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Bill C-73
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2nd Session, 41st Parliament,
62-63-64 Elizabeth II, 2013-2014-2015
house of commons of canada
An Act to amend the Criminal Code (offences in relation to conveyances) and the Criminal Records Act and to make consequential amendments to other Acts
Whereas dangerous driving and impaired driving injure or kill thousands of people in Canada every year;
Whereas dangerous driving and impaired driving are unacceptable at all times and in all circumstances;
Whereas it is important that the severity of sentences reflect the risk to the public that is posed by dangerous driving and impaired driving;
Whereas it is important to simplify the law relating to the proof of blood alcohol concentration;
Whereas it is important to protect the public from the dangers posed by consuming large quantities of alcohol immediately before driving;
Whereas it is important to deter persons from consuming alcohol after driving in circumstances where they have a reasonable expectation that they would be required to provide a sample of breath or blood;
Whereas it is important to harmonize the prohibitions and the penalties for offences relating to the operation of conveyances;
Whereas it is important that federal and provincial laws work together to promote the safe operation of motor vehicles;
And whereas the Parliament of Canada is committed to deterring the commission of offences relating to the operation of conveyances, particularly dangerous driving and impaired driving;
Now, therefore, Her Majesty, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate and House of Commons of Canada, enacts as follows:
1. This Act may be cited as the Dangerous and Impaired Driving Act.
R.S., c. C-46
CRIMINAL CODE
Amendments to the Act
2. The definition "street racing" in section 2 of the Criminal Code is repealed.
R.S., c. 27 (1st Supp.), s. 33; R.S., c. 32 (4th Supp.), s. 56
3. The definitions "aircraft", "operate" and "vessel" in section 214 of the Act are repealed.
R.S., c. 27 (1st Supp.), s. 36; R.S., c. 1 (4th Supp.), s. 18 (Sch. I, items 7(F) and 10)(F); R.S., c. 32 (4th Supp.), ss. 57 to 59 and 61; 1992, c. 1, s. 60, Sch. I, s. 24(F); 1994, c. 44, ss. 11 and 14(E); 1995, c. 22, s. 18 (Sch. IV, item 26); 1997, c. 18, s. 11(2); 1999, c. 32, ss. 1, 4 and 5(2); 2000, c. 2, s. 1; 2000, c. 25, s. 3; 2006, c. 14, ss. 2, 3(2), (3) and 4; 2008, c. 6, ss. 18 to 23, 24(1), (2), (3)(F), 4(E) and (5) to (9) and 25 to 27; 2008, c. 18, ss. 7, 8 and 45.2(2)
4. The heading before section 249 and sections 249 to 261 of the Act are repealed.
5. The Act is amended by adding the following after section 320.1:
PART VIII.1
OFFENCES IN RELATION TO CONVEYANCES
320.11 The following definitions apply in this Part.
"Alcohol Test Committee"
« Comité des analyses d'alcool »
"Alcohol Test Committee" means the Alcohol Test Committee of the Canadian Society of Forensic Science, or any successor to that committee.
« analyste »
"analyst" means a person who is, or a person within a class of persons that is, designated by the Attorney General under subparagraph 320.41(b)(ii).
"approved container"
« contenant approuvé »
"approved container" means a container that is designed to receive a sample of a person's blood for analysis and that is approved by the Attorney General of Canada under paragraph 320.4(c).
"approved instrument"
« éthylomètre approuvé »
"approved instrument" means an instrument that is designed to receive and make an analysis of a sample of a person's breath to determine their blood alcohol concentration and that is approved by the Attorney General of Canada under paragraph 320.4(b).
"approved screening device"
« appareil de détection approuvé »
"approved screening device" means a device that is designed to ascertain the presence of alcohol in a person's blood and that is approved by the Attorney General of Canada under paragraph 320.4(a).
« moyen de transport »
"conveyance" means a motor vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment.
"evaluating officer"
« agent évaluateur »
"evaluating officer" means a peace officer who has the qualifications prescribed by regulation that are required in order to be an evaluating officer.
« conduire »
"operate" means
(a) in respect of a motor vehicle, to drive it or to have care or control of it;
(b) in respect of a vessel or aircraft, to navigate it, to assist in its navigation or to have care or control of it; and
(c) in respect of railway equipment, to participate in the direct control of its motion, or to have care or control of it as a member of the equipment's crew, as a person who acts in lieu of a member of the equipment's crew by remote control, or otherwise.
"qualified medical practitioner"
« médecin qualifié »
"qualified medical practitioner" means a person who is qualified under provincial law to practise medicine.
« technicien qualifié »
"qualified technician" means,
(a) in respect of breath samples, a person who is designated by the Attorney General under paragraph 320.41(a); and
(b) in respect of blood samples, a person who is, or a person within a class of persons that is, designated by the Attorney General under subparagraph 320.41(b)(i).
« bateau »
"vessel" includes a hovercraft.
Recognition and Declaration
320.12 It is recognized and declared that
(a) operating a conveyance is a privilege that is subject to certain limits in the interests of public safety that include licensing, the observance of rules and sobriety;
(b) the protection of society is well served by deterring persons from operating conveyances dangerously or while their ability to operate them is impaired by alcohol or a drug, because that conduct poses a threat to the life, health and safety of Canadians;
(c) the analysis of a sample of a person's breath by means of an approved instrument produces reliable and accurate readings of blood alcohol concentration; and
(d) evaluating officers are qualified to evaluate whether a person's ability to operate a conveyance is impaired by a drug or by a combination of alcohol and a drug.
Offences and Punishment
Dangerous operation
320.13 (1) Everyone commits an offence who operates a conveyance in a manner that, having regard to all of the circumstances, is dangerous to the public.
Operation causing bodily harm
(2) Everyone commits an offence who operates a conveyance in a manner that, having regard to all of the circumstances, is dangerous to the public and, as a result, causes bodily harm to another person.
Operation causing death
(3) Everyone commits an offence who operates a conveyance in a manner that, having regard to all of the circumstances, is dangerous to the public and, as a result, causes the death of another person.
Operation while impaired
320.14 (1) Everyone commits an offence who
(a) operates a conveyance while the person's ability to operate it is impaired to any degree by alcohol or a drug or by a combination of alcohol and a drug; or
(b) subject to subsection (4), has, within two hours after ceasing to operate a conveyance, a blood alcohol concentration that is equal to or exceeds 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood.
(2) Everyone commits an offence who commits an offence under subsection (1) and who, while operating the conveyance, causes bodily harm to another person.
(3) Everyone commits an offence who commits an offence under subsection (1) and who, while operating the conveyance, causes the death of another person.
Exception — alcohol
(4) No person commits an offence under paragraph (1)(b) if
(a) they consumed alcohol after having ceased to operate the conveyance;
(b) after having ceased to operate the conveyance, they had no reasonable expectation that they would be required to provide a sample of breath or blood; and
(c) their alcohol consumption is consistent with their blood alcohol concentration as determined in accordance with subsection 320.32(1) or (3) and with their having had, at the time when they were operating the conveyance, a blood alcohol concentration that was less than 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood.
Failure or refusal to comply with demand
320.15 (1) Everyone commits an offence who, without reasonable excuse, fails or refuses to comply with a demand made under section 320.27 or 320.29.
Accident resulting in bodily harm
(2) Everyone commits an offence who, without reasonable excuse, fails or refuses to comply with a demand made under section 320.27 or 320.29 and who, at the time of the failure or refusal, knows or ought to know that they caused an accident that resulted in bodily harm to another person.
Accident resulting in death
(3) Everyone commits an offence who, without reasonable excuse, fails or refuses to comply with a demand made under section 320.27 or 320.29 and who, at the time of the failure or refusal, knows or ought to know that they caused an accident that resulted in the death of another person or in bodily harm to another person whose death ensues.
Only one conviction
(4) A person who is convicted of an offence under this section is not to be convicted of another offence under this section with respect to the same transaction.
Failure to stop after accident
320.16 (1) Everyone commits an offence who operates a conveyance and who at the time of operating the conveyance knows that, or is reckless as to whether, the conveyance has been involved in an accident with another person or another conveyance and who fails, without reasonable excuse, to stop the conveyance, give their name and address and, if any person has been injured or appears to require assistance, offer assistance.
(2) Everyone commits an offence who commits an offence under subsection (1) and who at the time of committing the offence knows that, or is reckless as to whether, the accident resulted in bodily harm to another person.
(3) Everyone commits an offence who commits an offence under subsection (1) and who, at the time of committing the offence, knows that the accident resulted in the death of another person, or knows that, or is reckless as to whether, the accident resulted in bodily harm that endangers the life of another person, and that person's death ensues.
Flight from peace officer
320.17 Everyone commits an offence who operates a motor vehicle or vessel while being pursued by a peace officer and who fails, without reasonable excuse, to stop the motor vehicle or vessel as soon as is reasonable in the circumstances.
Operation while prohibited
320.18 (1) Everyone commits an offence who operates a conveyance while prohibited from doing so
(a) by an order made under this Act; or
(b) by any other form of legal restriction imposed under any other Act of Parliament or under provincial law in respect of a conviction under this Act.
(2) No person commits an offence under subsection (1) arising out of the operation of a motor vehicle if, subject to subsection 320.24(8), they are registered in an alcohol ignition interlock device program established under the law of the province in which they reside and they comply with the conditions of the program.
320.19 (1) Everyone who commits an offence under subsection 320.13(1), 320.14(1), 320.15(1) or 320.16(1), section 320.17 or subsection 320.18(1)
(a) is liable on conviction on indictment to imprisonment for a term of not more than 10 years and to a minimum punishment of imprisonment for a term of
(i) for a first offence, 30 days,
(ii) for a second offence, 120 days,
(iii) for a third offence, one year, and
(iv) for each subsequent offence, two years; or
(b) is liable on summary conviction to imprisonment for a term of not more than two years less a day and to a minimum punishment of
(i) for a first offence, a fine of $1,000,
(ii) for a second offence, imprisonment for a term of 30 days,
(iii) for a third offence, imprisonment for a term of 120 days, and
(iv) for each subsequent offence, impris-onment for a term of one year.
Minimum fines for high blood alcohol concentrations
(2) Despite subparagraph (1)(b)(i), everyone who commits an offence under paragraph 320.14(1)(b) is liable, for a first offence punishable on summary conviction, to
(a) a fine of not less than $1,500, if the person's blood alcohol concentration is equal to or exceeds 120 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood but is less than 160 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood; and
(b) a fine of not less than $2,000, if the person's blood alcohol concentration is equal to or exceeds 160 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood.
Minimum fine —subsection320.15(1)
(3) Despite subparagraph (1)(b)(i), everyone who commits an offence under subsection 320.15(1) is liable, for a first offence punishable on summary conviction, to a fine of not less than $2,000.
Punishment in case of bodily harm
320.2 Everyone who commits an offence under subsection 320.13(2), 320.14(2), 320.15(2) or 320.16(2)
(i) for a first offence, 120 days,
(ii) for a second offence, one year, and
(iii) for each subsequent offence, two years; or
(b) is liable on summary conviction to imprisonment for a term of not more than two years less a day and to a minimum punishment of imprisonment for a term of
(ii) for a second offence, 120 days, and
(iii) for each subsequent offence, one year.
Punishment in case of death — operation while impaired and refusal to comply
320.21 (1) Subject to subsection (2), everyone who commits an offence under subsection 320.14(3) or 320.15(3) is liable on conviction on indictment to imprisonment for life and to a minimum punishment of imprisonment for a term of six years.
Exception to minimum punishment
(2) A person who commits an offence under subsection 320.15(3), who provides samples under subparagraph 320.28(c)(ii) and who has, within two hours after ceasing to operate the conveyance, a blood alcohol concentration of less than 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood is not liable to the minimum punishment set out in subsection (1).
Punishment in case of death — dangerous operation and failure to stop
(3) Everyone who commits an offence under subsection 320.13(3) or 320.16(3) is liable on conviction on indictment to imprisonment for life.
Aggravating circumstances for sentencing purposes
320.22 A court imposing a sentence for an offence under any of sections 320.13 to 320.18 shall consider the following as aggravating circumstances:
(a) the commission of the offence resulted in bodily harm to, or the death of, more than one person;
(b) the offender was operating a motor vehicle in a race with at least one other motor vehicle or in a contest of speed, on a street, road or highway or in another public place;
(c) a person under the age of 16 years was a passenger in the conveyance;
(d) the offender was being remunerated for operating the conveyance;
(e) the offender's blood alcohol concentration at the time of committing the offence was equal to or exceeded 120 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood;
(f) the offender was operating a large motor vehicle; and
(g) the offender was not permitted, under a federal or provincial Act, to operate the conveyance.
Delay of sentencing
320.23 (1) The court may, with the consent of the Attorney General and the offender, and after considering the interests of justice, delay sentencing of an offender who has been found guilty of an offence under subsection 320.14(1) or 320.15(1) to allow the offender to attend a treatment program approved by the province in which the offender resides. If the court delays sentencing, it shall make an order prohibiting the offender from operating, before sentencing, a motor vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment, as the case may be, in which case subsections 320.24(5) to (7) apply.
(2) If the offender successfully completes that treatment program, the court is not required to impose the minimum punishment under section 320.19 or to make a prohibition order under section 320.24, but it shall not direct a discharge under section 730.
Mandatory prohibition order
320.24 (1) If an offender is found guilty of an offence under any of sections 320.13 to 320.18, the court that sentences the offender shall, in addition to any other punishment that may be imposed for that offence, make an order prohibiting the offender from operating a motor vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment, as the case may be, during a period to be determined in accordance with subsections (2) to (4). The prohibition begins on the later of the date on which the order is made and, if the offender is sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the date on which the offender is released from imprisonment for the offence, including release on parole, mandatory supervision or statutory release.
Prohibition period
(2) If the offender is found guilty of an offence under subsection 320.13(1), 320.14(1), 320.15(1) or 320.16(1), section 320.17 or subsection 320.18(1), the prohibition period is
(a) for a first offence, not less than one year and not more than three years;
(b) for a second offence, not less than two years and not more than 10 years; and
(c) for each subsequent offence, not less than three years.
Prohibition period in case of bodily harm
(3) If the offender is found guilty of an offence under subsection 320.13(2), 320.14(2), 320.15(2) or 320.16(2), the prohibition period is
(a) for a first offence, not less than two years and not more than 10 years;
(b) for a second offence, not less than three years; and
(c) for each subsequent offence, not less than five years.
Prohibition period in case of death
(a) for a first offence, not less than three years; and
(b) for each subsequent offence, not less than 10 years.
Obligation of court
(5) A court that makes a prohibition order under this section shall cause the order to be read by or to the offender or a copy of the order to be given to the offender.
Application — public place
(6) A prohibition order in respect of a motor vehicle applies only to its operation on a street, road or highway or in any other public place.
Consecutive prohibition periods
(7) If the offender is, at the time of the commission of the offence, subject to an order made under this Act prohibiting the offender from operating a conveyance, any prohibition order made under this section that prohibits the offender from operating the same type of conveyance shall be served consecutively to that order.
Minimum absolute prohibition period
(8) A person may not be registered in an alcohol ignition interlock device program referred to in subsection 320.18(2) until the expiry of
(a) in the case of a first offence, a period, if any, that may be fixed by order of the court;
(b) in the case of a second offence, a period of three months after the day on which the sentence is imposed or any longer period that may be fixed by order of the court;
(c) in the case of a subsequent offence, a period of six months after the day on which the sentence is imposed or any longer period that may be fixed by order of the court.
Stay of order pending appeal
320.25 (1) Subject to subsection (2), if an appeal is taken against a conviction or sentence for an offence under any of sections 320.13 to 320.18, a judge of the court to which the appeal is taken may direct that the prohibition order under section 320.24 arising out of the conviction shall, on any conditions that the judge imposes, be stayed pending the final disposition of the appeal or until otherwise ordered by that court.
Appeals to Supreme Court of Canada
(2) In the case of an appeal to the Supreme Court of Canada, a direction may be made only by a judge of the court from which the appeal was taken.
Effect of conditions
(3) The imposition of conditions on a stay of a prohibition order does not operate to decrease the prohibition period provided in the prohibition order.
Earlier and subsequent offences
320.26 In determining, for the purpose of imposing a sentence for an offence under any of sections 320.13 to 320.18, whether the offence is a second, third or subsequent offence, any of the following offences for which the offender was previously convicted is considered to be an earlier offence:
(a) an offence under any of those sections;
(b) an offence under section 220, 221 or 236 arising out of the operation of a conveyance; or
(c) an offence under any of sections 249 to 249.4, 252 to 255 and 259, as those sections read from time to time before the day on which this section comes into force.
Investigative Matters
Testing for presence of alcohol or drug
320.27 (1) If a peace officer has reasonable grounds to suspect that a person has alcohol or a drug in their body and that the person has, within the preceding three hours, operated a conveyance, the peace officer may, by demand, require the person to comply with either or both of the following requirements in the case of alcohol, or with the requirement of paragraph (a) in the case of a drug:
(a) to immediately perform the physical coordination tests prescribed by regulation and to accompany the peace officer for that purpose;
(b) to immediately provide the samples of breath that, in the peace officer's opinion, are necessary to enable a proper analysis to be made by means of an approved screening device and to accompany the peace officer for that purpose.
Reasonable grounds to suspect — alcohol
(2) Without limiting the circumstances that may amount to reasonable grounds to suspect that a person has alcohol in their body, any one of the following constitutes such grounds:
(a) the erratic movement of the conveyance;
(b) the person's admission of alcohol consumption;
(c) an odour of alcohol on the person's breath or emanating from the conveyance; or
(d) the person's involvement in an accident that resulted in bodily harm to, or the death of, another person.
Particular measures in case of failure or refusal
320.28 A peace officer who arrests a person who was involved in an accident that resulted in the death of another person, or resulted in bodily harm that endangers the life of another person, and who fails or refuses to comply with a demand made under section 320.27, shall
(a) inform the person that they are liable on conviction to a minimum punishment of imprisonment for a term of six years if the other person is dead or the other person's bodily harm results in their death;
(b) inform the person that they have the right to retain and instruct counsel; and
(c) bring the person to a police station where the peace officer shall
(i) provide the person with an opportunity to retain and instruct counsel without delay, and
(ii) provide the person with an opportunity to provide the samples referred to in subparagraph 320.29(1)(a)(i) or (ii), as the peace officer may decide.
Samples of breath or blood — alcohol
320.29 (1) If a peace officer has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has operated a conveyance while the person's ability to operate it was impaired to any degree by alcohol or has committed an offence under paragraph 320.14(1)(b), the peace officer may, by demand made within a reasonable time,
(a) require the person to provide, as soon as practicable,
(i) the samples of breath that, in a qualified technician's opinion, are necessary to enable a proper analysis to be made by means of an approved instrument, or
(ii) if the peace officer has reasonable grounds to believe that, because of their physical condition, the person may be incapable of providing a sample of breath or it would be impracticable to take one, the samples of blood that, in the opinion of the qualified medical practitioner or qualified technician taking the samples, are necessary to enable a proper analysis to be made to determine the person's blood alcohol concentration; and
(b) require the person to accompany the peace officer for the purpose of taking samples of that person's breath or blood.
Evaluation or samples of blood — drugs
(2) If a peace officer has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has operated a conveyance while the person's ability to operate it was impaired to any degree by a drug or by a combination of alcohol and a drug, the peace officer may, by demand made within a reasonable time, require the person to comply with the requirements of either or both of the following paragraphs:
(a) to submit, as soon as practicable, to an evaluation conducted by an evaluating officer to determine whether the person's ability to operate a conveyance is impaired by a drug or by a combination of alcohol and a drug, and to accompany the peace officer for that purpose; or
(b) to provide, as soon as practicable, the samples of blood that, in the opinion of the qualified medical practitioner or qualified technician taking the samples, are necessary to enable a proper analysis to be made to determine the person's blood drug concentration, or the person's blood drug concentration and blood alcohol concentration, as the case may be, and to accompany the peace officer for that purpose.
Samples of breath — alcohol
(3) An evaluating officer who has reasonable grounds to suspect that a person has alcohol in their body may, if a demand was not made under subsection (1), by demand made within a reasonable time, require the person to provide, as soon as practicable, the samples of breath that, in a qualified technician's opinion, are necessary to enable a proper analysis to be made by means of an approved instrument.
Samples of bodily substances
(4) If, on completion of the evaluation, the evaluating officer has reasonable grounds to believe that one or more of the types of drugs set out in subsection (5) — or that a combination of alcohol and one or more of those types of drugs — is impairing the person's ability to operate a conveyance, the evaluating officer shall identify the type or types of drugs in question and may, by demand made within a reasonable time, require the person to provide, as soon as practicable,
(a) a sample of oral fluid or urine that, in the evaluating officer's opinion, is necessary to enable a proper analysis to be made to ascertain the presence in the person's body of one or more of the types of drugs set out in subsection (5); or
(b) the samples of blood that, in the opinion of the qualified medical practitioner or qualified technician taking the samples, are necessary to enable a proper analysis to be made to ascertain the presence in the person's body of one or more of the types of drugs set out in subsection (5) or to determine the person's blood drug concentration for one or more of those types of drugs.
Types of drugs
(5) For the purpose of subsection (4), the types of drugs are the following:
(a) a depressant;
(b) an inhalant;
(c) a dissociative anaesthetic;
(d) cannabis;
(e) a stimulant;
(f) a hallucinogen; or
(g) a narcotic analgesic.
(6) A sample of blood may be taken from a person under this section only by a qualified medical practitioner or a qualified technician, and only if they are satisfied that taking the sample would not endanger the person's health.
Approved containers
(7) A sample of blood shall be received into an approved container that shall be subsequently sealed.
Retained sample
(8) A person who takes samples of blood under this section shall retain one of the samples to permit an analysis of it to be made by or on behalf of the person from whom the blood samples were taken.
Release of retained sample
(9) A judge of a superior court of criminal jurisdiction or a court of criminal jurisdiction shall, on the summary application of the person from whom samples of blood were taken under this section, made within six months after the day on which the samples were taken, order the release of the sample that was retained to the person for the purpose of examination or analysis, subject to any terms that the judge considers necessary or desirable to ensure that the sample is safeguarded and preserved for use in any proceedings in respect of which it was taken.
Warrants to obtain blood samples
320.3 (1) A justice may issue a warrant authorizing a peace officer to require a qualified medical practitioner or a qualified technician to take the samples of a person's blood that, in the opinion of the practitioner or technician taking the samples, are necessary to enable a proper analysis to be made to determine the person's blood alcohol concentration or blood drug concentration, or both, if the justice is satisfied, on an information on oath in Form 1 or on an information on oath submitted to the justice by telephone or other means of telecommunication, that
(a) there are reasonable grounds to believe that the person has, within the preceding eight hours, operated a conveyance that was involved in an accident that resulted in bodily harm to any person or in the death of another person;
(b) there are reasonable grounds to suspect that the person has alcohol or a drug in their body; and
(c) a qualified medical practitioner is of the opinion that
(i) by reason of any physical or mental condition of the person, the person is unable to consent to the taking of samples of their blood, and
(ii) the taking of samples of the person's blood will not endanger their health.
(2) A warrant issued under subsection (1) may be in Form 5 or 5.1, varied to suit the case.
Procedure — telephone or other means of telecommunication
(3) Subsections 487.1(1) to (3.1), paragraphs 487.1(4)(a) and (d) and subsections 487.1(6), (6.1), (11) and (12) apply in respect of an application for a warrant that is submitted by telephone or other means of telecommunication.
Duration of warrant
(4) Samples of blood may be taken from a person under a warrant issued under subsection (1) only during the time that a qualified medical practitioner is satisfied that the conditions referred to in subparagraphs (1)(c)(i) and (ii) continue to exist.
Copy or facsimile to person
(5) If a warrant issued under subsection (1) is executed, the peace officer shall, as soon as practicable, give a copy of it — or, in the case of a warrant issued by telephone or other means of telecommunication, a facsimile — to the person from whom the samples of blood are taken.
Taking of samples
(6) Subsections 320.29(7) to (9) apply with respect to the taking of samples of blood under this section.
Testing blood — drug or alcohol
320.31 Samples of a person's blood that are taken for the purposes of this Part may be analyzed to determine the person's blood alcohol concentration or blood drug concentration, or both.
Clause 2: Existing text of the definition:
"street racing" means operating a motor vehicle in a race with at least one other motor vehicle on a street, road, highway or other public place;
Clause 3: Existing text of the definitions:
"aircraft" does not include a machine designed to derive support in the atmosphere primarily from reactions against the earth's surface of air expelled from the machine;
(a) means, in respect of a motor vehicle, to drive the vehicle,
(b) means, in respect of railway equipment, to participate in the direct control of its motion, whether
(i) as a member of the crew of the equipment,
(ii) as a person who, by remote control, acts in lieu of such crew, or
(iii) as other than a member or person described in subparagraphs (i) and (ii), and
(c) includes, in respect of a vessel or an aircraft, to navigate the vessel or aircraft;
"vessel" includes a machine designed to derive support in the atmosphere primarily from reactions against the earth's surface of air expelled from the machine.
Clause 4: Existing text of the heading and sections 249 to 261:
Motor Vehicles, Vessels and Aircraft
249. (1) Every one commits an offence who operates
(a) a motor vehicle in a manner that is dangerous to the public, having regard to all the circumstances, including the nature, condition and use of the place at which the motor vehicle is being operated and the amount of traffic that at the time is or might reasonably be expected to be at that place;
(b) a vessel or any water skis, surf-board, water sled or other towed object on or over any of the internal waters of Canada or the territorial sea of Canada, in a manner that is dangerous to the public, having regard to all the circumstances, including the nature and condition of those waters or sea and the use that at the time is or might reasonably be expected to be made of those waters or sea;
(c) an aircraft in a manner that is dangerous to the public, having regard to all the circumstances, including the nature and condition of that aircraft or the place or air space in or through which the aircraft is operated; or
(d) railway equipment in a manner that is dangerous to the public, having regard to all the circumstances, including the nature and condition of the equipment or the place in or through which the equipment is operated.
(2) Every one who commits an offence under subsection (1)
(a) is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years; or
(b) is guilty of an offence punishable on summary conviction.
(3) Every one who commits an offence under subsection (1) and thereby causes bodily harm to any other person is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years.
(4) Every one who commits an offence under subsection (1) and thereby causes the death of any other person is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding fourteen years.
249.1 (1) Every one commits an offence who, operating a motor vehicle while being pursued by a peace officer operating a motor vehicle, fails, without reasonable excuse and in order to evade the peace officer, to stop the vehicle as soon as is reasonable in the circumstances.
(3) Every one commits an offence who causes bodily harm to or the death of another person by operating a motor vehicle in a manner described in paragraph 249(1)(a), if the person operating the motor vehicle was being pursued by a peace officer operating a motor vehicle and failed, without reasonable excuse and in order to evade the police officer, to stop the vehicle as soon as is reasonable in the circumstances.
(4) Every person who commits an offence under subsection (3)
(a) if bodily harm was caused, is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 14 years; and
(b) if death was caused, is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for life.
249.2 Everyone who by criminal negligence causes death to another person while street racing is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for life.
249.3 Everyone who by criminal negligence causes bodily harm to another person while street racing is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding fourteen years.
249.4 (1) Everyone commits an offence who, while street racing, operates a motor vehicle in a manner described in paragraph 249(1)(a).
(2) Everyone who commits an offence under subsection (1)
(3) Everyone who commits an offence under subsection (1) and thereby causes bodily harm to another person is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding fourteen years.
(4) Everyone who commits an offence under subsection (1) and thereby causes the death of another person is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for life.
250. (1) Every one who operates a vessel while towing a person on any water skis, surf-board, water sled or other object, when there is not on board such vessel another responsible person keeping watch on the person being towed, is guilty of an offence punishable on summary conviction.
(2) Every one who operates a vessel while towing a person on any water skis, surf-board, water sled or other object during the period from one hour after sunset to sunrise is guilty of an offence punishable on summary conviction.
251. (1) Every one who knowingly
(a) sends or being the master takes a vessel that is registered or licensed, or for which an identification number has been issued, pursuant to any Act of Parliament and that is unseaworthy
(i) on a voyage from a place in Canada to any other place in or out of Canada, or
(ii) on a voyage from a place on the inland waters of the United States to a place in Canada,
(b) sends an aircraft on a flight or operates an aircraft that is not fit and safe for flight, or
(c) sends for operation or operates railway equipment that is not fit and safe for operation
and thereby endangers the life of any person, is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years.
(2) An accused shall not be convicted of an offence under this section where the accused establishes that,
(a) in the case of an offence under paragraph (1)(a),
(i) the accused used all reasonable means to ensure that the vessel was seaworthy, or
(ii) to send or take the vessel while it was unseaworthy was, under the circumstances, reasonable and justifiable;
(b) in the case of an offence under paragraph (1)(b),
(i) the accused used all reasonable means to ensure that the aircraft was fit and safe for flight, or
(ii) to send or operate the aircraft while it was not fit and safe for flight was, under the circumstances, reasonable and justifiable; and
(c) in the case of an offence under paragraph (1)(c),
(i) the accused used all reasonable means to ensure that the railway equipment was fit and safe for operation, or
(ii) to send the railway equipment for operation or to operate it while it was not fit and safe for operation was, under the circumstances, reasonable and justifiable.
(3) No proceedings shall be instituted under this section in respect of a vessel or aircraft, or in respect of railway equipment sent for operation or operated on a line of railway that is within the legislative authority of Parliament, without the consent in writing of the Attorney General of Canada.
252. (1) Every person commits an offence who has the care, charge or control of a vehicle, vessel or aircraft that is involved in an accident with
(a) another person,
(b) a vehicle, vessel or aircraft, or
(c) in the case of a vehicle, cattle in the charge of another person,
and with intent to escape civil or criminal liability fails to stop the vehicle, vessel or, if possible, the aircraft, give his or her name and address and, where any person has been injured or appears to require assistance, offer assistance.
(1.1) Every person who commits an offence under subsection (1) in a case not referred to in subsection (1.2) or (1.3) is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years or is guilty of an offence punishable on summary conviction.
(1.2) Every person who commits an offence under subsection (1) knowing that bodily harm has been caused to another person involved in the accident is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years.
(1.3) Every person who commits an offence under subsection (1) is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for life if
(a) the person knows that another person involved in the accident is dead; or
(b) the person knows that bodily harm has been caused to another person involved in the accident and is reckless as to whether the death of the other person results from that bodily harm, and the death of that other person so results.
(2) In proceedings under subsection (1), evidence that an accused failed to stop his vehicle, vessel or, where possible, his aircraft, as the case may be, offer assistance where any person has been injured or appears to require assistance and give his name and address is, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, proof of an intent to escape civil or criminal liability.
253. (1) Every one commits an offence who operates a motor vehicle or vessel or operates or assists in the operation of an aircraft or of railway equipment or has the care or control of a motor vehicle, vessel, aircraft or railway equipment, whether it is in motion or not,
(a) while the person's ability to operate the vehicle, vessel, aircraft or railway equipment is impaired by alcohol or a drug; or
(b) having consumed alcohol in such a quantity that the concentration in the person's blood exceeds eighty milligrams of alcohol in one hundred millilitres of blood.
(2) For greater certainty, the reference to impairment by alcohol or a drug in paragraph (1)(a) includes impairment by a combination of alcohol and a drug.
254. (1) In this section and sections 254.1 to 258.1,
"analyst" means a person designated by the Attorney General as an analyst for the purposes of section 258;
"approved container" means
(a) in respect of breath samples, a container of a kind that is designed to receive a sample of the breath of a person for analysis and is approved as suitable for the purposes of section 258 by order of the Attorney General of Canada, and
(b) in respect of blood samples, a container of a kind that is designed to receive a sample of the blood of a person for analysis and is approved as suitable for the purposes of section 258 by order of the Attorney General of Canada;
"approved instrument" means an instrument of a kind that is designed to receive and make an analysis of a sample of the breath of a person in order to measure the concentration of alcohol in the blood of that person and is approved as suitable for the purposes of section 258 by order of the Attorney General of Canada;
"approved screening device" means a device of a kind that is designed to ascertain the presence of alcohol in the blood of a person and that is approved for the purposes of this section by order of the Attorney General of Canada;
"evaluating officer" means a peace officer who is qualified under the regulations to conduct evaluations under subsection (3.1);
"qualified medical practitioner" means a person duly qualified by provincial law to practise medicine;
(a) in respect of breath samples, a person designated by the Attorney General as being qualified to operate an approved instrument, and
(b) in respect of blood samples, any person or person of a class of persons designated by the Attorney General as being qualified to take samples of blood for the purposes of this section and sections 256 and 258.
(2) If a peace officer has reasonable grounds to suspect that a person has alcohol or a drug in their body and that the person has, within the preceding three hours, operated a motor vehicle or vessel, operated or assisted in the operation of an aircraft or railway equipment or had the care or control of a motor vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment, whether it was in motion or not, the peace officer may, by demand, require the person to comply with paragraph (a), in the case of a drug, or with either or both of paragraphs (a) and (b), in the case of alcohol:
(a) to perform forthwith physical coordination tests prescribed by regulation to enable the peace officer to determine whether a demand may be made under subsection (3) or (3.1) and, if necessary, to accompany the peace officer for that purpose; and
(b) to provide forthwith a sample of breath that, in the peace officer's opinion, will enable a proper analysis to be made by means of an approved screening device and, if necessary, to accompany the peace officer for that purpose.
(2.1) For greater certainty, a peace officer may make a video recording of a performance of the physical coordination tests referred to in paragraph (2)(a).
(3) If a peace officer has reasonable grounds to believe that a person is committing, or at any time within the preceding three hours has committed, an offence under section 253 as a result of the consumption of alcohol, the peace officer may, by demand made as soon as practicable, require the person
(a) to provide, as soon as practicable,
(i) samples of breath that, in a qualified technician's opinion, will enable a proper analysis to be made to determine the concentration, if any, of alcohol in the person's blood, or
(ii) if the peace officer has reasonable grounds to believe that, because of their physical condition, the person may be incapable of providing a sample of breath or it would be impracticable to obtain a sample of breath, samples of blood that, in the opinion of the qualified medical practitioner or qualified technician taking the samples, will enable a proper analysis to be made to determine the concentration, if any, of alcohol in the person's blood; and
(b) if necessary, to accompany the peace officer for that purpose.
(3.1) If a peace officer has reasonable grounds to believe that a person is committing, or at any time within the preceding three hours has committed, an offence under paragraph 253(1)(a) as a result of the consumption of a drug or of a combination of alcohol and a drug, the peace officer may, by demand made as soon as practicable, require the person to submit, as soon as practicable, to an evaluation conducted by an evaluating officer to determine whether the person's ability to operate a motor vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment is impaired by a drug or by a combination of alcohol and a drug, and to accompany the peace officer for that purpose.
(3.2) For greater certainty, a peace officer may make a video recording of an evaluation referred to in subsection (3.1).
(3.3) If the evaluating officer has reasonable grounds to suspect that the person has alcohol in their body and if a demand was not made under paragraph (2)(b) or subsection (3), the evaluating officer may, by demand made as soon as practicable, require the person to provide, as soon as practicable, a sample of breath that, in the evaluating officer's opinion, will enable a proper analysis to be made by means of an approved instrument.
(3.4) If, on completion of the evaluation, the evaluating officer has reasonable grounds to believe, based on the evaluation, that the person's ability to operate a motor vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment is impaired by a drug or by a combination of alcohol and a drug, the evaluating officer may, by demand made as soon as practicable, require the person to provide, as soon as practicable,
(a) a sample of either oral fluid or urine that, in the evaluating officer's opinion, will enable a proper analysis to be made to determine whether the person has a drug in their body; or
(b) samples of blood that, in the opinion of the qualified medical practitioner or qualified technician taking the samples, will enable a proper analysis to be made to determine whether the person has a drug in their body.
(4) Samples of blood may be taken from a person under subsection (3) or (3.4) only by or under the direction of a qualified medical practitioner who is satisfied that taking the samples would not endanger the person's life or health.
(5) Everyone commits an offence who, without reasonable excuse, fails or refuses to comply with a demand made under this section.
(6) A person who is convicted of an offence under subsection (5) for a failure or refusal to comply with a demand may not be convicted of another offence under that subsection in respect of the same transaction.
254.1 (1) The Governor in Council may make regulations
(a) respecting the qualifications and training of evaluating officers;
(b) prescribing the physical coordination tests to be conducted under paragraph 254(2)(a); and
(c) prescribing the tests to be conducted and procedures to be followed during an evaluation under subsection 254(3.1).
(2) A regulation may incorporate any material by reference either as it exists on a specified date or as amended from time to time.
(3) For greater certainty, material does not become a regulation for the purposes of the Statutory Instruments Act because it is incorporated by reference.
255. (1) Every one who commits an offence under section 253 or 254 is guilty of an indictable offence or an offence punishable on summary conviction and is liable,
(a) whether the offence is prosecuted by indictment or punishable on summary conviction, to the following minimum punishment, namely,
(i) for a first offence, to a fine of not less than $1,000,
(ii) for a second offence, to imprisonment for not less than 30 days, and
(iii) for each subsequent offence, to imprisonment for not less than 120 days;
(b) where the offence is prosecuted by indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years; and
(c) if the offence is punishable on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term of not more than 18 months.
(2) Everyone who commits an offence under paragraph 253(1)(a) and causes bodily harm to another person as a result is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term of not more than 10 years.
(2.1) Everyone who, while committing an offence under paragraph 253(1)(b), causes an accident resulting in bodily harm to another person is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term of not more than 10 years.
(2.2) Everyone who commits an offence under subsection 254(5) and, at the time of committing the offence, knows or ought to know that their operation of the motor vehicle, vessel, aircraft or railway equipment, their assistance in the operation of the aircraft or railway equipment or their care or control of the motor vehicle, vessel, aircraft or railway equipment caused an accident resulting in bodily harm to another person is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for a term of not more than 10 years.
(3) Everyone who commits an offence under paragraph 253(1)(a) and causes the death of another person as a result is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for life.
(3.1) Everyone who, while committing an offence under paragraph 253(1)(b), causes an accident resulting in the death of another person is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for life.
(3.2) Everyone who commits an offence under subsection 254(5) and, at the time of committing the offence, knows or ought to know that their operation of the motor vehicle, vessel, aircraft or railway equipment, their assistance in the operation of the aircraft or railway equipment or their care or control of the motor vehicle, vessel, aircraft or railway equipment caused an accident resulting in the death of another person, or in bodily harm to another person whose death ensues, is guilty of an indictable offence and liable to imprisonment for life.
(3.3) For greater certainty, everyone who is liable to the punishment described in any of subsections (2) to (3.2) is also liable to the minimum punishment described in paragraph (1)(a).
(4) A person who is convicted of an offence committed under section 253 or subsection 254(5) is, for the purposes of this Act, deemed to be convicted for a second or subsequent offence, as the case may be, if they have previously been convicted of
(a) an offence committed under either of those provisions;
(b) an offence under subsection (2) or (3); or
(c) an offence under section 250, 251, 252, 253, 259 or 260 or subsection 258(4) of this Act as this Act read immediately before the coming into force of this subsection.
(5) Notwithstanding subsection 730(1), a court may, instead of convicting a person of an offence committed under section 253, after hearing medical or other evidence, if it considers that the person is in need of curative treatment in relation to his consumption of alcohol or drugs and that it would not be contrary to the public interest, by order direct that the person be discharged under section 730 on the conditions prescribed in a probation order, including a condition respecting the person's attendance for curative treatment in relation to that consumption of alcohol or drugs.
* [Note: In force in the Provinces of Nova Scotia, New Brunswick, Manitoba, Prince Edward Island, Saskatchewan and Alberta and in the Yukon Territory, see TR/85–211 and TR/88–24.]
255.1 Without limiting the generality of section 718.2, where a court imposes a sentence for an offence committed under this Act by means of a motor vehicle, vessel or aircraft or of railway equipment, evidence that the concentration of alcohol in the blood of the offender at the time when the offence was committed exceeded one hundred and sixty milligrams of alcohol in one hundred millilitres of blood shall be deemed to be aggravating circumstances relating to the offence that the court shall consider under paragraph 718.2(a).
256. (1) Subject to subsection (2), if a justice is satisfied, on an information on oath in Form 1 or on an information on oath submitted to the justice under section 487.1 by telephone or other means of telecommunication, that there are reasonable grounds to believe that
(a) a person has, within the preceding four hours, committed, as a result of the consumption of alcohol or a drug, an offence under section 253 and the person was involved in an accident resulting in the death of another person or in bodily harm to himself or herself or to any other person, and
(b) a qualified medical practitioner is of the opinion that
(i) by reason of any physical or mental condition of the person that resulted from the consumption of alcohol or a drug, the accident or any other occurrence related to or resulting from the accident, the person is unable to consent to the taking of samples of his or her blood, and
(ii) the taking of samples of blood from the person would not endanger the life or health of the person,
the justice may issue a warrant authorizing a peace officer to require a qualified medical practitioner to take, or to cause to be taken by a qualified technician under the direction of the qualified medical practitioner, the samples of the blood of the person that in the opinion of the person taking the samples are necessary to enable a proper analysis to be made in order to determine the concentration, if any, of alcohol or drugs in the person's blood.
(2) A warrant issued pursuant to subsection (1) may be in Form 5 or 5.1 varied to suit the case.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs 487.1(4)(b) and (c), an information on oath submitted by telephone or other means of telecommunication for the purposes of this section shall include, instead of the statements referred to in those paragraphs, a statement setting out the offence alleged to have been committed and identifying the person from whom blood samples are to be taken.
(4) Samples of blood may be taken from a person pursuant to a warrant issued pursuant to subsection (1) only during such time as a qualified medical practitioner is satisfied that the conditions referred to in subparagraphs (1)(b)(i) and (ii) continue to exist in respect of that person.
(5) When a warrant issued under subsection (1) is executed, the peace officer shall, as soon as practicable, give a copy of it — or, in the case of a warrant issued by telephone or other means of telecommunication, a facsimile — to the person from whom the blood samples are taken.
257. (1) No qualified medical practitioner or qualified technician is guilty of an offence only by reason of his refusal to take a sample of blood from a person for the purposes of section 254 or 256 and no qualified medical practitioner is guilty of an offence only by reason of his refusal to cause to be taken by a qualified technician under his direction a sample of blood from a person for those purposes.
(2) No qualified medical practitioner by whom or under whose direction a sample of blood is taken from a person under subsection 254(3) or (3.4) or section 256, and no qualified technician acting under the direction of a qualified medical practitioner, incurs any criminal or civil liability for anything necessarily done with reasonable care and skill when taking the sample.
258. (1) In any proceedings under subsection 255(1) in respect of an offence committed under section 253 or subsection 254(5) or in any proceedings under any of subsections 255(2) to (3.2),
(a) where it is proved that the accused occupied the seat or position ordinarily occupied by a person who operates a motor vehicle, vessel or aircraft or any railway equipment or who assists in the operation of an aircraft or of railway equipment, the accused shall be deemed to have had the care or control of the vehicle, vessel, aircraft or railway equipment, as the case may be, unless the accused establishes that the accused did not occupy that seat or position for the purpose of setting the vehicle, vessel, aircraft or railway equipment in motion or assisting in the operation of the aircraft or railway equipment, as the case may be;
(b) the result of an analysis of a sample of the accused's breath, blood, urine or other bodily substance — other than a sample taken under subsection 254(3), (3.3) or (3.4) — may be admitted in evidence even if the accused was not warned before they gave the sample that they need not give the sample or that the result of the analysis of the sample might be used in evidence;
(c) where samples of the breath of the accused have been taken pursuant to a demand made under subsection 254(3), if
(i) [Repealed before coming into force, 2008, c. 20, s. 3]
(ii) each sample was taken as soon as practicable after the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed and, in the case of the first sample, not later than two hours after that time, with an interval of at least fifteen minutes between the times when the samples were taken,
(iii) each sample was received from the accused directly into an approved container or into an approved instrument operated by a qualified technician, and
(iv) an analysis of each sample was made by means of an approved instrument operated by a qualified technician,
evidence of the results of the analyses so made is conclusive proof that the concentration of alcohol in the accused's blood both at the time when the analyses were made and at the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed was, if the results of the analyses are the same, the concentration determined by the analyses and, if the results of the analyses are different, the lowest of the concentrations determined by the analyses, in the absence of evidence tending to show all of the following three things — that the approved instrument was malfunctioning or was operated improperly, that the malfunction or improper operation resulted in the determination that the concentration of alcohol in the accused's blood exceeded 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood, and that the concentration of alcohol in the accused's blood would not in fact have exceeded 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood at the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed;
(d) if a sample of the accused's blood has been taken under subsection 254(3) or section 256 or with the accused's consent and if
(i) at the time the sample was taken, the person taking the sample took an additional sample of the blood of the accused and one of the samples was retained to permit an analysis of it to be made by or on behalf of the accused and, in the case where the accused makes a request within six months from the taking of the samples, one of the samples was ordered to be released under subsection (4),
(ii) both samples referred to in subparagraph (i) were taken as soon as practicable and in any event not later than two hours after the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed,
(iii) both samples referred to in subparagraph (i) were taken by a qualified medical practitioner or a qualified technician under the direction of a qualified medical practitioner,
(iv) both samples referred to in subparagraph (i) were received from the accused directly into, or placed directly into, approved containers that were subsequently sealed, and
(v) an analysis was made by an analyst of at least one of the samples,
evidence of the result of the analysis is conclusive proof that the concentration of alcohol in the accused's blood both at the time when the samples were taken and at the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed was the concentration determined by the analysis or, if more than one sample was analyzed and the results of the analyses are the same, the concentration determined by the analyses and, if the results of the analyses are different, the lowest of the concentrations determined by the analyses, in the absence of evidence tending to show all of the following three things — that the analysis was performed improperly, that the improper performance resulted in the determination that the concentration of alcohol in the accused's blood exceeded 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood, and that the concentration of alcohol in the accused's blood would not in fact have exceeded 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood at the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed;
(d.01) for greater certainty, evidence tending to show that an approved instrument was malfunctioning or was operated improperly, or that an analysis of a sample of the accused's blood was performed improperly, does not include evidence of
(i) the amount of alcohol that the accused consumed,
(ii) the rate at which the alcohol that the accused consumed would have been absorbed and eliminated by the accused's body, or
(iii) a calculation based on that evidence of what the concentration of alcohol in the accused's blood would have been at the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed;
(d.1) if samples of the accused's breath or a sample of the accused's blood have been taken as described in paragraph (c) or (d) under the conditions described in that paragraph and the results of the analyses show a concentration of alcohol in blood exceeding 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood, evidence of the results of the analyses is proof that the concentration of alcohol in the accused's blood at the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed exceeded 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood, in the absence of evidence tending to show that the accused's consumption of alcohol was consistent with both
(i) a concentration of alcohol in the accused's blood that did not exceed 80 mg of alcohol in 100 mL of blood at the time when the offence was alleged to have been committed, and
(ii) the concentration of alcohol in the accused's blood as determined under paragraph (c) or (d), as the case may be, at the time when the sample or samples were taken;
(e) a certificate of an analyst stating that the analyst has made an analysis of a sample of the blood, urine, breath or other bodily substance of the accused and stating the result of that analysis is evidence of the facts alleged in the certificate without proof of the signature or the official character of the person appearing to have signed the certificate;
(f) a certificate of an analyst stating that the analyst has made an analysis of a sample of an alcohol standard that is identified in the certificate and intended for use with an approved instrument and that the sample of the standard analyzed by the analyst was found to be suitable for use with an approved instrument, is evidence that the alcohol standard so identified is suitable for use with an approved instrument without proof of the signature or the official character of the person appearing to have signed the certificate;
(f.1) the document printed out from an approved instrument and signed by a qualified technician who certifies it to be the printout produced by the approved instrument when it made the analysis of a sample of the accused's breath is evidence of the facts alleged in the document without proof of the signature or official character of the person appearing to have signed it;
(g) where samples of the breath of the accused have been taken pursuant to a demand made under subsection 254(3), a certificate of a qualified technician stating
(i) that the analysis of each of the samples has been made by means of an approved instrument operated by the technician and ascertained by the technician to be in proper working order by means of an alcohol standard, identified in the certificate, that is suitable for use with an approved instrument,
(ii) the results of the analyses so made, and
(iii) if the samples were taken by the technician,
(A) [Repealed before coming into force, 2008, c. 20, s. 3]
(B) the time when and place where each sample and any specimen described in clause (A) was taken, and
(C) that each sample was received from the accused directly into an approved container or into an approved instrument operated by the technician,
is evidence of the facts alleged in the certificate without proof of the signature or the official character of the person appearing to have signed the certificate;
(h) if a sample of the accused's blood has been taken under subsection 254(3) or (3.4) or section 256 or with the accused's consent,
(i) a certificate of a qualified medical practitioner stating that
(A) they took the sample and before the sample was taken they were of the opinion that taking it would not endanger the accused's life or health and, in the case of a demand made under section 256, that by reason of any physical or mental condition of the accused that resulted from the consumption of alcohol or a drug, the accident or any other occurrence related to or resulting from the accident, the accused was unable to consent to the taking of the sample,
(B) at the time the sample was taken, an additional sample of the blood of the accused was taken to permit analysis of one of the samples to be made by or on behalf of the accused,
(C) the time when and place where both samples referred to in clause (B) were taken, and
(D) both samples referred to in clause (B) were received from the accused directly into, or placed directly into, approved containers that were subsequently sealed and that are identified in the certificate,
(ii) a certificate of a qualified medical practitioner stating that the medical practitioner caused the sample to be taken by a qualified technician under his direction and that before the sample was taken the qualified medical practitioner was of the opinion referred to in clause (i)(A), or
(iii) a certificate of a qualified technician stating that the technician took the sample and the facts referred to in clauses (i)(B) to (D)
is evidence of the facts alleged in the certificate without proof of the signature or official character of the person appearing to have signed the certificate; and
(i) a certificate of an analyst stating that the analyst has made an analysis of a sample of the blood of the accused that was contained in a sealed approved container identified in the certificate, the date on which and place where the sample was analyzed and the result of that analysis is evidence of the facts alleged in the certificate without proof of the signature or official character of the person appearing to have signed it.
(2) Unless a person is required to give a sample of a bodily substance under paragraph 254(2)(b) or subsection 254(3), (3.3) or (3.4), evidence that they failed or refused to give a sample for analysis for the purposes of this section or that a sample was not taken is not admissible and the failure, refusal or fact that a sample was not taken shall not be the subject of comment by any person in the proceedings.
(3) In any proceedings under subsection 255(1) in respect of an offence committed under paragraph 253(1)(a) or in any proceedings under subsection 255(2) or (3), evidence that the accused, without reasonable excuse, failed or refused to comply with a demand made under section 254 is admissible and the court may draw an inference adverse to the accused from that evidence.
(4) If, at the time a sample of an accused's blood is taken, an additional sample is taken and retained, a judge of a superior court of criminal jurisdiction or a court of criminal jurisdiction shall, on the summary application of the accused made within six months after the day on which the samples were taken, order the release of one of the samples for the purpose of examination or analysis, subject to any terms that appear to be necessary or desirable to ensure that the sample is safeguarded and preserved for use in any proceedings in respect of which it was taken.
(5) A sample of an accused's blood taken under subsection 254(3) or section 256 or with the accused's consent for the purpose of analysis to determine the concentration, if any, of alcohol in the blood may be tested to determine the concentration, if any, of a drug in the blood.
(6) A party against whom a certificate described in paragraph (1)(e), (f), (f.1), (g), (h) or (i) is produced may, with leave of the court, require the attendance of the qualified medical practitioner, analyst or qualified technician, as the case may be, for the purposes of cross-examination.
(7) No certificate shall be received in evidence pursuant to paragraph (1)(e), (f), (g), (h) or (i) unless the party intending to produce it has, before the trial, given to the other party reasonable notice of his intention and a copy of the certificate.
258.1 (1) Subject to subsections 258(4) and (5) and subsection (3), no person shall use a bodily substance taken under paragraph 254(2)(b), subsection 254(3), (3.3) or (3.4) or section 256 or with the consent of the person from whom it was taken after a request by a peace officer or medical samples that are provided by consent and subsequently seized under a warrant, except for the purpose of an analysis that is referred to in that provision or for which the consent is given.
(2) Subject to subsections (3) and (4), no person shall use, disclose or allow the disclosure of the results of physical coordination tests under paragraph 254(2)(a), the results of an evaluation under subsection 254(3.1), the results of the analysis of a bodily substance taken under paragraph 254(2)(b), subsection 254(3), (3.3) or (3.4) or section 256 or with the consent of the person from whom it was taken after a request by a peace officer, or the results of the analysis of medical samples that are provided by consent and subsequently seized under a warrant, except
(a) in the course of an investigation of, or in a proceeding for, an offence under any of sections 220, 221, 236 and 249 to 255, an offence under Part I of the Aeronautics Act, or an offence under the Railway Safety Act in respect of a contravention of a rule or regulation made under that Act respecting the use of alcohol or a drug; or
(b) for the purpose of the administration or enforcement of the law of a province.
(3) Subsections (1) and (2) do not apply to persons who for medical purposes use samples or use or disclose the results of tests, taken for medical purposes, that are subsequently seized under a warrant.
(4) The results of physical coordination tests, an evaluation or an analysis referred to in subsection (2) may be disclosed to the person to whom they relate, and may be disclosed to any other person if the results are made anonymous and the disclosure is made for statistical or other research purposes.
(5) Every person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence punishable on summary conviction.
259. (1) When an offender is convicted of an offence committed under section 253 or 254 or this section or discharged under section 730 of an offence committed under section 253 and, at the time the offence was committed or, in the case of an offence committed under section 254, within the three hours preceding that time, was operating or had the care or control of a motor vehicle, vessel or aircraft or of railway equipment or was assisting in the operation of an aircraft or of railway equipment, the court that sentences the offender shall, in addition to any other punishment that may be imposed for that offence, make an order prohibiting the offender from operating a motor vehicle on any street, road, highway or other public place, or from operating a vessel or an aircraft or railway equipment, as the case may be,
(a) for a first offence, during a period of not more than three years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, and not less than one year;
(b) for a second offence, during a period of not more than five years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, and not less than two years; and
(c) for each subsequent offence, during a period of not less than three years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment.
(1.1) If the offender is registered in an alcohol ignition interlock device program established under the law of the province in which the offender resides and complies with the conditions of the program, the offender may, subject to subsection (1.2), operate a motor vehicle equipped with an alcohol ignition interlock device during the prohibition period, unless the court orders otherwise.
(1.2) An offender who is registered in a program referred to in subsection (1.1) may not operate a motor vehicle equipped with an alcohol ignition interlock device until
(a) the expiry of a period of
(i) for a first offence, 3 months after the day on which sentence is imposed,
(ii) for a second offence, 6 months after the day on which sentence is imposed, and
(iii) for each subsequent offence, 12 months after the day on which sentence is imposed; or
(b) the expiry of any period that may be fixed by order of the court that is greater than a period referred to in paragraph (a).
(1.3) and (1.4) [Repealed, 2008, c. 18, s. 8]
(2) If an offender is convicted or discharged under section 730 of an offence under section 220, 221, 236, 249, 249.1, 250, 251 or 252 or any of subsections 255(2) to (3.2) committed by means of a motor vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment, the court that sentences the offender may, in addition to any other punishment that may be imposed for that offence, make an order prohibiting the offender from operating a motor vehicle on any street, road, highway or other public place, or from operating a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment, as the case may be,
(a) during any period that the court considers proper, if the offender is sentenced to imprisonment for life in respect of that offence;
(a.1) during any period that the court considers proper, plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, if the offender is liable to imprisonment for life in respect of that offence and if the sentence imposed is other than imprisonment for life;
(b) during any period not exceeding ten years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, if the offender is liable to imprisonment for more than five years but less than life in respect of that offence; and
(c) during any period not exceeding three years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, in any other case.
(2.1) The court may, when it makes an order under this section prohibiting the operation of a motor vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft or railway equipment, as the case may be, order that the time served under that order be served consecutively to the time served under any other order made under this section that prohibits the operation of the same means of transport and that is in force.
(3) No order made under subsection (1) or (2) shall operate to prevent any person from acting as master, mate or engineer of a vessel that is required to carry officers holding certificates as master, mate or engineer.
(3.1) When an offender is convicted or discharged under section 730 of an offence committed under subsection 249.4(1), the court that sentences the offender shall, in addition to any other punishment that may be imposed for that offence, make an order prohibiting the offender from operating a motor vehicle on any street, road, highway or other public place
(3.2) When an offender is convicted or discharged under section 730 of an offence committed under section 249.3 or subsection 249.4(3), the court that sentences the offender shall, in addition to any other punishment that may be imposed for that offence, make an order prohibiting the offender from operating a motor vehicle on any street, road, highway or other public place
(a) for a first offence, during a period of not more than ten years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, and not less than one year;
(b) for a second offence, during a period of not more than ten years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, and not less than two years; and
(3.3) When an offender is convicted or discharged under section 730 of a first offence committed under section 249.2 or subsection 249.4(4), the court that sentences the offender shall, in addition to any other punishment that may be imposed for that offence, make an order prohibiting the offender from operating a motor vehicle on any street, road, highway or other public place
(a) for an offence under section 249.2, during a period of not less than one year plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment; and
(b) for an offence under subsection 249.4(4), during a period of not more than ten years plus any period to which the offender is sentenced to imprisonment, and not less than one year.
(3.4) When an offender is convicted or discharged under section 730 of an offence committed under section 249.2 or 249.3 or subsection 249.4(3) or (4), the offender has previously been convicted or discharged under section 730 of one of those offences and at least one of the convictions or discharges is under section 249.2 or subsection 249.4(4), the court that sentences the offender shall make an order prohibiting the offender from operating a motor vehicle on any street, road, highway or other public place for life.
(4) Every offender who operates a motor vehicle, vessel or aircraft or any railway equipment in Canada while disqualified from doing so, other than an offender who is registered in an alcohol ignition interlock device program established under the law of the province in which the offender resides and who complies with the conditions of the program,
(5) For the purposes of this section, "disqualification" means
(a) a prohibition from operating a motor vehicle, vessel or aircraft or any railway equipment ordered pursuant to any of subsections (1), (2) and (3.1) to (3.4); or
(b) a disqualification or any other form of legal restriction of the right or privilege to operate a motor vehicle, vessel or aircraft imposed
(i) in the case of a motor vehicle, under the law of a province, or
(ii) in the case of a vessel or an aircraft, under an Act of Parliament,
in respect of a conviction or discharge under section 730 of any offence referred to in any of subsections (1), (2) and (3.1) to (3.4).
260. (1) If a court makes a prohibition order under section 259 in relation to an offender, it shall cause
(a) the order to be read by or to the offender;
(b) a copy of the order to be given to the offender; and
(c) the offender to be informed of subsection 259(4).
(2) After subsection (1) has been complied with in relation to an offender who is bound by an order referred to in that subsection, the offender shall endorse the order, acknowledging receipt of a copy thereof and that the order has been explained to him.
(3) The failure of an offender to endorse an order pursuant to subsection (2) does not affect the validity of the order.
(4) In the absence of evidence to the contrary, where it is proved that a disqualification referred to in paragraph 259(5)(b) has been imposed on a person and that notice of the disqualification has been mailed by registered or certified mail to that person, that person shall, after five days following the mailing of the notice, be deemed to have received the notice and to have knowledge of the disqualification, of the date of its commencement and of its duration.
(5) In proceedings under section 259, a certificate setting out with reasonable particularity that a person is disqualified from
(a) driving a motor vehicle in a province, purporting to be signed by the registrar of motor vehicles for that province, or
(b) operating a vessel or aircraft, purporting to be signed by the Minister of Transport or any person authorized by the Minister of Transport for that purpose
is evidence of the facts alleged therein without proof of the signature or official character of the person by whom it purports to be signed.
(6) Subsection (5) does not apply in any proceedings unless at least seven days notice in writing is given to the accused that it is intended to tender the certificate in evidence.
(7) In subsection (5), "registrar of motor vehicles" includes the deputy of that registrar and any other person or body, by whatever name or title designated, that from time to time performs the duties of superintending the registration of motor vehicles in the province.
261. (1) Subject to subsection (1.1), if an appeal is taken against a conviction or discharge under section 730 for an offence committed under any of sections 220, 221, 236, 249 to 255 and 259, a judge of the court being appealed to may direct that any prohibition order under section 259 arising out of the conviction or discharge shall, on any conditions that the judge or court imposes, be stayed pending the final disposition of the appeal or until otherwise ordered by that court.
(1.1) In the case of an appeal to the Supreme Court of Canada, the direction referred to in subsection (1) may be made only by a judge of the court being appealed from and not by a judge of the Supreme Court of Canada.
(2) If conditions are imposed under a direction made under subsection (1) or (1.1) that a prohibition order be stayed, the direction shall not operate to decrease the period of prohibition provided in the order.
Clause 5: New.


You are here: Home / 2011 / June / 04 / NCAA Sports: Pay for Play – Should College Athletes Be Paid?
Pay for play. The debate over paying college athletes has increased significantly over the years. Auburn has mountains of evidence regarding paying players throughout their history. National Championship-winning Jim Tressel was forced to step down this offseason after not properly monitoring his players improprieties. Steve Spurrier has even announced that he is willing to pay $300 to each player for each game, out of his own pocket.
Today, I will be providing an argument against paying college athletes. As a college student myself, I understand the financial difficulties that entail living expenses. I do NOT believe that college student-athletes should get paid for many reasons.
This is probably the most heard excuse that is used by the student-athletes that are caught. This explanation bears very little meaning and tries to promote family necessity as reasons for doing improprieties. However, if extra monetary help was absolutely necessary, then that financial aid is available in the form of a FAFSA (Free Application for Student Aid).
As a beneficiary of the FAFSA program myself, I can attest to the fact that school tuition, books and rooming can easily be paid off with Grants and Loans alone. This program is highly beneficial to families that don't have financial backings and is based solely off financial needs. There are not any requirements to apply. This program also stacks grants/loans with any scholarships that a student may have earned.
Student-Athletes actually graduate at a higher rate than the general student population. This provides them with an opportunity to double their lifetime earnings. Also, there are over 400,000 student athletes most of which "will go pro in something other than sports". More often than not, pay for play advocates disregard the value of a bachelor's degree and focus on the "money being made off of these athletes", which brings me to my next point.
The strongest argument for pay for play is the idea that schools are making enormous amounts of money off of their student-athletes, which is entirely untrue. Only two dozen schools in Division I sports actually post a profit (More revenue than expenses incurred). So while the media focuses on the revenue of the miniscule number of teams actually posting profit, they have garnered the interest of America to pay these student-athletes.
On top of this fact, only 30% of Div I Football teams and only 26% of Div I Basketball teams post PROFIT.
There is no strong evidence for paying athletes in college, only advocates that are pushing the issue. Always remember to ask questions and don't take anyone's word for the absolute truth (including my own, of course). I can guarantee that there are plenty of pay for play advocates that can debate this issue very well, however the factual information is not there.
The fact of the matter is that there is always money available for those in financial need while in college.


text:
Apollo 11 and 13 checklists
Collection — Box: Assorted rare collections, Box 1, Folder: 1
Contents of the Collection The Apollo 11 and 13 checklists is a small collection consisting of only a few documents. The collection includes two checklists: a "P30 manuever data card" from the Apollo 11 mission, 1969, and the "Apollo-13 LM-7 Contingency Checklist," from the Apollo 13 mission, 1970. The pages include handwritten notes by Buzz Aldrin, James Lovell, and Fred Haise. There is also a letter of authenticity accompanying each page, signed by Buzz Aldrin (Apollo 11) and Fred Haise (Apollo 13) respectively. The...
Apollo 11 Spacecraft Fifty-State Tour Press Kit
Collection — Box: Small Collections Oversize 2019- , oversize: folder
Content Description The Apollo 11 Spacecraft Fifty-State Tour Press Kit is a small collection consisting of the press kit and related materials from the promotional tour of the Apollo 11 command module across the United States in 1970-1971. The press kit includes a folder containing seven 8x10" black-and-white prints, a mission report booklet, a press release with tour schedule, a "Log of Apollo 11" color booklet, and a tour map. Twelve 11x14" color lithograph prints reproducing photographs from the moon landing...
George Hage Apollo Collection
Overview George Hage was NASA's Deputy Director for the Apollo Program. The 17 total Apollo Programs were designed to send astronauts to photograph, map, and eventually walk on, the moon. The collection contains notes about the production of the lunar orbiters and also photographs and news coverage of the successful Apollo missions.
Iva and Homer Metz Space Collection
Overview The Iva and Homer Metz Space Collection documents the careers of both Iva and Homer in aviation and the space industry. It follows their time with the U.S. Navy, the Boeing Company, North American Aviation, and at Cape Canaveral during the Apollo and Skylab programs.
TV Guide from July 19, 1969
Identifier: 2019-00-00-158
Contents of the Collection This small collection conists of one issue of TV Guide from July 19, 1969. The cover of the magazine advertises "the first live telecast from the moon." An 8-page article in the magazine, "Live from the Moon" describes the moon landing event as "TV's most special special."
Names: Apollo 11 (Spacecraft) X
Moon -- Exploration 4
Astronautics 3
press kits 2
Apollo Command Service Module 1
Astronautics and state -- United States 1
Cachets (Philately) 1
Engineers 1
Manned space flight--United States 1
Outer space -- Exploration 1
Space stations 1
checklists 1
covers (philately) 1
lithographs 1

redpajama_set_name: RedPajamaCommonCrawl


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redpajama_set_name: RedPajamaGithub


The Melbourne Cup is a race that has a great appeal around the world. The richest 3200m contest now attracts horses from North America and Europe as trainers chase the prize money with their staying runners. Here is a look at this year's renewal with the best picks if you are looking to have a punt on the 'race which stops a nation'.
Last year's winner Almandin returns to Flemington Park where, if successful, will be become the first horse since 2005 to retain its title in the Melbourne Cup. The Australian gelding was handed a terrible draw in 2016; however, he was able to defy a wide stall to get up late in a close finish. The seven-year-old looks to be in great form this season and could line up in the race much stronger than he was when victorious. It is hard to see him being so unlucky again with the draw; however, if it is wide, the horse can be tucked in during the early stages of the race. The Melbourne Cup is one of the biggest international betting events of the year so, if you want to back the defending champion now, he is available at +600 in the latest outright market for the race. Some punters prefer to place their bet on the day of the race though, where they can read up on all the latest market movers, which can often act as an important guide to the chances of the runners.
Thomas Hobson is a dual-purpose horse that has run at some of the biggest flat and national hunt meetings in the UK and Ireland for his trainer Willie Mullins. His notable success on the flat came earlier this year at Royal Ascot where he won the Ascot Stakes by six lengths in an impressive performance from the Irish horse. On his latest run at the St Leger meeting, Thomas Hobson finished second in the Doncaster Cup; therefore he is set to travel across to Australia in good form. If you are looking for an outsider for the Melbourne Cup this year, the seven-year-old looks over-priced at +2500 to come out on top. If it is a fast run race, it will play into his hands as, given he has featured in numerous national hunt races, stamina won't be a problem for the horse.
The 2017 Melbourne Cup takes place on November 7 and will take place at 23:00 ET. Good luck with your bets.


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text:
Lot 6 George William Kyeyune (Ugandan, born 1962) Untitled, circa 1992
George William Kyeyune (Ugandan, born 1962)
Untitled, circa 1992
Wood and copper
Provenance: private collection of Klaus Betz
George William Kyeyune graduated from the Margaret Trowell School of Fine Arts, Kampala in 1985. He then travelled to India where he achieved an MFA, specializing in Sculpture, from the Maharaja Sayajiraho University of Baroda. The three years that he spent in Gujarat were transformative to Kyeyune's artistic practice; through looking at the Indian religions and art forms which survived colonialism he was encouraged to question his own cultural inheritance.
On returning to Kampala, Kyeyune re-joined the Margeret Trowell School of Fine Arts, teaching Sculpture. He continued his own practice, sculpting and exhibiting widely in Kampala. In 1999 he received a scholarship for doctoral study in History of African Art at the School of Oriental and African Studies, London.
The seller was one of the first to begin collecting Kyeyune's work, from the time he graduated from Makerere in 1985.


Harry Squires was born in Chicago, Illinois. Hospital records make no mention of any wise men arriving to witness the event. He attended journalism school at the University of Missouri and film school at U.C. L.A. He has worked in educational television and radio, the insurance industry, and software marketing.
Eventually, he gave up trying to convince the people around him that he was normal, and dropped out to write horror stories and mysteries for a living.
His philosophy of life can be boiled down to four rules: Never do business with anyone who uses the words "trust" or "honest;" Never eat at a restaurant with the word "gourmet" in the name; Never be the first to load new software or try a new drug.
Some people see the glass as half full, some as half empty. Harry wonders what's in the glass, why it smells so funny, and who poured it.
He currently lives by the beach in Southern California with Susan, his very tolerant wife, and several large, black dogs. The dogs, by the way, are not incarnations of demonic beings—no matter what the neighbors say.


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