Long-Term Coffee Consumption and Risk of Cardiovascular Disease (2013)
"Conclusions: [...] Moderate coffee consumption was inversely significantly associated with CVD risk, with the lowest CVD risk at 3 to 5 cups/d, and heavy coffee consumption was not associated with elevated CVD risk."I am confused here (with the word "inversely"). Do I understand correctly that: a) moderate consumption of coffee leads to a reduction in the risk of CVD compared to when a person does not drink coffee at all, and b) strong consumption does not affect CVD risk comparing to the moderate coffee consumption?