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New hero -- Elven King is coming now !
There is not much to say about the Elven King, because the reclusive nature of the elves' life permits very little information to leak to the outside world. Most only know they live deep in the forests somewhere southwest of the center of Elysium. It's a prime location for young heores to test the strength of their swords, but few have returned home alive for the forest is bestrewn with unforeseeable dangers. But a recent event in the elves' homeland has forced their king to seek help from League of Angels. After so many years we finally have a chance to meet this "King of the Elves". Are you excited?
Sunblade (Ultimate): Unleashes the ancient elven sword Sunblade to attack 2 enemies with the highest HP percentage, deals additional 30% damage against Warrior class heroes.
Pyroblast: Launches a Pyroblast at the enemy with the highest ATK to deal great damage and inflict Burn, also reduces their ATK and DEF for 2 rounds.
Firestorm: Elven King conjures a torrent of flames to damage all front row enemies, the affected targets also take 50% more damage for 3 rounds.
King's Fury(Passive): Elven King restores his Rage each round, additionally all attacks now ignore 20% of targets' Magic Defense.
Flame Ward(Awakened): Elven King surrounds himself with Elven fire to increase his attributes.
Elven King is a master of magic and his piercing spells can penetrate through the strongest shields and armors in Elysium. Elven King is especially threatening to warrior heroes, as his ultimate deals 30% more damage to them. His skill Firestorm targets front row enemies and increases their damage taken for the next 3 rounds to set up quick kills. His skill Pyroblast, which blunts enemies' weapons and armor, largely reduces the threat from high ATK archers and mages. Elven King also possess incredible rage recovery speed and his attacks always ignores 20% of target's magical defenses.
Want to know where to meet him?
It is said that the Elven King will attend our Revel from next Monday to Wednesday(2016/11/28-2016/11/30). Saddle up now!


text:
Hollywood Entertainment Breaking News
https://deadline.com/
Harvey Weinstein Is A "Degenerate Rapist" Who Used Hollywood "Power To Prey On Women", Prosecutor Says In Closing Argument
By Dominic Patten
"In 2005, who would have thought that the most powerful man in Hollywood was a closet rapist?" Los Angeles County Deputy District Attorney Marlene Martinez asked jurors Wednesday in Harvey Weinstein 's West Coast rape trial. "Who could blame her for thinking that she could handle herself," the prosecutor queried over now-California First Partner and trial Jane Doe #4 Jennifer Siebel Newsom in her closing argument.
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In the first portion of a closing argument that will continue Thursday, Martinez zeroed in on the much accused former mogul's powerful perch. She also made sure to repeatedly state Weinstein's vile modus operandi and attempts by the defense to discredit "bimbo" Siebel Newsom and other Jane Does who have taken the stand over the past five weeks in the high-profile case.
With Weinstein seated nearby in the downtown courtroom, the prosecutor referred to the Oscar-winning producer a "degenerate rapist" who "used that power to prey on women, to silence women." Martinez told the jurors that the wealthy and well-connected Weinstein "used that power to live his life without the repercussions of his predatory behavior. There is no question that Harvey Weinstein was a predator."
Hoping to undercut the defense's stance that Siebel Newsom and others continued to have contact with Weinstein after the alleged assaults, Martinez bluntly added: "Getting on the defendant's bad side? That would guarantee your career is over. These women had so many dreams that they were not going to let this monster destroy them."
Siebel Newsom testified in mid-November about first meeting Weinstein at the Toronto Film Festival and later at Beverly Hills' Peninsula Hotel more than 17 years ago, when he allegedly raped her. The then young and unmarried filmmaker-actress told the court that "I could tell he just needed, he was so determined, just so scary, just all about him and his pleasure, his need for satisfaction, so I just did it to make it stop."
After the charges were trimmed earlier this month, Weinstein is facing grand jury indictments of two counts of rape and five counts of sexual assault in incidents in L.A. County over a nine-year period starting in 2004.
Having pleaded not guilty on all of the original 11 sexual assault charges brought by Los Angeles prosecutors soon after he was extradited to the City of Angels in the summer of 2021, the 70-year-old Weinstein faces a maximum prison sentence of 60 years to life plus five if found guilty here. Weinstein was previously sentenced to 23 years in prison by a Manhattan jury in March 2020 for multiple sex crimes . That case is now on appeal.
"The defense has said that you cannot trust these victims, that they are lying," Martinez forcefully said today to a courtroom that included Judge Lisa Lench, Weinstein's Werksman Jackson & Quinn LLP team, and the jury. "But what they are really telling you is that you cannot trust your own ears because what you heard with your own ears was who, and what, Harvey Weinstein is," she went on to emphasis of the eight women who took the stand in the trial.
Going through the alleged victims and their respective testimony, the seasoned prosecutor literally held up a photo of a bear trap to illustrate the manner in which Weinstein captured his prey in his violent pursuits. Spotlighting that the producer would set professional meetings with women and then suddenly move the venue from a public space to his hotel suite, Martinez stated: "The rules do not apply to him. A woman's desperate pleas to stop? That's a green light for Harvey."
"Harvey was one-track minded," the Deputy DA said. "He already knew what he was doing. It was just one more step into the execution of his plan."
The prosecution's closing argument is expected to wrap up tomorrow, with the Mark Werksman-led defense making their final pitch next. Lench has estimated that the jury could begin their closed-door deliberations by Friday afternoon.
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redpajama_set_name: RedPajamaCommonCrawl


The French for burden (with) is the regular ER verb grever.
To remember this, imagine a chef is burdened with GRAVY.
Grever can also mean: to be a burden on, to put a strain on.
- pesant (adj) : burdensome.
- le fardeau la charge (nm/nf) : burden.
- s'embarrasser de (vr) : to burden oneself with, to weigh oneself down with.
-evrer add a grave accent to the mute letter e (è) before a silent syllable. This changes it to an open sound. Examples of this family of verb conjugations: mener, emmener, remmener, ramener, parsemer de, achever, grever.
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Imagine a chef is burdened with GRAVY!
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Preparing for a big race feels easy at the beginning. As the miles continue to build week after week, however, it becomes imperative to implement a few half-marathon training tips to maintain your motivation. Simple changes, like creating a new running playlist or exploring a different route, help with day-to-day ambition, but for long-lasting half-marathon motivation, it's a good idea to interweave inspiration into your weekly running routine.
Below are a few half-marathon training tips that I have found revitalize my body—and mind—throughout the weeks and months of preparation that precede that final 13.1 miles. From muscle recovery to running for a greater good, these techniques will help you retain your original ambition all the way to race day.
Charity running is the perfect way to inject inspiration into your training schedule. Not only do you receive the mental motivation that comes from helping a cause that's close to your heart, but you also have the support of your family and friends (who have made generous donations to your fundraising efforts) at each step.
There are several national non-profits that have fundraising programs in place. You can also team up with a local foundation to benefit your direct community. Many races have partner charities that serve the region, and you can approach your favorite small organizations about setting up a GoFundMe page to benefit their cause as well. The possibilities are endless, as is the motivation that comes with running for a good reason.
Without fail, there will be days when your legs feel sore, stiff, and heavy; adding regular stretching sessions into your routine will help keep your muscles loose and ready to run. I find that incorporating simple yoga poses into my daily fitness regimen gives me a chance to check in with my body and determine which muscles need the most attention.
Another great way to easily find time for stretching is by multitasking while watching your favorite TV show. Rather than sitting on the couch with a bowl of popcorn, take a seat on the floor with a foam roller and work out your calves. This is also a good time to ice anywhere that may be extra sore following a long run.
Sometimes thirteen miles sounds like thirteen million miles. Regular meditation can teach you the art of mindfulness and let you enjoy the present moment, rather than stressing about how much time you need to dedicate to running. By meditating for twenty minutes each day, you can train your brain to quiet the internal monologue and feel content with yourself and your busy schedule.
Along with encouraging a more peaceful mind, meditation also benefits breathing. By being aware of each breath, you can better monitor yourself during long runs and ensure you're getting the proper amount of oxygen you need. Running itself can also become a meditative practice during which you can relax your mind while working out your body.
Motivation isn't something that appears magically. You can create your own inspiration by keeping your body, mind, and soul invigorated throughout the half-marathon training process.
Now that we have set the stage for a motivating and successful training period, we can focus next time on race-day logistics, like what to eat the morning of and how to dig deep during the final three-mile stretch. How do you stay motivated when training for a half-marathon? Let us know with a #GoodMatters tweet! Happy running! And don't forget to check out Part One and Part Three of this series.
Maintaining motivation is key to a successful half-marathon training process. Stretching, meditating, and charity running will keep your body, mind, and spirit inspired as you prepare for race day.


Wisconsin's hills and bluffs are filled with a very special type of sand. It has the exact hardness, shape, and purity the oil and natural gas exploration industry needs; plus it is easy to extract.
Sand mines have co-existed with their neighbors in western Wisconsin for thirty years. But the dramatic increase in demand for Wisconsin sand has caused existing mines to ramp up production and caused a growing number of new mines.
According to the Center for Investigative Journalism, last summer there were 16 active sand mines in Wisconsin. Five months later, Department of Natural Resources officials pegged the number of mines at 34 active mines with another twenty-five or so in development. This rapid growth of frac sand mining has caused concern about siting and operation.
This week I introduced two separate bills to address the most frequent sand mine concerns raised by constituents and local officials.
Many people told me they didn't know a mine was proposed for their neighborhood. In one case a woman heard about the mine from a neighbor who saw a newspaper notice just days before the public hearing.
My first bill would make sure neighbors know about proposed sand mine well before local government acts to approve the mine.
The proposed law requires a 30-day notice of a public hearing to be published in local and regional newspapers. Neighbors within one mile of the proposed mine must receive notice of the hearing through first class mail. My goal is to give people adequate time to prepare for public hearings and encourage public participation and informed local decision-making.
Local officials told me they feel they don't have the power to adequately protect their communities. When local officials consider a frac sand mine application, current regulations give them little power to negotiate with mining companies on topics such as hours of operation, blasting policies, damage to local roads, groundwater usage and air pollution. Local officials want the economic benefits of these mines but they also have a duty to protect the health and welfare of their communities.
My second bill would strengthen local zoning laws. Frac sand mining would become a conditional use in areas zoned agriculture. This means local officials would have an opportunity to negotiate conditions concerning the operation of the mine. Requiring a conditional use permit keeps the benefits of local decision-making and brings to a public hearing local issues related to the sand mine siting.
The bill also prohibits frac sand mining in residential areas. Industrial sand mining in residential areas is simply an incompatible land use. My proposed law would not affect existing mines but would prohibit future mines from locating in areas zoned residential.
The decisions we make related to sand mining will affect Wisconsin families for decades. Local officials are struggling to balance new jobs and economic growth with citizen concerns about health, safety and the existing economy of agriculture and tourism.
The two bills I introduced bring a common sense approach to involving citizens and their local officials in the public process of balancing Wisconsin's "gold rush" with Wisconsin's quality of life.


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Nanaimo ICU breaks ground to improve care
NANAIMO, BC – Construction is now underway for a more modern intensive Care Unit (ICU) at the Nanaimo Regional General Hospital (NRGH). "This past year has demonstrated how crucial it is to invest in and maintain a strong public healthcare system," said Adrian Dix (pictured), minister of health. "The need for a new ICU for the people of Nanaimo was clear, and I'm proud that our government responded with both a technological upgrade and an expansion in size."
The new ICU will be three times the current unit's size and will include improvements such as 12 larger single-patient rooms, ceiling mounted service booms and overhead patient lifts, a medication room, a family consult room, and a staff break room and rest area. It will also include a space for a high-acuity unit, a transitional place where critical-care patients need less monitoring than in the ICU.
The current 10-bed ICU, built in 1970, is outdated in its space and functionality. Once a formal request was received from Island Health in October 2017, the Ministry of Health moved forward with planning, approval and now construction to ensure residents have access to a facility that will provide enhanced care.
"I'm thrilled that the people of this region will have an improved ICU, which will benefit patients and healthcare workers," said Doug Routley, MLA for Nanaimo-North Cowichan. "With ICU demand expected to increase in coming years due to a growing population, especially in older adults, this project is necessary for the well-being of our current and future residents."
The new ICU will cost $41.57 million, which will be cost shared between the provincial government through Island Health, the Nanaimo Regional Hospital District and the Nanaimo and District Hospital Foundation.
The project will create approximately 200 direct and 100 indirect jobs. The new ICU is expected to open for patients in early 2023 and will be located south of the current emergency department.
"The COVID-19 pandemic has highlighted how important it is for our region to have state-of-the-art medical facilities and sufficient resources to respond to the critical healthcare needs of our residents," said Ian Thorpe, Nanaimo Regional Hospital District. "The new ICU will be a significant addition to our local hospital. We are very pleased to be a funding partner, and to see construction getting underway."


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My Old Man Said
Home Interviews Emile Heskey Discusses Aston Villa in the Championship
Emile Heskey Discusses Aston Villa in the Championship
Former Villa player Emile Heskey, speaking exclusively to 888sport (syndicated to My Old Man Said) recently gave his views on the current Villa set up and the Blues on the eve of the Second City derby.
Having played under Steve Bruce for both Birmingham City and Wigan, England international Emile Heskey had something of a chequered time when he then went on to play for Aston Villa. When reinforcements were needed at the start of 2009, with Villa riding high in the Premier League, Heskey was Martin O'Neill's idea of a transfer to try and secure a Champions League spot.
Arsene Wenger on the other hand, decided Andrey Arshavin was the kind of forward you really needed sign. In scoring four goals at Anfield that season in the Gunners' 4-4 draw against top of the table Liverpool, Arshavin scored in one game almost half the total of goals Heskey managed (9) in 92 league appearances for Villa.
While he only played two seasons at the Blues compared to three-and-a-half at Villa, Heskey performed better for Villa's neighbours, scoring double figures (10) in his first season. A feat he only managed once at Liverpool and twice at Leicester.
After Villa, Heskey went down under, ala Ross McCormack, to play in the A-League with Newcastle Jets. The highlight of which, surely was the Heskey Cam!
Here's the first part of his interview answers, his thoughts on the derby game to come.
What's Steve Bruce like to work for? Will he get Villa promoted?
I think he's great. He's a wonderful man who knows what he wants. He understands the physicality of the Championship but one thing I would say is that Villa need a bit of time. When I've watched them play they don't look too confident.
When you look at when I was playing for them we had Ashley Young, James Milner, Gabby Agbonlahor and John Carew; Gareth Barry and Sylian Petrov, these are all confident players who went out and expressed themselves.
Now they're not and it's going to take a bit of time for the manager to install that.
How big a coup is it for Villa to be led by John Terry? Is he still a World Class player who could be playing at the top level?
It's great because he's an England captain and he's had a great career. His experience can help not only the lads who are there now but the young lads who are looking to get into the squad in the future. They will see what it takes to get to that next level. He's done it and worn all of the jerseys so it's great.
He's not the same John Terry who won the Champions League but he's still got a lot to offer and when you get older you might not be as quick and sharp but you're mentally wiser and know where to be at the right times.
Where do you think Aston Villa will end up this season? Is anything less than promotion a failure?
If they don't reach the play-offs they'll probably be thinking that, yeah.
And what about Birmingham?
For Birmingham it's about stability. They have had so much instability lately with new owners, then more new owners, and they don't know what they're doing, and they sack the managers. The owners needs to understand what the fans want and what the club is able to achieve.
Do you think Steve Cotterill is a good appointment at Blues?
He's given them instant results so hopefully that can get them going onwards and upwards.
( Heskey's thoughts on this weekend's Second City derby)
Read the full 888sport interview with Emile Heskey, including his thoughts on an Aston Villa side lacking confidence
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Gone in 90 Seconds, Villa's Set Piece Shambles and Mings Meltdown.
Aston Villa's Potential Upside Should Make Them Upwardly Mobile
Steve Bruce Confident to Take Advantage of Missing Grealish Despite Toon's Injury Woe
Steve Bruce Relishes Challenge of Beating Villa, as Villa's Squad Gets Another Boost
Race for Callum Wilson Hots up With Villa Wary of Overspending
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This article is from the Encyclopedia of North Carolina edited by William S. Powell. Copyright © 2006 by the University of North Carolina Press. Used by permission of the publisher. For personal use and not for further distribution. Please submit permission requests for other use directly to the publisher.
by Carole Watterson Troxler, 2006
Settlement schools in the southern Appalachian Mountains at the start of the twentieth century nurtured elements of mountain culture they believed "native" and "pure." Their favored musical instrument was a quiet zither bearing the name dulcimer, Greek and Latin for "sweet tune" and alternately pronounced "delcimer," "delcimore," or "dulcimore." While a few dulcimers are straight-sided, most have curved sides, either single-bouted or double-bouted. In common usage, the single-bouted is called the "Virginia" shape and the double-bouted the "Cumberland" or "Kentucky" shape, terminology reflecting what is known about the locations of early makers. Both styles were made in North Carolina, but among the known makers in the state, the single bout was more common.
The dulcimer is played by pressing a noter, usually made of hardwood, cane, bone, or quill, against either a single string or two strings identically tuned, while strumming a rhythm pattern across all strings. The left hand holds the noter while the right hand strums, using either a flexible pick (quill, switch, or thin wood) or the fingers. This produces a melody accompanied by a harmonizing drone similar to that of the various small bagpipes used in all parts of the British Isles.
Among the existing dulcimers made in North Carolina, the oldest is a single-bouted instrument made by William Thompson in Ashe County in the 1850s. A major variation of the single-bouted type was developed in the late nineteenth century in southwestern Virginia; known as the Galax dulcimer, it is similar to the single-bouted dulcimers made in nearby Surry County, N.C. The double-bouted, or hourglass, style influenced early dulcimer making in North Carolina when a dulcimer of that type entered Watauga County in the 1880s and served as the model for local craftsmen.
L. Allen Smith, A Catalogue of Pre-Revival Appalachian Dulcimers (1983).
Ralph Lee Smith, The Story of the Dulcimer (1986).
Western North Carolina Dulcimer Collective: http://wncdc.org/index.php
UNC Press
Troxler, Carole W.
Encyclopedia of North Carolina, University of North Carolina Press.
1 January 2006 | Troxler, Carole W.
Your "dulcimer" article
Permalink Submitted by Paul Gifford (not verified) on Mon, 11/02/2020 - 13:15
Your "dulcimer" article completely ignores the hammered dulcimer, which had a widespread if local popularity in 19th century North Carolina, especially in Randolph, Forsythe, Chatham, and Guilford Counties. See the Edward Babel Collection at UNC-Chapel Hill for more info, or my book, "The Hammered Dulcimer: A History."
Dear Mr. Gifford,
Permalink Submitted by tthompson on Mon, 11/02/2020 - 14:56
Thank you for your comment and for the information you provided! I am forwarding your comment to our staff who work on NCpedia. A member of our staff should be in touch with you about this via e-mail soon.
Taylor Thompson, Government & Heritage Library


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Lavatai runs for 2 TDs, Navy's D dominates in…
Lavatai runs for 2 TDs, Navy's D dominates in win over Army
Navy quarterback Tai Lavatai, top center, runs the ball in for a touchdown during the first half of an NCAA college football game against Army, Saturday, Dec. 11, 2021, in East Rutherford, N.J. (AP Photo/Matt Rourke)
EAST RUTHERFORD, N.J. — Quarterback Tai Lavatai ran for two touchdowns and Navy's defense limited Army to 57-second-half yards and a season-low 232 overall in a 17-13 victory Saturday in a game played at the Meadowlands to commemorate the 20th anniversary of the 9/11 terrorist attacks.
Navy (4-8) played a complete game, outgaining Army (8-4) on the ground and overall, controlling the clock and converting three big plays, two on fourth-down, that led to all its points.
The Navy defense made the big play at the end, stopping Army quarterback Christian Anderson a yard short at the Navy 46 on fourth down with 91 seconds left.
Bijan Nichols added a 43-yard field goal for Navy, which struggled against a schedule that featured 11 bowl-bound teams. Navy ends the season with a rivalry win, while Army will face Missouri in the Armed Forces Bowl.
Anderson scored on a 56-yard run on Army's fourth play from scrimmage and Cole Talley added field goals of 31 and 32 yards, all in the first half. The Black Knights generated little after that in seeing their four-game winning streak snapped and losing to Navy for only the second time in six games.
Army led 13-7 at the half with each team scoring touchdowns on the opening possessions.
Anderson opened the scoring with a 56-yard run on the fourth play from scrimmage. Lavatai capped an 11-play, 83-yard response by the Midshipmen, scoring on an 8-yard run on which fullback James Harris helped carry him the final 3 yards.
Navy took over in the second half, taking the kickoff and going 74 yards in 10 plays with Lavatai scoring from 2-yards out. The drive featured a 26-yard run by Chance Warren on fourth-and-4that got the ball to the 2.
The late field goal by Nichols was set up by a fake punt on fourth-and-1 from the Navy 34. Linebacker and leading tackler Diego Fagot took a direct snap, avoided a tackle and gained 4 yards. It was his first career carry.
— Tom Canavan, The Associated Press
More in College Sports
Payton's 18 lead Kent State past Central Michigan 81-69
Pickett, Penn State blister Michigan 83-61
Edey scores 38 as No. 1 Purdue overwhelms Spartans 77-61
Zach Edey has 19 points, No. 1 Purdue beats Michigan 75-70


text:
Using concept maps as instructional materials to foster the understanding of the atomic model and matter–energy interaction (2016)
Aguiar, Joana Guilares de
Correia, Paulo Rogério Miranda
Autor USP: CORREIA, PAULO ROGÉRIO MIRANDA - EACH
Unidade: EACH
DOI: 10.1039/c6rp00069j
Subjects: MAPAS CONCEITUAIS; QUÍMICA; ENSINO E APRENDIZAGEM
Publisher place: Cambridge
Título do periódico: Chemistry Education Research and Practice
Volume/Número/Paginação/Ano: v. 17, p. 756-765, 2016
Informações sobre o DOI: 10.1039/c6rp00069j (Fonte: oaDOI API)
AGUIAR, Joana Guilares de; CORREIA, Paulo Rogério Miranda. Using concept maps as instructional materials to foster the understanding of the atomic model and matter–energy interaction. Chemistry Education Research and Practice, Cambridge, v. 17, p. 756-765, 2016. Disponível em: < http://dx.doi.org/10.1039/c6rp00069j > DOI: 10.1039/c6rp00069j.
Aguiar, J. G. de, & Correia, P. R. M. (2016). Using concept maps as instructional materials to foster the understanding of the atomic model and matter–energy interaction. Chemistry Education Research and Practice, 17, 756-765. doi:10.1039/c6rp00069j
Aguiar JG de, Correia PRM. Using concept maps as instructional materials to foster the understanding of the atomic model and matter–energy interaction [Internet]. Chemistry Education Research and Practice. 2016 ; 17 756-765.Available from: http://dx.doi.org/10.1039/c6rp00069j
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Estudo sobre a estrutura gráfica dos mapas conceituais: em busca da aprendizagem significativa no ensino de ciências
From representing to modelling knowledge: proposing a two-step training for excellence in concept mapping
Estudo sobre a natureza estática ou dinâmica das proposições em mapas conceituais sobre bioética
Using worked example to teach the role of focus question: building conceptual understanding about concept mapping
Mapas conceituais como ferramenta de avaliação: desafios e possibilidades de mudanças na sala de aula
The use of concept maps for knowledge management: from classrooms to research labs
Is a concept mapping with errors useful to evaluate learning outcomes?: a study on declarative knowledge and reading strategy using eye-tracking
Um treinamento em duas etapas visando à certificação de mapeadores excelentes: da representação à modelagem de conhecimento
Compulsory concept as instructional strategy to identify limited or inappropriate propositional hierarchies in concept maps
Mapas conceituais no ensino de ciências: avaliando como os alunos articulam diferentes materiais instrucionais


The Kensington Dental surgery has been caring for the local community for over 20 years.
In March 2014 Perfect Smile acquired the practice and we have been continuing to provide first-class family dentistry. It is our aim to provide high quality and affordable procedures within a professional and friendly environment.
With our team of professional and helpful experts, we hope to make you feel as relaxed and comfortable as possible, providing dentistry that suits your dentition and budget.
You are more than welcome to register as an NHS patient and should you decide to take up any private cosmetic treatment you will never lose your NHS registration.
We offer a variety of treatments and invite you to call and speak with a member of our team to see how we can offer a treatment plan that suits you. Fully NHS treatment plans to cosmetics, such as Whitening, veneers, fast braces, Invisalign and Implant.
Perfect Smile Kensington is situated a 2-minute walk from Kensington Olympia train station, which is covered by London Underground District line and overground services. We are a ten-minute walk from High Street Kensington, Shepherds Bush train station and Westfield shopping centre.
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I had 6 root extractions today and the work was done very very well and efficiently and pain to be expected was kept to a minimum. Initially the dentist thought that 2 appointments would be necessary but due to her expertise it was all managed in one go! Well done to her and her able assistant too!!!


Love Art But Don't Own Your Home? Try An Art Hanging System!
Rental properties almost all share one common characteristic.
Of course they are. The owner wants the place to be as safe, unoffensive and widely appealing as possible. That means boring furniture, no bright colors and either no personality at all or keep it as generic as possible.


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redpajama_set_name: RedPajamaGithub


text:
Q: Is this simplified flow chart of how the ubuntu fire up is correct ? I am trying to understand the way that Ubuntu starts what is being runned or started. Can you please confirm if my simplified flow chart is correct ?

*

*First we power on a computer with linux distribution for instance : ubuntu by clicking on On

*The BIOS is started from the ROM. It initializes the hardware.

*The MBR is executed.

*the boot loader loads the OS kernel.

*The OS Kernel loads the Desktop User Interface.

I am a bit lost...

A: The following are the 6 high level stages of a typical Linux boot process.

1. BIOS

*

*BIOS stands for Basic Input/Output System

*Performs some system integrity checks

*Searches, loads, and executes the boot loader program.

*It looks for boot loader in floppy, cd-rom, or hard drive. You can
press a key (typically F12 of F2, but it depends on your system)
during the BIOS startup to change the boot sequence.

*Once the boot loader program is detected and loaded into the memory,
BIOS gives the control to it.

So, in simple terms BIOS loads and executes the MBR boot loader.
2. MBR

*

*MBR stands for Master Boot Record.

*It is located in the 1st sector of the bootable disk. Typically
/dev/hda, or /dev/sda

*MBR is less than 512 bytes in size. This has three components 1)
primary boot loader info in 1st 446 bytes 2) partition table info in
next 64 bytes 3) mbr validation check in last 2 bytes.

*It contains information about GRUB (or LILO in old systems). So, in
simple terms MBR loads and executes the GRUB boot loader.

3. GRUB

*

*GRUB stands for Grand Unified Bootloader.

*If you have multiple kernel images installed on your system, you can
choose which one to be executed.

*GRUB displays a splash screen, waits for few seconds, if you don't
enter anything, it loads the default kernel image as specified in the
grub configuration file.

*GRUB has the knowledge of the filesystem (the older Linux loader LILO
didn't understand filesystem).
Grub configuration file is
/boot/grub/grub.conf (/etc/grub.conf is a link to this). The following is sample grub.conf of CentOS.
#boot=/dev/sda
default=0
timeout=5
splashimage=(hd0,0)/boot/grub/splash.xpm.gz
hiddenmenu
title CentOS (2.6.18-194.el5PAE)
          root (hd0,0)
          kernel /boot/vmlinuz-2.6.18-194.el5PAE ro root=LABEL=/
          initrd /boot/initrd-2.6.18-194.el5PAE.img

As you notice from the above info, it contains kernel and initrd image.
So, in simple terms GRUB just loads and executes Kernel and initrd images.
4. Kernel

*

*Mounts the root file system as specified in the "root=" in grub.conf
Kernel executes the /sbin/init program
Since init was the 1st program to be executed by Linux Kernel, it has the process id (PID) of 1. Do a ps -ef | grep init and check the pid.
initrd stands for Initial RAM Disk.

*initrd is used by kernel as temporary root file system until kernel
is booted and the real root file system is mounted. It also contains
necessary drivers compiled inside, which helps it to access the hard
drive partitions, and other hardware.
5. Init

*

*Looks at the /etc/inittab file to decide the Linux run level.

*Following are the available run levels

*halt

*Single user mode

*Multiuser, without NFS

*Full multiuser mode

*unused

*X11

*reboot
Init identifies the default initlevel from /etc/inittab and uses that to load all appropriate program.

*Execute 'grep initdefault /etc/inittab on your system to identify
the default run level
If you want to get into trouble, you can set the default run level to 0 or 6. Since you know what 0 and 6 means, probably you might not do that.
Typically you would set the default run level to either 3 or 5.
6. Runlevel programs

*

*When the Linux system is booting up, you might see various services
getting started. For example, it might say starting sendmail …. OK.
Those are the runlevel programs, executed from the run level
directory as defined by your run level.

*Depending on your default init level setting, the system will execute
the programs from one of the following directories.

*

*Run level 0 – /etc/rc.d/rc0.d/

*Run level 1 – /etc/rc.d/rc1.d/

*Run level 2 – /etc/rc.d/rc2.d/

*Run level 3 – /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/

*Run level 4 – /etc/rc.d/rc4.d/

*Run level 5 – /etc/rc.d/rc5.d/

*Run level 6 – /etc/rc.d/rc6.d/

*Please note that there are also symbolic links available for these
directory under /etc directly. So, /etc/rc0.d is linked to
/etc/rc.d/rc0.d.

*Under the /etc/rc.d/rc*.d/ directories, you would see programs that
start with S and K.

*Programs starts with S are used during startup. S for startup.

*Programs starts with K are used during shutdown. K for kill.

*There are numbers right next to S and K in the program names. Those
are the sequence number in which the programs should be started or
killed.

*For example, S12syslog is to start the syslog deamon, which has the
sequence number of 12. S80sendmail is to start the sendmail daemon,
which has the sequence number of 80. So, syslog program will be
started before sendmail.
Update:
Many of modern linux distros replaced init with systemd and upstart
Systemd
systemd is an init system used by some Linux distributions to bootstrap the user space and manage all processes subsequently, instead of the UNIX System V or Berkeley Software Distribution (BSD) init systems. The name systemd adheres to the Unix convention of naming daemons by appending the letter d. It is published as free and open-source software under the terms of the GNU Lesser General Public License (LGPL) version 2.1 or later. One of systemd's main goals is to unify basic Linux configurations and service behaviors across all distributions.
As of 2015, many Linux distributions have adopted systemd as their default init system. The increasing adoption of systemd has been controversial, with critics arguing the software has violated the Unix philosophy by becoming increasingly complex, and that distributions have been forced to adopt it due to the dependency of various other software upon it, including, most notably, the GNOME 3 desktop environment.
Upstart
Upstart is an event-based replacement for the traditional init daemon – the method by which several Unix-like computer operating systems perform tasks when the computer is started. It was written by Scott James Remnant, a former employee of Canonical Ltd.
The traditional init process was originally only responsible for bringing the computer into a normal running state after power-on, or gracefully shutting down services prior to shutdown. As a result, the design is strictly synchronous, blocking future tasks until the current one has completed. Its tasks must also be defined in advance, as they are limited to this prep or cleanup function. This leaves it unable to handle various non-startup-tasks on a modern desktop computer elegantly, including:

*

*The addition or removal of USB flash drives and other portable
storage / network devices while the machine is running

*The discovery and scanning of new storage devices, without locking
the system, especially when a disk may not even power on until it is
scanned

*The loading of firmware for a device, which may need to occur
after it is detected but before it is usable

Upstart's event-driven model allows it to respond to events asynchronously as they are generated.
Hope it helps. For more details go to thegeekstuff and golinuxhub

redpajama_set_name: RedPajamaStackExchange


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text:
AILET PG LLM 2017 – Previous Question Paper
This is the AILET 2017 question paper for LLM program admission in the National Law University, Delhi (NLU Delhi). This specific paper is also referred as AILET PG LLM 2017.
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AILET PG LL.M. ADMISSION TEST – 2017
Date of Exam : 7th May, 2017 (Sunday)
Max. Marks : 150
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 100 multiple choice objective type questions of one mark each which has to be answered in the OMR sheet.
3. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided in the OMR Sheet. Use ONLY HB PENCIL AND DO NOT USE BALL POINT/INK/GEL PEN.
4. There is one essay question of 50 marks which has to be answered in separate sheet with a pen. Total marks are 150.
5. There is no negative marking.
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7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as Zero.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the Answer Sheet other than the details required and in the spaces provided for.
9. After the examination is over, the candidate has to return the test booklet alonq with Answer Sheet, to the invigilator.
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation of his / her candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal prosecution.
12. No electronic gadgets like mobile phone or calculator will be permitted inside the test center.
PART – I
1. In both Plato's and Aristotle's philosophy of law and justice
2. Rousseau, a great champion of individual freedoms and rights makes individual subject only to the
3. Which one of the following writers advocated retention of only such laws which promoted four goals of subsistence, abundance, equality and security ?
4. Holland says, Jurisprudence is not a science of legal relations a priori as they might have been or should have been, but is a posteriori that is to say from Law which has been
5. The typical nineteenth century Austinian positivistic approach envisaging Status quo, laissez faire, sanctity of contract inherited both by Indian judges and lawyers have largely contributed in the perpetuation of
6. In the nineties and in the early part of the twenty first century, Holmesian thesis of
law which Julius Stone perceived as lawyer's extra-version has become an effective practice and integral part of Indian Judicial process leaving behind the old fashioned dictum that ,
7. ______ said that The inn that shelters for the night is not the journey's end. The law, the traveller, must be ready for morrow. It must have a principle of growth.'
8. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) sic utere tuo ut alienum non laedas : to use your own property as not to injure your neighbour's right
(b) re legitima portis : a person cannot dispose off his entire property
(c) jus tertii : to set up title of a third person other than himself or the plaintiff
(d) nec vi nec clam nec precario : possessor must show to the competitor
9. Hagerstorm rejected the notion of law as command and insisted on morals or as he puts it
10. The three defects in the Simple Social Structure of Primary rules as enunciated by Hart are
11. The distinction between duty imposing rule and power conferring Rules of Hart is what Alf Ross refers to as the distinction between
12. Professor Thibaut's proposals for a code on the pattern of Napoleonic Code for Germany was instantaneously answered in 1814 by Savigny in his famous pamphlet
13. 'I have a right to do as I please.' The term 'right' in this statement refers to
14. According to Henry Maine, the progressive societies are those which proceed to develop law with the help of three new instrumentalities viz.
15. According to Durkheim, Mechanical Solidarity is based on likeness and a sense of common identity. People are bound together by the fact that they have been brought up to act and think alike, follow similar routines and
16. Mainly there are four classes of rights in re-aliena viz
17. Who made an observation that the object of Concession Theory was to keep personality under lock and key ?
18. Etymologically seisin is associated with possessio and besitz and in early English law it was used to describe possession of both
19. Consider the following statements
1. The main assumption of Realist theory is that corporate personality is a reality.
2. A corporation is a representation of psychological reality that exists independently of the fiat of the State and are recognised rather than created by it.
3. The Realist theory asserts that group personality has the same feature as a human personality.
4. The Realist theory does not represent any reaction against the omnipotence of State implied in the fiction.
20. The Supreme Court has directed the Law Commission of India to examine various issues relating to the working of Tribunals including the desirability of providing statutory appeals directly to Supreme Court from orders of Tribunals on issues not affecting national or public interest and other aspects of statutory framework in respect of Tribunals in
21. In , the Supreme Court directed to upload copies of FIR within hours on police website.
22. Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court held that the cap of 14 years Rule on aggregate punishment under Section of CrPC is not applicable to Sessions Court.
23. The 21st Law Commission released its first report in October 2016 on
24. In ______ former Judge of the Supreme Court of India was invited by Supreme Court to present his view.
25. Which of the following High Courts held that Section 52 (1) (i) of the Copyright Act is broad enough to cover the acts of photocopying and the creation of course packs by University for its students?
26. Supreme Court lifted the ban on registration of 2000 CC plus diesel cars with imposition of % cess on ex-showroom price which will be levied as environmental tax which has to be paid either by the manufacturer, dealer or buyer.
27. Supreme Court recently quashed criminal proceeding against which Indian player for allegedly hurting religious sentiments by portraying himself as Lord Vishnu on the cover of a business magazine?
28. Which of the following statutes define offences in absolute terms, i.e., without mentioning the necessity of mens real
29. Under the Law of Tort, a minor
30. The Narco-Analysis technique involves the intravenous administration of
31. A sentence of imprisonment for life may be commuted for imprisonment for a term not exceeding years or for Fine.
32. Simultaneous civil and criminal proceedings are
33. Which of the following change/s was/were introduced in the Code of Criminal Procedure in 1973?
34. Who among the following laid down the Hicklin Test (1869), which is still followed by the courts in various countries as the authoritative test to determine 'obscenity'?
35. The action for criminal contempt may be taken by
36. Central Vigilance Commissioner can be removed from the office only after an enquiry conducted by
37. No court shall take cognisance of an offence punishable with fine only, after the expiry of the period of limitation of
38. At any time before the judgment is pronounced, prosecution of any person may be withdrawn with the consent of the court by
39. Delhi High Court referred to of Constitution of India to hold that Lieutenant Governor is the administrative head of the NCT of Delhi.
40. Which of the following statement/s regarding 'Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2016 is/ are correct ?
I. The Bill allows for altruistic surrogacy. But does not prohibit commercial surrogacy completely.
II. The Bill will regulate surrogacy in India and provides for establishment of National Surrogacy Board at the Central level and State Surrogacy Boards.
III. The Bill allows altruistic surrogacy for the couples with proven infertility and upon fulfilment of some other conditions.
IV. The surrogate mother has to be a close relative of the intending couple and be an unmarried woman of 20 – 25 years.
41. Which countries Court of Appeals upheld open internet rules that prohibit broadband carriers from playing favourites of blocking competing online service ?
42. Which of the following is true about the Child – friendly Courts ?
I. Separate waiting rooms for children
II. Judge and Police officers not to be in their uniforms
III. Video-camera trial for accused
IV. Direct contact between child and the accused in few cases only
43. Which of the following statements is true about malice-in-law and malice-in-fact ?
44. 'Although, prima facie and as a general rule, there must be a mind at fault before there can be a crime, it is not an inflexible rule, and a statute may relate to such a subject-matter and may be so framed as to make an act criminal whether there has been any intention to break the law or otherwise to do wrong, or not.' This was held in
45. The case of Hochster v. De La Tour deals with
46. Which of the following State provides for 69% of reservations ?
47. A two judge bench of the Supreme Court set aside the Jammu and Kashmir High Court's judgment which had held that various key provisions of the were outside the legislative competence of Parliament, as they interfered with Section 140 of the Transfer of Property Act of Jammu & Kashmir, 1920.
48. The President of India is not bound by the advice of the Union Council of Ministers
49. The Constitution of India has no provision for the removal of
50. In which of thefollowing cases, the Supreme Court introduced the present collegiums system of appointment and transfer of Judges ?
51. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?
(a) Where a court is not competent to frame charge in an offence it shall not be competent to permit, withdrawing from prosecution.
(b) The Public Prosecutor is bound to receive instructions from the government and such instructions would not amount to an extraneous influence.
(c) An order granting permission to withdraw the prosecution solely on the ground that where about of the accused was not available, is permissible.
(d) The Magistrate has discretion to grant or refuse permission to withdraw the prosecution.
52. The term 'Contra proferentem' means that
53. In some cases, it has been pleaded on behalf of the Government that the law of estoppel is not applicable in view of
54. According to Saimond and Winfield, "A promise without consideration is a gift; one made for a consideration is a bargain." However, in the following circumstances a contract without consideration will be perfectly valid
I. An agreement in writing made on account of natural love and affection
II. Contract of Agency
III. Promise to pay a time-barred debt
IV. Oral promise made on account of natural love and affection
55. Following are some of the exceptions under which third parties, which are strangers to the contract, can bring law suit to enforce their rights arising out of a contract
I. In cases of agency and gifts
II. In case of provisions in marriage settlement of minors
III. Beneficiaries in case of trust
IV. In case provision is made for the marriage or maintenance of a female member of the family on the partition of a Hindu Undivided Family.
56. If any person has been supplied with necessaries and he is not competent to contract due to lunacy, the reasonable price of those things can be recovered from him under the
57. A who is a minor takes loan from B. On attaining majority, A executes a bond in favour of B for the loan taken during the minority. Is A liable?
58. The doctrine of undue influence was evolved by the
59. Which of the following statements is false ?
(a) The defence of non est factum was evolved by the judiciary to save the position of a person who signed a document but could not read it due to his blindness or illiteracy.
(b) In course of time, the defence of non est factum came to be applied to other areas also besides blindness and illiteracy.
(c) The doctrine of non est factum applies in case of a misrepresentation inducing a mistaken belief regarding the class and character of a supposed document.
(d) The doctrine originally applied to the negotiable instruments but it came under criticism and after being overhauled by the House of Lords, it applies only to contracts.
60. An agreement curtailing the period of limitation has been distinguished from an agreement resulting in the release or forfeiture of the rights if an action is not brought within a certain period. Such clauses are generally there in
61. Which of the following are not types of agents?
I. Del Credere
II. pacca adatia
III. Broker
IV. Factor
62. There are two important theories of doctrine of frustration, viz., theory of implied term and
63. The doctrine of supervening impossibility will not apply in the following cases
I. Difficulty in performance
II. Outbreak of war
III. Commercial impossibility
IV. Strikes, Lock-outs and civil disturbances
64. Where an Amendment seeks to make any change in any of the provisions mentioned in the proviso to Article 368 of the Constitution of India
65. No specific time limit for ratification of an Amending Bill by the State Legislatures is laid down, however, the resolution ratifying the proposed Amendment should be
66. For the further continuance of the emergency beyond the period of six months, approval by Parliament would be required
67. Which one of the following is not the duty of the Finance Commission of India ?
68. The power to prorogue the House is vested in
69. According to D. D. Basu, if the Prime Minister, who is defeated in the House or who loses the confidence of the House, refuses to resign, the President may dismiss him, and this power is confided in the Constitution of India in
70. The objectives laid down in Article 40 have been fulfilled by enacting the Constitution 73rd and 74th Amendments Act 1992 known as the
71. Whereas the 25th Amendment gave primacy to Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Article 39 (b) and (c) over the Fundamental Rights in Articles 14,19 or 31 of the Constitution of India, the 42nd Amendment gave precedence to all Directive Principles over the Fundamental Rights guaranteed in
72. The places of worship like Temples, Mosques, Gurudwaras cannot be used for hiding criminals or carrying on anti-national activities. They cannot be used for political purposes. The State has power to prohibit such activities under
73. The rule of res judicata is not applicable to the writ of
74. Article 19 (4) empowers the State to impose reasonable restrictions on the right of freedom of association and union in the interest of
75. Article 14 of the Constitution permits classification but prohibits
76. Dicey wrote, "every official from the Prime Minister down to the Constable or a Collector of taxes is under the same responsibility for every act done without legal justification as any other citizen." Dicey gave three meanings of the Rule of Law
I. Absence of arbitrary power or supremacy of law
II. Equality before law
III. The Constitution is the result of the ordinary law of the land
IV. There is no exception from the operation of law
77. Any law, executive order made by the State during the period of emergency cannot be challenged on the ground that they are inconsistent with the rights guaranteed under
78. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) The power of the legislature under Article 245 of the Constitution to enact laws is a plenary power subject only to its legislative competence and other constitutional limitations.
(b) The power to validate a law retrospectively is unfettered.
(c) The legislature has power to alter the existing laws retrospectively.
(d) The power to make laws include the power to give effect to it prospectively
79. What is 'fellow servant' Rule ?
80. According to Justice Holmes, law is
(a) A social institution to satisfy social wants
(b) Aggregate of rules set up by men as politically superior or sovereign, to men as politically inferior
(c) The statement of circumstances in which the public force will be brought to bear upon men through courts
(d) A crystallised common sense of the communities
81. __________ says that the Realist Movement is a 'gloss' on the Sociological School of law.
82. The influence of the individuals upon the legal development is by the Volkgeist Theory.
83. The Tort litigation is increasing in India particularly under the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 as there is a provision under this Act for compulsory compensation to be given
84. According to Winfield
(a) Tortious liability arises from breach of duty primarily fixed by the law. This duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressible by action for unliquidated damages.
(b) A tort is an infringement of right of a private individual giving a right of compensation at the suit of the injured party.
(c) A tort is a civil wrong for which the remedy in common law is action for unliquidated damages and which is not exclusively breach of contract or of trust or breach of other merely equitable obligation.
(d) A tort consists of those wrongs or unlawful acts which violates legal rights of a person for which law provides the remedy of unliquidated damages.
85. Which one of the following is not an instance of Injuria Sine Damnum ?
86. There shall be no appeal by a convicted person in any of the following cases
87. Regarding bail applications, a Bench comprising of Justice A. K. Goel and Justice U. U. Lalit of the Supreme Court of India has asked all High Courts to issue directions to their Subordinate Courts that
I. All bail applications normally be disposed of by judicial officers within one week.
II. Magisterial trial where accused is in custody be concluded within six months.
III. Session trial where accused is in custody normally be concluded within two years.
IV. Efforts to be made to dispose of all cases, which are ten years old, by the end of the year.
V. The above timelines may, however, will not be the touchstone for assessment of judicial performance in annual confidential reports.
88. What is the significance of Pravasi Bhalai Sangathan v. Union of India (AIR 2014 SC 1591) case as a result of which the Law Commission of India has submitted its Report No.267 in March 2017 ?
89. Which of the following is correct in respect of 'Right to be Forgotten' ?
I. The Karnataka High Court in a landmark judgment recently has accepted, applied and approved the 'Right to be Forgotten' in Indian context.
II. It allows offenders who had served their sentence to object to the publication of information regarding their crime and conviction in order to ease their process of social integration.
III. The origin of this right can be traced back to the French jurisprudence on the 'right to oblivion'.
IV. The Right to be Forgotten can be inferred from the provisions of the Information Technology (IT) Act 2000 (amended in 2008) as well as from the IT Rules, 2011.
90. There is difference between the torts of libel and slander. Which of the following is not correct ?
(a) Libel is a defamatory statement in permanent form and Slander is a defamatory statement in a transient form.
(b) Libel is actionable per se whereas damage must be proved for slander.
(c) Libel may be prosecuted as a crime as well as a tort, whereas slander is only a tort.
(d) Difference between libel and slander is clearer in cases of publication through radio, audio and video.
91. Which of the following is not a bar to the right to rescind the contract in cases of misrepresentation ?
92. Under Section 105 of I PC, the right of private defence of property in cases of theft commences when a reasonable apprehension of danger to the property commences and
93. Preparation for the commission of a crime is
(a) punishable under the IPC
(b) not punishable under the IPC
(c) punishable when the preparation is with the intention of waging war against the Government of India or preparation to commit dacoity
(d) punishable only when the preparation is with the intention of waging
94. In __________ Supreme Court bench of Justices Dipak Misra and Prafulla C. Pant observed "any kind of liberal approach or thought of mediation in this regard (between rape victim and the accused) is thoroughly and completely sans legal permissibility."
95. In which of the following cases, Supreme Court held that an offence under the criminal law does not depend upon the gender of the accused ?
96. Which of the following provisions of IPC prescribes death sentence as the only punishment for murder ?
97. Which one of the following correctly identifies the remedies available to the victim in case of false imprisonment ?
98. In ________ the Supreme Court held that women can be arrested by police at any time and even in absence of lady constable if the arresting officer records the proper reason for such arrest.
99. Which of the following was never held or observed by the Privy Council in Mohori Bibee v. Dharamodas Ghose
100. Which of the following sections of Indian Penal Code aims at achieving the age-old principle of peaceful co-existence of different countries of the world, especially neighbouring countries?
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