Why is the Median Less Sensitive to Extreme Values Compared to the Mean? I am sure we have all heard the following argument stated in some way or the other:

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*For a given set of measurements (e.g. heights of students), the mean of these measurements is more "prone" to be influenced by outliers compared to the median of these same measurements.
Conceptually, the above argument is straightforward to understand. The median is not directly calculated using the "value" of any of the measurements, but only using the "ranked position" of the measurements. On the other hand, the mean is directly calculated using the "values" of the measurements, and not by using the "ranked position" of the measurements. Therefore, a statistically larger number of outlier points should be required to influence the median of these measurements - compared to influence of fewer outlier points on the mean. For example: the average weight of a blue whale and 100 squirrels will be closer to the blue whale's weight, but the median weight of a blue whale and 100 squirrels will be closer to the squirrels.
Using the R programming language, we can see this argument manifest itself on simulated data:
library(plotly)
    set.seed(123)


d = data.frame(data = rnorm(20, 5,50), col = "non outlier")

dd = data.frame(data = rnorm(5,150, 10), col = "outlier")

my_data = rbind(d,dd)

> mean(d$data)
[1] 10.08877

> median(d$data)
[1] 17.11447

We can also plot this to get a better idea:
d1 = data.frame(data = mean(my_data$data), col = "mean")
# add "1" to the median so that it becomes visible in the plot
d2 = data.frame(data = median(my_data$data) +1 , col = "median")

new_data = rbind(my_data, d1, d2)


plot_ly(type = "scatter", mode = "markers", data = new_data, x = ~data, y = " ", color = ~col ) %>% layout(title = 'Effect of Outliers on Median vs Mean')


My Question:  In the above example, we can see that the median is less influenced by the outliers compared to the mean - but in general, are there any "statistical proofs" that shed light on this inherent "vulnerability" of the mean compared to the median?
Apart from the logical argument of measurement "values" vs. "ranked positions" of measurements - are there any theoretical arguments behind why the median requires larger valued and a larger number of outliers to be influenced towards the extremas of the data compared to the mean?
I am aware of related concepts such as Cooke's Distance (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cook%27s_distance) which can be used to estimate the effect of removing an individual data point on a regression model - but are there any formulas which show some relation between the number/values of outliers on the mean vs. the median?
Are there any theoretical statistical arguments that can be made to justify this logical argument regarding the number/values of outliers on the mean vs. the median?

Changing an outlier doesn't change the median; as long as you have at least three data points, making an extremum more extreme doesn't change the median, but it does change the mean by the amount the outlier changes divided by n.
Adding an outlier, or moving a "normal" point to an extreme value, can only move the median to an adjacent central point. For instance, if you start with the data [1,2,3,4,5], and change the first observation to 100 to get [100,2,3,4,5], the median goes from 3 to 4. So not only is the a maximum amount a single outlier can affect the median (the mean, on the other hand, can be affected an unlimited amount), the effect is to move to an adjacently ranked point in the middle of the data, and the data points tend to be more closely packed close to the median. So, for instance, if you have nine points evenly spaced in Gaussian percentile, such as [-1.28, -0.84, -0.52, -0.25, 0, 0.25, 0.52, 0.84, 1.28]. The average separation between observations is 0.32, but changing one observation can change the median by at most 0.25. The median of a bimodal distribution, on the other hand, could be very sensitive to change of one observation, if there are no observations between the modes.
