Show that $\binom{2n}{n}\geq2^n$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}_0$. Show that $\binom{2n}{n}\geq2^n$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}_0$.

First, observe that $\binom{2n}{n} = \frac{(2n)!}{n!(2n-n)!}=\frac{(2n)!}{(n!)^2}=\frac{1\cdot 2\cdot 3\cdot...\cdot 2n-1\cdot 2n}{(n!)^2}=\frac{(1\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot ... \cdot 2n-1)\cdot(2\cdot 4\cdot 6\cdot ... \cdot 2n)}{(n!)^2}=\frac{(1\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot ... \cdot 2n-1)\cdot(2\cdot 1\cdot 2\cdot 2\cdot 2\cdot 3\cdot ... \cdot 2n)}{(n!)^2}=\frac{(1\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot ... \cdot 2n-1)\cdot 2^n\cdot n!}{(n!)^2}=2^n\cdot\frac{1\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot ... \cdot 2n-1}{(n!)}.$
For $n=0$ we have:
$\frac{(2*0)!}{(0!)^2}=1=2^0.$
Now to our inductive step $n+1$:
\begin{align*}
& \frac{(2(n+1))!}{((n+1)!)^2}\geq2^{n+1}\\
\Leftrightarrow\,\, & \frac{(2n+2)!}{((n+1)!)^2}\geq2^{n+1}\\
\Leftrightarrow\,\, & \frac{1\cdot 2\cdot 3\cdot...\cdot 2n+1 \cdot 2n+2}{((n+1)!)^2}\geq2^{n+1}\\
\Leftrightarrow\,\, & \frac{(1\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot ... \cdot 2n+1)\cdot(2\cdot 4\cdot 6\cdot ... \cdot 2n \cdot 2n+2)}{((n+1)!)^2}\geq2^{n+1}\\
\Leftrightarrow\,\, & \frac{(1\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot ... \cdot 2n+1)\cdot 2^{n+1} \cdot (n+1)!}{((n+1)!)^2}\geq2^{n+1}\\
\Leftrightarrow\,\, & 2^{n+1}\cdot \frac{(1\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot ... \cdot 2n+1)}{((n+1)!)}\geq2^{n+1}\\
\end{align*}

Is this proof correct/sufficient? Was induction even needed here or should I have argued instead that $\frac{1\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot ... \cdot 2n-1}{(n!)}>0$? Is this step necessary even for the induction?

From this identity and inequality, the proof becomes obvious
$$
\binom{2n}n = \sum_{k=0}^n {\binom nk}^2\ge \sum_{k=0}^n \binom nk.
$$
This identity is by comparison of coefficients of $x^n$ in 
$$
(1+x)^{2n}=(1+x)^n (1+x)^n.
$$
