Explain why calculating this series could cause paradox? $$\ln2 = 1 - \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{4} + \cdots
      = (1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} + \cdots) - 2(\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{4} + \cdots)$$
     $$= (1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} + \cdots) - (1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} + \cdots) = 0$$
thanks.

It's because the series for ln2 is conditionally convergent.  (see also Riemann's rearrangement theorem)
