$\lim _{(x,y) \to (0,0)}$ $\frac{(x^3-y^2)^2}{x^4+y^4}$- two methods different conclusion. I tried to use couple of inequalities in this way:
$0\leq\left|\frac{(x^3-y^2)^2}{x^4+y^4}\right| \leq \frac{(x^3)^2}{x^4}=x^2$, so now I can use the squeeze theorem and  conclude that this limit is 0, but when I choose a route such as $y=Kx$ I get that the limit is $\frac {K^4}{1+K^4}$, which depends on K, so apparently there's no limit when $(x,y) \to (0,0)$. 
Where's my mistake?
Thanks a lot.

This can be done simply:
Take a path with $x=0$ and $y\rightarrow0$; then ${(x^3-y^2)^2\over x^4+y^4}={y^4\over y^4}=1$.
Take a path with $y=0$ and $x\rightarrow0$; then ${(x^3-y^2)^2\over x^4+y^4}={x^6\over x^4}=x^2\rightarrow0$.
So  $ \lim\limits_{(x,y)\rightarrow(0,0)} { (x^3-y^2)^2 \over x^4+y^4}$ does not exist.



As mentioned in the comments, your initial inequality is incorrect.
Your second argument is  correct. For $y=Kx$, you  have:
$$
{(x^3-y^2)^2\over x^4+y^4} ={(x^3-K^2x^2)^2\over x^4+K^4 x^4}
={(x-K^2)^2\over 1+K^4}\quad\buildrel{x\rightarrow0}\over{\longrightarrow}\quad{K^4\over 1+K^4} .
$$
From this, you can see that the limit does not exist (take, e.g., $K=0$ and $K=1$).
