Is it true that $\forall n \in \Bbb{N} : (\sum_{i=1}^{n} a_{i} ) (\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{a_{i}} ) \ge n^2$ , if all $a_{i}$ are positive? 
If  $\forall i \in \Bbb{N}: a_{i} \in \Bbb{R}^+$ , is it true that $\forall n \in \Bbb{N} : \big(\sum_{i=1}^{n}a_{i}\big) \big(\sum_{i=1}^{n}
 \frac{1}{a_{i}}\big) \ge n^2$ ?

I have been able to prove that this holds for $n=1$ , $n=2$, and $n=3$ using the following lemma:

Lemma 1:  Let $a,b \in \Bbb{R}^+$. If $ab =1$ then $a+b \ge 2$

For example, the case for $n=3$ can be proven like this:
Let $a,b,c \in \Bbb{R}^+$. Then we have:
$(a+b+c)\big(\frac{1}{a} + \frac{1}{b} + \frac{1}{c}\big) = 1 + \frac{a}{b} + \frac{a}{c} + \frac{b}{a} + 1 + \frac{b}{c} + \frac{c}{a} + \frac{c}{b}  + 1 $
$= 3 + \big(\frac{a}{b}  + \frac{b}{a}\big) + \big(\frac{a}{c} + \frac{c}{a}\big) + \big(\frac{b}{c} + \frac{c}{b}\big) $
By lemma 1, $\big(\frac{a}{b}  + \frac{b}{a}\big) \ge 2$,  $ \big(\frac{a}{c} + \frac{c}{a}\big) \ge 2$ and  $\big(\frac{b}{c} + \frac{c}{b}\big) \ge 2$ , therefore:
$3 + \big(\frac{a}{b}  + \frac{b}{a}\big) + \big(\frac{a}{c} + \frac{c}{a}\big) + \big(\frac{b}{c} + \frac{c}{b}\big) \ge 3 + 2 + 2 +2 = 9 = 3^2 \ \blacksquare $
However I'm not sure the generalized version for all natural $n$ is true. I can't come up with a counterexample and when I try to prove it by induction I get stuck.
Here is my attempt:
Let $P(n)::\big(\sum_{i=1}^{n}a_{i}\big) \big(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{a_{i}}\big) \ge n^2$
Base case: $\big(\sum_{i=1}^{1}a_{i}\big) \big(\sum_{i=1}^{1} \frac{1}{a_{i}}\big) = a_{1} \frac{1}{a_{1}} = 1 = 1^2$ , so $P(1)$ is true.
Inductive hypothesis:  I assume $P(n)$ is true.
Inductive step:
$$\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n+1}a_{i}\right) \left(\sum_{i=1}^{n+1} \frac{1}{a_{i}}\right) = \left[\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n}a_{i}\right) + a_{n+1}\right] \left[\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{a_{i}}\right) + \frac{1}{a_{n+1}}\right]$$
$$=\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n}a_{i}\right) \left[\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{a_{i}}\right) + \frac{1}{a_{n+1}}\right] + a_{n+1} \left[\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{a_{i}}\right) + \frac{1}{a_{n+1}}\right]$$
$$=\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n}a_{i}\right)\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{a_{i}}\right) +\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n}a_{i}\right) \frac{1}{a_{n+1}} + a_{n+1} \left(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{a_{i}}\right) +a_{n+1} \frac{1}{a_{n+1}}$$
$$=\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n}a_{i}\right)\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{a_{i}}\right) +\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n}a_{i}\right) \frac{1}{a_{n+1}} + a_{n+1} \left(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{a_{i}}\right) +1 $$
$$\underbrace{\ge}_{IH} n^2 + \left(\sum_{i=1}^{n}a_{i}\right) \frac{1}{a_{n+1}} + a_{n+1} \left(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{a_{i}}\right) + 1$$
And here I don't know what to do with the $\big( \sum_{i=1}^{n}a_{i} \big) \frac{1}{a_{n+1}} + a_{n+1} \big(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{a_{i}}\big)$ term.
Is this inequality true? If it is, how can I prove it? If it isn't, can anyone show me a counterexample?

Just apply 
$$AM\geq GM\geq HM$$
$$\Longrightarrow \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n a_i}{n}\geq \frac{n}{\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{1}{a_i}}$$
Now the result is immediate.
Here equality holds iff all $a_i's$ are equal.
Hope it helps:)
