A sum expressed by a Kampe de Feriet function. Let $a_1$,$a_2$, $a_3$ and $b_1$,$b_2$, $b_3$ be real numbers subject to $1+b_1+b_2 - b_3 > 0 $. By generalizing the result from  A sum involving a ratio of two binomial factors. we have shown that the following identity holds:
\begin{eqnarray}
&&S:= \sum\limits_{i=0}^{m-1} \frac{\binom{i+a_1}{b_1} \binom{i+a_2}{b_2}}{\binom{i+a_3}{b_3}} =\\
&& \left. \frac{\binom{m+a_1}{1+b_1} \binom{m+a_2}{b_2}}{\binom{m+a_3}{b_3}} 
\sum\limits_{(q_2,q_3) \in {\mathbb N}_+^2} 
\binom{q_2+q_3}{q_3} \frac{b_3^{(q_3)} (-b_2)^{(q_2)}}{(2+b_1)^{(q_2+q_3)}} \frac{(1+a_1+m)^{(q_2+q_3)} (1+a_2+m)^{(q_3)}}{(1+a_2-b_2+m)^{(q_2+q_3)}(1+a_3+m)^{(q_3)}} \right|_0^m =\\
&& \left. \frac{\binom{m+a_1}{1+b_1} \binom{m+a_2}{b_2}}{\binom{m+a_3}{b_3}}
\sum\limits_{q=0}^\infty \frac{(1+a_1+m)^{(q)}(1+a_2+m)^{(q)}b_3^{(q)}}{(1+a_3+m)^{(q)}(1+a_2-b_2+m)^{(q)}(2+b_1)^{(q)}}\\
F_{3,2}\left[
\begin{array}{rrr} -b_2 & -q & -a_3-m-q\\ 1-b_3-q & -a_2-m-q\end{array};1
\right]
\right|_0^m \\
\end{eqnarray}
The right hand side of the above equation can be formally expressed as a Kampe de Feriet function. It converges whenever  $1+b_1+b_2 - b_3 > 0 $. Now, the question is how does the right hand side behave when $m\rightarrow \infty$?

We will compute the sum in question in a slightly different way and only then analyze the large-$m$ behavior of the result. The idea is to take the second binomial factor in the numerator and rewrite it as a linear combination of factors that can be absorbed into the first binomial factor.  We start with the following identity:
\begin{equation}
\tag{1} \binom{i+a_2}{b_2} = \frac{\sin(\pi (a_2+b_2))}{\sin(\pi a_2)} \cdot 
\sum\limits_{l=0}^\infty \binom{i+a_1+l}{l} \binom{a_1-a_2+b_2}{b_2-l} (-1)^l
\end{equation}
The identity is a simple consequence of the Chu-Vandermonde identity and the identity $\binom{n}{k} = (-1)^k \binom{k-n-1}{k}$. If we multiply the said identity by $\binom{i+a_1}{b_1}$ we can absorb the terms involving $i$ into the binomial factor and we get:
\begin{equation}
\tag{2} \binom{i+a_1}{b_1} \binom{i+a_2}{b_2} =
\frac{\sin(\pi (a_2+b_2))}{\sin(\pi a_2)} \cdot 
\sum\limits_{l=0}^\infty \binom{b_1+l}{l}  \binom{a_1-a_2+b_2}{b_2-l} (-1)^l \binom{i+a_1+l}{b_1+l}
\end{equation}
Now we divide both sides of the above equation by $\binom{i+a_3}{b_3}$ and we sum over $i$ using A sum involving a ratio of two binomial factors. . We get:
\begin{eqnarray}
\tag{3}
&&S = \frac{\sin(\pi (a_2+b_2))}{\sin(\pi a_2)} \cdot
\sum\limits_{l=0}^\infty \binom{b_1+l}{l}  \binom{a_1-a_2+b_2}{b_2-l} (-1)^l \cdot \\
&&\left\{\left.
\frac{\binom{a_1+l+m}{b_1+l+1}}{\binom{a_3+m}{b_3}} 
F_{3,2}\left[
\begin{array}{rrr} 1 & b_3 & 1+a_1+l+m \\ 2+b_1+l & 1+a_3+m\end{array};1
\right]
\right|_0^m
\right\}
\end{eqnarray}
So far all the results above are exact. Now we will take the limit $m \rightarrow \infty$ and try to see if we get the same limit as in the first answer to this question. We have:
\begin{equation}
\tag{4}
F_{3,2}\left[\cdots ;1\right] \underset{m\rightarrow \infty}{=} F_{2,1} \left[\begin{array}{rr} 1 & b_3  \\ 2+b_2+l\end{array};1\right]+ O(\frac{1}{m}) =
\frac{1+b_1+l}{1+b_1-b_3+l} + O(\frac{1}{m})
\end{equation}
Now, inserting $(4)$ into $(3)$, absorbing the $1+b_1+l$ factor into the first binomial coefficient under the sum and then using identity $(2)$ along with the mean value theorem  we easily get :
\begin{equation}
S \underset{m\rightarrow \infty}{=} \frac{\binom{m+a_1}{1+b_1} \binom{m+a_2}{b_2}}{\binom{m+a_3}{b_3}} \cdot \frac{1+b_1}{1+b_1+\theta b_2 - b_3}
\end{equation} 
where $ \theta \in (0,1)$.  So as we can see two different approaches lead to the same result.
