Is the argument I used to evaluate the convergence of the series $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{n-1}\frac{n+a}{(n+b)(n+c)}$ right? 
If $a,b,c$ be real constants, analyze the convergence of $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{n-1}\frac{n+a}{(n+b)(n+c)}$$

What I tried to:
I compared the general term of my series to $\frac{1}{n}$: $$\lim \limits_{n \to \infty} \frac{\frac{n+a}{(n+b)(n+c)}}{\frac{1}{n}}= $$ $$\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \frac{n^2 (1 + \frac{a}{n})}{n^2 \left ( 1 + \frac{b+c}{n} + \frac{bc}{n^2} \right ) } = 1 $$
So, as $\frac{n+a}{(n+b)(n+c)} \sim \frac{1}{n}$ when $n \to \infty$, the series  (conditionally) converges because the alternating harmonic series converges.

As Julian Aguirre pointed, we are not allowed to use a comparison with an alternating series. However, Dirichlet's test is enough to ensure convergence, since the partial sums of $(-1)^n$ are bounded and $\frac{(n+a)}{(n+b)(n+c)}$ is eventually decreasing to zero as $n\to +\infty$.
We may notice that:
$$\frac{(n+a)}{(n+b)(n+c)}=\frac{b-a}{b-c}\cdot\frac{1}{(n+b)}+\frac{c-a}{c-b}\cdot\frac{1}{(n+c)}$$
from which it follows that:
$$\begin{eqnarray*} \sum_{n\geq 1}(-1)^{n-1}\frac{(n+a)}{(n+b)(n+c)}&=&\int_{0}^{1}\sum_{n\geq 1}(-1)^{n-1}\left(\frac{b-a}{b-c}x^{n+b-1}+\frac{c-a}{c-b}x^{n+c-1}\right)\,dx\\&=&\frac{1}{b-c}\int_{0}^{1}\frac{(b-a)x^b+(a-c)x^c}{1+x}\,dx.\end{eqnarray*}$$
