Knowing that for any set of real numbers $x,y,z$, such that $x+y+z = 1$ the inequality $x^2+y^2+z^2 \ge \frac{1}{3}$ holds. 
Knowing that for any set of real numbers $x,y,z$, such that $x+y+z = 1$ the inequality $x^2+y^2+z^2 \ge \frac{1}{3}$ holds.

I spent a lot of time trying to solve this and, having consulted some books, I came to this: 
$$2x^2+2y^2+2z^2 \ge 2xy + 2xz + 2yz$$ $$2xy+2yz+2xz = 1-(x^2+y^2+z^2) $$ $$2x^2+2y^2+2z^2 \ge 1 - x^2 -y^2 - z^2 $$ $$x^2+y^2+z^2 \ge \frac{1}{3}$$
But this method is very unintuitive to me and I don't think this is the best way to solve this. Any remarks and hints will be most appreciated.

This is not a proof in itself, but if you've studied statistics, then you've seen a proof that
$$0\le V(X)=E(X^2)-E(X)^2$$
If we now consider a random variable $X$ with three equally likely values, $X=x,y$, and $z$, then we have
$$E(X)={x+y+z\over3}\qquad\text{and}\qquad E(X^2)={x^2+y^2+z^2\over3}$$
If, in addition, we assume $x+y+z=1$, then we have $E(X)={1\over3}$, which implies $E(X^2)\ge\left(1\over3\right)^2={1\over9}$, or $x^2+y^2+z^2\ge{1\over3}$.  
