Finding $ \lim_{x \to 0^+} (\frac{\arctan (x)}{x})^{\frac{1}{x^2}} $ without power series. I have to find: $\lim_{x \to 0^+} (\frac{\arctan (x)}{x})^{\frac{1}{x^2}}$
"Minimized" the problem to finding: $ \lim_{x \to 0^+} \frac {\ln(\frac{\arctan x}{x})} {x^2}
$
L'Hôpital's rule once is not enough, second L'Hôpital's rule seems worse. any help?
Edit: I cannot use power series expansion. that is provided on the next semester.

\begin{align*}
\lim_{x \to 0^+} (\frac{\arctan (x)}{x})^{\frac{1}{x^2}}&=\lim_{x \to 0^+} (\frac{x - \frac{x^3}{3} + \frac{x^5}{5} - \frac{x^7}{7} +... }{x})^{\frac{1}{x^2}}\\
&=\lim_{x \to 0^+}(1-\frac {x^2}3+ \frac{x^4}{5} - \frac{x^6}{7} +...)^{1/x^2}\\
&=e^{-1/3}
\end{align*}
