A question about substitute equivalent form into limit: $\lim_{x\to \infty} \sqrt{x^2+x+1}-\sqrt{x^2+3x+1} = -1$ When I had the calculus class about the limit, one of my classmate felt confused about this limit:

$$\lim_{x\to \infty} \sqrt{x^2+x+1}-\sqrt{x^2+3x+1} = -1$$

What he thought that since $x^2 > x$ and $x^2 > 3x$ when $x \to \infty$ so the first square root must be $x$ and same for the second. Hence, the limit must be $0$.
It is obviously problematic.
And what I thought is that make prefect square under the limit, though I know the right solution is to rationalize the numerator.
After perfect-squaring, $$\lim_{x\to \infty} \sqrt{\left(x+\frac{1}{2}\right)^2+\frac{3}{4}}-\sqrt{\left(x+\frac{3}{2}\right)^2-\frac{5}{4}}$$ I assert that since there is a perfect square and a square root. As $x \to \infty$, the constant does not matter. So
$$\lim_{x\to \infty} \sqrt{\left(x+\frac{1}{2}\right)^2+\frac{3}{4}}-\sqrt{\left(x+\frac{3}{2}\right)^2-\frac{5}{4}}= \lim_{x\to \infty} \sqrt{\left(x+\frac{1}{2}\right)^2}-\sqrt{\left(x+\frac{3}{2}\right)^2}\\ = \frac{1}{2}-\frac{3}{2} = -1 $$
But when I conquer this limit: this post.
Here is my argument:

$\sqrt{ax^2+bx+c} =O(\sqrt a(x+\frac{b}{2a}))$ when $x \to \infty$
$$\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\sqrt{x^2-2x+3}+\sqrt{4x^2+5x-6}}{x+\sqrt{x^2-1}} =\frac{x-1+2(x+5/4)}{x+x}  = \frac{3}{2}$$

Very concise get this answer but it gets downvoted.
I do not know what is wrong with my strategy. But in general case: for instance this problem about cubic root my strategy seems to work really efficient:

$$\lim_{x\to \infty} \sqrt[3]{x^3+6x^2+9x+1}-\sqrt[3]{x^3+5x^2+x+1}$$

My solution is:
$$\lim_{x\to \infty} \sqrt[3]{x^3+bx^2+cx+d} = \lim_{x\to \infty} \sqrt[3]{\left(x+\frac{b}{3}\right)^3}$$
So the limit becomes: $$\lim_{x\to \infty} \sqrt[3]{(x+2)^3+O(x)}-\sqrt[3]{\left(x+\frac{5}{3}\right)^3 + O(x)} =\lim_{x\to \infty}  (x+2) -\left(x+\frac{5}{3}\right) = \frac{1}{3} $$
This result gets verified by wolframalpha.
To put all into a nutshell, what is wrong with my solution to these three problem. Is there any counterexample to this substitution. Any help, you will be appreciated.

@ZackNi As David indicated, you are assuming "infinity minus infinity = 0,which works out well because both radicals are squareroots and the headcoefficients of the polynomials are both 1.You can also get"infinity minus infinity = 0 from a squareroot and cuberoot, but using your approach will then yield to a wrong answer to the limit. 
Generally, $\infty-\infty$ and $\infty*0$ situations should be converted into situations like $\frac{0}{0}$ or $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ on which other techniques can be applied to get the desired limit. In your problem the conjugate approach is also a good way to go. (My comment post got messed up and I can't delete it...)
