how to solve $\int _0^1\frac{\ln \left(1+x\right)}{a^2+x^2}\:\mathrm{d}x$ 
how to solve $$\mathcal{J(a)}=\int _0^1\frac{\ln \left(1+x\right)}{a^2+x^2}\:\mathrm{d}x$$

i used the differentiation under the integral and got
\begin{align}
\mathcal{J(b)}&=\int _0^1\frac{\ln \left(1+bx\right)}{a^2+x^2}\:\mathrm{d}x
\\[3mm]
\mathcal{J'(b)}&=\int _0^1\frac{x}{\left(a^2+x^2\right)\left(1+bx\right)}\:\mathrm{d}x
\\[3mm]
&=\frac{a^2b}{1+a^2b^2}\int _0^1\frac{1}{a^2+x^2}\:\mathrm{d}x+\frac{1}{1+a^2b^2}\int _0^1\frac{x}{a^2+x^2}\:\mathrm{d}x-\frac{b}{1+a^2b^2}\int _0^1\frac{1}{1+bx}\:\mathrm{d}x
\\[3mm]
&=\frac{ab}{1+a^2b^2}\operatorname{atan} \left(\frac{1}{a}\right)+\frac{1}{2}\frac{\ln \left(1+a^2\right)}{1+a^2b^2}-\frac{\ln \left(a\right)}{1+a^2b^2}-\frac{\ln \left(1+b\right)}{1+a^2b^2}
\end{align}
But we know that $\mathcal{J}(1)=\mathcal{J(a)}$ and $\mathcal{J}(0)=0$
\begin{align}
\int_0^1\mathcal{J'(b)}\:\mathrm{d}b&=a\:\operatorname{atan} \left(\frac{1}{a}\right)\int _0^1\frac{b}{1+a^2b^2}\:\mathrm{d}b+\frac{\ln \left(1+a^2\right)}{2}\int _0^1\frac{1}{1+a^2b^2}\:\mathrm{d}b-\ln \left(a\right)\int _0^1\frac{1}{1+a^2b^2}\:\mathrm{d}b
\\
&-\int _0^1\frac{\ln \left(1+b\right)}{1+a^2b^2}\:\mathrm{d}b
\\[3mm]
\mathcal{J(a)}&=\frac{1}{2a}\operatorname{atan} \left(\frac{1}{a}\right)\ln \left(1+a^2\right)+\frac{1}{2a}\ln \left(1+a^2\right)\operatorname{atan} \left(a\right)-\frac{1}{a}\ln \left(a\right)\:\operatorname{atan} \left(a\right)-\underbrace{\int _0^1\frac{\ln \left(1+b\right)}{1+a^2b^2}\:\mathrm{d}b}_{\mathcal{I}}
\end{align}
but how to calculate ${\mathcal{I}}$, i tried using the same technique but it didnt work

The integral $I$ has been evaluated here by Felix Marin.
Using it yields the closed form of the integral
\begin{align}
J\left(a\right)&=\int_0^1\frac{\ln\left(1+x\right)}{a^2+x^2}\:dx=\frac{1}{2a}\operatorname{arctan} \left(\frac{1}{a}\right)\ln \left(1+a^2\right)+\frac{1}{2a}\ln \left(1+a^2\right)\operatorname{arctan} \left(a\right)
\\
&-\frac{1}{a}\ln \left(a\right)\:\operatorname{arctan} \left(a\right)-2\ln \left(2\right)\frac{\operatorname{arctan} \left(a\right)}{a}-\frac{1}{a}\mathfrak{I}\left(\operatorname{Li}_2\left(\frac{2a}{i+a}\right)-\operatorname{Li}_2\left(\frac{a}{i+a}\right)\right)
\end{align}
Complex analysis seems like the only way to go with this integral because software also gives closed forms featuring the imaginary unit with polylogs, i also checked if this worked for particular values and it does, though i'd still like to see if anyone can come up with an approach without any complex methods.
