Q:

Why do doors turn?

I really think that I might be overthinking it but I was thinking about a door. When you try and open it with a force, it will produce a translational AND a rotational effect on the door. Any good door you have probably doesn't translate so that means the hinges must be applying a force to oppose this translational motion (Newton's 3rd Law). 
But if the hinges are applying a force, and not at the center, shouldn't it produce a torque too? Shockingly, as the force must be equal, that means the rotational torque must be equal too right? 
So how can doors turn if they have equal but opposite torques applied to them? Is this similar to how objects can fall despite having no net force (air resistance balancing out gravity)

A:

Torque depends on the force and the distance between the hinge and the point where the force is applied.
When you pull on the door at the handle, you apply a force and there is a nonzero distance between handle and hinges, so you get torque and as a consequence rotation around the hinges.
The hinges apply their force at the rotational center, so they can't produce any torque.
There are no "equal but opposite torques" because there is only one.
Torques change rotations just as forces change translations. Ongoing rotations or translations don't require acting torques or forces.

