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United Nations Commission on Status of Women
Debates of the Senate (Hansard)
3rd Session, 37th Parliament,
The Honourable Dan Hays, Speaker
Hon. Mobina S. B. Jaffer: Honourable senators, "War does not have a single face. Who I am influences how I am impacted and how I act." These thoughts resonated with delegates from around the world last week at the United Nations Commission on the Status of Women in New York.
Women and men from around the world, some of whom have seen and survived conflict, others who have dedicated their lives to the resolution of conflict, sat together and discussed their support for the role of men and boys in achieving gender equality and women's equal participation in conflict prevention, management and conflict resolution and in post-conflict peace building. I am proud to say that
Canada is leading the world in areas of gender and security and is actively implementing United Nations Security Council Resolution 1325.
As Chair of the Canadian Committee on Women, Peace and Security, I participated as a member of the Canadian delegation, which was headed by the Honourable Jean Augustine, Minister of State for Multiculturalism and the Status of Women, to the Commission on the Status of Women. The commission provided a unique opportunity for delegates of member states to meet face to face. Canada had a very active delegation at the commission and was often commended on our groundbreaking initiatives on issues of gender and security. The Canadian Committee on Women, Peace and Security was also quoted as being a "flagship" organization and will now be used as a model for countries like Norway, France, Germany and South Africa.
General Dallaire was also part of the Canadian delegation and spoke to the United Nations launch of Canada's Gender Training Initiative for peacekeepers and the launch of the committee's ID-Rom, which illustrates that women, men, boys and girls all experience war differently. The launch was held at the Permanent Mission of Canada to the United Nations to highlight the partnership between Canada and the United Kingdom in piloting this unique training course. The Department of Peacekeeping Operations at the UN was also interested in Canada's work, and we shared our ID-Rom training package with them. We look forward to working together on future initiatives.
Honourable senators, UN Resolution 1325 clearly calls for gender training for peacekeepers, and Canada is moving toward making that promise a reality. The Canadian Committee on Women, Peace and Security believes that to ensure that women are protected in zones of conflict where Canadian peacekeepers are in operation, soldiers must be trained to understand that everyone is affected differently by conflict and that sexual violence against women is used as a weapon of war. Further, in areas of conflict when men join or are forced to fight or are missing, it is primarily women who hold communities together. However, women are rarely at the peace table. To build sustainable peace, we must understand the gender dimension of conflicts.
On behalf of the Canadian Committee on Women, Peace and Security and the Canadian delegation to the United Nations Commission on the Status of Women, I would like to thank Ambassador Rock and Ambassador Laurin for hosting the delegation and for their strong commitment to the women, peace and security agenda.
The Hon. the Speaker pro tempore: I regret to advise the honourable senator that her time has expired.


Our Forever Family Day is very special to us. The day is also my birthday. A very special day that I now share with my mother... she was blessed with a daughter on that day many (many) years ago, and now just three years ago I was also blessed with a daughter on that day.
As with previous years, we spend our special day by celebrating at our favorite Chinese restaurant in town. Some gifts are often exchanged, for me, for the Bug, and for the family. This year the Bug received her favorite new movie, Tinkerbell and the Lost Treasure, and I received a beautiful silver and glass necklace created by my two favorite people.
We enjoyed a wonderful evening on our very special day. I am truly blessed.
Happy Family Day and Happy Belated Birthday!!


text:
Final Study
Vasauskas
Sandy Y.
The methylation state of an individual CpG island:
can change over time in response to environmental cues, allowing genes to be turned on or off as needed.
A histone code is:
the pattern f chemical modification of an individual histone's tail.
In early humans and other mammals, X-inactivation takes place:
early in development, with each new cell inheriting the same inactive X chromosome as its parent cell.
Which process produces multiple proteins from the same primary transcript in the same cell?
RNA editing
MicroRNA (miRNA) regulates gene expression by:
inhibiting translation by binding to RNA transcripts.
Lysosomes are organelles normally associated with how enzymes normally break down proteins to help with protein recycling in the cell. A family of genetic disorders, called lysosomal storage disorders, has defects in this system. In some of these diseases, proteins that normally move to the lysosomes fail to be transported properly in the call. As a result, lysosomes do not properly recycle proteins. Which of the following could produce this kind of disorder?
blockage of post-translational modification
You identify a mutation affecting the lactose operon and find the following:
lacZ is expressed whether lactose is present or not.
lacI is expressed normally.
lacO is deleted
The early cell divisions of human development differ from other mitotic cell divisions in that:
cells do not grow in size; they subdivide the cytoplasm of the fertilized egg
The body of the human embryo develops from the ___ of the blastocyst.
inner cell mass
Which of the following lists cell types in order from those capable of differentiating into the greatest number of different specialized cells to those capable of differentiating into the least number of different specialized cells?
totipotent, pluripotent, multipotent
Which of the following correctly matches a cell or group of cells with its ability to differentiate into different specialized cells?
fertilized egg: multipotent
Gene regulation during development is ____, which means that ____.
hierarchical; genes expressed at each stage control the expression of genes that act later
Maternal-effect genes:
are expressed by mother and affect offspring phenotype.
In almost all organisms that have been studied, the genes in Hox clusters:
are arranged on chromosomes in the same order as their products function along the anterior-posterior segments of the embryo.
In mammals, Hox genes:
direct development of structures that become parts of the hindbrain, spinal cord, and vertebral column.
Evolutionarily conserved molecules:
are similar in sequence among distantly related organisms, were likely present in their most recent common ancestor, and have likely changed very little because they serve a vital function.
As a transcription factor, Pax6:
activiates some target genes and represses others
Signal transduction is the process by which:
an extracellular molecule activates a membrane protein, which in turn activates molecules inside the cell
A mutation occurs that causes a defect in the development of skeletal muscle. Which of the following kinds of cells are affected?
From an evolutionary perspective, germ-line mutations are more significant than somatic mutations. This is because:
somatic mutations affect only one or a few cells and only germ-line mutations will appear in an individual's descendants.
T or F: Mutations always result in the death of the organism which acquires them.
T or F: Interactions between organisms lead to the evolution of particular traits in those organisms.
An explanation supported by a large body of observations and experimentation is referred to as a(n):
Variation among individuals in a species is usually caused by:
both environmental variation and genetic variation
Which of the following is characteristic of both living organisms and non-living material?
obeying the basic laws of chemistry and physics
Which of the following components of an amino acid differs from one amino acid to the next?
the side chain
Which of the following correctly pairs the particles of an atom with their physical properties?
Proton-positively charged; neutron-uncharged; electron-negatively charged
T or F: If a DNA molecule is visualized as a wood screw from a hardware store, the threads in the screw are spaced identical distances from each other.
Which one of the following is a primary component of both living organisms and the Earth's crust?
The chemical reactions required to sustain life are collectively referred to as a cell's ___.
Which of the following correctly reflects the process of science?
Observation -> question -> hypothesis formulation -> experiment -> support or refute hypothesis
Which of the following are covalent bonds?
peptide bonds
glycosidic bonds
phosphodiester bonds
Consider the structure and function of DNA. Which of the following statements is true?
If the sequence of one DNA strand is known, then the sequence of the other strand can be determined.
Which of the following is true of DNA?
A purine always forms a base pair with a pyrimidine.
Which of the following post-transcriptional modification is common in eukaryotes?
Polyadenylation
Intron removal
5' cap addition
Alternative splicing allows for:
different polypeptides to be made from a single gene.
In which one of the following cellular processes is RNA involved?
Which of the following nucleotides hydrogen base pairs with adenine in an RNA molecule?
You are investigating an abnormal eukaryotic cell line that makes all of its mRNAs much longer than the mRNAs from normal cells (that is, they have more nucleotides than usual). Intrigued, you examine the proteins in these abnormal cells and note that many of them are either much longer or much shorter than the normal proteins from nonmutant cells. Assuming there is just one mutant defect in these cells, what is that defect?
RNA polymerase does not recognize the terminator sequence.
A phosphodiester bond is formed between:
a 5' phosphate and a 3' hydroxyl group.
Sometimes atoms gain or lose particles. The loss of which of the following would result in a chamge of atomic mass?
Transcription is the process by which:
RNA is synthesized from DNA
Which one of the following is not part of the scientific method?
Sometimes atoms gain or lose particles. The loss of which of the following would result in a change of overall electrical charge?
protons or electrons
Which one of the following types of organisms most closely resembles the original prokaryotes?
A template stand of DNA is read in the ___ direction in order to direct synthesis of RNA in the ___ direction.
3'-5' ; 5'-3'
Transcription continues until:
a stop codon is encountered.
In the DNA of certain bacterial cells, 16% of the nucleotides are adenine. What are the percentages of the other nucleotides in the bacterial DNA?
16% thymidine, 34% guanine, 34% cytosine
Which one of the following statements about viruses is incorrect?
Viruses posses the ability to harness energy from the environment.
What is a hypothesis?
A tentative explanation that can be tested by experiments
If you isolate a single nucleotide from a nucleic acid chain and determine that the nitrogenous ring structure is cytosine, you could say with certainty that the nucleotide could have come from:
either DNA or RNA
Which of the following most accurately describes a polar covalent bond?
the unequal sharing of electrons between an atom with a partial positive charge and an atom with a partial negative charge.
T or F: Although monosaccharides can exist in linear form, virtually all cellular monosccharides are found in circular forms.
In the DNA sequence 5'--TGAC--3', the phosphodiester linkage between the guanine and the adenine connects:
the 3' end of the guanine to the 5' end of the adenine.
Which of the following is maintained during a chemical reaction?
the number and identity of the atoms present in the reactants
T or F: During transcription of a given protein-coding gene, both strands are used as template.
Non-virulent bacteria can be prevented from being transformed into virulent bacteria if the debris from heat-killed virulent bacteria is first treated with: (choose all that apply)
Complete the following sentence.
An exon is __________.
part of an intact, mature mRNA that leaves the nucleus
What is the order of processes that support the central dogma?
DNA replication, transcription, translation
Imagine walking through a tropical rainforest. You notice that there are different types of trees, birds, insects and a plethora of other living things. A few weeks later you are taking a walk through a desert and notice that the trees, birds, insects and many other living things are different than those you saw in the rainforest. Which of the following statements best explains the differences between each of the ecological systems?
The manner in which organisms interact with each other and their physical environment shapes the diversity found in an ecological system.
T or F: The cell is the simplest biological entity that can exist independently.
T or F: Lipids are hydrophilic.
T or F: Water is a polar molecule because shared electrons are distributed equally between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms.
T or F: In prokaryotes, the primary transcript is immediately translated into protein.
The two types of secondary structure interactions are referred to as:
a-helix and b-sheet.
When the peptide bond is created between amino acid 1 and amino acid 2:
the carboxyl group of amino acid 1 is joined to the amino group of amino acid 2.
The function of a protein is dependent upon the shape into which the chain of amino acids folds. Many non-covalent interactions are responsible for maintaining the protein's shape. Assume you have isolated a protein from an organism in its proper shape, and you have treated it with an enzyme that selectively breaks only the peptide bonds in the proteins. Would the protein retain its shape under these conditions?
No; whereas the non-covalent bonds determine the shape of a protein, the peptide bonds are required to hold the amino acids together.
T or F: The limitations of the genetic code are such that a single amino acid may be no more than four codons.
T or F: Because there are four RNA nucleotides and each codon is three nucleotides long, there are 64 possible codons, each of which directs the ribosome to incorporate a specific amino acid into a growing polypeptide chain.
Suppose that codons consisted of two nucleotides instead of three, but there were still 20 amino acids to be incorporated into proteins during translation. If this were the case, indicate the following statements as T or F.
There would still be enough codons to maintain the fidelity of the genetic code and provide stop codons.
Redundancy would be eliminated; in fact, there would not be enough two-base codons to specify all 20 amino acids or act as stop codons.
Most codons would probably specify a single amino acid. However, some codons would have to specify more than one amino acid or an amino acid and a stop codon.
Which of the following would be found in the cells of a blade of grass but not in the cells of an insect feeding on that grass? Select all correct choices.
T or F: Purified phospholipids will gather together and form membranes only if the appropriate enzyme is present.
Which component(s) of a phospholipid would most likely be found in the interior of a lipid bi-layer? Select all correct choices.
Some drugs are now being delivered into cells through liposomes, where the drug is surrounded by a phospholipid bi-layer. How do the drugs enter the cell?
The liposome fuses with the phospholipid bi-layer of the cell.
Which of the following molecules would most likely require a transport protein to cross the plasma membrane of a red blood cell?
Some diseases can result from defective transport across the membrane. For example, cystic fibrosis results from a chloride ion transporter that does not function. Which of the following would be affected when this transporter does not function?
Both A and B
the chloride concentration gradient
the electrical gradient of the cell
Disorders of which organelle are often associated with defects in transport from compartment to compartment, resulting in poor sorting of protein components within the cell?
Secondary structure is characterized by which of the following types of interactions?
Hydrogen bonding within the peptide backbone
The genetic code is:
T or F: Sixty-one of the 64 possible codons specify amino acids, whereas the other three are stop codons. Each of the 61 codons specifies just one amino acid.
T or F: Some amino acids are specified by just one codon, whereas others are specified by multiple codons.
The active maintenance of a constant environment is referred to as:
Which of the following accurately describes the path traveled by a new protein as it is synthesized and released from the cell?
cytosol -> ER -> Golgi -> transport vesicle -> plasma membrane -> external environment
Some diseases, such as Tay-Sachs, are caused by the defective breakdown of cellular components. Which of the following organelles is defective?
The electrical component of an electrochemical gradient is due to:
a greater concentration of positive charges on the side of the membrane with the highest concentration of protons.
A cellular response to a signal can be terminated by:
All of these choices are correct.
depletion of the signal that activates the receptor.
inactivation of intracellular signal-transduction proteins.
automatic inactivation of proteins in the signal pathway over time.
depletion of a second messenger.
Which type of signal receptor does not generally involve transduction of a signal with the transfer of a phosphate group? (Select all that apply.)
G protein-coupled receptor
ligand-gated ion channel
nuclear receptor
Which of the following statements about "excitable membranes" is correct? (Select all that apply.)
Cells spend a significant amount of energy to pump Na+ out of muscle cells at rest.
The difference in charge across a plasma membrane is called a membrane potential.
Acetylcholine released from a nerve cell binds to a ligand-gated ion channel at the plasma membrane of a muscle cell.
Microfilaments grow longer:
more quickly at one end than the other.
by growing outward from the centrosome.
in cycles, following rapid depolymerization.
if free tubulin dimers are available.
Myosin motor proteins use ATP energy to:
carry vesicles along a microfilament within a cell in a minus-to-plus direction.
Choose from the following terms to fill in the blanks in correct order.
A. ligand
B. signaling cell
C. receptor
D. responding cell
BADC
In communication between cells, the signaling cell produces the signaling molecule, also know as the ligand; the responding cell produces the receptor, to which the signaling molecule binds.
Nicotine from cigarette smoke acts as a ligand and associates with specific cells in the nervous system. Nicotine eventually produces feelings of pleasure and well-being. Below are the events that happen in the cellular response to nicotine. Place the events in the correct order to describe the five basic steps in the pathway of a signal transduction system (receptor binding, receptor activation, signal transduction and amplification, response, and termination).
C, A, B, D, E
C. Nicotine binds to the transmembrane protein that normally binds the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
A. The acetylcholine receptor is an ion channel, and, when a ligand binds, the ion channel opens.
B. An influx of ions causes and action potential, which carries the signal to the reward areas of the brain.
D. The signal causes release of dopamine in the brain, which causes good feelings.
E. Nicotine is quickly eliminated from the body...
Which is not one of the steps in cell signaling?
obtaining a high density of signaling peptide
You strip off any proteins on the cell surface by using a protease (enzyme that cleaves proteins). Now when you add a specific signaling molecule, the cell still responds. Why is this?
The receptor is on the interior of the cell.
How would the signal of a G protein-coupled receptor, without ligand, be affected if you made an enzyme that converted GDP to GTP constitutively?
The G protein would be active and signaling despite the lack of ligand.
Which of the following comparisons between gap junctions and plasmodesmata is not true?
Both allow exchange of material between cells, but gap junctions allow larger-sized molecules to transfer between cells.
What would happen to the microfilaments in a cell if the process of dynamic instability were interrupted so that only polymerization continued?
At the migrating edge the microfilaments would grow in one direction and remain growing in that direction.
Which is not an example of a motor protein?
Which cell adhesion molecule is particularly good at attaching the cell to the basement membrane?
T or F: During meiosis, two rounds of DNA synthesis are required to form four gametes from one parent cell?
Which of the following happens during Prophase I of meiosis?
recombination between sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
Homologous pairs of chromosomes are separated during ____.
meiosis I
A skin cell in G2 of interphase has _____ as much DNA as it had in G1.
Which of the following would most likely contribute to uncontrolled cell proliferation (i.e., cancer)?
A mutant CDK that was active in the absence of its cyclin binding partner.
Consider a diploid organism (2n) with a haploid compliment (n) of four chromosomes. At Prophase I, how many total chromosomes will be present in a cell?
eight, four pairs of homologous chromosomes
You investigate the cytoskeleton and found that all three elements, including the one you suspected, are completely normal. You then decide to look at the motor proteins to see if the cause might lie with one of them. Which of the following would be your hypothesis?
The melanophores in these tadpoles have partially or non-functionally dynein that would normally transport organelles along microtubules to the center of the cell.
If a mutation occurred in the cadherin gene so that the cytoplasmic domain no longer attached to the cytoskeleton, which of the following would occur?
Cadherins in desmosomes would no longer be anchored to intermediate filaments.
A homologous chromosome pair is best described as two chromosomes that have ____.
the same genes in the same order but possibly with different alleles of some of the genes
Taxol is an anti-cancer drug that prevents uncontrolled cell proliferation by stabilizing microtubules, which causes arrest of the cell cycle. If dividing cells are treated with Taxol, at what stage of the cell cycle would you predict the arrest would occur?
How many copies of each gene are present in skin cells at G1 of interphase?
You are investigating a particular cell type, and you notice that a protein normally found in the lysosome ends up being secreted from the cell. This appears to be the only thing wrong with these cells. Of the following conditions, which is the most likely cause of this defect in these cells?
The signal sequence on the lysosomal protein is defective.
Defects in which of the following structures are responsible for a condition called "exercise intolerance," where individuals suffer extreme fatigue from minimal exertion?
Molecular oxygen (O2), which is required for the production of ATP by mitochondria, must pass through at least three membranes to get to the enzymes where it is used. O2 is also produced in chloroplasts and must pass through at least four membranes to be released from the plant. How does O2 move across biological membranes?
O2 is nonpolar, and very small, so it can diffuse across the membrane.
Some patients with defective mitochondria in their muscles are extremely limited in their ability to exerciser. Muscle biopsy followed by microscopic examination of the mitochondria, reveal that they are of normal size, but their inner membranes are not as convoluted as normal mitochondria. How can this mitochondrial defect cause the described symptoms in the patients?
A less convoluted membrane has less surface area, so there is not as much of the ATP-making machinery.
Anabolic pathways of metabolism are pathways that ______.
build complex molecules from simple ones
Overall, this ____ based on the changes in free energy that take place as A is converted to E.
is an anabolic pathway
This pathway is a series of ____ reaction(s).
The reaction that converts C to D is ______.
an exergonic reaction
The greatest change in free energy occurs when ______.
B is converted to C
The potential energy in a molecule of ATP is held in the:
repulsion of the phosphate groups from each other.
Suppose you use a match to ignite a sheet of paper from your notebook, and allow the fire to continue until the burning stops. If you could measure all the energy in the resulting combustion products, and all the energy in the heat released (including whatever increase in disorder has occurred), would you predict this amount to be more than, less than, or the same amount as the amount of potential energy in the starting sheet of paper? (You should ignore the activation energy provided by the match to light the
the same energy as the paper
Which of the following statements reflects the second law of thermodynamics?
The amount of useable energy resulting from a reaction will always be less than the total energy available in the starting materials.
T or F: An uncatalyzed reaction has a higher Delta G than the same reaction when catalyzed by an enzyme.
The energy in organic molecules is released in a series of steps because:
more energy can be harvested for cellular use in multiple steps than from a single step.
Most of the ATP produced during cellular respiration is generated through:
oxidative phosphorylation.
When carbohydrates are oxidized, the C-H bonds of the carbohydrate become C-O bonds of carbon dioxide. Oxidation is defined as a loss of electrons, but carbon does not become positively charged in the process. Why then is this considered carbon oxidation?
The shared electrons in C-O bonds spend less time close to the carbon nucleus than shared electrons in C-H bonds.
Complete oxidation of glucose to CO2 involves two different mechanisms for synthesizing ATP, oxidative phosphorylation and substrate-level phosphorylation. Which is true of substrate-level phosphorylation?
An enzyme catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group to ADP from an organic molecule to form ATP.
Glycolysis is a series of chemical reactions (endergonic and ecergonic) by which the cell can obtain ATP. NAD+ plays a crucia
accepting electrons from glucose so that glucose gets partially oxidized to pyruvate.
You are trying to find the best maximum source of energy for an organism. Which of the following compounds would you choose?
When fats are used as an energy source, the fatty acids are broken down to acetyl-CoA. That means that fats bypass the reactions of ____ and enter the respiratory pathway at ________.
glycolysis; the citric acid cycle
In step 6 of the citric acid cycle, succinate + FAD -> fumarate + FADH2. Which statement concerning this reaction is true?
A and C are both correct.
Fumarate is more oxidized than succinate.
FAD is an oxidizing agent in the reaction.
During photosynthesis, _____ is reduced to ______.
carbon dioxide; glucose
Arrange the steps in the Calvin cycle in order from earliest to latest.
carboxylation, reduction, regeneration
Leaves absorb the least amount of light in the _____ range of the visible light spectrum.
Photorespiration results in:
the consumption of ATP and the loss of CO2.
The pH in the stroma of the chloroplast should be _____ compared to the thylakoids due to the _____.
higher; higher concentration of hydrogen ions in the thylakoid
Which product(s) of the Calvin cycle is (are) exported from the chloroplast for use by the plant cell?
triose phosphates
A new experimental pesticide is being tested by a large agricultural chemical company. An unfortunate side effect in plants treated with this new product is a decrease in NADPH production in the chloroplasts. (Interestingly, reduction of NAD+ to NADH in the mitochondria is unaffected.) Given this observation, which of the following would you expect to observe in the chloroplasts of these plants?
an increase in 3-phosphoglycerate levels and a decrease in RuBP production
Photorespiration in chloroplasts resembles cellular respiration in mitochondria in that ______.
carbon dioxide is produced in both pathways
Photorespiration in chloroplasts differs from cellular respiration in mitochondria in that _____.
ATP is required for photorespiration but is a product of mitochondrial respiration
Normally, the xanthophylls present in the thylakoid membrane are associated mainly with photosystem II. If a mutation occurred that caused xanthophylls to be randomly distributed in the thylakoid membrane, which of the following would you predict would happen?
The frequency of nonspecific oxidation of molecules in the cell would increase.
Communication between neurons is an example of which type of cell signaling?
paracrine
In spite of their heterogeneity, steroid hormones:
bind intracellular receptors to form complexes that migrate to the nucleus.
The cytoskeleton of animal cells include:
microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments
Some cytoskeletal elements are more permanent than others. Which components of the cytoskeleton are dynamic structures?
both microtubules and microfilaments
Paramecium is a single-cell eukaryotic organism that can reproduce by mitotic cell division. Prior to the M phase of the cell cycle, which of the following must occur?
The cell must replicate its chromosomes.
Given that the correct number of chromosomes is vital to the proper functioning of the cell, which of the statements below is correct if a cell passes from G1 to S phase in the cell cycle?
The cell completes the process of cell division or it dies
Sister chromatids are best described at two DNA molecules that have _____.
virtually identical sequences of nucleotides.
Colchicine is a drug that is used in plant breeding to create polyploids. It blocks the assembly of microtubules. If dividing cells are treated with Colchicine, at what stage of mitosis would you predict the arrest would occur?
Which of the following would be most likely to lead to the development of cancer?
the activation of an oncogene and an inactivating mutation in a tumor suppressor gene
When nutrients are suboptimal for cell growth and division, the cell cycle arrests. At which stage of the cell cycle/checkpoint would you predict this arrest to occur?
G1 checkpoint
The FoxP2 gene that is thought to be related to language in humans. At Prophase I, how many copies of the FoxP2 gene are present in a cell? Keep in mind that humans are diploid.
four copies, one on each sister chromatid in a pair of homologous chromosomes
In a study of tadpole coloration, you notice that a certain percentage of tadpoles in a population displayed a decreased ability to shift from dark coloration at night to light coloration during the day. These individuals were studied and found to have the normal number of melanophores that produced normal amounts of melanin pigment granules. You remember reading about melanophores and pigment granule transport in cells and that it involved they cytoskeleton. Which part of the cytoskeleton would....
Prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells reproduce by cell division. Regardless of the type of cell, all cells must ______ before they divide.
make an exact copy of their genetic information
The correct sequence of steps in the eukaryotic cell cycle is ________.
G1 -> S phase -> G2 -> mitosis -> cytokinesis
The epithelial cells in the skin of an animal have 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are present in the gametes of this animal?
CDKs are important int he regulation of the cell cycle. They carry out their function by _____.
adding phosphate groups to target proteins
Many mutations in receptor kinases that lead to cancer allow the dimerization and activation of the receptor, even in the absence of signaling molecule. An example of this is a mutant form of the EGF receptor kinase called Her2/neu. An antibody that prevents dimerization of Her2/neu receptor kinases is being tested for its effectiveness in stopping cancer. At which stage would this drug work?
It would prevent the receptor from becoming activated.
Which type of cell signaling does not rely on the diffusion of a chemical signal molecule?
juxtacrine
The high variability of the types of G protein-coupled receptors allows for:
different types of cells to respond to different types of signals.
T or F: G-proteins are composed of at least five subunits, denoted B, u, n, a, and y.
Microtubules go through rounds of growth and rapid shrinkage called:
dynamic instability
Cell adhesion molecules allow cells to attach to:
a and b only
other cells
extracellular matrix proteins
T or F: Cancers usually result from on single mutation.
The process of cytoplasmic division (or in other words, complete cell division) in eukaryotic cells is termed:
cytokinesis
T or F: Meiosis II is similar to mitosis, in which chromosomes align on the metaphase plate, centromeres divide, and sister chromatids separate from each other.
The technique of Sanger sequencing takes advantage of the fact that dideoxynucleotides (nucleotides in which the 3' hydroxyl group is absent) act as
chain terminators.
Examples of transgenetic organisms include:
crop plants engineered to resist insect pests.
rice enriched with vitamin A
sheep that produce a human protein in their milk that is used to treat emphysema.
laboratory mice that develop heart disease and diabetes.
T or F: Sequences that are conserved (i.e., similar in many different organisms) are unlikely to be functionally important.
The genome of viruses consists of:
Viruses genomes can contain any of the nucleic acids listed.
double-stranded DNA
single-stranded DNA
double-stranded RNA
single-stranded RNA
Homologous chromosomes can be defined as:
pairs of chromosomes that match in size and appearance.
When DNA with variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs) is sequenced and visualized on a gel, the resulting fragments separate according to their:
Human triploid and tetraploid fetuses occur, but they are inviable and undergo spontaneous abortion. Any of the following events could produce a polyploid fetus EXCEPT:
defective spindle apparatus during early mitosis.
Which of the following is not a part of the MAP kinase pathway? (Select all that apply.)
A pyrophosphatase enzyme terminates the cellular response.
An increased heart rate cause by the release of adrenaline from the adrenal glands is an example of ______.
endocrine signaling
Vascular endothelial growth factor (abbreviated as VEGF and pronounced "Veg-F") is a peptide-signaling molecule related to platelet-derived growth factor. VEGF is important in the formation of the circulatory system because its signaling pathway cause the formation of new blood vessels that supply tumors when the tumor produces and secretes VEGF, which of the following is true?
VEGF is a paracrine-signaling molecule because it binds to VEGF receptors on cells at the site where new blood vessels are needed.
T or F: G-proteins are composed of three subunits, denoted B, a, and y.
Which of the following is not true about how communities of cells interact within tissues?
All cells in a tissue carry out the same function independently.
Which of the following is an example of the prevention of cellular signaling?
Allergy medicines called antihistamines bind to and block histamine receptors to keep fluids in capillaries that would normally be released and cause stuffy noses and watery eyes.
Imagine that you are a medical student working in a cancer research laboratory. Your boss has given you samples of cancer cells and blood from a patient. She has told you that the cells have no mutations in any of their signaling molecule proteins (i.e., all the proteins are normal), but the cells' signaling transduction properties are not normal, causing them to be cancerous. Which of the following could account for the increased cell proliferation in the patient?
The cells taken from the patient have more growth factor receptors than normal.
The concentration of a signaling molecule in the patient is higher in the patient than usual.
The extent and duration of cellular response to a signal depend on:
the binding affinity of the receptor to the signaling molecule.
the concentration of the signaling molecule in the vicinity of the receptor.
the level of expression of the signal-transduction proteins.
the level of expression of the terminating proteins.
When we say that DNA replication is semiconservative, we mean that:
when DNA is replicated, each new double helix contains one parental strand and one newly synthesized daughter strand.
An experiment is performed where the RNA primers are labeled with a fluorescent marker that glows when viewed with a microscope. How could this technique distinguish the leading strand from the lagging strand of a replication fork?
The lagging strand would glow more.
Insertions and deletions that occur in multiples of three nucleotides:
add or delete amino acids to/from the normal polypeptide.
Which of the following enzymes would be the first to bind to the DNA sequences at the origin of replication?
DNA helicase
During the shotgun approach to genome sequencing, the sequenced fragments originate from:
random sites scattered across the genome.
Complex organisms can be characterized as having:
None of the answer options are correct; there is no correlation between the complexity of an organism and these characteristics.
Dynamic instability of microtubules:
allows microtubules to perform their functions.
Which of the following statements about intracellular transport is true?
Microtubules and microfilaments facilitate cellular movement, but intermediate filaments do not.
In order for a tumor cell to metastasize, which of the following would you expect to happen?
a decrease in cadherin expression and an increase of integrin expression
Frameshift mutations:
change the entire amino acid sequence downstream from the site of the insertion or deletion.
The process of gene duplication and divergence refers to:
Answers a and b are both correct.
creating new genes by mutation in duplicates of old genes.
the creation of gene families, which are genes that are similar across a range of organisms.
Mismatch repair, base excision repair, and nucleotide excision repair are similar in that (select all that apply) :
each uses an undamaged segment of DNA as the template to repair a damaged segment of DNA.
The phenotype of an individual results from an interaction between:
genotype and the environment.
What would happen to a cell that depends on flagellar movement if it had no actin?
Nothing; the cell would still be able to move.
Malignancies develop step-wise over time because:
it takes multiple mutations of multiple genes to allow cancer cells to rapidly divide and invade tissues.
Which of the following statements about restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs) is correct?
RFLPs are the product of cleavage by restriction enzymes.
RFLPs are variations in restriction sited that result in DNA being cleaved into different sized pieces.
RFLPs are numerous in the human population.
RFLPs can serve as a genetic fingerprint in forensic analyses.
The correct sequence of steps in the M phase of the cell cycle is __________.
prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
Are all point mutations SNPs?
No, because SNPs require a certain frequency in the population.
T or F: Chromosomal DNA has many origins of replication and replication proceeds from all of these almost simultaneously in eukaryotic cells.
T or F: In DNA denaturation, two complimentary strands of DNA are brought together.
The sequence of an organism's genome can be determined by breaking up the genome into small fragments, sequencing these fragments, and then putting the sequences back together at their overlaps. What can make this process difficult?
sequences that are repeated in the genome
The C-value paradox:
describes the observation that the size of the genome does not correlate with an organism's complexity.
T or F: Virus genomes fit neatly into gene families and are easily organized into groups based on their many similarities.
X-rays are common mutagens. X-rays cause the following DNA damage:
C and D only
single-stranded DNA breaks
double-stranded DNA breaks
T or F: Base excision repair corrects individual nucleotides and involves several DNA repair enzymes working together.
A person's genotype can be homozygous. This means:
he or she has inherited two alleles of the same type, one from each parent
The phenotype of an organism:
is any observable characteristic of that organism
One of the DNA replication proteins/enzymes is altered in a way that results in an increase rate of single base changes in the newly synthesized DNA strand. Which function is most likely to be disrupted?
the proofreading function of DNA polymerase
When chromosomes have either duplications or deletions, the chances that the mutation will be harmful are a function of:
its size--the larger the duplication or deletion, the greater the chance of harm.
T or F: Using current DNA-sequencing technology, it is possible to sequence an entire chromosome (e.g., human chromosome 1, which contains approximately 250 million nucleotides) at once as one long fragment.
Which of the following would be found in DNA sequences but not in mRNA sequences?
transcription start sites
DNA helicase:
unwinds the DNA duplex
Topoisomerase II:
relieves stress on the replication fork caused by unwinding
DNA polymerase:
attaches DNA nuclotides to an RNA primer
Single-stranded binding proteins:
prevents strands of DNA from rejoining after being unwound
A defect occurs where DNA replication proceeds, but the RNA primers are not removed and replaced with DNA. Which enzyme is most likely to be defective in this system?
DNA polymerase
A pea plant is heterozygous (Aa) for seed color and heterozygous (Bb) for seed shape. According to Mendel's principal of independent assortment:
a gamete that receives the dominant allele for seed color is equally likely to receive the dominant allele for seed shape as it is the recessive allele for seed shape.
Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. If a non-carrier female (homozygous for the non-mutant allele) mated with an affected man, what would be the expected outcome(s)?
None of the offspring (sons or daughters) would be color blind.
If you were male and sent a biological sample to a DTC (direct-to-consumer) genetic testing service, it could tell you:
the possible ethnic origin of your Y chromosome.
In genetic mapping, a map unit is defined as:
the distance between genes resulting in 1% recombination
When X-linked traits are recessive:
males who express the trait receive the recessive allele from their mothers and carry the recessive allele on their X chromosomes
The phenotypes of complex traits vary with both genotype and environment. An important implication of this is that:
we can't predict the expression of a genotype without knowing its environment.
we can't predict how a given environment will affect the expression of a trait without knowing its genotype
no one genotype will produce the "best" phenotype in all environments.
several different genotypes may produce equally fit phenotypes in the same environment.
A trait with high heritability will:
respond quickly to both artificial selection and natural selection.
According to the principal of segregation, a heterozygous plant with alleles Aa will produce:
50% of gametes with the A allele and 50% of gametes with the a allele, on average.
A key difference between single-gene traits such as those Mendel studied and complex traits such as human height is that:
single-gene traits are generally uninfluenced by the environment, whereas complex traits have a significant environmental component.
If you crossed two heterozygous yellow seed pea plants (genotypes Aa):
All of the answer options would be true.
the relative frequency of the a allele in each parent's gametes would be 1/2.
the relative frequency of green seed plants (genotype aa) would be 1/4.
the relative frequency of homozygous yellow seed plants (genotype AA) would be 1/4.
You are examining a human pedigree for a trait. You notice that an offspring can be affected even if neither parent is affected. This immediately tells you that the trait is:
recessive.
Two individuals with the same genotype may not express the same phenotype because gene expression is influenced by:
a combination of genes and environment.
A farmer in Kansas and a farmer in California each plant an acre of the same kind of corn. Because the environment differs for each field, how will this affect the height of their corn?
Both the average height of the corn and the variation in corn height within each field could differ between fields.
If Mendel based his data only on two traits, and the genes influencing those traits were linked and located close together on the same chromosome, which of his laws would he not have been able to resolve?
The Law of Independent Assortment
Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. If a carrier female (heterozygous for the trait) mated with a normal male, what would be the expected outcome(s)?
None of the daughters would have hemophilia, and half of the sons would have hemophilia.
Four genes (A, B, C, D) are in the same chromosome. The distance between A and B is 4 map units, between A and C is 6 map units, between A and D is 1 map unit, between B and C is two map units, and between B and D is 5 map units. The correct order of genes in the chromosome is:
C, B, A, D
Y-linked traits:
only affect males, and affect all sons of an affected male.
What pattern in a pedigree characterize a trait determined by the mitochondrial genome?
All offspring of an affected female show the trait, and males never transmit the trait to their offspring.
A true difference between a cross involving an autosomal gene versus a sex-linked gene would be that:
the phenotype outcomes of females compared to the males can be different
For an X-linked gene, which of the following genotype options are possible?
A female can be homozygous or heterozygous for this gene
What is the highest recombination frequency between two genes on the same chromosome?
Inbred lines of animals, such as laboratory mice, are useful for studying complex traits because:
individuals are genetically identical, so differences in traits must be due to environmental differences.
Sometimes certain diseases affect all sons of an affected father, even when the mother is unaffected. What is the best explanation of this?
The disease-related gene is on the Y chromosome.
Why didn't Mendel discover the nature of sex chromosomes in his pea plants?
Peas and most other plants do not have sex chromosomes.
Consider an X-linked recessive trait:
an affected mother is expected to have affected sons
If you tracked an individual X chromosome from a male to his first generation offspring, then to his second generation offspring, what pattern would you see?
His X chromosome would be found only in his daughters, then in both his granddaughters and grandsons.
Consider and X-linked dominant trait, if an unaffected woman and an affected man decide to have children, then which of the following statements is true about the possibilities for their children?
Their daughters are expected to be heterozygous for the associated gene.
Which of the following would be good examples of genotype-by-environment interactions?
a line of dairy cows that increases milk yield in relation to feed amount
Which of the graphs below would likely represent the distribution of a complex trait?
graph a
bell curve
Consider the following data for concordance rates between fraternal and identical twins for three random traits.
Which of the traits above shows the least genetic influence?
Suppose that in the general public the percentage of people showing Trait 3 is 72%. What does this imply about the genetic influence on the trait?
Genetic influence cannot be determined from these data.
The muscle cells and nerve cells in a mouse look very different and serve very different functions in the mouse's body. These differences are because the muscle cells and nerve cells in the mouse _________.
express different genes
Human ABO blood groups are determined by a single gene with 3 alleles: A, B, and O. In a sample of 300 individuals, 100 are blood type A and genotype AA, 100 are blood type B and genotype BO, and 100 are blood type O and genotype OO. What are the allele frequencies?
300 individuals=600 alleles
A x 200
B x 100
O x 300
33.3% A, 16.6% B, 50% O
In New Mexico, large expanses of black lava create patches of unique habitat. If, in every generation, selection favors the darkest color pocket mice in those habitats because they are best hidden from predators, this would be an example of:
directional selection
The only evolutionary process that leads to adaptive change is:
natural selection.
In regions where malaria is prevalent, the S allele is beneficial because:
it causes red blood cells to distort, which makes them less hospitable to Plasmodium, the parasite that causes malaria.
What does it mean to say that an allele is "fixed" in the population?
it is an indication of no genetic variation at that locus in the population.
You have two populations of flowering plants. In these populations floral color is controlled by one gene. The red allele (R) is dominant to the white allele (r). In population one, 75% of the flowers are red, in population two 25% of the flowers are white. Assuming H-W, which population has a greater frequency on the R allele?
Neither, they both have the same frequency.
You have spent time working with a population of beetles. Males range in size from 2-6 cm in length. You realize that the females only mate with males that measure less than 3 cm long. If you measured allele frequencies at a single locus that contributes to overall length, would you expect this population to be in H-W equilibrium from one generation to the next?
You have a small population of beetles. On day a rainstorm causes flooding and wipes out 87% of the population. The remaining individuals have much lower genetic variation than the original population. Which of the following would explain the lack of H-W equilibrium seen after the flood?
founder effect
Biology: How Life Works, Volume 1
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atp hydrolysis allows for what component of skeletal muscle contraction?
according to figure 14.2, the average number of new mutations that occur across an entire human genome in one generation is approximately _____ times higher than in nematodes.
what does the process of gene duplication and divergence refer to? (select all that apply)
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redpajama_set_name: RedPajamaCommonCrawl


text:
Shawn Gawrys Leads Team USA On Day Two
Today was Shawn Gawrys\' turn to lead team USA over the Czech Republic at the InLine World Championships in Sweden. Gawrys scored twice with J.P. Beilsten and Kyle Kraemer each added an assist in the win. Team USA is now 2-0.
KARLSTAD, Sweden — Shawn Gawrys (St. Louis, Mo.) scored twice and Gerry Osterkamp (Covina, Calif.) logged three assists as the U.S. InLine National Team earned a 4-0 win over the Czech Republic in its second preliminary-round game of the 2010 International Ice Hockey Federation InLine Hockey World Championship. Team USA improved to 2-0-0-0 overall and guaranteed itself the top seed in Group B and a spot in the tournament\'s quarterfinal round.
\"We did what we needed to do in terms of advancing by beating the Czech Republic tonight,\" said U.S. assistant coach Josh Milewski. \"We built on our team defense, and our speed helped us create quality opportunities.\"
Team USA took a 1-0 lead when Pat Maroon (St. Louis, Mo.) collected his first career international goal six minutes into the opening frame. After a Gawrys goal at the 3:04 mark of the second period, Nathan Sigmund (San Diego, Calif.) extended the U.S. advantage to 3-0 with a three-on-three tally just three minutes later.
Gawry\'s second goal of the period, a power-play tally with less than two minutes remaining, sent Team USA to halftime with a 4-0 lead for the second consecutive game.
U.S. goalie Troy Redmann (Brea, Calif.) kept the Czech Republic off of the scoreboard again in the third period, including making a sprawling poke check save at the eight-minute mark. He was replaced midway through the fourth period by Tommy Tartaglione (Harbor City, Calif.), who helped preserve the victory. The two combined to make 27 saves in the win, while the Czech Republic\'s Roman Handl stopped 18 shots in the loss.
Team USA will face Germany tomorrow (June 30) at 12 p.m. EDT in its final preliminary-round game.
NOTES: Team USA went 2-for-5 on the power play, while the Czech Republic was 0-for-5 with the man advantage … For the full U.S. roster, click here… Results and statistics from the tournament can be found here… Rob Chornomud is serving as head coach for the 2010 U.S. InLine National Team for the second consecutive year, while former U.S. InLine National Team member Josh Milewski is serving as the assistant coach … In the 13-year history of the IIHF InLine Hockey World Championship, the United States has earned gold medals in 1996, 1997, 2004 and 2006; silver medals in 1998, 2001 and 2009; and bronze medals at the 2000, 2003 and 2005 tournaments. There was no tournament played in 1999.
Scoring By Period
CZE 0 0 0 0 — 0
USA 1 3 0 0 — 4
First Period – Scoring: 1, USA, Maroon (Kraemer, Osterkamp), 6:03 (pp). Penalties: CZE, Besser (interference), 5:17; USA, Miner (holding-the-stick), 7:54.
Second Period – Scoring: 2, USA, Gawrys (Osterkamp, Miner), 3:04; 3, USA, Sigmund (Beilsten), 6:03; 4, USA, Gawrys (Yoder, Osterkamp), 11:03 (pp). Penalties: USA, Rodriguez (interference), 4:52; CZE, Polanski (interference), 5:30; USA, Gawrys (cross-checking), 8:13; CZE, Vavrusa (hooking), 10:38; USA, Kraemer (hooking), 12:00.
Third Period – Scoring: None. Penalties: CZE, Vozdecky (roughing), 1:00.
Fourth Period – Scoring: None. Penalties: USA, Yoder (interference), 2:12; CZE, Strycek (delaying-the-game), 6:28; CZE, Vozdecky (slashing, double minor), 12:00.
Shots by Period
CZE 7 8 5 7 27
USA 9 4 5 4 22
Goaltenders (SH/SV) 1 2 3 4 Total
CZE, Handl, 48:00 9-8 4-1 5-5 7-7 22-18
USA, Redmann, 42:28 7-7 8-8 5-5 7-7 27-27
USA, Tartaglione, 3:27 — — — 0-0 0-0
Power Play: CZE 0-5; USA 2-5
Penalties: CZE 6-10.5; USA 5-7.5
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Most town hall meetings rarely get much attention. Each break from Washington, members of the United States House of Representatives and the United States Senate travel home to meet with their constituents. The gatherings often bring out people passionate about a particular cause, but town halls are typically poorly attended and often ignored. That�s not the case with the current round of town hall meetings. KGOU Chief Engineer Patrick Roberts captured the audio from the August 11th town hall with Congressman Tom Cole at the Moore Public Library.
Email Kurt Gwartney, KGOU news director, to express your thoughts on this program.
FactCheck.org checks the facts on the varying sides of the debate on health care in the U.S.
The Henry J. Kaiser Family Foundation is known for its study of the health of the nation.
Healthreform.gov is an official government website managed by the U.S. Dept. of Health and Human Services.
The Congressional Budget Office has a series of studies on health care changes.
A project of The Heritage Foundation, fixhealthcarepolicy.com, provides a conservative public policy view of the proposed health care changes.
The website healthcareforamericanow.org is supported by several tradtionally progressive organizations and labor unions.


Among the millions of items that were registered with Tokyo's lost and found center last year was an urn containing someone's ashes.
And yet this should perhaps not surprise you — urns are handed in to lost and found centers more regularly than you might think. Last year alone, the Metropolitan Police Department's lost and found center in Bunkyo Ward tried to reunite as many as 10 urns with their owners. In every case, relatives of the deceased refused to come and collect them.
Umbrellas are one of the most common items that accumulate at the center, so much so that a 660-square-meter room has been dedicated to storing them in the basement. The room wasn't quite full as of late April but Shoji Okubo, head of the center, says that this situation will change once the rainy season starts in June.
Okubo says that roughly 3,000 umbrellas are found in Tokyo on a typical rainy day. In 2016, the metropolitan police handled a total of 381,135 umbrellas across the entire year.
Each umbrella is fitted with a tag that lists detailed information on when and where it was found. It is then stored according to the date it was handed in and the rail operators that logged it.
"It's really hard for us to store items in a systematic way so that they can be found easily when a person comes in to claim something," Okubo says.
The center is where most waylaid items found in the capital end up after being temporarily stored at police stations or by facility administrators such rail operators or department stores for about one or two weeks.
On April 27, the center hosted around 900,000 unclaimed items, ranging from wallets and iPhones to sunglasses and the aforementioned urns that were found abandoned in various parts of the city.
According to the National Police Agency's latest white paper, a record 26.7 million items were reported to police departments nationwide in 2015, excluding cash.
In Tokyo alone, 3.83 millions items were recorded by the Metropolitan Police Department in 2016, according to data compiled by the agency. By comparison, the center handled just 1.37 million items in 1997.
Driver's licenses and credit cards were the most common items handled by the Metropolitan Police Department last year, accounting for 15.6 percent of the total. Train passes, clothes and shoes were also high on the list.
It's also worth noting that a record ¥3.67 billion was handed in to the Metropolitan Police Department last year, surpassing the ¥3.5 billion that was recorded in 1990 during the nation's so-called bubble era.
In an attempt to handle Tokyo's ever-increasing volume of lost property, the six stories the center utilizes in a building in Bunkyo Ward is currently under renovation to expand its storage space.
"However, if the overall amount continues to grow, our storage space would eventually be full," Okuba says.
The center stores the items it receives in an orderly manner.
Officials at the center will then try to locate the owner from the information they can glean from the item, typically making an average of about 250 phone calls a day and sending notices by post, Okubo says. If the police find a foreign passport, they will forward them to the embassy concerned.
"It's a lot of work," Okubo says.
In 2016, an average of 286 people a day came to the center to pick up their belongings. As you'd expect, the vast majority are overjoyed to be reunited with their lost property. Foreign visitors are especially grateful, Okubo says, with some even asking officials at the center to pose in photographs with them.
However, not all items are reclaimed by their owners. While valuable property such as cash and credit cards are often returned, most people aren't interested in coming down to the center to reclaim items such as an umbrella or hat.
In 2016, the center reunited people with just 0.8 percent of umbrellas and 3.8 percent of clothing or footwear. By comparison, 74 percent of the total value of cash handled by the center was returned.
The Lost Property Law stipulates that anyone who finds an unaccompanied item must return it directly to its owner or hand it in to a police station or a facility administrator. Those who find lost items are entitled to receive a reward of 5-20 percent of the property's value.
Once three months have passed, the law stipulates that unclaimed belongings — excluding items containing personal information such as credit cards — become the property of the finder. Finders who have clearly indicated an interest in the items then have up to two months to claim them before they become the property of the local government.
People handed in cash worth ¥3.67 billion to police in Tokyo last year, ¥2.7 billion of which was returned to its rightful owners. Roughly ¥500 million was given to the people who found them, and about ¥440 million was added to the metropolitan government coffers.
The remaining items are sold to junk dealers, and the profit is pocketed by the metropolitan government.
There is a perception that people in Japan generally hand in items of lost property to a police station or kōban (police box), and you don't have to go far to find stories online of people recovering wallets stuffed with cash.
Experts partially attribute this to education by parents who teach young children to take lost property to a police station.
As a result, Okubo says that children sometimes bring in ¥1, ¥5 and ¥10 coins they find on the street, or even a little hair band.
People sometimes hand in stray animals to police stations.
In 2016, around 1,000 animals were registered as being lost, including dogs, cats and parakeets, as well as ferrets, frogs and even goldfish.
Police usually pass the more unusual animals on to enthusiasts or animal shelters. They tend to hang on to stray dogs for a while, though, in an attempt to locate their owners.
Shigeru Haga, a professor of psychology at Rikkyo University in Tokyo, says it's easy to forget personal items in the modern age.
The proliferation of smartphones may be partly responsible for the increasing volume of lost property over the past few years, Haga says.
Deflation has also made items such as clothes increasingly cheaper and easier to replace.
Haga says many people these days simply purchase a new item rather than go to the trouble of retrieving an item of lost property, which can require the person to fill out a number of claim forms.
Haga says time and attention are two key factors in losing things, advising people traveling on trains to put phones in their bags or pockets one stop before the station they are planning to disembark in order to mitigate this.
If nobody claims an item, the metropolitan government and rail operators are more likely to sell it to a junk dealer.
Saneyoshi Yogi, head of Saitama-based PX Co., is one such dealer. He regularly bids in auctions to buy thousands of unclaimed items in order to subsequently sell them on the secondhand market.
Rail operators hold these auctions several times a year, selling all sorts of items in huge cardboard boxes, Yogi says.
Yogi says he is often able to guess the contents of a box before opening it based on the season of the previous three months. If an auction is held in May, for example, the boxes are more likely to contain things found during winter — namely, lots of scarves and gloves. If it's held in September, the booty is more likely to be tons of umbrellas.
PX spends an estimated ¥60 million annually at these auctions, subsequently selling the unclaimed items at department store sales about four times a year.
At a recent secondhand market in Saikaya department store in Fujisawa, Kanagawa Prefecture, hordes of people were picking their way through a mountain of items in an attempt to find a bargain.
Yogi says roughly 40,000 items were on sale at the market, including such things as suitcases, electric guitars, luxury watches and giant stuffed animals.
The bargains on display at the sale were indeed mind-boggling.
"I'm having a great time," says Saki Shirai, 32, standing in front of a glass cabinet and examining a pink Coach purse she was considering purchasing.
"I come here almost every time the market is held. Usually, however, all the luxury items are gone by the time I get here," she says, holding an unused wooden cutting board she found.
Ryuji Maruyama, 64, was also trying to choose a pair of sunglasses from a huge box filled with hundreds of them.
Yogi says it's not unusual for luxury items to sell out quickly.
In total, however, about 30 percent of the items on display at the market are picked up by buyers. PX sells the remaining items to countries such as Philippines, Myanmar and Thailand.
"We shipped 20,000 umbrellas to Myanmar yesterday," Yogi says.
Many people think PX makes a sizeable profit, but the reality is something else, he says. "Our core business is actually real estate and home appliances. We are not making much out of this secondhand market at all," he says. "We see the market as a matsuri (festival) — we are simply having fun. It's great to see so many customers every time we hold a market here.


text:
Q: How do I fix the package testing error Julia? When I test the NTFk package with command Pkg.test("NTFK"). I'm getting the below error.

ERROR: LoadError: Some tests did not pass: 1 passed, 1 failed, 0
errored, 0 broken. in expression starting at
C:\Users\lff19.julia\packages\NTFk\bvyOe\test\runtests.jl:17 ERROR:
Package NTFk errored during testing

A: For Test.jl, the package scans for ~/PACKAGENAME/test/runtests.jl
A "passed" test is self-explanitory.
A "failed" test means a test resulted in an unexpected value.
An "errored" test means the test was not able to be executed, it errored instead.
A "broken" test refers to a known failing test. Setting the test to "broken" means it will ignore the "fail" status.
So, the 1 failing test is just a single fail in the project's runtest.jl file. It is not a problem with your Pkg.test("NTFK") command, it is a problem within the source code. It should be relatively simple to figure out which test fails from the error/ your console's output.
Realistically, it should be the developer's responsibility to fix the testcase. Although, you could just as well "dev" the package( ] dev PACKAGENAME), effectively making yourself the maintainer for your local package, and going into the runtests.jl and fixing it yourself. Note that "dev"ing a package will move it to ~/.julia/dev .

redpajama_set_name: RedPajamaStackExchange


Justin upset over Selena's hospitalization.
Selena Gomez has mental breakdown.
LOS ANGELES — Thoughts and prayers are with pop songstress Selena Gomez who's currently receiving medical treatment at a mental health facility somewhere along the east coast. Nobody, including paparazzi, knows her whereabouts. Word on the street claims the Disney starlet has been hospitalized on and off the past couple weeks after experiencing an emotional breakdown at the Cedars-Sinai Medical Center in Los Angeles. Justin Bieber was spotted crying inside a car upon learning the sad news.
A close source said Selena also suffers from low white blood cell counts in the aftermath of her kidney transplant — a surgery Biebs said he knew nothing about. So, what happened during her breakdown? A couple weeks ago, while receiving infirmary attention, Selena tried to vacate the hospital prematurely.
But the doctors wouldn't let her.
She then threw a monstrous tantrum before ripping IV's out of her arm.


Across the UK, there is a growing movement to create genuinely affordable homes. At the New Economics Foundation we've been meeting groups developing models of not-for-profit, community owned housing who are providing hope in the face of a housing system which has reached crisis point.
But those pushing for better housing face multiple challenges, from unlevelled competition for land with private developers, to a lack of awareness amongst local authorities about the economic and social benefits of community owned schemes.
Resident-led groups have limited access to the tools, relationships and economic expertise required to make the case for not-for-profit housing schemes. All the while land is being sold off from beneath them.
A case in point is the StART Haringey project – a community development trust aiming to build 800 homes on a hospital site up for sale in North London, 75% of which will be affordable for local residents. But without being able to compete on the same terms as private developers – who can afford to offer a much higher purchasing price for the land – the odds are stacked against the community.
It is possible to make an economic case for community-led housing and this is one of areas that NEF is working on improving, but a pound sign cannot easily be attached to social goods such as green spaces and increased health and wellbeing.
The last few years have seen the emergence of smart local land strategies to buck the trend of selling land and instead retain more in public ownership, such as Birmingham City Council's small-sites plan and the Transport for London partnership to develop 400 sites in the capital. The Greater London Authority also has a small-sites scheme launching soon, that will bring together data, development standards and professional support to begin to rebalance the London land market in favour of small and medium-sized builders and community-led schemes.
Creating strong public mandates for better land use, made possible by the government's commitment to open up and improve Land Registry data.
Ensuring that the One Public Estate agenda promotes a joined-up strategy to keep the freehold of more land in public or community ownership, or as a long-term equity stake (which allows residents and their local authorities to ensure that any homes built are designed to meet their needs). This could mean setting up partnerships with community-led housing projects before land is listed as surplus.
Promoting restricted-sale tenures on developments on public land that restrict the value at which people can sell their homes when they choose to do so. Such models have been pioneered by community land trusts and are useful for providing below-market home-ownership while ensuring that any discount or subsidy is preserved for future occupiers.
An important development to watch is how newly devolved regions such as Greater Manchester – and areas undergoing significant economic change, such as Margate – make efforts to avoid repeating the effects of social displacement and homelessness that result from highly unequal housing markets. Effective local and regional strategies for public land, as the foundation of long-term equity investment in the wellbeing of those places, should be part of the solution.


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Don Walker, an osteologist with the Museum of London, poses Wednesday with one of the 14th-century skeletons found by construction workers under central London's Charterhouse Square. | AP
World / Science & Health
Black Death wasn't spread by fleas
U.K. outbreak in 14th century was airborne, scientists say
LONDON - Archaeologists and forensic scientists who have examined 25 skeletons unearthed in the Clerkenwell area of central London a year ago believe they have uncovered the truth about the nature of the Black Death that ravaged Britain and Europe in the mid-14th century.
Analysis of the bodies and of wills registered in London at the time has cast serious doubt on "facts" that every schoolchild has learned for decades: that the epidemic was caused by a highly contagious strain spread by the fleas on rats.
Now evidence taken from the human remains found in Charterhouse Square, to the north of the City of London (the financial district), during excavations carried out as part of the construction of the Crossrail train line serving London and its environs, have suggested a different cause: Only an airborne infection could have spread so fast and killed so quickly.
The Black Death arrived in Britain from central Asia in the autumn of 1348, and by late the next spring it had killed 6 out of every 10 people in London. Such a rate of destruction would kill 5 million now. By extracting the DNA of the disease bacterium, Yersinia pestis, from the largest teeth in some of the skulls retrieved from the square, the scientists were able to compare the strain of bubonic plague preserved there with that which was recently responsible for killing 60 people in Madagascar. To their surprise, the 14th-century strain, the cause of the most lethal catastrophe in recorded history, was no more virulent than today's disease. The DNA codes were an almost perfect match.
According to scientists working at Public Health England (an executive agency of the U.K.'s Department of Health) in Porton Down, southwest England, for any plague to spread at such a pace it must have gotten into the lungs of those victims who were most malnourished and then been spread by coughs and sneezes.
It was therefore a pneumonic plague rather than a bubonic plague — one in which infection is spread from human to human, rather than by rat fleas.
"As an explanation for the Black Death in its own right, it simply isn't good enough. It cannot spread fast enough from one household to the next to cause the huge number of cases that we saw during the Black Death epidemics," said Dr. Tim Brooks from Porton Down.
In support of the growing case that this was a fast-acting, direct contagion, archaeologist Dr. Barney Sloane discovered that in the medieval City of London, all wills had to be registered at the Court of Hustings. The documents lead him to believe that 60 percent of Londoners were wiped out.
Today, antibiotics can prevent the disease from becoming pneumonic.
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Dr. Sotiris Hji-Avgoustis is a professor and chairperson of the Ball State University Department of Management in the Miller College of Business, overseeing programs in business administration, human resources management, entrepreneurial management, hospitality and food management, and residential property management. He joined the university in 2013 after a successful academic career at Indiana University – Indianapolis. His research interests are in the area of city tourism with emphasis on cultural tourism, sports tourism, and meetings, incentives, conferences, and expositions (MICE).
Dr. Hji-Avgoustis has published extensively in national and international journals on these topics and he has been an invited presenter at national and international tourism conferences. In the areas of service to the global tourism community and the profession, Dr. Hji-Avgoustis has been involved with numerous civic, professional and business groups serving in leadership roles and positions. His teaching expertise includes the delivery of courses in organizational behavior, hospitality economics, tourism entrepreneurship and hospitality management, and decision making.


There is also a lift to all floors and the fully fitted kitchen with all appliances from "BULTHAUP" leaves no wish unfulfilled! On the huge plot of 2500 qm land you have a super sized infinity pool. The garden has an irrigation system and there are beautiful water features around the house.
You will not find a similar modern house on the market today...A viewing is highly recommended.


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What is Bing?
What does Bing mean?
Bing is a resourceful search engine tool owned by Microsoft. It displays accurate results based on the user's search query. It sets forth a couple of search services. Key among them include web, image, video, and map results. Bing is very well known for its listings capability. It can give you comprehensive results about all the restaurants around your block.
Here's is a brief history.
Bing was announced on 28th May 2009 by Microsoft CEO, Steve Ballmer and officially launched in July, the same year. Bing came into existence so as to face out Live Search and MSN Search. To enhance a smooth transition, Microsoft bought Powerset, a company which was developing an organic language search engine for the internet space. And to close the deal, Microsoft and Yahoo came into terms to let Bing power Yahoo! Search Engine.
If we look at Bing's stock market price, it's quite evident that it's not so much behind from its closest rival, Google.
Bing's Notable Features
Bing background images
We can't ignore its intuitive user-interface which draws lots of attention from its users. And here's why. Bing has beautiful background images which change on a daily basis. The wide array of images are displayed to give a depiction of what the user can visibly relate to. For instance, Bing shows background images of people, adventurous places like mountains, sea life or even popular cities.
You can easily leverage off these images by setting your most preferred as your desktop background.
Bing Rewards was launched back in 2010. It's pretty much impressive how Bing incorporates this as part of the equation. Seems like Bing is both conscious and generous to its users. Simply put, a user gets to earn credits whenever they search with Bing as an incentive to keep on using the search engine. This strategy has tremendously increased Bing's market share, precisely, in the US.
All you need to do is sign in to your Microsoft account via a PC or Tablet. From this point, you gain access to the number of points which are redeemable.
What's more captivating is Bing's App which is available on both Apple and Google Play stores. By use of this App, you can just search for anything and earn points at the comfort of your mobile phone.
Bing Rewards Loyalty Levels
The search engine has a systematic formula to give back to its users. It's quite obvious that the uppermost level comes with the most reward amount. The entry level which is the 'Member' plan, is accessible to all new users who reside in the US and are above 13 years of age. It's worth noting that a user is restricted to only one member account.
At the top of its priority, is the capacity to reward a user 1 credit for every two searches performed. Remember, Bing gives a daily maximum reward of 10 credits.
So how do I upgrade to the silver account?
Bing requires me to meet a set threshold which is, I must earn 200-lifetime credits. The status of my account changes to Silver after I've redeemed my very first reward. That aside, there's a Gold account, which becomes active, once a user earns 750-lifetime credits and performs over 150 credible searches in a month.
Bing visual search
This is one feature which tends to be quite futuristic. So here's what it's capable of. You can actually snap a photo of a math problem, or a specific spare part of a vehicle, and search to get the most authentic and definite results. In other words, you can just use an image to search for anything on Bing. Importantly, the profound search engine brings about a whole new experience of privacy control in the hands of the user. You can switch the private mode on to hide all your private searches from your browser's history.
Bing Timeline
It's a feature which filters results to show you important information via a well-detailed timeline. Bing's algorithm generates timelines about famous personalities and captures all their achievements in an elaborate manner. Here's an illustration. If you search the names iconic individuals, say for instance, from an athletics background, Bings lays out a prolific list of all their accomplishments in the entire course of their career.
Video Pop-out Hover
Yet another amazing feature which unfolds a seamless experience while searching for videos on Bing. Typically, Bing shows you high-resolution videos from popular platforms such as YouTube, MTV, Hulu, CBS, and MSN. Its navigation system is quite flexible and easy to use while checking out the previews.
Bing has advanced search filters which allow a user to class the videos by date, resolution, source, or length. We can't ignore Bing's preview mode which lets the user have a brief snippet of the contents in a video.
Seems like Microsoft is wary and privy to all current trends. With the prevalence of Google Ads in so many webpages, this was some sort of an awakening call for Microsoft. To gain a stable ground in the industry, Microsoft Advertising was brought into the limelight.
And their biggest promise is to make your business visible to potential customers globally. I know you might want to ask this. Why do I need a Bing Ads conversion tracking account when already, I have a Google Analytics account in check? Good question. The reason for this is to have a good track of all conversions which come directly from your Bing Ads. Keep in mind, it uses the pay-per-click strategy. This means you can work with a budget which you're comfortable with.
The paid Ads help you reach the online network in such a brainy and well-informed way. Favorably, Microsoft advertising allows the user to import other campaigns such as Google Ads in a plain-sailing manner.
Bing's Integration
In the present moment, Bing splits the search results to have a section which lists a number of Facebook friends who can enlighten the user more about the query. Besides that, Windows 8.1 uses Bing's 'smart search' to show results for all queries submitted via the Window's start screen.
And that's not all. There's more to Bing's integration.
Back in 2013, Apple's unexpected frenzy to ditch Google and make close ties with Bing was the beginning of a new chapter for the search engine. However, it's compatible with devices which use iOS 7 and above.
Bing Vs Google
It's a never-ending battle where each contender shows its own strengths, prowess, and intelligence. At the first instance, it's reasonable to state that both are exceptional in their own ways. But since Bing is the topic of the day, let's see how it proves to transcend over Google. Not to mention the alluring Bing rewards.
To begin with, Bing's prediction capacity is one thing to smile about. In particular, it shows its sharp-wittedness by predicting flight costs. To a greater extent, it predicts whether a flight cost will increase. Aside from that, you get to make comparisons with other flight companies to decide upon the most suitable Airline and time to purchase a ticket.
Arguably, making a choice between Bing and Google narrows down to personal preferences. If you're more interested in image and video search, Bing tends to be so competent at it. On the other hand, it's right to give credit where it's due. Google dominates by a significant margin since it owns YouTube. That's not to say that Bing doesn't give a helping hand in video searches. As a matter of fact, its unique layout of video thumbnails which plays a preview of a specific result is one spectacular feature to really count on.
If a user wants to search for a licensed image to use in their blog or project, Bing makes it easier by far. Unlike Google, where the settings to filter the images are hidden, Bing provides license filter as a primary option while searching for an image.


Credit Report - First of all, they need to find their self a good bankruptcy lawyer. Such a professional will be able to answer all of the touch questions about their case to they such as if their car or home will be protected, or which other belongings or assets that they should worry about. Most people do not realize that there were different types of bankruptcies or that the laws change frequently. They'll want someone who is abreast of these, thereto keeping they out of danger.
Credit Report, Focus on the monthly/annual payment being within their target range. DO NOT focus on hitting the absolute bottom. They're more lovely to hit the bottom if they're not obsessing over it.
For your convenience, many free credit reportings list personal information, credit history, public records and inquiries in different columns. This will make it easier for you to read and understand them. If you're not sure what FICO means, it stands for Fair Isaac Corporation and it's the most popular scoring system used by lenders.
Credit Report, From the lender's point of view, if you have a lot of credit scores in your wallet, even if you haven't used them, they will see that you have the option at any time to spend all that money and may be afraid that you will do so. Therefore, if you do have a lot of credit cards in your wallet, that you decide you do not need, or if you have been switching balances from one credit card to the next without closing each account as you go, you may want to consider closing some of these accounts so that lenders can rest a little easier knowing that you can't go out on a massive shopping spree tomorrow and bankrupt yourself.
Guaranteed approval credit cards are a rather new idea in credit cards for people with bad credit or no credit. Anyone who has tried to get credit for the first time or has tried to get credit with a bad credit history knows it is difficult, if not impossible. Credit card companies do not like to risk the chance of not getting paid, so they like to offer cards to those who are most likely to pay for them. Guaranteed approval credit cards, however, are something they have come up with to help those in need of credit.
Credit Report - Having damaged credit is more than an inconvenience for people. It can actually cost you money. If you have a damaged credit report you will not qualify for a low interest credit card. There are many companies that advertise that they can clean up your credit report for a fee. The truth is that no one can legally remove accurate negative information from your credit report. The only way to repair your credit report is time, a debt repayment plan and effort on your part to not spend more than you can afford.
Here's where the fun starts. Their Goodies List will be their own personal list of rewards, fun, or items they'd love to buy or do. Jot down some things that excite they, things they could look toward to. Why? Because there's no budget on the earth that will work if they had no motivation to keep going.
How do I get a Credit Freeze on my files? In order to freeze your credit, you will need to contact each of the three credit reporting companies. There is a fee but it is absolutely low considering the benefits of having a credit freeze on your account, the few dollars that are spent are worth knowing that your credit, and good name are protected and secured at all times.
Credit Report, However, for everyone else out there, debt is not a recognizable solution to your problems. Many Americans are simply using their credit cards to pay for their basics. They aren't going into debt to survive, they no longer know how to survive without going into debt.


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Мати́ас Ране́ги (; родился 14 июня 1984, Гётеборг) — шведский футболист, нападающий.

Клубная карьера
Ранеги начал свою карьеру в гётеборгской молодёжной команде «Мастхуггетс БК», но через некоторое время переехал к своему отцу, выходцу из Гваделупы, в Париж. Во Франции Матиас выступал в молодёжной лиге за «Левальоль». Через год он вернулся в Швецию, где играл за «Майорну». В 2006 году он забил 25 голов в 22 матчах за команду третьего шведского дивизиона «Лерье/Ангеред». После этого он был замечен скаутами «Гётеборга» и приглашен в основную команду. В новом клубе он не смог себя проявить, забив лишь 1 мяч в 14 встречах. В 2008 году он был отдан в аренду в «Гоу Эхед Иглз», выступающий в Первом дивизионе Нидерландов, но полученная травма в одном из первых матчей помешала ему проявить себя.

В 2009 году Ранеги подписал контракт с «Хаккеном». 4 апреля в матче против «Мальмё» он дебютировал за новый клуб. 15 апреля в поединке против своего бывшего клуба «Гётеборга», Матиас забил два гола и помог своей команде одержать крупную победу. В своём первом сезоне Ранеги забил 6 голов в 25 матчах и в каждом следующем сезоне увеличивал это достижение на 6 мячей. В сезоне 2011 года он с 18 голами в 22 матчах стал лучшим бомбардиром Алсвенскан лиги.

30 августа 2011 года Матиас подписал контракт с шведским чемпионом «Мальмё». 8 сентября в матче против «Ефле» он дебютировал за новый клуб. 21 сентября в поединке против «Хальмстада» он забил свой первый мяч.

31 августа 2012 Ранеги перешёл в итальянский «Удинезе», подписав контракт с клубом на 5 лет. 16 сентября в матче против «Сиены» он дебютировал в Серии А. Через неделю в поединке против «Милана» Матиас забил свой первый гол, который стал победным.

В начале 2014 года Ранеги перешёл в английский «Уотфорд». 18 февраля в матче против «Йовил Таун» он дебютировал в Чемпионшипе. 1 марта в поединке против «Блэкпула» Матиас сделал «дубль», забив свои первые голы за «Уотфорд». Летом того же года он на правах аренды перешёл в Миллуолл. 30 августа в матче против «Блэкпула» Матиас дебютировал за новый клуб. В начале 2015 года Ранеги на правах аренды перешёл в китайский «Далянь Аэрбин», где реанимировал свои бомбардирские навыки, забив 11 мячей в 28 матчах.

В начале 2016 года Матиас в третий раз был отдан в аренду «Уотфордом». Его новым клубом стал «Юргорден». 3 апреля в матче против «Эребру» он дебютировал за новую команду. 7 апреля в поединке против «Фалькенберга» Ранеги забил свой первый гол за «Юргорден». В начале 2017 года Матиас был арендован «Удинезе», но так и не сыграл за клуб. Летом того же года Ранеги вернулся «Хеккен».

В начале 2018 года Матиас перешёл в «Сюрианска». 8 апреля в матче против «Карлстад Юнайтед» он дебютировал за новый клуб. 13 мая в поединке против «Арамеиск-Сюрианска» Ранеги забил свой первый гол за «Сюрианску». 26 мая в матче против «Нючёпинга» он сделал хет-трик.

Международная карьера
23 января 2010 года в товарищеском матче против сборной Сирии Ренеги дебютировал за сборную Швеции. В этом же поединке он забил свой первый гол за национальную команду.

Голы за сборную Швеции

Примечания

Ссылки
 Malmö FF profile
 SvFF profile

Футболисты Швеции
Игроки сборной Швеции по футболу
Игроки ФК «Гётеборг»
Игроки ФК «Хеккен»
Игроки ФК «Мальмё»
Игроки ФК «Гоу Эхед Иглз»
Игроки ФК «Удинезе»
Игроки ФК «Уотфорд»
Игроки ФК «Миллуолл»
Игроки ФК «Далянь Ифан»
Игроки ФК «Юргорден»
Игроки ФК «Сюрианска»

redpajama_set_name: RedPajamaWikipedia


Whether you are planning to relocate to a new state for your job or education, moving is not as easy as it seems. From packing your belongings to finding a cost-effective way to move, it involves a lot of processes. There are many long distance moving companies in Chicago that can help you with the moving process. They will provide you with complete guidance at every step.
It is very important to create a budget when you are planning to move to Chicago. You need to have a clear idea of the expenses including moving costs, shipping costs, cost of living, etc. so that you can plan accordingly.
Before you begin with the moving process, you should be acquainted with the new state. You should carry out a thorough research about the new places in the state. You can even visit local centers to get information about detailed maps, brochures and recommendations. Reading online reviews can help you to get information about the place from the residents that are already living in that area.
Once you have decided to move to the particular state, you should consider searching for a new home in the area. Inspect the neighborhood and the locality you are living in to make sure you have chosen the right place to live in.
You can develop a moving calendar if you are planning to move shortly. The checklist will help you to keep a track during every phase of the moving process. You can easily prioritize your task according to your preferences. The things which are very crucial can be done in the first week and so on.
You can consider hiring the services of professional movers. They will help you to simplify the moving process. However, you need to carry out an extensive research. Make sure they are reliable and trustworthy. You can even seek recommendations from your family or friends to have a clear idea of the services provided by the long distance moving company.
If there is a time between your move-out date and move in time, you can contact the moving company that also provides storage services in Chicago. Most of the companies provide secure facilities with large warehouse space for storage purposes.
Packing efficiently is very important if you want to minimize the damage during the moving process. All the non-essential items should be packed first. For example-you can pack the electronic items, artwork, books etc. that you do not require immediately. Once this is done, you should move towards essential items. Make sure the kitchen items are packed at the end.
You can even name the boxes according to the items they store. This will make it quite convenient for you to unpack later.
To lighten up your load, you can consider discarding items such as old furniture or outdated electronics that is not useful for you. This will help to reduce the burden while loading and unloading the things.
Make sure you pack all the important documents and paperwork properly. You can keep your documents in a clearly labeled box so that you have no confusion later.
You can ask your employer if the moving expenses will be covered. Some of the employers pay for the moving process in case you are relocating for a new job. Saving the moving receipts can be useful in this respect.
Following these tips will surely help you to move to a new state easily. You can also consider the help of long distance moving companies in Chicago.