Conditional probability with two inequalities Let $(X,Y)$ a random vector with density $f(x,y)=\frac{6}{7}(x^2+\frac{xy}{2});0<x<1,0<y<2$.
After checking that is a density, finding the marginal $f_X(x)=\frac{12}{7}x^2+\frac{6}{7}x$ and the probability $\mathbb{P}(X>Y)=\frac{15}{56}$, i have to find $\mathbb{P}(Y>\frac{1}{2}|X<\frac{1}{2})$.
I know that the domain is $0<x<\frac{1}{2}<y<2$, so i applied the conditional probability $\mathbb{P}(Y>\frac{1}{2}|X<\frac{1}{2})=\frac{\mathbb{P}((Y>\frac{1}{2})\cap (X<\frac{1}{2}))}{\mathbb{P}(X<\frac{1}{2})}$ and i tried to integrate in the most different ways…
1) $\frac{\int_{0}^{3/2}(\int_{0}^{5/2}f(x,y)dy)dx}{\int_{0}^{1/2}f_X(x)dx}$ 
2) $\frac{\int_{0}^{1/2}(\int_{1/2}^{2}f(x,y)dy)dx}{\int_{0}^{1/2}f_X(x)dx}$ 
3) ${\int_{0}^{1/2}(\int_{1/2}^{2}\frac{f(x,y)}{f_X(x)}dy)}dx$
…but to no avail.

How to act when the conditional probability provides for two disequalities?

EDIT: Trivially, you might say "Making the graph". Well, I'm having a hard time to understand how to draw it correctly.
In the first probability that i said, the graph was fairly simple because I could use the 1°-3° bisector to separate the region to integrate.

For $a\in\left[0,1\right]$ and $b\in\left[0,2\right]$ define:
$$\begin{aligned}f\left(a,b\right) & :=P\left(X<a,Y>b,\right)\\
 & =\frac{6}{7}\int_{0}^{a}\int_{b}^{2}x^{2}+\frac{1}{2}xy\;dydx\\
 & =\frac{6}{7}\int_{0}^{a}\left[x^{2}y+\frac{1}{4}xy^{2}\right]_{b}^{2}\;dx\\
 & =\frac{6}{7}\int_{0}^{a}\left(2-b\right)x^{2}+\frac{1}{4}\left(4-b^{2}\right)x\;dx\\
 & =\frac{6}{7}\left[\frac{1}{3}\left(2-b\right)x^{3}+\frac{1}{8}\left(4-b^{2}\right)x^{2}\right]_{0}^{a}\\
 & =\frac{6}{7}\left(\frac{1}{3}\left(2-b\right)a^{3}+\frac{1}{8}\left(4-b^{2}\right)a^{2}\right)\\
 & =\frac{1}{28}a^{2}\left(2-b\right)\left(8a+6+3b\right)
\end{aligned}
$$
Then $P\left(X<\frac{1}{2}\right)=f\left(\frac{1}{2},0\right)$ and
$P\left(Y>\frac{1}{2},X<\frac{1}{2}\right)=f\left(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2}\right)$
so that: $$P\left(Y>\frac{1}{2}\mid X<\frac{1}{2}\right)=\frac{f\left(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2}\right)}{f\left(\frac{1}{2},0\right)}$$
Just substitute.
