Finding $\lim x_n$ when $\left( 1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n+x_n}=1+\frac{1}{1!}+\frac{1}{2!}+\dots+\frac{1}{n!}$ 
Let $x_n$ be the unique solution of the equation $$\left( 1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n+x_n}=1+\frac{1}{1!}+\frac{1}{2!}+\dots+\frac{1}{n!}$$
  Find $\lim_{n \to \infty} x_n$

I think that the limit must be $\frac{1}{2}$, because $\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n+\frac{1}{2}}$ is decreasing and convergent to $e$, while $1+\frac{1}{1!}+\dots+\frac{1}{n!}$ is increasing and convergent to $e$, so $$\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n+\frac{1}{2}}>1+\frac{1}{1!}+\dots+\frac{1}{n!}$$
which means  that $\frac{1}{2}>x_n$. I also know that for $a \in [0,\frac{1}{2}), \left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n+a}$ is eventually increasing, but I don't know how to get a lower bound for $x_n$ which goes to $\frac{1}{2}$

The definition of $x_n$ can be directly used to evaluate the limit. To simplify typing let $s_n=\sum_{i=0}^{n}1/i!$. Then we have $$x_n=\frac{\log s_n-n\log(1+n^{-1})}{\log(1+n^{-1})}$$ Since $n\log(1+(1/n))\to 1$ the desired limit is equal to the limit of $$n\log s_n-n^2\log(1+(1/n))$$ and now we need to use Taylor series for $\log(1+x)$ to get $$\lim_{n\to\infty} n^2\log(1+(1/n))-n=-\frac{1}{2}$$ and thus our original limit is equal to the limit of $$\frac{1}{2}+n\log s_n-n$$ The next step needs some gymnastics with inequalities. We have $$e-s_n=\frac{1}{(n+1)!}+\frac{1}{(n+2)!}+\dots$$ which is less than $$\frac{1}{n!}\left(\frac{1}{n+1}+\frac{1}{(n+1)^2}+\dots\right)=\frac{1}{n!}\frac{1/(n+1)}{1-1/(n+1)}=\frac{1}{n\cdot n!} $$ and therefore we have $$1<\frac{e}{s_n}<1+\frac{1}{ns_n\cdot n!} $$ and applying logs we can see that $$0<n-n\log s_n<n\log\left(1+\frac{1}{ns_n\cdot n!} \right) \leq \frac{1}{s_n\cdot n!} $$ Since $s_n\to e$ by Squeeze Theorem we can see that $n-n\log s_n\to 0$ and therefore the desired limit is $1/2$.
