Proving $\binom{n + m}{r} = \sum_{i = 0}^{r} \binom{n}{i}\binom{m}{r - i}$ To prove $$\binom{n + m}{r} = \sum_{i = 0}^{r} \binom{n}{i}\binom{m}{r - i},$$
I demonstrated that the equality is true for any $n,$ for $m = 0, 1,$ and for any $r < n + m$ simply by fixing $n$ and $r$ and inserting $0,1$ for $m.$ Then, I proceed to induct on $m$ (and on $m$ only).

I am not perfectly confident in my self, however, for I see two placeholders, $n$ and $m.$ Is this a case where double induction is needed (first on $m$ and then on $n$)?

Whether or not this proof requires double induction, may someone explain when double induction is needed?

Consider any fixed $n, r \geq 0$ and the following two cases (I know that only one case is needed to complete this inductive proof).
CASE 1
\begin{align}
\binom{n + 0}{r} &= \sum_{i = 0}^{r} \binom{n}{i}\binom{0}{r - i} \\ &= \binom{n}{0}\binom{0}{r} + \binom{n}{1}\binom{0}{r-1} + \cdots + \binom{n}{r}\binom{0}{0} \\ &= 0 + 0 + \cdots + \binom{n}{r} \\ &= \binom{n}{r}
\end{align}
CASE 2
\begin{align}
\binom{n + 1}{r} &= \sum_{i = 0}^{r} \binom{n}{i}\binom{1}{r - i} \\ &= \binom{n}{0}\binom{0}{r} + \binom{n}{1}\binom{0}{r-1} + \cdots + \binom{n}{r-1}\binom{1}{r - (r-1)} + \binom{n}{r}\binom{1}{r - r} \\ &= 0 + 0 + \cdots + \binom{n}{r-1} + \binom{n}{r} \\ &= \binom{n}{r-1} + \binom{n}{r}
\end{align}
INDUCTION
Suppose it is true for $m \leq k.$ Now, consider $$\binom{n + (k + 1)}{r}.$$ It follows from Pascal's Identity that
$$\binom{n + (k+1)}{r} = \binom{n + k}{r} + \binom{n + k}{r-1}$$ 
And,
\begin{align}
\binom{n + k}{r} + \binom{n + k}{r-1} &= \sum_{i = 0}^{r} \binom{n}{i}\binom{k}{r - i} + \sum_{i = 0}^{r-1} \binom{n}{i}\binom{k}{r - 1 - i} \\ &= \binom{n}{r} + \sum_{i = 0}^{r-1} \binom{n}{i}\binom{k}{r - i} + \sum_{i = 0}^{r-1} \binom{n}{i}\binom{k}{r - 1 - i} \\ &= \binom{n}{r} + \sum_{i = 0}^{r-1} \binom{n}{i}\bigg[\binom{k}{r - i} + \binom{k}{r - 1 - i}\bigg] \\ &= \binom{n}{r} + \sum_{i = 0}^{r-1} \binom{n}{i}\binom{k+1}{r-i} \\ &= \sum_{i = 0}^{r} \binom{n}{i}\binom{k+1}{r-i}
\end{align}
Hence, the equality holds for $m = k + 1.$ Given that the equality holds for $m = 0, 1,$ and that if equality holds for $m = k,$ it then holds for $m = k + 1,$ it follows that the equality holds $\forall m \in \mathbb{N}.$

I think the formula is wrong. If you have $n$ white balls and $m$ red balls then, to choose $r$ balls from then you have to choose $i$ white balls and $r-i$ red balls for some $i$ between $0$ and $\min \{r,n\}$. Hence the sum should be over $0\leq r \leq \min \{r,n\}$. However, if you define $\binom {n} {i}$ to be $0$ when $i >n$ then the formula is correct. 
