An inequality involving three consecutive primes Can you provide a proof or a counterexample to the following claim :

Let $p,q,r$ be three consecutive prime numbers such that $p\ge 11 $ and $p<q<r$ , then $\frac{1}{p^2}< \frac{1}{q^2} + \frac{1}{r^2}$ .

I have tested this claim up to $10^{10}$ .
For $p>5$ we get $\pi(2p)-\pi(p) \ge 2$  , a result by Ramanujan .
This means that $q<2p$ and $r<2p$ , so $\frac{1}{2p}<\frac{1}{q}$ and $\frac{1}{2p}<\frac{1}{r}$ which implies $\frac{1}{p} < \frac{1}{q} + \frac{1}{r}$ . If we square both sides of inequality we get $\frac{1}{p^2} < \frac{1}{q^2} + \frac{2}{qr} + \frac{1}{r^2}$ . Now , I don't know how to rule out term $\frac{2}{qr}$  .

Here is a stronger form of the above inequality. The prime number theorem implies that for every $\epsilon$, there exists a prime $p_{\epsilon}$ such that for all $p > p_{\epsilon}$, we have $1 - \epsilon < \frac{p}{q}, \frac{q}{r} < 1$. Hence for all positive real $a$ and all primes greater than some $p_{\epsilon_a}$  
$$
\frac{2 - \epsilon_a}{p^a} < \frac{1}{q^a} + \frac{1}{r^a} < \frac{2}{p^a}
$$
