Proof for an inequality problem using the rearrangement inequality I have found this problem in a book and would like someone to give me a good and elegant proof for it.
The problem is:
If $a_1,a_2,...,a_n$ are positive real numbers and $s=a_1+a_2+...+a_n$, then
$$\frac{a_1}{s-a_1}+\frac{a_2}{s-a_2}+...+\frac{a_n}{s-a_n} \ge \frac{n}{n-1}$$
The book does not provide solutions but only gives hints, which is that it can be solved like another problem using n variables
The problem is:
If $a,b,c$ are the lengths of the sides of a triangle, prove that
$$\frac{a}{b+c-a}+\frac{b}{c+a-b}+\frac{c}{a+b-c} \ge 3$$
Again only hints are given and this is the solution I am proposing:
let $(b_1,b_2,b_3)=\frac{a}{b+c-a},\frac{b}{c+a-b},\frac{c}{a+b-c}$
Let $(a_1,a_2,a_3)=a,b,c$
By the rearrangement inequality we have,
$$a_1b_1+a_2b_2+a_3b_3 \ge a_2b_1 +a_3b_2+a_1b_3$$
$$a_1b_1+a_2b_2+a_3b_3 \ge a_3b_1 +a_1b_2+a_2b_3$$
$$\frac{a}{b+c-a}+\frac{b}{c+a-b}+\frac{c}{a+b-c} \ge \frac{b}{b+c-a}+\frac{c}{c+a-b}+\frac{a}{a+b-c}$$
$$\frac{a}{b+c-a}+\frac{b}{c+a-b}+\frac{c}{a+b-c} \ge \frac{c}{b+c-a}+\frac{a}{c+a-b}+\frac{b}{a+b-c}$$
Let $$Q = \frac{a}{b+c-a}+\frac{b}{c+a-b}+\frac{c}{a+b-c}$$
Now by adding the two inequalities we have,
$$2Q \ge \frac{b}{b}+\frac{b}{c}-\frac{b}{a}+\frac{c}{c}+\frac{c}{a}-\frac{c}{b}+\frac{a}{a}+\frac{a}{b}-\frac{a}{c}+\frac{c}{b}+\frac{c}{c}-\frac{c}{a}+\frac{a}{c}+\frac{a}{a}-\frac{a}{b}+\frac{b}{a}+\frac{b}{b}-\frac{b}{c}=6+\frac{a-b-a+b}{a}+\frac{a-c-a+c}{b}+\frac{b-a-b+a}{c}=6$$
$$Q \ge 3$$
I do understand the general idea but what is needed in the problem above is a generalization of the proof I provided. However I fail at producing one each time I try. Can someone please provide me with one that is simple and easy to read. Thanks.
UPDATE:
Thanks for the answers but I am looking for a proof using the rearrangement inequality in a similar way to the example.

Multiplying $s$ and $a_j$ by $n/s$ we can assume that $s=n$ and $a_1+\dotsm a_n=n$. Let us find the minimum of 
$$
 \frac{a_1}{n-a_1}+\dots+\frac{a_n}{n-a_n}
$$
over positive $a_j$ satisfying $a_1+\dotsm+a_n=n$. Using Lagrange multipliers, we take the function
$$
 g(a_1,\dots,a_n,\lambda)=\frac{a_1}{n-a_1}+\dots+\frac{a_n}{n-a_n}+\lambda(a_1+\dotsm+a_n-n)
$$ 
and equate all of its derivatives with zero. We obtain
$$
 \frac{n}{(n-a_j)^2}-\lambda=0,\quad j=1,\dots,n,\qquad
a_1+\dotsm+a_n=n.
$$
It is easily seen that the only solution is $a_1=a_2=\dotsm=1$, $\lambda=n/(n-1)^2$. 
The minimum is attained at this point and is $n/(n-1)$. This proves the desired assertion.  
