Proving that for $\{ a,b\} \subset \Bbb{R^{+}}$; $a+b=1 \implies a^2+b^2 \ge \frac{1}{2}$ 
For $\{ a,b\} \subset \Bbb{R^{+}}$; $a+b=1 \implies a^2+b^2 \ge
 \frac{1}{2}$

I'm trying to prove this in the following way, but I'm not sure if it's correct. Could anyone please check it and see if it's okay?
$a+b=1 \implies (a+b)^2 = 1^2 = 1 \implies (a+b)-(a+b)^2 = 1-1 =0$   (1) 
$(a-b)^2 \ge 0$
So by (1) we have:
$(a-b)^2 \ge (a+b)-(a+b)^2$
$(a^2-2ab+b^2) \ge (a+b) - (a^2+2ab+b^2)$
$(a^2-2ab+b^2) + (a^2+2ab+b^2) \ge (a+b) $
$ a^2+a^2+b^2+b^2+2ab-2ab \ge (a+b)$
$2(a^2+b^2) \ge (a+b)$
$2(a^2+b^2) \ge 1$
$(a^2+b^2) \ge \frac{1}{2}   $
$\blacksquare$

It is ok. You could have also put $b=1-a$ and minimize a quadratic function
