Calculate limit with L'Hopital's rule I want to calculate the limit $\displaystyle{\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{x^2\cos \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )}{\sin x}}$.
I have done the following:
It holds that $\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{x^2\cos \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )}{\sin x}=\frac{0}{0}$.
So, we can use L'Hopital's rule:
\begin{align*}\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{x^2\cos \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )}{\sin x}&=\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{x^2\cos \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )}{\sin x} \\ &=\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{\left (x^2\cos \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )\right )'}{\left (\sin x\right )'} =\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{2x\cdot \cos \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )+x^2\cdot \left (-\sin \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )\right )\cdot \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )'}{\cos x} \\ &=\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{2x\cdot \cos \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )-x^2\cdot \sin \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )\cdot \left (-\frac{1}{x^2}\right )}{\cos x} \\ & =\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{2x\cdot \cos \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )+\sin \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )}{\cos x}=\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\left (2x\cdot \cos \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )+\sin \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )\right ) \\ & =\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\left (2x\cdot \cos \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )\right )+\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\left (\sin \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )\right )\end{align*}
We calculate the two limits separately

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*$\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\left (2x\cdot \cos \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )\right )$ :

\begin{equation*}\left |\cos \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )\right |\leq 1 \Rightarrow -1\leq \cos \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )\leq 1  \Rightarrow -2x\leq 2x\cdot \cos \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )\leq  2x\end{equation*} we consider the limit $x\rightarrow 0$ and we get \begin{equation*}\lim_{x\rightarrow 0} \left (2x\cdot \cos \left (\frac{1}{x}\right ) \right )=0\end{equation*}

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*How can we calculate the limit $\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\left (\sin \left (\frac{1}{x}\right )\right )$ ?


L'Hospital's rule is not the alpha and omega of limits computation! When it works, Taylor's formula at order $1$ also works, and it is less dangerous.
This being said, in the present case, doing some asymptotic analysis gives you a fast answer:
Near $0$, $\;\sin x \sim x$ and $ \cos \frac1x$ is  bounded, so 
$$\frac{x^2\cos \left(\frac{1}{x}\right)}{\sin x}\sim_0\frac{x^2}x\cos\frac1x=x\,O(1)=O(x),$$
and the latter tends to $0$ as $x$ tends to $0$.
