When $p=2$ or $p$ prime, with $p=1\pmod{4}$, $x^2\equiv -1\pmod{p}$ is soluble - trouble understanding proof Theorem: When $p=2$ or $p$ prime, with $p=1\pmod{4}$, $x^2\equiv -1\pmod{p}$ is soluble
Proof: When $p=2$, the statement is clear.
Assume $p\equiv 1\pmod{4}$, let $r=\frac{p-1}{2}$ and $x=r!$
Then since $r$ is even $x^2\equiv (1\cdot 2\cdot...\cdot r)((p-1)\cdot(p-2)\cdot...\cdot(p-r))\equiv (p-1)!\equiv -1\pmod{p}$
Thus, when $p\equiv 1\pmod{4}$, the congruence $x^2\equiv -1\pmod{p}$ is soluble.
Point of contention: I understand the general argument
I understand the relation
$(1\cdot 2\cdot...\cdot r)((p-1)\cdot(p-2)\cdot...\cdot(p-r))\equiv (p-1)!\equiv -1\pmod{p}$
But I cant work out how $x^2\equiv(1\cdot 2\cdot...\cdot r)((p-1)\cdot(p-2)\cdot...\cdot(p-r))\pmod{p}$
How is $((\frac{p-1}{2})!)^2\equiv(1\cdot 2\cdot...\cdot r)((p-1)\cdot(p-2)\cdot...\cdot(p-r))\pmod{p}$

You can see it the following way:
$$\begin{align}(1\cdot 2\cdot...\cdot r)\underbrace{((p-1)\cdot(p-2)\cdot...\cdot(p-r))}_{\equiv (-1)(-2)(-3)\cdots(-r)}\pmod{p}
\end{align}$$
so every $i$ appears two times in this product so this product is equivalent to $r!(-1)^r r!$ and this gives you $r!^2$
