosphoenolpyruvate, via gluconeogenesis (By similarity). The resultant phosphoenolpyruvate flows to glycogen and pentose phosphate pathway, which is essential for memory CD8(+) T-cells homeostasis (By similarity). In addition to the phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase activity, also acts as a protein kinase when phosphorylated at Ser-90: phosphorylation at Ser-90 by AKT1 reduces the binding affinity to oxaloacetate and promotes an atypical serine protein kinase activity using GTP as donor. The protein kinase activity regulates lipogenesis: upon phosphorylation at Ser-90, translocates to the endoplasmic reticulum and catalyzes phosphorylation of INSIG proteins (INSIG1 and INSIG2), thereby disrupting the interaction between INSIG proteins and SCAP and promoting nuclear translocation of SREBP proteins (SREBF1/SREBP1 or SREBF2/SREBP2) and subsequent transcription of downstream lipogenesis- related genes.

Catalyzes the conversion of oxaloacetate (OAA) to phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP), the rate-limiting step in the metabolic pathway that produces glucose from lactate and other precursors derived from the citric acid cycle.

Increases proliferation of preadipocytes without affecting adipocytic differentiation.

Scaffold protein of the presynaptic cytomatrix at the active zone (CAZ) which is the place in the synapse where neurotransmitter is released (By similarity). After synthesis, participates in the formation of Golgi-derived membranous organelles termed Piccolo-Bassoon transport vesicles (PTVs) that are transported along axons to sites of nascent synaptic contacts (By similarity). At the presynaptic active zone, regulates the spatial organization of synaptic vesicle cluster, the protein complexes that execute membrane fusion and compensatory endocytosis (By similarity). Organizes as well the readily releasable pool of synaptic vesicles and safeguards a fraction of them to be not immediately available for action potential-induced release (By similarity). Functions also in processes other than assembly such as the regulation of specific presynaptic protein ubiquitination by interacting with SIAH1 or the regulation of presynaptic autophagy (By similarity). Mediates also synapse to nucleus communication leading to reconfiguration of gene expression by associating with the transcriptional corepressor CTBP1 and by subsequently reducing the size of its pool available for nuclear import (By similarity).

Required for centrosome assembly and function. Essential for the correct localization of several centrosomal proteins including CEP250, CETN3, PCNT and NEK2. Required to anchor microtubules to the centrosome. Also involved in cilium biogenesis by recruiting the BBSome, a ciliary protein complex involved in cilium biogenesis, to the centriolar satellites. Recruits the tubulin polyglutamylase complex (TPGC) to centriolar satellites.

Auxiliary protein of DNA polymerase delta and epsilon, is involved in the control of eukaryotic DNA replication by increasing the polymerase's processibility during elongation of the leading strand. Induces a robust stimulatory effect on the 3'-5' exonuclease and 3'-phosphodiesterase, but not apurinic-apyrimidinic (AP) endonuclease, APEX2 activities. Has to be loaded onto DNA in order to be able to stimulate APEX2. Plays a key role in DNA damage response (DDR) by being conveniently positioned at the replication fork to coordinate DNA replication with DNA repair and DNA damage tolerance pathways. Acts as a loading platform to recruit DDR proteins that allow completion of DNA replication after DNA damage and promote postreplication repair: Monoubiquitinated PCNA leads to recruitment of translesion (TLS) polymerases, while 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of PCNA is involved in error-free pathway and employs recombination mechanisms to synthesize across the lesion.

Integral component of the filamentous matrix of the centrosome involved in the initial establishment of organized microtubule arrays in both mitosis and meiosis. Plays a role, together with DISC1, in the microtubule network formation. Is an integral component of the pericentriolar material (PCM). May play an important role in preventing premature centrosome splitting during interphase by inhibiting NEK2 kinase activity at the centrosome.

Binds to the C-terminal propeptide of type I procollagen and enhances procollagen C-proteinase activity

Binds to the C-terminal propeptide of types I and II procollagens and may enhance the cleavage of that propeptide by BMP1.

May function as a cell-type specific modulator for G protein- mediated cell signaling.

Functions as a modulator of calcium-binding by calmodulin. Thereby, regulates calmodulin activity and the different processes it controls. For instance, may play a role in neuronal differentiation through activation of calmodulin-dependent kinase signaling pathways.

Cleaves C-terminal amino acids linked to proline in peptides such as angiotensin II, III and des-Arg9-bradykinin. This cleavage occurs at acidic pH, but enzymatic activity is retained with some substrates at neutral pH

May function in the control of the neuroendocrine secretory pathway. Proposed be a specific endogenous inhibitor of PCSK1. ProSAAS and Big PEN-LEN, both containing the C-terminal inhibitory domain, but not the further processed peptides reduce PCSK1 activity in the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi. It reduces the activity of the 84 kDa form but not the autocatalytically derived 66 kDa form of PCSK1. Subsequent processing of proSAAS may eliminate the inhibition. Slows down convertase-mediated processing of proopiomelanocortin and proenkephalin. May control the intracellular timing of PCSK1 rather than its total level of activity (By similarity).

Proprotein convertase involved in the processing of hormone and other protein precursors at sites comprised of pairs of basic amino acid residues (By similarity). In males, important for ADAM2 processing as well as other acrosomal proteins with roles in fertilization and critical for normal fertilization events such as sperm capacitation, acrosome reaction and binding of sperm to zona pellucida (By similarity). Also plays a role in female fertility, involved in the regulation of trophoblast migration and placental development, may be through the proteolytical processing and activation of proteins such as IGF2. May also participate in folliculogenesis in the ovaries (By similarity).

Serine endoprotease that processes various proproteins by cleavage at paired basic amino acids, recognizing the RXXX[KR]R consensus motif. Likely functions in the constitutive secretory pathway, with unique restricted distribution in both neuroendocrine and non-neuroendocrine tissues

Serine endoprotease that processes various proproteins by cleavage at paired basic amino acids, recognizing the RXXX[KR]R consensus motif. Likely functions in the constitutive secretory pathway

Crucial player in the regulation of plasma cholesterol homeostasis. Binds to low-density lipid receptor family members: low density lipoprotein receptor (LDLR), very low density lipoprotein receptor (VLDLR), apolipoprotein E receptor (LRP1/APOER) and apolipoprotein receptor 2 (LRP8/APOER2), and promotes their degradation in intracellular acidic compartments. Acts via a non- proteolytic mechanism to enhance the degradation of the hepatic LDLR through a clathrin LDLRAP1/ARH-mediated pathway. May prevent the recycling of LDLR from endosomes to the cell surface or direct it to lysosomes for degradation. Can induce ubiquitination of LDLR leading to its subsequent degradation. Inhibits intracellular degradation of APOB via the autophagosome/lysosome pathway in a LDLR-independent manner. Involved in the disposal of non-acetylated intermediates of BACE1 in the early secretory pathway. Inhibits epithelial Na(+) channel (ENaC)-mediated Na(+) absorption by reducing ENaC surface expression primarily by increasing its proteasomal degradation. Regulates neuronal apoptosis via modulation of LRP8/APOER2 levels and related anti-apoptotic signaling pathways.

May play a role in tumorigenesis of colorectal carcinomas with high microsatellite instability (MSI-H).

Catalyzes the key rate-limiting step in the CDP-choline pathway for phosphatidylcholine biosynthesis.

[Isoform 1]: Catalyzes the key rate-limiting step in the CDP- choline pathway for phosphatidylcholine biosynthesis.

Ethanolamine-phosphate cytidylyltransferase that catalyzes the second step in the synthesis of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) from ethanolamine via the CDP-ethanolamine pathway. Phosphatidylethanolamine is a dominant inner-leaflet phospholipid in cell membranes, where it plays a role in membrane function by structurally stabilizing membrane-anchored proteins, and participates in important cellular processes such as cell division, cell fusion, blood coagulation, and apoptosis.

Prenylcysteine oxidase that cleaves the thioether bond of prenyl-L-cysteines, such as farnesylcysteine and geranylgeranylcysteine. Only active against free prenylcysteines and not prenylcysteine residues within prenylated proteins or peptides (By similarity). Involved in the final step in the degradation of prenylated proteins, by degrading prenylcysteines after the protein has been degraded.

Plays a critical role in induction and maintenance of immune tolerance to self. As a ligand for the inhibitory receptor PDCD1/PD-1, modulates the activation threshold of T-cells and limits T-cell effector response. Through a yet unknown activating receptor, may costimulate T-cell subsets that predominantly produce interleukin-10 (IL10).

Involved in the costimulatory signal, essential for T-cell proliferation and IFNG production in a PDCD1-independent manner. Interaction with PDCD1 inhibits T-cell proliferation by blocking cell cycle progression and cytokine production (By similarity).

Receptor for prostaglandin D2 (PGD2). Coupled to the G(i)- protein. Receptor activation may result in pertussis toxin-sensitive decreases in cAMP levels and Ca(2+) mobilization. PI3K signaling is also implicated in mediating PTGDR2 effects. PGD2 induced receptor internalization. CRTH2 internalization can be regulated by diverse kinases such as, PKC, PKA, GRK2, GPRK5/GRK5 and GRK6. Receptor activation is responsible, at least in part, in immune regulation and allergic/inflammation responses.

Receptor for prostaglandin D2 (PGD2). The activity of this receptor is mainly mediated by G(s) proteins that stimulate adenylate cyclase, resulting in an elevation of intracellular cAMP. A mobilization of calcium is also observed, but without formation of inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (By similarity). Involved in PLA2G3- dependent maturation of mast cells. PLA2G3 is secreted by immature mast cells and acts on nearby fibroblasts upstream to PTDGS to synthesize PGD2, which in turn promotes mast cell maturation and degranulation via PTGDR (By similarity).

Promotes cell proliferation. Modulates apoptotic pathways. Increases mitogen-activated protein kinase activity and STK26 activity. Important for cell migration, and for normal structure and assembly of the Golgi complex. Important for KDR/VEGFR2 signaling. Increases the stability of KDR/VEGFR2 and prevents its breakdown. Required for normal cardiovascular development. Required for normal angiogenesis, vasculogenesis and hematopoiesis during embryonic development (By similarity).

Multifunctional protein involved in endocytosis, multivesicular body biogenesis, membrane repair, cytokinesis, apoptosis and maintenance of tight junction integrity. Class E VPS protein involved in concentration and sorting of cargo proteins of the multivesicular body (MVB) for incorporation into intralumenal vesicles (ILVs) that are generated by invagination and scission from the limiting membrane of the endosome. Binds to the phospholipid lysobisphosphatidic acid (LBPA) which is abundant in MVBs internal membranes. The MVB pathway requires the sequential function of ESCRT-O, -I,-II and -III complexes. The ESCRT machinery also functions in topologically equivalent membrane fission events, such as the terminal stages of cytokinesis. Adapter for a subset of ESCRT-III proteins, such as CHMP4, to function at distinct membranes. Required for completion of cytokinesis. May play a role in the regulation of both apoptosis and cell proliferation. Regulates exosome biogenesis in concert with SDC1/4 and SDCBP. By interacting with F-actin, PARD3 and TJP1 secures the proper assembly and positioning of actomyosin-tight junction complex at the apical sides of adjacent epithelial cells that defines a spatial membrane domain essential for the maintenance of epithelial cell polarity and barrier (By similarity).

Inhibitory receptor on antigen activated T-cells that plays a critical role in induction and maintenance of immune tolerance to self. Delivers inhibitory signals upon binding to ligands CD274/PDCD1L1 and CD273/PDCD1LG2. Following T-cell receptor (TCR) engagement, PDCD1 associates with CD3-TCR in the immunological synapse and directly inhibits T-cell activation (By similarity). Suppresses T-cell activation through the recruitment of PTPN11/SHP-2: following ligand-binding, PDCD1 is phosphorylated within the ITSM motif, leading to the recruitment of the protein tyrosine phosphatase PTPN11/SHP-2 that mediates dephosphorylation of key TCR proximal signaling molecules, such as ZAP70, PRKCQ/PKCtheta and CD247/CD3zeta (By similarity).

May be a DNA-binding protein with a regulatory function. May play an important role in cell death and/or in regulation of cell proliferation

Inhibits translation initiation and cap-dependent translation. May excert its function by hindering the interaction between EIF4A1 and EIF4G. Inhibits the helicase activity of EIF4A. Modulates the activation of JUN kinase. Down-regulates the expression of MAP4K1, thus inhibiting events important in driving invasion, namely, MAPK85 activation and consequent JUN-dependent transcription. May play a role in apoptosis. Tumor suppressor. Inhibits tumor promoter-induced neoplastic transformation. Binds RNA (By similarity).

Calcium sensor that plays a key role in processes such as endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-Golgi vesicular transport, endosomal biogenesis or membrane repair. Acts as an adapter that bridges unrelated proteins or stabilizes weak protein-protein complexes in response to calcium: calcium-binding triggers exposure of apolar surface, promoting interaction with different sets of proteins thanks to 3 different hydrophobic pockets, leading to translocation to membranes. Involved in ER-Golgi transport by promoting the association between PDCD6IP and TSG101, thereby bridging together the ESCRT-III and ESCRT-I complexes. Together with PEF1, acts as calcium-dependent adapter for the BCR(KLHL12) complex, a complex involved in ER-Golgi transport by regulating the size of COPII coats. In response to cytosolic calcium increase, the heterodimer formed with PEF1 interacts with, and bridges together the BCR(KLHL12) complex and SEC31 (SEC31A or SEC31B), promoting monoubiquitination of SEC31 and subsequent collagen export, which is required for neural crest specification. Involved in the regulation of the distribution and function of MCOLN1 in the endosomal pathway. Promotes localization and polymerization of TFG at endoplasmic reticulum exit site. Required for T-cell receptor-, Fas-, and glucocorticoid-induced apoptosis (By similarity). May mediate Ca(2+)-regulated signals along the death pathway: interaction with DAPK1 can accelerate apoptotic cell death by increasing caspase-3 activity. Its role in apoptosis may however be indirect, as suggested by knockout experiments (By similarity). May inhibit KDR/VEGFR2-dependent angiogenesis; the function involves inhibition of VEGF-induced phosphorylation of the Akt signaling pathway. In case of infection by HIV-1 virus, indirectly inhibits HIV-1 production by affecting viral Gag expression and distribution.

Acts as a chaperone for the angiogenic VEGF receptor KDR/VEGFR2, increasing its abundance by inhibiting its ubiquitination and degradation. Inhibits the folding activity of the chaperonin-containing T-complex (CCT) which leads to inhibition of cytoskeletal actin folding. Acts as a chaperone during heat shock alongside HSP90 and HSP40/70 chaperone complexes (By similarity). Modulates the activation of caspases during apoptosis.

Over-expression suppresses AP1, CREB, NFAT, and NF-kB transcriptional activation, and delays cell cycle progression at S phase.

Plays a role in signal transduction by regulating the intracellular concentration of cyclic nucleotides cAMP and cGMP. Catalyzes the hydrolysis of both cAMP and cGMP to 5'-AMP and 5'-GMP, respectively.

Enzyme that cleaves 2',5'-phosphodiester bond linking adenosines of the 5'-triphosphorylated oligoadenylates, triphosphorylated oligoadenylates referred as 2-5A modulates the 2-5A system. Degrades triphosphorylated 2-5A to produce AMP and ATP. Also cleaves 3',5'-phosphodiester bond of oligoadenylates. Plays a role as a negative regulator of the 2-5A system that is one of the major pathways for antiviral and antitumor functions induced by interferons (IFNs). Suppression of this enzyme increases cellular 2-5A levels and decreases viral replication in cultured small-airway epithelial cells and Hela cells.

Calcium/calmodulin-dependent cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase with a dual specificity for the second messengers cGMP and cAMP, which are key regulators of many important physiological processes. Has a higher efficiency with cGMP compared to cAMP.

Cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase with a dual specificity for the second messengers cAMP and cGMP, which are key regulators of many important physiological processes. Has a preference for cGMP as a substrate.

Calmodulin-dependent cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase with a dual specificity for the second messengers cAMP and cGMP, which are key regulators of many important physiological processes. Has a high affinity for both cAMP and cGMP. Modulates the amplitude and duration of the cAMP signal in sensory cilia in response to odorant stimulation, hence contributing to the generation of action potentials. Regulates smooth muscle cell proliferation. Regulates the stability of growth factor receptors, including PDGFRB (Probable).

cGMP-activated cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase with a dual-specificity for the second messengers cAMP and cGMP, which are key regulators of many important physiological processes. Has a higher efficiency with cGMP compared to cAMP. Plays a role in cell growth and migration.

Cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase with specificity for the second messengers cAMP and cGMP, which are key regulators of many important physiological processes. Has also activity toward cUMP. Independently of its catalytic activity it is part of an E2/17beta-estradiol-induced pro-apoptotic signaling pathway. E2 stabilizes the PDE3A/SLFN12 complex in the cytosol, promoting the dephosphorylation of SLFN12 and activating its pro-apoptotic ribosomal RNA/rRNA ribonuclease activity. This apoptotic pathway might be relevant in tissues with high concentration of E2 and be for instance involved in placenta remodeling.

Cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase with a dual-specificity for the second messengers cAMP and cGMP, which are key regulators of many important physiological process. Regulates angiogenesis by inhibiting the cAMP- dependent guanine nucleotide exchange factor RAPGEF3 and downstream phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase gamma-mediated signaling. Controls cardiac contractility by reducing cAMP concentration in cardiocytes (By similarity).

Hydrolyzes the second messenger 3',5'-cyclic AMP (cAMP), which is a key regulator of many important physiological processes.

Hydrolyzes the second messenger cAMP, which is a key regulator of many important physiological processes. May be involved in mediating central nervous system effects of therapeutic agents ranging from antidepressants to antiasthmatic and anti-inflammatory agents.

Hydrolyzes the second messenger cAMP, which is a key regulator of many important physiological processes.

Plays a role in signal transduction by regulating the intracellular concentration of cyclic nucleotides. This phosphodiesterase catalyzes the specific hydrolysis of cGMP to 5'-GMP. Specifically regulates nitric-oxide- generated cGMP.

Rod-specific cGMP phosphodiesterase that catalyzes the hydrolysis of 3',5'-cyclic GMP. This protein participates in processes of transmission and amplification of the visual signal.

Rod-specific cGMP phosphodiesterase that catalyzes the hydrolysis of 3',5'-cyclic GMP. Necessary for the formation of a functional phosphodiesterase holoenzyme (By similarity). Involved in retinal circadian rhythm photoentrainment via modulation of UVA and orange light-induced phase-shift of the retina clock (By similarity). May participate in processes of transmission and amplification of the visual signal.

As cone-specific cGMP phosphodiesterase, it plays an essential role in light detection and cone phototransduction by rapidly decreasing intracellular levels of cGMP.

Promotes the release of prenylated target proteins from cellular membranes. Modulates the activity of prenylated or palmitoylated Ras family members by regulating their subcellular location. Required for normal ciliary targeting of farnesylated target proteins, such as INPP5E. Modulates the subcellular location of target proteins by acting as a GTP specific dissociation inhibitor (GDI) (By similarity). Increases the affinity of ARL3 for GTP by several orders of magnitude. Stabilizes ARL3-GTP by decreasing the nucleotide dissociation rate (By similarity).

Hydrolyzes the second messenger cAMP, which is a key regulator of many important physiological processes. May have a role in muscle signal transduction.

Hydrolyzes the second messenger cAMP, which is a key regulator of many important physiological processes. May be involved in the control of cAMP-mediated neural activity and cAMP metabolism in the brain.

Hydrolyzes the second messenger cAMP, which is a key regulator of many important physiological processes. May be involved in maintaining basal levels of the cyclic nucleotide and/or in the cAMP regulation of germ cell development. Binding to RAF1 reduces RAF1 'Ser-259' inhibitory- phosphorylation and stimulates RAF1-dependent EGF-activated ERK- signaling. Protects against cell death induced by hydrogen peroxide and staurosporine.

Hydrolyzes the second messenger cAMP, which is a key regulator of many important physiological processes. May be involved in specific signaling in the thyroid gland

Specifically hydrolyzes the second messenger cGMP, which is a key regulator of many important physiological processes. Highly specific: compared to other members of the cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase family, has the highest affinity and selectivity for cGMP. Specifically regulates natriuretic-peptide-dependent cGMP signaling in heart, acting as a regulator of cardiac hypertrophy in myocytes and muscle. Does not regulate nitric oxide-dependent cGMP in heart. Additional experiments are required to confirm whether its ability to hydrolyze natriuretic-peptide-dependent cGMP is specific to heart or is a general feature of the protein (Probable). In brain, involved in cognitive function, such as learning and long-term memory (By similarity).

Plasmanylethanolamine desaturase involved in plasmalogen biogenesis in the endoplasmic reticulum membrane. Plasmalogens are glycerophospholipids with a hydrocarbon chain linked by a vinyl ether bond at the glycerol sn-1 position, and are involved in antioxidative and signaling mechanisms.

Growth factor that plays an essential role in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation, cell migration, survival and chemotaxis. Potent mitogen for cells of mesenchymal origin. Required for normal lung alveolar septum formation during embryogenesis, normal development of the gastrointestinal tract, normal development of Leydig cells and spermatogenesis. Required for normal oligodendrocyte development and normal myelination in the spinal cord and cerebellum. Plays an important role in wound healing. Signaling is modulated by the formation of heterodimers with PDGFB (By similarity).

Growth factor that plays an essential role in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation, cell migration, survival and chemotaxis. Potent mitogen for cells of mesenchymal origin. Required for normal proliferation and recruitment of pericytes and vascular smooth muscle cells in the central nervous system, skin, lung, heart and placenta. Required for normal blood vessel development, and for normal development of kidney glomeruli. Plays an important role in wound healing. Signaling is modulated by the formation of heterodimers with PDGFA (By similarity).

Growth factor that plays an essential role in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation, cell migration, survival and chemotaxis. Potent mitogen and chemoattractant for cells of mesenchymal origin. Required for normal skeleton formation during embryonic development, especially for normal development of the craniofacial skeleton and for normal development of the palate. Required for normal skin morphogenesis during embryonic development. Plays an important role in wound healing, where it appears to be involved in three stages: inflammation, proliferation and remodeling. Plays an important role in angiogenesis and blood vessel development. Involved in fibrotic processes, in which transformation of interstitial fibroblasts into myofibroblasts plus collagen deposition occurs. The CUB domain has mitogenic activity in coronary artery smooth muscle cells, suggesting a role beyond the maintenance of the latency of the PDGF domain. In the nucleus, PDGFC seems to have additional function.

Growth factor that plays an essential role in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation, cell migration, survival and chemotaxis. Potent mitogen for cells of mesenchymal origin. Plays an important role in wound healing. Induces macrophage recruitment, increased interstitial pressure, and blood vessel maturation during angiogenesis. Can initiate events that lead to a mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis, including influx of monocytes and macrophages and production of extracellular matrix (By similarity).

This multifunctional protein catalyzes the formation, breakage and rearrangement of disulfide bonds. At the cell surface, seems to act as a reductase that cleaves disulfide bonds of proteins attached to the cell. May therefore cause structural modifications of exofacial proteins. Inside the cell, seems to form/rearrange disulfide bonds of nascent proteins. At high concentrations and following phosphorylation by FAM20C, functions as a chaperone that inhibits aggregation of misfolded proteins. At low concentrations, facilitates aggregation (anti-chaperone activity). May be involved with other chaperones in the structural modification of the TG precursor in hormone biogenesis. Also acts as a structural subunit of various enzymes such as prolyl 4-hydroxylase and microsomal triacylglycerol transfer protein MTTP. Receptor for LGALS9; the interaction retains P4HB at the cell surface of Th2 T helper cells, increasing disulfide reductase activity at the plasma membrane, altering the plasma membrane redox state and enhancing cell migration.

Acts as an intracellular estrogen-binding protein. May be involved in modulating cellular levels and biological functions of estrogens in the pancreas. May act as a chaperone that inhibits aggregation of misfolded proteins.

Disulfide isomerase which catalyzes the formation, isomerization, and reduction or oxidation of disulfide bonds. Associates with calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D3 which mediates the action of this vitamin on cells. Association with calcitriol does not affect its enzymatic activity.

May function as a chaperone that inhibits aggregation of misfolded proteins. Negatively regulates the unfolded protein response (UPR) through binding to UPR sensors such as ERN1, which in turn inactivates ERN1 signaling. May also regulate the UPR via the EIF2AK3 UPR sensor. Plays a role in platelet aggregation and activation by agonists such as convulxin, collagen and thrombin.

Involved in DNA damage tolerance by regulating translesion synthesis (TLS) of templates carrying DNA damage lesions such as 8oxoG and abasic sites. May act by stimulating activity of DNA polymerases involved in TLS, such as PRIMPOL and polymerase delta (POLD1).

Is involved in regulation of translation. Is preferentially associated with CBC-bound spliced mRNA-protein complexes during the pioneer round of mRNA translation. Contributes to enhanced translational efficiency of spliced over nonspliced mRNAs. Recruits activated ribosomal protein S6 kinase beta-1 I/RPS6KB1 to newly synthesized mRNA. Involved in nuclear mRNA export; probably mediated by association with the TREX complex.

Kinase that plays a key role in regulation of glucose and fatty acid metabolism and homeostasis via phosphorylation of the pyruvate dehydrogenase subunits PDHA1 and PDHA2. This inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase activity, and thereby regulates metabolite flux through the tricarboxylic acid cycle, down-regulates aerobic respiration and inhibits the formation of acetyl-coenzyme A from pyruvate. Plays an important role in cellular responses to hypoxia and is important for cell proliferation under hypoxia. Protects cells against apoptosis in response to hypoxia and oxidative stress.

Kinase that plays a key role in the regulation of glucose and fatty acid metabolism and homeostasis via phosphorylation of the pyruvate dehydrogenase subunits PDHA1 and PDHA2. This inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase activity, and thereby regulates metabolite flux through the tricarboxylic acid cycle, down-regulates aerobic respiration and inhibits the formation of acetyl-coenzyme A from pyruvate. Inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase decreases glucose utilization and increases fat metabolism. Mediates cellular responses to insulin. Plays an important role in maintaining normal blood glucose levels and in metabolic adaptation to nutrient availability. Via its regulation of pyruvate dehydrogenase activity, plays an important role in maintaining normal blood pH and in preventing the accumulation of ketone bodies under starvation. Plays a role in the regulation of cell proliferation and in resistance to apoptosis under oxidative stress. Plays a role in p53/TP53-mediated apoptosis.

Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase activity by phosphorylation of the E1 subunit PDHA1, and thereby regulates glucose metabolism and aerobic respiration. Can also phosphorylate PDHA2. Decreases glucose utilization and increases fat metabolism in response to prolonged fasting, and as adaptation to a high-fat diet. Plays a role in glucose homeostasis and in maintaining normal blood glucose levels in function of nutrient levels and under starvation. Plays a role in the generation of reactive oxygen species.

Kinase that plays a key role in regulation of glucose and fatty acid metabolism and homeostasis via phosphorylation of the pyruvate dehydrogenase subunits PDHA1 and PDHA2. This inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase activity, and thereby regulates metabolite flux through the tricarboxylic acid cycle, down-regulates aerobic respiration and inhibits the formation of acetyl-coenzyme A from pyruvate. Inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase decreases glucose utilization and increases fat metabolism in response to prolonged fasting and starvation. Plays an important role in maintaining normal blood glucose levels under starvation, and is involved in the insulin signaling cascade. Via its regulation of pyruvate dehydrogenase activity, plays an important role in maintaining normal blood pH and in preventing the accumulation of ketone bodies under starvation. In the fed state, mediates cellular responses to glucose levels and to a high-fat diet. Regulates both fatty acid oxidation and de novo fatty acid biosynthesis. Plays a role in the generation of reactive oxygen species. Protects detached epithelial cells against anoikis. Plays a role in cell proliferation via its role in regulating carbohydrate and fatty acid metabolism.

Cytoskeletal protein that may act as an adapter that brings other proteins (like kinases) to the cytoskeleton. Involved in assembly, disassembly and directioning of stress fibers in fibroblasts. Required for the localization of ACTN1 and PALLD to stress fibers. Required for cell migration and in maintaining cell polarity of fibroblasts (By similarity).

Probable adapter protein located at the actin cytoskeleton that promotes cell attachment. Necessary for the migratory capacity of epithelial cells. Overexpression enhances cell adhesion to collagen and fibronectin and suppresses anchorage independent growth. May contribute to tumor cell migratory capacity.

May play a role in the organization of actin filament arrays within muscle cells.

[Isoform 1]: Suppresses SRC activation by recognizing and binding to active SRC and facilitating PTPN13-mediated dephosphorylation of SRC 'Tyr-419' leading to its inactivation. Inactivated SRC dissociates from this protein allowing the initiation of a new SRC inactivation cycle. Involved in reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton. In nonmuscle cells, binds to ACTN1 (alpha-actinin-1), increases the affinity of ACTN1 to F-actin (filamentous actin), and promotes formation of actin stress fibers. Involved in regulation of the synaptic AMPA receptor transport in dendritic spines of hippocampal pyramidal neurons directing the receptors toward an insertion at the postsynaptic membrane. Links endosomal surface-internalized GRIA1- containing AMPA receptors to the alpha-actinin/actin cytoskeleton. Increases AMPA receptor-mediated excitatory postsynaptic currents in neurons (By similarity).

May play an important role in the heart development by scaffolding PKC to the Z-disk region. May play a role in the regulation of cardiomyocyte expansion. Isoforms lacking the LIM domains may negatively modulate the scaffolding activity of isoform 1. Overexpression promotes the development of heart hypertrophy. Contributes to the regulation of dendritic spine morphogenesis in neurons. May be required to restrain postsynaptic growth of excitatory synapses. Isoform 1, but not isoform 2, expression favors spine thinning and elongation.

May function as a scaffold on which the coordinated assembly of proteins can occur. May play a role as an adapter that, via its PDZ domain, localizes LIM-binding proteins to actin filaments of both skeletal muscle and nonmuscle tissues. Involved in both of the two fundamental mechanisms of bone formation, direct bone formation (e.g. embryonic flat bones mandible and cranium), and endochondral bone formation (e.g. embryonic long bone development). Plays a role during fracture repair. Involved in BMP6 signaling pathway (By similarity).

Catalyzes the dephosphorylation and concomitant reactivation of the alpha subunit of the E1 component of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.

Serine/threonine kinase which acts as a master kinase, phosphorylating and activating a subgroup of the AGC family of protein kinases. Its targets include: protein kinase B (PKB/AKT1, PKB/AKT2, PKB/AKT3), p70 ribosomal protein S6 kinase (RPS6KB1), p90 ribosomal protein S6 kinase (RPS6KA1, RPS6KA2 and RPS6KA3), cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase (PRKACA), protein kinase C (PRKCD and PRKCZ), serum and glucocorticoid-inducible kinase (SGK1, SGK2 and SGK3), p21-activated kinase-1 (PAK1), protein kinase PKN (PKN1 and PKN2). Plays a central role in the transduction of signals from insulin by providing the activating phosphorylation to PKB/AKT1, thus propagating the signal to downstream targets controlling cell proliferation and survival, as well as glucose and amino acid uptake and storage. Negatively regulates the TGF-beta-induced signaling by: modulating the association of SMAD3 and SMAD7 with TGF-beta receptor, phosphorylating SMAD2, SMAD3, SMAD4 and SMAD7, preventing the nuclear translocation of SMAD3 and SMAD4 and the translocation of SMAD7 from the nucleus to the cytoplasm in response to TGF-beta. Activates PPARG transcriptional activity and promotes adipocyte differentiation. Activates the NF-kappa-B pathway via phosphorylation of IKKB. The tyrosine phosphorylated form is crucial for the regulation of focal adhesions by angiotensin II. Controls proliferation, survival, and growth of developing pancreatic cells. Participates in the regulation of Ca(2+) entry and Ca(2+)-activated K(+) channels of mast cells. Essential for the motility of vascular endothelial cells (ECs) and is involved in the regulation of their chemotaxis. Plays a critical role in cardiac homeostasis by serving as a dual effector for cell survival and beta-adrenergic response. Plays an important role during thymocyte development by regulating the expression of key nutrient receptors on the surface of pre-T cells and mediating Notch-induced cell growth and proliferative responses. Provides negative feedback inhibition to toll-like receptor-mediated NF-kappa-B activation in macrophages. Isoform 3 is catalytically inactive.

Mediates effects on cell migration and adhesion through its different partners. During development plays a role in blood and lymphatic vessels separation by binding CLEC1B, triggering CLEC1B activation in platelets and leading to platelet activation and/or aggregation. Interaction with CD9, on the contrary, attenuates platelet aggregation induced by PDPN. Through MSN or EZR interaction promotes epithelial- mesenchymal transition (EMT) leading to ERZ phosphorylation and triggering RHOA activation leading to cell migration increase and invasiveness. Interaction with CD44 promotes directional cell migration in epithelial and tumor cells. In lymph nodes (LNs), controls fibroblastic reticular cells (FRCs) adhesion to the extracellular matrix (ECM) and contraction of the actomyosin by maintaining ERM proteins (EZR; MSN and RDX) and MYL9 activation through association with unknown transmembrane proteins. Engagement of CLEC1B by PDPN promotes FRCs relaxation by blocking lateral membrane interactions leading to reduction of ERM proteins (EZR; MSN and RDX) and MYL9 activation (By similarity). Through binding with LGALS8 may participate in connection of the lymphatic endothelium to the surrounding extracellular matrix. In keratinocytes, induces changes in cell morphology showing an elongated shape, numerous membrane protrusions, major reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton, increased motility and decreased cell adhesion. Controls invadopodia stability and maturation leading to efficient degradation of the extracellular matrix (ECM) in tumor cells through modulation of RHOC activity in order to activate ROCK1/ROCK2 and LIMK1/LIMK2 and inactivation of CFL1. Required for normal lung cell proliferation and alveolus formation at birth (By similarity). Does not function as a water channel or as a regulator of aquaporin-type water channels. Does not have any effect on folic acid or amino acid transport (By similarity).

Decreases the sensitivity of PDP1 to magnesium ions, and this inhibition is reversed by the polyamine spermine.

Probable regulator of sister chromatid cohesion in mitosis which may stabilize cohesin complex association with chromatin. May couple sister chromatid cohesion during mitosis to DNA replication. Cohesion ensures that chromosome partitioning is accurate in both meiotic and mitotic cells and plays an important role in DNA repair.

Regulator of sister chromatid cohesion in mitosis which may stabilize cohesin complex association with chromatin. May couple sister chromatid cohesion during mitosis to DNA replication. Cohesion ensures that chromosome partitioning is accurate in both meiotic and mitotic cells and plays an important role in DNA repair. Plays a role in androgen-induced proliferative arrest in prostate cells.

Activates insulin, somatostatin, glucokinase, islet amyloid polypeptide and glucose transporter type 2 gene transcription. Particularly involved in glucose-dependent regulation of insulin gene transcription. As part of a PDX1:PBX1b:MEIS2b complex in pancreatic acinar cells is involved in the transcriptional activation of the ELA1 enhancer; the complex binds to the enhancer B element and cooperates with the transcription factor 1 complex (PTF1) bound to the enhancer A element. Binds preferentially the DNA motif 5'-[CT]TAAT[TG]-3'. During development, specifies the early pancreatic epithelium, permitting its proliferation, branching and subsequent differentiation. At adult stage, required for maintaining the hormone-producing phenotype of the beta-cell

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of the dietary vitamin B6 vitamers pyridoxal (PL), pyridoxine (PN) and pyridoxamine (PM) to form pyridoxal 5'-phosphate (PLP), pyridoxine 5'-phosphate (PNP) and pyridoxamine 5'-phosphate (PMP), respectively (Probable). PLP is the active form of vitamin B6, and acts as a cofactor for over 140 different enzymatic reactions.

Acts as a ligand for vascular selectins. Mediates rapid rolling of leukocytes over vascular surfaces through high affinity divalent cation-dependent interactions with E-, P- and L-selectins.

Leu-enkephalins compete with and mimic the effects of opiate drugs. They play a role in a number of physiologic functions, including pain perception and responses to stress (By similarity).

Mediates docking of ADAM10 to zonula adherens by interacting with PLEKHA7 which is required for PLEKHA7 to interact with the ADAM10- binding protein TSPAN33.

In cochlear developing hair cells, essential in organizing the USH2 complex at stereocilia ankle links. Blocks inhibition of adenylate cyclase activity mediated by ADGRV1.

Molecular tethering protein that connects endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria membranes. PDZD8-dependent endoplasmic reticulum-mitochondria membrane tethering is essential for endoplasmic reticulum-mitochondria Ca(2+) transfer. In neurons, involved in the regulation of dendritic Ca(2+) dynamics by regulating mitochondrial Ca(2+) uptake in neurons. Plays an indirect role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. May inhibit herpes simplex virus 1 infection at an early stage.

Receptor for prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). The activity of this receptor is mediated by G(q) proteins which activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. May play a role as an important modulator of renal function. Implicated the smooth muscle contractile response to PGE2 in various tissues

Receptor for prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). The activity of this receptor is mediated by G(s) proteins that stimulate adenylate cyclase. The subsequent raise in intracellular cAMP is responsible for the relaxing effect of this receptor on smooth muscle

Receptor for prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). The activity of this receptor can couple to both the inhibition of adenylate cyclase mediated by G(i) proteins, and to an elevation of intracellular calcium. Required for normal development of fever in response to pyrinogens, including IL1B, prostaglandin E2 and bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS). Required for normal potentiation of platelet aggregation by prostaglandin E2, and thus plays a role in the regulation of blood coagulation. Required for increased HCO3(-) secretion in the duodenum in response to mucosal acidification, and thereby contributes to the protection of the mucosa against acid- induced ulceration. Not required for normal kidney function, normal urine volume and osmolality (By similarity).

Receptor for prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). The activity of this receptor is mediated by G(s) proteins that stimulate adenylate cyclase. Has a relaxing effect on smooth muscle. May play an important role in regulating renal hemodynamics, intestinal epithelial transport, adrenal aldosterone secretion, and uterine function

Blocks Ras-mediated inhibition of integrin activation and modulates the ERK MAP kinase cascade. Inhibits RPS6KA3 activities by retaining it in the cytoplasm (By similarity). Inhibits both TNFRSF6- and TNFRSF1A-mediated CASP8 activity and apoptosis. Regulates glucose transport by controlling both the content of SLC2A1 glucose transporters on the plasma membrane and the insulin-dependent trafficking of SLC2A4 from the cell interior to the surface.

Probable catalytically inactive kinase. Scaffolding protein that regulates the cytoskeleton to control cell spreading and migration by modulating focal adhesion dynamics. Acts as a scaffold for mediating EGFR signaling.

Probable catalytically inactive kinase (Probable). Interacts with CRK-II and antagonizes CRK-II-signaling. Prevents the formation of CRK-II-dependent membrane ruffling and lamellipodia-like extensions.

When overexpressed, reduces the number of both early and late non-adherent myeloid progenitor cells.

Forms the heterodimeric complex core-binding factor (CBF) with RUNX family proteins (RUNX1, RUNX2, and RUNX3). RUNX members modulate the transcription of their target genes through recognizing the core consensus binding sequence 5'-TGTGGT-3', or very rarely, 5'- TGCGGT-3', within their regulatory regions via their runt domain, while CBFB is a non-DNA-binding regulatory subunit that allosterically enhances the sequence-specific DNA-binding capacity of RUNX. The heterodimers bind to the core site of a number of enhancers and promoters, including murine leukemia virus, polyomavirus enhancer, T- cell receptor enhancers, LCK, IL3 and GM-CSF promoters. CBF complexes repress ZBTB7B transcription factor during cytotoxic (CD8+) T cell development. They bind to RUNX-binding sequence within the ZBTB7B locus acting as transcriptional silencer and allowing for cytotoxic T cell differentiation.

Binds ATP, opioids and phosphatidylethanolamine. Has lower affinity for phosphatidylinositol and phosphatidylcholine. Serine protease inhibitor which inhibits thrombin, neuropsin and chymotrypsin but not trypsin, tissue type plasminogen activator and elastase (By similarity). Inhibits the kinase activity of RAF1 by inhibiting its activation and by dissociating the RAF1/MEK complex and acting as a competitive inhibitor of MEK phosphorylation.

Promotes AKT phosphorylation, suggesting a possible role in the PI3K-AKT signaling pathway.

Cell adhesion molecule which is required for leukocyte transendothelial migration (TEM) under most inflammatory conditions. Tyr-690 plays a critical role in TEM and is required for efficient trafficking of PECAM1 to and from the lateral border recycling compartment (LBRC) and is also essential for the LBRC membrane to be targeted around migrating leukocytes. Trans-homophilic interaction may play a role in endothelial cell-cell adhesion via cell junctions. Heterophilic interaction with CD177 plays a role in transendothelial migration of neutrophils. Homophilic ligation of PECAM1 prevents macrophage-mediated phagocytosis of neighboring viable leukocytes by transmitting a detachment signal. Promotes macrophage-mediated phagocytosis of apoptotic leukocytes by tethering them to the phagocytic cells; PECAM1-mediated detachment signal appears to be disabled in apoptotic leukocytes. Modulates bradykinin receptor BDKRB2 activation. Regulates bradykinin- and hyperosmotic shock-induced ERK1/2 activation in endothelial cells. Induces susceptibility to atherosclerosis (By similarity).

Participates in chain elongation of fatty acids. Catalyzes the reduction of trans-2-enoyl-CoAs of varying chain lengths from 6:1 to 16:1, having maximum activity with 10:1 CoA. Has no 2,4-dienoyl-CoA reductase activity.

Neurotrophic protein; induces extensive neuronal differentiation in retinoblastoma cells. Potent inhibitor of angiogenesis. As it does not undergo the S (stressed) to R (relaxed) conformational transition characteristic of active serpins, it exhibits no serine protease inhibitory activity.

Calcium-binding protein that acts as an adapter that bridges unrelated proteins or stabilizes weak protein-protein complexes in response to calcium. Together with PDCD6, acts as calcium-dependent adapter for the BCR(KLHL12) complex, a complex involved in endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-Golgi transport by regulating the size of COPII coats. In response to cytosolic calcium increase, the heterodimer formed with PDCD6 interacts with, and bridges together the BCR(KLHL12) complex and SEC31 (SEC31A or SEC31B), promoting monoubiquitination of SEC31 and subsequent collagen export, which is required for neural crest specification. Its role in the heterodimer formed with PDCD6 is however unclear: some evidence shows that PEF1 and PDCD6 work together and promote association between PDCD6 and SEC31 in presence of calcium. Other reports show that PEF1 dissociates from PDCD6 in presence of calcium, and may act as a negative regulator of PDCD6. Also acts as a negative regulator of ER-Golgi transport; possibly by inhibiting interaction between PDCD6 and SEC31 (By similarity).

Induces apoptosis in cooperation with SIAH1A. Acts as a mediator between p53/TP53 and BAX in a neuronal death pathway that is activated by DNA damage. Acts synergistically with TRAF2 and inhibits TNF induced apoptosis through activation of NF-kappa-B (By similarity). Possesses a tumor suppressing activity in glioma cells.

E3 ubiquitin ligase catalyzing the covalent attachment of ubiquitin moieties onto substrate proteins. Involved in the TLR and IL- 1 signaling pathways via interaction with the complex containing IRAK kinases and TRAF6. Mediates 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of IRAK1 allowing subsequent NF-kappa-B activation. Mediates 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination of RIPK3 leading to its subsequent proteasome-dependent degradation; preferentially recognizes and mediates the degradation of the 'Thr-182' phosphorylated form of RIPK3. Negatively regulates necroptosis by reducing RIPK3 expression. Mediates 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of RIPK1.

E3 ubiquitin ligase catalyzing the covalent attachment of ubiquitin moieties onto substrate proteins. Involved in the TLR and IL- 1 signaling pathways via interaction with the complex containing IRAK kinases and TRAF6. Mediates IL1B-induced IRAK1 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination and possibly 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitination. May be important for LPS- and IL1B-induced MAP3K7-dependent, but not MAP3K3- dependent, NF-kappa-B activation. Can activate the MAP (mitogen activated protein) kinase pathway leading to activation of ELK1.

E3 ubiquitin ligase catalyzing the covalent attachment of ubiquitin moieties onto substrate proteins. Involved in the TLR and IL- 1 signaling pathways via interaction with the complex containing IRAK kinases and TRAF6. Mediates 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of IRAK1. Can activate AP1/JUN and ELK1. Not required for NF-kappa-B activation.

Cotranslational quality control factor involved in the No-Go Decay (NGD) pathway. In the presence of ABCE1 and HBS1L, is required for 48S complex formation from 80S ribosomes and dissociation of vacant 80S ribosomes. Together with HBS1L and in presence of ABCE1, recognizes stalled ribosomes and promotes dissociation of elongation complexes assembled on non-stop mRNAs; this triggers endonucleolytic cleavage of the mRNA, a mechanism to release non-functional ribosomes and to degrade damaged mRNAs as part of the No-Go Decay (NGD) pathway. As part of the PINK1-regulated signaling, upon mitochondrial damage is recruited to the ribosome/mRNA-ribonucleoprotein complex associated to mitochondrial outer membrane thereby enabling the recruitment of autophagy receptors and induction of mitophagy.

Coactivator of estrogen receptor-mediated transcription and a corepressor of other nuclear hormone receptors and sequence-specific transcription factors. Plays a role in estrogen receptor (ER) genomic activity when present in the nuclear compartment by activating the ER target genes in a hormonal stimulation dependent manner. Can facilitate ER non-genomic signaling via SRC and PI3K interaction in the cytosol. Plays a role in E2-mediated cell cycle progression by interacting with RB1. May have important functional implications in ER/growth factor cross-talk. Interacts with several growth factor signaling components including EGFR and HRS. Functions as the key stabilizing component of the Five Friends of Methylated CHTOP (5FMC) complex; the 5FMC complex is recruited to ZNF148 by methylated CHTOP, leading to desumoylation of ZNF148 and subsequent transactivation of ZNF148 target genes. Component of the PELP1 complex involved in the nucleolar steps of 28S rRNA maturation and the subsequent nucleoplasmic transit of the pre-60S ribosomal subunit. Regulates pre-60S association of the critical remodeling factor MDN1. May promote tumorigenesis via its interaction with and modulation of several oncogenes including SRC, PI3K, STAT3 and EGFR. Plays a role in cancer cell metastasis via its ability to modulate E2-mediated cytoskeleton changes and cell migration via its interaction with SRC and PI3K.

Catalyzes the three sequential steps of the methylation pathway for the biosynthesis of phosphatidylcholine, a critical and essential component for membrane structure. Uses S-adenosylmethionine (S-adenosyl-L-methionine, SAM or AdoMet) as the methyl group donor for the methylation of phosphatidylethanolamine (1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphoethanolamine, PE) to phosphatidylmonomethylethanolamine (1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero-3- phospho-N-methylethanolamine, PMME), PMME to phosphatidyldimethylethanolamine (1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero-3-phospho-N,N- dimethylethanolamine, PDME), and PDME to phosphatidylcholine (1,2- diacyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine, PC), producing S-adenosyl-L- homocysteine in each step. Responsible for approximately 30% of hepatic PC with the CDP-choline pathway accounting for the other 70% (Probable).

Essential subunit of the gamma-secretase complex, an endoprotease complex that catalyzes the intramembrane cleavage of integral membrane proteins such as Notch receptors and APP (amyloid- beta precursor protein). The gamma-secretase complex plays a role in Notch and Wnt signaling cascades and regulation of downstream processes via its role in processing key regulatory proteins, and by regulating cytosolic CTNNB1 levels (Probable). PSENEN modulates both endoproteolysis of presenilin and gamma-secretase activity.

[Met-enkephalin]: Neuropeptide that competes with and mimic the effects of opiate drugs. They play a role in a number of physiologic functions, including pain perception and responses to stress.

[Isoform 1]: Mitochondrial helicase involved in mtDNA replication and repair. Might have a role in mtDNA repair. Has DNA strand separation activity needed to form a processive replication fork for leading strand synthesis which is catalyzed by the formation of a replisome complex with POLG and mtSDB. Preferentially unwinds DNA substrates with pre-existing 5'-and 3'- single-stranded tails but is also active on a 5'- flap substrate. Can dissociate the invading strand of immobile or mobile D-loop DNA structures irrespective of the single strand polarity of the third strand. In addition to its DNA strand separation activity, also has DNA strand annealing, DNA strand-exchange and DNA branch migration activities.

Shows particularly broad specificity; although bonds involving phenylalanine and leucine are preferred, many others are also cleaved to some extent

Splits dipeptides with a prolyl or hydroxyprolyl residue in the C-terminal position. Plays an important role in collagen metabolism because the high level of iminoacids in collagen

Probably catalyzes the removal of unsubstituted N-terminal amino acids from various peptides

Component of the cornified envelope of keratinocytes. May link the cornified envelope to desmosomes and intermediate filaments. May act as a localization signal in PKB/AKT-mediated signaling.

Transcriptional repressor which forms a core component of the circadian clock. The circadian clock, an internal time-keeping system, regulates various physiological processes through the generation of approximately 24 hour circadian rhythms in gene expression, which are translated into rhythms in metabolism and behavior. It is derived from the Latin roots 'circa' (about) and 'diem' (day) and acts as an important regulator of a wide array of physiological functions including metabolism, sleep, body temperature, blood pressure, endocrine, immune, cardiovascular, and renal function. Consists of two major components: the central clock, residing in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the brain, and the peripheral clocks that are present in nearly every tissue and organ system. Both the central and peripheral clocks can be reset by environmental cues, also known as Zeitgebers (German for 'timegivers'). The predominant Zeitgeber for the central clock is light, which is sensed by retina and signals directly to the SCN. The central clock entrains the peripheral clocks through neuronal and hormonal signals, body temperature and feeding-related cues, aligning all clocks with the external light/dark cycle. Circadian rhythms allow an organism to achieve temporal homeostasis with its environment at the molecular level by regulating gene expression to create a peak of protein expression once every 24 hours to control when a particular physiological process is most active with respect to the solar day. Transcription and translation of core clock components (CLOCK, NPAS2, BMAL1, BMAL2, PER1, PER2, PER3, CRY1 and CRY2) plays a critical role in rhythm generation, whereas delays imposed by post- translational modifications (PTMs) are important for determining the period (tau) of the rhythms (tau refers to the period of a rhythm and is the length, in time, of one complete cycle). A diurnal rhythm is synchronized with the day/night cycle, while the ultradian and infradian rhythms have a period shorter and longer than 24 hours, respectively. Disruptions in the circadian rhythms contribute to the pathology of cardiovascular diseases, cancer, metabolic syndromes and aging. A transcription/translation feedback loop (TTFL) forms the core of the molecular circadian clock mechanism. Transcription factors, CLOCK or NPAS2 and BMAL1 or BMAL2, form the positive limb of the feedback loop, act in the form of a heterodimer and activate the transcription of core clock genes and clock-controlled genes (involved in key metabolic processes), harboring E-box elements (5'-CACGTG-3') within their promoters. The core clock genes: PER1/2/3 and CRY1/2 which are transcriptional repressors form the negative limb of the feedback loop and interact with the CLOCK|NPAS2-BMAL1|BMAL2 heterodimer inhibiting its activity and thereby negatively regulating their own expression. This heterodimer also activates nuclear receptors NR1D1/2 and RORA/B/G, which form a second feedback loop and which activate and repress BMAL1 transcription, respectively. Regulates circadian target genes expression at post-transcriptional levels, but may not be required for the repression at transcriptional level. Controls PER2 protein decay. Represses CRY2 preventing its repression on CLOCK/BMAL1 target genes such as FXYD5 and SCNN1A in kidney and PPARA in liver. Besides its involvement in the maintenance of the circadian clock, has an important function in the regulation of several processes. Participates in the repression of glucocorticoid receptor NR3C1/GR- induced transcriptional activity by reducing the association of NR3C1/GR to glucocorticoid response elements (GREs) by BMAL1:CLOCK. Plays a role in the modulation of the neuroinflammatory state via the regulation of inflammatory mediators release, such as CCL2 and IL6. In spinal astrocytes, negatively regulates the MAPK14/p38 and MAPK8/JNK MAPK cascades as well as the subsequent activation of NFkappaB. Coordinately regulates the expression of multiple genes that are involved in the regulation of renal sodium reabsorption. Can act as gene expression activator in a gene and tissue specific manner, in kidney enhances WNK1 and SLC12A3 expression in collaboration with CLOCK. Modulates hair follicle cycling. Represses the CLOCK-BMAL1 induced transcription of BHLHE40/DEC1.

Transcriptional repressor which forms a core component of the circadian clock. The circadian clock, an internal time-keeping system, regulates various physiological processes through the generation of approximately 24 hour circadian rhythms in gene expression, which are translated into rhythms in metabolism and behavior. It is derived from the Latin roots 'circa' (about) and 'diem' (day) and acts as an important regulator of a wide array of physiological functions including metabolism, sleep, body temperature, blood pressure, endocrine, immune, cardiovascular, and renal function. Consists of two major components: the central clock, residing in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the brain, and the peripheral clocks that are present in nearly every tissue and organ system. Both the central and peripheral clocks can be reset by environmental cues, also known as Zeitgebers (German for 'timegivers'). The predominant Zeitgeber for the central clock is light, which is sensed by retina and signals directly to the SCN. The central clock entrains the peripheral clocks through neuronal and hormonal signals, body temperature and feeding-related cues, aligning all clocks with the external light/dark cycle. Circadian rhythms allow an organism to achieve temporal homeostasis with its environment at the molecular level by regulating gene expression to create a peak of protein expression once every 24 hours to control when a particular physiological process is most active with respect to the solar day. Transcription and translation of core clock components (CLOCK, NPAS2, BMAL1, BMAL2, PER1, PER2, PER3, CRY1 and CRY2) plays a critical role in rhythm generation, whereas delays imposed by post- translational modifications (PTMs) are important for determining the period (tau) of the rhythms (tau refers to the period of a rhythm and is the length, in time, of one complete cycle). A diurnal rhythm is synchronized with the day/night cycle, while the ultradian and infradian rhythms have a period shorter and longer than 24 hours, respectively. Disruptions in the circadian rhythms contribute to the pathology of cardiovascular diseases, cancer, metabolic syndrome and aging. A transcription/translation feedback loop (TTFL) forms the core of the molecular circadian clock mechanism. Transcription factors, CLOCK or NPAS2 and BMAL1 or BMAL2, form the positive limb of the feedback loop, act in the form of a heterodimer and activate the transcription of core clock genes and clock-controlled genes (involved in key metabolic processes), harboring E-box elements (5'-CACGTG-3') within their promoters. The core clock genes: PER1/2/3 and CRY1/2 which are transcriptional repressors form the negative limb of the feedback loop and interact with the CLOCK|NPAS2-BMAL1|BMAL2 heterodimer inhibiting its activity and thereby negatively regulating their own expression. This heterodimer also activates nuclear receptors NR1D1/2 and RORA/B/G, which form a second feedback loop and which activate and repress BMAL1 transcription, respectively. PER1 and PER2 proteins transport CRY1 and CRY2 into the nucleus with appropriate circadian timing, but also contribute directly to repression of clock-controlled target genes through interaction with several classes of RNA-binding proteins, helicases and others transcriptional repressors. PER appears to regulate circadian control of transcription by at least three different modes. First, interacts directly with the CLOCK-BMAL1 at the tail end of the nascent transcript peak to recruit complexes containing the SIN3-HDAC that remodel chromatin to repress transcription. Second, brings H3K9 methyltransferases such as SUV39H1 and SUV39H2 to the E-box elements of the circadian target genes, like PER2 itself or PER1. The recruitment of each repressive modifier to the DNA seems to be very precisely temporally orchestrated by the large PER complex, the deacetylases acting before than the methyltransferases. Additionally, large PER complexes are also recruited to the target genes 3' termination site through interactions with RNA-binding proteins and helicases that may play a role in transcription termination to regulate transcription independently of CLOCK-BMAL1 interactions. Recruitment of large PER complexes to the elongating polymerase at PER and CRY termination sites inhibited SETX action, impeding RNA polymerase II release and thereby repressing transcriptional reinitiation. May propagate clock information to metabolic pathways via the interaction with nuclear receptors. Coactivator of PPARA and corepressor of NR1D1, binds rhythmically at the promoter of nuclear receptors target genes like BMAL1 or G6PC1. Directly and specifically represses PPARG proadipogenic activity by blocking PPARG recruitment to target promoters and thereby inhibiting transcriptional activation. Required for fatty acid and lipid metabolism, is involved as well in the regulation of circulating insulin levels. Plays an important role in the maintenance of cardiovascular functions through the regulation of NO and vasodilatatory prostaglandins production in aortas. Controls circadian glutamate uptake in synaptic vesicles through the regulation of VGLUT1 expression. May also be involved in the regulation of inflammatory processes. Represses the CLOCK-BMAL1 induced transcription of BHLHE40/DEC1 and ATF4. Negatively regulates the formation of the TIMELESS-CRY1 complex by competing with TIMELESS for binding to CRY1.

Originally described as a core component of the circadian clock. The circadian clock, an internal time-keeping system, regulates various physiological processes through the generation of approximately 24 hour circadian rhythms in gene expression, which are translated into rhythms in metabolism and behavior. It is derived from the Latin roots 'circa' (about) and 'diem' (day) and acts as an important regulator of a wide array of physiological functions including metabolism, sleep, body temperature, blood pressure, endocrine, immune, cardiovascular, and renal function. Consists of two major components: the central clock, residing in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the brain, and the peripheral clocks that are present in nearly every tissue and organ system. Both the central and peripheral clocks can be reset by environmental cues, also known as Zeitgebers (German for 'timegivers'). The predominant Zeitgeber for the central clock is light, which is sensed by retina and signals directly to the SCN. The central clock entrains the peripheral clocks through neuronal and hormonal signals, body temperature and feeding-related cues, aligning all clocks with the external light/dark cycle. Circadian rhythms allow an organism to achieve temporal homeostasis with its environment at the molecular level by regulating gene expression to create a peak of protein expression once every 24 hours to control when a particular physiological process is most active with respect to the solar day. Transcription and translation of core clock components (CLOCK, NPAS2, BMAL1, BMAL2, PER1, PER2, PER3, CRY1 and CRY2) plays a critical role in rhythm generation, whereas delays imposed by post-translational modifications (PTMs) are important for determining the period (tau) of the rhythms (tau refers to the period of a rhythm and is the length, in time, of one complete cycle). A diurnal rhythm is synchronized with the day/night cycle, while the ultradian and infradian rhythms have a period shorter and longer than 24 hours, respectively. Disruptions in the circadian rhythms contribute to the pathology of cardiovascular diseases, cancer, metabolic syndromes and aging. A transcription/translation feedback loop (TTFL) forms the core of the molecular circadian clock mechanism. Transcription factors, CLOCK or NPAS2 and BMAL1 or BMAL2, form the positive limb of the feedback loop, act in the form of a heterodimer and activate the transcription of core clock genes and clock-controlled genes (involved in key metabolic processes), harboring E-box elements (5'-CACGTG-3') within their promoters. The core clock genes: PER1/2/3 and CRY1/2 which are transcriptional repressors form the negative limb of the feedback loop and interact with the CLOCK|NPAS2-BMAL1|BMAL2 heterodimer inhibiting its activity and thereby negatively regulating their own expression. This heterodimer also activates nuclear receptors NR1D1, NR1D2, RORA, RORB and RORG, which form a second feedback loop and which activate and repress BMAL1 transcription, respectively. Has a redundant role with the other PER proteins PER1 and PER2 and is not essential for the circadian rhythms maintenance. In contrast, plays an important role in sleep-wake timing and sleep homeostasis probably through the transcriptional regulation of sleep homeostasis-related genes, without influencing circadian parameters. Can bind heme.

Plays a critical role in intestinal function. Acts by promoting the development of enteroendocrine cells (EECs) of the gastrointestinal tract and pancreas (By similarity). It is thereby required for normal enteroendocrine peptide hormone secretion (By similarity).

Mediates tyrosine nitration of secondary granule proteins in mature resting eosinophils. Shows significant inhibitory activity towards Mycobacterium tuberculosis H37Rv by inducing bacterial fragmentation and lysis.

Pore-forming protein that plays a key role in granzyme- mediated programmed cell death, and in defense against virus-infected or neoplastic cells. Plays an important role in killing other cells that are recognized as non-self by the immune system, e.g. in transplant rejection or some forms of autoimmune disease. Can insert into the membrane of target cells in its calcium-bound form, oligomerize and form large pores. Promotes cytolysis and apoptosis of target cells by facilitating the uptake of cytotoxic granzymes. Promotes cytolysis and apoptosis of target cells by facilitating the uptake of cytotoxic granzymes. Perforin pores allow the release of mature caspase-7 (CASP7) into the extracellular milieu (By similarity).

Class-III neuronal intermediate filament protein (By similarity). May form an independent structural network without the involvement of other neurofilaments or may cooperate with the neuronal intermediate filament proteins NEFL, NEFH, NEFM and INA to form a filamentous network. Assembly of the neuronal intermediate filaments may be regulated by RAB7A (By similarity). Plays a role in the development of unmyelinated sensory neurons (By similarity). May be involved in axon elongation and axon regeneration after injury (By similarity). Inhibits neurite extension in type II spiral ganglion neurons in the cochlea (By similarity).

Heme-containing oxidoreductase which catalyzes the conversion of thiocyanate (SCN(-)) into antimicrobial agent hypothiocyanous acid (OSCN(-)) in the presence of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) (By similarity). Also involved in the conversion of iodide (I(-)) into hypoiodite (IO(-)) in the presence of H2O2 (By similarity). Responsible for the inactivation of a wide range of micro-organisms and hence, important component of defense mechanism. Shows antibacterial properties against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The lactoperoxidase-SCN(-)-H2O2 system shows antibacterial properties against Burkholderia cepacia and Haemophilus influenzae in vitro. Present in mammary and salivary gland secretions and may contribute to airway host defense against infection. May contribute to maintaining an appropriate H2O2 cellular level, therefore protecting cells from H2O2-caused injuries and inflammation (By similarity).

Regulates the expression of selective PPARGC1A/B and ESRRA/B/G target genes with roles in glucose and lipid metabolism, energy transfer, contractile function, muscle mitochondrial biogenesis and oxidative capacity. Required for the efficient induction of MT-CO2, MT-CO3, COX4I1, TFB1M, TFB2M, POLRMT and SIRT3 by PPARGC1A. Positively regulates the PPARGC1A/ESRRG-induced expression of CKMT2, TNNI3 and SLC2A4 and negatively regulates the PPARGC1A/ESRRG-induced expression of PDK4.

Part of the host defense system of polymorphonuclear leukocytes. It is responsible for microbicidal activity against a wide range of organisms. In the stimulated PMN, MPO catalyzes the production of hypohalous acids, primarily hypochlorous acid in physiologic situations, and other toxic intermediates that greatly enhance PMN microbicidal activity. Mediates the proteolytic cleavage of alpha-1-microglobulin to form t-alpha-1-microglobulin, which potently inhibits oxidation of low-density lipoprotein particles and limits vascular damage.

Component of intercellular desmosome junctions. Plays a role in stratified epithelial integrity and cell-cell adhesion by promoting desmosome assembly.

Iodination and coupling of the hormonogenic tyrosines in thyroglobulin to yield the thyroid hormones T(3) and T(4).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase component of a retrotranslocation channel required for peroxisome organization by mediating export of the PEX5 receptor from peroxisomes to the cytosol, thereby promoting PEX5 recycling. The retrotranslocation channel is composed of PEX2, PEX10 and PEX12; each subunit contributing transmembrane segments that coassemble into an open channel that specifically allows the passage of PEX5 through the peroxisomal membrane (By similarity). PEX10 also regulates PEX5 recycling by acting as a E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. When PEX5 recycling is compromised, PEX10 catalyzes polyubiquitination of PEX5 during its passage through the retrotranslocation channel, leading to its degradation (By similarity).

Component of a retrotranslocation channel required for peroxisome organization by mediating export of the PEX5 receptor from peroxisomes to the cytosol, thereby promoting PEX5 recycling. The retrotranslocation channel is composed of PEX2, PEX10 and PEX12; each subunit contributing transmembrane segments that coassemble into an open channel that specifically allows the passage of PEX5 through the peroxisomal membrane (By similarity). PEX12 also regulates PEX5 recycling by activating the E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity of PEX10. When PEX5 recycling is compromised, PEX12 stimulates PEX10-mediated polyubiquitination of PEX5, leading to its subsequent degradation (By similarity).

Component of the PEX13-PEX14 docking complex, a translocon channel that specifically mediates the import of peroxisomal cargo proteins bound to PEX5 receptor. The PEX13-PEX14 docking complex forms a large import pore which can be opened to a diameter of about 9 nm (By similarity). Mechanistically, PEX5 receptor along with cargo proteins associates with the PEX14 subunit of the PEX13-PEX14 docking complex in the cytosol, leading to the insertion of the receptor into the organelle membrane with the concomitant translocation of the cargo into the peroxisome matrix. Involved in the import of PTS1- and PTS2-type containing proteins.

Component of the PEX13-PEX14 docking complex, a translocon channel that specifically mediates the import of peroxisomal cargo proteins bound to PEX5 receptor. The PEX13-PEX14 docking complex forms a large import pore which can be opened to a diameter of about 9 nm (By similarity). Mechanistically, PEX5 receptor along with cargo proteins associates with the PEX14 subunit of the PEX13-PEX14 docking complex in the cytosol, leading to the insertion of the receptor into the organelle membrane with the concomitant translocation of the cargo into the peroxisome matrix. Plays a key role for peroxisome movement through a direct interaction with tubulin.

Required for peroxisome membrane biogenesis. May play a role in early stages of peroxisome assembly. Can recruit other peroxisomal proteins, such as PEX3 and PMP34, to de novo peroxisomes derived from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). May function as receptor for PEX3.

Necessary for early peroxisomal biogenesis. Acts both as a cytosolic chaperone and as an import receptor for peroxisomal membrane proteins (PMPs). Binds and stabilizes newly synthesized PMPs in the cytoplasm by interacting with their hydrophobic membrane-spanning domains, and targets them to the peroxisome membrane by binding to the integral membrane protein PEX3. Excludes CDKN2A from the nucleus and prevents its interaction with MDM2, which results in active degradation of TP53.

Component of the PEX1-PEX6 AAA ATPase complex, a protein dislocase complex that mediates the ATP-dependent extraction of the PEX5 receptor from peroxisomal membranes, an essential step for PEX5 recycling. Specifically recognizes PEX5 monoubiquitinated at 'Cys-11', and pulls it out of the peroxisome lumen through the PEX2-PEX10-PEX12 retrotranslocation channel. Extraction by the PEX1-PEX6 AAA ATPase complex is accompanied by unfolding of the TPR repeats and release of bound cargo from PEX5.

Peroxisomal docking factor that anchors PEX1 and PEX6 to peroxisome membranes. PEX26 is therefore required for the formation of the PEX1-PEX6 AAA ATPase complex, a complex that mediates the extraction of the PEX5 receptor from peroxisomal membrane.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase component of a retrotranslocation channel required for peroxisome organization by mediating export of the PEX5 receptor from peroxisomes to the cytosol, thereby promoting PEX5 recycling. The retrotranslocation channel is composed of PEX2, PEX10 and PEX12; each subunit contributing transmembrane segments that coassemble into an open channel that specifically allows the passage of PEX5 through the peroxisomal membrane (By similarity). PEX2 also regulates peroxisome organization by acting as a E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase (By similarity). PEX2 ubiquitinates PEX5 during its passage through the retrotranslocation channel: catalyzes monoubiquitination of PEX5 at 'Cys-11', a modification that acts as a signal for PEX5 extraction into the cytosol (By similarity). Required for pexophagy in response to starvation by mediating ubiquitination of peroxisomal proteins, such as PEX5 and ABCD3/PMP70. Also involved in the response to reactive oxygen species (ROS) by mediating 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination and subsequent degradation of PNPLA2/ATGL, thereby regulating lipolysis.

Involved in peroxisome biosynthesis and integrity. Assembles membrane vesicles before the matrix proteins are translocated. As a docking factor for PEX19, is necessary for the import of peroxisomal membrane proteins in the peroxisomes.

Accessory subunit of hyperpolarization-activated cyclic nucleotide-gated (HCN) channels, regulating their cell-surface expression and cyclic nucleotide dependence.

Receptor that mediates peroxisomal import of proteins containing a C-terminal PTS1-type tripeptide peroxisomal targeting signal (SKL-type). Binds to cargo proteins containing a PTS1 peroxisomal targeting signal in the cytosol, and translocates them into the peroxisome matrix by passing through the PEX13-PEX14 docking complex along with cargo proteins. PEX5 receptor is then retrotranslocated into the cytosol, leading to release of bound cargo in the peroxisome matrix, and reset for a subsequent peroxisome import cycle.

Component of the PEX1-PEX6 AAA ATPase complex, a protein dislocase complex that mediates the ATP-dependent extraction of the PEX5 receptor from peroxisomal membranes, an essential step for PEX5 recycling. Specifically recognizes PEX5 monoubiquitinated at 'Cys-11', and pulls it out of the peroxisome lumen through the PEX2- PEX10-PEX12 retrotranslocation channel. Extraction by the PEX1-PEX6 AAA ATPase complex is accompanied by unfolding of the TPR repeats and release of bound cargo from PEX5.

Receptor required for the peroxisomal import of proteins containing a C-terminal PTS2-type peroxisomal targeting signal. Specifically binds to cargo proteins containing a PTS2 peroxisomal targeting signal in the cytosol. Cargo protein-binding triggers interaction with PEX5 and formation of a ternary complex composed of PEX5 and PEX7 along with PTS2-containing cargo proteins, which is tranlocated into peroxisomes by passing through the PEX13-PEX14 docking complex.

Component of the BHC complex, a corepressor complex that represses transcription of neuron-specific genes in non-neuronal cells. The BHC complex is recruited at RE1/NRSE sites by REST and acts by deacetylating and demethylating specific sites on histones, thereby acting as a chromatin modifier. In the BHC complex, it may act as a scaffold. Inhibits KDM1A-mediated demethylation of 'Lys-4' of histone H3 in vitro, suggesting a role in demethylation regulation.

Receptor for prostaglandin F2-alpha (PGF2-alpha). The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. Initiates luteolysis in the corpus luteum (By similarity). Isoforms 2 to 7 do not bind PGF2-alpha but are proposed to modulate signaling by participating in variant receptor complexes; heterodimers between isoform 1 and isoform 5 are proposed to be a receptor for prostamides including the synthetic analog bimatoprost.

Inhibitor of angiogenesis. Inhibitor of endothelial cell chemotaxis (in vitro).

Binds specifically to cytosolic chaperonin (c-CPN) and transfers target proteins to it. Binds to nascent polypeptide chain and promotes folding in an environment in which there are many competing pathways for nonnative proteins

Binds specifically to cytosolic chaperonin (c-CPN) and transfers target proteins to it. Binds to nascent polypeptide chain and promotes folding in an environment in which there are many competing pathways for nonnative proteins.

Binds specifically to cytosolic chaperonin (c-CPN) and transfers target proteins to it. Binds to nascent polypeptide chain and promotes folding in an environment in which there are many competing pathways for nonnative proteins. Represses the transcriptional activity of MYC.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of D-fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate by ATP, the first committing step of glycolysis. Negatively regulates the phagocyte oxidative burst in response to bacterial infection by controlling cellular NADPH biosynthesis and NADPH oxidase-derived reactive oxygen species. Upon macrophage activation, drives the metabolic switch toward glycolysis, thus preventing glucose turnover that produces NADPH via pentose phosphate pathway (By similarity).

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of D-fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate by ATP, the first committing step of glycolysis

PA2 catalyzes the calcium-dependent hydrolysis of the 2-acyl groups in 3-sn-phosphoglycerides. Does not exhibit detectable activity toward sn-2-arachidonoyl- or linoleoyl-phosphatidylcholine or -phosphatidylethanolamine.

Catalyzes the interconversion of 2-phosphoglycerate and 3- phosphoglyceratea crucial step in glycolysis, by using 2,3- bisphosphoglycerate. Also catalyzes the interconversion of (2R)-2,3-bisphosphoglycerate and (2R)-3-phospho- glyceroyl phosphate.

Interconversion of 3- and 2-phosphoglycerate with 2,3- bisphosphoglycerate as the primer of the reaction. Can also catalyze the reaction of EC 5.4.2.4 (synthase), but with a reduced activity

Displays phosphatase activity for serine/threonine residues, and, dephosphorylates and activates MAP3K5 kinase. Has apparently no phosphoglycerate mutase activity. May be regulator of mitochondrial dynamics. Substrate for a KEAP1-dependent ubiquitin ligase complex. Contributes to the repression of NFE2L2-dependent gene expression. Acts as a central mediator for programmed necrosis induced by TNF, by reactive oxygen species and by calcium ionophore.

Involved in inositol deacylation of GPI-anchored proteins. GPI inositol deacylation may important for efficient transport of GPI- anchored proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi (By similarity).

Involved in the lipid remodeling steps of GPI-anchor maturation. Required for stable expression of GPI-anchored proteins at the cell surface.

Involved in the lipid remodeling steps of GPI-anchor maturation. Lipid remodeling steps consist in the generation of 2 saturated fatty chains at the sn-2 position of GPI-anchors proteins. Required for phospholipase A2 activity that removes an acyl-chain at the sn-2 position of GPI-anchors during the remodeling of GPI.

Golgi-resident glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI)-N- acetylgalactosamine transferase involved in the lipid remodeling steps of GPI-anchor maturation. Lipid remodeling steps consist in the generation of 2 saturated fatty chains at the sn-2 position of GPI- anchors proteins. Required for the initial step of GPI-GalNAc biosynthesis, transfers GalNAc to GPI in the Golgi after fatty acid remodeling by PGAP2.

Involved in the lipid remodeling steps of GPI-anchor maturation. Lipid remodeling steps consist in the generation of 2 saturated fatty chains at the sn-2 position of GPI-anchor proteins (GPI-AP). Has phospholipase A2 activity that removes an acyl-chain at the sn-2 position of GPI-anchors during the remodeling of GPI. Required for the shedding of the GPI-AP TDGF1, but not CFC1, at the cell surface. Shedding of TDGF1 modulates Nodal signaling by allowing soluble TDGF1 to act as a Nodal coreceptor on other cells. Also indirectly involved in the translocation of RAC1 from the cytosol to the plasma membrane by maintaining the steady state amount of CAV1-enriched plasma membrane subdomains, stabilizing RAC1 at the plasma membrane. In contrast to myomaker (TMEM8C), has no fusogenic activity.

Transposase that mediates sequence-specific genomic rearrangements. Can induce genomic rearrangements that inactivate the HPRT1 gene.

Integral component of basement membranes. Component of the glomerular basement membrane (GBM), responsible for the fixed negative electrostatic membrane charge, and which provides a barrier which is both size- and charge-selective. It serves as an attachment substrate for cells. Plays essential roles in vascularization. Critical for normal heart development and for regulating the vascular response to injury. Also required for avascular cartilage development

May play a role in the terminally differentiating and the adult nervous system during postnatal development. Could stabilize interactions between hyaluronan (HA) and brain proteoglycans

Catalyzes the NAD-dependent dehydrogenation (oxidation) of a broad array of hydroxylated polyunsaturated fatty acids (mainly eicosanoids and docosanoids, including prostaglandins, lipoxins and resolvins), yielding their corresponding keto (oxo) metabolites. Decreases the levels of the pro- proliferative prostaglandins such as prostaglandin E2 (whose activity is increased in cancer because of an increase in the expression of cyclooxygenase 2) and generates oxo-fatty acid products that can profoundly influence cell function by abrogating pro-inflammatory cytokine expression. Converts resolvins E1, D1 and D2 to their oxo products, which represents a mode of resolvin inactivation. Resolvin E1 plays important roles during the resolution phase of acute inflammation, while resolvins D1 and D2 have a unique role in obesity-induced adipose inflammation.

Isomerase that catalyzes the conversion of PGH2 into the more stable prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) (in vitro). The biological function and the GSH- dependent property of PTGES2 is still under debate. In vivo, PTGES2 could form a complex with GSH and heme and would not participate in PGE2 synthesis but would catalyze the degradation of prostaglandin E2 H2 (PGH2) to 12(S)-hydroxy- 5(Z),8(E),10(E)-heptadecatrienoic acid (HHT) and malondialdehyde (MDA) (By similarity).

Tyrosine-protein kinase that acts as a cell-surface receptor for PDGFA, PDGFB and PDGFC and plays an essential role in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation, survival and chemotaxis. Depending on the context, promotes or inhibits cell proliferation and cell migration. Plays an important role in the differentiation of bone marrow-derived mesenchymal stem cells. Required for normal skeleton development and cephalic closure during embryonic development. Required for normal development of the mucosa lining the gastrointestinal tract, and for recruitment of mesenchymal cells and normal development of intestinal villi. Plays a role in cell migration and chemotaxis in wound healing. Plays a role in platelet activation, secretion of agonists from platelet granules, and in thrombin-induced platelet aggregation. Binding of its cognate ligands - homodimeric PDGFA, homodimeric PDGFB, heterodimers formed by PDGFA and PDGFB or homodimeric PDGFC -leads to the activation of several signaling cascades; the response depends on the nature of the bound ligand and is modulated by the formation of heterodimers between PDGFRA and PDGFRB. Phosphorylates PIK3R1, PLCG1, and PTPN11. Activation of PLCG1 leads to the production of the cellular signaling molecules diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate, mobilization of cytosolic Ca(2+) and the activation of protein kinase C. Phosphorylates PIK3R1, the regulatory subunit of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase, and thereby mediates activation of the AKT1 signaling pathway. Mediates activation of HRAS and of the MAP kinases MAPK1/ERK2 and/or MAPK3/ERK1. Promotes activation of STAT family members STAT1, STAT3 and STAT5A and/or STAT5B. Receptor signaling is down-regulated by protein phosphatases that dephosphorylate the receptor and its down-stream effectors, and by rapid internalization of the activated receptor.

Tyrosine-protein kinase that acts as cell-surface receptor for homodimeric PDGFB and PDGFD and for heterodimers formed by PDGFA and PDGFB, and plays an essential role in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation, survival, differentiation, chemotaxis and migration. Plays an essential role in blood vessel development by promoting proliferation, migration and recruitment of pericytes and smooth muscle cells to endothelial cells. Plays a role in the migration of vascular smooth muscle cells and the formation of neointima at vascular injury sites. Required for normal development of the cardiovascular system. Required for normal recruitment of pericytes (mesangial cells) in the kidney glomerulus, and for normal formation of a branched network of capillaries in kidney glomeruli. Promotes rearrangement of the actin cytoskeleton and the formation of membrane ruffles. Binding of its cognate ligands - homodimeric PDGFB, heterodimers formed by PDGFA and PDGFB or homodimeric PDGFD -leads to the activation of several signaling cascades; the response depends on the nature of the bound ligand and is modulated by the formation of heterodimers between PDGFRA and PDGFRB. Phosphorylates PLCG1, PIK3R1, PTPN11, RASA1/GAP, CBL, SHC1 and NCK1. Activation of PLCG1 leads to the production of the cellular signaling molecules diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate, mobilization of cytosolic Ca(2+) and the activation of protein kinase C. Phosphorylation of PIK3R1, the regulatory subunit of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase, leads to the activation of the AKT1 signaling pathway. Phosphorylation of SHC1, or of the C-terminus of PTPN11, creates a binding site for GRB2, resulting in the activation of HRAS, RAF1 and down-stream MAP kinases, including MAPK1/ERK2 and/or MAPK3/ERK1. Promotes phosphorylation and activation of SRC family kinases. Promotes phosphorylation of PDCD6IP/ALIX and STAM. Receptor signaling is down-regulated by protein phosphatases that dephosphorylate the receptor and its down-stream effectors, and by rapid internalization of the activated receptor.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of glucose from the disaccharide unit linked to hydroxylysine residues of collagen and collagen-like proteins.

Dual cyclooxygenase and peroxidase in the biosynthesis pathway of prostanoids, a class of C20 oxylipins mainly derived from arachidonate, with a particular role in the inflammatory response. The cyclooxygenase activity oxygenates arachidonate (AA, C20:4(n-6)) to the hydroperoxy endoperoxide prostaglandin G2 (PGG2), and the peroxidase activity reduces PGG2 to the hydroxy endoperoxide PGH2, the precursor of all 2-series prostaglandins and thromboxanes. This complex transformation is initiated by abstraction of hydrogen at carbon 13 (with S-stereochemistry), followed by insertion of molecular O2 to form the endoperoxide bridge between carbon 9 and 11 that defines prostaglandins. The insertion of a second molecule of O2 (bis-oxygenase activity) yields a hydroperoxy group in PGG2 that is then reduced to PGH2 by two electrons. Involved in the constitutive production of prostanoids in particular in the stomach and platelets. In gastric epithelial cells, it is a key step in the generation of prostaglandins, such as prostaglandin E2 (PGE2), which plays an important role in cytoprotection. In platelets, it is involved in the generation of thromboxane A2 (TXA2), which promotes platelet activation and aggregation, vasoconstriction and proliferation of vascular smooth muscle cells (Probable).

Dual cyclooxygenase and peroxidase in the biosynthesis pathway of prostanoids, a class of C20 oxylipins mainly derived from arachidonate, with a particular role in the inflammatory response. The cyclooxygenase activity oxygenates arachidonate (AA, C20:4(n-6)) to the hydroperoxy endoperoxide prostaglandin G2 (PGG2), and the peroxidase activity reduces PGG2 to the hydroxy endoperoxide PGH2, the precursor of all 2-series prostaglandins and thromboxanes. This complex transformation is initiated by abstraction of hydrogen at carbon 13 (with S-stereochemistry), followed by insertion of molecular O2 to form the endoperoxide bridge between carbon 9 and 11 that defines prostaglandins. The insertion of a second molecule of O2 (bis-oxygenase activity) yields a hydroperoxy group in PGG2 that is then reduced to PGH2 by two electrons. Similarly catalyzes successive cyclooxygenation and peroxidation of dihomo-gamma-linoleate (DGLA, C20:3(n-6)) and eicosapentaenoate (EPA, C20:5(n-3)) to corresponding PGH1 and PGH3, the precursors of 1- and 3- series prostaglandins. In an alternative pathway of prostanoid biosynthesis, converts 2-arachidonoyl lysophopholipids to prostanoid lysophopholipids, which are then hydrolyzed by intracellular phospholipases to release free prostanoids. Metabolizes 2-arachidonoyl glycerol yielding the glyceryl ester of PGH2, a process that can contribute to pain response. Generates lipid mediators from n-3 and n-6 polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) via a lipoxygenase-type mechanism. Oxygenates PUFAs to hydroperoxy compounds and then reduces them to corresponding alcohols. Plays a role in the generation of resolution phase interaction products (resolvins) during both sterile and infectious inflammation. Metabolizes docosahexaenoate (DHA, C22:6(n-3)) to 17R-HDHA, a precursor of the D- series resolvins (RvDs). As a component of the biosynthetic pathway of E-series resolvins (RvEs), converts eicosapentaenoate (EPA, C20:5(n-3)) primarily to 18S-HEPE that is further metabolized by ALOX5 and LTA4H to generate 18S-RvE1 and 18S- RvE2. In vascular endothelial cells, converts docosapentaenoate (DPA, C22:5(n-3)) to 13R-HDPA, a precursor for 13- series resolvins (RvTs) shown to activate macrophage phagocytosis during bacterial infection. In activated leukocytes, contributes to oxygenation of hydroxyeicosatetraenoates (HETE) to diHETES (5,15-diHETE and 5,11-diHETE). During neuroinflammation, plays a role in neuronal secretion of specialized preresolving mediators (SPMs) 15R-lipoxin A4 that regulates phagocytic microglia (By similarity).

Catalyzes one of the two ATP producing reactions in the glycolytic pathway via the reversible conversion of 1,3- diphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate. In addition to its role as a glycolytic enzyme, it seems that PGK-1 acts as a polymerase alpha cofactor protein (primer recognition protein). May play a role in sperm motility.

Essential for sperm motility and male fertility. Not required for the completion of spermatogenesis (By similarity).

Dual specificity glycosyltransferase that catalyzes the transfer of glucose and xylose from UDP-glucose and UDP-xylose, respectively, to a serine residue found in the consensus sequence of C- X-S-X-P-C. Specifically targets extracellular EGF repeats of protein such as CRB2, F7, F9 and NOTCH2. Acts as a positive regulator of Notch signaling by mediating O-glucosylation of Notch, leading to regulate muscle development. Notch glucosylation does not affect Notch ligand binding. Required during early development to promote gastrulation: acts by mediating O-glucosylation of CRB2, which is required for CRB2 localization to the cell membrane (By similarity).

This enzyme participates in both the breakdown and synthesis of glucose.

Glucose 1,6-bisphosphate synthase using 1,3- bisphosphoglycerate as a phosphate donor and a series of 1-phosphate sugars, including glucose 1-phosphate, mannose 1-phosphate, ribose 1- phosphate and deoxyribose 1-phosphate, as acceptors. In vitro, also exhibits very low phosphopentomutase and phosphoglucomutase activity which are most probably not physiologically relevant.

Catalyzes the conversion of the nucleoside breakdown products ribose-1-phosphate and deoxyribose-1-phosphate to the corresponding 5- phosphopentoses. Catalyzes the interconversion of glucose-1-phosphate into glucose-6-phosphate but with a lower catalytic efficiency. In vitro, has also a low glucose 1,6-bisphosphate synthase activity which is most probably not physiologically relevant.

Component of adherens-type cell-cell and cell-matrix junctions. Has no phosphoglucomutase activity in vitro.

Removes 5-oxoproline from various penultimate amino acid residues except L-proline.

Functions in the biosynthesis of the anionic phospholipids phosphatidylglycerol and cardiolipin.

Glycerol-3-phosphate phosphatase hydrolyzing glycerol-3- phosphate into glycerol. Thereby, regulates the cellular levels of glycerol-3-phosphate a metabolic intermediate of glucose, lipid and energy metabolism. Was also shown to have a 2-phosphoglycolate phosphatase activity and a tyrosine-protein phosphatase activity. However, their physiological relevance is unclear. In vitro, has also a phosphatase activity toward ADP, ATP, GDP and GTP (By similarity).

Component of a progesterone-binding protein complex. Binds progesterone. Has many reported cellular functions (heme homeostasis, interaction with CYPs). Required for the maintenance of uterine histoarchitecture and normal female reproductive lifespan (By similarity). Intracellular heme chaperone. Regulates heme synthesis via interactions with FECH and acts as a heme donor for at least some hemoproteins.

Required for the maintenance of uterine histoarchitecture and normal female reproductive lifespan (By similarity). May serve as a universal non-classical progesterone receptor in the uterus (Probable). Intracellular heme chaperone required for delivery of labile, or signaling heme, to the nucleus (By similarity). Plays a role in adipocyte function and systemic glucose homeostasis. In brown fat, which has a high demand for heme, delivery of labile heme in the nucleus regulates the activity of heme-responsive transcriptional repressors such as NR1D1 and BACH1 (By similarity).

Innate immunity protein that plays several important functions in antimicrobial and antitumor defense systems. Acts as a pattern receptor that binds to murein peptidoglycans (PGN) of Gram- positive bacteria and thus provides bactericidal activity. Forms an equimolar complex with heat shock protein HSPA1A and induces programmed cell death through apoptosis and necroptosis in tumor cell lines by activating the TNFR1 receptor on the target cell membrane. In addition, acts in complex with the Ca(2+)-binding protein S100A4 as a chemoattractant able to induce lymphocyte movement. Mechanistically, this complex acts as a ligand of the chemotactic receptors CCR5 and CXCR3 which are present on the cells of the immune system. Promotes also the activation of lymphocytes that become able to kill virus-infected cells as well as tumor cells by modulating the spectrum of their target-cell specificity. Induction of cytotoxicity on monocyte surface requires interaction with TREM1 receptor.

May play a scavenger role by digesting biologically active peptidoglycan (PGN) into biologically inactive fragments. Has no direct bacteriolytic activity.

Pattern receptor that binds to murein peptidoglycans (PGN) of Gram-positive bacteria. Has bactericidal activity towards Gram-positive bacteria. May kill Gram-positive bacteria by interfering with peptidoglycan biosynthesis. Binds also to Gram-negative bacteria, and has bacteriostatic activity towards Gram-negative bacteria. Plays a role in innate immunity.

Catalyzes the transfer of a geranylgeranyl moiety from geranylgeranyl diphosphate to both cysteines of Rab proteins with the C-terminal sequence -XXCC, -XCXC and -CCXX, such as RAB1A, RAB3A, RAB5A and RAB7A.

Catalyzes the transfer of a geranyl-geranyl moiety from geranyl-geranyl pyrophosphate to a cysteine at the fourth position from the C-terminus of proteins having the C-terminal sequence Cys- aliphatic-aliphatic-X. Known substrates include RAC1, RAC2, RAP1A and RAP1B.

Plays a regulatory role in autophagic activity. In complex with BCAS3, associates with the autophagosome formation site during both non-selective and selective autophagy.

Negatively regulates TCR (T-cell antigen receptor)-mediated signaling in T-cells and FCER1 (high affinity immunoglobulin epsilon receptor)-mediated signaling in mast cells. Promotes CSK activation and recruitment to lipid rafts, which results in LCK inhibition. Inhibits immunological synapse formation by preventing dynamic arrangement of lipid raft proteins. May be involved in cell adhesion signaling.

Binds actin monomers (G actin) and plays a role in multiple processes including the regulation of actin cytoskeleton dynamics, actin stress fibers formation, cell motility and survival, formation of tubules by endothelial cells, and regulation of PPP1CA activity. Involved in the regulation of cortical neuron migration and dendrite arborization (By similarity).

Regulator of protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) required for neural tube and optic fissure closure, and enteric neural crest cell (ENCCs) migration during development. Acts as an activator of PP1 by interacting with PPP1CA and preventing phosphorylation of PPP1CA at 'Thr-320'. During neural tube closure, localizes to the ventral neural tube and activates PP1, leading to down-regulate cell proliferation within cranial neural tissue and the neural retina. Also acts as a regulator of migration of enteric neural crest cells (ENCCs) by activating PP1, leading to dephosphorylation and subsequent activation of cofilin (COF1 or COF2) and repression of the integrin signaling through the RHO/ROCK pathway (By similarity).

A phosphoprotein adapter involved in the XPO1-mediated U snRNA export from the nucleus. Bridge components required for U snRNA export, the cap binding complex (CBC)-bound snRNA on the one hand and the GTPase Ran in its active GTP-bound form together with the export receptor XPO1 on the other. Its phosphorylation in the nucleus is required for U snRNA export complex assembly and export, while its dephosphorylation in the cytoplasm causes export complex disassembly. It is recycled back to the nucleus via the importin alpha/beta heterodimeric import receptor. The directionality of nuclear export is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus. Its compartmentalized phosphorylation cycle may also contribute to the directionality of export. Binds strongly to m7G-capped U1 and U5 small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs) in a sequence-unspecific manner and phosphorylation-independent manner (By similarity). Also plays a role in the biogenesis of U3 small nucleolar RNA (snoRNA). Involved in the U3 snoRNA transport from nucleoplasm to Cajal bodies. Binds strongly to m7G-capped U3, U8 and U13 precursor snoRNAs and weakly to trimethylated (TMG)-capped U3, U8 and U13 snoRNAs. Binds also to telomerase RNA.

Protein with pleiotropic attributes mediated in a cell- compartment- and tissue-specific manner, which include the plasma membrane-associated cell signaling functions, mitochondrial chaperone, and transcriptional co-regulator of transcription factors in the nucleus. Plays a role in adipose tissue and glucose homeostasis in a sex-specific manner (By similarity). Contributes to pulmonary vascular remodeling by accelerating proliferation of pulmonary arterial smooth muscle cells (By similarity).

Protein with pleiotropic attributes mediated in a cell- compartment- and tissue-specific manner, which include the plasma membrane-associated cell signaling functions, mitochondrial chaperone, and transcriptional co-regulator of transcription factors and sex steroid hormones in the nucleus.

Component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1 complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones; it mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119', rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility. Required for proper control of cellular levels of GMNN expression.

Component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1 complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones; it mediates monoubiquitination of histone H2A 'Lys-119', rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility

Peptidase that cleaves SIBLING (small integrin-binding ligand, N-linked glycoprotein)-derived ASARM peptides, thus regulating their biological activity. Cleaves ASARM peptides between Ser and Glu or Asp residues. Regulates osteogenic cell differentiation and bone mineralization through the cleavage of the MEPE-derived ASARM peptide. Promotes dentin mineralization and renal phosphate reabsorption by cleaving DMP1- and MEPE-derived ASARM peptides. Inhibits the cleavage of MEPE by CTSB/cathepsin B thus preventing MEPE degradation.

Involved in transcription activity regulation by chromatin remodeling. Belongs to the neural progenitors-specific chromatin remodeling complex (npBAF complex) and is required for the proliferation of neural progenitors. During neural development a switch from a stem/progenitor to a post-mitotic chromatin remodeling mechanism occurs as neurons exit the cell cycle and become committed to their adult state. The transition from proliferating neural stem/progenitor cells to post-mitotic neurons requires a switch in subunit composition of the npBAF and nBAF complexes. As neural progenitors exit mitosis and differentiate into neurons, npBAF complexes which contain ACTL6A/BAF53A and PHF10/BAF45A, are exchanged for homologous alternative ACTL6B/BAF53B and DPF1/BAF45B or DPF3/BAF45C subunits in neuron- specific complexes (nBAF). The npBAF complex is essential for the self- renewal/proliferative capacity of the multipotent neural stem cells. The nBAF complex along with CREST plays a role regulating the activity of genes essential for dendrite growth (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional repressor. Involved in recruitment of functional SIN3A complexes to DNA. Represses transcription at least in part through the activity of an associated histone deacetylase (HDAC). May also repress transcription in a SIN3A-independent manner through recruitment of functional TLE5 complexes to DNA.

Modulates chromatin structure. Required for normal chromosome condensation during the early stages of mitosis. Required for normal chromosome separation during mitosis.

Histone-binding protein. Binds preferentially to unmodified histone H3 but can also bind to a lesser extent to histone H3 trimethylated at 'Lys-9' (H3K9me3) as well as to histone H3 monomethylated at 'Lys-27' (H3K27ac) and trimethylated at 'Lys-27' (H3K27me3) (By similarity). Represses PDGFRA expression, thus playing a role in regulation of mesenchymal cell proliferation (By similarity). Suppresses the expression of CDKN1A/p21 by reducing the level of trimethylation of histone H3 'Lys-4', leading to enhanced proliferation of germinal center B cells (By similarity).

Polycomb group (PcG) protein that specifically binds histone H3 trimethylated at 'Lys-36' (H3K36me3) and recruits the PRC2 complex, thus enhancing PRC2 H3K27me3 methylation activity. Probably involved in the transition from an active state to a repressed state in embryonic stem cells: acts by binding to H3K36me3, a mark for transcriptional activation, and recruiting H3K36me3 histone demethylases RIOX1 or KDM2B, leading to demethylation of H3K36 and recruitment of the PRC2 complex that mediates H3K27me3 methylation, followed by de novo silencing. Recruits the PRC2 complex to CpG islands and contributes to embryonic stem cell self- renewal. Also binds histone H3 dimethylated at 'Lys-36' (H3K36me2). Isoform 1 and isoform 2 inhibit transcription from an HSV-tk promoter.

Polycomb group (PcG) that specifically binds histone H3 trimethylated at 'Lys-36' (H3K36me3) and recruits the PRC2 complex. Involved in DNA damage response and is recruited at double-strand breaks (DSBs). Acts by binding to H3K36me3, a mark for transcriptional activation, and recruiting the PRC2 complex: it is however unclear whether recruitment of the PRC2 complex to H3K36me3 leads to enhance or inhibit H3K27me3 methylation mediated by the PRC2 complex. According to some reports, PRC2 recruitment by PHF1 promotes H3K27me3 and subsequent gene silencing by inducing spreading of PRC2 and H3K27me3 into H3K36me3 loci (PubMed:18285464 and PubMed:23273982). According to another report, PHF1 recruits the PRC2 complex at double-strand breaks (DSBs) and inhibits the activity of PRC2. Regulates p53/TP53 stability and prolonges its turnover: may act by specifically binding to a methylated from of p53/TP53.

Methyllysine-binding protein, component of the MOF histone acetyltransferase protein complex. Not required for maintaining the global histone H4 'Lys-16' acetylation (H4K16ac) levels or locus specific histone acetylation, but instead works downstream in transcriptional regulation of MOF target genes (By similarity). As part of the NSL complex it may be involved in acetylation of nucleosomal histone H4 on several lysine residues. Contributes to methyllysine- dependent p53/TP53 stabilization and up-regulation after DNA damage.

Acts as a negative regulator of autophagy, through promoting ubiquitination and degradation of LRSAM1, an E3 ubiquitin ligase that promotes autophagy in response to starvation or infecting bacteria.

Lysine demethylase that demethylates both histones and non- histone proteins. Enzymatically inactive by itself, and becomes active following phosphorylation by PKA: forms a complex with ARID5B and mediates demethylation of methylated ARID5B. Demethylation of ARID5B leads to target the PHF2-ARID5B complex to target promoters, where PHF2 mediates demethylation of dimethylated 'Lys-9' of histone H3 (H3K9me2), followed by transcription activation of target genes. The PHF2-ARID5B complex acts as a coactivator of HNF4A in liver. PHF2 is recruited to trimethylated 'Lys-4' of histone H3 (H3K4me3) at rDNA promoters and promotes expression of rDNA. Involved in the activation of toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4)-target inflammatory genes in macrophages by catalyzing the demethylation of trimethylated histone H4 lysine 20 (H4K20me3) at the gene promoters (By similarity).

Involved with the PAF1 complex (PAF1C) in transcriptional elongation by RNA polymerase II, and in regulation of development and maintenance of embryonic stem cell (ESC) pluripotency. Required for maintenance of ESCs self-renewal and cellular reprogramming of stem cells. Maintains pluripotency by recruiting and stabilizing PAF1C on pluripotency genes loci, and by regulating the expression of the pluripotency genes. Regulates the deposition of elongation-associated histone modifications, including dimethylated histone H3 'Lys-79' (H3K79me2) and trimethylated histone H3 'Lys-36' (H3K36me3), on PAF1C targets, self-renewal and pluripotency genes. Regulates RNA polymerase II promoter-proximal pause release of the PAF1C targets and self- renewal genes, and the levels of elongating ('Ser-2' phosphorylated) RNA polymerase II in their gene bodies. Regulates muscle specification in adult stem cells by stabilizing PAF1C in chromatin to promote myogenic differentiation (By similarity). Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the splicing factor SF3B complex. SF3B complex is required for 'A' complex assembly formed by the stable binding of U2 snRNP to the branchpoint sequence (BPS) in pre-mRNA. Sequence independent binding of SF3A/SF3B complex upstream of the branch site is essential, it may anchor U2 snRNP to the pre-mRNA. Acts as a transcriptional regulator by binding to the GJA1/Cx43 promoter and enhancing its up-regulation by ESR1/ER-alpha (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator that associates with ribosomal RNA promoters and suppresses ribosomal RNA (rRNA) transcription.

Histone lysine demethylase with selectivity for the di- and monomethyl states that plays a key role cell cycle progression, rDNA transcription and brain development. Demethylates mono- and dimethylated histone H3 'Lys-9' residue (H3K9Me1 and H3K9Me2), dimethylated H3 'Lys-27' (H3K27Me2) and monomethylated histone H4 'Lys- 20' residue (H4K20Me1). Acts as a transcription activator as H3K9Me1, H3K9Me2, H3K27Me2 and H4K20Me1 are epigenetic repressive marks. Involved in cell cycle progression by being required to control G1-S transition. Acts as a coactivator of rDNA transcription, by activating polymerase I (pol I) mediated transcription of rRNA genes. Required for brain development, probably by regulating expression of neuron-specific genes. Only has activity toward H4K20Me1 when nucleosome is used as a substrate and when not histone octamer is used as substrate. May also have weak activity toward dimethylated H3 'Lys-36' (H3K36Me2), however, the relevance of this result remains unsure in vivo. Specifically binds trimethylated 'Lys-4' of histone H3 (H3K4me3), affecting histone demethylase specificity: has weak activity toward H3K9Me2 in absence of H3K4me3, while it has high activity toward H3K9me2 when binding H3K4me3. Positively modulates transcription of histone demethylase KDM5C, acting synergistically with transcription factor ARX; synergy may be related to enrichment of histone H3K4me3 in regulatory elements.

Probable regulator of the insulin and insulin-like growth factor signaling pathways. Stimulates cell proliferation through regulation of cyclin transcription and has an anti-apoptotic activity through AKT1 phosphorylation and activation. Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization.

Catalytic subunit of the phosphorylase b kinase (PHK), which mediates the neural and hormonal regulation of glycogen breakdown (glycogenolysis) by phosphorylating and thereby activating glycogen phosphorylase. In vitro, phosphorylates PYGM, TNNI3, MAPT/TAU, GAP43 and NRGN/RC3 (By similarity).

Catalytic subunit of the phosphorylase b kinase (PHK), which mediates the neural and hormonal regulation of glycogen breakdown (glycogenolysis) by phosphorylating and thereby activating glycogen phosphorylase. May regulate glycogeneolysis in the testis. In vitro, phosphorylates PYGM (By similarity).

Plays a role in regulating placenta growth. May act via its PH domain that competes with other PH domain-containing proteins, thereby preventing their binding to membrane lipids (By similarity).

p53/TP53-regulated repressor of Akt/AKT1 signaling. Represses AKT1 by preventing AKT1-binding to membrane lipids, thereby inhibiting AKT1 translocation to the cellular membrane and activation. Contributes to p53/TP53-dependent apoptosis by repressing AKT1 activity. Its direct transcription regulation by p53/TP53 may explain how p53/TP53 can negatively regulate AKT1. May act as a tumor suppressor.

Seems to be involved in the assembly of the postsynaptic apparatus. May play a role in acetyl-choline receptor (AChR) aggregation in the postsynaptic membrane (By similarity).

This protein hydrolyzes the inositol phosphate linkage in proteins anchored by phosphatidylinositol glycans (GPI-anchor) thus releasing these proteins from the membrane

Protein phosphatase involved in regulation of Akt and PKC signaling. Mediates dephosphorylation in the C-terminal domain hydrophobic motif of members of the AGC Ser/Thr protein kinase family; specifically acts on 'Ser-473' of AKT2 and AKT3, 'Ser-660' of PRKCB and 'Ser-657' of PRKCA. Isoform 2 seems to have a major role in regulating Akt signaling in hippocampal neurons (By similarity). Akt regulates the balance between cell survival and apoptosis through a cascade that primarily alters the function of transcription factors that regulate pro- and antiapoptotic genes. Dephosphorylation of 'Ser-473' of Akt triggers apoptosis and suppression of tumor growth. Dephosphorylation of PRKCA and PRKCB leads to their destabilization and degradation. Dephosphorylates STK4 on 'Thr-387' leading to STK4 activation and apoptosis. Dephosphorylates RPS6KB1 and is involved in regulation of cap-dependent translation. Inhibits cancer cell proliferation and may act as a tumor suppressor. Dephosphorylates RAF1 inhibiting its kinase activity. May act as a negative regulator of K-Ras signaling in membrane rafts (By similarity). Involved in the hippocampus- dependent long-term memory formation (By similarity). Involved in circadian control by regulating the consolidation of circadian periodicity after resetting (By similarity). Involved in development and function of regulatory T-cells (By similarity).

Protein phosphatase involved in regulation of Akt and PKC signaling. Mediates dephosphorylation in the C-terminal domain hydrophobic motif of members of the AGC Ser/Thr protein kinase family; specifically acts on 'Ser-473' of AKT1, 'Ser-660' of PRKCB isoform beta-II and 'Ser-657' of PRKCA. Akt regulates the balance between cell survival and apoptosis through a cascade that primarily alters the function of transcription factors that regulate pro- and antiapoptotic genes. Dephosphorylation of 'Ser-473' of Akt triggers apoptosis and decreases cell proliferation. Also controls the phosphorylation of AKT3. Dephosphorylates STK4 on 'Thr-387' leading to STK4 activation and apoptosis. Dephosphorylates RPS6KB1 and is involved in regulation of cap-dependent translation. Inhibits cancer cell proliferation and may act as a tumor suppressor. Dephosphorylation of PRKCA and PRKCB leads to their destabilization and degradation. Dephosphorylates RAF1 inhibiting its kinase activity.

Acts as a positive regulator of hedgehog signaling and regulates ciliary function.

May play a role in membrane trafficking, specifically in membrane budding reactions.

Phosphatase that has a high activity toward phosphoethanolamine (PEA) and phosphocholine (PCho). Involved in the generation of inorganic phosphate for bone mineralization (By similarity). Acts in a non-redundant manner with PHOSPHO1 in skeletal mineralization: while PHOSPHO1 mediates the initiation of hydroxyapatite crystallization in the matrix vesicles (MVs), ALPL/TNAP catalyzes the spread of hydroxyapatite crystallization in the extracellular matrix (By similarity).

Phosphatase that has high activity toward pyridoxal 5'- phosphate (PLP). Also active at much lower level toward pyrophosphate, phosphoethanolamine (PEA), phosphocholine (PCho), phospho-l-tyrosine, fructose-6-phosphate, p-nitrophenyl phosphate, and h-glycerophosphate.

May participate in the regulation of visual phototransduction or in the integration of photoreceptor metabolism. Inhibits the transcriptional activation activity of the cone-rod homeobox CRX.

Involved in tetrahydrobiopterin biosynthesis. Seems to both prevent the formation of 7-pterins and accelerate the formation of quinonoid-BH2 (By similarity).

Involved in tetrahydrobiopterin biosynthesis (By similarity). Seems to both prevent the formation of 7-pterins and accelerate the formation of quinonoid-BH2. Coactivator for HNF1A-dependent transcription (By similarity). Regulates the dimerization of homeodomain protein HNF1A and enhances its transcriptional activity (By similarity). Also acts as a coactivator for HNF1B-dependent transcription.

May be involved in regulating the specificity of expression of the catecholamine biosynthetic genes. Acts as a transcription activator/factor. Could maintain the noradrenergic phenotype

Involved in the development of several major noradrenergic neuron populations, including the locus coeruleus. Transcription factor which could determine a neurotransmitter phenotype in vertebrates. Enhances second-messenger-mediated activation of the dopamine beta- hydrolase and c-fos promoters, and of several enhancers including cAMP- response element and serum-response element

2-oxoglutarate(2OG)-dependent dioxygenase that catalyzes the conversion of 2-oxoglutarate to succinate and CO(2) in an iron- dependent manner. However, does not couple 2OG turnover to the hydroxylation of acyl-coenzyme A derivatives, implying that it is not directly involved in phytanoyl coenzyme-A metabolism. Does not show detectable activity towards fatty acid CoA thioesters.

Its interaction with PHYH suggests a role in the development of the central system

Serine protease inhibitor which displays weak inhibitory activity against trypsin. May play a role in facial patterning during embryonic development (By similarity).

Receptor for prostacyclin (prostaglandin I2 or PGI2). The activity of this receptor is mediated by G(s) proteins which activate adenylate cyclase

Regulatory subunit of the PI3K complex that mediates formation of phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate; different complex forms are believed to play a role in multiple membrane trafficking pathways: PI3KC3-C1 is involved in initiation of autophagosomes and PI3KC3-C2 in maturation of autophagosomes and endocytosis. Involved in regulation of degradative endocytic trafficking and cytokinesis, probably in the context of PI3KC3-C2.

Regulatory subunit of the PI3K gamma complex. Required for recruitment of the catalytic subunit to the plasma membrane via interaction with beta-gamma G protein dimers. Required for G protein- mediated activation of PIK3CG (By similarity).

Regulatory subunit of the PI3K gamma complex. Acts as an adapter to drive activation of PIK3CG by beta-gamma G protein dimers. The PIK3CG:PIK3R6 heterodimer is much less sensitive to beta-gamma G protein dimers than PIK3CG:PIK3R5 and its membrane recruitment and beta-gamma G protein dimer-dependent activation requires HRAS bound to PIK3CG. Recruits of the PI3K gamma complex to a PDE3B:RAPGEF3 signaling complex involved in angiogenesis; signaling seems to involve RRAS.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of phosphatidylinositol 5- phosphate (PtdIns5P) on the fourth hydroxyl of the myo-inositol ring, to form phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2). Has both ATP- and GTP-dependent kinase activities. May exert its function by regulating the levels of PtdIns5P, which functions in the cytosol by increasing AKT activity and in the nucleus signals through ING2. May regulate the pool of cytosolic PtdIns5P in response to the activation of tyrosine phosphorylation (By similarity). Required for lysosome-peroxisome membrane contacts and intracellular cholesterol transport through modulating peroxisomal PtdIns(4,5)P2 level. In collaboration with PIP4K2B, has a role in mediating autophagy in times of nutrient stress (By similarity). Required for autophagosome-lysosome fusion and the regulation of cellular lipid metabolism. May be involved in thrombopoiesis, and the terminal maturation of megakaryocytes and regulation of their size (By similarity). Negatively regulates insulin signaling through a catalytic-independent mechanism. PIP4Ks interact with PIP5Ks and suppress PIP5K-mediated PtdIns(4,5)P2 synthesis and insulin-dependent conversion to PtdIns(3,4,5)P3.

Participates in the biosynthesis of phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate. Preferentially utilizes GTP, rather than ATP, for PI(5)P phosphorylation and its activity reflects changes in direct proportion to the physiological GTP concentration. Its GTP-sensing activity is critical for metabolic adaptation. PIP4Ks negatively regulate insulin signaling through a catalytic-independent mechanism. They interact with PIP5Ks and suppress PIP5K-mediated PtdIns(4,5)P2 synthesis and insulin-dependent conversion to PtdIns(3,4,5)P3.

Phosphatidylinositol 5-phosphate 4-kinase with low enzymatic activity. May be a GTP sensor, has higher GTP-dependent kinase activity than ATP-dependent kinase activity. PIP4Ks negatively regulate insulin signaling through a catalytic-independent mechanism. They interact with PIP5Ks and suppress PIP5K-mediated PtdIns(4,5)P2 synthesis and insulin- dependent conversion to PtdIns(3,4,5)P3.

Acts on phosphatidylinositol (PtdIns) in the first committed step in the production of the second messenger inositol-1,4,5,- trisphosphate.

Phosphorylates phosphatidylinositol (PI) in the first committed step in the production of the second messenger inositol- 1,4,5,-trisphosphate (PIP). May regulate Golgi disintegration/reorganization during mitosis, possibly via its phosphorylation. Involved in Golgi-to-plasma membrane trafficking (By similarity).

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of phosphatidylinositol 4- phosphate (PtdIns(4)P/PI4P) to form phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2/PIP2), a lipid second messenger that regulates several cellular processes such as signal transduction, vesicle trafficking, actin cytoskeleton dynamics, cell adhesion, and cell motility. PtdIns(4,5)P2 can directly act as a second messenger or can be utilized as a precursor to generate other second messengers: inositol 1,4,5- trisphosphate (IP3), diacylglycerol (DAG) or phosphatidylinositol- 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4,5)P3/PIP3). PIP5K1A-mediated phosphorylation of PtdIns(4)P is the predominant pathway for PtdIns(4,5)P2 synthesis (By similarity). Can also use phosphatidylinositol (PtdIns) as substrate in vitro. Together with PIP5K1C, is required for phagocytosis, both enzymes regulating different types of actin remodeling at sequential steps (By similarity). Promotes particle ingestion by activating the WAS GTPase-binding protein that induces Arp2/3 dependent actin polymerization at the nascent phagocytic cup (By similarity). Together with PIP5K1B, is required, after stimulation by G-protein coupled receptors, for the synthesis of IP3 that will induce stable platelet adhesion (By similarity). Recruited to the plasma membrane by the E-cadherin/beta-catenin complex where it provides the substrate PtdIns(4,5)P2 for the production of PtdIns(3,4,5)P3, IP3 and DAG, that will mobilize internal calcium and drive keratinocyte differentiation. Positively regulates insulin-induced translocation of SLC2A4 to the cell membrane in adipocytes (By similarity). Together with PIP5K1C has a role during embryogenesis (By similarity). Independently of its catalytic activity, is required for membrane ruffling formation, actin organization and focal adhesion formation during directional cell migration by controlling integrin-induced translocation of the small GTPase RAC1 to the plasma membrane. Also functions in the nucleus where it acts as an activator of TUT1 adenylyltransferase activity in nuclear speckles, thereby regulating mRNA polyadenylation of a select set of mRNAs.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of phosphatidylinositol 4- phosphate (PtdIns(4)P/PI4P) to form phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2/PIP2), a lipid second messenger that regulates several cellular processes such as signal transduction, vesicle trafficking, actin cytoskeleton dynamics, cell adhesion, and cell motility (By similarity). PtdIns(4,5)P2 can directly act as a second messenger or can be utilized as a precursor to generate other second messengers: inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3), diacylglycerol (DAG) or phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4,5)P3/PIP3) (By similarity). Mediates RAC1-dependent reorganization of actin filaments. Contributes to the activation of phospholipase PLD2. Together with PIP5K1A, is required, after stimulation by G-protein coupled receptors, for the synthesis of IP3 that will induce stable platelet adhesion (By similarity).

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of phosphatidylinositol 4- phosphate (PtdIns(4)P/PI4P) to form phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2/PIP2), a lipid second messenger that regulates several cellular processes such as signal transduction, vesicle trafficking, actin cytoskeleton dynamics, cell adhesion, and cell motility. PtdIns(4,5)P2 can directly act as a second messenger or can be utilized as a precursor to generate other second messengers: inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3), diacylglycerol (DAG) or phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4,5)P3/PIP3) (Probable). PIP5K1A-mediated phosphorylation of PtdIns(4)P is the predominant pathway for PtdIns(4,5)P2 synthesis (By similarity). Together with PIP5K1A, is required for phagocytosis, both enzymes regulating different types of actin remodeling at sequential steps (By similarity). Promotes particle attachment by generating the pool of PtdIns(4,5)P2 that induces controlled actin depolymerization to facilitate Fc-gamma-R clustering. Mediates RAC1-dependent reorganization of actin filaments. Required for synaptic vesicle transport (By similarity). Controls the plasma membrane pool of PtdIns(4,5)P2 implicated in synaptic vesicle endocytosis and exocytosis. Plays a role in endocytosis mediated by clathrin and AP-2 (adaptor protein complex 2). Required for clathrin-coated pits assembly at the synapse. Participates in cell junction assembly. Modulates adherens junctions formation by facilitating CDH1/cadherin trafficking. Required for focal adhesion dynamics. Modulates the targeting of talins (TLN1 and TLN2) to the plasma membrane and their efficient assembly into focal adhesions. Regulates the interaction between talins (TLN1 and TLN2) and beta-integrins. Required for uropodium formation and retraction of the cell rear during directed migration (By similarity). Has a role in growth factor-stimulated directional cell migration and adhesion (By similarity). Required for talin assembly into nascent adhesions forming at the leading edge toward the direction of the growth factor. Negative regulator of T-cell activation and adhesion (By similarity). Negatively regulates integrin alpha-L/beta-2 (LFA-1) polarization and adhesion induced by T-cell receptor (By similarity). Together with PIP5K1A has a role during embryogenesis and together with PIP5K1B may have a role immediately after birth (By similarity).

May act as a scaffold to localize and regulate type I PI(4)P 5-kinases to specific compartments within the cell, where they generate PI(4,5)P2 for actin nucleation, signaling and scaffold protein recruitment and conversion to PI(3,4,5)P3.

Inositol 5-phosphatase, which converts inositol 1,4,5- trisphosphate to inositol 1,4-bisphosphate. Also converts phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate to phosphatidylinositol 4- phosphate and inositol 1,3,4,5-tetrakisphosphate to inositol 1,3,4- trisphosphate in vitro. May be involved in modulation of the function of inositol and phosphatidylinositol polyphosphate-binding proteins that are present at membranes ruffles (By similarity).

Acts as a ligand for PILRA in neural tissues, where it may be involved in immune regulation.

Functions as an E3-type small ubiquitin-like modifier (SUMO) ligase, stabilizing the interaction between UBE2I and the substrate, and as a SUMO-tethering factor. Plays a crucial role as a transcriptional coregulation in various cellular pathways, including the STAT pathway, the p53 pathway and the steroid hormone signaling pathway. In vitro, binds A/T-rich DNA. The effects of this transcriptional coregulation, transactivation or silencing, may vary depending upon the biological context. Sumoylates PML (at'Lys-65' and 'Lys-160') and PML-RAR and promotes their ubiquitin-mediated degradation. PIAS1-mediated sumoylation of PML promotes its interaction with CSNK2A1/CK2 which in turn promotes PML phosphorylation and degradation (By similarity). Enhances the sumoylation of MTA1 and may participate in its paralog-selective sumoylation. Plays a dynamic role in adipogenesis by promoting the SUMOylation and degradation of CEBPB (By similarity).

Functions as an E3-type small ubiquitin-like modifier (SUMO) ligase, stabilizing the interaction between UBE2I and the substrate, and as a SUMO-tethering factor. Plays a crucial role as a transcriptional coregulator in various cellular pathways, including the STAT pathway, the p53 pathway and the steroid hormone signaling pathway. The effects of this transcriptional coregulation, transactivation or silencing may vary depending upon the biological context and the PIAS2 isoform studied. However, it seems to be mostly involved in gene silencing. Binds to sumoylated ELK1 and enhances its transcriptional activity by preventing recruitment of HDAC2 by ELK1, thus reversing SUMO-mediated repression of ELK1 transactivation activity. Isoform PIAS2-beta, but not isoform PIAS2-alpha, promotes MDM2 sumoylation. Isoform PIAS2-alpha promotes PARK7 sumoylation. Isoform PIAS2-beta promotes NCOA2 sumoylation more efficiently than isoform PIAS2-alpha. Isoform PIAS2-alpha sumoylates PML at'Lys-65' and 'Lys-160'.

Functions as an E3-type small ubiquitin-like modifier (SUMO) ligase, stabilizing the interaction between UBE2I and the substrate, and as a SUMO-tethering factor. Plays a crucial role as a transcriptional coregulation in various cellular pathways, including the STAT pathway and the steroid hormone signaling pathway. Involved in regulating STAT3 signaling via inhibiting STAT3 DNA-binding and suppressing cell growth. Enhances the sumoylation of MTA1 and may participate in its paralog-selective sumoylation. Sumoylates CCAR2 which promotes its interaction with SIRT1. Diminishes the sumoylation of ZFHX3 by preventing the colocalization of ZFHX3 with SUMO1 in the nucleus.

Functions as an E3-type small ubiquitin-like modifier (SUMO) ligase, stabilizing the interaction between UBE2I and the substrate, and as a SUMO-tethering factor. Mediates sumoylation of CEBPA, PARK7, HERC2, MYB, TCF4 and RNF168. Plays a crucial role as a transcriptional coregulation in various cellular pathways, including the STAT pathway, the p53/TP53 pathway, the Wnt pathway and the steroid hormone signaling pathway. Involved in gene silencing. In Wnt signaling, represses LEF1 and enhances TCF4 transcriptional activities through promoting their sumoylations. Enhances the sumoylation of MTA1 and may participate in its paralog-selective sumoylation. Binds to AT-rich DNA sequences, known as matrix or scaffold attachment regions (MARs/SARs) (By similarity). Catalyzes conjugation of SUMO2 to KAT5 in response to DNA damage, facilitating repair of DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) via homologous recombination (HR). Mediates sumoylation of PARP1 in response to PARP1 trapping to chromatin.

Cytoplasmic adapter protein that plays a critical role in clathrin-mediated endocytosis which is important in processes such as internalization of cell receptors, synaptic transmission or removal of apoptotic cells. Recruits AP-2 and attaches clathrin triskelions to the cytoplasmic side of plasma membrane leading to clathrin-coated vesicles (CCVs) assembly. Furthermore, regulates clathrin-coated vesicle size and maturation by directly sensing and driving membrane curvature. In addition to binding to clathrin, mediates the endocytosis of small R- SNARES (Soluble NSF Attachment Protein REceptors) between plasma membranes and endosomes including VAMP2, VAMP3, VAMP4, VAMP7 or VAMP8. In turn, PICALM- dependent SNARE endocytosis is required for the formation and maturation of autophagic precursors. Modulates thereby autophagy and the turnover of autophagy substrates such as MAPT/TAU or amyloid precursor protein cleaved C-terminal fragment (APP- CTF).

Probable adapter protein that bind to and organize the subcellular localization of a variety of membrane proteins containing some PDZ recognition sequence. Involved in the clustering of various receptors, possibly by acting at the receptor internalization level. Plays a role in synaptic plasticity by regulating the trafficking and internalization of AMPA receptors. May be regulated upon PRKCA activation. May regulate ASIC1/ASIC3 channel. Regulates actin polymerization by inhibiting the actin-nucleating activity of the Arp2/3 complex; the function is competitive with nucleation promoting factors and is linked to neuronal morphology regulation and AMPA receptor (AMPAR) endocytosis. Via interaction with the Arp2/3 complex involved in regulation of synaptic plasicity of excitatory synapses and required for spine shrinkage during long-term depression (LTD). Involved in regulation of astrocyte morphology, antagonistic to Arp2/3 complex activator WASL/N-WASP function.

Component of the DNA damage/stress response pathway that functions downstream of p53/TP53 and can either promote cell survival or apoptosis. Associated with CRADD and the CASP2 caspase, it forms the PIDDosome a complex that activates CASP2 and triggers apoptosis. Associated with IKBKG and RIPK1, it enhances sumoylation and ubiquitination of IKBKG which is important for activation of the transcription factor NF-kappa-B.

Pore-forming subunit of a mechanosensitive non-specific cation channel. Generates currents characterized by a linear current-voltage relationship that are sensitive to ruthenium red and gadolinium. Plays a key role in epithelial cell adhesion by maintaining integrin activation through R- Ras recruitment to the ER, most probably in its activated state, and subsequent stimulation of calpain signaling. In the kidney, may contribute to the detection of intraluminal pressure changes and to urine flow sensing. Acts as shear-stress sensor that promotes endothelial cell organization and alignment in the direction of blood flow through calpain activation. Plays a key role in blood vessel formation and vascular structure in both development and adult physiology (By similarity). Acts as sensor of phosphatidylserine (PS) flipping at the plasma membrane and governs morphogenesis of muscle cells. In myoblasts, flippase-mediated PS enrichment at the inner leaflet of plasma membrane triggers channel activation and Ca2+ influx followed by Rho GTPases signal transduction, leading to assembly of cortical actomyosin fibers and myotube formation.

DNA-dependent ATPase and 5'-3' DNA helicase required for the maintenance of both mitochondrial and nuclear genome stability. Efficiently unwinds G-quadruplex (G4) DNA structures and forked RNA-DNA hybrids. Resolves G4 structures, preventing replication pausing and double-strand breaks (DSBs) at G4 motifs. Involved in the maintenance of telomeric DNA. Inhibits telomere elongation, de novo telomere formation and telomere addition to DSBs via catalytic inhibition of telomerase. Reduces the processivity of telomerase by displacing active telomerase from DNA ends. Releases telomerase by unwinding the short telomerase RNA/telomeric DNA hybrid that is the intermediate in the telomerase reaction. Possesses an intrinsic strand annealing activity.

During primary cilia disassembly, involved in cilia disassembly. Required specifically to control cilia retraction as well as the liberation and duplication of the basal body/centrosome. May act by stimulating AURKA activity at the basal body in a cell cycle- dependent manner.

Catalytic subunit of the glycosylphosphatidylinositol-N- acetylglucosaminyltransferase (GPI-GnT) complex that catalyzes the transfer of N-acetylglucosamine from UDP-N-acetylglucosamine to phosphatidylinositol and participates in the first step of GPI biosynthesis.

Mannosyltransferase involved in glycosylphosphatidylinositol- anchor biosynthesis. Transfers the third alpha-1,2-mannose to Man2- GlcN-acyl-PI during GPI precursor assembly.

Part of the glycosylphosphatidylinositol-N- acetylglucosaminyltransferase (GPI-GnT) complex that catalyzes the transfer of N-acetylglucosamine from UDP-N-acetylglucosamine to phosphatidylinositol and participates in the first step of GPI biosynthesis.

Involved in GPI-anchor biosynthesis. It acts through the transfer of ethanolamine phosphate to the third mannose of GPI.

Ethanolamine phosphate transferase involved in glycosylphosphatidylinositol-anchor biosynthesis. Transfers ethanolamine phosphate to the GPI second mannose.

Involved in the second step of GPI biosynthesis. De-N- acetylation of N-acetylglucosaminyl-phosphatidylinositol

Mannosyltransferase involved in glycosylphosphatidylinositol- anchor biosynthesis. Transfers the first alpha-1,4-mannose to GlcN- acyl-PI during GPI precursor assembly.

Ethanolamine phosphate transferase involved in glycosylphosphatidylinositol-anchor biosynthesis. Transfers ethanolamine phosphate to the first alpha-1,4-linked mannose of the glycosylphosphatidylinositol precursor of GPI-anchor (By similarity). May act as suppressor of replication stress and chromosome missegregation.

Ethanolamine phosphate transferase involved in glycosylphosphatidylinositol-anchor biosynthesis. Transfers ethanolamine phosphate to the GPI third mannose which links the GPI- anchor to the C-terminus of the proteins by an amide bond.

[Polymeric immunoglobulin receptor]: Mediates selective transcytosis of polymeric IgA and IgM across mucosal epithelial cells. Binds polymeric IgA and IgM at the basolateral surface of epithelial cells. The complex is then transported across the cell to be secreted at the apical surface. During this process, a cleavage occurs that separates the extracellular (known as the secretory component) from the transmembrane segment.

Component of the GPI transamidase complex. Essential for transfer of GPI to proteins, particularly for formation of carbonyl intermediates.

Component of the GPI transamidase complex. May be involved in the recognition of either the GPI attachment signal or the lipid portion of GPI.

Alpha-1,6-mannosyltransferase involved in glycosylphosphatidylinositol-anchor biosynthesis. Transfers the second mannose to the glycosylphosphatidylinositol during GPI precursor assembly.

Required for the transport of GPI-anchored proteins to the plasma membrane. Probable acetyltransferase, which acetylates the inositol ring of phosphatidylinositol during biosynthesis of GPI-anchor. Acetylation during GPI-anchor biosynthesis is not essential for the subsequent mannosylation and is usually removed soon after the attachment of GPIs to proteins (By similarity).

Essential component of glycosylphosphatidylinositol- mannosyltransferase 1 which transfers the first of the 4 mannoses in the GPI-anchor precursors during GPI-anchor biosynthesis. Probably acts by stabilizing the mannosyltransferase PIGM (By similarity).

Part of the glycosylphosphatidylinositol-N- acetylglucosaminyltransferase (GPI-GnT) complex that catalyzes the transfer of N-acetylglucosamine from UDP-N-acetylglucosamine to phosphatidylinositol and participates in the first step of GPI biosynthesis. May act by regulating the catalytic subunit PIGA.

Mannosyltransferase involved in glycosylphosphatidylinositol- anchor biosynthesis. Transfers a fourth mannose to some trimannosyl- GPIs during GPI precursor assembly. The presence of a fourth mannose in GPI is facultative and only scarcely detected, suggesting that it only exists in some tissues.

Involved in the assembly of C/D box small nucleolar ribonucleoprotein (snoRNP) particles. Recruits the SWI/SNF complex to the core promoter of rRNA genes and enhances pre- rRNA transcription. Mediates interaction of TELO2 with the R2TP complex which is necessary for the stability of MTOR and SMG1. Positively regulates the assembly and activity of the mTORC1 complex.

Paired receptors consist of highly related activating and inhibitory receptors and are widely involved in the regulation of the immune system. PILRA is thought to act as a cellular signaling inhibitory receptor by recruiting cytoplasmic phosphatases like PTPN6/SHP-1 and PTPN11/SHP-2 via their SH2 domains that block signal transduction through dephosphorylation of signaling molecules. Receptor for PIANP.

Paired receptors consist of highly related activating and inhibitory receptors and are widely involved in the regulation of the immune system. PILRB is thought to act as a cellular signaling activating receptor that associates with ITAM-bearing adapter molecules on the cell surface

Proto-oncogene with serine/threonine kinase activity involved in cell survival and cell proliferation and thus providing a selective advantage in tumorigenesis. Exerts its oncogenic activity through: the regulation of MYC transcriptional activity, the regulation of cell cycle progression and by phosphorylation and inhibition of proapoptotic proteins (BAD, MAP3K5, FOXO3). Phosphorylation of MYC leads to an increase of MYC protein stability and thereby an increase of transcriptional activity. The stabilization of MYC exerted by PIM1 might explain partly the strong synergism between these two oncogenes in tumorigenesis. Mediates survival signaling through phosphorylation of BAD, which induces release of the anti-apoptotic protein Bcl- X(L)/BCL2L1. Phosphorylation of MAP3K5, another proapoptotic protein, by PIM1, significantly decreases MAP3K5 kinase activity and inhibits MAP3K5-mediated phosphorylation of JNK and JNK/p38MAPK subsequently reducing caspase-3 activation and cell apoptosis. Stimulates cell cycle progression at the G1-S and G2-M transitions by phosphorylation of CDC25A and CDC25C. Phosphorylation of CDKN1A, a regulator of cell cycle progression at G1, results in the relocation of CDKN1A to the cytoplasm and enhanced CDKN1A protein stability. Promotes cell cycle progression and tumorigenesis by down-regulating expression of a regulator of cell cycle progression, CDKN1B, at both transcriptional and post- translational levels. Phosphorylation of CDKN1B, induces 14-3-3 proteins binding, nuclear export and proteasome-dependent degradation. May affect the structure or silencing of chromatin by phosphorylating HP1 gamma/CBX3. Acts also as a regulator of homing and migration of bone marrow cells involving functional interaction with the CXCL12- CXCR4 signaling axis. Also phosphorylates and activates the ATP-binding cassette transporter ABCG2, allowing resistance to drugs through their excretion from cells. Promotes brown adipocyte differentiation (By similarity).

Proto-oncogene with serine/threonine kinase activity involved in cell survival and cell proliferation. Exerts its oncogenic activity through: the regulation of MYC transcriptional activity, the regulation of cell cycle progression, the regulation of cap-dependent protein translation and through survival signaling by phosphorylation of a pro- apoptotic protein, BAD. Phosphorylation of MYC leads to an increase of MYC protein stability and thereby an increase transcriptional activity. The stabilization of MYC exerted by PIM2 might explain partly the strong synergism between these 2 oncogenes in tumorigenesis. Regulates cap-dependent protein translation in a mammalian target of rapamycin complex 1 (mTORC1)-independent manner and in parallel to the PI3K-Akt pathway. Mediates survival signaling through phosphorylation of BAD, which induces release of the anti-apoptotic protein Bcl-X(L)/BCL2L1. Promotes cell survival in response to a variety of proliferative signals via positive regulation of the I-kappa-B kinase/NF-kappa-B cascade; this process requires phosphorylation of MAP3K8/COT. Promotes growth factor-independent proliferation by phosphorylation of cell cycle factors such as CDKN1A and CDKN1B. Involved in the positive regulation of chondrocyte survival and autophagy in the epiphyseal growth plate.

Proto-oncogene with serine/threonine kinase activity that can prevent apoptosis, promote cell survival and protein translation. May contribute to tumorigenesis through: the delivery of survival signaling through phosphorylation of BAD which induces release of the anti- apoptotic protein Bcl-X(L), the regulation of cell cycle progression, protein synthesis and by regulation of MYC transcriptional activity. Additionally to this role on tumorigenesis, can also negatively regulate insulin secretion by inhibiting the activation of MAPK1/3 (ERK1/2), through SOCS6. Involved also in the control of energy metabolism and regulation of AMPK activity in modulating MYC and PPARGC1A protein levels and cell growth.

During mitosis, may play a role in the control of metaphase- to-anaphase transition.

Initiates the repair of damaged proteins by catalyzing methyl esterification of L-isoaspartyl and D-aspartyl residues produced by spontaneous isomerization and racemization of L-aspartyl and L- asparaginyl residues in aging peptides and proteins. Acts on EIF4EBP2, microtubule-associated protein 2, calreticulin, clathrin light chains a and b, Ubiquitin C-terminal hydrolase isozyme L1, phosphatidylethanolamine-binding protein 1, stathmin, beta-synuclein and alpha-synuclein (By similarity).

Peptidyl-prolyl cis/trans isomerase (PPIase) that binds to and isomerizes specific phosphorylated Ser/Thr-Pro (pSer/Thr-Pro) motifs. By inducing conformational changes in a subset of phosphorylated proteins, acts as a molecular switch in multiple cellular processes. Displays a preference for acidic residues located N-terminally to the proline bond to be isomerized. Regulates mitosis presumably by interacting with NIMA and attenuating its mitosis-promoting activity. Down-regulates kinase activity of BTK. Can transactivate multiple oncogenes and induce centrosome amplification, chromosome instability and cell transformation. Required for the efficient dephosphorylation and recycling of RAF1 after mitogen activation. Binds and targets PML and BCL6 for degradation in a phosphorylation-dependent manner. Acts as a regulator of JNK cascade by binding to phosphorylated FBXW7, disrupting FBXW7 dimerization and promoting FBXW7 autoubiquitination and degradation: degradation of FBXW7 leads to subsequent stabilization of JUN. May facilitate the ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of RBBP8/CtIP through CUL3/KLHL15 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex, hence favors DNA double-strand repair through error-prone non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) over error-free, RBBP8-mediated homologous recombination (HR). Upon IL33-induced lung inflammation, catalyzes cis-trans isomerization of phosphorylated IRAK3/IRAK-M, inducing IRAK3 stabilization, nuclear translocation and expression of pro-inflammatory genes in dendritic cells.

Isoform 1 is involved as a ribosomal RNA processing factor in ribosome biogenesis. Binds to tightly bent AT-rich stretches of double- stranded DNA.

Transcriptional activator binding to the E-box 1 core sequence of the E-cadherin promoter gene; the core-binding sequence is 5'CAGGTG-3'. Capable of reversing CTBP1-mediated transcription repression. Auxiliary component of the splicing-dependent multiprotein exon junction complex (EJC) deposited at splice junction on mRNAs. The EJC is a dynamic structure consisting of core proteins and several peripheral nuclear and cytoplasmic associated factors that join the complex only transiently either during EJC assembly or during subsequent mRNA metabolism. Participates in the regulation of alternative pre-mRNA splicing. Associates to spliced mRNA within 60 nt upstream of the 5'-splice sites. Component of the PSAP complex which binds RNA in a sequence-independent manner and is proposed to be recruited to the EJC prior to or during the splicing process and to regulate specific excision of introns in specific transcription subsets. Involved in the establishment and maintenance of epithelia cell-cell adhesion. Potential tumor suppressor for renal cell carcinoma.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase which protects against mitochondrial dysfunction during cellular stress by phosphorylating mitochondrial proteins such as PRKN and DNM1L, to coordinate mitochondrial quality control mechanisms that remove and replace dysfunctional mitochondrial components. Depending on the severity of mitochondrial damage and/or dysfunction, activity ranges from preventing apoptosis and stimulating mitochondrial biogenesis to regulating mitochondrial dynamics and eliminating severely damaged mitochondria via mitophagy. Mediates the translocation and activation of PRKN at the outer membrane (OMM) of dysfunctional/depolarized mitochondria. At the OMM of damaged mitochondria, phosphorylates pre-existing polyubiquitin chains at 'Ser-65', the PINK1-phosphorylated polyubiquitin then recruits PRKN from the cytosol to the OMM where PRKN is fully activated by phosphorylation at 'Ser-65' by PINK1. In damaged mitochondria, mediates the decision between mitophagy or preventing apoptosis by promoting PRKN-dependent poly- or monoubiquitination of VDAC1; polyubiquitination of VDAC1 by PRKN promotes mitophagy, while monoubiquitination of VDAC1 by PRKN decreases mitochondrial calcium influx which ultimately inhibits apoptosis. When cellular stress results in irreversible mitochondrial damage, functions with PRKN to promote clearance of damaged mitochondria via selective autophagy (mitophagy). The PINK1-PRKN pathway also promotes fission of damaged mitochondria by phosphorylating and thus promoting the PRKN-dependent degradation of mitochondrial proteins involved in fission such as MFN2. This prevents the refusion of unhealthy mitochondria with the mitochondrial network or initiates mitochondrial fragmentation facilitating their later engulfment by autophagosomes. Also promotes mitochondrial fission independently of PRKN and ATG7-mediated mitophagy, via the phosphorylation and activation of DNM1L. Regulates motility of damaged mitochondria by promoting the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of MIRO1 and MIRO2; in motor neurons, this likely inhibits mitochondrial intracellular anterograde transport along the axons which probably increases the chance of the mitochondria undergoing mitophagy in the soma. Required for ubiquinone reduction by mitochondrial complex I by mediating phosphorylation of complex I subunit NDUFA10 (By similarity).

Microtubule-binding protein essential for faithful chromosome segregation. Mediates TRF1 and TERT accumulation in nucleolus and enhances TRF1 binding to telomeres. Inhibits telomerase activity. May inhibit cell proliferation and act as tumor suppressor.

Plays a role in regulation of the unfolded protein response triggered by endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress resulting from the presence of unfolded proteins in the ER lumen.

Promotes the association of the proteasome activator complex subunit PSME3 with the 20S proteasome and regulates its activity. Inhibits PSME3-mediated degradation of some proteasome substrates, probably by affecting their diffusion rate into the catalytic chamber of the proteasome. Also inhibits the interaction of PSME3 with COIL, inhibits accumulation of PSME3 in Cajal bodies and positively regulates the number of Cajal bodies in the nucleus.

Catalyzes the transfer of phosphatidylinositol (PI) and phosphatidylcholine (PC) between membranes. Shows a preference for PI and PC containing shorter saturated or monosaturated acyl chains at the sn-1 and sn-2 positions. Preference order for PC is C16:1 > C16:0 > C18:1 > C18:0 > C20:4 and for PI is C16:1 > C16:0 > C18:1 > C18:0 > C20:4 > C20:3.

Catalyzes the transfer of phosphatidylinositol and phosphatidylcholine between membranes. Also catalyzes the transfer of sphingomyelin (By similarity). Required for COPI-mediated retrograde transport from the Golgi to the endoplasmic reticulum; phosphatidylinositol and phosphatidylcholine transfer activity is essential for this function.

Microtubule inner protein involved in the attachment of outer dynein arms (ODAs) to dynein-decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia axoneme, which is required for motile cilia beating. Functions at the initial step of left-right asymmetry specification of the visceral organs.

Microtubule inner protein involved in the attachment of outer dynein arms (ODAs) to dynein-decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia axoneme, which is required for motile cilia beating.

Regulatory subunit of TRPV1, a molecular sensor of noxious heat and capsaicin. Positively regulates TRPV1 channel activity via phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2). Binds various phosphoinositide, including phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2), but not phosphatidylinositol (PI) (By similarity).

Transcriptional coregulator of NF-kappa-B which facilitates binding of NF-kappa-B proteins to target kappa-B genes in a redox- state-dependent manner. May be required for efficient terminal myeloid maturation of hematopoietic cells. Has quercetin 2,3-dioxygenase activity (in vitro).

Catalyzes the formation of phosphatidylethanolamine (PtdEtn) from phosphatidylserine (PtdSer). Plays a central role in phospholipid metabolism and in the interorganelle trafficking of phosphatidylserine. May be involved in lipid droplet biogenesis at the endoplasmic reticulum membrane (By similarity).

Transcription factor involved in the specification of the lactotrope, somatotrope, and thyrotrope phenotypes in the developing anterior pituitary. Specifically binds to the consensus sequence 5'- TAAAT-3'. Activates growth hormone and prolactin genes.

[Isoform 1]: Catalyzes the transfer of phosphatidylinositol (PI) and phosphatidic acid (PA) between membranes. Binds PA derived from the phospholipase D signaling pathway and among the cellular PA species, preferably binds to the C16:0/16:1 and C16:1/18:1 PA species.

Promotes megakaryocyte differentiation by up-regulating RUNX1 expression. Regulates RUNX1 expression by activating the proximal promoter of the RUNX1 gene and by enhancing the translation activity of an internal ribosome entry site (IRES) element in the RUNX1 gene.

Catalyzes the transfer of phosphatidylinositol (PI) between membranes. Binds PI, phosphatidylcholine (PC) and phosphatidic acid (PA) with the binding affinity order of PI > PA > PC. Regulates RHOA activity, and plays a role in cytoskeleton remodeling. Necessary for normal completion of cytokinesis. Plays a role in maintaining normal diacylglycerol levels in the Golgi apparatus. Necessary for maintaining the normal structure of the endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi apparatus. Required for protein export from the endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi. Binds calcium ions.

Catalyzes the transfer of phosphatidylinositol and phosphatidylcholine between membranes (in vitro). Binds calcium ions.

Catalyzes the transfer of phosphatidylinositol and phosphatidylcholine between membranes (in vitro) (By similarity). Binds calcium ions.

Sequence-specific transcription factor that binds gene promoters and activates their transcription. May play a role in the development of anterior structures, and in particular, the brain and facies and in specifying the identity or structure of hindlimb.

Controls cell proliferation in a tissue-specific manner and is involved in morphogenesis. During embryonic development, exerts a role in the expansion of muscle progenitors. May play a role in the proper localization of asymmetric organs such as the heart and stomach. Isoform PTX2C is involved in left-right asymmetry the developing embryo (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator which is important for the differentiation and maintenance of meso-diencephalic dopaminergic (mdDA) neurons during development. In addition to its importance during development, it also has roles in the long-term survival and maintenance of the mdDA neurons. Activates NR4A2/NURR1-mediated transcription of genes such as SLC6A3, SLC18A2, TH and DRD2 which are essential for development of mdDA neurons. Acts by decreasing the interaction of NR4A2/NURR1 with the corepressor NCOR2/SMRT which acts through histone deacetylases (HDACs) to keep promoters of NR4A2/NURR1 target genes in a repressed deacetylated state. Essential for the normal lens development and differentiation. Plays a critical role in the maintenance of mitotic activity of lens epithelial cells, fiber cell differentiation and in the control of the temporal and spatial activation of fiber cell-specific crystallins. Positively regulates FOXE3 expression and negatively regulates PROX1 in the anterior lens epithelium, preventing activation of CDKN1B/P27Kip1 and CDKN1C/P57Kip2 and thus maintains lens epithelial cells in cell cycle (By similarity).

Endoribonuclease that plays a central role in postnatal germ cells by repressing transposable elements and preventing their mobilization, which is essential for the germline integrity. Acts via the piRNA metabolic process, which mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and governs the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons. Directly binds methylated piRNAs, a class of 24 to 30 nucleotide RNAs that are generated by a Dicer-independent mechanism and are primarily derived from transposons and other repeated sequence elements. Strongly prefers a uridine in the first position of their guide (g1U preference, also named 1U-bias). Not involved in the piRNA amplification loop, also named ping-pong amplification cycle. Acts as an endoribonuclease that cleaves transposon messenger RNAs. Besides their function in transposable elements repression, piRNAs are probably involved in other processes during meiosis such as translation regulation. Probable component of some RISC complex, which mediates RNA cleavage and translational silencing. Also plays a role in the formation of chromatoid bodies and is required for some miRNAs stability. Required to sequester RNF8 in the cytoplasm until late spermatogenesis; RNF8 being released upon ubiquitination and degradation of PIWIL1.

Endoribonuclease that plays a central role during spermatogenesis by repressing transposable elements and preventing their mobilization, which is essential for the germline integrity (By similarity). Plays an essential role in meiotic differentiation of spermatocytes, germ cell differentiation and in self-renewal of spermatogonial stem cells (By similarity). Acts via the piRNA metabolic process, which mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and govern the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons (By similarity). During piRNA biosynthesis, plays a key role in the piRNA amplification loop, also named ping-pong amplification cycle, by acting as a 'slicer-competent' piRNA endoribonuclease that cleaves primary piRNAs, which are then loaded onto 'slicer-incompetent' PIWIL4 (By similarity). PIWIL2 slicing produces a pre-miRNA intermediate, which is then processed in mature piRNAs, and as well as a 16 nucleotide by- product that is degraded (By similarity). Required for PIWIL4/MIWI2 nuclear localization and association with secondary piRNAs antisense (By similarity). Besides their function in transposable elements repression, piRNAs are probably involved in other processes during meiosis such as translation regulation (By similarity). Indirectly modulates expression of genes such as PDGFRB, SLC2A1, ITGA6, GJA7, THY1, CD9 and STRA8 (By similarity). When overexpressed, acts as an oncogene by inhibition of apoptosis and promotion of proliferation in tumors. Represses circadian rhythms by promoting the stability and activity of core clock components BMAL1 and CLOCK by inhibiting GSK3B-mediated phosphorylation and ubiquitination-dependent degradation of these proteins.

May play a role during spermatogenesis by repressing transposable elements and preventing their mobilization, which is essential for the germline integrity. Acts via the piRNA metabolic process, which mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and govern the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons. Directly binds piRNAs, a class of 24 to 30 nucleotide RNAs that are generated by a Dicer-independent mechanism and are primarily derived from transposons and other repeated sequence elements. Besides their function in transposable elements repression, piRNAs are probably involved in other processes during meiosis such as translation regulation (By similarity).

Plays a central role during spermatogenesis by repressing transposable elements and preventing their mobilization, which is essential for the germline integrity (By similarity). Acts via the piRNA metabolic process, which mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and governs the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons (By similarity). Directly binds piRNAs, a class of 24 to 30 nucleotide RNAs that are generated by a Dicer-independent mechanism and are primarily derived from transposons and other repeated sequence elements (By similarity). Associates with secondary piRNAs antisense and PIWIL2/MILI is required for such association (By similarity). The piRNA process acts upstream of known mediators of DNA methylation (By similarity). Does not show endonuclease activity (By similarity). Plays a key role in the piRNA amplification loop, also named ping-pong amplification cycle, by acting as a 'slicer-incompetent' component that loads cleaved piRNAs from the 'slicer-competent' component PIWIL2 and target them on genomic transposon loci in the nucleus (By similarity). May be involved in the chromatin-modifying pathway by inducing 'Lys-9' methylation of histone H3 at some loci. In addition to its role in germline, PIWIL4 also plays a role in the regulation of somatic cells activities. Plays a role in pancreatic beta cell function and insulin secretion (By similarity). Involved in maintaining cell morphology and functional integrity of retinal epithelial through Akt/GSK3alpha/beta signaling pathway. When overexpressed, acts as an oncogene by inhibition of apoptosis and promotion of cells proliferation in tumors.

Has E2-dependent E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity. Ubiquitinates MAGED1 antigen leading to its subsequent degradation by proteasome (By similarity). May be involved in protein sorting.

Has E2-dependent E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity. Responsible for ubiquitination of cAMP-dependent protein kinase type I and type II-alpha/beta regulatory subunits and for targeting them for proteasomal degradation. Essential for PKA-mediated long-term memory processes. Through the ubiquitination of MFHAS1, positively regulates the TLR2 signaling pathway that leads to the activation of the downstream p38 and JNK MAP kinases and promotes the polarization of macrophages toward the pro- inflammatory M1 phenotype. Plays a role in ciliogenesis by ubiquitinating OFD1.

Peroxisome-associated protein required to protect auditory hair cells against noise-induced damage. Acts by regulating noise- induced peroxisome proliferation in auditory hair cells and neurons, and promoting autophagic degradation of damaged peroxisomes (pexophagy). Noise overexposure increases reactive oxygen species (ROS) levels, causing oxidative damage to auditory hair cells and resulting in hearing loss. PJVK acts as a ROS sensor that recruits the autophagy machinery to trigger pexophagy of peroxisomes damaged by oxidative stress. In addition to pexophagy, also required to promote peroxisome proliferation in response to sound overstimulation.

Negatively regulates the PAK1 kinase. PAK1 is a member of the PAK kinase family, which has been shown to play a positive role in the regulation of signaling pathways involving MAPK8 and RELA. PAK1 exists as an inactive homodimer, which is activated by binding of small GTPases such as CDC42 to an N-terminal regulatory domain. PAK1IP1 also binds to the N-terminus of PAK1, and inhibits the specific activation of PAK1 by CDC42. May be involved in ribosomal large subunit assembly.

Component of a ciliary calcium channel that controls calcium concentration within primary cilia without affecting cytoplasmic calcium concentration. Forms a heterodimer with PKD2L1 in primary cilia and forms a calcium-permeant ciliary channel that regulates sonic hedgehog/SHH signaling and GLI2 transcription. Does not constitute the pore-forming subunit. Also involved in left/right axis specification downstream of nodal flow: forms a complex with PKD2 in cilia to facilitate flow detection in left/right patterning.

Component of a calcium channel. May act as a sour taste receptor by forming a calcium channel with PKD1L3 in gustatory cells; however, its contribution to sour taste perception is unclear in vivo and may be indirect.

Pore-forming subunit of a heterotetrameric, non-selective cation channel that is permeable to Ca(2+). Pore-forming subunit of a calcium- permeant ion channel formed by PKD1L2 and PKD1L1 in primary cilia, where it controls cilium calcium concentration, but does not affect cytoplasmic calcium concentration. The channel formed by PKD1L2 and PKD1L1 in primary cilia regulates sonic hedgehog/SHH signaling and GLI2 transcription. Pore-forming subunit of a channel formed by PKD1L2 and PKD1L3 that contributes to sour taste perception in gustatory cells. The heteromeric channel formed by PKD1L2 and PKD1L3 is activated by low pH, but opens only when the extracellular pH rises again. May play a role in the perception of carbonation taste (By similarity). May play a role in the sensory perception of water, via a mechanism that activates the channel in response to dilution of salivary bicarbonate and changes in salivary pH (By similarity).

May function as a subunit of a cation channel and play a role in fertilization

Catalytic subunit of the PI3K complex that mediates formation of phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate; different complex forms are believed to play a role in multiple membrane trafficking pathways: PI3KC3-C1 is involved in initiation of autophagosomes and PI3KC3-C2 in maturation of autophagosomes and endocytosis. As part of PI3KC3-C1, promotes endoplasmic reticulum membrane curvature formation prior to vesicle budding. Involved in regulation of degradative endocytic trafficking and required for the abcission step in cytokinesis, probably in the context of PI3KC3-C2. Involved in the transport of lysosomal enzyme precursors to lysosomes (By similarity). Required for transport from early to late endosomes (By similarity).

Phosphoinositide-3-kinase (PI3K) phosphorylates phosphatidylinositol (PI) and its phosphorylated derivatives at position 3 of the inositol ring to produce 3-phosphoinositides. Uses ATP and PtdIns(4,5)P2 (phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate) to generate phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3). PIP3 plays a key role by recruiting PH domain- containing proteins to the membrane, including AKT1 and PDPK1, activating signaling cascades involved in cell growth, survival, proliferation, motility and morphology. Participates in cellular signaling in response to various growth factors. Involved in the activation of AKT1 upon stimulation by receptor tyrosine kinases ligands such as EGF, insulin, IGF1, VEGFA and PDGF. Involved in signaling via insulin-receptor substrate (IRS) proteins. Essential in endothelial cell migration during vascular development through VEGFA signaling, possibly by regulating RhoA activity. Required for lymphatic vasculature development, possibly by binding to RAS and by activation by EGF and FGF2, but not by PDGF. Regulates invadopodia formation through the PDPK1-AKT1 pathway. Participates in cardiomyogenesis in embryonic stem cells through a AKT1 pathway. Participates in vasculogenesis in embryonic stem cells through PDK1 and protein kinase C pathway. In addition to its lipid kinase activity, it displays a serine-protein kinase activity that results in the autophosphorylation of the p85alpha regulatory subunit as well as phosphorylation of other proteins such as 4EBP1, H-Ras, the IL-3 beta c receptor and possibly others. Plays a role in the positive regulation of phagocytosis and pinocytosis (By similarity).

Phosphoinositide-3-kinase (PI3K) phosphorylates phosphatidylinositol derivatives at position 3 of the inositol ring to produce 3-phosphoinositides. Uses ATP and PtdIns(4,5)P2 (phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate) to generate phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3). PIP3 plays a key role by recruiting PH domain-containing proteins to the membrane, including AKT1 and PDPK1, activating signaling cascades involved in cell growth, survival, proliferation, motility and morphology. Involved in the activation of AKT1 upon stimulation by G- protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) ligands such as CXCL12, sphingosine 1-phosphate, and lysophosphatidic acid. May also act downstream receptor tyrosine kinases. Required in different signaling pathways for stable platelet adhesion and aggregation. Plays a role in platelet activation signaling triggered by GPCRs, alpha-IIb/beta-3 integrins (ITGA2B/ ITGB3) and ITAM (immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif)-bearing receptors such as GP6. Regulates the strength of adhesion of ITGA2B/ ITGB3 activated receptors necessary for the cellular transmission of contractile forces. Required for platelet aggregation induced by F2 (thrombin) and thromboxane A2 (TXA2). Has a role in cell survival. May have a role in cell migration. Involved in the early stage of autophagosome formation. Modulates the intracellular level of PtdIns3P (phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate) and activates PIK3C3 kinase activity. May act as a scaffold, independently of its lipid kinase activity to positively regulate autophagy. May have a role in insulin signaling as scaffolding protein in which the lipid kinase activity is not required. May have a kinase-independent function in regulating cell proliferation and in clathrin-mediated endocytosis. Mediator of oncogenic signal in cell lines lacking PTEN. The lipid kinase activity is necessary for its role in oncogenic transformation. Required for the growth of ERBB2 and RAS driven tumors. Has also a protein kinase activity showing autophosphorylation.

Phosphoinositide-3-kinase (PI3K) phosphorylates phosphatidylinositol (PI) and its phosphorylated derivatives at position 3 of the inositol ring to produce 3-phosphoinositides. Uses ATP and PtdIns(4,5)P2 (phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate) to generate phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3). PIP3 plays a key role by recruiting PH domain-containing proteins to the membrane, including AKT1 and PDPK1, activating signaling cascades involved in cell growth, survival, proliferation, motility and morphology. Mediates immune responses. Plays a role in B-cell development, proliferation, migration, and function. Required for B-cell receptor (BCR) signaling. Mediates B-cell proliferation response to anti-IgM, anti-CD40 and IL4 stimulation. Promotes cytokine production in response to TLR4 and TLR9. Required for antibody class switch mediated by TLR9. Involved in the antigen presentation function of B-cells. Involved in B-cell chemotaxis in response to CXCL13 and sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P). Required for proliferation, signaling and cytokine production of naive, effector and memory T-cells. Required for T-cell receptor (TCR) signaling. Mediates TCR signaling events at the immune synapse. Activation by TCR leads to antigen-dependent memory T-cell migration and retention to antigenic tissues. Together with PIK3CG participates in T-cell development. Contributes to T-helper cell expansion and differentiation. Required for T-cell migration mediated by homing receptors SELL/CD62L, CCR7 and S1PR1 and antigen dependent recruitment of T-cells. Together with PIK3CG is involved in natural killer (NK) cell development and migration towards the sites of inflammation. Participates in NK cell receptor activation. Plays a role in NK cell maturation and cytokine production. Together with PIK3CG is involved in neutrophil chemotaxis and extravasation. Together with PIK3CG participates in neutrophil respiratory burst. Plays important roles in mast-cell development and mast cell mediated allergic response. Involved in stem cell factor (SCF)-mediated proliferation, adhesion and migration. Required for allergen-IgE-induced degranulation and cytokine release. The lipid kinase activity is required for its biological function. Isoform 2 may be involved in stabilizing total RAS levels, resulting in increased ERK phosphorylation and increased PI3K activity.

Phosphoinositide-3-kinase (PI3K) that phosphorylates PtdIns(4,5)P2 (Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate) to generate phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3). PIP3 plays a key role by recruiting PH domain-containing proteins to the membrane, including AKT1 and PDPK1, activating signaling cascades involved in cell growth, survival, proliferation, motility and morphology. Links G-protein coupled receptor activation to PIP3 production. Involved in immune, inflammatory and allergic responses. Modulates leukocyte chemotaxis to inflammatory sites and in response to chemoattractant agents. May control leukocyte polarization and migration by regulating the spatial accumulation of PIP3 and by regulating the organization of F-actin formation and integrin-based adhesion at the leading edge. Controls motility of dendritic cells. Together with PIK3CD is involved in natural killer (NK) cell development and migration towards the sites of inflammation. Participates in T-lymphocyte migration. Regulates T- lymphocyte proliferation, activation, and cytokine production. Together with PIK3CD participates in T-lymphocyte development. Required for B- lymphocyte development and signaling. Together with PIK3CD participates in neutrophil respiratory burst. Together with PIK3CD is involved in neutrophil chemotaxis and extravasation. Together with PIK3CB promotes platelet aggregation and thrombosis. Regulates alpha-IIb/beta-3 integrins (ITGA2B/ ITGB3) adhesive function in platelets downstream of P2Y12 through a lipid kinase activity-independent mechanism. May have also a lipid kinase activity-dependent function in platelet aggregation. Involved in endothelial progenitor cell migration. Negative regulator of cardiac contractility. Modulates cardiac contractility by anchoring protein kinase A (PKA) and PDE3B activation, reducing cAMP levels. Regulates cardiac contractility also by promoting beta-adrenergic receptor internalization by binding to GRK2 and by non- muscle tropomyosin phosphorylation. Also has serine/threonine protein kinase activity: both lipid and protein kinase activities are required for beta-adrenergic receptor endocytosis. May also have a scaffolding role in modulating cardiac contractility. Contributes to cardiac hypertrophy under pathological stress. Through simultaneous binding of PDE3B to RAPGEF3 and PIK3R6 is assembled in a signaling complex in which the PI3K gamma complex is activated by RAPGEF3 and which is involved in angiogenesis.

May act as a transcriptional corepressor for KDM5D. Required for KDM5D-mediated down-regulation of diverse metastasis-associated genes; the function seems to involve the recognition of the dual histone signature H3K4me1-H3K14ac. Suppresses prostate cancer cell invasion.

Component of a heteromeric calcium-permeable ion channel formed by PKD1 and PKD2 that is activated by interaction between PKD1 and a Wnt family member, such as WNT3A and WNT9B. Both PKD1 and PKD2 are required for channel activity. Involved in renal tubulogenesis. Involved in fluid- flow mechanosensation by the primary cilium in renal epithelium (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of cilium length, together with PKD2 (By similarity). The dynamic control of cilium length is essential in the regulation of mechanotransductive signaling (By similarity). The cilium length response creates a negative feedback loop whereby fluid shear-mediated deflection of the primary cilium, which decreases intracellular cAMP, leads to cilium shortening and thus decreases flow- induced signaling (By similarity). May be an ion-channel regulator. Involved in adhesive protein-protein and protein-carbohydrate interactions.

Component of a heteromeric calcium-permeable ion channel formed by PKD1 and PKD2 that is activated by interaction between PKD1 and a Wnt family member, such as WNT3A and WNT9B. Can also form a functional, homotetrameric ion channel. Functions as a cation channel involved in fluid-flow mechanosensation by the primary cilium in renal epithelium. Functions as outward-rectifying K(+) channel, but is also permeable to Ca(2+), and to a much lesser degree also to Na(+). May contribute to the release of Ca(2+) stores from the endoplasmic reticulum. Together with TRPV4, forms mechano- and thermosensitive channels in cilium. PKD1 and PKD2 may function through a common signaling pathway that is necessary to maintain the normal, differentiated state of renal tubule cells. Acts as a regulator of cilium length, together with PKD1. The dynamic control of cilium length is essential in the regulation of mechanotransductive signaling. The cilium length response creates a negative feedback loop whereby fluid shear-mediated deflection of the primary cilium, which decreases intracellular cAMP, leads to cilium shortening and thus decreases flow-induced signaling. Also involved in left-right axis specification via its role in sensing nodal flow; forms a complex with PKD1L1 in cilia to facilitate flow detection in left- right patterning. Detection of asymmetric nodal flow gives rise to a Ca(2+) signal that is required for normal, asymmetric expression of genes involved in the specification of body left-right laterality (By similarity).

Secreted tyrosine-protein kinase that mediates phosphorylation of extracellular proteins and endogenous proteins in the secretory pathway, which is essential for patterning at organogenesis stages. Mediates phosphorylation of MMP1, MMP13, MMP14, MMP19 and ERP29. Probably plays a role in platelets: rapidly and quantitatively secreted from platelets in response to stimulation of platelet degranulation. May also have serine/threonine protein kinase activity. Required for longitudinal bone growth through regulation of chondrocyte differentiation. May be indirectly involved in protein transport from the Golgi apparatus to the plasma membrane (By similarity).

May have a central role in fertilization. May generate a Ca(2+) transporting channel directly involved in initiating the acrosome reaction of the sperm

Binds specifically to phosphatidylinositol 3,4-diphosphate (PtdIns3,4P2), but not to other phosphoinositides. May recruit other proteins to the plasma membrane.

Plays a role in regulation of vesicular cargo transport from the trans-Golgi network (TGN) to the plasma membrane. Regulates Golgi phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns(4)P) levels and activates the PtdIns(4)P phosphatase activity of SACM1L when it binds PtdIns(4)P in 'trans' configuration. Binds preferentially to PtdIns(4)P. Negatively regulates APOB secretion from hepatocytes.

Binds specifically to phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns3P), but not to other phosphoinositides.

Cargo transport protein that is required for apical transport from the Golgi complex. Transports AQP2 from the trans-Golgi network (TGN) to sites of AQP2 phosphorylation. Mediates the non-vesicular transport of glucosylceramide (GlcCer) from the trans-Golgi network (TGN) to the plasma membrane and plays a pivotal role in the synthesis of complex glycosphingolipids. Binding of both phosphatidylinositol 4- phosphate (PIP) and ARF1 are essential for the GlcCer transfer ability. Also required for primary cilium formation, possibly by being involved in the transport of raft lipids to the apical membrane, and for membrane tubulation.

Promotes ciliogenesis in renal epithelial cells and therefore participates in the tubules formation and/ or ensures the maintenance of the architecture of the lumen of the kidney (By similarity). Has an impact on cellular symmetry by ensuring correct bipolar cell division through the regulation of centrosome duplication and mitotic spindle assembly and by maintaining oriented cell division (OCD) during tubular elongation through planar cell polarity (PCP) pathway. During epithelial cell morphogenesis regulates also cell-cell and cell-matrix adhesion and participates in cell motility (By similarity). Promotes cell-cell contact through the positive regulation of PTK2 kinase activity leading to either positive regulation of epithelial cell proliferation through the HRAS/RAF1 pathways, or negative regulation of apoptosis through the PDK1/AKT1 pathway (By similarity). May act in collecting-duct and biliary differentiation. May participate in the regulation of the cholangiocytes proliferation and the CCN2 production in an CXCL8- dependent manner.

May induce apoptosis through the lysosomal-mitochondrial pathway. Translocates to the lysosome initiating the permeabilization of lysosomal membrane (LMP) and resulting in the release of CTSD and CTSL to the cytoplasm. Triggers the caspase-independent apoptosis by altering mitochondrial membrane permeabilization (MMP) resulting in the release of PDCD8.

May play a role in early endosome fusion upstream of RAB5, hence regulating receptor trafficking and fluid-phase transport. Enhances cellular sensitivity to TNF-induced apoptosis.

May be a transforming oncogene with exchange activity for CDC42 (By similarity). May be a guanine-nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RAC1 and CDC42. Activated by the binding to subunits beta and gamma of the heterotrimeric guanine nucleotide-binding protein (G protein). Involved in the regulation of actin polymerization.

Plays a role in controlling cell polarity and cell motility by selectively binding newly polymerized actin and activating RAC1 and CDC42 to enhance local actin polymerization.

Possible role in intracellular signaling and cytoskeleton dynamics at the Golgi

Functions as a guanine exchange factor (GEF) for RAB26 and thus regulates autophagy of synaptic vesicles in axon terminal of motoneurons (By similarity). Involved in the control of neuronal cell differentiation. Plays a role in angiogenesis through regulation of endothelial cells chemotaxis. Affects also the migration, adhesion, and matrix/bone degradation in macrophages and osteoclasts.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor activating the small GTPase RHOA, which, in turn, induces myosin filament formation. Also activates RHOG. Does not activate RAC1, or to a much lower extent than RHOA and RHOG. Part of a functional unit, involving PLEKHG6, MYH10 and RHOA, at the cleavage furrow to advance furrow ingression during cytokinesis. In epithelial cells, required for the formation of microvilli and membrane ruffles on the apical pole. Along with EZR, required for normal macropinocytosis.

In the kidney glomerulus may play a role in linking podocyte foot processes to the glomerular basement membrane. May be involved in stabilization of F-actin by attenuating its depolymerization. Can recruit TGFB1I1 from focal adhesions to podocyte lamellipodia

Acts as a multivalent adapter protein that regulates Rab7- dependent and HOPS complex-dependent fusion events in the endolysosomal system and couples autophagic and the endocytic trafficking pathways. Acts as a dual effector of RAB7A and ARL8B that simultaneously binds these GTPases, bringing about clustering and fusion of late endosomes and lysosomes. Required for late stages of endolysosomal maturation, facilitating both endocytosis- mediated degradation of growth factor receptors and autophagosome clearance. Interaction with Arl8b is a crucial factor in the terminal maturation of autophagosomes and to mediate autophagosome-lysosome fusion. Positively regulates lysosome peripheral distribution and ruffled border formation in osteoclasts (By similarity). May be involved in negative regulation of endocytic transport from early endosome to late endosome/lysosome implicating its association with Rab7. May have a role in sialyl-lex- mediated transduction of apoptotic signals. Involved in bone resorption (By similarity).

Plays a role in lysosomes movement and localization at the cell periphery acting as an effector of ARL8B. Required for ARL8B to exert its effects on lysosome location, recruits kinesin-1 to lysosomes and hence direct their movement toward microtubule plus ends. Binding to ARL8B provides a link from lysosomal membranes to plus-end-directed motility. Critical factor involved in NK cell-mediated cytotoxicity. Drives the polarization of cytolytic granules and microtubule-organizing centers (MTOCs) toward the immune synapse between effector NK lymphocytes and target cells. Required for maintenance of the Golgi apparatus organization. May play a role in membrane tubulation.

Involved in skeletal muscle differentiation. May act as a scaffold protein for AKT1 during muscle differentiation.

Controls the stability of the leptin mRNA harboring an AU- rich element (ARE) in its 3' UTR, in cooperation with the RNA stabilizer ELAVL1. Decreases the stability of the leptin mRNA by antagonizing the function of ELAVL1 by inducing its atypical recruitment from the nucleus to the cytosol (By similarity). Binds to cardiolipin (CL), phosphatidic acid (PA), phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns(4)P) and phosphatidylserine (PS). Promotes apoptosis by enhancing BAX-BAK hetero-oligomerization via interaction with BID in colon cancer cells (By similarity).

Plays a role in the regulation of the actin cytoskeleton through its interactions with actin capping protein (CP). May function to target CK2 to the plasma membrane thereby serving as an adapter to facilitate the phosphorylation of CP by protein kinase 2 (CK2). Appears to target ATM to the plasma membrane. Appears to also inhibit tumor cell growth by inhibiting AKT-mediated cell-survival. Also implicated in PI3K-regulated muscle differentiation, the regulation of AP-1 activity (plasma membrane bound AP-1 regulator that translocates to the nucleus) and the promotion of apoptosis induced by tumor necrosis factor TNF. When bound to PKB, it inhibits it probably by decreasing PKB level of phosphorylation.

PKC-related serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in various processes such as regulation of the intermediate filaments of the actin cytoskeleton, cell migration, tumor cell invasion and transcription regulation. Part of a signaling cascade that begins with the activation of the adrenergic receptor ADRA1B and leads to the activation of MAPK14. Regulates the cytoskeletal network by phosphorylating proteins such as VIM and neurofilament proteins NEFH, NEFL and NEFM, leading to inhibit their polymerization. Phosphorylates 'Ser-575', 'Ser-637' and 'Ser-669' of MAPT/Tau, lowering its ability to bind to microtubules, resulting in disruption of tubulin assembly. Acts as a key coactivator of androgen receptor (AR)-dependent transcription, by being recruited to AR target genes and specifically mediating phosphorylation of 'Thr-11' of histone H3 (H3T11ph), a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation that promotes demethylation of histone H3 'Lys-9' (H3K9me) by KDM4C/JMJD2C. Phosphorylates HDAC5, HDAC7 and HDAC9, leading to impair their import in the nucleus. Phosphorylates 'Thr-38' of PPP1R14A, 'Ser-159', 'Ser-163' and 'Ser-170' of MARCKS, and GFAP. Able to phosphorylate RPS6 in vitro.

PKC-related serine/threonine-protein kinase and Rho/Rac effector protein that participates in specific signal transduction responses in the cell. Plays a role in the regulation of cell cycle progression, actin cytoskeleton assembly, cell migration, cell adhesion, tumor cell invasion and transcription activation signaling processes. Phosphorylates CTTN in hyaluronan-induced astrocytes and hence decreases CTTN ability to associate with filamentous actin. Phosphorylates HDAC5, therefore lead to impair HDAC5 import. Direct RhoA target required for the regulation of the maturation of primordial junctions into apical junction formation in bronchial epithelial cells. Required for G2/M phases of the cell cycle progression and abscission during cytokinesis in a ECT2-dependent manner. Stimulates FYN kinase activity that is required for establishment of skin cell-cell adhesion during keratinocytes differentiation. Regulates epithelial bladder cells speed and direction of movement during cell migration and tumor cell invasion. Inhibits Akt pro-survival-induced kinase activity. Mediates Rho protein-induced transcriptional activation via the c-fos serum response factor (SRF). Involved in the negative regulation of ciliogenesis.

Seems to play a role in junctional plaques. Contributes to epidermal morphogenesis. May facilitate the formation of intermediate filaments.

Regulates focal adhesion turnover resulting in changes in focal adhesion size, cell adhesion and cell spreading, potentially via transcriptional modulation of beta-integrins. Required to maintain gingival epithelial barrier function. Required for cardiac sodium current propagation and electrical synchrony in cardiac myocytes (By similarity). Required for the formation of desmosome cell junctions in cardiomyocytes, thereby required for the correct formation of the heart, specifically trabeculation and formation of the atria walls (By similarity). Loss of desmosome cell junctions leads to mis-localization of DSP and DSG2 resulting in disruption of cell-cell adhesion and disordered intermediate filaments (By similarity). Modulates profibrotic gene expression in cardiomyocytes via regulation of DSP expression and subsequent activation of downstream TGFB1 and MAPK14/p38 MAPK signaling (By similarity). May play a role in junctional plaques. Involved in the inhibition of viral infection by influenza A viruses (IAV). Acts as a host restriction factor for IAV viral propagation, potentially via disrupting the interaction of IAV polymerase complex proteins.

Plays a role as a regulator of Rho activity during cytokinesis. May play a role in junctional plaques.

Receptor for prokineticin 1. Exclusively coupled to the G(q) subclass of heteromeric G proteins. Activation leads to mobilization of calcium, stimulation of phosphoinositide turnover and activation of p44/p42 mitogen-activated protein kinase. May play a role during early pregnancy.

Receptor for prokineticin 2. Exclusively coupled to the G(q) subclass of heteromeric G proteins. Activation leads to mobilization of calcium, stimulation of phosphoinositide turnover and activation of p44/p42 mitogen-activated protein kinase

Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Binds double-stranded RNA. Inhibits EIF2AK2 kinase activity (By similarity).

Hydrolyzes the ester bond of the acyl group attached at the sn-1 position of phosphatidylserines (phospholipase A1 activity) and 1- acyl-2-lysophosphatidylserines (lysophospholipase activity) in the pathway of phosphatidylserines acyl chain remodeling. Cleaves phosphatidylserines exposed on the outer leaflet of the plasma membrane of apoptotic cells producing 2-acyl-1-lysophosphatidylserines, which in turn enhance mast cell activation and histamine production (By similarity). Has no activity toward other glycerophospholipids including phosphatidylcholines, phosphatidylethanolamines, phosphatidic acids or phosphatidylinositols, or glycerolipids such as triolein (By similarity).

Receptor for secretory phospholipase A2 (sPLA2). Acts as a receptor for phospholipase sPLA2-IB/PLA2G1B but not sPLA2-IIA/PLA2G2A. Also able to bind to snake PA2-like toxins. Although its precise function remains unclear, binding of sPLA2 to its receptor participates in both positive and negative regulation of sPLA2 functions as well as clearance of sPLA2. Binding of sPLA2-IB/PLA2G1B induces various effects depending on the cell type, such as activation of the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) cascade to induce cell proliferation, the production of lipid mediators, selective release of arachidonic acid in bone marrow-derived mast cells. In neutrophils, binding of sPLA2- IB/PLA2G1B can activate p38 MAPK to stimulate elastase release and cell adhesion. May be involved in responses in pro-inflammatory cytokine productions during endotoxic shock. Also has endocytic properties and rapidly internalizes sPLA2 ligands, which is particularly important for the clearance of extracellular sPLA2s to protect their potent enzymatic activities. The soluble secretory phospholipase A2 receptor form is circulating and acts as a negative regulator of sPLA2 functions by blocking the biological functions of sPLA2-IB/PLA2G1B. In podocytes, binding of sPLA2-IB/PLA2G1B can regulate podocyte survival and glomerular homeostasis.

Transcription factor whose activation results in up- regulation of target genes, such as IGFII, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation: when overexpressed in cultured cells, higher proliferation rate and transformation are observed. Other target genes such as CRLF1, CRABP2, CRIP2, PIGF are strongly induced in cells with PLAG1 induction. Proto-oncogene whose ectopic expression can trigger the development of pleomorphic adenomas of the salivary gland and lipoblastomas. Overexpression is associated with up-regulation of IGFII, is frequently observed in hepatoblastoma, common primary liver tumor in childhood. Cooperates with CBFB-MYH11, a fusion gene important for myeloid leukemia.

Common junctional plaque protein. The membrane-associated plaques are architectural elements in an important strategic position to influence the arrangement and function of both the cytoskeleton and the cells within the tissue. The presence of plakoglobin in both the desmosomes and in the intermediate junctions suggests that it plays a central role in the structure and function of submembranous plaques. Acts as a substrate for VE-PTP and is required by it to stimulate VE- cadherin function in endothelial cells. Can replace beta-catenin in E- cadherin/catenin adhesion complexes which are proposed to couple cadherins to the actin cytoskeleton (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional activator. Involved in the transcriptional regulation of type 1 receptor for pituitary adenylate cyclase-activating polypeptide.

Plays a role in protein ubiquitination, sorting and degradation through its association with VCP. Involved in ubiquitin-mediated membrane proteins trafficking to late endosomes in an ESCRT-dependent manner, and hence plays a role in synaptic vesicle recycling (By similarity). May play a role in macroautophagy, regulating for instance the clearance of damaged lysosomes. Plays a role in cerebellar Purkinje cell development (By similarity). Positively regulates cytosolic and calcium-independent phospholipase A2 activities in a tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha)- or lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-dependent manner, and hence prostaglandin E2 biosynthesis.

Exhibits both phospholipase A1/2 and acyltransferase activities. Shows phospholipase A1 (PLA1) and A2 (PLA2) activity, catalyzing the calcium-independent release of fatty acids from the sn-1 or sn-2 position of glycerophospholipids. Shows O-acyltransferase activity, catalyzing the transfer of a fatty acyl group from glycerophospholipid to the hydroxyl group of lysophospholipid. Shows N-acyltransferase activity, catalyzing the calcium-independent transfer of a fatty acyl group at the sn-1 position of phosphatidylcholine (PC) and other glycerophospholipids to the primary amine of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE), forming N-acylphosphatidylethanolamine (NAPE) which serves as precursor for N-acylethanolamines (NAEs).

Exhibits both phospholipase A1/2 and acyltransferase activities. Shows phospholipase A1 (PLA1) and A2 (PLA2) activity, catalyzing the calcium-independent release of fatty acids from the sn-1 or sn-2 position of glycerophospholipids. For most substrates, PLA1 activity is much higher than PLA2 activity. Shows O- acyltransferase activity, catalyzing the transfer of a fatty acyl group from glycerophospholipid to the hydroxyl group of lysophospholipid. Shows N-acyltransferase activity, catalyzing the calcium-independent transfer of a fatty acyl group at the sn-1 position of phosphatidylcholine (PC) and other glycerophospholipids to the primary amine of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE), forming N- acylphosphatidylethanolamine (NAPE), which serves as precursor for N- acylethanolamines (NAEs). Catalyzes N-acylation of PE using both sn-1 and sn-2 palmitoyl groups of PC as acyl donor. Exhibits high phospholipase A1/2 activity and low N-acyltransferase activity.

Exhibits both phospholipase A1/2 and acyltransferase activities. Shows phospholipase A1 (PLA1) and A2 (PLA2) activity, catalyzing the calcium-independent release of fatty acids from the sn-1 or sn-2 position of glycerophospholipids. For most substrates, PLA1 activity is much higher than PLA2 activity. Shows O-acyltransferase activity,catalyzing the transfer of a fatty acyl group from glycerophospholipid to the hydroxyl group of lysophospholipid. Shows N-acyltransferase activity, catalyzing the calcium-independent transfer of a fatty acyl group at the sn-1 position of phosphatidylcholine (PC) and other glycerophospholipids to the primary amine of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE), forming N- acylphosphatidylethanolamine (NAPE), which serves as precursor for N- acylethanolamines (NAEs). Exhibits high N-acyltransferase activity and low phospholipase A1/2 activity. Required for complete organelle rupture and degradation that occur during eye lens terminal differentiation, when fiber cells that compose the lens degrade all membrane-bound organelles in order to provide lens with transparency to allow the passage of light. Organelle membrane degradation is probably catalyzed by the phospholipase activity (By similarity).

Exhibits both phospholipase A1/2 and acyltransferase activities. Shows phospholipase A1 (PLA1) and A2 (PLA2), catalyzing the calcium-independent release of fatty acids from the sn-1 or sn-2 position of glycerophospholipids. For most substrates, PLA1 activity is much higher than PLA2 activity. Shows O- acyltransferase activity, catalyzing the transfer of a fatty acyl group from glycerophospholipid to the hydroxyl group of lysophospholipid. Shows N-acyltransferase activity, catalyzing the calcium-independent transfer of a fatty acyl group at the sn-1 position of phosphatidylcholine (PC) and other glycerophospholipids to the primary amine of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE), forming N- acylphosphatidylethanolamine (NAPE), which serves as precursor for N- acylethanolamines (NAEs). Promotes keratinocyte differentiation via activation of TGM1.

Exhibits both phospholipase A1/2 and acyltransferase activities. Shows phospholipase A1 (PLA1) and A2 (PLA2) activity, catalyzing the calcium-independent release of fatty acids from the sn-1 or sn-2 position of glycerophospholipids. Shows N-acyltransferase activity, catalyzing the calcium-independent transfer of a fatty acyl group at the sn-1 position of phosphatidylcholine (PC) and other glycerophospholipids to the primary amine of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE), forming N-acylphosphatidylethanolamine (NAPE), which serves as precursor for N-acylethanolamines (NAEs).

Calcium-independent membrane-associated phospholipase that catalyzes complete diacylation of phospholipids by hydrolyzing both sn- 1 and sn-2 fatty acyl chains attached to the glycerol backbone (phospholipase B activity) (By similarity). Has dual phospholipase and lysophospholipase activities toward diacylphospholipids. Preferentially cleaves sn-2 ester bonds over sn-1 bonds. Acts as a lipase toward glycerolipid substrates (By similarity). Hydrolyzes fatty acyl chains of diacylglycerols with preference for the sn-2 position and of triacylglycerols with not positional selectivity (By similarity). May also hydrolyze long chain retinyl esters such as retinyl palmitate (By similarity). May contribute to digestion of dietary phospholipids, glycerolipids and retinoids, facilitating lipid absorption at the brush border (By similarity).

In view of the small size of the putative binding pocket, it has been proposed that it may act as an amidase or a peptidase (By similarity). Exhibits a weak phospholipase activity, acting on various phospholipids, including phosphatidylcholine, phosphatidylinositol, phosphatidylethanolamine and lysophospholipids.

Converts 1-acyl-sn-glycerol-3-phosphate (lysophosphatidic acid or LPA) into 1,2-diacyl-sn-glycerol-3-phosphate (phosphatidic acid or PA) by incorporating an acyl moiety at the sn-2 position of the glycerol backbone.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of 1-phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate into diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3) and mediates intracellular signaling downstream of G protein- coupled receptors. Regulates the function of the endothelial barrier.

The production of the second messenger molecules diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3) is mediated by activated phosphatidylinositol-specific phospholipase C enzymes.

Converts 1-acyl-sn-glycerol-3-phosphate (lysophosphatidic acid or LPA) into 1,2-diacyl-sn-glycerol-3-phosphate (phosphatidic acid or PA) by incorporating an acyl moiety at the sn-2 position of the glycerol backbone. Acts on LPA containing saturated or unsaturated fatty acids C16:0-C20:4 at the sn-1 position using C18:1, C20:4 or C18:2-CoA as the acyl donor. Also acts on lysophosphatidylcholine, lysophosphatidylinositol and lysophosphatidylserine using C18:1 or C20:4-CoA. Has a preference for arachidonoyl-CoA as a donor (By similarity). Has also a modest lysophosphatidylinositol acyltransferase (LPIAT) activity, converts lysophosphatidylinositol (LPI) into phosphatidylinositol (By similarity).

The production of the second messenger molecules diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3) is mediated by activated phosphatidylinositol-specific phospholipase C enzymes. Essential for trophoblast and placental development (By similarity). Binds phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate.

Hydrolyzes the phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2) to generate 2 second messenger molecules diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3). DAG mediates the activation of protein kinase C (PKC), while IP3 releases Ca(2+) from intracellular stores. Essential for trophoblast and placental development. May participate in cytokinesis by hydrolyzing PIP2 at the cleavage furrow. Regulates neurite outgrowth through the inhibition of RhoA/Rho kinase signaling (By similarity).

Hydrolyzes the phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2) to generate 2 second messenger molecules diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3). DAG mediates the activation of protein kinase C (PKC), while IP3 releases Ca(2+) from intracellular stores. Required for acrosome reaction in sperm during fertilization, probably by acting as an important enzyme for intracellular Ca(2+) mobilization in the zona pellucida-induced acrosome reaction. May play a role in cell growth. Modulates the liver regeneration in cooperation with nuclear PKC. Overexpression up-regulates the Erk signaling pathway and proliferation.

Converts 1-acyl-sn-glycerol-3-phosphate (lysophosphatidic acid or LPA) into 1,2-diacyl-sn-glycerol-3-phosphate (phosphatidic acid or PA) by incorporating an acyl moiety at the sn-2 position of the glycerol backbone (By similarity). Exhibits high acyl-CoA specificity for polyunsaturated fatty acyl-CoA, especially docosahexaenoyl-CoA (22:6-CoA, DHA-CoA) (By similarity).

The production of the second messenger molecules diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3) is mediated by activated phosphatidylinositol-specific phospholipase C enzymes. PLCE1 is a bifunctional enzyme which also regulates small GTPases of the Ras superfamily through its Ras guanine-exchange factor (RasGEF) activity. As an effector of heterotrimeric and small G-protein, it may play a role in cell survival, cell growth, actin organization and T- cell activation. In podocytes, is involved in the regulation of lamellipodia formation. Acts downstream of AVIL to allow ARP2/3 complex assembly.

Converts 1-acyl-sn-glycerol-3-phosphate (lysophosphatidic acid or LPA) into 1,2-diacyl-sn-glycerol-3-phosphate (phosphatidic acid or PA) by incorporating an acyl moiety at the sn-2 position of the glycerol backbone. Acts on LPA containing saturated or unsaturated fatty acids C15:0-C20:4 at the sn-1 position using C18:1-CoA as the acyl donor. Also acts on lysophosphatidylethanolamine using oleoyl-CoA, but not arachidonoyl- CoA, and lysophosphatidylinositol using arachidonoyl-CoA, but not oleoyl-CoA. Activity toward lysophosphatidylglycerol not detectable.

Mediates the production of the second messenger molecules diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3). Plays an important role in the regulation of intracellular signaling cascades. Becomes activated in response to ligand-mediated activation of receptor-type tyrosine kinases, such as PDGFRA, PDGFRB, EGFR, FGFR1, FGFR2, FGFR3 and FGFR4 (By similarity). Plays a role in actin reorganization and cell migration.

The production of the second messenger molecules diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3) is mediated by activated phosphatidylinositol-specific phospholipase C enzymes. It is a crucial enzyme in transmembrane signaling.

The production of the second messenger molecules diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3) is mediated by activated phosphatidylinositol-specific phospholipase C enzymes. This phospholipase activity is very sensitive to calcium. May be important for formation and maintenance of the neuronal network in the postnatal brain (By similarity).

Involved in an inositol phospholipid-based intracellular signaling cascade. Shows no PLC activity to phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate and phosphatidylinositol. Component in the phospho- dependent endocytosis process of GABA A receptor (By similarity). Regulates the turnover of receptors and thus contributes to the maintenance of GABA-mediated synaptic inhibition. Its aberrant expression could contribute to the genesis and progression of lung carcinoma. Acts as an inhibitor of PPP1C.

May play an role in the regulation of Ins(1,4,5)P3 around the endoplasmic reticulum.

The production of the second messenger molecules diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3) is mediated by activated phosphatidylinositol-specific phospholipase C enzymes. In vitro, hydrolyzes PtdIns(4,5)P2 in a Ca(2+)-dependent manner. Triggers intracellular Ca(2+) oscillations in oocytes solely during M phase and is involved in inducing oocyte activation and initiating embryonic development up to the blastocyst stage. Is therefore a strong candidate for the egg-activating soluble sperm factor that is transferred from the sperm into the egg cytoplasm following gamete membrane fusion. May exert an inhibitory effect on phospholipase-C-coupled processes that depend on calcium ions and protein kinase C, including CFTR trafficking and function.

Function as phospholipase selective for phosphatidylcholine. Implicated as a critical step in numerous cellular pathways, including signal transduction, membrane trafficking, and the regulation of mitosis. May be involved in the regulation of perinuclear intravesicular membrane traffic (By similarity).

Function as phospholipase selective for phosphatidylcholine. May have a role in signal-induced cytoskeletal regulation and/or endocytosis (By similarity).

In vitro, the TRIAP1:PRELID3A complex mediates the transfer of phosphatidic acid (PA) between liposomes and probably functions as a PA transporter across the mitochondrion intermembrane space. Phosphatidic acid import is required for cardiolipin (CL) synthesis in the mitochondrial inner membrane.

5'->3' DNA exonuclease which digests single-stranded DNA (ssDNA). Regulates inflammatory cytokine responses via the degradation of nucleic acids, by reducing the concentration of ssDNA able to stimulate TLR9, a nucleotide-sensing receptor in collaboration with PLD4 (By similarity). May be important in myotube formation. Plays a role in lysosomal homeostasis. Involved in the regulation of endosomal protein sorting.

5'->3' DNA exonuclease which digests single-stranded DNA (ssDNA). Regulates inflammatory cytokine responses via the degradation of nucleic acids, by reducing the concentration of ssDNA able to stimulate TLR9, a nucleotide-sensing receptor. Involved in phagocytosis of activated microglia.

Presents phospholipase and nuclease activities, depending on the different physiological conditions. Interaction with Mitoguardin (MIGA1 or MIGA2) affects the dimer conformation, facilitating the lipase activity over the nuclease activity. Plays a key role in mitochondrial fusion and fission via its phospholipase activity. In its phospholipase role, it uses the mitochondrial lipid cardiolipin as substrate to generate phosphatidate (PA or 1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero-3- phosphate), a second messenger signaling lipid. Production of PA facilitates Mitofusin-mediated fusion, whereas the cleavage of PA by the Lipin family of phosphatases produces diacylgycerol (DAG) which promotes mitochondrial fission. Both Lipin and DAG regulate mitochondrial dynamics and membrane fusion/fission, important processes for adapting mitochondrial metabolism to changes in cell physiology. Mitochondrial fusion enables cells to cope with the increased nucleotide demand during DNA synthesis. Mitochondrial function and dynamics are closely associated with biological processes such as cell growth, proliferation, and differentiation. Mediator of MYC activity, promotes mitochondrial fusion and activates AMPK which in turn inhibits YAP/TAZ, thereby inducing cell growth and proliferation. The endonuclease activity plays a critical role in PIWI-interacting RNA (piRNA) biogenesis during spermatogenesis. Implicated in spermatogenesis and sperm fertility in testicular germ cells, its single strand-specific nuclease activity is critical for the biogenesis/maturation of PIWI-interacting RNA (piRNA). MOV10L1 selectively binds to piRNA precursors and funnels them to the endonuclease that catalyzes the first cleavage step of piRNA processing to generate piRNA intermediate fragments that are subsequently loaded to Piwi proteins. Cleaves either DNA or RNA substrates with similar affinity, producing a 5' phosphate end, in this way it participates in the processing of primary piRNA transcripts. piRNAs provide essential protection against the activity of mobile genetic elements. piRNA- mediated transposon silencing is thus critical for maintaining genome stability, in particular in germline cells when transposons are mobilized as a consequence of wide-spread genomic demethylation (By similarity). PA may act as signaling molecule in the recognition/transport of the precursor RNAs of primary piRNAs. Interacts with tesmin in testes, suggesting a role in spermatogenesis via association with its interacting partner (By similarity).

Plays a critical role in endothelial cell capillary morphogenesis.

Interlinks intermediate filaments with microtubules and microfilaments and anchors intermediate filaments to desmosomes or hemidesmosomes. Could also bind muscle proteins such as actin to membrane complexes in muscle. May be involved not only in the filaments network, but also in the regulation of their dynamics. Structural component of muscle. Isoform 9 plays a major role in the maintenance of myofiber integrity.

May help orchestrate cytoskeletal arrangement. Contribute to lamellipodia formation

Modulates leading keratinocyte migration and cellular adhesion to matrix proteins during a wound-healing response and promotes wound repair. May play a role during trichilemmal differentiation of the hair follicle (By similarity).

Released during platelet aggregation. Neutralizes the anticoagulant effect of heparin because it binds more strongly to heparin than to the chondroitin-4-sulfate chains of the carrier molecule. Chemotactic for neutrophils and monocytes. Inhibits endothelial cell proliferation, the short form is a more potent inhibitor than the longer form.

May bind noncovalently to lysine binding sites present in the kringle structures of plasminogen. This may interfere with the binding of fibrin or alpha-2-antiplasmin to plasminogen and may result in the localization of activity at sites necessary for extracellular matrix destruction

Growth factor active in angiogenesis and endothelial cell growth, stimulating their proliferation and migration. It binds to the receptor FLT1/VEGFR-1. Isoform PlGF-2 binds NRP1/neuropilin-1 and NRP2/neuropilin-2 in a heparin-dependent manner. Also promotes cell tumor growth.

Protein glucosyltransferase that catalyzes the transfer of glucose from UDP-glucose to a serine residue within the consensus sequence peptide C-X-N-T-X-G-S-F-X-C. Can also catalyze the transfer of xylose from UDP-xylose but less efficiently. Specifically targets extracellular EGF repeats of proteins such as NOTCH1, NOTCH3, FBN1, FBN2 and LTBP1. May regulate the transport of NOTCH1 and NOTCH3 to the plasma membrane and thereby the Notch signaling pathway.

Modulator of adipocyte lipid metabolism. Coats lipid storage droplets to protect them from breakdown by hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL). Its absence may result in leanness. Plays a role in unilocular lipid droplet formation by activating CIDEC. Their interaction promotes lipid droplet enlargement and directional net neutral lipid transfer. May modulate lipolysis and triglyceride levels.

Structural component of lipid droplets, which is required for the formation and maintenance of lipid storage droplets.

Structural component of lipid droplets, which is required for the formation and maintenance of lipid storage droplets. Required for the transport of mannose 6-phosphate receptors (MPR) from endosomes to the trans-Golgi network.

May play a role in triacylglycerol packaging into adipocytes. May function as a coat protein involved in the biogenesis of lipid droplets (By similarity).

Lipid droplet-associated protein that maintains the balance between lipogenesis and lipolysis and also regulates fatty acid oxidation in oxidative tissues. Recruits mitochondria to the surface of lipid droplets and is involved in lipid droplet homeostasis by regulating both the storage of fatty acids in the form of triglycerides and the release of fatty acids for mitochondrial fatty acid oxidation. In lipid droplet triacylglycerol hydrolysis, plays a role as a scaffolding protein for three major key lipolytic players: ABHD5, PNPLA2 and LIPE. Reduces the triacylglycerol hydrolase activity of PNPLA2 by recruiting and sequestering PNPLA2 to lipid droplets. Phosphorylation by PKA enables lipolysis probably by promoting release of ABHD5 from the perilipin scaffold and by facilitating interaction of ABHD5 with PNPLA2. Also increases lipolysis through interaction with LIPE and upon PKA-mediated phosphorylation of LIPE (By similarity).

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that performs several important functions throughout M phase of the cell cycle, including the regulation of centrosome maturation and spindle assembly, the removal of cohesins from chromosome arms, the inactivation of anaphase- promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C) inhibitors, and the regulation of mitotic exit and cytokinesis. Polo-like kinase proteins acts by binding and phosphorylating proteins are that already phosphorylated on a specific motif recognized by the POLO box domains. Phosphorylates BORA, BUB1B/BUBR1, CCNB1, CDC25C, CEP55, ECT2, ERCC6L, FBXO5/EMI1, FOXM1, KIF20A/MKLP2, CENPU, NEDD1, NINL, NPM1, NUDC, PKMYT1/MYT1, KIZ, PPP1R12A/MYPT1, PRC1, RACGAP1/CYK4, SGO1, STAG2/SA2, TEX14, TOPORS, p73/TP73, TPT1, WEE1 and HNRNPU. Plays a key role in centrosome functions and the assembly of bipolar spindles by phosphorylating KIZ, NEDD1 and NINL. NEDD1 phosphorylation promotes subsequent targeting of the gamma-tubulin ring complex (gTuRC) to the centrosome, an important step for spindle formation. Phosphorylation of NINL component of the centrosome leads to NINL dissociation from other centrosomal proteins. Involved in mitosis exit and cytokinesis by phosphorylating CEP55, ECT2, KIF20A/MKLP2, CENPU, PRC1 and RACGAP1. Recruited at the central spindle by phosphorylating and docking PRC1 and KIF20A/MKLP2; creates its own docking sites on PRC1 and KIF20A/MKLP2 by mediating phosphorylation of sites subsequently recognized by the POLO box domains. Phosphorylates RACGAP1, thereby creating a docking site for the Rho GTP exchange factor ECT2 that is essential for the cleavage furrow formation. Promotes the central spindle recruitment of ECT2. Plays a central role in G2/M transition of mitotic cell cycle by phosphorylating CCNB1, CDC25C, FOXM1, CENPU, PKMYT1/MYT1, PPP1R12A/MYPT1 and WEE1. Part of a regulatory circuit that promotes the activation of CDK1 by phosphorylating the positive regulator CDC25C and inhibiting the negative regulators WEE1 and PKMYT1/MYT1. Also acts by mediating phosphorylation of cyclin-B1 (CCNB1) on centrosomes in prophase. Phosphorylates FOXM1, a key mitotic transcription regulator, leading to enhance FOXM1 transcriptional activity. Involved in kinetochore functions and sister chromatid cohesion by phosphorylating BUB1B/BUBR1, FBXO5/EMI1 and STAG2/SA2. PLK1 is high on non-attached kinetochores suggesting a role of PLK1 in kinetochore attachment or in spindle assembly checkpoint (SAC) regulation. Required for kinetochore localization of BUB1B. Regulates the dissociation of cohesin from chromosomes by phosphorylating cohesin subunits such as STAG2/SA2. Phosphorylates SGO1: required for spindle pole localization of isoform 3 of SGO1 and plays a role in regulating its centriole cohesion function. Mediates phosphorylation of FBXO5/EMI1, a negative regulator of the APC/C complex during prophase, leading to FBXO5/EMI1 ubiquitination and degradation by the proteasome. Acts as a negative regulator of p53 family members: phosphorylates TOPORS, leading to inhibit the sumoylation of p53/TP53 and simultaneously enhance the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of p53/TP53. Phosphorylates the transactivation domain of the transcription factor p73/TP73, leading to inhibit p73/TP73-mediated transcriptional activation and pro-apoptotic functions. Phosphorylates BORA, and thereby promotes the degradation of BORA. Contributes to the regulation of AURKA function. Also required for recovery after DNA damage checkpoint and entry into mitosis. Phosphorylates MISP, leading to stabilization of cortical and astral microtubule attachments required for proper spindle positioning. Together with MEIKIN, acts as a regulator of kinetochore function during meiosis I: required both for mono-orientation of kinetochores on sister chromosomes and protection of centromeric cohesin from separase- mediated cleavage (By similarity). Phosphorylates CEP68 and is required for its degradation. Regulates nuclear envelope breakdown during prophase by phosphorylating DCTN1 resulting in its localization in the nuclear envelope. Phosphorylates the heat shock transcription factor HSF1, promoting HSF1 nuclear translocation upon heat shock. Phosphorylates HSF1 also in the early mitotic period; this phosphorylation regulates HSF1 localization to the spindle pole, the recruitment of the SCF(BTRC) ubiquitin ligase complex induicing HSF1 degradation, and hence mitotic progression. Regulates mitotic progression by phosphorylating RIOK2. Through the phosphorylation of DZIP1 regulates the localization during mitosis of the BBSome, a ciliary protein complex involved in cilium biogenesis.

Tumor suppressor serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in synaptic plasticity, centriole duplication and G1/S phase transition. Polo-like kinases act by binding and phosphorylating proteins are that already phosphorylated on a specific motif recognized by the POLO box domains. Phosphorylates CENPJ, NPM1, RAPGEF2, RASGRF1, SNCA, SIPA1L1 and SYNGAP1. Plays a key role in synaptic plasticity and memory by regulating the Ras and Rap protein signaling: required for overactivity-dependent spine remodeling by phosphorylating the Ras activator RASGRF1 and the Rap inhibitor SIPA1L1 leading to their degradation by the proteasome. Conversely, phosphorylates the Rap activator RAPGEF2 and the Ras inhibitor SYNGAP1, promoting their activity. Also regulates synaptic plasticity independently of kinase activity, via its interaction with NSF that disrupts the interaction between NSF and the GRIA2 subunit of AMPARs, leading to a rapid rundown of AMPAR-mediated current that occludes long term depression. Required for procentriole formation and centriole duplication by phosphorylating CENPJ and NPM1, respectively. Its induction by p53/TP53 suggests that it may participate in the mitotic checkpoint following stress.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in cell cycle regulation, response to stress and Golgi disassembly. Polo-like kinases act by binding and phosphorylating proteins are that already phosphorylated on a specific motif recognized by the POLO box domains. Phosphorylates ATF2, BCL2L1, CDC25A, CDC25C, CHEK2, HIF1A, JUN, p53/TP53, p73/TP73, PTEN, TOP2A and VRK1. Involved in cell cycle regulation: required for entry into S phase and cytokinesis. Phosphorylates BCL2L1, leading to regulate the G2 checkpoint and progression to cytokinesis during mitosis. Plays a key role in response to stress: rapidly activated upon stress stimulation, such as ionizing radiation, reactive oxygen species (ROS), hyperosmotic stress, UV irradiation and hypoxia. Involved in DNA damage response and G1/S transition checkpoint by phosphorylating CDC25A, p53/TP53 and p73/TP73. Phosphorylates p53/TP53 in response to reactive oxygen species (ROS), thereby promoting p53/TP53-mediated apoptosis. Phosphorylates CHEK2 in response to DNA damage, promoting the G2/M transition checkpoint. Phosphorylates the transcription factor p73/TP73 in response to DNA damage, leading to inhibit p73/TP73-mediated transcriptional activation and pro-apoptotic functions. Phosphorylates HIF1A and JUN is response to hypoxia. Phosphorylates ATF2 following hyperosmotic stress in corneal epithelium. Also involved in Golgi disassembly during the cell cycle: part of a MEK1/MAP2K1-dependent pathway that induces Golgi fragmentation during mitosis by mediating phosphorylation of VRK1. May participate in endomitotic cell cycle, a form of mitosis in which both karyokinesis and cytokinesis are interrupted and is a hallmark of megakaryocyte differentiation, via its interaction with CIB1.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that plays a central role in centriole duplication. Able to trigger procentriole formation on the surface of the parental centriole cylinder, leading to the recruitment of centriole biogenesis proteins such as SASS6, CENPJ/CPAP, CCP110, CEP135 and gamma-tubulin. When overexpressed, it is able to induce centrosome amplification through the simultaneous generation of multiple procentrioles adjoining each parental centriole during S phase. Phosphorylates 'Ser-151' of FBXW5 during the G1/S transition, leading to inhibit FBXW5 ability to ubiquitinate SASS6. Its central role in centriole replication suggests a possible role in tumorigenesis, centrosome aberrations being frequently observed in tumors. Also involved in deuterosome-mediated centriole amplification in multiciliated that can generate more than 100 centrioles. Also involved in trophoblast differentiation by phosphorylating HAND1, leading to disrupt the interaction between HAND1 and MDFIC and activate HAND1. Phosphorylates CDC25C and CHEK2. Required for the recruitment of STIL to the centriole and for STIL-mediated centriole amplification. Phosphorylates CEP131 at 'Ser-78' and PCM1 at 'Ser- 372' which is essential for proper organization and integrity of centriolar satellites.

Inactive serine/threonine-protein kinase that plays a role in cell cycle progression and neuronal differentiation.

Appears to be involved in myelination. Could also participate in ion transport events as addition of plasmolipin to lipid bilayers induces the formation of ion channels, which are voltage-dependent and K(+)-selective (By similarity).

Plasmin dissolves the fibrin of blood clots and acts as a proteolytic factor in a variety of other processes including embryonic development, tissue remodeling, tumor invasion, and inflammation. In ovulation, weakens the walls of the Graafian follicle. It activates the urokinase-type plasminogen activator, collagenases and several complement zymogens, such as C1 and C5. Cleavage of fibronectin and laminin leads to cell detachment and apoptosis. Also cleaves fibrin, thrombospondin and von Willebrand factor. Its role in tissue remodeling and tumor invasion may be modulated by CSPG4. Binds to cells.

Associates with and regulates the activity of the sodium/potassium-transporting ATPase (NKA) which transports Na(+) out of the cell and K(+) into the cell. Inhibits NKA activity in its unphosphorylated state and stimulates activity when phosphorylated. Reduces glutathionylation of the NKA beta-1 subunit ATP1B1, thus reversing glutathionylation-mediated inhibition of ATP1B1. Contributes to female sexual development by maintaining the excitability of neurons which secrete gonadotropin-releasing hormone.

Part of a complex composed of PLOD1, P3H3 and P3H4 that catalyzes hydroxylation of lysine residues in collagen alpha chains and is required for normal assembly and cross-linkling of collagen fibrils (By similarity). Forms hydroxylysine residues in -Xaa-Lys- Gly- sequences in collagens. These hydroxylysines serve as sites of attachment for carbohydrate units and are essential for the stability of the intermolecular collagen cross-links (Probable).

Forms hydroxylysine residues in -Xaa-Lys-Gly- sequences in collagens. These hydroxylysines serve as sites of attachment for carbohydrate units and are essential for the stability of the intermolecular collagen cross-links.

Multifunctional enzyme that catalyzes a series of essential post-translational modifications on Lys residues in procollagen. Plays a redundant role in catalyzing the formation of hydroxylysine residues in -Xaa-Lys-Gly- sequences in collagens. Plays a redundant role in catalyzing the transfer of galactose onto hydroxylysine groups, giving rise to galactosyl 5-hydroxylysine. Has an essential role by catalyzing the subsequent transfer of glucose moieties, giving rise to 1,2-glucosylgalactosyl-5-hydroxylysine residues. Catalyzes hydroxylation and glycosylation of Lys residues in the MBL1 collagen- like domain, giving rise to hydroxylysine and 1,2-glucosylgalactosyl-5- hydroxylysine residues. Essential for normal biosynthesis and secretion of type IV collagens (Probable). Essential for normal formation of basement membranes (By similarity).

May play a role in cell differentiation in the intestinal epithelium

Pyridoxal 5'-phosphate (PLP)-binding protein, which may be involved in intracellular homeostatic regulation of pyridoxal 5'- phosphate (PLP), the active form of vitamin B6.

Catalyzes the initial step in triglyceride hydrolysis in adipocyte and non-adipocyte lipid droplets. Exhibits a strong preference for the hydrolysis of long-chain fatty acid esters at the sn-2 position of the glycerol backbone and acts coordinately with LIPE/HLS and DGAT2 within the lipolytic cascade (By similarity). Also possesses acylglycerol transacylase and phospholipase A2 activities. Transfers fatty acid from triglyceride to retinol, hydrolyzes retinylesters, and generates 1,3- diacylglycerol from triglycerides. Regulates adiposome size and may be involved in the degradation of adiposomes. May play an important role in energy homeostasis (By similarity). May play a role in the response of the organism to starvation, enhancing hydrolysis of triglycerides and providing free fatty acids to other tissues to be oxidized in situations of energy depletion (By similarity).

Specifically catalyzes coenzyme A (CoA)-dependent acylation of 1-acyl-sn-glycerol 3-phosphate (2-lysophosphatidic acid/LPA) to generate phosphatidic acid (PA), an important metabolic intermediate and precursor for both triglycerides and glycerophospholipids. Does not esterify other lysophospholipids. Acyl donors are long chain (at least C16) fatty acyl-CoAs: arachidonoyl-CoA, linoleoyl-CoA, oleoyl-CoA and at a lesser extent palmitoyl-CoA. Additionally possesses low triacylglycerol lipase and CoA-independent acylglycerol transacylase activities and thus may play a role in acyl-chain remodeling of triglycerides. In vitro may express hydrolytic activity against glycerolipids triacylglycerol, diacylglycerol and monoacylglycerol, with a strong preference for oleic acid as the acyl moiety. However, the triacylglycerol hydrolase activity is controversial and may be very low. Possesses phospholipase A2 activity.

Has abundant triacylglycerol lipase activity. Transfers fatty acid from triglyceride to retinol, hydrolyzes retinylesters, and generates 1,3-diacylglycerol from triglycerides. Additionally possesses acylglycerol transacylase and phospholipase A2 activities.

Lysophospholipase which preferentially deacylates unsaturated lysophosphatidylcholine (C18:1), generating glycerophosphocholine. Also can deacylate, to a lesser extent, lysophosphatidylethanolamine (C18:1), lysophosphatidyl-L-serine (C18:1) and lysophosphatidic acid (C16:0).

Calcium-independent and membrane-bound phospholipase, that catalyzes the esterolytic cleavage of fatty acids from glycerophospholipids to yield free fatty acids and lysophospholipids, hence regulating membrane physical properties and the release of lipid second messengers and growth factors. Hydrolyzes phosphatidylethanolamine, phosphatidylcholine and probably phosphatidylinositol with a possible preference for the former. Has also a broad substrate specificity in terms of fatty acid moieties, hydrolyzing saturated and mono-unsaturated fatty acids at nearly equal rates from either the sn-1 or sn-2 position in diacyl phosphatidylcholine. However, has a weak activity toward polyunsaturated fatty acids at the sn-2 position, and thereby favors the production of 2-arachidonoyl lysophosphatidylcholine, a key branch point metabolite in eicosanoid signaling. On the other hand, can produce arachidonic acid from the sn-1 position of diacyl phospholipid and from the sn-2 position of arachidonate-containing plasmalogen substrates. Therefore, plays an important role in the mobilization of arachidonic acid in response to cellular stimuli and the generation of lipid second messengers. Can also hydrolyze lysophosphatidylcholine. In the mitochondrial compartment, catalyzes the hydrolysis and release of oxidized aliphatic chains from cardiolipin and integrates mitochondrial bioenergetics and signaling. It is essential for maintaining efficient bioenergetic mitochondrial function through tailoring mitochondrial membrane lipid metabolism and composition.

Calcium-independent phospholipase involved in phospholipid remodeling with implications in cellular membrane homeostasis, mitochondrial integrity and signal transduction. Hydrolyzes the ester bond of the fatty acyl group attached at sn-1 or sn-2 position of phospholipids (phospholipase A1 and A2 activity respectively), producing lysophospholipids that are used in deacylation-reacylation cycles. Hydrolyzes both saturated and unsaturated long fatty acyl chains in various glycerophospholipid classes such as phosphatidylcholines, phosphatidylethanolamines and phosphatidates, with a preference for hydrolysis at sn-2 position. Can further hydrolyze lysophospholipids carrying saturated fatty acyl chains (lysophospholipase activity). Upon oxidative stress, contributes to remodeling of mitochondrial phospholipids in pancreatic beta cells, in a repair mechanism to reduce oxidized lipid content. Preferentially hydrolyzes oxidized polyunsaturated fatty acyl chains from cardiolipins, yielding monolysocardiolipins that can be reacylated with unoxidized fatty acyls to regenerate native cardiolipin species (By similarity). Hydrolyzes oxidized glycerophosphoethanolamines present in pancreatic islets, releasing oxidized polyunsaturated fatty acids such as hydroxyeicosatetraenoates (HETEs) (By similarity). Has thioesterase activity toward fatty-acyl CoA releasing CoA-SH known to facilitate fatty acid transport and beta- oxidation in mitochondria particularly in skeletal muscle. Plays a role in regulation of membrane dynamics and homeostasis. Selectively hydrolyzes sn-2 arachidonoyl group in plasmalogen phospholipids, structural components of lipid rafts and myelin (By similarity). Regulates F-actin polymerization at the pseudopods, which is required for both speed and directionality of MCP1/CCL2-induced monocyte chemotaxis. Targets membrane phospholipids to produce potent lipid signaling messengers. Generates lysophosphatidate (LPA, 1-acyl-glycerol-3-phosphate), which acts via G-protein receptors in various cell types (By similarity). Has phospholipase A2 activity toward platelet-activating factor (PAF, 1-O- alkyl-2-acetyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine), likely playing a role in inactivation of this potent pro-inflammatory signaling lipid (By similarity). In response to glucose, amplifies calcium influx in pancreatic beta cells to promote INS secretion (By similarity).

Magnesium-independent phospholipid phosphatase of the plasma membrane that catalyzes the dephosphorylation of a variety of glycerolipid and sphingolipid phosphate esters including phosphatidate/PA, lysophosphatidate/LPA, diacylglycerol pyrophosphate/DGPP, sphingosine 1-phosphate/S1P and ceramide 1- phosphate/C1P. Also acts on N-oleoyl ethanolamine phosphate/N-(9Z-octadecenoyl)-ethanolamine phosphate, a potential physiological compound. Through its extracellular phosphatase activity allows both the hydrolysis and the cellular uptake of these bioactive lipid mediators from the milieu, regulating signal transduction in different cellular processes. It is for instance essential for the extracellular hydrolysis of S1P and subsequent conversion into intracellular S1P. Involved in the regulation of inflammation, platelets activation, cell proliferation and migration among other processes. May also have an intracellular activity to regulate phospholipid- mediated signaling pathways (By similarity).

Magnesium-independent phospholipid phosphatase that catalyzes the dephosphorylation of a variety of glycerolipid and sphingolipid phosphate esters including phosphatidate/PA, lysophosphatidate/LPA, sphingosine 1-phosphate/S1P and ceramide 1-phosphate/C1P. Has no apparent extracellular phosphatase activity and therefore most probably acts intracellularly. Also acts on N-oleoyl ethanolamine phosphate/N-(9Z-octadecenoyl)-ethanolamine phosphate, a potential physiological compound. Through dephosphorylation of these bioactive lipid mediators produces new bioactive compounds and may regulate signal transduction in different cellular processes (Probable). Indirectly regulates, for instance, cell cycle G1/S phase transition through its phospholipid phosphatase activity (By similarity).

Magnesium-independent phospholipid phosphatase of the plasma membrane that catalyzes the dephosphorylation of a variety of glycerolipid and sphingolipid phosphate esters including phosphatidate/PA, lysophosphatidate/LPA, diacylglycerol pyrophosphate/DGPP, sphingosine 1-phosphate/S1P and ceramide 1- phosphate/C1P. Also acts on N-oleoyl ethanolamine phosphate/N-(9Z-octadecenoyl)- ethanolamine phosphate, a potential physiological compound. Has both an extracellular and an intracellular phosphatase activity, allowing the hydrolysis and the cellular uptake of these bioactive lipid mediators from the milieu, regulating signal transduction in different cellular processes. Through the dephosphorylation of extracellular sphingosine-1-phosphate and the regulation of its extra- and intracellular availability, plays a role in vascular homeostasis, regulating endothelial cell migration, adhesion, survival, proliferation and the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines. By maintaining the appropriate levels of this lipid in the cerebellum, also ensure its proper development and function (By similarity). Through its intracellular lipid phosphatase activity may act in early compartments of the secretory pathway, regulating the formation of Golgi to endoplasmic reticulum retrograde transport carriers.

Magnesium-independent phospholipid phosphatase with broad substrate specificity. Preferentially catalyzes the conversion of diacylglycerol pyrophosphate into phosphatidate but can also act on phosphatidate and lysophosphatidate. Phospholipid phosphatases are involved in both the synthesis of lipids and the degradation or generation of lipid-signaling molecules like diacylglycerol.

Magnesium-independent phospholipid phosphatase with broad substrate specificity. Preferentially catalyzes the conversion of diacylglycerol pyrophosphate into phosphatidate but can also act on phosphatidate and lysophosphatidate. Phospholipid phosphatases are involved in both the synthesis of lipids and the generation or degradation of lipid-signaling molecules.

Magnesium-independent polyisoprenoid diphosphatase that catalyzes the sequential dephosphorylation of presqualene, farnesyl, geranyl and geranylgeranyl diphosphates. Functions in the innate immune response through the dephosphorylation of presqualene diphosphate which acts as a potent inhibitor of the signaling pathways contributing to polymorphonuclear neutrophils activation. May regulate the biosynthesis of cholesterol and related sterols by dephosphorylating presqualene and farnesyl diphosphate, two key intermediates in this biosynthetic pathway. May also play a role in protein prenylation by acting on farnesyl diphosphate and its derivative geranylgeranyl diphosphate, two precursors for the addition of isoprenoid anchors to membrane proteins. Has a lower activity towards phosphatidic acid (PA), but through phosphatidic acid dephosphorylation may participate in the biosynthesis of phospholipids and triacylglycerols. May also act on ceramide-1-P, lysophosphatidic acid (LPA) and sphing-4-enine 1-phosphate/sphingosine- 1-phosphate.

Plays a role as negative regulator of myoblast differentiation, in part through effects on MTOR signaling. Has no detectable enzymatic activity (By similarity).

Functions as a pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) phosphatase, which also catalyzes the dephosphorylation of pyridoxine 5'-phosphate (PNP) and pyridoxamine 5'-phosphate (PMP), with order of substrate preference PLP > PNP > PMP and therefore plays a role in vitamin B6 metabolism. Also functions as a protein serine phosphatase that specifically dephosphorylates 'Ser-3' in proteins of the actin-depolymerizing factor (ADF)/cofilin family like CFL1 and DSTN. Thereby, regulates cofilin-dependent actin cytoskeleton reorganization, being required for normal progress through mitosis and normal cytokinesis. Does not dephosphorylate phosphothreonines in LIMK1. Does not dephosphorylate peptides containing phosphotyrosine.

Postsynaptic density membrane protein that indirectly regulates glutamatergic synaptic transmission through lysophosphatidic acid (LPA)-mediated signaling pathways. Binds lysophosphatidic acid (LPA) and mediates its internalization into cells. Could act as receptor or a transporter of this lipid at the post-synaptic membrane (By similarity). Modulates lysophosphatidic acid (LPA) activity in neuron axonal outgrowth during development by attenuating phospholipid- induced axon collapse (By similarity).

Induces filopodia formation and promotes neurite growth in a CDC42-independent manner; impedes neurite growth inhibitory-mediated axonal retraction.

Receptor for plasminogen. Regulates urokinase plasminogen activator-dependent and stimulates tissue-type plasminogen activator- dependent cell surface plasminogen activation. Proposed to be part of a local catecholaminergic cell plasminogen activation system that regulates neuroendocrine prohormone processing. Involved in regulation of inflammatory response; regulates monocyte chemotactic migration and matrix metalloproteinase activation, such as of MMP2 and MMP9.

Catalyzes calcium-induced ATP-independent rapid bidirectional and non-specific movement of phospholipids (lipid scrambling or lipid flip-flop) between the inner and outer leaflet of the plasma membrane resulting in collapse of the phospholipid asymmetry which leads to phosphatidylserine externalization on the cell surface. Mediates calcium- dependent phosphatidylserine externalization and apoptosis in neurons via its association with TRPC5 (By similarity). Also exhibits magnesium-dependent nuclease activity against double-stranded DNA and RNA but not single-stranded DNA and can enhance DNA decatenation mediated by TOP2A. Negatively regulates FcR-mediated phagocytosis in differentiated macrophages. May contribute to cytokine-regulated cell proliferation and differentiation (By similarity). May play a role in the antiviral response of interferon (IFN) by amplifying and enhancing the IFN response through increased expression of select subset of potent antiviral genes. Acts as an attachment receptor for HCV.

May mediate accelerated ATP-independent bidirectional transbilayer migration of phospholipids upon binding calcium ions that results in a loss of phospholipid asymmetry in the plasma membrane. May play a central role in the initiation of fibrin clot formation, in the activation of mast cells and in the recognition of apoptotic and injured cells by the reticuloendothelial system

Catalyzes calcium-induced ATP-independent rapid bidirectional and non-specific movement of the phospholipids (lipid scrambling or lipid flip-flop) between the inner and outer membrane of the mitochondria. Plays an important role in mitochondrial respiratory function, morphology, and apoptotic response. Mediates the translocation of cardiolipin from the mitochondrial inner membrane to outer membrane enhancing t-Bid induced cytochrome c release and apoptosis. Enhances TNFSF10-induced apoptosis by regulating the distribution of cardiolipin in the mitochondrial membrane resulting in increased release of apoptogenic factors and consequent amplification of the activity of caspases. Regulates cardiolipin de novo biosynthesis and its resynthesis.

Actin-bundling protein. In the inner ear, it is required for stereocilia formation. Mediates liquid packing of actin filaments that is necessary for stereocilia to grow to their proper dimensions.

Actin-binding protein. Plays a role in the activation of T-cells in response to costimulation through TCR/CD3 and CD2 or CD28. Modulates the cell surface expression of IL2RA/CD25 and CD69.

Actin-bundling protein found in intestinal microvilli, hair cell stereocilia, and fibroblast filopodia. May play a role in the regulation of bone development

Mediates the transfer of phospholipids and free cholesterol from triglyceride-rich lipoproteins (low density lipoproteins or LDL and very low density lipoproteins or VLDL) into high-density lipoproteins (HDL) as well as the exchange of phospholipids between triglyceride-rich lipoproteins themselves. Facilitates the transfer of a spectrum of different lipid molecules, including diacylglycerol, phosphatidic acid, sphingomyelin, phosphatidylcholine, phosphatidylinositol, phosphatidylglycerol, cerebroside and phosphatidyl ethanolamine. Plays an important role in HDL remodeling which involves modulating the size and composition of HDL. Also plays a key role in the uptake of cholesterol from peripheral cells and tissues that is subsequently transported to the liver for degradation and excretion. Two distinct forms of PLTP exist in plasma: an active form that can transfer phosphatidylcholine from phospholipid vesicles to HDL, and an inactive form that lacks this capability.

Endothelial cell-specific membrane protein involved in the formation of the diaphragms that bridge endothelial fenestrae. It is also required for the formation of stomata of caveolae and transendothelial channels. Functions in microvascular permeability, endothelial fenestrae contributing to the passage of water and solutes and regulating transcellular versus paracellular flow in different organs. Plays a specific role in embryonic development.

Coreceptor for SEMA3A, SEMA3C, SEMA3F and SEMA6D. Necessary for signaling by class 3 semaphorins and subsequent remodeling of the cytoskeleton. Plays a role in axon guidance, invasive growth and cell migration. Class 3 semaphorins bind to a complex composed of a neuropilin and a plexin. The plexin modulates the affinity of the complex for specific semaphorins, and its cytoplasmic domain is required for the activation of down-stream signaling events in the cytoplasm (By similarity).

Coreceptor for SEMA3A and SEMA6A. Necessary for signaling by SEMA6A and class 3 semaphorins and subsequent remodeling of the cytoskeleton. Plays a role in axon guidance, invasive growth and cell migration. Class 3 semaphorins bind to a complex composed of a neuropilin and a plexin. The plexin modulates the affinity of the complex for specific semaphorins, and its cytoplasmic domain is required for the activation of down-stream signaling events in the cytoplasm (By similarity).

Coreceptor for SEMA3A and SEMA3F. Necessary for signaling by class 3 semaphorins and subsequent remodeling of the cytoskeleton. Plays a role in axon guidance in the developing nervous system. Regulates the migration of sympathetic neurons, but not of neural crest precursors. Required for normal dendrite spine morphology in pyramidal neurons. May play a role in regulating semaphorin-mediated programmed cell death in the developing nervous system. Class 3 semaphorins bind to a complex composed of a neuropilin and a plexin. The plexin modulates the affinity of the complex for specific semaphorins, and its cytoplasmic domain is required for the activation of down-stream signaling events in the cytoplasm

Coreceptor for SEMA3A. Necessary for signaling by class 3 semaphorins and subsequent remodeling of the cytoskeleton. Plays a role in axon guidance in the developing nervous system. Class 3 semaphorins bind to a complex composed of a neuropilin and a plexin. The plexin modulates the affinity of the complex for specific semaphorins, and its cytoplasmic domain is required for the activation of down-stream signaling events in the cytoplasm (By similarity).

Receptor for SEMA4D. Plays a role in GABAergic synapse development (By similarity). Mediates SEMA4A- and SEMA4D-dependent inhibitory synapse development (By similarity). Plays a role in RHOA activation and subsequent changes of the actin cytoskeleton. Plays a role in axon guidance, invasive growth and cell migration.

Cell surface receptor for SEMA4C, SEMA4D and SEMA4G that plays an important role in cell-cell signaling (By similarity). Plays a role in glutamatergic synapse development and is required for SEMA4A- mediated excitatory synapse development (By similarity). Binding to class 4 semaphorins promotes downstream activation of RHOA and phosphorylation of ERBB2 at 'Tyr-1248' (By similarity). Required for normal differentiation and migration of neuronal cells during brain corticogenesis and for normal embryonic brain development (By similarity). Regulates the migration of cerebellar granule cells in the developing brain (By similarity). Plays a role in RHOA activation and subsequent changes of the actin cytoskeleton. Plays a role in axon guidance, invasive growth and cell migration. May modulate the activity of RAC1 and CDC42 (By similarity).

Receptor for SEMA5A that plays a role in axon guidance, invasive growth and cell migration. Stimulates neurite outgrowth and mediates Ca(2+)/Mg(2+)-dependent cell aggregation. In glioma cells, SEMA5A stimulation of PLXNB3 results in the disassembly of F-actin stress fibers, disruption of focal adhesions and cellular collapse as well as inhibition of cell migration and invasion through ARHGDIA- mediated inactivation of RAC1.

Receptor for SEMA7A, for smallpox semaphorin A39R, vaccinia virus semaphorin A39R and for herpesvirus Sema protein. Binding of semaphorins triggers cellular responses leading to the rearrangement of the cytoskeleton and to secretion of IL6 and IL8 (By similarity).

Cell surface receptor for SEMA4A and for class 3 semaphorins, such as SEMA3A, SEMA3C and SEMA3E. Plays an important role in cell-cell signaling, and in regulating the migration of a wide spectrum of cell types. Regulates the migration of thymocytes in the medulla. Regulates endothelial cell migration. Plays an important role in ensuring the specificity of synapse formation. Required for normal development of the heart and vasculature (By similarity). Mediates anti-angiogenic signaling in response to SEMA3E.

Peroxisomal transporter for multiple cofactors like coenzyme A (CoA), flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD), flavin mononucleotide (FMN) and nucleotide adenosine monophosphate (AMP), and to a lesser extent for nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD(+)), adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and adenosine 3',5'-diphosphate (PAP). May catalyze the transport of free CoA, FAD and NAD(+) from the cytosol into the peroxisomal matrix by a counter-exchange mechanism. Inhibited by pyridoxal 5'- phosphate and bathophenanthroline in vitro.

Forms physiological amyloids that play a central role in melanosome morphogenesis and pigmentation. The maturation of unpigmented premelanosomes from stage I to II is marked by assembly of processed amyloidogenic fragments into parallel fibrillar sheets, which elongate the vesicle into a striated ellipsoidal shape. In pigmented stage III and IV melanosomes, the amyloid matrix serves as a platform where eumelanin precursors accumulate at high local concentrations for pigment formation. May prevent pigmentation-associated toxicity by sequestering toxic reaction intermediates of eumelanin biosynthesis pathway.

Functions as a negative regulator of TGF-beta signaling and thereby probably plays a role in cell proliferation, differentiation, apoptosis, motility, extracellular matrix production and immunosuppression. In the canonical TGF-beta pathway, ZFYVE9/SARA recruits the intracellular signal transducer and transcriptional modulators SMAD2 and SMAD3 to the TGF-beta receptor. Phosphorylated by the receptor, SMAD2 and SMAD3 then form a heteromeric complex with SMAD4 that translocates to the nucleus to regulate transcription. Through interaction with SMAD2 and SMAD3, LDLRAD4 may compete with ZFYVE9 and SMAD4 and prevent propagation of the intracellular signal. Also involved in down-regulation of the androgen receptor (AR), enhancing ubiquitination and proteasome- mediated degradation of AR, probably by recruiting NEDD4.

Part of the MIS12 complex which is required for normal chromosome alignment and segregation and kinetochore formation during mitosis. May act as a cotranscription partner of NFE2L2 involved in regulation of polyamine-induced transcription of SSAT.

Required for normal spermatogenesis. It functions as a scaffold protein that attaches the sperm head-tail connecting piece to the nuclear envelope, thus maintaining sperm head and tail integrity. May also be involved in the general organization of cellular cytoskeleton (By similarity).

Plays a major role in regulating hemoglobin oxygen affinity by controlling the levels of its allosteric effector 2,3- bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG). Also exhibits mutase (EC 5.4.2.11) activity.

Participates in O-mannosyl glycosylation by catalyzing the addition of N-acetylglucosamine to O-linked mannose on glycoproteins. Catalyzes the synthesis of the GlcNAc(beta1-2)Man(alpha1-)O-Ser/Thr moiety on alpha- dystroglycan and other O-mannosylated proteins, providing the necessary basis for the addition of further carbohydrate moieties. Is specific for alpha linked terminal mannose and does not have MGAT3, MGAT4, MGAT5, MGAT7 or MGAT8 activity.

O-linked mannose beta-1,4-N-acetylglucosaminyltransferase that transfers UDP-N-acetyl-D-glucosamine to the 4-position of the mannose to generate N-acetyl-D-glucosamine-beta-1,4-O-D- mannosylprotein. Involved in the biosynthesis of the phosphorylated O- mannosyl trisaccharide (N-acetylgalactosamine-beta-3-N- acetylglucosamine-beta-4-(phosphate-6-)mannose), a carbohydrate structure present in alpha-dystroglycan (DAG1), which is required for binding laminin G-like domain-containing extracellular proteins with high affinity.

Functions via its association with PML-nuclear bodies (PML- NBs) in a wide range of important cellular processes, including tumor suppression, transcriptional regulation, apoptosis, senescence, DNA damage response, and viral defense mechanisms. Acts as the scaffold of PML-NBs allowing other proteins to shuttle in and out, a process which is regulated by SUMO-mediated modifications and interactions. Isoform PML-4 has a multifaceted role in the regulation of apoptosis and growth suppression: activates RB1 and inhibits AKT1 via interactions with PP1 and PP2A phosphatases respectively, negatively affects the PI3K pathway by inhibiting MTOR and activating PTEN, and positively regulates p53/TP53 by acting at different levels (by promoting its acetylation and phosphorylation and by inhibiting its MDM2-dependent degradation). Isoform PML-4 also: acts as a transcriptional repressor of TBX2 during cellular senescence and the repression is dependent on a functional RBL2/E2F4 repressor complex, regulates double-strand break repair in gamma-irradiation-induced DNA damage responses via its interaction with WRN, acts as a negative regulator of telomerase by interacting with TERT, and regulates PER2 nuclear localization and circadian function. Isoform PML-6 inhibits specifically the activity of the tetrameric form of PKM. The nuclear isoforms (isoform PML-1, isoform PML-2, isoform PML-3, isoform PML-4 and isoform PML-5) in concert with SATB1 are involved in local chromatin-loop remodeling and gene expression regulation at the MHC-I locus. Isoform PML-2 is required for efficient IFN-gamma induced MHC II gene transcription via regulation of CIITA. Cytoplasmic PML is involved in the regulation of the TGF-beta signaling pathway. PML also regulates transcription activity of ELF4 and can act as an important mediator for TNF-alpha- and IFN-alpha-mediated inhibition of endothelial cell network formation and migration

Involved in the synthesis of the GDP-mannose and dolichol- phosphate-mannose required for a number of critical mannosyl transfer reactions. In addition, may be responsible for the degradation of glucose-1,6-bisphosphate in ischemic brain.

Involved in the synthesis of the GDP-mannose and dolichol- phosphate-mannose required for a number of critical mannosyl transfer reactions.

Might be involved in growth regulation, and in myelinization in the peripheral nervous system

Component of the post-replicative DNA mismatch repair system (MMR). Heterodimerizes with MLH1 to form MutL alpha. DNA repair is initiated by MutS alpha (MSH2-MSH6) or MutS beta (MSH2-MSH3) binding to a dsDNA mismatch, then MutL alpha is recruited to the heteroduplex. Assembly of the MutL-MutS-heteroduplex ternary complex in presence of RFC and PCNA is sufficient to activate endonuclease activity of PMS2. It introduces single-strand breaks near the mismatch and thus generates new entry points for the exonuclease EXO1 to degrade the strand containing the mismatch. DNA methylation would prevent cleavage and therefore assure that only the newly mutated DNA strand is going to be corrected. MutL alpha (MLH1-PMS2) interacts physically with the clamp loader subunits of DNA polymerase III, suggesting that it may play a role to recruit the DNA polymerase III to the site of the MMR. Also implicated in DNA damage signaling, a process which induces cell cycle arrest and can lead to apoptosis in case of major DNA damages. Possesses an ATPase activity, but in the absence of gross structural changes, ATP hydrolysis may not be necessary for proficient mismatch repair.

Catalyzes the reversible ATP-dependent phosphorylation of mevalonate 5-phosphate to produce mevalonate diphosphate and ADP, a key step in the mevalonic acid mediated biosynthesis of isopentenyl diphosphate and other polyisoprenoid metabolites.

Acts as a negative regulator of entry into mitosis (G2 to M transition) by phosphorylation of the CDK1 kinase specifically when CDK1 is complexed to cyclins. Mediates phosphorylation of CDK1 predominantly on 'Thr-14'. Also involved in Golgi fragmentation. May be involved in phosphorylation of CDK1 on 'Tyr-15' to a lesser degree, however tyrosine kinase activity is unclear and may be indirect. May be a downstream target of Notch signaling pathway during eye development.

Catalyzes the first step in the biosynthesis of NAD from nicotinic acid, the ATP-dependent synthesis of beta-nicotinate D- ribonucleotide from nicotinate and 5-phospho-D-ribose 1-phosphate. Helps prevent cellular oxidative stress via its role in NAD biosynthesis.

3'-exoribonuclease that has a preference for poly(A) tails of mRNAs, thereby efficiently degrading poly(A) tails. Exonucleolytic degradation of the poly(A) tail is often the first step in the decay of eukaryotic mRNAs and is also used to silence certain maternal mRNAs translationally during oocyte maturation and early embryonic development. May act as a regulator of multipotency in embryonic stem cells (By similarity). Is a critical factor for proper spermatogenesis, involved in pre-piRNAs processing to generate mature piRNAs.

Probable hydrolase that plays an aggravative role in the development of cardiac hypertrophy via activation of the NF-kappa-B signaling pathway.

Plays a key role in the repair of DNA damage, functioning as part of both the non-homologous end-joining (NHEJ) and base excision repair (BER) pathways. Through its two catalytic activities, PNK ensures that DNA termini are compatible with extension and ligation by either removing 3'-phosphates from, or by phosphorylating 5'-hydroxyl groups on, the ribose sugar of the DNA backbone.

Catalyzes the transmethylation of nonepinephrine (noradrenaline) to form epinephrine (adrenaline), using S-adenosyl-L- methionine as the methyl donor. Other substrates include phenylethanolamine and octopamine. Also methylates normetanephrine (By similarity).

Positively regulates dimethylation of two adjacent adenosines in the loop of a conserved hairpin near the 3'-end of 18S rRNA.

[Nociceptin]: Ligand of the opioid receptor-like receptor OPRL1. It may act as a transmitter in the brain by modulating nociceptive and locomotor behavior. May be involved in neuronal differentiation and development.

Catalyzes the phosphorolytic breakdown of the N-glycosidic bond in the beta-(deoxy)ribonucleoside molecules, with the formation of the corresponding free purine bases and pentose-1-phosphate. Preferentially acts on 6-oxopurine nucleosides including inosine and guanosine.

Catalyzes the oxidation of either pyridoxine 5'-phosphate (PNP) or pyridoxamine 5'-phosphate (PMP) into pyridoxal 5'-phosphate (PLP).

RNA-binding protein implicated in numerous RNA metabolic processes. Catalyzes the phosphorolysis of single-stranded polyribonucleotides processively in the 3'-to-5' direction. Mitochondrial intermembrane factor with RNA-processing exoribonulease activity. Component of the mitochondrial degradosome (mtEXO) complex, that degrades 3' overhang double-stranded RNA with a 3'-to-5' directionality in an ATP-dependent manner. Involved in the degradation of non-coding mitochondrial transcripts (MT-ncRNA) and tRNA-like molecules. Required for correct processing and polyadenylation of mitochondrial mRNAs. Plays a role as a cytoplasmic RNA import factor that mediates the translocation of small RNA components, like the 5S RNA, the RNA subunit of ribonuclease P and the mitochondrial RNA-processing (MRP) RNA, into the mitochondrial matrix. Plays a role in mitochondrial morphogenesis and respiration; regulates the expression of the electron transport chain (ETC) components at the mRNA and protein levels. In the cytoplasm, shows a 3'-to-5' exoribonuclease mediating mRNA degradation activity; degrades c-myc mRNA upon treatment with IFNB1/IFN-beta, resulting in a growth arrest in melanoma cells. Regulates the stability of specific mature miRNAs in melanoma cells; specifically and selectively degrades miR-221, preferentially. Also plays a role in RNA cell surveillance by cleaning up oxidized RNAs. Binds to the RNA subunit of ribonuclease P, MRP RNA and miR-221 microRNA.

Nuclear receptor coactivator. May play a role in signal transduction.

Involved in nonsense-mediated mRNA decay (NMD) by acting as a bridge between the mRNA decapping complex and the NMD machinery. May act by targeting the NMD machinery to the P-body and recruiting the decapping machinery to aberrant mRNAs. Required for UPF1/RENT1 localization to the P-body. Plays a role in glucocorticoid receptor-mediated mRNA degradation by interacting with the glucocorticoid receptor NR3C1 in a ligand-dependent manner when it is bound to the 5' UTR of target mRNAs and recruiting the RNA helicase UPF1 and the mRNA-decapping enzyme DCP1A, leading to RNA decay. Also acts as a nuclear receptor coactivator. May play a role in controlling the energy balance between energy storage and energy expenditure (By similarity).

Nucleoporin essential for nuclear pore assembly and fusion, nuclear pore spacing, as well as structural integrity.

Transcription factor that binds to the octamer motif (5'- ATTTGCAT-3') and activates the promoters of the genes for some small nuclear RNAs (snRNA) and of genes such as those for histone H2B and immunoglobulins. Modulates transcription transactivation by NR3C1, AR and PGR.

Transcription factor that binds to the octamer motif (5'- ATTTGCAT-3') and regulates cell type-specific differentiation pathways. Involved in the regulation of keratinocytes differentiation. The POU2F3-POU2AF2/POU2AF3 complex drives the expression of tuft-cell-specific genes, a rare chemosensory cells that coordinate immune and neural functions within mucosal epithelial tissues.

Transcription factor that binds to the octamer motif (5'- ATTTGCAT-3') (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional activator when binding cooperatively with SOX4, SOX11, or SOX12 to gene promoters (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional repressor of myelin-specific genes (By similarity).

Transcription factor that plays a key role in neuronal differentiation (By similarity). Binds preferentially to the recognition sequence which consists of two distinct half-sites, ('GCAT') and ('TAAT'), separated by a non-conserved spacer region of 0, 2, or 3 nucleotides (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional activator when binding cooperatively with SOX4, SOX11, or SOX12 to gene promoters (By similarity). The combination of three transcription factors, ASCL1, POU3F2/BRN2 and MYT1L, is sufficient to reprogram fibroblasts and other somatic cells into induced neuronal (iN) cells in vitro (By similarity). Acts downstream of ASCL1, accessing chromatin that has been opened by ASCL1, and promotes transcription of neuronal genes (By similarity).

Transcription factor that acts synergistically with SOX11 and SOX4. Plays a role in neuronal development. Is implicated in an enhancer activity at the embryonic met-mesencephalic junction; the enhancer element contains the octamer motif (5'-ATTTGCAT- 3') (By similarity).

Multifunctional transcription factor with different regions mediating its different effects. Acts by binding (via its C-terminal domain) to sequences related to the consensus octamer motif 5'- ATGCAAAT-3' in the regulatory regions of its target genes. Regulates the expression of specific genes involved in differentiation and survival within a subset of neuronal lineages. It has been shown that activation of some of these genes requires its N-terminal domain, maybe through a neuronal-specific cofactor. Ativates BCL2 expression and protects neuronal cells from apoptosis (via the N-terminal domain). Induces neuronal process outgrowth and the coordinate expression of genes encoding synaptic proteins. Exerts its major developmental effects in somatosensory neurons and in brainstem nuclei involved in motor control. Stimulates the binding affinity of the nuclear estrogene receptor ESR1 to DNA estrogen response element (ERE), and hence modulates ESR1-induced transcriptional activity. May positively regulate POU4F2 and POU4F3. Regulates dorsal root ganglion sensory neuron specification and axonal projection into the spinal cord. Plays a role in TNFSF11-mediated terminal osteoclast differentiation. Negatively regulates its own expression interacting directly with a highly conserved autoregulatory domain surrounding the transcription initiation site.

Tissue-specific DNA-binding transcription factor involved in the development and differentiation of target cells. Functions either as activator or repressor modulating the rate of target gene transcription through RNA polymerase II enzyme in a promoter-dependent manner. Binds to the consensus octamer motif 5'-AT[A/T]A[T/A]T[A/T]A-3' of promoter of target genes. Plays a fundamental role in the gene regulatory network essential for retinal ganglion cell (RGC) differentiation. Binds to an octamer site to form a ternary complex with ISL1; cooperates positively with ISL1 and ISL2 to potentiate transcriptional activation of RGC target genes being involved in RGC fate commitment in the developing retina and RGC axon formation and pathfinding. Inhibits DLX1 and DLX2 transcriptional activities preventing DLX1- and DLX2-mediated ability to promote amacrine cell fate specification. In cooperation with TP53 potentiates transcriptional activation of BAX promoter activity increasing neuronal cell apoptosis. Negatively regulates BAX promoter activity in the absence of TP53. Acts as a transcriptional coactivator via its interaction with the transcription factor ESR1 by enhancing its effect on estrogen response element (ERE)-containing promoter. Antagonizes the transcriptional stimulatory activity of POU4F1 by preventing its binding to an octamer motif. Involved in TNFSF11-mediated terminal osteoclast differentiation (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional activator. Acts by binding to sequences related to the consensus octamer motif 5'- ATGCAAAT-3' in the regulatory regions of its target genes. Involved in the auditory system development, required for terminal differentiation of hair cells in the inner ear (By similarity).

Transcription factor that binds to the octamer motif (5'- ATTTGCAT-3'). Forms a trimeric complex with SOX2 or SOX15 on DNA and controls the expression of a number of genes involved in embryonic development such as YES1, FGF4, UTF1 and ZFP206. Critical for early embryogenesis and for embryonic stem cell pluripotency.

Transcription factor that binds preferentially to the octamer motif (5'-ATGTTAAT-3'). May exert a regulatory function in meiotic events that are required for terminal differentiation of male germ cell (By similarity).

Plays an important role in centriole assembly and/or stability and ciliogenesis. Involved in early steps of centriole duplication, as well as in the later steps of centriole length control. Acts in concert with POC1B to ensure centriole integrity and proper mitotic spindle formation.

Plays an important role in centriole assembly and/or stability and ciliogenesis. Involved in early steps of centriole duplication, as well as in the later steps of centriole length control. Acts in concert with POC1A to ensure centriole integrity and proper mitotic spindle formation. Required for primary cilia formation, ciliary length and also cell proliferation. Required for retinal integrity.

Essential for the assembly of the distal half of centrioles, required for centriole elongation.

Plays a role in the regulation of glomerular permeability, acting probably as a linker between the plasma membrane and the cytoskeleton

Involved in the regulation of both adhesion and cell morphology and cancer progression. Functions as an anti-adhesive molecule that maintains an open filtration pathway between neighboring foot processes in the podocyte by charge repulsion. Acts as a pro- adhesive molecule, enhancing the adherence of cells to immobilized ligands, increasing the rate of migration and cell-cell contacts in an integrin-dependent manner. Induces the formation of apical actin- dependent microvilli. Involved in the formation of a preapical plasma membrane subdomain to set up initial epithelial polarization and the apical lumen formation during renal tubulogenesis. Plays a role in cancer development and aggressiveness by inducing cell migration and invasion through its interaction with the actin-binding protein EZR. Affects EZR-dependent signaling events, leading to increased activities of the MAPK and PI3K pathways in cancer cells.

Plays a key role in the organization of epithelial monolayers by regulating the actin cytoskeleton. May be involved in ovary development.

Plays a role in mitotic cell cycle progression and is involved in kinetochore assembly and mitotic sister chromatid cohesion. Probably through its association with CBX5 plays a role in mitotic chromosome segregation by regulating aurora kinase B/AURKB activation and AURKB and CBX5 dissociation from chromosome arms. Promotes the repair of DNA double-strand breaks through the homologous recombination pathway.

DNA polymerase specifically involved in the DNA repair by translesion synthesis (TLS). Due to low processivity on both damaged and normal DNA, cooperates with the heterotetrameric (REV3L, REV7, POLD2 and POLD3) POLZ complex for complete bypass of DNA lesions. Inserts one or 2 nucleotide(s) opposite the lesion, the primer is further extended by the tetrameric POLZ complex. In the case of 1,2-intrastrand d(GpG)-cisplatin cross-link, inserts dCTP opposite the 3' guanine. Particularly important for the repair of UV-induced pyrimidine dimers. Although inserts the correct base, may cause base transitions and transversions depending upon the context. May play a role in hypermutation at immunoglobulin genes. Forms a Schiff base with 5'- deoxyribose phosphate at abasic sites, but does not have any lyase activity, preventing the release of the 5'-deoxyribose phosphate (5'- dRP) residue. This covalent trapping of the enzyme by the 5'-dRP residue inhibits its DNA synthetic activity during base excision repair, thereby avoiding high incidence of mutagenesis. Targets POLI to replication foci.

Error-prone DNA polymerase specifically involved in DNA repair. Plays an important role in translesion synthesis, where the normal high-fidelity DNA polymerases cannot proceed and DNA synthesis stalls. Favors Hoogsteen base-pairing in the active site. Inserts the correct base with high-fidelity opposite an adenosine template. Exhibits low fidelity and efficiency opposite a thymidine template, where it will preferentially insert guanosine. May play a role in hypermutation of immunoglobulin genes. Forms a Schiff base with 5'-deoxyribose phosphate at abasic sites, but may not have lyase activity.

Serine protease. Hydrolyzes the peptides N-t-Boc-Gln-Ala-Arg- AMC and N-t-Boc-Gln-Gly-Arg-AMC and, to a lesser extent, N-t-Boc-Ala- Phe-Lys-AMC and N-t-Boc-Val-Leu-Lys-AMC. Has a preference for substrates with an Arg instead of a Lys residue in position P1

Molecular chaperone essential for the assembly of standard proteasomes and immunoproteasomes. Degraded after completion of proteasome maturation. Mediates the association of 20S preproteasome with the endoplasmic reticulum.

Transfers mannosyl residues to the hydroxyl group of serine or threonine residues. Coexpression of both POMT1 and POMT2 is necessary for enzyme activity, expression of either POMT1 or POMT2 alone is insufficient. Essentially dedicated to O-mannosylation of alpha- DAG1 and few other proteins but not of cadherins and protocaherins.

Transfers mannosyl residues to the hydroxyl group of serine or threonine residues. Coexpression of both POMT1 and POMT2 is necessary for enzyme activity, expression of either POMT1 or POMT2 alone is insufficient. Essentially dedicated to O-mannosylation of alpha-DAG1 and few other proteins but not of cadherins and protocaherins.

Hydrolyzes the toxic metabolites of a variety of organophosphorus insecticides. Capable of hydrolyzing a broad spectrum of organophosphate substrates and lactones, and a number of aromatic carboxylic acid esters. Mediates an enzymatic protection of low density lipoproteins against oxidative modification and the consequent series of events leading to atheroma formation.

Capable of hydrolyzing lactones and a number of aromatic carboxylic acid esters. Has antioxidant activity. Is not associated with high density lipoprotein. Prevents LDL lipid peroxidation, reverses the oxidation of mildly oxidized LDL, and inhibits the ability of MM-LDL to induce monocyte chemotaxis.

Has low activity towards the organophosphate paraxon and aromatic carboxylic acid esters. Rapidly hydrolyzes lactones such as statin prodrugs (e.g. lovastatin). Hydrolyzes aromatic lactones and 5- or 6-member ring lactones with aliphatic substituents but not simple lactones or those with polar substituents.

Component of ribonuclease P, a ribonucleoprotein complex that generates mature tRNA molecules by cleaving their 5'-ends. Also a component of the MRP ribonuclease complex, which cleaves pre-rRNA sequences.

Component of ribonuclease P, a protein complex that generates mature tRNA molecules by cleaving their 5'-ends. Also a component of the MRP ribonuclease complex, which cleaves pre-rRNA sequences.

Cell adhesion molecule involved in the establishment and/or maintenance of cell integrity. Involved in the formation and regulation of the tight junction (TJ) paracellular permeability barrier in epithelial cells. Plays a role in VAMP3-mediated vesicular transport and recycling of different receptor molecules through its interaction with VAMP3. Plays a role in the regulation of cell shape and movement by modulating the Rho-family GTPase activity through its interaction with ARHGEF25/GEFT. Induces primordial adhesive contact and aggregation of epithelial cells in a Ca(2+)-independent manner. Also involved in striated muscle regeneration and repair and in the regulation of cell spreading (By similarity). Important for the maintenance of cardiac function. Plays a regulatory function in heart rate dynamics mediated, at least in part, through cAMP-binding and, probably, by increasing cell surface expression of the potassium channel KCNK2 and enhancing current density. Is also a caveolae-associated protein important for the preservation of caveolae structural and functional integrity as well as for heart protection against ischemia injury.

May play a role in the maintenance of heart function mediated, at least in part, through cAMP-binding. May play a role in the regulation of KCNK2/TREK-1-mediated current amplitude.

Protein-serine O-palmitoleoyltransferase that acts as a key regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway by mediating the attachment of palmitoleate, a 16-carbon monounsaturated fatty acid (C16:1(9Z)), to Wnt proteins. Serine palmitoleoylation of WNT proteins is required for efficient binding to frizzled receptors.

Plays a key role in early steps of protein N-linked glycosylation by being required for the conversion of polyprenol into dolichol. Dolichols are required for the synthesis of dolichol-linked monosaccharides and the oligosaccharide precursor used for N-glycosylation. Acts as a polyprenol reductase that promotes the reduction of the alpha-isoprene unit of polyprenols into dolichols in a NADP-dependent mechanism. Also able to convert testosterone (T) into 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone (DHT).

Implicated in oncotic cell death, characterized by cell swelling, organelle swelling, vacuolization and increased membrane permeability.

Induces cell attachment and spreading and plays a role in cell adhesion. Enhances incorporation of BMP1 in the fibronectin matrix of connective tissues, and subsequent proteolytic activation of lysyl oxidase LOX (By similarity).

Component of the telomerase ribonucleoprotein (RNP) complex that is essential for the replication of chromosome termini. Is a component of the double-stranded telomeric DNA-binding TRF1 complex which is involved in the regulation of telomere length by cis- inhibition of telomerase. Also acts as a single-stranded telomeric DNA- binding protein and thus may act as a downstream effector of the TRF1 complex and may transduce information about telomere maintenance and/or length to the telomere terminus. Component of the shelterin complex (telosome) that is involved in the regulation of telomere length and protection. Shelterin associates with arrays of double-stranded TTAGGG repeats added by telomerase and protects chromosome ends; without its protective activity, telomeres are no longer hidden from the DNA damage surveillance and chromosome ends are inappropriately processed by DNA repair pathways. Binds to two or more telomeric single-stranded 5'- TTAGGG-3' repeats (G-strand) and with high specificity to a minimal telomeric single-stranded 5'-TAGGGTTAG-3' sequence. Binds telomeric single-stranded sequences internally or at proximity of a 3'-end. Its activity is TERT dependent but it does not increase TERT activity by itself. In contrast, the ACD-POT1 heterodimer enhances telomere elongation by increasing telomerase processivity.

Glycogen-targeting subunit for protein phosphatase 1 (PP1). Involved in the regulation of hepatic glycogenesis in a manner coupled to the fasting-feeding cycle and distinct from other glycogen-targeting subunits (By similarity).

Binds beta-galactoside and lactose. Strong inducer of T-cell apoptosis. Has hemagglutinating activity towards chicken erythrocytes.

Inhibitor of PPP1CA. Has over 1000-fold higher inhibitory activity when phosphorylated, creating a molecular switch for regulating the phosphorylation status of PPP1CA substrates and smooth muscle contraction

Inhibitor of PPP1CA. Has over 50-fold higher inhibitory activity when phosphorylated (By similarity).

Inhibitor of PPP1CA. Has inhibitory activity only when phosphorylated, creating a molecular switch for regulating the phosphorylation status of PPP1CA substrates and smooth muscle contraction.

Inhibits protein phosphatase 1 activity toward phosphorylase, myosin light chain and myosin substrates.

Regulator of protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) that acts as a positive regulator of pulmonary endothelial cell (EC) barrier function. Involved in the regulation of the PI3K/AKT signaling pathway, angiogenesis and endothelial cell proliferation. Regulates angiogenesis and endothelial cell proliferation through the control of ECE1 dephosphorylation, trafficking and activity (By similarity). Protects the endothelial barrier from lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-induced vascular leakage (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of endothelial cell filopodia extension (By similarity). May be a downstream target for TGF-beta1 signaling cascade in endothelial cells. Involved in PKA-mediated moesin dephosphorylation which is important in EC barrier protection against thrombin stimulation. Promotes the interaction of PPP1CA with RPSA/LAMR1 and in turn facilitates the dephosphorylation of RPSA/LAMR1. Involved in the dephosphorylation of EEF1A1.

Protein phosphatase that associates with over 200 regulatory proteins to form highly specific holoenzymes which dephosphorylate hundreds of biological targets. Protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) is essential for cell division, and participates in the regulation of glycogen metabolism, muscle contractility and protein synthesis. Involved in regulation of ionic conductances and long-term synaptic plasticity. May play an important role in dephosphorylating substrates such as the postsynaptic density-associated Ca(2+)/calmodulin dependent protein kinase II. Component of the PTW/PP1 phosphatase complex, which plays a role in the control of chromatin structure and cell cycle progression during the transition from mitosis into interphase. Regulates NEK2 function in terms of kinase activity and centrosome number and splitting, both in the presence and absence of radiation- induced DNA damage. Regulator of neural tube and optic fissure closure, and enteric neural crest cell (ENCCs) migration during development. In balance with CSNK1D and CSNK1E, determines the circadian period length, through the regulation of the speed and rhythmicity of PER1 and PER2 phosphorylation. May dephosphorylate CSNK1D and CSNK1E. Dephosphorylates the 'Ser-418' residue of FOXP3 in regulatory T-cells (Treg) from patients with rheumatoid arthritis, thereby inactivating FOXP3 and rendering Treg cells functionally defective. Dephosphorylates CENPA. Dephosphorylates the 'Ser-139' residue of ATG16L1 causing dissociation of ATG12-ATG5-ATG16L1 complex, thereby inhibiting autophagy.

Protein phosphatase that associates with over 200 regulatory proteins to form highly specific holoenzymes which dephosphorylate hundreds of biological targets. Protein phosphatase (PP1) is essential for cell division, it participates in the regulation of glycogen metabolism, muscle contractility and protein synthesis. Involved in regulation of ionic conductances and long-term synaptic plasticity. Component of the PTW/PP1 phosphatase complex, which plays a role in the control of chromatin structure and cell cycle progression during the transition from mitosis into interphase. In balance with CSNK1D and CSNK1E, determines the circadian period length, through the regulation of the speed and rhythmicity of PER1 and PER2 phosphorylation. May dephosphorylate CSNK1D and CSNK1E. Dephosphorylates the 'Ser-418' residue of FOXP3 in regulatory T-cells (Treg) from patients with rheumatoid arthritis, thereby inactivating FOXP3 and rendering Treg cells functionally defective.

Protein phosphatase that associates with over 200 regulatory proteins to form highly specific holoenzymes which dephosphorylate hundreds of biological targets. Protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) is essential for cell division, and participates in the regulation of glycogen metabolism, muscle contractility and protein synthesis. Dephosphorylates RPS6KB1. Involved in regulation of ionic conductances and long-term synaptic plasticity. May play an important role in dephosphorylating substrates such as the postsynaptic density- associated Ca(2+)/calmodulin dependent protein kinase II. Component of the PTW/PP1 phosphatase complex, which plays a role in the control of chromatin structure and cell cycle progression during the transition from mitosis into interphase. In balance with CSNK1D and CSNK1E, determines the circadian period length, through the regulation of the speed and rhythmicity of PER1 and PER2 phosphorylation. May dephosphorylate CSNK1D and CSNK1E. Dephosphorylates the 'Ser-418' residue of FOXP3 in regulatory T-cells (Treg) from patients with rheumatoid arthritis, thereby inactivating FOXP3 and rendering Treg cells functionally defective.

Inhibitor subunit of the major nuclear protein phosphatase-1 (PP-1). It has RNA-binding activity but does not cleave RNA and may target PP-1 to RNA-associated substrates. May also be involved in pre- mRNA splicing. Binds DNA and might act as a transcriptional repressor. Seems to be required for cell proliferation

Scaffold protein which mediates the formation of the PTW/PP1 phosphatase complex by providing a binding platform to each component of the complex. The PTW/PP1 phosphatase complex plays a role in the control of chromatin structure and cell cycle progression during the transition from mitosis into interphase. Mediates interaction of WDR82 and PPP1CA. Inhibitor of PPP1CA and PPP1CC phosphatase activities. Has inhibitory activity on PPP1CA only when phosphorylated. Binds to mRNA, single-stranded DNA (ssDNA), poly(A) and poly(G) homopolymers (By similarity).

Atypical E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which ubiquitinates TLR2 at 'Lys-754' leading to its degradation by the proteasome. Plays a role in regulating inflammatory cytokine release and gram-positive bacterial clearance by functioning, in part, through the ubiquitination and degradation of TLR2. Inhibitor of protein phosphatase 1.

PP2A is the major phosphatase for microtubule-associated proteins (MAPs). PP2A can modulate the activity of phosphorylase B kinase casein kinase 2, mitogen-stimulated S6 kinase, and MAP-2 kinase. Cooperates with SGO2 to protect centromeric cohesin from separase-mediated cleavage in oocytes specifically during meiosis I (By similarity). Can dephosphorylate SV40 large T antigen and p53/TP53. Activates RAF1 by dephosphorylating it at 'Ser-259'. Mediates dephosphorylation of WEE1, preventing its ubiquitin-mediated proteolysis, increasing WEE1 protein levels, and promoting the G2/M checkpoint. Mediates dephosphorylation of MYC; promoting its ubiquitin-mediated proteolysis: interaction with AMBRA1 enhances interaction between PPP2CA and MYC. Mediates dephosphorylation of FOXO3; promoting its stabilization: interaction with AMBRA1 enhances interaction between PPP2CA and FOXO3.

Catalytic subunit of protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A), a serine/threonine phosphatase involved in the regulation of a wide variety of enzymes, signal transduction pathways, and cellular events (Probable). PP2A can modulate the activity of phosphorylase B kinase, casein kinase 2, mitogen-stimulated S6 kinase, and MAP-2 kinase.

Calcium-dependent, calmodulin-stimulated protein phosphatase which plays an essential role in the transduction of intracellular Ca(2+)-mediated signals. Many of the substrates contain a PxIxIT motif and/or a LxVP motif. In response to increased Ca(2+) levels, dephosphorylates and activates phosphatase SSH1 which results in cofilin dephosphorylation. In response to increased Ca(2+) levels following mitochondrial depolarization, dephosphorylates DNM1L inducing DNM1L translocation to the mitochondrion. Positively regulates the CACNA1B/CAV2.2-mediated Ca(2+) release probability at hippocampal neuronal soma and synaptic terminals (By similarity). Dephosphorylates heat shock protein HSPB1 (By similarity). Dephosphorylates and activates transcription factor NFATC1. In response to increased Ca(2+) levels, regulates NFAT-mediated transcription probably by dephosphorylating NFAT and promoting its nuclear translocation. Dephosphorylates and inactivates transcription factor ELK1. Dephosphorylates DARPP32. May dephosphorylate CRTC2 at 'Ser-171' resulting in CRTC2 dissociation from 14-3-3 proteins. Dephosphorylates transcription factor TFEB at 'Ser- 211' following Coxsackievirus B3 infection, promoting nuclear translocation. Required for postnatal development of the nephrogenic zone and superficial glomeruli in the kidneys, cell cycle homeostasis in the nephrogenic zone, and ultimately normal kidney function (By similarity). Plays a role in intracellular AQP2 processing and localization to the apical membrane in the kidney, may thereby be required for efficient kidney filtration (By similarity). Required for secretion of salivary enzymes amylase, peroxidase, lysozyme and sialic acid via formation of secretory vesicles in the submandibular glands (By similarity). Required for calcineurin activity and homosynaptic depotentiation in the hippocampus (By similarity). Required for normal differentiation and survival of keratinocytes and therefore required for epidermis superstructure formation (By similarity). Positively regulates osteoblastic bone formation, via promotion of osteoblast differentiation (By similarity). Positively regulates osteoclast differentiation, potentially via NFATC1 signaling (By similarity). May play a role in skeletal muscle fiber type specification, potentially via NFATC1 signaling (By similarity). Negatively regulates MAP3K14/NIK signaling via inhibition of nuclear translocation of the transcription factors RELA and RELB (By similarity). Required for antigen-specific T- cell proliferation response (By similarity).

Calcium-dependent, calmodulin-stimulated protein phosphatase which plays an essential role in the transduction of intracellular Ca(2+)-mediated signals. Dephosphorylates and activates transcription factor NFATC1. Dephosphorylates and inactivates transcription factor ELK1. Dephosphorylates DARPP32. Negatively regulates MAP3K14/NIK signaling via inhibition of nuclear translocation of the transcription factors RELA and RELB (By similarity). May play a role in skeletal muscle fiber type specification (By similarity).

Calcium-dependent, calmodulin-stimulated protein phosphatase which plays an essential role in the transduction of intracellular Ca(2+)-mediated signals. Dephosphorylates and activates transcription factor NFATC1. Dephosphorylates and inactivates transcription factor ELK1. Dephosphorylates DARPP32.

Protein phosphatase that is involved in many processes such as microtubule organization at centrosomes, maturation of spliceosomal snRNPs, apoptosis, DNA repair, tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha signaling, activation of c-Jun N-terminal kinase MAPK8, regulation of histone acetylation, DNA damage checkpoint signaling, NF-kappa-B activation and cell migration. The PPP4C-PPP4R1 PP4 complex may play a role in dephosphorylation and regulation of HDAC3. The PPP4C-PPP4R2- PPP4R3A PP4 complex specifically dephosphorylates H2AX phosphorylated on Ser-140 (gamma-H2AX) generated during DNA replication and required for DNA double strand break repair. Dephosphorylates NDEL1 at CDK1 phosphorylation sites and negatively regulates CDK1 activity in interphase (By similarity). In response to DNA damage, catalyzes RPA2 dephosphorylation, an essential step for DNA repair since it allows the efficient RPA2-mediated recruitment of RAD51 to chromatin.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol-4,5- bisphosphate (PtdIns-4,5-P2) to phosphatidylinositol-4-phosphate (PtdIns-4-P). Does not hydrolyze phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate, phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate, inositol 3,5-bisphosphate, inositol 3,4-bisphosphate, phosphatidylinositol 5- monophosphate, phosphatidylinositol 4-monophosphate and phosphatidylinositol 3-monophosphate. Regulates lysosomal positioning by recruiting JIP4 to lysosomal membranes, thus inducing retrograde transport of lysosomes along microtubules. Contributes to assembly of the V-ATPase complex in lipid rafts of the lysosomal membrane and to subsequent amino acid- dependent activation of mTORC1. May play a role in the regulation of cellular cholesterol metabolism.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol-4,5- bisphosphate (PtdIns-4,5-P2) to phosphatidylinositol-4-phosphate (PtdIns-4-P). Does not hydrolyze phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate, phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate, inositol 3,5-bisphosphate, inositol 3,4-bisphosphate, phosphatidylinositol 5- monophosphate, phosphatidylinositol 4-monophosphate and phosphatidylinositol 3-monophosphate. Negatively regulates the phagocytosis of large particles by reducing phagosomal phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate accumulation during cup formation (By similarity).

Regulatory subunit of serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 4. May play a role in regulation of cell division in renal glomeruli. The PPP4C-PPP4R1 PP4 complex may play a role in dephosphorylation and regulation of HDAC3.

Regulatory subunit of serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 4 (PP4). May regulate the activity of PPP4C at centrosomal microtubule organizing centers. Its interaction with the SMN complex leads to enhance the temporal localization of snRNPs, suggesting a role of PPP4C in maturation of spliceosomal snRNPs. The PPP4C-PPP4R2-PPP4R3A PP4 complex specifically dephosphorylates H2AX phosphorylated on 'Ser-140' (gamma-H2AX) generated during DNA replication and required for DNA double strand break repair. Mediates RPA2 dephosphorylation by recruiting PPP4C to RPA2 in a DNA damage-dependent manner. RPA2 dephosphorylation is required for the efficient RPA2-mediated recruitment of RAD51 to chromatin following double strand breaks, an essential step for DNA repair.

Putative regulatory subunit of serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 4

Regulatory subunit of protein phosphatase 6 (PP6). May function as a scaffolding PP6 subunit. Involved in the PP6-mediated dephosphorylation of NFKBIE opposing its degradation in response to TNF-alpha.

Regulatory subunit of protein phosphatase 6 (PP6). May function as a scaffolding PP6 subunit. May have an important role in maintaining immune self-tolerance.

Involved in osteopontin/bone sialoprotein dephosphorylation. Its expression seems to increase in certain pathological states such as Gaucher and Hodgkin diseases, the hairy cell, the B-cell, and the T- cell leukemias

Hydrolyzes lysophosphatidic acid (LPA) containing a medium length fatty acid chain to the corresponding monoacylglycerol. Has highest activity with lysophosphatidic acid containing myristate (C14:0), monounsaturated oleate (C18:1) or palmitate (C16:0), and lower activity with C18:0 and C6:0 lysophosphatidic acid.

Acts on tyrosine phosphorylated proteins, low-MW aryl phosphates and natural and synthetic acyl phosphates with differences in substrate specificity between isoform 1 and isoform 2.

A non-specific tyrosine phosphatase that dephosphorylates a diverse number of substrates under acidic conditions (pH 4-6) including alkyl, aryl, and acyl orthophosphate monoesters and phosphorylated proteins. Has lipid phosphatase activity and inactivates lysophosphatidic acid in seminal plasma.

Ligand-activated transcription factor. Key regulator of lipid metabolism. Activated by the endogenous ligand 1-palmitoyl-2-oleoyl-sn- glycerol-3-phosphocholine (16:0/18:1-GPC). Activated by oleylethanolamide, a naturally occurring lipid that regulates satiety. Receptor for peroxisome proliferators such as hypolipidemic drugs and fatty acids. Regulates the peroxisomal beta-oxidation pathway of fatty acids. Functions as transcription activator for the ACOX1 and P450 genes. Transactivation activity requires heterodimerization with RXRA and is antagonized by NR2C2. May be required for the propagation of clock information to metabolic pathways regulated by PER2.

Ligand-activated transcription factor key mediator of energy metabolism in adipose tissues. Receptor that binds peroxisome proliferators such as hypolipidemic drugs and fatty acids. Has a preference for poly-unsaturated fatty acids, such as gamma- linoleic acid and eicosapentanoic acid. Once activated by a ligand, the receptor binds to promoter elements of target genes. Regulates the peroxisomal beta-oxidation pathway of fatty acids. Functions as transcription activator for the acyl-CoA oxidase gene. Decreases expression of NPC1L1 once activated by a ligand.

May dephosphorylate receptor tyrosine-protein kinase ERBB4 and inhibits its ligand-induced proteolytic cleavage. May play a role in odontogenesis.

Alkaline phosphatase that can hydrolyze various phosphate compounds.

Alkaline phosphatase that metabolizes various phosphate compounds and plays a key role in skeletal mineralization and adaptive thermogenesis. Has broad substrate specificity and can hydrolyze a considerable variety of compounds: however, only a few substrates, such as diphosphate (inorganic pyrophosphate; PPi), pyridoxal 5'-phosphate (PLP) and N- phosphocreatine are natural substrates. Plays an essential role in skeletal and dental mineralization via its ability to hydrolyze extracellular diphosphate, a potent mineralization inhibitor, to phosphate: it thereby promotes hydroxyapatite crystal formation and increases inorganic phosphate concentration. Acts in a non- redundant manner with PHOSPHO1 in skeletal mineralization: while PHOSPHO1 mediates the initiation of hydroxyapatite crystallization in the matrix vesicles (MVs), ALPL/TNAP catalyzes the spread of hydroxyapatite crystallization in the extracellular matrix (By similarity). Also promotes dephosphorylation of osteopontin (SSP1), an inhibitor of hydroxyapatite crystallization in its phosphorylated state; it is however unclear whether ALPL/TNAP mediates SSP1 dephosphorylation via a direct or indirect manner (By similarity). Catalyzes dephosphorylation of PLP to pyridoxal (PL), the transportable form of vitamin B6, in order to provide a sufficient amount of PLP in the brain, an essential cofactor for enzymes catalyzing the synthesis of diverse neurotransmitters. Additionally, also able to mediate ATP degradation in a stepwise manner to adenosine, thereby regulating the availability of ligands for purinergic receptors (By similarity). Also capable of dephosphorylating microbial products, such as lipopolysaccharides (LPS) as well as other phosphorylated small-molecules, such as poly-inosine:cytosine (poly I:C). Acts as a key regulator of adaptive thermogenesis as part of the futile creatine cycle: localizes to the mitochondria of thermogenic fat cells and acts by mediating hydrolysis of N-phosphocreatine to initiate a futile cycle of creatine dephosphorylation and phosphorylation (By similarity). During the futile creatine cycle, creatine and N-phosphocreatine are in a futile cycle, which dissipates the high energy charge of N-phosphocreatine as heat without performing any mechanical or chemical work (By similarity).

Serine peptidase whose precise substrate specificity remains unclear. Does not cleave peptides after a arginine or lysine residue. Regulates trans-Golgi network morphology and sorting by regulating the membrane binding of the AP-1 complex. May play a role in the regulation of synaptic vesicle exocytosis.

Cleaves peptide bonds on the C-terminal side of prolyl residues within peptides that are up to approximately 30 amino acids long

Catalyzes the second step in the biosynthesis of coenzyme A from vitamin B5, where cysteine is conjugated to 4'-phosphopantothenate to form 4-phosphopantothenoylcysteine. Has a preference for ATP over CTP as a cosubstrate.

Catalyzes the transfer of phosphatidylcholine between membranes. Binds a single lipid molecule.

May have a role in the recovery or adaptation response of photoreceptors. May have a role in development

May play a role in phototransduction. May dephosphorylate photoactivated rhodopsin. May function as a calcium sensing regulator of ionic currents, energy production or synaptic transmission

Protective protein appears to be essential for both the activity of beta-galactosidase and neuraminidase, it associates with these enzymes and exerts a protective function necessary for their stability and activity. This protein is also a carboxypeptidase and can deamidate tachykinins.

Component of the HUSH complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates epigenetic repression. The HUSH complex is recruited to genomic loci rich in H3K9me3 and is probably required to maintain transcriptional silencing by promoting recruitment of SETDB1, a histone methyltransferase that mediates further deposition of H3K9me3. In the HUSH complex, contributes to the maintenance of the complex at chromatin. Acts as a transcriptional corepressor and regulates the cell cycle, probably via the HUSH complex. The HUSH complex is also involved in the silencing of unintegrated retroviral DNA: some part of the retroviral DNA formed immediately after infection remains unintegrated in the host genome and is transcriptionally repressed. May be involved in epithelial differentiation by contributing to epidermal integrity and barrier formation.

Catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in oligopeptides. Exerts a strong chemotactic effect on leukocytes partly through activation of one of its membrane receptors BSG/CD147, initiating a signaling cascade that culminates in MAPK/ERK activation. Activates endothelial cells (ECs) in a pro-inflammatory manner by stimulating activation of NF-kappa-B and ERK, JNK and p38 MAP-kinases and by inducing expression of adhesion molecules including SELE and VCAM1. Induces apoptosis in ECs by promoting the FOXO1-dependent expression of CCL2 and BCL2L11 which are involved in EC chemotaxis and apoptosis. In response to oxidative stress, initiates proapoptotic and antiapoptotic signaling in ECs via activation of NF-kappa-B and AKT1 and up-regulation of antiapoptotic protein BCL2. Negatively regulates MAP3K5/ASK1 kinase activity, autophosphorylation and oxidative stress-induced apoptosis mediated by MAP3K5/ASK1. Necessary for the assembly of TARDBP in heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein (hnRNP) complexes and regulates TARDBP binding to RNA UG repeats and TARDBP-dependent expression of HDAC6, ATG7 and VCP which are involved in clearance of protein aggregates. Plays an important role in platelet activation and aggregation (By similarity). Regulates calcium mobilization and integrin ITGA2B:ITGB3 bidirectional signaling via increased ROS production as well as by facilitating the interaction between integrin and the cell cytoskeleton (By similarity). Binds heparan sulfate glycosaminoglycans. Inhibits replication of influenza A virus (IAV). Inhibits ITCH/AIP4-mediated ubiquitination of matrix protein 1 (M1) of IAV by impairing the interaction of ITCH/AIP4 with M1, followed by the suppression of the nuclear export of M1, and finally reduction of the replication of IAV.

PPIase that catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in oligopeptides and may therefore assist protein folding.

PPIase that catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in oligopeptides and may therefore assist protein folding. Proposed to act as a co- chaperone in HSP90 complexes such as in unligated steroid receptors heterocomplexes. Different co-chaperones seem to compete for association with HSP90 thus establishing distinct HSP90-co-chaperone- receptor complexes with the potential to exert tissue-specific receptor activity control. May have a preference for estrogen receptor complexes and is not found in glucocorticoid receptor complexes. May be involved in cytoplasmic dynein-dependent movement of the receptor from the cytoplasm to the nucleus. May regulate MYB by inhibiting its DNA- binding activity. Involved in regulation of AHR signaling by promoting the formation of the AHR:ARNT dimer; the function is independent of HSP90 but requires the chaperone activity. Involved in regulation of UV radiation-induced apoptosis. Promotes cell viability in anaplastic lymphoma kinase-positive anaplastic large-cell lymphoma (ALK+ ALCL) cell lines.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Combines RNA-binding and PPIase activities. Binds mRNA and has a preference for single-stranded RNA molecules with poly-A and poly-U stretches, suggesting it binds to the poly(A)-region in the 3'-UTR of mRNA molecules. Catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in proteins. Inhibits KMT2A activity; this requires proline isomerase activity.

PPIase that catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in oligopeptides and may therefore assist protein folding. Involved in regulation of the mitochondrial permeability transition pore (mPTP). It is proposed that its association with the mPTP is masking a binding site for inhibiting inorganic phosphate (Pi) and promotes the open probability of the mPTP leading to apoptosis or necrosis; the requirement of the PPIase activity for this function is debated. In cooperation with mitochondrial p53/TP53 is involved in activating oxidative stress-induced necrosis. Involved in modulation of mitochondrial membrane F(1)F(0) ATP synthase activity and regulation of mitochondrial matrix adenine nucleotide levels (By similarity). Has anti-apoptotic activity independently of mPTP and in cooperation with BCL2 inhibits cytochrome c-dependent apoptosis.

PPIase that catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in oligopeptides and may therefore assist protein folding. May be implicated in the folding, transport, and assembly of proteins. May play an important role in the regulation of pre-mRNA splicing.

PPIase that catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in oligopeptides and may therefore assist protein folding. Participates in pre-mRNA splicing. May play a role in the assembly of the U4/U5/U6 tri-snRNP complex, one of the building blocks of the spliceosome. May act as a chaperone.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. PPIases accelerate the folding of proteins. Catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in oligopeptides. Catalyzes prolyl peptide bond isomerization in CDC40/PRP17. Plays an important role in embryonic brain development; this function is independent of its isomerase activity.

Has a ubiquitin-protein ligase activity acting as an E3 ubiquitin protein ligase or as an ubiquitin-ubiquitin ligase promoting elongation of ubiquitin chains on substrates. By mediating 'Lys-48'- linked polyubiquitination of proteins could target them for proteasomal degradation. May also function as a chaperone, playing a role in transport to the cell membrane of BSG/Basigin for instance. Probable inactive PPIase with no peptidyl- prolyl cis-trans isomerase activity.

PPIases accelerate the folding of proteins. It catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in oligopeptides. May be involved in pre-mRNA splicing

Probable inactive PPIase with no peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase activity.

Involved in regulation of the actin cytoskeleton. May regulate WAS actin-bundling activity. Bridges the interaction between ABL1 and PTPN18 leading to ABL1 dephosphorylation. May play a role as a scaffold protein between PTPN12 and WAS and allow PTPN12 to dephosphorylate WAS. Has the potential to physically couple CD2 and CD2AP to WAS. Acts downstream of CD2 and CD2AP to recruit WAS to the T- cell:APC contact site so as to promote the actin polymerization required for synapse induction during T-cell activation (By similarity). Down-regulates CD2-stimulated adhesion through the coupling of PTPN12 to CD2. Also has a role in innate immunity and the inflammatory response. Recruited to inflammasomes by MEFV. Induces formation of pyroptosomes, large supramolecular structures composed of oligomerized PYCARD dimers which form prior to inflammatory apoptosis. Binding to MEFV allows MEFV to bind to PYCARD and facilitates pyroptosome formation. Regulates endocytosis and cell migration in neutrophils.

Binds to F-actin. May be involved in regulation of the actin cytoskeleton (By similarity).

Binds beta-galactoside and lactose. Strong inducer of T-cell apoptosis.

Reversibly inhibits the activity of ATP2A2 in cardiac sarcoplasmic reticulum by decreasing the apparent affinity of the ATPase for Ca(2+). Modulates the contractility of the heart muscle in response to physiological stimuli via its effects on ATP2A2. Modulates calcium re-uptake during muscle relaxation and plays an important role in calcium homeostasis in the heart muscle. The degree of ATP2A2 inhibition depends on the oligomeric state of PLN. ATP2A2 inhibition is alleviated by PLN phosphorylation. Controls intracellular Ca(2+) levels in elongated spermatids. May play a role in germ cell differentiation (By similarity).

Enzyme with a broad specificity. Negatively regulates TGF- beta signaling through dephosphorylating SMAD2 and SMAD3, resulting in their dissociation from SMAD4, nuclear export of the SMADs and termination of the TGF-beta-mediated signaling. Dephosphorylates PRKAA1 and PRKAA2. Plays an important role in the termination of TNF-alpha- mediated NF-kappa-B activation through dephosphorylating and inactivating IKBKB/IKKB.

Enzyme with a broad specificity. Dephosphorylates CDK2 and CDK6 in vitro. Dephosphorylates PRKAA1 and PRKAA2. Inhibits TBK1- mediated antiviral signaling by dephosphorylating it at 'Ser-172'. Plays an important role in the termination of TNF-alpha-mediated NF- kappa-B activation through dephosphorylating and inactivating IKBKB/IKKB.

Involved in the negative regulation of p53 expression. Required for the relief of p53-dependent checkpoint mediated cell cycle arrest. Binds to and dephosphorylates 'Ser-15' of TP53 and 'Ser-345' of CHEK1 which contributes to the functional inactivation of these proteins. Mediates MAPK14 dephosphorylation and inactivation. Is also an important regulator of global heterochromatin silencing and critical in maintaining genome integrity (By similarity).

Protein phosphatase that inactivates multifunctional CaM kinases such as CAMK4 and CAMK2 (By similarity). Dephosphorylates and inactivates PAK. May play a role in the inhibition of actin fiber stress breakdown and in morphological changes driven by TNK2/CDC42. Dephosphorylates PRKAA2 (By similarity).

Dephosphorylates and concomitantly deactivates CaM-kinase II activated upon autophosphorylation, and CaM-kinases IV and I activated upon phosphorylation by CaM-kinase kinase. Promotes apoptosis

Dephosphorylates CDKN1B at 'Thr-187', thus removing a signal for proteasomal degradation.

Regulates the mitochondrial permeability transition pore and is essential for cellular survival and development.

Acts as a suppressor of the SAPK signaling pathways by associating with and dephosphorylating MAP3K7/TAK1 and MAP3K5, and by attenuating the association between MAP3K7/TAK1 and MAP2K4 or MAP2K6.

Demethylates proteins that have been reversibly carboxymethylated. Demethylates PPP2CB (in vitro) and PPP2CA. Binding to PPP2CA displaces the manganese ion and inactivates the enzyme.

Catalyzes the 6-electron oxidation of protoporphyrinogen-IX to form protoporphyrin-IX.

Serine/threonine-protein phosphatase that dephosphorylates a myriad of proteins involved in different signaling pathways including the kinases CSNK1E, ASK1/MAP3K5, PRKDC and RAF1, the nuclear receptors NR3C1, PPARG, ESR1 and ESR2, SMAD proteins and TAU/MAPT. Implicated in wide ranging cellular processes, including apoptosis, differentiation, DNA damage response, cell survival, regulation of ion channels or circadian rhythms, in response to steroid and thyroid hormones, calcium, fatty acids, TGF-beta as well as oxidative and genotoxic stresses. Participates in the control of DNA damage response mechanisms such as checkpoint activation and DNA damage repair through, for instance, the regulation ATM/ATR-signaling and dephosphorylation of PRKDC and TP53BP1. Inhibits ASK1/MAP3K5-mediated apoptosis induced by oxidative stress. Plays a positive role in adipogenesis, mainly through the dephosphorylation and activation of PPARG transactivation function (By similarity). Also dephosphorylates and inhibits the anti- adipogenic effect of NR3C1 (By similarity). Regulates the circadian rhythms, through the dephosphorylation and activation of CSNK1E. May modulate TGF-beta signaling pathway by the regulation of SMAD3 phosphorylation and protein expression levels. Dephosphorylates and may play a role in the regulation of TAU/MAPT. Through their dephosphorylation, may play a role in the regulation of ions channels such as KCNH2 (By similarity). Dephosphorylate FNIP1, disrupting interaction with HSP90AA1/Hsp90.

Catalytic subunit of protein phosphatase 6 (PP6). PP6 is a component of a signaling pathway regulating cell cycle progression in response to IL2 receptor stimulation. N-terminal domain restricts G1 to S phase progression in cancer cells, in part through control of cyclin D1. During mitosis, regulates spindle positioning. Down-regulates MAP3K7 kinase activation of the IL1 signaling pathway by dephosphorylation of MAP3K7. Participates also in the innate immune defense against viruses by desphosphorylating RIGI, an essential step that triggers RIGI-mediated signaling activation. Also regulates innate immunity by acting as a negative regulator of the cGAS-STING pathway: mediates dephosphorylation and inactivation of CGAS and STING1. CGAS dephosphorylation at 'Ser-435' impairs its ability to bind GTP, thereby inactivating it.

Inhibits phosphatase activities of protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) and protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) complexes.

[Isoform 1]: May target protein phosphatase 1 to F-actin cytoskeleton.

Inhibitor of protein-phosphatase 1. This protein may be important in hormonal control of glycogen metabolism. Hormones that elevate intracellular cAMP increase I-1 activity in many tissues. I-1 activation may impose cAMP control over proteins that are not directly phosphorylated by PKA. Following a rise in intracellular calcium, I-1 is inactivated by calcineurin (or PP2B). Does not inhibit type-2 phosphatases

Putative regulator of protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) activity. May play a role in the endosomal sorting process or in endosome maturation pathway.

Inhibits phosphatase activity of protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) complexes. May positively regulate cell proliferation.

Inhibits phosphatase activity of protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) complexes.

During centriole duplication, plays a role in the centriole elongation by promoting the recruitment of the microtubule-binding elongation machinery through its interaction with RTTN, leading to the centriole to centrosome conversion. In addition, may play a role in the primary cilia assembly (By similarity).

Seems to act as a glycogen-targeting subunit for PP1. PP1 is essential for cell division, and participates in the regulation of glycogen metabolism, muscle contractility and protein synthesis. Plays an important role in glycogen synthesis but is not essential for insulin activation of glycogen synthase (By similarity).

Acts as a glycogen-targeting subunit for phosphatase PP1. Facilitates interaction of the PP1 with enzymes of the glycogen metabolism and regulates its activity. Suppresses the rate at which PP1 dephosphorylates (inactivates) glycogen phosphorylase and enhances the rate at which it activates glycogen synthase and therefore limits glycogen breakdown. Its activity is inhibited by PYGL, resulting in inhibition of the glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase phosphatase activities of PP1. Dramatically increases basal and insulin-stimulated glycogen synthesis upon overexpression in hepatocytes (By similarity).

Acts as a glycogen-targeting subunit for PP1 and regulates its activity. Activates glycogen synthase, reduces glycogen phosphorylase activity and limits glycogen breakdown. Dramatically increases basal and insulin-stimulated glycogen synthesis upon overexpression in a variety of cell types.

Seems to act as a glycogen-targeting subunit for PP1. PP1 is essential for cell division, and participates in the regulation of glycogen metabolism, muscle contractility and protein synthesis

Acts as a glycogen-targeting subunit for PP1. PP1 is involved in glycogen metabolism and contributes to the activation of glycogen synthase leading to an increase in glycogen synthesis.

Acts as a coactivator during transcriptional activation of nuclear genes related to mitochondrial biogenesis and cell growth. Involved in the transcription coactivation of CREB and NRF1 target genes.

Removes thioester-linked fatty acyl groups such as palmitate from modified cysteine residues in proteins or peptides during lysosomal degradation. Prefers acyl chain lengths of 14 to 18 carbons.

Removes thioester-linked fatty acyl groups from various substrates including S-palmitoyl-CoA. Has the highest S-thioesterase activity for the acyl groups palmitic and myristic acid followed by other short- and long-chain acyl substrates. However, because of structural constraints, is unable to remove palmitate from peptides or proteins.

Protein phosphatase which positively regulates biosynthesis of the ubiquinone, coenzyme Q. Dephosphorylates the ubiquinone biosynthesis protein COQ7 which is likely to lead to its activation.

PPIase that catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in oligopeptides and may therefore assist protein folding. May be involved in pre-mRNA splicing.

Intrinsically disordered protein that acts as a scaffold, and which is involved in different processes, such as pre-mRNA splicing, transcription regulation, innate immunity and neuron development. Interacts with splicing-related factors via the intrinsically disordered region and regulates alternative splicing of target pre-mRNA species. May suppress the ability of POU3F2 to transactivate the DRD1 gene in a POU3F2 dependent manner. Can activate transcription directly or via association with the transcription machinery. May be involved in ATXN1 mutant-induced cell death. The interaction with ATXN1 mutant reduces levels of phosphorylated RNA polymerase II large subunit. Involved in the assembly of cytoplasmic stress granule, possibly by participating in the transport of neuronal RNA granules. Also acts as an innate immune sensor of infection by retroviruses, such as HIV, by detecting the presence of reverse-transcribed DNA in the cytosol. Directly binds retroviral reverse-transcribed DNA in the cytosol and interacts with CGAS, leading to activate the cGAS-STING signaling pathway, triggering type-I interferon production.

Recruits the serine/threonine-protein phosphatase PPP1CA to prevents excessive phosphorylation of the translation initiation factor eIF-2A/EIF2S1, thereby reversing the shut-off of protein synthesis initiated by stress-inducible kinases and facilitating recovery of cells from stress. Down-regulates the TGF-beta signaling pathway by promoting dephosphorylation of TGFB1 by PP1. May promote apoptosis by inducing p53/TP53 phosphorylation on 'Ser-15'. Plays an essential role in autophagy by tuning translation during starvation, thus enabling lysosomal biogenesis and a sustained autophagic flux. Acts also a viral restriction factor by attenuating HIV-1 replication. Mechanistically, mediates the inhibition of HIV-1 TAR RNA-mediated translation.

Maintains low levels of EIF2S1 phosphorylation in unstressed cells by promoting its dephosphorylation by PP1.

General Rab protein regulator required for vesicle formation from the Golgi complex. May control vesicle docking and fusion by mediating the action of Rab GTPases to the SNARE complexes. In addition it inhibits the removal of Rab GTPases from the membrane by GDI.

May be involved in ER/Golgi transport and vesicular traffic. Plays a proapoptotic role in cerulenin-induced neuroblastoma apoptosis.

Regulates intracellular concentrations of taurine and glutamate. Negatively modulates SLC1A1/EAAC1 glutamate transport activity by decreasing its affinity for glutamate in a PKC activity- dependent manner. Plays a role in the retention of SLC1A1/EAAC1 in the endoplasmic reticulum.

Catalytically inactive protein kinase that acts as a scaffold protein. Functions as an effector of the small GTPase RND2, which stimulates RhoA activity and inhibits NGF-induced neurite outgrowth (By similarity). Promotes Src family kinase (SFK) signaling by regulating the subcellular localization of CSK, a negative regulator of these kinases, leading to the regulation of cell morphology and motility by a CSK-dependent mechanism (By similarity). Acts as a critical coactivator of Notch signaling (By similarity).

Substrate-recognition component of a Cul2-RING (CRL2) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex, which mediates ubiquitination of target proteins, leading to their degradation. The CRL2(PRAMEF6) complex mediates ubiquitination and degradation of truncated MSRB1/SEPX1 selenoproteins produced by failed UGA/Sec decoding.

Substrate-recognition component of a Cul2-RING (CRL2) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex, which mediates ubiquitination of target proteins, leading to their degradation. The CRL2(PRAMEF9) complex mediates ubiquitination and degradation of truncated MSRB1/SEPX1 selenoproteins produced by failed UGA/Sec decoding.

Substrate-recognition component of a Cul2-RING (CRL2) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex, which mediates ubiquitination of target proteins, leading to their degradation. The CRL2(PRAME) complex mediates ubiquitination and degradation of truncated MSRB1/SEPX1 selenoproteins produced by failed UGA/Sec decoding. In the nucleus, the CRL2(PRAME) complex is recruited to epigenetically and transcriptionally active promoter regions bound by nuclear transcription factor Y (NFY) and probably plays a role in chromstin regulation. Functions as a transcriptional repressor, inhibiting the signaling of retinoic acid through the retinoic acid receptors RARA, RARB and RARG: prevents retinoic acid-induced cell proliferation arrest, differentiation and apoptosis.

May be involved in myeloid differentiation. May be involved in integrin signaling in neutrophils. Binds to PtdIns(4)P

Lipid-binding protein which promotes lipid absorption by facilitating MTTP-mediated lipid transfer (mainly triglycerides and phospholipids) and MTTP-mediated apoB lipoprotein assembly and secretion (By similarity). Protects the gastrointestinal epithelium from irradiation-induced apoptosis (By similarity). May play an important role in maintaining normal growth homeostasis in epithelial cells. Involved in p53/TP53-dependent cell survival after DNA damage. May down-regulate the expression of MAD1L1 and exert a suppressive role in mitotic spindle assembly checkpoint in hepatocellular carcinomas.

Scaffolding protein that functions as part of a dystroglycan complex in Schwann cells, and as part of EZR and AHNAK-containing complexes in eye lens fiber cells. Required for the maintenance of the peripheral myelin sheath that is essential for normal transmission of nerve impulses and normal perception of sensory stimuli. Required for normal transport of MBP mRNA from the perinuclear to the paranodal regions. Required for normal remyelination after nerve injury. Required for normal elongation of Schwann cells and normal length of the internodes between the nodes of Ranvier. The demyelinated nodes of Ranvier permit saltatory transmission of nerve impulses; shorter internodes cause slower transmission of nerve impulses. Required for the formation of appositions between the abaxonal surface of the myelin sheath and the Schwann cell plasma membrane; the Schwann cell cytoplasm is restricted to regions between these appositions. Required for the formation of Cajal bands and of Schmidt-Lanterman incisures that correspond to short, cytoplasm-filled regions on myelinated nerves. Recruits DRP2 to the Schwann cell plasma membrane. Required for normal protein composition of the eye lens fiber cell plasma membrane and normal eye lens fiber cell morphology.

Key regulator of cytokinesis that cross-links antiparrallel microtubules at an average distance of 35 nM. Essential for controlling the spatiotemporal formation of the midzone and successful cytokinesis. Required for KIF14 localization to the central spindle and midbody. Required to recruit PLK1 to the spindle. Stimulates PLK1 phosphorylation of RACGAP1 to allow recruitment of ECT2 to the central spindle. Acts as an oncogene for promoting bladder cancer cells proliferation, apoptosis inhibition and carcinogenic progression.

May regulate cell cycle progression through interaction with MAD2L2.

Involved in the positive regulation of histone H3-K9 dimethylation.

May be involved in transcriptional regulation. Is required for the differentiation of KISS1-expressing neurons in the arcuate (Arc) nucleus of the hypothalamus. Is a critical regulator of GABAergic cell fate in the cerebellum, required for normal postnatal cerebellar development (By similarity).

Transcription factor that has both positive and negative roles on transcription. Required for the maintenance of embryonic stem cell identity and the reacquisition of pluripotency in somatic cells. May play an essential role in germ cell development at 2 levels: the reacquisition of potential pluripotency, including SOX2 up-regulation, and successful epigenetic reprogramming, characterized by EHMT1 repression. Its association with CBFA2T2 is required for the functions in pluripotency and germ cell formation (By similarity). Directly up- regulates the expression of pluripotency gene POU5F1 through its proximal enhancer. Binds to the DNA consensus sequence 5'-GGTC[TC]CTAA- 3'.

Sequence-specific DNA-binding transcriptional regulator. Plays a role as a molecular node in a transcriptional network regulating embryonic development and cell fate decision. Stimulates the expression of upstream key transcriptional activators and repressors of the Wnt/beta-catenin and MAPK/ERK pathways, respectively, that are essential for naive pluripotency and self-renewal maintenance of embryonic stem cells (ESCs). Specifically promotes SPRY1 and RSPO1 transcription activation through recognition and direct binding of a specific DNA sequence in their promoter regions. Involved in early embryo development (By similarity). Also plays a role in induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) reprogramming.

Binds DNA and functions as a transcriptional regulator. Displays histone methyltransferase activity and monomethylates 'Lys-9' of histone H3 (H3K9me1) in vitro (By similarity). Probably catalyzes the monomethylation of free histone H3 in the cytoplasm which is then transported to the nucleus and incorporated into nucleosomes where SUV39H methyltransferases use it as a substrate to catalyze histone H3 'Lys-9' trimethylation (By similarity). Likely to be one of the primary histone methyltransferases along with MECOM/PRDM3 that direct cytoplasmic H3K9me1 methylation (By similarity). Functions in the differentiation of brown adipose tissue (BAT) which is specialized in dissipating chemical energy in the form of heat in response to cold or excess feeding while white adipose tissue (WAT) is specialized in the storage of excess energy and the control of systemic metabolism (By similarity). Together with CEBPB, regulates the differentiation of myoblastic precursors into brown adipose cells (By similarity). Functions as a repressor of TGF-beta signaling.

Has low, barely detectable phosphoribosyltransferase activity (in vitro). Binds GMP, IMP and alpha-D-5-phosphoribosyl 1-pyrophosphate (PRPP). Is not expected to contribute to purine metabolism or GMP salvage

Transcription factor that mediates a transcriptional program in various innate and adaptive immune tissue-resident lymphocyte T cell types such as tissue-resident memory T (Trm), natural killer (trNK) and natural killer T (NKT) cells and negatively regulates gene expression of proteins that promote the egress of tissue-resident T-cell populations from non-lymphoid organs. Plays a role in the development, retention and long-term establishment of adaptive and innate tissue- resident lymphocyte T cell types in non-lymphoid organs, such as the skin and gut, but also in other nonbarrier tissues like liver and kidney, and therefore may provide immediate immunological protection against reactivating infections or viral reinfection (By similarity). Binds specifically to the PRDI element in the promoter of the beta- interferon gene. Drives the maturation of B- lymphocytes into Ig secreting cells. Associates with the transcriptional repressor ZNF683 to chromatin at gene promoter regions (By similarity).

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent histone methyltransferase that specifically methylates 'Lys-9' of histone H3. May function as a DNA-binding transcription factor. Binds to the macrophage-specific TPA- responsive element (MTE) of the HMOX1 (heme oxygenase 1) gene and may act as a transcriptional activator of this gene.

May function as a transcription factor involved in cell differentiation

Sequence-specific DNA-binding transcription factor. Represses transcription at least in part by recruitment of the histone methyltransferase EHMT2/G9A and histone deacetylases such as HDAC1. Regulates hematopoiesis-associated protein-coding and microRNA (miRNA) genes. May regulate the expression of proteins involved in extracellular matrix development and maintenance, including fibrillar collagens, such as COL4A1 and COL11A1, connective tissue components, such as HAPLN1, and molecules regulating cell migration and adhesion, including EDIL3 and TGFB2. May cause G2/M arrest and apoptosis in cancer cells.

Putative histone methyltransferase that acts as a transcriptional repressor of smooth muscle gene expression. Promotes the transition from differentiated to proliferative smooth muscle by suppressing differentiation and maintaining the proliferative potential of vascular smooth muscle cells. Also plays a role in endothelial cells by inhibiting endothelial cell proliferation, survival and differentiation. It is unclear whether it has histone methyltransferase activity in vivo. According to some authors, it does not act as a histone methyltransferase by itself and represses transcription by recruiting EHMT2/G9a. According to others, it possesses histone methyltransferase activity when associated with other proteins and specifically methylates 'Lys-20' of histone H4 in vitro. 'Lys-20' methylation represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression.

Histone methyltransferase that selectively methylates 'Lys-4' of dimethylated histone H3 (H3K4me2) to produce trimethylated 'Lys-4' histone H3 (H3K4me3). May play a role in epigenetic regulation of gene expression by defining an active chromatin state.

Probable histone methyltransferase, preferentially acting on 'Lys-9' of histone H3 (By similarity). Involved in the control of steroidogenesis through transcriptional repression of steroidogenesis marker genes such as CYP17A1 and LHCGR (By similarity). Forms with BHLHE22 a transcriptional repressor complex controlling genes involved in neural development and neuronal differentiation (By similarity). In the retina, it is required for rod bipolar and type 2 OFF-cone bipolar cell survival (By similarity).

Histone methyltransferase that sequentially mono-, di-, and tri-methylates both 'Lys-4' (H3K4) and 'Lys-36' (H3K36) of histone H3 to produce respectively trimethylated 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3) and trimethylated 'Lys-36' (H3K36me3) histone H3 and plays a key role in meiotic prophase by determining hotspot localization thereby promoting meiotic recombination. Can also methylate all four core histones with H3 being the best substrate and the most highly modified. Is also able, on one hand, to mono and di-methylate H4K20 and on other hand to trimethylate H3K9 with the di-methylated H3K9 as the best substrate (By similarity). During meiotic prophase, binds specific DNA sequences through its zinc finger domains thereby determining hotspot localization where it promotes local H3K4me3 and H3K36me3 enrichment on the same nucleosomes through its histone methyltransferase activity. Thereby promotes double-stranded breaks (DSB) formation, at this subset of PRDM9-binding sites, that initiates meiotic recombination for the proper meiotic progression (By similarity). During meiotic progression hotspot-bound PRDM9 interacts with several complexes; in early leptonema binds CDYL and EHMT2 followed by EWSR1 and CXXC1 by the end of leptonema. EWSR1 joins PRDM9 with the chromosomal axis through REC8 (By similarity). In this way, controls the DSB repair pathway, pairing of homologous chromosomes and sex body formation (By similarity). Moreover plays a central role in the transcriptional activation of genes during early meiotic prophase thanks to H3K4me3 and H3K36me3 enrichment that represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation (By similarity). In addition performs automethylation (By similarity). Acetylation and phosphorylation of histone H3 attenuate or prevent histone H3 methylation (By similarity).

Thiol-specific peroxidase that catalyzes the reduction of hydrogen peroxide and organic hydroperoxides to water and alcohols, respectively. Plays a role in cell protection against oxidative stress by detoxifying peroxides and as sensor of hydrogen peroxide-mediated signaling events. Might participate in the signaling cascades of growth factors and tumor necrosis factor-alpha by regulating the intracellular concentrations of H(2)O(2). Reduces an intramolecular disulfide bond in GDPD5 that gates the ability to GDPD5 to drive postmitotic motor neuron differentiation (By similarity).

Thiol-specific peroxidase that catalyzes the reduction of hydrogen peroxide and organic hydroperoxides to water and alcohols, respectively. Plays a role in cell protection against oxidative stress by detoxifying peroxides and as sensor of hydrogen peroxide-mediated signaling events. Might participate in the signaling cascades of growth factors and tumor necrosis factor-alpha by regulating the intracellular concentrations of H(2)O(2).

Thiol-specific peroxidase that catalyzes the reduction of hydrogen peroxide and organic hydroperoxides to water and alcohols, respectively. Plays a role in cell protection against oxidative stress by detoxifying peroxides. Acts synergistically with MAP3K13 to regulate the activation of NF-kappa-B in the cytosol. Required for the maintenance of physical strength (By similarity).

Thiol-specific peroxidase that catalyzes the reduction of hydrogen peroxide and organic hydroperoxides to water and alcohols, respectively. Plays a role in cell protection against oxidative stress by detoxifying peroxides and as sensor of hydrogen peroxide-mediated signaling events. Regulates the activation of NF-kappa-B in the cytosol by a modulation of I-kappa-B-alpha phosphorylation.

Thiol-specific peroxidase that catalyzes the reduction of hydrogen peroxide and organic hydroperoxides to water and alcohols, respectively. Plays a role in cell protection against oxidative stress by detoxifying peroxides and as sensor of hydrogen peroxide-mediated signaling events.

Thiol-specific peroxidase that catalyzes the reduction of hydrogen peroxide and organic hydroperoxides to water and alcohols, respectively. Can reduce H(2)O(2) and short chain organic, fatty acid, and phospholipid hydroperoxides. Also has phospholipase activity, can therefore either reduce the oxidized sn-2 fatty acyl group of phospholipids (peroxidase activity) or hydrolyze the sn-2 ester bond of phospholipids (phospholipase activity). These activities are dependent on binding to phospholipids at acidic pH and to oxidized phospholipds at cytosolic pH. Plays a role in cell protection against oxidative stress by detoxifying peroxides and in phospholipid homeostasis. Exhibits acyl-CoA-dependent lysophospholipid acyltransferase which mediates the conversion of lysophosphatidylcholine (1-acyl-sn-glycero-3- phosphocholine or LPC) into phosphatidylcholine (1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero- 3-phosphocholine or PC). Shows a clear preference for LPC as the lysophospholipid and for palmitoyl CoA as the fatty acyl substrate.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor that specifically activates the small GTPase SAR1B. Mediates the recruitment of SAR1B and other COPII coat components to endoplasmic reticulum membranes and is therefore required for the formation of COPII transport vesicles from the ER.

May anchor basement membranes to the underlying connective tissue.

Metalloendopeptidase of the mitochondrial matrix that functions in peptide cleavage and degradation rather than in protein processing. Has an ATP-independent activity. Specifically cleaves peptides in the range of 5 to 65 residues. Shows a preference for cleavage after small polar residues and before basic residues, but without any positional preference. Degrades the transit peptides of mitochondrial proteins after their cleavage. Also degrades other unstructured peptides. It is also able to degrade amyloid-beta protein 40, one of the peptides produced by APP processing, when it accumulates in mitochondrion. It is a highly efficient protease, at least toward amyloid-beta protein 40. Cleaves that peptide at a specific position and is probably not processive, releasing digested peptides intermediates that can be further cleaved subsequently. It is also able to degrade amyloid-beta protein 42.

Functions as a RAC guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF), which activates the Rac proteins by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP. Its activity is synergistically activated by phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate and the beta gamma subunits of heterotrimeric G protein. May function downstream of heterotrimeric G proteins in neutrophils

Functions as a RAC1 guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF), activating Rac proteins by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP. Its activity is synergistically activated by phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5- trisphosphate and the beta gamma subunits of heterotrimeric G protein. Mediates the activation of RAC1 in a PI3K-dependent manner. May be an important mediator of Rac signaling, acting directly downstream of both G protein-coupled receptors and phosphoinositide 3-kinase.

Cytotoxin and helminthotoxin. Also induces non-cytolytic histamine release from human basophils. Involved in antiparasitic defense mechanisms and immune hypersensitivity reactions. The proform acts as a proteinase inhibitor, reducing the activity of PAPPA.

Possesses similar cytotoxic and cytostimulatory activities to PRG2/MBP. In vitro, stimulates neutrophil superoxide production and IL8 release, and histamine and leukotriene C4 release from basophils.

Plays a role in boundary lubrication within articulating joints. Prevents protein deposition onto cartilage from synovial fluid by controlling adhesion-dependent synovial growth and inhibiting the adhesion of synovial cells to the cartilage surface

Transcriptional coactivator for steroid receptors and nuclear receptors. Greatly increases the transcriptional activity of PPARG and thyroid hormone receptor on the uncoupling protein promoter. Can regulate key mitochondrial genes that contribute to the program of adaptive thermogenesis. Plays an essential role in metabolic reprogramming in response to dietary availability through coordination of the expression of a wide array of genes involved in glucose and fatty acid metabolism. Acts as a key regulator of gluconeogenesis: stimulates hepatic gluconeogenesis by increasing the expression of gluconeogenic enzymes, and acting together with FOXO1 to promote the fasting gluconeogenic program. Induces the expression of PERM1 in the skeletal muscle in an ESRRA-dependent manner. Also involved in the integration of the circadian rhythms and energy metabolism (By similarity). Required for oscillatory expression of clock genes, such as BMAL1 and NR1D1, through the coactivation of RORA and RORC, and metabolic genes, such as PDK4 and PEPCK (By similarity).

Plays a role of stimulator of transcription factors and nuclear receptors activities. Activates transcriptional activity of estrogen receptor alpha, nuclear respiratory factor 1 (NRF1) and glucocorticoid receptor in the presence of glucocorticoids. May play a role in constitutive non-adrenergic-mediated mitochondrial biogenesis as suggested by increased basal oxygen consumption and mitochondrial number when overexpressed. May be involved in fat oxidation and non- oxidative glucose metabolism and in the regulation of energy expenditure. Induces the expression of PERM1 in the skeletal muscle in an ESRRA-dependent manner.

The steroid hormones and their receptors are involved in the regulation of eukaryotic gene expression and affect cellular proliferation and differentiation in target tissues. Depending on the isoform, progesterone receptor functions as transcriptional activator or repressor.

Catalytic subunit of the DNA primase complex and component of the DNA polymerase alpha complex (also known as the alpha DNA polymerase-primase complex - primosome/replisome) which play an essential role in the initiation of DNA synthesis. During the S phase of the cell cycle, the DNA polymerase alpha complex (composed of a catalytic subunit POLA1, an accessory subunit POLA2 and two primase subunits, the catalytic subunit PRIM1 and the regulatory subunit PRIM2) is recruited to DNA at the replicative forks via direct interactions with MCM10 and WDHD1 (By similarity). The primase subunit of the polymerase alpha complex initiates DNA synthesis by oligomerising short RNA primers on both leading and lagging strands. These primers are initially extended by the polymerase alpha catalytic subunit and subsequently transferred to polymerase delta and polymerase epsilon for processive synthesis on the lagging and leading strand, respectively (By similarity). In the primase complex, both subunits are necessary for the initial di-nucleotide formation, but the extension of the primer depends only on the catalytic subunit. Synthesizes 9-mer RNA primers (also known as the 'unit length' RNA primers). Incorporates only ribonucleotides in the presence of ribo- and deoxy-nucleotide triphosphates (rNTPs, dNTPs). Requires template thymine or cytidine to start the RNA primer synthesis, with an adenine or guanine at its 5'-end. Binds single stranded DNA (By similarity).

Regulatory subunit of the DNA primase complex and component of the DNA polymerase alpha complex (also known as the alpha DNA polymerase-primase complex) which play an essential role in the initiation of DNA synthesis. During the S phase of the cell cycle, the DNA polymerase alpha complex (composed of a catalytic subunit POLA1, an accessory subunit POLA2 and two primase subunits, the catalytic subunit PRIM1 and the regulatory subunit PRIM2) is recruited to DNA at the replicative forks via direct interactions with MCM10 and WDHD1 (By similarity). The primase subunit of the polymerase alpha complex initiates DNA synthesis by oligomerising short RNA primers on both leading and lagging strands. These primers are initially extended by the polymerase alpha catalytic subunit and subsequently transferred to polymerase delta and polymerase epsilon for processive synthesis on the lagging and leading strand, respectively (By similarity). In the primase complex, both subunits are necessary for the initial di-nucleotide formation, but the extension of the primer depends only on the catalytic subunit. Binds RNA:DNA duplex and coordinates the catalytic activities of PRIM1 and POLA2 during primase-to-polymerase switch.

Involved in the planar cell polarity pathway that controls convergent extension during gastrulation and neural tube closure. Convergent extension is a complex morphogenetic process during which cells elongate, move mediolaterally, and intercalate between neighboring cells, leading to convergence toward the mediolateral axis and extension along the anteroposterior axis. Necessary for nuclear localization of REST. May serve as nuclear receptor.

Involved in the planar cell polarity (PCP) pathway that is essential for the polarization of epithelial cells during morphogenetic processes, including gastrulation and neurulation (By similarity). PCP is maintained by two molecular modules, the global and the core modules, PRICKLE3 being part of the core module (By similarity). Distinct complexes of the core module segregate to opposite sides of the cell, where they interact with the opposite complex in the neighboring cell at or near the adherents junctions (By similarity). Involved in the organization of the basal body (By similarity). Involved in cilia growth and positioning (By similarity). Required for proper assembly, stability, and function of mitochondrial membrane ATP synthase (mitochondrial complex V).

Required to anchor acetylcholinesterase (ACHE) to the basal lamina of the neuromuscular junction and to the membrane of neuronal synapses in brain. Also able to organize ACHE into tetramers (By similarity).

Its primary physiological function is unclear. May play a role in neuronal development and synaptic plasticity. May be required for neuronal myelin sheath maintenance. May promote myelin homeostasis through acting as an agonist for ADGRG6 receptor. May play a role in iron uptake and iron homeostasis. Soluble oligomers are toxic to cultured neuroblastoma cells and induce apoptosis (in vitro) (By similarity). Association with GPC1 (via its heparan sulfate chains) targets PRNP to lipid rafts. Also provides Cu(2+) or Zn(2+) for the ascorbate-mediated GPC1 deaminase degradation of its heparan sulfate side chains (By similarity).

DNA primase and DNA polymerase required to tolerate replication-stalling lesions by bypassing them. Required to facilitate mitochondrial and nuclear replication fork progression by initiating de novo DNA synthesis using dNTPs and acting as an error-prone DNA polymerase able to bypass certain DNA lesions. Shows a high capacity to tolerate DNA damage lesions such as 8oxoG and abasic sites in DNA. Provides different translesion synthesis alternatives when DNA replication is stalled: able to synthesize DNA primers downstream of lesions, such as ultraviolet (UV) lesions, R-loops and G- quadruplexes, to allow DNA replication to continue. Can also realign primers ahead of 'unreadable lesions' such as abasic sites and 6-4 photoproduct (6-4 pyrimidine-pyrimidinone), thereby skipping the lesion. Also able to incorporate nucleotides opposite DNA lesions such as 8oxoG, like a regular translesion synthesis DNA polymerase. Also required for reinitiating stalled forks after UV damage during nuclear DNA replication. Required for mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) synthesis and replication, by reinitiating synthesis after UV damage or in the presence of chain-terminating nucleotides. Prevents APOBEC family-mediated DNA mutagenesis by repriming downstream of abasic site to prohibit error-prone translesion synthesis (By similarity). Has non-overlapping function with POLH. In addition to its role in DNA damage response, also required to maintain efficient nuclear and mitochondrial DNA replication in unperturbed cells.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts as a molecular sensor for DNA damage. Involved in DNA non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) required for double-strand break (DSB) repair and V(D)J recombination. Must be bound to DNA to express its catalytic properties. Promotes processing of hairpin DNA structures in V(D)J recombination by activation of the hairpin endonuclease artemis (DCLRE1C). Recruited by XRCC5 and XRCC6 to DNA ends and is required to (1) protect and align broken ends of DNA, thereby preventing their degradation, (2) and sequester the DSB for repair by NHEJ. Act as a scaffold protein to aid the localization of DNA repair proteins to the site of damage. The assembly of the DNA-PK complex at DNA ends is also required for the NHEJ ligation step. Found at the ends of chromosomes, suggesting a further role in the maintenance of telomeric stability and the prevention of chromosomal end fusion (By similarity). Also involved in modulation of transcription. As part of the DNA-PK complex, involved in the early steps of ribosome assembly by promoting the processing of precursor rRNA into mature 18S rRNA in the small-subunit processome. Binding to U3 small nucleolar RNA, recruits PRKDC and XRCC5/Ku86 to the small-subunit processome. Recognizes the substrate consensus sequence [ST]-Q. Phosphorylates 'Ser-139' of histone variant H2AX, thereby regulating DNA damage response mechanism. Phosphorylates ASF1A, DCLRE1C, c-Abl/ABL1, histone H1, HSPCA, c-jun/JUN, p53/TP53, PARP1, POU2F1, DHX9, FH, SRF, NHEJ1/XLF, XRCC1, XRCC4, XRCC5, XRCC6, WRN, MYC and RFA2. Can phosphorylate C1D not only in the presence of linear DNA but also in the presence of supercoiled DNA. Ability to phosphorylate p53/TP53 in the presence of supercoiled DNA is dependent on C1D. Contributes to the determination of the circadian period length by antagonizing phosphorylation of CRY1 'Ser-588' and increasing CRY1 protein stability, most likely through an indirect mechanism (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of DNA virus-mediated innate immune response by assembling into the HDP-RNP complex, a complex that serves as a platform for IRF3 phosphorylation and subsequent innate immune response activation through the cGAS-STING pathway. Also regulates the cGAS-STING pathway by catalyzing phosphorylation of CGAS, thereby impairing CGAS oligomerization and activation. Also regulates the cGAS-STING pathway by mediating phosphorylation of PARP1.

Functions within a multiprotein E3 ubiquitin ligase complex, catalyzing the covalent attachment of ubiquitin moieties onto substrate proteins. Substrates include SYT11 and VDAC1. Other substrates are BCL2, CCNE1, GPR37, RHOT1/MIRO1, MFN1, MFN2, STUB1, SNCAIP, SEPTIN5, TOMM20, USP30, ZNF746, MIRO1 and AIMP2. Mediates monoubiquitination as well as 'Lys-6', 'Lys-11', 'Lys-48'-linked and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of substrates depending on the context. Participates in the removal and/or detoxification of abnormally folded or damaged protein by mediating 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of misfolded proteins such as PARK7: 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitinated misfolded proteins are then recognized by HDAC6, leading to their recruitment to aggresomes, followed by degradation. Mediates 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of a 22 kDa O-linked glycosylated isoform of SNCAIP, possibly playing a role in Lewy-body formation. Mediates monoubiquitination of BCL2, thereby acting as a positive regulator of autophagy. Protects against mitochondrial dysfunction during cellular stress, by acting downstream of PINK1 to coordinate mitochondrial quality control mechanisms that remove and replace dysfunctional mitochondrial components. Depending on the severity of mitochondrial damage and/or dysfunction, activity ranges from preventing apoptosis and stimulating mitochondrial biogenesis to regulating mitochondrial dynamics and eliminating severely damaged mitochondria via mitophagy. Activation and recruitment onto the outer membrane of damaged/dysfunctional mitochondria (OMM) requires PINK1-mediated phosphorylation of both PRKN and ubiquitin. After mitochondrial damage, functions with PINK1 to mediate the decision between mitophagy or preventing apoptosis by inducing either the poly- or monoubiquitination of VDAC1, respectively; polyubiquitination of VDAC1 promotes mitophagy, while monoubiquitination of VDAC1 decreases mitochondrial calcium influx which ultimately inhibits apoptosis. When cellular stress results in irreversible mitochondrial damage, promotes the autophagic degradation of dysfunctional depolarized mitochondria (mitophagy) by promoting the ubiquitination of mitochondrial proteins such as TOMM20, RHOT1/MIRO1, MFN1 and USP30. Preferentially assembles 'Lys-6'-, 'Lys-11'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains, leading to mitophagy. The PINK1-PRKN pathway also promotes fission of damaged mitochondria by PINK1-mediated phosphorylation which promotes the PRKN-dependent degradation of mitochondrial proteins involved in fission such as MFN2. This prevents the refusion of unhealthy mitochondria with the mitochondrial network or initiates mitochondrial fragmentation facilitating their later engulfment by autophagosomes. Regulates motility of damaged mitochondria via the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of MIRO1 and MIRO2; in motor neurons, this likely inhibits mitochondrial intracellular anterograde transport along the axons which probably increases the chance of the mitochondria undergoing mitophagy in the soma. Involved in mitochondrial biogenesis via the 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination of transcriptional repressor ZNF746/PARIS which leads to its subsequent proteasomal degradation and allows activation of the transcription factor PPARGC1A. Limits the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS). Regulates cyclin-E during neuronal apoptosis. In collaboration with CHPF isoform 2, may enhance cell viability and protect cells from oxidative stress. Independently of its ubiquitin ligase activity, protects from apoptosis by the transcriptional repression of p53/TP53. May protect neurons against alpha synuclein toxicity, proteasomal dysfunction, GPR37 accumulation, and kainate-induced excitotoxicity. May play a role in controlling neurotransmitter trafficking at the presynaptic terminal and in calcium-dependent exocytosis. May represent a tumor suppressor gene.

Activates EIF2AK2/PKR in the absence of double-stranded RNA (dsRNA), leading to phosphorylation of EIF2S1/EFI2-alpha and inhibition of translation and induction of apoptosis. Required for siRNA production by DICER1 and for subsequent siRNA-mediated post- transcriptional gene silencing. Does not seem to be required for processing of pre-miRNA to miRNA by DICER1. Promotes UBC9-p53/TP53 association and sumoylation and phosphorylation of p53/TP53 at 'Lys- 386' at 'Ser-392' respectively and enhances its activity in a EIF2AK2/PKR-dependent manner (By similarity).

Serine/threonine protein kinase regulated by and mediating cAMP signaling in cells. Acts through phosphorylation of downstream targets that may include CREB, SMAD6 and PKD1 and has multiple functions in cellular differentiation and epithelial morphogenesis. Regulates myeloid cell differentiation through SMAD6 phosphorylation. Involved in nephrogenesis by stimulating renal epithelial cell migration and tubulogenesis. Also involved in angiogenesis through stimulation of endothelial cell proliferation, migration and vascular- like structure formation.

Involved in the modulation of the mitochondrial apoptotic pathway by ensuring the accumulation of cardiolipin (CL) in mitochondrial membranes. In vitro, the TRIAP1:PRELID1 complex mediates the transfer of phosphatidic acid (PA) between liposomes and probably functions as a PA transporter across the mitochondrion intermembrane space to provide PA for CL synthesis in the inner membrane. Regulates the mitochondrial apoptotic pathway in primary Th cells. Regulates Th cell differentiation by down-regulating STAT6 thereby reducing IL-4- induced Th2 cell number. May be important for the development of vital and immunocompetent organs.

Receptor for prolactin-releasing peptide (PrRP). Implicated in lactation, regulation of food intake and pain-signal processing

This is a receptor for the anterior pituitary hormone prolactin (PRL). Acts as a prosurvival factor for spermatozoa by inhibiting sperm capacitation through suppression of SRC kinase activation and stimulation of AKT. Isoform 4 is unable to transduce prolactin signaling. Isoform 6 is unable to transduce prolactin signaling.

Prolactin acts primarily on the mammary gland by promoting lactation

Protamines substitute for histones in the chromatin of sperm during the haploid phase of spermatogenesis. They compact sperm DNA into a highly condensed, stable and inactive complex.

Protamines substitute for histones in the chromatin of sperm during the haploid phase of spermatogenesis. They compact sperm DNA into a highly condensed, stable and inactive complex (By similarity).

Required for normal acrosome reaction and for normal male fertility (By similarity). Can bind Cu(2+).

Protein C is a vitamin K-dependent serine protease that regulates blood coagulation by inactivating factors Va and VIIIa in the presence of calcium ions and phospholipids. Exerts a protective effect on the endothelial cell barrier function.

Binds to actin and affects the structure of the cytoskeleton. At high concentrations, profilin prevents the polymerization of actin, whereas it enhances it at low concentrations. By binding to PIP2, it inhibits the formation of IP3 and DG. Inhibits androgen receptor (AR) and HTT aggregation and binding of G-actin is essential for its inhibition of AR.

Binds to actin and affects the structure of the cytoskeleton. At high concentrations, profilin prevents the polymerization of actin, whereas it enhances it at low concentrations. By binding to PIP2, it inhibits the formation of IP3 and DG

Binds to actin and affects the structure of the cytoskeleton. Slightly reduces actin polymerization. Binds to poly-L-proline, phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3)P), phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2) and phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns(4)P). May be involved in spermatogenesis.

Binds to phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3)P), phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P2), phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns(4)P) and phosphatidic acid (PA). Does not bind to actin, contrary to other family members.

Potently contracts gastrointestinal (GI) smooth muscle. Induces proliferation, migration and fenestration (the formation of membrane discontinuities) in capillary endothelial cells derived from endocrine glands. Has little or no effect on a variety of other endothelial and non-endothelial cell types. Induces proliferation and differentiation, but not migration, of enteric neural crest cells. Directly influences neuroblastoma progression by promoting the proliferation and migration of neuroblastoma cells. Positively regulates PTGS2 expression and prostaglandin synthesis. May play a role in placentation. May play a role in normal and pathological testis angiogenesis.

May function as an output molecule from the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) that transmits behavioral circadian rhythm. May also function locally within the SCN to synchronize output. Potently contracts gastrointestinal (GI) smooth muscle

Opiorphin is an endogenous inhibitor of neprilysin and aminopeptidase N. Inhibits the breakdown of substance P, Mca-BK2 and Met-enkephalin by neprilysin in vitro with IC(50) values of 29 uM, 33 uM and 33 uM respectively. Inhibits the breakdown of Ala-pNA by aminopeptidase N in vitro with an IC(50) of 65 uM. Has a potent analgesic effect when administered to rats by intravenous injection.

May play a role in cell differentiation, proliferation and apoptosis. Binds cholesterol in cholesterol- containing plasma membrane microdomains and may play a role in the organization of the apical plasma membrane in epithelial cells. During early retinal development acts as a key regulator of disk morphogenesis. Involved in regulation of MAPK and Akt signaling pathways. In neuroblastoma cells suppresses cell differentiation such as neurite outgrowth in a RET-dependent manner.

Possibly involved in the ontogenesis of pituitary gonadotropes, as well as somatotropes, lactotropes and caudomedial thyrotropes

A positive regulator of the alternate pathway (AP) of complement. It binds to and stabilizes the C3- and C5-convertase enzyme complexes. Inhibits CFI-CFH mediated degradation of Complement C3 beta chain (C3b).

Anticoagulant plasma protein; it is a cofactor to activated protein C in the degradation of coagulation factors Va and VIIIa. It helps to prevent coagulation and stimulating fibrinolysis

Transcription factor involved in developmental processes such as cell fate determination, gene transcriptional regulation and progenitor cell regulation in a number of organs. Plays a critical role in embryonic development and functions as a key regulatory protein in neurogenesis and the development of the heart, eye lens, liver, pancreas and the lymphatic system. Involved in the regulation of the circadian rhythm. Represses: transcription of the retinoid-related orphan receptor RORG, transcriptional activator activity of RORA and RORG and the expression of RORA/G-target genes including core clock components: BMAL1, NPAS2 and CRY1 and metabolic genes: AVPR1A and ELOVL3.

Appears to assist hemostasis by binding thrombin and promoting its association with phospholipid vesicles. Inhibits activity of the coagulation protease factor Xa in the presence of SERPINA10, calcium and phospholipids

Probable ATP-binding RNA helicase (Probable). Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome.

Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the activated spliceosome. Plays an important role in embryonic brain development; this function does not require proline isomerization.

Ubiquitin-protein ligase which is a core component of several complexes mainly involved pre-mRNA splicing and DNA repair. Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Core component of the PRP19C/Prp19 complex/NTC/Nineteen complex which is part of the spliceosome and participates in its assembly, its remodeling and is required for its activity. During assembly of the spliceosome, mediates 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of the U4 spliceosomal protein PRPF3. Ubiquitination of PRPF3 allows its recognition by the U5 component PRPF8 and stabilizes the U4/U5/U6 tri- snRNP spliceosomal complex. Recruited to RNA polymerase II C-terminal domain (CTD) and the pre-mRNA, it may also couple the transcriptional and spliceosomal machineries. The XAB2 complex, which contains PRPF19, is also involved in pre-mRNA splicing, transcription and transcription-coupled repair. Beside its role in pre-mRNA splicing PRPF19, as part of the PRP19-CDC5L complex, plays a role in the DNA damage response/DDR. It is recruited to the sites of DNA damage by the RPA complex where PRPF19 directly ubiquitinates RPA1 and RPA2. 'Lys-63'- linked polyubiquitination of the RPA complex allows the recruitment of the ATR-ATRIP complex and the activation of ATR, a master regulator of the DNA damage response. May also play a role in DNA double-strand break (DSB) repair by recruiting the repair factor SETMAR to altered DNA. As part of the PSO4 complex may also be involved in the DNA interstrand cross-links/ICLs repair process. In addition, may also mediate 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination of substrates and play a role in proteasomal degradation. May play a role in the biogenesis of lipid droplets (By similarity). May play a role in neural differentiation possibly through its function as part of the spliceosome (By similarity).

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Required for the assembly of the U4/U5/U6 tri-snRNP complex, one of the building blocks of the spliceosome.

Plays role in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the U4/U6-U5 tri-snRNP complex that is involved in spliceosome assembly, and as component of the precatalytic spliceosome (spliceosome B complex).

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the U4/U6-U5 tri-snRNP complex, one of the building blocks of the spliceosome. Enhances dihydrotestosterone- induced transactivation activity of AR, as well as dexamethasone- induced transactivation activity of NR3C1, but does not affect estrogen-induced transactivation.

Plays role in pre-mRNA splicing as core component of precatalytic, catalytic and postcatalytic spliceosomal complexes, both of the predominant U2-type spliceosome and the minor U12-type spliceosome. Functions as a scaffold that mediates the ordered assembly of spliceosomal proteins and snRNAs. Required for the assembly of the U4/U6-U5 tri-snRNP complex, a building block of the spliceosome. Functions as scaffold that positions spliceosomal U2, U5 and U6 snRNAs at splice sites on pre-mRNA substrates, so that splicing can occur. Interacts with both the 5' and the 3' splice site.

PRP's act as highly potent inhibitors of crystal growth of calcium phosphates. They provide a protective and reparative environment for dental enamel which is important for the integrity of the teeth

Essential for retina photoreceptor outer segment disk morphogenesis, may also play a role with ROM1 in the maintenance of outer segment disk structure (By similarity). Required for the maintenance of retinal outer nuclear layer thickness (By similarity). Required for the correct development and organization of the photoreceptor inner segment (By similarity).

Component of the EKC/KEOPS complex that is required for the formation of a threonylcarbamoyl group on adenosine at position 37 (t(6)A37) in tRNAs that read codons beginning with adenine. The complex is probably involved in the transfer of the threonylcarbamoyl moiety of threonylcarbamoyl-AMP (TC-AMP) to the N6 group of A37. TP53RK has ATPase activity in the context of the EKC/KEOPS complex and likely plays a supporting role to the catalytic subunit OSGEP (By similarity). Atypical protein kinase that phosphorylates 'Ser-15' of p53/TP53 protein and may therefore participate in its activation.

Catalyzes the synthesis of phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (PRPP) that is essential for nucleotide synthesis.

Catalyzes the synthesis of phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (PRPP) that is essential for nucleotide synthesis

Negatively regulates TSP1 expression at the level of transcription. This down-regulation was shown to reduce taxane-induced apoptosis.

Functions in tethering peripheral heterochromatin to the nuclear lamina during interphase, possibly through the interaction with heterochromatin protein CBX5/HP1 alpha. Might play a role in reattaching heterochromatin to the nuclear lamina at mitotic exit. Promotes myoblast differentiation during skeletal myogenesis, possibly by stimulating transcription factor MyoD activity via binding to CBX5/HP1 alpha. Involved in the positive regulation of the PI3K-Akt-mTOR signaling pathway and in promoting cell proliferation, possibly via binding to GRB2.

Promotes meiotic crossing over formation through its interaction with CNTD1 by participating in the crossover differentiation step of crossover-specific recombination intermediates.

Associates with the mTORC2 complex that regulates cellular processes including survival and organization of the cytoskeleton. Regulates the activity of the mTORC2 complex in a substrate-specific manner preventing for instance the specific phosphorylation of PKCs and thereby controlling cell migration. Plays a role in the stimulation of ZFP36-mediated mRNA decay of several ZFP36-associated mRNAs, such as TNF-alpha and GM- CSF, in response to stress. Required for ZFP36 localization to cytoplasmic stress granule (SG) and P-body (PB) in response to stress.

Subunit of mTORC2, which regulates cell growth and survival in response to hormonal signals. mTORC2 is activated by growth factors, but, in contrast to mTORC1, seems to be nutrient-insensitive. mTORC2 seems to function upstream of Rho GTPases to regulate the actin cytoskeleton, probably by activating one or more Rho-type guanine nucleotide exchange factors. mTORC2 promotes the serum-induced formation of stress-fibers or F-actin. mTORC2 plays a critical role in AKT1 'Ser-473' phosphorylation, which may facilitate the phosphorylation of the activation loop of AKT1 on 'Thr-308' by PDK1 which is a prerequisite for full activation. mTORC2 regulates the phosphorylation of SGK1 at 'Ser-422'. mTORC2 also modulates the phosphorylation of PRKCA on 'Ser-657'. PRR5 plays an important role in regulation of PDGFRB expression and in modulation of platelet-derived growth factor signaling. May act as a tumor suppressor in breast cancer.

Acts as a synapse-to-nucleus messenger to promote NMDA receptor-mediated excitotoxicity in neurons in a JUN-dependent manner (By similarity). Inhibits ubiquitination-mediated degradation and promotes phosphorylation and transcriptional activity of transcription factor JUN. Might play a redundant role in the regulation of T cell receptor signaling. Might promote apoptosis in T cells.

Stimulates prolactin (PRL) release and regulates the expression of prolactin through its receptor GPR10. May stimulate lactotrophs directly to secrete PRL

Required to maintain a pool of extrasynaptic AMPA-regulated glutamate receptors (AMPAR) which is necessary for synapse development and function. Regulates basal AMPAR function and synaptic transmission during development but is dispensable at mature hippocampal synapses. Plays a role in regulating basal phosphorylation levels of glutamate receptor GRIA1 and promotes GRIA1 and GRIA2 cell surface expression.

As a component of the outer core of AMPAR complex, may be involved in synaptic transmission in the central nervous system. In hippocampal neurons, in presynaptic terminals, plays an important role in the final steps of neurotransmitter release, possibly by regulating Ca(2+)-sensing. In the cerebellum, may inhibit SNARE complex formation and down-regulate short-term facilitation.

Acts as a transcriptional regulator of muscle creatine kinase (MCK) and so has a role in the establishment of diverse mesodermal muscle types. The protein binds to an A/T-rich element in the muscle creatine enhancer (By similarity).

May play a role in the scarless healing of cutaneous wounds during the first two trimesters of development.

Component of the 26S proteasome, a multiprotein complex involved in the ATP-dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. This complex plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins, which could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Therefore, the proteasome participates in numerous cellular processes, including cell cycle progression, apoptosis, or DNA damage repair. PSMC6 belongs to the heterohexameric ring of AAA (ATPases associated with diverse cellular activities) proteins that unfolds ubiquitinated target proteins that are concurrently translocated into a proteolytic chamber and degraded into peptides.

Serine protease that has amidolytic activity, cleaving its substrates before Arg residues.

Plays a role in male fertility (By similarity). May have a role in sperm migration or binding to zona-intact eggs (By similarity). Involved in the activation of the proacrosin/acrosin system.

Component of the 26S proteasome, a multiprotein complex involved in the ATP-dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. This complex plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins, which could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Therefore, the proteasome participates in numerous cellular processes, including cell cycle progression, apoptosis, or DNA damage repair. PSMC1 belongs to the heterohexameric ring of AAA (ATPases associated with diverse cellular activities) proteins that unfolds ubiquitinated target proteins that are concurrently translocated into a proteolytic chamber and degraded into peptides.

In vitro can degrade the fibrinogen alpha chain of as well as pro-urokinase-type plasminogen activator.

Probable serine protease, which plays a crucial role in the fertility of male mice including sperm migration and sperm-egg interaction.

Component of the 26S proteasome, a multiprotein complex involved in the ATP-dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. This complex plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins, which could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Therefore, the proteasome participates in numerous cellular processes, including cell cycle progression, apoptosis, or DNA damage repair. PSMC3 belongs to the heterohexameric ring of AAA (ATPases associated with diverse cellular activities) proteins that unfolds ubiquitinated target proteins that are concurrently translocated into a proteolytic chamber and degraded into peptides.

Component of the 26S proteasome, a multiprotein complex involved in the ATP-dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. This complex plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins, which could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Therefore, the proteasome participates in numerous cellular processes, including cell cycle progression, apoptosis, or DNA damage repair. PSMC4 belongs to the heterohexameric ring of AAA (ATPases associated with diverse cellular activities) proteins that unfolds ubiquitinated target proteins that are concurrently translocated into a proteolytic chamber and degraded into peptides.

Component of the 26S proteasome, a multiprotein complex involved in the ATP-dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. This complex plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins, which could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Therefore, the proteasome participates in numerous cellular processes, including cell cycle progression, apoptosis, or DNA damage repair. PSMC2 belongs to the heterohexameric ring of AAA (ATPases associated with diverse cellular activities) proteins that unfolds ubiquitinated target proteins that are concurrently translocated into a proteolytic chamber and degraded into peptides.

Component of the 26S proteasome, a multiprotein complex involved in the ATP-dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. This complex plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins, which could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Therefore, the proteasome participates in numerous cellular processes, including cell cycle progression, apoptosis, or DNA damage repair. PSMC5 belongs to the heterohexameric ring of AAA (ATPases associated with diverse cellular activities) proteins that unfolds ubiquitinated target proteins that are concurrently translocated into a proteolytic chamber and degraded into peptides.

Possesses a trypsin-like cleavage specificity with a preference for poly-basic substrates. Stimulates epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) activity through activating cleavage of the gamma subunits (SCNN1G).

Serine protease that degrades elastin, fibronectin, laminin, vitronectin, and collagen types I, III, and IV (in vitro). By cleaving and activating receptor F2RL1/PAR-2, enhances endothelial cell barrier function and thus vascular integrity during neutrophil transendothelial migration. May play a role in neutrophil transendothelial migration, probably when associated with CD177.

Phosphodiesterase (PDE) that has higher activity toward cAMP than cGMP, as substrate. Plays a role in cell proliferation, migration and differentiation, and acts as a negative regulator of NME1. Plays a role in the regulation of neurogenesis. Involved in the regulation of microtubule polymerization.

May play an important role in regulating differentiation, survival and aggressiveness of the tumor cells.

In muscle, parvalbumin is thought to be involved in relaxation after contraction. It binds two calcium ions

Component of the 20S core proteasome complex involved in the proteolytic degradation of most intracellular proteins. This complex plays numerous essential roles within the cell by associating with different regulatory particles. Associated with two 19S regulatory particles, forms the 26S proteasome and thus participates in the ATP- dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. The 26S proteasome plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins that could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Associated with the PA200 or PA28, the 20S proteasome mediates ubiquitin- independent protein degradation. This type of proteolysis is required in several pathways including spermatogenesis (20S-PA200 complex) or generation of a subset of MHC class I-presented antigenic peptides (20S-PA28 complex).

Component of the 20S core proteasome complex involved in the proteolytic degradation of most intracellular proteins. This complex plays numerous essential roles within the cell by associating with different regulatory particles. Associated with two 19S regulatory particles, forms the 26S proteasome and thus participates in the ATP- dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. The 26S proteasome plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins that could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Associated with the PA200 or PA28, the 20S proteasome mediates ubiquitin- independent protein degradation. This type of proteolysis is required in several pathways including spermatogenesis (20S-PA200 complex) or generation of a subset of MHC class I-presented antigenic peptides (20S-PA28 complex). Binds to the C-terminus of CDKN1A and thereby mediates its degradation. Negatively regulates the membrane trafficking of the cell-surface thromboxane A2 receptor (TBXA2R) isoform 2.

Component of the 20S core proteasome complex involved in the proteolytic degradation of most intracellular proteins. This complex plays numerous essential roles within the cell by associating with different regulatory particles. Associated with two 19S regulatory particles, forms the 26S proteasome and thus participates in the ATP- dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. The 26S proteasome plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins that could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Associated with the PA200 or PA28, the 20S proteasome mediates ubiquitin- independent protein degradation. This type of proteolysis is required in several pathways including spermatogenesis (20S-PA200 complex) or generation of a subset of MHC class I-presented antigenic peptides (20S-PA28 complex). Inhibits the transactivation function of HIF-1A under both normoxic and hypoxia-mimicking conditions. The interaction with EMAP2 increases the proteasome-mediated HIF-1A degradation under the hypoxic conditions. Plays a role in hepatitis C virus internal ribosome entry site-mediated translation. Mediates nuclear translocation of the androgen receptor (AR) and thereby enhances androgen-mediated transactivation. Promotes MAVS degradation and thereby negatively regulates MAVS-mediated innate immune response.

Aminopeptidase with broad substrate specificity for several peptides. Involved in proteolytic events essential for cell growth and viability. May act as regulator of neuropeptide activity. Plays a role in the antigen-processing pathway for MHC class I molecules. Involved in the N-terminal trimming of cytotoxic T-cell epitope precursors. Digests the poly-Q peptides found in many cellular proteins. Digests tau from normal brain more efficiently than tau from Alzheimer disease brain.

The proteasome is a multicatalytic proteinase complex which is characterized by its ability to cleave peptides with Arg, Phe, Tyr, Leu, and Glu adjacent to the leaving group at neutral or slightly basic pH. The proteasome has an ATP-dependent proteolytic activity. This subunit is involved in antigen processing to generate class I binding peptides

The proteasome is a multicatalytic proteinase complex which is characterized by its ability to cleave peptides with Arg, Phe, Tyr, Leu, and Glu adjacent to the leaving group at neutral or slightly basic pH. The proteasome has an ATP-dependent proteolytic activity. Incorporated instead of PSMB5 or PSMB8, this unit reduces the chymotrypsin-like activity of the proteasome (By similarity). Plays a pivotal role in development of CD8-positive T cells (By similarity).

Non-catalytic component of the 20S core proteasome complex involved in the proteolytic degradation of most intracellular proteins. This complex plays numerous essential roles within the cell by associating with different regulatory particles. Associated with two 19S regulatory particles, forms the 26S proteasome and thus participates in the ATP-dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. The 26S proteasome plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins that could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Associated with the PA200 or PA28, the 20S proteasome mediates ubiquitin-independent protein degradation. This type of proteolysis is required in several pathways including spermatogenesis (20S-PA200 complex) or generation of a subset of MHC class I-presented antigenic peptides (20S-PA28 complex).

Non-catalytic component of the 20S core proteasome complex involved in the proteolytic degradation of most intracellular proteins. This complex plays numerous essential roles within the cell by associating with different regulatory particles. Associated with two 19S regulatory particles, forms the 26S proteasome and thus participates in the ATP-dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. The 26S proteasome plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins that could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Associated with the PA200 or PA28, the 20S proteasome mediates ubiquitin-independent protein degradation. This type of proteolysis is required in several pathways including spermatogenesis (20S-PA200 complex) or generation of a subset of MHC class I-presented antigenic peptides (20S-PA28 complex). SMAD1/OAZ1/PSMB4 complex mediates the degradation of the CREBBP/EP300 repressor SNIP1.

Component of the 20S core proteasome complex involved in the proteolytic degradation of most intracellular proteins. This complex plays numerous essential roles within the cell by associating with different regulatory particles. Associated with two 19S regulatory particles, forms the 26S proteasome and thus participates in the ATP- dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. The 26S proteasome plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins that could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Associated with the PA200 or PA28, the 20S proteasome mediates ubiquitin- independent protein degradation. This type of proteolysis is required in several pathways including spermatogenesis (20S-PA200 complex) or generation of a subset of MHC class I-presented antigenic peptides (20S-PA28 complex). Within the 20S core complex, PSMB5 displays a chymotrypsin-like activity.

Component of the 20S core proteasome complex involved in the proteolytic degradation of most intracellular proteins. This complex plays numerous essential roles within the cell by associating with different regulatory particles. Associated with two 19S regulatory particles, forms the 26S proteasome and thus participates in the ATP- dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. The 26S proteasome plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins that could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Associated with the PA200 or PA28, the 20S proteasome mediates ubiquitin- independent protein degradation. This type of proteolysis is required in several pathways including spermatogenesis (20S-PA200 complex) or generation of a subset of MHC class I-presented antigenic peptides (20S-PA28 complex). Within the 20S core complex, PSMB6 displays a peptidylglutamyl-hydrolizing activity also termed postacidic or caspase-like activity, meaning that the peptides bond hydrolysis occurs directly after acidic residues.

Component of the 20S core proteasome complex involved in the proteolytic degradation of most intracellular proteins. This complex plays numerous essential roles within the cell by associating with different regulatory particles. Associated with two 19S regulatory particles, forms the 26S proteasome and thus participates in the ATP- dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. The 26S proteasome plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins that could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Associated with the PA200 or PA28, the 20S proteasome mediates ubiquitin- independent protein degradation. This type of proteolysis is required in several pathways including spermatogenesis (20S-PA200 complex) or generation of a subset of MHC class I-presented antigenic peptides (20S-PA28 complex). Within the 20S core complex, PSMB7 displays a trypsin-like activity.

The proteasome is a multicatalytic proteinase complex which is characterized by its ability to cleave peptides with Arg, Phe, Tyr, Leu, and Glu adjacent to the leaving group at neutral or slightly basic pH. The proteasome has an ATP-dependent proteolytic activity. This subunit is involved in antigen processing to generate class I binding peptides. Replacement of PSMB5 by PSMB8 increases the capacity of the immunoproteasome to cleave model peptides after hydrophobic and basic residues. Involved in the generation of spliced peptides resulting from the ligation of two separate proteasomal cleavage products that are not contiguous in the parental protein. Acts as a major component of interferon gamma-induced sensitivity. Plays a key role in apoptosis via the degradation of the apoptotic inhibitor MCL1. May be involved in the inflammatory response pathway. In cancer cells, substitution of isoform 1 (E2) by isoform 2 (E1) results in immunoproteasome deficiency. Required for the differentiation of preadipocytes into adipocytes.

The proteasome is a multicatalytic proteinase complex which is characterized by its ability to cleave peptides with Arg, Phe, Tyr, Leu, and Glu adjacent to the leaving group at neutral or slightly basic pH. The proteasome has an ATP-dependent proteolytic activity. This subunit is involved in antigen processing to generate class I binding peptides. Replacement of PSMB6 by PSMB9 increases the capacity of the immunoproteasome to cleave model peptides after hydrophobic and basic residues.

May be involved in the regulation of cell proliferation. Has a cell-proliferation inhibition activity in vitro.

Acts as a chaperone during the assembly of the 26S proteasome, specifically of the PA700/19S regulatory complex (RC). In the initial step of the base subcomplex assembly is part of an intermediate PSMD10:PSMC4:PSMC5:PAAF1 module which probably assembles with a PSMD5:PSMC2:PSMC1:PSMD2 module. Independently of the proteasome, regulates EGF-induced AKT activation through inhibition of the RHOA/ROCK/PTEN pathway, leading to prolonged AKT activation. Plays an important role in RAS-induced tumorigenesis

Component of the 26S proteasome, a multiprotein complex involved in the ATP-dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. This complex plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins, which could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Therefore, the proteasome participates in numerous cellular processes, including cell cycle progression, apoptosis, or DNA damage repair. In the complex, PSMD11 is required for proteasome assembly. Plays a key role in increased proteasome activity in embryonic stem cells (ESCs): its high expression in ESCs promotes enhanced assembly of the 26S proteasome, followed by higher proteasome activity.

Component of the 26S proteasome, a multiprotein complex involved in the ATP-dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. This complex plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins, which could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Therefore, the proteasome participates in numerous cellular processes, including cell cycle progression, apoptosis, or DNA damage repair.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor for ARF6. Induces cytoskeletal remodeling (By similarity).

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor for ARF6 and ARL14/ARF7. Through ARL14 activation, controls the movement of MHC class II- containing vesicles along the actin cytoskeleton in dendritic cells. Involved in membrane recycling. Interacts with several phosphatidylinositol phosphate species, including phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate, phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate and phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate.

Component of the 26S proteasome, a multiprotein complex involved in the ATP-dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. This complex plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins, which could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Therefore, the proteasome participates in numerous cellular processes, including cell cycle progression, apoptosis, or DNA damage repair. The PSMD14 subunit is a metalloprotease that specifically cleaves 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains within the complex. Plays a role in response to double-strand breaks (DSBs): acts as a regulator of non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) by cleaving 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin, thereby promoting retention of JMJD2A/KDM4A on chromatin and restricting TP53BP1 accumulation. Also involved in homologous recombination repair by promoting RAD51 loading.

Required for correct functioning of the GINS complex, a complex that plays an essential role in the initiation of DNA replication, and progression of DNA replication forks. GINS complex is a core component of CDC45-MCM-GINS (CMG) helicase, the molecular machine that unwinds template DNA during replication, and around which the replisome is built.

Binds to the small latent transforming growth factor-beta complex, consisting of the N-terminal TGFB1 latency-associated peptide (LAP) and the mature form of TGFB1, thereby leading to the activation of TGFB1. The activation of TGFB1 leads to stimulation of naive CD4(+) T-cells to increase FoxP3 expression and to an increase in the number of FoxP3(+) regulatory T-cells. Induces the differentiation of a suppressive CD4(+)LAP(+)FoxP3(-) T-cell subset. Induces the secretion of TGFB1 in macrophages, but not in activated CD4(+) T-cells. May reduce the expression of several pro- inflammatory cytokines and chemokines by CD4(+) T-cells, including IL2 and IL6.

Transcriptional coactivator involved in neuroepithelial stem cell differentiation and neurogenesis. Involved in particular in lens epithelial cell gene regulation and stress responses. May play an important role in lens epithelial to fiber cell terminal differentiation. May play a protective role during stress-induced apoptosis. Isoform 2 is a more general and stronger transcriptional coactivator. Isoform 2 may also act as an adapter to coordinate pre- mRNA splicing. Cellular cofactor for lentiviral integration.

Component of the spermatoproteasome, a proteasome specifically found in testis that promotes acetylation-dependent degradation of histones, thereby participating actively to the exchange of histones during spermatogenesis. The proteasome is a protein complex that degrades unneeded or damaged proteins by proteolysis, a chemical reaction that breaks peptide bonds. Required for 20S core proteasome assembly, essential for the degradation of meiotic proteins RAD51 and RPA1 at late prophase I and the progression of meiosis I during spermatogenesis. Localizes to the synaptonemal complex, a 'zipper'-like structure that holds homologous chromosome pairs in synapsis during meiotic prophase I.

Component of the 26S proteasome, a multiprotein complex involved in the ATP-dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. This complex plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins, which could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Therefore, the proteasome participates in numerous cellular processes, including cell cycle progression, apoptosis, or DNA damage repair. PSMD4 acts as an ubiquitin receptor subunit through ubiquitin- interacting motifs and selects ubiquitin-conjugates for destruction. Displays a preferred selectivity for longer polyubiquitin chains.

Acts as a chaperone during the assembly of the 26S proteasome, specifically of the base subcomplex of the PA700/19S regulatory complex (RC). In the initial step of the base subcomplex assembly is part of an intermediate PSMD5:PSMC2:PSMC1:PSMD2 module which probably assembles with a PSMD10:PSMC4:PSMC5:PAAF1 module followed by dissociation of PSMD5.

Acts as a chaperone during the assembly of the 26S proteasome, specifically of the base subcomplex of the PA700/19S regulatory complex (RC). During the base subcomplex assembly is part of an intermediate PSMD9:PSMC6:PSMC3 module, also known as modulator trimer complex; PSMD9 is released during the further base assembly process.

Implicated in immunoproteasome assembly and required for efficient antigen processing. The PA28 activator complex enhances the generation of class I binding peptides by altering the cleavage pattern of the proteasome

Subunit of the 11S REG-gamma (also called PA28-gamma) proteasome regulator, a doughnut-shaped homoheptamer which associates with the proteasome. 11S REG-gamma activates the trypsin-like catalytic subunit of the proteasome but inhibits the chymotrypsin-like and postglutamyl-preferring (PGPH) subunits. Facilitates the MDM2-p53/TP53 interaction which promotes ubiquitination- and MDM2-dependent proteasomal degradation of p53/TP53, limiting its accumulation and resulting in inhibited apoptosis after DNA damage. May also be involved in cell cycle regulation. Mediates CCAR2 and CHEK2-dependent SIRT1 inhibition.

Associated component of the proteasome that specifically recognizes acetylated histones and promotes ATP- and ubiquitin- independent degradation of core histones during spermatogenesis and DNA damage response. Recognizes and binds acetylated histones via its bromodomain-like (BRDL) region and activates the proteasome by opening the gated channel for substrate entry. Binds to the core proteasome via its C-terminus, which occupies the same binding sites as the proteasomal ATPases, opening the closed structure of the proteasome via an active gating mechanism. Component of the spermatoproteasome, a form of the proteasome specifically found in testis: binds to acetylated histones and promotes degradation of histones, thereby participating actively to the exchange of histones during spermatogenesis. Also involved in DNA damage response in somatic cells, by promoting degradation of histones following DNA double-strand breaks.

Plays an important role in control of proteasome function. Inhibits the hydrolysis of protein and peptide substrates by the 20S proteasome. Also inhibits the activation of the proteasome by the proteasome regulatory proteins PA700 and PA28.

Chaperone protein which promotes assembly of the 20S proteasome as part of a heterodimer with PSMG2. The PSMG1-PSMG2 heterodimer binds to the PSMA5 and PSMA7 proteasome subunits, promotes assembly of the proteasome alpha subunits into the heteroheptameric alpha ring and prevents alpha ring dimerization.

Chaperone protein which promotes assembly of the 20S proteasome as part of a heterodimer with PSMG1. The PSMG1-PSMG2 heterodimer binds to the PSMA5 and PSMA7 proteasome subunits, promotes assembly of the proteasome alpha subunits into the heteroheptameric alpha ring and prevents alpha ring dimerization.

Chaperone protein which promotes assembly of the 20S proteasome. May cooperate with PSMG1-PSMG2 heterodimers to orchestrate the correct assembly of proteasomes.

Chaperone protein which promotes assembly of the 20S proteasome.

Catalytic subunit of the gamma-secretase complex, an endoprotease complex that catalyzes the intramembrane cleavage of integral membrane proteins such as Notch receptors and APP (amyloid- beta precursor protein). Requires the presence of the other members of the gamma-secretase complex for protease activity. Plays a role in Notch and Wnt signaling cascades and regulation of downstream processes via its role in processing key regulatory proteins, and by regulating cytosolic CTNNB1 levels. Stimulates cell-cell adhesion via its interaction with CDH1; this stabilizes the complexes between CDH1 (E-cadherin) and its interaction partners CTNNB1 (beta-catenin), CTNND1 and JUP (gamma-catenin). Under conditions of apoptosis or calcium influx, cleaves CDH1. This promotes the disassembly of the complexes between CDH1 and CTNND1, JUP and CTNNB1, increases the pool of cytoplasmic CTNNB1, and thereby negatively regulates Wnt signaling. Required for normal embryonic brain and skeleton development, and for normal angiogenesis (By similarity). Mediates the proteolytic cleavage of EphB2/CTF1 into EphB2/CTF2. The holoprotein functions as a calcium-leak channel that allows the passive movement of calcium from endoplasmic reticulum to cytosol and is therefore involved in calcium homeostasis. Involved in the regulation of neurite outgrowth. Is a regulator of presynaptic facilitation, spike transmission and synaptic vesicles replenishment in a process that depends on gamma-secretase activity. It acts through the control of SYT7 presynaptic expression (By similarity).

Probable catalytic subunit of the gamma-secretase complex, an endoprotease complex that catalyzes the intramembrane cleavage of integral membrane proteins such as Notch receptors and APP (amyloid- beta precursor protein). Requires the other members of the gamma- secretase complex to have a protease activity. May play a role in intracellular signaling and gene expression or in linking chromatin to the nuclear membrane. May function in the cytoplasmic partitioning of proteins. The holoprotein functions as a calcium-leak channel that allows the passive movement of calcium from endoplasmic reticulum to cytosol and is involved in calcium homeostasis. Is a regulator of mitochondrion-endoplasmic reticulum membrane tethering and modulates calcium ions shuttling between ER and mitochondria.

Pulmonary surfactant-associated proteins promote alveolar stability by lowering the surface tension at the air-liquid interface in the peripheral air spaces. SP-B increases the collapse pressure of palmitic acid to nearly 70 millinewtons per meter

Regulates, cooperatively with NONO and SFPQ, androgen receptor-mediated gene transcription activity in Sertoli cell line (By similarity). Binds to poly(A), poly(G) and poly(U) RNA homopolymers. Regulates the circadian clock by repressing the transcriptional activator activity of the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer (By similarity). Together with NONO, required for the formation of nuclear paraspeckles. Plays a role in the regulation of DNA virus-mediated innate immune response by assembling into the HDP-RNP complex, a complex that serves as a platform for IRF3 phosphorylation and subsequent innate immune response activation through the cGAS-STING pathway.

Exhibits neurotrophic activity on mesencephalic dopaminergic and motor neurons

Required for normal progression through mitosis. Required for normal congress of chromosomes at the metaphase plate, and for normal rate of chromosomal segregation during anaphase. Plays a role in the regulation of mitotic spindle dynamics. Increases the rate of turnover of microtubules on metaphase spindles, and contributes to the generation of normal tension across sister kinetochores. Recruits KIF2A and ANKRD53 to the mitotic spindle and spindle poles. May participate in p53/TP53-regulated growth suppression.

Receptor for the glycosphingolipid psychosine (PSY) and several related glycosphingolipids. Plays a role in immune response by maintaining lysosome function and supporting phagocytosis-mediated intracellular bacteria clearance. May have a role in activation-induced cell death or differentiation of T-cells (By similarity).

Plays an essential role in mitochondrial complex IV maturation and assembly.

Receptor for platelet activating factor, a chemotactic phospholipid mediator that possesses potent inflammatory, smooth-muscle contractile and hypotensive activity. Seems to mediate its action via a G protein that activates a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system.

Plays a role in pre-mRNA splicing and in the regulation of alternative splicing events. Activates exon skipping of its own pre- mRNA during muscle cell differentiation. Binds to the polypyrimidine tract of introns. May promote RNA looping when bound to two separate polypyrimidine tracts in the same pre-mRNA. May promote the binding of U2 snRNP to pre-mRNA. Cooperates with RAVER1 to modulate switching between mutually exclusive exons during maturation of the TPM1 pre- mRNA. Represses the splicing of MAPT/Tau exon 10. Binds to polypyrimidine-rich controlling element (PCE) of CFTR and promotes exon skipping of CFTR exon 9, thereby antagonizing TIA1 and its role in exon inclusion of CFTR exon 9. Plays a role in the splicing of pyruvate kinase PKM by binding repressively to a polypyrimidine tract flanking PKM exon 9, inhibiting exon 9 inclusion and resulting in exon 10 inclusion and production of the PKM M2 isoform. In case of infection by picornaviruses, binds to the viral internal ribosome entry site (IRES) and stimulates the IRES- mediated translation.

RNA-binding protein which binds to intronic polypyrimidine tracts and mediates negative regulation of exons splicing. May antagonize in a tissue-specific manner the ability of NOVA1 to activate exon selection. In addition to its function in pre-mRNA splicing, plays also a role in the regulation of translation.

RNA-binding protein that mediates pre-mRNA alternative splicing regulation. Plays a role in the regulation of cell proliferation, differentiation and migration. Positive regulator of EPO-dependent erythropoiesis. Participates in cell differentiation regulation by repressing tissue-specific exons. Promotes FAS exon 6 skipping. Binds RNA, preferentially to both poly(G) and poly(U).

Acts as a receptor for sonic hedgehog (SHH), indian hedgehog (IHH) and desert hedgehog (DHH). Associates with the smoothened protein (SMO) to transduce the hedgehog's proteins signal. Seems to have a tumor suppressor function, as inactivation of this protein is probably a necessary, if not sufficient step for tumorigenesis.

Plays a role in the control of cellular growth. May have a role in epidermal development. May act as a receptor for Sonic hedgehog (SHH).

Mitochondrial protein implicated in negative regulation of leucine tRNA levels, as well as negative regulation of mitochondria- encoded proteins and COX activity. Affects also the 3'-processing of mitochondrial tRNAs.

Involved in mitochondrial RNA maturation and mitochondrial respiratory chain function.

Mitochondrial RNA-binding protein that has a role in mitochondrial translation.

The pre-T-cell receptor complex (composed of PTCRA, TCRB and the CD3 complex) regulates early T-cell development.

Acts as a dual-specificity protein phosphatase, dephosphorylating tyrosine-, serine- and threonine-phosphorylated proteins. Also acts as a lipid phosphatase, removing the phosphate in the D3 position of the inositol ring from phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate, phosphatidylinositol 3,4-diphosphate, phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate and inositol 1,3,4,5-tetrakisphosphate with order of substrate preference in vitro PtdIns(3,4,5)P3 > PtdIns(3,4)P2 > PtdIns3P > Ins(1,3,4,5)P4. Tumor suppressor, the lipid phosphatase activity is critical for its tumor suppressor function. Antagonizes the PI3K-AKT/PKB signaling pathway by dephosphorylating phosphoinositides and thereby modulating cell cycle progression and cell survival (By similarity). The unphosphorylated form cooperates with MAGI2 to suppress AKT1 activation. In motile cells, suppresses the formation of lateral pseudopods and thereby promotes cell polarization and directed movement. Dephosphorylates tyrosine-phosphorylated focal adhesion kinase and inhibits cell migration and integrin-mediated cell spreading and focal adhesion formation. Plays a role as a key modulator of the AKT-mTOR signaling pathway controlling the tempo of the process of newborn neurons integration during adult neurogenesis, including correct neuron positioning, dendritic development and synapse formation (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of synaptic function in excitatory hippocampal synapses. Recruited to the postsynaptic membrane upon NMDA receptor activation, is required for the modulation of synaptic activity during plasticity. Enhancement of lipid phosphatase activity is able to drive depression of AMPA receptor-mediated synaptic responses, activity required for NMDA receptor-dependent long-term depression (LTD) (By similarity). May be a negative regulator of insulin signaling and glucose metabolism in adipose tissue. The nuclear monoubiquitinated form possesses greater apoptotic potential, whereas the cytoplasmic nonubiquitinated form induces less tumor suppressive ability.

Transcription factor implicated in the cell fate determination in various organs. Binds to the E-box consensus sequence 5'-CANNTG-3'. Plays a role in early and late pancreas development and differentiation. Important for determining whether cells allocated to the pancreatic buds continue towards pancreatic organogenesis or revert back to duodenal fates. May be involved in the maintenance of exocrine pancreas-specific gene expression including ELA1 and amylase. Required for the formation of pancreatic acinar and ductal cells. Plays an important role in cerebellar development. Directly regulated by FOXN4 and RORC during retinal development, FOXN4-PTF1A pathway plays a central role in directing the differentiation of retinal progenitors towards horizontal and amacrine fates.

Catalyzes the conversion of PGH2 to PGD2, a prostaglandin involved in smooth muscle contraction/relaxation and a potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation. Involved in a variety of CNS functions, such as sedation, NREM sleep and PGE2-induced allodynia, and may have an anti-apoptotic role in oligodendrocytes. Binds small non- substrate lipophilic molecules, including biliverdin, bilirubin, retinal, retinoic acid and thyroid hormone, and may act as a scavenger for harmful hydrophobic molecules and as a secretory retinoid and thyroid hormone transporter. Possibly involved in development and maintenance of the blood-brain, blood-retina, blood-aqueous humor and blood-testis barrier. It is likely to play important roles in both maturation and maintenance of the central nervous system and male reproductive system. Involved in PLA2G3-dependent maturation of mast cells. PLA2G3 is secreted by immature mast cells and acts on nearby fibroblasts upstream to PTDGS to synthesize PGD2, which in turn promotes mast cell maturation and degranulation via PTGDR (By similarity).

Terminal enzyme of the cyclooxygenase (COX)-2-mediated prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) biosynthetic pathway. Catalyzes the glutathione-dependent oxidoreduction of prostaglandin endoperoxide H2 (PGH2) to prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) in response to inflammatory stimuli. Plays a key role in inflammation response, fever and pain (By similarity). Catalyzes also the oxidoreduction of endocannabinoids into prostaglandin glycerol esters and PGG2 into 15-hydroperoxy-PGE2. In addition, displays low glutathione transferase and glutathione- dependent peroxidase activities, toward 1-chloro-2,4-dinitrobenzene and 5-hydroperoxyicosatetraenoic acid (5-HPETE), respectively.

Catalyzes the biosynthesis and metabolism of eicosanoids. Catalyzes the isomerization of prostaglandin H2 to prostacyclin (= prostaglandin I2), a potent mediator of vasodilation and inhibitor of platelet aggregation. Additionally, displays dehydratase activity, toward hydroperoxyeicosatetraenoates (HPETEs), especially toward (15S)-hydroperoxy-(5Z,8Z,11Z,13E)-eicosatetraenoate (15(S)- HPETE).

NAD(P)H-dependent oxidoreductase involved in metabolic inactivation of pro- and anti-inflammatory eicosanoids: prostaglandins (PG), leukotrienes (LT) and lipoxins (LX). Catalyzes with high efficiency the reduction of the 13,14 double bond of 15- oxoPGs, including 15-oxo-PGE1, 15-oxo-PGE2, 15-oxo-PGF1-alpha and 15- oxo-PGF2-alpha. Catalyzes with lower efficiency the oxidation of the hydroxyl group at C12 of LTB4 and its derivatives, converting them into biologically less active 12-oxo-LTB4 metabolites (By similarity). Reduces 15-oxo-LXA4 to 13,14 dihydro-15-oxo-LXA4, enhancing neutrophil recruitment at the inflammatory site (By similarity). May play a role in metabolic detoxification of alkenals and ketones. Reduces alpha,beta-unsaturated alkenals and ketones, particularly those with medium-chain length, showing highest affinity toward (2E)-decenal and (3E)-3-nonen-2-one. May inactivate 4-hydroxy-2-nonenal, a cytotoxic lipid constituent of oxidized low-density lipoprotein particles (By similarity).

Functions as 15-oxo-prostaglandin 13-reductase and acts on 15-keto-PGE1, 15-keto-PGE2, 15-keto-PGE1-alpha and 15-keto-PGE2-alpha with highest activity towards 15-keto-PGE2. Overexpression represses transcriptional activity of PPARG and inhibits adipocyte differentiation (By similarity).

Functions as 15-oxo-prostaglandin 13-reductase and acts on 15-keto-PGE1, 15-keto-PGE2, 15-keto-PGE1-alpha and 15-keto-PGE2-alpha with highest efficiency towards 15-keto-PGE2-alpha. Overexpression represses transcriptional activity of PPARG and inhibits adipocyte differentiation.

Receptor for parathyroid hormone and for parathyroid hormone- related peptide. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase and also a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system.

This is a specific receptor for parathyroid hormone. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase. PTH2R may be responsible for PTH effects in a number of physiological systems. It may play a significant role in pancreatic function. PTH2R presence in neurons indicates that it may function as a neurotransmitter receptor (By similarity).

The natural substrate for this enzyme may be peptidyl-tRNAs which drop off the ribosome during protein synthesis.

The BBSome complex is thought to function as a coat complex required for sorting of specific membrane proteins to the primary cilia. The BBSome complex is required for ciliogenesis but is dispensable for centriolar satellite function. This ciliogenic function is mediated in part by the Rab8 GDP/GTP exchange factor, which localizes to the basal body and contacts the BBSome. Rab8(GTP) enters the primary cilium and promotes extension of the ciliary membrane. Firstly the BBSome associates with the ciliary membrane and binds to RAB3IP/Rabin8, the guanosyl exchange factor (GEF) for Rab8 and then the Rab8-GTP localizes to the cilium and promotes docking and fusion of carrier vesicles to the base of the ciliary membrane. Required for proper BBSome complex assembly and its ciliary localization.

Required for the development and function of the thalamic reticular nucleus (TRN), a part of the thalamus that is critical for thalamocortical transmission, generation of sleep rhythms, sensorimotor processing and attention.

Could act as a repressor of canonical hedgehog signaling by antagonizing the effects of SMO, as suggested by down-regulation of hedgehog target genes, including GLI1, PTCH1, and PTCH2 in PTCHD4- expressing cells.

Neuroendocrine peptide which is a critical regulator of cellular and organ growth, development, migration, differentiation and survival and of epithelial calcium ion transport. Regulates endochondral bone development and epithelial-mesenchymal interactions during the formation of the mammary glands and teeth. Required for skeletal homeostasis. Promotes mammary mesenchyme differentiation and bud outgrowth by modulating mesenchymal cell responsiveness to BMPs. Up-regulates BMPR1A expression in the mammary mesenchyme and this increases the sensitivity of these cells to BMPs and allows them to respond to BMP4 in a paracrine and/or autocrine fashion. BMP4 signaling in the mesenchyme, in turn, triggers epithelial outgrowth and augments MSX2 expression, which causes the mammary mesenchyme to inhibit hair follicle formation within the nipple sheath (By similarity). Promotes colon cancer cell migration and invasion in an integrin alpha-6/beta-1- dependent manner through activation of Rac1.

PTH elevates calcium level by dissolving the salts in bone and preventing their renal excretion. Stimulates [1-14C]-2-deoxy-D- glucose (2DG) transport and glycogen synthesis in osteoblastic cells.

Non-receptor tyrosine-protein kinase implicated in the regulation of a variety of signaling pathways that control the differentiation and maintenance of normal epithelia, as well as tumor growth. Function seems to be context dependent and differ depending on cell type, as well as its intracellular localization. A number of potential nuclear and cytoplasmic substrates have been identified. These include the RNA-binding proteins: KHDRBS1/SAM68, KHDRBS2/SLM1, KHDRBS3/SLM2 and SFPQ/PSF; transcription factors: STAT3 and STAT5A/B and a variety of signaling molecules: ARHGAP35/p190RhoGAP, PXN/paxillin, BTK/ATK, STAP2/BKS. Associates also with a variety of proteins that are likely upstream of PTK6 in various signaling pathways, or for which PTK6 may play an adapter-like role. These proteins include ADAM15, EGFR, ERBB2, ERBB3 and IRS4. In normal or non- tumorigenic tissues, PTK6 promotes cellular differentiation and apoptosis. In tumors PTK6 contributes to cancer progression by sensitizing cells to mitogenic signals and enhancing proliferation, anchorage-independent survival and migration/invasion. Association with EGFR, ERBB2, ERBB3 may contribute to mammary tumor development and growth through enhancement of EGF-induced signaling via BTK/AKT and PI3 kinase. Contributes to migration and proliferation by contributing to EGF-mediated phosphorylation of ARHGAP35/p190RhoGAP, which promotes association with RASA1/p120RasGAP, inactivating RhoA while activating RAS. EGF stimulation resulted in phosphorylation of PNX/Paxillin by PTK6 and activation of RAC1 via CRK/CrKII, thereby promoting migration and invasion. PTK6 activates STAT3 and STAT5B to promote proliferation. Nuclear PTK6 may be important for regulating growth in normal epithelia, while cytoplasmic PTK6 might activate oncogenic signaling pathways

Inactive tyrosine kinase involved in Wnt signaling pathway. Component of both the non-canonical (also known as the Wnt/planar cell polarity signaling) and the canonical Wnt signaling pathway. Functions in cell adhesion, cell migration, cell polarity, proliferation, actin cytoskeleton reorganization and apoptosis. Has a role in embryogenesis, epithelial tissue organization and angiogenesis.

Prothymosin alpha may mediate immune function by conferring resistance to certain opportunistic infections

Parathymosin may mediate immune function by blocking the effect of prothymosin alpha which confers resistance to certain opportunistic infections

Acts downstream of various receptor and cytoplasmic protein tyrosine kinases to participate in the signal transduction from the cell surface to the nucleus. Positively regulates MAPK signal transduction pathway. Dephosphorylates GAB1, ARHGAP35 and EGFR. Dephosphorylates ROCK2 at 'Tyr-722' resulting in stimulation of its RhoA binding activity. Dephosphorylates CDC73. Dephosphorylates SOX9 on tyrosine residues, leading to inactivate SOX9 and promote ossification (By similarity). Dephosphorylates tyrosine-phosphorylated NEDD9/CAS-L.

Dephosphorylates a range of proteins, and thereby regulates cellular signaling cascades. Dephosphorylates cellular tyrosine kinases, such as ERBB2 and PTK2B/PYK2, and thereby regulates signaling via ERBB2 and PTK2B/PYK2. Selectively dephosphorylates ERBB2 phosphorylated at 'Tyr-1112', 'Tyr-1196', and/or 'Tyr-1248'.

Tyrosine phosphatase which regulates negatively FAS-induced apoptosis and NGFR-mediated pro-apoptotic signaling. May regulate phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) signaling through dephosphorylation of PIK3R2.

Protein tyrosine phosphatase which may play a role in the regulation of lymphangiogenesis, cell-cell adhesion, cell-matrix adhesion, cell migration, cell growth and also regulates TGF-beta gene expression, thereby modulating epithelial-mesenchymal transition. Mediates beta-catenin dephosphorylation at adhesion junctions. Acts as a negative regulator of the oncogenic property of YAP, a downstream target of the hippo pathway, in a cell density-dependent manner. May function as a tumor suppressor.

Differentially dephosphorylate autophosphorylated tyrosine kinases which are known to be overexpressed in tumor tissues

Tyrosine-protein phosphatase which acts as a regulator of endoplasmic reticulum unfolded protein response. Mediates dephosphorylation of EIF2AK3/PERK; inactivating the protein kinase activity of EIF2AK3/PERK. May play an important role in CKII- and p60c- src-induced signal transduction cascades. May regulate the EFNA5-EPHA3 signaling pathway which modulates cell reorganization and cell-cell repulsion. May also regulate the hepatocyte growth factor receptor signaling pathway through dephosphorylation of MET.

Tyrosine-protein phosphatase targeted to sites of actin polymerization in response of varied extracellular stimuli. Has tyrosine phosphatase activity towards various tyrosyl phosphorylated substrates

Plays a role in sorting of endocytic ubiquitinated cargos into multivesicular bodies (MVBs) via its interaction with the ESCRT-I complex (endosomal sorting complex required for transport I), and possibly also other ESCRT complexes. May act as a negative regulator of Ras-mediated mitogenic activity. Plays a role in ciliogenesis.

Non-receptor type tyrosine-specific phosphatase that dephosphorylates receptor protein tyrosine kinases including INSR, EGFR, CSF1R, PDGFR. Also dephosphorylates non-receptor protein tyrosine kinases like JAK1, JAK2, JAK3, Src family kinases, STAT1, STAT3 and STAT6 either in the nucleus or the cytoplasm. Negatively regulates numerous signaling pathways and biological processes like hematopoiesis, inflammatory response, cell proliferation and differentiation, and glucose homeostasis. Plays a multifaceted and important role in the development of the immune system. Functions in T- cell receptor signaling through dephosphorylation of FYN and LCK to control T-cells differentiation and activation. Dephosphorylates CSF1R, negatively regulating its downstream signaling and macrophage differentiation. Negatively regulates cytokine (IL2/interleukin-2 and interferon)-mediated signaling through dephosphorylation of the cytoplasmic kinases JAK1, JAK3 and their substrate STAT1, that propagate signaling downstream of the cytokine receptors. Also regulates the IL6/interleukin-6 and IL4/interleukin-4 cytokine signaling through dephosphorylation of STAT3 and STAT6 respectively. In addition to the immune system, it is involved in anchorage-dependent, negative regulation of EGF-stimulated cell growth. Activated by the integrin ITGA1/ITGB1, it dephosphorylates EGFR and negatively regulates EGF signaling. Dephosphorylates PDGFRB and negatively regulates platelet-derived growth factor receptor-beta signaling pathway and therefore cell proliferation. Negatively regulates tumor necrosis factor-mediated signaling downstream via MAPK through SRC dephosphorylation. May also regulate the hepatocyte growth factor receptor signaling pathway through dephosphorylation of the hepatocyte growth factor receptor MET. Also plays an important role in glucose homeostasis. For instance, negatively regulates the insulin receptor signaling pathway through the dephosphorylation of INSR and control gluconeogenesis and liver glucose production through negative regulation of the IL6 signaling pathways. May also bind DNA.

May act at junctions between the membrane and the cytoskeleton. Possesses tyrosine phosphatase activity

Phosphatase that plays a role in immunity, learning, synaptic plasticity or cell homeostasis. Regulates neuronal cell homeostasis by protecting neurons against apoptosis. Negatively regulates TLR4-induced interferon beta production by dephosphorylating adapter TICAM2 and inhibiting subsequent TRAM-TRIF interaction. Dephosphorylates also the immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motifs/ITAMs of the TCR zeta subunit and thereby negatively regulates TCR-mediated signaling pathway (By similarity). May act at junctions between the membrane and the cytoskeleton.

May regulate the activity of several effector molecules involved in synaptic plasticity and neuronal cell survival, including MAPKs, Src family kinases and NMDA receptors.

Modulates signaling by tyrosine phosphorylated cell surface receptors such as KIT and the EGF receptor/EGFR. The SH2 regions may interact with other cellular components to modulate its own phosphatase activity against interacting substrates. Together with MTUS1, induces UBE2V2 expression upon angiotensin II stimulation. Plays a key role in hematopoiesis.

Protein phosphatase that acts preferentially on tyrosine- phosphorylated MAPK1. Plays a role in the regulation of T and B- lymphocyte development and signal transduction.

Protein-tyrosine phosphatase that could participate in the transfer of hydrophobic ligands or in functions of the Golgi apparatus.

Secreted growth factor that mediates its signal through cell- surface proteoglycan and non-proteoglycan receptors. Binds cell-surface proteoglycan receptor via their chondroitin sulfate (CS) groups. Thereby regulates many processes like cell proliferation, cell survival, cell growth, cell differentiation and cell migration in several tissues namely neuron and bone. Also plays a role in synaptic plasticity and learning-related behavior by inhibiting long-term synaptic potentiation (By similarity). Binds PTPRZ1, leading to neutralization of the negative charges of the CS chains of PTPRZ1, inducing PTPRZ1 clustering, thereby causing the dimerization and inactivation of its phosphatase activity leading to increased tyrosine phosphorylation of each of the PTPRZ1 substrates like ALK, CTNNB1 or AFAP1L2 in order to activate the PI3K-AKT pathway. Through PTPRZ1 binding controls oligodendrocyte precursor cell differentiation by enhancing the phosphorylation of AFAP1L2 in order to activate the PI3K-AKT pathway. Forms a complex with PTPRZ1 and integrin alpha-V/beta-3 (ITGAV:ITGB3) that stimulates endothelial cell migration through SRC dephosphorylation and activation that consequently leads to ITGB3 'Tyr-773' phosphorylation. In adult hippocampus promotes dendritic arborization, spine development, and functional integration and connectivity of newborn granule neurons through ALK by activating AKT signaling pathway (By similarity). Binds GPC2 and chondroitin sulfate proteoglycans (CSPGs) at the neuron surface, leading to abrogation of binding between PTPRS and CSPGs and neurite outgrowth promotion (By similarity). Binds SDC3 and mediates bone formation by recruiting and attaching osteoblasts/osteoblast precursors to the sites for new bone deposition (By similarity). Binds ALK and promotes cell survival and cell proliferation through MAPK pathway activation. Inhibits proliferation and enhances differentiation of neural stem cells by inhibiting FGF2-induced fibroblast growth factor receptor signaling pathway (By similarity). Mediates regulatory mechanisms in normal hemostasis and in hematopoietic regeneration and in maintaining the balance of myeloid and lymphoid regeneration (By similarity). In addition may play a role in the female reproductive system, auditory response and the progesterone-induced decidualization pathway (By similarity).

PPIases accelerate the folding of proteins. It catalyzes the cis-trans isomerization of proline imidic peptide bonds in oligopeptides. Acts as a regulatory subunit for serine/threonine- protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) modulating its activity or substrate specificity, probably by inducing a conformational change in the catalytic subunit, a proposed direct target of the PPIase. Can reactivate inactive phosphatase PP2A-phosphatase methylesterase complexes (PP2A(i)) in presence of ATP and Mg(2+) (By similarity). Reversibly stimulates the variable phosphotyrosyl phosphatase activity of PP2A core heterodimer PP2A(D) in presence of ATP and Mg(2+) (in vitro). The phosphotyrosyl phosphatase activity is dependent of an ATPase activity of the PP2A(D):PPP2R4 complex. Is involved in apoptosis; the function appears to be independent from PP2A.

Lipid phosphatase which dephosphorylates phosphatidylglycerophosphate (PGP) to phosphatidylglycerol (PG) (By similarity). PGP is an essential intermediate in the biosynthetic pathway of cardiolipin, a mitochondrial-specific phospholipid regulating the membrane integrity and activities of the organelle (By similarity). Has also been shown to display phosphatase activity toward phosphoprotein substrates, specifically mediates dephosphorylation of mitochondrial proteins, thereby playing an essential role in ATP production (By similarity). Has probably a preference for proteins phosphorylated on Ser and/or Thr residues compared to proteins phosphorylated on Tyr residues (By similarity). Probably involved in regulation of insulin secretion in pancreatic beta cells (By similarity). May prevent intrinsic apoptosis, probably by regulating mitochondrial membrane integrity.

Plays a role in vesicle-mediated secretory processes. Required for normal accumulation of secretory vesicles in hippocampus, pituitary and pancreatic islets. Required for the accumulation of normal levels of insulin-containing vesicles and preventing their degradation. Plays a role in insulin secretion in response to glucose stimuli. Required for normal accumulation of the neurotransmitters norepinephrine, dopamine and serotonin in the brain. In females, but not in males, required for normal accumulation and secretion of pituitary hormones, such as luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle- stimulating hormone (FSH) (By similarity). Required to maintain normal levels of renin expression and renin release (By similarity). May regulate catalytic active protein-tyrosine phosphatases such as PTPRA through dimerization (By similarity). Has phosphatidylinositol phosphatase activity; the PIPase activity is involved in its ability to regulate insulin secretion. Can dephosphorylate phosphatidylinositol 4,5-biphosphate (PI(4,5)P2), phosphatidylinositol 5-phosphate and phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (By similarity). Regulates PI(4,5)P2 level in the plasma membrane and localization of cofilin at the plasma membrane and thus is indirectly involved in regulation of actin dynamics related to cell migration and metastasis; upon hydrolyzation of PI(4,5)P2 cofilin is released from the plasma membrane and acts in the cytoplasm in severing F-actin filaments.

Tyrosine protein phosphatase which is involved in integrin- mediated focal adhesion formation (By similarity). Following integrin engagement, specifically recruits BCAR3, BCAR1 and CRK to focal adhesions thereby promoting SRC-mediated phosphorylation of BRAC1 and the subsequent activation of PAK and small GTPase RAC1 and CDC42 (By similarity).

Plays an important role in blood vessel remodeling and angiogenesis. Not necessary for the initial formation of blood vessels, but is essential for their maintenance and remodeling. Can induce dephosphorylation of TEK/TIE2, CDH5/VE-cadherin and KDR/VEGFR-2. Regulates angiopoietin-TIE2 signaling in endothelial cells. Acts as a negative regulator of TIE2, and controls TIE2 driven endothelial cell proliferation, which in turn affects blood vessel remodeling during embryonic development and determines blood vessel size during perinatal growth. Essential for the maintenance of endothelial cell contact integrity and for the adhesive function of VE-cadherin in endothelial cells and this requires the presence of plakoglobin (By similarity).

Protein tyrosine-protein phosphatase required for T-cell activation through the antigen receptor. Acts as a positive regulator of T-cell coactivation upon binding to DPP4. The first PTPase domain has enzymatic activity, while the second one seems to affect the substrate specificity of the first one. Upon T-cell activation, recruits and dephosphorylates SKAP1 and FYN. Dephosphorylates LYN, and thereby modulates LYN activity (By similarity).

Can bidirectionally induce pre- and post-synaptic differentiation of neurons by mediating interaction with IL1RAP and IL1RAPL1 trans-synaptically. Involved in pre-synaptic differentiation through interaction with SLITRK2.

Isoform 1 plays a critical role in signaling transduction pathways and phosphoprotein network topology in red blood cells. May play a role in osteoclast formation and function (By similarity).

Possible cell adhesion receptor. It possesses an intrinsic protein tyrosine phosphatase activity (PTPase) and dephosphorylates EPHA2 regulating its activity

Protein phosphatase that may contribute to contact inhibition of cell growth and motility by mediating the dephosphorylation of focal adhesion-associated substrates and thus negatively regulating integrin- promoted signaling processes. Induces apoptotic cell death by at least two distinct mechanisms: inhibition of cell survival signaling mediated by PI 3-kinase, Akt, and ILK and activation of a caspase-dependent proapoptotic pathway. Inhibits the basal activity of LCK and its activation in response to TCR stimulation and TCR-induced activation of MAP kinase and surface expression of CD69. Inhibits TCR-induced tyrosine phosphorylation of LAT and ZAP70. Inhibits both basal activity of DOK1 and its CD2-induced tyrosine phosphorylation. Induces dephosphorylation of BCAR1, focal adhesion kinase and SRC. Reduces migratory activity of activity of Jurkat cells. Reduces tyrosine phosphorylation of CEACAM20 and thereby contributes to suppress the intestinal immune response CEACAM20 (By similarity).

Tyrosine phosphatase which dephosphorylates or contributes to the dephosphorylation of CTNND1, FLT3, PDGFRB, MET, KDR, LYN, SRC, MAPK1, MAPK3, EGFR, TJP1, OCLN, PIK3R1 and PIK3R2. Plays a role in cell adhesion, migration, proliferation and differentiation. Involved in vascular development (By similarity). Regulator of macrophage adhesion and spreading (By similarity). Positively affects cell-matrix adhesion (By similarity). Positive regulator of platelet activation and thrombosis. Negative regulator of cell proliferation. Negative regulator of PDGF-stimulated cell migration; through dephosphorylation of PDGFR. Positive regulator of endothelial cell survival, as well as of VEGF- induced SRC and AKT activation; through KDR dephosphorylation. Negative regulator of EGFR signaling pathway; through EGFR dephosphorylation. Enhances the barrier function of epithelial junctions during reassembly. Negatively regulates T-cell receptor (TCR) signaling. Upon T-cell TCR activation, it is up- regulated and excluded from the immunological synapses, while upon T- cell-antigen presenting cells (APC) disengagement, it is no longer excluded and can dephosphorylate PLCG1 and LAT to down-regulate prolongation of signaling.

Regulation of processes involving cell contact and adhesion such as growth control, tumor invasion, and metastasis. Negative regulator of EGFR signaling pathway. Forms complexes with beta-catenin and gamma-catenin/plakoglobin. Beta-catenin may be a substrate for the catalytic activity of PTPRK/PTP-kappa.

Receptor protein-tyrosine phosphatase that mediates homotypic cell-cell interactions and plays a role in adipogenic differentiation via modulation of p120 catenin/CTNND1 phosphorylation. Promotes CTNND1 dephosphorylation and prevents its cytoplasmic localization where it inhibits SLC2A4 membrane trafficking. In turn, SLC2A4 is directed to the plasma membrane and performs its glucose transporter function.

Plays a role in vesicle-mediated secretory processes. Required for normal accumulation of secretory vesicles in hippocampus, pituitary and pancreatic islets (By similarity). Required for the accumulation of normal levels of insulin- containing vesicles and preventing their degradation. Plays a role in insulin secretion in response to glucose stimuli. Required for normal accumulation of the neurotransmitters norepinephrine, dopamine and serotonin in the brain (By similarity). In females, but not in males, required for normal accumulation and secretion of pituitary hormones, such as luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) (By similarity). Required to maintain normal levels of renin expression and renin release (By similarity). Seems to lack intrinsic enzyme activity (By similarity). May regulate catalytic active protein-tyrosine phosphatases such as PTPRA through dimerization (By similarity).

Possesses tyrosine phosphatase activity. Plays a role in regulating the glomerular pressure/filtration rate relationship through an effect on podocyte structure and function (By similarity).

Sequesters mitogen-activated protein kinases (MAPKs) such as MAPK1, MAPK3 and MAPK14 in the cytoplasm in an inactive form. The MAPKs bind to a dephosphorylated kinase interacting motif, phosphorylation of which by the protein kinase A complex releases the MAPKs for activation and translocation into the nucleus (By similarity).

Cell surface receptor that binds to glycosaminoglycans, including chondroitin sulfate proteoglycans and heparan sulfate proteoglycan. Binding to chondroitin sulfate and heparan sulfate proteoglycans has opposite effects on PTPRS oligomerization and regulation of neurite outgrowth. Contributes to the inhibition of neurite and axonal outgrowth by chondroitin sulfate proteoglycans, also after nerve transection. Plays a role in stimulating neurite outgrowth in response to the heparan sulfate proteoglycan GPC2. Required for normal brain development, especially for normal development of the pituitary gland and the olfactory bulb. Functions as tyrosine phosphatase. Mediates dephosphorylation of NTRK1, NTRK2 and NTRK3 (By similarity). Plays a role in down-regulation of signaling cascades that lead to the activation of Akt and MAP kinases (By similarity). Down-regulates TLR9- mediated activation of NF-kappa-B, as well as production of TNF, interferon alpha and interferon beta.

May be involved in both signal transduction and cellular adhesion in the CNS

Tyrosine-protein phosphatase which dephosphorylates CTNNB1. Regulates CTNNB1 function both in cell adhesion and signaling. May function in cell proliferation and migration and play a role in the maintenance of epithelial integrity. May play a role in megakaryocytopoiesis.

Protein tyrosine phosphatase that negatively regulates oligodendrocyte precursor proliferation in the embryonic spinal cord. Required for normal differentiation of the precursor cells into mature, fully myelinating oligodendrocytes. May play a role in protecting oligondendrocytes against apoptosis. May play a role in the establishment of contextual memory, probably via the dephosphorylation of proteins that are part of important signaling cascades (By similarity).

Involved in the biosynthesis of tetrahydrobiopterin, an essential cofactor of aromatic amino acid hydroxylases. Catalyzes the transformation of 7,8-dihydroneopterin triphosphate into 6-pyruvoyl tetrahydropterin.

Catalyzes a base-exchange reaction in which the polar head group of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) or phosphatidylcholine (PC) is replaced by L-serine. Catalyzes mainly the conversion of phosphatidylcholine. Also converts, in vitro and to a lesser extent, phosphatidylethanolamine.

Catalyzes a base-exchange reaction in which the polar head group of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) or phosphatidylcholine (PC) is replaced by L-serine. Catalyzes the conversion of phosphatatidylethanolamine and does not act on phosphatidylcholine. Can utilize both phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) plasmalogen and diacyl PE as substrate and the latter is six times better utilized, indicating the importance of an ester linkage at the sn-1 position (By similarity). Although it shows no sn-1 fatty acyl preference, exhibits significant preference towards docosahexaenoic acid (22:6n-3) compared with 18:1 or 20:4 at the sn-2 position (By similarity).

Regulatory protein, which plays a central role in chromosome stability, in the p53/TP53 pathway, and DNA repair. Probably acts by blocking the action of key proteins. During the mitosis, it blocks Separase/ESPL1 function, preventing the proteolysis of the cohesin complex and the subsequent segregation of the chromosomes. At the onset of anaphase, it is ubiquitinated, conducting to its destruction and to the liberation of ESPL1. Its function is however not limited to a blocking activity, since it is required to activate ESPL1. Negatively regulates the transcriptional activity and related apoptosis activity of TP53. The negative regulation of TP53 may explain the strong transforming capability of the protein when it is overexpressed. May also play a role in DNA repair via its interaction with Ku, possibly by connecting DNA damage-response pathways with sister chromatid separation.

Plays a role in the regulation of innate resistance to pathogens, inflammatory reactions, possibly clearance of self- components and female fertility.

DNA- and RNA-binding protein, involved in several nuclear processes such as pre-mRNA splicing, apoptosis and transcription regulation. In association with FUBP1 regulates MYC transcription at the P2 promoter through the core-TFIIH basal transcription factor. Acts as a transcriptional repressor through the core-TFIIH basal transcription factor. Represses FUBP1-induced transcriptional activation but not basal transcription. Decreases ERCC3 helicase activity. Does not repress TFIIH-mediated transcription in xeroderma pigmentosum complementation group B (XPB) cells. Is also involved in pre-mRNA splicing. Promotes splicing of an intron with weak 3'-splice site and pyrimidine tract in a cooperative manner with U2AF2. Involved in apoptosis induction when overexpressed in HeLa cells. Isoform 6 failed to repress MYC transcription and inhibited FIR-induced apoptosis in colorectal cancer. Isoform 6 may contribute to tumor progression by enabling increased MYC expression and greater resistance to apoptosis in tumors than in normal cells. Modulates alternative splicing of several mRNAs. Binds to relaxed DNA of active promoter regions. Binds to the pyrimidine tract and 3'-splice site regions of pre-mRNA; binding is enhanced in presence of U2AF2. Binds to Y5 RNA in association with RO60. Binds to poly(U) RNA.

Sequence-specific RNA-binding protein that acts as a post- transcriptional repressor by binding the 3'-UTR of mRNA targets. Binds to an RNA consensus sequence, the Pumilio Response Element (PRE), 5'- UGUANAUA-3', that is related to the Nanos Response Element (NRE). Mediates post-transcriptional repression of transcripts via different mechanisms: acts via direct recruitment of the CCR4-POP2-NOT deadenylase leading to translational inhibition and mRNA degradation. Also mediates deadenylation-independent repression by promoting accessibility of miRNAs. Following growth factor stimulation, phosphorylated and binds to the 3'-UTR of CDKN1B/p27 mRNA, inducing a local conformational change that exposes miRNA-binding sites, promoting association of miR-221 and miR-222, efficient suppression of CDKN1B/p27 expression, and rapid entry to the cell cycle. Acts as a post-transcriptional repressor of E2F3 mRNAs by binding to its 3'- UTR and facilitating miRNA regulation. Represses a program of genes necessary to maintain genomic stability such as key mitotic, DNA repair and DNA replication factors. Its ability to repress those target mRNAs is regulated by the lncRNA NORAD (non-coding RNA activated by DNA damage) which, due to its high abundance and multitude of PUMILIO binding sites, is able to sequester a significant fraction of PUM1 and PUM2 in the cytoplasm. Involved in neuronal functions by regulating ATXN1 mRNA levels: acts by binding to the 3'-UTR of ATXN1 transcripts, leading to their down-regulation independently of the miRNA machinery. Plays a role in cytoplasmic sensing of viral infection. In testis, acts as a post- transcriptional regulator of spermatogenesis by binding to the 3'-UTR of mRNAs coding for regulators of p53/TP53. Involved in embryonic stem cell renewal by facilitating the exit from the ground state: acts by targeting mRNAs coding for naive pluripotency transcription factors and accelerates their down-regulation at the onset of differentiation (By similarity). Binds specifically to miRNA MIR199A precursor, with PUM2, regulates miRNA MIR199A expression at a postranscriptional level.

Sequence-specific RNA-binding protein that acts as a post- transcriptional repressor by binding the 3'-UTR of mRNA targets. Binds to an RNA consensus sequence, the Pumilio Response Element (PRE), 5'- UGUANAUA-3', that is related to the Nanos Response Element (NRE) (, PubMed:21397187). Mediates post-transcriptional repression of transcripts via different mechanisms: acts via direct recruitment of the CCR4-POP2-NOT deadenylase leading to translational inhibition and mRNA degradation. Also mediates deadenylation- independent repression by promoting accessibility of miRNAs. Acts as a post-transcriptional repressor of E2F3 mRNAs by binding to its 3'-UTR and facilitating miRNA regulation. Plays a role in cytoplasmic sensing of viral infection. Represses a program of genes necessary to maintain genomic stability such as key mitotic, DNA repair and DNA replication factors. Its ability to repress those target mRNAs is regulated by the lncRNA NORAD (non-coding RNA activated by DNA damage) which, due to its high abundance and multitude of PUMILIO binding sites, is able to sequester a significant fraction of PUM1 and PUM2 in the cytoplasm. May regulate DCUN1D3 mRNA levels. May support proliferation and self-renewal of stem cells. Binds specifically to miRNA MIR199A precursor, with PUM1, regulates miRNA MIR199A expression at a postranscriptional level.

Inhibits the poly(ADP-ribosyl)ation activity of PARP1 and the degradation of PARP1 by CASP3 following genotoxic stress. Binds to double-stranded RNA or DNA without sequence specificity. Involved in development of the eye and of primordial germ cells (By similarity).

Catalyzes the formation of phosphoribosylamine from phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (PRPP) and glutamine.

Trifunctional enzyme that catalyzes three distinct reactions as part of the 'de novo' inosine monophosphate biosynthetic pathway.

Phosphoribosylformylglycinamidine synthase involved in the purines biosynthetic pathway. Catalyzes the ATP-dependent conversion of formylglycinamide ribonucleotide (FGAR) and glutamine to yield formylglycinamidine ribonucleotide (FGAM) and glutamate.

Bifunctional phosphoribosylaminoimidazole carboxylase and phosphoribosylaminoimidazole succinocarboxamide synthetase catalyzing two reactions of the de novo purine biosynthetic pathway.

Catalyzes two non-sequential steps in de novo AMP synthesis: converts (S)-2-(5-amino-1-(5-phospho-D-ribosyl)imidazole-4- carboxamido)succinate (SAICAR) to fumarate plus 5-amino-1-(5-phospho-D- ribosyl)imidazole-4-carboxamide, and thereby also contributes to de novo IMP synthesis, and converts succinyladenosine monophosphate (SAMP) to AMP and fumarate.

Bifunctional enzyme that catalyzes the last two steps of purine biosynthesis. Acts as a transformylase that incorporates a formyl group to the AMP analog AICAR (5-amino-1-(5-phospho-beta-D-ribosyl)imidazole-4-carboxamide) to produce the intermediate formyl-AICAR (FAICAR). Can use both 10-formyldihydrofolate and 10-formyltetrahydrofolate as the formyl donor in this reaction. Also catalyzes the cyclization of FAICAR to IMP. Is able to convert thio-AICAR to 6- mercaptopurine ribonucleotide, an inhibitor of purine biosynthesis used in the treatment of human leukemias. Promotes insulin receptor/INSR autophosphorylation and is involved in INSR internalization.

Component of the purine nucleotide cycle (PNC), which interconverts IMP and AMP to regulate the nucleotide levels in various tissues, and which contributes to glycolysis and ammoniagenesis. Catalyzes the first committed step in the biosynthesis of AMP from IMP.

Plays an important role in the de novo pathway and in the salvage pathway of purine nucleotide biosynthesis. Catalyzes the first committed step in the biosynthesis of AMP from IMP.

This is a probable transcription activator that specifically binds the purine-rich single strand of the PUR element located upstream of the MYC gene. May play a role in the initiation of DNA replication and in recombination

Has capacity to bind repeated elements in single-stranded DNA such as the purine-rich single strand of the PUR element located upstream of the MYC gene. Plays a role in the control of vascular smooth muscle (VSM) alpha-actin gene transcription as repressor in myoblasts and fibroblasts. Participates in transcriptional and translational regulation of alpha-MHC expression in cardiac myocytes by binding to the purine-rich negative regulatory (PNR) element. Modulates constitutive liver galectin-3 gene transcription by binding to its promoter. May play a role in the dendritic transport of a subset of mRNAs (By similarity).

Protein with different functions depending on its subcellular location: involved in miRNA processing in the nucleus and acts as a tRNA pseudouridylate synthase in the cytoplasm. In the cytoplasm, acts as a pseudouridylate synthase by catalyzing synthesis of pseudouridine(54) and pseudouridine(55) from uracil-54 and uracil-55, respectively, in the psi GC loop of a subset of tRNAs. tRNA pseudouridylate synthase activity is enhanced by the presence of 1- methyladenosine at position 53-61 of tRNAs. Does not show tRNA pseudouridylate synthase activity in the nucleus. In the nucleus, promotes primary microRNAs (pri- miRNAs) processing independently of its RNA pseudouridylate synthase activity. Binds pri-miRNAs. Modulator of TRAIL/TNFSF10-induced cell death via activation of procaspase-8 and BID cleavage. Required for the progression of the apoptotic signal through intrinsic mitochondrial cell death.

Pseudouridylate synthase that catalyzes pseudouridylation of tRNAs and mRNAs. Acts on positions 27/28 in the anticodon stem and also positions 34 and 36 in the anticodon of an intron containing tRNA. Also catalyzes pseudouridylation of mRNAs: mediates pseudouridylation of mRNAs with the consensus sequence 5'-UGUAG-3'. Acts as a regulator of pre-mRNA splicing by mediating pseudouridylation of pre-mRNAs at locations associated with alternatively spliced regions. Pseudouridylation of pre-mRNAs near splice sites directly regulates mRNA splicing and mRNA 3'-end processing. Involved in regulation of nuclear receptor activity through pseudouridylation of SRA1 mRNA.

Formation of pseudouridine at position 39 in the anticodon stem and loop of transfer RNAs.

Pseudouridine synthase that catalyzes pseudouridylation of mRNAs.

Pseudouridylate synthase that catalyzes pseudouridylation of RNAs. Acts as a regulator of protein synthesis in embryonic stem cells by mediating pseudouridylation of RNA fragments derived from tRNAs (tRFs): pseudouridylated tRFs inhibit translation by targeting the translation initiation complex. Also catalyzes pseudouridylation of mRNAs: mediates pseudouridylation of mRNAs with the consensus sequence 5'-UGUAG-3'. Acts as a regulator of pre-mRNA splicing by mediating pseudouridylation of pre-mRNAs at locations associated with alternatively spliced regions. Pseudouridylation of pre-mRNAs near splice sites directly regulates mRNA splicing and mRNA 3'-end processing. In addition to mRNAs and tRNAs, binds other types of RNAs, such as snRNAs, Y RNAs and vault RNAs, suggesting that it can catalyze pseudouridylation of many RNA types.

Chromatin-associated factor that regulates transcription. Regulates Pol I-mediated rRNA biogenesis and, probably, Pol III-mediated transcription. Regulates the epigenetic status of rDNA.

Chromatin-binding protein that acts as an adapter between distinct nucleosome components (H3K36me3 or H2A.Z) and chromatin- modifying complexes, contributing to the regulation of the levels of histone acetylation at actively transcribed genes. Competes with CHD4 and MBD3 for interaction with MTA1 to form a NuRD subcomplex, preventing the formation of full NuRD complex (containing CHD4 and MBD3), leading to recruitment of HDACs to gene promoters resulting in turn in the deacetylation of nearby H3K27 and H2A.Z. Plays a role in facilitating transcriptional elongation and repression of spurious transcription initiation through regulation of histone acetylation (By similarity). Essential for proper mitosis progression.

Chromatin-binding protein that acts as an adapter between distinct nucleosome components (H3K36me3 or H2A.Z) and chromatin- modifying complexes, contributing to the regulation of the levels of histone acetylation at actively transcribed genes. Competes with CHD4 and MBD3 for interaction with MTA1 to form a NuRD subcomplex, preventing the formation of full NuRD complex (containing CHD4 and MBD3), leading to recruitment of HDACs to gene promoters resulting in turn in the deacetylation of nearby H3K27 and H2A.Z. Plays a role in facilitating transcriptional elongation through regulation of histone acetylation (By similarity). Negatively regulates brown adipocyte thermogenesis by interacting with and stabilizing HDAC1 at the UCP1 gene promoter, thereby promoting histone deacetylation at the promoter leading to the repression of UCP1 expression (By similarity).

Involved in the DNA damage response pathway by contributing to the maintenance of chromatin architecture. Recruited to the vicinity of DNA breaks by TP53BP1 and plays an accessory role to facilitate damage-induced chromatin changes and promoting chromatin relaxation. Required for efficient DNA repair and cell survival following DNA damage.

May be involved in peroxisomal proliferation and may regulate peroxisomes division. May mediate binding of coatomer proteins to the peroxisomal membrane (By similarity). Promotes membrane protrusion and elongation on the peroxisomal surface.

Involved in peroxisomal proliferation. May regulate peroxisome division by recruiting the dynamin-related GTPase DNM1L to the peroxisomal membrane. Promotes membrane protrusion and elongation on the peroxisomal surface.

Promotes membrane protrusion and elongation on the peroxisomal surface.

Probable oxidoreductase (Probable). Lacks peroxidase activity. Inhibits the peroxidase activity of PXDN through its interaction.

Catalyzes the two-electron oxidation of bromide by hydrogen peroxide and generates hypobromite as a reactive intermediate which mediates the formation of sulfilimine cross-links between methionine and hydroxylysine residues within an uncross-linked collagen IV/COL4A1 NC1 hexamer. In turns, directly contributes to the collagen IV network-dependent fibronectin/FN and laminin assembly, which is required for full extracellular matrix (ECM)-mediated signaling. Thus, sulfilimine cross-links are essential for growth factor-induced cell proliferation and survival in endothelial cells, an event essential to basement membrane integrity. In addition, through the bromide oxidation, may promote tubulogenesis and induce angiogenesis through ERK1/2, Akt, and FAK pathways. Moreover brominates alpha2 collagen IV chain/COL4A2 at 'Tyr-1485' and leads to bromine enrichment of the basement membranes. In vitro, can also catalyze the two-electron oxidation of thiocyanate and iodide and these two substrates could effectively compete with bromide and thus inhibit the formation of sulfilimine bonds. Binds laminins. May play a role in the organization of eyeball structure and lens development during eye development (By similarity).

Binds to and modulates brain Na,K-ATPase subunits ATP1B1 and ATP1B3 and may thereby participate in the regulation of electrical excitability and synaptic transmission. May not display kinase activity.

Involved in redox regulation of the cell. Acts as an antioxidant. Inhibits TNFSF11-induced NFKB1 and JUN activation and osteoclast differentiation. May affect bone resorption and help to maintain bone mass. Acts as a negative regulator of macrophage-mediated inflammation by inhibiting macrophage production of inflammatory cytokines, probably through suppression of the MAPK signaling pathway.

Catalyzes the reduction of prostaglandin-ethanolamide H(2) (prostamide H(2)) to prostamide F(2alpha) with NADPH as proton donor. Also able to reduce prostaglandin H(2) to prostaglandin F(2alpha) (By similarity).

May regulate positively ERK1/2 signaling and AKT1 activation leading to HIF1A up-regulation with an increased expression of glycolysis genes and enhanced glycolysis.

Seems to be involved in pore-forming activity and may contribute to the unspecific permeability of the peroxisomal membrane

Responsible for the 2-O-dephosphorylation of xylose in the glycosaminoglycan-protein linkage region of proteoglycans thereby regulating the amount of mature glycosaminoglycan (GAG) chains. Sulfated glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), including heparan sulfate and chondroitin sulfate, are synthesized on the so-called common GAG- protein linkage region (GlcUAbeta1-3Galbeta1-3Galbeta1-4Xylbeta1-O-Ser) of core proteins, which is formed by the stepwise addition of monosaccharide residues by the respective specific glycosyltransferases. Xylose 2-O-dephosphorylation during completion of linkage region formation is a prerequisite for the initiation and efficient elongation of the repeating disaccharide region of GAG chains.

Pyruvate carboxylase catalyzes a 2-step reaction, involving the ATP-dependent carboxylation of the covalently attached biotin in the first step and the transfer of the carboxyl group to pyruvate in the second. Catalyzes in a tissue specific manner, the initial reactions of glucose (liver, kidney) and lipid (adipose tissue, liver, brain) synthesis from pyruvate.

Associates with PYCARD/ASC and modulates its ability to collaborate with MEFV/pyrin and NLRP3/cryopyrin in NF-kappa-B and pro- caspase-1 activation. Suppresses kinase activity of NF-kappa-B inhibitor kinase (IKK) complex, expression of NF-kappa-B inducible genes and inhibits NF-kappa-B activation by cytokines and LPS.

May play a role in innate immunity by disrupting the interaction between PYCARD and NLRP3, thereby regulating the NLRP3 inflammasome. May also inhibit NF- kappa-B signaling distally by affecting the nuclear accumulation of RELA.

May function as a negative regulator of NF-kappa-B by preventing RELA/p65 phosphorylation at 'Ser-536', thereby inhibiting its transcriptional activity. Through NF-kappa-B regulation may control cytokine release upon Toll-like receptors activation and therefore play a role in modulation of innate immunity. May also play a role in cell cycle progression and apoptotic process.

Functions as an inhibitor of DNA virus-induced activation of AIM2-like receptors (ALR) inflammasome through interaction with AIM2.

Glycogen phosphorylase that regulates glycogen mobilization. Phosphorylase is an important allosteric enzyme in carbohydrate metabolism. Enzymes from different sources differ in their regulatory mechanisms and in their natural substrates. However, all known phosphorylases share catalytic and structural properties.

Allosteric enzyme that catalyzes the rate-limiting step in glycogen catabolism, the phosphorolytic cleavage of glycogen to produce glucose-1-phosphate, and plays a central role in maintaining cellular and organismal glucose homeostasis.

Key regulator of the exon junction complex (EJC), a multiprotein complex that associates immediately upstream of the exon- exon junction on mRNAs and serves as a positional landmark for the intron exon structure of genes and directs post-transcriptional processes in the cytoplasm such as mRNA export, nonsense-mediated mRNA decay (NMD) or translation. Acts as an EJC disassembly factor, allowing translation-dependent EJC removal and recycling by disrupting mature EJC from spliced mRNAs. Its association with the 40S ribosomal subunit probably prevents a translation-independent disassembly of the EJC from spliced mRNAs, by restricting its activity to mRNAs that have been translated. Interferes with NMD and enhances translation of spliced mRNAs, probably by antagonizing EJC functions. May bind RNA; the relevance of RNA-binding remains unclear in vivo, RNA-binding was detected by PubMed:14968132, while PubMed:19410547 did not detect RNA- binding activity independently of the EJC.

This protein is a 'fusion' protein encoding four enzymatic activities of the pyrimidine pathway (GATase, CPSase, ATCase and DHOase).

Probable FAD-dependent oxidoreductase; involved in the cellular oxidative stress response. Required for normal sarcomere structure and muscle fiber integrity (By similarity).

Probable oxidoreductase that may play a role as regulator of mitochondrial function.

Catalyzes the conversion of dihydroorotate to orotate with quinone as electron acceptor. Required for UMP biosynthesis via de novo pathway.

This enzyme is involved in the de novo synthesis of CTP, a precursor of DNA, RNA and phospholipids. Catalyzes the ATP-dependent amination of UTP to CTP with either L-glutamine or ammonia as a source of nitrogen. This enzyme and its product, CTP, play a crucial role in the proliferation of activated lymphocytes and therefore in immunity.

Catalyzes the ATP-dependent amination of UTP to CTP with either L-glutamine or ammonia as the source of nitrogen. Constitutes the rate-limiting enzyme in the synthesis of cytosine nucleotides.

This gut peptide inhibits exocrine pancreatic secretion, has a vasoconstrictory action and inhibitis jejunal and colonic mobility

Is able to inhibit all four classes of proteinases by a unique 'trapping' mechanism. This protein has a peptide stretch, called the 'bait region' which contains specific cleavage sites for different proteinases. When a proteinase cleaves the bait region, a conformational change is induced in the protein which traps the proteinase. The entrapped enzyme remains active against low molecular weight substrates (activity against high molecular weight substrates is greatly reduced). Following cleavage in the bait region a thioester bond is hydrolyzed and mediates the covalent binding of the protein to the proteinase

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Plays an important role in regulating the surface level of MUSK on myotubes. Mediates the ubiquitination of MUSK, promoting its endocytosis and lysosomal degradation. Might contribute to terminal myogenic differentiation.

Contributes to a melanosome-specific anion (chloride) current that modulates melanosomal pH for optimal tyrosinase activity required for melanogenesis and the melanosome maturation. One of the components of the mammalian pigmentary system. May serve as a key control point at which ethnic skin color variation is determined. Major determinant of brown and/or blue eye color. Seems to regulate the post-translational processing of tyrosinase, which catalyzes the limiting reaction in melanin synthesis (By similarity).

Component of the ubiquinol-cytochrome c oxidoreductase, a multisubunit transmembrane complex that is part of the mitochondrial electron transport chain which drives oxidative phosphorylation. The respiratory chain contains 3 multisubunit complexes succinate dehydrogenase (complex II, CII), ubiquinol-cytochrome c oxidoreductase (cytochrome b-c1 complex, complex III, CIII) and cytochrome c oxidase (complex IV, CIV), that cooperate to transfer electrons derived from NADH and succinate to molecular oxygen, creating an electrochemical gradient over the inner membrane that drives transmembrane transport and the ATP synthase. The cytochrome b-c1 complex catalyzes electron transfer from ubiquinol to cytochrome c, linking this redox reaction to translocation of protons across the mitochondrial inner membrane, with protons being carried across the membrane as hydrogens on the quinol. In the process called Q cycle, 2 protons are consumed from the matrix, 4 protons are released into the intermembrane space and 2 electrons are passed to cytochrome c. QCR10 has a role in CIII assembly and RIP1 stability.

Component of the ubiquinol-cytochrome c oxidoreductase, a multisubunit transmembrane complex that is part of the mitochondrial electron transport chain which drives oxidative phosphorylation. The respiratory chain contains 3 multisubunit complexes succinate dehydrogenase (complex II, CII), ubiquinol-cytochrome c oxidoreductase (cytochrome b-c1 complex, complex III, CIII) and cytochrome c oxidase (complex IV, CIV), that cooperate to transfer electrons derived from NADH and succinate to molecular oxygen, creating an electrochemical gradient over the inner membrane that drives transmembrane transport and the ATP synthase. The cytochrome b-c1 complex catalyzes electron transfer from ubiquinol to cytochrome c, linking this redox reaction to translocation of protons across the mitochondrial inner membrane, with protons being carried across the membrane as hydrogens on the quinol. In the process called Q cycle, 2 protons are consumed from the matrix, 4 protons are released into the intermembrane space and 2 electrons are passed to cytochrome c (By similarity). The 2 core subunits UQCRC1/QCR1 and UQCRC2/QCR2 are homologous to the 2 mitochondrial-processing peptidase (MPP) subunits beta-MPP and alpha-MPP respectively, and they seem to have preserved their MPP processing properties (By similarity). May be involved in the in situ processing of UQCRFS1 into the mature Rieske protein and its mitochondrial targeting sequence (MTS)/subunit 9 when incorporated into complex III (Probable). Seems to play an important role in the maintenance of proper mitochondrial function in nigral dopaminergic neurons.

Component of the ubiquinol-cytochrome c oxidoreductase, a multisubunit transmembrane complex that is part of the mitochondrial electron transport chain which drives oxidative phosphorylation. The respiratory chain contains 3 multisubunit complexes succinate dehydrogenase (complex II, CII), ubiquinol-cytochrome c oxidoreductase (cytochrome b-c1 complex, complex III, CIII) and cytochrome c oxidase (complex IV, CIV), that cooperate to transfer electrons derived from NADH and succinate to molecular oxygen, creating an electrochemical gradient over the inner membrane that drives transmembrane transport and the ATP synthase. The cytochrome b-c1 complex catalyzes electron transfer from ubiquinol to cytochrome c, linking this redox reaction to translocation of protons across the mitochondrial inner membrane, with protons being carried across the membrane as hydrogens on the quinol. In the process called Q cycle, 2 protons are consumed from the matrix, 4 protons are released into the intermembrane space and 2 electrons are passed to cytochrome c (By similarity). The 2 core subunits UQCRC1/QCR1 and UQCRC2/QCR2 are homologous to the 2 mitochondrial-processing peptidase (MPP) subunits beta-MPP and alpha-MPP respectively, and they seem to have preserved their MPP processing properties (By similarity). May be involved in the in situ processing of UQCRFS1 into the mature Rieske protein and its mitochondrial targeting sequence (MTS)/subunit 9 when incorporated into complex III (Probable).

May be a component of the ubiquinol-cytochrome c reductase complex (complex III or cytochrome b-c1 complex), which is part of the mitochondrial respiratory chain. This protein may mediate formation of the complex between cytochromes c and c1.

Component of the ubiquinol-cytochrome c oxidoreductase, a multisubunit transmembrane complex that is part of the mitochondrial electron transport chain which drives oxidative phosphorylation. The respiratory chain contains 3 multisubunit complexes succinate dehydrogenase (complex II, CII), ubiquinol-cytochrome c oxidoreductase (cytochrome b-c1 complex, complex III, CIII) and cytochrome c oxidase (complex IV, CIV), that cooperate to transfer electrons derived from NADH and succinate to molecular oxygen, creating an electrochemical gradient over the inner membrane that drives transmembrane transport and the ATP synthase. The cytochrome b-c1 complex catalyzes electron transfer from ubiquinol to cytochrome c, linking this redox reaction to translocation of protons across the mitochondrial inner membrane, with protons being carried across the membrane as hydrogens on the quinol. In the process called Q cycle, 2 protons are consumed from the matrix, 4 protons are released into the intermembrane space and 2 electrons are passed to cytochrome c.

RNA-binding protein that plays a central role in myelinization. Binds to the 5'-NACUAAY-N(1,20)-UAAY- 3' RNA core sequence. Regulates target mRNA stability. In addition, acts by regulating pre-mRNA splicing, mRNA export and protein translation. Required to protect and promote stability of mRNAs such as MBP and CDKN1B. Regulator of oligodendrocyte differentiation and maturation in the brain that may play a role in myelin and oligodendrocyte dysfunction in schizophrenia. Participates in mRNA transport by regulating the nuclear export of MBP mRNA. Also involved in regulation of mRNA splicing of MAG pre-mRNA. Acts as a translational repressor (By similarity).

Catalyzes the NADPH-dependent reduction of quinones. Exhibits a low enzymatic activity with beta- naphthoquinones, with a strong preference for the ortho-quinone isomer (1,2-beta-naphthoquinone) over the para isomer (1,4-beta- naphthoquinone). Also displays a low reductase activity for non-quinone compounds such as diamine and 2,6-dichloroindophenol (in vitro). Involved in the generation of reactive oxygen species (ROS).

Does not have alcohol dehydrogenase activity. Binds NADP and acts through a one-electron transfer process. Orthoquinones, such as 1,2-naphthoquinone or 9,10-phenanthrenequinone, are the best substrates (in vitro). May act in the detoxification of xenobiotics. Interacts with (AU)-rich elements (ARE) in the 3'-UTR of target mRNA species. Enhances the stability of mRNA coding for BCL2. NADPH binding interferes with mRNA binding.

Responsible for the biosynthesis of pyroglutamyl peptides. Has a bias against acidic and tryptophan residues adjacent to the N- terminal glutaminyl residue and a lack of importance of chain length after the second residue. Also catalyzes N-terminal pyroglutamate formation. In vitro, catalyzes pyroglutamate formation of N-terminally truncated form of APP amyloid-beta peptides [Glu-3]-amyloid-beta. May be involved in the N-terminal pyroglutamate formation of several amyloid-related plaque-forming peptides.

Receptor for the orexigenic neuropeptide QRFP. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins that modulate adenylate cyclase activity and intracellular calcium levels.

Transcriptional regulator that acts as a mediator of the integrated stress response (ISR) through transcriptional control of protein homeostasis under conditions of ER stress. Controls the outcome of the unfolded protein response (UPR) which is an ER-stress response pathway. ER stress induces QRICH1 translation by a ribosome translation re-initiation mechanism in response to EIF2S1/eIF-2-alpha phosphorylation, and stress-induced QRICH1 regulates a transcriptional program associated with protein translation, protein secretion-mediated proteotoxicity and cell death during the terminal UPR. May cooperate with ATF4 transcription factor signaling to regulate ER homeostasis which is critical for cell viability. Up-regulates CASP3/caspase-3 activity in epithelial cells under ER stress. Central regulator of proteotoxicity associated with ER stress-mediated inflammatory diseases in the intestines and liver. Involved in chondrocyte hypertrophy, a process required for normal longitudinal bone growth.

Catalyzes the oxidation of sulfhydryl groups in peptide and protein thiols to disulfides with the reduction of oxygen to hydrogen peroxide. Plays a role in disulfide bond formation in a variety of extracellular proteins. In fibroblasts, required for normal incorporation of laminin into the extracellular matrix, and thereby for normal cell-cell adhesion and cell migration.

Catalyzes the oxidation of sulfhydryl groups in peptide and protein thiols to disulfides with the reduction of oxygen to hydrogen peroxide. May contribute to disulfide bond formation in a variety of secreted proteins. Also seems to play a role in regulating the sensitization of neuroblastoma cells for interferon-gamma-induced apoptosis.

Non-catalytic subunit of the queuine tRNA-ribosyltransferase (TGT) that catalyzes the base-exchange of a guanine (G) residue with queuine (Q) at position 34 (anticodon wobble position) in tRNAs with GU(N) anticodons (tRNA-Asp, -Asn, -His and -Tyr), resulting in the hypermodified nucleoside queuosine (7-(((4,5-cis-dihydroxy-2- cyclopenten-1-yl)amino)methyl)-7-deazaguanosine).

Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that catalyzes the transfer of ubiquitin onto target proteins. Catalyzes polyubiquitination of SNRNP200/BRR2 with non-canonical 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Plays a role in DNA repair via its role in the synthesis of 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains that recruit ALKBH3 and the ASCC complex to sites of DNA damage by alkylating agents. Ubiquitinates CXCR4, leading to its degradation, and thereby contributes to the termination of CXCR4 signaling.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes UBE2L3 and UBE2L6 in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Mediates the ubiquitination and degradation of the DNA damage kinase PRKDC.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes UBE2L3 and UBE2L6 in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates such as LCMT2, thereby promoting their degradation. Induces apoptosis via a p53/TP53-dependent but caspase-independent mechanism. However, its overexpression also produces a decrease of the ubiquitin- dependent stability of BAX, a pro-apoptotic protein, ultimately leading to protection of cell death; But, it is not an anti-apoptotic protein per se.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) which may activate RAB3A, a GTPase that regulates synaptic vesicle exocytosis. Promotes the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP-bound Rab proteins into their active GTP-bound form. May also activate RAB8A and RAB8B.

Cell surface receptor. Plays a functionally redundant role in postnatal brain development and in regulating axon regeneration in the adult central nervous system. Contributes to normal axon migration across the brain midline and normal formation of the corpus callosum. Protects motoneurons against apoptosis; protection against apoptosis is probably mediated by MAG. Plays a role in inhibiting neurite outgrowth and axon regeneration via its binding to neuronal chondroitin sulfate proteoglycans. Binds heparin (By similarity). Like other family members, plays a role in restricting the number dendritic spines and the number of synapses that are formed during brain development. Signaling mediates activation of Rho and downstream reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton.

Cell surface receptor that plays a functionally redundant role in the inhibition of neurite outgrowth mediated by MAG (By similarity). Plays a functionally redundant role in postnatal brain development. Contributes to normal axon migration across the brain midline and normal formation of the corpus callosum. Does not seem to play a significant role in regulating axon regeneration in the adult central nervous system. Protects motoneurons against apoptosis; protection against apoptosis is probably mediated by MAG (By similarity). Like other family members, plays a role in restricting the number dendritic spines and the number of synapses that are formed during brain development. Signaling mediates activation of Rho and downstream reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton.

Structure-specific DNA-binding protein involved in DNA repair by promoting RAD51-mediated homologous recombination. Acts by stimulating D-Loop formation by RAD51: specifically enhances joint molecule formation through its structure-specific DNA interaction and its interaction with RAD51. Binds single-stranded DNA (ssDNA), double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) and secondary DNA structures, such as D-loop structures: has a strong preference for branched-DNA structures that are obligatory intermediates during joint molecule formation. Cooperates with WDR48/UAF1 to stimulate RAD51-mediated homologous recombination: both WDR48/UAF1 and RAD51AP1 have coordinated role in DNA-binding during homologous recombination and DNA repair. WDR48/UAF1 and RAD51AP1 also have a coordinated role in DNA-binding to promote USP1-mediated deubiquitination of FANCD2. Also involved in meiosis by promoting DMC1-mediated homologous meiotic recombination. Key mediator of alternative lengthening of telomeres (ALT) pathway, a homology-directed repair mechanism of telomere elongation that controls proliferation in aggressive cancers, by stimulating homologous recombination. May also bind RNA; additional evidences are however required to confirm RNA-binding in vivo.

Regulator of G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) signaling. Regulatory subunit of the R7-Gbeta5 complexes that acts by controlling the subcellular location of the R7-Gbeta5 complexes. When palmitoylated, it targets the R7-Gbeta5 complexes to the plasma membrane, leading to inhibit G protein alpha subunits. When it is unpalmitoylated, the R7-Gbeta5 complexes undergo a nuclear/cytoplasmic shuttling. May also act by controlling the proteolytic stability of R7 proteins, probably by protecting them from degradation.

Regulator of G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR) signaling in phototransduction. Participates in the recovery phase of visual transduction via its interaction with RGS9-1 isoform. Acts as a membrane-anchor that mediates the targeting of RGS9-1 to the photoreceptor outer segment, where phototransduction takes place. Enhances the ability of RGS9-1 to stimulate G protein GTPase activity, allowing the visual signal to be terminated on the physiologically time scale. It also controls the proteolytic stability of RGS9-1, probably by protecting it from degradation (By similarity).

Involved in the packaging of pre-mRNA into hnRNP particles, transport of poly(A) mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm and may modulate splice site selection.

Involved in the homologous recombination repair (HRR) pathway of double-stranded DNA breaks arising during DNA replication or induced by DNA-damaging agents. May promote the assembly of presynaptic RAD51 nucleoprotein filaments. Binds single-stranded DNA and double-stranded DNA and has DNA-dependent ATPase activity. Part of the RAD51 paralog protein complex BCDX2 which acts in the BRCA1-BRCA2-dependent HR pathway. Upon DNA damage, BCDX2 acts downstream of BRCA2 recruitment and upstream of RAD51 recruitment. BCDX2 binds predominantly to the intersection of the four duplex arms of the Holliday junction and to junction of replication forks. The BCDX2 complex was originally reported to bind single-stranded DNA, single-stranded gaps in duplex DNA and specifically to nicks in duplex DNA. The BCDX2 subcomplex RAD51B:RAD51C exhibits single-stranded DNA-dependent ATPase activity suggesting an involvement in early stages of the HR pathway.

Essential for the homologous recombination (HR) pathway of DNA repair. Involved in the homologous recombination repair (HRR) pathway of double-stranded DNA breaks arising during DNA replication or induced by DNA-damaging agents. Part of the RAD51 paralog protein complexes BCDX2 and CX3 which act at different stages of the BRCA1- BRCA2-dependent HR pathway. Upon DNA damage, BCDX2 seems to act downstream of BRCA2 recruitment and upstream of RAD51 recruitment; CX3 seems to act downstream of RAD51 recruitment; both complexes bind predominantly to the intersection of the four duplex arms of the Holliday junction (HJ) and to junction of replication forks. The BCDX2 complex was originally reported to bind single-stranded DNA, single- stranded gaps in duplex DNA and specifically to nicks in duplex DNA. The BCDX2 subcomplex RAD51B:RAD51C exhibits single-stranded DNA- dependent ATPase activity suggesting an involvement in early stages of the HR pathway. Involved in RAD51 foci formation in response to DNA damage suggesting an involvement in early stages of HR probably in the invasion step. Has an early function in DNA repair in facilitating phosphorylation of the checkpoint kinase CHEK2 and thereby transduction of the damage signal, leading to cell cycle arrest and HR activation. Participates in branch migration and HJ resolution and thus is important for processing HR intermediates late in the DNA repair process; the function may be linked to the CX3 complex. Part of a PALB2-scaffolded HR complex containing BRCA2 and which is thought to play a role in DNA repair by HR. Protects RAD51 from ubiquitin-mediated degradation that is enhanced following DNA damage. Plays a role in regulating mitochondrial DNA copy number under conditions of oxidative stress in the presence of RAD51 and XRCC3. Contributes to DNA cross- link resistance, sister chromatid cohesion and genomic stability. Involved in maintaining centrosome number in mitosis.

Involved in the homologous recombination repair (HRR) pathway of double-stranded DNA breaks arising during DNA replication or induced by DNA-damaging agents. Bind to single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) and has DNA-dependent ATPase activity. Part of the RAD51 paralog protein complex BCDX2 which acts in the BRCA1-BRCA2-dependent HR pathway. Upon DNA damage, BCDX2 acts downstream of BRCA2 recruitment and upstream of RAD51 recruitment. BCDX2 binds predominantly to the intersection of the four duplex arms of the Holliday junction and to junction of replication forks. The BCDX2 complex was originally reported to bind single-stranded DNA, single-stranded gaps in duplex DNA and specifically to nicks in duplex DNA. Involved in telomere maintenance. The BCDX2 subcomplex XRCC2:RAD51D can stimulate Holliday junction resolution by BLM.

Involved in DNA repair and mitotic recombination. May play an active role in recombination processes in concert with other members of the RAD52 epistasis group.

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP-bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different set of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. That Rab is mainly involved in the biosynthetic transport of proteins from the Golgi to the plasma membrane. Regulates, for instance, SLC2A4/GLUT4 glucose transporter-enriched vesicles delivery to the plasma membrane (By similarity). In parallel, it regulates the transport of TLR4, a toll- like receptor to the plasma membrane and therefore may be important for innate immune response (By similarity). Also plays a specific role in asymmetric protein transport to the plasma membrane. In neurons, it is involved in axonogenesis through regulation of vesicular membrane trafficking toward the axonal plasma membrane (By similarity). In epithelial cells, it regulates transport from the Golgi to the basolateral membrane. May play a role in the basolateral recycling pathway and in phagosome maturation (By similarity). May play a role in endoplasmic reticulum dynamics and morphology controlling tubulation along microtubules and tubules fusion. Together with LRRK2, RAB8A, and RILPL1, it regulates ciliogenesis. When phosphorylated by LRRK2 on Thr-73, binds RILPL1 and inhibits ciliogenesis.

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP-bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different sets of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. That Rab is involved in endocytic recycling and regulates the transport to the plasma membrane of transmembrane proteins like the tight junction protein OCLN/occludin. Thereby, it regulates the assembly and the activity of tight junctions. Moreover, it may also regulate tight junction assembly by activating the PKA signaling pathway and by reorganizing the actin cytoskeleton through the activation of the downstream effectors PRKACA and MICALL2 respectively. Through its role in tight junction assembly, may play a role in the establishment of Sertoli cell barrier. Plays also a role in angiogenesis through regulation of endothelial cells chemotaxis. Also involved in neurite outgrowth. Has also been proposed to play a role in post-Golgi membrane trafficking from the TGN to the recycling endosome. Finally, it has been involved in insulin-induced transport to the plasma membrane of the glucose transporter GLUT4 and therefore may play a role in glucose homeostasis.

Involved in membrane trafficking between the Golgi complex and endosomes during early embryonic development. Regulates the Golgi to endosome transport of FGFR-containing vesicles during early development, a key process for developing basement membrane and epiblast and primitive endoderm lineages during early postimplantation development. May act by modulating the kinesin KIF16B-cargo association to endosomes (By similarity). Regulates, together with its guanine nucleotide exchange factor DENND6A, the specific endocytic transport of ADAM10, N-cadherin/CDH2 shedding and cell-cell adhesion.

May act in concert with RAB3A in regulating aspects of synaptic vesicle membrane flow within the nerve terminal.

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP-bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different set of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. That Rab is involved in transcytosis, the directed movement of endocytosed material through the cell and its exocytosis from the plasma membrane at the opposite side. Mainly observed in epithelial cells, transcytosis mediates for instance, the transcellular transport of immunoglobulins from the basolateral surface to the apical surface. Most probably controls membrane trafficking through apical recycling endosomes in a post- endocytic step of transcytosis. Required for melanosome transport and release from melanocytes, it also regulates dendrite and dendritic spine development (By similarity). May also play a role in cell migration.

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP-bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different sets of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. Required for the localization of ZFYVE1 to lipid droplets and for its function in mediating the formation of endoplasmic reticulum-lipid droplets (ER-LD) contacts. Also required for maintaining endoplasmic reticulum structure. Plays a role in apical endocytosis/recycling (By similarity). Plays a key role in eye and brain development and neurodegeneration.

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP- bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different sets of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. RAB1A regulates vesicular protein transport from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) to the Golgi compartment and on to the cell surface, and plays a role in IL-8 and growth hormone secretion. Required to modulate the compacted morphology of the Golgi. Regulates the level of CASR present at the cell membrane. Plays a role in cell adhesion and cell migration, via its role in protein trafficking. Plays a role in autophagosome assembly and cellular defense reactions against pathogenic bacteria. Plays a role in microtubule-dependent protein transport by early endosomes and in anterograde melanosome transport (By similarity).

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP-bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different set of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. Plays a role in the initial events of the autophagic vacuole development which take place at specialized regions of the endoplasmic reticulum. Regulates vesicular transport between the endoplasmic reticulum and successive Golgi compartments (By similarity). Required to modulate the compacted morphology of the Golgi. Promotes the recruitment of lipid phosphatase MTMR6 to the endoplasmic reticulum-Golgi intermediate compartment (By similarity).

Plays a role in apical endocytosis/recycling. Plays a role in the maturation and acidification of phagosomes that engulf pathogens, such as S.aureus and M.tuberculosis. Plays a role in the fusion of phagosomes with lysosomes.

Small GTPase involved in membrane trafficking control. During the mitosis of adherent cells, controls the endosomal trafficking of integrins which is required for the successful completion of cytokinesis. Regulates integrin internalization and recycling, but does not influence the traffic of endosomally translocated receptors in general (By similarity). As a result, may regulate cell adhesion and migration (By similarity). Involved in neurite growth (By similarity). Following SBF2/MTMT13-mediated activation in response to starvation-induced autophagy, binds to and regulates SNARE protein VAMP8 endolysosomal transport required for SNARE-mediated autophagosome-lysosome fusion. Modulates protein levels of the cargo receptors TMED2 and TMED10, and required for appropriate Golgi localization of TMED10.

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP-bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different set of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. Together with SUFU, prevents nuclear import of GLI1, and thereby inhibits GLI1 transcription factor activity. Regulates GLI1 in differentiating chondrocytes. Likewise, regulates GLI3 proteolytic processing and modulates GLI2 and GLI3 transcription factor activity. Plays a role in autophagic vacuole assembly, and mediates defense against pathogens, such as S.aureus, by promoting their capture by autophagosomes that then merge with lysosomes.

Involved in the regulation of cell survival. Promotes invasive migration of cells in which it functions to localize and maintain integrin alpha-V/beta-1 at the tips of extending pseudopodia. Involved in the regulation of epithelial morphogenesis through the control of CLDN4 expression and localization at tight junctions (By similarity). May selectively regulate the apical recycling pathway. Together with MYO5B regulates transcytosis (By similarity).

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP-bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different set of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. Mediates transport of ADRA2A and ADRA2B from the Golgi to the cell membrane. Plays a role in the maturation of zymogenic granules and in pepsinogen secretion in the stomach. Plays a role in the secretion of amylase from acinar granules in the parotid gland.

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between active GTP-bound and inactive GDP-bound states. In their active state, drive transport of vesicular carriers from donor organelles to acceptor organelles to regulate the membrane traffic that maintains organelle identity and morphology. Required for protein transport from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi complex. Regulates the compacted morphology of the Golgi.

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between active GTP-bound and inactive GDP-bound states. In their active state, drive transport of vesicular carriers from donor organelles to acceptor organelles to regulate the membrane traffic that maintains organelle identity and morphology. Regulates the compacted morphology of the Golgi (Probable). Promotes cytosolic DNA-induced innate immune responses. Regulates IFN responses against DNA viruses by regulating the CGAS-STING signaling axis (By similarity).

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP-bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different set of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion (By similarity). Required for maintaining the structural integrity of the Golgi apparatus, possibly by mediating interactions with cytoplasmic scaffolding proteins.

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP-bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different set of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. Required for the integrity and for normal function of the Golgi apparatus and the trans-Golgi network. Plays a role in insulin-stimulated translocation of GLUT4 to the cell membrane. Plays a role in M6PR transport from the trans-Golgi network to endosomes. Plays a role in the internalization of EGFR from the cell membrane into endosomes. Plays a role in the maturation of phagosomes that engulf pathogens, such as S.aureus and M.tuberculosis.

Acts as an A-kinase anchoring protein by binding to the type II regulatory subunit of protein kinase A and anchoring it to the mitochondrion. Also involved in synchronization of mitochondrial fission. Plays a role in the maturation of phagosomes that engulf pathogens, such as S.aureus and M.tuberculosis. Plays an important role in the control of melanin production and melanosome biogenesis. In concert with RAB38, regulates the proper trafficking of melanogenic enzymes TYR, TYRP1 and DCT/TYRP2 to melanosomes in melanocytes (By similarity).

Transport protein involved in the redistribution of lysosomes to the peri-Golgi region. Plays a role in the maturation of phagosomes that engulf pathogens, such as S.aureus and M.tuberculosis. Plays a role in the fusion of phagosomes with lysosomes. Acts also as a positive regulator of hedgehog signaling and regulates ciliary function (By similarity).

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP-bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different sets of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. That Rab is involved in the process of endocytosis and is an essential rate-limiting regulator of the fast recycling pathway back to the plasma membrane. During cytokinesis, required for the postfurrowing terminal steps, namely for intercellular bridge stability and abscission, possibly by controlling phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bis phosphate (PIP2) and SEPT2 localization at the intercellular bridge. May indirectly regulate neurite outgrowth. Together with TBC1D13 may be involved in regulation of insulin-induced glucose transporter SLC2A4/GLUT4 translocation to the plasma membrane in adipocytes.

Protein transport. Probably involved in vesicular traffic (By similarity).

May be involved in melanosomal transport and docking. Involved in the proper sorting of TYRP1. Involved in peripheral melanosomal distribution of TYRP1 in melanocytes; the function, which probably is implicating vesicle-trafficking, includes cooperation with ANKRD27 and VAMP7 (By similarity). Plays a role in the maturation of phagosomes that engulf pathogens, such as S.aureus and M.tuberculosis. Plays an important role in the control of melanin production and melanosome biogenesis. In concert with RAB32, regulates the proper trafficking of melanogenic enzymes TYR, TYRP1 and DCT/TYRP2 to melanosomes in melanocytes (By similarity).

Small GTP-binding protein that plays a central role in regulated exocytosis and secretion. Controls the recruitment, tethering and docking of secretory vesicles to the plasma membrane (By similarity). Upon stimulation, switches to its active GTP-bound form, cycles to vesicles and recruits effectors such as RIMS1, RIMS2, Rabphilin-3A/RPH3A, RPH3AL or SYTL4 to help the docking of vesicules onto the plasma membrane (By similarity). Upon GTP hydrolysis by GTPase-activating protein, dissociates from the vesicle membrane allowing the exocytosis to proceed (By similarity). Stimulates insulin secretion through interaction with RIMS2 or RPH3AL effectors in pancreatic beta cells (By similarity). Regulates calcium-dependent lysosome exocytosis and plasma membrane repair (PMR) via the interaction with 2 effectors, SYTL4 and myosin-9/MYH9. Acts as a positive regulator of acrosome content secretion in sperm cells by interacting with RIMS1. Also plays a role in the regulation of dopamine release by interacting with synaptotagmin I/SYT (By similarity). Interacts with MADD (via uDENN domain); the GTP-bound form is preferred for interaction (By similarity).

Protein transport. Probably involved in regulated exocytosis (By similarity).

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) which may activate RAB8A and RAB8B. Promotes the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP-bound Rab proteins into their active GTP-bound form. Mediates the release of GDP from RAB8A and RAB8B but not from RAB3A or RAB5. Modulates actin organization and promotes polarized transport of RAB8A-specific vesicles to the cell surface. Together with RAB11A, RAB8A, the exocyst complex, PARD3, PRKCI, ANXA2, CDC42 and DNMBP promotes transcytosis of PODXL to the apical membrane initiation sites (AMIS), apical surface formation and lumenogenesis.

Required for normal Golgi ribbon organization and ER-to-Golgi trafficking.

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP-bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different set of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. The low intrinsic GTPase activity of RAB43 is activated by USP6NL. Involved in retrograde transport from the endocytic pathway to the Golgi apparatus. Involved in the transport of Shiga toxin from early and recycling endosomes to the trans-Golgi network. Required for the structural integrity of the Golgi complex. Plays a role in the maturation of phagosomes that engulf pathogens, such as S.aureus and M.tuberculosis.

Small GTPase which cycles between an active GTP-bound and an inactive GDP-bound state. Involved in protein transport. Plays a role in vesicular traffic. Mediates VEGFR2 endosomal trafficking to enhance VEGFR2 signaling. Acts as a regulator of platelet alpha- granule release during activation and aggregation of platelets (By similarity).

Small GTPase which cycles between an active GTP-bound and an inactive GDP-bound state (By similarity). Protein transport. Probably involved in vesicular traffic (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of platelet alpha-granule release during activation and aggregation of platelets (By similarity).

Small GTPase which cycles between active GTP-bound and inactive GDP-bound states. In its active state, binds to a variety of effector proteins to regulate cellular responses such as of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Active GTP-bound form is able to recruit to membranes different sets of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. RAB5A is required for the fusion of plasma membranes and early endosomes. Contributes to the regulation of filopodia extension. Required for the exosomal release of SDCBP, CD63, PDCD6IP and syndecan. Regulates maturation of apoptotic cell-containing phagosomes, probably downstream of DYN2 and PIK3C3 (By similarity).

Regulator of COPI-independent retrograde transport from the Golgi apparatus towards the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Has a low GTPase activity. Recruits VPS13B to the Golgi membrane. Plays a role in neuron projection development (Probable).

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between active GTP-bound and inactive GDP-bound states. In their active state, drive transport of vesicular carriers from donor organelles to acceptor organelles to regulate the membrane traffic that maintains organelle identity and morphology (Probable). Recruits VPS13B to the Golgi membrane. Regulates the compacted morphology of the Golgi. Seems to have a role in retrograde membrane traffic at the level of the Golgi complex. May function in retrograde transport in neuronal cells. Plays a role in neuron projection development.

May be involved in the regulation of centrosome duplication and cell cycle progression.

Small GTPase which cycles between active GTP-bound and inactive GDP-bound states. In its active state, binds to a variety of effector proteins playing a key role in the regulation of endo- lysosomal trafficking. Governs early-to-late endosomal maturation, microtubule minus-end as well as plus-end directed endosomal migration and positioning, and endosome-lysosome transport through different protein-protein interaction cascades. Plays a central role, not only in endosomal traffic, but also in many other cellular and physiological events, such as growth-factor-mediated cell signaling, nutrient- transportor mediated nutrient uptake, neurotrophin transport in the axons of neurons and lipid metabolism. Also involved in regulation of some specialized endosomal membrane trafficking, such as maturation of melanosomes, pathogen-induced phagosomes (or vacuoles) and autophagosomes. Plays a role in the maturation and acidification of phagosomes that engulf pathogens, such as S.aureus and M.tuberculosis. Plays a role in the fusion of phagosomes with lysosomes. Plays important roles in microbial pathogen infection and survival, as well as in participating in the life cycle of viruses. Microbial pathogens possess survival strategies governed by RAB7A, sometimes by employing RAB7A function (e.g. Salmonella) and sometimes by excluding RAB7A function (e.g. Mycobacterium). In concert with RAC1, plays a role in regulating the formation of RBs (ruffled borders) in osteoclasts. Controls the endosomal trafficking and neurite outgrowth signaling of NTRK1/TRKA. Regulates the endocytic trafficking of the EGF-EGFR complex by regulating its lysosomal degradation. Involved in the ADRB2-stimulated lipolysis through lipophagy, a cytosolic lipase-independent autophagic pathway (By similarity). Required for the exosomal release of SDCBP, CD63 and syndecan. Required for vesicular trafficking and cell surface expression of ACE2. May play a role in PRPH neuronal intermediate filament assembly (By similarity).

Controls vesicular trafficking from endosomes to the trans- Golgi network (TGN). Acts as a negative regulator of TLR9 signaling and can suppress TLR9-triggered TNFA, IL6, and IFNB production in macrophages by promoting TLR9 lysosomal degradation. Also negatively regulates TLR4 signaling in macrophages by promoting lysosomal degradation of TLR4. Promotes megakaryocytic differentiation by increasing NF-kappa-B-dependent IL6 production and subsequently enhancing the association of STAT3 with GATA1. Not involved in the regulation of the EGF- and EGFR degradation pathway.

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators in vesicle trafficking. Essential for maintaining the integrity of the endosome-trans-Golgi network structure (By similarity). Together with LRRK2, plays a role in the retrograde trafficking pathway for recycling proteins, such as mannose 6 phosphate receptor (M6PR), between lysosomes and the Golgi apparatus in a retromer-dependent manner. Recruits LRRK2 to the Golgi complex and stimulates LRRK2 kinase activity. Regulates neuronal process morphology in the intact central nervous system (CNS) (By similarity). May play a role in the formation of typhoid toxin transport intermediates during Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi (S.Typhi) epithelial cell infection.

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP-bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different sets of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. That Rab is involved in polarized vesicular trafficking and neurotransmitter release. Together with RAB11A, RAB3IP, the exocyst complex, PARD3, PRKCI, ANXA2, CDC42 and DNMBP promotes transcytosis of PODXL to the apical membrane initiation sites (AMIS), apical surface formation and lumenogenesis. Regulates the compacted morphology of the Golgi. Together with MYO5B and RAB11A participates in epithelial cell polarization. Also involved in membrane trafficking to the cilium and ciliogenesis. Together with MICALL2, may also regulate adherens junction assembly (By similarity). May play a role in insulin-induced transport to the plasma membrane of the glucose transporter GLUT4 and therefore play a role in glucose homeostasis (By similarity). Involved in autophagy.

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP-bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different sets of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. That Rab may be involved in polarized vesicular trafficking and neurotransmitter release. May participate in cell junction dynamics in Sertoli cells (By similarity).

Involved in the transport of proteins between the endosomes and the trans Golgi network. Involved in the recruitment of SGSM2 to melanosomes and is required for the proper trafficking of melanogenic enzymes TYR, TYRP1 and DCT/TYRP2 to melanosomes in melanocytes.

Involved in the transport of proteins between the endosomes and the trans Golgi network.

Rab effector protein acting as linker between gamma-adaptin, RAB4A and RAB5A. Involved in endocytic membrane fusion and membrane trafficking of recycling endosomes. Involved in KCNH1 channels trafficking to and from the cell membrane. Stimulates RABGEF1 mediated nucleotide exchange on RAB5A. Mediates the traffic of PKD1:PKD2 complex from the endoplasmic reticulum through the Golgi to the cilium (By similarity).

Plays a role in membrane trafficking and in homotypic early endosome fusion. Participates in arteriogenesis by regulating vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2/VEGFR2 cell surface expression and endosomal trafficking. By interacting with SDCCAG8, localizes to centrosomes and plays a critical role in ciliogenesis.

Rab9 effector required for endosome to trans-Golgi network (TGN) transport.

Required for KRAS signaling regulation and modulation of cell proliferation. Regulator of KRAS prenylation, and probably prenylation of other small GTPases. Required for lymphocyte development and function (By similarity). Not required for myeloid cell development (By similarity).

May enhance cellular proliferation. May reduce growth inhibitory activity of CDKN2A.

Cytosolic CRABPs may regulate the access of retinoic acid to the nuclear retinoic acid receptors

Transports retinoic acid to the nucleus. Regulates the access of retinoic acid to the nuclear retinoic acid receptors

Rab effector protein acting as linker between gamma-adaptin, RAB4A or RAB5A. Involved in endocytic membrane fusion and membrane trafficking of recycling endosomes. Stimulates nucleotide exchange on RAB5A. Can act as a ubiquitin ligase (By similarity).

Plasma membrane-associated small GTPase which cycles between active GTP-bound and inactive GDP-bound states. In its active state, binds to a variety of effector proteins to regulate cellular responses such as secretory processes, phagocytosis of apoptotic cells, epithelial cell polarization, neurons adhesion, migration and differentiation, and growth-factor induced formation of membrane ruffles. Rac1 p21/rho GDI heterodimer is the active component of the cytosolic factor sigma 1, which is involved in stimulation of the NADPH oxidase activity in macrophages. Essential for the SPATA13-mediated regulation of cell migration and adhesion assembly and disassembly. Stimulates PKN2 kinase activity. In concert with RAB7A, plays a role in regulating the formation of RBs (ruffled borders) in osteoclasts. In podocytes, promotes nuclear shuttling of NR3C2; this modulation is required for a proper kidney functioning. Required for atypical chemokine receptor ACKR2-induced LIMK1-PAK1-dependent phosphorylation of cofilin (CFL1) and for up-regulation of ACKR2 from endosomal compartment to cell membrane, increasing its efficiency in chemokine uptake and degradation. In neurons, is involved in dendritic spine formation and synaptic plasticity (By similarity). In hippocampal neurons, involved in spine morphogenesis and synapse formation, through local activation at synapses by guanine nucleotide exchange factors (GEFs), such as ARHGEF6/ARHGEF7/PIX. In synapses, seems to mediate the regulation of F-actin cluster formation performed by SHANK3. In neurons, plays a crucial role in regulating GABA(A) receptor synaptic stability and hence GABAergic inhibitory synaptic transmission through its role in PAK1 activation and eventually F-actin stabilization (By similarity).

Plasma membrane-associated small GTPase which cycles between an active GTP-bound and inactive GDP-bound state. In active state binds to a variety of effector proteins to regulate cellular responses, such as secretory processes, phagocytose of apoptotic cells and epithelial cell polarization. Augments the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) by NADPH oxidase.

Plasma membrane-associated small GTPase which cycles between an active GTP-bound and inactive GDP-bound state. In active state binds to a variety of effector proteins to regulate cellular responses, such as cell spreading and the formation of actin-based protusions including lamellipodia and membrane ruffles. Promotes cell adhesion and spreading on fibrinogen in a CIB1 and alpha-IIb/beta3 integrin-mediated manner.

Scaffolding protein involved in the recruitment, assembly and/or regulation of a variety of signaling molecules. Interacts with a wide variety of proteins and plays a role in many cellular processes. Component of the 40S ribosomal subunit involved in translational repression. Involved in the initiation of the ribosome quality control (RQC), a pathway that takes place when a ribosome has stalled during translation, by promoting ubiquitination of a subset of 40S ribosomal subunits. Binds to and stabilizes activated protein kinase C (PKC), increasing PKC-mediated phosphorylation. May recruit activated PKC to the ribosome, leading to phosphorylation of EIF6. Inhibits the activity of SRC kinases including SRC, LCK and YES1. Inhibits cell growth by prolonging the G0/G1 phase of the cell cycle. Enhances phosphorylation of BMAL1 by PRKCA and inhibits transcriptional activity of the BMAL1-CLOCK heterodimer. Facilitates ligand-independent nuclear translocation of AR following PKC activation, represses AR transactivation activity and is required for phosphorylation of AR by SRC. Modulates IGF1R-dependent integrin signaling and promotes cell spreading and contact with the extracellular matrix. Involved in PKC-dependent translocation of ADAM12 to the cell membrane. Promotes the ubiquitination and proteasome- mediated degradation of proteins such as CLEC1B and HIF1A. Required for VANGL2 membrane localization, inhibits Wnt signaling, and regulates cellular polarization and oriented cell division during gastrulation. Required for PTK2/FAK1 phosphorylation and dephosphorylation. Regulates internalization of the muscarinic receptor CHRM2. Promotes apoptosis by increasing oligomerization of BAX and disrupting the interaction of BAX with the anti-apoptotic factor BCL2L. Inhibits TRPM6 channel activity. Regulates cell surface expression of some GPCRs such as TBXA2R. Plays a role in regulation of FLT1-mediated cell migration. Involved in the transport of ABCB4 from the Golgi to the apical bile canalicular membrane. Promotes migration of breast carcinoma cells by binding to and activating RHOA.

Essential for sustained cell growth, maintenance of chromosomal stability, and ATR-dependent checkpoint activation upon DNA damage. Has a weak ATPase activity required for binding to chromatin. Participates in the recruitment of the RAD1-RAD9-HUS1 complex and RHNO1 onto chromatin, and in CHEK1 activation. May also serve as a sensor of DNA replication progression, and may be involved in homologous recombination.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase involved in postreplication repair of UV-damaged DNA. Postreplication repair functions in gap- filling of a daughter strand on replication of damaged DNA. Associates to the E2 ubiquitin conjugating enzyme UBE2B to form the UBE2B-RAD18 ubiquitin ligase complex involved in mono-ubiquitination of DNA- associated PCNA on 'Lys-164'. Has ssDNA binding activity.

Component of the 9-1-1 cell-cycle checkpoint response complex that plays a major role in DNA repair. The 9-1-1 complex is recruited to DNA lesion upon damage by the RAD17-replication factor C (RFC) clamp loader complex. Acts then as a sliding clamp platform on DNA for several proteins involved in long-patch base excision repair (LP-BER). The 9-1-1 complex stimulates DNA polymerase beta (POLB) activity by increasing its affinity for the 3'-OH end of the primer-template and stabilizes POLB to those sites where LP-BER proceeds; endonuclease FEN1 cleavage activity on substrates with double, nick, or gap flaps of distinct sequences and lengths; and DNA ligase I (LIG1) on long-patch base excision repair substrates. The 9-1-1 complex is necessary for the recruitment of RHNO1 to sites of double-stranded breaks (DSB) occurring during the S phase. Isoform 1 possesses 3'->5' double stranded DNA exonuclease activity.

[Double-strand-break repair protein rad21 homolog]: As a member of the cohesin complex, involved in sister chromatid cohesion from the time of DNA replication in S phase to their segregation in mitosis, a function that is essential for proper chromosome segregation, post-replicative DNA repair, and the prevention of inappropriate recombination between repetitive regions. The cohesin complex may also play a role in spindle pole assembly during mitosis. In interphase, cohesins may function in the control of gene expression by binding to numerous sites within the genome (By similarity). May control RUNX1 gene expression (Probable). Binds to and represses APOB gene promoter. May play a role in embryonic gut development, possibly through the regulation of enteric neuron development (By similarity).

Component of the MRN complex, which plays a central role in double-strand break (DSB) repair, DNA recombination, maintenance of telomere integrity and meiosis. The complex possesses single-strand endonuclease activity and double-strand-specific 3'-5' exonuclease activity, which are provided by MRE11. RAD50 may be required to bind DNA ends and hold them in close proximity. This could facilitate searches for short or long regions of sequence homology in the recombining DNA templates, and may also stimulate the activity of DNA ligases and/or restrict the nuclease activity of MRE11 to prevent nucleolytic degradation past a given point. The complex may also be required for DNA damage signaling via activation of the ATM kinase. In telomeres the MRN complex may modulate t-loop formation.

Plays an important role in homologous strand exchange, a key step in DNA repair through homologous recombination (HR). Binds to single-stranded DNA in an ATP-dependent manner to form nucleoprotein filaments which are essential for the homology search and strand exchange. Catalyzes the recognition of homology and strand exchange between homologous DNA partners to form a joint molecule between a processed DNA break and the repair template. Recruited to resolve stalled replication forks during replication stress. Part of a PALB2-scaffolded HR complex containing BRCA2 and RAD51C and which is thought to play a role in DNA repair by HR. Plays a role in regulating mitochondrial DNA copy number under conditions of oxidative stress in the presence of RAD51C and XRCC3. Also involved in interstrand cross-link repair.

Involved in double-stranded break repair. Plays a central role in genetic recombination and DNA repair by promoting the annealing of complementary single-stranded DNA and by stimulation of the RAD51 recombinase.

Plays an essential role in homologous recombination (HR) which is a major pathway for repairing DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs), single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) gaps, and stalled or collapsed replication forks. Acts as a molecular motor during the homology search and guides RAD51 ssDNA along a donor dsDNA thereby changing the homology search from the diffusion-based mechanism to a motor-guided mechanism. Also plays an essential role in RAD51-mediated synaptic complex formation which consists of three strands encased in a protein filament formed once homology is recognized. Once DNA strand exchange occured, dissociates RAD51 from nucleoprotein filaments formed on dsDNA (By similarity).

Component of the 9-1-1 cell-cycle checkpoint response complex that plays a major role in DNA repair. The 9-1-1 complex is recruited to DNA lesion upon damage by the RAD17-replication factor C (RFC) clamp loader complex. Acts then as a sliding clamp platform on DNA for several proteins involved in long-patch base excision repair (LP-BER). The 9-1-1 complex stimulates DNA polymerase beta (POLB) activity by increasing its affinity for the 3'-OH end of the primer-template and stabilizes POLB to those sites where LP-BER proceeds; endonuclease FEN1 cleavage activity on substrates with double, nick, or gap flaps of distinct sequences and lengths; and DNA ligase I (LIG1) on long-patch base excision repair substrates. The 9-1-1 complex is necessary for the recruitment of RHNO1 to sites of double-stranded breaks (DSB) occurring during the S phase. RAD9A possesses 3'->5' double stranded DNA exonuclease activity. Its phosphorylation by PRKCD may be required for the formation of the 9-1-1 complex.

Downstream effector of Rap required for cell adhesion and migration of neural crest precursors during development.

Probably plays a crucial role in the binding of the barbed end of actin filaments to the plasma membrane

Single-stranded DNA-binding protein recruited to replication forks to maintain genome stability. Prevents fork collapse by antagonizing the accumulation of RAD51 at forks to ensure the proper balance of fork remodeling and protection without interfering with the capacity of cells to complete homologous recombination of double-strand breaks.

May play an important role in cardiac antiarrhythmia via the strong suppression of voltage-gated L-type Ca(2+) currents. Regulates voltage-dependent L-type calcium channel subunit alpha-1C trafficking to the cell membrane (By similarity). Inhibits cardiac hypertrophy through the calmodulin-dependent kinase II (CaMKII) pathway. Inhibits phosphorylation and activation of CAMK2D.

Binds and activates the KLRK1/NKG2D receptor, mediating natural killer cell cytotoxicity.

Acts as mRNA export factor involved in nucleocytoplasmic transport. Plays a role in mitotic bipolar spindle formation. May function in attaching cytoplasmic mRNPs to the cytoskeleton both directly or indirectly.

Substrate-binding subunit of the Rab geranylgeranyltransferase (GGTase) complex. Binds unprenylated Rab proteins and presents the substrate peptide to the catalytic component B composed of RABGGTA and RABGGTB, and remains bound to it after the geranylgeranyl transfer reaction. The component A is thought to be regenerated by transferring its prenylated Rab back to the donor membrane. Besides, a pre-formed complex consisting of CHM and the Rab GGTase dimer (RGGT or component B) can bind to and prenylate Rab proteins; this alternative pathway is proposed to be the predominant pathway for Rab protein geranylgeranylation.

Substrate-binding subunit (component A) of the Rab geranylgeranyltransferase (GGTase) complex. Binds unprenylated Rab proteins and presents the substrate peptide to the catalytic component B. The component A is thought to be regenerated by transferring its prenylated Rab back to the donor membrane. Less effective than CHM in supporting prenylation of Rab3 family.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts as a regulatory link between the membrane-associated Ras GTPases and the MAPK/ERK cascade, and this critical regulatory link functions as a switch determining cell fate decisions including proliferation, differentiation, apoptosis, survival and oncogenic transformation. RAF1 activation initiates a mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) cascade that comprises a sequential phosphorylation of the dual-specific MAPK kinases (MAP2K1/MEK1 and MAP2K2/MEK2) and the extracellular signal- regulated kinases (MAPK3/ERK1 and MAPK1/ERK2). The phosphorylated form of RAF1 (on residues Ser-338 and Ser-339, by PAK1) phosphorylates BAD/Bcl2-antagonist of cell death at 'Ser-75'. Phosphorylates adenylyl cyclases: ADCY2, ADCY5 and ADCY6, resulting in their activation. Phosphorylates PPP1R12A resulting in inhibition of the phosphatase activity. Phosphorylates TNNT2/cardiac muscle troponin T. Can promote NF-kB activation and inhibit signal transducers involved in motility (ROCK2), apoptosis (MAP3K5/ASK1 and STK3/MST2), proliferation and angiogenesis (RB1). Can protect cells from apoptosis also by translocating to the mitochondria where it binds BCL2 and displaces BAD/Bcl2-antagonist of cell death. Regulates Rho signaling and migration, and is required for normal wound healing. Plays a role in the oncogenic transformation of epithelial cells via repression of the TJ protein, occludin (OCLN) by inducing the up-regulation of a transcriptional repressor SNAI2/SLUG, which induces down-regulation of OCLN. Restricts caspase activation in response to selected stimuli, notably Fas stimulation, pathogen-mediated macrophage apoptosis, and erythroid differentiation.

Catalytic component of the RAG complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates the DNA cleavage phase during V(D)J recombination. V(D)J recombination assembles a diverse repertoire of immunoglobulin and T-cell receptor genes in developing B and T- lymphocytes through rearrangement of different V (variable), in some cases D (diversity), and J (joining) gene segments. In the RAG complex, RAG1 mediates the DNA-binding to the conserved recombination signal sequences (RSS) and catalyzes the DNA cleavage activities by introducing a double-strand break between the RSS and the adjacent coding segment. RAG2 is not a catalytic component but is required for all known catalytic activities. DNA cleavage occurs in 2 steps: a first nick is introduced in the top strand immediately upstream of the heptamer, generating a 3'-hydroxyl group that can attack the phosphodiester bond on the opposite strand in a direct transesterification reaction, thereby creating 4 DNA ends: 2 hairpin coding ends and 2 blunt, 5'-phosphorylated ends. The chromatin structure plays an essential role in the V(D)J recombination reactions and the presence of histone H3 trimethylated at 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3) stimulates both the nicking and haipinning steps. The RAG complex also plays a role in pre-B cell allelic exclusion, a process leading to expression of a single immunoglobulin heavy chain allele to enforce clonality and monospecific recognition by the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) expressed on individual B-lymphocytes. The introduction of DNA breaks by the RAG complex on one immunoglobulin allele induces ATM- dependent repositioning of the other allele to pericentromeric heterochromatin, preventing accessibility to the RAG complex and recombination of the second allele. In addition to its endonuclease activity, RAG1 also acts as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates monoubiquitination of histone H3. Histone H3 monoubiquitination is required for the joining step of V(D)J recombination. Mediates polyubiquitination of KPNA1 (By similarity).

Core component of the RAG complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates the DNA cleavage phase during V(D)J recombination. V(D)J recombination assembles a diverse repertoire of immunoglobulin and T- cell receptor genes in developing B and T-lymphocytes through rearrangement of different V (variable), in some cases D (diversity), and J (joining) gene segments. DNA cleavage by the RAG complex occurs in 2 steps: a first nick is introduced in the top strand immediately upstream of the heptamer, generating a 3'-hydroxyl group that can attack the phosphodiester bond on the opposite strand in a direct transesterification reaction, thereby creating 4 DNA ends: 2 hairpin coding ends and 2 blunt, 5'-phosphorylated ends. The chromatin structure plays an essential role in the V(D)J recombination reactions and the presence of histone H3 trimethylated at 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3) stimulates both the nicking and haipinning steps. The RAG complex also plays a role in pre-B cell allelic exclusion, a process leading to expression of a single immunoglobulin heavy chain allele to enforce clonality and monospecific recognition by the B-cell antigen receptor (BCR) expressed on individual B-lymphocytes. The introduction of DNA breaks by the RAG complex on one immunoglobulin allele induces ATM- dependent repositioning of the other allele to pericentromeric heterochromatin, preventing accessibility to the RAG complex and recombination of the second allele. In the RAG complex, RAG2 is not the catalytic component but is required for all known catalytic activities mediated by RAG1. It probably acts as a sensor of chromatin state that recruits the RAG complex to H3K4me3 (By similarity).

Mediates interactions of advanced glycosylation end products (AGE). These are nonenzymatically glycosylated proteins which accumulate in vascular tissue in aging and at an accelerated rate in diabetes. Acts as a mediator of both acute and chronic vascular inflammation in conditions such as atherosclerosis and in particular as a complication of diabetes. AGE/RAGE signaling plays an important role in regulating the production/expression of TNF-alpha, oxidative stress, and endothelial dysfunction in type 2 diabetes. Interaction with S100A12 on endothelium, mononuclear phagocytes, and lymphocytes triggers cellular activation, with generation of key pro-inflammatory mediators. Interaction with S100B after myocardial infarction may play a role in myocyte apoptosis by activating ERK1/2 and p53/TP53 signaling (By similarity). Receptor for amyloid beta peptide. Contributes to the translocation of amyloid-beta peptide (ABPP) across the cell membrane from the extracellular to the intracellular space in cortical neurons. ABPP-initiated RAGE signaling, especially stimulation of p38 mitogen- activated protein kinase (MAPK), has the capacity to drive a transport system delivering ABPP as a complex with RAGE to the intraneuronal space. Can also bind oligonucleotides.

GTPase activator for RAN. Converts cytoplasmic GTP-bound RAN to GDP-bound RAN, which is essential for RAN-mediated nuclear import and export. Mediates dissociation of cargo from nuclear export complexes containing XPO1, RAN and RANBP2 after nuclear export.

Plays a role in actin regulation at the ectoplasmic specialization, a type of cell junction specific to testis. Important for establishment of sperm polarity and normal spermatid adhesion. May also promote integrity of Sertoli cell tight junctions at the blood- testis barrier.

Transcriptional regulator of the circadian clock components: CLOCK, BMAL1, BMAL2, PER1/3, CRY1/2, NR1D1/2 and RORA/C. Positively regulates the transcriptional activity of CLOCK a core component of the circadian clock. Regulates transcription through chromatin remodeling by interacting with other proteins in chromatin as well as proteins in the basic transcriptional machinery. May be important for embryonic and postnatal development. May be involved in neuronal differentiation.

Orphan receptor. Could be involved in modulating differentiation and maintaining homeostasis of epithelial cells. This retinoic acid-inducible GPCR provide evidence for a possible interaction between retinoid and G-protein signaling pathways. Functions as a negative modulator of EGFR signaling (By similarity). May act as a lung tumor suppressor.

Required for the proper formation of vascular structures that develop via both vasculogenesis and angiogenesis. Acts as a critical and vascular-specific regulator of GTPase signaling, cell architecture, and adhesion, which is essential for endothelial cell morphogenesis and blood vessel tubulogenesis. Regulates the activity of Rho GTPases in part by recruiting ARHGAP29 and suppressing RhoA signaling and dampening ROCK and MYH9 activities in endothelial cells (By similarity). May act as effector for Golgi-bound HRAS and other Ras- like proteins. May promote HRAS-mediated transformation. Negative regulator of amino acid starvation-induced autophagy.

Multifunctional GTPase involved in a variety of cellular processes including gene expression, cell migration, cell proliferation, oncogenic transformation and membrane trafficking. Accomplishes its multiple functions by interacting with distinct downstream effectors. Acts as a GTP sensor for GTP-dependent exocytosis of dense core vesicles. The RALA- exocyst complex regulates integrin-dependent membrane raft exocytosis and growth signaling. Key regulator of LPAR1 signaling and competes with GRK2 for binding to LPAR1 thus affecting the signaling properties of the receptor. Required for anchorage- independent proliferation of transformed cells. During mitosis, supports the stabilization and elongation of the intracellular bridge between dividing cells. Cooperates with EXOC2 to recruit other components of the exocyst to the early midbody. During mitosis, also controls mitochondrial fission by recruiting to the mitochondrion RALBP1, which mediates the phosphorylation and activation of DNM1L by the mitotic kinase cyclin B- CDK1.

Multifunctional GTPase involved in a variety of cellular processes including gene expression, cell migration, cell proliferation, oncogenic transformation and membrane trafficking. Accomplishes its multiple functions by interacting with distinct downstream effectors. Acts as a GTP sensor for GTP-dependent exocytosis of dense core vesicles (By similarity). Required both to stabilize the assembly of the exocyst complex and to localize functional exocyst complexes to the leading edge of migrating cells (By similarity). Required for suppression of apoptosis. In late stages of cytokinesis, upon completion of the bridge formation between dividing cells, mediates exocyst recruitment to the midbody to drive abscission. Involved in ligand-dependent receptor mediated endocytosis of the EGF and insulin receptors.

RNA-binding protein that acts as a transcriptional cofactor for cholesterol biosynthetic genes in the liver. Binds the lipid- responsive non-coding RNA LeXis and is required for LeXis-mediated effect on cholesterogenesis (By similarity). May be a heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein (hnRNP).

Regulatory subunit of the mRNA-capping methyltransferase RNMT:RAMAC complex that methylates the N7 position of the added guanosine to the 5'-cap structure of mRNAs. Promotes the recruitment of the methyl donor, S- adenosyl-L-methionine, to RNMT. Regulates RNMT expression by a post-transcriptional stabilizing mechanism. Binds RNA.

Transports the calcitonin gene-related peptide type 1 receptor (CALCRL) to the plasma membrane. Acts as a receptor for calcitonin-gene-related peptide (CGRP) together with CALCRL.

Transports the calcitonin gene-related peptide type 1 receptor (CALCRL) to the plasma membrane. Acts as a receptor for adrenomedullin (AM) together with CALCRL.

Plays a role in cardioprotection by reducing cardiac hypertrophy and perivascular fibrosis in a GPER1-dependent manner. Transports the calcitonin gene-related peptide type 1 receptor (CALCRL) and GPER1 to the plasma membrane. Acts as a receptor for adrenomedullin (AM) together with CALCRL.

Acts as a cofactor for XPO1/CRM1-mediated nuclear export, perhaps as export complex scaffolding protein. Bound to XPO1/CRM1, stabilizes the XPO1/CRM1-cargo interaction. In the absence of Ran-bound GTP prevents binding of XPO1/CRM1 to the nuclear pore complex. Binds to CHC1/RCC1 and increases the guanine nucleotide exchange activity of CHC1/RCC1. Recruits XPO1/CRM1 to CHC1/RCC1 in a Ran-dependent manner. Negative regulator of TGF-beta signaling through interaction with the R-SMAD proteins, SMAD2 and SMAD3, and mediating their nuclear export.

May act as scaffolding protein, and as adapter protein to couple membrane receptors to intracellular signaling pathways (Probable). Acts as a mediator of cell spreading and actin cytoskeleton rearrangement. Core component of the CTLH E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that selectively accepts ubiquitin from UBE2H and mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of the transcription factor HBP1. May be involved in signaling of ITGB2/LFA-1 and other integrins. Enhances HGF-MET signaling by recruiting Sos and activating the Ras pathway. Enhances dihydrotestosterone-induced transactivation activity of AR, as well as dexamethasone-induced transactivation activity of NR3C1, but not affect estrogen-induced transactivation. Stabilizes TP73 isoform Alpha, probably by inhibiting its ubiquitination, and increases its proapoptotic activity. Inhibits the kinase activity of DYRK1A and DYRK1B. Inhibits FMR1 binding to RNA.

GTPase involved in nucleocytoplasmic transport, participating both to the import and the export from the nucleus of proteins and RNAs. Switches between a cytoplasmic GDP- and a nuclear GTP-bound state by nucleotide exchange and GTP hydrolysis. Nuclear import receptors such as importin beta bind their substrates only in the absence of GTP-bound RAN and release them upon direct interaction with GTP-bound RAN, while export receptors behave in the opposite way. Thereby, RAN controls cargo loading and release by transport receptors in the proper compartment and ensures the directionality of the transport. Interaction with RANBP1 induces a conformation change in the complex formed by XPO1 and RAN that triggers the release of the nuclear export signal of cargo proteins. RAN (GTP-bound form) triggers microtubule assembly at mitotic chromosomes and is required for normal mitotic spindle assembly and chromosome segregation. Required for normal progress through mitosis. The complex with BIRC5/survivin plays a role in mitotic spindle formation by serving as a physical scaffold to help deliver the RAN effector molecule TPX2 to microtubules. Acts as a negative regulator of the kinase activity of VRK1 and VRK2. Enhances AR- mediated transactivation. Transactivation decreases as the poly-Gln length within AR increases.

Induces morphological reversion of a cell line transformed by a Ras oncogene. Counteracts the mitogenic function of Ras, at least partly because it can interact with Ras GAPs and RAF in a competitive manner. Together with ITGB1BP1, regulates KRIT1 localization to microtubules and membranes. Plays a role in nerve growth factor (NGF)- induced neurite outgrowth. Plays a role in the regulation of embryonic blood vessel formation. Involved in the establishment of basal endothelial barrier function. May be involved in the regulation of the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor KDR expression at endothelial cell-cell junctions.

GTP-binding protein that possesses intrinsic GTPase activity. Contributes to the polarizing activity of KRIT1 and CDH5 in the establishment and maintenance of correct endothelial cell polarity and vascular lumen. Required for the localization of phosphorylated PRKCZ, PARD3 and TIAM1 to the cell junction. Plays a role in the establishment of basal endothelial barrier function.

Small GTP-binding protein which cycles between a GDP-bound inactive and a GTP-bound active form. In its active form interacts with and regulates several effectors including MAP4K4, MINK1 and TNIK. Part of a signaling complex composed of NEDD4, RAP2A and TNIK which regulates neuronal dendrite extension and arborization during development. More generally, it is part of several signaling cascades and may regulate cytoskeletal rearrangements, cell migration, cell adhesion and cell spreading.

Small GTP-binding protein which cycles between a GDP-bound inactive and a GTP-bound active form. Involved in EGFR and CHRM3 signaling pathways through stimulation of PLCE1. May play a role in cytoskeletal rearrangements and regulate cell spreading through activation of the effector TNIK. May regulate membrane vesiculation in red blood cells.

Small GTP-binding protein which cycles between a GDP-bound inactive and a GTP-bound active form. May play a role in cytoskeletal rearrangements and regulate cell spreading through activation of the effector TNIK. May play a role in SRE-mediated gene transcription.

Mediator of localized membrane signals. Implicated in the regulation of lamellipodial dynamics. Negatively regulates cell adhesion

Postsynaptic protein required for clustering of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs) at the neuromuscular junction. It may link the receptor to the underlying postsynaptic cytoskeleton, possibly by direct association with actin or spectrin

Receptor for retinoic acid. Retinoic acid receptors bind as heterodimers to their target response elements in response to their ligands, all-trans or 9- cis retinoic acid, and regulate gene expression in various biological processes. The RXR/RAR heterodimers bind to the retinoic acid response elements (RARE) composed of tandem 5'-AGGTCA-3' sites known as DR1-DR5. In the absence of ligand, the RXR-RAR heterodimers associate with a multiprotein complex containing transcription corepressors that induce histone deacetylation, chromatin condensation and transcriptional suppression. On ligand binding, the corepressors dissociate from the receptors and associate with the coactivators leading to transcriptional activation. Formation of a complex with histone deacetylases might lead to inhibition of RARE DNA element binding and to transcriptional repression. Transcriptional activation and RARE DNA element binding might be supported by the transcription factor KLF2. RARA plays an essential role in the regulation of retinoic acid-induced germ cell development during spermatogenesis (By similarity). Has a role in the survival of early spermatocytes at the beginning prophase of meiosis (By similarity). In Sertoli cells, may promote the survival and development of early meiotic prophase spermatocytes (By similarity). In concert with RARG, required for skeletal growth, matrix homeostasis and growth plate function (By similarity). Together with RXRA, positively regulates microRNA-10a expression, thereby inhibiting the GATA6/VCAM1 signaling response to pulsatile shear stress in vascular endothelial cells. In association with HDAC3, HDAC5 and HDAC7 corepressors, plays a role in the repression of microRNA-10a and thereby promotes the inflammatory response.

Receptor for retinoic acid. Retinoic acid receptors bind as heterodimers to their target response elements in response to their ligands, all-trans or 9-cis retinoic acid, and regulate gene expression in various biological processes. The RXR/RAR heterodimers bind to the retinoic acid response elements (RARE) composed of tandem 5'-AGGTCA-3' sites known as DR1-DR5. In the absence or presence of hormone ligand, acts mainly as an activator of gene expression due to weak binding to corepressors. The RXRA/RARB heterodimer can act as a repressor on the DR1 element and as an activator on the DR5 element. In concert with RARG, required for skeletal growth, matrix homeostasis and growth plate function (By similarity).

Receptor for retinoic acid. Retinoic acid receptors bind as heterodimers to their target response elements in response to their ligands, all-trans or 9-cis retinoic acid, and regulate gene expression in various biological processes. The RAR/RXR heterodimers bind to the retinoic acid response elements (RARE) composed of tandem 5'-AGGTCA-3' sites known as DR1-DR5. In the absence of ligand, acts mainly as an activator of gene expression due to weak binding to corepressors. Required for limb bud development. In concert with RARA or RARB, required for skeletal growth, matrix homeostasis and growth plate function (By similarity).

Adipocyte-secreted protein (adipokine) that regulates adipogenesis, metabolism and inflammation through activation of the chemokine-like receptor 1 (CMKLR1). Acts also as a ligand for CMKLR2. Can also bind to C-C chemokine receptor-like 2 (CCRL2), but with a lower affinity than it does to CMKLR1 or CMKLR2. Positively regulates adipocyte differentiation, modulates the expression of adipocyte genes involved in lipid and glucose metabolism and might play a role in angiogenesis, a process essential for the expansion of white adipose tissue. Also acts as a pro-inflammatory adipokine, causing an increase in secretion of pro-inflammatory and prodiabetic adipokines, which further impair adipose tissue metabolic function and have negative systemic effects including impaired insulin sensitivity, altered glucose and lipid metabolism, and a decrease in vascular function in other tissues. Can have both pro- and anti- inflammatory properties depending on the modality of enzymatic cleavage by different classes of proteases. Acts as a chemotactic factor for leukocyte populations expressing CMKLR1, particularly immature plasmacytoid dendritic cells, but also immature myeloid DCs, macrophages and natural killer cells. Exerts an anti-inflammatory role by preventing TNF/TNFA-induced VCAM1 expression and monocytes adhesion in vascular endothelial cells. The effect is mediated via inhibiting activation of NF-kappa-B and CRK/p38 through stimulation of AKT1/NOS3 signaling and nitric oxide production. Its dual role in inflammation and metabolism might provide a link between chronic inflammation and obesity, as well as obesity-related disorders such as type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease. Exhibits an antimicrobial function in the skin.

Ca(2+)-dependent Ras GTPase-activating protein, that may play a role in the Ras-MAPK pathway.

Inhibitory regulator of the Ras-cyclic AMP pathway. Stimulates the GTPase of normal but not oncogenic Ras p21; this stimulation may be further increased in the presence of NCK1.

Inhibitory regulator of the Ras-cyclic AMP pathway. Binds inositol tetrakisphosphate (IP4)

Inhibitory regulator of the Ras-cyclic AMP pathway. Binds inositol tetrakisphosphate (IP4) with high affinity. Might be a specific IP4 receptor

Small GTPase. Negatively regulates the transcription regulation activity of the APBB1/FE65-APP complex via its interaction with APBB1/FE65 (By similarity).

Binds predominantly GDP, and also GTP. Acts as a dynein adapter protein that activates dynein-mediated transport and dynein-dynactin motility on microtubules.

Ras proteins bind GDP/GTP and possess intrinsic GTPase activity. Plays an important role in the tumor-like growth properties of embryonic stem cells (By similarity).

Potential tumor suppressor. Required for death receptor- dependent apoptosis. Mediates activation of STK3/MST2 and STK4/MST1 during Fas-induced apoptosis by preventing their dephosphorylation. When associated with MOAP1, promotes BAX conformational change and translocation to mitochondrial membranes in response to TNF and TNFSF10 stimulation. Isoform A interacts with CDC20, an activator of the anaphase-promoting complex, APC, resulting in the inhibition of APC activity and mitotic progression. Inhibits proliferation by negatively regulating cell cycle progression at the level of G1/S-phase transition by regulating accumulation of cyclin D1 protein. Isoform C has been shown not to perform these roles, no function has been identified for this isoform. Isoform A disrupts interactions among MDM2, DAXX and USP7, thus contributing to the efficient activation of TP53 by promoting MDM2 self-ubiquitination in cell-cycle checkpoint control in response to DNA damage.

Potential tumor suppressor. Acts as a KRAS-specific effector protein. May promote apoptosis and cell cycle arrest. Stabilizes STK3/MST2 by protecting it from proteasomal degradation.

Potential tumor suppressor. May act as a KRAS effector protein. May promote apoptosis and cell cycle arrest.

Potential tumor suppressor. Seems to be involved in lymphocyte adhesion by linking RAP1A activation upon T-cell receptor or chemokine stimulation to integrin activation. Isoform 2 stimulates lymphocyte polarization and the patch-like distribution of ITGAL/LFA-1, resulting in an enhanced adhesion to ICAM1. Together with RAP1A may participate in regulation of microtubule growth. The association of isoform 2 with activated RAP1A is required for directional movement of endothelial cells during wound healing. May be involved in regulation of Ras apoptotic function. The RASSF5-STK4/MST1 complex may mediate HRAS and KRAS induced apoptosis.

Involved in the induction of apoptosis, through both caspase- dependent and caspase-independent pathways. May act as a Ras effector protein. May suppress the serum-induced basal levels of NF-kappa-B (By similarity).

Negatively regulates stress-induced JNK activation and apoptosis by promoting MAP2K7 phosphorylation and inhibiting its ability to activate JNK. Following prolonged stress, anti-apoptotic effect stops because of degradation of RASSF7 protein via the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway. Required for the activation of AURKB and chromosomal congression during mitosis where it stimulates microtubule polymerization.

Involved in the activation of Ras protein signal transduction. Ras proteins bind GDP/GTP and possess intrinsic GTPase activity.

Ras proteins bind GDP/GTP and possess intrinsic GTPase activity. Plays an important role in the regulation of cell proliferation. Plays a role in promoting oncogenic events by inducing transcriptional silencing of tumor suppressor genes (TSGs) in colorectal cancer (CRC) cells in a ZNF304-dependent manner.

Probable inhibitory regulator of the Ras-cyclic AMP pathway. Plays a role in dendrite formation by melanocytes.

Ca(2+)-dependent Ras GTPase-activating protein, that switches off the Ras-MAPK pathway following a stimulus that elevates intracellular calcium. Functions as an adaptor for Cdc42 and Rac1 during FcR-mediated phagocytosis.

Functions as a Ras GTPase-activating protein. Plays an important role in the expansion and functions of natural killer T (NKT) cells in the liver by negatively regulating RAS activity and the down- stream ERK signaling pathway.

Serves as an important signal transducer for a novel upstream stimuli in controlling cell proliferation. Activates the MAP kinase pathway.

Ras proteins bind GDP/GTP and possess intrinsic GTPase activity.

May be involved in modulating the expression of photoreceptor specific genes. Binds to the Ret-1 and Bat-1 element within the rhodopsin promoter.

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP-bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different set of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. The small Rab GTPase RAB11A regulates endocytic recycling. Acts as a major regulator of membrane delivery during cytokinesis. Together with MYO5B and RAB8A participates in epithelial cell polarization. Together with RAB3IP, RAB8A, the exocyst complex, PARD3, PRKCI, ANXA2, CDC42 and DNMBP promotes transcytosis of PODXL to the apical membrane initiation sites (AMIS), apical surface formation and lumenogenesis. Together with MYO5B participates in CFTR trafficking to the plasma membrane and TF (Transferrin) recycling in nonpolarized cells. Required in a complex with MYO5B and RAB11FIP2 for the transport of NPC1L1 to the plasma membrane. Participates in the sorting and basolateral transport of CDH1 from the Golgi apparatus to the plasma membrane. Regulates the recycling of FCGRT (receptor of Fc region of monomeric Ig G) to basolateral membranes. May also play a role in melanosome transport and release from melanocytes.

The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP-bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different set of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. The small Rab GTPase RAB11B plays a role in endocytic recycling, regulating apical recycling of several transmembrane proteins including cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator/CFTR, epithelial sodium channel/ENaC, potassium voltage-gated channel, and voltage-dependent L-type calcium channel. May also regulate constitutive and regulated secretion, like insulin granule exocytosis. Required for melanosome transport and release from melanocytes. Also regulates V-ATPase intracellular transport in response to extracellular acidosis.

RNA-binding protein that acts as a key regulator of N6- methyladenosine (m6A) methylation of RNAs, thereby regulating different processes, such as alternative splicing of mRNAs and X chromosome inactivation mediated by Xist RNA. Associated component of the WMM complex, a complex that mediates N6- methyladenosine (m6A) methylation of RNAs, a modification that plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing and RNA processing. Plays a key role in m6A methylation, possibly by binding target RNAs and recruiting the WMM complex. Involved in random X inactivation mediated by Xist RNA: acts by binding Xist RNA and recruiting the WMM complex, which mediates m6A methylation, leading to target YTHDC1 reader on Xist RNA and promoting transcription repression activity of Xist. Functions in the regulation of alternative or illicit splicing, possibly by regulating m6A methylation. Inhibits pre-mRNA splicing. Also functions as a mRNA export factor by acting as a cofactor for the nuclear export receptor NXF1.

Plays a role in endocytosis and intracellular protein transport. Mediates trafficking of TF from early endosomes to recycling endosomes. Required for NGF-mediated endocytosis of NTRK1, and subsequent neurite outgrowth. Binds GTP and GDP and has low GTPase activity. Alternates between a GTP-bound active form and a GDP-bound inactive form.

Small GTPase which cycles between active GTP-bound and inactive GDP-bound states. In its active state, binds to a variety of effector proteins to regulate homeostasis of late endocytic pathway, including endosomal positioning, maturation and secretion. Plays a role in cytotoxic granule exocytosis in lymphocytes. Required for both granule maturation and granule docking and priming at the immunologic synapse.

Small GTPase which cycles between active GTP-bound and inactive GDP-bound states. In its active state, binds to a variety of effector proteins to regulate homeostasis of late endocytic pathway, including endosomal positioning, maturation and secretion. Plays a role in NTRK2/TRKB axonal anterograde transport by facilitating the association of NTRK2/TRKB with KLC1. May be involved in targeting uroplakins to urothelial apical membranes (By similarity).

Protein transport. Acts, in coordination with RAB6A, to regulate intra-Golgi retrograde trafficking. It is involved in autophagy, acting as a modulator of autophagosome formation.

Plays a role in the maturation and acidification of phagosomes that engulf pathogens, such as S.aureus and M.tuberculosis. Plays a role in vesicular trafficking. Plays a role in the fusion of phagosomes with lysosomes. Negatively regulates LPS-induced autophagosome formation in macrophages possibly by implicating PI3K. May be involved in multiple neurite formation (By similarity).

Small GTPases Rab involved in autophagy. The small GTPases Rab are key regulators of intracellular membrane trafficking, from the formation of transport vesicles to their fusion with membranes. Rabs cycle between an inactive GDP-bound form and an active GTP-bound form that is able to recruit to membranes different sets of downstream effectors directly responsible for vesicle formation, movement, tethering and fusion. May regulate the homeostasis of SNCA/alpha-synuclein. Together with PICK1 proposed to ensure selectively GRIA2 exit from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi and to regulate AMPAR compostion at the post- synapses and thus synaptic transmission (By similarity).

Catalytic subunit of the Rab3 GTPase-activating (Rab3GAP) complex composed of RAB3GAP1 and RAB3GAP2, which has GTPase-activating protein (GAP) activity towards various Rab3 subfamily members (RAB3A, RAB3B, RAB3C and RAB3D), RAB5A and RAB43, and guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) activity towards RAB18. As part of the Rab3GAP complex, acts as a GAP for Rab3 proteins by converting active RAB3-GTP to the inactive form RAB3-GDP. Rab3 proteins are involved in regulated exocytosis of neurotransmitters and hormones. The Rab3GAP complex, acts as a GEF for RAB18 by promoting the conversion of inactive RAB18-GDP to the active form RAB18-GTP. Required for recruiting and activating RAB18 at the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane where it maintains proper ER structure. Required for normal eye and brain development. May participate in neurodevelopmental processes such as proliferation, migration and differentiation before synapse formation, and non-synaptic vesicular release of neurotransmitters.

May be a substrate-recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin-Cullin-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins.

Probable substrate-recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin-Cullin-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins.

Regulatory subunit of the IKK complex. Probably recruits IkappaBalpha/NFKBIA to the complex. May be involved in the organization of the cytomatrix at the nerve terminals active zone (CAZ) which regulates neurotransmitter release. May be involved in vesicle trafficking at the CAZ. May be involved in Rab-6 regulated endosomes to Golgi transport.

May repress E2F-dependent transcription. May promote AR- dependent transcription.

Core histone-binding subunit that may target chromatin assembly factors, chromatin remodeling factors and histone deacetylases to their histone substrates in a manner that is regulated by nucleosomal DNA. Component of several complexes which regulate chromatin metabolism. These include the chromatin assembly factor 1 (CAF-1) complex, which is required for chromatin assembly following DNA replication and DNA repair; the core histone deacetylase (HDAC) complex, which promotes histone deacetylation and consequent transcriptional repression; the nucleosome remodeling and histone deacetylase complex (the NuRD complex), which promotes transcriptional repression by histone deacetylation and nucleosome remodeling; the PRC2 complex, which promotes repression of homeotic genes during development; and the NURF (nucleosome remodeling factor) complex.

In embryonic stem (ES) cells, plays a crucial role in the differentiation potential, particularly along the neural lineage, regulating gene induction and H3 'Lys-4' methylation at key developmental loci, including that mediated by retinoic acid (By similarity). Does not affect ES cell self-renewal (By similarity). Component or associated component of some histone methyltransferase complexes which regulates transcription through recruitment of those complexes to gene promoters. As part of the MLL1/MLL complex, involved in mono-, di- and trimethylation at 'Lys-4' of histone H3. Histone H3 'Lys-4' methylation represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation. In association with ASH2L and WDR5, stimulates the histone methyltransferase activities of KMT2A, KMT2B, KMT2C, KMT2D, SETD1A and SETD1B.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which promotes ubiquitination of YBX1, leading to its degradation by the proteasome. May play a role as a scaffold protein to promote the assembly of the p53/TP53-MDM2 complex, resulting in increase of MDM2-mediated ubiquitination and degradation of p53/TP53; may function as negative regulator of p53/TP53, leading to both apoptosis and cell growth (By similarity). Regulates DNA-replication and the stability of chromosomal common fragile sites (CFSs) in a ZBTB38- and MCM10-dependent manner. Controls ZBTB38 protein stability and abundance via ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation, and ZBTB38 in turn negatively regulates the expression of MCM10 which plays an important role in DNA-replication.

Core histone-binding subunit that may target chromatin remodeling factors, histone acetyltransferases and histone deacetylases to their histone substrates in a manner that is regulated by nucleosomal DNA. Component of several complexes which regulate chromatin metabolism. These include the type B histone acetyltransferase (HAT) complex, which is required for chromatin assembly following DNA replication; the core histone deacetylase (HDAC) complex, which promotes histone deacetylation and consequent transcriptional repression; the nucleosome remodeling and histone deacetylase complex (the NuRD complex), which promotes transcriptional repression by histone deacetylation and nucleosome remodeling; and the PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex, which promotes repression of homeotic genes during development; and the NURF (nucleosome remodeling factor) complex.

Serine hydrolase whose substrates have not been identified yet. May negatively regulate basal or autocrine TGF-beta signaling by suppressing SMAD2-SMAD3 phosphorylation. May play a role in the transformation process due to its capacity to confer resistance to the growth-inhibitory effects of TGF-beta through interaction with RB1 and the subsequent displacement of E2F1.

Involved in autophagy. Regulates early events but also late events of autophagosome formation through direct interaction with Atg16L1. Required for the formation of the autophagosome-like double-membrane structure that surrounds the Salmonella-containing vacuole (SCV) during S.typhimurium infection and subsequent xenophagy (By similarity). Involved in repair of DNA damage caused by ionizing radiation, which subsequently improves cell survival by decreasing apoptosis (By similarity). Inhibits PTK2/FAK1 and PTK2B/PYK2 kinase activity, affecting their downstream signaling pathways. Plays a role as a modulator of TGF-beta-signaling by restricting substrate specificity of RNF111 (By similarity). Functions as a DNA-binding transcription factor. Is a potent regulator of the RB1 pathway through induction of RB1 expression. Plays a crucial role in muscular differentiation. Plays an indispensable role in fetal hematopoiesis and in the regulation of neuronal homeostasis (By similarity).

May act as a GTPase-activating protein of RAB6A. May play a role in microtubule nucleation by centrosome. May participate in a RAB6A-mediated pathway involved in the metaphase-anaphase transition.

Regulatory subunit of the Rab3 GTPase-activating (Rab3GAP) complex composed of RAB3GAP1 and RAB3GAP2, which has GTPase-activating protein (GAP) activity towards various Rab3 subfamily members (RAB3A, RAB3B, RAB3C and RAB3D), RAB5A and RAB43, and guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) activity towards RAB18. As part of the Rab3GAP complex, acts as a GAP for Rab3 proteins by converting active RAB3-GTP to the inactive form RAB3- GDP (By similarity). Rab3 proteins are involved in regulated exocytosis of neurotransmitters and hormones (By similarity). The Rab3GAP complex, acts as a GEF for RAB18 by promoting the conversion of inactive RAB18- GDP to the active form RAB18-GTP. Required for recruiting and activating RAB18 at the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane where it maintains proper ER structure. Required for normal eye and brain development (By similarity). May participate in neurodevelopmental processes such as proliferation, migration and differentiation before synapse formation, and non- synaptic vesicular release of neurotransmitters (By similarity).

Trans-acting factor in ribosome biogenesis required for efficient 40S and 60S subunit production.

Key regulator of entry into cell division. Directly involved in heterochromatin formation by maintaining overall chromatin structure and, in particular, that of constitutive heterochromatin by stabilizing histone methylation (By similarity). Recruits and targets histone methyltransferases KMT5B and KMT5C, leading to epigenetic transcriptional repression (By similarity). Controls histone H4 'Lys-20' trimethylation (By similarity). Probably acts as a transcription repressor by recruiting chromatin-modifying enzymes to promoters (By similarity). Potent inhibitor of E2F-mediated trans-activation. May act as a tumor suppressor.

Plays an essential role in male fertility, sperm intra- flagellar transport, and tail assembly. Binds, in a GTP-regulated manner, to a specific set of effector proteins including key proteins involved in cilia development and function and delivers them into the growing sperm tail.

Small GTPase required for ciliation. Activated in a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF)-independent manner via its intrinsic GDP for GTP nucleotide exchange ability. Involved in ciliary assembly by binding the intraflagellar transport (IFT) complex B from the large pool pre-docked at the base of the cilium and thus triggers its entry into the cilia.

Key regulator of entry into cell division. Directly involved in heterochromatin formation by maintaining overall chromatin structure and, in particular, that of constitutive heterochromatin by stabilizing histone methylation. Recruits and targets histone methyltransferases KMT5B and KMT5C, leading to epigenetic transcriptional repression. Controls histone H4 'Lys-20' trimethylation. Probably acts as a transcription repressor by recruiting chromatin-modifying enzymes to promoters. Potent inhibitor of E2F-mediated trans-activation, associates preferentially with E2F5. Binds to cyclins A and E. Binds to and may be involved in the transforming capacity of the adenovirus E1A protein. May act as a tumor suppressor

May be involved in post-transcriptional processing, most probably in mRNA splicing. Binds to RNA homopolymers, with a preference for poly(G) and poly(U) and little for poly(A) (By similarity). May bind to specific miRNA hairpins.

Tissue-specific splicing factor with potential implication in the regulation of alternative splicing during neuron and germ cell differentiation. Antagonizes SRSF1-mediated BCL-X splicing. May affect the choice of alternative 5' splice sites by binding to specific sequences in exons and antagonizing the SR protein SRSF1.

Isoform 1 may function as a nuclear receptor coactivator, enhancing transcription through other coactivators such as NCOA6 and CITED1. Isoform 2, functions as a transcriptional repressor, modulating transcriptional activities of coactivators including isoform 1, NCOA6 and CITED1. Regulates centriole biogenesis by suppressing the formation of aberrant centriolar protein complexes in the cytoplasm and thus preserving mitotic spindle integrity. Prevents the formation of the STIL-CENPJ complex (which can induce the formation of aberrant centriolar protein complexes) by interfering with the interaction of STIL with CENPJ. Plays a role in the regulation of DNA virus-mediated innate immune response by assembling into the HDP-RNP complex, a complex that serves as a platform for IRF3 phosphorylation and subsequent innate immune response activation through the cGAS-STING pathway.

RNA-binding protein that acts as a key regulator of N6- methyladenosine (m6A) methylation of RNAs, thereby regulating different processes, such as hematopoietic cell homeostasis, alternative splicing of mRNAs and X chromosome inactivation mediated by Xist RNA. Associated component of the WMM complex, a complex that mediates N6-methyladenosine (m6A) methylation of RNAs, a modification that plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing and RNA processing (By similarity). Plays a key role in m6A methylation, possibly by binding target RNAs and recruiting the WMM complex. Involved in random X inactivation mediated by Xist RNA: acts by binding Xist RNA and recruiting the WMM complex, which mediates m6A methylation, leading to target YTHDC1 reader on Xist RNA and promoting transcription repression activity of Xist. Required for the development of multiple tissues, such as the maintenance of the homeostasis of long-term hematopoietic stem cells and for megakaryocyte (MK) and B-cell differentiation (By similarity). Regulates megakaryocyte differentiation by regulating alternative splicing of genes important for megakaryocyte differentiation; probably regulates alternative splicing via m6A regulation. Required for placental vascular branching morphogenesis and embryonic development of the heart and spleen (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of thrombopoietin response in hematopoietic stem cells by regulating alternative splicing of MPL (By similarity). May also function as an mRNA export factor, stimulating export and expression of RTE-containing mRNAs which are present in many retrotransposons that require to be exported prior to splicing. High affinity binding of pre-mRNA to RBM15 may allow targeting of the mRNP to the export helicase DBP5 in a manner that is independent of splicing-mediated NXF1 deposition, resulting in export prior to splicing. May be implicated in HOX gene regulation.

RNA-binding protein that acts as a regulator of mRNA splicing of a subset of genes encoding key structural proteins involved in cardiac development, such as TTN (Titin), CACNA1C, CAMK2D or PDLIM5/ENH. Acts as a repressor of mRNA splicing: specifically binds the 5'UCUU-3' motif that is predominantly found within intronic sequences of pre-mRNAs, leading to the exclusion of specific exons in target transcripts. RBM20-mediated exon skipping is hormone-dependent and is essential for TTN isoform transition in both cardiac and skeletal muscles. RBM20- mediated exon skipping of TTN provides substrates for the formation of circular RNA (circRNAs) from the TTN transcripts. Together with RBM24, promotes the expression of short isoforms of PDLIM5/ENH in cardiomyocytes (By similarity).

Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the activated spliceosome. Involved in the first step of pre-mRNA splicing. Binds directly to the internal stem- loop (ISL) domain of the U6 snRNA and to the pre-mRNA intron near the 5' splice site during the activation and catalytic phases of the spliceosome cycle. Involved in both translocations of the nuclear SLU7 to the cytoplasm and the cytosolic calcium-binding protein PDCD6 to the nucleus upon cellular stress responses.

RNA-binding protein that acts both as a transcription coactivator and pre-mRNA splicing factor. Regulates steroid hormone receptor-mediated transcription, independently of the pre-mRNA splicing factor activity.

Multifunctional RNA-binding protein involved in the regulation of pre-mRNA splicing, mRNA stability and mRNA translation important for cell fate decision and differentiation. Plays a major role in pre-mRNA alternative splicing regulation. Mediates preferentially muscle-specific exon inclusion in numerous mRNAs important for striated cardiac and skeletal muscle cell differentiation. Binds to intronic splicing enhancer (ISE) composed of stretches of GU-rich motifs localized in flanking intron of exon that will be included by alternative splicing (By similarity). Involved in embryonic stem cell (ESC) transition to cardiac cell differentiation by promoting pre-mRNA alternative splicing events of several pluripotency and/or differentiation genes. Plays a role in the regulation of mRNA stability. Binds to 3'-untranslated region (UTR) AU-rich elements in target transcripts, such as CDKN1A and MYOG, leading to maintain their stabilities. Involved in myogenic differentiation by regulating MYOG levels. Binds to multiple regions in the mRNA 3'-UTR of TP63 isoform 2, hence inducing its destabilization. Promotes also the destabilization of the CHRM2 mRNA via its binding to a region in the coding sequence. Plays a role in the regulation of mRNA translation. Mediates repression of p53/TP53 mRNA translation through its binding to U-rich element in the 3'-UTR, hence preventing EIF4E from binding to p53/TP53 mRNA and translation initiation. Binds to a huge amount of mRNAs. Required for embryonic heart development, sarcomer and M-band formation in striated muscles (By similarity). Together with RBM20, promotes the expression of short isoforms of PDLIM5/ENH in cardiomyocytes (By similarity).

RNA-binding protein that acts as a regulator of alternative pre-mRNA splicing. Involved in apoptotic cell death through the regulation of the apoptotic factor BCL2L1 isoform expression. Modulates the ratio of proapoptotic BCL2L1 isoform S to antiapoptotic BCL2L1 isoform L mRNA expression. When overexpressed, stimulates proapoptotic BCL2L1 isoform S 5'-splice site (5'-ss) selection, whereas its depletion caused the accumulation of antiapoptotic BCL2L1 isoform L. Promotes BCL2L1 isoform S 5'-ss usage through the 5'-CGGGCA-3' RNA sequence. Its association with LUC7L3 promotes U1 snRNP binding to a weak 5' ss in a 5'-CGGGCA-3'-dependent manner. Binds to the exonic splicing enhancer 5'-CGGGCA-3' RNA sequence located within exon 2 of the BCL2L1 pre-mRNA. Also involved in the generation of an abnormal and truncated splice form of SCN5A in heart failure.

Nucleolar component of the spliceosomal ribonucleoprotein complexes.

RNA-binding protein that specifically bind the 3'-UTR of CDKN1A transcripts, leading to maintain the stability of CDKN1A transcripts, thereby acting as a mediator of the p53/TP53 family to regulate CDKN1A. CDKN1A is a cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor transcriptionally regulated by the p53/TP53 family to induce cell cycle arrest. Isoform 1, but not isoform 2, has the ability to induce cell cycle arrest in G1 and maintain the stability of CDKN1A transcripts induced by p53/TP53. Also acts as a mRNA splicing factor. Specifically regulates the expression of FGFR2-IIIb, an epithelial cell-specific isoform of FGFR2. Plays a role in myogenic differentiation.

RNA-binding protein that acts as a pre-mRNA splicing factor. Acts by promoting exon inclusion via regulation of exon cassette splicing. Also acts as a transcriptional coactivator for steroid nuclear receptors ESR1/ER-alpha and ESR2/ER-beta, and JUN/AP-1, independently of the pre-mRNA splicing factor activity (By similarity).

Cold-inducible mRNA binding protein that enhances global protein synthesis at both physiological and mild hypothermic temperatures. Reduces the relative abundance of microRNAs, when overexpressed. Enhances phosphorylation of translation initiation factors and active polysome formation (By similarity).

Binds (via the RRM domain) to the 3'-untranslated region (UTR) of CDKN1A mRNA.

Component of intercellular bridges during meiosis. Intercellular bridges are evolutionarily conserved structures that connect differentiating germ cells. Not required for fertility (By similarity).

RNA-binding protein with binding specificity for poly(C). May play an important role in neural development.

Required for the translational activation of PER1 mRNA in response to circadian clock. Binds directly to the 3'-UTR of the PER1 mRNA (By similarity).

RNA-binding factor involved in multiple aspects of cellular processes like alternative splicing of pre-mRNA and translation regulation. Modulates alternative 5'-splice site and exon selection. Acts as a muscle cell differentiation-promoting factor. Activates exon skipping of the PTB pre-mRNA during muscle cell differentiation. Antagonizes the activity of the splicing factor PTBP1 to modulate muscle cell-specific exon selection of alpha tropomyosin. Binds to intronic pyrimidine-rich sequence of the TPM1 and MAPT pre-mRNAs. Required for the translational activation of PER1 mRNA in response to circadian clock. Binds directly to the 3'-UTR of the PER1 mRNA. Exerts a suppressive activity on Cap-dependent translation via binding to CU- rich responsive elements within the 3'UTR of mRNAs, a process increased under stress conditions or during myocytes differentiation. Recruits EIF4A1 to stimulate IRES-dependent translation initiation in respons to cellular stress. Associates to internal ribosome entry segment (IRES) in target mRNA species under stress conditions. Plays a role for miRNA- guided RNA cleavage and translation suppression by promoting association of AGO2-containing miRNPs with their cognate target mRNAs. Associates with miRNAs during muscle cell differentiation. Binds preferentially to 5'-CGCGCG[GCA]-3' motif in vitro.

Component of the spliceosome A complex. Regulates alternative splicing of a number of mRNAs. May modulate splice site pairing after recruitment of the U1 and U2 snRNPs to the 5' and 3' splice sites of the intron. May both positively and negatively regulate apoptosis by regulating the alternative splicing of several genes involved in this process, including FAS and CASP2/caspase-2. In the case of FAS, promotes exclusion of exon 6 thereby producing a soluble form of FAS that inhibits apoptosis. In the case of CASP2/caspase-2, promotes exclusion of exon 9 thereby producing a catalytically active form of CASP2/Caspase-2 that induces apoptosis.

Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Core component of the splicing-dependent multiprotein exon junction complex (EJC) deposited at splice junctions on mRNAs. The EJC is a dynamic structure consisting of core proteins and several peripheral nuclear and cytoplasmic associated factors that join the complex only transiently either during EJC assembly or during subsequent mRNA metabolism. The EJC marks the position of the exon-exon junction in the mature mRNA for the gene expression machinery and the core components remain bound to spliced mRNAs throughout all stages of mRNA metabolism thereby influencing downstream processes including nuclear mRNA export, subcellular mRNA localization, translation efficiency and nonsense-mediated mRNA decay (NMD). The MAGOH-RBM8A heterodimer inhibits the ATPase activity of EIF4A3, thereby trapping the ATP-bound EJC core onto spliced mRNA in a stable conformation. The MAGOH-RBM8A heterodimer interacts with the EJC key regulator PYM1 leading to EJC disassembly in the cytoplasm and translation enhancement of EJC-bearing spliced mRNAs by recruiting them to the ribosomal 48S preinitiation complex. Its removal from cytoplasmic mRNAs requires translation initiation from EJC-bearing spliced mRNAs. Associates preferentially with mRNAs produced by splicing. Does not interact with pre-mRNAs, introns, or mRNAs produced from intronless cDNAs. Associates with both nuclear mRNAs and newly exported cytoplasmic mRNAs. The MAGOH-RBM8A heterodimer is a component of the nonsense mediated decay (NMD) pathway. Involved in the splicing modulation of BCL2L1/Bcl-X (and probably other apoptotic genes); specifically inhibits formation of proapoptotic isoforms such as Bcl- X(S); the function is different from the established EJC assembly.

Single-stranded DNA binding protein that interacts with the region upstream of the MYC gene. Binds specifically to the DNA sequence motif 5'-[AT]CT[AT][AT]T-3'. Probably has a role in DNA replication

RNA-binding protein that plays several role in the regulation of pre- and post-transcriptional processes. Implicated in tissue- specific regulation of gene transcription and alternative splicing of several pre-mRNAs. Binds to and stimulates transcription from the tumor suppressor TXNIP gene promoter; may thus be involved in tumor suppression. When associated with SAFB, binds to and stimulates transcription from the SREBF1 promoter. Associates with nascent mRNAs transcribed by RNA polymerase II. Component of the supraspliceosome complex that regulates pre-mRNA alternative splice site selection. Can either activate or suppress exon inclusion; acts additively with TRA2B to promote exon 7 inclusion of the survival motor neuron SMN2. Represses the splicing of MAPT/Tau exon 10. Binds preferentially to single-stranded 5'-CC[A/C]-rich RNA sequence motifs localized in a single-stranded conformation; probably binds RNA as a homodimer. Binds non-specifically to pre-mRNAs. Also plays a role in the cytoplasmic TNFR1 trafficking pathways; promotes both the IL-1-beta-mediated inducible proteolytic cleavage of TNFR1 ectodomains and the release of TNFR1 exosome-like vesicles to the extracellular compartment.

Rab4/Rab5 effector protein acting in early endocytic membrane fusion and membrane trafficking of recycling endosomes. Required for endosome fusion either homotypically or with clathrin coated vesicles. Plays a role in the lysosomal trafficking of CTSD/cathepsin D from the Golgi to lysosomes. Also promotes the recycling of transferrin directly from early endosomes to the plasma membrane. Binds phospholipid vesicles containing phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdInsP3). Plays a role in the recycling of transferrin receptor to the plasma membrane.

May act as an adapter protein to couple membrane receptors to intracellular signaling pathways (Probable). Core component of the CTLH E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that selectively accepts ubiquitin from UBE2H and mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of the transcription factor HBP1. Enhances dihydrotestosterone-induced transactivation activity of AR, as well as dexamethasone-induced transactivation activity of NR3C1, but does not affect estrogen-induced transactivation. Acts as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RAN GTPase. May play an essential role in hemostasis and in maintaining microtubule dynamics with respect to both platelet shape and function (By similarity).

Multifunctional protein that functions as a downstream effector of RALA and RALB. As a GTPase-activating protein/GAP can inactivate CDC42 and RAC1 by stimulating their GTPase activity. As part of the Ral signaling pathway, may also regulate ligand-dependent EGF and insulin receptors-mediated endocytosis. During mitosis, may act as a scaffold protein in the phosphorylation of EPSIN/EPN1 by the mitotic kinase cyclin B-CDK1, preventing endocytosis during that phase of the cell cycle. During mitosis, also controls mitochondrial fission as an effector of RALA. Recruited to mitochondrion by RALA, acts as a scaffold to foster the mitotic kinase cyclin B-CDK1-mediated phosphorylation and activation of DNM1L.

E3 SUMO-protein ligase which facilitates SUMO1 and SUMO2 conjugation by UBE2I. Involved in transport factor (Ran-GTP, karyopherin)-mediated protein import via the F-G repeat-containing domain which acts as a docking site for substrates. Binds single-stranded RNA (in vitro). May bind DNA. Component of the nuclear export pathway. Specific docking site for the nuclear export factor exportin-1. Sumoylates PML at 'Lys-490' which is essential for the proper assembly of PML-NB. Recruits BICD2 to the nuclear envelope and cytoplasmic stacks of nuclear pore complex known as annulate lamellae during G2 phase of cell cycle. Probable inactive PPIase with no peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerase activity.

RNA and ssDNA-binding protein that may play specific roles during transcription initiation at distinct promoters. Can enter the preinitiation complex together with the RNA polymerase II (Pol II).

Putative transcription factor, which cooperates with EBNA2 to activate transcription.

Acts as a coactivator of transcriptional activity. Required to increase TGFB1/Smad-mediated transactivation. Acts through SMAD2, SMAD3 and SMAD4 to increase transcriptional activity. Increases phosphorylation of SMAD2 and SMAD3 on their C-terminal SSXS motif, possibly through recruitment of TGFBR1. Promotes the nuclear accumulation of SMAD2, SMAD3 and SMAD4 proteins. Binds to poly(A) RNA.

RNA-binding protein involved in the regulation of smooth muscle cell differentiation and proliferation in the gastrointestinal system. Binds NOG mRNA, the major inhibitor of the bone morphogenetic protein (BMP) pathway. Mediates an increase of NOG mRNA levels, thereby contributing to the negative regulation of BMP signaling pathway and promoting reversible dedifferentiation and proliferation of smooth muscle cells (By similarity).

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of ribose at O-5 in a reaction requiring ATP and magnesium. The resulting D-ribose-5-phosphate can then be used either for sythesis of nucleotides, histidine, and tryptophan, or as a component of the pentose phosphate pathway.

May be involved in gene regulation within neural lineage cells potentially by direct DNA binding or by binding to other transcription factors.

Acts with TAL1/SCL to regulate red blood cell development. Also acts with LDB1 to maintain erythroid precursors in an immature state

E3 ubiquitin ligase component of multiple cullin-RING-based E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase (CRLs) complexes which mediate the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins, including proteins involved in cell cycle progression, signal transduction, transcription and transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair. CRLs complexes and ARIH1 collaborate in tandem to mediate ubiquitination of target proteins, ARIH1 mediating addition of the first ubiquitin on CRLs targets. The functional specificity of the E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes depends on the variable substrate recognition components. As a component of the CSA complex promotes the ubiquitination of ERCC6 resulting in proteasomal degradation. Recruits the E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme CDC34 to the complex and brings it into close proximity to the substrate. Probably also stimulates CDC34 autoubiquitination. May be required for histone H3 and histone H4 ubiquitination in response to ultraviolet and for subsequent DNA repair. Promotes the neddylation of CUL1, CUL2, CUL4 and CUL4 via its interaction with UBE2M. Involved in the ubiquitination of KEAP1, ENC1 and KLHL41. In concert with ATF2 and CUL3, promotes degradation of KAT5 thereby attenuating its ability to acetylate and activate ATM. As part of a multisubunit complex composed of elongin BC complex (ELOB and ELOC), elongin A/ELOA, RBX1 and CUL5; polyubiquitinates monoubiquitinated POLR2A.

Probable component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins involved in cell cycle progression, signal transduction and transcription. CRLs complexes and ARIH1 collaborate in tandem to mediate ubiquitination of target proteins, ARIH1 mediating addition of the first ubiquitin on CRLs targets (By similarity). Through the RING- type zinc finger, seems to recruit the E2 ubiquitination enzyme to the complex and brings it into close proximity to the substrate. Promotes the neddylation of CUL5 via its interaction with UBE2F. May play a role in protecting cells from apoptosis induced by redox agents.

RNA-binding protein involved in pre-mRNA splicing. Required for sperm development. Acts additively with TRA2B to promote exon 7 inclusion of the survival motor neuron SMN. Binds non-specifically to mRNAs.

RNA-binding protein which may be involved in spermatogenesis. Required for sperm development, possibly by participating in pre-mRNA splicing in the testis

RNA-binding protein which may be involved in spermatogenesis. Required for sperm development, possibly by participating in pre-mRNA splicing in the testis.

Tumor suppressor that is a key regulator of the G1/S transition of the cell cycle. The hypophosphorylated form binds transcription regulators of the E2F family, preventing transcription of E2F-responsive genes. Both physically blocks E2Fs transactivating domain and recruits chromatin- modifying enzymes that actively repress transcription. Cyclin and CDK-dependent phosphorylation of RB1 induces its dissociation from E2Fs, thereby activating transcription of E2F responsive genes and triggering entry into S phase. RB1 also promotes the G0-G1 transition upon phosphorylation and activation by CDK3/cyclin-C. Directly involved in heterochromatin formation by maintaining overall chromatin structure and, in particular, that of constitutive heterochromatin by stabilizing histone methylation. Recruits and targets histone methyltransferases SUV39H1, KMT5B and KMT5C, leading to epigenetic transcriptional repression. Controls histone H4 'Lys-20' trimethylation. Inhibits the intrinsic kinase activity of TAF1. Mediates transcriptional repression by SMARCA4/BRG1 by recruiting a histone deacetylase (HDAC) complex to the c-FOS promoter. In resting neurons, transcription of the c-FOS promoter is inhibited by BRG1- dependent recruitment of a phospho-RB1-HDAC1 repressor complex. Upon calcium influx, RB1 is dephosphorylated by calcineurin, which leads to release of the repressor complex (By similarity).

Post-transcriptional repressor of mRNAs containing a conserved stem loop motif, called constitutive decay element (CDE), which is often located in the 3'-UTR, as in HMGXB3, ICOS, IER3, NFKBID, NFKBIZ, PPP1R10, TNF, TNFRSF4 and in many more mRNAs. Cleaves translationally inactive mRNAs harboring a stem-loop (SL), often located in their 3'-UTRs, during the early phase of inflammation in a helicase UPF1-independent manner (By similarity). Binds to CDE and promotes mRNA deadenylation and degradation. This process does not involve miRNAs (By similarity). In follicular helper T (Tfh) cells, represses of ICOS and TNFRSF4 expression, thus preventing spontaneous Tfh cell differentiation, germinal center B-cell differentiation in the absence of immunization and autoimmunity (By similarity). In resting or LPS-stimulated macrophages, controls inflammation by suppressing TNF expression (By similarity). Also recognizes CDE in its own mRNA and in that of paralogous RC3H2, possibly leading to feedback loop regulation (By similarity). Recognizes and binds mRNAs containing a hexaloop stem-loop motif, called alternative decay element (ADE) (By similarity). Together with ZC3H12A, destabilizes TNFRSF4/OX40 mRNA by binding to the conserved stem loop structure in its 3'UTR (By similarity). Able to interact with double-stranded RNA (dsRNA). miRNA- binding protein that regulates microRNA homeostasis. Enhances DICER- mediated processing of pre-MIR146a but reduces mature MIR146a levels through an increase of 3' end uridylation. Both inhibits ICOS mRNA expression and they may act together to exert the suppression. Acts as a ubiquitin E3 ligase. Pairs with E2 enzymes UBE2A, UBE2B, UBE2D2, UBE2F, UBE2G1, UBE2G2 and UBE2L3 and produces polyubiquitin chains. Shows the strongest activity when paired with UBE2N:UBE2V1 or UBE2N:UBE2V2 E2 complexes and generate both short and long polyubiquitin chains.

Post-transcriptional repressor of mRNAs containing a conserved stem loop motif, called constitutive decay element (CDE), which is often located in the 3'-UTR, as in HMGXB3, ICOS, IER3, NFKBID, NFKBIZ, PPP1R10, TNF and in many more mRNAs. Binds to CDE and promotes mRNA deadenylation and degradation. This process does not involve miRNAs. In follicular helper T (Tfh) cells, represses of ICOS and TNFRSF4 expression, thus preventing spontaneous Tfh cell differentiation, germinal center B-cell differentiation in the absence of immunization and autoimmunity. In resting or LPS-stimulated macrophages, controls inflammation by suppressing TNF expression. Also recognizes CDE in its own mRNA and in that of paralogous RC3H1, possibly leading to feedback loop regulation (By similarity). miRNA- binding protein that regulates microRNA homeostasis. Enhances DICER- mediated processing of pre-MIR146a but reduces mature MIR146a levels through an increase of 3' end uridylation. Both inhibits ICOS mRNA expression and they may act together to exert the suppression. Acts as a ubiquitin E3 ligase. Pairs with E2 enzymes UBE2B, UBE2D2, UBE2E2, UBE2E3, UBE2G2, UBE2K and UBE2Q2 and produces polyubiquitin chains. Shows the strongest activity when paired with UBE2N:UBE2V1 or UBE2N:UBE2V2 E2 complexes and generate both short and long polyubiquitin chains. Involved in the ubiquitination of MAP3K5. Able to interact with double-stranded RNA (dsRNA).

Acts as an assembly factor for mitochondrial respiratory complexes.

Inhibits calcineurin-dependent transcriptional responses by binding to the catalytic domain of calcineurin A. Could play a role during central nervous system development (By similarity).

Inhibits calcineurin-dependent transcriptional responses by binding to the catalytic domain of calcineurin A. Could play a role during central nervous system development

May participate in suppression of cell proliferation and induces apoptotic cell death through activation of interleukin-1-beta converting enzyme (ICE)-like proteases.

May be involved in cell cycle regulation by chromatin remodeling.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for mitochondrial dynamin-related GTPase OPA1. Activates OPA1, by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP, and drives OPA1 and MFN1-dependent mitochondrial fusion. Plays an essential role in mitochondrial ribosome biogenesis. As a component of a functional protein-RNA module, consisting of RCC1L, NGRN, RPUSD3, RPUSD4, TRUB2, FASTKD2 and 16S mitochondrial ribosomal RNA (16S mt-rRNA), controls 16S mt-rRNA abundance and is required for intra-mitochondrial translation of core subunits of the oxidative phosphorylation system.

Guanine-nucleotide releasing factor that promotes the exchange of Ran-bound GDP by GTP, and thereby plays an important role in RAN-mediated functions in nuclear import and mitosis. Contributes to the generation of high levels of chromosome-associated, GTP-bound RAN, which is important for mitotic spindle assembly and normal progress through mitosis. Via its role in maintaining high levels of GTP-bound RAN in the nucleus, contributes to the release of cargo proteins from importins after nuclear import. Involved in the regulation of onset of chromosome condensation in the S phase. Binds both to the nucleosomes and double- stranded DNA.

Multifunctional protein that may affect its functions by regulating the activity of small GTPases, such as RAC1 and RALA. Required for normal progress through the cell cycle, both during interphase and during mitosis. Required for the presence of normal levels of MAD2L1, AURKB and BIRC5 on inner centromeres during mitosis, and for normal attachment of kinetochores to mitotic spindles. Required for normal organization of the microtubule cytoskeleton in interphase cells. Functions as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RALA. Interferes with the activation of RAC1 by guanine nucleotide exchange factors. Prevents accumulation of active, GTP-bound RAC1, and suppresses RAC1-mediated reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and formation of membrane protrusions. Required for normal cellular responses to contacts with the extracellular matrix of adjacent cells, and for directional cell migration in response to a fibronectin gradient (in vitro).

Plays a role in transcriptional repression of satellite repeats, possibly by regulating H3K36 methylation levels in centromeric regions together with KDM8. Possibly together with KDM8, is involved in proper mitotic spindle organization and chromosome segregation. Plays a role in regulating alpha-tubulin deacetylation and cytoskeletal microtubule stability, thereby promoting cell migration and TGF-beta-induced epithelial to mesenchymal transition (EMT), potentially through the inhibition of KDM8.

Does not have cyclase activity. Plays a role in 40S- ribosomal-subunit biogenesis in the early pre-rRNA processing steps at sites A0, A1 and A2 that are required for proper maturation of the 18S RNA (By similarity).

May regulate calcium-dependent activities in the endoplasmic reticulum lumen or post-ER compartment

Probable molecular chaperone assisting protein biosynthesis and transport in the endoplasmic reticulum. Required for the proper biosynthesis and transport of pulmonary surfactant-associated protein A/SP-A, pulmonary surfactant- associated protein D/SP-D and the lipid transporter ABCA3 (By similarity). By regulating both the proper expression and the degradation through the endoplasmic reticulum-associated protein degradation pathway of these proteins plays a crucial role in pulmonary surfactant homeostasis (By similarity). Has an anti-fibrotic activity by negatively regulating the secretion of type I and type III collagens. This calcium-binding protein also transiently associates with immature PCSK6 and regulates its secretion.

Essential component of the BHC complex, a corepressor complex that represses transcription of neuron-specific genes in non-neuronal cells. The BHC complex is recruited at RE1/NRSE sites by REST and acts by deacetylating and demethylating specific sites on histones, thereby acting as a chromatin modifier. In the BHC complex, it serves as a molecular beacon for the recruitment of molecular machinery, including MeCP2 and SUV39H1, that imposes silencing across a chromosomal interval. Plays a central role in demethylation of Lys-4 of histone H3 by promoting demethylase activity of KDM1A on core histones and nucleosomal substrates. It also protects KDM1A from the proteasome. Component of a RCOR/GFI/KDM1A/HDAC complex that suppresses, via histone deacetylase (HDAC) recruitment, a number of genes implicated in multilineage blood cell development and controls hematopoietic differentiation.

May act as a component of a corepressor complex that represses transcription.

Multiubiquitin chain receptor involved in modulation of proteasomal degradation. Binds to 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitin chains in a length-dependent manner and with a lower affinity to 'Lys-63'- linked polyubiquitin chains. Proposed to be capable to bind simultaneously to the 26S proteasome and to polyubiquitinated substrates and to deliver ubiquitinated proteins to the proteasome

Multiubiquitin chain receptor involved in modulation of proteasomal degradation. Binds to polyubiquitin chains. Proposed to be capable to bind simultaneously to the 26S proteasome and to polyubiquitinated substrates and to deliver ubiquitinated proteins to the proteasome. May play a role in endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) of misfolded glycoproteins by association with PNGase and delivering deglycosylated proteins to the proteasome

Plays a critical role in the regulation of enzymes involved in nucleotide cycle in photoreceptors. Inhibits the basal catalytic activity and the GCAP-stimulated activity of GUCY2D and GUCY2F, two retinal guanylyl cyclases involved in the production of cGMP in photoreceptors. Involved in the transport of GUCY2D and GUCY2F to their target sites in the photoreceptor outer segment. Up-regulates the activity of GUK1, a kinase that also plays an essential role for recycling GMP and indirectly, cGMP. Plays an important role for the survival of rods and cones in the retina (By similarity).

Regulates drug efflux through modulation of ABCB1 localization and activity.

Retinol dehydrogenase with a clear preference for NADP. Converts all-trans-retinol to all-trans-retinal. Has no detectable activity towards 11-cis-retinol, 9-cis-retinol and 13-cis-retinol.

Retinol dehydrogenase with a clear preference for NADP. Displays high activity towards 9-cis, 11-cis and all-trans-retinol, and to a lesser extent on 13-cis-retinol. Exhibits a low reductive activity towards unsaturated medium-chain aldehydes such as cis -6-nonenal and no activity toward nonanal or 4-hydroxy-nonenal. Has no dehydrogenase activity towards steroid.

Retinoids dehydrogenase/reductase with a clear preference for NADP. Displays high activity towards 9-cis, 11-cis and all-trans- retinal. Shows very weak activity towards 13-cis-retinol. Also exhibits activity, albeit with lower affinity than for retinaldehydes, towards lipid peroxidation products (C9 aldehydes) such as 4-hydroxynonenal and trans-2-nonenal. May play an important function in photoreceptor cells to detoxify 4-hydroxynonenal and potentially other toxic aldehyde products resulting from lipid peroxidation. Has no dehydrogenase activity towards steroids.

Retinol dehydrogenase with a clear preference for NADP. Oxidizes all-trans-retinol, but seems to reduce all-trans-retinal with much higher efficiency. Has no activity toward steroids.

Retinol dehydrogenase with a clear preference for NADP. Displays high activity towards 9-cis, 11-cis and all-trans-retinol. Shows a very weak activity towards 13-cis-retinol. Has no activity towards steroid.

Oxidoreductase with a preference for NAD. Oxidizes all-trans- retinol, 9-cis-retinol, 11-cis-retinol and 13-cis-retinol to the corresponding aldehydes. Has higher activity towards CRBP-bound retinol than with free retinol. Oxidizes also 3-alpha- hydroxysteroids. Oxidizes androstanediol and androsterone to dihydrotestosterone and androstanedione. Can also catalyze the reverse reaction.

Catalyzes the oxidation of cis-isomers of retinol, including 11-cis-, 9-cis-, and 13-cis-retinol in an NAD-dependent manner. Has no activity towards all-trans retinal (By similarity). Plays a significant role in 11-cis retinol oxidation in the retinal pigment epithelium cells (RPE). Also recognizes steroids (androsterone, androstanediol) as its substrates.

Retinol dehydrogenase with a clear preference for NADP. Converts all-trans-retinal to all-trans-retinol. May play a role in the regeneration of visual pigment at high light intensity (By similarity).

Oxidoreductase with strong preference for NAD. Active in both the oxidative and reductive directions. Oxidizes all-trans-retinol in all-trans- retinaldehyde. No activity was detected with 11-cis- retinol or 11-cis-retinaldehyde as substrates with either NAD(+)/NADH or NADP(+)/NADPH.

May confer resistance to the antitumor agent cisplatin. Binds to DNA and RNA.

Required for DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) formation in unsynapsed regions during meiotic recombination. Probably acts by forming a complex with IHO1 and MEI4, which activates DSBs formation in unsynapsed regions, an essential step to ensure completion of synapsis.

Binds GTP and exhibits intrinsic GTPase activity. May activate NF-kappa-B-mediated gene transcription. Promotes signal transduction through MTOR, activates RPS6KB1, and is a downstream target of the small GTPase-activating proteins TSC1 and TSC2.

Required during meiosis for separation of sister chromatids and homologous chromosomes. Proteolytic cleavage of REC8 on chromosome arms by separin during anaphase I allows for homologous chromosome separation in meiosis I and cleavage of REC8 on centromeres during anaphase II allows for sister chromatid separation in meiosis II (By similarity).

Functions together with ADGRA2 to enable brain endothelial cells to selectively respond to Wnt7 signals (WNT7A or WNT7B). Plays a key role in Wnt7-specific responses: required for central nervous system (CNS) angiogenesis and blood-brain barrier regulation (By similarity). Acts as a Wnt7-specific coactivator of canonical Wnt signaling by decoding Wnt ligands: acts by interacting specifically with the disordered linker region of Wnt7, thereby conferring ligand selectivity for Wnt7. ADGRA2 is then required to deliver RECK-bound Wnt7 to frizzled by assembling a higher-order RECK-ADGRA2-Fzd-LRP5-LRP6 complex. Also acts as a serine protease inhibitor: negatively regulates matrix metalloproteinase-9 (MMP9) by suppressing MMP9 secretion and by direct inhibition of its enzymatic activity. Also inhibits metalloproteinase activity of MMP2 and MMP14 (MT1-MMP).

Acts as a calcium sensor and regulates phototransduction of cone and rod photoreceptor cells (By similarity). Modulates light sensitivity of cone photoreceptor in dark and dim conditions (By similarity). In response to high Ca(2+) levels induced by low light levels, prolongs RHO/rhodopsin activation in rod photoreceptor cells by binding to and inhibiting GRK1-mediated phosphorylation of RHO/rhodopsin (By similarity). Plays a role in scotopic vision/enhances vision in dim light by enhancing signal transfer between rod photoreceptors and rod bipolar cells (By similarity). Improves rod photoreceptor sensitivity in dim light and mediates response of rod photoreceptors to facilitate detection of change and motion in bright light (By similarity).

DNA helicase that may play a role in the repair of DNA that is damaged by ultraviolet light or other mutagens. Exhibits a magnesium-dependent ATP-dependent DNA-helicase activity that unwinds single- and double-stranded DNA in a 3'-5' direction.

DNA helicase that plays an important role in DNA replication, transcription and repair. Binds to the RNA polymerase II subunit POLR2A during transcription elongation and suppresses transcription-associated genomic instability. Associates also with POLR1A and enforces the stability of ribosomal DNA arrays. Plays an important role in mitotic chromosome separation after cross-over events and cell cycle progress. Mechanistically, removes RAD51 filaments protecting stalled replication forks at common fragile sites and stimulates MUS81-EME1 endonuclease leading to mitotic DNA synthesis. Required for efficient DNA repair, including repair of inter-strand cross-links. Stimulates DNA decatenation mediated by TOP2A. Prevents sister chromatid exchange and homologous recombination.

Catalyzes the hydrolytic deamination of adenosine to inosine in double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) referred to as A-to-I RNA editing. This may affect gene expression and function in a number of ways that include mRNA translation by changing codons and hence the amino acid sequence of proteins; pre-mRNA splicing by altering splice site recognition sequences; RNA stability by changing sequences involved in nuclease recognition; genetic stability in the case of RNA virus genomes by changing sequences during viral RNA replication; and RNA structure-dependent activities such as microRNA production or targeting or protein-RNA interactions. Can edit both viral and cellular RNAs and can edit RNAs at multiple sites (hyper-editing) or at specific sites (site-specific editing). Its cellular RNA substrates include: bladder cancer-associated protein (BLCAP), neurotransmitter receptors for glutamate (GRIA2 and GRIK2) and serotonin (HTR2C), GABA receptor (GABRA3) and potassium voltage-gated channel (KCNA1). Site-specific RNA editing of transcripts encoding these proteins results in amino acid substitutions which consequently alter their functional activities. Edits GRIA2 at both the Q/R and R/G sites efficiently but converts the adenosine in hotspot1 much less efficiently. Can exert a proviral effect towards human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1) and enhances its replication via both an editing-dependent and editing-independent mechanism. The former involves editing of adenosines in the 5'UTR while the latter occurs via suppression of EIF2AK2/PKR activation and function. Can inhibit cell proliferation and migration and can stimulate exocytosis.

Lacks editing activity. It prevents the binding of other ADAR enzymes to targets in vitro, and decreases the efficiency of these enzymes. Capable of binding to dsRNA but also to ssRNA

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the spliceosome. Auxiliary spliceosomal protein that regulates selection of alternative splice sites in a small set of target pre-mRNA species (Probable). Required for normal mitotic cell cycle progression. Recruits MAD1L1 and MAD2L1 to kinetochores, and is required to trigger the spindle assembly checkpoint. Required for normal accumulation of SMU1.

Required for endoplasmic reticulum (ER) network formation, shaping and remodeling. May enhance the cell surface expression of odorant receptors (By similarity).

Microtubule-binding protein required to ensure proper cell division and nuclear envelope reassembly by sequestering the endoplasmic reticulum away from chromosomes during mitosis. Probably acts by clearing the endoplasmic reticulum membrane from metaphase chromosomes.

Plays an essential role in heart function and development by regulating the organization and function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiomyocytes.

Required for correct function and survival of retinal photoreceptors. Required for retinal development (By similarity). In rod photoreceptors, facilitates stability and/or trafficking of guanylate cyclases and is required to maintain endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondrial homeostasis (By similarity). May play a role in clathrin-coated intracellular vesicle trafficking of proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum to the retinal rod plasma membrane (By similarity).

Might act as an inhibitor of spontaneous calcium carbonate precipitation. May be associated with neuronal sprouting in brain, and with brain and pancreas regeneration

Bactericidal C-type lectin which acts exclusively against Gram-positive bacteria and mediates bacterial killing by binding to surface-exposed carbohydrate moieties of peptidoglycan. Regulates keratinocyte proliferation and differentiation after skin injury via activation of EXTL3-PI3K-AKT signaling pathway.

Bactericidal C-type lectin which acts exclusively against Gram-positive bacteria and mediates bacterial killing by binding to surface-exposed carbohydrate moieties of peptidoglycan. Restricts bacterial colonization of the intestinal epithelial surface and consequently limits activation of adaptive immune responses by the microbiota. The uncleaved form has bacteriostatic activity, whereas the cleaved form has bactericidal activity against L.monocytogenes and methicillin-resistant S.aureus. Regulates keratinocyte proliferation and differentiation after skin injury.

Calcium-independent lectin displaying mannose-binding specificity and able to maintain carbohydrate recognition activity in an acidic environment. May be involved in inflammatory and metaplastic responses of the gastrointestinal epithelium.

Relaxin is an ovarian hormone that acts with estrogen to produce dilatation of the birth canal in many mammals. May be involved in remodeling of connective tissues during pregnancy, promoting growth of pubic ligaments and ripening of the cervix

May play a role in neuropeptide signaling processes. Ligand for LGR7, RXFP3 and RXFP4

NF-kappa-B is a pleiotropic transcription factor which is present in almost all cell types and is involved in many biological processed such as inflammation, immunity, differentiation, cell growth, tumorigenesis and apoptosis. NF-kappa-B is a homo- or heterodimeric complex formed by the Rel-like domain-containing proteins RELA/p65, RELB, NFKB1/p105, NFKB1/p50, REL and NFKB2/p52. The dimers bind at kappa-B sites in the DNA of their target genes and the individual dimers have distinct preferences for different kappa-B sites that they can bind with distinguishable affinity and specificity. Different dimer combinations act as transcriptional activators or repressors, respectively. NF-kappa-B is controlled by various mechanisms of post- translational modification and subcellular compartmentalization as well as by interactions with other cofactors or corepressors. NF-kappa-B complexes are held in the cytoplasm in an inactive state complexed with members of the NF-kappa-B inhibitor (I-kappa-B) family. In a conventional activation pathway, I-kappa-B is phosphorylated by I- kappa-B kinases (IKKs) in response to different activators, subsequently degraded thus liberating the active NF-kappa-B complex which translocates to the nucleus. NF-kappa-B heterodimeric RelB-p50 and RelB-p52 complexes are transcriptional activators. RELB neither associates with DNA nor with RELA/p65 or REL. Stimulates promoter activity in the presence of NFKB2/p49. As a member of the NUPR1/RELB/IER3 survival pathway, may provide pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma with remarkable resistance to cell stress, such as starvation or gemcitabine treatment. Regulates the circadian clock by repressing the transcriptional activator activity of the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer in a CRY1/CRY2 independent manner. Increased repression of the heterodimer is seen in the presence of NFKB2/p52. Is required for both T and B lymphocyte maturation and function.

Induces activation of MAPK14/p38 cascade, when overexpressed. Induces apoptosis, when overexpressed.

Extracellular matrix serine protease that plays a role in layering of neurons in the cerebral cortex and cerebellum. Regulates microtubule function in neurons and neuronal migration. Affects migration of sympathetic preganglionic neurons in the spinal cord, where it seems to act as a barrier to neuronal migration. Enzymatic activity is important for the modulation of cell adhesion. Binding to the extracellular domains of lipoprotein receptors VLDLR and LRP8/APOER2 induces tyrosine phosphorylation of DAB1 and modulation of TAU phosphorylation (By similarity).

Proto-oncogene that may play a role in differentiation and lymphopoiesis. NF-kappa-B is a pleiotropic transcription factor which is present in almost all cell types and is involved in many biological processed such as inflammation, immunity, differentiation, cell growth, tumorigenesis and apoptosis. NF-kappa-B is a homo- or heterodimeric complex formed by the Rel-like domain-containing proteins RELA/p65, RELB, NFKB1/p105, NFKB1/p50, REL and NFKB2/p52. The dimers bind at kappa-B sites in the DNA of their target genes and the individual dimers have distinct preferences for different kappa-B sites that they can bind with distinguishable affinity and specificity. Different dimer combinations act as transcriptional activators or repressors, respectively. NF-kappa-B is controlled by various mechanisms of post- translational modification and subcellular compartmentalization as well as by interactions with other cofactors or corepressors. NF-kappa-B complexes are held in the cytoplasm in an inactive state complexed with members of the NF-kappa-B inhibitor (I-kappa-B) family. In a conventional activation pathway, I-kappa-B is phosphorylated by I- kappa-B kinases (IKKs) in response to different activators, subsequently degraded thus liberating the active NF-kappa-B complex which translocates to the nucleus. The NF-kappa-B heterodimer RELA/p65- c-Rel is a transcriptional activator

Promotes endothelial cell sprouting and actin cytoskeletal reorganization. May be involved in angiogenesis. May function in Ca(2+) signaling

Binds GTP saturably and exhibits a low intrinsic rate of GTP hydrolysis.

Involved in nonsense-mediated decay (NMD) of mRNAs containing premature stop codons by associating with the nuclear exon junction complex (EJC) and serving as link between the EJC core and NMD machinery. Recruits UPF2 at the cytoplasmic side of the nuclear envelope and the subsequent formation of an UPF1-UPF2-UPF3 surveillance complex (including UPF1 bound to release factors at the stalled ribosome) is believed to activate NMD. However, UPF3A is shown to be only marginally active in NMD as compared to UPF3B. Binds spliced mRNA upstream of exon-exon junctions. In vitro, weakly stimulates translation.

Involved in nonsense-mediated decay (NMD) of mRNAs containing premature stop codons by associating with the nuclear exon junction complex (EJC) and serving as link between the EJC core and NMD machinery. Recruits UPF2 at the cytoplasmic side of the nuclear envelope and the subsequent formation of an UPF1-UPF2-UPF3 surveillance complex (including UPF1 bound to release factors at the stalled ribosome) is believed to activate NMD. In cooperation with UPF2 stimulates both ATPase and RNA helicase activities of UPF1. Binds spliced mRNA upstream of exon-exon junctions. In vitro, stimulates translation; the function is independent of association with UPF2 and components of the EJC core.

Catalyzes the interconversion of N-acetylglucosamine to N- acetylmannosamine. Involved in the N-glycolylneuraminic acid (Neu5Gc) degradation pathway: although human is not able to catalyze formation of Neu5Gc due to the inactive CMAHP enzyme, Neu5Gc is present in food and must be degraded.

Renin is a highly specific endopeptidase, whose only known function is to generate angiotensin I from angiotensinogen in the plasma, initiating a cascade of reactions that produce an elevation of blood pressure and increased sodium retention by the kidney.

Multifunctional protein which functions as a renin, prorenin cellular receptor and is involved in the assembly of the lysosomal proton-transporting V-type ATPase (V-ATPase) and the acidification of the endo-lysosomal system. May mediate renin-dependent cellular responses by activating ERK1 and ERK2. By increasing the catalytic efficiency of renin in AGT/angiotensinogen conversion to angiotensin I, may also play a role in the renin-angiotensin system (RAS). Through its function in V-type ATPase (v- ATPase) assembly and acidification of the lysosome it regulates protein degradation and may control different signaling pathways important for proper brain development, synapse morphology and synaptic transmission (By similarity).

RNA-dependent helicase required for nonsense-mediated decay (NMD) of aberrant mRNAs containing premature stop codons and modulates the expression level of normal mRNAs. Is recruited to mRNAs upon translation termination and undergoes a cycle of phosphorylation and dephosphorylation; its phosphorylation appears to be a key step in NMD. Recruited by release factors to stalled ribosomes together with the SMG1C protein kinase complex to form the transient SURF (SMG1-UPF1-eRF1-eRF3) complex. In EJC-dependent NMD, the SURF complex associates with the exon junction complex (EJC) (located 50-55 or more nucleotides downstream from the termination codon) through UPF2 and allows the formation of an UPF1-UPF2-UPF3 surveillance complex which is believed to activate NMD. Phosphorylated UPF1 is recognized by EST1B/SMG5, SMG6 and SMG7 which are thought to provide a link to the mRNA degradation machinery involving exonucleolytic and endonucleolytic pathways, and to serve as adapters to protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A), thereby triggering UPF1 dephosphorylation and allowing the recycling of NMD factors. UPF1 can also activate NMD without UPF2 or UPF3, and in the absence of the NMD-enhancing downstream EJC indicative for alternative NMD pathways. Plays a role in replication-dependent histone mRNA degradation at the end of phase S; the function is independent of UPF2. For the recognition of premature termination codons (PTC) and initiation of NMD a competitive interaction between UPF1 and PABPC1 with the ribosome-bound release factors is proposed. The ATPase activity of UPF1 is required for disassembly of mRNPs undergoing NMD. Together with UPF2 and dependent on TDRD6, mediates the degradation of mRNA harboring long 3'UTR by inducing the NMD machinery (By similarity). Also capable of unwinding double-stranded DNA and translocating on single-stranded DNA.

Involved in nonsense-mediated decay (NMD) of mRNAs containing premature stop codons by associating with the nuclear exon junction complex (EJC). Recruited by UPF3B associated with the EJC core at the cytoplasmic side of the nuclear envelope and the subsequent formation of an UPF1-UPF2-UPF3 surveillance complex (including UPF1 bound to release factors at the stalled ribosome) is believed to activate NMD. In cooperation with UPF3B stimulates both ATPase and RNA helicase activities of UPF1. Binds spliced mRNA.

Regulates transferrin receptor recycling from the endocytic recycling compartment.

Sequence-specific double-stranded DNA-binding protein required for initiation of chromosomal DNA replication. Binds on 5'- ATT-3' reiterated sequences downstream of the origin of bidirectional replication (OBR) and a second, homologous ATT sequence of opposite orientation situated within the OBR zone. Facilitates DNA bending

May coordinate the cellular actions of activated EGF receptors and Ral-GTPases.

Involved in ligand-dependent receptor mediated endocytosis of the EGF and insulin receptors as part of the Ral signaling pathway. By controlling growth factor receptors endocytosis may regulate cell survival. Through ASAP1 may regulate cell adhesion and migration.

Plays an active role in transcriptional regulation by binding modified histones H3 and H4. Is a negative regulator of myeloid differentiation of hematopoietic progenitor cells. Might also have a role in the development and maturation of lymphoid cells (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of non-canonical NF-kappa-B pathway.

Involved in the retrieval of endoplasmic reticulum membrane proteins from the early Golgi compartment.

Plays a role as a transcriptional repressor during development. May play a role in the control of cell survival. Overexpression of RERE recruits BAX to the nucleus particularly to POD and triggers caspase-3 activation, leading to cell death.

Binds GDP/GTP and possesses intrinsic GTPase activity. Has higher affinity for GDP than for GTP. In cell lines overexpression leads to a reduction in the rate of proliferation, colony formation and in tumorigenic potential.

Plays a role in the regulation of imprinted gene expression, regulates repressive epigenetic modifications associated with SETDB1. Required for the recruitment or accumulation of SETDB1 to the endogenous retroviruses (ERVs) and maintenance of repressive chromatin configuration, contributing to a subset of the SETDB1-dependent ERV silencing in embryonic stem cells.

Transcriptional repressor which binds neuron-restrictive silencer element (NRSE) and represses neuronal gene transcription in non-neuronal cells. Restricts the expression of neuronal genes by associating with two distinct corepressors, SIN3A and RCOR1, which in turn recruit histone deacetylase to the promoters of REST-regulated genes. Mediates repression by recruiting the BHC complex at RE1/NRSE sites which acts by deacetylating and demethylating specific sites on histones, thereby acting as a chromatin modifier (By similarity). Transcriptional repression by REST-CDYL via the recruitment of histone methyltransferase EHMT2 may be important in transformation suppression. Represses the expression of SRRM4 in non-neural cells to prevent the activation of neural- specific splicing events and to prevent production of REST isoform 3 (By similarity). Repressor activity may be inhibited by forming heterodimers with isoform 3, thereby preventing binding to NRSE or binding to corepressors and leading to derepression of target genes. Also maintains repression of neuronal genes in neural stem cells, and allows transcription and differentiation into neurons by dissociation from RE1/NRSE sites of target genes (By similarity). Thereby is involved in maintaining the quiescent state of adult neural stem cells and preventing premature differentiation into mature neurons. Plays a role in the developmental switch in synaptic NMDA receptor composition during postnatal development, by repressing GRIN2B expression and thereby altering NMDA receptor properties from containing primarily GRIN2B to primarily GRIN2A subunits (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of osteoblast differentiation (By similarity). Key repressor of gene expression in hypoxia; represses genes in hypoxia by direct binding to an RE1/NRSE site on their promoter regions. May also function in stress resistance in the brain during aging; possibly by regulating expression of genes involved in cell death and in the stress response. Repressor of gene expression in the hippocampus after ischemia by directly binding to RE1/NRSE sites and recruiting SIN3A and RCOR1 to promoters of target genes, thereby promoting changes in chromatin modifications and ischemia-induced cell death (By similarity). After ischemia, might play a role in repression of miR-132 expression in hippocampal neurons, thereby leading to neuronal cell death (By similarity). Negatively regulates the expression of SRRM3 in breast cancer cell lines.

IRBP shuttles 11-cis and all trans retinoids between the retinol isomerase in the pigment epithelium and the visual pigments in the photoreceptor cells of the retina

Retinol-binding protein that mediates retinol transport in blood plasma. Delivers retinol from the liver stores to the peripheral tissues (Probable). Transfers the bound all-trans retinol to STRA6, that then facilitates retinol transport across the cell membrane.

Hormone that seems to suppress insulin ability to stimulate glucose uptake into adipose cells (By similarity). Potentially links obesity to diabetes (By similarity). Promotes chemotaxis in myeloid cells.

Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-anchored autophagy regulator which mediates ER delivery into lysosomes through sequestration into autophagosomes. Promotes membrane remodeling and ER scission via its membrane bending capacity and targets the fragments into autophagosomes via interaction with ATG8 family proteins. Active under basal conditions. Required for collagen quality control in a LIR motif-dependent manner (By similarity). Required for long-term survival of nociceptive and autonomic ganglion neurons.

Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-anchored autophagy regulator which exists in an inactive state under basal conditions but is activated following cellular stress. When activated, induces ER fragmentation and mediates ER delivery into lysosomes through sequestration into autophagosomes via interaction with ATG8 family proteins. Required for collagen quality control in a LIR motif-independent manner (By similarity).

Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-anchored autophagy regulator which exists in an inactive state under basal conditions but is activated following cellular stress. When activated, induces ER fragmentation and mediates ER delivery into lysosomes through sequestration into autophagosomes via interaction with ATG8 family proteins. Promotes ER membrane curvature and ER tubulation required for subsequent ER fragmentation and engulfment into autophagosomes. Required for collagen quality control in a LIR motif-dependent manner (By similarity). Mediates NRF1-enhanced neurite outgrowth.

Catalyzes the saturation of all-trans-retinol to all-trans- 13,14-dihydroretinol. Does not exhibit any activity toward all-trans- retinoic acid, nor 9-cis, 11-cis or 13-cis-retinol isomers. May play a role in the metabolism of vitamin A. Independently of retinol conversion, may regulate liver metabolism upstream of MLXIPL/ChREBP. May play a role in adipocyte differentiation.

Receptor tyrosine-protein kinase involved in numerous cellular mechanisms including cell proliferation, neuronal navigation, cell migration, and cell differentiation upon binding with glial cell derived neurotrophic factor family ligands. Phosphorylates PTK2/FAK1. Regulates both cell death/survival balance and positional information. Required for the molecular mechanisms orchestration during intestine organogenesis; involved in the development of enteric nervous system and renal organogenesis during embryonic life, and promotes the formation of Peyer's patch-like structures, a major component of the gut-associated lymphoid tissue. Modulates cell adhesion via its cleavage by caspase in sympathetic neurons and mediates cell migration in an integrin (e.g. ITGB1 and ITGB3)-dependent manner. Involved in the development of the neural crest. Active in the absence of ligand, triggering apoptosis through a mechanism that requires receptor intracellular caspase cleavage. Acts as a dependence receptor; in the presence of the ligand GDNF in somatotrophs (within pituitary), promotes survival and down regulates growth hormone (GH) production, but triggers apoptosis in absence of GDNF. Regulates nociceptor survival and size. Triggers the differentiation of rapidly adapting (RA) mechanoreceptors. Mediator of several diseases such as neuroendocrine cancers; these diseases are characterized by aberrant integrins-regulated cell migration. Mediates, through interaction with GDF15-receptor GFRAL, GDF15-induced cell-signaling in the brainstem which induces inhibition of food-intake. Activates MAPK- and AKT- signaling pathways. Isoform 1 in complex with GFRAL induces higher activation of MAPK- signaling pathway than isoform 2 in complex with GFRAL.

Deoxycytidyl transferase involved in DNA repair. Transfers a dCMP residue from dCTP to the 3'-end of a DNA primer in a template- dependent reaction. May assist in the first step in the bypass of abasic lesions by the insertion of a nucleotide opposite the lesion. Required for normal induction of mutations by physical and chemical agents.

Catalytic subunit of the DNA polymerase zeta complex, an error-prone polymerase specialized in translesion DNA synthesis (TLS). Lacks an intrinsic 3'-5' exonuclease activity and thus has no proofreading function.

Seems to have no detectable effect on transcription elongation in vitro.

Mitochondrial peptide chain release factor that directs the termination of translation in response to the peptide chain termination codons UAA and UAG.

Mitochondrial peptide chain release factor that directs the termination of translation in response to the peptide chain non-cognate termination stop codons AGG and AGA

As part of the heterotrimeric replication protein A complex (RPA/RP-A), binds and stabilizes single-stranded DNA intermediates, that form during DNA replication or upon DNA stress. It prevents their reannealing and in parallel, recruits and activates different proteins and complexes involved in DNA metabolism. Thereby, it plays an essential role both in DNA replication and the cellular response to DNA damage. In the cellular response to DNA damage, the RPA complex controls DNA repair and DNA damage checkpoint activation. Through recruitment of ATRIP activates the ATR kinase a master regulator of the DNA damage response. It is required for the recruitment of the DNA double-strand break repair factors RAD51 and RAD52 to chromatin in response to DNA damage. Also recruits to sites of DNA damage proteins like XPA and XPG that are involved in nucleotide excision repair and is required for this mechanism of DNA repair. Also plays a role in base excision repair (BER) probably through interaction with UNG. Also recruits SMARCAL1/HARP, which is involved in replication fork restart, to sites of DNA damage. Plays a role in telomere maintenance. As part of the alternative replication protein A complex, aRPA, binds single-stranded DNA and probably plays a role in DNA repair. Compared to the RPA2-containing, canonical RPA complex, may not support chromosomal DNA replication and cell cycle progression through S-phase. The aRPA may not promote efficient priming by DNA polymerase alpha but could support DNA synthesis by polymerase delta in presence of PCNA and replication factor C (RFC), the dual incision/excision reaction of nucleotide excision repair and RAD51- dependent strand exchange.

As part of the heterotrimeric replication protein A complex (RPA/RP-A), binds and stabilizes single-stranded DNA intermediates, that form during DNA replication or upon DNA stress. It prevents their reannealing and in parallel, recruits and activates different proteins and complexes involved in DNA metabolism. Thereby, it plays an essential role both in DNA replication and the cellular response to DNA damage. In the cellular response to DNA damage, the RPA complex controls DNA repair and DNA damage checkpoint activation. Through recruitment of ATRIP activates the ATR kinase a master regulator of the DNA damage response. It is required for the recruitment of the DNA double-strand break repair factors RAD51 and RAD52 to chromatin in response to DNA damage. Also recruits to sites of DNA damage proteins like XPA and XPG that are involved in nucleotide excision repair and is required for this mechanism of DNA repair. Also plays a role in base excision repair (BER) probably through interaction with UNG. Also recruits SMARCAL1/HARP, which is involved in replication fork restart, to sites of DNA damage. May also play a role in telomere maintenance.

As part of the heterotrimeric replication protein A complex (RPA/RP-A), binds and stabilizes single-stranded DNA intermediates that form during DNA replication or upon DNA stress. It prevents their reannealing and in parallel, recruits and activates different proteins and complexes involved in DNA metabolism. Thereby, it plays an essential role both in DNA replication and the cellular response to DNA damage. In the cellular response to DNA damage, the RPA complex controls DNA repair and DNA damage checkpoint activation. Through recruitment of ATRIP activates the ATR kinase a master regulator of the DNA damage response. It is required for the recruitment of the DNA double-strand break repair factors RAD51 and RAD52 to chromatin, in response to DNA damage. Also recruits to sites of DNA damage proteins like XPA and XPG that are involved in nucleotide excision repair and is required for this mechanism of DNA repair. Also plays a role in base excision repair (BER), probably through interaction with UNG. Also recruits SMARCAL1/HARP, which is involved in replication fork restart, to sites of DNA damage. May also play a role in telomere maintenance. RPA3 has its own single-stranded DNA-binding activity and may be responsible for polarity of the binding of the complex to DNA. As part of the alternative replication protein A complex, aRPA, binds single-stranded DNA and probably plays a role in DNA repair. Compared to the RPA2-containing, canonical RPA complex, may not support chromosomal DNA replication and cell cycle progression through S-phase. The aRPA may not promote efficient priming by DNA polymerase alpha but could support DNA synthesis by polymerase delta in presence of PCNA and replication factor C (RFC), the dual incision/excision reaction of nucleotide excision repair and RAD51- dependent strand exchange.

As part of the alternative replication protein A complex, aRPA, binds single-stranded DNA and probably plays a role in DNA repair. Compared to the RPA2-containing, canonical RPA complex, may not support chromosomal DNA replication and cell cycle progression through S-phase. The aRPA may not promote efficient priming by DNA polymerase alpha but could support DNA polymerase delta synthesis in the presence of PCNA and replication factor C (RFC), the dual incision/excision reaction of nucleotide excision repair and RAD51-dependent strand exchange.

The elongation of primed DNA templates by DNA polymerase delta and epsilon requires the action of the accessory proteins PCNA and activator 1. This subunit binds to the primer-template junction. Binds the PO-B transcription element as well as other GA rich DNA sequences. Could play a role in DNA transcription regulation as well as DNA replication and/or repair. Can bind single- or double-stranded DNA.

The elongation of primed DNA templates by DNA polymerase delta and epsilon requires the action of the accessory proteins proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA) and activator 1. This subunit binds ATP (By similarity).

The elongation of primed DNA templates by DNA polymerase delta and epsilon requires the action of the accessory proteins proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA) and activator 1

The elongation of primed DNA templates by DNA polymerase delta and epsilon requires the action of the accessory proteins proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA) and activator 1. This subunit may be involved in the elongation of the multiprimed DNA template

The elongation of primed DNA templates by DNA polymerase delta and epsilon requires the action of the accessory proteins proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA) and activator 1.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that regulates several biological processes through the ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation of various target proteins. Mediates 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination of PRR5L and its subsequent proteasomal degradation thereby indirectly regulating cell migration through the mTORC2 complex. Ubiquitinates the caspases CASP8 and CASP10, promoting their proteasomal degradation, to negatively regulate cell death downstream of death domain receptors in the extrinsic pathway of apoptosis. Negatively regulates the tumor necrosis factor-mediated signaling pathway through targeting of RIPK1 to ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation. Negatively regulates p53/TP53 through its direct ubiquitination and targeting to proteasomal degradation. Indirectly, may also negatively regulate p53/TP53 through ubiquitination and degradation of SFN. May also play a role in endocytic recycling.

A Rab11 effector protein involved in the endosomal recycling process. Also involved in controlling membrane trafficking along the phagocytic pathway and in phagocytosis.

A Rab11 effector binding preferentially phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PtdInsP3) and phosphatidic acid (PA) and acting in the regulation of the transport of vesicles from the endosomal recycling compartment (ERC) to the plasma membrane. Involved in insulin granule exocytosis. Also involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis and membrane trafficking of recycling endosomes, probably originating from clathrin-coated vesicles. Required in a complex with MYO5B and RAB11 for the transport of NPC1L1 to the plasma membrane. Also acts as a regulator of cell polarity. Plays an essential role in phagocytosis through a mechanism involving TICAM2, RAC1 and CDC42 Rho GTPases for controlling actin-dynamics.

Acts as a regulator of endocytic traffic by participating in membrane delivery. Required for the abcission step in cytokinesis, possibly by acting as an 'address tag' delivering recycling endosome membranes to the cleavage furrow during late cytokinesis. Also required for the structural integrity of the endosomal recycling compartment during interphase. May play a role in breast cancer cell motility by regulating actin cytoskeleton. Acts as an adapter protein linking the dynein motor complex to various cargos and converts dynein from a non- processive to a highly processive motor in the presence of dynactin. Facilitates the interaction between dynein and dynactin and activates dynein processivity (the ability to move along a microtubule for a long distance without falling off the track).

Acts as a regulator of endocytic traffic by participating in membrane delivery. Required for the abcission step in cytokinesis, possibly by acting as an 'address tag' delivering recycling endosome membranes to the cleavage furrow during late cytokinesis. In case of infection by HCMV (human cytomegalovirus), may participate in egress of the virus out of nucleus; this function is independent of ARF6.

Involved in the regulation of the perinuclear actin network and nuclear shape through interaction with filamins. Plays an essential role in actin cytoskeleton formation in developing cartilaginous cells.

Glycosyltransferase that initiates the elongation of O-linked fucose residues attached to EGF-like repeats in the extracellular domain of Notch molecules. Modulates NOTCH1 activity by modifying O- fucose residues at specific EGF-like domains resulting in enhancement of NOTCH1 activation by DLL1 and JAG1. May be involved in limb formation and in neurogenesis.

RNA-binding protein that regulates alternative splicing events by binding to 5'-UGCAUGU-3' elements. Regulates alternative splicing of tissue-specific exons and of differentially spliced exons during erythropoiesis.

(Microbial infection) Stimulates the activity of Human Immunodeficiency Virus 1/HIV-1 pre-integration complex.

May be involved in N-linked oligosaccharide assembly. May participate in the translocation of oligosaccharide from the cytoplasmic side to the lumenal side of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane.

Involved in protein trafficking via association with clathrin and AP2 complex. Upon bacterial lipopolysaccharide stimulation, mediates internalization of TLR4 to endosomes in dendritic cells and macrophages; and internalization of poly(I:C) to TLR3-positive endosomes in myeloid dendritic cells and epithelial cells; resulting in activation of TICAM1-mediated signaling and subsequent IFNB1 production. Involved in T-cell antigen receptor-mediated signaling by regulating tyrosine kinase LCK localization, T-cell dependent antibody production and cytokine secretion (By similarity). May regulate B-cell antigen receptor-mediated signaling. May play a pivotal role in the formation and/or maintenance of lipid rafts.

Upon bacterial lipopolysaccharide stimulation, mediates clathrin-dependent internalization of TLR4 in dendritic cells, resulting in activation of TICAM1-mediated signaling and subsequent IFNB1 production. May regulate B-cell antigen receptor-mediated signaling.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase required for the repair of DNA interstrand cross-links (ICL) in response to DNA damage. Plays a key role in RPA-mediated DNA damage signaling and repair. Acts by mediating ubiquitination of the RPA complex (RPA1, RPA2 and RPA3 subunits) and RAD51 at stalled replication forks, leading to remove them from DNA damage sites and promote homologous recombination. Also mediates the ubiquitination of p53/TP53 in the late response to DNA damage, and acts as a positive regulator of p53/TP53 stability, thereby regulating the G1/S DNA damage checkpoint. May act by catalyzing the formation of short polyubiquitin chains on p53/TP53 that are not targeted to the proteasome. In response to ionizing radiation, interacts with MDM2 and enhances p53/TP53 ubiquitination, possibly by restricting MDM2 from extending polyubiquitin chains on ubiquitinated p53/TP53.

Regulatory factor essential for MHC class II genes expression. Binds to the X boxes of MHC class II genes. Also binds to an inverted repeat (ENH1) required for hepatitis B virus genes expression and to the most upstream element (alpha) of the RPL30 promoter

Transcription factor that acts as a key regulator of spermatogenesis. Acts by regulating expression of genes required for the haploid phase during spermiogenesis, such as genes required for cilium assembly and function (By similarity). Recognizes and binds the X-box, a regulatory motif with DNA sequence 5'-GTNRCC(0-3N)RGYAAC-3' present on promoters. Probably activates transcription of the testis-specific histone gene H1-6 (By similarity).

Transcription factor required for ciliogenesis and islet cell differentiation during endocrine pancreas development. Essential for the differentiation of nodal monocilia and left-right asymmetry specification during embryogenesis. Required for the biogenesis of motile cilia by governing growth and beating efficiency of motile cells. Also required for ciliated ependymal cell differentiation. Regulates the expression of genes involved in ciliary assembly (DYNC2LI1, FOXJ1 and BBS4) and genes involved in ciliary motility (DNAH11, DNAH9 and DNAH5) (By similarity). Together with RFX6, participates in the differentiation of 4 of the 5 islet cell types during endocrine pancreas development, with the exception of pancreatic PP (polypeptide-producing) cells. Regulates transcription by forming a heterodimer with another RFX protein and binding to the X-box in the promoter of target genes. Represses transcription of MAP1A in non-neuronal cells but not in neuronal cells.

Transcription factor that plays a role in early brain development. May activate transcription by interacting directly with the X-box. May activate transcription from CX3CL1 promoter through the X-box during brain development.

Activates transcription from class II MHC promoters. Recognizes X-boxes. Mediates cooperative binding between RFX and NF-Y. RFX binds the X1 box of MHC-II promoters

Transcription factor required to direct islet cell differentiation during endocrine pancreas development. Specifically required for the differentiation of 4 of the 5 islet cell types and for the production of insulin. Not required for pancreatic PP (polypeptide-producing) cells differentiation. Acts downstream of NEUROG3 and regulates the transcription factors involved in beta-cell maturation and function, thereby restricting the expression of the beta-cell differentiation and specification genes, and thus the beta-cell fate choice. Activates transcription by forming a heterodimer with RFX3 and binding to the X- box in the promoter of target genes. Involved in glucose-stimulated insulin secretion by promoting insulin and L-type calcium channel gene transcription.

Part of the RFX complex that binds to the X-box of MHC II promoters

Activates transcription from class II MHC promoters. Activation requires the activity of the MHC class II transactivator/CIITA. May regulate other genes in the cell. RFX binds the X1 box of MHC-II promoters. May also potentiate the activation of RAF1 (By similarity).

Component of the centralspindlin complex that serves as a microtubule-dependent and Rho-mediated signaling required for the myosin contractile ring formation during the cell cycle cytokinesis. Required for proper attachment of the midbody to the cell membrane during cytokinesis. Plays key roles in controlling cell growth and differentiation of hematopoietic cells through mechanisms other than regulating Rac GTPase activity. Has a critical role in erythropoiesis. Also involved in the regulation of growth-related processes in adipocytes and myoblasts. May be involved in regulating spermatogenesis and in the RACGAP1 pathway in neuronal proliferation. Shows strong GAP (GTPase activation) activity towards CDC42 and RAC1 and less towards RHOA. Essential for the early stages of embryogenesis. May play a role in regulating cortical activity through RHOA during cytokinesis. May participate in the regulation of sulfate transport in male germ cells.

Modulates the activity of cell cycle-specific kinases. Enhances CDK1 activity. May contribute to the regulation of the cell cycle. May inhibit growth of glioma cells by promoting arrest of mitotic progression at the G2/M transition. Fibrogenic factor contributing to the pathogenesis of renal fibrosis through fibroblast activation.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) with specificity for RAP2A, KRAS, HRAS, and NRAS (in vitro). Plays a role in cell migration.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) with specificity for RAP2A, it doesn't seems to activate other Ras family proteins (in vitro).

Probable guanine nucleotide exchange factor. Putative effector of Ras and/or Rap. Associates with the GTP-bound form of Rap 1A and H-Ras in vitro (By similarity).

Member of the repulsive guidance molecule (RGM) family that performs several functions in the developing and adult nervous system. Regulates cephalic neural tube closure, inhibits neurite outgrowth and cortical neuron branching, and the formation of mature synapses. Binding to its receptor NEO1/neogenin induces activation of RHOA- ROCK1/Rho-kinase signaling pathway through UNC5B-ARHGEF12/LARG- PTK2/FAK1 cascade, leading to collapse of the neuronal growth cone and neurite outgrowth inhibition. Furthermore, RGMA binding to NEO1/neogenin leads to HRAS inactivation by influencing HRAS-PTK2/FAK1- AKT1 pathway. It also functions as a bone morphogenetic protein (BMP) coreceptor that may signal through SMAD1, SMAD5, and SMAD8.

Member of the repulsive guidance molecule (RGM) family that contributes to the patterning of the developing nervous system (By similarity). Acts as a bone morphogenetic protein (BMP) coreceptor that potentiates BMP signaling (By similarity). Promotes neuronal adhesion (By similarity). May inhibit neurite outgrowth.

Acts as a bone morphogenetic protein (BMP) coreceptor. Through enhancement of BMP signaling regulates hepcidin (HAMP) expression and regulates iron homeostasis.

Gluconolactonase with low activity towards other sugar lactones, including gulonolactone and galactonolactone. Can also hydrolyze diisopropyl phosphorofluoridate and phenylacetate (in vitro). Calcium-binding protein. Modulates Ca(2+) signaling, and Ca(2+)- dependent cellular processes and enzyme activities (By similarity).

The RIC1-RGP1 complex acts as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF), which activates RAB6A by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP and may thereby required for efficient fusion of endosome-derived vesicles with the Golgi compartment. The RIC1-RGP1 complex participates in the recycling of mannose-6-phosphate receptors.

Catalytic subunit of the heterodimeric RalGAP2 complex which acts as a GTPase activator for the Ras-like small GTPases RALA and RALB.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for the small GTPase RALA. May be involved in cytoskeletal organization (By similarity). Guanine nucleotide exchange factor for.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor for the small GTPase RALA. May be involved in cytoskeletal organization. May also be involved in the stimulation of transcription in a Ras-independent fashion (By similarity).

Functions as a calcium-regulated nucleotide exchange factor activating both Ras and RAC1 through the exchange of bound GDP for GTP. Preferentially activates HRAS in vivo compared to RRAS based on their different types of prenylation. Functions in synaptic plasticity by contributing to the induction of long term potentiation.

Receptor for all-trans- and 11-cis-retinal. Binds preferentially to the former and may catalyze the isomerization of the chromophore by a retinochrome-like mechanism

Regulates G protein-coupled receptor signaling cascades, including signaling downstream of the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor CHRM2. Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits, thereby driving them into their inactive GDP-bound form. Modulates the activity of potassium channels that are activated in response to CHRM2 signaling. Activity on GNAZ is inhibited by palmitoylation of the G-protein.

Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits thereby driving them into their inactive GDP-bound form

Regulates G protein-coupled receptor signaling cascades. Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits, thereby driving them into their inactive GDP- bound form.

Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits thereby driving them into their inactive GDP-bound form. Binds to both G(i)-alpha and G(q)-alpha (By similarity).

Regulates G protein-coupled receptor signaling cascades. Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits, thereby driving them into their inactive GDP- bound form. Besides, modulates signal transduction via G protein alpha subunits by functioning as a GDP-dissociation inhibitor (GDI). Has GDI activity on G(i) alpha subunits GNAI1 and GNAI3, but not on GNAI2 and G(o)-alpha subunit GNAO1. Has GAP activity on GNAI0, GNAI2 and GNAI3. May act as a scaffold integrating G protein and Ras/Raf MAPkinase signaling pathways. Inhibits platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)- stimulated ERK1/ERK2 phosphorylation; a process depending on its interaction with HRAS and that is reversed by G(i) alpha subunit GNAI1. Acts as a positive modulator of microtubule polymerisation and spindle organization through a G(i)-alpha-dependent mechanism. Plays a role in cell division. Required for the nerve growth factor (NGF)-mediated neurite outgrowth. Involved in stress resistance. May be involved in visual memory processing capacity and hippocampal-based learning and memory.

Regulates G protein-coupled receptor signaling cascades. Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits, thereby driving them into their inactive GDP- bound form. Plays an important role in the phototransduction cascade by regulating the lifetime and effective concentration of activated transducin alpha. May regulate extra and intracellular mitogenic signals (By similarity).

Regulates G protein-coupled receptor signaling cascades, including signaling via muscarinic acetylcholine receptor CHRM2 and dopamine receptor DRD2. Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits, thereby driving them into their inactive GDP-bound form. Binds selectively to GNAZ and GNAI2 subunits, accelerates their GTPase activity and regulates their signaling activities. Negatively regulates mu-opioid receptor-mediated activation of the G-proteins (By similarity).

Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits thereby driving them into their inactive GDP-bound form. Binds to G(i) alpha-1, G(i) alpha-2, G(i) alpha-3 and G(q) alpha.

Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits thereby driving them into their inactive GDP-bound form. Binds to G-alpha subfamily 1 members, with the order G(i)a3 > G(i)a1 > G(o)a >> G(z)a/G(i)a2. Activity on G(z)-alpha is inhibited by phosphorylation and palmitoylation of the G-protein

Regulates G protein-coupled receptor signaling cascades, including signaling downstream of the N-formylpeptide chemoattractant receptors and leukotriene receptors. Inhibits B cell chemotaxis toward CXCL12 (By similarity). Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits thereby driving them into their inactive GDP-bound form.

Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits thereby driving them into their inactive GDP-bound form. Binds selectively to G(z)-alpha and G(alpha)- i2 subunits, accelerates their GTPase activity and regulates their signaling activities. The G(z)-alpha activity is inhibited by the phosphorylation and palmitoylation of the G-protein. Negatively regulates mu-opioid receptor-mediated activation of the G-proteins (By similarity).

Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits thereby driving them into their inactive GDP-bound form.

Regulates G protein-coupled receptor signaling cascades. Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits, thereby driving them into their inactive GDP- bound form. It is involved in the negative regulation of the angiotensin-activated signaling pathway. Plays a role in the regulation of blood pressure in response to signaling via G protein-coupled receptors and GNAQ. Plays a role in regulating the constriction and relaxation of vascular smooth muscle (By similarity). Binds EIF2B5 and blocks its activity, thereby inhibiting the translation of mRNA into protein.

Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits thereby driving them into their inactive GDP-bound form. Activity on G(z)-alpha is inhibited by phosphorylation of the G-protein. Activity on G(z)-alpha and G(i)- alpha-1 is inhibited by palmitoylation of the G-protein

Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits thereby driving them into their inactive GDP-bound form. Binds to G(i)-alpha and G(o)-alpha, but not to G(s)-alpha (By similarity).

Regulates G protein-coupled receptor signaling cascades. Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits, thereby driving them into their inactive GDP- bound form. The RGS6/GNB5 dimer enhances GNAO1 GTPase activity.

Regulates G protein-coupled receptor signaling cascades. Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits, thereby driving them into their inactive GDP- bound form. The RGS7/GNB5 dimer enhances GNAO1 GTPase activity. May play a role in synaptic vesicle exocytosis. Modulates the activity of potassium channels that are activated by GNAO1 in response to muscarinic acetylcholine receptor M2/CHRM2 signaling.

Regulates G protein-coupled receptor signaling cascades, including signaling via muscarinic acetylcholine receptor CHRM2 and dopamine receptor DRD2 (By similarity). Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits, thereby driving them into their inactive GDP-bound form. Modulates the activity of potassium channels that are activated in response to DRD2 and CHRM2 signaling (By similarity).

Inhibits signal transduction by increasing the GTPase activity of G protein alpha subunits thereby driving them into their inactive GDP-bound form. Binds to GNAT1. Involved in phototransduction; key element in the recovery phase of visual transduction (By similarity).

Associated with rhesus blood group antigen expression. May be part of an oligomeric complex which is likely to have a transport or channel function in the erythrocyte membrane. Involved in ammonia transport across the erythrocyte membrane. Seems to act in monovalent cation transport.

May be involved in regulated intramembrane proteolysis and the subsequent release of functional polypeptides from their membrane anchors.

Involved in regulated intramembrane proteolysis and the subsequent release of functional polypeptides from their membrane anchors. Known substrate: EFNB3.

Intramembrane-cleaving serine protease that cleaves single transmembrane or multi-pass membrane proteins in the hydrophobic plane of the membrane, luminal loops and juxtamembrane regions. Involved in regulated intramembrane proteolysis and the subsequent release of functional polypeptides from their membrane anchors. Functional component of endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) for misfolded membrane proteins. Required for the degradation process of some specific misfolded endoplasmic reticulum (ER) luminal proteins. Participates in the transfer of misfolded proteins from the ER to the cytosol, where they are destroyed by the proteasome in a ubiquitin- dependent manner. Functions in BIK, MPZ, PKD1, PTCRA, RHO, STEAP3 and TRAC processing. Involved in the regulation of exosomal secretion; inhibits the TSAP6-mediated secretion pathway. Involved in the regulation of apoptosis; modulates BIK-mediated apoptotic activity. Also plays a role in the regulation of spermatogenesis; inhibits apoptotic activity in spermatogonia.

Rab9-regulated ATPase required for endosome to Golgi transport. Involved in transport vesicle docking at the Golgi complex, possibly by participating in release M6PRBP1/TIP47 from vesicles to permit their efficient docking and fusion at the Golgi. Specifically binds Rab9, but not other Rab proteins. Has low intrinsic ATPase activity due to autoinhibition, which is relieved by Rab9.

May be part of an oligomeric complex which is likely to have a transport or channel function in the erythrocyte membrane

Functions as an electroneutral and bidirectional ammonium transporter. May regulate transepithelial ammonia secretion.

Regulates ADAM17 protease, a sheddase of the epidermal growth factor (EGF) receptor ligands and TNF, thereby plays a role in sleep, cell survival, proliferation, migration and inflammation. Does not exhibit any protease activity on its own.

Activates the protein kinase activity of mTORC1, and thereby plays a role in the regulation of apoptosis. Stimulates the phosphorylation of S6K1 and EIF4EBP1 through activation of mTORC1 signaling. Has low intrinsic GTPase activity.

GTPase signaling protein that binds to and hydrolyzes GTP. Regulates signaling pathways involving G-proteins-coupled receptor and heterotrimeric proteins such as GNB1, GNB2 and GNB3. May be involved in selected striatal competencies, mainly locomotor activity and motor coordination.

Acts as a signaling transduction factor of the EPO-EPOR signaling pathway promoting erythroid cell differentiation.

Transcription factor maybe involved in reproductive processes. Modulates expression of target genes encoding proteins involved in processes relevant to spermatogenesis.

GTPase activator for the Rho, Rac and Cdc42 proteins, converting them to the putatively inactive GDP-bound state. Cdc42 seems to be the preferred substrate

Inhibitory effect on stress fiber organization. May down- regulate Rho-like GTPase in hematopoietic cells

GTPase activator for the Rho-type GTPases by converting them to an inactive GDP-bound state. Could regulate the interactions of signaling molecules with the actin cytoskeleton. Promotes continuous elongation of cytoplasmic processes during cell motility and simultaneous retraction of the cell body changing the cell morphology.

Functions as a GTPase-activating protein for the small GTPases RHOA, RHOB, RHOC and CDC42, terminating their downstream signaling. This induces morphological changes and detachment through cytoskeletal reorganization, playing a critical role in biological processes such as cell migration and proliferation. Also functions in vivo as an activator of the phospholipase PLCD1. Active DLC1 increases cell migration velocity but reduces directionality.

GTPase activator for the Rho-type GTPases by converting them to an inactive GDP-bound state.

GTPase activator for the Rho-type GTPases by converting them to an inactive GDP-bound state. Has a substantial GAP activity toward CDC42 and RAC1 and less toward RHOA. Has a role in regulating adhesion of hematopoietic cells to the extracellular matrix. Binds phosphoinositides, and has the highest affinity for phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate, followed by phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate and phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate.

GTPase activator for the small GTPases RhoA and Cdc42 by converting them to an inactive GDP-bound state. Essential for PTKB2 regulation of cytoskeletal organization via Rho family GTPases. Inhibits PAK2 proteolytic fragment PAK-2p34 kinase activity and changes its localization from the nucleus to the perinuclear region. Stabilizes PAK-2p34 thereby increasing stimulation of cell death (By similarity).

GTPase activator for the Rho-type GTPases by converting them to an inactive GDP-bound state. Has activity toward RAC1. Overexpression results in an increase in actin stress fibers and cell contraction.

Rho GTPase-activating protein involved in the maintenance of tight junction by regulating the activity of CDC42, thereby playing a central role in apical polarity of epithelial cells. Specifically acts as a GTPase activator for the CDC42 GTPase by converting it to an inactive GDP-bound state. The complex formed with AMOT acts by regulating the uptake of polarity proteins at tight junctions, possibly by deciding whether tight junction transmembrane proteins are recycled back to the plasma membrane or sent elsewhere. Participates in the Ca(2+)-dependent regulation of exocytosis, possibly by catalyzing GTPase activity of Rho family proteins and by inducing the reorganization of the cortical actin filaments. Acts as a GTPase activator in vitro for RAC1.

Rho GTPase activating protein that suppresses F-actin polymerization by inhibiting Rho. Rho GTPase activating proteins act by converting Rho-type GTPases to an inactive GDP-bound state. Plays a key role in tissue tension and 3D tissue shape by regulating cortical actomyosin network formation. Acts downstream of YAP1 and inhibits actin polymerization, which in turn reduces nuclear localization of YAP1. Regulates cell shape, spreading, and migration.

Functions as a GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for RHOA and CDC42. Downstream partner of ARF1 which may control Golgi apparatus structure and function. Also required for CTNNA1 recruitment to adherens junctions.

Rho GTPase-activating protein involved in the signal transduction pathway that regulates endothelial cell capillary tube formation during angiogenesis. Acts as a GTPase activator for the RAC1 by converting it to an inactive GDP-bound state. Inhibits RAC1- dependent lamellipodia formation. May also play a role in transcription regulation via its interaction with VEZF1, by regulating activity of the endothelin-1 (EDN1) promoter (By similarity).

Rho GTPase-activating protein involved in cell polarity, cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Acts as a GTPase activator for the Rac-type GTPase by converting it to an inactive GDP-bound state. Controls actin remodeling by inactivating Rac downstream of Rho leading to suppress leading edge protrusion and promotes cell retraction to achieve cellular polarity. Able to suppress RAC1 and CDC42 activity in vitro. Overexpression induces cell rounding with partial or complete disruption of actin stress fibers and formation of membrane ruffles, lamellipodia, and filopodia. Isoform 2 is a vascular cell-specific GAP involved in modulation of angiogenesis.

Rho GTPase-activating protein which may be involved in clathrin-mediated endocytosis. GTPase activators for the Rho-type GTPases act by converting them to an inactive GDP-bound state. Has activity toward CDC42 and RAC1 (By similarity).

GTPase activator for the Rho-type GTPases by converting them to an inactive GDP-bound state. Has strong activity toward RHOA, and weaker activity toward RAC1 and CDC42. May act as a specific effector of RAP2A to regulate Rho. In concert with RASIP1, suppresses RhoA signaling and dampens ROCK and MYH9 activities in endothelial cells and plays an essential role in blood vessel tubulogenesis.

GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for RAC1 and RHOA, but not for CDC42.

Functions as a GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for RAC1 and CDC42. Required for cell spreading, polarized lamellipodia formation and cell migration.

May be involved in several stages of intracellular trafficking. Could play an important role in the regulation of glucose transport by insulin. May act as a downstream effector of RHOQ/TC10 in the regulation of insulin-stimulated glucose transport (By similarity).

Rho GTPase-activating protein (GAP). Binds several acidic phospholipids which inhibits the Rho GAP activity to promote the Rac GAP activity. This binding is inhibited by phosphorylation by PRKCA. Involved in cell differentiation as well as cell adhesion and migration, plays an important role in retinal tissue morphogenesis, neural tube fusion, midline fusion of the cerebral hemispheres and mammary gland branching morphogenesis (By similarity). Transduces signals from p21-ras to the nucleus, acting via the ras GTPase-activating protein (GAP) (By similarity). Transduces SRC- dependent signals from cell-surface adhesion molecules, such as laminin, to promote neurite outgrowth. Regulates axon outgrowth, guidance and fasciculation (By similarity). Modulates Rho GTPase- dependent F-actin polymerization, organization and assembly, is involved in polarized cell migration and in the positive regulation of ciliogenesis and cilia elongation (By similarity). During mammary gland development, is required in both the epithelial and stromal compartments for ductal outgrowth (By similarity). Represses transcription of the glucocorticoid receptor by binding to the cis- acting regulatory sequence 5'-GAGAAAAGAAACTGGAGAAACTC-3'; this function is however unclear and would need additional experimental evidences.

May influence blood pressure by functioning as a GTPase- activating protein for RHOA in vascular smooth muscle.

GTPase-activating protein (GAP) that stimulates the GTPase activity of Rho-type GTPases. Thereby, controls Rho-type GTPases cycling between their active GTP-bound and inactive GDP-bound states. Acts as a GAP at least for CDC42 and RAC1. In neurons, is involved in dendritic spine formation and synaptic plasticity in a specific RAC1-GAP activity (By similarity). Limits the initiation of exploratory dendritic filopodia. Recruited to actin- patches that seed filopodia, binds specifically to plasma membrane sections that are deformed inward by acto-myosin mediated contractile forces. Acts through GAP activity on RAC1 to reduce actin polymerization necessary for filopodia formation (By similarity). In association with SHANK3, promotes GRIA1 exocytosis from recycling endosomes and spine morphological changes associated to long-term potentiation (By similarity).

Plays a role in DNA damage response (DDR) signaling upon genotoxic stresses such as ionizing radiation (IR) during the S phase. Recruited to sites of DNA damage through interaction with the 9-1-1 cell-cycle checkpoint response complex and TOPBP1 in a ATR-dependent manner. Required for the progression of the G1 to S phase transition. Plays a role in the stimulation of CHEK1 phosphorylation.

Small GTPase which cycles between an active GTP-bound and an inactive GDP-bound state. Mainly associated with cytoskeleton organization, in active state binds to a variety of effector proteins to regulate cellular responses such as cytoskeletal dynamics, cell migration and cell cycle. Regulates a signal transduction pathway linking plasma membrane receptors to the assembly of focal adhesions and actin stress fibers. Involved in a microtubule-dependent signal that is required for the myosin contractile ring formation during cell cycle cytokinesis. Plays an essential role in cleavage furrow formation. Required for the apical junction formation of keratinocyte cell-cell adhesion. Essential for the SPATA13-mediated regulation of cell migration and adhesion assembly and disassembly. The MEMO1-RHOA-DIAPH1 signaling pathway plays an important role in ERBB2- dependent stabilization of microtubules at the cell cortex. It controls the localization of APC and CLASP2 to the cell membrane, via the regulation of GSK3B activity. In turn, membrane-bound APC allows the localization of the MACF1 to the cell membrane, which is required for microtubule capture and stabilization. Regulates KCNA2 potassium channel activity by reducing its location at the cell surface in response to CHRM1 activation; promotes KCNA2 endocytosis. Acts as an allosteric activator of guanine nucleotide exchange factor ECT2 by binding in its activated GTP-bound form to the PH domain of ECT2 which stimulates the release of PH inhibition and promotes the binding of substrate RHOA to the ECT2 catalytic center. May be an activator of PLCE1. In neurons, involved in the inhibition of the initial spine growth. Upon activation by CaMKII, modulates dendritic spine structural plasticity by relaying CaMKII transient activation to synapse-specific, long-term signaling (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of platelet alpha-granule release during activation and aggregation of platelets (By similarity).

Mediates apoptosis in neoplastically transformed cells after DNA damage. Not essential for development but affects cell adhesion and growth factor signaling in transformed cells. Plays a negative role in tumorigenesis as deletion causes tumor formation. Involved in intracellular protein trafficking of a number of proteins. Targets PKN1 to endosomes and is involved in trafficking of the EGF receptor from late endosomes to lysosomes. Also required for stability and nuclear trafficking of AKT1/AKT which promotes endothelial cell survival during vascular development. Serves as a microtubule-dependent signal that is required for the myosin contractile ring formation during cell cycle cytokinesis. Required for genotoxic stress-induced cell death in breast cancer cells.

Regulates a signal transduction pathway linking plasma membrane receptors to the assembly of focal adhesions and actin stress fibers. Serves as a microtubule-dependent signal that is required for the myosin contractile ring formation during cell cycle cytokinesis. Regulates apical junction formation in bronchial epithelial cells.

Involved in endosome dynamics. May coordinate membrane transport with the function of the cytoskeleton. Involved in the internalization and trafficking of activated tyrosine kinase receptors such as PDGFRB. Participates in the reorganization of actin cytoskeleton; the function seems to involve WHAMM and includes regulation of filopodia formation and actin filament bundling. Can modulate the effect of DAPK3 in reorganization of actin cytoskeleton and focal adhesion dissolution.

Plasma membrane-associated small GTPase which cycles between an active GTP-bound and an inactive GDP-bound state. Causes the formation of thin, actin-rich surface projections called filopodia. Functions cooperatively with CDC42 and Rac to generate additional structures, increasing the diversity of actin-based morphology

Required for the formation of membrane ruffles during macropinocytosis. Plays a role in cell migration and is required for the formation of cup-like structures during trans-endothelial migration of leukocytes. In case of Salmonella enterica infection, activated by SopB and ARHGEF26/SGEF, which induces cytoskeleton rearrangements and promotes bacterial entry.

Negative regulator of hematopoietic progenitor cell proliferation, survival and migration. Critical regulator of thymocyte development and T-cell antigen receptor (TCR) signaling by mediating recruitment and activation of ZAP70. Required for phosphorylation of CD3Z, membrane translocation of ZAP70 and subsequent activation of the ZAP70-mediated pathways. Essential for efficient beta-selection and positive selection by promoting the ZAP70-dependent phosphorylation of the LAT signalosome during pre-TCR and TCR signaling. Crucial for thymocyte maturation during DN3 to DN4 transition and during positive selection. Plays critical roles in mast cell function by facilitating phosphorylation of SYK in Fc epsilon RI-mediated signal transduction. Essential for the phosphorylation of LAT, LCP2, PLCG1 and PLCG2 and for Ca(2+) mobilization in mast cells (By similarity). Binds GTP but lacks intrinsic GTPase activity and is resistant to Rho-specific GTPase- activating proteins. Inhibits the activation of NF-kappa-B by TNF and IKKB and the activation of CRK/p38 by TNF. Inhibits activities of RAC1, RHOA and CDC42. Negatively regulates leukotriene production in neutrophils.

Plasma membrane-associated small GTPase specifically involved in angiogenesis. Required for endothelial cell migration during vascular development via its interaction with GLUL. Elicits the formation of F-actin-rich structures, thereby regulating endothelial cell migration.

Plasma membrane-associated small GTPase which cycles between an active GTP-bound and an inactive GDP-bound state. In active state binds to a variety of effector proteins to regulate cellular responses. Involved in epithelial cell polarization processes. May play a role in CFTR trafficking to the plasma membrane. Causes the formation of thin, actin-rich surface projections called filopodia.

Acts upstream of PAK1 to regulate the actin cytoskeleton, adhesion turnover and increase cell migration. Stimulates quiescent cells to reenter the cell cycle. Has no detectable GTPase activity but its high intrinsic guanine nucleotide exchange activity suggests it is constitutively GTP-bound. Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Required in the control of cell shape.

Plays a role in the control of the actin cytoskeleton via activation of the JNK pathway.

Has no enzymatic activity. May serve as a target for Rho, and interact with some cytoskeletal component upon Rho binding or relay a Rho signal to other molecules.

Binds specifically to GTP-Rho. May function in a Rho pathway to limit stress fiber formation and/or increase the turnover of F-actin structures in the absence of high levels of RhoA activity.

The RIC1-RGP1 complex acts as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF), which activates RAB6A by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP, and may thereby be required for efficient fusion of endosome- derived vesicles with the Golgi compartment. The RIC1-RGP1 complex participates in the recycling of mannose-6-phosphate receptors. Required for phosphorylation and localization of GJA1. Is a regulator of procollagen transport and secretion, and is required for correct cartilage morphogenesis and development of the craniofacial skeleton.

Molecular chaperone which facilitates proper subunit assembly and surface trafficking of alpha-7 (CHRNA7) and alpha-8 (CHRNA8) nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. May also promote functional expression of homomeric serotoninergic 5-HT3 receptors, and of heteromeric acetylcholine receptors alpha-3/beta-2, alpha-3/beta-4, alpha-4/beta-2 and alpha-4/beta-4.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF), which can activate some, but not all, G-alpha proteins. Able to activate GNAI1, GNAO1 and GNAQ, but not GNAS by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP. Involved in regulation of microtubule pulling forces during mitotic movement of chromosomes by stimulating G(i)-alpha protein, possibly leading to release G(i)-alpha-GTP and NuMA proteins from the NuMA-GPSM2-G(i)- alpha-GDP complex (By similarity). Also acts as an activator for G(q)- alpha (GNAQ) protein by enhancing the G(q)-coupled receptor-mediated ERK activation.

Subunit of mTORC2, which regulates cell growth and survival in response to hormonal signals. mTORC2 is activated by growth factors, but, in contrast to mTORC1, seems to be nutrient-insensitive. mTORC2 seems to function upstream of Rho GTPases to regulate the actin cytoskeleton, probably by activating one or more Rho-type guanine nucleotide exchange factors. mTORC2 promotes the serum-induced formation of stress-fibers or F-actin. mTORC2 plays a critical role in AKT1 'Ser-473' phosphorylation, which may facilitate the phosphorylation of the activation loop of AKT1 on 'Thr-308' by PDK1 which is a prerequisite for full activation. mTORC2 regulates the phosphorylation of SGK1 at 'Ser-422'. mTORC2 also modulates the phosphorylation of PRKCA on 'Ser-657'. Plays an essential role in embryonic growth and development.

Catalyzes the hydrolytic deamination of enamine/imine intermediates that form during the course of normal metabolism. May facilitate the release of ammonia from these potentially toxic reactive metabolites, reducing their impact on cellular components. It may act on enamine/imine intermediates formed by several types of pyridoxal-5'- phosphate-dependent dehydratases including L-threonine dehydratase.

Key regulator of TP53BP1 that plays a key role in the repair of double-strand DNA breaks (DSBs) in response to DNA damage: acts by promoting non-homologous end joining (NHEJ)-mediated repair of DSBs. In response to DNA damage, interacts with ATM-phosphorylated TP53BP1. Interaction with TP53BP1 leads to dissociate the interaction between NUDT16L1/TIRR and TP53BP1, thereby unmasking the tandem Tudor-like domain of TP53BP1 and allowing recruitment to DNA DSBs. Once recruited to DSBs, RIF1 and TP53BP1 act by promoting NHEJ-mediated repair of DSBs. In the same time, RIF1 and TP53BP1 specifically counteract the function of BRCA1 by blocking DSBs resection via homologous recombination (HR) during G1 phase. Also required for immunoglobulin class-switch recombination (CSR) during antibody genesis, a process that involves the generation of DNA DSBs (By similarity). Promotes NHEJ of dysfunctional telomeres (By similarity).

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of riboflavin (vitamin B2) to form flavin-mononucleotide (FMN), hence rate-limiting enzyme in the synthesis of FAD. Essential for TNF-induced reactive oxygen species (ROS) production. Through its interaction with both TNFRSF1A and CYBA, physically and functionally couples TNFRSF1A to NADPH oxidase. TNF- activation of RFK may enhance the incorporation of FAD in NADPH oxidase, a critical step for the assembly and activation of NADPH oxidase.

Innate immune receptor that senses cytoplasmic viral nucleic acids and activates a downstream signaling cascade leading to the production of type I interferons and pro-inflammatory cytokines. Forms a ribonucleoprotein complex with viral RNAs on which it homooligomerizes to form filaments. The homooligomerization allows the recruitment of RNF135 an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that activates and amplifies the RIG-I-mediated antiviral signaling in an RNA length-dependent manner through ubiquitination-dependent and -independent mechanisms. Upon activation, associates with mitochondria antiviral signaling protein (MAVS/IPS1) that activates the IKK-related kinases TBK1 and IKBKE which in turn phosphorylate the interferon regulatory factors IRF3 and IRF7, activating transcription of antiviral immunological genes including the IFN-alpha and IFN-beta interferons. Ligands include 5'- triphosphorylated ssRNAs and dsRNAs but also short dsRNAs (<1 kb in length). In addition to the 5'-triphosphate moiety, blunt-end base pairing at the 5'-end of the RNA is very essential. Overhangs at the non- triphosphorylated end of the dsRNA RNA have no major impact on its activity. A 3'overhang at the 5'triphosphate end decreases and any 5'overhang at the 5' triphosphate end abolishes its activity. Detects both positive and negative strand RNA viruses including members of the families Paramyxoviridae: Human respiratory syncytial virus and measles virus (MeV), Rhabdoviridae: vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV), Orthomyxoviridae: influenza A and B virus, Flaviviridae: Japanese encephalitis virus (JEV), hepatitis C virus (HCV), dengue virus (DENV) and west Nile virus (WNV). It also detects rotaviruses and reoviruses. Detects and binds to SARS-CoV-2 RNAs which is inhibited by m6A RNA modifications (Ref.66). Also involved in antiviral signaling in response to viruses containing a dsDNA genome such as Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). Detects dsRNA produced from non-self dsDNA by RNA polymerase III, such as Epstein-Barr virus-encoded RNAs (EBERs). May play important roles in granulocyte production and differentiation, bacterial phagocytosis and in the regulation of cell migration.

Rab effector playing a role in late endocytic transport to degradative compartments. Involved in the regulation of lysosomal morphology and distribution. Induces recruitment of dynein-dynactin motor complexes to Rab7A-containing late endosome and lysosome compartments. Promotes centripetal migration of phagosomes and the fusion of phagosomes with the late endosomes and lysosomes.

Probable component of the manchette, a microtubule-based structure which plays a key role in sperm head morphogenesis during late stages of sperm development.

Plays an important role in the removal of damaged mitochondria via mitophagy by controlling the stability and localization of RAB7A. Required for the recruitment of RAB7A and ATG9A vesicles to damaged mitochondria and promotes the stability of RAB7A by inhibiting its proteasomal degradation during mitophagy.

Catalyzes the synthesis of N-acetyl-L-aspartyl-L-glutamate (NAAG) and N-acetyl-L-aspartyl-L-glutamyl-L-glutamate.

Catalyzes the synthesis of beta-citryl-L-glutamate and N- acetyl-L-aspartyl-L-glutamate. Beta-citryl-L-glutamate is synthesized more efficiently than N-acetyl-L-aspartyl-L-glutamate.

Rab effector involved in exocytosis (By similarity). May act as scaffold protein that regulates neurotransmitter release at the active zone. Essential for maintaining normal probability of neurotransmitter release and for regulating release during short-term synaptic plasticity (By similarity). Plays a role in dendrite formation by melanocytes.

Ras effector protein, which may serve as an inhibitory modulator of neuronal plasticity in aversive memory formation. Can affect Ras signaling at different levels. First, by competing with RAF1 protein for binding to activated Ras. Second, by enhancing signaling from ABL1 and ABL2, which regulate cytoskeletal remodeling. Third, by activating RAB5A, possibly by functioning as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RAB5A, by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP, and facilitating Ras-activated receptor endocytosis.

Ras effector protein. May function as an upstream activator and/or downstream effector for RAB5B in endocytic pathway. May function as a guanine nucleotide exchange (GEF) of RAB5B, required for activating the RAB5 proteins by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP.

Ras effector protein that functions as a guanine nucleotide exchange (GEF) for RAB5B and RAB31, by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP. Required for normal RAB31 function.

Constitutes one of the E3 ubiquitin-protein ligases that mediate monoubiquitination of 'Lys-119' of histone H2A, thereby playing a central role in histone code and gene regulation. H2A 'Lys-119' ubiquitination gives a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression and participates in X chromosome inactivation of female mammals. Essential component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1 complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones, rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility. Compared to RNF2/RING2, it does not have the main E3 ubiquitin ligase activity on histone H2A, and it may rather act as a modulator of RNF2/RING2 activity.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates monoubiquitination of 'Lys-119' of histone H2A (H2AK119Ub), thereby playing a central role in histone code and gene regulation. H2AK119Ub gives a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression and participates in X chromosome inactivation of female mammals. May be involved in the initiation of both imprinted and random X inactivation (By similarity). Essential component of a Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1-like complex, a complex class required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of many genes, including Hox genes, throughout development. PcG PRC1 complex acts via chromatin remodeling and modification of histones, rendering chromatin heritably changed in its expressibility. E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity is enhanced by BMI1/PCGF4. Acts as the main E3 ubiquitin ligase on histone H2A of the PRC1 complex, while RING1 may rather act as a modulator of RNF2/RING2 activity (Probable). Association with the chromosomal DNA is cell-cycle dependent. In resting B- and T-lymphocytes, interaction with AURKB leads to block its activity, thereby maintaining transcription in resting lymphocytes (By similarity). Also acts as a negative regulator of autophagy by mediating ubiquitination of AMBRA1, leading to its subsequent degradation (By similarity).

Ribonuclease inhibitor which inhibits RNASE1, RNASE2 and ANG. May play a role in redox homeostasis.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RAB5A and RAB22A that activates RAB5A and RAB22A by exchanging bound GDP for free GTP. Plays a role in endocytosis via its role in activating Rab family members (By similarity).

Involved in regulation of membrane traffic between the Golgi and the endoplasmic reticulum (ER); the function is proposed to depend on its association in the NRZ complex which is believed to play a role in SNARE assembly at the ER. May play a role in cell cycle checkpoint control. Essential for telomere length control.

Involved in the final steps of cytoplasmic maturation of the 40S ribosomal subunit. Involved in processing of 18S-E pre-rRNA to the mature 18S rRNA. Required for the recycling of NOB1 and PNO1 from the late 40S precursor. The association with the very late 40S subunit intermediate may involve a translation-like checkpoint point cycle preceeding the binding to the 60S ribosomal subunit (By similarity). Despite the protein kinase domain is proposed to act predominantly as an ATPase (By similarity). The catalytic activity regulates its dynamic association with the 40S subunit (By similarity). In addition to its role in ribosomal biogenesis acts as an adapter protein by recruiting NCL/nucleolin the to PRMT5 complex for its symmetrical methylation.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in the final steps of cytoplasmic maturation of the 40S ribosomal subunit. Involved in export of the 40S pre-ribosome particles (pre-40S) from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. Its kinase activity is required for the release of NOB1, PNO1 and LTV1 from the late pre-40S and the processing of 18S-E pre- rRNA to the mature 18S rRNA. Regulates the timing of the metaphase-anaphase transition during mitotic progression, and its phosphorylation, most likely by PLK1, regulates this function.

Involved in regulation of type I interferon (IFN)-dependent immune response which plays a critical role in the innate immune response against DNA and RNA viruses. May act as an adapter protein essential for the recruitment of TBK1 to IRF3. Phosphorylates IFIH1 on 'Ser-828' interfering with IFIH1 filament assembly on long dsRNA and resulting in attenuated IFIH1-signaling. Can inhibit CASP10 isoform 7-mediated activation of the NF-kappaB signaling pathway. May play a role in the biogenesis of the 40S ribosomal subunit. Involved in the processing of 21S pre-rRNA to the mature 18S rRNA.

Oxygenase that can act as both a histone lysine demethylase and a ribosomal histidine hydroxylase. Specifically demethylates 'Lys-4' (H3K4me) and 'Lys-36' (H3K36me) of histone H3, thereby playing a central role in histone code (By similarity). Preferentially demethylates trimethylated H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3) and monomethylated H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me1) residues, while it has weaker activity for dimethylated H3 'Lys-36' (H3K36me2) (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of osteoblast differentiation via its interaction with SP7/OSX by demethylating H3K4me and H3K36me, thereby inhibiting SP7/OSX-mediated promoter activation (By similarity). Also catalyzes demethylation of non-histone proteins, such as CGAS: demethylation of monomethylated CGAS promotes interaction between CGAS and PARP1, followed by PARP1 inactivation (By similarity). Also catalyzes the hydroxylation of 60S ribosomal protein L8 on 'His-216', thereby playing a role in ribosome biogenesis. Participates in MYC- induced transcriptional activation.

Oxygenase that can act as both a histone lysine demethylase and a ribosomal histidine hydroxylase. Is involved in the demethylation of trimethylated 'Lys-9' on histone H3 (H3K9me3), leading to an increase in ribosomal RNA expression. Also catalyzes the hydroxylation of 60S ribosomal protein L27a on 'His-39'. May play an important role in cell growth and survival. May be involved in ribosome biogenesis, most likely during the assembly process of pre-ribosomal particles.

Serine-threonine kinase which is a key regulator of TNF- mediated apoptosis, necroptosis and inflammatory pathways. Exhibits kinase activity-dependent functions that regulate cell death and kinase-independent scaffold functions regulating inflammatory signaling and cell survival. Has kinase- independent scaffold functions: upon binding of TNF to TNFR1, RIPK1 is recruited to the TNF-R1 signaling complex (TNF-RSC also known as complex I) where it acts as a scaffold protein promoting cell survival, in part, by activating the canonical NF-kappa-B pathway (By similarity). Kinase activity is essential to regulate necroptosis and apoptosis, two parallel forms of cell death: upon activation of its protein kinase activity, regulates assembly of two death-inducing complexes, namely complex IIa (RIPK1-FADD-CASP8), which drives apoptosis, and the complex IIb (RIPK1-RIPK3-MLKL), which drives necroptosis (By similarity). RIPK1 is required to limit CASP8-dependent TNFR1-induced apoptosis (By similarity). In normal conditions, RIPK1 acts as an inhibitor of RIPK3-dependent necroptosis, a process mediated by RIPK3 component of complex IIb, which catalyzes phosphorylation of MLKL upon induction by ZBP1. Inhibits RIPK3-mediated necroptosis via FADD-mediated recruitment of CASP8, which cleaves RIPK1 and limits TNF-induced necroptosis. Required to inhibit apoptosis and necroptosis during embryonic development: acts by preventing the interaction of TRADD with FADD thereby limiting aberrant activation of CASP8 (By similarity). In addition to apoptosis and necroptosis, also involved in inflammatory response by promoting transcriptional production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, such as interleukin-6 (IL6). Phosphorylates RIPK3: RIPK1 and RIPK3 undergo reciprocal auto- and trans-phosphorylation. Phosphorylates DAB2IP at 'Ser-728' in a TNF-alpha- dependent manner, and thereby activates the MAP3K5-JNK apoptotic cascade. Required for ZBP1-induced NF-kappa-B activation in response to DNA damage (By similarity).

Serine/threonine/tyrosine kinase that plays an essential role in modulation of innate and adaptive immune responses. Upon stimulation by bacterial peptidoglycans, NOD1 and NOD2 are activated, oligomerize and recruit RIPK2 through CARD-CARD domains. Contributes to the tyrosine phosphorylation of the guanine exchange factor ARHGEF2 through Src tyrosine kinase leading to NF-kappa-B activation by NOD2. Once recruited, RIPK2 autophosphorylates and undergoes 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination by E3 ubiquitin ligases XIAP, BIRC2 and BIRC3. The polyubiquitinated protein mediates the recruitment of MAP3K7/TAK1 to IKBKG/NEMO and induces 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of IKBKG/NEMO and subsequent activation of IKBKB/IKKB. In turn, NF-kappa-B is released from NF-kappa-B inhibitors and translocates into the nucleus where it activates the transcription of hundreds of genes involved in immune response, growth control, or protection against apoptosis. Also plays a role during engagement of the T-cell receptor (TCR) in promoting BCL10 phosphorylation and subsequent NF- kappa-B activation. Plays a role in the inactivation of RHOA in response to NGFR signaling.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that activates necroptosis and apoptosis, two parallel forms of cell death. Necroptosis, a programmed cell death process in response to death-inducing TNF-alpha family members, is triggered by RIPK3 following activation by ZBP1. Activated RIPK3 forms a necrosis- inducing complex and mediates phosphorylation of MLKL, promoting MLKL localization to the plasma membrane and execution of programmed necrosis characterized by calcium influx and plasma membrane damage. In addition to TNF- induced necroptosis, necroptosis can also take place in the nucleus in response to orthomyxoviruses infection: following ZBP1 activation, which senses double-stranded Z-RNA structures, nuclear RIPK3 catalyzes phosphorylation and activation of MLKL, promoting disruption of the nuclear envelope and leakage of cellular DNA into the cytosol (By similarity). Also regulates apoptosis: apoptosis depends on RIPK1, FADD and CASP8, and is independent of MLKL and RIPK3 kinase activity (By similarity). Phosphorylates RIPK1: RIPK1 and RIPK3 undergo reciprocal auto- and trans-phosphorylation. In some cell types, also able to restrict viral replication by promoting cell death- independent responses (By similarity). In response to Zika virus infection in neurons, promotes a cell death-independent pathway that restricts viral replication: together with ZBP1, promotes a death- independent transcriptional program that modifies the cellular metabolism via up-regulation expression of the enzyme ACOD1/IRG1 and production of the metabolite itaconate (By similarity). Itaconate inhibits the activity of succinate dehydrogenase, generating a metabolic state in neurons that suppresses replication of viral genomes (By similarity). RIPK3 binds to and enhances the activity of three metabolic enzymes: GLUL, GLUD1, and PYGL. These metabolic enzymes may eventually stimulate the tricarboxylic acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation, which could result in enhanced ROS production.

Involved in stratified epithelial development. It is a direct transcriptional target of TP63. Plays a role in NF-kappa-B activation.

Plays a role in the regulation of cell shape and polarity (By similarity). Plays a role in cellular protein transport, including protein transport away from primary cilia (By similarity). Neuroprotective protein, which acts by sequestring GAPDH in the cytosol and prevent the apoptotic function of GAPDH in the nucleus (By similarity). Competes with SIAH1 for binding GAPDH (By similarity). Does not regulate lysosomal morphology and distribution. Binds to RAB10 following LRRK2-mediated RAB10 phosphorylation which leads to inhibition of ciliogenesis.

Involved in cell shape and neuronal morphogenesis, positively regulating the establishment and maintenance of dendritic spines (By similarity). Plays a role in cellular protein transport, including protein transport away from primary cilia (By similarity). May function via activation of RAC1 and PAK1 (By similarity).

Plays a role in somitogenesis. Essential for transcriptional repression of the segmental patterning genes, thus terminating the segmentation program in the presomitic mesoderm, and also required for the maintenance of rostrocaudal polarity in somites (By similarity).

Plays a role in somitogenesis. Required for somite segregation and establishment of rostrocaudal polarity in somites (By similarity).

Downstream effector protein for Rho-type small GTPases that plays a role in cell polarity and directional migration. Acts as an adapter protein, linking active Rho proteins to STK24 and STK26 kinases, and hence positively regulates Golgi reorientation in polarized cell migration upon Rho activation. Involved in the subcellular relocation of STK26 from the Golgi to cytoplasm punctae in a Rho- and PDCD10-dependent manner upon serum stimulation.

Mediates the import of RPA complex into the nucleus, possibly via some interaction with importin beta. Isoform 2 is sumoylated and mediates the localization of RPA complex into the PML body of the nucleus, thereby participating in RPA function in DNA metabolism.

Provides the precursors necessary for DNA synthesis. Catalyzes the biosynthesis of deoxyribonucleotides from the corresponding ribonucleotides

Plays a pivotal role in cell survival by repairing damaged DNA in a p53/TP53-dependent manner. Supplies deoxyribonucleotides for DNA repair in cells arrested at G1 or G2. Contains an iron-tyrosyl free radical center required for catalysis. Forms an active ribonucleotide reductase (RNR) complex with RRM1 which is expressed both in resting and proliferating cells in response to DNA damage.

Provides the precursors necessary for DNA synthesis. Catalyzes the biosynthesis of deoxyribonucleotides from the corresponding ribonucleotides. Inhibits Wnt signaling

Plays a crucial role in coupling NGF stimulation to the activation of both EPHB2 and MAPK14 signaling pathways and in NGF- dependent neuronal differentiation. Involved in ELK1 transactivation through the Ras-MAPK signaling cascade that mediates a wide variety of cellular functions, including cell proliferation, survival, and differentiation.

Binds and exchanges GTP and GDP. Binds and modulates the activation of POU4F1 as gene expression regulator.

Tubulin-binding protein that acts as a negative regulator of Notch signaling pathway. Shuttles between the cytoplasm and the nucleus and mediates the nuclear export of RBPJ/RBPSUH, thereby preventing the interaction between RBPJ/RBPSUH and NICD product of Notch proteins (Notch intracellular domain), leading to down-regulate Notch-mediated transcription. May play a role in neurogenesis.

Component of the large ribosomal subunit. The ribosome is a large ribonucleoprotein complex responsible for the synthesis of proteins in the cell.

Testis-specific component of the ribosome, which is required for the transition from prophase to metaphase in male meiosis I (By similarity). Compensates for the inactivated X-linked RPL10 paralog during spermatogenesis. The ribosome is a large ribonucleoprotein complex responsible for the synthesis of proteins in the cell. The small ribosomal subunit (SSU) binds messenger RNAs (mRNAs) and translates the encoded message by selecting cognate aminoacyl-transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules. The large subunit (LSU) contains the ribosomal catalytic site termed the peptidyl transferase center (PTC), which catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds, thereby polymerizing the amino acids delivered by tRNAs into a polypeptide chain. The nascent polypeptides leave the ribosome through a tunnel in the LSU and interact with protein factors that function in enzymatic processing, targeting, and the membrane insertion of nascent chains at the exit of the ribosomal tunnel.

Component of the large ribosomal subunit. Plays a role in the formation of actively translating ribosomes. May play a role in the embryonic brain development.

Component of the ribosome, a large ribonucleoprotein complex responsible for the synthesis of proteins in the cell. The small ribosomal subunit (SSU) binds messenger RNAs (mRNAs) and translates the encoded message by selecting cognate aminoacyl-transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules. The large subunit (LSU) contains the ribosomal catalytic site termed the peptidyl transferase center (PTC), which catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds, thereby polymerizing the amino acids delivered by tRNAs into a polypeptide chain. The nascent polypeptides leave the ribosome through a tunnel in the LSU and interact with protein factors that function in enzymatic processing, targeting, and the membrane insertion of nascent chains at the exit of the ribosomal tunnel. As part of the 5S RNP/5S ribonucleoprotein particle it is an essential component of the LSU, required for its formation and the maturation of rRNAs. It also couples ribosome biogenesis to p53/TP53 activation. As part of the 5S RNP it accumulates in the nucleoplasm and inhibits MDM2, when ribosome biogenesis is perturbed, mediating the stabilization and the activation of TP53. Promotes nucleolar location of PML (By similarity).

Associated with ribosomes but is not required for canonical ribosome function and has extra-ribosomal functions. Component of the GAIT (gamma interferon-activated inhibitor of translation) complex which mediates interferon-gamma-induced transcript-selective translation inhibition in inflammation processes. Upon interferon-gamma activation and subsequent phosphorylation dissociates from the ribosome and assembles into the GAIT complex which binds to stem loop-containing GAIT elements in the 3'-UTR of diverse inflammatory mRNAs (such as ceruplasmin) and suppresses their translation. In the GAIT complex interacts with m7G cap-bound eIF4G at or near the eIF3-binding site and blocks the recruitment of the 43S ribosomal complex. Involved in methylation of rRNA.

Component of the ribosome, a large ribonucleoprotein complex responsible for the synthesis of proteins in the cell. The small ribosomal subunit (SSU) binds messenger RNAs (mRNAs) and translates the encoded message by selecting cognate aminoacyl-transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules (Probable). The large subunit (LSU) contains the ribosomal catalytic site termed the peptidyl transferase center (PTC), which catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds, thereby polymerizing the amino acids delivered by tRNAs into a polypeptide chain (Probable). The nascent polypeptides leave the ribosome through a tunnel in the LSU and interact with protein factors that function in enzymatic processing, targeting, and the membrane insertion of nascent chains at the exit of the ribosomal tunnel (Probable). As part of the LSU, it is probably required for its formation and the maturation of rRNAs. Plays a role in bone development.

Regulates cellular senescence through inhibition of PTEN translation. Acts as a pro-apoptotic regulator in response to DNA damage.

Component of the large ribosomal subunit. The ribosome is a large ribonucleoprotein complex responsible for the synthesis of proteins in the cell. Binds a specific region on the 26S rRNA. May promote p53/TP53 degradation possibly through the stimulation of MDM2-mediated TP53 polyubiquitination.

Component of the large ribosomal subunit. Required for proper rRNA processing and maturation of 28S and 5.8S rRNAs.

Component of the large ribosomal subunit. The ribosome is a large ribonucleoprotein complex responsible for the synthesis of proteins in the cell. Required for the proliferation and viability of hematopoietic cells.

RNA-binding component of the large ribosomal subunit. The ribosome is a large ribonucleoprotein complex responsible for the synthesis of proteins in the cell.

Receptor for RNL3/relaxin-3. Binding of the ligand inhibit cAMP accumulation.

High affinity receptor for INSL5. Also acts as receptor for RLN3/relaxin-3, as well as bradykinin and kallidin. Binding of the ligand inhibit cAMP accumulation.

[Ubiquitin]: Exists either covalently attached to another protein, or free (unanchored). When covalently bound, it is conjugated to target proteins via an isopeptide bond either as a monomer (monoubiquitin), a polymer linked via different Lys residues of the ubiquitin (polyubiquitin chains) or a linear polymer linked via the initiator Met of the ubiquitin (linear polyubiquitin chains). Polyubiquitin chains, when attached to a target protein, have different functions depending on the Lys residue of the ubiquitin that is linked: Lys-6-linked may be involved in DNA repair; Lys-11-linked is involved in ERAD (endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation) and in cell- cycle regulation; Lys-29-linked is involved in proteotoxic stress response and cell cycle; Lys-33-linked is involved in kinase modification; Lys-48-linked is involved in protein degradation via the proteasome; Lys-63-linked is involved in endocytosis, DNA-damage responses as well as in signaling processes leading to activation of the transcription factor NF-kappa-B. Linear polymer chains formed via attachment by the initiator Met lead to cell signaling. Ubiquitin is usually conjugated to Lys residues of target proteins, however, in rare cases, conjugation to Cys or Ser residues has been observed. When polyubiquitin is free (unanchored-polyubiquitin), it also has distinct roles, such as in activation of protein kinases, and in signaling.

Interacts with the beta subunit of protein kinase CKII and stimulates phosphorylation of DNA topoisomerase II alpha by CKII

Component of the ribosome, a large ribonucleoprotein complex responsible for the synthesis of proteins in the cell. The small ribosomal subunit (SSU) binds messenger RNAs (mRNAs) and translates the encoded message by selecting cognate aminoacyl-transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules. The large subunit (LSU) contains the ribosomal catalytic site termed the peptidyl transferase center (PTC), which catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds, thereby polymerizing the amino acids delivered by tRNAs into a polypeptide chain. The nascent polypeptides leave the ribosome through a tunnel in the LSU and interact with protein factors that function in enzymatic processing, targeting, and the membrane insertion of nascent chains at the exit of the ribosomal tunnel. As part of the 5S RNP/5S ribonucleoprotein particle it is an essential component of the LSU, required for its formation and the maturation of rRNAs. It also couples ribosome biogenesis to p53/TP53 activation. As part of the 5S RNP it accumulates in the nucleoplasm and inhibits MDM2, when ribosome biogenesis is perturbed, mediating the stabilization and the activation of TP53.

Component of the large ribosomal subunit. The ribosome is a large ribonucleoprotein complex responsible for the synthesis of proteins in the cell. Binds to G-rich structures in 28S rRNA and in mRNAs. Plays a regulatory role in the translation apparatus; inhibits cell-free translation of mRNAs.

Ribosomal protein P0 is the functional equivalent of E.coli protein L10

Plays an important role in the elongation step of protein synthesis

Soluble retinoid carrier essential the proper function of both rod and cone photoreceptors. Participates in the regeneration of active 11-cis-retinol and 11-cis-retinaldehyde, from the inactive 11- trans products of the rhodopsin photocycle and in the de novo synthesis of these retinoids from 11-trans metabolic precursors. The cycling of retinoids between photoreceptor and adjacent pigment epithelium cells is known as the 'visual cycle'.

Non-catalytic subunit of the heterodimeric RalGAP1 and RalGAP2 complexes which act as GTPase activators for the Ras-like small GTPases RALA and RALB.

Involved in the biogenesis of the 60S ribosomal subunit. Ensures the docking of GTPBP4/NOG1 to pre-60S particles (By similarity).

As a component of the mitochondrial large ribosomal subunit, it plays a role in mitochondrial translation. Associates with mitochondrial RNA polymerase to activate transcription.

Forms part of 2 intersubunit bridges in the assembled ribosome. Upon binding to MALSU1 intersubunit bridge formation is blocked, preventing ribosome formation and repressing translation (Probable).

Together with thiosulfate sulfurtransferase (TST), acts as a mitochondrial import factor for the cytosolic 5S rRNA. The precursor form shows RNA chaperone activity; is able to fold the 5S rRNA into an import-competent conformation that is recognized by rhodanese (TST). Both the cytoplasmic and mitochondrial forms are able to bind to the helix IV-loop D in the gamma domain of the 5S rRNA.

Component of the mitochondrial ribosome large subunit. Also involved in apoptosis and cell cycle. Enhances p53/TP53 stability, thereby contributing to p53/TP53-induced apoptosis in response to growth-inhibitory condition. Enhances p53/TP53 translocation to the mitochondria. Has the ability to arrest the cell cycle at the G1 phase, possibly by stabilizing the CDKN1A and CDKN1B (p27Kip1) proteins.

Component of the 39S subunit of mitochondrial ribosome. May have a function in the assembly/stability of nascent mitochondrial polypeptides exiting the ribosome.

Componement of the CCZ1-MON1 RAB7A guanine exchange factor (GEF). Acts as a positive regulator of CCZ1-MON1A/B function necessary for endosomal/autophagic flux and efficient RAB7A localization.

Involved in cellular calcium homeostasis regulation. May participate in differentiation and apoptosis of keratinocytes. Overexpression induces apoptosis.

Core component of the CTLH E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that selectively accepts ubiquitin from UBE2H and mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of the transcription factor HBP1. MAEA and RMND5A are both required for catalytic activity of the CTLH E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex. Catalytic activity of the complex is required for normal cell proliferation. The CTLH E3 ubiquitin- protein ligase complex is not required for the degradation of enzymes involved in gluconeogenesis, such as FBP1.

Essential component of the RMI complex, a complex that plays an important role in the processing of homologous recombination intermediates to limit DNA crossover formation in cells. Promotes TOP3A binding to double Holliday junctions (DHJ) and hence stimulates TOP3A- mediated dissolution. Required for BLM phosphorylation during mitosis. Within the BLM complex, required for BLM and TOP3A stability.

Essential component of the RMI complex, a complex that plays an important role in the processing of homologous recombination intermediates. It is required to regulate sister chromatid segregation and to limit DNA crossover. Essential for the stability, localization, and function of BLM, TOP3A, and complexes containing BLM. In the RMI complex, it is required to target BLM to chromatin and stress-induced nuclear foci and mitotic phosphorylation of BLM.

Required for mitochondrial translation, possibly by coordinating the assembly or maintenance of the mitochondrial ribosome.

Involved in gene transcription regulation. Acts as a transcriptional repressor in concert with the corepressor UXT to regulate androgen receptor (AR) transcription. May act as a tumor suppressor to repress AR-mediated gene transcription and to inhibit anchorage-independent growth in prostate cancer cells. Required for cell survival in ovarian cancer cells. Together with UXT, associates with chromatin to the NKX3-1 promoter region. Antagonizes transcriptional modulation via hepatitis B virus X protein

Acts as an E2-dependent E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase, probably involved in the ER-associated protein degradation pathway.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Required for mesoderm patterning during embryonic development (By similarity). Acts as an enhancer of the transcriptional responses of the SMAD2/SMAD3 effectors, which are activated downstream of BMP. Acts by mediating ubiquitination and degradation of SMAD inhibitors such as SMAD7, inducing their proteasomal degradation and thereby enhancing the transcriptional activity of TGF-beta and BMP. In addition to enhance transcription of SMAD2/SMAD3 effectors, also regulates their turnover by mediating their ubiquitination and subsequent degradation, coupling their activation with degradation, thereby ensuring that only effectors 'in use' are degraded (By similarity). Activates SMAD3/SMAD4-dependent transcription by triggering signal-induced degradation of SNON isoform of SKIL. Associates with UBE2D2 as an E2 enzyme. Specifically binds polysumoylated chains via SUMO interaction motifs (SIMs) and mediates ubiquitination of sumoylated substrates. Catalyzes 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of sumoylated XPC in response to UV irradiation, promoting nucleotide excision repair. Mediates ubiquitination and degradation of sumoylated PML (By similarity). The regulation of the BMP-SMAD signaling is however independent of sumoylation and is not dependent of SUMO interaction motifs (SIMs) (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that plays an important role in neuronal differentiation, including neurogenesis and gliogenesis, during brain development. During embryonic development initiates neuronal differentiation by inducing cell cycle arrest at the G0/G1 phase through up-regulation of cell-cycle regulatory proteins. Plays a role not only in the fetal period during the development of the nervous system, but also in the adult brain, where it is involved in the maintenance of neural functions and protection of the nervous tissue cells from oxidative stress-induced damage. Exhibits GTPase and E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activities. Regulates dendritic spine density and synaptic neurotransmission; its ability to hydrolyze GTP is involved in the maintenance of dendritic spine density (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that promotes the ubiquitination of various substrates. In turn, participates in the regulation of many biological processes including cell cycle, apoptosis, osteoclastogenesis as well as innate or adaptive immunity. Acts as negative regulator of NF-kappa-B-dependent transcription by promoting the ubiquitination and stabilization of the NF-kappa-B inhibitor TNFAIP3. May promote the ubiquitination of TRAF6 as well. Acts also as a negative regulator of T-cell activation. Inhibits cellular dsRNA responses and interferon production by targeting MAVS component for proteasomal degradation. Ubiquitinates the CDK inhibitor CDKN1A leading to its degradationand probably also CDKN1B and CDKN1C. This activity stimulates cell cycle G1-to-S phase transition and suppresses cellular senescence. May play a role in spermatogenesis.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates E2-dependent, 'Lys- 48'- and/or 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of substrates and may play a role in diverse biological processes. Through their polyubiquitination, may play a role in the endosomal trafficking and degradation of membrane receptors including EGFR, FLT3, MET and CXCR4.

May induce necrosis and apoptosis. May play a role in cell viability.

Catalytic subunit of the KPC complex that acts as E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Promotes the ubiquitination and proteasome- mediated degradation of CDKN1B which is the cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor at the G0-G1 transition of the cell cycle. Functions also as an inhibitor of innate antiviral signaling mediated by RIGI and IFIH1 independently of its E3 ligase activity. Interacts with the N-terminal CARD domains of RIGI and IFIH1 and competes with the downstream adapter MAVS.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins, such as RIGI, MAVS/IPS1, IFIH1/MDA5, JAK1 and p53/TP53. Acts as a negative regulator of type I interferon production by mediating ubiquitination of RIGI at 'Lys- 181', leading to RIGI degradation. Mediates ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of p53/TP53. Mediates ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of JAK1. Acts as a positive regulator of T-cell activation.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination oF target proteins. Depending on the associated E2 ligase, mediates 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'- linked polyubiquitination of substrates (By similarity). Part of a BAG6-dependent quality control process ensuring that proteins of the secretory pathway that are mislocalized to the cytosol are degraded by the proteasome. Probably acts by providing the ubiquitin ligase activity associated with the BAG6 complex and be responsible for ubiquitination of the hydrophobic mislocalized proteins and their targeting to the proteasome. May also play a role in the endosomal recycling of IGF2R, the cation- independent mannose-6-phosphate receptor. May play a role in the endosomal sorting and degradation of several membrane receptors including EGFR, FLT3, MET and CXCR4, by mediating their ubiquitination. By ubiquitinating CDKN1A/p21 and targeting it for degradation, may also promote cell proliferation. May monoubiquitinate AICDA.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that catalyzes 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains formation. Functions as an inhibitor of cytokine gene transcription. Inhibits IL2 and IL4 transcription, thereby playing an important role in the induction of the anergic phenotype, a long-term stable state of T-lymphocyte unresponsiveness to antigenic stimulation associated with the blockade of interleukin production. Ubiquitinates ARPC5 with 'Lys-48' linkages and COR1A with 'Lys-63' linkages leading to their degradation, down- regulation of these cytosleletal components results in impaired lamellipodium formation and reduced accumulation of F-actin at the immunological synapse. Functions in the patterning of the dorsal ectoderm; sensitizes ectoderm to respond to neural-inducing signals.

E2-dependent E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that functions as a RIGI coreceptor in the sensing of viral RNAs in cell cytoplasm and the activation of the antiviral innate immune response. Together with the UBE2D3, UBE2N and UB2V1 E2 ligases, catalyzes the 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of RIGI oligomerized on viral RNAs, an essential step in the activation of the RIG-I signaling pathway. Through a ubiquitin-independent parallel mechanism, which consists in bridging RIGI filaments forming on longer viral RNAs, further activates the RIG-I signaling pathway. This second mechanism that synergizes with the ubiquitin-dependent one would thereby allow an RNA length-dependent regulation of the RIG-I signaling pathway (Probable). Associated with the E2 ligase UBE2N, also constitutively synthesizes unanchored 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains that may also activate the RIG-I signaling pathway.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase involved in DNA damage response by promoting DNA resection and homologous recombination. Recruited to sites of double-strand breaks following DNA damage and specifically promotes double-strand break repair via homologous recombination. Two different, non-exclusive, mechanisms have been proposed. According to a report, regulates the choice of double-strand break repair by favoring homologous recombination over non-homologous end joining (NHEJ): acts by mediating ubiquitination of XRCC5/Ku80, leading to remove the Ku complex from DNA breaks, thereby promoting homologous recombination. According to another report, cooperates with UBE2Ds E2 ubiquitin ligases (UBE2D1, UBE2D2, UBE2D3 or UBE2D4) to promote homologous recombination by mediating ubiquitination of RBBP8/CtIP. Together with NLK, involved in the ubiquitination and degradation of TCF/LEF. Also exhibits auto-ubiquitination activity in combination with UBE2K. May act as a negative regulator in the Wnt/beta-catenin-mediated signaling pathway.

E3-ubiquitin ligase; acts as a negative regulator of cell proliferation through mechanisms involving G2/M arrest and cell death. Required for MHC class I ubiquitination in cells expressing the cytomegalovirus protein US2 before dislocation from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Affects SREBP processing by hindering the SREBP-SCAP complex translocation from the ER to the Golgi, thereby reducing SREBF2 target gene expression. Involved in the sterol-accelerated degradation of HMGCR. This is achieved through binding of RNF139 to INSIG1 and/or INSIG2 at the ER membrane. In addition, interaction of RNF139 with AUP1 facilitates interaction of RNF139 with ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme UBE2G2 and ubiquitin ligase AMFR, leading to ubiquitination of HMGCR. The ubiquitinated HMGCR is then released from the ER into the cytosol for subsequent destruction. Required for INSIG1 ubiquitination. May be required for EIF3 complex ubiquitination.

E3 ubiquitin ligase that catalyzes the direct transfer of ubiquitin from E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme to a specific substrate. In response to bacterial infection, negatively regulates the phagocyte oxidative burst by controlling the turnover of the NADPH oxidase complex subunits. Promotes monoubiquitination of CYBA and 'Lys-48'- linked polyubiquitination and degradation of CYBB NADPH oxidase catalytic subunits, both essential for the generation of antimicrobial reactive oxygen species. Involved in the maintenance of cholesterol homeostasis. In response to high sterol concentrations ubiquitinates HMGCR, a rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis, and targets it for degradation. The interaction with INSIG1 is required for this function. In addition, triggers ubiquitination of SCAP, likely inhibiting its transport to the Golgi apparatus and the subsequent processing/maturation of SREBPF2, ultimately down-regulating cholesterol biosynthesis.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that specifically binds poly-ADP- ribosylated (PARsylated) proteins and mediates their ubiquitination and subsequent degradation. May regulate many important biological processes, such as cell survival and DNA damage response. Acts as an activator of the Wnt signaling pathway by mediating the ubiquitination of PARsylated AXIN1 and AXIN2, 2 key components of the beta-catenin destruction complex. Acts in cooperation with tankyrase proteins (TNKS and TNKS2), which mediate PARsylation of target proteins AXIN1, AXIN2, BLZF1, CASC3, TNKS and TNKS2. Recognizes and binds tankyrase-dependent PARsylated proteins via its WWE domain and mediates their ubiquitination, leading to their degradation. Different ubiquitin linkage types have been observed: TNKS2 undergoes ubiquitination at 'Lys-48' and 'Lys-63', while AXIN1 is only ubiquitinated at 'Lys-48'. May regulate TNKS and TNKS2 subcellular location, preventing aggregation at a centrosomal location. Neuroprotective protein. Protects the brain against N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor- mediated glutamate excitotoxicity and ischemia, by interfering with PAR-induced cell death, called parthanatos (By similarity). Prevents nuclear translocation of AIFM1 in a PAR-binding dependent manner (By similarity). Does not affect PARP1 activation (By similarity). Protects against cell death induced by DNA damaging agents, such as N-methyl-N- nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine (MNNG) and rescues cells from G1 arrest (By similarity). Promotes cell survival after gamma-irradiation. Facilitates DNA repair.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Ubiquitinates BRAF, inducing its proteasomal degradation.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase mediating 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of RRAGA in response to amino acid starvation. Thereby, regulates mTORC1 signaling and plays a role in the cellular response to amino acid availability. Also mediates 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination of target proteins and their subsequent targeting to the proteasome for degradation. Induces apoptosis when overexpressed.

E3 ubiquitin ligase that ubiquitinates APBB1 for its degradation by the proteasome and thus prevents apoptosis and promotes survival of neurons. Has a dual role in neurons as it is also required for dendrite growth and maintenance for which its ligase activity is not critical. May act as a scaffold molecule to regulate this process. Acts as a downstream effector of the interconnected PI3K and MAPK signaling pathways and thus participates in the regulation of the cell cycle.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that acts as a regulator of motor axon elongation. Required for efficient motor axon extension in the dorsal forelimb by enhancing the transcriptional responses of the SMAD1/SMAD5/SMAD8 effectors, which are activated downstream of BMP. Acts by mediating ubiquitination and degradation of SMAD inhibitors such as SMAD6, SMAD7, SKI and SNON isoform of SKIL.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that promotes the ubiquitination of different substrates. In turn, participates in different biological processes including interferon production or autophagy. Plays a role in the activation of RNA virus-induced interferon-beta production by promoting the ubiquitination of TRAF3 and TRAF6. Also plays a role in the early recruitment of autophagy adapters to bacteria. Mediates 'Lys-29' and 'Lys-33'-linked ubiquitination of SQSTM1 leading to xenophagic targeting of bacteria and inhibition of their replication.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that acts as a regulator of the TORC1 signaling pathway. Positively regulates the TORC1 signaling pathway independently of arginine levels: acts by catalyzing 'Lys-29'-polyubiquitination and degradation of CASTOR1, releasing the GATOR2 complex from CASTOR1. Also negatively regulates the TORC1 signaling pathway in response to leucine deprivation: acts by mediating 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of SESN2, promoting SESN2-interaction with the GATOR2 complex. Also involved in protein trafficking and localization. Acts as a regulator of synaptic transmission by mediating ubiquitination and degradation of AMPAR receptor GluA2/GRIA2. Does not catalyze ubiquitination of GluA1/GRIA1. Also acts as a regulator of the recycling endosome pathway by mediating ubiquitination of VAMP3. Regulates lysosome positioning by catalyzing ubiquitination and degradation of ARL8B. Plays a role in growth regulation involved in G1/S transition by mediating, possibly by mediating ubiquitination of SLC22A18. Acts with a limited set of E2 enzymes, such as UBE2D1 and UBE2N.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase required for accumulation of repair proteins to sites of DNA damage. Acts with UBE2N/UBC13 to amplify the RNF8-dependent histone ubiquitination. Recruited to sites of DNA damage at double-strand breaks (DSBs) by binding to ubiquitinated histone H2A and H2AX and amplifies the RNF8-dependent H2A ubiquitination, promoting the formation of 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin conjugates. This leads to concentrate ubiquitinated histones H2A and H2AX at DNA lesions to the threshold required for recruitment of TP53BP1 and BRCA1. Also recruited at DNA interstrand cross-links (ICLs) sites and promotes accumulation of 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of histones H2A and H2AX, leading to recruitment of FAAP20/C1orf86 and Fanconi anemia (FA) complex, followed by interstrand cross-link repair. H2A ubiquitination also mediates the ATM-dependent transcriptional silencing at regions flanking DSBs in cis, a mechanism to avoid collision between transcription and repair intermediates. Also involved in class switch recombination in immune system, via its role in regulation of DSBs repair. Following DNA damage, promotes the ubiquitination and degradation of JMJD2A/KDM4A in collaboration with RNF8, leading to unmask H4K20me2 mark and promote the recruitment of TP53BP1 at DNA damage sites. Not able to initiate 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination in vitro; possibly due to partial occlusion of the UBE2N/UBC13-binding region. Catalyzes monoubiquitination of 'Lys-13' and 'Lys-15' of nucleosomal histone H2A (H2AK13Ub and H2AK15Ub, respectively).

Probable E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that acts as a regulator of double-strand breaks (DSBs) repair following DNA damage. Functions in a non-canonical fashion to harness RNF168-mediated protein recruitment to DSB-containing chromatin, thereby contributing to regulation of DSB repair pathway utilization. Once recruited to DSB repair sites by recognizing and binding ubiquitin catalyzed by RNF168, competes with TP53BP1 and BRCA1 for association with RNF168-modified chromatin, thereby favouring homologous recombination repair (HRR) and single-strand annealing (SSA) instead of non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) mediated by TP53BP1. E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity is not required for regulation of DSBs repair.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that plays an essential role in stimulus-induced inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate receptor type 1 (ITPR1) ubiquitination and degradation via the endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) pathway. Also involved in ITPR1 turnover in resting cells.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which promotes polyubiquitination and degradation by the proteasome pathway of ZIC2.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Catalyzes monoubiquitination of 26S proteasome subunit PSMC2/RPT1.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates the ubiquitination of ATP6V0C and targets it to degradation via the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway. Also plays a role in the inhibition of TLR- triggered innate immune response by mediating 'Lys'-48-linked ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of NF-kappa-B component RELA.

Acts as a E3 ubiquitin ligase catalyzing the covalent attachment of ubiquitin moieties onto substrate proteins. Triggers apoptosis in response to prolonged ER stress by mediating the polyubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of BCL2L1. May collaborate with FATE1 to restrain BIK protein levels thus regulating apoptotic signaling.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that regulates selective mitochondrial autophagy by mediating 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of BNIP1. Acts in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)- associated degradation (ERAD) pathway, which targets misfolded proteins that accumulate in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) for ubiquitination and subsequent proteasome-mediated degradation. Protects cells from ER stress-induced apoptosis. Responsible for the cotranslational ubiquitination and degradation of CFTR in the ERAD pathway. Also acts as a regulator of the innate antiviral response by catalyzing 'Lys-27'-linked polyubiquitination of CGAS at 'Lys-173' and 'Lys-384', thereby promoting CGAS cyclic GMP-AMP synthase activity. Preferentially associates with the E2 enzymes UBE2J1 and UBE2J2.

E3 ubiquitin protein ligase that is part of an apoptotic signaling pathway activated by endoplasmic reticulum stress. Stimulates the expression of proteins specific of the unfolded protein response (UPR), ubiquitinates BNIP1 and regulates its localization to the mitochondrion and induces calcium release from the endoplasmic reticulum that ultimately leads to cell apoptosis. Plays a role in the maintenance of intestinal homeostasis and clearance of enteric pathogens. Upon NOD2 stimulation, ubiquitinates the ER stress sensor activating transcription factor 6/ATF6 and promotes the unfolded protein response UPR. Participates in basal level of autophagy maintenance by regulating the ubiquitination of EPHB2 and EPHB3. Upon stimulation by ligand EFNB1, ubiquitinates EPHB2 and further recruits MAP1LC3B for autophagy induction. Controls nutrient sensing by ubiquitinating Sestrin-2/SESN2, which is an intracellular sensor of cytosolic leucine and inhibitor of mTORC1 activity.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that acts as a coactivator of JUN-mediated gene activation in response to growth factor signaling via the MAP3K1 pathway, independently from MAPK8.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes UBE2L3 and UBE2L6 in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates, such as SNCAIP or CASR. Specifically ubiquitinates pathogenic SOD1 variants, which leads to their proteasomal degradation and to neuronal protection.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes UBE2L3 and UBE2L6 in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates, such as UCKL1. Involved in the cytolytic activity of natural killer cells and cytotoxic T-cells. Protects against staurosporin-induced cell death.

Plays a role in cardiac repolarization possibly by stabilizing membrane expression of the potassium channel KCNH2/HERG, or by assisting its synthesis, folding or export from the endoplasmic reticulum, in a heat shock protein-dependent manner.

SUMO E3 ligase that acts as a regulator of crossing-over during meiosis: required to couple chromosome synapsis to the formation of crossover-specific recombination complexes. Localizes to recombination sites and stabilizes meiosis-specific recombination factors, such as MutS-gamma complex proteins (MSH4 and MSH5) and TEX11. May mediate sumoylation of target proteins MSH4 and/or MSH5, leading to enhance their binding to recombination sites. Acts as a limiting factor for crossover designation and/or reinforcement and plays an antagonist role with CCNB1IP1/HEI10 in the regulation of meiotic recombination (By similarity).

Isoform 1 acts as an E3 ubiquitin ligase, which accepts ubiquitin from specific E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes, and then transfers it to substrates promoting their degradation by the proteasome. Promotes degradation of TRAF3, TLR4 and TLR9. Contributes to the regulation of antiviral responses. Down-regulates activation of NF-kappa-B, IRF3 activation and IFNB production. Isoform 3 inhibits TNF and IL-1 mediated activation of NF-kappa-B. Promotes TNF and RIP mediated apoptosis.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Mediates the degradation of the iron exporter ferroportin/SLC40A1 and thus regulates iron homeostasis.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that promotes the ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of SIN3B (By similarity). Independently of its E3 ligase activity, acts as a CTNNB1 stabilizer through USP7- mediated deubiquitination of CTNNB1 promoting Wnt signaling. Plays a critical role in the regulation of nuclear lamina.

Endoribonuclease that functions in the interferon (IFN) antiviral response. In INF treated and virus infected cells, RNASEL probably mediates its antiviral effects through a combination of direct cleavage of single-stranded viral RNAs, inhibition of protein synthesis through the degradation of rRNA, induction of apoptosis, and induction of other antiviral genes. RNASEL mediated apoptosis is the result of a JNK-dependent stress-response pathway leading to cytochrome c release from mitochondria and caspase-dependent apoptosis. Therefore, activation of RNASEL could lead to elimination of virus infected cells under some circumstances. In the crosstalk between autophagy and apoptosis proposed to induce autophagy as an early stress response to small double-stranded RNA and at later stages of prolonged stress to activate caspase-dependent proteolytic cleavage of BECN1 to terminate autophagy and promote apoptosis. Might play a central role in the regulation of mRNA turnover. Cleaves 3' of UpNp dimers, with preference for UU and UA sequences, to sets of discrete products ranging from between 4 and 22 nucleotides in length.

Endonuclease that catalyzes the cleavage of RNA on the 3' side of pyrimidine nucleotides. Acts on single-stranded and double- stranded RNA.

This is a non-secretory ribonuclease. It is a pyrimidine specific nuclease with a slight preference for U. Cytotoxin and helminthotoxin. Selectively chemotactic for dendritic cells. Possesses a wide variety of biological activities.

This RNase has marked specificity towards the 3' side of uridine nucleotides

Ribonuclease which shows a preference for the pyrimidines uridine and cytosine. Has potent antibacterial activity against a range of Gram-positive and Gram- negative bacteria, including P.aeruginosa, A.baumanii, M.luteus, S.aureus, E.faecalis, E.faecium, S.saprophyticus and E.coli. Causes loss of bacterial membrane integrity, and also promotes agglutination of Gram-negative bacteria. Probably contributes to urinary tract sterility. Bactericidal activity is independent of RNase activity.

Exhibits a potent RNase activity. Has broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity against many pathogenic microorganisms and remarkably potent activity (lethal dose of 90% < 30 nM) against a vancomycin resistant Enterococcus faecium. Causes loss of bacterial membrane integrity. Probably contributes to urinary tract sterility. Bactericidal activity is independent of RNase activity.

Nuclear export factor for BMP-specific SMAD1/5/8 that plays a critical role in terminating BMP signaling and regulating mesenchymal stem cell differentiation by blocking osteoblast differentiation to promote myogenic differention. Directly recognizes dephosphorylated SMAD1/5/8 and mediates their nuclear export in a Ran-dependent manner.

May function in nuclear protein import as nuclear transport receptor

Ribonuclease III double-stranded (ds) RNA-specific endoribonuclease that is involved in the initial step of microRNA (miRNA) biogenesis. Component of the microprocessor complex that is required to process primary miRNA transcripts (pri-miRNAs) to release precursor miRNA (pre-miRNA) in the nucleus. Within the microprocessor complex, DROSHA cleaves the 3' and 5' strands of a stem-loop in pri- miRNAs (processing center 11 bp from the dsRNA-ssRNA junction) to release hairpin-shaped pre-miRNAs that are subsequently cut by the cytoplasmic DICER to generate mature miRNAs. Involved also in pre-rRNA processing. Cleaves double-strand RNA and does not cleave single-strand RNA. Involved in the formation of GW bodies.

Lacks intrinsic GTPase activity. Has a low affinity for GDP, and constitutively binds GTP. Controls rearrangements of the actin cytoskeleton. Induces the Rac-dependent neuritic process formation in part by disruption of the cortical actin filaments. Causes the formation of many neuritic processes from the cell body with disruption of the cortical actin filaments.

May be specifically involved in neuronal and hepatic functions. Is a C3 toxin-insensitive member of the Rho subfamily (By similarity).

Binds GTP but lacks intrinsic GTPase activity and is resistant to Rho-specific GTPase-activating proteins

Transcriptional factor involved in the regulation of MAG (Myelin-associated glycoprotein) expression. Acts as a regulator of Schwann cell differentiation and myelination.

Essential component of a ubiquitin-editing protein complex, comprising also TNFAIP3, ITCH and TAX1BP1, that ensures the transient nature of inflammatory signaling pathways. Promotes the association of TNFAIP3 to RIPK1 after TNF stimulation. TNFAIP3 deubiquitinates 'Lys- 63' polyubiquitin chains on RIPK1 and catalyzes the formation of 'Lys- 48'-polyubiquitin chains. This leads to RIPK1 proteasomal degradation and consequently termination of the TNF- or LPS-mediated activation of NF-kappa-B. Recruits STAMBP to the E3 ubiquitin-ligase SMURF2 for ubiquitination, leading to its degradation by the 26S proteasome.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Acts as a negative coregulator for LIM homeodomain transcription factors by mediating the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of LIM cofactors LDB1 and LDB2 and by mediating the recruitment the SIN3a/histone deacetylase corepressor complex. Ubiquitination and degradation of LIM cofactors LDB1 and LDB2 allows DNA-bound LIM homeodomain transcription factors to interact with other protein partners such as RLIM. Plays a role in telomere length-mediated growth suppression by mediating the ubiquitination and degradation of TERF1. By targeting ZFP42 for degradation, acts as an activator of random inactivation of X chromosome in the embryo, a stochastic process in which one X chromosome is inactivated to minimize sex-related dosage differences of X-encoded genes in somatic cells of female placental mammals.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that regulates cell proliferation. Involved in apoptosis regulation. Mediates ER stress-induced activation of JNK signaling pathway and apoptosis by promoting ERN1 activation and splicing of XBP1 mRNA. Also involved in protein trafficking and localization.

Might act as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from specific E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes and then transfers it to substrates, which could be nuclear proteins. Could play a role as a coactivator for androgen- and, to a lesser extent, progesterone-dependent transcription.

Seems to be involved in regulation of transcriptional activity of MYC. In vitro, inhibits DNA-binding activity of Mad-MAX heterodimers. Can recruit Mad transcriptional repressors (MXD1, MXD3, MXD4 and MXI1) to the cytoplasm. May be involved in spermiogenesis (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of NKD2 (By similarity). Stimulates transcription mediated by NF-kappa-B.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that plays a key role in endosome organization by retaining vesicles in the perinuclear cloud. Acts as a platform for perinuclear positioning of the endosomal system by mediating ubiquitination of SQSTM1 through interaction with the ubiquitin conjugating enzyme UBE2J1. Ubiquitinated SQSTM1 attracts specific vesicle-associated adapters, forming a molecular bridge that restrains cognate vesicles in the perinuclear region and organizes the endosomal pathway for efficient cargo transport. Also acts as a regulator of type I interferon production in response to viral infection by mediating the formation of 'Lys-11'-linked polyubiquitin chains on TMEM173/STING, leading to stabilize TMEM173/STING. Also required to limit type I interferon response by promoting autophagic degradation of IRF3.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase component of the LUBAC complex which conjugates linear ('Met-1'-linked) polyubiquitin chains to substrates and plays a key role in NF-kappa-B activation and regulation of inflammation. LUBAC conjugates linear polyubiquitin to IKBKG and RIPK1 and is involved in activation of the canonical NF-kappa-B and the JNK signaling pathways. Linear ubiquitination mediated by the LUBAC complex interferes with TNF- induced cell death and thereby prevents inflammation. LUBAC is recruited to the TNF-R1 signaling complex (TNF-RSC) following polyubiquitination of TNF-RSC components by BIRC2 and/or BIRC3 and to conjugate linear polyubiquitin to IKBKG and possibly other components contributing to the stability of the complex. The LUBAC complex is also involved in innate immunity by conjugating linear polyubiquitin chains at the surface of bacteria invading the cytosol to form the ubiquitin coat surrounding bacteria. LUBAC is not able to initiate formation of the bacterial ubiquitin coat, and can only promote formation of linear polyubiquitins on pre-existing ubiquitin. Recruited to the surface of bacteria by RNF213, which initiates the bacterial ubiquitin coat. The bacterial ubiquitin coat acts as an 'eat-me' signal for xenophagy and promotes NF-kappa-B activation. Together with OTULIN, the LUBAC complex regulates the canonical Wnt signaling during angiogenesis. RNF31 is required for linear ubiquitination of BCL10, thereby promoting TCR-induced NF-kappa- B activation. Binds polyubiquitin of different linkage types.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that regulates several biological processes through the ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation of various target proteins. Ubiquitinates the caspases CASP8 and CASP10, promoting their proteasomal degradation, to negatively regulate cell death downstream of death domain receptors in the extrinsic pathway of apoptosis. May mediate 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination of RIPK1 and its subsequent proteasomal degradation thereby indirectly regulating the tumor necrosis factor-mediated signaling pathway (Ref.13). Negatively regulates p53/TP53 through its direct ubiquitination and targeting to proteasomal degradation. Indirectly, may also negatively regulate p53/TP53 through ubiquitination and degradation of SFN. Mediates PPARGC1A proteasomal degradation probably through ubiquitination thereby indirectly regulating the metabolism of brown fat cells. Possibly involved in innate immunity, through 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination of NOD1 and its subsequent proteasomal degradation.

May have a ubiquitin-protein ligase activity acting as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase or as a ubiquitin-ubiquitin ligase promoting elongation of ubiquitin chains on substrates.

Acts as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase able to ubiquitinate p53/TP53 which promotes its relocalization to discrete foci associated with PML nuclear bodies. Exhibits preference for UBE2D2 as a E2 enzyme.

May play a role in prolonged long term-potentiation (LTP) maintenance.

Acts as E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase and regulates the degradation of target proteins. Polyubiquitinates MYD88. Negatively regulates MYD88-dependent production of pro-inflammatory cytokines. Can promote TRIF-dependent production of type I interferon and inhibits infection with vesicular stomatitis virus (By similarity). Promotes also activation of TBK1 and IRF3. Involved in the ubiquitination of erythropoietin (EPO) and interleukin-3 (IL-3) receptors. Thus, through maintaining basal levels of cytokine receptors, RNF41 is involved in the control of hematopoietic progenitor cell differentiation into myeloerythroid lineages (By similarity). Contributes to the maintenance of steady-state ERBB3 levels by mediating its growth factor-independent degradation. Involved in the degradation of the inhibitor of apoptosis BIRC6 and thus is an important regulator of cell death by promoting apoptosis. Acts also as a PRKN modifier that accelerates its degradation, resulting in a reduction of PRKN activity, influencing the balance of intracellular redox state. The RNF41-PRKN pathway regulates autophagosome-lysosome fusion during late mitophagy. Mitophagy is a selective form of autophagy necessary for mitochondrial quality control.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that acts as a negative regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway by mediating the ubiquitination, endocytosis and subsequent degradation of Wnt receptor complex components Frizzled. Acts on both canonical and non-canonical Wnt signaling pathway. Along with RSPO2 and ZNRF3, constitutes a master switch that governs limb specification (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which binds polysumoylated chains covalently attached to proteins and mediates 'Lys-6'-, 'Lys-11'-, 'Lys- 48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of those substrates and their subsequent targeting to the proteasome for degradation. Regulates the degradation of several proteins including PML and the transcriptional activator PEA3. Involved in chromosome alignment and spindle assembly, it regulates the kinetochore CENPH-CENPI-CENPK complex by targeting polysumoylated CENPI to proteasomal degradation. Regulates the cellular responses to hypoxia and heat shock through degradation of respectively EPAS1 and PARP1. Alternatively, it may also bind DNA/nucleosomes and have a more direct role in the regulation of transcription for instance enhancing basal transcription and steroid receptor-mediated transcriptional activation. Catalyzes ubiquitination of sumoylated PARP1 in response to PARP1 trapping to chromatin, leading to PARP1 removal from chromatin by VCP/p97.

Membrane-bound E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination of target proteins. May function together with E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes UBE2D1/UBCH5A and UBE2D2/UBC4. Mediates ubiquitination of PXN/paxillin,thereby regulating cell motility and localization of PXN/paxillin. Catalyzes ubiquitination of Salmonella type III secreted protein sopA. Mediates the 'Lys- 63'-linked polyubiquitination of JKAMP thereby regulating JKAMP function by decreasing its association with components of the proteasome and ERAD; the ubiquitination appears to involve E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme UBE2N. Mediates the 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination of STING1 at 'Lys-150' leading to its proteasomal degradation; the ubiquitination occurs in mitochondria after viral transfection and regulates antiviral responses. Catalyzes ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of ATG4B, thereby inhibiting autophagy.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase mediating 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination of LIMK1 and its subsequent targeting to the proteasome for degradation. Negatively regulates axonal outgrowth through regulation of the LIMK1 turnover. Mediates 'Lys-6' and 'Lys- 27'-linked polyubiquitination of AR/androgen receptor thereby modulating its transcriptional activity. May also bind DNA and function as a transcriptional regulator.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that plays a key role in DNA damage signaling via 2 distinct roles: by mediating the 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of histones H2A and H2AX and promoting the recruitment of DNA repair proteins at double-strand breaks (DSBs) sites, and by catalyzing 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitination to remove target proteins from DNA damage sites. Following DNA DSBs, it is recruited to the sites of damage by ATM-phosphorylated MDC1 and catalyzes the 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of histones H2A and H2AX, thereby promoting the formation of TP53BP1 and BRCA1 ionizing radiation-induced foci (IRIF). Also controls the recruitment of UIMC1-BRCC3 (RAP80-BRCC36) and PAXIP1/PTIP to DNA damage sites. Also recruited at DNA interstrand cross-links (ICLs) sites and catalyzes 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of histones H2A and H2AX, leading to recruitment of FAAP20/C1orf86 and Fanconi anemia (FA) complex, followed by interstrand cross-link repair. H2A ubiquitination also mediates the ATM-dependent transcriptional silencing at regions flanking DSBs in cis, a mechanism to avoid collision between transcription and repair intermediates. Promotes the formation of 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains via interactions with the specific ubiquitin-conjugating UBE2N/UBC13 and ubiquitinates non- histone substrates such as PCNA. Substrates that are polyubiquitinated at 'Lys-63' are usually not targeted for degradation. Also catalyzes the formation of 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitin chains via interaction with the ubiquitin-conjugating UBE2L6/UBCH8, leading to degradation of substrate proteins such as CHEK2, JMJD2A/KDM4A and KU80/XRCC5: it is still unclear how the preference toward 'Lys-48'- versus 'Lys-63'- linked ubiquitination is regulated but it could be due to RNF8 ability to interact with specific E2 specific ligases. For instance, interaction with phosphorylated HERC2 promotes the association between RNF8 and UBE2N/UBC13 and favors the specific formation of 'Lys-63'- linked ubiquitin chains. Promotes non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) by promoting the 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitination and degradation the of KU80/XRCC5. Following DNA damage, mediates the ubiquitination and degradation of JMJD2A/KDM4A in collaboration with RNF168, leading to unmask H4K20me2 mark and promote the recruitment of TP53BP1 at DNA damage sites. Following DNA damage, mediates the ubiquitination and degradation of POLD4/p12, a subunit of DNA polymerase delta. In the absence of POLD4, DNA polymerase delta complex exhibits higher proofreading activity. In addition to its function in damage signaling, also plays a role in higher-order chromatin structure by mediating extensive chromatin decondensation. Involved in the activation of ATM by promoting histone H2B ubiquitination, which indirectly triggers histone H4 'Lys-16' acetylation (H4K16ac), establishing a chromatin environment that promotes efficient activation of ATM kinase. Required in the testis, where it plays a role in the replacement of histones during spermatogenesis. At uncapped telomeres, promotes the joining of deprotected chromosome ends by inducing H2A ubiquitination and TP53BP1 recruitment, suggesting that it may enhance cancer development by aggravating telomere-induced genome instability in case of telomeric crisis. Promotes the assembly of RAD51 at DNA DSBs in the absence of BRCA1 and TP53BP1 Also involved in class switch recombination in immune system, via its role in regulation of DSBs repair. May be required for proper exit from mitosis after spindle checkpoint activation and may regulate cytokinesis. May play a role in the regulation of RXRA-mediated transcriptional activity. Not involved in RXRA ubiquitination by UBE2E2.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that acts in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-associated degradation (ERAD) pathway, which targets misfolded proteins that accumulate in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) for ubiquitination and subsequent proteasome-mediated degradation. Protects cells from ER stress-induced apoptosis.

Endonuclease that specifically degrades the RNA of RNA-DNA hybrids. Plays a role in RNA polymerase II (RNAp II) transcription termination by degrading R-loop RNA-DNA hybrid formation at G-rich pause sites located downstream of the poly(A) site and behind the elongating RNAp II.

Catalytic subunit of RNase HII, an endonuclease that specifically degrades the RNA of RNA:DNA hybrids. Participates in DNA replication, possibly by mediating the removal of lagging-strand Okazaki fragment RNA primers during DNA replication. Mediates the excision of single ribonucleotides from DNA:RNA duplexes.

Non catalytic subunit of RNase H2, an endonuclease that specifically degrades the RNA of RNA:DNA hybrids. Participates in DNA replication, possibly by mediating the removal of lagging-strand Okazaki fragment RNA primers during DNA replication. Mediates the excision of single ribonucleotides from DNA:RNA duplexes.

Catalyzes the oxidation of the less abundant 1,2-dihydro- beta-NAD(P) and 1,6-dihydro-beta-NAD(P) to form beta-NAD(P)(+). The enzyme hormone is secreted by the kidney, and circulates in blood and modulates cardiac function and systemic blood pressure. Lowers blood pressure in vivo by decreasing cardiac contractility and heart rate and preventing a compensatory increase in peripheral vascular tone, suggesting a causal link to the increased plasma catecholamine and heightened cardiovascular risk. High concentrations of catecholamines activate plasma renalase and promotes its secretion and synthesis.

Participates in pre-mRNA U12-dependent splicing, performed by the minor spliceosome which removes U12-type introns. U12-type introns comprises less than 1% of all non-coding sequences. Binds to the 3'- stem-loop of m(7)G-capped U12 snRNA.

Broad specificity aminopeptidase which preferentially hydrolyzes an N-terminal methionine, citrulline or glutamine.

Part of pre- and post-splicing multiprotein mRNP complexes. Auxiliary component of the splicing-dependent multiprotein exon junction complex (EJC) deposited at splice junction on mRNAs. The EJC is a dynamic structure consisting of core proteins and several peripheral nuclear and cytoplasmic associated factors that join the complex only transiently either during EJC assembly or during subsequent mRNA metabolism. Component of the ASAP and PSAP complexes which bind RNA in a sequence-independent manner and are proposed to be recruited to the EJC prior to or during the splicing process and to regulate specific excision of introns in specific transcription subsets. The ASAP complex can inhibit RNA processing during in vitro splicing reactions. The ASAP complex promotes apoptosis and is disassembled after induction of apoptosis. Enhances the formation of the ATP-dependent A complex of the spliceosome. Involved in both constitutive splicing and, in association with SRP54 and TRA2B/SFRS10, in distinctive modulation of alternative splicing in a substrate- dependent manner. Involved in the splicing modulation of BCL2L1/Bcl-X (and probably other apoptotic genes); specifically inhibits formation of proapoptotic isoforms such as Bcl-X(S); the activity is different from the established EJC assembly and function. Participates in mRNA 3'-end cleavage. Involved in UPF2-dependent nonsense-mediated decay (NMD) of mRNAs containing premature stop codons. Also mediates increase of mRNA abundance and translational efficiency. Binds spliced mRNA 20- 25 nt upstream of exon-exon junctions.

Ribonuclease that plays an essential role in innate immune response by recognizing and degrading RNAs from microbial pathogens that are subsequently sensed by TLR8. Cleaves preferentially single-stranded RNA molecules between purine and uridine residues, which critically contributes to the supply of catabolic uridine and the generation of purine-2',3'-cyclophosphate-terminated oligoribonucleotides. In turn, RNase T2 degradation products promote the RNA-dependent activation of TLR8. Also plays a key role in degradation of mitochondrial RNA and processing of non-coding RNA imported from the cytosol into mitochondria. Participates as well in degradation of mitochondrion-associated cytosolic rRNAs.

Zinc phosphodiesterase, which displays some tRNA 3'- processing endonuclease activity. Probably involved in tRNA maturation, by removing a 3'-trailer from precursor tRNA

Zinc phosphodiesterase, which displays mitochondrial tRNA 3'- processing endonuclease activity. Involved in tRNA maturation, by removing a 3'-trailer from precursor tRNA. Associates with mitochondrial DNA complexes at the nucleoids to initiate RNA processing and ribosome assembly.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase whose activity is dependent on E2 enzymes, UBE2D1, UBE2D2, UBE2E1 and UBE2E2. Forms a ubiquitin ligase complex in cooperation with the E2 UBE2D2 that is used not only for the ubiquitination of USP4 and IKBKB but also for its self-ubiquitination. Component of cullin-RING-based SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes such as SCF(SKP2)-like complexes. A TRIM21-containing SCF(SKP2)-like complex is shown to mediate ubiquitination of CDKN1B ('Thr-187' phosphorylated-form), thereby promoting its degradation by the proteasome. Monoubiquitinates IKBKB that will negatively regulates Tax-induced NF-kappa-B signaling. Negatively regulates IFN-beta production post-pathogen recognition by polyubiquitin-mediated degradation of IRF3. Mediates the ubiquitin- mediated proteasomal degradation of IgG1 heavy chain, which is linked to the VCP-mediated ER-associated degradation (ERAD) pathway. Promotes IRF8 ubiquitination, which enhanced the ability of IRF8 to stimulate cytokine genes transcription in macrophages. Plays a role in the regulation of the cell cycle progression. Enhances the decapping activity of DCP2. Exists as a ribonucleoprotein particle present in all mammalian cells studied and composed of a single polypeptide and one of four small RNA molecules. At least two isoforms are present in nucleated and red blood cells, and tissue specific differences in RO/SSA proteins have been identified. The common feature of these proteins is their ability to bind HY RNAs.2. Involved in the regulation of innate immunity and the inflammatory response in response to IFNG/IFN-gamma. Organizes autophagic machinery by serving as a platform for the assembly of ULK1, Beclin 1/BECN1 and ATG8 family members and recognizes specific autophagy targets, thus coordinating target recognition with assembly of the autophagic apparatus and initiation of autophagy. Acts as an autophagy receptor for the degradation of IRF3, hence attenuating type I interferon (IFN)-dependent immune responses. Represses the innate antiviral response by facilitating the formation of the NMI-IFI35 complex through 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of NMI.

RNA-binding protein that binds to misfolded non-coding RNAs, pre-5S rRNA, and several small cytoplasmic RNA molecules known as Y RNAs. Binds to endogenous Alu retroelements which are induced by type I interferon and stimulate porinflammatory cytokine secretion. Regulates the expression of Alu retroelements as well as inflammatory genes. May play roles in cilia formation and/or maintenance (By similarity).

mRNA-binding component of ribonucleosomes. Specifically binds AU-rich element (ARE)-containing mRNAs. Involved in post- transcriptional regulation of cytokines mRNAs.

Involved in the packaging of pre-mRNA into hnRNP particles, transport of poly(A) mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm and modulation of splice site selection. Plays a role in the splicing of pyruvate kinase PKM by binding repressively to sequences flanking PKM exon 9, inhibiting exon 9 inclusion and resulting in exon 10 inclusion and production of the PKM M2 isoform. Binds to the IRES and thereby inhibits the translation of the apoptosis protease activating factor APAF1. May bind to specific miRNA hairpins.

Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein (hnRNP) that associates with nascent pre-mRNAs, packaging them into hnRNP particles. The hnRNP particle arrangement on nascent hnRNA is non-random and sequence-dependent and serves to condense and stabilize the transcripts and minimize tangling and knotting. Packaging plays a role in various processes such as transcription, pre-mRNA processing, RNA nuclear export, subcellular location, mRNA translation and stability of mature mRNAs. Forms hnRNP particles with at least 20 other different hnRNP and heterogeneous nuclear RNA in the nucleus. Involved in transport of specific mRNAs to the cytoplasm in oligodendrocytes and neurons: acts by specifically recognizing and binding the A2RE (21 nucleotide hnRNP A2 response element) or the A2RE11 (derivative 11 nucleotide oligonucleotide) sequence motifs present on some mRNAs, and promotes their transport to the cytoplasm. Specifically binds single-stranded telomeric DNA sequences, protecting telomeric DNA repeat against endonuclease digestion (By similarity). Also binds other RNA molecules, such as primary miRNA (pri-miRNAs): acts as a nuclear 'reader' of the N6-methyladenosine (m6A) mark by specifically recognizing and binding a subset of nuclear m6A-containing pri-miRNAs. Binding to m6A-containing pri-miRNAs promotes pri-miRNA processing by enhancing binding of DGCR8 to pri-miRNA transcripts. Involved in miRNA sorting into exosomes following sumoylation, possibly by binding (m6A)-containing pre-miRNAs. Acts as a regulator of efficiency of mRNA splicing, possibly by binding to m6A-containing pre-mRNAs. Plays a role in the splicing of pyruvate kinase PKM by binding repressively to sequences flanking PKM exon 9, inhibiting exon 9 inclusion and resulting in exon 10 inclusion and production of the PKM M2 isoform. Also plays a role in the activation of the innate immune response. Mechanistically, senses the presence of viral DNA in the nucleus, homodimerizes and is demethylated by JMJD6. In turn, translocates to the cytoplasm where it activates the TBK1-IRF3 pathway, leading to interferon alpha/beta production.

Plays a role in cytoplasmic trafficking of RNA. Binds to the cis-acting response element, A2RE. May be involved in pre-mRNA splicing.

Binds single-stranded RNA. Has a high affinity for G-rich and U-rich regions of hnRNA. Also binds to APOB mRNA transcripts around the RNA editing site

Receptor for SLIT1 and SLIT2 that mediates cellular responses to molecular guidance cues in cellular migration, including axonal navigation at the ventral midline of the neural tube and projection of axons to different regions during neuronal development. Interaction with the intracellular domain of FLRT3 mediates axon attraction towards cells expressing NTN1. In axon growth cones, the silencing of the attractive effect of NTN1 by SLIT2 may require the formation of a ROBO1-DCC complex (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of cell migration via its interaction with MYO9B; inhibits MYO9B-mediated stimulation of RHOA GTPase activity, and thereby leads to increased levels of active, GTP-bound RHOA. May be required for lung development (By similarity).

Thought to be involved during neural development in axonal navigation at the ventral midline of the neural tube (By similarity). In spinal cord development plays a role in guiding commissural axons probably by preventing premature sensitivity to Slit proteins thus inhibiting Slit signaling through ROBO1 (By similarity). Required for hindbrain axon midline crossing.

Receptor for Slit proteins, at least for SLIT2, and seems to be involved in angiogenesis and vascular patterning. May mediate the inhibition of primary endothelial cell migration by Slit proteins (By similarity). Involved in the maintenance of endothelial barrier organization and function.

Protein kinase which is a key regulator of the actin cytoskeleton and cell polarity. Involved in regulation of smooth muscle contraction, actin cytoskeleton organization, stress fiber and focal adhesion formation, neurite retraction, cell adhesion and motility via phosphorylation of DAPK3, GFAP, LIMK1, LIMK2, MYL9/MLC2, TPPP, PFN1 and PPP1R12A. Phosphorylates FHOD1 and acts synergistically with it to promote SRC-dependent non-apoptotic plasma membrane blebbing. Phosphorylates JIP3 and regulates the recruitment of JNK to JIP3 upon UVB-induced stress. Acts as a suppressor of inflammatory cell migration by regulating PTEN phosphorylation and stability (By similarity). Acts as a negative regulator of VEGF-induced angiogenic endothelial cell activation. Required for centrosome positioning and centrosome-dependent exit from mitosis (By similarity). Plays a role in terminal erythroid differentiation. Inhibits podocyte motility via regulation of actin cytoskeletal dynamics and phosphorylation of CFL1 (By similarity). Promotes keratinocyte terminal differentiation. Involved in osteoblast compaction through the fibronectin fibrillogenesis cell-mediated matrix assembly process, essential for osteoblast mineralization (By similarity). May regulate closure of the eyelids and ventral body wall by inducing the assembly of actomyosin bundles (By similarity).

Protein kinase which is a key regulator of actin cytoskeleton and cell polarity. Involved in regulation of smooth muscle contraction, actin cytoskeleton organization, stress fiber and focal adhesion formation, neurite retraction, cell adhesion and motility via phosphorylation of ADD1, BRCA2, CNN1, EZR, DPYSL2, EP300, MSN, MYL9/MLC2, NPM1, RDX, PPP1R12A and VIM. Phosphorylates SORL1 and IRF4. Acts as a negative regulator of VEGF-induced angiogenic endothelial cell activation. Positively regulates the activation of p42/MAPK1- p44/MAPK3 and of p90RSK/RPS6KA1 during myogenic differentiation. Plays an important role in the timely initiation of centrosome duplication. Inhibits keratinocyte terminal differentiation. May regulate closure of the eyelids and ventral body wall through organization of actomyosin bundles. Plays a critical role in the regulation of spine and synaptic properties in the hippocampus. Plays an important role in generating the circadian rhythm of the aortic myofilament Ca(2+) sensitivity and vascular contractility by modulating the myosin light chain phosphorylation.

Plays a role in rod outer segment (ROS) morphogenesis (By similarity). May play a role with PRPH2 in the maintenance of the structure of ROS curved disks (By similarity). Plays a role in the organization of the ROS and maintenance of ROS disk diameter (By similarity). Involved in the maintenance of the retina outer nuclear layer (By similarity).

Induces production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) which are necessary for cell proliferation. May play a role in inducing oxidative DNA damage and replicative senescence. May play a role in the coordination of mitochondrial morphology and cell proliferation

Receptor tyrosine kinase that transduces signals from the extracellular matrix into the cytoplasm by binding to MST1 ligand. Regulates many physiological processes including cell survival, migration and differentiation. Ligand binding at the cell surface induces autophosphorylation of RON on its intracellular domain that provides docking sites for downstream signaling molecules. Following activation by ligand, interacts with the PI3-kinase subunit PIK3R1, PLCG1 or the adapter GAB1. Recruitment of these downstream effectors by RON leads to the activation of several signaling cascades including the RAS-ERK, PI3 kinase-AKT, or PLCgamma-PKC. RON signaling activates the wound healing response by promoting epithelial cell migration, proliferation as well as survival at the wound site. Also plays a role in the innate immune response by regulating the migration and phagocytic activity of macrophages. Alternatively, RON can also promote signals such as cell migration and proliferation in response to growth factors other than MST1 ligand.

Important for male fertility. With ROPN1L, involved in fibrous sheath integrity and sperm motility, plays a role in PKA- dependent signaling processes required for spermatozoa capacitation.

Important for male fertility. With ROPN1, involved in fibrous sheath integrity and sperm motility, plays a role in PKA-dependent signaling processes required for spermatozoa capacitation.

Has very low kinase activity in vitro and is unlikely to function as a tyrosine kinase in vivo. Receptor for ligand WNT5A which activate downstream NFkB signaling pathway and may result in the inhibition of WNT3A-mediated signaling. In inner ear, crucial for spiral ganglion neurons to innervate auditory hair cells.

Tyrosine-protein kinase receptor which may be involved in the early formation of the chondrocytes. It seems to be required for cartilage and growth plate development (By similarity). Phosphorylates YWHAB, leading to induction of osteogenesis and bone formation. In contrast, has also been shown to have very little tyrosine kinase activity in vitro. May act as a receptor for wnt ligand WNT5A which may result in the inhibition of WNT3A-mediated signaling.

Nuclear receptor that binds DNA as a monomer to ROR response elements (RORE) containing a single core motif half-site 5'-AGGTCA-3' preceded by a short A-T-rich sequence. Key regulator of embryonic development, cellular differentiation, immunity, circadian rhythm as well as lipid, steroid, xenobiotics and glucose metabolism. Considered to have intrinsic transcriptional activity, have some natural ligands like oxysterols that act as agonists (25-hydroxycholesterol) or inverse agonists (7-oxygenated sterols), enhancing or repressing the transcriptional activity, respectively. Recruits distinct combinations of cofactors to target genes regulatory regions to modulate their transcriptional expression, depending on the tissue, time and promoter contexts. Regulates genes involved in photoreceptor development including OPN1SW, OPN1SM and ARR3 and skeletal muscle development with MYOD1. Required for proper cerebellum development. Regulates SHH gene expression, among others, to induce granule cells proliferation as well as expression of genes involved in calcium- mediated signal transduction. Regulates the circadian expression of several clock genes, including CLOCK, BMAL1, NPAS2 and CRY1. Competes with NR1D1 for binding to their shared DNA response element on some clock genes such as BMAL1, CRY1 and NR1D1 itself, resulting in NR1D1- mediated repression or RORA-mediated activation of clock genes expression, leading to the circadian pattern of clock genes expression. Therefore influences the period length and stability of the clock. Regulates genes involved in lipid metabolism such as apolipoproteins APOA1, APOA5, APOC3 and PPARG. In liver, has specific and redundant functions with RORC as positive or negative modulator of expression of genes encoding phase I and phase II proteins involved in the metabolism of lipids, steroids and xenobiotics, such as CYP7B1 and SULT2A1. Induces a rhythmic expression of some of these genes. In addition, interplays functionally with NR1H2 and NR1H3 for the regulation of genes involved in cholesterol metabolism. Also involved in the regulation of hepatic glucose metabolism through the modulation of G6PC1 and PCK1. In adipose tissue, plays a role as negative regulator of adipocyte differentiation, probably acting through dual mechanisms. May suppress CEBPB-dependent adipogenesis through direct interaction and PPARG-dependent adipogenesis through competition for DNA-binding. Downstream of IL6 and TGFB and synergistically with RORC isoform 2, is implicated in the lineage specification of uncommitted CD4(+) T-helper (T(H)) cells into T(H)17 cells, antagonizing the T(H)1 program. Probably regulates IL17 and IL17F expression on T(H) by binding to the essential enhancer conserved non-coding sequence 2 (CNS2) in the IL17- IL17F locus. Involved in hypoxia signaling by interacting with and activating the transcriptional activity of HIF1A. May inhibit cell growth in response to cellular stress. May exert an anti-inflammatory role by inducing CHUK expression and inhibiting NF-kappa-B signaling.

Nuclear receptor that binds DNA as a monomer to ROR response elements (RORE) containing a single core motif half-site 5'-AGGTCA-3' preceded by a short A-T-rich sequence. Considered to have intrinsic transcriptional activity, have some natural ligands such as all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) and other retinoids which act as inverse agonists repressing the transcriptional activity. Required for normal postnatal development of rod and cone photoreceptor cells. Modulates rod photoreceptors differentiation at least by inducing the transcription factor NRL-mediated pathway. In cone photoreceptor cells, regulates transcription of OPN1SW. Involved in the regulation of the period length and stability of the circadian rhythm. May control cytoarchitectural patterning of neocortical neurons during development. May act in a dose-dependent manner to regulate barrel formation upon innervation of layer IV neurons by thalamocortical axons. May play a role in the suppression of osteoblastic differentiation through the inhibition of RUNX2 transcriptional activity (By similarity).

Nuclear receptor that binds DNA as a monomer to ROR response elements (RORE) containing a single core motif half-site 5'-AGGTCA-3' preceded by a short A-T-rich sequence. Key regulator of cellular differentiation, immunity, peripheral circadian rhythm as well as lipid, steroid, xenobiotics and glucose metabolism. Considered to have intrinsic transcriptional activity, have some natural ligands like oxysterols that act as agonists (25- hydroxycholesterol) or inverse agonists (7-oxygenated sterols), enhancing or repressing the transcriptional activity, respectively. Recruits distinct combinations of cofactors to target gene regulatory regions to modulate their transcriptional expression, depending on the tissue, time and promoter contexts. Regulates the circadian expression of clock genes such as CRY1, BMAL1 and NR1D1 in peripheral tissues and in a tissue-selective manner. Competes with NR1D1 for binding to their shared DNA response element on some clock genes such as BMAL1, CRY1 and NR1D1 itself, resulting in NR1D1-mediated repression or RORC-mediated activation of the expression, leading to the circadian pattern of clock genes expression. Therefore influences the period length and stability of the clock. Involved in the regulation of the rhythmic expression of genes involved in glucose and lipid metabolism, including PLIN2 and AVPR1A. Negative regulator of adipocyte differentiation through the regulation of early phase genes expression, such as MMP3. Controls adipogenesis as well as adipocyte size and modulates insulin sensitivity in obesity. In liver, has specific and redundant functions with RORA as positive or negative modulator of expression of genes encoding phase I and Phase II proteins involved in the metabolism of lipids, steroids and xenobiotics, such as SULT1E1. Also plays a role in the regulation of hepatocyte glucose metabolism through the regulation of G6PC1 and PCK1. Regulates the rhythmic expression of PROX1 and promotes its nuclear localization. Plays an indispensable role in the induction of IFN-gamma dependent anti-mycobacterial systemic immunity.

Required for the differentiation of photoreceptor cells. Plays a role in the organization of outer segment of rod and cone photoreceptors (By similarity).

Microtubule-associated protein regulating the stability and length of the microtubule-based axoneme of photoreceptors. Required for the differentiation of photoreceptor cells, it plays a role in the organization of the outer segment of rod and cone photoreceptors ensuring the correct orientation and higher-order stacking of outer segment disks along the photoreceptor axoneme (By similarity).

Plays an essential role in docking and fusion steps of regulated exocytosis (By similarity). At the presynaptic level, RPH3A is recruited by RAB3A to the synaptic vesicle membrane in a GTP- dependent manner where it modulates synaptic vesicle trafficking and calcium-triggered neurotransmitter release (By similarity). In the post-synaptic compartment, forms a ternary complex with GRIN2A and DLG4 and regulates NMDA receptor stability. Also plays a role in the exocytosis of arginine vasopressin hormone (By similarity).

Is thought to be a target protein for the PIM1 kinase. May play some roles in B-cell proliferation in association with PIM1 (By similarity).

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Component of RNA polymerase I which synthesizes ribosomal RNA precursors

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Largest and catalytic core component of RNA polymerase I which synthesizes ribosomal RNA precursors. Forms the polymerase active center together with the second largest subunit. A single stranded DNA template strand of the promoter is positioned within the central active site cleft of Pol I. A bridging helix emanates from RPA1 and crosses the cleft near the catalytic site and is thought to promote translocation of Pol I by acting as a ratchet that moves the RNA-DNA hybrid through the active site by switching from straight to bent conformations at each step of nucleotide addition (By similarity).

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Second largest core component of RNA polymerase I which synthesizes ribosomal RNA precursors. Proposed to contribute to the polymerase catalytic activity and forms the polymerase active center together with the largest subunit. Pol I is composed of mobile elements and RPA2 is part of the core element with the central large cleft and probably a clamp element that moves to open and close the cleft.

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Component of RNA polymerase I which synthesizes ribosomal RNA precursors. Isoform 1 is involved in UBTF-activated transcription, presumably at a step following PIC formation

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Component of RNA polymerase I which synthesizes ribosomal RNA precursors. Through its association with RRN3/TIF-IA may be involved in recruitment of Pol I to rDNA promoters

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Component of RNA polymerase I which synthesizes ribosomal RNA precursors. Appears to be involved in the formation of the initiation complex at the promoter by mediating the interaction between Pol I and UBTF/UBF.

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Common component of RNA polymerases I, II and III which synthesize ribosomal RNA precursors, mRNA precursors and many functional non- coding RNAs, and small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs, respectively. Pol II is the central component of the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Pols are composed of mobile elements that move relative to each other. In Pol II, POLR2E/RPB5 is part of the lower jaw surrounding the central large cleft and thought to grab the incoming DNA template. Seems to be the major component in this process (By similarity).

DNA-dependent RNA polymerases catalyze the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Common component of RNA polymerases I, II, and III which synthesize ribosomal RNA precursors, mRNA precursors and many functional non- coding RNAs, and small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs, respectively. Pol II is the central component of the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Pols are composed of mobile elements that move relative to each other. In Pol II, POLR2F/RPB6 is part of the clamp element and together with parts of RPB1 and RPB2 forms a pocket to which the RPB4-RPB7 subcomplex binds (By similarity).

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Common component of RNA polymerases I, II and III which synthesize ribosomal RNA precursors, mRNA precursors and many functional non- coding RNAs, and small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs, respectively.

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Common component of RNA polymerases I, II and III which synthesize ribosomal RNA precursors, mRNA precursors and many functional non- coding RNAs, and a small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs, respectively

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Common component of RNA polymerases I, II and III which synthesize ribosomal RNA precursors, mRNA precursors and many functional non- coding RNAs, and a small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs, respectively. Pol II is the central component of the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. Pols are composed of mobile elements that move relative to each other. In Pol II, POLR2L/RBP10 is part of the core element with the central large cleft (By similarity).

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Common component of RNA polymerases I and III which synthesize ribosomal RNA precursors and small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs, respectively. RPAC1 is part of the Pol core element with the central large cleft and probably a clamp element that moves to open and close the cleft (By similarity).

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Common core component of RNA polymerases I and III which synthesize ribosomal RNA precursors and small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs, respectively

Forms an interface between the RNA polymerase II enzyme and chaperone/scaffolding protein, suggesting that it is required to connect RNA polymerase II to regulators of protein complex formation. Required for interaction of the RNA polymerase II complex with acetylated histone H3.

Protein phosphatase that displays CTD phosphatase activity and regulates transcription of snRNA genes. Recognizes and binds phosphorylated 'Ser-7' of the C-terminal heptapeptide repeat domain (CTD) of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit POLR2A, and mediates dephosphorylation of 'Ser-5' of the CTD, thereby promoting transcription of snRNA genes.

Forms an interface between the RNA polymerase II enzyme and chaperone/scaffolding protein, suggesting that it is required to connect RNA polymerase II to regulators of protein complex formation.

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Component of RNA polymerase II which synthesizes mRNA precursors and many functional non-coding RNAs. Pol II is the central component of the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. It is composed of mobile elements that move relative to each other. RPB11 is part of the core element with the central large cleft (By similarity).

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Second largest component of RNA polymerase II which synthesizes mRNA precursors and many functional non-coding RNAs. Proposed to contribute to the polymerase catalytic activity and forms the polymerase active center together with the largest subunit. Pol II is the central component of the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. It is composed of mobile elements that move relative to each other. RPB2 is part of the core element with the central large cleft, the clamp element that moves to open and close the cleft and the jaws that are thought to grab the incoming DNA template (By similarity).

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Component of RNA polymerase II which synthesizes mRNA precursors and many functional non-coding RNAs. Pol II is the central component of the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. It is composed of mobile elements that move relative to each other. RPB3 is part of the core element with the central large cleft and the clamp element that moves to open and close the cleft (By similarity).

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Component of RNA polymerase II which synthesizes mRNA precursors and many functional non-coding RNAs. Pol II is the central component of the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. It is composed of mobile elements that move relative to each other. RPB4 is part of a subcomplex with RPB7 that binds to a pocket formed by RPB1, RPB2 and RPB6 at the base of the clamp element. The RBP4-RPB7 subcomplex seems to lock the clamp via RPB7 in the closed conformation thus preventing double-stranded DNA to enter the active site cleft. The RPB4-RPB7 subcomplex binds single-stranded DNA and RNA (By similarity).

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Component of RNA polymerase II which synthesizes mRNA precursors and many functional non-coding RNAs. Pol II is the central component of the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. It is composed of mobile elements that move relative to each other. RPB7 is part of a subcomplex with RPB4 that binds to a pocket formed by RPB1, RPB2 and RPB6 at the base of the clamp element. The RBP4-RPB7 subcomplex seems to lock the clamp via RPB7 in the closed conformation thus preventing double-stranded DNA to enter the active site cleft. The RPB4-RPB7 subcomplex binds single-stranded DNA and RNA (By similarity). Binds RNA.

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Component of RNA polymerase II which synthesizes mRNA precursors and many functional non-coding RNAs. Pol II is the central component of the basal RNA polymerase II transcription machinery. It is composed of mobile elements that move relative to each other. RPB9 is part of the upper jaw surrounding the central large cleft and thought to grab the incoming DNA template (By similarity).

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Component of RNA polymerase III which synthesizes small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs. Plays a key role in sensing and limiting infection by intracellular bacteria and DNA viruses. Acts as nuclear and cytosolic DNA sensor involved in innate immune response. Can sense non-self dsDNA that serves as template for transcription into dsRNA. The non-self RNA polymerase III transcripts, such as Epstein-Barr virus-encoded RNAs (EBERs) induce type I interferon and NF-kappa-B through the RIG-I pathway.

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Largest and catalytic core component of RNA polymerase III which synthesizes small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs. Forms the polymerase active center together with the second largest subunit. A single- stranded DNA template strand of the promoter is positioned within the central active site cleft of Pol III. A bridging helix emanates from RPC1 and crosses the cleft near the catalytic site and is thought to promote translocation of Pol III by acting as a ratchet that moves the RNA-DNA hybrid through the active site by switching from straight to bent conformations at each step of nucleotide addition (By similarity). Plays a key role in sensing and limiting infection by intracellular bacteria and DNA viruses. Acts as nuclear and cytosolic DNA sensor involved in innate immune response. Can sense non-self dsDNA that serves as template for transcription into dsRNA. The non-self RNA polymerase III transcripts, such as Epstein-Barr virus-encoded RNAs (EBERs) induce type I interferon and NF- Kappa-B through the RIG-I pathway.

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Second largest core component of RNA polymerase III which synthesizes small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs. Proposed to contribute to the polymerase catalytic activity and forms the polymerase active center together with the largest subunit. Pol III is composed of mobile elements and RPC2 is part of the core element with the central large cleft and probably a clamp element that moves to open and close the cleft (By similarity). Plays a key role in sensing and limiting infection by intracellular bacteria and DNA viruses. Acts as nuclear and cytosolic DNA sensor involved in innate immune response. Can sense non-self dsDNA that serves as template for transcription into dsRNA. The non-self RNA polymerase III transcripts, such as Epstein-Barr virus-encoded RNAs (EBERs) induce type I interferon and NF- Kappa-B through the RIG-I pathway.

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Specific core component of RNA polymerase III which synthesizes small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs. May direct with other members of the subcomplex RNA Pol III binding to the TFIIIB-DNA complex via the interactions between TFIIIB and POLR3F. May be involved either in the recruitment and stabilization of the subcomplex within RNA polymerase III, or in stimulating catalytic functions of other subunits during initiation. Plays a key role in sensing and limiting infection by intracellular bacteria and DNA viruses. Acts as nuclear and cytosolic DNA sensor involved in innate immune response. Can sense non-self dsDNA that serves as template for transcription into dsRNA. The non-self RNA polymerase III transcripts, such as Epstein-Barr virus-encoded RNAs (EBERs) induce type I interferon and NF- Kappa-B through the RIG-I pathway. Preferentially binds single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) in a sequence-independent manner.

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Specific peripheric component of RNA polymerase III which synthesizes small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs. Plays a key role in sensing and limiting infection by intracellular bacteria and DNA viruses. Acts as nuclear and cytosolic DNA sensor involved in innate immune response. Can sense non-self dsDNA that serves as template for transcription into dsRNA. The non-self RNA polymerase III transcripts, such as Epstein- Barr virus-encoded RNAs (EBERs) induce type I interferon and NF- Kappa- B through the RIG-I pathway (By similarity).

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Specific peripheric component of RNA polymerase III which synthesizes small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs. Essential for efficient transcription from both the type 2 VAI and type 3 U6 RNA polymerase III promoters. Plays a key role in sensing and limiting infection by intracellular bacteria and DNA viruses. Acts as nuclear and cytosolic DNA sensor involved in innate immune response. Can sense non-self dsDNA that serves as template for transcription into dsRNA. The non-self RNA polymerase III transcripts, such as Epstein-Barr virus-encoded RNAs (EBERs) induce type I interferon and NF- Kappa-B through the RIG-I pathway (By similarity).

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Specific peripheric component of RNA polymerase III which synthesizes small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs. May direct RNA Pol III binding to the TFIIIB-DNA complex. Plays a key role in sensing and limiting infection by intracellular bacteria and DNA viruses, including varicella zoster virus. Acts as nuclear and cytosolic DNA sensor detecting AT-rich DNA, involved in innate immune response. Can sense non-self dsDNA that serves as template for transcription into dsRNA. The non-self RNA polymerase III transcripts, such as Epstein- Barr virus-encoded RNAs (EBERs) induce type I interferon and NF- Kappa- B through the RIG-I pathway. Preferentially binds double-stranded DNA (dsDNA).

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Specific peripheric component of RNA polymerase III which synthesizes small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs.

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Specific peripheric component of RNA polymerase III which synthesizes small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs. May direct with other members of the RPC3/POLR3C-RPC6/POLR3F-RPC7/POLR3G subcomplex RNA Pol III binding to the TFIIIB-DNA complex via the interactions between TFIIIB and POLR3F. May be involved either in the recruitment and stabilization of the subcomplex within RNA polymerase III, or in stimulating catalytic functions of other subunits during initiation. Plays a key role in sensing and limiting infection by intracellular bacteria and DNA viruses. Acts as nuclear and cytosolic DNA sensor involved in innate immune response. Can sense non-self dsDNA that serves as template for transcription into dsRNA. The non-self RNA polymerase III transcripts, such as Epstein-Barr virus-encoded RNAs (EBERs), induce type I interferon and NF- Kappa-B through the RIG-I pathway.

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Specific peripheric component of RNA polymerase III which synthesizes small RNAs, such as 5S rRNA and tRNAs. Plays a key role in sensing and limiting infection by intracellular bacteria and DNA viruses. Acts as nuclear and cytosolic DNA sensor involved in innate immune response. Can sense non-self dsDNA that serves as template for transcription into dsRNA. The non-self RNA polymerase III transcripts induce type I interferon and NF- Kappa-B through the RIG-I pathway (By similarity).

Critical isomerohydrolase in the retinoid cycle involved in regeneration of 11-cis-retinal, the chromophore of rod and cone opsins. Catalyzes the cleavage and isomerization of all-trans-retinyl fatty acid esters to 11-cis-retinol which is further oxidized by 11-cis retinol dehydrogenase to 11-cis-retinal for use as visual chromophore. Essential for the production of 11-cis retinal for both rod and cone photoreceptors. Also capable of catalyzing the isomerization of lutein to meso-zeaxanthin an eye- specific carotenoid. The soluble form binds vitamin A (all-trans-retinol), making it available for LRAT processing to all- trans-retinyl ester. The membrane form, palmitoylated by LRAT, binds all-trans-retinyl esters, making them available for IMH (isomerohydrolase) processing to all-cis-retinol. The soluble form is regenerated by transferring its palmitoyl groups onto 11-cis-retinol, a reaction catalyzed by LRAT (By similarity).

Catalyzes the reversible epimerization of D-ribulose 5- phosphate to D-xylulose 5-phosphate.

Involved in ribosomal large subunit assembly. May regulate the localization of the 5S RNP/5S ribonucleoprotein particle to the nucleolus.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RAP1A and RAP2A small GTPases that is activated by binding cAMP. Through simultaneous binding of PDE3B to RAPGEF3 and PIK3R6 is assembled in a signaling complex in which it activates the PI3K gamma complex and which is involved in angiogenesis. Plays a role in the modulation of the cAMP- induced dynamic control of endothelial barrier function through a pathway that is independent on Rho-mediated signaling. Required for the actin rearrangement at cell-cell junctions, such as stress fibers and junctional actin.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RAP1A, RAP1B and RAP2A small GTPases that is activated by binding cAMP. Seems not to activate RAB3A. Involved in cAMP-dependent, PKA-independent exocytosis through interaction with RIMS2 (By similarity).

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for Rap1A, Rap2A and M-Ras GTPases. Does not interact with cAMP.

GTPase activator for the nuclear Ras-related regulatory protein RAP-1A (KREV-1), converting it to the putatively inactive GDP- bound state.

May function as scaffolding protein. Required for normal location of RPGR at the connecting cilium of photoreceptor cells. Required for normal disk morphogenesis and disk organization in the outer segment of photoreceptor cells and for survival of photoreceptor cells.

Could be a guanine-nucleotide releasing factor. Plays a role in ciliogenesis. Probably regulates cilia formation by regulating actin stress filaments and cell contractility. Plays an important role in photoreceptor integrity. May play a critical role in spermatogenesis and in intraflagellar transport processes (By similarity). May be involved in microtubule organization and regulation of transport in primary cilia.

Rab GTPase effector involved in the late steps of regulated exocytosis, both in endocrine and exocrine cells (By similarity). Acts as a potential RAB3B effector protein in epithelial cells.

Catalyzes the reversible conversion of ribose-5-phosphate to ribulose 5-phosphate and participates in the first step of the non- oxidative branch of the pentose phosphate pathway.

Subunit of the oligosaccharyl transferase (OST) complex that catalyzes the initial transfer of a defined glycan (Glc(3)Man(9)GlcNAc(2) in eukaryotes) from the lipid carrier dolichol- pyrophosphate to an asparagine residue within an Asn-X-Ser/Thr consensus motif in nascent polypeptide chains, the first step in protein N-glycosylation. N-glycosylation occurs cotranslationally and the complex associates with the Sec61 complex at the channel-forming translocon complex that mediates protein translocation across the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). All subunits are required for a maximal enzyme activity.

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the transcription of mitochondrial DNA into RNA using the four ribonucleoside triphosphates as substrates. Component of the mitochondrial transcription initiation complex, composed at least of TFB2M, TFAM and POLRMT that is required for basal transcription of mitochondrial DNA. In this complex, TFAM recruits POLRMT to a specific promoter whereas TFB2M induces structural changes in POLRMT to enable promoter opening and trapping of the DNA non- template strand. Has DNA primase activity. Catalyzes the synthesis of short RNA primers that are necessary for the initiation of lagging-strand DNA synthesis from the origin of light-strand DNA replication (OriL).

Component of ribonuclease P, a ribonucleoprotein complex that generates mature tRNA molecules by cleaving their 5'-ends.

Component of ribonuclease P, a ribonucleoprotein complex that generates mature tRNA molecules by cleaving their 5'-ends. Also a component of the MRP ribonuclease complex, which cleaves pre- rRNA sequences.

Interacts with phosphorylated C-terminal heptapeptide repeat domain (CTD) of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit POLR2A, and participates in dephosphorylation of the CTD by RPAP2. May act as a negative regulator of cyclin-D1 (CCND1) and cyclin-E (CCNE1) in the cell cycle.

Interacts with phosphorylated C-terminal heptapeptide repeat domain (CTD) of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit POLR2A, and participates in dephosphorylation of the CTD by RPAP2. Transcriptional regulator which enhances expression of CCND1. Promotes binding of RNA polymerase II to the CCDN1 promoter and to the termination region before the poly-A site but decreases its binding after the poly-A site. Prevents RNA polymerase II from reading through the 3' end termination site and may allow it to be recruited back to the promoter through promotion of the formation of a chromatin loop. Also enhances the transcription of a number of other cell cycle-related genes including CDK2, CDK4, CDK6 and cyclin-E but not CDKN1A, CDKN1B or cyclin-A. Promotes cell proliferation.

May be involved in the regulation of p53-dependent G2 arrest of the cell cycle. Seems to induce cell cycle arrest by inhibiting CDK1 activity and nuclear translocation of the CDC2 cyclin B1 complex (By similarity).

Involved in the cornified cell envelope formation. Multifunctional epidermal matrix protein. Reversibly binds calcium

Involved in the control of the mammalian target of rapamycin complex 1 (mTORC1) activity which regulates cell growth and survival, and autophagy in response to nutrient and hormonal signals; functions as a scaffold for recruiting mTORC1 substrates. mTORC1 is activated in response to growth factors or amino acids. Growth factor-stimulated mTORC1 activation involves a AKT1-mediated phosphorylation of TSC1- TSC2, which leads to the activation of the RHEB GTPase that potently activates the protein kinase activity of mTORC1. Amino acid-signaling to mTORC1 requires its relocalization to the lysosomes mediated by the Ragulator complex and the Rag GTPases. Activated mTORC1 up-regulates protein synthesis by phosphorylating key regulators of mRNA translation and ribosome synthesis. mTORC1 phosphorylates EIF4EBP1 and releases it from inhibiting the elongation initiation factor 4E (eiF4E). mTORC1 phosphorylates and activates S6K1 at 'Thr-389', which then promotes protein synthesis by phosphorylating PDCD4 and targeting it for degradation. Involved in ciliogenesis. mTORC1 complex in excitatory neuronal transmission is required for the prosocial behavior induced by the psychoactive substance lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) (By similarity).

Guanine nucleotide-binding protein that plays a crucial role in the cellular response to amino acid availability through regulation of the mTORC1 signaling cascade. Forms heterodimeric Rag complexes with RRAGC or RRAGD and cycles between an inactive GDP-bound and an active GTP-bound form. In its active form participates in the relocalization of mTORC1 to the lysosomes and its subsequent activation by the GTPase RHEB. Involved in the RCC1/Ran-GTPase pathway. May play a direct role in a TNF-alpha signaling pathway leading to induction of cell death.

Guanine nucleotide-binding protein that plays a crucial role in the cellular response to amino acid availability through regulation of the mTORC1 signaling cascade. Forms heterodimeric Rag complexes with RRAGC or RRAGD and cycles between an inactive GDP-bound and an active GTP-bound form. In its active form participates in the relocalization of mTORC1 to the lysosomes and its subsequent activation by the GTPase RHEB. Involved in the RCC1/Ran-GTPase pathway.

Guanine nucleotide-binding protein that plays a crucial role in the cellular response to amino acid availability through regulation of the mTORC1 signaling cascade. Forms heterodimeric Rag complexes with RRAGA or RRAGB and cycles between an inactive GTP-bound and an active GDP-bound form. In its active form participates in the relocalization of mTORC1 to the lysosomes and its subsequent activation by the GTPase RHEB. This is a crucial step in the activation of the TOR signaling cascade by amino acids.

GTP-binding protein with GTPase activity involved in the regulation of MAPK signaling pathway, thereby controlling multiple cellular processes. Involved in the regulation of MAPK signaling pathway. Regulation of craniofacial development.

Regulates the organization of the actin cytoskeleton. With OSPBL3, modulates integrin beta-1 (ITGB1) activity.

Acts as a ribosome receptor and mediates interaction between the ribosome and the endoplasmic reticulum membrane.

Transcription factor that binds specifically to the RAS- responsive elements (RRE) of gene promoters. Represses the angiotensinogen gene. Negatively regulates the transcriptional activity of AR. Potentiates the transcriptional activity of NEUROD1. Promotes brown adipocyte differentiation (By similarity). May be involved in Ras/Raf-mediated cell differentiation by enhancing calcitonin expression.

Mitochondrial GTPase that mediates the disassembly of ribosomes from messenger RNA at the termination of mitochondrial protein biosynthesis. Acts in collaboration with MRRF. GTP hydrolysis follows the ribosome disassembly and probably occurs on the ribosome large subunit. Not involved in the GTP-dependent ribosomal translocation step during translation elongation.

Responsible for the release of ribosomes from messenger RNA at the termination of protein biosynthesis. May increase the efficiency of translation by recycling ribosomes from one round of translation to another (By similarity).

Required for efficient transcription initiation by RNA polymerase I. Required for the formation of the competent preinitiation complex (PIC). Dissociates from pol I as a consequence of transcription. In vitro, cannot activate transcription in a subsequent transcription reaction (By similarity).

Positively regulates DNA damage-induced apoptosis by acting as a transcriptional coactivator of proapoptotic target genes of the transcriptional activator E2F1. Likely to play a role in ribosome biogenesis by targeting serine/threonine protein phosphatase PP1 to the nucleolus. Involved in regulation of mRNA splicing (By similarity). Inhibits SIPA1 GTPase activity (By similarity). Involved in regulating expression of extracellular matrix genes (By similarity). Associates with chromatin and may play a role in modulating chromatin structure.

Involved in the early processing steps of the pre-rRNA in the maturation pathway leading to the 18S rRNA.

Putative catalytic component of the RNA exosome complex which has 3'->5' exoribonuclease activity and participates in a multitude of cellular RNA processing and degradation events. In the nucleus, the RNA exosome complex is involved in proper maturation of stable RNA species such as rRNA, snRNA and snoRNA, in the elimination of RNA processing by-products and non-coding 'pervasive' transcripts, such as antisense RNA species and promoter-upstream transcripts (PROMPTs), and of mRNAs with processing defects, thereby limiting or excluding their export to the cytoplasm. The RNA exosome may be involved in Ig class switch recombination (CSR) and/or Ig variable region somatic hypermutation (SHM) by targeting AICDA deamination activity to transcribed dsDNA substrates. In the cytoplasm, the RNA exosome complex is involved in general mRNA turnover and specifically degrades inherently unstable mRNAs containing AU-rich elements (AREs) within their 3' untranslated regions, and in RNA surveillance pathways, preventing translation of aberrant mRNAs. It seems to be involved in degradation of histone mRNA. DIS3 has both 3'-5' exonuclease and endonuclease activities.

Essential for the generation of mature 18S rRNA, specifically necessary for cleavages at sites A0, 1 and 2 of the 47S precursor. Directly interacts with U3 snoRNA.

Nucleolar protein that is involved in ribosomal RNA (rRNA) processing. Also plays a role in primary cilia resorption, and cell cycle progression in neurogenesis and neocortex development.

Essential component of the eNoSC (energy-dependent nucleolar silencing) complex, a complex that mediates silencing of rDNA in response to intracellular energy status and acts by recruiting histone- modifying enzymes. The eNoSC complex is able to sense the energy status of cell: upon glucose starvation, elevation of NAD(+)/NADP(+) ratio activates SIRT1, leading to histone H3 deacetylation followed by dimethylation of H3 at 'Lys-9' (H3K9me2) by SUV39H1 and the formation of silent chromatin in the rDNA locus. In the complex, RRP8 binds to H3K9me2 and probably acts as a methyltransferase. Its substrates are however unknown.

Structural component of the ribosome. Required for proper erythropoiesis.

Located at the top of the head of the 40S subunit, it contacts several helices of the 18S rRNA.

Required for pre-rRNA processing and maturation of 40S ribosomal subunits.

Component of the ribosome, a large ribonucleoprotein complex responsible for the synthesis of proteins in the cell. The small ribosomal subunit (SSU) binds messenger RNAs (mRNAs) and translates the encoded message by selecting cognate aminoacyl-transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules. The large subunit (LSU) contains the ribosomal catalytic site termed the peptidyl transferase center (PTC), which catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds, thereby polymerizing the amino acids delivered by tRNAs into a polypeptide chain. The nascent polypeptides leave the ribosome through a tunnel in the LSU and interact with protein factors that function in enzymatic processing, targeting, and the membrane insertion of nascent chains at the exit of the ribosomal tunnel. Plays an important role in translational accuracy.

Required for processing of pre-rRNA and maturation of 40S ribosomal subunits.

Component of the small ribosomal subunit. Required for proper rRNA processing and maturation of 18S rRNAs.

Component of the ribosome, a large ribonucleoprotein complex responsible for the synthesis of proteins in the cell. The small ribosomal subunit (SSU) binds messenger RNAs (mRNAs) and translates the encoded message by selecting cognate aminoacyl-transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules. The large subunit (LSU) contains the ribosomal catalytic site termed the peptidyl transferase center (PTC), which catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds, thereby polymerizing the amino acids delivered by tRNAs into a polypeptide chain. The nascent polypeptides leave the ribosome through a tunnel in the LSU and interact with protein factors that function in enzymatic processing, targeting, and the membrane insertion of nascent chains at the exit of the ribosomal tunnel. Plays a role in the assembly and function of the 40S ribosomal subunit. Mutations in this protein affects the control of translational fidelity. Involved in nucleolar processing of pre-18S ribosomal RNA and ribosome assembly.

May play a role during erythropoiesis through regulation of transcription factor DDIT3.

Involved in translation as a component of the 40S small ribosomal subunit. Has endonuclease activity and plays a role in repair of damaged DNA. Cleaves phosphodiester bonds of DNAs containing altered bases with broad specificity and cleaves supercoiled DNA more efficiently than relaxed DNA. Displays high binding affinity for 7,8-dihydro- 8-oxoguanine (8-oxoG), a common DNA lesion caused by reactive oxygen species (ROS). Has also been shown to bind with similar affinity to intact and damaged DNA. Stimulates the N-glycosylase activity of the base excision protein OGG1. Enhances the uracil excision activity of UNG1. Also stimulates the cleavage of the phosphodiester backbone by APEX1. When located in the mitochondrion, reduces cellular ROS levels and mitochondrial DNA damage. Has also been shown to negatively regulate DNA repair in cells exposed to hydrogen peroxide. Plays a role in regulating transcription as part of the NF-kappa-B p65-p50 complex where it binds to the RELA/p65 subunit, enhances binding of the complex to DNA and promotes transcription of target genes. Represses its own translation by binding to its cognate mRNA. Binds to and protects TP53/p53 from MDM2-mediated ubiquitination. Involved in spindle formation and chromosome movement during mitosis by regulating microtubule polymerization. Involved in induction of apoptosis through its role in activation of CASP8. Induces neuronal apoptosis by interacting with the E2F1 transcription factor and acting synergistically with it to up-regulate pro-apoptotic proteins BCL2L11/BIM and HRK/Dp5. Interacts with TRADD following exposure to UV radiation and induces apoptosis by caspase-dependent JNK activation.

Component of the 40S small ribosomal subunit. Plays an important role in controlling cell growth and proliferation through the selective translation of particular classes of mRNA.

May be a heme chaperone, appears to bind heme. Homologous bacterial proteins do not have oxygen-independent coproporphyrinogen- III oxidase activity (Probable). Binds 1 [4Fe-4S] cluster. The cluster is coordinated with 3 cysteines and an exchangeable S-adenosyl-L- methionine (By similarity).

Interferon-inducible antiviral protein which plays a major role in the cell antiviral state induced by type I and type II interferon. Catalyzes the conversion of cytidine triphosphate (CTP) to 3'-deoxy-3',4'-didehydro-CTP (ddhCTP) via a SAM- dependent radical mechanism. In turn, ddhCTP acts as a chain terminator for the RNA-dependent RNA polymerases from multiple viruses and directly inhibits viral replication. Therefore, inhibits a wide range of DNA and RNA viruses, including human cytomegalovirus (HCMV), hepatitis C virus (HCV), west Nile virus (WNV), dengue virus, sindbis virus, influenza A virus, sendai virus, vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV), zika virus, and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV-1). Promotes also TLR7 and TLR9-dependent production of IFN-beta production in plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDCs) by facilitating 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of IRAK1 by TRAF6. Plays a role in CD4+ T-cells activation and differentiation. Facilitates T-cell receptor (TCR)- mediated GATA3 activation and optimal T-helper 2 (Th2) cytokine production by modulating NFKB1 and JUNB activities. Can inhibit secretion of soluble proteins.

Histone demethylase that specifically demethylates dimethylated 'Lys-20' of histone H4 (H4K20me2), thereby modulating chromosome architecture.

Lysine-specific demethylase that specifically demethylates methylated lysine residues of proteins.

Mediates transcriptional and post-transcriptional regulation of SLC5A1. Inhibits a dynamin and PKC-dependent exocytotic pathway of SLC5A1. Also involved in transcriptional regulation of SLC22A2. Exhibits glucose-dependent, short-term inhibition of SLC5A1 and SLC22A2 by inhibiting the release of vesicles from the trans-Golgi network.

Regulatory subunit of the ATP-dependent RSF-1 and RSF-5 ISWI chromatin-remodeling complexes, which form ordered nucleosome arrays on chromatin and facilitate access to DNA during DNA-templated processes such as DNA replication, transcription, and repair. Binds to core histones together with SMARCA5, and is required for the assembly of regular nucleosome arrays by the RSF-5 ISWI chromatin-remodeling complex. Directly stimulates the ATPase activity of SMARCA1 and SMARCA5 in the RSF-1 and RSF-5 ISWI chromatin-remodeling complexes, respectively. The RSF-1 ISWI chromatin remodeling complex has a lower ATP hydrolysis rate than the RSF-5 ISWI chromatin-remodeling complex. The complexes do not have the ability to slide mononucleosomes to the center of a DNA template. Facilitates transcription of hepatitis B virus (HBV) genes by the pX transcription activator. In case of infection by HBV, together with pX, it represses TNF-alpha induced NF-kappa-B transcription activation. Represses transcription when artificially recruited to chromatin by fusion to a heterogeneous DNA binding domain.

Component of the axonemal radial spoke head which plays an important role in ciliary motility. Essential for triplet radial spokes (RS1, RS2 and RS3) head assembly in the motile cilia (By similarity).

May facilitate the release of atrial natriuretic peptide by cardiomyocytes and hence play a role in the regulation of arterial pressure.

Regulator of rDNA transcription. Acts in cooperation UBF/UBTF and positively regulates RNA polymerase I transcription (By similarity).

Plays a role in pre-mRNA splicing as a core component of the spliceosomal U1, U2, U4 and U5 small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs), the building blocks of the spliceosome. Component of both the pre-catalytic spliceosome B complex and activated spliceosome C complexes. Is also a component of the minor U12 spliceosome. As part of the U7 snRNP it is involved in histone pre-mRNA 3'-end processing.

May be involved in tissue-specific alternative RNA processing events

May play an important role in male meiosis (By similarity). It is necessary for proper building of the axonemal central pair and radial spokes.

Component of the axonemal radial spoke head which plays an important role in ciliary motility. Essential for both the radial spoke head assembly and the central pair microtubule stability in ependymal motile cilia (By similarity). Required for motility of olfactory and neural cilia and for the structural integrity of ciliary axonemes in both 9+0 and 9+2 motile cilia (By similarity).

Activator of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway by acting as a ligand for LGR4-6 receptors. Upon binding to LGR4-6 (LGR4, LGR5 or LGR6), LGR4-6 associate with phosphorylated LRP6 and frizzled receptors that are activated by extracellular Wnt receptors, triggering the canonical Wnt signaling pathway to increase expression of target genes. Also regulates the canonical Wnt/beta-catenin- dependent pathway and non-canonical Wnt signaling by acting as an inhibitor of ZNRF3, an important regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway. Acts as a ligand for frizzled FZD8 and LRP6. May negatively regulate the TGF-beta pathway. Has a essential roles in ovary determination. Regulates Wnt signaling by antagonizing DKK1/KREM1- mediated internalization of LRP6 through an interaction with KREM1.

Activator of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway by acting as a ligand for LGR4-6 receptors. Upon binding to LGR4-6 (LGR4, LGR5 or LGR6), LGR4-6 associate with phosphorylated LRP6 and frizzled receptors that are activated by extracellular Wnt receptors, triggering the canonical Wnt signaling pathway to increase expression of target genes. Also regulates the canonical Wnt/beta-catenin-dependent pathway and non-canonical Wnt signaling by acting as an inhibitor of ZNRF3, an important regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway. During embryonic development, plays a crucial role in limb specification, amplifying the Wnt signaling pathway independently of LGR4-6 receptors, possibly by acting as a direct antagonistic ligand to RNF43 and ZNRF3, hence governing the number of limbs an embryo should form.

Activator of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway by acting as a ligand for LGR4-6 receptors, which acts as a key regulator of angiogenesis. Upon binding to LGR4-6 (LGR4, LGR5 or LGR6), LGR4-6 associate with phosphorylated LRP6 and frizzled receptors that are activated by extracellular Wnt receptors, triggering the canonical Wnt signaling pathway to increase expression of target genes. Also regulates the canonical Wnt/beta-catenin-dependent pathway and non- canonical Wnt signaling by acting as an inhibitor of ZNRF3, an important regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway. Acts as a ligand for frizzled FZD8 and LRP6. May negatively regulate the TGF-beta pathway. Acts as a key regulator of angiogenesis by controlling vascular stability and pruning: acts by activating the non-canonical Wnt signaling pathway in endothelial cells (By similarity). Can also amplify Wnt signaling pathway independently of LGR4-6 receptors, possibly by acting as a direct antagonistic ligand to RNF43 and ZNRF3.

Activator of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway by acting as a ligand for LGR4-6 receptors. Upon binding to LGR4-6 (LGR4, LGR5 or LGR6), LGR4-6 associate with phosphorylated LRP6 and frizzled receptors that are activated by extracellular Wnt receptors, triggering the canonical Wnt signaling pathway to increase expression of target genes. Also regulates the canonical Wnt/beta-catenin- dependent pathway and non-canonical Wnt signaling by acting as an inhibitor of ZNRF3, an important regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway.

Has a role in alternative splicing and transcription regulation. Involved in both constitutive and alternative pre-mRNA splicing. May have a role in the recognition of the 3' splice site during the second step of splicing.

Required for the assembly and/or stability of the 40S ribosomal subunit. Required for the processing of the 20S rRNA- precursor to mature 18S rRNA in a late step of the maturation of 40S ribosomal subunits. Also functions as a cell surface receptor for laminin. Plays a role in cell adhesion to the basement membrane and in the consequent activation of signaling transduction pathways. May play a role in cell fate determination and tissue morphogenesis. Acts as a PPP1R16B-dependent substrate of PPP1CA.

Potentially plays a role in the Ras signal transduction pathway. Capable of suppressing v-Ras transformation in vitro

Required for mitoribosome formation and stability, and mitochondrial translation.

RNA-binding component of the mitochondrial small ribosomal subunit (mt-SSU) that plays a role in mitochondrial protein synthesis. Stimulates mitochondrial mRNA translation of subunit components of the mitochondrial electron transport chain. Binds to the mitochondrial 12S rRNA (12S mt-rRNA) and tRNA(Glu). Involved also in positive regulation of cell proliferation and tumor cell growth.

Required for mitochondrial translation, plays a role in maintaining the stability of the small ribosomal subunit and the 12S rRNA that are required for mitoribosome formation.

Plays a role in the regulation of retinal ganglion cell (RGC) neurite outgrowth, and hence in the development of the inner retina and optic nerve. Appears to be a potent inhibitor of regeneration following spinal cord injury.

Riboflavin-binding protein which might have a role in retinal flavin transport.

Catalyzes the conversion of 3'-phosphate to a 2',3'-cyclic phosphodiester at the end of RNA. The mechanism of action of the enzyme occurs in 3 steps: (A) adenylation of the enzyme by ATP; (B) transfer of adenylate to an RNA-N3'P to produce RNA-N3'PP5'A; (C) and attack of the adjacent 2'-hydroxyl on the 3'-phosphorus in the diester linkage to produce the cyclic end product. The biological role of this enzyme is unknown but it is likely to function in some aspects of cellular RNA processing.

Catalytic subunit of the tRNA-splicing ligase complex that acts by directly joining spliced tRNA halves to mature-sized tRNAs by incorporating the precursor-derived splice junction phosphate into the mature tRNA as a canonical 3',5'-phosphodiester. May act as an RNA ligase with broad substrate specificity, and may function toward other RNAs.

ATP-dependent DNA helicase implicated in telomere-length regulation, DNA repair and the maintenance of genomic stability. Acts as an anti-recombinase to counteract toxic recombination and limit crossover during meiosis. Regulates meiotic recombination and crossover homeostasis by physically dissociating strand invasion events and thereby promotes noncrossover repair by meiotic synthesis dependent strand annealing (SDSA) as well as disassembly of D loop recombination intermediates. Also disassembles T loops and prevents telomere fragility by counteracting telomeric G4-DNA structures, which together ensure the dynamics and stability of the telomere.

Component of the PAF1 complex (PAF1C) which has multiple functions during transcription by RNA polymerase II and is implicated in regulation of development and maintenance of embryonic stem cell pluripotency. PAF1C associates with RNA polymerase II through interaction with POLR2A CTD non-phosphorylated and 'Ser-2'- and 'Ser- 5'-phosphorylated forms and is involved in transcriptional elongation, acting both independently and synergistically with TCEA1 and in cooperation with the DSIF complex and HTATSF1. PAF1C is required for transcription of Hox and Wnt target genes. PAF1C is involved in hematopoiesis and stimulates transcriptional activity of KMT2A/MLL1; it promotes leukemogenesis through association with KMT2A/MLL1-rearranged oncoproteins, such as KMT2A/MLL1-MLLT3/AF9 and KMT2A/MLL1-MLLT1/ENL. PAF1C is involved in histone modifications such as ubiquitination of histone H2B and methylation on histone H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3). PAF1C recruits the RNF20/40 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex and the E2 enzyme UBE2A or UBE2B to chromatin which mediate monoubiquitination of 'Lys-120' of histone H2B (H2BK120ub1); UB2A/B-mediated H2B ubiquitination is proposed to be coupled to transcription. PAF1C is involved in mRNA 3' end formation probably through association with cleavage and poly(A) factors. In case of infection by influenza A strain H3N2, PAF1C associates with viral NS1 protein, thereby regulating gene transcription. Binds single-stranded DNA. Required for maximal induction of heat-shock genes. Required for the trimethylation of histone H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3) on genes involved in stem cell pluripotency; this function is synergistic with CXXC1 indicative for an involvement of a SET1 complex (By similarity).

Replication termination factor which is a component of the elongating replisome (Probable). Required for ATR pathway signaling upon DNA damage and has a positive activity during DNA replication. Might function to facilitate fork pausing at replication fork barriers like the rDNA. May be globally required to stimulate ATR signaling after the fork stalls or encounters a lesion (Probable). Interacts with nascent DNA.

Mediates Rho signaling to activate NF-kappa-B and may confer increased resistance to apoptosis to cells in gastric tumorigenesis. May play a novel role in the organization of septin structures.

Plays an essential role in capillaries endothelial cells for the maintenance of feto-maternal interface and for development of the placenta.

May function as a transcriptional regulator. Plays a role in postnatal myogenesis, may be involved in the regulation of satellite cells self-renewal.

Involved in cognitive function in the brain, possibly via the noradrenergic system.

Inhibits amyloid precursor protein processing, probably by blocking BACE1 activity.

Inhibits amyloid precursor protein processing, probably by blocking BACE1 activity. Enhances trafficking of the glutamate transporter SLC1A1/EAAC1 from the endoplasmic reticulum to the cell surface (By similarity). Plays a role in the translocation of SLC2A4/GLUT4 from intracellular membranes to the cell membrane which facilitates the uptake of glucose into the cell (By similarity).

May be involved in membrane trafficking in the early secretory pathway. Inhibits BACE1 activity and amyloid precursor protein processing. May induce caspase-8 cascade and apoptosis. May favor BCL2 translocation to the mitochondria upon endoplasmic reticulum stress. Induces the formation of endoplasmic reticulum tubules. Also acts as an inflammation-resolving regulator by interacting with both TRIM25 and RIGI, subsequently impairing RIGI 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination leading to IRF3 and NF-kappa-B inhibition.

Receptor for RTN4, OMG and MAG. Functions as receptor for the sialylated gangliosides GT1b and GM1. Besides, functions as receptor for chondroitin sulfate proteoglycans (By similarity). Can also bind heparin (By similarity). Intracellular signaling cascades are triggered via the coreceptor NGFR. Signaling mediates activation of Rho and downstream reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton. Mediates axonal growth inhibition. Plays a role in regulating axon regeneration and neuronal plasticity in the adult central nervous system. Plays a role in postnatal brain development. Required for normal axon migration across the brain midline and normal formation of the corpus callosum. Protects motoneurons against apoptosis; protection against apoptosis is probably mediated via interaction with MAG. Acts in conjunction with RTN4 and LINGO1 in regulating neuronal precursor cell motility during cortical development. Like other family members, plays a role in restricting the number dendritic spines and the number of synapses that are formed during brain development.

Required to induce the formation and stabilization of endoplasmic reticulum (ER) tubules. They regulate membrane morphogenesis in the ER by promoting tubular ER production. They influence nuclear envelope expansion, nuclear pore complex formation and proper localization of inner nuclear membrane proteins. However each isoform have specific functions mainly depending on their tissue expression specificities (Probable).

Specifically promotes functional cell surface expression of olfactory receptors, but not of other GPCRs.

Promotes functional cell surface expression of the bitter taste receptors TAS2R16 and TAS2R43.

Probable chaperone protein which facilitates trafficking and functional cell surface expression of some G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs). Promotes functional expression of the bitter taste receptor TAS2R16. Also promotes functional expression of the opioid receptor heterodimer OPRD1-OPRM1 (By similarity).

RNA-binding protein involved in modulation of mRNA transcription by Polymerase II. Component of the tRNA-splicing ligase complex and is required for tRNA ligation. May be required for RNA transport.

Involved in the genetic cascade that governs left-right specification. Plays a role in the maintenance of a normal ciliary structure. Required for correct asymmetric expression of NODAL, LEFTY and PITX2.

Component of the spliceosomal U1 snRNP, which is essential for recognition of the pre-mRNA 5' splice-site and the subsequent assembly of the spliceosome. SNRNP70 binds to the loop I region of U1-snRNA.

Component of the spliceosomal U1 snRNP, which is essential for recognition of the pre-mRNA 5' splice-site and the subsequent assembly of the spliceosome. SNRPC/U1-C is directly involved in initial 5' splice-site recognition for both constitutive and regulated alternative splicing. The interaction with the 5' splice-site seems to precede base-pairing between the pre-mRNA and the U1 snRNA. Stimulates commitment or early (E) complex formation by stabilizing the base pairing of the 5' end of the U1 snRNA and the 5' splice-site region.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Associated with sn-RNP U2, where it contributes to the binding of stem loop IV of U2 snRNA.

Inhibits PIK3C3 activity; under basal conditions negatively regulates PI3K complex II (PI3KC3-C2) function in autophagy. Negatively regulates endosome maturation and degradative endocytic trafficking and impairs autophagosome maturation process. Can sequester UVRAG from association with a class C Vps complex (possibly the HOPS complex) and negatively regulates Rab7 activation.

Binds phospholipid vesicles containing phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate and participates in early endosomal trafficking.

Plays a role in the generation of neuronal polarity formation and axon growth (By similarity). Implicated in the formation of a single axon by developing neurons (By similarity). May inhibit the formation of additional axons by inhibition of PI3K in minor neuronal processes (By similarity). Plays a role in the formation of F-actin- enriched protrusive structures at the cell periphery. Plays a role in cytoskeletal organization by regulating the subcellular localization of FSCN1 and DBN1 at axonal growth cones (By similarity). Promotes gastric cancer cell migration and invasion in a PAK1-dependent manner.

Positively regulates macroautophagy in primary dendritic cells. Increases autophagic flux, probably by stimulating both autophagosome formation and facilitating tethering with lysosomes. Binds to phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns3P) through its FYVE- type zinc finger.

May play a role as p53/TP53 inhibitor and thus may have oncogenic activity.

Forms the heterodimeric complex core-binding factor (CBF) with CBFB. RUNX members modulate the transcription of their target genes through recognizing the core consensus binding sequence 5'- TGTGGT-3', or very rarely, 5'-TGCGGT-3', within their regulatory regions via their runt domain, while CBFB is a non-DNA-binding regulatory subunit that allosterically enhances the sequence-specific DNA-binding capacity of RUNX. The heterodimers bind to the core site of a number of enhancers and promoters, including murine leukemia virus, polyomavirus enhancer, T-cell receptor enhancers, LCK, IL3 and GM-CSF promoters (Probable). Essential for the development of normal hematopoiesis. Acts synergistically with ELF4 to transactivate the IL-3 promoter and with ELF2 to transactivate the BLK promoter. Inhibits KAT6B-dependent transcriptional activation (By similarity). Involved in lineage commitment of immature T cell precursors. CBF complexes repress ZBTB7B transcription factor during cytotoxic (CD8+) T cell development. They bind to RUNX-binding sequence within the ZBTB7B locus acting as transcriptional silencer and allowing for cytotoxic T cell differentiation. CBF complexes binding to the transcriptional silencer is essential for recruitment of nuclear protein complexes that catalyze epigenetic modifications to establish epigenetic ZBTB7B silencing (By similarity). Controls the anergy and suppressive function of regulatory T-cells (Treg) by associating with FOXP3. Activates the expression of IL2 and IFNG and down-regulates the expression of TNFRSF18, IL2RA and CTLA4, in conventional T-cells. Positively regulates the expression of RORC in T-helper 17 cells (By similarity).

Transcription factor involved in osteoblastic differentiation and skeletal morphogenesis. Essential for the maturation of osteoblasts and both intramembranous and endochondral ossification. CBF binds to the core site, 5'-PYGPYGGT-3', of a number of enhancers and promoters, including murine leukemia virus, polyomavirus enhancer, T-cell receptor enhancers, osteocalcin, osteopontin, bone sialoprotein, alpha 1(I) collagen, LCK, IL-3 and GM-CSF promoters. In osteoblasts, supports transcription activation: synergizes with SPEN/MINT to enhance FGFR2- mediated activation of the osteocalcin FGF-responsive element (OCFRE) (By similarity). Inhibits KAT6B-dependent transcriptional activation.

Forms the heterodimeric complex core-binding factor (CBF) with CBFB. RUNX members modulate the transcription of their target genes through recognizing the core consensus binding sequence 5'- TGTGGT-3', or very rarely, 5'-TGCGGT-3', within their regulatory regions via their runt domain, while CBFB is a non-DNA-binding regulatory subunit that allosterically enhances the sequence-specific DNA-binding capacity of RUNX. The heterodimers bind to the core site of a number of enhancers and promoters, including murine leukemia virus, polyomavirus enhancer, T-cell receptor enhancers, LCK, IL3 and GM-CSF promoters (By similarity). May be involved in the control of cellular proliferation and/or differentiation. In association with ZFHX3, up- regulates CDKN1A promoter activity following TGF-beta stimulation. CBF complexes repress ZBTB7B transcription factor during cytotoxic (CD8+) T cell development. They bind to RUNX-binding sequence within the ZBTB7B locus acting as transcriptional silencer and allowing for cytotoxic T cell differentiation. CBF complexes binding to the transcriptional silencer is essential for recruitment of nuclear protein complexes that catalyze epigenetic modifications to establish epigenetic ZBTB7B silencing (By similarity).

Associates with the adapter-like complex 4 (AP-4) and may therefore play a role in vesicular trafficking of proteins at the trans-Golgi network. Signaling adapter which plays a role in neuronal differentiation. Involved in regulation of NGF-dependent neurite outgrowth. May play a role in neuronal vesicular trafficking, specifically involving pre-synaptic membrane proteins (By similarity). Seems to be involved in signaling pathways that are regulated by the prolonged activation of MAPK. Can regulate the polyubiquitination of IKBKG and thus may be involved in regulation of the NF-kappa-B pathway.

Associates with the adapter-like complex 4 (AP-4) and may therefore play a role in vesicular trafficking of proteins at the trans-Golgi network.

Catalyzes uridine to pseudouridine isomerization (pseudouridylation) of specific mitochondrial mRNAs (mt-mRNAs), a post- transcriptional modification necessary for their translation. Acts at position 390 in COXI mt-mRNA and at position 697-699 in mitochondrial COXIII mt-mRNA. As a component of a functional protein-RNA module, consisting of RCC1L, NGRN, RPUSD3, RPUSD4, TRUB2, FASTKD2 and 16S mitochondrial ribosomal RNA (16S mt-rRNA), controls 16S mt-rRNA abundance and may play a role in mitochondrial ribosome biogenesis.

Catalyzes uridine to pseudouridine isomerization (pseudouridylation) of different mitochondrial RNA substrates. Acts on position 1397 in 16S mitochondrial ribosomal RNA (16S mt-rRNA). This modification is required for the assembly of 16S mt-rRNA into a functional mitochondrial ribosome. As a component of a functional protein-RNA module, consisting of RCC1L, NGRN, RPUSD3, RPUSD4, TRUB2, FASTKD2 and 16S mt-rRNA, controls 16S mt-rRNA abundance and is required for intra-mitochondrial translation. Acts on position 39 in mitochondrial tRNA(Phe). Also catalyzes pseudouridylation of mRNAs in nucleus: acts as a regulator of pre-mRNA splicing by mediating pseudouridylation of pre-mRNAs at locations associated with alternatively spliced regions. Pseudouridylation of pre-mRNAs near splice sites directly regulates mRNA splicing and mRNA 3'-end processing.

Possesses single-stranded DNA-stimulated ATPase and ATP- dependent DNA helicase (3' to 5') activity; hexamerization is thought to be critical for ATP hydrolysis and adjacent subunits in the ring- like structure contribute to the ATPase activity. Component of the NuA4 histone acetyltransferase complex which is involved in transcriptional activation of select genes principally by acetylation of nucleosomal histones H4 and H2A. This modification may both alter nucleosome-DNA interactions and promote interaction of the modified histones with other proteins which positively regulate transcription. This complex may be required for the activation of transcriptional programs associated with oncogene and proto-oncogene mediated growth induction, tumor suppressor mediated growth arrest and replicative senescence, apoptosis, and DNA repair. The NuA4 complex ATPase and helicase activities seem to be, at least in part, contributed by the association of RUVBL1 and RUVBL2 with EP400. NuA4 may also play a direct role in DNA repair when recruited to sites of DNA damage. Component of a SWR1-like complex that specifically mediates the removal of histone H2A.Z/H2AZ1 from the nucleosome. Proposed core component of the chromatin remodeling INO80 complex which exhibits DNA- and nucleosome-activated ATPase activity and catalyzes ATP-dependent nucleosome sliding. Plays an essential role in oncogenic transformation by MYC and also modulates transcriptional activation by the LEF1/TCF1-CTNNB1 complex. Essential for cell proliferation. May be able to bind plasminogen at cell surface and enhance plasminogen activation.

Possesses single-stranded DNA-stimulated ATPase and ATP- dependent DNA helicase (5' to 3') activity; hexamerization is thought to be critical for ATP hydrolysis and adjacent subunits in the ring- like structure contribute to the ATPase activity. Component of the NuA4 histone acetyltransferase complex which is involved in transcriptional activation of select genes principally by acetylation of nucleosomal histones H4 and H2A. This modification may both alter nucleosome -DNA interactions and promote interaction of the modified histones with other proteins which positively regulate transcription. This complex may be required for the activation of transcriptional programs associated with oncogene and proto-oncogene mediated growth induction, tumor suppressor mediated growth arrest and replicative senescence, apoptosis, and DNA repair. The NuA4 complex ATPase and helicase activities seem to be, at least in part, contributed by the association of RUVBL1 and RUVBL2 with EP400. NuA4 may also play a direct role in DNA repair when recruited to sites of DNA damage. Component of a SWR1-like complex that specifically mediates the removal of histone H2A.Z/H2AZ1 from the nucleosome. Proposed core component of the chromatin remodeling INO80 complex which exhibits DNA- and nucleosome-activated ATPase activity and catalyzes ATP- dependent nucleosome sliding. Plays an essential role in oncogenic transformation by MYC and also modulates transcriptional activation by the LEF1/TCF1-CTNNB1 complex. May also inhibit the transcriptional activity of ATF2. Involved in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)-associated degradation (ERAD) pathway where it negatively regulates expression of ER stress response genes. May play a role in regulating the composition of the U5 snRNP complex.

Plays a role in pre-mRNA splicing as a core component of the spliceosomal U1, U2, U4 and U5 small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs), the building blocks of the spliceosome. Component of both the pre-catalytic spliceosome B complex and activated spliceosome C complexes. Is also a component of the minor U12 spliceosome. As part of the U7 snRNP it is involved in histone 3'-end processing.

Enhancer of SUMO conjugation. Via its interaction with UBE2I/UBC9, increases SUMO conjugation to proteins by promoting the binding of E1 and E2 enzymes, thioester linkage between SUMO and UBE2I/UBC9 and transfer of SUMO to specific target proteins which include HIF1A, PIAS, NFKBIA, NR3C1 and TOP1. Isoform 1 and isoform 2 positively regulate the NF-kappa-B signaling pathway by enhancing the sumoylation of NF-kappa-B inhibitor alpha (NFKBIA), promoting its stabilization which consequently leads to an increased inhibition of NF-kappa-B transcriptional activity. Isoform 1 and isoform 2 negatively regulate the hypoxia-inducible factor-1 alpha (HIF1A) signaling pathway by increasing the sumoylation of HIF1A, promoting its stabilization, transcriptional activity and the expression of its target gene VEGFA during hypoxia. Isoform 2 promotes the sumoylation and transcriptional activity of the glucocorticoid receptor NR3C1 and enhances the interaction of SUMO1 and NR3C1 with UBE2I/UBC9. Has no effect on ubiquitination.

Receptor for relaxins. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins leading to stimulation of adenylate cyclase and an increase of cAMP. Binding of the ligand may also activate a tyrosine kinase pathway that inhibits the activity of a phosphodiesterase that degrades cAMP

Receptor for relaxin. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins leading to stimulation of adenylate cyclase and an increase of cAMP. May also be a receptor for Leydig insulin-like peptide (INSL3)

Acts as a UDP-D-xylose:ribitol-5-phosphate beta1,4- xylosyltransferase, which catalyzes the transfer of UDP-D-xylose to ribitol 5-phosphate (Rbo5P) to form the Xylbeta1-4Rbo5P linkage on O- mannosyl glycan (Probable). Participates in the biosynthesis of the phosphorylated O-mannosyl trisaccharide (N-acetylgalactosamine-beta-3-N-acetylglucosamine-beta-4- (phosphate-6-)mannose), a carbohydrate structure present in alpha- dystroglycan (DAG1), which is required for binding laminin G-like domain-containing extracellular proteins with high affinity (Probable).

Receptor for retinoic acid that acts as a transcription factor. Forms homo- or heterodimers with retinoic acid receptors (RARs) and binds to target response elements in response to their ligands, all-trans or 9-cis retinoic acid, to regulate gene expression in various biological processes. The RAR/RXR heterodimers bind to the retinoic acid response elements (RARE) composed of tandem 5'-AGGTCA-3' sites known as DR1-DR5 to regulate transcription. The high affinity ligand for retinoid X receptors (RXRs) is 9-cis retinoic acid. In the absence of ligand, the RXR-RAR heterodimers associate with a multiprotein complex containing transcription corepressors that induce histone deacetylation, chromatin condensation and transcriptional suppression. On ligand binding, the corepressors dissociate from the receptors and coactivators are recruited leading to transcriptional activation. Serves as a common heterodimeric partner for a number of nuclear receptors, such as RARA, RARB and PPARA. The RXRA/RARB heterodimer can act as a transcriptional repressor or transcriptional activator, depending on the RARE DNA element context. The RXRA/PPARA heterodimer is required for PPARA transcriptional activity on fatty acid oxidation genes such as ACOX1 and the P450 system genes. Together with RARA, positively regulates microRNA-10a expression, thereby inhibiting the GATA6/VCAM1 signaling response to pulsatile shear stress in vascular endothelial cells. Acts as an enhancer of RARA binding to RARE DNA element. May facilitate the nuclear import of heterodimerization partners such as VDR and NR4A1. Promotes myelin debris phagocytosis and remyelination by macrophages. Plays a role in the attenuation of the innate immune system in response to viral infections, possibly by negatively regulating the transcription of antiviral genes such as type I IFN genes. Involved in the regulation of calcium signaling by repressing ITPR2 gene expression, thereby controlling cellular senescence.

Receptor for retinoic acid. Retinoic acid receptors bind as heterodimers to their target response elements in response to their ligands, all-trans or 9-cis retinoic acid, and regulate gene expression in various biological processes. The RAR/RXR heterodimers bind to the retinoic acid response elements (RARE).

Receptor for retinoic acid. Retinoic acid receptors bind as heterodimers to their target response elements in response to their ligands, all-trans or 9-cis retinoic acid, and regulate gene expression in various biological processes. The RAR/RXR heterodimers bind to the retinoic acid response elements (RARE) composed of tandem 5'-AGGTCA-3' sites known as DR1-DR5. The high affinity ligand for RXRs is 9-cis retinoic acid (By similarity).

Plays a critical role in eye formation by regulating the initial specification of retinal cells and/or their subsequent proliferation. Binds to the photoreceptor conserved element-I (PCE- 1/Ret 1) in the photoreceptor cell-specific arrestin promoter

May be a coreceptor along with FZD8 of Wnt proteins, such as WNT1, WNT3, WNT3A and WNT5A. Involved in neuron differentiation, axon guidance, corpus callosum establishment and neurite outgrowth. In response to WNT3 stimulation, receptor C-terminal cleavage occurs in its transmembrane region and allows the C-terminal intracellular product to translocate from the cytoplasm to the nucleus where it plays a crucial role in neuronal development.

Calcium channel that mediates the release of Ca(2+) from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytoplasm and thereby plays a key role in triggering muscle contraction following depolarization of T-tubules. Repeated very high-level exercise increases the open probability of the channel and leads to Ca(2+) leaking into the cytoplasm. Can also mediate the release of Ca(2+) from intracellular stores in neurons, and may thereby promote prolonged Ca(2+) signaling in the brain. Required for normal embryonic development of muscle fibers and skeletal muscle. Required for normal heart morphogenesis, skin development and ossification during embryogenesis (By similarity).

Calcium channel that mediates the release of Ca(2+) from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytoplasm and thereby plays a key role in triggering cardiac muscle contraction. Aberrant channel activation can lead to cardiac arrhythmia. In cardiac myocytes, calcium release is triggered by increased Ca(2+) levels due to activation of the L-type calcium channel CACNA1C. The calcium channel activity is modulated by formation of heterotetramers with RYR3. Required for cellular calcium ion homeostasis. Required for embryonic heart development.

Calcium channel that mediates the release of Ca(2+) from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytoplasm in muscle and thereby plays a role in triggering muscle contraction. May regulate Ca(2+) release by other calcium channels. Calcium channel that mediates Ca(2+)-induced Ca(2+) release from the endoplasmic reticulum in non-muscle cells. Contributes to cellular calcium ion homeostasis (By similarity). Plays a role in cellular calcium signaling.

Weakly binds calcium but binds zinc very tightly-distinct binding sites with different affinities exist for both ions on each monomer. Physiological concentrations of potassium ion antagonize the binding of both divalent cations, especially affecting high-affinity calcium-binding sites. Binds to and initiates the activation of STK38 by releasing autoinhibitory intramolecular interactions within the kinase. Interaction with AGER after myocardial infarction may play a role in myocyte apoptosis by activating ERK1/2 and p53/TP53 signaling. Could assist ATAD3A cytoplasmic processing, preventing aggregation and favoring mitochondrial localization. May mediate calcium-dependent regulation on many physiological processes by interacting with other proteins, such as TPR-containing proteins, and modulating their activity.

May function as calcium sensor and contribute to cellular calcium signaling. In a calcium-dependent manner, functions by interacting with other proteins, such as EZR and PPP5C, and indirectly plays a role in physiological processes like the formation of microvilli in epithelial cells. May stimulate cell proliferation in an autocrine manner via activation of the receptor for activated glycation end products (RAGE).

Small calcium binding protein that plays important roles in several biological processes such as Ca(2+) homeostasis, chondrocyte biology and cardiomyocyte regulation. In response to an increase in intracellular Ca(2+) levels, binds calcium which triggers conformational changes. These changes allow interactions with specific target proteins and modulate their activity. Regulates a network in cardiomyocytes controlling sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+) cycling and mitochondrial function through interaction with the ryanodine receptors RYR1 and RYR2, sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+)-ATPase/ATP2A2 and mitochondrial F1-ATPase. Facilitates diastolic Ca(2+) dissociation and myofilament mechanics in order to improve relaxation during diastole.

May function as calcium sensor and modulator, contributing to cellular calcium signaling. May function by interacting with other proteins, such as TPR-containing proteins, and indirectly play a role in many physiological processes. May also play a role in suppressing tumor cell growth.

Binds both calcium and zinc. May be involved in calcium- dependent cuticle cell differentiation, hair shaft and hair cuticular barrier formation.

Calcium-binding protein that plays a role in various cellular processes including motility, angiogenesis, cell differentiation, apoptosis, and autophagy. Increases cell motility and invasiveness by interacting with non-muscle myosin heavy chain (NMMHC) IIA/MYH9. Mechanistically, promotes filament depolymerization and increases the amount of soluble myosin-IIA, resulting in the formation of stable protrusions facilitating chemotaxis (By similarity). Modulates also the pro-apoptotic function of TP53 by binding to its C-terminal transactivation domain within the nucleus and reducing its protein levels. Within the extracellular space, stimulates cytokine production including granulocyte colony- stimulating factor and CCL24 from T-lymphocytes (By similarity). In addition, stimulates T-lymphocyte chemotaxis by acting as a chemoattractant complex with PGLYRP1 that promotes lymphocyte migration via CCR5 and CXCR3 receptors.

Binds calcium, zinc and copper. One subunit can simultaneously bind 2 calcium ions or 2 copper ions plus 1 zinc ion. Calcium and copper ions compete for the same binding sites.

May function as calcium sensor and modulator, contributing to cellular calcium signaling. May function by interacting with other proteins, such as TPR-containing proteins, and indirectly play a role in many physiological processes such as the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and in cell motility. Binds 2 calcium ions. Calcium binding is cooperative.

S100A8 is a calcium- and zinc-binding protein which plays a prominent role in the regulation of inflammatory processes and immune response. It can induce neutrophil chemotaxis and adhesion. Predominantly found as calprotectin (S100A8/A9) which has a wide plethora of intra- and extracellular functions. The intracellular functions include: facilitating leukocyte arachidonic acid trafficking and metabolism, modulation of the tubulin-dependent cytoskeleton during migration of phagocytes and activation of the neutrophilic NADPH- oxidase. Activates NADPH-oxidase by facilitating the enzyme complex assembly at the cell membrane, transferring arachidonic acid, an essential cofactor, to the enzyme complex and S100A8 contributes to the enzyme assembly by directly binding to NCF2/P67PHOX. The extracellular functions involve pro-inflammatory, antimicrobial, oxidant-scavenging and apoptosis-inducing activities. Its pro-inflammatory activity includes recruitment of leukocytes, promotion of cytokine and chemokine production, and regulation of leukocyte adhesion and migration. Acts as an alarmin or a danger associated molecular pattern (DAMP) molecule and stimulates innate immune cells via binding to pattern recognition receptors such as Toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4) and receptor for advanced glycation endproducts (AGER). Binding to TLR4 and AGER activates the MAP-kinase and NF-kappa-B signaling pathways resulting in the amplification of the pro-inflammatory cascade. Has antimicrobial activity towards bacteria and fungi and exerts its antimicrobial activity probably via chelation of Zn(2+) which is essential for microbial growth. Can induce cell death via autophagy and apoptosis and this occurs through the cross-talk of mitochondria and lysosomes via reactive oxygen species (ROS) and the process involves BNIP3. Can regulate neutrophil number and apoptosis by an anti-apoptotic effect; regulates cell survival via ITGAM/ITGB and TLR4 and a signaling mechanism involving MEK-ERK. Its role as an oxidant scavenger has a protective role in preventing exaggerated tissue damage by scavenging oxidants. Can act as a potent amplifier of inflammation in autoimmunity as well as in cancer development and tumor spread. The iNOS-S100A8/A9 transnitrosylase complex directs selective inflammatory stimulus- dependent S-nitrosylation of GAPDH and probably multiple targets such as ANXA5, EZR, MSN and VIM by recognizing a [IL]-x-C-x-x-[DE] motif; S100A8 seems to contribute to S-nitrosylation site selectivity.

S100A9 is a calcium- and zinc-binding protein which plays a prominent role in the regulation of inflammatory processes and immune response. It can induce neutrophil chemotaxis, adhesion, can increase the bactericidal activity of neutrophils by promoting phagocytosis via activation of SYK, PI3K/AKT, and ERK1/2 and can induce degranulation of neutrophils by a MAPK-dependent mechanism. Predominantly found as calprotectin (S100A8/A9) which has a wide plethora of intra- and extracellular functions. The intracellular functions include: facilitating leukocyte arachidonic acid trafficking and metabolism, modulation of the tubulin-dependent cytoskeleton during migration of phagocytes and activation of the neutrophilic NADPH-oxidase. Activates NADPH-oxidase by facilitating the enzyme complex assembly at the cell membrane, transferring arachidonic acid, an essential cofactor, to the enzyme complex and S100A8 contributes to the enzyme assembly by directly binding to NCF2/P67PHOX. The extracellular functions involve pro-inflammatory, antimicrobial, oxidant-scavenging and apoptosis-inducing activities. Its pro-inflammatory activity includes recruitment of leukocytes, promotion of cytokine and chemokine production, and regulation of leukocyte adhesion and migration. Acts as an alarmin or a danger associated molecular pattern (DAMP) molecule and stimulates innate immune cells via binding to pattern recognition receptors such as Toll- like receptor 4 (TLR4) and receptor for advanced glycation endproducts (AGER). Binding to TLR4 and AGER activates the MAP- kinase and NF-kappa-B signaling pathways resulting in the amplification of the pro-inflammatory cascade. Has antimicrobial activity towards bacteria and fungi and exerts its antimicrobial activity probably via chelation of Zn(2+) which is essential for microbial growth. Can induce cell death via autophagy and apoptosis and this occurs through the cross-talk of mitochondria and lysosomes via reactive oxygen species (ROS) and the process involves BNIP3. Can regulate neutrophil number and apoptosis by an anti-apoptotic effect; regulates cell survival via ITGAM/ITGB and TLR4 and a signaling mechanism involving MEK-ERK. Its role as an oxidant scavenger has a protective role in preventing exaggerated tissue damage by scavenging oxidants. Can act as a potent amplifier of inflammation in autoimmunity as well as in cancer development and tumor spread. Has transnitrosylase activity; in oxidatively-modified low-densitity lipoprotein (LDL(ox))- induced S-nitrosylation of GAPDH on 'Cys-247' proposed to transfer the NO moiety from NOS2/iNOS to GAPDH via its own S-nitrosylated Cys-3. The iNOS-S100A8/A9 transnitrosylase complex is proposed to also direct selective inflammatory stimulus-dependent S- nitrosylation of multiple targets such as ANXA5, EZR, MSN and VIM by recognizing a [IL]-x-C-x-x-[DE] motif.

Because S100A10 induces the dimerization of ANXA2/p36, it may function as a regulator of protein phosphorylation in that the ANXA2 monomer is the preferred target (in vitro) of tyrosine-specific kinase

Facilitates the differentiation and the cornification of keratinocytes.

S100A12 is a calcium-, zinc- and copper-binding protein which plays a prominent role in the regulation of inflammatory processes and immune response. Its pro-inflammatory activity involves recruitment of leukocytes, promotion of cytokine and chemokine production, and regulation of leukocyte adhesion and migration. Acts as an alarmin or a danger associated molecular pattern (DAMP) molecule and stimulates innate immune cells via binding to receptor for advanced glycation endproducts (AGER). Binding to AGER activates the MAP-kinase and NF- kappa-B signaling pathways leading to production of pro-inflammatory cytokines and up-regulation of cell adhesion molecules ICAM1 and VCAM1. Acts as a monocyte and mast cell chemoattractant. Can stimulate mast cell degranulation and activation which generates chemokines, histamine and cytokines inducing further leukocyte recruitment to the sites of inflammation. Can inhibit the activity of matrix metalloproteinases; MMP2, MMP3 and MMP9 by chelating Zn(2+) from their active sites. Possesses filariacidal and filariastatic activity. Calcitermin possesses antifungal activity against C.albicans and is also active against E.coli and P.aeruginosa but not L.monocytogenes and S.aureus.

Plays a role in the export of proteins that lack a signal peptide and are secreted by an alternative pathway. Binds two calcium ions per subunit. Binds one copper ion. Binding of one copper ion does not interfere with calcium binding. Required for the copper-dependent stress-induced export of IL1A and FGF1. The calcium-free protein binds to lipid vesicles containing phosphatidylserine, but not to vesicles containing phosphatidylcholine (By similarity).

Modulates P53/TP53 protein levels, and thereby plays a role in the regulation of cell survival and apoptosis. Depending on the context, it can promote cell proliferation or apoptosis. Plays a role in the regulation of cell migration by modulating the levels of MMP2, a matrix protease that is under transcriptional control of P53/TP53. Does not bind calcium.

Calcium-binding protein. Binds one calcium ion per monomer. Can promote differentiation of adipocytes (in vitro) (By similarity). Overexpression in preadipocytes increases their proliferation, enhances adipogenesis and reduces insulin-stimulated glucose uptake (By similarity).

May regulate STK11/LKB1 function by controlling its subcellular localization.

Renal sodium, potassium and chloride ion cotransporter that mediates the transepithelial NaCl reabsorption in the thick ascending limb and plays an essential role in the urinary concentration and volume regulation. Electrically silent transporter system.

Cation-chloride cotransporter which mediates the electroneutral transport of chloride, potassium and/or sodium ions across the membrane. Plays a vital role in the regulation of ionic balance and cell volume.

Electroneutral sodium and chloride ion cotransporter. In kidney distal convoluted tubules, key mediator of sodium and chloride reabsorption. Receptor for the pro- inflammatory cytokine IL18. Contributes to IL18-induced cytokine production, including IFNG, IL6, IL18 and CCL2. May act either independently of IL18R1, or in a complex with IL18R1 (By similarity).

Mediates electroneutral potassium-chloride cotransport when activated by cell swelling. May contribute to cell volume homeostasis in single cells. May be involved in the regulation of basolateral Cl(-) exit in NaCl absorbing epithelia (By similarity).

Mediates electroneutral potassium-chloride cotransport in mature neurons and is required for neuronal Cl(-) homeostasis. As major extruder of intracellular chloride, it establishes the low neuronal Cl(-) levels required for chloride influx after binding of GABA-A and glycine to their receptors, with subsequent hyperpolarization and neuronal inhibition (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of dendritic spine formation and maturation.

[Isoform 1]: Mediates electroneutral potassium-chloride cotransport when activated by cell swelling. May contribute to cell volume homeostasis in single cells (Probable).

Mediates electroneutral potassium-chloride cotransport when activated by cell swelling. May mediate K(+) uptake into Deiters' cells in the cochlea and contribute to K(+) recycling in the inner ear. Important for the survival of cochlear outer and inner hair cells and the maintenance of the organ of Corti. May be required for basolateral Cl(-) extrusion in the kidney and contribute to renal acidification (By similarity).

Cation/chloride cotransporter that may play a role in the control of keratinocyte proliferation.

May be an inhibitor of SLC12A1. Seems to correspond to a subunit of a multimeric transport system and thus, additional subunits may be required for its function.

Sodium:sulfate symporter that mediates sulfate reabsorption in the kidney and small intestine. Can also mediate the transport of selenate and thiosulfate (By similarity).

Low-affinity sodium-dicarboxylate cotransporter, that mediates the entry of citric acid cycle intermediates, such as succinate, citrate, fumarate and alpha-ketoglutarate (2-oxoglutarate) into the small intestine and renal proximal tubule. Transports the dicarboxylate into the cell with a probable stoichiometry of 3 Na(+) for 1 divalent dicarboxylate, rendering the process electrogenic. Citrate is transported in protonated form as a divalent anion, rather than the trivalent form which is normally found in blood. Has a critical role in renal dicarboxylate transport (By similarity).

High-affinity sodium-dicarboxylate cotransporter that accepts a range of substrates with 4-6 carbon atoms, such as the citric acid cycle intermediates succinate and alpha-ketoglutarate (2-oxoglutarate), as well as other compounds including N-acetyl-L-aspartate. Transports the dicarboxylate into the cell with a probable stoichiometry of 3 Na(+) for 1 divalent dicarboxylate, rendering the process electrogenic. Can transport citrate in a Na(+)- dependent manner, recognizing the divalent form of citrate rather than the trivalent form which is normally found in blood.

High-affinity sodium/citrate cotransporter that mediates the entry of citrate into cells, which is a critical participant of biochemical pathways. May function in various metabolic processes in which citrate has a critical role such as energy production (Krebs cycle), fatty acid synthesis, cholesterol synthesis, glycolysis, and gluconeogenesis. Transports citrate into the cell in a Na(+)- dependent manner, recognizing the trivalent form of citrate (physiological pH) rather than the divalent form. Can recognize succinate as a substrate, but its affinity for succinate is several fold lower than for citrate. The stoichiometry is probably 4 Na(+) for each carboxylate, irrespective of whether the translocated substrate is divalent or trivalent, rendering the process electrogenic. Involved in the regulation of citrate levels in the brain (By similarity).

May play a role in innate immunity by inhibiting the antiviral RIG-I signaling pathway. In this pathway, functions as a negative regulator of RIGI, the cytoplasmic sensor of viral nucleic acids. Prevents the interaction of RIGI with MAVS/IPS1, an important step in signal propagation. May also regulate the SLC18A3 and SLC5A7 cholinergic transporters.

Carrier protein. Binds to some hydrophobic molecules and promotes their transfer between the different cellular sites. Binds with high affinity to alpha-tocopherol. Also binds with a weaker affinity to other tocopherols and to tocotrienols. May have a transcriptional activatory activity via its association with alpha- tocopherol. Probably recognizes and binds some squalene structure, suggesting that it may regulate cholesterol biosynthesis by increasing the transfer of squalene to a metabolic active pool in the cell

Probable hydrophobic ligand-binding protein; may play a role in the transport of hydrophobic ligands like tocopherol, squalene and phospholipids

Proton-coupled amino-acid transporter that transports oligopeptides of 2 to 4 amino acids with a preference for dipeptides. Primarily responsible for the absorption of dietary di- and tripeptides from the small intestinal lumen (By similarity).

Proton-coupled amino-acid transporter that transports oligopeptides of 2 to 4 amino acids with a preference for dipeptides. Transports the dipeptide-like aminopeptidase inhibitor bestatin (By similarity). Can also transport the aminocephalosporin antibiotic cefadroxil (By similarity). Also able to transport carnosine. Involved in innate immunity by promoting the detection of microbial pathogens by NOD-like receptors (NLRs) (By similarity). Probably acts by mediating transport of bacterial peptidoglycans across the plasma membrane: catalyzes the transport of certain bacterial peptidoglycans, such as muramyl dipeptide (MDP), the NOD2 ligand (By similarity).

Proton-coupled amino-acid transporter that transports free histidine and certain di- and tripeptides, and is involved in innate immune response (By similarity). Also able to transport carnosine. Involved in the detection of microbial pathogens by toll-like receptors (TLRs) and NOD-like receptors (NLRs), probably by mediating transport of bacterial peptidoglycans across the endolysosomal membrane: catalyzes the transport of certain bacterial peptidoglycans, such as muramyl dipeptide (MDP), the NOD2 ligand (By similarity).

Proton-coupled amino-acid transporter that mediates the transmembrane transport of L-histidine and some di- and tripeptides from inside the lysosome to the cytosol, and plays a key role in innate immune response. Able to transport a variety of di- and tripeptides, including carnosine and some peptidoglycans. Transporter activity is pH-dependent and maximized in the acidic lysosomal environment (By similarity). Involved in the detection of microbial pathogens by toll-like receptors (TLRs) and NOD-like receptors (NLRs), probably by mediating transport of bacterial peptidoglycans across the endolysosomal membrane: catalyzes the transport of certain bacterial peptidoglycans, such as muramyl dipeptide (MDP), the NOD2 ligand, and L-alanyl-gamma-D-glutamyl-meso-2,6-diaminoheptanedioate (tri-DAP), the NOD1 ligand. Required for TLR7, TLR8 and TLR9-mediated type I interferon (IFN-I) productions in plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDCs). Independently of its transporter activity, also promotes the recruitment of innate immune adapter TASL to endolysosome downstream of TLR7, TLR8 and TLR9: TASL recruitment leads to the specific recruitment and activation of IRF5. Required for isotype class switch recombination to IgG2c isotype in response to TLR9 stimulation (By similarity). Required for mast cell secretory-granule homeostasis by limiting mast cell functions and inflammatory responses (By similarity).

Acts as a membrane potential-dependent organic anion transporter, the transport requires a low concentration of chloride ions. May be involved in urate extrusion from the intestinal duct. May recognize hydrophilic anionic drugs such as aspirin, salicylate, and ibuprofen as substrates. Able to actively transport inorganic phosphate into cells via Na(+) cotransport (in vitro).

Transports glucuronic acid and free sialic acid out of the lysosome after it is cleaved from sialoglycoconjugates undergoing degradation, this is required for normal CNS myelination. Mediates aspartate and glutamate membrane potential-dependent uptake into synaptic vesicles and synaptic-like microvesicles. Also functions as an electrogenic 2NO(3)(-)/H(+) cotransporter in the plasma membrane of salivary gland acinar cells, mediating the physiological nitrate efflux, 25% of the circulating nitrate ions is typically removed and secreted in saliva.

Involved in vesicular storage and exocytosis of ATP. May accumulate ATP and other nucleotides in secretory vesicles such as adrenal chromaffin granules and synaptic vesicles.

Proton-coupled polyamine antiporter involved in the translocation of polyamines from cytosol into secretory vesicles prior to their release via exocytosis. Uses the electrochemical proton gradient generated by a V-type proton-pumping ATPase to couple the efflux of protons with the uptake of a polyamine molecule. Facilitates vesicular storage of spermine and spermidine in astrocytes with an impact on glutamatergic neuronal transmission and memory formation (By similarity). Upon antigen stimulation, regulates polyamine accumulation and release in mast cell secretory granules, which in turn potentiates mast cell degranulation and histamine secretion (By similarity).

Antiporter that mediates the import of reduced folates or a subset of cyclic dinucleotides, driven by the export of organic anions. Mechanistically, acts as a secondary active transporter, which exports intracellular organic anions down their concentration gradients to facilitate the uptake of its substrates. Has high affinity for N5-methyltetrahydrofolate, the predominant circulating form of folate. Also able to mediate the import of antifolate drug methotrexate. Also acts as an importer of immunoreactive cyclic dinucleotides, such as cyclic GMP-AMP (2'-3'-cGAMP), an immune messenger produced in response to DNA virus in the cytosol, and its linkage isomer 3'-3'-cGAMP, thus playing a role in triggering larger immune responses. 5-amino-4-imidazolecarboxamide riboside (AICAR), when phosphorylated to AICAR monophosphate, can serve as an organic anion for antiporter activity.

Mediates high affinity thiamine uptake, probably via a proton anti-port mechanism. Has no folate transport activity.

May be involved in epidermal differentiation and inflammation and might therefore be important for the pathogenesis of psoriasis and other diseases

G-protein coupled receptor for the bioactive lysosphingolipid sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P) that seems to be coupled to the G(i) subclass of heteromeric G proteins. Signaling leads to the activation of RAC1, SRC, PTK2/FAK1 and MAP kinases. Plays an important role in cell migration, probably via its role in the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and the formation of lamellipodia in response to stimuli that increase the activity of the sphingosine kinase SPHK1. Required for normal chemotaxis toward sphingosine 1-phosphate. Required for normal embryonic heart development and normal cardiac morphogenesis. Plays an important role in the regulation of sprouting angiogenesis and vascular maturation. Inhibits sprouting angiogenesis to prevent excessive sprouting during blood vessel development. Required for normal egress of mature T-cells from the thymus into the blood stream and into peripheral lymphoid organs. Plays a role in the migration of osteoclast precursor cells, the regulation of bone mineralization and bone homeostasis (By similarity). Plays a role in responses to oxidized 1-palmitoyl-2-arachidonoyl-sn-glycero-3- phosphocholine by pulmonary endothelial cells and in the protection against ventilator-induced lung injury.

Receptor for the lysosphingolipid sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P). S1P is a bioactive lysophospholipid that elicits diverse physiological effects on most types of cells and tissues. When expressed in rat HTC4 hepatoma cells, is capable of mediating S1P-induced cell proliferation and suppression of apoptosis. Receptor for the chemokine-like protein FAM19A5. Mediates the inhibitory effect of FAM19A5 on vascular smooth muscle cell proliferation and migration (By similarity).

Receptor for the lysosphingolipid sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P). S1P is a bioactive lysophospholipid that elicits diverse physiological effect on most types of cells and tissues. When expressed in rat HTC4 hepatoma cells, is capable of mediating S1P-induced cell proliferation and suppression of apoptosis.

Receptor for the lysosphingolipid sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P). S1P is a bioactive lysophospholipid that elicits diverse physiological effect on most types of cells and tissues. May be involved in cell migration processes that are specific for lymphocytes.

Receptor for the lysosphingolipid sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P). S1P is a bioactive lysophospholipid that elicits diverse physiological effect on most types of cells and tissues. Is coupled to both the G(i/0)alpha and G(12) subclass of heteromeric G-proteins (By similarity). May play a regulatory role in the transformation of radial glial cells into astrocytes and may affect proliferative activity of these cells.

Sodium-phosphate symporter which plays a fundamental housekeeping role in phosphate transport, such as absorbing phosphate from interstitial fluid for normal cellular functions such as cellular metabolism, signal transduction, and nucleic acid and lipid synthesis. May play a role in extracellular matrix and cartilage calcification as well as in vascular calcification.

Sodium-phosphate symporter which seems to play a fundamental housekeeping role in phosphate transport by absorbing phosphate from interstitial fluid for normal cellular functions such as cellular metabolism, signal transduction, and nucleic acid and lipid synthesis. In vitro, sodium-dependent phosphate uptake is not significantly affected by acidic and alkaline conditions, however sodium-independent phosphate uptake occurs at acidic conditions. May play a role in extracellular matrix, cartilage and vascular calcification. Functions as a retroviral receptor and confers human cells susceptibility to infection to amphotropic murine leukemia virus (A-MuLV), 10A1 murine leukemia virus (10A1 MLV) and some feline leukemia virus subgroup B (FeLV-B) variants.

Translocates a broad array of organic cations with various structures and molecular weights including the model compounds 1- methyl-4-phenylpyridinium (MPP), tetraethylammonium (TEA), N-1- methylnicotinamide (NMN), 4-(4-(dimethylamino)styryl)-N- methylpyridinium (ASP), the endogenous compounds choline, guanidine, histamine, epinephrine, adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine, and the drugs quinine, and metformin. The transport of organic cations is inhibited by a broad array of compounds like tetramethylammonium (TMA), cocaine, lidocaine, NMDA receptor antagonists, atropine, prazosin, cimetidine, TEA and NMN, guanidine, cimetidine, choline, procainamide, quinine, tetrabutylammonium, and tetrapentylammonium. Translocates organic cations in an electrogenic and pH-independent manner. Translocates organic cations across the plasma membrane in both directions. Transports the polyamines spermine and spermidine. Transports pramipexole across the basolateral membrane of the proximal tubular epithelial cells. The choline transport is activated by MMTS. Regulated by various intracellular signaling pathways including inhibition by protein kinase A activation, and endogenously activation by the calmodulin complex, the calmodulin-dependent kinase II and LCK tyrosine kinase. Mediates the transport of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and prostaglandin F2-alpha (PGF2-alpha) and may be involved in their renal excretion.

Mediates tubular uptake of organic compounds from circulation. Mediates the transport of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and prostaglandin F2-alpha (PGF2-alpha) and may be involved in their renal excretion. Mediates the influx of agmatine, dopamine, noradrenaline (norepinephrine), serotonin, choline, famotidine, ranitidine, histamine, creatinine, amantadine, memantine, acriflavine, 4-[4-(dimethylamino)-styryl]-N-methylpyridinium ASP, amiloride, metformin, N-1-methylnicotinamide (NMN), tetraethylammonium (TEA), 1- methyl-4-phenylpyridinium (MPP), cimetidine, cisplatin and oxaliplatin. Cisplatin may develop a nephrotoxic action. Transport of creatinine is inhibited by fluoroquinolones such as DX-619 and LVFX. This transporter is a major determinant of the anticancer activity of oxaliplatin and may contribute to antitumor specificity.

Mediates potential-dependent transport of a variety of organic cations. May play a significant role in the disposition of cationic neurotoxins and neurotransmitters in the brain.

Sodium-ion dependent transporter of various organic cationic compounds. A key substrate of this transporter is ergothioneine (ET). Able to transport carnitine, probably moving one sodium ion with one molecule of carnitine. Also transports tetraethylammonium (TEA) without the involvement of sodium.

Involved in the renal elimination of endogenous and exogenous organic anions. Functions as organic anion exchanger when the uptake of one molecule of organic anion is coupled with an efflux of one molecule of endogenous dicarboxylic acid (glutarate, ketoglutarate, etc). Mediates the transport of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and prostaglandin F2- alpha (PGF2-alpha) and may be involved in their renal excretion. Mediates the sodium-independent uptake of 2,3- dimercapto-1-propanesulfonic acid (DMPS) (By similarity). Also mediates the sodium-independent uptake of p-aminohippurate (PAH), ochratoxin (OTA), acyclovir (ACV), 3'-azido-3-'deoxythymidine (AZT), cimetidine (CMD), 2,4-dichloro-phenoxyacetate (2,4-D), hippurate (HA), indoleacetate (IA), indoxyl sulfate (IS) and 3-carboxy-4-methyl-5- propyl-2-furanpropionate (CMPF), cidofovir, adefovir, 9-(2- phosphonylmethoxyethyl) guanine (PMEG), 9-(2-phosphonylmethoxyethyl) diaminopurine (PMEDAP) and edaravone sulfate. PAH uptake is inhibited by p-chloromercuribenzenesulphonate (PCMBS), diethyl pyrocarbonate (DEPC), sulindac, diclofenac, carprofen, glutarate and okadaic acid (By similarity). PAH uptake is inhibited by benzothiazolylcysteine (BTC), S-chlorotrifluoroethylcysteine (CTFC), cysteine S-conjugates S- dichlorovinylcysteine (DCVC), furosemide, steviol, phorbol 12-myristate 13-acetate (PMA), calcium ionophore A23187, benzylpenicillin, furosemide, indomethacin, bumetamide, losartan, probenecid, phenol red, urate, and alpha-ketoglutarate.

Mediates sodium-independent multispecific organic anion transport. Transport of prostaglandin E2, prostaglandin F2-alpha, tetracycline, bumetanide, estrone sulfate, glutarate, dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate, allopurinol, 5-fluorouracil, paclitaxel, L-ascorbic acid, salicylate, ethotrexate, and alpha- ketoglutarate.

Functions as an organic anion/dicarboxylate exchanger that couples organic anion uptake indirectly to the sodium gradient. Transports organic anions such as estrone 3-sulfate (E1S) and urate in exchange for dicarboxylates such as glutarate or ketoglutarate (2-oxoglutarate). Plays an important role in the excretion of endogenous and exogenous organic anions, especially from the kidney and the brain. Responsible for the transport of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and prostaglandin F2(alpha) (PGF2(alpha)) in the basolateral side of the renal tubule. May be involved in the basolateral transport of steviol, a metabolite of the popular sugar substitute stevioside. May participate in the detoxification/ renal excretion of drugs and xenobiotics, such as the histamine H(2)- receptor antagonists fexofenadine and cimetidine, the antibiotic benzylpenicillin (PCG), the anionic herbicide 2,4-dichloro- phenoxyacetate (2,4-D), the diagnostic agent p-aminohippurate (PAH), the antiviral acyclovir (ACV), and the mycotoxin ochratoxin (OTA), by transporting these exogenous organic anions across the cell membrane in exchange for dicarboxylates such as 2-oxoglutarate. Contributes to the renal uptake of potent uremic toxins (indoxyl sulfate (IS) and 3-carboxy-4-methyl-5-propyl-2- furanpropionate (CMPF)), pravastatin, PCG, E1S and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS), and is partly involved in the renal uptake of temocaprilat (an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor) (By similarity). May contribute to the release of cortisol in the adrenals. Involved in one of the detoxification systems on the choroid plexus (CP), removes substrates such as E1S or taurocholate (TC), PCG, 2,4-D and PAH, from the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to the blood for eventual excretion in urine and bile (By similarity). Also contributes to the uptake of several other organic compounds such as the prostanoids prostaglandin E(2) and prostaglandin F(2-alpha), L-carnitine, and the therapeutic drugs allopurinol, 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP) and 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) (By similarity). Mediates the transport of PAH, PCG, and the statins pravastatin and pitavastatin, from the cerebrum into the blood circulation across the blood-brain barrier (BBB). In summary, plays a role in the efflux of drugs and xenobiotics, helping reduce their undesired toxicological effects on the body (By similarity).

Sodium-independent organic anion transporter, exhibits high specificity for sulfated conjugates of xenobiotics and steroid hormones such as estrone 3-sulfate (E1S) and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS). Can transport the statin pravastatin and may contribute to its disposition into the hepatocytes when the function of OATPs is compromised. It is specifically activated by 3 to 5 carbons-containing short-chain fatty acids/SCFAs, including propionate (propanoate), butyrate (butanoate) and valerate (pentanoate). May operate the exchange of sulfated organic components against short-chain fatty acids/SCFAs, in particular butanoate, at the sinusoidal membrane of hepatocytes.

Antiporter that mediates the transport of conjugated steroids and other specific organic anions at the basal membrane of syncytiotrophoblast and at the apical membrane of proximal tubule epithelial cells, in exchange for anionic compounds. May be responsible for placental absorption of fetal- derived steroid sulfates such as estrone sulfate (E1S) and the steroid hormone precursor dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEA-S), as well as clearing waste products and xenobiotics from the fetus. Maybe also be involved in placental urate homeostasis. Facilitates the renal reabsorption of organic anions such as urate and derived steroid sulfates. Organic anion glutarate acts as conteranion for E1S renal uptake. Possible transport mode may also include DHEA-S/E1S exchange. Also interacts with inorganic anions such as chloride and hydroxyl ions, therefore possible transport modes may include E1S/Cl(-), E1S/OH(-), urate/Cl(-) and urate/OH(-). Also mediates the transport of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and prostaglandin F2-alpha (PGF2-alpha) and may be involved in their renal excretion. Also able to uptake anionic drugs, diuretics, bile salts and ochratoxin A. Mediates the unidirectional efflux of glutamate and aspartate. Glutamate efflux down its transmembrane gradient may drive SLC22A11/OAT4-mediated placental uptake of E1S.

Electroneutral antiporter that translocates urate across the apical membrane of proximal tubular cells in exchange for monovalent organic or inorganic anions. Involved in renal reabsorption of urate and helps maintaining blood levels of uric acid. Mediates urate uptake by an exchange with organic anions such as (S)-lactate and nicotinate, and inorganic anion Cl(-). Other inorganic anions such as Br(-), I(-) and NO3(-) may also act as counteranions that exchange for urate. Also mediates orotate tubular uptake coupled with nicotinate efflux and to a lesser extent with lactate efflux, therefore displaying a potential role in orotate renal reabsorption. Orotate transport is Cl(-)-dependent.

Anion antiporter that mediates the transport of urate, orotate and nicotinate in exchange for organic or inorganic anions. Translocates urate and orotate across the apical membrane of proximal tubule epithelial cells and involved in urate renal reabsorption. Possibly involved in orotate renal reabsorption and nicotinate intestinal reabsorption. Mediates urate uptake by an exchange with organic anions such as (S)-lactate, succinate, glutathione and nicotinate. Urate and orotate transports are Cl(-)-dependent. Shows similar transport characteristics as the urate/orotate renal antiporter SLC22A12/URAT1 and may act as a compensator of SLC22A12/URAT1 in certain conditions (Probable).

Riboflavin transporter localized at the inner mitochondrial membrane of the spermatozoa midpiece, which is required for male fertility (By similarity). SLC22A14-mediated riboflavin transport is essential for spermatozoa energy generation and motility: riboflavin is the precursor of FMN and FAD, which are coenzymes of many enzymes in the TCA cycle (the citric acid cycle) in mitochondria (By similarity). Required for sperm motility and normal sperm flagellar structure (By similarity).

Probably transports organic cations (By similarity). Appears not to be the agmatine transporter.

High affinity carnitine transporter; the uptake is partially sodium-ion dependent. Thought to mediate the L-carnitine secretion mechanism from testis epididymal epithelium into the lumen which is involved in the maturation of spermatozoa. Also transports organic cations such as tetraethylammonium (TEA) and doxorubicin. The uptake of TEA is inhibited by various organic cations. The uptake of doxorubicin is sodium-independent.

May act as a transporter of organic cations based on a proton efflux antiport mechanism. May play a role in the transport of chloroquine and quinidine-related compounds in kidney.

Renal transmembrane organic anion/dicarboxylate exchanger that participates in the reabsorption of conjugated steroids including estradiol-17beta-D-glucuronide (or 17beta-estradiol 17-O-(beta-D- glucuronate)), androstanediol glucuronide (or 5alpha-androstane- 3alpha,17beta-diol 3-O-(beta-D-glucuronate)), and estrone 3-sulfate, as well as bile acids taurocholate and glycocholate, driven by an outward gradient of dicarboxylates such as glutarate or succinate.

Sodium/ascorbate cotransporter. Mediates electrogenic uptake of vitamin C, with a stoichiometry of 2 Na(+) for each ascorbate.

Plays a role in the organization of endoplasmic reticulum exit sites. Specifically binds to phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PI(3)P), phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PI(4)P) and phosphatidylinositol 5-phosphate (PI(5)P).

Mitochondrial electrogenic aspartate/glutamate antiporter that favors efflux of aspartate and entry of glutamate and proton within the mitochondria as part of the malate-aspartate shuttle. Also mediates the uptake of L-cysteinesulfinate by mitochondria in exchange of L- glutamate and proton. Can also exchange L-cysteinesulfinate with aspartate in their anionic form without any proton translocation.

Mitochondrial electrogenic aspartate/glutamate antiporter that favors efflux of aspartate and entry of glutamate and proton within the mitochondria as part of the malate-aspartate shuttle. Also mediates the uptake of L-cysteinesulfinate by mitochondria in exchange of L-glutamate and proton. Can also exchange L-cysteinesulfinate with aspartate in their anionic form without any proton translocation.

Mitochondrial transporter of arginine, lysine, homoarginine, methylarginine and, to a much lesser extent, ornithine and histidine. Does not transport carnitine nor acylcarnitines. Functions by both counter-exchange and uniport mechanisms. Plays a physiolocical role in the import of basic amino acids into mitochondria for mitochondrial protein synthesis and amino acid degradation.

Mitochondrial transporter that imports/exports pyrimidine nucleotides into and from mitochondria. Transports preferentially uracil, thymine, and cytosine (deoxy)nucleoside di- and triphosphates by an antiport mechanism. Also transports guanine but not adenine (deoxy)nucleotides. Is inhibited strongly by pyridoxal 5'-phosphate, 4,7-diphenyl-1,10-phenanthroline, tannic acid, and mercurials (mercury dichloride, mersalyl acid, p-hydroxymercuribenzoate). Participates in mitochondrial genome maintenance, regulation of mitochondrial membrane potential and mitochondrial respiration. Upon INS or IGF1 stimulation regulates cell growth and proliferation by controlling mitochondrial DNA replication and transcription, the ratio of mitochondria-to nuclear-encoded components of the electron transport chain resulting in control of mitochondrial ROS production. Participates in dendritic cell endocytosis and may associate with mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation.

Mitochondrial transporter that imports/exports pyrimidine nucleotides into and from mitochondria. Transports preferentially cytosine and uracil (deoxy)nucleoside mono-, di-, and triphosphates by uniport and antiport mechanism. Also transports guanine but not adenine (deoxy)nucleotides. Is inhibited strongly by pyridoxal 5'-phosphate, 4,7-diphenyl-1,10-phenanthroline, tannic acid, and mercurials (mercury dichloride, Mersalyl acid, p-hydroxymercuribenzoate). Participates in mitochondrial genome maintenance, regulation of mitochondrial membrane potential and mitochondrial respiration.

Mitochondrial glycine transporter that imports glycine into the mitochondrial matrix. Plays an important role in providing glycine for the first enzymatic step in heme biosynthesis, the condensation of glycine with succinyl-CoA to produce 5-aminolevulinate (ALA) in the mitochondrial matrix. Required during erythropoiesis.

Mitochondrial transporter required for glutathione import into mitochondria. Glutathione, which plays key roles in oxidative metabolism, is produced exclusively in the cytosol and is imported in many organelles. Mitochondrial glutathione is required for the activity and stability of proteins containing iron-sulfur clusters, as well as erythropoiesis.

Probable mitochondrial transporter required for glutathione import into mitochondria. Glutathione, which plays key roles in oxidative metabolism, is produced exclusively in the cytosol and is imported in many organelles. Mitochondrial glutathione is required for the activity and stability of proteins containing iron-sulfur clusters, as well as erythropoiesis (By similarity).

Calcium-independent ATP-Mg/Pi exchanger that catalyzes the electroneutral exchange of Mg-ATP or free ADP against an hydrogenphosphate and participates in the net transport of adenine nucleotides across the mitochondria inner membrane.

Mitochondrial carrier mediating the transport of coenzyme A (CoA) in mitochondria in exchange for intramitochondrial (deoxy)adenine nucleotides and adenosine 3',5'-diphosphate.

Mitochondrial solute transporter which transports branched- chain amino acid (BCAA; valine, leucine and isoleucine) into mitochondria in brown adipose tissue (BAT) (By similarity). BAT is involved in BCAA catabolism and actively utilizes BCAA in the mitochondria for thermogenesis.

Transmembrane protein of the mitochondrial outer membrane that controls mitochondrial organization. May regulate the assembly of the MICOS (mitochondrial contact site and cristae organizing system) complex which is essential to the biogenesis and dynamics of mitochondrial cristae, the inwards folds of the inner mitochondrial membrane. Through its interaction with the EMC (endoplasmic reticulum membrane protein complex), could regulate mitochondrial lipid homeostasis and thereby mitochondrial fission.

Uncoupling protein which may catalyze the physiological 'proton leak' in liver. Overexpression induces the dissipation of mitochondrial membrane potential.

Mitochondrial membrane carrier protein that mediates the import of NAD(+) into mitochondria. Mitochondrial NAD(+) is required for glycolysis and mitochondrial respiration. Compared to SLC25A52, SLC25A51-mediated transport is essential for the import of NAD(+) in mitochondria.

Mitochondrial membrane carrier protein that mediates the import of NAD(+) into mitochondria. Compared to SLC25A51, SLC25A52-mediated transport is not essential for the import of NAD(+) in mitochondria.

Exhibits sodium-independent sulfate anion transporter activity that may cooperate with SLC26A2 to mediate DIDS-sensitive sulfate uptake into high endothelial venules endothelial cells (HEVEC).

Mediates sulfate transport with high affinity. Mediates oxalate transport. Mediates bicarbonate transport (By similarity). Does not accept succinate as cosubstrate (By similarity).

Sulfate transporter. May play a role in endochondral bone formation.

Chloride/bicarbonate exchanger. Mediates the efficient absorption of chloride ions in the colon, participating in fluid homeostasis. Plays a role in the chloride and bicarbonate homeostasis during sperm epididymal maturation and capacitation

Motor protein that converts auditory stimuli to length changes in outer hair cells and mediates sound amplification in the mammalian hearing organ. Prestin is a bidirectional voltage-to-force converter, it can operate at microsecond rates. It uses cytoplasmic anions as extrinsic voltage sensors, probably chloride and bicarbonate. After binding to a site with millimolar affinity, these anions are translocated across the membrane in response to changes in the transmembrane voltage. They move towards the extracellular surface following hyperpolarization, and towards the cytoplasmic side in response to depolarization. As a consequence, this translocation triggers conformational changes in the protein that ultimately alter its surface area in the plane of the plasma membrane. The area decreases when the anion is near the cytoplasmic face of the membrane (short state), and increases when the ion has crossed the membrane to the outer surface (long state). So, it acts as an incomplete transporter. It swings anions across the membrane, but does not allow these anions to dissociate and escape to the extracellular space. Salicylate, an inhibitor of outer hair cell motility, acts as competitive antagonist at the prestin anion-binding site (By similarity).

Apical membrane anion-exchanger with wide epithelial distribution that plays a role as a component of the pH buffering system for maintaining acid-base homeostasis. Acts as a versatile DIDS- sensitive inorganic and organic anion transporter that mediates the uptake of monovalent anions like chloride, bicarbonate, formate and hydroxyl ion and divalent anions like sulfate and oxalate. Functions in multiple exchange modes involving pairs of these anions, which include chloride-bicarbonate, chloride-oxalate, oxalate-formate, oxalate- sulfate and chloride-formate exchange. Apical membrane chloride- bicarbonate exchanger that mediates luminal chloride absorption and bicarbonate secretion by the small intestinal brush border membrane and contributes to intracellular pH regulation in the duodenal upper villous epithelium during proton-coupled peptide absorption, possibly by providing a bicarbonate import pathway. Mediates also intestinal chloride absorption and oxalate secretion, thereby preventing hyperoxaluria and calcium oxalate urolithiasis. Transepithelial oxalate secretion, chloride-formate, chloride-oxalate and chloride-bicarbonate transport activities in the duodenum are inhibited by PKC activation in a calcium-independent manner. The apical membrane chloride-bicarbonate exchanger provides also a major route for fluid and bicarbonate secretion into the proximal tubules of the kidney as well as into the proximal part of the interlobular pancreatic ductal tree, where it mediates electrogenic chloride-bicarbonate exchange with a chloride- bicarbonate stoichiometry of 1:2, and hence will dilute and alkalinize protein-rich acinar secretion. Mediates also the transcellular sulfate absorption and oxalate secretion across the apical membrane in the duodenum and the formate ion efflux at the apical brush border of cells in the proximal tubules of kidney. Plays a role in sperm capacitation by increasing intracellular pH

Acts as a sodium-independent DIDS-sensitive anion exchanger mediating bicarbonate, chloride, sulfate and oxalate transport. May play a role in the maintenance of the electrolyte and acid-base homeostasis in the kidney, by acting as a distal excretory segment- specific anion exchanger. Plays a major role in gastric acid secretion.

Acts as a DIDS-sensitive anion exchanger mediating chloride, sulfate and oxalate transport. May fulfill critical anion exchange functions in male germ line during meiosis and hence may play a role in spermatogenesis. May be involved in a new regulatory pathway linking sulfate transport to RhoGTPase signaling in male germ cells. A critical component of the sperm annulus that is essential for correct sperm tail differentiation and motility and hence male fertility. May form a molecular complex involved in the regulation of chloride and bicarbonate ions fluxes during sperm capacitation.

DIDS- and thiosulfate- sensitive anion exchanger mediating chloride, sulfate and oxalate transport. Mediates chloride/bicarbonate exchange or chloride-independent bicarbonate extrusion thus assuring bicarbonate secretion. May prefer chloride anions and mediate uncoupled chloride anion transport in an alternate-access mechanism where a saturable binding site is alternately exposed to either one or the other side of the membrane (By similarity).

Mediates the import of long-chain fatty acids (LCFA) into the cell by facilitating their transport at the plasma membrane. Also functions as an acyl-CoA ligase catalyzing the ATP-dependent formation of fatty acyl-CoA using LCFA and very-long-chain fatty acids (VLCFA) as substrates, which prevents fatty acid efflux from cells and might drive more fatty acid uptake. May act directly as a bona fide transporter, or alternatively, in a cytoplasmic or membrane-associated multimeric protein complex to trap and draw fatty acids towards accumulation. Plays a pivotal role in regulating available LCFA substrates from exogenous sources in tissues undergoing high levels of beta-oxidation or triglyceride synthesis. May be involved in regulation of cholesterol metabolism (By similarity). Probably involved in fatty acid transport across the blood barrier.

Mediates the import of long-chain fatty acids (LCFA) into the cell by facilitating their transport across cell membranes, playing an important role in hepatic fatty acid uptake. Also functions as an acyl-CoA ligase catalyzing the ATP-dependent formation of fatty acyl-CoA using LCFA and very-long- chain fatty acids (VLCFA) as substrates, which prevents fatty acid efflux from cells and might drive more fatty acid uptake. Plays a pivotal role in regulating available LCFA substrates from exogenous sources in tissues undergoing high levels of beta-oxidation or triglyceride synthesis. Can also activate branched-chain fatty acids such as phytanic acid and pristanic acid. May contribute to the synthesis of sphingosine-1-phosphate. Does not activate C24 bile acids, cholate and chenodeoxycholate. In vitro, activates 3-alpha,7-alpha,12-alpha- trihydroxy-5-beta-cholestanate (THCA), the C27 precursor of cholic acid deriving from the de novo synthesis from cholesterol. However, it is not critical for THCA activation and bile synthesis in vivo.

Mainly functions as an acyl-CoA ligase catalyzing the ATP- dependent formation of fatty acyl-CoA using LCFA and very-long-chain fatty acids (VLCFA) as substrates. Can mediate the levels of long-chain fatty acids (LCFA) in the cell by facilitating their transport across membranes (By similarity).

Mediates the levels of long-chain fatty acids (LCFA) in the cell by facilitating their transport across cell membranes. Appears to be the principal fatty acid transporter in small intestinal enterocytes. Also functions as an acyl-CoA ligase catalyzing the ATP-dependent formation of fatty acyl- CoA using LCFA and very-long-chain fatty acids (VLCFA) as substrates, which prevents fatty acid efflux from cells and might drive more fatty acid uptake. Plays a role in the formation of the epidermal barrier. Required for fat absorption in early embryogenesis (By similarity). Probably involved in fatty acid transport across the blood barrier. Indirectly inhibits RPE65 via substrate competition and via production of VLCFA derivatives like lignoceroyl-CoA. Prevents light-induced degeneration of rods and cones (By similarity).

May mediate the import of long-chain fatty acids (LCFA) by facilitating their transport across cell membranes. Also catalyzes the ATP-dependent formation of fatty acyl-CoA using LCFA and very-long-chain fatty acids (VLCFA) as substrates. Mainly functions as a bile acyl-CoA synthetase catalyzing the activation of bile acids via ATP-dependent formation of bile acid CoA thioesters which is necessary for their subsequent conjugation with glycine or taurine. Both primary bile acids (cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid) and secondary bile acids (deoxycholic acid and lithocholic acid) are the principal substrates. In vitro, activates 3-alpha,7-alpha,12-alpha- trihydroxy-5-beta-cholestanate ((25R)-3alpha,7alpha,12alpha-trihydroxy- 5beta-cholestan-26-oate or THCA), the C27 precursor of cholic acid deriving from the de novo synthesis from cholesterol. Plays an important role in hepatic fatty acid uptake and bile acid reconjugation and recycling but not in de novo synthesis of bile acids (By similarity).

Mediates the import of long-chain fatty acids (LCFA) into the cell by facilitating their transport at the plasma membrane. Also functions as an acyl-CoA ligase catalyzing the ATP-dependent formation of fatty acyl-CoA using LCFA and very-long- chain fatty acids (VLCFA) as substrates (By similarity). Plays a pivotal role in regulating available LCFA substrates from exogenous sources in tissues undergoing high levels of beta-oxidation such as the heart.

Sodium-dependent and pyrimidine-selective transporter. Exhibits the transport characteristics of the nucleoside transport system cit or N2 subtype (N2/cit) (selective for pyrimidine nucleosides and adenosine). Transports uridine, cytidine, thymidine, and nucleoside-derived drugs. Transports the antiviral pyrimidine nucleoside analogs 3'-azido-3'-deoxythymidine (AZT) and 2',3'-dideoxycytidine (ddC). It may be involved in the intestinal absorption and renal handling of pyrimidine nucleoside analogs used to treat acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). It has the following selective inhibition: adenosine, thymidine, cytidine, uridine >> guanosine, inosine.

Sodium-dependent and purine-selective transporter. Exhibits the transport characteristics of the nucleoside transport system cif or N1 subtype (N1/cif) (selective for purine nucleosides and uridine). Plays a critical role in specific uptake and salvage of purine nucleosides in kidney and other tissues.

Sodium-dependent, pyrimidine- and purine-selective. Involved in the homeostasis of endogenous nucleosides. Exhibits the transport characteristics of the nucleoside transport system cib or N3 subtype (N3/cib) (with marked transport of both thymidine and inosine). Employs a 2:1 sodium/nucleoside ratio. Also able to transport gemcitabine, 3'-azido-3'- deoxythymidine (AZT), ribavirin and 3-deazauridine.

Mediates both influx and efflux of nucleosides across the membrane (equilibrative transporter). It is sensitive (ES) to low concentrations of the inhibitor nitrobenzylmercaptopurine riboside (NBMPR) and is sodium-independent. It has a higher affinity for adenosine. Inhibited by dipyridamole and dilazep (anticancer chemotherapeutics drugs)

Mediates equilibrative transport of purine, pyrimidine nucleosides and the purine base hypoxanthine. Very less sensitive than SLC29A1 to inhibition by nitrobenzylthioinosine (NBMPR), dipyridamole, dilazep and draflazine.

Mediates both influx and efflux of nucleosides across the membrane (equilibrative transporter). Mediates transport of adenine, adenosine and uridine, as well as several nucleoside analog drugs, such as anticancer and antiviral agents, including cladribine, cordycepin, tubercidin and AZT. Does not transport hypoxanthine.

Functions as a polyspecific organic cation transporter, efficiently transporting many organic cations such as monoamine neurotransmitters 1-methyl-4-phenylpyridinium and biogenic amines including serotonin, dopamine, norepinephrine and epinephrine. May play a role in regulating central nervous system homeostasis of monoamine neurotransmitters. May be involved in luminal transport of organic cations in the kidney and seems to use luminal proton gradient to drive organic cation reabsorption. Does not seem to transport nucleoside and nucleoside analogs such as uridine, cytidine, thymidine, adenosine, inosine, guanosine, and azidothymidine. In adenosine is efficiently transported but in a fashion highly sensitive to extracellular pH, with maximal activity in the pH range 5.5 to 6.5. Glu-206 is essential for the cation selectivity and may function as the charge sensor for cationic substrates. Transport is chloride and sodium-independent but appears to be sensitive to changes in membrane potential. Weakly inhibited by the classical inhibitors of equilibrative nucleoside transport, dipyridamole, dilazep, and nitrobenzylthioinosine. May play a role in the regulation of extracellular adenosine concentrations in cardiac tissues, in particular during ischemia.

Transcription factor involved in SLC2A4 and HD gene transactivation. Binds to the consensus sequence 5'-GCCGGCG-3'.

Plays a role in transcriptional repression by promoting histone deacetylase activity, leading to deacetylation of histone H3. May be involved in the regulation of beta-2- microglobulin genes (By similarity).

Transports CMP-sialic acid from the cytosol into Golgi vesicles where glycosyltransferases function. Efficient CMP-sialic acid uptake depends on the presence of free CMP inside the vesicles, suggesting the proteins functions as an antiporter. Binds both CMP-sialic acid and free CMP, but has higher affinity for free CMP (By similarity). Also mediates the transport of CDP-ribitol (By similarity).

Transports uridine diphosphate galactose (UDP-galactose) from the cytosol into Golgi vesicles where glycosyltransferases function, including galactosyltransferases that catalyze globotriaosylceramide/globoside (Gb3Cer) synthesis from lactosylceramide.

Uridine diphosphate-N-acetylglucosamine (UDP-GlcNAc) transporter in the Golgi apparatus. May supply UDP-GlcNAc as substrate for Golgi-resident glycosyltransferases that generate branching of diantennary oligosaccharides.

Mediates the transport of CDP-ribitol. Does not exhibit CMP-sialic acid, UDP-galactose and UDP-N-acetylglucosamine transport activity.

ATP:ADP antiporter that catalyzes the exchange of ATP and ADP across the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane. Imports ATP from the cytosol to the ER lumen and exports ADP in the opposite direction. Regulates ER energy metabolism and protein biogenesis. Appears to be part of a calcium-dependent ER to cytosol low energy response axis, where calcium efflux from ER to the cytosol triggers ATP import into the ER lumen to maintain sufficient ATP supply. Provides ATP to ER chaperone HSPA5 that drives protein folding and trafficking in the ER. Can transport UTP or UDP in exchange for ATP, but the physiological relevance of this process remains to be established.

Mediates the transport of adenosine 3'-phospho 5'- phosphosulfate (PAPS), from cytosol into Golgi. PAPS is a universal sulfuryl donor for sulfation events that take place in the Golgi. May indirectly participate in activation of the NF-kappa-B and MAPK pathways.

Mediates the transport of adenosine 3'-phospho 5'- phosphosulfate (PAPS), from cytosol into Golgi. PAPS is a universal sulfuryl donor for sulfation events that take place in the Golgi. Compensates for the insufficient expression of SLC35B2/PAPST1 during the synthesis of sulfated glycoconjugates in the colon.

Sugar transporter that specifically mediates the transport of UDP-xylose (UDP-Xyl) and UDP-N-acetylglucosamine (UDP-GlcNAc) from cytosol into Golgi.

May play an important role in the cellular response to tissue hypoxia. May be either a GDP-fucose transporter that competes with SLC35C1 for GDP-fucose, or a factor that otherwise enhances the fucosylation of Notch and is required for optimal Notch signaling in mammalian cells.

Transports both UDP-glucuronic acid (UDP-GlcA) and UDP-N- acetylgalactosamine (UDP-GalNAc) from the cytoplasm into the endoplasmic reticulum lumen. Plays a role in chondroitin sulfate biosynthesis, which is important for formation of cartilage extracellular matrix and normal skeletal development (By similarity).

Antiporter transporting nucleotide sugars such as UDP-N- acetylglucosamine (UDP-GlcNAc), UDP-glucose (UDP-Glc) and GDP-mannose (GDP-Man) pooled in the cytosol into the lumen of the Golgi in exchange for the corresponding nucleosides monophosphates (UMP for UDP-sugars and GMP for GDP-sugars). May take part in heparan sulfate synthesis by supplying UDP-Glc-NAc, the donor substrate, and thus be involved in growth factor signaling.

May play a role in hemostasis as a regulator of the biosynthesis of platelet-dense granules.

Involved in the maintenance of mitochondrial membrane potential in pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC) cells. Promotes pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC) cell growth. May play a role as a nucleotide-sugar transporter.

May play a role in intracellular calcium sensing and homeostasis. May act as a negative regulator of plasma membrane calcium-transporting ATPases preventing calcium efflux from the cell.

Electrogenic proton/amino acid symporter with selectivity for small apolar L-amino acids, their D-enantiomers and selected amino acid derivatives such as 4-aminobutanoate/GABA. May be involved in the efflux from the lysosomal compartment of neutral amino acids resulting from proteolysis (By similarity). May play a role in specifying sites for exocytosis in neurons (By similarity).

Electrogenic proton/amino acid symporter with a high selectivity for the small side chains amino acids glycine, alanine and proline, where both L- and D-enantiomers are transported. Extension of the backbone length, as in beta-alanine and 4-aminobutanoate or methylation of the amino group, as in sarcosine and N,N- dimethylglycine, are also tolerated but decrease transport efficiency. A free carboxyl group is preferred.

Uniporter that mediates the transport of neutral amino acids like L-tryptophan, proline and alanine. The transport activity is sodium ions-independent, electroneutral and therefore functions via facilitated diffusion.

Symporter that cotransports short-chain neutral amino acids and sodium ions from the extraccellular to the intracellular side of the cell membrane. The transport is elctrogenic, pH dependent and driven by the Na(+) electrochemical gradient. Participates in the astroglia-derived glutamine transport into GABAergic interneurons for neurotransmitter GABA de novo synthesis (By similarity). May also contributes to amino acid transport in placental trophoblasts. Also regulates synaptic plasticity.

Symporter that cotransports neutral amino acids and sodium ions from the extraccellular to the intracellular side of the cell membrane. The trasnport is pH-sensitive, Li(+)-intolerant, electrogenic, driven by the Na(+) electrochemical gradient and cotransports of neutral amino acids and sodium ions with a stoichiometry of 1:1. May function in the transport of amino acids at the blood-brain barrier. May function in the transport of amino acids in the supply of maternal nutrients to the fetus through the placenta (By similarity). Maintains a key metabolic glutamine/glutamate balance underpinning retrograde signaling by dendritic release of the neurotransmitter glutamate (By similarity). Transports L-proline in differentiating osteoblasts for the efficient synthesis of proline-enriched proteins and provides proline essential for osteoblast differentiation and bone formation during bone development (By similarity).

Symporter that cotransports specific neutral amino acids and sodium ions, coupled to an H(+) antiporter activity. Mainly participates in the glutamate-GABA-glutamine cycle in brain where it transports L-glutamine from astrocytes in the intercellular space for the replenishment of both neurotransmitters glutamate and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in neurons and also functions as the major influx transporter in ganglion cells mediating the uptake of glutamine (By similarity). The transport activity is specific for L- glutamine, L-histidine and L-asparagine. The transport is electroneutral coupled to the cotransport of 1 Na(+) and the antiport of 1 H(+) (By similarity). The transport is pH dependent, saturable, Li(+) tolerant and functions in both direction depending on the concentration gradients of its substrates and cotransported ions. Also mediates an amino acid-gated H(+) conductance that is not stoichiometrically coupled to the amino acid transport but which influences the ionic gradients that drive the amino acid transport (By similarity). In addition, may play a role in nitrogen metabolism, amino acid homeostasis, glucose metabolism and renal ammoniagenesis (By similarity).

Symporter that cotransports neutral amino acids and sodium ions from the extraccellular to the intracellular side of the cell membrane. The transport is electrogenic, pH dependent and partially tolerates substitution of Na(+) by Li(+). Preferentially transports smaller amino acids, such as glycine, L-alanine, L-serine, L-asparagine and L-threonine, followed by L-cysteine, L-histidine, L- proline and L-glutamine and L-methionine.

Symporter that cotransports neutral amino acids and sodium ions, coupled to an H(+) antiporter activity. Releases L-glutamine and glycine from astroglial cells and may participate in the glutamate/GABA-L-glutamine cycle and the NMDA receptors activation (By similarity). In addition, contributes significantly to L-glutamine uptake in retina, namely in ganglion and Mueller cells therefore, participates in the retinal glutamate- glutamine cycle (By similarity). The transport activity is pH sensitive and Li(+) tolerant. Moreover functions in both direction and is associated with large uncoupled fluxes of protons (By similarity). The transport is electroneutral coupled to the cotransport of 1 Na(+) and the antiport of 1 H(+) (By similarity). May have a particular importance for modulation of net hepatic glutamine flux (By similarity).

Probable sodium-dependent amino acid/proton antiporter, could be a neuronal transporter for glutamate.

Symporter that selectively cotransports sodium ions and amino acids, such as L-glutamine and L-asparagine from the lysosome into the cytoplasm and may participates in mTORC1 activation. The transport activity requires an acidic lysosomal lumen.

Lysosomal amino acid transporter involved in the activation of mTORC1 in response to amino acid levels. Probably acts as an amino acid sensor of the Rag GTPases and Ragulator complexes, 2 complexes involved in amino acid sensing and activation of mTORC1, a signaling complex promoting cell growth in response to growth factors, energy levels, and amino acids. Following activation by amino acids, the Ragulator and Rag GTPases function as a scaffold recruiting mTORC1 to lysosomes where it is in turn activated. SLC38A9 mediates transport of amino acids with low capacity and specificity with a slight preference for polar amino acids. Acts as an arginine sensor. Following activation by arginine binding, mediates transport of L- glutamine, leucine and tyrosine with high efficiency, and is required for the efficient utilization of these amino acids after lysosomal protein degradation (Probable). The transport is most active at acidic pH. Can disassemble the lysosomal folliculin complex (LFC), and thereby triggers GAP activity of FLCN:FNIP2 toward RRAGC. Acts as an cholesterol sensor that conveys increases in lysosomal cholesterol, leading to lysosomal recruitment and activation of mTORC1 via the Rag GTPases. Guanine exchange factor (GEF) that, upon arginine binding, stimulates GDP release from RRAGA and therefore activates the Rag GTPase heterodimer and the mTORC1 pathway in response to nutrient sufficiency.

Mediates zinc uptake. May function as a major endogenous zinc uptake transporter in many cells of the body. Responsible for the rapid uptake and accumulation of physiologically effective zinc in prostate cells.

Mediates zinc uptake. Zinc uptake may be mediated by a Zn(2+)-HCO(3)(-) symport mechanism and can function in the presence of albumin. May also transport other divalent cations. May be important in contact inhibition of normal epithelial cells and loss of its expression may play a role in tumorigenesis

Plays an important role in cellular zinc homeostasis as a zinc transporter. Regulated in response to zinc availability (By similarity).

May play a role in polarized cells by carrying out serosal- to-mucosal zinc transport (By similarity). Seems to play a central role in controlling organismal zinc status (By similarity). Could regulate the BMP/TGF-beta (bone morphogenetic protein/transforming growth factor-beta) signaling pathway and modulates extracellular matrix (ECM) proteins of the sclera. Plays a role in eye development.

Zinc transporter, that transports Zn(2+) from the endoplasmic reticulum/Golgi apparatus to the cytosol. Transport is stimulated by growth factors, such as EGF, and Ca(2+), as well as by exogenous Zn(2+). Has an essential role in B cell development and is required for proper B cell receptor signaling.

Electroneutral divalent metal cation:bicarbonate symporter of the plasma membrane mediating the cellular uptake of zinc and manganese, two divalent metal cations important for development, tissue homeostasis and immunity. Transports an electroneutral complex composed of a divalent metal cation and two bicarbonate anions or alternatively a bicarbonate and a selenite anion. Thereby, it also contributes to the cellular uptake of selenium, an essential trace metal and micronutrient. Also imports cadmium a non- essential metal which is cytotoxic and carcinogenic. May also transport iron and cobalt through membranes. Through zinc import, indirectly regulates the metal-dependent transcription factor MTF1 and the expression of some metalloproteases involved in cartilage catabolism and also probably heart development. Also indirectly regulates the expression of proteins involved in cell morphology and cytoskeleton organization. Indirectly controls innate immune function and inflammatory response by regulating zinc cellular uptake which in turn modulates the expression of genes specific of these processes. Protects, for instance, cells from injury and death at the onset of inflammation. By regulating zinc influx into monocytes also directly modulates their adhesion to endothelial cells and arteries (By similarity). Reclaims manganese from the bile at the apical membrane of hepatocytes, thereby regulating the activity of the manganese-dependent enzymes through the systemic levels of the nutrient. Also participates in manganese reabsorption in the proximal tubule of the kidney. By mediating the extracellular uptake of manganese by cells of the blood-brain barrier, may also play a role in the transport of the micronutrient to the brain. With manganese cellular uptake also participates in mitochondrial proper function. Finally, also probably functions intracellularly, translocating zinc from lysosome to cytosol to indirectly enhance the expression of specific genes during TCR- mediated T cell activation.

Acts as a zinc-influx transporter (Potential). May be partly involved in the outbreak of schizophrenia.

Electroneutral transporter of the plasma membrane mediating the cellular uptake of the divalent metal cations zinc, manganese and iron that are important for tissue homeostasis, metabolism, development and immunity. Functions as an energy-dependent symporter, transporting through the membranes an electroneutral complex composed of a divalent metal cation and two bicarbonate anions (By similarity). Beside these endogenous cellular substrates, can also import cadmium a non-essential metal which is cytotoxic and carcinogenic (By similarity). Controls the cellular uptake by the intestinal epithelium of systemic zinc, which is in turn required to maintain tight junctions and the intestinal permeability (By similarity). Modifies the activity of zinc-dependent phosphodiesterases, thereby indirectly regulating G protein-coupled receptor signaling pathways important for gluconeogenesis and chondrocyte differentiation (By similarity). Regulates insulin receptor signaling, glucose uptake, glycogen synthesis and gluconeogenesis in hepatocytes through the zinc-dependent intracellular catabolism of insulin. Through zinc cellular uptake also plays a role in the adaptation of cells to endoplasmic reticulum stress (By similarity). Major manganese transporter of the basolateral membrane of intestinal epithelial cells, it plays a central role in manganese systemic homeostasis through intestinal manganese uptake. Also involved in manganese extracellular uptake by cells of the blood-brain barrier. May also play a role in manganese and zinc homeostasis participating in their elimination from the blood through the hepatobiliary excretion (By similarity). Also functions in the extracellular uptake of free iron. May also function intracellularly and mediate the transport from endosomes to cytosol of iron endocytosed by transferrin. Plays a role in innate immunity by regulating the expression of cytokines by activated macrophages.

Major iron transporter that plays a key role in balancing cellular and systemic iron levels. Transports iron from intestinal, splenic, and hepatic cells into the blood to provide iron to other tissues (By similarity). Controls therefore dietary iron uptake, iron recycling by macrophages, and release of iron stores in hepatocytes (By similarity). When iron is in excess, hepcidin/HAMP levels increase resulting in a degradation of ferroportin/SLC40A1 limiting the iron efflux to plasma.

Na(+)/Mg(2+) ion exchanger that acts as a predominant Mg(2+) efflux system at the plasma membrane. Transporter activity is driven by the inwardly directed electrochemical gradient for Na(+) ions, thus directly depends on the extracellular Na(+) ion concentration set by Na(+)/K(+) pump. Generates circadian cellular Mg(2+) fluxes that feed back to regulate clock-controlled gene expression and metabolism and facilitate higher energetic demands during the day. Has a role in regulating the activity of ATP-dependent enzymes, including those operating in Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain (By similarity).

Na(+)/Mg(2+) ion exchanger that acts as a predominant Mg(2+) efflux system at the mitochondrial inner membrane.

Sodium-independent purine-selective nucleobase transporter which mediates the equilibrative transport of extracellular purine nucleobases such as adenine, guanine and hypoxanthine. May regulate fatty acid (FA) transport in adipocytes, acting as a positive regulator of FA efflux and as a negative regulator of FA uptake (By similarity).

Proton-associated glucose and sucrose transporter (By similarity). May be able to transport also fructose (By similarity). Expressed at a late melanosome maturation stage where functions as proton/glucose exporter which increase lumenal pH by decreasing glycolysis. Regulates melanogenesis by maintaining melanosome neutralization that is initially initiated by transient OCA2 and required for a proper function of the tyrosinase TYR.

Proton-associated sucrose transporter. May be able to transport also glucose and fructose.

Multidrug efflux pump that functions as a H(+)/organic cation antiporter. Mediates the secretion of cationic compounds including drugs, toxins and endogenous metabolites. Mediates the efflux of cationic compounds, such as the model cations, tetraethylammonium (TEA), 1-methyl-4-phenylpyridinium (MPP), the drugs procainamide, acyclovir and topotecan, or weak bases that are positively charged at physiological pH, such as cimetidine or the antidiabetic drug metformin. Mediates the efflux of endogenous compounds such as creatinine, thiamine, agmatine and estrone-3-sulfate. Plays a physiological role in the excretion of drugs, toxins and endogenous metabolites through the kidney and liver, into urine and bile respectively.

Multidrug efflux pump that functions as a H(+)/organic cation antiporter. Mediates the efflux of cationic compounds, such as the model cations, tetraethylammonium (TEA) and 1-methyl-4-phenylpyridinium (MPP+) or weak bases that are positively charged at physiological pH, cimetidine or the antidiabetic drug metformin. Mediates the efflux of endogenous compounds such as, creatinine, thiamine and estrone-3- sulfate. Plays a physiological role in the excretion of drugs, toxins and endogenous metabolites through the kidney.

Sodium/bicarbonate cotransporter which plays an important role in regulating intracellular pH. Has been shown to act as a sodium/bicarbonate cotransporter in exchange for intracellular chloride (By similarity). Has also been shown to act as a sodium/biocarbonate cotransporter which does not couple net influx of bicarbonate to net efflux of chloride, with the observed chloride efflux being due to chloride self-exchange. Controls neuronal pH and may contribute to the secretion of cerebrospinal fluid (By similarity). Reduces the excitability of CA1 pyramidal neurons and modulates short-term synaptic plasticity (By similarity). Required in retinal cells to maintain normal pH which is necessary for normal vision (By similarity). In the kidney, likely to mediate bicarbonate reclamation in the apical membrane of the proximal tubules (By similarity).

Multifunctional transporter with an impact in cell morphology and differentiation. In the presence of borate B(OH)4(-), acts as a voltage-dependent electrogenic Na(+)-coupled B(OH)4(-) cotransporter controlling boron homeostasis. At early stages of stem cell differentiation, participates in synergy with ITGA5-ITGB1 and ITGAV-ITGB3 integrins and BMPR1A to promote cell adhesion and contractility that drives differentiation toward osteogenic commitment while inhibiting adipogenesis (By similarity). In the absence of B(OH)4(-), acts as a Na(+)-coupled OH(-) or H(+) permeable channel with implications in cellular redox balance. Regulates the oxidative stress response in corneal endothelium by enhancing antioxidant defenses and protecting cells from reactive oxygen species. In response to hypo-osmotic challenge, also acts as water permeable channel at the basolateral cell membrane of corneal endothelial cells and facilitates transendothelial fluid reabsorption in the aqueous humor. In the presence of ammonia, acts as an electrogenic NH3/H(+) cotransporter and may play a role in ammonia transport and reabsorption in renal Henle's loop epithelium.

Electrogenic sodium/bicarbonate cotransporter with a Na(+):HCO3(-) stoichiometry varying from 1:2 to 1:3. May regulate bicarbonate influx/efflux at the basolateral membrane of cells and regulate intracellular pH.

Mediates sodium- and bicarbonate-dependent electrogenic sodium bicarbonate cotransport, with a Na(+):HCO3(-) stoichiometry varying from 1:2 to 1:3.

Electroneutral sodium- and bicarbonate-dependent cotransporter with a Na(+):HCO3(-) 1:1 stoichiometry. Mediates the sodium-dependent bicarbonate transport important for pH recovery after acid load as well as for regulation of steady-state pH in the duodenum and vascular smooth muscle cells (By similarity). Plays a key role in macrophage acidification, mediating bicarbonate import into the cytoplasm which is crucial for net acid extrusion and maintenance of cytoplasmic pH during phagocytosis. Provides cellular bicarbonate for de novo purine and pyrimidine synthesis and is a key mediator of de novo nucleotide synthesis downstream of mTORC1 signaling in proliferating cells.

Mediates electroneutral sodium- and carbonate-dependent chloride-HCO3(-) exchange with a Na(+):HCO3(-) stoichiometry of 2:1. Plays a major role in pH regulation in neurons (By similarity). Mediates sodium reabsorption in the renal cortical collecting ducts (By similarity).

Plasma membrane transporter mediating the uptake by cells of the water soluble vitamin B2/riboflavin that plays a key role in biochemical oxidation-reduction reactions of the carbohydrate, lipid, and amino acid metabolism. Humans are unable to synthesize vitamin B2/riboflavin and must obtain it via intestinal absorption.

Plasma membrane transporter mediating the uptake by cells of the water soluble vitamin B2/riboflavin that plays a key role in biochemical oxidation-reduction reactions of the carbohydrate, lipid, and amino acid metabolism. Humans are unable to synthesize vitamin B2/riboflavin and must obtain it via intestinal absorption. May also act as a receptor for 4- hydroxybutyrate (Probable).

Converts testosterone into 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone and progesterone or corticosterone into their corresponding 5-alpha-3- oxosteroids. It plays a central role in sexual differentiation and androgen physiology.

Converts testosterone (T) into 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone (DHT) and progesterone or corticosterone into their corresponding 5- alpha-3-oxosteroids. It plays a central role in sexual differentiation and androgen physiology.

Component of SEC61 channel-forming translocon complex that mediates transport of signal peptide-containing precursor polypeptides across the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Forms a ribosome receptor and a gated pore in the ER membrane, both functions required for cotranslational translocation of nascent polypeptides. May cooperate with auxiliary protein SEC62, SEC63 and HSPA5/BiP to enable post-translational transport of small presecretory proteins. Component of a ribosome-associated ER translocon complex involved in multi-pass membrane protein transport into the ER membrane and biogenesis. The SEC61 channel cooperates with the translocating protein TRAM1 to import nascent proteins into the ER. Controls the passive efflux of calcium ions from the ER lumen to the cytosol through SEC61 channel, contributing to the maintenance of cellular calcium homeostasis. Plays a critical role in nephrogenesis, specifically at pronephros stage (By similarity).

Appears to play a crucial role in the insertion of secretory and membrane polypeptides into the ER. It is required for assembly of membrane and secretory proteins. Found to be tightly associated with membrane-bound ribosomes, either directly or through adaptor proteins (By similarity).

Mediates sodium- and chloride-dependent transport of gamma- aminobutyric acid (GABA). Can also mediate transport of beta-alanine and to a lower extent that of taurine and hypotaurine (By similarity).

Transports betaine and GABA. May have a role in regulation of GABAergic transmission in the brain through the reuptake of GABA into presynaptic terminals, as well as in osmotic regulation

Mediates sodium- and chloride-dependent transport of gamma- aminobutyric acid (GABA). Mediates transport of beta-alanine. Can also mediate transport of taurine and hypotaurine (By similarity).

Amino acid transporter that plays an important role in the absorption of amino acids in the intestinal tract. Mediates the uptake of a broad range of neutral and cationic amino acids (with the exception of proline) in a Na(+)/Cl(-)-dependent manner. Transports non-alpha-amino acids such as beta- alanine with low affinity, and has a higher affinity for dipolar and cationic amino acids such as leucine and lysine. Can also transport carnitine, butirylcarnitine and propionylcarnitine coupled to the transmembrane gradients of Na(+) and Cl(-).

Functions as a sodium-dependent neutral amino acid transporter. Exhibits preference for the branched-chain amino acids, particularly leucine, valine and isoleucine and methionine. Can also transport low-affinity substrates such as alanine, phenylalanine, glutamine and pipecolic acid. Mediates the saturable, pH-sensitive and electrogenic cotransport of proline and sodium ions with a stoichiometry of 1:1. May have a role as transporter for neurotransmitter precursors into neurons. In contrast to other members of the neurotransmitter transporter family, does not appear to be chloride-dependent.

Functions as a sodium-dependent vesicular transporter selective for proline, glycine, leucine and alanine. In contrast to other members of this neurotransmitter transporter family, does not appear to be chloride-dependent (By similarity).

Transporter that mediates resorption of neutral amino acids across the apical membrane of renal and intestinal epithelial cells. This uptake is sodium-dependent and chloride-independent. Requires CLTRN in kidney or ACE2 in intestine for cell surface expression and amino acid transporter activity.

Mediates the Na(+)- and Cl(-)-dependent uptake of imino acids such as L-proline, N-methyl-L-proline and pipecolate as well as N- methylated amino acids. Also transports glycine, regulates proline and glycine homeostasis in the brain playing a role in the modulation of NMDAR currents.

Meiotic protein that localizes to the central element of the synaptonemal complex and is required for chromosome synapsis during meiotic recombination. Required for the appropriate processing of intermediate recombination nodules before crossover formation.

Mediates the transport L-aspartate and L-glutamate in a sodium-independent manner.

Plays a role in promoting the proliferation of synovial fibroblasts in response to pro-inflammatory stimuli.

Phosphoinositide phosphatase which catalyzes the hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns(4)P). Can also catalyze the hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3)P) and has low activity towards phosphatidylinositol-3,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,5)P2) (By similarity). Shows a very robust PtdIns(4)P phosphatase activity when it binds PtdIns(4)P in a 'cis' configuration in the cellular environment, with much less activity seen when it binds PtdIns(4)P in 'trans' configuration. PtdIns(4)P phosphatase activity (when it binds PtdIns(4)P in 'trans' configuration) is enhanced in the presence of PLEKHA3.

Inositol 4-phosphatase which mainly acts on phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate. May be functionally linked to OCRL, which converts phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate to phosphatidylinositol, for a sequential dephosphorylation of phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate at the 5 and 4 position of inositol, thus playing an important role in the endocytic recycling. Regulator of TF:TFRC and integrins recycling pathway, is also involved in cell migration mechanisms. Modulates AKT/GSK3B pathway by decreasing AKT and GSK3B phosphorylation. Negatively regulates STAT3 signaling pathway through inhibition of STAT3 phosphorylation and translocation to the nucleus. Functionally important modulator of cardiac myocyte size and of the cardiac response to stress (By similarity). May play a role as negative regulator of axon regeneration after central nervous system injuries (By similarity).

Plays a role in acrosome expansion and establishment of normal sperm morphology during spermatogenesis (By similarity). Important for male fertility.

Sperm surface membrane protein that may be involved in sperm- egg plasma membrane adhesion and fusion during fertilization. It could be a potential receptor for the egg oligosaccharide residue N- acetylglucosamine, which is present in the extracellular matrix over the egg plasma membrane. The processed form has no detectable bacteriolytic activity in vitro.

Sperm surface membrane protein that may be involved in sperm- egg plasma membrane adhesion and fusion during fertilization.

May play a role in acrosome formation and nucleus shaping during spermiogenesis.

Co-chaperone which acts as a regulator of the Hsp70 chaperone machinery and may be involved in the processing of other ataxia-linked proteins.

The heterodimer acts as an E1 ligase for SUMO1, SUMO2, SUMO3, and probably SUMO4. It mediates ATP-dependent activation of SUMO proteins followed by formation of a thioester bond between a SUMO protein and a conserved active site cysteine residue on UBA2/SAE2.

Binds to scaffold/matrix attachment region (S/MAR) DNA and forms a molecular assembly point to allow the formation of a 'transcriptosomal' complex (consisting of SR proteins and RNA polymerase II) coupling transcription and RNA processing. Functions as an estrogen receptor corepressor and can also bind to the HSP27 promoter and decrease its transcription. Thereby acts as a negative regulator of cell proliferation. When associated with RBMX, binds to and stimulates transcription from the SREBF1 promoter (By similarity).

Binds to scaffold/matrix attachment region (S/MAR) DNA. Can function as an estrogen receptor corepressor and can also inhibit cell proliferation

Multifaceted cellular regulator which coordinates several essential cellular functions including regulation of epithelial HCO3(-) and fluid secretion, mRNA processing and DNA replication. Regulates ITPR1 sensitivity to inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate, competing for the common binding site and acting as endogenous 'pseudoligand' whose inhibitory activity can be modulated by its phosphorylation status. Promotes the formation of contact points between the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and mitochondria, facilitating transfer of Ca(2+) from the ER to mitochondria. Under normal cellular conditions, functions cooperatively with BCL2L10 to limit ITPR1- mediated Ca(2+) release but, under apoptotic stress conditions, dephosphorylated which promotes dissociation of both AHCYL1 and BCL2L10 from mitochondria-associated endoplasmic reticulum membranes, inhibits BCL2L10 interaction with ITPR1 and leads to increased Ca(2+) transfer to mitochondria which promotes apoptosis. In the pancreatic and salivary ducts, at resting state, attenuates inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate-induced calcium release by interacting with ITPR1. When extracellular stimuli induce ITPR1 phosphorylation or inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate production, dissociates from ITPR1 to interact with CFTR and SLC26A6, mediating their synergistic activation by calcium and cAMP that stimulates the epithelial secretion of electrolytes and fluid (By similarity). Also activates basolateral SLC4A4 isoform 1 to coordinate fluid and HCO3(-) secretion. Inhibits the effect of STK39 on SLC4A4 and CFTR by recruiting PP1 phosphatase which activates SLC4A4, SLC26A6 and CFTR through dephosphorylation (By similarity). Mediates the induction of SLC9A3 surface expression produced by Angiotensin-2. Depending on the cell type, activates SLC9A3 in response to calcium or reverses SLC9A3R2-dependent calcium inhibition. May modulate the polyadenylation state of specific mRNAs, both by controlling the subcellular location of FIP1L1 and by inhibiting PAPOLA activity, in response to a stimulus that alters its phosphorylation state. Acts as a (dATP)-dependent inhibitor of ribonucleotide reductase large subunit RRM1, controlling the endogenous dNTP pool and ensuring normal cell cycle progression. In vitro does not exhibit any S-adenosyl-L- homocysteine hydrolase activity (By similarity).

May regulate the electrogenic sodium/bicarbonate cotransporter SLC4A4 activity and Mg(2+)-sensitivity. On the contrary of its homolog AHCYL1, does not regulate ITPR1 sensitivity to inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate.

Catalyzes the hydrolysis of S-adenosyl-L-homocysteine to form adenosine and homocysteine. Binds copper ions (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor involved in organogenesis. Plays an essential role in ureteric bud invasion during kidney development.

Transcription factor with a key role in the maintenance and self-renewal of embryonic and hematopoietic stem cells.

Plays a crucial role in the maintenance of the structure of mitochondrial cristae and the proper assembly of the mitochondrial respiratory chain complexes. Required for the assembly of TOMM40 into the TOM complex.

May be involved in endosome fusion. Mediates down-regulation of growth factor signaling via internalization of growth factor receptors.

Mitochondrial solute carriers shuttle metabolites, nucleotides, and cofactors through the mitochondrial inner membrane. Specifically mediates the transport of S-adenosylmethionine (SAM) into the mitochondria.

Involved in the regulation of gene expression in the retina. It functions as a negative regulator of CRX-controlled genes.

Sphingomyelin synthases synthesize sphingolipids through transfer of a phosphatidyl head group on to the primary hydroxyl of ceramide. SAMD8 is an endoplasmic reticulum (ER) transferase that has no sphingomyelin synthase activity but can convert phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) and ceramide to ceramide phosphoethanolamine (CPE) albeit with low product yield. Appears to operate as a ceramide sensor to control ceramide homeostasis in the endoplasmic reticulum rather than a converter of ceramides. Seems to be critical for the integrity of the early secretory pathway.

Double-stranded nucleic acid binding that acts as a an antiviral factor by playing an essential role in the formation of cytoplasmic antiviral granules. May play a role in the inflammatory response to tissue injury and the control of extra-osseous calcification, acting as a downstream target of TNF-alpha signaling. Involved in the regulation of EGR1, in coordination with RGL2. May be involved in endosome fusion.

Protein that acts both as a host restriction factor involved in defense response to virus and as a regulator of DNA end resection at stalled replication forks. Has deoxynucleoside triphosphate (dNTPase) activity, which is required to restrict infection by viruses, such as HIV-1: dNTPase activity reduces cellular dNTP levels to levels too low for retroviral reverse transcription to occur, blocking early- stage virus replication in dendritic and other myeloid cells. Likewise, suppresses LINE-1 retrotransposon activity. Not able to restrict infection by HIV-2 virus; because restriction activity is counteracted by HIV-2 viral protein Vpx. In addition to virus restriction, dNTPase activity acts as a regulator of DNA precursor pools by regulating dNTP pools. Phosphorylation at Thr-592 acts as a switch to control dNTPase-dependent and -independent functions: it inhibits dNTPase activity and ability to restrict infection by viruses, while it promotes DNA end resection at stalled replication forks. Functions during S phase at stalled DNA replication forks to promote the resection of gapped or reversed forks: acts by stimulating the exonuclease activity of MRE11, activating the ATR-CHK1 pathway and allowing the forks to restart replication. Its ability to promote degradation of nascent DNA at stalled replication forks is required to prevent induction of type I interferons, thereby preventing chronic inflammation. Ability to promote DNA end resection at stalled replication forks is independent of dNTPase activity. Enhances immunoglobulin hypermutation in B-lymphocytes by promoting transversion mutation (By similarity).

Negative regulator of B-cell activation. Down-regulates cell proliferation (in vitro). Promotes RAC1-dependent membrane ruffle formation and reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton. Regulates cell spreading and cell polarization. Stimulates HDAC1 activity. Regulates LYN activity by modulating its tyrosine phosphorylation (By similarity).

Can interact with DNA and histones and may scavenge nuclear material released from damaged circulating cells. May also function as a calcium-dependent lectin

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-binding protein that acts as an inhibitor of mTORC1 signaling via interaction with the GATOR1 and KICSTOR complexes. Acts as a sensor of S-adenosyl-L- methionine to signal methionine sufficiency to mTORC1: in presence of methionine, binds S-adenosyl-L-methionine, leading to disrupt interaction with the GATOR1 and KICSTOR complexes and promote mTORC1 signaling. Upon methionine starvation, S-adenosyl-L- methionine levels are reduced, thereby promoting the association with GATOR1 and KICSTOR, leading to inhibit mTORC1 signaling. Probably also acts as a S-adenosyl-L-methionine- dependent methyltransferase (Potential).

Negatively regulates class switch recombination or isotype switching in splenic B-cells.

Component of the SIN3-repressing complex. Enhances the ability of SIN3-HDAC1-mediated transcriptional repression. When tethered to the promoter, it can direct the formation of a repressive complex to core histone proteins. Auxiliary component of the splicing- dependent multiprotein exon junction complex (EJC) deposited at splice junction on mRNAs. The EJC is a dynamic structure consisting of core proteins and several peripheral nuclear and cytoplasmic associated factors that join the complex only transiently either during EJC assembly or during subsequent mRNA metabolism. Component of the ASAP and PSAP complexes which bind RNA in a sequence-independent manner and are proposed to be recruited to the EJC prior to or during the splicing process and to regulate specific excision of introns in specific transcription subsets. The ASAP complex can inhibit mRNA processing during in vitro splicing reactions. The ASAP complex promotes apoptosis and is disassembled after induction of apoptosis. Involved in the splicing modulation of BCL2L1/Bcl-X (and probably other apoptotic genes); specifically inhibits the formation of proapoptotic isoforms such as Bcl-X(S); the activity is different from the established EJC assembly and function.

Involved in the functional recruitment of the Sin3-histone deacetylase complex (HDAC) to a specific subset of N-CoR corepressor complexes. Capable of transcription repression by N-CoR. Active in deacetylating core histone octamers (when in a complex) but inactive in deacetylating nucleosomal histones.

The large binding pocket can accommodate several single chain phospholipids and fatty acids, GM2A also exhibits some calcium- independent phospholipase activity (By similarity). Binds gangliosides and stimulates ganglioside GM2 degradation. It stimulates only the breakdown of ganglioside GM2 and glycolipid GA2 by beta-hexosaminidase A. It extracts single GM2 molecules from membranes and presents them in soluble form to beta-hexosaminidase A for cleavage of N-acetyl-D- galactosamine and conversion to GM3 (By similarity). Has cholesterol transfer activity.

Plays a role in planar mitotic spindle orientation in retinal progenitor cells (RPCs) and promotes the production of symmetric terminal divisions (By similarity). Negatively regulates the mitotic apical cortex localization of GPSM2. Involved also in positive regulation of cell proliferation and tumor cell growth.

Saposin-A and saposin-C stimulate the hydrolysis of glucosylceramide by beta-glucosylceramidase (EC 3.2.1.45) and galactosylceramide by beta-galactosylceramidase (EC 3.2.1.46). Saposin- C apparently acts by combining with the enzyme and acidic lipid to form an activated complex, rather than by solubilizing the substrate

Involved in transport from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus (By similarity). Required to maintain SEC16A localization at discrete locations on the ER membrane perhaps by preventing its dissociation. SAR1A-GTP-dependent assembly of SEC16A on the ER membrane forms an organized scaffold defining endoplasmic reticulum exit sites (ERES).

GTP-binding protein involved in transport from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus (By similarity). Activated by the guanine nucleotide exchange factor PREB (By similarity). Involved in the selection of the protein cargo and the assembly of the COPII coat complex (By similarity). Synergizes with the cargo receptor SURF4 to mediate the export of lipoproteins from the endoplasmic reticulum, thereby regulating lipoprotein delivery and the maintenance of lipid homeostasis.

Negative regulator of store-operated Ca(2+) entry (SOCE) involved in protecting cells from Ca(2+) overfilling. In response to cytosolic Ca(2+) elevation after endoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+) refilling, promotes a slow inactivation of STIM (STIM1 or STIM2)- dependent SOCE activity: possibly act by facilitating the deoligomerization of STIM to efficiently turn off ORAI when the endoplasmic reticulum lumen is filled with the appropriate Ca(2+) levels, and thus preventing the overload of the cell with excessive Ca(2+) ions.

Reversibly inhibits the activity of ATP2A1 and ATP2A2 in sarcoplasmic reticulum by decreasing the apparent affinity of the ATPase for Ca(2+). Modulates calcium re-uptake during muscle relaxation and plays an important role in calcium homeostasis in muscle. Required for muscle-based, non-shivering thermogenesis (By similarity).

Catalyzes the last step of the oxidative degradation of choline to glycine. Converts sarcosine into glycine.

NAD(+) hydrolase, which plays a key role in axonal degeneration following injury by regulating NAD(+) metabolism. Acts as a negative regulator of MYD88- and TRIF-dependent toll-like receptor signaling pathway by promoting Wallerian degeneration, an injury-induced form of programmed subcellular death which involves degeneration of an axon distal to the injury site. Wallerian degeneration is triggered by NAD(+) depletion: in response to injury, SARM1 is activated and catalyzes cleavage of NAD(+) into ADP-D-ribose (ADPR), cyclic ADPR (cADPR) and nicotinamide; NAD(+) cleavage promoting cytoskeletal degradation and axon destruction. Also able to hydrolyze NADP(+), but not other NAD(+)-related molecules. Can activate neuronal cell death in response to stress. Regulates dendritic arborization through the MAPK4-JNK pathway (By similarity). Involved in innate immune response: inhibits both TICAM1/TRIF- and MYD88-dependent activation of JUN/AP-1, TRIF-dependent activation of NF-kappa-B and IRF3, and the phosphorylation of MAPK14/p38.

Binds both single-stranded and double-stranded DNA with higher affinity for the single-stranded form. Specifically binds to scaffold/matrix attachment region DNA. Also binds single-stranded RNA. Enhances RNA unwinding activity of DDX39A. May participate in important transcriptional or translational control of cell growth, metabolism and carcinogenesis. Component of the TREX complex which is thought to couple mRNA transcription, processing and nuclear export, and specifically associates with spliced mRNA and not with unspliced pre- mRNA. TREX is recruited to spliced mRNAs by a transcription-independent mechanism, binds to mRNA upstream of the exon-junction complex (EJC) and is recruited in a splicing- and cap-dependent manner to a region near the 5' end of the mRNA where it functions in mRNA export to the cytoplasm via the TAP/NFX1 pathway. The TREX complex is essential for the export of Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV) intronless mRNAs and infectious virus production.

U6 snRNP-binding protein that functions as a recycling factor of the splicing machinery. Promotes the initial reassembly of U4 and U6 snRNPs following their ejection from the spliceosome during its maturation. Also binds U6atac snRNPs and may function as a recycling factor for U4atac/U6atac spliceosomal snRNP, an initial step in the assembly of U12-type spliceosomal complex. The U12-type spliceosomal complex plays a role in the splicing of introns with non- canonical splice sites. May also function as a substrate-targeting factor for deubiquitinases like USP4 and USP15. Recruits USP4 to ubiquitinated PRPF3 within the U4/U5/U6 tri-snRNP complex, promoting PRPF3 deubiquitination and thereby regulating the spliceosome U4/U5/U6 tri-snRNP spliceosomal complex disassembly. May also recruit the deubiquitinase USP15 to histone H2B and mediate histone deubiquitination, thereby regulating gene expression and/or DNA repair. May play a role in hematopoiesis probably through transcription regulation of specific genes including MYC (By similarity).

Essential for gene silencing: has a role in the structure of silenced chromatin. Plays a role in the developing brain (By similarity).

Central scaffolding component of the centrioles ensuring their 9-fold symmetry. Required for centrosome biogenesis and duplication: required both for mother-centriole-dependent centriole duplication and deuterosome-dependent centriole amplification in multiciliated cells. Overexpression results in excess foci-bearing centriolar markers. Required for the recruitment of STIL to the procentriole and for STIL-mediated centriole amplification.

Is a positive regulator of NF-kappa-B signaling downstream of TLR4 activation. It acts as a scaffold molecule to assemble a molecular complex that includes TRAF6, MAP3K7, CHUK and IKBKB, thereby facilitating NF-kappa-B signaling activation. Regulates TRAF6 and MAP3K7 ubiquitination. Involved in the regulation of cell mobility. Regulates lipolysaccharide (LPS)-induced endothelial cell migration. Is involved in the regulation of skin pigmentation through the control of melanocyte migration in the epidermis.

Contributes to the release of free fatty acids from fatty acid synthase (FASN). Has broad substrate specificity, giving rise to a range of free fatty acids with chain lengths between 10 and 16 carbon atoms (C10 - C16).

Enzyme which catalyzes the acetylation of polyamines. Substrate specificity: norspermidine = spermidine >> spermine > N(1)- acetylspermine. This highly regulated enzyme allows a fine attenuation of the intracellular concentration of polyamines. Also involved in the regulation of polyamine transport out of cells. Also acts on 1,3- diaminopropane and 1,5-diaminopentane.

Catalyzes the N-acetylation of the amino acid thialysine (S- (2-aminoethyl)-L-cysteine), a L-lysine analog with the 4-methylene group substituted with a sulfur. May also catalyze acetylation of polyamines, such as norspermidine, spermidine or spermine. However, ability to acetylate polyamines is weak, suggesting that it does not act as a diamine acetyltransferase in vivo.

Crucial silencing factor contributing to the initiation of X inactivation mediated by Xist RNA that occurs during embryogenesis and in lymphoma (By similarity). Binds to DNA at special AT-rich sequences, the consensus SATB1-binding sequence (CSBS), at nuclear matrix- or scaffold-associated regions. Thought to recognize the sugar-phosphate structure of double-stranded DNA. Transcriptional repressor controlling nuclear and viral gene expression in a phosphorylated and acetylated status-dependent manner, by binding to matrix attachment regions (MARs) of DNA and inducing a local chromatin-loop remodeling. Acts as a docking site for several chromatin remodeling enzymes (e.g. PML at the MHC-I locus) and also by recruiting corepressors (HDACs) or coactivators (HATs) directly to promoters and enhancers. Modulates genes that are essential in the maturation of the immune T-cell CD8SP from thymocytes. Required for the switching of fetal globin species, and beta- and gamma-globin genes regulation during erythroid differentiation. Plays a role in chromatin organization and nuclear architecture during apoptosis. Interacts with the unique region (UR) of cytomegalovirus (CMV). Alu-like motifs and SATB1-binding sites provide a unique chromatin context which seems preferentially targeted by the HIV-1 integration machinery. Moreover, HIV-1 Tat may overcome SATB1- mediated repression of IL2 and IL2RA (interleukin) in T-cells by binding to the same domain than HDAC1. Delineates specific epigenetic modifications at target gene loci, directly up-regulating metastasis- associated genes while down-regulating tumor-suppressor genes. Reprograms chromatin organization and the transcription profiles of breast tumors to promote growth and metastasis. Promotes neuronal differentiation of neural stem/progenitor cells in the adult subventricular zone, possibly by positively regulating the expression of NEUROD1 (By similarity).

Binds to DNA, at nuclear matrix- or scaffold-associated regions. Thought to recognize the sugar-phosphate structure of double- stranded DNA. Transcription factor controlling nuclear gene expression, by binding to matrix attachment regions (MARs) of DNA and inducing a local chromatin-loop remodeling. Acts as a docking site for several chromatin remodeling enzymes and also by recruiting corepressors (HDACs) or coactivators (HATs) directly to promoters and enhancers. Required for the initiation of the upper-layer neurons (UL1) specific genetic program and for the inactivation of deep-layer neurons (DL) and UL2 specific genes, probably by modulating BCL11B expression. Repressor of Ctip2 and regulatory determinant of corticocortical connections in the developing cerebral cortex. May play an important role in palate formation. Acts as a molecular node in a transcriptional network regulating skeletal development and osteoblast differentiation.

Sodium-dependent neutral amino-acid transporter that mediates transport of alanine, serine, cysteine, proline, hydroxyproline and threonine.

Regulator of STK3/MST2 and STK4/MST1 in the Hippo signaling pathway which plays a pivotal role in organ size control and tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis. The core of this pathway is composed of a kinase cascade wherein STK3/MST2 and STK4/MST1, in complex with its regulatory protein SAV1, phosphorylates and activates LATS1/2 in complex with its regulatory protein MOB1, which in turn phosphorylates and inactivates YAP1 oncoprotein and WWTR1/TAZ. Phosphorylation of YAP1 by LATS1/2 inhibits its translocation into the nucleus to regulate cellular genes important for cell proliferation, cell death, and cell migration. SAV1 is required for STK3/MST2 and STK4/MST1 activation and promotes cell-cycle exit and terminal differentiation in developing epithelial tissues. Plays a role in centrosome disjunction by regulating the localization of NEK2 to centrosomes, and its ability to phosphorylate CROCC and CEP250. In conjunction with STK3/MST2, activates the transcriptional activity of ESR1 through the modulation of its phosphorylation.

May play a role in the regulation of cilium length. Stabilizes microtubules at low temperature.

Required for the assembly of mature ribosomes and ribosome biogenesis. Together with EFL1, triggers the GTP-dependent release of EIF6 from 60S pre-ribosomes in the cytoplasm, thereby activating ribosomes for translation competence by allowing 80S ribosome assembly and facilitating EIF6 recycling to the nucleus, where it is required for 60S rRNA processing and nuclear export. Required for normal levels of protein synthesis. May play a role in cellular stress resistance. May play a role in cellular response to DNA damage. May play a role in cell proliferation.

May be involved in signal-transduction pathways related to the control of brain development.

Acts as a transcriptional coregulator, that can have both coactivator and corepressor functions. Inhibits the DCSTAMP-repressive activity of TAL1, hence enhancing the access of the transcription factor MITF to the DC-STAMP promoter in osteoclast. Plays a role in bone homeostasis; required as a positive regulator in TNFSF11//RANKL- mediated osteoclast fusion via a DCSTAMP-dependent pathway. May also be required in the regulation of osteoblast differentiation (By similarity). Involved in the transcriptional corepression of NF-kappaB in macrophages. Plays a role as a regulator in the pro-inflammatory cascade.

Catalyzes the oxidation of methanethiol, an organosulfur compound known to be produced in substantial amounts by gut bacteria. Selenium-binding protein which may be involved in the sensing of reactive xenobiotics in the cytoplasm. May be involved in intra-Golgi protein transport (By similarity).

Binds SECIS (Sec insertion sequence) elements present on selenocysteine (Sec) protein mRNAs, but does not promote Sec incorporation into selenoproteins in vitro

Catalytic component of the signal peptidase complex (SPC) which catalyzes the cleavage of N-terminal signal sequences from nascent proteins as they are translocated into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum. Specifically cleaves N- terminal signal peptides that contain a hydrophobic alpha-helix (h- region) shorter than 18-20 amino acids.

Acts as a molecular scaffold that plays a key role in the organization of the endoplasmic reticulum exit sites (ERES), also known as transitional endoplasmic reticulum (tER). SAR1A-GTP-dependent assembly of SEC16A on the ER membrane forms an organized scaffold defining an ERES. Required for secretory cargo traffic from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus. Mediates the recruitment of MIA3/TANGO to ERES. Regulates both conventional (ER/Golgi-dependent) and GORASP2-mediated unconventional (ER/Golgi-independent) trafficking of CFTR to cell membrane. Positively regulates the protein stability of E3 ubiquitin-protein ligases RNF152 and RNF183 and the ER localization of RNF183. Acts as a RAB10 effector in the regulation of insulin-induced SLC2A4/GLUT4 glucose transporter- enriched vesicles delivery to the cell membrane in adipocytes (By similarity).

Plays a role in the organization of the endoplasmic reticulum exit sites (ERES), also known as transitional endoplasmic reticulum (tER). Required for secretory cargo traffic from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus. Involved in peroxisome biogenesis. Regulates the transport of peroxisomal biogenesis factors PEX3 and PEX16 from the ER to peroxisomes.

May be involved in vesicle transport between the ER and the Golgi complex.

SNARE involved in targeting and fusion of ER-derived transport vesicles with the Golgi complex as well as Golgi-derived retrograde transport vesicles with the ER.

Component of the coat protein complex II (COPII) which promotes the formation of transport vesicles from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). The coat has two main functions, the physical deformation of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane into vesicles and the selection of cargo molecules for their transport to the Golgi complex. Required for the translocation of insulin-induced glucose transporter SLC2A4/GLUT4 to the cell membrane (By similarity).

Component of the coat protein complex II (COPII) which promotes the formation of transport vesicles from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). The coat has two main functions, the physical deformation of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane into vesicles and the selection of cargo molecules for their transport to the Golgi complex.

Component of the coat protein complex II (COPII) which promotes the formation of transport vesicles from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). The coat has two main functions, the physical deformation of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane into vesicles and the selection of cargo molecules for their transport to the Golgi complex. Plays a central role in cargo selection within the COPII complex and together with SEC24B may have a different specificity compared to SEC24C and SEC24D. May package preferentially cargos with cytoplasmic DxE or LxxLE motifs and may also recognize conformational epitopes.

Component of the coat protein complex II (COPII) which promotes the formation of transport vesicles from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). The coat has two main functions, the physical deformation of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane into vesicles and the selection of cargo molecules for their transport to the Golgi complex. Plays a central role in cargo selection within the COPII complex and together with SEC24A may have a different specificity compared to SEC24C and SEC24D. May package preferentially cargos with cytoplasmic DxE or LxxLE motifs and may also recognize conformational epitopes.

Component of the coat protein complex II (COPII) which promotes the formation of transport vesicles from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). The coat has two main functions, the physical deformation of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane into vesicles and the selection of cargo molecules for their transport to the Golgi complex. Plays a central role in cargo selection within the COPII complex and together with SEC24D may have a different specificity compared to SEC24A and SEC24B. May more specifically package GPI-anchored proteins through the cargo receptor TMED10. May also be specific for IxM motif- containing cargos like the SNAREs GOSR2 and STX5.

Component of the coat protein complex II (COPII) which promotes the formation of transport vesicles from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). The coat has two main functions, the physical deformation of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane into vesicles and the selection of cargo molecules for their transport to the Golgi complex. Plays a central role in cargo selection within the COPII complex and together with SEC24C may have a different specificity compared to SEC24A and SEC24B. May more specifically package GPI-anchored proteins through the cargo receptor TMED10. May also be specific for IxM motif-containing cargos like the SNAREs GOSR2 and STX5.

Component of the coat protein complex II (COPII) which promotes the formation of transport vesicles from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). The coat has two main functions, the physical deformation of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane into vesicles and the selection of cargo molecules (By similarity).

As a component of the coat protein complex II (COPII), may function in vesicle budding and cargo export from the endoplasmic reticulum.

Electrogenic Na(+)-coupled sugar simporter that actively transports D-glucose or D-galactose at the plasma membrane, with a Na(+) to sugar coupling ratio of 2:1. Transporter activity is driven by a transmembrane Na(+) electrochemical gradient set by the Na(+)/K(+) pump. Has a primary role in the transport of dietary monosaccharides from enterocytes to blood. Responsible for the absorption of D-glucose or D-galactose across the apical brush-border membrane of enterocytes, whereas basolateral exit is provided by GLUT2. Additionally, functions as a D-glucose sensor in enteroendocrine cells, triggering the secretion of the incretins GCG and GIP that control food intake and energy homeostasis (By similarity). Together with SGLT2, functions in reabsorption of D-glucose from glomerular filtrate, playing a nonredundant role in the S3 segment of the proximal tubules (By similarity). Transports D-glucose into endometrial epithelial cells, controlling glycogen synthesis and nutritional support for the embryo as well as the decidual transformation of endometrium prior to conception. Acts as a water channel enabling passive water transport across the plasma membrane in response to the osmotic gradient created upon sugar and Na(+) uptake. Has high water conductivity, comparable to aquaporins, and therefore is expected to play an important role in transepithelial water permeability, especially in the small intestine.

Electrogenic Na(+)-coupled sugar simporter that actively transports D-glucose at the plasma membrane, with a Na(+) to sugar coupling ratio of 1:1. Transporter activity is driven by a transmembrane Na(+) electrochemical gradient set by the Na(+)/K(+) pump. Has a primary role in D-glucose reabsorption from glomerular filtrate across the brush border of the early proximal tubules of the kidney (By similarity).

Prevents intracellular accumulation of high concentrations of myo-inositol (an osmolyte) that result in impairment of cellular function

Has electrogenic activity in response to glucose, and may function as a glucose sensor. Mediates influx of sodium ions into the cell but does not transport sugars. Also potently activated by imino sugars such as deoxynojirimycin (DNJ).

Sodium:iodide symporter that mediates the transport of iodide into the thyroid gland. Can also mediate the transport of chlorate, thiocynate, nitrate and selenocynate.

Sodium-dependent multivitamin transporter that transports pantothenate, biotin and lipoate. Required for biotin and pantothenate uptake in the instestine (By similarity). Plays a role in the maintenance of intestinal mucosa integrity, by providing the gut mucosa with biotin (By similarity). May play a role in the transport of biotin and pantothenate into the brain across the blood-brain barrier. May also be involved in the sodium-dependent transport of iodide ions.

Transmembrane transporter that imports choline from the extracellular space into the neuron with high affinity. Choline uptake is the rate-limiting step in acetylcholine synthesis. Sodium ion- and chloride ion-dependent.

Acts as an electrogenic sodium (Na(+)) and chloride (Cl-)- dependent sodium-coupled solute transporter, including transport of monocarboxylates (short-chain fatty acids including L-lactate, D- lactate, pyruvate, acetate, propionate, valerate and butyrate), lactate, mocarboxylate drugs (nicotinate, benzoate, salicylate and 5- aminosalicylate) and ketone bodies (beta-D-hydroxybutyrate, acetoacetate and alpha-ketoisocaproate), with a Na(+):substrate stoichiometry of between 4:1 and 2:1. Catalyzes passive carrier mediated diffusion of iodide. Mediates iodide transport from the thyrocyte into the colloid lumen through the apical membrane. May be responsible for the absorption of D-lactate and monocarboxylate drugs from the intestinal tract. Acts as a tumor suppressor, suppressing colony formation in colon cancer, prostate cancer and glioma cell lines. May play a critical role in the entry of L-lactate and ketone bodies into neurons by a process driven by an electrochemical Na(+) gradient and hence contribute to the maintenance of the energy status and function of neurons.

Involved in sodium-dependent transport of D-mannose, D- glucose and D-fructose.

High capacity transporter for mannose and fructose and, to a lesser extent, glucose, AMG, and galactose.

Involved in the sodium-dependent cotransport of myo-inositol (MI) with a Na(+):MI stoichiometry of 2:1. Exclusively responsible for apical MI transport and absorption in intestine (By similarity). Can also transport D-chiro- inositol (DCI) but not L-fucose. Exhibits stereospecific cotransport of both D-glucose and D-xylose (By similarity). May induce apoptosis through the TNF-alpha, PDCD1 pathway. May play a role in the regulation of MI concentration in serum, involving reabsorption in at least the proximal tubule of the kidney (By similarity).

Acts as an electroneutral and low-affinity sodium (Na(+))- dependent sodium-coupled solute transporter. Catalyzes the transport across the plasma membrane of many monocarboxylates such as lactate, pyruvate, nicotinate, propionate, butyrate and beta-D-hydroxybutyrate. May be responsible for the first step of reabsorption of monocarboxylates from the lumen of the proximal tubule of the kidney and the small intestine. May play also a role in monocarboxylates transport in the retina (By similarity). Mediates electroneutral uptake of lactate, with a stoichiometry of 2 Na(+) for each lactate (By similarity).

Catalyzes a dehydrogenation to introduce C5-6 double bond into lathosterol in cholesterol biosynthesis.

Component of SEC61 channel-forming translocon complex that mediates transport of signal peptide-containing precursor polypeptides across the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Component of a ribosome-associated ER translocon complex involved in multi-pass membrane protein transport into the ER membrane and biogenesis. The SEC61 channel cooperates with the translocating protein TRAM1 to import nascent proteins into the ER. Required for PKD1/Polycystin-1 biogenesis (By similarity).

Component of SEC61 channel-forming translocon complex that mediates transport of signal peptide-containing precursor polypeptides across endoplasmic reticulum (ER) (By similarity). Component of a ribosome-associated ER translocon complex involved in multi-pass membrane protein transport into the ER membrane and biogenesis. The SEC61 channel cooperates with the translocating protein TRAM1 to import nascent proteins into the ER (By similarity).

Part of a complex composed of PLOD1, P3H3 and P3H4 that catalyzes hydroxylation of lysine residues in collagen alpha chains and is required for normal assembly and cross-linking of collagen fibrils. Required for normal bone density and normal skin stability via its role in hydroxylation of lysine residues in collagen alpha chains and in collagen fibril assembly.

Mediates transport of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) together with sodium and chloride and is responsible for the reuptake of GABA from the synapse. The translocation of GABA, however, may also occur in the reverse direction leading to the release of GABA (By similarity). The direction and magnitude of GABA transport is a consequence of the prevailing thermodynamic conditions, determined by membrane potential and the intracellular and extracellular concentrations of Na(+), Cl(-) and GABA (By similarity). Can also mediate sodium- and chloride-dependent transport of hypotaurine but to a much lower extent as compared to GABA (By similarity).

Mediates sodium- and chloride-dependent transport of norepinephrine (also known as noradrenaline). Can also mediate sodium- and chloride-dependent transport of dopamine.

Mediates sodium- and chloride-dependent transport of dopamine. Also mediates sodium- and chloride- dependent transport of norepinephrine (also known as noradrenaline) (By similarity). Regulator of light-dependent retinal hyaloid vessel regression, downstream of OPN5 signaling (By similarity).

Serotonin transporter whose primary function in the central nervous system involves the regulation of serotonergic signaling via transport of serotonin molecules from the synaptic cleft back into the pre-synaptic terminal for re-utilization. Plays a key role in mediating regulation of the availability of serotonin to other receptors of serotonergic systems. Terminates the action of serotonin and recycles it in a sodium-dependent manner.

Sodium- and chloride-dependent glycine transporter. Terminates the action of glycine by its high affinity sodium-dependent reuptake into presynaptic terminals. May be responsible for the termination of neurotransmission at strychnine-sensitive glycinergic synapses.

Mediates sodium- and chloride-dependent transport of taurine. Mediates transport of beta-alanine. Can also mediate transport of hypotaurine and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) (By similarity).

Brain specific sodium (and chloride)-dependent proline transporter. Terminates the action of proline by its high affinity sodium-dependent reuptake into presynaptic terminals (Probable).

Creatine:sodium symporter which mediates the uptake of creatine. Plays an important role in supplying creatine to the brain via the blood-brain barrier (By similarity).

Sodium- and chloride-dependent glycine transporter. Essential for regulating glycine concentrations at inhibitory glycinergic synapses.

Anti-terminator protein required to prevent early mRNA termination during transcription. Together with SCAF8, acts by suppressing the use of early, alternative poly(A) sites, thereby preventing the accumulation of non-functional truncated proteins. Mechanistically, associates with the phosphorylated C-terminal heptapeptide repeat domain (CTD) of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit (POLR2A), and subsequently binds nascent RNA upstream of early polyadenylation sites to prevent premature mRNA transcript cleavage and polyadenylation. Independently of SCAF8, also acts as a suppressor of transcriptional readthrough.

Anti-terminator protein required to prevent early mRNA termination during transcription. Together with SCAF4, acts by suppressing the use of early, alternative poly(A) sites, thereby preventing the accumulation of non-functional truncated proteins. Mechanistically, associates with the phosphorylated C-terminal heptapeptide repeat domain (CTD) of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit (POLR2A), and subsequently binds nascent RNA upstream of early polyadenylation sites to prevent premature mRNA transcript cleavage and polyadenylation. Independently of SCAF4, also acts as a positive regulator of transcript elongation.

Plays a role in pre-mRNA alternative splicing by regulating spliceosome assembly.

Tumor suppressor which functions to suppress MRTFA-induced SRF transcriptional activity. May function in the RHOA-DIAPH1 signal transduction pathway and regulate cell migration through transcriptional regulation of ITGB1.

Functions in post-Golgi recycling pathways. Acts as a recycling carrier to the cell surface

Required for the calcium-dependent exocytosis of signal sequence-containing cytokines such as CCL5. Probably acts in cooperation with the SNARE machinery. May play a role in accumulation of expanded polyglutamine (polyQ) protein huntingtin (HTT) in case of endoplasmic reticulum stress by inhibiting the endocytosis pathway.

CCNA2/CDK2 regulatory protein that transiently maintains CCNA2 in the cytoplasm.

Escort protein required for cholesterol as well as lipid homeostasis (By similarity). Regulates export of the SCAP-SREBP complex from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi upon low cholesterol, thereby regulating the processing of sterol regulatory element-binding proteins (SREBPs) SREBF1/SREBP1 and SREBF2/SREBP2 (By similarity). At high sterol concentrations, formation of a ternary complex with INSIG (INSIG1 or INSIG2) leads to mask the ER export signal in SCAP, promoting retention of the complex in the endoplasmic reticulum (By similarity). Low sterol concentrations trigger release of INSIG, a conformational change in the SSD domain of SCAP, unmasking of the ER export signal, promoting recruitment into COPII-coated vesicles and transport of the SCAP-SREBP to the Golgi: in the Golgi, SREBPs are then processed, releasing the transcription factor fragment of SREBPs from the membrane, its import into the nucleus and up-regulation of LDLR, INSIG1 and the mevalonate pathway (By similarity). Binds cholesterol via its SSD domain (By similarity).

Seems to protect cells by scavenging oxidative molecules or harmful products of oxidation.

Ferritin receptor that mediates non-transferrin-dependent delivery of iron. Mediates cellular uptake of ferritin-bound iron by stimulating ferritin endocytosis from the cell surface with consequent iron delivery within the cell. Delivery of iron to cells by ferritin is required for the development of specific cell types, suggesting the existence of cell type-specific mechanisms of iron traffic in organogenesis, which alternatively utilize transferrin or non- transferrin iron delivery pathways. Ferritin mediates iron uptake in capsule cells of the developing kidney. Preferentially binds ferritin light chain (FTL) compared to heavy chain (FTH1).

Plays an important role in the loading of the cohesin complex on to DNA. Forms a heterodimeric complex (also known as cohesin loading complex) with NIPBL/SCC2 which mediates the loading of the cohesin complex onto chromatin. Plays a role in sister chromatid cohesion and normal progression through prometaphase.

Stearoyl-CoA desaturase that utilizes O(2) and electrons from reduced cytochrome b5 to introduce the first double bond into saturated fatty acyl-CoA substrates. Catalyzes the insertion of a cis double bond at the delta-9 position into fatty acyl-CoA substrates including palmitoyl-CoA and stearoyl-CoA. Gives rise to a mixture of 16:1 and 18:1 unsaturated fatty acids. Involved in neuronal cell proliferation and differentiation through down-regulation of EGFR/AKT/MAPK and Wnt signaling pathways.

Stearoyl-CoA desaturase that utilizes O(2) and electrons from reduced cytochrome b5 to introduce the first double bond into saturated fatty acyl-CoA substrates. Catalyzes the insertion of a cis double bond at the delta-9 position into fatty acyl-CoA substrates including palmitoyl-CoA and stearoyl-CoA. Gives rise to a mixture of 16:1 and 18:1 unsaturated fatty acids. Plays an important role in lipid biosynthesis. Plays an important role in regulating the expression of genes that are involved in lipogenesis and in regulating mitochondrial fatty acid oxidation (By similarity). Plays an important role in body energy homeostasis (By similarity). Contributes to the biosynthesis of membrane phospholipids, cholesterol esters and triglycerides (By similarity).

May function in the assembly or regulation of proteins in the cornified envelope. The LIM domain may be involved in homotypic or heterotypic associations and may function to localize sciellin to the cornified envelope

Plays a role in SNARE-pin assembly and Golgi-to-ER retrograde transport via its interaction with COG4. Involved in vesicular transport between the endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi (By similarity).

Ligand for the receptor-type protein-tyrosine kinase KIT. Plays an essential role in the regulation of cell survival and proliferation, hematopoiesis, stem cell maintenance, gametogenesis, mast cell development, migration and function, and in melanogenesis. KITLG/SCF binding can activate several signaling pathways. Promotes phosphorylation of PIK3R1, the regulatory subunit of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase, and subsequent activation of the kinase AKT1. KITLG/SCF and KIT also transmit signals via GRB2 and activation of RAS, RAF1 and the MAP kinases MAPK1/ERK2 and/or MAPK3/ERK1. KITLG/SCF and KIT promote activation of STAT family members STAT1, STAT3 and STAT5. KITLG/SCF and KIT promote activation of PLCG1, leading to the production of the cellular signaling molecules diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate. KITLG/SCF acts synergistically with other cytokines, probably interleukins

Secretogranin-1 is a neuroendocrine secretory granule protein, which may be the precursor for other biologically active peptides

Neuroendocrine protein of the granin family that regulates the biogenesis of secretory granules.

Member of the granin protein family that regulates the biogenesis of secretory granules. Acts as a sorting receptor for intragranular proteins including chromogranin A/CHGA (By similarity). May also play a role in angiogenesis. Promotes endothelial proliferation, migration and tube formation through MEK/ERK signaling pathway.

Lipid tetraspanin-associated transmembrane adapter/mediator that acts as a scaffold for Src-family kinases and other signaling proteins in immune cells. It is involved in major histocompatibility complex class II (MHC-II) signaling transduction in B cells, where it is required in generating the calcium response and enhancing ERK activity upon MHC-II stimulation. In dendritic cells, it is involved in sustaining CLEC7A/DECTIN1 signaling after CLEC7A activation by fungal beta-glucans (By similarity). It also acts as an agonist-inducible signaling adapter for TLR1, TLR2, TLR3, TLR4, and TLR7 by selectively enabling the expression of pro- inflammatory cytokines IL6 and IL12B in macrophages and acting as a scaffold for phosphorylation of Toll-like receptors by Src-family kinases (By similarity).

Ca(2+)-dependent actin filament-severing protein that has a regulatory function in exocytosis by affecting the organization of the microfilament network underneath the plasma membrane. Severing activity is inhibited by phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bis-phosphate (PIP2) (By similarity). In vitro, also has barbed end capping and nucleating activities in the presence of Ca(2+). Required for megakaryocyte differentiation, maturation, polyploidization and apoptosis with the release of platelet-like particles. Plays a role in osteoclastogenesis (OCG) and actin cytoskeletal organization in osteoclasts (By similarity). Regulates chondrocyte proliferation and differentiation (By similarity). Inhibits cell proliferation and tumorigenesis. Signaling is mediated by MAPK, p38 and JNK pathways.

Adapter protein that links SCN10A to clathrin. Regulates SCN10A channel activity, possibly by promoting channel internalization (By similarity).

Catalyzes the decomposition of L-selenocysteine to L-alanine and elemental selenium.

Calcium-dependent mitochondrial solute carrier. Mediates the reversible, electroneutral exchange of Mg-ATP or Mg-ADP against phosphate ions, catalyzing the net uptake or efflux of adenine nucleotides across the mitochondrial inner membrane. Nucleotide transport is inactive when cytosolic calcium levels are low, and is activated by an increase in cytosolic calcium levels. May play a role in protecting cells against oxidative stress-induced cell death, probably by promoting the formation of calcium-phosphate precipitates in the mitochondrial matrix, and thereby buffering calcium levels in the mitochondrial matrix.

Calcium-dependent mitochondrial solute carrier. Mitochondrial solute carriers shuttle metabolites, nucleotides, and cofactors through the mitochondrial inner membrane. May act as a ATP-Mg/Pi exchanger that mediates the transport of Mg-ATP in exchange for phosphate, catalyzing the net uptake or efflux of adenine nucleotides into or from the mitochondria.

Calcium-dependent mitochondrial solute carrier. Mitochondrial solute carriers shuttle metabolites, nucleotides, and cofactors through the mitochondrial inner membrane. May act as a ATP- Mg/Pi exchanger that mediates the transport of Mg-ATP in exchange for phosphate, catalyzing the net uptake or efflux of adenine nucleotides into or from the mitochondria. Acts as a regulator of mitochondrial calcium uptake via interaction with MCU and MICU1.

Putative Polycomb group (PcG) protein. PcG proteins act by forming multiprotein complexes, which are required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of homeotic genes throughout development. May be involved in spermatogenesis during sexual maturation (By similarity).

Putative Polycomb group (PcG) protein. PcG proteins act by forming multiprotein complexes, which are required to maintain the transcriptionally repressive state of homeotic genes throughout development (By similarity).

Mediates the voltage-dependent sodium ion permeability of excitable membranes. Assuming opened or closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane, the protein forms a sodium-selective channel through which Na(+) ions may pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. Plays a key role in brain, probably by regulating the moment when neurotransmitters are released in neurons. Involved in sensory perception of mechanical pain: activation in somatosensory neurons induces pain without neurogenic inflammation and produces hypersensitivity to mechanical, but not thermal stimuli.

Regulatory subunit of multiple voltage-gated sodium channel complexes that play important roles in excitable membranes in brain, heart and skeletal muscle. Enhances the presence of the pore-forming alpha subunit at the cell surface and modulates channel gating characteristics and the rate of channel inactivation. Modulates the activity of multiple pore-forming alpha subunits, such as SCN1A, SCN2A, SCN3A, SCN4A, SCN5A and SCN10A.

Mediates the voltage-dependent sodium ion permeability of excitable membranes. Assuming opened or closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane, the protein forms a sodium-selective channel through which Na(+) ions may pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. Implicated in the regulation of hippocampal replay occurring within sharp wave ripples (SPW-R) important for memory (By similarity).

Crucial in the assembly, expression, and functional modulation of the heterotrimeric complex of the sodium channel. The subunit beta-2 causes an increase in the plasma membrane surface area and in its folding into microvilli. Interacts with TNR may play a crucial role in clustering and regulation of activity of sodium channels at nodes of Ranvier (By similarity).

Mediates the voltage-dependent sodium ion permeability of excitable membranes. Assuming opened or closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane, forms a sodium- selective channel through which Na(+) ions may pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. May contribute to the regulation of serotonin/5- hydroxytryptamine release by enterochromaffin cells (By similarity). In pancreatic endocrine cells, required for both glucagon and glucose- induced insulin secretion (By similarity).

Modulates channel gating kinetics. Causes unique persistent sodium currents. Inactivates the sodium channel opening more slowly than the subunit beta-1. Its association with NFASC may target the sodium channels to the nodes of Ranvier of developing axons and retain these channels at the nodes in mature myelinated axons (By similarity).

Pore-forming subunit of a voltage-gated sodium channel complex through which Na(+) ions pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. Alternates between resting, activated and inactivated states. Required for normal muscle fiber excitability, normal muscle contraction and relaxation cycles, and constant muscle strength in the presence of fluctuating K(+) levels.

Modulates channel gating kinetics. Causes negative shifts in the voltage dependence of activation of certain alpha sodium channels, but does not affect the voltage dependence of inactivation. Modulates the susceptibility of the sodium channel to inhibition by toxic peptides from spider, scorpion, wasp and sea anemone venom.

This protein mediates the voltage-dependent sodium ion permeability of excitable membranes. Assuming opened or closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane, the protein forms a sodium-selective channel through which Na(+) ions may pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. It is a tetrodotoxin-resistant Na(+) channel isoform. This channel is responsible for the initial upstroke of the action potential. Channel inactivation is regulated by intracellular calcium levels.

Mediates the voltage-dependent sodium ion permeability of excitable membranes. Assuming opened or closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane, the protein forms a sodium-selective channel through which Na(+) ions may pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient.

Mediates the voltage-dependent sodium ion permeability of excitable membranes. Assuming opened or closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane, the protein forms a sodium-selective channel through which Na(+) ions may pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. It is a tetrodotoxin-sensitive Na(+) channel isoform. Plays a role in pain mechanisms, especially in the development of inflammatory pain.

Tetrodotoxin-resistant channel that mediates the voltage- dependent sodium ion permeability of excitable membranes. Assuming opened or closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane, the protein forms a sodium-selective channel through which sodium ions may pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. Plays a role in neuropathic pain mechanisms.

This protein mediates the voltage-dependent sodium ion permeability of excitable membranes. Assuming opened or closed conformations in response to the voltage difference across the membrane, the protein forms a sodium-selective channel through which sodium ions may pass in accordance with their electrochemical gradient. It is a tetrodotoxin-resistant sodium channel isoform. Also involved, with the contribution of the receptor tyrosine kinase NTRK2, in rapid BDNF-evoked neuronal depolarization.

Plays a role in alternative splicing of pre-mRNAs, possibly by contributing to the selection of non-consensus donor sites.

Sodium permeable non-voltage-sensitive ion channel inhibited by the diuretic amiloride. Mediates the electrodiffusion of the luminal sodium (and water, which follows osmotically) through the apical membrane of epithelial cells. Plays an essential role in electrolyte and blood pressure homeostasis, but also in airway surface liquid homeostasis, which is important for proper clearance of mucus. Controls the reabsorption of sodium in kidney, colon, lung and eccrine sweat glands. Also plays a role in taste perception.

Sodium permeable non-voltage-sensitive ion channel inhibited by the diuretic amiloride. Mediates the electrodiffusion of the luminal sodium (and water, which follows osmotically) through the apical membrane of epithelial cells. Plays an essential role in electrolyte and blood pressure homeostasis, but also in airway surface liquid homeostasis, which is important for proper clearance of mucus. Controls the reabsorption of sodium in kidney, colon, lung and sweat glands. Also plays a role in taste perception.

Sodium permeable non-voltage-sensitive ion channel inhibited by the diuretic amiloride. Mediates the electrodiffusion of the luminal sodium (and water, which follows osmotically) through the apical membrane of epithelial cells. Controls the reabsorption of sodium in kidney, colon, lung and sweat glands. Also plays a role in taste perception.

Copper metallochaperone essential for the maturation of cytochrome c oxidase subunit II (MT-CO2/COX2). Not required for the synthesis of MT-CO2/COX2 but plays a crucial role in stabilizing MT- CO2/COX2 during its subsequent maturation. Involved in transporting copper to the Cu(A) site on MT-CO2/COX2. Plays an important role in the regulation of copper homeostasis by controlling the abundance and cell membrane localization of copper transporter CTR1 (By similarity).

Copper metallochaperone essential for the synthesis and maturation of cytochrome c oxidase subunit II (MT-CO2/COX2). Involved in transporting copper to the Cu(A) site on MT-CO2/COX2. Also acts as a thiol-disulfide oxidoreductase to regulate the redox state of the cysteines in SCO1 during maturation of MT-CO2/COX2.

Key enzyme for ketone body catabolism. Catalyzes the first, rate-limiting step of ketone body utilization in extrahepatic tissues, by transferring coenzyme A (CoA) from a donor thiolester species (succinyl-CoA) to an acceptor carboxylate (acetoacetate), and produces acetoacetyl-CoA. Acetoacetyl-CoA is further metabolized by acetoacetyl- CoA thiolase into two acetyl-CoA molecules which enter the citric acid cycle for energy production. Forms a dimeric enzyme where both of the subunits are able to form enzyme-CoA thiolester intermediates, but only one subunit is competent to transfer the CoA moiety to the acceptor carboxylate (3-oxo acid) and produce a new acyl- CoA. Formation of the enzyme-CoA intermediate proceeds via an unstable anhydride species formed between the carboxylate groups of the enzyme and substrate (By similarity).

Key enzyme for ketone body catabolism. Transfers the CoA moiety from succinate to acetoacetate. Formation of the enzyme-CoA intermediate proceeds via an unstable anhydride species formed between the carboxylate groups of the enzyme and substrate (By similarity).

[Isoform SCPx]: Plays a crucial role in the peroxisomal oxidation of branched-chain fatty acids. Catalyzes the last step of the peroxisomal beta-oxidation of branched chain fatty acids and the side chain of the bile acid intermediates di- and trihydroxycoprostanic acids (DHCA and THCA). Also active with medium and long straight chain 3-oxoacyl-CoAs. Stimulates the microsomal conversion of 7-dehydrocholesterol to cholesterol and transfers phosphatidylcholine and 7-dehydrocholesterol between membrances, in vitro (By similarity). Isoforms SCP2 and SCPx cooperate in peroxisomal oxidation of certain naturally occurring tetramethyl- branched fatty acyl-CoAs (By similarity).

Receptor for different ligands such as phospholipids, cholesterol ester, lipoproteins, phosphatidylserine and apoptotic cells. Receptor for HDL, mediating selective uptake of cholesteryl ether and HDL-dependent cholesterol efflux. Also facilitates the flux of free and esterified cholesterol between the cell surface and apoB-containing lipoproteins and modified lipoproteins, although less efficiently than HDL. May be involved in the phagocytosis of apoptotic cells, via its phosphatidylserine binding activity.

Acts as a lysosomal receptor for glucosylceramidase (GBA1) targeting.

Scaffold protein involved in different aspects of polarized cell differentiation regulating epithelial and neuronal morphogenesis and T-cell polarization. Via its interaction with CRTAM, required for the late phase polarization of a subset of CD4+ T-cells, which in turn regulates TCR-mediated proliferation and IFNG and IL22 production (By similarity). Most probably functions in the establishment of apico- basal cell polarity. May function in cell proliferation regulating progression from G1 to S phase and as a positive regulator of apoptosis for instance during acinar morphogenesis of the mammary epithelium. May also function in cell migration and adhesion and hence regulate cell invasion through MAPK signaling. May play a role in exocytosis and in the targeting of synaptic vesicles to synapses. Functions as an activator of Rac GTPase activity.

Regulates exocytosis in mast cells. Increases both the extent of secretion and the sensitivity of mast cells to stimulation with calcium (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor that binds E-box motif CAGGTG. Can modulate the action of basic helix-loop-helix (bHLH) transcription factors, critical for neuronal differentiation.

Receptor for secretin (SCT), which is involved in different processes such as regulation of the pH of the duodenal content, food intake and water homeostasis. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase (By similarity). Upon binding to secretin, regulates the pH of the duodenum by (1) inhibiting the secretion of gastric acid from the parietal cells of the stomach and (2) stimulating the production of bicarbonate (NaHCO(3)) from the ductal cells of the pancreas (By similarity). In addition to regulating the pH of the duodenal content, plays a central role in diet induced thermogenesis: acts as a non-sympathetic brown fat (BAT) activator mediating prandial thermogenesis, which consequentially induces satiation. Mechanistically, secretin released by the gut after a meal binds to secretin receptor (SCTR) in brown adipocytes, activating brown fat thermogenesis by stimulating lipolysis, which is sensed in the brain and promotes satiation. Also able to stimulate lipolysis in white adipocytes. Also plays an important role in cellular osmoregulation by regulating renal water reabsorption. Also plays a role in the central nervous system: required for synaptic plasticity (By similarity).

Could function as an adhesive molecule and its matrix bound and soluble fragments may play a critical role in vascular biology.

Is a positive regulator of the BMP signaling pathway, required for proper chondrogenesis, osteogenesis and skeletal development. It acts as coreceptor for BMP ligands, particularly BMP2 and BMP4, facilitating their interactions with BMP type I receptors. It is required for ligand-induced recruitment of BMP receptors to lipid rafts (By similarity). Binds to TGFBR2 and activates TGFB signaling. In lung cancer cells, could serve as an endogenous autocrine and paracrine ligand of TGFBR2, which could regulate TGFBR2 signaling and hence modulate epithelial-mesenchymal transition and cancer progression.

Plays an early essential role in mesoderm formation, as well as a later role in formation of somite-derived chondrogenic lineages.

Regulates COPI-mediated retrograde protein traffic at the interface between the Golgi apparatus and the endoplasmic reticulum. Involved in the maintenance of the Golgi apparatus morphology. Has no detectable kinase activity in vitro.

Component of the AP2-containing clathrin coat that may regulate clathrin-dependent trafficking at plasma membrane, TGN and endosomal system (Probable). A possible serine/threonine-protein kinase toward the beta2-subunit of the plasma membrane adapter complex AP2 and other proteins in presence of poly-L-lysine has not been confirmed. By regulating the expression of excitatory receptors at synapses, plays an essential role in neuronal function and signaling and in brain development (By similarity).

Required for 60S pre-ribosomal subunits export to the cytoplasm.

Cell surface proteoglycan that bears both heparan sulfate and chondroitin sulfate and that links the cytoskeleton to the interstitial matrix. Regulates exosome biogenesis in concert with SDCBP and PDCD6IP.

Cell surface proteoglycan that bears heparan sulfate. Regulates dendritic arbor morphogenesis (By similarity).

Cell surface proteoglycan that may bear heparan sulfate (By similarity). May have a role in the organization of cell shape by affecting the actin cytoskeleton, possibly by transferring signals from the cell surface in a sugar-dependent mechanism.

Cell surface proteoglycan that bears heparan sulfate. Regulates exosome biogenesis in concert with SDCBP and PDCD6IP.

Multifunctional adapter protein involved in diverse array of functions including trafficking of transmembrane proteins, neuro and immunomodulation, exosome biogenesis, and tumorigenesis. Positively regulates TGFB1-mediated SMAD2/3 activation and TGFB1-induced epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT) and cell migration in various cell types. May increase TGFB1 signaling by enhancing cell-surface expression of TGFR1 by preventing the interaction between TGFR1 and CAV1 and subsequent CAV1-dependent internalization and degradation of TGFR1. In concert with SDC1/4 and PDCD6IP, regulates exosome biogenesis. Regulates migration, growth, proliferation, and cell cycle progression in a variety of cancer types. In adherens junctions may function to couple syndecans to cytoskeletal proteins or signaling components. Seems to couple transcription factor SOX4 to the IL-5 receptor (IL5RA). May also play a role in vesicular trafficking. Seems to be required for the targeting of TGFA to the cell surface in the early secretory pathway.

Binds phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2). May play a role in the organization of nuclear PIP2, cell division and cell survival.

Plays a role in the establishment of cell polarity and epithelial lumen formation (By similarity). Also plays an essential role in ciliogenesis and subsequent Hedgehog signaling pathway that requires the presence of intact primary cilia for pathway activation. Mechanistically, interacts with and mediates RABEP2 centrosomal localization which is critical for ciliogenesis.

Inhibits translesion DNA synthesis by preventing monoubiquitination of PCNA, this is necessary to counteract damage due to ultraviolet light-induced replication stress. SDE2 is cleaved following PCNA binding, and its complete degradation is necessary to allow S-phase progression following DNA damage.

Chemoattractant active on T-lymphocytes and monocytes but not neutrophils. Activates the C-X-C chemokine receptor CXCR4 to induce a rapid and transient rise in the level of intracellular calcium ions and chemotaxis. SDF-1-beta(3-72) and SDF-1-alpha(3-67) show a reduced chemotactic activity. Binding to cell surface proteoglycans seems to inhibit formation of SDF-1-alpha(3-67) and thus to preserve activity on local sites. Also binds to atypical chemokine receptor ACKR3, which activates the beta-arrestin pathway and acts as a scavenger receptor for SDF-1. Binds to the allosteric site (site 2) of integrins and activates integrins ITGAV:ITGB3, ITGA4:ITGB1 and ITGA5:ITGB1 in a CXCR4-independent manner. Acts as a positive regulator of monocyte migration and a negative regulator of monocyte adhesion via the LYN kinase. Stimulates migration of monocytes and T- lymphocytes through its receptors, CXCR4 and ACKR3, and decreases monocyte adherence to surfaces coated with ICAM-1, a ligand for beta-2 integrins. SDF1A/CXCR4 signaling axis inhibits beta-2 integrin LFA-1 mediated adhesion of monocytes to ICAM-1 through LYN kinase. Inhibits CXCR4-mediated infection by T-cell line-adapted HIV-1. Plays a protective role after myocardial infarction. Induces down-regulation and internalization of ACKR3 expressed in various cells. Has several critical functions during embryonic development; required for B-cell lymphopoiesis, myelopoiesis in bone marrow and heart ventricular septum formation. Stimulates the proliferation of bone marrow-derived B-cell progenitors in the presence of IL7 as well as growth of stromal cell- dependent pre-B-cells (By similarity).

Flavoprotein (FP) subunit of succinate dehydrogenase (SDH) that is involved in complex II of the mitochondrial electron transport chain and is responsible for transferring electrons from succinate to ubiquinone (coenzyme Q). Can act as a tumor suppressor.

Iron-sulfur protein (IP) subunit of the succinate dehydrogenase complex (mitochondrial respiratory chain complex II), responsible for transferring electrons from succinate to ubiquinone (coenzyme Q).

Plays an essential role in the assembly of succinate dehydrogenase (SDH), an enzyme complex (also referred to as respiratory complex II) that is a component of both the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain, and which couples the oxidation of succinate to fumarate with the reduction of ubiquinone (coenzyme Q) to ubiquinol. Promotes maturation of the iron-sulfur protein subunit SDHB of the SDH catalytic dimer, protecting it from the deleterious effects of oxidants. May act together with SDHAF3. Contributes to iron-sulfur cluster incorporation into SDHB by binding to SDHB and recruiting the iron-sulfur transfer complex formed by HSC20, HSPA9 and ISCU through direct binding to HSC20.

Plays an essential role in the assembly of succinate dehydrogenase (SDH), an enzyme complex (also referred to as respiratory complex II) that is a component of both the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain, and which couples the oxidation of succinate to fumarate with the reduction of ubiquinone (coenzyme Q) to ubiquinol. Required for flavinylation (covalent attachment of FAD) of the flavoprotein subunit SDHA of the SDH catalytic dimer.

Plays an essential role in the assembly of succinate dehydrogenase (SDH), an enzyme complex (also referred to as respiratory complex II) that is a component of both the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain, and which couples the oxidation of succinate to fumarate with the reduction of ubiquinone (coenzyme Q) to ubiquinol. Promotes maturation of the iron-sulfur protein subunit SDHB of the SDH catalytic dimer, protecting it from the deleterious effects of oxidants. May act together with SDHAF1.

Plays an essential role in the assembly of succinate dehydrogenase (SDH), an enzyme complex (also referred to as respiratory complex II) that is a component of both the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain, and which couples the oxidation of succinate to fumarate with the reduction of ubiquinone (coenzyme Q) to ubiquinol. Binds to the flavoprotein subunit SDHA in its FAD-bound form, blocking the generation of excess reactive oxigen species (ROS) and facilitating its assembly with the iron-sulfur protein subunit SDHB into the SDH catalytic dimer (By similarity).

Adhesion molecule that promotes lamina-specific synaptic connections in the retina. Expressed in specific subsets of interneurons and retinal ganglion cells (RGCs) and promotes synaptic connectivity via homophilic interactions.

Adhesion molecule that promotes lamina-specific synaptic connections in the retina and is specifically required for the formation of neuronal circuits that detect motion. Acts by promoting formation of synapses between two specific retinal cell types: the retinal ganglion cells W3B-RGCs and the excitatory amacrine cells VG3- ACs. Formation of synapses between these two cells plays a key role in detection of motion. Promotes synaptic connectivity via homophilic interactions.

Regulatory protein which represses transcription and augments histone deacetylase activity of HDAC1. May have a potential role in tumor suppressor pathways through regulation of apoptosis. May function in the assembly and/or enzymatic activity of the mSin3A corepressor complex or in mediating interactions between the complex and other regulatory complexes.

Plays a role in the endoplasmic reticulum quality control (ERQC) system also called ER-associated degradation (ERAD) involved in ubiquitin-dependent degradation of misfolded endoplasmic reticulum proteins. Enhances SYVN1 stability. Plays a role in LPL maturation and secretion. Required for normal differentiation of the pancreas epithelium, and for normal exocrine function and survival of pancreatic cells. May play a role in Notch signaling.

May contribute to specialized endoplasmic reticulum functions in neurons.

Probable transcription factor involved in the control of specification of mesoderm and endoderm.

Binds to the SECIS element in the 3'-UTR of some mRNAs encoding selenoproteins. Binding is stimulated by SELB

Functions as a component of the nuclear pore complex (NPC) and the COPII coat. At the endoplasmic reticulum, SEC13 is involved in the biogenesis of COPII-coated vesicles. Required for the exit of adipsin (CFD/ADN), an adipocyte-secreted protein from the endoplasmic reticulum (By similarity).

As part of a SNARE complex may be involved in endoplasmic reticulum membranes fusion and be required for the maintenance of endoplasmic reticulum organization. Also plays a role in apoptosis. It is for instance required for endoplasmic reticulum stress-induced apoptosis. As a substrate of RNF185 interacting with SQSTM1, might also be involved in mitochondrial autophagy (Probable).

Mediates post-translational transport of precursor polypeptides across endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Proposed to act as a targeting receptor for small presecretory proteins containing short and apolar signal peptides. Targets and properly positions newly synthesized presecretory proteins into the SEC61 channel-forming translocon complex, triggering channel opening for polypeptide translocation to the ER lumen.

Mediates cotranslational and post-translational transport of certain precursor polypeptides across endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Proposed to play an auxiliary role in recognition of precursors with short and apolar signal peptides. May cooperate with SEC62 and HSPA5/BiP to facilitate targeting of small presecretory proteins into the SEC61 channel-forming translocon complex, triggering channel opening for polypeptide translocation to the ER lumen. Required for efficient PKD1/Polycystin- 1 biogenesis and trafficking to the plasma membrane of the primary cilia (By similarity).

Hormone involved in different processes, such as regulation of the pH of the duodenal content, food intake and water homeostasis. Exerts its biological effects by binding to secretin receptor (SCTR), a G-protein coupled receptor expressed in the basolateral domain of several cells. Acts as a key gastrointestinal hormone by regulating the pH of the duodenal content (By similarity). Secreted by S cells of the duodenum in the crypts of Lieberkuehn and regulates the pH of the duodenum by (1) inhibiting the secretion of gastric acid from the parietal cells of the stomach and (2) stimulating the production of bicarbonate (NaHCO(3)) from the ductal cells of the pancreas (By similarity). Production of bicarbonate is essential to neutralize the pH and ensure no damage is done to the small intestine by the gastric acid (By similarity). In addition to regulating the pH of the duodenal content, plays a central role in diet induced thermogenesis: acts as a non-sympathetic brown fat (BAT) activator mediating prandial thermogenesis, which consequentially induces satiation (Probable). Mechanistically, secretin released by the gut after a meal binds to secretin receptor (SCTR) in brown adipocytes, activating brown fat thermogenesis by stimulating lipolysis, which is sensed in the brain and promotes satiation (By similarity). Also able to stimulate lipolysis in white adipocytes (By similarity). Also plays an important role in cellular osmoregulation: released into the systemic circulation in response to hyperosmolality and acts at different levels in the hypothalamus, pituitary and kidney to regulate water homeostasis (By similarity). Also plays a role in the central nervous system, possibly by acting as a neuropeptide hormone: required for hippocampal synaptic function and neural progenitor cells maintenance (By similarity).

Component of the Nup107-160 subcomplex of the nuclear pore complex (NPC). The Nup107-160 subcomplex is required for the assembly of a functional NPC. The Nup107-160 subcomplex is also required for normal kinetochore microtubule attachment, mitotic progression and chromosome segregation. This subunit plays a role in recruitment of the Nup107-160 subcomplex to the kinetochore.

Probable serine hydrolase. May be related to cell muscle hypertrophy

Translation factor necessary for the incorporation of selenocysteine into proteins. It probably replaces EF-Tu for the insertion of selenocysteine directed by the UGA codon. SelB binds GTP and GDP

Required for Ca(2+) flux in immune cells and plays a role in T-cell proliferation and in T-cell and neutrophil migration (By similarity). Involved in endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) of soluble glycosylated proteins. Required for palmitoylation and cell surface expression of CD36 and involved in macrophage uptake of low-density lipoprotein and in foam cell formation (By similarity). Together with ZDHHC6, required for palmitoylation of ITPR1 in immune cells, leading to regulate ITPR1 stability and function. Plays a role in protection of cells from ER stress- induced apoptosis. Protects cells from oxidative stress when overexpressed in cardiomyocytes.

May function as a thiol-disulfide oxidoreductase that participates in disulfide bond formation.

[Isoform 2]: Plays an important role in cell protection against oxidative stress and in the regulation of redox-related calcium homeostasis. Regulates the calcium level of the ER by protecting the calcium pump ATP2A2 against the oxidoreductase ERO1A-mediated oxidative damage. Within the ER, ERO1A activity increases the concentration of H(2)O(2), which attacks the luminal thiols in ATP2A2 and thus leads to cysteinyl sulfenic acid formation (-SOH) and SEPN1 reduces the SOH back to free thiol (-SH), thus restoring ATP2A2 activity. Acts as a modulator of ryanodine receptor (RyR) activity: protects RyR from oxidation due to increased oxidative stress, or directly controls the RyR redox state, regulating the RyR-mediated calcium mobilization required for normal muscle development and differentiation.

Catalyzes the transfer of adenosine 5'-monophosphate (AMP) to Ser, Thr and Tyr residues of target proteins (AMPylation). May be a redox-active mitochondrial selenoprotein which interacts with a redox target protein.

A SLe(x)-type proteoglycan, which through high affinity, calcium-dependent interactions with E-, P- and L-selectins, mediates rapid rolling of leukocytes over vascular surfaces during the initial steps in inflammation. Critical for the initial leukocyte capture.

Involved in the degradation process of misfolded endoplasmic reticulum (ER) luminal proteins. Participates in the transfer of misfolded proteins from the ER to the cytosol, where they are destroyed by the proteasome in a ubiquitin-dependent manner. Probably acts by serving as a linker between DERL1, which mediates the retrotranslocation of misfolded proteins into the cytosol, and the ATPase complex VCP, which mediates the translocation and ubiquitination.

Selenoprotein with thioredoxin reductase-like oxidoreductase activity (By similarity). Protects dopaminergic neurons against oxidative stress and cell death. Involved in ADCYAP1/PACAP-induced calcium mobilization and neuroendocrine secretion (By similarity). Plays a role in fibroblast anchorage and redox regulation (By similarity). In gastric smooth muscle, modulates the contraction processes through the regulation of calcium release and MYLK activation (By similarity). In pancreatic islets, involved in the control of glucose homeostasis, contributes to prolonged ADCYAP1/PACAP- induced insulin secretion (By similarity).

Plays a role as a glutathione (GSH)-dependent antioxidant. May be involved in a redox-related process. May play a role in the myopathies of selenium deficiency (By similarity).

Component of the 26S proteasome, a multiprotein complex involved in the ATP-dependent degradation of ubiquitinated proteins. This complex plays a key role in the maintenance of protein homeostasis by removing misfolded or damaged proteins, which could impair cellular functions, and by removing proteins whose functions are no longer required. Therefore, the proteasome participates in numerous cellular processes, including cell cycle progression, apoptosis, or DNA damage repair. Component of the TREX-2 complex (transcription and export complex 2), composed of at least ENY2, GANP, PCID2, SEM1, and either centrin CETN2 or CETN3. The TREX-2 complex functions in docking export-competent ribonucleoprotein particles (mRNPs) to the nuclear entrance of the nuclear pore complex (nuclear basket). TREX-2 participates in mRNA export and accurate chromatin positioning in the nucleus by tethering genes to the nuclear periphery. Binds and stabilizes BRCA2 and is thus involved in the control of R-loop-associated DNA damage and thus transcription- associated genomic instability. R-loop accumulation increases in SEM1- depleted cells.

Involved in the development of the olfactory system and in neuronal control of puberty. Induces the collapse and paralysis of neuronal growth cones. Could serve as a ligand that guides specific growth cones by a motility-inhibiting mechanism. Binds to the complex neuropilin-1/plexin-1.

Inhibits axonal extension by providing local signals to specify territories inaccessible for growing axons.

Binds to plexin family members and plays an important role in the regulation of developmental processes. Required for normal cardiovascular development during embryogenesis. Functions as attractant for growing axons, and thereby plays an important role in axon growth and axon guidance (By similarity).

Induces the collapse and paralysis of neuronal growth cones. Could potentially act as repulsive cues toward specific neuronal populations. Binds to neuropilin (By similarity).

Plays an important role in signaling via the cell surface receptor PLXND1. Mediates reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton, leading to the retraction of cell projections. Promotes focal adhesion disassembly and inhibits adhesion of endothelial cells to the extracellular matrix. Regulates angiogenesis, both during embryogenesis and after birth. Can down-regulate sprouting angiogenesis. Required for normal vascular patterning during embryogenesis. Plays an important role in ensuring the specificity of synapse formation (By similarity).

Has chemorepulsive activities for sympathetic axons. Ligand of NRP2 (By similarity).

Cell surface receptor for PLXNB1, PLXNB2, PLXNB3 and PLXND1 that plays an important role in cell-cell signaling (By similarity). Regulates glutamatergic and GABAergic synapse development (By similarity). Promotes the development of inhibitory synapses in a PLXNB1-dependent manner and promotes the development of excitatory synapses in a PLXNB2-dependent manner (By similarity). Plays a role in priming antigen-specific T-cells, promotes differentiation of Th1 T- helper cells, and thereby contributes to adaptive immunity (By similarity). Promotes phosphorylation of TIMD2 (By similarity). Inhibits angiogenesis (By similarity). Promotes axon growth cone collapse (By similarity). Inhibits axonal extension by providing local signals to specify territories inaccessible for growing axons (By similarity).

Cell surface receptor for PLXNB2 that plays an important role in cell-cell signaling. PLXNB2 binding promotes downstream activation of RHOA and phosphorylation of ERBB2 at 'Tyr-1248'. Required for normal brain development, axon guidance and cell migration (By similarity). Probable signaling receptor which may play a role in myogenic differentiation through activation of the stress-activated MAPK cascade.

Cell surface receptor for PLXNB1 and PLXNB2 that plays an important role in cell-cell signaling. Regulates GABAergic synapse development (By similarity). Promotes the development of inhibitory synapses in a PLXNB1-dependent manner (By similarity). Modulates the complexity and arborization of developing neurites in hippocampal neurons by activating PLXNB1 and interaction with PLXNB1 mediates activation of RHOA. Promotes the migration of cerebellar granule cells. Plays a role in the immune system; induces B-cells to aggregate and improves their viability (in vitro). Induces endothelial cell migration through the activation of PTK2B/PYK2, SRC, and the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase-AKT pathway.

Probable cell surface receptor that regulates oligodendroglial precursor cell migration (By similarity). Might also regulate differentiation of oligodendroglial precursor cells (By similarity). Has growth cone collapse activity against retinal ganglion-cell axons (By similarity).

Cell surface receptor for PLXNB2. May play a role in axon guidance (By similarity).

Bifunctional axonal guidance cue regulated by sulfated proteoglycans; attractive effects result from interactions with heparan sulfate proteoglycans (HSPGs), while the inhibitory effects depend on interactions with chondroitin sulfate proteoglycans (CSPGs) (By similarity). Ligand for receptor PLXNB3. In glioma cells, SEMA5A stimulation of PLXNB3 results in the disassembly of F-actin stress fibers, disruption of focal adhesions and cellular collapse as well as inhibition of cell migration and invasion through ARHGDIA-mediated inactivation of RAC1. May promote angiogenesis by increasing endothelial cell proliferation and migration and inhibiting apoptosis.

Cell surface receptor for PLXNA2 that plays an important role in cell-cell signaling. Required for normal granule cell migration in the developing cerebellum. Promotes reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and plays an important role in axon guidance in the developing central nervous system. Can act as repulsive axon guidance cue. Has repulsive action towards migrating granular neurons. May play a role in channeling sympathetic axons into the sympathetic chains and controlling the temporal sequence of sympathetic target innervation.

Functions as a cell surface repellent for mossy fibers of developping neurons in the hippocampus where it plays a role in axon guidance. May function through the PLXNA4 receptor expressed by mossy cell axons.

Shows growth cone collapsing activity on dorsal root ganglion (DRG) neurons in vitro. May be a stop signal for the DRG neurons in their target areas, and possibly also for other neurons. May also be involved in the maintenance and remodeling of neuronal connections.

Shows growth cone collapsing activity on dorsal root ganglion (DRG) neurons in vitro. May be a stop signal for the DRG neurons in their target areas, and possibly also for other neurons. May also be involved in the maintenance and remodeling of neuronal connections

Plays an important role in integrin-mediated signaling and functions both in regulating cell migration and immune responses. Promotes formation of focal adhesion complexes, activation of the protein kinase PTK2/FAK1 and subsequent phosphorylation of MAPK1 and MAPK3. Promotes production of pro-inflammatory cytokines by monocytes and macrophages. Plays an important role in modulating inflammation and T-cell-mediated immune responses. Promotes axon growth in the embryonic olfactory bulb. Promotes attachment, spreading and dendrite outgrowth in melanocytes.

Predominant protein in semen. It participates in the formation of a gel matrix entrapping the accessory gland secretions and ejaculated spermatozoa. Fragments of semenogelin and/or fragments of the related proteins may contribute to the activation of progressive sperm movements as the gel-forming proteins are fragmented by KLK3/PSA.

Participates in the formation of a gel matrix (sperm coagulum) entrapping the accessory gland secretions and ejaculated spermatozoa

Non-catalytic subunit of the tRNA-splicing endonuclease complex, a complex responsible for identification and cleavage of the splice sites in pre-tRNA. It cleaves pre-tRNA at the 5' and 3' splice sites to release the intron. The products are an intron and two tRNA half-molecules bearing 2',3' cyclic phosphate and 5'-OH termini. There are no conserved sequences at the splice sites, but the intron is invariably located at the same site in the gene, placing the splice sites an invariant distance from the constant structural features of the tRNA body. The tRNA splicing endonuclease is also involved in mRNA processing via its association with pre-mRNA 3'-end processing factors, establishing a link between pre-tRNA splicing and pre-mRNA 3'-end formation, suggesting that the endonuclease subunits function in multiple RNA-processing events.

Constitutes one of the two catalytic subunit of the tRNA- splicing endonuclease complex, a complex responsible for identification and cleavage of the splice sites in pre-tRNA. It cleaves pre-tRNA at the 5'- and 3'-splice sites to release the intron. The products are an intron and two tRNA half-molecules bearing 2',3'-cyclic phosphate and 5'-OH termini. There are no conserved sequences at the splice sites, but the intron is invariably located at the same site in the gene, placing the splice sites an invariant distance from the constant structural features of the tRNA body. Isoform 1 probably carries the active site for 5'-splice site cleavage. The tRNA splicing endonuclease is also involved in mRNA processing via its association with pre-mRNA 3'-end processing factors, establishing a link between pre-tRNA splicing and pre-mRNA 3'-end formation, suggesting that the endonuclease subunits function in multiple RNA-processing events. Isoform 2 is responsible for processing a yet unknown RNA substrate. The complex containing isoform 2 is not able to cleave pre-tRNAs properly, although it retains endonucleolytic activity.

Constitutes one of the two catalytic subunit of the tRNA- splicing endonuclease complex, a complex responsible for identification and cleavage of the splice sites in pre-tRNA. It cleaves pre-tRNA at the 5'- and 3'-splice sites to release the intron. The products are an intron and two tRNA half-molecules bearing 2',3'-cyclic phosphate and 5'-OH termini. There are no conserved sequences at the splice sites, but the intron is invariably located at the same site in the gene, placing the splice sites an invariant distance from the constant structural features of the tRNA body. It probably carries the active site for 3'-splice site cleavage. The tRNA splicing endonuclease is also involved in mRNA processing via its association with pre-mRNA 3'- end processing factors, establishing a link between pre-tRNA splicing and pre-mRNA 3'-end formation, suggesting that the endonuclease subunits function in multiple RNA-processing events.

Protease that catalyzes two essential functions in the SUMO pathway. The first is the hydrolysis of an alpha-linked peptide bond at the C-terminal end of the small ubiquitin-like modifier (SUMO) propeptides, SUMO1, SUMO2 and SUMO3 leading to the mature form of the proteins. The second is the deconjugation of SUMO1, SUMO2 and SUMO3 from targeted proteins, by cleaving an epsilon-linked peptide bond between the C-terminal glycine of the mature SUMO and the lysine epsilon-amino group of the target protein. Deconjugates SUMO1 from HIPK2. Deconjugates SUMO1 from HDAC1 and BHLHE40/DEC1, which decreases its transcriptional repression activity. Deconjugates SUMO1 from CLOCK, which decreases its transcriptional activation activity. Deconjugates SUMO2 from MTA1. Deconjugates SUMO1 from METTL3. Desumoylates CCAR2 which decreases its interaction with SIRT1. Deconjugates SUMO1 from GPS2.

Protease that catalyzes two essential functions in the SUMO pathway. The first is the hydrolysis of an alpha-linked peptide bond at the C-terminal end of the small ubiquitin- like modifier (SUMO) propeptides, SUMO1, SUMO2 and SUMO3 leading to the mature form of the proteins. The second is the deconjugation of SUMO1, SUMO2 and SUMO3 from targeted proteins, by cleaving an epsilon-linked peptide bond between the C-terminal glycine of the mature SUMO and the lysine epsilon-amino group of the target protein. May down- regulate CTNNB1 levels and thereby modulate the Wnt pathway (By similarity). Deconjugates SUMO2 from MTA1. Plays a dynamic role in adipogenesis by desumoylating and promoting the stabilization of CEBPB. Acts as a regulator of the cGAS-STING pathway by catalyzing desumoylation of CGAS and STING1 during the late phase of viral infection (By similarity).

Protease that releases SUMO2 and SUMO3 monomers from sumoylated substrates, but has only weak activity against SUMO1 conjugates. Deconjugates SUMO2 from MEF2D, which increases its transcriptional activation capability. Deconjugates SUMO2 and SUMO3 from CDCA8. Redox sensor that, when redistributed into nucleoplasm, can act as an effector to enhance HIF1A transcriptional activity by desumoylating EP300. Required for rRNA processing through deconjugation of SUMO2 and SUMO3 from nucleophosmin, NPM1. Plays a role in the regulation of sumoylation status of ZNF148. Functions as a component of the Five Friends of Methylated CHTOP (5FMC) complex; the 5FMC complex is recruited to ZNF148 by methylated CHTOP, leading to desumoylation of ZNF148 and subsequent transactivation of ZNF148 target genes. Deconjugates SUMO2 from KAT5.

Protease that catalyzes two essential functions in the SUMO pathway: processing of full-length SUMO3 to its mature form and deconjugation of SUMO2 and SUMO3 from targeted proteins. Has weak proteolytic activity against full-length SUMO1 or SUMO1 conjugates. Required for cell division.

Protease that deconjugates SUMO1, SUMO2 and SUMO3 from targeted proteins. Processes preferentially poly-SUMO2 and poly-SUMO3 chains, but does not efficiently process SUMO1, SUMO2 and SUMO3 precursors. Deconjugates SUMO1 from RXRA, leading to transcriptional activation. Involved in chromosome alignment and spindle assembly, by regulating the kinetochore CENPH-CENPI-CENPK complex. Desumoylates PML and CENPI, protecting them from degradation by the ubiquitin ligase RNF4, which targets polysumoylated proteins for proteasomal degradation. Desumoylates also RPA1, thus preventing recruitment of RAD51 to the DNA damage foci to initiate DNA repair through homologous recombination.

Protease that acts as a positive regulator of the cGAS-STING pathway by catalyzing desumoylation of CGAS. Desumoylation of CGAS promotes DNA-binding activity of CGAS, subsequent oligomerization and activation (By similarity). Deconjugates SUMO2 and SUMO3 from targeted proteins, but not SUMO1. Catalyzes the deconjugation of poly-SUMO2 and poly-SUMO3 chains. Has very low efficiency in processing full-length SUMO proteins to their mature forms.

Protease that catalyzes two essential functions in the NEDD8 pathway: processing of full-length NEDD8 to its mature form and deconjugation of NEDD8 from targeted proteins such as cullins or p53.

Filament-forming cytoskeletal GTPase. May play a role in cytokinesis (Potential).

Filament-forming cytoskeletal GTPase. May play a role in cytokinesis (Potential). May play a role in the cytoarchitecture of neurons, including dendritic arborization and dendritic spines, and in GABAergic synaptic connectivity (By similarity). During Listeria monocytogenes infection, not required for the bacterial entry process, but restricts its efficacy.

Filament-forming cytoskeletal GTPase (By similarity). Involved in spermatogenesis. Involved in the morphogenesis of sperm heads and the elongation of sperm tails probably implicating the association with alpha- and beta-tubulins. Forms a filamentous structure with SEPTIN7, SEPTIN6, SEPTIN2 and probably SEPTIN4 at the sperm annulus which is required for the structural integrity and motility of the sperm tail during postmeiotic differentiation. May play a role in cytokinesis (Potential).

Filament-forming cytoskeletal GTPase (Probable). Involved in the migration of cortical neurons and the formation of neuron leading processes during embryonic development (By similarity). Plays a role in sperm head formation during spermiogenesis, potentially via facilitating localization of ACTN4 to cell filaments.

May be involved in redox reactions associated with the formation of disulfide bonds (By similarity). May contribute to the quality control of protein folding in the endoplasmic reticulum. May regulate protein folding by enhancing the catalytic activity of UGGT1/UGCGL1 and UGGT2/UGCGL2.

Might be responsible for some of the extracellular antioxidant defense properties of selenium or might be involved in the transport of selenium. May supply selenium to tissues such as brain and testis

Cell surface glycoprotein serine protease that participates in extracellular matrix degradation and involved in many cellular processes including tissue remodeling, fibrosis, wound healing, inflammation and tumor growth. Both plasma membrane and soluble forms exhibit post-proline cleaving endopeptidase activity, with a marked preference for Ala/Ser-Gly-Pro-Ser/Asn/Ala consensus sequences, on substrate such as alpha-2-antiplasmin SERPINF2 and SPRY2. Degrade also gelatin, heat-denatured type I collagen, but not native collagen type I and IV, vitronectin, tenascin, laminin, fibronectin, fibrin or casein. Also has dipeptidyl peptidase activity, exhibiting the ability to hydrolyze the prolyl bond two residues from the N-terminus of synthetic dipeptide substrates provided that the penultimate residue is proline, with a preference for Ala-Pro, Ile-Pro, Gly-Pro, Arg-Pro and Pro-Pro. Natural neuropeptide hormones for dipeptidyl peptidase are the neuropeptide Y (NPY), peptide YY (PYY), substance P (TAC1) and brain natriuretic peptide 32 (NPPB). The plasma membrane form, in association with either DPP4, PLAUR or integrins, is involved in the pericellular proteolysis of the extracellular matrix (ECM), and hence promotes cell adhesion, migration and invasion through the ECM. Plays a role in tissue remodeling during development and wound healing. Participates in the cell invasiveness towards the ECM in malignant melanoma cancers. Enhances tumor growth progression by increasing angiogenesis, collagen fiber degradation and apoptosis and by reducing antitumor response of the immune system. Promotes glioma cell invasion through the brain parenchyma by degrading the proteoglycan brevican. Acts as a tumor suppressor in melanocytic cells through regulation of cell proliferation and survival in a serine protease activity-independent manner.

Filament-forming cytoskeletal GTPase (By similarity). May play a role in cytokinesis (Potential).

Filament-forming cytoskeletal GTPase. Forms a filamentous structure with SEPTIN12, SEPTIN6, SEPTIN2 and probably SEPTIN4 at the sperm annulus which is required for the structural integrity and motility of the sperm tail during postmeiotic differentiation. Required for normal organization of the actin cytoskeleton. Plays a role in the biogenesis of polarized columnar- shaped epithelium by maintaining polyglutamylated microtubules, thus facilitating efficient vesicle transport, and by impeding MAP4 binding to tubulin. Required for the progression through mitosis. Forms a scaffold at the midplane of the mitotic splindle required to maintain CENPE localization at kinetochores and consequently chromosome congression. During anaphase, may be required for chromosome segregation and spindle elongation. Plays a role in ciliogenesis and collective cell movements. In cilia, required for the integrity of the diffusion barrier at the base of the primary cilium that prevents diffusion of transmembrane proteins between the cilia and plasma membranes: probably acts by regulating the assembly of the tectonic- like complex (also named B9 complex) by localizing TMEM231 protein. May play a role in the internalization of 2 intracellular microbial pathogens, Listeria monocytogenes and Shigella flexneri.

Filament-forming cytoskeletal GTPase (Probable). Pro- apoptotic protein involved in LGR5-positive intestinal stem cell and Paneth cell expansion in the intestines, via its interaction with XIAP (By similarity). May also play a role in the regulation of cell fate in the intestine (By similarity). Positive regulator of apoptosis involved in hematopoietic stem cell homeostasis; via its interaction with XIAP (By similarity). Negative regulator of repair and hair follicle regeneration in response to injury, due to inhibition of hair follicle stem cell proliferation, potentially via its interaction with XIAP (By similarity). Plays an important role in male fertility and sperm motility (By similarity). During spermiogenesis, essential for the establishment of the annulus (a fibrous ring structure connecting the midpiece and the principal piece of the sperm flagellum) which is a requisite for the structural and mechanical integrity of the sperm (By similarity). Involved in the migration of cortical neurons and the formation of neuron leading processes during embryonic development (By similarity). Required for dopaminergic metabolism in presynaptic autoreceptors; potentially via activity as a presynaptic scaffold protein (By similarity).

Filament-forming cytoskeletal GTPase (By similarity). May play a role in cytokinesis (Potential). May play a role in platelet secretion (By similarity).

Filament-forming cytoskeletal GTPase. Required for normal organization of the actin cytoskeleton. Involved in cytokinesis. May play a role in HCV RNA replication. Forms a filamentous structure with SEPTIN12, SEPTIN6, SEPTIN2 and probably SEPTIN4 at the sperm annulus which is required for the structural integrity and motility of the sperm tail during postmeiotic differentiation.

Filament-forming cytoskeletal GTPase. Required for normal organization of the actin cytoskeleton. Required for normal progress through mitosis. Involved in cytokinesis. Required for normal association of CENPE with the kinetochore. Plays a role in ciliogenesis and collective cell movements. Forms a filamentous structure with SEPTIN12, SEPTIN6, SEPTIN2 and probably SEPTIN4 at the sperm annulus which is required for the structural integrity and motility of the sperm tail during postmeiotic differentiation.

Filament-forming cytoskeletal GTPase (By similarity). May play a role in platelet secretion. Seems to participate in the process of SNARE complex formation in synaptic vesicles (By similarity).

Filament-forming cytoskeletal GTPase (By similarity). May play a role in cytokinesis (Potential). May play a role in the internalization of 2 intracellular microbial pathogens, Listeria monocytogenes and Shigella flexneri.

Catalyzes the reversible oxidation of 3-phospho-D-glycerate to 3-phosphonooxypyruvate, the first step of the phosphorylated L- serine biosynthesis pathway. Also catalyzes the reversible oxidation of 2-hydroxyglutarate to 2-oxoglutarate and the reversible oxidation of (S)-malate to oxaloacetate.

Catalyzes the last irreversible step in the biosynthesis of L-serine from carbohydrates, the dephosphorylation of O-phospho-L- serine to L-serine. L-serine can then be used in protein synthesis, to produce other amino acids, in nucleotide metabolism or in glutathione synthesis, or can be racemized to D-serine, a neuromodulator. May also act on O-phospho-D-serine (Probable).

Enhances the incorporation of serine into phosphatidylserine and sphingolipids.

Restriction factor required to restrict infectivity of lentiviruses, such as HIV-1: acts by inhibiting an early step of viral infection. Impairs the penetration of the viral particle into the cytoplasm.

Incorporates a polar amino acid serine into membranes and facilitates the synthesis of two serine-derived lipids, phosphatidylserine and sphingolipids.

Restriction factor required to restrict infectivity of lentiviruses, such as HIV-1: acts by inhibiting an early step of viral infection. Impairs the penetration of the viral particle into the cytoplasm. Enhances the incorporation of serine into phosphatidylserine and sphingolipids. May play a role in providing serine molecules for the formation of myelin glycosphingolipids in oligodendrocytes (By similarity).

Catalyzes the reversible conversion of 3- phosphohydroxypyruvate to phosphoserine and of 3-hydroxy-2-oxo-4- phosphonooxybutanoate to phosphohydroxythreonine.

Positive regulator of amyloid protein aggregation and proteotoxicity. Induces conformational changes in amyloid proteins, such as APP, HTT, and SNCA, driving them into compact formations preceding the formation of aggregates.

Positive regulator of amyloid protein aggregation and proteotoxicity. Induces conformational changes in amyloid proteins, such as HTT, driving them into compact formations preceding the formation of aggregates.

Interacts with target proteins during their translocation into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum. Protects unfolded target proteins against degradation during ER stress. May facilitate glycosylation of target proteins after termination of ER stress. May modulate the use of N-glycosylation sites on target proteins (By similarity).

May interact with target proteins during translocation into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum. May protect unfolded target proteins against degradation and facilitate correct glycosylation (Potential).

Binds specifically to collagen. Could be involved as a chaperone in the biosynthetic pathway of collagen

May act as the primary docking protein directing membrane turnover and assembly of the transient receptor potential channels TRPC4 and TRPC5. Binds phospholipids such as phosphatidylinositol monophosphates, phosphatidylinositol diphosphates (PIP2s) and phosphatidic acid, but not less polar lipids including phosphatidylcholine, phosphatidylserine, and phosphatidylinositol. The binding to PIP2s is calcium dependent. Might be involved in the plasma membrane localization of CTNNB1.

Functions as an intracellular leucine sensor that negatively regulates the TORC1 signaling pathway through the GATOR complex. In absence of leucine, binds the GATOR subcomplex GATOR2 and prevents TORC1 signaling. Binding of leucine to SESN2 disrupts its interaction with GATOR2 thereby activating the TORC1 signaling pathway. This stress-inducible metabolic regulator may also play a role in protection against oxidative and genotoxic stresses (By similarity). May positively regulate the transcription by NFE2L2 of genes involved in the response to oxidative stress by facilitating the SQSTM1-mediated autophagic degradation of KEAP1. Moreover, may prevent the accumulation of reactive oxygen species (ROS) through the alkylhydroperoxide reductase activity born by the N-terminal domain of the protein (By similarity). Was originally reported to contribute to oxidative stress resistance by reducing PRDX1. However, this could not be confirmed (By similarity).

Functions as an intracellular leucine sensor that negatively regulates the TORC1 signaling pathway through the GATOR complex. In absence of leucine, binds the GATOR subcomplex GATOR2 and prevents TORC1 signaling. Binding of leucine to SESN2 disrupts its interaction with GATOR2 thereby activating the TORC1 signaling pathway. This stress- inducible metabolic regulator also plays a role in protection against oxidative and genotoxic stresses. May negatively regulate protein translation in response to endoplasmic reticulum stress, via TORC1. May positively regulate the transcription by NFE2L2 of genes involved in the response to oxidative stress by facilitating the SQSTM1-mediated autophagic degradation of KEAP1. May also mediate TP53 inhibition of TORC1 signaling upon genotoxic stress. Moreover, may prevent the accumulation of reactive oxygen species (ROS) through the alkylhydroperoxide reductase activity born by the N-terminal domain of the protein. Was originally reported to contribute to oxidative stress resistance by reducing PRDX1. However, this could not be confirmed.

May function as an intracellular leucine sensor that negatively regulates the TORC1 signaling pathway. May also regulate the insulin-receptor signaling pathway through activation of TORC2 (By similarity). This metabolic regulator may also play a role in protection against oxidative and genotoxic stresses (By similarity). May prevent the accumulation of reactive oxygen species (ROS) through the alkylhydroperoxide reductase activity born by the N-terminal domain of the protein (By similarity).

Plays a role in endocytic trafficking. Required for receptor recycling from endosomes, both to the trans-Golgi network and the plasma membrane.

Histone methyltransferase that catalyzes methyl group transfer from S-adenosyl-L-methionine to the epsilon-amino group of 'Lys-4' of histone H3 (H3K4) via a non-processive mechanism. Part of chromatin remodeling machinery, forms H3K4me1, H3K4me2 and H3K4me3 methylation marks at active chromatin sites where transcription and DNA repair take place. Responsible for H3K4me3 enriched promoters and transcriptional programming of inner mass stem cells and neuron progenitors during embryogenesis (By similarity). Required for H3K4me1 mark at stalled replication forks. Mediates FANCD2-dependent nucleosome remodeling and RAD51 nucleofilaments stabilization at reversed forks, protecting them from nucleolytic degradation. Does not methylate 'Lys-4' of histone H3 if the neighboring 'Lys-9' residue is already methylated.

Histone methyltransferase that catalyzes methyl group transfer from S-adenosyl-L-methionine to the epsilon-amino group of 'Lys-4' of histone H3 (H3K4) via a non-processive mechanism. Part of chromatin remodeling machinery, forms H3K4me1, H3K4me2 and H3K4me3 methylation marks at active chromatin sites where transcription and DNA repair take place. Plays an essential role in regulating the transcriptional programming of multipotent hematopoietic progenitor cells and lymphoid lineage specification during hematopoiesis (By similarity).

Histone methyltransferase involved in left-right axis specification in early development and mitosis. Specifically trimethylates 'Lys-9' of histone H3 (H3K9me3). H3K9me3 is a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression that recruits HP1 (CBX1, CBX3 and/or CBX5) proteins to methylated histones. Contributes to H3K9me3 in both the interspersed repetitive elements and centromere- associated repeats. Plays a role in chromosome condensation and segregation during mitosis.

Histone methyltransferase that specifically trimethylates 'Lys-36' of histone H3 (H3K36me3) using dimethylated 'Lys-36' (H3K36me2) as substrate. It is capable of trimethylating unmethylated H3K36 (H3K36me0) in vitro. Represents the main enzyme generating H3K36me3, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation (By similarity). Plays a role in chromatin structure modulation during elongation by coordinating recruitment of the FACT complex and by interacting with hyperphosphorylated POLR2A. Acts as a key regulator of DNA mismatch repair in G1 and early S phase by generating H3K36me3, a mark required to recruit MSH6 subunit of the MutS alpha complex: early recruitment of the MutS alpha complex to chromatin to be replicated allows a quick identification of mismatch DNA to initiate the mismatch repair reaction. Required for DNA double-strand break repair in response to DNA damage: acts by mediating formation of H3K36me3, promoting recruitment of RAD51 and DNA repair via homologous recombination (HR). Acts as a tumor suppressor. H3K36me3 also plays an essential role in the maintenance of a heterochromatic state, by recruiting DNA methyltransferase DNMT3A. H3K36me3 is also enhanced in intron-containing genes, suggesting that SETD2 recruitment is enhanced by splicing and that splicing is coupled to recruitment of elongating RNA polymerase. Required during angiogenesis (By similarity). Required for endoderm development by promoting embryonic stem cell differentiation toward endoderm: acts by mediating formation of H3K36me3 in distal promoter regions of FGFR3, leading to regulate transcription initiation of FGFR3 (By similarity). In addition to histones, also mediates methylation of other proteins, such as tubulins and STAT1. Trimethylates 'Lys-40' of alpha-tubulins such as TUBA1B (alpha- TubK40me3); alpha-TubK40me3 is required for normal mitosis and cytokinesis and may be a specific tag in cytoskeletal remodeling. Involved in interferon-alpha-induced antiviral defense by mediating both monomethylation of STAT1 at 'Lys-525' and catalyzing H3K36me3 on promoters of some interferon-stimulated genes (ISGs) to activate gene transcription.

Protein-histidine N-methyltransferase that specifically mediates 3-methylhistidine (tele-methylhistidine) methylation of actin at 'His-73'. Histidine methylation of actin is required for smooth muscle contraction of the laboring uterus during delivery. Does not have protein-lysine N- methyltransferase activity and probably only catalyzes histidine methylation of actin.

Histone-lysine N-methyltransferase that acts as a regulator of cell proliferation, cell differentiation and inflammatory response. Regulates the inflammatory response by mediating mono- and dimethylation of 'Lys-4' of histone H3 (H3K4me1 and H3K4me2, respectively), leading to activate the transcription of pro- inflammatory cytokines IL6 and TNF-alpha (By similarity). Also involved in the regulation of stem cell quiescence by catalyzing the trimethylation of 'Lys-20' of histone H4 (H4K20me3), thereby promoting heterochromatin formation. Involved in proliferation, migration, paracrine and myogenic differentiation of bone marrow mesenchymal stem cells (BMSCs) (By similarity).

Chromatin regulator required for brain development: acts as a regulator of RNA elongation rate, thereby regulating neural stem cell (NSC) proliferation and synaptic transmission. May act by mediating trimethylation of 'Lys-36' of histone H3 (H3K36me3), which is essential to allow on-time RNA elongation dynamics. Also monomethylates 'Lys-9' of histone H3 (H3K9me1) in vitro. The relevance of histone methyltransferase activity is however subject to discussion.

Protein-lysine N-methyltransferase. Monomethylates 'Lys-310' of the RELA subunit of NF-kappa-B complex, leading to down-regulation of NF-kappa-B transcription factor activity. Monomethylates 'Lys-8' of H2AZ (H2AZK8me1). Required for the maintenance of embryonic stem cell self-renewal (By similarity). Methylates PAK4.

Histone methyltransferase that specifically monomethylates 'Lys-4' of histone H3. H3 'Lys-4' methylation represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation. Plays a central role in the transcriptional activation of genes such as collagenase or insulin. Recruited by IPF1/PDX-1 to the insulin promoter, leading to activate transcription. Has also methyltransferase activity toward non- histone proteins such as CGAS, p53/TP53, TAF10, and possibly TAF7 by recognizing and binding the [KR]-[STA]-K in substrate proteins. Monomethylates 'Lys-189' of TAF10, leading to increase the affinity of TAF10 for RNA polymerase II. Monomethylates 'Lys-372' of p53/TP53, stabilizing p53/TP53 and increasing p53/TP53-mediated transcriptional activation. Monomethylates 'Lys-491' of CGAS, promoting interaction between SGF29 and CGAS (By similarity).

Plays a role as a transcriptional activator involved in the early stage of somatic cell reprogramming. Promotes the differentiation of protein-induced pluripotent stem (PiPS) cells into endothelial cells and the formation of vascular-like tubes (in vitro). Involved in the transcription induction of vascular endothelial-cadherin (VE-cadherin) expression. Associates to the VE-cadherin gene promoter.

Protein derived from the fusion of a methylase with the transposase of an Hsmar1 transposon that plays a role in DNA double- strand break repair, stalled replication fork restart and DNA integration. DNA-binding protein, it is indirectly recruited to sites of DNA damage through protein-protein interactions. Has also kept a sequence-specific DNA-binding activity recognizing the 19-mer core of the 5'-terminal inverted repeats (TIRs) of the Hsmar1 element and displays a DNA nicking and end joining activity. In parallel, has a histone methyltransferase activity and methylates 'Lys-4' and 'Lys-36' of histone H3. Specifically mediates dimethylation of H3 'Lys-36' at sites of DNA double-strand break and may recruit proteins required for efficient DSB repair through non-homologous end-joining. Also regulates replication fork processing, promoting replication fork restart and regulating DNA decatenation through stimulation of the topoisomerase activity of TOP2A.

Probable RNA/DNA helicase involved in diverse aspects of RNA metabolism and genomic integrity. Plays a role in transcription regulation by its ability to modulate RNA Polymerase II (Pol II) binding to chromatin and through its interaction with proteins involved in transcription. Contributes to the mRNA splicing efficiency and splice site selection. Required for the resolution of R-loop RNA-DNA hybrid formation at G- rich pause sites located downstream of the poly(A) site, allowing XRN2 recruitment and XRN2-mediated degradation of the downstream cleaved RNA and hence efficient RNA polymerase II (RNAp II) transcription termination. Required for the 3' transcriptional termination of PER1 and CRY2, thus playing an important role in the circadian rhythm regulation (By similarity). Involved in DNA double-strand breaks damage response generated by oxidative stress. In association with RRP45, targets the RNA exosome complex to sites of transcription- induced DNA damage. Plays a role in the development and maturation of germ cells: essential for male meiosis, acting at the interface of transcription and meiotic recombination, and in the process of gene silencing during meiotic sex chromosome inactivation (MSCI) (By similarity). May be involved in telomeric stability through the regulation of telomere repeat-containing RNA (TERRA) transcription. Plays a role in neurite outgrowth in hippocampal cells through FGF8-activated signaling pathways. Inhibits retinoic acid-induced apoptosis.

Multitasking protein, involved in apoptosis, transcription, nucleosome assembly and histone chaperoning. Isoform 2 anti-apoptotic activity is mediated by inhibition of the GZMA-activated DNase, NME1. In the course of cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-induced apoptosis, GZMA cleaves SET, disrupting its binding to NME1 and releasing NME1 inhibition. Isoform 1 and isoform 2 are potent inhibitors of protein phosphatase 2A. Isoform 1 and isoform 2 inhibit EP300/CREBBP and PCAF- mediated acetylation of histones (HAT) and nucleosomes, most probably by masking the accessibility of lysines of histones to the acetylases. The predominant target for inhibition is histone H4. HAT inhibition leads to silencing of HAT-dependent transcription and prevents active demethylation of DNA. Both isoforms stimulate DNA replication of the adenovirus genome complexed with viral core proteins; however, isoform 2 specific activity is higher.

May play a role in cell-cell recognition and in neuronal membrane signaling. Seems to be important for the achievement of the necessary balance between dendrite elongation and branching during the elaboration of a complex dendritic arbor. Involved in the development of appropriate excitatory synaptic connectivity (By similarity).

Necessary for the ATP-dependent first step of spliceosome assembly. Binds to the intron branch point sequence (BPS) 5'-UACUAAC-3' of the pre-mRNA. May act as transcription repressor.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the splicing factor SF3A complex that contributes to the assembly of the 17S U2 snRNP, and the subsequent assembly of the pre-spliceosome 'E' complex and the pre-catalytic spliceosome 'A' complex. Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of pre- catalytic spliceosome 'B' complexes.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the splicing factor SF3A complex that contributes to the assembly of the 17S U2 snRNP, and the subsequent assembly of the pre-spliceosome 'E' complex and the pre-catalytic spliceosome 'A' complex. Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of pre- catalytic spliceosome 'B' complexes, including the Bact complex. Interacts directly with the duplex formed by U2 snRNA and the intron.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the splicing factor SF3A complex that contributes to the assembly of the 17S U2 snRNP, and the subsequent assembly of the pre-spliceosome 'E' complex and the pre-catalytic spliceosome 'A' complex. Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of pre-catalytic spliceosome 'B' complexes.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the splicing factor SF3B complex. SF3B complex is required for 'A' complex assembly formed by the stable binding of U2 snRNP to the branchpoint sequence (BPS) in pre-mRNA. Sequence independent binding of SF3A/SF3B complex upstream of the branch site is essential, it may anchor U2 snRNP to the pre-mRNA. Together with other U2 snRNP complex components may also play a role in the selective processing of microRNAs (miRNAs) from the long primary miRNA transcript, pri-miR-17-92 (By similarity). May also be involved in the assembly of the 'E' complex. Belongs also to the minor U12-dependent spliceosome, which is involved in the splicing of rare class of nuclear pre-mRNA intron.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the splicing factor SF3B complex. SF3B complex is required for 'A' complex assembly formed by the stable binding of U2 snRNP to the branchpoint sequence (BPS) in pre-mRNA. Sequence independent binding of SF3A/SF3B complex upstream of the branch site is essential, it may anchor U2 snRNP to the pre-mRNA. May also be involved in the assembly of the 'E' complex. Belongs also to the minor U12-dependent spliceosome, which is involved in the splicing of rare class of nuclear pre-mRNA intron.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the splicing factor SF3B complex, a constituent of the spliceosome. SF3B complex is required for 'A' complex assembly formed by the stable binding of U2 snRNP to the branchpoint sequence (BPS) in pre-mRNA. Sequence independent binding of SF3A/SF3B complex upstream of the branch site is essential, it may anchor U2 snRNP to the pre-mRNA. May also be involved in the assembly of the 'E' complex. Belongs also to the minor U12-dependent spliceosome, which is involved in the splicing of rare class of nuclear pre-mRNA intron.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the splicing factor SF3B complex. SF3B complex is required for 'A' complex assembly formed by the stable binding of U2 snRNP to the branchpoint sequence (BPS) in pre-mRNA. Sequence independent binding of SF3A/SF3B complex upstream of the branch site is essential, it may anchor U2 snRNP to the pre-mRNA. May also be involved in the assembly of the 'E' complex. SF3B4 has been found in complex 'B' and 'C' as well. Belongs also to the minor U12- dependent spliceosome, which is involved in the splicing of rare class of nuclear pre-mRNA intron.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the splicing factor SF3B complex, a constituent of the spliceosome. SF3B complex is required for 'A' complex assembly formed by the stable binding of U2 snRNP to the branchpoint sequence (BPS) in pre-mRNA. Sequence independent binding of SF3A/SF3B complex upstream of the branch site is essential, it may anchor U2 snRNP to the pre-mRNA.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the splicing factor SF3B complex. SF3B complex is required for 'A' complex assembly formed by the stable binding of U2 snRNP to the branchpoint sequence (BPS) in pre-mRNA. Directly contacts the pre-mRNA branch site adenosine for the first catalytic step of splicing. Enters the spliceosome and associates with the pre-mRNA branch site as part of the 17S U2 or, in the case of the minor spliceosome, as part of the 18S U11/U12 snRNP complex, and thus may facilitate the interaction of these snRNP with the branch sites of U2 and U12 respectively.

Plays a role in the dynamic structure of centrosome- associated contractile fibers via its interaction with CETN2.

In presence of calcium ions, it binds to surfactant phospholipids and contributes to lower the surface tension at the air- liquid interface in the alveoli of the mammalian lung and is essential for normal respiration

DNA- and RNA binding protein, involved in several nuclear processes. Essential pre-mRNA splicing factor required early in spliceosome formation and for splicing catalytic step II, probably as a heteromer with NONO. Binds to pre-mRNA in spliceosome C complex, and specifically binds to intronic polypyrimidine tracts. Involved in regulation of signal-induced alternative splicing. During splicing of PTPRC/CD45, a phosphorylated form is sequestered by THRAP3 from the pre-mRNA in resting T-cells; T-cell activation and subsequent reduced phosphorylation is proposed to lead to release from THRAP3 allowing binding to pre-mRNA splicing regulatotry elements which represses exon inclusion. Interacts with U5 snRNA, probably by binding to a purine- rich sequence located on the 3' side of U5 snRNA stem 1b. May be involved in a pre-mRNA coupled splicing and polyadenylation process as component of a snRNP-free complex with SNRPA/U1A. The SFPQ-NONO heteromer associated with MATR3 may play a role in nuclear retention of defective RNAs. SFPQ may be involved in homologous DNA pairing; in vitro, promotes the invasion of ssDNA between a duplex DNA and produces a D-loop formation. The SFPQ-NONO heteromer may be involved in DNA unwinding by modulating the function of topoisomerase I/TOP1; in vitro, stimulates dissociation of TOP1 from DNA after cleavage and enhances its jumping between separate DNA helices. The SFPQ-NONO heteromer binds DNA. The SFPQ-NONO heteromer may be involved in DNA non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) required for double-strand break repair and V(D)J recombination and may stabilize paired DNA ends; in vitro, the complex strongly stimulates DNA end joining, binds directly to the DNA substrates and cooperates with the Ku70/G22P1-Ku80/XRCC5 (Ku) dimer to establish a functional preligation complex. SFPQ is involved in transcriptional regulation. Functions as transcriptional activator. Transcriptional repression is mediated by an interaction of SFPQ with SIN3A and subsequent recruitment of histone deacetylases (HDACs). The SFPQ-NONO-NR5A1 complex binds to the CYP17 promoter and regulates basal and cAMP-dependent transcriptional activity. SFPQ isoform Long binds to the DNA binding domains (DBD) of nuclear hormone receptors, like RXRA and probably THRA, and acts as transcriptional corepressor in absence of hormone ligands. Binds the DNA sequence 5'-CTGAGTC-3' in the insulin-like growth factor response element (IGFRE) and inhibits IGF-I-stimulated transcriptional activity. Regulates the circadian clock by repressing the transcriptional activator activity of the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer. Required for the transcriptional repression of circadian target genes, such as PER1, mediated by the large PER complex through histone deacetylation (By similarity). Required for the assembly of nuclear speckles. Plays a role in the regulation of DNA virus-mediated innate immune response by assembling into the HDP-RNP complex, a complex that serves as a platform for IRF3 phosphorylation and subsequent innate immune response activation through the cGAS-STING pathway.

Component of the SWI5-SFR1 complex, a complex required for double-strand break repair via homologous recombination. Acts as a transcriptional modulator for ESR1.

Soluble frizzled-related proteins (sFRPS) function as modulators of Wnt signaling through direct interaction with Wnts. They have a role in regulating cell growth and differentiation in specific cell types. SFRP1 decreases intracellular beta-catenin levels (By similarity). Has antiproliferative effects on vascular cells, in vitro and in vivo, and can induce, in vivo, an angiogenic response. In vascular cell cycle, delays the G1 phase and entry into the S phase (By similarity). In kidney development, inhibits tubule formation and bud growth in metanephroi (By similarity). Inhibits WNT1/WNT4-mediated TCF- dependent transcription.

Soluble frizzled-related proteins (sFRPS) function as modulators of Wnt signaling through direct interaction with Wnts. They have a role in regulating cell growth and differentiation in specific cell types. SFRP2 may be important for eye retinal development and for myogenesis

Soluble frizzled-related proteins (sFRPS) function as modulators of Wnt signaling through direct interaction with Wnts. They have a role in regulating cell growth and differentiation in specific cell types. SFRP3/FRZB appears to be involved in limb skeletogenesis. Antagonist of Wnt8 signaling. Regulates chondrocyte maturation and long bone development

Soluble frizzled-related proteins (sFRPS) function as modulators of Wnt signaling through direct interaction with Wnts. They have a role in regulating cell growth and differentiation in specific cell types (By similarity). SFRP4 plays a role in bone morphogenesis. May also act as a regulator of adult uterine morphology and function. May also increase apoptosis during ovulation possibly through modulation of FZ1/FZ4/WNT4 signaling (By similarity). Has phosphaturic effects by specifically inhibiting sodium-dependent phosphate uptake.

Soluble frizzled-related proteins (sFRPS) function as modulators of Wnt signaling through direct interaction with Wnts. They have a role in regulating cell growth and differentiation in specific cell types. SFRP5 may be involved in determining the polarity of photoreceptor, and perhaps, other cells in the retina

Plays a role as an alternative splicing regulator. Regulate its own expression at the level of RNA processing. Also regulates the splicing of fibronectin and CD45 genes. May act, at least in part, by interaction with other R/S-containing splicing factors. Represses the splicing of MAPT/Tau exon 10.

May be involved in fusion of retrograde transport vesicles derived from an endocytic compartment with the Golgi complex.

In presence of calcium ions, it binds to surfactant phospholipids and contributes to lower the surface tension at the air- liquid interface in the alveoli of the mammalian lung and is essential for normal respiration. Enhances the expression of MYO18A/SP-R210 on alveolar macrophages (By similarity).

Contributes to the lung's defense against inhaled microorganisms, organic antigens and toxins. Interacts with compounds such as bacterial lipopolysaccharides, oligosaccharides and fatty acids and modulates leukocyte action in immune response. May participate in the extracellular reorganization or turnover of pulmonary surfactant. Binds strongly maltose residues and to a lesser extent other alpha- glucosyl moieties.

Amino acid transporter importing serine, an essential substrate of the mitochondrial branch of the one-carbon pathway, into mitochondria. Mitochondrial serine is then converted to glycine and formate, which exits to the cytosol where it is used to generate the charged folates that serve as one-carbon donors. May also transport other amino acids including alanine and cysteine.

Mitochondrial amino-acid transporter that mediates transport of serine into mitochondria. Involved in mitochondrial iron homeostasis by regulating heme biosynthesis.

Mitochondrial serine transporter that mediates transport of serine into mitochondria, an important step of the one-carbon metabolism pathway. Mitochondrial serine is converted to glycine and formate, which then exits to the cytosol where it is used to generate the charged folates that serve as one-carbon donors.

Mitochondrial amino-acid transporter (By similarity). Does not act as a serine transporter: not able to mediate transport of serine into mitochondria.

Mitochondrial amino-acid transporter (By similarity). Does not act as a serine transporter: not able to mediate transport of serine into mitochondria. Transports citrate (By similarity).

Has antimicrobial activity against E.coli (By similarity). Plays a role in the defense response in the male reproductive tract, contributing to sperm maturation, storage and protection (By similarity).

Protein O-mannose kinase that specifically mediates phosphorylation at the 6-position of an O-mannose of the trisaccharide (N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc)-beta-1,3-N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc)- beta-1,4-mannose) to generate phosphorylated O-mannosyl trisaccharide (N-acetylgalactosamine-beta-1,3-N-acetylglucosamine-beta-1,4- (phosphate-6-)mannose). Phosphorylated O-mannosyl trisaccharide is a carbohydrate structure present in alpha-dystroglycan (DAG1), which is required for binding laminin G-like domain-containing extracellular proteins with high affinity. Only shows kinase activity when the GalNAc-beta-3-GlcNAc-beta-terminus is linked to the 4-position of O- mannose, suggesting that this disaccharide serves as the substrate recognition motif.

May bind androgens and other steroids, may also bind estramustine, a chemotherapeutic agent used for prostate cancer. May be under transcriptional regulation of steroid hormones

Seems to be involved in the regulation of chemotactic cell migration and invasion

Secreted cytokine-like protein. Binds to the scavenger receptor MARCO. Can also bind to pathogens including the Gram-positive bacterium L.monocytogenes, the Gram-negative bacterium P.aeruginosa, and yeast. Strongly inhibits phospholipase A2 (PLA2G1B) activity. Seems to have anti-inflammatory effects in respiratory epithelium (By similarity). Also has anti-fibrotic activity in lung. May play a role in fetal lung development and maturation. Promotes branching morphogenesis during early stages of lung development. In the pituitary, may inhibit production of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) (By similarity).

Component of the sarcoglycan complex, a subcomplex of the dystrophin-glycoprotein complex which forms a link between the F-actin cytoskeleton and the extracellular matrix

Component of the sarcoglycan complex, a subcomplex of the dystrophin-glycoprotein complex which forms a link between the F-actin cytoskeleton and the extracellular matrix. May play a role in the maintenance of striated muscle membrane stability (By similarity).

Chromatin reader component of some histone acetyltransferase (HAT) SAGA-type complexes like the TFTC-HAT, ATAC or STAGA complexes. SGF29 specifically recognizes and binds methylated 'Lys-4' of histone H3 (H3K4me), with a preference for trimethylated form (H3K4me3). In the SAGA-type complexes, SGF29 is required to recruit complexes to H3K4me. Involved in the response to endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress by recruiting the SAGA complex to H3K4me, thereby promoting histone H3 acetylation and cell survival. Also binds non-histone proteins that are methylated on Lys residues: specifically recognizes and binds CGAS monomethylated on 'Lys-506' (By similarity).

May function in clathrin-mediated endocytosis. Has both a membrane binding/tubulating activity and the ability to recruit proteins essential to the formation of functional clathrin-coated pits. Has a preference for membranes enriched in phosphatidylserine and phosphoinositides and is required for the endocytosis of the transferrin receptor. May also bind tubulin. May play a role in the regulation of energy homeostasis.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase which is involved in the regulation of a wide variety of ion channels, membrane transporters, cellular enzymes, transcription factors, neuronal excitability, cell growth, proliferation, survival, migration and apoptosis. Plays an important role in cellular stress response. Contributes to regulation of renal Na(+) retention, renal K(+) elimination, salt appetite, gastric acid secretion, intestinal Na(+)/H(+) exchange and nutrient transport, insulin-dependent salt sensitivity of blood pressure, salt sensitivity of peripheral glucose uptake, cardiac repolarization and memory consolidation. Up-regulates Na(+) channels: SCNN1A/ENAC, SCN5A and ASIC1/ACCN2, K(+) channels: KCNJ1/ROMK1, KCNA1-5, KCNQ1-5 and KCNE1, epithelial Ca(2+) channels: TRPV5 and TRPV6, chloride channels: BSND, CLCN2 and CFTR, glutamate transporters: SLC1A3/EAAT1, SLC1A2 /EAAT2, SLC1A1/EAAT3, SLC1A6/EAAT4 and SLC1A7/EAAT5, amino acid transporters: SLC1A5/ASCT2, SLC38A1/SN1 and SLC6A19, creatine transporter: SLC6A8, Na(+)/dicarboxylate cotransporter: SLC13A2/NADC1, Na(+)-dependent phosphate cotransporter: SLC34A2/NAPI-2B, glutamate receptor: GRIK2/GLUR6. Up-regulates carriers: SLC9A3/NHE3, SLC12A1/NKCC2, SLC12A3/NCC, SLC5A3/SMIT, SLC2A1/GLUT1, SLC5A1/SGLT1 and SLC15A2/PEPT2. Regulates enzymes: GSK3A/B, PMM2 and Na(+)/K(+) ATPase, and transcription factors: CTNNB1 and nuclear factor NF-kappa-B. Stimulates sodium transport into epithelial cells by enhancing the stability and expression of SCNN1A/ENAC. This is achieved by phosphorylating the NEDD4L ubiquitin E3 ligase, promoting its interaction with 14-3-3 proteins, thereby preventing it from binding to SCNN1A/ENAC and targeting it for degradation. Regulates store-operated Ca(+2) entry (SOCE) by stimulating ORAI1 and STIM1. Regulates KCNJ1/ROMK1 directly via its phosphorylation or indirectly via increased interaction with SLC9A3R2/NHERF2. Phosphorylates MDM2 and activates MDM2-dependent ubiquitination of p53/TP53. Phosphorylates MAPT/TAU and mediates microtubule depolymerization and neurite formation in hippocampal neurons. Phosphorylates SLC2A4/GLUT4 and up- regulates its activity. Phosphorylates APBB1/FE65 and promotes its localization to the nucleus. Phosphorylates MAPK1/ERK2 and activates it by enhancing its interaction with MAP2K1/MEK1 and MAP2K2/MEK2. Phosphorylates FBXW7 and plays an inhibitory role in the NOTCH1 signaling. Phosphorylates FOXO1 resulting in its relocalization from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. Phosphorylates FOXO3, promoting its exit from the nucleus and interference with FOXO3-dependent transcription. Phosphorylates BRAF and MAP3K3/MEKK3 and inhibits their activity. Phosphorylates SLC9A3/NHE3 in response to dexamethasone, resulting in its activation and increased localization at the cell membrane. Phosphorylates CREB1. Necessary for vascular remodeling during angiogenesis. Sustained high levels and activity may contribute to conditions such as hypertension and diabetic nephropathy. Isoform 2 exhibited a greater effect on cell plasma membrane expression of SCNN1A/ENAC and Na(+) transport than isoform 1.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase which is involved in the regulation of a wide variety of ion channels, membrane transporters, cell growth, survival and proliferation. Up-regulates Na(+) channels: SCNN1A/ENAC, K(+) channels: KCNA3/Kv1.3, KCNE1 and KCNQ1, amino acid transporter: SLC6A19, glutamate transporter: SLC1A6/EAAT4, glutamate receptors: GRIA1/GLUR1 and GRIK2/GLUR6, Na(+)/H(+) exchanger: SLC9A3/NHE3, and the Na(+)/K(+) ATPase.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase which is involved in the regulation of a wide variety of ion channels, membrane transporters, cell growth, proliferation, survival and migration. Up-regulates Na(+) channels: SCNN1A/ENAC and SCN5A, K(+) channels: KCNA3/KV1.3, KCNE1, KCNQ1 and KCNH2/HERG, epithelial Ca(2+) channels: TRPV5 and TRPV6, chloride channel: BSND, creatine transporter: SLC6A8, Na(+)/dicarboxylate cotransporter: SLC13A2/NADC1, Na(+)-dependent phosphate cotransporter: SLC34A2/NAPI-2B, amino acid transporters: SLC1A5/ASCT2 and SLC6A19, glutamate transporters: SLC1A3/EAAT1, SLC1A6/EAAT4 and SLC1A7/EAAT5, glutamate receptors: GRIA1/GLUR1 and GRIK2/GLUR6, Na(+)/H(+) exchanger: SLC9A3/NHE3, and the Na(+)/K(+) ATPase. Plays a role in the regulation of renal tubular phosphate transport and bone density. Phosphorylates NEDD4L and GSK3B. Positively regulates ER transcription activity through phosphorylation of FLII. Negatively regulates the function of ITCH/AIP4 via its phosphorylation and thereby prevents CXCR4 from being efficiently sorted to lysosomes.

Functions in lipid transport from the endoplasmic reticulum and is involved in a wide array of cellular functions probably through regulation of the biogenesis of lipid microdomains at the plasma membrane. Involved in the regulation of different receptors it plays a role in BDNF signaling and EGF signaling. Also regulates ion channels like the potassium channel and could modulate neurotransmitter release. Plays a role in calcium signaling through modulation together with ANK2 of the ITP3R-dependent calcium efflux at the endoplasmic reticulum. Plays a role in several other cell functions including proliferation, survival and death. Originally identified for its ability to bind various psychoactive drugs it is involved in learning processes, memory and mood alteration. Necessary for proper mitochondrial axonal transport in motor neurons, in particular the retrograde movement of mitochondria. Plays a role in protecting cells against oxidative stress-induced cell death via its interaction with RNF112 (By similarity).

Intracellular orphan receptor that binds numerous drugs and which is highly expressed in various proliferating cancer cells. Corresponds to the sigma-2 receptor, which is thought to play important role in regulating cell survival, morphology and differentiation. Under investigation for its potential diagnostic and therapeutic uses. May play a role as a regulator of cellular cholesterol homeostasis. May function as sterol isomerase. May alter the activity of some cytochrome P450 proteins.

Plays a central role in chromosome cohesion during mitosis by preventing premature dissociation of cohesin complex from centromeres after prophase, when most of cohesin complex dissociates from chromosomes arms. May act by preventing phosphorylation of the STAG2 subunit of cohesin complex at the centromere, ensuring cohesin persistence at centromere until cohesin cleavage by ESPL1/separase at anaphase. Essential for proper chromosome segregation during mitosis and this function requires interaction with PPP2R1A. Its phosphorylated form is necessary for chromosome congression and for the proper attachment of spindle microtubule to the kinetochore. Necessary for kinetochore localization of PLK1 and CENPF. May play a role in the tension sensing mechanism of the spindle-assembly checkpoint by regulating PLK1 kinetochore affinity. Isoform 3 plays a role in maintaining centriole cohesion involved in controlling spindle pole integrity. Involved in centromeric enrichment of AUKRB in prometaphase.

Cooperates with PPP2CA to protect centromeric cohesin from separase-mediated cleavage in oocytes specifically during meiosis I. Has a crucial role in protecting REC8 at centromeres from cleavage by separase. During meiosis, protects centromeric cohesion complexes until metaphase II/anaphase II transition, preventing premature release of meiosis-specific REC8 cohesin complexes from anaphase I centromeres. Is thus essential for an accurate gametogenesis. May act by targeting PPP2CA to centromeres, thus leading to cohesin dephosphorylation (By similarity). Essential for recruiting KIF2C to the inner centromere and for correcting defective kinetochore attachments. Involved in centromeric enrichment of AUKRB in prometaphase.

Cleaves phosphorylated sphingoid bases (PSBs), such as sphingosine-1-phosphate, into fatty aldehydes and phosphoethanolamine. Elevates stress-induced ceramide production and apoptosis. Required for global lipid homeostasis in liver and cholesterol homeostasis in fibroblasts. Involved in the regulation of pro- inflammatory response and neutrophil trafficking. Modulates neuronal autophagy via phosphoethanolamine production which regulates accumulation of aggregate-prone proteins such as APP (By similarity). Seems to play a role in establishing neuronal contact sites and axonal maintenance (By similarity).

Specifically dephosphorylates sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P), dihydro-S1P, and phyto-S1P. Does not act on ceramide 1-phosphate, lysophosphatidic acid or phosphatidic acid. Sphingosine-1-phosphate phosphatase activity is needed for efficient recycling of sphingosine into the sphingolipid synthesis pathway. Regulates the intracellular levels of the bioactive sphingolipid metabolite S1P that regulates diverse biological processes acting both as an extracellular receptor ligand or as an intracellular second messenger. Involved in efficient ceramide synthesis from exogenous sphingoid bases. Converts S1P to sphingosine, which is readily metabolized to ceramide via ceramide synthase. In concert with sphingosine kinase 2 (SphK2), recycles sphingosine into ceramide through a phosphorylation/dephosphorylation cycle (By similarity). Regulates endoplasmic-to-Golgi trafficking of ceramides, resulting in the regulation of ceramide levels in the endoplasmic reticulum, preferentially long-chain ceramide species, and influences the anterograde membrane transport of both ceramide and proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus. The modulation of intracellular ceramide levels in turn regulates apoptosis (By similarity). Via S1P levels, modulates resting tone, intracellular Ca(2+) and myogenic vasoconstriction in resistance arteries. Also involved in unfolded protein response (UPR) and ER stress-induced autophagy via regulation of intracellular S1P levels. Involved in the regulation of epidermal homeostasis and keratinocyte differentiation (By similarity).

Has specific phosphohydrolase activity towards sphingoid base 1-phosphates. Has high phosphohydrolase activity against dihydrosphingosine-1-phosphate and sphingosine-1-phosphate (S1P) in vitro. Sphingosine-1-phosphate phosphatase activity is needed for efficient recycling of sphingosine into the sphingolipid synthesis pathway (By similarity). May play a role in attenuating intracellular sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P) signaling. May play a role in pro-inflammatory signaling. Plays a role in the regulation of pancreatic islet beta-cell endoplasmic reticulum stress and proliferation (By similarity).

Interacts with numerous Rab family members, functioning as Rab effector for some, and as GTPase activator for others. Promotes GTP hydrolysis by RAB34 and RAB36. Probably functions as GTPase effector with RAB9A and RAB9B; does not stimulate GTP hydrolysis with RAB9A and RAB9B.

Possesses GTPase activator activity towards RAB32, RAB33B and RAB38. Regulates the trafficking of melanogenic enzymes TYR, TYRP1 and DCT/TYRP2 to melanosomes in melanocytes by inactivating RAB32 and RAB38. Inhibits RAB32 and RAB38 activation both directly by promoting their GTPase activity and indirectly by disrupting the RAB9A-HPS4 interaction which is required for RAB32/38 activation.

May play a cooperative role in NF2-mediated growth suppression of cells.

May play a role in ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins

Co-chaperone that binds misfolded and hydrophobic patches- containing client proteins in the cytosol. Mediates their targeting to the endoplasmic reticulum but also regulates their sorting to the proteasome when targeting fails. Functions in tail- anchored/type II transmembrane proteins membrane insertion constituting with ASNA1 and the BAG6 complex a targeting module. Functions upstream of the BAG6 complex and ASNA1, binding more rapidly the transmembrane domain of newly synthesized proteins. It is also involved in the regulation of the endoplasmic reticulum-associated misfolded protein catabolic process via its interaction with BAG6: collaborates with the BAG6 complex to maintain hydrophobic substrates in non-ubiquitinated states. Competes with RNF126 for interaction with BAG6, preventing the ubiquitination of client proteins associated with the BAG6 complex. Binds directly to HSC70 and HSP70 and regulates their ATPase activity.

Co-chaperone that binds directly to HSC70 and HSP70 and regulates their ATPase activity.

Cytoplasmic adapter regulating receptors of the signaling lymphocytic activation molecule (SLAM) family such as SLAMF1, CD244, LY9, CD84, SLAMF6 and SLAMF7. In SLAM signaling seems to cooperate with SH2D1B/EAT-2. Initially it has been proposed that association with SLAMF1 prevents SLAMF1 binding to inhibitory effectors including INPP5D/SHIP1 and PTPN11/SHP-2. However, by simultaneous interactions, recruits FYN which subsequently phosphorylates and activates SLAMF1. Positively regulates CD244/2B4- and CD84-mediated natural killer (NK) cell functions. Can also promote CD48-, SLAMF6 -, LY9-, and SLAMF7-mediated NK cell activation. In the context of NK cell-mediated cytotoxicity enhances conjugate formation with target cells (By similarity). May also regulate the activity of the neurotrophin receptors NTRK1, NTRK2 and NTRK3.

Cytoplasmic adapter regulating receptors of the signaling lymphocytic activation molecule (SLAM) family such as CD84, SLAMF1, LY9 and CD244. In SLAM signaling seems to cooperate with SH2D1A/SAP. Plays a role in regulation of effector functions of natural killer (NK) cells by controlling signal transduction through CD244/2B4 without effecting its tyrosine phosphorylation; downstream signaling involves PLCG1 and ERK activation. Activation of SLAMF7-mediated NK cell function does not effect receptor tyrosine phosphorylation but distal signaling (By similarity). In the context of NK cell-mediated cytotoxicity does not enhance conjugate formation with target cells but stimulates polarization of the microtubule-organizing center and cytotoxic granules toward the NK cell synapse. Negatively regulates CD40-induced cytokine production in dendritic cells downstream of SLAM family receptors probably by inducing activation of the PI3K pathway to inhibit p38 MAPK and JNK activation (By similarity).

Could be a T-cell-specific adapter protein involved in the control of T-cell activation. May play a role in the CD4-p56-LCK- dependent signal transduction pathway. Could also play an important role in normal and pathological angiogenesis. Could be an adapter protein that facilitates and regulates interaction of KDR with effector proteins important to endothelial cell survival and proliferation

Inhibits estrogen-induced cell proliferation by competing with PLCG for binding to ESR1, blocking the effect of estrogen on PLCG and repressing estrogen-induced proliferation. May play a role in T- cell development and function.

Adapter protein for several members of the tyrosine kinase receptor family. Involved in multiple signaling pathways mediated by Janus kinase (JAK) and receptor tyrosine kinases, including the receptors of insulin (INS), insulin-like growth factor I (IGF1), nerve growth factor (NGF), brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF), glial cell line-derived neurotrophic factor (GDNF), platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) and fibroblast growth factors (FGFs). In growth hormone (GH) signaling, autophosphorylated ('Tyr-813') JAK2 recruits SH2B1, which in turn is phosphorylated by JAK2 on tyrosine residues. These phosphotyrosines form potential binding sites for other signaling proteins. GH also promotes serine/threonine phosphorylation of SH2B1 and these phosphorylated residues may serve to recruit other proteins to the GHR-JAK2-SH2B1 complexes, such as RAC1. In leptin (LEP) signaling, binds to and potentiates the activation of JAK2 by globally enhancing downstream pathways. In response to leptin, binds simultaneously to both, JAK2 and IRS1 or IRS2, thus mediating formation of a complex of JAK2, SH2B1 and IRS1 or IRS2. Mediates tyrosine phosphorylation of IRS1 and IRS2, resulting in activation of the PI 3- kinase pathway. Acts as positive regulator of NGF-mediated activation of the Akt/Forkhead pathway; prolongs NGF-induced phosphorylation of AKT1 on 'Ser-473' and AKT1 enzymatic activity. Enhances the kinase activity of the cytokine receptor-associated tyrosine kinase JAK2 and of other receptor tyrosine kinases, such as FGFR3 and NTRK1. For JAK2, the mechanism seems to involve dimerization of both, SH2B1 and JAK2. Enhances RET phosphorylation and kinase activity. Isoforms seem to be differentially involved in IGF-I and PDGF-induced mitogenesis (By similarity).

Adapter protein for several members of the tyrosine kinase receptor family. Involved in multiple signaling pathways. May be involved in coupling from immunoreceptor to Ras signaling. Acts as a negative regulator of cytokine signaling in collaboration with CBL. Binds to EPOR and suppresses EPO-induced STAT5 activation, possibly through a masking effect on STAT5 docking sites in EPOR. Suppresses PDGF-induced mitogenesis. May induce cytoskeletal reorganization via interaction with VAV3.

Links T-cell receptor activation signal to phospholipase C- gamma-1, GRB2 and phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase.

Acts as an adapter protein that mediates cell signaling pathways involved in cellular functions such as cell adhesion and migration, tissue organization, and the regulation of the immune response. Plays a role in integrin- mediated cell adhesion through BCAR1-CRK-RAPGEF1 signaling and activation of the small GTPase RAP1. Promotes cell migration and invasion through the extracellular matrix. Required for marginal zone B-cell development and thymus-independent type 2 immune responses (By similarity). Mediates migration and adhesion of B cells in the splenic marginal zone via promoting hyperphosphorylation of NEDD9/CASL (By similarity). Plays a role in CXCL13-induced chemotaxis of B-cells (By similarity). Plays a role in the migration of olfactory sensory neurons (OSNs) into the forebrain and the innervation of the olfactory bulb by the OSN axons during development (By similarity). Required for the efficient tyrosine phosphorylation of BCAR1 in OSN axons (By similarity).

May be involved in synaptic plasticity regulation through the control of Rac-GTP levels.

May function in transferrin receptor internalization at the plasma membrane through a cargo-specific control of clathrin-mediated endocytosis. Alternatively, may act as a negative regulator of the amino acid-induced TOR signaling by inhibiting the formation of active Rag GTPase complexes. Preferentially binds inactive Rag GTPase complexes and prevents their interaction with the mTORC1 complex inhibiting its relocalization to lysosomes and its activation. Thereby, may indirectly regulate cell growth, proliferation and autophagy.

Implicated in endocytosis. May recruit other proteins to membranes with high curvature (By similarity).

Implicated in synaptic vesicle endocytosis. May recruit other proteins to membranes with high curvature. Required for BDNF-dependent dendrite outgrowth. Cooperates with SH3GL2 to mediate BDNF-NTRK2 early endocytic trafficking and signaling from early endosomes.

Adapter protein involved in regulating diverse signal transduction pathways. Involved in the regulation of endocytosis and lysosomal degradation of ligand-induced receptor tyrosine kinases, including EGFR and MET/hepatocyte growth factor receptor, through an association with CBL and endophilins. The association with CBL, and thus the receptor internalization, may be inhibited by an interaction with PDCD6IP and/or SPRY2. Involved in regulation of ligand-dependent endocytosis of the IgE receptor. Attenuates phosphatidylinositol 3- kinase activity by interaction with its regulatory subunit (By similarity). May be involved in regulation of cell adhesion; promotes the interaction between TTK2B and PDCD6IP. May be involved in the regulation of cellular stress response via the MAPK pathways through its interaction with MAP3K4. Is involved in modulation of tumor necrosis factor mediated apoptosis. Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Required in the control of cell shape and migration. Has an essential role in the stimulation of B cell activation.

Appears to function as an adapter protein that bridges proteins together or proteins with mRNAs. May function as a ubiquitin ligase-substrate adapter. Additionally, associates with translating cytoplasmic ribosomes and may promote the expression of specific mRNAs.

Could act as a modulator of glutaredoxin biological activity (Probable). May play a role in cytoskeleton organization.

Has E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity. In the absence of an external substrate, it can catalyze self-ubiquitination. Stimulates ubiquitination of potassium channel KCNJ1, enhancing it's dynamin-dependent and clathrin- independent endocytosis. Acts as a scaffold protein that coordinates with MAPK8IP1/JIP1 in organizing different components of the JNK pathway, including RAC1 or RAC2, MAP3K11/MLK3 or MAP3K7/TAK1, MAP2K7/MKK7, MAPK8/JNK1 and/or MAPK9/JNK2 into a functional multiprotein complex to ensure the effective activation of the JNK signaling pathway. Regulates the differentiation of CD4(+) and CD8(+) T-cells and promotes T-helper 1 (Th1) cell differentiation. Regulates the activation of MAPK8/JNK1 and MAPK9/JNK2 in CD4(+) T-cells and the activation of MAPK8/JNK1 in CD8(+) T-cells. Plays a crucial role in the migration of neocortical neurons in the developing brain. Controls proper cortical neuronal migration and the formation of proximal cytoplasmic dilation in the leading process (PCDLP) in migratory neocortical neurons by regulating the proper localization of activated RAC1 and F-actin assembly (By similarity).

Has E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity. Acts as an anti-apoptotic regulator of the JNK pathway by ubiquitinating and promoting the degradation of SH3RF1, a scaffold protein that is required for pro-apoptotic JNK activation. Facilitates TNF-alpha-mediated recruitment of adapter proteins TRADD and RIPK1 to TNFRSF1A and regulates PAK4 protein stability via inhibition of its ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation. Inhibits PPP1CA phosphatase activity.

Seems to be an adapter protein in the postsynaptic density (PSD) of excitatory synapses that interconnects receptors of the postsynaptic membrane including NMDA-type and metabotropic glutamate receptors via complexes with GKAP/PSD-95 and Homer, respectively, and the actin-based cytoskeleton. Plays a role in the structural and functional organization of the dendritic spine and synaptic junction

Seems to be an adapter protein in the postsynaptic density (PSD) of excitatory synapses that interconnects receptors of the postsynaptic membrane including NMDA-type and metabotropic glutamate receptors, and the actin-based cytoskeleton. May play a role in the structural and functional organization of the dendritic spine and synaptic junction

Functions as an androgen transport protein, but may also be involved in receptor mediated processes. Each dimer binds one molecule of steroid. Specific for 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone, testosterone, and 17-beta-estradiol. Regulates the plasma metabolic clearance rate of steroid hormones by controlling their plasma concentration

Adapter protein which regulates several signal transduction cascades by linking activated receptors to downstream signaling components. May play a role in angiogenesis by regulating FGFR1, VEGFR2 and PDGFR signaling. May also play a role in T-cell antigen receptor/TCR signaling, interleukin-2 signaling, apoptosis and neuronal cells differentiation by mediating basic-FGF and NGF-induced signaling cascades. May also regulate IRS1 and IRS2 signaling in insulin- producing cells.

Signaling adapter that couples activated growth factor receptors to signaling pathways. Participates in a signaling cascade initiated by activated KIT and KITLG/SCF. Isoform p46Shc and isoform p52Shc, once phosphorylated, couple activated receptor tyrosine kinases to Ras via the recruitment of the GRB2/SOS complex and are implicated in the cytoplasmic propagation of mitogenic signals. Isoform p46Shc and isoform p52Shc may thus function as initiators of the Ras signaling cascade in various non-neuronal systems. Isoform p66Shc does not mediate Ras activation, but is involved in signal transduction pathways that regulate the cellular response to oxidative stress and life span. Isoform p66Shc acts as a downstream target of the tumor suppressor p53 and is indispensable for the ability of stress-activated p53 to induce elevation of intracellular oxidants, cytochrome c release and apoptosis. The expression of isoform p66Shc has been correlated with life span (By similarity). Participates in signaling downstream of the angiopoietin receptor TEK/TIE2, and plays a role in the regulation of endothelial cell migration and sprouting angiogenesis.

Signaling adapter that couples activated growth factor receptors to signaling pathway in neurons. Involved in the signal transduction pathways of neurotrophin-activated Trk receptors in cortical neurons (By similarity).

Signaling adapter that couples activated growth factor receptors to signaling pathway in neurons. Involved in the signal transduction pathways of neurotrophin-activated Trk receptors in cortical neurons

Activates both Ras-dependent and Ras-independent migratory pathways in melanomas. Contributes to the early phases of agrin-induced tyrosine phosphorylation of CHRNB1.

Subunit of the Sin3 deacetylase complex (Sin3/HDAC), this subunit is important for the repression of genes encoding components of the TGF-beta signaling pathway. Core component of a SIN3A complex (composed of at least SINHCAF, SIN3A, HDAC1, SAP30, RBBP4, OGT and TET1) present in embryonic stem (ES) cells. Promotes the stability of SIN3A and its presence on chromatin and is essential for maintaining the potential of ES cells to proliferate rapidly, while ensuring a short G1-phase of the cell cycle, thereby preventing premature lineage priming (By similarity).

May play a role in signaling pathways governing cellular proliferation, cell growth and differentiation. May be a component of a novel signaling pathway downstream of Shc. Acts as a positive regulator of FGF signaling in neural progenitor cells.

Inhibits programmed -1 ribosomal frameshifting (-1PRF) of a variety of mRNAs from viruses, such as HIV1, and cellular genes, such as PEG10. Interacts with the -1PRF signal of target mRNA and translating ribosomes and causes premature translation termination at the frameshifting site. Regulates HIV1 GAG-POL expression by inhibiting -1PRF. Exhibits antiviral activity against dengue virus (DENV) and can inhibit the replication of all DENV serotypes. May block the protein translation of DENV RNA via its association with cellular mRNA-binding proteins and viral RNA. Interrupts also Zika virus replication by promoting viral NS3 degradation via a lysosome-dependent pathway. Can also limit the replication of hepatitis C virus (HCV) by restricting formation of viral replication organelle, West Nile virus (WNV), Chikungunya virus (CHIKV), herpes simplex virus type 1 (HHV-1), herpes virus type 8 (HHV-8) and human adenovirus. Binds nucleic acids with a higher affinity for ssRNA and ssDNA than for dsDNA.

[Sonic hedgehog protein]: The C-terminal part of the sonic hedgehog protein precursor displays an autoproteolysis and a cholesterol transferase activity (By similarity). Both activities result in the cleavage of the full-length protein into two parts (ShhN and ShhC) followed by the covalent attachment of a cholesterol moiety to the C-terminal of the newly generated ShhN (By similarity). Both activities occur in the reticulum endoplasmic (By similarity). Once cleaved, ShhC is degraded in the endoplasmic reticulum (By similarity).

Phosphatidylinositol (PtdIns) phosphatase that specifically hydrolyzes the 5-phosphate of phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4,5)P3) to produce PtdIns(3,4)P2, thereby negatively regulating the PI3K (phosphoinositide 3-kinase) pathways. Able also to hydrolyzes the 5-phosphate of phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(4,5)P3) and inositol 1,3,4,5-tetrakisphosphate. Acts as a negative regulator of B- cell antigen receptor signaling. Mediates signaling from the FC-gamma- RIIB receptor (FCGR2B), playing a central role in terminating signal transduction from activating immune/hematopoietic cell receptor systems. Acts as a negative regulator of myeloid cell proliferation/survival and chemotaxis, mast cell degranulation, immune cells homeostasis, integrin alpha-IIb/beta-3 signaling in platelets and JNK signaling in B-cells. Regulates proliferation of osteoclast precursors, macrophage programming, phagocytosis and activation and is required for endotoxin tolerance. Involved in the control of cell-cell junctions, CD32a signaling in neutrophils and modulation of EGF-induced phospholipase C activity. Key regulator of neutrophil migration, by governing the formation of the leading edge and polarization required for chemotaxis. Modulates FCGR3/CD16-mediated cytotoxicity in NK cells. Mediates the activin/TGF-beta-induced apoptosis through its Smad-dependent expression.

Phosphatidylinositol (PtdIns) phosphatase that specifically hydrolyzes the 5-phosphate of phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-trisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4,5)P3) to produce PtdIns(3,4)P2, thereby negatively regulating the PI3K (phosphoinositide 3-kinase) pathways. Required for correct mitotic spindle orientation and therefore progression of mitosis (By similarity). Plays a central role in regulation of PI3K-dependent insulin signaling, although the precise molecular mechanisms and signaling pathways remain unclear. While overexpression reduces both insulin-stimulated MAP kinase and Akt activation, its absence does not affect insulin signaling or GLUT4 trafficking (By similarity). Confers resistance to dietary obesity (By similarity). May act by regulating AKT2, but not AKT1, phosphorylation at the plasma membrane (By similarity). Part of a signaling pathway that regulates actin cytoskeleton remodeling. Required for the maintenance and dynamic remodeling of actin structures as well as in endocytosis, having a major impact on ligand-induced EGFR internalization and degradation. Participates in regulation of cortical and submembraneous actin by hydrolyzing PtdIns(3,4,5)P3 thereby regulating membrane ruffling. Regulates cell adhesion and cell spreading. Required for HGF-mediated lamellipodium formation, cell scattering and spreading. Acts as a negative regulator of EPHA2 receptor endocytosis by inhibiting via PI3K-dependent Rac1 activation. Acts as a regulator of neuritogenesis by regulating PtdIns(3,4,5)P3 level and is required to form an initial protrusive pattern, and later, maintain proper neurite outgrowth (By similarity). Acts as a negative regulator of the FC-gamma-RIIA receptor (FCGR2A). Mediates signaling from the FC-gamma-RIIB receptor (FCGR2B), playing a central role in terminating signal transduction from activating immune/hematopoietic cell receptor systems. Involved in EGF signaling pathway. Upon stimulation by EGF, it is recruited by EGFR and dephosphorylates PtdIns(3,4,5)P3. Plays a negative role in regulating the PI3K-PKB pathway, possibly by inhibiting PKB activity. Down-regulates Fc-gamma-R-mediated phagocytosis in macrophages independently of INPP5D/SHIP1 (By similarity). In macrophages, down-regulates NF-kappa-B-dependent gene transcription by regulating macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)-induced signaling (By similarity). Plays a role in the localization of AURKA and NEDD9/HEF1 to the basolateral membrane at interphase in polarized cysts, thereby mediates cell cycle homeostasis, cell polarization and cilia assembly (By similarity). Additionally promotion of cilia growth is also facilitated by hydrolysis of (PtdIns(3,4,5)P3) to PtdIns(3,4)P2 (By similarity). Promotes formation of apical membrane-initiation sites during the initial stages of lumen formation via Rho family-induced actin filament organization and CTNNB1 localization to cell-cell contacts (By similarity). May also hydrolyze PtdIns(1,3,4,5)P4, and could thus affect the levels of the higher inositol polyphosphates like InsP6. Involved in endochondral ossification.

Inhibits CBL-SH3KBP1 complex mediated down-regulation of EGFR signaling by sequestration of SH3KBP1. Binds to SH3KBP1 and prevents its interaction with CBL and inhibits translocation of SH3KBP1 to EGFR containing vesicles upon EGF stimulation.

May be required for normal outer mitochondrial membrane dynamics. Required for coatomer-mediated retrograde transport in certain cells (By similarity). May recruit other proteins to membranes with high curvature. May promote membrane fusion. Involved in activation of caspase-dependent apoptosis by promoting BAX/BAK1 activation. Isoform 1 acts proapoptotic in fibroblasts (By similarity). Involved in caspase- independent apoptosis during nutrition starvation and involved in the regulation of autophagy. Activates lipid kinase activity of PIK3C3 during autophagy probably by associating with the PI3K complex II (PI3KC3-C2). Associated with PI3KC3-C2 during autophagy may regulate the trafficking of ATG9A from the Golgi complex to the peripheral cytoplasm for the formation of autophagosomes by inducing Golgi membrane tubulation and fragmentation. Involved in regulation of degradative endocytic trafficking and cytokinesis, probably in the context of PI3KC3-C2. Isoform 2 acts antiapoptotic in neuronal cells; involved in maintenance of mitochondrial morphology and promotes neuronal viability (By similarity).

Component of the shieldin complex, which plays an important role in repair of DNA double-stranded breaks (DSBs). During G1 and S phase of the cell cycle, the complex functions downstream of TP53BP1 to promote non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) and suppress DNA end resection. Mediates various NHEJ-dependent processes including immunoglobulin class-switch recombination, and fusion of unprotected telomeres.

Regulatory subunit of protein phosphatase 1 (PP1c) that acts as a M-Ras/MRAS effector and participates in MAPK pathway activation. Upon M-Ras/MRAS activation, targets PP1c to specifically dephosphorylate the 'Ser-259' inhibitory site of RAF1 kinase and stimulate RAF1 activity at specialized signaling complexes.

Involved in the generation of internal asymmetric signals required for neuronal polarization and neurite outgrowth. Mediates netrin-1-induced F-actin-substrate coupling or 'clutch engagement' within the axon growth cone through activation of CDC42, RAC1 and PAK1- dependent signaling pathway, thereby converting the F-actin retrograde flow into traction forces, concomitantly with filopodium extension and axon outgrowth. Plays a role in cytoskeletal organization by regulating the subcellular localization of phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K) activity at the axonal growth cone. Also plays a role in regenerative neurite outgrowth. In the developing cortex, cooperates with KIF20B to promote both the transition from the multipolar to the bipolar stage and the radial migration of cortical neurons from the ventricular zone toward the superficial layer of the neocortex. Involved in the accumulation of phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3) in the growth cone of primary hippocampal neurons.

May be a growth regulator and have a role in specifying neural systems involved in processing somatosensory information, as well as in face and body structure formation

Testis-specific spindle-associated factor that plays a role in spermatogenesis. In association with HSPA2, participates in the maintenance of spindle integrity during meiosis in male germ cells.

Acts as a modulator of macrophage activation through control of glucose metabolism.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase involved in DNA repair. Upon genotoxic stress, accepts ubiquitin from the UBE2N-UBE2V2 E2 complex and transfers it to 'Lys-164' of PCNA which had been monoubiquitinated by UBE2A/B-RAD18, promoting the formation of non-canonical poly- ubiquitin chains linked through 'Lys-63'.

Immunoglobulin-like cell surface receptor for CD47. Acts as docking protein and induces translocation of PTPN6, PTPN11 and other binding partners from the cytosol to the plasma membrane. Supports adhesion of cerebellar neurons, neurite outgrowth and glial cell attachment. May play a key role in intracellular signaling during synaptogenesis and in synaptic function (By similarity). Involved in the negative regulation of receptor tyrosine kinase-coupled cellular responses induced by cell adhesion, growth factors or insulin. Mediates negative regulation of phagocytosis, mast cell activation and dendritic cell activation. CD47 binding prevents maturation of immature dendritic cells and inhibits cytokine production by mature dendritic cells.

Required for the quantitative accumulation of H/ACA ribonucleoproteins (RNPs), including telomerase, probably through the stabilization of DKC1, from the time of its synthesis until its association with NOP10, NHP2, and NAF1 at the nascent H/ACA RNA.

May be involved in the assembly of microtubule arrays during cell elongation.

May be involved in endothelial cell morphology changes during cell spreading. In the retinal pigment epithelium, may regulate the biogenesis of melanosomes and promote their association with the apical cell surface by inducing gamma-tubulin redistribution (By similarity).

Controls cell shape changes in the neuroepithelium during neural tube closure. Induces apical constriction in epithelial cells by promoting the apical accumulation of F-actin and myosin II, and probably by bundling stress fibers (By similarity). Induces apicobasal cell elongation by redistributing gamma-tubulin and directing the assembly of robust apicobasal microtubule arrays (By similarity).

Probable regulator of cytoskeletal architecture that plays an important role in development. May regulate cellular and cytoskeletal architecture by modulating the spatial distribution of myosin II (By similarity).

Component of the LUBAC complex which conjugates linear polyubiquitin chains in a head-to-tail manner to substrates and plays a key role in NF-kappa-B activation and regulation of inflammation. LUBAC conjugates linear polyubiquitin to IKBKG and RIPK1 and is involved in activation of the canonical NF-kappa-B and the JNK signaling pathways. Linear ubiquitination mediated by the LUBAC complex interferes with TNF- induced cell death and thereby prevents inflammation. LUBAC is recruited to the TNF-R1 signaling complex (TNF-RSC) following polyubiquitination of TNF-RSC components by BIRC2 and/or BIRC3 and to conjugate linear polyubiquitin to IKBKG and possibly other components contributing to the stability of the complex. The LUBAC complex is also involved in innate immunity by conjugating linear polyubiquitin chains at the surface of bacteria invading the cytosol to form the ubiquitin coat surrounding bacteria. LUBAC is not able to initiate formation of the bacterial ubiquitin coat, and can only promote formation of linear polyubiquitins on pre-existing ubiquitin. The bacterial ubiquitin coat acts as an 'eat-me' signal for xenophagy and promotes NF-kappa-B activation. Together with OTULIN, the LUBAC complex regulates the canonical Wnt signaling during angiogenesis.

Plays an essential role in the maturation of presomitic mesoderm cells by individual attenuation of both FGF and WNT signaling.

Can induce apoptosis in a caspase-dependent manner and plays a role in p53/TP53-dependent apoptosis.

Involved in maintenance of high-frequency synaptic transmission at hippocampal CA3-CA1 synapses. Regulates AMPA-type glutamate receptor (AMPAR) immobilization at postsynaptic density keeping the channels in an activated state in the presence of glutamate and preventing synaptic depression. May play a role in self-renewal and differentiation of spermatogonial stem cells by inhibiting canonical Wnt signaling pathway.

Transmembrane protein that regulates gamma-aminobutyric acid type A receptor (GABA(A)R) trafficking, channel deactivation kinetics and pharmacology, necessary for fast inhibitory transmission in the brain. Enhances the action of benzodiazepine, a primary GABA(A)Rs target drug, in the brain. May affect channel kinetics of AMPA-type glutamate receptors (AMPAR), the brain's main excitatory neurotransmitter, necessary for synaptic hippocampal plasticity, and memory recall. May regulate the induction and maintenance of long-term potentiation at Schaffer collaterals/CA3-CA1 excitatory synapses.

May regulate trafficking and current kinetics of AMPA-type glutamate receptor (AMPAR) at synapses.

Regulator of short-term neuronal synaptic plasticity in the dentate gyrus. Associates with AMPA receptors (ionotropic glutamate receptors) in synaptic spines and promotes AMPA receptor desensitization at excitatory synapses (By similarity).

Stimulates the GTPase activity of RAP2A. Promotes reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and recruits DLG4 to F-actin. Contributes to the regulation of dendritic spine morphogenesis (By similarity).

Plays a critical role in epithelial cell morphogenesis, polarity, adhesion and cytoskeletal organization in the lens.

Involved in the synthesis of sialyl-paragloboside, a precursor of sialyl-Lewis X determinant. Has a alpha-2,3- sialyltransferase activity toward Gal-beta1,4-GlcNAc structure on glycoproteins and glycolipids. Has a restricted substrate specificity, it utilizes Gal-beta1,4-GlcNAc on glycoproteins, and neolactotetraosylceramide and neolactohexaosylceramide, but not lactotetraosylceramide, lactosylceramide or asialo-GM1

A beta-galactoside alpha2-3 sialyltransferase involved in terminal sialylation of glycoproteins and glycolipids. Catalyzes the transfer of sialic acid (N-acetyl- neuraminic acid; Neu5Ac) from the nucleotide sugar donor CMP-Neu5Ac onto acceptor Galbeta-(1->3)-GalNAc-terminated glycoconjugates through an alpha2-3 linkage. Adds sialic acid to the core 1 O-glycan, Galbeta-(1->3)-GalNAc-O-Ser/Thr, which is a major structure of mucin-type O-glycans. As part of a homeostatic mechanism that regulates CD8-positive T cell numbers, sialylates core 1 O-glycans of T cell glycoproteins, SPN/CD43 and PTPRC/CD45. Prevents premature apoptosis of thymic CD8-positive T cells prior to peripheral emigration, whereas in the secondary lymphoid organs controls the survival of CD8-positive memory T cells generated following a successful immune response (By similarity). Transfers sialic acid to asialofetuin, presumably onto Galbeta-(1->3)-GalNAc-O-Ser (By similarity). Sialylates GM1a, GA1 and GD1b gangliosides to form GD1a, GM1b and GT1b, respectively (By similarity).

A beta-galactoside alpha2-3 sialyltransferase primarily involved in terminal sialylation of ganglio and globo series glycolipids. Catalyzes the transfer of sialic acid (N-acetyl-neuraminic acid; Neu5Ac) from the nucleotide sugar donor CMP-Neu5Ac onto acceptor Galbeta-(1->3)-GalNAc-terminated glycoconjugates through an alpha2-3 linkage. Sialylates GM1/GM1a, GA1/asialo-GM1 and GD1b gangliosides to form GD1a, GM1b and GT1b, respectively. Together with ST3GAL3, primarily responsible for biosynthesis of brain GD1a and GT1b that function as ligands for myelin-associated glycoprotein MAG on axons, regulating MAG expression and axonal myelin stability and regeneration (By similarity). Via GT1b regulates TLR2 signaling in spinal cord microglia in response to nerve injury (By similarity). Responsible for the sialylation of the pluripotent stem cell- and cancer stem cell- associated antigen SSEA3, forming SSEA4. Sialylates with low efficiency asialofetuin, presumably onto O-glycosidically linked Galbeta-(1->3)-GalNAc-O-Ser.

A beta-galactoside alpha2-3 sialyltransferase involved in terminal sialylation of glycoproteins and glycolipids. Catalyzes the transfer of sialic acid (N-acetyl- neuraminic acid; Neu5Ac) from the nucleotide sugar donor CMP-Neu5Ac onto acceptor Galbeta-(1->3)-GalNAc- and Galbeta-(1->4)-GlcNAc- terminated glycoconjugates through an alpha2-3 linkage. Plays a major role in hemostasis. Responsible for sialylation of plasma VWF/von Willebrand factor, preventing its recognition by asialoglycoprotein receptors (ASGPR) and subsequent clearance. Regulates ASGPR-mediated clearance of platelets (By similarity). Participates in the biosynthesis of the sialyl Lewis X epitopes, both on O- and N-glycans, which are recognized by SELE/E- selectin, SELP/P-selectin and SELL/L-selectin. Essential for selectin- mediated rolling and adhesion of leukocytes during extravasation. Contributes to adhesion and transendothelial migration of neutrophils likely through terminal sialylation of CXCR2 (By similarity). In glycosphingolipid biosynthesis, sialylates GM1 and GA1 gangliosides to form GD1a and GM1b, respectively. Metabolizes brain c-series ganglioside GT1c forming GQ1c (By similarity). Synthesizes ganglioside LM1 (IV3Neu5Ac-nLc4Cer), a major structural component of peripheral nerve myelin.

Protein sialyltransferase specifically expressed in goblet cells that plays a key role in intestinal host-commensal homeostasis. Conjugates sialic acid with an alpha-2-6 linkage to N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) glycan chains linked to serine or threonine in glycoproteins. Catalyzes the formation of the sialyl-Tn (S-Tn) antigen, an antigen found in intestinal goblet cells, as well as ulcerative colitis (UC) and various cancers. Protein sialylation in globlet cells is essential for mucus integrity and is required to protect the intestinal mucus against excessive bacterial proteolytic degradation.

Catalyzes the transfer of N-acetylneuraminyl groups onto glycan chains in glycoproteins. Shows a preference for N-acetylgalactosamine (GalNAc) residues already modified by the addition of galactose or galactose followed by sialic acid in alpha-2,3 linkage.

Transfers the sialyl group (N-acetyl-alpha-neuraminyl or NeuAc) from CMP-NeuAc to the GalNAc residue on the NeuAc-alpha-2,3-Gal- beta-1,3-GalNAc sequence of glycoproteins and glycolipids forming an alpha-2,6-linkage. Produces branched type disialyl structures by transfer of a sialyl group onto a GalNAc residue inside the backbone core chains. ST6GalNAcIII prefers glycolipids to glycoproteins, predominantly catalyzing the biosynthesis of ganglioside GD1alpha from GM1b. GD1alpha is a critical molecule in the communication and interaction between neuronal cells and their supportive cells, particularly in brain tissues, and functions as an adhesion molecule in the process of metastasis (By similarity). Sialylation of glycoproteins or glycosphingolipids is very important in tumor development, neuronal development, nerve repair, immunological processes and regulation of hormone sensitivity.

Transfers the sialyl group (N-acetyl-alpha-neuraminyl or NeuAc) from CMP-NeuAc to the GalNAc residue on the NeuAc-alpha-2,3-Gal- beta-1,3-GalNAc sequence of glycoproteins and glycolipids forming an alpha-2,6-linkage. Produces branched type disialyl structures by transfer of a sialyl group onto a GalNAc residue inside the backbone core chains. Prefers O-glycans to glycoproteins or glycolipids.

Predominantly catalyzes the biosynthesis of ganglioside GD1alpha from GM1b in the brain, by transferring the sialyl group (N- acetyl-alpha-neuraminyl or NeuAc) from CMP-NeuAc to the GalNAc residue on the NeuAc-alpha-2,3-Gal-beta-1,3-GalNAc sequence of GM1b. GD1alpha is a critical molecule in the communication and interaction between neuronal cells and their supportive cells, particularly in brain tissues, and functions as an adhesion molecule in the process of metastasis (By similarity). Also shows activity towards sialyl Lc4Cer (N-acetyl-alpha-neuraminosyl-(2->3)-beta-D-galactosyl- (1->3)-N-acetyl-beta-D-glucosaminyl-(1->3)-beta-D-galactosyl-(1->4)- beta-D-glucosyl-(1<->1')-N-acyl-sphing-4-enine) generating disialyl Lc4Cer, which can lead to the synthesis of disialyl Lewis a (Le(a)), suggested to be a cancer-associated antigen.

Transfers the sialyl group (N-acetyl-alpha-neuraminyl or NeuAc) from CMP-NeuAc onto glycoproteins and glycolipids, forming an alpha-2,6-linkage. Produces branched type disialyl structures by transfer of a sialyl group onto the GalNAc or GlcNAc residue inside backbone core chains having a terminal sialic acid with an alpha-2,3- linkage on Gal. ST6GalNAcVI prefers glycolipids to glycoproteins, predominantly catalyzing the biosynthesis of ganglioside GD1alpha from GM1b. Besides GMb1, MSGG and other glycolipids, it shows activity towards sialyl Lc4Cer generating disialyl Lc4Cer, which can lead to the synthesis of disialyl Lewis a (Le(a)), suggested to be a cancer-associated antigen. Also has activity toward GD1a and GT1b, and can generate DSGG (disialylgalactosylgloboside) from MSGG (monosialylgalactosylgloboside) (By similarity).

Catalyzes the addition of sialic acid in alpha 2,8-linkage to the sialic acid moiety of the ganglioside GM3 to form ganglioside GD3; gangliosides are a subfamily of complex glycosphinglolipds that contain one or more residues of sialic acid. Can catalyze the addition of a second alpha-2,8- sialic acid to GD3 to form GT3. Can use GM1b, GD1a and GT1b as acceptor substrates to synthesize GD1c, GT1a and GQ1b respectively. Can synthesize unusual tetra- and pentasialylated lactosylceramide derivatives identified as GQ3 (II3Neu5Ac4-Gg2Cer) and GP3 (II3Neu5Ac5-Gg2Cer) in breast cancer cells.

May transfer sialic acid through alpha-2,8-linkages to the alpha-2,3-linked and alpha-2,6-linked sialic acid of N-linked oligosaccharides of glycoproteins and may be involved in PSA (polysialic acid) expression

Catalyzes the transfer of sialic acid from a CMP-linked sialic acid donor onto the terminal sialic acid of an acceptor through alpha-2,8-linkages. Is active with alpha-2,3-linked, alpha-2,6-linked and alpha-2,8-linked sialic acid of N-linked oligosaccharides of glycoproteins and glycolipids. Displays preference for substrates with alpha-2,3-linked terminal sialic acid. It can form polysialic acid in vitro directly on alpha-2,3-, alpha-2,6-, or alpha-2,8-linked sialic acid.

Catalyzes the polycondensation of alpha-2,8-linked sialic acid required for the synthesis of polysialic acid (PSA), which is present on the embryonic neural cell adhesion molecule (N-CAM), necessary for plasticity of neural cells

Involved in the synthesis of gangliosides GD1c, GT1a, GQ1b, GP1c and GT3 from GD1a, GT1b, GM1b and GD3 respectively.

Alpha-2,8-sialyltransferase that prefers O-glycans to N- glycans or glycolipids as acceptor substrates. The minimal acceptor substrate is the NeuAc-alpha-2,3(6)-Gal sequence at the non-reducing end of their carbohydrate groups.

Catalyzes the removal of O-acetyl ester groups from position 9 of the parent sialic acid, N-acetylneuraminic acid

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. E3 ubiquitin ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Mediates E3 ubiquitin ligase activity either through direct binding to substrates or by functioning as the essential RING domain subunit of larger E3 complexes. Triggers the ubiquitin-mediated degradation of many substrates, including proteins involved in transcription regulation (ELL2, MYB, POU2AF1, PML and RBBP8), a cell surface receptor (DCC), the cell-surface receptor-type tyrosine kinase FLT3, the cytoplasmic signal transduction molecules (KLF10/TIEG1 and NUMB), an antiapoptotic protein (BAG1), a microtubule motor protein (KIF22), a protein involved in synaptic vesicle function in neurons (SYP), a structural protein (CTNNB1) and SNCAIP. Confers constitutive instability to HIPK2 through proteasomal degradation. It is thereby involved in many cellular processes such as apoptosis, tumor suppression, cell cycle, axon guidance, transcription regulation, spermatogenesis and TNF-alpha signaling. Has some overlapping function with SIAH2. Induces apoptosis in cooperation with PEG3 (By similarity). Upon nitric oxid (NO) generation that follows apoptotic stimulation, interacts with S-nitrosylated GAPDH, mediating the translocation of GAPDH to the nucleus (By similarity). GAPDH acts as a stabilizer of SIAH1, facilitating the degradation of nuclear proteins (By similarity). Mediates ubiquitination and degradation of EGLN2 and EGLN3 in response to the unfolded protein response (UPR), leading to their degradation and subsequent stabilization of ATF4 (By similarity). Also part of the Wnt signaling pathway in which it mediates the Wnt-induced ubiquitin- mediated proteasomal degradation of AXIN1.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. E3 ubiquitin ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Mediates E3 ubiquitin ligase activity either through direct binding to substrates or by functioning as the essential RING domain subunit of larger E3 complexes. Triggers the ubiquitin-mediated degradation of many substrates, including proteins involved in transcription regulation (GPS2, POU2AF1, PML, NCOR1), a cell surface receptor (DCC), an antiapoptotic protein (BAG1), and a protein involved in synaptic vesicle function in neurons (SYP). Mediates ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of DYRK2 in response to hypoxia. It is thereby involved in apoptosis, tumor suppression, cell cycle, transcription and signaling processes. Has some overlapping function with SIAH1. Triggers the ubiquitin-mediated degradation of TRAF2, whereas SIAH1 does not. Promotes monoubiquitination of SNCA. Regulates cellular clock function via ubiquitination of the circadian transcriptional repressors NR1D1 and NR1D2 leading to their proteasomal degradation. Plays an important role in mediating the rhythmic degradation/clearance of NR1D1 and NR1D2 contributing to their circadian profile of protein abundance. Mediates ubiquitination and degradation of EGLN2 and EGLN3 in response to the unfolded protein response (UPR), leading to their degradation and subsequent stabilization of ATF4 (By similarity). Also part of the Wnt signaling pathway in which it mediates the Wnt-induced ubiquitin- mediated proteasomal degradation of AXIN1.

Negative regulator of PRKN translocation to damaged mitochondria. Acts probably by destabilizing PINK1 protein, hence inhibiting PRKN targeting to dysfunctional depolarized mitochondria.

Binds tightly to hydroxyapatite. Appears to form an integral part of the mineralized matrix. Probably important to cell-matrix interaction. Promotes Arg-Gly-Asp-dependent cell attachment

Produces N-acetylneuraminic acid (Neu5Ac) and 2-keto-3-deoxy- D-glycero-D-galacto-nononic acid (KDN). Can also use N-acetylmannosamine 6-phosphate and mannose 6-phosphate as substrates to generate phosphorylated forms of Neu5Ac and KDN, respectively.

Transfers sialic acid from CMP-sialic acid to galactose- containing acceptor substrates.

Transfers sialic acid from the donor of substrate CMP-sialic acid to galactose containing acceptor substrates. Has alpha-2,6- sialyltransferase activity toward oligosaccharides that have the Gal- beta-1,4-GlcNAc sequence at the non-reducing end of their carbohydrate groups, but it has weak or no activities toward glycoproteins and glycolipids.

Catalyzes the formation of the NeuAc-alpha-2,3-Gal-beta-1,4- GlcNAc-, NeuAc-alpha-2,3-Gal-beta-1,3-GlcNAc- and NeuAc-alpha-2,3-Gal- beta-1,3-GalNAc- sequences found in terminal carbohydrate groups of glycoproteins and glycolipids. The highest activity is toward Gal-beta- 1,3-GlcNAc and the lowest toward Gal-beta-1,3-GalNAc.

Transfers the sialyl group (N-acetyl-alpha-neuraminyl or NeuAc) from CMP-NeuAc to the non-reducing terminal galactose (Gal) of glycosphingolipids forming gangliosides (important molecules involved in the regulation of multiple cellular processes, including cell proliferation and differentiation, apoptosis, embryogenesis, development, and oncogenesis). Mainly involved in the biosynthesis of ganglioside GM3 but can also use different glycolipids as substrate acceptors such as D- galactosylceramide (GalCer), asialo-GM2 (GA2) and asialo-GM1 (GA1), although less preferentially than beta-D-Gal-(1->4)-beta-D-Glc-(1<->1)- Cer (LacCer).

In vitro binds long double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) (500 and 700 base pairs), but not dsRNA shorter than 300 bp. Not involved in RNA autophagy, a process in which RNA is directly imported into lysosomes in an ATP-dependent manner, and degraded.

Mediates the translocation of RNA and DNA across the lysosomal membrane during RNA and DNA autophagy (RDA), a process in which RNA or DNA is directly imported into lysosomes in an ATP- dependent manner, and degraded. Involved in the uptake of single-stranded oligonucleotides by living cells, a process called gymnosis. In vitro, mediates the uptake of linear DNA more efficiently than that of circular DNA, but exhibits similar uptake efficacy toward RNA and DNA. Binds long double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) (500 - 700 base pairs), but not dsRNA shorter than 100 bp (By similarity).

Putative adhesion molecule that mediates sialic-acid dependent binding to cells. Preferentially binds to alpha-2,3- or alpha-2,6-linked sialic acid (By similarity). The sialic acid recognition site may be masked by cis interactions with sialic acids on the same cell surface. In the immune response, seems to act as an inhibitory receptor upon ligand induced tyrosine phosphorylation by recruiting cytoplasmic phosphatase(s) via their SH2 domain(s) that block signal transduction through dephosphorylation of signaling molecules. Involved in negative regulation of B-cell antigen receptor signaling. The inhibition of B cell activation is dependent on PTPN6/SHP-1 (By similarity). In association with CD24 may be involved in the selective suppression of the immune response to danger-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) such as HMGB1, HSP70 and HSP90 (By similarity). In association with CD24 may regulate the immune repsonse of natural killer (NK) cells. Plays a role in the control of autoimmunity (By similarity). During initiation of adaptive immune responses by CD8- alpha(+) dendritic cells inhibits cross-presentation by impairing the formation of MHC class I-peptide complexes. The function seems to implicate recruitment of PTPN6/SHP-1, which dephosphorylates NCF1 of the NADPH oxidase complex consequently promoting phagosomal acidification (By similarity).

Putative adhesion molecule that mediates sialic-acid dependent binding to cells. Preferentially binds to alpha-2,8-linked sialic acid. The sialic acid recognition site may be masked by cis interactions with sialic acids on the same cell surface. In the immune response, may act as an inhibitory receptor upon ligand induced tyrosine phosphorylation by recruiting cytoplasmic phosphatase(s) via their SH2 domain(s) that block signal transduction through dephosphorylation of signaling molecules

Putative adhesion molecule that mediates sialic-acid dependent binding to cells. The sialic acid recognition site may be masked by cis interactions with sialic acids on the same cell surface

Putative adhesion molecule. Sialic acid-binding paired receptor which may activate associated receptors.

Acts as a negative regulator of the Toll-like and IL-1R receptor signaling pathways. Attenuates the recruitment of receptor- proximal signaling components to the TLR4 receptor, probably through an TIR-TIR domain interaction with TLR4. Through its extracellular domain interferes with the heterodimerization of Il1R1 and IL1RAP.

Putative adhesion molecule that mediates sialic-acid dependent binding to cells. Binds equally to alpha-2,3-linked and alpha-2,6-linked sialic acid. The sialic acid recognition site may be masked by cis interactions with sialic acids on the same cell surface

Putative adhesion molecule that mediates sialic-acid dependent binding to cells. Binds to alpha-2,6-linked sialic acid. The sialic acid recognition site may be masked by cis interactions with sialic acids on the same cell surface

Putative adhesion molecule that mediates sialic-acid dependent binding to cells. Preferentially binds to alpha-2,3- and alpha-2,6-linked sialic acid. Also binds disialogangliosides (disialogalactosyl globoside, disialyl lactotetraosylceramide and disialyl GalNAc lactotetraoslylceramide). The sialic acid recognition site may be masked by cis interactions with sialic acids on the same cell surface. In the immune response, may act as an inhibitory receptor upon ligand induced tyrosine phosphorylation by recruiting cytoplasmic phosphatase(s) via their SH2 domain(s) that block signal transduction through dephosphorylation of signaling molecules. Mediates inhibition of natural killer cells cytotoxicity. May play a role in hemopoiesis. Inhibits differentiation of CD34+ cell precursors towards myelomonocytic cell lineage and proliferation of leukemic myeloid cells (in vitro).

Putative adhesion molecule that mediates sialic-acid dependent binding to red blood cells. Preferentially binds to alpha-2,3-linked sialic acid. Also binds to alpha-2,6-linked sialic acid. The sialic acid recognition site may be masked by cis interactions with sialic acids on the same cell surface. Recognizes simultaneously epitopes having a terminal N-acetylneuraminic acid (sialic acid) and an underlying 6-O-sulfated galactose. Preferentially binds to Gal-6- sulfated sialyl-Lewis X glycan epitopes.

Putative adhesion molecule that mediates sialic-acid dependent binding to cells. Preferentially binds to alpha-2,3- or alpha-2,6-linked sialic acid. The sialic acid recognition site may be masked by cis interactions with sialic acids on the same cell surface

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in various processes such as cell cycle regulation, gluconeogenesis and lipogenesis regulation, muscle growth and differentiation and tumor suppression. Phosphorylates HDAC4, HDAC5, PPME1, SREBF1, CRTC1/TORC1. Inhibits CREB activity by phosphorylating and inhibiting activity of TORCs, the CREB- specific coactivators, like CRTC2/TORC2 and CRTC3/TORC3 in response to cAMP signaling. Acts as a tumor suppressor and plays a key role in p53/TP53-dependent anoikis, a type of apoptosis triggered by cell detachment: required for phosphorylation of p53/TP53 in response to loss of adhesion and is able to suppress metastasis. Part of a sodium-sensing signaling network, probably by mediating phosphorylation of PPME1: following increases in intracellular sodium, SIK1 is activated by CaMK1 and phosphorylates PPME1 subunit of protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A), leading to dephosphorylation of sodium/potassium-transporting ATPase ATP1A1 and subsequent increase activity of ATP1A1. Acts as a regulator of muscle cells by phosphorylating and inhibiting class II histone deacetylases HDAC4 and HDAC5, leading to promote expression of MEF2 target genes in myocytes. Also required during cardiomyogenesis by regulating the exit of cardiomyoblasts from the cell cycle via down-regulation of CDKN1C/p57Kip2. Acts as a regulator of hepatic gluconeogenesis by phosphorylating and repressing the CREB-specific coactivators CRTC1/TORC1 and CRTC2/TORC2, leading to inhibit CREB activity. Also regulates hepatic lipogenesis by phosphorylating and inhibiting SREBF1. In concert with CRTC1/TORC1, regulates the light-induced entrainment of the circadian clock by attenuating PER1 induction; represses CREB- mediated transcription of PER1 by phosphorylating and deactivating CRTC1/TORC1 (By similarity).

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that plays a role in many biological processes such as fatty acid oxidation, autophagy, immune response or glucose metabolism. Phosphorylates 'Ser-794' of IRS1 in insulin-stimulated adipocytes, potentially modulating the efficiency of insulin signal transduction. Inhibits CREB activity by phosphorylating and repressing TORCs, the CREB-specific coactivators. Phosphorylates EP300 and thus inhibits its histone acetyltransferase activity. In turn, regulates the DNA-binding ability of several transcription factors such as PPARA or MLXIPL. Also plays a role in thymic T-cell development (By similarity).

Physiological suppressor of IKK-epsilon and TBK1 that plays an inhibitory role in virus- and TLR3-triggered IRF3. Inhibits TLR3- mediated activation of interferon-stimulated response elements (ISRE) and the IFN-beta promoter. May act by disrupting the interactions of IKBKE or TBK1 with TICAM1/TRIF, IRF3 and RIGI. Does not inhibit NF- kappa-B activation pathways.

Required for protein translocation and folding in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Functions as a nucleotide exchange factor for the ER lumenal chaperone HSPA5.

Transcriptional factor that may have pleiotropic effects during embryogenesis and in the adult

[Small integral membrane protein 20]: Component of the MITRAC (mitochondrial translation regulation assembly intermediate of cytochrome c oxidase complex) complex, that regulates cytochrome c oxidase assembly. Promotes the progression of complex assembly after the association of MT-CO1/COX1 with COX4I1 and COX6C. Chaperone-like assembly factor required to stabilize newly synthesized MT-CO1/COX1 and to prevent its premature turnover.

May modulate lipid droplet formation throught interaction with SQLE.

Transcription factor that may be a master gene of CNS development in cooperation with Arnt. It may have pleiotropic effects in the tissues expressed during development

Subunit of mTORC2, which regulates cell growth and survival in response to hormonal signals. mTORC2 is activated by growth factors, but, in contrast to mTORC1, seems to be nutrient-insensitive. mTORC2 seems to function upstream of Rho GTPases to regulate the actin cytoskeleton, probably by activating one or more Rho-type guanine nucleotide exchange factors. mTORC2 promotes the serum-induced formation of stress-fibers or F-actin. mTORC2 plays a critical role in AKT1 'Ser-473' phosphorylation, which may facilitate the phosphorylation of the activation loop of AKT1 on 'Thr-308' by PDK1 which is a prerequisite for full activation. mTORC2 regulates the phosphorylation of SGK1 at 'Ser-422'. mTORC2 also modulates the phosphorylation of PRKCA on 'Ser-657'. Within mTORC2, MAPKAP1 is required for complex formation and mTORC2 kinase activity. MAPKAP1 inhibits MAP3K2 by preventing its dimerization and autophosphorylation. Inhibits HRAS and KRAS signaling. Enhances osmotic stress-induced phosphorylation of ATF2 and ATF2-mediated transcription. Involved in ciliogenesis, regulates cilia length through its interaction with CCDC28B independently of mTORC2 complex.

Acts as a transcriptional repressor. Corepressor for REST. Interacts with MXI1 to repress MYC responsive genes and antagonize MYC oncogenic activities. Also interacts with MXD1-MAX heterodimers to repress transcription by tethering SIN3A to DNA. Acts cooperatively with OGT to repress transcription in parallel with histone deacetylation. Involved in the control of the circadian rhythms. Required for the transcriptional repression of circadian target genes, such as PER1, mediated by the large PER complex through histone deacetylation. Cooperates with FOXK1 to regulate cell cycle progression probably by repressing cell cycle inhibitor genes expression (By similarity). Required for cortical neuron differentiation and callosal axon elongation (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional repressor. Interacts with MXI1 to repress MYC responsive genes and antagonize MYC oncogenic activities. Interacts with MAD-MAX heterodimers by binding to MAD. The heterodimer then represses transcription by tethering SIN3B to DNA. Also forms a complex with FOXK1 which represses transcription. With FOXK1, regulates cell cycle progression probably by repressing cell cycle inhibitor genes expression.

GTPase activator for the nuclear Ras-related regulatory proteins Rap1 and Rap2 in vitro, converting them to the putatively inactive GDP-bound state. Affects cell cycle progression (By similarity).

NAD-dependent protein deacetylase that links transcriptional regulation directly to intracellular energetics and participates in the coordination of several separated cellular functions such as cell cycle, response to DNA damage, metabolism, apoptosis and autophagy. Can modulate chromatin function through deacetylation of histones and can promote alterations in the methylation of histones and DNA, leading to transcriptional repression. Deacetylates a broad range of transcription factors and coregulators, thereby regulating target gene expression positively and negatively. Serves as a sensor of the cytosolic ratio of NAD(+)/NADH which is altered by glucose deprivation and metabolic changes associated with caloric restriction. Is essential in skeletal muscle cell differentiation and in response to low nutrients mediates the inhibitory effect on skeletal myoblast differentiation which also involves 5'-AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) and nicotinamide phosphoribosyltransferase (NAMPT) (By similarity). Component of the eNoSC (energy-dependent nucleolar silencing) complex, a complex that mediates silencing of rDNA in response to intracellular energy status and acts by recruiting histone-modifying enzymes. The eNoSC complex is able to sense the energy status of cell: upon glucose starvation, elevation of NAD(+)/NADP(+) ratio activates SIRT1, leading to histone H3 deacetylation followed by dimethylation of H3 at 'Lys-9' (H3K9me2) by SUV39H1 and the formation of silent chromatin in the rDNA locus. Deacetylates 'Lys-266' of SUV39H1, leading to its activation. Inhibits skeletal muscle differentiation by deacetylating PCAF and MYOD1. Deacetylates H2A and 'Lys-26' of H1-4. Deacetylates 'Lys-16' of histone H4 (in vitro). Involved in NR0B2/SHP corepression function through chromatin remodeling: Recruited to LRH1 target gene promoters by NR0B2/SHP thereby stimulating histone H3 and H4 deacetylation leading to transcriptional repression. Proposed to contribute to genomic integrity via positive regulation of telomere length; however, reports on localization to pericentromeric heterochromatin are conflicting (By similarity). Proposed to play a role in constitutive heterochromatin (CH) formation and/or maintenance through regulation of the available pool of nuclear SUV39H1. Upon oxidative/metabolic stress decreases SUV39H1 degradation by inhibiting SUV39H1 polyubiquitination by MDM2. This increase in SUV39H1 levels enhances SUV39H1 turnover in CH, which in turn seems to accelerate renewal of the heterochromatin which correlates with greater genomic integrity during stress response. Deacetylates 'Lys-382' of p53/TP53 and impairs its ability to induce transcription-dependent proapoptotic program and modulate cell senescence. Deacetylates TAF1B and thereby represses rDNA transcription by the RNA polymerase I (By similarity). Deacetylates MYC, promotes the association of MYC with MAX and decreases MYC stability leading to compromised transformational capability. Deacetylates FOXO3 in response to oxidative stress thereby increasing its ability to induce cell cycle arrest and resistance to oxidative stress but inhibiting FOXO3-mediated induction of apoptosis transcriptional activity; also leading to FOXO3 ubiquitination and protesomal degradation. Appears to have a similar effect on MLLT7/FOXO4 in regulation of transcriptional activity and apoptosis. Deacetylates DNMT1; thereby impairs DNMT1 methyltransferase-independent transcription repressor activity, modulates DNMT1 cell cycle regulatory function and DNMT1-mediated gene silencing. Deacetylates RELA/NF-kappa-B p65 thereby inhibiting its transactivating potential and augments apoptosis in response to TNF-alpha. Deacetylates HIF1A, KAT5/TIP60, RB1 and HIC1. Deacetylates FOXO1 resulting in its nuclear retention and enhancement of its transcriptional activity leading to increased gluconeogenesis in liver. Inhibits E2F1 transcriptional activity and apoptotic function, possibly by deacetylation. Involved in HES1- and HEY2-mediated transcriptional repression. In cooperation with MYCN seems to be involved in transcriptional repression of DUSP6/MAPK3 leading to MYCN stabilization by phosphorylation at 'Ser-62'. Deacetylates MEF2D. Required for antagonist-mediated transcription suppression of AR-dependent genes which may be linked to local deacetylation of histone H3. Represses HNF1A-mediated transcription (By similarity). Required for the repression of ESRRG by CREBZF. Deacetylates NR1H3 and NR1H2 and deacetylation of NR1H3 at 'Lys-434' positively regulates transcription of NR1H3:RXR target genes, promotes NR1H3 proteosomal degradation and results in cholesterol efflux; a promoter clearing mechanism after reach round of transcription is proposed. Involved in lipid metabolism: deacetylates LPIN1, thereby inhibiting diacylglycerol synthesis. Implicated in regulation of adipogenesis and fat mobilization in white adipocytes by repression of PPARG which probably involves association with NCOR1 and SMRT/NCOR2 (By similarity). Deacetylates p300/EP300 and PRMT1 (By similarity). Deacetylates ACSS2 leading to its activation, and HMGCS1 deacetylation. Involved in liver and muscle metabolism. Through deacetylation and activation of PPARGC1A is required to activate fatty acid oxidation in skeletal muscle under low-glucose conditions and is involved in glucose homeostasis. Involved in regulation of PPARA and fatty acid beta-oxidation in liver. Involved in positive regulation of insulin secretion in pancreatic beta cells in response to glucose; the function seems to imply transcriptional repression of UCP2. Proposed to deacetylate IRS2 thereby facilitating its insulin-induced tyrosine phosphorylation. Deacetylates SREBF1 isoform SREBP-1C thereby decreasing its stability and transactivation in lipogenic gene expression. Involved in DNA damage response by repressing genes which are involved in DNA repair, such as XPC and TP73, deacetylating XRCC6/Ku70, and facilitating recruitment of additional factors to sites of damaged DNA, such as SIRT1-deacetylated NBN can recruit ATM to initiate DNA repair and SIRT1-deacetylated XPA interacts with RPA2. Also involved in DNA repair of DNA double-strand breaks by homologous recombination and specifically single-strand annealing independently of XRCC6/Ku70 and NBN. Promotes DNA double-strand breaks by mediating deacetylation of SIRT6. Transcriptional suppression of XPC probably involves an E2F4:RBL2 suppressor complex and protein kinase B (AKT) signaling. Transcriptional suppression of TP73 probably involves E2F4 and PCAF. Deacetylates WRN thereby regulating its helicase and exonuclease activities and regulates WRN nuclear translocation in response to DNA damage. Deacetylates APEX1 at 'Lys-6' and 'Lys-7' and stimulates cellular AP endonuclease activity by promoting the association of APEX1 to XRCC1. Catalyzes deacetylation of ERCC4/XPF, thereby impairing interaction with ERCC1 and nucleotide excision repair (NER). Increases p53/TP53-mediated transcription- independent apoptosis by blocking nuclear translocation of cytoplasmic p53/TP53 and probably redirecting it to mitochondria. Deacetylates XRCC6/Ku70 at 'Lys-539' and 'Lys-542' causing it to sequester BAX away from mitochondria thereby inhibiting stress-induced apoptosis. Is involved in autophagy, presumably by deacetylating ATG5, ATG7 and MAP1LC3B/ATG8. Deacetylates AKT1 which leads to enhanced binding of AKT1 and PDK1 to PIP3 and promotes their activation. Proposed to play role in regulation of STK11/LBK1- dependent AMPK signaling pathways implicated in cellular senescence which seems to involve the regulation of the acetylation status of STK11/LBK1. Can deacetylate STK11/LBK1 and thereby increase its activity, cytoplasmic localization and association with STRAD; however, the relevance of such activity in normal cells is unclear. In endothelial cells is shown to inhibit STK11/LBK1 activity and to promote its degradation. Deacetylates SMAD7 at 'Lys-64' and 'Lys-70' thereby promoting its degradation. Deacetylates CIITA and augments its MHC class II transactivation and contributes to its stability. Deacetylates MECOM/EVI1. Deacetylates PML at 'Lys- 487' and this deacetylation promotes PML control of PER2 nuclear localization. During the neurogenic transition, represses selective NOTCH1-target genes through histone deacetylation in a BCL6-dependent manner and leading to neuronal differentiation. Regulates the circadian expression of several core clock genes, including BMAL1, RORC, PER2 and CRY1 and plays a critical role in maintaining a controlled rhythmicity in histone acetylation, thereby contributing to circadian chromatin remodeling. Deacetylates BMAL1 and histones at the circadian gene promoters in order to facilitate repression by inhibitory components of the circadian oscillator (By similarity). Deacetylates PER2, facilitating its ubiquitination and degradation by the proteosome (By similarity). Protects cardiomyocytes against palmitate-induced apoptosis (By similarity). Deacetylates XBP1 isoform 2; deacetylation decreases protein stability of XBP1 isoform 2 and inhibits its transcriptional activity. Deacetylates PCK1 and directs its activity toward phosphoenolpyruvate production promoting gluconeogenesis. Involved in the CCAR2-mediated regulation of PCK1 and NR1D1. Deacetylates CTNB1 at 'Lys-49'. In POMC (pro-opiomelanocortin) neurons, required for leptin-induced activation of PI3K signaling (By similarity). In addition to protein deacetylase activity, also acts as protein-lysine deacylase by mediating protein depropionylation and decrotonylation. Mediates depropionylation of Osterix (SP7) (By similarity). Catalyzes decrotonylation of histones; it however does not represent a major histone decrotonylase. Deacetylates SOX9; promoting SOX9 nuclear localization and transactivation activity (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of centrosome duplication. Deacetylates CENATAC in G1 phase, allowing for SASS6 accumulation on the centrosome and subsequent procentriole assembly. Deacetylates NDC80/HEC1.

NAD-dependent protein deacetylase, which deacetylates internal lysines on histone and alpha-tubulin as well as many other proteins such as key transcription factors. Participates in the modulation of multiple and diverse biological processes such as cell cycle control, genomic integrity, microtubule dynamics, cell differentiation, metabolic networks, and autophagy. Plays a major role in the control of cell cycle progression and genomic stability. Functions in the antephase checkpoint preventing precocious mitotic entry in response to microtubule stress agents, and hence allowing proper inheritance of chromosomes. Positively regulates the anaphase promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C) ubiquitin ligase complex activity by deacetylating CDC20 and FZR1, then allowing progression through mitosis. Associates both with chromatin at transcriptional start sites (TSSs) and enhancers of active genes. Plays a role in cell cycle and chromatin compaction through epigenetic modulation of the regulation of histone H4 'Lys-20' methylation (H4K20me1) during early mitosis. Specifically deacetylates histone H4 at 'Lys-16' (H4K16ac) between the G2/M transition and metaphase enabling H4K20me1 deposition by KMT5A leading to ulterior levels of H4K20me2 and H4K20me3 deposition throughout cell cycle, and mitotic S-phase progression. Deacetylates KMT5A modulating KMT5A chromatin localization during the mitotic stress response. Deacetylates also histone H3 at 'Lys-57' (H3K56ac) during the mitotic G2/M transition. Upon bacterium Listeria monocytogenes infection, deacetylates 'Lys-18' of histone H3 in a receptor tyrosine kinase MET- and PI3K/Akt-dependent manner, thereby inhibiting transcriptional activity and promoting late stages of listeria infection. During oocyte meiosis progression, may deacetylate histone H4 at 'Lys-16' (H4K16ac) and alpha-tubulin, regulating spindle assembly and chromosome alignment by influencing microtubule dynamics and kinetochore function. Deacetylates histone H4 at 'Lys-16' (H4K16ac) at the VEGFA promoter and thereby contributes to regulate expression of VEGFA, a key regulator of angiogenesis. Deacetylates alpha- tubulin at 'Lys-40' and hence controls neuronal motility, oligodendroglial cell arbor projection processes and proliferation of non-neuronal cells. Phosphorylation at Ser-368 by a G1/S-specific cyclin E-CDK2 complex inactivates SIRT2- mediated alpha-tubulin deacetylation, negatively regulating cell adhesion, cell migration and neurite outgrowth during neuronal differentiation. Deacetylates PARD3 and participates in the regulation of Schwann cell peripheral myelination formation during early postnatal development and during postinjury remyelination. Involved in several cellular metabolic pathways. Plays a role in the regulation of blood glucose homeostasis by deacetylating and stabilizing phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase PCK1 activity in response to low nutrient availability. Acts as a key regulator in the pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) by deacetylating and activating the glucose-6-phosphate G6PD enzyme, and therefore, stimulates the production of cytosolic NADPH to counteract oxidative damage. Maintains energy homeostasis in response to nutrient deprivation as well as energy expenditure by inhibiting adipogenesis and promoting lipolysis. Attenuates adipocyte differentiation by deacetylating and promoting FOXO1 interaction to PPARG and subsequent repression of PPARG-dependent transcriptional activity. Plays a role in the regulation of lysosome- mediated degradation of protein aggregates by autophagy in neuronal cells. Deacetylates FOXO1 in response to oxidative stress or serum deprivation, thereby negatively regulating FOXO1- mediated autophagy. Deacetylates a broad range of transcription factors and co-regulators regulating target gene expression. Deacetylates transcriptional factor FOXO3 stimulating the ubiquitin ligase SCF(SKP2)-mediated FOXO3 ubiquitination and degradation (By similarity). Deacetylates HIF1A and therefore promotes HIF1A degradation and inhibition of HIF1A transcriptional activity in tumor cells in response to hypoxia. Deacetylates RELA in the cytoplasm inhibiting NF-kappaB-dependent transcription activation upon TNF-alpha stimulation. Inhibits transcriptional activation by deacetylating p53/TP53 and EP300. Deacetylates also EIF5A. Functions as a negative regulator on oxidative stress-tolerance in response to anoxia-reoxygenation conditions. Plays a role as tumor suppressor. In addition to protein deacetylase activity, also has activity toward long-chain fatty acyl groups and mediates protein-lysine demyristoylation and depalmitoylation of target proteins, such as ARF6 and KRAS, thereby regulating their association with membranes.

NAD-dependent protein deacetylase. Activates or deactivates mitochondrial target proteins by deacetylating key lysine residues. Known targets include ACSS1, IDH, GDH, SOD2, PDHA1, LCAD, SDHA and the ATP synthase subunit ATP5PO. Contributes to the regulation of the cellular energy metabolism. Important for regulating tissue-specific ATP levels. In response to metabolic stress, deacetylates transcription factor FOXO3 and recruits FOXO3 and mitochondrial RNA polymerase POLRMT to mtDNA to promote mtDNA transcription. Acts as a regulator of ceramide metabolism by mediating deacetylation of ceramide synthases CERS1, CERS2 and CERS6, thereby increasing their activity and promoting mitochondrial ceramide accumulation (By similarity).

Acts as NAD-dependent protein lipoamidase, biotinylase, deacetylase and ADP-ribosyl transferase. Catalyzes more efficiently removal of lipoyl- and biotinyl- than acetyl-lysine modifications. Inhibits the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDH) activity via the enzymatic hydrolysis of the lipoamide cofactor from the E2 component, DLAT, in a phosphorylation-independent manner. Catalyzes the transfer of ADP-ribosyl groups onto target proteins, including mitochondrial GLUD1, inhibiting GLUD1 enzyme activity. Acts as a negative regulator of mitochondrial glutamine metabolism by mediating mono ADP-ribosylation of GLUD1: expressed in response to DNA damage and negatively regulates anaplerosis by inhibiting GLUD1, leading to block metabolism of glutamine into tricarboxylic acid cycle and promoting cell cycle arrest. In response to mTORC1 signal, SIRT4 expression is repressed, promoting anaplerosis and cell proliferation. Acts as a tumor suppressor. Also acts as a NAD-dependent protein deacetylase: mediates deacetylation of 'Lys-471' of MLYCD, inhibiting its activity, thereby acting as a regulator of lipid homeostasis (By similarity). Does not seem to deacetylate PC. Controls fatty acid oxidation by inhibiting PPARA transcriptional activation. Impairs SIRT1-PPARA interaction probably through the regulation of NAD(+) levels. Down-regulates insulin secretion.

NAD-dependent lysine demalonylase, desuccinylase and deglutarylase that specifically removes malonyl, succinyl and glutaryl groups on target proteins. Activates CPS1 and contributes to the regulation of blood ammonia levels during prolonged fasting: acts by mediating desuccinylation and deglutarylation of CPS1, thereby increasing CPS1 activity in response to elevated NAD levels during fasting. Activates SOD1 by mediating its desuccinylation, leading to reduced reactive oxygen species. Activates SHMT2 by mediating its desuccinylation. Modulates ketogenesis through the desuccinylation and activation of HMGCS2 (By similarity). Has weak NAD-dependent protein deacetylase activity; however this activity may not be physiologically relevant in vivo. Can deacetylate cytochrome c (CYCS) and a number of other proteins in vitro such as UOX.

NAD-dependent protein deacetylase, deacylase and mono-ADP- ribosyltransferase that plays an essential role in DNA damage repair, telomere maintenance, metabolic homeostasis, inflammation, tumorigenesis and aging. Displays protein- lysine deacetylase or defatty-acylase (demyristoylase and depalmitoylase) activity, depending on the context. Acts as a key histone deacetylase by catalyzing deacetylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-9', 'Lys-18' and 'Lys- 56' (H3K9ac, H3K18ac and H3K56ac, respectively), suppressing target gene expression of several transcription factors, including NF-kappa-B. Acts as an inhibitor of transcription elongation by mediating deacetylation of H3K9ac and H3K56ac, preventing release of NELFE from chromatin and causing transcriptional pausing (By similarity). Involved in DNA repair by promoting double-strand break (DSB) repair: acts as a DSB sensor by recognizing and binding DSB sites, leading to (1) recruitment of DNA repair proteins, such as SMARCA5/SNF2H, and (2) deacetylation of histone H3K9ac and H3K56ac. SIRT6 participation to DSB repair is probably involved in extension of life span (By similarity). Also promotes DNA repair by deacetylating non-histone proteins, such as DDB2 and p53/TP53. Specifically deacetylates H3K18ac at pericentric heterochromatin, thereby maintaining pericentric heterochromatin silencing at centromeres and protecting against genomic instability and cellular senescence. Involved in telomere maintenance by catalyzing deacetylation of histone H3 in telomeric chromatin, regulating telomere position effect and telomere movement in response to DNA damage. Required for embryonic stem cell differentiation by mediating histone deacetylation of H3K9ac. Plays a major role in metabolism by regulating processes such as glycolysis, gluconeogenesis, insulin secretion and lipid metabolism. Inhibits glycolysis via histone deacetylase activity and by acting as a corepressor of the transcription factor HIF1A, thereby controlling the expression of multiple glycolytic genes (By similarity). Has tumor suppressor activity by repressing glycolysis, thereby inhibiting the Warburg effect. Also regulates glycolysis and tumorigenesis by mediating deacetylation and nuclear export of non- histone proteins, such as isoform M2 of PKM (PKM2). Acts as a negative regulator of gluconeogenesis by mediating deacetylation of non-histone proteins, such as FOXO1 and KAT2A/GCN5. Promotes beta-oxidation of fatty acids during fasting by catalyzing deacetylation of NCOA2, inducing coactivation of PPARA (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of lipid catabolism in brown adipocytes, both by catalyzing deacetylation of histones and non-histone proteins, such as FOXO1 (By similarity). Also acts as a regulator of circadian rhythms, both by regulating expression of clock-controlled genes involved in lipid and carbohydrate metabolism, and by catalyzing deacetylation of PER2 (By similarity). The defatty-acylase activity is specifically involved in regulation of protein secretion. Has high activity toward long-chain fatty acyl groups and mediates protein-lysine demyristoylation and depalmitoylation of target proteins, such as RRAS2 and TNF, thereby regulating their secretion. Also acts as a mono-ADP- ribosyltransferase by mediating mono-ADP-ribosylation of PARP1, TRIM28/KAP1 or SMARCC2/BAF170. Mono-ADP-ribosyltransferase activity is involved in DNA repair, cellular senescence, repression of LINE-1 retrotransposon elements and regulation of transcription.

NAD-dependent protein-lysine deacylase that can act both as a deacetylase or deacylase (desuccinylase, depropionylase and deglutarylase), depending on the context. Specifically mediates deacetylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-18' (H3K18Ac). In contrast to other histone deacetylases, displays strong preference for a specific histone mark, H3K18Ac, directly linked to control of gene expression. H3K18Ac is mainly present around the transcription start site of genes and has been linked to activation of nuclear hormone receptors; SIRT7 thereby acts as a transcription repressor. Moreover, H3K18 hypoacetylation has been reported as a marker of malignancy in various cancers and seems to maintain the transformed phenotype of cancer cells. Also able to mediate deacetylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-36' (H3K36Ac) in the context of nucleosomes. Also mediates deacetylation of non-histone proteins, such as ATM, CDK9, DDX21, DDB1, FBL, FKBP5/FKBP51, GABPB1, RAN, RRP9/U3-55K and POLR1E/PAF53. Enriched in nucleolus where it stimulates transcription activity of the RNA polymerase I complex. Acts by mediating the deacetylation of the RNA polymerase I subunit POLR1E/PAF53, thereby promoting the association of RNA polymerase I with the rDNA promoter region and coding region. In response to metabolic stress, SIRT7 is released from nucleoli leading to hyperacetylation of POLR1E/PAF53 and decreased RNA polymerase I transcription. Required to restore the transcription of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) at the exit from mitosis. Promotes pre-ribosomal RNA (pre-rRNA) cleavage at the 5'-terminal processing site by mediating deacetylation of RRP9/U3- 55K, a core subunit of the U3 snoRNP complex. Mediates 'Lys-37' deacetylation of Ran, thereby regulating the nuclear export of NF-kappa-B subunit RELA/p65. Acts as a regulator of DNA damage repair by mediating deacetylation of ATM during the late stages of DNA damage response, promoting ATM dephosphorylation and deactivation. Suppresses the activity of the DCX (DDB1-CUL4-X-box) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes by mediating deacetylation of DDB1, which prevents the interaction between DDB1 and CUL4 (CUL4A or CUL4B). Activates RNA polymerase II transcription by mediating deacetylation of CDK9, thereby promoting 'Ser-2' phosphorylation of the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II. Deacetylates FBL, promoting histone- glutamine methyltransferase activity of FBL. Acts as a regulator of mitochondrial function by catalyzing deacetylation of GABPB1 (By similarity). Regulates Akt/AKT1 activity by mediating deacetylation of FKBP5/FKBP51. Required to prevent R- loop-associated DNA damage and transcription-associated genomic instability by mediating deacetylation and subsequent activation of DDX21, thereby overcoming R-loop-mediated stalling of RNA polymerases. In addition to protein deacetylase activity, also acts as protein-lysine deacylase. Acts as a protein depropionylase by mediating depropionylation of Osterix (SP7), thereby regulating bone formation by osteoblasts (By similarity). Acts as a histone deglutarylase by mediating deglutarylation of histone H4 on 'Lys-91' (H4K91glu); a mark that destabilizes nucleosomes by promoting dissociation of the H2A-H2B dimers from nucleosomes. Acts as a histone desuccinylase: in response to DNA damage, recruited to DNA double- strand breaks (DSBs) and catalyzes desuccinylation of histone H3 on 'Lys-122' (H3K122succ), thereby promoting chromatin condensation and DSB repair. Also promotes DSB repair by promoting H3K18Ac deacetylation, regulating non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) (By similarity). Along with its role in DNA repair, required for chromosome synapsis during prophase I of female meiosis by catalyzing H3K18Ac deacetylation (By similarity). Involved in transcriptional repression of LINE-1 retrotransposon via H3K18Ac deacetylation, and promotes their association with the nuclear lamina. Required to stabilize ribosomal DNA (rDNA) heterochromatin and prevent cellular senescence induced by rDNA instability. Acts as a negative regulator of SIRT1 by preventing autodeacetylation of SIRT1, restricting SIRT1 deacetylase activity (By similarity).

Immunoglobulin-like cell surface receptor involved in the negative regulation of receptor tyrosine kinase-coupled signaling processes. Participates also in the recruitment of tyrosine kinase SYK. Triggers activation of myeloid cells when associated with TYROBP.

Probable immunoglobulin-like cell surface receptor. On binding with CD47, mediates cell-cell adhesion. Engagement on T-cells by CD47 on antigen-presenting cells results in enhanced antigen- specific T-cell proliferation and costimulates T-cell activation.

Negatively regulates TCR (T-cell antigen receptor)-mediated signaling in T-cells. Involved in positive selection of T-cells.

Induces CD27-mediated apoptosis. Inhibits BCL2L1 isoform Bcl- x(L) anti-apoptotic activity. Inhibits activation of NF-kappa-B and promotes T-cell receptor-mediated apoptosis.

Transcription factor that is involved in the regulation of cell proliferation, apoptosis and embryonic development (By similarity). Plays an important role in the development of several organs, including kidney, muscle and inner ear (By similarity). Depending on context, functions as transcriptional repressor or activator (By similarity). Lacks an activation domain, and requires interaction with EYA family members for transcription activation. Mediates nuclear translocation of EYA1 and EYA2. Binds the 5'-TCA[AG][AG]TTNC-3' motif present in the MEF3 element in the MYOG promoter and CIDEA enhancer. Regulates the expression of numerous genes, including MYC, CCND1 and EZR (By similarity). Acts as activator of the IGFBP5 promoter, probably coactivated by EYA2 (By similarity). Repression of precursor cell proliferation in myoblasts is switched to activation through recruitment of EYA3 to the SIX1-DACH1 complex (By similarity). During myogenesis, seems to act together with EYA2 and DACH2 (By similarity). Regulates the expression of CCNA1. Promotes brown adipocyte differentiation (By similarity).

Transcription factor that plays an important role in the development of several organs, including kidney, skull and stomach. During kidney development, maintains cap mesenchyme multipotent nephron progenitor cells in an undifferentiated state by opposing the inductive signals emanating from the ureteric bud and cooperates with WNT9B to promote renewing progenitor cells proliferation. Acts through its interaction with TCF7L2 and OSR1 in a canonical Wnt signaling independent manner preventing transcription of differentiation genes in cap mesenchyme such as WNT4. Also acts independently of OSR1 to activate expression of many cap mesenchyme genes, including itself, GDNF and OSR1. During craniofacial development plays a role in growth and elongation of the cranial base through regulation of chondrocyte differentiation. During stomach organogenesis, controls pyloric sphincter formation and mucosal growth through regulation of a gene network including NKX2-5, BMPR1B, BMP4, SOX9 and GREM1. During branchial arch development, acts to mediate HOXA2 control over the insulin-like growth factor pathway. May also be involved in limb tendon and ligament development (By similarity). Plays a role in cell proliferation and migration.

Transcriptional regulator which can act as both a transcriptional repressor and activator by binding a ATTA homeodomain core recognition sequence on these target genes. During forebrain development represses WNT1 expression allowing zona limitans intrathalamica formation and thereby ensuring proper anterio-posterior patterning of the diencephalon and formation of the rostral diencephalon. Acts as a direct upstream activator of SHH expression in the rostral diencephalon ventral midline and that in turn SHH maintains its expression. In addition, Six3 activity is required for the formation of the telencephalon. During postnatal stages of brain development is necessary for ependymal cell maturation by promoting the maturation of radial glia into ependymal cells through regulation of neuroblast proliferation and migration. Acts on the proliferation and differentiation of neural progenitor cells through activating transcription of CCND1 and CCND2. During early lens formation plays a role in lens induction and specification by activating directly PAX6 in the presumptive lens ectoderm. In turn PAX6 activates SIX3 resulting in activation of PDGFRA and CCND1 promoting cell proliferation. Also is required for the neuroretina development by directly suppressing WNT8B expression in the anterior neural plate territory. Its action during retina development and lens morphogenesis is TLE5 and TLE4-dependent manner. Furthermore, during eye development regulates several genes expression. Before and during early lens development represses the CRYGF promoter by binding a SIX repressor element. Directly activates RHO transcription, or cooperates with CRX or NRL. Six3 functions also in the formation of the proximodistal axis of the optic cup, and promotes the formation of optic vesicles-like structures. During pituitary development, acts in parallel or alternatively with HESX1 to control cell proliferation through Wnt/beta-catenin pathway (By similarity). Plays a role in eye development by suppressing WNT1 expression and in dorsal-ventral patterning by repressing BMP signaling pathway.

Transcriptional regulator which can act as both a transcriptional repressor and activator by binding a DNA sequence on these target genes and is involved in processes like cell differentiation, cell migration and cell survival. Transactivates gene expression by binding a 5'-[CAT]A[CT][CT][CTG]GA[GAT]-3' motif present in the Trex site and a 5'-TCA[AG][AG]TTNC-3' motif present in the MEF3 site of the muscle-specific genes enhancer. Acts cooperatively with EYA proteins to transactivate their target genes through interaction and nuclear translocation of EYA protein. Acts synergistically with SIX1 to regulate target genes involved in formation of various organs, including muscle, kidney, gonad, ganglia, olfactory epithelium and cranial skeleton. Plays a role in several important steps of muscle development. Controls the genesis of hypaxial myogenic progenitors in the dermomyotome by transactivating PAX3 and the delamination and migration of the hypaxial precursors from the ventral lip to the limb buds through the transactivation of PAX3, MET and LBX1. Controls myoblast determination by transactivating MYF5, MYOD1 and MYF6. Controls somitic differentiation in myocyte through MYOG transactivation. Plays a role in synaptogenesis and sarcomere organization by participating in myofiber specialization during embryogenesis by activating fast muscle program in the primary myotome resulting in an up-regulation of fast muscle genes, including ATP2A1, MYL1 and TNNT3. Simultaneously, is also able to activate inhibitors of slow muscle genes, such as SOX6, HRASLS, and HDAC4, thereby restricting the activation of the slow muscle genes. During muscle regeneration, negatively regulates differentiation of muscle satellite cells through down-regulation of MYOG expression. During kidney development regulates the early stages of metanephros development and ureteric bud formation through regulation of GDNF, SALL1, PAX8 and PAX2 expression. Plays a role in gonad development by regulating both testis determination and size determination. In gonadal sex determination, transactivates ZFPM2 by binding a MEF3 consensus sequence, resulting in SRY up-regulation. In gonadal size determination, transactivates NR5A1 by binding a MEF3 consensus sequence resulting in gonadal precursor cell formation regulation. During olfactory development mediates the specification and patterning of olfactory placode through fibroblast growth factor and BMP4 signaling pathways and also regulates epithelial cell proliferation during placode formation. Promotes survival of sensory neurons during early trigeminal gangliogenesis. In the developing dorsal root ganglia, up-regulates SLC12A2 transcription. Regulates early thymus/parathyroid organogenesis through regulation of GCM2 and FOXN1 expression. Forms gustatory papillae during development of the tongue. Also plays a role during embryonic cranial skeleton morphogenesis.

Transcription factor that is thought to be involved in regulation of organogenesis. May be involved in determination and maintenance of retina formation. Binds a 5'-GGTGTCAG-3' motif present in the ARE regulatory element of ATP1A1. Binds a 5'-TCA[AG][AG]TTNC-3' motif present in the MEF3 element in the myogenin promoter, and in the IGFBP5 promoter (By similarity). Thought to be regulated by association with Dach and Eya proteins, and seems to be coactivated by EYA1, EYA2 and EYA3 (By similarity).

Component of the SKA1 complex, a microtubule-binding subcomplex of the outer kinetochore that is essential for proper chromosome segregation. Required for timely anaphase onset during mitosis, when chromosomes undergo bipolar attachment on spindle microtubules leading to silencing of the spindle checkpoint. The SKA1 complex is a direct component of the kinetochore-microtubule interface and directly associates with microtubules as oligomeric assemblies. The complex facilitates the processive movement of microspheres along a microtubule in a depolymerization- coupled manner. Affinity for microtubules is synergistically enhanced in the presence of the ndc-80 complex and may allow the ndc-80 complex to track depolymerizing microtubules. In the complex, it mediates the interaction with microtubules.

Component of the SKA1 complex, a microtubule-binding subcomplex of the outer kinetochore that is essential for proper chromosome segregation. Required for timely anaphase onset during mitosis, when chromosomes undergo bipolar attachment on spindle microtubules leading to silencing of the spindle checkpoint. The SKA1 complex is a direct component of the kinetochore-microtubule interface and directly associates with microtubules as oligomeric assemblies. The complex facilitates the processive movement of microspheres along a microtubule in a depolymerization- coupled manner. In the complex, it is required for SKA1 localization. Affinity for microtubules is synergistically enhanced in the presence of the ndc-80 complex and may allow the ndc-80 complex to track depolymerizing microtubules.

Component of the SKA1 complex, a microtubule-binding subcomplex of the outer kinetochore that is essential for proper chromosome segregation. The SKA1 complex is a direct component of the kinetochore-microtubule interface and directly associates with microtubules as oligomeric assemblies. The complex facilitates the processive movement of microspheres along a microtubule in a depolymerization-coupled manner. In the complex, it mediates the microtubule- stimulated oligomerization. Affinity for microtubules is synergistically enhanced in the presence of the ndc-80 complex and may allow the ndc-80 complex to track depolymerizing microtubules.

Positively regulates T-cell receptor signaling by enhancing the MAP kinase pathway. Required for optimal conjugation between T- cells and antigen-presenting cells by promoting the clustering of integrin ITGAL on the surface of T-cells. May be involved in high affinity immunoglobulin epsilon receptor signaling in mast cells.

May be involved in B-cell and macrophage adhesion processes. In B-cells, may act by coupling the B-cell receptor (BCR) to integrin activation. May play a role in src signaling pathway.

Essential component of the mitotic spindle required for faithful chromosome segregation and progression into anaphase. Promotes the metaphase-to-anaphase transition and is required for chromosome alignment, normal timing of sister chromatid segregation, and maintenance of spindle pole architecture. The astrin (SPAG5)-kinastrin (SKAP) complex promotes stable microtubule-kinetochore attachments. Required for kinetochore oscillations and dynamics of microtubule plus-ends during live cell mitosis, possibly by forming a link between spindle microtubule plus-ends and mitotic chromosomes to achieve faithful cell division. May be involved in UV-induced apoptosis via its interaction with PRPF19; however, these results need additional evidences.

Helicase; has ATPase activity. Component of the SKI complex which is thought to be involved in exosome-mediated RNA decay and associates with transcriptionally active genes in a manner dependent on PAF1 complex (PAF1C).

Component of the SKI complex which is thought to be involved in exosome-mediated RNA decay and associates with transcriptionally active genes in a manner dependent on PAF1 complex (PAF1C).

Component of the PAF1 complex (PAF1C) which has multiple functions during transcription by RNA polymerase II and is implicated in regulation of development and maintenance of embryonic stem cell pluripotency. PAF1C associates with RNA polymerase II through interaction with POLR2A CTD non-phosphorylated and 'Ser-2'- and 'Ser- 5'-phosphorylated forms and is involved in transcriptional elongation, acting both independently and synergistically with TCEA1 and in cooperation with the DSIF complex and HTATSF1. PAF1C is required for transcription of Hox and Wnt target genes. PAF1C is involved in hematopoiesis and stimulates transcriptional activity of KMT2A/MLL1; it promotes leukemogenesis through association with KMT2A/MLL1-rearranged oncoproteins, such as KMT2A/MLL1-MLLT3/AF9 and KMT2A/MLL1-MLLT1/ENL. PAF1C is involved in histone modifications such as ubiquitination of histone H2B and methylation on histone H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3). PAF1C recruits the RNF20/40 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex and the E2 enzyme UBE2A or UBE2B to chromatin which mediate monoubiquitination of 'Lys-120' of histone H2B (H2BK120ub1); UB2A/B-mediated H2B ubiquitination is proposed to be coupled to transcription. PAF1C is involved in mRNA 3' end formation probably through association with cleavage and poly(A) factors. In case of infection by influenza A strain H3N2, PAF1C associates with viral NS1 protein, thereby regulating gene transcription. Required for mono- and trimethylation on histone H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3), dimethylation on histone H3 'Lys-79' (H3K4me3). Required for Hox gene transcription. Component of the SKI complex which is thought to be involved in exosome-mediated RNA decay and associates with transcriptionally active genes in a manner dependent on PAF1C.

May have regulatory role in cell division or differentiation in response to extracellular signals

May play a role in terminal differentiation of skeletal muscle cells but not in the determination of cells to the myogenic lineage. Functions as a repressor of TGF-beta signaling.

Acts as a transcriptional corepressor of LBX1 (By similarity). Inhibits BMP signaling.

Exhibits transcriptional repressor activity (By similarity). Acts as a TGF-beta antagonist in the nervous system.

Essential component of the SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) ubiquitin ligase complex, which mediates the ubiquitination of proteins involved in cell cycle progression, signal transduction and transcription. In the SCF complex, serves as an adapter that links the F-box protein to CUL1. The functional specificity of the SCF complex depends on the F-box protein as substrate recognition component. SCF(BTRC) and SCF(FBXW11) direct ubiquitination of CTNNB1 and participate in Wnt signaling. SCF(FBXW11) directs ubiquitination of phosphorylated NFKBIA. SCF(BTRC) directs ubiquitination of NFKBIB, NFKBIE, ATF4, SMAD3, SMAD4, CDC25A, FBXO5, CEP68 and probably NFKB2. SCF(SKP2) directs ubiquitination of phosphorylated CDKN1B/p27kip and is involved in regulation of G1/S transition. SCF(SKP2) directs ubiquitination of ORC1, CDT1, RBL2, ELF4, CDKN1A, RAG2, FOXO1A, and probably MYC and TAL1. SCF(FBXW7) directs ubiquitination of cyclin E, NOTCH1 released notch intracellular domain (NICD), and probably PSEN1. SCF(FBXW2) directs ubiquitination of GCM1. SCF(FBXO32) directs ubiquitination of MYOD1. SCF(FBXO7) directs ubiquitination of BIRC2 and DLGAP5. SCF(FBXO33) directs ubiquitination of YBX1. SCF(FBXO11) directs ubiquitination of BCL6 and DTL but does not seem to direct ubiquitination of TP53. SCF(BTRC) mediates the ubiquitination of NFKBIA at 'Lys-21' and 'Lys-22'; the degradation frees the associated NFKB1-RELA dimer to translocate into the nucleus and to activate transcription. SCF(CCNF) directs ubiquitination of CCP110. SCF(FBXL3) and SCF(FBXL21) direct ubiquitination of CRY1 and CRY2. SCF(FBXO9) directs ubiquitination of TTI1 and TELO2. SCF(FBXO10) directs ubiquitination of BCL2.

Substrate recognition component of a SCF (SKP1-CUL1-F-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins involved in cell cycle progression, signal transduction and transcription. Specifically recognizes phosphorylated CDKN1B/p27kip and is involved in regulation of G1/S transition (By similarity). Degradation of CDKN1B/p27kip also requires CKS1. Recognizes target proteins ORC1, CDT1, RBL2, KMT2A/MLL1, CDK9, RAG2, FOXO1, UBP43, YTHDF2, and probably MYC, TOB1 and TAL1. Degradation of TAL1 also requires STUB1. Recognizes CDKN1A in association with CCNE1 or CCNE2 and CDK2. Promotes ubiquitination and destruction of CDH1 in a CK1-dependent manner, thereby regulating cell migration.

Involved in pH regulation to eliminate acids generated by active metabolism or to counter adverse environmental conditions. Major proton extruding system driven by the inward sodium ion chemical gradient. Plays an important role in signal transduction.

Involved in pH regulation to eliminate acids generated by active metabolism or to counter adverse environmental conditions. Major proton extruding system driven by the inward sodium ion chemical gradient. Seems to play an important role in colonic sodium absorption

Involved in pH regulation to eliminate acids generated by active metabolism or to counter adverse environmental conditions. Major proton extruding system driven by the inward sodium ion chemical gradient. Plays an important role in signal transduction. May play a specialized role in the kidney in rectifying cell volume in response to extreme fluctuations of hyperosmolar-stimulated cell shrinkage. Is relatively amiloride and ethylisopropylamiloride (EIPA) insensitive. Can be activated under conditions of hyperosmolar-induced cell shrinkage in a sustained intracellular acidification-dependence manner. Activated by 4,4'-diisothiocyanostilbene-2,2'-disulfonic acid (DIDS) in a sustained intracellular acidification-dependence manner. Affects potassium/proton exchange as well as sodium/proton and lithium/proton exchange. In basolateral cell membrane, participates in homeostatic control of intracellular pH, and may play a role in proton extrusion in order to achieve transepithelial HCO3(-) secretion. In apical cell membrane may be involved in mediating sodium absorption. Requires for normal levels of gastric acid secretion, secretory membrane development, parietal cell maturation and/or differentiation and at least secondarily for chief cell differentiation (By similarity).

Involved in pH regulation to eliminate acids generated by active metabolism or to counter adverse environmental conditions. Major proton extruding system driven by the inward sodium ion chemical gradient. Plays an important role in signal transduction (By similarity).

May act in electroneutral exchange of protons for Na(+) across membranes. Involved in the effusion of Golgi luminal H(+) in exchange for cytosolic cations. Involved in organelle ion homeostasis by contributing to the maintenance of the unique acidic pH values of the Golgi and post-Golgi compartments in the cell.

Sperm-specific Na(+)/H(+) exchanger involved in intracellular pH regulation of spermatozoa. Involved in sperm motility and fertility.

Na(+)/H(+) antiporter that extrudes Na(+) or Li(+) in exchange for external protons across the membrane. Contributes to the regulation of intracellular pH, sodium homeostasis, and cell volume. Plays an important role for insulin secretion and clathrin-mediated endocytosis in beta-cells (By similarity). Involved in sperm motility and fertility (By similarity). It is controversial whether SLC9B2 plays a role in osteoclast differentiation or not (By similarity).

Sperm-specific sodium/hydrogen exchanger involved in intracellular pH regulation of spermatozoa. Required for sperm motility and fertility. Involved in sperm cell hyperactivation, a step needed for sperm motility which is essential late in the preparation of sperm for fertilization. Required for the expression and bicarbonate regulation of the soluble adenylyl cyclase (sAC) (By similarity).

Self-ligand receptor of the signaling lymphocytic activation molecule (SLAM) family. SLAM receptors triggered by homo- or heterotypic cell-cell interactions are modulating the activation and differentiation of a wide variety of immune cells and thus are involved in the regulation and interconnection of both innate and adaptive immune response. Activities are controlled by presence or absence of small cytoplasmic adapter proteins, SH2D1A/SAP and/or SH2D1B/EAT-2. SLAMF1-induced signal-transduction events in T-lymphocytes are different from those in B-cells. Two modes of SLAMF1 signaling seem to exist: one depending on SH2D1A (and perhaps SH2D1B) and another in which protein-tyrosine phosphatase 2C (PTPN11)-dependent signal transduction operates. Initially it has been proposed that association with SH2D1A prevents binding to inhibitory effectors including INPP5D/SHIP1 and PTPN11/SHP-2. However, signaling is also regulated by SH2D1A which can simultaneously interact with and recruit FYN which subsequently phosphorylates and activates SLAMF1. Mediates IL-2-independent proliferation of activated T-cells during immune responses and induces IFN-gamma production (By similarity). Downstreaming signaling involves INPP5D, DOK1 and DOK2 leading to inhibited IFN-gamma production in T-cells, and PRKCQ, BCL10 and NFKB1 leading to increased T-cell activation and Th2 cytokine production (By similarity). Promotes T-cell receptor-induced IL-4 secretion by CD4(+) cells (By similarity). Inhibits antigen receptor- mediated production of IFN-gamma, but not IL-2, in CD4(-)/CD8(-) T- cells (By similarity). Required for IL-4 production by germinal centers T follicular helper (T(Fh))cells (By similarity). May inhibit CD40- induced signal transduction in monocyte-derived dendritic cells. May play a role in allergic responses and may regulate allergen-induced Th2 cytokine and Th1 cytokine secretion (By similarity). In conjunction with SLAMF6 controls the transition between positive selection and the subsequent expansion and differentiation of the thymocytic natural killer T (NKT) cell lineage. Involved in the peripheral differentiation of indifferent natural killer T (iNKT) cells toward a regulatory NKT2 type (By similarity). In macrophages involved in down-regulation of IL-12, TNF-alpha and nitric oxide in response to lipopolysaccharide (LPS) (By similarity). In B-cells activates the ERK signaling pathway independently of SH2D1A but implicating both, SYK and INPP5D, and activates Akt signaling dependent on SYK and SH2D1A (By similarity). In B-cells also activates p38 MAPK and JNK1 and JNK2. In conjunction with CD84/SLAMF5 and SLAMF6 may be a negative regulator of the humoral immune response (By similarity). Involved in innate immune response against Gram-negative bacteria in macrophages; probably recognizes OmpC and/or OmpF on the bacterial surface, regulates phagosome maturation and recruitment of the PI3K complex II (PI3KC3-C2) leading to accumulation of PdtIns(3)P and NOX2 activity in the phagosomes.

Self-ligand receptor of the signaling lymphocytic activation molecule (SLAM) family. SLAM receptors triggered by homo- or heterotypic cell-cell interactions are modulating the activation and differentiation of a wide variety of immune cells and thus are involved in the regulation and interconnection of both innate and adaptive immune response. Activities are controlled by presence or absence of small cytoplasmic adapter proteins, SH2D1A/SAP and/or SH2D1B/EAT-2. Can mediate natural killer (NK) cell cytotoxicity dependent on SH2D1A and SH2D1B (By similarity). Increases proliferative responses of activated T-cells and SH2D1A/SAP does not seem be required for this process. Homophilic interactions enhance interferon gamma/IFNG secretion in lymphocytes and induce platelet stimulation via a SH2D1A-dependent pathway. May serve as a marker for hematopoietic progenitor cells (PubMed:11564780, PubMed:12115647. PubMed:12928397, PubMed:12962726, PubMed:16037392) Required for a prolonged T-cell:B-cell contact, optimal T follicular helper function, and germinal center formation. In germinal centers involved in maintaining B-cell tolerance and in preventing autoimmunity (By similarity). In mast cells negatively regulates high affinity immunoglobulin epsilon receptor signaling; independent of SH2D1A and SH2D1B but implicating FES and PTPN6/SHP-1. In macrophages enhances LPS-induced MAPK phosphorylation and NF-kappaB activation and modulates LPS-induced cytokine secretion; involving ITSM 2 (By similarity). Positively regulates macroautophagy in primary dendritic cells via stabilization of IRF8; inhibits TRIM21-mediated proteasomal degradation of IRF8.

Self-ligand receptor of the signaling lymphocytic activation molecule (SLAM) family. SLAM receptors triggered by homo- or heterotypic cell-cell interactions are modulating the activation and differentiation of a wide variety of immune cells and thus are involved in the regulation and interconnection of both innate and adaptive immune response. Activities are controlled by presence or absence of small cytoplasmic adapter proteins, SH2D1A/SAP and/or SH2D1B/EAT-2. Triggers cytolytic activity only in natural killer cells (NK) expressing high surface densities of natural cytotoxicity receptors. Positive signaling in NK cells implicates phosphorylation of VAV1. NK cell activation seems to depend on SH2D1B and not on SH2D1A. In conjunction with SLAMF1 controls the transition between positive selection and the subsequent expansion and differentiation of the thymocytic natural killer T (NKT) cell lineage (By similarity). Promotes T-cell differentiation into a helper T-cell Th17 phenotype leading to increased IL-17 secretion; the costimulatory activity requires SH2D1A. Promotes recruitment of RORC to the IL-17 promoter. In conjunction with SLAMF1 and CD84/SLAMF5 may be a negative regulator of the humoral immune response. In the absence of SH2D1A/SAP can transmit negative signals to CD4(+) T- cells and NKT cells. Negatively regulates germinal center formation by inhibiting T-cell:B-cell adhesion; the function probably implicates increased association with PTPN6/SHP-1 via ITSMs in absence of SH2D1A/SAP. However, reported to be involved in maintaining B-cell tolerance in germinal centers and in preventing autoimmunity (By similarity).

Self-ligand receptor of the signaling lymphocytic activation molecule (SLAM) family. SLAM receptors triggered by homo- or heterotypic cell-cell interactions are modulating the activation and differentiation of a wide variety of immune cells and thus are involved in the regulation and interconnection of both innate and adaptive immune response. Activities are controlled by presence or absence of small cytoplasmic adapter proteins, SH2D1A/SAP and/or SH2D1B/EAT-2. Isoform 1 mediates NK cell activation through a SH2D1A-independent extracellular signal-regulated ERK-mediated pathway. Positively regulates NK cell functions by a mechanism dependent on phosphorylated SH2D1B. Downstream signaling implicates PLCG1, PLCG2 and PI3K. In addition to heterotypic NK cells-target cells interactions also homotypic interactions between NK cells may contribute to activation. However, in the absence of SH2D1B, inhibits NK cell function. Acts also inhibitory in T-cells (By similarity). May play a role in lymphocyte adhesion. In LPS-activated monocytes negatively regulates production of pro-inflammatory cytokines.

May play a role in B-lineage commitment and/or modulation of signaling through the B-cell receptor.

Binds to the plus end of microtubules and regulates microtubule dynamics and microtubule organization. Promotes cytoplasmic microtubule nucleation and elongation. Required for normal structure of the microtubule cytoskeleton during interphase.

Adapter protein, which negatively regulates T-cell receptor (TCR) signaling. Inhibits T-cell antigen-receptor induced activation of nuclear factor of activated T-cells. Involved in the negative regulation of positive selection and mitosis of T-cells. May act by linking signaling proteins such as ZAP70 with CBL, leading to a CBL dependent degradation of signaling proteins.

Adapter protein, which negatively regulates T-cell receptor (TCR) signaling. Inhibits T-cell antigen-receptor induced activation of nuclear factor of activated T-cells. May act by linking signaling proteins such as ZAP70 with CBL, leading to a CBL dependent degradation of signaling proteins.

RNA-binding protein involved in the histone pre-mRNA processing. Binds the stem-loop structure of replication- dependent histone pre-mRNAs and contributes to efficient 3'-end processing by stabilizing the complex between histone pre-mRNA and U7 small nuclear ribonucleoprotein (snRNP), via the histone downstream element (HDE). Plays an important role in targeting mature histone mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm and to the translation machinery. Stabilizes mature histone mRNA and could be involved in cell-cycle regulation of histone gene expression. Involved in the mechanism by which growing oocytes accumulate histone proteins that support early embryogenesis (By similarity). Binds to the 5' side of the stem-loop structure of histone pre-mRNAs (By similarity).

Involved in the high-affinity, sodium-independent transport of cystine and neutral and dibasic amino acids (system B(0,+)-like activity). May function as an activator of SLC7A9 and be involved in the high-affinity reabsorption of cystine in the kidney tubule.

Plays a role in the DNA damage response (DDR) pathway by regulating postreplication repair of UV-damaged DNA and genomic stability maintenance. The SLF1-SLF2 complex acts to link RAD18 with the SMC5-SMC6 complex at replication-coupled interstrand cross-links (ICL) and DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) sites on chromatin during DNA repair in response to stalled replication forks. Promotes the recruitment of SLF2 and the SMC5-SMC6 complex to DNA lesions.

Plays a role in the DNA damage response (DDR) pathway by regulating postreplication repair of UV-damaged DNA and genomic stability maintenance. The SLF1-SLF2 complex acts to link RAD18 with the SMC5-SMC6 complex at replication-coupled interstrand cross-links (ICL) and DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) sites on chromatin during DNA repair in response to stalled replication forks. Promotes the recruitment of the SMC5-SMC6 complex to DNA lesions.

GRF is released by the hypothalamus and acts on the adenohypophyse to stimulate the secretion of growth hormone

It is involved in synaptogenesis and promotes excitatory synapse differentiation. Enhances neuronal dendrite outgrowth.

It is involved in synaptogenesis and promotes excitatory synapse differentiation. Suppresses neurite outgrowth (By similarity).

It is involved in synaptogenesis and promotes synapse differentiation. Suppresses neurite outgrowth (By similarity).

Regulator of neurite outgrowth required for normal hearing and vision.

Nuclear GTPase found in germinal center B-cells, where it may inhibit function of the activation-induced cytidine deaminase AICDA. Reduces somatic hypermutation in B-cells which may enhance genome stability (By similarity).

RNA-binding protein that acts as a nuclear receptor corepressor. Probably acts by binding the SRA RNA, and repressing the SRA-mediated nuclear receptor coactivation. Binds the STR7 loop of SRA RNA. Also able to repress glucocorticoid (GR), androgen (AR), thyroid (TR) and VDR-mediated transactivation.

Thought to act as molecular guidance cue in cellular migration, and function appears to be mediated by interaction with roundabout homolog receptors. During neural development involved in axonal navigation at the ventral midline of the neural tube and projection of axons to different regions (By similarity). SLIT1 and SLIT2 together seem to be essential for midline guidance in the forebrain by acting as repulsive signal preventing inappropriate midline crossing by axons projecting from the olfactory bulb.

Thought to act as molecular guidance cue in cellular migration, and function appears to be mediated by interaction with roundabout homolog receptors. During neural development involved in axonal navigation at the ventral midline of the neural tube and projection of axons to different regions. SLIT1 and SLIT2 seem to be essential for midline guidance in the forebrain by acting as repulsive signal preventing inappropriate midline crossing by axons projecting from the olfactory bulb. In spinal cord development may play a role in guiding commissural axons once they reached the floor plate by modulating the response to netrin. In vitro, silences the attractive effect of NTN1 but not its growth-stimulatory effect and silencing requires the formation of a ROBO1-DCC complex. May be implicated in spinal cord midline post-crossing axon repulsion. In vitro, only commissural axons that crossed the midline responded to SLIT2. In the developing visual system appears to function as repellent for retinal ganglion axons by providing a repulsion that directs these axons along their appropriate paths prior to, and after passage through, the optic chiasm. In vitro, collapses and repels retinal ganglion cell growth cones. Seems to play a role in branching and arborization of CNS sensory axons, and in neuronal cell migration. In vitro, Slit homolog 2 protein N-product, but not Slit homolog 2 protein C-product, repels olfactory bulb (OB) but not dorsal root ganglia (DRG) axons, induces OB growth cones collapse and induces branching of DRG axons. Seems to be involved in regulating leukocyte migration.

May act as molecular guidance cue in cellular migration, and function may be mediated by interaction with roundabout homolog receptors

Inhibitor of DNA replication that promotes cell death in response to DNA damage. Acts as a guardian of the genome by killing cells with defective replication. Persistently blocks stressed replication forks by opening chromatin across replication initiation sites at stressed replication forks, possibly leading to unwind DNA ahead of the MCM helicase and block fork progression, ultimately leading to cell death. Acts independently of ATR. Also acts as an interferon (IFN)-induced antiviral protein which acts as an inhibitor of retrovirus protein synthesis. Specifically abrogates the production of retroviruses such as human immunodeficiency virus 1 (HIV-1) by acting as a specific inhibitor of the synthesis of retroviruses encoded proteins in a codon-usage-dependent manner. Binds to tRNAs and exploits the unique viral codon bias towards A/T nucleotides. The exact inhibition mechanism is unclear: may either sequester tRNAs, prevent their maturation via post- transcriptional processing or may accelerate their deacylation. Does not inhibit reverse transcription, integration or production and nuclear export of viral RNA.

Ribonuclease which is part of an E2/17beta-estradiol-induced pro-apoptotic signaling pathway. E2 stabilizes the PDE3A/SLFN12 complex in the cytosol, promoting the dephosphorylation of SLFN12 and activating its pro-apoptotic ribosomal RNA/rRNA ribonuclease activity. This apoptotic pathway might be relevant in tissues with high concentration of E2 and be for instance involved in placenta remodeling. May play a role in cell differentiation.

Endoribonuclease that cleaves tRNAs and rRNAs. Cleaves tRNAs 11 nucleotides from the 3'-terminus at the acceptor stem. Does not act on tRNA(Sec). Able to restrict HIV-1 virus replication; ability to inhibit HIV-1 replication is dependent on endoribonuclease activity.

[Protein SLFN14]: Shows no ribosome-associated and endoribonuclease activities.

Acid-stable proteinase inhibitor with strong affinities for trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase, and cathepsin G. Modulates the inflammatory and immune responses after bacterial infection, and after infection by the intracellular parasite L.major. Down-regulates responses to bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) (By similarity). Plays a role in regulating the activation of NF-kappa- B and inflammatory responses. Has antimicrobial activity against mycobacteria, but not against salmonella. Contributes to normal resistance against infection by M.tuberculosis. Required for normal resistance to infection by L.major. Required for normal wound healing, probably by preventing tissue damage by limiting protease activity (By similarity). Together with ELANE, required for normal differentiation and proliferation of bone marrow myeloid cells.

When overexpressed, acts as a general inhibitor of transcription that eventually leads to apoptosis.

Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Participates in the second catalytic step of pre-mRNA splicing, when the free hydroxyl group of exon I attacks the 3'-splice site to generate spliced mRNA and the excised lariat intron. Required for holding exon 1 properly in the spliceosome and for correct AG identification when more than one possible AG exists in 3'-splicing site region. May be involved in the activation of proximal AG. Probably also involved in alternative splicing regulation.

Has an antitumor activity. Was found to be a marker of late differentiation of the skin. Implicated in maintaining the physiological and structural integrity of the keratinocyte layers of the skin. In vitro down-regulates keratinocyte proliferation; the function may involve the proposed role as modulator of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs) activity. In vitro inhibits alpha-7-dependent nAChR currents in an allosteric manner. In T cells may be involved in regulation of intracellular Ca(2+) signaling. Seems to have an immunomodulatory function in the cornea (By similarity). The function may implicate a possible role as a scavenger receptor for PLAU thereby blocking PLAU-dependent functions of PLAUR such as in cell migration and proliferation.

Binds and may modulate the functional properties of nicotinic and muscarinic acetylcholine receptors. May regulate keratinocytes proliferation, differentiation and apoptosis. In vitro moderately inhibits ACh-evoked currents of alpha-3:beta-2-containing nAChRs and strongly these of alpha-4:beta-2-containing nAChRs, modulates alpha-7- containing nAChRs, and inhibits nicotine-induced signaling probably implicating alpha-3:beta-4-containing nAChRs. Proposed to act on alpha- 3:beta-2 and alpha-7 nAChRs in an orthosteric, and on mAChRs, such as CHRM1 and CHRM3, in an allosteric manner.

Catalytic subunit of the SLX1-SLX4 structure-specific endonuclease that resolves DNA secondary structures generated during DNA repair and recombination. Has endonuclease activity towards branched DNA substrates, introducing single-strand cuts in duplex DNA close to junctions with ss-DNA. Has a preference for 5'-flap structures, and promotes symmetrical cleavage of static and migrating Holliday junctions (HJs). Resolves HJs by generating two pairs of ligatable, nicked duplex products.

Regulatory subunit that interacts with and increases the activity of different structure-specific endonucleases. Has several distinct roles in protecting genome stability by resolving diverse forms of deleterious DNA structures originating from replication and recombination intermediates and from DNA damage. Component of the SLX1- SLX4 structure-specific endonuclease that resolves DNA secondary structures generated during DNA repair and recombination. Has endonuclease activity towards branched DNA substrates, introducing single-strand cuts in duplex DNA close to junctions with ss-DNA. Has a preference for 5'-flap structures, and promotes symmetrical cleavage of static and migrating Holliday junctions (HJs). Resolves HJs by generating two pairs of ligatable, nicked duplex products. Interacts with the structure-specific ERCC4-ERCC1 endonuclease and promotes the cleavage of bubble structures. Interacts with the structure-specific MUS81-EME1 endonuclease and promotes the cleavage of 3'-flap and replication fork-like structures. SLX4 is required for recovery from alkylation-induced DNA damage and is involved in the resolution of DNA double-strand breaks.

Transcriptional modulator activated by BMP (bone morphogenetic proteins) type 1 receptor kinase. SMAD1 is a receptor- regulated SMAD (R-SMAD). SMAD1/OAZ1/PSMB4 complex mediates the degradation of the CREBBP/EP300 repressor SNIP1. May act synergistically with SMAD4 and YY1 in bone morphogenetic protein (BMP)- mediated cardiac-specific gene expression.

Receptor-regulated SMAD (R-SMAD) that is an intracellular signal transducer and transcriptional modulator activated by TGF-beta (transforming growth factor) and activin type 1 receptor kinases. Binds the TRE element in the promoter region of many genes that are regulated by TGF-beta and, on formation of the SMAD2/SMAD4 complex, activates transcription. May act as a tumor suppressor in colorectal carcinoma. Positively regulates PDPK1 kinase activity by stimulating its dissociation from the 14-3-3 protein YWHAQ which acts as a negative regulator.

Receptor-regulated SMAD (R-SMAD) that is an intracellular signal transducer and transcriptional modulator activated by TGF-beta (transforming growth factor) and activin type 1 receptor kinases. Binds the TRE element in the promoter region of many genes that are regulated by TGF-beta and, on formation of the SMAD3/SMAD4 complex, activates transcription. Also can form a SMAD3/SMAD4/JUN/FOS complex at the AP- 1/SMAD site to regulate TGF-beta-mediated transcription. Has an inhibitory effect on wound healing probably by modulating both growth and migration of primary keratinocytes and by altering the TGF-mediated chemotaxis of monocytes. This effect on wound healing appears to be hormone-sensitive. Regulator of chondrogenesis and osteogenesis and inhibits early healing of bone fractures. Positively regulates PDPK1 kinase activity by stimulating its dissociation from the 14-3-3 protein YWHAQ which acts as a negative regulator.

In muscle physiology, plays a central role in the balance between atrophy and hypertrophy. When recruited by MSTN, promotes atrophy response via phosphorylated SMAD2/4. MSTN decrease causes SMAD4 release and subsequent recruitment by the BMP pathway to promote hypertrophy via phosphorylated SMAD1/5/8. Acts synergistically with SMAD1 and YY1 in bone morphogenetic protein (BMP)-mediated cardiac- specific gene expression. Binds to SMAD binding elements (SBEs) (5'- GTCT/AGAC-3') within BMP response element (BMPRE) of cardiac activating regions (By similarity). Common SMAD (co-SMAD) is the coactivator and mediator of signal transduction by TGF-beta (transforming growth factor). Component of the heterotrimeric SMAD2/SMAD3-SMAD4 complex that forms in the nucleus and is required for the TGF-mediated signaling. Promotes binding of the SMAD2/SMAD4/FAST-1 complex to DNA and provides an activation function required for SMAD1 or SMAD2 to stimulate transcription. Component of the multimeric SMAD3/SMAD4/JUN/FOS complex which forms at the AP1 promoter site; required for synergistic transcriptional activity in response to TGF- beta. May act as a tumor suppressor. Positively regulates PDPK1 kinase activity by stimulating its dissociation from the 14-3-3 protein YWHAQ which acts as a negative regulator.

Transcriptional modulator activated by BMP (bone morphogenetic proteins) type 1 receptor kinase. SMAD5 is a receptor- regulated SMAD (R-SMAD)

Transforming growth factor-beta superfamily receptors signaling occurs through the Smad family of intracellular mediators. SMAD6 is an inhibitory Smad (i-Smad) that negatively regulates signaling downstream of type I transforming growth factor-beta. Acts as a mediator of TGF-beta and BMP anti-inflammatory activities. Suppresses IL1R-TLR signaling through its direct interaction with PEL1, preventing NF-kappa-B activation, nuclear transport and NF-kappa-B- mediated expression of pro-inflammatory genes. Blocks the BMP-SMAD1 signaling pathway by competing with SMAD4 for receptor- activated SMAD1-binding. Binds to regulatory elements in target promoter regions.

Antagonist of signaling by TGF-beta (transforming growth factor) type 1 receptor superfamily members; has been shown to inhibit TGF-beta (Transforming growth factor) and activin signaling by associating with their receptors thus preventing SMAD2 access. Functions as an adapter to recruit SMURF2 to the TGF-beta receptor complex. Also acts by recruiting the PPP1R15A-PP1 complex to TGFBR1, which promotes its dephosphorylation. Positively regulates PDPK1 kinase activity by stimulating its dissociation from the 14-3-3 protein YWHAQ which acts as a negative regulator.

Transcriptional modulator activated by BMP (bone morphogenetic proteins) type 1 receptor kinase. SMAD9 is a receptor- regulated SMAD (R-SMAD)

Has transcriptional repressor activity. Overexpression inhibits the transcriptional activities of AP-1, p53/TP53 and CDKN1A.

May play a role in epithelial cell-cell contacts. May play a role in tumor invasiveness and metastasis formation.

Binds to type I regulatory subunits of protein kinase A (PKA- RI) and may anchor/target them to the plasma membrane.

ATP-dependent annealing helicase that binds selectively to fork DNA relative to ssDNA or dsDNA and catalyzes the rewinding of the stably unwound DNA. Rewinds single-stranded DNA bubbles that are stably bound by replication protein A (RPA). Acts throughout the genome to reanneal stably unwound DNA, performing the opposite reaction of many enzymes, such as helicases and polymerases, that unwind DNA. May play an important role in DNA damage response by acting at stalled replication forks.

GTPase activating protein that acts on ARF6. Plays a role in clathrin-dependent endocytosis. May play a role in erythropoiesis (By similarity).

GTPase activating protein that acts on ARF1. Can also activate ARF6 (in vitro). May play a role in clathrin-dependent retrograde transport from early endosomes to the trans-Golgi network (By similarity).

5' to 3' helicase that unwinds RNA and DNA duplexes in an ATP-dependent reaction. Specific to 5'-phosphorylated single-stranded guanine-rich sequences. May play a role in RNA metabolism, ribosome biogenesis or initiation of translation. May play a role in regulation of transcription (By similarity). Interacts with tRNA-Tyr.

Histone-binding protein, which is part of various corepressor complexes. Mediates the recruitment of corepressor complexes to target genes, followed by chromatin compaction and repression of transcription. Plays a role during myogenesis: required for the maintenance of undifferentiated states of myogenic progenitor cells via interaction with MYOD1. Interaction with MYOD1 leads to the recruitment of associated corepressors and silencing of MYOD1 target genes. Part of the SLC complex in germ cells, where it may play a role during spermatogenesis.

Involved in chromosome cohesion during cell cycle and in DNA repair. Central component of cohesin complex. The cohesin complex is required for the cohesion of sister chromatids after DNA replication. The cohesin complex apparently forms a large proteinaceous ring within which sister chromatids can be trapped. At anaphase, the complex is cleaved and dissociates from chromatin, allowing sister chromatids to segregate. The cohesin complex may also play a role in spindle pole assembly during mitosis. Involved in DNA repair via its interaction with BRCA1 and its related phosphorylation by ATM, or via its phosphorylation by ATR. Works as a downstream effector both in the ATM/NBS1 branch and in the ATR/MSH2 branch of S-phase checkpoint.

Meiosis-specific component of cohesin complex. Required for the maintenance of meiotic cohesion, but not, or only to a minor extent, for its establishment. Contributes to axial element (AE) formation and the organization of chromatin loops along the AE. Plays a key role in synapsis, recombination and chromosome movements. The cohesin complex is required for the cohesion of sister chromatids after DNA replication. The cohesin complex apparently forms a large proteinaceous ring within which sister chromatids can be trapped. At anaphase, the complex is cleaved and dissociates from chromatin, allowing sister chromatids to segregate. The meiosis-specific cohesin complex probably replaces mitosis specific cohesin complex when it dissociates from chromatin during prophase I (By similarity).

Central component of the condensin complex, a complex required for conversion of interphase chromatin into mitotic-like condense chromosomes. The condensin complex probably introduces positive supercoils into relaxed DNA in the presence of type I topoisomerases and converts nicked DNA into positive knotted forms in the presence of type II topoisomerases.

Central component of cohesin, a complex required for chromosome cohesion during the cell cycle. The cohesin complex may form a large proteinaceous ring within which sister chromatids can be trapped. At anaphase, the complex is cleaved and dissociates from chromatin, allowing sister chromatids to segregate. Cohesion is coupled to DNA replication and is involved in DNA repair. The cohesin complex also plays an important role in spindle pole assembly during mitosis and in chromosomes movement.

Core component of the SMC5-SMC6 complex, a complex involved in repair of DNA double-strand breaks by homologous recombination. The complex may promote sister chromatid homologous recombination by recruiting the SMC1-SMC3 cohesin complex to double-strand breaks. The complex is required for telomere maintenance via recombination in ALT (alternative lengthening of telomeres) cell lines and mediates sumoylation of shelterin complex (telosome) components which is proposed to lead to shelterin complex disassembly in ALT-associated PML bodies (APBs). Required for recruitment of telomeres to PML nuclear bodies. Required for sister chromatid cohesion during prometaphase and mitotic progression; the function seems to be independent of SMC6. SMC5-SMC6 complex may prevent transcription of episomal DNA, such as circular viral DNA genome.

Core component of the SMC5-SMC6 complex, a complex involved in DNA double-strand breaks by homologous recombination. The complex may promote sister chromatid homologous recombination by recruiting the SMC1-SMC3 cohesin complex to double-strand breaks. The complex is required for telomere maintenance via recombination in ALT (alternative lengthening of telomeres) cell lines and mediates sumoylation of shelterin complex (telosome) components which is proposed to lead to shelterin complex disassembly in ALT-associated PML bodies (APBs). Required for recruitment of telomeres to PML nuclear bodies. SMC5-SMC6 complex may prevent transcription of episomal DNA, such as circular viral DNA genome.

Involved in transcriptional activation and repression of select genes by chromatin remodeling (alteration of DNA-nucleosome topology). Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complexes that carry out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA-histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP-dependent manner. Binds DNA non-specifically. Belongs to the neural progenitors-specific chromatin remodeling complex (npBAF complex) and the neuron-specific chromatin remodeling complex (nBAF complex). During neural development a switch from a stem/progenitor to a postmitotic chromatin remodeling mechanism occurs as neurons exit the cell cycle and become committed to their adult state. The transition from proliferating neural stem/progenitor cells to postmitotic neurons requires a switch in subunit composition of the npBAF and nBAF complexes. As neural progenitors exit mitosis and differentiate into neurons, npBAF complexes which contain ACTL6A/BAF53A and PHF10/BAF45A, are exchanged for homologous alternative ACTL6B/BAF53B and DPF1/BAF45B or DPF3/BAF45C subunits in neuron- specific complexes (nBAF). The npBAF complex is essential for the self- renewal/proliferative capacity of the multipotent neural stem cells. The nBAF complex along with CREST plays a role regulating the activity of genes essential for dendrite growth (By similarity).

Involved in transcriptional activation and repression of select genes by chromatin remodeling (alteration of DNA-nucleosome topology). Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complexes that carry out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA-histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP-dependent manner. Component of the CREST-BRG1 complex, a multiprotein complex that regulates promoter activation by orchestrating the calcium- dependent release of a repressor complex and the recruitment of an activator complex. In resting neurons, transcription of the c-FOS promoter is inhibited by SMARCA4-dependent recruitment of a phospho- RB1-HDAC repressor complex. Upon calcium influx, RB1 is dephosphorylated by calcineurin, which leads to release of the repressor complex. At the same time, there is increased recruitment of CREBBP to the promoter by a CREST-dependent mechanism, which leads to transcriptional activation. The CREST-BRG1 complex also binds to the NR2B promoter, and activity-dependent induction of NR2B expression involves the release of HDAC1 and recruitment of CREBBP. Belongs to the neural progenitors-specific chromatin remodeling complex (npBAF complex) and the neuron-specific chromatin remodeling complex (nBAF complex). During neural development, a switch from a stem/progenitor to a postmitotic chromatin remodeling mechanism occurs as neurons exit the cell cycle and become committed to their adult state. The transition from proliferating neural stem/progenitor cells to postmitotic neurons requires a switch in subunit composition of the npBAF and nBAF complexes. As neural progenitors exit mitosis and differentiate into neurons, npBAF complexes which contain ACTL6A/BAF53A and PHF10/BAF45A, are exchanged for homologous alternative ACTL6B/BAF53B and DPF1/BAF45B or DPF3/BAF45C subunits in neuron-specific complexes (nBAF). The npBAF complex is essential for the self-renewal/proliferative capacity of the multipotent neural stem cells. The nBAF complex along with CREST plays a role regulating the activity of genes essential for dendrite growth. SMARCA4/BAF190A may promote neural stem cell self-renewal/proliferation by enhancing Notch-dependent proliferative signals, while concurrently making the neural stem cell insensitive to SHH-dependent differentiating cues (By similarity). Acts as a corepressor of ZEB1 to regulate E-cadherin transcription and is required for induction of epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT) by ZEB1. Binds via DLX1 to enhancers located in the intergenic region between DLX5 and DLX6 and this binding is stabilized by the long non-coding RNA (lncRNA) Evf2 (By similarity). Binds to RNA in a promiscuous manner (By similarity). Binding to RNAs including lncRNA Evf2 leads to inhibition of SMARCA4 ATPase and chromatin remodeling activities (By similarity).

Helicase that possesses intrinsic ATP-dependent nucleosome- remodeling activity. Catalytic subunit of ISWI chromatin-remodeling complexes, which form ordered nucleosome arrays on chromatin and facilitate access to DNA during DNA- templated processes such as DNA replication, transcription, and repair; this may require intact histone H4 tails. Within the ISWI chromatin-remodeling complexes, slides edge- and center-positioned histone octamers away from their original location on the DNA template. Catalytic activity and histone octamer sliding propensity is regulated and determined by components of the ISWI chromatin-remodeling complexes. The BAZ1A/ACF1-, BAZ1B/WSTF-, BAZ2A/TIP5- and BAZ2B- containing ISWI chromatin-remodeling complexes regulate the spacing of nucleosomes along the chromatin and have the ability to slide mononucleosomes to the center of a DNA template in an ATP-dependent manner. The CECR2- and RSF1-containing ISWI chromatin-remodeling complexes do not have the ability to slide mononucleosomes to the center of a DNA template. Binds to core histones together with RSF1, and is required for the assembly of regular nucleosome arrays by the RSF-5 ISWI chromatin-remodeling complex. Involved in DNA replication and together with BAZ1A/ACF1 is required for replication of pericentric heterochromatin in S-phase. Probably plays a role in repression of RNA polymerase I dependent transcription of the rDNA locus, through the recruitment of the SIN3/HDAC1 corepressor complex to the rDNA promoter (By similarity). Essential component of the WICH-5 ISWI chromatin- remodeling complex (also called the WICH complex), a chromatin- remodeling complex that mobilizes nucleosomes and reconfigures irregular chromatin to a regular nucleosomal array structure. The WICH-5 ISWI chromatin- remodeling complex regulates the transcription of various genes, has a role in RNA polymerase I transcription (By similarity). Within the B- WICH complex has a role in RNA polymerase III transcription. Mediates the histone H2AX phosphorylation at 'Tyr- 142', and is involved in the maintenance of chromatin structures during DNA replication processes (By similarity). Essential component of NoRC- 5 ISWI chromatin-remodeling complex, a complex that mediates silencing of a fraction of rDNA by recruiting histone-modifying enzymes and DNA methyltransferases, leading to heterochromatin formation and transcriptional silencing (By similarity).

Involved in transcriptional activation and repression of select genes by chromatin remodeling (alteration of DNA-nucleosome topology). Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complexes that carry out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA-histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP-dependent manner. Belongs to the neural progenitors-specific chromatin remodeling complex (npBAF complex) and the neuron-specific chromatin remodeling complex (nBAF complex). During neural development a switch from a stem/progenitor to a postmitotic chromatin remodeling mechanism occurs as neurons exit the cell cycle and become committed to their adult state. The transition from proliferating neural stem/progenitor cells to postmitotic neurons requires a switch in subunit composition of the npBAF and nBAF complexes. As neural progenitors exit mitosis and differentiate into neurons, npBAF complexes which contain ACTL6A/BAF53A and PHF10/BAF45A, are exchanged for homologous alternative ACTL6B/BAF53B and DPF1/BAF45B or DPF3/BAF45C subunits in neuron- specific complexes (nBAF). The npBAF complex is essential for the self- renewal/proliferative capacity of the multipotent neural stem cells. The nBAF complex along with CREST plays a role regulating the activity of genes essential for dendrite growth (By similarity). Required for the coactivation of estrogen responsive promoters by SWI/SNF complexes and the SRC/p160 family of histone acetyltransferases (HATs). Also specifically interacts with the CoREST corepressor resulting in repression of neuronal specific gene promoters in non-neuronal cells.

Component of the C9orf72-SMCR8 complex, a complex that has guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) activity and regulates autophagy. In the complex, C9orf72 and SMCR8 probably constitute the catalytic subunits that promote the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP-bound RAB8A and RAB39B into their active GTP-bound form, thereby promoting autophagosome maturation. The C9orf72-SMCR8 complex also acts as a negative regulator of autophagy initiation by interacting with the ULK1/ATG1 kinase complex and inhibiting its protein kinase activity. As part of the C9orf72-SMCR8 complex, stimulates RAB8A and RAB11A GTPase activity in vitro. Acts as a regulator of mTORC1 signaling by promoting phosphorylation of mTORC1 substrates. In addition to its activity in the cytoplasm within the C9orf72-SMCR8 complex, SMCR8 also localizes in the nucleus, where it associates with chromatin and negatively regulates expression of suppresses ULK1 and WIPI2 genes.

Plays a role in pre-mRNA splicing as a core component of the spliceosomal U1, U2, U4 and U5 small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs), the building blocks of the spliceosome. Component of both the pre-catalytic spliceosome B complex and activated spliceosome C complexes. Is also a component of the minor U12 spliceosome. May act as a charged protein scaffold to promote snRNP assembly or strengthen snRNP-snRNP interactions through non-specific electrostatic contacts with RNA (Probable).

Plays a role in pre-mRNA splicing as a core component of the spliceosomal U1, U2, U4 and U5 small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs), the building blocks of the spliceosome. Component of both the pre-catalytic spliceosome B complex and activated spliceosome C complexes. Is also a component of the minor U12 spliceosome.

Plays a role in pre-mRNA splicing as a core component of the spliceosomal U1, U2, U4 and U5 small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs), the building blocks of the spliceosome. Component of both the pre-catalytic spliceosome B complex and activated spliceosome C complexes. Is also a component of the minor U12 spliceosome. As part of the U7 snRNP it is involved in histone pre-mRNA 3'-end processing (By similarity).

Serine/threonine protein kinase involved in both mRNA surveillance and genotoxic stress response pathways. Recognizes the substrate consensus sequence [ST]-Q. Plays a central role in nonsense- mediated decay (NMD) of mRNAs containing premature stop codons by phosphorylating UPF1/RENT1. Recruited by release factors to stalled ribosomes together with SMG8 and SMG9 (forming the SMG1C protein kinase complex), and UPF1 to form the transient SURF (SMG1-UPF1-eRF1-eRF3) complex. In EJC-dependent NMD, the SURF complex associates with the exon junction complex (EJC) through UPF2 and allows the formation of an UPF1-UPF2-UPF3 surveillance complex which is believed to activate NMD. Also acts as a genotoxic stress-activated protein kinase that displays some functional overlap with ATM. Can phosphorylate p53/TP53 and is required for optimal p53/TP53 activation after cellular exposure to genotoxic stress. Its depletion leads to spontaneous DNA damage and increased sensitivity to ionizing radiation (IR). May activate PRKCI but not PRKCZ.

Plays a role in nonsense-mediated mRNA decay. Does not have RNase activity by itself. Promotes dephosphorylation of UPF1. Together with SMG7 is thought to provide a link to the mRNA degradation machinery involving exonucleolytic pathways, and to serve as an adapter for UPF1 to protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A), thereby triggering UPF1 dephosphorylation. Necessary for TERT activity.

Involved in nonsense-mediated decay (NMD) of mRNAs containing premature stop codons. Is recruited by release factors to stalled ribosomes together with SMG1 and SMG9 (forming the SMG1C protein kinase complex) and, in the SMG1C complex, is required to mediate the recruitment of SMG1 to the ribosome:SURF complex and to suppress SMG1 kinase activity until the ribosome:SURF complex locates the exon junction complex (EJC). Acts as a regulator of kinase activity.

Involved in nonsense-mediated decay (NMD) of mRNAs containing premature stop codons. Is recruited by release factors to stalled ribosomes together with SMG1 and SMG8 (forming the SMG1C protein kinase complex) and, in the SMG1C complex, is required for the efficient association between SMG1 and SMG8. Plays a role in brain, heart, and eye development (By similarity).

Non-canonical member of the structural maintenance of chromosomes (SMC) protein family that plays a key role in epigenetic silencing by regulating chromatin architecture (By similarity). Promotes heterochromatin formation in both autosomes and chromosome X, probably by mediating the merge of chromatin compartments (By similarity). Plays a key role in chromosome X inactivation in females by promoting the spreading of heterochromatin. Recruited to inactivated chromosome X by Xist RNA and acts by mediating the merge of chromatin compartments: promotes random chromatin interactions that span the boundaries of existing structures, leading to create a compartment-less architecture typical of inactivated chromosome X (By similarity). Required to facilitate Xist RNA spreading (By similarity). Also required for silencing of a subset of clustered autosomal loci in somatic cells, such as the DUX4 locus. Has ATPase activity; may participate in structural manipulation of chromatin in an ATP-dependent manner as part of its role in gene expression regulation. Also plays a role in DNA repair: localizes to sites of DNA double-strand breaks in response to DNA damage to promote the repair of DNA double-strand breaks. Acts by promoting non- homologous end joining (NHEJ) and inhibiting homologous recombination (HR) repair.

Mitochondrial ribosome-associated protein involved in the first steps of cytochrome c oxidase complex (complex IV) assembly.

The SMN complex catalyzes the assembly of small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs), the building blocks of the spliceosome, and thereby plays an important role in the splicing of cellular pre- mRNAs. Most spliceosomal snRNPs contain a common set of Sm proteins SNRPB, SNRPD1, SNRPD2, SNRPD3, SNRPE, SNRPF and SNRPG that assemble in a heptameric protein ring on the Sm site of the small nuclear RNA to form the core snRNP (Sm core). In the cytosol, the Sm proteins SNRPD1, SNRPD2, SNRPE, SNRPF and SNRPG are trapped in an inactive 6S pICln-Sm complex by the chaperone CLNS1A that controls the assembly of the core snRNP. To assemble core snRNPs, the SMN complex accepts the trapped 5Sm proteins from CLNS1A forming an intermediate. Within the SMN complex, SMN1 acts as a structural backbone and together with GEMIN2 it gathers the Sm complex subunits. Binding of snRNA inside 5Sm ultimately triggers eviction of the SMN complex, thereby allowing binding of SNRPD3 and SNRPB to complete assembly of the core snRNP. Ensures the correct splicing of U12 intron- containing genes that may be important for normal motor and proprioceptive neurons development. Also required for resolving RNA-DNA hybrids created by RNA polymerase II, that form R- loop in transcription terminal regions, an important step in proper transcription termination. May also play a role in the metabolism of small nucleolar ribonucleoprotein (snoRNPs).

Plays essential roles in both eye and limb development. Probable regulator of osteoblast differentiation.

Promotes matrix assembly and cell adhesiveness (By similarity). Can stimulate endothelial cell proliferation, migration, as well as angiogenesis.

Flavoenzyme which catalyzes the oxidation of spermine to spermidine. Can also use N(1)-acetylspermine and spermidine as substrates, with different affinity depending on the isoform (isozyme) and on the experimental conditions. Plays an important role in the regulation of polyamine intracellular concentration and has the potential to act as a determinant of cellular sensitivity to the antitumor polyamine analogs. May contribute to beta-alanine production via aldehyde dehydrogenase conversion of 3-amino-propanal

G protein-coupled receptor that probably associates with the patched protein (PTCH) to transduce the hedgehog's proteins signal. Binding of sonic hedgehog (SHH) to its receptor patched is thought to prevent normal inhibition by patched of smoothened (SMO). Required for the accumulation of KIF7, GLI2 and GLI3 in the cilia. Interacts with DLG5 at the ciliary base to induce the accumulation of KIF7 and GLI2 at the ciliary tip for GLI2 activation (By similarity).

Plays a role in the regulatory network through which muscle cells coordinate their structural and functional states during growth, adaptation, and repair.

Involved in transcriptional activation and repression of select genes by chromatin remodeling (alteration of DNA-nucleosome topology). Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complexes that carry out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA-histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP-dependent manner. May stimulate the ATPase activity of the catalytic subunit of the complex. Belongs to the neural progenitors-specific chromatin remodeling complex (npBAF complex) and the neuron-specific chromatin remodeling complex (nBAF complex). During neural development a switch from a stem/progenitor to a postmitotic chromatin remodeling mechanism occurs as neurons exit the cell cycle and become committed to their adult state. The transition from proliferating neural stem/progenitor cells to postmitotic neurons requires a switch in subunit composition of the npBAF and nBAF complexes. As neural progenitors exit mitosis and differentiate into neurons, npBAF complexes which contain ACTL6A/BAF53A and PHF10/BAF45A, are exchanged for homologous alternative ACTL6B/BAF53B and DPF1/BAF45B or DPF3/BAF45C subunits in neuron-specific complexes (nBAF). The npBAF complex is essential for the self-renewal/proliferative capacity of the multipotent neural stem cells. The nBAF complex along with CREST plays a role regulating the activity of genes essential for dendrite growth (By similarity).

DNA helicase that possesses intrinsic ATP-dependent nucleosome-remodeling activity and is both required for DNA repair and heterochromatin organization. Promotes DNA end resection of double- strand breaks (DSBs) following DNA damage: probably acts by weakening histone DNA interactions in nucleosomes flanking DSBs. Required for the restoration of heterochromatin organization after replication. Acts at replication sites to facilitate the maintenance of heterochromatin by directing H3 and H4 histones deacetylation, H3 'Lys-9' trimethylation (H3K9me3) and restoration of silencing.

Involved in transcriptional activation and repression of select genes by chromatin remodeling (alteration of DNA-nucleosome topology). Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complexes that carry out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA-histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP-dependent manner. Belongs to the neural progenitors-specific chromatin remodeling complex (npBAF complex) and the neuron-specific chromatin remodeling complex (nBAF complex). During neural development a switch from a stem/progenitor to a postmitotic chromatin remodeling mechanism occurs as neurons exit the cell cycle and become committed to their adult state. The transition from proliferating neural stem/progenitor cells to postmitotic neurons requires a switch in subunit composition of the npBAF and nBAF complexes. As neural progenitors exit mitosis and differentiate into neurons, npBAF complexes which contain ACTL6A/BAF53A and PHF10/BAF45A, are exchanged for homologous alternative ACTL6B/BAF53B and DPF1/BAF45B or DPF3/BAF45C subunits in neuron-specific complexes (nBAF). The npBAF complex is essential for the self-renewal/proliferative capacity of the multipotent neural stem cells. The nBAF complex along with CREST plays a role regulating the activity of genes essential for dendrite growth (By similarity). Has a strong influence on vitamin D-mediated transcriptional activity from an enhancer vitamin D receptor element (VDRE). May be a link between mammalian SWI-SNF-like chromatin remodeling complexes and the vitamin D receptor (VDR) heterodimer. Mediates critical interactions between nuclear receptors and the BRG1/SMARCA4 chromatin-remodeling complex for transactivation. Interacts with AKIRIN2 (By similarity).

Involved in transcriptional activation and repression of select genes by chromatin remodeling (alteration of DNA-nucleosome topology). Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complexes that carry out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA-histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP-dependent manner. Critical regulator of myeloid differentiation, controlling granulocytopoiesis and the expression of genes involved in neutrophil granule formation.

Involved in transcriptional activation and repression of select genes by chromatin remodeling (alteration of DNA-nucleosome topology). Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complexes that carry out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA-histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP-dependent manner. Stimulates nuclear receptor mediated transcription. Belongs to the neural progenitors-specific chromatin remodeling complex (npBAF complex) and the neuron-specific chromatin remodeling complex (nBAF complex). During neural development a switch from a stem/progenitor to a postmitotic chromatin remodeling mechanism occurs as neurons exit the cell cycle and become committed to their adult state. The transition from proliferating neural stem/progenitor cells to postmitotic neurons requires a switch in subunit composition of the npBAF and nBAF complexes. As neural progenitors exit mitosis and differentiate into neurons, npBAF complexes which contain ACTL6A/BAF53A and PHF10/BAF45A, are exchanged for homologous alternative ACTL6B/BAF53B and DPF1/BAF45B or DPF3/BAF45C subunits in neuron-specific complexes (nBAF). The npBAF complex is essential for the self-renewal/proliferative capacity of the multipotent neural stem cells. The nBAF complex along with CREST plays a role regulating the activity of genes essential for dendrite growth (By similarity).

May play a role in spermatogenesis (By similarity). May be involved in differentiation or function of ciliated cells.

Major sphingomyelin synthase at the Golgi apparatus. Catalyzes the reversible transfer of phosphocholine moiety in sphingomyelin biosynthesis: in the forward reaction transfers phosphocholine head group of phosphatidylcholine (PC) on to ceramide (CER) to form ceramide phosphocholine (sphingomyelin, SM) and diacylglycerol (DAG) as by-product, and in the reverse reaction transfers phosphocholine from SM to DAG to form PC and CER. The direction of the reaction depends on the levels of CER and DAG in Golgi membranes. Does not use free phosphorylcholine or CDP-choline as donor. Regulates receptor-mediated signal transduction via mitogenic DAG and proapoptotic CER, as well as via SM, a structural component of membrane rafts that serve as platforms for signal transduction and protein sorting. Plays a role in secretory transport via regulation of DAG pool at the Golgi apparatus and its downstream effects on PRKD1.

Sphingomyelin synthase that primarily contributes to sphingomyelin synthesis and homeostasis at the plasma membrane. Catalyzes the reversible transfer of phosphocholine moiety in sphingomyelin biosynthesis: in the forward reaction transfers phosphocholine head group of phosphatidylcholine (PC) on to ceramide (CER) to form ceramide phosphocholine (sphingomyelin, SM) and diacylglycerol (DAG) as by-product, and in the reverse reaction transfers phosphocholine from SM to DAG to form PC and CER. The direction of the reaction appears to depend on the levels of CER and DAG in the plasma membrane. Does not use free phosphorylcholine or CDP-choline as donors. Can also transfer phosphoethanolamine head group of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) on to ceramide (CER) to form ceramide phosphoethanolamine (CPE). Regulates receptor-mediated signal transduction via mitogenic DAG and proapoptotic CER, as well as via SM, a structural component of membrane rafts that serve as platforms for signal transduction and protein sorting. To a lesser extent, plays a role in secretory transport via regulation of DAG pool at the Golgi apparatus and its downstream effects on PRKD1. Required for normal bone matrix mineralization.

[Somatostatin-14]: Inhibits the secretion of pituitary hormones, including that of growth hormone/somatotropin (GH1), PRL, ACTH, luteinizing hormone (LH) and TSH. Also impairs ghrelin- and GnRH- stimulated secretion of GH1 and LH; the inhibition of ghrelin- stimulated secretion of GH1 can be further increased by neuronostatin.

Plays a role in the regulation of contractile properties of both striated and smooth muscles. When unphosphorylated, may inhibit myosin dephosphorylation. Phosphorylation at Ser-299 reduces this inhibitory activity (By similarity).

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the spliceosome. Regulates alternative splicing of the HSPG2 pre-mRNA (By similarity). Required for normal accumulation of IK. Required for normal mitotic spindle assembly and normal progress through mitosis (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that acts as a negative regulator of BMP signaling pathway. Mediates ubiquitination and degradation of SMAD1 and SMAD5, 2 receptor-regulated SMADs specific for the BMP pathway. Promotes ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of TRAF family members and RHOA. Promotes ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of MAVS. Plays a role in dendrite formation by melanocytes.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Interacts with SMAD7 to trigger SMAD7-mediated transforming growth factor beta/TGF-beta receptor ubiquitin-dependent degradation, thereby down-regulating TGF-beta signaling. In addition, interaction with SMAD7 activates autocatalytic degradation, which is prevented by interaction with AIMP1. Also forms a stable complex with TGF-beta receptor-mediated phosphorylated SMAD1, SMAD2 and SMAD3, and targets SMAD1 and SMAD2 for ubiquitination and proteasome-mediated degradation. SMAD2 may recruit substrates, such as SNON, for ubiquitin-dependent degradation. Negatively regulates TGFB1-induced epithelial- mesenchymal transition and myofibroblast differentiation.

Recognizes base lesions in the genome and initiates base excision DNA repair. Acts as a monofunctional DNA glycosylase specific for uracil (U) residues in DNA with a preference for single-stranded DNA substrates. The activity is greater toward mismatches (U/G) compared to matches (U/A). Excises uracil (U), 5-formyluracil (fU) and uracil derivatives bearing an oxidized group at C5 [5-hydroxyuracil (hoU) and 5-hydroxymethyluracil (hmU)] in ssDNA and dsDNA, but not analogous cytosine derivatives (5-hydroxycytosine and 5- formylcytosine), nor other oxidized bases. The activity is damage- specific and salt-dependent. The substrate preference is the following: ssDNA > dsDNA (G pair) = dsDNA (A pair) at low salt concentration, and dsDNA (G pair) > dsDNA (A pair) > ssDNA at high salt concentration.

Methylates histone H3 at 'Lys-4' (H3K4me), seems able to perform both mono-, di-, and trimethylation. Acts as a transcriptional repressor. Essential for cardiomyocyte differentiation and cardiac morphogenesis.

Protein-lysine N-methyltransferase that methylates both histones and non-histone proteins, including p53/TP53 and RB1. Specifically trimethylates histone H3 'Lys-4' (H3K4me3) in vivo. The activity requires interaction with HSP90alpha. Shows even higher methyltransferase activity on p53/TP53. Monomethylates 'Lys-370' of p53/TP53, leading to decreased DNA-binding activity and subsequent transcriptional regulation activity of p53/TP53. Monomethylates RB1 at 'Lys-860'.

Histone methyltransferase. Specifically methylates 'Lys-4' of histone H3, inducing di- and tri-methylation, but not monomethylation. Also methylates 'Lys-5' of histone H4. Plays an important role in transcriptional activation as a member of an RNA polymerase complex. Binds DNA containing 5'-CCCTCC-3' or 5'-GAGGGG-3' sequences.

Plays a critical role in cardiac development. Acts as a key epigenetic regulator of gene expression during cardiac development via its dual activities as a methyltransferase and negative regulator of HDAC1 (By similarity).

Histone methyltransferase that specifically trimethylates 'Lys-20' of histone H4 to form trimethylated histone H4 lysine 20 (H4K20me3) which represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression (By similarity). In association with the NCoR corepressor complex, is involved in the repression of toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4)-target inflammatory genes in macrophages by catalyzing the formation of H4K20me3 at the gene promoters (By similarity). Plays an important role in embryonic stem (ES) cell self- renewal and differentiation (By similarity). Promotes ES cell maintenance by silencing differentiation genes through deposition of H4K20me3 marks (By similarity). Maintains genome stability of ES cells during differentiation through regulation of heterochromatin formation and repression of endogenous repetitive DNA elements by depositing H4K20me3 marks.

Required for vesicular transport between the endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi apparatus (Probable). Together with GNA12 promotes CDH5 localization to plasma membrane.

Required for vesicular transport between the endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi apparatus.

Required for vesicular transport between the endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi apparatus

Involved in induction of the epithelial to mesenchymal transition (EMT), formation and maintenance of embryonic mesoderm, growth arrest, survival and cell migration. Binds to 3 E-boxes of the E-cadherin/CDH1 gene promoter and to the promoters of CLDN7 and KRT8 and, in association with histone demethylase KDM1A which it recruits to the promoters, causes a decrease in dimethylated H3K4 levels and represses transcription. The N- terminal SNAG domain competes with histone H3 for the same binding site on the histone demethylase complex formed by KDM1A and RCOR1, and thereby inhibits demethylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-4' (in vitro). During EMT, involved with LOXL2 in negatively regulating pericentromeric heterochromatin transcription (By similarity). SNAI1 recruits LOXL2 to pericentromeric regions to oxidize histone H3 and repress transcription which leads to release of heterochromatin component CBX5/HP1A, enabling chromatin reorganization and acquisition of mesenchymal traits (By similarity). Associates with EGR1 and SP1 to mediate tetradecanoyl phorbol acetate (TPA)-induced up-regulation of CDKN2B, possibly by binding to the CDKN2B promoter region 5'-TCACA-3. In addition, may also activate the CDKN2B promoter by itself.

Transcriptional repressor that modulates both activator- dependent and basal transcription. Involved in the generation and migration of neural crest cells. Plays a role in mediating RAF1-induced transcriptional repression of the TJ protein, occludin (OCLN) and subsequent oncogenic transformation of epithelial cells (By similarity). Represses BRCA2 expression by binding to its E2-box- containing silencer and recruiting CTBP1 and HDAC1 in breast cells. In epidermal keratinocytes, binds to the E-box in ITGA3 promoter and represses its transcription. Involved in the regulation of ITGB1 and ITGB4 expression and cell adhesion and proliferation in epidermal keratinocytes. Binds to E-box2 domain of BSG and activates its expression during TGFB1-induced epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT) in hepatocytes. Represses E-Cadherin/CDH1 transcription via E-box elements. Involved in osteoblast maturation. Binds to RUNX2 and SOC9 promoters and may act as a positive and negative transcription regulator, respectively, in osteoblasts. Binds to CXCL12 promoter via E-box regions in mesenchymal stem cells and osteoblasts. Plays an essential role in TWIST1-induced EMT and its ability to promote invasion and metastasis.

Seems to inhibit myoblast differentiation. Transcriptional repressor of E-box-dependent transactivation of downstream myogenic bHLHs genes. Binds preferentially to the canonical E-box sequences 5'- CAGGTG-3' and 5'-CACCTG-3' (By similarity).

Component of the BLOC-1 complex, a complex that is required for normal biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles (LRO), such as platelet dense granules and melanosomes. In concert with the AP-3 complex, the BLOC-1 complex is required to target membrane protein cargos into vesicles assembled at cell bodies for delivery into neurites and nerve terminals. The BLOC-1 complex, in association with SNARE proteins, is also proposed to be involved in neurite extension. Plays a role in intracellular vesicle trafficking and synaptic vesicle recycling. May modulate a step between vesicle priming, fusion and calcium-dependent neurotransmitter release through its ability to potentiate the interaction of synaptotagmin with the SNAREs and the plasma-membrane-associated protein SNAP25. Its phosphorylation state influences exocytotic protein interactions and may regulate synaptic vesicle exocytosis. May also have a role in the mechanisms of SNARE- mediated membrane fusion in non-neuronal cells. As part of the BORC complex may play a role in lysosomes movement and localization at the cell periphery. Associated with the cytosolic face of lysosomes, the BORC complex may recruit ARL8B and couple lysosomes to microtubule plus-end-directed kinesin motor.

Controls the night/day rhythm of melatonin production in the pineal gland. Catalyzes the N-acetylation of serotonin into N- acetylserotonin, the penultimate step in the synthesis of melatonin.

Isoform 2 inhibits the ubiquitin ligase activity of SIAH1 and inhibits proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Isoform 2 inhibits autoubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of SIAH1, and thereby increases cellular levels of SIAH. Isoform 2 modulates SNCA monoubiquitination by SIAH1.

Endonuclease that mediates miRNA decay of both protein-free and AGO2-loaded miRNAs. As part of its function in miRNA decay, regulates mRNAs involved in G1-to-S phase transition. Functions as a bridging factor between STAT6 and the basal transcription factor. Plays a role in PIM1 regulation of MYB activity. Functions as a transcriptional coactivator for STAT5 (By similarity).

Core component of the BAF (hSWI/SNF) complex. This ATP- dependent chromatin-remodeling complex plays important roles in cell proliferation and differentiation, in cellular antiviral activities and inhibition of tumor formation. The BAF complex is able to create a stable, altered form of chromatin that constrains fewer negative supercoils than normal. This change in supercoiling would be due to the conversion of up to one-half of the nucleosomes on polynucleosomal arrays into asymmetric structures, termed altosomes, each composed of 2 histones octamers. Stimulates in vitro the remodeling activity of SMARCA4/BRG1/BAF190A. Involved in activation of CSF1 promoter. Belongs to the neural progenitors-specific chromatin remodeling complex (npBAF complex) and the neuron-specific chromatin remodeling complex (nBAF complex). During neural development a switch from a stem/progenitor to a postmitotic chromatin remodeling mechanism occurs as neurons exit the cell cycle and become committed to their adult state. The transition from proliferating neural stem/progenitor cells to postmitotic neurons requires a switch in subunit composition of the npBAF and nBAF complexes. As neural progenitors exit mitosis and differentiate into neurons, npBAF complexes which contain ACTL6A/BAF53A and PHF10/BAF45A, are exchanged for homologous alternative ACTL6B/BAF53B and DPF1/BAF45B or DPF3/BAF45C subunits in neuron-specific complexes (nBAF). The npBAF complex is essential for the self-renewal/proliferative capacity of the multipotent neural stem cells. The nBAF complex along with CREST plays a role regulating the activity of genes essential for dendrite growth (By similarity). Plays a key role in cell-cycle control and causes cell cycle arrest in G0/G1.

Component of the endosomal sorting complex required for transport II (ESCRT-II), which is required for multivesicular body (MVB) formation and sorting of endosomal cargo proteins into MVBs. The MVB pathway mediates delivery of transmembrane proteins into the lumen of the lysosome for degradation. The ESCRT-II complex is probably involved in the recruitment of the ESCRT-III complex. The ESCRT-II complex may also play a role in transcription regulation by participating in derepression of transcription by RNA polymerase II, possibly via its interaction with ELL. Required for degradation of both endocytosed EGF and EGFR, but not for the EGFR ligand-mediated internalization. It is also required for the degradation of CXCR4. Required for the exosomal release of SDCBP, CD63 and syndecan.

May play a role in regulated exocytosis. Modulates the localization of synaptophysin/SYP into synaptic-like microvesicles and may therefore play a role in synaptic-like microvesicle formation and/or maturation (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of short- term and long-term synaptic plasticity (By similarity).

May play a role in regulated exocytosis. In neuronal cells, modulates the localization of synaptophysin/SYP into synaptic-like microvesicles and may therefore play a role in the formation and/or the maturation of this vesicles. May also play a role in GLUT4 storage and transport to the plasma membrane.

May play a role in regulated exocytosis. May indirectly regulate the activity of the plasma membrane dopamine transporter SLC6A3 and thereby regulate dopamine transport back from the synaptic cleft into the presynaptic terminal.

Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Down-regulates NF-kappa-B signaling by competing with RELA for CREBBP/EP300 binding. Involved in the microRNA (miRNA) biogenesis. May be involved in cyclin-D1/CCND1 mRNA stability through the SNARP complex which associates with both the 3'end of the CCND1 gene and its mRNA.

Plays a role in the toxic effects of organotins. Plays a role in endosomal maturation.

Plays a role in the regulation of chondrocyte maturation and postnatal endochondral ossification. May inhibit cell growth stimulation induced by FGF2.

Essential component of the high affinity receptor for the general membrane fusion machinery and an important regulator of transport vesicle docking and fusion

t-SNARE involved in the molecular regulation of neurotransmitter release. May play an important role in the synaptic function of specific neuronal systems. Associates with proteins involved in vesicle docking and membrane fusion. Regulates plasma membrane recycling through its interaction with CENPF. Modulates the gating characteristics of the delayed rectifier voltage-dependent potassium channel KCNB1 in pancreatic beta cells.

SNAREs, soluble N-ethylmaleimide-sensitive factor-attachment protein receptors, are essential proteins for fusion of cellular membranes. SNAREs localized on opposing membranes assemble to form a trans-SNARE complex, an extended, parallel four alpha-helical bundle that drives membrane fusion. SNAP29 is a SNARE involved in autophagy through the direct control of autophagosome membrane fusion with the lysososome membrane. Also plays a role in ciliogenesis by regulating membrane fusions.

Part of the SNAPc complex required for the transcription of both RNA polymerase II and III small-nuclear RNA genes. Binds to the proximal sequence element (PSE), a non-TATA-box basal promoter element common to these 2 types of genes. Recruits TBP and BRF2 to the U6 snRNA TATA box.

Part of the SNAPc complex required for the transcription of both RNA polymerase II and III small-nuclear RNA genes. Binds to the proximal sequence element (PSE), a non-TATA-box basal promoter element common to these 2 types of genes. Recruits TBP and BRF2 to the U6 snRNA TATA box

Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the activated spliceosome. Component of the U5 small nuclear ribonucleoprotein (snRNP) complex and the U4/U6-U5 tri-snRNP complex, building blocks of the spliceosome.

May play a role in hematopoietic cell proliferation or differentiation. Potential mediator of neuronal apoptosis.

Component of the spliceosomal U1 snRNP, which is essential for recognition of the pre-mRNA 5' splice-site and the subsequent assembly of the spliceosome. U1 snRNP is the first snRNP to interact with pre-mRNA. This interaction is required for the subsequent binding of U2 snRNP and the U4/U6/U5 tri-snRNP. SNRPA binds stem loop II of U1 snRNA. In a snRNP-free form (SF-A) may be involved in coupled pre-mRNA splicing and polyadenylation process. May bind preferentially to the 5'-UGCAC-3' motif on RNAs.

Adapter protein that binds to and probably organizes the subcellular localization of a variety of membrane proteins. May link various receptors to the actin cytoskeleton and the extracellular matrix via the dystrophin glycoprotein complex. Plays an important role in synapse formation and in the organization of UTRN and acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular synapse. Binds to phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (By similarity).

May be a component of the linker structure that bridges the ciliary membrane and peripheral singlet microtubules.

Adapter protein that binds to and probably organizes the subcellular localization of a variety of membrane proteins. May link various receptors to the actin cytoskeleton and the dystrophin glycoprotein complex

Adapter protein that binds to and probably organizes the subcellular localization of a variety of membrane proteins. May link various receptors to the actin cytoskeleton and the dystrophin glycoprotein complex. May play a role in the regulation of secretory granules via its interaction with PTPRN

Adapter protein that binds to and probably organizes the subcellular localization of a variety of proteins. May link various receptors to the actin cytoskeleton and the dystrophin glycoprotein complex (By similarity). May participate in regulating the subcellular location of diacylglycerol kinase-zeta to ensure that diacylglycerol is rapidly inactivated following receptor activation.

Adapter protein that binds to and probably organizes the subcellular localization of a variety of proteins. May link various receptors to the actin cytoskeleton and the dystrophin glycoprotein complex (By similarity).

Plays a role in mRNA splicing as a component of the U4/U6-U5 tri-snRNP, one of the building blocks of the spliceosome. May also bind to DNA.

Plays a role in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the U4/U6-U5 tri-snRNP, one of the building blocks of the precatalytic spliceosome. Regulates AURKB mRNA levels, and thereby plays a role in cytokinesis and in the spindle checkpoint. Does not have ubiquitin-specific peptidase activity.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Is required in the specific splicing of CDKN1A pre-mRNA; the function probably involves the recruitment of U2AF2 to the mRNA. Is proposed to recruit PPIL1 to the spliceosome. May be involved in cyclin-D1/CCND1 mRNA stability through the SNARP complex which associates with both the 3'end of the CCND1 gene and its mRNA. Involved in transcriptional regulation. Modulates TGF-beta-mediated transcription via association with SMAD proteins, MYOD1-mediated transcription via association with PABPN1, RB1-mediated transcriptional repression, and retinoid-X receptor (RXR)- and vitamin D receptor (VDR)-dependent gene transcription in a cell line-specific manner probably involving coactivators NCOA1 and GRIP1. Is involved in NOTCH1-mediated transcriptional activation. Binds to multimerized forms of Notch intracellular domain (NICD) and is proposed to recruit transcriptional coactivators such as MAML1 to form an intermediate preactivation complex which associates with DNA-bound CBF-1/RBPJ to form a transcriptional activation complex by releasing SNW1 and redundant NOTCH1 NICD.

Probable phosphoinositide-binding protein involved in protein sorting and membrane trafficking in endosomes. Plays a role in cilium biogenesis through regulation of the transport and the localization of proteins to the cilium. Required for the localization to the cilium of V-ATPase subunit ATP6V1D and ATP6V0D1, and RAB8A. Involved in osteoclast differentiation and therefore bone resorption.

Phosphoinositide-binding protein involved in protein sorting and membrane trafficking in endosomes.

May be involved in several stages of intracellular trafficking. May play a role in endosome homeostasis (By similarity). Acts as a GAP for Galphas.

Plays a role in maintaining normal neuronal excitability and synaptic transmission. May be involved in several stages of intracellular trafficking (By similarity). Required for autophagosome clearance, possibly by mediating the fusion of lysosomes with autophagosomes (Probable). Binds phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,5)P2), a key component of late endosomes/lysosomes. Does not bind phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3P)).

May be involved in several stages of intracellular trafficking. Overexpression of SNX15 disrupts the normal trafficking of proteins from the plasma membrane to recycling endosomes or the TGN.

May be involved in several stages of intracellular trafficking. Plays a role in protein transport from early to late endosomes. Plays a role in protein transport to the lysosome. Promotes degradation of EGFR after EGF signaling. Plays a role in intracellular transport of vesicular stomatitis virus nucleocapsids from the endosome to the cytoplasm.

Critical regulator of endosomal recycling of numerous surface proteins, including integrins, signaling receptor and channels. Binds to NPxY sequences in the cytoplasmic tails of target cargos. Associates with retriever and CCC complexes to prevent lysosomal degradation and promote cell surface recycling of numerous cargos such as integrins ITGB1, ITGB5 and their associated alpha subunits. Also required for maintenance of normal cell surface levels of APP and LRP1. Interacts with membranes containing phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3P)).

Involved in endocytosis and intracellular vesicle trafficking, both during interphase and at the end of mitosis. Required for efficient progress through mitosis and cytokinesis. Required for normal formation of the cleavage furrow at the end of mitosis. Plays a role in endocytosis via clathrin-coated pits, but also clathrin-independent, actin- dependent fluid-phase endocytosis. Plays a role in macropinocytosis. Binds to membranes enriched in phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate and promotes membrane tubulation. Stimulates the GTPase activity of DNM2. Promotes DNM2 location at the plasma membrane. Together with DNM2, involved in autophagosome assembly by regulating trafficking from recycling endosomes of phospholipid scramblase ATG9A.

Plays a role in intracellular vesicle trafficking and exocytosis. May play a role in maintaining insulin- containing dense core vesicles in pancreatic beta-cells and in preventing their degradation. May play a role in insulin secretion. Interacts with membranes containing phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3P)) (By similarity).

Involved in several stages of intracellular trafficking. Interacts with membranes containing phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3P)) or phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,5)P2). Acts in part as component of the retromer membrane- deforming SNX-BAR subcomplex. The SNX-BAR retromer mediates retrograde transport of cargo proteins from endosomes to the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and is involved in endosome-to-plasma membrane transport for cargo protein recycling. The SNX-BAR subcomplex functions to deform the donor membrane into a tubular profile called endosome-to-TGN transport carrier (ETC) (Probable). Can sense membrane curvature and has in vitro vesicle-to-membrane remodeling activity. Involved in retrograde endosome-to-TGN transport of lysosomal enzyme receptors (IGF2R, M6PR and SORT1) and Shiginella dysenteria toxin stxB. Plays a role in targeting ligand-activated EGFR to the lysosomes for degradation after endocytosis from the cell surface and release from the Golgi. Involvement in retromer-independent endocytic trafficking of P2RY1 and lysosomal degradation of protease-activated receptor-1/F2R. Promotes KALRN- and RHOG-dependent but retromer-independent membrane remodeling such as lamellipodium formation; the function is dependent on GEF activity of KALRN. Required for endocytosis of DRD5 upon agonist stimulation but not for basal receptor trafficking.

May play a role in cellular vesicle trafficking. Has been proposed to function as a sorting protein that targets SELPLG into endosomes, but has no effect on SELPLG internalization from the cell surface, or on SELPLG-mediated cell-cell adhesion.

Binds to membranes enriched in phosphatidylinositol 3- phosphate (PtdIns(P3)) and phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate. May be involved in several stages of intracellular trafficking.

May be involved in several stages of intracellular trafficking (By similarity). Interacts with membranes containing phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3P)).

Involved in the retrograde transport from endosome to plasma membrane, a trafficking pathway that promotes the recycling of internalized transmembrane proteins. Following internalization, endocytosed transmembrane proteins are delivered to early endosomes and recycled to the plasma membrane instead of being degraded in lysosomes. SNX27 specifically binds and directs sorting of a subset of transmembrane proteins containing a PDZ-binding motif at the C- terminus: following interaction with target transmembrane proteins, associates with the retromer complex, preventing entry into the lysosomal pathway, and promotes retromer-tubule based plasma membrane recycling. SNX27 also binds with the WASH complex. Interacts with membranes containing phosphatidylinositol-3-phosphate (PtdIns(3P)). May participate in establishment of natural killer cell polarity. Recruits CYTIP to early endosomes.

Involved in several stages of intracellular trafficking. Interacts with membranes containing phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3P)) or phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,5)P2). Acts in part as component of the retromer membrane- deforming SNX-BAR subcomplex. The SNX-BAR retromer mediates retrograde transport of cargo proteins from endosomes to the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and is involved in endosome-to-plasma membrane transport for cargo protein recycling. The SNX-BAR subcomplex functions to deform the donor membrane into a tubular profile called endosome-to-TGN transport carrier (ETC) (Probable). Can sense membrane curvature and has in vitro vesicle-to-membrane remodeling activity. Required for retrograde endosome-to-TGN transport of TGN38. Promotes KALRN- and RHOG-dependent but retromer-independent membrane remodeling such as lamellipodium formation; the function is dependent on GEF activity of KALRN.

Involved in the regulation of endocytosis and in several stages of intracellular trafficking. Together with SNX4, involved in autophagosome assembly.

Plays a role in the reorganization of the cytoskeleton, endocytosis and cellular vesicle trafficking via its interactions with membranes, WASL, DNM1 and DNM2. Acts both during interphase and at the end of mitotic cell divisions. Required for efficient progress through mitosis and cytokinesis. Required for normal formation of the cleavage furrow at the end of mitosis. Modulates endocytosis of cell-surface proteins, such as APP and PRNP; this then modulates the secretion of APP and PRNP peptides. Promotes membrane tubulation (in vitro). May promote the formation of macropinosomes.

Phosphoinositide-binding protein required for multivesicular body formation. Specifically binds phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(P3)). Can also bind phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns(P4)), phosphatidylinositol 5-phosphate (PtdIns(P5)) and phosphatidylinositol 3,5-biphosphate (PtdIns(3,5)P2) (By similarity). Plays a role in protein transport between cellular compartments. Together with RAB7A facilitates endosome membrane association of the retromer cargo-selective subcomplex (CSC/VPS). May in part act as component of the SNX3-retromer complex which mediates the retrograde endosome-to-TGN transport of WLS distinct from the SNX-BAR retromer pathway. Promotes stability and cell surface expression of epithelial sodium channel (ENAC) subunits SCNN1A and SCNN1G (By similarity). Not involved in EGFR degradation. Involved in the regulation of phagocytosis in dendritic cells possibly by regulating EEA1 recruitment to the nascent phagosomes. Involved in iron homeostasis through regulation of endocytic recycling of the transferrin receptor TFRC presumably by delivering the transferrin:transferrin receptor complex to recycling endosomes; the function may involve the CSC retromer subcomplex (By similarity). In the case of Salmonella enterica infection plays arole in maturation of the Salmonella-containing vacuole (SCV) and promotes recruitment of LAMP1 to SCVs.

Involved in the regulation of endocytosis and in several stages of intracellular trafficking. Plays a role in recycling endocytosed transferrin receptor and prevent its degradation. Involved in autophagosome assembly by regulating trafficking and recycling of phospholipid scramblase ATG9A.

Involved in several stages of intracellular trafficking. Interacts with membranes containing phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3P)) or phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,4)P2). Acts in part as component of the retromer membrane- deforming SNX-BAR subcomplex. The SNX-BAR retromer mediates retrograde transport of cargo proteins from endosomes to the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and is involved in endosome-to-plasma membrane transport for cargo protein recycling. The SNX-BAR subcomplex functions to deform the donor membrane into a tubular profile called endosome-to-TGN transport carrier (ETC) (Probable). Does not have in vitro vesicle-to-membrane remodeling activity. Involved in retrograde transport of lysosomal enzyme receptor IGF2R. May function as link between endosomal transport vesicles and dynactin (Probable). Plays a role in the internalization of EGFR after EGF stimulation (Probable). Involved in EGFR endosomal sorting and degradation; the function involves PIP5K1C isoform 3 and is retromer- independent. Together with PIP5K1C isoform 3 facilitates HGS interaction with ubiquitinated EGFR, which initiates EGFR sorting to intraluminal vesicles (ILVs) of the multivesicular body for subsequent lysosomal degradation (Probable). Involved in E-cadherin sorting and degradation; inhibits PIP5K1C isoform 3-mediated E-cadherin degradation. Plays a role in macropinocytosis.

Involved in several stages of intracellular trafficking. Interacts with membranes phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate and/or phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (Probable). Acts in part as component of the retromer membrane-deforming SNX-BAR subcomplex. The SNX-BAR retromer mediates retrograde transport of cargo proteins from endosomes to the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and is involved in endosome-to-plasma membrane transport for cargo protein recycling. The SNX-BAR subcomplex functions to deform the donor membrane into a tubular profile called endosome-to-TGN transport carrier (ETC) (Probable). Does not have in vitro vesicle-to-membrane remodeling activity. Involved in retrograde endosome- to-TGN transport of lysosomal enzyme receptor IGF2R. May function as link between transport vesicles and dynactin (Probable). Negatively regulates retrograde transport of BACE1 from the cell surface to the trans-Golgi network. Involved in E-cadherin sorting and degradation; inhibits PIP5K1C isoform 3-mediated E-cadherin degradation. In association with GIT1 involved in EGFR degradation. Promotes lysosomal degradation of CDKN1B (By similarity). May contribute to transcription regulation (Probable).

Involved in the regulation of endocytosis and in several stages of intracellular trafficking. Together with SNX4, involved in autophagosome assembly by regulating trafficking and recycling of phospholipid scramblase ATG9A.

May be involved in several stages of intracellular trafficking. May play a role in intracellular protein transport from early endosomes to the trans-Golgi network.

Involved in endocytosis and intracellular vesicle trafficking, both during interphase and at the end of mitosis. Required for efficient progress through mitosis and cytokinesis. Required for normal formation of the cleavage furrow at the end of mitosis. Plays a role in endocytosis via clathrin-coated pits, but also clathrin- independent, actin-dependent fluid-phase endocytosis. Plays a role in macropinocytosis. Promotes internalization of TNFR. Promotes degradation of EGFR after EGF signaling. Stimulates the GTPase activity of DNM1. Promotes DNM1 oligomerization. Promotes activation of the Arp2/3 complex by WASL, and thereby plays a role in the reorganization of the F-actin cytoskeleton. Binds to membranes enriched in phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate and promotes membrane tubulation. Has lower affinity for membranes enriched in phosphatidylinositol 3- phosphate.

Acts as an endocytic receptor mediating clathrin dependent endocytosis. Macrophage-restricted adhesion molecule that mediates sialic-acid dependent binding to lymphocytes, including granulocytes, monocytes, natural killer cells, B-cells and CD8 T-cells. Preferentially binds to alpha-2,3-linked sialic acid (By similarity). Binds to SPN/CD43 on T-cells (By similarity). May play a role in hemopoiesis.

Na(+)-independent transporter that mediates the cellular uptake of a broad range of organic anions such as the endogenous bile salts cholate and deoxycholate, either in their unconjugated or conjugated forms (taurocholate and glycocholate), at the plasmam membrane. Responsible for intestinal absorption of bile acids (By similarity). Transports dehydroepiandrosterone 3-sulfate (DHEAS), a major circulating steroid secreted by the adrenal cortex, as well as estrone 3-sulfate and 17beta-estradiol 17-O-(beta-D-glucuronate). Mediates apical uptake of all-trans-retinol (atROL) across human retinal pigment epithelium, which is essential to maintaining the integrity of the visual cycle and thus vision. Involved in the uptake of clinically used drugs. Capable of thyroid hormone transport (both T3 or 3,3',5'-triiodo-L-thyronine, and T4 or L- tyroxine). Also transports prostaglandin E2. Plays roles in blood-brain and -cerebrospinal fluid barrier transport of organic anions and signal mediators, and in hormone uptake by neural cells (By similarity). May also play a role in the reuptake of neuropeptides such as substance P/TAC1 and vasoactive intestinal peptide/VIP released from retinal neurons. May play an important role in plasma and tissue distribution of the structurally diverse chemotherapeutic drugs methotrexate and paclitaxel. Shows a pH-sensitive substrate specificity which may be ascribed to the protonation state of the binding site and leads to a stimulation of substrate transport in an acidic microenvironment. Hydrogencarbonate/HCO3(-) acts as the probable counteranion that exchanges for organic anions.

Mediates the Na(+)-independent uptake of organic anions. Shows broad substrate specificity, can transport both organic anions such as bile acid taurocholate (cholyltaurine) and conjugated steroids (dehydroepiandrosterone 3-sulfate, 17-beta-glucuronosyl estradiol, and estrone 3-sulfate), as well as eicosanoids (prostaglandin E2, thromboxane B2, leukotriene C4, and leukotriene E4), and thyroid hormones (T4/L-thyroxine, and T3/3,3',5'-triiodo-L-thyronine). Can take up bilirubin glucuronides from plasma into the liver, contributing to the detoxification-enhancing liver-blood shuttling loop. Involved in the clearance of endogenous and exogenous substrates from the liver. Transports coproporphyrin I and III, by-products of heme synthesis, and may be involved in their hepatic disposition. Can transport HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (also known as statins), such as pravastatin and pitavastatin, a clinically important class of hypolipidemic drugs. May play an important role in plasma and tissue distribution of the structurally diverse chemotherapeutic drug methotrexate. May also transport antihypertension agents, such as the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor prodrug enalapril, and the highly selective angiotensin II AT1-receptor antagonist valsartan, in the liver. Shows a pH-sensitive substrate specificity towards prostaglandin E2 and T4 which may be ascribed to the protonation state of the binding site and leads to a stimulation of substrate transport in an acidic microenvironment. Hydrogencarbonate/HCO3(-) acts as the probable counteranion that exchanges for organic anions.

Mediates the Na(+)-independent uptake of organic anions. Shows broad substrate specificity, can transport both organic anions such as bile acid taurocholate (cholyltaurine) and conjugated steroids (17-beta- glucuronosyl estradiol, dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS), and estrone 3-sulfate), as well as eicosanoid leukotriene C4, prostaglandin E2 and L-thyroxine (T4). Hydrogencarbonate/HCO3(-) acts as the probable counteranion that exchanges for organic anions. Shows a pH-sensitive substrate specificity towards sulfated steroids, taurocholate and T4 which may be ascribed to the protonation state of the binding site and leads to a stimulation of substrate transport in an acidic microenvironment. Involved in the clearance of bile acids and organic anions from the liver. Can take up bilirubin glucuronides from plasma into the liver, contributing to the detoxification-enhancing liver-blood shuttling loop. Transports coproporphyrin I and III, by-products of heme synthesis, and may be involved in their hepatic disposition. Can transport HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (also known as statins) such as pitavastatin, a clinically important class of hypolipidemic drugs. May play an important role in plasma and tissue distribution of the structurally diverse chemotherapeutic drugs methotrexate and paclitaxel. May also transport antihypertension agents, such as the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor prodrug enalapril, and the highly selective angiotensin II AT1-receptor antagonist valsartan, in the liver.

Mediates the Na(+)-independent high affinity transport of organic anions such as the thyroid hormones L-thyroxine (T4), L- thyroxine sulfate (T4S), and 3,3',5'-triiodo-L-thyronine (reverse T3, rT3) at the plasma membrane. Regulates T4 levels in different brain regions by transporting T4, and also by serving as an export pump for T4S, which is a source of T4 after hydrolysis by local sulfatases. Increases the access of these substrates to the intracellular sites where they are metabolized by the deiodinases. Other potential substrates, such as triiodothyronine (T3), 17-beta-glucuronosyl estradiol (17beta-estradiol 17-O-(beta-D- glucuronate)), estrone-3-sulfate (E1S) and sulfobromophthalein (BSP) are transported with much lower efficiency. Transports T4 and E1S in a pH-insensitive manner. Facilitates the transport of thyroid hormones across the blood-brain barrier and into glia and neuronal cells in the brain.

Transports PGD2, as well as PGE1, PGE2 and PGF2A. Mediates the clearance of prostaglandins from the circulation through uptake across cell membrane which allows cytoplasmic oxidation and prostaglandin signal termination. May mediate the release of newly synthesized prostaglandins from cells and the transepithelial transport of prostaglandins (Probable).

Mediates the Na(+)-independent transport of organic anions such as prostaglandins (PG) E1 and E2, thyroxine (T4), deltorphin II, BQ-123 and vasopressin. Also displays a low transport activity of estrone 3-sulfate. Shows a pH- sensitive substrate specificity towards T4 and estrone 3-sulfate which may be ascribed to the protonation state of the binding site and leads to a stimulation of substrate transport in an acidic microenvironment. Hydrogencarbonate/HCO3(-) acts as the probable counteranion that exchanges for organic anions.

Mediates the Na(+)-independent transport of organic anions such as the thyroid hormones T3 (triiodo-L-thyronine), T4 (thyroxine) and rT3, taurocholate, estrone 3-sulfate, estradiol-17beta-glucuronide and prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). Shows a pH-sensitive substrate specificity T4 and estrone 3-sulfate which may be ascribed to the protonation state of the binding site and leads to a stimulation of substrate transport in an acidic microenvironment. Hydrogencarbonate/HCO3(-) acts as the probable counteranion that exchanges for organic anions.

Mediates the transport of organic anions such as estrone 3- sulfate and thyroid hormones 3,3',5'-triiodo-L-thyronine (T3) and L- thyroxine (T4). Capable of transporting pharmacological substances such as digoxin, ouabain, methotrexate and cAMP. Shows a pH-sensitive substrate specificity estrone 3-sulfate and T4 which may be ascribed to the protonation state of the binding site and leads to a stimulation of substrate transport in an acidic microenvironment. Hydrogencarbonate/HCO3(-) acts as the probable counteranion that exchanges for organic anions. May participate in the regulation of membrane transport of ouabain. Involved in the uptake of the dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor sitagliptin and hence may play a role in its transport into and out of renal proximal tubule cells. May be involved in the first step of the transport pathway of digoxin and various compounds into the urine in the kidney. May be involved in sperm maturation by enabling directed movement of organic anions and compounds within or between cells (By similarity). This ion-transporting process is important to maintain the strict epididymal homeostasis necessary for sperm maturation (By similarity). May have a role in secretory functions since seminal vesicle epithelial cells are assumed to secrete proteins involved in decapacitation by modifying surface proteins to facilitate the acquisition of the ability to fertilize the egg (By similarity).

Catalyzes the formation of fatty acid-cholesterol esters, which are less soluble in membranes than cholesterol. Plays a role in lipoprotein assembly and dietary cholesterol absorption. Utilizes oleoyl-CoA ((9Z)-octadecenoyl-CoA) preferentially as susbstrate: shows a higher activity towards an acyl-CoA substrate with a double bond at the delta-9 position (9Z) than towards saturated acyl-CoA or an unsaturated acyl-CoA with a double bond at the delta-7 (7Z) or delta-11 (11Z) positions.

Catalyzes the formation of fatty acid-cholesterol esters, which are less soluble in membranes than cholesterol. Plays a role in lipoprotein assembly and dietary cholesterol absorption. Utilizes oleoyl-CoA ((9Z)- octadecenoyl-CoA) and linolenoyl-CoA ((9Z,12Z,15Z)-octadecatrienoyl- CoA) as substrates. May provide cholesteryl esters for lipoprotein secretion from hepatocytes and intestinal mucosa.

Transports sulfoconjugated steroid hormones from the extracellular compartment into the cytosol in a sodium-dependent manner without hydrolysis. Steroid sulfate hormones are commonly considered to be biologically inactive metabolites, that may be activated by steroid sulfatases into free steroids. May play an important role by delivering sulfoconjugated steroids to specific target cells in reproductive organs (By similarity). May play a role transporting the estriol precursor 16alpha- hydroxydehydroepiandrosterone 3-sulfate (16a-OH-DHEAS) at the fetal blood vessel endothelium. Can also transport other sulfoconjugated molecules such as taurolithocholic acid-3-sulfate and sulfoconjugated pyrenes.

Essential negative regulator of type I and type II interferon (IFN) signaling, as well as that of other cytokines, including IL2, IL4, IL6 and leukemia inhibitory factor (LIF). Downregulates cytokine signaling by inhibiting the JAK/STAT signaling pathway. Acts by binding to JAK proteins and to IFNGR1 and inhibiting their kinase activity. In vitro, suppresses Tec protein-tyrosine activity. Regulates IFN-gamma (IFNG)- mediated sensory neuron survival (By similarity). Probable substrate recognition component of an ECS (Elongin BC-CUL2/5-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins.

SOCS family proteins form part of a classical negative feedback system that regulates cytokine signal transduction. SOCS2 appears to be a negative regulator in the growth hormone/IGF1 signaling pathway. Probable substrate recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin BC-CUL2/5-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins

SOCS family proteins form part of a classical negative feedback system that regulates cytokine signal transduction. SOCS3 is involved in negative regulation of cytokines that signal through the JAK/STAT pathway. Inhibits cytokine signal transduction by binding to tyrosine kinase receptors including IL6ST/gp130, LIF, erythropoietin, insulin, IL12, GCSF and leptin receptors. Binding to JAK2 inhibits its kinase activity and regulates IL6 signaling. Suppresses fetal liver erythropoiesis. Regulates onset and maintenance of allergic responses mediated by T-helper type 2 cells (By similarity). Probable substrate recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin BC-CUL2/5-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins.

SOCS family proteins form part of a classical negative feedback system that regulates cytokine signal transduction. Substrate- recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin BC-CUL2/5-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Inhibits EGF signaling by mediating the degradation of the Tyr-phosphorylated EGF receptor/EGFR.

SOCS family proteins form part of a classical negative feedback system that regulates cytokine signal transduction. May be a substrate-recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin BC-CUL2/5- SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Inhibits for instance EGF signaling by mediating the degradation of the EGF receptor/EGFR. Involved in the regulation of T- helper cell differentiation by inhibiting of the IL4 signaling pathway which promotes differentiation into the Th2 phenotype. Can also partially inhibit IL6 and LIF signaling.

SOCS family proteins form part of a classical negative feedback system that regulates cytokine signal transduction. May be a substrate recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin BC-CUL2/5- SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins (By similarity). Regulates KIT degradation by ubiquitination of the tyrosine-phosphorylated receptor.

Destroys radicals which are normally produced within the cells and which are toxic to biological systems.

Protect the extracellular space from toxic effect of reactive oxygen intermediates by converting superoxide radicals into hydrogen peroxide and oxygen

Destroys superoxide anion radicals which are normally produced within the cells and which are toxic to biological systems.

Regulates autophagy by playing a role in the reduction of glucose production in an adiponectin- and insulin-dependent manner.

Transcription regulator of both male and female germline differentiation. Suppresses genes involved in spermatogonial stem cells maintenance, and induces genes important for spermatogonial differentiation. Coordinates oocyte differentiation without affecting meiosis I (By similarity).

Plays an important role in growth control. Its major role in stimulating body growth is to stimulate the liver and other tissues to secrete IGF-1. It stimulates both the differentiation and proliferation of myoblasts. It also stimulates amino acid uptake and protein synthesis in muscle and other tissues

RNA-binding protein that acts as a mRNA splicing cofactor by promoting efficient splicing of transcripts that possess weak splice sites. Specifically promotes splicing of many cell-cycle and DNA-repair transcripts that possess weak splice sites, such as TUBG1, KATNB1, TUBGCP2, AURKB, PCNT, AKT1, RAD23A, and FANCG. Probably acts by facilitating the interaction between Serine/arginine-rich proteins such as SRSF2 and the RNA polymerase II. Also binds to DNA; binds to the consensus DNA sequence: 5'-GA[GT]AN[CG][AG]CC-3'. May indirectly repress hepatitis B virus (HBV) core promoter activity and transcription of HBV genes and production of HBV virions. Essential for correct RNA splicing of multiple genes critical for brain development, neuronal migration and metabolism, including TUBG1, FLNA, PNKP, WDR62, PSMD3, PCK2, PFKL, IDH2, and ACY1.

The heterodimer formed by NGFR and SORCS2 functions as receptor for the precursor forms of NGF (proNGF) and BDNF (proBDNF). ProNGF and proBDNF binding both promote axon growth cone collapse (in vitro). Plays a role in the regulation of dendritic spine density in hippocampus neurons (By similarity). Required for normal neurite branching and extension in response to BDNF. Plays a role in BDNF-dependent hippocampal synaptic plasticity. Together with NGFR and NTRK2, is required both for BDNF-mediated synaptic long-term depression and long-term potentiation. ProNGF binding promotes dissociation of TRIO from the heterodimer, which leads to inactivation of RAC1 and/or RAC2 and subsequent reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton. Together with the retromer complex subunit VPS35, required for normal expression of GRIN2A at synapses and dendritic cell membranes. Required for normal expression of the amino acid transporter SLC1A1 at the cell membrane, and thereby contributes to protect cells against oxidative stress (By similarity).

Calcium-binding protein that modulates excitation-contraction coupling in the heart. Contributes to calcium homeostasis in the heart sarcoplasmic reticulum. Modulates the activity of RYR2 calcium channels.

Sorting receptor that directs several proteins to their correct location within the cell (Probable). Along with AP-1 complex, involved Golgi apparatus - endosome sorting. Sorting receptor for APP, regulating its intracellular trafficking and processing into amyloidogenic-beta peptides. Retains APP in the trans- Golgi network, hence preventing its transit through late endosomes where amyloid beta peptides Abeta40 and Abeta42 are generated. May also sort newly produced amyloid-beta peptides to lysosomes for catabolism. Does not affect APP trafficking from the endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi compartments. Sorting receptor for the BDNF receptor NTRK2/TRKB that facilitates NTRK2 trafficking between synaptic plasma membranes, postsynaptic densities and cell soma, hence positively regulates BDNF signaling by controlling the intracellular location of its receptor. Sorting receptor for GDNF that promotes GDNF regulated, but not constitutive secretion. Sorting receptor for the GDNF-GFRA1 complex, directing it from the cell surface to endosomes. GDNF is then targeted to lysosomes and degraded, while its receptor GFRA1 recycles back to the cell membrane, resulting in a GDNF clearance pathway. The SORL1-GFRA1 complex further targets RET for endocytosis, but not for degradation, affecting GDNF-induced neurotrophic activities. Sorting receptor for ERBB2/HER2. Regulates ERBB2 subcellular distribution by promoting its recycling after internalization from endosomes back to the plasma membrane, hence stimulating phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K)-dependent ERBB2 signaling. In ERBB2-dependent cancer cells, promotes cell proliferation. Sorting receptor for lipoprotein lipase LPL. Promotes LPL localization to endosomes and later to the lysosomes, leading to degradation of newly synthesized LPL. Potential sorting receptor for APOA5, inducing APOA5 internalization to early endosomes, then to late endosomes, wherefrom a portion is sent to lysosomes and degradation, another portion is sorted to the trans-Golgi network. Sorting receptor for the insulin receptor INSR. Promotes recycling of internalized INSR via the Golgi apparatus back to the cell surface, thereby preventing lysosomal INSR catabolism, increasing INSR cell surface expression and strengthening insulin signal reception in adipose tissue. Does not affect INSR internalization. Plays a role in renal ion homeostasis, controlling the phospho-regulation of SLC12A1/NKCC2 by STK39/SPAK kinase and PPP3CB/calcineurin A beta phosphatase, possibly through intracellular sorting of STK39 and PPP3CB (By similarity). Stimulates, via the N-terminal ectodomain, the proliferation and migration of smooth muscle cells, possibly by increasing cell surface expression of the urokinase receptor uPAR/PLAUR. This may promote extracellular matrix proteolysis and hence facilitate cell migration. By acting on the migration of intimal smooth muscle cells, may accelerate intimal thickening following vascular injury. Promotes adhesion of monocytes. Stimulates proliferation and migration of monocytes/macrophages (By similarity). Through its action on intimal smooth muscle cells and macrophages, may accelerate intimal thickening and macrophage foam cell formation in the process of atherosclerosis (By similarity). Regulates hypoxia-enhanced adhesion of hematopoietic stem and progenitor cells to the bone marrow stromal cells via a PLAUR-mediated pathway. This function is mediated by the N-terminal ectodomain. Metabolic regulator, which functions to maintain the adequate balance between lipid storage and oxidation in response to changing environmental conditions, such as temperature and diet. The N-terminal ectodomain negatively regulates adipose tissue energy expenditure, acting through the inhibition the BMP/Smad pathway (By similarity). May regulate signaling by the heterodimeric neurotrophic cytokine CLCF1- CRLF1 bound to the CNTFR receptor by promoting the endocytosis of the tripartite complex CLCF1-CRLF1-CNTFR and lysosomal degradation. May regulate IL6 signaling, decreasing cis signaling, possibly by interfering with IL6-binding to membrane-bound IL6R, while up-regulating trans signaling via soluble IL6R.

Functions as a sorting receptor in the Golgi compartment and as a clearance receptor on the cell surface. Required for protein transport from the Golgi apparatus to the lysosomes by a pathway that is independent of the mannose-6-phosphate receptor (M6PR). Lysosomal proteins bind specifically to the receptor in the Golgi apparatus and the resulting receptor-ligand complex is transported to an acidic prelysosomal compartment where the low pH mediates the dissociation of the complex. The receptor is then recycled back to the Golgi for another round of trafficking through its binding to the retromer. Also required for protein transport from the Golgi apparatus to the endosomes. Promotes neuronal apoptosis by mediating endocytosis of the proapoptotic precursor forms of BDNF (proBDNF) and NGFB (proNGFB). Also acts as a receptor for neurotensin. May promote mineralization of the extracellular matrix during osteogenic differentiation by scavenging extracellular LPL. Probably required in adipocytes for the formation of specialized storage vesicles containing the glucose transporter SLC2A4/GLUT4 (GLUT4 storage vesicles, or GSVs). These vesicles provide a stable pool of SLC2A4 and confer increased responsiveness to insulin. May also mediate transport from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi.

Promotes the exchange of Ras-bound GDP by GTP. Probably by promoting Ras activation, regulates phosphorylation of MAP kinase MAPK3 in response to EGF. Catalytic component of a trimeric complex that participates in transduction of signals from Ras to Rac by promoting the Rac-specific guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) activity (By similarity).

Component of the SOSS complex, a multiprotein complex that functions downstream of the MRN complex to promote DNA repair and G2/M checkpoint. In the SOSS complex, acts as a sensor of single-stranded DNA that binds to single-stranded DNA, in particular to polypyrimidines. The SOSS complex associates with DNA lesions and influences diverse endpoints in the cellular DNA damage response including cell-cycle checkpoint activation, recombinational repair and maintenance of genomic stability. Required for efficient homologous recombination-dependent repair of double-strand breaks (DSBs) and ATM- dependent signaling pathways.

May be involved in the onset of endometrial receptivity for implantation/sensitization for the decidual cell reaction Enhances Wnt signaling and inhibits TGF-beta signaling (By similarity). Directly antagonizes activity of BMP2, BMP4, BMP6 and BMP7 in a dose-dependent manner.

Component of the SOSS complex, a multiprotein complex that functions downstream of the MRN complex to promote DNA repair and G2/M checkpoint. The SOSS complex associates with single-stranded DNA at DNA lesions and influences diverse endpoints in the cellular DNA damage response including cell-cycle checkpoint activation, recombinational repair and maintenance of genomic stability. Required for efficient homologous recombination-dependent repair of double-strand breaks (DSBs) and ATM-dependent signaling pathways.

Negative regulator of bone growth that acts through inhibition of Wnt signaling and bone formation.

Transcription factor that plays a central role in developing and mature glia (By similarity). Specifically activates expression of myelin genes, during oligodendrocyte (OL) maturation, such as DUSP15 and MYRF, thereby playing a central role in oligodendrocyte maturation and CNS myelination (By similarity). Once induced, MYRF cooperates with SOX10 to implement the myelination program (By similarity). Transcriptional activator of MITF, acting synergistically with PAX3. Transcriptional activator of MBP, via binding to the gene promoter (By similarity).

Transcription factor that acts as a transcriptional activator. Binds cooperatively with POU3F2/BRN2 or POU3F1/OCT6 to gene promoters, which enhances transcriptional activation (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional activator of TEAD2 by binding to its gene promoter and first intron (By similarity). Plays a redundant role with SOX4 and SOX12 in cell survival of developing tissues such as the neural tube, branchial arches and somites, thereby contributing to organogenesis (By similarity).

Transcription factor that binds to DNA at the consensus sequence 5'-ACCAAAG-3' (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional activator (By similarity). Binds cooperatively with POU3F2/BRN2 or POU3F1/OCT6 to gene promoters, which enhances transcriptional activation (By similarity). Involved in the differentiation of naive CD4-positive T-cells into peripherally induced regulatory T (pT reg) cells under inflammatory conditions (By similarity). Binds to the promoter region of the FOXP3 gene and promotes its transcription, and might thereby contribute to pT reg cell differentiation in the spleen and lymph nodes during inflammation (By similarity). Plays a redundant role with SOX4 and SOX11 in cell survival of developing tissues such as the neural tube, branchial arches and somites, thereby contributing to organogenesis (By similarity).

Transcription factor that binds to DNA at the consensus sequence 5'-AACAAT-3'. Binds to the proximal promoter region of the myelin protein MPZ gene, and may thereby be involved in the differentiation of oligodendroglia in the developing spinal tube (By similarity). Binds to the gene promoter of MBP and acts as a transcriptional repressor (By similarity). Binds to and modifies the activity of TCF7/TCF1, thereby inhibiting transcription and modulates normal gamma-delta T-cell development and differentiation of IL17A expressing gamma-delta T-cells (By similarity). Regulates expression of BLK in the differentiation of IL17A expressing gamma-delta T-cells (By similarity). Promotes brown adipocyte differentiation (By similarity). Inhibitor of WNT signaling.

Transcription factor that binds to DNA at the 5'-AACAATG-3' consensus sequence (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional activator and repressor (By similarity). Binds synergistically with POU5F1 (OCT3/4) to gene promoters (By similarity). Binds to the FOXK1 promoter and recruits FHL3, resulting in transcriptional activation of FOXK1 which leads to myoblast proliferation (By similarity). Acts as an inhibitor of myoblast differentiation via transcriptional repression which leads to down-regulation of the muscle-specific genes MYOD and MYOG (By similarity). Involved in trophoblast giant cell differentiation via enhancement of HAND1 transcriptional activity (By similarity). Regulates transcription of HRC via binding to it proximal enhancer region (By similarity). Involved in skeletal muscle regeneration (By similarity). Also plays a role in the development of myogenic precursor cells (By similarity).

Acts as transcription regulator that binds target promoter DNA and bends the DNA. Binds to the sequences 5'-AACAAT-'3 or 5'- AACAAAG-3'. Modulates transcriptional regulation via WNT3A. Inhibits Wnt signaling. Promotes degradation of activated CTNNB1. Plays a key role in the regulation of embryonic development. Required for normal development of the definitive gut endoderm. Required for normal looping of the embryonic heart tube. Plays an important role in embryonic and postnatal vascular development, including development of arteries. Plays an important role in postnatal angiogenesis, where it is functionally redundant with SOX18. Required for the generation and maintenance of fetal hematopoietic stem cells, and for fetal hematopoiesis. Probable transcriptional activator in the premeiotic germ cells.

Transcriptional activator that binds to the consensus sequence 5'-AACAAAG-3' in the promoter of target genes and plays an essential role in embryonic cardiovascular development and lymphangiogenesis. Activates transcription of PROX1 and other genes coding for lymphatic endothelial markers. Plays an essential role in triggering the differentiation of lymph vessels, but is not required for the maintenance of differentiated lymphatic endothelial cells. Plays an important role in postnatal angiogenesis, where it is functionally redundant with SOX17. Interaction with MEF2C enhances transcriptional activation. Besides, required for normal hair development.

Transcriptional activator. May function as a switch in neuronal development. Keeps neural cells undifferentiated by counteracting the activity of proneural proteins and suppresses neuronal differentiation (By similarity).

May play a role as an activator of transcription of OPRM1. Overexpression of SOX21 can up-regulate the OPRM1 distal promoter activity in mor-expressing neuronal cells. May play a role in ameloblast differentiation.

Transcription factor that forms a trimeric complex with OCT4 on DNA and controls the expression of a number of genes involved in embryonic development such as YES1, FGF4, UTF1 and ZFP206 (By similarity). Binds to the proximal enhancer region of NANOG (By similarity). Critical for early embryogenesis and for embryonic stem cell pluripotency. Downstream SRRT target that mediates the promotion of neural stem cell self-renewal (By similarity). Keeps neural cells undifferentiated by counteracting the activity of proneural proteins and suppresses neuronal differentiation (By similarity). May function as a switch in neuronal development (By similarity).

Acts as both a transcriptional activator and repressor. Binds to the DNA sequence 5'-ACAAT- 3' and shows a preference for guanine residues surrounding this core motif. Binds to its own promoter and activates its own transcription (By similarity). Required to activate the expression of postmeiotic genes involved in spermiogenesis (By similarity). Binds to the promoter region of CTNNB1 and represses its transcription which leads to inhibition of Wnt signaling. Also inhibits Wnt signaling by binding to the CTNNB1 protein, preventing interaction of CTNNB1 with TCF7L2/TCF4.

Transcription factor required during the formation of the hypothalamo-pituitary axis. May function as a switch in neuronal development. Keeps neural cells undifferentiated by counteracting the activity of proneural proteins and suppresses neuronal differentiation. Required also within the pharyngeal epithelia for craniofacial morphogenesis. Controls a genetic switch in male development. Is necessary for initiating male sex determination by directing the development of supporting cell precursors (pre-Sertoli cells) as Sertoli rather than granulosa cells (By similarity).

Transcriptional activator that binds with high affinity to the T-cell enhancer motif 5'-AACAAAG-3' motif. Required for IL17A-producing Vgamma2-positive gamma-delta T-cell maturation and development, via binding to regulator loci of RORC to modulate expression (By similarity). Involved in skeletal myoblast differentiation by promoting gene expression of CALD1.

Transcription factor involved in chondrocytes differentiation and cartilage formation. Specifically binds the 5'-AACAAT-3' DNA motif present in enhancers and super-enhancers and promotes expression of genes important for chondrogenesis, including cartilage matrix protein- coding genes, such as COL2A1 and AGC1. Required for overt chondrogenesis when condensed prechondrocytes differentiate into early stage chondrocytes: SOX5 and SOX6 cooperatively bind with SOX9 on active enhancers and super-enhancers associated with cartilage-specific genes, and thereby potentiate SOX9's ability to transactivate. Not involved in precartilaginous condensation, the first step in chondrogenesis, during which skeletal progenitors differentiate into prechondrocytes. Together with SOX6, required to form and maintain a pool of highly proliferating chondroblasts between epiphyses and metaphyses, to form columnar chondroblasts, delay chondrocyte prehypertrophy but promote hypertrophy, and to delay terminal differentiation of chondrocytes on contact with ossification fronts. Binds to the proximal promoter region of the myelin protein MPZ gene.

Transcription factor that plays a key role in several developmental processes, including neurogenesis, chondrocytes differentiation and cartilage formation (Probable). Specifically binds the 5'-AACAAT-3' DNA motif present in enhancers and super-enhancers and promotes expression of genes important for chondrogenesis. Required for overt chondrogenesis when condensed prechondrocytes differentiate into early stage chondrocytes: SOX5 and SOX6 cooperatively bind with SOX9 on active enhancers and super-enhancers associated with cartilage-specific genes, and thereby potentiate SOX9's ability to transactivate. Not involved in precartilaginous condensation, the first step in chondrogenesis, during which skeletal progenitors differentiate into prechondrocytes. Together with SOX5, required to form and maintain a pool of highly proliferating chondroblasts between epiphyses and metaphyses, to form columnar chondroblasts, delay chondrocyte prehypertrophy but promote hypertrophy, and to delay terminal differentiation of chondrocytes on contact with ossification fronts. Binds to the proximal promoter region of the myelin protein MPZ gene, and is thereby involved in the differentiation of oligodendroglia in the developing spinal tube. Binds to the gene promoter of MBP and acts as a transcriptional repressor (By similarity).

Binds to and activates the CDH5 promoter, hence plays a role in the transcriptional regulation of genes expressed in the hemogenic endothelium and blocks further differentiation into blood precursors (By similarity). May be required for the survival of both hematopoietic and endothelial precursors during specification (By similarity). Competes with GATA4 for binding and activation of the FGF3 promoter (By similarity). Represses Wnt/beta-catenin-stimulated transcription, probably by targeting CTNNB1 to proteasomal degradation. Binds the DNA sequence 5'-AACAAT-3'.

Transcription factor that may play a role in central nervous system, limb and facial development. May be involved in male sex determination. Binds the consensus motif 5'-[AT][AT]CAA[AT]G-3' (By similarity).

Transcription factor that plays a key role in chondrocytes differentiation and skeletal development. Specifically binds the 5'-ACAAAG-3' DNA motif present in enhancers and super-enhancers and promotes expression of genes important for chondrogenesis, including cartilage matrix protein-coding genes COL2A1, COL4A2, COL9A1, COL11A2 and ACAN, SOX5 and SOX6. Also binds to some promoter regions (By similarity). Plays a central role in successive steps of chondrocyte differentiation (By similarity). Absolutely required for precartilaginous condensation, the first step in chondrogenesis during which skeletal progenitors differentiate into prechondrocytes (By similarity). Together with SOX5 and SOX6, required for overt chondrogenesis when condensed prechondrocytes differentiate into early stage chondrocytes, the second step in chondrogenesis (By similarity). Later, required to direct hypertrophic maturation and block osteoblast differentiation of growth plate chondrocytes: maintains chondrocyte columnar proliferation, delays prehypertrophy and then prevents osteoblastic differentiation of chondrocytes by lowering beta-catenin (CTNNB1) signaling and RUNX2 expression (By similarity). Also required for chondrocyte hypertrophy, both indirectly, by keeping the lineage fate of chondrocytes, and directly, by remaining present in upper hypertrophic cells and transactivating COL10A1 along with MEF2C (By similarity). Low lipid levels are the main nutritional determinant for chondrogenic commitment of skeletal progenitor cells: when lipids levels are low, FOXO (FOXO1 and FOXO3) transcription factors promote expression of SOX9, which induces chondrogenic commitment and suppresses fatty acid oxidation (By similarity). Mechanistically, helps, but is not required, to remove epigenetic signatures of transcriptional repression and deposit active promoter and enhancer marks at chondrocyte-specific genes (By similarity). Acts in cooperation with the Hedgehog pathway-dependent GLI (GLI1 and GLI3) transcription factors (By similarity). In addition to cartilage development, also acts as a regulator of proliferation and differentiation in epithelial stem/progenitor cells: involved in the lung epithelium during branching morphogenesis, by balancing proliferation and differentiation and regulating the extracellular matrix (By similarity). Controls epithelial branching during kidney development (By similarity).

Together with PML, this tumor suppressor is a major constituent of the PML bodies, a subnuclear organelle involved in a large number of physiological processes including cell growth, differentiation and apoptosis. Functions as a transcriptional coactivator of ETS1 and ETS2 according to PubMed:11909962. Under certain conditions, it may also act as a corepressor of ETS1 preventing its binding to DNA according to PubMed:15247905. Through the regulation of ETS1 it may play a role in angiogenesis, controlling endothelial cell motility and invasion. Through interaction with the MRN complex it may be involved in the regulation of telomeres lengthening. May also regulate TP53-mediated transcription and through CASP8AP2, regulate FAS-mediated apoptosis. Also plays a role in infection by viruses, including human cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus, through mechanisms that may involve chromatin and/or transcriptional regulation.

Transcription factor. May be a nuclear hormone receptor coactivator. Enhances transcription of genes with retinoic acid response elements (RARE)

Component of the nuclear body, also known as nuclear domain 10, PML oncogenic domain, and KR body. May be involved in the pathogenesis of acute promyelocytic leukemia and viral infection. May play a role in chromatin-mediated regulation of gene expression although it does not bind to histone H3 tails.

Component of the FACT complex, a general chromatin factor that acts to reorganize nucleosomes. The FACT complex is involved in multiple processes that require DNA as a template such as mRNA elongation, DNA replication and DNA repair. During transcription elongation the FACT complex acts as a histone chaperone that both destabilizes and restores nucleosomal structure. It facilitates the passage of RNA polymerase II and transcription by promoting the dissociation of one histone H2A-H2B dimer from the nucleosome, then subsequently promotes the reestablishment of the nucleosome following the passage of RNA polymerase II. The FACT complex is probably also involved in phosphorylation of 'Ser-392' of p53/TP53 via its association with CK2 (casein kinase II).

Sperm surface zona pellucida binding protein. Helps to bind spermatozoa to the zona pellucida with high affinity. Might function in binding zona pellucida and carbohydrates (By similarity).

Transcription factor that can activate or repress transcription in response to physiological and pathological stimuli. Binds with high affinity to GC-rich motifs and regulates the expression of a large number of genes involved in a variety of processes such as cell growth, apoptosis, differentiation and immune responses. Highly regulated by post-translational modifications (phosphorylations, sumoylation, proteolytic cleavage, glycosylation and acetylation). Binds also the PDGFR-alpha G-box promoter. May have a role in modulating the cellular response to DNA damage. Implicated in chromatin remodeling. Plays an essential role in the regulation of FE65 gene expression. In complex with ATF7IP, maintains telomerase activity in cancer cells by inducing TERT and TERC gene expression. Isoform 3 is a stronger activator of transcription than isoform 1. Positively regulates the transcription of the core clock component BMAL1. Plays a role in the recruitment of SMARCA4/BRG1 on the c-FOS promoter. Plays a role in protecting cells against oxidative stress following brain injury by regulating the expression of RNF112 (By similarity).

Required for MAP kinase p38 (MAPK11, MAPK12, MAPK13 and/or MAPK14) activation during gastrulation. Required for down-regulation of E-cadherin during gastrulation by regulating E-cadherin protein level downstream from NCK-interacting kinase (NIK) and independently of the regulation of transcription by FGF signaling and Snail (By similarity). Required for starvation-induced ATG9A trafficking during autophagy.

Binds to GC box promoters elements and selectively activates mRNA synthesis from genes that contain functional recognition sites

[Isoform 1]: Functions as transcription repressor, probably via its interaction with histone deacetylase complexes. Involved in the functional recruitment of the class 1 Sin3-histone deacetylase complex (HDAC) to the nucleolus. Binds DNA, apparently without sequence-specificity, and bends bound double-stranded DNA. Binds phosphoinositol phosphates (phosphoinositol 3- phosphate, phosphoinositol 4-phosphate and phosphoinositol 5-phosphate) via the same basic sequence motif that mediates DNA binding and nuclear import.

Transcriptional factor that can act as an activator or repressor depending on isoform and/or post-translational modifications. Binds to GT and GC boxes promoter elements. Competes with SP1 for the GC-box promoters. Weak activator of transcription but can activate a number of genes involved in different processes such as cell-cycle regulation, hormone-induction and house-keeping.

Binds to GT and GC boxes promoters elements. Probable transcriptional activator

Binds to GC boxes promoters elements. Probable transcriptional activator that has a role in the coordination of changes in transcription required to generate pattern in the developing embryo (By similarity).

Promotes cell proliferation (By similarity). Plays a role in tooth germ growth (By similarity).

Transcriptional activator essential for osteoblast differentiation. Binds to SP1 and EKLF consensus sequences and to other G/C-rich sequences (By similarity).

Transcription factor which plays a key role in limb development. Positively regulates FGF8 expression in the apical ectodermal ridge (AER) and contributes to limb outgrowth in embryos (By similarity).

Adipokine that modulates insulin action by specifically inhibiting its target protease KLK7 in white adipose tissues.

Binds DNA with high affinity but does not bind to TATA boxes. Synergises with GMNN and TBP in activation of TATA box-containing promoters and with GMNN and TBPL1 in activation of the NF1 TATA-less promoter. May play a role in cytoplasm movement and removal during spermiogenesis (By similarity).

ATP-dependent chaperone, which plays an essential role in the cytoplasmic maturation steps of pre-60S ribosomal particles by promoting the release of shuttling protein RSL24D1/RLP24 from the pre- ribosomal particles. Acts together with SPATA5, C1orf109 and CINP.

Protease inhibitor that inhibits trypsin and trypsin-like serine proteases (in vitro). Inhibits plasmin and thrombin with lower efficiency (in vitro).

Involved in fertilization. Seems not to play a direct role in sperm-egg binding or gamete fusion.

May play a role in the cytoplasmic assembly of the ciliary dynein arms (By similarity). May play a role in fertilization. Binds GTP and has GTPase activity.

Involved in spermatogenesis. Required for sperm head formation but not required to establish and maintain general polarity of the sperm head. Required for anchoring and organization of the manchette. Required for targeting of SUN3 and probably SYNE1 through a probable SUN1:SYNE3 LINC complex to the nuclear envelope and involved in accurate posterior sperm head localization of the complex. May anchor SUN3 the nuclear envelope. Involved in maintenance of the nuclear envelope integrity. May assist the organization and assembly of outer dense fibers (ODFs), a specific structure of the sperm tail.

Essential component of the mitotic spindle required for normal chromosome segregation and progression into anaphase. Required for chromosome alignment, normal timing of sister chromatid segregation, and maintenance of spindle pole architecture. In complex with SKAP, promotes stable microtubule- kinetochore attachments. May contribute to the regulation of separase activity. May regulate AURKA localization to mitotic spindle, but not to centrosomes and CCNB1 localization to both mitotic spindle and centrosomes. Involved in centriole duplication. Required for CDK5RAP2, CEP152, WDR62 and CEP63 centrosomal localization and promotes the centrosomal localization of CDK2. In non-mitotic cells, upon stress induction, inhibits mammalian target of rapamycin complex 1 (mTORC1) association and recruits the mTORC1 component RPTOR to stress granules (SGs), thereby preventing mTORC1 hyperactivation-induced apoptosis. May enhance GSK3B-mediated phosphorylation of other substrates, such as MAPT/TAU.

Important for structural integrity of the central apparatus in the sperm tail and for flagellar motility.

Plays a role in spermatogenesis by enhancing the binding of CREM isoform tau to its coactivator FHL5 and increasing the FHL5- regulated transcriptional activation of CREM isoform tau (By similarity). Involved in the acrosome reaction and in binding of sperm to the zona pellucida (By similarity). Plays a role in regulation of the cell cycle by controlling progression through the G2/M phase, possibly by delaying the activation of CDK1 which is required for entry into mitosis. May play a role in fertility and microtubule formation through interaction with RANBP9.

May be implicated in endosomal trafficking, or microtubule dynamics, or both. Participates in cytokinesis.

[Isoform 2]: Negative regulator of amino acid sensing and mTORC1, a signaling complex promoting cell growth in response to growth factors, energy levels and amino acids. Negatively regulates mTORC1 activation by inhibiting recruitment of mTORC1 to lysosomes upon stimulation with amino acids: acts by promoting the formation of a tightly bound supercomplex composed of the lysosomal V- ATPase, Ragulator and Rag GTPases, preventing recruitment of mTORC1. Acts as a regulator of muscle regeneration following injury by regulating mTORC1 activation (By similarity).

ATP-dependent microtubule severing protein that specifically recognizes and cuts microtubules that are polyglutamylated. Preferentially recognizes and acts on microtubules decorated with short polyglutamate tails: severing activity increases as the number of glutamates per tubulin rises from one to eight, but decreases beyond this glutamylation threshold. Severing activity is not dependent on tubulin acetylation or detyrosination. Microtubule severing promotes reorganization of cellular microtubule arrays and the release of microtubules from the centrosome following nucleation. It is critical for the biogenesis and maintenance of complex microtubule arrays in axons, spindles and cilia. SPAST is involved in abscission step of cytokinesis and nuclear envelope reassembly during anaphase in cooperation with the ESCRT-III complex. Recruited at the midbody, probably by IST1, and participates in membrane fission during abscission together with the ESCRT-III complex. Recruited to the nuclear membrane by IST1 and mediates microtubule severing, promoting nuclear envelope sealing and mitotic spindle disassembly during late anaphase. Required for membrane traffic from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) to the Golgi and endosome recycling. Recruited by IST1 to endosomes and regulates early endosomal tubulation and recycling by mediating microtubule severing. Probably plays a role in axon growth and the formation of axonal branches.

Bridging factor that mediates the recruitment of CYLD to the LUBAC complex, thereby regulating TNF-alpha-induced necroptosis. Acts as a direct binding intermediate that bridges RNF31/HOIP, the catalytic subunit of the LUBAC complex, and the deubiquitinase (CYLD), thereby recruiting CYLD to the TNF-R1 signaling complex (TNF-RSC). Required to activate the 'Met-1'- (linear) and 'Lys-63'-linked deubiquitinase activities of CYLD. Controls the kinase activity of RIPK1 and TNF-alpha-induced necroptosis by promoting 'Met-1'-linked deubiquitination of RIPK1 by CYLD (By similarity).

ATP-dependent chaperone, which plays an essential role in the cytoplasmic maturation steps of pre-60S ribosomal particles by promoting the release of shuttling protein RSL24D1/RLP24 from the pre- ribosomal particles. Acts together with SPATA5L1, C1orf109 and CINP. May be involved in morphological and functional mitochondrial transformations during spermatogenesis (By similarity).

Required for formation of the sperm connecting piece during spermiogenesis. Sperm connecting piece is essential for linking the developing flagellum to the head during late spermiogenesis. May be involved in myosin-based microfilament transport through interaction with myosin subunits.

Involved in the maintenance of both rod and cone photoreceptor cells (By similarity). It is required for recruitment and proper localization of RPGRIP1 to the photoreceptor connecting cilium (CC), as well as photoreceptor-specific localization of proximal CC proteins at the distal CC (By similarity). Maintenance of protein localization at the photoreceptor-specific distal CC is essential for normal microtubule stability and to prevent photoreceptor degeneration (By similarity).

May play a role in testicular development/spermatogenesis and may be an important factor in male infertility.

Protease inhibitor that may play a role in the regulation of protease activities during hematopoiesis and apoptosis induced by TNF. May regulate protease activities in the cytoplasm and in the nucleus.

Inhibits trypsin and plasmin, but not thrombin, coagulation factor Xa, or urokinase-type plasminogen activator. May play a role in cell differentiation.

May play a role in the proliferation or differentiation of keratinocytes

RNA 2'-O-methyltransferase involved in the processing of the 34S pre-rRNA to 18S rRNA and in 40S ribosomal subunit formation.

May act as a papain-like cysteine protease inhibitor to modulate the host immune response against tumor cells. Also functions as an inhibitor of UV-induced apoptosis via suppression of the activity of c-Jun NH(2)-terminal kinase (JNK1).

May act as a protease inhibitor to modulate the host immune response against tumor cells

Tumor suppressor. It blocks the growth, invasion, and metastatic properties of mammary tumors. As it does not undergo the S (stressed) to R (relaxed) conformational transition characteristic of active serpins, it exhibits no serine protease inhibitory activity

May be involved in the regulation of serine proteinases present in the brain or extravasated from the blood (By similarity). Inhibitor of cathepsin G, kallikrein-8 and thrombin. May play an important role in the inner ear in the protection against leakage of lysosomal content during stress and loss of this protection results in cell death and sensorineural hearing loss.

Might function as an inhibitor of Lys-specific proteases. Might influence the maturation of megakaryocytes via its action as a serpin

Has an important role in epithelial desmosome-mediated cell- cell adhesion.

Component of the signal peptidase complex (SPC) which catalyzes the cleavage of N-terminal signal sequences from nascent proteins as they are translocated into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum. Enhances the enzymatic activity of SPC and facilitates the interactions between different components of the translocation site (By similarity).

Essential component of the signal peptidase complex (SPC) which catalyzes the cleavage of N-terminal signal sequences from nascent proteins as they are translocated into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum. Essential for the SPC catalytic activity, possibly by stabilizing and positioning the active center of the complex close to the lumenal surface (By similarity).

Converts O-phosphoseryl-tRNA(Sec) to selenocysteinyl- tRNA(Sec) required for selenoprotein biosynthesis.

Acts as a modulator of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor alpha-7 (CHRNA7) activity.

Adapter protein involved in invadopodia and podosome formation, extracellular matrix degradation and invasiveness of some cancer cells. Binds matrix metalloproteinases (ADAMs), NADPH oxidases (NOXs) and phosphoinositides. Acts as an organizer protein that allows NOX1- or NOX3-dependent reactive oxygen species (ROS) generation and ROS localization. In association with ADAM12, mediates the neurotoxic effect of amyloid-beta peptide.

Adapter protein involved in invadopodia and podosome formation and extracellular matrix degradation. Binds matrix metalloproteinases (ADAMs), NADPH oxidases (NOXs) and phosphoinositides. Acts as an organizer protein that allows NOX1- or NOX3-dependent reactive oxygen species (ROS) generation and ROS localization. Plays a role in mitotic clonal expansion during the immediate early stage of adipocyte differentiation (By similarity).

May function as an androgen-independent transactivator of the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) promoter. Binds to 5'-GGAT-3' DNA sequences. May play a role in the regulation of the prostate gland and/or prostate cancer development. Acts as a transcriptional activator for SERPINB5 promoter.

Required for the localization of dynein and dynactin to the mitotic kintochore. Dynein is believed to control the initial lateral interaction between the kinetochore and spindle microtubules and to facilitate the subsequent formation of end-on kinetochore-microtubule attachments mediated by the NDC80 complex. Also required for correct spindle orientation. Does not appear to be required for the removal of spindle assembly checkpoint (SAC) proteins from the kinetochore upon bipolar spindle attachment. Acts as an adapter protein linking the dynein motor complex to various cargos and converts dynein from a non-processive to a highly processive motor in the presence of dynactin. Facilitates the interaction between dynein and dynactin and activates dynein processivity (the ability to move along a microtubule for a long distance without falling off the track). Plays a role in cell migration.

Regulates the G1/S phase transition of the cell cycle by binding and activating CDK1 and CDK2. Contributes to CDK2 activation without promoting CDK2 phosphorylation, by inducing a conformation change of the CDK2 T-loop that obstructs the substrate- binding cleft prior to kinase activation. Mediates cell survival during the DNA damage process through activation of CDK2.

Promotes progression through the cell cycle via binding and activation of CDK1 and CDK2. Involved in the spindle-assembly checkpoint. Required for recruitment of MAD2L1, BUBR1 and BUB1 to kinetochores. Required for the correct localization of the active form of Aurora B in prometaphase.

Proposed to be involved in endosomal maturation implicating in part VPS33B. In epithelial cells, the VPS33B:VIPAS39 complex may play a role in the apical RAB11A-dependent recycling pathway and in the maintenance of the apical-basolateral polarity. May play a role in lysosomal trafficking, probably via association with the core HOPS complex in a discrete population of endosomes; the functions seems to be independent of VPS33B. May play a role in vesicular trafficking during spermatogenesis (By similarity). May be involved in direct or indirect transcriptional regulation of E-cadherin (By similarity).

Catalyzes the production of spermidine from putrescine and decarboxylated S-adenosylmethionine (dcSAM). Has a strong preference for putrescine as substrate, and has very low activity towards 1,3- diaminopropane. Has extremely low activity towards spermidine.

Microtubule-associated protein involved in the stabilization of microtubules along the axis of migration during radial intercalation. Promotes the establishment and stabilization of an axis of microtubules required for the active migration of cells into the outer epithelium (By similarity). Microtubule-associated protein that promotes microtubule bundling and stabilizes microtubules against depolymerization in response to cold shock (By similarity). Essential for ciliary central apparatus formation which requires both its microtubule-binding and bundling activities and for ciliary localization of HYDIN and SPAG6 in ependymal cilia (By similarity). Binds actin in intestinal epithelial cells (IECs), essential for IECs survival and contributes to formation of filopodia and lamellipodia in migrating IECs. Regulates planar cell polarity signaling pathway and asymmetric microtubule accumulation in ciliated epithelia (By similarity).

Required for correct axoneme development in spermatozoa. Important for normal development of the manchette and sperm head morphology. Essential for male fertility. Plays a role in localization of the intraflagellar transport protein IFT20 to the manchette, suggesting function as an adapter for dynein-mediated protein transport during spermatogenesis. Also plays a role in bone growth where it seems to be required for normal osteoblast differentiation (By similarity).

Isoform 3 may have a role in regulating the growth and differentiation of arterial smooth muscle cells

Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the activated spliceosome. Component of the PRP19-CDC5L complex that forms an integral part of the spliceosome and is required for activating pre-mRNA splicing. May have a scaffolding role in the spliceosome assembly as it contacts all other components of the core complex. The PRP19-CDC5L complex may also play a role in the response to DNA damage (DDR).

Splice factor that binds to the single-stranded 3'AG at the exon/intron border and promotes its utilization in the second catalytic step. Involved in the regulation of alternative splicing and the utilization of cryptic splice sites. Promotes the utilization of a cryptic splice site created by the beta-110 mutation in the HBB gene. The resulting frameshift leads to sickle cell anemia.

Necessary for sperm flagellar function. Plays a role in motile ciliogenesis. May help to recruit STK36 to the cilium or apical surface of the cell to initiate subsequent steps of construction of the central pair apparatus of motile cilia (By similarity).

Component of the central pair apparatus of ciliary axonemes. Plays a critical role in the function and structure of motile cilia. May play a role in endochondral bone formation, most likely because of a function in primary cilia of chondrocytes and osteoblasts (By similarity). Essential for normal spermatogenesis and male fertility (By similarity). Required for normal manchette structure, transport of proteins along the manchette microtubules and formation of the sperm head and flagellum (By similarity). Essential for sperm flagellum development and proper assembly of the respiratory motile cilia central pair apparatus, but not the brain ependymal cilia (By similarity).

May play a role as a negative regulatory factor in CD4- dependent T-cell activation.

ATP-dependent zinc metalloprotease. Plays a role in the formation and regulation of the mitochondrial permeability transition pore (mPTP) and its proteolytic activity is dispensable for this function.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of sphingosine to form sphingosine 1-phosphate (SPP), a lipid mediator with both intra- and extracellular functions. Also acts on D-erythro-sphingosine and to a lesser extent sphinganine, but not other lipids, such as D,L-threo- dihydrosphingosine, N,N-dimethylsphingosine, diacylglycerol, ceramide, or phosphatidylinositol. In contrast to proapoptotic SPHK2, has a negative effect on intracellular ceramide levels, enhances cell growth and inhibits apoptosis. Involved in the regulation of inflammatory response and neuroinflammation. Via the product sphingosine 1-phosphate, stimulates TRAF2 E3 ubiquitin ligase activity, and promotes activation of NF- kappa-B in response to TNF signaling leading to IL17 secretion. In response to TNF and in parallel to NF-kappa-B activation, negatively regulates RANTES induction through p38 MAPK signaling pathway. Involved in endocytic membrane trafficking induced by sphingosine, recruited to dilate endosomes, also plays a role on later stages of endosomal maturation and membrane fusion independently of its kinase activity. In Purkinje cells, seems to be also involved in the regulation of autophagosome-lysosome fusion upon VEGFA.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of sphingosine to form sphingosine-1-phosphate (SPP), a lipid mediator with both intra- and extracellular functions. Also acts on D-erythro-dihydrosphingosine, D- erythro-sphingosine and L-threo-dihydrosphingosine. Binds phosphoinositides. In contrast to prosurvival SPHK1, has a positive effect on intracellular ceramide levels, inhibits cells growth and enhances apoptosis. In mitochondria, is important for cytochrome-c oxidase assembly and mitochondrial respiration. The SPP produced in mitochondria binds PHB2 and modulates the regulation via PHB2 of complex IV assembly and respiration. In nucleus, plays a role in epigenetic regulation of gene expression. Interacts with HDAC1 and HDAC2 and, through SPP production, inhibits their enzymatic activity, preventing the removal of acetyl groups from lysine residues with histones. Up- regulates acetylation of histone H3-K9, histone H4-K5 and histone H2B- K12. In nucleus, may have an inhibitory effect on DNA synthesis and cell cycle. In mast cells, is the main regulator of SPP production which mediates calcium influx, NF-kappa-B activation, cytokine production, such as TNF and IL6, and degranulation of mast cells (By similarity). In dopaminergic neurons, is involved in promoting mitochondrial functions regulating ATP and ROS levels (By similarity). Also involved in the regulation of glucose and lipid metabolism (By similarity).

Pioneer transcription factor, which controls hematopoietic cell fate by decompacting stem cell heterochromatin and allowing other transcription factors to enter otherwise inaccessible genomic sites. Once in open chromatin, can directly control gene expression by binding genetic regulatory elements and can also more broadly influence transcription by recruiting transcription factors, such as interferon regulatory factors (IRFs), to otherwise inaccessible genomic regions. Transcriptionally activates genes important for myeloid and lymphoid lineages, such as CSF1R (By similarity). Transcriptional activation from certain promoters, possibly containing low affinity binding sites, is achieved cooperatively with other transcription factors. FCER1A transactivation is achieved in cooperation with GATA1 (By similarity). May be particularly important for the pro- to pre-B cell transition. Binds (via the ETS domain) onto the purine-rich DNA core sequence 5'-GAGGAA-3', also known as the PU-box. In vitro can bind RNA and interfere with pre-mRNA splicing (By similarity).

May be involved in the regulation of cell cycle progression (By similarity). Exhibits H3K4me3-binding activity.

Involved in the regulation of cell cycle progression, this activity is related to the inhibition of apoptosis following the removal of essential growth factors. Exhibits H3K4me3-binding activity.

Sequence specific transcriptional activator which binds to the PU-box, a purine-rich DNA sequence (5'-GAGGAA-3') that can act as a lymphoid-specific enhancer. Promotes development of plasmacytoid dendritic cells (pDCs), also known as type 2 DC precursors (pre-DC2) or natural interferon (IFN)-producing cells. These cells have the capacity to produce large amounts of interferon and block viral replication. May be required for B-cell receptor (BCR) signaling, which is necessary for normal B-cell development and antigenic stimulation.

Regulator required for centriole duplication, for proper bipolar spindle formation and chromosome congression in mitosis.

Controls the development of red pulp macrophages required for red blood cells recycling and iron homeostasis. Transcription factor that binds to the PU-box, a purine-rich DNA sequence (5'-GAGGA[AT]-3') that can act as a lymphoid-specific enhancer. Regulates VCAM1 gene expression (By similarity).

Plays a role in DNA double-strand break (DBS) repair via homologous recombination (HR). Serves as a scaffolding protein that helps to promote the recruitment of DNA-processing enzymes like the helicase BLM and recombinase RAD51 to site of DNA damage, and hence contributes to maintain genomic integrity.

Chromatin reader that specifically recognizes and binds histone H3 both trimethylated at 'Lys-4' and asymmetrically dimethylated at 'Arg-8' (H3K4me3 and H3R8me2a) and acts as an activator of Wnt signaling pathway downstream of PRMT2. In case of cancer, promotes cell cancer proliferation via activation of the Wnt signaling pathway. Overexpression induces metaphase arrest and chromosomal instability. Localizes to active rDNA loci and promotes the expression of rRNA genes. May play a role in cell- cycle regulation during the transition from gamete to embryo. Involved in oocyte meiotic resumption, a process that takes place before ovulation to resume meiosis of oocytes blocked in prophase I: may act by regulating maternal transcripts to control meiotic resumption.

Acts as an actin nucleation factor, remains associated with the slow-growing pointed end of the new filament. Involved in intracellular vesicle transport along actin fibers, providing a novel link between actin cytoskeleton dynamics and intracellular transport. Required for asymmetric spindle positioning and asymmetric cell division during meiosis. Required for normal formation of the cleavage furrow and for polar body extrusion during female germ cell meiosis. Also acts in the nucleus: together with FMN2, promotes assembly of nuclear actin filaments in response to DNA damage in order to facilitate movement of chromatin and repair factors after DNA damage. In addition, promotes innate immune signaling downstream of dsRNA sensing. Mechanistically, contributes to IRF3 phosphorylation and activation downstream of MAVS and upstream of TBK1.

Acts as an actin nucleation factor, remains associated with the slow-growing pointed end of the new filament. Involved in intracellular vesicle transport along actin fibers, providing a novel link between actin cytoskeleton dynamics and intracellular transport (By similarity). Required for asymmetric spindle positioning and asymmetric cell division during meiosis. Required for normal formation of the cleavage furrow and for polar body extrusion during female germ cell meiosis. Also acts in the nucleus: together with SPIRE1 and SPIRE2, promotes assembly of nuclear actin filaments in response to DNA damage in order to facilitate movement of chromatin and repair factors after DNA damage.

Inhibitor of HGF activator. Also acts as an inhibitor of matriptase (ST14)

Inhibitor of HGF activator. Also inhibits plasmin, plasma and tissue kallikrein, and factor XIa

Anchoring protein that binds preferentially to the type I regulatory subunit of c-AMP-dependent protein kinase (PKA type I) and targets it to distinct subcellular compartments. May act as a converging factor linking cAMP and sphingosine signaling pathways. Plays a regulatory role in the modulation of SPHK1.

Functions as an U snRNP-specific nuclear import adapter. Involved in the trimethylguanosine (m3G)-cap-dependent nuclear import of U snRNPs. Binds specifically to the terminal m3G-cap U snRNAs.

Has an important role in stress fiber formation induced by active diaphanous protein homolog 1 (DRF1). Induces microspike formation, in vivo (By similarity). In vitro, stimulates N-WASP-induced ARP2/3 complex activation in the absence of CDC42 (By similarity). May play an important role in the maintenance of sarcomeres and/or in the assembly of myofibrils into sarcomeres. Implicated in regulation of actin polymerization and cell adhesion. Plays a role in angiogenesis.

Negatively regulates the transcriptional activator activity of SPIN1 via inhibition of its histone methyl-binding ability. Represses the expression of a number of SPIN1- regulated genes and the SPIN1-mediated activation of the Wnt signaling pathway. Can also inhibit the histone methyl-binding abilities of SPIN2A, SPIN2B, SPIN3 and SPIN4. Positively regulates poly-ADP-ribosylation in response to DNA damage; acts by facilitating PARP1 ADP-ribosyltransferase activity.

Sphingolipid transporter (By similarity). May be involved in necrotic or autophagic cell death.

Lipid transporter that specifically mediates export of sphingosine-1-phosphate (sphing-4-enine 1-phosphate, S1P) and sphinganine-1-phosphate in the lymph, thereby playing a role in lymphocyte trafficking. S1P is a bioactive signaling molecule that regulates many physiological processes important for the development and for the immune system. Regulates levels of S1P and the S1P gradient that exists between the high circulating concentrations of S1P and low tissue levels that control lymphocyte trafficking. Required for the egress of T-cells from lymph nodes during an immune response by mediating S1P secretion, which generates a gradient that enables activated T-cells to access lymph (By similarity). Also required for the egress of immature B-cells from the bone marrow (By similarity). In contrast, not involved in S1P release from red blood cells (By similarity). Involved in auditory function. S1P release in the inner ear is required for maintenance of the endocochlear potential in the cochlea (By similarity). In addition to export, also able to mediate S1P import (By similarity).

Component of a topoisomerase 6 complex specifically required for meiotic recombination. Together with TOP6BL, mediates DNA cleavage that forms the double-strand breaks (DSB) that initiate meiotic recombination. The complex promotes relaxation of negative and positive supercoiled DNA and DNA decatenation through cleavage and ligation cycles. Essential for the phosphorylation of SMC3, HORMAD1 and HORMAD2.

Plays a key role in reinforcing the integrity of the central element of the synaptonemal complex (SC) thereby stabilizing SC, ensuring progression of meiotic prophase I in male and female germ cells (By similarity). Promotes homologous recombination and crossing- over in meiotic prophase I via its association with SHOC1 (By similarity). Required for the localization of TEX11 and MSH4 to recombination intermediates (By similarity).

Essential excecutor of PIWIL4-piRNA pathway directed transposon DNA methylation and silencing in the male embryonic germ cells (By similarity). Associates with the de novo DNA methylation machinery and repressive chromatin remodeling complexes (By similarity). Tethering of PIWIL4 to a nascent transposable element transcript recruits repressive chromatin remodeling activities and the de novo methylation apparatus through SPOCD1 (By similarity). Not required for piRNA biosynthesis (By similarity).

Cell adhesion protein that promotes the attachment of spinal cord and sensory neuron cells and the outgrowth of neurites in vitro. May contribute to the growth and guidance of axons in both the spinal cord and the PNS (By similarity). Major factor for vascular smooth muscle cell.

Cell adhesion protein that promotes adhesion and outgrowth of hippocampal embryonic neurons. Binds directly to bacteria and their components and functions as an opsonin for macrophage phagocytosis of bacteria. Essential in the initiation of the innate immune response and represents a unique pattern-recognition molecule in the ECM for microbial pathogens (By similarity). Binds bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

Component of a cullin-RING-based BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins, but with relatively low efficiency. Cullin-RING-based BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes containing homodimeric SPOPL or the heterodimer formed by SPOP and SPOPL are less efficient than ubiquitin ligase complexes containing only SPOP. May function to down-regulate the activity of cullin-RING-based BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin- protein ligase complexes that contain SPOP.

Component of a cullin-RING-based BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that mediates the ubiquitination of target proteins, leading most often to their proteasomal degradation. In complex with CUL3, involved in ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of BRMS1, DAXX, PDX1/IPF1, GLI2 and GLI3. In complex with CUL3, involved in ubiquitination of MACROH2A1 and BMI1; this does not lead to their proteasomal degradation. Inhibits transcriptional activation of PDX1/IPF1 targets, such as insulin, by promoting PDX1/IPF1 degradation. The cullin-RING-based BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex containing homodimeric SPOP has higher ubiquitin ligase activity than the complex that contains the heterodimer formed by SPOP and SPOPL. Involved in the regulation of bromodomain and extra-terminal motif (BET) proteins BRD2, BRD3, BRD4 stability.

Intramembrane-cleaving aspartic protease (I-CLiP) that cleaves type II membrane signal peptides in the hydrophobic plane of the membrane. Functions in FASLG, ITM2B and TNF processing. Catalyzes the intramembrane cleavage of the anchored fragment of shed TNF-alpha (TNF), which promotes the release of the intracellular domain (ICD) for signaling to the nucleus. Also responsible for the intramembrane cleavage of Fas antigen ligand FASLG, which promotes the release of the intracellular FasL domain (FasL ICD). Essential for degradation of the invariant chain CD74 that plays a central role in the function of antigen-presenting cells in the immune system (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of innate and adaptive immunity. Catalyzes the intramembrane cleavage of the simian foamy virus envelope glycoprotein gp130 independently of prior ectodomain shedding by furin or furin-like proprotein convertase (PC)-mediated cleavage proteolysis.

Intramembrane-cleaving aspartic protease (I-CLiP) that cleaves type II membrane signal peptides in the hydrophobic plane of the membrane. Functions in ITM2B and TNF processing. Catalyzes the intramembrane cleavage of the anchored fragment of shed TNF-alpha (TNF), which promotes the release of the intracellular domain (ICD) for signaling to the nucleus. May play a role in the regulation of innate and adaptive immunity. Catalyzes the intramembrane cleavage of the simian foamy virus processed leader peptide gp18 of the envelope glycoprotein gp130 dependently of prior ectodomain shedding by furin or furin-like proprotein convertase (PC)-mediated cleavage proteolysis.

Sperm-specific intramembrane-cleaving aspartic protease (I- CLiP) that cleaves distinct tail-anchored proteins and SNARE proteins. In elongated spermatids, modulates intracellular Ca(2+) homeostasis by controlling PLN abundance through proteolytic cleavage (By similarity). During spermatogenesis, processes SNARE proteins and impacts vesicular trafficking which supports compartmental reorganization in maturating spermatids and may play a role in formation of the acrosome.

Intramembrane-cleaving aspartic protease (I-CLiP) that cleaves type II membrane protein substrates in or close to their luminal transmembrane domain boundaries. Acts like a sheddase by mediating the proteolytic release and secretion of active site-containing ectodomains of glycan-modifiying glycosidase and glycosyltransferase enzymes such as MGAT5, B4GAT1 and B4GALT1. Catalyzes the intramembrane cleavage of the envelope glycoprotein gp130 and/or the leader peptide gp18LP of the simian foamy virus independent of prior ectodomain shedding by furin or furin-like proprotein convertase (PC)-mediated cleavage proteolysis. May also have the ability to serve as a shedding protease for subsequent intramembrane proteolysis by SPPL2A and SPPL2B of the envelope glycoprotein gp130. Plays a role in the regulation of cellular glycosylation processes. Required to link T-cell antigen receptor (TCR) and calcineurin-NFAT signaling cascades in lymphocytes by promoting the association of STIM1 and ORAI1 during store-operated calcium entry (SOCE) in a protease- independent manner.

Cross-linked envelope protein of keratinocytes. It is a keratinocyte protein that first appears in the cell cytosol, but ultimately becomes cross-linked to membrane proteins by transglutaminase. All that results in the formation of an insoluble envelope beneath the plasma membrane

Cross-linked envelope protein of keratinocytes. It is a keratinocyte protein that first appears in the cell cytosol, but ultimately becomes cross-linked to membrane proteins by transglutaminase. All that results in the formation of an insoluble envelope beneath the plasma membrane. Can function as both amine donor and acceptor in transglutaminase-mediated cross-linkage

Gut bactericidal protein that selectively kills Gram-positive bacteria by binding to negatively charged lipids on bacterial membranes, leading to bacterial membrane permeabilization and disruption. Specifically binds lipids bearing negatively charged headgroups, such as phosphatidic acid, phosphatidylserine (PS), cardiolipin (CL), and phosphatidylinositol phosphates, but not to zwitterionic or neutral lipids. Induced by type-2 cytokines in response to helminth infection and is required to protect against helminth-induced bacterial invasion of intestinal tissue (By similarity). May also be involved in the development of the cornified envelope of squamous epithelia; however, additional evidences are required to confirm this result in vivo.

Cross-linked envelope protein of keratinocytes. It is a keratinocyte protein that first appears in the cell cytosol, but ultimately becomes cross-linked to membrane proteins by transglutaminase. All that results in the formation of an insoluble envelope beneath the plasma membrane (By similarity).

Appears to regulate cell growth through interactions with the extracellular matrix and cytokines. Binds calcium and copper, several types of collagen, albumin, thrombospondin, PDGF and cell membranes. There are two calcium binding sites; an acidic domain that binds 5 to 8 Ca(2+) with a low affinity and an EF-hand loop that binds a Ca(2+) ion with a high affinity

Tyrosine kinase substrate that inhibits growth-factor- mediated activation of MAP kinase (By similarity). Negatively regulates hematopoiesis of bone marrow (By similarity). Inhibits fibroblast growth factor (FGF)-induced retinal lens fiber differentiation, probably by inhibiting FGF-mediated phosphorylation of ERK1/2 (By similarity). Attenuates actin stress fiber formation via inhibition of TESK1-mediated phosphorylation of cofilin. Inhibits TGFB-induced epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition in lens epithelial cells (By similarity).

Negatively regulates Ras signaling pathways and downstream activation of MAP kinases. Recruits and translocates NF1 to the cell membrane, thereby enabling NF1- dependent hydrolysis of active GTP-bound Ras to inactive GDP-bound Ras. Inhibits fibroblast growth factor (FGF)-induced retinal lens fiber differentiation, probably by inhibiting FGF-mediated phosphorylation of ERK1/2 (By similarity). Inhibits TGFB-induced epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition in lens epithelial cells (By similarity).

Tyrosine kinase substrate that inhibits growth-factor- mediated activation of MAP kinase (By similarity). Inhibits fibroblast growth factor (FGF)-induced retinal lens fiber differentiation, probably by inhibiting FGF-mediated phosphorylation of ERK1/2 (By similarity). Inhibits TGFB-induced epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition in lens epithelial cells (By similarity).

Catalyzes the final one or two reductions in tetra- hydrobiopterin biosynthesis to form 5,6,7,8-tetrahydrobiopterin

Positively regulates hepatic SREBP signaling pathway by modulating the proper localization of SCAP (SREBP cleavage-activating protein) to the endoplasmic reticulum, thereby controlling the level of functional SCAP.

Prion-like protein that has PrP(C)-like neuroprotective activity. May act as a modulator for the biological actions of normal and abnormal PrP (By similarity).

Cross-linked envelope protein of keratinocytes. Involved in UV-induced cornification

DNA-dependent metalloendopeptidase that mediates the proteolytic cleavage of covalent DNA-protein cross-links (DPCs) during DNA synthesis, thereby playing a key role in maintaining genomic integrity. DPCs are highly toxic DNA lesions that interfere with essential chromatin transactions, such as replication and transcription, and which are induced by reactive agents, such as UV light or formaldehyde. Associates with the DNA replication machinery and specifically removes DPCs during DNA synthesis. Acts as a pleiotropic protease for DNA-binding proteins cross-linked with DNA, such as TOP1, TOP2A, histones H3 and H4. Mediates degradation of DPCs that are not ubiquitinated, while it is not able to degrade ubiquitinated DPCs (By similarity). SPRTN activation requires polymerase collision with DPCs followed by helicase bypass of DPCs (By similarity). Involved in recruitment of VCP/p97 to sites of DNA damage. Also acts as an activator of CHEK1 during normal DNA replication by mediating proteolytic cleavage of CHEK1, thereby promoting CHEK1 removal from chromatin and subsequent activation. Does not activate CHEK1 in response to DNA damage. May also act as a 'reader' of ubiquitinated PCNA: recruited to sites of UV damage and interacts with ubiquitinated PCNA and RAD18, the E3 ubiquitin ligase that monoubiquitinates PCNA. Facilitates chromatin association of RAD18 and is required for efficient PCNA monoubiquitination, promoting a feed-forward loop to enhance PCNA ubiquitination and translesion DNA synthesis.

Substrate recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin BC-CUL2/5-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Negatively regulates nitric oxide (NO) production and limits cellular toxicity in activated macrophages by mediating the ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of NOS2. Acts as a bridge which links NOS2 with the ECS E3 ubiquitin ligase complex components ELOC and CUL5.

May be a substrate recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin BC-CUL2/5-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins.

Substrate recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin BC-CUL2/5-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Negatively regulates nitric oxide (NO) production and limits cellular toxicity in activated macrophages by mediating the ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of NOS2. Acts as a bridge which links NOS2 with the ECS E3 ubiquitin ligase complex components ELOC and CUL5. Diminishes EphB2-dependent cell repulsive responses by mediating the ubiquitination and degradation of EphB2/CTF2. Regulates cellular clock function by mediating the ubiquitin/proteasome-dependent degradation of the circadian transcriptional repressor NR1D1.

Catalyzes the production of spermine from spermidine and decarboxylated S-adenosylmethionine (dcSAM).

Acts as guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RHOA, RAC1 and CDC42 GTPases. Regulates cell migration and adhesion assembly and disassembly through a RAC1, PI3K, RHOA and AKT1-dependent mechanism. Increases both RAC1 and CDC42 activity, but decreases the amount of active RHOA. Required for MMP9 up-regulation via the JNK signaling pathway in colorectal tumor cells. Involved in tumor angiogenesis and may play a role in intestinal adenoma formation and tumor progression.

Essential for spermiogenesis and male fertility (By similarity). Involved in the formation of sperm acrosome during spermatogenesis.

Essential for sperm motility and male fertility (By similarity). Plays an important role in sperm motility by regulating the organization and function of the mitochondria and is also required for correct sperm midpiece assembly (By similarity).

Meiosis-specific protein required for homologous recombination in meiosis I.

Histone chaperone that stabilizes pre-existing histone tetramers and regulates replication-independent histone exchange on chromatin. Required for normal chromatin refolding in the coding region of transcribed genes, and for the suppression of spurious transcription. Binds DNA and histones and promotes nucleosome assembly (in vitro). Facilitates formation of tetrameric histone complexes containing histone H3 and H4. Modulates RNA polymerase 1-mediated transcription (By similarity). Binds DNA, with a preference for branched DNA species, such as Y-form DNA and Holliday junction DNA.

Plays an important role in sperm motility and male fertility (By similarity). Required for sperm midpiece flexibility and for the localization of sperm calcineurin to the mitochondria (By similarity). Promotes mitophagy as well as acts as an autophagy mediator in male germline cells (By similarity). Links damaged mitochondria to autophagosomes via its binding to the outer mitochondrial membrane protein VDAC2, as well as to key autophagy machinery component ATG16L1 (By similarity).

Component of the DRB sensitivity-inducing factor complex (DSIF complex), which regulates mRNA processing and transcription elongation by RNA polymerase II. DSIF positively regulates mRNA capping by stimulating the mRNA guanylyltransferase activity of RNGTT/CAP1A. DSIF also acts cooperatively with the negative elongation factor complex (NELF complex) to enhance transcriptional pausing at sites proximal to the promoter. Transcriptional pausing may facilitate the assembly of an elongation competent RNA polymerase II complex. DSIF and NELF promote pausing by inhibition of the transcription elongation factor TFIIS/S-II. TFIIS/S-II binds to RNA polymerase II at transcription pause sites and stimulates the weak intrinsic nuclease activity of the enzyme. Cleavage of blocked transcripts by RNA polymerase II promotes the resumption of transcription from the new 3' terminus and may allow repeated attempts at transcription through natural pause sites. DSIF can also positively regulate transcriptional elongation and is required for the efficient activation of transcriptional elongation by the HIV-1 nuclear transcriptional activator, Tat. DSIF acts to suppress transcriptional pausing in transcripts derived from the HIV-1 LTR and blocks premature release of HIV-1 transcripts at terminator sequences.

Transcription elongation factor which binds histone H3 and plays a key role in the regulation of transcription elongation and mRNA processing. Enhances the transcription elongation by RNA polymerase II (RNAPII) and is also required for the efficient activation of transcriptional elongation by the HIV-1 nuclear transcriptional activator, Tat. Besides chaperoning histones in transcription, acts to transport and splice mRNA by forming a complex with IWS1 and the C- terminal domain (CTD) of the RNAPII subunit RPB1 (POLR2A). The SUPT6H:IWS1:CTD complex recruits mRNA export factors (ALYREF/THOC4, EXOSC10) as well as histone modifying enzymes (such as SETD2), to ensure proper mRNA splicing, efficient mRNA export and elongation- coupled H3K36 methylation, a signature chromatin mark of active transcription. SUPT6H via its association with SETD1A, regulates both class-switch recombination and somatic hypermutation through formation of H3K4me3 epigenetic marks on activation-induced cytidine deaminase (AICDA) target loci. Promotes the activation of the myogenic gene program by entailing erasure of the repressive H3K27me3 epigenetic mark through stabilization of the chromatin interaction of the H3K27 demethylase KDM6A.

Spectrin is the major constituent of the cytoskeletal network underlying the erythrocyte plasma membrane. It associates with band 4.1 and actin to form the cytoskeletal superstructure of the erythrocyte plasma membrane

Fodrin, which seems to be involved in secretion, interacts with calmodulin in a calcium-dependent manner and is thus candidate for the calcium-dependent movement of the cytoskeleton at the membrane. Plays a critical role in central nervous system development and function.

Serine palmitoyltransferase (SPT). The heterodimer formed with SPTLC2 or SPTLC3 constitutes the catalytic core. The composition of the serine palmitoyltransferase (SPT) complex determines the substrate preference. The SPTLC1-SPTLC2-SPTSSA complex shows a strong preference for C16-CoA substrate, while the SPTLC1-SPTLC3-SPTSSA isozyme uses both C14-CoA and C16-CoA as substrates, with a slight preference for C14-CoA. The SPTLC1-SPTLC2-SPTSSB complex shows a strong preference for C18-CoA substrate, while the SPTLC1-SPTLC3-SPTSSB isozyme displays an ability to use a broader range of acyl-CoAs, without apparent preference. Required for adipocyte cell viability and metabolic homeostasis (By similarity).

Serine palmitoyltransferase (SPT). The heterodimer formed with LCB1/SPTLC1 constitutes the catalytic core. The composition of the serine palmitoyltransferase (SPT) complex determines the substrate preference. The SPTLC1-SPTLC2-SPTSSA complex shows a strong preference for C16-CoA substrate, while the SPTLC1-SPTLC2-SPTSSB complex displays a preference for C18-CoA substrate. Plays an important role in de novo sphyngolipid biosynthesis which is crucial for adipogenesis (By similarity).

Serine palmitoyltransferase (SPT). The heterodimer formed with LCB1/SPTLC1 constitutes the catalytic core. The composition of the serine palmitoyltransferase (SPT) complex determines the substrate preference. SPT complexes containing SPTLC3 generate shorter chain sphingoid bases compared to complexes containing SPTLC2. The SPTLC1- SPTLC3-SPTSSA isozyme uses C12-CoA, C14-CoA and C16-CoA as substrates, with a slight preference for C14-CoA. On the other hand, the SPTLC1- SPTLC3-SPTSSB has the ability to use a broader range of acyl-CoAs without apparent preference.

May play a role in neurite plasticity by maintaining cytoskeleton stability and regulating synaptic vesicle transport.

Fodrin, which seems to be involved in secretion, interacts with calmodulin in a calcium-dependent manner and is thus candidate for the calcium-dependent movement of the cytoskeleton at the membrane

Stimulates the activity of serine palmitoyltransferase (SPT). The composition of the serine palmitoyltransferase (SPT) complex determines the substrate preference. The SPTLC1-SPTLC2-SPTSSA complex shows a strong preference for C16-CoA substrate, while the SPTLC1- SPTLC3-SPTSSA isozyme uses both C14-CoA and C16-CoA as substrates, with a slight preference for C14-CoA. Plays a role in MBOAT7 location to mitochondria-associated membranes (MAMs), may me involved in fatty acid remodeling phosphatidylinositol (PI).

Stimulates the activity of serine palmitoyltransferase (SPT). The composition of the serine palmitoyltransferase (SPT) complex determines the substrate preference, complexes with this subunit showing a clear preference for longer acyl-CoAs. The SPTLC1-SPTLC2- SPTSSB complex shows a strong preference for C18-CoA substrate, while the SPTLC1-SPTLC3-SPTSSB isozyme displays an ability to use a broader range of acyl-CoAs, without apparent preference. May play a role in signal transduction.

Plays a role as a central modulator of cardiovascular and renal function and nociception. Also plays a role in energy metabolism and storage. Inhibits adrenocortical cell proliferation with minor stimulation on corticosteroid release (By similarity).

Inhibits fibroblast growth factor (FGF)-induced retinal lens fiber differentiation, probably by inhibiting FGF-mediated phosphorylation of ERK1/2 (By similarity). Inhibits TGFB-induced epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition in lens epithelial cells (By similarity).

Antagonist of fibroblast growth factor (FGF) pathways via inhibition of FGF-mediated phosphorylation of ERK1/2 (By similarity). Thereby acts as an antagonist of FGF-induced retinal lens fiber differentiation, may inhibit limb bud outgrowth and may negatively modulate respiratory organogenesis (By similarity). Inhibits TGFB- induced epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition in retinal lens epithelial cells (By similarity). Inhibits CBL/C-CBL-mediated EGFR ubiquitination.

Inhibits neurite branching, arbor length and neurite complexity (By similarity). Inhibits EGF-mediated p42/44 ERK signaling (By similarity). Negatively regulates the MAPK cascade, resulting in a reduction of extracellular matrix protein accumulation. May function as an antagonist of fibroblast growth factor (FGF) pathways and may negatively modulate respiratory organogenesis.

Suppresses the insulin receptor and EGFR-transduced MAPK signaling pathway, but does not inhibit MAPK activation by a constitutively active mutant Ras. Probably impairs the formation of GTP-Ras. Inhibits Ras-independent, but not Ras-dependent, activation of RAF1. Represses integrin-mediated cell spreading via inhibition of TESK1-mediated phosphorylation of cofilin.

Transcription factor that binds to the DNA sequence 5'- CANNTG-3'(E box) and the G-box motif. May play an important role in the regulation of cell proliferation and differentiation during spermatogenesis (By similarity).

Catalyzes the oxidation of hydrogen sulfide with the help of a quinone, such as ubiquinone-10, giving rise to thiosulfate and ultimately to sulfane (molecular sulfur) atoms. Requires an additional electron acceptor; can use sulfite, sulfide or cyanide (in vitro). It is believed the in vivo electron acceptor is glutathione (PubMed:25225291,PubMed:29715001).

Autophagy receptor required for selective macroautophagy (aggrephagy). Functions as a bridge between polyubiquitinated cargo and autophagosomes. Interacts directly with both the cargo to become degraded and an autophagy modifier of the MAP1 LC3 family. Along with WDFY3, involved in the formation and autophagic degradation of cytoplasmic ubiquitin-containing inclusions (p62 bodies, ALIS/aggresome-like induced structures). Along with WDFY3, required to recruit ubiquitinated proteins to PML bodies in the nucleus. Also involved in autophagy of peroxisomes (pexophagy) in response to reactive oxygen species (ROS) by acting as a bridge between ubiquitinated PEX5 receptor and autophagosomes. May regulate the activation of NFKB1 by TNF-alpha, nerve growth factor (NGF) and interleukin-1. May play a role in titin/TTN downstream signaling in muscle cells. May regulate signaling cascades through ubiquitination. Adapter that mediates the interaction between TRAF6 and CYLD (By similarity). May be involved in cell differentiation, apoptosis, immune response and regulation of K(+) channels. Involved in endosome organization by retaining vesicles in the perinuclear cloud: following ubiquitination by RNF26, attracts specific vesicle-associated adapters, forming a molecular bridge that restrains cognate vesicles in the perinuclear region and organizes the endosomal pathway for efficient cargo transport. Promotes relocalization of 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitinated STING1 to autophagosomes. Acts as an activator of the NFE2L2/NRF2 pathway via interaction with KEAP1: interaction inactivates the BCR(KEAP1) complex, promoting nuclear accumulation of NFE2L2/NRF2 and subsequent expression of cytoprotective genes. Sequesters tensin TNS2 into cytoplasmic puncta, promoting TNS2 ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation.

Possible splicing regulator involved in the control of cellular survival

Functional RNA which acts as a transcriptional coactivator that selectively enhances steroid receptor-mediated transactivation ligand-independently through a mechanism involving the modulating N- terminal domain (AF-1) of steroid receptors. Also mediates transcriptional coactivation of steroid receptors ligand-dependently through the steroid-binding domain (AF-2). Enhances cellular proliferation and differentiation and promotes apoptosis in vivo. May play a role in tumorigenesis.

Plays an important role in the phosphatidylglycerol remodeling that is essential for both mitochondrial function and intracellular cholesterol trafficking. May catalyze the remodeling of phosphatidylglycerol and be involved in the transacylation-acylation reaction to produce phosphatidylglycerol-36:1. May be involved in bis(monoacylglycerol)phosphate biosynthetic pathway.

May regulate the transcriptional function of androgen and estrogen receptors.

[Sterol regulatory element-binding protein 1]: Precursor of the transcription factor form (Processed sterol regulatory element- binding protein 1), which is embedded in the endoplasmic reticulum membrane. Low sterol concentrations promote processing of this form, releasing the transcription factor form that translocates into the nucleus and activates transcription of genes involved in cholesterol biosynthesis and lipid homeostasis (By similarity).

[Sterol regulatory element-binding protein 2]: Precursor of the transcription factor form (Processed sterol regulatory element- binding protein 2), which is embedded in the endoplasmic reticulum membrane. Low sterol concentrations promote processing of this form, releasing the transcription factor form that translocates into the nucleus and activates transcription of genes involved in cholesterol biosynthesis.

Plays a role in tyrosine phosphorylation of CBL by linking CBL to the insulin receptor. Required for insulin-stimulated glucose transport. Involved in formation of actin stress fibers and focal adhesions (By similarity).

Contributes to the organization of the actin cytoskeleton and cell shape. Plays a role in the formation of lamellipodia and in cell migration. Plays a role in the regulation of neuron morphology, axon growth and formation of neuronal growth cones (By similarity). Through its interaction with CTTNBP2, involved in the regulation of neuronal spine density (By similarity). Plays a role in focal adhesion assembly and turnover (By similarity). In complex with ABL1 and MYLK regulates cortical actin-based cytoskeletal rearrangement critical to sphingosine 1-phosphate (S1P)-mediated endothelial cell (EC) barrier enhancement. Plays a role in intracellular protein transport and endocytosis, and in modulating the levels of potassium channels present at the cell membrane. Plays a role in receptor-mediated endocytosis via clathrin-coated pits (By similarity). Required for stabilization of KCNH1 channels at the cell membrane. Plays a role in the invasiveness of cancer cells, and the formation of metastases.

Catalytic component of the SRCAP complex which mediates the ATP-dependent exchange of histone H2AZ/H2B dimers for nucleosomal H2A/H2B, leading to transcriptional regulation of selected genes by chromatin remodeling. Acts as a coactivator for CREB-mediated transcription, steroid receptor-mediated transcription, and Notch- mediated transcription.

May play a role in the regulation of calcium sequestration or release in the SR of skeletal and cardiac muscle

Acts as a negative regulator of SRC by activating CSK which inhibits SRC activity and downstream signaling, leading to impaired cell spreading and migration. Regulates dendritic spine morphology. Involved in calcium-dependent exocytosis. May play a role in neurotransmitter release or synapse maintenance.

Binds to extracellular matrix proteins. Binds to pathogen- associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) present on the cell walls of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria and fungi, behaving as a pattern recognition receptor (PRR). Induces bacterial and fungal aggregation and subsequent inhibition of PAMP-induced cytokine release. Does not possess intrinsic bactericidal activity. May play a role in the innate defense and homeostasis of certain epithelial surfaces (By similarity).

May play a role in the immune system, perhaps as a co- receptor on alphabeta and gammadelta T-cells.

Non-receptor protein tyrosine kinase which is activated following engagement of many different classes of cellular receptors including immune response receptors, integrins and other adhesion receptors, receptor protein tyrosine kinases, G protein-coupled receptors as well as cytokine receptors. Participates in signaling pathways that control a diverse spectrum of biological activities including gene transcription, immune response, cell adhesion, cell cycle progression, apoptosis, migration, and transformation. Due to functional redundancy between members of the SRC kinase family, identification of the specific role of each SRC kinase is very difficult. SRC appears to be one of the primary kinases activated following engagement of receptors and plays a role in the activation of other protein tyrosine kinase (PTK) families. Receptor clustering or dimerization leads to recruitment of SRC to the receptor complexes where it phosphorylates the tyrosine residues within the receptor cytoplasmic domains. Plays an important role in the regulation of cytoskeletal organization through phosphorylation of specific substrates such as AFAP1. Phosphorylation of AFAP1 allows the SRC SH2 domain to bind AFAP1 and to localize to actin filaments. Cytoskeletal reorganization is also controlled through the phosphorylation of cortactin (CTTN) (Probable). When cells adhere via focal adhesions to the extracellular matrix, signals are transmitted by integrins into the cell resulting in tyrosine phosphorylation of a number of focal adhesion proteins, including PTK2/FAK1 and paxillin (PXN). In addition to phosphorylating focal adhesion proteins, SRC is also active at the sites of cell-cell contact adherens junctions and phosphorylates substrates such as beta-catenin (CTNNB1), delta-catenin (CTNND1), and plakoglobin (JUP). Another type of cell- cell junction, the gap junction, is also a target for SRC, which phosphorylates connexin-43 (GJA1). SRC is implicated in regulation of pre-mRNA-processing and phosphorylates RNA-binding proteins such as KHDRBS1 (Probable). Also plays a role in PDGF-mediated tyrosine phosphorylation of both STAT1 and STAT3, leading to increased DNA binding activity of these transcription factors (By similarity). Involved in the RAS pathway through phosphorylation of RASA1 and RASGRF1. Plays a role in EGF-mediated calcium- activated chloride channel activation. Required for epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) internalization through phosphorylation of clathrin heavy chain (CLTC and CLTCL1) at 'Tyr- 1477'. Involved in beta-arrestin (ARRB1 and ARRB2) desensitization through phosphorylation and activation of GRK2, leading to beta- arrestin phosphorylation and internalization. Has a critical role in the stimulation of the CDK20/MAPK3 mitogen-activated protein kinase cascade by epidermal growth factor (Probable). Might be involved not only in mediating the transduction of mitogenic signals at the level of the plasma membrane but also in controlling progression through the cell cycle via interaction with regulatory proteins in the nucleus. Plays an important role in osteoclastic bone resorption in conjunction with PTK2B/PYK2. Both the formation of a SRC- PTK2B/PYK2 complex and SRC kinase activity are necessary for this function. Recruited to activated integrins by PTK2B/PYK2, thereby phosphorylating CBL, which in turn induces the activation and recruitment of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase to the cell membrane in a signaling pathway that is critical for osteoclast function. Promotes energy production in osteoclasts by activating mitochondrial cytochrome C oxidase. Phosphorylates DDR2 on tyrosine residues, thereby promoting its subsequent autophosphorylation. Phosphorylates RUNX3 and COX2 on tyrosine residues, TNK2 on 'Tyr-284' and CBL on 'Tyr-731'. Enhances RIGI- elicited antiviral signaling. Phosphorylates PDPK1 at 'Tyr-9', 'Tyr-373' and 'Tyr-376'. Phosphorylates BCAR1 at 'Tyr-128'. Phosphorylates CBLC at multiple tyrosine residues, phosphorylation at 'Tyr-341' activates CBLC E3 activity. Phosphorylates synaptic vesicle protein synaptophysin (SYP) (By similarity). Involved in anchorage-independent cell growth. Required for podosome formation (By similarity). Mediates IL6 signaling by activating YAP1-NOTCH pathway to induce inflammation-induced epithelial regeneration.

Probable adhesion protein, which mediates homophilic and heterophilic interactions. In contrast to SCARF1, it poorly mediates the binding and degradation of acetylated low density lipoprotein (Ac- LDL) (By similarity).

Mediates the binding and degradation of acetylated low density lipoprotein (Ac-LDL). Mediates heterophilic interactions, suggesting a function as adhesion protein. Plays a role in the regulation of neurite-like outgrowth (By similarity).

Participates in the regulation of alternative splicing by modulating the activity of other splice facors. Inhibits the splicing activity of SFRS1, SFRS2 and SFRS6. Augments the splicing activity of SFRS3 (By similarity).

May be involved in regulating transcriptional activation of cardiac genes during the aging process. May play a role in biosynthesis and/or processing of SLC2A4 in adipose cells (By similarity).

SRF is a transcription factor that binds to the serum response element (SRE), a short sequence of dyad symmetry located 300 bp to the 5' of the site of transcription initiation of some genes (such as FOS). Together with MRTFA transcription coactivator, controls expression of genes regulating the cytoskeleton during development, morphogenesis and cell migration. The SRF-MRTFA complex activity responds to Rho GTPase-induced changes in cellular globular actin (G- actin) concentration, thereby coupling cytoskeletal gene expression to cytoskeletal dynamics. Required for cardiac differentiation and maturation.

Human-specific protein that acts as a key modifier of cortical connectivity in the human brain. Acts by inhibiting the functions of ancestral paralog SRGAP2/SRGAP2A, a postsynaptic protein that regulates excitatory and inhibitory synapse maturation and density in cortical pyramidal neurons. SRGAP2C is unstable but is able to heterodimerize with SRGAP2/SRGAP2A, thereby reducing SRGAP2/SRGAP2A levels through proteasome-dependent degradation. Inhibition of SRGAP2/SRGAP2A by SRGAP2C leads to an increase in synaptic density and protracted synaptic maturation of both excitatory and inhibitory synapses. Modifies cortical circuit connectivity by increasing the number of local and long-range cortical inputs received by layer 2/3 pyramidal neurons. Also able to increase the probability of sensory-evoked responses by layer 2/3 pyramidal neurons.

Probable guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF), which may be involved in the secretion process

Plays a role in formation of mast cell secretory granules and mediates storage of various compounds in secretory vesicles. Required for storage of some proteases in both connective tissue and mucosal mast cells and for storage of granzyme B in T-lymphocytes. Plays a role in localizing neutrophil elastase in azurophil granules of neutrophils. Mediates processing of MMP2. Plays a role in cytotoxic cell granule- mediated apoptosis by forming a complex with granzyme B which is delivered to cells by perforin to induce apoptosis. Regulates the secretion of TNF-alpha and may also regulate protease secretion. Inhibits bone mineralization.

GTPase-activating protein for RhoA and Cdc42 small GTPases. Together with CDC42 seems to be involved in the pathway mediating the repulsive signaling of Robo and Slit proteins in neuronal migration. SLIT2, probably through interaction with ROBO1, increases the interaction of SRGAP1 with ROBO1 and inactivates CDC42.

Postsynaptic RAC1 GTPase activating protein (GAP) that plays a key role in neuronal morphogenesis and migration mainly during development of the cerebral cortex. Regulates excitatory and inhibitory synapse maturation and density in cortical pyramidal neurons. SRGAP2/SRGAP2A limits excitatory and inhibitory synapse density through its RAC1-specific GTPase activating activity, while it promotes maturation of both excitatory and inhibitory synapses through its ability to bind to the postsynaptic scaffolding protein HOMER1 at excitatory synapses, and the postsynaptic protein GPHN at inhibitory synapses (By similarity). Mechanistically, acts by binding and deforming membranes, thereby regulating actin dynamics to regulate cell migration and differentiation. Promotes cell repulsion and contact inhibition of locomotion: localizes to protrusions with curved edges and controls the duration of RAC1 activity in contact protrusions (By similarity). In non-neuronal cells, may also play a role in cell migration by regulating the formation of lamellipodia and filopodia.

GTPase-activating protein for RAC1 and perhaps Cdc42, but not for RhoA small GTPase. May attenuate RAC1 signaling in neurons.

Non-receptor tyrosine-protein kinase which phosphorylates DOK1 on tyrosine residues. Also phosphorylates KHDRBS1/SAM68 and VIM on tyrosine residues. Phosphorylation of KHDRBS1 is EGF-dependent.

Component of the signal recognition particle (SRP) complex, a ribonucleoprotein complex that mediates the cotranslational targeting of secretory and membrane proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) (By similarity). SRP9 together with SRP14 and the Alu portion of the SRP RNA, constitutes the elongation arrest domain of SRP. The complex of SRP9 and SRP14 is required for SRP RNA binding (By similarity).

Component of the signal recognition particle (SRP) complex, a ribonucleoprotein complex that mediates the cotranslational targeting of secretory and membrane proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). SRP9 together with SRP14 and the Alu portion of the SRP RNA, constitutes the elongation arrest domain of SRP. The complex of SRP9 and SRP14 is required for SRP RNA binding.

Component of the signal recognition particle (SRP) complex, a ribonucleoprotein complex that mediates the cotranslational targeting of secretory and membrane proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) (By similarity). Binds directly to 7SL RNA (By similarity). Mediates binding of SRP54 to the SRP complex (By similarity).

Component of the signal recognition particle (SRP) complex, a ribonucleoprotein complex that mediates the cotranslational targeting of secretory and membrane proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). As part of the SRP complex, associates with the SRP receptor (SR) component SRPRA to target secretory proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum membrane. Binds to the signal sequence of presecretory proteins when they emerge from the ribosomes. Displays basal GTPase activity, and stimulates reciprocal GTPase activation of the SR subunit SRPRA. Forms a guanosine 5'-triphosphate (GTP)-dependent complex with the SR subunit SRPRA. SR compaction and GTPase mediated rearrangement of SR drive SRP-mediated cotranslational protein translocation into the ER. Requires the presence of SRP9/SRP14 and/or SRP19 to stably interact with RNA (By similarity). Plays a role in proliferation and differentiation of granulocytic cells, neutrophils migration capacity and exocrine pancreas development.

Component of the signal recognition particle (SRP) complex, a ribonucleoprotein complex that mediates the cotranslational targeting of secretory and membrane proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). The SRP complex interacts with the signal sequence in nascent secretory and membrane proteins and directs them to the membrane of the ER. The SRP complex targets the ribosome-nascent chain complex to the SRP receptor (SR), which is anchored in the ER, where SR compaction and GTPase rearrangement drive cotranslational protein translocation into the ER. Binds the signal recognition particle RNA (7SL RNA), SRP72 binds to this complex subsequently. The SRP complex possibly participates in the elongation arrest function (By similarity).

Component of the signal recognition particle (SRP) complex, a ribonucleoprotein complex that mediates the cotranslational targeting of secretory and membrane proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). The SRP complex interacts with the signal sequence in nascent secretory and membrane proteins and directs them to the membrane of the ER. The SRP complex targets the ribosome-nascent chain complex to the SRP receptor (SR), which is anchored in the ER, where SR compaction and GTPase rearrangement drive cotranslational protein translocation into the ER. Binds the signal recognition particle RNA (7SL RNA) in presence of SRP68. Can bind 7SL RNA with low affinity. The SRP complex possibly participates in the elongation arrest function (By similarity).

Serine/arginine-rich protein-specific kinase which specifically phosphorylates its substrates at serine residues located in regions rich in arginine/serine dipeptides, known as RS domains and is involved in the phosphorylation of SR splicing factors and the regulation of splicing. Plays a central role in the regulatory network for splicing, controlling the intranuclear distribution of splicing factors in interphase cells and the reorganization of nuclear speckles during mitosis. Can influence additional steps of mRNA maturation, as well as other cellular activities, such as chromatin reorganization in somatic and sperm cells and cell cycle progression. Isoform 2 phosphorylates SFRS2, ZRSR2, LBR and PRM1. Isoform 2 phosphorylates SRSF1 using a directional (C-terminal to N-terminal) and a dual-track mechanism incorporating both processive phosphorylation (in which the kinase stays attached to the substrate after each round of phosphorylation) and distributive phosphorylation steps (in which the kinase and substrate dissociate after each phosphorylation event). The RS domain of SRSF1 binds first to a docking groove in the large lobe of the kinase domain of SRPK1. This induces certain structural changes in SRPK1 and/or RRM2 domain of SRSF1, allowing RRM2 to bind the kinase and initiate phosphorylation. The cycles continue for several phosphorylation steps in a processive manner (steps 1-8) until the last few phosphorylation steps (approximately steps 9-12). During that time, a mechanical stress induces the unfolding of the beta-4 motif in RRM2, which then docks at the docking groove of SRPK1. This also signals RRM2 to begin to dissociate, which facilitates SRSF1 dissociation after phosphorylation is completed. Isoform 2 can mediate hepatitis B virus (HBV) core protein phosphorylation. It plays a negative role in the regulation of HBV replication through a mechanism not involving the phosphorylation of the core protein but by reducing the packaging efficiency of the pregenomic RNA (pgRNA) without affecting the formation of the viral core particles. Isoform 1 and isoform 2 can induce splicing of exon 10 in MAPT/TAU. The ratio of isoform 1/isoform 2 plays a decisive role in determining cell fate in K-562 leukaemic cell line: isoform 2 favors proliferation where as isoform 1 favors differentiation.

Serine/arginine-rich protein-specific kinase which specifically phosphorylates its substrates at serine residues located in regions rich in arginine/serine dipeptides, known as RS domains and is involved in the phosphorylation of SR splicing factors and the regulation of splicing. Promotes neuronal apoptosis by up-regulating cyclin- D1 (CCND1) expression. This is done by the phosphorylation of SRSF2, leading to the suppression of p53/TP53 phosphorylation thereby relieving the repressive effect of p53/TP53 on cyclin-D1 (CCND1) expression. Phosphorylates ACIN1, and redistributes it from the nuclear speckles to the nucleoplasm, resulting in cyclin A1 but not cyclin A2 up-regulation. Plays an essential role in spliceosomal B complex formation via the phosphorylation of DDX23/PRP28. Probably by phosphorylating DDX23, leads to the suppression of incorrect R-loops formed during transcription; R-loops are composed of a DNA:RNA hybrid and the associated non-template single-stranded DNA. Can mediate hepatitis B virus (HBV) core protein phosphorylation. Plays a negative role in the regulation of HBV replication through a mechanism not involving the phosphorylation of the core protein but by reducing the packaging efficiency of the pregenomic RNA (pgRNA) without affecting the formation of the viral core particles.

Serine/arginine-rich protein-specific kinase which specifically phosphorylates its substrates at serine residues located in regions rich in arginine/serine dipeptides, known as RS domains. Phosphorylates the SR splicing factor SRSF1 and the lamin-B receptor (LBR) in vitro. Required for normal muscle development (By similarity).

Component of the signal recognition particle (SRP) complex receptor (SR). Ensures, in conjunction with the SRP complex, the correct targeting of the nascent secretory proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum membrane system. Forms a guanosine 5'-triphosphate (GTP)-dependent complex with the SRP subunit SRP54. SRP receptor compaction and GTPase rearrangement drive SRP-mediated cotranslational protein translocation into the ER.

Component of the signal recognition particle (SRP) complex receptor (SR) (By similarity). Ensures, in conjunction with the SRP complex, the correct targeting of the nascent secretory proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum membrane system (By similarity). May mediate the membrane association of SR (By similarity).

Acts as a ligand for the urokinase plasminogen activator surface receptor. Plays a role in angiogenesis by inducing endothelial cell migration and the formation of vascular network (cords). Involved in cellular migration and adhesion. Increases the phosphorylation levels of FAK. Interacts with and increases the mitogenic activity of HGF. Promotes synapse formation. May have a role in the perisylvian region, critical for language and cognitive development.

May be involved in phagocytosis during disk shedding, cell adhesion to cells other than the pigment epithelium or signal transduction

Plays a role in the regulation of heme biosynthesis and in the regulation of the expression of core clock genes.

Part of pre- and post-splicing multiprotein mRNP complexes. Involved in numerous pre-mRNA processing events. Promotes constitutive and exonic splicing enhancer (ESE)-dependent splicing activation by bridging together sequence-specific (SR family proteins, SFRS4, SFRS5 and TRA2B/SFRS10) and basal snRNP (SNRP70 and SNRPA1) factors of the spliceosome. Stimulates mRNA 3'-end cleavage independently of the formation of an exon junction complex. Binds both pre-mRNA and spliced mRNA 20-25 nt upstream of exon-exon junctions. Binds RNA and DNA with low sequence specificity and has similar preference for either double- or single-stranded nucleic acid substrates.

Splicing factor specifically required for neural cell differentiation. Acts in conjunction with nPTB/PTBP2 by binding directly to its regulated target transcripts and promotes neural- specific exon inclusion in many genes that function in neural cell differentiation. Required to promote the inclusion of neural-specific exon 10 in nPTB/PTBP2, leading to increased expression of neural- specific nPTB/PTBP2. Also promotes the inclusion of exon 16 in DAAM1 in neuron extracts (By similarity). Promotes alternative splicing of REST transcripts to produce REST isoform 3 (REST4) with greatly reduced repressive activity, thereby activating expression of REST targets in neural cells. Plays an important role during embryonic development as well as in the proper functioning of the adult nervous system. Regulates alternative splicing events in genes with important neuronal functions (By similarity).

Acts as a mediator between the cap-binding complex (CBC) and the primary microRNAs (miRNAs) processing machinery during cell proliferation. Contributes to the stability and delivery of capped primary miRNA transcripts to the primary miRNA processing complex containing DGCR8 and DROSHA, thereby playing a role in RNA-mediated gene silencing (RNAi) by miRNAs. Binds capped RNAs (m7GpppG-capped RNA); however interaction is probably mediated via its interaction with NCBP1/CBP80 component of the CBC complex. Involved in cell cycle progression at S phase. Does not directly confer arsenite resistance but rather modulates arsenic sensitivity. Independently of its activity on miRNAs, necessary and sufficient to promote neural stem cell self- renewal. Does so by directly binding SOX2 promoter and positively regulating its transcription (By similarity).

Catalyzes the synthesis of D-serine from L-serine. D-serine is a key coagonist with glutamate at NMDA receptors. Has dehydratase activity towards both L-serine and D-serine.

Splicing factor that in its dephosphorylated form acts as a general repressor of pre-mRNA splicing. Seems to interfere with the U1 snRNP 5'-splice recognition of SNRNP70. Required for splicing repression in M-phase cells and after heat shock. Also acts as a splicing factor that specifically promotes exon skipping during alternative splicing. Interaction with YTHDC1, a RNA-binding protein that recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)-containing RNAs, prevents SRSF10 from binding to its mRNA-binding sites close to m6A-containing regions, leading to inhibit exon skipping during alternative splicing. May be involved in regulation of alternative splicing in neurons, with isoform 1 acting as a positive and isoform 3 as a negative regulator.

Splicing factor that seems to antagonize SR proteins in pre- mRNA splicing regulation.

Plays a role in preventing exon skipping, ensuring the accuracy of splicing and regulating alternative splicing. Interacts with other spliceosomal components, via the RS domains, to form a bridge between the 5'- and 3'-splice site binding components, U1 snRNP and U2AF. Can stimulate binding of U1 snRNP to a 5'-splice site- containing pre-mRNA. Binds to purine-rich RNA sequences, either the octamer, 5'-RGAAGAAC-3' (r=A or G) or the decamers, AGGACAGAGC/AGGACGAAGC. Binds preferentially to the 5'-CGAGGCG-3' motif in vitro. Three copies of the octamer constitute a powerful splicing enhancer in vitro, the ASF/SF2 splicing enhancer (ASE) which can specifically activate ASE-dependent splicing. Isoform ASF-2 and isoform ASF-3 act as splicing repressors. May function as export adapter involved in mRNA nuclear export through the TAP/NXF1 pathway.

Necessary for the splicing of pre-mRNA. It is required for formation of the earliest ATP-dependent splicing complex and interacts with spliceosomal components bound to both the 5'- and 3'-splice sites during spliceosome assembly. It also is required for ATP-dependent interactions of both U1 and U2 snRNPs with pre-mRNA. Interacts with other spliceosomal components, via the RS domains, to form a bridge between the 5'- and 3'-splice site binding components, U1 snRNP and U2AF. Binds to purine-rich RNA sequences, either 5'-AGSAGAGTA-3' (S=C or G) or 5'-GTTCGAGTA-3'. Can bind to beta-globin mRNA and commit it to the splicing pathway. The phosphorylated form (by SRPK2) is required for cellular apoptosis in response to cisplatin treatment.

Splicing factor that specifically promotes exon-inclusion during alternative splicing. Interaction with YTHDC1, a RNA-binding protein that recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)-containing RNAs, promotes recruitment of SRSF3 to its mRNA- binding elements adjacent to m6A sites, leading to exon-inclusion during alternative splicing. Also functions as export adapter involved in mRNA nuclear export. Binds mRNA which is thought to be transferred to the NXF1-NXT1 heterodimer for export (TAP/NXF1 pathway); enhances NXF1-NXT1 RNA-binding activity. Involved in nuclear export of m6A-containing mRNAs via interaction with YTHDC1: interaction with YTHDC1 facilitates m6A- containing mRNA-binding to both SRSF3 and NXF1, promoting mRNA nuclear export. RNA-binding is semi-sequence specific.

Plays a role in alternative splice site selection during pre- mRNA splicing. Represses the splicing of MAPT/Tau exon 10.

Plays a role in constitutive splicing and can modulate the selection of alternative splice sites

Plays a role in constitutive splicing and modulates the selection of alternative splice sites. Plays a role in the alternative splicing of MAPT/Tau exon 10. Binds to alternative exons of TNC pre- mRNA and promotes the expression of alternatively spliced TNC. Plays a role in wound healing and in the regulation of keratinocyte differentiation and proliferation via its role in alternative splicing.

Required for pre-mRNA splicing. Can also modulate alternative splicing in vitro. Represses the splicing of MAPT/Tau exon 10. May function as export adapter involved in mRNA nuclear export such as of histone H2A. Binds mRNA which is thought to be transferred to the NXF1- NXT1 heterodimer for export (TAP/NXF1 pathway); enhances NXF1-NXT1 RNA- binding activity. RNA-binding is semi-sequence specific.

Plays a role in constitutive splicing and can modulate the selection of alternative splice sites. Represses the splicing of MAPT/Tau exon 10.

Acts at E2F-responsive promoters as coregulator to integrate signals provided by PHD- and/or bromodomain-containing transcription factors. Stimulates E2F1/TFDP1 transcriptional activity. Renders the activity of cyclin D1/CDK4 resistant to the inhibitory effects of CDKN2A/p16INK4A

Acts at E2F-responsive promoters as coregulator to integrate signals provided by PHD- and/or bromodomain-containing transcription factors. May act as coactivator as well as corepressor of E2F1-TFDP1 and E2F4-TFDP1 complexes on E2F consensus binding sites, which would activate or inhibit E2F-target genes expression. Modulates fat storage by down-regulating the expression of key genes involved in adipocyte lipolysis, thermogenesis and oxidative metabolism.

Contributes to oxidative stress resistance by reducing cysteine-sulfinic acid formed under exposure to oxidants in the peroxiredoxins PRDX1, PRDX2, PRDX3 and PRDX4. Does not act on PRDX5 or PRDX6. May catalyze the reduction in a multi-step process by acting both as a specific phosphotransferase and a thioltransferase.

Transcriptional regulator that controls a genetic switch in male development. It is necessary and sufficient for initiating male sex determination by directing the development of supporting cell precursors (pre-Sertoli cells) as Sertoli rather than granulosa cells. Involved in different aspects of gene regulation including promoter activation or repression. Binds to the DNA consensus sequence 5'- [AT]AACAA[AT]-3'. SRY HMG box recognizes DNA by partial intercalation in the minor groove and promotes DNA bending. Also involved in pre-mRNA splicing. In male adult brain involved in the maintenance of motor functions of dopaminergic neurons (By similarity).

Binds preferentially and cooperatively to pyrimidine rich single-stranded DNA (ss-DNA). In vitro, required to maintain the copy number of mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) and plays a crucial role during mtDNA replication by stimulating the activity of the replisome components POLG and TWNK at the replication fork. Promotes the activity of the gamma complex polymerase POLG, largely by organizing the template DNA and eliminating secondary structures to favor ss-DNA conformations that facilitate POLG activity. In addition it is able to promote the 5'-3' unwinding activity of the mtDNA helicase TWNK. May also function in mtDNA repair.

Catalyzes one step in the degradation of the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA).

Protein phosphatase which regulates actin filament dynamics. Dephosphorylates and activates the actin binding/depolymerizing factor cofilin, which subsequently binds to actin filaments and stimulates their disassembly. Inhibitory phosphorylation of cofilin is mediated by LIMK1, which may also be dephosphorylated and inactivated by this protein.

Protein phosphatase which may play a role in the regulation of actin filament dynamics. Can dephosphorylate and activate the actin binding/depolymerizing factor cofilin, which subsequently binds to actin filaments and stimulates their disassembly (By similarity).

Microtubule-binding protein which stabilizes dynamic microtubules by slowing growth and shrinkage at both plus and minus ends and serves as a sensor of microtubule damage, protecting microtubules from the microtubule-severing enzyme SPAST. Induces microtubule branching which is mediated by the formation of long SSNA1 fibrils which guide microtubule protofilaments to split apart from the mother microtubule and form daughter microtubules (By similarity). Plays a role in axon outgrowth and branching. Required for cell division.

Component of the dystrophin-glycoprotein complex (DGC), a complex that spans the muscle plasma membrane and forms a link between the F-actin cytoskeleton and the extracellular matrix. Preferentially associates with the sarcoglycan subcomplex of the DGC

Receptor for somatostatin with higher affinity for somatostatin-14 than -28. This receptor is coupled via pertussis toxin sensitive G proteins to inhibition of adenylyl cyclase. In addition it stimulates phosphotyrosine phosphatase and Na(+)/H(+) exchanger via pertussis toxin insensitive G proteins

Receptor for somatostatin-14 and -28. This receptor is coupled via pertussis toxin sensitive G proteins to inhibition of adenylyl cyclase. In addition it stimulates phosphotyrosine phosphatase and PLC via pertussis toxin insensitive as well as sensitive G proteins. Inhibits calcium entry by suppressing voltage-dependent calcium channels. Acts as the functionally dominant somatostatin receptor in pancreatic alpha- and beta-cells where it mediates the inhibitory effect of somatostatin-14 on hormone secretion. Inhibits cell growth through enhancement of MAPK1 and MAPK2 phosphorylation and subsequent up-regulation of CDKN1B. Stimulates neuronal migration and axon outgrowth and may participate in neuron development and maturation during brain development. Mediates negative regulation of insulin receptor signaling through PTPN6. Inactivates SSTR3 receptor function following heterodimerization.

Receptor for somatostatin-14 and -28. This receptor is coupled via pertussis toxin sensitive G proteins to inhibition of adenylyl cyclase.

Receptor for somatostatin-14. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which inhibits adenylyl cyclase. It is functionally coupled not only to inhibition of adenylate cyclase, but also to activation of both arachidonate release and mitogen-activated protein (MAP) kinase cascade. Mediates antiproliferative action of somatostatin in tumor cells

Receptor for somatostatin 28 and to a lesser extent for somatostatin-14. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which inhibit adenylyl cyclase. Increases cell growth inhibition activity of SSTR2 following heterodimerization.

TRAP proteins are part of a complex whose function is to bind calcium to the ER membrane and thereby regulate the retention of ER resident proteins. May be involved in the recycling of the translocation apparatus after completion of the translocation process or may function as a membrane-bound chaperone facilitating folding of translocated proteins

TRAP proteins are part of a complex whose function is to bind calcium to the ER membrane and thereby regulate the retention of ER resident proteins

Component of the FACT complex, a general chromatin factor that acts to reorganize nucleosomes. The FACT complex is involved in multiple processes that require DNA as a template such as mRNA elongation, DNA replication and DNA repair. During transcription elongation the FACT complex acts as a histone chaperone that both destabilizes and restores nucleosomal structure. It facilitates the passage of RNA polymerase II and transcription by promoting the dissociation of one histone H2A-H2B dimer from the nucleosome, then subsequently promotes the reestablishment of the nucleosome following the passage of RNA polymerase II. The FACT complex is probably also involved in phosphorylation of 'Ser-392' of p53/TP53 via its association with CK2 (casein kinase II). Binds specifically to double- stranded DNA and at low levels to DNA modified by the antitumor agent cisplatin. May potentiate cisplatin-induced cell death by blocking replication and repair of modified DNA. Also acts as a transcriptional coactivator for p63/TP63.

Protein phosphatase that catalyzes the dephosphorylation of the C-terminal domain of RNA polymerase II. Plays a role in RNA processing and termination. Plays a role in pre-mRNA polyadenylation via its interaction with SYMPK.

Appears to function synergistically with RBM14 as a transcriptional coactivator. Isoform 1 and isoform 2 function in nuclear receptor coactivation. Isoform 1 and isoform 2 function in general transcriptional coactivation. Component of SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling subcomplex GBAF that carries out key enzymatic activities, changing chromatin structure by altering DNA-histone contacts within a nucleosome in an ATP-dependent manner.

Degrades extracellular matrix. Proposed to play a role in breast cancer invasion and metastasis. Exhibits trypsin-like activity as defined by cleavage of synthetic substrates with Arg or Lys as the P1 site. Involved in the terminal differentiation of keratinocytes through prostasin (PRSS8) activation and filaggrin (FLG) processing.

Acts as a positive regulator of apoptosis. Also acts as a regulator of cellular reactive oxygen species.

Phosphorylates myosin light chains (By similarity). Acts as a positive regulator of apoptosis.

Repressor that binds to DNA sequences containing a bipartite element consisting of a direct repeat of the sequence 5'-AAAGTTT-3' separated by 2-9 nucleotides. Represses basal transcription activity from target promoters (By similarity). Inhibits colony formation in cultured breast cancer cells.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the sulfate conjugation of a wide variety of acceptor molecules bearing a hydroxyl or an amine groupe. Sulfonation increases the water solubility of most compounds, and therefore their renal excretion, but it can also result in bioactivation to form active metabolites. Displays broad substrate specificity for small phenolic compounds. Plays an important role in the sulfonation of endogenous molecules such as steroid hormones and 3,3'-diiodothyronin. Mediates the sulfate conjugation of a variety of xenobiotics, including the drugs acetaminophen and minoxidil (By similarity). Mediates also the metabolic activation of carcinogenic N-hydroxyarylamines leading to highly reactive intermediates capable of forming DNA adducts, potentially resulting in mutagenesis. May play a role in gut microbiota-host metabolic interaction. O-sulfonates 4- ethylphenol (4-EP), a dietary tyrosine-derived metabolite produced by gut bacteria. The product 4-EPS crosses the blood-brain barrier and may negatively regulate oligodendrocyte maturation and myelination, affecting the functional connectivity of different brain regions associated with the limbic system.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the sulfate conjugation of catecholamines, phenolic drugs and neurotransmitters. Is also responsible for the sulfonation and activation of minoxidil. Mediates the metabolic activation of carcinogenic N-hydroxyarylamines to DNA binding products and could so participate as modulating factor of cancer risk

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the sulfate conjugation of phenolic monoamines (neurotransmitters such as dopamine, norepinephrine and serotonin) and phenolic and catechol drugs.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the sulfate conjugation of phenolic monoamines (neurotransmitters such as dopamine, norepinephrine and serotonin) and phenolic and catechol drugs

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the sulfate conjugation of dopamine, small phenols such as 1-naphthol and p-nitrophenol and thyroid hormones, including 3,3'-diiodothyronine, triidothyronine (T3) and reverse triiodothyronine (rT3). May play a role in gut microbiota-host metabolic interaction. O-sulfonates 4-ethylphenol (4-EP), a dietary tyrosine- derived metabolite produced by gut bacteria. The product 4-EPS crosses the blood-brain barrier and may negatively regulate oligodendrocyte maturation and myelination, affecting the functional connectivity of different brain regions associated with the limbic system.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the sulfate conjugation. Sulfonates p-nitrophenol, a small phenolic compond. Does not sulfonate steroids, dopamine, acetaminophen, or alpha-naphthol. Catalyzes the sulfonation of the carcinogenic N-Hydroxy-2-acetylaminofluorene leading to highly reactive intermediates capable of forming DNA adducts, potentially resulting in mutagenesis.

[Isoform 1]: Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'- adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor. Has sulfotransferase activity towards various substrates, such as bile acids, thyroid hormones and toward xenobiotic compounds such as chloro phenols and hydroxypyrenes. Lithocholic acid appears to be the best substrate among the endogenous compounds tested and 3,3',5,5'-tetrachloro-4,4'- biphenyldiol shows the highest specific activity among the xenobiotic compounds.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the sulfate conjugation of phenolic compounds. Can also sulfonate estrogenic compounds, however, the dietary flavonoids (phytoestrogen) and environmental estrogens, like bisphenol A are better substrates than 17beta-estradiol (E2). Mediates the sulfation of doxorubicin and its analog epirubicin, two antitumor anthracyclines.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the sulfate conjugation of estradiol and estrone. Is a key enzyme in estrogen homeostasis, the sulfation of estrogens leads to their inactivation. Also sulfates dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), pregnenolone, (24S)-hydroxycholesterol and xenobiotic compounds like ethinylestradiol, equalenin, diethyl stilbesterol and 1-naphthol at significantly lower efficiency. Does not sulfonate cortisol, testosterone and dopamine. May play a role in gut microbiota-host metabolic interaction. O-sulfonates 4- ethylphenol (4-EP), a dietary tyrosine-derived metabolite produced by gut bacteria. The product 4-EPS crosses the blood-brain barrier and may negatively regulate oligodendrocyte maturation and myelination, affecting the functional connectivity of different brain regions associated with the limbic system.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the sulfonation of steroids and bile acids in the liver and adrenal glands. Mediates the sulfation of a wide range of steroids and sterols, including pregnenolone, androsterone, DHEA, bile acids, cholesterol and as well many xenobiotics that contain alcohol and phenol functional groups. Sulfonation increases the water solubility of most compounds, and therefore their renal excretion, but it can also result in bioactivation to form active metabolites. Plays an important role in maintening steroid and lipid homeostasis. Plays a key role in bile acid metabolism. In addition, catalyzes the metabolic activation of potent carcinogenic polycyclic arylmethanols (By similarity).

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the sulfate conjugation. Responsible for the sulfation of cholesterol. Catalyzes sulfation of the 3beta-hydroxyl groups of steroids, such as, pregnenolone and dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA). Preferentially sulfonates cholesterol, while it has also significant activity with pregnenolone and DHEA. Plays a role in epidermal cholesterol metabolism and in the regulation of epidermal proliferation and differentiation.

Involved in the regulation of structural processes in differentiating and mature neuronal cells.

Atypical sulfotransferase family member with very low affinity for 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) and very low catalytic activity towards L-triiodothyronine, thyroxine, estrone, p- nitrophenol, 2-naphthylamine, and 2-beta-naphthol. May have a role in the metabolism of drugs and neurotransmitters in the CNS.

Sulfotransferase that utilizes 3'-phospho-5'-adenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as sulfonate donor to catalyze the sulfate conjugation of thyroxine. Involved in the metabolism of thyroxine (By similarity).

May play metabolic roles in sperm maturation or fertilization (By similarity). Phospholipid transfer protein that preferentially selects lipid species containing a palmitoyl or stearoyl chain on the sn-1 and an unsaturated fatty acyl chain (18:1 or 18:2) on the sn-2 position. Able to transfer phosphatidylcholine (PC) and phosphatidyetanolamline (PE) between membranes.

GTPase-activating protein for RhoA, and perhaps for Cdc42. May be involved in regulation of cytoskeletal reorganization, cell proliferation and cell motility. Acts a tumor suppressor in hepatocellular carcinoma cells.

Carries out a dual function: signal transduction and activation of transcription. Mediates cellular responses to the cytokine KITLG/SCF and other growth factors. Mediates cellular responses to ERBB4. May mediate cellular responses to activated FGFR1, FGFR2, FGFR3 and FGFR4. Binds to the GAS element and activates PRL- induced transcription. Regulates the expression of milk proteins during lactation.

Carries out a dual function: signal transduction and activation of transcription. Mediates cellular responses to the cytokine KITLG/SCF and other growth factors. Binds to the GAS element and activates PRL-induced transcription. Positively regulates hematopoietic/erythroid differentiation.

Acts as a scavenger receptor for acetylated low density lipoprotein. Binds to both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria and may play a role in defense against bacterial infection. When inhibited in endothelial tube formation assays, there is a marked decrease in cell-cell interactions, suggesting a role in angiogenesis. Involved in the delivery of newly synthesized CHID1/SI-CLP from the biosynthetic compartment to the endosomal/lysosomal system.

Phosphatidylserine receptor that enhances the engulfment of apoptotic cells. Hyaluronan receptor that binds to and mediates endocytosis of hyaluronic acid (HA). Acts also, in different species, as a primary systemic scavenger receptor for heparin (Hep), chondroitin sulfate (CS), dermatan sulfate (DS), nonglycosaminoglycan (GAG), acetylated low-density lipoprotein (AcLDL), pro-collagen propeptides and advanced glycation end products (AGE). May serve to maintain tissue integrity by supporting extracellular matrix turnover or it may contribute to maintaining fluidity of bodily liquids by resorption of hyaluronan. Counter receptor which plays an important role in lymphocyte recruitment in the hepatic vasculature. Binds to both Gram- positive and Gram-negative bacteria and may play a role in defense against bacterial infection. The proteolytically processed 190 kDa form also functions as an endocytosis receptor for heparin internalization as well as HA and CS.

Zinc metalloprotease that specifically cleaves 'Lys-63'- linked polyubiquitin chains. Does not cleave 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Plays a role in signal transduction for cell growth and MYC induction mediated by IL-2 and GM-CSF. Potentiates BMP (bone morphogenetic protein) signaling by antagonizing the inhibitory action of SMAD6 and SMAD7. Has a key role in regulation of cell surface receptor-mediated endocytosis and ubiquitin-dependent sorting of receptors to lysosomes. Endosomal localization of STAMBP is required for efficient EGFR degradation but not for its internalization. Involved in the negative regulation of PI3K-AKT-mTOR and RAS-MAP signaling pathways.

Plays a redundant role in promoting the expression of calcium channel CACNA1S at the cell membrane, and thereby contributes to increased channel activity. Slows down the inactivation rate of the calcium channel CACNA1C.

Required for normal excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle and for normal muscle contraction in response to membrane depolarization. Required for normal Ca(2+) release from the sarcplasmic reticulum, which ultimately leads to muscle contraction. Probably functions via its effects on muscle calcium channels. Increases CACNA1S channel activity, in addition to its role in enhancing the expression of CACNA1S at the cell membrane. Has a redundant role in promoting the expression of the calcium channel CACNA1S at the cell membrane (By similarity). Slows down the inactivation rate of the calcium channel CACNA1C.

Promotes expression of the ion channel CACNA1H at the cell membrane, and thereby contributes to the regulation of channel activity. Plays a minor and redundant role in promoting the expression of calcium channel CACNA1S at the cell membrane, and thereby contributes to increased channel activity. Slows down the inactivation rate of the calcium channel CACNA1C.

Component of cohesin complex, a complex required for the cohesion of sister chromatids after DNA replication. The cohesin complex apparently forms a large proteinaceous ring within which sister chromatids can be trapped. At anaphase, the complex is cleaved and dissociates from chromatin, allowing sister chromatids to segregate. The cohesin complex may also play a role in spindle pole assembly during mitosis

Component of cohesin complex, a complex required for the cohesion of sister chromatids after DNA replication. The cohesin complex apparently forms a large proteinaceous ring within which sister chromatids can be trapped. At anaphase, the complex is cleaved and dissociates from chromatin, allowing sister chromatids to segregate. The cohesin complex may also play a role in spindle pole assembly during mitosis.

Zinc metalloprotease that specifically cleaves 'Lys-63'- linked polyubiquitin chains. Acts as a positive regulator of the TORC1 signaling pathway by mediating 'Lys- 63'-linked deubiquitination of SESN2, thereby inhibiting SESN2- interaction with the GATOR2 complex. Does not cleave 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitin chains.

Involved in intracellular signal transduction mediated by cytokines and growth factors. Upon IL-2 and GM-CSL stimulation, it plays a role in signaling leading to DNA synthesis and MYC induction. May also play a role in T-cell development. Involved in down-regulation of receptor tyrosine kinase via multivesicular body (MVBs) when complexed with HGS (ESCRT-0 complex). The ESCRT-0 complex binds ubiquitin and acts as sorting machinery that recognizes ubiquitinated receptors and transfers them to further sequential lysosomal sorting/trafficking processes

Involved in intracellular signal transduction mediated by cytokines and growth factors. Upon IL-2 and GM-CSL stimulation, it plays a role in signaling leading to DNA synthesis and MYC induction. May also play a role in T-cell development. Involved in down-regulation of receptor tyrosine kinase via multivesicular body (MVBs) when complexed with HGS (ESCRT-0 complex). The ESCRT-0 complex binds ubiquitin and acts as sorting machinery that recognizes ubiquitinated receptors and transfers them to further sequential lysosomal sorting/trafficking processes (By similarity).

In BCR signaling, appears to function as a docking protein acting downstream of TEC and participates in a positive feedback loop by increasing the activity of TEC.

Substrate of protein kinase PTK6. May play a regulatory role in the acute-phase response in systemic inflammation and may modulate STAT3 activity.

Sterol-binding protein that mediates cholesterol transport from the endoplasmic reticulum to endosomes. Creates contact site between the endoplasmic reticulum and late endosomes: localizes to late endosome membranes and contacts the endoplasmic reticulum via interaction with VAPA and VAPB. Acts as a lipid transfer protein that redirects sterol to the endosome at the expense of the cell membrane and favors membrane formation inside endosomes. May also mediate cholesterol transport between other membranes, such as mitochondria membrane or cell membrane. However, such results need additional experimental evidences; probably mainly mediates cholesterol transport from the endoplasmic reticulum to endosomes. Does not activate transcriptional cholesterol sensing. Able to bind other lipids, such as lutein, a xanthophyll carotenoids that form the macular pigment of the retina.

Involved in the intracellular transport of cholesterol. Binds cholesterol or other sterols.

May be involved in the intracellular transport of sterols or other lipids. May bind cholesterol or other sterols (By similarity).

May play a protective role in mucosal tissues by preventing exaggerated allergic responses.

Accelerates GTPase activity of RHOA and CDC42, but not RAC1. Stimulates the hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate by PLCD1.

Microtubule-dependent motor protein required for spindle pole assembly during mitosis. Required to stabilize the pericentriolar material (PCM).

Plays a key role in steroid hormone synthesis by enhancing the metabolism of cholesterol into pregnenolone. Mediates the transfer of cholesterol from the outer mitochondrial membrane to the inner mitochondrial membrane where it is cleaved to pregnenolone.

Signal transducer and transcription activator that mediates cellular responses to interferons (IFNs), cytokine KITLG/SCF and other cytokines and other growth factors. Following type I IFN (IFN-alpha and IFN-beta) binding to cell surface receptors, signaling via protein kinases leads to activation of Jak kinases (TYK2 and JAK1) and to tyrosine phosphorylation of STAT1 and STAT2. The phosphorylated STATs dimerize and associate with ISGF3G/IRF- 9 to form a complex termed ISGF3 transcription factor, that enters the nucleus. ISGF3 binds to the IFN stimulated response element (ISRE) to activate the transcription of IFN-stimulated genes (ISG), which drive the cell in an antiviral state. In response to type II IFN (IFN-gamma), STAT1 is tyrosine- and serine- phosphorylated. It then forms a homodimer termed IFN- gamma-activated factor (GAF), migrates into the nucleus and binds to the IFN gamma activated sequence (GAS) to drive the expression of the target genes, inducing a cellular antiviral state. Becomes activated in response to KITLG/SCF and KIT signaling. May mediate cellular responses to activated FGFR1, FGFR2, FGFR3 and FGFR4.

Signal transducer and activator of transcription that mediates signaling by type I interferons (IFN-alpha and IFN-beta). Following type I IFN binding to cell surface receptors, Jak kinases (TYK2 and JAK1) are activated, leading to tyrosine phosphorylation of STAT1 and STAT2. The phosphorylated STATs dimerize, associate with IRF9/ISGF3G to form a complex termed ISGF3 transcription factor, that enters the nucleus. ISGF3 binds to the IFN stimulated response element (ISRE) to activate the transcription of interferon stimulated genes, which drive the cell in an antiviral state. In addition, has also a negative feedback regulatory role in the type I interferon signaling by recruiting USP18 to the type I IFN receptor subunit IFNAR2 thereby mitigating the response to type I IFNs. Acts as a regulator of mitochondrial fission by modulating the phosphorylation of DNM1L at 'Ser-616' and 'Ser-637' which activate and inactivate the GTPase activity of DNM1L respectively.

Signal transducer and transcription activator that mediates cellular responses to interleukins, KITLG/SCF, LEP and other growth factors. Once activated, recruits coactivators, such as NCOA1 or MED1, to the promoter region of the target gene. May mediate cellular responses to activated FGFR1, FGFR2, FGFR3 and FGFR4. Upon activation of IL6ST/gp130 signaling by interleukin-6 (IL6), binds to the IL6-responsive elements identified in the promoters of various acute-phase protein genes. Activated by IL31 through IL31RA. Acts as a regulator of inflammatory response by regulating differentiation of naive CD4(+) T-cells into T-helper Th17 or regulatory T-cells (Treg): deacetylation and oxidation of lysine residues by LOXL3, leads to disrupt STAT3 dimerization and inhibit its transcription activity. Involved in cell cycle regulation by inducing the expression of key genes for the progression from G1 to S phase, such as CCND1. Mediates the effects of LEP on melanocortin production, body energy homeostasis and lactation (By similarity). May play an apoptotic role by transctivating BIRC5 expression under LEP activation. Cytoplasmic STAT3 represses macroautophagy by inhibiting EIF2AK2/PKR activity. Plays a crucial role in basal beta cell functions, such as regulation of insulin secretion (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator mainly expressed in hematopoietic cells that plays a critical role in cellular growth, differentiation and immune response. Plays a key role in the differentiation of T-helper 1 cells and the production of interferon-gamma. Participates also in multiple neutrophil functions including chemotaxis and production of the neutrophil extracellular traps (By similarity). After IL12 binding to its receptor IL12RB2, STAT4 interacts with the intracellular domain of IL12RB2 and becomes tyrosine phosphorylated. Phosphorylated STAT4 then homodimerizes and migrates to the nucleus where it can recognize STAT target sequences present in IL12 responsive genes. Although IL12 appears to be the predominant activating signal, STAT4 can also be phosphorylated and activated in response to IFN-gamma stimulation via JAK1 and TYK2 and in response to different interleukins including IL23, IL2 and IL35 (PubMed:11114383,PubMed:34508746). Transcription activation of IFN- gamma gene is mediated by interaction with JUN that forms a complex that efficiently interacts with the AP-1-related sequence of the IFN- gamma promoter (By similarity). In response to IFN-alpha/beta signaling, acts as a transcriptional repressor and suppresses IL5 and IL13 mRNA expression during response to T-cell receptor (TCR) activation.

Carries out a dual function: signal transduction and activation of transcription. Involved in IL4/interleukin-4- and IL3/interleukin-3-mediated signaling.

Salivary protein that stabilizes saliva supersaturated with calcium salts by inhibiting the precipitation of calcium phosphate salts. It also modulates hydroxyapatite crystal formation on the tooth surface

Binds double-stranded RNA (regardless of the sequence) and tubulin. May play a role in specific positioning of mRNAs at given sites in the cell by cross-linking cytoskeletal and RNA components, and in stimulating their translation at the site

RNA-binding protein required for the microtubule-dependent transport of neuronal RNA from the cell body to the dendrite. As protein synthesis occurs within the dendrite, the localization of specific mRNAs to dendrites may be a prerequisite for neurite outgrowth and plasticity at sites distant from the cell body (By similarity).

Acts as a cargo receptor for glycogen. Delivers its cargo to an autophagic pathway called glycophagy, resulting in the transport of glycogen to lysosomes.

Stimulates renal phosphate reabsorption, and could therefore prevent hypercalcemia

Has an anti-hypocalcemic action on calcium and phosphate homeostasis

Metalloreductase that has the ability to reduce both Fe(3+) to Fe(2+) and Cu(2+) to Cu(1+). Uses NAD(+) as acceptor.

Metalloreductase that has the ability to reduce both Fe(3+) to Fe(2+) and Cu(2+) to Cu(1+). Uses NAD(+) as acceptor (By similarity).

Endosomal ferrireductase required for efficient transferrin- dependent iron uptake in erythroid cells. Participates in erythroid iron homeostasis by reducing Fe(3+) to Fe(2+). Can also reduce of Cu(2+) to Cu(1+), suggesting that it participates in copper homeostasis. Uses NADP(+) as acceptor. May play a role downstream of p53/TP53 to interface apoptosis and cell cycle progression. Indirectly involved in exosome secretion by facilitating the secretion of proteins such as TCTP.

Integral membrane protein that functions as NADPH-dependent ferric-chelate reductase, using NADPH from one side of the membrane to reduce a Fe(3+) chelate that is bound on the other side of the membrane. Mediates sequential transmembrane electron transfer from NADPH to FAD and onto heme, and finally to the Fe(3+) chelate. Can also reduce Cu(2+) to Cu(1+) (By similarity). Plays a role in systemic metabolic homeostasis, integrating inflammatory and metabolic responses (By similarity). Associated with obesity and insulin-resistance. Involved in inflammatory arthritis, through the regulation of inflammatory cytokines. Inhibits anchorage- independent cell proliferation.

Stimulates membrane curvature formation and subsequent endoplasmic reticulum exit site (ERES) establishment by recruiting PI3K complex I, leading to COPII vesicle-mediated transport. Promotes endoplasmic reticulum (ER) exit of cGAMP- activated STING1 oligomers.

Transcriptional activator. Essential for sexual differentiation and formation of the primary steroidogenic tissues. Binds to the Ad4 site found in the promoter region of steroidogenic P450 genes such as CYP11A, CYP11B and CYP21B. Also regulates the AMH/Muellerian inhibiting substance gene as well as the AHCH and STAR genes. 5'-YCAAGGYC-3' and 5'-RRAGGTCA-3' are the consensus sequences for the recognition by NR5A1. The SFPQ-NONO-NR5A1 complex binds to the CYP17 promoter and regulates basal and cAMP-dependent transcriptional activity. Binds phosphatidylcholine (By similarity). Binds phospholipids with a phosphatidylinositol (PI) headgroup, in particular PI(3,4)P2 and PI(3,4,5)P3. Activated by the phosphorylation of NR5A1 by HIPK3 leading to increased steroidogenic gene expression upon cAMP signaling pathway stimulation.

Immediate-early gene. Plays an important role in embryonic development as well as in cellular growth and proliferation; its long- term silencing affects cell survival and cell cycle distribution as well as decreases CDK1 activity correlated with reduced phosphorylation of CDK1. Plays a role as a positive regulator of the sonic hedgehog pathway, acting downstream of PTCH1. Plays an important role in the regulation of centriole duplication. Required for the onset of procentriole formation and proper mitotic progression. During procentriole formation, is essential for the correct loading of SASS6 and CENPJ to the base of the procentriole to initiate procentriole assembly.

Plays a role in mediating store-operated Ca(2+) entry (SOCE), a Ca(2+) influx following depletion of intracellular Ca(2+) stores. Functions as a highly sensitive Ca(2+) sensor in the endoplasmic reticulum which activates both store-operated and store-independent Ca(2+)-influx. Regulates basal cytosolic and endoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+) concentrations. Upon mild variations of the endoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+) concentration, translocates from the endoplasmic reticulum to the plasma membrane where it probably activates the Ca(2+) release-activated Ca(2+) (CRAC) channels ORAI1, ORAI2 and ORAI3. May inhibit STIM1-mediated Ca(2+) influx.

Acts as a regulator of store-operated Ca(2+) entry (SOCE) at junctional sites that connect the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and plasma membrane (PM), called ER-plasma membrane (ER-PM) junction or cortical ER. SOCE is a Ca(2+) influx following depletion of intracellular Ca(2+) stores. Acts by interacting with STIM1, promoting STIM1 conformational switch. Involved in STIM1 relocalization to ER-PM junctions. Contributes to the maintenance and reorganization of store-dependent ER-PM junctions.

Facilitator of innate immune signaling that acts as a sensor of cytosolic DNA from bacteria and viruses and promotes the production of type I interferon (IFN-alpha and IFN-beta). Innate immune response is triggered in response to non-CpG double-stranded DNA from viruses and bacteria delivered to the cytoplasm. Acts by binding cyclic dinucleotides: recognizes and binds cyclic di-GMP (c-di-GMP), a second messenger produced by bacteria, and cyclic GMP-AMP (cGAMP), a messenger produced by CGAS in response to DNA virus in the cytosol. Upon binding of c- di-GMP or cGAMP, STING1 oligomerizes, translocates from the endoplasmic reticulum and is phosphorylated by TBK1 on the pLxIS motif, leading to recruitment and subsequent activation of the transcription factor IRF3 to induce expression of type I interferon and exert a potent anti-viral state. In addition to promote the production of type I interferons, plays a direct role in autophagy. Following cGAMP-binding, STING1 buds from the endoplasmic reticulum into COPII vesicles, which then form the endoplasmic reticulum-Golgi intermediate compartment (ERGIC). The ERGIC serves as the membrane source for WIPI2 recruitment and LC3 lipidation, leading to formation of autophagosomes that target cytosolic DNA or DNA viruses for degradation by the lysosome. The autophagy- and interferon-inducing activities can be uncoupled and autophagy induction is independent of TBK1 phosphorylation. Autophagy is also triggered upon infection by bacteria: following c-di-GMP-binding, which is produced by live Gram-positive bacteria, promotes reticulophagy (By similarity). Exhibits 2',3' phosphodiester linkage- specific ligand recognition: can bind both 2'-3' linked cGAMP (2'-3'- cGAMP) and 3'-3' linked cGAMP but is preferentially activated by 2'-3' linked cGAMP. The preference for 2'-3'-cGAMP, compared to other linkage isomers is probably due to the ligand itself, whichs adopts an organized free- ligand conformation that resembles the STING1-bound conformation and pays low energy costs in changing into the active conformation. May be involved in translocon function, the translocon possibly being able to influence the induction of type I interferons. May be involved in transduction of apoptotic signals via its association with the major histocompatibility complex class II (MHC-II) (By similarity).

Acts as a co-chaperone for HSP90AA1. Mediates the association of the molecular chaperones HSPA8/HSC70 and HSP90 (By similarity).

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in regulation of lymphocyte migration. Phosphorylates MSN, and possibly PLK1. Involved in regulation of lymphocyte migration by mediating phosphorylation of ERM proteins such as MSN. Acts as a negative regulator of MAP3K1/MEKK1. May also act as a cell cycle regulator by acting as a polo kinase kinase: mediates phosphorylation of PLK1 in vitro; however such data require additional evidences in vivo.

Tumor suppressor serine/threonine-protein kinase that controls the activity of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) family members, thereby playing a role in various processes such as cell metabolism, cell polarity, apoptosis and DNA damage response. Acts by phosphorylating the T-loop of AMPK family proteins, thus promoting their activity: phosphorylates PRKAA1, PRKAA2, BRSK1, BRSK2, MARK1, MARK2, MARK3, MARK4, NUAK1, NUAK2, SIK1, SIK2, SIK3 and SNRK but not MELK. Also phosphorylates non-AMPK family proteins such as STRADA, PTEN and possibly p53/TP53. Acts as a key upstream regulator of AMPK by mediating phosphorylation and activation of AMPK catalytic subunits PRKAA1 and PRKAA2 and thereby regulates processes including: inhibition of signaling pathways that promote cell growth and proliferation when energy levels are low, glucose homeostasis in liver, activation of autophagy when cells undergo nutrient deprivation, and B-cell differentiation in the germinal center in response to DNA damage. Also acts as a regulator of cellular polarity by remodeling the actin cytoskeleton. Required for cortical neuron polarization by mediating phosphorylation and activation of BRSK1 and BRSK2, leading to axon initiation and specification. Involved in DNA damage response: interacts with p53/TP53 and recruited to the CDKN1A/WAF1 promoter to participate in transcription activation. Able to phosphorylate p53/TP53; the relevance of such result in vivo is however unclear and phosphorylation may be indirect and mediated by downstream STK11/LKB1 kinase NUAK1. Also acts as a mediator of p53/TP53-dependent apoptosis via interaction with p53/TP53: translocates to the mitochondrion during apoptosis and regulates p53/TP53-dependent apoptosis pathways. Regulates UV radiation-induced DNA damage response mediated by CDKN1A. In association with NUAK1, phosphorylates CDKN1A in response to UV radiation and contributes to its degradation which is necessary for optimal DNA repair.

Membrane-associated protein kinase that phosphorylates on serine and threonine residues. In vitro substrates include DRG1, ENO1 and EIF4EBP1. Also autophosphorylates. May be involved in secretory vesicle trafficking or intracellular signaling. May have a role in regulating stromal-epithelial interactions that occur during ductal morphogenesis in the mammary gland. May be involved in TGF-beta signaling. Able to autophosphorylate on Tyr residue; it is however unclear whether it has tyrosine-protein kinase toward other proteins.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts as a key regulator of NRAS signaling by mediating phosphorylation of NRAS at 'Ser-89', thereby enhancing NRAS-binding to its downstream effectors.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts on both serine and threonine residues and promotes apoptosis in response to stress stimuli and caspase activation. Mediates oxidative-stress-induced cell death by modulating phosphorylation of JNK1-JNK2 (MAPK8 and MAPK9), p38 (MAPK11, MAPK12, MAPK13 and MAPK14) during oxidative stress. Plays a role in a staurosporine-induced caspase-independent apoptotic pathway by regulating the nuclear translocation of AIFM1 and ENDOG and the DNase activity associated with ENDOG. Phosphorylates STK38L on 'Thr-442' and stimulates its kinase activity. In association with STK26 negatively regulates Golgi reorientation in polarized cell migration upon RHO activation. Regulates also cellular migration with alteration of PTPN12 activity and PXN phosphorylation: phosphorylates PTPN12 and inhibits its activity and may regulate PXN phosphorylation through PTPN12. May act as a key regulator of axon regeneration in the optic nerve and radial nerve.

Oxidant stress-activated serine/threonine kinase that may play a role in the response to environmental stress. Targets to the Golgi apparatus where it appears to regulate protein transport events, cell adhesion, and polarity complexes important for cell migration.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts as a mediator of cell growth. Modulates apoptosis. In association with STK24 negatively regulates Golgi reorientation in polarized cell migration upon RHO activation. Phosphorylates ATG4B at 'Ser- 383', thereby increasing autophagic flux.

Serine/threonine protein kinase which phosphorylates VIME. May play a specific role in the dynamic behavior of the intermediate filament cytoskeleton by phosphorylation of VIME (By similarity). Not essential for the survival of KRAS-dependent AML cell lines.

Serine/threonine protein kinase which plays an important role in the sonic hedgehog (Shh) pathway by regulating the activity of GLI transcription factors. Controls the activity of the transcriptional regulators GLI1, GLI2 and GLI3 by opposing the effect of SUFU and promoting their nuclear localization. GLI2 requires an additional function of STK36 to become transcriptionally active, but the enzyme does not need to possess an active kinase catalytic site for this to occur. Required for postnatal development, possibly by regulating the homeostasis of cerebral spinal fluid or ciliary function. Essential for construction of the central pair apparatus of motile cilia.

Negative regulator of MAP3K1/2 signaling. Converts MAP3K2 from its phosphorylated form to its non-phosphorylated form and inhibits autophosphorylation of MAP3K2.

May act as a mediator of stress-activated signals. Mediates the inhibition of SLC4A4, SLC26A6 as well as CFTR activities by the WNK scaffolds, probably through phosphorylation. Phosphorylates RELT.

Stress-activated, pro-apoptotic kinase which, following caspase-cleavage, enters the nucleus and induces chromatin condensation followed by internucleosomal DNA fragmentation. Key component of the Hippo signaling pathway which plays a pivotal role in organ size control and tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis. The core of this pathway is composed of a kinase cascade wherein STK3/MST2 and STK4/MST1, in complex with its regulatory protein SAV1, phosphorylates and activates LATS1/2 in complex with its regulatory protein MOB1, which in turn phosphorylates and inactivates YAP1 oncoprotein and WWTR1/TAZ. Phosphorylation of YAP1 by LATS2 inhibits its translocation into the nucleus to regulate cellular genes important for cell proliferation, cell death, and cell migration. STK3/MST2 and STK4/MST1 are required to repress proliferation of mature hepatocytes, to prevent activation of facultative adult liver stem cells (oval cells), and to inhibit tumor formation. Phosphorylates NKX2-1 (By similarity). Phosphorylates NEK2 and plays a role in centrosome disjunction by regulating the localization of NEK2 to centrosome, and its ability to phosphorylate CROCC and CEP250. In conjunction with SAV1, activates the transcriptional activity of ESR1 through the modulation of its phosphorylation. Positively regulates RAF1 activation via suppression of the inhibitory phosphorylation of RAF1 on 'Ser-259'. Phosphorylates MOBKL1A and RASSF2. Phosphorylates MOBKL1B on 'Thr-74'. Acts cooperatively with MOBKL1B to activate STK38.

May be a negative regulator of NF-kappa-B and p53-mediated gene transcription.

Stress-activated, pro-apoptotic kinase which, following caspase-cleavage, enters the nucleus and induces chromatin condensation followed by internucleosomal DNA fragmentation. Key component of the Hippo signaling pathway which plays a pivotal role in organ size control and tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis. The core of this pathway is composed of a kinase cascade wherein STK3/MST2 and STK4/MST1, in complex with its regulatory protein SAV1, phosphorylates and activates LATS1/2 in complex with its regulatory protein MOB1, which in turn phosphorylates and inactivates YAP1 oncoprotein and WWTR1/TAZ. Phosphorylation of YAP1 by LATS2 inhibits its translocation into the nucleus to regulate cellular genes important for cell proliferation, cell death, and cell migration. STK3/MST2 and STK4/MST1 are required to repress proliferation of mature hepatocytes, to prevent activation of facultative adult liver stem cells (oval cells), and to inhibit tumor formation (By similarity). Phosphorylates 'Ser-14' of histone H2B (H2BS14ph) during apoptosis. Phosphorylates FOXO3 upon oxidative stress, which results in its nuclear translocation and cell death initiation. Phosphorylates MOBKL1A, MOBKL1B and RASSF2. Phosphorylates TNNI3 (cardiac Tn-I) and alters its binding affinity to TNNC1 (cardiac Tn-C) and TNNT2 (cardiac Tn-T). Phosphorylates FOXO1 on 'Ser-212' and regulates its activation and stimulates transcription of PMAIP1 in a FOXO1-dependent manner. Phosphorylates SIRT1 and inhibits SIRT1-mediated p53/TP53 deacetylation, thereby promoting p53/TP53 dependent transcription and apoptosis upon DNA damage. Acts as an inhibitor of PKB/AKT1. Phosphorylates AR on 'Ser-650' and suppresses its activity by intersecting with PKB/AKT1 signaling and antagonizing formation of AR- chromatin complexes.

May play a role in cholesterol transfer to late endosomes. May play a role in modulating membrane acid-sensing ion channels. Can specifically inhibit proton-gated current of ASIC1 isoform 1. Can increase inactivation speed of ASIC3. May be involved in regulation of proton sensing in dorsal root ganglions (By similarity). May play a role in protecting FBXW7 isoform 3 from degradation.

Mitochondrial protein that probably regulates the biogenesis and the activity of mitochondria. Stimulates cardiolipin biosynthesis, binds cardiolipin-enriched membranes where it recruits and stabilizes some proteins including prohibitin and may therefore act in the organization of functional microdomains in mitochondrial membranes. Through regulation of the mitochondrial function may play a role into several biological processes including cell migration, cell proliferation, T-cell activation, calcium homeostasis and cellular response to stress. May play a role in calcium homeostasis through negative regulation of calcium efflux from mitochondria. Required for mitochondrial hyperfusion a pro-survival cellular response to stress which results in increased ATP production by mitochondria. May also regulate the organization of functional domains at the plasma membrane and play a role in T-cell activation through association with the T- cell receptor signaling complex and its regulation.

Required for the function of many mechanoreceptors. Modulate mechanotransduction channels and acid-sensing ion channels (ASIC) proteins. Potentiates PIEZO1 and PIEZO2 function by increasing their sensitivity to mechanical stimulations.

Involved in the regulation of the microtubule (MT) filament system by destabilizing microtubules. Prevents assembly and promotes disassembly of microtubules. Phosphorylation at Ser-16 may be required for axon formation during neurogenesis. Involved in the control of the learned and innate fear (By similarity).

Regulator of microtubule stability. When phosphorylated by MAPK8, stabilizes microtubules and consequently controls neurite length in cortical neurons. In the developing brain, negatively regulates the rate of exit from multipolar stage and retards radial migration from the ventricular zone (By similarity).

Exhibits microtubule-destabilizing activity, which is antagonized by STAT3.

Microprotein involved in mitochondrial respiratory chain complex III (ubiquinol-cytochrome c oxidoreductase) and complex IV (mitochondrial cytochrome c oxidase complex) assembly. Required for the formation of mitochondrial supercomplexes (SCs). Also required for the activation of the NLRP3 inflammasome (By similarity).

Component of the CST complex proposed to act as a specialized replication factor promoting DNA replication under conditions of replication stress or natural replication barriers such as the telomere duplex. The CST complex binds single-stranded DNA with high affinity in a sequence-independent manner, while isolated subunits bind DNA with low affinity by themselves. Initially the CST complex has been proposed to protect telomeres from DNA degradation. However, the CST complex has been shown to be involved in several aspects of telomere replication. The CST complex inhibits telomerase and is involved in telomere length homeostasis; it is proposed to bind to newly telomerase-synthesized 3' overhangs and to terminate telomerase action implicating the association with the ACD:POT1 complex thus interfering with its telomerase stimulation activity. The CST complex is also proposed to be involved in fill-in synthesis of the telomeric C-strand probably implicating recruitment and activation of DNA polymerase alpha. The CST complex facilitates recovery from many forms of exogenous DNA damage; seems to be involved in the re-initiation of DNA replication at repaired forks and/or dormant origins. Required for efficicient replication of the duplex region of the telomere. Promotes efficient replication of lagging-strand telomeres. Promotes general replication start following replication-fork stalling implicating new origin firing. May be in involved in C-strand fill-in during late S/G2 phase independent of its role in telomere duplex replication.

Regulates ion channel activity and transmembrane ion transport. Regulates ASIC2 and ASIC3 channel activity

Adapter protein involved in endocytic machinery. Involved in the synaptic vesicle recycling. May facilitate clathrin-coated vesicle uncoating.

Involved in regulating the levels of reactive oxidative species and reactive nitrogen species and in mitochondrial homeostasis in the placenta. Required for regulation of inner ear epithelial cell proliferation via the AKT signaling pathway (By similarity).

Plays a key role in the replacement of histones to protamine in the elongating spermatids of mammals. In condensing spermatids, loaded onto the nucleosomes, where it promotes the recruitment and processing of protamines, which are responsible for histone eviction.

Poly(A) polymerase that creates the 3'-poly(A) tail of specific pre-mRNAs. Localizes to nuclear speckles together with PIP5K1A and mediates polyadenylation of a select set of mRNAs, such as HMOX1. In addition to polyadenylation, it is also required for the 3'-end cleavage of pre- mRNAs: binds to the 3'UTR of targeted pre-mRNAs and promotes the recruitment and assembly of the CPSF complex on the 3'UTR of pre-mRNAs. In addition to adenylyltransferase activity, also has uridylyltransferase activity. However, the ATP ratio is higher than UTP in cells, suggesting that it functions primarily as a poly(A) polymerase. Acts as a specific terminal uridylyltransferase for U6 snRNA in vitro: responsible for a controlled elongation reaction that results in the restoration of the four 3'-terminal UMP-residues found in newly transcribed U6 snRNA. Not involved in replication-dependent histone mRNA degradation.

May positively contribute to the induction of apoptosis triggered by O(6)-methylguanine.

Maternal factor that plays a role in epigenetic chromatin reprogramming during early development of the zygote. Involved in the regulation of gametic DNA demethylation by inducing the conversion of the modified genomic base 5-methylcytosine (5mC) into 5- hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC).

Tethering protein that creates contact site between the endoplasmic reticulum and late endosomes: localizes to late endosome membranes and contacts the endoplasmic reticulum via interaction with VAPA and VAPB.

Functions as retinol transporter. Accepts all-trans retinol from the extracellular retinol-binding protein RBP4, facilitates retinol transport across the cell membrane, and then transfers retinol to the cytoplasmic retinol-binding protein RBP1. Retinol uptake is enhanced by LRAT, an enzyme that converts retinol to all-trans retinyl esters, the storage forms of vitamin A. Contributes to the activation of a signaling cascade that depends on retinol transport and LRAT-dependent generation of retinol metabolites that then trigger activation of JAK2 and its target STAT5, and ultimately increase the expression of SOCS3 and inhibit cellular responses to insulin. Important for the homeostasis of vitamin A and its derivatives, such as retinoic acid. STRA6-mediated transport is particularly important in the eye, and under conditions of dietary vitamin A deficiency (Probable). Does not transport retinoic acid.

Pseudokinase which, in complex with CAB39/MO25 (CAB39/MO25alpha or CAB39L/MO25beta), binds to and activates STK11/LKB1. Adopts a closed conformation typical of active protein kinases and binds STK11/LKB1 as a pseudosubstrate, promoting conformational change of STK11/LKB1 in an active conformation.

Pseudokinase which, in complex with CAB39/MO25 (CAB39/MO25alpha or CAB39L/MO25beta), binds to and activates STK11/LKB1. Adopts a closed conformation typical of active protein kinases and binds STK11/LKB1 as a pseudosubstrate, promoting conformational change of STK11/LKB1 in an active conformation (By similarity).

The SMN complex catalyzes the assembly of small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs), the building blocks of the spliceosome, and thereby plays an important role in the splicing of cellular pre- mRNAs. Most spliceosomal snRNPs contain a common set of Sm proteins SNRPB, SNRPD1, SNRPD2, SNRPD3, SNRPE, SNRPF and SNRPG that assemble in a heptameric protein ring on the Sm site of the small nuclear RNA to form the core snRNP (Sm core). In the cytosol, the Sm proteins SNRPD1, SNRPD2, SNRPE, SNRPF and SNRPG are trapped in an inactive 6S pICln-Sm complex by the chaperone CLNS1A that controls the assembly of the core snRNP. To assemble core snRNPs, the SMN complex accepts the trapped 5Sm proteins from CLNS1A forming an intermediate. Binding of snRNA inside 5Sm triggers eviction of the SMN complex, thereby allowing binding of SNRPD3 and SNRPB to complete assembly of the core snRNP. STRAP plays a role in the cellular distribution of the SMN complex. Negatively regulates TGF-beta signaling but positively regulates the PDPK1 kinase activity by enhancing its autophosphorylation and by significantly reducing the association of PDPK1 with 14-3-3 protein.

Involved in spermatogenesis and sperm function. Plays a role in regulation of cell growth. Binds to double-stranded DNA and RNA. Binds most efficiently to poly(I:C) RNA than to poly(dI:dC) DNA. Binds also to single-stranded poly(G) RNA. Binds non-specifically to the mRNA PRM1 3'-UTR and adenovirus VA RNA (By similarity).

Essential to the formation of horizontal top connectors between outer hair cell stereocilia.

Binds calmodulin in a calcium dependent manner. May function as scaffolding or signaling protein

Calmodulin-binding protein which may function as scaffolding or signaling protein and may play a role in dendritic Ca(2+) signaling

Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Required in the cortical actin filament dynamics and cell shape.

Catalytic subunit of the oligosaccharyl transferase (OST) complex that catalyzes the initial transfer of a defined glycan (Glc(3)Man(9)GlcNAc(2) in eukaryotes) from the lipid carrier dolichol- pyrophosphate to an asparagine residue within an Asn-X-Ser/Thr consensus motif in nascent polypeptide chains, the first step in protein N-glycosylation. N- glycosylation occurs cotranslationally and the complex associates with the Sec61 complex at the channel-forming translocon complex that mediates protein translocation across the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). All subunits are required for a maximal enzyme activity. This subunit contains the active site and the acceptor peptide and donor lipid- linked oligosaccharide (LLO) binding pockets (By similarity). STT3A is present in the majority of OST complexes and mediates cotranslational N-glycosylation of most sites on target proteins, while STT3B- containing complexes are required for efficient post-translational glycosylation and mediate glycosylation of sites that have been skipped by STT3A.

Catalytic subunit of the oligosaccharyl transferase (OST) complex that catalyzes the initial transfer of a defined glycan (Glc(3)Man(9)GlcNAc(2) in eukaryotes) from the lipid carrier dolichol- pyrophosphate to an asparagine residue within an Asn-X-Ser/Thr consensus motif in nascent polypeptide chains, the first step in protein N-glycosylation. N-glycosylation occurs cotranslationally and the complex associates with the Sec61 complex at the channel-forming translocon complex that mediates protein translocation across the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). All subunits are required for a maximal enzyme activity. This subunit contains the active site and the acceptor peptide and donor lipid-linked oligosaccharide (LLO) binding pockets (By similarity). STT3B is present in a small subset of OST complexes and mediates both cotranslational and post-translational N-glycosylation of target proteins: STT3B- containing complexes are required for efficient post-translational glycosylation and while they are less competent than STT3A-containing complexes for cotranslational glycosylation, they have the ability to mediate glycosylation of some nascent sites that are not accessible for STT3A. STT3B-containing complexes also act post-translationally and mediate modification of skipped glycosylation sites in unfolded proteins. Plays a role in ER-associated degradation (ERAD) pathway that mediates ubiquitin-dependent degradation of misfolded endoplasmic reticulum proteins by mediating N-glycosylation of unfolded proteins, which are then recognized by the ERAD pathway and targeted for degradation. Mediates glycosylation of the disease variant AMYL-TTR 'Asp-38' of TTR at 'Asn-118', leading to its degradation.

SNARE involved in vesicular transport from the late endosomes to the trans-Golgi network.

SNARE that acts to regulate protein transport between late endosomes and the trans-Golgi network

SNARE promoting fusion of transport vesicles with target membranes. Together with SNARE STX6, promotes movement of vesicles from endosomes to the cell membrane, and may therefore function in the endocytic recycling pathway. Through complex formation with GRIP1, GRIA2 and NSG1 controls the intracellular fate of AMPAR and the endosomal sorting of the GRIA2 subunit toward recycling and membrane targeting.

SNAREs, soluble N-ethylmaleimide-sensitive factor-attachment protein receptors, are essential proteins for fusion of cellular membranes. SNAREs localized on opposing membranes assemble to form a trans-SNARE complex, an extended, parallel four alpha-helical bundle that drives membrane fusion. STX17 is a SNARE of the autophagosome involved in autophagy through the direct control of autophagosome membrane fusion with the lysosome membrane. May also play a role in the early secretory pathway where it may maintain the architecture of the endoplasmic reticulum-Golgi intermediate compartment/ERGIC and Golgi and/or regulate transport between the endoplasmic reticulum, the ERGIC and the Golgi.

Syntaxin that may be involved in targeting and fusion of Golgi-derived retrograde transport vesicles with the ER.

Plays a role in endosomal trafficking of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR).

Plays an essential role in hormone and neurotransmitter calcium-dependent exocytosis and endocytosis. Part of the SNARE (Soluble NSF Attachment Receptor) complex composed of SNAP25, STX1A and VAMP2 which mediates the fusion of synaptic vesicles with the presynaptic plasma membrane. STX1A and SNAP25 are localized on the plasma membrane while VAMP2 resides in synaptic vesicles. The pairing of the three SNAREs from the N-terminal SNARE motifs to the C-terminal anchors leads to the formation of the SNARE complex, which brings membranes into close proximity and results in final fusion. Participates in the calcium-dependent regulation of acrosomal exocytosis in sperm. Also plays an important role in the exocytosis of hormones such as insulin or glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) (By similarity).

Potentially involved in docking of synaptic vesicles at presynaptic active zones. May mediate Ca(2+)-regulation of exocytosis acrosomal reaction in sperm (By similarity).

Essential for epithelial morphogenesis. May mediate Ca(2+)- regulation of exocytosis acrosomal reaction in sperm

Potentially involved in docking of synaptic vesicles at presynaptic active zones. Apical receptor involved in membrane fusion of apical vesicles.

Plasma membrane t-SNARE that mediates docking of transport vesicles (By similarity). Necessary for the translocation of SLC2A4 from intracellular vesicles to the plasma membrane (By similarity). In neurons, recruited at neurite tips to membrane domains rich in the phospholipid 1-oleoyl-2-palmitoyl-PC (OPPC) which promotes neurite tip surface expression of the dopamine transporter SLC6A3/DAT by facilitating fusion of SLC6A3-containing transport vesicles with the plasma membrane (By similarity). Together with STXB3 and VAMP2, may also play a role in docking/fusion of intracellular GLUT4-containing vesicles with the cell surface in adipocytes and in docking of synaptic vesicles at presynaptic active zones (By similarity).

Mediates endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi transport. Together with p115/USO1 and GM130/GOLGA2, involved in vesicle tethering and fusion at the cis-Golgi membrane to maintain the stacked and inter- connected structure of the Golgi apparatus.

SNARE promoting movement of transport vesicles to target membranes. Targets endosomes to the trans-Golgi network, and may therefore function in retrograde trafficking. Together with SNARE STX12, promotes movement of vesicles from endosomes to the cell membrane, and may therefore function in the endocytic recycling pathway.

May be involved in protein trafficking from the plasma membrane to the early endosome (EE) as well as in homotypic fusion of endocytic organelles. Mediates the endocytic trafficking from early endosomes to late endosomes and lysosomes

Vesicle trafficking protein that functions in the early secretory pathway, possibly by mediating retrograde transport from cis- Golgi membranes to the ER

Participates in the regulation of synaptic vesicle docking and fusion through interaction with GTP-binding proteins (By similarity). Essential for neurotransmission and binds syntaxin, a component of the synaptic vesicle fusion machinery probably in a 1:1 ratio. Can interact with syntaxins 1, 2, and 3 but not syntaxin 4. May play a role in determining the specificity of intracellular fusion reactions.

Involved in intracellular vesicle trafficking and vesicle fusion with membranes. Contributes to the granule exocytosis machinery through interaction with soluble N-ethylmaleimide-sensitive factor attachment protein receptor (SNARE) proteins that regulate membrane fusion. Regulates cytotoxic granule exocytosis in natural killer (NK) cells.

Together with STX4 and VAMP2, may play a role in insulin- dependent movement of GLUT4 and in docking/fusion of intracellular GLUT4-containing vesicles with the cell surface in adipocytes.

Plays a role in the translocation of transport vesicles from the cytoplasm to the plasma membrane. Inhibits the translocation of SLC2A4 from intracellular vesicles to the plasma membrane by STX4A binding and preventing the interaction between STX4A and VAMP2. Stimulation with insulin disrupts the interaction with STX4A, leading to increased levels of SLC2A4 at the plasma membrane. May also play a role in the regulation of insulin release by pancreatic beta cells after stimulation by glucose (By similarity).

Plays a regulatory role in calcium-dependent exocytosis and neurotransmitter release. Inhibits membrane fusion between transport vesicles and the plasma membrane. May modulate the assembly of trans- SNARE complexes between transport vesicles and the plasma membrane. Inhibits translocation of GLUT4 from intracellular vesicles to the plasma membrane. Competes with STXBP1 for STX1 binding (By similarity).

Forms non-fusogenic complexes with SNAP25 and STX1A and may thereby modulate the formation of functional SNARE complexes and exocytosis

Probable tyrosine protein-kinase, which has strong transforming capabilities on a variety of cell lines. When overexpressed, it can also induce tumor cell invasion as well as metastasis in distant organs. May act by activating both MAP kinase and phosphatidylinositol 3'-kinases (PI3K) pathways (By similarity).

Catalytically inactive phosphatase. By binding to G3BP1, inhibits the formation of G3BP1- induced stress granules. Does not act by protecting the dephosphorylation of G3BP1 at 'Ser-149'. Inhibits PTPMT1 phosphatase activity. By inhibiting PTPMT1, positively regulates intrinsic apoptosis. May play a role in the formation of neurites during neuronal development.

Catalytically inactive phosphatase. Acts as a nuclear anchor for MAPK1/MAPK3 (ERK1/ERK2). Modulates cell-fate decisions and cell migration by spatiotemporal regulation of MAPK1/MAPK3 (ERK1/ERK2). By binding to the F-box of FBXW7, prevents the assembly of FBXW7 into the SCF E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex, and thereby inhibits degradation of its substrates. Plays a role in spermatogenesis (By similarity).

Succinyl-CoA synthetase functions in the citric acid cycle (TCA), coupling the hydrolysis of succinyl-CoA to the synthesis of either ATP or GTP and thus represents the only step of substrate-level phosphorylation in the TCA. The alpha subunit of the enzyme binds the substrates coenzyme A and phosphate, while succinate binding and specificity for either ATP or GTP is provided by different beta subunits.

ATP-specific succinyl-CoA synthetase functions in the citric acid cycle (TCA), coupling the hydrolysis of succinyl-CoA to the synthesis of ATP and thus represents the only step of substrate-level phosphorylation in the TCA. The beta subunit provides nucleotide specificity of the enzyme and binds the substrate succinate, while the binding sites for coenzyme A and phosphate are found in the alpha subunit (By similarity).

GTP-specific succinyl-CoA synthetase functions in the citric acid cycle (TCA), coupling the hydrolysis of succinyl-CoA to the synthesis of GTP and thus represents the only step of substrate-level phosphorylation in the TCA. The beta subunit provides nucleotide specificity of the enzyme and binds the substrate succinate, while the binding sites for coenzyme A and phosphate are found in the alpha subunit.

Catalyzes the succinyl-CoA-dependent conversion of glutarate to glutaryl-CoA. Can use different dicarboxylic acids as CoA acceptors, the preferred ones are glutarate, succinate, adipate, and 3- hydroxymethylglutarate.

Required for bone modeling during late embryogenesis. Regulates type I collagen synthesis in osteoblasts during their postnatal maturation (By similarity).

Negative regulator in the hedgehog/smoothened signaling pathway. Down-regulates GLI1-mediated transactivation of target genes. Down-regulates GLI2-mediated transactivation of target genes. Part of a corepressor complex that acts on DNA-bound GLI1. May also act by linking GLI1 to BTRC and thereby targeting GLI1 to degradation by the proteasome. Sequesters GLI1, GLI2 and GLI3 in the cytoplasm, this effect is overcome by binding of STK36 to both SUFU and a GLI protein. Negative regulator of beta-catenin signaling (By similarity). Regulates the formation of either the repressor form (GLI3R) or the activator form (GLI3A) of the full-length form of GLI3 (GLI3FL). GLI3FL is complexed with SUFU in the cytoplasm and is maintained in a neutral state. Without the Hh signal, the SUFU- GLI3 complex is recruited to cilia, leading to the efficient processing of GLI3FL into GLI3R. When Hh signaling is initiated, SUFU dissociates from GLI3FL and the latter translocates to the nucleus, where it is phosphorylated, destabilized, and converted to a transcriptional activator (GLI3A). Required for normal embryonic development (By similarity). Required for the proper formation of hair follicles and the control of epidermal differentiation (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator that plays a central role in Notch signaling, a signaling pathway involved in cell-cell communication that regulates a broad spectrum of cell-fate determinations. Acts as a transcriptional repressor when it is not associated with Notch proteins. When associated with some NICD product of Notch proteins (Notch intracellular domain), it acts as a transcriptional activator that activates transcription of Notch target genes. Probably represses or activates transcription via the recruitment of chromatin remodeling complexes containing histone deacetylase or histone acetylase proteins, respectively. Specifically binds to the immunoglobulin kappa-type J segment recombination signal sequence. Binds specifically to methylated DNA. Binds to the oxygen responsive element of COX4I2 and activates its transcription under hypoxia conditions (4% oxygen). Negatively regulates the phagocyte oxidative burst in response to bacterial infection by repressing transcription of NADPH oxidase subunits (By similarity).

Plays an important role in the final stage of carbohydrate digestion. Isomaltase activity is specific for both alpha-1,4- and alpha-1,6-oligosaccharides.

Exhibits arylsulfatase activity and highly specific endoglucosamine-6-sulfatase activity. It can remove sulfate from the C- 6 position of glucosamine within specific subregions of intact heparin. Diminishes HSPG (heparan sulfate proteoglycans) sulfation, inhibits signaling by heparin-dependent growth factors, diminishes proliferation, and facilitates apoptosis in response to exogenous stimulation

Exhibits arylsulfatase activity and highly specific endoglucosamine-6-sulfatase activity. It can remove sulfate from the C- 6 position of glucosamine within specific subregions of intact heparin

Oxidase that catalyzes the conversion of cysteine to 3- oxoalanine on target proteins, using molecular oxygen and an unidentified reducing agent. 3- oxoalanine modification, which is also named formylglycine (fGly), occurs in the maturation of arylsulfatases and some alkaline phosphatases that use the hydrated form of 3-oxoalanine as a catalytic nucleophile. Known substrates include GALNS, ARSA, STS and ARSE.

Lacks formylglycine generating activity and is unable to convert newly synthesized inactive sulfatases to their active form. Inhibits the activation of sulfatases by SUMF1.

Ubiquitin-like protein that can be covalently attached to proteins as a monomer or a lysine-linked polymer. Covalent attachment via an isopeptide bond to its substrates requires prior activation by the E1 complex SAE1-SAE2 and linkage to the E2 enzyme UBE2I, and can be promoted by E3 ligases such as PIAS1-4, RANBP2 or CBX4. This post- translational modification on lysine residues of proteins plays a crucial role in a number of cellular processes such as nuclear transport, DNA replication and repair, mitosis and signal transduction. Involved for instance in targeting RANGAP1 to the nuclear pore complex protein RANBP2. Covalently attached to the voltage-gated potassium channel KCNB1; this modulates the gating characteristics of KCNB1. Polymeric SUMO1 chains are also susceptible to polyubiquitination which functions as a signal for proteasomal degradation of modified proteins. May also regulate a network of genes involved in palate development. Covalently attached to ZFHX3.

Ubiquitin-like protein that can be covalently attached to proteins as a monomer or as a lysine-linked polymer. Covalent attachment via an isopeptide bond to its substrates requires prior activation by the E1 complex SAE1-SAE2 and linkage to the E2 enzyme UBE2I, and can be promoted by an E3 ligase such as PIAS1-4, RANBP2, CBX4 or ZNF451. This post-translational modification on lysine residues of proteins plays a crucial role in a number of cellular processes such as nuclear transport, DNA replication and repair, mitosis and signal transduction. Polymeric SUMO2 chains are also susceptible to polyubiquitination which functions as a signal for proteasomal degradation of modified proteins. Plays a role in the regulation of sumoylation status of SETX.

Ubiquitin-like protein which can be covalently attached to target lysines either as a monomer or as a lysine-linked polymer. Does not seem to be involved in protein degradation and may function as an antagonist of ubiquitin in the degradation process. Plays a role in a number of cellular processes such as nuclear transport, DNA replication and repair, mitosis and signal transduction. Covalent attachment to its substrates requires prior activation by the E1 complex SAE1-SAE2 and linkage to the E2 enzyme UBE2I, and can be promoted by an E3 ligase such as PIAS1-4, RANBP2 or CBX4. Plays a role in the regulation of sumoylation status of SETX.

Ubiquitin-like protein which can be covalently attached to target lysines as a monomer. Does not seem to be involved in protein degradation and may modulate protein subcellular localization, stability or activity. Upon oxidative stress, conjugates to various anti-oxidant enzymes, chaperones, and stress defense proteins. May also conjugate to NFKBIA, TFAP2A and FOS, negatively regulating their transcriptional activity, and to NR3C1, positively regulating its transcriptional activity. Covalent attachment to its substrates requires prior activation by the E1 complex SAE1-SAE2 and linkage to the E2 enzyme UBE2I.

As a component of the LINC (LInker of Nucleoskeleton and Cytoskeleton) complex involved in the connection between the nuclear lamina and the cytoskeleton. The nucleocytoplasmic interactions established by the LINC complex play an important role in the transmission of mechanical forces across the nuclear envelope and in nuclear movement and positioning (By similarity). Required for interkinetic nuclear migration (INM) and essential for nucleokinesis and centrosome-nucleus coupling during radial neuronal migration in the cerebral cortex and during glial migration (By similarity). Involved in telomere attachment to nuclear envelope in the prophase of meiosis implicating a SUN1/2:KASH5 LINC complex in which SUN1 and SUN2 seem to act at least partial redundantly (By similarity). Required for gametogenesis and involved in selective gene expression of coding and non-coding RNAs needed for gametogenesis (By similarity). Helps to define the distribution of nuclear pore complexes (NPCs) (By similarity). Required for efficient localization of SYNE4 in the nuclear envelope (By similarity). May be involved in nuclear remodeling during sperm head formation in spermatogenesis (By similarity). May play a role in DNA repair by suppressing non- homologous end joining repair to facilitate the repair of DNA cross- links.

As a component of the LINC (LInker of Nucleoskeleton and Cytoskeleton) complex, involved in the connection between the nuclear lamina and the cytoskeleton. The nucleocytoplasmic interactions established by the LINC complex play an important role in the transmission of mechanical forces across the nuclear envelope and in nuclear movement and positioning. Specifically, SYNE2 and SUN2 assemble in arrays of transmembrane actin-associated nuclear (TAN) lines which are bound to F-actin cables and couple the nucleus to retrograde actin flow during actin-dependent nuclear movement. Required for interkinetic nuclear migration (INM) and essential for nucleokinesis and centrosome- nucleus coupling during radial neuronal migration in the cerebral cortex and during glial migration. Required for nuclear migration in retinal photoreceptor progenitors implicating association with cytoplasmic dynein-dynactin and kinesin motor complexes, and probably B-type lamins; SUN1 and SUN2 seem to act redundantly. The SUN1/2:KASH5 LINC complex couples telomeres to microtubules during meiosis; SUN1 and SUN2 seem to act at least partial redundantly. Anchors chromosome movement in the prophase of meiosis and is involved in selective gene expression of coding and non-coding RNAs needed for gametogenesis. Required for telomere attachment to nuclear envelope and gametogenesis. May also function on endocytic vesicles as a receptor for RAB5-GDP and participate in the activation of RAB5.

As a probable component of the LINC (LInker of Nucleoskeleton and Cytoskeleton) complex, involved in the connection between the nuclear lamina and the cytoskeleton. The nucleocytoplasmic interactions established by the LINC complex play an important role in the transmission of mechanical forces across the nuclear envelope and in nuclear movement and positioning. May be involved in nuclear remodeling during sperm head formation in spermatogenesis. A probable SUN3:SYNE1 LINC complex may tether spermatid nuclei to posterior cytoskeletal structures such as the manchette.

Plays an essential role in anchoring sperm head to the tail. Is responsible for the attachment of the coupling apparatus to the sperm nuclear envelope.

Catalyzes the oxidation of sulfite to sulfate, the terminal reaction in the oxidative degradation of sulfur-containing amino acids.

May play a role in trophoblasts syncytialization, the spontaneous fusion of their plasma membranes, an essential process in placental development. May negatively regulate cell-cell fusion by interacting with SLC1A5, the probable receptor on the cell surface of the fusogenic syncytin-1/ERVW-1.

Endoplasmic reticulum cargo receptor that mediates the export of lipoproteins by recruiting cargos into COPII vesicles to facilitate their secretion. Acts as a cargo receptor for lipoproteins bearing both APOB and APOA1, thereby regulating lipoprotein delivery and the maintenance of lipid homeostasis. Synergizes with the GTPase SAR1B to mediate transport of circulating lipoproteins. Promotes the secretion of PCSK9. Also mediates the efficient secretion of erythropoietin (EPO). May also play a role in the maintenance of the architecture of the endoplasmic reticulum-Golgi intermediate compartment and of the Golgi.

Binds to both DNA and RNA in vitro, with a stronger binding capacity for RNA. May represent a nucleolar constitutive protein involved in ribosomal biosynthesis or assembly (By similarity).

May be a cytokine receptor for GPR15LG. May be a tumor suppressor; together with GPR15LG has a growth inhibitory effect on colon cancer cells which includes G1 cell cycle arrest. May play a role in breast tumorigenesis.

May play a role in breast tumorigenesis by promoting estrogen-dependent cell proliferation, cell-cell interactions and migration.

Acts as complement inhibitor by disrupting the formation of the classical C3 convertase. Isoform 3 inhibits the classical complement pathway, while membrane-bound isoform 1 inhibits deposition of C3b via both the classical and alternative complement pathways.

May play a role in growth-suppressive activity and cell death. May be involved in the production of chemokine molecules in umbilical vein endothelial cells (HUVECs) cultured in THP1 monocyte LPS-induced medium. Plays a role in preventing tumor onset (By similarity).

Major helicase player in mitochondrial RNA metabolism. Component of the mitochondrial degradosome (mtEXO) complex, that degrades 3' overhang double-stranded RNA with a 3'-to-5' directionality in an ATP-dependent manner. Involved in the degradation of non-coding mitochondrial transcripts (MT-ncRNA) and tRNA-like molecules. ATPase and ATP-dependent multisubstrate helicase, able to unwind double-stranded (ds) DNA and RNA, and RNA/DNA heteroduplexes in the 5'-to-3' direction. Plays a role in the RNA surveillance system in mitochondria; regulates the stability of mature mRNAs, the removal of aberrantly formed mRNAs and the rapid degradation of non coding processing intermediates. Also implicated in recombination and chromatin maintenance pathways. May protect cells from apoptosis. Associates with mitochondrial DNA.

Histone methyltransferase that specifically trimethylates 'Lys-9' of histone H3 using monomethylated H3 'Lys-9' as substrate. Also weakly methylates histone H1 (in vitro). H3 'Lys-9' trimethylation represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression by recruiting HP1 (CBX1, CBX3 and/or CBX5) proteins to methylated histones. Mainly functions in heterochromatin regions, thereby playing a central role in the establishment of constitutive heterochromatin at pericentric and telomere regions. H3 'Lys-9' trimethylation is also required to direct DNA methylation at pericentric repeats. SUV39H1 is targeted to histone H3 via its interaction with RB1 and is involved in many processes, such as repression of MYOD1-stimulated differentiation, regulation of the control switch for exiting the cell cycle and entering differentiation, repression by the PML-RARA fusion protein, BMP-induced repression, repression of switch recombination to IgA and regulation of telomere length. Component of the eNoSC (energy-dependent nucleolar silencing) complex, a complex that mediates silencing of rDNA in response to intracellular energy status and acts by recruiting histone-modifying enzymes. The eNoSC complex is able to sense the energy status of cell: upon glucose starvation, elevation of NAD(+)/NADP(+) ratio activates SIRT1, leading to histone H3 deacetylation followed by dimethylation of H3 at 'Lys-9' (H3K9me2) by SUV39H1 and the formation of silent chromatin in the rDNA locus. Recruited by the large PER complex to the E-box elements of the circadian target genes such as PER2 itself or PER1, contributes to the conversion of local chromatin to a heterochromatin-like repressive state through H3 'Lys-9' trimethylation.

Histone methyltransferase that specifically trimethylates 'Lys-9' of histone H3 using monomethylated H3 'Lys-9' as substrate. H3 'Lys-9' trimethylation represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression by recruiting HP1 (CBX1, CBX3 and/or CBX5) proteins to methylated histones. Mainly functions in heterochromatin regions, thereby playing a central role in the establishment of constitutive heterochromatin at pericentric and telomere regions. H3 'Lys-9' trimethylation is also required to direct DNA methylation at pericentric repeats. SUV39H1 is targeted to histone H3 via its interaction with RB1 and is involved in many processes, such as cell cycle regulation, transcriptional repression and regulation of telomere length. May participate in regulation of higher-order chromatin organization during spermatogenesis. Recruited by the large PER complex to the E-box elements of the circadian target genes such as PER2 itself or PER1, contributes to the conversion of local chromatin to a heterochromatin-like repressive state through H3 'Lys-9' trimethylation.

Polycomb group (PcG) protein. Component of the PRC2 complex, which methylates 'Lys-9' (H3K9me) and 'Lys-27' (H3K27me) of histone H3, leading to transcriptional repression of the affected target gene. The PRC2 complex may also serve as a recruiting platform for DNA methyltransferases, thereby linking two epigenetic repression systems. Genes repressed by the PRC2 complex include HOXC8, HOXA9, MYT1 and CDKN2A.

Plays a role in the control of regulated secretion in neural and endocrine cells, enhancing selectively low-frequency neurotransmission. Positively regulates vesicle fusion by maintaining the readily releasable pool of secretory vesicles (By similarity).

Probably plays a role in the control of regulated secretion in neural and endocrine cells.

Plays a role in the control of regulated secretion in neural and endocrine cells, enhancing selectively low-frequency neurotransmission. Positively regulates vesicle fusion by maintaining the readily releasable pool of secretory vesicles.

Enhances the tyrosine carboxypeptidase activity of VASH1 and VASH2, thereby promoting the removal of the C-terminal tyrosine residue of alpha-tubulin. This activity is critical for spindle function and accurate chromosome segregation during mitosis since microtuble detyronisation regulates mitotic spindle length and postioning. Also required to enhance the solubility and secretion of VASH1 and VASH2. Plays a role in axon and excitatory synapse formation.

[Isoform 1]: Forms a high-affinity link between the actin cytoskeleton and the membrane. Is among the first costameric proteins to assemble during myogenesis and it contributes to myogenic membrane structure and differentiation. Appears to be involved in myosin II assembly. May modulate myosin II regulation through MLCK during cell spreading, an initial step in cell migration. May play a role in invadopodial function.

Mediates sugar transport across membranes. May stimulate V(D)J recombination by the activation of RAG1.

Phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate-dependent guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) which, independently of RAS, transduces signals from tyrosine kinase receptors to RAC. It also mediates signaling of membrane ruffling. Regulates the actin cytoskeleton as an effector or adapter protein in response to agonist stimulated phosphatidylinositol (3,4)-bisphosphate production and cell protrusion (By similarity).

Catalyzes the attachment of alanine to tRNA(Ala) in a two- step reaction: alanine is first activated by ATP to form Ala-AMP and then transferred to the acceptor end of tRNA(Ala). Also edits incorrectly charged tRNA(Ala) via its editing domain.

Plays a role in adipocyte differentiation by promoting mTORC2-mediated phosphorylation of AKT1 at 'Ser-473' after growth factor stimulation.

Part of a kinesin motor-adapter complex that is critical for the anterograde axonal transport of active zone components and contributes to activity-dependent presynaptic assembly during neuronal development.

Oocyte-specific protein that localizes to centromeres at the dictyate stage and regulates the survival of primordial oocytes.

Major component of the transverse central element of synaptonemal complexes (SCS), formed between homologous chromosomes during meiotic prophase. Requires SYCP1 in order to be incorporated into the central element. May have a role in the synaptonemal complex assembly, stabilization and recombination.

Major component of the transverse central element of synaptonemal complexes (SCS), formed between homologous chromosomes during meiotic prophase. Requires SYCP1 in order to be incorporated into the central element. May have a role in the synaptonemal complex assembly, stabilization and recombination (By similarity).

Major component of the transverse central element of synaptonemal complexes (SCS), formed between homologous chromosomes during meiotic prophase. Required for chromosome loading of the central element-specific SCS proteins, and for initiating synapsis between homologous chromosomes. Chromosome loading appears to require SYCP1. Required for fertility.

Functions in exocytosis in pancreatic acinar cells regulating the fusion of zymogen granules with each other. May have a pore-forming activity on membranes and regulate exocytosis in other exocrine tissues (By similarity).

Major component of the transverse filaments of synaptonemal complexes, formed between homologous chromosomes during meiotic prophase. Required for normal assembly of the central element of the synaptonemal complexes. Required for normal centromere pairing during meiosis. Required for normal meiotic chromosome synapsis during oocyte and spermatocyte development and for normal male and female fertility.

Major component of the axial/lateral elements of synaptonemal complexes (SCS) during meiotic prophase. Plays a role in the assembly of synaptonemal complexes. Required for normal meiotic chromosome synapsis during oocyte and spermatocyte development and for normal male and female fertility. Required for insertion of SYCP3 into synaptonemal complexes. May be involved in the organization of chromatin by temporarily binding to DNA scaffold attachment regions. Requires SYCP3, but not SYCP1, in order to be incorporated into the axial/lateral elements.

Component of the synaptonemal complexes (SCS), formed between homologous chromosomes during meiotic prophase. Required for centromere pairing during meiosis in male germ cells (By similarity). Required for normal meiosis during spermatogenesis and male fertility. Plays a lesser role in female fertility. Required for efficient phosphorylation of HORMAD1 and HORMAD2 (By similarity).

This endogenous retroviral envelope protein has retained its original fusogenic properties and participates in trophoblast fusion and the formation of a syncytium during placenta morphogenesis. May induce fusion through binding of SLC1A4 and SLC1A5.

This endogenous retroviral envelope protein has retained its original fusogenic properties and participates in trophoblast fusion and the formation of a syncytium during placenta morphogenesis. The interaction with MFSD2A is apparently important for this process.

Catalyzes the specific attachment of an amino acid to its cognate tRNA in a 2 step reaction: the amino acid (AA) is first activated by ATP to form AA-AMP and then transferred to the acceptor end of the tRNA.

GTPase activator for the Rho-type GTPases. As a GCM1 downstream effector, it is involved in placental development and positively regulates trophoblast cells migration. It regulates cytoskeletal remodeling by controlling the activity of Rho GTPases including RHOA, CDC42 and RAC1.

Catalyzes the attachment of glutamate to tRNA(Glu) in a two- step reaction: glutamate is first activated by ATP to form Glu-AMP and then transferred to the acceptor end of tRNA(Glu).

Multifunctional protein which is primarily part of the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase multienzyme complex, also know as multisynthetase complex, that catalyzes the attachment of the cognate amino acid to the corresponding tRNA in a two-step reaction: the amino acid is first activated by ATP to form a covalent intermediate with AMP and is then transferred to the acceptor end of the cognate tRNA. The phosphorylation of EPRS1, induced by interferon-gamma, dissociates the protein from the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase multienzyme complex and recruits it to the GAIT complex that binds to stem loop-containing GAIT elements in the 3'-UTR of diverse inflammatory mRNAs (such as ceruplasmin), suppressing their translation. Interferon-gamma can therefore redirect, in specific cells, the EPRS1 function from protein synthesis to translation inhibition. Also functions as an effector of the mTORC1 signaling pathway by promoting, through SLC27A1, the uptake of long-chain fatty acid by adipocytes. Thereby, it also plays a role in fat metabolism and more indirectly influences lifespan.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Involved in transcription-coupled repair (TCR), transcription and pre-mRNA splicing.

Is responsible for the charging of tRNA(Phe) with phenylalanine in mitochondrial translation. To a lesser extent, also catalyzes direct attachment of m-Tyr (an oxidized version of Phe) to tRNA(Phe), thereby opening the way for delivery of the misacylated tRNA to the ribosome and incorporation of ROS-damaged amino acid into proteins.

Major constituent of the PSD essential for postsynaptic signaling. Inhibitory regulator of the Ras-cAMP pathway. Member of the NMDAR signaling complex in excitatory synapses, it may play a role in NMDAR-dependent control of AMPAR potentiation, AMPAR membrane trafficking and synaptic plasticity. Regulates AMPAR-mediated miniature excitatory postsynaptic currents. Exhibits dual GTPase-activating specificity for Ras and Rap. May be involved in certain forms of brain injury, leading to long-term learning and memory deficits (By similarity).

Mitochondrial aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase that catalyzes the ATP-dependent ligation of histidine to the 3'-end of its cognate tRNA, via the formation of an aminoacyl-adenylate intermediate (His-AMP).

Regulates endocytosis of activin type 2 receptor kinases through the Ral/RALBP1-dependent pathway and may be involved in suppression of activin-induced signal transduction.

Catalyzes the specific attachment of an amino acid to its cognate tRNA in a 2 step reaction: the amino acid (AA) is first activated by ATP to form AA-AMP and then transferred to the acceptor end of the tRNA. When secreted, acts as a signaling molecule that induces immune response through the activation of monocyte/macrophages. Catalyzes the synthesis of the signaling molecule diadenosine tetraphosphate (Ap4A), and thereby mediates disruption of the complex between HINT1 and MITF and the concomitant activation of MITF transcriptional activity.

Catalyzes the specific attachment of an amino acid to its cognate tRNA in a two step reaction: the amino acid (AA) is first activated by ATP to form AA-AMP and then transferred to the acceptor end of the tRNA. Exhibits a post-transfer editing activity to hydrolyze mischarged tRNAs.

Catalyzes the specific attachment of an amino acid to its cognate tRNA in a 2 step reaction: the amino acid (AA) is first activated by ATP to form AA-AMP and then transferred to the acceptor end of the tRNA. Plays a role in the synthesis of ribosomal RNA in the nucleolus.

Scaffold protein that functions as a component of a multimolecular complex involved in histone mRNA 3'-end processing. Specific component of the tight junction (TJ) plaque, but might not be an exclusively junctional component. May have a house-keeping rule. Is involved in pre-mRNA polyadenylation. Enhances SSU72 phosphatase activity.

Neuronal phosphoprotein that coats synaptic vesicles, and binds to the cytoskeleton. Acts as a regulator of synaptic vesicles trafficking, involved in the control of neurotransmitter release at the pre-synaptic terminal. Also involved in the regulation of axon outgrowth and synaptogenesis (By similarity). The complex formed with NOS1 and CAPON proteins is necessary for specific nitric-oxid functions at a presynaptic level (By similarity).

Neuronal phosphoprotein that coats synaptic vesicles, binds to the cytoskeleton, and is believed to function in the regulation of neurotransmitter release. May play a role in noradrenaline secretion by sympathetic neurons (By similarity).

May be involved in the regulation of neurotransmitter release and synaptogenesis

Atypical type III intermediate filament (IF) protein that may play a supportive role in the efficient coupling of mechanical stress between the myofibril and fiber exterior. May facilitate lateral force transmission during skeletal muscle contraction. Does not form homofilaments nor heterofilaments with other IF proteins.

Catalyzes the attachment of asparagine to tRNA(Asn) in a two- step reaction: asparagine is first activated by ATP to form Asn-AMP and then transferred to the acceptor end of tRNA(Asn). In addition to its essential role in protein synthesis, acts as a signaling molecule that induced migration of CCR3-expressing cells. Has an essential role in the development of the cerebral cortex, being required for proper proliferation of radial glial cells.

Multi-isomeric modular protein which forms a linking network between organelles and the actin cytoskeleton to maintain the subcellular spatial organization. As a component of the LINC (LInker of Nucleoskeleton and Cytoskeleton) complex involved in the connection between the nuclear lamina and the cytoskeleton. The nucleocytoplasmic interactions established by the LINC complex play an important role in the transmission of mechanical forces across the nuclear envelope and in nuclear movement and positioning. May be involved in nucleus- centrosome attachment and nuclear migration in neural progenitors implicating LINC complex association with SUN1/2 and probably association with cytoplasmic dynein-dynactin motor complexes; SYNE1 and SYNE2 may act redundantly. Required for centrosome migration to the apical cell surface during early ciliogenesis. May be involved in nuclear remodeling during sperm head formation in spermatogenesis; a probable SUN3:SYNE1/KASH1 LINC complex may tether spermatid nuclei to posterior cytoskeletal structures such as the manchette.

Multi-isomeric modular protein which forms a linking network between organelles and the actin cytoskeleton to maintain the subcellular spatial organization. As a component of the LINC (LInker of Nucleoskeleton and Cytoskeleton) complex involved in the connection between the nuclear lamina and the cytoskeleton. The nucleocytoplasmic interactions established by the LINC complex play an important role in the transmission of mechanical forces across the nuclear envelope and in nuclear movement and positioning. Specifically, SYNE2 and SUN2 assemble in arrays of transmembrane actin-associated nuclear (TAN) lines which are bound to F-actin cables and couple the nucleus to retrograde actin flow during actin-dependent nuclear movement. May be involved in nucleus-centrosome attachment. During interkinetic nuclear migration (INM) at G2 phase and nuclear migration in neural progenitors its LINC complex association with SUN1/2 and probable association with cytoplasmic dynein-dynactin motor complexes functions to pull the nucleus toward the centrosome; SYNE1 and SYNE2 may act redundantly. During INM at G1 phase mediates respective LINC complex association with kinesin to push the nucleus away from the centrosome. Involved in nuclear migration in retinal photoreceptor progenitors. Required for centrosome migration to the apical cell surface during early ciliogenesis.

As a component of the LINC (LInker of Nucleoskeleton and Cytoskeleton) complex involved in the connection between the nuclear lamina and the cytoskeleton. The nucleocytoplasmic interactions established by the LINC complex play an important role in the transmission of mechanical forces across the nuclear envelope and in nuclear movement and positioning. Probable anchoring protein which tethers the nucleus to the cytoskeleton by binding PLEC which can associate with the intermediate filament system. Plays a role in the regulation of aortic epithelial cell morphology, and is required for flow-induced centrosome polarization and directional migration in aortic endothelial cells.

As a component of the LINC (LInker of Nucleoskeleton and Cytoskeleton) complex, involved in the connection between the nuclear lamina and the cytoskeleton. The nucleocytoplasmic interactions established by the LINC complex play an important role in the transmission of mechanical forces across the nuclear envelope and in nuclear movement and positioning (By similarity). Behaves as a kinesin cargo, providing a functional binding site for kinesin-1 at the nuclear envelope. Hence may contribute to the establishment of secretory epithelial morphology by promoting kinesin-dependent apical migration of the centrosome and Golgi apparatus and basal localization of the nucleus (By similarity).

Type-VI intermediate filament (IF) which plays an important cytoskeletal role within the muscle cell cytoskeleton. It forms heteromeric IFs with desmin and/or vimentin, and via its interaction with cytoskeletal proteins alpha-dystrobrevin, dystrophin, talin-1, utrophin and vinculin, is able to link these heteromeric IFs to adherens-type junctions, such as to the costameres, neuromuscular junctions, and myotendinous junctions within striated muscle cells.

May regulate AMPA receptor content at nascent synapses, and have a role in postsynaptic development and maturation.

Phosphatase that acts on various phosphoinositides, including phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate, phosphatidylinositol (4,5)- bisphosphate and phosphatidylinositol (3,4,5)-trisphosphate. Has a role in clathrin-mediated endocytosis (By similarity). Hydrolyzes PIP2 bound to actin regulatory proteins resulting in the rearrangement of actin filaments downstream of tyrosine kinase and ASH/GRB2 (By similarity).

Inositol 5-phosphatase which may be involved in distinct membrane trafficking and signal transduction pathways. May mediate the inhibitory effect of Rac1 on endocytosis

Has an actin-binding and actin-bundling activity. Can induce the formation of F-actin networks in an isoform-specific manner. At the sarcomeric Z lines is proposed to act as adapter protein that links nascent myofibers to the sarcolemma via ZYX and may play a role in early assembly and stabilization of the Z lines. Involved in autophagosome formation. May play a role in chaperone-assisted selective autophagy (CASA) involved in Z lines maintenance in striated muscle under mechanical tension; may link the client-processing CASA chaperone machinery to a membrane- tethering and fusion complex providing autophagosome membranes (By similarity). Involved in regulation of cell migration. May be a tumor suppressor.

Actin-associated protein that may play a role in modulating actin-based shape and motility of dendritic spines and renal podocyte foot processes. Seems to be essential for the formation of spine apparatuses in spines of telencephalic neurons, which is involved in synaptic plasticity (By similarity).

Intrinsic membrane protein of small synaptic vesicles. Probable vesicular channel protein (By similarity).

Plays a role in endocytosis and/or membrane trafficking at the trans-Golgi network (TGN). May act by linking the adapter protein complex AP-1 to other proteins (Probable). Component of clathrin-coated vesicles. Component of the aftiphilin/p200/gamma-synergin complex, which plays roles in AP1G1/AP- 1-mediated protein trafficking including the trafficking of transferrin from early to recycling endosomes, and the membrane trafficking of furin and the lysosomal enzyme cathepsin D between the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and endosomes.

Actin-associated protein that may play a role in modulating actin-based shape.

Possibly involved in structural functions as organizing other membrane components or in targeting the vesicles to the plasma membrane. Involved in the regulation of short-term and long-term synaptic plasticity (By similarity).

Involved in communication between the T-tubular and junctional sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) membranes.

Glutamine--tRNA ligase. Plays a critical role in brain development.

Forms part of a macromolecular complex that catalyzes the attachment of specific amino acids to cognate tRNAs during protein synthesis. Modulates the secretion of AIMP1 and may be involved in generation of the inflammatory cytokine EMAP2 from AIMP1.

Involved in protein trafficking. May serve as a receptor for ARFRP1

Catalyzes the attachment of serine to tRNA(Ser) in a two-step reaction: serine is first activated by ATP to form Ser-AMP and then transferred to the acceptor end of tRNA(Ser). Is probably also able to aminoacylate tRNA(Sec) with serine, to form the misacylated tRNA L-seryl-tRNA(Sec), which will be further converted into selenocysteinyl-tRNA(Sec). In the nucleus, binds to the VEGFA core promoter and prevents MYC binding and transcriptional activation by MYC. Recruits SIRT2 to the VEGFA promoter, promoting deacetylation of histone H4 at 'Lys-16' (H4K16). Thereby, inhibits the production of VEGFA and sprouting angiogenesis mediated by VEGFA.

Catalyzes the attachment of serine to tRNA(Ser). Is also probably able to aminoacylate tRNA(Sec) with serine, to form the misacylated tRNA L-seryl-tRNA(Sec), which will be further converted into selenocysteinyl-tRNA(Sec).

Ca(2+) sensor specifically required for the Ca(2+)-dependent exocytosis of secretory vesicles containing IGF1 in neurons of the olfactory bulb. Exocytosis of IGF1 is required for sensory perception of smell. Not involved in Ca(2+)-dependent synaptic vesicle exocytosis (By similarity). Acts through Ca(2+) and phospholipid binding to the C2 domain: Ca(2+) induces binding of the C2-domains to phospholipid membranes and to assembled SNARE-complexes; both actions contribute to triggering exocytosis (By similarity).

Synaptotagmin family member involved in vesicular and membrane trafficking which does not bind Ca(2+). Inhibits clathrin- mediated and bulk endocytosis, functions to ensure precision in vesicle retrieval. Plays an important role in dopamine transmission by regulating endocytosis and the vesicle-recycling process. Essential component of a neuronal vesicular trafficking pathway that differs from the synaptic vesicle trafficking pathway but is crucial for development and synaptic plasticity. In macrophages and microglia, inhibits the conventional cytokine secretion, of at least IL6 and TNF, and phagocytosis. In astrocytes, regulates lysosome exocytosis, mechanism required for the repair of injured astrocyte cell membrane (By similarity). Required for the ATP13A2-mediated regulation of the autophagy-lysosome pathway.

Synaptic vesicle phosphoprotein that enhances spontaneous neurotransmitter release but does not effect induced neurotransmitter release (By similarity). Unlike other synaptotagmins, it does not bind Ca(2+) or phospholipids (By similarity). Essential for mossy-fiber long-term potentiation in the hippocampus (By similarity).

May be involved in transport vesicle docking to the plasma membrane.

May be involved in the trafficking and exocytosis of secretory vesicles in non-neuronal tissues. Is Ca(2+)-independent

May be involved in the trafficking and exocytosis of secretory vesicles in non-neuronal tissues.

Calcium sensor that participates in triggering neurotransmitter release at the synapse (By similarity). May have a regulatory role in the membrane interactions during trafficking of synaptic vesicles at the active zone of the synapse (By similarity). It binds acidic phospholipids with a specificity that requires the presence of both an acidic head group and a diacyl backbone. A Ca(2+)- dependent interaction between synaptotagmin and putative receptors for activated protein kinase C has also been reported. It can bind to at least three additional proteins in a Ca(2+)-independent manner; these are neurexins, syntaxin and AP2. Plays a role in dendrite formation by melanocytes.

Exhibits calcium-dependent phospholipid and inositol polyphosphate binding properties (By similarity). May have a regulatory role in the membrane interactions during trafficking of synaptic vesicles at the active zone of the synapse (By similarity). Plays a role in dendrite formation by melanocytes.

Ca(2+) sensor involved in Ca(2+)-dependent exocytosis of secretory vesicles through Ca(2+) and phospholipid binding to the C2 domain. Ca(2+) induces binding of the C2-domains to phospholipid membranes and to assembled SNARE-complexes; both actions contribute to triggering exocytosis (By similarity). Plays a role in dendrite formation by melanocytes.

Synaptotagmin family member which does not bind Ca(2+) (By similarity). Involved in neuronal dense core vesicles (DCVs) mobility through its interaction with KIF1A. Upon increased neuronal activity, phosphorylation by MAPK8/JNK1 destabilizes the interaction with KIF1A and captures DCVs to synapses (By similarity). Plays a role in dendrite formation by melanocytes.

May be involved in Ca(2+)-dependent exocytosis of secretory vesicles through Ca(2+) and phospholipid binding to the C2 domain or may serve as Ca(2+) sensors in the process of vesicular trafficking and exocytosis. Regulates the Ca(2+)-dependent secretion of norepinephrine in PC12 cells. Required for export from the endocytic recycling compartment to the cell surface (By similarity).

May be involved in Ca(2+)-dependent exocytosis of secretory vesicles through Ca(2+) and phospholipid binding to the C2 domain or may serve as Ca(2+) sensors in the process of vesicular trafficking and exocytosis. May mediate Ca(2+)-regulation of exocytosis in acrosomal reaction in sperm (By similarity).

Ca(2+) sensor involved in Ca(2+)-dependent exocytosis of secretory and synaptic vesicles through Ca(2+) and phospholipid binding to the C2 domain (By similarity). Ca(2+) induces binding of the C2- domains to phospholipid membranes and to assembled SNARE-complexes; both actions contribute to triggering exocytosis (By similarity). SYT7 binds Ca(2+) with high affinity and slow kinetics compared to other synaptotagmins (By similarity). Involved in Ca(2+)-triggered lysosomal exocytosis, a major component of the plasma membrane repair. Ca(2+)-regulated delivery of lysosomal membranes to the cell surface is also involved in the phagocytic uptake of particles by macrophages (By similarity). Ca(2+)-triggered lysosomal exocytosis also plays a role in bone remodeling by regulating secretory pathways in osteoclasts and osteoblasts (By similarity). In case of infection, involved in participates cell invasion by Trypanosoma cruzi via Ca(2+)- triggered lysosomal exocytosis. Involved in cholesterol transport from lysosome to peroxisome by promoting membrane contacts between lysosomes and peroxisomes: probably acts by promoting vesicle fusion by binding phosphatidylinositol-4,5- bisphosphate on peroxisomal membranes (By similarity). Acts as a key mediator of synaptic facilitation, a process also named short-term synaptic potentiation: synaptic facilitation takes place at synapses with a low initial release probability and is caused by influx of Ca(2+) into the axon terminal after spike generation, increasing the release probability of neurotransmitters (By similarity). Probably mediates synaptic facilitation by directly increasing the probability of release (By similarity). May also contribute to synaptic facilitation by regulating synaptic vesicle replenishment, a process required to ensure that synaptic vesicles are ready for the arrival of the next action potential: SYT7 is required for synaptic vesicle replenishment by acting as a sensor for Ca(2+) and by forming a complex with calmodulin (By similarity). Also acts as a regulator of Ca(2+)- dependent insulin and glucagon secretion in beta-cells (By similarity). Triggers exocytosis by promoting fusion pore opening and fusion pore expansion in chromaffin cells (By similarity). Also regulates the secretion of some non-synaptic secretory granules of specialized cells (By similarity).

May be involved in Ca(2+)-dependent exocytosis of secretory vesicles through Ca(2+) and phospholipid binding to the C2 domain or may serve as Ca(2+) sensors in the process of vesicular trafficking and exocytosis

Catalyzes the attachment of threonine to tRNA(Thr) in a two- step reaction: threonine is first activated by ATP to form Thr-AMP and then transferred to the acceptor end of tRNA(Thr). Also edits incorrectly charged tRNA(Thr) via its editing domain, at the post- transfer stage.

Catalyzes the attachment of threonine to tRNA(Thr) in a two- step reaction: threonine is first activated by ATP to form Thr-AMP and then transferred to the acceptor end of tRNA(Thr). Also edits incorrectly charged tRNA(Thr) via its editing domain, at the post-transfer stage (By similarity).

May play a role in vesicle trafficking (By similarity). Binds phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate. Acts as a RAB27A effector protein and may play a role in cytotoxic granule exocytosis in lymphocytes (By similarity).

Isoform 1 acts as a RAB27A effector protein and plays a role in cytotoxic granule exocytosis in lymphocytes. It is required for cytotoxic granule docking at the immunologic synapse. Isoform 4 binds phosphatidylserine (PS) and phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2) and promotes the recruitment of glucagon-containing granules to the cell membrane in pancreatic alpha cells. Binding to PS is inhibited by Ca(2+) while binding to PIP2 is Ca(2+) insensitive.

May act as Rab effector protein and play a role in vesicle trafficking. Binds phospholipids in the presence of calcium ions (By similarity).

Modulates exocytosis of dense-core granules and secretion of hormones in the pancreas and the pituitary. Interacts with vesicles containing negatively charged phospholipids in a Ca(2+)-independent manner (By similarity).

May act as Rab effector protein and play a role in vesicle trafficking. Binds phospholipids

Catalyzes the attachment of threonine to tRNA(Thr) in a two- step reaction: threonine is first activated by ATP to form Thr-AMP and then transferred to the acceptor end of tRNA(Thr). Also edits incorrectly charged tRNA(Thr) via its editing domain.

Neuronal protein that plays several roles in synaptic activity such as regulation of synaptic vesicle trafficking and subsequent neurotransmitter release. Participates as a monomer in synaptic vesicle exocytosis by enhancing vesicle priming, fusion and dilation of exocytotic fusion pores. Mechanistically, acts by increasing local Ca(2+) release from microdomains which is essential for the enhancement of ATP-induced exocytosis. Acts also as a molecular chaperone in its multimeric membrane-bound state, assisting in the folding of synaptic fusion components called SNAREs (Soluble NSF Attachment Protein REceptors) at presynaptic plasma membrane in conjunction with cysteine string protein-alpha/DNAJC5. This chaperone activity is important to sustain normal SNARE-complex assembly during aging. Also plays a role in the regulation of the dopamine neurotransmission by associating with the dopamine transporter (DAT1) and thereby modulating its activity.

Non-amyloid component of senile plaques found in Alzheimer disease. Could act as a regulator of SNCA aggregation process. Protects neurons from staurosporine and 6-hydroxy dopamine (6OHDA)-stimulated caspase activation in a p53/TP53-dependent manner. Contributes to restore the SNCA anti-apoptotic function abolished by 6OHDA. Not found in the Lewy bodies associated with Parkinson disease

Plays a role in neurofilament network integrity. May be involved in modulating axonal architecture during development and in the adult. In vitro, increases the susceptibility of neurofilament-H to calcium-dependent proteases (By similarity). May also function in modulating the keratin network in skin. Activates the MAPK and Elk-1 signal transduction pathway (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin specifically from endoplasmic reticulum-associated UBC7 E2 ligase and transfers it to substrates, promoting their degradation. Component of the endoplasmic reticulum quality control (ERQC) system also called ER-associated degradation (ERAD) involved in ubiquitin- dependent degradation of misfolded endoplasmic reticulum proteins. Also promotes the degradation of normal but naturally short-lived proteins such as SGK. Protects cells from ER stress-induced apoptosis. Protects neurons from apoptosis induced by polyglutamine-expanded huntingtin (HTT) or unfolded GPR37 by promoting their degradation. Sequesters p53/TP53 in the cytoplasm and promotes its degradation, thereby negatively regulating its biological function in transcription, cell cycle regulation and apoptosis. Mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of cytoplasmic NFE2L1 (By similarity). During the early stage of B cell development, required for degradation of the pre-B cell receptor (pre-BCR) complex, hence supporting further differentiation into mature B cells (By similarity).

Isoform 1, isoform 2 and T1-TrpRS have aminoacylation activity while T2-TrpRS lacks it. Isoform 2, T1-TrpRS and T2-TrpRS possess angiostatic activity whereas isoform 1 lacks it. T2-TrpRS inhibits fluid shear stress-activated responses of endothelial cells. Regulates ERK, Akt, and eNOS activation pathways that are associated with angiogenesis, cytoskeletal reorganization and shear stress- responsive gene expression.

Mitochondrial aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase that activate and transfer the amino acids to their corresponding tRNAs during the translation of mitochondrial genes and protein synthesis.

Tyrosine--tRNA ligase that catalyzes the attachment of tyrosine to tRNA(Tyr) in a two-step reaction: tyrosine is first activated by ATP to form Tyr-AMP and then transferred to the acceptor end of tRNA(Tyr) (Probable). Also acts as a positive regulator of poly-ADP-ribosylation in the nucleus, independently of its tyrosine--tRNA ligase activity. Activity is switched upon resveratrol-binding: resveratrol strongly inhibits the tyrosine-- tRNA ligase activity and promotes relocalization to the nucleus, where YARS1 specifically stimulates the poly-ADP-ribosyltransferase activity of PARP1.

Catalyzes the attachment of tyrosine to tRNA(Tyr) in a two- step reaction: tyrosine is first activated by ATP to form Tyr-AMP and then transferred to the acceptor end of tRNA(Tyr).

As part of the KICSTOR complex functions in the amino acid- sensing branch of the TORC1 signaling pathway. Recruits, in an amino acid-independent manner, the GATOR1 complex to the lysosomal membranes and allows its interaction with GATOR2 and the RAG GTPases. Functions upstream of the RAG GTPases and is required to negatively regulate mTORC1 signaling in absence of amino acids. In absence of the KICSTOR complex mTORC1 is constitutively localized to the lysosome and activated. The KICSTOR complex is also probably involved in the regulation of mTORC1 by glucose. May play a role in the cellular response to oxidative stress (By similarity).

Activates macrophages and polarizes them into M1-like macrophages through the activation of the MAPK and NF-kappaB signaling pathway. Upon activation, up-regulates the expression of CD80, CD86, CD69 and MHC II on macrophages, and induces the release of pro- inflammatory cytokines such as TNF, IL1B, IL6, CCL2 and nitric oxide (By similarity). May play a role in inhibition of proliferation and migration.

In neurons, involved in the transport of late endosomes/lysosomes. May be involved in dendrite morphogenesis and maintenance by regulating lysosomal trafficking. May act as a molecular brake for retrograde transport of late endosomes/lysosomes, possibly via its interaction with MAP6 (By similarity). In motoneurons, may mediate the axonal transport of lysosomes and axonal sorting at the initial segment (By similarity). It remains unclear whether TMEM106B affects the transport of moving lysosomes in the anterograde or retrograde direction in neurites and whether it is important in the sorting of lysosomes in axons or in dendrites (By similarity). In neurons, may also play a role in the regulation of lysosomal size and responsiveness to stress. Required for proper lysosomal acidification (By similarity).

Component of the TIM22 complex, a complex that mediates the import and insertion of multi-pass transmembrane proteins into the mitochondrial inner membrane. The TIM22 complex forms a twin-pore translocase that uses the membrane potential as the external driving force. In the TIM22 complex, it may act as a docking point for the soluble 70 kDa complex that guides the target proteins in transit through the aqueous mitochondrial intermembrane space.

Necessary for efficient adipogenesis. Does not show ion channel activity.

As part of the MCIA complex, involved in the assembly of the mitochondrial complex I. Participates in constructing the membrane arm of complex I.

[Isoform 1]: Membrane-associated form that antagonizes canonical Wnt signaling by triggering lysosome-dependent degradation of Wnt-activated LRP6. Regulates thymocyte proliferation.

May play a role in embryonic and postnatal development of the brain. Increased resistance to cell death induced by serum starvation in cultured cells. Regulates cAMP-induced GFAP gene expression via STAT3 phosphorylation (By similarity).

May serve as a cell-surface marker for oligodendrocyte differentiation.

Regulates localization of phosphatidylinositol 4-kinase (PI4K) to the plasma membrane, possibly by reducing the association of TTC7 (TTC7A or TTC7B) with the PI4K complex. Acts as a regulator of phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns(4)P) synthesis. May also play a role in fasting-induced catabolism (By similarity).

Modulator of macroautophagy that causes accumulation of autophagosomes under basal conditions and enhances autophagic flux. Represses cell death and promotes long-term clonogenic survival of cells grown in the absence of glucose in a macroautophagy-independent manner. May have some role in extracellular matrix engulfment or growth factor receptor recycling, both of which can modulate cell survival.

Component of a mechanosensitive cation channel. Confers mechanically activated (MA) currents with slow inactivation kinetics. May contribute to proprioception.

May play a role in protection against oxidative stress. Overexpression leads to reduced levels of oxidant-induced DNA damage and apoptosis.

Essential for maintaining normal cardiac rhythm in the developing heart and for neonatal survival (By similarity). Inhibits potassium and calcium currents in the cardiomyocytes, this assists in timely action potential repolarization and thereby maintains normal cardiac rhythm (By similarity).

Acts as a regulator of endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and nuclear envelope (NE) morphogenesis. Affects the ratio between tubular ER and ER sheets by promoting sheet formation at the expense of tubules. Influences NE expansion, nuclear pore complex formation and proper localization of inner nuclear membrane proteins.

Negatively regulates the canonical Wnt signaling in breast cancer cells. Exerts an inhibitory effect on breast cancer growth by inhibiting CTNNB1 stabilization and nucleus translocation, which reduces the activity of Wnt targets.

May play a role in the process of maturation of dendritic cells. Required for the development of cerebellar granule cells (By similarity).

Acts as a negative regulator of osteoclast differentiation in basal and inflammatory conditions by regulating TNFSF11-induced Ca (2+) fluxes, thereby controlling the induction of NFATC1.

Acts as a heparin receptor in vascular cells (By similarity). May be involved in vesicle transport in exocrine cells and Sertoli cells (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor. Acts on the C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP) promoter

Protects T-cells from IL2 deprivation-induced apoptosis through the inhibition of FOXO3A transcriptional activity that leads to the down-regulation of the pro-apoptotic factor BCL2L11. In macrophages, plays a role in the anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects of glucocorticoids and IL10. In T-cells, inhibits anti-CD3-induced NFKB1 nuclear translocation. In vitro, suppresses AP1 and NFKB1 DNA-binding activities (By similarity). Isoform 1 inhibits myogenic differentiation and mediates anti-myogenic effects of glucocorticoids by binding and regulating MYOD1 and HDAC1 transcriptional activity resulting in reduced expression of MYOG (By similarity).

Heme-dependent dioxygenase that catalyzes the oxidative cleavage of the L-tryptophan (L-Trp) pyrrole ring and converts L- tryptophan to N-formyl-L-kynurenine. Catalyzes the oxidative cleavage of the indole moiety.

TFIIA is a component of the transcription machinery of RNA polymerase II and plays an important role in transcriptional activation. TFIIA in a complex with TBP mediates transcriptional activity.

Recruits TFIIH to the initiation complex and stimulates the RNA polymerase II C-terminal domain kinase and DNA-dependent ATPase activities of TFIIH. Both TFIIH and TFIIE are required for promoter clearance by RNA polymerase

Recruits TFIIH to the initiation complex and stimulates the RNA polymerase II C-terminal domain kinase and DNA-dependent ATPase activities of TFIIH. Both TFIIH and TFIIE are required for promoter clearance by RNA polymerase.

TFIIF is a general transcription initiation factor that binds to RNA polymerase II and helps to recruit it to the initiation complex in collaboration with TFIIB. It promotes transcription elongation.

TFIIF is a general transcription initiation factor that binds to RNA polymerase II and helps to recruit it to the initiation complex in collaboration with TFIIB.

Component of the core-TFIIH basal transcription factor involved in nucleotide excision repair (NER) of DNA and, when complexed to CAK, in RNA transcription by RNA polymerase II.

Gustducin-coupled strychnine receptor implicated in the perception of bitter compounds in the oral cavity and the gastrointestinal tract. Signals through PLCB2 and the calcium-regulated cation channel TRPM5.

Receptor that may play a role in the perception of bitterness and is gustducin-linked. May play a role in sensing the chemical composition of the gastrointestinal content. The activity of this receptor may stimulate alpha gustducin, mediate PLC-beta-2 activation and lead to the gating of TRPM5

Receptor that may play a role in the perception of bitterness and is gustducin-linked. May play a role in sensing the chemical composition of the gastrointestinal content. The activity of this receptor may stimulate alpha gustducin, mediate PLC-beta-2 activation and lead to the gating of TRPM5 (By similarity).

Gustducin-coupled receptor implicated in the perception of bitter compounds in the oral cavity and the gastrointestinal tract. Signals through PLCB2 and the calcium-regulated cation channel TRPM5.

Receptor that may play a role in the perception of bitterness and is gustducin-linked. May play a role in sensing the chemical composition of the gastrointestinal content. The activity of this receptor may stimulate alpha gustducin, mediate PLC-beta-2 activation and lead to the gating of TRPM5 (By similarity). Activated by the sulfonyl amide sweeteners saccharin and acesulfame K.

Gustducin-coupled receptor implicated in the perception of bitter compounds in the oral cavity and the gastrointestinal tract. Signals through PLCB2 and the calcium-regulated cation channel TRPM5

Gustducin-coupled receptor immplicated in the perception of bitter compounds in the oral cavity and the gastrointestinal tract. Signals through PLCB2 and the calcium-regulated cation channel TRPM5. Activated by the sulfonyl amide sweeteners saccharin and acesulfame K. In airway epithelial cells, binding of bitter compounds increases the intracellular calcium ion concentration and stimulates ciliary beat frequency. May act as chemosensory receptors in airway epithelial cells to detect and eliminate potential noxious agents from the airways (By similarity).

Receptor that may play a role in the perception of bitterness and is gustducin-linked. May play a role in sensing the chemical composition of the gastrointestinal content. The activity of this receptor may stimulate alpha gustducin, mediate PLC-beta-2 activation and lead to the gating of TRPM5 (By similarity). In airway epithelial cells, binding of bitter compounds increases the intracellular calcium ion concentration and stimulates ciliary beat frequency (By similarity).

Catalyzes the dehydration of trans-3-hydroxy-L-proline to Delta(1)-pyrroline-2-carboxylate (Pyr2C). May be required to degrade trans-3-hydroxy-L-proline from the diet and originating from the degradation of proteins such as collagen-IV that contain it.

Adapter protein that plays essential roles in both innate and adaptive immunity. Plays a crucial role in the regulation of thymocyte development. Mechanistically, mediates TCR-stimulated activation through recruiting MAP2K1/MEK1 to the Golgi and, thereby, facilitating the interaction of MAP2K1/MEK1 with its activator BRAF. Also plays an essential role in regulatory T-cell stability and function by recruiting the serine-threonine phosphatase catalytic subunit (PPP2CA) to the lysosome, thereby facilitating the interaction of PP2Ac with the mTORC1 component RPTOR and restricting glycolytic metabolism. Positively regulates TLR4 signaling activity in macrophage-mediated inflammation by acting as a molecular clamp to facilitate LPS-induced translocation of TLR4 to lipid rafts. In response to viral infection, facilitates the recruitment of TRAF3 to MAVS within mitochondria leading to IRF3 activation and interferon production. However, participates in the maintenance of immune homeostasis and the prevention of overzealous innate immunity by promoting 'Lys-48'- dependent ubiquitination of TBK1.

Polytopic transmembrane protein that inhibits regulated intramembrane proteolysis (RIP) of CREB3L1, inhibiting its activation and the induction of collagen synthesis. In response to ceramide, which alters TM4SF20 membrane topology, stimulates RIP activation of CREB3L1. Ceramide reverses the direction through which transmembrane helices are translocated into the endoplasmic reticulum membrane during translation of TM4SF20, this mechanism is called 'regulated alternative translocation' (RAT) and regulates the function of the transmembrane protein.

Regulates the adhesive and proliferative status of intestinal epithelial cells. Can mediate density-dependent cell proliferation

Acts as a lysosomal membrane arginine sensor. Forms a complex with MTOR and SLC38A9 on lysosomal membranes in an arginine-regulated manner, leading to arginine efflux which enables the activation of mTORC1 which subsequently leads to RPS6KB1 and EIF4EBP1 phosphorylations. Facilitates cell cycle G1/S phase progression and the translocation of the CDK4- CCND1 complex into the nucleus. CDKN1B and RHOA/ROCK signaling activity are involved in TM4SF5-mediated acceleration of G1/S phase progression.

May play a significant role in p53/TP53-mediating signaling pathway.

Antiproliferative and proapoptotic protein involved in cell stress response which acts as a dual regulator of transcription and autophagy. Acts as a positive regulator of autophagy. In response to cellular stress or activation of autophagy, relocates to autophagosomes where it interacts with autophagosome-associated proteins GABARAP, GABARAPL1/L2, MAP1LC3A/B/C and regulates autophagy. Acts as an antioxidant and plays a major role in p53/TP53-driven oxidative stress response. Possesses both a p53/TP53-independent intracellular reactive oxygen species (ROS) regulatory function and a p53/TP53-dependent transcription regulatory function. Positively regulates p53/TP53 and p73/TP73 and stimulates their capacity to induce apoptosis and regulate cell cycle. In response to double-strand DNA breaks, promotes p53/TP53 phosphorylation on 'Ser-46' and subsequent apoptosis. Acts as a tumor suppressor by inducing cell death by an autophagy and caspase-dependent mechanism. Can reduce cell migration by regulating the expression of SPARC.

Dual regulator of transcription and autophagy. Positively regulates autophagy and is required for autophagosome formation and processing. May act as a scaffold protein that recruits MAP1LC3A, GABARAP and GABARAPL2 and brings them to the autophagosome membrane by interacting with VMP1 where, in cooperation with the BECN1-PI3-kinase class III complex, they trigger autophagosome development. Acts as a transcriptional activator of THRA.

Gustducin-coupled receptor for denatonium and N(6)-propyl-2- thiouracil implicated in the perception of bitter compounds in the oral cavity and the gastrointestinal tract. Signals through PLCB2 and the calcium-regulated cation channel TRPM5. In airway epithelial cells, binding of denatonium increases the intracellular calcium ion concentration and stimulates ciliary beat frequency.

Gustducin-coupled receptor implicated in the perception of bitter compounds in the oral cavity and the gastrointestinal tract. Signals through PLCB2 and the calcium-regulated cation channel TRPM5 (By similarity).

Receptor for thromboxane A2 (TXA2), a potent stimulator of platelet aggregation. The activity of this receptor is mediated by a G- protein that activates a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system. In the kidney, the binding of TXA2 to glomerular TP receptors causes intense vasoconstriction. Activates phospholipase C.

Receptor for trace amines, including beta-phenylethylamine (b-PEA), p-tyramine (p-TYR), octopamine and tryptamine, with highest affinity for b-PEA and p-TYR. Unresponsive to classical biogenic amines, such as epinephrine and histamine and only partially activated by dopamine and serotonin. Trace amines are biogenic amines present in very low levels in mammalian tissues. Although some trace amines have clearly defined roles as neurotransmitters in invertebrates, the extent to which they function as true neurotransmitters in vertebrates has remained speculative. Trace amines are likely to be involved in a variety of physiological functions that have yet to be fully understood. The signal transduced by this receptor is mediated by the G(s)-class of G-proteins which activate adenylate cyclase.

Olfactory receptor specific for trimethylamine, a trace amine. Also activated at lower level by dimethylethylamine. Trimethylamine is a bacterial metabolite found in some animal odors, and to humans it is a repulsive odor associated with bad breath and spoiled food. This receptor is probably mediated by the G(s)-class of G-proteins which activate adenylate cyclase.

Orphan receptor. Could be a receptor for trace amines. Trace amines are biogenic amines present in very low levels in mammalian tissues. Although some trace amines have clearly defined roles as neurotransmitters in invertebrates, the extent to which they function as true neurotransmitters in vertebrates has remained speculative. Trace amines are likely to be involved in a variety of physiological functions that have yet to be fully understood

May be an important signaling intermediate between TGFB receptors and MAP3K7/TAK1. May play an important role in mammalian embryogenesis

Adapter required to activate the JNK and NF-kappa-B signaling pathways through the specific recognition of 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains by its RanBP2-type zinc finger (NZF). Acts as an adapter linking MAP3K7/TAK1 and TRAF6 to 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. The RanBP2-type zinc finger (NZF) specifically recognizes Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains unanchored or anchored to the substrate proteins such as RIPK1/RIP1: this acts as a scaffold to organize a large signaling complex to promote autophosphorylation of MAP3K7/TAK1, and subsequent activation of I- kappa-B-kinase (IKK) core complex by MAP3K7/TAK1. Regulates the IL1-mediated translocation of NCOR1 out of the nucleus (By similarity). Involved in heart development.

Adapter required to activate the JNK and NF-kappa-B signaling pathways through the specific recognition of 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains by its RanBP2-type zinc finger (NZF). Acts as an adapter linking MAP3K7/TAK1 and TRAF6 to 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. The RanBP2-type zinc finger (NZF) specifically recognizes Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains unanchored or anchored to the substrate proteins such as RIPK1/RIP1: this acts as a scaffold to organize a large signaling complex to promote autophosphorylation of MAP3K7/TAK1, and subsequent activation of I- kappa-B-kinase (IKK) core complex by MAP3K7/TAK1.

Ion channel involved in sensing mechanical pain. Contributes to mechanosensitive currents in nocireceptors and detecting mechanical pain stimuli (By similarity). May also be required for efficient adipogenesis.

Involved in transcription regulation induced by nuclear receptors, including in T3 thyroid hormone and all-trans retinoic acid pathways. Might promote the nuclear localization of the receptors. Likely involved in the processes that promote cell division prior to the formation of differentiated tissues.

Plays a role in the microtubule-dependent coupling of the nucleus and the centrosome. Involved in the processes that regulate centrosome-mediated interkinetic nuclear migration (INM) of neural progenitors (By similarity). May play a role in organizing centrosomal microtubules. May act as a tumor suppressor protein. May represent a tumor progression marker.

Plays a role in the microtubule-dependent coupling of the nucleus and the centrosome. Involved in the processes that regulate centrosome-mediated interkinetic nuclear migration (INM) of neural progenitors (By similarity). Acts as component of the TACC3/ch- TOG/clathrin complex proposed to contribute to stabilization of kinetochore fibers of the mitotic spindle by acting as inter- microtubule bridge. The TACC3/ch-TOG/clathrin complex is required for the maintenance of kinetochore fiber tension. May be involved in the control of cell growth and differentiation. May contribute to cancer.

Acts as a translational activator of mitochondrially-encoded cytochrome c oxidase 1.

May be involved in adhesive interactions of activated T and NK cells during the late phase of the immune response. Promotes NK cell-target adhesion by interacting with PVR present on target cells. May function at a time after T and NK cells have penetrated the endothelium using integrins and selectins, when they are actively engaging diseased cells and moving within areas of inflammation

Coactivates PAX5-dependent transcription together with either SMARCA4 or GCN5L2.

Functions as a component of the PCAF complex. The PCAF complex is capable of efficiently acetylating histones in a nucleosomal context. The PCAF complex could be considered as the human version of the yeast SAGA complex. Also known as a coactivator for p53/TP53- dependent transcriptional activation. Component of the ATAC complex, a complex with histone acetyltransferase activity on histones H3 and H4.

RNA-binding protein that is involved in various steps of RNA biogenesis and processing. Preferentially binds, via its two RNA recognition motifs RRM1 and RRM2, to GU-repeats on RNA molecules predominantly localized within long introns and in the 3'UTR of mRNAs. In turn, regulates the splicing of many non-coding and protein-coding RNAs including proteins involved in neuronal survival, as well as mRNAs that encode proteins relevant for neurodegenerative diseases. Plays a role in maintaining mitochondrial homeostasis by regulating the processing of mitochondrial transcripts. Regulates also mRNA stability by recruiting CNOT7/CAF1 deadenylase on mRNA 3'UTR leading to poly(A) tail deadenylation and thus shortening. In response to oxidative insult, associates with stalled ribosomes localized to stress granules (SGs) and contributes to cell survival. Participates also in the normal skeletal muscle formation and regeneration, forming cytoplasmic myo-granules and binding mRNAs that encode sarcomeric proteins. Plays a role in the maintenance of the circadian clock periodicity via stabilization of the CRY1 and CRY2 proteins in a FBXL3-dependent manner. Negatively regulates the expression of CDK6. Regulates the expression of HDAC6, ATG7 and VCP in a PPIA/CYPA-dependent manner.

The TFIID basal transcription factor complex plays a major role in the initiation of RNA polymerase II (Pol II)-dependent transcription. TFIID recognizes and binds promoters with or without a TATA box via its subunit TBP, a TATA-box-binding protein, and promotes assembly of the pre-initiation complex (PIC). The TFIID complex consists of TBP and TBP-associated factors (TAFs), including TAF1, TAF2, TAF3, TAF4, TAF5, TAF6, TAF7, TAF8, TAF9, TAF10, TAF11, TAF12 and TAF13. TAF10 is also component of the PCAF histone acetylase complex, the TATA-binding protein-free TAF complex (TFTC) and the STAGA transcription coactivator-HAT complex. May regulate cyclin E expression (By similarity).

The TFIID basal transcription factor complex plays a major role in the initiation of RNA polymerase II (Pol II)-dependent transcription. TFIID recognizes and binds promoters with or without a TATA box via its subunit TBP, a TATA-box-binding protein, and promotes assembly of the pre-initiation complex (PIC). The TFIID complex consists of TBP and TBP-associated factors (TAFs), including TAF1, TAF2, TAF3, TAF4, TAF5, TAF6, TAF7, TAF8, TAF9, TAF10, TAF11, TAF12 and TAF13. TAF11, together with TAF13 and TBP, play key roles during promoter binding by the TFIID and TFIIA transcription factor complexes.

The TFIID basal transcription factor complex plays a major role in the initiation of RNA polymerase II (Pol II)-dependent transcription. TFIID recognizes and binds promoters with or without a TATA box via its subunit TBP, a TATA-box-binding protein, and promotes assembly of the pre-initiation complex (PIC). The TFIID complex consists of TBP and TBP-associated factors (TAFs), including TAF1, TAF2, TAF3, TAF4, TAF5, TAF6, TAF7, TAF8, TAF9, TAF10, TAF11, TAF12 and TAF13. Component of the TATA-binding protein-free TAF complex (TFTC), the PCAF histone acetylase complex and the STAGA transcription coactivator-HAT complex.

The TFIID basal transcription factor complex plays a major role in the initiation of RNA polymerase II (Pol II)-dependent transcription. TFIID recognizes and binds promoters via its subunit TBP, a TATA-box-binding protein, and promotes assembly of the pre-initiation complex (PIC). The TFIID complex consists of TBP and TBP-associated factors (TAFs), including TAF1, TAF2, TAF3, TAF4, TAF5, TAF6, TAF7, TAF8, TAF9, TAF10, TAF11, TAF12 and TAF13. TAF13, together with TAF11 and TBP, play key roles during promoter binding by the TFIID and TFIIA transcription factor complexes.

Component of the transcription factor SL1/TIF-IB complex, which is involved in the assembly of the PIC (pre-initiation complex) during RNA polymerase I-dependent transcription. The rate of PIC formation probably is primarily dependent on the rate of association of SL1/TIF-IB with the rDNA promoter. SL1/TIF-IB is involved in stabilization of nucleolar transcription factor 1/UBTF on rDNA. Formation of SL1/TIF-IB excludes the association of TBP with TFIID subunits.

Component of RNA polymerase I core factor complex that acts as a GTF2B/TFIIB-like factor and plays a key role in multiple steps during transcription initiation such as pre-initiation complex (PIC) assembly and postpolymerase recruitment events in polymerase I (Pol I) transcription. Binds rDNA promoters and plays a role in Pol I recruitment as a component of the SL1/TIF-IB complex and, possibly, directly through its interaction with RRN3.

Component of the transcription factor SL1/TIF-IB complex, which is involved in the assembly of the PIC (preinitiation complex) during RNA polymerase I-dependent transcription. The rate of PIC formation probably is primarily dependent on the rate of association of SL1/TIF-IB with the rDNA promoter. SL1/TIF-IB is involved in stabilization of nucleolar transcription factor 1/UBTF on rDNA. Formation of SL1/TIF-IB excludes the association of TBP with TFIID subunits. Recruits RNA polymerase I to the rRNA gene promoter via interaction with RRN3.

Component of the transcription factor SL1/TIF-IB complex, which is involved in the assembly of the PIC (preinitiation complex) during RNA polymerase I-dependent transcription. The rate of PIC formation probably is primarily dependent on the rate of association of SL1/TIF-IB with the rDNA promoter. SL1/TIF-IB is involved in stabilization of nucleolar transcription factor 1/UBTF on rDNA. Formation of SL1/TIF-IB excludes the association of TBP with TFIID subunits.

May act as a functional substitute for TAF1/TAFII250 during male meiosis, when sex chromosomes are transcriptionally silenced.

The TFIID basal transcription factor complex plays a major role in the initiation of RNA polymerase II (Pol II)-dependent transcription. TFIID recognizes and binds promoters with or without a TATA box via its subunit TBP, a TATA-box-binding protein, and promotes assembly of the pre-initiation complex (PIC). The TFIID complex consists of TBP and TBP-associated factors (TAFs), including TAF1, TAF2, TAF3, TAF4, TAF5, TAF6, TAF7, TAF8, TAF9, TAF10, TAF11, TAF12 and TAF13. TAF1 is the largest component and core scaffold of the TFIID complex, involved in nucleating complex assembly. TAF1 forms a promoter DNA binding subcomplex of TFIID, together with TAF7 and TAF2. Contains novel N- and C-terminal Ser/Thr kinase domains which can autophosphorylate or transphosphorylate other transcription factors. Phosphorylates TP53 on 'Thr-55' which leads to MDM2- mediated degradation of TP53. Phosphorylates GTF2A1 and GTF2F1 on Ser residues. Possesses DNA-binding activity. Essential for progression of the G1 phase of the cell cycle. Exhibits histone acetyltransferase activity towards histones H3 and H4.

The TFIID basal transcription factor complex plays a major role in the initiation of RNA polymerase II (Pol II)-dependent transcription. TFIID recognizes and binds promoters with or without a TATA box via its subunit TBP, a TATA-box-binding protein, and promotes assembly of the pre-initiation complex (PIC). The TFIID complex consists of TBP and TBP-associated factors (TAFs), including TAF1, TAF2, TAF3, TAF4, TAF5, TAF6, TAF7, TAF8, TAF9, TAF10, TAF11, TAF12 and TAF13. TAF2 forms a promoter DNA binding subcomplex of TFIID, together with TAF7 and TAF1.

The TFIID basal transcription factor complex plays a major role in the initiation of RNA polymerase II (Pol II)-dependent transcription. TFIID recognizes and binds promoters with or without a TATA box via its subunit TBP, a TATA-box-binding protein, and promotes assembly of the pre-initiation complex (PIC). The TFIID complex consists of TBP and TBP-associated factors (TAFs), including TAF1, TAF2, TAF3, TAF4, TAF5, TAF6, TAF7, TAF8, TAF9, TAF10, TAF11, TAF12 and TAF13. The TFIID complex structure can be divided into 3 modules TFIID-A, TFIID-B, and TFIID-C. TAF3 forms the TFIID-A module together with TAF5 and TBP. Required in complex with TBPL2 for the differentiation of myoblasts into myocytes. The TAF3- TBPL2 complex replaces TFIID at specific promoters at an early stage in the differentiation process.

Cell type-specific subunit of the general transcription factor TFIID that may function as a gene-selective coactivator in certain cells. TFIID is a multimeric protein complex that plays a central role in mediating promoter responses to various activators and repressors. TAF4B is a transcriptional coactivator of the p65/RELA NF- kappa-B subunit. Involved in the activation of a subset of antiapoptotic genes including TNFAIP3. May be involved in regulating folliculogenesis. Through interaction with OCBA/POU2AF1, acts as a coactivator of B-cell-specific transcription. Plays a role in spermiogenesis and oogenesis.

The TFIID basal transcription factor complex plays a major role in the initiation of RNA polymerase II (Pol II)-dependent transcription. TFIID recognizes and binds promoters with or without a TATA box via its subunit TBP, a TATA-box-binding protein, and promotes assembly of the pre-initiation complex (PIC). The TFIID complex consists of TBP and TBP-associated factors (TAFs), including TAF1, TAF2, TAF3, TAF4, TAF5, TAF6, TAF7, TAF8, TAF9, TAF10, TAF11, TAF12 and TAF13. TAF4 may maintain an association between the TFIID and TFIIA complexes, while bound to the promoter, together with TBP, during PIC assembly. Potentiates transcriptional activation by the AF-2S of the retinoic acid, vitamin D3 and thyroid hormone.

Functions as a component of the PCAF complex. The PCAF complex is capable of efficiently acetylating histones in a nucleosomal context. The PCAF complex could be considered as the human version of the yeast SAGA complex (Probable). With TAF6L, acts as an epigenetic regulator essential for somatic reprogramming. Regulates target genes through H3K9ac deposition and MYC recruitment which trigger MYC regulatory network to orchestrate gene expression programs to control embryonic stem cell state (By similarity).

The TFIID basal transcription factor complex plays a major role in the initiation of RNA polymerase II (Pol II)-dependent transcription. TFIID recognizes and binds promoters with or without a TATA box via its subunit TBP, a TATA-box-binding protein, and promotes assembly of the pre-initiation complex (PIC). The TFIID complex consists of TBP and TBP-associated factors (TAFs), including TAF1, TAF2, TAF3, TAF4, TAF5, TAF6, TAF7, TAF8, TAF9, TAF10, TAF11, TAF12 and TAF13. The TFIID complex structure can be divided into 3 modules TFIID-A, TFIID-B, and TFIID-C. TAF5 is involved in two modules of TFIID, in TFIID-A together with TAF3 and TBP, and in TFIID-B with TAF8. Involved in contacts between TFIID and TFIIF in the PIC.

Functions as a component of the PCAF complex. The PCAF complex is capable of efficiently acetylating histones in a nucleosomal context. The PCAF complex could be considered as the human version of the yeast SAGA complex (Probable). With TAF5L, acts as an epigenetic regulator essential for somatic reprogramming. Regulates target genes through H3K9ac deposition and MYC recruitment which trigger MYC regulatory network to orchestrate gene expression programs to control embryonic stem cell state. Functions with MYC to activate target gene expression through RNA polymerase II pause release (By similarity).

The TFIID basal transcription factor complex plays a major role in the initiation of RNA polymerase II (Pol II)-dependent transcription. TFIID recognizes and binds promoters with or without a TATA box via its subunit TBP, a TATA-box-binding protein, and promotes assembly of the pre-initiation complex (PIC). The TFIID complex consists of TBP and TBP-associated factors (TAFs), including TAF1, TAF2, TAF3, TAF4, TAF5, TAF6, TAF7, TAF8, TAF9, TAF10, TAF11, TAF12 and TAF13. The TFIID complex structure can be divided into 3 modules TFIID-A, TFIID-B, and TFIID-C. TAF6 homodimer connects TFIID modules, forming a rigid core.

Probably functions as a spermatogenesis-specific component of the DNA-binding general transcription factor complex TFIID, a multimeric protein complex that plays a central role in mediating promoter responses to various activators and repressors. May play a role in spermatogenesis (By similarity).

The TFIID basal transcription factor complex plays a major role in the initiation of RNA polymerase II (Pol II)-dependent transcription. TFIID recognizes and binds promoters with or without a TATA box via its subunit TBP, a TATA-box-binding protein, and promotes assembly of the pre-initiation complex (PIC). The TFIID complex consists of TBP and TBP-associated factors (TAFs), including TAF1, TAF2, TAF3, TAF4, TAF5, TAF6, TAF7, TAF8, TAF9, TAF10, TAF11, TAF12 and TAF13. TAF7 forms a promoter DNA binding subcomplex of TFIID, together with TAF1 and TAF2. Part of a TFIID complex containing TAF10 (TFIID alpha) and a TFIID complex lacking TAF10 (TFIID beta).

The TFIID basal transcription factor complex plays a major role in the initiation of RNA polymerase II (Pol II)-dependent transcription. TFIID recognizes and binds promoters with or without a TATA box via its subunit TBP, a TATA-box-binding protein, and promotes assembly of the pre-initiation complex (PIC). The TFIID complex consists of TBP and TBP-associated factors (TAFs), including TAF1, TAF2, TAF3, TAF4, TAF5, TAF6, TAF7, TAF8, TAF9, TAF10, TAF11, TAF12 and TAF13. The TFIID complex structure can be divided into 3 modules TFIID-A, TFIID-B, and TFIID-C. TAF8 is involved in forming the TFIID-B module, together with TAF5. Mediates both basal and activator-dependent transcription. Plays a role in the differentiation of preadipocyte fibroblasts to adipocytes, however, does not seem to play a role in differentiation of myoblasts. Required for the integration of TAF10 in the TAF complex. May be important for survival of cells of the inner cell mass which constitute the pluripotent cell population of the early embryo (By similarity).

Essential for cell viability. TAF9 and TAF9B are involved in transcriptional activation as well as repression of distinct but overlapping sets of genes. May have a role in gene regulation associated with apoptosis. TAFs are components of the transcription factor IID (TFIID) complex, the TBP-free TAFII complex (TFTC), the PCAF histone acetylase complex and the STAGA transcription coactivator-HAT complex. TFIID or TFTC are essential for the regulation of RNA polymerase II-mediated transcription.

The TFIID basal transcription factor complex plays a major role in the initiation of RNA polymerase II (Pol II)-dependent transcription. TFIID recognizes and binds promoters with or without a TATA box via its subunit TBP, a TATA-box-binding protein, and promotes assembly of the pre-initiation complex (PIC). The TFIID complex consists of TBP and TBP-associated factors (TAFs), including TAF1, TAF2, TAF3, TAF4, TAF5, TAF6, TAF7, TAF8, TAF9, TAF10, TAF11, TAF12 and TAF13. TAF9 is also a component of the TBP-free TAFII complex (TFTC), the PCAF histone acetylase complex and the STAGA transcription coactivator-HAT complex. TAF9 and its paralog TAF9B are involved in transcriptional activation as well as repression of distinct but overlapping sets of genes. Essential for cell viability. May have a role in gene regulation associated with apoptosis.

Regulatory factor which is ligand for CMKLR2 and is involved in the modulation of neural stem-cell proliferation and differentiation.

Has a role as neurotrophic factor involved in neuronal survival and neurobiological functions.

Modulates injury-induced and chemical pain hypersensitivity (By similarity). Ligand of FPR1, can chemoattract macrophages, promote phagocytosis and increase ROS release.

Acts as a chemokine-like protein by regulating cell proliferation and migration through activation of G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs), such as S1PR2 and FPR2 (By similarity). Stimulates chemotactic migration of macrophages mediated by the MAPK3/ERK1 and AKT1 pathway (By similarity). Blocks TNFSF11/RANKL-induced osteoclast formation from macrophages by inhibiting up-regulation of osteoclast fusogenic and differentiation genes (By similarity). Stimulation of macrophage migration and inhibition of osteoclast formation is mediated via GPCR FPR2 (By similarity). Acts as an adipokine by negatively regulating vascular smooth muscle cell (VSMC) proliferation and migration in response to platelet-derived growth factor stimulation via GPCR S1PR2 and G protein GNA12/GNA13-transmitted RHOA signaling (By similarity). Inhibits injury-induced cell proliferation and neointima formation in the femoral arteries (By similarity).

May function as a GTPase-activating protein and may play important roles during T-cell activation.

Actin cross-linking/gelling protein (By similarity). Involved in calcium interactions and contractile properties of the cell that may contribute to replicative senescence.

Implicated in the genesis of hemopoietic malignancies. It may play an important role in hemopoietic differentiation. Serves as a positive regulator of erythroid differentiation (By similarity).

Catalyzes the rate-limiting step of the non-oxidative phase in the pentose phosphate pathway. Catalyzes the reversible conversion of sedheptulose-7-phosphate and D-glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate into erythrose-4-phosphate and beta-D-fructose 6-phosphate. Not only acts as a pentose phosphate pathway enzyme, but also affects other metabolite pathways by altering its subcellular localization between the nucleus and the cytoplasm (By similarity).

Catalyzes the conversion of phosphatidic acid (PA) to CDP- diacylglycerol (CDP-DAG), an essential intermediate in the synthesis of phosphatidylglycerol, cardiolipin and phosphatidylinositol.

Adapter protein involved in I-kappa-B-kinase (IKK) regulation which constitutively binds TBK1 and IKBKE playing a role in antiviral innate immunity. Acts as a regulator of TRAF function by maintaining them in a latent state. Blocks TRAF2 binding to LMP1 and inhibits LMP1- mediated NF-kappa-B activation. Negatively regulates NF-kappaB signaling and cell survival upon DNA damage. Plays a role as an adapter to assemble ZC3H12A, USP10 in a deubiquitination complex which plays a negative feedback response to attenuate NF-kappaB activation through the deubiquitination of IKBKG or TRAF6 in response to interleukin-1-beta (IL1B) stimulation or upon DNA damage. Promotes UBP10-induced deubiquitination of TRAF6 in response to DNA damage. May control negatively TRAF2- mediated NF-kappa-B activation signaled by CD40, TNFR1 and TNFR2.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in various processes such as p38/MAPK14 stress-activated MAPK cascade, DNA damage response and regulation of cytoskeleton stability. Phosphorylates MAP2K3, MAP2K6 and MARK2. Acts as an activator of the p38/MAPK14 stress-activated MAPK cascade by mediating phosphorylation and subsequent activation of the upstream MAP2K3 and MAP2K6 kinases. Involved in G-protein coupled receptor signaling to p38/MAPK14. In response to DNA damage, involved in the G2/M transition DNA damage checkpoint by activating the p38/MAPK14 stress-activated MAPK cascade, probably by mediating phosphorylation of MAP2K3 and MAP2K6. Acts as a regulator of cytoskeleton stability by phosphorylating 'Thr-208' of MARK2, leading to activate MARK2 kinase activity and subsequent phosphorylation and detachment of MAPT/TAU from microtubules. Also acts as a regulator of apoptosis: regulates apoptotic morphological changes, including cell contraction, membrane blebbing and apoptotic bodies formation via activation of the MAPK8/JNK cascade. Plays an essential role in the regulation of neuronal development in the central nervous system. Also plays a role in the regulation of neuronal migration to the cortical plate (By similarity).

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in different processes such as membrane blebbing and apoptotic bodies formation DNA damage response and MAPK14/p38 MAPK stress-activated MAPK cascade. Phosphorylates itself, MBP, activated MAPK8, MAP2K3, MAP2K6 and tubulins. Activates the MAPK14/p38 MAPK signaling pathway through the specific activation and phosphorylation of the upstream MAP2K3 and MAP2K6 kinases. In response to DNA damage, involved in the G2/M transition DNA damage checkpoint by activating the p38/MAPK14 stress- activated MAPK cascade, probably by mediating phosphorylation of upstream MAP2K3 and MAP2K6 kinases. Isoform 1, but not isoform 2, plays a role in apoptotic morphological changes, including cell contraction, membrane blebbing and apoptotic bodies formation. This function, which requires the activation of MAPK8/JNK and nuclear localization of C- terminally truncated isoform 1, may be linked to the mitochondrial CASP9-associated death pathway. Isoform 1 binds to microtubules and affects their organization and stability independently of its kinase activity. Prevents MAP3K7-mediated activation of CHUK, and thus NF- kappa-B activation, but not that of MAPK8/JNK. May play a role in the osmotic stress-MAPK8 pathway. Isoform 2, but not isoform 1, is required for PCDH8 endocytosis. Following homophilic interactions between PCDH8 extracellular domains, isoform 2 phosphorylates and activates MAPK14/p38 MAPK which in turn phosphorylates isoform 2. This process leads to PCDH8 endocytosis and CDH2 cointernalization. Both isoforms are involved in MAPK14 phosphorylation.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts as a regulator of the p38/MAPK14 stress-activated MAPK cascade and of the MAPK8/JNK cascade. Acts as an activator of the p38/MAPK14 stress-activated MAPK cascade. In response to DNA damage, involved in the G2/M transition DNA damage checkpoint by activating the p38/MAPK14 stress-activated MAPK cascade, probably by mediating phosphorylation of upstream MAP2K3 and MAP2K6 kinases. Inhibits basal activity of MAPK8/JNK cascade and diminishes its activation in response epidermal growth factor (EGF).

ABC transporter associated with antigen processing. In complex with TAP2 mediates unidirectional translocation of peptide antigens from cytosol to endoplasmic reticulum (ER) for loading onto MHC class I (MHCI) molecules. Uses the chemical energy of ATP to export peptides against the concentration gradient. During the transport cycle alternates between 'inward-facing' state with peptide binding site facing the cytosol to 'outward-facing' state with peptide binding site facing the ER lumen. Peptide antigen binding to ATP-loaded TAP1-TAP2 induces a switch to hydrolysis-competent 'outward-facing' conformation ready for peptide loading onto nascent MHCI molecules. Subsequently ATP hydrolysis resets the transporter to the 'inward facing' state for a new cycle. Typically transports intracellular peptide antigens of 8 to 13 amino acids that arise from cytosolic proteolysis via IFNG-induced immunoproteasome. Binds peptides with free N- and C-termini, the first three and the C-terminal residues being critical. Preferentially selects peptides having a highly hydrophobic residue at position 3 and hydrophobic or charged residues at the C-terminal anchor. Proline at position 2 has the most destabilizing effect. As a component of the peptide loading complex (PLC), acts as a molecular scaffold essential for peptide-MHCI assembly and antigen presentation.

Component of the transcription complexes of the pulmonary surfactant-associated protein-B (SFTPB) and -C (SFTPC). Enhances homeobox protein Nkx-2.1-activated SFTPB and SFTPC promoter activities.

ABC transporter associated with antigen processing. In complex with TAP1 mediates unidirectional translocation of peptide antigens from cytosol to endoplasmic reticulum (ER) for loading onto MHC class I (MHCI) molecules. Uses the chemical energy of ATP to export peptides against the concentration gradient. During the transport cycle alternates between 'inward-facing' state with peptide binding site facing the cytosol to 'outward-facing' state with peptide binding site facing the ER lumen. Peptide antigen binding to ATP-loaded TAP1-TAP2 induces a switch to hydrolysis-competent 'outward-facing' conformation ready for peptide loading onto nascent MHCI molecules. Subsequently ATP hydrolysis resets the transporter to the 'inward facing' state for a new cycle. Typically transports intracellular peptide antigens of 8 to 13 amino acids that arise from cytosolic proteolysis via IFNG-induced immunoproteasome. Binds peptides with free N- and C-termini, the first three and the C-terminal residues being critical. Preferentially selects peptides having a highly hydrophobic residue at position 3 and hydrophobic or charged residues at the C-terminal anchor. Proline at position 2 has the most destabilizing effect. As a component of the peptide loading complex (PLC), acts as a molecular scaffold essential for peptide-MHCI assembly and antigen presentation.

Plays a role in primary cilia formation. May act as a downstream effector of HOXC8 possibly by transducing or transmitting extracellular information required for axial skeletal patterning during development (By similarity). May be involved in cartilage and bone development (By similarity). May play a role in the differentiation of cranial neural crest cells (By similarity).

May regulate actin cytoskeletal organization, cell spreading and cell contraction by directly binding and stabilizing filamentous F- actin. The localized formation of TARA and TRIO complexes coordinates the amount of F-actin present in stress fibers. May also serve as a linker protein to recruit proteins required for F-actin formation and turnover.

Probable S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase which methylates RNA molecules such as tRNAs.

Regulates insulin-mediated adipose tissue glucose uptake and transport by modulation of SLC2A4 recycling. Not required for SLC2A4 membrane fusion upon an initial stimulus, but rather is necessary for proper protein recycling during prolonged insulin stimulation.

May act as receptor (By similarity). Negatively regulates TCR-mediated CD4(+) T cell proliferation and activation, possibly by binding an unknown ligand on the T cell surface. Enhances Toll-like receptor-mediated production of pro-inflammatory cytokines by macrophages and neutrophils (By similarity).

Innate immune adapter that mediates the recruitment and activation of IRF5 downstream of endolysosomal toll-like receptors TLR7, TLR8 and TLR9. Following recruitment to endolysosome by SLC15A4 downstream of TLR7, TLR8 and TLR9, specifically recruits IRF5 transcription factor via its pLxIS motif, leading to IRF5 activation and subsequent expression of type I interferons. Plays a role in the regulation of endolysosomal pH in immune cells such as B-cells, dendritic cells and monocytes.

Component of the HUSH complex, a multiprotein complex that mediates epigenetic repression. The HUSH complex is recruited to genomic loci rich in H3K9me3 and is required to maintain transcriptional silencing by promoting recruitment of SETDB1, a histone methyltransferase that mediates further deposition of H3K9me3, as well as MORC2. Also represses L1 retrotransposons in collaboration with MORC2 and, probably, SETDB1, the silencing is dependent of repressive epigenetic modifications, such as H3K9me3 mark. Silencing events often occur within introns of transcriptionally active genes, and lead to the down- regulation of host gene expression. The HUSH complex is also involved in the silencing of unintegrated retroviral DNA by being recruited by ZNF638: some part of the retroviral DNA formed immediately after infection remains unintegrated in the host genome and is transcriptionally repressed. Plays a crucial role in early embryonic development (By similarity). Involved in the organization of spindle poles and spindle apparatus assembly during zygotic division (By similarity). Plays an important role in maintaining epiblast fitness or potency (By similarity).

Protease responsible for KMT2A/MLL1 processing and activation. It also activates KMT2D/MLL2 (By similarity). Through substrate activation, it controls the expression of HOXA genes, and the expression of key cell cycle regulators including CCNA1, CCNB1, CCNE1 and CDKN2A (By similarity).

Deoxyribonuclease which catalyzes (in vitro) the decatenation of kinetoplast DNA, which are circular DNA catenated to each other, producing linear DNA molecules (By similarity). Plays an important role in chromosomal segregation and cell cycle progression during eye development probably via its DNA decatenation activity (By similarity).

Ubiquitin-binding adapter that participates in inflammatory, antiviral and innate immune processes as well as selective autophagy regulation. Plays a key role in the negative regulation of NF-kappa-B and IRF3 signalings by acting as an adapter for the ubiquitin-editing enzyme A20/TNFAIP3 to bind and inactivate its substrates. Disrupts the interactions between the E3 ubiquitin ligase TRAF3 and TBK1/IKBKE to attenuate 'Lys63'-linked polyubiquitination of TBK1 and thereby IFN- beta production. Recruits also A20/TNFAIP3 to ubiquitinated signaling proteins TRAF6 and RIPK1, leading to their deubiquitination and disruption of IL-1 and TNF-induced NF-kappa-B signaling pathways. Inhibits virus-induced apoptosis by inducing the 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination and degradation of MAVS via recruitment of the E3 ligase ITCH, thereby attenuating MAVS- mediated apoptosis signaling. As a macroautophagy/autophagy receptor, facilitates the xenophagic clearance of pathogenic bacteria such as Salmonella typhimurium and Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Upon NBR1 recruitment to the SQSTM1- ubiquitin condensates, acts as the major recruiter of RB1CC1 to these ubiquitin condensates to promote their autophagic degradation.

Acyltransferase required to remodel newly synthesized phospholipid cardiolipin (1',3'-bis-[1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero-3-phospho]- glycerol or CL), a key component of the mitochondrial inner membrane, with tissue specific acyl chains necessary for adequate mitochondrial function. Its role in cellular physiology is to improve mitochondrial performance. CL is critical for the coassembly of lipids and proteins in mitochondrial membranes, for instance, remodeling of the acyl groups of CL in the mitochondrial inner membrane affects the assembly and stability of respiratory chain complex IV and its supercomplex forms (By similarity). Catalyzes the transacylacion between phospholipids and lysophospholipids, with the highest rate being between phosphatidylcholine (1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero- 3-phosphocholine or PC) and CL. Catalyzes both 1-acyl-sn-glycero-3- phosphocholine (lysophosphatidylcholine or LPC) reacylation and PC-CL transacylation, that means, it exchanges acyl groups between CL and PC by a combination of forward and reverse transacylations. Also catalyzes transacylations between other phospholipids such as phosphatidylethanolamine (1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphoethanolamine or PE) and CL, between PC and PE, and between PC and phosphatidate (1,2-diacyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphate or PA), although at lower rate. Not regiospecific, it transfers acyl groups into any of the sn-1 and sn-2 positions of the monolysocardiolipin (MLCL), which is an important prerequisite for uniformity and symmetry in CL acyl distribution. Cannot transacylate dilysocardiolipin (DLCL), thus, the role of MLCL is limited to that of an acyl acceptor. CoA-independent, it can reshuffle molecular species within a single phospholipid class. Redistributes fatty acids between MLCL, CL, and other lipids, which prolongs the half-life of CL. Its action is completely reversible, which allows for cyclic changes, such as fission and fusion or bending and flattening of the membrane. Hence, by contributing to the flexibility of the lipid composition, it plays an important role in the dynamics of mitochondria membranes. Essential for the final stage of spermatogenesis, spermatid individualization (By similarity). Required for the initiation of mitophagy. Required to ensure progression of spermatocytes through meiosis (By similarity). Exon 7 of human tafazzin is essential for catalysis.

Acts as GTPase-activating protein for RAB27A, but not for RAB2A, RAB3A, nor RAB4A.

Acts as GTPase-activating protein for RAB3A, RAB22A, RAB27A, and RAB35. Does not act on RAB2A and RAB6A.

Inhibits the Ras signaling pathway through its intrinsic Ras GTPase-activating protein (GAP) activity. Acts as a negative feedback inhibitor of the calcineurin signaling pathway that also mediates crosstalk between calcineurin and Ras.

Plays an important role in the organization of the cytoskeleton. Binds to and sequesters actin monomers (G actin) and therefore inhibits actin polymerization (By similarity).

Plays an important role in the organization of the cytoskeleton. Binds to and sequesters actin monomers (G actin) and therefore inhibits actin polymerization (By similarity). May be involved in cell migration.

May act as a GTPase-activating protein for Rab family protein(s).

Tubulin is the major constituent of microtubules, a cylinder consisting of laterally associated linear protofilaments composed of alpha- and beta-tubulin heterodimers. Microtubules grow by the addition of GTP-tubulin dimers to the microtubule end, where a stabilizing cap forms. Below the cap, tubulin dimers are in GDP-bound state, owing to GTPase activity of alpha-tubulin

Tubulin is the major constituent of microtubules, a cylinder consisting of laterally associated linear protofilaments composed of alpha- and beta-tubulin heterodimers. Microtubules grow by the addition of GTP-tubulin dimers to the microtubule end, where a stabilizing cap forms. Below the cap, tubulin dimers are in GDP-bound state, owing to GTPase activity of alpha- tubulin.

Tubulin is the major constituent of microtubules, a cylinder consisting of laterally associated linear protofilaments composed of alpha- and beta-tubulin heterodimers. Microtubules grow by the addition of GTP-tubulin dimers to the microtubule end, where a stabilizing cap forms. Below the cap, tubulin dimers are in GDP-bound state, owing to GTPase activity of alpha-tubulin. Plays a critical role in proper axon guidance in both central and peripheral axon tracts. Implicated in neuronal migration.

Tubulin is the major constituent of microtubules, a cylinder consisting of laterally associated linear protofilaments composed of alpha- and beta-tubulin heterodimers. Microtubules grow by the addition of GTP-tubulin dimers to the microtubule end, where a stabilizing cap forms. Below the cap, tubulin dimers are in GDP-bound state, owing to GTPase activity of alpha- tubulin. TUBB3 plays a critical role in proper axon guidance and maintenance. Binding of NTN1/Netrin-1 to its receptor UNC5C might cause dissociation of UNC5C from polymerized TUBB3 in microtubules and thereby lead to increased microtubule dynamics and axon repulsion. Plays a role in dorsal root ganglion axon projection towards the spinal cord.

Tubulin is the major constituent of microtubules, a cylinder consisting of laterally associated linear protofilaments composed of alpha- and beta-tubulin heterodimers. Microtubules grow by the addition of GTP-tubulin dimers to the microtubule end, where a stabilizing cap forms. Below the cap, tubulin dimers are in GDP-bound state, owing to GTPase activity of alpha-tubulin.

Tubulin is the major constituent of microtubules, a cylinder consisting of laterally associated linear protofilaments composed of alpha- and beta-tubulin heterodimers. Microtubules grow by the addition of GTP-tubulin dimers to the microtubule end, where a stabilizing cap forms. Below the cap, tubulin dimers are in GDP-bound state, owing to GTPase activity of alpha-tubulin. TUBB8 has a key role in meiotic spindle assembly and oocyte maturation.

Acts as a GTPase-activating protein for RAB35. Together with RAB35 may be involved in regulation of insulin-induced glucose transporter SLC2A4/GLUT4 translocation to the plasma membrane in adipocytes.

Plays a role in the regulation of starvation-induced autophagosome formation. Together with the TRAPPIII complex, regulates a constitutive trafficking step from peripheral recycling endosomes to the early Golgi, maintaining the cycling pool of ATG9 required for initiation of autophagy.

Acts as a GTPase activating protein for RAB7A. Does not act on RAB4, RAB5 or RAB6 (By similarity).

Probable RAB GTPase-activating protein that inhibits RAB8A/B function. Reduces Rab8 recruitment to tubules emanating from the endocytic recycling compartment (ERC) and inhibits Rab8-mediated endocytic trafficking, such as that of transferrin receptor (TfR). Involved in regulation of autophagy.

GTPase-activating protein specific for Rab1 and Rab2 small GTPase families for which it can accelerate the intrinsic GTP hydrolysis rate by more than five orders of magnitude. Involved in maintaining endoplasmic reticulum structure.

Acts as a GTPase-activating protein for Rab family protein(s). Essential for the establishment of male fertility, and is required for both the production of normal sperm number and sperm function (By similarity). Plays an important role in the formation of intact mitochondria, outer dense fibers and axoneme within the sperm tail (By similarity). Essential for sperm mitochondrial sheath formation and for the interactions of ARMC12 with VDAC2 and VDAC3 (By similarity). May be involved in acrosome formation and cytoskeletal reorganization during spermiogenesis, possibly by regulating RAB3A activity.

Putative Rab GTPase-activating protein which plays a role in vesicular trafficking. Involved in endosome-to-Golgi trafficking. Acts as a bridging protein by binding simultaneously to golgins, including GOLGA1 and GOLGA4, located at the trans-Golgi, and to the WASH complex, located on endosome-derived vesicles. Together with WDR11 complex facilitates the golgin-mediated capture of vesicles generated using AP- 1. Plays a role in brain development, including in cortical neuron positioning (By similarity). May also be important for neurite outgrowth, possibly through its involvement in membrane trafficking and cargo delivery, 2 processes that are essential for axonal and dendritic growth (By similarity). May act as a general inhibitor of innate immunity signaling, strongly inhibiting multiple TLR and dectin/CLEC7A-signaling pathways. Does not alter initial activation events, but instead affects maintenance of inflammatory gene expression several hours after bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) challenge (By similarity).

May act as a GTPase-activating protein for Rab family protein(s). Involved in neuronal projections development, probably through a negative modulation of ARF6 function. Involved in the regulation of synaptic vesicle trafficking.

Acts as a GTPase-activating protein specific for RAB33B. Involved in the regulation of autophagosome maturation, the process in which autophagosomes fuse with endosomes and lysosomes.

GTPase-activating protein (GAP) with broad specificity. Acts as a GAP for RAB3A. Also exhibits significant GAP activity toward RAB22A, RAB27A, and RAB35 in vitro

Molecular adapter which is involved in cilium biogenesis. Part of a functional complex including OFD1 a centriolar protein involved in cilium assembly. Could regulate the cAMP-dependent phosphorylation of OFD1, and its subsequent ubiquitination by PJA2 which ultimately leads to its proteasomal degradation.

Acts as a GTPase activating protein for RAB5. Does not act on RAB4 or RAB11.

Acts as a GTPase activating protein for RAB5. Does not act on RAB4 or RAB11 (By similarity).

Involved in vesicular recycling, probably as a RAB11B GTPase- activating protein.

Tubulin-folding protein; involved in the early step of the tubulin folding pathway

Binds to alpha-tubulin folding intermediates after their interaction with cytosolic chaperonin in the pathway leading from newly synthesized tubulin to properly folded heterodimer. Involved in regulation of tubulin heterodimer dissociation. May function as a negative regulator of axonal growth (By similarity).

Plays a role in the regulation of centrosome and Golgi apparatus positioning, with consequences on cell shape and cell migration.

Tubulin-folding protein; involved in the final step of the tubulin folding pathway.

May act as a GTPase-activating protein for RAB2A, RAB8A, RAB10 and RAB14. Isoform 2 promotes insulin-induced glucose transporter SLC2A4/GLUT4 translocation at the plasma membrane, thus increasing glucose uptake.

May act as a GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for Rab family protein(s). May act as a GAP for RAB7A. Can displace RAB7A and retromer CSC subcomplex from the endosomal membrane to the cytosol; at least retromer displacement seems to require its catalytic activity. Required for retrograde transport of cargo proteins from endosomes to the trans-Golgi network (TGN); the function seems to require its catalytic activity. Involved in regulation of autophagy. May act as a molecular switch between endosomal and autophagosomal transport and is involved in reprogramming vesicle trafficking upon autophagy induction. Involved in the trafficking of ATG9A upon activation of autophagy. May regulate the recruitment of ATG9A-AP2-containing vesicles to autophagic membranes.

Component of the TSC-TBC complex, that contains TBC1D7 in addition to the TSC1-TSC2 complex and consists of the functional complex possessing GTPase-activating protein (GAP) activity toward RHEB in response to alterations in specific cellular growth conditions. The small GTPase RHEB is a direct activator of the protein kinase activity of mTORC1 and the TSC-TBC complex acts as a negative regulator of mTORC1 signaling cascade by acting as a GAP for RHEB. Participates in the proper sensing of growth factors and glucose, but not amino acids, by mTORC1. It is unclear whether TBC1D7 acts as a GTPase-activating protein and additional studies are required to answer this question.

Tubulin-folding protein implicated in the first step of the tubulin folding pathway and required for tubulin complex assembly. Involved in the regulation of microtubule polymerization or depolymerization, it modulates microtubule dynamics by capturing GTP- bound beta-tubulin (TUBB). Its ability to interact with beta tubulin is regulated via its interaction with ARL2. Acts as a GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for ARL2. Induces microtubule disruption in absence of ARL2. Increases degradation of beta tubulin, when overexpressed in polarized cells. Promotes epithelial cell detachment, a process antagonized by ARL2. Induces tight adherens and tight junctions disassembly at the lateral cell membrane. Required for correct assembly and maintenance of the mitotic spindle, and proper progression of mitosis. Involved in neuron morphogenesis.

Tubulin-folding protein; involved in the second step of the tubulin folding pathway and in the regulation of tubulin heterodimer dissociation. Required for correct organization of microtubule cytoskeleton and mitotic splindle, and maintenance of the neuronal microtubule network.

Involved in the modulation of mTOR signaling and expression of mTOR complex components. Involved in the regulation of cell proliferation and growth. Involved in the control of actin-cytoskeleton organization.

Acts as GTPase-activating protein for RAB7A. Signal effector acting as a linker between RAC1 and RAB7A, leading to RAB7A inactivation and subsequent inhibition of cadherin degradation and reduced cell-cell adhesion.

GTPase-activating protein that plays a role in the early steps of endocytosis.

Tubulin is the major constituent of microtubules. The gamma chain is found at microtubule organizing centers (MTOC) such as the spindle poles or the centrosome. Pericentriolar matrix component that regulates alpha/beta chain minus-end nucleation, centrosome duplication and spindle formation

Tubulin is the major constituent of microtubules. The gamma chain is found at microtubule organizing centers (MTOC) such as the spindle poles or the centrosome. Pericentriolar matrix component that regulates alpha/beta chain minus-end nucleation, centrosome duplication and spindle formation (By similarity).

Serine/threonine kinase that plays an essential role in regulating inflammatory responses to foreign agents. Following activation of toll-like receptors by viral or bacterial components, associates with TRAF3 and TANK and phosphorylates interferon regulatory factors (IRFs) IRF3 and IRF7 as well as DDX3X. This activity allows subsequent homodimerization and nuclear translocation of the IRFs leading to transcriptional activation of pro- inflammatory and antiviral genes including IFNA and IFNB. In order to establish such an antiviral state, TBK1 form several different complexes whose composition depends on the type of cell and cellular stimuli. Plays a key role in IRF3 activation: acts by first phosphorylating innate adapter proteins MAVS, STING1 and TICAM1 on their pLxIS motif, leading to recruitment of IRF3, thereby licensing IRF3 for phosphorylation by TBK1. Phosphorylated IRF3 dissociates from the adapter proteins, dimerizes, and then enters the nucleus to induce expression of interferons. Thus, several scaffolding molecules including FADD, TRADD, MAVS, AZI2, TANK or TBKBP1/SINTBAD can be recruited to the TBK1- containing-complexes. Under particular conditions, functions as a NF-kappa-B effector by phosphorylating NF-kappa-B inhibitor alpha/NFKBIA, IKBKB or RELA to translocate NF-Kappa-B to the nucleus. Restricts bacterial proliferation by phosphorylating the autophagy receptor OPTN/Optineurin on 'Ser-177', thus enhancing LC3 binding affinity and antibacterial autophagy. Phosphorylates SMCR8 component of the C9orf72-SMCR8 complex, promoting autophagosome maturation. Phosphorylates ATG8 proteins MAP1LC3C and GABARAPL2, thereby preventing their delipidation and premature removal from nascent autophagosomes. Phosphorylates and activates AKT1. Seems to play a role in energy balance regulation by sustaining a state of chronic, low-grade inflammation in obesity, wich leads to a negative impact on insulin sensitivity (By similarity). Attenuates retroviral budding by phosphorylating the endosomal sorting complex required for transport-I (ESCRT-I) subunit VPS37C. Phosphorylates Borna disease virus (BDV) P protein. Plays an essential role in the TLR3- and IFN-dependent control of herpes virus HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections in the central nervous system.

Adapter protein which constitutively binds TBK1 and IKBKE playing a role in antiviral innate immunity.

F-box-like protein involved in the recruitment of the ubiquitin/19S proteasome complex to nuclear receptor-regulated transcription units. Plays an essential role in transcription activation mediated by nuclear receptors. Probably acts as integral component of the N-Cor corepressor complex that mediates the recruitment of the 19S proteasome complex, leading to the subsequent proteasomal degradation of N-Cor complex, thereby allowing cofactor exchange, and transcription activation.

F-box-like protein involved in the recruitment of the ubiquitin/19S proteasome complex to nuclear receptor-regulated transcription units. Plays an essential role in transcription activation mediated by nuclear receptors. Probably acts as integral component of corepressor complexes that mediates the recruitment of the 19S proteasome complex, leading to the subsequent proteasomal degradation of transcription repressor complexes, thereby allowing cofactor exchange.

F-box-like protein involved in the recruitment of the ubiquitin/19S proteasome complex to nuclear receptor-regulated transcription units. Plays an essential role in transcription activation mediated by nuclear receptors. Probably acts as integral component of corepressor complexes that mediates the recruitment of the 19S proteasome complex, leading to the subsequent proteasomal degradation of transcription repressor complexes, thereby allowing cofactor exchange (By similarity).

Part of a specialized transcription system that mediates the transcription of most ribosomal proteins through the 5'-TCT-3' motif which is a core promoter element at these genes. Seems to also mediate the transcription of NF1. Does not bind the TATA box.

Transcription factor required in complex with TAF3 for the differentiation of myoblasts into myocytes. The complex replaces TFIID at specific promoters at an early stage in the differentiation process (By similarity).

The TFIID basal transcription factor complex plays a major role in the initiation of RNA polymerase II (Pol II)-dependent transcription. TFIID recognizes and binds promoters with or without a TATA box via its subunit TBP, a TATA-box-binding protein, and promotes assembly of the pre-initiation complex (PIC). The TFIID complex consists of TBP and TBP-associated factors (TAFs), including TAF1, TAF2, TAF3, TAF4, TAF5, TAF6, TAF7, TAF8, TAF9, TAF10, TAF11, TAF12 and TAF13. The TFIID complex structure can be divided into 3 modules TFIID-A, TFIID-B, and TFIID-C. TBP forms the TFIID-A module together with TAF3 and TAF5. TBP is a general transcription factor that functions at the core of the TFIID complex. During assembly of the core PIC on the promoter, as part of TFIID, TBP binds to and also bends promoter DNA, irrespective of whether the promoter contains a TATA box. Component of a BRF2-containing transcription factor complex that regulates transcription mediated by RNA polymerase III. Component of the transcription factor SL1/TIF-IB complex, which is involved in the assembly of the PIC during RNA polymerase I-dependent transcription. The rate of PIC formation probably is primarily dependent on the rate of association of SL1 with the rDNA promoter. SL1 is involved in stabilization of nucleolar transcription factor 1/UBTF on rDNA.

Transcriptional repressor involved in multiple aspects of cortical development, including neuronal migration, laminar and areal identity, and axonal projection. As transcriptional repressor of FEZF2, it blocks the formation of the corticospinal (CS) tract from layer 6 projection neurons, thereby restricting the origin of CS axons specifically to layer 5 neurons (By similarity).

Acts as a growth inhibitor. Can activate p53/TP53, causes G1 arrest and collaborates with CDKN2A to restrict proliferation, but does not require either protein to inhibit DNA synthesis. Redistributes CDKN2A into the nucleoplasm. Involved in maintaining chromosomal stability.

Probable transcriptional regulator involved in developmental processes

Probable transcriptional regulator involved in the development of the skeleton of the limb, vertebral column and head. Acts by controlling the number of mesenchymal precursor cells and chondrocytes (By similarity).

Acts as transcriptional repressor involved in developmental processes of a variety of tissues and organs, including the heart and coronary vessels, the ureter and the vertebral column. Required for embryonic development of the sino atrial node (SAN) head area.

Transcriptional regulator involved in developmental processes. Can activate POMC gene expression and repress the alpha glycoprotein subunit and thyroid-stimulating hormone beta promoters.

Acts as a transcriptional activator and repressor required for cardiac development and may have key roles in the maintenance of functional and structural phenotypes in adult heart.

Lineage-defining transcription factor which initiates Th1 lineage development from naive Th precursor cells both by activating Th1 genetic programs and by repressing the opposing Th2 and Th17 genetic programs. Activates transcription of a set of genes important for Th1 cell function, including those encoding IFN- gamma and the chemokine receptor CXCR3. Induces permissive chromatin accessibilty and CpG methylation in IFNG. Activates IFNG and CXCR3 genes in part by recruiting chromatin remodeling complexes including KDM6B, a SMARCA4-containing SWI/SNF-complex, and an H3K4me2-methyltransferase complex to their promoters and all of these complexes serve to establish a more permissive chromatin state conducive with transcriptional activation (By similarity). Can activate Th1 genes also via recruitment of Mediator complex and P-TEFb (composed of CDK9 and CCNT1/cyclin-T1) in the form of the super elongation complex (SEC) to super-enhancers and associated genes in activated Th1 cells. Inhibits the Th17 cell lineage commitment by blocking RUNX1-mediated transactivation of Th17 cell-specific transcriptinal regulator RORC. Inhibits the Th2 cell lineage commitment by suppressing the production of Th2 cytokines, such as IL-4, IL-5, and IL- 13, via repression of transcriptional regulators GATA3 and NFATC2. Protects Th1 cells from amplifying aberrant type-I IFN response in an IFN-gamma abundant microenvironment by acting as a repressor of type-I IFN transcription factors and type-I IFN-stimulated genes. Acts as a regulator of antiviral B-cell responses; controls chronic viral infection by promoting the antiviral antibody IgG2a isotype switching and via regulation of a broad antiviral gene expression program (By similarity). Required for the correct development of natural killer (NK) and mucosal-associated invariant T (MAIT) cells.

Probable transcriptional regulator involved in developmental processes. This is major determinant crucial to palatogenesis

Transcription factor which acts as a transcriptional repressor. May also function as a transcriptional activator (By similarity). Binds to the palindromic T site 5'-TTCACACCTAGGTGTGAA-3' DNA sequence, or a half-site, which are present in the regulatory region of several genes. Required for cardiac atrioventricular canal formation. May cooperate with NKX2.5 to negatively modulate expression of NPPA/ANF in the atrioventricular canal (By similarity). May play a role as a positive regulator of TGFB2 expression, perhaps acting in concert with GATA4 in the developing outflow tract myocardium (By similarity). Plays a role in limb pattern formation. Acts as a transcriptional repressor of ADAM10 gene expression, perhaps in concert with histone deacetylase HDAC1 as cofactor. Involved in branching morphogenesis in both developing lungs and adult mammary glands, via negative modulation of target genes; acting redundantly with TBX3 (By similarity). Required, together with TBX3, to maintain cell proliferation in the embryonic lung mesenchyme; perhaps acting downstream of SHH, BMP and TGFbeta signaling (By similarity). Involved in modulating early inner ear development, acting independently of, and also redundantly with TBX3, in different subregions of the developing ear (By similarity). Acts as a negative regulator of PML function in cellular senescence. Acts as a negative regulator of expression of CDKN1A/p21, IL33 and CCN4; repression of CDKN1A is enhanced in response to UV-induced stress, perhaps as a result of phosphorylation by p38 MAPK (By similarity). Negatively modulates expression of CDKN2A/p14ARF and CDH1/E-cadherin. Plays a role in induction of the epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT). Plays a role in melanocyte proliferation, perhaps via regulation of cyclin CCND1 (By similarity). Involved in melanogenesis, acting via negative modulation of expression of DHICA oxidase/TYRP1 and P protein/OCA2 (By similarity). Involved in regulating retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) cell proliferation, perhaps via negatively modulating transcription of the transcription factor CEBPD.

Transcriptional repressor involved in developmental processes. Binds to the palindromic T site 5'- TTCACACCTAGGTGTGAA-3' DNA sequence, or a half-site, which are present in the regulatory region of several genes. Probably plays a role in limb pattern formation. Required for mammary placode induction, and maintenance of the mammary buds during development (By similarity). Involved in branching morphogenesis in both developing lungs and adult mammary glands, via negative modulation of target genes; acting redundantly with TBX2 (By similarity). Required, together with TBX2, to maintain cell proliferation in the embryonic lung mesenchyme; perhaps acting downstream of SHH, BMP and TGFbeta signaling (By similarity). Involved in modulating early inner ear development, acting independently of, and also redundantly with, TBX2 in different subregions of the developing ear (By similarity). Acts as a negative regulator of PML function in cellular senescence.

Transcriptional regulator that has an essential role in the organogenesis of lungs, pelvis, and hindlimbs.

DNA-binding protein that regulates the transcription of several genes and is involved in heart development and limb pattern formation. Binds to the core DNA motif of NPPA promoter.

T-box transcription factor that plays an essential role in the determination of the fate of axial stem cells: neural vs mesodermal. Acts in part by down-regulating, a specific enhancer (N1) of SOX2, to inhibit neural development. Seems to play also an essential role in left/right axis determination and acts through effects on Notch signaling around the node as well as through an effect on the morphology and motility of the nodal cilia (By similarity).

RNA chaperone that plays a key role in telomere maintenance and RNA localization to Cajal bodies. Specifically recognizes and binds the Cajal body box (CAB box) present in both small Cajal body RNAs (scaRNAs) and telomerase RNA template component (TERC). Essential component of the telomerase holoenzyme complex, a ribonucleoprotein complex essential for the replication of chromosome termini that elongates telomeres in most eukaryotes. In the telomerase holoenzyme complex, required to stimulate the catalytic activity of the complex. Acts by specifically binding the CAB box of the TERC RNA and controlling the folding of the CR4/CR5 region of the TERC RNA, a critical step for telomerase activity. In addition, also controls telomerase holoenzyme complex localization to Cajal body. During S phase, required for delivery of TERC to telomeres during S phase and for telomerase activity. In addition to its role in telomere maintenance, also required for Cajal body formation, probably by mediating localization of scaRNAs to Cajal bodies. Also plays a role in DNA repair: phosphorylated by ATM in response to DNA damage and relocalizes to sites of DNA double- strand breaks to promote the repair of DNA double-strand breaks. Acts by recruiting the ubiquitin ligase RNF8 to DNA breaks and promote both homologous recombination (HR) and non-homologous end joining (NHEJ).

Positively regulates the plasma membrane cation channel TRPM8 activity. Involved in the recruitment of TRPM8 to the cell surface. Promotes prostate cancer cell migration inhibition in a TRPM8-dependent manner.

[Isoform 2]: Negatively regulates the plasma membrane cation channel TRPM8 activity. Involved in the recruitment of TRPM8 to the cell surface. Promotes prostate cancer cell migration stimulation in a TRPM8-dependent manner.

May be involved in transcriptional regulation. Modulates various viral and cellular promoters in a promoter context-dependent manner. For example, transcription from the FOS promoter is increased, while Rous sarcoma virus (RSV) long terminal repeat (LTR) promoter activity is repressed. Does not bind DNA directly

Plays a role in the negative regulation of NF-kappa-B signaling at the basal level by modulating transcriptional activity of NF-kappa-B on its target gene promoters. Associates with cyclin D1 promoter containing Myc E-box sequence and transcriptionally represses cyclin D1 expression. Regulates telomerase reverse transcriptase expression and telomerase activity in both ALT (alternative lengthening of telomeres)and telomerase-positive cell lines.

Involved in innate immunity against invading pathogens. Adapter used by TLR3, TLR4 (through TICAM2) and TLR5 to mediate NF- kappa-B and interferon-regulatory factor (IRF) activation, and to induce apoptosis. Ligand binding to these receptors results in TRIF recruitment through its TIR domain. Distinct protein-interaction motifs allow recruitment of the effector proteins TBK1, TRAF6 and RIPK1, which in turn, lead to the activation of transcription factors IRF3 and IRF7, NF-kappa-B and FADD respectively. Phosphorylation by TBK1 on the pLxIS motif leads to recruitment and subsequent activation of the transcription factor IRF3 to induce expression of type I interferon and exert a potent immunity against invading pathogens. Component of a multi-helicase- TICAM1 complex that acts as a cytoplasmic sensor of viral double- stranded RNA (dsRNA) and plays a role in the activation of a cascade of antiviral responses including the induction of pro-inflammatory cytokines (By similarity).

Functions as sorting adapter in different signaling pathways to facilitate downstream signaling leading to type I interferon induction. In TLR4 signaling, physically bridges TLR4 and TICAM1 and functionally transmits signal to TICAM1 in early endosomes after endocytosis of TLR4. In TLR2 signaling, physically bridges TLR2 and MYD88 and is required for the TLR2-dependent movement of MYD88 to endosomes following ligand engagement. Involved in IL-18 signaling and is proposed to function as a sorting adapter for MYD88 in IL-18 signaling during adaptive immune response. Forms a complex with RAB11FIP2 that is recruited to the phagosomes to promote the activation of the actin-regulatory GTPases RAC1 and CDC42 and subsequent phagocytosis of Gram-negative bacteria.

Necessary for efficient RNA polymerase II transcription elongation past template-encoded arresting sites. The arresting sites in DNA have the property of trapping a certain fraction of elongating RNA polymerases that pass through, resulting in locked ternary complexes. Cleavage of the nascent transcript by S-II allows the resumption of elongation from the new 3'-terminus

Necessary for efficient RNA polymerase II transcription elongation past template-encoded arresting sites. The arresting sites in DNA have the property of trapping a certain fraction of elongating RNA polymerases that pass through, resulting in locked ternary complexes. Cleavage of the nascent transcript by S-II allows the resumption of elongation from the new 3'-terminus.

Early transcription factor that plays a key role in somitogenesis, paraxial mesoderm development and regulation of stem cell pluripotency. Essential for the mesenchymal to epithelial transition associated with somite formation. Required for somite morphogenesis, thereby regulating patterning of the axial skeleton and skeletal muscles. Required for proper localization of somite epithelium markers during the mesenchymal to epithelial transition. Also plays a key role in regulation of stem cell pluripotency. Promotes pluripotency exit of embryonic stem cells (ESCs) by priming ESCs for differentiation. Acts as a key regulator of self-renewal of hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) by mediating HSCs quiescence and long- term self-renewal. Together with MEOX2, regulates transcription in heart endothelial cells to regulate fatty acid transport across heart endothelial cells. Acts by forming a heterodimer with another helix- loop-helix (bHLH) protein, such as TCF3/E12, that binds DNA on E-box motifs (5'-CANNTG-3') and activates transcription of target genes.

Potential trans-activating factor that could play an important role in the transcription of genes required for the later stages of cell cycle progression

Transcriptional activator that binds to the regulatory region of MMP3 and thereby controls stromelysin expression. It stimulates the activity of various transcriptional activators such as JUN, SP1, PAX6 and ETS1, suggesting a function as a coactivator.

Involved in epithelial-mesenchymal interactions in kidney and lung morphogenesis that include epithelial differentiation and branching morphogenesis. May play a role in the specification or differentiation of one or more subsets of epicardial cell types

Inhibits E-box-mediated binding and transactivation of bHLH factors. Inhibitory effect is similar to that of ID proteins. Inhibits the formation of TCF3 and MYOD1 homodimers and heterodimers. Lacks DNA binding activity. Seems to play a role in the inhibition of myogenesis (By similarity).

May play a role in cell death control. Acts as a transcriptional repressor. Has been shown to repress transcription of SRF in vitro and so may play a role in heart development.

Transcriptional activator involved in T-cell lymphocyte differentiation. Necessary for the survival of CD4(+) CD8(+) immature thymocytes. Isoforms lacking the N-terminal CTNNB1 binding domain cannot fulfill this role. Binds to the T-lymphocyte-specific enhancer element (5'-WWCAAAG-3') found in the promoter of the CD3E gene. Represses expression of the T-cell receptor gamma gene in alpha-beta T- cell lineages (By similarity). Required for the development of natural killer receptor-positive lymphoid tissue inducer T-cells (By similarity). TLE1, TLE2, TLE3 and TLE4 repress transactivation mediated by TCF7 and CTNNB1.May also act as feedback transcriptional repressor of CTNNB1 and TCF7L2 target genes.

Putative transcription factor. Isoform 3 may play a role in early spermatogenesis.

Tumor suppressor which has the ability to inhibit cell growth and be pro-apoptotic during cell stress. Inhibits cell growth in bladder and prostate cancer cells by a down-regulation of HSPB1 by inhibiting its phosphorylation. May act as a 'capping' or 'branching' protein for keratin filaments in the cell periphery. May regulate K8/K18 filament and desmosome organization mainly at the apical or peripheral regions of simple epithelial cells. Is a negative regulator of ciliogenesis.

Seems to be involved in the regulation of cell growth an differentiation, may play different and opposite roles depending on the tissue or cell type. May enhance the WNT-CTNNB1 pathway by relieving antagonistic activity of CBY1. Enhances the proliferation of follicular dendritic cells. Plays a role in the mitogen-activated MAPK2/3 signaling pathway, positively regulates G1-to-S-phase transition of the cell cycle. In endothelial cells, enhances key inflammatory mediators and inflammatory response through the modulation of NF-kappaB transcriptional regulatory activity. Involved in the regulation of heat shock response, seems to play a positive feedback with HSF1 to modulate heat-shock downstream gene expression. Plays a role in the regulation of hematopoiesis even if the mechanisms are unknown (By similarity). In cancers such as thyroid or lung cancer, it has been described as promoter of cell proliferation, G1-to-S-phase transition and inhibitor of apoptosis. However, it negatively regulates self-renewal of liver cancer cells via suppresion of NOTCH2 signaling.

Enhances the phosphorylation and activation of AKT1, AKT2 and AKT3. Promotes nuclear translocation of AKT1. Enhances cell proliferation, stabilizes mitochondrial membrane potential and promotes cell survival.

Binds vitamin B12 with femtomolar affinity and protects it from the acidic environment of the stomach

Primary vitamin B12-binding and transport protein. Delivers cobalamin to cells.

Nucleolar protein that acts as a regulator of RNA polymerase I by connecting RNA polymerase I with enzymes responsible for ribosomal processing and modification. Required for neural crest specification: following monoubiquitination by the BCR(KBTBD8) complex, associates with NOLC1 and acts as a platform to connect RNA polymerase I with enzymes responsible for ribosomal processing and modification, leading to remodel the translational program of differentiating cells in favor of neural crest specification.

Plays a role in the process of sperm capacitation and acrosome reactions. Probable receptor for the putative fertilization- promoting peptide (FPP) at the sperm membrane that may modulate the activity of the adenylyl cyclase cAMP pathway.

May be involved in transcriptional regulation. Has in vitro transcription inhibition activity. Acts as a tumor suppressor in hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) cells.

General coactivator that functions cooperatively with TAFs and mediates functional interactions between upstream activators and the general transcriptional machinery. May be involved in stabilizing the multiprotein transcription complex. Binds single-stranded DNA. Also binds, in vitro, non-specifically to double-stranded DNA (ds DNA).

Component of the chaperonin-containing T-complex (TRiC), a molecular chaperone complex that assists the folding of proteins upon ATP hydrolysis. The TRiC complex mediates the folding of WRAP53/TCAB1, thereby regulating telomere maintenance. As part of the TRiC complex may play a role in the assembly of BBSome, a complex involved in ciliogenesis regulating transports vesicles to the cilia. The TRiC complex plays a role in the folding of actin and tubulin (Probable).

Component of the chaperonin-containing T-complex (TRiC), a molecular chaperone complex that assists the folding of proteins upon ATP hydrolysis. The TRiC complex mediates the folding of WRAP53/TCAB1, thereby regulating telomere maintenance. The TRiC complex plays a role in the folding of actin and tubulin (Probable).

Possible molecular chaperone; assists the folding of proteins upon ATP hydrolysis.

Tethering factor involved in autophagy. Involved in autophagosome maturation by promoting the autophagosome fusion with lysosomes: acts by associating with both the ATG5-ATG12 conjugate and phosphatidylinositol-3-phosphate (PtdIns(3)P) present at the surface of autophagosomes. Also involved in selective autophagy against bacterial pathogens, by being required for phagophore/preautophagosomal structure biogenesis and maturation.

Component of the chaperonin-containing T-complex (TRiC), a molecular chaperone complex that assists the folding of proteins upon ATP hydrolysis.

GPI-anchored cell membrane protein involved in Nodal signaling. Cell-associated TDGF1 acts as a Nodal coreceptor in cis. Shedding of TDGF1 by TMEM8A modulates Nodal signaling by allowing soluble TDGF1 to act as a Nodal coreceptor on other cells. Could play a role in the determination of the epiblastic cells that subsequently give rise to the mesoderm.

Could play a role in the determination of the epiblastic cells that subsequently give rise to the mesoderm. Activates the Nodal- dependent signaling pathway.

DNA glycosylase that plays a key role in active DNA demethylation: specifically recognizes and binds 5-formylcytosine (5fC) and 5-carboxylcytosine (5caC) in the context of CpG sites and mediates their excision through base-excision repair (BER) to install an unmethylated cytosine. Cannot remove 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC). According to an alternative model, involved in DNA demethylation by mediating DNA glycolase activity toward 5-hydroxymethyluracil (5hmU) produced by deamination of 5hmC. Also involved in DNA repair by acting as a thymine-DNA glycosylase that mediates correction of G/T mispairs to G/C pairs: in the DNA of higher eukaryotes, hydrolytic deamination of 5-methylcytosine to thymine leads to the formation of G/T mismatches. Its role in the repair of canonical base damage is however minor compared to its role in DNA demethylation. It is capable of hydrolyzing the carbon-nitrogen bond between the sugar-phosphate backbone of the DNA and a mispaired thymine. In addition to the G/T, it can remove thymine also from C/T and T/T mispairs in the order G/T >> C/T > T/T. It has no detectable activity on apyrimidinic sites and does not catalyze the removal of thymine from A/T pairs or from single- stranded DNA. It can also remove uracil and 5-bromouracil from mispairs with guanine.

Increases DNTT terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase activity (in vitro). Also acts as a transcriptional regulator, binding to the consensus sequence 5'-GNTGCATG-3' following an AT-tract. Associates with RAB20 promoter and positively regulates its transcription. Binds DNA and nucleosomes; may recruit HDAC1 complexes to nucleosomes or naked DNA.

Regulates the transcriptional activity of DNTT and ESR1. May function as a chromatin remodeling protein.

Plays a central role during spermatogenesis by participating in the repression transposable elements and preventing their mobilization, which is essential for the germline integrity. Acts via the piRNA metabolic process, which mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and governs the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons. Required for the localization of Piwi proteins to the meiotic nuage. Involved in the piRNA metabolic process by ensuring the entry of correct transcripts into the normal piRNA pool and limiting the entry of cellular transcripts into the piRNA pathway. May act by allowing the recruitment of piRNA biogenesis or loading factors that ensure the correct entry of transcripts and piRNAs into Piwi proteins (By similarity).

Scaffolding protein that specifically recognizes and binds dimethylarginine-containing proteins. In nucleus, acts as a coactivator: recognizes and binds asymmetric dimethylation on the core histone tails associated with transcriptional activation (H3R17me2a and H4R3me2a) and recruits proteins at these arginine-methylated loci. In cytoplasm, may play a role in the assembly and/or disassembly of mRNA stress granules and in the regulation of translation of target mRNAs by binding Arg/Gly-rich motifs (GAR) in dimethylarginine-containing proteins.

Required during spermiogenesis to participate in the repression transposable elements and prevent their mobilization, which is essential for the germline integrity. Probably acts via the piRNA metabolic process, which mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and govern the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons. Required for chromatoid body (CB) assembly (By similarity).

Tudor domain-containing protein involved in germ cell development, more specifically the formation of chromatoid body (during spermiogenesis), Balbiani body (during oogenesis), germ plasm (upon fertilization), and for proper miRNA expression and spliceosome maturation (By similarity). Essential for RNA-dependent helicase UPF1 localization to chromatoid body, for UPF1-UPF2 and UPF1-DDX4 interactions which are required for mRNA degradation, using the extended 3' UTR-triggered nonsense-mediated mRNA decay (NMD) pathway. Involved in spliceosome maturation and mRNA splicing in prophase I spermatocytes through interaction with arginine N-methyltransferase PRMT5 and symmetrically arginine dimethylated SNRPB (small nuclear ribonucleoprotein-associated protein) (By similarity).

Component of specific cytoplasmic RNA granules involved in post-transcriptional regulation of specific genes: probably acts by binding to specific mRNAs and regulating their translation. Required for lens transparency during lens development, by regulating translation of genes such as CRYBB3 and HSPB1 in the developing lens. Also required during spermatogenesis.

ATP-binding RNA helicase required during spermatogenesis. Required to repress transposable elements and prevent their mobilization, which is essential for the germline integrity. Acts via the piRNA metabolic process, which mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and governs the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons. Acts downstream of piRNA biogenesis: exclusively required for transposon silencing in the nucleus, suggesting that it acts as a nuclear effector in the nucleus together with PIWIL4.

Participates in the primary piRNA biogenesis pathway and is required during spermatogenesis to repress transposable elements and prevent their mobilization, which is essential for the germline integrity. The piRNA metabolic process mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins and govern the methylation and subsequent repression of transposons. Required for the final steps of primary piRNA biogenesis by participating in the processing of 31-37 nt intermediates into mature piRNAs. May act in pi-bodies and piP-bodies by transferring piRNA precursors or intermediates to or between these granules.

Contributes to normal sperm motility, but not essential for male fertility.

Template-independent DNA polymerase which catalyzes the random addition of deoxynucleoside 5'-triphosphate to the 3'-end of a DNA initiator. One of the in vivo functions of this enzyme is the addition of nucleotides at the junction (N region) of rearranged Ig heavy chain and T-cell receptor gene segments during the maturation of B- and T-cells.

Acts both as a regulator of telomere function and as a transcription regulator. Involved in the regulation of telomere length and protection as a component of the shelterin complex (telosome). In contrast to other components of the shelterin complex, it is dispensible for telomere capping and does not participate in the protection of telomeres against non-homologous end-joining (NHEJ)- mediated repair. Instead, it is required to negatively regulate telomere recombination and is essential for repressing homology- directed repair (HDR), which can affect telomere length. Does not bind DNA directly: recruited to telomeric double-stranded 5'-TTAGGG-3' repeats via its interaction with TERF2. Independently of its function in telomeres, also acts as a transcription regulator: recruited to extratelomeric 5'-TTAGGG-3' sites via its association with TERF2 or other factors, and regulates gene expression. When cytoplasmic, associates with the I-kappa-B-kinase (IKK) complex and acts as a regulator of the NF-kappa-B signaling by promoting IKK-mediated phosphorylation of RELA/p65, leading to activate expression of NF- kappa-B target genes.

Transcription factor which plays a key role in the Hippo signaling pathway, a pathway involved in organ size control and tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis. The core of this pathway is composed of a kinase cascade wherein MST1/MST2, in complex with its regulatory protein SAV1, phosphorylates and activates LATS1/2 in complex with its regulatory protein MOB1, which in turn phosphorylates and inactivates YAP1 oncoprotein and WWTR1/TAZ. Acts by mediating gene expression of YAP1 and WWTR1/TAZ, thereby regulating cell proliferation, migration and epithelial mesenchymal transition (EMT) induction. Binds specifically and cooperatively to the SPH and GT-IIC 'enhansons' (5'-GTGGAATGT-3') and activates transcription in vivo in a cell-specific manner. The activation function appears to be mediated by a limiting cell-specific transcriptional intermediary factor (TIF). Involved in cardiac development. Binds to the M-CAT motif.

Transcription factor which plays a key role in the Hippo signaling pathway, a pathway involved in organ size control and tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis. The core of this pathway is composed of a kinase cascade wherein MST1/MST2, in complex with its regulatory protein SAV1, phosphorylates and activates LATS1/2 in complex with its regulatory protein MOB1, which in turn phosphorylates and inactivates YAP1 oncoprotein and WWTR1/TAZ. Acts by mediating gene expression of YAP1 and WWTR1/TAZ, thereby regulating cell proliferation, migration and epithelial mesenchymal transition (EMT) induction. Binds to the SPH and GT-IIC 'enhansons' (5'-GTGGAATGT-3'). May be involved in the gene regulation of neural development. Binds to the M-CAT motif.

Transcription factor which plays a key role in the Hippo signaling pathway, a pathway involved in organ size control and tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis. The core of this pathway is composed of a kinase cascade wherein MST1/MST2, in complex with its regulatory protein SAV1, phosphorylates and activates LATS1/2 in complex with its regulatory protein MOB1, which in turn phosphorylates and inactivates YAP1 oncoprotein and WWTR1/TAZ. Acts by mediating gene expression of YAP1 and WWTR1/TAZ, thereby regulating cell proliferation, migration and epithelial mesenchymal transition (EMT) induction. Binds to multiple functional elements of the human chorionic somatomammotropin-B gene enhancer.

Transcription factor which plays a key role in the Hippo signaling pathway, a pathway involved in organ size control and tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis. The core of this pathway is composed of a kinase cascade wherein MST1/MST2, in complex with its regulatory protein SAV1, phosphorylates and activates LATS1/2 in complex with its regulatory protein MOB1, which in turn phosphorylates and inactivates YAP1 oncoprotein and WWTR1/TAZ. Acts by mediating gene expression of YAP1 and WWTR1/TAZ, thereby regulating cell proliferation, migration and epithelial mesenchymal transition (EMT) induction. Binds specifically and non-cooperatively to the Sph and GT-IIC 'enhansons' (5'-GTGGAATGT-3') and activates transcription. Binds to the M-CAT motif.

Cytosolic prostaglandin synthase that catalyzes the oxidoreduction of prostaglandin endoperoxide H2 (PGH2) to prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). Molecular chaperone that localizes to genomic response elements in a hormone-dependent manner and disrupts receptor-mediated transcriptional activation, by promoting disassembly of transcriptional regulatory complexes. Facilitates HIF alpha proteins hydroxylation via interaction with EGLN1/PHD2, leading to recruit EGLN1/PHD2 to the HSP90 pathway.

Involved in both the production of very long-chain fatty acids for sphingolipid synthesis and the degradation of the sphingosine moiety in sphingolipids through the sphingosine 1-phosphate metabolic pathway. Catalyzes the last of the four reactions of the long-chain fatty acids elongation cycle. This endoplasmic reticulum-bound enzymatic process, allows the addition of 2 carbons to the chain of long- and very long-chain fatty acids/VLCFAs per cycle. This enzyme reduces the trans-2,3-enoyl- CoA fatty acid intermediate to an acyl-CoA that can be further elongated by entering a new cycle of elongation. Thereby, it participates in the production of VLCFAs of different chain lengths that are involved in multiple biological processes as precursors of membrane lipids and lipid mediators. Catalyzes the saturation step of the sphingosine 1-phosphate metabolic pathway, the conversion of trans-2-hexadecenoyl-CoA to palmitoyl-CoA.

Component of the tectonic-like complex, a complex localized at the transition zone of primary cilia and acting as a barrier that prevents diffusion of transmembrane proteins between the cilia and plasma membranes. Regulator of Hedgehog (Hh), required for both activation and inhibition of the Hh pathway in the patterning of the neural tube. During neural tube development, it is required for formation of the most ventral cell types and for full Hh pathway activation. Functions in Hh signal transduction to fully activate the pathway in the presence of high Hh levels and to repress the pathway in the absence of Hh signals. Modulates Hh signal transduction downstream of SMO and RAB23 (By similarity).

Component of the tectonic-like complex, a complex localized at the transition zone of primary cilia and acting as a barrier that prevents diffusion of transmembrane proteins between the cilia and plasma membranes. Required for hedgehog signaling transduction (By similarity).

Part of the tectonic-like complex which is required for tissue-specific ciliogenesis and may regulate ciliary membrane composition (By similarity). May be involved in apoptosis regulation. Necessary for signal transduction through the sonic hedgehog (Shh) signaling pathway.

One of the major non-collagenous components of the tectorial membrane (By similarity). The tectorial membrane is an extracellular matrix of the inner ear that covers the neuroepithelium of the cochlea and contacts the stereocilia bundles of specialized sensory hair cells. Sound induces movement of these hair cells relative to the tectorial membrane, deflects the stereocilia and leads to fluctuations in hair- cell membrane potential, transducing sound into electrical signals.

Non-receptor tyrosine kinase that contributes to signaling from many receptors and participates as a signal transducer in multiple downstream pathways, including regulation of the actin cytoskeleton. Plays a redundant role to ITK in regulation of the adaptive immune response. Regulates the development, function and differentiation of conventional T-cells and nonconventional NKT-cells. Required for TCR- dependent IL2 gene induction. Phosphorylates DOK1, one CD28-specific substrate, and contributes to CD28-signaling. Mediates signals that negatively regulate IL2RA expression induced by TCR cross-linking. Plays a redundant role to BTK in BCR-signaling for B-cell development and activation, especially by phosphorylating STAP1, a BCR-signaling protein. Required in mast cells for efficient cytokine production. Involved in both growth and differentiation mechanisms of myeloid cells through activation by the granulocyte colony-stimulating factor CSF3, a critical cytokine to promoting the growth, differentiation, and functional activation of myeloid cells. Participates in platelet signaling downstream of integrin activation. Cooperates with JAK2 through reciprocal phosphorylation to mediate cytokine-driven activation of FOS transcription. GRB10, a negative modifier of the FOS activation pathway, is another substrate of TEC. TEC is involved in G protein-coupled receptor- and integrin-mediated signalings in blood platelets. Plays a role in hepatocyte proliferation and liver regeneration and is involved in HGF-induced ERK signaling pathway. TEC regulates also FGF2 unconventional secretion (endoplasmic reticulum (ER)/Golgi-independent mechanism) under various physiological conditions through phosphorylation of FGF2 'Tyr-215'. May also be involved in the regulation of osteoclast differentiation.

Acts as a positive regulator of ciliary hedgehog signaling. Required for centriole stability (By similarity). May play a role in counteracting perturbation of actin filaments, such as after treatment with the actin depolymerizing microbial metabolite Chivosazole F.

Acts as a positive regulator of ciliary hedgehog signaling. Required for centriole stability.

May inhibit NODAL and BMP signaling during neural patterning (By similarity). May be a tumor suppressor in brain cancers.

May be a survival factor for hippocampal and mesencephalic neurons. The shedded form up-regulates cancer cell proliferation, probably by promoting ERK1/2 phosphorylation.

Transcription elongation factor which increases mitochondrial RNA polymerase processivity. Regulates transcription of the mitochondrial genome, including genes important for the oxidative phosphorylation machinery.

Transcription factor that binds to and transactivates the TSHB promoter. Binds to a minimal DNA-binding sequence 5'- [TC][AG][AG]TTA[TC][AG]-3'

Microtubule inner protein (MIP) part of the dynein-decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia and flagellar axoneme. Forms filamentous polymers in the walls of ciliary and flagellar microtubules.

Microtubule inner protein (MIP) part of the dynein-decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia and flagellar axoneme. Plays a key role in the assembly or attachment of the inner dynein arm to microtubules in sperm flagella and tracheal cilia. Forms filamentous polymers in the walls of ciliary and flagellar microtubules.

Microtubule inner protein (MIP) part of the dynein-decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia and flagellar axoneme. Forms filamentous polymers in the walls of ciliary and flagellar microtubules (By similarity). Required for normal sperm mobility (By similarity).

Microtubule inner protein (MIP) part of the dynein-decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia and flagellar axoneme. Forms filamentous polymers in the walls of ciliary and flagellar microtubules (By similarity). Contributes to normal sperm motility (By similarity).

Regulator of the DNA damage response (DDR). Part of the TTT complex that is required to stabilize protein levels of the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase-related protein kinase (PIKK) family proteins. The TTT complex is involved in the cellular resistance to DNA damage stresses, like ionizing radiation (IR), ultraviolet (UV) and mitomycin C (MMC). Together with the TTT complex and HSP90 may participate in the proper folding of newly synthesized PIKKs. Promotes assembly, stabilizes and maintains the activity of mTORC1 and mTORC2 complexes, which regulate cell growth and survival in response to nutrient and hormonal signals. May be involved in telomere length regulation.

Muscle assembly regulating factor. Mediates the antiparallel assembly of titin (TTN) molecules at the sarcomeric Z-disk

Component of the CST complex proposed to act as a specialized replication factor promoting DNA replication under conditions of replication stress or natural replication barriers such as the telomere duplex. The CST complex binds single-stranded DNA with high affinity in a sequence-independent manner, while isolated subunits bind DNA with low affinity by themselves. Initially the CST complex has been proposed to protect telomeres from DNA degradation. However, the CST complex has been shown to be involved in several aspects of telomere replication. The CST complex inhibits telomerase and is involved in telomere length homeostasis; it is proposed to bind to newly telomerase-synthesized 3' overhangs and to terminate telomerase action implicating the association with the ACD:POT1 complex thus interfering with its telomerase stimulation activity. The CST complex is also proposed to be involved in fill-in synthesis of the telomeric C-strand probably implicating recruitment and activation of DNA polymerase alpha. The CST complex facilitates recovery from many forms of exogenous DNA damage; seems to be involved in the re-initiation of DNA replication at repaired forks and/or dormant origins.

Involved in neural development, regulating the establishment of proper connectivity within the nervous system. Promotes the formation of filopodia and enlarged growth cone in neuronal cells. Induces homophilic cell-cell adhesion (By similarity). May function as a cellular signal transducer.

Involved in neural development by regulating the establishment of proper connectivity within the nervous system. Acts in both pre- and postsynaptic neurons in the hippocampus to control the assembly of a precise topographic projection: required in both CA1 and subicular neurons for the precise targeting of proximal CA1 axons to distal subiculum, probably by promoting homophilic cell adhesion. Required for proper dendrite morphogenesis and axon targeting in the vertebrate visual system, thereby playing a key role in the development of the visual pathway. Regulates the formation in ipsilateral retinal mapping to both the dorsal lateral geniculate nucleus (dLGN) and the superior colliculus (SC). May also be involved in the differentiation of the fibroblast-like cells in the superficial layer of mandibular condylar cartilage into chondrocytes.

Involved in neural development, regulating the establishment of proper connectivity within the nervous system. Plays a role in the establishment of the anterior-posterior axis during gastrulation. Regulates the differentiation and cellular process formation of oligodendrocytes and myelination of small-diameter axons in the central nervous system (CNS). Promotes activation of focal adhesion kinase. May function as a cellular signal transducer (By similarity).

Extracellular matrix protein implicated in guidance of migrating neurons as well as axons during development, synaptic plasticity as well as neuronal regeneration. Promotes neurite outgrowth from cortical neurons grown on a monolayer of astrocytes. Ligand for integrins alpha-8/beta-1, alpha-9/beta-1, alpha-V/beta-3 and alpha- V/beta-6. In tumors, stimulates angiogenesis by elongation, migration and sprouting of endothelial cells.

Extracellular matrix protein that seems to be a ligand for ITGA8:ITGB1, ITGAV:ITGB1 and ITGA4:ITGB1 (By similarity). Involved in neurite outgrowth and cell migration in hippocampal explants (By similarity). During endochondral bone formation, inhibits proliferation and differentiation of proteoblasts mediated by canonical WNT signaling (By similarity). In tumors, stimulates angiogenesis by elongation, migration and sprouting of endothelial cells. Expressed in most mammary tumors, may facilitate tumorigenesis by supporting the migratory behavior of breast cancer cells.

Neural extracellular matrix (ECM) protein involved in interactions with different cells and matrix components. These interactions can influence cellular behavior by either evoking a stable adhesion and differentiation, or repulsion and inhibition of neurite growth. Binding to cell surface gangliosides inhibits RGD-dependent integrin-mediated cell adhesion and results in an inhibition of PTK2/FAK1 (FAK) phosphorylation and cell detachment. Binding to membrane surface sulfatides results in a oligodendrocyte adhesion and differentiation. Interaction with CNTN1 induces a repulsion of neurons and an inhibition of neurite outgrowth. Interacts with SCN2B may play a crucial role in clustering and regulation of activity of sodium channels at nodes of Ranvier. TNR-linked chondroitin sulfate glycosaminoglycans are involved in the interaction with FN1 and mediate inhibition of cell adhesion and neurite outgrowth. The highly regulated addition of sulfated carbohydrate structure may modulate the adhesive properties of TNR over the course of development and during synapse maintenance (By similarity).

Tyrosine-protein phosphatase which regulates cell motility, proliferation and muscle-response to insulin. Phosphatase activity is mediated by binding to phosphatidylinositol-3,4,5-triphosphate (PtdIns(3,4,5)P3) via the SH2 domain. In muscles and under catabolic conditions, dephosphorylates IRS1 leading to its degradation and muscle atrophy. Negatively regulates PI3K-AKT pathway activation. Dephosphorylates nephrin NPHS1 in podocytes which regulates activity of the mTORC1 complex. Under normal glucose conditions, NPHS1 outcompetes IRS1 for binding to phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PI3K) which balances mTORC1 activity but high glucose conditions lead to up-regulation of TNS2, increased NPHS1 dephosphorylation and activation of mTORC1, contributing to podocyte hypertrophy and proteinuria. Required for correct podocyte morphology, podocyte-glomerular basement membrane interaction and integrity of the glomerular filtration barrier (By similarity). Enhances RHOA activation in the presence of DLC1. Plays a role in promoting DLC1-dependent remodeling of the extracellular matrix.

May play a role in actin remodeling. Involved in the dissociation of the integrin-tensin-actin complex. EGF activates TNS4 and down-regulates TNS3 which results in capping the tail of ITGB1. Seems to be involved in mammary cell migration. May be involved in cell migration and bone development (By similarity).

May be involved in cell migration, cartilage development and in linking signal transduction pathways to the cytoskeleton (By similarity). May promote apoptosis, via its cleavage by caspase-3.

Appears to mediate interactions between cells and the extracellular matrix. Substrate-adhesion molecule that appears to inhibit cell migration. Accelerates collagen fibril formation. May play a role in supporting the growth of epithelial tumors.

Component of the telomerase ribonucleoprotein complex that is essential for the replication of chromosome termini. Also a component of the ribonucleoprotein vaults particle, a multi- subunit structure involved in nucleo-cytoplasmic transport (By similarity). Responsible for the localizing and stabilizing vault RNA (vRNA) association in the vault ribonucleoprotein particle. Binds to TERC (By similarity).

Necessary for the fragmentation of Golgi stacks during mitosis and for their reassembly after mitosis. Involved in the formation of the transitional endoplasmic reticulum (tER). The transfer of membranes from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus occurs via 50-70 nm transition vesicles which derive from part-rough, part-smooth transitional elements of the endoplasmic reticulum (tER). Vesicle budding from the tER is an ATP-dependent process. The ternary complex containing UFD1, VCP and NPLOC4 binds ubiquitinated proteins and is necessary for the export of misfolded proteins from the ER to the cytoplasm, where they are degraded by the proteasome. The NPLOC4- UFD1-VCP complex regulates spindle disassembly at the end of mitosis and is necessary for the formation of a closed nuclear envelope. Regulates E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity of RNF19A. Component of the VCP/p97-AMFR/gp78 complex that participates in the final step of the sterol-mediated ubiquitination and endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) of HMGCR. Involved in endoplasmic reticulum stress- induced pre-emptive quality control, a mechanism that selectively attenuates the translocation of newly synthesized proteins into the endoplasmic reticulum and reroutes them to the cytosol for proteasomal degradation. Plays a role in the regulation of stress granules (SGs) clearance process upon arsenite-induced response. Also involved in DNA damage response: recruited to double-strand breaks (DSBs) sites in a RNF8- and RNF168-dependent manner and promotes the recruitment of TP53BP1 at DNA damage sites. Recruited to stalled replication forks by SPRTN: may act by mediating extraction of DNA polymerase eta (POLH) to prevent excessive translesion DNA synthesis and limit the incidence of mutations induced by DNA damage. Together with SPRTN metalloprotease, involved in the repair of covalent DNA-protein cross-links (DPCs) during DNA synthesis. Involved in interstrand cross-link repair in response to replication stress by mediating unloading of the ubiquitinated CMG helicase complex (By similarity). Mediates extraction of PARP1 trapped to chromatin: recognizes and binds ubiquitinated PARP1 and promotes its removal. Required for cytoplasmic retrotranslocation of stressed/damaged mitochondrial outer-membrane proteins and their subsequent proteasomal degradation. Essential for the maturation of ubiquitin-containing autophagosomes and the clearance of ubiquitinated protein by autophagy. Acts as a negative regulator of type I interferon production by interacting with RIGI: interaction takes place when RIGI is ubiquitinated via 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin on its CARD domains, leading to recruit RNF125 and promote ubiquitination and degradation of RIGI. May play a role in the ubiquitin-dependent sorting of membrane proteins to lysosomes where they undergo degradation. May more particularly play a role in caveolins sorting in cells. By controlling the steady-state expression of the IGF1R receptor, indirectly regulates the insulin-like growth factor receptor signaling pathway.

Meiosis-specific telomere-associated protein involved in meiotic telomere attachment to the nucleus inner membrane, a crucial step for homologous pairing and synapsis. Component of the MAJIN-TERB1- TERB2 complex, which promotes telomere cap exchange by mediating attachment of telomeric DNA to the inner nuclear membrane and replacement of the protective cap of telomeric chromosomes: in early meiosis, the MAJIN-TERB1-TERB2 complex associates with telomeric DNA and the shelterin/telosome complex. During prophase, the complex matures and promotes release of the shelterin/telosome complex from telomeric DNA. In the MAJIN-TERB1-TERB2 complex, TERB1 probably mediates association with the shelterin/telosome complex via interaction with TERF1, promoting priming telomeric DNA attachment'. Promotes telomere association with the nuclear envelope and deposition of the SUN-KASH/LINC complex. Also recruits cohesin to telomeres to develop structural rigidity.

Meiosis-specific telomere-associated protein involved in meiotic telomere attachment to the nucleus inner membrane, a crucial step for homologous pairing and synapsis. Component of the MAJIN-TERB1- TERB2 complex, which promotes telomere cap exchange by mediating attachment of telomeric DNA to the inner nuclear membrane and replacement of the protective cap of telomeric chromosomes: in early meiosis, the MAJIN-TERB1-TERB2 complex associates with telomeric DNA and the shelterin/telosome complex. During prophase, the complex matures and promotes release of the shelterin/telosome complex from telomeric DNA.

Binds the telomeric double-stranded 5'-TTAGGG-3' repeat and negatively regulates telomere length. Involved in the regulation of the mitotic spindle. Component of the shelterin complex (telosome) that is involved in the regulation of telomere length and protection. Shelterin associates with arrays of double-stranded 5'-TTAGGG-3' repeats added by telomerase and protects chromosome ends; without its protective activity, telomeres are no longer hidden from the DNA damage surveillance and chromosome ends are inappropriately processed by DNA repair pathways.

Binds the telomeric double-stranded 5'-TTAGGG-3' repeat and plays a central role in telomere maintenance and protection against end-to-end fusion of chromosomes. In addition to its telomeric DNA- binding role, required to recruit a number of factors and enzymes required for telomere protection, including the shelterin complex, TERF2IP/RAP1 and DCLRE1B/Apollo. Component of the shelterin complex (telosome) that is involved in the regulation of telomere length and protection. Shelterin associates with arrays of double-stranded 5'- TTAGGG-3' repeats added by telomerase and protects chromosome ends; without its protective activity, telomeres are no longer hidden from the DNA damage surveillance and chromosome ends are inappropriately processed by DNA repair pathways. Together with DCLRE1B/Apollo, plays a key role in telomeric loop (T loop) formation by generating 3' single- stranded overhang at the leading end telomeres: T loops have been proposed to protect chromosome ends from degradation and repair. Required both to recruit DCLRE1B/Apollo to telomeres and activate the exonuclease activity of DCLRE1B/Apollo. Preferentially binds to positive supercoiled DNA. Together with DCLRE1B/Apollo, required to control the amount of DNA topoisomerase (TOP1, TOP2A and TOP2B) needed for telomere replication during fork passage and prevent aberrant telomere topology. Recruits TERF2IP/RAP1 to telomeres, thereby participating in to repressing homology-directed repair (HDR), which can affect telomere length.

Telomerase is a ribonucleoprotein enzyme essential for the replication of chromosome termini in most eukaryotes. Active in progenitor and cancer cells. Inactive, or very low activity, in normal somatic cells. Catalytic component of the teleromerase holoenzyme complex whose main activity is the elongation of telomeres by acting as a reverse transcriptase that adds simple sequence repeats to chromosome ends by copying a template sequence within the RNA component of the enzyme. Catalyzes the RNA-dependent extension of 3'-chromosomal termini with the 6-nucleotide telomeric repeat unit, 5'-TTAGGG-3'. The catalytic cycle involves primer binding, primer extension and release of product once the template boundary has been reached or nascent product translocation followed by further extension. More active on substrates containing 2 or 3 telomeric repeats. Telomerase activity is regulated by a number of factors including telomerase complex- associated proteins, chaperones and polypeptide modifiers. Modulates Wnt signaling. Plays important roles in aging and antiapoptosis.

Dual specificity protein kinase activity catalyzing autophosphorylation and phosphorylation of exogenous substrates on both serine/threonine and tyrosine residues (By similarity). Regulates the cellular cytoskeleton by enhancing actin stress fiber formation via phosphorylation of cofilin and by preventing microtubule breakdown via inhibition of TAOK1/MARKK kinase activity (By similarity). Inhibits podocyte motility via regulation of actin cytoskeletal dynamics and phosphorylation of CFL1 (By similarity). Positively regulates integrin- mediated cell spreading, via phosphorylation of cofilin. Suppresses ciliogenesis via multiple pathways; phosphorylation of CFL1, suppression of ciliary vesicle directional trafficking to the ciliary base, and by facilitating YAP1 nuclear localization where it acts as a transcriptional corepressor of the TEAD4 target genes AURKA and PLK1. Probably plays a central role at and after the meiotic phase of spermatogenesis (By similarity).

Dual specificity protein kinase activity catalyzing autophosphorylation and phosphorylation of exogenous substrates on both serine/threonine and tyrosine residues. Phosphorylates cofilin at 'Ser- 3'. May play an important role in spermatogenesis

Required for the development and maturation of T-cells, its function being essential for the late stages of thymocyte development (By similarity). Plays a role in T-cell antigen receptor (TCR)-mediated activation of the ERK and NFAT signaling pathways, possibly by serving as a scaffolding protein that promotes the assembly of the LAT signalosome in thymocytes. May play a role in the regulation of inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate receptor-mediated Ca(2+) release and mitochondrial Ca(2+) uptake via the mitochondria-associated endoplasmic reticulum membrane (MAM) compartment.

Could regulate proteolytic events associated with testicular germ cell maturation

Scaffold protein that may play a role in cell adhesion, cell spreading and in the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton. Plays a role in the regulation of cell proliferation. May act as a tumor suppressor. Inhibits tumor cell growth.

Dioxygenase that catalyzes the conversion of the modified genomic base 5-methylcytosine (5mC) into 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC) and plays a key role in active DNA demethylation. Also mediates subsequent conversion of 5hmC into 5- formylcytosine (5fC), and conversion of 5fC to 5-carboxylcytosine (5caC). In addition to its role in DNA demethylation, plays a more general role in chromatin regulation by recruiting histone modifying protein complexes to alter histone marks and chromatin accessibility, leading to both activation and repression of gene expression. Plays therefore a role in many biological processes and diseases, including stem cell maintenance, T and B-cell development, inflammation regulation, genomic imprinting, neural activity or DNA repair. Involved in the balance between pluripotency and lineage commitment of cells it plays a role in embryonic stem cells maintenance and inner cell mass cell specification. Plays an important role in the tumorigenicity of glioblastoma cells. TET1-mediated production of 5hmC acts as a recruitment signal for the CHTOP-methylosome complex to selective sites on the chromosome, where it methylates H4R3 and activates the transcription of genes involved in glioblastomagenesis. Binds preferentially to DNA containing cytidine- phosphate-guanosine (CpG) dinucleotides over CpH (H=A, T, and C), hemimethylated-CpG and hemimethylated-hydroxymethyl-CpG. Plays an essential role in the protection and maintenance of transcriptional and developmental programs together with QSER1 to inhibit the binding of DNMT3A/3B and therefore de novo methylation.

Dioxygenase that catalyzes the conversion of the modified genomic base 5-methylcytosine (5mC) into 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC) and plays a key role in active DNA demethylation. Has a preference for 5-hydroxymethylcytosine in CpG motifs. Also mediates subsequent conversion of 5hmC into 5-formylcytosine (5fC), and conversion of 5fC to 5-carboxylcytosine (5caC). Conversion of 5mC into 5hmC, 5fC and 5caC probably constitutes the first step in cytosine demethylation. Methylation at the C5 position of cytosine bases is an epigenetic modification of the mammalian genome which plays an important role in transcriptional regulation. In addition to its role in DNA demethylation, also involved in the recruitment of the O-GlcNAc transferase OGT to CpG-rich transcription start sites of active genes, thereby promoting histone H2B GlcNAcylation by OGT.

Dioxygenase that catalyzes the conversion of the modified genomic base 5-methylcytosine (5mC) into 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC) and plays a key role in epigenetic chromatin reprogramming in the zygote following fertilization. Also mediates subsequent conversion of 5hmC into 5-formylcytosine (5fC), and conversion of 5fC to 5-carboxylcytosine (5caC). Conversion of 5mC into 5hmC, 5fC and 5caC probably constitutes the first step in cytosine demethylation (By similarity). Selectively binds to the promoter region of target genes and contributes to regulate the expression of numerous developmental genes. In zygotes, DNA demethylation occurs selectively in the paternal pronucleus before the first cell division, while the adjacent maternal pronucleus and certain paternally-imprinted loci are protected from this process. Participates in DNA demethylation in the paternal pronucleus by mediating conversion of 5mC into 5hmC, 5fC and 5caC. Does not mediate DNA demethylation of maternal pronucleus because of the presence of DPPA3/PGC7 on maternal chromatin that prevents TET3-binding to chromatin (By similarity). In addition to its role in DNA demethylation, also involved in the recruitment of the O-GlcNAc transferase OGT to CpG-rich transcription start sites of active genes, thereby promoting histone H2B GlcNAcylation by OGT. Binds preferentially to DNA containing cytidine-phosphate-guanosine (CpG) dinucleotides over CpH (H=A, T, and C), hemimethylated-CpG and hemimethylated-hydroxymethyl- CpG.

Cytoplasmic non-canonical poly(A) RNA polymerase that catalyzes the transfer of one adenosine molecule from an ATP to an mRNA poly(A) tail bearing a 3'-OH terminal group and participates in the cytoplasmic polyadenylation. Polyadenylates mRNA encoding extracellular matrix constituents and other genes crucial for bone mineralization and during osteoblast mineralization, mainly focuses on ER-targeted mRNAs (By similarity).

Catalyzes the transfer of one adenosine molecule from an ATP to an mRNA poly(A) tail bearing a 3'-OH terminal group in an ATP hydrolysis-dependent manner. May be involved in maintaining the translation efficiency of at least some genes through preventing degradation of their mRNAs. Prefers RNA molecules that are adenosine-rich close to 3'-end. In addition, may inhibit cell proliferation and cell cycle progression through ubiquitination of beta-catenin/CTNNB1.

Catalyzes the transfer of one adenosine molecule from an ATP to an mRNA poly(A) tail bearing a 3'-OH terminal group and enhances mRNA stability and gene expression. Can also elongate RNA oligos ending with uridine molecule, provided that the sequence is adenosine-rich. Mainly targets mRNAs encoding endoplasmic reticulum- targeted protein.

Catalyzes the transfer of one adenosine molecule from an ATP to an mRNA poly(A) tail bearing a 3'-OH terminal group.

Tetranectin binds to plasminogen and to isolated kringle 4. May be involved in the packaging of molecules destined for exocytosis

Functions as a component of the Five Friends of Methylated CHTOP (5FMC) complex; the 5FMC complex is recruited to ZNF148 by methylated CHTOP, leading to desumoylation of ZNF148 and subsequent transactivation of ZNF148 target genes. Component of the PELP1 complex involved in the nucleolar steps of 28S rRNA maturation and the subsequent nucleoplasmic transit of the pre-60S ribosomal subunit.

Regulator of crossing-over during meiosis. Involved in initiation and/or maintenance of chromosome synapsis and formation of crossovers.

Component of the transverse central element of synaptonemal complexes (SCS), formed between homologous chromosomes during meiotic prophase (By similarity). Requires SYCP1 in order to be incorporated into the central element (By similarity).

Required both for the formation of intercellular bridges during meiosis and for kinetochore-microtubule attachment during mitosis. Intercellular bridges are evolutionarily conserved structures that connect differentiating germ cells and are required for spermatogenesis and male fertility. Acts by promoting the conversion of midbodies into intercellular bridges via its interaction with CEP55: interaction with CEP55 inhibits the interaction between CEP55 and PDCD6IP/ALIX and TSG101, blocking cell abscission and leading to transform midbodies into intercellular bridges. Also plays a role during mitosis: recruited to kinetochores by PLK1 during early mitosis and regulates the maturation of the outer kinetochores and microtubule attachment. Has no protein kinase activity in vitro (By similarity).

Required during spermatogenesis and placenta development, participating in the repression of retrotransposable elements and prevent their mobilization. Collaborates with the Piwi-interacting RNA (piRNA) pathway, which mediates the repression of transposable elements during meiosis by forming complexes composed of piRNAs and Piwi proteins. Interacts with Piwi proteins and directly binds piRNAs, a class of 24 to 30 nucleotide RNAs that are generated by a Dicer- independent mechanism and are primarily derived from transposons and other repeated sequence elements. Also during spermatogenesis, promotes, with UBR2, SPO11-dependent recombination foci to accumulate and drive robust homologous chromosome synapsis (By similarity). Interacts with LINE-1 retrotransposon encoded LIRE1, stimulates LIRE1 polyubiquitination, mediated by UBR2, and degradation, inhibiting LINE- 1 retrotransposon mobilization.

During endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress or when cellular ceramide levels increase, may induce contacts between the ER and medial-Golgi complex to facilitate non-vesicular transport of ceramides from the ER to the Golgi complex where they are converted to complex sphingolipids, preventing toxic ceramide accumulation.

May function as a testis specific transcription factor. Binds DNA in conjunction with GTF2A2 and TBP (the TATA-binding protein) and together with GTF2A2, allows mRNA transcription.

General transcription factor that plays a role in transcription initiation by RNA polymerase II (Pol II). Involved in the pre-initiation complex (PIC) formation and Pol II recruitment at promoter DNA. Together with the TATA box-bound TBP forms the core initiation complex and provides a bridge between TBP and the Pol II-TFIIF complex. Released from the PIC early following the onset of transcription during the initiation and elongation transition and reassociates with TBP during the next transcription cycle. Associates with chromatin to core promoter-specific regions. Binds to two distinct DNA core promoter consensus sequence elements in a TBP- independent manner; these IIB-recognition elements (BREs) are localized immediately upstream (BREu), 5'-[GC][GC][GA]CGCC-3', and downstream (BREd), 5'-[GA]T[TGA][TG][GT][TG][TG]-3', of the TATA box element. Modulates transcription start site selection. Exhibits also autoacetyltransferase activity that contributes to the activated transcription.

Component of the general transcription and DNA repair factor IIH (TFIIH) core complex, which is involved in general and transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair (NER) of damaged DNA and, when complexed to CAK, in RNA transcription by RNA polymerase II. In NER, TFIIH acts by opening DNA around the lesion to allow the excision of the damaged oligonucleotide and its replacement by a new DNA fragment. In transcription, TFIIH has an essential role in transcription initiation. When the pre-initiation complex (PIC) has been established, TFIIH is required for promoter opening and promoter escape. Phosphorylation of the C-terminal tail (CTD) of the largest subunit of RNA polymerase II by the kinase module CAK controls the initiation of transcription.

Component of the general transcription and DNA repair factor IIH (TFIIH) core complex, which is involved in general and transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair (NER) of damaged DNA and, when complexed to CAK, in RNA transcription by RNA polymerase II. In NER, TFIIH acts by opening DNA around the lesion to allow the excision of the damaged oligonucleotide and its replacement by a new DNA fragment. In transcription, TFIIH has an essential role in transcription initiation. When the pre-initiation complex (PIC) has been established, TFIIH is required for promoter opening and promoter escape. Phosphorylation of the C-terminal tail (CTD) of the largest subunit of RNA polymerase II by the kinase module CAK controls the initiation of transcription. The N-terminus of GTF2H2 interacts with and regulates XPD whereas an intact C-terminus is required for a successful escape of RNAP II form the promoter.

Component of the general transcription and DNA repair factor IIH (TFIIH) core complex, which is involved in general and transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair (NER) of damaged DNA and, when complexed to CAK, in RNA transcription by RNA polymerase II. In NER, TFIIH acts by opening DNA around the lesion to allow the excision of the damaged oligonucleotide and its replacement by a new DNA fragment. In transcription, TFIIH has an essential role in transcription initiation. When the pre-initiation complex (PIC) has been established, TFIIH is required for promoter opening and promoter escape. Phosphorylation of the C-terminal tail (CTD) of the largest subunit of RNA polymerase II by the kinase module CAK controls the initiation of transcription. Necessary for the stability of the TFIIH complex and for the presence of normal levels of TFIIH in the cell.

Transcription factor that facilitates establishment and maintenance of pluripotency in embryonic stem cells (ESCs). With KLF2, acts as the major effector of self-renewal that mediates induction of pluripotency downstream of LIF/STAT3 and Wnt/beta-catenin signaling (By similarity). Required for normal duct development in the salivary gland and kidney (By similarity). Coordinates the development of the kidney collecting ducts intercalated (IC) and principal (PC) cells, which regulate acid- base and salt-water homeostasis, respectively (By similarity). Regulates the expression of IC genes including subunits B1 and D2 of the V-ATPase complex, OXGR1, CA12, SLC4A1, AQP6 and IC-specific transcription factor FOXI1 (By similarity). Regulates also the expression of JAG1 and subsequent notch signaling in the collecting duct (By similarity). JAG1 initiates notch signaling in PCs but inhibits notch signaling in ICs (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional suppressor that may suppress UBP1-mediated transcriptional activation (By similarity). Modulates the placental expression of CYP11A1.

May have a transcription role in testis. May act as a competitor/regulator of TGIF2LX

Involved in ribosomal large subunit biogenesis. Binds the approximately 50 base pairs internal control region (ICR) of 5S ribosomal RNA genes. It is required for their RNA polymerase III- dependent transcription and may also maintain the transcription of other genes. Also binds the transcribed 5S RNA's (By similarity).

General activator of RNA polymerase which utilizes different TFIIIB complexes at structurally distinct promoters. The isoform 1 is involved in the transcription of tRNA, adenovirus VA1, 7SL and 5S RNA. Isoform 2 is required for transcription of the U6 promoter

Required for RNA polymerase III-mediated transcription. Component of TFIIIC that initiates transcription complex assembly on tRNA and is required for transcription of 5S rRNA and other stable nuclear and cytoplasmic RNAs. Binds to the box B promoter element

Required for RNA polymerase III-mediated transcription. Component of TFIIIC that initiates transcription complex assembly on tRNA and is required for transcription of 5S rRNA and other stable nuclear and cytoplasmic RNAs. May play a direct role in stabilizing interactions of TFIIIC2 with TFIIIC1

Involved in RNA polymerase III-mediated transcription. Integral, tightly associated component of the DNA-binding TFIIIC2 subcomplex that directly binds tRNA and virus-associated RNA promoters

Essential for RNA polymerase III to make a number of small nuclear and cytoplasmic RNAs, including 5S RNA, tRNA, and adenovirus- associated (VA) RNA of both cellular and viral origin. Has histone acetyltransferase activity (HAT) with unique specificity for free and nucleosomal H3. May cooperate with GTF3C5 in facilitating the recruitment of TFIIIB and RNA polymerase through direct interactions with BRF1, POLR3C and POLR3F. May be localized close to the A box

Involved in RNA polymerase III-mediated transcription. Integral, tightly associated component of the DNA-binding TFIIIC2 subcomplex that directly binds tRNA and virus-associated RNA promoters.

NF-kappa-B is a pleiotropic transcription factor present in almost all cell types and is the endpoint of a series of signal transduction events that are initiated by a vast array of stimuli related to many biological processes such as inflammation, immunity, differentiation, cell growth, tumorigenesis and apoptosis. NF-kappa-B is a homo- or heterodimeric complex formed by the Rel-like domain- containing proteins RELA/p65, RELB, NFKB1/p105, NFKB1/p50, REL and NFKB2/p52. The heterodimeric RELA-NFKB1 complex appears to be most abundant one. The dimers bind at kappa-B sites in the DNA of their target genes and the individual dimers have distinct preferences for different kappa-B sites that they can bind with distinguishable affinity and specificity. Different dimer combinations act as transcriptional activators or repressors, respectively. The NF-kappa-B heterodimeric RELA-NFKB1 and RELA-REL complexes, for instance, function as transcriptional activators. NF-kappa-B is controlled by various mechanisms of post-translational modification and subcellular compartmentalization as well as by interactions with other cofactors or corepressors. NF-kappa-B complexes are held in the cytoplasm in an inactive state complexed with members of the NF-kappa-B inhibitor (I- kappa-B) family. In a conventional activation pathway, I-kappa-B is phosphorylated by I-kappa-B kinases (IKKs) in response to different activators, subsequently degraded thus liberating the active NF-kappa-B complex which translocates to the nucleus. The inhibitory effect of I- kappa-B on NF-kappa-B through retention in the cytoplasm is exerted primarily through the interaction with RELA. RELA shows a weak DNA- binding site which could contribute directly to DNA binding in the NF- kappa-B complex. Beside its activity as a direct transcriptional activator, it is also able to modulate promoters accessibility to transcription factors and thereby indirectly regulate gene expression. Associates with chromatin at the NF-kappa-B promoter region via association with DDX1. Essential for cytokine gene expression in T- cells. The NF-kappa-B homodimeric RELA-RELA complex appears to be involved in invasin-mediated activation of IL-8 expression. Key transcription factor regulating the IFN response during SARS-CoV-2 infection.

Participates in the Wnt signaling pathway. Binds to DNA and acts as a repressor in the absence of CTNNB1, and as an activator in its presence. Necessary for the terminal differentiation of epidermal cells, the formation of keratohyalin granules and the development of the barrier function of the epidermis (By similarity). Down-regulates NQO1, leading to increased mitomycin c resistance.

Participates in the Wnt signaling pathway and modulates MYC expression by binding to its promoter in a sequence-specific manner. Acts as repressor in the absence of CTNNB1, and as activator in its presence. Activates transcription from promoters with several copies of the Tcf motif 5'-CCTTTGATC-3' in the presence of CTNNB1. TLE1, TLE2, TLE3 and TLE4 repress transactivation mediated by TCF7L2/TCF4 and CTNNB1. Expression of dominant-negative mutants results in cell-cycle arrest in G1. Necessary for the maintenance of the epithelial stem-cell compartment of the small intestine.

Binds to the mitochondrial light strand promoter and functions in mitochondrial transcription regulation. Component of the mitochondrial transcription initiation complex, composed at least of TFB2M, TFAM and POLRMT that is required for basal transcription of mitochondrial DNA. In this complex, TFAM recruits POLRMT to a specific promoter whereas TFB2M induces structural changes in POLRMT to enable promoter opening and trapping of the DNA non-template strand. Required for accurate and efficient promoter recognition by the mitochondrial RNA polymerase. Promotes transcription initiation from the HSP1 and the light strand promoter by binding immediately upstream of transcriptional start sites. Is able to unwind DNA. Bends the mitochondrial light strand promoter DNA into a U-turn shape via its HMG boxes. Required for maintenance of normal levels of mitochondrial DNA. May play a role in organizing and compacting mitochondrial DNA.

Transcription factor that activates both viral and cellular genes by binding to the symmetrical DNA sequence 5'-CAGCTG-3'

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase which specifically dimethylates mitochondrial 12S rRNA at the conserved stem loop. Also required for basal transcription of mitochondrial DNA, probably via its interaction with POLRMT and TFAM. Stimulates transcription independently of the methyltransferase activity.

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent rRNA methyltransferase which may methylate two specific adjacent adenosines in the loop of a conserved hairpin near the 3'-end of 12S mitochondrial rRNA (Probable). Component of the mitochondrial transcription initiation complex, composed at least of TFB2M, TFAM and POLRMT that is required for basal transcription of mitochondrial DNA. In this complex, TFAM recruits POLRMT to a specific promoter whereas TFB2M induces structural changes in POLRMT to enable promoter opening and trapping of the DNA non- template strand. Stimulates transcription independently of the methyltransferase activity.

Binds a variety of cellular and viral promoters including fibrinogen, alpha-globin, SV40 and HIV-1 promoters. Activation of the alpha-globin promoter in erythroid cells is via synergistic interaction with UBP1 (By similarity). Functions as part of the SSP (stage selector protein) complex. Facilitates the interaction of the gamma-globin genes with enhancer elements contained in the locus control region in fetal erythroid cells. Interacts by binding to the stage selector element (SSE) in the proximal gamma-globin promoter.

Can stimulate E2F-dependent transcription. Binds DNA cooperatively with E2F family members through the E2 recognition site, 5'-TTTC[CG]CGC-3', found in the promoter region of a number of genes whose products are involved in cell cycle regulation or in DNA replication. The E2F1:DP complex appears to mediate both cell proliferation and apoptosis. Blocks adipocyte differentiation by repressing CEBPA binding to its target gene promoters.

Can stimulate E2F-dependent transcription. Binds DNA cooperatively with E2F family members through the E2 recognition site, 5'-TTTC[CG]CGC-3', found in the promoter region of a number of genes whose products are involved in cell cycle regulation or in DNA replication. The TFDP2:E2F complex functions in the control of cell- cycle progression from G1 to S phase. The E2F1:DP complex appears to mediate both cell proliferation and apoptosis. Blocks adipocyte differentiation by repressing CEBPA binding to its target gene promoters.

Competitive inhibitor of E2F-mediated transactivation activity. Impairs E2F-mediated cell-cycle progression from G(1) to S phase.

Transcriptional regulator involved in the initiation of neuronal differentiation and mesenchymal to epithelial transition (By similarity). Heterodimers between TCF3 and tissue-specific basic helix- loop-helix (bHLH) proteins play major roles in determining tissue- specific cell fate during embryogenesis, like muscle or early B-cell differentiation (By similarity). Together with TCF15, required for the mesenchymal to epithelial transition (By similarity). Dimers bind DNA on E-box motifs: 5'-CANNTG-3' (By similarity). Binds to the kappa-E2 site in the kappa immunoglobulin gene enhancer. Binds to IEB1 and IEB2, which are short DNA sequences in the insulin gene transcription control region (By similarity).

Transcription factor that acts as a master regulator of lysosomal biogenesis and immune response. Specifically recognizes and binds E-box sequences (5'-CANNTG-3'); efficient DNA- binding requires dimerization with itself or with another MiT/TFE family member such as TFEB or MITF (By similarity). Involved in the cellular response to amino acid availability by acting downstream of MTOR: in the presence of nutrients, TFE3 phosphorylation by MTOR promotes its cytosolic retention and subsequent inactivation. Upon starvation or lysosomal stress, inhibition of MTOR induces TFE3 dephosphorylation, resulting in nuclear localization and transcription factor activity. Maintains the pluripotent state of embryonic stem cells by promoting the expression of genes such as ESRRB; mTOR-dependent TFE3 cytosolic retention and inactivation promotes exit from pluripotency (By similarity). Required to maintain the naive pluripotent state of hematopoietic stem cell; mTOR-dependent cytoplasmic retention of TFE3 promotes the exit of hematopoietic stem cell from pluripotency. TFE3 activity is also involved in the inhibition of neuronal progenitor differentiation (By similarity). Acts as a positive regulator of browning of adipose tissue by promoting expression of target genes; mTOR-dependent phosphorylation promotes cytoplasmic retention of TFE3 and inhibits browning of adipose tissue (By similarity). In association with TFEB, activates the expression of CD40L in T-cells, thereby playing a role in T-cell-dependent antibody responses in activated CD4(+) T-cells and thymus-dependent humoral immunity (By similarity). Specifically recognizes the MUE3 box, a subset of E-boxes, present in the immunoglobulin enhancer. It also binds very well to a USF/MLTF site. May regulate lysosomal positioning in response to nutrient deprivation by promoting the expression of PIP4P1.

Transcription factor that acts as a master regulator of lysosomal biogenesis, autophagy, lysosomal exocytosis, lipid catabolism, energy metabolism and immune response. Specifically recognizes and binds E- box sequences (5'-CANNTG-3'); efficient DNA-binding requires dimerization with itself or with another MiT/TFE family member such as TFE3 or MITF. Involved in the cellular response to amino acid availability by acting downstream of MTOR: in the presence of nutrients, TFEB phosphorylation by MTOR promotes its cytosolic retention and subsequent inactivation. Upon starvation or lysosomal stress, inhibition of MTOR induces TFEB dephosphorylation, resulting in nuclear localization and transcription factor activity. Specifically recognizes and binds the CLEAR-box sequence (5'-GTCACGTGAC-3') present in the regulatory region of many lysosomal genes, leading to activate their expression, thereby playing a central role in expression of lysosomal genes. Regulates lysosomal positioning in response to nutrient deprivation by promoting the expression of PIP4P1. Acts as a positive regulator of autophagy by promoting expression of genes involved in autophagy. In association with TFE3, activates the expression of CD40L in T-cells, thereby playing a role in T-cell-dependent antibody responses in activated CD4(+) T-cells and thymus-dependent humoral immunity (By similarity). Specifically recognizes the gamma-E3 box, a subset of E-boxes, present in the heavy- chain immunoglobulin enhancer. Plays a role in the signal transduction processes required for normal vascularization of the placenta (By similarity). Involved in the immune response to infection by the bacteria S.aureus, S.typhimurium or S.enterica: infection promotes itaconate production, leading to alkylation, resulting in nuclear localization and transcription factor activity. Itaconate-mediated alkylation activates TFEB- dependent lysosomal biogenesis, facilitating the bacteria clearance during the antibacterial innate immune response.

Transcriptional regulator that acts as a repressor or an activator. Acts as a transcriptional repressor on minimal promoter containing element F (that includes an E-box sequence). Binds to element F in an E-box sequence-specific manner. Acts as a transcriptional transactivator on the proximal promoter region of the tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) E-box containing promoter (By similarity). Collaborates with MITF in target gene activation (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional repressor on minimal promoter containing mu E3 enhancer sequence (By similarity). Binds to mu E3 DNA sequence of the immunoglobulin heavy-chain gene enhancer (By similarity). Binds DNA in a homo- or heterodimeric form.

Stabilizer of the mucous gel overlying the gastrointestinal mucosa that provides a physical barrier against various noxious agents. May inhibit the growth of calcium oxalate crystals in urine.

Inhibits gastrointestinal motility and gastric acid secretion. Could function as a structural component of gastric mucus, possibly by stabilizing glycoproteins in the mucus gel through interactions with carbohydrate side chains (By similarity).

Involved in the maintenance and repair of the intestinal mucosa. Promotes the mobility of epithelial cells in healing processes (motogen).

Plays a role in the normal dynamic function of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and its associated microtubules. Required for secretory cargo traffic from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus.

Acts as a negative mediator of apoptosis and may play a role in tumor progression. Suppresses the TNF-mediated apoptosis by inhibiting caspase-8 activity but not the processing of procaspase-8, subsequently resulting in inhibition of BID cleavage and caspase-3 activation.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing, specifically in spliceosome disassembly during late-stage splicing events. Intron turnover seems to proceed through reactions in two lariat-intron associated complexes termed Intron Large (IL) and Intron Small (IS). In cooperation with DHX15 seems to mediate the transition of the U2, U5 and U6 snRNP- containing IL complex to the snRNP-free IS complex leading to efficient debranching and turnover of excised introns. May play a role in the differentiation of ameloblasts and odontoblasts or in the forming of the enamel extracellular matrix.

Inhibits factor X (X(a)) directly and, in a Xa-dependent way, inhibits VIIa/tissue factor activity, presumably by forming a quaternary Xa/LACI/VIIa/TF complex. It possesses an antithrombotic action and also the ability to associate with lipoproteins in plasma

May play a role in the regulation of plasmin-mediated matrix remodeling. Inhibits trypsin, plasmin, factor VIIa/tissue factor and weakly factor Xa. Has no effect on thrombin.

Cellular uptake of iron occurs via receptor-mediated endocytosis of ligand-occupied transferrin receptor into specialized endosomes. Endosomal acidification leads to iron release. The apotransferrin-receptor complex is then recycled to the cell surface with a return to neutral pH and the concomitant loss of affinity of apotransferrin for its receptor. Transferrin receptor is necessary for development of erythrocytes and the nervous system (By similarity). A second ligand, the heditary hemochromatosis protein HFE, competes for binding with transferrin for an overlapping C-terminal binding site. Positively regulates T and B cell proliferation through iron uptake. Acts as a lipid sensor that regulates mitochondrial fusion by regulating activation of the JNK pathway. When dietary levels of stearate (C18:0) are low, promotes activation of the JNK pathway, resulting in HUWE1-mediated ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of the mitofusin MFN2 and inhibition of mitochondrial fusion. When dietary levels of stearate (C18:0) are high, TFRC stearoylation inhibits activation of the JNK pathway and thus degradation of the mitofusin MFN2.

Mediates cellular uptake of transferrin-bound iron in a non- iron dependent manner. May be involved in iron metabolism, hepatocyte function and erythrocyte differentiation

Initiates blood coagulation by forming a complex with circulating factor VII or VIIa. The [TF:VIIa] complex activates factors IX or X by specific limited proteolysis. TF plays a role in normal hemostasis by initiating the cell-surface assembly and propagation of the coagulation protease cascade.

Binds to TGF-beta. Could be involved in capturing and retaining TGF-beta for presentation to the signaling receptors

Plays a role in the TGF-beta/activin signaling pathway. It associates with inactive heteromeric TGF-beta and activin receptor complexes, mainly through the type II receptor, and is released upon activation of signaling. May recruit SMAD4 to the vicinity of the receptor complex and facilitate its interaction with receptor-regulated Smads, such as SMAD2.

TGF alpha is a mitogenic polypeptide that is able to bind to the EGF receptor/EGFR and to act synergistically with TGF beta to promote anchorage-independent cell proliferation in soft agar

[Transforming growth factor beta-2 proprotein]: Precursor of the Latency-associated peptide (LAP) and Transforming growth factor beta-2 (TGF-beta-2) chains, which constitute the regulatory and active subunit of TGF-beta-2, respectively.

Transforming growth factor beta-3 proprotein: Precursor of the Latency-associated peptide (LAP) and Transforming growth factor beta-3 (TGF-beta-3) chains, which constitute the regulatory and active subunit of TGF-beta-3, respectively.

Functions as a molecular adapter coordinating multiple protein-protein interactions at the focal adhesion complex and in the nucleus. Links various intracellular signaling modules to plasma membrane receptors and regulates the Wnt and TGFB signaling pathways. May also regulate SLC6A3 and SLC6A4 targeting to the plasma membrane hence regulating their activity. In the nucleus, functions as a nuclear receptor coactivator regulating glucocorticoid, androgen, mineralocorticoid and progesterone receptor transcriptional activity. May play a role in the processes of cell growth, proliferation, migration, differentiation and senescence. May have a zinc-dependent DNA-binding activity.

Transmembrane serine/threonine kinase forming with the TGF- beta type II serine/threonine kinase receptor, TGFBR2, the non- promiscuous receptor for the TGF-beta cytokines TGFB1, TGFB2 and TGFB3. Transduces the TGFB1, TGFB2 and TGFB3 signal from the cell surface to the cytoplasm and is thus regulating a plethora of physiological and pathological processes including cell cycle arrest in epithelial and hematopoietic cells, control of mesenchymal cell proliferation and differentiation, wound healing, extracellular matrix production, immunosuppression and carcinogenesis. The formation of the receptor complex composed of 2 TGFBR1 and 2 TGFBR2 molecules symmetrically bound to the cytokine dimer results in the phosphorylation and the activation of TGFBR1 by the constitutively active TGFBR2. Activated TGFBR1 phosphorylates SMAD2 which dissociates from the receptor and interacts with SMAD4. The SMAD2-SMAD4 complex is subsequently translocated to the nucleus where it modulates the transcription of the TGF-beta-regulated genes. This constitutes the canonical SMAD-dependent TGF-beta signaling cascade. Also involved in non-canonical, SMAD-independent TGF-beta signaling pathways. For instance, TGFBR1 induces TRAF6 autoubiquitination which in turn results in MAP3K7 ubiquitination and activation to trigger apoptosis. Also regulates epithelial to mesenchymal transition through a SMAD-independent signaling pathway through PARD6A phosphorylation and activation.

Transmembrane serine/threonine kinase forming with the TGF- beta type I serine/threonine kinase receptor, TGFBR1, the non- promiscuous receptor for the TGF-beta cytokines TGFB1, TGFB2 and TGFB3. Transduces the TGFB1, TGFB2 and TGFB3 signal from the cell surface to the cytoplasm and thus regulates a plethora of physiological and pathological processes including cell cycle arrest in epithelial and hematopoietic cells, control of mesenchymal cell proliferation and differentiation, wound healing, extracellular matrix production, immunosuppression and carcinogenesis. The formation of the receptor complex composed of 2 TGFBR1 and 2 TGFBR2 molecules symmetrically bound to the cytokine dimer results in the phosphorylation and activation of TGFBR1 by the constitutively active TGFBR2. Activated TGFBR1 phosphorylates SMAD2 which dissociates from the receptor and interacts with SMAD4. The SMAD2-SMAD4 complex is subsequently translocated to the nucleus where it modulates the transcription of the TGF-beta-regulated genes. This constitutes the canonical SMAD-dependent TGF-beta signaling cascade. Also involved in non-canonical, SMAD-independent TGF-beta signaling pathways.

Binds to a retinoid X receptor (RXR) responsive element from the cellular retinol-binding protein II promoter (CRBPII-RXRE). Inhibits the 9-cis-retinoic acid-dependent RXR alpha transcription activation of the retinoic acid responsive element. Active transcriptional corepressor of SMAD2. Links the nodal signaling pathway to the bifurcation of the forebrain and the establishment of ventral midline structures. May participate in the transmission of nuclear signals during development and in the adult, as illustrated by the down-modulation of the RXR alpha activities

Transcriptional repressor, which probably repress transcription by binding directly the 5'-CTGTCAA-3' DNA sequence or by interacting with TGF-beta activated SMAD proteins. Probably represses transcription via the recruitment of histone deacetylase proteins.

Catalyzes the cross-linking of proteins and the conjugation of polyamines to proteins. Responsible for cross-linking epidermal proteins during formation of the stratum corneum. Involved in cell proliferation.

Calcium-dependent acyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of covalent bonds between peptide-bound glutamine and various primary amines, such as gamma-amino group of peptide-bound lysine, or mono- and polyamines, thereby producing cross-linked or aminated proteins, respectively. Involved in many biological processes, such as bone development, angiogenesis, wound healing, cellular differentiation, chromatin modification and apoptosis. Acts as a protein-glutamine gamma- glutamyltransferase by mediating the cross-linking of proteins, such as ACO2, HSPB6, FN1, HMGB1, RAP1GDS1, SLC25A4/ANT1, SPP1 and WDR54. Under physiological conditions, the protein cross-linking activity is inhibited by GTP; inhibition is relieved by Ca(2+) in response to various stresses. When secreted, catalyzes cross-linking of proteins of the extracellular matrix, such as FN1 and SPP1 resulting in the formation of scaffolds. Plays a key role during apoptosis, both by (1) promoting the cross-linking of cytoskeletal proteins resulting in condensation of the cytoplasm, and by (2) mediating cross-linking proteins of the extracellular matrix, resulting in the irreversible formation of scaffolds that stabilize the integrity of the dying cells before their clearance by phagocytosis, thereby preventing the leakage of harmful intracellular components. In addition to protein cross-linking, can use different monoamine substrates to catalyze a vast array of protein post-translational modifications: mediates aminylation of serotonin, dopamine, noradrenaline or histamine into glutamine residues of target proteins to generate protein serotonylation, dopaminylation, noradrenalinylation or histaminylation, respectively. Mediates protein serotonylation of small GTPases during activation and aggregation of platelets, leading to constitutive activation of these GTPases (By similarity). Plays a key role in chromatin organization by mediating serotonylation and dopaminylation of histone H3. Catalyzes serotonylation of 'Gln-5' of histone H3 (H3Q5ser) during serotonergic neuron differentiation, thereby facilitating transcription. Acts as a mediator of neurotransmission-independent role of nuclear dopamine in ventral tegmental area (VTA) neurons: catalyzes dopaminylation of 'Gln- 5' of histone H3 (H3Q5dop), thereby regulating relapse-related transcriptional plasticity in the reward system. Regulates vein remodeling by mediating serotonylation and subsequent inactivation of ATP2A2/SERCA2 (By similarity). Also acts as a protein deamidase by mediating the side chain deamidation of specific glutamine residues of proteins to glutamate. Catalyzes specific deamidation of protein gliadin, a component of wheat gluten in the diet. May also act as an isopeptidase cleaving the previously formed cross-links. Also able to participate in signaling pathways independently of its acyltransferase activity: acts as a signal transducer in alpha-1 adrenergic receptor-mediated stimulation of phospholipase C-delta (PLCD) activity and is required for coupling alpha-1 adrenergic agonists to the stimulation of phosphoinositide lipid metabolism.

Catalyzes the cross-linking of proteins and the conjugation of polyamines to proteins.

Catalyzes the calcium-dependent formation of isopeptide cross-links between glutamine and lysine residues in various proteins, as well as the conjugation of polyamines to proteins. Involved in the formation of the cornified envelope (CE), a specialized component consisting of covalent cross-links of proteins beneath the plasma membrane of terminally differentiated keratinocytes. Catalyzes small proline-rich proteins (SPRR1 and SPRR2) and LOR cross-linking to form small interchain oligomers, which are further cross-linked by TGM1 onto the growing CE scaffold (By similarity). In hair follicles, involved in cross-linking structural proteins to hardening the inner root sheath.

Associated with the mammalian reproductive process. Catalyzes the cross-linking of proteins and the conjugation of polyamines to specific proteins in the seminal tract

Catalyzes the cross-linking of proteins and the conjugation of polyamines to proteins. Contributes to the formation of the cornified cell envelope of keratinocytes

Catalyzes the cross-linking of proteins and the conjugation of polyamines to proteins

Plays a role in the transport of cargos that are too large to fit into COPII-coated vesicles and require specific mechanisms to be incorporated into membrane-bound carriers and exported from the endoplasmic reticulum. This protein is required for collagen VII (COL7A1) secretion by loading COL7A1 into transport carriers. It may participate in cargo loading of COL7A1 at endoplasmic reticulum exit sites by binding to COPII coat subunits Sec23/24 and guiding SH3-bound COL7A1 into a growing carrier. Does not play a role in global protein secretion and is apparently specific to COL7A1 cargo loading. However, it may participate in secretion of other proteins in cells that do not secrete COL7A1. It is also specifically required for the secretion of lipoproteins by participating in their export from the endoplasmic reticulum. Required for correct assembly of COPII coat components at endoplasmic reticulum exit sites (ERES) and for the localization of SEC16A and membrane-bound ER- resident complexes consisting of MIA2 and PREB/SEC12 to ERES.

May be involved in regulating membrane traffic to and from trans-Golgi network

Catalyzes the 2 serial methylation steps for the conversion of the 7-monomethylguanosine (m(7)G) caps of snRNAs and snoRNAs to a 2,2,7-trimethylguanosine (m(2,2,7)G) cap structure. The enzyme is specific for guanine, and N7 methylation must precede N2 methylation. Hypermethylation of the m7G cap of U snRNAs leads to their concentration in nuclear foci, their colocalization with coilin and the formation of canonical Cajal bodies (CBs). Plays a role in transcriptional regulation.

Catalytic subunit of the queuine tRNA-ribosyltransferase (TGT) that catalyzes the base-exchange of a guanine (G) residue with queuine (Q) at position 34 (anticodon wobble position) in tRNAs with GU(N) anticodons (tRNA-Asp, -Asn, -His and -Tyr), resulting in the hypermodified nucleoside queuosine (7-(((4,5-cis-dihydroxy-2- cyclopenten-1-yl)amino)methyl)-7-deazaguanosine). Catalysis occurs through a double-displacement mechanism. The nucleophile active site attacks the C1' of nucleotide 34 to detach the guanine base from the RNA, forming a covalent enzyme-RNA intermediate. The proton acceptor active site deprotonates the incoming queuine, allowing a nucleophilic attack on the C1' of the ribose to form the product (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor that plays a central role for embryogenesis and the pluripotency of embryonic stem (ES) cells. Sequence-specific DNA-binding factor that represses gene expression in pluripotent ES cells by directly binding to key genetic loci and recruiting epigenetic modifiers (By similarity).

DNA-binding transcription regulator that regulates endothelial cell proliferation and G1/S cell-cycle progression. Specifically binds the 5'-[AT]NTNN[GT]GGCA[AGT]-3' core DNA sequence and acts by modulating expression of pRB-E2F cell-cycle target genes, including RRM1. Component of a THAP1/THAP3-HCFC1-OGT complex that is required for the regulation of the transcriptional activity of RRM1. May also have pro-apoptotic activity by potentiating both serum- withdrawal and TNF-induced apoptosis.

Component of a THAP1/THAP3-HCFC1-OGT complex that is required for the regulation of the transcriptional activity of RRM1.

Heme-binding protein able to scavenge peroxynitrite and to protect free L-tyrosine against peroxynitrite-mediated nitration, by acting as a peroxynitrite isomerase that converts peroxynitrite to nitrate. Therefore, this protein likely plays a role in peroxynitrite sensing and in the detoxification of reactive nitrogen and oxygen species (RNS and ROS, respectively). Is able to bind nitric oxide (NO) in vitro, but may act as a sensor of peroxynitrite levels in vivo, possibly modulating the transcriptional activity residing in the N- terminal region.

Has sequence-specific DNA-binding activity and can function as transcriptional repressor (in vitro). May be a regulator of cell cycle: THAP5 overexpression in human cell lines causes cell cycle arrest at G2/M phase.

Chromatin-associated, histone tail-binding protein that represses transcription via recruitment of HDAC3 and nuclear hormone receptor corepressors.

Active transposase that specifically recognizes the bipartite 5'-TXXGGGX(A/T)-3' consensus motif and mediates transposition.

Catalyzes the conversion of prostaglandin H2 (PGH2) to thromboxane A2 (TXA2), a potent inducer of blood vessel constriction and platelet aggregation. Cleaves also PGH2 to 12-hydroxy-heptadecatrienoicacid (12-HHT) and malondialdehyde, which is known to act as a mediator of DNA damage. 12- HHT and malondialdehyde are formed stoichiometrically in the same amounts as TXA2. Additionally, displays dehydratase activity, toward (15S)-hydroperoxy- (5Z,8Z,11Z,13E)-eicosatetraenoate (15(S)-HPETE) producing 15-KETE and 15-HETE.

[Isoform Alpha-1]: Nuclear hormone receptor that can act as a repressor or activator of transcription. High affinity receptor for thyroid hormones, including triiodothyronine and thyroxine.

Nuclear hormone receptor that can act as a repressor or activator of transcription. High affinity receptor for thyroid hormones, including triiodothyronine and thyroxine.

Has acyl-CoA thioesterase activity towards medium and long- chain (C14 to C18) fatty acyl-CoA substrates, and probably plays a role in mitochondrial fatty acid metabolism. Plays a role in the apoptotic process, possibly via its regulation of AKT1 activity. According to PubMed:11598301, inhibits AKT1 phosphorylation and activity. According to PubMed:17615157, enhances AKT1 activity by favoring its phosphorylation and translocation to plasma membrane.

Has acyl-CoA thioesterase activity towards long-chain (C16 and C18) fatty acyl-CoA substrates, with a preference for linoleoyl-CoA and other unsaturated long-chain fatty acid-CoA esters. Plays an important role in mitochondrial fatty acid metabolism, and in remodeling of the mitochondrial lipid cardiolipin. Required for normal mitochondrial function.

Adds a GMP to the 5'-end of tRNA(His) after transcription and RNase P cleavage. This step is essential for proper recognition of the tRNA and for the fidelity of protein synthesis (Probable). Also functions as a guanyl-nucleotide exchange factor/GEF for the MFN1 and MFN2 mitofusins thereby regulating mitochondrial fusion. By regulating both mitochondrial dynamics and bioenergetic function, it contributes to cell survival following oxidative stress.

Responsible for the thiolytic cleavage of straight chain 3- keto fatty acyl-CoAs (3-oxoacyl-CoAs). Plays an important role in fatty acid peroxisomal beta-oxidation. Catalyzes the cleavage of short, medium, long, and very long straight chain 3- oxoacyl-CoAs.

This is one of the enzymes that catalyzes the last step of the mitochondrial beta-oxidation pathway, an aerobic process breaking down fatty acids into acetyl-CoA. Using free coenzyme A/CoA, catalyzes the thiolytic cleavage of medium- to long-chain 3-oxoacyl-CoAs into acetyl-CoA and a fatty acyl-CoA shortened by two carbon atoms. The activity of the enzyme is reversible and it can also catalyze the condensation of two acetyl-CoA molecules into acetoacetyl-CoA. Thereby, it plays a major role in ketone body metabolism.

In the production of energy from fats, this is one of the enzymes that catalyzes the last step of the mitochondrial beta- oxidation pathway, an aerobic process breaking down fatty acids into acetyl-CoA (Probable). Using free coenzyme A/CoA, catalyzes the thiolytic cleavage of medium- to long-chain unbranched 3-oxoacyl-CoAs into acetyl-CoA and a fatty acyl-CoA shortened by two carbon atoms (Probable). Also catalyzes the condensation of two acetyl-CoA molecules into acetoacetyl-CoA and could be involved in the production of ketone bodies (Probable). Also displays hydrolase activity on various fatty acyl-CoAs. Thereby, could be responsible for the production of acetate in a side reaction to beta-oxidation (Probable). Abolishes BNIP3-mediated apoptosis and mitochondrial damage.

Important for the control of mitochondrial reactive oxygen species homeostasis, apoptosis regulation and cell viability. Possesses a dithiol-reducing activity.

Participates in various redox reactions through the reversible oxidation of its active center dithiol to a disulfide and catalyzes dithiol-disulfide exchange reactions. Plays a role in the reversible S- nitrosylation of cysteine residues in target proteins, and thereby contributes to the response to intracellular nitric oxide. Nitrosylates the active site Cys of CASP3 in response to nitric oxide (NO), and thereby inhibits caspase-3 activity. Induces the FOS/JUN AP-1 DNA-binding activity in ionizing radiation (IR) cells through its oxidation/reduction status and stimulates AP-1 transcriptional activity.

Plays a central role in late thymocyte development by controlling both positive and negative T-cell selection. Required to sustain and/or integrate signals required for proper lineage commitment and maturation of T-cells. Regulates T-cell development through T-cell antigen receptor (TCR) signaling and in particular through the regulation of calcium influx and phosphorylation of Erk.

May constitute a control point in macrophage inflammatory response, promoting LPS-induced TLR4-mediated TNF production. Determines the threshold for activation of B cells by low-affinity and low-avidity ligands via PLCG2 activation and its downstream pathways (By similarity).

[Isoform 1]: Acts as a catabolic phospho-lyase on both gamma- and beta-phosphorylated substrates. Degrades O-phospho-threonine (PThr) to alpha-ketobutyrate, ammonia and phosphate (By similarity).

Required for efficient export of polyadenylated RNA. Acts as component of the THO subcomplex of the TREX complex which is thought to couple mRNA transcription, processing and nuclear export, and which specifically associates with spliced mRNA and not with unspliced pre- mRNA. TREX is recruited to spliced mRNAs by a transcription-independent mechanism, binds to mRNA upstream of the exon-junction complex (EJC) and is recruited in a splicing- and cap-dependent manner to a region near the 5' end of the mRNA where it functions in mRNA export to the cytoplasm via the TAP/NFX1 pathway. The TREX complex is essential for the export of Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV) intronless mRNAs and infectious virus production. Regulates transcriptional elongation of a subset of genes. Involved in genome stability by preventing co-transcriptional R-loop formation

Required for efficient export of polyadenylated RNA and spliced mRNA. Acts as component of the THO subcomplex of the TREX complex which is thought to couple mRNA transcription, processing and nuclear export, and which specifically associates with spliced mRNA and not with unspliced pre-mRNA. TREX is recruited to spliced mRNAs by a transcription-independent mechanism, binds to mRNA upstream of the exon-junction complex (EJC) and is recruited in a splicing- and cap- dependent manner to a region near the 5' end of the mRNA where it functions in mRNA export to the cytoplasm via the TAP/NFX1 pathway. The TREX complex is essential for the export of Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV) intronless mRNAs and infectious virus production. THOC2 (and probably the THO complex) is involved in releasing mRNA from nuclear speckle domains. Required for NXF1 localization to the nuclear rim. Plays a role for proper neuronal development.

Required for efficient export of polyadenylated RNA and spliced mRNA. Acts as component of the THO subcomplex of the TREX complex which is thought to couple mRNA transcription, processing and nuclear export, and which specifically associates with spliced mRNA and not with unspliced pre-mRNA. TREX is recruited to spliced mRNAs by a transcription-independent mechanism, binds to mRNA upstream of the exon-junction complex (EJC) and is recruited in a splicing- and cap- dependent manner to a region near the 5' end of the mRNA where it functions in mRNA export to the cytoplasm via the TAP/NFX1 pathway. The TREX complex is essential for the export of Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV) intronless mRNAs and infectious virus production.

Acts as component of the THO subcomplex of the TREX complex which is thought to couple mRNA transcription, processing and nuclear export, and which specifically associates with spliced mRNA and not with unspliced pre-mRNA. TREX is recruited to spliced mRNAs by a transcription-independent mechanism, binds to mRNA upstream of the exon-junction complex (EJC) and is recruited in a splicing- and cap- dependent manner to a region near the 5' end of the mRNA where it functions in mRNA export to the cytoplasm via the TAP/NFX1 pathway. The TREX complex is essential for the export of Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV) intronless mRNAs and infectious virus production. THOC5 in conjunction with ALYREF/THOC4 functions in NXF1-NXT1 mediated nuclear export of HSP70 mRNA; both proteins enhance the RNA binding activity of NXF1 and are required for NXF1 localization to the nuclear rim. Involved in transcription elongation and genome stability. Involved in alternative polyadenylation site choice by recruiting CPSF6 to 5' region of target genes; probably mediates association of the TREX and CFIm complexes

Acts as component of the THO subcomplex of the TREX complex which is thought to couple mRNA transcription, processing and nuclear export, and which specifically associates with spliced mRNA and not with unspliced pre-mRNA. TREX is recruited to spliced mRNAs by a transcription-independent mechanism, binds to mRNA upstream of the exon-junction complex (EJC) and is recruited in a splicing- and cap- dependent manner to a region near the 5' end of the mRNA where it functions in mRNA export to the cytoplasm via the TAP/NFX1 pathway. The TREX complex is essential for the export of Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV) intronless mRNAs and infectious virus production. Plays a role in apoptosis negative control involved in brain development.

Required for efficient export of polyadenylated RNA. Acts as component of the THO subcomplex of the TREX complex which is thought to couple mRNA transcription, processing and nuclear export, and which specifically associates with spliced mRNA and not with unspliced pre- mRNA. TREX is recruited to spliced mRNAs by a transcription-independent mechanism, binds to mRNA upstream of the exon-junction complex (EJC) and is recruited in a splicing- and cap-dependent manner to a region near the 5' end of the mRNA where it functions in mRNA export to the cytoplasm via the TAP/NFX1 pathway.

Involved in the metabolism of neuropeptides under 20 amino acid residues long. Involved in cytoplasmic peptide degradation. Able to degrade the amyloid-beta precursor protein and generate amyloidogenic fragments. Also acts as a regulator of cannabinoid signaling pathway by mediating degradation of hemopressin, an antagonist peptide of the cannabinoid receptor CNR1 (By similarity).

Thrombin, which cleaves bonds after Arg and Lys, converts fibrinogen to fibrin and activates factors V, VII, VIII, XIII, and, in complex with thrombomodulin, protein C. Functions in blood homeostasis, inflammation and wound healing.

Plays a role in the regulation of lipogenesis, especially in lactating mammary gland. Important for the biosynthesis of triglycerides with medium-length fatty acid chains. May modulate lipogenesis by interacting with MID1IP1 and preventing its interaction with ACACA (By similarity). May function as transcriptional coactivator. May modulate the transcription factor activity of THRB.

[Thrombospondin type-1 domain-containing protein 7A]: Plays a role in actin cytoskeleton rearrangement.

Is a positive regulator of nascent focal adhesion assembly, involved in the modulation of endothelial cell attachment to the extracellular matrix.

Promotes FBN1 matrix assembly. Attenuates TGFB signaling, possibly by accelerating the sequestration of large latent complexes of TGFB or active TGFB by FBN1 microfibril assembly, thereby negatively regulating the expression of TGFB regulatory targets, such as POSTN (By similarity).

Transfer of a sulfur ion to cyanide or to other thiol compounds. Also has weak rhodanese activity. Detoxifies cyanide and is required for thiosulfate biosynthesis. Acts as an antioxidant. In combination with cysteine aminotransferase (CAT), contributes to the catabolism of cysteine and is an important producer of hydrogen sulfide in the brain, retina and vascular endothelial cells. Hydrogen sulfide H(2)S is an important synaptic modulator, signaling molecule, smooth muscle contractor and neuroprotectant. Its production by the 3MST/CAT pathway is regulated by calcium ions.

Formation of iron-sulfur complexes, cyanide detoxification or modification of sulfur-containing enzymes. Other thiol compounds, besides cyanide, can act as sulfur ion acceptors. Also has weak mercaptopyruvate sulfurtransferase (MST) activity (By similarity). Together with MRPL18, acts as a mitochondrial import factor for the cytosolic 5S rRNA. Only the nascent unfolded cytoplasmic form is able to bind to the 5S rRNA.

Functions as a tRNA-binding adapter to mediate NAT10- dependent tRNA acetylation.

Methyltransferase which catalyzes the formation of N(2)- methylguanosine at position 6 in a broad range of tRNA substrates containing the characteristic 3'-CCA terminus of mature tRNAs. Also catalyzes the formation of N(2)-methylguanosine at position 7 of tRNA(Trp). Requires the methyltransferase adapter protein TRM112 for tRNA methyltransferase activity.

May play a role in cell-cell or cell-ligand interactions during synaptogenesis and other events in the brain

Acts as a substrate for the production of iodinated thyroid hormones thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). The synthesis of T3 and T4 involves iodination of selected tyrosine residues of TG/thyroglobulin followed by their oxidative coupling in the thyroid follicle lumen. Following TG re-internalization and lysosomal-mediated proteolysis, T3 and T4 are released from the polypeptide backbone leading to their secretion into the bloodstream. One dimer produces 7 thyroid hormone molecules.

Specifically binds 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC), suggesting that it acts as a specific reader of 5hmC.

Essential component of the TIM23 complex, a complex that mediates the translocation of transit peptide-containing proteins across the mitochondrial inner membrane

May participate in the translocation of transit peptide- containing proteins across the mitochondrial inner membrane. the PAM complex (By similarity).

RNA-binding protein involved in the regulation of alternative pre-RNA splicing and mRNA translation by binding to uridine-rich (U- rich) RNA sequences. Binds to U-rich sequences immediately downstream from a 5' splice sites in a uridine-rich small nuclear ribonucleoprotein (U snRNP)-dependent fashion, thereby modulating alternative pre-RNA splicing. Preferably binds to the U- rich IAS1 sequence in a U1 snRNP-dependent manner; this binding is optimal if a 5' splice site is adjacent to IAS1 (By similarity). Activates the use of heterologous 5' splice sites; the activation depends on the intron sequence downstream from the 5' splice site, with a preference for a downstream U-rich sequence. By interacting with SNRPC/U1-C, promotes recruitment and binding of spliceosomal U1 snRNP to 5' splice sites followed by U-rich sequences, thereby facilitating atypical 5' splice site recognition by U1 snRNP. Activates splicing of alternative exons with weak 5' splice sites followed by a U-rich stretch on its own pre-mRNA and on TIAR mRNA (By similarity). Acts as a modulator of alternative splicing for the apoptotic FAS receptor, thereby promoting apoptosis. Binds to the 5' splice site region of FAS intron 5 to promote accumulation of transcripts that include exon 6 at the expense of transcripts in which exon 6 is skipped, thereby leading to the transcription of a membrane-bound apoptotic FAS receptor, which promotes apoptosis. Binds to a conserved AU-rich cis element in COL2A1 intron 2 and modulates alternative splicing of COL2A1 exon 2. Also binds to the equivalent AT-rich element in COL2A1 genomic DNA, and may thereby be involved in the regulation of transcription. Binds specifically to a polypyrimidine-rich controlling element (PCE) located between the weak 5' splice site and the intronic splicing silencer of CFTR mRNA to promote exon 9 inclusion, thereby antagonizing PTB1 and its role in exon skipping of CFTR exon 9. Involved in the repression of mRNA translation by binding to AU-rich elements (AREs) located in mRNA 3' untranslated regions (3' UTRs), including target ARE-bearing mRNAs encoding TNF and PTGS2 (By similarity). Also participates in the cellular response to environmental stress, by acting downstream of the stress-induced phosphorylation of EIF2S1/EIF2A to promote the recruitment of untranslated mRNAs to cytoplasmic stress granules (SGs), leading to stress-induced translational arrest. Formation and recruitment to SGs is regulated by Zn(2+) (By similarity). Possesses nucleolytic activity against cytotoxic lymphocyte target cells.

Guanyl-nucleotide exchange factor that activates RHO-like proteins and connects extracellular signals to cytoskeletal activities. Activates RAC1, CDC42, and to a lesser extent RHOA and their downstream signaling to regulate processes like cell adhesion and cell migration.

Modulates the activity of RHO-like proteins and connects extracellular signals to cytoskeletal activities. Acts as a GDP- dissociation stimulator protein that stimulates the GDP-GTP exchange activity of RHO-like GTPases and activates them. Mediates extracellular laminin signals to activate Rac1, contributing to neurite growth. Involved in lamellipodial formation and advancement of the growth cone of embryonic hippocampal neurons. Promotes migration of neurons in the cerebral cortex. When overexpressed, induces membrane ruffling accompanied by the accumulation of actin filaments along the altered plasma membrane (By similarity). Activates specifically RAC1, but not CDC42 and RHOA.

RNA-binding protein involved in alternative pre-RNA splicing and in cytoplasmic stress granules formation. Shows a preference for uridine-rich RNAs. Activates splicing of alternative exons with weak 5' splice sites followed by a U-rich stretch on its own pre-mRNA and on TIA1 mRNA (By similarity). Promotes the inclusion of TIA1 exon 5 to give rise to the long isoform (isoform a) of TIA1. Acts downstream of the stress-induced phosphorylation of EIF2S1/EIF2A to promote the recruitment of untranslated mRNAs to cytoplasmic stress granules (SG). Possesses nucleolytic activity against cytotoxic lymphocyte target cells. May be involved in apoptosis.

May play a role in cell-cell and cell-matrix interactions. May contribute to various neuronal mechanisms in the central nervous system

May participate in diverse steps of neurogenesis. Inhibits the processing of pro-matrix metalloproteinase 2 (MMP-2) by MT1-MMP and MT3-MMP. May interfere with tumor invasion

Regulator of DNA replication and S/M and G2/M checkpoints. Regulates the triggering of DNA replication initiation via its interaction with TOPBP1 by participating in CDK2-mediated loading of CDC45L onto replication origins. Required for the transition from pre- replication complex (pre-RC) to pre-initiation complex (pre-IC). Required to prevent mitotic entry after treatment with ionizing radiation.

Chaperone protein involved in the assembly of the mitochondrial NADH:ubiquinone oxidoreductase complex (complex I). Participates in constructing the membrane arm of complex I.

Transmembrane tyrosine-protein kinase that may modulate TEK/TIE2 activity and contribute to the regulation of angiogenesis.

Tyrosine-protein kinase that acts as cell-surface receptor for ANGPT1, ANGPT2 and ANGPT4 and regulates angiogenesis, endothelial cell survival, proliferation, migration, adhesion and cell spreading, reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton, but also maintenance of vascular quiescence. Has anti-inflammatory effects by preventing the leakage of pro-inflammatory plasma proteins and leukocytes from blood vessels. Required for normal angiogenesis and heart development during embryogenesis. Required for post-natal hematopoiesis. After birth, activates or inhibits angiogenesis, depending on the context. Inhibits angiogenesis and promotes vascular stability in quiescent vessels, where endothelial cells have tight contacts. In quiescent vessels, ANGPT1 oligomers recruit TEK to cell-cell contacts, forming complexes with TEK molecules from adjoining cells, and this leads to preferential activation of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase and the AKT1 signaling cascades. In migrating endothelial cells that lack cell-cell adhesions, ANGT1 recruits TEK to contacts with the extracellular matrix, leading to the formation of focal adhesion complexes, activation of PTK2/FAK and of the downstream kinases MAPK1/ERK2 and MAPK3/ERK1, and ultimately to the stimulation of sprouting angiogenesis. ANGPT1 signaling triggers receptor dimerization and autophosphorylation at specific tyrosine residues that then serve as binding sites for scaffold proteins and effectors. Signaling is modulated by ANGPT2 that has lower affinity for TEK, can promote TEK autophosphorylation in the absence of ANGPT1, but inhibits ANGPT1-mediated signaling by competing for the same binding site. Signaling is also modulated by formation of heterodimers with TIE1, and by proteolytic processing that gives rise to a soluble TEK extracellular domain. The soluble extracellular domain modulates signaling by functioning as decoy receptor for angiopoietins. TEK phosphorylates DOK2, GRB7, GRB14, PIK3R1; SHC1 and TIE1.

Transcriptional coactivator that interacts with numerous nuclear receptors and coactivators and modulates the transcription of target genes. Interacts with chromatin depending on histone H3 modifications, having the highest affinity for histone H3 that is both unmodified at 'Lys-4' (H3K4me0) and acetylated at 'Lys-23' (H3K23ac). Has E3 protein-ubiquitin ligase activity. During the DNA damage response, participates in an autoregulatory feedback loop with TP53. Early in response to DNA damage, ATM kinase phosphorylates TRIM24 leading to its ubiquitination and degradation. After sufficient DNA repair has occurred, TP53 activates TRIM24 transcription, ultimately leading to TRIM24-mediated TP53 ubiquitination and degradation. Plays a role in the regulation of cell proliferation and apoptosis, at least in part via its effects on p53/TP53 levels. Up- regulates ligand-dependent transcription activation by AR, GCR/NR3C1, thyroid hormone receptor (TR) and ESR1. Modulates transcription activation by retinoic acid (RA) receptors, including RARA. Plays a role in regulating retinoic acid-dependent proliferation of hepatocytes (By similarity). Participates also in innate immunity by mediating the specific 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of TRAF3 leading to activation of downstream signal transduction of the type I IFN pathway. Additionally, negatively regulates NLRP3/CASP1/IL- 1beta-mediated pyroptosis and cell migration probably by ubiquitinating NLRP3.

Nuclear corepressor for KRAB domain-containing zinc finger proteins (KRAB-ZFPs). Mediates gene silencing by recruiting CHD3, a subunit of the nucleosome remodeling and deacetylation (NuRD) complex, and SETDB1 (which specifically methylates histone H3 at 'Lys-9' (H3K9me)) to the promoter regions of KRAB target genes. Enhances transcriptional repression by coordinating the increase in H3K9me, the decrease in histone H3 'Lys-9 and 'Lys-14' acetylation (H3K9ac and H3K14ac, respectively) and the disposition of HP1 proteins to silence gene expression. Recruitment of SETDB1 induces heterochromatinization. May play a role as a coactivator for CEBPB and NR3C1 in the transcriptional activation of ORM1. Also a corepressor for ERBB4. Inhibits E2F1 activity by stimulating E2F1-HDAC1 complex formation and inhibiting E2F1 acetylation. May serve as a partial backup to prevent E2F1-mediated apoptosis in the absence of RB1. Important regulator of CDKN1A/p21(CIP1). Has E3 SUMO-protein ligase activity toward itself via its PHD-type zinc finger. Also specifically sumoylates IRF7, thereby inhibiting its transactivation activity. Ubiquitinates p53/TP53 leading to its proteosomal degradation; the function is enhanced by MAGEC2 and MAGEA2, and possibly MAGEA3 and MAGEA6. Mediates the nuclear localization of KOX1, ZNF268 and ZNF300 transcription factors. In association with isoform 2 of ZFP90, is required for the transcriptional repressor activity of FOXP3 and the suppressive function of regulatory T-cells (Treg). Probably forms a corepressor complex required for activated KRAS-mediated promoter hypermethylation and transcriptional silencing of tumor suppressor genes (TSGs) or other tumor-related genes in colorectal cancer (CRC) cells. Required to maintain a transcriptionally repressive state of genes in undifferentiated embryonic stem cells (ESCs). In ESCs, in collaboration with SETDB1, is also required for H3K9me3 and silencing of endogenous and introduced retroviruses in a DNA-methylation independent-pathway (By similarity). Associates at promoter regions of tumor suppressor genes (TSGs) leading to their gene silencing. The SETDB1-TRIM28-ZNF274 complex may play a role in recruiting ATRX to the 3'-exons of zinc- finger coding genes with atypical chromatin signatures to establish or maintain/protect H3K9me3 at these transcriptionally active regions.

Inhibits TIFA-mediated TRAF6 activation possibly by inducing a conformational change in TIFA.

Adapter molecule that plays a key role in the activation of pro-inflammatory NF-kappa-B signaling following detection of bacterial pathogen-associated molecular pattern metabolites (PAMPs). Promotes activation of an innate immune response by inducing the oligomerization and polyubiquitination of TRAF6, which leads to the activation of TAK1 and IKK through a proteasome-independent mechanism. TIFA-dependent innate immune response is triggered by ADP-D-glycero- beta-D-manno-heptose (ADP-Heptose), a potent PAMP present in all Gram- negative and some Gram-positive bacteria: ADP-Heptose is recognized by ALPK1, which phosphorylates TIFA at Thr-9, leading to TIFA homooligomerization and subsequent activation of pro-inflammatory NF- kappa-B signaling.

Inhibitor of the cytoplasmic carboxypeptidase AGBL2, may regulate the alpha-tubulin tyrosination cycle.

Fructose-bisphosphatase hydrolyzing fructose-2,6-bisphosphate as well as fructose-1,6-bisphosphate. Acts as a negative regulator of glycolysis by lowering intracellular levels of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate in a p53/TP53-dependent manner, resulting in the pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) activation and NADPH production. Contributes to the generation of reduced glutathione to cause a decrease in intracellular reactive oxygen species (ROS) content, correlating with its ability to protect cells from oxidative or metabolic stress-induced cell death. Plays a role in promoting protection against cell death during hypoxia by decreasing mitochondria ROS levels in a HK2- dependent manner through a mechanism that is independent of its fructose-bisphosphatase activity. In response to cardiac damage stress, mediates p53-induced inhibition of myocyte mitophagy through ROS levels reduction and the subsequent inactivation of BNIP3. Reduced mitophagy results in an enhanced apoptotic myocyte cell death, and exacerbates cardiac damage (By similarity). Plays a role in adult intestinal regeneration; contributes to the growth, proliferation and survival of intestinal crypts following tissue ablation. Plays a neuroprotective role against ischemic brain damage by enhancing PPP flux and preserving mitochondria functions (By similarity). Protects glioma cells from hypoxia- and ROS- induced cell death by inhibiting glycolysis and activating mitochondrial energy metabolism and oxygen consumption in a TKTL1- dependent and p53/TP53-independent manner. Plays a role in cancer cell survival by promoting DNA repair through activating PPP flux in a CDK5-ATM-dependent signaling pathway during hypoxia and/or genome stress-induced DNA damage responses. Involved in intestinal tumor progression.

Binds with high affinity to the poliovirus receptor (PVR) which causes increased secretion of IL10 and decreased secretion of IL12B and suppresses T-cell activation by promoting the generation of mature immunoregulatory dendritic cells.

Metalloprotease that acts as a negative regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway by mediating the cleavage of the 8 N-terminal residues of a subset of Wnt proteins. Following cleavage, Wnt proteins become oxidized and form large disulfide-bond oligomers, leading to their inactivation. Able to cleave WNT3A, WNT5, but not WNT11. Required for head formation.

Mitochondrial intermembrane chaperone that participates in the import and insertion of multi-pass transmembrane proteins into the mitochondrial inner membrane. May also be required for the transfer of beta-barrel precursors from the TOM complex to the sorting and assembly machinery (SAM complex) of the outer membrane. Acts as a chaperone-like protein that protects the hydrophobic precursors from aggregation and guide them through the mitochondrial intermembrane space.

Mitochondrial intermembrane chaperone that participates in the import and insertion of some multi-pass transmembrane proteins into the mitochondrial inner membrane. Also required for the transfer of beta-barrel precursors from the TOM complex to the sorting and assembly machinery (SAM complex) of the outer membrane. Acts as a chaperone-like protein that protects the hydrophobic precursors from aggregation and guide them through the mitochondrial intermembrane space. The TIMM8- TIMM13 complex mediates the import of proteins such as TIMM23, SLC25A12/ARALAR1 and SLC25A13/ARALAR2, while the predominant TIMM9- TIMM10 70 kDa complex mediates the import of much more proteins.

Mitochondrial co-chaperone which forms a complex with prohibitins to regulate cardiolipin remodeling (By similarity). May be a component of the PAM complex, a complex required for the translocation of transit peptide-containing proteins from the inner membrane into the mitochondrial matrix in an ATP-dependent manner. May act as a co-chaperone that stimulate the ATP-dependent activity (By similarity).

Regulates ATP-dependent protein translocation into the mitochondrial matrix. Inhibits DNAJC19 stimulation of HSPA9/Mortalin ATPase activity.

Participates in the translocation of transit peptide- containing proteins across the mitochondrial inner membrane. Also required for assembly of mitochondrial respiratory chain complex I and complex IV as component of the MITRAC (mitochondrial translation regulation assembly intermediate of cytochrome c oxidase complex) complex. Probably shuttles between the presequence translocase and respiratory-chain assembly intermediates in a process that promotes incorporation of early nuclear-encoded subunits into these complexes.

Essential core component of the TIM22 complex, a complex that mediates the import and insertion of multi-pass transmembrane proteins into the mitochondrial inner membrane. In the TIM22 complex, it constitutes the voltage-activated and signal-gated channel. Forms a twin-pore translocase that uses the membrane potential as external driving force in 2 voltage-dependent steps (By similarity).

Essential component of the TIM23 complex, a complex that mediates the translocation of transit peptide-containing proteins across the mitochondrial inner membrane.

Component of the TIM22 complex, a complex that mediates the import and insertion of multi-pass transmembrane proteins into the mitochondrial inner membrane. The TIM22 complex forms a twin-pore translocase that uses the membrane potential as the external driving force. Required for the stability of the TIM22 complex and functions in the assembly of the TIMM22 protein into the TIM22 complex. May facilitate cooperation between TIM22 and TOM complexes by interacting with TOMM40.

Essential component of the PAM complex, a complex required for the translocation of transit peptide-containing proteins from the inner membrane into the mitochondrial matrix in an ATP-dependent manner (By similarity). Recruits mitochondrial HSP70 to drive protein translocation into the matrix using ATP as an energy source (By similarity).

Essential component of the TIM23 complex, a complex that mediates the translocation of transit peptide-containing proteins across the mitochondrial inner membrane. Has some phosphatase activity in vitro; however such activity may not be relevant in vivo.

Mitochondrial intermembrane chaperone that participates in the import and insertion of some multi-pass transmembrane proteins into the mitochondrial inner membrane. Also required for the transfer of beta-barrel precursors from the TOM complex to the sorting and assembly machinery (SAM complex) of the outer membrane. Acts as a chaperone-like protein that protects the hydrophobic precursors from aggregation and guide them through the mitochondrial intermembrane space. The TIMM8- TIMM13 complex mediates the import of proteins such as TIMM23, SLC25A12/ARALAR1 and SLC25A13/ARALAR2, while the predominant TIMM9- TIMM10 70 kDa complex mediates the import of much more proteins. Probably necessary for normal neurologic development.

Probable mitochondrial intermembrane chaperone that participates in the import and insertion of some multi-pass transmembrane proteins into the mitochondrial inner membrane. Also required for the transfer of beta-barrel precursors from the TOM complex to the sorting and assembly machinery (SAM complex) of the outer membrane. Acts as a chaperone-like protein that protects the hydrophobic precursors from aggregation and guide them through the mitochondrial intermembrane space (By similarity).

Phosphatidylserine receptor that plays different role in immune response including phagocytosis of apoptotic cells and T-cell regulation. Controls T-cell activation in a bimodal fashion, decreasing the activation of naive T-cells by inducing cell cycle arrest, while increasing proliferation of activated T-cells by activating AKT1 and ERK1/2 phosphorylations and subsequent signaling pathways (By similarity). Also plays a role in efferocytosis which is the process by which apoptotic cells are removed by phagocytic cells. Mechanistically, promotes the engulfment of apoptotic cells or exogenous particles by securing them to phagocytes through direct binding to phosphatidylserine present on apoptotic cells, while other engulfment receptors such as MERTK efficiently recognize apoptotic cells and mediate their ingestion. Additionally, promotes autophagy process by suppressing NLRP3 inflammasome activity via activation of LKB1/PRKAA1 pathway in a phosphatidylserine-dependent mechanism (By similarity).

Metalloproteinase inhibitor that functions by forming one to one complexes with target metalloproteinases, such as collagenases, and irreversibly inactivates them by binding to their catalytic zinc cofactor. Acts on MMP1, MMP2, MMP3, MMP7, MMP8, MMP9, MMP10, MMP11, MMP12, MMP13 and MMP16. Does not act on MMP14. Also functions as a growth factor that regulates cell differentiation, migration and cell death and activates cellular signaling cascades via CD63 and ITGB1. Plays a role in integrin signaling. Mediates erythropoiesis in vitro; but, unlike IL3, it is species-specific, stimulating the growth and differentiation of only human and murine erythroid progenitors.

Complexes with metalloproteinases (such as collagenases) and irreversibly inactivates them by binding to their catalytic zinc cofactor. Known to act on MMP-1, MMP-2, MMP-3, MMP-7, MMP-8, MMP-9, MMP-10, MMP-13, MMP-14, MMP-15, MMP-16 and MMP-19.

Complexes with metalloproteinases (such as collagenases) and irreversibly inactivates them by binding to their catalytic zinc cofactor. May form part of a tissue-specific acute response to remodeling stimuli. Known to act on MMP-1, MMP-2, MMP-3, MMP-7, MMP-9, MMP-13, MMP-14 and MMP-15

Complexes with metalloproteinases (such as collagenases) and irreversibly inactivates them by binding to their catalytic zinc cofactor. Known to act on MMP-1, MMP-2, MMP-3, MMP-7 and MMP-9

Plays an important role in the control of DNA replication, maintenance of replication fork stability, maintenance of genome stability throughout normal DNA replication, DNA repair and in the regulation of the circadian clock. Required to stabilize replication forks during DNA replication by forming a complex with TIPIN: this complex regulates DNA replication processes under both normal and stress conditions, stabilizes replication forks and influences both CHEK1 phosphorylation and the intra-S phase checkpoint in response to genotoxic stress. During DNA replication, inhibits the CMG complex ATPase activity and activates DNA polymerases catalytic activities, coupling DNA unwinding and DNA synthesis. TIMELESS promotes TIPIN nuclear localization. Involved in cell survival after DNA damage or replication stress by promoting DNA repair. In response to double-strand breaks (DSBs), accumulates at DNA damage sites and promotes homologous recombination repair via its interaction with PARP1. May be specifically required for the ATR-CHEK1 pathway in the replication checkpoint induced by hydroxyurea or ultraviolet light. Involved in the determination of period length and in the DNA damage-dependent phase advancing of the circadian clock. Negatively regulates CLOCK|NPAS2-ARTNL/BMAL1|ARTNL2/BMAL2-induced transactivation of PER1 possibly via translocation of PER1 into the nucleus. May also play an important role in epithelial cell morphogenesis and formation of branching tubules (By similarity).

Mediates adhesion of proximal tubule epithelial cells via integrins alpha3-beta1 and alphaV-beta3. This is a non catalytic peptidase C1 family protein.

May be implicated in the adrenocortical zonation and in mechanisms for repressing the CYP11B1 gene expression in adrenocortical cells. This is a non catalytic peptidase C1 family protein (By similarity).

Component of the shelterin complex (telosome) that is involved in the regulation of telomere length and protection. Shelterin associates with arrays of double-stranded TTAGGG repeats added by telomerase and protects chromosome ends; without its protective activity, telomeres are no longer hidden from the DNA damage surveillance and chromosome ends are inappropriately processed by DNA repair pathways. Plays a role in shelterin complex assembly. Isoform 1 may have additional role in tethering telomeres to the nuclear matrix.

Plays a role as a potent and selective agonist of PTH2R resulting in adenyl cyclase activation and intracellular calcium levels elevation. Induces protein kinase C beta activation, recruitment of beta-arrestin and PTH2R internalization. May inhibit cell proliferation via its action on PTH2R activation. Neuropeptide which may also have a role in spermatogenesis. May activate nociceptors and nociceptive circuits.

Plays an important role in the control of DNA replication and the maintenance of replication fork stability. Important for cell survival after DNA damage or replication stress. May be specifically required for the ATR-CHEK1 pathway in the replication checkpoint induced by hydroxyurea or ultraviolet light. Forms a complex with TIMELESS and this complex regulates DNA replication processes under both normal and stress conditions, stabilizes replication forks and influences both CHEK1 phosphorylation and the intra-S phase checkpoint in response to genotoxic stress.

May be a allosteric regulator of serine/threonine-protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A). Isoform 1 inhibits catalytic activity of the PP2A(D) core complex in vitro. The PP2A(C):TIPRL complex does not show phosphatase activity. Acts as negative regulator of serine/threonine- protein phosphatase 4 probably by inhibiting the formation of the active PPP4C:PPP4R2 complex; the function is proposed to implicate it in DNA damage response by promoting H2AX phosphorylated on Ser-140 (gamma-H2AX). May play a role in the regulation of ATM/ATR signaling pathway controlling DNA replication and repair.

Modulator of T-cell function. Has a protective effect in graft versus host disease model (By similarity).

Adapter involved in TLR2 and TLR4 signaling pathways in the innate immune response. Acts via IRAK2 and TRAF-6, leading to the activation of NF-kappa-B, MAPK1, MAPK3 and JNK, and resulting in cytokine secretion and the inflammatory response. Positively regulates the production of TNF-alpha (TNF) and interleukin-6 (IL6).

Key regulator of TP53BP1 required to stabilize TP53BP1 and regulate its recruitment to chromatin. In absence of DNA damage, interacts with the tandem Tudor-like domain of TP53BP1, masking the region that binds histone H4 dimethylated at 'Lys-20' (H4K20me2), thereby preventing TP53BP1 recruitment to chromatin and maintaining TP53BP1 localization to the nucleus. Following DNA damage, ATM-induced phosphorylation of TP53BP1 and subsequent recruitment of RIF1 leads to dissociate NUDT16L1/TIRR from TP53BP1, unmasking the tandem Tudor-like domain and allowing recruitment of TP53BP1 to DNA double strand breaks (DSBs). Binds U8 snoRNA.

Zinc-finger RNA-binding protein that destabilizes several cytoplasmic AU-rich element (ARE)-containing mRNA transcripts by promoting their poly(A) tail removal or deadenylation, and hence provide a mechanism for attenuating protein synthesis. Acts as a 3'-untranslated region (UTR) ARE mRNA- binding adapter protein to communicate signaling events to the mRNA decay machinery. Functions by recruiting the CCR4-NOT deadenylase complex and components of the cytoplasmic RNA decay machinery to the bound ARE-containing mRNAs, and hence promotes ARE- mediated mRNA deadenylation and decay processes. Induces also the degradation of ARE- containing mRNAs even in absence of poly(A) tail (By similarity). Binds to 3'-UTR ARE of numerous mRNAs. Positively regulates early adipogenesis by promoting ARE-mediated mRNA decay of immediate early genes (IEGs) (By similarity). Promotes ARE- mediated mRNA decay of mineralocorticoid receptor NR3C2 mRNA in response to hypertonic stress. Negatively regulates hematopoietic/erythroid cell differentiation by promoting ARE-mediated mRNA decay of the transcription factor STAT5B mRNA. Positively regulates monocyte/macrophage cell differentiation by promoting ARE-mediated mRNA decay of the cyclin-dependent kinase CDK6 mRNA. Promotes degradation of ARE-containing pluripotency-associated mRNAs in embryonic stem cells (ESCs), such as NANOG, through a fibroblast growth factor (FGF)-induced MAPK-dependent signaling pathway, and hence attenuates ESC self-renewal and positively regulates mesendoderm differentiation (By similarity). May play a role in mediating pro-apoptotic effects in malignant B-cells by promoting ARE-mediated mRNA decay of BCL2 mRNA. In association with ZFP36L2 maintains quiescence on developing B lymphocytes by promoting ARE-mediated decay of several mRNAs encoding cell cycle regulators that help B cells progress through the cell cycle, and hence ensuring accurate variable-diversity-joining (VDJ) recombination and functional immune cell formation (By similarity). Together with ZFP36L2 is also necessary for thymocyte development and prevention of T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (T-ALL) transformation by promoting ARE- mediated mRNA decay of the oncogenic transcription factor NOTCH1 mRNA (By similarity). Participates in the delivery of target ARE-mRNAs to processing bodies (PBs). In addition to its cytosolic mRNA-decay function, plays a role in the regulation of nuclear mRNA 3'- end processing; modulates mRNA 3'-end maturation efficiency of the DLL4 mRNA through binding with an ARE embedded in a weak noncanonical polyadenylation (poly(A)) signal in endothelial cells. Also involved in the regulation of stress granule (SG) and P-body (PB) formation and fusion. Plays a role in vasculogenesis and endocardial development (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of keratinocyte proliferation, differentiation and apoptosis. Plays a role in myoblast cell differentiation (By similarity).

Zinc-finger RNA-binding protein that destabilizes several cytoplasmic AU-rich element (ARE)-containing mRNA transcripts by promoting their poly(A) tail removal or deadenylation, and hence provide a mechanism for attenuating protein synthesis. Acts as a 3'-untranslated region (UTR) ARE mRNA- binding adapter protein to communicate signaling events to the mRNA decay machinery. Functions by recruiting the CCR4-NOT deadenylase complex and probably other components of the cytoplasmic RNA decay machinery to the bound ARE-containing mRNAs, and hence promotes ARE-mediated mRNA deadenylation and decay processes. Binds to 3'-UTR ARE of numerous mRNAs. Promotes ARE- containing mRNA decay of the low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor (LDLR) mRNA in response to phorbol 12-myristate 13-acetate (PMA) treatment in a p38 MAPK-dependent manner. Positively regulates early adipogenesis by promoting ARE-mediated mRNA decay of immediate early genes (IEGs). Plays a role in mature peripheral neuron integrity by promoting ARE-containing mRNA decay of the transcriptional repressor REST mRNA. Plays a role in ovulation and oocyte meiotic maturation by promoting ARE-mediated mRNA decay of the luteinizing hormone receptor LHCGR mRNA. Acts as a negative regulator of erythroid cell differentiation: promotes glucocorticoid-induced self-renewal of erythroid cells by binding mRNAs that are induced or highly expressed during terminal erythroid differentiation and promotes their degradation, preventing erythroid cell differentiation. In association with ZFP36L1 maintains quiescence on developing B lymphocytes by promoting ARE-mediated decay of several mRNAs encoding cell cycle regulators that help B cells progress through the cell cycle, and hence ensuring accurate variable-diversity-joining (VDJ) recombination process and functional immune cell formation. Together with ZFP36L1 is also necessary for thymocyte development and prevention of T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (T-ALL) transformation by promoting ARE-mediated mRNA decay of the oncogenic transcription factor NOTCH1 mRNA.

Key component in the assembly and functioning of vertebrate striated muscles. By providing connections at the level of individual microfilaments, it contributes to the fine balance of forces between the two halves of the sarcomere. The size and extensibility of the cross-links are the main determinants of sarcomere extensibility properties of muscle. In non-muscle cells, seems to play a role in chromosome condensation and chromosome segregation during mitosis. Might link the lamina network to chromatin or nuclear actin, or both during interphase.

Plays a role in regulating the structure of the Golgi apparatus.

Catalyzes both the phosphorylation of dihydroxyacetone and of glyceraldehyde, and the splitting of ribonucleoside diphosphate-X compounds among which FAD is the best substrate. Represses IFIH1- mediated cellular antiviral response.

Tachykinins are active peptides which excite neurons, evoke behavioral responses, are potent vasodilators and secretagogues, and contract (directly or indirectly) many smooth muscles

Tachykinins are active peptides which excite neurons, evoke behavioral responses, are potent vasodilators and secretagogues, and contract (directly or indirectly) many smooth muscles. Endokinin-A induces thermal hyperalgesia and pain-related behavior such as scratching following intrathecal administration in rats. These effects are suppressed by treatment with endokinin-C. Endokinin-A/B reduces arterial blood pressure and increases sperm motility.

Tachykinins are active peptides which excite neurons, evoke behavioral responses, are potent vasodilators and secretagogues, and contract (directly or indirectly) many smooth muscles (By similarity). Is a critical central regulator of gonadal function.

Microtubule inner protein (MIP) part of the dynein-decorated doublet microtubules (DMTs) in cilia axoneme, which is required for motile cilia beating. Located at the center of the tektin bundle where may function to recruit tektins or stabilize the bundle.

Catalyzes the transfer of a two-carbon ketol group from a ketose donor to an aldose acceptor, via a covalent intermediate with the cofactor thiamine pyrophosphate.

Plays an essential role in total transketolase activity and cell proliferation in cancer cells; after transfection with anti-TKTL1 siRNA, total transketolase activity dramatically decreases and proliferation was significantly inhibited in cancer cells. Plays a pivotal role in carcinogenesis.

Regulates the composition and fluidity of the plasma membrane. Inhibits the incorporation of membrane-fluidizing phospholipids containing omega-3 long-chain polyunsaturated fatty acids (LCPUFA) and thereby promotes membrane rigidity. Does not appear to have any effect on LCPUFA synthesis.

Transcriptional corepressor that binds to a number of transcription factors. Inhibits NF-kappa-B-regulated gene expression. Inhibits the transcriptional activation mediated by FOXA2, and by CTNNB1 and TCF family members in Wnt signaling. Enhances FOXG1/BF- 1- and HES1-mediated transcriptional repression (By similarity). The effects of full-length TLE family members may be modulated by association with dominant-negative AES. Unusual function as coactivator for ESRRG.

Transcriptional corepressor that binds to a number of transcription factors. Inhibits the transcriptional activation mediated by CTNNB1 and TCF family members in Wnt signaling. The effects of full- length TLE family members may be modulated by association with dominant-negative AES (By similarity).

Transcriptional corepressor that binds to a number of transcription factors. Inhibits the transcriptional activation mediated by PAX5, and by CTNNB1 and TCF family members in Wnt signaling. The effects of full-length TLE family members may be modulated by association with dominant-negative AES. Essential for the transcriptional repressor activity of SIX3 during retina and lens development and for SIX3 transcriptional auto-repression (By similarity).

Transcriptional corepressor. Acts as dominant repressor towards other family members. Inhibits NF-kappa-B-regulated gene expression. May be required for the initiation and maintenance of the differentiated state. Essential for the transcriptional repressor activity of SIX3 during retina and lens development.

Regulates spermatogonia proliferation and cell cycle progression, potentially via regulation of cell cycle regulatory genes such as; CEBPB, CEBPA, CSF3, PCNA, and CDK4 (By similarity). Suppresses FOXG1/BF-1-mediated transcriptional repression by inhibiting interaction of the transcriptional corepressor TLE1 with FOXG1 which promotes cortical neuron differentiation (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional corepressor of NFATC1-mediated gene expression by contributing to PAX6-mediated repression (By similarity).

Rapidly and transiently inhibited by phosphorylation following the generation of DNA double-stranded breaks during S-phase. This is cell cycle checkpoint and ATM-pathway dependent and appears to regulate processes involved in chromatin assembly. Isoform 3 phosphorylates and enhances the stability of the t-SNARE SNAP23, augmenting its assembly with syntaxin. Isoform 3 protects the cells from the ionizing radiation by facilitating the repair of DSBs. In vitro, phosphorylates histone H3 at 'Ser-10'.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in the process of chromatin assembly and probably also DNA replication, transcription, repair, and chromosome segregation. Phosphorylates the chromatin assembly factors ASF1A and ASF1B. Phosphorylation of ASF1A prevents its proteasome- mediated degradation, thereby enhancing chromatin assembly. Negative regulator of amino acid starvation-induced autophagy.

Protease which processes procollagen C-propeptides, such as chordin, pro-biglycan and pro-lysyl oxidase. Required for the embryonic development. Predominant protease, which in the development, influences dorsal-ventral patterning and skeletogenesis

Protease which specifically processes pro-lysyl oxidase. Required for the embryonic development. Predominant protease, which in the development, influences dorsal-ventral patterning and skeletogenesis

Probably involved in connections of major cytoskeletal structures to the plasma membrane. High molecular weight cytoskeletal protein concentrated at regions of cell-substratum contact and, in lymphocytes, at cell-cell contacts (By similarity).

As a major component of focal adhesion plaques that links integrin to the actin cytoskeleton, may play an important role in cell adhesion. Recruits PIP5K1C to focal adhesion plaques and strongly activates its kinase activity (By similarity).

Participates in the innate immune response to microbial agents. Acts via MYD88 and TRAF6, leading to NF-kappa-B activation, cytokine secretion and the inflammatory response (By similarity).

Participates in the innate immune response to microbial agents. Specifically recognizes diacylated and triacylated lipopeptides. Cooperates with TLR2 to mediate the innate immune response to bacterial lipoproteins or lipopeptides. Forms the activation cluster TLR2:TLR1:CD14 in response to triacylated lipopeptides, this cluster triggers signaling from the cell surface and subsequently is targeted to the Golgi in a lipid-raft dependent pathway. Acts via MYD88 and TRAF6, leading to NF-kappa-B activation, cytokine secretion and the inflammatory response.

Cooperates with LY96 to mediate the innate immune response to bacterial lipoproteins and other microbial cell wall components. Cooperates with TLR1 or TLR6 to mediate the innate immune response to bacterial lipoproteins or lipopeptides. Acts via MYD88 and TRAF6, leading to NF-kappa-B activation, cytokine secretion and the inflammatory response. May also activate immune cells and promote apoptosis in response to the lipid moiety of lipoproteins. Recognizes mycoplasmal macrophage-activating lipopeptide-2kD (MALP-2), soluble tuberculosis factor (STF), phenol-soluble modulin (PSM) and B.burgdorferi outer surface protein A lipoprotein (OspA-L) cooperatively with TLR6. Stimulation of monocytes in vitro with M.tuberculosis PstS1 induces p38 MAPK and ERK1/2 activation primarily via this receptor, but also partially via TLR4. MAPK activation in response to bacterial peptidoglycan also occurs via this receptor. Acts as a receptor for M.tuberculosis lipoproteins LprA, LprG, LpqH and PstS1, some lipoproteins are dependent on other coreceptors (TLR1, CD14 and/or CD36); the lipoproteins act as agonists to modulate antigen presenting cell functions in response to the pathogen. M.tuberculosis HSP70 (dnaK) but not HSP65 (groEL-2) acts via this protein to stimulate NF-kappa-B expression. Recognizes M.tuberculosis major T-antigen EsxA (ESAT-6) which inhibits downstream MYD88-dependent signaling (shown in mouse) (By similarity). Forms activation clusters composed of several receptors depending on the ligand, these clusters trigger signaling from the cell surface and subsequently are targeted to the Golgi in a lipid-raft dependent pathway. Forms the cluster TLR2:TLR6:CD14:CD36 in response to diacylated lipopeptides and TLR2:TLR1:CD14 in response to triacylated lipopeptides. Required for normal uptake of M.tuberculosis, a process that is inhibited by M.tuberculosis LppM (By similarity).

Key component of innate and adaptive immunity. TLRs (Toll- like receptors) control host immune response against pathogens through recognition of molecular patterns specific to microorganisms. TLR3 is a nucleotide-sensing TLR which is activated by double-stranded RNA, a sign of viral infection. Acts via the adapter TRIF/TICAM1, leading to NF-kappa-B activation, IRF3 nuclear translocation, cytokine secretion and the inflammatory response.

Cooperates with LY96 and CD14 to mediate the innate immune response to bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS). Acts via MYD88, TIRAP and TRAF6, leading to NF-kappa-B activation, cytokine secretion and the inflammatory response (PubMed:9237759, PubMed:10835634, PubMed:27022195,PubMed:21393102). Also involved in LPS-independent inflammatory responses triggered by free fatty acids, such as palmitate, and Ni(2+). Responses triggered by Ni(2+) require non-conserved histidines and are, therefore, species-specific. Both M.tuberculosis HSP70 (dnaK) and HSP65 (groEL-2) act via this protein to stimulate NF-kappa-B expression. In complex with TLR6, promotes sterile inflammation in monocytes/macrophages in response to oxidized low-density lipoprotein (oxLDL) or amyloid-beta 42. In this context, the initial signal is provided by oxLDL- or amyloid-beta 42-binding to CD36. This event induces the formation of a heterodimer of TLR4 and TLR6, which is rapidly internalized and triggers inflammatory response, leading to the NF-kappa-B-dependent production of CXCL1, CXCL2 and CCL9 cytokines, via MYD88 signaling pathway, and CCL5 cytokine, via TICAM1 signaling pathway, as well as IL1B secretion. Binds electronegative LDL (LDL(-)) and mediates the cytokine release induced by LDL(-). Stimulation of monocytes in vitro with M.tuberculosis PstS1 induces p38 MAPK and ERK1/2 activation primarily via TLR2, but also partially via this receptor. Activated by the signaling pathway regulator NMI which acts as damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) in response to cell injury or pathogen invasion, therefore promoting nuclear factor NF-kappa-B activation.

Participates in the innate immune response to Gram-positive bacteria and fungi. Specifically recognizes diacylated and, to a lesser extent, triacylated lipopeptides. In response to diacylated lipopeptides, forms the activation cluster TLR2:TLR6:CD14:CD36, this cluster triggers signaling from the cell surface and subsequently is targeted to the Golgi in a lipid-raft dependent pathway. Acts via MYD88 and TRAF6, leading to NF-kappa-B activation, cytokine secretion and the inflammatory response. Recognizes mycoplasmal macrophage-activating lipopeptide-2kD (MALP-2), soluble tuberculosis factor (STF), phenol-soluble modulin (PSM) and B.burgdorferi outer surface protein A lipoprotein (OspA-L) cooperatively with TLR2. In complex with TLR4, promotes sterile inflammation in monocytes/macrophages in response to oxidized low-density lipoprotein (oxLDL) or amyloid-beta 42. In this context, the initial signal is provided by oxLDL- or amyloid-beta 42- binding to CD36. This event induces the formation of a heterodimer of TLR4 and TLR6, which is rapidly internalized and triggers inflammatory response, leading to the NF-kappa-B-dependent production of CXCL1, CXCL2 and CCL9 cytokines, via MYD88 signaling pathway, and CCL5 cytokine, via TICAM1 signaling pathway, as well as IL1B secretion.

Endosomal receptor that plays a key role in innate and adaptive immunity. Controls host immune response against pathogens through recognition of uridine- containing single strand RNAs (ssRNAs) of viral origin or guanosine analogs. Upon binding to agonists, undergoes dimerization that brings TIR domains from the two molecules into direct contact, leading to the recruitment of TIR-containing downstream adapter MYD88 through homotypic interaction. In turn, the Myddosome signaling complex is formed involving IRAK4, IRAK1, TRAF6, TRAF3 leading to activation of downstream transcription factors NF-kappa-B and IRF7 to induce pro-inflammatory cytokines and interferons, respectively.

Endosomal receptor that plays a key role in innate and adaptive immunity. Controls host immune response against pathogens through recognition of RNA degradation products specific to microorganisms that are initially processed by RNASET2. Recognizes GU-rich single- stranded RNA (GU-rich RNA) derived from SARS-CoV-2, SARS-CoV-1 and HIV- 1 viruses. Upon binding to agonists, undergoes dimerization that brings TIR domains from the two molecules into direct contact, leading to the recruitment of TIR-containing downstream adapter MYD88 through homotypic interaction. In turn, the Myddosome signaling complex is formed involving IRAK4, IRAK1, TRAF6, TRAF3 leading to activation of downstream transcription factors NF- kappa-B and IRF7 to induce pro-inflammatory cytokines and interferons, respectively.

Key component of innate and adaptive immunity. TLRs (Toll- like receptors) control host immune response against pathogens through recognition of molecular patterns specific to microorganisms. TLR9 is a nucleotide-sensing TLR which is activated by unmethylated cytidine- phosphate-guanosine (CpG) dinucleotides. Acts via MYD88 and TRAF6, leading to NF-kappa-B activation, cytokine secretion and the inflammatory response. Controls lymphocyte response to Helicobacter infection (By similarity). Upon CpG stimulation, induces B-cell proliferation, activation, survival and antibody production.

Actin-binding protein which may have an oncogenic function and regulates cell proliferation, migration and invasion in cancer cells.

Plays a role in pre-mRNA splicing by promoting usage of the upstream 3'-splice site at alternative NAGNAG splice sites; these are sites featuring alternative acceptor motifs separated by only a few nucleotides. May also modulate exon inclusion events. Plays a role in spliceosomal remodeling by displacing WBP4 from SNRNP200 and may act to inhibit SNRNP200 helicase activity. Binds U5 snRNA. Required for proper chromosome segregation. Not required for splicing of shelterin components.

Controls the genesis of the spleen. Binds to the DNA sequence 5'-GGCGGTAAGTGG-3'

Transcription activator that binds DNA elements with the consensus sequence 5'-CGGTAATTGG-3'. Binds DNA via its homeobox. Required for normal cell death of enteric neurons in the gastrointestinal tract. Required for normal development of the enteric nervous system, and for proper development of normal motility of the gastrointestinal tract (By similarity).

Plays a role during embryonic arterial endothelium differentiation and vascular morphogenesis through the ACVRL1 receptor- dependent signaling pathway upon stimulation by bone morphogenetic proteins, such as GDF2/BMP9 and BMP10. Involved in the regulation of nociception, acting as a modulator of the interaction between TRPA1 and TRPV1, two molecular sensors and mediators of pain signals in dorsal root ganglia (DRG) neurons. Mechanistically, it weakens their interaction, thereby releasing the inhibition of TRPA1 by TRPV1 and increasing the single-channel open probability of the TRPA1-TRPV1 complex.

Selectively involved in CSF2 deprivation-induced apoptosis via a mitochondria-dependent pathway.

Plays a role in cilia formation and embryonic patterning. Requires for normal Sonic hedgehog (Shh) signaling in the neural tube and acts in combination with GLI2 and GLI3 to pattern ventral and intermediate neuronal cell types (By similarity). During ciliogenesis regulates the ciliary transition zone localization of some MKS complex proteins.

Transmembrane protein required for proper cognitive functions. Involved in the development of dentate gyrus (DG) neuron circuitry, is necessary for AMPA receptors surface expression and proper excitatory postsynaptic currents of DG granule neurons. Regulates the organization and stability of the microtubule network of sensory neurons to allow axonal transport. Through the interaction with DST, mediates the docking of the dynein/dynactin motor complex to vesicle cargos for retrograde axonal transport. In hippocampal neurons, required for BDNF-dependent dendrite outgrowth. Cooperates with SH3GL2 and recruits the WAVE1 complex to facilitate actin-dependent BDNF:NTRK2 early endocytic trafficking and mediate signaling from early endosomes.

May mediate cellular response to DNA damage by protecting against ultraviolet C-induced cell death. Can form voltage-gated calcium and potassium channels in vitro (By similarity).

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent guanine N(1)- methyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of N(1)-methylguanine at position 9 (m1G9) in tRNAs. Probably not able to catalyze formation of N(1)-methyladenine at position 9 (m1A9) in tRNAs.

Mitochondrial tRNA N(1)-methyltransferase involved in mitochondrial tRNA maturation. Component of mitochondrial ribonuclease P, a complex composed of TRMT10C/MRPP1, HSD17B10/MRPP2 and PRORP/MRPP3, which cleaves tRNA molecules in their 5'-ends. Together with HSD17B10/MRPP2, forms a subcomplex of the mitochondrial ribonuclease P, named MRPP1-MRPP2 subcomplex, which displays functions that are independent of the ribonuclease P activity. The MRPP1-MRPP2 subcomplex catalyzes the formation of N(1)-methylguanine and N(1)-methyladenine at position 9 (m1G9 and m1A9, respectively) in tRNAs; TRMT10C/MRPP1 acting as the catalytic N(1)-methyltransferase subunit. The MRPP1-MRPP2 subcomplex also acts as a tRNA maturation platform: following 5'-end cleavage by the mitochondrial ribonuclease P complex, the MRPP1-MRPP2 subcomplex enhances the efficiency of 3'-processing catalyzed by ELAC2, retains the tRNA product after ELAC2 processing and presents the nascent tRNA to the mitochondrial CCA tRNA nucleotidyltransferase TRNT1 enzyme. In addition to tRNA N(1)-methyltransferase activity, TRMT10C/MRPP1 also acts as a mRNA N(1)-methyltransferase by mediating methylation of adenosine residues at the N(1) position of MT-ND5 mRNA. Associates with mitochondrial DNA complexes at the nucleoids to initiate RNA processing and ribosome assembly.

May play a role in retrograde transport of proteins from the Golgi to the endoplasmic reticulum. May indirectly play a role in protein glycosylation in the Golgi.

Involved in endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress-induced cell death pathway.

Plays an important role in bone formation and normal bone mineralization. Promotes the differentiation of myoblasts into osteoblasts. May induce the commitment and differentiation of myoblasts into osteoblasts through an enhancement of BMP2 production and interaction with the BMP-RUNX2 pathway. Up- regulates the expression of ATF4, a transcription factor which plays a central role in osteoblast differentiation. Essential for normal spermatogenesis and late testicular differentiation (By similarity).

Probable serine protease which may play a role in cellular senescence. Overexpression inhibits cell growth and induce G1 cell cycle arrest

May play some biological role in the host defense system on the mucous membrane independently of or in cooperation with other substances in airway mucous or bronchial secretions. Plays a role in the proteolytic processing of ACE2. Proteolytically cleaves and activates the human coronavirus 229E (HCoV-229E) spike glycoprotein which facilitate virus-cell membrane fusions; spike proteins are synthesized and maintained in precursor intermediate folding states and proteolysis permits the refolding and energy release required to create stable virus-cell linkages and membrane coalescence. Preferentially cleaves the C-terminal side of arginine residues at the P1 position of certain peptides, cleaving Boc-Phe-Ser-Arg-4-methylcoumaryl-7-amide most efficiently and having an optimum pH of 8.6 with this substrate.

Serine protease which possesses both gelatinolytic and caseinolytic activities. Shows a preference for Arg in the P1 position.

Controls cell proliferation acting as a negative regulator of TOR signaling pathway mediated by mTORC1. May act as a tumor suppressor.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase involved in ER-associated protein degradation, preferentially associates with the E2 enzyme UBE2J2. Exploited by viral US11 proteins to mediate HLA class I proteins degradation.

Involved in mitochondrial metabolism by regulating the balance between mitochondrial fusion and fission. May act as a regulator of mitochondrial fission that promotes DNM1L-dependent fission through activation of DNM1L. May be involved in peroxisome organization.

May be involved in cellular trafficking of proteins such as SLC4A1.

Component of a ribosome-associated endoplasmic reticulum (ER) translocon complex involved in multi-pass membrane protein transport into the ER membrane and biogenesis. Together with SEC61 and TMCO1, forms the lipid-filled cavity at the center of the translocon where TMEM147 may insert hydrophobic segments of mutli-pass membrane proteins from the lumen into de central membrane cavity in a process gated by SEC61, and TMCO1 may insert hydrophobic segments of nascent chains from the cytosol into the cavity. Acts as a negative regulator of CHRM3 function, most likely by interfering with its trafficking to the cell membrane. Negatively regulates CHRM3- mediated calcium mobilization and activation of RPS6KA1/p90RSK activity.

Inhibits apoptosis via negative regulation of the mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization involved in apoptotic signaling pathway.

Primate-specific protein involved in cortical expansion and folding in the developing neocortex. May drive neural progenitor proliferation through nuclear translocation of IQGAP1, which in turn promotes G1/S cell cycle transitions.

Receptor for brain injury-derived neurotrophic peptide (BINP), a synthetic 13-mer peptide.

May bind zinc and other divalent cations and recruit them to vesicular organelles.

Positive regulator of ferroptosis. Selectively mediates ATG5- dependent autophagosome formation during ferroptosis, rather than during starvation, and regulates the degradation of ferritin, GPX4 and lipid droplets to increase iron accumulation and lipid peroxidation, thereby promoting ferroptotic cell death.

May function as a calcium/proton transporter involved in calcium and in lysosomal pH homeostasis. Therefore, it may play an indirect role in protein glycosylation.

Plays a key role in maintaining the cardiac electrical stability by modulating cell surface expression of SCN5A. May play a role in the modulation of anxiety behavior by regulating GABAergic neuronal system in the nucleus accumbens (By similarity).

Proton-activated proton channel that catalyzes proton efflux from endosomes and lysosomes to maintain a steady-state pH. Activated at low pH (under pH 4.6) by luminal side protons: selectively mediates lysosomal proton release from lysosomes, eliciting a proton leak that balances V-ATPase activity to maintain pH homeostasis. Regulation of lumenal pH stability is required for autophagosome-lysosome fusion. May also act as a potassium channel at higher pH, regulating potassium conductance in endosomes and lysosomes. The potassium channel activity is however unclear as it was tested in non-physiological conditions for a lysosomal channel. Constitutes the pore-forming subunit of the lysoK(GF) complex, a complex activated by extracellular growth factors. The lysoK(GF) complex is composed of TMEM175 and AKT (AKT1, AKT2 or AKT3), a major target of growth factor receptors: in the complex, TMEM175 channel is opened by conformational changes by AKT, leading to its activation. The lysoK(GF) complex is required to protect neurons against stress-induced damage.

Plays a role in the early steps of cytochrome c oxidase subunit II (MT-CO2/COX2) maturation and is required for the stabilization of COX20 and the newly synthesized MT-CO2/COX2 protein.

Negatively regulates myogenesis and skeletal muscle regeneration via its association with ITGB1 (By similarity). Modulates ITGB1 activation by decreasing ITGB1-LAMB1 interaction and inhibiting ITGB1-mediated intracellular signaling during myogenesis (By similarity).

As part of the MCIA complex, required for efficient assembly of the mitochondrial complex I.

Promotes LRP6 phosphorylation by casein kinases and thereby plays a role in Wnt signaling. May be a membrane scaffold protein involved in the self-aggregation of LRP6 to further enhance its activity.

Probable adapter protein involved in signaling pathways. Interacts with the SH2 and SH3 domains of various signaling proteins when it is phosphorylated. May promote FYN activation, possibly by disrupting intramolecular SH3-dependent interactions (By similarity).

Acts as a MYO6/Myosin VI adapter protein that targets myosin VI to endocytic structures. May also play a role in recruiting clathrin to endosomes. May regulate growth factor-induced mitogenic signaling.

Involved in nuclear movement during fibroblast polarization and migration. Proposed to be involved in actin-dependent nuclear movement via association with transmembrane actin-associated nuclear (TAN) lines which are bound to F-actin cables and couple the nucleus to retrograde actin flow (By similarity). Overexpression can recruit Ran GTPase to the nuclear periphery.

Involved in the regulation of cellular calcium homeotasis. Required for spermatogenesis.

Can influence paracellular permeability. Appears to be involved in cell-cell interactions through adherens

In cancer cells, plays a role in resistance to the chemotherapeutic agent cisplatin.

May function as a negative regulator of endoplasmic reticulum-stress induced autophagy.

Critical mediator, in cooperation with CASP4, of endoplasmic reticulum-stress induced apoptosis. Required or the activation of CASP4 following endoplasmic reticulum stress.

Part of the tectonic-like complex which is required for tissue-specific ciliogenesis and may regulate ciliary membrane composition.

Cell death receptor specific for IGFBP3, may mediate caspase- 8-dependent apoptosis upon ligand binding.

Mitochondrial ribosome-associated protein involved in the first steps of cytochrome c oxidase complex (complex IV) biogenesis. Stimulates the translation of MT-CO1 mRNA and is a constituent of early MT-CO1 assembly intermediates.

Probably inhibits protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) in sperm via binding to catalytic subunit PPP1CC.

Transmembrane component of the tectonic-like complex, a complex localized at the transition zone of primary cilia and acting as a barrier that prevents diffusion of transmembrane proteins between the cilia and plasma membranes. Required for ciliogenesis and sonic hedgehog/SHH signaling (By similarity).

Component of the transition zone in primary cilia. Required for ciliogenesis.

Scaffold protein that participates in the c-ring assembly of mitochondrial ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or complex V) by facilitating the membrane insertion and oligomer formation of the subunit c/ATP5MC3. Participates in the incorporation of the c-ring into vestigial complexes. Additionally influences the incorporation of subunits MT-ATP6, MT-ATP8, ATP5MJ, and ATP5MK in the ATP synthase.

Auxiliary component of the CatSper complex, a complex involved in sperm cell hyperactivation.

May play a role in cell proliferation by promoting progression into S phase.

Subunit of the oligosaccharyl transferase (OST) complex that catalyzes the initial transfer of a defined glycan (Glc(3)Man(9)GlcNAc(2) in eukaryotes) from the lipid carrier dolichol- pyrophosphate to an asparagine residue within an Asn-X-Ser/Thr consensus motif in nascent polypeptide chains, the first step in protein N-glycosylation. N-glycosylation occurs cotranslationally and the complex associates with the Sec61 complex at the channel-forming translocon complex that mediates protein translocation across the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). All subunits are required for a maximal enzyme activity. Involved in ER homeostasis in the colonic epithelium (By similarity).

Voltage-sensor protein present on the post-synaptic side of glutamatergic mossy fibers and granule cells in the cerebellum. Despite the presence of a voltage- sensor segment, does not form a functional ion channel and its precise role remains unclear. Undergoes both rapid and slow structural rearrangements in response to changes in voltage. Contains a zinc-binding site that can regulate the slow conformational transition.

May participate in amyloid-beta-induced apoptosis via its interaction with beta-APP42.

Monovalent cation channel required for maintenance of rapid intracellular calcium release. May act as a potassium counter-ion channel that functions in synchronization with calcium release from intracellular stores.

Regulates autophagy by controlling the spatial distribution and levels of the intracellular phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns(4)P) pools. Modulates (PtdIns(4)P) levels by regulating the ER-to-Golgi trafficking of the phosphatidylinositide phosphatase SACM1L.

Potential channel-forming protein implicated in import of protein precursors into mitochondria.

Phospholipid scramblase involved in lipid homeostasis and membrane dynamics processes. Has phospholipid scramblase activity toward cholesterol and phosphatidylserine, as well as phosphatidylethanolamine and phosphatidylcholine. Required for autophagosome formation: participates in early stages of autophagosome biogenesis at the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane by reequilibrating the leaflets of the ER as lipids are extracted by ATG2 (ATG2A or ATG2B) to mediate autophagosome assembly. In addition to autophagy, involved in other processes in which phospholipid scramblase activity is required. Required for normal motor neuron development (By similarity).

Plays a role in innate immunity. Mechanistically, promotes alphaviruses RNA degradation by interacting with the viral polymerase nsP4 and the mRNA-capping enzyme nsP1 and thereby interfering with the interaction between viral RNA and nsP1.(PubMed:35938871).

Modulates the O-glycosylation and complex N-glycosylation steps occurring during the Golgi maturation of APP. Inhibits APP transport to the cell surface and further shedding.

Regulator of liver fat metabolism influencing triglyceride secretion and hepatic lipid droplet content. May function as sterol isomerase.

Involved in the inhibition of cytokine-induced death of pancreatic beta cells. Involved in the promotion of insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells. Is a downstream transcriptional target of p53/TP53, and acts as a pro-survival homeostatic factor that attenuates the development of cellular stress. Maintains protein homeostasis and promotes cell survival through attenuation of endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress and the subsequent induction of unfolded protein response (UPR).

Enzyme catalyzing the degradation of lysoplasmalogen. Lysoplasmalogens are formed by the hydrolysis of the abundant membrane glycerophospholipids plasmalogens. May control the respective levels of plasmalogens and lysoplasmalogens in cells and modulate cell membrane properties.

May be involved in retrograde transport from endosomes to the trans-Golgi network (TGN).

In the intracellular compartments, may function as a channel or small molecule transporter.

Associates with proteins harboring glycine-rich transmembrane domains and ensures their efficient localization to the cell surface. Regulates the assembly and activity of V-ATPase in colon cancer cells via its interaction with V-type proton ATPase subunit H (ATP6V1H) and contributes to V-ATPase-mediated pH alterations in cancer cells which play an important role in drug resistance and invasiveness of colon cancer cells. Plays an important role in an atypical phagocytic activity of metastatic melanoma cells called cannibalism and is involved in the pH regulation of the intracellular vesicles in tumor cells.

Involved in the biogenesis of the 60S ribosomal subunit in the nucleus.

Probable ion channel required for the normal function of cochlear hair cells.

Probable ion channel required for the normal function of cochlear hair cells. Component of the hair cell's mechanotransduction (MET) machinery. Involved in mechanosensitive responses of the hair cells (By similarity).

Endoplasmic reticulum membrane protein that promotes endoplasmic reticulum-associated endosome fission. Localizes to contact sites between the endoplasmic reticulum and endosomes and acts by promoting recruitment of the endoplasmic reticulum to endosome tubules for fission. Endosome membrane fission of early and late endosomes is essential to separate regions destined for lysosomal degradation from carriers to be recycled to the plasma membrane.

May be involved in the regulation of the proteolytic processing of the amyloid precursor protein (APP) possibly also implicating APOE.

Calcium-selective channel required to prevent calcium stores from overfilling, thereby playing a key role in calcium homeostasis. In response to endoplasmic reticulum (ER) overloading, assembles into a homotetramer, forming a functional calcium-selective channel, regulating the calcium content in endoplasmic reticulum store. Component of a ribosome- associated ER translocon complex involved in multi-pass membrane protein transport into the ER membrane and biogenesis. Together with SEC61 and TMEM147, forms the lipid- filled cavity at the center of the translocon where TMEM147 may insert hydrophobic segments of mutli-pass membrane proteins from the lumen into de central membrane cavity in a process gated by SEC61, and TMCO1 may insert hydrophobic segments of nascent chains from the cytosol into the cavity.

Potential role in vesicular protein trafficking, mainly in the early secretory pathway. May act as a cargo receptor at the lumenal side for incorporation of secretory cargo molecules into transport vesicles and may be involved in vesicle coat formation at the cytoplasmic side. Plays a positive role in IL-33-mediated IL-8 and IL-6 production by interacting with interleukin-33 receptor IL1RL1. Also plays a role in the modulation of innate immune signaling through the cGAS-STING pathway by interacting with RNF26.

Involved in vesicular protein trafficking. Mainly functions in the early secretory pathway but also in post-Golgi membranes. Thought to act as cargo receptor at the lumenal side for incorporation of secretory cargo molecules into transport vesicles and to be involved in vesicle coat formation at the cytoplasmic side. In COPII vesicle- mediated anterograde transport involved in the transport of GPI- anchored proteins and proposed to act together with TMED10 as their cargo receptor; the function specifically implies SEC24C and SEC24D of the COPII vesicle coat and lipid raft-like microdomains of the ER. Recognizes GPI anchors structural remodeled in the ER by PGAP1 and MPPE1. In COPI vesicle-mediated retrograde transport inhibits the GTPase-activating activity of ARFGAP1 towards ARF1 thus preventing immature uncoating and allowing cargo selection to take place. Involved in trafficking of G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs). Regulates F2RL1, OPRM1 and P2RY4 exocytic trafficking from the Golgi to the plasma membrane thus contributing to receptor resensitization. Facilitates CASR maturation and stabilization in the early secretory pathway and increases CASR plasma membrane targeting. Proposed to be involved in organization of intracellular membranes such as the maintenance of the Golgi apparatus. May also play a role in the biosynthesis of secreted cargo such as eventual processing.

Potential role in vesicular protein trafficking, mainly in the early secretory pathway. Contributes to the coupled localization of TMED2 and TMED10 in the cis-Golgi network.

Involved in vesicular protein trafficking, mainly in the early secretory pathway. targeting. Involved in the maintenance of the Golgi apparatus. Appears to play a role in the biosynthesis of secreted cargo including processing. Involved in endoplasmic reticulum stress response. May play a role in the regulation of heat-shock response and apoptosis (By similarity).

Potential role in vesicular protein trafficking, mainly in the early secretory pathway. Required for the maintenance of the Golgi apparatus; involved in protein exchange between Golgi stacks during assembly. Probably not required for COPI-vesicle-mediated retrograde transport.

Potential role in vesicular protein trafficking, mainly in the early secretory pathway. Appears to play a role in the biosynthesis of secreted cargo including processing and post-translational modifications

Appears to be involved in vesicular protein trafficking, mainly in the early secretory pathway. In COPI vesicle-mediated retrograde transport involved in the coatomer recruitment to membranes of the early secretory pathway. Increases coatomer-dependent activity of ARFGAP2. Thought to play a crucial role in the specific retention of p24 complexes in cis-Golgi membranes; specifically contributes to the coupled localization of TMED2 and TMED10 in the cis-Golgi network. May be involved in organization of intracellular membranes, such as of the ER-Golgi intermediate compartment and the Golgi apparatus. Involved in ER localization of PTPN2 isoform PTPB.

Cargo receptor involved in protein vesicular trafficking and quality control in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and Golgi. The p24 protein family is a group of transmembrane proteins that bind coat protein complex I/COPI and coat protein complex II/COPII involved in vesicular trafficking between the membranes. Acts at the lumenal side for incorporation of secretory cargo molecules into transport vesicles and involved in vesicle coat formation at the cytoplasmic side. Mainly functions in the early secretory pathway and cycles between the ER, ER-Golgi intermediate compartment (ERGIC) and Golgi, mediating cargo transport through COPI and COPII-coated vesicles. In COPII vesicle-mediated anterograde transport, involved in the transport of GPI-anchored proteins by acting together with TMED2 as their cargo receptor; the function specifically implies SEC24C and SEC24D of the COPII vesicle coat and lipid raft-like microdomains of the ER. Recognizes GPI anchors structural remodeled in the ER by the GPI inositol-deacylase/PGAP1 and the metallophosphoesterase MPPE1/PGAP5 (By similarity). In COPI vesicle-mediated retrograde transport, involved in the biogenesis of COPI vesicles and vesicle coat recruitment. Involved in trafficking of amyloid beta A4 protein and soluble APP-beta release (independent from the modulation of gamma-secretase activity). Involved in the KDELR2-mediated retrograde transport of the toxin A subunit (CTX-A- K63)together with COPI and the COOH terminus of KDELR2 (By similarity). On Golgi membranes, acts as primary receptor for ARF1-GDP, a GTP- binding protein involved in COPI-vesicle formation. Increases coatomer-dependent GTPase-activating activity of ARFGAP2 which mediates the hydrolysis of ARF1-bound GTP and therefore modulates protein trafficking from the Golgi apparatus. Involved in the exocytic trafficking of G protein-coupled receptors F2LR1/PAR2 (trypsin and tryspin-like enzyme receptor), OPRM1 (opioid receptor) and P2RY4 (UTD and UDP receptor) from the Golgi to the plasma membrane, thus contributing to receptor resensitization. In addition to its cargo receptor activity, may also act as a protein channel after oligomerization, facilitating the post- translational entry of leaderless cytoplasmic cargo into the ERGIC. Involved in the translocation into ERGIC, the vesicle entry and the secretion of leaderless cargos (lacking the secretion signal sequence), including the mature form of interleukin 1/IL-1 family members, the alpha-crystallin B chain HSPB5, the carbohydrate-binding proteins galectin-1/LGALS1 and galectin-3/LGALS3, the microtubule-associated protein Tau/MAPT, and the annexin A1/ANXA1; the translocation process is dependent on cargo protein unfolding and enhanced by chaperones HSP90AB1 and HSP90B1/GRP9. Could also associates with the presenilin-dependent gamma-secretase complex in order to regulate gamma-cleavages of the amyloid beta A4 protein to yield amyloid-beta 40/Abeta40.

Transmembrane protein that binds to and facilitates the assembly of lysosomal proton-transporting V-type ATPase (v-ATPase), resulting in enhanced lysosomal acidification and trafficking. By bringing the v-ATPase accessory protein ATP6AP2 and the v-ATPase subunit ATP6V0D1 together, allows v-ATPase complex formation and activation. TMEM9-controlled vesicular acidification induces hyperactivation of Wnt/beta-catenin signaling, involved in development, tissue homeostasis and tissue regeneration, through lysosomal degradation of adenomatous polyposis coli/APC. In the liver, involved in hepatic regeneration.

Potential coactivator of the androgen receptor. Mediates STAT3 degradation. May play critical roles in two RAB6-dependent retrograde transport processes: one from endosomes to the Golgi and the other from the Golgi to the ER. This protein binds the HIV-1 TATA element and inhibits transcriptional activation by the TATA-binding protein (TBP).

May control axon guidance across the CNS. Prevents the delivery of ROBO1 at the cell surface and down-regulates its expression.

Unknown. The protein may play some role in a cellular membrane location. May reside within an internal membrane compartment and function in pathways such as those involved in protein and/or vesicle trafficking. Alternatively, the mature protein may be localized in the plasma membrane and serve as a site of interaction for other molecules through its highly charged C-terminal domain

May control cell-cell adhesion, cell migration and proliferation, cell morphology, and protects renal epithelial cells from oxidative cell injury to promote cell survival.

Plays a role in cell-cell interaction, cell migration, and angiogenesis. Through interaction with HHLA2, costimulates T-cells in the context of TCR-mediated activation. Enhances T-cell proliferation and cytokine production via an AKT-dependent signaling cascade.

[Isoform 1]: Plays a suppressive role in osteosarcoma malignancy by inhibiting NF-kappa-B activity.

Converts trimethyllysine (TML) into hydroxytrimethyllysine (HTML).

Transcription repressor. Sequence-specific ssDNA and dsDNA binding protein, with preference for GCT end CTG repeats. Cell migration modulator which enhances the glioma-specific migration ability of neural stem cells (NSC) and neural precursor cells (NPC).

In neurons, modulates the degradation of NMDA receptor GRIN2B subunit. Plays a role in the regulation of neuronal excitability.

Acts as a regulator of the tubular endoplasmic reticulum (ER) network by modulating intracellular calcium homeostasis. Mechanistically, stimulates PKD2 calcium-dependent activity (By similarity). Suppresses the RTN3/4-induced formation of the ER tubules. Positively regulates PERK-mediated and IRE1-mediated unfolded protein response signaling. Plays an essential role in VEGF-mediated release of Ca(2+) from ER stores during angiogenesis. Also plays a role in the modulation of innate immune signaling through the cGAS-STING pathway by interacting with RNF26. Participates in lipid metabolism by acting as a downstream effector of the pyruvate kinase/PKM. Forms a complex with RNF5 to facilitate polyubiquitination and subsequent degradation of SCAP on the ER membrane.

May have an important role in maintaining nuclear envelope structure by organizing protein complexes at the inner nuclear membrane. Required for retaining emerin at the inner nuclear membrane (By similarity). Plays a role in the modulation of innate immune signaling through the cGAS-STING pathway by interacting with RNF26. In addition, functions as a critical signaling component in mediating NF-kappa-B activation by acting downstream of EGFR and upstream of CARD10. Contributes to passive conductance current in cochlear glia-like supporting cells, mediated by gap junctions and necessary for hearing and speech discrimination.

Regulates cell junction organization in epithelial cells. May play a role in the transition from adherens junction to tight junction assembly. May regulate F-actin polymerization required for tight junctional localization dynamics and affect the junctional localization of PARD6B. During podocyte differentiation may negatively regulate activity of FYN and subsequently the abundance of nephrin (By similarity).

Ensures normal bone formation, through the negative regulation of bone morphogenetic protein (BMP) signaling in osteoblast lineage cells by blocking cytoplasm-nucleus translocation of phosphorylated SMAD1/5/9 proteins.

Acts as a regulator of autophagy in response to S.aureus infection by promoting activation of LC3 (MAP1LC3A, MAP1LC3B or MAP1LC3C). Acts by interacting with ATG16L1, leading to promote a functional complex between LC3 and ATG16L1 and promoting LC3 lipidation and subsequent activation of autophagy. Modulates the O-glycosylation and complex N- glycosylation steps occurring during the Golgi maturation of several proteins such as APP, BACE1, SEAP or PRNP. Inhibits APP transport to the cell surface and further shedding.

Positively regulates TNFSF11-induced osteoclast differentiation. Acts as a regulator of TNFSF11-mediated Ca(2+) signaling pathways via its interaction with SERCA2 which is critical for the TNFSF11-induced CREB1 activation and mitochondrial ROS generation necessary for proper osteoclast generation. Association between TMEM64 and SERCA2 in the ER leads to cytosolic Ca (2+) spiking for activation of NFATC1 and production of mitochondrial ROS, thereby triggering Ca (2+) signaling cascades that promote osteoclast differentiation and activation. Negatively regulates osteoblast differentiation and positively regulates adipocyte differentiation via modulation of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway. Mediates the switch in lineage commitment to osteogenesis rather than to adipogenesis in mesenchymal stem cells by negatively regulating the expression, activity and nuclear localization of CTNNB1.

May play an important role in cardiac development and function. May regulate cardiac conduction and the function of the gap junction protein GJA1. May contribute to the stability and proper localization of GJA1 to cardiac intercalated disk thereby regulating gap junction communication (By similarity). May also play a role in the regulation of mitochondrial respiration and mitochondrial DNA copy number maintenance.

Scaffold protein that participates in the c-ring assembly of mitochondrial ATP synthase (F(1)F(0) ATP synthase or complex V) by facilitating the membrane insertion and oligomer formation of the subunit c/ATP5MC1 through its interaction. Therefore, participates in the early stage of mitochondrial ATP synthase biogenesis and also protects subunit c/ATP5MC1 against intramitochondrial proteolysis. In addition, binds the mitochondrial proton-transporting ATP synthase complexes I and may play a role in the stability of its membrane-bound subassemblies.

Plays an essential role in autophagy. TMEM74-induced autophagy may involve PI3K signal transduction.

Contributes to the epidermal integrity and skin barrier function. Plays a role in the lamellar granule (LG) secretory system and in the stratum corneum (SC) epithelial cell formation (By similarity).

Inhibits the Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway. Crucial for heart development and acts downstream of GATA factors in the pre- cardiac mesoderm to specify lineage commitment of cardiomyocyte development.

Functions as a negative regulator of MYRF in oligodendrocyte differentiation and myelination. Interacts with the C-terminal of MYRF inhibiting MYRF self-cleavage and N-fragment nuclear translocation. The secreted form promotes differentiation of T helper 1 cells (Th1).

Enhances production of pro-inflammatory cytokines induced by TNF, IL1B, and TLR ligands. Has a role in TNF activation of both the NF-kappaB and MAPK pathways.

Blocks the elongation and depolymerization of the actin filaments at the pointed end. The Tmod/TM complex contributes to the formation of the short actin protofilament, which in turn defines the geometry of the membrane skeleton. May play an important role in regulating the organization of actin filaments by preferentially binding to a specific tropomyosin isoform at its N-terminus.

Blocks the elongation and depolymerization of the actin filaments at the pointed end. The Tmod/TM complex contributes to the formation of the short actin protofilament, which in turn defines the geometry of the membrane skeleton (By similarity).

Blocks the elongation and depolymerization of the actin filaments at the pointed end. The Tmod/TM complex contributes to the formation of the short actin protofilament, which in turn defines the geometry of the membrane skeleton

Plasma membrane-anchored serine protease that participates in proteolytic cascades of relevance for the normal physiologic function of the prostate. Androgen-induced TMPRSS2 activates several substrates that include pro-hepatocyte growth factor/HGF, the protease activated receptor-2/F2RL1 or matriptase/ST14 leading to extracellular matrix disruption and metastasis of prostate cancer cells. In addition, activates trigeminal neurons and contribute to both spontaneous pain and mechanical allodynia (By similarity).

Probable serine protease that plays a role in hearing. Acts as a permissive factor for cochlear hair cell survival and activation at the onset of hearing and is required for saccular hair cell survival (By similarity). Activates ENaC (in vitro).

Plasma membrane-anchored serine protease that directly induces processing of pro-uPA/PLAU into the active form through proteolytic activity. Seems to be capable of activating ENaC (By similarity).

Membrane-bound serine protease. Through the cleavage of cell surface HJV, a regulator of the expression of the iron absorption-regulating hormone hepicidin/HAMP, plays a role in iron homeostasis.

Serine protease which preferentially hydrolyzes peptides with Arg at the P1 position.

Transfers mannosyl residues to the hydroxyl group of serine or threonine residues. The 4 members of the TMTC family are O-mannosyl- transferases dedicated primarily to the cadherin superfamily, each member seems to have a distinct role in decorating the cadherin domains with O-linked mannose glycans at specific regions. Also acts as O- mannosyl-transferase on other proteins such as PDIA3.

Transfers mannosyl residues to the hydroxyl group of serine or threonine residues. The 4 members of the TMTC family are O-mannosyl- transferases dedicated primarily to the cadherin superfamily, each member seems to have a distinct role in decorating the cadherin domains with O-linked mannose glycans at specific regions. Also acts as O- mannosyl-transferase on other proteins such as PDIA3. Involved in the positive regulation of proteasomal protein degradation in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER), and the control of ER stress response.

Involved in sterol-regulated ubiquitination and degradation of HMG-CoA reductase HMGCR. Involved in positive regulation of AMPA-selective glutamate receptor GRIA2 recycling to the cell surface (By similarity). Acts as negative regulator of hepatocyte growth during regeneration (By similarity).

May participate in various redox reactions through the reversible oxidation of its active center dithiol to a disulfide and catalyze dithiol-disulfide exchange reactions

Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria-associated protein that probably functions as a regulator of cellular redox state and thereby regulates protein post-translational modification, protein folding and mitochondrial activity. Indirectly regulates neuronal proliferation, migration, and organization in the developing brain.

Probable disulfide isomerase, which participates in the folding of proteins containing disulfide bonds. May act as a dithiol oxidase.

Cytokine that binds to TNFRSF13B/TACI and TNFRSF17/BCMA. TNFSF13/APRIL binds to the same 2 receptors. Together, they form a 2 ligands -2 receptors pathway involved in the stimulation of B- and T- cell function and the regulation of humoral immunity. A third B-cell specific BAFF-receptor (BAFFR/BR3) promotes the survival of mature B- cells and the B-cell response.

Ubiquitin-editing enzyme that contains both ubiquitin ligase and deubiquitinase activities. Involved in immune and inflammatory responses signaled by cytokines, such as TNF-alpha and IL-1 beta, or pathogens via Toll-like receptors (TLRs) through terminating NF-kappa-B activity. Essential component of a ubiquitin-editing protein complex, comprising also RNF11, ITCH and TAX1BP1, that ensures the transient nature of inflammatory signaling pathways. In cooperation with TAX1BP1 promotes disassembly of E2-E3 ubiquitin protein ligase complexes in IL- 1R and TNFR-1 pathways; affected are at least E3 ligases TRAF6, TRAF2 and BIRC2, and E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes UBE2N and UBE2D3. In cooperation with TAX1BP1 promotes ubiquitination of UBE2N and proteasomal degradation of UBE2N and UBE2D3. Upon TNF stimulation, deubiquitinates 'Lys-63'-polyubiquitin chains on RIPK1 and catalyzes the formation of 'Lys-48'-polyubiquitin chains. This leads to RIPK1 proteasomal degradation and consequently termination of the TNF- or LPS-mediated activation of NF-kappa-B. Deubiquitinates TRAF6 probably acting on 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin. Upon T-cell receptor (TCR)- mediated T-cell activation, deubiquitinates 'Lys-63'-polyubiquitin chains on MALT1 thereby mediating disassociation of the CBM (CARD11:BCL10:MALT1) and IKK complexes and preventing sustained IKK activation. Deubiquitinates NEMO/IKBKG; the function is facilitated by TNIP1 and leads to inhibition of NF-kappa-B activation. Upon stimulation by bacterial peptidoglycans, probably deubiquitinates RIPK2. Can also inhibit I-kappa-B-kinase (IKK) through a non-catalytic mechanism which involves polyubiquitin; polyubiquitin promotes association with IKBKG and prevents IKK MAP3K7-mediated phosphorylation. Targets TRAF2 for lysosomal degradation. In vitro able to deubiquitinate 'Lys-11'-, 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63' polyubiquitin chains. Inhibitor of programmed cell death. Has a role in the function of the lymphoid system. Required for LPS-induced production of pro- inflammatory cytokines and IFN beta in LPS-tolerized macrophages.

Cytokine that binds to TNFRSF10A/TRAILR1, TNFRSF10B/TRAILR2, TNFRSF10C/TRAILR3, TNFRSF10D/TRAILR4 and possibly also to TNFRSF11B/OPG. Induces apoptosis. Its activity may be modulated by binding to the decoy receptors TNFRSF10C/TRAILR3, TNFRSF10D/TRAILR4 and TNFRSF11B/OPG that cannot induce apoptosis.

Cytokine that binds to TNFRSF11B/OPG and to TNFRSF11A/RANK. Osteoclast differentiation and activation factor. Augments the ability of dendritic cells to stimulate naive T-cell proliferation. May be an important regulator of interactions between T-cells and dendritic cells and may play a role in the regulation of the T-cell-dependent immune response. May also play an important role in enhanced bone-resorption in humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy. Induces osteoclastogenesis by activating multiple signaling pathways in osteoclast precursor cells, chief among which is induction of long lasting oscillations in the intracellular concentration of Ca (2+) resulting in the activation of NFATC1, which translocates to the nucleus and induces osteoclast-specific gene transcription to allow differentiation of osteoclasts. During osteoclast differentiation, in a TMEM64 and ATP2A2-dependent manner induces activation of CREB1 and mitochondrial ROS generation necessary for proper osteoclast generation (By similarity).

Binds to FN14 and possibly also to TNRFSF12/APO3. Weak inducer of apoptosis in some cell types. Mediates NF-kappa-B activation. Promotes angiogenesis and the proliferation of endothelial cells. Also involved in induction of inflammatory cytokines. Promotes IL8 secretion.

Cytokine that binds to TNFRSF13B/TACI and to TNFRSF17/BCMA. Plays a role in the regulation of tumor cell growth. May be involved in monocyte/macrophage-mediated immunological processes.

Cytokine that binds to TNFRSF3/LTBR. Binding to the decoy receptor TNFRSF6B modulates its effects. Acts as a ligand for TNFRSF14/HVEM. Upon binding to TNFRSF14/HVEM, delivers costimulatory signals to T cells, leading to T cell proliferation and IFNG production.

Receptor for TNFRSF25 and TNFRSF6B. Mediates activation of NF-kappa-B. Inhibits vascular endothelial growth and angiogenesis (in vitro). Promotes activation of caspases and apoptosis.

Cytokine that binds to TNFRSF18/AITR/GITR. Regulates T-cell responses. Can function as costimulator and lower the threshold for T- cell activation and T-cell proliferation. Important for interactions between activated T-lymphocytes and endothelial cells. Mediates activation of NF-kappa-B. Triggers increased phosphorylation of STAT1 and up-regulates expression of VCAM1 and ICAM1. Promotes leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells. Regulates migration of monocytes from the splenic reservoir to sites of inflammation (By similarity).

Decoy receptor that can neutralize the cytotoxic ligands TNFS14/LIGHT, TNFSF15 and TNFSF6/FASL. Protects against apoptosis.

Cytokine that binds to TNFRSF1A/TNFR1 and TNFRSF1B/TNFBR. It is mainly secreted by macrophages and can induce cell death of certain tumor cell lines. It is potent pyrogen causing fever by direct action or by stimulation of interleukin-1 secretion and is implicated in the induction of cachexia, Under certain conditions it can stimulate cell proliferation and induce cell differentiation. Impairs regulatory T- cells (Treg) function in individuals with rheumatoid arthritis via FOXP3 dephosphorylation. Up-regulates the expression of protein phosphatase 1 (PP1), which dephosphorylates the key 'Ser-418' residue of FOXP3, thereby inactivating FOXP3 and rendering Treg cells functionally defective. Key mediator of cell death in the anticancer action of BCG-stimulated neutrophils in combination with DIABLO/SMAC mimetic in the RT4v6 bladder cancer cell line. Induces insulin resistance in adipocytes via inhibition of insulin-induced IRS1 tyrosine phosphorylation and insulin-induced glucose uptake. Induces GKAP42 protein degradation in adipocytes which is partially responsible for TNF-induced insulin resistance (By similarity). Plays a role in angiogenesis by inducing VEGF production synergistically with IL1B and IL6.

Cytokine that in its homotrimeric form binds to TNFRSF1A/TNFR1, TNFRSF1B/TNFBR and TNFRSF14/HVEM. In its heterotrimeric form with LTB binds to TNFRSF3/LTBR. Lymphotoxin is produced by lymphocytes and is cytotoxic for a wide range of tumor cells in vitro and in vivo.

Cytokine that binds to LTBR/TNFRSF3. May play a specific role in immune response regulation. Provides the membrane anchor for the attachment of the heterotrimeric complex to the cell surface. Isoform 2 is probably non-functional

Cytokine that binds to TNFRSF4. Co-stimulates T-cell proliferation and cytokine production

Cytokine that binds to TNFRSF6/FAS, a receptor that transduces the apoptotic signal into cells. Involved in cytotoxic T-cell-mediated apoptosis, natural killer cell-mediated apoptosis and in T-cell development. Initiates fratricidal/suicidal activation-induced cell death (AICD) in antigen- activated T-cells contributing to the termination of immune responses (By similarity). TNFRSF6/FAS-mediated apoptosis has also a role in the induction of peripheral tolerance (By similarity). Binds to TNFRSF6B/DcR3, a decoy receptor that blocks apoptosis.

Cytokine that binds to TNFRSF8/CD30. Induces proliferation of T-cells

Cytokine that binds to TNFRSF9. Induces the proliferation of activated peripheral blood T-cells. May have a role in activation- induced cell death (AICD). May play a role in cognate interactions between T-cells and B-cells/macrophages.

Serine/threonine kinase that acts as an essential activator of the Wnt signaling pathway. Recruited to promoters of Wnt target genes and required to activate their expression. May act by phosphorylating TCF4/TCF7L2. Appears to act upstream of the JUN N- terminal pathway. May play a role in the response to environmental stress. Part of a signaling complex composed of NEDD4, RAP2A and TNIK which regulates neuronal dendrite extension and arborization during development. More generally, it may play a role in cytoskeletal rearrangements and regulate cell spreading. Phosphorylates SMAD1 on Thr-322.

Inhibits NF-kappa-B activation and TNF-induced NF-kappa-B- dependent gene expression by regulating TAX1BP1 and A20/TNFAIP3- mediated deubiquitination of IKBKG; proposed to link A20/TNFAIP3 to ubiquitinated IKBKG. Involved in regulation of EGF- induced ERK1/ERK2 signaling pathway; blocks MAPK3/MAPK1 nuclear translocation and MAPK1-dependent transcription. Increases cell surface CD4(T4) antigen expression. Involved in the anti-inflammatory response of macrophages and positively regulates TLR-induced activation of CEBPB. Involved in the prevention of autoimmunity; this function implicates binding to polyubiquitin. Involved in leukocyte integrin activation during inflammation; this function is mediated by association with SELPLG and dependent on phosphorylation by SRC-family kinases. Interacts with HIV-1 matrix protein and is packaged into virions and overexpression can inhibit viral replication. May regulate matrix nuclear localization, both nuclear import of PIC (Preintegration complex) and export of GAG polyprotein and viral genomic RNA during virion production. In case of infection, promotes association of IKBKG with Shigella flexneri E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase ipah9.8 p which in turn promotes polyubiquitination of IKBKG leading to its proteasome- dependent degradation and thus is perturbing NF-kappa-B activation during bacterial infection.

Inhibits NF-kappa-B activation by blocking the interaction of RIPK1 with its downstream effector NEMO/IKBKG. Forms a ternary complex with NFKB1 and MAP3K8 but appears to function upstream of MAP3K8 in the TLR4 signaling pathway that regulates MAP3K8 activation. Involved in activation of the MEK/ERK signaling pathway during innate immune response; this function seems to be stimulus- and cell type specific. Required for stability of MAP3K8. Involved in regulation of apoptosis in endothelial cells; promotes TEK agonist-stimulated endothelial survival. May act as transcriptional coactivator when translocated to the nucleus. Enhances CHUK-mediated NF-kappa-B activation involving NF- kappa-B p50-p65 and p50-c-Rel complexes.

Binds to zinc finger protein TNFAIP3 and inhibits NF-kappa-B activation induced by tumor necrosis factor, Toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4), interleukin-1 and 12-O-tetradecanoylphorbol-13-acetate. Overexpression inhibits NF-kappa-B-dependent gene expression in response to lipopolysaccharide at a level downstream of TRAF6 and upstream of IKBKB. NF-kappa-B inhibition is independent of TNFAIP3 binding.

Involved in negative regulation of cell growth. Has tumor suppressor properties. Plays a negative regulatory role in the Ras-MAPK pathway. May function in signaling pathways utilized broadly during fetal development and more selectively in adult tissues and in cells of the lymphohematopoietic system. Could specifically be involved in phospholipid signal transduction.

Poly-ADP-ribosyltransferase involved in various processes such as Wnt signaling pathway, telomere length and vesicle trafficking. Acts as an activator of the Wnt signaling pathway by mediating poly- ADP-ribosylation (PARsylation) of AXIN1 and AXIN2, 2 key components of the beta-catenin destruction complex: poly-ADP-ribosylated target proteins are recognized by RNF146, which mediates their ubiquitination and subsequent degradation. Also mediates PARsylation of BLZF1 and CASC3, followed by recruitment of RNF146 and subsequent ubiquitination. Mediates PARsylation of TERF1, thereby contributing to the regulation of telomere length. Involved in centrosome maturation during prometaphase by mediating PARsylation of HEPACAM2/MIKI. May also regulate vesicle trafficking and modulate the subcellular distribution of SLC2A4/GLUT4-vesicles. May be involved in spindle pole assembly through PARsylation of NUMA1. Stimulates 26S proteasome activity.

Poly-ADP-ribosyltransferase involved in various processes such as Wnt signaling pathway, telomere length and vesicle trafficking. Acts as an activator of the Wnt signaling pathway by mediating poly-ADP-ribosylation of AXIN1 and AXIN2, 2 key components of the beta-catenin destruction complex: poly- ADP-ribosylated target proteins are recognized by RNF146, which mediates their ubiquitination and subsequent degradation. Also mediates poly-ADP-ribosylation of BLZF1 and CASC3, followed by recruitment of RNF146 and subsequent ubiquitination. Mediates poly-ADP-ribosylation of TERF1, thereby contributing to the regulation of telomere length. Stimulates 26S proteasome activity.

Troponin is the central regulatory protein of striated muscle contraction. Tn consists of three components: Tn-I which is the inhibitor of actomyosin ATPase, Tn-T which contains the binding site for tropomyosin and Tn-C. The binding of calcium to Tn-C abolishes the inhibitory action of Tn on actin filaments

Troponin I is the inhibitory subunit of troponin, the thin filament regulatory complex which confers calcium-sensitivity to striated muscle actomyosin ATPase activity

Troponin T is the tropomyosin-binding subunit of troponin, the thin filament regulatory complex which confers calcium-sensitivity to striated muscle actomyosin ATPase activity

Functions in nuclear protein import as nuclear transport receptor. Serves as receptor for nuclear localization signals (NLS) in cargo substrates. May mediate docking of the importin/substrate complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) through binding to nucleoporin and the complex is subsequently translocated through the pore by an energy requiring, Ran-dependent mechanism. At the nucleoplasmic side of the NPC, Ran binds to the importin, the importin/substrate complex dissociates and importin is re-exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where GTP hydrolysis releases Ran. The directionality of nuclear import is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus (By similarity). Involved in nuclear import of M9-containing proteins. In vitro, binds directly to the M9 region of the heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoproteins (hnRNP), A1 and A2 and mediates their nuclear import. Involved in hnRNP A1/A2 nuclear export. Mediates the nuclear import of ribosomal proteins RPL23A, RPS7 and RPL5. In vitro, mediates nuclear import of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 histones (By similarity). In vitro, mediates nuclear import of SRP19. Mediates nuclear import of ADAR/ADAR1 isoform 1 and isoform 5 in a RanGTP-dependent manner.

Probably functions in nuclear protein import as nuclear transport receptor. Serves as receptor for nuclear localization signals (NLS) in cargo substrates. Is thought to mediate docking of the importin/substrate complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) through binding to nucleoporin and the complex is subsequently translocated through the pore by an energy requiring, Ran-dependent mechanism. At the nucleoplasmic side of the NPC, Ran binds to the importin, the importin/substrate complex dissociates and importin is re-exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where GTP hydrolysis releases Ran. The directionality of nuclear import is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus (By similarity).

Importin, which transports target proteins into the nucleus. Specifically mediates the nuclear import of splicing factor serine/arginine (SR) proteins, such as RBM4, SFRS1 and SFRS2, by recognizing phosphorylated SR domains. Also mediates the nuclear import of serine/arginine (SR) protein CPSF6, independently of CPSF6 phosphorylation. The nuclear import process is regulated by the small GTPase Ran that partitions between cytoplasm and nucleus in the predominantly GDP- and GTP-bound form, respectively. Importin associates with target cargo proteins in the cytoplasm, and the competitive binding of GTP-bound Ran induces the release of cargos in the nucleus.

Receptor for TNFSF11/RANKL/TRANCE/OPGL; essential for RANKL- mediated osteoclastogenesis. Involved in the regulation of interactions between T-cells and dendritic cells.

Receptor for TNFSF12/TWEAK. Weak inducer of apoptosis in some cell types. Promotes angiogenesis and the proliferation of endothelial cells. May modulate cellular adhesion to matrix proteins.

Receptor for four distinct ligands: The TNF superfamily members TNFSF14/LIGHT and homotrimeric LTA/lymphotoxin-alpha and the immunoglobulin superfamily members BTLA and CD160, altogether defining a complex stimulatory and inhibitory signaling network. Signals via the TRAF2-TRAF3 E3 ligase pathway to promote immune cell survival and differentiation. Participates in bidirectional cell-cell contact signaling between antigen presenting cells and lymphocytes. In response to ligation of TNFSF14/LIGHT, delivers costimulatory signals to T cells, promoting cell proliferation and effector functions. Interacts with CD160 on NK cells, enhancing IFNG production and anti-tumor immune response. In the context of bacterial infection, acts as a signaling receptor on epithelial cells for CD160 from intraepithelial lymphocytes, triggering the production of antimicrobial proteins and pro-inflammatory cytokines (By similarity). Upon binding to CD160 on activated CD4+ T cells, down-regulates CD28 costimulatory signaling, restricting memory and alloantigen-specific immune response. May interact in cis (on the same cell) or in trans (on other cells) with BTLA (By similarity). In cis interactions, appears to play an immune regulatory role inhibiting in trans interactions in naive T cells to maintain a resting state. In trans interactions, can predominate during adaptive immune response to provide survival signals to effector T cells (By similarity).

Low affinity receptor which can bind to NGF, BDNF, NTF3, and NTF4. Forms a heterodimeric receptor with SORCS2 that binds the precursor forms of NGF, BDNF and NTF3 with high affinity, and has much lower affinity for mature NGF and BDNF. Plays an important role in differentiation and survival of specific neuronal populations during development (By similarity). Can mediate cell survival as well as cell death of neural cells. Plays a role in the inactivation of RHOA. Plays a role in the regulation of the translocation of GLUT4 to the cell surface in adipocytes and skeletal muscle cells in response to insulin, probably by regulating RAB31 activity, and thereby contributes to the regulation of insulin- dependent glucose uptake (By similarity). Necessary for the circadian oscillation of the clock genes BMAL1, PER1, PER2 and NR1D1 in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCmgetaN) of the brain and in liver and of the genes involved in glucose and lipid metabolism in the liver.

Receptor for TNFSF13B/BLyS/BAFF and TNFSF13/APRIL. Promotes B-cell survival and plays a role in the regulation of humoral immunity. Activates NF-kappa-B and JNK.

Receptor for TNFSF18. Seems to be involved in interactions between activated T-lymphocytes and endothelial cells and in the regulation of T-cell receptor-mediated cell death. Mediated NF-kappa-B activation via the TRAF2/NIK pathway

Can mediate activation of JNK and NF-kappa-B. May promote caspase-independent cell death

Receptor for TNFSF2/TNF-alpha and homotrimeric TNFSF1/lymphotoxin-alpha. The adapter molecule FADD recruits caspase-8 to the activated receptor. The resulting death-inducing signaling complex (DISC) performs caspase-8 proteolytic activation which initiates the subsequent cascade of caspases (aspartate-specific cysteine proteases) mediating apoptosis. Contributes to the induction of non-cytocidal TNF effects including anti-viral state and activation of the acid sphingomyelinase

Receptor with high affinity for TNFSF2/TNF-alpha and approximately 5-fold lower affinity for homotrimeric TNFSF1/lymphotoxin-alpha. The TRAF1/TRAF2 complex recruits the apoptotic suppressors BIRC2 and BIRC3 to TNFRSF1B/TNFR2. This receptor mediates most of the metabolic effects of TNF-alpha. Isoform 2 blocks TNF-alpha-induced apoptosis, which suggests that it regulates TNF-alpha function by antagonizing its biological activity.

Promotes apoptosis, possibly via a pathway that involves the activation of NF-kappa-B. Can also promote apoptosis mediated by BAX and by the release of cytochrome c from the mitochondria into the cytoplasm. Plays a role in neuronal apoptosis, including apoptosis in response to amyloid peptides derived from APP, and is required for both normal cell body death and axonal pruning. Trophic-factor deprivation triggers the cleavage of surface APP by beta-secretase to release sAPP- beta which is further cleaved to release an N-terminal fragment of APP (N-APP). N-APP binds TNFRSF21; this triggers caspase activation and degeneration of both neuronal cell bodies (via caspase-3) and axons (via caspase-6). Negatively regulates oligodendrocyte survival, maturation and myelination. Plays a role in signaling cascades triggered by stimulation of T-cell receptors, in the adaptive immune response and in the regulation of T-cell differentiation and proliferation. Negatively regulates T-cell responses and the release of cytokines such as IL4, IL5, IL10, IL13 and IFNG by Th2 cells. Negatively regulates the production of IgG, IgM and IgM in response to antigens. May inhibit the activation of JNK in response to T-cell stimulation.

Receptor for TNFSF12/APO3L/TWEAK. Interacts directly with the adapter TRADD. Mediates activation of NF-kappa-B and induces apoptosis. May play a role in regulating lymphocyte homeostasis.

Receptor for EDA isoform A2, but not for EDA isoform A1. Mediates the activation of the NF-kappa-B and JNK pathways. Activation seems to be mediated by binding to TRAF3 and TRAF6.

Receptor for the heterotrimeric lymphotoxin containing LTA and LTB, and for TNFS14/LIGHT. Promotes apoptosis via TRAF3 and TRAF5. May play a role in the development of lymphoid organs.

Receptor for TNFSF4/OX40L/GP34. Is a costimulatory molecule implicated in long-term T-cell immunity.

Receptor for TNFSF5/CD40LG. Transduces TRAF6- and MAP3K8-mediated signals that activate ERK in macrophages and B cells, leading to induction of immunoglobulin secretion (By similarity).

Plays a role in RNA-mediated gene silencing by both micro- RNAs (miRNAs) and short interfering RNAs (siRNAs). Required for miRNA- dependent repression of translation and for siRNA-dependent endonucleolytic cleavage of complementary mRNAs by argonaute family proteins. As a scaffolding protein, associates with argonaute proteins bound to partially complementary mRNAs, and can simultaneously recruit CCR4-NOT and PAN deadenylase complexes.

Plays a role in RNA-mediated gene silencing by both micro- RNAs (miRNAs) and short interfering RNAs (siRNAs). Required for miRNA- dependent translational repression and siRNA-dependent endonucleolytic cleavage of complementary mRNAs by argonaute family proteins. As scaffolding protein associates with argonaute proteins bound to partially complementary mRNAs and simultaneously can recruit CCR4-NOT and PAN deadenylase complexes.

Receptor for TNFSF6/FASLG. The adapter molecule FADD recruits caspase-8 to the activated receptor. The resulting death-inducing signaling complex (DISC) performs caspase-8 proteolytic activation which initiates the subsequent cascade of caspases (aspartate-specific cysteine proteases) mediating apoptosis. FAS-mediated apoptosis may have a role in the induction of peripheral tolerance, in the antigen- stimulated suicide of mature T-cells, or both. The secreted isoforms 2 to 6 block apoptosis (in vitro).

Receptor for TNFSF8/CD30L. May play a role in the regulation of cellular growth and transformation of activated lymphoblasts. Regulates gene expression through activation of NF-kappa- B.

Receptor for TNFSF9/4-1BBL. Possibly active during T cell activation

Anti-proliferative protein; the function is mediated by association with deadenylase subunits of the CCR4-NOT complex. Mediates CPEB3-accelerated mRNA deadenylation by binding to CPEB3 and recruiting CNOT7 which leads to target mRNA deadenylation and decay.

Anti-proliferative protein inhibits cell cycle progression from the G0/G1 to S phases

Inhibits cell growth rate and cell cycle. Induces CDKN1A expression as well as TGF-beta expression. Mediates the inhibitory growth effect of EGR1. Involved in the maturation of snRNAs and snRNA 3'-tail processing.

Required for nuclear membrane integrity. Induces TOR1A and TOR1B ATPase activity and is required for their location on the nuclear membrane. Binds to A- and B-type lamins. Possible role in membrane attachment and assembly of the nuclear lamina.

Required for endoplasmic reticulum integrity. Regulates the distribution of TOR1A between the endoplasmic reticulum and the nuclear envelope as well as induces TOR1A, TOR1B and TOR3A ATPase activity.

Component of the signaling pathway of IL-1 and Toll-like receptors. Inhibits cell activation by microbial products. Recruits IRAK1 to the IL-1 receptor complex. Inhibits IRAK1 phosphorylation and kinase activity. Connects the ubiquitin pathway to autophagy by functioning as a ubiquitin-ATG8 family adapter and thus mediating autophagic clearance of ubiquitin conjugates. The TOLLIP-dependent selective autophagy pathway plays an important role in clearance of cytotoxic polyQ proteins aggregates. In a complex with TOM1, recruits ubiquitin-conjugated proteins onto early endosomes. Binds to phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3)P).

Adapter protein that plays a role in the intracellular membrane trafficking of ubiquitinated proteins, thereby participating in autophagy, ubiquitination-dependent signaling and receptor recycling pathways. Acts as a MYO6/Myosin VI adapter protein that targets MYO6 to endocytic structures. Together with MYO6, required for autophagosomal delivery of endocytic cargo, the maturation of autophagosomes and their fusion with lysosomes. MYO6 links TOM1 with autophagy receptors, such as TAX1BP1; CALCOCO2/NDP52 and OPTN. Binds to polyubiquitinated proteins via its GAT domain. In a complex with TOLLIP, recruits ubiquitin-conjugated proteins onto early endosomes. The Tom1-Tollip complex may regulate endosomal trafficking by linking polyubiquitinated proteins to clathrin. Mediates clathrin recruitment to early endosomes by ZFYVE16. Modulates binding of TOLLIP to phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns(3)P) via binding competition; the association with TOLLIP may favor the release of TOLLIP from endosomal membranes, allowing TOLLIP to commit to cargo trafficking. Acts as a phosphatidylinositol 5-phosphate (PtdIns(5)P) effector by binding to PtdIns(5)P, thereby regulating endosomal maturation. PtdIns(5)P-dependent recruitment to signaling endosomes may block endosomal maturation. Also inhibits Toll-like receptor (TLR) signaling and participates in immune receptor recycling.

Central component of the receptor complex responsible for the recognition and translocation of cytosolically synthesized mitochondrial preproteins. Together with TOM22 functions as the transit peptide receptor at the surface of the mitochondrion outer membrane and facilitates the movement of preproteins into the TOM40 translocation pore (By similarity). Required for the translocation across the mitochondrial outer membrane of cytochrome P450 monooxygenases.

Central receptor component of the translocase of the outer membrane of mitochondria (TOM complex) responsible for the recognition and translocation of cytosolically synthesized mitochondrial preproteins. Together with the peripheral receptor TOM20 functions as the transit peptide receptor and facilitates the movement of preproteins into the translocation pore. Required for the translocation across the mitochondrial outer membrane of cytochrome P450 monooxygenases (By similarity).

Plays a role in the import of cytosolically synthesized preproteins into mitochondria. Binds the mature portion of precursor proteins. Interacts with cellular components, and possesses weak ATPase activity. May be a chaperone-like protein that helps to keep newly synthesized precursors in an unfolded import compatible state.

Channel-forming protein essential for import of protein precursors into mitochondria. Plays a role in the assembly of the mitochondrial membrane respiratory chain NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I) by forming a complex with BCAP31 and mediating the translocation of Complex I components from the cytosol to the mitochondria.

Acts as receptor of the preprotein translocase complex of the outer mitochondrial membrane (TOM complex). Recognizes and mediates the translocation of mitochondrial preproteins from the cytosol into the mitochondria in a chaperone dependent manner. Mediates TBK1 and IRF3 activation induced by MAVS in response to Sendai virus infection and promotes host antiviral responses during virus infection. Upon Sendai virus infection, recruits HSP90AA1:IRF3:BAX in mitochondrion and the complex induces apoptosis.

Required for assembly and stability of the TOM complex. Positive regulator of PRKN translocation to damaged mitochondria. Acts probably by stabilizing PINK1 on the outer membrane of depolarized mitochondria.

Component of the MMS22L-TONSL complex, a complex that promotes homologous recombination-mediated repair of double-strand breaks (DSBs) at stalled or collapsed replication forks. The MMS22L-TONSL complex is required to maintain genome integrity during DNA replication. It mediates the assembly of RAD51 filaments on single-stranded DNA (ssDNA): the MMS22L-TONSL complex is recruited to DSBs following histone replacement by histone chaperones and eviction of the replication protein A complex (RPA/RP-A) from DSBs. Following recruitment to DSBs, the TONSL-MMS22L complex promotes recruitment of RAD51 filaments and subsequent homologous recombination. Within the complex, TONSL acts as histone reader, which recognizes and binds newly synthesized histones following their replacement by histone chaperones. Specifically binds histone H4 lacking methylation at 'Lys-20' (H4K20me0) and histone H3.1.

Releases the supercoiling and torsional tension of DNA introduced during duplication of mitochondrial DNA by transiently cleaving and rejoining one strand of the DNA duplex. Introduces a single-strand break via transesterification at a target site in duplex DNA. The scissile phosphodiester is attacked by the catalytic tyrosine of the enzyme, resulting in the formation of a DNA-(3'-phosphotyrosyl)- enzyme intermediate and the expulsion of a 5'-OH DNA strand. The free DNA strand then rotates around the intact phosphodiester bond on the opposing strand, thus removing DNA supercoils. Finally, in the religation step, the DNA 5'-OH attacks the covalent intermediate to expel the active-site tyrosine and restore the DNA phosphodiester backbone (By similarity).

Releases the supercoiling and torsional tension of DNA introduced during the DNA replication and transcription by transiently cleaving and rejoining one strand of the DNA duplex. Introduces a single-strand break via transesterification at a target site in duplex DNA. The scissile phosphodiester is attacked by the catalytic tyrosine of the enzyme, resulting in the formation of a DNA-(3'-phosphotyrosyl)- enzyme intermediate and the expulsion of a 5'-OH DNA strand. The free DNA strand then rotates around the intact phosphodiester bond on the opposing strand, thus removing DNA supercoils. Finally, in the religation step, the DNA 5'-OH attacks the covalent intermediate to expel the active-site tyrosine and restore the DNA phosphodiester backbone (By similarity). Regulates the alternative splicing of tissue factor (F3) pre-mRNA in endothelial cells. Involved in the circadian transcription of the core circadian clock component BMAL1 by altering the chromatin structure around the ROR response elements (ROREs) on the BMAL1 promoter.

Key decatenating enzyme that alters DNA topology by binding to two double-stranded DNA molecules, generating a double-stranded break in one of the strands, passing the intact strand through the broken strand, and religating the broken strand. May play a role in regulating the period length of BMAL1 transcriptional oscillation (By similarity).

Key decatenating enzyme that alters DNA topology by binding to two double-stranded DNA molecules, generating a double-stranded break in one of the strands, passing the intact strand through the broken strand, and religating the broken strand. Plays a role in B-cell differentiation.

Releases the supercoiling and torsional tension of DNA introduced during the DNA replication and transcription by transiently cleaving and rejoining one strand of the DNA duplex. Introduces a single-strand break via transesterification at a target site in duplex DNA. The scissile phosphodiester is attacked by the catalytic tyrosine of the enzyme, resulting in the formation of a DNA-(5'-phosphotyrosyl)- enzyme intermediate and the expulsion of a 3'-OH DNA strand. The free DNA strand then undergoes passage around the unbroken strand thus removing DNA supercoils. Finally, in the religation step, the DNA 3'-OH attacks the covalent intermediate to expel the active-site tyrosine and restore the DNA phosphodiester backbone. As an essential component of the RMI complex it is involved in chromosome separation and the processing of homologous recombination intermediates to limit DNA crossover formation in cells. Has DNA decatenation activity. It is required for mtDNA decatenation and segregation after completion of replication, in a process that does not require BLM, RMI1 and RMI2.

Releases the supercoiling and torsional tension of DNA introduced during the DNA replication and transcription by transiently cleaving and rejoining one strand of the DNA duplex. Introduces a single-strand break via transesterification at a target site in duplex DNA. The scissile phosphodiester is attacked by the catalytic tyrosine of the enzyme, resulting in the formation of a DNA-(5'-phosphotyrosyl)- enzyme intermediate and the expulsion of a 3'-OH DNA strand. The free DNA strand than undergoes passage around the unbroken strand thus removing DNA supercoils. Finally, in the religation step, the DNA 3'-OH attacks the covalent intermediate to expel the active-site tyrosine and restore the DNA phosphodiester backbone (By similarity). Possesses negatively supercoiled DNA relaxing activity.

Required for DNA replication. Plays a role in the rescue of stalled replication forks and checkpoint control. Binds double-stranded DNA breaks and nicks as well as single-stranded DNA. Recruits the SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complex to E2F1-responsive promoters. Down-regulates E2F1 activity and inhibits E2F1-dependent apoptosis during G1/S transition and after DNA damage. Induces a large increase in the kinase activity of ATR.

Phosphorylates MAP kinase p38. Seems to be active only in mitosis. May also play a role in the activation of lymphoid cells. When phosphorylated, forms a complex with TP53, leading to TP53 destabilization and attenuation of G2/M checkpoint during doxorubicin- induced DNA damage.

Functions as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase and as an E3 SUMO1-protein ligase. Probable tumor suppressor involved in cell growth, cell proliferation and apoptosis that regulates p53/TP53 stability through ubiquitin-dependent degradation. May regulate chromatin modification through sumoylation of several chromatin modification-associated proteins. May be involved in DNA damage-induced cell death through IKBKE sumoylation.

Important for normal spermatogenesis and male fertility. Specifically required for progression to the post-meiotic stages of spermatocyte development. Seems to be necessary for normal expression levels of a number of testis-expressed gene transcripts, although its role in this process is unclear.

Protein with chaperone functions important for the control of protein folding, processing, stability and localization as well as for the reduction of misfolded protein aggregates. Involved in the regulation of synaptic vesicle recycling, controls STON2 protein stability in collaboration with the COP9 signalosome complex (CSN). In the nucleus, may link the cytoskeleton with the nuclear envelope, this mechanism seems to be crucial for the control of nuclear polarity, cell movement and, specifically in neurons, nuclear envelope integrity. Participates in the cellular trafficking and may regulate the subcellular location of multipass membrane proteins such as the dopamine transporter SLC6A3, leading to the modulation of dopamine neurotransmission. In the endoplasmic reticulum, plays a role in the quality control of protein folding by increasing clearance of misfolded proteins such as SGCE variants or holding them in an intermediate state for proper refolding. May have a redundant function with TOR1B in non- neural tissues.

May serve as a molecular chaperone assisting in the proper folding of secreted and/or membrane proteins. Plays a role in non- neural cells nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum integrity. May have a redundant function with TOR1A in non-neural tissues.

Putative transcriptional activator involved in the hypothalamo-pituitary-gonadal system

Transcriptional coactivator of the p300/CBP-mediated transcription complex. Activates transactivation through cAMP response element (CRE) sites. Protects against cell death by inducing antiapoptotic and repressing pro-apoptotic transcripts. Stimulates transcription from the estrogen-responsive or BCL-2 promoters. Required for depolarization-induced transcription activation of the C-FOS promoter in neurons. Associates with chromatin to the estrogen- responsive C3 promoter region.

Transcription factor that modulates cell fate reprogramming from the somatic state to the pluripotent and neuronal fate (By similarity). Component of the PTW/PP1 phosphatase complex, which plays a role in the control of chromatin structure and cell cycle progression during the transition from mitosis into interphase. In liver, controls the expression of hormone-regulated gluconeogenic genes such as G6PC1 and PCK1. This regulation is independent of the insulin receptor activation (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator with a major role in neural stem cell commitment and corticogenesis as well as in lymphoid cell development and lymphoid tissue organogenesis (By similarity). Binds to GC-rich DNA sequences in the proximity of transcription start sites and may alter chromatin structure, modifying access of transcription factors to DNA. During cortical development, controls the neural stem cell pool by inhibiting the switch from proliferative to differentiating progenitors. Beyond progenitor cells, promotes neurite outgrowth in newborn neurons migrating to reach the cortical plate. May activate or repress critical genes for neural stem cell fate such as SOX2, EOMES and ROBO2 (By similarity). Plays an essential role in the development of lymphoid tissue-inducer (LTi) cells, a subset necessary for the formation of secondary lymphoid organs: peripheral lymph nodes and Peyer's patches. Acts as a developmental checkpoint and regulates thymocyte positive selection toward T cell lineage commitment. Required for the development of various T cell subsets, including CD4-positive helper T cells, CD8-positive cytotoxic T cells, regulatory T cells and CD1D-dependent natural killer T (NKT) cells. Required for the differentiation of common lymphoid progenitors (CMP) to innate lymphoid cells (ILC) (By similarity). May regulate the NOTCH-mediated gene program, promoting differentiation of the ILC lineage. Required at the progenitor phase of NK cell development in the bone marrow to specify NK cell lineage commitment (By similarity). Upon chronic antigen stimulation, diverts T cell development by promoting the generation of exhaustive T cells, while suppressing effector and memory T cell programming. May regulate the expression of genes encoding inhibitory receptors such as PDCD1 and induce the exhaustion program, to prevent the overstimulation of T cells and activation- induced cell death (By similarity).

Protein tyrosine phosphatase which stimulates progression from G1 into S phase during mitosis. May play a role in the development and maintenance of differentiating epithelial tissues. Enhances cell proliferation, cell motility and invasive activity, and promotes cancer metastasis.

Protein tyrosine phosphatase which stimulates progression from G1 into S phase during mitosis. Promotes tumors. Inhibits geranylgeranyl transferase type II activity by blocking the association between RABGGTA and RABGGTB.

Protein tyrosine phosphatase which stimulates progression from G1 into S phase during mitosis. Enhances cell proliferation, cell motility and invasive activity, and promotes cancer metastasis. May be involved in the progression of cardiac hypertrophy by inhibiting intracellular calcium mobilization in response to angiotensin II.

Substrate-recognition component of a DCX (DDB1-CUL4-X-box) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex required for cell cycle control. The DCX(TRPC4AP) complex specifically mediates the polyubiquitination and subsequent degradation of MYC as part of the DesCEND (destruction via C-end degrons) pathway. The DesCEND (destruction via C-end degrons) pathway recognizes a C-degron located at the extreme C terminus of target proteins, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. The DCX(TRPC4AP) complex specifically recognizes proteins with an arginine at the minus 3 position (R-3 motif) at the C-terminus, such as MYC, leading to their ubiquitination and degradation. Also participates in the activation of NFKB1 in response to ligation of TNFRSF1A, possibly by linking TNFRSF1A to the IKK signalosome (By similarity). Involved in JNK activation via its interaction with TRAF2 (By similarity). Also involved in elevation of endoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+) storage reduction in response to CHRM1 (By similarity).

Double-strand break (DSB) repair protein involved in response to DNA damage, telomere dynamics and class-switch recombination (CSR) during antibody genesis. Plays a key role in the repair of double-strand DNA breaks (DSBs) in response to DNA damage by promoting non-homologous end joining (NHEJ)-mediated repair of DSBs and specifically counteracting the function of the homologous recombination (HR) repair protein BRCA1. In response to DSBs, phosphorylation by ATM promotes interaction with RIF1 and dissociation from NUDT16L1/TIRR, leading to recruitment to DSBs sites. Recruited to DSBs sites by recognizing and binding histone H2A monoubiquitinated at 'Lys-15' (H2AK15Ub) and histone H4 dimethylated at 'Lys-20' (H4K20me2), two histone marks that are present at DSBs sites. Required for immunoglobulin class- switch recombination (CSR) during antibody genesis, a process that involves the generation of DNA DSBs. Participates in the repair and the orientation of the broken DNA ends during CSR (By similarity). In contrast, it is not required for classic NHEJ and V(D)J recombination (By similarity). Promotes NHEJ of dysfunctional telomeres via interaction with PAXIP1.

Acts as a negative regulator of innate and adaptive immunity by maintaining immune homeostasis. Negative regulator of Toll-like receptor and T-cell receptor function. Prevents hyperresponsiveness of the immune system and maintains immune homeostasis. Inhibits JUN/AP1 and NF-kappa-B activation. Promotes Fas-induced apoptosis (By similarity).

Converts the abundant, but inactive, zymogen plasminogen to plasmin by hydrolyzing a single Arg-Val bond in plasminogen. By controlling plasmin-mediated proteolysis, it plays an important role in tissue remodeling and degradation, in cell migration and many other physiopathological events. During oocyte activation, plays a role in cortical granule reaction in the zona reaction, which contributes to the block to polyspermy (By similarity).

May function as an inhibitor of Wnt/beta-catenin signaling by indirectly interacting with LRP6 and blocking Wnt3a-dependent LRP6 internalization.

Specific subunit of the TRAPP (transport protein particle) II complex, a highly conserved vesicle tethering complex that functions in late Golgi trafficking as a membrane tether.

Involved in endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi apparatus trafficking at a very early stage.

Component of the TRAPP complex, which is involved in endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi apparatus trafficking at a very early stage. Also plays a role in chromosome congression, kinetochore assembly and stability and controls the recruitment of CENPE to the kinetochores.

Specific subunit of the TRAPP (transport protein particle) II complex, a highly conserved vesicle tethering complex that functions in late Golgi trafficking as a membrane tether. TRAPP II complex has also GEF activity toward RAB1A (By similarity). TRAPPC14 is dispensable for TRAPPII complex integrity but mediates RAB3IP preciliary vesicle trafficking to the mother centriole during ciliogenesis. Modulates YAP1 activity as transcriptional regulator.

Intracellular channel initially characterized as a non- selective Ca(2+)-permeable channel activated by NAADP (nicotinic acid adenine dinucleotide phosphate), it is also a voltage-gated highly- selective Na(+) channel activated directly by PI(3,5)P2 (phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate) that senses pH changes and confers electrical excitability to organelles. Localizes to the early and recycling endosomes membranes where it plays a role in the uptake and processing of proteins and regulates organellar membrane excitability, membrane trafficking and pH homeostasis (Probable). Ion selectivity is not fixed but rather agonist-dependent and under defined ionic conditions, can be readily activated by both NAADP and PI(3,5)P2 (Probable). Required for mTOR-dependent nutrient sensing (Probable).

Prevents transcriptional repression and induction of cell death by ENO1 (By similarity). May play a role in vesicular transport from endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi.

Prevents transcriptional repression and induction of cell death by ENO1. May play a role in vesicular transport from endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi.

Plays a role in vesicular transport from endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi.

Intracellular channel initially characterized as a non- selective Ca(2+)-permeable channel activated by NAADP (nicotinic acid adenine dinucleotide phosphate), it is also a highly-selective Na(+) channel activated directly by PI(3,5)P2 (phosphatidylinositol 3,5- bisphosphate). Localizes to the lysosomal and late endosome membranes where it regulates organellar membrane excitability, membrane trafficking, and pH homeostasis. Is associated with a plethora of physiological processes, including mTOR- dependent nutrient sensing, skin pigmentation and autophagy. Ion selectivity is not fixed but rather agonist-dependent and under defined ionic conditions, can be readily activated by both NAADP and PI(3,5)P2. As calcium channel, it increases the pH in the lysosomal lumen, as sodium channel, it promotes lysosomal exocytosis. Plays a crucial role in endolysosomal trafficking in the endolysosomal degradation pathway and is potentially involved in the homeostatic control of many macromolecules and cell metabolites (By similarity). Also expressed in melanosomes of pigmented cells where mediates a Ca(2+) channel and/or PI(3,5)P2-activated melanosomal Na(+) channel to acidify pH and inhibit tyrosinase activity required for melanogenesis and pigmentation. Unlike the voltage-dependent TPCN1, TPCN2 is voltage independent and can be activated solely by PI(3,5)P2 binding. In contrast, PI(4,5)P2, PI(3,4)P2, PI(3)P and PI(5)P have no obvious effect on channel activation.

May play a role in vesicular transport from endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi.

May play a role in vesicular transport during the biogenesis of melanosomes.

Component of a transport protein particle (TRAPP) complex that may function in specific stages of inter-organelle traffic. Specifically involved in the early development of neural circuitry, likely by controlling the frequency and amplitude of intracellular calcium transients implicated in the regulation of neuron differentiation and survival (Probable).

Mitochondrial transporter mediating uptake of thiamine diphosphate into mitochondria. It is not clear if the antiporter activity is affected by the membrane potential or by the proton electrochemical gradient.

Subunit of the tubulin polyglutamylase complex (TPGC). The complex mediates cilia and flagella polyglutamylation which is essential for their biogenesis and motility (Probable). May act in the targeting of the tubulin polyglutamylase complex. Required for the development of the spermatid flagellum (By similarity).

Oxidizes L-tryptophan to 5-hydroxy-l-tryptophan in the rate- determining step of serotonin biosynthesis.

May play an important role in mediating p53/TP53-dependent apoptosis.

Triosephosphate isomerase is an extremely efficient metabolic enzyme that catalyzes the interconversion between dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) and D-glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) in glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.

Catalyzes the phosphorylation of thiamine to thiamine pyrophosphate. Can also catalyze the phosphorylation of pyrithiamine to pyrithiamine pyrophosphate.

Binds to actin filaments in muscle and non-muscle cells. Plays a central role, in association with the troponin complex, in the calcium dependent regulation of vertebrate striated muscle contraction. Smooth muscle contraction is regulated by interaction with caldesmon. In non-muscle cells is implicated in stabilizing cytoskeleton actin filaments

Binds to actin filaments in muscle and non-muscle cells. Plays a central role, in association with the troponin complex, in the calcium dependent regulation of vertebrate striated muscle contraction. Smooth muscle contraction is regulated by interaction with caldesmon. In non-muscle cells is implicated in stabilizing cytoskeleton actin filaments. The non-muscle isoform may have a role in agonist-mediated receptor internalization.

Binds to actin filaments in muscle and non-muscle cells. Plays a central role, in association with the troponin complex, in the calcium dependent regulation of vertebrate striated muscle contraction. Smooth muscle contraction is regulated by interaction with caldesmon. In non-muscle cells is implicated in stabilizing cytoskeleton actin filaments.

Binds to actin filaments in muscle and non-muscle cells. Plays a central role, in association with the troponin complex, in the calcium dependent regulation of vertebrate striated muscle contraction. Smooth muscle contraction is regulated by interaction with caldesmon. In non-muscle cells is implicated in stabilizing cytoskeleton actin filaments (By similarity). Binds calcium.

Catalyzes the S-methylation of thiopurine drugs such as 6- mercaptopurine (also called mercaptopurine, 6-MP or its brand name Purinethol) and 6-thioguanine (also called tioguanine or 6-TG) using S- adenosyl-L-methionine as the methyl donor. TPMT activity modulates the cytotoxic effects of thiopurine prodrugs. A natural substrate for this enzyme has yet to be identified.

Receptor for thrombopoietin that acts as a primary regulator of megakaryopoiesis and platelet production. May represent a regulatory molecule specific for TPO-R-dependent immune responses.

Lineage-specific cytokine affecting the proliferation and maturation of megakaryocytes from their committed progenitor cells. It acts at a late stage of megakaryocyte development. It may be the major physiological regulator of circulating platelets

Lysosomal serine protease with tripeptidyl-peptidase I activity. May act as a non-specific lysosomal peptidase which generates tripeptides from the breakdown products produced by lysosomal proteinases. Requires substrates with an unsubstituted N-terminus.

May play a role in vesicular transport from endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi

Core component of the TRAPP complexes which has a function of guanine nucleotide exchange factor activity for Rab1 GTPase (Probable). Plays a role in vesicular transport from endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi and autophagy. May play a role in dendrite postsynaptic membrane trafficking (By similarity).

Plays a role in endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi apparatus trafficking at a very early stage. Maintains together with TBC1D14 the cycling pool of ATG9 required for initiation of autophagy.

Functions as an activator of NF-kappa-B through increased phosphorylation of the IKK complex. May function in neuronal cells differentiation. May play a role in vesicular transport from endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi.

Probable regulator of microtubule dynamics required for sperm motility (Probable). In contrast to other members of the family, has no microtubule bundling activity.

Regulator of microtubule dynamic that has microtubule bundling activity. Required for embryo implantation; possibly by regulating beta-catenin (By similarity). Also required for decidualization via regulation of beta- catenin.

Regulator of microtubule dynamics that plays a key role in myelination by promoting elongation of the myelin sheath. Acts as a microtubule nucleation factor in oligodendrocytes: specifically localizes to the postsynaptic Golgi apparatus region, also named Golgi outpost, and promotes microtubule nucleation, an important step for elongation of the myelin sheath. Required for both uniform polarized growth of distal microtubules as well as directing the branching of proximal processes. Shows magnesium-dependent GTPase activity; the role of the GTPase activity is unclear. In addition to microtubule nucleation activity, also involved in microtubule bundling and stabilization of existing microtubules, thereby maintaining the integrity of the microtubule network. Regulates microtubule dynamics by promoting tubulin acetylation: acts by inhibiting the tubulin deacetylase activity of HDAC6. Also regulates cell migration: phosphorylation by ROCK1 inhibits interaction with HDAC6, resulting in decreased acetylation of tubulin and increased cell motility. Plays a role in cell proliferation by regulating the G1/S-phase transition. Involved in astral microtubule organization and mitotic spindle orientation during early stage of mitosis; this process is regulated by phosphorylation by LIMK2.

Presynaptic protein involved in the synaptic transmission tuning. Regulates synaptic release probability by decreasing the calcium sensitivity of release.

Component of the EKC/KEOPS complex that is required for the formation of a threonylcarbamoyl group on adenosine at position 37 (t(6)A37) in tRNAs that read codons beginning with adenine. The complex is probably involved in the transfer of the threonylcarbamoyl moiety of threonylcarbamoyl-AMP (TC-AMP) to the N6 group of A37. TPRKB acts as an allosteric effector that regulates the t(6)A activity of the complex. TPRKB is not required for tRNA modification.

Component of the nuclear pore complex (NPC), a complex required for the trafficking across the nuclear envelope. Functions as a scaffolding element in the nuclear phase of the NPC essential for normal nucleocytoplasmic transport of proteins and mRNAs, plays a role in the establishment of nuclear-peripheral chromatin compartmentalization in interphase, and in the mitotic spindle checkpoint signaling during mitosis. Involved in the quality control and retention of unspliced mRNAs in the nucleus; in association with NUP153, regulates the nuclear export of unspliced mRNA species bearing constitutive transport element (CTE) in a NXF1- and KHDRBS1-independent manner. Negatively regulates both the association of CTE-containing mRNA with large polyribosomes and translation initiation. Does not play any role in Rev response element (RRE)-mediated export of unspliced mRNAs. Implicated in nuclear export of mRNAs transcribed from heat shock gene promoters; associates both with chromatin in the HSP70 promoter and with mRNAs transcribed from this promoter under stress- induced conditions. Modulates the nucleocytoplasmic transport of activated MAPK1/ERK2 and huntingtin/HTT and may serve as a docking site for the XPO1/CRM1-mediated nuclear export complex. According to some authors, plays a limited role in the regulation of nuclear protein export (PubMed:22253824 and PubMed:11952838). Also plays a role as a structural and functional element of the perinuclear chromatin distribution; involved in the formation and/or maintenance of NPC- associated perinuclear heterochromatin exclusion zones (HEZs). Finally, acts as a spatial regulator of the spindle-assembly checkpoint (SAC) response ensuring a timely and effective recruitment of spindle checkpoint proteins like MAD1L1 and MAD2L1 to unattached kinetochore during the metaphase-anaphase transition before chromosome congression. Its N-terminus is involved in activation of oncogenic kinases.

Component of the antigen processing and presentation pathway, which binds to MHC class I coupled with beta2-microglobulin/B2M. Association between TAPBPR and MHC class I occurs in the absence of a functional peptide-loading complex (PLC).

Involved in the association of MHC class I with transporter associated with antigen processing (TAP) and in the assembly of MHC class I with peptide (peptide loading).

Catalyzes the O-sulfation of tyrosine residues within acidic motifs of polypeptides, using 3'-phosphoadenylyl sulfate (PAPS) as cosubstrate.

Acts as a lipid phosphatase, removing the phosphate in the D3 position of the inositol ring from phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5- trisphosphate.

Spindle assembly factor required for normal assembly of mitotic spindles. Required for normal assembly of microtubules during apoptosis. Required for chromatin and/or kinetochore dependent microtubule nucleation. Mediates AURKA localization to spindle microtubules. Activates AURKA by promoting its autophosphorylation at 'Thr-288' and protects this residue against dephosphorylation. TPX2 is inactivated upon binding to importin-alpha. At the onset of mitosis, GOLGA2 interacts with importin-alpha, liberating TPX2 from importin-alpha, allowing TPX2 to activates AURKA kinase and stimulates local microtubule nucleation.

Receptor for the cytotoxic ligand TNFSF10/TRAIL. The adapter molecule FADD recruits caspase-8 to the activated receptor. The resulting death-inducing signaling complex (DISC) performs caspase-8 proteolytic activation which initiates the subsequent cascade of caspases (aspartate-specific cysteine proteases) mediating apoptosis. Promotes the activation of NF- kappa-B.

Receptor for the cytotoxic ligand TNFSF10/TRAIL. The adapter molecule FADD recruits caspase-8 to the activated receptor. The resulting death-inducing signaling complex (DISC) performs caspase-8 proteolytic activation which initiates the subsequent cascade of caspases (aspartate-specific cysteine proteases) mediating apoptosis. Promotes the activation of NF-kappa-B. Essential for ER stress-induced apoptosis.

Receptor for the cytotoxic ligand TRAIL. Lacks a cytoplasmic death domain and hence is not capable of inducing apoptosis. May protect cells against TRAIL mediated apoptosis by competing with TRAIL- R1 and R2 for binding to the ligand

Receptor for the cytotoxic ligand TRAIL. Contains a truncated death domain and hence is not capable of inducing apoptosis but protects against TRAIL-mediated apoptosis. Reports are contradictory with regards to its ability to induce the NF-kappa-B pathway. According to PubMed:9382840, it cannot but according to PubMed:9430226, it can induce the NF-kappa-B pathway.

Acts as an activator of both rRNA/tRNA and protein methyltransferases. Together with methyltransferase BUD23, methylates the N(7) position of a guanine in 18S rRNA. The heterodimer with N6AMT1/HEMK2 catalyzes N5-methylation of ETF1 on 'Gln-185', using S- adenosyl L-methionine as methyl donor. The heterodimer with N6AMT1/HEMK2 also monomethylates 'Lys-12' of histone H4 (H4K12me1). The heterodimer with ALKBH8 catalyzes the methylation of 5-carboxymethyl uridine to 5-methylcarboxymethyl uridine at the wobble position of the anticodon loop in target tRNA species. Together with methyltransferase THUMPD3, catalyzes the formation of N(2)-methylguanosine at position 6 in a broad range of tRNA substrates and at position 7 of tRNA(Trp). Involved in the pre-rRNA processing steps leading to small-subunit rRNA production. Together with methyltransferase METTL5, specifically methylates the 6th position of adenine in position 1832 of 18S rRNA.

Acts as decoy receptor for TNFSF11/RANKL and thereby neutralizes its function in osteoclastogenesis. Inhibits the activation of osteoclasts and promotes osteoclast apoptosis in vitro. Bone homeostasis seems to depend on the local ratio between TNFSF11 and TNFRSF11B. May also play a role in preventing arterial calcification. May act as decoy receptor for TNFSF10/TRAIL and protect against apoptosis. TNFSF10/TRAIL binding blocks the inhibition of osteoclastogenesis.

Receptor for TNFSF13/APRIL and TNFSF13B/TALL1/BAFF/BLYS that binds both ligands with similar high affinity. Mediates calcineurin- dependent activation of NF-AT, as well as activation of NF-kappa-B and AP-1. Involved in the stimulation of B- and T-cell function and the regulation of humoral immunity.

B-cell receptor specific for TNFSF13B/TALL1/BAFF/BLyS. Promotes the survival of mature B-cells and the B-cell response.

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing. Remains associated with spliced mRNA after splicing which probably involves interactions with the exon junction complex (EJC). Can trigger mRNA decay which seems to be independent of nonsense-mediated decay involving premature stop codons (PTC) recognition. May be involved in nuclear mRNA decay. Involved in regulation of signal-induced alternative splicing. During splicing of PTPRC/CD45 is proposed to sequester phosphorylated SFPQ from PTPRC/CD45 pre-mRNA in resting T-cells. Involved in cyclin- D1/CCND1 mRNA stability probably by acting as component of the SNARP complex which associates with both the 3'end of the CCND1 gene and its mRNA. Involved in response to DNA damage. Is excluced from DNA damage sites in a manner that parallels transcription inhibition; the function may involve the SNARP complex. Initially thought to play a role in transcriptional coactivation through its association with the TRAP complex; however, it is not regarded as a stable Mediator complex subunit. Cooperatively with HELZ2, enhances the transcriptional activation mediated by PPARG, maybe through the stabilization of the PPARG binding to DNA in presence of ligand. May play a role in the terminal stage of adipocyte differentiation. Plays a role in the positive regulation of the circadian clock. Acts as a coactivator of the CLOCK-BMAL1 heterodimer and promotes its transcriptional activator activity and binding to circadian target genes.

May play a role in apoptosis. Induces activation of MAPK14/p38 and MAPK8/JNK MAPK cascades, when overexpressed. Involved in dental enamel formation.

Stimulatory or required for the translocation of secretory proteins across the ER membrane.

Methyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of N(1)- methyladenine at position 58 (m1A58) in various tRNAs in mitochondrion, including tRNA(Leu) (deciphering codons UUA or UUG), tRNA(Lys) and tRNA(Ser) (deciphering codons UCA, UCU, UCG or UCC). Catalyzes the formation of 1-methyladenosine at position 947 of mitochondrial 16S ribosomal RNA and this modification is most likely important for mitoribosomal structure and function. In addition to tRNA N(1)-methyltransferase activity, also acts as a mRNA N(1)-methyltransferase by mediating methylation of adenosine residues at the N(1) position of MT-ND5 mRNA, leading to interfere with mitochondrial translation.

Sequence-specific RNA-binding protein which participates in the control of pre-mRNA splicing.

Sequence-specific RNA-binding protein which participates in the control of pre-mRNA splicing. Can either activate or suppress exon inclusion. Acts additively with RBMX to promote exon 7 inclusion of the survival motor neuron SMN2. Activates the splicing of MAPT/Tau exon 10. Alters pre-mRNA splicing patterns by antagonizing the effects of splicing regulators, like RBMX. Binds to the AG-rich SE2 domain in the SMN exon 7 RNA. Binds to pre-mRNA.

Negative feedback regulator that controls excessive innate immune responses. Regulates both Toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4) and DDX58/RIG1-like helicases (RLH) pathways. May inhibit the LTR pathway by direct interaction with TRAF6 and attenuation of NF-kappa-B activation. May negatively regulate the RLH pathway downstream from MAVS and upstream of NF-kappa-B and IRF3 (By similarity).

Adapter molecule for TNFRSF1A/TNFR1 that specifically associates with the cytoplasmic domain of activated TNFRSF1A/TNFR1 mediating its interaction with FADD. Overexpression of TRADD leads to two major TNF- induced responses, apoptosis and activation of NF-kappa-B. The nuclear form acts as a tumor suppressor by preventing ubiquitination and degradation of isoform p19ARF/ARF of CDKN2A by TRIP12: acts by interacting with TRIP12, leading to disrupt interaction between TRIP12 and isoform p19ARF/ARF of CDKN2A (By similarity).

Adapter molecule that regulates the activation of NF-kappa-B and JNK. Plays a role in the regulation of cell survival and apoptosis. The heterotrimer formed by TRAF1 and TRAF2 is part of a E3 ubiquitin- protein ligase complex that promotes ubiquitination of target proteins, such as MAP3K14. The TRAF1/TRAF2 complex recruits the antiapoptotic E3 protein-ubiquitin ligases BIRC2 and BIRC3 to TNFRSF1B/TNFR2.

Regulates activation of NF-kappa-B and JNK and plays a central role in the regulation of cell survival and apoptosis. Required for normal antibody isotype switching from IgM to IgG. Has E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity and promotes 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of target proteins, such as BIRC3, RIPK1 and TICAM1. Is an essential constituent of several E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complexes, where it promotes the ubiquitination of target proteins by bringing them into contact with other E3 ubiquitin ligases. Regulates BIRC2 and BIRC3 protein levels by inhibiting their autoubiquitination and subsequent degradation; this does not depend on the TRAF2 RING-type zinc finger domain. Plays a role in mediating activation of NF-kappa-B by EIF2AK2/PKR. In complex with BIRC2 or BIRC3, promotes ubiquitination of IKBKE.

Cytoplasmic E3 ubiquitin ligase that regulates various signaling pathways, such as the NF-kappa-B, mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) and interferon regulatory factor (IRF) pathways, and thus controls a lot of biological processes in both immune and non-immune cell types. In TLR and RLR signaling pathways, acts as an E3 ubiquitin ligase promoting the synthesis of 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains on several substrates such as ASC that lead to the activation of the type I interferon response or the inflammasome. Following the activation of certain TLRs such as TLR4, acts as a negative NF-kappa-B regulator, possibly to avoid unregulated inflammatory response, and its degradation via 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination is required for MAPK activation and production of inflammatory cytokines. Alternatively, when TLR4 orchestrates bacterial expulsion, TRAF3 undergoes 'Lys-33'- linked polyubiquitination and subsequently binds to RALGDS, mobilizing the exocyst complex to rapidly expel intracellular bacteria back for clearance. Acts also as a constitutive negative regulator of the alternative NF-kappa-B pathway, which controls B-cell survival and lymphoid organ development. Required for normal antibody isotype switching from IgM to IgG. Plays a role T-cell dependent immune responses. Down-regulates proteolytic processing of NFKB2, and thereby inhibits non-canonical activation of NF-kappa-B. Promotes ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of MAP3K14.

Adapter protein with E3 ligase activity that is involved in many diverse biological processes including cell proliferation, migration, differentiation, DNA repair, platelet activation or apoptosis. Promotes EGFR-mediated signaling by facilitating the dimerization of EGFR and downstream AKT activation thereby promoting cell proliferation. Ubiquitinates SMURF2 through 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitin chain leading to SMURF2 degradation through the proteasome and subsequently osteogenic differentiation. Promotes 'Lys-63'-mediated ubiquitination of CHK1 which in turn activates cell cycle arrest and activation of DNA repair. In addition, promotes an atypical 'Lys-29'-linked ubiquitination at the C-terminal end of IRS1 which is crucial for insulin-like growth factor (IGF) signal transduction. Regulates activation of NF-kappa-B in response to signaling through Toll-like receptors. Required for normal skeleton development, and for normal development of the respiratory tract (By similarity). Required for activation of RPS6KB1 in response to TNF signaling. Modulates TRAF6 functions. Inhibits adipogenic differentiation by activating pyruvate kinase PKM activity and subsequently the beta-catenin signaling pathway.

Adapter protein and signal transducer that links members of the tumor necrosis factor receptor family to different signaling pathways by association with the receptor cytoplasmic domain and kinases. Mediates activation of NF-kappa-B and probably JNK. Seems to be involved in apoptosis. Plays a role in mediating activation of NF- kappa-B by EIF2AK2/PKR.

E3 ubiquitin ligase that, together with UBE2N and UBE2V1, mediates the synthesis of 'Lys-63'-linked-polyubiquitin chains conjugated to proteins, such as IKBKG, IRAK1, AKT1 and AKT2. Also mediates ubiquitination of free/unanchored polyubiquitin chain that leads to MAP3K7 activation. Leads to the activation of NF-kappa-B and JUN. Seems to also play a role in dendritic cells (DCs) maturation and/or activation (By similarity). Represses c-Myb-mediated transactivation, in B-lymphocytes. Adapter protein that seems to play a role in signal transduction initiated via TNF receptor, IL-1 receptor and IL-17 receptor. Regulates osteoclast differentiation by mediating the activation of adapter protein complex 1 (AP-1) and NF-kappa-B, in response to RANK-L stimulation (By similarity). Together with MAP3K8, mediates CD40 signals that activate ERK in B-cells and macrophages, and thus may play a role in the regulation of immunoglobulin production (By similarity). Participates also in the TCR signaling by ubiquitinating LAT.

E3 ubiquitin ligase capable of auto-ubiquitination, following phosphorylation by MAP3K3. Potentiates MAP3K3-mediated activation of the NF-kappa-B, JUN/AP1 and DDIT3 transcriptional regulators. Induces apoptosis when overexpressed. Plays a role in the phosphorylation of MAPK1 and/or MAPK3, probably via its interaction with MAP3K3.

E3 ubiquitin ligase required to protect genome stability in response to replication stress. Acts as a key regulator of interstrand cross-link repair, which takes place when both strands of duplex DNA are covalently tethered together, thereby blocking replication and transcription (By similarity). Controls the choice between the two pathways of replication-coupled interstrand-cross-link repair by mediating ubiquitination of MCM7 subunit of the CMG helicase complex (By similarity). Short ubiquitin chains on MCM7 promote recruitment of DNA glycosylase NEIL3 (By similarity). If the interstrand cross-link cannot be cleaved by NEIL3, the ubiquitin chains continue to grow on MCM7, promoting the unloading of the CMG helicase complex by the VCP/p97 ATPase, enabling the Fanconi anemia DNA repair pathway (By similarity). Only catalyzes ubiquitination of MCM7 when forks converge (By similarity). Also involved in the repair of covalent DNA-protein cross-links (DPCs) during DNA synthesis: promotes ubiquitination of DPCs, leading to their degradation by the proteasome (By similarity). Has also been proposed to play a role in promoting translesion synthesis by mediating the assembly of 'Lys-63'-linked poly-ubiquitin chains on the Y-family polymerase POLN in order to facilitate bypass of DNA lesions and preserve genomic integrity. The function in translesion synthesis is however controversial. Acts as a regulator of the spindle assembly checkpoint. Also acts as a negative regulator of innate immune signaling by inhibiting activation of NF-kappa-B mediated by TNF. Negatively regulates TLR3/4- and RIG-I-mediated IRF3 activation and subsequent IFNB1 production and cellular antiviral response by promoting 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination of TNK1 leading to its proteasomal degradation.

Involved in the regulation of endosome-to-lysosome trafficking, including endocytic trafficking of EGF-EGFR complexes and GABA-A receptors. Involved in mitochondrial motility. When O-glycosylated, abolishes mitochondrial motility. Crucial for recruiting OGT to the mitochondrial surface of neuronal processes. TRAK1 and RHOT form an essential protein complex that links KIF5 to mitochondria for light chain-independent, anterograde transport of mitochondria (By similarity).

May regulate endosome-to-lysosome trafficking of membrane cargo, including EGFR.

Involved in the translocation of nascent protein chains into or through the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane by facilitating the proper chain positioning at the SEC61 channel. Regulates the exposure of nascent secretory protein chain to the cytosol during translocation into the ER. May affect the phospholipid bilayer in the vicinity of the lateral gate of the SEC61 channel, thereby facilitating ER protein transport. Intimately associates with transmembrane (TM) domain of nascent membrane proteins during the entire integration process into the ER membrane. Associates with the second TM domain of G-protein-coupled receptor opsin/OPSD nascent chain in the ER membrane, which may facilitate its integration into the membrane. Under conditions of ER stress, participates in the disposal of misfolded ER membrane proteins during the unfolded protein response (UPR), an integrated stress response (ISR) pathway, by selectively retrotranslocating misfolded ER-membrane proteins from the ER into the cytosol where they are ubiquitinated and degraded by the proteasome.

Necessary for collagen type I synthesis. May couple the activity of the ER Ca(2+) pump SERCA2B with the activity of the translocon. This coupling may increase the local Ca(2+) concentration at the site of collagen synthesis, and a high Ca(2+) concentration may be necessary for the function of molecular chaperones involved in collagen folding. Required for proper insertion of the first transmembrane helix N-terminus of TM4SF20 into the ER lumen, may act as a ceramide sensor for regulated alternative translocation (RAT).

Chaperone that expresses an ATPase activity. Involved in maintaining mitochondrial function and polarization, downstream of PINK1 and mitochondrial complex I. Is a negative regulator of mitochondrial respiration able to modulate the balance between oxidative phosphorylation and aerobic glycolysis. The impact of TRAP1 on mitochondrial respiration is probably mediated by modulation of mitochondrial SRC and inhibition of SDHA.

Stabilizes the TCR (T-cell antigen receptor)/CD3 complex at the surface of T-cells.

Thrombomodulin is a specific endothelial cell receptor that forms a 1:1 stoichiometric complex with thrombin. This complex is responsible for the conversion of protein C to the activated protein C (protein Ca). Once evolved, protein Ca scissions the activated cofactors of the coagulation mechanism, factor Va and factor VIIIa, and thereby reduces the amount of thrombin generated

Required for formation of the RNA induced silencing complex (RISC). Component of the RISC loading complex (RLC), also known as the micro-RNA (miRNA) loading complex (miRLC), which is composed of DICER1, AGO2 and TARBP2. Within the RLC/miRLC, DICER1 and TARBP2 are required to process precursor miRNAs (pre-miRNAs) to mature miRNAs and then load them onto AGO2. AGO2 bound to the mature miRNA constitutes the minimal RISC and may subsequently dissociate from DICER1 and TARBP2. May also play a role in the production of short interfering RNAs (siRNAs) from double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) by DICER1.

Specifically methylates cytosine 38 in the anticodon loop of tRNA(Asp).

Contributes to the regulation of lumenal Ca2+ release via the sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium release channels RYR1 and RYR2, a key step in triggering skeletal and heart muscle contraction. Required for normal organization of the triad junction, where T-tubules and the sarcoplasmic reticulum terminal cisternae are in close contact (By similarity). Required for normal skeletal muscle strength. Plays a role in excitation-contraction coupling in the heart and in regulating the rate of heart beats.

Intestinal trehalase is probably involved in the hydrolysis of ingested trehalose.

[Isoform 1]: Cell surface receptor that plays important roles in innate and adaptive immunity by amplifying inflammatory responses. Upon activation by various ligands such as PGLYRP1, HMGB1 or HSP70, multimerizes and forms a complex with transmembrane adapter TYROBP/DAP12. In turn, initiates a SYK-mediated cascade of tyrosine phosphorylation, activating multiple downstream mediators such as BTK, MAPK1, MAPK3 or phospholipase C-gamma. This cascade promotes the neutrophil- and macrophage- mediated release of pro-inflammatory cytokines and/or chemokines, as well as their migration and thereby amplifies inflammatory responses that are triggered by bacterial and fungal infections. By also promoting the amplification of inflammatory signals that are initially triggered by Toll-like receptor (TLR) and NOD-like receptor engagement, plays a major role in the pathophysiology of acute and chronic inflammatory diseases of different etiologies including septic shock and atherosclerosis.

Forms a receptor signaling complex with TYROBP which mediates signaling and cell activation following ligand binding. Acts as a receptor for amyloid-beta protein 42, a cleavage product of the amyloid-beta precursor protein APP, and mediates its uptake and degradation by microglia. Binding to amyloid-beta 42 mediates microglial activation, proliferation, migration, apoptosis and expression of pro- inflammatory cytokines, such as IL6R and CCL3, and the anti- inflammatory cytokine ARG1 (By similarity). Acts as a receptor for lipoprotein particles such as LDL, VLDL, and HDL and for apolipoproteins such as APOA1, APOA2, APOB, APOE, APOE2, APOE3, APOE4, and CLU and enhances their uptake in microglia. Binds phospholipids (preferably anionic lipids) such as phosphatidylserine, phosphatidylethanolamine, phosphatidylglycerol and sphingomyelin. Regulates microglial proliferation by acting as an upstream regulator of the Wnt/beta-catenin signaling cascade (By similarity). Required for microglial phagocytosis of apoptotic neurons. Also required for microglial activation and phagocytosis of myelin debris after neuronal injury and of neuronal synapses during synapse elimination in the developing brain (By similarity). Regulates microglial chemotaxis and process outgrowth, and also the microglial response to oxidative stress and lipopolysaccharide (By similarity). It suppresses PI3K and NF-kappa-B signaling in response to lipopolysaccharide; thus promoting phagocytosis, suppressing pro-inflammatory cytokine and nitric oxide production, inhibiting apoptosis and increasing expression of IL10 and TGFB (By similarity). During oxidative stress, it promotes anti-apoptotic NF- kappa-B signaling and ERK signaling (By similarity). Plays a role in microglial MTOR activation and metabolism (By similarity). Regulates age-related changes in microglial numbers. Triggers activation of the immune responses in macrophages and dendritic cells. Mediates cytokine-induced formation of multinucleated giant cells which are formed by the fusion of macrophages (By similarity). In dendritic cells, it mediates up- regulation of chemokine receptor CCR7 and dendritic cell maturation and survival. Involved in the positive regulation of osteoclast differentiation.

Major cellular 3'-to-5' DNA exonuclease which digests single- stranded DNA (ssDNA) and double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) with mismatched 3' termini. Prevents cell-intrinsic initiation of autoimmunity. Acts by metabolizing DNA fragments from endogenous retroelements, including L1, LTR and SINE elements. Plays a key role in degradation of DNA fragments at cytosolic micronuclei arising from genome instability: its association with the endoplasmic reticulum membrane directs TREX1 to ruptured micronuclei, leading to micronuclear DNA degradation. Micronuclear DNA degradation is required to limit CGAS activation and subsequent inflammation. Unless degraded, these DNA fragments accumulate in the cytosol and activate the cGAS-STING innate immune signaling, leading to the production of type I interferon. Prevents chronic ATM-dependent checkpoint activation, by processing ssDNA polynucleotide species arising from the processing of aberrant DNA replication intermediates. Inefficiently degrades oxidized DNA, such as that generated upon antimicrobial reactive oxygen production or upon absorption of UV light. During GZMA-mediated cell death, contributes to DNA damage in concert with NME1. NME1 nicks one strand of DNA and TREX1 removes bases from the free 3' end to enhance DNA damage and prevent DNA end reannealing and rapid repair.

Exonuclease with a preference for double-stranded DNA with mismatched 3' termini. May play a role in DNA repair.

Transferrins are iron binding transport proteins which can bind two Fe(3+) ions in association with the binding of an anion, usually bicarbonate. It is responsible for the transport of iron from sites of absorption and heme degradation to those of storage and utilization. Serum transferrin may also have a further role in stimulating cell proliferation

Transferrins are iron binding transport proteins which can bind two Fe(3+) ions in association with the binding of an anion, usually bicarbonate.

Involved in iron cellular uptake. Seems to be internalized and then recycled back to the cell membrane. Binds a single atom of iron per subunit. Could also bind zinc.

Receptor for thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH). Upon ligand binding, this G-protein-coupled receptor triggers activation of the phosphatidylinositol (IP3)-calcium-protein kinase C (PKC) pathway.

Intermediate filament-associated protein that associates in regular arrays with keratin intermediate filaments (KIF) of the inner root sheath cells of the hair follicle and the granular layer of the epidermis. It later becomes cross-linked to KIF by isodipeptide bonds. It may serve as scaffold protein, together with involucrin, in the organization of the cell envelope or even anchor the cell envelope to the KIF network. It may be involved in its own calcium-dependent postsynthetic processing during terminal differentiation

As a component of the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis, it controls the secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and is involved in thyroid hormone synthesis regulation. It also operates as modulator of hair growth. It promotes hair-shaft elongation, prolongs the hair cycle growth phase (anagen) and antagonizes its termination (catagen) by TGFB2. It stimulates proliferation and inhibits apoptosis of hair matrix keratinocytes.

E3 ligase that plays an essential role in the differentiation and survival of terminal erythroid cells. May directly bind to PTEN and promote its ubiquitination, resulting in its proteasomal degradation and activation of hypertrophic signaling (By similarity). In addition, plays a role in immune response regulation by repressing the phosphorylation of STAT1 and STAT2 in the interferon/JAK/STAT signaling pathway independent of its E3 ligase activity. Mechanistically, interacts with the intracellular domain of IFNAR1 and thereby inhibits the association between TYK2 and IFNAR1.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that promotes the degradation of insoluble ubiquitinated proteins, including insoluble PAX6, poly-Gln repeat expanded HTT and poly-Ala repeat expanded ARX. Mediates PAX6 ubiquitination leading to proteasomal degradation, thereby modulating cortical neurogenesis. May also inhibit PAX6 transcriptional activity, possibly in part by preventing the binding of PAX6 to its consensus sequences. May contribute to the regulation of the intracellular level of HN (humanin) or HN-containing proteins through the proteasomal degradation pathway. Mediates MED15 ubiquitination leading to proteasomal degradation. May contribute to the innate restriction of retroviruses. Upon overexpression, reduces HIV-1 and murine leukemia virus infectivity, by suppressing viral gene expression. Antiviral activity depends on a functional E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase domain. May regulate TRIM5 turnover via the proteasome pathway, thus counteracting the TRIM5-mediated cross-species restriction of retroviral infection at early stages of the retroviral life cycle.

Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane anchored E3 ligase involved in the retrotranslocation and turnover of membrane and secretory proteins from the ER through a set of processes named ER- associated degradation (ERAD). This process acts on misfolded proteins as well as in the regulated degradation of correctly folded proteins. Enhances ionizing radiation-induced p53/TP53 stability and apoptosis via ubiquitinating MDM2 and AKT1 and decreasing AKT1 kinase activity through MDM2 and AKT1 proteasomal degradation. Regulates ER stress- induced autophagy, and may act as a tumor suppressor. Also plays a role in innate immune response by stimulating NF-kappa-B activity in the TLR2 signaling pathway. Ubiquitinates TRAF6 via the 'Lys-29'-linked polyubiquitination chain resulting in NF-kappa-B activation. Participates as well in T-cell receptor- mediated NF-kappa-B activation. In the presence of TNF, modulates the IKK complex by regulating IKBKG/NEMO ubiquitination leading to the repression of NF-kappa-B.

Plays an essential role in the innate immune defense against viruses and bacteria. Facilitates the type I IFN response by interacting with MAVS at the outer mitochondria membrane and thereby recruiting NF-kappa-B essential modulator IKBKG/NEMO to the MAVS signalosome, leading to the activation of both the IFN regulatory factor 3/IRF3 and NF-kappa-B pathways. Positively regulates the CGAS-induced type I interferon signaling pathway by stabilizing CGAS and inhibiting its autophagic degradation. Acts as a scaffold between TBK1 and STAT3 to promote phosphorylation of STAT3 and resolve interferon-stimulated gene (ISG) expression. Inhibits the transcriptional activity of SPI1 in a dose-dependent manner (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin ligase that plays an essential role in the organization of autophagic response and ubiquitination upon lysosomal and phagosomal damages. Plays a role in the stress-induced biogenesis and degradation of protein aggresomes by regulating the p62-KEAP1-NRF2 signaling and particularly by modulating the ubiquitination levels and thus stability of NRF2. Acts as a scaffold protein and facilitates autophagic degradation of protein aggregates by interacting with p62/SQSTM, ATG16L1 and LC3B/MAP1LC3B. In turn, protects the cell against oxidative stress-induced cell death as a consequence of endomembrane damage.

E3 ubiquitin ligase that plays important roles in the regulation of neuronal apoptosis, selective autophagy or cell proliferation. Stimulates the degradation of kinetochore ZW10 interacting protein ZWINT in a proteasome-dependent manner, leading to negative regulation of cell proliferation. Inhibits autophagic degradation of diverse known targets while contributing to autophagy of midbodies. Autophagy-inhibitory activity involves MCL1, which TRIM17 assembles into complexes with the key autophagy regulator BECN1. Controls neuronal apoptosis by mediating ubiquitination and degradation of MCL1 to initiate neuronal death. In addition, regulates NFAT transcription factors NFATC3 and NFATC4 activities by preventing their nuclear localization, thus inhibiting their transcriptional activities. Decreases TRIM41-mediated degradation of ZSCAN2 thereby stimulating alpha-synuclein/SNCA transcription in neuronal cells (By similarity). Prevents the E3 ubiquitin-ligase activity of TRIM28 and its interaction with anti-apoptotic BCL2A1, blocking TRIM28 from ubiquitinating BCL2A1.

Has E3 ubiquitin ligase activity towards IGBP1, promoting its monoubiquitination, which results in deprotection of the catalytic subunit of protein phosphatase PP2A, and its subsequent degradation by polyubiquitination.

Interferon-induced antiviral protein involved in cell innate immunity. The antiviral activity could in part be mediated by TRIM22- dependent ubiquitination of viral proteins. Plays a role in restricting the replication of HIV-1, encephalomyocarditis virus (EMCV) and hepatitis B virus (HBV). Acts as a transcriptional repressor of HBV core promoter. May have E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity.

Acts as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Plays an essential role in autophagy activation during viral infection. Mechanistically, activates TANK-binding kinase 1/TBK1 by facilitating its dimerization and ability to phosphorylate the selective autophagy receptor SQSTM1. In order to achieve this function, TRIM23 mediates 'Lys-27'-linked auto-ubiquitination of its ADP-ribosylation factor (ARF) domain to induce its GTPase activity and its recruitment to autophagosomes.

Functions as a ubiquitin E3 ligase and as an ISG15 E3 ligase. Involved in innate immune defense against viruses by mediating ubiquitination of RIGI and IFIH1. Mediates 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of the RIGI N-terminal CARD-like region and may play a role in signal transduction that leads to the production of interferons in response to viral infection. Mediates 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of IFIH1. Promotes ISGylation of 14-3-3 sigma (SFN), an adapter protein implicated in the regulation of a large spectrum signaling pathway. Mediates estrogen action in various target organs. Mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of ZFHX3. Plays a role in promoting the restart of stalled replication forks via interaction with the KHDC3L-OOEP scaffold and subsequent ubiquitination of BLM, resulting in the recruitment and retainment of BLM at DNA replication forks (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which regulates the IFN-beta production and antiviral response downstream of various DNA-encoded pattern-recognition receptors (PRRs). Promotes nuclear IRF3 ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation. Bridges together TBK1 and NEMO during the innate response to viral infection leading to the activation of TBK1.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates ubiquitination of PIK3C2B and inhibits its activity; mediates the formation of 'Lys-48'- linked polyubiquitin chains; the function inhibits CD4 T-cell activation. Acts as a regulator of retrograde transport: together with MAGEL2, mediates the formation of 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains at 'Lys-220' of WASHC1, leading to promote endosomal F-actin assembly. Has a transcriptional repressor activity by cooperating with EPC1. Induces apoptosis by activating Jun N-terminal kinase and p38 kinase and also increases caspase-3-like activity independently of mitochondrial events. May function in male germ cell development. Has DNA-binding activity and preferentially bound to double-stranded DNA.

Plays a crucial role in the regulation of macrophage activation in response to viral or bacterial infections within the respiratory tract. Mechanistically, TRIM29 interacts with IKBKG/NEMO in the lysosome where it induces its 'Lys-48' ubiquitination and subsequent degradation. In turn, the expression of type I interferons and the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines are inhibited. Additionally, induces the 'Lys-48' ubiquitination of STING1 in a similar way, leading to its degradation.

Regulator of Src-induced anchorage independent cell growth (By similarity). May have E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity.

Has an E3 ubiquitin ligase activity. Ubiquitinates DTNBP1 (dysbindin) and promotes its degradation. May ubiquitinate BBS2. Ubiquitinates PIAS4/PIASY and promotes its degradation in keratinocytes treated with UVB and TNF-alpha (By similarity). Also acts as a regulator of autophagy by mediating formation of unanchored 'Lys-63'- linked polyubiquitin chains that activate ULK1: interaction with AMBRA1 is required for ULK1 activation.

Acts as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Promotes SMAD4 ubiquitination, nuclear exclusion and degradation via the ubiquitin proteasome pathway. According to PubMed:16751102, does not promote a decrease in the level of endogenous SMAD4. May act as a transcriptional repressor. Inhibits the transcriptional response to TGF-beta/BMP signaling cascade. Plays a role in the control of cell proliferation. Its association with SMAD2 and SMAD3 stimulates erythroid differentiation of hematopoietic stem/progenitor (By similarity). Monoubiquitinates SMAD4 and acts as an inhibitor of SMAD4-dependent TGF-beta/BMP signaling cascade (Monoubiquitination of SMAD4 hampers its ability to form a stable complex with activated SMAD2/3 resulting in inhibition of TGF-beta/BMP signaling cascade).

Functions as antiviral protein and contributes to the defense against retroviral infections. Acts as a capsid-specific restriction factor with the help of TRIM5 and prevents infection from non-host-adapted retroviruses. During influenza A virus infection, promotes programmed cell death by targeting ZBP1 for 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination. In turn, promotes ZBP1 recruitment of RIPK3 to mediate virus-induced programmed necrosis. Negatively regulates the function of mitochondria by enhancing mitochondrial depolarization leading to cytochrome c release and mitochondria-dependent apoptosis. Promotes also the formation of multinucleated giant cells by means of cell fusion and phagocytosis in epithelial cells.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that participates in multiple biological processes including cell death, glucose metabolism, and in particular, the innate immune response. Mediates 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of TRAF3 thereby promoting type I interferon production via RIG-I signaling pathway. Can also catalyze 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of viral proteins such as influenza virus PB2. Acts as a negative feedback regulator of TLR7- and TLR9-triggered signaling. Mechanistically, promotes the 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitination of IRF7 and induces its degradation via a proteasome-dependent pathway. Reduces FGFR1-dependent tyrosine phosphorylation of PKM, inhibiting PKM-dependent lactate production, glucose metabolism, and cell growth.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Involved in chromosome segregation and cell cycle regulation. May play a role in the acrosome reaction and fertilization.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase required to prevent centriole reduplication. Probably acts by ubiquitinating positive regulators of centriole reduplication. Mediates monoubiquitination of 'Lys-119' of histone H2A (H2AK119Ub), a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression: associates with some Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC2-like complex and mediates repression of target genes. Also acts as a positive regulator of peroxisome import by mediating monoubiquitination of PEX5 at 'Lys-472': monoubiquitination promotes PEX5 stabilitation by preventing its polyubiquitination and degradation by the proteasome. Has anti-HIV activity.

E3 ubiquitin-protein and E3 SUMO-protein ligase that acts as a regulator of innate immunity. Acts as a negative regulator of type I interferon IFN-beta production by catalyzing 'Lys- 48'-linked polyubiquitination of AZI2/NAP1, leading to its degradation (By similarity). Mediates 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of the critical TLR adapter TICAM1, inhibiting TLR3-mediated type I interferon signaling. Acts as positive regulator of the cGAS-STING pathway by acting as a E3 SUMO- protein ligase: mediates sumoylation of CGAS and STING, preventing their degradation and thereby activating the innate immune response to DNA virus (By similarity). Also acts as a negative regulator of NF- kappa-B signaling independently of its E3 protein ligase activity by promoting lysosome-dependent degradation of TAB2 and TAB3 adapters.

[Isoform 1]: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. May facilitate apoptosis by inhibiting APC/C-Cdh1-mediated poly- ubiquitination and subsequent proteasome-mediated degradation of the pro-apoptotic protein MOAP1. Regulates the G1/S transition of the cell cycle and DNA damage-induced G2 arrest by stabilizing CDKN1A/p21. Positively regulates CDKN1A/p21 stability by competing with DTL for CDKN1A/p21 binding, therefore disrupting DCX(DTL) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex- mediated CDKN1A/p21 ubiquitination and degradation.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that plays a role in the limitation of the innate immune response. Mediates inhibition of the RLR signaling pathway by ubiquitinating RIGI and IFIH1 receptors, leading to their proteasomal degradation. Promotes also the neddylation of IKBKG/NEMO, stabilizing NFKBIA, and thereby inhibiting of NF-kappa-B nuclear translocation and activation.

E3 ligase that plays essential roles in innate antiviral response. Directly binds to influenza A virus or vesicular stomatitis virus nucleoproteins and targets them for ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation, thereby limiting viral infections. Activates the innate antiviral response by catalyzing monoubiquitination of CGAS, thereby activating CGAS. Also involved in innate antiviral response by mediating 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitylation of BCL10 which in turn hubs NEMO for activation of NF-kappa-B and IRF3 pathways (By similarity). Catalyzes the ubiquitin-mediated degradation of other substrates including protein kinase C, ZSCAN21 or TOP3B suggesting additional roles besides its function in immune response.

May play a role in the process of differentiation and maturation of neuronal cells (By similarity). May regulate the activity of TRIM17. Is a negative regulator of PAX6 expression.

May act as a transcriptional repressor in mitogen-activated protein kinase signaling pathway.

Microtubule-associated protein that is involved in the formation of parallel microtubule bundles linked by cross-bridges in the proximal axon. Required for the uniform orientation and maintenance of the parallel microtubule fascicles, which are important for efficient cargo delivery and trafficking in axons. Thereby also required for proper axon specification, the establishment of neuronal polarity and proper neuronal migration.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates the ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of CYLD.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which promotes K48-linked polyubiquitination of protein methyltransferase PRMT1, leading to PRMT1 degradation. This suppresses methylation of the PRMT1 substrate MAP3K5/ASK1, promoting its activation and increasing MAP3K5- dependent cell death induced by oxidative stress. TRIM48-mediated ubiquitination of PRMT1 also suppresses methylation of FOXO1 by PRMT1, leading to inhibition of FOXO1 transcriptional activity.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that ubiquitinates Beclin-1/BECN1 in a 'Lys-63'-dependent manner enhancing its binding to ULK1. In turn, promotes starvation-induced autophagy activation. Interacts also with p62/SQSTM1 protein and thereby induces the formation and the autophagy clearance of aggresome-associated polyubiquitinated proteins through HDAC6 interaction.

May regulate gene expression and protein turnover in muscle cells.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that plays a key role in innate antiviral immunity by mediating ubiquitination of CGAS and STING1. In response to pathogen- and host- derived double-stranded DNA (dsDNA), targets STING1 to 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination, thereby promoting its homodimerization, a step required for the production of type I interferon IFN-beta (By similarity). Also mediate monoubiquitination of CGAS, thereby promoting CGAS oligomerization and subsequent activation. Independently of its E3 ubiquitin ligase activity, positive regulator of TLR3 signaling. Potentiates extracellular double stranded RNA (dsRNA)-induced expression of IFNB1 and interferon-stimulated genes ISG15, IFIT1/ISG56, CXCL10, OASL and CCL5/RANTES. Promotes establishment of an antiviral state by TLR3 ligand and TLR3- mediated chemokine induction following infection by hepatitis C virus.

E3 ubiquitin ligase induced during late erythropoiesis. Directly binds and ubiquitinates the intermediate chain of the microtubule motor dynein (DYNC1LI1/DYNC1LI2), stimulating the degradation of the dynein holoprotein complex. May participate in the erythroblast enucleation process through regulation of nuclear polarization.

E3 ubiquitin ligase involved in different processes such as development and immune response. Serves as a negative regulator for innate immune signaling pathways by suppressing RLR-induced activation of IRF3/7 and NF-kappa-B via interaction with adapter ECSIT. Regulates autophagy through modulating both the transcription and the ubiquitination of BECN1. On the one hand, regulates the transcription of BECN1 through negatively modulating the NF-kappa-B pathway. On the other hand, regulates TRAF6-mediated 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of BECN1, thus affecting the formation of the BECN1-PIK3C3 complex. In addition, mediates 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitination of TRAF6 and thereby promotes TRAF6 proteasomal degradation. Acts also as a critical regulator for early embryo development from blastocyst stage to gastrula through modulating F-actin assembly and WASH1 'Lys-63'- linked ubiquitination (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin ligase that plays a role in antifungal immunity by mediating 'Lys-27'-linked ubiquitination of CARD9 downstream of C- type lectin receptors; leading to CARD9 activation, followed by activation of NF-kappa-B and MAP kinase p38 pathways. E3 ubiquitin ligase activity is dependent on E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme UBE2D2.

E3 ubiquitin ligase. Mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of CKM, GMEB1 and HIBADH. Regulates the proteasomal degradation of muscle proteins under amino acid starvation, where muscle protein is catabolized to provide other organs with amino acids. Inhibits de novo skeletal muscle protein synthesis under amino acid starvation. Regulates proteasomal degradation of cardiac troponin I/TNNI3 and probably of other sarcomeric-associated proteins. May play a role in striated muscle atrophy and hypertrophy by regulating an anti-hypertrophic PKC-mediated signaling pathway. May regulate the organization of myofibrils through TTN in muscle cells.

Functions as a ubiquitin E3 ligase. Acts as a coactivator of androgen receptor (AR) depending on its ubiquitin ligase activity.

E3 ubiquitin ligase that plays an important role in antiviral immunity by restricting different viral infections including dengue virus or vesicular stomatitis indiana virus. Ubiquitinates viral proteins such as dengue virus NS3 thereby limiting infection. Plays also a role in cataract formation together with TP53. Mechanistically, inhibits UVB-induced cell apoptosis and reactive oxygen species (ROS) production by inducing TP53 ubiquitination.

Muscle-specific protein that plays a central role in cell membrane repair by nucleating the assembly of the repair machinery at injury sites. Specifically binds phosphatidylserine. Acts as a sensor of oxidation: upon membrane damage, entry of extracellular oxidative environment results in disulfide bond formation and homooligomerization at the injury site. This oligomerization acts as a nucleation site for recruitment of TRIM72-containing vesicles to the injury site, leading to membrane patch formation. Probably acts upstream of the Ca(2+)- dependent membrane resealing process. Required for transport of DYSF to sites of cell injury during repair patch formation. Regulates membrane budding and exocytosis. May be involved in the regulation of the mobility of KCNB1-containing endocytic vesicles (By similarity).

Involved in the modulation of the mitochondrial apoptotic pathway by ensuring the accumulation of cardiolipin (CL) in mitochondrial membranes. In vitro, the TRIAP1:PRELID1 complex mediates the transfer of phosphatidic acid (PA) between liposomes and probably functions as a PA transporter across the mitochondrion intermembrane space to provide PA for CL synthesis in the inner membrane. Likewise, the TRIAP1:PRELID3A complex mediates the transfer of phosphatidic acid (PA) between liposomes (in vitro) and probably functions as a PA transporter across the mitochondrion intermembrane space (in vivo). Mediates cell survival by inhibiting activation of caspase-9 which prevents induction of apoptosis.

Adapter protein involved in protein degradation by interacting with COP1 ubiquitin ligase. The COP1- binding motif is masked by autoinhibitory interactions with the protein kinase domain. Serves to alter COP1 substrate specificity by directing the activity of COP1 toward CEBPA. Binds selectively the recognition sequence of CEBPA. Regulates myeloid cell differentiation by altering the expression of CEBPA in a COP1-dependent manner (By similarity). Controls macrophage, eosinophil and neutrophil differentiation via the COP1-binding domain (By similarity). Interacts with MAPK kinases and regulates activation of MAP kinases, but has no kinase activity.

Interacts with MAPK kinases and regulates activation of MAP kinases. Does not display kinase activity (By similarity).

Inactive protein kinase which acts as a regulator of the integrated stress response (ISR), a process for adaptation to various stress. Inhibits the transcriptional activity of DDIT3/CHOP and is involved in DDIT3/CHOP-dependent cell death during ER stress. May play a role in programmed neuronal cell death but does not appear to affect non-neuronal cells. Acts as a negative feedback regulator of the ATF4-dependent transcription during the ISR: while TRIB3 expression is promoted by ATF4, TRIB3 protein interacts with ATF4 and inhibits ATF4 transcription activity (By similarity). Disrupts insulin signaling by binding directly to Akt kinases and blocking their activation (By similarity). May bind directly to and mask the 'Thr-308' phosphorylation site in AKT1 (By similarity). Interacts with the NF-kappa-B transactivator p65 RELA and inhibits its phosphorylation and thus its transcriptional activation activity. Interacts with MAPK kinases and regulates activation of MAP kinases. Can inhibit APOBEC3A editing of nuclear DNA.

Component of the TLR4 signaling complex. Mediates the innate immune response to bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) leading to cytokine secretion.

UBE2D1-dependent E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates the ubiquitination of NEFL and of phosphorylated BCL2L11. Plays a neuroprotective function. May play a role in neuronal rapid ischemic tolerance. Plays a role in antiviral immunity and limits New World arenavirus infection independently of its ubiquitin ligase activity.

Probably involved in vesicular trafficking via its association with the CART complex. The CART complex is necessary for efficient transferrin receptor recycling but not for EGFR degradation. Positively regulates motility of microtubule-dependent motor protein KIF21B (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Mediates 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of the innate immune receptor RIGI, this linkage doesn't lead to proteasomal degradation but seems to enhance IFN induction.

Capsid-specific restriction factor that prevents infection from non-host-adapted retroviruses. Blocks viral replication early in the life cycle, after viral entry but before reverse transcription. In addition to acting as a capsid-specific restriction factor, also acts as a pattern recognition receptor that activates innate immune signaling in response to the retroviral capsid lattice. Binding to the viral capsid triggers its E3 ubiquitin ligase activity, and in concert with the heterodimeric ubiquitin conjugating enzyme complex UBE2V1- UBE2N (also known as UBC13-UEV1A complex) generates 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains, which in turn are catalysts in the autophosphorylation of the MAP3K7/TAK1 complex (includes TAK1, TAB2, and TAB3). Activation of the MAP3K7/TAK1 complex by autophosphorylation results in the induction and expression of NF-kappa-B and MAPK- responsive inflammatory genes, thereby leading to an innate immune response in the infected cell. Restricts infection by N-tropic murine leukemia virus (N-MLV), equine infectious anemia virus (EIAV), simian immunodeficiency virus of macaques (SIVmac), feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV), and bovine immunodeficiency virus (BIV). Plays a role in regulating autophagy through activation of autophagy regulator BECN1 by causing its dissociation from its inhibitors BCL2 and TAB2. Also plays a role in autophagy by acting as a selective autophagy receptor which recognizes and targets HIV-1 capsid protein p24 for autophagic destruction.

E3 ubiquitin ligase that plays a crucial role in the activation of the IKBKE-dependent branch of the type I interferon signaling pathway. In concert with the ubiquitin-conjugating E2 enzyme UBE2K, synthesizes unanchored 'Lys- 48'-linked polyubiquitin chains that promote the oligomerization and autophosphorylation of IKBKE leading to stimulation of an antiviral response. Ubiquitinates also MYC and inhibits its transcription activation activity, maintaining the pluripotency of embryonic stem cells (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Mediates 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination and stabilization of the JUN coactivator RNF187 in response to growth factor signaling via the MEK/ERK pathway, thereby regulating JUN transactivation and cellular proliferation. Promotes the TLR4-mediated signaling activation through its E3 ligase domain leading to production of pro-inflammatory cytokines and type I interferon (By similarity). Also plays a negative role in the regulation of exogenous cytosolic DNA virus-triggered immune response. Mechanistically, enhances the 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitination of STING1 leading to its proteasome-dependent degradation.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that participates in multiple biological processes including cell survival, differentiation, apoptosis, and in particular, the innate immune response. Participates in the activation of interferon-gamma signaling by promoting proteasomal degradation of the repressor SOCS1. Plays a positive role in the TNFalpha and IL-1beta signaling pathways. Mechanistically, induces the 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of MAP3K7/TAK1 component leading to the activation of NF-kappa-B. Modulates also STAT3 activity through negative regulation of PIAS3, either by degradation of PIAS3 through the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway or exclusion of PIAS3 from the nucleus. Negatively regulates TLR3/4-mediated innate immune response by catalyzing 'Lys-6'- and 'Lys-33'-linked polyubiquitination of TICAM1 and thereby disrupting the TICAM1-TBK1 interaction.

Probable E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which plays an important role in blastocyst development.

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) for RHOA and RAC1 GTPases. Involved in coordinating actin remodeling, which is necessary for cell migration and growth. Plays a key role in the regulation of neurite outgrowth and lamellipodia formation. In developing hippocampal neurons, limits dendrite formation, without affecting the establishment of axon polarity. Once dendrites are formed, involved in the control of synaptic function by regulating the endocytosis of AMPA-selective glutamate receptors (AMPARs) at CA1 excitatory synapses (By similarity). May act as a regulator of adipogenesis (By similarity).

Transcription coactivator which associates with nuclear receptors, transcriptional coactivators including EP300, CREBBP and NCOA1, and basal transcription factors like TBP and TFIIA to facilitate nuclear receptors-mediated transcription. May thereby play an important role in establishing distinct coactivator complexes under different cellular conditions. Plays a role in thyroid hormone receptor and estrogen receptor transactivation. Also involved in androgen receptor transactivation (By similarity). Plays a pivotal role in the transactivation of NF-kappa-B, SRF and AP1. Acts as a mediator of transrepression between nuclear receptor and either AP1 or NF-kappa-B. May play a role in the development of neuromuscular junction. May play a role in late myogenic differentiation (By similarity). Also functions as part of the RQC trigger (RQT) complex that activates the ribosome quality control (RQC) pathway, a pathway that degrades nascent peptide chains during problematic translation.

Relays signals from the cell surface to the nucleus to weaken adherens junction and promote actin cytoskeleton reorganization and cell invasiveness. Involved in lysophosphatidic acid-induced cell adhesion and migration. Acts as a transcriptional coactivator for NF- kappa-B and JUN, and mediates the transrepression of these transcription factors induced by glucocorticoid receptor.

Is a membrane tether required for vesicle tethering to Golgi. Has an essential role in the maintenance of Golgi structure and function. It is required for efficient anterograde and retrograde trafficking in the early secretory pathway, functioning at both the ER-to-Golgi intermediate compartment (ERGIC) and Golgi complex. Binds the ligand binding domain of the thyroid receptor (THRB) in the presence of triiodothyronine and enhances THRB-modulated transcription.

May play a role in cell growth and maintenance of cell morphology.

Exoribonuclease that is part of the telomerase RNA 3' end processing complex and which has the ability to all four unpaired RNA nucleotides from 5' end or 3' end with higher efficiency for purine bases.

Catalytic subunit of an S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent tRNA methyltransferase complex that mediates the methylation of the guanosine nucleotide at position 10 (m2G10) in tRNAs.

tRNA methylase which 2'-O-methylates cytidine(4) in tRNA(Pro) and tRNA(Gly)(GCC), and adenosine(4) in tRNA(His).

Dimethylates a single guanine residue at position 26 of most tRNAs using S-adenosyl-L-methionine as donor of the methyl groups

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of 5-methyl-uridine in tRNAs and some mRNAs. Mainly catalyzes the methylation of uridine at position 54 (m5U54) in cytosolic tRNAs. Also able to mediate the formation of 5-methyl-uridine in some mRNAs.

Mitochondrial S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of 5-methyl-uridine in tRNAs and 12S rRNA. Catalyzes the methylation of uridine at position 54 (m5U54) in all tRNAs. Specifically methylates the uridine in position 429 of 12S rRNA (m5U429). Does not affect RNA stability or mitochondrial translation.

Probable adenosyl-L-methionine (AdoMet)-dependent tRNA (uracil-O(2)-)-methyltransferase.

Involved in mitochondrial tRNA methylation. Specifically methylates the N1 position of guanosine-37 in various tRNAs. Methylation is not dependent on the nature of the nucleoside 5' of the target nucleoside. This is the first step in the biosynthesis of wybutosine (yW), a modified base adjacent to the anticodon of tRNAs and required for accurate decoding.

Catalytic subunit of tRNA (adenine-N(1)-)-methyltransferase, which catalyzes the formation of N(1)-methyladenine at position 58 (m1A58) in initiator methionyl-tRNA. Catalytic subunit of mRNA N(1)-methyltransferase complex, which mediates methylation of adenosine residues at the N(1) position of a small subset of mRNAs: N(1) methylation takes place in tRNA T-loop-like structures of mRNAs and is only present at low stoichiometries.

Substrate-binding subunit of tRNA (adenine-N(1)-)- methyltransferase, which catalyzes the formation of N(1)-methyladenine at position 58 (m1A58) in initiator methionyl-tRNA. Together with the TRMT61A catalytic subunit, part of a mRNA N(1)- methyltransferase complex that mediates methylation of adenosine residues at the N(1) position of a small subset of mRNAs: N(1) methylation takes place in tRNA T-loop-like structures of mRNAs and is only present at low stoichiometries.

Methylates the 2'-O-ribose of nucleotides at positions 32 and 34 of the tRNA anticodon loop of substrate tRNAs.

May modifie wobble uridines in specific arginine and glutamic acid tRNAs. Acts as a tumor suppressor by promoting the expression of LIN9.

Methyltransferase that mediates the formation of N(7)- methylguanine in a subset of RNA species, such as tRNAs, mRNAs and microRNAs (miRNAs). Catalyzes the formation of N(7)-methylguanine at position 46 (m7G46) in tRNA. Also acts as a methyltransferase for a subset of internal N(7)-methylguanine in mRNAs. Internal N(7)-methylguanine methylation of mRNAs regulates translation. Also methylates a specific subset of miRNAs, such as let-7. N(7)-methylguanine methylation of let-7 miRNA promotes let-7 miRNA processing by disrupting an inhibitory secondary structure within the primary miRNA transcript (pri-miRNA). Acts as a regulator of embryonic stem cell self-renewal and differentiation (By similarity).

Cell surface receptor that may play a role in the innate and adaptive immune response.

Cell surface receptor that may play a role in the innate and adaptive immune response. Acts as a counter-receptor for CD276 and interaction with CD276 on T-cells enhances T-cell activation.

Positively regulates Toll-like receptor TLR7 signaling in macrophages.

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase responsible for the addition of the methyl group in the formation of N6-methyl-N6-threonylcarbamoyladenosine at position 37 (m(6)t(6)A37) of the tRNA anticodon loop of tRNA(Ser)(GCU). The methyl group of m(6)t(6)A37 may improve the efficiency of the tRNA decoding ability (By similarity).

DNA-binding factor that regulates the expression of a subset of genes and plays a key role in tangential, radial, and lateral expansion of the brain neocortex. Regulates neural stem cells proliferation and the production of intermediate neural progenitors and basal radial glial cells affecting the process of cerebral cortex gyrification. May control the proliferation rate of cells by regulating their progression through key cell-cycle transition points (By similarity).

[Isoform 1]: Adds and repairs the conserved 3'-CCA sequence necessary for the attachment of amino acids to the 3' terminus of tRNA molecules, using CTP and ATP as substrates.

Could be involved with bystin and trophinin in a cell adhesion molecule complex that mediates an initial attachment of the blastocyst to uterine epithelial cells at the time of the embryo implantation

Could be involved with bystin and tastin in a cell adhesion molecule complex that mediates an initial attachment of the blastocyst to uterine epithelial cells at the time of the embryo implantation. Directly responsible for homophilic cell adhesion

Receptor-activated non-selective cation channel involved in pain detection and possibly also in cold perception, oxygen concentration perception, cough, itch, and inner ear function. Shows 8-fold preference for divalent over monovalent cations. Has a central role in the pain response to endogenous inflammatory mediators and to a diverse array of irritants, such as allylthiocyanate (AITC) from mustard oil or wasabi, cinnamaldehyde, diallyl disulfide (DADS) from garlic, and acrolein, an irritant from tears gas and vehicle exhaust fumes. Acts also as an ionotropic cannabinoid receptor by being activated by delta(9)- tetrahydrocannabinol (THC), the psychoactive component of marijuana. Is activated by a large variety of structurally unrelated electrophilic and non-electrophilic chemical compounds. Electrophilic ligands activate TRPA1 by interacting with critical N- terminal Cys residues in a covalent manner, whereas mechanisms of non- electrophilic ligands are not well determined. May be a component for the mechanosensitive transduction channel of hair cells in inner ear, thereby participating in the perception of sounds. Probably operated by a phosphatidylinositol second messenger system (By similarity).

Thought to form a receptor-activated non-selective calcium permeant cation channel. Probably is operated by a phosphatidylinositol second messenger system activated by receptor tyrosine kinases or G- protein coupled receptors. Seems to be also activated by intracellular calcium store depletion.

Forms a receptor-activated non-selective calcium permeant cation channel. May be operated by a phosphatidylinositol second messenger system activated by receptor tyrosine kinases or G-protein coupled receptors.

Forms a receptor-activated non-selective calcium permeant cation channel. Acts as a cell-cell contact-dependent endothelial calcium entry channel. Probably operated by a phosphatidylinositol second messenger system activated by receptor tyrosine kinases or G- protein coupled receptors. Mediates cation entry, with an enhanced permeability to barium over calcium. May also be activated by intracellular calcium store depletion.

Thought to form a receptor-activated non-selective calcium permeant cation channel. Probably is operated by a phosphatidylinositol second messenger system activated by receptor tyrosine kinases or G- protein coupled receptors. Has also been shown to be calcium-selective (By similarity). May also be activated by intracellular calcium store depletion. Mediates calcium-dependent phosphatidylserine externalization and apoptosis in neurons via its association with PLSCR1 (By similarity).

Thought to form a receptor-activated non-selective calcium permeant cation channel. Probably is operated by a phosphatidylinositol second messenger system activated by receptor tyrosine kinases or G-protein coupled receptors. Activated by diacylglycerol (DAG) in a membrane-delimited fashion, independently of protein kinase C. Seems not to be activated by intracellular calcium store depletion.

Thought to form a receptor-activated non-selective calcium permeant cation channel. Probably is operated by a phosphatidylinositol second messenger system activated by receptor tyrosine kinases or G- protein coupled receptors. Activated by diacylglycerol (DAG) (By similarity). May also be activated by intracellular calcium store depletion.

Forms nonselective divalent cation-conducting channels which mediate the influx of Na(2+), Ca(2+), Mg(2+), Mn(2+), Ba(2+), and Ni(2+) into the cytoplasm, leading to membrane depolarization. Impermeable to zinc ions. In addition, forms heteromultimeric ion channels with TRPM3 which are permeable for calcium and zinc ions. Essential for the depolarizing photoresponse of retinal ON bipolar cells. It is part of the GRM6 signaling cascade. May play a role in metastasis suppression (By similarity). May act as a spontaneously active, calcium-permeable plasma membrane channel.

[Isoform 1]: Nonselective, voltage-independent cation channel that mediates Na(+) and Ca(2+) influx, leading to increased cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels. Functions as ligand-gated ion channel. Binding of ADP- ribose to the cytoplasmic Nudix domain causes a conformation change; the channel is primed but still requires Ca(2+) binding to trigger channel opening. Extracellular calcium passes through the channel and increases channel activity. Contributes to Ca(2+) release from intracellular stores in response to ADP-ribose. Plays a role in numerous processes that involve signaling via intracellular Ca(2+) levels (Probable). Besides, mediates the release of lysosomal Zn(2+) stores in response to reactive oxygen species, leading to increased cytosolic Zn(2+) levels. Activated by moderate heat (35 to 40 degrees Celsius). Activated by intracellular ADP- ribose, beta-NAD (NAD(+)) and similar compounds, and by oxidative stress caused by reactive oxygen or nitrogen species. The precise physiological activators are under debate; the true, physiological activators may be ADP-ribose and ADP-ribose-2'-phosphate. Activation by ADP-ribose and beta-NAD is strongly increased by moderate heat (35 to 40 degrees Celsius). Likewise, reactive oxygen species lower the threshold for activation by moderate heat (37 degrees Celsius). Plays a role in mediating behavorial and physiological responses to moderate heat and thereby contributes to body temperature homeostasis. Plays a role in insulin secretion, a process that requires increased cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels (By similarity). Required for normal IFNG and cytokine secretion and normal innate immune immunity in response to bacterial infection. Required for normal phagocytosis and cytokine release by macrophages exposed to zymosan (in vitro). Plays a role in dendritic cell differentiation and maturation, and in dendritic cell chemotaxis via its role in regulating cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and filopodia formation in response to reactive oxygen species via its role in increasing cytoplasmic Ca(2+) and Zn(2+) levels. Confers susceptibility to cell death following oxidative stress.

Calcium channel mediating constitutive calcium ion entry. Its activity is increased by reduction in extracellular osmolarity, by store depletion and muscarinic receptor activation. In addition, forms heteromultimeric ion channels with TRPM1 which are permeable for calcium and zinc ions.

Calcium-activated non selective (CAN) cation channel that mediates membrane depolarization. While it is activated by increase in intracellular Ca(2+), it is impermeable to it. Mediates transport of monovalent cations (Na(+) > K(+) > Cs(+) > Li(+)), leading to depolarize the membrane. It thereby plays a central role in cadiomyocytes, neurons from entorhinal cortex, dorsal root and vomeronasal neurons, endocrine pancreas cells, kidney epithelial cells, cochlea hair cells etc. Participates in T-cell activation by modulating Ca(2+) oscillations after T lymphocyte activation, which is required for NFAT-dependent IL2 production. Involved in myogenic constriction of cerebral arteries. Controls insulin secretion in pancreatic beta-cells. May also be involved in pacemaking or could cause irregular electrical activity under conditions of Ca(2+) overload. Affects T-helper 1 (Th1) and T-helper 2 (Th2) cell motility and cytokine production through differential regulation of calcium signaling and NFATC1 localization. Enhances cell proliferation through up-regulation of the beta-catenin signaling pathway. Plays a role in keratinocyte differentiation.

Voltage-modulated Ca(2+)-activated, monovalent cation channel (VCAM) that mediates a transient membrane depolarization and plays a central role in taste transduction. Monovalent-specific, non-selective cation channel that mediates the transport of Na(+), K(+) and Cs(+) ions equally well. Activated directly by increases in intracellular Ca(2+), but is impermeable to it. Gating is voltage-dependent and displays rapid activation and deactivation kinetics upon channel stimulation even during sustained elevations in Ca(2+). Also activated by a fast intracellular Ca(2+) increase in response to inositol 1,4,5- triphosphate-producing receptor agonists. The channel is blocked by extracellular acidification. External acidification has 2 effects, a fast reversible block of the current and a slower irreversible enhancement of current inactivation. Is a highly temperature-sensitive, heat activated channel showing a steep increase of inward currents at temperatures between 15 and 35 degrees Celsius. Heat activation is due to a shift of the voltage-dependent activation curve to negative potentials. Activated by arachidonic acid in vitro. May be involved in perception of bitter, sweet and umami tastes. May also be involved in sensing semiochemicals.

Essential ion channel and serine/threonine-protein kinase. Crucial for magnesium homeostasis. Has an important role in epithelial magnesium transport and in the active magnesium absorption in the gut and kidney. Isoforms of the type M6-kinase lack the ion channel region

Essential ion channel and serine/threonine-protein kinase. Divalent cation channel permeable to calcium and magnesium. Has a central role in magnesium ion homeostasis and in the regulation of anoxic neuronal cell death. Involved in TNF- induced necroptosis downstream of MLKL by mediating calcium influx. The kinase activity is essential for the channel function. May be involved in a fundamental process that adjusts plasma membrane divalent cation fluxes according to the metabolic state of the cell. Phosphorylates annexin A1 (ANXA1).

Receptor-activated non-selective cation channel involved in detection of sensations such as coolness, by being activated by cold temperature below 25 degrees Celsius. Activated by icilin, eucalyptol, menthol, cold and modulation of intracellular pH. Involved in menthol sensation. Permeable for monovalent cations sodium, potassium, and cesium and divalent cation calcium. Temperature sensing is tightly linked to voltage-dependent gating. Activated upon depolarization, changes in temperature resulting in graded shifts of its voltage- dependent activation curves. The chemical agonist menthol functions as a gating modifier, shifting activation curves towards physiological membrane potentials. Temperature sensitivity arises from a tenfold difference in the activation energies associated with voltage-dependent opening and closing. In prostate cancer cells, shows strong inward rectification and high calcium selectivity in contrast to its behavior in normal cells which is characterized by outward rectification and poor cationic selectivity. Plays a role in prostate cancer cell migration. Isoform 2 and isoform 3 negatively regulate menthol- and cold-induced channel activity by stabilizing the closed state of the channel.

Transcriptional repressor. Binds specifically to GATA sequences and represses expression of GATA-regulated genes at selected sites and stages in vertebrate development. Regulates chondrocyte proliferation and differentiation. Executes multiple functions in proliferating chondrocytes, expanding the region of distal chondrocytes, activating proliferation in columnar cells and supporting the differentiation of columnar into hypertrophic chondrocytes.

Catalyzes the last step of tRNA splicing, the transfer of the splice junction 2'-phosphate from ligated tRNA to NAD to produce ADP- ribose 1''-2'' cyclic phosphate.

Ligand-activated non-selective calcium permeant cation channel involved in detection of noxious chemical and thermal stimuli. Seems to mediate proton influx and may be involved in intracellular acidosis in nociceptive neurons. Involved in mediation of inflammatory pain and hyperalgesia. Sensitized by a phosphatidylinositol second messenger system activated by receptor tyrosine kinases, which involves PKC isozymes and PCL. Activation by vanilloids, like capsaicin, and temperatures higher than 42 degrees Celsius, exhibits a time- and Ca(2+)-dependent outward rectification, followed by a long-lasting refractory state. Mild extracellular acidic pH (6.5) potentiates channel activation by noxious heat and vanilloids, whereas acidic conditions (pH <6) directly activate the channel. Can be activated by endogenous compounds, including 12-hydroperoxytetraenoic acid and bradykinin. Acts as ionotropic endocannabinoid receptor with central neuromodulatory effects. Triggers a form of long-term depression (TRPV1-LTD) mediated by the endocannabinoid anandamine in the hippocampus and nucleus accumbens by affecting AMPA receptors endocytosis.

Calcium-permeable, non-selective cation channel with an outward rectification. Seems to be regulated, at least in part, by IGF- I, PDGF and neuropeptide head activator. May transduce physical stimuli in mast cells. Activated by temperatures higher than 52 degrees Celsius; is not activated by vanilloids and acidic pH.

Putative receptor-activated non-selective calcium permeant cation channel. It is activated by innocuous (warm) temperatures and shows an increased response at noxious temperatures greater than 39 degrees Celsius. Activation exhibits an outward rectification. May associate with TRPV1 and may modulate its activity. Is a negative regulator of hair growth and cycling: TRPV3-coupled signaling suppresses keratinocyte proliferation in hair follicles and induces apoptosis and premature hair follicle regression (catagen).

Non-selective calcium permeant cation channel involved in osmotic sensitivity and mechanosensitivity. Activation by exposure to hypotonicity within the physiological range exhibits an outward rectification. Also activated by heat, low pH, citrate and phorbol esters. Increase of intracellular Ca(2+) potentiates currents. Channel activity seems to be regulated by a calmodulin- dependent mechanism with a negative feedback mechanism. Promotes cell-cell junction formation in skin keratinocytes and plays an important role in the formation and/or maintenance of functional intercellular barriers (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of intracellular Ca(2+) in synoviocytes. Plays an obligatory role as a molecular component in the nonselective cation channel activation induced by 4- alpha-phorbol 12,13-didecanoate and hypotonic stimulation in synoviocytes and also regulates production of IL-8. Together with PKD2, forms mechano- and thermosensitive channels in cilium. Negatively regulates expression of PPARGC1A, UCP1, oxidative metabolism and respiration in adipocytes (By similarity). Regulates expression of chemokines and cytokines related to pro-inflammatory pathway in adipocytes (By similarity). Together with AQP5, controls regulatory volume decrease in salivary epithelial cells (By similarity). Required for normal development and maintenance of bone and cartilage. In its inactive state, may sequester DDX3X at the plasma membrane. When activated, the interaction between both proteins is affected and DDX3X relocalizes to the nucleus.

Calcium selective cation channel that mediates Ca(2+) uptake in various tissues, including the intestine (PubMed:11097838, PubMed:11278579, PubMed:11248124 PubMed:15184369, PubMed:23612980, PubMed:29258289). Important for normal Ca(2+) ion homeostasis in the body, including bone and skin (By similarity). The channel is activated by low internal calcium level, probably including intracellular calcium store depletion, and the current exhibits an inward rectification. Inactivation includes both a rapid Ca(2+)-dependent and a slower Ca(2+)-calmodulin-dependent mechanism; the latter may be regulated by phosphorylation. In vitro, is slowly inhibited by Mg(2+) in a voltage-independent manner. Heteromeric assembly with TRPV5 seems to modify channel properties. TRPV5-TRPV6 heteromultimeric concatemers exhibit voltage-dependent gating.

Pseudouridine synthase that catalyzes pseudouridylation of mRNAs and tRNAs. Mediates pseudouridylation of mRNAs with the consensus sequence 5'- GUUCNANNC-3', harboring a stem-loop structure. Constitutes the major pseudouridine synthase acting on mRNAs. Also catalyzes pseudouridylation of some tRNAs, including synthesis of pseudouridine(55) from uracil-55, in the psi GC loop of a subset of tRNAs. Promotes the processing of pri-let-7 microRNAs (pri-miRNAs) independently of its RNA pseudouridylate synthase activity. Acts by binding to the stem-loop structure on pri- let-7, preventing LIN28-binding (LIN28A and/or LIN28B), thereby enhancing the interaction between pri-let-7 and the microprocessor DGCR8, which mediates miRNA maturation.

Minor enzyme contributing to the isomerization of uridine to pseudouridine (pseudouridylation) of specific mitochondrial mRNAs (mt- mRNAs) such as COXI and COXIII mt-mRNAs. As a component of a functional protein-RNA module, consisting of RCC1L, NGRN, RPUSD3, RPUSD4, TRUB2, FASTKD2 and 16S mitochondrial ribosomal RNA (16S mt-rRNA), controls 16S mt-rRNA abundance and is required for intra-mitochondrial translation. Also catalyzes pseudouridylation of some tRNAs, including synthesis of pseudouridine(55) from uracil-55, in the psi GC loop of a subset of tRNAs.

Reduces disulfideprotein thioredoxin (Trx) to its dithiol- containing form. Homodimeric flavoprotein involved in the regulation of cellular redox reactions, growth and differentiation. Contains a selenocysteine residue at the C-terminal active site that is essential for catalysis (Probable). Also has reductase activity on hydrogen peroxide (H2O2).

Involved in the control of reactive oxygen species levels and the regulation of mitochondrial redox homeostasis. Maintains thioredoxin in a reduced state. May play a role in redox- regulated cell signaling.

Displays thioredoxin reductase, glutaredoxin and glutathione reductase activities. Catalyzes disulfide bond isomerization. Promotes disulfide bond formation between GPX4 and various sperm proteins and may play a role in sperm maturation by promoting formation of sperm structural components (By similarity).

Has activity against the synthetic substrates Boc-Phe-Ser- Arg-Mec, Boc-Leu-Thr-Arg-Mec, Boc-Gln-Ala-Arg-Mec and Boc-Val-Pro-Arg- Mec. The single-chain form is more active than the two-chain form against all of these substrates.

In the ileum, may be involved in defensin processing, including DEFA5.

Digestive protease that cleaves proteins preferentially after an Arg residue and has proteolytic activity toward Kunitz-type trypsin inhibitors.

Tryptase is the major neutral protease present in mast cells and is secreted upon the coupled activation-degranulation response of this cell type. May play a role in innate immunity. Isoform 2 cleaves large substrates, such as fibronectin, more efficiently than isoform 1, but seems less efficient toward small substrates.

Tryptase is the major neutral protease present in mast cells and is secreted upon the coupled activation-degranulation response of this cell type. May play a role in innate immunity.

Tryptase is the major neutral protease present in mast cells and is secreted upon the coupled activation-degranulation response of this cell type.

Component of the ESCRT-I complex, a regulator of vesicular trafficking process. Binds to ubiquitinated cargo proteins and is required for the sorting of endocytic ubiquitinated cargos into multivesicular bodies (MVBs). Mediates the association between the ESCRT-0 and ESCRT-I complex. Required for completion of cytokinesis; the function requires CEP55. May be involved in cell growth and differentiation. Acts as a negative growth regulator. Involved in the budding of many viruses through an interaction with viral proteins that contain a late-budding motif P-[ST]-A-P. This interaction is essential for viral particle budding of numerous retroviruses. Required for the exosomal release of SDCBP, CD63 and syndecan. It may also play a role in the extracellular release of microvesicles that differ from the exosomes.

Putative taste receptor. TAS1R1/TAS1R3 responds to the umami taste stimulus (the taste of monosodium glutamate). Sequence differences within and between species can significantly influence the selectivity and specificity of taste responses.

Putative taste receptor. TAS1R2/TAS1R3 recognizes diverse natural and synthetic sweeteners

Putative taste receptor. TAS1R1/TAS1R3 responds to the umami taste stimulus (the taste of monosodium glutamate). TAS1R2/TAS1R3 recognizes diverse natural and synthetic sweeteners. TAS1R3 is essential for the recognition and response to the disaccharide trehalose (By similarity). Sequence differences within and between species can significantly influence the selectivity and specificity of taste responses.

Involved in the early steps of selenocysteine biosynthesis and tRNA(Sec) charging to the later steps resulting in the cotranslational incorporation of selenocysteine into selenoproteins. Stabilizes the SECISBP2, EEFSEC and tRNA(Sec) complex. May be involved in the methylation of tRNA(Sec). Enhances efficiency of selenoproteins synthesis (By similarity).

In complex with TSC2, inhibits the nutrient-mediated or growth factor-stimulated phosphorylation of S6K1 and EIF4EBP1 by negatively regulating mTORC1 signaling. Seems not to be required for TSC2 GAP activity towards RHEB. Implicated as a tumor suppressor. Involved in microtubule-mediated protein transport, but this seems to be due to unregulated mTOR signaling (By similarity). Acts as a co- chaperone for HSP90AA1 facilitating HSP90AA1 chaperoning of protein clients such as kinases, TSC2 and glucocorticoid receptor NR3C1. Increases ATP binding to HSP90AA1 and inhibits HSP90AA1 ATPase activity. Competes with the activating co-chaperone AHSA1 for binding to HSP90AA1, thereby providing a reciprocal regulatory mechanism for chaperoning of client proteins. Recruits TSC2 to HSP90AA1 and stabilizes TSC2 by preventing the interaction between TSC2 and ubiquitin ligase HERC1.

In complex with TSC1, this tumor suppressor inhibits the nutrient-mediated or growth factor-stimulated phosphorylation of S6K1 and EIF4EBP1 by negatively regulating mTORC1 signaling. Acts as a GTPase- activating protein (GAP) for the small GTPase RHEB, a direct activator of the protein kinase activity of mTORC1. May also play a role in microtubule-mediated protein transport (By similarity). Also stimulates the intrinsic GTPase activity of the Ras-related proteins RAP1A and RAB5 (By similarity).

Plays a critical role in tooth and hair follicle morphogenesis through regulation of the Notch signaling pathway. May play a role in development or function of the auditory system.

Plays a role in spermatogenesis. When overexpressed, prevents nuclear localization of HIF1A (By similarity).

Major regulator of extracellular matrix organization during tissue remodeling. Catalyzes the transfer of a heavy chain (HC) from inter-alpha-inhibitor (I-alpha-I) complex to hyaluronan. Cleaves the ester bond between the C-terminus of the HC and GalNAc residue of the chondroitin sulfate chain in I-alpha-I complex followed by transesterification of the HC to hyaluronan. In the process, potentiates the antiprotease function of I- alpha-I complex through release of free bikunin. Acts as a catalyst in the formation of hyaluronan-HC oligomers and hyaluronan-rich matrix surrounding the cumulus cell-oocyte complex, a necessary step for oocyte fertilization. Assembles hyaluronan in pericellular matrices that serve as platforms for receptor clustering and signaling. Enables binding of hyaluronan deposited on the surface of macrophages to LYVE1 on lymphatic endothelium and facilitates macrophage extravasation. Alters hyaluronan binding to functionally latent CD44 on vascular endothelium, switching CD44 into an active state that supports leukocyte rolling. Modulates the interaction of chemokines with extracellular matrix components and proteoglycans on endothelial cell surface, likely preventing chemokine gradient formation. In a negative feedback mechanism, may limit excessive neutrophil recruitment at inflammatory sites by antagonizing the association of CXCL8 with glycosaminoglycans on vascular endothelium. Has a role in osteogenesis and bone remodeling. Inhibits BMP2-dependent differentiation of mesenchymal stem cell to osteoblasts. Protects against bone erosion during inflammation by inhibiting TNFSF11/RANKL- dependent osteoclast activation.

Probable transcriptional regulator involved in developmental processes. May act as a transcriptional repressor (Potential).

Transcriptional regulator involved in developmental processes. Functions in association with APBB1, SET and HDAC factors as a transcriptional repressor, that inhibits the expression of CASP4. TSHZ3-mediated transcription repression involves the recruitment of histone deacetylases HDAC1 and HDAC2. Associates with chromatin in a region surrounding the CASP4 transcriptional start site(s). Regulates the development of neurons involved in both respiratory rhythm and airflow control. Promotes maintenance of nucleus ambiguus (nA) motoneurons, which govern upper airway function, and establishes a respiratory rhythm generator (RRG) activity compatible with survival at birth. Involved in the differentiation of the proximal uretic smooth muscle cells during developmental processes. Involved in the up-regulation of myocardin, that directs the expression of smooth muscle cells in the proximal ureter (By similarity). Involved in the modulation of glutamatergic synaptic transmission and long-term synaptic potentiation (By similarity).

Indispensable for the control of thyroid structure and metabolism

May play a role in testicular physiology, most probably in the process of spermatogenesis or spermatid development

Contributes to various developmental events and other processes such as wound healing and cholesterol homeostasis through its interactions with multiple signaling pathways. Wnt signaling inhibitor which competes with WNT2B for binding to Wnt receptor FZD4 and represses WNT2B-dependent development of the peripheral eye. Plays a role in regulating the hair cycle by controlling TGFB1 signaling. Required for the development of the anterior commissure in the brain by inhibiting neurite outgrowth. Essential for terminal differentiation of hippocampal neural stem cells. Plays a role in regulating bone elongation and bone mass by modulating growth plate chondrocyte function and overall body size. Required for development of the inner ear through its involvement in stereocilia formation in inner hair cells. Facilitates wound healing by inhibiting secretion of TGFB1 from macrophages which prevents myofibroblast differentiation, maintaining inflammatory cell quiescence. Plays a role in cholesterol homeostasis by reducing circulating high-density lipoprotein cholesterol, lowering cholesterol efflux capacity and decreasing cholesterol-to-bile acid conversion in the liver. In one study, shown to negatively regulate sympathetic innervation in brown fat, leading to reduced energy expenditure. In another study, shown not to affect brown fat thermogenic capacity, body weight gain or glucose homeostasis.

[Isoform 1]: Cytokine that induces the release of T-cell- attracting chemokines from monocytes and, in particular, enhances the maturation of CD11c(+) dendritic cells. Can induce allergic inflammation by directly activating mast cells.

Regulator of cell surface receptor signal transduction. Plays a central role in retinal vascularization by regulating norrin (NDP) signal transduction. Acts in concert with norrin (NDP) to promote FZD4 multimerization and subsequent activation of FZD4, leading to promote accumulation of beta-catenin (CTNNB1) and stimulate LEF/TCF-mediated transcriptional programs. Suprisingly, it only activates the norrin (NDP)-dependent activation of FZD4, while it does not activate the Wnt- dependent activation of FZD4, suggesting the existence of a Wnt- independent signaling that also promote accumulation the beta-catenin (CTNNB1) (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of membrane proteinases such as ADAM10 and MMP14/MT1-MMP. Activates ADAM10-dependent cleavage activity of amyloid precursor protein (APP). Activates MMP14/MT1-MMP- dependent cleavage activity.

Regulates maturation and trafficking of the transmembrane metalloprotease ADAM10. Negatively regulates ADAM10-mediated cleavage of GP6 (By similarity). Promotes ADAM10-mediated cleavage of CDH5 (By similarity).

Regulates maturation and trafficking of the transmembrane metalloprotease ADAM10. Promotes ADAM10-mediated cleavage of CDH2 (By similarity). Negatively regulates ligand-induced Notch activity probably by regulating ADAM10 activity.

May play a role in signalling in oligodendrocytes in the early stages of their terminal differentiation into myelin-forming glia and may also function in stabilizing the mature sheath.

Plays an important role in normal erythropoiesis (By similarity). It has a role in the differentiation of erythroid progenitors (By similarity). Regulates maturation and trafficking of the transmembrane metalloprotease ADAM10. Negatively regulates ligand-induced Notch activity probably by regulating ADAM10 activity. Mediates docking of ADAM10 to zonula adherens by interacting with ADAM10 and, in a PDZD11-dependent manner, with the zonula adherens protein PLEKHA7.

Regulates the proliferation and migration of oligodendrocytes, a process essential for normal myelination and repair.

Regulates ADAM10 maturation and trafficking to the cell surface. Promotes ADAM10-mediated cleavage of CD44.

Acts in combination with TSN as an endonuclease involved in the activation of the RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC). Possible role in spermatogenesis.

DNA-binding protein that specifically recognizes consensus sequences at the breakpoint junctions in chromosomal translocations, mostly involving immunoglobulin (Ig)/T-cell receptor gene segments. Seems to recognize single-stranded DNA ends generated by staggered breaks occurring at recombination hot spots

Adhesive glycoprotein that mediates cell-to-cell and cell-to- matrix interactions. Binds heparin. May play a role in dentinogenesis and/or maintenance of dentin and dental pulp (By similarity). Ligand for CD36 mediating antiangiogenic properties. Plays a role in ER stress response, via its interaction with the activating transcription factor 6 alpha (ATF6) which produces adaptive ER stress response factors (By similarity).

Adhesive glycoprotein that mediates cell-to-cell and cell-to- matrix interactions. Ligand for CD36 mediating antiangiogenic properties.

Adhesive glycoprotein that mediates cell-to-cell and cell-to- matrix interactions. Can bind to fibrinogen, fibronectin, laminin and type V collagen

Adhesive glycoprotein that mediates cell-to-cell and cell-to- matrix interactions and is involved in various processes including cellular proliferation, migration, adhesion and attachment, inflammatory response to CNS injury, regulation of vascular inflammation and adaptive responses of the heart to pressure overload and in myocardial function and remodeling. Binds to structural extracellular matrix (ECM) proteins and modulates the ECM in response to tissue damage, contributing to cardioprotective and adaptive ECM remodeling. Plays a role in ER stress response, via its interaction with the activating transcription factor 6 alpha (ATF6) which produces adaptive ER stress response factors and protects myocardium from pressure overload. May contribute to spinal presynaptic hypersensitivity and neuropathic pain states after peripheral nerve injury. May play a role in regulating protective astrogenesis from the subventricular zone (SVZ) niche after injury in a NOTCH1-dependent manner (By similarity).

May be involved in proteolysis through its threonine endopeptidase activity.

Cholesterol-binding protein involved in the redistribution of cholesterol from lipid droplets to the endoplasmic reticulum. Required to meet cholesterol demands during erythropoietic differentiation. May play a role in transport processes at the plasma membrane of erythrocytes, including regulating VDAC-mediated ATP export, and import of the heme precursors protoporphyrin IX and 5-aminolevulinic acid.

Can bind protoporphyrin IX and may play a role in the transport of porphyrins and heme (By similarity). Promotes the transport of cholesterol across mitochondrial membranes and may play a role in lipid metabolism, but its precise physiological role is controversial. It is apparently not required for steroid hormone biosynthesis. Was initially identified as peripheral- type benzodiazepine receptor; can also bind isoquinoline carboxamides.

Required during maturation of the 40S ribosomal subunit in the nucleolus.

Aminocarboxypropyltransferase that catalyzes the aminocarboxypropyl transfer on pseudouridine at position 1248 (Psi1248) in 18S rRNA (Probable). It constitutes the last step in biosynthesis of the hypermodified N1-methyl-N3-(3-amino-3-carboxypropyl) pseudouridine (m1acp3-Psi) conserved in eukaryotic 18S rRNA (Probable).

Testis-specific serine/threonine-protein kinase required during spermatid development. Phosphorylates 'Ser-288' of TSKS. Involved in the late stages of spermatogenesis, during the reconstruction of the cytoplasm. During spermatogenesis, required for the transformation of a ring-shaped structure around the base of the flagellum originating from the chromatoid body.

Testis-specific serine/threonine-protein kinase required during spermatid development. Phosphorylates TSKS at 'Ser-288' and SPAG16. Involved in the late stages of spermatogenesis, during the reconstruction of the cytoplasm. During spermatogenesis, required for the transformation of a ring-shaped structure around the base of the flagellum originating from the chromatoid body.

May be involved in a signaling pathway during male germ cell development or mature sperm function

Serine/threonine kinase which is involved in male germ cell development and in mature sperm function (By similarity). May be involved in the Cre/Creb signaling pathway (By similarity). Phosphorylates CREB1 on 'Ser-133' in vitro and can stimulate Cre/Creb pathway in cells. Phosphorylates CREM on 'Ser-116' in vitro (By similarity). Phosphorylates ODF2 on 'Ser-95' (By similarity).

Required for sperm production and function. Plays a role in DNA condensation during postmeiotic chromatin remodeling (By similarity).

Thiosulfate:glutathione sulfurtransferase (TST) required to produce S-sulfanylglutathione (GSS(-)), a central intermediate in hydrogen sulfide metabolism. Provides the link between the first step in mammalian H(2)S metabolism performed by the sulfide:quinone oxidoreductase (SQOR) which catalyzes the conversion of H(2)S to thiosulfate, and the sulfur dioxygenase (SDO) which uses GSS(-) as substrate. The thermodynamic coupling of the irreversible SDO and reversible TST reactions provides a model for the physiologically relevant reaction with thiosulfate as the sulfane donor.

Part of the CASK/TBR1/TSPYL2 transcriptional complex which modulates gene expression in response to neuronal synaptic activity, probably by facilitating nucleosome assembly. May inhibit cell proliferation by inducing p53-dependent CDKN1A expression.

Involved in modulation of cell growth and cellular response to gamma radiation probably via regulation of the Akt signaling pathway. Involved in regulation of p53/TP53. Suppresses p53/TP53 protein levels and promotes its ubiquitination; the function is dependent on USP7 and independent on MDM2. Proposed to displace p53/TP53 from interaction with USP7.

Component of the IFT complex A (IFT-A), a complex required for retrograde ciliary transport and entry into cilia of G protein- coupled receptors (GPCRs). Essential for retrograde trafficking of IFT- 1, IFT-B and GPCRs. Negatively modulates the SHH signal transduction (By similarity).

Required for polyglutamylation of axonemal tubulin. Plays a role in anterograde intraflagellar transport (IFT), the process by which cilia precursors are transported from the base of the cilium to the site of their incorporation at the tip.

Regulates high density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol metabolism by promoting the ubiquitination and degradation of the oxysterols receptors LXR (NR1H2 and NR1H3).

Serine/threonine kinase which is able to phosphorylate TAU on serine, threonine and tyrosine residues. Induces aggregation of TAU.

Serine/threonine kinase that acts as a key regulator of ciliogenesis: controls the initiation of ciliogenesis by binding to the distal end of the basal body and promoting the removal of CCP110, which caps the mother centriole, leading to the recruitment of IFT proteins, which build the ciliary axoneme. Has some substrate preference for proteins that are already phosphorylated on a Tyr residue at the +2 position relative to the phosphorylation site. Able to phosphorylate tau on serines in vitro. Phosphorylates MPHOSPH9 which promotes its ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation, loss of MPHOSPH9 facilitates the removal of the CP110-CEP97 complex (a negative regulator of ciliogenesis) from the mother centrioles, promoting the initiation of ciliogenesis.

Cytoplasmic protein that plays a role in the proper assembly of dynein arm complexes in motile cilia in both respiratory cells and sperm flagella.

Required for the preservation of the structural and functional integrity of mitochondrial respiratory complex III by allowing the physiological turnover of the Rieske protein UQCRFS1. Involved in the clearance of UQCRFS1 N-terminal fragments, which are produced upon incorporation of UQCRFS1 into the complex III and whose presence is detrimental for its catalytic activity.

During mitosis, may be involved in the condensation of spindle midzone microtubules, leading to the formation of midbody.

Axonemal protein which is implicated in axonemal and/or peri- axonemal structures assembly and regulates flagella assembly and beating and therefore sperm motility.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which catalyzes the formation of 'Lys-48'-polyubiquitin chains. Mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of phosphorylated Akt (AKT1, AKT2 and AKT3) in the nucleus. Acts as a terminal regulator of Akt signaling after activation; its phosphorylation by Akt, which is a prerequisite for ubiquitin ligase activity, suggests the existence of a regulation mechanism required to control Akt levels after activation. Positively regulates TGFB1-induced epithelial- mesenchymal transition and myofibroblast differentiation by mediating the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of SMURF2. Regulates neuronal differentiation by regulating actin remodeling and Golgi organization via a signaling cascade involving RHOA, CIT and ROCK. Inhibits cell proliferation.

May act as a co-chaperone for HSP90AB1. Promotes Sendai virus (SeV)-induced host cell innate immune responses.

Cofactor involved in the regulation of various cellular mechanisms such as actin regulation, autophagy, chromatin regulation and DNA repair. In non-stress conditions, interacts with cofactor JMY in the cytoplasm which prevents JMY's actin nucleation activity and ability to activate the Arp2/3 complex. Acts as a negative regulator of nutrient stress-induced autophagy by preventing JMY's interaction with MAP1LC3B, thereby preventing autophagosome formation (By similarity). Involves in tubulin autoregulation by promoting its degradation in response to excess soluble tubulin. To do so, associates with the active ribosome near the ribosome exit tunnel and with nascent tubulin polypeptides early during their translation, triggering tubulin mRNA- targeted degradation. Following DNA damage, phosphorylated by DNA damage responsive protein kinases ATM and CHEK2, leading to its nuclear accumulation and stability. Nuclear TTC5/STRAP promotes the assembly of a stress-responsive p53/TP53 coactivator complex, which includes the coactivators JMY and p300, thereby increasing p53/TP53-dependent transcription and apoptosis. Also recruits arginine methyltransferase PRMT5 to p53/TP53 when DNA is damaged, allowing PRMT5 to methylate p53/TP53. In DNA stress conditions, also prevents p53/TP53 degradation by E3 ubiquitin ligase MDM2 (By similarity). Upon heat-shock stress, forms a chromatin- associated complex with heat-shock factor 1 HSF1 and p300/EP300 to stimulate heat-shock-responsive transcription, thereby increasing cell survival. Mitochondrial TTC5/STRAP interacts with ATP synthase subunit beta ATP5F1B which decreased ATP synthase activity and lowers mitochondrial ATP production, thereby regulating cellular respiration and mitochondrial-dependent apoptosis. Mitochondrial TTC5/STRAP also regulates p53/TP53-mediated apoptosis (By similarity).

Component of a complex required to localize phosphatidylinositol 4-kinase (PI4K) to the plasma membrane. The complex acts as a regulator of phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns(4)P) synthesis (Probable). In the complex, plays a central role in bridging PI4KA to EFR3B and HYCC1, via direct interactions (By similarity).

Component of a complex required to localize phosphatidylinositol 4-kinase (PI4K) to the plasma membrane. The complex acts as a regulator of phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns(4)P) synthesis. In the complex, plays a central role in bridging PI4KA to EFR3B and HYCC1, via direct interactions.

Multifunctional nucleolar protein that terminates ribosomal gene transcription, mediates replication fork arrest and regulates RNA polymerase I transcription on chromatin. Plays a dual role in rDNA regulation, being involved in both activation and silencing of rDNA transcription. Interaction with BAZ2A/TIP5 recovers DNA-binding activity.

DsDNA-dependent ATPase which acts as a transcription termination factor by coupling ATP hydrolysis with removal of RNA polymerase II from the DNA template. May contribute to mitotic transcription repression. May also be involved in pre-mRNA splicing.

Thyroid hormone-binding protein. Probably transports thyroxine from the bloodstream to the brain.

Regulator of the DNA damage response (DDR). Part of the TTT complex that is required to stabilize protein levels of the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase-related protein kinase (PIKK) family proteins. The TTT complex is involved in the cellular resistance to DNA damage stresses, like ionizing radiation (IR), ultraviolet (UV) and mitomycin C (MMC). Together with the TTT complex and HSP90 may participate in the proper folding of newly synthesized PIKKs. Promotes assembly, stabilizes and maintains the activity of mTORC1 and mTORC2 complexes, which regulate cell growth and survival in response to nutrient and hormonal signals.

Regulator of the DNA damage response (DDR). Part of the TTT complex that is required to stabilize protein levels of the phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase-related protein kinase (PIKK) family proteins. The TTT complex is involved in the cellular resistance to DNA damage stresses, like ionizing radiation (IR), ultraviolet (UV) and mitomycin C (MMC). Together with the TTT complex and HSP90 may participate in the proper folding of newly synthesized PIKKs.

Phosphorylates proteins on serine, threonine, and tyrosine. Probably associated with cell proliferation. Phosphorylates MAD1L1 to promote mitotic checkpoint signaling. Essential for chromosome alignment by enhancing AURKB activity (via direct CDCA8 phosphorylation) at the centromere, and for the mitotic checkpoint.

Polyglutamylase which modifies tubulin, generating polyglutamate side chains of variable lengths on the gamma-carboxyl group of specific glutamate residues within the C-terminal tail of tubulin. Preferentially mediates ATP-dependent polyglutamate long side- chain elongation over the initiation step of the polyglutamylation reaction. Preferentially modifies the alpha-tubulin tail over a beta- tail (By similarity). Required for CCSAP localization to both spindle and cilia microtubules. Promotes tubulin polyglutamylation which stimulates spastin/SPAST-mediated microtubule severing, thereby regulating microtubule functions (By similarity).

Negatively regulates post-translational modifications of tubulin, including detyrosination of the C-terminus and polyglutamylation of glutamate residues. Also, indirectly promotes histone H4 trimethylation at 'Lys-20' (H4K20me3). Probably by controlling tubulin and/or histone H4 post-translational modifications, plays a role in mitosis and in maintaining chromosome number stability. During RNA virus-mediated infection, acts as a negative regulator of the RIG-I pathway by preventing MAVS binding to TBK1 and IKBKE.

Catalytic subunit of a polyglutamylase complex which modifies tubulin, generating side chains of glutamate on the gamma-carboxyl group of specific glutamate residues within the C-terminal tail of tubulin. Probably involved in the side-chain elongation step of the polyglutamylation reaction rather than the initiation step. Modifies both alpha- and beta-tubulins with a preference for the alpha-tail. Unlike most polyglutamylases of the tubulin--tyrosine ligase family, only displays a catalytic activity when in complex with other proteins as it is most likely lacking domains important for autonomous activity. Part of the neuronal tubulin polyglutamylase complex. Mediates cilia and flagella polyglutamylation which is essential for their biogenesis and motility. Involved in respiratory motile cilia function through the regulation of beating asymmetry. Essential for sperm flagella biogenesis, motility and male fertility. Involved in KLF4 glutamylation which impedes its ubiquitination, thereby leading to somatic cell reprogramming, pluripotency maintenance and embryogenesis.

Probable tubulin polyglutamylase that generates side chains of glutamate on the gamma-carboxyl group of specific glutamate residues within the C-terminal tail of target proteins (By similarity). Similar to TTLL1, may acquire enzymatic activity only in complex with other proteins as it is most likely lacking domains important for autonomous activity (By similarity). Probably involved in the side-chain initiation step of the polyglutamylation reaction rather than the elongation step (By similarity).

Monoglutamylase which modifies both tubulin and non-tubulin proteins, adding a single glutamate on the gamma-carboxyl group of specific glutamate residues of target proteins. Involved in the side- chain initiation step of the polyglutamylation reaction but not in the elongation step. Preferentially modifies beta-tail tubulin over the alpha-tubulin. Monoglutamylates nucleosome assembly proteins NAP1L1 and NAP1L4. Monoglutamylates nucleotidyltransferase CGAS, leading to inhibition of CGAS catalytic activity, thereby preventing antiviral defense function. Involved in KLF4 glutamylation which impedes its ubiquitination, thereby leading to somatic cell reprogramming, pluripotency maintenance and embryogenesis.

Polyglutamylase which modifies tubulin, generating polyglutamate side chains on the gamma-carboxyl group of specific glutamate residues within the C-terminal tail of tubulin. Preferentially mediates ATP-dependent initiation step of the polyglutamylation reaction over the elongation step. Preferentially modifies the alpha-tubulin tail over a beta-tail (By similarity). Required for CCSAP localization to both polyglutamylated spindle and cilia microtubules. Increases the effects of transcriptional coactivator NCOA2/TIF2 in glucocorticoid receptor- mediated repression and induction and in androgen receptor-mediated induction.

Polyglutamylase which modifies both tubulin and non-tubulin proteins, generating alpha-linked polyglutamate side chains on the gamma-carboxyl group of specific glutamate residues of target proteins. Preferentially mediates ATP-dependent long polyglutamate chain elongation over the initiation step of the polyglutamylation reaction. Preferentially modifies the alpha-tubulin tail over a beta-tail. Promotes tubulin polyglutamylation which stimulates spastin/SPAST- mediated microtubule severing, thereby regulating microtubule functions. Mediates microtubule polyglutamylation in primary cilia axoneme, which is important for ciliary structural formation and motility. Mediates microtubule polyglutamylation in motile cilia, necessary for the regulation of ciliary coordinated beating. Polyglutamylates non-tubulin protein nucleotidyltransferase CGAS, leading to CGAS DNA-binding inhibition, thereby preventing antiviral defense response.

Polyglutamylase which modifies tubulin, generating polyglutamate side chains of variable lengths on the gamma-carboxyl group of specific glutamate residues within the C-terminal tail of tubulin. Mediates both ATP-dependent initiation and elongation steps of the polyglutamylation reaction. Preferentially modifies the beta- tubulin tail over an alpha-tail. Competes with monoglycylase TTLL3 for modification site on beta-tubulin substrate, thereby creating an anticorrelation between glycylation and glutamylation reactions (By similarity). Required for neurite growth; responsible for the strong increase in tubulin polyglutamylation during postnatal neuronal maturation (By similarity).

Probable tubulin polyglutamylase that generates side chains of glutamate on the gamma-carboxyl group of specific glutamate residues within the C-terminal tail of target proteins. Similar to TTLL1, may acquire enzymatic activity only in complex with other proteins as it is most likely lacking domains important for autonomous activity. Mediates tubulin polyglutamylation which induces establishment of microtubule heterogeneity in sperm flagella, thereby playing a role in normal motile flagella axoneme structure and sperm flagella beating pattern.

Catalyzes the post-translational addition of a tyrosine to the C-terminal end of detyrosinated alpha-tubulin.

Binds alpha-tocopherol, enhances its transfer between separate membranes, and stimulates its release from liver cells. Binds both phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate and phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate; the resulting conformation change is important for the release of the bound alpha-tocopherol (By similarity).

Zinc-finger RNA-binding protein that destabilizes several cytoplasmic AU-rich element (ARE)-containing mRNA transcripts by promoting their poly(A) tail removal or deadenylation, and hence provide a mechanism for attenuating protein synthesis. Acts as an 3'-untranslated region (UTR) ARE mRNA-binding adapter protein to communicate signaling events to the mRNA decay machinery. Recruits deadenylase CNOT7 (and probably the CCR4-NOT complex) via association with CNOT1, and hence promotes ARE-mediated mRNA deadenylation. Functions also by recruiting components of the cytoplasmic RNA decay machinery to the bound ARE-containing mRNAs. Self regulates by destabilizing its own mRNA. Binds to 3'-UTR ARE of numerous mRNAs and of its own mRNA. Plays a role in anti-inflammatory responses; suppresses tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha production by stimulating ARE-mediated TNF-alpha mRNA decay and several other inflammatory ARE- containing mRNAs in interferon (IFN)- and/or lipopolysaccharide (LPS)- induced macrophages (By similarity). Also plays a role in the regulation of dendritic cell maturation at the post-transcriptional level, and hence operates as part of a negative feedback loop to limit the inflammatory response. Promotes ARE-mediated mRNA decay of hypoxia-inducible factor HIF1A mRNA during the response of endothelial cells to hypoxia. Positively regulates early adipogenesis of preadipocytes by promoting ARE-mediated mRNA decay of immediate early genes (IEGs) (By similarity). Negatively regulates hematopoietic/erythroid cell differentiation by promoting ARE-mediated mRNA decay of the transcription factor STAT5B mRNA. Plays a role in maintaining skeletal muscle satellite cell quiescence by promoting ARE-mediated mRNA decay of the myogenic determination factor MYOD1 mRNA (By similarity). Associates also with and regulates the expression of non-ARE-containing target mRNAs at the post-transcriptional level, such as MHC class I mRNAs. Participates in association with argonaute RISC catalytic components in the ARE-mediated mRNA decay mechanism; assists microRNA (miRNA) targeting ARE-containing mRNAs. May also play a role in the regulation of cytoplasmic mRNA decapping; enhances decapping of ARE-containing RNAs, in vitro. Involved in the delivery of target ARE-mRNAs to processing bodies (PBs). In addition to its cytosolic mRNA-decay function, affects nuclear pre-mRNA processing (By similarity). Negatively regulates nuclear poly(A)-binding protein PABPN1-stimulated polyadenylation activity on ARE-containing pre-mRNA during LPS- stimulated macrophages (By similarity). Also involved in the regulation of stress granule (SG) and P-body (PB) formation and fusion (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of keratinocyte proliferation, differentiation and apoptosis. Plays a role as a tumor suppressor by inhibiting cell proliferation in breast cancer cells.

Probable chloride channel. May be involved in cell adhesion (By similarity).

Probable large-conductance Ca(2+)-activated chloride channel. May play a role in Ca(2+) signal transduction. May be involved in cell proliferation and cell aggregation.

Probable large-conductance Ca(2+)-activated chloride channel. May play a role in Ca(2+) signal transduction.

Functions in signal transduction from heterotrimeric G protein-coupled receptors. Binds to membranes containing phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate. Can bind DNA (in vitro). May contribute to the regulation of transcription in the nucleus. Could be involved in the hypothalamic regulation of body weight (By similarity). Contribute to stimulation of phagocytosis of apoptotic retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) cells and macrophages.

Involved in the mineralization and structural organization of enamel.

Required for normal development of photoreceptor synapses. Required for normal photoreceptor function and for long-term survival of photoreceptor cells. Interacts with cytoskeleton proteins and may play a role in protein transport in photoreceptor cells (By similarity). Binds lipids, especially phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate, phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate, phosphatidylinositol 5-phosphate, phosphatidylinositol 3,4-bisphosphate, phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate, phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-bisphosphate, phosphatidylserine and phosphatidic acid (in vitro). Contribute to stimulation of phagocytosis of apoptotic retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) cells and macrophages.

Negative regulator of the Shh signaling transduction pathway: recruited to primary cilia via association with the IFT complex A (IFT- A) and is required for recruitment of G protein-coupled receptor GPR161 to cilia, a promoter of PKA-dependent basal repression machinery in Shh signaling. Binds to phosphorylated inositide (phosphoinositide) lipids. Both IFT-A- and phosphoinositide-binding properties are required to regulate ciliary G protein-coupled receptor trafficking. Not involved in ciliogenesis. During adipogenesis, regulates ciliary trafficking of FFAR4 in preadipocytes.

May function as a tumor suppressor, inhibiting colony formation, causing G1 arrest and ultimately inducing apoptosis in homozygous 3p21.3 120-kb region-deficient cells

Acts as accessory component of the N-oligosaccharyl transferase (OST) complex which catalyzes the transfer of a high mannose oligosaccharide from a lipid-linked oligosaccharide donor to an asparagine residue within an Asn-X-Ser/Thr consensus motif in nascent polypeptide chains. Involved in N-glycosylation of STT3B-dependent substrates. Specifically required for the glycosylation of a subset of acceptor sites that are near cysteine residues; in this function seems to act redundantly with MAGT1. In its oxidized form proposed to form transient mixed disulfides with a glycoprotein substrate to facilitate access of STT3B to the unmodified acceptor site. Has also oxidoreductase-independent functions in the STT3B-containing OST complex possibly involving substrate recognition.

Uridylyltransferase that mediates the terminal uridylation of mRNAs with short (less than 25 nucleotides) poly(A) tails, hence facilitating global mRNA decay. Essential for both oocyte maturation and fertility. Through 3' terminal uridylation of mRNA, sculpts, with TUT7, the maternal transcriptome by eliminating transcripts during oocyte growth (By similarity). Involved in microRNA (miRNA)-induced gene silencing through uridylation of deadenylated miRNA targets. Also functions as an integral regulator of microRNA biogenesiS using 3 different uridylation mechanisms. Acts as a suppressor of miRNA biogenesis by mediating the terminal uridylation of some miRNA precursors, including that of let-7 (pre-let-7). Uridylated pre-let-7 RNA is not processed by Dicer and undergo degradation. Pre-let-7 uridylation is strongly enhanced in the presence of LIN28A. In the absence of LIN28A, TUT7 and TUT4 monouridylate group II pre-miRNAs, which includes most of pre-let7 members, that shapes an optimal 3' end overhang for efficient processing. Add oligo-U tails to truncated pre-miRNAS with a 5' overhang which may promote rapid degradation of non-functional pre-miRNA species. Does not play a role in replication-dependent histone mRNA degradation. Due to functional redundancy between TUT4 and TUT7, the identification of the specific role of each of these proteins is difficult. TUT4 and TUT7 restrict retrotransposition of long interspersed element-1 (LINE-1) in cooperation with MOV10 counteracting the RNA chaperonne activity of L1RE1. TUT7 uridylates LINE-1 mRNAs in the cytoplasm which inhibits initiation of reverse transcription once in the nucleus, whereas uridylation by TUT4 destabilizes mRNAs in cytoplasmic ribonucleoprotein granules.

Transmembrane protein which is abundantly expressed in interneurons, where it may regulate inhibitory synapse development. May mediate homophilic cell adhesion.

Actin-binding protein involved in motile and morphological processes. Inhibits actin polymerization, likely by sequestering G- actin. By capping the barbed ends of filaments, it also regulates motility. Seems to play an important role in clathrin-mediated endocytosis and distribution of endocytic organelles (By similarity).

Actin-binding protein involved in motile and morphological processes. Inhibits actin polymerization, likely by sequestering G- actin. By capping the barbed ends of filaments, it also regulates motility. Seems to play an important role in clathrin-mediated endocytosis and distribution of endocytic organelles. May play a role in regulating the mature length of the middle and short rows of stereocilia (By similarity).

May be involved in dorsoventral axis formation. Seems to antagonize BMP signaling by forming ternary complexes with CHRD and BMPs, thereby preventing BMPs from binding to their receptors. In addition to the anti-BMP function, also has pro-BMP activity, partly mediated by cleavage and degradation of CHRD, which releases BMPs from ternary complexes. May be an important modulator of BMP-regulated cartilage development and chondrocyte differentiation. May play a role in thymocyte development (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional regulator. Inhibits myogenesis by sequestrating E proteins, inhibiting trans-activation by MEF2, and inhibiting DNA-binding by MYOD1 through physical interaction. This interaction probably involves the basic domains of both proteins. Also represses expression of pro-inflammatory cytokines such as TNFA and IL1B. Regulates cranial suture patterning and fusion. Activates transcription as a heterodimer with E proteins. Regulates gene expression differentially, depending on dimer composition. Homodimers induce expression of FGFR2 and POSTN while heterodimers repress FGFR2 and POSTN expression and induce THBS1 expression. Heterodimerization is also required for osteoblast differentiation. Represses the activity of the circadian transcriptional activator: NPAS2-BMAL1 heterodimer (By similarity).

Binds to the E-box consensus sequence 5'-CANNTG-3' as a heterodimer and inhibits transcriptional activation by MYOD1, MYOG, MEF2A and MEF2C. Also represses expression of pro-inflammatory cytokines such as TNFA and IL1B. Involved in postnatal glycogen storage and energy metabolism (By similarity). Inhibits the premature or ectopic differentiation of preosteoblast cells during osteogenesis, possibly by changing the internal signal transduction response of osteoblasts to external growth factors.

Plays a role in fertilization by controlling binding of sperm to zona pellucida and migration of spermatozoa into the oviduct (By similarity). May play a role in signal transduction and promote protein tyrosine phosphorylation (By similarity).

May regulate a number of protein-protein interactions by competing for PDZ domain binding sites. Binds CTNNB1 and may thereby act as an inhibitor of the Wnt signaling pathway. Competes with LIN7A for KCNJ4 binding, and thereby promotes KCNJ4 internalization. May play a role in the Rho signaling pathway. May play a role in activation of CDC42 by the viral protein HPV16 E6.

Major reticulophagy (also called ER-phagy) receptor that acts independently of other candidate reticulophagy receptors to remodel subdomains of the endoplasmic reticulum into autophagosomes upon nutrient stress, which then fuse with lysosomes for endoplasmic reticulum turnover. The ATG8- containing isolation membrane (IM) cradles a tubular segment of TEX264- positive ER near a three-way junction, allowing the formation of a synapse of 2 juxtaposed membranes with trans interaction between the TEX264 and ATG8 proteins. Expansion of the IM would extend the capture of ER, possibly through a 'zipper-like' process involving continued trans TEX264-ATG8 interactions, until poorly understood mechanisms lead to the fission of relevant membranes and, ultimately, autophagosomal membrane closure. Also involved in the repair of covalent DNA-protein cross-links (DPCs) during DNA synthesis: acts by bridging VCP/p97 to covalent DNA-protein cross-links (DPCs) and initiating resolution of DPCs by SPRTN.

May act as a redox regulator involved in DUOX proteins folding. The interaction with DUOX1 and DUOX2 suggest that it belongs to a multiprotein complex constituting the thyroid H(2)O(2) generating system. It is however not sufficient to assist DUOX1 and DUOX2 in H(2)O(2) generation

Protein-disulfide reductase of the endoplasmic reticulum that promotes disulfide bond formation in client proteins through its thiol- disulfide oxidase activity.

Acts as a positive regulator of ciliary hedgehog signaling (By similarity). Involved in ciliogenesis.

Disulfide reductase. May participate in various redox reactions through the reversible oxidation of its active center dithiol to a disulfide and catalyze dithiol-disulfide exchange reactions. Modulates TNF-alpha signaling and NF-kappa-B activation. Has peroxidase activity and may contribute to the elimination of cellular hydrogen peroxide.

Non-receptor tyrosine kinase that plays a redundant role with ITK in regulation of the adaptive immune response. Regulates the development, function and differentiation of conventional T-cells and nonconventional NKT-cells. When antigen presenting cells (APC) activate T-cell receptor (TCR), a series of phosphorylation leads to the recruitment of TXK to the cell membrane, where it is phosphorylated at Tyr-420. Phosphorylation leads to TXK full activation. Contributes also to signaling from many receptors and participates in multiple downstream pathways, including regulation of the actin cytoskeleton. Like ITK, can phosphorylate PLCG1, leading to its localization in lipid rafts and activation, followed by subsequent cleavage of its substrates. In turn, the endoplasmic reticulum releases calcium in the cytoplasm and the nuclear activator of activated T-cells (NFAT) translocates into the nucleus to perform its transcriptional duty. Plays a role in the positive regulation of IFNG transcription in T- helper 1 cells as part of an IFNG promoter-binding complex with PARP1 and EEF1A1. Within the complex, phosphorylates both PARP1 and EEF1A1. Phosphorylates also key sites in LCP2 leading to the up-regulation of Th1 preferred cytokine IL-2. Phosphorylates 'Tyr-201' of CTLA4 which leads to the association of PI-3 kinase with the CTLA4 receptor.

May be involved in intracellular vesicle traffic and potentially in calcium-dependent exocytosis in neuroendocrine cells

Promotes motor nerve regeneration (By similarity). May be involved in intracellular vesicle traffic.

May be involved in intracellular vesicle traffic. Inhibits ATF4-mediated transcription, possibly by dimerizing with ATF4 to form inactive dimers that cannot bind DNA. May be involved in regulating bone mass density through an ATF4-dependent pathway. May be involved in cell cycle progression.

Plays role in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the U5 snRNP and U4/U6-U5 tri-snRNP complexes that are involved in spliceosome assembly, and as component of the precatalytic spliceosome (spliceosome B complex).

Essential role in pre-mRNA splicing. Required in cell cycle progression for S/G(2) transition.

Probably plays a regulatory role in sperm development. May participate in regulation of fibrous sheath (FS) assembly by supporting the formation of disulfide bonds during sperm tail morphogenesis. May also be required to rectify incorrect disulfide pairing and generate suitable pairs between the FS constituents. Can reduce disulfide bonds in vitro in the presence of NADP and thioredoxin reductase

Probably required during the final stages of sperm tail maturation in the testis and/or epididymis, where extensive disulfide bonding of fibrous sheath (FS) proteins occurs. May be involved in the reduction of disulfide bonds within the sperm FS components. In vitro, it has neither NDP kinase nor reducing activity on disulfide bonds

Protein disulfide isomerase of the endoplasmic reticulum lumen involved in the formation of disulfide bonds in proteins. Can reduce insulin disulfide bonds.

Significantly diminishes the chaperonin TCP1 complex ATPase activity, thus negatively impacts protein folding, including that of actin or tubulin.

May act as an oxidative stress mediator by inhibiting thioredoxin activity or by limiting its bioavailability. Interacts with COPS5 and restores COPS5-induced suppression of CDKN1B stability, blocking the COPS5-mediated translocation of CDKN1B from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. Functions as a transcriptional repressor, possibly by acting as a bridge molecule between transcription factors and corepressor complexes, and over-expression will induce G0/G1 cell cycle arrest. Required for the maturation of natural killer cells. Acts as a suppressor of tumor cell growth. Inhibits the proteasomal degradation of DDIT4, and thereby contributes to the inhibition of the mammalian target of rapamycin complex 1 (mTORC1).

Mitochondrial electroneutral antiporter that exports citrate from the mitochondria into the cytosol in exchange for malate. Also able to mediate the exchange of citrate for isocitrate, phosphoenolpyruvate, cis-aconitate and to a lesser extend cis-aconitate, maleate and succinate. In the cytoplasm citrate is important in the regulation of glycolysis through a feedback mechanism and in the production of acetyl-CoA which is needed for the synthesis of fatty acids, sterols, prostaglandins, dolichol and coenzyme Q (CoQ). Required for proper neuromuscular junction formation (Probable).

Catalyzes the conversion of L-tyrosine to L- dihydroxyphenylalanine (L-Dopa), the rate-limiting step in the biosynthesis of cathecolamines, dopamine, noradrenaline, and adrenaline. Uses tetrahydrobiopterin and molecular oxygen to convert tyrosine to L-Dopa (PubMed:17391063, PubMed:1680128, PubMed:15287903, PubMed:8528210, Ref.18, PubMed:34922205, PubMed:24753243). In addition to tyrosine, is able to catalyze the hydroxylation of phenylalanine and tryptophan with lower specificity (By similarity). Positively regulates the regression of retinal hyaloid vessels during postnatal development (By similarity).

Plays an important role in the organization of the cytoskeleton. Binds to and sequesters actin monomers (G actin) and therefore inhibits actin polymerization.

DNA repair enzyme that can remove a variety of covalent adducts from DNA through hydrolysis of a 3'-phosphodiester bond, giving rise to DNA with a free 3' phosphate. Catalyzes the hydrolysis of dead- end complexes between DNA and the topoisomerase I active site tyrosine residue. Hydrolyzes 3'-phosphoglycolates on protruding 3' ends on DNA double-strand breaks due to DNA damage by radiation and free radicals. Acts on blunt-ended double-strand DNA breaks and on single-stranded DNA. Has low 3'exonuclease activity and can remove a single nucleoside from the 3'end of DNA and RNA molecules with 3'hydroxyl groups. Has no exonuclease activity towards DNA or RNA with a 3'phosphate.

DNA repair enzyme that can remove a variety of covalent adducts from DNA through hydrolysis of a 5'-phosphodiester bond, giving rise to DNA with a free 5' phosphate. Catalyzes the hydrolysis of dead- end complexes between DNA and the topoisomerase 2 (TOP2) active site tyrosine residue. The 5'-tyrosyl DNA phosphodiesterase activity can enable the repair of TOP2-induced DNA double-strand breaks/DSBs without the need for nuclease activity, creating a 'clean' DSB with 5'- phosphate termini that are ready for ligation. Thereby, protects the transcription of many genes involved in neurological development and maintenance from the abortive activity of TOP2. Hydrolyzes 5'-phosphoglycolates on protruding 5' ends on DSBs due to DNA damage by radiation and free radicals. Has preference for single-stranded DNA or duplex DNA with a 4 base pair overhang as substrate. Acts as a regulator of ribosome biogenesis following stress. Has also 3'-tyrosyl DNA phosphodiesterase activity, but less efficiently and much slower than TDP1. Constitutes the major if not only 5'-tyrosyl-DNA phosphodiesterase in cells. Also acts as an adapter by participating in the specific activation of MAP3K7/TAK1 in response to TGF-beta: associates with components of the TGF-beta receptor-TRAF6-TAK1 signaling module and promotes their ubiquitination dependent complex formation. Involved in non-canonical TGF-beta induced signaling routes. May also act as a negative regulator of ETS1 and may inhibit NF-kappa-B activation.

Tyrosine kinase of the non-receptor type involved in numerous cytokines and interferons signaling, which regulates cell growth, development, cell migration, innate and adaptive immunity. Plays both structural and catalytic roles in numerous interleukins and interferons (IFN-alpha/beta) signaling. Associates with heterodimeric cytokine receptor complexes and activates STAT family members including STAT1, STAT3, STAT4 or STAT6. The heterodimeric cytokine receptor complexes are composed of (1) a TYK2-associated receptor chain (IFNAR1, IL12RB1, IL10RB or IL13RA1), and (2) a second receptor chain associated either with JAK1 or JAK2. In response to cytokine-binding to receptors, phosphorylates and activates receptors (IFNAR1, IL12RB1, IL10RB or IL13RA1), creating docking sites for STAT members. In turn, recruited STATs are phosphorylated by TYK2 (or JAK1/JAK2 on the second receptor chain), form homo- and heterodimers, translocate to the nucleus, and regulate cytokine/growth factor responsive genes. Negatively regulates STAT3 activity by promototing phosphorylation at a specific tyrosine that differs from the site used for signaling.

Adapter protein which non-covalently associates with activating receptors found on the surface of a variety of immune cells to mediate signaling and cell activation following ligand binding by the receptors. TYROBP is tyrosine-phosphorylated in the ITAM domain following ligand binding by the associated receptors which leads to activation of additional tyrosine kinases and subsequent cell activation. Also has an inhibitory role in some cells. Non-covalently associates with activating receptors of the CD300 family to mediate cell activation (PubMed:15557162, PubMed:16920917, PubMed:17928527; PubMed:26221034). Also mediates cell activation through association with activating receptors of the CD200R family (By similarity). Required for neutrophil activation mediated by integrin (By similarity). Required for the activation of myeloid cells mediated by the CLEC5A/MDL1 receptor. Associates with natural killer (NK) cell receptors such as KIR2DS2 and the KLRD1/KLRC2 heterodimer to mediate NK cell activation. Also enhances trafficking and cell surface expression of NK cell receptors KIR2DS1, KIR2DS2 and KIR2DS4 and ensures their stability at the cell surface. Associates with SIRPB1 to mediate activation of myeloid cells such as monocytes and dendritic cells. Associates with TREM1 to mediate activation of neutrophils and monocytes. Associates with TREM2 on monocyte-derived dendritic cells to mediate up-regulation of chemokine receptor CCR7 and dendritic cell maturation and survival. Association with TREM2 mediates cytokine-induced formation of multinucleated giant cells which are formed by the fusion of macrophages. Stabilizes the TREM2 C-terminal fragment (TREM2-CTF) produced by TREM2 ectodomain shedding which suppresses the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines. In microglia, required with TREM2 for phagocytosis of apoptotic neurons (By similarity). Required with ITGAM/CD11B in microglia to control production of microglial superoxide ions which promote the neuronal apoptosis that occurs during brain development (By similarity). Promotes pro-inflammatory responses in microglia following nerve injury which accelerates degeneration of injured neurons (By similarity). Positively regulates the expression of the IRAK3/IRAK-M kinase and IL10 production by liver dendritic cells and inhibits their T cell allostimulatory ability (By similarity). Negatively regulates B cell proliferation. Required for CSF1-mediated osteoclast cytoskeletal organization (By similarity). Positively regulates multinucleation during osteoclast development (By similarity).

May have a role in maintaining the integrity of the blood vessels. Has growth promoting activity on endothelial cells, angiogenic activity in vivo and chemotactic activity on endothelial cells in vitro.

Receptor tyrosine kinase that transduces signals from the extracellular matrix into the cytoplasm by binding to several ligands including TULP1 or GAS6. Regulates many physiological processes including cell survival, migration and differentiation. Ligand binding at the cell surface induces dimerization and autophosphorylation of TYRO3 on its intracellular domain that provides docking sites for downstream signaling molecules. Following activation by ligand, interacts with PIK3R1 and thereby enhances PI3-kinase activity. Activates the AKT survival pathway, including nuclear translocation of NF-kappa-B and up-regulation of transcription of NF-kappa-B-regulated genes. TYRO3 signaling plays a role in various processes such as neuron protection from excitotoxic injury, platelet aggregation and cytoskeleton reorganization. Also plays an important role in inhibition of Toll-like receptors (TLRs)-mediated innate immune response by activating STAT1, which selectively induces production of suppressors of cytokine signaling SOCS1 and SOCS3.

This is a copper-containing oxidase that functions in the formation of pigments such as melanins and other polyphenolic compounds. Catalyzes the initial and rate limiting step in the cascade of reactions leading to melanin production from tyrosine (By similarity). In addition to hydroxylating tyrosine to DOPA (3,4- dihydroxyphenylalanine), also catalyzes the oxidation of DOPA to DOPA- quinone, and possibly the oxidation of DHI (5,6-dihydroxyindole) to indole-5,6 quinone.

Plays a role in melanin biosynthesis. Catalyzes the oxidation of 5,6- dihydroxyindole-2-carboxylic acid (DHICA) into indole-5,6-quinone-2- carboxylic acid in the presence of bound Cu(2+) ions, but not in the presence of Zn(2+). May regulate or influence the type of melanin synthesized. Also to a lower extent, capable of hydroxylating tyrosine and producing melanin (By similarity).

Plays a role in melanin biosynthesis. Catalyzes the conversion of L-dopachrome into 5,6-dihydroxyindole-2- carboxylic acid (DHICA).

Peroxisomal protease that mediates both the removal of the leader peptide from proteins containing a PTS2 target sequence and processes several PTS1-containing proteins. Catalyzes the processing of PTS1-proteins involved in the peroxisomal beta-oxidation of fatty acids.

Catalyzes the reductive methylation of 2'-deoxyuridine 5'- monophosphate (dUMP) to thymidine 5'-monophosphate (dTMP), using the cosubstrate, 5,10- methylenetetrahydrofolate (CH2H4folate) as a 1- carbon donor and reductant and contributes to the de novo mitochondrial thymidylate biosynthesis pathway.

Probable component of the wybutosine biosynthesis pathway. Wybutosine is a hyper modified guanosine with a tricyclic base found at the 3'-position adjacent to the anticodon of eukaryotic phenylalanine tRNA. Catalyzes the condensation of N-methylguanine with 2 carbon atoms from pyruvate to form the tricyclic 4-demethylwyosine, an intermediate in wybutosine biosynthesis (By similarity).

S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent transferase that acts as a component of the wybutosine biosynthesis pathway. Wybutosine is a hyper modified guanosine with a tricyclic base found at the 3'-position adjacent to the anticodon of eukaryotic phenylalanine tRNA. Catalyzes the transfer of the alpha-amino-alpha-carboxypropyl (acp) group from S- adenosyl-L-methionine to the C-7 position of 4-demethylwyosine (imG-14) to produce wybutosine-86.

Probable S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that acts as a component of the wybutosine biosynthesis pathway. Wybutosine is a hyper modified guanosine with a tricyclic base found at the 3'-position adjacent to the anticodon of eukaryotic phenylalanine tRNA (By similarity).

Probable S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that acts as a component of the wybutosine biosynthesis pathway. Wybutosine is a hyper modified guanosine with a tricyclic base found at the 3'-position adjacent to the anticodon of eukaryotic phenylalanine tRNA (By similarity). May methylate the carboxyl group of leucine residues to form alpha-leucine ester residues.

tRNA hydroxylase that acts as a component of the wybutosine biosynthesis pathway. Wybutosine is a hyper modified guanosine with a tricyclic base found at the 3'-position adjacent to the anticodon of eukaryotic phenylalanine tRNA. Catalyzes the hydroxylation of 7-(a- amino-a-carboxypropyl)wyosine (yW-72) into undermodified hydroxywybutosine (OHyW*). OHyW* being further transformed into hydroxywybutosine (OHyW) by LCMT2/TYW4. OHyW is a derivative of wybutosine found in higher eukaryotes.

Multifunctional transcription factor that exhibits positive and negative control on a large number of cellular and viral genes by binding to sites overlapping the transcription start site. Binds to the consensus sequence 5'-CCGCCATNTT-3'; some genes have been shown to contain a longer binding motif allowing enhanced binding; the initial CG dinucleotide can be methylated greatly reducing the binding affinity. The effect on transcription regulation is depending upon the context in which it binds and diverse mechanisms of action include direct activation or repression, indirect activation or repression via cofactor recruitment, or activation or repression by disruption of binding sites or conformational DNA changes. Its activity is regulated by transcription factors and cytoplasmic proteins that have been shown to abrogate or completely inhibit YY1- mediated activation or repression. For example, it acts as a repressor in absence of adenovirus E1A protein but as an activator in its presence. Acts synergistically with the SMAD1 and SMAD4 in bone morphogenetic protein (BMP)-mediated cardiac-specific gene expression. Binds to SMAD binding elements (SBEs) (5'-GTCT/AGAC-3') within BMP response element (BMPRE) of cardiac activating regions. May play an important role in development and differentiation. Proposed to recruit the PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex to target genes that are transcriptional repressed. Involved in DNA repair. In vitro, binds to DNA recombination intermediate structures (Holliday junctions). Plays a role in regulating enhancer activation.

Functions as a multifunctional transcription factor that may exhibit positive and negative control on a large number of genes. May antagonize YY1 and function in development and differentiation.

Telomere-binding protein that acts as a regulator of telomere length. Directly binds the telomeric double-stranded 5'-TTAGGG-3' repeat. Preferentially binds to telomeres that have a low concentration of shelterin complex and acts as a regulator of telomere length by initiating telomere trimming, a process that prevents the accumulation of aberrantly long telomeres. Also acts as a transcription regulator that binds to promoter regions. Regulates expression of a small subset of genes, including MTFP1. Regulates expression the J and/or S elements in MHC II promoter. Acts as a negative regulator of cell proliferation by specifically activating expression of ARF, a tumor suppressor isoform of CDKN2A.

Involved in synaptic functions in photoreceptor cells, the signal transduction in immune cells as a Src family kinase activator, endosome recycling, the uptake of bacteria and endocytosis, protein trafficking in sensory neurons and as lipid-binding chaperone with specificity for a diverse subset of myristoylated proteins. Specifically binds the myristoyl moiety of a subset of N-terminally myristoylated proteins and is required for their localization. Binds myristoylated GNAT1 and is required for G-protein localization and trafficking in sensory neurons. Probably plays a role in trafficking proteins in photoreceptor cells. Plays important roles in mediating Src family kinase signals for the completion of cytokinesis via RAB11A.

Myristoyl-binding protein that acts as a cargo adapter: specifically binds the myristoyl moiety of a subset of N-terminally myristoylated proteins and is required for their localization. Binds myristoylated NPHP3 and plays a key role in localization of NPHP3 to the primary cilium membrane. Does not bind all myristoylated proteins. Probably plays a role in trafficking proteins in photoreceptor cells.

Deubiquitinating enzyme that removes conjugated ubiquitin from specific proteins to regulate different cellular processes that may include cell proliferation, progression through the cell cycle, apoptosis, cell migration, and the cellular response to viral infection.

Deubiquitinating enzyme that removes conjugated ubiquitin from specific proteins to regulate different cellular processes. Regulates cell proliferation by deubiquitinating and inhibiting RCE1 thereby controlling the small GTPases NRAS and HRAS localization and activation. In parallel, mediates deubiquitination of CDC25A, preventing CDC25A degradation by the proteasome during the G1/S and G2/M phases promoting cell-cycle progression. Also regulates cell proliferation and apoptosis through deubiquitination of SUDS3 a regulator of histone deacetylation. Through activation of the Rho family GTPases RAC1A, CDC42 and RHOA, regulates cell migration. Through the cleavage of 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains of the cytoplasmic innate immune receptors RIGI and IFIH1 stimulates the cellular response to viral infection.

Plays a critical role in both constitutive and enhancer- dependent splicing by mediating protein-protein interactions and protein-RNA interactions required for accurate 3'-splice site selection. Recruits U2 snRNP to the branch point. Directly mediates interactions between U2AF2 and proteins bound to the enhancers and thus may function as a bridge between U2AF2 and the enhancer complex to recruit it to the adjacent intron.

Plays a role in pre-mRNA splicing and 3'-end processing. By recruiting PRPF19 and the PRP19C/Prp19 complex/NTC/Nineteen complex to the RNA polymerase II C-terminal domain (CTD), and thereby pre-mRNA, may couple transcription to splicing. Induces cardiac troponin-T (TNNT2) pre-mRNA exon inclusion in muscle. Regulates the TNNT2 exon 5 inclusion through competition with MBNL1. Binds preferentially to a single-stranded structure within the polypyrimidine tract of TNNT2 intron 4 during spliceosome assembly. Required for the export of mRNA out of the nucleus, even if the mRNA is encoded by an intron-less gene. Represses the splicing of MAPT/Tau exon 10. Positively regulates pre-mRNA 3'-end processing by recruiting the CFIm complex to cleavage and polyadenylation signals.

RNA-binding protein that function as a pre-mRNA splicing factor. Plays a critical role in both constitutive and enhancer- dependent splicing by mediating protein-protein interactions and protein-RNA interactions required for accurate 3'-splice site selection. Acts by enhancing the binding of U2AF2 to weak pyrimidine tracts. Also participates in the regulation of alternative pre-mRNA splicing. Activates exon 5 skipping of PTPRC during T-cell activation; an event reversed by GFI1. Binds to RNA at the AG dinucleotide at the 3'-splice site (By similarity). Shows a preference for AGC or AGA (By similarity).

Pre-mRNA-binding protein required for splicing of both U2- and U12-type introns. Selectively interacts with the 3'-splice site of U2- and U12-type pre-mRNAs and promotes different steps in U2 and U12 intron splicing. Recruited to U12 pre-mRNAs in an ATP-dependent manner and is required for assembly of the prespliceosome, a precursor to other spliceosomal complexes. For U2-type introns, it is selectively and specifically required for the second step of splicing.

Probable E2 ubiquitin-protein ligase that catalyzes the covalent attachment of ubiquitin to target proteins. May facilitate the monoubiquitination and degradation of MTOR and CCNE1 through interaction with FBXW7.

Component of a nucleolar small nuclear ribonucleoprotein particle (snoRNP) thought to participate in the processing and modification of pre-ribosomal RNA (pre-rRNA).

Catalyzes the ATP-dependent unwinding of U4/U6 RNA duplices, an essential step in the assembly of a catalytically active spliceosome. Plays a role in pre-mRNA splicing as a core component of precatalytic, catalytic and postcatalytic spliceosomal complexes. Involved in spliceosome assembly, activation and disassembly. Mediates changes in the dynamic network of RNA-RNA interactions in the spliceosome.

Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome, including pre-catalytic, catalytic and post-catalytic spliceosomal complexes. Component of the U5 snRNP and the U4/U6-U5 tri-snRNP complex, a building block of the spliceosome.

Regulates APAF1 expression and plays an important role in the regulation of stress-induced apoptosis. Promotes apoptosis by regulating three pathways, apoptosome up-regulation, LGALS3/galectin-3 down-regulation and NF-kappa-B inactivation. Regulates the redistribution of APAF1 into the nucleus after proapoptotic stress. Down-regulates the expression of LGALS3 by inhibiting NFKB1 (By similarity).

Converts UTP and GlcNAc-1-P into UDP-GlcNAc, and UTP and GalNAc-1-P into UDP-GalNAc. Isoform AGX1 has 2 to 3 times higher activity towards GalNAc-1-P, while isoform AGX2 has 8 times more activity towards GlcNAc-1-P

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination. Mediates the selective degradation of short-lived and abnormal proteins. Functions in the E6/E6-AP-induced ubiquitination of p53/TP53. Mediates ubiquitination of PEX5 and auto-ubiquitination of STUB1, TRAF6 and TRIM63/MURF1. Ubiquitinates STUB1-associated HSP90AB1 in vitro. Lacks inherent specificity for any particular lysine residue of ubiquitin. Essential for viral activation of IRF3. Mediates polyubiquitination of CYP3A4.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-48'- linked polyubiquitination. Mediates the selective degradation of short- lived and abnormal proteins. Functions in the E6/E6-AP-induced ubiquitination of p53/TP53. Mediates ubiquitination of PEX5 and autoubiquitination of STUB1 and TRAF6. Involved in the signal-induced conjugation and subsequent degradation of NFKBIA, FBXW2-mediated GCM1 ubiquitination and degradation, MDM2-dependent degradation of p53/TP53 and the activation of MAVS in the mitochondria by RIGI in response to viral infection. Essential for viral activation of IRF3.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-11'-, as well as 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination. Cooperates with the E2 CDC34 and the SCF(FBXW11) E3 ligase complex for the polyubiquitination of NFKBIA leading to its subsequent proteasomal degradation. Acts as an initiator E2, priming the phosphorylated NFKBIA target at positions 'Lys-21' and/or 'Lys-22' with a monoubiquitin. Ubiquitin chain elongation is then performed by CDC34, building ubiquitin chains from the UBE2D3-primed NFKBIA-linked ubiquitin. Acts also as an initiator E2, in conjunction with RNF8, for the priming of PCNA. Monoubiquitination of PCNA, and its subsequent polyubiquitination, are essential events in the operation of the DNA damage tolerance (DDT) pathway that is activated after DNA damage caused by UV or chemical agents during S-phase. Associates with the BRCA1/BARD1 E3 ligase complex to perform ubiquitination at DNA damage sites following ionizing radiation leading to DNA repair. Targets DAPK3 for ubiquitination which influences promyelocytic leukemia protein nuclear body (PML-NB) formation in the nucleus. In conjunction with the MDM2 and TOPORS E3 ligases, functions ubiquitination of p53/TP53. Supports NRDP1-mediated ubiquitination and degradation of ERBB3 and of BRUCE which triggers apoptosis. In conjunction with the CBL E3 ligase, targets EGFR for polyubiquitination at the plasma membrane as well as during its internalization and transport on endosomes. In conjunction with the STUB1 E3 quality control E3 ligase, ubiquitinates unfolded proteins to catalyze their immediate destruction. Together with RNF135, catalyzes the viral RNA-dependent 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of RIGI to activate the downstream signaling pathway that leads to interferon beta production.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In vitro able to promote polyubiquitination using all 7 ubiquitin Lys residues, but may prefer 'Lys-11' and 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. Catalyzes the covalent attachment of ISG15 to other proteins. Mediates the selective degradation of short-lived and abnormal proteins. In vitro also catalyzes 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-11'- and 'Lys-48'-, as well as 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination. Catalyzes the ISGylation of influenza A virus NS1 protein.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-11'- and 'Lys-48'-, as well as 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination. Participates in the regulation of transepithelial sodium transport in renal cells. May be involved in cell growth arrest.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-48'-, as well as 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination. May be involved in degradation of muscle-specific proteins. Mediates polyubiquitination of CYP3A4.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination. Involved in endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD). Required for sterol-induced ubiquitination of 3- hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase and its subsequent proteasomal degradation.

Catalyzes the covalent attachment of ubiquitin to other proteins. Functions in the selective degradation of misfolded membrane proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum (ERAD) and is essential for cells to recover from ER stress. Plays a role in MAPKAPK2-dependent translational control of TNF-alpha synthesis. Acts also as a platform for perinuclear positioning of the endosomal system by mediating ubiquitination of SQSTM1 through interaction with the E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase RNF26.

Catalyzes the covalent attachment of ubiquitin to other proteins. Seems to function in the selective degradation of misfolded membrane proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum (ERAD).

Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 that specifically acts with HECT-type and RBR family E3 ubiquitin-protein ligases. Does not function with most RING-containing E3 ubiquitin-protein ligases because it lacks intrinsic E3-independent reactivity with lysine: in contrast, it has activity with the RBR family E3 enzymes, such as PRKN and ARIH1, that function like RING-HECT hybrids. Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-11'-linked polyubiquitination. Involved in the selective degradation of short-lived and abnormal proteins. Down- regulated during the S-phase it is involved in progression through the cell cycle. Regulates nuclear hormone receptors transcriptional activity. May play a role in myelopoiesis.

Catalyzes the covalent attachment of ubiquitin to other proteins.

Catalyzes the covalent attachment of ubiquitin or ISG15 to other proteins. Functions in the E6/E6-AP-induced ubiquitination of p53/TP53. Promotes ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of FLT3.

Catalyzes the covalent attachment of ubiquitin to other proteins. May be involved in hormonal homeostasis in females. Involved in regulation of B4GALT1 cell surface expression, B4GALT1-mediated cell adhesion to laminin and embryoid body formation (By similarity).

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-48'- linked polyubiquitination.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-48'- linked polyubiquitination. Cooperates with the E2 UBCH5C and the SCF(FBXW11) E3 ligase complex for the polyubiquitination of NFKBIA leading to its subsequent proteasomal degradation. Performs ubiquitin chain elongation building ubiquitin chains from the UBE2D3- primed NFKBIA-linked ubiquitin. UBE2D3 acts as an initiator E2, priming the phosphorylated NFKBIA target at positions 'Lys-21' and/or 'Lys-22' with a monoubiquitin. Cooperates with the SCF(SKP2) E3 ligase complex to regulate cell proliferation through ubiquitination and degradation of MYBL2 and KIP1. Involved in ubiquitin conjugation and degradation of CREM isoform ICERIIgamma and ATF15 resulting in abrogation of ICERIIgamma- and ATF5-mediated repression of cAMP-induced transcription during both meiotic and mitotic cell cycles. Involved in the regulation of the cell cycle G2/M phase through its targeting of the WEE1 kinase for ubiquitination and degradation. Also involved in the degradation of beta-catenin. Is target of human herpes virus 1 protein ICP0, leading to ICP0-dependent dynamic interaction with proteasomes.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In vitro catalyzes monoubiquitination and 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination. May be involved in degradation of katenin.

Has no ubiquitin ligase activity on its own. The UBE2V1-UBE2N heterodimer catalyzes the synthesis of non-canonical poly-ubiquitin chains that are linked through Lys-63. This type of poly-ubiquitination activates IKK and does not seem to involve protein degradation by the proteasome. Plays a role in the activation of NF-kappa-B mediated by IL1B, TNF, TRAF6 and TRAF2. Mediates transcriptional activation of target genes. Plays a role in the control of progress through the cell cycle and differentiation. Plays a role in the error-free DNA repair pathway and contributes to the survival of cells after DNA damage. Promotes TRIM5 capsid-specific restriction activity and the UBE2V1- UBE2N heterodimer acts in concert with TRIM5 to generate 'Lys-63'- linked polyubiquitin chains which activate the MAP3K7/TAK1 complex which in turn results in the induction and expression of NF-kappa-B and MAPK-responsive inflammatory genes. Together with RNF135 and UBE2N, catalyzes the viral RNA-dependent 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of RIGI to activate the downstream signaling pathway that leads to interferon beta production. UBE2V1-UBE2N together with TRAF3IP2 E3 ubiquitin ligase mediate 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of TRAF6, a component of IL17A-mediated signaling pathway.

Has no ubiquitin ligase activity on its own. The UBE2V2/UBE2N heterodimer catalyzes the synthesis of non-canonical poly-ubiquitin chains that are linked through 'Lys-63'. This type of poly- ubiquitination does not lead to protein degradation by the proteasome. Mediates transcriptional activation of target genes. Plays a role in the control of progress through the cell cycle and differentiation. Plays a role in the error-free DNA repair pathway and contributes to the survival of cells after DNA damage.

Catalyzes the first step in ubiquitin conjugation to mark cellular proteins for degradation through the ubiquitin-proteasome system. Activates ubiquitin by first adenylating its C-terminal glycine residue with ATP, and thereafter linking this residue to the side chain of a cysteine residue in E1, yielding a ubiquitin-E1 thioester and free AMP. Essential for the formation of radiation-induced foci, timely DNA repair and for response to replication stress. Promotes the recruitment of TP53BP1 and BRCA1 at DNA damage sites.

Catalytic subunit of the dimeric UBA3-NAE1 E1 enzyme. E1 activates NEDD8 by first adenylating its C-terminal glycine residue with ATP, thereafter linking this residue to the side chain of the catalytic cysteine, yielding a NEDD8-UBA3 thioester and free AMP. E1 finally transfers NEDD8 to the catalytic cysteine of UBE2M. Down- regulates steroid receptor activity. Necessary for cell cycle progression.

E1-like enzyme which specifically catalyzes the first step in ufmylation. Activates UFM1 by first adenylating its C-terminal glycine residue with ATP, and thereafter linking this residue to the side chain of a cysteine residue in E1, yielding a UFM1- E1 thioester and free AMP. Activates UFM1 via a trans-binding mechanism, in which UFM1 interacts with distinct sites in both subunits of the UBA5 homodimer. Trans-binding also promotes stabilization of the UBA5 homodimer, and enhances ATP-binding. Transfer of UFM1 from UBA5 to the E2-like enzyme UFC1 also takes place using a trans mechanism. Ufmylation is involved in reticulophagy (also called ER-phagy) induced in response to endoplasmic reticulum stress. Ufmylation is essential for erythroid differentiation of both megakaryocytes and erythrocytes (By similarity).

Activates ubiquitin by first adenylating its C-terminal glycine residue with ATP, and thereafter linking this residue to the side chain of a cysteine residue in E1, yielding a ubiquitin-E1 thioester and free AMP. Specific for ubiquitin, does not activate ubiquitin-like peptides. Differs from UBE1 in its specificity for substrate E2 charging. Does not charge cell cycle E2s, such as CDC34. Essential for embryonic development. Required for UBD/FAT10 conjugation. Isoform 2 may play a key role in ubiquitin system and may influence spermatogenesis and male fertility.

Activates ubiquitin by first adenylating with ATP its C- terminal glycine residue and thereafter linking this residue to the side chain of a cysteine residue in E1, yielding a ubiquitin-E1 thioester and free AMP. Catalyzes the ISGylation of influenza A virus NS1 protein.

Non-catalytic subunit of the KPC complex that acts as E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase. Required for poly-ubiquitination and proteasome-mediated degradation of CDKN1B during G1 phase of the cell cycle.

Restricts trafficking of FAF2 from the endoplasmic reticulum to lipid droplets. In association with LMBR1L and E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase AMFR, negatively regulates the canonical Wnt signaling pathway in the lymphocytes by promoting the ubiquitin- mediated degradation of CTNNB1 and Wnt receptors FZD6 and LRP6.

Component of the ESCRT-I complex, a regulator of vesicular trafficking process. Binds to ubiquitinated cargo proteins and is required for the sorting of endocytic ubiquitinated cargos into multivesicular bodies (MVBs). Plays a role in the proteasomal degradation of ubiquitinated cell-surface proteins, such as EGFR and BST2.

Recruits the ubiquitination machinery to RNA polymerase II for polyubiquitination, removal and degradation, when the transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair (TC-NER) machinery fails to resolve DNA damage. May promote the degradation of ANXA2.

Accepts the ubiquitin-like protein NEDD8 from the UBA3-NAE1 E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. The specific interaction with the E3 ubiquitin ligase RBX1, but not RBX2, suggests that the RBX1-UBE2M complex neddylates specific target proteins, such as CUL1, CUL2, CUL3 and CUL4. Involved in cell proliferation.

Accepts the ubiquitin-like proteins SUMO1, SUMO2, SUMO3, SUMO4 and SUMO1P1/SUMO5 from the UBLE1A-UBLE1B E1 complex and catalyzes their covalent attachment to other proteins with the help of an E3 ligase such as RANBP2, CBX4 and ZNF451. Can catalyze the formation of poly-SUMO chains. Necessary for sumoylation of FOXL2 and KAT5. Essential for nuclear architecture and chromosome segregation. Sumoylates p53/TP53 at 'Lys-386'. Mediates sumoylation of ERCC6 which is essential for its transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair activity.

Dephosphorylates 26S nuclear proteasomes, thereby decreasing their proteolytic activity. The dephosphorylation may prevent assembly of the core and regulatory particles (CP and RP) into mature 26S proteasome.

Ubiquitin-like protein modifier which can be covalently attached to target protein and subsequently leads to their degradation by the 26S proteasome, in a NUB1-dependent manner. Probably functions as a survival factor. Conjugation ability activated by UBA6. Promotes the expression of the proteasome subunit beta type-9 (PSMB9/LMP2). Regulates TNF-alpha-induced and LPS-mediated activation of the central mediator of innate immunity NF-kappa-B by promoting TNF-alpha-mediated proteasomal degradation of ubiquitinated-I-kappa-B-alpha. Required for TNF-alpha-induced p65 nuclear translocation in renal tubular epithelial cells (RTECs). May be involved in dendritic cell (DC) maturation, the process by which immature dendritic cells differentiate into fully competent antigen-presenting cells that initiate T-cell responses. Mediates mitotic non-disjunction and chromosome instability, in long- term in vitro culture and cancers, by abbreviating mitotic phase and impairing the kinetochore localization of MAD2L1 during the prometaphase stage of the cell cycle. May be involved in the formation of aggresomes when proteasome is saturated or impaired. Mediates apoptosis in a caspase-dependent manner, especially in renal epithelium and tubular cells during renal diseases such as polycystic kidney disease and Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-associated nephropathy (HIVAN).

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In association with the E3 enzyme BRE1 (RNF20 and/or RNF40), it plays a role in transcription regulation by catalyzing the monoubiquitination of histone H2B at 'Lys- 120' to form H2BK120ub1. H2BK120ub1 gives a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation, elongation by RNA polymerase II, telomeric silencing, and is also a prerequisite for H3K4me and H3K79me formation. In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-11', as well as 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination. Required for postreplication repair of UV-damaged DNA.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In association with the E3 enzyme BRE1 (RNF20 and/or RNF40), it plays a role in transcription regulation by catalyzing the monoubiquitination of histone H2B at 'Lys- 120' to form H2BK120ub1. H2BK120ub1 gives a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation, elongation by RNA polymerase II, telomeric silencing, and is also a prerequisite for H3K4me and H3K79me formation. In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-11'-, as well as 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination. Required for postreplication repair of UV-damaged DNA. Associates to the E3 ligase RAD18 to form the UBE2B-RAD18 ubiquitin ligase complex involved in mono-ubiquitination of DNA- associated PCNA on 'Lys-164'. May be involved in neurite outgrowth.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-11'- and 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination. Acts as an essential factor of the anaphase promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C), a cell cycle-regulated ubiquitin ligase that controls progression through mitosis. Acts by initiating 'Lys-11'-linked polyubiquitin chains on APC/C substrates, leading to the degradation of APC/C substrates by the proteasome and promoting mitotic exit.

Accepts the ubiquitin-like protein NEDD8 from the UBA3-NAE1 E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. The specific interaction with the E3 ubiquitin ligase RBX2, but not RBX1, suggests that the RBX2-UBE2F complex neddylates specific target proteins, such as CUL5.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. E2 ubiquitin conjugating enzyme that transfers ubiquitin to MAEA, a core component of the CTLH E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex. In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-11'- and 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination. Capable, in vitro, to ubiquitinate histone H2A.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. In vitro, in the presence or in the absence of BRCA1-BARD1 E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex, catalyzes the synthesis of 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Does not transfer ubiquitin directly to but elongates monoubiquitinated substrate protein. Mediates the selective degradation of short-lived and abnormal proteins, such as the endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) of misfolded lumenal proteins. Ubiquitinates huntingtin. May mediate foam cell formation by the suppression of apoptosis of lipid-bearing macrophages through ubiquitination and subsequence degradation of p53/TP53. Proposed to be involved in ubiquitination and proteolytic processing of NF-kappa-B; in vitro supports ubiquitination of NFKB1. In case of infection by cytomegaloviruses may be involved in the US11-dependent degradation of MHC class I heavy chains following their export from the ER to the cytosol. In case of viral infections may be involved in the HPV E7 protein-dependent degradation of RB1.

The UBE2V1-UBE2N and UBE2V2-UBE2N heterodimers catalyze the synthesis of non-canonical 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. This type of polyubiquitination does not lead to protein degradation by the proteasome. Mediates transcriptional activation of target genes. Plays a role in the control of progress through the cell cycle and differentiation. Plays a role in the error-free DNA repair pathway and contributes to the survival of cells after DNA damage. Acts together with the E3 ligases, HLTF and SHPRH, in the 'Lys-63'-linked poly- ubiquitination of PCNA upon genotoxic stress, which is required for DNA repair. Appears to act together with E3 ligase RNF5 in the 'Lys-63'- linked polyubiquitination of JKAMP thereby regulating JKAMP function by decreasing its association with components of the proteasome and ERAD. Promotes TRIM5 capsid-specific restriction activity and the UBE2V1- UBE2N heterodimer acts in concert with TRIM5 to generate 'Lys-63'- linked polyubiquitin chains which activate the MAP3K7/TAK1 complex which in turn results in the induction and expression of NF-kappa-B and MAPK-responsive inflammatory genes. Together with RNF135 and UB2V1, catalyzes the viral RNA-dependent 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination of RIGI to activate the downstream signaling pathway that leads to interferon beta production. UBE2V1- UBE2N together with TRAF3IP2 E3 ubiquitin ligase mediate 'Lys-63'- linked polyubiquitination of TRAF6, a component of IL17A-mediated signaling pathway.

E2/E3 hybrid ubiquitin-protein ligase that displays both E2 and E3 ligase activities and mediates monoubiquitination of target proteins. Negatively regulates TRAF6-mediated NF-kappa-B activation independently of its E2 activity. Acts as a positive regulator of BMP7 signaling by mediating monoubiquitination of SMAD6, thereby regulating adipogenesis. Mediates monoubiquitination at different sites of the nuclear localization signal (NLS) of BAP1, leading to cytoplasmic retention of BAP1. Also able to monoubiquitinate the NLS of other chromatin-associated proteins, such as INO80 and CXXC1, affecting their subcellular location. Acts as a regulator of retrograde transport by assisting the TRIM27:MAGEL2 E3 ubiquitin ligase complex to mediate 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination of WASHC1, leading to promote endosomal F-actin assembly.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. Catalyzes 'Lys-11'-linked polyubiquitination. Acts as an essential factor of the anaphase promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C), a cell cycle-regulated ubiquitin ligase that controls progression through mitosis. Acts by specifically elongating 'Lys-11'-linked polyubiquitin chains initiated by the E2 enzyme UBE2C/UBCH10 on APC/C substrates, enhancing the degradation of APC/C substrates by the proteasome and promoting mitotic exit. Also acts by elongating ubiquitin chains initiated by the E2 enzyme UBE2D1/UBCH5 in vitro; it is however unclear whether UBE2D1/UBCH5 acts as an E2 enzyme for the APC/C in vivo. Also involved in ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of VHL, resulting in an accumulation of HIF1A. In vitro able to promote polyubiquitination using all 7 ubiquitin Lys residues, except 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. Catalyzes monoubiquitination. Involved in mitomycin-C (MMC)-induced DNA repair. Acts as a specific E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme for the Fanconi anemia complex by associating with E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase FANCL and catalyzing monoubiquitination of FANCD2, a key step in the DNA damage pathway. Also mediates monoubiquitination of FANCL and FANCI. May contribute to ubiquitination and degradation of BRCA1. In vitro able to promote polyubiquitination using all 7 ubiquitin Lys residues, but may prefer 'Lys-11'-, 'Lys-27'-, 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitination.

Accepts ubiquitin from the E1 complex and catalyzes its covalent attachment to other proteins. Specifically monoubiquitinates the N-terminus of various substrates, including ATXN3, MAPT/TAU, POLR2H/RPB8 and STUB1/CHIP, by recognizing backbone atoms of disordered N-termini. Involved in degradation of misfolded chaperone substrates by mediating monoubiquitination of STUB1/CHIP, leading to recruitment of ATXN3 to monoubiquitinated STUB1/CHIP, and restriction of the length of ubiquitin chain attached to STUB1/CHIP substrates by ATXN3. After UV irradiation, but not after mitomycin-C (MMC) treatment, acts as a specific E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme for the Fanconi anemia complex by associating with E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase FANCL and catalyzing monoubiquitination of FANCD2, a key step in the DNA damage pathway. In vitro catalyzes 'Lys-11'-linked polyubiquitination. UBE2W-catalyzed ubiquitination occurs also in the presence of inactive RING/U-box type E3s, i.e. lacking the active site cysteine residues to form thioester bonds with ubiquitin, or even in the absence of E3, albeit at a slower rate.

Catalyzes the covalent attachment of ubiquitin to other proteins (By similarity). Specific substrate for UBA6, not charged with ubiquitin by UBE1. May be involved in apoptosis regulation.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and transfers it to its substrates. Several substrates have been identified including the BMAL1, ARC, RAD23A and RAD23B, MCM7 (which is involved in DNA replication), annexin A1, the PML tumor suppressor, and the cell cycle regulator CDKN1B. Additionally, may function as a cellular quality control ubiquitin ligase by helping the degradation of the cytoplasmic misfolded proteins. Finally, UBE3A also promotes its own degradation in vivo. Plays an important role in the regulation of the circadian clock: involved in the ubiquitination of the core clock component BMAL1, leading to its proteasomal degradation. Acts as transcriptional coactivator of progesterone receptor PGR upon progesterone hormone activation. Acts as a regulator of synaptic development by mediating ubiquitination and degradation of ARC (By similarity). Synergizes with WBP2 in enhancing PGR activity.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that specifically catalyzes 'Lys- 29'- and 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Accepts ubiquitin from the E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme UBE2D1 in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Associates with the proteasome and promotes elongation of ubiquitin chains on substrates bound to the 26S proteasome. Also catalyzes 'Lys-29'- and 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitination of 26S proteasome subunit ADRM1/RPN13 in response to proteotoxic stress, impairing the ability of the proteasome to bind and degrade ubiquitin- conjugated proteins. Acts as a negative regulator of autophagy by mediating 'Lys-29'- and 'Lys-48'- linked ubiquitination of PIK3C3/VPS34, promoting its degradation. Can assemble unanchored poly-ubiquitin chains in either 'Lys-29'- or 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitin chains; with some preference for 'Lys-48' linkages. Acts as a negative regulator of type I interferon by mediating 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitination of IRF3 and IRF7, leading to their degradation by the proteasome. Catalyzes ubiquitination and degradation of CAND2.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from specific E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes, and transfers it to substrates, generally promoting their degradation by the proteasome.

Ubiquitin-protein ligase that probably functions as an E3 ligase in conjunction with specific E1 and E2 ligases. May also function as an E4 ligase mediating the assembly of polyubiquitin chains on substrates ubiquitinated by another E3 ubiquitin ligase. Mediates 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination of substrates.

Ubiquitin-protein ligase that probably functions as an E3 ligase in conjunction with specific E1 and E2 ligases (By similarity). May also function as an E4 ligase mediating the assembly of polyubiquitin chains on substrates ubiquitinated by another E3 ubiquitin ligase (By similarity). May regulate myosin assembly in striated muscles together with STUB1 and VCP/p97 by targeting myosin chaperone UNC45B for proteasomal degradation.

Recognizes the ribosomal RNA gene promoter and activates transcription mediated by RNA polymerase I through cooperative interactions with the transcription factor SL1/TIF-IB complex. It binds specifically to the upstream control element.

Essential for proliferation of the inner cell mass and trophectodermal cells in peri-implantation development.

Prenyltransferase that mediates the formation of menaquinone- 4 (MK-4) and coenzyme Q10. MK-4 is a vitamin K2 isoform present at high concentrations in the brain, kidney and pancreas, and is required for endothelial cell development. Mediates the conversion of phylloquinone (PK) into MK-4, probably by cleaving the side chain of phylloquinone (PK) to release 2-methyl-1,4-naphthoquinone (menadione; K3) and then prenylating it with geranylgeranyl pyrophosphate (GGPP) to form MK-4. Also plays a role in cardiovascular development independently of MK-4 biosynthesis, by acting as a coenzyme Q10 biosynthetic enzyme: coenzyme Q10, also named ubiquinone, plays an important antioxidant role in the cardiovascular system. Mediates biosynthesis of coenzyme Q10 in the Golgi membrane, leading to protect cardiovascular tissues from NOS3/eNOS- dependent oxidative stress.

Functions as a transcriptional activator in a promoter context-dependent manner. Modulates the placental expression of CYP11A1. Involved in regulation of the alpha-globin gene in erythroid cells. Activation of the alpha-globin promoter in erythroid cells is via synergistic interaction with TFCP2 (By similarity). Involved in regulation of the alpha-globin gene in erythroid cells. Binds strongly to sequences around the HIV-1 initiation site and weakly over the TATA- box. Represses HIV-1 transcription by inhibiting the binding of TFIID to the TATA-box.

Acts as a novel regulator of senescence. Involved in the formation of senescence-associated heterochromatin foci (SAHF), which represses expression of proliferation-promoting genes. Binds to proliferation-promoting genes. May be required for replication- independent chromatin assembly.

Hydrolase that can remove conjugated ubiquitin from target proteins such as p53/TP53, BECN1, SNX3 and CFTR. Acts as an essential regulator of p53/TP53 stability: in unstressed cells, specifically deubiquitinates p53/TP53 in the cytoplasm, leading to counteract MDM2 action and stabilize p53/TP53. Following DNA damage, translocates to the nucleus and deubiquitinates p53/TP53, leading to regulate the p53/TP53-dependent DNA damage response. Component of a regulatory loop that controls autophagy and p53/TP53 levels: mediates deubiquitination of BECN1, a key regulator of autophagy, leading to stabilize the PIK3C3/VPS34-containing complexes. In turn, PIK3C3/VPS34-containing complexes regulate USP10 stability, suggesting the existence of a regulatory system by which PIK3C3/VPS34-containing complexes regulate p53/TP53 protein levels via USP10 and USP13. Does not deubiquitinate MDM2. Deubiquitinates CFTR in early endosomes, enhancing its endocytic recycling. Involved in a TANK-dependent negative feedback response to attenuate NF-kappaB activation via deubiquitinating IKBKG or TRAF6 in response to interleukin-1-beta (IL1B) stimulation or upon DNA damage. Deubiquitinates TBX21 leading to its stabilization.

Deubiquitinating enzyme. Has almost no deubiquitinating activity by itself and requires the interaction with WDR20 and WDR48 to have a high activity. Not involved in deubiquitination of monoubiquitinated FANCD2. In complex with WDR48, acts as a potential tumor suppressor by positively regulating PHLPP1 stability.

Deubiquitinase that mediates deubiquitination of target proteins such as BECN1, MITF, SKP2 and USP10 and is involved in various processes such as autophagy and endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD). Component of a regulatory loop that controls autophagy and p53/TP53 levels: mediates deubiquitination of BECN1, a key regulator of autophagy, leading to stabilize the PIK3C3/VPS34- containing complexes. Also deubiquitinates USP10, an essential regulator of p53/TP53 stability. In turn, PIK3C3/VPS34-containing complexes regulate USP13 stability, suggesting the existence of a regulatory system by which PIK3C3/VPS34-containing complexes regulate p53/TP53 protein levels via USP10 and USP13. Recruited by nuclear UFD1 and mediates deubiquitination of SKP2, thereby regulating endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD). Also regulates ERAD through the deubiquitination of UBL4A a component of the BAG6/BAT3 complex. Mediates stabilization of SIAH2 independently of deubiquitinase activity: binds ubiquitinated SIAH2 and acts by impairing SIAH2 autoubiquitination. Has a weak deubiquitinase activity in vitro and preferentially cleaves 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. In contrast to USP5, it is not able to mediate unanchored polyubiquitin disassembly. Able to cleave ISG15 in vitro; however, additional experiments are required to confirm such data.

Proteasome-associated deubiquitinase which releases ubiquitin from the proteasome targeted ubiquitinated proteins. Ensures the regeneration of ubiquitin at the proteasome. Is a reversibly associated subunit of the proteasome and a large fraction of proteasome-free protein exists within the cell. Required for the degradation of the chemokine receptor CXCR4 which is critical for CXCL12-induced cell chemotaxis. Serves also as a physiological inhibitor of endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) under the non- stressed condition by inhibiting the degradation of unfolded endoplasmic reticulum proteins via interaction with ERN1. Indispensable for synaptic development and function at neuromuscular junctions (NMJs) (By similarity). Plays a role in the innate immune defense against viruses by stabilizing the viral DNA sensor CGAS and thus inhibiting its autophagic degradation.

Hydrolase that removes conjugated ubiquitin from target proteins and regulates various pathways such as the TGF-beta receptor signaling, NF-kappa-B and RNF41/NRDP1-PRKN pathways. Acts as a key regulator of TGF-beta receptor signaling pathway, but the precise mechanism is still unclear: according to a report, acts by promoting deubiquitination of monoubiquitinated R-SMADs (SMAD1, SMAD2 and/or SMAD3), thereby alleviating inhibition of R-SMADs and promoting activation of TGF-beta target genes. According to another reports, regulates the TGF-beta receptor signaling pathway by mediating deubiquitination and stabilization of TGFBR1, leading to an enhanced TGF-beta signal. Able to mediate deubiquitination of monoubiquitinated substrates, 'Lys-27'-, 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. May also regulate gene expression and/or DNA repair through the deubiquitination of histone H2B. Acts as an inhibitor of mitophagy by counteracting the action of parkin (PRKN): hydrolyzes cleavage of 'Lys- 48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains attached by parkin on target proteins such as MFN2, thereby reducing parkin's ability to drive mitophagy. Acts as an associated component of COP9 signalosome complex (CSN) and regulates different pathways via this association: regulates NF-kappa-B by mediating deubiquitination of NFKBIA and deubiquitinates substrates bound to VCP. Involved in endosome organization by mediating deubiquitination of SQSTM1: ubiquitinated SQSTM1 forms a molecular bridge that restrains cognate vesicles in the perinuclear region and its deubiquitination releases target vesicles for fast transport into the cell periphery. Acts as a negative regulator of antifungal immunity by mediating 'Lys-27'-linked deubiquitination of CARD9, thereby inactivating CARD9.

Specifically deubiquitinates 'Lys-120' of histone H2A (H2AK119Ub), a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression, thereby acting as a coactivator. Deubiquitination of histone H2A is a prerequisite for subsequent phosphorylation at 'Ser-11' of histone H3 (H3S10ph), and is required for chromosome segregation when cells enter into mitosis. In resting B- and T-lymphocytes, phosphorylation by AURKB leads to enhance its activity, thereby maintaining transcription in resting lymphocytes. Regulates Hox gene expression via histone H2A deubiquitination. Prefers nucleosomal substrates. Does not deubiquitinate histone H2B.

Involved in the negative regulation of the inflammatory response triggered by type I interferon. Upon recruitment by STAT2 to the type I IFN receptor subunit IFNAR2 interferes with the assembly of the ternary interferon- IFNAR1-IFNAR2 complex and acts as a negative regulator of the type I IFN signaling pathway. Also regulates protein ISGylation. Can efficiently cleave only ISG15 fusions including native ISG15 conjugates linked via isopeptide bonds. Necessary to maintain a critical cellular balance of ISG15-conjugated proteins in both healthy and stressed organisms.

Deubiquitinating enzyme that regulates the degradation of various proteins. Deubiquitinates and prevents proteasomal degradation of RNF123 which in turn stimulates CDKN1B ubiquitin-dependent degradation thereby playing a role in cell proliferation. Involved in decreased protein synthesis in atrophying skeletal muscle. Modulates transcription of major myofibrillar proteins. Also involved in turnover of endoplasmic-reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) substrates. Regulates the stability of BIRC2/c-IAP1 and BIRC3/c-IAP2 by preventing their ubiquitination. Required for cells to mount an appropriate response to hypoxia and rescues HIF1A from degradation in a non- catalytic manner. Plays an important role in 17 beta-estradiol (E2)- inhibited myogenesis. Decreases the levels of ubiquitinated proteins during skeletal muscle formation and acts to repress myogenesis. Exhibits a preference towards 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin chains.

Negative regulator of DNA damage repair which specifically deubiquitinates monoubiquitinated FANCD2. Also involved in PCNA-mediated translesion synthesis (TLS) by deubiquitinating monoubiquitinated PCNA. Has almost no deubiquitinating activity by itself and requires the interaction with WDR48 to have a high activity.

Deubiquitinating enzyme involved in beta-2 adrenergic receptor (ADRB2) recycling. Acts as a regulator of G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) signaling by mediating the deubiquitination beta-2 adrenergic receptor (ADRB2). Plays a central role in ADRB2 recycling and resensitization after prolonged agonist stimulation by constitutively binding ADRB2, mediating deubiquitination of ADRB2 and inhibiting lysosomal trafficking of ADRB2. Upon dissociation, it is probably transferred to the translocated beta-arrestins, possibly leading to beta-arrestins deubiquitination and disengagement from ADRB2. This suggests the existence of a dynamic exchange between the ADRB2 and beta-arrestins. Deubiquitinates DIO2, thereby regulating thyroid hormone regulation. Deubiquitinates HIF1A, leading to stabilize HIF1A and enhance HIF1A-mediated activity. Mediates deubiquitination of both 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains.

Deubiquitinates histone H2A, a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional repression, thereby acting as a coactivator. Deubiquitination of histone H2A releaves the repression of di- and trimethylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-4', resulting in regulation of transcriptional initiation. Regulates gene expression via histone H2A deubiquitination (By similarity). Also capable of removing NEDD8 from NEDD8 conjugates but has no effect on Sentrin-1 conjugates. Deubiquitinates BAZ2A/TIP5 leading to its stabilization.

Histone deubiquitinating component of the transcription regulatory histone acetylation (HAT) complex SAGA. Catalyzes the deubiquitination of both histones H2A and H2B, thereby acting as a coactivator. Recruited to specific gene promoters by activators such as MYC, where it is required for transcription. Required for nuclear receptor-mediated transactivation and cell cycle progression.

Ubiquitin-specific protease that regulates cell survival in various contexts through modulating the protein stability of some of its substrates including DDB2, MCL1 or TP53. Plays a positive role on ferritinophagy where ferritin is degraded in lysosomes and releases free iron.

Deubiquitinating enzyme that hydrolyzes ubiquitin moieties conjugated to substrates and thus, functions to process newly synthesized Ubiquitin, to recycle ubiquitin molecules or to edit polyubiquitin chains and prevents proteasomal degradation of substrates. Hydrolyzes both 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked tetraubiquitin chains

Involved in the ubiquitin-dependent proteolytic pathway in conjunction with the 26S proteasome (By similarity). Deubiquitinates the androgen receptor and regulates the androgen receptor signaling pathway.

Deubiquitinase involved in innate antiviral immunity by mediating deubiquitination of CGAS and RIGI. Negatively regulates RIGI by mediating 'Lys-63'- linked deubiquitination of RIGI, inhibiting type I interferon signaling. Also regulates 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination level of MDA5/IFIH1. Acts as a positive regulator of the cGAS-STING pathway by catalyzing 'Lys-48'-linked deubiquitination of CGAS, thereby promoting its stabilization. Can reduce the levels of BCL2L11/BIM ubiquitination and stabilize BCL2L11 in response to the RAF-MAPK-degradation signal (By similarity). By acting on BCL2L11 levels, may counteract the anti-apoptotic effects of MAPK activity (By similarity).

Deubiquitinase involved in innate antiviral immunity by mediating 'Lys-48'-linked deubiquitination of CGAS, thereby promoting its stabilization.

Recruits the ubiquitination machinery to RNA polymerase II for polyubiquitination, removal and degradation, when the transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair (TC-NER) machinery fails to resolve DNA damage. Plays an important role in the activity of long-term repopulating hematopoietic stem cells (LT- HSCs) (By similarity). Required for efficient formation of stress granules.

Hydrolase that deubiquitinates polyubiquitinated target proteins such as MDM2, MDM4 and CCND1. Isoform 1 and isoform 4 possess both ubiquitin-specific peptidase and isopeptidase activities (By similarity). Deubiquitinates MDM2 without reversing MDM2-mediated p53/TP53 ubiquitination and thus indirectly promotes p53/TP53 degradation and limits p53 activity. Has no deubiquitinase activity against p53/TP53. Prevents MDM2-mediated degradation of MDM4. Plays a role in the G1/S cell-cycle progression in normal and cancer cells. Regulates the circadian clock by modulating its intrinsic circadian rhythm and its capacity to respond to external cues (By similarity). Associates with clock proteins and deubiquitinates core clock component PER1 but does not affect its overall stability (By similarity). Regulates the nucleocytoplasmic shuttling and nuclear retention of PER1 and its repressive role on the clock transcription factors CLOCK and BMAL1 (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of myogenic differentiation of embryonic muscle cells (By similarity).

Deubiquitinating enzyme tethered to the mitochondrial outer membrane that acts as a key inhibitor of mitophagy by counteracting the action of parkin (PRKN): hydrolyzes ubiquitin attached by parkin on target proteins, such as RHOT1/MIRO1 and TOMM20, thereby blocking parkin's ability to drive mitophagy. Preferentially cleaves 'Lys-6'- and 'Lys-11'-linked polyubiquitin chains, 2 types of linkage that participate in mitophagic signaling. Does not cleave efficiently polyubiquitin phosphorylated at 'Ser-65'. Acts as negative regulator of mitochondrial fusion by mediating deubiquitination of MFN1 and MFN2 (By similarity).

May recognize and hydrolyze the peptide bond at the C- terminal Gly of ubiquitin. Involved in the processing of poly-ubiquitin precursors as well as that of ubiquitinated proteins (By similarity).

Deubiquitinating enzyme involved in various processes such as centrosome duplication, cellular migration and beta-2 adrenergic receptor/ADRB2 recycling. Involved in regulation of centrosome duplication by mediating deubiquitination of CCP110 in S and G2/M phase, leading to stabilize CCP110 during the period which centrioles duplicate and elongate. Involved in cell migration via its interaction with intracellular domain of ROBO1, leading to regulate the Slit signaling. Plays a role in commissural axon guidance cross the ventral midline of the neural tube in a Slit-dependent manner, possibly by mediating the deubiquitination of ROBO1. Acts as a regulator of G- protein coupled receptor (GPCR) signaling by mediating the deubiquitination of beta-arrestins (ARRB1 and ARRB2) and beta-2 adrenergic receptor (ADRB2). Plays a central role in ADRB2 recycling and resensitization after prolonged agonist stimulation by constitutively binding ADRB2, mediating deubiquitination of ADRB2 and inhibiting lysosomal trafficking of ADRB2. Upon dissociation, it is probably transferred to the translocated beta-arrestins, leading to beta-arrestins deubiquitination and disengagement from ADRB2. This suggests the existence of a dynamic exchange between the ADRB2 and beta-arrestins. Deubiquitinates DIO2, thereby regulating thyroid hormone regulation. Mediates deubiquitination of both 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains.

Ubiquitin hydrolase that can remove conjugated ubiquitin from AXIN1 and AXIN2, thereby acting as a regulator of Wnt signaling pathway. Acts as an activator of the Wnt signaling pathway downstream of the beta-catenin destruction complex by deubiquitinating and stabilizing AXIN1 and AXIN2, leading to promote nuclear accumulation of AXIN1 and AXIN2 and positively regulate beta-catenin (CTNBB1)-mediated transcription. Recognizes and hydrolyzes the peptide bond at the C- terminal Gly of ubiquitin. Involved in the processing of poly-ubiquitin precursors as well as that of ubiquitinated proteins.

Deubiquitinase essential for the regulation of nucleolar structure and function. Required for cell and organism viability. Plays an important role in ribosomal RNA processing and protein synthesis, which is mediated, at least in part, through deubiquitination of DHX33, NPM1 and FBL, regulating their protein stability. Functions as a transcriptional repressor by deubiquiting histone H2B at the promoters of genes critical for cellular differentiation, such as CDKN1A, thereby preventing histone H3 'Lys-4' trimethylation (H3K4). Specifically deubiquitinates MYC in the nucleolus, leading to prevent MYC degradation by the proteasome: acts by specifically interacting with isoform 3 of FBXW7 (FBW7gamma) in the nucleolus and counteracting ubiquitination of MYC by the SCF(FBW7) complex. In contrast, it does not interact with isoform 1 of FBXW7 (FBW7alpha) in the nucleoplasm. Interacts to and regulates the actions of E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase NEDD4L over substrates such as NTRK1, KCNQ2 and KCNQ3, affecting their expression an functions. Deubiquitinates SOD2, regulates SOD2 protein stability. Deubiquitinase activity is required to control selective autophagy activation by ubiquitinated proteins.

Deubiquitinase that antagonizes the anaphase-promoting complex (APC/C) during G1/S transition by mediating deubiquitination of cyclin-A (CCNA1 and CCNA2), thereby promoting S phase entry. Specifically mediates deubiquitination of 'Lys-11'-linked polyubiquitin chains, a specific ubiquitin-linkage type mediated by the APC/C complex. Also mediates deubiquitination of 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitin chains in vitro. Phosphorylation at Ser-628 during G1/S phase maximizes the deubiquitinase activity, leading to prevent degradation of cyclin-A (CCNA1 and CCNA2). Plays an important role in the regulation of DNA replication by stabilizing the licensing factor CDT1.

Deubiquitinating enzyme exhibiting a preference towards 'Lys- 63'-linked ubiquitin chains.

Hydrolase that deubiquitinates monoubiquitinated target proteins such as histone H2A and H2B. Required for proper progression through S phase and subsequent mitotic entry. May regulate the DNA damage response (DDR) checkpoint through deubiquitination of H2A at DNA damage sites. Associates with the chromatin.

Deubiquitinating enzyme which may play an important role during spermatogenesis.

Deubiquitinase that plays a key regulatory role in the spindle assembly checkpoint or mitotic checkpoint by preventing premature anaphase onset. Acts by specifically mediating deubiquitination of CDC20, a negative regulator of the anaphase promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C). Deubiquitination of CDC20 leads to stabilize the MAD2L1-CDC20-APC/C ternary complex (also named mitotic checkpoint complex), thereby preventing premature activation of the APC/C. Promotes association of MAD2L1 with CDC20 and reinforces the spindle assembly checkpoint. Acts as a negative regulator of histone H2B (H2BK120ub1) ubiquitination.

Catalyzes the deubiquitination of SPDL1. Plays a role in the repair of UV-induced DNA damage via deubiquitination of ERCC1, promoting its recruitment to DNA damage sites. May be involved in the maintenance of photoreceptor function. May play a role in normal retinal development (By similarity). Plays a role in cell migration.

Deubiquitinating enzyme that plays a role in behavior, possibly by regulating GABA action. May act by mediating the deubiquitination of GAD1/GAD67 (By similarity). Has almost no deubiquitinating activity by itself and requires the interaction with WDR48 to have a high activity. Not involved in deubiquitination of monoubiquitinated FANCD2.

Ubiquitin-specific protease that specifically deubiquitinates monoubiquitinated DNA polymerase beta (POLB), stabilizing POLB thereby playing a role in base-excision repair (BER). Acts as a regulator of cell growth and genome integrity. May also indirectly regulate CDC25A expression at a transcriptional level.

Recognizes and hydrolyzes the peptide bond at the C-terminal Gly of ubiquitin. Involved in the processing of poly-ubiquitin precursors as well as that of ubiquitinated proteins. May be involved in the regulation of NF-kappa-B activation by TNF receptor superfamily via its interactions with RELA and TRAF2. May also play a regulatory role at postsynaptic sites.

Specifically deubiquitinates histone H2B at 'Lys-120' (H2BK120Ub). H2BK120Ub is a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation and acts as a regulator of mRNA splicing. Deubiquitination is required for efficient cotranscriptional splicing of a large set of exons.

Deubiquitinating enzyme that removes conjugated ubiquitin from target proteins. Deubiquitinates PDPK1. Deubiquitinates TRIM21. Deubiquitinates receptor ADORA2A which increases the amount of functional receptor at the cell surface. Deubiquitinates HAS2. May regulate mRNA splicing through deubiquitination of the U4 spliceosomal protein PRPF3. This may prevent its recognition by the U5 component PRPF8 thereby destabilizing interactions within the U4/U6.U5 snRNP. May also play a role in the regulation of quality control in the ER.

Specifically deubiquitinates 'Lys-14' (H2AK13Ub) and 'Lys- 16'(H2AK15Ub) of histone H2A regulating the DNA damage response at double-strand breaks (DSBs). USP51 is recruited to chromatin after DNA damage and regulates the dynamic assembly/disassembly of TP53BP1 and BRCA1. Exhibits also activity for 'Lys-27' or 'Lys-63'-linked di-ubiquitin.

Cleaves linear and branched multiubiquitin polymers with a marked preference for branched polymers. Involved in unanchored 'Lys- 48'-linked polyubiquitin disassembly. Binds linear and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin with a lower affinity. Knock-down of USP5 causes the accumulation of p53/TP53 and an increase in p53/TP53 transcriptional activity because the unanchored polyubiquitin that accumulates is able to compete with ubiquitinated p53/TP53 but not with MDM2 for proteasomal recognition.

Deubiquitinase with an ATP-independent isopeptidase activity, cleaving at the C-terminus of the ubiquitin moiety. Catalyzes its own deubiquitination. In vitro, isoform 2, but not isoform 3, shows deubiquitinating activity. Promotes plasma membrane localization of ARF6 and selectively regulates ARF6-dependent endocytic protein trafficking. Is able to initiate tumorigenesis by inducing the production of matrix metalloproteinases following NF-kappa-B activation.

Hydrolase that deubiquitinates target proteins such as FOXO4, KAT5, p53/TP53, MDM2, ERCC6, DNMT1, UHRF1, PTEN, KMT2E/MLL5 and DAXX. Together with DAXX, prevents MDM2 self-ubiquitination and enhances the E3 ligase activity of MDM2 towards p53/TP53, thereby promoting p53/TP53 ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation. Deubiquitinates p53/TP53, preventing degradation of p53/TP53, and enhances p53/TP53- dependent transcription regulation, cell growth repression and apoptosis. Deubiquitinates p53/TP53 and MDM2 and strongly stabilizes p53/TP53 even in the presence of excess MDM2, and also induces p53/TP53-dependent cell growth repression and apoptosis. Deubiquitination of FOXO4 in presence of hydrogen peroxide is not dependent on p53/TP53 and inhibits FOXO4-induced transcriptional activity. In association with DAXX, is involved in the deubiquitination and translocation of PTEN from the nucleus to the cytoplasm, both processes that are counteracted by PML. Deubiquitinates KMT2E/MLL5 preventing KMT2E/MLL5 proteasomal-mediated degradation. Involved in cell proliferation during early embryonic development. Involved in transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair (TC-NER) in response to UV damage: recruited to DNA damage sites following interaction with KIAA1530/UVSSA and promotes deubiquitination of ERCC6, preventing UV-induced degradation of ERCC6. Involved in maintenance of DNA methylation via its interaction with UHRF1 and DNMT1: acts by mediating deubiquitination of UHRF1 and DNMT1, preventing their degradation and promoting DNA methylation by DNMT1. Deubiquitinates alkylation repair enzyme ALKBH3. OTUD4 recruits USP7 and USP9X to stabilize ALKBH3, thereby promoting the repair of alkylated DNA lesions. Acts as a chromatin regulator via its association with the Polycomb group (PcG) multiprotein PRC1- like complex; may act by deubiquitinating components of the PRC1-like complex. Able to mediate deubiquitination of histone H2B; it is however unsure whether this activity takes place in vivo. Exhibits a preference towards 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitin chains. Increases regulatory T-cells (Treg) suppressive capacity by deubiquitinating and stabilizing the transcription factor FOXP3 which is crucial for Treg cell function. Plays a role in the maintenance of the circadian clock periodicity via deubiquitination and stabilization of the CRY1 and CRY2 proteins. Deubiquitinates REST, thereby stabilizing REST and promoting the maintenance of neural progenitor cells. Deubiquitinates SIRT7, inhibiting SIRT7 histone deacetylase activity and regulating gluconeogenesis. Involved in the regulation of WASH-dependent actin polymerization at the surface of endosomes and the regulation of endosomal protein recycling. It maintains optimal WASH complex activity and precise F-actin levels via deubiquitination of TRIM27 and WASHC1.

Hydrolase that can remove conjugated ubiquitin from proteins and therefore plays an important regulatory role at the level of protein turnover by preventing degradation. Converts both 'Lys-48' an 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin chains. Catalytic activity is enhanced in the M phase. Involved in cell proliferation. Required to enter into S phase in response to serum stimulation. May regulate T-cell anergy mediated by RNF128 via the formation of a complex containing RNF128 and OTUB1. Probably regulates the stability of STAM2 and RASGRF1. Regulates endosomal ubiquitin dynamics, cargo sorting, membrane traffic at early endosomes, and maintenance of ESCRT-0 stability. The level of protein ubiquitination on endosomes is essential for maintaining the morphology of the organelle. Deubiquitinates EPS15 and controles tyrosine kinase stability. Removes conjugated ubiquitin from EGFR thus regulating EGFR degradation and downstream MAPK signaling. Involved in acrosome biogenesis through interaction with the spermatid ESCRT-0 complex and microtubules. Deubiquitinates BIRC6/bruce and KIF23/MKLP1. Deubiquitinates BACE1 which inhibits BACE1 lysosomal degradation and modulates BACE-mediated APP cleavage and amyloid-beta formation.

Plays an important role in the regulation of different protein degradation mechanisms and pathways including ubiquitin- proteasome system (UPS), autophagy and endoplasmic reticulum-associated protein degradation (ERAD) pathway. Mediates the proteasomal targeting of misfolded or accumulated proteins for degradation by binding (via UBA domain) to their polyubiquitin chains and by interacting (via ubiquitin-like domain) with the subunits of the proteasome. Plays a role in the ERAD pathway via its interaction with ER-localized proteins UBXN4, VCP and HERPUD1 and may form a link between the polyubiquitinated ERAD substrates and the proteasome. Involved in the regulation of macroautophagy and autophagosome formation; required for maturation of autophagy-related protein LC3 from the cytosolic form LC3-I to the membrane-bound form LC3-II and may assist in the maturation of autophagosomes to autolysosomes by mediating autophagosome-lysosome fusion. Negatively regulates the TICAM1/TRIF-dependent toll-like receptor signaling pathway by decreasing the abundance of TICAM1 via the autophagic pathway. Promotes the ubiquitination and lysosomal degradation of ORAI1, consequently down-regulating the ORAI1-mediated Ca2+ mobilization. Suppresses the maturation and proteasomal degradation of amyloid beta A4 protein (A4) by stimulating the lysine 63 (K63)-linked polyubiquitination. Delays the maturation of A4 by sequestering it in the Golgi apparatus and preventing its transport to the cell surface for subsequent processing (By similarity). Ubiquitinates BCL2L10 and thereby stabilizes protein abundance.

Plays an important role in the regulation of different protein degradation mechanisms and pathways including ubiquitin- proteasome system (UPS), autophagy and the endoplasmic reticulum- associated protein degradation (ERAD) pathway. Mediates the proteasomal targeting of misfolded or accumulated proteins for degradation by binding (via UBA domain) to their polyubiquitin chains and by interacting (via ubiquitin-like domain) with the subunits of the proteasome. Plays a role in the ERAD pathway via its interaction with ER-localized proteins FAF2/UBXD8 and HERPUD1 and may form a link between the polyubiquitinated ERAD substrates and the proteasome. Involved in the regulation of macroautophagy and autophagosome formation; required for maturation of autophagy-related protein LC3 from the cytosolic form LC3-I to the membrane-bound form LC3-II and may assist in the maturation of autophagosomes to autolysosomes by mediating autophagosome-lysosome fusion. Negatively regulates the endocytosis of GPCR receptors: AVPR2 and ADRB2, by specifically reducing the rate at which receptor-arrestin complexes concentrate in clathrin-coated pits (CCPs).

Regulator of protein degradation that mediates the proteasomal targeting of misfolded, mislocalized or accumulated proteins. Acts by binding polyubiquitin chains of target proteins via its UBA domain and by interacting with subunits of the proteasome via its ubiquitin-like domain. Key regulator of DNA repair that represses homologous recombination repair: in response to DNA damage, recruited to sites of DNA damage following phosphorylation by ATM and acts by binding and removing ubiquitinated MRE11 from damaged chromatin, leading to MRE11 degradation by the proteasome. MRE11 degradation prevents homologous recombination repair, redirecting double-strand break repair toward non-homologous end joining (NHEJ). Specifically recognizes and binds mislocalized transmembrane-containing proteins and targets them to proteasomal degradation. Collaborates with DESI1/POST in the export of ubiquitinated proteins from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. Also plays a role in the regulation of the proteasomal degradation of non-ubiquitinated GJA1 (By similarity). Acts as an adapter protein that recruits UBQLN1 to the autophagy machinery. Mediates the association of UBQLN1 with autophagosomes and the autophagy-related protein LC3 (MAP1LC3A/B/C) and may assist in the maturation of autophagosomes to autolysosomes by mediating autophagosome-lysosome fusion.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which is a component of the N-end rule pathway. Recognizes and binds to proteins bearing specific N- terminal residues that are destabilizing according to the N-end rule, leading to their ubiquitination and subsequent degradation. May be involved in pancreatic homeostasis. Binds leucine and is a negative regulator of the leucine-mTOR signaling pathway, thereby controlling cell growth.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which is a component of the N-end rule pathway. Recognizes and binds to proteins bearing specific N-terminal residues that are destabilizing according to the N-end rule, leading to their ubiquitination and subsequent degradation (By similarity). Plays a critical role in chromatin inactivation and chromosome-wide transcriptional silencing during meiosis via ubiquitination of histone H2A (By similarity). Binds leucine and is a negative regulator of the leucine-mTOR signaling pathway, thereby controlling cell growth. Required for spermatogenesis, promotes, with Tex19.1, SPO11-dependent recombination foci to accumulate and drive robust homologous chromosome synapsis (By similarity). Polyubiquitinates LINE-1 retrotransposon encoded, LIRE1, which induces degradation, inhibiting LINE-1 retrotransposon mobilization (By similarity). Catalyzes ubiquitination and degradation of the N-terminal part of NLRP1 following NLRP1 activation by pathogens and other damage-associated signals: ubiquitination promotes degradation of the N-terminal part and subsequent release of the cleaved C-terminal part of NLRP1, which polymerizes and forms the NLRP1 inflammasome followed by host cell pyroptosis (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which is a component of the N-end rule pathway (By similarity). Does not bind to proteins bearing specific N-terminal residues that are destabilizing according to the N- end rule, leading to their ubiquitination and subsequent degradation (By similarity). May play a role in Shh signaling by mediating the ubiquitination of Kif7 (By similarity). May be important for MYH9 function in certain tissues, possibly by regulating the ubiquitination of MYH9 and consequently affecting its interaction with MYO7A.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which is a component of the N-end rule pathway. Recognizes and binds to proteins bearing specific N- terminal residues that are destabilizing according to the N-end rule, leading to their ubiquitination and subsequent degradation. Together with clathrin, forms meshwork structures involved in membrane morphogenesis and cytoskeletal organization. Regulates integrin- mediated signaling. May play a role in activation of FAK in response to cell-matrix interactions. Mediates ubiquitination of ACLY, leading to its subsequent degradation.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which is a component of the N-end rule pathway. Recognizes and binds to proteins bearing specific N- terminal residues that are destabilizing according to the N-end rule, leading to their ubiquitination and subsequent degradation (By similarity). Involved in maturation and/or transcriptional regulation of mRNA by activating CDK9 by polyubiquitination. May play a role in control of cell cycle progression. May have tumor suppressor function. Regulates DNA topoisomerase II binding protein (TopBP1) in the DNA damage response. Plays an essential role in extraembryonic development. Ubiquitinates acetylated PCK1. Also acts as a regulator of DNA damage response by acting as a suppressor of RNF168, an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that promotes accumulation of 'Lys-63'-linked histone H2A and H2AX at DNA damage sites, thereby acting as a guard against excessive spreading of ubiquitinated chromatin at damaged chromosomes.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which is a component of the N-end rule pathway. Recognizes and binds to proteins bearing specific N- terminal residues that are destabilizing according to the N-end rule, leading to their ubiquitination and subsequent degradation.

Interferes with CBL-mediated down-regulation and degradation of receptor-type tyrosine kinases. Promotes accumulation of activated target receptors, such as T-cell receptors, EGFR and PDGFRB, on the cell surface. Exhibits negligigle protein tyrosine phosphatase activity at neutral pH. May act as a dominant-negative regulator of UBASH3B- dependent dephosphorylation. May inhibit dynamin-dependent endocytic pathways by functionally sequestering dynamin via its SH3 domain.

Interferes with CBL-mediated down-regulation and degradation of receptor-type tyrosine kinases. Promotes accumulation of activated target receptors, such as T-cell receptors and EGFR, on the cell surface. Exhibits tyrosine phosphatase activity toward several substrates including EGFR, FAK, SYK, and ZAP70. Down-regulates proteins that are dually modified by both protein tyrosine phosphorylation and ubiquitination.

May be involved in the regulation of cellular senescence through a positive feedback loop with TP53. Is a TP53 downstream target gene that increases the stability of TP53 protein by promoting the ubiquitination and degradation of MDM2.

VCP/p97-binding protein required for ciliogenesis. Acts as a tethering factor that facilitates recruitment of VCP/p97 to the intraflagellar transport complex B (IFT- B) in cilia. UBX domain-containing proteins act as tethering factors for VCP/p97 and may specify substrate specificity of VCP/p97.

May be involved in the reorganization of actin cytoskeleton mediated by RND1, RND2 and RND3. Promotes RHOA activation mediated by GNA12 and GNA13 (By similarity).

Adapter protein required for Golgi and endoplasmic reticulum biogenesis. Involved in Golgi and endoplasmic reticulum maintenance during interphase and in their reassembly at the end of mitosis. The complex formed with VCP has membrane fusion activity; membrane fusion activity requires USO1-GOLGA2 tethering and BET1L. VCPIP1 is also required, but not its deubiquitinating activity. Together with NSFL1C/p47, regulates the centrosomal levels of kinase AURKA/Aurora A during mitotic progression by promoting AURKA removal from centrosomes in prophase. Also, regulates spindle orientation during mitosis.

Ubiquitin-binding protein that plays a role in the modulation of innate immune response. Blocks both the RIG-I-like receptors (RLR) and NF-kappa-B pathways. Following viral infection, UBXN1 is induced and recruited to the RLR component MAVS. In turn, interferes with MAVS oligomerization, and disrupts the MAVS/TRAF3/TRAF6 signalosome. This function probably serves as a brake to prevent excessive RLR signaling. Interferes with the TNFalpha-triggered NF-kappa-B pathway by interacting with cellular inhibitors of apoptosis proteins (cIAPs) and thereby inhibiting their recruitment to TNFR1. Prevents also the activation of NF-kappa-B by associating with CUL1 and thus inhibiting NF-kappa-B inhibitor alpha/NFKBIA degradation that remains bound to NF-kappa-B. Interacts with the BRCA1-BARD1 heterodimer and regulates its activity. Specifically binds 'Lys-6'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Interaction with autoubiquitinated BRCA1 leads to the inhibition of the E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity of the BRCA1- BARD1 heterodimer. Component of a complex required to couple deglycosylation and proteasome-mediated degradation of misfolded proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum that are retrotranslocated in the cytosol.

Involved in endoplasmic reticulum-associated protein degradation (ERAD). Acts as a platform to recruit both UBQLN1 and VCP to the ER during ERAD.

May negatively regulate the ATPase activity of VCP, an ATP- driven segregase that associates with different cofactors to control a wide variety of cellular processes. As a cofactor of VCP, it may play a role in the transport of CAV1 to lysosomes for degradation. It may also play a role in endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) of misfolded proteins. Together with VCP and other cofactors, it may play a role in macroautophagy, regulating for instance the clearance of damaged lysosomes.

Ubiquitin-binding adapter that links a subset of NEDD8- associated cullin ring ligases (CRLs) to the segregase VCP/p97, to regulate turnover of their ubiquitination substrates.

Ubiquitin-protein hydrolase involved both in the processing of ubiquitin precursors and of ubiquitinated proteins (Probable). This enzyme is a thiol protease that recognizes and hydrolyzes a peptide bond at the C-terminal glycine of ubiquitin. Also binds to free monoubiquitin and may prevent its degradation in lysosomes (By similarity). The homodimer may have ATP-independent ubiquitin ligase activity.

Deubiquitinating enzyme (DUB) that controls levels of cellular ubiquitin through processing of ubiquitin precursors and ubiquitinated proteins. Thiol protease that recognizes and hydrolyzes a peptide bond at the C-terminal glycine of either ubiquitin or NEDD8. Has a 10-fold preference for Arg and Lys at position P3'', and exhibits a preference towards 'Lys-48'-linked ubiquitin chains. Deubiquitinates ENAC in apical compartments, thereby regulating apical membrane recycling. Indirectly increases the phosphorylation of IGFIR, AKT and FOXO1 and promotes insulin-signaling and insulin-induced adipogenesis. Required for stress-response retinal, skeletal muscle and germ cell maintenance. May be involved in working memory. Can hydrolyze UBB(+1), a mutated form of ubiquitin which is not effectively degraded by the proteasome and is associated with neurogenerative disorders.

Protease that specifically cleaves 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitin chains. Deubiquitinating enzyme associated with the 19S regulatory subunit of the 26S proteasome. Putative regulatory component of the INO80 complex; however is inactive in the INO80 complex and is activated by a transient interaction of the INO80 complex with the proteasome via ADRM1.

Phosphorylates uridine and cytidine to uridine monophosphate and cytidine monophosphate. Does not phosphorylate deoxyribonucleosides or purine ribonucleosides. Can use ATP or GTP as a phosphate donor. Can also phosphorylate cytidine and uridine nucleoside analogs such as 6- azauridine, 5-fluorouridine, 4-thiouridine, 5-bromouridine, N(4)- acetylcytidine, N(4)-benzoylcytidine, 5-fluorocytidine, 2-thiocytidine, 5-methylcytidine, and N(4)-anisoylcytidine.

Phosphorylates uridine and cytidine to uridine monophosphate and cytidine monophosphate. Does not phosphorylate deoxyribonucleosides or purine ribonucleosides. Can use ATP or GTP as a phosphate donor. Can also phosphorylate cytidine and uridine nucleoside analogs such as 6-azauridine, 5-fluorouridine, 4- thiouridine, 5-bromouridine, N(4)-acetylcytidine, N(4)-benzoylcytidine, 5-fluorocytidine, 2-thiocytidine, 5-methylcytidine, and N(4)- anisoylcytidine.

May contribute to UTP accumulation needed for blast transformation and proliferation.

May be involved in the negative control of osteogenic differentiation of osteochondrogenic precursor cells in peripheral zones of fetal cartilage and at the cartilage-bone interface.

Acts in vitro to stimulate the secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Binds with high affinity to CRF receptor types 1, 2-alpha, and 2-beta. Plays a role in the establishment of normal hearing thresholds (By similarity). Reduces food intake and regulates ghrelin levels in gastric body and plasma (By similarity).

Suppresses food intake, delays gastric emptying and decreases heat-induced edema. Might represent an endogenous ligand for maintaining homeostasis after stress

Mitochondrial protein responsible for thermogenic respiration, a specialized capacity of brown adipose tissue and beige fat that participates in non-shivering adaptive thermogenesis to temperature and diet variations and more generally to the regulation of energy balance (By similarity). Functions as a long-chain fatty acid/LCFA and proton symporter, simultaneously transporting one LCFA and one proton through the inner mitochondrial membrane. However, LCFAs remaining associated with the transporter via their hydrophobic tails, it results in an apparent transport of protons activated by LCFAs. Thereby, dissipates the mitochondrial proton gradient and converts the energy of substrate oxydation into heat instead of ATP. Regulates the production of reactive oxygen species/ROS by mitochondria (By similarity).

UCP are mitochondrial transporter proteins that create proton leaks across the inner mitochondrial membrane, thus uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation from ATP synthesis. As a result, energy is dissipated in the form of heat

UCP are mitochondrial transporter proteins that create proton leaks across the inner mitochondrial membrane, thus uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation. As a result, energy is dissipated in the form of heat. May play a role in the modulation of tissue respiratory control. Participates in thermogenesis and energy balance

UCP are mitochondrial transporter proteins that create proton leaks across the inner mitochondrial membrane, thus uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation from ATP synthesis. As a result, energy is dissipated in the form of heat. May play a role in thermoregulatory heat production and metabolism in brain

Participates in the mitochondrial proton leak measured in brain mitochondria

[Cytochrome b-c1 complex subunit Rieske, mitochondrial]: Component of the ubiquinol-cytochrome c oxidoreductase, a multisubunit transmembrane complex that is part of the mitochondrial electron transport chain which drives oxidative phosphorylation. The respiratory chain contains 3 multisubunit complexes succinate dehydrogenase (complex II, CII), ubiquinol- cytochrome c oxidoreductase (cytochrome b-c1 complex, complex III, CIII) and cytochrome c oxidase (complex IV, CIV), that cooperate to transfer electrons derived from NADH and succinate to molecular oxygen, creating an electrochemical gradient over the inner membrane that drives transmembrane transport and the ATP synthase. The cytochrome b- c1 complex catalyzes electron transfer from ubiquinol to cytochrome c, linking this redox reaction to translocation of protons across the mitochondrial inner membrane, with protons being carried across the membrane as hydrogens on the quinol. In the process called Q cycle, 2 protons are consumed from the matrix, 4 protons are released into the intermembrane space and 2 electrons are passed to cytochrome c. The Rieske protein is a catalytic core subunit containing a [2Fe-2S] iron- sulfur cluster. It cycles between 2 conformational states during catalysis to transfer electrons from the quinol bound in the Q(0) site in cytochrome b to cytochrome c1 (By similarity). Incorporation of UQCRFS1 is the penultimate step in complex III assembly.

[Isoform 1]: UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) that catalyzes phase II biotransformation reactions in which lipophilic substrates are conjugated with glucuronic acid to increase the metabolite's water solubility, thereby facilitating excretion into either the urine or bile. Essential for the elimination and detoxification of drugs, xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. Catalyzes the glucuronidation of endogenous estrogen hormones such as estradiol, estrone and estriol. Also catalyzes the glucuronidation of the isoflavones genistein, daidzein, glycitein, formononetin, biochanin A and prunetin, which are phytoestrogens with anticancer and cardiovascular properties. Involved in the glucuronidation of the AGTR1 angiotensin receptor antagonist losartan, caderastan and zolarsatan, drugs which can inhibit the effect of angiotensin II.

[Isoform 1]: UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) that catalyzes phase II biotransformation reactions in which lipophilic substrates are conjugated with glucuronic acid to increase the metabolite's water solubility, thereby facilitating excretion into either the urine or bile. Essential for the elimination and detoxification of drugs, xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. Catalyzes the glucuronidation of endogenous estrogen hormones such as estradiol, estrone and estriol. Involved in the glucuronidation of bilirubin, a degradation product occurring in the normal catabolic pathway that breaks down heme in vertebrates. Also catalyzes the glucuronidation the isoflavones genistein, daidzein, glycitein, formononetin, biochanin A and prunetin, which are phytoestrogens with anticancer and cardiovascular properties. Involved in the glucuronidation of the AGTR1 angiotensin receptor antagonist losartan, a drug which can inhibit the effect of angiotensin II. Involved in the biotransformation of 7-ethyl-10- hydroxycamptothecin (SN-38), the pharmacologically active metabolite of the anticancer drug irinotecan.

[Isoform 1]: UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) that catalyzes phase II biotransformation reactions in which lipophilic substrates are conjugated with glucuronic acid to increase the metabolite's water solubility, thereby facilitating excretion into either the urine or bile. Essential for the elimination and detoxification of drugs, xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. Catalyzes the glucuronidation of endogenous estrogen hormones such as estradiol and estrone. Contributes to bile acid (BA) detoxification by catalyzing the glucuronidation of BA substrates, which are natural detergents for dietary lipids absorption. Involved in the glucuronidation of calcidiol, which is the major circulating form of vitamin D3, essential for the regulation of calcium and phosphate homeostasis. Involved in the glucuronidation of the AGTR1 angiotensin receptor antagonists losartan, candesartan and zolarsartan, which can inhibit the effect of angiotensin II.

[Isoform 1]: UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) that catalyzes phase II biotransformation reactions in which lipophilic substrates are conjugated with glucuronic acid to increase the metabolite's water solubility, thereby facilitating excretion into either the urine or bile. Essential for the elimination and detoxification of drugs, xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. Involved in the glucuronidation of calcidiol, which is the major circulating form of vitamin D3 essential for the regulation of calcium and phosphate homeostasis. Also glucuronidates the biologically active form of vitamin D3, calcitriol, probably leading to its biliary transport and intestinal reabsorption.

[Isoform 1]: UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) that catalyzes phase II biotransformation reactions in which lipophilic substrates are conjugated with glucuronic acid to increase the metabolite's water solubility, thereby facilitating excretion into either the urine or bile. Essential for the elimination and detoxification of drugs, xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. Involved in the glucuronidation of the AGTR1 angiotensin receptor antagonist zolarsatan, a drug which can inhibit the effect of angiotensin II.

UDPGT is of major importance in the conjugation and subsequent elimination of potentially toxic xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. This isoform has specificity for phenols. Isoform 3 lacks transferase activity but acts as a negative regulator of isoform 1 (By similarity).

[Isoform 1]: UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) that catalyzes phase II biotransformation reactions in which lipophilic substrates are conjugated with glucuronic acid to increase the metabolite's water solubility, thereby facilitating excretion into either the urine or bile. Essential for the elimination and detoxification of drugs, xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. Catalyzes the glucuronidation of endogenous estrogen hormone epiestradiol. Also catalyzes the glucuronidation of the isoflavones genistein, daidzein, glycitein, formononetin, biochanin A and prunetin, which are phytoestrogens with anticancer and cardiovascular properties. Involved in the glucuronidation of the AGTR1 angiotensin receptor antagonist caderastan, a drug which can inhibit the effect of angiotensin II. Involved in the biotransformation of 7-ethyl-10- hydroxycamptothecin (SN-38), the pharmacologically active metabolite of the anticancer drug irinotecan. Also metabolizes mycophenolate, an immunosuppressive agent.

[Isoform 1]: UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) that catalyzes phase II biotransformation reactions in which lipophilic substrates are conjugated with glucuronic acid to increase the metabolite's water solubility, thereby facilitating excretion into either the urine or bile. Essential for the elimination and detoxification of drugs, xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. Catalyzes the glucuronidation of endogenous steroid hormones such as androgens and estrogens. Produces dihydrotestosterone (DHT) diglucuronide from the DHT after two subsequent glucoronidation steps. Also catalyzes the glucuronidation of the isoflavones genistein, daidzein, glycitein, formononetin, biochanin A and prunetin, which are phytoestrogens with anticancer and cardiovascular properties. Involved in the glucuronidation of the AGTR1 angiotensin receptor antagonist caderastan, a drug which can inhibit the effect of angiotensin II. Also metabolizes mycophenolate, an immunosuppressive agent.

[Isoform 1]: UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) that catalyzes phase II biotransformation reactions in which lipophilic substrates are conjugated with glucuronic acid to increase the metabolite's water solubility, thereby facilitating excretion into either the urine or bile. Essential for the elimination and detoxification of drugs, xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. Catalyzes the glucuronidation of endogenous estrogen hormones such as estradiol and estrone. Also catalyzes the glucuronidation of the isoflavones genistein, daidzein, glycitein, formononetin, biochanin A and prunetin, which are phytoestrogens with anticancer and cardiovascular properties. Involved in the glucuronidation of the AGTR1 angiotensin receptor antagonist caderastan, a drug which can inhibit the effect of angiotensin II. Involved in the biotransformation of 7-ethyl-10- hydroxycamptothecin (SN-38), the pharmacologically active metabolite of the anticancer drug irinotecan. Also metabolizes mycophenolate, an immunosuppressive agent.

UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) that catalyzes phase II biotransformation reactions in which lipophilic substrates are conjugated with glucuronic acid to increase the metabolite's water solubility, thereby facilitating excretion into either the urine or bile. Essential for the elimination and detoxification of drugs, xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. Catalyzes the glucuronidation of endogenous steroid hormones such as androgens (testosterone and epitestosterone) and estrogens (estradiol and epiestriol). Contributes to bile acid (BA) detoxification by catalyzing the glucuronidation of BA substrates, which are natural detergents for dietary lipids absorption. Shows a high affinity to aliphatic odorants such as citronellol as well as olfactory tissue specificity, and therefore may be involved in olfaction. Shows a potential role in detoxification of toxic waste compounds in the amniotic fluid before birth, and air- born chemical after birth.

UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) that catalyzes phase II biotransformation reactions in which lipophilic substrates are conjugated with glucuronic acid to increase the metabolite's water solubility, thereby facilitating excretion into either the urine or bile. Essential for the elimination and detoxification of drugs, xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. Catalyzes the glucuronidation of endogenous estrogen hormone estradiol. Contributes to bile acid (BA) detoxification by catalyzing the glucuronidation of BA substrates, which are natural detergents for dietary lipids absorption. Shows a potential role in detoxification of toxic waste compounds in the amniotic fluid before birth, and air-born chemical after birth.

UDP-glucuronosyltransferases catalyze phase II biotransformation reactions in which lipophilic substrates are conjugated with glucuronic acid to increase water solubility and enhance excretion. They are of major importance in the conjugation and subsequent elimination of potentially toxic xenobiotics and endogenous compounds (By similarity).

UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) that catalyzes phase II biotransformation reactions in which lipophilic substrates are conjugated with glucuronic acid to increase the metabolite's water solubility, thereby facilitating excretion into either the urine or bile. Essential for the elimination and detoxification of drugs, xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. Catalyzes the glucuronidation of the endogenous estrogen hormones such as estradiol and estriol.

UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) that catalyzes phase II biotransformation reactions in which lipophilic substrates are conjugated with glucuronic acid to increase the metabolite's water solubility, thereby facilitating excretion into either the urine or bile. Essential for the elimination and detoxification of drugs, xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. Catalyzes the glucuronidation of endogenous steroid hormones such as androgens (epitestosterone, androsterone) and estrogens (estradiol, epiestradiol, estriol, catechol estrogens). Also regulates the levels of retinoic acid, a major metabolite of vitamin A involved in apoptosis, cellular growth and differentiation, and embryonic development. Contributes to bile acid (BA) detoxification by catalyzing the glucuronidation of BA substrates, which are natural detergents for dietary lipids absorption. Involved in the glucuronidation of the AGTR1 angiotensin receptor antagonist losartan, caderastan and zolarsatan, drugs which can inhibit the effect of angiotensin II. Also metabolizes mycophenolate, an immunosuppressive agent.

UDPGT is of major importance in the conjugation and subsequent elimination of potentially toxic xenobiotics and endogenous compounds

UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) that catalyzes phase II biotransformation reactions in which lipophilic substrates are conjugated with glucuronic acid to increase the metabolite's water solubility, thereby facilitating excretion into either the urine or bile. Essential for the elimination and detoxification of drugs, xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. Catalyzes the glucuronidation of endogenous steroid hormones such as androgens (testosterone, androsterone) and estrogens (estradiol, epiestradiol, estriol, catechol estrogens). Displays glucuronidation activity toward several classes of xenobiotic substrates, including phenolic compounds (eugenol, 4-nitrophenol, 4- hydroxybiphenyl) and phenylpropanoids (naringenin, coumarins). Catalyzes the glucuronidation of monoterpenoid alcohols such as borneol, menthol and isomenthol, a class of natural compounds used in essential oils (By similarity).

UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) that catalyzes phase II biotransformation reactions in which lipophilic substrates are conjugated with glucuronic acid to increase the metabolite's water solubility, thereby facilitating excretion into either the urine or bile. Catalyzes the glucuronidation of endogenous steroid hormones such as androgens (epitestosterone, androsterone) and estrogens (estradiol, epiestradiol).

[Isoform 1]: UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) that catalyzes phase II biotransformation reactions in which lipophilic substrates are conjugated with glucuronic acid to increase the metabolite's water solubility, thereby facilitating excretion into either the urine or bile. Essential for the elimination and detoxification of drugs, xenobiotics and endogenous compounds. Catalyzes the glucuronidation of endogenous steroid hormones such as androgens (androsterone, 3alpha-androstanediol) and estrogens (estradiol, estrone). Catalyzes the glucuronidation of bile acid substrates, which are natural detergents for dietary lipids absorption. Displays glucuronidation activity toward the phenolic compounds eugenol.

E1-like enzyme which specifically catalyzes the second step in ufmylation. Accepts the ubiquitin-like modifier UFM1 from the E1 enzyme UBA5 and forms an intermediate with UFM1 via a thioester linkage. Ufmylation is involved in reticulophagy (also called ER-phagy) induced in response to endoplasmic reticulum stress.

Essential component of the ubiquitin-dependent proteolytic pathway which degrades ubiquitin fusion proteins. The ternary complex containing UFD1, VCP and NPLOC4 binds ubiquitinated proteins and is necessary for the export of misfolded proteins from the ER to the cytoplasm, where they are degraded by the proteasome. The NPLOC4-UFD1- VCP complex regulates spindle disassembly at the end of mitosis and is necessary for the formation of a closed nuclear envelope. It may be involved in the development of some ectoderm-derived structures (By similarity). Acts as a negative regulator of type I interferon production via the complex formed with VCP and NPLOC4, which binds to RIGI and recruits RNF125 to promote ubiquitination and degradation of RIGI.

E3 protein ligase that mediates ufmylation, the covalent attachment of the ubiquitin-like modifier UFM1 to lysine residues on target proteins, and which plays a key role in reticulophagy (also called ER-phagy) induced in response to endoplasmic reticulum stress. In response to endoplasmic reticulum stress, recruited to the endoplasmic reticulum membrane by DDRGK1, and mediates ufmylation of proteins such as RPN1 and RPL26/uL24, thereby promoting reticulophagy of endoplasmic reticulum sheets. Ufmylation-dependent reticulophagy inhibits the unfolded protein response (UPR) via ERN1/IRE1-alpha. Ufmylation in response to endoplasmic reticulum stress is essential for processes such as hematopoiesis, blood vessel morphogenesis or inflammatory response. Regulates inflammation in response to endoplasmic reticulum stress by promoting reticulophagy, leading to inhibit the activity of the NF-kappa-B transcription factor (By similarity). Mediates ufmylation of DDRGK1 and CDK5RAP3; the role of these modifications is however unclear: as both DDRGK1 and CDK5RAP3 act as substrate adapters for ufmylation, it is uncertain whether ufmylation of these proteins is a collateral effect or is required for ufmylation. Catalyzes ufmylation of various subunits of the ribosomal complex or associated components, such as RPS3/uS3, RPS20/uS10, RPL10/uL16, RPL26/uL24 and EIF6 (By similarity). Anchors CDK5RAP3 in the cytoplasm, preventing its translocation to the nucleus which allows expression of the CCND1 cyclin and progression of cells through the G1/S transition. Also involved in the response to DNA damage: recruited to double-strand break sites following DNA damage and mediates monoufmylation of histone H4. Catalyzes ufmylation of TRIP4, thereby playing a role in nuclear receptor- mediated transcription. Required for hematopoietic stem cell function and hematopoiesis (By similarity). Required for cardiac homeostasis (By similarity).

Ubiquitin-like modifier which can be covalently attached via an isopeptide bond to lysine residues of substrate proteins as a monomer or a lysine-linked polymer. The so-called ufmylation, requires the UFM1-activating E1 enzyme UBA5, the UFM1-conjugating E2 enzyme UFC1, and the UFM1-ligase E3 enzyme UFL1. Ufmylation is involved in reticulophagy (also called ER-phagy) induced in response to endoplasmic reticulum stress. Ufmylation of TRIP4 regulates nuclear receptors-mediated transcription.

Receptor tyrosine kinase that transduces signals from the extracellular matrix into the cytoplasm by binding growth factor GAS6 and which is thus regulating many physiological processes including cell survival, cell proliferation, migration and differentiation. Ligand binding at the cell surface induces dimerization and autophosphorylation of AXL. Following activation by ligand, AXL binds and induces tyrosine phosphorylation of PI3-kinase subunits PIK3R1, PIK3R2 and PIK3R3; but also GRB2, PLCG1, LCK and PTPN11. Other downstream substrate candidates for AXL are CBL, NCK2, SOCS1 and TNS2. Recruitment of GRB2 and phosphatidylinositol 3 kinase regulatory subunits by AXL leads to the downstream activation of the AKT kinase. GAS6/AXL signaling plays a role in various processes such as endothelial cell survival during acidification by preventing apoptosis, optimal cytokine signaling during human natural killer cell development, hepatic regeneration, gonadotropin-releasing hormone neuron survival and migration, platelet activation, or regulation of thrombotic responses. Also plays an important role in inhibition of Toll-like receptors (TLRs)-mediated innate immune response.

Thiol-dependent isopeptidase that recognizes and hydrolyzes the peptide bond at the C-terminal Gly of UFM1, a ubiquitin-like modifier protein bound to a number of target proteins. Does not hydrolyze SUMO1 or ISG15 ubiquitin-like proteins. Through TRIP4 deufmylation may regulate intracellular nuclear receptors transactivation and thereby regulate cell proliferation and differentiation.

Catalyzes the formation of UDP-alpha-D-glucuronate, a constituent of complex glycosaminoglycans. Required for the biosynthesis of chondroitin sulfate and heparan sulfate. Required for embryonic development via its role in the biosynthesis of glycosaminoglycans (By similarity). Required for proper brain and neuronal development.

Recognizes glycoproteins with minor folding defects. Reglucosylates single N-glycans near the misfolded part of the protein, thus providing quality control for protein folding in the endoplasmic reticulum. Reglucosylated proteins are recognized by calreticulin for recycling to the endoplasmic reticulum and refolding or degradation.

UTP--glucose-1-phosphate uridylyltransferase catalyzing the conversion of glucose-1-phosphate into UDP-glucose, a crucial precursor for the production of glycogen.

Upon serum stimulation, phosphorylates CDKN1B/p27Kip1, thus controlling CDKN1B subcellular location and cell cycle progression in G1 phase. May be involved in trafficking and/or processing of RNA (By similarity).

Multidomain protein that acts as a key epigenetic regulator by bridging DNA methylation and chromatin modification. Specifically recognizes and binds hemimethylated DNA at replication forks via its YDG domain and recruits DNMT1 methyltransferase to ensure faithful propagation of the DNA methylation patterns through DNA replication. In addition to its role in maintenance of DNA methylation, also plays a key role in chromatin modification: through its tudor-like regions and PHD-type zinc fingers, specifically recognizes and binds histone H3 trimethylated at 'Lys-9' (H3K9me3) and unmethylated at 'Arg-2' (H3R2me0), respectively, and recruits chromatin proteins. Enriched in pericentric heterochromatin where it recruits different chromatin modifiers required for this chromatin replication. Also localizes to euchromatic regions where it negatively regulates transcription possibly by impacting DNA methylation and histone modifications. Has E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity by mediating the ubiquitination of target proteins such as histone H3 and PML. It is still unclear how E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity is related to its role in chromatin in vivo. Plays a role in DNA repair by cooperating with UHRF1 to ensure recruitment of FANCD2 to interstrand cross-links (ICLs) leading to FANCD2 activation.

E3 ubiquitin ligase that plays important roles in DNA methylation, histone modifications, cell cycle and DNA repair. Acts as a specific reader for 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC) and thereby recruits various substrates to these sites to ubiquitinate them. This activity also allows the maintenance of 5mC levels at specific genomic loci and regulates neuron-related gene expression (By similarity). Participates in cell cycle regulation by ubiquitinating cyclins CCND1 and CCNE1 and thereby inducing G1 arrest. Ubiquitinates also PCNP leading to its degradation by the proteasome. Plays an active role in DNA damage repair by ubiquitinating p21/CDKN1A leading to its proteosomal degradation. Promotes also DNA repair by acting as an interstrand cross-links (ICLs) sensor. Mechanistically, cooperates with UHRF1 to ensure recruitment of FANCD2 to ICLs, leading to FANCD2 monoubiquitination and subsequent activation. Contributes to UV-induced DNA damage response by physically interacting with ATR in response to irradiation, thereby promoting ATR activation.

Required for mRNA export from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. Acts as an adapter that uses the DDX39B/UAP56-NFX1 pathway to ensure efficient mRNA export and delivering to the nuclear pore. Associates with spliced and unspliced mRNAs simultaneously with ALYREF/THOC4.

Ubiquitin-binding protein. Specifically recognizes and binds 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin (PubMed:19328070, Ref.38). Plays a central role in the BRCA1-A complex by specifically binding 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitinated histones H2A and H2AX at DNA lesions sites, leading to target the BRCA1-BARD1 heterodimer to sites of DNA damage at double-strand breaks (DSBs). The BRCA1-A complex also possesses deubiquitinase activity that specifically removes 'Lys-63'- linked ubiquitin on histones H2A and H2AX. Also weakly binds monoubiquitin but with much less affinity than 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin. May interact with monoubiquitinated histones H2A and H2B; the relevance of such results is however unclear in vivo. Does not bind Lys-48'-linked ubiquitin. May indirectly act as a transcriptional repressor by inhibiting the interaction of NR6A1 with the corepressor NCOR1.

Regulatory subunit of the dimeric UBA3-NAE1 E1 enzyme. E1 activates NEDD8 by first adenylating its C-terminal glycine residue with ATP, thereafter linking this residue to the side chain of the catalytic cysteine, yielding a NEDD8-UBA3 thioester and free AMP. E1 finally transfers NEDD8 to the catalytic cysteine of UBE2M. Necessary for cell cycle progression through the S-M checkpoint. Overexpression of NAE1 causes apoptosis through deregulation of NEDD8 conjugation.

[Isoform 1]: Binds and activates the KLRK1/NKG2D receptor, mediating natural killer cell cytotoxicity.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in autophagy in response to starvation. Acts upstream of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase PIK3C3 to regulate the formation of autophagophores, the precursors of autophagosomes. Part of regulatory feedback loops in autophagy: acts both as a downstream effector and negative regulator of mammalian target of rapamycin complex 1 (mTORC1) via interaction with RPTOR. Activated via phosphorylation by AMPK and also acts as a regulator of AMPK by mediating phosphorylation of AMPK subunits PRKAA1, PRKAB2 and PRKAG1, leading to negatively regulate AMPK activity. May phosphorylate ATG13/KIAA0652 and RPTOR; however such data need additional evidences. Plays a role early in neuronal differentiation and is required for granule cell axon formation. May also phosphorylate SESN2 and SQSTM1 to regulate autophagy. Phosphorylates FLCN, promoting autophagy. Phosphorylates AMBRA1 in response to autophagy induction, releasing AMBRA1 from the cytoskeletal docking site to induce autophagosome nucleation. Phosphorylates ATG4B, leading to inhibit autophagy by decreasing both proteolytic activation and delipidation activities of ATG4B.

Serine/threonine-protein kinase involved in autophagy in response to starvation. Acts upstream of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase PIK3C3 to regulate the formation of autophagophores, the precursors of autophagosomes. Part of regulatory feedback loops in autophagy: acts both as a downstream effector and a negative regulator of mammalian target of rapamycin complex 1 (mTORC1) via interaction with RPTOR. Activated via phosphorylation by AMPK, also acts as a negative regulator of AMPK through phosphorylation of the AMPK subunits PRKAA1, PRKAB2 and PRKAG1. May phosphorylate ATG13/KIAA0652, FRS2, FRS3 and RPTOR; however such data need additional evidences. Not involved in ammonia-induced autophagy or in autophagic response of cerebellar granule neurons (CGN) to low potassium concentration. Plays a role early in neuronal differentiation and is required for granule cell axon formation: may govern axon formation via Ras-like GTPase signaling and through regulation of the Rab5-mediated endocytic pathways within developing axons.

Serine/threonine protein kinase that acts as a regulator of Sonic hedgehog (SHH) signaling and autophagy. Acts as a negative regulator of SHH signaling in the absence of SHH ligand: interacts with SUFU, thereby inactivating the protein kinase activity and preventing phosphorylation of GLI proteins (GLI1, GLI2 and/or GLI3). Positively regulates SHH signaling in the presence of SHH: dissociates from SUFU, autophosphorylates and mediates phosphorylation of GLI2, activating it and promoting its nuclear translocation. Phosphorylates in vitro GLI2, as well as GLI1 and GLI3, although less efficiently. Also acts as a regulator of autophagy: following cellular senescence, able to induce autophagy.

May be involved in the remodeling of cytoskeletal components, such as alpha-tubulin, and in this way regulates neurite branching and elongation, as well as cell motility.

Bifunctional enzyme catalyzing the last two steps of de novo pyrimidine biosynthesis, orotate phosphoribosyltransferase (OPRT), which converts orotate to orotidine-5'-monophosphate (OMP), and orotidine-5'-monophosphate decarboxylase (ODC), the terminal enzymatic reaction that decarboxylates OMP to uridine monophosphate (UMP).

Plays a role in vesicle maturation during exocytosis as a target of the diacylglycerol second messenger pathway. Involved in neurotransmitter release by acting in synaptic vesicle priming prior to vesicle fusion and participates in the activity-dependent refilling of readily releasable vesicle pool (RRP). Essential for synaptic vesicle maturation in most excitatory/glutamatergic but not inhibitory/GABA- mediated synapses. Facilitates neuronal dense core vesicles fusion as well as controls the location and efficiency of their synaptic release (By similarity). Also involved in secretory granule priming in insulin secretion. Plays a role in dendrite formation by melanocytes.

May play a role in vesicle maturation during exocytosis as a target of the diacylglycerol second messenger pathway. May be involved in the regulation of synaptic transmission at parallel fiber - Purkinje cell synapses (By similarity).

Plays a role in cytotoxic granule exocytosis in lymphocytes. Required for both granule maturation and granule docking and priming at the immunologic synapse. Regulates assembly of recycling and late endosomal structures, leading to the formation of an endosomal exocytic compartment that fuses with perforin-containing granules at the immunologic synapse and licences them for exocytosis. Regulates Ca(2+)- dependent secretory lysosome exocytosis in mast cells.

Acts as co-chaperone for HSP90. Prevents the stimulation of HSP90AB1 ATPase activity by AHSA1. Positive factor in promoting PGR function in the cell. May be necessary for proper folding of myosin (Potential). Necessary for normal cell proliferation. Necessary for normal myotube formation and myosin accumulation during muscle cell development. May play a role in erythropoiesis in stroma cells in the spleen (By similarity).

Acts as a co-chaperone for HSP90 and is required for proper folding of the myosin motor domain. Plays a role in sarcomere formation during muscle cell development. Is necessary for normal early lens development.

Inhibits NF-kappa-B-dependent transcription by impairing NF- kappa-B binding to its targets.

Plays an important role in innate and adaptive immunity by regulating nucleotide-sensing Toll-like receptor (TLR) signaling. Required for the transport of a subset of TLRs (including TLR3, TLR7 and TLR9) from the endoplasmic reticulum to endolysosomes where they can engage pathogen nucleotides and activate signaling cascades. May play a role in autoreactive B-cells removal.

Transcription factor involved in somitogenesis and neurogenesis. Required for the maintenance and differentiation of particular elements of the axial skeleton. May act upstream of PAX9. Plays a role in controlling the development of connections of hypothalamic neurons to pituitary elements, allowing central neurons to reach the peripheral blood circulation and to deliver hormones for control of peripheral functions (By similarity).

Involved in the cell surface expression of neuronal nicotinic receptors (By similarity). Binds RNA (By similarity).

Receptor for netrin required for axon guidance. Functions in the netrin signaling pathway and promotes neurite outgrowth in response to NTN1. Mediates axon repulsion of neuronal growth cones in the developing nervous system in response to netrin. Axon repulsion in growth cones may be mediated by its association with DCC that may trigger signaling for repulsion. It also acts as a dependence receptor required for apoptosis induction when not associated with netrin ligand.

Receptor for netrin required for axon guidance. Mediates axon repulsion of neuronal growth cones in the developing nervous system upon ligand binding. Axon repulsion in growth cones may be caused by its association with DCC that may trigger signaling for repulsion (By similarity). Functions as netrin receptor that negatively regulates vascular branching during angiogenesis. Mediates retraction of tip cell filopodia on endothelial growth cones in response to netrin (By similarity). It also acts as a dependence receptor required for apoptosis induction when not associated with netrin ligand. Mediates apoptosis by activating DAPK1. In the absence of NTN1, activates DAPK1 by reducing its autoinhibitory phosphorylation at Ser-308 thereby increasing its catalytic activity (By similarity).

Receptor for netrin required for axon guidance (By similarity). Mediates axon repulsion of neuronal growth cones in the developing nervous system upon ligand binding (By similarity). NTN1/Netrin-1 binding might cause dissociation of UNC5C from polymerized TUBB3 in microtubules and thereby lead to increased microtubule dynamics and axon repulsion. Axon repulsion in growth cones may also be caused by its association with DCC that may trigger signaling for repulsion (By similarity). Might also collaborate with DSCAM in NTN1-mediated axon repulsion independently of DCC (By similarity). Also involved in corticospinal tract axon guidance independently of DCC (By similarity). Involved in dorsal root ganglion axon projection towards the spinal cord. It also acts as a dependence receptor required for apoptosis induction when not associated with netrin ligand (By similarity).

Receptor for the netrin NTN4 that promotes neuronal cell survival (By similarity). Plays a role in cell-cell adhesion and cell guidance. Receptor for netrin involved in cell migration. Plays a role in axon guidance by mediating axon repulsion of neuronal growth cones in the developing nervous system upon ligand binding (By similarity). May play a role in apoptosis in response to DNA damage. It also acts as a dependence receptor required for apoptosis induction when not associated with netrin ligand. Mediates cell-cell adhesion via its interaction with FLRT3 on an adjacent cell (By similarity).

Excises uracil residues from the DNA which can arise as a result of misincorporation of dUMP residues by DNA polymerase or due to deamination of cytosine

Sequence-specific RNA-binding protein which plays an important role in the establishment and maintenance of the early morphology of cortical neurons during embryonic development. Acts as a translation repressor and controls a translationally regulated cell morphology program to ensure proper structuring of the nervous system. Translational control depends on recognition of its binding element within target mRNAs which consists of a mandatory UAG trimer upstream of a U/A-rich motif. Associated with polysomes.

Acts as a receptor for urokinase plasminogen activator. Plays a role in localizing and promoting plasmin formation. Mediates the proteolysis-independent signal transduction activation effects of U-PA. It is subject to negative-feedback regulation by U-PA which cleaves it into an inactive form

Component of the asymmetric unit membrane (AUM); a highly specialized biomembrane elaborated by terminally differentiated urothelial cells. May play an important role in normal bladder epithelial physiology, possibly in regulating membrane permeability of superficial umbrella cells or in stabilizing the apical membrane through AUM/cytoskeletal interactions (By similarity).

Component of the asymmetric unit membrane (AUM); a highly specialized biomembrane elaborated by terminally differentiated urothelial cells. May play an important role in regulating the assembly of the AUM (By similarity).

Component of the asymmetric unit membrane (AUM); a highly specialized biomembrane elaborated by terminally differentiated urothelial cells. May play an important role in AUM-cytoskeleton interaction in terminally differentiated urothelial cells. It also contributes to the formation of urothelial glycocalyx which may play an important role in preventing bacterial adherence (By similarity).

Catalyzes the reversible phosphorylytic cleavage of uridine and deoxyuridine to uracil and ribose- or deoxyribose-1-phosphate. The produced molecules are then utilized as carbon and energy sources or in the rescue of pyrimidine bases for nucleotide synthesis.

Catalyzes the reversible phosphorylytic cleavage of uridine and deoxyuridine to uracil and ribose- or deoxyribose-1-phosphate. The produced molecules are then utilized as carbon and energy sources or in the rescue of pyrimidine bases for nucleotide synthesis (Probable). Shows broad substrate specificity and accepts uridine, deoxyuridine, and thymidine as well as the two pyrimidine nucleoside analogs 5-fluorouridine and 5-fluoro- 2(')-deoxyuridine as substrates.

Required for the assembly of the ubiquinol-cytochrome c reductase complex (mitochondrial respiratory chain complex III or cytochrome b-c1 complex). Involved in cytochrome b translation and/or stability.

Required for the assembly of the ubiquinol-cytochrome c reductase complex (mitochondrial respiratory chain complex III or cytochrome b-c1 complex). Plays a role in the modulation of respiratory chain activities such as oxygen consumption and ATP production and via its modulation of the respiratory chain activity can regulate skeletal muscle differentiation and insulin secretion by pancreatic beta-cells. Involved in cytochrome b translation and/or stability.

Required for the assembly of the ubiquinol-cytochrome c reductase complex (mitochondrial respiratory chain complex III or cytochrome b-c1 complex), mediating cytochrome b recruitment and probably stabilization within the complex. Thereby, plays an important role in ATP production by mitochondria. Cardiolipin-binding protein, it may also control the cardiolipin composition of mitochondria membranes and their morphology.

High affinity receptor for urotensin-2 and urotensin-2B. The activity of this receptor is mediated by a G-protein that activate a phosphatidylinositol-calcium second messenger system.

Catalyzes the stereoselective decarboxylation of 2-oxo-4- hydroxy-4-carboxy-5-ureidoimidazoline (OHCU) to (S)-allantoin.

Essential for hematopietic stem cell development through the regulation of p53/TP53 pathway.

May be involved in cell cycle progression through the regulation of cyclin D1 expression. May participate in the development of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) by promoting hepatocellular growth and survival. May play an important role in development of gastric cancer.

Acts as a sulfur carrier required for 2-thiolation of mcm(5)S(2)U at tRNA wobble positions of cytosolic tRNA(Lys), tRNA(Glu) and tRNA(Gln). Serves as sulfur donor in tRNA 2-thiolation reaction by being thiocarboxylated (-COSH) at its C-terminus by MOCS3. The sulfur is then transferred to tRNA to form 2-thiolation of mcm(5)S(2)U. Also acts as a ubiquitin-like protein (UBL) that is covalently conjugated via an isopeptide bond to lysine residues of target proteins such as MOCS3, ATPBD3, CTU2, USP15 and CAS. The thiocarboxylated form serves as substrate for conjugation and oxidative stress specifically induces the formation of UBL-protein conjugates.

Specifically cleaves the zymogen plasminogen to form the active enzyme plasmin

[Uromodulin]: Functions in biogenesis and organization of the apical membrane of epithelial cells of the thick ascending limb of Henle's loop (TALH), where it promotes formation of complex filamentous gel-like structure that may play a role in the water barrier permeability (Probable). May serve as a receptor for binding and endocytosis of cytokines (IL-1, IL-2) and TNF. Facilitates neutrophil migration across renal epithelia.

Plays a central role in cell adhesion in hematopoietic cells. Acts by activating the integrin beta-1-3 (ITGB1, ITGB2 and ITGB3) (By similarity). Required for integrin-mediated platelet adhesion and leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells. Required for activation of integrin beta-2 (ITGB2) in polymorphonuclear granulocytes (PMNs) (By similarity).

Acts as a GTPase-activating protein for RAB5A and RAB43. Involved in receptor trafficking. In complex with EPS8 inhibits internalization of EGFR. Involved in retrograde transport from the endocytic pathway to the Golgi apparatus. Involved in the transport of Shiga toxin from early and recycling endosomes to the trans-Golgi network. Required for structural integrity of the Golgi complex.

3'-5' RNA exonuclease that trims the 3' end of oligo(U) and oligo(A) tracts of the pre-U6 small nuclear RNA (snRNA) molecule, leading to the formation of a mature U6 snRNA 3' end-terminated with a 2',3'-cyclic phosphate. Participates in the U6 snRNA 3' end processing that prevents U6 snRNA degradation. In addition also removes uridines from the 3' end of U6atac snRNA and possibly the vault RNA VTRNA1-1.

SNARE that may be involved in targeting and fusion of Golgi- derived retrograde transport vesicles with the ER.

Transcription factor that binds to a symmetrical DNA sequence (E-boxes) (5'-CACGTG-3') that is found in a variety of viral and cellular promoters

Involved in the negative regulation of epithelial-mesenchymal transition, the process by which epithelial cells lose their polarity and adhesion properties to become mesenchymal cells with enhanced migration and invasive properties.

Anchoring/scaffolding protein that is a part of the functional network formed by USH1C, USH1G, CDH23 and MYO7A that mediates mechanotransduction in cochlear hair cells. Required for normal development and maintenance of cochlear hair cell bundles (By similarity). As part of the intermicrovillar adhesion complex/IMAC plays a role in brush border differentiation, controlling microvilli organization and length. Probably plays a central regulatory role in the assembly of the complex, recruiting CDHR2, CDHR5 and MYO7B to the microvilli tips.

Plays a role in pre-mRNA splicing by regulating the release and transfer of U4/U6.U5 tri-small nuclear ribonucleoprotein (tri- snRNP) complexes from their assembly site in Cajal bodies to nuclear speckles, thereby contributing to the assembly of the pre-catalytic spliceosome on target pre-mRNAs. May also participate in recycling of snRNPs back to Cajal bodies during splicing. Plays a role in regulating MAGI2-mediated endocytosis. Anchoring/scaffolding protein that is a part of the functional network formed by USH1C, USH1G, CDH23 and MYO7A that mediates mechanotransduction in cochlear hair cells. Required for normal development and maintenance of cochlear hair cell bundles. Required for normal hearing.

Involved in hearing and vision as member of the USH2 complex. In the inner ear, required for the maintenance of the hair bundle ankle formation, which connects growing stereocilia in developing cochlear hair cells. In retina photoreceptors, the USH2 complex is required for the maintenance of periciliary membrane complex that seems to play a role in regulating intracellular protein transport.

General vesicular transport factor required for intercisternal transport in the Golgi stack; it is required for transcytotic fusion and/or subsequent binding of the vesicles to the target membrane. May well act as a vesicular anchor by interacting with the target membrane and holding the vesicular and target membranes in proximity.

Deubiquitinase involved both in the processing of ubiquitin precursors and of ubiquitinated proteins. May therefore play an important regulatory role at the level of protein turnover by preventing degradation of proteins through the removal of conjugated ubiquitin. Specifically hydrolyzes 'Lys-63'-, 'Lys-48'-, 'Lys-29'- and 'Lys-33'-linked polyubiquitins chains. Essential component of TGF-beta/BMP signaling cascade. Specifically deubiquitinates monoubiquitinated SMAD4, opposing the activity of E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase TRIM33. Deubiquitinates alkylation repair enzyme ALKBH3. OTUD4 recruits USP7 and USP9X to stabilize ALKBH3, thereby promoting the repair of alkylated DNA lesions. Deubiquitinates mTORC2 complex component RICTOR at 'Lys-294' by removing 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains, stabilizing RICTOR and enhancing its binding to MTOR, thus promoting mTORC2 complex assembly. Regulates chromosome alignment and segregation in mitosis by regulating the localization of BIRC5/survivin to mitotic centromeres. Involved in axonal growth and neuronal cell migration. Regulates cellular clock function by enhancing the protein stability and transcriptional activity of the core circadian protein BMAL1 via its deubiquitinating activity. Acts as a regulator of peroxisome import by mediating deubiquitination of PEX5: specifically deubiquitinates PEX5 monoubiquitinated at 'Cys-11' following its retrotranslocation into the cytosol, resetting PEX5 for a subsequent import cycle. Deubiquitinates PEG10 (By similarity).

May function as a ubiquitin-protein or polyubiquitin hydrolase involved both in the processing of ubiquitin precursors and of ubiquitinated proteins. May therefore play an important regulatory role at the level of protein turnover by preventing degradation of proteins through the removal of conjugated ubiquitin. Essential component of TGF-beta/BMP signaling cascade. Deubiquitinates monoubiquitinated SMAD4, opposing the activity of E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase TRIM33. Monoubiquitination of SMAD4 hampers its ability to form a stable complex with activated SMAD2/3 resulting in inhibition of TGF- beta/BMP signaling cascade. Deubiquitination of SMAD4 by USP9X re- empowers its competence to mediate TGF-beta signaling (By similarity).

SUMO-specific isopeptidase involved in protein desumoylation. Specifically binds SUMO proteins with a higher affinity for SUMO2 and SUMO3 which it cleaves more efficiently. Also able to process full- length SUMO proteins to their mature forms. Plays a key role in RNA polymerase-II-mediated snRNA transcription in the Cajal bodies. Is a component of complexes that can bind to U snRNA genes.

Sulfotransferase that catalyzes the transfer of sulfate to the position 2 of uronyl residues. Has mainly activity toward iduronyl residues in dermatan sulfate, and weaker activity toward glucuronyl residues of chondroitin sulfate. Has no activity toward desulfated N- resulfated heparin

Essential for spermatogenesis. May be required specifically for ribosome biogenesis and hence protein synthesis during male meiosis (By similarity).

Mediates the transport of urea driven by a concentration gradient across the cell membrane of erythrocytes. Also mediates the transport of urea across the cell membrane of the renal inner medullary collecting duct which is critical to the urinary concentrating mechanism (By similarity). Facilitates water transport in erythrocytes (By similarity).

[Isoform 1]: Mediates the transport of urea driven by a concentration gradient across the cell membrane of the renal inner medullary collecting duct which is critical to the urinary concentrating mechanism.

Binds phosphatidylcholine, phosphatidylinositol, polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB) and weakly progesterone, potent inhibitor of phospholipase A2

Component of the ribosomal small subunit processome for the biogenesis of ribosomes, functions in pre-ribosomal RNA (pre-rRNA) processing (By similarity). Essential for embryonic development in part through the regulation of p53 pathway. Controls the expansion growth of digestive organs and liver. Also involved in the sympathetic neuronal development (By similarity). Mediates, with CAPN3, the proteasome-independent degradation of p53/TP53.

Ribosome biogenesis factor. Involved in nucleolar processing of pre-18S ribosomal RNA. Involved in small subunit (SSU) pre-rRNA processing at sites A', A0, 1 and 2b. Required for optimal pre- ribosomal RNA transcription by RNA polymerase. May be a transcriptional regulator. Acts as a positive regulator of HIVEP1 which specifically binds to the DNA sequence 5'-GGGACTTTCC-3' found in enhancer elements of numerous viral promoters such as those of HIV-1, SV40, or CMV.

May play a role in anchoring the cytoskeleton to the plasma membrane.

Versatile protein that is involved in regulation of different cellular pathways implicated in membrane trafficking. Involved in regulation of the COPI-dependent retrograde transport from Golgi and the endoplasmic reticulum by associating with the NRZ complex; the function is dependent on its binding to phosphatidylinositol 3- phosphate (PtdIns(3)P). During autophagy acts as regulatory subunit of the alternative PI3K complex II (PI3KC3- C2) that mediates formation of phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate and is believed to be involved in maturation of autophagosomes and endocytosis. Activates lipid kinase activity of PIK3C3. Involved in the regulation of degradative endocytic trafficking and cytokinesis, and in regulation of ATG9A transport from the Golgi to the autophagosome; the functions seems to implicate its association with PI3KC3-C2. Involved in maturation of autophagosomes and degradative endocytic trafficking independently of BECN1 but depending on its association with a class C Vps complex (possibly the HOPS complex); the association is also proposed to promote autophagosome recruitment and activation of Rab7 and endosome-endosome fusion events. Enhances class C Vps complex (possibly HOPS complex) association with a SNARE complex and promotes fusogenic SNARE complex formation during late endocytic membrane fusion. In case of negative- strand RNA virus infection is required for efficient virus entry, promotes endocytic transport of virions and is implicated in a VAMP8- specific fusogenic SNARE complex assembly.

Factor involved in transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair (TC-NER), a mechanism that rapidly removes RNA polymerase II- blocking lesions from the transcribed strand of active genes. Facilitates the ubiquitination of the elongating form of RNA polymerase II (RNA pol IIo) at DNA damage sites, thereby promoting RNA pol IIo backtracking and access by the TC-NER machinery to lesion sites. Acts by promoting stabilization of ERCC6 by recruiting deubiquitinating enzyme USP7 to TC-NER complexes, preventing UV-induced degradation of ERCC6 by the proteasome. Also facilitates transfer of TFIIH to RNA polymerase II. Not involved in processing oxidative damage.

Catalyzes the NAD-dependent decarboxylation of UDP-glucuronic acid to UDP-xylose. Necessary for the biosynthesis of the core tetrasaccharide in glycosaminoglycan biosynthesis.

Involved in gene transcription regulation. Acts in concert with the corepressor URI1 to regulate androgen receptor AR-mediated transcription. Together with URI1, associates with chromatin to the NKX3-1 promoter region. Negatively regulates the transcriptional activity of the estrogen receptor ESR1 by inducing its translocation into the cytoplasm. May act as nuclear chaperone that facilitates the formation of the NF-kappa-B enhanceosome and thus positively regulates NF-kappa-B transcription activity. Potential component of mitochondrial-associated LRPPRC, a multidomain organizer that potentially integrates mitochondria and the microtubular cytoskeleton with chromosome remodeling. Increasing concentrations of UXT contributes to progressive aggregation of mitochondria and cell death potentially through its association with LRPPRC. Suppresses cell transformation and it might mediate this function by interaction and inhibition of the biological activity of cell proliferation and survival stimulatory factors like MECOM.

Receptor for arginine vasopressin. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate a phosphatidyl- inositol-calcium second messenger system. Has been involved in social behaviors, including affiliation and attachment.

Receptor for arginine vasopressin. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate a phosphatidyl- inositol-calcium second messenger system

Receptor for arginine vasopressin. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylate cyclase. Involved in renal water reabsorption.

Subunit of the V0 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment. May play a role in coupling of proton transport and ATP hydrolysis (By similarity). In aerobic conditions, involved in intracellular iron homeostasis, thus triggering the activity of Fe(2+) prolyl hydroxylase (PHD) enzymes, and leading to HIF1A hydroxylation and subsequent proteasomal degradation. May play a role in cilium biogenesis through regulation of the transport and the localization of proteins to the cilium (By similarity).

Subunit of the V0 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment (By similarity). May play a role in coupling of proton transport and ATP hydrolysis (By similarity). Regulator of osteoclast fusion and bone formation (By similarity).

Subunit of the V0 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment (By similarity).

Subunit of the V0 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons (By similarity). V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment (By similarity).

Scaffold protein component of the PI(3,5)P2 regulatory complex which regulates both the synthesis and turnover of phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns(3,5)P2). Pentamerizes into a star-shaped structure and nucleates the assembly of the complex. The pentamer binds a single copy each of PIKFYVE and FIG4 and coordinates both PIKfyve kinase activity and FIG4 phosphatase activity, being required to maintain normal levels of phosphatidylinositol 3- phosphate (PtdIns(3)P) and phosphatidylinositol 5-phosphate (PtdIns(5)P). Plays a role in the biogenesis of endosome carrier vesicles (ECV) / multivesicular bodies (MVB) transport intermediates from early endosomes.

Electrogenic antiporter that exchanges one cholinergic neurotransmitter, acetylcholine or choline, with two intravesicular protons across the membrane of synaptic vesicles. Uses the electrochemical proton gradient established by the V-type proton-pump ATPase to store neurotransmitters inside the vesicles prior to their release via exocytosis (By similarity). Determines cholinergic vesicular quantal size at presynaptic nerve terminals in developing neuro-muscular junctions with an impact on motor neuron differentiation and innervation pattern (By similarity). Part of forebrain cholinergic system, regulates hippocampal synapse transmissions that underlie spatial memory formation (By similarity). Can transport serotonin.

Involved in the targeting and/or fusion of transport vesicles to their target membrane

Involved in the targeting and/or fusion of transport vesicles to their target membrane (By similarity). Major SNARE protein of synaptic vesicles which mediates fusion of synaptic vesicles to release neurotransmitters. Essential for fast vesicular exocytosis and activity-dependent neurotransmitter release as well as fast endocytosis that mediates rapid reuse of synaptic vesicles (By similarity). Modulates the gating characteristics of the delayed rectifier voltage-dependent potassium channel KCNB1.

Involved in the pathway that functions to remove an inhibitor (probably synaptotagmin-4) of calcium-triggered exocytosis during the maturation of secretory granules. May be a marker for this sorting pathway that is critical for remodeling the secretory response of granule

May participate in trafficking events that are associated with myogenesis, such as myoblast fusion and/or GLUT4 trafficking

Involved in the targeting and/or fusion of transport vesicles to their target membrane during transport of proteins from the early endosome to the lysosome. Required for heterotypic fusion of late endosomes with lysosomes and homotypic lysosomal fusion. Required for calcium regulated lysosomal exocytosis. Involved in the export of chylomicrons from the endoplasmic reticulum to the cis Golgi. Required for exocytosis of mediators during eosinophil and neutrophil degranulation, and target cell killing by natural killer cells. Required for focal exocytosis of late endocytic vesicles during phagosome formation.

SNAREs, soluble N-ethylmaleimide-sensitive factor-attachment protein receptors, are essential proteins for fusion of cellular membranes. SNAREs localized on opposing membranes assemble to form a trans-SNARE complex, an extended, parallel four alpha-helical bundle that drives membrane fusion. VAMP8 is a SNARE involved in autophagy through the direct control of autophagosome membrane fusion with the lysososome membrane via its interaction with the STX17-SNAP29 binary t- SNARE complex. Also required for dense-granule secretion in platelets. Also plays a role in regulated enzyme secretion in pancreatic acinar cells (By similarity). Involved in the abscission of the midbody during cell division, which leads to completely separate daughter cells (By similarity). Involved in the homotypic fusion of early and late endosomes (By similarity). Participates also in the activation of type I interferon antiviral response through a TRIM6-dependent mechanism.

Involved in the control of early morphogenesis and patterning of both axial midline structures and the development of neural plate. Plays a role in the regulation of planar cell polarity, particularly in the orientation of stereociliary bundles in the cochlea. Required for polarization and movement of myocardializing cells in the outflow tract and seems to act via RHOA signaling to regulate this process. Required for cell surface localization of FZD3 and FZD6 in the inner ear (By similarity).

Binds to OSBPL3, which mediates recruitment of VAPA to plasma membrane sites. The ORP3-VAPA complex stimulates RRAS signaling which in turn attenuates integrin beta-1 (ITGB1) activation at the cell surface. With OSBPL3, may regulate ER morphology. May play a role in vesicle trafficking.

Participates in the endoplasmic reticulum unfolded protein response (UPR) by inducing ERN1/IRE1 activity. Involved in cellular calcium homeostasis regulation.

Accessory subunit of the proton-transporting vacuolar (V)- ATPase protein pump, which is required for luminal acidification of secretory vesicles. Guides the V-type ATPase into specialized subcellular compartments, such as neuroendocrine regulated secretory vesicles or the ruffled border of the osteoclast, thereby regulating its activity. Involved in membrane trafficking and Ca(2+)-dependent membrane fusion. May play a role in the assembly of the V-type ATPase complex (Probable). In aerobic conditions, involved in intracellular iron homeostasis, thus triggering the activity of Fe(2+) prolyl hydroxylase (PHD) enzymes, and leading to HIF1A hydroxylation and subsequent proteasomal degradation. In islets of Langerhans cells, may regulate the acidification of dense-core secretory granules (By similarity).

Tyrosine carboxypeptidase that removes the C-terminal tyrosine residue of alpha-tubulin, thereby regulating microtubule dynamics and function. Critical for spindle function and accurate chromosome segregation during mitosis since microtuble detyronisation regulates mitotic spindle length and postioning. Acts as an angiogenesis inhibitor: inhibits migration, proliferation and network formation by endothelial cells as well as angiogenesis. This inhibitory effect is selective to endothelial cells as it does not affect the migration of smooth muscle cells or fibroblasts.

Tyrosine carboxypeptidase that removes the C-terminal tyrosine residue of alpha-tubulin, thereby regulating microtubule dynamics and function. Critical for spindle function and accurate chromosome segregation during mitosis since microtuble detyronisation regulates mitotic spindle length and postioning. Acts as an activator of angiogenesis: expressed in infiltrating mononuclear cells in the sprouting front to promote angiogenesis. Plays a role in axon formation.

Ena/VASP proteins are actin-associated proteins involved in a range of processes dependent on cytoskeleton remodeling and cell polarity such as axon guidance, lamellipodial and filopodial dynamics, platelet activation and cell migration. VASP promotes actin filament elongation. It protects the barbed end of growing actin filaments against capping and increases the rate of actin polymerization in the presence of capping protein. VASP stimulates actin filament elongation by promoting the transfer of profilin-bound actin monomers onto the barbed end of growing actin filaments. Plays a role in actin-based mobility of Listeria monocytogenes in host cells. Regulates actin dynamics in platelets and plays an important role in regulating platelet aggregation.

Possesses ATPase activity (By similarity). Plays a part in calcium-regulated keratinocyte activation in epidermal repair mechanisms. Has no effect on cell proliferation. Negatively regulates mitochondrial fusion in cooperation with mitofusin proteins (MFN1-2).

Catalytic subunit of the V1 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment. In aerobic conditions, involved in intracellular iron homeostasis, thus triggering the activity of Fe(2+) prolyl hydroxylase (PHD) enzymes, and leading to HIF1A hydroxylation and subsequent proteasomal degradation. May play a role in neurite development and synaptic connectivity.

Non-catalytic subunit of the V1 complex of vacuolar(H+)- ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment. Essential for the proper assembly and activity of V- ATPase. In renal intercalated cells, mediates secretion of protons (H+) into the urine thereby ensuring correct urinary acidification. Required for optimal olfactory function by mediating the acidification of the nasal olfactory epithelium (By similarity).

Non-catalytic subunit of the V1 complex of vacuolar(H+)- ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment. In renal intercalated cells, can partially compensate the lack of ATP6V1B1 and mediate secretion of protons (H+) into the urine under base-line conditions but not in conditions of acid load (By similarity).

Subunit of the V1 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment (By similarity). Subunit C is necessary for the assembly of the catalytic sector of the enzyme and is likely to have a specific function in its catalytic activity (By similarity).

Subunit of the V1 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons (By similarity). V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment (By similarity). Subunit C is necessary for the assembly of the catalytic sector of the enzyme and is likely to have a specific function in its catalytic activity (By similarity).

Subunit of the V1 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment (By similarity). May play a role in cilium biogenesis through regulation of the transport and the localization of proteins to the cilium.

Subunit of the V1 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment.

Subunit of the V1 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment (By similarity).

Subunit of the V1 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment. In aerobic conditions, involved in intracellular iron homeostasis, thus triggering the activity of Fe(2+) prolyl hydroxylase (PHD) enzymes, and leading to HIF1A hydroxylation and subsequent proteasomal degradation.

Subunit of the V1 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment (By similarity). Subunit H is essential for V-ATPase activity, but not for the assembly of the complex (By similarity). Involved in the endocytosis mediated by clathrin-coated pits, required for the formation of endosomes.

Proton-conducting pore forming of the V0 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment (By similarity).

Guanine nucleotide exchange factor for the Rho family of Ras- related GTPases. Plays an important role in angiogenesis. Its recruitment by phosphorylated EPHA2 is critical for EFNA1-induced RAC1 GTPase activation and vascular endothelial cell migration and assembly (By similarity).

Exchange factor for GTP-binding proteins RhoA, RhoG and, to a lesser extent, Rac1. Binds physically to the nucleotide-free states of those GTPases. Plays an important role in angiogenesis. Its recruitment by phosphorylated EPHA2 is critical for EFNA1-induced RAC1 GTPase activation and vascular endothelial cell migration and assembly (By similarity). May be important for integrin-mediated signaling, at least in some cell types. In osteoclasts, along with SYK tyrosine kinase, required for signaling through integrin alpha-v/beta-1 (ITAGV-ITGB1), a crucial event for osteoclast proper cytoskeleton organization and function. This signaling pathway involves RAC1, but not RHO, activation. Necessary for proper wound healing. In the course of wound healing, required for the phagocytotic cup formation preceding macrophage phagocytosis of apoptotic neutrophils. Responsible for integrin beta-2 (ITGB2)-mediated macrophage adhesion and, to a lesser extent, contributes to beta-3 (ITGB3)-mediated adhesion. Does not affect integrin beta-1 (ITGB1)-mediated adhesion (By similarity).

Couples tyrosine kinase signals with the activation of the Rho/Rac GTPases, thus leading to cell differentiation and/or proliferation

Transcription factor that may function in dorsoventral specification of the forebrain. Required for axon guidance and major tract formation in the developing forebrain. May contribute to the differentiation of the neuroretina, pigmented epithelium and optic stalk (By similarity).

Transcription factor that may function in dorsoventral specification of the forebrain. Regulates the expression of Wnt signaling antagonists including the expression of a truncated TCF7L2 isoform that cannot bind CTNNB1 and acts therefore as a potent dominant-negative Wnt antagonist. Plays a crucial role in eye development and, in particular, in the specification of the ventral optic vesicle (By similarity). May be a regulator of axial polarization in the retina.

Important in cell-cell recognition. Appears to function in leukocyte-endothelial cell adhesion. Interacts with integrin alpha- 4/beta-1 (ITGA4/ITGB1) on leukocytes, and mediates both adhesion and signal transduction. The VCAM1/ITGA4/ITGB1 interaction may play a pathophysiologic role both in immune responses and in leukocyte emigration to sites of inflammation

Deubiquitinating enzyme involved in DNA repair and reassembly of the Golgi apparatus and the endoplasmic reticulum following mitosis. Necessary for VCP-mediated reassembly of Golgi stacks after mitosis (By similarity). Plays a role in VCP-mediated formation of transitional endoplasmic reticulum (tER) (By similarity). Mediates dissociation of the ternary complex containing STX5A, NSFL1C and VCP (By similarity). Also involved in DNA repair following phosphorylation by ATM or ATR: acts by catalyzing deubiquitination of SPRTN, thereby promoting SPRTN recruitment to chromatin and subsequent proteolytic cleavage of covalent DNA-protein cross-links (DPCs). Hydrolyzes 'Lys-11'- and 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitin chains.

May mediate a process in spermatogenesis or may play a role in sex ratio distortion

Forms a channel through the mitochondrial outer membrane and also the plasma membrane. The channel at the outer mitochondrial membrane allows diffusion of small hydrophilic molecules; in the plasma membrane it is involved in cell volume regulation and apoptosis. It adopts an open conformation at low or zero membrane potential and a closed conformation at potentials above 30-40 mV. The open state has a weak anion selectivity whereas the closed state is cation-selective. Binds various signaling molecules, including the sphingolipid ceramide, the phospholipid phosphatidylcholine, and the sterol cholesterol. In depolarized mitochondria, acts downstream of PRKN and PINK1 to promote mitophagy or prevent apoptosis; polyubiquitination by PRKN promotes mitophagy, while monoubiquitination by PRKN decreases mitochondrial calcium influx which ultimately inhibits apoptosis. May participate in the formation of the permeability transition pore complex (PTPC) responsible for the release of mitochondrial products that triggers apoptosis. May mediate ATP export from cells.

Forms a channel through the mitochondrial outer membrane that allows diffusion of small hydrophilic molecules (By similarity). The channel adopts an open conformation at low or zero membrane potential and a closed conformation at potentials above 30-40 mV (By similarity). The open state has a weak anion selectivity whereas the closed state is cation-selective (By similarity). Binds various lipids, including the sphingolipid ceramide, the phospholipid phosphatidylcholine, and the sterol cholesterol. Binding of ceramide promotes the mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization (MOMP) apoptotic pathway.

Forms a channel through the mitochondrial outer membrane that allows diffusion of small hydrophilic molecules.

Nuclear receptor for calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D3 which mediates the action of this vitamin on cells. Enters the nucleus upon vitamin D3 binding where it forms heterodimers with the retinoid X receptor/RXR. The VDR-RXR heterodimers bind to specific response elements on DNA and activate the transcription of vitamin D3-responsive target genes. Plays a central role in calcium homeostasis (By similarity).

Growth factor active in angiogenesis, vasculogenesis and endothelial cell growth. Induces endothelial cell proliferation, promotes cell migration, inhibits apoptosis and induces permeabilization of blood vessels. Binds to the FLT1/VEGFR1 and KDR/VEGFR2 receptors, heparan sulfate and heparin. NRP1/Neuropilin-1 binds isoforms VEGF-165 and VEGF-145. Isoform VEGF165B binds to KDR but does not activate downstream signaling pathways, does not activate angiogenesis and inhibits tumor growth. Binding to NRP1 receptor initiates a signaling pathway needed for motor neuron axon guidance and cell body migration, including for the caudal migration of facial motor neurons from rhombomere 4 to rhombomere 6 during embryonic development (By similarity). Also binds the DEAR/FBXW7-AS1 receptor.

Growth factor for endothelial cells. VEGF-B167 binds heparin and neuropilin-1 whereas the binding to neuropilin-1 of VEGF-B186 is regulated by proteolysis

Growth factor active in angiogenesis, and endothelial cell growth, stimulating their proliferation and migration and also has effects on the permeability of blood vessels. May function in angiogenesis of the venous and lymphatic vascular systems during embryogenesis, and also in the maintenance of differentiated lymphatic endothelium in adults. Binds and activates KDR/VEGFR2 and FLT4/VEGFR3 receptors.

Growth factor active in angiogenesis, lymphangiogenesis and endothelial cell growth, stimulating their proliferation and migration and also has effects on the permeability of blood vessels. May function in the formation of the venous and lymphatic vascular systems during embryogenesis, and also in the maintenance of differentiated lymphatic endothelium in adults. Binds and activates VEGFR-2 (KDR/FLK1) and VEGFR-3 (FLT4) receptors.

Required for neurogenesis in the neural plate and retina. Strongly cooperates with neural bHLH factors to promote neurogenesis.

Plays a pivotal role in the establishment of adherens junctions and their maintenance in adult life. Required for morphogenesis of the preimplantation embryo, and for the implantation process.

Possible transcription factor. Specifically binds to the CT/GC-rich region of the interleukin-3 promoter and mediates tax transactivation of IL-3.

Tyrosine-protein kinase that acts as a cell-surface receptor for VEGFA, VEGFB and PGF, and plays an essential role in the development of embryonic vasculature, the regulation of angiogenesis, cell survival, cell migration, macrophage function, chemotaxis, and cancer cell invasion. Acts as a positive regulator of postnatal retinal hyaloid vessel regression (Ref.11). May play an essential role as a negative regulator of embryonic angiogenesis by inhibiting excessive proliferation of endothelial cells. Can promote endothelial cell proliferation, survival and angiogenesis in adulthood. Its function in promoting cell proliferation seems to be cell-type specific. Promotes PGF-mediated proliferation of endothelial cells, proliferation of some types of cancer cells, but does not promote proliferation of normal fibroblasts (in vitro). Has very high affinity for VEGFA and relatively low protein kinase activity; may function as a negative regulator of VEGFA signaling by limiting the amount of free VEGFA and preventing its binding to KDR. Modulates KDR signaling by forming heterodimers with KDR. Ligand binding leads to the activation of several signaling cascades. Activation of PLCG leads to the production of the cellular signaling molecules diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate and the activation of protein kinase C. Mediates phosphorylation of PIK3R1, the regulatory subunit of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase, leading to activation of phosphatidylinositol kinase and the downstream signaling pathway. Mediates activation of MAPK1/ERK2, MAPK3/ERK1 and the MAP kinase signaling pathway, as well as of the AKT1 signaling pathway. Phosphorylates SRC and YES1, and may also phosphorylate CBL. Promotes phosphorylation of AKT1 at 'Ser-473'. Promotes phosphorylation of PTK2/FAK1.

Tyrosine-protein kinase that acts as a cell-surface receptor for VEGFA, VEGFC and VEGFD. Plays an essential role in the regulation of angiogenesis, vascular development, vascular permeability, and embryonic hematopoiesis. Promotes proliferation, survival, migration and differentiation of endothelial cells. Promotes reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton. Isoforms lacking a transmembrane domain, such as isoform 2 and isoform 3, may function as decoy receptors for VEGFA, VEGFC and/or VEGFD. Isoform 2 plays an important role as negative regulator of VEGFA- and VEGFC-mediated lymphangiogenesis by limiting the amount of free VEGFA and/or VEGFC and preventing their binding to FLT4. Modulates FLT1 and FLT4 signaling by forming heterodimers. Binding of vascular growth factors to isoform 1 leads to the activation of several signaling cascades. Activation of PLCG1 leads to the production of the cellular signaling molecules diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate and the activation of protein kinase C. Mediates activation of MAPK1/ERK2, MAPK3/ERK1 and the MAP kinase signaling pathway, as well as of the AKT1 signaling pathway. Mediates phosphorylation of PIK3R1, the regulatory subunit of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase, reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton and activation of PTK2/FAK1. Required for VEGFA-mediated induction of NOS2 and NOS3, leading to the production of the signaling molecule nitric oxide (NO) by endothelial cells. Phosphorylates PLCG1. Promotes phosphorylation of FYN, NCK1, NOS3, PIK3R1, PTK2/FAK1 and SRC.

Tyrosine-protein kinase that acts as a cell-surface receptor for VEGFC and VEGFD, and plays an essential role in adult lymphangiogenesis and in the development of the vascular network and the cardiovascular system during embryonic development. Promotes proliferation, survival and migration of endothelial cells, and regulates angiogenic sprouting. Signaling by activated FLT4 leads to enhanced production of VEGFC, and to a lesser degree VEGFA, thereby creating a positive feedback loop that enhances FLT4 signaling. Modulates KDR signaling by forming heterodimers. The secreted isoform 3 may function as a decoy receptor for VEGFC and/or VEGFD and play an important role as a negative regulator of VEGFC-mediated lymphangiogenesis and angiogenesis. Binding of vascular growth factors to isoform 1 or isoform 2 leads to the activation of several signaling cascades; isoform 2 seems to be less efficient in signal transduction, because it has a truncated C-terminus and therefore lacks several phosphorylation sites. Mediates activation of the MAPK1/ERK2, MAPK3/ERK1 signaling pathway, of MAPK8 and the JUN signaling pathway, and of the AKT1 signaling pathway. Phosphorylates SHC1. Mediates phosphorylation of PIK3R1, the regulatory subunit of phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase. Promotes phosphorylation of MAPK8 at 'Thr-183' and 'Tyr-185', and of AKT1 at 'Ser-473'.

[Neurosecretory protein VGF]: Secreted polyprotein that is packaged and proteolytically processed by prohormone convertases PCSK1 and PCSK2 in a cell-type-specific manner (By similarity). VGF and peptides derived from its processing play many roles in neurogenesis and neuroplasticity associated with learning, memory, depression and chronic pain (By similarity).

May act as a specific coactivator for the mammalian TEFs. May play a role in the development of skeletal muscles

Multifunctional transporter that transports L-glutamate as well as multiple ions such as chloride, proton, potassium, sodium and phosphate. At the synaptic vesicle membrane, mainly functions as an uniporter which transports preferentially L-glutamate but also phosphate from the cytoplasm into synaptic vesicles at presynaptic nerve terminals of excitatory neural cells (By similarity). The L-glutamate or phosphate uniporter activity is electrogenic and is driven by the proton electrochemical gradient, mainly by the electrical gradient established by the vacuolar H(+)-ATPase across the synaptic vesicle membrane (By similarity). In addition, functions as a chloride channel that allows a chloride permeation through the synaptic vesicle membrane that affects the proton electrochemical gradient and promotes synaptic vesicles acidification (By similarity). Moreover, may function as a K(+)/H(+) antiport allowing to maintain the electrical gradient and to decrease chemical gradient and therefore sustain vesicular glutamate uptake (By similarity). The vesicular K(+)/H(+) antiport activity is electroneutral (By similarity). At the plasma membrane, following exocytosis, functions as a symporter of Na(+) and phosphate from the extracellular space to the cytoplasm allowing synaptic phosphate homeostasis regulation. The symporter activity is driven by an inside negative membrane potential and is electrogenic (By similarity). Is necessary for synaptic signaling of visual-evoked responses from photoreceptors (By similarity).

Multifunctional transporter that transports L-glutamate as well as multiple ions such as chloride, proton, potassium, sodium and phosphate. At the synaptic vesicle membrane, mainly functions as a uniporter which transports preferentially L-glutamate but also, phosphate from the cytoplasm into synaptic vesicles at presynaptic nerve terminals of excitatory neural cells. The L-glutamate or phosphate uniporter activity is electrogenic and is driven by the proton electrochemical gradient, mainly by the electrical gradient established by the vacuolar H(+)-ATPase across the synaptic vesicle membrane. In addition, functions as a chloride channel that allows the chloride permeation through the synaptic vesicle membrane therefore affects the proton electrochemical gradient and promotes synaptic vesicles acidification (By similarity). Moreover, functions as a vesicular K(+)/H(+) antiport allowing to maintain the electrical gradient and to decrease chemical gradient and therefore sustain vesicular glutamate uptake (By similarity). The vesicular H(+)/H(+) antiport activity is electroneutral (By similarity). At the plasma membrane, following exocytosis, functions as a symporter of Na(+) and phosphate from the extracellular space to the cytoplasm allowing synaptic phosphate homeostasis regulation (Probable). The symporter activity is driven by an inside negative membrane potential and is electrogenic (Probable). Also involved in the regulation of retinal hyaloid vessel regression during postnatal development (By similarity). May also play a role in the endocrine glutamatergic system of other tissues such as pineal gland and pancreas (By similarity).

Multifunctional transporter that transports L-glutamate as well as multiple ions such as chloride, sodium and phosphate. At the synaptic vesicle membrane, mainly functions as an uniporter that mediates the uptake of L- glutamate into synaptic vesicles at presynaptic nerve terminals of excitatory neural cells. The L-glutamate uniporter activity is electrogenic and is driven by the proton electrochemical gradient, mainly by the electrical gradient established by the vacuolar H(+)-ATPase across the synaptic vesicle membrane. In addition, functions as a chloride channel that allows a chloride permeation through the synaptic vesicle membrane that affects the proton electrochemical gradient and promotes synaptic vesicles acidification (By similarity). At the plasma membrane, following exocytosis, functions as a symporter of Na(+) and phosphate from the extracellular space to the cytoplasm allowing synaptic phosphate homeostasis regulation (Probable). The symporter activity is electrogenic. Moreover, operates synergistically with SLC18A3/VACHT under a constant H(+) gradient, thereby allowing striatal vesicular acetylcholine uptake (By similarity).

Functions as a dominant-negative VHL to serve as a protector of HIFalpha.

Involved in the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation via the von Hippel-Lindau ubiquitination complex. Seems to act as a target recruitment subunit in the E3 ubiquitin ligase complex and recruits hydroxylated hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF) under normoxic conditions. Involved in transcriptional repression through interaction with HIF1A, HIF1AN and histone deacetylases. Ubiquitinates, in an oxygen-responsive manner, ADRB2.

Antiporter that exchanges vesicular protons for cytosolic 4- aminobutanoate or to a lesser extend glycine, thus allowing their secretion from nerve terminals. The transport is equally dependent on the chemical and electrical components of the proton gradient (By similarity). May also transport beta-alanine (By similarity). Acidification of GABAergic synaptic vesicles is a prerequisite for 4- aminobutanoate uptake (By similarity).

Epithelial cell-specific Ca(2+)-regulated actin-modifying protein that modulates the reorganization of microvillar actin filaments. Plays a role in the actin nucleation, actin filament bundle assembly, actin filament capping and severing. Binds phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2) and lysophosphatidic acid (LPA); binds LPA with higher affinity than PIP2. Binding to LPA increases its phosphorylation by SRC and inhibits all actin-modifying activities. Binding to PIP2 inhibits actin-capping and -severing activities but enhances actin-bundling activity. Regulates the intestinal epithelial cell morphology, cell invasion, cell migration and apoptosis. Protects against apoptosis induced by dextran sodium sulfate (DSS) in the gastrointestinal epithelium. Appears to regulate cell death by maintaining mitochondrial integrity. Enhances hepatocyte growth factor (HGF)-induced epithelial cell motility, chemotaxis and wound repair. Upon S.flexneri cell infection, its actin-severing activity enhances actin-based motility of the bacteria and plays a role during the dissemination.

Vimentins are class-III intermediate filaments found in various non-epithelial cells, especially mesenchymal cells. Vimentin is attached to the nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, and mitochondria, either laterally or terminally.

Actin filament (F-actin)-binding protein involved in cell- matrix adhesion and cell-cell adhesion. Regulates cell-surface E- cadherin expression and potentiates mechanosensing by the E-cadherin complex. May also play important roles in cell morphology and locomotion.

Vinexin alpha isoform promotes up-regulation of actin stress fiber formation. Vinexin beta isoform plays a role in cell spreading and enhances the activation of JNK/SAPK in response to EGF stimulation by using its third SH3 domain

Bifunctional inositol kinase that acts in concert with the IP6K kinases IP6K1, IP6K2 and IP6K3 to synthesize the diphosphate group-containing inositol pyrophosphates diphosphoinositol pentakisphosphate, PP-InsP5, and bis-diphosphoinositol tetrakisphosphate, (PP)2-InsP4. PP-InsP5 and (PP)2-InsP4, also respectively called InsP7 and InsP8, regulate a variety of cellular processes, including apoptosis, vesicle trafficking, cytoskeletal dynamics, exocytosis, insulin signaling and neutrophil activation. Phosphorylates inositol hexakisphosphate (InsP6) at position 1 to produce PP-InsP5 which is in turn phosphorylated by IP6Ks to produce (PP)2-InsP4. Alternatively, phosphorylates PP-InsP5 at position 1, produced by IP6Ks from InsP6, to produce (PP)2-InsP4. Activated when cells are exposed to hyperosmotic stress.

Bifunctional inositol kinase that acts in concert with the IP6K kinases IP6K1, IP6K2 and IP6K3 to synthesize the diphosphate group-containing inositol pyrophosphates diphosphoinositol pentakisphosphate, PP-InsP5, and bis-diphosphoinositol tetrakisphosphate, (PP)2-InsP4. PP-InsP5 and (PP)2-InsP4, also respectively called InsP7 and InsP8, regulate a variety of cellular processes, including apoptosis, vesicle trafficking, cytoskeletal dynamics, exocytosis, insulin signaling and neutrophil activation. Phosphorylates inositol hexakisphosphate (InsP6) at position 1 to produce PP-InsP5 which is in turn phosphorylated by IP6Ks to produce (PP)2-InsP4. Alternatively, phosphorylates PP-InsP5 at position 1, produced by IP6Ks from InsP6, to produce (PP)2-InsP4. Required for normal hearing.

This is a receptor for VIP. The activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase. The affinity is VIP = PACAP-27 > PACAP-38.

This is a receptor for VIP as well as PACAP-38 and -27, the activity of this receptor is mediated by G proteins which activate adenylyl cyclase. Can be coupled to phospholipase C.

VIP causes vasodilation, lowers arterial blood pressure, stimulates myocardial contractility, increases glycogenolysis and relaxes the smooth muscle of trachea, stomach and gall bladder.

Associated component of the WMM complex, a complex that mediates N6-methyladenosine (m6A) methylation of RNAs, a modification that plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing and RNA processing. Acts as a key regulator of m6A methylation by promoting m6A methylation of mRNAs in the 3'-UTR near the stop codon: recruits the catalytic core components METTL3 and METTL14, thereby guiding m6A methylation at specific sites. Required for mRNA polyadenylation via its role in selective m6A methylation: m6A methylation of mRNAs in the 3'-UTR near the stop codon correlating with alternative polyadenylation (APA).

Regulates (in vitro) the inhibition of rhodopsin phosphorylation in a calcium-dependent manner.

Immunoregulatory receptor which inhibits the T-cell response. May promote differentiation of embryonic stem cells, by inhibiting BMP4 signaling (By similarity). May stimulate MMP14- mediated MMP2 activation.

Promotes matrix assembly and cell adhesiveness. Plays a role in spinal cord formation by regulating the proliferation and differentiation of neural stem cells.

Mediates the vitamin K-dependent carboxylation of glutamate residues to calcium-binding gamma-carboxyglutamate (Gla) residues with the concomitant conversion of the reduced hydroquinone form of vitamin K to vitamin K epoxide.

Involved in vitamin K metabolism. Catalytic subunit of the vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR) complex which reduces inactive vitamin K 2,3-epoxide to active vitamin K. Vitamin K is required for the gamma-carboxylation of various proteins, including clotting factors, and is required for normal blood coagulation, but also for normal bone development.

Involved in vitamin K metabolism. Can reduce inactive vitamin K 2,3-epoxide to active vitamin K, and may contribute to vitamin K- mediated protection against oxidative stress. Plays a role in vitamin K-dependent gamma-carboxylation of Glu residues in target proteins.

Multifunctional cell surface receptor that binds VLDL and transports it into cells by endocytosis and therefore plays an important role in energy metabolism. Binds also to a wide range of other molecules including Reelin/RELN or apolipoprotein E/APOE- containing ligands as well as clusterin/CLU. In the off-state of the pathway, forms homooligomers or heterooligomers with LRP8. Upon binding to ligands, homooligomers are rearranged to higher order receptor clusters that transmit the extracellular RELN signal to intracellular signaling processes by binding to DAB1. This interaction results in phosphorylation of DAB1 leading to the ultimate cell responses required for the correct positioning of newly generated neurons. Later, mediates a stop signal for migrating neurons, preventing them from entering the marginal zone (By similarity).

Required for the assembly of the V0 complex of the vacuolar ATPase (V-ATPase) in the endoplasmic reticulum.

May play a role in tumorigenesis as a tumor suppressor. Altered expression of this protein and disruption of the molecular pathway it is involved in, may contribute directly to or modify tumorigenesis

[Isoform 1]: Electrogenic antiporter that exchanges one cationic monoamine with two intravesicular protons across the membrane of secretory and synaptic vesicles. Uses the electrochemical proton gradient established by the V-type proton-pump ATPase to accumulate high concentrations of monoamines inside the vesicles prior to their release via exocytosis. Transports catecholamines and indolamines with higher affinity for serotonin. Regulates the transvesicular monoaminergic gradient that determines the quantal size. Mediates presynaptic monoaminergic vesicle transport in the amygdala and prefrontal brain regions related with emotion processing in response to environmental stimuli.

Electrogenic antiporter that exchanges one cationic monoamine with two intravesicular protons across the membrane of secretory and synaptic vesicles. Uses the electrochemical proton gradient established by the V-type proton-pump ATPase to accumulate high concentrations of monoamines inside the vesicles prior to their release via exocytosis. Transports a variety of catecholamines such as dopamine, adrenaline and noradrenaline, histamine, and indolamines such as serotonin. Regulates the transvesicular monoaminergic gradient that determines the quantal size. Mediates somatodendritic dopamine release in hippocampal neurons, likely as part of a regulated secretory pathway that integrates retrograde synaptic signals (By similarity). Acts as a primary transporter for striatal dopamine loading ensuring impulse-dependent release of dopamine at the synaptic cleft (By similarity). Responsible for histamine and serotonin storage and subsequent corelease from mast cell granules (By similarity).

Phospholipid scramblase involved in lipid homeostasis and membrane dynamics processes. Has phospholipid scramblase activity toward cholesterol and phosphatidylserine, as well as phosphatidylethanolamine and phosphatidylcholine. Required for autophagosome formation: participates in early stages of autophagosome biogenesis at the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane by reequilibrating the leaflets of the ER as lipids are extracted by ATG2 (ATG2A or ATG2B) to mediate autophagosome assembly. Regulates ATP2A2 activity to control ER-isolation membrane contacts for autophagosome formation. In addition to autophagy, involved in other processes in which phospholipid scramblase activity is required. Modulates ER contacts with lipid droplets, mitochondria and endosomes. Plays an essential role in formation of cell junctions. Upon stress such as bacterial and viral infection, promotes formation of cytoplasmic vacuoles followed by cell death (By similarity). Involved in the cytoplasmic vacuolization of acinar cells during the early stage of acute pancreatitis (By similarity).

Amidohydrolase that hydrolyzes specifically one of the carboamide linkages in D-pantetheine thus recycling pantothenic acid (vitamin B5) and releasing cysteamine.

Amidohydrolase that hydrolyzes specifically one of the carboamide linkages in D-pantetheine thus recycling pantothenic acid (vitamin B5) and releasing cysteamine. Involved in the thymus homing of bone marrow cells. May regulate beta-2 integrin- mediated cell adhesion, migration and motility of neutrophil.

Increases the transcriptional activity of NFKB1 by facilitating its nuclear translocation, DNA-binding and associated apoptotic response, when overexpressed.

Mediates the transfer of lipids between membranes at organelle contact sites (By similarity). Binds phospholipids. Required for the formation or stabilization of ER- mitochondria contact sites which enable transfer of lipids between the ER and mitochondria. Negatively regulates lipid droplet size and motility. Required for efficient lysosomal protein degradation.

Mediates the transfer of lipids between membranes at organelle contact sites (By similarity). Binds phosphatidylinositol 3- phosphate (By similarity). Functions as a tethering factor in the slow endocytic recycling pathway, to assist traffic between early and recycling endosomes. Involved in the transport of proacrosomal vesicles to the nuclear dense lamina (NDL) during spermatid development (By similarity). Plays a role in the assembly of the Golgi apparatus, possibly by mediating trafficking to the Golgi membrane. Plays a role in the development of the nervous system, and may be required for neuron projection development. May also play a role during adipose tissue development. Required for maintenance of the ocular lens (By similarity).

Mediates the transfer of lipids between membranes at organelle contact sites (By similarity). Necessary for proper mitochondrial function and maintenance of mitochondrial transmembrane potential. Involved in the regulation of PINK1/PRKN- mediated mitophagy in response to mitochondrial depolarization.

Mediates the transfer of lipids between membranes at organelle contact sites (By similarity). Functions in promoting mitochondrial clearance by mitochondrial autophagy (mitophagy), also possibly by positively regulating mitochondrial fission. Mitophagy plays an important role in regulating cell health and mitochondrial size and homeostasis.

Acts as component of the retromer cargo-selective complex (CSC). The CSC is believed to be the core functional component of retromer or respective retromer complex variants acting to prevent missorting of selected transmembrane cargo proteins into the lysosomal degradation pathway. The recruitment of the CSC to the endosomal membrane involves RAB7A and SNX3. The SNX-BAR retromer mediates retrograde transport of cargo proteins from endosomes to the trans- Golgi network (TGN) and is involved in endosome-to-plasma membrane transport for cargo protein recycling. The SNX3-retromer mediates the retrograde endosome-to-TGN transport of WLS distinct from the SNX-BAR retromer pathway. The SNX27-retromer is believed to be involved in endosome-to-plasma membrane trafficking and recycling of a broad spectrum of cargo proteins (Probable). The CSC seems to act as recruitment hub for other proteins, such as the WASH complex and TBC1D5 (Probable). Required for retrograde transport of lysosomal enzyme receptor IGF2R. Required to regulate transcytosis of the polymeric immunoglobulin receptor (pIgR-pIgA). Required for the endosomal localization of WASHC2A (indicative for the WASH complex). Required for the endosomal localization of TBC1D5. Mediates retromer cargo recognition of SORL1 and is involved in trafficking of SORL1 implicated in sorting and processing of APP. Involved in retromer-independent lysosomal sorting of F2R. Involved in recycling of ADRB2. Enhances the affinity of SNX27 for PDZ-binding motifs in cargo proteins (By similarity).

Acts as component of the retromer cargo-selective complex (CSC). The CSC is believed to be the core functional component of retromer or respective retromer complex variants acting to prevent missorting of selected transmembrane cargo proteins into the lysosomal degradation pathway. The recruitment of the CSC to the endosomal membrane involves RAB7A and SNX3. The SNX-BAR retromer mediates retrograde transport of cargo proteins from endosomes to the trans- Golgi network (TGN) and is involved in endosome-to-plasma membrane transport for cargo protein recycling. The SNX3-retromer mediates the retrograde transport of WLS distinct from the SNX-BAR retromer pathway. The SNX27-retromer is believed to be involved in endosome-to-plasma membrane trafficking and recycling of a broad spectrum of cargo proteins. The CSC seems to act as recruitment hub for other proteins, such as the WASH complex and TBC1D5. May be involved in retrograde transport of SORT1 but not of IGF2R. Acts redundantly with VSP26A in SNX-27 mediated endocytic recycling of SLC2A1/GLUT1 (By similarity).

Acts as component of the retriever complex. The retriever complex is a heterotrimeric complex related to retromer cargo-selective complex (CSC) and essential for retromer-independent retrieval and recycling of numerous cargos such as integrin alpha-5/beta-1 (ITGA5:ITGB1). The recruitment of the retriever complex to the endosomal membrane involves CCC and WASH complexes. In the endosomes, drives the retriever and recycling of NxxY-motif-containing cargo proteins by coupling to SNX17, a cargo essential for the homeostatic maintenance of numerous cell surface proteins associated with processes that include cell migration, cell adhesion, nutrient supply and cell signaling.

Plays a role in vesicle-mediated protein trafficking to lysosomal compartments including the endocytic membrane transport and autophagic pathways. Believed to act as a core component of the putative HOPS and CORVET endosomal tethering complexes which are proposed to be involved in the Rab5-to-Rab7 endosome conversion probably implicating MON1A/B, and via binding SNAREs and SNARE complexes to mediate tethering and docking events during SNARE-mediated membrane fusion. The HOPS complex is proposed to be recruited to Rab7 on the late endosomal membrane and to regulate late endocytic, phagocytic and autophagic traffic towards lysosomes. The CORVET complex is proposed to function as a Rab5 effector to mediate early endosome fusion probably in specific endosome subpopulations. Required for fusion of endosomes and autophagosomes with lysosomes; the function is dependent on its association with VPS16 but not VIPAS39. The function in autophagosome-lysosome fusion implicates STX17 but not UVRAG.

May play a role in vesicle-mediated protein trafficking to lysosomal compartments and in membrane docking/fusion reactions of late endosomes/lysosomes. Mediates phagolysosomal fusion in macrophages. Proposed to be involved in endosomal maturation implicating VIPAS39. In epithelial cells, the VPS33B:VIPAS39 complex may play a role in the apical recycling pathway and in the maintenance of the apical-basolateral polarity. Seems to be involved in the sorting of specific cargos from the trans-Golgi network to alpha-granule-destined multivesicular bodies (MVBs) promoting MVBs maturation in megakaryocytes (By similarity).

Acts as component of the retriever complex. The retriever complex is a heterotrimeric complex related to retromer cargo-selective complex (CSC) and essential for retromer-independent retrieval and recycling of numerous cargos such as integrin alpha-5/beta-1 (ITGA5:ITGB1). The recruitment of the retriever complex to the endosomal membrane involves CCC and WASH complexes. In the endosomes, drives the retrieval and recycling of NxxY-motif-containing cargo proteins by coupling to SNX17, a cargo essential for the homeostatic maintenance of numerous cell surface proteins associated with processes that include cell migration, cell adhesion, nutrient supply and cell signaling. Involved in copper-dependent ATP7A trafficking between the trans-Golgi network and vesicles in the cell periphery; the function is proposed to depend on its association with the CCC complex and cooperation with the WASH complex on early endosomes. Seems not to be required for CCC complex stability.

Component of the ESCRT-I complex, a regulator of vesicular trafficking process. Required for the sorting of endocytic ubiquitinated cargos into multivesicular bodies. May be involved in cell growth and differentiation.

Component of the ESCRT-I complex, a regulator of vesicular trafficking process. Required for the sorting of endocytic ubiquitinated cargos into multivesicular bodies. May be involved in cell growth and differentiation

Subunit of the V0 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons. V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment (By similarity). Required for assembly and activity of the vacuolar ATPase (By similarity).

Subunit of the V0 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons (By similarity). V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment (By similarity). Essential component of the endosomal pH-sensing machinery. May play a role in maintaining the Golgi functions, such as glycosylation maturation, by controlling the Golgi pH. In aerobic conditions, involved in intracellular iron homeostasis, thus triggering the activity of Fe(2+) prolyl hydroxylase (PHD) enzymes, and leading to HIF1A hydroxylation and subsequent proteasomal degradation.

Subunit of the V0 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons (By similarity). V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment (By similarity). Seems to be directly involved in T-cell activation.

Subunit of the V0 complex of vacuolar(H+)-ATPase (V-ATPase), a multisubunit enzyme composed of a peripheral complex (V1) that hydrolyzes ATP and a membrane integral complex (V0) that translocates protons (By similarity). V-ATPase is responsible for acidifying and maintaining the pH of intracellular compartments and in some cell types, is targeted to the plasma membrane, where it is responsible for acidifying the extracellular environment (By similarity). Involved in normal vectorial acid transport into the urine by the kidney.

Associates with the Ig-mu chain to form a molecular complex that is expressed on the surface of pre-B-cells

Associates with the Ig-mu chain to form a molecular complex that is expressed on the surface of pre-B-cells. This complex presumably regulates Ig gene rearrangements in the early steps of B- cell differentiation

Plays a role in vesicle-mediated protein trafficking to lysosomal compartments including the endocytic membrane transport and autophagic pathways. Believed to act as a core component of the putative HOPS and CORVET endosomal tethering complexes which are proposed to be involved in the Rab5-to-Rab7 endosome conversion probably implicating MON1A/B, and via binding SNAREs and SNARE complexes to mediate tethering and docking events during SNARE-mediated membrane fusion. The HOPS complex is proposed to be recruited to Rab7 on the late endosomal membrane and to regulate late endocytic, phagocytic and autophagic traffic towards lysosomes. The CORVET complex is proposed to function as a Rab5 effector to mediate early endosome fusion probably in specific endosome subpopulations. Required for recruitment of VPS33A to the HOPS complex. Required for fusion of endosomes and autophagosomes with lysosomes; the function is dependent on its association with VPS33A but not VPS33B. The function in autophagosome- lysosome fusion implicates STX17 but not UVRAG.

Plays a role in vesicle-mediated protein trafficking to lysosomal compartments including the endocytic membrane transport and autophagic pathways. Believed to act as a core component of the putative HOPS and CORVET endosomal tethering complexes which are proposed to be involved in the Rab5-to-Rab7 endosome conversion probably implicating MON1A/B, and via binding SNAREs and SNARE complexes to mediate tethering and docking events during SNARE-mediated membrane fusion. The HOPS complex is proposed to be recruited to Rab7 on the late endosomal membrane and to regulate late endocytic, phagocytic and autophagic traffic towards lysosomes. The CORVET complex is proposed to function as a Rab5 effector to mediate early endosome fusion probably in specific endosome subpopulations. Required for fusion of endosomes and autophagosomes with lysosomes. Involved in dendrite development of Pukinje cells (By similarity).

Component of the ESCRT-II complex (endosomal sorting complex required for transport II), which is required for multivesicular body (MVB) formation and sorting of endosomal cargo proteins into MVBs. The MVB pathway mediates delivery of transmembrane proteins into the lumen of the lysosome for degradation. The ESCRT-II complex is probably involved in the recruitment of the ESCRT-III complex. The ESCRT-II complex may also play a role in transcription regulation, possibly via its interaction with ELL. The ESCRT-II complex may be involved in facilitating the budding of certain RNA viruses.

Component of the ESCRT-I complex, a regulator of vesicular trafficking process.

Acts as component of the retromer cargo-selective complex (CSC). The CSC is believed to be the core functional component of retromer or respective retromer complex variants acting to prevent missorting of selected transmembrane cargo proteins into the lysosomal degradation pathway. The recruitment of the CSC to the endosomal membrane involves RAB7A and SNX3. The SNX-BAR retromer mediates retrograde transport of cargo proteins from endosomes to the trans- Golgi network (TGN) and is involved in endosome-to-plasma membrane transport for cargo protein recycling. The SNX3-retromer mediates the retrograde endosome-to-TGN transport of WLS distinct from the SNX-BAR retromer pathway. The SNX27-retromer is believed to be involved in endosome-to-plasma membrane trafficking and recycling of a broad spectrum of cargo proteins. The CSC seems to act as recruitment hub for other proteins, such as the WASH complex and TBC1D5. Required to regulate transcytosis of the polymeric immunoglobulin receptor (pIgR- pIgA). Acts also as component of the retriever complex. The retriever complex is a heterotrimeric complex related to retromer cargo-selective complex (CSC) and essential for retromer-independent retrieval and recycling of numerous cargos such as integrin alpha-5/beta-1 (ITGA5:ITGB1). In the endosomes, retriever complex drives the retrieval and recycling of NxxY-motif-containing cargo proteins by coupling to SNX17, a cargo essential for the homeostatic maintenance of numerous cell surface proteins associated with processes that include cell migration, cell adhesion, nutrient supply and cell signaling. The recruitment of the retriever complex to the endosomal membrane involves CCC and WASH complexes. Involved in GLUT1 endosome-to-plasma membrane trafficking; the function is dependent of association with ANKRD27.

Acts as component of the retromer cargo-selective complex (CSC). The CSC is believed to be the core functional component of retromer or respective retromer complex variants acting to prevent missorting of selected transmembrane cargo proteins into the lysosomal degradation pathway. The recruitment of the CSC to the endosomal membrane involves RAB7A and SNX3. The CSC seems to associate with the cytoplasmic domain of cargo proteins predominantly via VPS35; however, these interactions seem to be of low affinity and retromer SNX proteins may also contribute to cargo selectivity thus questioning the classical function of the CSC. The SNX-BAR retromer mediates retrograde transport of cargo proteins from endosomes to the trans-Golgi network (TGN) and is involved in endosome-to-plasma membrane transport for cargo protein recycling. The SNX3-retromer mediates the retrograde endosome-to-TGN transport of WLS distinct from the SNX-BAR retromer pathway. The SNX27-retromer is believed to be involved in endosome-to-plasma membrane trafficking and recycling of a broad spectrum of cargo proteins. The CSC seems to act as recruitment hub for other proteins, such as the WASH complex and TBC1D5 (Probable). Required for retrograde transport of lysosomal enzyme receptor IGF2R and SLC11A2. Required to regulate transcytosis of the polymeric immunoglobulin receptor (pIgR-pIgA). Required for endosomal localization of WASHC2C. Mediates the association of the CSC with the WASH complex via WASHC2. Required for the endosomal localization of TBC1D5.

Component of the ESCRT-II complex (endosomal sorting complex required for transport II), which is required for multivesicular body (MVB) formation and sorting of endosomal cargo proteins into MVBs. The MVB pathway mediates delivery of transmembrane proteins into the lumen of the lysosome for degradation. The ESCRT-II complex is probably involved in the recruitment of the ESCRT-III complex. Its ability to bind ubiquitin probably plays a role in endosomal sorting of ubiquitinated cargo proteins by ESCRT complexes. The ESCRT-II complex may also play a role in transcription regulation, possibly via its interaction with ELL. Binds phosphoinosides such as PtdIns(3,4,5)P3

Regulator of TGF-beta/activin signaling, inhibiting SMAD3- and activating SMAD2-dependent transcription. Acts by interfering with SMAD3/SMAD4 complex formation, this would lead to inhibition of SMAD3-dependent transcription and relieve SMAD3 inhibition of SMAD2-dependent promoters, thus increasing SMAD2- dependent transcription. Does not affect TGF-beta-induced SMAD2 or SMAD3 phosphorylation, nor SMAD2/SMAD4 complex formation.

Plays a role in vesicle-mediated protein trafficking to lysosomal compartments including the endocytic membrane transport and autophagic pathways. Believed to act in part as a core component of the putative HOPS endosomal tethering complex is proposed to be involved in the Rab5-to-Rab7 endosome conversion probably implicating MON1A/B, and via binding SNAREs and SNARE complexes to mediate tethering and docking events during SNARE-mediated membrane fusion. The HOPS complex is proposed to be recruited to Rab7 on the late endosomal membrane and to regulate late endocytic, phagocytic and autophagic traffic towards lysosomes. Involved in homotypic vesicle fusions between late endosomes and in heterotypic fusions between late endosomes and lysosomes implicated in degradation of endocytosed cargo. Required for fusion of autophagosomes with lysosomes. Links the HOPS complex to endosomal Rab7 via its association with RILP and to lysosomal membranes via its association with ARL8B, suggesting that these interactions may bring the compartments to close proximity for fusion. Involved in the direct trans-Golgi network to late endosomes transport of lysosomal membrane proteins independently of HOPS. Involved in sorting to the regulated secretory pathway presumably implicating the AP-3 adapter complex (By similarity). May play a role in HOPS-independent function in the regulated secretory pathway.

May play a role in vesicle-mediated protein trafficking from the Golgi stack through the trans-Golgi network

Involved in late steps of the endosomal multivesicular bodies (MVB) pathway. Recognizes membrane-associated ESCRT-III assemblies and catalyzes their disassembly, possibly in combination with membrane fission. Redistributes the ESCRT-III components to the cytoplasm for further rounds of MVB sorting. MVBs contain intraluminal vesicles (ILVs) that are generated by invagination and scission from the limiting membrane of the endosome and mostly are delivered to lysosomes enabling degradation of membrane proteins, such as stimulated growth factor receptors, lysosomal enzymes and lipids. It is required for proper accomplishment of various processes including the regulation of endosome size, primary cilium organization, mitotic spindle organization, chromosome segregation, and nuclear envelope sealing and spindle disassembly during anaphase. Involved in cytokinesis: retained at the midbody by ZFYVE19/ANCHR and CHMP4C until abscission checkpoint signaling is terminated at late cytokinesis. It is then released following dephosphorylation of CHMP4C, leading to abscission. VPS4A/B are required for the exosomal release of SDCBP, CD63 and syndecan. Critical for normal erythroblast cytokinesis and correct erythropoiesis.

Involved in late steps of the endosomal multivesicular bodies (MVB) pathway. Recognizes membrane-associated ESCRT-III assemblies and catalyzes their ATP-dependent disassembly, possibly in combination with membrane fission. Redistributes the ESCRT-III components to the cytoplasm for further rounds of MVB sorting. MVBs contain intraluminal vesicles (ILVs) that are generated by invagination and scission from the limiting membrane of the endosome and mostly are delivered to lysosomes enabling degradation of membrane proteins, such as stimulated growth factor receptors, lysosomal enzymes and lipids. VPS4A/B are required for the exosomal release of SDCBP, CD63 and syndecan.

Acts as component of the EARP complex that is involved in endocytic recycling. The EARP complex associates with Rab4-positive endosomes and promotes recycling of internalized transferrin receptor (TFRC) to the plasma membrane. Within the EARP complex, required to tether the complex to recycling endosomes. Not involved in retrograde transport from early and late endosomes to the trans-Golgi network (TGN).

Acts as component of the GARP complex that is involved in retrograde transport from early and late endosomes to the trans-Golgi network (TGN). The GARP complex is required for the maintenance of protein retrieval from endosomes to the TGN, acid hydrolase sorting, lysosome function, endosomal cholesterol traffic and autophagy. VPS51 participates in retrograde transport of acid hydrolase receptors, likely by promoting tethering and SNARE-dependent fusion of endosome- derived carriers to the TGN. Acts as component of the EARP complex that is involved in endocytic recycling. The EARP complex associates with Rab4-positive endosomes and promotes recycling of internalized transferrin receptor (TFRC) to the plasma membrane.

Acts as component of the GARP complex that is involved in retrograde transport from early and late endosomes to the trans-Golgi network (TGN). The GARP complex is required for the maintenance of the cycling of mannose 6-phosphate receptors between the TGN and endosomes, this cycling is necessary for proper lysosomal sorting of acid hydrolases such as CTSD. Acts as component of the EARP complex that is involved in endocytic recycling. The EARP complex associates with Rab4-positive endosomes and promotes recycling of internalized transferrin receptor (TFRC) to the plasma membrane.

Acts as component of the GARP complex that is involved in retrograde transport from early and late endosomes to the trans-Golgi network (TGN). The GARP complex is required for the maintenance of the cycling of mannose 6-phosphate receptors between the TGN and endosomes, this cycling is necessary for proper lysosomal sorting of acid hydrolases such as CTSD. Within the GARP complex, required to tether the complex to the TGN. Not involved in endocytic recycling.

Deposition-and-exchange histone chaperone specific for H2AZ1, specifically chaperones H2AZ1 and deposits it into nucleosomes. As component of the SRCAP complex, mediates the ATP-dependent exchange of histone H2AZ1/H2B dimers for nucleosomal H2A/H2B, leading to transcriptional regulation of selected genes by chromatin remodeling.

Plays a role in vesicle-mediated protein trafficking of the endocytic membrane transport pathway. Believed to act as a component of the putative CORVET endosomal tethering complexes which is proposed to be involved in the Rab5-to-Rab7 endosome conversion probably implicating MON1A/B, and via binding SNAREs and SNARE complexes to mediate tethering and docking events during SNARE-mediated membrane fusion. The CORVET complex is proposed to function as a Rab5 effector to mediate early endosome fusion probably in specific endosome subpopulations. Functions predominantly in APPL1- containing endosomes.

Serine/threonine kinase involved in cell cycle, nuclear condensation and transcription regulation. Involved in Golgi disassembly during the cell cycle: following phosphorylation by PLK3 during mitosis, required to induce Golgi fragmentation. Phosphorylates 'Thr-18' of p53/TP53 and may thereby prevent the interaction between p53/TP53 and MDM2. Phosphorylates KAT5 in response to DNA damage, promoting KAT5 association with chromatin and histone acetyltransferase activity. Phosphorylates BANF1: disrupts its ability to bind DNA, reduces its binding to LEM domain-containing proteins and causes its relocalization from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. Phosphorylates ATF2 which activates its transcriptional activity.

Serine/threonine kinase that regulates several signal transduction pathways. Isoform 1 modulates the stress response to hypoxia and cytokines, such as interleukin-1 beta (IL1B) and this is dependent on its interaction with MAPK8IP1, which assembles mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) complexes. Inhibition of signal transmission mediated by the assembly of MAPK8IP1-MAPK complexes reduces JNK phosphorylation and JUN-dependent transcription. Phosphorylates 'Thr-18' of p53/TP53, histone H3, and may also phosphorylate MAPK8IP1. Phosphorylates BANF1 and disrupts its ability to bind DNA and reduces its binding to LEM domain-containing proteins. Down-regulates the transactivation of transcription induced by ERBB2, HRAS, BRAF, and MEK1. Blocks the phosphorylation of ERK in response to ERBB2 and HRAS. Can also phosphorylate the following substrates that are commonly used to establish in vitro kinase activity: casein, MBP and histone H2B, but it is not sure that this is physiologically relevant.

Inactive kinase that suppresses ERK activity by promoting phosphatase activity of DUSP3 which specifically dephosphorylates and inactivates ERK in the nucleus.

Phagocytic receptor, strong negative regulator of T-cell proliferation and IL2 production. Potent inhibitor of the alternative complement pathway convertases.

[Isoform 2]: Behaves as a cytokine, promoting IL17A secretion by CD4+ T-cells, and differentiation and activation of IL17 producing helper T-cells (TH17)

Peptide Lv enhances L-type voltage-gated calcium channel (L- VGCC) currents in retinal photoreceptors.

Cell adhesion-like membrane protein of the central nervous system (CNS) which modulates both the position and complexity of central neurons by altering their membrane morphology and dynamics. Involved in the formation of neuronal dendrites and protrusions including dendritic filopodia. In synaptogenesis, regulates synapse formation by altering dendritic spine morphology and actin distribution. Promotes formation of unstable neuronal spines such as thin and branched types. Regulates neuronal morphogenesis and migration during cortical development in the brain.

Binds to the 37-bp core of the locus control region (LCR) of the red/green visual pigment gene cluster. May regulate the activity of the LCR and the cone opsin genes at earlier stages of development. Dispensable in early retinal development (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional regulator through binding to DNA at the consensus sequence 5'-[TC]TAATT[AG][AG]-3' upstream of gene promoters. Plays a significant role in the specification and morphogenesis of the sensory retina (By similarity). May play a role in specification of V2a interneurons during spinal cord development (By similarity). Mediates differentiation of V2a interneurons by repression of motor neuron gene transcription, via competitively binding to response elements that are activated by the ISL1-LHX3 complex, such as VSX1. Acts as a positive transcriptional regulator of NXNL1; regulation is significantly increased in synergy with VSX1 (By similarity). Acts as a negative transcriptional regulator of MITF (By similarity). Represses SAG transcription by competitive inhibition of ISL1-LHX3 response elements. Binds to the photoreceptor conserved element-1 (PCE-1) in the promoter of rod photoreceptor arrestin SAG and acts as a transcriptional repressor (By similarity). Plays a significant role in the specification and morphogenesis of the sensory retina (By similarity). Involved in the development of retinal ganglion cells (RGCs) which leads to release of SHH by RGCs, promoting Hedgehog signaling and subsequent proliferation of retinal progenitor cells (By similarity). Participates in the development of the cells of the inner nuclear layer, by promoting postnatal differentiation of bipolar cells with a comparable inhibition of rod cell differentiation (By similarity). May play a role in the maintenance of neural retina identity during development by regulation of canonical Wnt genes and CTNNB1 localization, suggesting a role in the regulation of canonical Wnt signaling.

Involved in the endosomal multivesicular bodies (MVB) pathway. MVBs contain intraluminal vesicles (ILVs) that are generated by invagination and scission from the limiting membrane of the endosome and mostly are delivered to lysosomes enabling degradation of membrane proteins, such as stimulated growth factor receptors, lysosomal enzymes and lipids. Thought to be a cofactor of VPS4A/B, which catalyzes disassembles membrane-associated ESCRT-III assemblies. Involved in the sorting and down-regulation of EGFR (By similarity). Involved in HIV-1 budding.

Negatively regulates T-cell-mediated immune response by inhibiting T-cell activation, proliferation, cytokine production and development of cytotoxicity. When expressed on the cell surface of tumor macrophages, plays an important role, together with regulatory T- cells (Treg), in the suppression of tumor-associated antigen-specific T-cell immunity. Involved in promoting epithelial cell transformation.

Involved in vitamin D transport and storage, scavenging of extracellular G-actin, enhancement of the chemotactic activity of C5 alpha for neutrophils in inflammation and macrophage activation.

V-SNARE that mediates vesicle transport pathways through interactions with t-SNAREs on the target membrane. These interactions are proposed to mediate aspects of the specificity of vesicle trafficking and to promote fusion of the lipid bilayers. Involved in vesicular transport from the late endosomes to the trans-Golgi network. Along with VAMP7, involved in an non-conventional RAB1-dependent traffic route to the cell surface used by KCNIP1 and KCND2. May be involved in increased cytokine secretion associated with cellular senescence.

V-SNARE that mediates vesicle transport pathways through interactions with t-SNAREs on the target membrane. These interactions are proposed to mediate aspects of the specificity of vesicle trafficking and to promote fusion of the lipid bilayers. May be concerned with increased secretion of cytokines associated with cellular senescence.

Vitronectin is a cell adhesion and spreading factor found in serum and tissues. Vitronectin interact with glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans. Is recognized by certain members of the integrin family and serves as a cell-to-substrate adhesion molecule. Inhibitor of the membrane-damaging effect of the terminal cytolytic complement pathway

Promotes matrix assembly (By similarity). Involved in the organization of skeletal muscles and in the formation of neuromuscular junctions (Probable).

May play a role in neurogenesis. May play a role in bone differentiation and matrix mineralization.

BMP antagonist which may play a role in neural development. Promotes cell adhesion (By similarity).

May be a regulatory element in the beta-catenin signaling pathway and a target for chemoprevention of hapatocellular carcinoma.

Important in the maintenance of hemostasis, it promotes adhesion of platelets to the sites of vascular injury by forming a molecular bridge between sub-endothelial collagen matrix and platelet- surface receptor complex GPIb-IX-V. Also acts as a chaperone for coagulation factor VIII, delivering it to the site of injury, stabilizing its heterodimeric structure and protecting it from premature clearance from plasma

Acts at least in part as component of the WASH core complex whose assembly at the surface of endosomes inhibits WASH nucleation- promoting factor (NPF) activity in recruiting and activating the Arp2/3 complex to induce actin polymerization and is involved in the fission of tubules that serve as transport intermediates during endosome sorting. Mediates the recruitment of the WASH core complex to endosome membranes via binding to phospholipids and VPS35 of the retromer CSC. Mediates the recruitment of the F-actin-capping protein dimer to the WASH core complex probably promoting localized F-actin polymerization needed for vesicle scission. Via its C-terminus binds various phospholipids, most strongly phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate (PtdIns- (4)P), phosphatidylinositol 5-phosphate (PtdIns-(5)P) and phosphatidylinositol 3,5-bisphosphate (PtdIns-(3,5)P2). Involved in the endosome-to-plasma membrane trafficking and recycling of SNX27- retromer-dependent cargo proteins, such as GLUT1. Required for the association of DNAJC13, ENTR1, ANKRD50 with retromer CSC subunit VPS35. Required for the endosomal recruitment of CCC complex subunits COMMD1 and CCDC93 as well as the retriever complex subunit VPS35L.

Acts as a linker between gene transcription and histone H2B monoubiquitination at 'Lys-120' (H2BK120ub1). Interacts with the RNA polymerase II transcriptional machinery via its WW domain and with RNF20-RNF40 via its coiled coil region, thereby linking and regulating H2BK120ub1 and gene transcription. Regulates the cell-cycle checkpoint activation in response to DNA damage. Positive regulator of amino acid starvation-induced autophagy. Also acts as a negative regulator of basal autophagy. Positively regulates MTOR activity by promoting, in an energy-dependent manner, the assembly of the TTT complex composed of TELO2, TTI1 and TTI2 and the RUVBL complex composed of RUVBL1 and RUVBL2 into the TTT-RUVBL complex. This leads to the dimerization of the mTORC1 complex and its subsequent activation. May negatively regulate the ubiquitin proteasome pathway.

Regulator of sister chromatid cohesion in mitosis which negatively regulates cohesin association with chromatin. Involved in both sister chromatid cohesion during interphase and sister-chromatid resolution during early stages of mitosis. Couples DNA replication to sister chromatid cohesion. Cohesion ensures that chromosome partitioning is accurate in both meiotic and mitotic cells and plays an important role in DNA repair.

Acts as a component of the WASH core complex that functions as a nucleation-promoting factor (NPF) at the surface of endosomes, where it recruits and activates the Arp2/3 complex to induce actin polymerization, playing a key role in the fission of tubules that serve as transport intermediates during endosome sorting.

Acts as a component of the WASH core complex that functions as a nucleation-promoting factor (NPF) at the surface of endosomes, where it recruits and activates the Arp2/3 complex to induce actin polymerization, playing a key role in the fission of tubules that serve as transport intermediates during endosome sorting. May be involved in axonal outgrowth. Involved in cellular localization of ADRB2. Involved in cellular trafficking of BLOC-1 complex cargos such as ATP7A and VAMP7.

Downstream effector molecule involved in the transmission of signals from tyrosine kinase receptors and small GTPases to the actin cytoskeleton. Promotes formation of actin filaments. Part of the WAVE complex that regulates lamellipodia formation. The WAVE complex regulates actin filament reorganization via its interaction with the Arp2/3 complex (By similarity). As component of the WAVE1 complex, required for BDNF-NTRK2 endocytic trafficking and signaling from early endosomes (By similarity). Also involved in the regulation of mitochondrial dynamics.

Downstream effector molecule involved in the transmission of signals from tyrosine kinase receptors and small GTPases to the actin cytoskeleton. Promotes formation of actin filaments. Part of the WAVE complex that regulates lamellipodia formation. The WAVE complex regulates actin filament reorganization via its interaction with the Arp2/3 complex.

Downstream effector molecules involved in the transmission of signals from tyrosine kinase receptors and small GTPases to the actin cytoskeleton. Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Required in the control of cell shape.

Acts as a component of the WASH core complex that functions as a nucleation-promoting factor (NPF) at the surface of endosomes, where it recruits and activates the Arp2/3 complex to induce actin polymerization, playing a key role in the fission of tubules that serve as transport intermediates during endosome sorting. Involved in endocytic trafficking of EGF (By similarity). Involved in transferrin receptor recycling. Regulates the trafficking of endosomal alpha5beta1 integrin to the plasma membrane and involved in invasive cell migration. In T-cells involved in endosome-to-membrane recycling of receptors including T-cell receptor (TCR), CD28 and ITGAL; proposed to be implicated in T cell proliferation and effector function. In dendritic cells involved in endosome-to-membrane recycling of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II probably involving retromer and subsequently allowing antigen sampling, loading and presentation during T-cell activation (By similarity). Involved in Arp2/3 complex-dependent actin assembly driving Salmonella typhimurium invasion independent of ruffling. Involved in the exocytosis of MMP14 leading to matrix remodeling during invasive migration and implicating late endosome-to-plasma membrane tubular connections and cooperation with the exocyst complex. Involved in negative regulation of autophagy independently from its role in endosomal sorting by inhibiting BECN1 ubiquitination to inactivate PIK3C3/Vps34 activity (By similarity).

Regulates actin polymerization by stimulating the actin- nucleating activity of the Arp2/3 complex. Involved in various processes, such as mitosis and cytokinesis, via its role in the regulation of actin polymerization. Together with CDC42, involved in the extension and maintenance of the formation of thin, actin-rich surface projections called filopodia. In addition to its role in the cytoplasm, also plays a role in the nucleus by regulating gene transcription, probably by promoting nuclear actin polymerization. Binds to HSF1/HSTF1 and forms a complex on heat shock promoter elements (HSE) that negatively regulates HSP90 expression (By similarity). Plays a role in dendrite spine morphogenesis (By similarity). Decreasing levels of DNMBP (using antisense RNA) alters apical junction morphology in cultured enterocytes, junctions curve instead of being nearly linear.

Effector protein for Rho-type GTPases that regulates actin filament reorganization via its interaction with the Arp2/3 complex. Important for efficient actin polymerization. Possible regulator of lymphocyte and platelet function. Mediates actin filament reorganization and the formation of actin pedestals upon infection by pathogenic bacteria. In addition to its role in the cytoplasmic cytoskeleton, also promotes actin polymerization in the nucleus, thereby regulating gene transcription and repair of damaged DNA. Promotes homologous recombination (HR) repair in response to DNA damage by promoting nuclear actin polymerization, leading to drive motility of double-strand breaks (DSBs).

Activates pre-mRNA splicing. May inhibit PP1 phosphatase activity.

May play a role in meiotic resumption and pronuclear formation, mediated by a WW domain-signaling pathway during fertilization.

Acts as transcriptional coactivator of estrogen and progesterone receptors (ESR1 and PGR) upon hormone activation. In presence of estrogen, binds to ESR1-responsive promoters. Required for YAP1 coactivation function on PGR activity. Synergizes with WBP2 in enhancing PGR activity. Modulates expression of post-synaptic scaffolding proteins via regulation of ESR1, ESR2 and PGR (By similarity).

Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as a component of the spliceosome. May play a role in cross-intron bridging of U1 and U2 snRNPs in the mammalian A complex.

Positively regulates TLR3- and TLR4-mediated signaling pathways by bridging the interaction between TLR3 or TLR4 and TICAM1. Promotes TLR3/4 ligand-induced activation of transcription factors IRF3 and NF-kappa-B, as well as the production of IFN-beta and inflammatory cytokines.

Acts in an adapter protein-like fashion to mediate the interaction between the kinase PRKCZ and its substrate VAMP2 and increases the PRKCZ-dependent phosphorylation of VAMP2. Positively regulates adipocyte differentiation, by facilitating the phosphorylation and thus inactivation of the anti- adipogenetic transcription factor FOXO1 by the kinase AKT1. Plays a role in endosomal control of AKT2 signaling; required for insulin-stimulated AKT2 phosphorylation and glucose uptake and insulin-stimulated phosphorylation of AKT2 substrates (By similarity). Participates in transferrin receptor endocytosis.

Required for selective macroautophagy (aggrephagy). Acts as an adapter protein by linking specific proteins destined for degradation to the core autophagic machinery members, such as the ATG5- ATG12-ATG16L E3-like ligase, SQSTM1 and LC3. Along with p62/SQSTM1, involved in the formation and autophagic degradation of cytoplasmic ubiquitin-containing inclusions (p62 bodies, ALIS/aggresome-like induced structures). Along with SQSTM1, required to recruit ubiquitinated proteins to PML bodies in the nucleus. Important for normal brain development. Essential for the formation of axonal tracts throughout the brain and spinal cord, including the formation of the major forebrain commissures. Involved in the ability of neural cells to respond to guidance cues. Required for cortical neurons to respond to the trophic effects of netrin-1/NTN1 (By similarity). Regulates Wnt signaling through the removal of DVL3 aggregates, likely in an autophagy-dependent manner. This process may be important for the determination of brain size during embryonic development. May regulate osteoclastogenesis by acting on the TNFSF11/RANKL - TRAF6 pathway (By similarity). After cytokinetic abscission, involved in midbody remnant degradation. In vitro strongly binds to phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns3P).

Plays a critical role in the regulation of cDC1-mediated cross-presentation of viral and tumor antigens in dendritic cells. Mechanistically, acts near the plasma membrane and interacts with endosomal membranes to promote endosomal-to-cytosol antigen trafficking. Also plays a role in B-cell survival through regulation of autophagy.

Core replisome component that acts as a replication initiation factor. Binds directly to the CMG complex and functions as a hub to recruit additional proteins to the replication fork.

Involved in the Hedgehog (Hh) signaling pathway, is essential for normal ciliogenesis. Regulates the proteolytic processing of GLI3 and cooperates with the transcription factor EMX1 in the induction of downstream Hh pathway gene expression and gonadotropin-releasing hormone production. WDR11 complex facilitates the tethering of Adaptor protein-1 complex (AP-1)- derived vesicles. WDR11 complex acts together with TBC1D23 to facilitate the golgin-mediated capture of vesicles generated using AP-1.

Functions as a component of the Five Friends of Methylated CHTOP (5FMC) complex; the 5FMC complex is recruited to ZNF148 by methylated CHTOP, leading to desumoylation of ZNF148 and subsequent transactivation of ZNF148 target genes. Component of the PELP1 complex involved in the nucleolar steps of 28S rRNA maturation and the subsequent nucleoplasmic transit of the pre-60S ribosomal subunit. May play a role during development (By similarity).

As component of the IFT complex A (IFT-A), a complex required for retrograde ciliary transport and entry into cilia of G protein- coupled receptors (GPCRs), it is involved in cilia function and/or assembly. Essential for functional IFT-A assembly and ciliary entry of GPCRs. Associates with the BBSome complex to mediate ciliary transport (By similarity).

Induces disassembly of actin filaments in conjunction with ADF/cofilin family proteins. Enhances cofilin-mediated actin severing (By similarity). Involved in cytokinesis. Involved in chemotactic cell migration by restricting lamellipodial membrane protrusions. Involved in myocardium sarcomere organization. Required for cardiomyocyte growth and maintenance (By similarity). Involved in megakaryocyte maturation and platelet shedding. Required for the establishment of planar cell polarity (PCP) during follicular epithelium development and for cell shape changes during PCP; the function seems to implicate cooperation with CFL1 and/or DSTN/ADF. Involved in the generation/maintenance of cortical tension (By similarity). Involved in assembly and maintenance of epithelial apical cell junctions and plays a role in the organization of the perijunctional actomyosin belt.

Regulator of deubiquitinating complexes. Activates deubiquitinating activity of complexes containing USP12. Anchors at the base of the ubiquitin-contacting loop of USP12 and remotely modulates the catalytic center of the enzyme.

As a component of the GATOR subcomplex GATOR2, functions within the amino acid-sensing branch of the TORC1 signaling pathway. Indirectly activates mTORC1 and the TORC1 signaling pathway through the inhibition of the GATOR1 subcomplex. It is negatively regulated by the upstream amino acid sensors SESN2 and CASTOR1. In addition to its role in regulation of the TORC1 complex, promotes the acidification of lysosomes and facilitates autophagic flux.

Essential for both cleavage and polyadenylation of pre-mRNA 3' ends.

As a component of the IFT complex A (IFT-A), a complex required for retrograde ciliary transport and entry into cilia of G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs), it is involved in ciliogenesis and ciliary protein trafficking. May promote CASP3 activation and TNF-stimulated apoptosis.

Non-catalytic component of the C9orf72-SMCR8 complex, a complex that has guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) activity and regulates autophagy. The C9orf72-SMCR8 complex promotes the exchange of GDP to GTP, converting inactive GDP-bound RAB8A and RAB39B into their active GTP-bound form, thereby promoting autophagosome maturation. As part of the C9orf72-SMCR8 complex, stimulates RAB8A and RAB11A GTPase activity in vitro, however WDR42 is shown not be an essential complex component for this function. The C9orf72-SMCR8 complex also acts as a negative regulator of autophagy initiation by interacting with the ULK1/ATG1 kinase complex and inhibiting its protein kinase activity.

Ribosome biogenesis factor that coordinates hyperactive transcription and ribogenesis. Involved in nucleolar processing of pre-18S ribosomal RNA. Required for optimal pre-ribosomal RNA transcription by RNA polymerase I. Essential for stem cell pluripotency and embryonic development. In the nucleoplasm, recruited by promoter-associated/nascent transcripts and transcription to active promoters where it facilitates releases of elongation factor P-TEFb and paused RNA polymerase II to allow transcription elongation and maintain high-level expression of its targets genes (By similarity).

Downstream effector for RAB11. May be involved in vesicle recycling (By similarity).

Scaffold component of the nucleolar structure. Required for localization of DDX21 and NCL to the granular compartment of the nucleolus.

Regulator of deubiquitinating complexes, which acts as a strong activator of USP1, USP12 and USP46. Enhances the USP1- mediated deubiquitination of FANCD2; USP1 being almost inactive by itself. Activates deubiquitination by increasing the catalytic turnover without increasing the affinity of deubiquitinating enzymes for the substrate. Also activates deubiquitinating activity of complexes containing USP12. In complex with USP12, acts as a potential tumor suppressor by positively regulating PHLPP1 stability. Docks at the distal end of the USP12 fingers domain and induces a cascade of structural changes leading to the activation of the enzyme. Together with RAD51AP1, promotes DNA repair by stimulating RAD51-mediated homologous recombination. Binds single- stranded DNA (ssDNA) and double-stranded DNA (dsDNA). DNA-binding is required both for USP1-mediated deubiquitination of FANCD2 and stimulation of RAD51- mediated homologous recombination: both WDR48/UAF1 and RAD51AP1 have coordinated role in DNA-binding during these processes. Together with ATAD5 and by regulating USP1 activity, has a role in PCNA-mediated translesion synthesis (TLS) by deubiquitinating monoubiquitinated PCNA. Together with ATAD5, has a role in recruiting RAD51 to stalled forks during replication stress.

Non-catalytic component of a methyltransferase complex required for the formation of N(7)-methylguanine in a subset of RNA species, such as tRNAs, mRNAs and microRNAs (miRNAs). In the methyltransferase complex, it is required to stabilize and induce conformational changes of the catalytic subunit. Required for the formation of N(7)-methylguanine at position 46 (m7G46) in tRNA. Also required for the formation of N(7)-methylguanine at internal sites in a subset of mRNAs. Also required for methylation of a specific subset of miRNAs, such as let-7. Independently of METTL1, also plays a role in genome stability: localizes at the DNA replication site and regulates endonucleolytic activities of FEN1.

When cross-linked to form dimers and trimers, it has a regulatory effect on ERK signaling pathway activity in response to EGF stimulation. Colocalizes with the EGF receptor in WDR54-specific vesicle where it sustains the internalization and controls the degradation of the EGF receptor after EGF stimulation.

Nucleolar protein that acts as a modulator of rRNA synthesis. Plays a central role during organogenesis (By similarity).

May function as a substrate receptor for CUL4-DDB1 ubiquitin E3 ligase complex.

Contributes to histone modification. May position the N-terminus of histone H3 for efficient trimethylation at 'Lys-4'. As part of the MLL1/MLL complex it is involved in methylation and dimethylation at 'Lys-4' of histone H3. H3 'Lys-4' methylation represents a specific tag for epigenetic transcriptional activation. As part of the NSL complex it may be involved in acetylation of nucleosomal histone H4 on several lysine residues. May regulate osteoblasts differentiation (By similarity). In association with RBBP5 and ASH2L, stimulates the histone methyltransferase activities of KMT2A, KMT2B, KMT2C, KMT2D, SETD1A and SETD1B.

Required for cerebral cortical development. Plays a role in neuronal proliferation and migration. Plays a role in mother-centriole-dependent centriole duplication; the function seems also to involve CEP152, CDK5RAP2 and CEP63 through a stepwise assembled complex at the centrosome that recruits CDK2 required for centriole duplication.

Enhances the STK11/LKB1-induced cell growth suppression activity. Negative regulator of amino acid starvation-induced autophagy.

Plays a major role in formation of tooth enamel. Specifically required during the maturation phase of amelogenesis for normal formation of the enamel matrix and clearance of enamel proteins. May be involved in localization of the calcium transporter SLC24A4 to the ameloblast cell membrane.

May play a role in the regulation of microtubule organization and dynamics.

Regulatory protein of the MTREX-exosome complex involved in the synthesis of the 60S ribosomal subunit. Participates in an early cleavage of the pre-rRNA processing pathway in cooperation with NVL. Required for blastocyst formation, is necessary for RNA transcription, processing and/or stability during preimplantation development (By similarity).

Functions as a negative regulator of the PI3 kinase/PI3K activity associated with endosomal membranes via BECN1, a core subunit of the PI3K complex. By modifying the phosphatidylinositol 3- phosphate/PtdInsP3 content of endosomal membranes may regulate endosome fusion, recycling, sorting and early to late endosome transport. It is for instance, required for the delivery of cargos like BST2/tetherin from early to late endosome and thereby participates indirectly to their degradation by the lysosome. May also play a role in aggrephagy, the macroautophagic degradation of ubiquitinated protein aggregates. In this process, may regulate the interaction of SQSTM1 with ubiquitinated proteins and also recruit MAP1LC3C. May also be involved in maintenance of normal mitochondrial structure and organization (By similarity).

Regulatory component of the SET1 complex implicated in the tethering of this complex to transcriptional start sites of active genes. Facilitates histone H3 'Lys-4' methylation (H3K4me) via recruitment of the SETD1A or SETD1B to the 'Ser-5' phosphorylated C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNA polymerase II large subunit (POLR2A). Component of PTW/PP1 phosphatase complex, which plays a role in the control of chromatin structure and cell cycle progression during the transition from mitosis into interphase. Together with ZC3H4, but independently of the SET1 complex, part of a transcription termination checkpoint that promotes transcription termination of long non-coding RNAs (lncRNAs). The transcription termination checkpoint is activated by the inefficiently spliced first exon of lncRNAs and promotes transcription termination of lncRNAs and their subsequent degradation by the exosome.

Molecular scaffold protein for various multimeric protein complexes. Acts as a module in the assembly of a multicomponent scaffold for the ERK pathway, linking ERK responses to specific agonists. At low concentrations it enhances ERK activation, whereas high concentrations lead to the inhibition of ERK activation. Also involved in response to hypoxia by acting as a negative regulator of HIF1A/HIF-1-alpha via its interaction with EGLN3/PHD3. May promote degradation of HIF1A. May act by recruiting signaling complexes to a specific upstream activator (By similarity). May also be involved in pre-mRNA splicing.

Functions as a negative regulator of the PI3 kinase/PI3K activity associated with endosomal membranes via BECN1, a core subunit of the PI3K complex. By modifying the phosphatidylinositol 3- phosphate/PtdInsP3 content of endosomal membranes may regulate endosome fusion, recycling, sorting and early to late endosome transport. It is for instance, required for the delivery of cargos like BST2/tetherin from early to late endosome and thereby participates indirectly to their degradation by the lysosome. May play a role in meiosis (By similarity).

Acts as a negative regulator of entry into mitosis (G2 to M transition) by protecting the nucleus from cytoplasmically activated cyclin B1-complexed CDK1 before the onset of mitosis by mediating phosphorylation of CDK1 on 'Tyr-15'. Specifically phosphorylates and inactivates cyclin B1-complexed CDK1 reaching a maximum during G2 phase and a minimum as cells enter M phase. Phosphorylation of cyclin B1-CDK1 occurs exclusively on 'Tyr-15' and phosphorylation of monomeric CDK1 does not occur. Its activity increases during S and G2 phases and decreases at M phase when it is hyperphosphorylated. A correlated decrease in protein level occurs at M/G1 phase, probably due to its degradation

Oocyte-specific protein tyrosine kinase that phosphorylates and inhibits CDK1/CDC2 and acts as a key regulator of meiosis during both prophase I and metaphase II. Required to maintain meiotic arrest in oocytes during the germinal vesicle (GV) stage, a long period of quiescence at dictyate prophase I, by phosphorylating CDK1 at 'Tyr-15', leading to inhibit CDK1 activity and prevent meiotic reentry. Also required for metaphase II exit during egg activation by phosphorylating CDK1 at 'Tyr-15', to ensure exit from meiosis in oocytes and promote pronuclear formation (By similarity).

Antibacterial protein. Putative acid-stable proteinase inhibitor

Protease-inhibitor that contains multiple distinct protease inhibitor domains. Probably has serine protease- and metalloprotease- inhibitor activity (By similarity).

Protease-inhibitor that contains multiple distinct protease inhibitor domains. Probably has serine protease- and metalloprotease- inhibitor activity. Inhibits the biological activity of mature myostatin, but not activin (By similarity).

Participates in the regulation of cellular Ca(2+) homeostasis, at least partly, by modulating the filling state of the endoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+) store. Negatively regulates the ER stress response and positively regulates the stability of V-ATPase subunits ATP6V1A and ATP1B1 by preventing their degradation through an unknown proteasome-independent mechanism.

Acts as a nucleation-promoting factor (NPF) that stimulates Arp2/3-mediated actin polymerization both at the Golgi apparatus and along tubular membranes. Its activity in membrane tubulation requires F-actin and interaction with microtubules. Proposed to use coordinated actin-nucleating and microtubule-binding activities of distinct WHAMM molecules to drive membrane tubule elongation; when MT-bound can recruit and remodel membrane vesicles but is prevented to activate the Arp2/3 complex. Involved as a regulator of Golgi positioning and morphology. Participates in vesicle transport between the reticulum endoplasmic and the Golgi complex. Required for RhoD-dependent actin reorganization such as in cell adhesion and cell migration.

Involved in hearing and vision as member of the USH2 complex. Necessary for elongation and maintenance of inner and outer hair cell stereocilia in the organ of Corti in the inner ear. Involved in the maintenance of the hair bundle ankle region, which connects stereocilia in cochlear hair cells of the inner ear. In retina photoreceptors, required for the maintenance of periciliary membrane complex that seems to play a role in regulating intracellular protein transport.

Binds to WNT proteins and inhibits their activities. May be involved in mesoderm segmentation

Plays a role in the reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton. Contributes with NCK1 and GRB2 in the recruitment and activation of WASL. May participate in regulating the subcellular localization of WASL, resulting in the disassembly of stress fibers in favor of filopodia formation. Plays a role in the formation of cell ruffles (By similarity). Plays an important role in the intracellular motility of vaccinia virus by functioning as an adapter for recruiting WASL to vaccinia virus.

Plays an active role in the formation of cell surface protrusions downstream of activated PDGFB receptors. Plays an important role in actin-microspike formation through cooperation with WASL. May cooperate with WASP and WASL to induce mobilization and reorganization of the actin filament system.

May be a regulator of cytoskeletal organization. May have a role in spermatogenesis (By similarity).

Component of the autophagy machinery that controls the major intracellular degradation process by which cytoplasmic materials are packaged into autophagosomes and delivered to lysosomes for degradation. Plays an important role in starvation- and calcium-mediated autophagy, as well as in mitophagy. Functions downstream of the ULK1 and PI3- kinases that produce phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns3P) on membranes of the endoplasmic reticulum once activated. Binds phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns3P), and maybe other phosphoinositides including PtdIns3,5P2 and PtdIns5P, and is recruited to phagophore assembly sites at the endoplasmic reticulum membranes. There, it assists WIPI2 in the recruitment of ATG12- ATG5-ATG16L1, a complex that directly controls the elongation of the nascent autophagosomal membrane. Together with WDR45/WIPI4, promotes ATG2 (ATG2A or ATG2B)-mediated lipid transfer by enhancing ATG2-association with phosphatidylinositol 3-monophosphate (PI3P)-containing membranes. Involved in xenophagy of Staphylococcus aureus. Invading S.aureus cells become entrapped in autophagosome-like WIPI1 positive vesicles targeted for lysosomal degradation. Also plays a distinct role in controlling the transcription of melanogenic enzymes and melanosome maturation, a process that is distinct from starvation-induced autophagy. May also regulate the trafficking of proteins involved in the mannose-6-phosphate receptor (MPR) recycling pathway.

Component of the autophagy machinery that controls the major intracellular degradation process by which cytoplasmic materials are packaged into autophagosomes and delivered to lysosomes for degradation. Involved in an early step of the formation of preautophagosomal structures. Binds and is activated by phosphatidylinositol 3- phosphate (PtdIns3P) forming on membranes of the endoplasmic reticulum upon activation of the upstream ULK1 and PI3 kinases. Mediates ER-isolation membranes contacts by interacting with the ULK1:RB1CC1 complex and PtdIns3P. Once activated, WIPI2 recruits at phagophore assembly sites the ATG12-ATG5-ATG16L1 complex that directly controls the elongation of the nascent autophagosomal membrane.

Component of the autophagy machinery that controls the major intracellular degradation process by which cytoplasmic materials are packaged into autophagosomes and delivered to lysosomes for degradation. Binds phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns3P), and other phosphoinositides including PtdIns(3,5)P2, forming on membranes of the endoplasmic reticulum upon activation of the upstream ULK1 and PI3 kinases and is recruited at phagophore assembly sites where it regulates the elongation of nascent phagophores downstream of WIPI2. In the cellular response to starvation, may also function together with the TSC1-TSC2 complex and RB1CC1 in the inhibition of the mTORC1 signaling pathway.

Component of the autophagy machinery that controls the major intracellular degradation process by which cytoplasmic materials are packaged into autophagosomes and delivered to lysosomes for degradation. Binds phosphatidylinositol 3- phosphate (PtdIns3P). Activated by the STK11/AMPK signaling pathway upon starvation, WDR45 is involved in autophagosome assembly downstream of WIPI2, regulating the size of forming autophagosomes. Together with WIPI1, promotes ATG2 (ATG2A or ATG2B)-mediated lipid transfer by enhancing ATG2-association with phosphatidylinositol 3-monophosphate (PI3P)-containing membranes. Probably recruited to membranes through its PtdIns3P activity.

Regulates Wnt proteins sorting and secretion in a feedback regulatory mechanism. This reciprocal interaction plays a key role in the regulation of expression, subcellular location, binding and organelle-specific association of Wnt proteins. Plays also an important role in establishment of the anterior-posterior body axis formation during development (By similarity).

Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors (Probable). Functions in the canonical Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway (By similarity). Plays a role in normal ectoderm development. Required for normal tooth development. Required for normal postnatal development and maintenance of tongue papillae and sweat ducts. Required for normal proliferation of basal cells in tongue filiform papillae, plantar epithelium and sweat ducts. Required for normal expression of keratins in tongue papillae (By similarity). Required for normal expression of KRT9 in foot plant epithelium. Required for normal hair follicle function.

Member of the Wnt ligand gene family that encodes for secreted proteins, which activate the Wnt signaling cascade. Specifically activates canonical Wnt/beta-catenin signaling and thus triggers beta-catenin/LEF/TCF-mediated transcriptional programs. Involved in signaling networks controlling stemness, pluripotency and cell fate decisions. Acts in the immune system, mammary gland, adipose tissue, bone and skin.

Serine/threonine kinase which plays an important role in the regulation of electrolyte homeostasis, cell signaling, survival, and proliferation. Acts as an activator and inhibitor of sodium-coupled chloride cotransporters and potassium-coupled chloride cotransporters respectively. Activates SCNN1A, SCNN1B, SCNN1D and SGK1. Controls sodium and chloride ion transport by inhibiting the activity of WNK4, by either phosphorylating the kinase or via an interaction between WNK4 and the autoinhibitory domain of WNK1. WNK4 regulates the activity of the thiazide-sensitive Na-Cl cotransporter, SLC12A3, by phosphorylation. WNK1 may also play a role in actin cytoskeletal reorganization. Phosphorylates NEDD4L. Acts as a scaffold to inhibit SLC4A4, SLC26A6 as well as CFTR activities and surface expression, recruits STK39 which mediates the inhibition (By similarity).

Serine/threonine kinase which plays an important role in the regulation of electrolyte homeostasis, cell signaling, survival and proliferation. Acts as an activator and inhibitor of sodium-coupled chloride cotransporters and potassium-coupled chloride cotransporters respectively. Activates SCNN1A, SCNN1B, SCNN1D, SGK1, TRPV5 and TRPV6. Regulates the activity of the thiazide-sensitive Na-Cl cotransporter, SLC12A3, by phosphorylation which appears to prevent membrane trafficking of SLC12A3. Also inhibits the renal K(+) channel, KCNJ1, via a kinase-independent mechanism by which it induces clearance of the protein from the cell surface by clathrin-dependent endocytosis. WNK4 appears to act as a molecular switch that can vary the balance between NaCl reabsorption and K(+) secretion to maintain integrated homeostasis. Phosphorylates NEDD4L. Acts as a scaffold to inhibit SLC4A4 as well as CFTR activities and surface expression, recruits STK39 which mediates the inhibition (By similarity).

Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors. Probable developmental protein. May be a signaling molecule which affects the development of discrete regions of tissues. Is likely to signal over only few cell diameters

Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors. Probable developmental protein. May be a signaling molecule which affects the development of discrete regions of tissues. Is likely to signal over only few cell diameters (By similarity).

Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors (Probable). Acts in the canonical Wnt signaling pathway by promoting beta-catenin-dependent transcriptional activation. In some developmental processes, is also a ligand for the coreceptor RYK, thus triggering Wnt signaling (By similarity). Plays an essential role in the development of the embryonic brain and central nervous system (CNS) (By similarity). Has a role in osteoblast function, bone development and bone homeostasis.

Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors. Functions in the canonical Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway. Plays a redundant role in embryonic lung development.

Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors. Functions in the canonical Wnt signaling pathway that results in activation of transcription factors of the TCF/LEF family. Functions as upstream regulator of FGF10 expression. Plays an important role in embryonic lung development. May contribute to embryonic brain development by regulating the proliferation of dopaminergic precursors and neurons (By similarity).

Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors (Probable). Functions in the canonical Wnt signaling pathway that results in activation of transcription factors of the TCF/LEF family. Required for normal embryonic mesoderm development and formation of caudal somites. Required for normal morphogenesis of the developing neural tube (By similarity). Mediates self-renewal of the stem cells at the bottom on intestinal crypts (in vitro).

Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors (Probable). Functions in the canonical Wnt signaling pathway that results in activation of transcription factors of the TCF/LEF family. Required for normal gastrulation, formation of the primitive streak, and for the formation of the mesoderm during early embryogenesis. Required for normal formation of the apical ectodermal ridge (By similarity). Required for normal embryonic development, and especially for limb development.

Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors (Probable). Plays an important role in the embryonic development of the urogenital tract and the lung. Required for normal mesenchyme to epithelium transition during embryonic kidney development. Required for the formation of early epithelial renal vesicles during kidney development (By similarity). Required for normal formation of the Mullerian duct in females, and normal levels of oocytes in the ovaries. Required for normal down-regulation of 3 beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase in the ovary. Required for normal lung development and for normal patterning of trachael cartilage rings (By similarity).

Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors. Can activate or inhibit canonical Wnt signaling, depending on receptor context. In the presence of FZD4, activates beta-catenin signaling. In the presence of ROR2, inhibits the canonical Wnt pathway by promoting beta-catenin degradation through a GSK3-independent pathway which involves down-regulation of beta- catenin-induced reporter gene expression (By similarity). Suppression of the canonical pathway allows chondrogenesis to occur and inhibits tumor formation. Stimulates cell migration. Decreases proliferation, migration, invasiveness and clonogenicity of carcinoma cells and may act as a tumor suppressor. Mediates motility of melanoma cells. Required during embryogenesis for extension of the primary anterior-posterior axis and for outgrowth of limbs and the genital tubercle. Inhibits type II collagen expression in chondrocytes (By similarity).

Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors. Probable developmental protein. May be a signaling molecule which affects the development of discrete regions of tissues. Is likely to signal over only few cell diameters. Together with CAV1 may promote chemoresistance of gastric cancer cells to DNA- damaging anthracycline drugs through the activation of the canonical Wnt receptor signaling pathway.

Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors that functions in the canonical Wnt/beta- catenin signaling pathway (By similarity). Plays an important role in embryonic development, including dorsal versus ventral patterning during limb development, skeleton development and urogenital tract development. Required for central nervous system (CNS) angiogenesis and blood-brain barrier regulation. Required for normal, sexually dimorphic development of the Mullerian ducts, and for normal fertility in both sexes (By similarity). Required for normal neural stem cell proliferation in the hippocampus dentate gyrus (By similarity). Required for normal progress through the cell cycle in neural progenitor cells, for self-renewal of neural stem cells, and for normal neuronal differentiation and maturation (By similarity). Promotes formation of synapses via its interaction with FZD5 (By similarity).

Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors that functions in the canonical Wnt/beta- catenin signaling pathway. Required for normal fusion of the chorion and the allantois during placenta development (By similarity). Required for central nervous system (CNS) angiogenesis and blood-brain barrier regulation.

Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors. May play an important role in the development and differentiation of certain forebrain structures, notably the hippocampus.

Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors. Functions in the canonical Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway. Required for normal timing of IHH expression during embryonic bone development, normal chondrocyte maturation and for normal bone mineralization during embryonic bone development. Plays a redundant role in maintaining joint integrity.

Ligand for members of the frizzled family of seven transmembrane receptors (Probable). Functions in the canonical Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway. Required for normal embryonic kidney development, and for normal development of the urogenital tract, including uterus and part of the oviduct and the upper vagina in females, and epididymis and vas deferens in males. Activates a signaling cascade in the metanephric mesenchyme that induces tubulogenesis. Acts upstream of WNT4 in the signaling pathways that mediate development of kidney tubules and the Muellerian ducts. Plays a role in cranofacial development and is required for normal fusion of the palate during embryonic development (By similarity).

Functions as a modulator of initiation or reinitiation events during DNA polymerase delta-mediated DNA synthesis. In the presence of ATP, stimulation of DNA polymerase delta-mediated DNA synthesis is decreased. Also plays a role in the innate immune defense against viruses. Stabilizes the RIGI dsRNA interaction and promotes RIGI 'Lys- 63'-linked polyubiquitination. In turn, RIGI transmits the signal through mitochondrial MAVS.

Multifunctional enzyme that has both magnesium and ATP- dependent DNA-helicase activity and 3'->5' exonuclease activity towards double-stranded DNA with a 5'-overhang. Has no nuclease activity towards single-stranded DNA or blunt-ended double-stranded DNA. Binds preferentially to DNA substrates containing alternate secondary structures, such as replication forks and Holliday junctions. May play an important role in the dissociation of joint DNA molecules that can arise as products of homologous recombination, at stalled replication forks or during DNA repair. Alleviates stalling of DNA polymerases at the site of DNA lesions. Important for genomic integrity. Plays a role in the formation of DNA replication focal centers; stably associates with foci elements generating binding sites for RP-A (By similarity). Plays a role in double-strand break repair after gamma-irradiation.

The SSX2IP:WRAP73 complex is proposed to act as regulator of spindle anchoring at the mitotic centrosome. Required for the centrosomal localization of SSX2IP and normal mitotic bipolar spindle morphology. Required for the targeting of centriole satellite proteins to centrosomes such as of PCM1, SSX2IP, CEP290 and PIBF1/CEP90. Required for ciliogenesis and involved in the removal of the CEP97:CCP110 complex from the mother centriole. Involved in ciliary vesicle formation at the mother centriole and required for the docking of vesicles to the basal body during ciliogenesis; may promote docking of RAB8A- and ARL13B-containing vesicles.

Probable substrate-recognition component of a SCF-like ECS (Elongin-Cullin-SOCS-box protein) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins. Recognizes type II iodothyronine deiodinase/DIO2. Confers constitutive instability to HIPK2 through proteasomal degradation.

Transcription factor that plays an important role in cellular development and cell survival. Recognizes and binds to the DNA sequence 5'-GCG(T/G)GGGCG-3'. Regulates the expression of numerous target genes, including EPO. Plays an essential role for development of the urogenital system. It has a tumor suppressor as well as an oncogenic role in tumor formation. Function may be isoform-specific: isoforms lacking the KTS motif may act as transcription factors. Isoforms containing the KTS motif may bind mRNA and play a role in mRNA metabolism or splicing. Isoform 1 has lower affinity for DNA, and can bind RNA.

Adapter or scaffold protein which participates in the assembly of numerous protein complexes and is involved in several cellular processes such as cell fate determination, cytoskeletal organization, repression of gene transcription, cell-cell adhesion, cell differentiation, proliferation and migration. Positively regulates microRNA (miRNA)-mediated gene silencing. Negatively regulates Hippo signaling pathway and antagonizes phosphorylation of YAP1. Acts as a transcriptional corepressor for SNAI1 and SNAI2/SLUG-dependent repression of E-cadherin transcription. Acts as a hypoxic regulator by bridging an association between the prolyl hydroxylases and VHL enabling efficient degradation of HIF1A. In podocytes, may play a role in the regulation of actin dynamics and/or foot process cytoarchitecture (By similarity). In the course of podocyte injury, shuttles into the nucleus and acts as a transcription regulator that represses WT1-dependent transcription regulation, thereby translating changes in slit diaphragm structure into altered gene expression and a less differentiated phenotype. Involved in the organization of the basal body (By similarity). Involved in cilia growth and positioning (By similarity).

Putative oxidoreductase. Acts as a tumor suppressor and plays a role in apoptosis. Required for normal bone development (By similarity). May function synergistically with p53/TP53 to control genotoxic stress-induced cell death. Plays a role in TGFB1 signaling and TGFB1-mediated cell death. May also play a role in tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-mediated cell death. Inhibits Wnt signaling, probably by sequestering DVL2 in the cytoplasm.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Ubiquitinates ERBB4 isoforms JM-A CYT-1 and JM-B CYT-1, KLF2, KLF5 and TP63 and promotes their proteasomal degradation. Ubiquitinates RNF11 without targeting it for degradation. Ubiquitinates and promotes degradation of TGFBR1; the ubiquitination is enhanced by SMAD7. Ubiquitinates SMAD6 and SMAD7. Ubiquitinates and promotes degradation of SMAD2 in response to TGF-beta signaling, which requires interaction with TGIF.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase which accepts ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfers the ubiquitin to targeted substrates. Polyubiquitinates POU5F1 by 'Lys-63'-linked conjugation and promotes it to proteasomal degradation; in embryonic stem cells (ESCs) the ubiquitination is proposed to regulate POU5F1 protein level. Ubiquitinates EGR2 and promotes it to proteasomal degradation; in T- cells the ubiquitination inhibits activation-induced cell death. Ubiquitinates SLC11A2; the ubiquitination is enhanced by presence of NDFIP1 and NDFIP2. Ubiquitinates RPB1 and promotes it to proteasomal degradation.

Transcriptional coactivator which acts as a downstream regulatory target in the Hippo signaling pathway that plays a pivotal role in organ size control and tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis. The core of this pathway is composed of a kinase cascade wherein STK3/MST2 and STK4/MST1, in complex with its regulatory protein SAV1, phosphorylates and activates LATS1/2 in complex with its regulatory protein MOB1, which in turn phosphorylates and inactivates YAP1 oncoprotein and WWTR1/TAZ. WWTR1 enhances PAX8 and NKX2-1/TTF1-dependent gene activation. In conjunction with YAP1, involved in the regulation of TGFB1-dependent SMAD2 and SMAD3 nuclear accumulation. Plays a key role in coupling SMADs to the transcriptional machinery such as the mediator complex. Regulates embryonic stem-cell self- renewal, promotes cell proliferation and epithelial-mesenchymal transition.

Chemokine that acts as a ligand for both CX3CR1 and integrins ITGAV:ITGB3 and ITGA4:ITGB1. The CX3CR1-CX3CL1 signaling exerts distinct functions in different tissue compartments, such as immune response, inflammation, cell adhesion and chemotaxis. Regulates leukocyte adhesion and migration processes at the endothelium. Can activate integrins in both a CX3CR1-dependent and CX3CR1-independent manner. In the presence of CX3CR1, activates integrins by binding to the classical ligand-binding site (site 1) in integrins. In the absence of CX3CR1, binds to a second site (site 2) in integrins which is distinct from site 1 and enhances the binding of other integrin ligands to site 1.

Seems to function as a negative regulator of members of the IAP (inhibitor of apoptosis protein) family. Inhibits anti-caspase activity of BIRC4. Induces cleavage and inactivation of BIRC4 independent of caspase activation. Mediates TNF-alpha-induced apoptosis and is involved in apoptosis in trophoblast cells. May inhibit BIRC4 indirectly by activating the mitochondrial apoptosis pathway. After translocation to mitochondria, promotes translocation of BAX to mitochondria and cytochrome c release from mitochondria. Seems to promote the redistribution of BIRC4 from the cytoplasm to the nucleus, probably independent of BIRC4 inactivation which seems to occur in the cytoplasm. The BIRC4-XAF1 complex mediates down-regulation of BIRC5/survivin; the process requires the E3 ligase activity of BIRC4. Seems to be involved in cellular sensitivity to the proapoptotic actions of TRAIL. May be a tumor suppressor by mediating apoptosis resistance of cancer cells.

Chemotactic activity for lymphocytes but not for monocytes or neutrophils. In thymus, mediates medullary accumulation of thymic dendritic cells and contributes to regulatoy T cell development, playing a role in self-tolerance establishment.

Chemotactic activity for lymphocytes but not for monocytes or neutrophils.

Receptor for chemokines SCYC1 and SCYC2. Subsequently transduces a signal by increasing the intracellular calcium ions level. Receptor for XCL1/Lymphotactin.

Sodium-independent, high-affinity exchange of anionic amino acids with high specificity for anionic form of cystine and glutamate.

Key enzyme in purine degradation. Catalyzes the oxidation of hypoxanthine to xanthine. Catalyzes the oxidation of xanthine to uric acid. Contributes to the generation of reactive oxygen species. Has also low oxidase activity towards aldehydes (in vitro).

Multi-functional protein which regulates not only caspases and apoptosis, but also modulates inflammatory signaling and immunity, copper homeostasis, mitogenic kinase signaling, cell proliferation, as well as cell invasion and metastasis. Acts as a direct caspase inhibitor. Directly bind to the active site pocket of CASP3 and CASP7 and obstructs substrate entry. Inactivates CASP9 by keeping it in a monomeric, inactive state. Acts as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase regulating NF-kappa-B signaling and the target proteins for its E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity include: RIPK1, MAP3K2/MEKK2, DIABLO/SMAC, AIFM1, CCS and BIRC5/survivin. Ubiquitination of CCS leads to enhancement of its chaperone activity toward its physiologic target, SOD1, rather than proteasomal degradation. Ubiquitination of MAP3K2/MEKK2 and AIFM1 does not lead to proteasomal degradation. Plays a role in copper homeostasis by ubiquitinating COMMD1 and promoting its proteasomal degradation. Can also function as E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase of the NEDD8 conjugation pathway, targeting effector caspases for neddylation and inactivation. Ubiquitinates and therefore mediates the proteosomal degradation of BCL2 in response to apoptosis. Regulates the BMP signaling pathway and the SMAD and MAP3K7/TAK1 dependent pathways leading to NF-kappa-B and JNK activation. Acts as an important regulator of innate immune signaling via regulation of Nod-like receptors (NLRs). Protects cells from spontaneous formation of the ripoptosome, a large multi-protein complex that has the capability to kill cancer cells in a caspase-dependent and caspase-independent manner. Suppresses ripoptosome formation by ubiquitinating RIPK1 and CASP8. Acts as a positive regulator of Wnt signaling and ubiquitinates TLE1, TLE2, TLE3, TLE4 and AES. Ubiquitination of TLE3 results in inhibition of its interaction with TCF7L2/TCF4 thereby allowing efficient recruitment and binding of the transcriptional coactivator beta-catenin to TCF7L2/TCF4 that is required to initiate a Wnt-specific transcriptional program.

[XK-related protein 4, processed form]: Phospholipid scramblase that promotes phosphatidylserine exposure on apoptotic cell surface. Phosphatidylserine is a specific marker only present at the surface of apoptotic cells and acts as a specific signal for engulfment.

[XK-related protein 8, processed form]: Phospholipid scramblase that promotes phosphatidylserine exposure on apoptotic cell surface. Phosphatidylserine is a specific marker only present at the surface of apoptotic cells and acts as a specific signal for engulfment. Required for the clearance of apoptotic cells, such as engulfment of apoptotic germ cells by Sertoli cells, clearance of senescent neutrophils or regulation of bipolar cell numbers in the retina (By similarity). Has no effect on calcium-induced exposure of phosphatidylserine. Promotes myoblast differentiation and survival.

[XK-related protein 9, processed form]: Phospholipid scramblase that promotes phosphatidylserine exposure on apoptotic cell surface. Phosphatidylserine is a specific marker only present at the surface of apoptotic cells and acts as a specific signal for engulfment.

Recruits the lipid transfer protein VPS13A from lipid droplets to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) membrane.

Binds negatively charged membrane lipids, such as phosphatidylserine and phosphoinositides (By similarity). May play a role in cell-cell adhesion processes in the retina, via homomeric interaction between octamers present on the surface of two neighboring cells. Required for normal structure and function of the retina.

Involved in DNA excision repair. Initiates repair by binding to damaged sites with various affinities, depending on the photoproduct and the transcriptional state of the region. Required for UV-induced CHEK1 phosphorylation and the recruitment of CEP164 to cyclobutane pyrimidine dimmers (CPD), sites of DNA damage after UV irradiation.

Involved in global genome nucleotide excision repair (GG-NER) by acting as damage sensing and DNA-binding factor component of the XPC complex. Has only a low DNA repair activity by itself which is stimulated by RAD23B and RAD23A. Has a preference to bind DNA containing a short single-stranded segment but not to damaged oligonucleotides. This feature is proposed to be related to a dynamic sensor function: XPC can rapidly screen duplex DNA for non-hydrogen- bonded bases by forming a transient nucleoprotein intermediate complex which matures into a stable recognition complex through an intrinsic single-stranded DNA-binding activity. The XPC complex is proposed to represent the first factor bound at the sites of DNA damage and together with other core recognition factors, XPA, RPA and the TFIIH complex, is part of the pre-incision (or initial recognition) complex. The XPC complex recognizes a wide spectrum of damaged DNA characterized by distortions of the DNA helix such as single-stranded loops, mismatched bubbles or single-stranded overhangs. The orientation of XPC complex binding appears to be crucial for inducing a productive NER. XPC complex is proposed to recognize and to interact with unpaired bases on the undamaged DNA strand which is followed by recruitment of the TFIIH complex and subsequent scanning for lesions in the opposite strand in a 5'-to-3' direction by the NER machinery. Cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers (CPDs) which are formed upon UV-induced DNA damage esacpe detection by the XPC complex due to a low degree of structural perurbation. Instead they are detected by the UV-DDB complex which in turn recruits and cooperates with the XPC complex in the respective DNA repair. In vitro, the XPC:RAD23B dimer is sufficient to initiate NER; it preferentially binds to cisplatin and UV-damaged double-stranded DNA and also binds to a variety of chemically and structurally diverse DNA adducts. XPC:RAD23B contacts DNA both 5' and 3' of a cisplatin lesion with a preference for the 5' side. XPC:RAD23B induces a bend in DNA upon binding. XPC:RAD23B stimulates the activity of DNA glycosylases TDG and SMUG1.

Catalytic component of a structure-specific DNA repair endonuclease responsible for the 5-prime incision during DNA repair, and which is essential for nucleotide excision repair (NER) and interstrand cross-link (ICL) repair.

Mediates the nuclear export of cellular proteins (cargos) bearing a leucine-rich nuclear export signal (NES) and of RNAs. In the nucleus, in association with RANBP3, binds cooperatively to the NES on its target protein and to the GTPase RAN in its active GTP-bound form (Ran-GTP). Docking of this complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) is mediated through binding to nucleoporins. Upon transit of a nuclear export complex into the cytoplasm, disassembling of the complex and hydrolysis of Ran-GTP to Ran-GDP (induced by RANBP1 and RANGAP1, respectively) cause release of the cargo from the export receptor. The directionality of nuclear export is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus. Involved in U3 snoRNA transport from Cajal bodies to nucleoli. Binds to late precursor U3 snoRNA bearing a TMG cap.

Export receptor for importin-alpha. Mediates importin-alpha re-export from the nucleus to the cytoplasm after import substrates (cargos) have been released into the nucleoplasm. In the nucleus binds cooperatively to importin-alpha and to the GTPase Ran in its active GTP-bound form. Docking of this trimeric complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) is mediated through binding to nucleoporins. Upon transit of a nuclear export complex into the cytoplasm, disassembling of the complex and hydrolysis of Ran-GTP to Ran-GDP (induced by RANBP1 and RANGAP1, respectively) cause release of the importin-alpha from the export receptor. CSE1L/XPO2 then return to the nuclear compartment and mediate another round of transport. The directionality of nuclear export is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus.

Mediates the nuclear export of proteins (cargos), such as EIF5A, SMAD3 and isoform M2 of PKM (PKM2). In the nucleus binds cooperatively to its cargo and to the GTPase Ran in its active GTP-bound form. Docking of this trimeric complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) is mediated through binding to nucleoporins. Upon transit of a nuclear export complex into the cytoplasm, disassembling of the complex and hydrolysis of Ran-GTP to Ran-GDP (induced by RANBP1 and RANGAP1, respectively) cause release of the cargo from the export receptor. XPO4 then return to the nuclear compartment and mediate another round of transport. The directionality of nuclear export is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus. Catalyzes the nuclear export of hypusinated EIF5A; a small cytoplasmic protein that enters nucleus and accumulates within nucleolus if not exported back by XPO4. Specifically mediates nuclear export of isoform M2 of PKM (PKM2) following PKM2 deacetylation by SIRT6. Also mediates the nuclear import of SOX transcription factors SRY and SOX2 (By similarity).

Mediates the nuclear export of proteins bearing a double- stranded RNA binding domain (dsRBD) and double-stranded RNAs (cargos). XPO5 in the nucleus binds cooperatively to the RNA and to the GTPase Ran in its active GTP-bound form. Proteins containing dsRBDs can associate with this trimeric complex through the RNA. Docking of this complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) is mediated through binding to nucleoporins. Upon transit of a nuclear export complex into the cytoplasm, hydrolysis of Ran-GTP to Ran-GDP (induced by RANBP1 and RANGAP1, respectively) cause disassembly of the complex and release of the cargo from the export receptor. XPO5 then returns to the nuclear compartment by diffusion through the nuclear pore complex, to mediate another round of transport. The directionality of nuclear export is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus. Overexpression may in some circumstances enhance RNA-mediated gene silencing (RNAi). Mediates nuclear export of isoform 5 of ADAR/ADAR1 in a RanGTP-dependent manner

Mediates the nuclear export of actin and profilin-actin complexes in somatic cells.

Mediates the nuclear export of proteins (cargos) with broad substrate specificity. In the nucleus binds cooperatively to its cargo and to the GTPase Ran in its active GTP-bound form. Docking of this trimeric complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) is mediated through binding to nucleoporins. Upon transit of a nuclear export complex into the cytoplasm, disassembling of the complex and hydrolysis of Ran-GTP to Ran-GDP (induced by RANBP1 and RANGAP1, respectively) cause release of the cargo from the export receptor. XPO7 then return to the nuclear compartment and mediate another round of transport. The directionality of nuclear export is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus.

Mediates the nuclear export of aminoacylated tRNAs. In the nucleus binds to tRNA and to the GTPase Ran in its active GTP-bound form. Docking of this trimeric complex to the nuclear pore complex (NPC) is mediated through binding to nucleoporins. Upon transit of a nuclear export complex into the cytoplasm, disassembling of the complex and hydrolysis of Ran-GTP to Ran-GDP (induced by RANBP1 and RANGAP1, respectively) cause release of the tRNA from the export receptor. XPOT then return to the nuclear compartment and mediate another round of transport. The directionality of nuclear export is thought to be conferred by an asymmetric distribution of the GTP- and GDP-bound forms of Ran between the cytoplasm and nucleus.

Contributes to the degradation of bradykinin. Catalyzes the removal of a penultimate prolyl residue from the N-termini of peptides, such as Arg-Pro-Pro

Membrane-bound metalloprotease which catalyzes the removal of a penultimate prolyl residue from the N-termini of peptides, such as Arg-Pro-Pro. May play a role in the metabolism of the vasodilator bradykinin.

Catalyzes the removal of a penultimate prolyl residue from the N-termini of peptides, such as Leu-Pro-Ala. Also shows low activity towards peptides with Ala or Ser at the P1 position.

Plays a role in phosphate homeostasis. Mediates phosphate export from the cell. Binds inositol hexakisphosphate (Ins6P) and similar inositol polyphosphates, such as 5-diphospho-inositol pentakisphosphate (5-InsP7); these are important intracellular signaling molecules.

Scaffold protein involved in DNA single-strand break repair by mediating the assembly of DNA break repair protein complexes. Negatively regulates ADP- ribosyltransferase activity of PARP1 during base-excision repair in order to prevent excessive PARP1 activity. Recognizes and binds poly-ADP-ribose chains: specifically binds auto-poly-ADP-ribosylated PARP1, limiting its activity.

Involved in the homologous recombination repair (HRR) pathway of double-stranded DNA, thought to repair chromosomal fragmentation, translocations and deletions. Part of the RAD51 paralog protein complex BCDX2 which acts in the BRCA1-BRCA2-dependent HR pathway. Upon DNA damage, BCDX2 acts downstream of BRCA2 recruitment and upstream of RAD51 recruitment. BCDX2 binds predominantly to the intersection of the four duplex arms of the Holliday junction and to junction of replication forks. The BCDX2 complex was originally reported to bind single-stranded DNA, single-stranded gaps in duplex DNA and specifically to nicks in duplex DNA.

Involved in the homologous recombination repair (HRR) pathway of double-stranded DNA, thought to repair chromosomal fragmentation, translocations and deletions. Part of the RAD51 paralog protein complex CX3 which acts in the BRCA1-BRCA2-dependent HR pathway. Upon DNA damage, CX3 acts downstream of RAD51 recruitment; the complex binds predominantly to the intersection of the four duplex arms of the Holliday junction (HJ) and to junctions of replication forks. Involved in HJ resolution and thus in processing HR intermediates late in the DNA repair process; the function may be linked to the CX3 complex and seems to involve GEN1 during mitotic cell cycle progression. Part of a PALB2-scaffolded HR complex containing BRCA2 and RAD51C and which is thought to play a role in DNA repair by HR. Plays a role in regulating mitochondrial DNA copy number under conditions of oxidative stress in the presence of RAD51 and RAD51C.

[DNA repair protein XRCC4]: DNA non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) core factor, required for double-strand break repair and V(D)J recombination. Acts as a scaffold protein that regulates recruitment of other proteins to DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs). Associates with NHEJ1/XLF to form alternating helical filaments that bridge DNA and act like a bandage, holding together the broken DNA until it is repaired. The XRCC4-NHEJ1/XLF subcomplex binds to the DNA fragments of a DSB in a highly diffusive manner and robustly bridges two independent DNA molecules, holding the broken DNA fragments in close proximity to one other. The mobility of the bridges ensures that the ends remain accessible for further processing by other repair factors. Plays a key role in the NHEJ ligation step of the broken DNA during DSB repair via direct interaction with DNA ligase IV (LIG4): the LIG4-XRCC4 subcomplex reseals the DNA breaks after the gap filling is completed. XRCC4 stabilizes LIG4, regulates its subcellular localization and enhances LIG4's joining activity. Binding of the LIG4-XRCC4 subcomplex to DNA ends is dependent on the assembly of the DNA-dependent protein kinase complex DNA-PK to these DNA ends. Promotes displacement of PNKP from processed strand break termini.

Single-stranded DNA-dependent ATP-dependent helicase that plays a key role in DNA non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) by recruiting DNA-PK to DNA. Required for double-strand break repair and V(D)J recombination. Also has a role in chromosome translocation. The DNA helicase II complex binds preferentially to fork-like ends of double-stranded DNA in a cell cycle-dependent manner. It works in the 3'- 5' direction. During NHEJ, the XRCC5-XRRC6 dimer performs the recognition step: it recognizes and binds to the broken ends of the DNA and protects them from further resection. Binding to DNA may be mediated by XRCC6. The XRCC5-XRRC6 dimer acts as regulatory subunit of the DNA-dependent protein kinase complex DNA-PK by increasing the affinity of the catalytic subunit PRKDC to DNA by 100-fold. The XRCC5-XRRC6 dimer is probably involved in stabilizing broken DNA ends and bringing them together. The assembly of the DNA-PK complex to DNA ends is required for the NHEJ ligation step. The XRCC5-XRRC6 dimer probably also acts as a 5'-deoxyribose-5-phosphate lyase (5'-dRP lyase), by catalyzing the beta-elimination of the 5' deoxyribose-5-phosphate at an abasic site near double-strand breaks. XRCC5 probably acts as the catalytic subunit of 5'- dRP activity, and allows to 'clean' the termini of abasic sites, a class of nucleotide damage commonly associated with strand breaks, before such broken ends can be joined. The XRCC5- XRRC6 dimer together with APEX1 acts as a negative regulator of transcription. In association with NAA15, the XRCC5- XRRC6 dimer binds to the osteocalcin promoter and activates osteocalcin expression. As part of the DNA-PK complex, involved in the early steps of ribosome assembly by promoting the processing of precursor rRNA into mature 18S rRNA in the small-subunit processome. Binding to U3 small nucleolar RNA, recruits PRKDC and XRCC5/Ku86 to the small-subunit processome. Plays a role in the regulation of DNA virus-mediated innate immune response by assembling into the HDP-RNP complex, a complex that serves as a platform for IRF3 phosphorylation and subsequent innate immune response activation through the cGAS-STING pathway.

Single-stranded DNA-dependent ATP-dependent helicase that plays a key role in DNA non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) by recruiting DNA-PK to DNA. Required for double-strand break repair and V(D)J recombination. Also has a role in chromosome translocation. Has a role in chromosome translocation. The DNA helicase II complex binds preferentially to fork-like ends of double-stranded DNA in a cell cycle-dependent manner. It works in the 3'-5' direction. During NHEJ, the XRCC5-XRRC6 dimer performs the recognition step: it recognizes and binds to the broken ends of the DNA and protects them from further resection. Binding to DNA may be mediated by XRCC6. The XRCC5-XRRC6 dimer acts as regulatory subunit of the DNA-dependent protein kinase complex DNA-PK by increasing the affinity of the catalytic subunit PRKDC to DNA by 100-fold. The XRCC5-XRRC6 dimer is probably involved in stabilizing broken DNA ends and bringing them together. The assembly of the DNA-PK complex to DNA ends is required for the NHEJ ligation step. Probably also acts as a 5'-deoxyribose-5-phosphate lyase (5'-dRP lyase), by catalyzing the beta-elimination of the 5' deoxyribose-5-phosphate at an abasic site near double-strand breaks. 5'-dRP lyase activity allows to 'clean' the termini of abasic sites, a class of nucleotide damage commonly associated with strand breaks, before such broken ends can be joined. The XRCC5-XRRC6 dimer together with APEX1 acts as a negative regulator of transcription. In association with NAA15, the XRCC5-XRRC6 dimer binds to the osteocalcin promoter and activates osteocalcin expression. Plays a role in the regulation of DNA virus-mediated innate immune response by assembling into the HDP-RNP complex, a complex that serves as a platform for IRF3 phosphorylation and subsequent innate immune response activation through the cGAS-STING pathway.

Major 5'-3' exoribonuclease involved in mRNA decay. Required for the 5'-3'-processing of the G4 tetraplex-containing DNA and RNA substrates. The kinetic of hydrolysis is faster for G4 RNA tetraplex than for G4 DNA tetraplex and monomeric RNA tetraplex. Binds to RNA and DNA (By similarity). Plays a role in replication-dependent histone mRNA degradation. May act as a tumor suppressor protein in osteogenic sarcoma (OGS).

Possesses 5'->3' exoribonuclease activity (By similarity). May promote the termination of transcription by RNA polymerase II. During transcription termination, cleavage at the polyadenylation site liberates a 5' fragment which is subsequently processed to form the mature mRNA and a 3' fragment which remains attached to the elongating polymerase. The processive degradation of this 3' fragment by this protein may promote termination of transcription. Binds to RNA polymerase II (RNAp II) transcription termination R-loops formed by G- rich pause sites.

Acts as a GTPase-activating protein (GAP) involved in trafficking between the Golgi and the ciliary membrane. Involved in localization of proteins, such as NPHP3, to the cilium membrane by inducing hydrolysis of GTP ARL3, leading to the release of UNC119 (or UNC119B). Acts as a GTPase-activating protein (GAP) for tubulin in concert with tubulin-specific chaperone C, but does not enhance tubulin heterodimerization. Acts as guanine nucleotide dissociation inhibitor towards ADP-ribosylation factor-like proteins.

Alpha-1,3-xylosyltransferase, which elongates the O-linked xylose-glucose disaccharide attached to EGF-like repeats in the extracellular domain of target proteins by catalyzing the addition of the second xylose. Known targets include Notch proteins and coagulation factors, such as F9.

Phosphorylates D-xylulose to produce D-xylulose 5-phosphate, a molecule that may play an important role in the regulation of glucose metabolism and lipogenesis.

Responsible for the 2-O-phosphorylation of xylose in the glycosaminoglycan-protein linkage region of proteoglycans thereby regulating the amount of mature GAG chains. Sulfated glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), including heparan sulfate and chondroitin sulfate, are synthesized on the so-called common GAG-protein linkage region (GlcUAbeta1-3Galbeta1-3Galbeta1-4Xylbeta1-O-Ser) of core proteins, which is formed by the stepwise addition of monosaccharide residues by the respective specific glycosyltransferases. Xylose 2-O- phosphorylation may influence the catalytic activity of B3GAT3 (GlcAT- I) which completes the precursor tetrasaccharide of GAG-protein linkage regions on which the repeating disaccharide region is synthesized.

Catalyzes the first step in the biosynthesis of chondroitin sulfate and dermatan sulfate proteoglycans, such as DCN. Transfers D- xylose from UDP-D-xylose to specific serine residues of the core protein. Required for normal embryonic and postnatal skeleton development, especially of the long bones. Required for normal maturation of chondrocytes during bone development, and normal onset of ossification (By similarity).

Catalyzes the first step in the biosynthesis of chondroitin sulfate, heparan sulfate and dermatan sulfate proteoglycans, such as DCN. Transfers D-xylose from UDP-D-xylose to specific serine residues of the core protein.

The complex LTO1:YAE1 functions as a target specific adapter that probably recruits apo-ABCE1 to the cytosolic iron-sulfur protein assembly (CIA) complex machinery. May be required for biogenesis of the large ribosomal subunit and initiation of translation.

Binds to MYC and inhibits MYC-mediated transactivation. Also binds to MYCN and enhances MYCN-dependent transcriptional activation. Increases calpain 2-mediated proteolysis of YY1 in vitro. Component of the E2F6.com-1 complex, a repressive complex that methylates 'Lys-9' of histone H3, suggesting that it is involved in chromatin-remodeling.

Transcriptional regulator which can act both as a coactivator and a corepressor and is the critical downstream regulatory target in the Hippo signaling pathway that plays a pivotal role in organ size control and tumor suppression by restricting proliferation and promoting apoptosis. The core of this pathway is composed of a kinase cascade wherein STK3/MST2 and STK4/MST1, in complex with its regulatory protein SAV1, phosphorylates and activates LATS1/2 in complex with its regulatory protein MOB1, which in turn phosphorylates and inactivates YAP1 oncoprotein and WWTR1/TAZ. Plays a key role in tissue tension and 3D tissue shape by regulating cortical actomyosin network formation. Acts via ARHGAP18, a Rho GTPase activating protein that suppresses F-actin polymerization. Plays a key role in controlling cell proliferation in response to cell contact. Phosphorylation of YAP1 by LATS1/2 inhibits its translocation into the nucleus to regulate cellular genes important for cell proliferation, cell death, and cell migration. The presence of TEAD transcription factors are required for it to stimulate gene expression, cell growth, anchorage- independent growth, and epithelial mesenchymal transition (EMT) induction. Suppresses ciliogenesis via acting as a transcriptional corepressor of the TEAD4 target genes AURKA and PLK1. In conjunction with WWTR1, involved in the regulation of TGFB1-dependent SMAD2 and SMAD3 nuclear accumulation (By similarity).

Single strand-specific metallo-endoribonuclease involved in rRNA maturation.

DNA- and RNA-binding protein involved in various processes, such as translational repression, RNA stabilization, mRNA splicing, DNA repair and transcription regulation. Predominantly acts as a RNA-binding protein: binds preferentially to the 5'-[CU]CUGCG-3' RNA motif and specifically recognizes mRNA transcripts modified by C5-methylcytosine (m5C). Promotes mRNA stabilization: acts by binding to m5C- containing mRNAs and recruiting the mRNA stability maintainer ELAVL1, thereby preventing mRNA decay. Component of the CRD-mediated complex that promotes MYC mRNA stability. Contributes to the regulation of translation by modulating the interaction between the mRNA and eukaryotic initiation factors (By similarity). Plays a key role in RNA composition of extracellular exosomes by defining the sorting of small non-coding RNAs, such as tRNAs, Y RNAs, Vault RNAs and miRNAs. Probably sorts RNAs in exosomes by recognizing and binding C5-methylcytosine (m5C)-containing RNAs. Acts as a key effector of epidermal progenitors by preventing epidermal progenitor senescence: acts by regulating the translation of a senescence-associated subset of cytokine mRNAs, possibly by binding to m5C-containing mRNAs. Also involved in pre-mRNA alternative splicing regulation: binds to splice sites in pre-mRNA and regulates splice site selection. Also able to bind DNA: regulates transcription of the multidrug resistance gene MDR1 is enhanced in presence of the APEX1 acetylated form at 'Lys-6' and 'Lys-7'. Binds to promoters that contain a Y-box (5'- CTGATTGGCCAA-3'), such as MDR1 and HLA class II genes. Promotes separation of DNA strands that contain mismatches or are modified by cisplatin. Has endonucleolytic activity and can introduce nicks or breaks into double- stranded DNA, suggesting a role in DNA repair. The secreted form acts as an extracellular mitogen and stimulates cell migration and proliferation.

Major constituent of messenger ribonucleoprotein particles (mRNPs). Involved in the regulation of the stability and/or translation of germ cell mRNAs. Binds to Y-box consensus promoter element. Binds to full-length mRNA with high affinity in a sequence-independent manner. Binds to short RNA sequences containing the consensus site 5'-UCCAUCA- 3' with low affinity and limited sequence specificity. Its binding with maternal mRNAs is necessary for its cytoplasmic retention. May mark specific mRNAs (those transcribed from Y-box promoters) in the nucleus for cytoplasmic storage, thereby linking transcription and mRNA storage/translational delay (By similarity).

Binds to the GM-CSF promoter. Seems to act as a repressor. Binds also to full-length mRNA and to short RNA sequences containing the consensus site 5'-UCCAUCA-3'. May have a role in translation repression (By similarity).

Probably catalyzes the deacetylation of acetylated carbohydrates an important step in the degradation of oligosaccharides.

Non-receptor protein tyrosine kinase that is involved in the regulation of cell growth and survival, apoptosis, cell-cell adhesion, cytoskeleton remodeling, and differentiation. Stimulation by receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) including EGRF, PDGFR, CSF1R and FGFR leads to recruitment of YES1 to the phosphorylated receptor, and activation and phosphorylation of downstream substrates. Upon EGFR activation, promotes the phosphorylation of PARD3 to favor epithelial tight junction assembly. Participates in the phosphorylation of specific junctional components such as CTNND1 by stimulating the FYN and FER tyrosine kinases at cell-cell contacts. Upon T-cell stimulation by CXCL12, phosphorylates collapsin response mediator protein 2/DPYSL2 and induces T-cell migration. Participates in CD95L/FASLG signaling pathway and mediates AKT-mediated cell migration. Plays a role in cell cycle progression by phosphorylating the cyclin-dependent kinase 4/CDK4 thus regulating the G1 phase. Also involved in G2/M progression and cytokinesis.

Chromatin reader component of the ATAC complex, a complex with histone acetyltransferase activity on histones H3 and H4. YEATS2 specifically recognizes and binds histone H3 crotonylated at 'Lys-27' (H3K27cr). Crotonylation marks active promoters and enhancers and confers resistance to transcriptional repressors.

Chromatin reader component of the NuA4 histone acetyltransferase (HAT) complex, a complex involved in transcriptional activation of select genes principally by acetylation of nucleosomal histones H4 and H2A. Specifically recognizes and binds acylated histone H3, with a preference for histone H3 diacetylated at 'Lys-18' and 'Lys-27' (H3K18ac and H3K27ac) or histone H3 diacetylated at 'Lys-14' and 'Lys-27' (H3K14ac and H3K27ac). Also able to recognize and bind crotonylated histone H3. May also recognize and bind histone H3 succinylated at 'Lys-122' (H3K122succ); additional evidences are however required to confirm this result in vivo. Plays a key role in histone variant H2AZ1/H2A.Z deposition into specific chromatin regions: recognizes and binds H3K14ac and H3K27ac on the promoters of actively transcribed genes and recruits NuA4-related complex to deposit H2AZ1/H2A.Z. H2AZ1/H2A.Z deposition is required for maintenance of embryonic stem cell (By similarity).

Functions in endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi vesicle-mediated transport and regulates the proper organization of the endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi (By similarity). Plays a key role in targeting to neuronal dendrites receptors such as HTR1A (By similarity). Plays also a role in primary cilium and sperm flagellum assembly probably through protein transport to these compartments.

Involved in the maintenance of the Golgi structure. May play a role in hematopoiesis.

Plays a role in transport between endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi. In pancreatic beta cells, required to transport proinsulin from endoplasmic reticulum into the Golgi.

May accelerate cholesterol efflux from endothelial cells to high-density lipoprotein (HDL) and thereby regulates angiogenesis. May orchestrate hematopoietic stem and progenitor cell emergence from the hemogenic endothelium, a type of specialized endothelium manifesting hematopoietic potential. YJEFN3-mediated cholesterol efflux activates endothelial SREBF2, the master transcription factor for cholesterol biosynthesis, which in turn transactivates NOTCH and promotes hematopoietic stem and progenitor cell emergence (By similarity). May play a role in spermiogenesis and oogenesis.

Part of the spliceosome which catalyzes two sequential transesterification reactions, first the excision of the non-coding intron from pre-mRNA and then the ligation of the coding exons to form the mature mRNA. Plays a role in stabilizing the structure of the spliceosome catalytic core and docking of the branch helix into the active site, producing 5'-exon and lariat intron-3'- intermediates (By similarity). May protect cells from TP53-dependent apoptosis upon dsDNA break damage through association with PRP19-CD5L complex.

Vesicular soluble NSF attachment protein receptor (v-SNARE) mediating vesicle docking and fusion to a specific acceptor cellular compartment. Functions in endoplasmic reticulum to Golgi transport; as part of a SNARE complex composed of GOSR1, GOSR2 and STX5. Functions in early/recycling endosome to TGN transport; as part of a SNARE complex composed of BET1L, GOSR1 and STX5. Has a S-palmitoyl transferase activity.

Involved in the sodium-independent uptake of dibasic amino acids and sodium-dependent uptake of some neutral amino acids. Requires coexpression with SLC3A2/4F2hc to mediate the uptake of arginine, leucine and glutamine. Plays a role in nitric oxide synthesis in human umbilical vein endothelial cells (HUVECs) via transport of L-arginine. Involved in the transport of L-arginine in monocytes.

Involved in the sodium-independent uptake of dibasic amino acids and sodium-dependent uptake of some neutral amino acids. Requires coexpression with SLC3A2/4F2hc to mediate the uptake of arginine, leucine and glutamine. Also acts as an arginine/glutamine exchanger, following an antiport mechanism for amino acid transport, influencing arginine release in exchange for extracellular amino acids. Plays a role in nitric oxide synthesis in human umbilical vein endothelial cells (HUVECs) via transport of L-arginine. Involved in the transport of L-arginine in monocytes. Reduces uptake of ornithine in retinal pigment epithelial (RPE) cells.

Plays a role in the reduction of telomerase activity during differentiation of embryonic stem cells by binding to the core promoter of TERT and controlling its down-regulation.

ATP-dependent metalloprotease that catalyzes the degradation of folded and unfolded proteins with a suitable degron sequence in the mitochondrial intermembrane region. Plays an important role in regulating mitochondrial morphology and function by cleaving OPA1 at position S2, giving rise to a form of OPA1 that promotes maintenance of normal mitochondrial structure and mitochondrial protein metabolism. Ensures cell proliferation, maintains normal cristae morphology and complex I respiration activity, promotes antiapoptotic activity and protects mitochondria from the accumulation of oxidatively damaged membrane proteins. Required for normal, constitutive degradation of PRELID1. Catalyzes the degradation of OMA1 in response to membrane depolarization. Required to control the accumulation of nonassembled respiratory chain subunits (NDUFB6, OX4 and ND1).

Involved in proliferation and apoptosis in myeloid precursor cells.

Component of the CTLH E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex that selectively accepts ubiquitin from UBE2H and mediates ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of the transcription factor HBP1. Required for normal cell proliferation (By similarity).

Cytoplasmic and mitochondrial threonylcarbamoyl-AMP synthase required for the formation of a threonylcarbamoyl group on adenosine at position 37 (t(6)A37) in tRNAs that read codons beginning with adenine. Catalyzes the conversion of L-threonine, HCO(3)(-)/CO(2) and ATP to give threonylcarbamoyl-AMP (TC-AMP) as the acyladenylate intermediate, with the release of diphosphate. Participates in t(6)A37 formation in cytoplasmic and mitochondrial tRNAs. May regulate the activity of some transporters (By similarity).

Regulator of alternative splicing that specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)-containing RNAs. M6A is a modification present at internal sites of mRNAs and some non- coding RNAs and plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing, processing and stability. Acts as a key regulator of exon-inclusion or exon-skipping during alternative splicing via interaction with mRNA splicing factors SRSF3 and SRSF10. Specifically binds m6A-containing mRNAs and promotes recruitment of SRSF3 to its mRNA-binding elements adjacent to m6A sites, leading to exon-inclusion during alternative splicing. In contrast, interaction with SRSF3 prevents interaction with SRSF10, a splicing factor that promotes exon skipping: this prevents SRSF10 from binding to its mRNA-binding sites close to m6A-containing regions, leading to inhibit exon skipping during alternative splicing. May also regulate alternative splice site selection. Also involved in nuclear export of m6A-containing mRNAs via interaction with SRSF3: interaction with SRSF3 facilitates m6A-containing mRNA-binding to both SRSF3 and NXF1, promoting mRNA nuclear export. Involved in S- adenosyl-L-methionine homeostasis by regulating expression of MAT2A transcripts, probably by binding m6A-containing MAT2A mRNAs (By similarity). Also recognizes and binds m6A on other RNA molecules. Involved in random X inactivation mediated by Xist RNA: recognizes and binds m6A-containing Xist and promotes transcription repression activity of Xist. Also recognizes and binds m6A-containing single-stranded DNA. Involved in germline development: required for spermatogonial development in males and oocyte growth and maturation in females, probably via its role in alternative splicing (By similarity).

3'-5' RNA helicase that plays a key role in the male and female germline by promoting transition from mitotic to meiotic divisions in stem cells. Specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)-containing RNAs, a modification present at internal sites of mRNAs and some non-coding RNAs that plays a role in the efficiency of RNA processing and stability. Essential for ensuring a successful progression of the meiotic program in the germline by regulating the level of m6A-containing RNAs (By similarity). Acts by binding and promoting degradation of m6A- containing mRNAs: the 3'-5' RNA helicase activity is required for this process and RNA degradation may be mediated by XRN1 exoribonuclease. Required for both spermatogenesis and oogenesis (By similarity).

Specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)- containing mRNAs, and regulates their stability. M6A is a modification present at internal sites of mRNAs and some non-coding RNAs and plays a role in mRNA stability and processing. Acts as a regulator of mRNA stability by promoting degradation of m6A- containing mRNAs via interaction with the CCR4-NOT complex. The YTHDF paralogs (YTHDF1, YTHDF2 and YTHDF3) shares m6A-containing mRNAs targets and act redundantly to mediate mRNA degradation and cellular differentiation. Required to facilitate learning and memory formation in the hippocampus by binding to m6A-containing neuronal mRNAs (By similarity). Acts as a regulator of axon guidance by binding to m6A- containing ROBO3 transcripts (By similarity). Acts as a negative regulator of antigen cross-presentation in myeloid dendritic cells (By similarity). In the context of tumorigenesis, negative regulation of antigen cross-presentation limits the anti-tumor response by reducing efficiency of tumor-antigen cross-presentation (By similarity). Promotes formation of phase-separated membraneless compartments, such as P-bodies or stress granules, by undergoing liquid-liquid phase separation upon binding to mRNAs containing multiple m6A-modified residues: polymethylated mRNAs act as a multivalent scaffold for the binding of YTHDF proteins, juxtaposing their disordered regions and thereby leading to phase separation. The resulting mRNA-YTHDF complexes then partition into different endogenous phase-separated membraneless compartments, such as P-bodies, stress granules or neuronal RNA granules.

Specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)- containing RNAs, and regulates their stability. M6A is a modification present at internal sites of mRNAs and some non-coding RNAs and plays a role in mRNA stability and processing. Acts as a regulator of mRNA stability by promoting degradation of m6A-containing mRNAs via interaction with the CCR4-NOT and ribonuclease P/MRP complexes, depending on the context. The YTHDF paralogs (YTHDF1, YTHDF2 and YTHDF3) share m6A-containing mRNAs targets and act redundantly to mediate mRNA degradation and cellular differentiation. M6A-containing mRNAs containing a binding site for RIDA/HRSP12 (5'-GGUUC-3') are preferentially degraded by endoribonucleolytic cleavage: cooperative binding of RIDA/HRSP12 and YTHDF2 to transcripts leads to recruitment of the ribonuclease P/MRP complex. Other m6A-containing mRNAs undergo deadenylation via direct interaction between YTHDF2 and CNOT1, leading to recruitment of the CCR4-NOT and subsequent deadenylation of m6A- containing mRNAs. Required maternally to regulate oocyte maturation: probably acts by binding to m6A-containing mRNAs, thereby regulating maternal transcript dosage during oocyte maturation, which is essential for the competence of oocytes to sustain early zygotic development (By similarity). Also required during spermatogenesis: regulates spermagonial adhesion by promoting degradation of m6A-containing transcripts coding for matrix metallopeptidases (By similarity). Also involved in hematopoietic stem cells specification by binding to m6A-containing mRNAs, leading to promote their degradation. Also acts as a regulator of neural development by promoting m6A-dependent degradation of neural development-related mRNA targets (By similarity). Inhibits neural specification of induced pluripotent stem cells by binding to methylated neural-specific mRNAs and promoting their degradation, thereby restraining neural differentiation. Regulates circadian regulation of hepatic lipid metabolism: acts by promoting m6A-dependent degradation of PPARA transcripts. Regulates the innate immune response to infection by inhibiting the type I interferon response: acts by binding to m6A-containing IFNB transcripts and promoting their degradation. May also act as a promoter of cap-independent mRNA translation following heat shock stress: upon stress, relocalizes to the nucleus and specifically binds mRNAs with some m6A methylation mark at their 5'-UTR, protecting demethylation of mRNAs by FTO, thereby promoting cap-independent mRNA translation. Regulates mitotic entry by promoting the phase-specific m6A-dependent degradation of WEE1 transcripts. Promotes formation of phase-separated membraneless compartments, such as P-bodies or stress granules, by undergoing liquid-liquid phase separation upon binding to mRNAs containing multiple m6A-modified residues: polymethylated mRNAs act as a multivalent scaffold for the binding of YTHDF proteins, juxtaposing their disordered regions and thereby leading to phase separation. The resulting mRNA-YTHDF complexes then partition into different endogenous phase-separated membraneless compartments, such as P-bodies, stress granules or neuronal RNA granules. May also recognize and bind RNAs modified by C5-methylcytosine (m5C) and act as a regulator of rRNA processing.

Specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)- containing RNAs, and regulates their stability. M6A is a modification present at internal sites of mRNAs and some non-coding RNAs and plays a role in mRNA stability and processing. Acts as a regulator of mRNA stability by promoting degradation of m6A-containing mRNAs via interaction with the CCR4-NOT complex or PAN3. The YTHDF paralogs (YTHDF1, YTHDF2 and YTHDF3) share m6A-containing mRNAs targets and act redundantly to mediate mRNA degradation and cellular differentiation. Acts as a negative regulator of type I interferon response by down-regulating interferon-stimulated genes (ISGs) expression: acts by binding to FOXO3 mRNAs (By similarity). Binds to FOXO3 mRNAs independently of METTL3-mediated m6A modification (By similarity). Can also act as a regulator of mRNA stability in cooperation with YTHDF2 by binding to m6A-containing mRNA and promoting their degradation. Recognizes and binds m6A- containing circular RNAs (circRNAs); circRNAs are generated through back-splicing of pre-mRNAs, a non-canonical splicing process promoted by dsRNA structures across circularizing exons. Promotes formation of phase-separated membraneless compartments, such as P-bodies or stress granules, by undergoing liquid-liquid phase separation upon binding to mRNAs containing multiple m6A-modified residues: polymethylated mRNAs act as a multivalent scaffold for the binding of YTHDF proteins, juxtaposing their disordered regions and thereby leading to phase separation. The resulting mRNA-YTHDF complexes then partition into different endogenous phase-separated membraneless compartments, such as P-bodies, stress granules or neuronal RNA granules. May also recognize and bind N1-methyladenosine (m1A)-containing mRNAs: inhibits trophoblast invasion by binding to m1A-methylated transcripts of IGF1R, promoting their degradation.

Associates with the INO80 chromatin remodeling complex, which is responsible for transcriptional regulation, DNA repair, and replication. Enhances transcription activation by YY1. Plays a role in cell cycle regulation.

May be involved in transcriptional regulation. May be involved in regulation of cell proliferation.

May function as a transcription repressor. Binds to 5'-CCACA- 3' core sequence. Suppresses osteogenic effects of RUNX2. May be involved in osteoblastic differentiation (By similarity). Plays a role in postnatal myogenesis, may be involved in the regulation of satellite cells self-renewal (By similarity).

RNA-binding protein that affects the localization and the translation of a subset of mRNA. May play a role in adipogenesis through binding to the 3'-UTR of CEBPA mRNA and regulation of its translation. Targets ITPR1 mRNA to dendrites in Purkinje cells, and may regulate its activity-dependent translation. With ELAVL1, binds the 3'- UTR of p53/TP53 mRNAs to control their nuclear export induced by CDKN2A. Hence, may regulate p53/TP53 expression and mediate in part the CDKN2A anti-proliferative activity. May also bind CCNB1 mRNA. Alternatively, may also regulate p53/TP53 activity through direct protein-protein interaction. Interacts with p53/TP53 and promotes cell- cycle arrest over apoptosis enhancing preferentially the DNA binding and transactivation of p53/TP53 on cell-cycle arrest target genes over proapoptotic target genes. May also regulate the ubiquitination and stability of CDKN1A promoting DNA damage-induced cell cycle arrest. Also plays a role in megakaryocytes differentiation.

May be a specific regulator of miRNA biogenesis. Binds to microRNAs MIR7-1, MIR16-2 and MIR29A hairpins recognizing the 3'- ATA(A/T)-5' motif in the apical loop.

May be a specific regulator of miRNA biogenesis. Binds to microRNAs MIR7-1, MIR16-2 and MIR29A hairpins recognizing the 'ATA(A/T)' motif in the apical loop.

Through its association with the EHMT1-EHMT2/G9A and PRC2/EED-EZH2 histone methyltransferase complexes may function in gene silencing, regulating repressive post-translational methylation of histone tails at promoters of target genes.

Stimulates lipid degradation in adipocytes and causes the extensive fat losses associated with some advanced cancers. May bind polyunsaturated fatty acids

Binds in a species-specific manner to the zona pellucida of the egg. May be involved in gamete recognition and/or signaling

Tyrosine kinase that plays an essential role in regulation of the adaptive immune response. Regulates motility, adhesion and cytokine expression of mature T-cells, as well as thymocyte development. Contributes also to the development and activation of primary B- lymphocytes. When antigen presenting cells (APC) activate T-cell receptor (TCR), a serie of phosphorylations lead to the recruitment of ZAP70 to the doubly phosphorylated TCR component CD247/CD3Z through ITAM motif at the plasma membrane. This recruitment serves to localization to the stimulated TCR and to relieve its autoinhibited conformation. Release of ZAP70 active conformation is further stabilized by phosphorylation mediated by LCK. Subsequently, ZAP70 phosphorylates at least 2 essential adapter proteins: LAT and LCP2. In turn, a large number of signaling molecules are recruited and ultimately lead to lymphokine production, T-cell proliferation and differentiation. Furthermore, ZAP70 controls cytoskeleton modifications, adhesion and mobility of T-lymphocytes, thus ensuring correct delivery of effectors to the APC. ZAP70 is also required for TCR-CD247/CD3Z internalization and degradation through interaction with the E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase CBL and adapter proteins SLA and SLA2. Thus, ZAP70 regulates both T-cell activation switch on and switch off by modulating TCR expression at the T-cell surface. During thymocyte development, ZAP70 promotes survival and cell-cycle progression of developing thymocytes before positive selection (when cells are still CD4/CD8 double negative). Additionally, ZAP70-dependent signaling pathway may also contribute to primary B-cells formation and activation through B-cell receptor (BCR).

Essential for female fertility. May play a role in the oocyte-to-embryo transition (By similarity).

Functions as an E3-type small ubiquitin-like modifier (SUMO) ligase which sumoylates CHD3/Mi2-alpha, causing its release from DNA. This results in suppression of CHD3/Mi2-alpha transcription repression, increased recruitment of RNA polymerase II to gene promoters and positive regulation of transcription including H1-5 and ribosomal proteins such as: RPS6, RPL10A, and RPL12. The resulting increased transcriptional activity drives cell proliferation. Binds to 5'- TGTCG[CT]GA[CT]A-3' consensus sequences in gene promoters of ribosomal proteins.

Transcriptional regulator which has intrinsic repressor activity and which competes with the transcriptional activator IRF1 for binding to the 5'-[CA]GAA[AC]C[CT]-3' consensus sequence in gene promoters. May thereby play a role in keratinocyte differentiation.

Acts as a positive regulator in the activation of the canonical Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway by stabilizing cytoplasmic beta-catenin (By similarity). Involved in transcription activation of Wnt target gene expression (By similarity). Plays a role in symmetric division of blastomeres in the early stages of embryogenesis via regulation of mitotic spindle central positioning and organization of the F-actin filament network (By similarity). Plays a role in regulating the distribution of cellular organelles, via modulation of cytoskeletal dynamics and cytoplasmic lattice formation (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator that binds to poly-guanine tracts in gene promoters and activates transcription (By similarity). Able to bind single- and double-stranded DNA and RNA (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor which binds to the consensus sequence 5'-GCTCGC-3', transcription regulation may be tissue-specific (By similarity). Regulates the expression of target genes such as: IGF2, PGAP6/TMEM8, ENHO, and PIANP (By similarity). Acts as a transcriptional repressor of growth factor IGF2, thereby negatively regulating postnatal growth of muscles and internal organs, especially in females (By similarity). Negatively regulates myoblast differentiation and myoblast mitochondrial activity via its regulation of IGF2 transcription (By similarity). Negatively regulates the cell cycle of myoblasts, potentially via transcriptional regulation of the E2F family of transcription factors such as: E2F1 and E2F2 (By similarity). Positively regulates the cell cycle and survival of pancreatic beta cells. Binds to the CDH2 gene and may directly repress CDH2 transcription (By similarity). Probably by controlling CDH2 expression, regulates pancreatic beta cell adhesion, and formation of cell-to-cell junctions between pancreatic beta cells and neural crest stem cells (By similarity). May also play a role in embryonic beta cell differentiation (By similarity). May play a role in insulin sensitivity and glucose clearance (By similarity).

Key innate sensor that recognizes and binds Z-RNA structures, which are produced by a number of viruses, such as herpesvirus, orthomyxovirus or flavivirus, and triggers different forms of cell death. ZBP1 acts as an essential mediator of pyroptosis, necroptosis and apoptosis (PANoptosis), an integral part of host defense against pathogens, by activating RIPK3, caspase-8 (CASP8), and the NLRP3 inflammasome (By similarity). Key activator of necroptosis, a programmed cell death process in response to death- inducing TNF-alpha family members, via its ability to bind Z-RNA: once activated upon Z-RNA-binding, ZBP1 interacts and stimulates RIPK3 kinase, which phosphorylates and activates MLKL, triggering execution of programmed necrosis (By similarity). In addition to TNF-induced necroptosis, necroptosis can also take place in the nucleus in response to orthomyxoviruses infection: ZBP1 recognizes and binds Z-RNA structures that are produced in infected nuclei by orthomyxoviruses, such as the influenza A virus (IAV), leading to ZBP1 activation, RIPK3 stimulation and subsequent MLKL phosphorylation, triggering disruption of the nuclear envelope and leakage of cellular DNA into the cytosol. ZBP1-dependent cell death in response to IAV infection promotes interleukin-1 alpha (IL1A) induction in an NLRP3- inflammasome-independent manner: IL1A expression is required for the optimal interleukin-1 beta (IL1B) production, and together, these cytokines promote infiltration of inflammatory neutrophils to the lung, leading to the formation of neutrophil extracellular traps (By similarity). In addition to its direct role in driving necroptosis via its ability to sense Z-RNAs, also involved in PANoptosis triggered in response to bacterial infection: component of the AIM2 PANoptosome complex, a multiprotein complex that triggers PANoptosis (By similarity). Also acts as the apical sensor of fungal infection responsible for activating PANoptosis (By similarity). Involved in CASP8-mediated cell death via its interaction with RIPK1 but independently of its ability to sense Z-RNAs (By similarity). In some cell types, also able to restrict viral replication by promoting cell death-independent responses (By similarity). In response to Zika virus infection in neurons, promotes a cell death-independent pathway that restricts viral replication: together with RIPK3, promotes a death- independent transcriptional program that modifies the cellular metabolism via up-regulation expression of the enzyme ACOD1/IRG1 and production of the metabolite itaconate (By similarity). Itaconate inhibits the activity of succinate dehydrogenase, generating a metabolic state in neurons that suppresses replication of viral genomes (By similarity).

Transcriptional activator of the dopamine transporter (DAT), binding it's promoter at the consensus sequence 5'-CCTGCACAGTTCACGGA- 3'. Binds to 5'-d(GCC)(n)-3' trinucleotide repeats in promoter regions and acts as a repressor of the FMR1 gene. Transcriptional repressor of MYC and thymidine kinase promoters.

Acts as a transcriptional repressor. Transcriptional repression may be mediated through recruitment of histone deacetylases to target promoters. May play a role in myeloid maturation and in the development and/or maintenance of other differentiated tissues. Probable substrate-recognition component of an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex which mediates the ubiquitination and subsequent proteasomal degradation of target proteins.

Transcription factor that can function as an activator or repressor depending on its binding partners, and by targeting negative regulators of cell cycle progression. Plays a critical role in early lymphocyte development, where it is essential to prevent apoptosis in lymphoid precursors, allowing them to survive in response to IL7 and undergo proper lineage commitment. Has been shown to bind to the promoters of adenovirus major late protein and cyclin D1 and activate transcription. Required for early embryonic development during gastrulation. Represses RB1 transcription; this repression can be blocked by interaction with ZBTB49 isoform 3/ZNF509S1.

Transcriptional repressor that plays a role in various developmental processes such as myogenesis and brain development. Plays a key role in myogenesis by directly repressing the expression of ID2 and ID3, 2 inhibitors of skeletal myogenesis. Also involved in controlling cell division of progenitor cells and regulating the survival of postmitotic cortical neurons. Specifically binds the consensus DNA sequence 5'-[AC]ACATCTG[GT][AC]-3' which contains the E box core, and acts by recruiting chromatin remodeling multiprotein complexes. May also play a role in the organization of chromosomes in the nucleus.

May be a transcription factor that may be involved in hematopoiesis, oncogenesis, and immune responses. Plays a role in postnatal myogenesis, may be involved in the regulation of satellite cells self-renewal (By similarity).

DNA-binding protein that binds to the to a 5'-TGTACAGTGT-3' core sequence. May function as a transcriptional transactivator and transcriptional repressor. Probably exerts its repressor effect by preventing GATA3 from binding to DNA. May play a role in regulating the differentiation and activation of helper T-cells (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator with bimodal DNA-binding specificity. Binds with a higher affinity to methylated CpG dinucleotides in the consensus sequence 5'-CGCG-3' but can also bind to E-box elements (5'-CACGTG-3'). Can also bind specifically to a single methyl-CpG pair. Represses transcription in a methyl-CpG-dependent manner. Plays an important role in regulating DNA replication and common fragile sites (CFS) stability in a RBBP6- and MCM10-dependent manner; represses expression of MCM10 which plays an important role in DNA-replication. Acts as a transcriptional activator. May be involved in the differentiation and/or survival of late postmitotic neurons (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor. Specifically binds DNA and probably acts by recruiting chromatin remodeling multiprotein complexes.

May be involved in transcriptional regulation (Probable). In the central nervous system, may play a role in glial cell differentiation (By similarity).

Transcription factor. Inhibits cell proliferation by activating either CDKN1A/p21 transcription or RB1 transcription.

Transcription factor that represses the transcription of a wide range of genes involved in cell proliferation and differentiation. Directly and specifically binds to the consensus sequence 5'-[GA][CA]GACCCCCCCCC-3' and represses transcription both by regulating the organization of chromatin and through the direct recruitment of transcription factors to gene regulatory regions. Negatively regulates SMAD4 transcriptional activity in the TGF-beta signaling pathway through these two mechanisms. That is, recruits the chromatin regulator HDAC1 to the SMAD4-DNA complex and in parallel prevents the recruitment of the transcriptional activators CREBBP and EP300. Collaborates with transcription factors like RELA to modify the accessibility of gene transcription regulatory regions to secondary transcription factors (By similarity). Also directly interacts with transcription factors like SP1 to prevent their binding to DNA. Functions as an androgen receptor/AR transcriptional corepressor by recruiting NCOR1 and NCOR2 to the androgen response elements/ARE on target genes. Thereby, negatively regulates androgen receptor signaling and androgen- induced cell proliferation. Involved in the switch between fetal and adult globin expression during erythroid cells maturation. Through its interaction with the NuRD complex regulates chromatin at the fetal globin genes to repress their transcription. Specifically represses the transcription of the tumor suppressor ARF isoform from the CDKN2A gene (By similarity). Efficiently abrogates E2F1-dependent CDKN2A transactivation (By similarity). Regulates chondrogenesis through the transcriptional repression of specific genes via a mechanism that also requires histone deacetylation (By similarity). Regulates cell proliferation through the transcriptional regulation of genes involved in glycolysis. Involved in adipogenesis through the regulation of genes involved in adipocyte differentiation. Plays a key role in the differentiation of lymphoid progenitors into B and T lineages (By similarity). Promotes differentiation towards the B lineage by inhibiting the T-cell instructive Notch signaling pathway through the specific transcriptional repression of Notch downstream target genes (By similarity). Also regulates osteoclast differentiation (By similarity). May also play a role, independently of its transcriptional activity, in double-strand break repair via classical non-homologous end joining/cNHEJ (By similarity). Recruited to double-strand break sites on damage DNA, interacts with the DNA-dependent protein kinase complex and directly regulates its stability and activity in DNA repair (By similarity). May also modulate the splicing activity of KHDRBS1 toward BCL2L1 in a mechanism which is histone deacetylase-dependent and thereby negatively regulates the pro-apoptotic effect of KHDRBS1.

Transcription regulator that acts as a key regulator of lineage commitment of immature T-cell precursors. Exerts distinct biological functions in the mammary epithelial cells and T cells in a tissue-specific manner. Necessary and sufficient for commitment of CD4 lineage, while its absence causes CD8 commitment. Development of immature T-cell precursors (thymocytes) to either the CD4 helper or CD8 killer T-cell lineages correlates precisely with their T-cell receptor specificity for major histocompatibility complex class II or class I molecules, respectively. Cross-antagonism between ZBTB7B and CBF complexes are determinative to CD4 versus CD8 cell fate decision. Suppresses RUNX3 expression and imposes CD4+ lineage fate by inducing the SOCS suppressors of cytokine signaling. induces, as a transcriptional activator, SOCS genes expression which represses RUNX3 expression and promotes the CD4+ lineage fate. During CD4 lineage commitment, associates with multiple sites at the CD8 locus, acting as a negative regulator of the CD8 promoter and enhancers by epigenetic silencing through the recruitment of class II histone deacetylases, such as HDAC4 and HDAC5, to these loci. Regulates the development of IL17-producing CD1d-restricted naural killer (NK) T cells. Also functions as an important metabolic regulator in the lactating mammary glands. Critical feed-forward regulator of insulin signaling in mammary gland lactation, directly regulates expression of insulin receptor substrate-1 (IRS-1) and insulin-induced Akt-mTOR-SREBP signaling (By similarity). Transcriptional repressor of the collagen COL1A1 and COL1A2 genes. May also function as a repressor of fibronectin and possibly other extracellular matrix genes. Potent driver of brown fat development, thermogenesis and cold-induced beige fat formation. Recruits the brown fat lncRNA 1 (Blnc1):HNRNPU ribonucleoprotein complex to activate thermogenic gene expression in brown and beige adipocytes (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional repressor. Represses cAMP-responsive element (CRE)-mediated transcriptional activation. In addition, has a role in translesion DNA synthesis. Requires for UV-inducible RAD18 loading, PCNA monoubiquitination, POLH recruitment to replication factories and efficient translesion DNA synthesis. Plays a key role in the transcriptional regulation of T lymphocyte development (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor with bimodal DNA-binding specificity. Represses transcription in a methyl-CpG-dependent manner. Binds with a higher affinity to methylated CpG dinucleotides in the consensus sequence 5'-CGCG-3' but can also bind to the non-methylated consensus sequence 5'-CTGCNA-3' also known as the consensus kaiso binding site (KBS). Can also bind specifically to a single methyl-CpG pair and can bind hemimethylated DNA but with a lower affinity compared to methylated DNA. Plays a role in postnatal myogenesis, may be involved in the regulation of satellite cells self- renewal (By similarity).

RNA-binding protein that interacts with purine-rich sequences and is involved in nuclear mRNA export; probably mediated by association with the TREX complex.

Endoribonuclease involved in various biological functions such as cellular inflammatory response and immune homeostasis, glial differentiation of neuroprogenitor cells, cell death of cardiomyocytes, adipogenesis and angiogenesis. Functions as an endoribonuclease involved in mRNA decay. Modulates the inflammatory response by promoting the degradation of a set of translationally active cytokine-induced inflammation-related mRNAs, such as IL6 and IL12B, during the early phase of inflammation. Prevents aberrant T-cell-mediated immune reaction by degradation of multiple mRNAs controlling T-cell activation, such as those encoding cytokines (IL6 and IL2), cell surface receptors (ICOS, TNFRSF4 and TNFR2) and transcription factor (REL) (By similarity). Inhibits cooperatively with ZC3H12A the differentiation of helper T cells Th17 in lungs. They repress target mRNA encoding the Th17 cell-promoting factors IL6, ICOS, REL, IRF4, NFKBID and NFKBIZ. The cooperation requires RNA-binding by RC3H1 and the nuclease activity of ZC3H12A (By similarity). Together with RC3H1, destabilizes TNFRSF4/OX40 mRNA by binding to the conserved stem loop structure in its 3'UTR (By similarity). Self regulates by destabilizing its own mRNA (By similarity). Cleaves mRNA harboring a stem-loop (SL), often located in their 3'-UTRs, during the early phase of inflammation in a helicase UPF1-dependent manner. Plays a role in the inhibition of microRNAs (miRNAs) biogenesis. Cleaves the terminal loop of a set of precursor miRNAs (pre-miRNAs) important for the regulation of the inflammatory response leading to their degradation, and thus preventing the biosynthesis of mature miRNAs. Also plays a role in promoting angiogenesis in response to inflammatory cytokines by inhibiting the production of antiangiogenic microRNAs via its anti-dicer RNase activity. Affects the overall ubiquitination of cellular proteins (By similarity). Positively regulates deubiquitinase activity promoting the cleavage at 'Lys-48'- and 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains on TNF receptor-associated factors (TRAFs), preventing JNK and NF-kappa-B signaling pathway activation, and hence negatively regulating macrophage-mediated inflammatory response and immune homeostasis (By similarity). Induces also deubiquitination of the transcription factor HIF1A, probably leading to its stabilization and nuclear import, thereby positively regulating the expression of proangiogenic HIF1A-targeted genes. Involved in a TANK-dependent negative feedback response to attenuate NF-kappaB activation through the deubiquitination of IKBKG or TRAF6 in response to interleukin-1-beta (IL1B) stimulation or upon DNA damage. Prevents stress granule (SGs) formation and promotes macrophage apoptosis under stress conditions, including arsenite- induced oxidative stress, heat shock and energy deprivation (By similarity). Plays a role in the regulation of macrophage polarization; promotes IL4-induced polarization of macrophages M1 into anti- inflammatory M2 state (By similarity). May also act as a transcription factor that regulates the expression of multiple genes involved in inflammatory response, angiogenesis, adipogenesis and apoptosis. Functions as a positive regulator of glial differentiation of neuroprogenitor cells through an amyloid precursor protein (APP)-dependent signaling pathway. Attenuates septic myocardial contractile dysfunction in response to lipopolysaccharide (LPS) by reducing I-kappa-B-kinase (IKK)-mediated NF-kappa-B activation, and hence myocardial pro-inflammatory cytokine production (By similarity).

May function as RNase and regulate the levels of target RNA species.

May regulate cell growth likely by suppressing RB1 phosphorylation. May function as RNase and regulate the levels of target RNA species (Potential). In association with ZC3H12A enhances the degradation of interleukin IL-6 mRNA level in activated macrophages. Serve as a tumor suppressor in certain leukemia cells. Overexpression inhibits the G1 to S phase progression through suppression of RB1 phosphorylation.

Essential component of a SCF-type E3 ligase complex, SCF(NIPA), a complex that controls mitotic entry by mediating ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of cyclin B1 (CCNB1). Its cell-cycle-dependent phosphorylation regulates the assembly of the SCF(NIPA) complex, restricting CCNB1 ubiquitination activity to interphase. Its inactivation results in nuclear accumulation of CCNB1 in interphase and premature mitotic entry. May have an antiapoptotic role in NPM-ALK-mediated signaling events.

Subunit of the trimeric poly(A) tail exosome targeting (PAXT) complex, a complex that directs a subset of long and polyadenylated poly(A) RNAs for exosomal degradation. The RNA exosome is fundamental for the degradation of RNA in eukaryotic nuclei. Substrate targeting is facilitated by its cofactor MTREX, which links to RNA-binding protein adapters.

Required for the export of polyadenylated mRNAs from the nucleus. Enhances ACVR1B-induced SMAD-dependent transcription. Binds to single-stranded DNA but not to double-stranded DNA in vitro. Involved in RNA cleavage (By similarity).

RNA-binding protein that suppresses transcription of long non-coding RNAs (lncRNAs). LncRNAs are defined as transcripts more than 200 nucleotides that are not translated into protein. Together with WDR82, part of a transcription termination checkpoint that promotes transcription termination of lncRNAs and their subsequent degradation by the exosome. The transcription termination checkpoint is activated by the inefficiently spliced first exon of lncRNAs.

Acts as a transcriptional repressor of the GATA3 promoter. Sequence-specific DNA-binding factor that binds to the 5'-AGGTCTC-3' sequence within the negative cis-acting element intronic regulatory region (IRR) of the GATA3 gene (By similarity). Component of the little elongation complex (LEC), a complex required to regulate small nuclear RNA (snRNA) gene transcription by RNA polymerase II and III. Induces thymocyte apoptosis when overexpressed, which may indicate a role in regulation of thymocyte homeostasis.

Specific regulator of miRNA biogenesis. Binds, via the C3H1- type zinc finger domains, to the binding motif 5'-GCAGCGC-3' on microRNA pri-MIR143 and negatively regulates the processing to mature microRNA.

Involved in poly(A) tail length control in neuronal cells. Binds the polyadenosine RNA oligonucleotides.

Protects DRG1 from proteolytic degradation. Stimulates DRG1 GTPase activity likely by increasing the affinity for the potassium ions.

Plays a role in interneurons differentiation. Involved in neuronal development and in neuromuscular junction formation.

Antiviral protein which inhibits the replication of viruses by recruiting the cellular RNA degradation machineries to degrade the viral mRNAs. Binds to a ZAP-responsive element (ZRE) present in the target viral mRNA, recruits cellular poly(A)-specific ribonuclease PARN to remove the poly(A) tail, and the 3'-5' exoribonuclease complex exosome to degrade the RNA body from the 3'-end. It also recruits the decapping complex DCP1-DCP2 through RNA helicase p72 (DDX17) to remove the cap structure of the viral mRNA to initiate its degradation from the 5'-end. Its target viruses belong to families which include retroviridae: human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1), moloney and murine leukemia virus (MoMLV) and xenotropic MuLV-related virus (XMRV), filoviridae: ebola virus (EBOV) and marburg virus (MARV), togaviridae: sindbis virus (SINV) and Ross river virus (RRV). Specifically targets the multiply spliced but not unspliced or singly spliced HIV-1 mRNAs for degradation. Isoform 1 is a more potent viral inhibitor than isoform 2. Isoform 2 acts as a positive regulator of RIGI signaling resulting in activation of the downstream effector IRF3 leading to the expression of type I IFNs and IFN stimulated genes (ISGs).

Transcriptional coactivator in the bone morphogenetic protein (BMP)-signaling pathway. It positively modulates BMP signaling by interacting with SMAD1 and associating with CBP in the transcription complex. It contributes to the BMP-induced enhancement of cholinergic- neuron-specific gene expression (By similarity).

Nucleic acid-binding protein involved in innate immune response to DNA and RNA viruses. Binds DNA and RNA in the cytoplasm and acts by promoting recognition of viral nucleic acids by virus sensors, such as RIGI, IFIH1/MDA5 and CGAS. Acts as a co-sensor for recognition of double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) by cGAS in the cytoplasm, thereby playing a role in innate immune response to cytosolic dsDNA and DNA virus. Binds dsDNA and probably acts by promoting sensing of dsDNA by CGAS, leading to enhance CGAS oligomerization and activation. Promotes sensing of viral RNA by RIGI- like receptors proteins RIGI and IFIH1/MDA5 via two mechanisms: binds double-stranded RNA (dsRNA), enhancing the binding of RIGI and IFIH1/MDA5 to dsRNA and promotes 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitination and subsequent activation of RIGI and IFIH1/MDA5.

rRNA N6-methyltransferase that specifically methylates the adenine in position 4220 of 28S rRNA. N6-methylation of adenine(4220) in 28S rRNA is required for translation.

Scaffolding subunit of the trimeric nuclear exosome targeting (NEXT) complex that is involved in the surveillance and turnover of aberrant transcripts and non-coding RNAs. NEXT functions as an RNA exosome cofactor that directs a subset of non- coding short-lived RNAs for exosomal degradation. May be involved in pre-mRNA splicing (Probable). It is required for 3'-end maturation of telomerase RNA component (TERC), TERC 3'-end targeting to the nuclear RNA exosome, and for telomerase function.

May down-regulate transcription mediated by NF-kappa-B and the serum response element.

Endoplasmic reticulum-localized palmitoyltransferase that could catalyze the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates and be involved in a variety of cellular processes (By similarity). Has a palmitoyltransferase activity toward NCDN and regulates NCDN association with endosome membranes through this palmitoylation (By similarity). May play a role in cell proliferation.

Palmitoyltransferase that could catalyze the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates. Has a palmitoyltransferase activity toward gephyrin/GPHN, regulating its clustering at synapses and its function in gamma-aminobutyric acid receptor clustering. Thereby, indirectly regulates GABAergic synaptic transmission.

Palmitoyltransferase that could catalyze the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates (By similarity). Palmitoyltransferase for HTT and GAD2. May play a role in Mg(2+) transport.

Palmitoyltransferase that could catalyze the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates. May have a palmitoyltransferase activity toward the beta-2 adrenergic receptor/ADRB2 and thereby regulate G protein-coupled receptor signaling. May play a role in cell differentiation and apoptosis.

Palmitoyltransferase that catalyzes the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates. Has no stringent fatty acid selectivity and in addition to palmitate can also transfer onto target proteins myristate from tetradecanoyl-CoA and stearate from octadecanoyl-CoA (By similarity). Palmitoylates IGF2R and SORT1, promoting their partitioning to an endosomal membrane subdomain where they can interact with the retromer cargo-selective complex. Thereby, regulates retrograde transport from endosomes to the Golgi apparatus of these lysosomal sorting receptors and plays a role in trafficking of lysosomal proteins. In the nervous system, catalyzes the palmitoylation of DLG4/PSD95 and regulates its synaptic clustering and function in synaptogenesis (By similarity). Could be involved in the differentiation of dopaminergic neurons and the development of the diencephalon (By similarity). Could also catalyze the palmitoylation of GAP43 (By similarity). Could also palmitoylate DNAJC5 and regulate its localization to the Golgi membrane (By similarity). Could also palmitoylate FYN as shown in vitro.

Palmitoyl acyltransferase that mediates palmitoylation of proteins such as PLN and ZDHHC6. Required during embryonic heart development and cardiac function, possibly by mediating palmitoylation of PLN, thereby affecting PLN phosphorylation and homooligomerization (By similarity). Also required for eye development (By similarity). Palmitoylates ZDHHC6, affecting the quaternary assembly of ZDHHC6, its localization, stability and function. May play a role in DNA damage response (By similarity). May be involved in apoptosis regulation (By similarity). Involved in the proliferation of neural stem cells by regulating the FGF/ERK pathway (By similarity).

Palmitoyltransferase that catalyzes the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates and is involved in a variety of cellular processes. Has no stringent fatty acid selectivity and in addition to palmitate can also transfer onto target proteins myristate from tetradecanoyl-CoA and stearate from octadecanoyl-CoA (By similarity). Palmitoyltransferase specific for a subset of neuronal proteins, including SNAP25, DLG4/PSD95, GAD2, SYT1 and HTT. Also palmitoylates neuronal protein GPM6A as well as SPRED1 and SPRED3. Could also play a role in axonogenesis through the regulation of NTRK1 and the downstream ERK1/ERK2 signaling cascade (By similarity). May be involved in the sorting or targeting of critical proteins involved in the initiating events of endocytosis at the plasma membrane. May play a role in Mg(2+) transport. Could also palmitoylate DNAJC5 and regulate its localization to the Golgi membrane (By similarity). Palmitoylates CASP6, thereby preventing its dimerization and subsequent activation.

Palmitoyltransferase that catalyzes the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates, such as CGAS, HRAS and LCK. Acts as a negative regulator of the cGAS-STING pathway be mediating palmitoylation and inactivation of CGAS. May also have a palmitoyltransferase activity toward the beta-2 adrenergic receptor/ADRB2 and therefore regulate G protein-coupled receptor signaling.

Palmitoyltransferase that mediates palmitoylation of RRAS, leading to increased cell viability.

Palmitoyltransferase that could catalyze the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates. Catalyzes palmitoylation of Cys residues in the cytoplasmic C-terminus of EGFR, and modulates the duration of EGFR signaling by modulating palmitoylation-dependent EGFR internalization and degradation. Has a preference for acyl-CoA with C16 fatty acid chains. Can also utilize acyl-CoA with C14 and C18 fatty acid chains.

Palmitoyltransferase that catalyzes the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates. Palmitoylates sex steroid hormone receptors, including ESR1, PGR and AR, thereby regulating their targeting to the plasma membrane. This affects rapid intracellular signaling by sex hormones via ERK and AKT kinases and the generation of cAMP, but does not affect that mediated by their nuclear receptor. Palmitoylates FYN, regulates its localization in hair follicles and plays a key role in epidermal homeostasis and hair follicle differentiation. Through the palmitoylation of PLCB1 and the regulation of PLCB1 downstream signaling may indirectly regulate the function of the endothelial barrier and the adhesion of leukocytes to the endothelium. Has also a palmitoyltransferase activity toward ADRA1D, positively regulating its activity and expression and may thereby play a role in vascular contraction. May also palmitoylate eNOS and LCK (By similarity).

Palmitoyltransferase that could catalyze the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates and be involved in a variety of cellular processes. Catalyzes the palmitoylation of KCNMA1, regulating localization of KCNMA1 to the plasma membrane. Might also mediate palmitoylation of CNN3 (By similarity).

Probable palmitoyltransferase that could catalyze the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates.

Palmitoyltransferase that catalyzes the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates and is involved in a variety of cellular processes. Has no stringent fatty acid selectivity and in addition to palmitate can also transfer onto target proteins myristate from tetradecanoyl-CoA and stearate from octadecanoyl-CoA (By similarity). In the nervous system, plays a role in long term synaptic potentiation by palmitoylating AKAP5 through which it regulates protein trafficking from the dendritic recycling endosomes to the plasma membrane and controls both structural and functional plasticity at excitatory synapses (By similarity). In dendrites, mediates the palmitoylation of DLG4 when synaptic activity decreases and induces synaptic clustering of DLG4 and associated AMPA- type glutamate receptors (By similarity). Also mediates the de novo and turnover palmitoylation of RGS7BP, a shuttle for Gi/o-specific GTPase- activating proteins/GAPs, promoting its localization to the plasma membrane in response to the activation of G protein-coupled receptors. Through the localization of these GTPase-activating proteins/GAPs, it also probably plays a role in G protein-coupled receptors signaling in neurons (By similarity). Also probably plays a role in cell adhesion by palmitoylating CD9 and CD151 to regulate their expression and function. Palmitoylates the endoplasmic reticulum protein CKAP4 and regulates its localization to the plasma membrane. Could also palmitoylate LCK and regulate its localization to the plasma membrane.

Golgi-localized palmitoyltransferase that catalyzes the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates. Has no stringent fatty acid selectivity and in addition to palmitate can also transfer onto target proteins myristate from tetradecanoyl-CoA and stearate from octadecanoyl-CoA (By similarity). Plays an important role in G protein-coupled receptor signaling pathways involving GNAQ and potentially other heterotrimeric G proteins by regulating their dynamic association with the plasma membrane. Palmitoylates ITGA6 and ITGB4, thereby regulating the alpha-6/beta-4 integrin localization, expression and function in cell adhesion to laminin. Plays a role in the TRAIL-activated apoptotic signaling pathway most probably through the palmitoylation and localization to the plasma membrane of TNFRSF10A. In the brain, by palmitoylating the gamma subunit GABRG2 of GABA(A) receptors and regulating their postsynaptic accumulation, plays a role in synaptic GABAergic inhibitory function and GABAergic innervation. Palmitoylates the neuronal protein GAP43 which is also involved in the formation of GABAergic synapses. Palmitoylates NCDN thereby regulating its association with endosome membranes. Probably palmitoylates PRCD and is involved in its proper localization within the photoreceptor. Could mediate the palmitoylation of NCAM1 and regulate neurite outgrowth. Could palmitoylate DNAJC5 and regulate its localization to Golgi membranes. Also constitutively palmitoylates DLG4. May also palmitoylate SNAP25. Could palmitoylate the glutamate receptors GRIA1 and GRIA2 but this has not been confirmed in vivo (By similarity). Could also palmitoylate the D(2) dopamine receptor DRD2.

Palmitoyltransferase that could catalyze the addition of palmitate onto protein substrates including the D(2) dopamine receptor DRD2.

Palmitoyltransferase that catalyzes the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates such as CTNND2, CD36, STAT3 and S1PR1 thus plays a role in various biological processes including cell adhesion, fatty acid uptake, bacterial sensing or cardiac functions. Plays an important role in the regulation of synapse efficacy by mediating palmitoylation of delta-catenin/CTNND2, thereby increasing synaptic delivery and surface stabilization of alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazole propionic acid receptors (AMPARs). Under basal conditions, remains at the synaptic membrane through FYN-mediated phosphorylation that prevents association with endocytic proteins. Neuronal activity enhances the internalization and trafficking of DHHC5 from spines to dendritic shafts where it palmitoylates delta- catenin/CTNND2. Regulates cell adhesion at the plasma membrane by palmitoylating GOLGA7B and DSG2. Plays a role in innate immune response by mediating the palmitoylation of NOD1 and NOD2 and their proper recruitment to the bacterial entry site and phagosomes. Participates also in fatty acid uptake by palmitoylating CD36 and thereby targeting it to the plasma membrane. Upon binding of fatty acids to CD36, gets phosphorylated by LYN leading to inactivation and subsequent CD36 caveolar endocytosis. Controls oligodendrocyte development by catalyzing STAT3 palmitoylation (By similarity).

Endoplasmic reticulum palmitoyl acyltransferase that mediates palmitoylation of proteins such as AMFR, CALX, ITPR1 and TFRC. Palmitoylates calnexin (CALX), which is required for its association with the ribosome-translocon complex and efficient folding of glycosylated proteins. Mediates palmitoylation of AMFR, promoting AMFR distribution to the peripheral endoplasmic reticulum. Together with SELENOK, palmitoylates ITPR1 in immune cells, leading to regulate ITPR1 stability and function. Stearoyltransferase that mediates stearoylation of TFRC to inhibit TFRC-mediated activation of the JNK pathway and mitochondrial fragmentation.

Golgi-localized palmitoyltransferase that catalyzes the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates and therefore functions in several unrelated biological processes. Has no stringent fatty acid selectivity and in addition to palmitate can also transfer onto target proteins myristate from tetradecanoyl-CoA and stearate from octadecanoyl-CoA (By similarity). Palmitoylates sex steroid hormone receptors, including ESR1, PGR and AR, thereby regulating their targeting to the plasma membrane and their function in rapid intracellular signaling upon binding of sex hormones. Palmitoylates GNAQ, a heterotrimeric G protein, regulating its dynamic localization at the plasma membrane and is thereby involved in GNAQ- dependent G protein-coupled receptor signaling pathways. Functions also in ligand-induced cell death by regulating the FAS signaling pathway through the palmitoylation and stabilization of the receptor at the plasma membrane. In epithelial cells, palmitoylates SCRIB and regulates its localization to the plasma membrane, regulating indirectly cell polarity and differentiation. Also palmitoylates JAM3 and promotes its expression at tight junctions and regulates its function in cell migration. Palmitoylates the glucose transporter GLUT4/SLC2A4 and controls the insulin-dependent translocation of GLUT4 to the plasma membrane (By similarity). In brain, could also palmitoylate SNAP25 and DLG4/PSD95 (By similarity). Could also palmitoylate DNAJC5 and regulate its localization to the Golgi membrane (By similarity). Could also palmitoylate NCDN (By similarity). May play a role in follicle stimulation hormone (FSH) activation of testicular Sertoli cells (By similarity).

Palmitoyltransferase that catalyzes the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates and therefore functions in several unrelated biological processes (Probable). Through the palmitoylation of ABCA1 regulates the localization of the transporter to the plasma membrane and thereby regulates its function in cholesterol and phospholipid efflux (Probable). Could also pamitoylate the D(2) dopamine receptor DRD2 and regulate its stability and localization to the plasma membrane (Probable). Could also play a role in glutamatergic transmission (By similarity).

Palmitoyltransferase that could catalyze the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates (Probable). The ZDHHC9-GOLGA7 complex is a palmitoyltransferase specific for HRAS and NRAS. May have a palmitoyltransferase activity toward the beta-2 adrenergic receptor/ADRB2 and therefore regulate G protein- coupled receptor signaling.

Acts as a transcriptional repressor. Inhibits interleukin-2 (IL-2) gene expression. Enhances or represses the promoter activity of the ATP1A1 gene depending on the quantity of cDNA and on the cell type. Represses E-cadherin promoter and induces an epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT) by recruiting SMARCA4/BRG1. Represses BCL6 transcription in the presence of the corepressor CTBP1. Positively regulates neuronal differentiation. Represses RCOR1 transcription activation during neurogenesis. Represses transcription by binding to the E box (5'-CANNTG-3'). Promotes tumorigenicity by repressing stemness-inhibiting microRNAs.

Transcriptional inhibitor that binds to DNA sequence 5'- CACCT-3' in different promoters. Represses transcription of E-cadherin. Represses expression of MEOX2.

This protein specifically binds to the DNA sequence 5'- GGGACTTTCC-3' which is found in the enhancer elements of numerous viral promoters such as those of SV40, CMV, or HIV-1. In addition, related sequences are found in the enhancer elements of a number of cellular promoters, including those of the class I MHC, interleukin-2 receptor, and interferon-beta genes. It may act in T-cell activation. Involved in activating HIV-1 gene expression. Isoform 2 and isoform 3 also bind to the IPCS (IRF1 and p53 common sequence) DNA sequence in the promoter region of interferon regulatory factor 1 and p53 genes and are involved in transcription regulation of these genes. Isoform 2 does not activate HIV-1 gene expression. Isoform 2 and isoform 3 may be involved in apoptosis

This protein specifically binds to the DNA sequence 5'- GGGACTTTCC-3' which is found in the enhancer elements of numerous viral promoters such as those of SV40, CMV, or HIV1. In addition, related sequences are found in the enhancer elements of a number of cellular promoters, including those of the class I MHC, interleukin-2 receptor, somatostatin receptor II, and interferon-beta genes. It may act in T- cell activation

Plays a role of transcription factor; binds to recognition signal sequences (Rss heptamer) for somatic recombination of immunoglobulin and T-cell receptor gene segments; Binds also to the kappa-B motif of gene such as S100A4, involved in cell progression and differentiation. Kappa-B motif is a gene regulatory element found in promoters and enhancers of genes involved in immunity, inflammation, and growth and that responds to viral antigens, mitogens, and cytokines. Involvement of HIVEP3 in cell growth is strengthened by the fact that its down-regulation promotes cell cycle progression with ultimate formation of multinucleated giant cells. Strongly inhibits TNF-alpha-induced NF-kappa-B activation; Interferes with nuclear factor NF-kappa-B by several mechanisms: as transcription factor, by competing for Kappa-B motif and by repressing transcription in the nucleus; through a non transcriptional process, by inhibiting nuclear translocation of RELA by association with TRAF2, an adapter molecule in the tumor necrosis factor signaling, which blocks the formation of IKK complex. Interaction with TRAF proteins inhibits both NF-Kappa-B- mediated and c-Jun N-terminal kinase/JNK-mediated responses that include apoptosis and pro-inflammatory cytokine gene expression. Positively regulates the expression of IL2 in T-cell. Essential regulator of adult bone formation.

Serves as substrate adapter subunit in the E3 ubiquitin ligase complex ZYG11B-CUL2-Elongin BC. Acts redudantly with ZYG11B to target substrates bearing N-terminal glycine degrons for proteasomal degradation. Involved in the clearance of proteolytic fragments generated by caspase cleavage during apoptosis since N-terminal glycine degrons are strongly enriched at caspase cleavage sites. Also important in the quality control of protein N-myristoylation in which N-terminal glycine degrons are conditionally exposed after a failure of N- myristoylation.

May be involved in the regulation of mesenchymal cell differentiation through transactivation of NOTCH1 target genes.

May be involved in transcriptional regulation. Essential for Golgi structural integrity.

Plays a role in the regulation of cytoplasmic stress granules (SGs) turnover. SGs are dynamic and transient cytoplasmic ribonucleoprotein assemblies important for cellular protein homeostasis when protein production is suspended after acute exogenous stress. Associates with SGs and is involved in the efficient and specific arsenite-induced clearance process of SGs through the recruitment of the ubiquitin-selective ATPase VCP and the 26S proteasome. This process requires both complexes for efficient degradation of damaged ubiquitinated SG proteins during recovery from arsenite stress, and hence avoiding aberrant cytoplasmic SGs degradation via autophagy.

Involved in protein degradation via the ubiquitin-proteasome system. May act by anchoring ubiquitinated proteins to the proteasome. Plays a role in ubiquitin-mediated protein degradation during muscle atrophy. Plays a role in the regulation of NF-kappa-B activation and apoptosis. Inhibits NF-kappa-B activation triggered by overexpression of RIPK1 and TRAF6 but not of RELA. Inhibits also tumor necrosis factor (TNF), IL-1 and TLR4-induced NF-kappa-B activation in a dose-dependent manner. Overexpression sensitizes cells to TNF-induced apoptosis. Is a potent inhibitory factor for osteoclast differentiation.

Involved in regulation of TNF-alpha induced NF-kappa-B activation and apoptosis. Involved in modulation of 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination status of TRAF2 and decreases association of TRAF2 with RIPK1. Required for PTS1 target sequence-dependent protein import into peroxisomes and PEX5 stability; may cooperate with PEX6. In vitro involved in PEX5 export from the cytosol to peroxisomes (By similarity).

May be involved in transcriptional regulation. Overexpression causes down-regulation of a number of genes involved in the immune response. Some genes are also up-regulated (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator that is critical for the regulation of pain perception and processing of noxious stimuli.

Transcriptional regulator which can act as an activator or a repressor. Inhibits the enhancer element of the AFP gene by binding to its AT-rich core sequence. In concert with SMAD-dependent TGF-beta signaling can repress the transcription of AFP via its interaction with SMAD2/3. Regulates the circadian locomotor rhythms via transcriptional activation of neuropeptidergic genes which are essential for intercellular synchrony and rhythm amplitude in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the brain (By similarity). Regulator of myoblasts differentiation through the binding to the AT-rich sequence of MYF6 promoter and promoter repression. Down-regulates the MUC5AC promoter in gastric cancer. In association with RUNX3, up-regulates CDKN1A promoter activity following TGF-beta stimulation. Inhibits estrogen receptor (ESR1) function by selectively competing with coactivator NCOA3 for binding to ESR1 in ESR1-positive breast cancer cells.

May play a role in neural and muscle differentiation (By similarity). May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

Plays a role in protein homeostasis by regulating both the translocation and the ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation of nascent proteins at the endoplasmic reticulum. It is involved in the regulation of signal-mediated translocation of proteins into the endoplasmic reticulum. It also plays a role in the ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation of proteins for which signal-mediated translocation to the endoplasmic reticulum has failed. May therefore function in the endoplasmic reticulum stress-induced pre-emptive quality control, a mechanism that selectively attenuates the translocation of newly synthesized proteins into the endoplasmic reticulum and reroutes them to the cytosol for proteasomal degradation (By similarity). By controlling the steady-state expression of the IGF1R receptor, indirectly regulates the insulin-like growth factor receptor signaling pathway.

May be involved in transcriptional regulation. May have a role in embryonic development

Probable transcription factor involved in neuronal differentiation and/or phenotypic maintenance.

A putative DNA-binding regulatory protein associated with meiosis in spermatogenesis.

Involved in the reprogramming of X-chromosome inactivation during the acquisition of pluripotency. Required for efficient elongation of TSIX, a non-coding RNA antisense to XIST. Binds DXPas34 enhancer within the TSIX promoter. Involved in ES cell self-renewal (By similarity).

Transcription regulator required to maintain maternal and paternal gene imprinting, a process by which gene expression is restricted in a parent of origin-specific manner by epigenetic modification of genomic DNA and chromatin, including DNA methylation. Acts by controlling DNA methylation during the earliest multicellular stages of development at multiple imprinting control regions (ICRs). Acts together with ZNF445, but ZNF445 seems to be the major factor in human early embryonic imprinting maintenance. In contrast, in mice, ZFP57 plays the predominant role in imprinting maintenance. Required for the establishment of maternal methylation imprints at SNRPN locus. Acts as a transcriptional repressor in Schwann cells. Binds to a 5'-TGCCGC-3' consensus sequence and recognizes the methylated CpG within this element (By similarity).

Putative transcription factor that appears to regulate lipid metabolism.

Inhibits the transcriptional repressor activity of REST by inhibiting its binding to DNA, thereby derepressing transcription of REST target genes.

Atypical E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates 'Lys-63'- linked ubiquitination of MAP3K14/NIK, leading to stabilize and activate MAP3K14/NIK. It thereby acts as an activator of the non-canonical NF- kappa-B2/NFKB2 pathway. May also play an important role in cell proliferation and/or anti-apoptosis.

Required for cis-Golgi integrity and efficient ER to Golgi transport. Involved in the maintenance of the integrity of the cis- Golgi, possibly via its interaction with GOLGA2/GM130.

Involved in postimplantation and gastrulation stages of development. Involved in the nucleocytoplasmic shuttling of STAU2. Binds to DNA and RNA (By similarity).

May be involved in regulating membrane trafficking in the endosomal pathway. Overexpression induces endosome aggregation. Required to target TOM1 to endosomes.

Plays a role in cell adhesion, and thereby in cell motility which requires repeated formation and disassembly of focal adhesions. Regulates microtubule-induced PTK2/FAK1 dephosphorylation, an event important for focal adhesion disassembly, as well as integrin beta- 1/ITGB1 cell surface expression.

Phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate-binding protein required for the abcission step in cytokinesis: recruited to the midbody during cytokinesis and acts as a regulator of abcission. May also be required for efficient homologous recombination DNA double-strand break repair.

Key regulator of RAB11-dependent vesicular trafficking during neurite extension through polarized membrane transport. Promotes axonal elongation and contributes to the establishment of neuronal cell polarity (By similarity). Involved in nerve growth factor-induced neurite formation in VAPA-dependent manner. Contributes to both the formation and stabilization of the tubular ER network. Involved in ER morphogenesis by regulating the sheet-to-tubule balance and possibly the density of tubule interconnections. Acts as an adapter protein and facilitates the interaction of KIF5A with VAPA, VAPB, SURF4, RAB11A, RAB11B and RTN3 and the ZFYVE27-KIF5A complex contributes to the transport of these proteins in neurons. Can induce formation of neurite-like membrane protrusions in non-neuronal cells in a KIF5A/B-dependent manner.

Plays a role in the formation of lipid droplets (LDs) which are storage organelles at the center of lipid and energy homeostasis. Regulates the morphology, size and distribution of LDs. Mediates the formation of endoplasmic reticulum-lipid droplets (ER-LD) contacts by forming a complex with RAB18 and ZW10. Binds to phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate (PtdIns3P) through FYVE-type zinc finger.

Early endosomal protein that functions to recruit SMAD2/SMAD3 to intracellular membranes and to the TGF-beta receptor. Plays a significant role in TGF-mediated signaling by regulating the subcellular location of SMAD2 and SMAD3 and modulating the transcriptional activity of the SMAD3/SMAD4 complex. Possibly associated with TGF-beta receptor internalization.

Probable transcriptional activator. Binds to the consensus sequence 5'-AGGCCY-3'.

May play a role in protein trafficking. May act as a linker molecule between the submembranous matrix on the luminal side of zymogen granule membrane (ZGM) and aggregated secretory proteins during granule formation in the TGN.

Transcription repressor that specifically binds the 5'- GGAG[GA]A[GA]A-3' consensus sequence. Represses transcription by recruiting the chromatin multiprotein complex NuRD to target promoters. Negatively regulates expression of EGFR, a gene involved in cell proliferation, survival and migration. Its ability to repress genes of the EGFR pathway suggest it may act as a tumor suppressor. Able to suppress breast carcinogenesis.

Probable palmitoyltransferase that could catalyze the addition of palmitate onto various protein substrates and be involved in a variety of cellular processes (By similarity). May play a role in cell proliferation.

Strongly activates transcription when bound to HCFC1. Suppresses the expression of HSV proteins in cells infected with the virus in a HCFC1-dependent manner. Also suppresses the HCFC1-dependent transcriptional activation by CREB3 and reduces the amount of CREB3 in the cell. Able to down-regulate expression of some cellular genes in CREBZF-expressing cells.

Acts as a transcriptional repressor. Increases DNMT3B- mediated repressive transcriptional activity when DNMT3B is tethered to DNA. May link molecule between DNMT3B and other co-repressor proteins.

Acts as a transcriptional repressor. Represses the promoter activity of the CDC25C gene stimulated by NFYA. May play a role in retinal development where it regulates the composition of bipolar cell populations, by promoting differentiation of bipolar OFF-type cells (By similarity). In the brain, may promote maintenance and suppress differentiation of neural progenitor cells in the developing cortex (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional repressor. Involved in the early stages of mesenchymal stem cell (MSC) osteogenic differentiation. Is a regulator of podocyte gene expression during primary glomerula disease. Binds to promoter DNA.

Acts as a transcriptional activator. Involved in neurogenesis. Plays important roles in the early stage of organogenesis of the CNS, as well as during dorsal spinal cord development and maturation of the cerebellum. Involved in the spatial distribution of mossy fiber (MF) neurons within the pontine gray nucleus (PGN). Plays a role in the regulation of MF axon pathway choice. Promotes MF migration towards ipsilaterally-located cerebellar territories. May have a role in shear flow mechanotransduction in osteocytes. Retains nuclear GLI1 and GLI3 in the cytoplasm. Binds to the minimal GLI-consensus sequence 5'-TGGGTGGTC-3' (By similarity).

Acts as a transcriptional activator or repressor. Plays important roles in the early stage of organogenesis of the CNS. Activates the transcription of the serotonin transporter SERT in uncrossed ipsilateral retinal ganglion cells (iRGCs) to refine eye- specific projections in primary visual targets. Its transcriptional activity is repressed by MDFIC. Involved in the formation of the ipsilateral retinal projection at the optic chiasm midline. Drives the expression of EPHB1 on ipsilaterally projecting growth cones. Binds to the minimal GLI-consensus sequence 5'-TGGGTGGTC-3'. Associates to the basal SERT promoter region from ventrotemporal retinal segments of retinal embryos

Acts as transcriptional activator. Required in the earliest stages in both axial midline development and left-right (LR) asymmetry specification. Binds to the minimal GLI-consensus sequence 5'-GGGTGGTC- 3'.

Essential for neural crest development, converting cells from an epidermal fate to a neural crest cell fate. Binds to DNA (By similarity).

Transcriptional factor that binds to the consensus sequence 5'-[GT][AG][AGT]GGGG-3' and acts as a repressor of autophagy. Specifically represses expression of genes involved in autophagy and lysosome biogenesis/function such as MAP1LC3B, ULK1 or WIPI2. Associates with chromatin at the ITGB4 and VEGF promoters. Also acts as a transcription activator and promotes cancer cell progression and/or migration in various tumors and myelomas.

May be involved in the transcriptional activation of MDM2 and EP300 genes.

Acts as a bona fide target gene of p53/TP53. May play a role in the TP53-dependent growth regulatory pathway. May contribute to TP53-mediated apoptosis by regulation of TP53 expression and translocation to the nucleus and nucleolus.

Acts as transcriptional coactivator. Increases ligand- dependent transcriptional activity of AR and promotes AR sumoylation. The stimulation of AR activity is dependent upon sumoylation. Also functions as a transcriptional coactivator in the TGF-beta signaling pathway by increasing the activity of the SMAD3/SMAD4 transcriptional complex. Involved in transcriptional activation of a subset of NOTCH1 target genes including MYC. Involved in thymocyte and T cell development (By similarity). Involved in the regulation of postmitotic positioning of pyramidal neurons in the developing cerebral cortex.

Increases ligand-dependent transcriptional activity of AR and other nuclear hormone receptors.

Plays a role in axonemal structure organization and motility. Involved in axonemal pre-assembly of inner and outer dynein arms (IDA and ODA, respectively) for proper axoneme building for cilia motility (By similarity). May act by indirectly regulating transcription of dynein proteins (By similarity).

Chromatin reader that specifically recognizes and binds histone H3.3 trimethylated at 'Lys-36' (H3.3K36me3) and regulates RNA polymerase II elongation. Does not bind other histone H3 subtypes (H3.1 or H3.2) (By similarity). Colocalizes with highly expressed genes and functions as a transcription corepressor by modulating RNA polymerase II at the elongation stage. Binds non-specifically to dsDNA. Acts as a tumor-suppressor by repressing a transcriptional program essential for tumor cell growth.

Acts as a transcriptional repressor through interaction with histone deacetylases (HDACs). May be important for spermiogenesis.

May be involved as a regulatory molecule in GPR24/MCH-R1 signaling

Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization.

Plays a role during development and organogenesis as well as in the function of the adult central nervous system (By similarity). May be involved in transcriptional regulation as a repressor of ESR1/ER-alpha signaling.

Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

May be involved in transcriptional regulation as a weak repressor when alone, or a potent one when fused with a heterologous protein containing a KRAB B-domain

May be involved in transcriptional regulation as a repressor. Plays a role in limb development.

Transcriptional activator. Activates the gene for selenocysteine tRNA (tRNAsec). Binds to the SPH motif of small nuclear RNA (snRNA) gene promoters. Participates in efficient U6 RNA polymerase III transcription via its interaction with CHD8.

Involved in transcriptional regulation. Represses the transcription of a number of genes including gastrin, stromelysin and enolase. Binds to the G-rich box in the enhancer region of these genes

Down-regulates the expression of several chemokine receptors. Interferes with HIV-1 replication by suppressing Tat-induced viral LTR promoter activity.

Transcriptional repressor that binds to elements found predominantly in genes that participate in lipid metabolism. Among its targets are structural components of lipoprotein particles (apolipoproteins AIV, CIII, and E), enzymes involved in lipid processing (lipoprotein lipase, lecithin cholesteryl ester transferase), transporters involved in lipid homeostasis (ABCA1, ABCG1), and several genes involved in processes related to energy metabolism and vascular disease

Kinetochore- and microtubule-binding protein that plays a key role in spindle assembly. ZNF207/BuGZ is mainly composed of disordered low- complexity regions and undergoes phase transition or coacervation to form temperature-dependent liquid droplets. Coacervation promotes microtubule bundling and concentrates tubulin, promoting microtubule polymerization and assembly of spindle and spindle matrix by concentrating its building blocks. Also acts as a regulator of mitotic chromosome alignment by mediating the stability and kinetochore loading of BUB3. Mechanisms by which BUB3 is protected are unclear: according to a first report, ZNF207/BuGZ may act by blocking ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of BUB3. According to another report, the stabilization is independent of the proteasome.

Binds to the promoters of target genes and functions as repressor. Promotes cell proliferation and antagonizes cell death. Promotes phosphorylation of AKT1 at 'Ser-473'.

Transcriptional regulator. Recognizes and binds 2 copies of the core DNA sequence motif 5'-GGGGG- 3'. Binds to the HMGN1 promoter and may repress HMGN1 expression. Regulates SNCA expression in primary cortical neurons. Binds to the COL2A1 promoter and activates COL2A1 expression, as part of a complex with SOX9 (By similarity). Plays a role in chondrocyte differentiation (By similarity).

May be involved in transcriptional regulation as a transcriptional repressor. The DEPDC1A-ZNF224 complex may play a critical role in bladder carcinogenesis by repressing the transcription of the A20 gene, leading to transport of NF-KB protein into the nucleus, resulting in suppression of apoptosis of bladder cancer cells.

May function as a transcription factor. Seem to have a transcriptional repression activity

Transcriptional repressor that plays a role in cell proliferation. Requires TRIM28 for its activity.

Transcription factor that acts as a cardiac regulator and an effector of alpha1-adrenergic signaling. Binds to PE response elements (PERE) present in the promoter of genes such as ANF/NPPA and acts as a direct transcriptional activator of NPPA. Also acts as a cofactor with GATA4, a key cardiac regulator (By similarity).

Transcription factor that binds to the consensus sequence 5'- TCCTCCC-3' and acts as a transcriptional repressor. Binds to the promoter region of SIX3 and recruits other proteins involved in chromatin modification and transcriptional corepression, resulting in methylation of the promoter and transcriptional repression. Acts as transcriptional repressor of HS3ST1 and HS3ST3A1 via binding to gene promoter regions.

[Isoform 1]: Acts as a transcriptional repressor. Inhibits erythroid differentiation and tumor cell proliferation. Plays a role during ovarian cancer development and progression

Probable transcription repressor. Specifically binds to the 3'-end of zinc-finger coding genes and recruiting chromatin-modifying proteins such as SETDB1 and TRIM28/KAP1, leading to transcription repression. The SETDB1-TRIM28-ZNF274 complex may play a role in recruiting ATRX to the 3'-exons of zinc-finger coding genes with atypical chromatin signatures to establish or maintain/protect H3K9me3 at these transcriptionally active regions.

Probable transcription factor. Involved in modulation of cellular senescence; represses transcription of the tumor suppressor gene INK4A/ARF, perhaps acting via the Polycomb group (PcG) complex PRC1.

Transcription repressor that plays a role in regulation of embryonic stem cells (ESCs) differentiation. Required for ESCs differentiation and acts by mediating autorepression of NANOG in ESCs: binds to the NANOG promoter and promotes association of NANOG protein to its own promoter and recruits the NuRD complex, which deacetylates histones. Not required for establishement and maintenance of ESCs (By similarity). Represses the transcription of a number of genes including GAST, ODC1 and VIM. Binds to the G-rich box in the enhancer region of these genes.

Binds to the U5 repressive element (U5RE) of the human T cell leukemia virus type I long terminal repeat. It recognizes the 5'- TCCACCCC-3' sequence as a core motif and exerts a strong repressive effect on HTLV-I LTR-mediated expression

Acts as transcriptional regulator and plays a role in gene silencing. Probably forms a corepressor complex required for activated KRAS-mediated promoter hypermethylation and transcriptional silencing of several tumor suppressor genes (TSGs) or other tumor-related genes in colorectal cancer (CRC) cells. Also required to maintain a transcriptionally repressive state of genes in undifferentiated embryonic stem cells (ESCs) by inducing trimethylation of 'Lys-27' of histone H3 (H3K27me3) in a Polycomb group (PcG) complexes-dependent manner. Associates at promoter regions of TSGs and mediates the recruitment of the corepressor complex containing the scaffolding protein TRIM28, methyltransferase DNMT1 and histone methyltransferase SETDB1 and/or the PcG complexes at those sites. Transcription factor involved in the metastatic cascade process by inducing cell migration and proliferation and gain resistance to anoikis of ovarian carcinoma (OC) cells via integrin- mediated signaling pathways. Associates with the ITGB1 promoter and positively regulates beta-1 integrin transcription expression. Promotes angiogenesis. Promotes tumor growth.

May function as a transcription factor. May play an important role in erythroid maturation and lymphoid proliferation

[Isoform 2]: Acts as a transcriptional corepressor for AR- mediated transactivation function. May act as a transcriptional regulator during spermatogenesis and, in particular, during meiotic division.

Transcriptional activator. Important for maintenance of pluripotency in embryonic stem cells (By similarity). Binds directly to the POU5F1 distal enhancer and the NANOG proximal promoter, and enhances expression of both genes (By similarity). Can also bind to numerous other gene promoters and regulates expression of many other pluripotency factors, either directly or indirectly (By similarity). Promotes inhibition of MAPK signaling during embryonic stem cell differentiation (By similarity).

Core component of the DBIRD complex, a multiprotein complex that acts at the interface between core mRNP particles and RNA polymerase II (RNAPII) and integrates transcript elongation with the regulation of alternative splicing: the DBIRD complex affects local transcript elongation rates and alternative splicing of a large set of exons embedded in (A + T)-rich DNA regions. May play a role in neuronal differentiation and is able to bind DNA and activate expression in vitro.

May be involved in transcriptional regulation. May play a role in spermatogenesis

Component or associated component of some histone methyltransferase complexes may regulate transcription through recruitment of those complexes on gene promoters. Enhances ligand-dependent transcriptional activation by nuclear hormone receptors. Plays an important role in neural progenitor cell proliferation and self-renewal through the regulation of specific genes involved brain development, including REST. Also controls the expression of genes involved in somatic development and regulates, for instance, lymphoblast proliferation.

Transcriptional activator of STAT3 involved in the regulation of immune homeostasis. Also able to activate STAT1 transcription.

Binds with low affinity to dsDNA and ssRNA, and with high affinity to dsRNA, with no detectable sequence specificity. May bind to specific miRNA hairpins.

Transcriptional repressor. Binds to a specific sequence, 5'- GGGxxxCAGxxxTTT-3', within GADD45 intron 3.

Mediates E3-dependent ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of target proteins, including p53/TP53, P73, HDAC1 and CDKN1B. Preferentially acts on tetrameric p53/TP53. Monoubiquitinates the translesion DNA polymerase POLH. Contributes to the regulation of the cell cycle progression. Increases AR transcription factor activity.

Involved in the regulation of neurogenesis. Negatively regulates neurite outgrowth. Involved in the morphogenesis of basket cells in the somatosensory cortex during embryogenesis. Involved in the positive regulation of oligodendrocyte differentiation during postnatal growth. Involved in dendritic arborization, morphogenesis of spine density dendrite, and establishment of postsynaptic dendrite density in cortical pyramidal neurons (By similarity). Involved in homologous recombination (HR) repair pathway. Required for proper resolution of DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) by HR. Is required for recovery of stalled replication forks, and directly contributes to genomic stability. Interacts with PARP1 and mediates MRE11-dependent DNA end resection during replication fork recovery. Contributes to genomic stability by preventing telomere dysfunction.

Has transcriptional repression activity. Acts as corepressor of ESR1; the function seems to involve CTBP1 and histone deacetylases.

Transcriptional activator. Isoform 1 may be involved in transcriptional activation of erythroid genes.

May function as a transcriptional repressor, suppressing transcriptional activities mediated by MAPK signaling pathways.

Isoform 1 and isoform 2 act as DNA-dependent transcriptional repressors.

Transcription factor that binds to the sequence motif 5'- CATCCCATAATA-3', and is specifically required to silence expression of fetal hemoglobin in adult erythroid cells. Prevents expression of fetal hemoglobin genes HBG1 and HBG2 through CHD4: acts as a direct transcriptional activator of CHD4, a central component of the NuRD complex that represses transcription of fetal hemoglobin genes HBG1 and HBG2 in erythroid cells. May also activate transcription of matrix-remodeling genes such as MMP1 during fibroblast senescence. May activate transcription of the gap junction gene GJC1, perhaps in response to increasing glucose. However, recent studies suggest that ZNF410 is dedicated to regulate expression of a single gene: CHD4.

Involved in transcriptional regulation. Transcriptional activity differed among the various isoforms. All isoforms except isoform 3 seem to suppresses the transcriptional activities of AP-1 and p53/TP53.

Sequence-specific DNA binding transcriptional repressor. Represses target gene transcription by recruiting HDAC1 and HDAC2 histone deacetylases. Acts as a specific transcriptional repressor for PTCH1 during embryonic development. Required for osteoblast differentiation and sonic hedgehog/SHH signaling response. Binds to the consensus site 5'-GCGCCC-3' in the promoter of PTCH1 (By similarity).

Transcriptional regulator. Binds to the 5'-flanking critical region of the SCARF1 promoter

Transcription regulator required to maintain maternal and paternal gene imprinting, a process by which gene expression is restricted in a parent of origin-specific manner by epigenetic modification of genomic DNA and chromatin, including DNA methylation. Acts by controlling DNA methylation during the earliest multicellular stages of development at multiple imprinting control regions (ICRs). Acts together with ZFP57, but seems to be the major factor in human early embryonic imprinting maintenance. In contrast, in mice, ZFP57 plays the predominant role in imprinting maintenance.

E3 SUMO-protein ligase; has a preference for SUMO2 and SUMO3 and facilitates UBE2I/UBC9-mediated sumoylation of target proteins. Plays a role in protein SUMO2 modification in response to stress caused by DNA damage and by proteasome inhibitors (in vitro). Required for MCM4 sumoylation (By similarity). Has no activity with SUMO1. Preferentially transfers an additional SUMO2 chain onto the SUMO2 consensus site 'Lys-11'. Negatively regulates transcriptional activation mediated by the SMAD4 complex in response to TGF-beta signaling. Inhibits EP300-mediated acetylation of histone H3 at 'Lys-9'. Plays a role in regulating the transcription of AR targets.

Zinc finger nuclear factor involved in transcription by regulating chromatin structure and organization. Involved in the pluripotency and differentiation of embryonic stem cells by regulating SOX2, POU5F1/OCT4, and NANOG. By binding PBX1, prevents the heterodimerization of PBX1 and HOXA9 and their binding to DNA (By similarity). Regulates neuronal development and neural cell differentiation.

Transcription factor that promotes adipocyte differentiation and suppresses osteoblast differentiation in the bone marrow. Enhances the osteoclast-supporting ability of stromal cells. Binds with STAT3 the consensus sequence 5'-CTTCTGGGAAGA-3' of the acute phase response element (APRE). Transactivates several promoters including FOS, OSM and PPARG. Recruits a histone deacetylase complex (By similarity).

Involved in histone 3'-end pre-mRNA processing by associating with U7 snRNP and interacting with SLBP/pre-mRNA complex. Increases histone 3'-end pre-mRNA processing but has no effect on U7 snRNP levels, when overexpressed. Required for cell cycle progression from G1 to S phases.

Transcriptional repressor. Plays a role in oligodendrocyte differentiation, together with OLIG2. Mediates Notch signaling- activated formation of oligodendrocyte precursors. Promotes differentiation of adult neural stem progenitor cells (NSPCs) into mature oligodendrocytes and contributes to remyelination following nerve injury.

DNA-binding transcription factor that can both act as an activator and a repressor.

Transcriptional regulator that plays a role in retinal development and maintenance.

Transcriptional regulator that binds to the promoter and activates the transcription of genes promoting brown adipose tissue (BAT) differentiation. Among brown adipose tissue-specific genes, binds the proximal region of the promoter of the UCP1 gene to activate its transcription and thereby regulate thermogenesis (By similarity). May also play a role in the cellular response to replication stress.

Transcription factor that can both act as an activator or a repressor depending on the context. Involved in BMP signaling and in the regulation of the immature compartment of the hematopoietic system. Associates with SMADs in response to BMP2 leading to activate transcription of BMP target genes. Acts as a transcriptional repressor via its interaction with EBF1, a transcription factor involved specification of B-cell lineage; this interaction preventing EBF1 to bind DNA and activate target genes.

Transcriptional repressor that negatively regulates neuron differentiation by repressing retinoic acid-induced gene transcription. Binds and interrupts RARA from binding to retinoic acid response elements (RARE) composed of tandem 5'-AGGTCA-3' sites known as DR1-DR5. Recognizes and binds 2 copies of the core DNA sequence 5'-CCCCCA-3'.

Component of some chromatin remodeling multiprotein complex that plays a role during spermatogenesis.

Has transcriptional repression activity, partially through the recruitment of the corepressor TRIM28 but has also repression activity independently of this interaction. Essential during embryonic development, where it acts as direct repressor of a placental-specific transcript of IGF2 in early development and regulates convergent extension movements required for axis elongation and tissue morphogenesis in all germ layers. Also important for normal morphogenesis of extraembryonic tissues including the yolk sac, extraembryonic mesoderm and placenta. May enhance proliferation or maintenance of neural stem cells.

Involved in the regulation of endothelial cell proliferation and migration. Mediates H(2)O(2)-induced leukocyte chemotaxis by elevating interleukin-8 production and may play a role in inflammation. May be involved in transcriptional regulation.

May play a role in hematopoietic stem/progenitor cell differentiation. May play a role as a DNA binding-dependent transcriptional repressor.

Involved in pre-60S ribosomal particles maturation by promoting the nuclear export of the 60S ribosome. Negatively modulates the DNA binding activity of Oct-2 and therefore its transcriptional regulatory activity.

Transcription factor, which activates RAG1, and possibly RAG2, transcription. Through the regulation of RAG1/2 expression, may regulate thymocyte maturation. Along with NIPBL and the multiprotein complex Integrator, promotes cortical neuron migration during brain development by regulating the transcription of crucial genes in this process. Preferentially binds promoters containing paused RNA polymerase II. Up-regulates the expression of SEMA3A, NRP1, PLXND1 and GABBR2 genes, among others.

Regulates UHRF2 function as a specific 5- hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC) reader by regulating its chromatin localization.

Pre-60S-associated cytoplasmic factor involved in the cytoplasmic maturation of the 60S subunit.

Transcriptional activator. Binds DNA on GT-box consensus sequence 5'-TTGGTT-3'. Plays a role in spermiogenesis.

Transcription factor that binds to cytidine clusters in double-stranded DNA. Plays a key role in the silencing of unintegrated retroviral DNA: some part of the retroviral DNA formed immediately after infection remains unintegrated in the host genome and is transcriptionally repressed. Mediates transcriptional repression of unintegrated viral DNA by specifically binding to the cytidine clusters of retroviral DNA and mediating the recruitment of chromatin silencers, such as the HUSH complex, SETDB1 and the histone deacetylases HDAC1 and HDAC4. Acts as an early regulator of adipogenesis by acting as a transcription cofactor of CEBPs (CEBPA, CEBPD and/or CEBPG), controlling the expression of PPARG and probably of other proadipogenic genes, such as SREBF1 (By similarity). May also regulate alternative splicing of target genes during adipogenesis (By similarity).

Transcriptional activator. Activates transcriptional activities of SRE and AP-1.

Transcriptional repressor. Regulator of transcriptional factor complexes and may suppress SRE and AP-1 transcription activities mediated by growth factor signaling pathways.

Transcriptional repressor. May repress NR5A1, PPARG, NR1H3, NR4A2, ESR1 and NR3C1 transcriptional activity.

Mediates transcriptional repression in response to zinc. Represses several genes, including SLC30A5, SLC30A10 and CBWD1, by binding to the zinc transcriptional regulatory element (ZTRE) (5'- C[AC]C[TAG]CC[TC]-N(0-50)-[GA]G[ATC]G[TG]G-3') found in the promoter region. May play a role in the control of ribosome biogenesis, regulating predominantly rRNA levels, as well as those of several ribosomal proteins, thus coordinating this highly zinc-demanding process with the available zinc supply.

May be involved in transcriptional regulation. May play a role during osteoclast differentiation by modulating TRAF6 signaling activity

Transcription factor that mediates a transcriptional program in various innate and adaptive immune tissue-resident lymphocyte T-cell types such as tissue-resident memory T (Trm), natural killer (trNK) and natural killer T (NKT) cells and negatively regulates gene expression of proteins that promote the egress of tissue-resident T-cell populations from non-lymphoid organs. Plays a role in the development, retention and long-term establishment of adaptive and innate tissue- resident lymphocyte T cell types in non-lymphoid organs, such as the skin and gut, but also in other nonbarrier tissues like liver and kidney, and therefore may provide immediate immunological protection against reactivating infections or viral reinfection. Also plays a role in the differentiation of both thymic and peripheral NKT cells. Negatively regulates the accumulation of interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma) in NKT cells at steady state or after antigenic stimulation. Positively regulates granzyme B production in NKT cells after innate stimulation. Associates with the transcriptional repressor PRDM1/BLIMP1 to chromatin at gene promoter regions.

May act as an transcriptional repressor for PCK1 gene expression, in turn may participate in the hepatic gluconeogenesis regulation through the activated AMPK signaling pathway.

Transcriptional corepressor which does not bind directly to DNA and may regulate transcription through recruitment of histone deacetylases to gene promoters. Regulates cell adhesion, migration and proliferation. May be required for segmental gene expression during hindbrain development.

Transcription factor which binds to RE2 sequence elements in the MYOD1 enhancer.

Transcription repressor involved in the exit of embryonic stem cells (ESCs) from self-renewal. Acts by repressing expression of KLF4.

Transcription regulator required for brain development. Probably acts as a transcription factor that binds to the promoter of target genes and recruits PHF8 histone demethylase, leading to activated expression of genes involved in neuron development, such as KDM5C. May compete with transcription factor ARX for activation of expression of KDM5C.

Transcription repressor that specifically binds to the 5'- TATTTT[T/G]-3' consensus sequence on promoters and repress transcription of PGC-1-alpha (PPARGC1A), thereby playing a role in regulation of neuron death.

Transcription factor involved in epidermis differentiation. Required for terminal epidermal differentiation: acts downstream of p63/TP63 and activates expression of late epidermal differentiation genes. Specifically binds to the promoter of KLF4 and promotes its expression.

Binds to mammalian-wide interspersed repeat (MIRs) sequences in euchromatin and promoter regions of genes at the consensus sequence 5'-GCTGTGTG-[N20]-CCTCTCTG-3', consisting of two anchor regions connected by a linker region; the linker region probably does not contribute to the binding specificity. Required for cell homeostasis. May be involved in transcriptional regulation (Probable).

May be involved in transcriptional repression. Inhibits cell proliferation through CDKN1A/p21 induction by down-regulation of NIBAN1/FAM129A at low cell density.

As part of a ribonucleoprotein complex composed at least of HNRNPK, HNRNPL and the circular RNA circZNF827 that nucleates the complex on chromatin, may negatively regulate the transcription of genes involved in neuronal differentiation. Could also recruit the nucleosome remodeling and histone deacetylase/NuRD complex to telomeric regions of chromosomes to regulate chromatin remodeling as part of telomere maintenance.

May play a role in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Acts as an important regulator of the cell cycle that participates in the maintenance of genome integrity. During cell cycle progression in embryonic fibroblast, prevents replication fork collapse, double-strand break formation and cell cycle checkpoint activation. Controls mitotic cell cycle progression and cell survival in rapidly proliferating intestinal epithelium and embryonic stem cells. During the embryo preimplantation, controls different aspects of M phase. During early oocyte growth, plays a role in oocyte survival by preventing chromosomal breaks formation, activation of TP63 and reduction of transcription (By similarity).

Transcriptional repressor which suppresses activation protein 1 (AP-1)- and serum response element (SRE)-mediated transcriptional activity.

Acts as a transcriptional activator. Promotes cell proliferation by facilitating the cell cycle phase transition from the S to G2/M phase. Involved in both the hemin- and phorbol myristate acetate (PMA)-induced erythroid and megakaryocytic differentiation, respectively. Also plays a role as an inhibitor of cell apoptosis.

Binds DNA through the consensus sequence 5'-CAATG-3'. May be involved in transcriptional regulation and may play a role in tooth formation (By similarity).

Transcription factor required for myelination of differentiated oligodendrocytes. Required for the conversion of oligodendrocytes from the premyelinating to the myelinating state. In the developing central nervous system (CNS), involved in the maintenance in the progenitor stage by promoting the cell cycle. Specifically binds to the 5'-TCAT-3' DNA sequence (By similarity). Has transcription repressor activity in vitro.

May be involved in transcriptional regulation. Involved in cell differentiation and/or proliferation

Transcriptional repressor. May modulate BMP and TGF-beta signal transduction, through its interaction with SMAD proteins.

Transcription factor specifically required to repress SINE- VNTR-Alu (SVA) retrotransposons: recognizes and binds SVA sequences and represses their expression by recruiting a repressive complex containing TRIM28/KAP1. May also bind the promoter of the FCGR2B gene, leading to repress its expression; however, additional evidence is required to confirm this result in vivo.

Transcription factor specifically required to repress long interspersed nuclear element 1 (L1) retrotransposons: recognizes and binds L1 sequences and repress their expression by recruiting a repressive complex containing TRIM28/KAP1. Not able to repress expression of all subtypes of L1 elements. Binds to the 5' end of L1PA4, L1PA5 and L1PA6 subtypes, and some L1PA3 subtypes. Does not bind to L1PA7 or older subtypes nor at the most recently evolved L1PA2 and L1Hs. 50% of L1PA3 elements have lost the ZNF93-binding site, explaining why ZNF93 is not able to repress their expression.

RNA-binding protein that initiates the antiviral response and is required to restrict the replication of RNA viruses. Acts as a double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) sensor that recognizes viral RNA and then interacts with MAVS to initiate the type I interferon response (By similarity). Also required for immunity against some bacteria, such as mycobacteria.

Zinc chaperone that directly transfers zinc cofactor to target metalloproteins, thereby activating them. Catalyzes zinc insertion into the active site of methionine aminopeptidase METAP1, which function to cleave the initiator methionine from polypeptides during or after protein translation. Mechanistically, the N-terminal psi-PxLVp motif binds to the C6H2-type zinc finger of inactive form of METAP1. After formation of the docked complex, zinc is transferred from the CXCC motif in the GTPase domain of ZNG1A to the zinc binding site in the peptidase domain of METAP1 in a process requiring GTP hydrolysis. GTP/GDP exchange is required for release of active METAP1.

Zinc chaperone that directly transfers zinc cofactor to target metalloproteins, thereby activating them. Catalyzes zinc insertion into the active site of methionine aminopeptidase METAP1, which function to cleave the initiator methionine from polypeptides during or after protein translation. Mechanistically, the N-terminal psi-PxLVp motif binds to the C6H2-type zinc finger of inactive form of METAP1. After formation of the docked complex, zinc is transferred from the CXCC motif in the GTPase domain of ZNG1B to the zinc binding site in the peptidase domain of METAP1 in a process requiring GTP hydrolysis. GTP/GDP exchange is required for release of active METAP1.

Zinc chaperone that directly transfers zinc cofactor to target metalloproteins, thereby activating them. Catalyzes zinc insertion into the active site of methionine aminopeptidase METAP1, which function to cleave the initiator methionine from polypeptides during or after protein translation. Mechanistically, the N-terminal psi-PxLVp motif binds to the C6H2-type zinc finger of inactive form of METAP1. After formation of the docked complex, zinc is transferred from the CXCC motif in the GTPase domain of ZNG1C to the zinc binding site in the peptidase domain of METAP1 in a process requiring GTP hydrolysis. GTP/GDP exchange is required for release of active METAP1.

Zinc chaperone that directly transfers zinc cofactor to target metalloproteins, thereby activating them. Catalyzes zinc insertion into the active site of methionine aminopeptidase METAP1, which function to cleave the initiator methionine from polypeptides during or after protein translation. Mechanistically, the N-terminal psi-PxLVp motif binds to the C6H2-type zinc finger of inactive form of METAP1. After formation of the docked complex, zinc is transferred from the CXCC motif in the GTPase domain of ZNG1E to the zinc binding site in the peptidase domain of METAP1 in a process requiring GTP hydrolysis. GTP/GDP exchange is required for release of active METAP1.

Zinc chaperone that directly transfers zinc cofactor to target metalloproteins, thereby activating them (By similarity). Catalyzes zinc insertion into the active site of methionine aminopeptidase METAP1, which function to cleave the initiator methionine from polypeptides during or after protein translation. Mechanistically, the N-terminal psi-PxLVp motif binds to the C6H2-type zinc finger of inactive form of METAP1 (By similarity). After formation of the docked complex, zinc is transferred from the CXCC motif in the GTPase domain of ZNG1F to the zinc binding site in the peptidase domain of METAP1 in a process requiring GTP hydrolysis (By similarity). GTP/GDP exchange is required for release of active METAP1 (By similarity).

Plays a role in chromatin remodeling by promoting the incorporation of histone variant H2AZ1/H2A.Z into the genome to regulate gene expression. Promotes SRCAP complex-mediated deposition of histone variant H2AZ1 to lymphoid fate regulator genes, enhancing lymphoid lineage commitment (By similarity). Recruited to the promoter of the transcriptional activator MYOG at the early stages of muscle differentiation where it mediates binding of histone H2AZ1 to chromatin and induces muscle-specific gene expression. Maintains hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) quiescence by determining the chromatin accessibility at distal enhancers of HSC quiescence genes such as PTEN, FSTL1 and KLF4, enhancing deposition of H2AZ1 to promote their sustained transcription and restricting PI3K-AKT signaling inhibition (By similarity). Plays a role in intestinal stem cell maintenance by promoting H2AZ1 deposition at the transcription start sites of genes involved in intestinal stem cell fate determination including LGR5, TGFB1 and TGFBR2, thereby contributing to gene transcription (By similarity). Promotes phosphorylation of the H2AZ1 chaperone VPS72/YL1 which enhances the interaction between HZAZ1 and VPS72 (By similarity). Regulates the entry of male germ cells into meiosis by controlling histone H2AZ1 deposition which facilitates the expression of meiotic genes such as MEIOSIN, leading to the initiation of meiosis (By similarity). Required for postnatal heart function through its role in maintenance of cardiac Ca(2+) homeostasis by modulating the expression of Ca(2+)-regulating proteins CASQ1 and ATP2A2/SERCA2A via deposition of histone H2AZ1 at their promoters (By similarity). During embryonic heart development, required for mitochondrial maturation and oxidative metabolism by functioning through H2AZ1 deposition to activate transcription of metabolic genes and is also required to maintain the stability of the respiratory complex (By similarity). In neural cells, increases deposition of the H2AZ1 histone variant and promotes neurite growth. Plays a role in TP53/p53-mediated apoptosis induction by stimulating the transcriptional activation of several proapoptotic p53 target genes such as PMAIP1/NOXA and BBC3/PUMA. Mediates cell cycle arrest induced in response to gamma-irradiation by enhancing recruitment of TP53/p53 to the promoter of the cell cycle inhibitor CDKN1A, leading to its transcriptional activation. Recruited to the promoter of cyclin- dependent kinase CDK6 and inhibits its transcription, possibly by decreasing the acetylation level of histone H4, leading to cell cycle arrest at the G1 phase (By similarity). Plays a role in lens fiber cell differentiation by regulating the expression of cell cycle regulator CDKN1A/p21Cip1 (By similarity). Binds to transcriptional repressor NR1D2 and relieves it of its inhibitory effect on the transcription of apolipoprotein APOC3 without affecting its DNA-binding activity.

May act as a bridging factor mediating the interaction between the R2TP/Prefoldin-like (R2TP/PFDL) complex and U5 small nuclear ribonucleoprotein (U5 snRNP). Required for the interaction of R2TP complex subunit RPAP3 and prefoldin-like subunit URI1 with U5 snRNP proteins EFTUD2 and PRPF8. May play a role in regulating the composition of the U5 snRNP complex.

Might play a role in mitosis. Antigenic molecule. Could be a centromere-associated protein. May induce anti-centromere antibodies.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that mediates the ubiquitination of AKT1 and GLUL, thereby playing a role in neuron cells differentiation. Plays a role in the establishment and maintenance of neuronal transmission and plasticity. Regulates Schwann cells differentiation by mediating ubiquitination of GLUL. Promotes neurodegeneration by mediating 'Lys-48'-linked polyubiquitination and subsequent degradation of AKT1 in axons: degradation of AKT1 prevents AKT1-mediated phosphorylation of GSK3B, leading to GSK3B activation and phosphorylation of DPYSL2/CRMP2 followed by destabilization of microtubule assembly in axons (Probable).

May play a role in the establishment and maintenance of neuronal transmission and plasticity via its ubiquitin ligase activity. E3 ubiquitin ligases accept ubiquitin from an E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme in the form of a thioester and then directly transfer the ubiquitin to targeted substrates.

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that acts as a negative regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway by mediating the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of Wnt receptor complex components Frizzled and LRP6. Acts on both canonical and non-canonical Wnt signaling pathway. Acts as a tumor suppressor in the intestinal stem cell zone by inhibiting the Wnt signaling pathway, thereby resticting the size of the intestinal stem cell zone. Along with RSPO2 and RNF43, constitutes a master switch that governs limb specification (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that acts as a negative regulator of NOD2 signaling by mediating ubiquitination and degradation of RIPK2. Also catalyzes ubiquitination and proteasomal degradation of CANX within the endoplasmic reticulum. Could have a role in spermatogenesis (By similarity).

Plays a pivotal role in manganese transport. Manganese is an essential cation for the function of several enzymes, including some crucially important for the metabolism of neurotransmitters and other neuronal metabolic pathways. However, elevated levels of manganese are cytotoxic and induce oxidative stress, mitochondrial dysfunction and apoptosis. Acts as manganese efflux transporter and confers protection against manganese-induced cell death. Also acts as zinc transporter involved in zinc homeostasis. Seems to mediate zinc transport into early endosomes and recycling endosomes to prevent zinc toxicity; the function may be regulated by heterodimerization with other zinc transporters of the SLC30A subfamily. The SLC30A3:SLC30A10 heterodimer is involved in zinc transport-dependent regulation of the EGFR/ERK transduction pathway in endosomes. May be involved in regulation of zinc-dependent senescence of vascular smooth muscle cells.

Zinc ion:proton antiporter that could function at the plasma membrane mediating zinc efflux from cells against its electrochemical gradient protecting them from intracellular zinc accumulation and toxicity. Alternatively, could prevent the transport to the plasma membrane of CACNB2, the L-type calcium channels regulatory subunit, through a yet to be defined mechanism. By modulating the expression of these channels at the plasma membrane, could prevent calcium and zinc influx into cells. By the same mechanism, could also prevent L-type calcium channels-mediated heavy metal influx into cells (By similarity). In some cells, could also function as a zinc ion:proton antiporter mediating zinc entry into the lumen of cytoplasmic vesicles. In macrophages, can increase zinc ions concentration into the lumen of cytoplasmic vesicles containing engulfed bacteria and could help inactivate them.

[Isoform 1]: Electroneutral proton-coupled antiporter concentrating zinc ions into a variety of intracellular organelles including endosomes, zymogen granules and mitochondria. Thereby, plays a crucial role in cellular zinc homeostasis to confer upon cells protection against its potential cytotoxicity. Regulates the zinc concentration of milk, through the transport of zinc ions into secretory vesicles of mammary cells. By concentrating zinc ions into lysosomes participates to lysosomal-mediated cell death during early mammary gland involution.

Probable proton-coupled zinc ion antiporter mediating the import of zinc from cytoplasm into synaptic vesicles and participating to cellular zinc ion homeostasis in the brain.

Probable proton-coupled zinc ion antiporter mediating zinc import from cytoplasm potentially into the endocytic compartment. Controls zinc deposition in milk (By similarity).

Together with SLC30A6 forms a functional proton-coupled zinc ion antiporter mediating zinc entry into the lumen of organelles along the secretory pathway. By contributing to zinc ion homeostasis within the early secretory pathway, regulates the activation and folding of enzymes like alkaline phosphatases and enzymes involved in phosphatidylinositol glycan anchor biosynthesis. Through the transport of zinc into secretory granules of pancreatic beta-cells, plays an important role in the storage and secretion of insulin.

Has probably no intrinsic transporter activity but together with SLC30A5 forms a functional zinc ion:proton antiporter heterodimer, mediating zinc entry into the lumen of organelles along the secretory pathway. As part of that zinc ion:proton antiporter, contributes to zinc ion homeostasis within the early secretory pathway and regulates the activation and folding of enzymes like alkaline phosphatases and enzymes involved in phosphatidylinositol glycan anchor biosynthesis.

Seems to facilitate zinc transport from the cytoplasm into the Golgi apparatus. Partly regulates cellular zinc homeostasis. Required with ZNT5 for the activation of zinc-requiring enzymes, alkaline phosphatases (ALPs). Transports zinc into the lumens of the Golgi apparatus and the vesicular compartments where ALPs locate, thus, converting apoALPs to holoALPs. Required with ZNT5 and ZNT6 for the activation of TNAP (By similarity).

Proton-coupled zinc ion antiporter mediating the entry of zinc into the lumen of pancreatic beta cell secretory granules, thereby regulating insulin secretion.

Acts as a zinc transporter involved in intracellular zinc homeostasis. Functions as a secondary coactivator for nuclear receptors by cooperating with p160 coactivators subtypes. Plays a role in transcriptional activation of Wnt-responsive genes (By similarity).

TJP1, TJP2, and TJP3 are closely related scaffolding proteins that link tight junction (TJ) transmembrane proteins such as claudins, junctional adhesion molecules, and occludin to the actin cytoskeleton. The tight junction acts to limit movement of substances through the paracellular space and as a boundary between the compositionally distinct apical and basolateral plasma membrane domains of epithelial and endothelial cells. Binds and recruits PATJ to tight junctions where it connects and stabilizes apical and lateral components of tight junctions. Promotes cell-cycle progression through the sequestration of cyclin D1 (CCND1) at tight junctions during mitosis which prevents CCND1 degradation during M- phase and enables S-phase transition. With TJP1 and TJP2, participates in the junctional retention and stability of the transcription factor DBPA, but is not involved in its shuttling to the nucleus (By similarity). Contrary to TJP2, TJP3 is dispensable for individual viability, embryonic development, epithelial differentiation, and the establishment of TJs, at least in the laboratory environment (By similarity).

Component of the zona pellucida, an extracellular matrix surrounding oocytes which mediates sperm binding, induction of the acrosome reaction and prevents post-fertilization polyspermy. The zona pellucida is composed of 3 to 4 glycoproteins, ZP1, ZP2, ZP3, and ZP4. ZP1 ensures the structural integrity of the zona pellucida

Component of the zona pellucida, an extracellular matrix surrounding oocytes which mediates sperm binding, induction of the acrosome reaction and prevents post-fertilization polyspermy. The zona pellucida is composed of 3 to 4 glycoproteins, ZP1, ZP2, ZP3, and ZP4. ZP2 may act as a secondary sperm receptor.

Component of the zona pellucida, an extracellular matrix surrounding oocytes which mediates sperm binding, induction of the acrosome reaction and prevents post-fertilization polyspermy. The zona pellucida is composed of 3 to 4 glycoproteins, ZP1, ZP2, ZP3, and ZP4. ZP3 is essential for sperm binding and zona matrix formation

Component of the zona pellucida, an extracellular matrix surrounding oocytes which mediates sperm binding, induction of the acrosome reaction and prevents post-fertilization polyspermy. The zona pellucida is composed of 3 to 4 glycoproteins, ZP1, ZP2, ZP3, and ZP4. ZP4 may act as a sperm receptor

Plays a role in acrosome compaction and sperm morphogenesis. Is implicated in sperm-oocyte interaction during fertilization (By similarity).

Inhibits activity of the coagulation protease factor Xa in the presence of PROZ, calcium and phospholipids. Also inhibits factor XIa in the absence of cofactors.

Glycoprotein which is a component of the gelatinous extracellular matrix in the cupulae of the vestibular organ.

Acts as a signaling molecule that communicates proliferative growth signals from the cytoplasm to the nucleus. It is involved in the positive regulation of cell cycle progression. Plays a role for the localization and accumulation of the survival motor neuron protein SMN1 in sub-nuclear bodies, including gems and Cajal bodies. Induces neuron differentiation and stimulates axonal growth and formation of growth cone in spinal cord motor neurons. Plays a role in the splicing of cellular pre-mRNAs. May be involved in H(2)O(2)-induced neuronal cell death.

Splice factor required for alternative splicing of TRA2B/SFRS10 transcripts. May interfere with constitutive 5'-splice site selection.

DNA annealing helicase and endonuclease required to maintain genome stability at stalled or collapsed replication forks by facilitating fork restart and limiting inappropriate recombination that could occur during template switching events. Recruited to the sites of stalled DNA replication by polyubiquitinated PCNA and acts as a structure-specific endonuclease that cleaves the replication fork D-loop intermediate, generating an accessible 3'-OH group in the template of the leading strand, which is amenable to extension by DNA polymerase. In addition to endonuclease activity, also catalyzes the fork regression via annealing helicase activity in order to prevent disintegration of the replication fork and the formation of double-strand breaks.

Ubiquitin thioesterase, which specifically hydrolyzes 'Lys- 29'-linked and 'Lys-33'-linked diubiquitin. Also cleaves 'Lys- 63'-linked chains, but with 40-fold less efficiency compared to 'Lys- 29'-linked ones. Positive regulator of the Wnt signaling pathway that deubiquitinates APC protein, a negative regulator of Wnt-mediated transcription. Acts as a regulator of autophagy by mediating deubiquitination of PIK3C3/VPS34, thereby promoting autophagosome maturation. Plays a role in the regulation of cell morphology and cytoskeletal organization. Required in the stress fiber dynamics and cell migration.

Strong transcriptional activator (By similarity). Plays an important role in spermatogenesis; essential for the progression of meiotic prophase I in spermatocytes (By similarity).

May function as a transcription factor. May be involved in the development of multiple embryonic organs

May be involved in transcriptional regulation during the post-meiotic stages of spermatogenesis.

Embryonic stem (ES) cell-specific transcription factor required to regulate ES cell pluripotency. Binds telomeres and plays a key role in genomic stability in ES cells by regulating telomere elongation. Acts as an activator of spontaneous telomere sister chromatid exchange (T-SCE) and telomere elongation in undifferentiated ES cells (By similarity).

E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase involved in the regulation of Fas-, DR3- and DR4-mediated apoptosis. Functions in conjunction with the UBE2D1, UBE2D3 and UBE2E1 E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzymes.

involved in nervous system development, important for striatal morphology and motor regulation.

Involved in early stages of the homologous recombination repair (HRR) pathway of double-stranded DNA breaks arising during DNA replication or induced by DNA-damaging agents. Required for meiotic progression, hence for fertility.

Deubiquitinase with endodeubiquitinase activity that specifically interacts with and cleaves 'Lys-63'-linked long polyubiquitin chains. Shows only weak activity against 'Lys-11' and 'Lys-48'-linked chains. Plays an important role in genome stability pathways, functioning to prevent spontaneous DNA damage and also promote cellular survival in response to exogenous DNA damage. Modulates the ubiquitination status of replication protein A (RPA) complex proteins in response to replication stress.

Essential component of the mitotic checkpoint, which prevents cells from prematurely exiting mitosis. Required for the assembly of the dynein-dynactin and MAD1-MAD2 complexes onto kinetochores. Its function related to the spindle assembly machinery is proposed to depend on its association in the mitotic RZZ complex. Involved in regulation of membrane traffic between the Golgi and the endoplasmic reticulum (ER); the function is proposed to depend on its association in the interphase NRZ complex which is believed to play a role in SNARE assembly at the ER.

Part of the MIS12 complex, which is required for kinetochore formation and spindle checkpoint activity. Required to target ZW10 to the kinetochore at prometaphase.

Cooperates with CIITA to promote transcription of MHC class I and MHC class II genes.

Probably acts as target recruitment subunit in an E3 ubiquitin ligase complex ZYGA-CUL2-elongin BC.

Serves as substrate adapter subunit in the E3 ubiquitin ligase complex ZYG11B-CUL2-Elongin BC. Acts redudantly with ZER1 to target substrates bearing N-terminal glycine degrons for proteasomal degradation. Involved in the clearance of proteolytic fragments generated by caspase cleavage during apoptosis since N- terminal glycine degrons are strongly enriched at caspase cleavage sites. Also important in the quality control of protein N- myristoylation in which N-terminal glycine degrons are conditionally exposed after a failure of N-myristoylation.

Adhesion plaque protein. Binds alpha-actinin and the CRP protein. Important for targeting TES and ENA/VASP family members to focal adhesions and for the formation of actin-rich structures. May be a component of a signal transduction pathway that mediates adhesion- stimulated changes in gene expression (By similarity).

Histone H3 reader which may act as a transcriptional coactivator for KLF6 and KLF9 transcription factors.

Histone H3 reader that is required for the ATAC complex- mediated maintenance of histone acetylation and gene activation. Component of the ATAC complex, a complex with histone acetyltransferase activity on histones H3 and H4.