Given that $z=\cos\theta+i\sin\theta$, show that $Re\left(\frac{z-1}{z+1}\right)=0, \quad z\ne-1$ 
Given that  $z=\cos\theta+i\sin\theta$, show that
  $Re\left(\frac{z-1}{z+1}\right)=0, \quad z\ne-1$

For this question I had to show that the real part of $\frac{z-1}{z+1}=0$ 
To find that I first substituted $z$ with $\cos\theta+i\sin\theta$ to get
$$\frac{\cos\theta+i\sin\theta-1}{\cos\theta+i\sin\theta+1}$$
I then multiplied by the conjugate of the denominator 
$$\frac{\cos\theta+i\sin\theta-1}{\cos\theta+i\sin\theta+1}\cdot\frac{\cos\theta-i\sin\theta+1}{\cos\theta-i\sin\theta+1}$$
Which, when expanded, gives me
$$\frac{\cos^2\theta+\sin^2\theta+2i\sin\theta-1}{\cos^2\theta+\sin^2\theta+2i\cos\theta+1}$$
After that, 
$$\frac{2i\sin\theta}{2\cos\theta+2}=\frac{i\sin\theta}{\cos\theta+1}$$
How do I proceed?
Edit: Just realized (after being told by a commenter) that $\frac{i\sin\theta}{\cos\theta+1}$ is imaginary. I won't delete the question. Ínstead I'll leave it here, as a testament to my stupidity, for everyone to see. May God have mercy on my soul during my exam.

You are done indeed
$$\frac{i\sin\theta}{\cos\theta+1}=i\cdot \frac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta+1}$$
is purely imaginary.
As an alternative since $z\bar z=|z|^2=\cos^2 \theta+\sin^2 \theta=1$ we have that
$$\frac{z-1}{z+1}=\frac{z-1}{z+1}\frac{\bar z+1}{\bar z+1}=\frac{z\bar z+z-\bar z-1}{z\bar z+z+\bar z+1}=i\cdot \frac{\,\Im(z)}{\Re(z)+1}$$
which is again purely imaginary.
