  Bell's theorem is a conflict of mathematical predictions formulated within an
infinite hierarchy of mathematical models. Inequalities formulated at level
$k\in\mathbb{Z}$, are violated by probabilities at level $k+1$. We are inclined
to think that $k=0$ corresponds to the the classical world, while the quantum
one is $k=1$. However, as the $k=0$ inequalities are violated by $k=1$
probabilities, the same relation holds between $k=1$ inequalities violated by
$k=2$ probabilities, $k=-1$ inequalities, violated by $k=0$ probabilities, and
so forth. Accepting the logic of the Bell theorem, can we prove by induction
that nothing exists?

General Physics;Quantum Physics