Prove that the quantity is an integer I want to prove that $\frac{n^3}{3}-\frac{n^2}{2}+\frac{n}{6} \in \mathbb{Z}, \forall n \geq 1$.
I have thought to use induction.
Base Case: For $n=1$, $\frac{n^3}{3}-\frac{n^2}{2}+\frac{n}{6}=\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6}=0 \in \mathbb{Z}$.
Induction hypothesis: We suppose that it holds for $n=k$, i.e. that $\frac{k^3}{3}-\frac{k^2}{2}+\frac{k}{6} \in \mathbb{Z}$.
Induction step: We want to show that it holds for $n=k+1$.
$$\frac{(k+1)^3}{3}-\frac{(k+1)^2}{2}+\frac{k+1}{6}=\frac{k^3}{3}+\frac{k^2}{2}+\frac{k}{6}$$
Is everything right? If so, then we cannot use at the induction step the induction hypothesis, can we?
Or can we not get the desired result using induction?

If you put everything over a common denominator you get $$f(n)=\frac {2n^3-3n^2+n}6=\frac {n(n-1)(2n-1)}6$$
Now it is easier, I think, to see what is going on for a straightforward induction, or you can write $2n-1=2n-4+3$ and split up into different fractions viz $$f(n)=\frac {n(n-1)(2n-4+3)}6=\frac {n(n-1)(n-2)}3+\frac {n(n-1)}2$$ and this is easily the sum of two integers since the product of $r$ successive integers is divisible by $r$ (easily proved by induction), or you can do the induction on $n$ based on this form of $f(n)$, which will should work easily.
