How to prove this algebraic version of the sine law? How to solve the following problem from Hall and Knight's Higher Algebra?

Suppose that
  \begin{align}
a&=zb+yc,\tag{1}\\
b&=xc+za,\tag{2}\\
c&=ya+xb.\tag{3}
\end{align}
  Prove that
  $$\frac{a^2}{1-x^2}=\frac{b^2}{1-y^2}=\frac{c^2}{1-z^2}.\tag{4}$$

(I suppose that $x,y,z$ are real numbers whose moduli are not equal to $1$.)
I discovered this problem from chapter 3 of Prelude to Mathematics by W. W. Sawyer. Sawyer thought that this problem arose from the sine law: let $a,b,c$ be respectively the lengths of the edges opposite to three vertices $A,B,C$ of a triangle. Define $x=\cos A$ and define $y,z$ analogously. Now equalities $(1)-(3)$ simply relate $a,b$ and $c$ to each other by the cosines of the angles and $(4)$ is just a rewrite of the sine law
$$
\frac{a}{\sin A}=\frac{b}{\sin B}=\frac{c}{\sin C}.
$$
However, the algebraic version $(4)$ looks more general. For example, it does not state that $a,b,c$ must be positive or that they must satisfy the triangle inequality.
Sawyer wrote that this isn't a hard problem, but he didn't provide any solution. I can prove $(4)$ using linear algebra. Suppose that $(a,b,c)\ne(0,0,0)$ (otherwise $(4)$ is obvious). Rewrite $(1)-(3)$ in the form of $M\mathbf a=0$:
$$\begin{bmatrix}-1&z&y\\ z&-1&x\\ y&x&-1\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}a\\ b\\ c\end{bmatrix}=0.$$
Since $x^2,y^2,z^2\ne1$, $M$ has rank $2$ and $D=\operatorname{adj}(M)$ has rank $1$. Hence all columns of $D$ are parallel to $(a,b,c)^T$ and $\frac{d_{11}}{d_{21}}=\frac{d_{12}}{d_{22}}=\frac{a}{b}$. Since $M$ is symmetric, $D$ is symmetric too. Therefore $\frac{1-x^2}{1-y^2}=\frac{d_{11}}{d_{22}}=\frac{d_{11}d_{12}}{d_{21}d_{22}}=\frac{a^2}{b^2}$, i.e. $\frac{a^2}{1-x^2}=\frac{b^2}{1-y^2}$.
As this problem comes from Hall and Knight's book, I think there should be a more elementary solution. Any ideas?

We can write 
I) $z=\frac{a-yc}{b}$ from (1)
Now, multiplying $y$ on both sides of (3) we get $yc=y^2a+xyb$.
So, from I) we get $\frac{a-ay^2}{b}-xy=z$.....(1')
Similarly from equation (2) we get
II) $z=\frac{b-xc}{a}$ from (2)
Now, multiplying $x$ on both sides of (3) we get $xc=xya+x^2b$.
And we get from (2) $\frac{b-bx^2}{a}-xy=z$.....(2')
From (1') and (2') we get,
$\frac{a-ay^2}{b}=\frac{b-bx^2}{a} \rightarrow \frac{a^2}{1-x^2}=\frac{b^2}{1-y^2}$.
Similarly,  $\frac{a^2}{1-x^2}=\frac{c^2}{1-z^2}$
So, ultimately we have proved
$\frac{a^2}{1-x^2}=\frac{b^2}{1-y^2}=\frac{c^2}{1-z^2}$
Suppose, $b=0$, then $\frac{a}{c}=y=\frac{c}{a}$ or $y=1$. So, $\frac{b^2}{1-y^2}$ will be undefined.
If also $c=0$ then $a=0$.
