Show that if $\gcd(a,3)=1$ then $a^7 \equiv a\pmod{63}$. Why is this assumption necessary? Question:
Show that if $\gcd(a,3)=1$ then $a^7 \equiv a\pmod{63} $. Why is this assumption necessary?

Proof:
Since $\gcd(a,3)=1$ $\Leftrightarrow a\equiv 1\pmod 3$ $\Leftrightarrow a^7\equiv 1\pmod3\equiv a\pmod3$
Then using Fermat's Little Theorem:
If $a,p\in\mathbb N$ and $p$ is prime then $a^7\equiv a\pmod7$
$\Rightarrow 3 |a^7-a$ and $7 |a^7-a$
$\Leftrightarrow a^7-a=3k_1$ and $a^7-a=7k_2$
$\Rightarrow (a^7-a)^3=63(k_1)^2k_2$ $\Rightarrow (a^7-a)^3\pmod{63}\equiv 0$
Since $x^m\pmod n\equiv x\pmod n$
$\Rightarrow (a^7-a)^3\pmod{63}\equiv a^7-a\pmod{63}\equiv 0$
$\Leftrightarrow a^7\equiv a\pmod{63}$
The thing I am struggling with is that the question says that the only assumption necessary is that $\gcd(a,3)=1$. Surely there are two assumptions neccessary, since to use Fermat's Little Theorem (in this situation) we need $a\neq 0 \pmod7 \space\space\space(\gcd(a,7)=1)$. I am sure there is something obvious I'm missing -would be great if someone could check over what I have done and point out any mistakes :)


$a^7-a=a\left(a^6-1\right)=a(a^2-1)(a^4+a^2+1)=\underbrace{(a-1)}_{\equiv 0\pmod{3}}a(a+1)(a^4+a^2+1)$ is clearly always divisible by $3$ because it's a product of $3$ consecutive integers.
$(\forall a\in\mathbb Z)$
$a^7\equiv a\pmod{7}$
$$a^7-a\equiv 0\pmod{3}\;\land\;a^7-a\equiv 0\pmod{7}\implies a^7-a\equiv 0\pmod{63}$$
