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CRIMINAL PROCEDURE; PEACE OFFICERS; PRIVACY OF COMMUNICATIONS
CHAPTER 626. PEACE OFFICERS; SEARCHES; PURSUIT; MANDATORY REPORTING
626.001 MS 2006 [Renumbered 15.001]
626.01 [Repealed, 1963 c 849 s 17]
SEARCH WARRANTS
626.04 PROPERTY; SEIZURE, KEEPING, AND DISPOSAL.
626.05 DEFINITIONS.
626.06 JURISDICTION TO ISSUE.
626.07 GROUNDS FOR ISSUANCE.
626.08 PROBABLE CAUSE.
626.09 EXAMINATION OF PARTIES MAKING REQUEST.
626.10 AFFIDAVIT; CONTENT.
626.11 ISSUANCE OF WARRANT.
626.12 APPLICANTS; NAMES ON WARRANT.
626.13 SERVICE; PERSONS MAKING.
626.14 TIME OF SERVICE.
626.15 EXECUTION AND RETURN OF WARRANT; TIME.
626.16 DELIVERY OF COPY OF WARRANT AND RECEIPT.
626.17 RETURN AND INVENTORY.
626.18 SEARCH WARRANTS RELATING TO ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATION SERVICES AND REMOTE COMPUTING SERVICES.
UNLAWFUL SEARCHES AND SEIZURES
626.21 RETURN OF PROPERTY AND SUPPRESSION OF EVIDENCE.
626.22 MALICIOUSLY PROCURING SEARCH WARRANT; MISCONDUCT IN USE.
626.311 [Repealed, 1969 c 177 s 1]
626.32 [Obsolete]
626.33 [Renumbered 299C.03]
626.365 [Renumbered 299C.07]
626.46 [Repealed, Ex1959 c 34 s 12]
626.461 [Repealed, 1967 c 870 s 15]
626.52 SUSPICIOUS WOUNDS; REPORTING BY HEALTH PROFESSIONALS.
626.53 REPORT BY TELEPHONE AND LETTER.
626.54 APPLICATION OF SECTIONS 626.52 TO 626.55.
626.55 PENALTY.
626.553 GUNSHOT WOUNDS; PEACE OFFICERS, DISCHARGING FIREARMS; INVESTIGATIONS; REPORTS.
626.5531 REPORTING OF CRIMES MOTIVATED BY BIAS.
626.5532 PURSUIT OF FLEEING SUSPECTS BY PEACE OFFICERS.
626.5533 REPORTING POTENTIAL WELFARE FRAUD.
626.5551 Subdivisions renumbered, repealed, or no longer in effect
626.5552 [Never effective, 2000 c 401 s 5]
626.556 REPORTING OF MALTREATMENT OF MINORS.
626.5561 REPORTING OF PRENATAL EXPOSURE TO CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES.
626.5562 TOXICOLOGY TESTS REQUIRED.
626.5563 [Repealed, 2007 c 69 s 5]
626.5565 [Repealed, 2001 c 178 art 1 s 43]
626.557 REPORTING OF MALTREATMENT OF VULNERABLE ADULTS.
626.5571 MULTIDISCIPLINARY ADULT PROTECTION TEAM.
626.5572 DEFINITIONS.
626.5573 NEGLIGENCE ACTIONS.
626.558 MULTIDISCIPLINARY CHILD PROTECTION TEAM.
626.559 SPECIALIZED TRAINING AND EDUCATION REQUIRED.
626.5591 CHILD PROTECTION WORKERS; TRAINING; ADVISORY COMMITTEE.
626.5592 [Repealed, 1993 c 337 s 20]
626.561 INTERVIEWS WITH CHILD ABUSE VICTIMS.
626.562 [Repealed, 1Sp2003 c 14 art 11 s 12]
UNIFORM ACT ON FRESH PURSUIT
626.65 UNIFORM ACT ON FRESH PURSUIT; RECIPROCAL.
626.66 ARREST; HEARING.
626.67 CONSTRUCTION OF SECTION 626.65.
626.68 STATE INCLUDES DISTRICT OF COLUMBIA.
626.69 FRESH PURSUIT.
626.70 CITATION; UNIFORM ACT ON FRESH PURSUIT.
626.71 FRESH PURSUIT IN NONFELONY SITUATIONS.
626.72 PEACE OFFICERS; TRANSPORTATION FOR LAW ENFORCEMENT PURPOSES.
626.74 COMPENSATION FOR DAMAGE CAUSED BY PEACE OFFICERS IN PERFORMING LAW ENFORCEMENT DUTIES.
626.76 RULES AND REGULATIONS; AIDING OTHER OFFICERS; EXCHANGE PROGRAMS.
626.77 PEACE OFFICERS FROM ADJOINING STATES; FEDERAL LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICERS.
626.84 DEFINITIONS AND SCOPE.
626.841 BOARD; MEMBERS.
626.842 TERMS; MEETINGS; COMPENSATION; REMOVAL; VACANCIES.
626.843 RULES, STANDARDS; EXECUTIVE DIRECTOR.
626.8431 AUTOMATIC LICENSE REVOCATION.
626.8432 REVOCATION; SUSPENSION; DENIAL.
626.845 POWERS AND DUTIES.
626.8451 TRAINING IN IDENTIFYING AND RESPONDING TO CERTAIN CRIMES.
626.8452 DEADLY FORCE AND FIREARMS USE; POLICIES AND INSTRUCTION REQUIRED.
626.8453 QUALIFIED FEDERAL LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICERS; SPECIAL STATE AND FEDERAL TASK FORCES; PEACE OFFICER AUTHORITY.
626.8454 MANUAL AND POLICY FOR INVESTIGATING CASES INVOLVING CHILDREN WHO ARE MISSING AND ENDANGERED.
626.8455 TRAINING IN COMMUNITY POLICING.
626.8456 TRAINING IN FIRE SCENE RESPONSE AND ARSON AWARENESS.
626.8457 PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT OF PEACE OFFICERS.
626.8458 VEHICLE PURSUITS; POLICIES AND INSTRUCTION REQUIRED.
626.8459 POST BOARD; COMPLIANCE REVIEWS REQUIRED.
626.846 ATTENDANCE, FORFEITURE OF POSITION.
626.8461 PART-TIME PEACE OFFICERS; POLICY.
626.8462 [Repealed, 2014 c 244 s 3]
626.8463 PART-TIME PEACE OFFICERS.
626.8465 PART-TIME OFFICERS; LIMITATIONS.
626.8466 RESERVE OFFICERS.
626.8468 PART-TIME PEACE OFFICERS; CONTINUED EMPLOYMENT.
626.847 COMPULSORY PROGRAM; EXEMPTIONS.
626.8471 AVOIDING RACIAL PROFILING; POLICIES AND LEARNING OBJECTIVES REQUIRED.
626.8472 AUTOMATED LICENSE PLATE READER POLICY.
626.8473 PORTABLE RECORDING SYSTEMS ADOPTION; WRITTEN POLICY REQUIRED.
626.848 TRAINING COURSES, LOCATIONS.
626.849 [Repealed, 1987 c 358 s 132]
626.85 INSTRUCTORS; DONATIONS.
626.851 ELIGIBILITY OF OFFICERS.
626.8515 CERTAIN BACCALAUREATE DEGREE HOLDERS ELIGIBLE TO TAKE LICENSING EXAMINATION.
626.8517 ELIGIBILITY FOR RECIPROCITY EXAMINATION BASED ON RELEVANT MILITARY EXPERIENCE.
626.852 TUITION; SALARY AND EXPENSES.
626.8555 PEACE OFFICER EDUCATION PROGRAMS.
626.856 SCHOOL OF LAW ENFORCEMENT.
626.857 [Expired]
626.86 [Repealed, 1991 c 356 art 6 s 5]
626.861 [Repealed, 1998 c 367 art 8 s 26]
626.862 POWERS OF LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICERS.
626.863 UNAUTHORIZED PRACTICE.
626.87 LAW ENFORCEMENT BACKGROUND INVESTIGATIONS.
626.88 UNIFORMS; PEACE OFFICERS, SECURITY GUARDS; COLOR.
626.89 PEACE OFFICER DISCIPLINE PROCEDURES ACT.
626.891 COOPERATION WITH POSTSECONDARY INSTITUTIONS.
INDIAN LAW ENFORCEMENT AUTHORITY
626.90 LAW ENFORCEMENT AUTHORITY; TRIBAL PEACE OFFICERS.
626.91 LAW ENFORCEMENT AUTHORITY; LOWER SIOUX INDIAN COMMUNITY PEACE OFFICERS.
626.92 ENFORCEMENT AUTHORITY; FOND DU LAC BAND OF LAKE SUPERIOR CHIPPEWA.
TRIBAL PEACE OFFICERS
626.94 CONSERVATION LAW ENFORCEMENT AUTHORITY.
626.951 MS 2006 [Obsolete 1Sp2001 c 8 art 7 s 6]
626.9513 MS 2004 [Expired, 1Sp2001 c 8 art 7 s 7]
626.9514 TOLL-FREE TELEPHONE NUMBER.
626.9517 GRANT PROGRAM FOR INSTALLATION OF VIDEO CAMERAS IN POLICE VEHICLES.
626.96 BLUE ALERT SYSTEM.
(a) When any officer seizes, with or without warrant, any property or thing, it shall be safely kept by direction of the court as long as necessary for the purpose of being produced as evidence on any trial. If the owner of the property makes a written request to the seizing officer's agency for return of the property, and the property has not been returned within 48 hours of the request, excluding Saturday, Sunday, or legal holidays, the person whose property has been seized may file a petition for the return of the property in the district court in the district in which the property was seized. The court administrator shall provide a form for use as a petition under this section. A filing fee, equal to the civil motion filing fee, shall be required for filing the petition. The district court shall send a copy of the petition to the agency acting as custodian of the property with at least ten days' notice of a hearing date. A hearing on the petition shall be held within 30 days of filing unless good cause is shown for an extension of time. The determination of the petition must be without jury trial and by a simple and informal procedure. At the hearing, the court may receive relevant evidence on any issue of fact necessary to the decision on the petition without regard to whether the evidence would be admissible under the Minnesota Rules of Evidence. The court shall allow if requested, or on its own motion may require, the custodian or the custodian's designee to summarize the status and progress of an ongoing investigation that led to the seizure. Any such summary shall be done ex parte and only the custodian, the custodian's designee, and their attorneys may be present with the court and court staff. The court shall seal the ex parte record. After a hearing, the court shall not order the return if it finds that:
(1) the property is being held in good faith as potential evidence in any matter, charged or uncharged;
(2) the property may be subject to forfeiture proceedings;
(3) the property is contraband or may contain contraband; or
(4) the property is subject to other lawful retention.
(b) The court shall make findings on each of these issues as part of its order. If the property is ordered returned, the petitioner shall not be liable for any storage costs incurred from the date the petition was filed. If the petition is denied, the court may award reasonable costs and attorney fees. After the trial for which the property was being held as potential evidence, and the expiration date for all associated appeals, the property or thing shall, unless otherwise subject to lawful detention, be returned to its owner or any other person entitled to possess it. Any property or thing seized may be destroyed or otherwise disposed of under the direction of the court. Any money found in gambling devices when seized shall be paid into the county treasury. If the gambling devices are seized by a police officer of a municipality, the money shall be paid into the treasury of the municipality.
(10540) RL s 5199; 1929 c 177; 1963 c 849 s 16; 1983 c 359 s 111; 2005 c 136 art 14 s 17
Subdivision 1.Search warrant.
A "search warrant" is an order in writing, in the name of the state, signed by a court other than a court exercising probate jurisdiction, directed to a peace officer, commanding the peace officer to make a search as authorized by law and hold any item seized, subject to the order of a court.
Subd. 2.Peace officer.
The term "peace officer," as used in sections 626.04 to 626.17, means a person who is licensed as a peace officer in accordance with section 626.84, subdivision 1, and who serves as a sheriff, deputy sheriff, police officer, conservation officer, agent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, agent of the Division of Alcohol and Gambling Enforcement, University of Minnesota peace officer, Metropolitan Transit police officer, Minnesota Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension Unit member, or State Patrol trooper as authorized by section 299D.03.
Subd. 3.Crime.
The term "crime," as used in sections 626.04 to 626.17, includes (1) those offenses defined as crimes in section 609.02, subdivision 1, and (2) all violations of municipal ordinances for which a misdemeanor sentence may be imposed.
1963 c 849 s 3; 1976 c 2 s 154; 1977 c 82 s 4; 1979 c 258 s 21; 1983 c 359 s 112; 1986 c 444; 1988 c 447 s 1; 1989 c 334 art 6 s 11; 1990 c 502 s 7; 1993 c 326 art 7 s 13; 1995 c 189 s 8; 1996 c 277 s 1; 1997 c 129 art 2 s 15; 2002 c 291 s 4; 2012 c 155 s 10
Search warrants may be issued by any court, other than a court exercising probate jurisdiction, having jurisdiction in the area where the place to be searched is located.
1963 c 849 s 4; 1983 c 359 s 113; 1995 c 189 s 8; 1996 c 277 s 1
A search warrant may be issued upon any of the following grounds:
(1) the property or things were stolen or embezzled;
(2) the property or things were used as the means of committing a crime;
(3) the possession of the property or things constitutes a crime;
(4) the property or things are in the possession of any person with the intent to use them as a means of committing a crime, or the property or things so intended to be used are in the possession of another to whom they have been delivered for the purpose of concealing them or preventing their being discovered;
(5) the property or things to be seized consist of any item or constitute any evidence which tends to show a crime has been committed, or tends to show that a particular person has committed a crime.
The property or things described in this section may be taken pursuant to the warrant from any place, or from any person in whose possession they may be.
1963 c 849 s 5
A search warrant cannot be issued but upon probable cause, supported by affidavit, naming or describing the person, and particularly describing the property or thing to be seized, and particularly describing the place to be searched.
The court may, before issuing the warrant, examine on oath the person seeking the warrant and any witnesses the person may produce. It shall take the affidavits in writing, and cause them to be subscribed to by the party or parties making them.
1963 c 849 s 7; 1983 c 359 s 114; 1986 c 444
The affidavit or affidavits must set forth the facts tending to establish the grounds of the application, or probable cause for believing that they exist.
(a) If the judge is satisfied of the existence of the grounds of the application, or that there is probable cause to believe their existence, the judge must issue a signed search warrant, naming the judge's judicial office, to a peace officer inside or outside the officer's jurisdiction. The warrant shall direct the officer to search the person or place named for the property or things specified, and to retain the property or things in the officer's custody subject to order of the court issuing the warrant.
(b) Nothing in sections 626.04 to 626.17 is meant to supersede another law or statute that limits a peace officer's authority to obtain, serve, or execute a search warrant.
1963 c 849 s 9; 1979 c 258 s 22; 1983 c 359 s 115; 1986 c 444; 2000 c 325 s 1; 2001 c 78 s 2; 2002 c 291 s 5; 2003 c 86 s 1
The warrant, in addition, shall contain the names of the persons presenting affidavits in support of the application, and the grounds for its issuance.
1963 c 849 s 10
A search warrant may in all cases be served anywhere within the issuing judge's jurisdiction by any of the officers mentioned in its directions, but by no other person, except in aid of the officer on the officer's requiring it, the officer being present and acting in its execution. An officer serving and executing a warrant shall notify the chief of police of an organized full-time police department of the municipality or, if there is no such local chief of police, the sheriff or a deputy sheriff of the county in which service is to be made prior to service and execution.
1963 c 849 s 11; 1979 c 258 s 23; 1986 c 444; 1989 c 334 art 6 s 12; 1990 c 502 s 8; 1993 c 326 art 7 s 14; 1995 c 226 art 2 s 33; 1995 c 244 s 37; 1997 c 129 art 2 s 15; 2001 c 78 s 3; 2002 c 291 s 6; 2003 c 86 s 2
A search warrant may be served only between the hours of 7:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m. unless the court determines on the basis of facts stated in the affidavits that a nighttime search outside those hours is necessary to prevent the loss, destruction, or removal of the objects of the search or to protect the searchers or the public. The search warrant shall state that it may be served only between the hours of 7:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m. unless a nighttime search outside those hours is authorized.
1963 c 849 s 12; 1983 c 359 s 116; 1992 c 569 s 29
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), a search warrant must be executed and returned to the court which issued it within ten days after its date. After the expiration of this time, the warrant is void unless previously executed.
(b) A district court judge may grant an extension of a warrant on a financial institution for financial records upon an application under oath stating that the financial institution has not produced the requested financial records within ten days and that an extension is necessary to achieve the purposes for which the search warrant was granted. Each extension may not exceed 30 days.
For the purposes of this paragraph, "financial institution" has the meaning given in section 13A.01, subdivision 2, and "financial records" has the meaning given in section 13A.01, subdivision 3.
1963 c 849 s 13; 1983 c 359 s 117; 1999 c 117 s 1
When the officer conducts the search the officer must give a copy of the warrant and, when property or things are taken, a receipt therefor (specifying it in detail) to the person in whose possession the premises or the property or things taken were found; or, in the absence of any person, the officer must leave such copy of the warrant and receipt in the place where the property or things were found. Such delivery of a copy of the warrant shall constitute service.
1963 c 849 s 14; 1986 c 444
The officer must immediately return the warrant to the court and deliver to it a written inventory of the property or things taken, verified by the certificate of the officer at the foot of the inventory.
1963 c 849 s 15; 1983 c 359 s 118
Subdivision 1.Definitions.
The definitions in this subdivision apply to this section.
(a) The terms "electronic communication services" and "remote computing services" shall be construed in accordance with United States Code, title 18, sections 2701 to 2711, as amended through March 1, 2001. This section does not apply to corporations that do not provide those services to the general public.
(b) An "adverse result" occurs when notification of the existence of a search warrant results in:
(1) danger to the life or physical safety of an individual;
(2) a flight from prosecution;
(3) the destruction of or tampering with evidence;
(4) the intimidation of potential witnesses; or
(5) serious jeopardy to an investigation or undue delay of a trial.
(c) "Applicant" means a peace officer as defined in section 626.05, to whom a search warrant is issued pursuant to this chapter.
(d) "Minnesota corporation" refers to any corporation or other entity that is subject to section 5.25, excluding foreign corporations.
(e) A "foreign corporation" is considered to be doing business in Minnesota if it makes a contract or engages in a terms of service agreement with a resident of Minnesota to be performed in whole or in part by either party in Minnesota. The making of the contract or terms of service agreement is considered to be the agreement of the foreign corporation that any administrative subpoena or search warrant properly served on it has the same legal force and effect as if served personally on it within the state of Minnesota.
(f) "Properly served" means that a search warrant has been delivered by hand, or in a manner reasonably allowing for proof of delivery if delivered by United States mail, overnight delivery service, or facsimile to a person or entity listed in section 5.25 or covered by this statute.
Subd. 2.Application.
(a) The following provisions shall apply to any search warrant issued under this chapter allowing a search for records that are in the actual or constructive possession of a foreign corporation that provides electronic communication services or remote computing services to the general public, where those records would reveal the identity of the customers using those services; data stored by, or on behalf of, the customer; the customer's usage of those services; the recipient or destination of communications sent to or from those customers; or the content of those communications.
(b) When properly served with a search warrant issued by the Minnesota court, a foreign corporation subject to this section shall provide to the applicant all records sought pursuant to that warrant within eight business days of receipt, including those records maintained or located outside this state.
(c) Where the applicant makes a showing and the judge finds that failure to produce records within less than eight business days would cause an adverse result, the warrant may require production of records within less than eight business days. A court may reasonably extend the time required for production of the records upon finding that the foreign corporation has shown good cause for that extension and that an extension of time would not cause an adverse result.
(d) A foreign corporation seeking to quash the warrant must seek relief from the court that issued the warrant within the time required for production of records under this section. The issuing court shall hear and decide that motion no later than eight court days after the motion is filed.
(e) The foreign corporation shall verify the authenticity of records that it produces by providing a written affidavit or statement to that effect.
Subd. 3.Warrant of another state.
A Minnesota corporation that provides electronic communication services or remote computing services to the general public, when served with a warrant issued by another state to produce records that would reveal the identity of the customers using those services; data stored by, or on behalf of, the customer; the customer's usage of those services; the recipient or destination of communications sent to or from those customers; or the content of those communications, shall produce those records as if that warrant had been issued by a Minnesota court.
Subd. 4.Immunity.
No cause of action shall lie against any foreign or Minnesota corporation subject to this section, its officers, employees, agents, or other specified persons for providing records, information, facilities, or assistance in accordance with the terms of a warrant issued pursuant to this chapter.
A person aggrieved by an unlawful search and seizure may move the district court for the district in which the property was seized or the district court having jurisdiction of the substantive offense for the return of the property and to suppress the use, as evidence, of anything so obtained on the ground that (1) the property was illegally seized, or (2) the property was illegally seized without warrant, or (3) the warrant is insufficient on its face, or (4) the property seized is not that described in the warrant, or (5) there was not probable cause for believing the existence of the grounds on which the warrant was issued, or (6) the warrant was illegally executed, or (7) the warrant was improvidently issued. The judge shall receive evidence on any issue of fact necessary to the decision of the motion. If the motion is granted the property shall be restored unless otherwise subject to lawful detention, and it shall not be admissible in evidence at any hearing or trial. The motion to suppress evidence may also be made in the district where the trial is to be had. The motion shall be made before trial or hearing unless opportunity therefor did not exist or the defendant was not aware of the grounds for the motion, but the court in its discretion may entertain the motion at the trial or hearing.
1963 c 850 s 1; 1998 c 254 art 2 s 71
Every person who shall maliciously and without probable cause procure a search warrant to be issued and executed, and every officer who, in executing a search warrant, shall willfully exceed the officer's authority, or exercise it with unnecessary severity, shall be guilty of a misdemeanor.
(10031) RL s 4846; 1986 c 444
Subdivision 1.Definition.
As used in this section, "health professional" means a physician, surgeon, person authorized to engage in the practice of healing, superintendent or manager of a hospital, nurse, or pharmacist.
Subd. 2.Health professionals required to report.
A health professional shall immediately report, as provided under section 626.53, to the local police department or county sheriff all bullet wounds, gunshot wounds, powder burns, or any other injury arising from, or caused by the discharge of any gun, pistol, or any other firearm, which wound the health professional is called upon to treat, dress, or bandage.
A health professional shall report to the proper police authorities any wound that the reporter has reasonable cause to believe has been inflicted on a perpetrator of a crime by a dangerous weapon other than a firearm as defined under section 609.02, subdivision 6.
Subd. 3.Reporting burns.
A health professional shall file a written report with the state fire marshal within 72 hours after being notified of a burn injury or wound that the professional is called upon to treat, dress, or bandage, if the victim has sustained second- or third-degree burns to five percent or more of the body, the victim has sustained burns to the upper respiratory tract or sustained laryngeal edema from inhaling superheated air, or the victim has sustained a burn injury or wound that may result in the victim's death. The state fire marshal shall provide the form for the report.
Subd. 4.Immunity from liability.
Any person reporting in good faith and exercising due care shall have immunity from any liability, civil or criminal, that otherwise might result by reason of the person's actions pursuant to this section or section 626.53. No cause of action may be brought against any person for not making a report pursuant to this section or section 626.53.
(9950-22a) 1935 c 165 s 1; 1963 c 489 s 1; 1965 c 759 s 1; 1985 c 288 s 1; 1986 c 444; 1988 c 548 s 1,2; 1989 c 290 art 8 s 3; 1Sp2001 c 8 art 12 s 17
Subdivision 1.Reports to sheriffs and police chiefs.
The report required by section 626.52, subdivision 2, shall be made forthwith by telephone or in person, and shall be promptly supplemented by letter, enclosed in a securely sealed, postpaid envelope, addressed to the sheriff of the county in which the wound is examined, dressed, or otherwise treated; except that, if the place in which the patient is treated for such injury or the patient's wound dressed or bandaged be in a city of the first, second, or third class, such report shall be made and transmitted as herein provided to the chief of police of such city instead of the sheriff. Except as otherwise provided in subdivision 2, the office of any such sheriff and of any such chief of police shall keep the report as a confidential communication and shall not disclose the name of the person making the same, and the party making the report shall not by reason thereof be subpoenaed, examined, or forced to testify in court as a consequence of having made such a report.
Subd. 2.Reports to Department of Health.
Upon receiving a report of a wound caused by or arising from the discharge of a firearm, the sheriff or chief of police shall forward the information contained in the report to the commissioner of health. The commissioner of health shall keep the report as a confidential communication, as provided under subdivision 1. The commissioner shall maintain a statewide, computerized record system containing summary data, as defined in section 13.02, on information received under this subdivision.
(9950-23) 1935 c 165 s 2; 1986 c 444; 1988 c 548 s 3; 1995 c 244 s 38
The requirements of sections 626.52 to 626.55 shall not apply to a nurse employed in a hospital nor to a nurse regularly employed by a physician, surgeon, or other person practicing healing, where the employer has made a proper report in compliance therewith.
(9950-24) 1935 c 165 s 3
Subdivision 1.Gross misdemeanor.
Any person who violates any provision of sections 626.52 to 626.55, other than section 626.52, subdivision 3, is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
[Repealed, 1Sp2001 c 8 art 12 s 18]
(9950-25) 1935 c 165 s 4; 1985 c 288 s 2; 1986 c 444; 1988 c 548 s 4
Subdivision 1.Report; wounds; investigation.
Upon receipt of the report required in sections 626.52 and 626.53, the sheriff or chief of police receiving the report shall determine the general cause of the wound, and upon determining that the wound was caused by an action connected with the occupation or sport of hunting or shooting the sheriff or chief of police shall immediately conduct a detailed investigation into the facts surrounding the incident or occurrence which occasioned the injury or death reported. The investigating officer shall report the findings of the investigation to the commissioner of natural resources on forms provided by the commissioner for this purpose.
Subd. 2.Discharge firearm; kill animal.
Whenever a peace officer discharges a firearm in the course of duty, other than for training purposes or the killing of an animal that is sick, injured, or dangerous, notification shall be filed within 30 days of the incident by the officer's department head with the commissioner of public safety. The commissioner of public safety shall forward a copy of the filing to the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training. The notification shall contain information concerning the reason for and circumstances surrounding discharge of the firearm. The commissioner of public safety shall file a report with the legislature by November 15 of each even-numbered year containing summary information concerning use of firearms by peace officers.
1957 c 407 s 1; 1969 c 1129 art 10 s 2; 1977 c 455 s 89; 1983 c 293 s 108; 1986 c 444; 1991 c 141 s 1
Subdivision 1.Reports required.
A peace officer must report to the head of the officer's department every violation of chapter 609 or a local criminal ordinance if the officer has reason to believe, or if the victim alleges, that the offender was motivated to commit the act by the victim's race, religion, national origin, sex, age, disability, or characteristics identified as sexual orientation. The superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall adopt a reporting form to be used by law enforcement agencies in making the reports required under this section. The reports must include for each incident all of the following:
(1) the date of the offense;
(2) the location of the offense;
(3) whether the target of the incident is a person, private property, or public property;
(4) the crime committed;
(5) the type of bias and information about the offender and the victim that is relevant to that bias;
(6) any organized group involved in the incident;
(7) the disposition of the case;
(8) whether the determination that the offense was motivated by bias was based on the officer's reasonable belief or on the victim's allegation; and
(9) any additional information the superintendent deems necessary for the acquisition of accurate and relevant data.
Subd. 2.Use of information collected.
The head of a local law enforcement agency or state law enforcement department that employs peace officers licensed under section 626.843 must file a monthly report describing crimes reported under this section with the Department of Public Safety, Bureau of Criminal Apprehension. The commissioner of public safety must summarize and analyze the information received and file an annual report with the Department of Human Rights and the legislature. The commissioner may include information in the annual report concerning any additional criminal activity motivated by bias that is not covered by this section.
1988 c 643 s 1; 1989 c 261 s 9; 1992 c 571 art 15 s 12
Subdivision 1.Reports.
If a peace officer pursues a fleeing suspect, the officer's department head must file a notice of the incident with the commissioner of public safety within 30 days following the pursuit. A pursuit must be reported under this section if it is a pursuit by a peace officer of a motor vehicle being operated in violation of section 609.487. The notice must contain information concerning the reason for and circumstances surrounding the pursuit, including the alleged offense, the length of the pursuit in distance and time, the outcome of the pursuit, any charges filed against the suspect as a result of the pursuit, injuries and property damage resulting from the pursuit, and other information deemed relevant by the commissioner.
[Repealed, 1999 c 216 art 5 s 15]
A peace officer must report to the head of the officer's department every arrest where the person arrested possesses more than one welfare electronic benefit transfer card. Each report must include all of the following:
(1) the name of the suspect;
(2) the suspect's driver's license or state identification card number, where available;
(3) the suspect's home address;
(4) the number on each card;
(5) the name on each electronic benefit card in the possession of the suspect, in cases where the card has a name printed on it;
(6) the date of the alleged offense;
(7) the location of the alleged offense;
(8) the alleged offense; and
(9) any other information the commissioner of human services deems necessary.
The head of a local law enforcement agency or state law enforcement department that employs peace officers licensed under section 626.843 must forward the report required under subdivision 1 to the commissioner of human services within 30 days of receiving the report. The commissioner of human services shall use the report to determine whether the suspect is authorized to possess any of the electronic benefit cards found in the suspect's possession.
Subd. 3.Reporting forms.
The commissioner of human services, in consultation with the superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, shall adopt reporting forms to be used by law enforcement agencies in making the reports required under this section.
2012 c 247 art 3 s 23
[Repealed, 2005 c 98 art 3 s 25; 2005 c 159 art 1 s 15]
Subdivision 1.Public policy.
(a) The legislature hereby declares that the public policy of this state is to protect children whose health or welfare may be jeopardized through physical abuse, neglect, or sexual abuse. While it is recognized that most parents want to keep their children safe, sometimes circumstances or conditions interfere with their ability to do so. When this occurs, the health and safety of the children must be of paramount concern. Intervention and prevention efforts must address immediate concerns for child safety and the ongoing risk of abuse or neglect and should engage the protective capacities of families. In furtherance of this public policy, it is the intent of the legislature under this section to:
(2) provide for the voluntary reporting of abuse or neglect of children;
(5) provide protective, family support, and family preservation services when needed in appropriate cases.
Subd. 2.Definitions.
(a) "Accidental" means a sudden, not reasonably foreseeable, and unexpected occurrence or event which:
(c) "Facility" means:
(2) a school as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13; and chapter 124E; or
(d) "Family assessment" means a comprehensive assessment of child safety, risk of subsequent child maltreatment, and family strengths and needs that is applied to a child maltreatment report that does not allege sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment. Family assessment does not include a determination as to whether child maltreatment occurred but does determine the need for services to address the safety of family members and the risk of subsequent maltreatment.
(e) "Investigation" means fact gathering related to the current safety of a child and the risk of subsequent maltreatment that determines whether child maltreatment occurred and whether child protective services are needed. An investigation must be used when reports involve sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment, and for reports of maltreatment in facilities required to be licensed under chapter 245A or 245D; under sections 144.50 to 144.58 and 241.021; in a school as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, and chapter 124E; or in a nonlicensed personal care provider association as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 19a.
(f) "Mental injury" means an injury to the psychological capacity or emotional stability of a child as evidenced by an observable or substantial impairment in the child's ability to function within a normal range of performance and behavior with due regard to the child's culture.
(g) "Neglect" means the commission or omission of any of the acts specified under clauses (1) to (9), other than by accidental means:
(h) "Nonmaltreatment mistake" means:
(i) "Operator" means an operator or agency as defined in section 245A.02.
(j) "Person responsible for the child's care" means (1) an individual functioning within the family unit and having responsibilities for the care of the child such as a parent, guardian, or other person having similar care responsibilities, or (2) an individual functioning outside the family unit and having responsibilities for the care of the child such as a teacher, school administrator, other school employees or agents, or other lawful custodian of a child having either full-time or short-term care responsibilities including, but not limited to, day care, babysitting whether paid or unpaid, counseling, teaching, and coaching.
(k) "Physical abuse" means any physical injury, mental injury, or threatened injury, inflicted by a person responsible for the child's care on a child other than by accidental means, or any physical or mental injury that cannot reasonably be explained by the child's history of injuries, or any aversive or deprivation procedures, or regulated interventions, that have not been authorized under section 125A.0942 or 245.825.
Abuse does not include reasonable and moderate physical discipline of a child administered by a parent or legal guardian which does not result in an injury. Abuse does not include the use of reasonable force by a teacher, principal, or school employee as allowed by section 121A.582. Actions which are not reasonable and moderate include, but are not limited to, any of the following:
(9) purposely giving a child poison, alcohol, or dangerous, harmful, or controlled substances which were not prescribed for the child by a practitioner, in order to control or punish the child; or other substances that substantially affect the child's behavior, motor coordination, or judgment or that results in sickness or internal injury, or subjects the child to medical procedures that would be unnecessary if the child were not exposed to the substances;
(10) unreasonable physical confinement or restraint not permitted under section 609.379, including but not limited to tying, caging, or chaining; or
(11) in a school facility or school zone, an act by a person responsible for the child's care that is a violation under section 121A.58.
(m) "Report" means any communication received by the local welfare agency, police department, county sheriff, or agency responsible for child protection pursuant to this section that describes neglect or physical or sexual abuse of a child and contains sufficient content to identify the child and any person believed to be responsible for the neglect or abuse, if known.
(n) "Sexual abuse" means the subjection of a child by a person responsible for the child's care, by a person who has a significant relationship to the child, as defined in section 609.341, or by a person in a position of authority, as defined in section 609.341, subdivision 10, to any act which constitutes a violation of section 609.342 (criminal sexual conduct in the first degree), 609.343 (criminal sexual conduct in the second degree), 609.344 (criminal sexual conduct in the third degree), 609.345 (criminal sexual conduct in the fourth degree), or 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree). Sexual abuse also includes any act which involves a minor which constitutes a violation of prostitution offenses under sections 609.321 to 609.324 or 617.246. Effective May 29, 2017, sexual abuse includes all reports of known or suspected child sex trafficking involving a child who is identified as a victim of sex trafficking. Sexual abuse includes child sex trafficking as defined in section 609.321, subdivisions 7a and 7b. Sexual abuse includes threatened sexual abuse which includes the status of a parent or household member who has committed a violation which requires registration as an offender under section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b), or required registration under section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b).
(o) "Substantial child endangerment" means a person responsible for a child's care, by act or omission, commits or attempts to commit an act against a child under their care that constitutes any of the following:
(3) neglect as defined in paragraph (g), clause (2), that substantially endangers the child's physical or mental health, including a growth delay, which may be referred to as failure to thrive, that has been diagnosed by a physician and is due to parental neglect;
(4) murder in the first, second, or third degree under section 609.185, 609.19, or 609.195;
(5) manslaughter in the first or second degree under section 609.20 or 609.205;
(6) assault in the first, second, or third degree under section 609.221, 609.222, or 609.223;
(7) solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution under section 609.322;
(8) criminal sexual conduct under sections 609.342 to 609.3451;
(9) solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct under section 609.352;
(10) malicious punishment or neglect or endangerment of a child under section 609.377 or 609.378;
(11) use of a minor in sexual performance under section 617.246; or
(12) parental behavior, status, or condition which mandates that the county attorney file a termination of parental rights petition under section 260C.503, subdivision 2.
(p) "Threatened injury" means a statement, overt act, condition, or status that represents a substantial risk of physical or sexual abuse or mental injury. Threatened injury includes, but is not limited to, exposing a child to a person responsible for the child's care, as defined in paragraph (j), clause (1), who has:
A child is the subject of a report of threatened injury when the responsible social services agency receives birth match data under paragraph (q) from the Department of Human Services.
(q) Upon receiving data under section 144.225, subdivision 2b, contained in a birth record or recognition of parentage identifying a child who is subject to threatened injury under paragraph (p), the Department of Human Services shall send the data to the responsible social services agency. The data is known as "birth match" data. Unless the responsible social services agency has already begun an investigation or assessment of the report due to the birth of the child or execution of the recognition of parentage and the parent's previous history with child protection, the agency shall accept the birth match data as a report under this section. The agency may use either a family assessment or investigation to determine whether the child is safe. All of the provisions of this section apply. If the child is determined to be safe, the agency shall consult with the county attorney to determine the appropriateness of filing a petition alleging the child is in need of protection or services under section 260C.007, subdivision 6, clause (16), in order to deliver needed services. If the child is determined not to be safe, the agency and the county attorney shall take appropriate action as required under section 260C.503, subdivision 2.
(r) Persons who conduct assessments or investigations under this section shall take into account accepted child-rearing practices of the culture in which a child participates and accepted teacher discipline practices, which are not injurious to the child's health, welfare, and safety.
Subd. 3.Persons mandated to report; persons voluntarily reporting.
(a) A person who knows or has reason to believe a child is being neglected or physically or sexually abused, as defined in subdivision 2, or has been neglected or physically or sexually abused within the preceding three years, shall immediately report the information to the local welfare agency, agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report, police department, county sheriff, tribal social services agency, or tribal police department if the person is:
(b) Any person may voluntarily report to the local welfare agency, agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report, police department, county sheriff, tribal social services agency, or tribal police department if the person knows, has reason to believe, or suspects a child is being or has been neglected or subjected to physical or sexual abuse.
(d) Notification requirements under subdivision 10 apply to all reports received under this section.
Subd. 3a.Report of deprivation of parental rights or kidnapping.
A person mandated to report under subdivision 3, who knows or has reason to know of a violation of section 609.25 or 609.26, shall report the information to the local police department or the county sheriff. Receipt by a local welfare agency of a report or notification of a report of a violation of section 609.25 or 609.26 shall not be construed to invoke the duties of subdivision 10, 10a, or 10b.
Subd. 3b.Agency responsible for assessing or investigating reports of maltreatment.
The Department of Education is the agency responsible for assessing or investigating allegations of child maltreatment in schools as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13; and chapter 124E.
Subd. 3c.Local welfare agency, Department of Human Services or Department of Health responsible for assessing or investigating reports of maltreatment.
(a) The county local welfare agency is the agency responsible for assessing or investigating allegations of maltreatment in child foster care, family child care, legally unlicensed child care, juvenile correctional facilities licensed under section 241.021 located in the local welfare agency's county, and reports involving children served by an unlicensed personal care provider organization under section 256B.0659. Copies of findings related to personal care provider organizations under section 256B.0659 must be forwarded to the Department of Human Services provider enrollment.
(b) The Department of Human Services is the agency responsible for assessing or investigating allegations of maltreatment in facilities licensed under chapters 245A and 245D, except for child foster care and family child care.
(c) The Department of Health is the agency responsible for assessing or investigating allegations of child maltreatment in facilities licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58 and 144A.43 to 144A.482.
Subd. 3d.Authority to interview.
The agency responsible for assessing or investigating reports of child maltreatment has the authority to interview the child, the person or persons responsible for the child's care, the alleged perpetrator, and any other person with knowledge of the abuse or neglect for the purpose of gathering the facts, assessing safety and risk to the child, and formulating a plan.
Subd. 3e.Agency responsible for assessing or investigating reports of sexual abuse.
The local welfare agency is the agency responsible for investigating allegations of sexual abuse if the alleged offender is the parent, guardian, sibling, or an individual functioning within the family unit as a person responsible for the child's care, or a person with a significant relationship to the child if that person resides in the child's household. Effective May 29, 2017, the local welfare agency is also responsible for investigating when a child is identified as a victim of sex trafficking.
Subd. 3f.Law enforcement agency responsible for investigating maltreatment.
The local law enforcement agency has responsibility for investigating any report of child maltreatment if a violation of a criminal statute is alleged. Law enforcement and the responsible agency must coordinate their investigations or assessments as required under subdivision 10.
(a) The following persons are immune from any civil or criminal liability that otherwise might result from their actions, if they are acting in good faith:
(1) any person making a voluntary or mandated report under subdivision 3 or under section 626.5561 or assisting in an assessment under this section or under section 626.5561;
(2) any person with responsibility for performing duties under this section or supervisor employed by a local welfare agency, the commissioner of an agency responsible for operating or supervising a licensed or unlicensed day care facility, residential facility, agency, hospital, sanitarium, or other facility or institution required to be licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58; 241.021; 245A.01 to 245A.16; or 245B, or a school as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13; and chapter 124E; or a nonlicensed personal care provider organization as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 19a, complying with subdivision 10d; and
(3) any public or private school, facility as defined in subdivision 2, or the employee of any public or private school or facility who permits access by a local welfare agency, the Department of Education, or a local law enforcement agency and assists in an investigation or assessment pursuant to subdivision 10 or under section 626.5561.
(b) A person who is a supervisor or person with responsibility for performing duties under this section employed by a local welfare agency, the commissioner of human services, or the commissioner of education complying with subdivisions 10 and 11 or section 626.5561 or any related rule or provision of law is immune from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise result from the person's actions, if the person is (1) acting in good faith and exercising due care, or (2) acting in good faith and following the information collection procedures established under subdivision 10, paragraphs (h), (i), and (j).
(c) This subdivision does not provide immunity to any person for failure to make a required report or for committing neglect, physical abuse, or sexual abuse of a child.
(d) If a person who makes a voluntary or mandatory report under subdivision 3 prevails in a civil action from which the person has been granted immunity under this subdivision, the court may award the person attorney fees and costs.
Subd. 4a.Retaliation prohibited.
(a) An employer of any person required to make reports under subdivision 3 shall not retaliate against the person for reporting in good faith abuse or neglect pursuant to this section, or against a child with respect to whom a report is made, because of the report.
(b) The employer of any person required to report under subdivision 3 who retaliates against the person because of a report of abuse or neglect is liable to that person for actual damages and, in addition, a penalty up to $10,000.
(c) There shall be a rebuttable presumption that any adverse action within 90 days of a report is retaliatory. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "adverse action" refers to action taken by an employer of a person required to report under subdivision 3 which is involved in a report against the person making the report or the child with respect to whom the report was made because of the report, and includes, but is not limited to:
(1) discharge, suspension, termination, or transfer from the facility, institution, school, or agency;
(2) discharge from or termination of employment;
(3) demotion or reduction in remuneration for services; or
(4) restriction or prohibition of access to the facility, institution, school, agency, or persons affiliated with it.
Subd. 5.Malicious and reckless reports.
Any person who knowingly or recklessly makes a false report under the provisions of this section shall be liable in a civil suit for any actual damages suffered by the person or persons so reported and for any punitive damages set by the court or jury, plus costs and reasonable attorney fees.
Subd. 6.Failure to report.
(a) A person mandated by this section to report who knows or has reason to believe that a child is neglected or physically or sexually abused, as defined in subdivision 2, or has been neglected or physically or sexually abused within the preceding three years, and fails to report is guilty of a misdemeanor.
(b) A person mandated by this section to report who knows or has reason to believe that two or more children not related to the perpetrator have been physically or sexually abused, as defined in subdivision 2, by the same perpetrator within the preceding ten years, and fails to report is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
(c) A parent, guardian, or caretaker who knows or reasonably should know that the child's health is in serious danger and who fails to report as required by subdivision 2, paragraph (g), is guilty of a gross misdemeanor if the child suffers substantial or great bodily harm because of the lack of medical care. If the child dies because of the lack of medical care, the person is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than two years or to payment of a fine of not more than $4,000, or both. The provision in section 609.378, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (1), providing that a parent, guardian, or caretaker may, in good faith, select and depend on spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of a child, does not exempt a parent, guardian, or caretaker from the duty to report under this subdivision.
Subd. 6a.Failure to notify.
If a local welfare agency receives a report under subdivision 3, paragraph (a) or (b), and fails to notify the local police department or county sheriff as required by subdivision 10, the person within the agency who is responsible for ensuring that notification is made shall be subject to disciplinary action in keeping with the agency's existing policy or collective bargaining agreement on discipline of employees. If a local police department or a county sheriff receives a report under subdivision 3, paragraph (a) or (b), and fails to notify the local welfare agency as required by subdivision 10, the person within the police department or county sheriff's office who is responsible for ensuring that notification is made shall be subject to disciplinary action in keeping with the agency's existing policy or collective bargaining agreement on discipline of employees.
Subd. 7.Report; information provided to parent; reporter.
(b) The local welfare agency shall determine if the report is to be screened in or out as soon as possible but in no event longer than 24 hours after the report is received. When determining whether a report will be screened in or out, the agency receiving the report must consider, when relevant, all previous history, including reports that were screened out. The agency may communicate with treating professionals and individuals specified under subdivision 10, paragraph (i), clause (3), item (iii).
(c) Any report shall be of sufficient content to identify the child, any person believed to be responsible for the abuse or neglect of the child if the person is known, the nature and extent of the abuse or neglect and the name and address of the reporter. The local welfare agency or agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall accept a report made under subdivision 3 notwithstanding refusal by a reporter to provide the reporter's name or address as long as the report is otherwise sufficient under this paragraph. Written reports received by a police department or the county sheriff shall be forwarded immediately to the local welfare agency or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report. The police department or the county sheriff may keep copies of reports received by them. Copies of written reports received by a local welfare department or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall be forwarded immediately to the local police department or the county sheriff.
(d) When requested, the agency responsible for assessing or investigating a report shall inform the reporter within ten days after the report was made, either orally or in writing, whether the report was accepted or not. If the responsible agency determines the report does not constitute a report under this section, the agency shall advise the reporter the report was screened out. Any person mandated to report shall receive a summary of the disposition of any report made by that reporter, including whether the case has been opened for child protection or other services, or if a referral has been made to a community organization, unless release would be detrimental to the best interests of the child. Any person who is not mandated to report shall, upon request to the local welfare agency, receive a concise summary of the disposition of any report made by that reporter, unless release would be detrimental to the best interests of the child.
(g) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), the commissioner of education must inform the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the child who is the subject of a report of alleged maltreatment in a school facility within ten days of receiving the report, either orally or in writing, whether the commissioner is assessing or investigating the report of alleged maltreatment.
(h) Regardless of whether a report is made under this subdivision, as soon as practicable after a school receives information regarding an incident that may constitute maltreatment of a child in a school facility, the school shall inform the parent, legal guardian, or custodian of the child that an incident has occurred that may constitute maltreatment of the child, when the incident occurred, and the nature of the conduct that may constitute maltreatment.
(i) A written copy of a report maintained by personnel of agencies, other than welfare or law enforcement agencies, which are subject to chapter 13 shall be confidential. An individual subject of the report may obtain access to the original report as provided by subdivision 11.
Subd. 7a.Guidance for screening reports.
Subd. 8.Evidence not privileged.
No evidence relating to the neglect or abuse of a child or to any prior incidents of neglect or abuse involving any of the same persons accused of neglect or abuse shall be excluded in any proceeding arising out of the alleged neglect or physical or sexual abuse on the grounds of privilege set forth in section 595.02, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), (d), or (g).
Subd. 9.Mandatory reporting to medical examiner or coroner.
When a person required to report under the provisions of subdivision 3 knows or has reason to believe a child has died as a result of neglect or physical or sexual abuse, the person shall report that information to the appropriate medical examiner or coroner instead of the local welfare agency, police department, or county sheriff. Medical examiners or coroners shall notify the local welfare agency or police department or county sheriff in instances in which they believe that the child has died as a result of neglect or physical or sexual abuse. The medical examiner or coroner shall complete an investigation as soon as feasible and report the findings to the police department or county sheriff and the local welfare agency. If the child was receiving services or treatment for mental illness, developmentally disabled, chemical dependency, or emotional disturbance from an agency, facility, or program as defined in section 245.91, the medical examiner or coroner shall also notify and report findings to the ombudsman established under sections 245.91 to 245.97.
Subd. 10.Duties of local welfare agency and local law enforcement agency upon receipt of report; mandatory notification between police or sheriff and agency.
(3) may conduct a family assessment for reports that do not allege sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment. In determining that a family assessment is appropriate, the local welfare agency may consider issues of child safety, parental cooperation, and the need for an immediate response;
(4) may conduct a family assessment on a report that was initially screened and assigned for an investigation. In determining that a complete investigation is not required, the local welfare agency must document the reason for terminating the investigation and notify the local law enforcement agency if the local law enforcement agency is conducting a joint investigation; and
(5) shall provide immediate notice, according to section 260.761, subdivision 2, to an Indian child's tribe when the agency has reason to believe the family assessment or investigation may involve an Indian child. For purposes of this clause, "immediate notice" means notice provided within 24 hours.
(c) When a local agency receives a report or otherwise has information indicating that a child who is a client, as defined in section 245.91, has been the subject of physical abuse, sexual abuse, or neglect at an agency, facility, or program as defined in section 245.91, it shall, in addition to its other duties under this section, immediately inform the ombudsman established under sections 245.91 to 245.97. The commissioner of education shall inform the ombudsman established under sections 245.91 to 245.97 of reports regarding a child defined as a client in section 245.91 that maltreatment occurred at a school as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, and chapter 124E.
(d) Authority of the local welfare agency responsible for assessing or investigating the child abuse or neglect report, the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report, and of the local law enforcement agency for investigating the alleged abuse or neglect includes, but is not limited to, authority to interview, without parental consent, the alleged victim and any other minors who currently reside with or who have resided with the alleged offender. The interview may take place at school or at any facility or other place where the alleged victim or other minors might be found or the child may be transported to, and the interview conducted at, a place appropriate for the interview of a child designated by the local welfare agency or law enforcement agency. The interview may take place outside the presence of the alleged offender or parent, legal custodian, guardian, or school official. For family assessments, it is the preferred practice to request a parent or guardian's permission to interview the child prior to conducting the child interview, unless doing so would compromise the safety assessment. Except as provided in this paragraph, the parent, legal custodian, or guardian shall be notified by the responsible local welfare or law enforcement agency no later than the conclusion of the investigation or assessment that this interview has occurred. Notwithstanding rule 32 of the Minnesota Rules of Procedure for Juvenile Courts, the juvenile court may, after hearing on an ex parte motion by the local welfare agency, order that, where reasonable cause exists, the agency withhold notification of this interview from the parent, legal custodian, or guardian. If the interview took place or is to take place on school property, the order shall specify that school officials may not disclose to the parent, legal custodian, or guardian the contents of the notification of intent to interview the child on school property, as provided under this paragraph, and any other related information regarding the interview that may be a part of the child's school record. A copy of the order shall be sent by the local welfare or law enforcement agency to the appropriate school official.
(e) When the local welfare, local law enforcement agency, or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating a report of maltreatment determines that an interview should take place on school property, written notification of intent to interview the child on school property must be received by school officials prior to the interview. The notification shall include the name of the child to be interviewed, the purpose of the interview, and a reference to the statutory authority to conduct an interview on school property. For interviews conducted by the local welfare agency, the notification shall be signed by the chair of the local social services agency or the chair's designee. The notification shall be private data on individuals subject to the provisions of this paragraph. School officials may not disclose to the parent, legal custodian, or guardian the contents of the notification or any other related information regarding the interview until notified in writing by the local welfare or law enforcement agency that the investigation or assessment has been concluded, unless a school employee or agent is alleged to have maltreated the child. Until that time, the local welfare or law enforcement agency or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating a report of maltreatment shall be solely responsible for any disclosures regarding the nature of the assessment or investigation.
(f) Where the alleged offender or a person responsible for the care of the alleged victim or other minor prevents access to the victim or other minor by the local welfare agency, the juvenile court may order the parents, legal custodian, or guardian to produce the alleged victim or other minor for questioning by the local welfare agency or the local law enforcement agency outside the presence of the alleged offender or any person responsible for the child's care at reasonable places and times as specified by court order.
(g) Before making an order under paragraph (f), the court shall issue an order to show cause, either upon its own motion or upon a verified petition, specifying the basis for the requested interviews and fixing the time and place of the hearing. The order to show cause shall be served personally and shall be heard in the same manner as provided in other cases in the juvenile court. The court shall consider the need for appointment of a guardian ad litem to protect the best interests of the child. If appointed, the guardian ad litem shall be present at the hearing on the order to show cause.
(h) The commissioner of human services, the ombudsman for mental health and developmental disabilities, the local welfare agencies responsible for investigating reports, the commissioner of education, and the local law enforcement agencies have the right to enter facilities as defined in subdivision 2 and to inspect and copy the facility's records, including medical records, as part of the investigation. Notwithstanding the provisions of chapter 13, they also have the right to inform the facility under investigation that they are conducting an investigation, to disclose to the facility the names of the individuals under investigation for abusing or neglecting a child, and to provide the facility with a copy of the report and the investigative findings.
(i) The local welfare agency responsible for conducting a family assessment or investigation shall collect available and relevant information to determine child safety, risk of subsequent child maltreatment, and family strengths and needs and share not public information with an Indian's tribal social services agency without violating any law of the state that may otherwise impose duties of confidentiality on the local welfare agency in order to implement the tribal state agreement. The local welfare agency or the agency responsible for investigating the report shall collect available and relevant information to ascertain whether maltreatment occurred and whether protective services are needed. Information collected includes, when relevant, information with regard to the person reporting the alleged maltreatment, including the nature of the reporter's relationship to the child and to the alleged offender, and the basis of the reporter's knowledge for the report; the child allegedly being maltreated; the alleged offender; the child's caretaker; and other collateral sources having relevant information related to the alleged maltreatment. The local welfare agency or the agency responsible for investigating the report may make a determination of no maltreatment early in an investigation, and close the case and retain immunity, if the collected information shows no basis for a full investigation.
(1) the child's sex and age; prior reports of maltreatment, including any maltreatment reports that were screened out and not accepted for assessment or investigation; information relating to developmental functioning; credibility of the child's statement; and whether the information provided under this clause is consistent with other information collected during the course of the assessment or investigation;
In conducting an assessment or investigation involving a school facility as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (c), the commissioner of education shall collect investigative reports and data that are relevant to a report of maltreatment and are from local law enforcement and the school facility.
(j) Upon receipt of a report, the local welfare agency shall conduct a face-to-face contact with the child reported to be maltreated and with the child's primary caregiver sufficient to complete a safety assessment and ensure the immediate safety of the child. The face-to-face contact with the child and primary caregiver shall occur immediately if sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment is alleged and within five calendar days for all other reports. If the alleged offender was not already interviewed as the primary caregiver, the local welfare agency shall also conduct a face-to-face interview with the alleged offender in the early stages of the assessment or investigation. At the initial contact, the local child welfare agency or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report must inform the alleged offender of the complaints or allegations made against the individual in a manner consistent with laws protecting the rights of the person who made the report. The interview with the alleged offender may be postponed if it would jeopardize an active law enforcement investigation.
(k) When conducting an investigation, the local welfare agency shall use a question and answer interviewing format with questioning as nondirective as possible to elicit spontaneous responses. For investigations only, the following interviewing methods and procedures must be used whenever possible when collecting information:
(l) In conducting an assessment or investigation involving a school facility as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (c), the commissioner of education shall collect available and relevant information and use the procedures in paragraphs (j) and (k), and subdivision 3d, except that the requirement for face-to-face observation of the child and face-to-face interview of the alleged offender is to occur in the initial stages of the assessment or investigation provided that the commissioner may also base the assessment or investigation on investigative reports and data received from the school facility and local law enforcement, to the extent those investigations satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (j) and (k), and subdivision 3d.
Subd. 10a.Law enforcement agency responsibility for investigation; welfare agency reliance on law enforcement fact-finding; welfare agency offer of services.
(a) If the report alleges neglect, physical abuse, or sexual abuse by a person who is not a parent, guardian, sibling, person responsible for the child's care functioning within the family unit, or a person who lives in the child's household and who has a significant relationship to the child, in a setting other than a facility as defined in subdivision 2, the local welfare agency shall immediately notify the appropriate law enforcement agency, which shall conduct an investigation of the alleged abuse or neglect if a violation of a criminal statute is alleged.
(b) The local agency may rely on the fact-finding efforts of the law enforcement investigation conducted under this subdivision to make a determination whether or not threatened injury or other maltreatment has occurred under subdivision 2 if an alleged offender has minor children or lives with minors.
(c) If a child is the victim of an alleged crime under paragraph (a), the law enforcement agency shall immediately notify the local welfare agency, which shall offer appropriate social services for the purpose of safeguarding and enhancing the welfare of the abused or neglected minor.
Subd. 10b.Duties of commissioner; neglect or abuse in facility.
(a) This section applies to the commissioners of human services, health, and education. The commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall immediately assess or investigate if the report alleges that:
(1) a child who is in the care of a facility as defined in subdivision 2 is neglected, physically abused, sexually abused, or is the victim of maltreatment in a facility by an individual in that facility, or has been so neglected or abused, or been the victim of maltreatment in a facility by an individual in that facility within the three years preceding the report; or
(2) a child was neglected, physically abused, sexually abused, or is the victim of maltreatment in a facility by an individual in a facility defined in subdivision 2, while in the care of that facility within the three years preceding the report.
The commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall arrange for the transmittal to the commissioner of reports received by local agencies and may delegate to a local welfare agency the duty to investigate reports. In conducting an investigation under this section, the commissioner has the powers and duties specified for local welfare agencies under this section. The commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report or local welfare agency may interview any children who are or have been in the care of a facility under investigation and their parents, guardians, or legal custodians.
(b) Prior to any interview, the commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report or local welfare agency shall notify the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of a child who will be interviewed in the manner provided for in subdivision 10d, paragraph (a). If reasonable efforts to reach the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of a child in an out-of-home placement have failed, the child may be interviewed if there is reason to believe the interview is necessary to protect the child or other children in the facility. The commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report or local agency must provide the information required in this subdivision to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of a child interviewed without parental notification as soon as possible after the interview. When the investigation is completed, any parent, guardian, or legal custodian notified under this subdivision shall receive the written memorandum provided for in subdivision 10d, paragraph (c).
(c) In conducting investigations under this subdivision the commissioner or local welfare agency shall obtain access to information consistent with subdivision 10, paragraphs (h), (i), and (j). In conducting assessments or investigations under this subdivision, the commissioner of education shall obtain access to reports and investigative data that are relevant to a report of maltreatment and are in the possession of a school facility as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (c), notwithstanding the classification of the data as educational or personnel data under chapter 13. This includes, but is not limited to, school investigative reports, information concerning the conduct of school personnel alleged to have committed maltreatment of students, information about witnesses, and any protective or corrective action taken by the school facility regarding the school personnel alleged to have committed maltreatment.
(d) The commissioner may request assistance from the local social services agency.
Subd. 10c.Duties of local social service agency upon receipt of report of medical neglect.
If the report alleges medical neglect as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 6, clause (5), the local welfare agency shall, in addition to its other duties under this section, immediately consult with designated hospital staff and with the parents of the infant to verify that appropriate nutrition, hydration, and medication are being provided; and shall immediately secure an independent medical review of the infant's medical charts and records and, if necessary, seek a court order for an independent medical examination of the infant. If the review or examination leads to a conclusion of medical neglect, the agency shall intervene on behalf of the infant by initiating legal proceedings under section 260C.141 and by filing an expedited motion to prevent the withholding of medically indicated treatment.
Subd. 10d.Notification of neglect or abuse in facility.
(a) When a report is received that alleges neglect, physical abuse, sexual abuse, or maltreatment of a child while in the care of a licensed or unlicensed day care facility, residential facility, agency, hospital, sanitarium, or other facility or institution required to be licensed according to sections 144.50 to 144.58; 241.021; or 245A.01 to 245A.16; or chapter 245D, or a school as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13; and chapter 124E; or a nonlicensed personal care provider organization as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 19a, the commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report or local welfare agency investigating the report shall provide the following information to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of a child alleged to have been neglected, physically abused, sexually abused, or the victim of maltreatment of a child in the facility: the name of the facility; the fact that a report alleging neglect, physical abuse, sexual abuse, or maltreatment of a child in the facility has been received; the nature of the alleged neglect, physical abuse, sexual abuse, or maltreatment of a child in the facility; that the agency is conducting an assessment or investigation; any protective or corrective measures being taken pending the outcome of the investigation; and that a written memorandum will be provided when the investigation is completed.
(b) The commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report or local welfare agency may also provide the information in paragraph (a) to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of any other child in the facility if the investigative agency knows or has reason to believe the alleged neglect, physical abuse, sexual abuse, or maltreatment of a child in the facility has occurred. In determining whether to exercise this authority, the commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report or local welfare agency shall consider the seriousness of the alleged neglect, physical abuse, sexual abuse, or maltreatment of a child in the facility; the number of children allegedly neglected, physically abused, sexually abused, or victims of maltreatment of a child in the facility; the number of alleged perpetrators; and the length of the investigation. The facility shall be notified whenever this discretion is exercised.
(c) When the commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report or local welfare agency has completed its investigation, every parent, guardian, or legal custodian previously notified of the investigation by the commissioner or local welfare agency shall be provided with the following information in a written memorandum: the name of the facility investigated; the nature of the alleged neglect, physical abuse, sexual abuse, or maltreatment of a child in the facility; the investigator's name; a summary of the investigation findings; a statement whether maltreatment was found; and the protective or corrective measures that are being or will be taken. The memorandum shall be written in a manner that protects the identity of the reporter and the child and shall not contain the name, or to the extent possible, reveal the identity of the alleged perpetrator or of those interviewed during the investigation. If maltreatment is determined to exist, the commissioner or local welfare agency shall also provide the written memorandum to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of each child in the facility who had contact with the individual responsible for the maltreatment. When the facility is the responsible party for maltreatment, the commissioner or local welfare agency shall also provide the written memorandum to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of each child who received services in the population of the facility where the maltreatment occurred. This notification must be provided to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of each child receiving services from the time the maltreatment occurred until either the individual responsible for maltreatment is no longer in contact with a child or children in the facility or the conclusion of the investigation. In the case of maltreatment within a school facility, as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, and chapter 124E, the commissioner of education need not provide notification to parents, guardians, or legal custodians of each child in the facility, but shall, within ten days after the investigation is completed, provide written notification to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of any student alleged to have been maltreated. The commissioner of education may notify the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of any student involved as a witness to alleged maltreatment.
Subd. 10e.Determinations.
(1) physical abuse as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (k);
(2) neglect as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (g);
(3) sexual abuse as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (n);
(4) mental injury as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (f); or
(5) maltreatment of a child in a facility as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (c).
Subd. 10f.Notice of determinations.
Within ten working days of the conclusion of a family assessment, the local welfare agency shall notify the parent or guardian of the child of the need for services to address child safety concerns or significant risk of subsequent child maltreatment. The local welfare agency and the family may also jointly agree that family support and family preservation services are needed. Within ten working days of the conclusion of an investigation, the local welfare agency or agency responsible for investigating the report shall notify the parent or guardian of the child, the person determined to be maltreating the child, and, if applicable, the director of the facility, of the determination and a summary of the specific reasons for the determination. When the investigation involves a child foster care setting that is monitored by a private licensing agency under section 245A.16, the local welfare agency responsible for investigating the report shall notify the private licensing agency of the determination and shall provide a summary of the specific reasons for the determination. The notice to the private licensing agency must include identifying private data, but not the identity of the reporter of maltreatment. The notice must also include a certification that the information collection procedures under subdivision 10, paragraphs (h), (i), and (j), were followed and a notice of the right of a data subject to obtain access to other private data on the subject collected, created, or maintained under this section. In addition, the notice shall include the length of time that the records will be kept under subdivision 11c. The investigating agency shall notify the parent or guardian of the child who is the subject of the report, and any person or facility determined to have maltreated a child, of their appeal or review rights under this section. The notice must also state that a finding of maltreatment may result in denial of a license application or background study disqualification under chapter 245C related to employment or services that are licensed by the Department of Human Services under chapter 245A, the Department of Health under chapter 144 or 144A, the Department of Corrections under section 241.021, and from providing services related to an unlicensed personal care provider organization under chapter 256B.
Subd. 10g.Interstate data exchange.
All reports and records created, collected, or maintained under this section by a local social service agency or law enforcement agency may be disclosed to a local social service or other child welfare agency of another state when the agency certifies that:
(1) the reports and records are necessary in order to conduct an investigation of actions that would qualify as sexual abuse, physical abuse, or neglect under this section; and
(2) the reports and records will be used only for purposes of a child protection assessment or investigation and will not be further disclosed to any other person or agency.
The local social service agency or law enforcement agency in this state shall keep a record of all records or reports disclosed pursuant to this subdivision and of any agency to which the records or reports are disclosed. If in any case records or reports are disclosed before a determination is made under subdivision 10e, or a disposition of any criminal proceedings is reached, the local social service agency or law enforcement agency in this state shall forward the determination or disposition to any agency that has received any report or record under this subdivision.
Subd. 10h.Child abuse data; release to family court services.
The responsible authority or its designee of a local welfare agency may release private or confidential data on an active case involving assessment or investigation of actions that are defined as sexual abuse, physical abuse, or neglect under this section to a court services agency if:
(1) the court services agency has an active case involving a common client or clients who are the subject of the data; and
(2) the data are necessary for the court services agency to effectively process the court services' case, including investigating or performing other duties relating to the case required by law.
The data disclosed under this subdivision may be used only for purposes of the active court services case described in clause (1) and may not be further disclosed to any other person or agency, except as authorized by law.
Subd. 10i.Administrative reconsideration; review panel.
(a) Administrative reconsideration is not applicable in family assessments since no determination concerning maltreatment is made. For investigations, except as provided under paragraph (e), an individual or facility that the commissioner of human services, a local social service agency, or the commissioner of education determines has maltreated a child, an interested person acting on behalf of the child, regardless of the determination, who contests the investigating agency's final determination regarding maltreatment, may request the investigating agency to reconsider its final determination regarding maltreatment. The request for reconsideration must be submitted in writing to the investigating agency within 15 calendar days after receipt of notice of the final determination regarding maltreatment or, if the request is made by an interested person who is not entitled to notice, within 15 days after receipt of the notice by the parent or guardian of the child. If mailed, the request for reconsideration must be postmarked and sent to the investigating agency within 15 calendar days of the individual's or facility's receipt of the final determination. If the request for reconsideration is made by personal service, it must be received by the investigating agency within 15 calendar days after the individual's or facility's receipt of the final determination. Effective January 1, 2002, an individual who was determined to have maltreated a child under this section and who was disqualified on the basis of serious or recurring maltreatment under sections 245C.14 and 245C.15, may request reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification. The request for reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification must be submitted within 30 calendar days of the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification under sections 245C.16 and 245C.17. If mailed, the request for reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification must be postmarked and sent to the investigating agency within 30 calendar days of the individual's receipt of the maltreatment determination and notice of disqualification. If the request for reconsideration is made by personal service, it must be received by the investigating agency within 30 calendar days after the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification.
(b) Except as provided under paragraphs (e) and (f), if the investigating agency denies the request or fails to act upon the request within 15 working days after receiving the request for reconsideration, the person or facility entitled to a fair hearing under section 256.045 may submit to the commissioner of human services or the commissioner of education a written request for a hearing under that section. Section 256.045 also governs hearings requested to contest a final determination of the commissioner of education. The investigating agency shall notify persons who request reconsideration of their rights under this paragraph. The hearings specified under this section are the only administrative appeal of a decision issued under paragraph (a). Determinations under this section are not subject to accuracy and completeness challenges under section 13.04.
(c) If, as a result of a reconsideration or review, the investigating agency changes the final determination of maltreatment, that agency shall notify the parties specified in subdivisions 10b, 10d, and 10f.
(d) Except as provided under paragraph (f), if an individual or facility contests the investigating agency's final determination regarding maltreatment by requesting a fair hearing under section 256.045, the commissioner of human services shall assure that the hearing is conducted and a decision is reached within 90 days of receipt of the request for a hearing. The time for action on the decision may be extended for as many days as the hearing is postponed or the record is held open for the benefit of either party.
(e) If an individual was disqualified under sections 245C.14 and 245C.15, on the basis of a determination of maltreatment, which was serious or recurring, and the individual has requested reconsideration of the maltreatment determination under paragraph (a) and requested reconsideration of the disqualification under sections 245C.21 to 245C.27, reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and reconsideration of the disqualification shall be consolidated into a single reconsideration. If reconsideration of the maltreatment determination is denied and the individual remains disqualified following a reconsideration decision, the individual may request a fair hearing under section 256.045. If an individual requests a fair hearing on the maltreatment determination and the disqualification, the scope of the fair hearing shall include both the maltreatment determination and the disqualification.
(f) If a maltreatment determination or a disqualification based on serious or recurring maltreatment is the basis for a denial of a license under section 245A.05 or a licensing sanction under section 245A.07, the license holder has the right to a contested case hearing under chapter 14 and Minnesota Rules, parts 1400.8505 to 1400.8612. As provided for under section 245A.08, subdivision 2a, the scope of the contested case hearing shall include the maltreatment determination, disqualification, and licensing sanction or denial of a license. In such cases, a fair hearing regarding the maltreatment determination and disqualification shall not be conducted under section 256.045. Except for family child care and child foster care, reconsideration of a maltreatment determination as provided under this subdivision, and reconsideration of a disqualification as provided under section 245C.22, shall also not be conducted when:
(1) a denial of a license under section 245A.05 or a licensing sanction under section 245A.07, is based on a determination that the license holder is responsible for maltreatment or the disqualification of a license holder based on serious or recurring maltreatment;
(2) the denial of a license or licensing sanction is issued at the same time as the maltreatment determination or disqualification; and
(3) the license holder appeals the maltreatment determination or disqualification, and denial of a license or licensing sanction.
Notwithstanding clauses (1) to (3), if the license holder appeals the maltreatment determination or disqualification, but does not appeal the denial of a license or a licensing sanction, reconsideration of the maltreatment determination shall be conducted under sections 626.556, subdivision 10i, and 626.557, subdivision 9d, and reconsideration of the disqualification shall be conducted under section 245C.22. In such cases, a fair hearing shall also be conducted as provided under sections 245C.27, 626.556, subdivision 10i, and 626.557, subdivision 9d.
If the disqualified subject is an individual other than the license holder and upon whom a background study must be conducted under chapter 245C, the hearings of all parties may be consolidated into a single contested case hearing upon consent of all parties and the administrative law judge.
(g) For purposes of this subdivision, "interested person acting on behalf of the child" means a parent or legal guardian; stepparent; grandparent; guardian ad litem; adult stepbrother, stepsister, or sibling; or adult aunt or uncle; unless the person has been determined to be the perpetrator of the maltreatment.
Subd. 10j.Release of data to mandated reporters.
(a) A local social services or child protection agency, or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report of maltreatment, shall provide relevant private data on individuals obtained under this section to a mandated reporter who made the report and who has an ongoing responsibility for the health, education, or welfare of a child affected by the data, unless the agency determines that providing the data would not be in the best interests of the child. The agency may provide the data to other mandated reporters with ongoing responsibility for the health, education, or welfare of the child. Mandated reporters with ongoing responsibility for the health, education, or welfare of a child affected by the data include the child's teachers or other appropriate school personnel, foster parents, health care providers, respite care workers, therapists, social workers, child care providers, residential care staff, crisis nursery staff, probation officers, and court services personnel. Under this section, a mandated reporter need not have made the report to be considered a person with ongoing responsibility for the health, education, or welfare of a child affected by the data. Data provided under this section must be limited to data pertinent to the individual's responsibility for caring for the child.
Subd. 10k.Release of certain assessment or investigative records to other counties.
Records maintained under subdivision 11c, paragraph (a), may be shared with another local welfare agency that requests the information because it is conducting an assessment or investigation under this section of the subject of the records.
Subd. 10l.Documentation.
When a case is closed that has been open for services, the local welfare agency shall document the outcome of the family assessment or investigation, including a description of services provided and the removal or reduction of risk to the child, if it existed.
Subd. 10m.Provision of child protective services; consultation with county attorney.
Subd. 10n.Required referral to early intervention services.
A child under age three who is involved in a substantiated case of maltreatment shall be referred for screening under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act, part C. Parents must be informed that the evaluation and acceptance of services are voluntary. The commissioner of human services shall monitor referral rates by county and annually report the information to the legislature beginning March 15, 2014. Refusal to have a child screened is not a basis for a child in need of protection or services petition under chapter 260C.
Subd. 11.Records.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) and subdivisions 10b, 10d, 10g, and 11b, all records concerning individuals maintained by a local welfare agency or agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report under this section, including any written reports filed under subdivision 7, shall be private data on individuals, except insofar as copies of reports are required by subdivision 7 to be sent to the local police department or the county sheriff. All records concerning determinations of maltreatment by a facility are nonpublic data as maintained by the Department of Education, except insofar as copies of reports are required by subdivision 7 to be sent to the local police department or the county sheriff. Reports maintained by any police department or the county sheriff shall be private data on individuals except the reports shall be made available to the investigating, petitioning, or prosecuting authority, including county medical examiners or county coroners. Section 13.82, subdivisions 8, 9, and 14, apply to law enforcement data other than the reports. The local social services agency or agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall make available to the investigating, petitioning, or prosecuting authority, including county medical examiners or county coroners or their professional delegates, any records which contain information relating to a specific incident of neglect or abuse which is under investigation, petition, or prosecution and information relating to any prior incidents of neglect or abuse involving any of the same persons. The records shall be collected and maintained in accordance with the provisions of chapter 13. In conducting investigations and assessments pursuant to this section, the notice required by section 13.04, subdivision 2, need not be provided to a minor under the age of ten who is the alleged victim of abuse or neglect. An individual subject of a record shall have access to the record in accordance with those sections, except that the name of the reporter shall be confidential while the report is under assessment or investigation except as otherwise permitted by this subdivision. Any person conducting an investigation or assessment under this section who intentionally discloses the identity of a reporter prior to the completion of the investigation or assessment is guilty of a misdemeanor. After the assessment or investigation is completed, the name of the reporter shall be confidential. The subject of the report may compel disclosure of the name of the reporter only with the consent of the reporter or upon a written finding by the court that the report was false and that there is evidence that the report was made in bad faith. This subdivision does not alter disclosure responsibilities or obligations under the Rules of Criminal Procedure.
(b) Upon request of the legislative auditor, data on individuals maintained under this section must be released to the legislative auditor in order for the auditor to fulfill the auditor's duties under section 3.971. The auditor shall maintain the data in accordance with chapter 13.
(c) The commissioner of education must be provided with all requested data that are relevant to a report of maltreatment and are in possession of a school facility as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (c), when the data is requested pursuant to an assessment or investigation of a maltreatment report of a student in a school. If the commissioner of education makes a determination of maltreatment involving an individual performing work within a school facility who is licensed by a board or other agency, the commissioner shall provide necessary and relevant information to the licensing entity to enable the entity to fulfill its statutory duties. Notwithstanding section 13.03, subdivision 4, data received by a licensing entity under this paragraph are governed by section 13.41 or other applicable law governing data of the receiving entity, except that this section applies to the classification of and access to data on the reporter of the maltreatment.
Subd. 11a.Disclosure of information not required in certain cases.
When interviewing a minor under subdivision 10, an individual does not include the parent or guardian of the minor for purposes of section 13.04, subdivision 2, when the parent or guardian is the alleged perpetrator of the abuse or neglect.
Subd. 11b.Data received from law enforcement.
Active law enforcement investigative data received by a local welfare agency or agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report under this section are confidential data on individuals. When this data become inactive in the law enforcement agency, the data are private data on individuals.
Subd. 11c.Welfare, court services agency, and school records maintained.
(a) For reports alleging child maltreatment that were not accepted for assessment or investigation, family assessment cases, and cases where an investigation results in no determination of maltreatment or the need for child protective services, the records must be maintained for a period of five years after the date the report was not accepted for assessment or investigation or of the final entry in the case record. Records of reports that were not accepted must contain sufficient information to identify the subjects of the report, the nature of the alleged maltreatment, and the reasons as to why the report was not accepted. Records under this paragraph may not be used for employment, background checks, or purposes other than to assist in future screening decisions and risk and safety assessments.
Subd. 11d.Disclosure in child fatality or near-fatality cases.
(a) The definitions in this paragraph apply to this section.
(1) "Child fatality" means the death of a child from child abuse or neglect.
(2) "Near fatality" means a case in which a physician determines that a child is in serious or critical condition as the result of sickness or injury caused by child abuse or neglect.
(3) "Findings and information" means a written summary described in paragraph (c) of actions taken or services rendered by a local social services agency following receipt of a report.
(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law and subject to this subdivision, a public agency shall disclose to the public, upon request, the findings and information related to a child fatality or near fatality if:
(1) a person is criminally charged with having caused the child fatality or near fatality;
(2) a county attorney certifies that a person would have been charged with having caused the child fatality or near fatality but for that person's death; or
(3) a child protection investigation resulted in a determination of child abuse or neglect.
(c) Findings and information disclosed under this subdivision consist of a written summary that includes any of the following information the agency is able to provide:
(1) the cause and circumstances regarding the child fatality or near fatality;
(2) the age and gender of the child;
(3) information on any previous reports of child abuse or neglect that are pertinent to the abuse or neglect that led to the child fatality or near fatality;
(4) information on any previous investigations that are pertinent to the abuse or neglect that led to the child fatality or near fatality;
(5) the results of any investigations described in clause (4);
(6) actions of and services provided by the local social services agency on behalf of a child that are pertinent to the child abuse or neglect that led to the child fatality or near fatality; and
(7) the results of any review of the state child mortality review panel, a local child mortality review panel, a local community child protection team, or any public agency.
(d) Nothing in this subdivision authorizes access to the private data in the custody of a local social services agency, or the disclosure to the public of the records or content of any psychiatric, psychological, or therapeutic evaluations, or the disclosure of information that would reveal the identities of persons who provided information related to abuse or neglect of the child.
(e) A person whose request is denied may apply to the appropriate court for an order compelling disclosure of all or part of the findings and information of the public agency. The application must set forth, with reasonable particularity, factors supporting the application. The court has jurisdiction to issue these orders. Actions under this section must be set down for immediate hearing, and subsequent proceedings in those actions must be given priority by the appellate courts.
(f) A public agency or its employees acting in good faith in disclosing or declining to disclose information under this section are immune from criminal or civil liability that might otherwise be incurred or imposed for that action.
Subd. 12.Duties of facility operators.
Any operator, employee, or volunteer worker at any facility who intentionally neglects, physically abuses, or sexually abuses any child in the care of that facility may be charged with a violation of section 609.255, 609.377, or 609.378. Any operator of a facility who knowingly permits conditions to exist which result in neglect, physical abuse, sexual abuse, or maltreatment of a child in a facility while in the care of that facility may be charged with a violation of section 609.378. The facility operator shall inform all mandated reporters employed by or otherwise associated with the facility of the duties required of mandated reporters and shall inform all mandatory reporters of the prohibition against retaliation for reports made in good faith under this section.
[Repealed, 1988 c 625 s 9]
Subd. 14.Conflict of interest.
(a) A potential conflict of interest related to assisting in an assessment under this section resulting in a direct or shared financial interest with a child abuse and neglect treatment provider or resulting from a personal or family relationship with a party in the investigation must be considered by the local welfare agency in an effort to prevent unethical relationships.
(b) A person who conducts an assessment under this section or section 626.5561 may not have:
(1) any direct or shared financial interest or referral relationship resulting in a direct shared financial gain with a child abuse and neglect treatment provider; or
(2) a personal or family relationship with a party in the investigation.
If an independent assessor is not available, the person responsible for making the determination under this section may use the services of an assessor with a financial interest, referral, or personal or family relationship.
Subd. 15.Auditing.
The commissioner of human services shall regularly audit for accuracy the data reported by counties on maltreatment of minors.
Subd. 16.Commissioner's duty to provide oversight; quality assurance reviews; annual summary of reviews.
1975 c 221 s 1; 1977 c 130 s 9; 1977 c 212 s 2,3; 1978 c 755 s 1-9; 1979 c 143 s 1; 1979 c 255 s 7; 1980 c 509 s 50,181; 1981 c 240 s 2; 1981 c 273 s 12; 1981 c 311 s 39; 1Sp1981 c 4 art 1 s 15; 1982 c 393 s 1,2; 1982 c 545 s 24; 1982 c 636 s 1-4; 1983 c 217 s 8; 1983 c 229 s 1,2; 1983 c 345 s 13-19; 1984 c 484 s 3; 1984 c 573 s 10; 1984 c 577 s 1-6; 1984 c 588 s 12; 1984 c 654 art 5 s 58; 1984 c 655 art 2 s 14 subd 1; 1985 c 266 s 5-15; 1985 c 283 s 2-4; 1985 c 286 s 19,20; 1985 c 293 s 3-5; 1986 c 351 s 19,20; 1986 c 380 s 3; 1986 c 444; 1986 c 469 s 2; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 77; 1987 c 91 s 1-3; 1987 c 110 s 2; 1987 c 135 s 1-3; 1987 c 211 s 1; 1987 c 333 s 22; 1987 c 352 s 9,10; 1988 c 543 s 11,12; 1988 c 625 s 2-8; 1988 c 662 s 4; 1989 c 177 s 2,3; 1989 c 209 art 2 s 1; 1989 c 282 art 2 s 200,201; 1989 c 290 art 5 s 4; 1990 c 426 art 1 s 55; 1990 c 542 s 20-26; 1991 c 181 s 1; 1991 c 319 s 24,25; 1993 c 13 art 1 s 50; 1993 c 296 s 3; 1993 c 306 s 18,19; 1993 c 326 art 6 s 23; 1993 c 351 s 37,38; 1994 c 434 s 8-10; 1994 c 631 s 31; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 57-59; art 4 s 30; 1995 c 187 s 1-7; 1995 c 229 art 4 s 20; 1997 c 203 art 5 s 25-30; 1997 c 245 art 2 s 8; 1Sp1997 c 3 s 44; 3Sp1997 c 3 s 10; 1998 c 406 art 1 s 36,37; art 4 s 2-7; 1998 c 407 art 9 s 35; 1Sp1998 c 3 s 25; 1999 c 139 art 4 s 2; 1999 c 227 s 22; 1999 c 241 art 2 s 54; art 10 s 3; 1999 c 245 art 4 s 102; art 8 s 66-79; 2000 c 401 s 1; 2000 c 444 art 2 s 47; 2001 c 7 s 88; 2001 c 136 s 1; 2001 c 178 art 1 s 40,44; art 2 s 7-17; 1Sp2001 c 6 art 3 s 16; 1Sp2001 c 9 art 11 s 6-12; art 14 s 29; 2002 c 375 art 1 s 21; 2002 c 379 art 1 s 107,113; 2002 c 385 s 9; 2003 c 15 art 1 s 33; 2003 c 130 s 12; 2004 c 288 art 1 s 78,79; 2004 c 294 art 5 s 18; 2005 c 56 s 1; 2005 c 136 art 3 s 25; 2005 c 159 art 1 s 1-13; 1Sp2005 c 4 art 1 s 54; 2006 c 263 art 7 s 6; 2006 c 264 s 14; 2006 c 283 s 1; 2007 c 112 s 52-54; 2007 c 147 art 1 s 24-31; art 10 s 15; 2008 c 361 art 6 s 55,56; 2009 c 79 art 8 s 74; 2009 c 86 art 1 s 86; 2009 c 142 art 2 s 43-45; 2009 c 173 art 1 s 39; 2010 c 276 s 1,2; 2010 c 301 art 3 s 10; 2010 c 329 art 1 s 19,20; art 2 s 5; 2010 c 385 s 13; 2012 c 153 s 2; 2012 c 216 art 1 s 47-50; art 6 s 7-13; 2012 c 247 art 3 s 24; 2013 c 82 s 38; 2013 c 108 art 9 s 13-15; 2013 c 125 art 1 s 99; 2014 c 262 art 4 s 9; art 5 s 5,6; 2014 c 272 art 4 s 12; 2014 c 275 art 1 s 130; 2014 c 291 art 1 s 10; art 11 s 36,37; 2015 c 4 s 1,2; 2015 c 21 art 1 s 103; 2015 c 71 art 1 s 88-99,126; 2015 c 78 art 1 s 36,37; 1Sp2015 c 3 art 4 s 10; 2016 c 158 art 1 s 209; 2016 c 189 art 15 s 24,25
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), a person mandated to report under section 626.556, subdivision 3, shall immediately report to the local welfare agency if the person knows or has reason to believe that a woman is pregnant and has used a controlled substance for a nonmedical purpose during the pregnancy, including, but not limited to, tetrahydrocannabinol, or has consumed alcoholic beverages during the pregnancy in any way that is habitual or excessive.
(b) A health care professional or a social service professional who is mandated to report under section 626.556, subdivision 3, is exempt from reporting under paragraph (a) a woman's use or consumption of tetrahydrocannabinol or alcoholic beverages during pregnancy if the professional is providing the woman with prenatal care or other healthcare services.
(c) Any person may make a voluntary report if the person knows or has reason to believe that a woman is pregnant and has used a controlled substance for a nonmedical purpose during the pregnancy, including, but not limited to, tetrahydrocannabinol, or has consumed alcoholic beverages during the pregnancy in any way that is habitual or excessive.
(d) An oral report shall be made immediately by telephone or otherwise. An oral report made by a person required to report shall be followed within 72 hours, exclusive of weekends and holidays, by a report in writing to the local welfare agency. Any report shall be of sufficient content to identify the pregnant woman, the nature and extent of the use, if known, and the name and address of the reporter. The local welfare agency shall accept a report made under paragraph (c) notwithstanding refusal by a voluntary reporter to provide the reporter's name or address as long as the report is otherwise sufficient.
(e) For purposes of this section, "prenatal care" means the comprehensive package of medical and psychological support provided throughout the pregnancy.
Subd. 2.Local welfare agency.
Upon receipt of a report required under subdivision 1, the local welfare agency shall immediately conduct an appropriate assessment and offer services indicated under the circumstances. Services offered may include, but are not limited to, a referral for chemical dependency assessment, a referral for chemical dependency treatment if recommended, and a referral for prenatal care. The local welfare agency may also take any appropriate action under chapter 253B, including seeking an emergency admission under section 253B.05. The local welfare agency shall seek an emergency admission under section 253B.05 if the pregnant woman refuses recommended voluntary services or fails recommended treatment.
Subd. 3.Related provisions.
Reports under this section are governed by section 626.556, subdivisions 4, 4a, 5, 6, 8, and 11.
Subd. 4.Controlled substances.
For purposes of this section and section 626.5562, "controlled substance" means a controlled substance listed in section 253B.02, subdivision 2.
(a) A person making a voluntary or mandated report under subdivision 1 or assisting in an assessment under subdivision 2 is immune from any civil or criminal liability that otherwise might result from the person's actions, if the person is acting in good faith.
(b) This subdivision does not provide immunity to any person for failure to make a required report or for committing neglect, physical abuse, or sexual abuse of a child.
1989 c 290 art 5 s 5; 1990 c 542 s 27-30; 2007 c 69 s 3,4; 2010 c 348 s 1; 2014 c 291 art 11 s 38
Subdivision 1.Test; report.
A physician shall administer a toxicology test to a pregnant woman under the physician's care or to a woman under the physician's care within eight hours after delivery to determine whether there is evidence that she has ingested a controlled substance, if the woman has obstetrical complications that are a medical indication of possible use of a controlled substance for a nonmedical purpose. If the test results are positive, the physician shall report the results under section 626.5561. A negative test result does not eliminate the obligation to report under section 626.5561, if other evidence gives the physician reason to believe the patient has used a controlled substance for a nonmedical purpose.
Subd. 2.Newborns.
A physician shall administer to each newborn infant born under the physician's care a toxicology test to determine whether there is evidence of prenatal exposure to a controlled substance, if the physician has reason to believe based on a medical assessment of the mother or the infant that the mother used a controlled substance for a nonmedical purpose during the pregnancy. If the test results are positive, the physician shall report the results as neglect under section 626.556. A negative test result does not eliminate the obligation to report under section 626.556 if other medical evidence of prenatal exposure to a controlled substance is present.
Subd. 3.Report to Department of Health.
Physicians shall report to the Department of Health the results of tests performed under subdivisions 1 and 2. A report shall be made on the certificate of live birth medical supplement or the report of fetal death medical supplement filed on or after February 1, 1991. The reports are medical data under section 13.384.
Any physician or other medical personnel administering a toxicology test to determine the presence of a controlled substance in a pregnant woman, in a woman within eight hours after delivery, or in a child at birth or during the first month of life is immune from civil or criminal liability arising from administration of the test, if the physician ordering the test believes in good faith that the test is required under this section and the test is administered in accordance with an established protocol and reasonable medical practice.
Subd. 5.Reliability of tests.
A positive test result reported under this section must be obtained from a confirmatory test performed by a drug testing laboratory which meets the requirements of section 181.953, and must be performed according to the requirements for performance of confirmatory tests imposed by the licensing, accreditation, or certification program listed in section 181.953, subdivision 1, in which the laboratory participates.
1989 c 290 art 5 s 6; 1990 c 542 s 31-33; 1991 c 36 s 4; 1991 c 60 s 10; 1999 c 227 s 22
The legislature declares that the public policy of this state is to protect adults who, because of physical or mental disability or dependency on institutional services, are particularly vulnerable to maltreatment; to assist in providing safe environments for vulnerable adults; and to provide safe institutional or residential services, community-based services, or living environments for vulnerable adults who have been maltreated.
In addition, it is the policy of this state to require the reporting of suspected maltreatment of vulnerable adults, to provide for the voluntary reporting of maltreatment of vulnerable adults, to require the investigation of the reports, and to provide protective and counseling services in appropriate cases.
Subd. 3.Timing of report.
(a) A mandated reporter who has reason to believe that a vulnerable adult is being or has been maltreated, or who has knowledge that a vulnerable adult has sustained a physical injury which is not reasonably explained shall immediately report the information to the common entry point. If an individual is a vulnerable adult solely because the individual is admitted to a facility, a mandated reporter is not required to report suspected maltreatment of the individual that occurred prior to admission, unless:
(1) the individual was admitted to the facility from another facility and the reporter has reason to believe the vulnerable adult was maltreated in the previous facility; or
(2) the reporter knows or has reason to believe that the individual is a vulnerable adult as defined in section 626.5572, subdivision 21, paragraph (a), clause (4).
(b) A person not required to report under the provisions of this section may voluntarily report as described above.
(c) Nothing in this section requires a report of known or suspected maltreatment, if the reporter knows or has reason to know that a report has been made to the common entry point.
(d) Nothing in this section shall preclude a reporter from also reporting to a law enforcement agency.
(e) A mandated reporter who knows or has reason to believe that an error under section 626.5572, subdivision 17, paragraph (c), clause (5), occurred must make a report under this subdivision. If the reporter or a facility, at any time believes that an investigation by a lead investigative agency will determine or should determine that the reported error was not neglect according to the criteria under section 626.5572, subdivision 17, paragraph (c), clause (5), the reporter or facility may provide to the common entry point or directly to the lead investigative agency information explaining how the event meets the criteria under section 626.5572, subdivision 17, paragraph (c), clause (5). The lead investigative agency shall consider this information when making an initial disposition of the report under subdivision 9c.
Subd. 3a.Report not required.
The following events are not required to be reported under this section:
(1) A circumstance where federal law specifically prohibits a person from disclosing patient identifying information in connection with a report of suspected maltreatment, unless the vulnerable adult, or the vulnerable adult's guardian, conservator, or legal representative, has consented to disclosure in a manner which conforms to federal requirements. Facilities whose patients or residents are covered by such a federal law shall seek consent to the disclosure of suspected maltreatment from each patient or resident, or a guardian, conservator, or legal representative, upon the patient's or resident's admission to the facility. Persons who are prohibited by federal law from reporting an incident of suspected maltreatment shall immediately seek consent to make a report.
(2) Verbal or physical aggression occurring between patients, residents, or clients of a facility, or self-abusive behavior by these persons does not constitute abuse unless the behavior causes serious harm. The operator of the facility or a designee shall record incidents of aggression and self-abusive behavior to facilitate review by licensing agencies and county and local welfare agencies.
(3) Accidents as defined in section 626.5572, subdivision 3.
(4) Events occurring in a facility that result from an individual's error in the provision of therapeutic conduct to a vulnerable adult, as provided in section 626.5572, subdivision 17, paragraph (c), clause (4).
(5) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require a report of financial exploitation, as defined in section 626.5572, subdivision 9, solely on the basis of the transfer of money or property by gift or as compensation for services rendered.
Subd. 4.Reporting.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), a mandated reporter shall immediately make an oral report to the common entry point. The common entry point may accept electronic reports submitted through a Web-based reporting system established by the commissioner. Use of a telecommunications device for the deaf or other similar device shall be considered an oral report. The common entry point may not require written reports. To the extent possible, the report must be of sufficient content to identify the vulnerable adult, the caregiver, the nature and extent of the suspected maltreatment, any evidence of previous maltreatment, the name and address of the reporter, the time, date, and location of the incident, and any other information that the reporter believes might be helpful in investigating the suspected maltreatment. A mandated reporter may disclose not public data, as defined in section 13.02, and medical records under sections 144.291 to 144.298, to the extent necessary to comply with this subdivision.
(b) A boarding care home that is licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58 and certified under Title 19 of the Social Security Act, a nursing home that is licensed under section 144A.02 and certified under Title 18 or Title 19 of the Social Security Act, or a hospital that is licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58 and has swing beds certified under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 482.66, may submit a report electronically to the common entry point instead of submitting an oral report. The report may be a duplicate of the initial report the facility submits electronically to the commissioner of health to comply with the reporting requirements under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 483.13. The commissioner of health may modify these reporting requirements to include items required under paragraph (a) that are not currently included in the electronic reporting form.
Subd. 4a.Internal reporting of maltreatment.
(a) Each facility shall establish and enforce an ongoing written procedure in compliance with applicable licensing rules to ensure that all cases of suspected maltreatment are reported. If a facility has an internal reporting procedure, a mandated reporter may meet the reporting requirements of this section by reporting internally. However, the facility remains responsible for complying with the immediate reporting requirements of this section.
(b) A facility with an internal reporting procedure that receives an internal report by a mandated reporter shall give the mandated reporter a written notice stating whether the facility has reported the incident to the common entry point. The written notice must be provided within two working days and in a manner that protects the confidentiality of the reporter.
(c) The written response to the mandated reporter shall note that if the mandated reporter is not satisfied with the action taken by the facility on whether to report the incident to the common entry point, then the mandated reporter may report externally.
(d) A facility may not prohibit a mandated reporter from reporting externally, and a facility is prohibited from retaliating against a mandated reporter who reports an incident to the common entry point in good faith. The written notice by the facility must inform the mandated reporter of this protection from retaliatory measures by the facility against the mandated reporter for reporting externally.
Subd. 5.Immunity; protection for reporters.
(a) A person who makes a good faith report is immune from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise result from making the report, or from participating in the investigation, or for failure to comply fully with the reporting obligation under section 609.234 or 626.557, subdivision 7.
(b) A person employed by a lead investigative agency or a state licensing agency who is conducting or supervising an investigation or enforcing the law in compliance with this section or any related rule or provision of law is immune from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise result from the person's actions, if the person is acting in good faith and exercising due care.
(c) A person who knows or has reason to know a report has been made to a common entry point and who in good faith participates in an investigation of alleged maltreatment is immune from civil or criminal liability that otherwise might result from making the report, or from failure to comply with the reporting obligation or from participating in the investigation.
(d) The identity of any reporter may not be disclosed, except as provided in subdivision 12b.
(e) For purposes of this subdivision, "person" includes a natural person or any form of a business or legal entity.
Subd. 5a.Financial institution cooperation.
Financial institutions shall cooperate with a lead investigative agency, law enforcement, or prosecuting authority that is investigating maltreatment of a vulnerable adult and comply with reasonable requests for the production of financial records as authorized under section 13A.02, subdivision 1. Financial institutions are immune from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise result from complying with this subdivision.
Subd. 6.Falsified reports.
A person or facility who intentionally makes a false report under the provisions of this section shall be liable in a civil suit for any actual damages suffered by the reported facility, person or persons and for punitive damages up to $10,000 and attorney fees.
A mandated reporter who negligently or intentionally fails to report is liable for damages caused by the failure. Nothing in this subdivision imposes vicarious liability for the acts or omissions of others.
No evidence regarding the maltreatment of the vulnerable adult shall be excluded in any proceeding arising out of the alleged maltreatment on the grounds of lack of competency under section 595.02.
Subd. 9.Common entry point designation.
(a) Each county board shall designate a common entry point for reports of suspected maltreatment, for use until the commissioner of human services establishes a common entry point. Two or more county boards may jointly designate a single common entry point. The commissioner of human services shall establish a common entry point effective July 1, 2015. The common entry point is the unit responsible for receiving the report of suspected maltreatment under this section.
(b) The common entry point must be available 24 hours per day to take calls from reporters of suspected maltreatment. The common entry point shall use a standard intake form that includes:
(1) the time and date of the report;
(2) the name, address, and telephone number of the person reporting;
(3) the time, date, and location of the incident;
(4) the names of the persons involved, including but not limited to, perpetrators, alleged victims, and witnesses;
(5) whether there was a risk of imminent danger to the alleged victim;
(6) a description of the suspected maltreatment;
(7) the disability, if any, of the alleged victim;
(8) the relationship of the alleged perpetrator to the alleged victim;
(9) whether a facility was involved and, if so, which agency licenses the facility;
(10) any action taken by the common entry point;
(11) whether law enforcement has been notified;
(12) whether the reporter wishes to receive notification of the initial and final reports; and
(13) if the report is from a facility with an internal reporting procedure, the name, mailing address, and telephone number of the person who initiated the report internally.
(c) The common entry point is not required to complete each item on the form prior to dispatching the report to the appropriate lead investigative agency.
(d) The common entry point shall immediately report to a law enforcement agency any incident in which there is reason to believe a crime has been committed.
(e) If a report is initially made to a law enforcement agency or a lead investigative agency, those agencies shall take the report on the appropriate common entry point intake forms and immediately forward a copy to the common entry point.
(f) The common entry point staff must receive training on how to screen and dispatch reports efficiently and in accordance with this section.
(g) The commissioner of human services shall maintain a centralized database for the collection of common entry point data, lead investigative agency data including maltreatment report disposition, and appeals data. The common entry point shall have access to the centralized database and must log the reports into the database and immediately identify and locate prior reports of abuse, neglect, or exploitation.
(h) When appropriate, the common entry point staff must refer calls that do not allege the abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a vulnerable adult to other organizations that might resolve the reporter's concerns.
(i) A common entry point must be operated in a manner that enables the commissioner of human services to:
(1) track critical steps in the reporting, evaluation, referral, response, disposition, and investigative process to ensure compliance with all requirements for all reports;
(2) maintain data to facilitate the production of aggregate statistical reports for monitoring patterns of abuse, neglect, or exploitation;
(3) serve as a resource for the evaluation, management, and planning of preventative and remedial services for vulnerable adults who have been subject to abuse, neglect, or exploitation;
(4) set standards, priorities, and policies to maximize the efficiency and effectiveness of the common entry point; and
(5) track and manage consumer complaints related to the common entry point.
(j) The commissioners of human services and health shall collaborate on the creation of a system for referring reports to the lead investigative agencies. This system shall enable the commissioner of human services to track critical steps in the reporting, evaluation, referral, response, disposition, investigation, notification, determination, and appeal processes.
Subd. 9a.Evaluation and referral of reports made to common entry point.
(a) The common entry point must screen the reports of alleged or suspected maltreatment for immediate risk and make all necessary referrals as follows:
(1) if the common entry point determines that there is an immediate need for emergency adult protective services, the common entry point agency shall immediately notify the appropriate county agency;
(2) if the report contains suspected criminal activity against a vulnerable adult, the common entry point shall immediately notify the appropriate law enforcement agency;
(3) the common entry point shall refer all reports of alleged or suspected maltreatment to the appropriate lead investigative agency as soon as possible, but in any event no longer than two working days;
(4) if the report contains information about a suspicious death, the common entry point shall immediately notify the appropriate law enforcement agencies, the local medical examiner, and the ombudsman for mental health and developmental disabilities established under section 245.92. Law enforcement agencies shall coordinate with the local medical examiner and the ombudsman as provided by law; and
(5) for reports involving multiple locations or changing circumstances, the common entry point shall determine the county agency responsible for emergency adult protective services and the county responsible as the lead investigative agency, using referral guidelines established by the commissioner.
(b) If the lead investigative agency receiving a report believes the report was referred by the common entry point in error, the lead investigative agency shall immediately notify the common entry point of the error, including the basis for the lead investigative agency's belief that the referral was made in error. The common entry point shall review the information submitted by the lead investigative agency and immediately refer the report to the appropriate lead investigative agency.
Subd. 9b.Response to reports.
Law enforcement is the primary agency to conduct investigations of any incident in which there is reason to believe a crime has been committed. Law enforcement shall initiate a response immediately. If the common entry point notified a county agency for emergency adult protective services, law enforcement shall cooperate with that county agency when both agencies are involved and shall exchange data to the extent authorized in subdivision 12b, paragraph (g). County adult protection shall initiate a response immediately. Each lead investigative agency shall complete the investigative process for reports within its jurisdiction. A lead investigative agency, county, adult protective agency, licensed facility, or law enforcement agency shall cooperate with other agencies in the provision of protective services, coordinating its investigations, and assisting another agency within the limits of its resources and expertise and shall exchange data to the extent authorized in subdivision 12b, paragraph (g). The lead investigative agency shall obtain the results of any investigation conducted by law enforcement officials. The lead investigative agency has the right to enter facilities and inspect and copy records as part of investigations. The lead investigative agency has access to not public data, as defined in section 13.02, and medical records under sections 144.291 to 144.298, that are maintained by facilities to the extent necessary to conduct its investigation. Each lead investigative agency shall develop guidelines for prioritizing reports for investigation.
Subd. 9c.Lead investigative agency; notifications, dispositions, determinations.
(a) Upon request of the reporter, the lead investigative agency shall notify the reporter that it has received the report, and provide information on the initial disposition of the report within five business days of receipt of the report, provided that the notification will not endanger the vulnerable adult or hamper the investigation.
(b) Upon conclusion of every investigation it conducts, the lead investigative agency shall make a final disposition as defined in section 626.5572, subdivision 8.
(c) When determining whether the facility or individual is the responsible party for substantiated maltreatment or whether both the facility and the individual are responsible for substantiated maltreatment, the lead investigative agency shall consider at least the following mitigating factors:
(1) whether the actions of the facility or the individual caregivers were in accordance with, and followed the terms of, an erroneous physician order, prescription, resident care plan, or directive. This is not a mitigating factor when the facility or caregiver is responsible for the issuance of the erroneous order, prescription, plan, or directive or knows or should have known of the errors and took no reasonable measures to correct the defect before administering care;
(2) the comparative responsibility between the facility, other caregivers, and requirements placed upon the employee, including but not limited to, the facility's compliance with related regulatory standards and factors such as the adequacy of facility policies and procedures, the adequacy of facility training, the adequacy of an individual's participation in the training, the adequacy of caregiver supervision, the adequacy of facility staffing levels, and a consideration of the scope of the individual employee's authority; and
(d) When substantiated maltreatment is determined to have been committed by an individual who is also the facility license holder, both the individual and the facility must be determined responsible for the maltreatment, and both the background study disqualification standards under section 245C.15, subdivision 4, and the licensing actions under section 245A.06 or 245A.07 apply.
(e) The lead investigative agency shall complete its final disposition within 60 calendar days. If the lead investigative agency is unable to complete its final disposition within 60 calendar days, the lead investigative agency shall notify the following persons provided that the notification will not endanger the vulnerable adult or hamper the investigation: (1) the vulnerable adult or the vulnerable adult's guardian or health care agent, when known, if the lead investigative agency knows them to be aware of the investigation; and (2) the facility, where applicable. The notice shall contain the reason for the delay and the projected completion date. If the lead investigative agency is unable to complete its final disposition by a subsequent projected completion date, the lead investigative agency shall again notify the vulnerable adult or the vulnerable adult's guardian or health care agent, when known if the lead investigative agency knows them to be aware of the investigation, and the facility, where applicable, of the reason for the delay and the revised projected completion date provided that the notification will not endanger the vulnerable adult or hamper the investigation. The lead investigative agency must notify the health care agent of the vulnerable adult only if the health care agent's authority to make health care decisions for the vulnerable adult is currently effective under section 145C.06 and not suspended under section 524.5-310 and the investigation relates to a duty assigned to the health care agent by the principal. A lead investigative agency's inability to complete the final disposition within 60 calendar days or by any projected completion date does not invalidate the final disposition.
(f) Within ten calendar days of completing the final disposition, the lead investigative agency shall provide a copy of the public investigation memorandum under subdivision 12b, paragraph (b), clause (1), when required to be completed under this section, to the following persons: (1) the vulnerable adult, or the vulnerable adult's guardian or health care agent, if known, unless the lead investigative agency knows that the notification would endanger the well-being of the vulnerable adult; (2) the reporter, if the reporter requested notification when making the report, provided this notification would not endanger the well-being of the vulnerable adult; (3) the alleged perpetrator, if known; (4) the facility; and (5) the ombudsman for long-term care, or the ombudsman for mental health and developmental disabilities, as appropriate.
(g) If, as a result of a reconsideration, review, or hearing, the lead investigative agency changes the final disposition, or if a final disposition is changed on appeal, the lead investigative agency shall notify the parties specified in paragraph (f).
(h) The lead investigative agency shall notify the vulnerable adult who is the subject of the report or the vulnerable adult's guardian or health care agent, if known, and any person or facility determined to have maltreated a vulnerable adult, of their appeal or review rights under this section or section 256.021.
(i) The lead investigative agency shall routinely provide investigation memoranda for substantiated reports to the appropriate licensing boards. These reports must include the names of substantiated perpetrators. The lead investigative agency may not provide investigative memoranda for inconclusive or false reports to the appropriate licensing boards unless the lead investigative agency's investigation gives reason to believe that there may have been a violation of the applicable professional practice laws. If the investigation memorandum is provided to a licensing board, the subject of the investigation memorandum shall be notified and receive a summary of the investigative findings.
(j) In order to avoid duplication, licensing boards shall consider the findings of the lead investigative agency in their investigations if they choose to investigate. This does not preclude licensing boards from considering other information.
(k) The lead investigative agency must provide to the commissioner of human services its final dispositions, including the names of all substantiated perpetrators. The commissioner of human services shall establish records to retain the names of substantiated perpetrators.
Subd. 9d.Administrative reconsideration; review panel.
(a) Except as provided under paragraph (e), any individual or facility which a lead investigative agency determines has maltreated a vulnerable adult, or the vulnerable adult or an interested person acting on behalf of the vulnerable adult, regardless of the lead investigative agency's determination, who contests the lead investigative agency's final disposition of an allegation of maltreatment, may request the lead investigative agency to reconsider its final disposition. The request for reconsideration must be submitted in writing to the lead investigative agency within 15 calendar days after receipt of notice of final disposition or, if the request is made by an interested person who is not entitled to notice, within 15 days after receipt of the notice by the vulnerable adult or the vulnerable adult's guardian or health care agent. If mailed, the request for reconsideration must be postmarked and sent to the lead investigative agency within 15 calendar days of the individual's or facility's receipt of the final disposition. If the request for reconsideration is made by personal service, it must be received by the lead investigative agency within 15 calendar days of the individual's or facility's receipt of the final disposition. An individual who was determined to have maltreated a vulnerable adult under this section and who was disqualified on the basis of serious or recurring maltreatment under sections 245C.14 and 245C.15, may request reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification. The request for reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification must be submitted in writing within 30 calendar days of the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification under sections 245C.16 and 245C.17. If mailed, the request for reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification must be postmarked and sent to the lead investigative agency within 30 calendar days of the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification. If the request for reconsideration is made by personal service, it must be received by the lead investigative agency within 30 calendar days after the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification.
(b) Except as provided under paragraphs (e) and (f), if the lead investigative agency denies the request or fails to act upon the request within 15 working days after receiving the request for reconsideration, the person or facility entitled to a fair hearing under section 256.045, may submit to the commissioner of human services a written request for a hearing under that statute. The vulnerable adult, or an interested person acting on behalf of the vulnerable adult, may request a review by the Vulnerable Adult Maltreatment Review Panel under section 256.021 if the lead investigative agency denies the request or fails to act upon the request, or if the vulnerable adult or interested person contests a reconsidered disposition. The lead investigative agency shall notify persons who request reconsideration of their rights under this paragraph. The request must be submitted in writing to the review panel and a copy sent to the lead investigative agency within 30 calendar days of receipt of notice of a denial of a request for reconsideration or of a reconsidered disposition. The request must specifically identify the aspects of the lead investigative agency determination with which the person is dissatisfied.
(c) If, as a result of a reconsideration or review, the lead investigative agency changes the final disposition, it shall notify the parties specified in subdivision 9c, paragraph (f).
(d) For purposes of this subdivision, "interested person acting on behalf of the vulnerable adult" means a person designated in writing by the vulnerable adult to act on behalf of the vulnerable adult, or a legal guardian or conservator or other legal representative, a proxy or health care agent appointed under chapter 145B or 145C, or an individual who is related to the vulnerable adult, as defined in section 245A.02, subdivision 13.
(e) If an individual was disqualified under sections 245C.14 and 245C.15, on the basis of a determination of maltreatment, which was serious or recurring, and the individual has requested reconsideration of the maltreatment determination under paragraph (a) and reconsideration of the disqualification under sections 245C.21 to 245C.27, reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and requested reconsideration of the disqualification shall be consolidated into a single reconsideration. If reconsideration of the maltreatment determination is denied and the individual remains disqualified following a reconsideration decision, the individual may request a fair hearing under section 256.045. If an individual requests a fair hearing on the maltreatment determination and the disqualification, the scope of the fair hearing shall include both the maltreatment determination and the disqualification.
(f) If a maltreatment determination or a disqualification based on serious or recurring maltreatment is the basis for a denial of a license under section 245A.05 or a licensing sanction under section 245A.07, the license holder has the right to a contested case hearing under chapter 14 and Minnesota Rules, parts 1400.8505 to 1400.8612. As provided for under section 245A.08, the scope of the contested case hearing must include the maltreatment determination, disqualification, and licensing sanction or denial of a license. In such cases, a fair hearing must not be conducted under section 256.045. Except for family child care and child foster care, reconsideration of a maltreatment determination under this subdivision, and reconsideration of a disqualification under section 245C.22, must not be conducted when:
(1) a denial of a license under section 245A.05, or a licensing sanction under section 245A.07, is based on a determination that the license holder is responsible for maltreatment or the disqualification of a license holder based on serious or recurring maltreatment;
(g) Until August 1, 2002, an individual or facility that was determined by the commissioner of human services or the commissioner of health to be responsible for neglect under section 626.5572, subdivision 17, after October 1, 1995, and before August 1, 2001, that believes that the finding of neglect does not meet an amended definition of neglect may request a reconsideration of the determination of neglect. The commissioner of human services or the commissioner of health shall mail a notice to the last known address of individuals who are eligible to seek this reconsideration. The request for reconsideration must state how the established findings no longer meet the elements of the definition of neglect. The commissioner shall review the request for reconsideration and make a determination within 15 calendar days. The commissioner's decision on this reconsideration is the final agency action.
(1) For purposes of compliance with the data destruction schedule under subdivision 12b, paragraph (d), when a finding of substantiated maltreatment has been changed as a result of a reconsideration under this paragraph, the date of the original finding of a substantiated maltreatment must be used to calculate the destruction date.
(2) For purposes of any background studies under chapter 245C, when a determination of substantiated maltreatment has been changed as a result of a reconsideration under this paragraph, any prior disqualification of the individual under chapter 245C that was based on this determination of maltreatment shall be rescinded, and for future background studies under chapter 245C the commissioner must not use the previous determination of substantiated maltreatment as a basis for disqualification or as a basis for referring the individual's maltreatment history to a health-related licensing board under section 245C.31.
Subd. 9e.Education requirements.
(a) The commissioners of health, human services, and public safety shall cooperate in the development of a joint program for education of lead investigative agency investigators in the appropriate techniques for investigation of complaints of maltreatment. This program must be developed by July 1, 1996. The program must include but need not be limited to the following areas: (1) information collection and preservation; (2) analysis of facts; (3) levels of evidence; (4) conclusions based on evidence; (5) interviewing skills, including specialized training to interview people with unique needs; (6) report writing; (7) coordination and referral to other necessary agencies such as law enforcement and judicial agencies; (8) human relations and cultural diversity; (9) the dynamics of adult abuse and neglect within family systems and the appropriate methods for interviewing relatives in the course of the assessment or investigation; (10) the protective social services that are available to protect alleged victims from further abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation; (11) the methods by which lead investigative agency investigators and law enforcement workers cooperate in conducting assessments and investigations in order to avoid duplication of efforts; and (12) data practices laws and procedures, including provisions for sharing data.
(b) The commissioner of human services shall conduct an outreach campaign to promote the common entry point for reporting vulnerable adult maltreatment. This campaign shall use the Internet and other means of communication.
(c) The commissioners of health, human services, and public safety shall offer at least annual education to others on the requirements of this section, on how this section is implemented, and investigation techniques.
(d) The commissioner of human services, in coordination with the commissioner of public safety shall provide training for the common entry point staff as required in this subdivision and the program courses described in this subdivision, at least four times per year. At a minimum, the training shall be held twice annually in the seven-county metropolitan area and twice annually outside the seven-county metropolitan area. The commissioners shall give priority in the program areas cited in paragraph (a) to persons currently performing assessments and investigations pursuant to this section.
(e) The commissioner of public safety shall notify in writing law enforcement personnel of any new requirements under this section. The commissioner of public safety shall conduct regional training for law enforcement personnel regarding their responsibility under this section.
(f) Each lead investigative agency investigator must complete the education program specified by this subdivision within the first 12 months of work as a lead investigative agency investigator.
A lead investigative agency investigator employed when these requirements take effect must complete the program within the first year after training is available or as soon as training is available.
All lead investigative agency investigators having responsibility for investigation duties under this section must receive a minimum of eight hours of continuing education or in-service training each year specific to their duties under this section.
Subd. 10.Duties of county social service agency.
(a) When the common entry point refers a report to the county social service agency as the lead investigative agency or makes a referral to the county social service agency for emergency adult protective services, or when another lead investigative agency requests assistance from the county social service agency for adult protective services, the county social service agency shall immediately assess and offer emergency and continuing protective social services for purposes of preventing further maltreatment and for safeguarding the welfare of the maltreated vulnerable adult. The county shall use a standardized tool made available by the commissioner. The information entered by the county into the standardized tool must be accessible to the Department of Human Services. In cases of suspected sexual abuse, the county social service agency shall immediately arrange for and make available to the vulnerable adult appropriate medical examination and treatment. When necessary in order to protect the vulnerable adult from further harm, the county social service agency shall seek authority to remove the vulnerable adult from the situation in which the maltreatment occurred. The county social service agency may also investigate to determine whether the conditions which resulted in the reported maltreatment place other vulnerable adults in jeopardy of being maltreated and offer protective social services that are called for by its determination.
(b) County social service agencies may enter facilities and inspect and copy records as part of an investigation. The county social service agency has access to not public data, as defined in section 13.02, and medical records under sections 144.291 to 144.298, that are maintained by facilities to the extent necessary to conduct its investigation. The inquiry is not limited to the written records of the facility, but may include every other available source of information.
(c) When necessary in order to protect a vulnerable adult from serious harm, the county social service agency shall immediately intervene on behalf of that adult to help the family, vulnerable adult, or other interested person by seeking any of the following:
(1) a restraining order or a court order for removal of the perpetrator from the residence of the vulnerable adult pursuant to section 518B.01;
(2) the appointment of a guardian or conservator pursuant to sections 524.5-101 to 524.5-502, or guardianship or conservatorship pursuant to chapter 252A;
(3) replacement of a guardian or conservator suspected of maltreatment and appointment of a suitable person as guardian or conservator, pursuant to sections 524.5-101 to 524.5-502; or
(4) a referral to the prosecuting attorney for possible criminal prosecution of the perpetrator under chapter 609.
The expenses of legal intervention must be paid by the county in the case of indigent persons, under section 524.5-502 and chapter 563.
In proceedings under sections 524.5-101 to 524.5-502, if a suitable relative or other person is not available to petition for guardianship or conservatorship, a county employee shall present the petition with representation by the county attorney. The county shall contract with or arrange for a suitable person or organization to provide ongoing guardianship services. If the county presents evidence to the court exercising probate jurisdiction that it has made a diligent effort and no other suitable person can be found, a county employee may serve as guardian or conservator. The county shall not retaliate against the employee for any action taken on behalf of the ward or protected person even if the action is adverse to the county's interest. Any person retaliated against in violation of this subdivision shall have a cause of action against the county and shall be entitled to reasonable attorney fees and costs of the action if the action is upheld by the court.
Subd. 10b.Investigations; guidelines.
Each lead investigative agency shall develop guidelines for prioritizing reports for investigation. When investigating a report, the lead investigative agency shall conduct the following activities, as appropriate:
(1) interview of the alleged victim;
(2) interview of the reporter and others who may have relevant information;
(3) interview of the alleged perpetrator;
(4) examination of the environment surrounding the alleged incident;
(5) review of pertinent documentation of the alleged incident; and
(6) consultation with professionals.
Subd. 12b.Data management.
(a) In performing any of the duties of this section as a lead investigative agency, the county social service agency shall maintain appropriate records. Data collected by the county social service agency under this section are welfare data under section 13.46. Notwithstanding section 13.46, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), data under this paragraph that are inactive investigative data on an individual who is a vendor of services are private data on individuals, as defined in section 13.02. The identity of the reporter may only be disclosed as provided in paragraph (c).
Data maintained by the common entry point are confidential data on individuals or protected nonpublic data as defined in section 13.02. Notwithstanding section 138.163, the common entry point shall maintain data for three calendar years after date of receipt and then destroy the data unless otherwise directed by federal requirements.
(b) The commissioners of health and human services shall prepare an investigation memorandum for each report alleging maltreatment investigated under this section. County social service agencies must maintain private data on individuals but are not required to prepare an investigation memorandum. During an investigation by the commissioner of health or the commissioner of human services, data collected under this section are confidential data on individuals or protected nonpublic data as defined in section 13.02. Upon completion of the investigation, the data are classified as provided in clauses (1) to (3) and paragraph (c).
(1) The investigation memorandum must contain the following data, which are public:
(i) the name of the facility investigated;
(ii) a statement of the nature of the alleged maltreatment;
(iii) pertinent information obtained from medical or other records reviewed;
(iv) the identity of the investigator;
(v) a summary of the investigation's findings;
(vi) statement of whether the report was found to be substantiated, inconclusive, false, or that no determination will be made;
(vii) a statement of any action taken by the facility;
(viii) a statement of any action taken by the lead investigative agency; and
(ix) when a lead investigative agency's determination has substantiated maltreatment, a statement of whether an individual, individuals, or a facility were responsible for the substantiated maltreatment, if known.
The investigation memorandum must be written in a manner which protects the identity of the reporter and of the vulnerable adult and may not contain the names or, to the extent possible, data on individuals or private data listed in clause (2).
(2) Data on individuals collected and maintained in the investigation memorandum are private data, including:
(i) the name of the vulnerable adult;
(ii) the identity of the individual alleged to be the perpetrator;
(iii) the identity of the individual substantiated as the perpetrator; and
(iv) the identity of all individuals interviewed as part of the investigation.
(3) Other data on individuals maintained as part of an investigation under this section are private data on individuals upon completion of the investigation.
(c) After the assessment or investigation is completed, the name of the reporter must be confidential. The subject of the report may compel disclosure of the name of the reporter only with the consent of the reporter or upon a written finding by a court that the report was false and there is evidence that the report was made in bad faith. This subdivision does not alter disclosure responsibilities or obligations under the Rules of Criminal Procedure, except that where the identity of the reporter is relevant to a criminal prosecution, the district court shall do an in-camera review prior to determining whether to order disclosure of the identity of the reporter.
(d) Notwithstanding section 138.163, data maintained under this section by the commissioners of health and human services must be maintained under the following schedule and then destroyed unless otherwise directed by federal requirements:
(1) data from reports determined to be false, maintained for three years after the finding was made;
(2) data from reports determined to be inconclusive, maintained for four years after the finding was made;
(3) data from reports determined to be substantiated, maintained for seven years after the finding was made; and
(4) data from reports which were not investigated by a lead investigative agency and for which there is no final disposition, maintained for three years from the date of the report.
(e) The commissioners of health and human services shall annually publish on their Web sites the number and type of reports of alleged maltreatment involving licensed facilities reported under this section, the number of those requiring investigation under this section, and the resolution of those investigations. On a biennial basis, the commissioners of health and human services shall jointly report the following information to the legislature and the governor:
(1) the number and type of reports of alleged maltreatment involving licensed facilities reported under this section, the number of those requiring investigations under this section, the resolution of those investigations, and which of the two lead agencies was responsible;
(2) trends about types of substantiated maltreatment found in the reporting period;
(3) if there are upward trends for types of maltreatment substantiated, recommendations for addressing and responding to them;
(4) efforts undertaken or recommended to improve the protection of vulnerable adults;
(5) whether and where backlogs of cases result in a failure to conform with statutory time frames and recommendations for reducing backlogs if applicable;
(6) recommended changes to statutes affecting the protection of vulnerable adults; and
(7) any other information that is relevant to the report trends and findings.
(f) Each lead investigative agency must have a record retention policy.
(g) Lead investigative agencies, prosecuting authorities, and law enforcement agencies may exchange not public data, as defined in section 13.02, if the agency or authority requesting the data determines that the data are pertinent and necessary to the requesting agency in initiating, furthering, or completing an investigation under this section. Data collected under this section must be made available to prosecuting authorities and law enforcement officials, local county agencies, and licensing agencies investigating the alleged maltreatment under this section. The lead investigative agency shall exchange not public data with the vulnerable adult maltreatment review panel established in section 256.021 if the data are pertinent and necessary for a review requested under that section. Notwithstanding section 138.17, upon completion of the review, not public data received by the review panel must be destroyed.
(h) Each lead investigative agency shall keep records of the length of time it takes to complete its investigations.
(i) A lead investigative agency may notify other affected parties and their authorized representative if the lead investigative agency has reason to believe maltreatment has occurred and determines the information will safeguard the well-being of the affected parties or dispel widespread rumor or unrest in the affected facility.
(j) Under any notification provision of this section, where federal law specifically prohibits the disclosure of patient identifying information, a lead investigative agency may not provide any notice unless the vulnerable adult has consented to disclosure in a manner which conforms to federal requirements.
Subd. 14.Abuse prevention plans.
(a) Each facility, except home health agencies and personal care attendant services providers, shall establish and enforce an ongoing written abuse prevention plan. The plan shall contain an assessment of the physical plant, its environment, and its population identifying factors which may encourage or permit abuse, and a statement of specific measures to be taken to minimize the risk of abuse. The plan shall comply with any rules governing the plan promulgated by the licensing agency.
(b) Each facility, including a home health care agency and personal care attendant services providers, shall develop an individual abuse prevention plan for each vulnerable adult residing there or receiving services from them. The plan shall contain an individualized assessment of: (1) the person's susceptibility to abuse by other individuals, including other vulnerable adults; (2) the person's risk of abusing other vulnerable adults; and (3) statements of the specific measures to be taken to minimize the risk of abuse to that person and other vulnerable adults. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term "abuse" includes self-abuse.
(c) If the facility, except home health agencies and personal care attendant services providers, knows that the vulnerable adult has committed a violent crime or an act of physical aggression toward others, the individual abuse prevention plan must detail the measures to be taken to minimize the risk that the vulnerable adult might reasonably be expected to pose to visitors to the facility and persons outside the facility, if unsupervised. Under this section, a facility knows of a vulnerable adult's history of criminal misconduct or physical aggression if it receives such information from a law enforcement authority or through a medical record prepared by another facility, another health care provider, or the facility's ongoing assessments of the vulnerable adult.
[Repealed, 2014 c 262 art 4 s 9]
Subd. 17.Retaliation prohibited.
(a) A facility or person shall not retaliate against any person who reports in good faith suspected maltreatment pursuant to this section, or against a vulnerable adult with respect to whom a report is made, because of the report.
(b) In addition to any remedies allowed under sections 181.931 to 181.935, any facility or person which retaliates against any person because of a report of suspected maltreatment is liable to that person for actual damages, punitive damages up to $10,000, and attorney fees.
(c) There shall be a rebuttable presumption that any adverse action, as defined below, within 90 days of a report, is retaliatory. For purposes of this clause, the term "adverse action" refers to action taken by a facility or person involved in a report against the person making the report or the person with respect to whom the report was made because of the report, and includes, but is not limited to:
(1) discharge or transfer from the facility;
(3) demotion or reduction in remuneration for services;
(4) restriction or prohibition of access to the facility or its residents; or
(5) any restriction of rights set forth in section 144.651.
Subd. 18.Outreach.
The commissioner of human services shall maintain an aggressive program to educate those required to report, as well as the general public, about the requirements of this section using a variety of media. The commissioner of human services shall print and make available the form developed under subdivision 9.
Subd. 20.Cause of action for financial exploitation; damages.
(a) A vulnerable adult who is a victim of financial exploitation as defined in section 626.5572, subdivision 9, has a cause of action against a person who committed the financial exploitation. In an action under this subdivision, the vulnerable adult is entitled to recover damages equal to three times the amount of compensatory damages or $10,000, whichever is greater.
(b) In addition to damages under paragraph (a), the vulnerable adult is entitled to recover reasonable attorney fees and costs, including reasonable fees for the services of a guardian or conservator or guardian ad litem incurred in connection with a claim under this subdivision.
(c) An action may be brought under this subdivision regardless of whether there has been a report or final disposition under this section or a criminal complaint or conviction related to the financial exploitation.
Subd. 21.Contested case hearing.
When an appeal of a lead investigative agency determination results in a contested case hearing under chapter 245A or 245C, the administrative law judge shall notify the vulnerable adult who is the subject of the maltreatment determination and, if known, a guardian of the vulnerable adult appointed under section 524.5-310, or a health care agent designated by the vulnerable adult in a health care directive that is currently effective under section 145C.06, and whose authority to make health care decisions is not suspended under section 524.5-310, of the hearing. The notice must be sent by certified mail and inform the vulnerable adult of the right to file a signed written statement in the proceedings. A guardian or health care agent who prepares or files a written statement for the vulnerable adult must indicate in the statement that the person is the vulnerable adult's guardian or health care agent and sign the statement in that capacity. The vulnerable adult, the guardian, or the health care agent may file a written statement with the administrative law judge hearing the case no later than five business days before commencement of the hearing. The administrative law judge shall include the written statement in the hearing record and consider the statement in deciding the appeal. This subdivision does not limit, prevent, or excuse the vulnerable adult from being called as a witness testifying at the hearing or grant the vulnerable adult, the guardian, or health care agent a right to participate in the proceedings or appeal the administrative law judge's decision in the case. The lead investigative agency must consider including the vulnerable adult victim of maltreatment as a witness in the hearing. If the lead investigative agency determines that participation in the hearing would endanger the well-being of the vulnerable adult or not be in the best interests of the vulnerable adult, the lead investigative agency shall inform the administrative law judge of the basis for this determination, which must be included in the final order. If the administrative law judge is not reasonably able to determine the address of the vulnerable adult, the guardian, or the health care agent, the administrative law judge is not required to send a hearing notice under this subdivision.
1980 c 542 s 1; 1981 c 311 s 39; 1982 c 393 s 3,4; 1982 c 424 s 130; 1982 c 545 s 24; 1982 c 636 s 5,6; 1983 c 273 s 1-7; 1984 c 640 s 32; 1984 c 654 art 5 s 58; 1985 c 150 s 1-6; 1985 c 293 s 6,7; 1Sp1985 c 14 art 9 s 75; 1986 c 444; 1987 c 110 s 3; 1987 c 211 s 2; 1987 c 352 s 11; 1987 c 378 s 17; 1987 c 384 art 2 s 1; 1988 c 543 s 13; 1989 c 209 art 2 s 1; 1991 c 181 s 2; 1994 c 483 s 1; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 60-62; 1Sp1994 c 1 art 2 s 34; 1995 c 189 s 8; 1995 c 229 art 1 s 1-21; 1996 c 277 s 1; 1996 c 305 art 2 s 66; 2000 c 465 s 3-5; 1Sp2001 c 9 art 5 s 31; art 14 s 30,31; 2002 c 289 s 4; 2002 c 375 art 1 s 22,23; 2002 c 379 art 1 s 113; 2003 c 15 art 1 s 33; 2004 c 146 art 3 s 45; 2004 c 288 art 1 s 80; 2005 c 56 s 1; 2005 c 98 art 2 s 17; 2005 c 136 art 5 s 5; 1Sp2005 c 4 art 1 s 55,56; 2006 c 253 s 21; 2007 c 112 s 55,56; 2007 c 147 art 7 s 75; art 10 s 15; 2009 c 119 s 11-16; 2009 c 142 art 2 s 46,47; 2009 c 159 s 107; 2010 c 329 art 2 s 6; 2010 c 352 art 1 s 23; 2010 c 382 s 81; 2011 c 28 s 9-14,17; 2012 c 216 art 9 s 30,31; 2013 c 63 s 17; 2013 c 108 art 2 s 41-43; art 8 s 57; 2014 c 192 art 2 s 1; 2014 c 291 art 8 s 17; 2015 c 78 art 6 s 23-25
Subdivision 1.Establishment of team.
A county may establish a multidisciplinary adult protection team comprised of the director of the local welfare agency or designees, the county attorney or designees, the county sheriff or designees, and representatives of health care. In addition, representatives of mental health or other appropriate human service agencies, representatives from local tribal governments, and adult advocate groups may be added to the adult protection team.
Subd. 2.Duties of team.
A multidisciplinary adult protection team may provide public and professional education, develop resources for prevention, intervention, and treatment, and provide case consultation to the local welfare agency to better enable the agency to carry out its adult protection functions under section 626.557 and to meet the community's needs for adult protection services. Case consultation may be performed by a committee of the team composed of the team members representing social services, law enforcement, the county attorney, health care, and persons directly involved in an individual case as determined by the case consultation committee. Case consultation is a case review process that results in recommendations about services to be provided to the identified adult and family.
Subd. 3.Information sharing.
The local welfare agency may make available to members of the team for case consultation all records collected and maintained by the agency under section 626.557 and in connection with case consultation. Any member of the case consultation committee may share data, acquired in the member's professional capacity, with the committee to assist the committee in its function. Members prohibited from disclosing patient identifying information because of federal or state law shall seek consent from each patient or resident, or a guardian, conservator or legal representative, for the disclosure of appropriate data to the case consultation committee.
1988 c 575 s 1; 2005 c 98 art 3 s 23; 2011 c 28 s 15
Subdivision 1.Scope.
For the purpose of section 626.557, the following terms have the meanings given them, unless otherwise specified.
Subd. 2.Abuse.
"Abuse" means:
(a) An act against a vulnerable adult that constitutes a violation of, an attempt to violate, or aiding and abetting a violation of:
(1) assault in the first through fifth degrees as defined in sections 609.221 to 609.224;
(2) the use of drugs to injure or facilitate crime as defined in section 609.235;
(3) the solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution as defined in section 609.322; and
(4) criminal sexual conduct in the first through fifth degrees as defined in sections 609.342 to 609.3451.
A violation includes any action that meets the elements of the crime, regardless of whether there is a criminal proceeding or conviction.
(b) Conduct which is not an accident or therapeutic conduct as defined in this section, which produces or could reasonably be expected to produce physical pain or injury or emotional distress including, but not limited to, the following:
(1) hitting, slapping, kicking, pinching, biting, or corporal punishment of a vulnerable adult;
(2) use of repeated or malicious oral, written, or gestured language toward a vulnerable adult or the treatment of a vulnerable adult which would be considered by a reasonable person to be disparaging, derogatory, humiliating, harassing, or threatening;
(3) use of any aversive or deprivation procedure, unreasonable confinement, or involuntary seclusion, including the forced separation of the vulnerable adult from other persons against the will of the vulnerable adult or the legal representative of the vulnerable adult; and
(4) use of any aversive or deprivation procedures for persons with developmental disabilities or related conditions not authorized under section 245.825.
(c) Any sexual contact or penetration as defined in section 609.341, between a facility staff person or a person providing services in the facility and a resident, patient, or client of that facility.
(d) The act of forcing, compelling, coercing, or enticing a vulnerable adult against the vulnerable adult's will to perform services for the advantage of another.
(e) For purposes of this section, a vulnerable adult is not abused for the sole reason that the vulnerable adult or a person with authority to make health care decisions for the vulnerable adult under sections 144.651, 144A.44, chapter 145B, 145C or 252A, or section 253B.03 or 524.5-313, refuses consent or withdraws consent, consistent with that authority and within the boundary of reasonable medical practice, to any therapeutic conduct, including any care, service, or procedure to diagnose, maintain, or treat the physical or mental condition of the vulnerable adult or, where permitted under law, to provide nutrition and hydration parenterally or through intubation. This paragraph does not enlarge or diminish rights otherwise held under law by:
(1) a vulnerable adult or a person acting on behalf of a vulnerable adult, including an involved family member, to consent to or refuse consent for therapeutic conduct; or
(2) a caregiver to offer or provide or refuse to offer or provide therapeutic conduct.
(f) For purposes of this section, a vulnerable adult is not abused for the sole reason that the vulnerable adult, a person with authority to make health care decisions for the vulnerable adult, or a caregiver in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of disease or remedial care of the vulnerable adult in lieu of medical care, provided that this is consistent with the prior practice or belief of the vulnerable adult or with the expressed intentions of the vulnerable adult.
(g) For purposes of this section, a vulnerable adult is not abused for the sole reason that the vulnerable adult, who is not impaired in judgment or capacity by mental or emotional dysfunction or undue influence, engages in consensual sexual contact with:
(1) a person, including a facility staff person, when a consensual sexual personal relationship existed prior to the caregiving relationship; or
(2) a personal care attendant, regardless of whether the consensual sexual personal relationship existed prior to the caregiving relationship.
Subd. 3.Accident.
"Accident" means a sudden, unforeseen, and unexpected occurrence or event which:
(1) is not likely to occur and which could not have been prevented by exercise of due care; and
(2) if occurring while a vulnerable adult is receiving services from a facility, happens when the facility and the employee or person providing services in the facility are in compliance with the laws and rules relevant to the occurrence or event.
Subd. 4.Caregiver.
"Caregiver" means an individual or facility who has responsibility for the care of a vulnerable adult as a result of a family relationship, or who has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of a vulnerable adult voluntarily, by contract, or by agreement.
Subd. 5.Common entry point.
"Common entry point" means the entity responsible for receiving reports of alleged or suspected maltreatment of a vulnerable adult under section 626.557.
Subd. 6.Facility.
(a) "Facility" means a hospital or other entity required to be licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58; a nursing home required to be licensed to serve adults under section 144A.02; a facility or service required to be licensed under chapter 245A; a home care provider licensed or required to be licensed under sections 144A.43 to 144A.482; a hospice provider licensed under sections 144A.75 to 144A.755; or a person or organization that offers, provides, or arranges for personal care assistance services under the medical assistance program as authorized under sections 256B.0625, subdivision 19a, 256B.0651 to 256B.0654, 256B.0659, or 256B.85.
(b) For services identified in paragraph (a) that are provided in the vulnerable adult's own home or in another unlicensed location, the term "facility" refers to the provider, person, or organization that offers, provides, or arranges for personal care services, and does not refer to the vulnerable adult's home or other location at which services are rendered.
Subd. 7.False.
"False" means a preponderance of the evidence shows that an act that meets the definition of maltreatment did not occur.
Subd. 8.Final disposition.
"Final disposition" is the determination of an investigation by a lead investigative agency that a report of maltreatment under Laws 1995, chapter 229, is substantiated, inconclusive, false, or that no determination will be made. When a lead investigative agency determination has substantiated maltreatment, the final disposition also identifies, if known, which individual or individuals were responsible for the substantiated maltreatment, and whether a facility was responsible for the substantiated maltreatment.
Subd. 9.Financial exploitation.
"Financial exploitation" means:
(a) In breach of a fiduciary obligation recognized elsewhere in law, including pertinent regulations, contractual obligations, documented consent by a competent person, or the obligations of a responsible party under section 144.6501, a person:
(1) engages in unauthorized expenditure of funds entrusted to the actor by the vulnerable adult which results or is likely to result in detriment to the vulnerable adult; or
(2) fails to use the financial resources of the vulnerable adult to provide food, clothing, shelter, health care, therapeutic conduct or supervision for the vulnerable adult, and the failure results or is likely to result in detriment to the vulnerable adult.
(b) In the absence of legal authority a person:
(1) willfully uses, withholds, or disposes of funds or property of a vulnerable adult;
(2) obtains for the actor or another the performance of services by a third person for the wrongful profit or advantage of the actor or another to the detriment of the vulnerable adult;
(3) acquires possession or control of, or an interest in, funds or property of a vulnerable adult through the use of undue influence, harassment, duress, deception, or fraud; or
(4) forces, compels, coerces, or entices a vulnerable adult against the vulnerable adult's will to perform services for the profit or advantage of another.
(c) Nothing in this definition requires a facility or caregiver to provide financial management or supervise financial management for a vulnerable adult except as otherwise required by law.
Subd. 10.Immediately.
"Immediately" means as soon as possible, but no longer than 24 hours from the time initial knowledge that the incident occurred has been received.
Subd. 11.Inconclusive.
"Inconclusive" means there is less than a preponderance of evidence to show that maltreatment did or did not occur.
Subd. 12.Initial disposition.
"Initial disposition" is the lead investigative agency's determination of whether the report will be assigned for further investigation.
Subd. 13.Lead investigative agency.
"Lead investigative agency" is the primary administrative agency responsible for investigating reports made under section 626.557.
(a) The Department of Health is the lead investigative agency for facilities or services licensed or required to be licensed as hospitals, home care providers, nursing homes, boarding care homes, hospice providers, residential facilities that are also federally certified as intermediate care facilities that serve people with developmental disabilities, or any other facility or service not listed in this subdivision that is licensed or required to be licensed by the Department of Health for the care of vulnerable adults. "Home care provider" has the meaning provided in section 144A.43, subdivision 4, and applies when care or services are delivered in the vulnerable adult's home, whether a private home or a housing with services establishment registered under chapter 144D, including those that offer assisted living services under chapter 144G.
(b) The Department of Human Services is the lead investigative agency for facilities or services licensed or required to be licensed as adult day care, adult foster care, community residential settings, programs for people with disabilities, family adult day services, mental health programs, mental health clinics, chemical dependency programs, the Minnesota sex offender program, or any other facility or service not listed in this subdivision that is licensed or required to be licensed by the Department of Human Services.
(c) The county social service agency or its designee is the lead investigative agency for all other reports, including, but not limited to, reports involving vulnerable adults receiving services from a personal care provider organization under section 256B.0659.
Subd. 14.Legal authority.
"Legal authority" includes, but is not limited to: (1) a fiduciary obligation recognized elsewhere in law, including pertinent regulations; (2) a contractual obligation; or (3) documented consent by a competent person.
Subd. 15.Maltreatment.
"Maltreatment" means abuse as defined in subdivision 2, neglect as defined in subdivision 17, or financial exploitation as defined in subdivision 9.
Subd. 16.Mandated reporter.
"Mandated reporter" means a professional or professional's delegate while engaged in: (1) social services; (2) law enforcement; (3) education; (4) the care of vulnerable adults; (5) any of the occupations referred to in section 214.01, subdivision 2; (6) an employee of a rehabilitation facility certified by the commissioner of jobs and training for vocational rehabilitation; (7) an employee or person providing services in a facility as defined in subdivision 6; or (8) a person that performs the duties of the medical examiner or coroner.
Subd. 17.Neglect.
"Neglect" means:
(a) The failure or omission by a caregiver to supply a vulnerable adult with care or services, including but not limited to, food, clothing, shelter, health care, or supervision which is:
(1) reasonable and necessary to obtain or maintain the vulnerable adult's physical or mental health or safety, considering the physical and mental capacity or dysfunction of the vulnerable adult; and
(2) which is not the result of an accident or therapeutic conduct.
(b) The absence or likelihood of absence of care or services, including but not limited to, food, clothing, shelter, health care, or supervision necessary to maintain the physical and mental health of the vulnerable adult which a reasonable person would deem essential to obtain or maintain the vulnerable adult's health, safety, or comfort considering the physical or mental capacity or dysfunction of the vulnerable adult.
(c) For purposes of this section, a vulnerable adult is not neglected for the sole reason that:
(1) the vulnerable adult or a person with authority to make health care decisions for the vulnerable adult under sections 144.651, 144A.44, chapter 145B, 145C, or 252A, or sections 253B.03 or 524.5-101 to 524.5-502, refuses consent or withdraws consent, consistent with that authority and within the boundary of reasonable medical practice, to any therapeutic conduct, including any care, service, or procedure to diagnose, maintain, or treat the physical or mental condition of the vulnerable adult, or, where permitted under law, to provide nutrition and hydration parenterally or through intubation; this paragraph does not enlarge or diminish rights otherwise held under law by:
(i) a vulnerable adult or a person acting on behalf of a vulnerable adult, including an involved family member, to consent to or refuse consent for therapeutic conduct; or
(ii) a caregiver to offer or provide or refuse to offer or provide therapeutic conduct; or
(2) the vulnerable adult, a person with authority to make health care decisions for the vulnerable adult, or a caregiver in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of disease or remedial care of the vulnerable adult in lieu of medical care, provided that this is consistent with the prior practice or belief of the vulnerable adult or with the expressed intentions of the vulnerable adult;
(3) the vulnerable adult, who is not impaired in judgment or capacity by mental or emotional dysfunction or undue influence, engages in consensual sexual contact with:
(i) a person including a facility staff person when a consensual sexual personal relationship existed prior to the caregiving relationship; or
(ii) a personal care attendant, regardless of whether the consensual sexual personal relationship existed prior to the caregiving relationship; or
(4) an individual makes an error in the provision of therapeutic conduct to a vulnerable adult which does not result in injury or harm which reasonably requires medical or mental health care; or
(5) an individual makes an error in the provision of therapeutic conduct to a vulnerable adult that results in injury or harm, which reasonably requires the care of a physician, and:
(i) the necessary care is provided in a timely fashion as dictated by the condition of the vulnerable adult;
(ii) if after receiving care, the health status of the vulnerable adult can be reasonably expected, as determined by the attending physician, to be restored to the vulnerable adult's preexisting condition;
(iii) the error is not part of a pattern of errors by the individual;
(iv) if in a facility, the error is immediately reported as required under section 626.557, and recorded internally in the facility;
(v) if in a facility, the facility identifies and takes corrective action and implements measures designed to reduce the risk of further occurrence of this error and similar errors; and
(vi) if in a facility, the actions required under items (iv) and (v) are sufficiently documented for review and evaluation by the facility and any applicable licensing, certification, and ombudsman agency.
(d) Nothing in this definition requires a caregiver, if regulated, to provide services in excess of those required by the caregiver's license, certification, registration, or other regulation.
(e) If the findings of an investigation by a lead investigative agency result in a determination of substantiated maltreatment for the sole reason that the actions required of a facility under paragraph (c), clause (5), item (iv), (v), or (vi), were not taken, then the facility is subject to a correction order. An individual will not be found to have neglected or maltreated the vulnerable adult based solely on the facility's not having taken the actions required under paragraph (c), clause (5), item (iv), (v), or (vi). This must not alter the lead investigative agency's determination of mitigating factors under section 626.557, subdivision 9c, paragraph (c).
Subd. 18.Report.
"Report" means a statement concerning all the circumstances surrounding the alleged or suspected maltreatment, as defined in this section, of a vulnerable adult which are known to the reporter at the time the statement is made.
Subd. 19.Substantiated.
"Substantiated" means a preponderance of the evidence shows that an act that meets the definition of maltreatment occurred.
Subd. 20.Therapeutic conduct.
"Therapeutic conduct" means the provision of program services, health care, or other personal care services done in good faith in the interests of the vulnerable adult by: (1) an individual, facility, or employee or person providing services in a facility under the rights, privileges and responsibilities conferred by state license, certification, or registration; or (2) a caregiver.
Subd. 21.Vulnerable adult.
(a) "Vulnerable adult" means any person 18 years of age or older who:
(1) is a resident or inpatient of a facility;
(2) receives services required to be licensed under chapter 245A, except that a person receiving outpatient services for treatment of chemical dependency or mental illness, or one who is served in the Minnesota sex offender program on a court-hold order for commitment, or is committed as a sexual psychopathic personality or as a sexually dangerous person under chapter 253B, is not considered a vulnerable adult unless the person meets the requirements of clause (4);
(3) receives services from a home care provider required to be licensed under sections 144A.43 to 144A.482; or from a person or organization that offers, provides, or arranges for personal care assistance services under the medical assistance program as authorized under section 256B.0625, subdivision 19a, 256B.0651, 256B.0653, 256B.0654, 256B.0659, or 256B.85; or
(4) regardless of residence or whether any type of service is received, possesses a physical or mental infirmity or other physical, mental, or emotional dysfunction:
(i) that impairs the individual's ability to provide adequately for the individual's own care without assistance, including the provision of food, shelter, clothing, health care, or supervision; and
(ii) because of the dysfunction or infirmity and the need for care or services, the individual has an impaired ability to protect the individual's self from maltreatment.
(b) For purposes of this subdivision, "care or services" means care or services for the health, safety, welfare, or maintenance of an individual.
1995 c 229 art 1 s 22; 2000 c 319 s 3; 1Sp2001 c 9 art 14 s 32; 2002 c 252 s 23,24; 2002 c 379 art 1 s 113; 2004 c 146 art 3 s 46; 2006 c 212 art 3 s 41; 2007 c 112 s 57; 2008 c 326 art 2 s 15; 2009 c 79 art 6 s 20,21; art 8 s 75; 2009 c 119 s 17; 2009 c 142 art 2 s 48; 2011 c 28 s 16,17; 2012 c 216 art 9 s 32; 2013 c 108 art 8 s 58; 2014 c 262 art 4 s 9; art 5 s 6; 2015 c 78 art 6 s 26-28; 2016 c 158 art 1 s 210,211
A violation of sections 626.557 to 626.5572 shall be admissible as evidence of negligence, but shall not be considered negligence per se.
A county shall establish a multidisciplinary child protection team that may include, but not be limited to, the director of the local welfare agency or designees, the county attorney or designees, the county sheriff or designees, representatives of health and education, representatives of mental health or other appropriate human service or community-based agencies, and parent groups. As used in this section, a "community-based agency" may include, but is not limited to, schools, social service agencies, family service and mental health collaboratives, children's advocacy centers, early childhood and family education programs, Head Start, or other agencies serving children and families. A member of the team must be designated as the lead person of the team responsible for the planning process to develop standards for its activities with battered women's and domestic abuse programs and services.
A multidisciplinary child protection team may provide public and professional education, develop resources for prevention, intervention, and treatment, and provide case consultation to the local welfare agency or other interested community-based agencies. The community-based agencies may request case consultation from the multidisciplinary child protection team regarding a child or family for whom the community-based agency is providing services. As used in this section, "case consultation" means a case review process in which recommendations are made concerning services to be provided to the identified children and family. Case consultation may be performed by a committee or subcommittee of members representing human services, including mental health and chemical dependency; law enforcement, including probation and parole; the county attorney; a children's advocacy center; health care; education; community-based agencies and other necessary agencies; and persons directly involved in an individual case as designated by other members performing case consultation.
Subd. 2a.Sexually exploited youth outreach program.
A multidisciplinary child protection team may assist the local welfare agency, local law enforcement agency, or an appropriate private organization in developing a program of outreach services for sexually exploited youth, including homeless, runaway, and truant youth who are at risk of sexual exploitation. For the purposes of this subdivision, at least one representative of a youth intervention program or, where this type of program is unavailable, one representative of a nonprofit agency serving youth in crisis, shall be appointed to and serve on the multidisciplinary child protection team in addition to the standing members of the team. These services may include counseling, medical care, short-term shelter, alternative living arrangements, and drop-in centers. A juvenile's receipt of intervention services under this subdivision may not be conditioned upon the juvenile providing any evidence or testimony.
(a) The local welfare agency may make available to the case consultation committee or subcommittee, all records collected and maintained by the agency under section 626.556 and in connection with case consultation. A case consultation committee or subcommittee member may share information acquired in the member's professional capacity with the committee or subcommittee to assist in case consultation.
(b) Case consultation committee or subcommittee members must annually sign a data sharing agreement, approved by the commissioner of human services, assuring compliance with chapter 13. Not public data, as defined by section 13.02, subdivision 8a, may be shared with members appointed to the committee or subcommittee in connection with an individual case when the members have signed the data sharing agreement.
(c) All data acquired by the case consultation committee or subcommittee in exercising case consultation duties, are confidential as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 3, and shall not be disclosed except to the extent necessary to perform case consultation, and shall not be subject to subpoena or discovery.
(d) No members of a case consultation committee or subcommittee meeting shall disclose what transpired at a case consultation meeting, except to the extent necessary to carry out the case consultation plan. The proceedings and records of the case consultation meeting are not subject to discovery, and may not be introduced into evidence in any civil or criminal action against a professional or local welfare agency arising out of the matter or matters which are the subject of consideration of the case consultation meeting. Information, documents, or records otherwise available from original sources are not immune from discovery or use in any civil or criminal action merely because they were presented during a case consultation meeting. Any person who presented information before the consultation committee or subcommittee or who is a member shall not be prevented from testifying as to matters within the person's knowledge. However, in a civil or criminal proceeding a person shall not be questioned about the person's presentation of information before the case consultation committee or subcommittee or about opinions formed as a result of the case consultation meetings.
A person who violates this subdivision is subject to the civil remedies and penalties provided under chapter 13.
Subd. 4.Children's advocacy center; definition.
(a) For purposes of this section, "children's advocacy center" means an organization, using a multidisciplinary team approach, whose primary purpose is to provide children who have been the victims of abuse and their nonoffending family members with:
(1) support and advocacy;
(2) specialized medical evaluation;
(3) trauma-focused mental health services; and
(4) forensic interviews.
(b) Children's advocacy centers provide multidisciplinary case review and the tracking and monitoring of case progress.
1981 c 150 s 1; 1986 c 444; 1986 c 448 s 8; 1987 c 135 s 4-6; 1989 c 282 art 2 s 202; 1990 c 542 s 34; 1997 c 203 art 5 s 31,32; 1999 c 245 art 8 s 80; 2000 c 445 art 2 s 27; 1Sp2011 c 1 art 4 s 8; 2016 c 189 art 15 s 26-28
Subdivision 1.Job classification; continuing education.
The commissioner of human services, for employees subject to the Minnesota Merit System, and directors of county personnel systems, for counties not subject to the Minnesota Merit System, shall establish a job classification consisting exclusively of persons with the specialized knowledge, skills, and experience required to satisfactorily perform child protection duties pursuant to section 626.556, subdivisions 10, 10a, and 10b.
All child protection workers or social services staff having responsibility for child protective duties under section 626.556 shall receive 15 hours of continuing education or in-service training each year relevant to providing child protective services. The local social service agency shall maintain a record of training completed by each employee having responsibility for performing child protective duties.
Subd. 1a.Child protection worker foundation education.
Any individual who seeks employment as a child protection worker after the commissioner of human services has implemented the foundation training program developed under section 626.5591, subdivision 2, must complete competency-based foundation training during their first six months of employment as a child protection worker.
Subd. 1b.Background studies.
Subd. 2.Joint training.
The commissioners of human services and public safety shall cooperate in the development of a joint program for training child abuse services professionals in the appropriate techniques for child abuse assessment and investigation. The program shall include but need not be limited to the following areas:
(1) the public policy goals of the state as set forth in section 260C.001 and the role of the assessment or investigation in meeting these goals;
(2) the special duties of child protection workers and law enforcement officers under section 626.556;
(3) the appropriate methods for directing and managing affiliated professionals who may be utilized in providing protective services and strengthening family ties;
(4) the appropriate methods for interviewing alleged victims of child abuse and other minors in the course of performing an assessment or an investigation;
(5) the dynamics of child abuse and neglect within family systems and the appropriate methods for interviewing parents in the course of the assessment or investigation, including training in recognizing cases in which one of the parents is a victim of domestic abuse and in need of special legal or medical services;
(6) the legal, evidentiary considerations that may be relevant to the conduct of an assessment or an investigation;
(7) the circumstances under which it is appropriate to remove the alleged abuser or the alleged victim from the home;
(8) the protective social services that are available to protect alleged victims from further abuse, to prevent child abuse and domestic abuse, and to preserve the family unit, and training in the preparation of case plans to coordinate services for the alleged child abuse victim with services for any parents who are victims of domestic abuse;
(9) the methods by which child protection workers and law enforcement workers cooperate in conducting assessments and investigations in order to avoid duplication of efforts; and
(10) appropriate methods for interviewing alleged victims of child abuse and conducting investigations in cases where the alleged victim is developmentally, physically, or mentally disabled.
Subd. 3.Priority training.
The commissioners of human services and public safety shall provide the program courses described in subdivision 2 at convenient times and locations in the state. The commissioners shall give training priority in the program areas cited in subdivision 2 to persons currently performing assessments and investigations pursuant to section 626.556, subdivisions 10, 10a, and 10b.
Subd. 5.Revenue.
The commissioner of human services shall add the following funds to the funds appropriated under section 626.5591, subdivision 2, to develop and support training:
(a) The commissioner of human services shall submit claims for federal reimbursement earned through the activities and services supported through Department of Human Services child protection or child welfare training funds. Federal revenue earned must be used to improve and expand training services by the department. The department expenditures eligible for federal reimbursement under this section must not be made from federal funds or funds used to match other federal funds.
(b) Each year, the commissioner of human services shall withhold from funds distributed to each county under Minnesota Rules, parts 9550.0300 to 9550.0370, an amount equivalent to 1.5 percent of each county's annual title XX allocation under section 256M.50. The commissioner must use these funds to ensure decentralization of training.
(c) The federal revenue under this subdivision is available for these purposes until the funds are expended.
1985 c 275 s 1; 1988 c 630 s 1; 1990 c 542 s 35; 1993 c 306 s 20,21; 1Sp1993 c 1 art 3 s 42; 1997 c 203 art 5 s 33; 1999 c 139 art 4 s 2; 1Sp2001 c 9 art 11 s 13; 2002 c 370 art 1 s 113; 1Sp2003 c 14 art 4 s 20; 2015 c 71 art 1 s 100
As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given unless the specific context indicates otherwise:
(a) "Child protection agency" means an agency authorized to receive reports, conduct assessments and investigations, and make determinations pursuant to section 626.556, subdivision 10.
(b) "Child protection services" means the receipt and assessment of reports of child maltreatment and the provision of services to families and children when maltreatment has occurred or when there is risk of maltreatment. These services include: (1) the assessment of risk to a child alleged to have been abused or neglected; (2) interviews of any person alleged to have abused or neglected a child and the child or children involved in the report, and interviews with persons having facts or knowledge necessary to assess the level of risk to a child and the need for protective intervention; (3) the gathering of written or evidentiary materials; (4) the recording of case findings and determinations; and (5) other actions required by section 626.556, administrative rule, or agency policy.
(c) "Competency-based training" means a course of instruction that provides both information and skills practice, which is based upon clearly stated and measurable instructional objectives, and which requires demonstration of the achievement of a particular standard of skills and knowledge for satisfactory completion.
(d) "Foundation training" means training provided to a local child protection worker after the person has begun to perform child protection duties, but before the expiration of six months of employment as a child protection worker. This foundation training must occur during the performance of job duties and must include an evaluation of the employee's application of skills and knowledge.
(e) "Advanced training" means training provided to a local child protection worker after the person has performed an initial six months of employment as a child protection worker.
Subd. 2.Training program; development.
The commissioner of human services shall develop a program of competency-based foundation and advanced training for child protection workers if funds are appropriated to the commissioner for this purpose.
1988 c 630 s 2; 1993 c 306 s 22
Subdivision 1.Policy.
It is the policy of this state to encourage adequate and accurate documentation of the number and content of interviews conducted with alleged child abuse victims during the course of a child abuse assessment, criminal investigation, or prosecution, and to discourage interviews that are unnecessary, duplicative, or otherwise not in the best interests of the child.
As used in this section:
(1) "child abuse" means physical or sexual abuse as defined in section 626.556, subdivision 2;
(2) "government employee" means an employee of a state or local agency, and any person acting as an agent of a state or local agency;
(3) "interview" means a statement of an alleged child abuse victim which is given or made to a government employee during the course of a child abuse assessment, criminal investigation, or prosecution; and
(4) "record" means an audio or videotape recording of an interview, or a written record of an interview.
Subd. 3.Record required.
Whenever an interview is conducted, the interviewer must make a record of the interview. The record must contain the following information:
(1) the date, time, place, and duration of the interview;
(2) the identity of the persons present at the interview; and
(3) if the record is in writing, a summary of the information obtained during the interview.
The records shall be maintained by the interviewer in accordance with applicable provisions of section 626.556, subdivision 11 and chapter 13.
Subd. 4.Guidelines on tape recording of interviews.
Every county attorney's office shall be responsible for developing written guidelines on the tape recording of interviews by government employees who conduct child abuse assessments, criminal investigations, or prosecutions. The guidelines are public data as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 14.
Any member of a duly organized state, county, or municipal peace unit of another state of the United States who enters this state in fresh pursuit, and continues within this state in such fresh pursuit, of a person in order to arrest the person on the ground that the person is believed to have committed a felony in such other state, shall have the same authority to arrest and hold such person in custody, as has any member of any duly organized state, county, or municipal peace unit of this state, to arrest and hold in custody a person on the ground that the person is believed to have committed a felony in this state; provided, the rights extended by this section shall be extended only to those states granting these same rights to peace officers of this state who may be in fresh pursuit of suspected criminals in such reciprocating states.
(10547-1) 1939 c 64 s 1; 1986 c 444
If an arrest is made in this state by an officer of another state in accordance with the provisions of section 626.65, the officer shall, without unnecessary delay, take the person arrested before a judge of the county in which the arrest was made. The judge shall conduct a hearing for the purpose of determining the lawfulness of the arrest. If the judge determines that the arrest was lawful, the judge shall commit the person arrested to await for a reasonable time the issuance of an extradition warrant by the governor of this state, or admit the person arrested to bail for such purpose. If the judge determines that the arrest was unlawful, the judge shall discharge the person arrested.
(10547-2) 1939 c 64 s 2; 1983 c 359 s 119; 1986 c 444
Section 626.65 shall not be construed so as to make unlawful any arrest in this state which would otherwise be lawful.
(10547-3) 1939 c 64 s 3
For the purpose of sections 626.65 to 626.69, the word "state" includes the District of Columbia.
The term "fresh pursuit," as used in sections 626.65 to 626.69, includes fresh pursuit as defined by the common law, and also the pursuit of a person who has committed a felony or who is reasonably suspected of having committed a felony. It shall also include the pursuit of a person suspected of having committed a supposed felony, though no felony has actually been committed, if there is reasonable ground for believing that a felony has been committed. Fresh pursuit, as used therein, shall not necessarily imply instant pursuit, but pursuit without unreasonable delay.
Sections 626.65 to 626.70 may be cited as the Uniform Act on Fresh Pursuit.
(1) "fresh pursuit" means fresh pursuit as defined by the common law and includes the pursuit of a person who has committed or is reasonably believed to have committed a violation in the presence of the peace officer. Fresh pursuit does not necessarily imply instant pursuit, but pursuit without unreasonable delay;
(2) "peace officer" means a member of a duly organized state, county, or municipal law enforcement unit; and
(3) "violation" includes gross misdemeanors, misdemeanors, and traffic violations.
Subd. 2.Fresh pursuit authority.
A peace officer of another state who enters this state while on duty and in fresh pursuit, and who continues in fresh pursuit, of a person in order to arrest the person for a violation committed in the peace officer's presence, has the same authority to arrest and hold the person in custody as has any peace officer of this state if reciprocal fresh pursuit authority for that type of violation is extended to Minnesota peace officers by the pursuing officer's state.
A peace officer, as defined in section 609.487, subdivision 2, clause (2), who enters this state to perform an assigned duty of transporting persons in legal custody for law enforcement purposes has the same authority to transport persons in legal custody as any member of any duly organized state, county, or municipal law enforcement unit of this state if a reciprocal right to transport persons in legal custody is extended to Minnesota peace officers by the peace officer's state or local jurisdiction.
(1) "just compensation" means the compensation owed to an innocent third party under the state Constitution by a Minnesota local government unit due to property damage caused by a peace officer in the course of executing a search warrant or apprehending a criminal suspect; and
(2) "peace officer" has the meaning given in section 626.84.
Subd. 2.Responsible government unit; execution of search warrant.
If just compensation is owed for damage caused in the execution of a search warrant or the apprehension of a criminal suspect, the Minnesota local government unit employing the peace officer who sought issuance of the warrant or initiated the apprehension is responsible for paying the compensation. Except as otherwise provided in this subdivision, if the search warrant is executed or the apprehension is accomplished by a peace officer from another Minnesota local government unit in aid of the officer originating the warrant or initiating the apprehension, the responsibility for paying just compensation remains with the Minnesota local government unit employing the officer who originated the warrant or initiated the apprehension. In the event the property damage is caused by the negligence of a peace officer, the Minnesota local government unit employing that peace officer is responsible for paying just compensation.
1998 c 367 art 11 s 20
Subdivision 1.Interagency cooperation.
Any appointive or elective agency or office of peace officers as defined in subdivision 3 may establish rules or regulations and enter into agreements with other agencies and offices for:
(1) assisting other peace officers in the line of their duty and within the course of their employment; and
(2) exchanging the agency's peace officers with peace officers of another agency or office on a temporary basis. Additionally, the agency or office may establish rules and regulations for assisting probation, parole, and supervised release agents who are supervising probationers, parolees, or supervised releasees in the geographic area within the agency's or office's jurisdiction.
Subd. 2.Assistance.
(a) When a peace officer gives assistance to another peace officer, or to a parole, probation, or supervised release agent, within the scope of the rules or regulations of the peace officer's appointive or elected agency or office, any such assistance shall be within the line of duty and course of employment of the officer rendering the assistance.
(b) When a peace officer acts on behalf of another agency or office within the scope of an exchange agreement entered into under subdivision 1, the officer's actions are within the officer's line of duty and course of employment to the same extent as if the officer had acted on behalf of the officer's employing agency.
For the purposes of this section, "peace officer" means any member of a police department, State Patrol, game warden service, sheriff's office, or any other law enforcement agency, the members of which have, by law, the power of arrest.
Subd. 4.No enlargement of duties.
This section shall in no way be construed as extending or enlarging the duties or authority of any peace officer or any other law enforcement agent as defined in subdivision 3 except as provided in this section.
1959 c 374 s 1; 1981 c 37 s 2; 1986 c 444; 1994 c 636 art 4 s 31
Subdivision 1.Arrest authority.
A peace officer of a state adjoining Minnesota and a federal law enforcement officer have the same authority to arrest and hold an individual in custody as has any peace officer of this state if all of the following circumstances are present:
(1) the officer is on duty and is acting on a request for assistance by a peace officer of this state;
(2) while in this state, the officer acts under the direction of the peace officer to whom the officer is rendering assistance;
(3) while in this state, the officer acts in accordance with the rules and regulations of the officer's own appointive or elective authority; and
(4) upon effecting an arrest, the officer surrenders custody of the arrested individual to a peace officer of this state without unnecessary delay.
Subd. 2.Tort liability; indemnification.
A peace officer from an adjoining state or a federal law enforcement officer who responds to a request for assistance and who acts in accordance with subdivision 1 is serving in the regular line of duty as fully as though the service was within the officer's jurisdiction. For the purposes of section 3.736 and chapter 466, the officer is deemed to be an employee of the elective or appointive agency of the peace officer requesting assistance.
Subd. 3.Definition.
As used in this section, "federal law enforcement officer" means an officer or employee whether employed inside or outside the state of the Federal Bureau of Investigation, the Drug Enforcement Administration, the United States Marshal Service, the Secret Service, the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, the Department of Homeland Security, or the United States Postal Inspection Service, or their successor agencies, who is responsible for the prevention or detection of crimes or for the enforcement of the United States Code and who is authorized to arrest, with or without a warrant, any individual for a violation of the United States Code.
1994 c 441 s 1; 2001 c 16 s 1; 2006 c 260 art 1 s 40; 2007 c 13 art 1 s 25
For purposes of sections 626.84 to 626.863, the following terms have the meanings given them:
(a) "Board" means the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training.
(b) "Director" means the executive director of the board.
(c) "Peace officer" means:
(1) an employee or an elected or appointed official of a political subdivision or law enforcement agency who is licensed by the board, charged with the prevention and detection of crime and the enforcement of the general criminal laws of the state and who has the full power of arrest, and shall also include the Minnesota State Patrol, agents of the Division of Alcohol and Gambling Enforcement, state conservation officers, Metropolitan Transit police officers, Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension Unit officers, and Department of Commerce Fraud Bureau Unit officers, and the statewide coordinator of the Violent Crime Coordinating Council; and
(2) a peace officer who is employed by a law enforcement agency of a federally recognized tribe, as defined in United States Code, title 25, section 450b(e), and who is licensed by the board.
(d) "Part-time peace officer" means an individual licensed by the board whose services are utilized by law enforcement agencies no more than an average of 20 hours per week, not including time spent on call when no call to active duty is received, calculated on an annual basis, who has either full powers of arrest or authorization to carry a firearm while on active duty. The term shall apply even though the individual receives no compensation for time spent on active duty, and shall apply irrespective of the title conferred upon the individual by any law enforcement agency.
(e) "Reserve officer" means an individual whose services are utilized by a law enforcement agency to provide supplementary assistance at special events, traffic or crowd control, and administrative or clerical assistance, and shall include reserve deputies, special deputies, mounted or unmounted patrols, and all other employees or volunteers performing reserve officer functions. A reserve officer's duties do not include enforcement of the general criminal laws of the state, and the officer does not have full powers of arrest or authorization to carry a firearm on duty.
(f) "Law enforcement agency" means:
(1) a unit of state or local government that is authorized by law to grant full powers of arrest and to charge a person with the duties of preventing and detecting crime and enforcing the general criminal laws of the state; and
(2) subject to the limitations in section 626.93, a law enforcement agency of a federally recognized tribe, as defined in United States Code, title 25, section 450b(e).
(g) "Professional peace officer education" means a postsecondary degree program, or a nondegree program for persons who already have a college degree, that is offered by a college or university in Minnesota, designed for persons seeking licensure as a peace officer, and approved by the board.
Subd. 2.Scope.
Notwithstanding sections 12.03, subdivision 4, 12.25, or any other law to the contrary, no individual employed or acting as an agent of any political subdivision shall be authorized to carry a firearm when on duty unless the individual has been licensed under sections 626.84 to 626.863. Nothing herein shall be construed as requiring licensure of a security guard as that term is defined in section 626.88, subdivision 1, paragraph (c).
1977 c 433 s 1; 1978 c 681 s 8; 1979 c 282 s 1; 1980 c 578 s 2; 1981 c 37 s 2; 1981 c 310 s 1; 1986 c 444; 1987 c 334 s 4; 1989 c 334 art 6 s 13; 1991 c 356 art 6 s 1; 1997 c 129 art 2 s 15; 1997 c 149 s 4; 1999 c 175 s 1; 2000 c 291 s 2; 2004 c 269 art 1 s 11; 2005 c 10 art 1 s 77; art 2 s 3; 2007 c 134 art 11 s 9; 2010 c 383 s 7; 2011 c 85 s 4; 2013 c 135 art 3 s 22
The Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training shall be composed of the following 15 members:
(1) two members to be appointed by the governor from among the county sheriffs in Minnesota;
(2) four members to be appointed by the governor from among peace officers in Minnesota municipalities, at least two of whom shall be chiefs of police;
(3) two members to be appointed by the governor from among peace officers, at least one of whom shall be a member of the Minnesota State Patrol Association;
(4) the superintendent of the Minnesota Bureau of Criminal Apprehension or a designee;
(5) two members appointed by the governor from among peace officers, or former peace officers, who are currently employed on a full-time basis in a professional peace officer education program;
(6) two members to be appointed by the governor, one member to be appointed from among administrators of Minnesota colleges or universities that offer professional peace officer education, and one member to be appointed from among the elected city officials in statutory or home rule charter cities of under 5,000 population outside the metropolitan area, as defined in section 473.121, subdivision 2; and
(7) two members appointed by the governor from among the general public.
A chair shall be appointed by the governor from among the members. In making appointments the governor shall strive to achieve representation from among the geographic areas of the state.
1967 c 870 s 1; 1969 c 108 s 1; 1977 c 433 s 2; 1979 c 282 s 2; 1981 c 310 s 2; 1986 c 444; 1987 c 358 s 129; 1995 c 226 art 4 s 24
Subdivision 1.Board procedural matters.
Meetings shall be called at the request of the chair or upon the written request of a majority of the members of the board.
Membership on the board shall not constitute the holding of a public office, and members of the board shall not be required to take and file oaths of office or submit a public official's bond before serving on the board.
No member of the board shall be disqualified from holding any public office or employment, by reason of appointment to the board, nor shall the member forfeit any such office or employment notwithstanding any general, special, or local restriction, or ordinance, or city charter to the contrary.
Subd. 2.Terms, compensation, removal, filling of vacancies.
The membership terms, compensation, removal of members and the filling of vacancies for members appointed pursuant to section 626.841, clauses (1), (2), (4), and (5) on the board; the provision of staff, administrative services and office space; the review and processing of complaints; the setting of fees; and other matters relating to board operations shall be as provided in chapter 214.
1967 c 870 s 2; 1969 c 108 s 2; 1971 c 24 s 55; 1976 c 134 s 76; 1977 c 433 s 3; 1986 c 444
Subdivision 1.Rules required.
The board shall adopt rules with respect to:
(1) the certification of postsecondary schools to provide programs of professional peace officer education;
(2) minimum courses of study and equipment and facilities to be required at each certified school within the state;
(3) minimum qualifications for coordinators and instructors at certified schools offering a program of professional peace officer education located within this state;
(4) minimum standards of physical, mental, and educational fitness which shall govern the admission to professional peace officer education programs and the licensing of peace officers within the state, by any state, county, municipality, or joint or contractual combination thereof, including members of the Minnesota State Patrol;
(5) board-approved continuing education courses that ensure professional competence of peace officers and part-time peace officers;
(6) minimum standards of conduct which would affect the individual's performance of duties as a peace officer. These standards shall be established and published. The board shall review the minimum standards of conduct described in this clause for possible modification in 1998 and every three years after that time;
(7) a set of educational learning objectives that must be met within a certified school's professional peace officer education program. These learning objectives must concentrate on the knowledge, skills, and abilities deemed essential for a peace officer. Education in these learning objectives shall be deemed satisfactory for the completion of the minimum basic training requirement;
(8) the establishment and use by any political subdivision or state law enforcement agency that employs persons licensed by the board of procedures for investigation and resolution of allegations of misconduct by persons licensed by the board. The procedures shall be in writing and shall be established on or before October 1, 1984;
(9) the issues that must be considered by each political subdivision and state law enforcement agency that employs persons licensed by the board in establishing procedures under section 626.5532 to govern the conduct of peace officers who are in pursuit of a vehicle being operated in violation of section 609.487, and requirements for the training of peace officers in conducting pursuits. The adoption of specific procedures and requirements is within the authority of the political subdivision or agency;
(10) supervision of part-time peace officers and requirements for documentation of hours worked by a part-time peace officer who is on active duty. These rules shall be adopted by December 31, 1993;
(11) citizenship requirements for peace officers and part-time peace officers;
(12) driver's license requirements for peace officers and part-time peace officers; and
(13) such other matters as may be necessary consistent with sections 626.84 to 626.863. Rules promulgated by the attorney general with respect to these matters may be continued in force by resolution of the board if the board finds the rules to be consistent with sections 626.84 to 626.863.
Subd. 2.Executive director.
An executive director shall be appointed by and serve in the unclassified service at the pleasure of the board. The executive director shall perform such duties, on behalf of the board, as the board shall prescribe. The board shall appoint such employees, agents and consultants as deemed necessary, prescribe their duties, and provide for reimbursement of their expenses. Such employees shall be in the classified service.
Subd. 3.Board authority.
The board may, in addition:
(1) recommend studies, surveys, and reports to be made by the executive director regarding the carrying out of the objectives and purposes of sections 626.841 to 626.863;
(2) visit and inspect any certified school that offers the professional peace officer education program or for which application for certification has been made;
(3) make recommendations, from time to time, to the executive director, attorney general, and the governor regarding the carrying out of the objectives and purposes of sections 626.841 to 626.863;
(4) perform such other acts as may be necessary or appropriate to carry out the powers and duties of the board under sections 626.841 to 626.863; and
(5) cooperate with and receive financial assistance from and join in projects or enter into contracts with the federal government or its agencies for the furtherance of the purposes of Laws 1977, chapter 433.
Subd. 4.Reporting requirements.
The board shall report to the attorney general, from time to time, and to the governor at least biennially concerning the activities of the board. The board shall report biannually to the chairs of the senate and house of representatives committees and divisions having jurisdiction over criminal justice funding concerning the activities of the board. In addition to other relevant items, the report must include detailed information concerning the compliance reviews required in section 626.8459.
1967 c 870 s 3; 1973 c 507 s 45; 1974 c 478 s 1; 1977 c 433 s 4-6; 1978 c 681 s 9-11; 1981 c 37 s 2; 1981 c 310 s 3; 1983 c 269 s 3; 1986 c 444; 1988 c 712 s 18; 1989 c 209 art 2 s 1; 1992 c 571 art 15 s 13; 1995 c 226 art 4 s 25; 1997 c 7 art 1 s 169; art 2 s 65; 1997 c 239 art 8 s 31; 1999 c 216 art 5 s 5; 2009 c 59 art 5 s 16,17
The license of a peace officer convicted of a felony is automatically revoked. For purposes of this section, "conviction" includes a finding of guilt, whether or not the adjudication of guilt is stayed or executed, an admission of guilt, or a no contest plea.
Subdivision 1.Grounds for revocation, suspension, or denial.
(a) The board may refuse to issue, refuse to renew, refuse to reinstate, suspend, revoke eligibility for licensure, or revoke a peace officer or part-time peace officer license for any of the following causes:
(1) fraud or misrepresentation in obtaining a license;
(2) failure to meet licensure requirements; or
(3) a violation of the standards of conduct set forth in Minnesota Rules, chapter 6700.
(b) Unless otherwise provided by the board, a revocation or suspension applies to each license, renewal, or reinstatement privilege held by the individual at the time final action is taken by the board. A person whose license or renewal privilege has been suspended or revoked shall be ineligible to be issued any other license by the board during the pendency of the suspension or revocation.
Subd. 2.Discovery of disqualifying conviction after licensure.
The board may suspend or revoke a peace officer or part-time peace officer license when the licensee has been convicted of a crime recognized by the board as a crime that would disqualify the licensee from participating in a professional peace officer education course, taking the peace officer licensing examination or the part-time peace officer licensing examination, or maintaining eligibility for licensure under Minnesota Rules, chapter 6700. The authority to suspend or revoke a license shall include all individuals who have been granted a license when a disqualifying conviction that would have precluded eligibility for licensure is discovered after licensure.
[Repealed, 2011 c 76 art 1 s 80]
[Expired]
Subdivision 1.Powers and duties.
The board shall have the following powers and duties:
(1) to certify postsecondary schools to provide programs of professional peace officer education based on a set of board-approved professional peace officer education learning objectives;
(2) to issue certificates to postsecondary schools, and to revoke certification when necessary to maintain the objectives and purposes of sections 626.841 to 626.863;
(3) to license peace officers who have met the education and experience requirements and passed examinations as required by the board;
(4) to develop and administer licensing examinations based on the board's learning objectives;
(5) to consult and cooperate with continuing education providers for the development of in-service training programs for peace officers;
(6) to consult and cooperate with postsecondary schools for the development and improvement of professional peace officer education;
(7) to consult and cooperate with other departments and agencies of the state and federal government concerned with peace officer standards and training;
(8) to perform such other acts as may be necessary and appropriate to carry out the powers and duties of sections 626.841 to 626.863;
(9) to obtain criminal conviction data for persons seeking a license to be issued or possessing a license issued by the board. The board shall have authority to obtain criminal conviction data to the full extent that any other law enforcement agency, as that term is defined by state or federal law, has to obtain the data;
(10) to prepare and transmit annually to the governor a report of its activities with respect to allocation of money appropriated to it for peace officers training, including the name of each recipient of money for that purpose and the amount awarded; and
(11) to assist and cooperate with any political subdivision or state law enforcement agency that employs persons licensed by the board to establish written policies as mandated by the state pertaining to persons licensed by the board, and to enforce licensing sanctions for failure to implement these policies.
In addition, the board may maintain data received from law enforcement agencies under section 626.87, subdivision 5, provide the data to requesting law enforcement agencies who are conducting background investigations, and maintain data on applicants and licensees as part of peace officer license data. The data that may be maintained include the name of the law enforcement agency conducting the investigation and data on the candidate provided under section 626.87, subdivision 5, clauses (1) and (2).
1967 c 870 s 5; 1977 c 433 s 7; 1978 c 681 s 12; 1981 c 310 s 4; 1981 c 341 s 4; 1983 c 269 s 4; 1987 c 258 s 12; 1988 c 712 s 19; 1989 c 246 s 2; 1997 c 7 art 1 s 169; art 2 s 66; 1997 c 214 s 4; 1999 c 216 art 5 s 6; 2009 c 59 art 5 s 18
Subdivision 1.Training course; crimes motivated by bias.
The board must prepare a training course to assist peace officers in identifying and responding to crimes motivated by the victim's race, religion, national origin, sex, age, disability, or characteristics identified as sexual orientation. The course must include material to help officers distinguish bias crimes from other crimes, to help officers in understanding and assisting victims of these crimes, and to ensure that bias crimes will be accurately reported as required under section 626.5531. The course must be updated periodically as the board considers appropriate.
Subd. 1a.Training course; crimes of violence.
In consultation with the school of law enforcement, the board shall prepare a training course to assist peace officers in responding to crimes of violence and to enhance peace officer sensitivity in interacting with and assisting crime victims. For purposes of this course, harassment and stalking crimes are "crimes of violence." The course must include information about:
(1) the needs of victims of these crimes and the most effective and sensitive way to meet those needs or arrange for them to be met;
(2) the extent and causes of crimes of violence, including physical and sexual abuse, physical violence, harassment and stalking, and neglect;
(3) the identification of crimes of violence and patterns of violent behavior; and
(4) culturally responsive approaches to dealing with victims and perpetrators of violence.
Subd. 2.Preservice training requirement.
An individual may not be licensed as a peace officer unless the individual has received the training described in subdivision 1. An individual is not eligible to take the peace officer licensing examination after August 1, 1994, unless the individual has received the training described in subdivision 1a.
Subd. 3.In-service training; board requirements.
The board must provide to chief law enforcement officers instructional materials patterned after the materials developed by the board under subdivisions 1 and 1a. These materials must meet board requirements for continuing education credit and be updated periodically as the board considers appropriate. The board must also seek funding for an educational conference to inform and sensitize chief law enforcement officers and other interested persons to the law enforcement issues associated with bias crimes and crimes of violence. If funding is obtained, the board may sponsor the educational conference on its own or with other public or private entities.
Subd. 4.In-service training; chief law enforcement officer requirements.
A chief law enforcement officer must inform all peace officers within the officer's agency of (1) the requirements of section 626.5531, (2) the availability of the instructional materials provided by the board under subdivision 3, and (3) the availability of continuing education credit for the completion of these materials. The chief law enforcement officer must also encourage these peace officers to review or complete the materials.
1988 c 643 s 2; 1992 c 571 art 15 s 14; 1993 c 326 art 2 s 27; 2007 c 13 art 1 s 19
Subdivision 1.Deadly force policy.
By January 1, 1992, the head of every local and state law enforcement agency shall establish and enforce a written policy governing the use of force, including deadly force, as defined in section 609.066, by peace officers and part-time peace officers employed by the agency. The policy must be consistent with the provisions of section 609.066, subdivision 2, and may not prohibit the use of deadly force under circumstances in which that force is justified under section 609.066, subdivision 2.
Subd. 2.Deadly force and firearms use; initial instruction.
Beginning January 1, 1992, the head of every local and state law enforcement agency shall provide instruction on the use of force, deadly force, and the use of firearms to every peace officer and part-time peace officer newly appointed by or beginning employment with the agency. This instruction must occur before the agency head issues a firearm to the officer or otherwise authorizes the officer to carry a firearm in the course of employment. The instruction must be based on the agency's written policy required in subdivision 1 and on the instructional materials required by the board for peace officer and part-time peace officer licensure.
Subd. 3.Deadly force and firearms use; continuing instruction.
Beginning January 1, 1992, the head of every local and state law enforcement agency shall provide the instruction described in subdivision 2 to every peace officer and part-time peace officer currently employed by the agency. This instruction must be provided at least once a year.
Subd. 4.Record keeping required.
The head of every local and state law enforcement agency shall maintain written records of the agency's compliance with the requirements of subdivisions 2 and 3.
Subd. 5.Licensing sanctions; injunctive relief.
The board may impose licensing sanctions and seek injunctive relief under section 214.11 for failure to comply with the requirements of this section.
The terms defined in this subdivision apply to this section.
(a) "Duly authorized executive officer" means the law enforcement officer headquartered in Minnesota who is in charge of the activities of a federal law enforcement agency in this state.
(b) "Memorandum of understanding" is a written agreement between the governing bodies of the participating units of local government and the commissioners of the state agencies authorized to have a law enforcement agency as defined by section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (f), the sheriffs of the participating counties, and the duly authorized executive officers of the participating federal law enforcement agencies that specifies the mission of the parties, the agreement's purpose, the exchange of powers, required training, the duration of the agreement, and other rights and responsibilities of the parties.
(c) "Qualified federal law enforcement officer" means an employee of the United States charged with the enforcement of the criminal laws of the United States who has successfully completed professionally recognized peace officer preemployment education which the board has found comparable to Minnesota peace officer preemployment education.
(d) "Special purpose task force" is a coalition of city, county, state, and federal law enforcement officers directed to accomplish specific state and federal law enforcement objectives.
Subd. 2.Powers of federal law enforcement officers.
A qualified federal law enforcement officer assigned to a special purpose task force created under a memorandum of understanding that has been filed with the board who is acting within the scope of the memorandum of understanding shall possess the authority of the peace officers participating in the special purpose task force under the memorandum of understanding.
Subd. 3.Federal authority preserved.
This section is not intended to limit the existing authority possessed by federal law enforcement officers.
1992 c 449 s 1; 2005 c 10 art 2 s 4
Subdivision 1.Manual.
By July 1, 1994, the superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall transmit to law enforcement agencies a training and procedures manual on child abduction investigations.
Subd. 2.Model investigation policy.
By June 1, 1995, the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board shall develop a model investigation policy for cases involving children who are missing and endangered as defined in section 299C.52. The model policy shall describe the procedures for the handling of cases involving children who are missing and endangered. In developing the policy, the board shall consult with representatives of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, Minnesota Police Chiefs Association, Minnesota Sheriff's Association, Minnesota Police and Peace Officers Association, Minnesota Association of Women Police, Minnesota County Attorneys Association, a nonprofit foundation formed to combat child abuse, and two representatives of victims advocacy groups selected by the commissioner of corrections. The manual on child abduction investigation shall serve as a basis for defining the specific actions to be taken during the early investigation.
Subd. 3.Local policy.
By August 1, 1995, each chief of police and sheriff shall establish and implement a written policy governing the investigation of cases involving children who are missing and endangered as defined in section 299C.52. The policy shall be based on the model policy developed under subdivision 2. The policy shall include specific actions to be taken during the initial two-hour period.
Subd. 4.Available resources.
If an agency, board, or local representative reviews or updates its policies for missing children or persons investigations, it may consider the following resources:
(1) nonprofit search and rescue organizations that provide trained animal searches, specialized equipment, and man trackers;
(2) assistance from other law enforcement agencies at the local, state, or federal level, or qualified missing persons organizations;
(3) use of subpoenas or search warrants for electronic and wireless communication devices, computers, and Web sites; and
(4) assistance and services provided by the Civil Air Patrol.
1994 c 636 art 4 s 32; 2009 c 38 s 14
Subdivision 1.Training course.
The board, in consultation with the Minnesota Institute of Community Policing, shall prepare a training course to instruct peace officers in the techniques of community policing. The course must include instruction on at least the following matters:
(1) techniques for expanding the training of peace officers to include problem-solving;
(2) techniques for organizing community members so that they are involved and trained in community policing activities;
(3) techniques for relating to diverse communities; and
(4) techniques for relating to individuals with physical or mental limitations.
The course also must include training on child development issues to enable officers to respond appropriately to perceived child protection situations. The board shall update the training course periodically as it deems appropriate.
An individual is not eligible to take the peace officer licensing examination after August 1, 1997, unless the individual has received the training described in subdivision 1.
Subd. 3.Instructional materials.
The board shall provide to chief law enforcement officers instructional materials patterned after the materials developed by the board under subdivision 1. These materials must meet board requirements for continuing education credit.
1996 c 411 s 1; 2013 c 62 s 30
The board, in consultation with the Division of Fire Marshal, shall prepare objectives for a training course to instruct peace officers in fire scene response and arson awareness.
Subdivision 1.Model policy to be developed.
By March 1, 1996, the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board shall develop and distribute to all chief law enforcement officers a model policy regarding the professional conduct of peace officers. The policy must address issues regarding professional conduct not addressed by the standards of conduct under Minnesota Rules, part 6700.1600. The policy must define unprofessional conduct to include, but not be limited to, conduct prohibited by section 609.43, whether or not there has been a conviction for a violation of that section. The policy must also describe the procedures that a local law enforcement agency may follow in investigating and disciplining peace officers alleged to have behaved unprofessionally.
Subd. 2.Chief law enforcement officers; written policy required.
By July 1, 1996, all chief law enforcement officers shall establish and implement a written policy defining unprofessional conduct and governing the investigation and disposition of cases involving alleged unprofessional conduct by peace officers. A chief law enforcement officer shall adopt a policy identical or substantially similar to the model policy developed by the board under subdivision 1.
Subd. 3.Report on alleged misconduct.
A chief law enforcement officer shall report annually to the board summary data regarding the investigation and disposition of cases involving alleged misconduct, indicating the total number of investigations, the total number by each subject matter, the number dismissed as unfounded, and the number dismissed on grounds that the allegation was unsubstantiated.
Subdivision 1.Purpose.
The legislature finds that emergency vehicle operations are an integral part of law enforcement's commitment to public safety. Law enforcement agencies shall make reasonable efforts to guide their officers in the safe and responsible performance of their emergency response duties. Although laws and rules provide the foundation for the conduct of law enforcement officers, continuous and effective training is essential to ensure proper law enforcement action during emergency vehicle operations, including police pursuits. This training must be designed to give officers both skills and decision-making ability so that emergency vehicle operations can be resolved safely and successfully.
Subd. 2.Statewide model policy.
(a) By July 1, 1999, the board shall adopt a new or revised model policy governing the conduct of peace officers who are in pursuit of a vehicle being operated in violation of section 609.487. The board shall seek and consider comments of members of the public when adopting the policy. In order to assist peace officers in responding to the complex and unpredictable factors associated with police pursuits, the model policy shall, at a minimum, contain the following components:
(1) a statement describing the philosophy of the model policy. This philosophy must state that the safety of all persons involved in or by a police pursuit is of primary importance. It also must balance the risks of the pursuit to the public and peace officers with the consequences of failing to pursue;
(2) the factors to be considered in initiating and terminating a pursuit, and the standards for evaluating the need to initiate or terminate a pursuit;
(3) the procedures, tactics, and technologies used during pursuits;
(4) the various responsibilities of the pursuing officers, the officer supervising the pursuit, the dispatcher, and air support;
(5) the procedures governing interjurisdictional pursuits;
(6) the procedures governing care of any persons injured in the course of the pursuit;
(7) the contents of pursuit reports filed under section 626.5532; and
(8) the procedures used to evaluate each pursuit.
(b) The board shall review and, as necessary, revise the model pursuit policy in collaboration with the Minnesota Chiefs of Police Association, the Minnesota Sheriffs Association, the Minnesota Police and Peace Officers Association, a representative from the State Patrol, and other interested law enforcement industry groups.
Subd. 3.Agency policies required.
(a) The chief law enforcement officer of every state and local law enforcement agency must establish and enforce a written policy governing the conduct of peace officers employed by the agency who are in pursuit of a vehicle being operated in violation of section 609.487. The policy must, at a minimum, comply with the requirements of any new or revised model pursuit policy adopted by the board under subdivision 2 and must take into account the comments of members of the public and any pursuit vehicle technology that is available to the agency.
(b) Every state and local law enforcement agency must certify annually to the board that it has adopted a written policy in compliance with the board's model pursuit policy.
(c) The board shall assist the chief law enforcement officer of each state and local law enforcement agency in developing and implementing pursuit policies under this subdivision.
Subd. 4.Preservice training in police pursuits required.
(a) By January 1, 2000, the board shall prepare learning objectives for instructing peace officers in emergency vehicle operations and in the conduct of police pursuits. The course shall consist of at least seven hours of classroom and skills-based training.
(b) An individual is not eligible to take the peace officer licensing examination or the part-time peace officer licensing examination on or after January 1, 2000, unless the individual has received the training described in paragraph (a).
Subd. 5.In-service training in police pursuits required.
The chief law enforcement officer of every state and local law enforcement agency shall provide in-service training in emergency vehicle operations and in the conduct of police pursuits to every peace officer and part-time peace officer employed by the agency who the chief law enforcement officer determines may be involved in a police pursuit given the officer's responsibilities. The training shall comply with learning objectives developed and approved by the board and shall consist of at least eight hours of classroom and skills-based training every five years.
1999 c 216 art 5 s 7; 2010 c 215 art 11 s 18; 1Sp2011 c 1 art 2 s 3
(a) Each year, the board shall conduct compliance reviews on all state and local law enforcement agencies. The compliance reviews must ensure that the agencies are complying with all requirements imposed on them by statute and rule. The board shall include in the reports to the legislature required in section 626.843, subdivision 4, detailed information on the compliance reviews conducted under this section. At a minimum, the reports must specify each requirement imposed by statute and rule on law enforcement agencies, the compliance rate of each agency, and the action taken by the board, if any, against an agency not in compliance.
(b) The board may impose licensing sanctions and seek injunctive relief under section 214.11 for an agency's failure to comply with a requirement imposed on it in statute or rule.
1999 c 216 art 5 s 8
Subdivision 1.Licensure requirement.
Notwithstanding any general or local law or charter to the contrary, any peace officer or part-time peace officer employed or elected on or after July 1, 1979, by any state, county, municipality or joint or contractual combination thereof of the state of Minnesota shall not be eligible for permanent appointment without being licensed by the board pursuant to sections 626.84 to 626.863.
[Repealed, 1980 c 578 s 12]
Subd. 2.Forfeiture of position.
Every peace officer or part-time peace officer who shall be appointed by any state, county, municipality or joint or contractual combination thereof of the state of Minnesota on a temporary basis or for a probationary term, shall forfeit the officer's position unless the officer has been licensed by the board pursuant to sections 626.841 to 626.863. Any other peace officer or part-time peace officer employed or elected by any state, county, municipality or joint or contractual combination thereof, may attend peace officer training courses and be licensed by the board pursuant to sections 626.84 to 626.863.
Subd. 3.Grandfather provision.
A peace officer who has received a permanent appointment prior to July 1, 1978, shall be licensed by the board if the officer has met the requirements of sections 626.841 to 626.855 in effect on June 30, 1977 and if the officer has requested licensing by the board.
Subd. 6.Office of sheriff; licensure as peace officer required.
A person seeking election to the office of sheriff must be licensed as a peace officer. A person seeking appointment to the office of sheriff, or seeking appointment to the position of chief law enforcement officer, as defined by the rules of the board, after June 30, 1987, must be licensed or eligible to be licensed as a peace officer. The person shall submit proof of peace officer licensure or eligibility as part of the application for office. A person elected or appointed to the office of sheriff or the position of chief law enforcement officer shall be licensed as a peace officer during the person's term of office or employment.
1967 c 870 s 6; 1977 c 433 s 8; 1977 c 455 s 90; 1978 c 681 s 13-18; 1980 c 578 s 3,4; 1981 c 310 s 5,6; 1986 c 444; 1987 c 358 s 130; 1994 c 636 art 4 s 33; 1997 c 7 art 1 s 169; 1997 c 147 s 78
The legislature finds and declares that it is necessary to establish minimum training requirements for part-time peace officers in certain specified areas to maximize protection of the rights and safety of the public and to minimize liability on the part of Minnesota counties and municipalities. The legislature further finds that part-time peace officers are most effectively utilized as a supplement to regular, fully trained and licensed, peace officers and does not encourage the use of part-time peace officers when needs for service would otherwise justify the use of peace officers.
1979 c 282 s 3; 1981 c 310 s 7
Subdivision 1.Appointment requirements.
Any individual appointed or employed as a part-time peace officer shall provide proof to the board that the individual has:
(1) satisfied the selection standards of the board then in effect;
(2) successfully completed board recognized courses in first aid and firearms training, including legal limitations on the justifiable use of deadly force; and
(3) successfully passed a board part-time peace officer licensing examination.
1979 c 282 s 6; 1980 c 578 s 5; 1981 c 310 s 9; 1985 c 13 s 1; 1999 c 216 art 5 s 10; 2015 c 21 art 1 s 104
Subdivision 1.Supervision of powers and duties.
No law enforcement agency shall utilize the services of a part-time peace officer unless the part-time peace officer exercises the part-time peace officer's powers and duties under the supervision of a licensed peace officer designated by the chief law enforcement officer. Supervision also may be via radio communications. With the consent of the county sheriff, the designated supervising officer may be a member of the county sheriff's department.
Subd. 2.Part-time peace officer license; restriction.
Subject to section 626.8468, subdivision 1, any individual licensed by the board as a part-time peace officer shall be eligible for appointment or employment anywhere in the state as a part-time peace officer but not as a peace officer unless the individual meets board training and licensing requirements then in effect for peace officers.
1979 c 282 s 8; 1981 c 310 s 11,12; 1986 c 444; 1992 c 571 art 15 s 15; 1999 c 216 art 5 s 11
Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter or rule of the board to the contrary, no reserve officer shall be subject to mandatory training, licensing, or continuing education requirements except as may be established by the agency utilizing the services of the reserve officer.
Subdivision 1.Grandfather provision.
A law enforcement agency that employed a licensed part-time peace officer on or before June 30, 2014, may continue to employ that part-time peace officer indefinitely. The board shall cancel the license of a part-time peace officer who leaves the officer's agency of employment after June 30, 2014. The board shall cancel the license of a part-time peace officer who is not employed by a law enforcement agency on or after June 30, 2014.
Subd. 3.Continuing education.
All licensed part-time peace officers shall comply with continuing education standards required by the board. The officers may receive reimbursement for the costs of this education from the peace officers training account described in section 357.021, subdivision 7.
1999 c 216 art 5 s 12; 2003 c 23 s 1; 2014 c 244 s 1
Nothing contained in sections 626.841 to 626.863 shall be construed to exempt any peace officer from the provisions of sections 626.841 to 626.863, or to exempt a peace officer having received the peace officer's last permanent appointment as a peace officer prior to July 1, 1967.
1967 c 870 s 7; 1977 c 433 s 9; 1978 c 681 s 19; 1986 c 444; 1997 c 7 art 1 s 169
The legislature finds that the reality or public perception of racial profiling alienates people from police, hinders community policing efforts, and causes law enforcement to lose credibility and trust among the people law enforcement is sworn to protect and serve. No stop initiated by a peace officer should be made without a legitimate reason; race, ethnicity, or national origin alone should never provide a sufficient reason. Law enforcement policies and training programs must emphasize the need to respect the balance between the rights of all persons to be free from unreasonable governmental intrusions and law enforcement's need to enforce the law.
"Racial profiling" means any action initiated by law enforcement that relies upon the race, ethnicity, or national origin of an individual rather than:
(1) the behavior of that individual; or
(2) information that leads law enforcement to a particular individual who has been identified as being engaged in or having been engaged in criminal activity.
Racial profiling includes use of racial or ethnic stereotypes as factors in selecting whom to stop and search. Racial profiling does not include law enforcement's use of race or ethnicity to determine whether a person matches a specific description of a particular subject.
(a) The Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training shall consult with the Minnesota Chiefs of Police Association, the Minnesota Sheriffs Association, the Racial Profiling Advisory Committee, and the Minnesota Police and Peace Officers Association in developing an antiracial profiling model policy governing the conduct of peace officers engaged in stops of citizens. This policy shall define racial profiling and identify conduct that violates the law. The policy must also include a duty to give the officer's name or badge number and identify the officer's department during routine traffic stops.
(b) The board shall adopt a model policy and distribute the model policy to all chief law enforcement officers by August 1, 2001.
(a) By November 1, 2001, the chief law enforcement officer of every state and local law enforcement agency must establish and enforce a written antiracial profiling policy governing the conduct of peace officers engaged in stops of citizens. The chief law enforcement officer shall ensure that each peace officer receives a copy of the agency's antiracial profiling policy. The chief law enforcement officer also must ensure that each peace officer is aware of the policy's purpose and the conduct prohibited by it.
(b) The policy must, at a minimum, comply with the requirements of the model policy adopted by the board under subdivision 3.
(c) Every state and local law enforcement agency must certify to the board that it has adopted a written policy in compliance with the board's model policy.
(d) The board shall assist the chief law enforcement officer of each state and local law enforcement agency in developing and implementing antiracial profiling policies under this subdivision.
Subd. 5.Preservice training learning objectives; requirements.
(a) By August 1, 2001, the board shall prepare learning objectives for preservice training to instruct peace officers in avoiding racial profiling when making stops of citizens. These learning objectives shall be included in the required curriculum of professional peace officer education programs.
(b) An individual is not eligible to take the peace officer licensing examination or the part-time peace officer licensing examination on or after June 1, 2002, unless:
(1) the individual has received the training described in paragraph (a); and
(2) the individual has completed a psychological evaluation demonstrating that the individual is not likely to engage in racial profiling.
Subd. 6.In-service training learning objectives.
By August 1, 2001, the board shall prepare learning objectives for in-service training to instruct peace officers in avoiding racial profiling when making stops of citizens. The board shall evaluate and monitor in-service training courses to ensure they satisfy the learning objectives.
Subd. 7.Chief law enforcement officers and supervisors; requirements.
The executive director of the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training shall prepare training materials to provide chief law enforcement officers and other peace officers with supervisory authority with information on how to detect and respond to racial profiling by peace officers under their command. The training materials must address both the agency's antiracial profiling policy and procedural components aimed at eliminating racial profiling in stops of citizens. The materials must include information on federal and state constitutional and statutory laws prohibiting discrimination by law enforcement. The procedural information must describe conduct that is unlawful or inappropriate and present guidelines for reinforcing techniques that are lawful and appropriate. The procedural information shall discuss appropriate search and seizure and interviewing techniques.
Subd. 8.POST board; compliance reviews authorized.
The board has authority to inspect state and local agency policies to ensure compliance with subdivision 4. The board may conduct this inspection based upon a complaint it receives about a particular agency or through a random selection process.
1Sp2001 c 8 art 7 s 3
The chief law enforcement officer of every state and local law enforcement agency that maintains an automated license plate reader shall establish and enforce a written policy governing use of the reader. Use of an automated license plate reader without adoption of a written policy under this section is prohibited. At a minimum, the policies and procedures must incorporate the requirements of section 13.824, and the employee discipline standards for unauthorized access to data contained in section 13.09.
2015 c 67 s 4
NOTE: This section as added by Laws 2015, chapter 67, section 4, is effective August 1, 2015, provided that chief law enforcement officers adopt the policy required under this section no later than January 15, 2016. Laws 2015, chapter 67, section 4, the effective date.
As used in this section, "portable recording system" has the meaning provided in section 13.825, subdivision 1.
Subd. 2.Public comment.
A local law enforcement agency must provide an opportunity for public comment before it purchases or implements a portable recording system. At a minimum, the agency must accept public comments submitted electronically or by mail, and the governing body with jurisdiction over the budget of the law enforcement agency must provide an opportunity for public comment at a regularly scheduled meeting.
Subd. 3.Written policies and procedures required.
(a) The chief officer of every state and local law enforcement agency that uses or proposes to use a portable recording system must establish and enforce a written policy governing its use. In developing and adopting the policy, the law enforcement agency must provide for public comment and input as provided in subdivision 2. Use of a portable recording system without adoption of a written policy meeting the requirements of this section is prohibited. The written policy must be posted on the agency's Web site, if the agency has a Web site.
(b) At a minimum, the written policy must incorporate the following:
(1) the requirements of section 13.825 and other data classifications, access procedures, retention policies, and data security safeguards that, at a minimum, meet the requirements of chapter 13 and other applicable law;
(2) procedures for testing the portable recording system to ensure adequate functioning;
(3) procedures to address a system malfunction or failure, including requirements for documentation by the officer using the system at the time of a malfunction or failure;
(4) circumstances under which recording is mandatory, prohibited, or at the discretion of the officer using the system;
(5) circumstances under which a data subject must be given notice of a recording;
(6) circumstances under which a recording may be ended while an investigation, response, or incident is ongoing;
(7) procedures for the secure storage of portable recording system data and the creation of backup copies of the data; and
(8) procedures to ensure compliance and address violations of the policy, which must include, at a minimum, supervisory or internal audits and reviews, and the employee discipline standards for unauthorized access to data contained in section 13.09.
NOTE: This section, as added by Laws 2016, chapter 171, section 6, is effective August 1, 2016, provided that a law enforcement agency using a portable recording system on that date must adopt the policy required under this section no later than January 15, 2017. Laws 2016, chapter 171, section 6, the effective date.
Subject to board rules, the superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall provide courses at convenient locations in the state, for training peace officers in their powers and duties, and in the use of approved equipment and the latest technique for detection, identification and apprehension of criminals. For this purpose, the superintendent may use the services and employees of the bureau.
The superintendent shall provide training to deputy constables in the limitations on their powers and duties, the conduct of inspections, and such other matters as the board may direct. Nothing herein shall be construed as establishing a mandatory training requirement for deputy constables.
1967 c 870 s 8; 1977 c 433 s 10; 1978 c 681 s 20; 2005 c 10 art 2 s 4
Subdivision 1.Part-time instructors.
In addition to the bureau employees assigned to police training, full time or part time, the superintendent is authorized to engage such part-time instructors as the superintendent deems proper and necessary to furnish the best possible instruction in police sciences, subject to board rules and to the limitation of funds as appropriated and available for expenditure. Laws 1981, chapter 210, sections 1 to 48 shall not apply to such part-time employees.
Subd. 2.Donations.
Any donations, contributions, grants or gifts which may be received shall be accepted without recourse to the donor, and shall become the property of the state. All cash receipts shall be deposited with the commissioner of management and budget, and are hereby appropriated to the bureau in the quarter in which they were so deposited.
Subd. 3.Leave of absence.
Any peace officer who has been designated to serve as an instructor, researcher or member of a special project for the Peace Officer Training Board may in the discretion of the appointing authority be given up to a 12 month leave of absence with pay from the police department or agency by which employed for the purpose of serving as such instructor, researcher or member of a special project. While serving in such capacity peace officers shall continue to maintain the civil service status they have attained or accrued pursuant to chapters 43A, 44 and 419. The commissioner of management and budget shall reimburse solely from federal funds available for this purpose the respective law enforcement employers of such peace officers for all salaries and contributions such employers make during said leave of absence towards accrual of their civil service benefits, pension fund and hospitalization benefits.
1967 c 870 s 10; 1971 c 615 s 1; 1977 c 433 s 11; 1981 c 210 s 54; 1986 c 444; 2003 c 112 art 2 s 50; 2009 c 101 art 2 s 109
Subdivision 1.Training course attendance; eligibility.
Any peace officer or part-time peace officer employed or elected by any county or municipality of the state of Minnesota shall be eligible to attend training courses as herein provided in accordance with the rules of the board.
Subd. 2.Postsecondary educational institution eligible for training course.
Any student successfully completing a program of law enforcement instruction in a postsecondary educational institution, which program has been certified by the board, and which institution has been approved by the Minnesota state Department of Education or an accredited institution of higher learning shall be eligible to attend a skills oriented basic training course as established under section 626.843. Nothing contained in sections 626.84 to 626.863 shall be construed to preclude the provision of skills oriented basic training courses by certified law enforcement schools providing such course has been certified by the board.
1967 c 870 s 11; 1973 c 565 s 1; 1976 c 52 s 1; 1977 c 433 s 12; 1978 c 681 s 21; 1980 c 578 s 6; 1981 c 310 s 13; 1Sp1995 c 3 art 16 s 13; 1997 c 7 art 1 s 169; 2003 c 130 s 12
A person with a baccalaureate degree from an accredited college or university who has successfully completed a board-certified practical skills oriented basic training course is eligible to take the peace officer licensing examination.
(a) For purposes of this section:
(1) "active service" has the meaning given in section 190.05, subdivision 5; and
(2) "relevant military experience" means:
(i) four years' cumulative service experience in a military law enforcement occupational specialty;
(ii) two years' cumulative service experience in a military law enforcement occupational specialty, and completion of a two-year or more degree from a regionally accredited postsecondary education institution; or
(iii) four years' cumulative experience as a full-time peace officer in another state combined with cumulative service experience in a military law enforcement occupational specialty.
(b) A person is eligible to take the reciprocity examination if the person has relevant military experience and:
(1) has been honorably discharged from military active service as evidenced by the most recent form DD-214; or
(2) is currently in active service as evidenced by:
(i) active duty orders providing service time in military police specialty;
(ii) a United States Department of Defense Manpower Data Center status report pursuant to Service Members Civil Relief Act, active duty status report; or
(iii) Military Personnel Center assignment information.
(c) A person who passed the examination under paragraph (b), clause (2), shall not be eligible to be licensed as a peace officer until honorably discharged as evidenced by the most recent form DD-214.
1Sp2001 c 8 art 7 s 5; 2009 c 94 art 3 s 20; 2013 c 142 art 4 s 11; 2014 c 268 s 1
Each officer when assigned to the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension continuing education courses pursuant to rules of the board shall receive the officer's regular salary and shall be reimbursed by the governing body of the governmental unit or combination of governmental units from which elected or by which employed for the cost of meals, travel, and lodgings while in attendance at the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension courses, not to exceed similar allowance for state employees.
1967 c 870 s 12; 1980 c 578 s 8; 1981 c 310 s 14; 1986 c 444; 1987 c 358 s 131
Metropolitan State University and Minneapolis Community and Technical College, in consultation with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training and state and local law enforcement agencies in the seven-county metropolitan area, shall provide core law enforcement courses in an accelerated time period. The schools shall grant priority admission to students who have a bona fide offer of employment from a Minnesota law enforcement agency. These courses shall be available at the beginning of the 1995-1996 academic year and are contingent on sufficient program enrollment.
The board, Metropolitan State University, and Minneapolis Community and Technical College shall evaluate the accelerated law enforcement education program and report their findings to the 1997 legislature.
1995 c 226 art 4 s 27; 2015 c 21 art 1 s 105
By July 1, 1992, the state university system shall develop a school of law enforcement in the metropolitan area, as defined in section 473.121, subdivision 2, whose mission is to advance the profession of law enforcement. The school may offer professional peace officer education, graduate degree programs, and peace officer continuing education programs, and may conduct applied research.
Except as specifically provided by statute, only a peace officer and part-time peace officer may:
(1) issue a citation in lieu of arrest or continued detention unless specifically authorized by ordinance;
(2) ask a person receiving a citation to give a written promise to appear in court; or
(3) take a person into custody as permitted by section 629.34.
(a) A person who is not a peace officer or part-time peace officer is guilty of a misdemeanor if the person: (1) makes a representation of being a peace officer or part-time peace officer, or (2) performs or attempts to perform an act, duty, or responsibility reserved by law for licensed peace officers and part-time peace officers.
(b) A peace officer who authorizes or knowingly allows a person to violate paragraph (a) is guilty of a misdemeanor.
(c) The board shall designate the appropriate law enforcement agency to investigate violations of this section. The attorney general shall prosecute violations of this section.
(d) A person who violates this section and who has previously been convicted of a violation of this section is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
1987 c 334 s 6; 2005 c 10 art 2 s 4; 2009 c 59 art 5 s 19
Subdivision 1.Background investigation required.
(a) A law enforcement agency shall conduct a thorough background investigation on an applicant for employment as a licensed peace officer or an applicant for a position leading to employment as a licensed peace officer before the applicant may be employed. The background investigation must determine at a minimum whether the candidate meets the following standards:
(1) standards established by the Minnesota Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training; and
(2) established security standards for access to state and national computerized record and communication systems.
(b) This requirement does not prevent a law enforcement agency from establishing higher standards for law enforcement employees if those standards are not contrary to applicable law.
Subd. 2.Disclosure of employment information.
Upon request of a law enforcement agency, an employer shall disclose or otherwise make available for inspection employment information of an employee or former employee who is the subject of an investigation under subdivision 1. The request for disclosure of employment information must be in writing, must be accompanied by an original authorization and release signed by the employee or former employee, and must be signed by a sworn peace officer or other authorized representative of the law enforcement agency conducting the background investigation.
Subd. 3.Refusal to disclose a personnel record.
If an employer refuses to disclose employment information in accordance with this section, upon request the district court may issue an ex parte order directing the disclosure of the employment information. The request must be made by a sworn peace officer from the law enforcement agency conducting the background investigation and must include a copy of the original request for disclosure made upon the employer or former employer and the authorization and release signed by the employee or former employee. The request must be signed by the peace officer requesting the order and an attorney representing the state or the political subdivision on whose behalf the background investigation is being conducted. It is not necessary for the request or the order to be filed with the court administrator. Failure to comply with the court order subjects the person who fails to comply to civil or criminal contempt of court.
In the absence of fraud or malice, an employer is immune from civil liability for employment information released to a law enforcement agency under this section, or for any subsequent publication made by the employee or former employee of employment information released to a law enforcement agency under this section.
Subd. 5.Notice of investigation.
Upon initiation of a background investigation under this section, the law enforcement agency shall give written notice to the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board of:
(1) the candidate's full name and date of birth; and
(2) the candidate's peace officer license number, if known.
The initiation of a background investigation does not include the submission of an application for employment. Initiation of a background investigation occurs when the law enforcement agency begins its determination of whether an applicant meets the agency's standards for employment as a law enforcement employee.
Subd. 6.Confidentiality agreements.
If employment information is subject to a confidentiality agreement between the employee or former employee and the employer, the employer shall disclose the fact that such an agreement exists. If the employee or former employee has authorized the release of employment information without regard to any previous agreement to the contrary, the employer shall also disclose the employment information in accordance with subdivision 2. If employment information is sealed or otherwise subject to a nondisclosure order by a court of competent jurisdiction, the employer shall disclose the fact that such an order exists, along with information identifying the court and court's file number.
Subd. 7.Employment information.
For purposes of this section, "employment information" means written information in connection with job applications, performance evaluations, attendance records, disciplinary actions, and eligibility for rehire.
For purposes of this section, "employer" does not include an entity that is subject to chapter 13.
(a) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given them.
(b) "Peace officer" means an employee of a political subdivision or state law enforcement agency who is licensed pursuant to sections 626.84 to 626.863 charged with the prevention and detection of crime and the enforcement of the general criminal laws of the state and who has full power of arrest, and shall also include Minnesota state troopers, state conservation officers, park police, and University of Minnesota police officers.
(c) "Security guard" means any person who is paid a fee, wage, or salary to perform one or more of the following functions:
(1) prevention or detection of intrusion, unauthorized entry or activity, vandalism, or trespass on private property;
(2) prevention or detection of theft, loss, embezzlement, misappropriation, or concealment of merchandise, money, bonds, stocks, notes, or other valuable documents or papers;
(3) control, regulation, or direction of the flow or movements of the public, whether by vehicle or otherwise, to assure protection of private property;
(4) protection of individuals from bodily harm;
(5) prevention or detection of intrusion, unauthorized entry or activity, vandalism, or trespass on Minnesota National Guard facilities, including, but not limited to, Camp Ripley and Air National Guard air bases; or
(6) enforcement of policies and rules of the security guard's employer related to crime reduction insofar as such enforcement falls within the scope of security guard's duties.
The term "security guard" does not include: (i) auditors, accountants, and accounting personnel performing audits or accounting functions; (ii) employees of a firm licensed pursuant to section 326.3381 whose duties are primarily administrative or clerical in nature; (iii) unarmed security personnel; (iv) personnel temporarily employed pursuant to statute or ordinance by political subdivisions to provide protective services at social functions; (v) employees of air or rail carriers.
(d) "Bail bondsman" or "bail enforcement agent" means a surety acting as a bonding agent or any person who acts at the direction of a surety for the purpose of arresting a defendant that the surety believes:
(1) is about to flee;
(2) will not appear in court as required by the defendant's recognizance; or
(3) will otherwise not perform the conditions of the recognizance.
Subd. 2.Uniforms.
(a) Uniforms for peace officers shall be of uniform colors throughout the state as provided herein. Uniforms for:
(1) municipal peace officers, including University of Minnesota peace officers and peace officers assigned to patrol duties in parks, shall be blue, brown, or green;
(2) peace officers who are members of the county sheriffs' office shall be blue, brown, or green;
(3) state troopers shall be maroon;
(4) conservation officers shall be green.
(b) The uniforms of security guards may be any color other than those specified for peace officers.
(c) The uniforms of a bail bondsman or bail enforcement agent or any person who acts at the direction of a surety may be any color other than those specified for peace officers. A violation of this paragraph is a petty misdemeanor.
(d) This subdivision shall apply to uniforms purchased subsequent to January 1, 1981.
Subd. 3.Exception.
Security guards employed by the Capitol Complex Security Division of the Department of Public Safety are not required to comply with subdivision 2.
1980 c 578 s 9; 1981 c 37 s 2; 1981 c 310 s 16; 1983 c 293 s 109; 1Sp1985 c 10 s 118; 1986 c 444; 1989 c 209 art 2 s 1; 1997 c 7 art 1 s 169; 2005 c 10 art 2 s 4; 2006 c 273 s 13; 2015 c 65 art 3 s 35
For purposes of this section, the terms defined in this subdivision have the meanings given them.
(a) "Administrative hearing" means a nonjudicial hearing or arbitration authorized to recommend, approve, or order discipline.
(b) "Formal statement" means the questioning of an officer in the course of obtaining a recorded, stenographic, or signed statement to be used as evidence in a disciplinary proceeding against the officer.
(c) "Officer" means a licensed peace officer or part-time peace officer, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraphs (c) and (d), who is employed by a unit of government.
Subd. 2.Applicability.
The procedures and provisions of this section apply to law enforcement agencies and government units. The procedures and provisions of this section do not apply to investigations of criminal charges against an officer.
Subd. 3.Governing formal statement procedures.
The formal statement of an officer must be taken in accordance with subdivisions 4 to 10.
Subd. 4.Place of formal statement.
The formal statement must be taken at a facility of the employing or investigating agency or at a place agreed to by the investigating individual and the investigated officer.
Subd. 5.Complaint.
An officer's formal statement may not be taken unless there is filed with the employing or investigating agency a written complaint signed by the complainant stating the complainant's knowledge, and the officer has been given a summary of the allegations. Complaints stating the signer's knowledge also may be filed by members of the law enforcement agency. Before an administrative hearing is begun, the officer must be given a copy of the signed complaint.
Subd. 6.Witnesses; investigative reports.
Upon request, the investigating agency or the officer shall provide the other party with a list of witnesses that the agency or officer expects to testify at the administrative hearing and the substance of the testimony. A party is entitled to copies of any witness statements in the possession of the other party and an officer is entitled to a copy of the investigating agency's investigative report, provided that any references in a witness statement or investigative report that would reveal the identity of confidential informants need not be disclosed except upon order of the person presiding over the administrative hearing for good cause shown.
Subd. 7.Sessions.
Sessions at which a formal statement is taken must be of reasonable duration and must give the officer reasonable periods for rest and personal necessities. When practicable, sessions must be held during the officer's regularly scheduled work shift. If the session is not held during the officer's regularly scheduled work shift, the officer must be paid by the employing agency at the officer's current compensation rate for time spent attending the session.
Subd. 8.Record.
A complete record of sessions at which a formal statement is taken must be made by electronic recording or otherwise. Upon written request of the officer whose statement is taken, a complete copy or transcript must be made available to the officer without charge or undue delay. The session may be tape recorded by the investigating officer and by the officer under investigation.
Subd. 9.Presence of attorney and union representative.
The officer whose formal statement is taken has the right to have a union representative or an attorney retained by the officer, or both, present during the session. The officer may request the presence of the attorney or the union representative, or both, at any time before or during the session. When a request under this subdivision is made, no formal statement may be taken until a reasonable opportunity is provided for the officer to obtain the presence of the attorney or the union representative.
Subd. 10.Admissions.
Before an officer's formal statement is taken, the officer shall be advised in writing or on the record that admissions made in the course of the formal statement may be used as evidence of misconduct or as a basis for discipline.
Subd. 11.Disclosure of financial records.
No employer may require an officer to produce or disclose the officer's personal financial records except pursuant to a valid search warrant or subpoena.
Subd. 12.Release of photographs.
No law enforcement agency or governmental unit may publicly release photographs of an officer without the written permission of the officer, except that the agency or unit may display a photograph of an officer to a prospective witness as part of an agency or unit investigation, and the agency or unit may provide a photograph of an officer to the civilian police review authority for it to display to a prospective witness as part of the authority's investigation.
Subd. 13.Disciplinary letter.
No disciplinary letter or reprimand may be included in an officer's personnel record unless the officer has been given a copy of the letter or reprimand.
Subd. 14.Retaliatory action prohibited.
No officer may be discharged, disciplined, or threatened with discharge or discipline as retaliation for or solely by reason of the officer's exercise of the rights provided by this section.
Subd. 15.Rights not reduced.
The rights of officers provided by this section are in addition to and do not diminish the rights and privileges of officers that are provided under an applicable collective bargaining agreement or any other applicable law.
Subd. 16.Action for damages.
Notwithstanding section 3.736 or 466.03, a political subdivision or state agency that violates this section is liable to the officer for actual damages resulting from the violation, plus costs and reasonable attorney fees. The political subdivision or the state is deemed to have waived any immunity to a cause of action brought under this subdivision, except that the monetary limits on liability under section 3.736, subdivision 4, or 466.04 apply.
Subd. 17.Civilian review.
A civilian review board, commission, or other oversight body shall not have the authority to make a finding of fact or determination regarding a complaint against an officer or impose discipline on an officer. A civilian review board, commission, or other oversight body may make a recommendation regarding the merits of a complaint, however, the recommendation shall be advisory only and shall not be binding on nor limit the authority of the chief law enforcement officer of any unit of government.
1991 c 334 s 1; 2007 c 13 art 3 s 34; 2008 c 205 s 1; 2012 c 156 s 1,2
Local law enforcement agencies, including law enforcement agencies operated by statutory cities, home rule charter cities, and counties, must enter into and honor the memoranda of understanding required under section 135A.15.
2015 c 69 art 4 s 3
As used in this section, "band" means the federally recognized Mille Lacs Band of Chippewa Indians.
Subd. 2.Law enforcement agency.
(a) The band has the powers of a law enforcement agency, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (f), if all of the requirements of clauses (1) to (4) are met:
(1) the band agrees to be subject to liability for its torts and those of its officers, employees, and agents acting within the scope of their employment or duties arising out of a law enforcement agency function conferred by this section, to the same extent as a municipality under chapter 466, and the band further agrees, notwithstanding section 16C.05, subdivision 7, to waive its sovereign immunity for purposes of claims of this liability;
(2) the band files with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training a bond or certificate of insurance for liability coverage with the maximum single occurrence amounts set forth in section 466.04 and an annual cap for all occurrences within a year of three times the single occurrence amount;
(3) the band files with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training a certificate of insurance for liability of its law enforcement officers, employees, and agents for lawsuits under the United States Constitution; and
(4) the band agrees to be subject to section 13.82 and any other laws of the state relating to data practices of law enforcement agencies.
(b) The band shall enter into mutual aid/cooperative agreements with the Mille Lacs County sheriff under section 471.59 to define and regulate the provision of law enforcement services under this section. The agreements must define the trust property involved in the joint powers agreement.
(c) The band shall have concurrent jurisdictional authority under this section with the Mille Lacs County Sheriff's Department only if the requirements of paragraph (a) are met and under the following circumstances:
(1) over all persons in the geographical boundaries of the property held by the United States in trust for the Mille Lacs Band or the Minnesota Chippewa tribe;
(2) over all Minnesota Chippewa tribal members within the boundaries of the Treaty of February 22, 1855, 10 Stat. 1165, in Mille Lacs County, Minnesota; and
(3) concurrent jurisdiction over any person who commits or attempts to commit a crime in the presence of an appointed band peace officer within the boundaries of the Treaty of February 22, 1855, 10 Stat. 1165, in Mille Lacs County, Minnesota.
Subd. 3.Peace officers.
If the band complies with the requirements set forth in subdivision 2, the band is authorized to appoint peace officers, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), who have the same powers as peace officers employed by local units of government.
Subd. 4.County jail.
The sheriff of the county in which the violation occurred is responsible for receiving persons arrested by peace officers appointed under subdivision 3 and acting under the authority conferred by this section.
Subd. 5.Prosecuting authority.
The Mille Lacs County attorney is responsible to prosecute or initiate petitions for any person arrested, investigated, or detained by peace officers appointed under subdivision 3 and acting under the authority conferred by this section.
Subd. 6.Effect on federal law.
Nothing in this section shall be construed to restrict the band's authority under federal law.
Subd. 7.Construction.
This section is limited to law enforcement authority only, and nothing in this section shall affect any other jurisdictional relationships or disputes involving the band or current reservation boundaries or entitle the band as a municipality or subdivision of government to any fine or penalty revenue allocation under section 484.90.
1991 c 189 s 1; 1998 c 386 art 2 s 97; 2000 c 411 s 3; 2005 c 10 art 2 s 4; 2007 c 13 art 3 s 35
As used in this section, "community" means the Lower Sioux Indian Community.
(a) The community has the powers of a law enforcement agency, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (f), if all of the requirements of clauses (1) to (4) are met:
(1) the community agrees to be subject to liability for its torts and those of its officers, employees, and agents acting within the scope of their employment or duties arising out of the law enforcement agency powers conferred by this section to the same extent as a municipality under chapter 466, and the community further agrees, notwithstanding section 16C.05, subdivision 7, to waive its sovereign immunity with respect to claims arising from this liability;
(2) the community files with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training a bond or certificate of insurance for liability coverage with the maximum single occurrence amounts set forth in section 466.04 and an annual cap for all occurrences within a year of three times the single occurrence amount;
(3) the community files with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training a certificate of insurance for liability of its law enforcement officers, employees, and agents for lawsuits under the United States Constitution; and
(4) the community agrees to be subject to section 13.82 and any other laws of the state relating to data practices of law enforcement agencies.
(b) The community shall enter into an agreement under section 471.59 with the Redwood County sheriff to define and regulate the provision of law enforcement services under this section and to provide for mutual aid and cooperation. The agreement must identify and describe the trust property involved in the agreement. For purposes of entering into this agreement, the community shall be considered a "governmental unit" as that term is defined in section 471.59, subdivision 1.
Subd. 3.Concurrent jurisdiction.
The jurisdiction of the community pursuant to this section shall be concurrent with that of the Redwood County sheriff, provided that it shall be limited to persons in the geographical boundaries of property held by the United States in trust for the community.
If the community complies with the requirements set forth in subdivision 2, the community is authorized to appoint peace officers, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), who have the same powers as peace officers employed by the Redwood County sheriff over the persons and the geographic areas described in subdivision 3.
The Redwood County sheriff is responsible for receiving persons arrested by peace officers appointed by the community under subdivision 4 and acting under the authority conferred by this section.
The Redwood County attorney is responsible for prosecuting or initiating petitions for any person arrested, investigated, or detained by peace officers appointed by the community under subdivision 4 and acting under the authority conferred by this section.
Nothing in this section shall be construed to restrict the community's authority under federal law.
This section is limited to law enforcement authority only, and nothing in this section shall affect any other jurisdictional relationships or disputes involving the community.
1997 c 185 s 1; 1998 c 386 art 2 s 98; 2000 c 411 s 4; 2005 c 10 art 2 s 4
As used in this section, "band" means the Fond du Lac Band of Lake Superior Chippewa, a federally recognized Indian tribe organized pursuant to the Indian Reorganization Act of 1934, United States Code, title 25, section 476, and which occupies the Fond du Lac Reservation pursuant to the Treaty of LaPointe, 10 Stat. 1109.
(a) The band has the powers of a law enforcement agency, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (f), if all of the requirements of clauses (1) to (4) and paragraph (b) are met:
(1) the band agrees to be subject to liability for its torts and those of its officers, employees, and agents acting within the scope of their employment or duties arising out of the law enforcement agency powers conferred by this section to the same extent as a municipality under chapter 466, and the band further agrees, notwithstanding section 16C.05, subdivision 7, to waive its sovereign immunity for purposes of claims arising out of this liability;
(2) the band files with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training a bond or certificate of insurance for liability coverage with the maximum single occurrence amounts set forth in section 466.04 and an annual cap for all occurrences within a year of three times the single occurrence amount or establishes that liability coverage exists under the Federal Torts Claims Act, United States Code, title 28, section 1346(b), et al., as extended to the band pursuant to the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act of 1975, United States Code, title 25, section 450f(c);
(3) the band files with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training a certificate of insurance for liability of its law enforcement officers, employees, and agents for lawsuits under the United States Constitution or establishes that liability coverage exists under the Federal Torts Claims Act, United States Code, title 28, section 1346(b) et al., as extended to the band pursuant to the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act of 1975, United States Code, title 25, section 450F(c); and
(b) By July 1, 1998, the band shall enter into written mutual aid or cooperative agreements with the Carlton County sheriff, the St. Louis County sheriff, and the city of Cloquet under section 471.59 to define and regulate the provision of law enforcement services under this section. The agreements must define the following:
(1) the trust property involved in the joint powers agreement;
(2) the responsibilities of the county sheriffs;
(3) the responsibilities of the county attorneys; and
(4) the responsibilities of the city of Cloquet city attorney and police department.
The band shall have concurrent jurisdictional authority under this section with the Carlton County and St. Louis County Sheriffs' Departments over crimes committed within the boundaries of the Fond du Lac Reservation as indicated by the mutual aid or cooperative agreements entered into under subdivision 2, paragraph (b), and any exhibits or attachments to those agreements.
This section is limited to law enforcement authority only, and nothing in this section shall affect any other jurisdictional relationships or disputes involving the band.
1998 c 367 art 11 s 21; 2000 c 411 s 5; 2005 c 10 art 2 s 4
As used in this section, "tribe" means a federally recognized Indian tribe, as defined in United States Code, title 25, section 450b(e), located within the state of Minnesota, but does not include a tribe, band, or community described in section 626.91 or 626.92, or the Mille Lacs Band of Chippewa Indians for purposes of exercising law enforcement authority in Mille Lacs County only under section 626.90. Tribe includes the Mille Lacs Band of Chippewa Indians for purposes of exercising law enforcement authority on Mille Lacs Band of Chippewa Indians Reservation lands which lie outside of Mille Lacs County.
Subd. 2.Tribal law enforcement agency requirements.
A tribe may exercise authority under subdivision 3 only if it satisfies the following requirements:
(1) the tribe agrees to be subject to liability for its torts and those of its officers, employees, and agents acting within the scope of their employment or duties arising out of a law enforcement agency function conferred by section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (f), to the same extent as a municipality under chapter 466, and the tribe further agrees, notwithstanding section 16C.05, subdivision 7, to waive its sovereign immunity with respect to claims arising from this liability;
(2) the tribe files with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training a bond or certificate of insurance for liability coverage with the maximum single occurrence amounts set forth in section 466.04 and an annual cap for all occurrences within a year of three times the single occurrence amount;
(3) the tribe files with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training a certificate of insurance for liability of its law enforcement officers, employees, and agents for lawsuits under the United States Constitution; and
(4) if the tribe's governing body has authorized its peace officers to enforce criminal laws within the boundaries of the tribe's reservation, the tribe agrees to be subject to section 13.82 and any other laws of the state relating to data practices of law enforcement agencies.
If the requirements of subdivision 2 are met and the tribe enters into a cooperative agreement pursuant to subdivision 4, the tribe shall have concurrent jurisdictional authority under this section with the local county sheriff within the geographical boundaries of the tribe's reservation to enforce state criminal law.
Subd. 4.Cooperative agreements.
In order to coordinate, define, and regulate the provision of law enforcement services and to provide for mutual aid and cooperation, governmental units and the tribe shall enter into agreements under section 471.59. For the purposes of entering into these agreements, the tribe shall be considered a "governmental unit" as that term is defined in section 471.59, subdivision 1.
Nothing in this section shall be construed to restrict a tribe's authority under federal law.
This section is limited to law enforcement authority only, and nothing in this section shall affect any other jurisdictional relationships or disputes involving a tribe or current reservation boundaries.
1999 c 175 s 2; 2000 c 411 s 6,7; 2005 c 10 art 2 s 4
As used in this section, "Indian conservation enforcement authority" means:
(1) a federally recognized Indian tribe, as defined in United States Code, title 25, section 450b, subsection (e), located within Minnesota, provided that the tribe has the authority to adopt and enforce game, fish, and natural resources codes governing the conduct of its members within the geographic boundaries of a reservation or in the 1854 or 1837 Ceded Territories; or
(2) an Indian conservation agency having the authority to adopt or enforce game, fish, and natural resources codes and regulations governing the conduct of Indians in the 1854 or 1837 Ceded Territories.
Subd. 2.Indian conservation enforcement authority requirements.
Upon agreement by the commissioner of natural resources, an Indian conservation enforcement authority may exercise authority under subdivision 3 if it satisfies the following minimum requirements:
(1) the Indian conservation enforcement authority agrees to be subject to liability for its torts and those of its officers, employees, and agents acting within the scope of their employment or duties arising out of the conservation enforcement powers conferred by this section to the same extent as a municipality under chapter 466 and the Indian conservation enforcement authority further agrees, notwithstanding section 16C.05, subdivision 7, to waive its sovereign immunity for purposes of claims arising out of the liability;
(2) the Indian conservation enforcement authority files with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training a bond or certificate of insurance for liability coverage with the maximum single occurrence amounts set forth in section 466.04 and an annual cap for all occurrences within a year of three times the single occurrence amounts;
(3) the Indian conservation enforcement authority files with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training a certificate of insurance for liability of its conservation law enforcement officers, employees, and agents for lawsuits under the United States Constitution;
(4) the Indian conservation enforcement authority agrees to be subject to section 13.82 and any other laws of the state relating to data practices of law enforcement agencies;
(5) the Indian conservation enforcement authority enters into a written cooperative agreement with the commissioner of natural resources under section 471.59 to define and regulate the provision of conservation law enforcement services under this section and to provide conservation officers employed by the Department of Natural Resources with authority described in the cooperative agreement to enforce Indian codes and regulations on lands agreed upon within the reservation or ceded territory; and
(6) the Indian conservation enforcement authority appoints a licensed peace officer to serve as a chief law enforcement officer with authority to appoint and supervise the authority's conservation officers under this section.
When entering into an agreement under clause (5), the Indian conservation enforcement authority is considered a "governmental unit" as defined under section 471.59, subdivision 1. Nothing in this section shall be construed to invalidate or limit the terms of any valid agreement approved by a federal court order.
Subd. 3.Jurisdiction.
If the requirements of subdivision 2 are met:
(1) the Indian conservation enforcement authority's chief law enforcement officer may appoint peace officers, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), to serve as conservation officers having the same powers as conservation officers employed by the Department of Natural Resources. The exercise of these powers is limited to the geographical boundaries of the reservation or ceded territory; and
(2) the jurisdiction of conservation officers appointed under this subdivision is concurrent with the jurisdiction of conservation officers employed by the Department of Natural Resources to enforce the state's game and fish, natural resource, and recreational laws within the geographical boundaries of the reservation or ceded territory.
Nothing in this section shall be construed to restrict the Indian conservation enforcement authority's authority under federal law.
This section is limited to conservation enforcement authority only. Nothing in this section shall affect any other jurisdictional relationship or dispute or current agreement.
1Sp2001 c 2 s 149
The attorney general shall operate and maintain a toll-free telephone number for complaints dealing with racial profiling. The attorney general must act as a clearinghouse for racial profiling complaints and must forward complaints to the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board.
Subdivision 1.Grants; cameras described.
Video cameras installed pursuant to grants made by the commissioner of public safety to law enforcement agencies participating in the racial profiling study described in Minnesota Statutes 2006, section 626.951, for the purchase, installation, and maintenance of video cameras on police vehicles designed to record traffic stops must:
(1) be automatically activated during every traffic stop;
(2) contain an audio feature; and
(3) be designed and installed so as to record the stop in its entirety.
Cameras may not be equipped with manual shutoff switches and must be activated for the entirety of a traffic stop.
Subd. 2.Storage of video.
Notwithstanding section 138.163 or 138.17, chief law enforcement officers of agencies receiving grants under this section for video cameras in police vehicles shall ensure that the videotape or disk from the camera be stored for a minimum of 60 days after use. If the chief law enforcement officer has not been instructed by the board or the attorney general to maintain the tape or disk beyond that period, the chief law enforcement officer may reuse it. Tapes and disks must be stored and maintained under this subdivision in an accessible manner. The tapes and disks must be clearly labeled and ordered.
Subd. 3.Availability of videotape.
A chief law enforcement officer shall provide a copy of a videotape or disk that recorded a traffic stop to the driver of the stopped vehicle upon the driver's request and at the driver's expense if the tape or disk has not yet been reused.
1Sp2001 c 8 art 7 s 9; 2013 c 125 art 1 s 100
Subdivision 1.Establishment.
The commissioner of public safety shall establish a Blue Alert system to aid in the identification, location, and apprehension of an individual or individuals suspected of killing or seriously wounding a local, state, or federal law enforcement officer. The commissioner shall coordinate with local law enforcement agencies and public and commercial television and radio broadcasters to provide an effective alert system.
Subd. 2.Criteria and procedures.
The commissioner, in consultation with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training, the Minnesota Police and Peace Officers Association, the Minnesota Chiefs of Police Association, the Minnesota Sheriffs Association, the Minnesota chapter of the National Emergency Number Association, the Minnesota chapter of the Association of Public Safety Communications Officials, and the commissioner of transportation, shall develop criteria and procedures for the Blue Alert system. By October 1, 2015, the commissioner shall adopt criteria and procedures for the Blue Alert system.
Subd. 3.Oversight.
The commissioner shall regularly review the function of the Blue Alert system and revise its criteria and procedures to provide for efficient and effective public notification.
The Blue Alert system shall include all state and local agencies capable of providing urgent and timely information to the public, together with broadcasters and other private entities that volunteer to participate in the dissemination of urgent public information.
Subd. 5.Additional notice.
The commissioner may notify authorities and entities outside of the state upon verification that the criteria established under this section have been met.
Subd. 6.False reports.
A person who knowingly makes a false report that triggers an alert under this section is guilty of a misdemeanor.
2015 c 65 art 3 s 36