If $\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{dx}{1+x^2+x^4}=\frac{\pi \sqrt{n}}{2n}$, then $n=$ If $\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{dx}{1+x^2+x^4}=\frac{\pi \sqrt{n}}{2n}$, then $n=$
$\text{A) }1 \space \space \space \space \space\text{B) }2 \space \space \space \space \space\text{C) }3 \space \space \space \space \space\text{D) }4 \space \space \space \space \space\text{E) }\text{None of the given options}$
Using partial fraction decomposition, I ended with $n=3$, that is option $\text{C}$. However, it took me about $8$ minutes, which is not feasible for an MCQ test, where the average time to solve a problem is $3$ minutes, and no calculator is allowed.
I believe that there is something obvious for some of you. If there is nothing obvious, then there must be a simpler and a quicker way than partial fraction decomposition.
This post is voted to be closed and considered as [duplicate] but it is not. To prove is different than evaluating $n$ with possibly a cliver and a fast way. To prove, I can use partial fraction decomposition. Some users DO NOT really read the post properly!
Please share your thoughts. THANKS!

$$
\begin{aligned}
\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{1+x^{2}+x^{4}} d x &=\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\frac{1}{x^{2}}}{x^{2}+\frac{1}{x^{2}}+1} d x \\
&=\frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\left(1+\frac{1}{x^{2}}\right)-\left(1-\frac{1}{x^{2}}\right)}{x^{2}+\frac{1}{x^{2}}+1} d x \\
&=\frac{1}{2}\left[\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{d\left(x-\frac{1}{x}\right)}{\left(x-\frac{1}{x}\right)^{2}+3}-\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{d\left(x+\frac{1}{x}\right)}{\left(x+\frac{1}{x}\right)^{2}-1}\right] \\
&=\frac{1}{2}\left[\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x-\frac{1}{x}}{\sqrt{3}}\right)-\frac{1}{2} \ln \left|\frac{x+\frac{1}{x}-1}{x+\frac{1}{x}+1}\right|\right]_{0}^{\infty} \\
&=\frac{1}{2}\left[\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\right)\right] \\
&=\frac{\pi  \sqrt{3}}{6}
\end{aligned}
$$
Hence the answer is
$$\boxed{C) :n=3.}$$
