2010 USAMO #5:Prove that if $\frac{1}{p}-2S_q = \frac{m}{n}$ for integers $m$ and $n$, then $m - n$ is divisible by $p$. Let $q = \frac{3p-5}{2}$ where $p$ is an odd prime, and let $S_q = \frac{1}{2\cdot 3 \cdot 4} + \frac{1}{5\cdot 6 \cdot 7} + \cdots + \frac{1}{q(q+1)(q+2)}
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Prove that if $\frac{1}{p}-2S_q = \frac{m}{n}$ for coprime integers $m$ and $n$, then $m - n$ is divisible by $p$.
My Progress till now: $$2S_q = 2\sum_{x=1}^{\frac{q+1}{3}} \frac{1}{(3x-1)(3x)(3x+1)} = \sum_{x=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2}} \left[\frac{1}{3x(3x-1)}-\frac{1}{3x(3x+1)}\right]\\
=\sum_{x=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2}} \left[ \frac{1}{3x-1} - \frac{2}{3x} +\frac{1}{3x+1}\right]\\
=\sum_{x=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2}}\left[ \frac{1}{3x-1} + \frac{1}{3x} +\frac{1}{3x+1}\right] - \sum_{x=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2}} \frac{1}{x} $$
With the help of @user10354138 , I have got $\frac{1}{p} - 2S_q = \frac{1}{p} + \frac{1}{1} - \sum_{k=\frac{p+1}{2}}^{\frac{3p-1}{2}}\frac{1}{k} = \frac{m}{n}$
But then I am stuck.
Please give me some hints rather than a solution.
Thanks in advance.
PS: I didn't post it in AOPS, because there we don't get any guidance.

(Original) Hint: You are almost there with the simplification.  Note that you are summing over $\frac1n$ from $n=2$ to $\frac{3p-1}2$ in the first.  So
$$
2S_q+1=\sum_{n=(p+1)/2}^{(3p-1)/2}\frac1n
$$
If you tweak the RHS slightly, you would be summing over $\frac1n$ as $n$ runs through representative of each of the nonzero residue classes mod $p$.  So ...

Addendum (2020-07-29): As discussed in the comments,
\begin{align*}
\frac1p-2S_q-1&=-\left(\sum_{n=(p+1)/2}^{p-1}\frac1n+\sum_{n=p+1}^{p+(p-1)/2}\frac1n\right)\\
&=-\sum_{i=1}^{(p-1)/2}\left(\frac1{p-i}+\frac1{p+i}\right)
\end{align*}
and now
$$
\frac1{p-i}+\frac1{p+i}=\frac{p}{(p-i)(p+i)}
$$
so the numerators are divisible by $p$ and the denominators are not.  So putting everything over a common denominator, we see
$$
\frac{m-n}{n}=-\sum_{i=1}^{(p-1)/2}\frac{p}{(p-i)(p+i)}=\frac{p\times \text{some integer}}{\text{some integer not divisible by }p}.
$$
That is, every representation of $\frac{m-n}{n}$ must have more factors of $p$ in the numerator than in the denominator, hence $m-n$ is divisible by $p$.
