Why is Euler's statement $\exp{(A + \frac{1}{2}B + \frac{1}{3}C+ \ldots)} = 1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} + \dots$ true? Euler, in his paper Variae observationes circa series infinitas [src], makes the following statements in his Theorem 19.
$$ \exp{(A + \frac{1}{2}B + \frac{1}{3}C+ \frac{1}{4}D + \ldots)} = 1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{5}+ \dots $$
Where he defines:
$$A = \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{5} + \frac{1}{7} + \dots $$
$$B = \frac{1}{2^2} + \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{5^2} + \frac{1}{7^2} + \dots $$
$$C = \frac{1}{2^3} + \frac{1}{3^3} + \frac{1}{5^3} + \frac{1}{7^3} + \dots $$
Question: I can't see how that statement is true.
I would appreciate replies that don't assume university level training in mathematics.

This is just an idea, why don't you view it like this
$$ \exp{(A + \frac{1}{2}B + \frac{1}{3}C+ \frac{1}{4}D + \ldots)} = 1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{5}+ \dots $$
Where $$A = \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{5} + \frac{1}{7} + \dots $$
$$B = \frac{1}{2^2} + \frac{1}{3^2} + \frac{1}{5^2} + \frac{1}{7^2} + \dots $$
$$C = \frac{1}{2^3} + \frac{1}{3^3} + \frac{1}{5^3} + \frac{1}{7^3} + \dots $$
But this in terms of a function also say $p(n)$ is the function of the $n$th prime
$$ \exp[ \sum_{k=1}^{\infty } ( \frac{1}{k} \cdot    \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} ( \frac{1}{p(n)^k}  ) )] = \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}  ( \frac{1}{n} ) $$
