Proving that $\sum_{k=0}^{n}\frac{(-1)^k}{{n\choose k}}=[1+(-1)^n] \frac{n+1}{n+2}.$ Various examinations ask students to prove that $$\frac{1}{{n \choose k}}=(n+1) \int_{0}^{1} x^k (1-x)^{n-k} dx ~~~~~(1)$$ by evaluating  the integral $\int_{0}^{1}
(tx+1-x)^n~dt$ two ways. When I came across (1), I could prove that $$\sum_{k=0}^{n}\frac{(-1)^k}{{n\choose k}}=[1+(-1)^n] \frac{n+1}{n+2}.~~~~(2)$$ as below:  $$S_n=\frac{1}{n+1}\sum_{k=0}^{n}\frac{(-1)^k}{{n\choose k}}=\int_{0}^1 \sum_{k=0}^{n} (-1)^k  x^k (1-x)^{n-k} dx =  \int_{0}^{1}  (1-x)^n \sum_{k=0}^{n}\left(\frac{-x}{1-x} \right)^k dx =\int_{0}^{1}(1-x)^n \frac{ \left( \frac{-x}{1-x}\right)^{n+1}-1}{\left(\frac{-x}{1-x}\right)-1}dx$$
$$=\int_{0}^{1}[(1-x)^{n+1}-(-x)^{n+1}] dx =\frac{1+(-1)^n}{n+2}.~~~~(3)$$
Therefore, $$S_{2m+1}=0 ~~~~(4) ~~~ \mbox{and}~~~ S_{2m}= \frac{2m+1}{m+1}.~~~~(5)$$
Now the question is: Can one prove (2) in some other way(s)? 

A telescoping approach:

We obtain
  \begin{align*}
\color{blue}{\sum_{k=0}^n\frac{(-1)^k}{\binom{n}{k}}}
&=\sum_{k=0}^n(-1)^k\frac{k!(n-k)!}{n!}\\
&=\sum_{k=0}^n(-1)^k\frac{k!(n-k)!}{n!}\cdot\frac{(n-(k-1))+(k+1)}{n+2}\\
&=\frac{n+1}{n+2}\sum_{k=0}^n(-1)^k\frac{k!(n-(k-1))!+(k+1)!(n-k)!}{(n+1)!}\\
&=\frac{n+1}{n+2}\sum_{k=0}^n\left((-1)^k\frac{1}{\binom{n+1}{k}}-(-1)^{k+1}\frac{1}{\binom{n+1}{k+1}}\right)\\
&\,\,\color{blue}{=\frac{n+1}{n+2}\left(1+(-1)^n\right)}
\end{align*}
and the claim follows.

