$1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{5}-\dots+\frac{1}{1331}=\frac{p}{q}$; is $p$ divisible by $1997$? if $p,q\in \mathbb{N}$ and 
$$1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{5}-\dots+\frac{1}{1331}=\frac{p}{q}$$
why is $p$ divisible by $1997$?

Let $S$ be the LHS. Using
$$
1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}-\cdots-\frac{1}{2n}=\frac{1}{n+1}+\cdots+\frac{1}{2n}
$$
(which can be proved by induction), we can deduce that
$$
S-\frac{1}{1332}=\frac{1}{667}+\cdots+\frac{1}{1331}+\frac{1}{1332}\\
\implies S=\frac{2}{1332}+\frac{1}{667}+\cdots+\frac{1}{1331}=\frac{1}{666}+\cdots+\frac{1}{1331}.
$$
This implies
$$
S=1997\left(\frac{1}{666\times 1331}+\frac{1}{667\times 1330}+\cdots+\frac{1}{998\times 999}\right).
$$
Let the expression in the parentheses equal to $\frac{a}{b}$ where $a$ and $b$ are positive integers satisfying $a<b$ and $\text{gcd}(a,b)=1$. Then because $1997$ is prime, $b$ isn't divisible by $1997$ (the prime factors of $b$ constitute a subset of the prime factors of $\prod_{j=666}^{1331}j$), so we have $1997a|p$ and $b|q$. The claim follows.
