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Test Bank For Criminal Investigation 11th Edition by Swanson
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Test Bank For Criminal Investigation 11th Edition by Swanson quantity
Categories: HUMANITIES AND SOCIAL SCIENCES, SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
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Criminal Investigation 11th Edition by Swanson – Test Bank
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
A crime laboratory can help in answering which of the following questions?
Whether a crime has been committed.
Who committed the crime?
Who could not have committed the crime?
All of the preceding are correct.
Forensic science is defined as
the study of physical evidence related to a crime.
that part of science applied to answering legal questions.
a reconstruction of crimes.
science in action.
Which of the following terms deal with the study of physical evidence related to crime?
The National Forensic Science Technology Center was established in 1995. Its primary function(s) is/ are
to help crime laboratories prepare for accreditation.
to improve the techniques of decoding DNA evidence.
to offer continuing education programs for crime laboratory personnel.
both A and C are correct.
The effectiveness of crime laboratory services can be measured in terms of
quality, proximity, and timeliness.
proximity, timeliness, and quantity.
timeliness, quantity, and quality.
leads, arrests, and convictions.
The Daubert case stands for the proposition that for scientific evidence to be admissible in court, it must be
generally acceptable in the scientific community.
proven beyond any doubt.
scientifically valid.
Mitochondrial DNA is found in
Rhesus monkeys.
the body of the cell.
females who have recently given birth.
The effectiveness of DNA evidence in court depends on
the ability of the witness to explain the probability that no other person, except an identical twin has the
. same DNA type as that discovered at the crime scene.
the quality of the evidence analysis that was performed in the crime lab.
the qualifications of the crime lab and the crime lab personnel.
the jurisdiction, the lab technician, and the quality of the equipment used in the analysis.
CODIS is
a computer system linking local, state, and federal agencies to share DNA analysis information.
a computer system of the ATF allowing identification of bullets and shell casings.
a computer system of the FBI allowing identification of bullets and shell casings.
the computer system supporting the Human Genome Program.
Since 1999 law enforcement agencies have begun to access the FBI's new national on-line fingerprint and criminal history databases called
The NIBIN program compares images of which type of evidence?
Blood-alcohol related
Blood-related
Which of the following, for laboratory purposes, is not a category of examinations crime laboratories perform?
Chemical examinations.
Physical examinations.
Documentary examinations.
Videography examinations.
The FBI Crime Laboratory is one of the largest and most comprehensive forensic laboratories and is the only full-service forensic laboratory. When was it established?
The unit of the FBI laboratory which conducts examinations of soils and safe insulation, concrete, plaster, mortar, glass, oil, and other abrasives is the
documents Units.
metallurgy Unit.
firearms Unit.
mineralogy Unit.
Which of the following statements concerning national files housed in the FBI Crime Laboratory is true?
The laboratory is able to determine makes but not models of automobiles involved in hit-and-run cases
. by analyzing and comparing small fragments of paint.
Hairs recovered during investigations can be identified only as to whether the source was human or animal.
The manufacturer of a particular piece of paper can be identified.
The use of files requires that a legal precedent to do so exists.
Problems identified in crime labs in the United States involve all of the following except
lack of training.
thorough accreditation.
DNA contamination.
backlog of cases.
While formal education that scientists receive provides a foundation for learning and understanding the techniques of forensic science, for the most part, courts rely on
additional training.
years of experience.
mentoring by the courts.
both A and B.
What organization is the primary credentialing organization for crime labs?
American Society of Crime Laboratory Directors (ASCLD).
American Crime Laboratory Accreditation Society (ACLAS).
Commission on Crime Laboratory Accreditation (CCLA).
North American Crime Laboratory Association (NACLA).
A technical manual that includes validation studies performed by the lab itself and sets forth standardized methodologies for performing routine tests in the laboratory is the
procedures manual.
lab testing protocol.
Daubert certification rule.
DNA evidence can
identify criminals with amazing accuracy when biological evidence exists.
be used to clear suspects.
exonerate persons who have been mistakenly accused or convicted of crimes.
Public crime laboratories are overwhelmed by backlogs of DNA samples. Which of the following is/are problems that may be associated with this backlog?
Increasing amounts of new DNA evidence.
Lack of storage space for DNA samples.
Limited resources.
All of the preceding are problems that may be associated with this backlog.
What has been identified as the most significant blunder to date in any crime lab within the United States?
The March 2004 arrest of Portland attorney Brandon Mayfield for the Madrid bombing.
The failure to identify the 9/11 hijackers prior to their attack on the United States.
The mis-identification or non-identification of victims from the bombings in New York City.
None of the preceding are failures.
In a recent case, the Supreme Court concluded that latent fingerprint identification evidence as produced by the FBI's procedures met the requirements for admissibility established by Dauber v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals, Inc. What was the name of the case?
Robinette v. Michigan.
United States v. Mitchell.
United States v. Mahoney.
Carroll v. United States.
Which of the following organizations have established a code of ethics for forensic science?
The American Society of Crime Laboratory Directors.
The American Board of Criminalistics.
The Council for the Registration of Forensic Practitioners.
All of the preceding have codes of ethics.
Which of the following is not a requirement of the ethics codes as required by the code of ethics for forensic science?
The terms "forensic science" and "Criminalistics" are often used together. Forensic science is that part of science applied to answering legal questions whereas Criminalistics deals with the study of physical evidence related to a crime.
A morgue is another crime lab that is critical on the forensic scene as it is the place where the cause of death is determined.
There are three primary purposes of a digital crime lab. They are to examine and collect relevant digital evidence and secure evidence that directly involve computer crimes such as money laundering, possessing child pornography, embezzlement, fraud, and identity theft and to prevent and investigate terrorist plots.
Measures of crime laboratory effectiveness are quality, quantity, and timeliness. True False
Frye v. United States (1923) ruled that the results of a "deception test," an early version of the polygraph could be used in court if the operator personally testified to the veracity of the results.
Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals, Inc. applies only to federal courts even though some states have adopted the Daubert
Mitochondrial DNA is found in the mitochondria, which are only in the body of a female who has given birth to a child.
Collecting DNA evidence requires special consideration. Among these considerations, for long-term storage, keep biological evidence in a refrigerator with the temperature between 40 and 55 degrees Fahrenheit.
DNA evidence was first used in court in a trial in England in 1985. True False
Contamination is a big issue in the collection and packaging of evidence containing DNA. Coughing or sneezing while handling DNA evidence can cause contamination.
The ________ is used in the national, state, and local index-system networks to link typing results from unresolved crimes with cases in multiple jurisdictions or persons convicted of offenses specified in the data-banking laws passed by local jurisdictions.
A ________ search is conducted when a DNA sample collected from a crime does not match any of the samples in the data base.
The _______, founded in 1992, is a nonprofit legal organization founded for the purpose of exonerating wrongfully convicted people through DNA testing.
A national online fingerprint and criminal-history database with identification and response capabilities,
________ consists of three integrated segments: the Automated Fingerprint Identification System (AFIS), the Interstate Identification Index (III), and the Identification Tasking and Networking (ITN).
As a joint program of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms (ATF), and the FBI, the ________
integrates all the elements of Ceasefire and Brasscatcher (both former ATF programs and Drugfire (an FBI program).
The ________ Crime Laboratory is one of the largest and most comprehensive forensic laboratories and is the only full service forensic laboratory.
The ________ unit of the FBI laboratory is called on to restore obliterated or altered numbers on such things as firearms, sewing machines, outboard motors, etc.
The FBI's ________ contains over 3,500 handguns and 2,000 shoulder weapons and is used for identifying gun parts and locating serial numbers.
In addition to problems with backlogs of cases at crime labs, both state and local labs reported that their main concern for their DNA programs was the _______.
In a recent case, ________ v. _______, the court concluded that latent fingerprint identification evidence, as produced by the FBI's procedures, met the requirements of admissibility established by Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals, Inc.
Define "forensic science" and "Criminalistics."
What difficulties are caused by an investigator not understanding the capabilities and limitations of crime laboratories?
Describe the measures of effectiveness of crime laboratories.
Distinguish the Frye test from the Daubert test regarding the admissibility of scientific evidence.
Describe the role and importance of DNA analysis in criminal investigation.
What are the primary DNA Analysis techniques used since 1985?
Describe NIBIN, IAFIS, and CODIS.
Describe AFIS.
When body fluids are submitted to a laboratory for analysis, how are the specimens handled in light of concerns about the transmittal of hepatitis and AIDS?
55. What limitations are placed on the submission of evidence to the FBI laboratory
The individual best suited to conduct autopsies is a(n)
forensic pathologist.
Which statement about rigor mortis is most accurate?
The process is accelerated in cooler environmental temperatures and retarded in warmer ones.
The process is retarded in cooler environmental temperatures and accelerated in warmer ones.
Body temperature and metabolic rate have no effect on how quickly rigor mortis sets in.
Once the body becomes stiff with rigor mortis, it remains stiff indefinitely.
Livor mortis is caused by
blows from a blunt object.
gunshot wounds.
settling of the blood.
Which of the questions about livor mortis is least accurate?
When considered with other factors it may help estimate the time of death.
May indicate whether the body has been moved after death.
It alone will positively determine the time of death.
DThe actual coloration of the skin may indicate the cause of death as in the case of carbon monoxide
. poisoning, certain forms of cyanide poisoning, or extreme cold when the color of the lividity is not purplish but cherry red.
A cadaveric spasm typically involves a decedent's hand tightly clutching a weapon, usually a gun, a knife, or a razor at the moment of death. What is the name commonly associated with this situation?
Livor mortis extendus.
Death grip.
Cadaveric spasm death grip.
Rigor mortis extendus.
The study of insects associated with a dead body, which is used to determine the elapsed time since death is called
forensic insectomology.
forensic bugology.
forensic entomology.
forensic rigorology.
Which of the following statements about a bullet entry wound is not correct?
The entry wound is smaller than the diameter of a bullet.
The slower the bullet speed, the smaller the entry wound.
C In a favorable case, the rifling marks on the bullet leave such a distinct mark in the contusion ring that . the number of groves in the rifling can be counted.
All of the preceding are correct statements.
Which of the following is a characteristic of an entry gunshot wound?
The wound is usually larger than exit wounds.
The wound is normally smaller in diameter than the projectile that makes the wound.
The wound does not have a gray ring around it.
Entry gunshot wounds to the head are always fatal.
Which gun shot residue metal is of interest to analysts?
Which is the most accurate statement about gun shot residue (GSR)?
GSR will tell the investigators is guilty of the crime
B.GSR will tell investigators if someone has handled a firearm or come into contact with something that was near a firearm discharge
GSR will remain on the hands for up to a week
None of the above are correct
Incised wounds are inflicted by
blunt objects.
ice picks.
sharp-edged instruments.
What type wound typically bleeds freely and characteristically is accompanied by bruising around the edges?
Puncture wounds.
Laceration wounds.
Defense wounds.
May be any of the wounds depending on what weapon was used to cause the injury.
Which types of wound are normally small, produce little or no bleeding and can be easily overlooked?
Which statement about ligature strangulation is most correct?
Females predominate as victims.
Suicides and accidents involving death by the use of a ligature are quite common.
This mechanism of death is quite different than that of hanging.
Consciousness is lost in 10 to 15 minutes.
According to the textbook, there are nine methods most commonly employed in suicides. Which of the following is/are not one of the methods?
Jumping from high places.
Cutting and piercing.
In a hanging death, where is livor mortis most pronounced?
In the lower portions of the arms and legs.
In the jaw.
Around the face and lips.
All of the preceding are where livor mortis is most pronounced in a death by hanging.
In a drowning case, which of the following may occur in drowning victims?
The mastoid cells of the ear have hemorrhaged.
There may be water in the stomach and duodenum.
Algae and other marine particles may be found in the stomach and adhering to the sides of the air passages.
All of the preceding may be found in a drowning victim.
The gas most frequently involved in medico-legal investigations is
carbon dioxide.
carbon monoxide.
Which of the following statements about suicide are incorrect?
Suicides notes are not left in most suicides.
The attempted suicide rate is higher for women than men.
There is no difference between note writers and non-note writers in the methods used to kill themselves.
If women use a firearm, the wound is usually in the body and not in the head.
During a fire death, the victim's skull may be fractured. The investigator must do a careful exam to determine if the fracture is implosive or explosive. What does an implosive fracture indicate?
It may have been caused by a fall.
It may be evidence of a previous felonious assault or homicide.
It may result from a collapsed structural member.
It may be any of the preceding.
The so-called pugilistic attitude of the body is
a natural result of the dehydrating effect caused by the heat from the fire.
an indicator that the victim was attempting to fight off his attacker when he died.
commonly seen in older victims but less common in those under the age of 45.
D.may be any of the preceding depending on the temperature of the fire and how long the victim was alive after the fire began.
Which one of the following is not the typical type of offense reported to the National Center for the Analysis of Violent Crime for analysis?
Sexually oriented murder or assault by mutilation or torture, dismemberment, violent sexual trauma, or asphyxiation
Robbery, murder, and nonfatal robbery with extreme violence
Bank robbery in which the teller was murdered
Which of the following are myths about serial killers?
Serial killers are always a white male
Serial killers are all dysfunctional loners
All serial killers are motivated by sex
All of the above are myths
Homicides are divided into two broad categories which are
Murder and attempted murder
Felonious and nonfelonious homicides
Murder and homicide
In the attempt to determine time of death, several physic-chemical changes are used. These are
algor mortis, rigor mortis and tigor mortis
rigor mortis, tigor mortis and livor mortis
algor mortis, rigor mortis and livor mortis
tigor mortis, algor mortis and livor mortis
The investigation of felonious injuries and criminal homicides are viewed as among the most serious offenses committed in our society even though the "weak" penalties do not reflect society's concerns. True False
Using a dead body checklist will help to ensure that all physical evidence is collected. True False
Determination of the time of death or the interval between the time of death and the time that a body is found can be difficult. A forensic pathologist attempts to determine the time of death as accurately as possible, realizing that such a determination is only a best estimate.
After death, the muscles of a body initially become flaccid, within 1-3 hours, they become increasingly rigid and the joints freeze. This is a condition called algor mortis.
Bacteria inhabit the body and after death, they proliferate. The different rates and types of decomposition a body undergoes depend on the environment and all areas may not deteriorate at the same rate.
The maggot infested remains of a body can still provide an estimate of the time of death. This is accomplished by inspection of the blow flies on the body and an analysis of the oldest insect stage. True False
When a bullet penetrates the skin, the skin is pressed inward, stretched, and perforated in the stretched position. The entrance wound will be larger than the exit wound because the bullet deforms after stretching the skin and there will not be as much of the bullet to exit the body.
A contact bullet wound is made when the muzzle of the weapon is pressed against the body when the shot is fired.
In a close shot, powder residues occur on the object fired at in the form of incompletely and completely burned powder.
Shotgun pellets very rarely exit the body except when used as instruments of suicide in the chest region.
The weapon most frequently used in assaults resulting in ________ wounds once was the ice pick but is less common today.
________ wounds are suffered by victims attempting to protect themselves from an assault, often by a knife or club.
While in most cases of ________ strangulation, the assailant uses more force than is necessary to subdue and kill the victim, hence, marks of violence are frequently present on the skin of the neck.
For the investigator, a major concern in an apparent suicide case is to make certain that the death was self-induced and not the result of a _______.
Hangings are sometimes accidental. The individual may have himself in a modified hanging position while masturbating and accidentally slip resulting in death known as _______.
Small vessels in the eye bleeding owing to an increase in blood pressure caused by compression around the neck is ________ hemorrhaging.
The ingestion of liquid ________ is sometimes clear from outward signs on the body, causing considerable damage to lips, tongue, and mouth.
Burns are medically classified into four types. ________ burns are superficial and limited to the outer layers of skin.
The so-called ________ attitude of the body is a natural result of the dehydrating effect caused by the heat from the fire and is not related to the cause or manner of death.
______________ is described as a number of murders (four or more) occurring during the same incident, with no distinctive time period between the murders.
Discuss the differences between felonious and nonfelonious homicide.
While abusers use a wide variety of instruments to assault children, the two most common are the
belt and electric cord.
hairbrush and clothes hanger.
clothes hanger and electric cord.
electric cord and hairbrush.
Which type of burn injury is a partial-thickness burn, part of the skin is damaged, blisters contain clear fluid, and has pink underlying tissue?
First Degree.
Second Degree.
Third Degree.
Fourth Degree.
Which of the following is not one of the commonly recognized deliberate immersion burn characteristics?
Doughnut pattern in the buttocks.
Sparing of the soles of the feet.
A non-uniform depth of burn pattern.
Stocking or glove pattern burns.
The most common type of instrument used to inflict contact burns in child abuse cases is
caustic chemicals.
hot food.
brush burns.
Which statement most accurately describes Munchausen's Syndrome by Proxy (MSBP)?
It is a form of child abuse in which the abuser fabricates an illness in a child.
It is a form of sex abuse typically done by a sibling.
Most offenders are fathers.
The mortality rate for victims of MSBP is quite low.
Which of the following is not usually a characteristic external appearance of a SIDS victim?
A state of malnutrition and dehydration.
A wet diaper full of stool.
Bruise-like marks found on the head or body limbs.
Vomitus found on the face.
Which characteristic most aptly applies to this situational child molester?
Has a true sexual preference for children.
Usually has a fewer number of different child victims.
Never abuses anyone except children.
Are always members of the higher socio-economic group.
Which type of child molester has a sexual preference for children, their sexual fantasies and erotic imagery focus on children, and they engage in highly predictable sexual behavior?
Preferential child molesters.
Regressed child molesters.
Inadequate child molesters.
Sexually indiscriminate child molester.
There are three developmental issues that are important when allegations of sexual abuse arise. Which of the following is not one of the issues?
Child's developmental level relative to other children in his or her age group.
Child's ability to describe the offenses that occurred to him or her.
Child's developmental level with regard to sexuality.
Child's ability to respond adequately to interviews and to testify in court.
Anatomically detailed dolls, when used properly can facilitate and enhance interviews with children. Which of the below statements is/are correct?
Can help establish rapport and with the interviewer and reduce stress.
Can reduce vocabulary problems.
Can establish competency and enhance the quality of information received from the child.
All of the preceding statements are correct.
Sexually abused children were more likely to demonstrate certain behaviors. Which of the following statements is not one of those behaviors?
Poor self-esteem.
Aggressive behaviors.
Extroverted behaviors.
The severe intentional application of violent force, in one or more episodes, that results in intracranial injuries to the child is called
Shaken Baby Syndrome (SBS)
Baby Inguinal Trauma (BIT)
None of the above is correct
Situational child molesters tend to follow certain patterns of behavior. Which of the following in not one of these patterns?
Regressed
Morally indiscriminate
Which of the following is a legal description of child pornography?
The sexually explicit reproduction of a child's image and includes sexually explicit photographs.
The permanent record of the sexual abuse or exploitation of an actual child.
C.The visual depiction of a minor (as defined by statue) that is sexually explicit (not necessarily obscene unless required by state law).
All of the preceding are legal descriptions of child pornography.
Where does much of the commercial child pornography distributed in the United States originate from?
Underground child pornography rings, primarily on the West Coast of the United States.
From Mexico.
From foreign countries.
From producers in New York City.
Which of the following is/are uses of child pornography?
Sexual arousal and gratification of pedophiles.
To lower a child's inhibitions and for blackmail.
A medium of exchange and for profit.
All of the preceding are uses of child pornography.
Which federal law deals with child pornography and the Internet?
Child Pornography Prevention Act (CPPA).
S.A. Patriot ACT (USAPA).
The Federal Mann Act.
All of the preceding deals with some aspect of child pornography and the Internet.
Which statement about infant abductors is most accurate?
Usually women.
Usually involve much violence.
Are done for revenge or ransom.
Abductions are always made near the kidnapper's home.
Which statement about the AMBER Plan is most accurate?
The AMBER Plan is a voluntary partnership between law enforcement agencies and broadcasters to
. activate an urgent news bulletin in child abduction cases.
BThe AMBER Plan is a mandatory partnership between law enforcement agencies and broadcasters to
. activate an urgent news bulletin in the most serious child abduction cases.
It is a system to alert police officers when a pedophile is seen lurking around schools.
It is a plan which all hospitals have to prevent infant abduction.
The first act passed by Congress relating to sex offender registration was
the Jacob Wetterling Crimes Against Children and Sexually Violent Registration Act.
the Megan Kanka Crimes Against Children and Sexually Violent Registration Act.
the Lindbergh Crimes Against Children and Sexually Violent Registration Act.
the Pam Lychner Crimes Against Children and Sexually Violent Registration Act.
Sixty five years ago, surveys of public school teachers indicated the most pressing classroom problems were
tardiness, talkative students, and gum chewing.
drugs and sexual assaults.
drugs and weapons on campus.
drugs, sex offenses and assaults against teachers.
Threat is an expression of the intent to do harm or act out violently against someone or something. Threat assessment rests on two critical principles: that all threats and all threateners are not equal; and that
all threats must be treated equally.
all threats must be evaluated to determine what action, if any, should be taken.
most threateners are unlikely to carry out their threats.
both A and C.
In threat assessment, what is meant by the term "leakage?"
This indicates that the threatener has a low tolerance for frustration.
A student has revealed clues to feelings that may signal an impending act.
This indicates a sign of depression in a student prior to a violent act.
A student uses this to mask his/her low self-esteem.
Threats can be classified into four categories: a direct threat, an indirect threat, a veiled threat, and
an immediate threat.
an impending threat.
an incidental threat.
a conditional threat.
What is meant by the term "rapid response deployment or quick action deployment?"
Training for patrol officers in responding to incidents of school violence.
A new method of training SWAT teams for school violence.
Training for school personnel to teach them how to defuse a potentially violent situation.
Teaching students how to extricate themselves safely from a violent situation.
The most common cause of child deaths is physical abuse, often by their own parents. True False
Spill/splash injuries occur when a child falls or is placed into a container of hot liquid. True False
A contact burn occurs when a child's skin comes into contact with a flame or a hot solid object. True False
The phrase "shaken-baby syndrome" was coined to explain instances in which severe intracranial trauma occurs in the absence of signs of external head trauma.
Munchausen syndrome by Proxy is a psychological disorder in which the parent or caretaker attempts to elicit sympathy for him/her self by injuring or inducing illness in a child.
Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is a crime and a lack of knowledge of its elements can cause individuals involved in the investigation to arrive at an improper decision.
Kenneth V. Lanning, supervisory special agent of the Federal Bureau of Investigation, divides child molesters into two categories: situational and preferential.
A regressed offender usually has high self-esteem, high coping skills and turns to children as a sexual substitute.
The preferential child molester engages children in sexual activity by seducing them – courting them with attention, affection, and gifts.
The sadistic pattern of behavior characterizes the offender who has a sexual preference for children but who, in order to be aroused or gratified, must inflict pain or suffering on the victim.
An aid in interviewing children who have been sexually abused or have witnessed such abuse are the
________ dolls with all body parts.
_______________ is defined as using the Internet, cellular phone, or other technology to harass another person.
________________ occurs when a student intentionally or unintentionally reveals clues to feelings, thoughts, fantasies, attitudes, or intentions that may signal an impending violent act.
________ can be behaviorally (not legally) defined as the sexually explicit reproduction of a child's image and includes sexually explicit photographs.
Tourism organized with the primary purpose of facilitating the effecting of a commercial-sexual relationship with a child is called _______.
The ________ (CPPA) makes it a crime to sell, possess with intent to sell, download, or produce child pornography or any visual depiction that is intended to represent or resemble child pornography.
The best tool to protect children from Internet crime is ________ and parental involvement.
________ is the taking of a child less than one year old by a nonfamily member.
The ________ is a voluntary partnership between law enforcement agencies, state transportation officials and radio, television and internet broadcasters to activate an urgent news bulletin in child abduction cases.
A threat is an expression of the intent to do harm or act out violently against someone or something and threat assessment rests on two critical principles: that all threats and threateners are not equal; and that most threateners are ________ to carry out their threats.
What is the mechanism of injuries of Shaken Baby Syndrome?
The importance of robbery resides in its
economics and fear that its creates.
frequency and the potential for violence.
resistance to investigative efforts.
Which of the following is not one of the elements of the crime of robbery?
Taking and carrying away.
The personal property of another.
With the intent to deprive permanently.
Without the use of force, fear, or threat of force.
Robbery is a face-to-face confrontation between the victim and perpetrator. Why is it that many times witnesses are unable to provide much descriptive info about the perpetrator?
The perpetrator wore a mask of some type.
The witnesses are able to provide information about the suspect.
Witnesses are often upset and may have seen the perpetrator only briefly.
The witnesses observe the perpetrator but are reluctant to describe him/her for fear of reprisals.
In reference to the crime of robbery, trespassory is
the illegal taking of property.
the carrying away of the property taken.
the taking of property.
It may be any of the preceding depending on which type of crime occurred.
Which of the following statements is true?
A primary tactical objective of an officer responding to a robbery in progress call is perpetrator apprehension.
Approximately 60% of robberies are by armed suspects.
Robbery is basically in interracial crime.
All of the preceding are false.
When armed robbery is committed, the perpetrator is most likely to have
brass knuckles.
martial arts weapons.
a knife.
a handgun.
Based upon the amount of planning, three styles of robbery can be identified. These are the
ambush, selective raid, planned operation.
cowboy, group, and professional.
unplanned, simple plan, and detailed plan.
cowboy, simple plan, selective raid.
A style of robbery that involves no planning and depends almost entirely on the element of surprise is the
selective raid.
planned operation.
stealth raid.
A minimal amount of casual planning is indicative of the
In 93 percent of visible street robberies, the victim is
going to or from a leisure activity.
within five miles of his/her home.
Youthful robbers are likely to commit strong arm robberies in which no weapon is involved and in which they suddenly attack and beat the victim. What is another name for this type of robbery?
Kidnap assault.
Felony assault.
Aggravated battery.
The term "carjacking" originated in
New Orleans.
Los Angeles.
Home invasion robberies typically target the
potential for "gain."
Which is true about ATM robberies?
The victim is with an acquaintance 96 percent of the time.
Typically the suspect is unarmed.
Typically the victim is a lone woman.
None of the choices are correct.
What is the highest risk job for being a victim of a violent crime at work?
Convenience store clerk.
Taxi cab driver.
ATM repairer.
Motel clerk.
What is the reason(s) for the decline in ATM robberies?
ATM locations are designed where a customer has a high visibility of their surroundings.
ATM's use landscaping of 24 inches or less.
ATM's are well lit at night.
All of the preceding are reasons for the decline.
When choosing a store to rob, which of the following factors are important to the robber?
The amount of money they can get.
Escape route.
A lone employee.
All of the preceding are important factors.
Truck-hijacking is most often committed by
experienced armed robbers.
ex-truckers.
inexperienced armed robbers.
Which of the following statements about truck hijacking is/are correct?
The driver may be cooperating with the hijackers.
Hijackers tend to steal high value and/or easy to dispose of goods.
Hijackings occur more frequently in or near large cities.
What is the main purpose of a greeter at a bank?
Welcome customers and aid them in conducting their bank business in the most efficient and effective
. manner, and to promote good will.
To remotely trigger the dye pack as the robber leaves the bank with the money.
To welcome customers and reduce the anonymity of a would-be robber.
None of the preceding.
Cash with sequential serial numbers that are recorded by the bank is
a tracking device.
bait money.
bandit barriers.
limiting cash access.
When the officers' expectations are so set to see one thing that he or she fails to perceive the event accurately is termed
action stereotyping.
physical stereotyping.
situational stereotyping.
racial stereotyping.
The officers' previous experience with, and knowledge of, a particular location increases their vulnerability and is known as
An officer's expectations that the robber will be of a particular description or have difficulty believing witnesses descriptions is a definition of
The purpose of running a file check on robbery victims is to see if
there are any outstanding warrants on them.
they gave their true identity.
they have a history of making criminal complaints.
All of the choices are correct.
Due to its personal and often violent nature, robbery is one of the crimes most feared by the public, a fear that may be heightened by perceptions of police inability to deal effectively with robberies.
Robbery consists of the following elements: (1) taking and (2) carrying away of (3) personal property of (4) another, with (5) the intent to deprive permanently, without (6) the use of force, fear, or threat of force.
In approximately 85% of robberies, the perpetrator is armed, primarily with either with a gun or knife.
The objective of the confrontation between robber and victim is to get the victim's immediate compliance.
Home-invasion robberies typically target those residences wherein the suspect believes there is a lot of "loot" to be obtained.
Taxicab drivers are easy targets because they work alone, are available at all times of the day and night, do business on a cash basis, and can be called or directed to locations that favor the offenders.
Convenience stores account for approximately 50% of all reported robberies as these stores do a lot of business in cash, are open 24 hours per day, have many locations, and little or no protection from robberies.
Truck hijacking is normally committed by experienced armed robbers acting on inside information. True False
Bank robberies, and for that matter, most robberies appear to be well-planned offenses committed by professional criminals.
Research suggests that many bank robberies are spontaneous and opportunistic crimes that are often acts of desperation.
Getaway vehicles are more prevalent when there are ________ or more offenders.
Some banks conceal electronic ________ with the robbery money, thus aiding police in locating offenders.
Some banks use ________ to prevent stolen money from being used as they stain both the money and the robber.
The FBI recommends that banks install bullet-resistant glass referred to as ________ between tellers and customers.
Ninety-eight percent of robbed banks have interior surveillance cameras but this does not appear to deter bank robbers. The reason for their perceived ineffectiveness is that they do not believe they will be
_______.
Banks have employed a wide variety of ________ strategies that are designed to make the bank interior appear inhospitable to would-be robbers.
________ stereotyping occurs when an officer's expectations to see one thing are so set that the officer fails to perceive the event accurately.
The primary objectives of officers responding to a robbery call are ________ safety, officer protection, and tactical control of the scene.
________ stereotyping is an officer's expectations that the robber will be of a particular description.
Another aspect of ________ stereotyping is that the investigator may have difficulty in believing witnesses' descriptions.
What are the elements of the crime of robbery?
Give a profile of visible street robberies.
When is purse snatching a robbery?
Give three explanations for the increase in carjackings.
Discuss how home invaders operate.
When tools used in burglaries are recovered at the scene, they most often will be
highly sophisticated.
unlike most household tools.
technologically advanced.
similar to those found in households.
Most residential burglaries are characterized by entry through a
entry point which was unlocked.
Which of the following best describes those persons most often arrested for burglary?
Young females under 25.
Middle aged males.
White males.
Males between 30-40.
The most useful way to classify burglars is by which of the following?
Their age.
Their skill.
Their targets.
Their education.
A method of burglary in which the offenders steal a car and drive it though the front door of a business, grab what they can and leave is called
crash and go burglary.
slash and smash burglary.
smash and grab burglary
get and go burglary.
Which type burglar typically does few crimes annually but accounts for the largest "haul" (steals the most)?
Drug addicts.
Which of the following is not an element of the crime of burglary?
With the intent to commit a crime therein.
Amateur burglars often operate on the basis of
What is the minimum number of police units required to secure a building with a burglary suspect inside while awaiting reinforcements to conduct the search?
Which of the following is indicative of a juvenile burglar?
Destructive acts of vandalism.
Removal of prize trophies.
Theft of a car taken after a home was burglarized.
A semi-organized crime scene.
Which of the following would not generally be considered a burglary tool?
A burglary has occurred but no apparent force was used. This is referred to as a
SWAT entry.
stealth entry.
surreptitious entry.
quiet entry.
The act of slipping open or shimming, by using a strip of celluloid, a spring-bolt lock that does not have an antishim device is called
picking the lock.
illegal manipulation of the lock.
may be any of the preceding depending on the value of the items taken.
Which type of safe historically had square or rectangular doors and was intended primarily to protect stored money and documents from being destroyed in a fire?
Fire-resistant safe.
Money chests.
Burglar resistant safes.
Both B and C
Which type safe historically had round doors, was made of heavier metal, and were insulated to provide fire protection?
Which of the following is/are method(s) of attacking a safe?
Punch, pulling.
Peel, rip.
Blasting, manipulation.
All of the preceding are methods of attacking a safe.
To reduce the risk of residential burglary, the homeowner should
Stop mail and paper deliveries while out of town
Put up "Beware of Dog" signs
Use motion sensors and timers on lights and appliances
All of the above will help reduce the risk of burglary
Which of the following is not a method of attacking a safe?
Carry-off.
Burning or torch job.
All of the above are methods for attacking a safe
ATM attacks may yield considerable evidence. Which of the following is not a type of evidence expected to be found at an ATM attack?
Tire and shoe impressions.
Blood from skinned hands.
Food wrappers.
All of the preceding may be found at an ATM attack.
Which of the following homeowner groups are victimized at a higher rate than any other group?
Black home owners.
White home owners.
Hispanic home owners.
Asian home owners.
Which of the following is most accurate with respect to burglary victims?
They have little emotional reaction.
They often struggle psychologically afterward.
They often have physiological problems afterward.
They often move to new locations.
Burglars tend to commit their crimes for four broad reasons. Which of the following is not one of the reasons?
Keeping their families fed, clothed, and sheltered.
Keeping the party going.
Keeping up appearances so they can look better off financially.
All of the preceding are reasons.
In most states, breaking into cars, recreational vehicles, and trailers constitutes burglary. Which categories of burglars tend to target these vehicles?
Which group of fences often buy only the goods for which the have placed an order with the thief or only from a thief who works for them relatively full time?
Amateur fences.
Store owners and individuals.
"Invisible" fences.
Criminal fences.
What is the purpose of a police sting operation?
Combating fences.
Identifying active criminals.
Recovering stolen property.
All of the preceding are purposes of a police sting.
The two most striking aspects of burglary are its frequency and economic impact. True False
During the preliminary investigation, officers do not have to be concerned about the possibility of the burglary being staged as this determination is the responsibility of the assigned investigator.
A smash and grab burglary is where the perpetrator throws a brick through the window of a business, seizes what can immediately be taken and leaves the scene.
The most useful classification for burglars is their preferences for premises to be attacked and types of property taken.
Burglary and other offenses are classified as crimes against habitation as long as the building is occupied (occupant does not have to be present during the burglary).
According to the textbook, most burglars prefer to be unarmed because, in many states, breaking and entering while armed is a more serious offense that an unarmed breaking and entering.
Juvenile burglars commonly commit destructive acts of vandalism. True False
The weight or dimensions of property taken in a burglary may suggest the number of people involved in the offense.
Apprehension of a person not engaged in burglary but in possession of burglary tools does not allow for the charging of a person with a crime.
Loiding is the act of slipping open or shimming, by using a strip of celluloid, a spring-bolt lock that does not have an antishim device.
The scenes of safe burglaries are usually ________ with respect to physical evidence.
________ or burglar resistant safes, historically have had round doors, were made of heavier metal and were insulated to provide fire protection.
Depending on the circumstances, particles of _____ may be found on the perpetrators' tools, their clothing, under their fingernails, in their shoes, pants cuffs, or other personal items.
In an ATM attack, the stand-alone ATM is physically _________________ to a waiting panel truck, a truck with a lift, a pickup, or a U-Haul-type truck.
With regard to residential burglaries ________ homeowners are victimized at the highest rate.
Whereas amateur burglars act on impulse, the ________ burglars are less likely to take chances.
Alarms and ________ locks are a deterrent to amateur burglars but not to more professional ones.
Criminal ________ are persons who knowingly purchase stolen property at a fraction of its cost and then resell it at a considerable profit.
A police ________ is an effective means of combating fences.
A burglary investigation _____________ makes no distinction between the tasks associated with initiating the incident report and those associated with the follow-up investigation, so that the entire scope of investigative tasks can be seen at once.
Describe the dimensions of the crime of burglary.
What is the profile of those arrested for burglary?
What are the elements of the crime of burglary?
What considerations are important in approaching the scene of a burglary?
How are attacks on stand-alone ATMs committed?
How do burglars get their information?
Motor vehicle thefts generally fall into one of four categories. Which category is most often engaged in by juveniles, those 15-19, who steal a car simply to drive it around before abandoning it?
Temporary theft.
Professional theft.
A chop shop is a place where vehicles are
cut into pieces for easy delivery to recyclers.
disassembled for resale of their parts.
disposed of for insurance purposes.
The vehicle parts which have the greatest value in a chop shop operation are
those with identifiable numbers.
those with no identifiable numbers.
the costliest parts.
the unpainted parts.
In order for a successful salvage switch operation to work, the thief must be able to acquire a salvaged vehicle that
has all identifying numbers removed.
is no more than three model years old.
has all major component parts even if some of those parts are severely damaged.
is accompanied by the VIN plate and title.
A "paper" vehicle is
an insured vehicle that does not exist.
a cheaply manufactured vehicle.
an import vehicle.
an involved vehicle that leaves the scene of an accident without being identified.
The process of title "washing" involves
replacing a title that is destroyed by water or by an act of God.
replacing a title that is literally washed with clothes.
removing a brand from a title.
removing a lien satisfaction from a title.
According to the textbook, what is the primary reason an owner would file a phony-theft loss claim?
Avoid liability for some conduct that resulted from the use of the vehicle.
Reduce their financial loss.
Neither A or B
A vehicle exists, actually belongs to the insured, and is actually stolen. How does fraud occur in this type of situation?
The fraud occurs when the insured makes a false claim concerning the physical or mechanical
. condition of the vehicle when it was stolen.
The fraud occurred when the owner initially purchased the vehicle and insured it for more than it was worth.
The vehicle that exists is not the vehicle that is on the insurance policy.
"Heavy equipment" is a descriptive term for
lawn and garden equipment.
construction and farm equipment.
all equipment manufactured by John Deere, Caterpillar, Ford, and Navistar.
mechanical equipment weighing over 25,000 pounds.
Which of the following contributes to the causes and problems of investigating the theft of heavy equipment?
The absence of titling and registration requirements.
The lack of a uniform vehicle identification numbering system.
The lack of an effective inventory control system.
Cargo crime involves all of the following except
product piracy.
product burglary.
The National Insurance Crime Bureau is
an agency in the U.S. Justice Department.
a branch of the FBI.
a non-law enforcement agency created by insurance companies.
a division of the U.S. Department of Transportation.
Which of the following statements about the National Insurance Crime Bureau (NCIB) is/are correct?
The National Automobile Theft Bureau was formed in 1912 and is the forerunner of NCIB.
The NCIB is not a government organization.
C The NCIB assists in the identification of vehicles and helps educate law enforcement officers in . investigative techniques of vehicle identification, fraud, and theft.
What does the National Motor Vehicle Title Information System provide to its users?
Whether the vehicle was stolen.
If a vehicle incapable of being transferred.
C Provide a system whereby a potential purchaser of a used vehicle will be able to inquire about the status . of a vehicle before a final commitment to purchase.
All of the preceding.
After 9-11, Customs was moved from the Treasury Department. Where is it located now?
Department of Homeland Security.
Bureau of Customs and Border Protection.
Immigration and Naturalization Service.
Investigators spend a great deal of time on vehicle identification because
identification is necessary to establish that a theft has occurred.
without positive identification, a manufacturer cannot file a complaint.
it is a difficult task.
law enforcement generally does not know how to properly identify vehicles.
All of the following identifiers are part of the 17 character standardized VIN except
engine type.
body style.
country of manufacturer.
The system implemented in 1981 to provide positive, individualized vehicle identification was
the Motor Vehicle Theft Law Enforcement Act.
the 17 character standardized VIN.
the confidential engine number.
the acid restoration system.
What is a "gray-market vehicle?"
A vehicle not manufactured for sale or operation in the United States.
A vehicle that was "scrapped" and is now back in the market place.
A gray market vehicle refers to the "paint scheme" of the vehicle.
A vehicle whose VIN plate and the VIN numbers on parts are not in agreement.
Among the purposes of the Motor Vehicle Theft Law Enforcement Act of 1984 was
the provision of a system of permanent identification numbers for most unmarked major component parts.
the discouragement of theft.
easing the identification of recovered vehicles and parts.
Theft deterrent devices are of two types-passive or active. Which of the following is an example of an active device?
Audible alarm.
A boot.
Ignition lock collars.
All of the preceding can be active devices.
Vehicles most likely to be the object of odometer fraud are
older model, high mileage vehicles.
newer model, high mileage vehicles.
older model, low mileage vehicles.
newer model, low mileage vehicles.
The Federal Boating Safety Act of 1971 required
all boats to be registered.
boats to have a 12-character hull identification number.
a minimum prison sentence for anyone convicted of driving a boat under the influence of alcohol or drugs.
The theft of avionics is lucrative because of
the lack of security at airports.
the lack of concern by sales outlets about the source of used equipment.
the ease of removing identifying numbers.
When referring to aircraft identification, what is the significance of the "N" number?
The "N" number is found on each side of the aircraft or on the vertical tail.
The "N" number designates a plane as being registered in the United States.
Most registered aircraft receive their "N" number when they are manufactured.
All of the preceding are significant in regard to the "N" number.
Motor vehicle theft is one of the most significant issues facing law enforcement today. True False
The term temporary theft isn't used to imply that the crime is not serious but, rather to distinguish joyriding from something more ominous.
The major category of vehicle fraud as described in the textbook usually involves the theft of vehicles by professionals or strangers.
Generally, a salvage vehicle is one that has been damaged or wrecked to such an extent that the cost of repairing is beyond its fair market value. Through a salvage switch, the thief is able to disguise and dispose of stolen vehicles in the legitimate market.
When an insurance fraud is committed by the owner alone, the fraud is often referred to as an "owner give-up."
Heavy construction equipment is commonly referred to as off-road equipment. True False
The big four heavy equipment manufacturers, Case, Caterpillar, Deere, and Ford, began using a standardized 17-character vehicle identification number, the same as automobile manufacturers. True False
The National Insurance Crime Bureau is organized into nine geographic areas, with its headquarters in the Chicago suburb of Palos Hills, Illinois.
The Stolen Auto Recovery (STAR) System can scan storage containers in less than 6 seconds while they continue to move, can identify cargo and compare it to the bill of lading without impeding the flow of commerce.
The scope of the theft of heavy construction equipment has led manufacturers, dealers, law enforcement, and insurers to support the development of a national database of stolen equipment.
Since 1954 American automobile manufacturers have used a ________ instead of an engine number as the primary means of identification.
All cars distributed in the United States since 1970 must have a _______. This sticker, in addition to the required certification statements, also contains the vehicle's VIN.
_______, available from the National Crime Insurance Bureau is currently being used by over 10,000 insurers and law enforcement agencies. The program edits, evaluates, and corrects vehicle identification numbers.
A short circuit in the ________ is the most common excuse offered for automobile fires.
Theft deterrent devices are of two types-passive and active. ________ system requires that the operator do something every time the vehicle is driven or parked.
An inexpensive instant-developing camera and film can be used to document a vehicle before an insurance policy is written. In 1977, ________ became the first state to enact legislation mandating photographic inspection prior to issuance of a policy.
One of the most costly consumer frauds of modern times is ________ fraud, also known as rollbacks and clocking.
Effective November 1, 1972, the Federal Boating Safety Act of 1971 required boats to have a 12 character _______.
Ownership and financial disputes over ________ vessels can be resolved in the federal courts.
The theft of aircraft electronic equipment, or _______, can be a highly lucrative enterprise for thieves.
Describe a chop shop operation.
How does a salvage switch work?
Distinguish false vehicle schemes, false theft schemes, and inflated theft loss schemes.
What are some of the factors contributing to the theft of heavy, also called off-road equipment?
Why is vehicle identification the most difficult and time-consuming task faced by an investigator in an auto theft case?
Which of the following statements about anhydrous ammonia is/are correct?
Anhydrous ammonia is a nitrogen fertilizer.
Anhydrous ammonia is stolen from farms and used in the production of methamphetamine.
Anhydrous ammonia is used in the production of heroin.
Both A and B are correct.
Fossil hunters who invade public and private lands are known as
fossil rustlers.
fossil wranglers.
bone rustlers.
bone diggers.
What is "Operation Rockfish?"
A fossil common in Australia.
A successful joint federal, state, and local law enforcement fossil poaching investigation.
C A national fugitive "round-up" conducted by the U.S. Marshall Service which resulted in the arrest of
. more than two thousand fugitives.
A long-term operation that was responsible for bringing the Rockfish back from the edge of extinction.
Forest economists have estimated that this many trees are illegally cut down annually.
1 in every 10
Which of the following would least likely be the object of a major theft?
Anhydrous ammonia.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Hogs are included within the meaning of livestock.
Harnesses are included within the meaning of tack.
Horse thieves also tend to be tack thieves.
What is a "freezer crime?"
A freezer is stolen along with its contents.
Livestock stolen where the motivation was to obtain food.
A refrigerated truck loaded with meat is stolen and resold.
Surveillance methods that work well in urban areas are generally difficult to execute in rural areas. Given this, rural success depends on
the topography of the area.
the availability of cover for concealment.
the number and position of access roads
all of the preceding allows for rural success.
Approximately 80 percent of all stolen tack is
horse blankets.
flank skirts or cantles.
Which of the following is not one of the major methods of marking horses and cattle for identification as outlined in the textbook?
Electronic microchip.
Ear tags.
What type of livestock identification involves the use of liquid nitrogen or dry ice and alcohol?
Hot-Iron.
Freeze Brands.
Which of the following is the correct way to read a brand?
Left to right.
Top to bottom.
Outside to inside.
All of the choices could be correct.
What are the two broad categories of poachers?
Fishers and hunters.
Opportunists and professionals.
Covert and overt.
In-state and out-of-state.
The illegal taking or possession of game, fish, and other wildlife is known as
hunting out of season.
Artificial light used by poachers at night to take game is known as
illegal sportsman like conduct.
poor gamesmanship.
What is the approximate number of major federal environmental laws that form the basis for Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) programs?
Which of the following is not one of the patterns of enforcement of EPA laws as listed in the textbook?
Acts over which federal, state, and local agencies have concurrent jurisdiction.
Acts over which only the federal government has jurisdiction.
Acts for which there is concurrent federal and state jurisdictional.
Acts for which there is unique state and/or local jurisdiction.
Hazardous waste may be solids, liquids, sledges, or byproducts of manufacturing processes and is a hazard if it contains which of the below characteristics?
The most frequent violators of hazardous waste regulations and laws are
located in the northeast.
small generating firms.
pharmaceutical companies.
Which of the following terms is not part of the acronym T/S/D?
How are treatment, storage, and disposal (T/S/D) crimes committed?
Companies treat hazardous waste without a permit.
Companies improperly identify the nature of the waste or store it under inadequate conditions.
Companies mix it with regular waste for cheaper disposal, or store incompatible chemicals or amounts.
All of the preceding are ways companies commit T/S/D crimes.
Which of the following is not a sign of illegal dumping of hazardous waste?
Suspicious discharge into waterways.
Suspicious vapors in the air.
Discolored and dying vegetation that is unusual for the season.
Unusual and persistent odors.
Patrol officers should approach suspected hazardous spills
with weapons drawn.
with the wind at their back.
from low-lying grounds.
with the wind at their front.
Which of the following is not one of the patterns developed with respect to laws enacted to combat environmental crimes?
Acts over which only the military has jurisdiction.
Acts for which there is concurrent federal and state jurisdiction.
For the investigation of most environmental crimes it is necessary to
use helicopters.
consult with the local mayor.
use only federal law enforcement.
form a team that includes an attorney.
Environmental crimes, such as those involving the illegal treatment, storage, transportation, and disposal of hazardous waste, are often out of the spotlight but nonetheless are of crucial importance.
Private and public land is being invaded by stealthy fossil hunters, who are also described as bonepirates.
Unlike thieves who must sell what they steal to fences for pennies on the dollars, thieves involved in timber theft get full value for their efforts.
Agricriminal is a broad term whose meaning encompasses a variety of products used on farms, including pesticides, fertilizers, and herbicides and refers to the person who steals them.
Livestock refers to jackasses, hogs, mules, and other such species. True False
The majority of cattle rustling thefts are committed by one or two people who take the animal for their own use.
Freezer crime rustlers are easy to capture because they have the meat (evidence) located in their freezers in their residences.
To transport cattle legally, certain written documents may be required, such as a bill of sale, a certificate of consignment, a brand inspector's certificate and/or a shipping or transportation permit among others.
Unfortunately, tack is not always marked for identification, making tracing a very difficult proposition. Some owners have injected a small microchip inside tack to facilitate its recovery.
In its most base state, the purpose of livestock identification is to establish that a particular animal is the property of a specific owner.
When used to identify horses, the ________ is applied to the inside of the top lip, on cattle, the inside of the ear near the mid vein.
________ profiles of expensive horses and bulls are common as a theft deterrent, required by some breed associations and mandated by some insurance companies to prevent insurance scams.
Do not use ________ to protect your property as they are often illegal and frequently injure innocent people or animals.
Poachers are categorized into two types: ________ poachers take much more game because they kill for profit.
At night, aircraft can also be useful in pinpointing places where it appears that artificial light is being used by poachers to take game, a tactic known as _______.
________ may be solids, liquids, sledges, or byproducts of manufacturing processes.
A waste is hazardous if it has one or more of the following characteristics: ignitability, corrosivity,
_______, or toxicity.
________ substances are substances that are harmful or fatal when ingested or absorbed and that, when improperly disposed of on land, may eventually pollute groundwater.
________ crimes are committed by companies that treat hazardous waste without a permit or treat it inadequately, store it without a permit to do so, improperly identify the nature of the waste or store it under inadequate conditions, discharge it into sewers, simply abandon it, mix it with regular waste for cheaper disposal, or store incompatible chemicals or amounts of chemicals beyond their permitted level.
Because of the dangers associated with hazardous-waste sites, investigators must wear ________ suits to protect themselves.
What specialized knowledge is required by the investigator with respect to the theft of agrichemicals?
What generalizations can be made about livestock and tack theft?
State and briefly describe different methods of marking livestock for identification.
What are the two major categories of poachers and how do they differ?
50. Identify and briefly discuss different investigative programs or techniques used by wildlife officers
Which of the following is not an opium-derived drug?
Which of the following statements about morphine is/are correct?
Morphine is obtained from raw opium.
Morphine is the most effective pain reliever known to man.
The use of morphine increased considerably with the invention of the hypodermic syringe.
All statements are correct.
Which of the following statements about heroin is/are correct?
Heroin is a white crystalline powder with a strong sulfur smell.
Heroin was advertised as a cure for morphine dependence but it was soon determined that it was more difficult to cure.
Heroin was developed in 1974.
The darker the color of heroin, the more potent the drug is.
What does the textbook cite as a significant factor in recent heroin overdoses?
The ready availability of heroin on the streets.
The mixture of heroin and morphine injected into the arms of the drug user.
The high-purity concentration of new heroin derivatives (chiva and black tar) from Columbia.
Which of the following statements about OxyContin is incorrect?
OxyContin is a time-released formulation that is effective for up to 12 hours.
The OxyContin active ingredient is morphine.
OxyContin is usually prescribed for cancer patients and has become the drug of choice for addicts and
teenage abusers.
D With the abuse of OxyContin on the rise, police in at least three states are reporting a record number of
. pharmacies being broken into.
The commercial name for meperidine is
Cocaine is most commonly
inhaled or "snorted" through the nose.
taken orally.
taken intravenously.
absorbed through the skin by using moist applicators.
What type of drug is involved in freebasing?
What is the current method of using crystallized methamphetamine?
Taking as a pill.
Both B and C.
What is the name of the drug that is a psychomotor stimulant with a chemical structure similar to methamphetamine that was originally patented in Germany in 1928?
Bayer Aspirin.
Cat or Goob.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a depressant?
Increases energy.
reduces restlessness and emotional tension.
Induces sleep.
Depresses the central nervous system.
Speedballing is a slang word used to describe the simultaneous ingestion, usually through injection, of
heroin and PCP.
PCP and cocaine.
cocaine and LSD.
heroin and cocaine.
Phencyclidine (PCP) is used legally
by psychiatrists treating psychotic patients.
by dentists as a local anesthetic.
in veterinary medicine as a large animal immobilizing agent.
as a medication for skin disorders.
The primary active ingredient of the Peyote Cactus is the hallucinogen
The principal psychoactive substance in marijuana is thought to be
Liquid hashish is produced by concentrating the basic active ingredient in
Any equipment, product, or material of any kind which is primarily intended or designed for use in manufacturing, compounding, converting, concealing, producing, processing, preparing, injecting, ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing into the human body a controlled substance is
drug equipment.
drug paraphernalia.
a drug warehouse.
The history of drug abuse in the United States is intertwined with trends and patterns of not only use but also illicit traffic. The Golden Crescent contributes between 5% and 20% of heroin imported to the United States and is comprised of what three countries?
Burma, Laos and Thailand.
Bolivia, Peru, and Columbia.
Pakistan, Afghanistan and Iran.
Western Europe, Belgium, and Netherlands.
What type of drug informant offers their services in order to identify undercover agents, learn the department's methods, targets, and intelligence?
Problem informants.
Egoistical informants.
Perversely motivated informants.
Informants with "James Bond Syndrome."
The surreptitious observation of persons, places, objects, or conveyances for the purpose of determining criminal involvement is
good police work.
covert operations.
overt operations.
Which statement regarding chemical field tests for narcotics and dangerous drugs is most accurate?
A field test should be performed even if there is only a small amount of the suspected matter available.
The best chemical field tests are presumptive and may produce false positives.
C.It is an acceptable practice for narcotics officers to taste the drug in order to determine if it is, in fact, a controlled substance.
The best place to conduct the final analyses for drugs should be in the evidence/property room.
What rule states that courts will exclude any evidence that is obtained in violation of the Fourth Amendment's provisions against unreasonable searches and seizures, no matter how pertinent it is to the case at hand?
Illegal search warrant rule.
Fourteenth Amendment.
Terry v. Ohio.
Exclusionary Rule.
Most illegal drug laboratory operations are closed as a result of
police raids following investigative work.
an accidental fire started in the drug laboratory.
neighbors in the area acting as vigilantes and setting the laboratory on fire.
rival drug gangs.
Normally when conducting a raid of an illegal crime laboratory, which of the following group(s) should be involved?
Police tactical unit.
Bomb squad.
Hazardous material or chemical waste disposal personnel.
Which of the following is not one of the exceptions to searching without a search warrant?
Consent search.
Open-field searches.
Protected view searches.
Stop and frisk.
Title II of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 classified drugs by Federal Law as belonging to one of five schedules. Schedule I include those drugs having a high potential for abuse and has accepted medical uses in with severe restrictions.
One of the first drugs of abuse was opium. Its pleasurable effects were known as early as 1500 B.C.E. True False
"Cheese" heroin is a combination of heroin and a large quantity of Tylenol-PM tablets. True False
Methadone is a maintenance drug and is used to get the methamphetamine user off drugs and back into society as a productive citizen.
Crack or rock cocaine is made by mixing ordinary cocaine with baking soda and water and then heating the solution in a pot.
Amphetamines stimulate certain areas of the nervous system that control blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory and metabolic rates, all of which will be increased.
Strawberry Quick meth is reportedly popular among new users who snort it because the flavoring can cut down on the taste.
Khat (pronounced "cot") is a leafy import from northeast Africa whose active ingredients are cathinone and cathine.
Methaqualone when administered orally in large doses will produce a coma that may be accompanied by thrashing or convulsions.
Hallucinogenic drugs, natural or synthetic, distort the perception of objective reality. The unpredictability of their effects is the greatest danger to the user.
________ is a slang term that refers to the simultaneous ingestion, usually through injection, of heroin (a depressant) and cocaine (a stimulant).
________ is a semisynthetic compound produced from lysergic acid, a natural substance found in ergot fungus, a disease that affects rye and wheat.
________ hydrochloride is a synthetic drug that was developed in the mid-1960s and is an anesthetic agent that has legitimate uses, mostly in veterinary medicine.
The principal psychoactive substance in marijuana is thought to be _______, a chemical found no where else in nature.
A drug rich resinous secretion from the flowers of the cannabis plant, ________ is processed by drying to produce a drug several times as potent as marijuana.
The term ________ is still widely used, often to include inhalation of a broad range of common products besides glue.
The Golden ________ is made up of Burma, Laos, and Thailand and is known mainly for its heroin and marijuana production.
The most prominent method of electronic surveillance is _______, using third-party eavesdropping devices placed on telephone lines to capture conversations.
The Supreme Court has held that ________ searches outside the curtilage surrounding buildings or homes are not constitutionally protected and are therefore allowable without a search warrant.
A ________ is defined as two or more people entering into an agreement to violate the law with a commission of one or more overt acts in furtherance of the agreement.
What role does the drug methadone play in treating heroin addicts?
What are the effects of cocaine and how is it used?
Discuss OxyContin abuse.
What are some of the effects of PCP?
Discuss Methylenedioxy methamphetamine (MDMA or ecstasy) and its popularity on the party scene and at raves.
A number of categories of drug related confidential informants were discussed in the text. What were these categories?
Identify and discuss the four major categories of drug buy operations.
What are the major exceptions to searching without a search warrant?
How are clandestine drug laboratory operations typically identified?
55. Define a conspiracy, and give examples of the types of conspiracy cases
Which of the following statements about probable cause is correct?
Once probable cause has been established, an arrest must be made.
Probable cause has been established, now proof beyond a reasonable doubt must be affirmed before an arrest is made.
The fact that probable cause exists does not require an arrest be made at that moment.
Absent probable cause, an arrest warrant must be obtained prior to making an arrest.
Which of the following should the investigator ponder prior to making an arrest?
Is the suspect likely to flee if left in the community?
What is the potential danger to others if the suspect is allowed to remain free?
What hardships will be imposed on the suspect by early incarceration?
All of the preceding are considerations.
Once questioning of potential jurors has been completed, what is the challenge that may be used for any reason, except race or gender, to excuse a prospective juror?
Challenge for cause.
Challenge for bias.
Peremptory challenge.
Executive challenge.
When the prosecution is presenting its case, the questioning of witnesses it calls to testify on behalf of the prosecution is called
direct examination.
cross examination.
rebuttal examination.
After the defense rests its case, the prosecution has an opportunity for
re-cross-examination.
At what point in the trial process does the judge have the responsibility of instructing the jury on law applicable to the case and of advising the jury of its responsibilities?
After the juror have been sworn in but before opening statements.
After the prosecution and defense have presented their case.
Before closing statements.
After closing statements.
What is the first rule of evidence?
Proof is not evidence but the combination of individual facts is proof.
To keep a jury from hearing or seeing improper evidence.
Evidence must be relevant to the case at hand.
Determination of the importance of the evidence.
The responsibility of the prosecution to establish guilt beyond and to the exclusion of every reasonable doubt is called the
burden of proof.
burden of going forward with evidence.
preponderance of evidence.
order of proof.
Who carries the burden of going forward with evidence in a trial?
Court officials.
In a civil suit, the party wronged is the plaintiff. What is the burden of proof necessary to win a civil case?
Proof beyond a reasonable doubt.
Preponderance of the evidence.
Probable cause.
Reasonable suspicion.
A combination of all the elements of crime is most properly referred to as
judicial notice.
corpus delicti.
direct evidence.
There are 5 types of evidence identified in the textbook. Which type introduces tangible objects even though they are not identical to real evidence?
Real evidence.
Circumstantial evidence.
Demonstrative evidence.
The type of evidence by which an unknown fact is inferred from a series of known facts is called
opinion evidence.
An individual who testifies in court and who possesses special skills or knowledge not ordinarily possessed by others, acquired through experience, study, observation, or education and who is permitted to interpret such information for the jury, give opinions and draw conclusions is called
a lay witness.
a police officer.
an expert witness.
a forensic scientist.
Which of the following is a reason why hearsay evidence is inadmissible?
It is unreliable and untrustworthy.
It violates two provisions of the Eighth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.
The tendency of information to be fabricated as it becomes secondhand information.
It carries little weight with juries.
Which of the following statement(s) about Crawford v Washington (2004) is/are correct?
Some hearsay evidence, that which contains "testimonial" statements is inadmissible in a criminal
. prosecution if the original declarant is unavailable to testify.
B With this decision, the court unraveled many years of judicial precedents that justified many of the
. exceptions on the basis of trustworthiness and reliability.
C In the years since the Crawford decision, many federal and state cases have been decided and many of
. the decision have conflicted with each other.
An acknowledgement by a person accused of a crime, that he or she is guilty of that crime, is
a disclosure.
an admissibility.
an admission.
a confession.
A command to an individual to appear in court and to bring certain records or documents in his or her possession is called a
subpoena duces tecum.
The function of a witness in court is to
convict the defendant.
relate facts within the witness's knowledge.
interpret facts within the witness's knowledge.
apply the law to the facts of the case.
The most important characteristic of a good witness is
not to show nervousness.
to adequately investigate the case.
to be prepared.
to anticipate the kind of tactics the defense attorney will use in cross-examination.
The process by which individuals swore to tell the truth on the basis of their sacred belief in a supreme being is called a/an.
According to the textbook, for the law enforcement witness, what is the first step in preparation for testifying in court?
Ensure that a complete investigation was conducted.
Ensure that all investigative leads were followed and all avenues explored.
Review all notes, reports, electronic recordings, and physical evidence prior to testifying.
Regarding the proper clothing to wear while testifying in court, all authorities agree that
a uniform should always be worn while testifying.
civilian clothes should always be worn while testifying.
the investigator should wear what he or she was wearing at the time of the arrest.
regardless of what is worn it should be neat and clean.
The process by which an attorney on cross-examination attempts to discredit or contradict the testimony of a witness to show that the witness is unworthy of belief is called
prior inconsistent statements.
destroying competency.
impeaching the witness.
rehabilitating the witness.
In the event that the witness cannot remember the facts of the case but used notes or reports as the sole basis of testimony without any independent recall, the term applied is
report reading.
past recollection recorded.
past recollection read.
past recollection refreshed.
The courtroom process begins with the selection and swearing in of a jury. True False
There is no limit on the number of peremptory challenges but each side has a specific number of challenges for cause.
While the prosecution is presenting its case, the questioning of witnesses the prosecution calls to testify on behalf of the prosecution is called direct examination.
The prosecution has the opportunity to conduct a redirect examination of the defendant after completion of cross-examination.
Proof can be defined as anything that tends logically to prove or disprove a fact at issue in a judicial case or controversy.
The rules of admissibility protect the trier of fact, generally a jury, from hearing improper evidence that may be unreliable or untrustworthy and that may prejudice the case unjustifiably against the defendant.
One of the rules governing the admissibility of evidence allows evidence that is not relevant to the case to be admitted if the defense does not object to it.
Weight of evidence deals with the elements of persuasion and believability. True False
An inference is similar to a presumption but differs in that the jury has more latitude in accepting or rejecting an inference.
The defense has carried the burden of going forward with evidence to convince the jury of a reasonable doubt of guilt. This is equivalent to the prosecution's burden of proving the defendant guilty beyond a reasonable doubt.
In a civil case, the party allegedly wronged is called the _______.
The ________ is the combination of all the elements of the crime.
Sometimes referred to as physical evidence, ________ evidence is connected with the commission of the crime and can be produced in court.
________ is derived from "heard said" and is inadmissible in court because of it inaccuracy, unreliability, and untrustworthiness.
One who makes ________ does not acknowledge all the facts surrounding the crime necessary to constitute guilt but does admit to certain facts or circumstances from which guilt may be inferred by the jury.
A ________ concerning the facts and circumstances of the fatal injury made by the victim of a homicide who is about to die, and does not hope to recover is admissible as an exception to the hearsay rule.
Some of the more common evidentiary privileges fall into four categories. The ________ privileges include those that exist between attorney and client, physician and patient, priest and penitent, and journalist and informant.
________ is the process used before testimony by individuals who for personal reasons refuse to take an oath.
The type of evidentiary privilege that involves communication between an attorney and their client is referred to as _______.
In the rules of evidence, using notes and reports simply to refresh the memory is referred to as
During an ongoing criminal investigation, what factors must the criminal investigator consider in deciding whether to make an arrest and when to make it?
Define the following concepts: (1) evidence; (2) proof; (3) testimony; (4) admissibility; (5) relevancy; (6) materiality; (7) competency of evidence; (8) competency of witnesses; and (9) weight of evidence.
Distinguish "burden of proof" from "burden of going forward with evidence."
Describe the manner in which circumstantial evidence is used in a criminal prosecution.
What is the hearsay rule and why does it exist?
Discuss the exceptions to the hearsay rule of confessions, admissions, spontaneous and excited utterance, dying declaration and former testimony.
For what proposition does the U.S. Supreme Court case of Crawford v. Washington stand?
What factors affect the credibility of the investigator as a witness?
How important are a witness's appearance and demeanor to credibility?
When and how may a witness use notes on the witness stand?
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A HISTORY OF PSYCHOLOGY IDEAS AND CONTEXT 4TH EDITION BY KING – TEST BANK
Test Bank Of Seeing Sociology An introduction 3rd edition By Joan ferrante
Test Bank Of Human Sexuality 3rd Edition by Roger R. Hock
TEST BANK FOR DISCOVERY SERIES INTRODUCTION TO LIFESPAN 1ST EDITION BY RATHUS


Honour or power? Ned Stark's choice to value honour first is, Hachiavelli has told us, the wrong choice for a ruler. In Cersei Lannister's eyes it is a poor choice that renders the King's Hand vulnerable. It is also a fatal weakness for the Lord of Winterfell who falls victim to a conspiracy organized by Cersei, Varys and Petyr Baelish.
It is Baelish who embraces the opportunities in courtly politics. Honour is a weakness and a myth, like the stories of how many swords have been forged into the Iron Throne. Disputes and disorder are opportunities for ambitious men such as Petyr who can see that, yes, some people will fall and others will shy away but men such as Littlefinger will eagerly grab at the opportunities.
Would Machiavelli have agreed with this philosophy? Maybe not. He had the firsthand experience of living through a moment of great change and reversal. The Medici restoration had not only removed him from power but resulted in his imprisonment, torture and barely-tolerated existence under house arrest for some time afterwards. Machiavelli had learned to be wary of the unexpected and unpredictable in politics.
So, when others claim that Littlefinger perfectly parallels Machiavelli, I have to differ. So far, Petyr Baelish has not experienced the real reversals of fortune that Machiavelli knew so well in his life prior to writing The Prince. The rest of Baelish's history in Westeros has yet to be written, of course: quite literally with Martin still completing the final two books in his series. Perhaps he will find that chaos is not so enjoyable when it turns against him in the future. Fans will have to wait and see.


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text:
Supporting World Malaria Day 2017
BioMed Central is proud to support World Malaria Day 2017
Dear Prof CERASALE MORTEO,
Malaria thrives in areas of poverty, adding further economic and social strain on these societies. Many of those most vulnerable to the disease, especially young children and pregnant women, are not able to access the preventative tools, diagnostics and therapeutics that could save their lives. In 2015, 429,000 deaths occurred – most of these were young children.
On World Malaria Day 2017, and indeed every day, BioMed Central is proud to support efforts to reduce the global malaria burden by publishing the latest malaria research and making it free to access.
BioMed Central is proud to be publishing research that aids the fight against Malaria- take a look at our dedicated landing page here to see a collection of articles, blogs and quizzes in relation to World Malaria Day.
Malaria Journal: Brand New Series
Ivermectin to reduce malaria transmission
Hundreds of millions of people have received ivermectin every year in campaigns against onchocerciasis and lymphatic filariasis with excellent safety profile. It is also an endectocide, a drug capable of killing mosquitoes feeding on treated subjects. In the face of the challenges posed by insecticide resistance and residual transmission, mass drug administration of endectocides holds potential as a complementary strategy for malaria elimination.
This 'Ivermectin to reduce malaria transmission' thematic series in the Malaria Journal aims at providing a comprehensive assessment and factors to consider in adapting this tool for a potential new indication.
ACT now: anti-malarial market complexity one decade after the introduction of artemisinin combination therapy – evidence from sub-Saharan Africa and the Greater Mekong Sub-region
This series provides a comprehensive contemporary view of anti-malarial markets across several countries in SSA and the GMS, examining current levels of access to quality-assured first-line treatments and malaria diagnostics, and documenting the persistence of other non-first line medicines. This evidence serves as a benchmark for public and private sector initiatives that have aimed to scale up access to first-line treatment and confirmatory testing. Evidence can guide future strategies aimed at improving malaria case management and for accelerating progress towards malaria elimination.
Take our Quiz!
How much do you know about Malaria? Test your knowledge and take our quiz!
Get started here.
More top content
The association between malaria and malnutrition among under-five children in Shashogo District, Southern Ethiopia: a case-control study
GONE ET AL, INFECTIOUS DISEASES OF POVERTY
Severe malaria in Europe: an 8-year multi-centre observational study
KURTH ET AL, MALARIA JOURNAL
Interview with ACTWatch's Kate O'Connell
BUGBITTEN BLOG
The use of Ivermectin in blocking malaria transmission – a discussion
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redpajama_set_name: RedPajamaCommonCrawl


This stunning Khoury Vogt Architects architectural masterpiece is located 2nd tier from the Gulf of Mexico on the iconic Alys Beach Gulf Green. This luxurious home lends itself to stunning Gulf Views from nearly every angle. Mediterranean in style, the home features a cascading rooftop pool perfect for a sunset sinking into the Gulf of Mexico. The first level hosts a two car garage, one of two laundry rooms, and a very generous bedroom suite opening to a private courtyard to the east and patio to the west overlooking the Gulf Green. This bedroom suite offers both privacy & gorgeous decor with custom interiors. The second floor welcomes an open kitchen extending into the living room and dining room featuring gulf views. The Gulf air is carried into the living & kitchen area byof custom slider doors opening to the balcony having a grill & furnishings to enjoy this home to the fullest. This balcony accepts the kind breezes and views of the Gulf of Mexico creating the perfect beach side life style. The living room fireplace is representative of art as it is the focal point of the room. The DCS professional 48" range, dual drawer dishwasher, wine refrigerator, & ice maker allows entertaining for many. Two sets of bunk beds in the second bedroom on the 2nd floor provide generous room for large families having its own private bath. The third bedroom represents the ideal guest master suite featuring a King Bed, beautiful dual vanity, generous walk-in decorative tile shower with large balcony accepting views of the Gulf Green and the beach. The master bedroom is a work of art located on the fourth floor offering a King Bed, fireplace, separate tub and shower, make-up vanity and more stunning views of the Gulf. The balcony is furnished to enjoy the sounds & breezes provided by the Gulf. Round oak vaulted ceiling beams create a harmonious space unlike no other. A very large closet allows for full time living and this floor holds the 2nd laundry for the home. Limestone floors carry both the 1st & second floors with hardwood oak living in the remainder which marry perfectly with the oak inlays and variations of marble & concrete countertops throughout the home. All professionally designed furnishings convey with this showcase property. Entertaining from the roof top is ideal for soaking in the pool or hosting an intimate party by use of the summer kitchen and seating. Three of the bedrooms feature King beds with the 4th bedroom having two sets of bunk beds. The location of this home cannot be duplicated truly making it authentic and a must see.
Property Summary (MLS® #: 812927): Located in ALYS BEACH at 33 Sea Foam Alley in the 32461 zip code, this beautiful South Walton East home was built in 2014. The property is 3391 sq.ft. and features 4 bedrooms and 5 bathrooms. At a price of $6,195,000, this listing has been on DavisProp.com for 118 days. The home is close to BAY Elementary School, EMERALD COAST Middle School and SOUTH WALTON High School.
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Listing information last updated on April 18th, 2019 at 3:45pm CDT.


text:
Суперпрезидентська республіка — нетипова форма правління, форма державного правління, яка характеризується юридичним та фактичним зосередженням усіх важелів державної влади в руках президента.

Характеристика
Суперпрезидентська форма правління — це фактично незалежна, неконтрольована на практиці законодавчою, виконавчою чи судовою гілкою влади система державного управління, основною рисою якої є гіпертрофована президентська влада. Ця форма правління, як правило, має на увазі принцип прямих виборів президента виборцями фактично без проміжних органів або інстанцій.
Вона передбачає великі повноваження президента, закріплені в текстах конституцій і реально здійснювані на практиці. Насамперед, це повноваження його як глави держави.

У суперпрезидентських республіках статус президента як керівника нації являє собою його безумовне верховенство в системі всіх державних органів.
У таких республіках конституції передбачали:

1) періодичне переобрання глави;

2) довічних президентів, «керівників держави» (було наявним для країн з однопартійною державною системою).

Значно посилюють повноваження президента в суперпрезидентських республіках великі надзвичайні повноваження.
Ці повноваження можуть бути ефективно використані практично в будь-яких ситуаціях, починаючи від міждержавного збройного конфлікту та закінчуючи внутрішніми безладами.
У країнах з такою формою правління виконавча влада, яка очолюється президентом, має верх над іншими гілками влади. Як правило законодавча влада є дуже слабкою, і тому президент має достатньо засобів і методів для тиску на неї.

Положення політичних партій є нестабільним і дуже часто під час військових переворотів їх діяльність буває повністю заборонена. В основному політичні партії в країнах з суперпрезидентської формою правління носять придаткових характер. Щоб контролювати їх дії, вводиться спеціальний адміністративно-поліцейський контроль.
І хоча за конституцією баланс влади існує, на ділі домінує президент, і його повноваження значно перевищують повноваження інших гілок влади.

Вперше поняття суперпрезидентської республіки було сформовано на базі латиноамериканської практики систем правління та мало своє використання для досліджень саме цього регіону.

Правові ознаки суперпрезидентської республіки
Суперпрезидентську республіку характеризують:
 Концентрація всієї повноти влади в руках «сильного» президента, який у таких випадках може бути не тільки главою держави, а й главою виконавчої влади, лідером правлячої політичної партії.
 Фактично нічим не обмежене право президента розпустити парламент.
 Право президента призначати на посаду та звільняти з посади керівників місцевих адміністрацій, суддів.
 Право президента вводити на власний розсуд режим надзвичайного та воєнного стану.
 Практична неможливість відмови президента від посади.
 Деформація або повна відсутність системи «стримувань» і «противаг», яка є обов'язковою умовою балансу законодавчої, виконавчої та судової влади.
 Орієнтація всіх державних структур на чолі з президентом на встановлення монократичного режиму, при якому відсутня справжня демократія, а права і свободи громадян носять формальний, а нерідко і фіктивний характер.

Класифікація та види суперпрезидентських республік

Деякі дослідники класифікують суперпрезидентські республіки на три види:

1. Президентсько-монократична республіка — форма державного правління, за якої президент очолює єдину дозволену в країні партію, яка є носієм офіційно проголошеної та обов'язкової державної ідеології (переважно країни Африки у XX ст. — Гана, Гвінея, Конго в 1965—1997 рр.).

2. Президентсько-мілітарна республіка — форма державного правління, що встановлюється в результаті військового перевороту з проголошенням його керівника главою держави (Чилі в 1973—1990 рр.).

3. Президентсько-партократична республіка — різновид президентської республіки в країнах із соціалістичною ідеологією, де президент обирається вищим органом єдиної в державі правлячої партії (Ангола, Бенін, Конго, Мозамбік)

Негативні риси
Негативними рисами суперпрезидентської форми правління вважають:
 Неможливість встановлення демократичного ладу.
 Наближення до монархічного строю.
 Велика залежність від однієї особи.
 Не завжди справедлива діяльність усіх гілок влади (в тому числі судової).
 Слабкий партійно-політичний розвиток.
 Можливість зловживання владою.

Країни з суперпрезидентською республікою
До країн з суперпрезидентською республікою відносять країни Латинської Америки ХІХ ст., Африки та країни пострадянського простору. Але у процесі розвитку суспільства ці країни пережили зміни щодо правлячих форм. Із суперпезидентських у президентські республіки перетворилися: Гватемала, Гондурас, Домініканська Республіка, Колумбія, Коста-Рика, Мексика, Нікарагуа, Панама, Парагвай, Перу тощо. З Африки перетворення зазнали: Зімбабве, Замбія, Малі, Гвінея, Гана, Республіка Конго тощо. Прикладами країн пострадянського простору, які змінили суперпрезидентську республіку на іншу форму правління є: Туркменістан — президентська республіка з однопартійною системою; Казахстан — президентська республіка, Білорусь — напівпрезидентська республіка.

Проте на практиці деякі вчені вважають, що Росія та Білорусь, незалежно від статей конституцій цих держав, є замаскованими суперпрезидентськими республіками. Таких висновків вони прийшли дивлячись на взаємодію голови держави з іншими гілками влади (виконавча влада на чолі з президентом складає добре налагоджену деталь державного апарату в той час, коли законодавча та судова гілки зазнають впливу та не носять розвинений характер).

Див. також
 Нетипові форми правління
 Президент
 Демократія
 Монархія
 Державний апарат
 Президентська республіка
 Держава
 Парламент
 Політична партія
 Форма державного правління
 Напівпрезидентська республіка

Примітки

Література
 Чиркин В. Е. Конституционное право зарубежных стран / В. Е. Чиркин. — М. : Юристъ, 1997. — 568 с.

Республіка

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