Prove that $ \frac{1}{2!} + \frac{2}{3!} + \frac{3}{4!}+\cdots + \frac{n}{(n+1)!} = 1 - \frac{1}{(n+1)!}$ for $n\in \mathbb N$ I want to prove that if $n \in \mathbb N$ then $$\frac{1}{2!} + \frac{2}{3!} + \frac{3}{4!}+ \cdots+ \frac{n}{(n+1)!} = 1 - \frac{1}{(n+1)!}.$$ 
I think I am stuck on two fronts. First, I don't know how to express the leading terms on the left hand side before the $\dfrac{n}{(n+1)!}$ (or if doing so is even necessary to solve the problem). I am also assuming that the right high side should initially be expressed $1 - \dfrac{1}{(n+2)!}$. But where to go from there. 
I'm actually not sure if I'm even thinking about it the right way. 

We'll use induction to prove this 
given statement is true for $n=1$
then we assume that it's true for $n=k$
$$\frac{1}{2!} + \frac{2}{3!} + \frac{3}{4!}+ \cdots+ \frac{k}{(k+1)!} = 1 - \frac{1}{(k+1)!}$$
and then  by adding $\dfrac{k+1}{(k+2)!}$ on both sides we get 
$$\begin{align}
\frac{1}{2!} + \frac{2}{3!} + \frac{3}{4!}+ \cdots+ \frac{k}{(k+1)!} +\frac{k+1}{(k+2)!}&= 1 - \frac{1}{(k+1)!}+\frac{k+1}{(k+2)!}\\
&=1 - \frac{k+2}{(k+2)!}+\frac{k+1}{(k+2)!}\\
&=1 +\frac{k+1-k-2}{(k+2)!}\\
&=1-\frac{1}{(k+2)!}\end{align}$$
it's also true for $n=k+1$
And then using Proncipal of mathematical induction...
