Disney's writer wage theft, a year on
Even if I try to understand Disney's argument in the most favorable light possible, I cannot follow it.  Thinking through different situations, I can't come up with any that make sense to me.* If I consider "We acquire assets not liabilities" in a bankruptcy court, that could make sense to me, because that is the context in which assets are pooled together to cover the highest priority liabilities while voiding all other liabilities.  This clearly isn't the case because the Star Wars assets were not acquired through a bankruptcy court.* If I consider it as a purchase of assets from another company, then the liabilities stay with the original company.  This clearly isn't the case because Lucasfilm no longer exists as an independent company.* If I consider it as a purchase of assets, followed by the original company declaring bankruptcy, that could result in assets being purchased with liabilities no longer existing.  This clearly isn't the case, because Lucasfilm was acquired and merged with Disney, and never itself declared bankruptcy.I can't come up with any explanation in which Disney's defense makes any bit of sense whatsoever.