Have I?  Perhaps you'll stop 'giggling' long enough to provide the correct interpretation since you claim I've 'misinterpreted?  And it's not that interpretation is 'fluid', but rather that the ancient Semitic languages are concise and based on words with multilevel meanings which depend on the specific context in which they're used to derive precise meanings--far more than wordier, more explicitly descriptive languages such as English.  But of course you're stuck with English, because if you knew those older languages you'd know better than to make the specious arguments you post herein.