Find $C$ for which improper integral is convergent Find $C$ for which $\displaystyle I=\int\limits_{1}^{\infty} \left(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+4}}-\dfrac{C}{x+2}\right)dx$  is convergent.

Hint: First note that by Comparison the integral does not converge if $C\le 0$. So we may assume that $C$  is positive. 
Bring to a common denominator, and then rationalize the numerator, by multiplying top and bottom by $x+2+C\sqrt{x^2+4}$. We get 
$$\frac{(x+2)^2-C^2(x^2+4)}{(x+2+C\sqrt{x^2+4})(x+2)(\sqrt{x^2+4})}.\tag{1}$$
Argue by Comparison that  the only positive value of $C$ for which the integral from $1$ to $\infty$ of (1) converges is given by $C=1$. 
Remark: We did algebraic manipulation, but in fact most of the answer was, at the informal level, immediate. The long run behaviour of $\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+4}}$ and of $\frac{1}{x+2}$ is effectively the same, and it is the same as that of $\frac{1}{x}$. Thus if $C\ne 1$, our difference will behave like $\frac{1-C}{x}$, and the integral must diverge. If $C=1$, there will be cancellation, and the combined term $\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+4}}-\frac{1}{x+2}$ has a chance to decay fast enough for the integral to converge. A calculation now shows that it does. 
