How to prove this beautiful series by using Taylor and Maclaurin series I have been playing with Taylor and Maclaurin series lately and stumble on this beautiful identity. I don't know to expand the left hand side to yield the right hand side:
How to prove: $\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}} =1+\dfrac{1}{2}x^2+\dfrac{1 \cdot3}{2\cdot4}x^4+\dfrac{1\cdot 3\cdot 5}{2\cdot 4\cdot 6}x^6+\dfrac{1\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot 7}{2\cdot 4\cdot 6\cdot 8}x^8...$
I can only expand this as followed:
$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}} = 1+\frac{1}{2}x^2+\frac{3}{8}x^4+\frac{5}{16}x^6...,$$
How can you prove this by using Maclaurin series? 
I need two proofs, one in Maclaurin series and one in binomial theorem. Please don't use the sigma notation too much as I cannot see the pattern.

I have finally been able to derive the series after some manipulations:
The general formula for binomial series is:
$(1+x)^k=1+kx+\dfrac{k(k-1)}{2!}x^2+\dfrac{k(k-1)(k-2)}{3!}x^3+\dfrac{k(k-1)(k-2)(k-3)}{4!}x^4...$
$
\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}=(1-x^2)^{-\frac{1}{2}}=1+(-\dfrac{1}{2})(-x^2)+\dfrac{(-\dfrac{1}{2})(-\dfrac{1}{2}-1)}{2!}(-x^2)^2+\dfrac{(-\dfrac{1}{2})(-\dfrac{1}{2}-1)(-\dfrac{1}{2}-2)}{3!}(-x^2)^3+\dfrac{(-\dfrac{1}{2})(-\dfrac{1}{2}-1)(-\dfrac{1}{2}-2)(-\dfrac{1}{2}-3)}{4!}(-x^2)^4...$
$=1+\dfrac{1}{2}x^2+\dfrac{(-\dfrac{1}{2})(-\dfrac{3}{2})}{2!}(x^4)+\dfrac{(-\dfrac{1}{2})(-\dfrac{3}{2})(-\dfrac{5}{2})}{3!}(-x^6)+\dfrac{(-\dfrac{1}{2})(-\dfrac{3}{2})(-\dfrac{5}{2})(-\dfrac{7}{2})}{4!}(x^8)...$
$=1+\dfrac{1}{2}x^2+\dfrac{1 \cdot3}{2^2\cdot2!}x^4+\dfrac{1\cdot 3\cdot 5}{2^3\cdot 3!}x^6+\dfrac{1\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot 7}{2^4\cdot 4!}x^8...$
$=1+\dfrac{1}{2}x^2+\dfrac{1 \cdot3}{2\cdot4}x^4+\dfrac{1\cdot 3\cdot 5}{2\cdot 4\cdot 6}x^6+\dfrac{1\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot 7}{2\cdot 4\cdot 6\cdot 8}x^8...$
$$=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{(2n-1!!)}{2^nn!}x^{2n}$$
