Prove whether $xyz =1$ implies that $yzx=1$ or $yxz=1$. Let $x,y,z$ be elements of a group $G$ and $xyz=1$. I am trying to prove whether this implies $yzx=1$ or $yxz=1$.
My proof goes as follows: Let $x^{-1}$ denote the inverse of $x$, then $xx^{-1} = 1 = x(yz)$. By the cancellation property of groups, $x^{-1}= yz$. This implies $(yz)x = x^{-1}x = 1$. Therefore $xyz = 1 \implies yzx = 1$.
By applying the same argument to $y(zx) = 1$ one can prove that $xyz = 1 \implies yxz =1$.
However while trying to my proof online I stumbled upon the following counterexample for the proposition $xyz = 1 \implies yxz =1$. If we take $G$ to be the group of $2\times 2$ matrices and let $x = \left( \begin{array} { c c } { 1 } & { 2 } \\ { 0 } & { 2 } \end{array} \right)$, $y = \left( \begin{array} { l l } { 0 } & { 1 } \\ { 2 } & { 1 } \end{array} \right)$ and $z = \left( \begin{array} { c c } { - 1 / 2 } & { 3 / 4 } \\ { 1 } & { - 1 } \end{array} \right)$. Then $x y z = \left( \begin{array} { c c } { 1 } & { 0 } \\ { 0 } & { 1 } \end{array} \right) = 1$ but $y x z = \left( \begin{array} { c c } { 2 } & { - 2 } \\ { 5 } & { - 9 / 2 } \end{array} \right) \neq 1$.
I don't understand where my proof went wrong.

For any group we have $aa^{-1}=a^{-1}a=1$.  From $xyz=1$ we know that $(xy)z=1$, from where the first claim follows.
