2010 USAMO #5:Prove that if $\frac{1}{p}-2S_q = \frac{m}{n}$ for integers $m$ and $n$, then $m - n$ is divisible by $p$. Let $q = \frac{3p-5}{2}$ where $p$ is an odd prime, and let $S_q = \frac{1}{2\cdot 3 \cdot 4} + \frac{1}{5\cdot 6 \cdot 7} + \cdots + \frac{1}{q(q+1)(q+2)}
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Prove that if $\frac{1}{p}-2S_q = \frac{m}{n}$ for coprime integers $m$ and $n$, then $m - n$ is divisible by $p$.
My Progress till now: $$2S_q = 2\sum_{x=1}^{\frac{q+1}{3}} \frac{1}{(3x-1)(3x)(3x+1)} = \sum_{x=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2}} \left[\frac{1}{3x(3x-1)}-\frac{1}{3x(3x+1)}\right]\\
=\sum_{x=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2}} \left[ \frac{1}{3x-1} - \frac{2}{3x} +\frac{1}{3x+1}\right]\\
=\sum_{x=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2}}\left[ \frac{1}{3x-1} + \frac{1}{3x} +\frac{1}{3x+1}\right] - \sum_{x=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2}} \frac{1}{x} $$
With the help of @user10354138 , I have got $\frac{1}{p} - 2S_q = \frac{1}{p} + \frac{1}{1} - \sum_{k=\frac{p+1}{2}}^{\frac{3p-1}{2}}\frac{1}{k} = \frac{m}{n}$
But then I am stuck.
Please give me some hints rather than a solution.
Thanks in advance.
PS: I didn't post it in AOPS, because there we don't get any guidance.

With the help of @user10354138 's hints, I think I got the solution.I will be grateful if someone proof reads it.
Note that $$2S_q = 2\sum_{x=1}^{\frac{q+1}{3}} \frac{1}{(3x-1)(3x)(3x+1)} = \sum_{x=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2}} \left[\frac{1}{3x(3x-1)}-\frac{1}{3x(3x+1)}\right]\\
=\sum_{x=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2}} \left[ \frac{1}{3x-1} - \frac{2}{3x} +\frac{1}{3x+1}\right]\\
=\sum_{x=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2}}\left[ \frac{1}{3x-1} + \frac{1}{3x} +\frac{1}{3x+1}\right] - \sum_{x=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2}} \frac{1}{x}$$ .
Proceeding further we get that,$$\frac{1}{p} - 2S_q = \frac{1}{p} + \frac{1}{1} - \sum_{k=\frac{p+1}{2}}^{\frac{3p-1}{2}}\frac{1}{k} = \frac{m}{n}$$
or we get that $$- 2S_q = \frac{1}{1} - \sum_{k=\frac{p+1}{2}}^{\frac{3p-1}{2}}\frac{1}{k} = \frac{m}{n}-\frac{1}{p}$$
Now, note that $$\sum_{k=\frac{p+1}{2}}^{\frac{3p-1}{2}}\frac{1}{k}\equiv \sum_{k=1}^{p-1}\frac1k \equiv \sum_{k=1}^{p-1}k \equiv 0$$ mod $p$
So we get that $$\frac{m}{n}\equiv 1$$ mod $p$ .
Hence we have $$1-\frac{m}{n}\equiv 0$$ mod p $$\implies m-n \equiv 0 $$ mod  $p$.
And we are done!
