limit of $\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{(\sin x)^2 - (x \cos x) ^ 2}{x^4}$ I have question. I want to solve this limit. it's $\frac{0}{0}$ so we have to change it. there is two way with two different value.
$\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{(\sin x)^2 - (x \cos x) ^ 2}{x^4}$  
First way:
before that we know that $\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\sin x}{x}$ or $\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{(\sin x) ^ 2}{x ^ 2}$ is equal to 1 so:
$\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{(\sin x)^2 - (x \cos x) ^ 2}{x^4} = \lim_{x\to 0} \frac{x^2 - x ^ 2 (\cos x) ^ 2}{x^4} = \lim_{x\to 0} \frac{x^2 (1 - (\cos x) ^ 2)}{x^4} = \lim_{x\to 0} \frac{(\sin x) ^ 2}{x^2} = 1$  
second way:
before that we know that $\sin x \sim x - \frac{x^3}{6}$ and $\cos x \sim 1 - \frac{x^2}{2}$ so:
$\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{(\sin x)^2 - (x \cos x) ^ 2}{x^4} = \lim_{x\to 0} \frac{(\sin x) - (x \cos x)}{x^3} * \frac{(\sin x) + (x \cos x)}{x} = \lim_{x\to 0} \frac{x - \frac{x^3}{6} - x + \frac{x^3}{2}}{x^3} * \frac{x - \frac{x^3}{6} + x - \frac{x^3}{2}}{x} = (\frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{6}) * 2 = \frac{2}{3}$    
Update:
Is it possible to explain more? We have limit and we solve like this and that's work but in this limit we can't use $\lim_{x\to0}\left(\frac{\sin x}x\right)^2=1$. 
this in another limit:
$\lim_{x\to0} \frac{1 - \cos 2x}{x^2}= \lim_{x\to0} \frac{2 (\sin x)^2}{x^2} = 2 * \lim_{x\to0} (\frac{\sin x}{x})^2 = 2 * 1 = 2$
Which way is true? Is it possible to help me?
I'm sorry for bad English.
Thanks. 

Your first way is wrong, and the mistake is that you in fact argued that
$$\lim_{x\to0}\left(\frac{\sin x}x\right)^2=1\implies \lim_{x\to0}\sin^2x=x^2$$
and this is, of course, wrong.
