Is the following quotation an accurate explanation of Roman Catholic dogma regarding Mary?

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> The reason that Mary is “full of grace,” the Church has said, is because of Ephesians 1:3-6 (Redemptoris Mater, no. 7-11). Here is how John Henry Newman puts it:
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> > "Does not the objector consider that Eve was created, or born, without original sin? Why does not this shock him? Would he have been inclined to worship Eve in that first estate of hers? Why, then, Mary?
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> > "Does he [the objector] not believe that St. John Baptist had the grace of God—i.e., was regenerated, even before his birth? What do we believe of Mary, but that grace was given her at a still earlier period? All we say is, that grace was given her from the first moment of her existence.
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> > “We do not say that she did not owe her salvation to the death of her son.”"
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(Source: [Catholic Integral Complementarity, by Aimee Byrd](http://www.mortificationofspin.org/mos/housewife-theologian/catholic-integral-complementarity))