$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\frac{\tan^2 x}{1+x^2}\text{d}x$ on 2015 MIT Integration Bee So one of the question on the MIT Integration Bee has baffled me all day today $$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\frac{\tan^2 x}{1+x^2}\text{d}x$$ I have tried a variety of things to do this, starting with
Integration By Parts Part 1
$$\frac{\tan x-x}{1+x^2}\bigg\rvert_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}-\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\frac{-2x(\tan x -x)}{\left (1+x^2 \right )^2}\text{d}x$$ which that second integral is not promising, so then we try
Integration By Parts Part 2
$$\tan^{-1} x\tan^2 x\bigg\rvert_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}-\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}2\tan^{-1} x\tan x\sec^2 x\text{d}x$$ which also does not seem promising
Trig Substitution
$x=\tan\theta$ which results $$\int_{0}^{\tan^{-1}\frac{\pi}{4}}\tan^2 \left (\tan\theta\right )\text{d}\theta$$ which I think too simple to do anything with (which may or may not be a valid reason for stopping here) I had some ideas following this like power reducing $\tan^2 x=\frac{1-\cos 2x}{1+\cos 2x}$ which didn't spawn any new ideas. Then I thought maybe something could be done with differentiation under the integral but I could not figure out how to incorporate that. I also considered something with symmetry somehow which availed no results. I'm also fairly certain no indefinite integral exists. Now the answer MIT gave was $\frac{1}{3}$ but wolfram alpha gave $\approx$ .156503. Note
The integral I gave was a simplified version of the original here is the original in case someone can do something with it $$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\frac{1-x^2+x^4-x^6...}{\cos^2 x+\cos^4 x+\cos^6 x...}\text{d}x$$ My simplification is verifiably correct, I'd prefer no complex analysis and this is from this Youtube Video close to the end.

This is not the whole answer to this question but it is something new that wasn't mentioned here so I thought I would post it. Let us denote the unknown integral by $J$. Then substituting for $y= \tan(x)$ we get:
\begin{equation}
J = \int\limits_0^1 \frac{y^2}{1+\arctan(y)^2} \cdot \frac{1}{1+y^2} d y = 
\int\limits_0^1 \frac{1}{1+\arctan(y)^2} d y - \int\limits_0^1 \frac{1}{1+\arctan(y)^2} \cdot \frac{dy}{1+y^2}=
\left(\sum\limits_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n \int\limits_0^1 \arctan(y)^{2 n} d y\right) - \arctan(\frac{\pi}{4})
\end{equation}
Now, clearly the series converges which follows from the estimate $\arctan(y) < y$ for $y\in(0,1)$. Integrating by parts we have:
\begin{eqnarray}
\int\limits_0^1 \arctan(y)^2 d y &=& (\frac{\pi}{4})^2+ \frac{\pi}{4} \log(2) - G \\
\int\limits_0^1 \arctan(y)^{2 n} d y &=& \cdots
\end{eqnarray}
where $G$ is the Catalan constant. Now, of course the real challenge is to calculate the last integral above in closed form. This requires more work. However I have a feeling that this integral can be reduced to poly-logarithms for arbitrary values of $n$ and as such does have a "closed form". 
We use the following identities:
\begin{eqnarray}
 [\arctan(y)]^2 &=& \frac{1}{2} \sum\limits_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n \frac{(y^2)^{n+1}}{n+1} \cdot \left( \Psi(-1/2) + \Psi(n+3/2)\right) \\
&=& -\frac{1}{4} \log ^2\left(\frac{y+i}{y-i}\right)+\frac{1}{2} i \pi  \log \left(\frac{y+i}{y-i}\right)+\frac{\pi ^2}{4}
\end{eqnarray}
Now, raising the identity above to the $n$th power and integrating we readily see that the only non-trivial integral we are dealing is, is the following:
\begin{eqnarray}
{\mathcal A}_n &:=& \int\limits_0^1 [\log(\frac{x+\imath}{x-\imath})]^n dx \\
&=& (-2 \imath) \int\limits_{-1}^{\imath} \frac{ [\log(u)]^n}{(1-u)^2} d u \\
&=&(-\imath)(\imath \pi)^n + (1+\imath) (\imath \frac{\pi}{2})^n + \\
&&(-\imath)n! (-1)^n \left((\log(2)+\imath \frac{\pi}{2}) 1_{n=1} + 2(S_{1,n-1}(2) - S_{1,n-1}(1-\imath)) 1_{n > 1}\right)
\end{eqnarray}
where the path in middle integral is a quarter of a unit circle starting at $-1$ and ending at $\imath$. The quantities $S_{1,n-1}()$ in the bottom formula are the Nielsen generalized poly-logarithms. Here $n\ge 1$. Combining the two identities above we obtain the following identity :
\begin{eqnarray}
&&\int\limits_0^1 \arctan(y)^{2 n} dy = \\
&&
 \left(\frac{\pi^2}{16}\right)^n + \\
&&  Re\sum\limits_{0\le p_1 \le p_2 \le n} 
\frac{n! (2(p_2-p_1)+n-p_2)!}{p_1! (p_2-p_1)!(n-p_2)!} 
\left(\frac{\pi^2}{4}\right)^{p_1} \left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^{p_2-p_1} \left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)^{n-p_2} \cdot \\
&&
\left(
0 \cdot 1_{n+p_2-2 p_1=0} + 
(\log(2)) \cdot 1_{n+p_2-2 p_1=1} + 
2 (-\imath)^{n+p_2-2 p_1+1} 
(S_{1,n+p_2-2 p_1-1}(2) - S_{1,n+p_2-2 p_1-1}(1-\imath)) \cdot 
1_{n+p_2-2 p_1>1}  
\right)
\end{eqnarray}
valid for $n=1,2,\cdots$. This concludes the calculation.
