How Well Does the Mean Describe a Multimodal Probability Distribution? When you have highly skewed, irregular or multimodal distributions:



In these instances, does it become more advantageous to use the median instead of the mean to infer properties of these distributions? Does it become less advantageous to use the mean in these examples?
Thanks

A multi-model can be best explained by a localised distribution, but I don’t think there is any explicit localised distribution. Due to localised nature, spline regression or redial basis regression may help to model your problem.
