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I hate how this is going to sound...how do you justify collecting from the slave owner? They bought a product that was legal at the time no matter how disgusting it is. You buy something from the store that makes you sick, you don't sue the store. You sue the manufacturer. So who manufactures slaves? The original seller. It's quite complex and there will be some where that's not the case but I'm right in this. You can't penalize someone who bought something legally. And you're right, practically all. But that's not all. All is everyone. There will be people who are white whose ancestors were slaves.
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What is your goal of your proposed need based financial assistance? Is it to eliminate wealth disparities between races? Or something else? >

I'm thinking like a utilitarian; the goal would be to minimize the suffering of less-well-off people, whether or not they are poor due to past injustices or just due to more run-of-the-mill reasons for being poor.
I don't think I could say that the goal is to eliminate wealth disparities between races.  If you simply take money from the wealthier race and give it to the less wealthy race, then if you end up at the point where you have the same amount of happiness and the same amount of suffering in the world as you did before, except now it's evenly distributed between the races, have you really achieved anything?
I think that wealth equality between races is a symptom of a fair society and therefore one that has probably done a good job maximizing benefits to its people in a utilitarian sense; if we reach Black-white wealth equality, it probably means we've had several generations where everybody who wanted to become a doctor had a decent shot at it.  But that's a symptom of a benefit-maximizing society, not a cause, i.e. you can't solve other problems just by moving money from white people to Black people, instead of targeting the people who need it the most.
I do agree that this was insufficiently clarified in the original post and this has caused me to revise and clarify my own thoughts.
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Flat out universal assistance makes more sense than either need based or race based assistance. 
For example: your medical bill? Covered! Don't need to pass paperwork back and forth, wonder if you got it, think maybe you committed fraud ... none of that. 
For example universal basic income? Well, are you a citizen? Yes? Then got it! 
By making things universal instead of need based you eliminate entire buildings of administration and save friction costs. You unclog minds of the people and give them back their attention because expectations are clear. 
In practice the poor will get aid and the rich will get a tax refund. Poor people like aid. Rich people like tax refunds. It works out for everyone. >

I would agree but that still counts as wealth-based transfer (the wealthiest pay the tax bill, the benefits go to everyone else). >

I had to repost this comment because of some rule.... Here's two problems I see with reparations. One is the person or people who put the other into slavery. When it comes to the african slave trade, more people were put into slavery by other african tribes, esp. in West Africa, than by any other parties. That tribe portrayed in the movie Woman King, the Dahomey tribe, were prolific slavers. So if one seeks reparations it will have to be from the original offending party. That sounds impossible today. The second problem I see is many non black folks have ancestors who were slaves. Will they be denied reparations on the basis they're not black? That's a whole  bunch of legal stuff just begging to be brought to the light of day. I do have a question, who would the wealth be transferred from? >

Nowhere is it mandated that reparations of any kind be collected from the original offending party. Practically All descendants of American slaves are black by certain definitions (specifically by lineage) because Africans made up the vast vast vast majority of slaves in the new world