If he breaks the fast by eating during the day in Ramadaan so that he can have intercourse with his wife then he has to offer the expiation
Question

                A man wanted to have intercourse with his wife during the day in Ramadaan, so he broke the fast by eating before having intercourse, then he had intercourse. Does he have to offer any expiation or not?.
Praise be to Allah.
    The scholars are unanimously agreed that 
    whoever breaks the fast during the day in Ramadaan by having intercourse 
    must offer expiation. 

    But they differed concerning one who breaks 
    the fast in a manner other than having intercourse, such as eating and 
    drinking. Imam Abu Haneefah and Imam Maalik (may Allaah have mercy on them 
    both) were of the view that he also has to offer the expiation. Imam 
    al-Shaafa’i and Imam Ahmad were of the view that he does not have to offer 
    the expiation. 

    But this applies to one who breaks the fast 
    in a manner other than having intercourse, then he does not have intercourse 
    that day. As for the one who breaks the fast in a manner other than having 
    intercourse and then has intercourse on the same day, the majority of 
    scholars (including Abu Haneefah, Maalik and Ahmad, may Allaah have mercy on 
    them) are of the view that he must offer expiation. This is the only view 
    according to which fatwas should be given. The fact that it is valid is 
    indicated by a number of things: 

    1 – The one who breaks the fast in Ramadaan 
    with no excuse, whether he breaks it by eating, drinking or otherwise, is 
    obliged to refrain from eating and drinking etc for the rest of the day. If 
    he has intercourse then he has done so on a day when it was obligatory for 
    him to refrain, so he has to offer expiation, just as if a pilgrim in ihraam 
    for Hajj spoils his ihraam, he must still go ahead with his Hajj, and 
    refrain from the things that are forbidden whilst in ihraam, and if he does 
    any of them, then he is subject to the same rulings and penalties as if his 
    ihraam was still valid. 

    2 – He has sinned by breaking his fast first 
    of all, then he sinned again by having intercourse, so he has sinned twice, 
    so expiation is more essential in his case. 

    3 – If expiation was not required in such a 
    case, that would lead to expiation not being required of anyone, because 
    anyone who wanted to have intercourse during the day would be able to eat 
    first and then have intercourse; rather eating would give him strength to 
    achieve his aims. 

    How can expiation be required if he has 
    intercourse before eating, but if he and his wife eat first and then have 
    intercourse, no expiation is required?! This is a reprehensible notion and 
    sharee’ah does not prescribe any such thing. It is established on the basis 
    of reason and in all religions, the worse the sin the greater the 
    punishment. 

    And Allaah knows best.