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4467 - Pee Dee Stores v. Doyle
Pee Dee Stores, Inc., Plaintiff,
Carolyn H. Doyle, d/b/a Pee Dee Farms Company, and Billy W. Huggins, individually and d/b/a Huggins Farm Service, Inc., Defendants,
of Whom Carolyn H. Doyle, d/b/a Pee Dee Farms Company, and Billy W. Huggins, individually and d/b/a Huggins Farm Service, Inc. are the, Third-Party Plaintiffs,
Helena Chemical Company, Third-Party Defendant.
Carolyn H. Doyle, d/b/a Pee Dee Farms Company, Defendant, of Whom Carolyn H. Doyle, d/b/a Pee Dee Farms Company is the,
Third-Party Plaintiff,
Helena Chemical Company, Third-Party Defendant,
of Whom Carolyn H. Doyle, d/b/a Pee Dee Farms Company, and Billy W. Huggins, individually and d/b/a Huggins Farm Service, Inc. are the Appellants
Pee Dee Stores, Inc., and Helena Chemical Company are the Respondents.
Appeal From Horry County
John L. Breeden, Circuit Court Judge
Submitted October 8, 2008 – Filed December 12, 2008
Withdrawn, Substituted, and Refiled January 29, 2009
REVERSED AND REMANDED
Amanda A. Bailey, Esquire, and Henrietta U. Golding, Esquire, of Myrtle Beach; for Appellant.
Douglas M. Zayicek, Esquire, of Myrtle Beach, for Respondent.
GEATHERS, J.: Appellant Billy W. Huggins, d/b/a Huggins Farm Service (Huggins), seeks review of an order granting Pee Dee Stores, Inc.'s (Pee Dee Stores) summary judgment motion and motion to compel settlement based on a Settlement Agreement. Huggins asserts that the Settlement Agreement was intended to resolve only the landlord/tenant claims and that his civil conspiracy and unfair trade practices claims against both Pee Dee Stores and Third-Party Defendant Helena Chemical Company (Helena) survived the Settlement Agreement. As such, Huggins alleges that summary judgment was improper because a genuine issue of material fact exists as to whether the parties to the Settlement Agreement intended to extinguish Huggins' claims against Pee Dee Stores and Helena. We reverse.
FACTUAL/PROCEDURAL BACKGROUND
Pee Dee Stores and Paul E. Doyle, deceased husband of Defendant Carolyn Doyle,[1] d/b/a Pee Dee Farms Company (Doyle), entered into a five-year commercial lease agreement that commenced on March 1, 2000 and was to terminate on February 28, 2005. Doyle used the leased premises to operate a convenience store, gas station, and farm supply retail store. The lease agreement afforded Doyle an option to renew the lease by providing written notice to Pee Dee Stores by December 1, 2004. During the lease term, and pursuant to an agreement with Doyle in late 2003, Huggins began selling farm supplies out of the leased premises in his capacity as a commissioned agent for Helena.[2]
Prior to the termination of the lease, Pee Dee Stores represented to Doyle that the lease term would be extended to allow Doyle until December 1, 2005 to consider the option to renew. In addition, Helena represented to Huggins that it intended to purchase Huggins' farm supply business with all of the attached goodwill. At that time, Huggins, Doyle, and Helena began negotiations. Subsequently, and prior to the December 1, 2005 deadline, Doyle notified Pee Dee Stores in writing of her intention to exercise the option to renew the lease. Pee Dee Stores informed Doyle that she could not exercise the option to renew and asked her to vacate the store.
Pee Dee Stores filed an ejectment action against Doyle in magistrate court, asserting a violation of the lease as well as its expiration as grounds for ejectment.[3] Doyle answered the complaint by denying the material allegations and sought a declaratory judgment that she was the legal tenant under the lease and had properly exercised the option to renew. In addition, Pee Dee Stores later filed a separate action for breach of contract against Doyle and Huggins. The complaint also alleged interference with contractual relations and fraud, among other claims.
In response to both the ejectment and breach of contract actions, Doyle and Huggins counterclaimed against Pee Dee Stores seeking monetary damages for issues related to the landlord/tenant relationship. Further, the parties asserted in a Third-Party Complaint against Helena causes of action for negligent misrepresentation, unfair trade practices, civil conspiracy, promissory estoppel, interference with a contract, and interference with a prospective contract. These causes of action were based upon an alleged conspiracy between Helena and Pee Dee Stores to oust Doyle and Huggins from the property in order to enable Helena to rent the leased premises and take over both parties' business goodwill without compensation.
Subsequently, Doyle and Huggins brought a motion to consolidate the ejectment and breach of contract actions. The trial court denied the motion to consolidate, ordering the parties to resolve the issues related to the ejectment action first, after which discovery and trial of the remaining issues would occur.
While both actions were pending, Pee Dee Stores, Doyle, and Huggins entered into a Settlement Agreement, which was subtitled as "Relating Only to All Landlord/Tenant Issues." The record does not indicate which party drafted the Settlement Agreement. All three parties signed the Settlement Agreement. The pertinent provisions of the Settlement Agreement are as follows:
7. The parties shall forever release each other from all claims and/or issues, whenever arising, with each agreeing they will never sue or involve each other in any litigation involving the premises, the store, any business on the premises, and/or the relationship between the Parties, as follows: (1) the Parties agree this is a full and complete release of all claims known and unknown, between Pee Dee Stores, Inc. and Carolyn Doyle, d/b/a Pee Dee Farms Company; and (2) the Parties agree this is a full and complete release of all landlord/tenant claims and issues, known or unknown, between the Parties.
8. Nothing in this agreement shall be construed as in any way effecting [sic] the rights of Billy W. Huggins and/or Huggins Farm Service, Inc. to assert claims against Helena Chemical Company. Nothing in this agreement shall be construed as in any way effecting [sic] the rights of Billy W. Huggins and/or Huggins Farm Service, Inc. to assert claims against Pee Dee Stores, Inc. for claims other than the landlord/tenant claims. Nothing herein shall be construed as a relinquishment, waiver, discharge or release of any claims by Billy W. Huggins and/or Huggins Farm Services, Inc. against Pee Dee Stores, Inc., for any claims other than the landlord/tenant claims.
10. Pee Dee Stores, Inc. and Carolyn Doyle d/b/a Pee Dee Farms Company agree to dismiss all claims against each other, with prejudice, and Pee Dee Stores, Inc. and Billy W. Huggins, individually and Huggins Farm Service, Inc., agree to dismiss only the landlord/tenant claims with prejudice.
Pee Dee Stores later moved to enforce the Settlement Agreement. Subsequently, Doyle and Huggins moved to amend their pleadings to remove all of the landlord/tenant claims against Pee Dee Stores that were resolved by the Settlement Agreement, including the declaratory judgment, breach of lease, and negligent misrepresentation claims. Huggins proposed to leave intact the civil conspiracy and unfair trade practices claims against Pee Dee Stores and Helena. Pee Dee Stores also moved to amend its pleadings to reflect the Settlement Agreement and moved for summary judgment.
At the hearing on the various motions, counsel for Pee Dee Stores, Doyle, and Huggins acknowledged that settlement was reached regarding the ejectment action and that the terms were set forth in the Settlement Agreement. The trial court granted Pee Dee Stores' motion to compel settlement and summary judgment motion, finding the pleadings indicated that all allegations involved landlord/tenant claims and issues "involving the premises, the store, any business on the premises, and/or the relationship between the Parties[,]" and as such were resolved by the Settlement Agreement. Huggins now appeals.
When reviewing the grant of a summary judgment motion, this Court applies the same standard that governs the trial court under Rule 56(c), SCRCP, which provides that summary judgment is appropriate only when there is no genuine issue of material fact and the movant is entitled to judgment as a matter of law. Rule 56(c), SCRCP; Helms Realty, Inc. v. Gibson Wall Co., 363 S.C. 334, 340, 611 S.E.2d 485, 488 (2005) (when reviewing the grant of a summary judgment motion, the appellate court applies the same standard of review as the trial court). Summary judgment should be granted when plain, palpable, and indisputable facts exist on which reasonable minds cannot differ. Ellis v. Davidson, 358 S.C. 509, 518, 595 S.E.2d 817, 822 (Ct. App. 2004). However, summary judgment is not appropriate when further inquiry into the facts of the case is desirable to clarify the application of law. Tupper v. Dorchester County, 326 S.C. 318, 325, 487 S.E.2d 187, 191 (1997).
In determining whether any triable issues of fact exist, the evidence and all inferences must be viewed in the light most favorable to the non-moving party. Jones v. State Farm Mut. Auto. Ins. Co., 364 S.C. 222, 227, 612 S.E.2d 719, 722 (Ct. App. 2005). Thus, the appellate court reviews all ambiguities, conclusions, and inferences arising in and from the evidence in a light most favorable to the non-moving party. Willis v. Wu, 362 S.C. 146, 151, 607 S.E.2d 63, 65 (2004). If evidentiary facts are not disputed, but the conclusions or inferences to be drawn from them are, summary judgment should be denied. Baugus v. Wessinger, 303 S.C. 412, 415, 401 S.E.2d 169, 171 (1991). Further, "[t]he purpose of summary judgment is to expedite disposition of cases which do not require the services of a fact finder." George v. Fabri, 345 S.C. 440, 452, 548 S.E.2d 868, 874 (2001) (internal citations omitted).
Summary judgment is improper when there is an issue as to the construction of a written contract and the contract is ambiguous because the intent of the parties cannot be gathered from the four corners of the instrument. Gilliland v. Elmwood Prop., 301 S.C. 295, 299, 391 S.E.2d 577, 579 (1990) (internal citations omitted); HK New Plan Exch. Prop. Owner I, LLC v. Coker, 375 S.C. 18, 23, 649 S.E.2d 181, 184 (Ct. App. 2007); Bishop v. Benson, 297 S.C. 14, 17, 374 S.E.2d 517, 518-19 (Ct. App. 1988). The court is without authority to consider parties' secret intentions, and therefore words cannot be read into a contract to impart an intent unexpressed when the contract was executed. Blakely v. Rabon, 266 S.C. 68, 73, 221 S.E.2d 767, 769 (1976). Construction of an ambiguous contract is a question of fact to be decided by the trier of fact. Soil Remediation Co. v. Nu-Way Envtl., Inc., 325 S.C. 231, 234, 482 S.E.2d 554, 555 (1997); Lacke v. Lacke, 362 S.C. 302, 309, 608 S.E.2d 147, 150 (Ct. App. 2005).
Huggins asserts the trial court erred in granting Pee Dee Stores' summary judgment motion and motion to compel settlement because a genuine issue of material fact exists as to whether the parties to the Settlement Agreement intended to dismiss Huggins' unfair trade practices and civil conspiracy claims against Helena and Pee Dee Stores. We agree.
A. Settlement Agreement Viewed as a Contract
In South Carolina jurisprudence, settlement agreements are viewed as contracts. Harris-Jenkins v. Nissan Car Mart, Inc., 348 S.C. 171, 177, 557 S.E.2d 708, 711 (Ct. App. 2001); see also Pruitt v. South Carolina Med. Malpractice Liab. Joint Underwriting Ass'n, 343 S.C. 335, 339, 540 S.E.2d 843, 845 (2001) (enforcement of the terms of a settlement agreement is a matter of contract law); Ecclesiastes Prod. Ministries v. Outparcel Assoc., LLC, 374 S.C. 483, 497, 649 S.E.2d 494, 501 (Ct. App. 2007) (a release agreement is a contract and contract principles of law should be used to determine what the parties intended); Mattox v. Cassady, 289 S.C. 57, 61, 344 S.E.2d 620, 622 (Ct. App. 1986) (applying the general rules of contract construction to a settlement agreement).
General contract principles are applied in the construction of a settlement agreement because, as stated above, a settlement agreement is a contract. Summary judgment is not appropriate if a contract is ambiguous. Thus, the initial determination for a court seeking to ascertain whether a grant of summary judgment based on a settlement agreement's interpretation is proper is whether the agreement is ambiguous. See Soil Remediation Co. v. Nu-Way Envtl., Inc., 325 S.C. at 234, 482 S.E.2d at 555.
B. Ambiguity in a Contract
Whether the language of a contract is ambiguous is a question of law for the court. Auten v. Snipes, 370 S.C. 664, 669, 636 S.E.2d 644, 646 (Ct. App. 2006). A contract is ambiguous when the terms of the contract are reasonably susceptible to more than one interpretation. South Carolina Dept. of Natural Res. v. Town of McClellanville, 345 S.C. 617, 623, 550 S.E.2d 299, 302 (2001); Davis v. Davis, 372 S.C. 64, 76, 641 S.E.2d 446, 452 (Ct. App. 2006). The uncertainty in interpretation can arise from the words of the instrument, or in the application of the words to the object they describe. Hann v. Carolina Cas. Inc. Co., 252 S.C. 518, 524, 167 S.E.2d 420, 422 (1969). Whether a contract is ambiguous must be determined from the entire contract and not from any isolated clause of the agreement. Farr v. Duke Power Co., 265 S.C. 356, 362, 218 S.E.2d 431, 433 (1975).
In the matter presently before the Court, an ambiguity exists in the Settlement Agreement regarding the definition and scope of "landlord/tenant claims." The term "landlord/tenant claims" is reasonably susceptible to more than one interpretation, and therefore, summary judgment was inappropriate.
The trial court based its summary judgment ruling on the conclusion that all allegations in both the ejectment and breach of contract actions involved landlord/tenant claims, and issues "involving the premises, the store, any business on the premises, and/or the relationship between the Parties[,]" and as such were resolved by the Settlement Agreement. This constituted error because there was a genuine issue of material fact as to the meaning and scope of "landlord/tenant claims," and the parties' intentions as to which claims survived the Settlement Agreement differed, thus precluding summary judgment in favor of Pee Dee Stores.
The language of the Settlement Agreement is clear that all landlord/tenant claims were to be resolved by the Settlement Agreement. In fact, the title of the Agreement itself evinces the intent to resolve only all landlord/tenant issues. It reads in relevant part: "Relating Only to All Landlord/Tenant Issues." Paragraphs 7 and 10 of the Settlement Agreement state that the parties agree to dismiss with prejudice all litigation involving the premises, store, any business on the premises, and/or the relationship between the parties, including all claims between Pee Dee Stores and Doyle, and all landlord/tenant issues between all parties. These provisions clearly resolved the claims between Doyle and Huggins and Pee Dee Stores in the ejectment action, as well as all of the claims against Doyle and counterclaims by Doyle in the breach of contract case. This was the basis for Doyle and Huggins' motion to amend their pleadings.
However, the language of the Settlement Agreement does not provide a definition of "landlord/tenant claims." This phrase is not a legal term of art; rather, it is shorthand for the parties' conceptualization of the claims that should be labeled as "landlord-tenant." Therefore, the Settlement Agreement is ambiguous as to the scope and application of "landlord/tenant claims." It is unclear whether the parties intended that the Settlement Agreement resolve Huggins' civil conspiracy and unfair trade practices claims against Pee Dee Stores and Helena because it is uncertain whether "landlord/tenant claims" includes civil conspiracy and unfair trade practices claims. Reasonable minds can certainly differ as to the meaning of "landlord/tenant claims."
The language of the Settlement Agreement does not support the trial court's conclusion that all of Huggins' claims were extinguished. That construction is implausible, particularly because it would nullify Paragraph 8 of the Settlement Agreement, which clearly sought to exclude some of Huggins' claims from the ambit of the Settlement Agreement. The language of Paragraph 8 unequivocally states that the parties agreed that Huggins never intended to relinquish all of his claims against Pee Dee Stores and Helena and, in fact, clearly excludes Huggins' non-landlord/tenant claims from resolution by the Settlement Agreement. It is highly unlikely that the language of Paragraph 8 was included in the Agreement but yet meant to have no effect. The parties must have intended that non-landlord/tenant claims survive the Settlement Agreement. Had it been the parties' intention to extinguish all claims by Huggins, the Settlement Agreement could have simply done so, instead of expressly carving out specific exceptions in Paragraphs 7, 8, and 10 to exclude Huggins' non-landlord/tenant claims. The language of the Settlement Agreement does not indicate that it was the parties' intention to resolve all claims.
Further, Pee Dee Stores' various statements concerning its own interpretation of the Settlement Agreement are inconsistent and improbable, again demonstrating that there was a genuine issue of material fact that rendered summary judgment improper. Pee Dee Stores contends that the "and/or [] relationship between the parties" language of Paragraph 7 was intended to be broadly interpreted to waive all claims relating to the relationship between the parties, including the civil conspiracy and unfair trade practices claims. Yet, elsewhere in its brief Pee Dee Stores states:
[Huggins and Doyle] also allege the Settlement Agreement is ambiguous because Huggins only agreed to dismiss with prejudice the landlord/tenant claims and issues, and thus reserved the right to sue [Pee Dee Stores] for other things. That is partially correct — the Settlement Agreement certainly does not apply, for example, to any open accounts [Pee Dee Stores] may have with Appellant Huggins, etc. However, Huggins clearly and unambiguously resolved with prejudice all landlord/tenant claims and issues, defined in the Settlement Agreement as "any litigation involving the premises, the store, any business on the premises, and/or the relationship between the Parties.
Contrary to its assertion above, Pee Dee Stores' broad interpretation of the Settlement Agreement would also preclude Huggins from litigating any open accounts with Pee Dee Stores, as these open accounts would certainly pertain to the relationship between the parties. Moreover, Pee Dee Stores moved to amend its pleadings to reflect the Settlement Agreement, which is inconsistent with its contention that the Settlement Agreement dismissed all claims.
In view of the fact that an ambiguity exists in the Settlement Agreement regarding the scope and definition of "landlord/tenant claims," this Court would have to strain to determine the parties' intention, and it is not at liberty to do so. See Blakely 266 S.C. at 73, 221 S.E.2d at 769. Thus, the parties' intention is a question of fact to be ascertained by the trier of fact. To ascertain the parties' intent, the trier of fact must look at the language of the Settlement Agreement, the circumstances known to the parties at the time, and all other pertinent extrinsic evidence.
The trial court committed reversible error in granting Pee Dee Stores' summary judgment motion and motion to compel settlement. The definition of "landlord/tenant claims" is susceptible to more than one interpretation, and therefore, the contract is ambiguous. Because of the ambiguous nature of the contract, a genuine issue of material fact exists as to whether it was the intent of the parties to extinguish Huggins' claims for civil conspiracy and unfair trade practices.[4]
Accordingly, the trial court's order is
REVERSED AND REMANDED.
HUFF, J., and GOOLSBY, A.J., concur.
[1] Carolyn Doyle succeeded to Paul E. Doyle's rights under the lease after his death.
[2] Huggins was not a party to the lease agreement.
[3] This action was subsequently transferred to trial court.
[4] We decline to address Pee Dee Stores' purported sustaining grounds on appeal as our determination that the language of the Settlement Agreement is ambiguous is dispositive. See Futch v. McAllister Towing of Georgetown, Inc., 335 S.C. 598, 613, 518 S.E.2d 591, 598 (1999) (the appellate court need not address remaining issues when the disposition of other issues is dispositive).


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Mexico: number of air passenger arrivals from Japan from 2015 to 2018 (in 1000's)
Mexico: number of air passenger arrivals from the United States from 2015 to 2018 (in millions)
Mexico: number of air passenger arrivals from selected Latin American countries in 2018 (in 1000's)
Mexico: number of air passenger arrivals from China from 2015 to 2018 (in 1000's)
Mexico: number of air passenger arrivals from Canada from 2015 to 2018 (in millions)
Mexico: number of air passenger arrivals from Brazil from 2015 to 2018 (in 1000's)
Mexico: number of air passenger arrivals from South Korea from 2015 to 2018 (in 1000's)

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Spanish Language and Culture Blog
Home » Spanish Vocab and Grammar » Do You Know the 8 Differences Between Castilian and Latin American Spanish?
By nickthomev
Do You Know the 8 Differences Between Castilian and Latin American Spanish?
Location, Location, Location.
It's the mantra of real estate agents worldwide.
It also makes a difference in the type of Spanish you'll learn.
Do you ever worry that the Spanish you learn in one country might not be understood in another?
Or have you learned some Spanish in Spain, only to go to a different Spanish speaking country later on and find yourself struggling to understand? Or vice versa?
Well, if you answered "yes" to any of the above, then welcome to the club.
Spanish is a complex language that has evolved over a substantial period of time. It's grown up and matured in geographically and culturally disparate locations.
As a consequence, there have come to exist some at times significant differences in accents, grammar, vocabulary, slang and idioms in different parts of the Spanish speaking world.
How Differences in Regional Spanish Affect Learners
For students of Spanish, the major and minor differences can be a source of concern.
However, they ought not to be. The fact that it's like this really shouldn't come as a surprise either.
If we look at the English language, we find that the English spoken in Australia is different to that of Ireland, which again is different to that of the US, which is again different to that of South Africa. They're all, however, mutually intelligible. Generally, as native speakers, the differences we come across tend to be more a source of novelty or amusement than genuine hindrances to communication.
Similarly, the different types of Spanish are also mutually intelligible. There are, however, some key divergences which are worth exploring and becoming aware of.
On awesome way of seeing these divergences in action is to check FluentU out.
FluentU's native Spanish content includes all the different varieties of Spanish, so you'll be able to stop the differences and learn them while you have fun watching. Give FluentU a free try and see for yourself!
In this post, we'll narrow our focus to examine some of the ways in which Spanish from Spain (called Peninsular Spanish) is different from the Spanish spoken in the Americas (broadly referred to as Latin American Spanish).
A Juicy Mix Up
I originally learned Spanish in Madrid, and later improved it by living with Spaniards in Scotland. About a year later, brimming with confidence in my language abilities, I embarked on a trip to Ecuador and Colombia. Little did I know the challenges that waited ahead.
I distinctly remember about a week into the trip going up to one of the many fresh juice stands that can be found in Quito.
"Un zumo de naranja, por favor," (an orange juice, please) I boldly ordered. I was met with a stare of confusion and silence.
I tried once more, although this time with a more notable hesitancy. Again, I was met with silence, then a suggestion – "Un jugo de naranja, señor?" I awkwardly stumbled out a "sí…por favor," not fully confident of what I had just ordered.
I looked up above me and saw the sign "Jugos Naturales" and figured it must mean juice — Duh!
Sure enough, my dictionary confirmed that jugo meant "juice" and that zumo is only used in Spain. In Ecuador (and other Latin American countries), zumo is understood to refer to fruit pulp. This was to be the first of many wonderfully confusing experiences.
Below, you'll find 8 more key areas of difference between Latin American and Peninsular Spanish.
Pay Attention to These 8 Major Differences Between Castilian and Latin American Spanish
1. Modes of Address: Use of Ustedes vs Vosotros
In Spanish there are officially five different ways in which you can address people. Talk about spoiled for choice!
There are the three singular forms tú, vos and usted, which correspond to the English "you." These each have varying degrees of formality. There are also the two plural forms, vosotros and ustedes, which are used when speaking to two or more people.
But hold on a moment, there's a catch, and an important one at that!
In Latin American Spanish, when it comes to the plural forms, only one of them is in fact used — ustedes. This is perhaps the most important and most often cited difference between Peninsular and Latin American Spanish, so pay attention.
In Peninsular Spanish, when you address two or more people, you have a choice to use either vosotros or ustedes as your mode of address.
Which one you use is influenced by a number of factors including formality of context, degree of respect wishing to be demonstrated and the level of intimacy you have with whom you are speaking.
If you're familiar with the people you're addressing, you use vosotros and any verb conjugation and pronoun use will follow its associated rules. Even if you're not familiar with these people, you'll still use vosotros if they're of a similar age to you, or if there's no particular requirement to afford them special respect.
For most normal day to day circumstances, vosotros is the order of the day and you'll hear it a lot in Spain.
Conversely, the use of ustedes is restricted to more formal occasions, or circumstances where demonstrations of respect are required.
For example, if you were speaking to the board of directors at work, a group of political figures or the royal family in all their glory, you'd stick to using ustedes.
No doubt you can think of some other situations were it might be appropriate to use this.
In contrast, in Latin American Spanish, these types of distinctions aren't a concern as you only have one choice, ustedes. It doesn't matter if you're speaking to your best friends, your parents or the most important group of people on earth.
The vosotros form is never used in Latin America (aside from Argentina) and in fact faded out of use completely from Latin American Spanish by the end of the 19th century.
Getting Adjusted
If you've learned Spanish in Spain and you became accustomed to using vosotros and conjugating verbs with its endings, it can be a slight adjustment to drop it and begin using ustedes in Latin American countries.
If you're anything like me, you'll probably keep getting it wrong for a few weeks until it finally clicks. If you do accidentally use it, however, or conjugate verbs in its ending, be prepared for a funny look or two and perhaps a polite correction.
If you've learned Spanish in Latin America and go to Spain, your task may be a bit more difficult as you'll likely have skipped over learning the vosotros form altogether.
If you're not familiar with using vosotros, it's worth remembering that even native speakers from Latin America who go to Spain often have troubles with it and will generally stick to using ustedes, so don't feel too bad if initially you do too! You'll certainly be understood, however, you might find yourself being corrected. If you intend to stay a lengthy period of time, it's certainly best to learn it.
2. Use of Usted/Vos/Tu
Following on from above, it should come as no surprise that the use of usted in Spain is also restricted for more formal occasions and follows the same guidelines as outlined for its plural form. From personal experience, I only recall ever being addressed as usted once in Spain when attending a medical clinic.
Most of the time, tú will suffice for all normal instances. However, you'll need to use your discretion.
Conversely, in Latin American Spanish, usted is much more commonly used. Specifics of usage will tend to change slightly depending on which particular country you're in and thus there's no "one size fits all" rule.
As a general guideline though, it's usually a good idea to address anybody you don't know in the usted form. In Latina American Spanish, if you start with usted you may be invited to tutear with the speaker – that is, to address them in tú form.
In some countries such as Argentina, Uruguay, Paraguay and in parts of Colombia and Central America, you'll instead be asked to vosear, which means to address them in the form of vos (a variation on tú — but equally informal).
More often than not, you won't get a direct invitation to change over to the other verb form — you'll just have to listen carefully and pick up on what verb form your conversation partner has decided to use with you.
It's worth noting that the use of usted is as much a cultural as a linguistic phenomenon. Generally, there's a strong tendency for politeness in Spanish speaking Latin American countries and if you address people using the tú or vos form without invitation, it might be interpreted as impolite or overly familiar.
Having said that, it'll also depend with whom you're speaking. Generally, if you're speaking with younger people, using tú or vos will be fine, as they tend to use these forms more.
It may seem a little complex initially, but if you use your listening skills to pay close attention to how those around you speak, you'll quickly be able to pick up the best form of address in the area you're in and you'll be speaking like the locals in no time.
3. Variations in Accent and Pronunciation
An entire volume could be written on the array of different accents which are found in the Spanish speaking world.
Even within countries, accents can vary quite wildly, with changes observable between coastal regions, cities and rural areas.
At times even native speakers of Spanish from different areas report difficulties in understanding one another due to accents. Therefore, don't get disillusioned if you have trouble understanding things initially in a new location.
With time, your ear tends to adjust. The more you immerse yourself, the easier understanding a particular accent becomes.
Seseo
Luckily for us learners, although accent can change radically, pronunciation of words between variants of Spanish remains for the most part very similar.
That being said, there are a couple of differences worth looking at. The most noteworthy of those is referred to in linguistics as distinction (distinción). Many speakers of Spanish in Spain (but not all) have a tendency to pronounce the c which comes before i and e as a th sound. The z, regardless of position, is also pronounced as a th sound. This is what distinción refers to.
Latin American Spanish speakers do not produce this sound. This Latin American pronunciation, not using the th sound, is described linguistically as seseo.
Take for example the word gracias – in Latin America, along with a sizable part of Southern Spain and the Canary Islands, the word is pronounced grasyas.
In most of Spain however, it's pronounced "grathyas" – following the rule of distinction, the c is pronounced th.
As a final variant to confuse you, in other small regions of Southern Spain, it might be pronounced as "grathyath" (the final s is changed to a th sound also). This is linguistically referred to as ceceo and is restricted only to a small number of speakers in Spain.
If you've learned Spanish mainly in the Americas, hearing Spaniards speak with distinción may come across as a very unique and perhaps unusual sound.
A less kind interpretation and occasional source of amusement for native Spanish speakers from other countries is to suggest that it sounds like a lisp. It's not actually a lisp, but rather a distinct form of pronunciation and equally correct.
As an interesting historical tidbit, it's suggested that the reason why speakers of Spanish in Latin America speak with seseo as opposed to distinción is because the majority of the conquistadors came from the parts of Spain where seseo is the dominant style of pronunciation.
As a student, you'll learn seseo in Latin American countries and distinción in Spain. Either way, you can be confident that whichever pronunciation style you learn, you'll be understood.
4. Leismo and Object Pronoun (Mis)use
Rules are meant to be broken, right?
At least it seems that's what many speakers in Spain have thought regarding their language's grammar. Restricted to Peninsular Spanish, there exists a phenomenon known as leísmo.
Leismo refers to the use of the indirect object pronoun le instead of the technically correct direct object pronouns lo/la when referring to people. "Huh," you say?
With an example it becomes clear:
(I didn't see Paulo yesterday)
A Paolo no le vi ayer [Leísmo – indirect object pronoun used]
A Paolo no lo vi ayer [Standard Spanish – direct object pronoun used]
Because the grammar rule was so often broken in Spain, the Real Academia Española, the institute responsible for overseeing the Spanish language, came to accept leismo as acceptable practice, but only when referring to male persons. It doesn't permit the term when referring to females or using the plural form. To illustrate:
Female Persons
(I didn't see Paula yesterday)
A Paula no le vi ayer [incorrect — leísmo not permitted]
A Maria no la vi ayer [correct — standard Spanish]
(I didn't see Paolo and Paola yesterday)
A Paolo y Paola no les vi ayer [incorrect — leísmo not permitted]
A Paolo y Paola no los vi ayer [correct — standard Spanish]
Whilst the academy doesn't officially permit these usages as correct, you may very well still hear them on the streets of Spain. In Latin America, leísmo isn't at all present and thus you should use the direct object pronoun in all cases.
As a learner, I would strongly recommend that you learn and use the grammatically correct direct object pronouns no matter where you happen to be. If later on you gain confidence and want to mix it with the locals in Spain, you can then try to throw in some leísmos.
5. Drive You Crazy — Vocabulary Differences
Moving on from grammatical themes, between the Spanish variants there do also exist some notable differences in vocabulary. To begin, let's take a look at the topic of driving and vehicles.
Case Study: Transportation Terms
In Spain, a car is nearly always referred to as a coche. In Latin America however, depending on where you are, the preferred term is usually carro or auto/automóvil.
Generally, auto is used in Chile, Argentina and Uruguay, while most of the countries located north of these will use carro.
It should be noted that coche is also used in parts of Mexico and Argentina as the predominant term. Confusing?
Sure. But if you forget which term applies where, you'll be understood anyway.
The verb "to drive" also changes between Peninsular and Latin American Spanish.
In Spain, you'll hear conducir used as the verb when referring to driving a vehicle. In Latin American Spanish, the term predominantly used is manejar.
In Spain, manejar restricts its meaning to managing or administering something, i.e. manejar el negocio (to manage a business). If you wanted to park your vehicle, in Spain the verb is aparcar, in Latin American Spanish you'd instead use estacionar or parquear.
Another notable difference can be found when referring to buses used for public transport. In Spain, generally a bus will be referred to an autobus. In Latin America, the term varies greatly depending on the region and can vary within different parts of the same country. Some examples of the term for bus which you might hear include: camión, bus, micro, collectivo, chiva, guagua.
There are likely many more which I've missed. My best advice: ask one of the locals, but normally bus will be a safe bet to get you understood.
6. More Notable Vocabulary Changes
I can now hear your heart beating a bit faster and you're asking "how many other words change?"
While there's no hard and fast answer, it's not so many that you'll encounter any significant problems in communication. Vocabulary changes are perhaps better considered as linguistic novelties and are often a source of amusement for native speakers as opposed to a cause for genuine misunderstanding.
In the next paragraph, you'll see 10 more common words in action which change between Peninsular Spanish (first word) and Latin American Spanish (in brackets)
Let's say I'm looking for an apartment to rent.
First, I'd jump on my computer, or ordernador (computadora), and look online for some apartments, or pisos (departamentos). I'd pull out my mobile, móvil (celular), to make any calls for apartments that interested me, and use my pen, bolígrafo (lapicero/pluma), to make notes about them.
Before leaving the house to go look at them, I'd go to my fridge, nevera (refrigerador), and pull out a soft drink, gaseosa (soda), and a peach, melocotón (durazno), for the trip. I'd throw on my jacket, chaqueta (chamarra/campera), grab my sunglasses, gafas (anteojos), and head out the door.
Its okay, you can wipe the sweat off your brow.
Let me emphasize that these different words are exceptions more than they are rules.
You'll find the vast majority of standard vocabulary to be shared across Spain and Spanish speaking countries in Latin America. These are just cherry picked examples of some common changes. You'll no doubt come across more if you travel or examine Spanish from different countries.
7. Avoiding Embarrassment When Meanings Change
Fortunately for students of Spanish, although there are differences in vocabulary, for the most part, when vocabulary is shared the meaning does not change. There are of course some exceptions — and one in particular deserves its own discussion.
In Peninsular Spanish, the verb coger is frequently used and means to catch, grab, or take. "Voy a coger un taxi" (I'm going to take a taxi) would be a perfectly respectable sentence to use in Spain.
If you were to say the same thing in some parts of Spanish speaking Latin America you might be met with a reaction ranging from laughter, ridicule and surprise to complete embarrassment depending on your listener. Perhaps you'll get a combination of all four.
That's because, in Latin American Spanish, coger is used to refer to, ahem, fornication, or rather its more vulgar four letter equivalent. "Voy a tomar un taxi" is a safer sentence in the Americas. That being said, in some countries it's perfectly fine to use coger within the right context.
8. Slang and Colloquialisms
From a learner's perspective, slang and colloquialisms do tend to change quite radically throughout the Spanish speaking world, and certainly more than common vocabulary does.
Not knowing slang certainly won't hinder your ability to communicate, although the way it changes can be frustrating if you're trying to impress your Spanish speaking friends or online language exchange partners from different countries.
For example, in Spain, the words guay or chulo are commonly used to describe that something (or someone) is cool, groovy or excellent.
These words wouldn't however mean very much to Spanish speakers in the Americas. Chulo is only used the same way in some Caribbean nations.
Throughout Latin America, you'll be able to hear many many different words for cool and it tends to change a lot depending on where you are. In Mexico you might hear chido or padre, in Colombia bacano, in Argentina copado and so on. You'll come across many, many more instances where slang changes in different countries.
So what can you do as a Spanish student?
Well, sadly, there's no silver bullet when it comes to slang. When we learn slang and colloquialisms, we aren't only learning the language but we're also getting unique and valuable insight into a particular country's culture.
For this reason, I'm a strong advocate of learning regional vocabulary. However, this comes with a disclaimer: most colloquial words and expressions won't be at all useful when you go to a different Spanish speaking country.
So, overall, are the differences between Peninsular Spanish and Latin American Spanish really so great?
Well, as you're now aware, there are some notable differences. And I won't deny that if you've learned Spanish in one specific country it may take you a bit of time to adjust to how it's spoken in another. Overall, though, the answer is no. That's because the fundamentals mostly stay the same.
Be confident that, no matter what different type of Spanish you learn, you'll be able to intelligibly communicate with and be understood by Spanish speakers around the globe.
Don't be worried about the differences that do exist. Instead, when you come across them, embrace them as part of the joy and complexity of learning a language, and as a great chance to increase your cultural understanding.
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Mindfulness means being Present in the moment. Mindfulness can be practiced every moment of every day and infused into all of life's activities. It means paying full attention to every moment, no matter what you are doing. You could be doing mundance daily tasks like driving, cooking, shopping, doing dishes, checking email and still be mindful by being fully present to the task.
Stress causes a lot of common health problems like high blood pressure, high cholestrol, hypertension, heart issues etc. Practicing mindfulness improves both mental and physical health by reducing stress.
Mindfulness involves both concentration (a form of meditation) and acceptance. Deliberately pay attention to thoughts and sensations without judgment. Meditation is the formal practice of bringing mindfulness to stillness and silence. When practiced regularly, meditation can strengthen the capacity to stay mindful even when life gets stressful. Regular practice of meditation deepens the capacity to be more present to everyday life.
Mindfulness helps us connect with our bodies and emotions. As the clutter of our mind reduces, we begin to observe our bodies and how our emotions, thoughts and happenings in life affect us.
I am a mindfulness coach but most of all I help people stay present and get connected with themselves. I am the founder of beHealthyMindfully.com through which I coach people to attain optimum health, reduce stress, eat mindfully, loose weight and much more. Since we are all different beings, I work with individuals to help build an action plan that works for them. This plan could include yoga, meditation, journaling, swimming, drinking tea or any other activities that resonate with you and that give you bliss and pleasure. My mission is to help you connect with the bliss within you so you can be at your most optimum health.


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Q: Shading inside an arc D3 I am working on an SVG, and came across the issue of trying to share different colors on separate sides of an arc. I have created this example to help go through this problem I'm having:

const svg = d3.select('#chart')
  .attr("viewBox", "0, 0, " + 50 + ", " + 47 + "")

// clip to cut off circle
svg.append("defs").append("clipPath")
  .attr("id", "cut-off")
  .append("rect")
  .attr("width", 44)
  .attr("height", 23.75)
  .attr("x", 25)
  .attr("y", 42.25)
  .attr("transform", "translate(" + -22 + "," + -28.5 + ")");

svg.append("circle")
  .attr("cx", 25)
  .attr("cy", 4.75)
  .attr("r", 23.75)
  .attr("fill", "orange")
  .attr("opacity", 0.25)
  .attr("stroke", 'black')
  .attr("stroke-width", 0.25)
  .attr("clip-path", "url(#cut-off)");

svg.append("rect")
  .attr("x", 3)
  .attr("y", 0)
  .attr("width", 44)
  .attr("height", 14)
  .attr("fill", 'blue')
  .attr("opacity", 0.2)

// here's the one
svg.append("rect")
  .attr("x", 0)
  .attr("y", 14)
  .attr("width", 17)
  .attr("height", 20)
  .attr("fill", 'green')
  .attr("opacity", 0.2)
#chart {
  width: 500px;
  height: 470px;
  border: 2px solid black;
}
<script src="https://cdnjs.cloudflare.com/ajax/libs/d3/3.4.11/d3.min.js"></script>
<svg
  version="1.1"
  baseProfile="full"
  xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"
     id="chart"></svg>

The rectangle that is currently shaded green I would like to instead shade two different colors. I would like the area inside of the arc (the area currently overlapping orange and green) to be set to one color, and the area outside of the arc (only green) to be set to another color. I think this probably requires using 2 rects, and cutting off the rects based on the circle, but I'm not sure how to do this.
Note: The way the arc was drawn was by drawing a circle, and then clipping a rectangle over the parts of the circle I don't want shown. Given that I'm trying to fill color differently based on what side of the circle's line the fill color is on, I'm not sure if this is the best way to draw the arc.
Thanks in advance for help with this!!

A: You can use cloneNode on your green rect and set an clip-path attribute on the clonedNode. Point the clip-path url to a circle with the same d attribute as your original circle defined under defs tag.
If you provide a fiddle, I can perhaps help.

A: I used this link here - How to calculate the SVG Path for an arc (of a circle) - to solve the problem. Anybody trying to draw circles (or parts of a circle) as a path using svg arc should check this link.

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text:
That leads us into the story of the triumphal entry into Jerusalem, now referred to as Palm Sunday. There are still five chapters left after this one, so I suppose I'm a bit surprised that it's come up to this already. But the chapters of Luke tend not to be as long as they are in Matthew, or even some of those in Mark. What does this mean? Not sure. Perhaps nothing. So, since a long introduction to set the scene does not seem necessary, let's get right on to the
28 Καὶ εἰπὼν ταῦτα ἐπορεύετο ἔμπροσθεν ἀναβαίνων εἰς Ἱεροσόλυμα.
29 Καὶ ἐγένετο ὡς ἤγγισεν εἰς Βηθφαγὴ καὶ Βηθανία[ν] πρὸς τὸ ὄρος τὸ καλούμενον Ἐλαιῶν, ἀπέστειλεν δύο τῶν μαθητῶν
30 λέγων, Ὑπάγετε εἰς τὴν κατέναντι κώμην, ἐν ἧ εἰσπορευόμενοι εὑρήσετε πῶλον δεδεμένον, ἐφ' ὃν οὐδεὶς πώποτε ἀνθρώπων ἐκάθισεν, καὶ λύσαντες αὐτὸν ἀγάγετε.
31 καὶ ἐάν τις ὑμᾶς ἐρωτᾷ, Διὰ τί λύετε; οὕτως ἐρεῖτε ὅτι Ὁ κύριος αὐτοῦ χρείαν ἔχει.
32 ἀπελθόντες δὲ οἱ ἀπεσταλμένοι εὗρον καθὼς εἶπεν αὐτοῖς.
33 λυόντων δὲ αὐτῶν τὸν πῶλον εἶπαν οἱ κύριοι αὐτοῦ πρὸς αὐτούς, Τί λύετε τὸν πῶλον;
34 οἱ δὲ εἶπαν ὅτι Ὁ κύριος αὐτοῦ χρείαν ἔχει.
And having said these things, they came forward, climbing up to Jerusalem.
The famous book by Xenophon, in which he describes the progress of the 10,000 Greek mercenaries upcountry to the Black Sea and back to Greece is the Anabasis. Here we have anabaino. Same verb, different tense.
(35) And it happened as they approached Bethpaige and Bethany, towards the mountain called Olives, he sent to of his disciples (30), saying "Go into the neighboring village in which we are entering, (and) you will find a colt tied up, upon which no one of men ever before has sat on, and loosening him lead him. (31) And if someone asks, 'Why do you loosen (him)?', answer thus: 'The Lord has need of him'. (32) And those sent going forth they found (the situation) according to what he had told them. (33) They having loosed the colt, the lord (=owner) of it (the colt) said to them, "Why do you loose the colt?" (34) And they replied, "The lord has need of him."
OK. We discussed this at least once before, in conjunction with this story in either Mark or Matthew, or possibly both. The scene is described the way it is to give the reader the impression that Jesus was prescient, that he knew the colt was there because he knew everything. So he could describe the circumstances, could provide direction, and could predict the reaction of the owner of the colt. My suggestion is that Jesus made prior arrangements with the owner of the colt, and "The lord has need of him" was the code, the signal that they were the emissaries of Jesus, and the owner should comply as arranged. Then, once the disciples were asked the leading question, they replied in the prearranged signal and everything was copacetic. I will suggest pretty much the same thing when it comes time to arrange the Seder on Thursday evening.
As for the "colt". The Greek word is ambiguous. It refers to a young member of the equine family. It could be the offspring of either a horse or a donkey. Of course, Jesus is always portrayed as riding a donkey. The intervening centuries, in which a gentleman is known in France as a chevalier, or in Spain as a caballero, or the group below the Senatorial class in Rome were known as equites, we have a certain snobbery about donkeys. The three words all refer to someone who owns a horse; that is, he has the wealth to maintain at least one horse. For those of you who don't know, even today horses are very expensive animals to own and maintain. A lot of people in my social class who own horses make work-arrangements at a barn to reduce the cost of boarding the horse. A horse, in short, was a status symbol, even among the Romans. The equites are often referred to in English as knights; this is both accurate and not accurate. Like the equites, knights attained their status as knights by being able to own a horse. In fact, owing a horse was pretty much a sine qua non for being a knight. Given these centuries of snobbery about horse ownership, we see Jesus riding a donkey as a sign of humility. Well, maybe not. Donkeys are much less expensive than horses, and they are much hardier creatures, able to survive on a lower-level regimen of vegetation. They are better suited to stony, hilly terrain; the friars, the peons in Mexico owned burros, which are donkeys. Judea was not a terribly lush or fertile land, and even to own a donkey was a bit of a status symbol. In fact, Saul and David, kings, rode donkeys. That they were fictional underscores the prestige of a donkey. I mean, if you're making up a glorious monarchy, why have them ride donkeys, and not horses? So the point is, Jesus riding a donkey, riding anything, is an indication of status and not humility. As for the part about never having been ridden, I suspect this adds to the prestige. So Jesus riding on this donkey, never before ridden, did not present an image of a humble individual.
28 Et his dictis, praecedebat ascendens Hierosolymam.
29 Et factum est, cum appropinquasset ad Bethfage et Bethaniam, ad montem, qui vocatur Oliveti, misit duos discipulos
30 dicens: "Ite in castellum, quod contra est, in quod introeuntes invenietis pullum asinae alligatum, cui nemo umquam hominum sedit; solvite illum et adducite.
31 Et si quis vos interrogaverit: "Quare solvitis?", sic dicetis: "Dominus eum necessarium habet' ".
32 Abierunt autem, qui missi erant, et invenerunt, sicut dixit illis.
33 Solventibus autem illis pullum, dixerunt domini eius ad illos: "Quid solvitis pullum?".
34 At illi dixerunt: "Dominus eum necessarium habet".
35 καὶ ἤγαγον αὐτὸν πρὸς τὸν Ἰησοῦν, καὶ ἐπιρίψαντες αὐτῶν τὰ ἱμάτια ἐπὶ τὸν πῶλον ἐπεβίβασαν τὸν Ἰησοῦν.
36 πορευομένου δὲ αὐτοῦ ὑπεστρώννυοντὰ ἱμάτια αὐτῶν ἐν τῇ ὁδῷ.
37 Ἐγγίζοντος δὲ αὐτοῦ ἤδη πρὸς τῇ καταβάσει τοῦ Ὄρους τῶν Ἐλαιῶν ἤρξαντοἅπαν τὸ πλῆθος τῶν μαθητῶν χαίροντες αἰνεῖν τὸν θεὸν φωνῇ μεγάλῃ περὶ πασῶν ὧν εἶδον δυνάμεων,
38 λέγοντες, Εὐλογημένος ὁ ἐρχόμενος ὁ βασιλεὺς ἐν ὀνόματι κυρίου: ἐν οὐρανῷ εἰρήνη καὶ δόξα ἐν ὑψίστοις.
39 καί τινες τῶν Φαρισαίων ἀπὸ τοῦ ὄχλου εἶπαν πρὸς αὐτόν, Διδάσκαλε, ἐπιτίμησον τοῖς μαθηταῖς σου.
40 καὶ ἀποκριθεὶς εἶπεν, Λέγω ὑμῖν, ἐὰν οὗτοι σιωπήσουσιν, οἱ λίθοι κράξουσιν.
And they led him to Jesus. And and casting their outer garments upon the colt, Jesus mounted it. (36) He proceeding forward, they spread their outer garments on the road. (37) He drawing nigh to the descent fro the Mount of Olives, the crowd of his disciples began rejoicing to praise God in a loud voice about which all knew, (38) saying, "Well-spoken of is the king coming in the name of the lord; in the sky (be) peace and glory to (those) the most high". (39) And some of the Pharisees from the crowd said to him, "Teacher, rebuke your learners." (40) And answering he said, "I tell you, if they became silent, the stones would shout."
Anyone notice anything missing? This is the story of Palm Sunday; so where are the palm branches? Also, the crowd does not shout "Hosanna". On the whole, however, the three versions of this story that we've heard are very close in a lot of details. Matthew had the disciples bringing both a donkey and its (presumably) colt. And Matthew does state that the donkey was a symbol of humility since it was a beast of burden; however, Matthew conveys this to us in the guise of yet another prophecy to be fulfilled. I did some checking, and the quote Matthew delivered in this situation is a mash-up of a quatrain of Isaiah preceding four lines from Zechariah. This latter is very interesting, since these are the lines that contain the reference to the humility of the donkey. Zechariah is one of the last books of the HS; as such, the thoughts expressed about the relative humility of the donkey could have /would have been rather different from attitudes of a few centuries earlier. Riding horses, it turns out, is a fairly recent invention, due to factors that included the size of horses, the difficulty of training them to accept a rider, things like bits, reins, and saddles (note: stirrups appear to have been invented in China sometime in the 4-5th Century CE. They did not reach the west until sometime between the rule of Charles Martel and his grandson, Charlemagne.) Even the Assyrian Empire, the one that ended the independent existence of Israel, did not have a cavalry. The Persians, however, did. When Darius sent an expedition to invade Athens in 490, Herodotus goes to great lengths to describe the horse-transport ships that the Great King constructed especially for the occasion, because the cavalry was an important arm of the Persian army. Before that, an equid being ridden was likely a donkey, or an ass, or an onager, or perhaps a mule, but not a horse. So, back in the day, even kings rode donkeys. As a result, Zechariah, living a few centuries after the onset of cavalry, would have considered riding a donkey a sign of humility. Isaiah, who was pre-Persian Empire, perhaps not.
The procession itself deserves a few words, even if we're repeating things said about the previous versions. As with Mark, this procession seems to be composed almost entirely of Jesus' followers. This was not the adulation of the great mass of the people of Jerusalem that it has come to be viewed. The scene in Jesus Christ Superstar has Simon Zealotes telling Jesus that there must be over 50,000 people "screaming love and more for you". We really don't get that impression from the description in any of the gospels we've read so far. A procession is, IMO, a far better description. Jesus is surrounded by his followers, who may be numerous, perhaps 100-200 people, but not much beyond that. That would be enough to annoy the Pharisees, but it would hardly constitute a mob. And even the interaction between Jesus and the Pharisee indicates a fairly modest crowd; how else could they have the exchange if the procession was more of a parade with vast numbers of people shouting? Here is an insight I'm reasonably sure you've never heard before. First of all, we need to work from the assumption that the whole episode is pure fiction. It was concocted to give credence to the idea that Jesus was killed because of his teaching. The Passion Narrative is great drama; it impressed the hell out of me even as a kid. In both Catholic and Episcopalian (High-ish Church, anyway) worship, the Passion is read on Palm Sunday and, IIRC, on Good Friday. As a kid, I loved hearing the whole thing. And that's the point: it's great drama. The proof that Jesus wasn't killed because of his teaching is given by the fact that James, brother of Jesus, continued to lead the sect for two or three decades after Jesus was killed. Had Jesus been any kind of threat to any of the prevailing powers, James, Peter, and several dozen–or more–other followers would have been rounded up and executed along with him. Tacitus describes the vast number Christians rounded up and executed by Nero as a point of comparison. That didn't happen with Peter and James, apparently. So anyway, within this made-up episode we have an exchange that would be difficult to pull off even in the circumstances of a crowd of a couple of hundred people. Think about the last time you were in a crowd of that size that is excited and animated. Communication is reduced to shouting. Yes, Jesus and the Pharisee could perhaps have shouted the exchange at each other, but the implausible factors are adding up. The point is that we have here a great display of why the gospels are not to be taken seriously as history. They are not. The exchange is True; it is not factually accurate. All of this is True. It's Revealed Truth. It is not, and was never meant to be taken as factually accurate.
35 Et duxerunt illum ad Iesum; et iactantes vestimenta sua supra pullum, imposuerunt Iesum.
36 Eunte autem illo, substernebant vestimenta sua in via.
37 Et cum appropinquaret iam ad descensum montis Oliveti, coeperunt omnis multitudo discipulorum gaudentes laudare Deum voce magna super omnibus, quas viderant, virtutibus
38 dicentes: "Benedictus, qui venit rex in nomine Domini! / Pax in caelo, et gloria in excelsis!".
39 Et quidam pharisaeorum de turbis dixerunt ad illum: " Magister, increpa discipulos tuos! ".
40 Et respondens dixit: "Dico vobis: Si hi tacuerint, lapides clamabunt! ".
Tags: 1 Corinthians, Bible, Bible commentary, Bible scholarship, biblical scholarship, commenting, epistles, Galatians, Historical Jesus, James brother of the lord, john the baptist, King James Version, KJV, Luke's Gospel, mark's gospel, Matthew's gospel, New Testament, New Testament Greek, New Testament Greek Translation, New Testatment, NT Greek, NT Translation, pagans, Q gospel, religion, St Luke, St Mark, Translate Greek NT, Vulgate
We just came from a couple of scenes in which Jesus preached about humility and salvation. The material in this verse represents a break from that narrative line. The first part of the chapter sort of held together thematically, but here we run into a discontinuity of sorts. As far as context, of time and location, there is no real bond between any of the topics; perhaps the story of the Judge and the Pharisee & Publican are sort of a unit, but that is not necessarily so. And the story of the rich man going away sad sort of segues into the last section where Jesus promises a reward to those who follow him.
31 Παραλαβὼν δὲ τοὺς δώδεκα εἶπεν πρὸς αὐτούς, Ἰδοὺ ἀναβαίνομεν εἰςἸερουσαλήμ, καὶ τελεσθήσεται πάντα τὰ γεγραμμένα διὰ τῶν προφητῶν τῷ υἱῷ τοῦ ἀνθρώπου:
32 παραδοθήσεται γὰρ τοῖς ἔθνεσιν καὶ ἐμπαιχθήσεται καὶ ὑβρισθήσεται καὶ ἐμπτυσθήσεται,
33 καὶ μαστιγώσαντες ἀποκτενοῦσιν αὐτόν, καὶ τῇ ἡμέρᾳ τῇ τρίτῃ ἀναστήσεται.
34 καὶ αὐτοὶ οὐδὲν τούτων συνῆκαν, καὶ ἦν τὸ ῥῆμα τοῦτο κεκρυμμένον ἀπ' αὐτῶν, καὶ οὐκ ἐγίνωσκον τὰ λεγόμενα.
Taking beside himself the twelve he said to them, "Look, we're going to Jerusalem, and all things written according to the prophets will be completed/fulfilled by the son of man. (32) For he will be handed over to the peoples and mocked and despised and spat upon. (33) And scourging they will kill him, and on the third day he will rise. (34) And they will not understand, and this writing/these words will be hidden from them, and they will not know the things having been said.
Written according to the prophets: Can anyone explain or enumerate exactly to which writings Jesus is referring? We are told this frequently, but I have never run across the texts or citations. I've found vague references to the Suffering Servant of Deutero-Isaiah, but not much beyond that. So I ask that as a legitimate question.
The Greek word for "to spit" is "ptuō." Say it out loud. A bit of onomatopoeia– which is a tough word to spell. Greek, for "making a name" or something such.
Three points are to be made of this. First, we have the prediction that Jesus will suffer. Second, we have the assurance that this suffering was itself predicted by the HS. This is very important because it gives Jesus a pedigree. He is not a novelty or a new thing; he is the fulfillment of a prophecy made long ago. I've said this many times, but having an ancient lineage was how one acquired or maintained credibility in the ancient world. So this is why the evangelists kept harping the fulfillment of them. And this is Luke, so we get the Road to Emmaus scene after the Resurrection. Of course, there again we will be told that Jesus explained all of the parts of the HS that foretold Jesus, but once again we are never really told what they are. Apparently many or most of the references to messengers (angels; the Hebrew word behind angels apparently also means messenger), and there are other places where Jesus is to be substituted for whomever is the subject of the text. He's the voice in the burning bush, the one who redeemed Israel by leading them out of Egypt, he's the ram that God provided to Abraham so that he doesn't have to sacrifice Isaac AND the voice telling Abraham not to sacrifice Isaac. So there you have it. I'm sure many of you can supply a whole bunch of other such foreshadowings. Obviously, there is a lot of retrograde justification and interpretation occurring in these cites. My heathen reading of this is that the evangelists and Paul told us about these foretellings, but had not entirely worked out the particulars. Otherwise, would they not have been a little more specific?
Epiphany. Think back to the birth narrative of Matthew; he set Jesus' home town as Nazareth, "so he would be called a Nazarene". He tells the story of the Slaughter of the Innocents to insert the prediction of weeping in Ramallah, and then sends Jesus to Egypt to fulfill the prophecy that "I called my son out of Egypt". So we have Matthew specifically starting this process of interpretation. And we have Matthew pretty much fabricating events to make the "predictions" come true. The Slaughter of the Innocents is not attested anywhere else. Josephus is completely silent on this, which is significant because Josephus is not a fan of Herod the Great. In fact, Josephus seems to derive great pleasure in describing the diseased nature of Herod's body as he aged. The implication, if he doesn't flatly state this, is that this physical corruption of Herod's flesh was retribution for Herod's many, many sins that Josephus recounts in tedious detail and enumeration. It beggars belief to think that Josephus would omit something as heinous as the Slaughter of the Innocents. And this is not the sort of thing that would be forgotten. The murder of all of the males born in Galilee in a two year period is not something that would have been forgotten, or overlooked, or shrugged off. Given this, we have to believe it did not happen. The implication of this is Matthew concocted the event, and then used it as the basis for his use of the quotes about Ramallah and the son being called from Egypt.
Luke was not averse to making up stuff. He came up with the whole census story. There was a census while Augustus was emperor, but the idea that everyone had to travel back to the land of their ancestors is simply not credible. Such journeys could have taken years and would have thoroughly disrupted the economic life of the empire, and no civic official of any kind would cripple the collection of taxes by having people moving all over the Mediterranean. Besides, while we know of the census, no one else even suggests something like the widespread disruption of everyday life that would have occurred under such circumstances. But note the big difference in the way the invented histories are used: Luke does not use his fabrication to introduce speciously interpreted quotes from the HS to demonstrate the foreshadowing of Jesus. What does this imply? It would be easy to say simply that there are no implications. There is no reason why inferences should necessarily be drawn from this difference in approach. But is it so simple?
As with everything else, we need to look at this in terms of Q. Why? Because Q is such a fundamentally important concept for NT studies. The existence of Q–or, rather, the non-existence of Q would change everything about the way we look at the NT. And I mean everything. Without Q, we have to question whether Jesus gave the Sermon on the Mount or said the Lord's Prayer. As such, we cannot simply accept its existence based on no real evidence and bad suppositions. This is the basic difference that I see between the way Classicists approach their texts and the way NT scholars (or perhaps biblical scholars in general) approach theirs. The former do all they can to wring out every possible implication from the words we have. Thus, a Classicist would ask the question: why does Matthew provide examples of the prophecies while Luke mentions them, but does not provide examples? This is surely an important question, especially as it pertains to the question of whether Luke was aware of Matthew. For Mark rather vaguely hints a couple of times about things having been written; the most of explicit of these is the passage in Isaiah used in conjunction with John the Dunker. It would seem that Matthew spent a lot of time doing his research into the HS to uncover– or interpret– passages that could be taken to refer to Jesus, even if this meant more than a little stretching of definitions.
Luke, I would argue, rather falls somewhere in between. He states that prophecies have been made which are specifically about the Son of Man. He states that the prophecies will be/have been fulfilled; the verb tense depends on whether we are present with Jesus as he supposedly uttered them, or with Luke as he writes about the events afterward. So the question with Luke is whether it's more credible that he is extending Mark or shorting Matthew. By this I mean Luke more or less follows Mark's lead with allusions that are not made specific, or is he following Matthew by stating the existence of numerous specific examples, which he does not provide. Why not? Because he knows that the acolyte can read these in Matthew's gospel. Once again, Luke chooses not to repeat Matthew because there is no point. That would seem to be one choice, the other being that Luke does not provide the quotes because he does not know what they are. Which of those is more likely?
We'll follow up on this in the chapter summary.
31 Assumpsit autem Duodecim et ait illis: " Ecce ascendimus Ierusalem, et consummabuntur omnia, quae scripta sunt per Prophetas de Filio hominis:
32 "tradetur enim gentibus et illudetur et contumeliis afficietur et conspuetur;
33 "et, postquam flagellaverint, occident eum, et die tertia resurget".
34 Et ipsi nihil horum intellexerunt; et erat verbum istud absconditum ab eis, et non intellegebant, quae dicebantur.
35 Ἐγένετο δὲ ἐν τῷ ἐγγίζειν αὐτὸν εἰς Ἰεριχὼ τυφλός τις ἐκάθητο παρὰ τὴν ὁδὸν ἐπαιτῶν.
36 ἀκούσας δὲ ὄχλου διαπορευομένου ἐπυνθάνετο τί εἴη τοῦτο:
37 ἀπήγγειλαν δὲ αὐτῷ ὅτι Ἰησοῦς ὁ Ναζωραῖος παρέρχεται.
38 καὶ ἐβόησεν λέγων, Ἰησοῦ, υἱὲ Δαυίδ, ἐλέησόν με.
39 καὶ οἱ προάγοντες ἐπετίμων αὐτῷ ἵνα σιγήσῃ: αὐτὸς δὲ πολλῷ μᾶλλον ἔκραζεν, Υἱὲ Δαυίδ, ἐλέησόν με.
40 σταθεὶς δὲ ὁ Ἰησοῦς ἐκέλευσεν αὐτὸν ἀχθῆναι πρὸς αὐτόν. ἐγγίσαντος δὲ αὐτοῦ ἐπηρώτησεν αὐτόν,
41 Τί σοι θέλεις ποιήσω; ὁ δὲ εἶπεν, Κύριε, ἵνα ἀναβλέψω.
42 καὶ ὁ Ἰησοῦς εἶπεν αὐτῷ, Ἀνάβλεψον: ἡ πίστις σου σέσωκέν σε.
43 καὶ παραχρῆμα ἀνέβλεψεν, καὶ ἠκολούθει αὐτῷ δοξάζων τὸν θεόν. καὶ πᾶς ὁ λαὸς ἰδὼν ἔδωκεν αἶνον τῷ θεῷ.
It happened in his approach to Jericho that a certain blind man sat by the side of the road begging. (36) Hearing the crowd approaching he asked who it was. (37) It was announced to him that Jesus of Nazareth was approaching. (38) And he shouted saying, "Jesus, son of David, have mercy on me!" (39) And those proceeding before rebuked him so that he would be quiet, but he cried out, "Son of David, have mercy on me". (40) Standing, Jesus called out to him (the blind man) to approach him (Jesus). To him (the blind man) approaching, he (Jesus) asked him (the blind man), (41) "What do you wish I will do for you?" He (the blind man) replied, "Lord, in order that I will recover my sight". (42) And Jesus said to him, "Recover your sight. Your faith has saved you/made you whole." (43) And immediately he recovered his sight, and followed him (Jesus) praising God. And all the people seeing (this) gave praise to God.
For anyone familiar with the Latin mass, "have mercy on me" would translate to eleison. Then, in Verse 41, we get kyrie. Put them together in reverse order and you get kyrie eleison. This is the opening prayer of all the Catholic and some forms of the High-Church Episcopalian masses. The version which opens Bach's B-Minor Mass is breathtaking. My younger daughter, age 13, was in the Royal School of Church Music program at our Episcopal Church and over her six years they sang a number of versions of the Kyrie, but never this one. She was duly impressed, and knew which line she would have sung based on her vocal range (mezzo). I own the John Elliott Gardner version, but this one is pretty good, too. (continued below)
Anyway, both parts of this particular section are part of the Triple Tradition. Of course, this did not prevent me getting into the Q debate, but I believe the point is relevant. More on that later. In both sections, Luke's version is shorter than Mark's, but longer than Matthew's. In both cases, Luke puts back a couple of details that Matthew omitted. This pattern exists throughout the NT, another example being the story of the Gerasene Demonaic. It should also be noted that this pattern is complemented by Luke providing a shorter version when both Mark and Matthew present a full version. A great example of this is the Death of John the Baptist. Both Mark and Matthew go on at some length, while Luke clocks in at a half-dozen or so verses. He doesn't so much as mention Herodias' name. These are the sorts of things that have to be looked at if we are to have a legitimate discussion about Q.
35 Factum est autem, cum appropinquaret Iericho, caecus quidam sedebat secus viam mendicans.
36 Et cum audiret turbam praetereuntem, interrogabat quid hoc esset.
37 Dixerunt autem ei: " Iesus Nazarenus transit ".
38 Et clamavit dicens: " Iesu, fili David, miserere mei! ".
39 Et qui praeibant, increpabant eum, ut taceret; ipse vero multo magis clamabat: " Fili David, miserere mei! ".
40 Stans autem Iesus iussit illum adduci ad se. Et cum appropinquasset, interrogavit illum:
41 "Quid tibi vis faciam? ". At ille dixit: "Domine, ut videam".
42 Et Iesus dixit illi: " Respice! Fides tua te salvum fecit ". 43 Et confestim vidit et sequebatur illum magnificans Deum. Et omnis plebs, ut vidit, dedit laudem Deo.
Tags: Bible, Bible commentary, Bible scholarship, biblical scholarship, commenting, epistles, Galatians, gospel commentary, gospels, Historical Jesus, James brother of the lord, john the baptist, King James Version, KJV, koine Greek, Luke's Gospel, mark's gospel, Matthew's gospel, New Testament, New Testament Greek, New Testament Greek Translation, New Testatment, NT Greek, NT Translation, pagans, Q gospel, religion, St Luke, St Mark, St Matthew, St Paul, theology, Translate Greek NT, Vulgate


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<3 BRANDI!
By Unknown June 08, 2009
At a recent Brandi Carlile concert in Santa Monica, CA, Brandi shared that she'd recorded a song with Elton John! I CANNOT WAIT FOR THE NEW ALBUM!
Bi History Moments: Anything That Moves, Spring 1994 (bisexual manifesto and cover)
By Faith Cheltenham June 15, 2017
Anything That Moves was a literary, journalistic, and topical magazine published in the United States from 1990 to 2002.[1] It was created as an expansion of the San FranciscoBay Area Bisexual Network (BABN) newsletter by BABN member, Karla Rossi, in collaboration with bisexual and bi-friendly editors, writers, and artists to become a full 64-page magazine with an international subscriber base. The complete title of the magazine, Anything That Moves: Beyond the Myths of Bisexuality, was purposely chosen for its controversial nature, while its tag line indicated a clear intent to challenge stereotypes of bisexual identities and behaviors. The magazine took its name from the stereotype depicting bisexuals as willing to have sex with "anything that moves".[2] The magazine's mission was to confront and redefine concepts of sexuality and gender, to defy stereotypes and broad definitions of bisexuals and to combat biphobia. - Wikipedia
Anything That Moves and other bisexual med…
The Memorist That's Me!
By Faith Cheltenham December 10, 2018
Just call me the memoirist.
People often say they remember me.
And I can't forget sh**, and just filled out a new HSAM research request UCI had sent me, so...
Reality for me? Just temporarily misplacing, or actively trying to forget, more things than the rest of humanity, and nonetheless it just comes back screaming to life over and over again like Groundhog Day (the movie remains a small personal comfort).
But. Living with hyperthymesia is fine, useful even. I hunt those oppression would use with it some days, on others I work on sharing a new sys with the public featuring my library of screenshots, and those like mine for my various cases in a new and innovative way. Partly book, partly website, all me. A lot of white people need to read themselves NOW I think, what they said THEN, ya know?
For the last year and half, I've also been working with a therapist who's diagnosed me with hyperthymesia. Which has led to realization after realization and I'…
Faith Cheltenham Bio
By Faith Cheltenham August 04, 2017
activist/writer/speaker
There are so many different aspects of Faith Cheltenham's life and career––writer, community organizer, advocate, activist, lecturer, poet, social media expert, digital strategist––that she is currently working to develop a single unifying "theory of Faith." (It might be easier if you keep in mind Faith lives with hyperthymesia, or the inability to forget her own memories.) Then you too might be able to "keep thefayth" and learn to live in a future where gender and sexuality quite easily bend and every single Black life matters.
Faith got her start in LGBT advocacy as a Human Rights Campaign intern on the Gore 2000 campaign, and in 2002, she co-founded UCLA's BlaQue for LGBT/SGL students of African descent. In 2006, she appeared in the Emmy winning reality series on race in America, "Black. White." produced by Ice Cube.
After spending time working in corporate America doing digital strategy for Sarah Ferguson, the Duchess of York and co-creating …


As the old saying goes, "the third time's the charm". This is likely an American variation of the British phrase "third time lucky" (which itself is probably derived from the sentiment expressed in a line from the first scene of the fifth act of Shakespeare's 1602 play, The Merry Wives of Windsor – "…this is the third time; I hope that luck lies in odd numbers"). The saying refers to the casual observation that after trying something twice and failing, it frequently appears that luck will favor you on the third attempt which succeeds. While rational engineers and scientists do not really believe in this form of luck, it must have been in the back of some people's minds a half century ago as NASA was preparing its sixth Surveyor robotic lunar landing mission formally designated "Surveyor F" before its launch.


Can BCC, Harper Creek pull off upsets in boys regional?
The games get tougher the deeper you go in the tournament.
Harper Creek and Battle Creek Central will find that out as the two city schools will play two of the best teams they've seen all season and will probably be considered underdogs heading into the first round of the regionals.
The regional round of the MHSAA boys basketball state high school tournament begins Monday with a handful of area schools still alive.
Two of the more interesting matchups include the two city schools still playing with Battle Creek Central facing undefeated East Lansing in a Class A contest and Harper Creek seeing perennial power Benton Harbor in a Class B clash.
Battle Creek Central will see the No. 2-ranked team in the state in Class A as the Bearcats will face East Lansing in a regional in a 7 p.m. game at Gull Lake on Monday.
Battle Creek Central has had an impressive season at 19-3 and is coming off a district championship win over Lakeview. But the Bearcats know they are in for a challenge against undefeated East Lansing. It was the same situation last year as an undefeated East Lansing team played BCC in the first round of the regionals, ending the Bearcats' season.
"We realize they are the favorite," BCC coach Durant Crum said. "Being the underdog, it makes you realize you have be on the top of your game. The last time we were on the floor we played really well, but we know we will have to play at least that well, if not better in the regional."
Harper Creek is in a similar situation as the Beavers will face No. 5-ranked Benton Harbor in a Class B regional at Allegan at 5:30 p.m. The Tigers are 19-3 on the season and are always a tough team to face in the postseason. Harper Creek comes in at 15-8 and winners of 12 of its last 13 games. The Beavers won their district title with an impressive win over Pennfield, 70-39.
"We know Benton Harbor is good," Harper Creek coach Matt Bowling said. "But we don't have to beat them in a seven-game series, we just have to beat them one time and we welcome the challenge."
In other regional action, Olivet is in action in a Class B tourney at Ionia. The Eagles (17-5) get a good draw and will see a Portland team that won its district with a 10-12 record. If Olivet wins, it will face the winner of Wyoming Godwin Heights (22-1) and Williamston (19-4).
Quincy will be in a Class C semifinal against Cassopolis at Bangor. Quincy comes in at 19-4 and faces a Cassopolis team that is 18-4. The winner of that game will see the winner of Kalamazoo Christian (16-7) and Schoolcraft (22-1).
Galesburg-Augusta (6-16) is also still alive in Class C and will be in a regional at Belding as the Rams will face Muskegon Height Academy (17-5).
In Class D, Bellevue gets to host a regional as the 22-1 Broncos will face Marcellus (12-10) in the first round. If Bellevue advances it will face the winner of Dream Academy and Marshall Academy.


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Die Liste der Monuments historiques in Saint-Thierry führt die Monuments historiques in der französischen Gemeinde Saint-Thierry auf.

Liste der Immobilien

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Liste der Objekte

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Weblinks

SaintThierry

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Q: If $R$ is a finite boolean then $R \cong \mathbb{Z_2} \oplus \dots \oplus \mathbb{Z_2}$ This question wants me to use a previous result, that if $e$ is a central idempotent in $R$ then $R \cong Re \oplus R(1-e)$. I was thinking about maybe some sort of induction would help here but I can't see exactly how I am going to get to the result I want.
I would like to know how to do the problem this way, because this is the way the book recommends. However, I also have heard that this problem can be done another way, by realizing that $R$ is a vector space over $Z_2$ and there has a finite basis, and i am under the impression that the result is not far away knowing this, but I can't quite connect the dots.
If somebody could guide me along these two different routes of solving this problem I would really appreciate it! Thanks!

A: *

*A boolean ring is always commutative:
$$a+b=(a+b)^2 =a^2 +b^2 + ab + ba = a+b+ab+ba$$
Hence $ab+ba=0$. Applying the same with $a=b=x$ yields $x+x=0$, so $x=-x$ for all $x$, and we have $ba=-ab=ab$.
And, by definition, also every element is idempotent, so we can arbitrarily pick a nontrivial element $e$, until there is such, and use induction and the previously proved claim.

*By the above result ($x+x=0$), we indeed get a $\Bbb Z_2$ vector space structure in $R$, and since it's finite, it has a finite basis. All you have to verify is that multiplication of $R$ coincides with the coordinatewise multiplication once a basis is fixed.