Question on Euler Totient, and finding a function Determine $f(n)$ such that for all $n\geq 1$,
$$\frac{1}{\varphi (n)}=\sum_{d\vert n}\left(\frac{1}{d}\right)f\left(\frac{n}{d}\right)$$
This is not a homework question, just a question I stumbled upon.
I have tried writing $\varphi (n)$ as 
$$\varphi (n)=\sum_{d\vert n}^{}{\mu(d) \frac{n}{d}},$$ where $\mu$ is the Möbius function.
I am not sure if this is the right approach, but I was stuck here.
Sincere thanks for any help!

Assume that $f$ is multiplicative. This will ensure that we can determine $f(n)$ as the product of its values at prime powers $f(p^v).$ We set $f(1)=1.$
The values of $f(p^v)$ can be determined recursively. Start with $f(p)$, which produces the equation $$ \frac{1}{p-1} = f(p) + \frac{1}{p} f(1) $$ or
$$ f(p) = \frac{1}{p} \frac{1}{p-1}.$$
Now claim that $f(p^v) = 0$ when $v\ge 2.$ Reasoning inductively, we find
$$ \frac{1}{p^v-p^{v-1}} = f(p^v) + \frac{1}{p^{v-1}} f(p) + \frac{1}{p^v} f(1)$$
which implies
$$ f(p^v) = \frac{1}{p^v-p^{v-1}} - \frac{1}{p^v} \frac{1}{p-1} - \frac{1}{p^v}
= \frac{p - 1 - (p-1)}{p^{v+1}-p^v} = 0.$$
This shows that
$$f(p^v) = \begin{cases}
1 & \text{if} \quad v=0 \\
\frac{1}{p} \frac{1}{p-1} & \text{if} \quad v=1 \\
0 & \text{otherwise.}
\end{cases}$$
To conclude we now identify this function. It must be zero if the square of a prime divides $n$, and positive otherwise, hence it is a multiple of $\mu^2(n).$ The denominator is simply $n\varphi(n)$, so that the end result is
$$ f(n) = \frac{\mu^2(n)}{n\varphi(n)}.$$
The above process reflects the Dirichlet convolution
$$ f \star \frac{1}{n} = \frac{1}{\varphi}.$$
This would suggest a possibility to compute a closed form of the function $G(s)$ from this post. However we have the Euler product
$$ \sum_{n\ge 1} \frac{1/\varphi(n)}{n^s} =
\prod_p \left( 1 + \frac{1}{p-1} \frac{1}{p^s} +
\frac{1}{p}\frac{1}{p-1} \frac{1}{p^{2s}} +
\frac{1}{p^2}\frac{1}{p-1} \frac{1}{p^{3s}} + \cdots \right)$$
which is
$$ \prod_p \left( 1 + \frac{p}{p} \frac{1}{p-1} \frac{1}{p^s} +
\frac{p}{p^2}\frac{1}{p-1} \frac{1}{p^{2s}} +
\frac{p}{p^3}\frac{1}{p-1} \frac{1}{p^{3s}} + \cdots \right)$$
which yields in turn
$$\prod_p \left( 1 + \frac{p}{p-1} \frac{1/p^{s+1}}{1-1/p^{s+1}} \right)$$
Now we examine the roots and the singularities of this expression as in
$$ 1 + \frac{p}{p-1} \frac{1/z/p}{1-1/z/p}$$
getting $$ z = \frac{1}{p(1-p)},$$
so no closed form appears possible. 
