Lisp is not based on the Lambda Calculus
The post quotes McCarthy:"one of the myths concerning LISP that people think up or invent for themselves becomes apparent, and that is that LISP is somehow a realization of the lambda calculus, or that was the intention. The truth is that I didn't understand the lambda calculus, really" - John McCarthySo there are a two issues here, 1) whether or not it was McCarthy's intention to realize the Lambda Calculus in LISP, and 2) whether or not LISP is such a realization. Or at least some kind of close realization.The answer to 1 is clearly no. This doesn't imply an answer to 2 one way or another.If 2 isn't true, what explains the widespread belief? Is it really just that he, McCarthy, borrowed some notation?