Why there is no temperature scale tied to normal human body temperature?

Fahrenheit:



> 
> The lower defining point, 0 °F, was established as the temperature of
>  a solution of brine made from equal parts of ice and salt.
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> 
> 


Celsius:



> 
> 0 °C was defined as the freezing point of water and 100 °C was
>  defined as the boiling point of water
> 
> 
> 


Why hasn't anyone used human body normal temperature as 0? It would be much more logical for humans to base temperature scale on our body, not something that is outside.





> 
> Why nobody used human body normal temperature as 0?
> 
> 
> 


That has been done.


See [Medical Thermometry and Human Temperature](https://books.google.com/books?id=QkgQlJ35TQUC&pg=PA12&dq=human%20body%20temperature%20as%20a%20basis%20for%20temperature%20scale&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjDrO7j0IHTAhWI6CYKHS1ZCNYQ6AEIGjAA#v=onepage&q=human%20body%20temperature%20as%20a%20basis%20for%20temperature%20scale&f=false) at page 12:



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> 37° Centigrade scale
> 
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> 29.6° Reaumur
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> 98.6° Fahrenheit
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> 77° Walferdin's tetracentigrade
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> 0° of the physiological scale
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> 
> 


Then the physiological scale is further discussed starting on page 265, which includes a drawing of a physiological scale thermometer.



> 
> physiological 0 is placed in the centre of the drama, whose acts are health, sickness, and death
> 
> 
> 


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