Intuition for why the difference between $\frac{2x^2-x}{x^2-x+1}$ and $\frac{x-2}{x^2-x+1}$ is a constant? Why is the difference between these two functions a constant?
$$f(x)=\frac{2x^2-x}{x^2-x+1}$$
$$g(x)=\frac{x-2}{x^2-x+1}$$
Since the denominators are equal and the numerators differ in degree I would never have thought the difference of these functions would be a constant. 
Of course I can calculate it is true: the difference is $2$, but my intuition is still completely off here. So, who can provide some intuitive explanation of what is going on here? Perhaps using a graph of some kind that shows what's special in this particular case?
Thanks!

BACKGROUND: The background of this question is that I tried to find this integral: 
$$\int\frac{x dx}{(x^2-x+1)^2}$$
As a solution I found:
$$\frac{2}{3\sqrt{3}}\arctan\left(\frac{2x-1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)+\frac{2x^2-x}{3\left(x^2-x+1\right)}+C$$
Whereas my calculusbook gave as the solution:
$$\frac{2}{3\sqrt{3}}\arctan\left(\frac{2x-1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)+\frac{x-2}{3\left(x^2-x+1\right)}+C$$
I thought I made a mistake but as it turned out, their difference was constant, so both are valid solutions.

Another way of stating what everyone has said:
$2x^2 - x= 2(x^2-x+1) + x - 2$
$\Rightarrow 2x^2-x = x-2 \mod x^2-x+1$
