Computing $\int_0^\infty \frac{\ln x}{(x^2+1)^2}dx$ I'm trying to compute
$$I=\int_0^\infty \frac{\ln x}{(x^2+1)^2}dx$$

The following is my effort,
$$I(a)=\int_0^\infty\frac{\ln x}{x^2+a^2}dx$$
Let $x=a^2/y$ so that $dx=-(a^2/y^2)dy$ which leads to
$$I(a)=\int_0^\infty \frac{\ln(a/y)}{a^2+y^2}dy=\int_0^\infty\frac{\ln a}{y^2+a^2}dy-I(a)$$
$$I(a)=\frac{1}{2}\int_0^\infty\frac{\ln a}{y^2+a^2}dy=\frac{1}{2}\frac{\ln a}{a}\arctan\left( \frac{y}{a}\right)_0^\infty=\frac{\ln a}{a}\frac{\pi }{4}$$
Differentiating with respect to $a$ then
$$\frac{dI(a)}{a}=-2aI'(a)=\frac{\pi}{4}\left( \frac{1}{a^2}-\frac{\ln a}{a^2}\right)$$
where $$I'(a)=\int_0^\infty \frac{\ln y}{(y^2+a^2)^2}dx$$
$$I'(a)=\frac{\pi}{-8a}\left( \frac{1}{a^2}-\frac{\ln a}{a^2}\right)$$
$$I'(a=1)=-\frac{\pi}{8}$$
But the correct answer is $-\pi/4$.

Can you help me figure where I mistake? Please give some method if there is which is much better than what I have done?

Integrate by parts
\begin{align}
\int_0^\infty \frac{\ln x}{(x^2+1)^2}dx
&= \int_0^\infty \frac{\ln x}{2x}\>d(\frac{x^2}{x^2+1})\\
&\overset{ibp}= \frac12\int_0^\infty \underset{=\ 0}{\frac{\ln x}{x^2+1}dx }- \frac12\int_0^\infty \frac{1}{x^2+1}dx
= -\frac\pi4
\end{align}
