$\int_{0}^{\infty}\int_{1}^{\infty}\frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}dxdy$ diverges? I want someone to review my proof that $$\int_{1}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}dxdy$$ does not converge.
To make things easier, I said let's look at the entire first quadrant and then subtract the integral over the small rectangle that we added.
move to polar coordinates:
$$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\int_{o}^{\infty}r^2\frac{(\cos^2\theta-\sin^2\theta)}{r^3}drd\theta=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\int_{o}^{\infty}\frac{\cos^2\theta-\sin^2\theta}{r}drd\theta=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\int_{o}^{\infty}\frac{1-2\sin^2\theta}{r}drd\theta\leq\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\int_{o}^{\infty}\frac{1}{r}drd\theta$$
The inequality part is true since $-2\sin^2 x$ is always negative.
So:
$$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\int_{o}^{\infty}\frac{1}{r}drd\theta=\frac{\pi}{2}\ln(r)|_0^{\infty}=\frac{\pi}{2}\ln(\frac{\infty}{0})=\frac{\pi}{2}\ln({\infty})=\infty$$
So over the entire first quadrant it diverges.
Is there a point to checking the small rectangle that we added? I mean, even if it diverges, the answer would still diverge.

Since we are considering the region in the first quadrant above $y=1$, in polar coordinates we may write it as:
\begin{align*}
  \int_{1}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}\, dx\, dy &= \lim_{N\to\infty} \int_{\arcsin(1/N)}^{\pi/2} \, \int_{1/\sin\theta}^{N} \, \frac{\cos\left(2\, \theta\right)}{r}\, dr\, d\theta\\
  &= \lim_{N\to\infty}\, \frac{1}{2N}\sqrt{1-\frac{1}{N^2}}+\frac{1}{2}\arcsin\frac{1}{N} - \frac{\pi}{4}\\
  &= -\frac{\pi}{4}
\end{align*}
If we calculate without transformation:
\begin{align*}
  \lim_{N\to\infty} \int_{1}^{N} \, \int_{0}^{N} \, \frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}\, dx\, dy &= \lim_{N\to\infty} \arctan\left(\frac{1}{N}\right)- \frac{\pi}{4}\\
  &= -\frac{\pi}{4}
\end{align*}
Using mpmath's gauss-legendre quadrature with $\mathrm{maxdegree} > 6$ indicates $\displaystyle -\frac{\pi}{2}$ as answer, and when $\mathrm{maxdegree} \le 6$ it stays close to $\displaystyle -\frac{\pi}{4}$. 'tanh-sinh' is close to neither. 
Also note that if we choose 
\begin{align*}
  \lim_{N_1\to\infty} \lim_{N_2\to\infty}  \int_{1}^{N_2} \, \int_{0}^{N_1} \, \frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}\, dx\, dy &= \lim_{N_1\to\infty}\lim_{N_2\to\infty} \arctan\left(\frac{1}{N_1}\right) - \arctan\left(\frac{N_2}{N_1}\right)
\end{align*}
So, the actual answer depends on the ratio $\displaystyle \frac{N_2}{N_1}$. If we consider "$\infty$" in both directions to be the same, the answer is $\displaystyle -\frac{\pi}{4}$
